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CRIME DETECTION & INVESTIGATION
THE ULTIMATE FINAL COACHING
Prepared by: PROF. ARTEMIO BURCE I, RCrim. MSCJ(c), CSSP, CSIP, SPTTC, LEC Oct 2014 Top 2
*Fundamentals of Criminal Investigation
1. The art which deals with the identity, location and
arrest of a person who committed a particular crime
and concurrently includes identification, collection,
preservation and evaluation of evidence for the
purpose of bringing criminal offender to the bar of
justice.
a. investigation c. probe
b. criminal investigation d. investigative
process
2. It is the duty of the investigator that after
determination that a crime was committed, the
cardinal points shall be also determine. Which of
among the following answers to the question “What
is the motive of the crime commission”?
a. What is the crime committed?
b. How the crime was committed?
c. Where and when it was committed?
d. Why it was committed?
3. It pertains to the proving of the identity of the
perpetrator of the crime charged, by demonstrating
that the defendant had committed in the past other
crimes sharing with present offense features
significantly unique to make it likely that the same
person or group of persons committed the several
crimes.
A. Modus Operandi C. Animus Lucrandi
B. Corpus Delicti D. Animo Furandi
4. Among the following, which is the main reason
why crimes are investigated?
A. Establish in fact, a crime was committed
B. Recover stolen properties
C. Identify and apprehend the suspect
D. Provide accurate details of the case
5. Elements of corpus delicti are?
i. Proof of occurrence of a certain event
ii. Person’s criminal responsibility of the acts
iii. Additional evidence of a different
character the same point
iv. Cadaver of the dead victim or evidence of
the stolen property
A. i and iii C. i and ii
B. ii and iv D. iv only
6. What do we refer to the summary of habits,
techniques and peculiarities of behavior
characterizing the operational procedure employed
by certain offenders?
A. Means C. Modus Operandi
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B. Coercion D. Criminal tactics
7. Which of the following notion regarding criminal
investigation is true?
1. Criminal Investigation is an art for it is not
governed by rigid rules
2. Crime Probe is governed by intuition, felicity of
inspiration and chance or luck
3. Criminal Investigation is governed by rigid rules
4. Criminal investigation involves application of
various sciences therefore it is a science
A. 1, 2 and 3 C. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 4 D. 3 and 4 only
8. When a person is under questioning and custody,
he needs to be informed of his constitutional rights.
Which among the following forms of questioning in
which the appraisal of such rights is not applicable?
a. Custodial Investigation
b. Custodial Interrogation
c. Tactical Interrogation
d. Field Inquiry
9. A tool of criminal investigation, in which tangible
things can be applied in the detection of crimes,
identification of the perpetrator, which enable to
assist the investigator in his task in achieving the
objectives of criminal investigation.
a. Information c. Instrumentation
b. Intuition d. Interview/Interrogation
10. Which of the following is NOT one of the forms of
information the investigator obtained from regular,
cultivated or grapevine sources?
A. Sensory C. Concrete
B. Written D. Physical Forms
11. The following questions are part of the
cardinal points of criminal investigation, EXCEPT:
A. How was the crime committed?
B. Why was the crime committed?
C. What is the offender's marital status?
D. Where was the crime committed?
12. Criminal Investigation is the reaction of the law
enforcement to a crime committed. Identification of
criminals as the initial phase of criminal investigation
can be done in any/combination of the subsequent
means, except:
1. by confession or admission by the criminal
2. by circumstantial evidence and associative
evidence
3. by presentation of corpus delicti
4. by description of eyewitness
a. 1, 2 and 3 c. 1, 2 and 4
b. 1 only d. 3 only

13. Extra judicial confessions and admissions that
were given thru coercion, duress and physical
torture raised its inadmissibility in court due the
reason that:
a. It was involuntary given due to deprivation
of free will
b. It was given out of freedom or liberty
c. truthful statements due to fear
d. it is accord to voluntariness and
truthfulness
14. After apprising him of his rights under Republic
Act 7438, Bogart T. Gastite who was invited and
interrogated for the crime of murder executed an
extra-judicial confession acknowledging his guilt to
the crime charged. What are the minimum
requirements needed for such extrajudicial
confession be admissible as evidence in court?
1. It must be taken under oath in the presence of his
counsel
2. Confession be reduced into writing, in a particular
dialect known to the confessant himself
3. Such confession must be given voluntarily
4. The same must be signed by the confessant or
otherwise thumb marked
a. 1, 2 and 3 c. 1, 2, 3 and 4
b. 1 and 3 d. 1, 3 and 4
15. The tool of investigation which may be useful
in establishing the presence of the suspect at
the crime scene due to physical evidence
discovered therein is
A. interrogation C. information
B. interview D. instrumentation
16. What should be established first before or during
the conduct of interview or interrogation?
A. Intent in commission of the crime
B. Rapport with the suspect.
C. Motive that impels the offender.
D. Guilt of the suspect.
17. The interview of a witness can be described by
the acronym IRONIC, which stands for?
A. Inquiry, Recognition, Organization, Novelty
Identity, Continuity
B. Identity, Rapport, Omnipresent, Narration, Inquiry,
Conclusion
C. Identity, Recognition, Opening Statement,
Narration, Inquiry, Conclusion
D. Identity, Rapport, Opening Statement, Narration,
Inquiry, Conclusion
18. Statement No. 1 Confession is a voluntary
statement, either oral or written, made by a person
charged with an offense which he admits
participation in, or commission of the criminal act. It
cannot be implied; it should be direct and positive
acknowledgment of guilt. Statement No. 2 Admission
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is a statement by the accused regarding the facts
pertinent to the crime. It tends, in connection with the
proof of other facts, to prove the suspect’s guilt.
A. Statement No. 1 is true while statement
No. 2 is false
B. Statement No. 1 is false while statement
No. 2 is true
C. Statement No. 1 and 2 are both true
D. Statement No. 1 and 2 are both false
19. The similarities of interview and interrogation is
apparently shown in __________.
A. careful listening of the investigator
B. investigator’s control of the place
C. good questioning technique
D. the purpose of questioning
20. Interrogation is dynamic, it involves human
beings whose conduct is under the watchful eyes of
the law. Which of the following is NOT true
concerning interrogation?
A. The purpose of interrogation is to test
information already obtained.
B. Strict pre-interrogation legal requirements
and information of rights and warnings are
required.
C. The nature of interrogation is adversarial
or hostile relationship.
D. Interrogation has minimal, without or no
pre-interview legal requirements nor right
warnings.
21. The following are facts about confession, except:
a. Confession is a voluntary statement,
either oral or written.
b. It cannot be implied.
c. it should be direct and positive
acknowledgment of guilt.
d. It can be implied
22. Rastaman, an interrogee in a criminal
investigation, broke down in tears after he was
asked by PCpl Bato regarding the death of his
co-boarder.
A. Confession C. Admission
B. Deposition D. Acknowledgement
23. Circumstantial Evidence is an evidence that
indirectly proves a fact in issue through an inference
which fact-finder draws from the evidence
presented. It is sufficient to produce the conviction of
the accused if:
1. There are more than one circumstances present
2. The facts from which the inferences derived are
proven
3. The circumstances presented should be
supported by testimonial evidence
4. The combination of all the circumstances is such
as to produce a conviction beyond reasonable doubt
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A. 1 and 3 C. 1, 2 and 3 31. It refers to Police files of Photograph of known

B. 2 and 4 D. 1, 2 and 4 criminals, their Modus Operandi, hiding places and
24. Ping told the police that the night when the body names of associate criminals.
of Leni was found dead, he saw Manny running A. Verbal description
away from the house carrying a knife. What kind of B. Cartographic Sketch
evidence will be the testimony of Ping? C. General Photograph
A. Direct Evidence C. Indirect D. Rogues Gallery
B. Associative Evidence D. Tracing 32. The systematic procedure for verbal description
25. Which of the following is NOT a physical of a person after a short period of visual observation
evidence? is termed Portrait Parle; the description of police
A. Corpus delicti characters which a witness may refer and that is
B. Trace evidence kept by police unit for purpose of references is
C. Associative evidence ___________.
D. Documentary evidence a. Police files c. Rogues Gallery
26. What kind of evidence are personal effects like b. Speaking likeness d. Modus Operandi
latent prints, shoe impressions, and the likes which 33. Assume that you are an investigator who
are discovered during the processing of the crime investigates a murder case perpetrated by an
scene linking the suspect thereto? unknown suspect. A person named Eddie Wow, a
A. Real Evidence call center agent, saw the crime and he is willing to
B. Associative evidence identify the suspect. Which of the following methods
C. Circumstantial evidence will you not utilize to establish the identity of the
D. Personal evidence suspect?
27. The police operatives were tasked to trace a A. Verbal Description (Portrait Parle) and
fugitive. Which of the following information for his Rogue’s Gallery (Photographic Files)
capture will you consider? B. General Photographs and Cartographic
1. His full name, known aliases, description and Sketch (Artist’s Assistance) [Composite
distinctive marks, modus operandi, motive and Artist]
associates C. Police Line-up
2. His habits, hangouts, criminal record, residence, D. Systematic interview that may lead to the
employment, relatives and close friends identity of a known criminals
3. His physical condition, LTO records check, SSS 34. Portrait Parle is correctly defined by which of the
number, and selective service history and following?
handwriting specimen a. The verbal, accurate, and pictures
A. 1 and 2 C. 1 and 3 description of the person identified
B. 2 and 3 D. 1, 2, and 3 b. It is the file of pictures of missing or
28. The following are the three-fold aim of wanted person
criminal investigation EXCEPT to: c. The use of anthropometrical
A. prosecute the suspect measurement of human body as the basis
B. gather evidence of guilt of the suspect for identification
C. locate the suspect d. It is the used of several evidence to
D. identify the suspect eliminate or include in choice for
29. Which of the following CANNOT prove the identification
identity of the suspect? 35. The process whereby witnesses describe the
A. Confession “police characters” or suspects for references is
B. Circumstantial evidence _____________.
C. Modus operandi A. line-up C. portrait parle
D. Associative evidence B. observation D. rouge gallery
30. The following are modes by which the 36. It refers to a process of identifying unknown
identity of the suspect may be known EXCEPT fugitive commonly done in a headquarters who is
A. by corpus delicti C. confession or mixed with innocent person lined before the witness.
admission A. Police Lineup C. Physical Show up
B. eyewitnesses D. circumstantial evidence B. A or C D. Police Identity
37. You are an investigator, investigating a
suspected rape-slaying case which was allegedly

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witnessed by a certain person who volunteered to 43. What is this method of shadowing where the
identify and testify against the perpetrator. What are operatives are stationed at a fixed place in
the factors that you should consider in determining assumption that the subject follows the same
the accuracy of his identification of the suspect? general route every day?
1. His ability to observe and remember the distinct A. Fixed surveillance
appearance of the suspect B. ABC method
2. The prevailing conditions of visibility and C. Leap frog method
observation when the crime was committed D. Combined fixed/auto surveillance
3. His state of mind when he witnessed the 44. The process in surveillance wherein the subject
commission of the crime or suspect is being guarded against by one who
4. The lapse of time between the criminal event and usually stays at the rear of the subject is _____.
when identification was made A. two-man shadow
a. 1, 2 and 3 c. 1, 2 and 4
b. 2, 3 and 4 d. 1, 2, 3 and 4 B. convoy
38. When conducting an interview of the witness, the C. one-man shadow
following are suggested consideration in order to D. envoy
evaluate the credibility of the witness EXCEPT the 45. A prober who is discreetly listening to the
_________. conversation of the subjects while the former is
A. direction the witness was coming from to seated on a table near the latter’s table is practicing:
going to. A. discreet listening C. wiretapping
B. consciousness of the witness to the time B. eavesdropping D. bugging
the event took place. 46. Forensic specialists has the duty to train
C. witness is not under the influence of investigators and crime searchers in the _______
alcohol or drugs. of evidence.
D. capability of the witness to understand A. interpretation C. cataloguing
the obligation to tell the truth. B. recognition D. analysis
39. The largest volume of evidence received by 47. The mere invitation of the suspect under R.A.
the crime laboratory is in relation to 7438 is already considered as the beginning of
A. murders and homicide ___________.
B. ballistics examination A. detention C. informing of
C. illegal drugs rights
D. falsification of documents B. custody D. arrest
40. While investigating a case, you stumbled on 48. Persons who can visit a suspect are as follows,
an intelligence records which could be important except:
for your investigation. Probably the GREATEST A. Lovers, friends and countrymen
problem of Intelligence records as the basis for B. Immediate member of his family
an on-going investigation is that they are not C. Any medical doctor, priest or religious
A. purged, thus, not totally current minister
B. given to the investigator on time D. Personnel of the C.H.R.
C. always completely accurate 49. Republic Act No. 7438 defines immediate
D. the full story members of the family are as follows, except:
41. This is known as the covert observation of a A. Spouse, fiancé/fiancée, parents, child,
person, place, or things by human or technical brother or sister
means to acquire information. B. Grandparents, grandson/daughter, great
A. Surveillance C. Mobile granddaughter/grandson
B. Stationary surveillance D. Technical C. Uncle, aunt, guardian, ward
42. An investigation technique whereby the D. Relatives, intimate friends and best
operative conceals his true identity and adopts an friends
assumed role to obtain information or accomplish a 50. Custodial investigation shall include the practice
specific mission. of issuing an invitation to a person who is
A. Undercover assignment investigated in connection with the offense he
B. Work assignment and social assignment committed. Hence, the investigator must inform the
C. Dwelling assignment suspect of his following constitutional rights, except:
D. Personal contact assignment A. Remain silent C. Right to bail

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B. Counsel of his own choice D. none
51. During custodial investigation in the police
station, Alpha confessed that he was the one who
killed Charlie because the latter killed his brother a
week ago. He voluntarily signed a statement
containing his confession, but he refused the
assistance of a lawyer claiming that he is not
capable of paying the services of a private counsel.
Is the confession admissible as evidence?
A. Yes, because the confession is in writing.
B. Yes, because it was voluntary given by
the suspect
C. No, because it is not a confession but an
admission.
D. No, because he made the confession
without the assistance of a counsel.
52. What is this evidence that has a mass and
occupies space?
A. Physical C. Testimonial
B. Circumstantial D. Hearsay
53. As a rule, it would not be sufficient for police
officers just to recite Section 12, Art 3 of the
constitution. He is also duty bound to _________.
A. Communicate what the person under
interrogation may or may not do
B. Tell the person of the rights to which he is
detained
C. Explain the effect of some rights in
practical terms
D. None of them
54. Alpha went to the police station and confessed to
PSgt Bravo that he killed Charlie and that the murder
weapon he used is in their house in Laguna. Alpha
even offer to escort the police to their house to seize
the deadly weapon to which the Police Officer
acceded. During such extra-judicial confession, no
counsel was present. Will the confession be
admissible in court?
A. Yes, because it is voluntary
B. No, because it was given in the absence
of a counsel.
C. Yes, because all are consented and not
against the will of the confessant.
D. No, because there was no written waiver
executed.
55. In the above scenario what principle of law will
you apply as regards the extra-judicial confession?
a) Exclusionary rule of Evidence
b) Double Jeopardy
c) Fruits of the Poisonous tree
d) Relevancy rule
56. Is the deadly weapon admissible in evidence?
a. Yes, since the search and seizure is
consented.
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b. No, because that is illegally obtained
evidence.
c. Yes, for there was no coercion, torture nor
duress in the taking of the weapon.
d.NO, for it is the fruit of the poisonous tree
being a result of illegal obtained confession.
57. Called “Exclusionary Rules” whereby evidence
obtained in violation thereof is inadmissible.
1. Rights against unreasonable search and seizures
2.Right to privacy of communication and
correspondence
3. In-custodial investigation rights and right against
self-incrimination
4. Right to counsel
A. 1 and 3 C. 1, 2 and 3
B. 2 and 4 D. 2, 3 and 4
58. Criminal investigation of homicide or murder is a
discovery process. The investigator seeks to
discover and document the following IMPORTANT
facts, EXCEPT the:
A. cause of death C. identity of the offender
B. investigative process D. type of death or crime
59. What is the APPROPRIATE term to describe the
vitiation of freewill by threats and other methods of
instilling fear?
A. Intimidation C. Threats
B. Duress D. Coercion
60. When taking and documenting the confession of
the suspect, the following are suggested to be done,
EXCEPT to _____________.
A. assume the literacy of the suspect.
B. have additional witness to verify the
statement made.
C. have all errors corrected and initiated by
the suspect.
D. make sure that the page of the
confession be numbered consecutively
61. The suspect is a lawyer and does not want the
assistance of another lawyer. Will you allow the
interrogation to proceed?
A. Yes, after all he is a lawyer, he knows his
rights.
B. None of these.
C. No, because the investigator may be
charged criminally.
D. No, because the confession will not be
admissible in court.
62. Aware that you did not follow the legal
requirements in your conduct of custodial
interrogation, therefore, you are aware that legal
consequence of which is that the evidence you
obtained is __________.
A. still valid C. not valid

B. admissible D. inadmissible
63. The following are some of the elements of
investigative process EXCEPT:
A. collection C. preservation
B. recognition D. presentation
64. Which of the following is part of the Golden
Rules in homicide investigation?
A. Be careful with the processing of the
evidence at the crime scene.
B. The investigator is the heart and soul of
investigation.
C. Every crime leaves an evidence that
points to the suspect.
D. Never touch, alter and change the
position of anything until measured and
photographed.
65. PCpl Mal Atuba, a criminologist, who come upon
a body and not sure that death has taken place. His
first action should be:
A. To call a priest to save the soul of the
victim
B. Pray for the soul of the victim
C. Summon medical assistance
D. Determine whether the person is still alive
66. You are the first responder in the crime scene.
How will you protect an outdoor crime scene?
A. Establish a command center
B. Barricade and guard the crime scene
C. Lock the door of the crime scene
D. Wait for the arrival of SOCO
67. The following are agreed reasons why many
contemporary investigators argue that the
success of most criminal investigations begin at
the crime scene EXCEPT
A. it is at the crime scene where vital physical
evidence can be discovered
B. it is at the crime scene where the modus
operandi of the criminal can be discovered and
established
C. it is at the crime scene where vital information
can be learned
D. it is at the crime scene where vital witnesses
can be located, or sometimes the suspect
arrested
68. What kind of evidence that can be
associated with the group?
A. Individual characteristics
B. Testimonial evidence
C. Class characteristics
D. Physical evidence
69. Physical evidence that may lead you as a police
investigator to the identity of the suspect could be
found in:
a. The crime scene d. The SOCO
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b. The witness e. The suspect
c. The victim
A. a, b, c, d C. a, c, e
B. a, b, c, d, e D. Only a
70. The victim, the scene of the crime and the
suspect was regarded as the triangle of evidence.
Which among the following is the primary source of
evidence?
A. victim C. crime scene
B. suspect D. all of these
71. PLT JONEL is examining a crime scene, which a
dead victim sustained a gunshot wound in the head
with a handgun near his hand. He was informed that
the victim had a painful terminal illness. PLT JONEL
concluded that the wound is self-inflicted. This is an
example which the investigator used what kind of
reasoning?
A. Deductive C. Reasonable
B. Logical D. Inductive
72. Physical evidence is generally given weight by
the courts because -
i. it speaks for its self
ii. it cannot lie
iii. not affected by emotion
iv. addressed to the senses of court
A. i, ii and iii C. i and ii
B. ii and iii D. iv only
73. The desk officer upon receipt of the crime
incident shall have the following duties, except:
A. Inform his superior officer or duty officer
regarding the report
B. Record the date and time the report was
made
C. Immediately respond to the crime scene
D. Made a synopsis of the incident
74. What is this process wherein confession is
used to describe the events of the crime?
A. Re-enactment of crime
B. Reconstruction of crime scene
C. Mental reconstruction of crime
D. Physical reconstruction of crime
75. PATROLMAN WHAMOS, is the first officer to
arrive at the scene of a shooting incident. He saw
the victim lying on the pavement sustaining multiple
gunshot wounds, but still moving. What is the proper
course of action he should take?
A. Ask the desk officer to proceed to the
crime scene and assist him with the
situation.
B. Call the investigator and inquire about his
decision concerning the victim.
C. Evacuate the victim and bring him to the
nearest hospital
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D. Cordon the area and wait for the SOCO B. By notes D. Surveying
Team to arrive 83. Photographs to be taken at the scene of the
76. Upon arrival of the first responder at the crime crime, except:
scene, the victim is already dead, and the former A. Over-All and environment’s photograph
was able to recover the firearm and shells/bullets B. Photographs of articles of evidence and
and the suspect is running. What would be the photographs of the deceased
immediate action to be done by the First C. Photographs of the scene of the crime
Responder? operatives showing their identity
A. Isolate the Relatives D. Special techniques photograph of the
B. Analyze the Evidence body after removal
C. Apprehend immediately the Suspect Note: In crime scene photography, the crime
D. Cordon the Crime Scene photographer should be interested only in portraying
77. In taking the dying declaration, you are guided the facts of the case.
by these principles, (1) that the admissibility of dying 84. What would be the best camera position in
declaration is not dependent on their being made in taking photographs showing a view of what a
any particular form, and (2) that the taking of the witness might have seen?
dying declaration has no definite form required and A. at 6 feet distance from the camera man
need not be under oath, which do you observe? B. overhead
A. 1 and 2 are both incorrect C. parallel to the subject or witness
D. at the eye level
B. Only 1 is correct 85. It supplements photographs of the crime scene
C. Only 2 is correct and considered to be the simplest and the most
D. 1 and 2 are both correct effective way of showing actual measurements and
78. What makes a sketch WRONG? of identifying significant items of evidence in their
A. Indicate the North direction with an arrow. location at the scene.
B. To establish admissibility, the investigator must A. Crime scene sketch C. Finished sketch
have the sketch verified. B. Rough sketch D. Direction
C. Use KEY-capital letters of the alphabet for sketch
listing down items of evidence. 86. The primary reason a finished sketch is made
D. Fill in all the details on your rough sketch at from a rough sketch is for _______.
the scene. A. scale and proportion c. accuracy and
79. What kind of search method wherein the clarity
crime scene is subdivided into areas, a building B. future use D.court
into rooms or floors then each of the fire officer presentation
or officers are then assigned accordingly? 87. Spiral, Strip/ Line Grid, one/Quadrant Pie/ Wheel
A. Concentric search C. Strip search are varieties of ________ crime scene.
B. Sector Search D. Double strip A. search patterns C. analysis patterns
80. In what order would the steps be done by the B. collection patterns D.recording
investigator upon the finding of an evidential patterns
cigarette butt? 88. What is this photographing of arrested
1. Making sketch 3. Recording suspects both full face and side profile?
2. Photographing A. Line up C. Selfie
A. 2, 1 and 3 C. 2, 3 and 1 B. Portrait parle D. Mug shot
B. 3, 2 and 1 D. 1, 2 and 3 89. The search method or pattern that breaks the
81. What is the first thing to do after seeing or area into smaller ones is ________.
visualizing a fingerprint? A. grid C. spiral
A. To lift the visualized fingerprint. B. strip D. quadrant
B. To photograph the visualized fingerprint. 90. If there is only one searcher, what pattern is
C. To cut off the portion where the fingerprint advisable to be used?
is located A. Strip C. Spiral
D. None of these B. Zone D. Grid
82. Which one is not a means of recording crime a 91. The type of search may be used when the area
scene? to be searched is approximately circular or oval. In
A. By photographs C. By sketches this search, the searchers gather at the center and

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simultaneously proceeds toward along a radii or B. Necropsy report D. Chain of custody

spoke. 99. Which of the following DOES NOT
a. Spiral method c. zone search contribute to the reasons why the value of
b. Grid method d. pie physical evidence is diminished?
92. This search pattern is typically used for outdoor A. Human failure to appreciate it
scene usually conducted by a single searcher who B. Human failure to find it
walks in a slightly decreasing, spirally from the C. Human failure to study
outermost boundary towards the center. This can be D. Human failure to understand
used for underwater searches. 100. Physical evidence are contaminated, altered of
a. Point-to-point c. Sector shape, damaged or lost because of:
b. Circular d. clockwise-counter-clockwise a. Improper packaging and
93. The suggested search method when the crime non-maintenance of chain of custody
scene is approximately circular, or oval is ______ b. Corruption of investigator
method. c. Carelessness of the evidence custodian
A. strip C. wheel d. Incompetence and ineptness of SOCO
B. double strip D. zone personnel
94. This is a method of locating points in a sketch 101. After serving the search warrant, deliver
done by drawing a straight line either diagonal or immediately the things or property seized to the
parallel to either of the sides then using e line as the _________ together with an inventory duly verified
basis of locating and measuring the pieces of under oath.
evidence. A. judge who issued the warrant
a. Baseline c. triangulation B. Requesting Party Counsel
b. Compass-point d. rectangular coordinate C. Prosecution
Compass-point method – protractor/one point D. Any of these
Triangulation – 2 fixed point 102. What would be the consequence if investigators
Baseline – done by drawing a straight line at a crime scene improperly search or preserve
Rectangular coordinate – 2 nearest walls physical evidence?
Cross-projection/Exploded view – walls folded A. They can be sued under existing law,
down to show bullet holes/blood stains criminally or administratively.
95. A physical evidence after collection must be B. They can be always return to the scene
marked with the initial of the collector as well as the and perform crime scene search again.
date of such collection. The main purpose of such C. Sensitive laboratory procedure can still
marking is _________. extract the needed information.
a. Marking c. identification D. The damaged is permanent and
b. Preservation d. contamination irreversible, thus, harming the conduct of
96. A knife found at the crime scene to be used as investigation.
evidence should be marked where______. 103. The successful outcome of a criminal
A. At the tip of the blade investigation is almost always directly relating to
B. At the base _______.
C. At the frame A. the complexity of the crime and its crime
D. At the handle scene
97. What kind of search method is conducted B. the number and professional competence
when the searcher starts at a central point? of laboratory people.
A. Concentric search C. Strip Search C. the manner of collection and preservation
B. Double strip D. Zone search of evidence
98. The methodology involving the systematic D. the number of physical evidence
searching, handling, distribution and accountability collected from the crime scene
of all evidence found at the crime scene, including 104. Which of the following is the purpose of
the documentation of every article of evidence from search in the crime scene?
the point of initial discovery at the scene, to its A. All of these C. Tracing evidence
collection and transport to the point of examination, B. Corpus delicti D. Associative evidence
its temporary storage and its final disposal is
referred to us.
A. Corpus delicti C. Blotter

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105. The following are considered as an 112. Paquito while cleaning his service firearm
"Elusive" object in crime scene investigation , accidentally shot his wife. In this case, he is liable of
EXCEPT what crime?
A. associative evidence A. Reckless imprudence resulting in
B. testimonial evidence parricide
C. object evidence B. Physical Injury
D. physical evidence C. parricide
D. Homicide
======SPECIAL CRIME INVESTIGATION======= 113. As Criminologist-Investigator what crime if any
would you charged against A who hacked his
106. Special crime investigation does NOT include neighbour C after the former caught the latter on the
__________ cases. act of having sexual intercourse with the former’s
A. hit and run C. gambling wife.
B. falsification D. estafa A. Homicide C. Parricide
107. What is the forensic science of personal B. Murder D. None
identification by dental characteristics? 114. Gabriel killed his adopter after the rendition of
A. Forensic Dentistry C. Dental judgment of the petition for adoption. What was the
Medicine crime committed by him?
B. Forensic Odontology D. All of these A. Parricide C. Homicide
108. Which of the following is NOT a common B. Murder D. None of them
element of robbery and theft? 115. Which type of death by hanging is considered
A. The personal property is taken with intent to gain. not common?
B. The offense can be committed by a band. A. Accidental C. Homicidal
C. The personal property belongs to another. B. Suicidal D. Both B and C
D. The unlawful taking of that property. 116. Which of the following are/is correct in so far as
109. Which of the following is not one of this so the crime of parricide is concerned?
called “Burned Bridges”? 1. Proof of legitimacy is not required if the deceased
A. When the dead body has been moved is either the father, mother or the child of the
B. When the dead body has been embalmed offender
C. When the dead body has been 2. The spouse must be legitimate
contaminated and the chain of custody was 3. There is no crime of parricide thru reckless
not properly accounted imprudence
D. When the dead body has been cremated 4. The relationship, except the spouse, must be in
or burned direct line and by blood
110. Kokiks who killed his live-in or the woman to A. 1, 2 and 3 C. 1, 3 and 4
whom he had dating relationship with has committed B. 1, 2 and 4 D. Only 3
what crime? 117. In what circumstances change murder to
A. Homicide C. Murder homicide?
B. Parricide D. Infanticide A. Treachery
111. Nollie while under the influence of drugs threw B. Absence of qualifying circumstances
away the exactly three hours old son of his sister C. Lack of intent
causing death to the infant can be liable for what D. Taking advantage of superior strength
crime? 118. For a child to be legitimate, he must be born in
A. Homicide C. Murder lawful wedlock or within these numbers of days after
B. Parricide D. Infanticide the dissolution of marriage:
NOTE: A.180 days C. 300 Days
- It will be a murder if the infant is already 3 B. 120 Days D. 360 Days
days old which is beyond the age limit under 119. Crimes involving destruction of life, except:
infanticide. A. Mutilation, serious physical injuries and rape
- It would not be parricide since uncle and B. Abortion and infanticide
auntie are not included in the crime of C. Homicide and murder
parricide. D. Parricide
120. The killing is murder when the offender after
killing the victim cut off the head and limbs and

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opened up of the body to remove the intestines of 128. When we speak of intracranial hemorrhage,
the deceased. What circumstance qualified the what part of the body are we referring to?
killing? A. brain C. liver
A. by inhumanly augmenting the suffering of B. lungs D. heart
the victim 129. Which of the following is a blunt force
B. by employing means to weaken the injury caused by dragging that tears off the
defense tissue often caused by very forceful
C. by outraging or scoffing at the corpse of blunt-instrument blows?
the victim A. Abrasions C. Punctures
D. by mockery at the corpse of the victim B. Contusions D. Lacerations
121. What is the liability of the offender who, on the 130. Which of the following manifests the presence
occasion of the crime of robbery, killed his cohort of livor mortis?
while trying to flee from the scene? A. Discoloration of the dead body
A. robbery with homicide B. Hardening of the muscles
B. robbery and homicide C. Cooling of the dead body
C. robbery with murder D. Rising of the cadaver
D. robbery and murder 131. You are assigned to investigate a homicide
122. Which of the following is not a crimes against case where the victim is found hanging in his room
person? bearing an inverted V-shape ligature mark in his
A. Physical injury C. Direct Assault neck. Which of the following facts makes you believe
B. Illegal discharge of F/A D. Parricide that death is homicide?
123. In attempted or frustrated homicide, the 1. Blood stains and other injuries to the body
offender must have the intent to kill the victim. If of the victim
there is no intent to kill, the offender is liable for – 2. History of desperation in life
A. Physical Injury C. Serious physical injury 3. Testimony of witnesses
B. Homicide D. Consummated physical 4. Defense wound
injury A. 1 and 4 C. 1, 2 and 3
124. Legally, when does death considered to have B. 2 and 3 D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
occurred? 132. Aldus snatched the bag of a lady walking along
1. Respiratory system is no longer performing within Hidalgo Street committed what crime?
the body A. Theft C. Estafa
2. Cardiac activity is no longer performing within the B. Robbery D. Malicious mischief
body 133. A man who took the wall of the house from the
3. Central Nervous System ceases to function outside and used the same can be liable for what
A. 1 C. 2 and 3 crime?
B. 1 and 2 D. 1, 2 and 3 A. Theft C. Estafa
125. What medical evidence can show that a B. Robbery D. Malicious mischief
gunshot wound is homicidal? 134. What crime is committed by a person who
A. no sign of struggle from the victim enters a building through an opening on a collapsed
B. site of wound entrance has no point of wall then take something therefrom?
election A. Robbery C. Theft
C. wounding firearm found in the hands of B. Robbery w/ force upon things D. None
the victim 135. The stiffening of the body caused by
D. no disturbance in the crime scene severe trauma to the nervous system of intense
126. A dead body was found and there is already stress is
presence of maggots, it indicates that the dead body A. post mortem lividity C. livor mortis
was at least_____. B. cadaveric spasm D. rigor mortis
A. 2 days C. 5 days 136. Sofia is only 10 years old but he gave consent
B. 3 days D. 1 week to have carnal knowledge with a male tourist
127. ______________ is produced by compression provided she is paid with money. Which is true?
of the neck by means of a ligature which is tightened A. Sofia is a victim of statutory rape
by a force other than the weight of the body. B. Sofia is a child prostitute and thus no
A. Strangulation by ligature C. Hanging rape occurred
B. Throttling D. Gagging

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C. There is no rape since consent was given 143. The cracks produced in glass originated on the
by Sofia opposite surface of the glass and subjected to
D. Sofia must be 12 years old to be a victim stretching are known as:
of statutory rape A. Concentric C. radial
137. Republic Act 8353 has amended certain B. A and c D. none
provisions of the old law on rape. These changes 144. When murders based on relationship are to
include the following, except: be committed in a home, who among the
A. Rape is a crime against persons following MOST LIKELY could be murdered in the
B. Degenderization of the crime of rape BEDROOM?
C. Allows for the concept of marital rape A. Parents-in-law C. Female
D. Rape is a crime against chastity B. Male D. Children
138. Rape by fraudulent machinations under RA
8353 can be committed either among the choices 145. When the gunshot wound of the victim is
except one. located in the area of the body that is relatively
a. Promise to marry inaccessible to the victim, it is an indication of:
b. Prostitute who has not been paid as A. homicidal death C. accidental death
agreed B. suicide D. natural death
c. Person in authority who arrest another
and having sex with the latter with the 146. A killing NOT caused by human being is
promise of release from custody death by
d. Sexual intercourse while the victim is A. by means of intent C. negligence
unconscious or otherwise deprive of reason B. imprudence D. natural cause
139. Which of the following is not a rape by sexual
assault? 147. Fingerprints may be found in the following
A. Inserting penis into another person’s areas, except:
mouth A. ceiling C. walls
B. Inserting penis into another person’s anal B. dressers D. closets
orifice
C. Inserting penis while the woman is 148. The method of approximation of the time of
sleeping death based on what appears typically as a deep
D. Inserting any instrument or object, into blue or purplish discoloration on the body after
the genital or anal orifice of another person. death is
140. X a male, takes Y another male, to a motel and A. post-mortem lividity C. medico legal
there, through threat and intimidation succeeds in B. autopsy D. rigor mortis
inserting his penis to the anus of Y. What crime, if
any does X commit? 149. Evidence of violence characterized by the
A. Sexual assault C. Acts of Lasciviousness removal of the superficial epithelial layer of the skin
B. Rape D. Illegal possession of brought about by friction against a hard rough
penis surface is __________.
141. When a bullet is fired through a pane of A. Contusion C. Patterned wound
glass, the side of the glass where concentric B. Abrasions D. Hematoma
fractures will MOST probably appear is the pane 150. One important characteristics of the gunshot
of glass. wound of exit is _____.
A. both side where the bullet entered A. that the edge is everted
B. neither side of B. that the edge is inverted
C. the side where the bullet exited C. that the size is smaller than the missile
D. the side where the bullet entered D. that the shape is round or ova
142. Deaths resulting from asphyxia are due to 151. Death by Asphyxia MAY BE the result of
A. a sudden or gradual cessation of oxygen the following strangulation, EXCEPT
intake A. hanging C. suffocation
B. sudden and gradual loss perspiration B. manual D. ligature
C. the hardening and clotting of the blood 152. Which of the following are the questions in
D. lack of platelets in the blood. incidents involving assaults that CANNOT be answer
by a medico legal?

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A. From what direction was the force applied
coming from?
B. How many are victims?
C. What is the position of the victim when he
was assaulted?
D. Was there evidence of defense mark or
struggle?
153. Outside of the family structure, emotional
disputes that result to killing often occur in the
bars and similar social gathering places. Which of
the following are MOST LIKELY the cause?
A. Consumption of alcoholic beverages
B. Jealousy between friends
C. Taking of illegal drugs
D. Distrust with or among strangers
154. Studies have shown that workplace
homicide suspects are TYPICALLY caused by
the following, EXCEPT:
A. disgruntled employee C. obsessive employee
B. domestic offender D. stranger or outsider
155. The following can be answered by medico legal
report regarding the weapon used in the commission
of the crime, EXCEPT _________.
A. injuries discovered upon examination
B. type of the weapon used
C. characteristics of certain type of crime
D. sexual orientation of the suspect
156. To estimate the post mortem interval for a
corpse, it is important to collect as many insects as
possible and also to have a good estimate of the
__________.
A. soil conditions
B. body weight of the dead person
C. body clothing of the dead person
D. temperature of the surroundings
TRAFFIC MANAGEMENT & ACCIDENT
INVESTIGATION
157. A number of traffic regulations revolve around
questions of right of way, for practically purposes,
one of the following is the best definition of “Right of
way”.
A. The personal right to move from one
place to another
B. The privilege of immediate use of
particular section of highway
C. The way or place open to the motorist
and pedestrian
D. The right of a vehicle to occupy a space
w/c at the time is occupied by another
vehicle
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12
158. Professional and non-professional driver’s
license is valid for _________ from the date of
issuance and renewable every birth month.
A. 60 Months C. 36 Months
B. 24 Months D. 12 Months
▪ Administrative Order No. 2016–034/RA
10930– Rules and Regulations providing for
a Five-Year Validity of Driver’s Licenses and
Conductor’s Licenses.
159. A driver who was in traffic accident is justified to
leave from the accident area, if any of the
circumstances below are present, except:
A. He is in imminent danger of being harmed
by other persons by reason of an accident
B. He surrenders to proper authority
C. He summons the assistance of a
physician or nurse to aid the victim
D. He hides from the police for justifiable
cause
160. In an intersection not controlled by lights or
peace officers, pedestrian have the right of way the
moment he starts to cross:
A. Absolutely true C. Partly true
B. Absolutely false D. Partly false
161. It refers to a modern urban system of roadway
above street level for free-flow traffic.
A. Expressway C. Subway
B. Skyway D. Tunnel road
Feeder Roads - Intended for farm-to-market roads.
Major Highway - Serves as main artery that caters
on big volumes of vehicular traffic on national
roadway.
Expressway - A through traffic for free-flow of
vehicular movement.
Tunnel Road - A passage of wide section cut
through a hill or sea to shorten circuitous roadway.
Subway - An underground conduit running entirely
under the ground for fast travel route of commuters.
162. To ensure a deterrent effect of traffic patrolling,
which of the following should be done?
1. Make sure that you are seen by other motorists
2. Be in full view while patrolling/inspecting moving
vehicles
3. Spend more time where motorists or drivers fail to
be aware of their common bad driving habits
4. Delay enforcement actions against habitual
violators
A. 1, 2, 3 and 4 C. 1 and 2
B. 1, 2 and 3 D. 3 and 4
163. Holder of student driver’s permit for the period
of not less than ________ can apply for professional
driver’s license.
A. 150 Days C. 180 Days
B. 60 Days D. 30 Days

164. 1st - Driver’s license is a matter of right not only
a privilege.
2nd- Driver’s License is issued to a person, who has
all the qualification as provided by law
3rd- Driver’s License is a public document
A. The 1st and 2nd statements are correct
B. The 1st and 3rd statements are
incorrect.
C. The 2nd and 3rd statements are correct
D. All statements are correct
165. Human errors as one cause of traffic
congestion is best characterized by, EXCEPT:
A. Poor legislation activities
B. Lack of foresight on the part of
pedestrians
C. Effective and efficient traffic officers
D. Slow drivers or bad driving habit
166. In arresting the traffic violator or when it
involved arrest due to traffic violation, the following
procedures are followed except:
A. bring the suspended person before the court
B. detention of the arrested person may take place
C. arrest can be affected even without a warrant
D. impose the probable penalty that might be
imposed
167. Is it correct to say that the world’s first traffic
light came into being before the automobile was in
use?
A. No C. It Depends
B. Sometimes D. Yes
169. The double solid white line:
A. doesn’t allow lane changing.
B. allows overtaking
C. allows lane changing
D. allows parking
170. Marks left on the roadway by tires when the
brakes were applied strongly, hence the wheels
locked, and not free to rotate.
A. skid marks C. scuff marks
B. key event D. debris
Skid mark - forward without rotating
Scuff mark - forward as well as rotating
Centrifugal skid - due to fast moving vehicle on a
curve road.
171. It is a wholly police responsibility and entails
looking for defects in the behavior of the motorists,
pedestrian, vehicles and roadway condition.
A. Apprehension C. Adjudication
B. Detection D. Prosecution
173. What method is used to determine whether a
driver is under the influence of alcoholic beverages
or not?
A. walking thru straight line C. field sobriety test
B. counting D. balance
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13
174. Mariano is a driver permitted by the
government to operate a Public Utility Jeepney.
Which of the following driving privilege he must
possess?
A. Non-professional license
B. Professional license
C. sub-professional license
D. professional driver’s license
175. Traffic arrest can be made when the following
are present, except:
A. to avoid continued violation
B. offense committed is serious
C. the violator will not attend in court
D. Involved in a vehicular accident
176. Traffic lights are useful means of regulating
traffic. It is chronologically arranged from top to
bottom as red, yellow and green. When approaching
in an intersection where the flashing yellow is on, the
motorist should__________.
A. Stop and proceed with caution
B. Slow down and proceed with caution
C. Go faster so that you will not beaten by
the red light
D. Give way to motor vehicles coming from
the opposite direction
177. When the applicant for student driver’s permit is
between 16-18 years old, the most important
document he should submit is________________.
A. Birth certificate C. Voter’s I.D.
B. Passport D. Parent’s consent
178. What should drivers do when an emergency
vehicle approaches displaying legally authorized red
light and sounding a siren?
A. Continue driving slowly without regard of
the emerging vehicle
B. Yield the right of way and wait for the
passage of the vehicle
C. Pull aside and stop the car abruptly
D. Disregard the red light and siren
179. When there are two or more emergency
vehicles approaching the same intersection from
different directions creating a probability conflict, an
officer directing traffic at the intersection must give
preference to one and cause the others to yield the
right of way. Which vehicle should generally be given
least preference to proceed ahead?
A. ambulance C. police car
B. fire truck D. wrecker
180. What is the most common cause of road
accident in the Philippines?
A. road condition C. pedestrian
B. whether condition D. reckless driving
181. Traffic officers who are tasked to direct traffic
should do it:

A. In the right side of the intersection so that
he will not be sideswiped
B. In the left side of the intersection for
clearer view of the traffic volume
C. Either on the left or right side of the
intersection so that he can adjust to the
situation
D. In the center of the intersection
182. It refers to enforcement actions which consist of
taking a person into custody for the purpose of
holding or detaining him to answer a charge of law
violation before a court.
A. Arrest C. Traffic Arrest
B. Traffic Citation D. Traffic Warning
TRAFFIC CITATION - made to compel violators to
appear in court in absence of arrest. Ticket issued to
an erring driver apprehended for certain violations in
exchange of his confiscated driver’s license for the
period provided in the ticket.
TRAFFIC WARNING - an act of reminding the driver
of his violation in order for him to not do it again. No
arrest or citation is made.
183. This traffic warning is usually used when you
have observed a minor violation but are more
importantly occupied at a moment.
A. visual warning C. verbal warning
B. written warning D. oral warning
TYPES OF WARNING
A. VISUAL WARNING - Usually used when you
observed minor violation/Using gestures and signals.
B. VERBAL WARNING - Form of safety education /
oral warning made when there is newly enacted law
C. WRITTEN WARNING - Combination verbal
warning and citation. It has more deterrence effect
than verbal warning
184. What is the Validity period of Ordinance
Violations Receipt upon issuance?
A. 72 hours C. 3 days
B. 48 hours D. 5 days
185. This marking on the roadway indicates that the
lane is for right turn only:
A. Two headed arrow C. Arrow pointing to left
B. Straight arrow D. Arrow pointing to the right
186. In this manner, a traffic enforcer while
observing the flow of traffic tries to attract attention
of the motorists by keeping in full view of traffic:
A. Stationary C. Visible
B. Conspicuous D. Inconspicuous
TRAFFIC OBSERVATION
▪ Stationary Traffic Observation - officer is
assigned at specific place
▪ Visible Traffic Observation – stationary
observation that the observer is in full view
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▪ Concealed Traffic Observation - observer is
not visible to the public
187. In traffic accident investigation, what must be
used in order to prevent blurred image?
A. Eye Level C. bird’s eye view
B. Tripod D. Telephoto Lens
188. Skid marks as evidence in accident cases
would show:
A. If the vehicle was traveling in the wrong direction
or on the wrong side of the road.
B. If the driver failed to observe the right of way.
C. If the driver did not obey the traffic signal
D. All of the above
189. While approaching an intersection, the green
traffic light is on, however, a police officer suddenly
proceeds to the center and signals a motorist to
stop. What should the motorist do?
A. Ignore the police officer and proceed with caution
B. Ignore the traffic light and come to a full stop
C. Ignore both the police officer and traffic light and
cross the intersection
D. Ignore the police officer and stop only when
second signal is made
190. It is considered as the most effective deterrent
to traffic accidents.
A. Regular maintenance and check-up of the traffic
units.
B. Increase insurance premium
C. Arrest and prosecution of traffic law violators
D. Decrease car insurance liability to a minimum
Deterrents to Traffic Accidents:
- Loss of driving privilege
- Decrease of insurance premium
- Fear of fine and punishment
- Possibility of being involve in an accident
191. Which could be considered an indication of
hit-and-run accident?
A. The driver leaving the area of accident because
he is in imminent danger
B. The driver fleeing the area of accident to evade
responsibility.
C. After hitting someone on the highway, the driver
left and reported to the police.
D. After sideswiping a pedestrian the driver fled to
seek assistance of a physician.
192. The entire width between boundary lines of
every way or place of which any part is open to the
use of the public for purposes of vehicular traffic as a
matter of right or custom.
A. Traffic way C. Traffic units
B. Road way D. Subway
193. An elevated structure built for the safety of the
pedestrians in crossing busy highways:
A. Flyover C. Underpass
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B. Skyway D. Overpass A. Center C. Cross walk

194. When you see the triangle red and black signs B. Lane D. Stop lines
it is precautions of the dangerous conditions ahead 199. What is the most important, in determining the
such as the following, except: skidding distance of a motor vehicle?
A. Men working C. Curves, hills ahead A. Driver’s driving attitude
B. Slippery roads D. Distance of places B. Tire material of the motor vehicle
195. A traffic police officer stationed along the route C. Slipperiness of the road surface
of a parade has been ordered by his superior to D. Speed of the motor vehicle
allow no cars to cross the route. While the parade is E. All of the above
in progress, an ambulance driver on an emergency 200. You are a police officer who wants to determine
run attempts to drive his ambulance across the route whether a driver is authorized to drive. What is the
while the parade is passing. Under the evidence that you will ask him to show to prove that
circumstances, the traffic officer should: he is allowed by the Land Transportation Office
A. hold up the ambulance in accordance with (LTO) to operate a vehicle on public highways?
superior’s order A. driver’s ID C. driver’s license
B. stop the parade long enough to permit the B. franchise D. operator’s license
ambulance to cross the street 201. Running on a two- lane road, what does a
C. directs the ambulance driver to the shortest single white dotted line indicates?
detour which will add at least ten minutes to run. A. no overtaking
D. asks the driver to wait until the traffic police officer B. for pedestrian only
contact his superior and obtains a decision. C. separates traffic direction
196. Can a machine copy of Driver’s license allowed D. intersection approaching
driver to drive a motor vehicle? 202. When a driver unloads passengers on the
A. No, Absolutely middle of the road, he committed ______________.
B. Sometimes A. Illegal unloading C. Illegal loading
C. Yes, as long all the details are complete B. Traffic obstruction D. illegal stopping
D. Yes, with verification of LTO 203. Considered as emergency vehicles are/is:
197. When there are two motor vehicles 1. Police car on call 3. Ambulance on call
approaching the intersection almost at the same 2. Fire truck on call 4. Physician’s car
time, one is travelling along the national road and A. 1, 2 and 3 C. 1, 2, 3 and 4
the other is in the secondary road. Who has the right B. 2, 3 and 4 D. Only 4
of way? 204. Poor control measures as a major cause of
A. vehicle on the secondary road traffic congestion is characterized by:
B. Vehicle on the right 1. Narrow bridges and absence of catwalk to control
C. vehicle on the national road pedestrians
D. Vehicle on the left 2. Lack of traffic enforcers along intersections
RIGHT OF WAY RULE 3. Lack of discipline among drivers and other road
Intersection- when two or more vehicles is entering users
an intersection the one on the left will give way to the 4. Insufficient mechanical control devices and
right vehicle. ineffective traffic officers
Pedestrian- drivers should yield to pedestrian 5. Corruption of traffic officers
crossing except at intersection whereas the A. 1, 2 and 4 C. 1, 2 and 3
movement of vehicles is regulated by a police officer. B. 2, 3 and 5 D. 3, 4 and 5
Through highway/ railroad crossing- the driver 205. Consider the following steps in the conduct of
shall bring to a full stop before traversing to an the traffic accident investigation (1) care of injured,
intersection. If there is no hazard the driver may (2) get to the scene quickly and safely, (3) interview
slowdown to 5mph. the drivers and witnesses, (4) take photograph and
Police /emergency vehicle- all drivers should yield measurement. Arrange in chronological order the
to emergency vehicle, except as directed by traffic foregoing steps.
enforcer. Fire trucks are accepted to speed limit but A. 2, 4, 3, 1 C. 2, 1, 4, 3
they are prohibited to have unnecessary speed. B. 2, 3, 4, 1 D. 1, 2, 3, 4
198. Painted on the pavement and placed at 206. What is the appropriate term to be used when
intersections and other places to provide pedestrians an object or vehicle on the road hinders or prevent
with safety zone when crossing: the smooth flow of traffic?

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A. Hindrance C. Hazard
B. Obstruction D. Illegal Parking
207. As an investigator, the interviewing process of
persons involved in a traffic accident should be
done?
A. jointly
B. separately
C. be fair
D. listen to both sides
208. What should the driver do if involved in a traffic
accident?
A. Must report to the police station at once
or immediately.
B. Must report to the nearest police station
within 24 hours.
C. Must see his lawyer within 72 hours.
D. Must see a police officer after 3 hours.
209. The following are major phases of traffic
enforcement process EXCEPT __________.
A. Detection C. Apprehension
B. Control D. Adjudication
210. Two vehicles approach an intersection at
approximately the same time, the vehicle ________
should give the right of way.
A. coming from the left
B. coming from the center
C. coming from the right
D. one which arrives first
211. Conveyance of persons and goods from one
place to another is _____________.
A. vehicle C. carrier
B. transportation D. traffic
212. The following are principles or rules of right of
way, EXCEPT the driver of the vehicle __________.
A. entering a highway from a private road or drive
shall yield the right of way to all vehicles
approaching on such highway
B. upon a highway shall bring to a full stop before
traversing any “through highway” or railroad crossing
C. in an express way shall not yield the right of way
to the police or fire department vehicles and
ambulances
D. upon a highway within a business or residential
area shall yield the right of way to a pedestrian
crossing such highway within crosswalk
213. Under the Land Transportation Code, it is NOT
parking prohibition if you park ________.
A. within 4 meters of the driveway of a Fire
Station
B. within the intersection
C. in front of private driveway
D. on a sidewalk
214. What do you call a mark produced by a
vehicle traveling in an arc or curved direction?
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16
A. Skid mark C. Scuff mark
B. Centrifugal force D. Centrifugal skid
215. The following are causes of traffic accidents
EXCEPT:
A. undisciplined drivers
B. road works obstructions
C. vehicle over speeding
D. lack traffic rules and regulations
216. What term is used to describe the frontal
collision of vehicles?
A. Collision C. Head on collision
B. Full impact collision D. Frontal collision
217. As a rule, maximum speed limits are
necessary for the use of our streets. The
following are instances when these maximum
speed limits may not be observed EXCEPT
A. drivers who are members of the PNP
or the AFP
B. any driver bringing a wounded or sick
person for emergency treatment
C. the driver or his passengers who are
in pursuit of a criminal
D. a physician or his driver when
responding to emergency calls
218. What should NOT be done by the fire truck
driver when crossing an intersection where there
is a traffic control?
A. Must do a full stop.
B. Wait for the light to change.
C. See the traffic stop and heed.
D. Proceed only when it is safe.
219. Which of the following the BEST reason
why biorhythm is an important aspect of traffic
safety so that the person can avoid accident?
A. Knows his physical capacity on certain
day.
B. Knows his intellectual capacity on certain
day.
C. Gives hints on how he tends to feel
in a certain day.
D. Ascertains his physical, emotional and
intellectual condition in a certain day.
220. Considering that the motor vehicle has
stalled or bogged down, as traffic enforcer or
patrol officer, the following should be done,
EXCEPT
A. ensure the safety of other motor
vehicles passing through in the area
B. ignore the situation and just continue
your patrolling function
C. help push the motor vehicle up to
the shoulder of the road; if practicable
 17

D. Check whatever is the defect or B. Transnational Crime

condition of the stalled or bogged motor C. Organized Criminal Group
vehicle D. NONE
221. The following are characteristics of human 228. It is the attribute of organized crime having a
errors that cause traffic congestion, EXCEPT vertical power structure with at least three
A. lack of due diligence on the part of pedestrians permanent ranks-not just leader and followers- each
B. lack of presence of uniformed traffic enforcers with authority over the level beneath:
C. bad driving habits like slow drivers A. hierarchical
D. poor legislative traffic regulations and activities B. constitutes a unique subculture
222. Which of the following is the objective of C. no political goals
traffic engineering to achieve efficient, free, and D. limited or exclusive membership.
rapid flow of traffic? 229. A high ranking police officer who is engaged in
A. So that the motorists and other road users can human trafficking committed a crime of?
avoid traffic accidents a. Human Trafficking c. All of the these
B. All of these b. Qualified Trafficking d. Act that promotes
C. So that the motorists and other road users trafficking
will have enjoyable and convenient ride. 230. Is the most frequent accounting for as much as
D. So that motorists and other road users can 80% of terrorist related violence?
reach their destination safely and on time a. Bombings c. Kidnapping
223. Traversing a highway with double yellow b. Assassination d. Prostitution
line with dotted line in between means that the 231. Known as G-7 Nations, they were mandated to
motorist can devise international standards and policies to
A. not overtake under any circumstances combat money laundering. Which of the following is
B. overtake as long as there is no traffic not one of them?
enforcers looking A. Japan
C. overtake when the opposite direction is clear of B. France, Germany and Italy
incoming vehicles C. China, South Korea and Russia
D. not overtake when there is oncoming D. United Kingdom of Great Britain, United
vehicles on the opposite lane States of America, and Canada
224. Over speeding can cause traffic accidents 232. In Joseph Albini’s Patron-Client Model,
and we attribute the same to organized crime group is consisting of syndicates in
A. unworthy vehicle C. traffic error a loose system of power relationship. At the center
B. human error D. road deficiency of each organized crime unit or crime family is/are:
A. Capo, Sottocapo and Consigliere
=====ORGANIZED CRIME INVESTIGATION===== B. Caporegime
C. Mafioso
225. Structural group of three or more persons D. Soldati
existing for the period of time and acting in concert, 233. He is a sort of midlevel manager who serves as
with the aim of committing one or more serious a buffer between the lowest-level members and the
crimes or offenses established in accordance with upper-level members of the crime family.
this conviction in order to obtain, directly or indirectly, a. The Consigliere c. The Caporegime
a financial or other material benefit. b. The Underboss d. Soldiers
a. Crime syndicate C. criminal gangs 234. Founders of organized crime in the US like
b. Organized crime group D. Fraternity Alphonse Capone, Charles “Lucky” Luciano, Meyer
226. In terms of organizational structure, what is Lansky and Benjamin “Bugsy” Siegel, are notably,
the similarity of organized crimes from military or members of a small street gang in New York called:
the police? A. Five Points Gang C. Outlaws
A. Autocratic C. Bureaucratic B. Tongs D. Hells Angels
B. Democratic D. Patrimonial 235. Considered to be the oldest and the biggest
227. A continuing illegal activity of group three or criminal organization in the world that controls the
more person which is primarily concerned with the Golden Triangle:
generation of profits, irrespective of national A. Al Qaeda C. Jihad
boundaries as a result of globalization. B. Chinese Mafia D. Nuestra Costra
A. Transnational Organized Crime

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236. Which of the following is not one of the Italian
criminal enterprises?
A. The Camorra C. La Cosa Nostra
B. ‘Ndrangheta D. Sacred Crown
237. Money laundering’s main objective is ______.
A. to conceal the beneficial ownership or
audit trail of illegally obtained money or
valuable so that it appears to have
originated from a legitimate source.
B. to keep the money hidden from the
authorities
C. to gain interest from the money
D. to buy expensive jewelry
238. The initial stage of money laundering where
illegally obtain money is placed in financial system
done either by smurfing or immersion.
A. Placement C. Spinning
B. Layering D. Integration
239. Known as “Big Six” transnational organized
crime group.
A. Sicilian and American Mafia Families;
Russian Mafia; Yakuza; Triads; Colombian
Cartels; and Mexican Federation.
B. Nigeria; Panama; Jamaica; Puerto Rico,
Dominican Republic, Colombia
C. Red Army; Shining Path; Revolutionary
Armed Forces of Colombia; People’s Irish
Republican Army; Al Qaeda; and ISIS
D. Gambino, Colombo, Profaci, Lucchese,
Bonnano, Genovese Crime Families
240. Members of the Mafia are bound by an oath of
five basic principles. Which of the following is not
one of them?
A. Omerta, or code of silence and total
obedience to the “Don” or “Boss”
B. Assistance to any befriended Mafia
faction, no question asked and to avenge
any attack on members of the family
C. Avoid any and all contact with law
enforcement authorities
D. Avoid killing police officer
241. Conceptualized in the 1920's and had its initial
headquarters in Vienna. This organization was
established to promote international criminal police
cooperation.
A. International Criminal Police Commission
B. International Criminal Police Organization
C. International Association of the Chiefs of
Police
D. Asian National Police
242. Three Core Services of the INTERPOL, except:
A. Unique global police communication
system
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18
B. Range of criminal data bases and
analytical services
C. Proactive support for police operations
throughout the world.
D. Arrest of international terrorist
243. How many days is allowed without incurring
any criminal liability for delay in the delivery of
detained persons to the proper judicial authorities,
deliver said charged or suspected person to the
proper judicial authority within a period of ________,
has taken custody of a person charged with or
suspected of the crime of terrorism or the crime of
conspiracy to commit terrorism.
A. 12 Hours C. 36 Hours
B. 18 Hours D. 72 Hours
244. This is the country which is believed to be the
origin of Sicilian Mafia and La Cosa Nostra:
A. United States of America C. Italy
B. Japan D. China
245. The Yakuza is the most influential Japanese
organization or criminals. It is organized into families
which adopts a relationship called:
a. Oyabun-Kobun c. Kabuto-karaoke
b. Kapuki-nimu d. Bakuto
246. Known as the Guzman-Loera Organization
called La Alianza de Sangre ("Blood Alliance"),
which considered by the United States intelligence
community as the most powerful drug trafficking
organization in the world.
a. The Gulf Cartel c. Tijuana Cartel
b. The Juarez Cartel d. Sinaloa Cartel
247. What does BIAF stands for?
a. Bureau of Internal Affairs Force
b. Bangsamoro Islamic Freedom Fighters
c. Bangsamoro Islamic Armed Forces
d. Bureau of Islamic Armed Forces
248.This is a criminal organization associated with
Sinaloa Cartel which is known as “La Eme” which is
the most powerful gang within the California prison
system.
a. Mexican Mafia C. Blood Alliance
b. Cali Cartel D. Medellin Cartel
249. Which of the following is not one of the
motorcycle gangs which are active in selling drugs
(they control 75 North American methamphetamine
market), prostitution, extortion, theft, arson, robbery,
bombings and contract murders?
A. Hells Angels C. Tongs
B. Outlaws D. Pagans and Bandidos
250. A member of a Cosa Nostra who operates at
least one specific criminal enterprise and constantly
search for new sources of revenue for the crime
family is called:
1. Wise guy 3. Bottom men
 19

2. Made guys 4. Saviour C. Transnational Organized Crime

A. 1 and 3 C. 1, 2 and 3
B. 2 and 4 D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
251. Where does the concept of organized crime
emerged?
A. In China, when Triad was established
B. In Japan, when Yakuza was founded
C. The Sicilian struggle in the 13th Century
against French Rule
D. In the US, when Al Capone ran Chicago
with blood and guns
252. Which of the following is not one of the
attributes of organized criminal group?
A. Non-ideological, hierarchical and
exclusive membership
B. Dominating, witty, influential and
generous contributor to church, politician,
etc.
C. Self-perpetuating, violent, involvement in
bribery and constitute a unique subculture
D. Monopolistic, governed by rules and
regulations and has specialization/division of
labor
253. Donald Cressey’s Cosa Nostra model or
organized crime group is characterized by, except
one:
A. Italian-dominated crime families who
control crimes in distinct geographical areas
B. Extremely violent, dangerous and highly
disciplined
C. Its primary unit is the family which
embodies male members of Italian ancestry
D. the family is protected by code of conduct
for members which prohibits them from
revealing organizational secrets
254. Which of the following is not one of the
traditional terrorist tactics?
A. Bombing and hijacking C. Arson and
Assault
B. Rape or sexual assault D. Kidnapping
255. Terrorist Act is any act that is unlawful, involves
the use or threatened use of violence or force
against individuals or property which designed to
coerce the government or society and supports any
of the following except:
A. political objectives C. Barbaric objectives
B. ideological objectives D. religious objectives
256. In 2000 the United Nations Convention against
Transnational Organized Crime extended the legal
definition of money laundering to include all serious
crimes. This is known as:
A. Palermo Convention
B. United nations Convention
Convention
D. Organized Crime Convention
257. INTERPOL’s Notice on planned terrorist attack
to one of their member countries.
A. Blue Notice C. Yellow Notice
B. Green Notice D. Orange Notice
258. Red Notice in INTERPOL’s Notice System:
A. To seek information on the identity of persons or
on their illegal activities related to criminal matters
B. To provide warning and criminal intelligence about
persons who have committed criminal offenses and
who are likely to repeat these crimes in other
countries
C. Locate missing persons
D. To seek arrest in extradition of suspect
259. Black in INTERPOL’s notice to
______________.
A. Determine the identity of a deceased person
B. Provide information on modus operandi, object,
devices and concealment methods used by criminals
C. Individuals and entities that are subject to UN
Sanctions
D. Any of the above
260. The following are illicit business that the
organized crime group may provide, EXCEPT
______.
A. illegal money lending C. illegal drugs
B. gambling D. prostitution
261. “OLIGARIO’s organized crime” group amassed
so much cash money due to illicit drug trade. They
are now in the process of introducing such in
legitimate financial institutions. This process is
referred to as __________-.
A. conversion C. integration
B. layering D. placement
262. What is the process involved in money
laundering wherein the illicit funds that are already in
financial institutions are introduced back to the
mainstream economy for legitimate purposes?
A. Layering C. Conversion
B. Integration D. Placement
263. Which of the following is the BEST reason why
organized crime groups maintain their power and
profit?
A. Through the silence and attitude of
non-cooperation of law-abiding citizens
B. Through corruption
C. Through violence
D. Through continuous association with
criminal protectors
264. The following are core elements of the concept
of trafficking, EXCEPT __________.

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A. the motive which for profit or financial
gain
B. the means of trafficking which includes
threat of or use of force, deception,
coercion, abuse of power or position of
vulnerability
C. the action of trafficking which means the
recruitment, transportation, transfer,
harboring or receipt of persons
D. the purpose which is exploitation
265. Which of the following refers to the so-called
borderless crime?
A. Organized crimes C. Terroristic crimes.
B. International crimes. D. Transnational crimes
266. This situation wherein the inception, prevention,
and direct or indirect effects of crimes overlaps
territorial boundaries of countries and their laws is
BEST describe as ___________.
A. crimes of trafficking in person
B. transnational crimes
C. environmental crimes
D. organized crimes
267. The main reason why organized crime group
offers illegitimate business is because the
_________.
A. personnel are willing to do the job at all
cost
B. finances to support the capitalization is
readily available
C. legitimate business does not provide for
them
D. organized crime group has the capability
to provide the same
268. What is this crime which inception, prevention
and/or direct or indirect effects in more than one
country/state?
A. Terrorism, piracy and cyber crime
B. Drug trafficking and human smuggling
C. Global crimes
D. Transnational crimes
269. In the study of organized crime,
criminal group that is non-ideological and
possess no political agenda always motivated by
A. control C. profit
B. influence D. power
270. What is the set of doctrines or beliefs that
form the basis of political, economic and other
systems?
A. Politics C. Ideology
B. Religion D. Tradition
271. The illicit funds of PINUNO organized
group is in the financial institutions already. As
the investigator, and anticipating the next move
of PINUNO, what is this process in money
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20
laundering that Don Emilio will undertake in
order to prevent the tracing back of illicit funds?
A. Integration C. Conversion
B. Placement D. Layering
272. Which of the following is NOT one of the
existing conditions which lend cohesiveness to
modern-day drug trafficking organizations?
A. Corrupt government official and society
indifference
B. Exploiting social and political conditions
C. Vertical integration and alternative sources of
supply
D. Insulation of leaders
273. Which of the following is NOT a known cause
of Human Trafficking?
A. Immediate benefits of working abroad
B. Weak enforcement of laws and corruption
C. Poverty and family orientation and values
D. Presence of available and ready clientele
=====DRUG EDUC. & VICE CONTROL=====
274. The amount of drug that produces untoward
effect or symptoms of poisoning.
A. Minimal Dose C. Abusive Dose
B. Toxic Dose D. Maximal Dose
275. Which among the following responsible for
producing almost 60% of Opium in the world.
A. Golden triangle C. Golden Crescent
B. Sliver Triangle D. White Christmas
276. What countries constitute the Golden
Crescent?
A. Iran, Afghanistan, Pakistan, India
B. Peru, Columbia, Bolivia
C. Burma, Laos, Thailand
D. Myanmar, Laos Thailand
277. It is the most important alkaloids and
constitutes about 10 % of the use raw opium
A. Morphine C. Heroin
a B. Codeine D. opium
278. The drug taken from the coca bush plant
Ertyroxylon coca.
A. Cocaine C. Marijuana
B. Papaver Somniferum D. claviceps
279. Drug trafficking, according to Comprehensive
Drug Act of 2002, except:
A. cultivation, culture and delivery,
B. Administration, dispensation, manufacture, sale
and trading,
C. Use, consumption, addiction and tolerance
D. Transportation, distribution, importation,
exportation and possession
 21

280. A laboratory examination is only required to an A. Qualified to apply for probation

apprehended offender within 24 hours if the person B. Disqualified to apply for probation
arrested has: C. Allowed to apply for probation
1. Visible manifestation that suspect was under the D. Not allowed to apply if the sentence is
influence of drugs more than 6 years and 1 day
2. Physical sign of drug abuse 288. National campaign strategy against illegal
3. Psychological manifestation of drug addiction drugs, focus of which is through law enforcement,
4. Symptoms of Drug abuse prosecution and judicial actions.
A. 1, 2 and 3 C. 2, 3 and 4 A. Demand reduction C. Inter-agency coordination
B. 1, 2 and 4 D. 1, 2, 3 and 4 B. Supply reduction D. International cooperation
281. Considered by the Assyrians as a “Sacred 289. How many grams of SHABU does an individual
Tree” planted by the Incas of Peru. It is considered must possess to render him ineligible to post bail?
as the world’s oldest cultivated plant which is the a. 100 grams c. less than 500 grams
source of dangerous drug. B. half kilogram D. 50 g or more
A. Papaver Somniferum C. Coca Plant 290. PO3 Jun planted 0.5 grams of SHABU to their
B. Cannabis Sativa D. Ephedrine suspect and PO2 Jack planted 1 gram of SHABU. Is
their penalty the same?
282. A person who is applying for Professional A. No C. It depends
Driver’s license is required to undergo Mandatory B. Yes D. True
Drug Testing. 291. The DDB can issue subpoena duces tecum
A. True C. False relative to the conduct of investigation involving the
B. Partially True D. Partially False violations of RA 9165.
283. Known as the “Big Four Drugs” trafficked in the A. True C. Partially True
global drug market. B. False D. Partially False
I. Heroin and Cocaine 292. The drug crystal methamphetamine (shabu)
II. Shabu and Ecstasy Originated from what country?
III. Marijuana and Methamphetamine A. Korea C. Japan
IV. Narcotics, Hallucinogens, Stimulants and B. China D. Mexico
Depressants 293. What penalty is provided for a Drug user for its
A. I and II C. II and III 2nd violation?
B. I and III D. V A.6 Months Rehabilitation
B.12 Months Rehabilitation
284. Hallucinogen or psychedelic drugs are Natural C. 6 years and 1 Day to 12 Years
or synthetic psychoactive drugs that produce D. 12 years and 1 Day to 20 Years
reactions such as perceptual alterations and 294. Hashish is 8 to 10 times stronger than the
changes in the state of consciousness. Which commercial trade marijuana because ___________.
among the following is the most potent form of A. It is a concentrated resin extracted from
hallucinogen? marijuana
A. LSD C. Cocaine B. Dried flower of marijuana
B. Barbiturates D. Methadone C. Fruiting top of the plant cannabis sativa
285. Which of the following is not false? D. Finest and high-grade leaves of
A. R.A. 9165 gives a single definition of marijuana plant
dangerous drugs 295. What is the primary component use in the
B. R.A. 9165 did not remove the distinction production of Methamphetamine Hydrochloride?
between regulated and prohibited drugs A. Claviceps C. Ertyroxylon coca
C. R.A. 9165 defers dangerous drugs from B. Ephedrine D. papaver
prohibited drugs somniferum
D. R.A. 9165 defined regulated drugs as 296. What part of the globe is the principal source of
dangerous drugs all forms of cocaine?
286. The opiates family of drugs was derive from? A. South East Asia C. South America
A. Claviceps purpurea C. Opium poppy B. Middle East D. South West Asia
B. Psilocybin Mexicana D. Peyote cactus 297. Drug in gaseous form enter the lungs and are
287. Brando was found guilty under the Section 70 quickly absorbed by the rich capillary system, it is
of RA 9165, therefore Brando is ______.

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 22

probably the second most commonly used route of b. Consumed in dangerous combination
drug administration. c. Administered in physician’s supervision
A. Snorting C. Inhalation and prescription
B. Injection D. Oral Ingestion 306. A category of drugs which involves those which
298. Heroin is Blanco; Codeine is School Boy; are legally sold or dispensed without prescription. A
psilocybin is Magic Mushroom; Cocaine is user is prone to self-medication syndrome.
________. a. Prescriptive drugs c. over the counter drugs
A. Hearts C. Uppers b. Illicit drugs d. unrecognized drugs
B. Crack D. Speed 307. When the organism is too accustomed with
299. Which of the following does not carry a capital a certain chemical, it will no longer react to such
punishment? particular substance. The need for additional amount
A. possession of 20 grams’ morphine to achieve the desired effect is necessary.
B. possession of 100 grams of marijuana a. Addiction c. tolerance
C. possession of 15 grams MDMA b. Habituation d. Abstinence
D. possession of 60 grams SHABU 308. This statement is not true when referring to
300. Ms. Tina Moran cannot function without drugs family problems as factor that pushes a person to be
in his system and if she do not take drugs, she involved in drug using.
develops withdrawal signs such as restlessness, a. Domestic violence; liberal parentage
pain, or convulsions. b. Parents who are irresponsible giving less attention
A. physically dependent on drugs to their children
B. mentally dependent on drugs c. Broken family and lack of parental values
C. psychologically dependent on drugs d. Drug using friends encourage and pressure a
D. socially dependent on drugs certain individual
301. The world’s transshipment point of all forms of 309. Drug trafficking generally refers to the sale and
illicit heroin? distribution of illegal drugs. Which of the following do
A. Taiwan C. Japan not supports this statement?
B. China D. Hong Kong a. It refers to the illegal process through which
302. A situational users are persons who abused narcotics and other illegal drugs are produced,
drugs to acquire additional energy and to perform transported, and sold.
well in their job. The example of these are athletes b. It refers to the illegal cultivation, culture, delivery,
who uses which type of drug? administration, dispensation, manufacture, sale,
a. Opium c. steroid trading, transportation, distribution, importation,
b. LSD d. demerol exportation
303. What is the number one abused drug in the c. Includes possession of any dangerous drug
Philippines? and/or controlled precursor and essential chemical.
A. SHABU C. Marijuana d. It refers to the use and consumption which led to
B. MDMA D. All of these the addiction, tolerance and habituation
304. The following statements are true pertaining to 310. An opiate which was synthesized by Alder
drugs: Wright of purposes of morphine addiction treatment.
1. Any chemically active substance rendering a This drug is considered as the most potent type of
specific effect on the human brain depressant.
2. A chemical substance that affects the processes a. Codeine c. heroin
of the mind and body b. Methadone d. Darvon
3. Any chemical substance that by virtue of its 311. Which among the following is not a route of
chemical nature alters the structure and functioning administration of a drug shabu?
of a living organism a. Oral c. smoking
4. The use of any chemical substance that alters b. Inhalation d. snorting
physiological and psychological functioning 312. Selling, distributing, supplying or transporting of
a. 1 and 2 c. 3 and 4 legitimately imported, in-transit, manufactured or
b. 1, 2 and 3 d. 1, 2 and 4 procured controlled precursors and essential
305. Drugs may be harmful to a living organism chemicals, by the manufacturer of medicine to the
when, except: drug trafficker is called:
a. Taken in excess amount than what is A. Drug trafficking C. Chemical diversion
advisable B. Sale D. Chemical smuggling

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 23

313. Robert “Bob”Marley uses drugs. This drug A. I and II are correct C. I and III are
produces sensations such as distortion of time, wrong
space, sound, color and other bizarre effects? B. II and III are correct D. I, II and III are
A. Opiates C. Narcotics correct
B. Heroin D. Hallucinogens 322. To administer illegal drug means __________.
314. Aklas uses amphetamines to make him capable A. To introduce any dangerous drug into the
of observing himself during the night. What are the body of any person, with or without his/her
symptoms of the use of amphetamines? knowledge
A. Sensation of distortion of time, space, sound and B. To use drug through injection
color C. To consume dangerous drug through
B. False perception of object and experience inhalation
C. Excitement,, alertness and wakefulness D. To introduce any illegal drugs into the
D. Initial relaxation, drowsiness and sleep body through snorting
315. Marijuana has been one of the most abuse 323. Mind altering drugs that gives the general effect
hallucinogens in the Philippines and its control of mood distortion.
becomes difficult according to some authorities due A. Hallucinogens C. Hypnotic
to the fact that: B. Sedatives D. Narcotics
A. It is easy to smoke secretly C. It is easy to 324. The major transhipment point for international
cultivate drug traffickers in Europe and known to be the
B. It is sellable in the market D. It is in demand “Paradise of Drug Abusers” in this continent:
A. Portugal C. Germany
316. Drugs that affect sensation, thinking, B. Spain D. Turkey
self-awareness and emotion: 325. What is this process of removal of toxic
A. Hallucinogens C. Stimulants substances from the body of a person as a result of
B. Sedatives/Depressant D. Narcotics drug abuse?
317. A form of physical dependence characterized A. Detoxification
by severe craving for the drugs even to the point of B. Wellness treatment
interfering with the person’s ability to function C. Cleansing process
normally. D. Rehabilitation Program
A. Tolerance C. Habituation 326. In the Philippines, the most abused
B. Addiction D. Psychological dependence hallucinogenic drugs that contain
318. The prevention of drug addiction is primarily a Tetrahydro-cannabinol is ___________.
responsibility of what institution so as to prevent its A. marijuana C. ecstasy
members from being hook to addiction? B. LSD D. Shabu
A. Church C. Barangay 327. The facility used for the illegal manufacture of
B. Family D. School dangerous drugs is __________-.
319. What group of drugs is used medically as pain A. drug laboratory
killers? B. laboratory equipment
A. Opiates C. Shabu C. drug den
B. Track D. coke D. clandestine laboratory
320. The source/s of most analgesic narcotics is/are: 328. Which of the following is referred to as the
1. Opium 4. Heroin Golden Triangle wherein 80% of illicit drugs of the
2. Morphine 5. Ephedrine world originate?
3. Cocaine 6. Cannabis A. Thailand – Laos – Myanmar
A. 1, 2 and 3 C. 3, 4 and 5 B. Peru – Columbia – Bolivia
B. 1, 2 and 4 D. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and C. Iran – Afghanistan – India
6 D. Thailand – Laos – Burma
321. Consider the following:
I. Addiction is an overpowering compulsion to 329. Which of the following does R.A. 9165 provides
continue taking drugs when a person discharged from confinement as a
II. Addiction provide tendency of drug tolerance drug dependent under voluntary submission
III. Addiction has a detrimental effect to the individual programs?
and society A. Deserving of a suspended sentence for a
period of 6 years.

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B. Entitled to a mitigating circumstance for
his criminal liability.
C. Considered pardoned of his criminal
liability.
D. Exemption from serving criminal liability.
330. The following acts of law enforcement officers
are, in relation to the enforcement of R.A. 9165,
penalized ________.
A. of dismissal through patent laxity, inexcusable
neglect or unreasonable delay
B. failure of the immediate superior to notify the
court of the transfer or reassignment of a witness
during the pendency of the case to another territorial
jurisdiction
C. failure if the immediate superior to exert
reasonable efforts to present the witness in court
D. failure or refusal after due notice, to appear as
witness for the prosecution
331. One of the significant drug education programs
is one hinges on the belief that even if there is an
over-supply of drugs if there is no demand, there will
be no drug addiction. The BEST approach to curb
drug addiction under this belief is to ____________.
A. control the supply of illegal drugs
B. jail all users without benefit of probation
or parole
C. implement legislation and imposition of
severe penalty
D. conduct seminars to all sectors of society
332. Euphoria is the feeling experienced by a person
who is taking illegal drugs means ______.
A. state of sleepiness
B. feeling of exhaustion
C. state of well being
D. feeling hyper happiness
333. Which of the following is NOT CORRECT
regarding treatment and rehabilitation of drug
dependents?
A. Charges can be filed against a drug
dependent who is not rehabilitated under the
voluntary submission program.
B. The Dangerous Drugs Board shall order the
confinement of a drug dependent who refuses to
apply under the voluntary submission program.
C. A drug dependent discharged as rehabilitated
but does not qualify for exemption from criminal
liability shall be placed on probation.
D. Temporary release of drug dependent subject
to after-care and follow-up treatment from DOH
shall be for a period of not exceeding 18
months.
334. The following are the most popular plants
as source of dangerous drugs EXCEPT
A. opium poppy C. coca bush
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B. indian hemp D. ephedra
335. Aware of number of arrests and cases
filed in court, experts propose that hearing of
illegal drugs cases should be tried and heard by
A. RTC Courts designated as Heinous Crime
B. Special Court designated by the SC among
existing RTC
C. Sandiganbayan
D. Special Court designated by the SC
336. When a person who is known as drug
addict, by his own volition ceased from taking
illegal drugs, he/she is
A. in abstinence C. in self-healing
B. into wellness D. in self-medication
337. A minor who is convicted for the possession
of illegal drugs is entitled to
A. suspended sentence C. custody by the DSWD
B. suspension of judgment D. suspended
enforcement
338. Without a supply of illegal drugs, it will be
difficult for drug addicts to
A. be happy and feel good
B. sustain their habit of drug abuse
C. undergo rehabilitation
D. have easy access to illegal drugs
339. The withdrawal symptoms produced by a
drug is manifested by
A. withdrawal symptoms that are usually
severe and incapacitating
B. withdrawal symptoms which are
psychological in nature
C. a person who is always seen with
alcohol but never with heroin
D. symptoms which are usually opposite
to the effects of the drug itself
340. Which of the following is NOT considered
as drug trafficking pursuant to the applicable
provisions of R.A. 9165?
A. Cultivation, culture and delivery,
B. Transportation, distribution, importation,
exportation and possession
C. Use, abstinence, consumption, addiction
D. Administration, dispensation, manufacture,
sale and trading,
341. Pleasure or reward is that part of the
brain affected by pain, thus, the motivation why
people used drugs and alcohol is to
A. forget their problems C. get high
B. feel good D. spend money
342. Which of the following is NOT a condition
precedent before an arrested person may be
required to undergo a laboratory examination
within 24?
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A. The person is manifestly showing symptoms 349. When heat is transmitted through fluid or vapor,
of drug abuse. the method is called___________.
B. There is a clear showing that the suspect A. radiation C. oxidation
was under the influence of drugs. B. convection D. conduction
C. There person is showing physical signs of 350. Which of the following does not fall under class
drug abuse, A fires?
D. The person is showing psychological drug A. none of these C. burning nipa hut
addiction, B. exploding gas depot D. forest fire
343. Mandatory drug testing is NOT required by 351. Mechanical device strategically located in an
R.A. 9165 for installation or street where fire hose is connected so
A. applicant for firearms license and for permit to that water with pressure will be available to
carry firearms outside residence extinguish fire.
B. all persons charged before the prosecutor's A. fire hose box C. fire truck
office with a criminal offense having an imposable B. hose reel D. fire hydrant
penalty of not less than six (6) years and one 352. As A fire prober, you need to look for the last
(1) day person who walks out from the fire scene for the
C. officers and members of the military, police and purpose of __________.
other law enforcement agencies A. Interview C. Suspect
D. officers and employee of public and private B. Witness D. All of these
offices 353. This is the normal/ common behavior of fire in a
344. Primarily R.A. 9165 is different from previous building:
laws on illegal drugs because R.A. 9165: A. It only moves horizontally
A. gives a single definition to dangerous drug B. It has a circular movement
B. included in the definition of regulated drug the C. It moves vertically
dangerous drugs D. It has a circular movement while moving
C. prefers the classification of dangerous drug to horizontally
prohibited drug 354. A sudden introduction of air into a closed space
D. did not remove the distinction between regulated containing an oxygen-starved superheated product
and prohibited drug of incomplete combustion or oxygen-deficient free
345. Which of the following gives the feeling of radicals, may result to an explosion, which is called:
a need for more and more of illegal drugs to A. Spontaneous ignition C. flashover
achieve the same level of effect? B. Backdraft D. Flash Fire
A. Physical dependency C. Toxicity 355. It refers to the increase or rising of amperage
B. Psychological dependency D. Tolerance while electric current is flowing in a transmission line
resulting to the damage or destruction of insulating
====FIRE TECH. & ARSON INVESTIGATION==== materials, maybe gradual or rapid, internal or
external
346. It is a combustion product and a manifestation A. Arcing C. Induced Current
of fire when it is in its gas-phased combustion B. Over Heating D. Sparking
characterized by its incandescence. 356. What moves rapidly by convection and can
A. Flames C. soot spread laterally along the ceiling?
B. smoke D. Fire A. heat C. fire
347. What type of Flame is orange-red, deposit soot B. smoke D. temperature
at the bottom of a vessel being heated due to 357. A chemical process by which a liquid is
incomplete combustion and has a low temperature. transformed into its gaseous state is known as:
A. Luminous C. Non – luminous A. Vaporization C. Condensation
B. Laminar D. Turbulent B. Sublimation D. Melting
348. Heat energy transmitted from the sun in the 358. Fire or combustion produces elements and
form of electromagnetic radiation is known as: substances that are both beneficial and destructive
A. Electrical Heat Energy C. Solar Heat to humans. Product of combustion composed of tiny
Energy solid particles ________.
B. Mechanical Heat Energy D. Chemical Heat A. Fire gases C. Smoke
Energy B. Flames D. Heat

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359. Heat energy derived from nuclear energy by the 367. In order for arson to be deemed committed by a
splitting of atoms is known as: syndicate, what is the minimum number of persons
A. Fusion C. Fission involved?
B. Radiation D. Ignition A. 1 C. 3
360. What is a portable metal device used to put out B. 2 D. 4
fires of limited size? 368. The clearing of smoke and heated gases at the
A. fire hose C. fire hydrant highest point of the roof is referred to as:
B. fire extinguisher D. fire truck A. vertical ventilation C. mechanical ventilation
361. Is an act of making an opening to a building for B. forced ventilation D. horizontal ventilation
purposes of removing smoke and heat from the 369. A burned body found was subjected to autopsy;
burning building. however, examination of lungs and blood showed no
A. distillation C. abatement abnormal quantity of carbon monoxide or dioxide,
B. ventilation D. combustion what will be your interpretation under such
362. A complete and detailed checked of the circumstance?
structures and materials involved in the fire to make A. The person died because of asphyxia
sure that every spark and ember has been B. The person died because of the burning
extinguished and to have assurance against C. The person was killed before it was
rekindling. burned
A. Overhaul C. Rescue D. The person died not of fire but because of
B. Salvage D. None suffocation
Rescue - any action taken by the firefighters to 370. If you saw a man carrying all materials in arson,
remove occupants/ persons from building/ hazards as an arson prober what case will you file?
to a safety place A. attempted arson
Salvage - an action taken by the firefighters in B. malicious mischief
preventing excessive damage by fire C. illegal possession of arson paraphernalia
Overhaul – searching a fire scene to detect hidden D. none
fires or sparks that may rekindle and to identify the 371. If conflagration is only the means of killing the
possible point of origin. victim, the crime that you have to file is:
363. Highly flammable chemicals that are used to A. murder with arson C. arson with murder
facilitate flame propagation. B. murder D. arson
A. Plant C. Trailer 372. If the cause of fire is accidental in nature, does
B. Accelerant D. Gasoline it constitute prima facie of arson?
Plant – the preparation and or gathering of A. no C. it depends
combustible materials needed to start a fire. B. yes D. sometimes
Trailer – the preparation of flammable substances in CLASSIFICATION OF FIRE CAUSES (NAIU)
order to spread the fire. Natural/Providential – w/o direct human
364. This usually indicates the type of burning intervention
materials. Accidental – due to human error or negligence
A. Size of fire C. Size of Flame Incendiarism – fire was deliberately set, aka
B. Color of Smoke D. Color of Flame intentional fire/arson
365. Most common motive of Arson cases. Undetermined - cause is not proven
A. Economic gain C. Intimidation Note: It can only be considered as arson if the cause
B. Concealment of Crime D. Punitive Measure incendiarism.
366. JONEL, an employee of IPUTOK-MO-BEH 373. An iron rod when exposed directly to a flame,
fireworks factory in Bocaue, Bulacan has been the heat from the other end of the rod will be
intensely reprimanded by his supervisor for being a transferred to another end. This statement is true
habitual late-comer. With grudge to the company when referring to?
and his employer, he set fire in such factory and the a. Convection c. conduction
same has been burned. In this case, there is b. Radiation d. combustion
______. 374. It is arson when the owner of a house burned
A. Arson of small value C. Simple arson his own for purposes of collecting insurance money.
B. Destructive arson D. Consummated This is commonly referred to as:
arson a. Arson c. mischief
b. Insurance fraud d. concealment

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375. A building was burned emitting black colored 385. Materials which by their nature produces a
smoke. What possible fuel is being burned? reaction that results to rapid drop of temperature of
a) Hay c. humid substance immediate surroundings are called __________.
b) Tire d. nitrate A. coolers C. distillation
376. The effort of every individual done to avoid or B. cryogenic D. cryoprocessor
prevent the occurrence of fire: 386. Which of the following is NOT a special
a) Fire education c. fire evaluation aggravating circumstances in arson?
b) Fire prevention d. fire suppression A. If committed for the benefit of another.
377. Fire occurrences are divided into three stages. B. If committed with intent to gain.
Which stage has the highest rate of intensity? C. If spite or hatred is the motive behind it.
A. Incipient C. Smoldering D. If committed by insane person.
B. Free burning D. Initial 387. The liquid which causes fire when in contact
378. Basically, fire has three important elements for with organic matter or with certain chemicals is
its sustenance. Authorities however established ________.
what is known as the 4th element of fire. This refers A. fuel C. corrosive acid
to ____. B. combustible liquid D. incendiary
A. Fuel C. Uninhabited chemical reaction 388. What is this phenomenon in which a
B. Heat D. Oxygen combustible material generates or produces heat
379. Fire spreads in various buildings or installation because of internal chemical reaction?
due to heat, which is responsible to the spread of A. All of these C. Combustion
combustion. Heat transfer that occurs in fluids is B. Spontaneous Combustion D. Ignition
known as _________. 389. What is the category of fire setting that is a
A. Convection C. Conduction consequence of a simultaneous criminal act in order
B. Radiation D. Electrolysis to hide the primary criminal activity?
380. Out of anger, because his younger brother was A. Crime concealment C. Pyromania
mauled by the neighbour Alakdan, Cardo burned the B. Extremism D. Vandalism
house of Alakdan who unknown to him was sleeping 390. What will happen when one or more electrical
in the said house during that time. As appliances or device which draw or consume
Criminologist-Arson Investigator you will charge electrical current beyond the designed capacity of
Cardo with ______. the existing electrical system?
A. Arson with homicide C. Destructive A. Overheating C. Electric meter
arson B. Consumption D. Overloading
B. Murder D. Arson only 391. Anything that will burn when exposed to heat
381. Feeling unjustly treated by his landlord, Mang with sufficient oxygen is ____________.
Kanor burned five warehouses owned by his A. combustion C. energy
landlord, where farm products are stored. Mang B. fuel D. oxygen
Kanor committed what crime? 392. What is the material or mixture consisting of a
A. Simple Arson C. Destructive fuel and oxidizer used to set off explosive?
arson A. Combustible liquid C. Blasting agent
B. Malicious mischief D. Qualified arson B. Corrosive acid D. All of these
382. Which of the following is the source of ignition? 393. Conducting inspection of the building, you are
A. Oxygen C. All of these mindful of flammable liquids. What is the term used
B. Heat D. Fuel to describe the lowest temperature at which a
383. When white smoke appears even before the flammable liquid in an open container at which
water from the fire hose comes in contact with the vapors are evolved fast enough to support
fire, it indicates ___________. continuous combustion?
A. lack of oxygen C. indicates lack of air A. Flash point C. Melting point
B. chlorine burning D. humid material burning B. Fire Point D. Boiling point
384. What is the heat transfer whereby heat travel 394. The main source where it is assumed to be the
through solids or between solids in contact with each beginning and the exact place where fire started is
other or through intervening heat conducting _____________.
medium? A. fire scene C. incendiary place
A. Inflammation C. Convection B. point of origin D. corpus delicti
B. Radiation D. Conduction

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395. The rapid oxidation of substances by the 600. From the foregoing situation, can FO Buloy
generation of heat and light is referred to as use CO2 (Carbon Dioxide) as an extinguishing
________. agent?
A. radiation C. combustion I. Yes, as it will absorb the flammable liquid if
B. ignition D. convection the fire is just a small one
396. What is this open device installed inside the air II. No, as it will only be absorbed by the
duct system which is automatically closes the flammable liquid.
passage of smoke or fire? III. Yes, provided that the CO2 is in substantial
A. Ventilation C. Exhaust system amount.
B. Damper D. Fire exit A. I,II C. I,III
397. What are these changes whereby energy (heat) B. I D. III
is absorbed or is added before the reaction takes
place? 602. A building must have this design which is
A. Fuel Combustion C. Exothermic reaction used as a continuous passageway for the
B. Endothermic reaction D. Combustion transmission of air?
reaction A. Exhaust system C. Duct System
398. The minimum temperature to which the B. Fire exit D. Duct
substance in the air must be heated in order to 603. Investigating a burning building, you look
initiate combustion without the addition of heat from for the source of fire and its ignition. Which of
outside source is _______. the following in NOT a source of ignition?
A. flash point C. ignition temperature A. Electrical C. Accidental
B. fire point D. temperature B. Mechanical D. Chemical
399. As arson investigator, you understood the 604. What is this stage when the offender
following as some of the factors that may affect commences the commission of a felony directly
the EXTENT of burning, EXCEPT by overt acts, and does not perform all the
A. wind velocity C. numbers of incendiary acts of execution?
B. relative humidity D. air temperature A. Attempted C. Frustrated
B. None of these D. Consummated
FIRE Situation 1- FireOfficer "Buloy" was 605. What is this liquid having a flash point at
responding to the fire scene. Apparently, the or above 37.8_C (100_F)?
flammable material is an asphalt or "krudo". The A. Kerosine C. Corrosive liquid
only extinguishing agent that he has is water. B. Turpentine D. Combustible liquid
606. The Dry Chemical that is intended to be
400. From the foregoing situation, can FO Buloy used for Class "A", "B", and "C" fires is
use water to extinguish the fire? A. Multi-purpose Dry Chemical
I. No, water is not the best extinguishing agent B. CO2 dry Chemical
for flammable liquid. C. Ordinary and Regular Dry Chemical
II. Yes, if water is used in a rainy or sprinkler D. All of these
manner. 607. What is the suggested effective mixture of
III.No, absolutely not. AFFF with water to produce a foam?
A. I,III C. I,II A. 6% water to 94% foam
B. I D. III C. 94% water to 6% foam
500. From the foregoing situation and under the B. 60% water to 40% foam
given circumstance, what would be the best D. 50% water to 50% foam
extinguishing agent of FO Bikoy? 608. The stage in the commission of the crime
A. Water, so that the flammable liquid may be of arson wherein all the elements necessary for
diluted. the execution and accomplishment are present is
B. Chemical powder, as it will absorb the A. frustrated C. attempted
flammable liquid material. B. consummated D. none of these
C. Removal of the flammable material form the 609. The burning of a building used as offices
fire. of the government or any of its agencies was
D. Foam extinguishing agent as it will block the burned it is classified as
oxygen in penetrating the flammable liquid. A. destructive arson C. none of these
B. malicious arson D. other cases of arson

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610. The tool employed by an arsonist to delay

the start of the fire and allow him to establish an
alibi is
A. accelerants C. timing device
B. stopper D. delaying tactic
611. Which is NOT one of the basis of criminal
liability in arson?
A. Location of fire
B. Kind and character of the building burned
C. Location of the building
D. Whether the building burned was occupied or
not
612. What is this visual or audible signal
produced by a device to warm the occupants of
the building of the presence or danger of fire?
A. Fire drill C. Fire Alarm
B. Fire hydrant D. Fire exit
613. What is this smoke that indicates lack of
air but if accompanied by large flames it
indicates petroleum and petroleum products and
rubber?
A. Biting smoke C. White smoke
`B. Black smoke D. Fire smoke

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