CDI Final Coaching 082023

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FINAL COACHING ON CRIME DETECTION & INVESTIGATION

Prepared by: ART BURCE I, Rcrim (2nd Placer, BLEC 2014), CSSP, CSIP, SPTTC
“Whoever loves instruction, loves knowledge. But he who hates correction is stupid!”
CDI 1- FUNDAMENTALS OF CRIMINAL

INVESTIGATION AND INTELLIGENCE 9. A tool of criminal investigation, in which tangible things
can be applied in the detection of crimes, identification of
the perpetrator, which enable to assist the investigator in
1. The process wherein the police deal with the identity,
his task in achieving the objectives of criminal
location and arrest of a person for the purpose of
investigation.
bringing criminal offender to justice is:
A. Information C. Instrumentation
A. investigative process
B. Interview D. Interrogation
B. investigation
10. Which of the following is NOT one of the forms of
C criminal Investigation
information the investigator obtained from regular,
D. inquest proceedings
cultivated or grapevine sources?
2. The physical tool in criminal investigation which is
A. Sensory C. Concrete
useful in detecting, identifying, and accomplishing the
B. Written D. Physical Forms
objective of criminal investigation is _____.
11. The following questions are part of the cardinal
A. Interrogation C. Criminalistics
points of criminal investigation, EXCEPT:
B. Instrumentation D. Interview
A. How was the crime committed?
3. In conducting interrogation of the suspect what is the
B. Why was the crime committed?
principal psychological factor that will help you to a
C. What is the offender’s marital status?
successful interrogation?
D. Where was the crime committed?
A. Interrogation in the convenience of hotel
12. Identification of criminals as the initial phase of
setting
criminal investigation can be done in any/combination of
B. Interrogation conducted in privacy
the subsequent means, except:
C. Public interrogation of the subject
1. by confession or admission by the criminal
D. Interrogation laced with threats
2. by circumstantial evidence and associative evidence
4. In conducting an interrogation, what are the legal
3. by presentation of corpus delicti
matters that you should inform the suspect before the
4. by description of eyewitness
interrogation?
A. 1, 2 and 3 C. 1, 2 and 4
A. All of these
B. 1 only D. 3 only
B. That he has the right to remain silent and
13. Conducting field operations, what is this function that
anything he says can be used against him in
the individual performs and serves as the fuel that
court
propels the agency to operate properly?
C. That he has the right not to answer questions
A. Conduct of investigation C. Patrolling functions
that may be incriminatory to him
B. Police report writing D. Traffic functions
D. That he has the right to have a competent and
14. What are the minimum requirements needed for
independent counsel of his own choice, present
such extrajudicial confession be admissible as evidence
during questioning
in court?
5. Elements of corpus delicti are?
1. It must be taken under oath in the presence of his
i. Proof of occurrence of a certain event
counsel
ii. Person’s criminal responsibility of the acts
2. Confession be reduced into writing, in a particular
iii. Additional evidence of a different character
dialect known to the confessant himself
the same point
3. Such confession must be given voluntarily
iv. Cadaver of the dead victim or evidence of the
4. The same must be signed by the confessant or
stolen property
otherwise thumb marked
A. i and iii C. i and ii
A. 1, 2 and 3 C. 1, 2, 3 and 4
B. ii and iv D. iv only
B. 1 and 3 D. 1, 3 and 4
6. Characterized by the summary of habits, techniques
15. The tool of investigation which may be useful in
and peculiarities of behavior of a certain offender.
establishing the presence of the suspect at the crime
A. Means C. Modus Operandi
scene due to physical evidence discovered therein is:
B. Mens Rea D. Criminal tactics
A. interrogation C. information
7. In addition to their modus operandi, all criminal
B. interview D. instrumentation
offenders have unique psychological behavior patterns.
16. A crime may generate evidence in the form of
A trained investigator in psychological profiling, may
physical objects, to make effective use of articles found
construct the personality portrait of the offender by
at the scene the investigator must ______.
means of the following, EXCEPT analyzing the ______.
A. Preserve its physical and legal integrity
A. Physical evidence
B. All of them
B. Medical examination report
C. Recognize and collect them
C. Crime scene photos
D. Evaluate its worth in the investigation at hand
D. Reported conversation of the suspect
17. Which of the following is NOT a matter that the
8. When a person is under questioning and custody, he
suspect must be informed before the interrogation?
needs to be informed of his constitutional rights. Which
A. He has the right not to testify against
among the following forms of questioning in which the
him/herself.
appraisal of such rights is NOT applicable?
B. He has right to have an attorney present during
A. Custodial Investigation C. Tactical Interrogation
questioning.
B. Custodial Interrogation D. Field Inquiry
C. If he cannot afford an attorney one will appointed
for him free of charge.
WARNING: UNAUTHORIZED REPRODUCTION OF THIS MATERIAL IS PROHIBITED & PUNISHABLE UNDER EXISTING LAWS
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D. The has the absolute right to remain silent. 30. It refers to police files of photograph of known
18. Interview and interrogation is apparently similar in criminals, their modus operandi, hiding places and
terms of __________. names of associate criminals.
A. Attitude of the investigator A. Verbal description C. Artist Sketch
B. Manner of questioning B. General Photograph D. Rogues Gallery
C. questioning technique 31. The description of police characters which a witness
D. the purpose of questioning may refer and that is kept by police unit for purpose of
19. Which of the following is NOT true concerning references is ___________.
interrogation? A. Police files C. Rogues Gallery
A. Interrogation is conducted to test information B. Speak likeness D. portrait parle
already obtained. 32. The systematic process involved in the search,
B. Appraisal of rights and warnings are required. handling, transfer or transmittal and accountability of the
C. Adversarial or hostile nature evidence recovered from the crime scene, the
D. Warnings are not a legal requirement documentation involved up to its presentation in court, is
20. Consequence of illegal arrest; (1) the seized A. crime scene preservation
evidence is not admissible as evidence; (2) The officer B. corpus delicti
who executed the arrest may be liable criminally; (3) The C. crime scene reconstruction
officer who executed the arrest may be held liable for D. chain of custody
damages. 33. The place where the suspect either commits an
A.1 and 3 are correct C.2 and 3 are correct illegal act or leaves physical evidence of such an act is:
B.1 and 2 are correct D.1, 2 and 3 are all correct A crime scene
B. body of evidence
21. The following facts are to be established by the C. corpus delicti
Criminal Investigator, EXCEPT the _____. D body of the crime victim
A. Corpus delicti of the crime 34. The process whereby witnesses describe the “police
B. Perpetrator’s M.O. characters” or suspects for references is
C. Identity and whereabouts of the criminal _____________.
D. Damages caused to the victim or his/her A. line-up C. portrait parle
family B. observation D. rouge gallery
22. The investigation technique is effective, but also risky 34. Identifying unknown fugitive commonly done in a
because the operative conceals his true identity, adopts headquarters by is queueing with innocent person lined
and assumes a role to obtain information, is _____. before the witness.
A. Undercover C. Room assignment A. Police Lineup C. Physical Show up
B. Acting assignment D. Work assignment B. A or C D. Police Identity
23. A physical evidence found at the crime scene is 36. Which of the following is the best illustration of
BEST described as those that ______. “eavesdropping the crime scene”?
A. should be of interest to the scene of the crime A. Playing the role of curious spectator and
operatives mixed with the crowd to listen their conversation
B. can be perceived by senses B. Search physical evidence at the scene
C. are composed of matters C. None of these
D. can explain what actually have happened in a D. Estimate the extent of the scene
crime 37. Constitutional mandate to protect the citizen from
24. Which of the following is physical evidence which unreasonable search and seizure?
helps in locating the suspect? A. Equal Protection
A. Corpus delicti C. Associative evidence B. Due process
B. Trace evidence D. Documentary C. Preamble
evidence D. Bill of Rights
25. Personal effects like latent prints, shoe impressions, 38. Where does the sovereignty of the Philippines fall?
and the likes which links the suspect to the crime: A. At the land
A. Real Evidence C Associative evidence B. At the government
B. Circumstantial evidence D. Personal evidence C. At the people
26. Not one of the modes to identify the suspect: D. At the territory
A. Confession or admission 39. While investigating a case, you stumbled on an
B. Existence of circumstantial evidence intelligence record which could be important for your
C. Interviewing the witness investigation. Probably the GREATEST problem of
D. Corpus delicti evidence Intelligence records as the basis for an on-going
27. The following are the three-fold aims of criminal investigation is that they are NOT ___.
investigation EXCEPT to: A. purged and unwanted
A. prosecute the suspect B. given to the investigator on time
B. gather evidence of guilt of the suspect C. always completely accurate
C. locate the suspect D. insufficient
D. identify the suspect 40. What is MOST essential requisites of admission and
28. Which CANNOT prove the identity of the suspect? confession?
A. Confession C. Circumstantial evidence A. It must be voluntary and freely given
B. Modus operandi D. Associative evidence B. Their suspect was not tortured
29. The following are modes by which the identity of the C. No violence was used against the suspect
suspect may be known EXCEPT: D. The offender fully understands his confession
A. by corpus delicti C. confession or admission 41. Observation of a person, place or things by human or
B. eyewitnesses D. circumstantial evidence technical means to acquire information:
A. Intelligence C. Instrumentation
B. Surveillance D. Shadowing
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42. Where the operatives are stationed at a fixed place 53. Which is not a purpose of search at the crime scene:
in assumption that the subject follows the same general A. Corpus delicti C. Circumstantial
route each day, this method is? B. Associative evidence D. Tracing evidence
A. Fixed surveillance C. ABC method 54. Which of the following is NOT a matter that the
B. Leap frog method D. Digital surveillance 'suspect must be informed before the
43. When subject is being guarded against by one who interrogation?
usually stays at the rear of the subject, the technique is A. He has the right not to testify against him/herself.
____. B He has right to have an attorney present during
A. two-man shadow C. convoy questioning.
B. one-man shadow D. envoy C. If he cannot afford an attorney one will be appointed
44. Discreet listening to the conversation of the subject for him free of charge.
by the prober while the latter is seated adjacent to the D He has the absolute right to remain silent.
former’s table is practicing: 55. When evidence obtained in violation thereof is
A. discreet listening C. wiretapping inadmissible: (Exclusionary Rules)
B. eavesdropping D. bugging 1. Rights against unreasonable search and seizures
45. The physical evidence recovered from the crime 2. Right to privacy of communication and
scene must be diligently studied and meticulously correspondence
evaluated because: 3. In-custodial investigation rights and right against self-
A. all of these incrimination
B. its evaluation will lead to the type of 4. Right to counsel
wound/inflicted on a victim physical evidence A. 1 and 3 C. 1, 2 and 3
can limit the B. 2 and 4 D. 2, 3 and 4
search for the type of weapon used 56. When taking and documenting the confession of the
C. it is a material aid in locating the perpetrator suspect, the following are suggested to be done,
of a crime or narrows down the search for the EXCEPT to _____________.
criminal A. assume the literacy of the suspect.
D. Identify the perpetrator of the crime B. have additional witness to verify the statement made.
46. When a witness describes to the investigator what C. have all errors corrected and initiated by the suspect.
he/she sees, smells, hears, tastes and touches, it is D. make sure that the page of the confession be
considered as evidence. numbered consecutively
A. direct evidence C. testimonial 57. How can chain of custody of evidence be proven in
B. documentary D. real court proceedings?
47. Considering the highly technical knowledge of A. Any change in the condition of evidence can be
forensic science, it is also the duty of the forensic explained.
scientist to provide _____. B. The evidence offered is the same evidence
A. Moral supports of investigators found at the scene
B. Suggestions as to the motive of suspects C. There is no opportunity to replace or improperly
C. Expert testimonials in court alter the evidence
D. Training of non-criminologist-lawyers D. All of these
48. Probability of the sources of evidence as its 58. Noncompliance with the legal requirements in the
characteristics is very important to investigators. The conduct of custodial interrogation, you should be aware
lower the probability of physical evidence, the greater is therefore that legal consequence of which is that the
the _____. evidence you obtained is __________.
A. Difficulty of recognition C. Difficulty of analysis A. still valid C. not valid
B. Percentage of the source D. Evidentiary value B. admissible D. inadmissible
49. A crime scene will always reveal evidence in the 59. Some are elements of investigative process
form of physical objects, which must NOT be considered EXCEPT:
by the investigator? A. collection C. preservation
A. Evaluate its worth in the investigation at hand B. recognition D. presentation
B. Presume objects found at the crime scene as regular 60. Refers to the Golden Rules in homicide
C. Preserve its physical and legal integrity investigation?
D. Recognize and collect them A. Be careful with the processing of the evidence at
50. As it is their duty, in what aspect must forensic the crime scene.
specialists train the investigators and searchers at the B. The investigator is the heart and soul of
crime scene? investigation.
A. In the cataloging of evidence C. Every crime leaves evidence that points to the
B. In terms of recognition of evidence suspect.
C. Interpretation of evidence D. Never touch, alter and change the position of
D. Evidence analysis anything until measured and photographed.
51. What is this evidence that has a mass and occupies 61. Patrolman Bulbulero, a criminologist, who come
space? upon a body and not sure that death has taken place.
A. Physical C. Testimonial His first action should be:
B. Circumstantial D. Hearsay A. To call a priest to save the soul of the victim
52. As a rule, it would not be sufficient for police officers B. Pray for the soul of the victim
just to recite Section 12, Art 3 of the constitution. He is C. Summon medical assistance
also duty bound to _________. D. Determine whether the person is still alive
A. Communicate what the person under interrogation 62. As a first responder, how will you protect an outdoor
may or may not do crime scene?
B. Tell the person of the rights to which he is detained A. Establish a command center
C. Explain the effect of some rights in practical terms B. Barricade and guard the crime scene
D. None of them C. Lock the door of the crime scene
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D. Wait for the arrival of SOCO C. Made supplemental to photograph

63. Many contemporary investigators agrees that the D. Fill in all the details on your rough sketch at
success of most criminal investigations begin at the the scene.
crime scene EXCEPT: 74. A crime-scene sketch should include all of the
A. it is at the crime scene where vital physical following EXCEPT:
evidence can be discovered A. a north heading on the diagram
B. it is at the crime scene where the modus B. a scale of distance
operandi of the criminal can be discovered and C. type of search pattern
established D date and location of the crime scene~
C. it is at the crime scene where vital information 75. In what order would the steps be done by the
can be learned investigator upon the finding of an evidential cigarette
D. it is at the crime scene where vital witnesses butt?
can be located, or sometimes the suspect 1. Making sketch; 2. Photographing; 3. Recording
arrested A. 2, 1 and 3 C. 2, 3 and 1
64. What kind of evidence that can be associated with B. 3, 2 and 1 D. 1, 2 and 3
the group? 76. What is the first thing to do after seeing or visualizing
A. Individual characteristics C. Testimonial a fingerprint?
evidence A. To lift the visualized fingerprint.
B. Class characteristics D. Physical evidence B. To photograph the visualized fingerprint.
65. Most physical evidence primarily found in? C. To cut off the portion where the fingerprint is
A. victim C. crime scene located
B. suspect D. all of these D. None of these
66. Two methods of reasoning that assist critical 77. Which one is not a means of recording crime a
thinking, and which are peculiar to the investigative scene?
process: A. By photographs C. By sketches
A. Conductive and conducive B. By notes D. By surveying
B. Assumptive and presumptive 78. Photographs to be taken at the scene of the crime,
C. Deductive and inductive except:
D. Conclusive and analytical A. Over-All and environment’s photograph
67. Consider the following statements in reconstruction B. Photographs of articles of evidence and
of a crime: (1) the investigator rational theory of the photographs of the deceased
crime may begin with deductive logic and followed by C. Photographs of the scene of the crime
inductive logic; and (2) A rational theory of crime is more operatives showing their identity
than a learned guess, but less than a certainty, but have D. Special techniques photograph of the body
very high order of probability. Choose your answer: after removal
A. 1 is correct, but 2 is not correct. Note: In crime scene photography, the crime
B. 1 and 2 are both not correct. photographer should be interested only in portraying the
C. 1 and 2 are both correct. facts of the case.
D. 1 is not correct, but 2 is correct. 79. What would be the best camera position in taking
68. A cadaver sustained a gunshot wound in the head photographs showing a view of what a witness might
with a pistol located near his hand. Officer Dalisay, the have seen?
prober, was informed by the relatives that the victim had A. at 6 feet distance from the camera man
a painful terminal illness. He then concluded that the B. overhead
wound is self-inflicted. This is an example which the C. parallel to the subject or witness
investigator used what kind of reasoning? D. at the eye level
A. Deductive C. Laxative 80. When a crime scene is subdivided into areas (breaks
B. Logical D. Inductive the area into smaller ones), a building into rooms or
69. Statement or observation that can be verified by floors then each of the fire officer or officers are then
other verifiable points of information is _____. assigned accordingly, the search pattern is:
A. Evidence C. Means A. Concentric search C. Strip search
B. Fact D. Opinion B. Sector Search D. Double strip
70. What is this process wherein confession is used to 81. A finished sketch is primarily made from a rough
describe the events of the crime? sketch for _______.
A. Re-enactment of crime A. scale and proportion C. accuracy and clarity
B. Reconstruction of crime scene B. future use D. court presentation
C. Mental reconstruction of crime 82. Arrested suspects are photographed both full face
D. Physical reconstruction of crime and side profile:
71. Whatever is the search pattern or method used, the A. Line up C. Selfie
most important consideration should be, that it B. Cumshot D. Mug shot
A. ergometric C. systematic 83. Before the police officer may be allowed to search
B. geometric D. redundant the person's home, he/she is required to secure
72. Guiding principles in taking dying declaration; (1) Its A. good reason
admissibility is not dependent on their being made in any B. search warrant
particular form, and (2) The same does not need be C. good suspicion
under oath. What do you observe? D. good rate of experience
A. 1 and 2 are both incorrect C. Only 1 is correct 84. If there is only one searcher, what pattern is
B. Only 2 is correct D. 1 and 2 are both advisable to be used?
correct A. Strip C. Spiral
73. What makes a sketch WRONG? B. Zone D. Grid
A. Indicate the North direction with an arrow. 85. What is this preliminary ocular inspection conducted
B. Must be verified by the investigator by the lead investigator to establish the possible
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entrance and exits of the perpetrator and which primary 95. The following are considered as an “Elusive” object
point of impact at the scene? in crime scene investigation, EXCEPT:
A. Survey at the scene C. Eavesdrop the crime A. associative evidence C. object evidence
scene B. testimonial evidence D. physical evidence
B. Preliminary investigation D. Search the scene 96. A crime-scene sketch should include all of the
following EXCEPT:
86. The suggested search method when the crime scene A. a north heading on the diagram
is approximately circular, or oval is ______ method. B. a scale of distance
A. strip C. wheel C. type of search pattern
B. double strip D. zone D. date and location of the crime scene
87. Method of locating points in a sketch done by 97. The search warrant that the police officer needs must
drawing a straight line either diagonal or parallel to either be obtained from the
of the sides then using such line as the basis of locating A. chief of police
and measuring the pieces of evidence. B. Judge
A. Baseline C. triangulation C. prosecutor's office
B. Compass-point D. Angular D. NBI
Compass-point method – protractor/one point
Triangulation – 2 fixed point
Baseline – done by drawing a straight line CDI 2-3: SPECIALIZED CRIME INVESTIGATION 1 & 2
Rectangular coordinate – 2 nearest walls
Cross-projection/Exploded view – walls folded down
to show bullet holes/blood stains 98. Which of the following is not included in the coverage
88. The measurement method that uses straight line of special crime investigation?
measures from two fixed objects to the evidence to A. Gambling cases C. Estafa Cases
create a triangle with the evidence in the angle formed B. Falsification Cases D. Hit and Run cases
by the two straight lines is ____. 99. The corpus delicti in the crime of theft is the ____.
A. Compass point C. Triangulation A. Property taken regardless of the value
B. Baseline D. Rectangulation B. Fact the crime was committed
89. NOT a purpose of crime scene search: C. Consummation of the crime
A. Physical evidence C. Circumstantial D. Value of the property taken
B. Associative D. Tracing 100. The examination of the qualitative and quantitative
90. Starting at the central point, what search pattern is analysis of the unknown substance is the primary
being conducted? responsibility of ______.
A. Concentric search C. Strip Search A. Instrumentation C. Crime laboratory
B. Double strip D. Zone search B. Forensic science D. Criminalistics
91. DOES NOT contribute to the reasons why the value 101. Which of the following is not one of this so called
of physical evidence is diminished: “Burned Bridges”?
A. Human failure to appreciate it A. When the dead body has been moved
B. Human failure to find it B. When the dead body has been embalmed
C. Human failure to study C. When the dead body has been contaminated and the
D. Human failure to understand chain of custody was not properly accounted
92. Physical evidence are contaminated, altered of D. When the dead body has been cremated or burned
shape, damaged or lost because of:
a. Improper packaging and non-maintenance of 102. The most prominent sign of death is cooling of the
chain of custody body or Algor mortis. Afterwards the body becomes
b. Corruption of investigator relaxed and suddenly it rigidly starts from jaw down to
c. Carelessness of the evidence custodian the body. In what place that the blowflies lay their eggs?
d. Incompetence and ineptness of SOCO A. Stagnant water C. canal
personnel B. Rotten flesh D. none of the above
93. An improperly search crime scene and improperly 103. Only jaw was left in a bombing incident, what
preserve physical evidence by the investigator, what forensic science should be applied on this case?
would be the consequence? A. Dactyloscopy C. Horoscopy
A. They can be sued under existing law, B. Iridology D. Odontology
criminally or administratively. 104. It is a state of temporary cessation of vital
B. They can be always return to the scene and processes were depressed to the minimum compatible
perform crime scene search again. with life.
C. Sensitive laboratory procedure can still A. Apparent Death
extract the needed information. B. State of suspended animation
D. Permanent and irreversible damage harmful C. Brain Dead/Coma
to the conduct of investigation. D. Both A and B
94. The successful outcome of a criminal investigation is 105. As Criminologist-Investigator what crime if any
almost always directly relating to _______. would you charged against A who stabbed his neighbor
A. the complexity of the crime and its crime C to death after the former caught the latter on the act of
scene having sexual intercourse with the former’s wife.
B. the number and professional competence of A. Homicide C. Parricide
laboratory people. B. Murder D. None
C. the manner of collection and preservation of 106. When a rape case is being investigated,
evidence investigators know that something is left in the crime
D. the number of physical evidence collected scene, presence of semen is possible, what test can be
from the crime scene applied to determine the presence?
A. Phenolphthalein C. Density-gradient
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B. Paraffin D. acid- phosphatase B. site of wound entrance has no point of election

107. Which of the following methods in hair analysis is C. wounding firearm found in the hands of the victim
NOT included? D. no disturbance in the crime scene
A. Dry mount C. Parallel mounting 118. The following are the methods used by physicians
B. Wet mount D. Benzidine to determine the time of death EXCEPT _____.
108. Which of the following are/is correct in so far as the A. Autopsy C. Putrefaction
crime of parricide is concerned? B. Post-mortem lividity D. Rigor mortis
1. Proof of legitimacy is not required if the deceased is 119. Strangulation by ______ is produced by
either the father, mother or the child of the offender compression of the neck by means of a ligature which is
2. The spouse must be legitimate tightened by a force other than the weight of the body.
3. There is no crime of parricide thru reckless A. ligature C. Hanging
imprudence B. throttling D. gagging
4. The relationship, except the spouse, must be in direct 120. Which of the following is the disinterment of the
line and by blood body for examinations to clarify any suspicions
A. 1, 2 and 3 C. 1, 3 and 4 surrounding the death?
B. 1, 2 and 4 D. Only 3 A. Autopsy C. Medico legal
109. In what circumstances change murder to homicide? B. All of these D. Exhumations
A. Treachery 121. Which of the following is a blunt force injury caused
B. Absence of qualifying circumstances by dragging that tears off the tissue often caused by very
C. Lack of intent forceful blunt-instrument blows?
D. Taking advantage of superior strength A. Abrasions C. Punctures
110. Which of the following is not serious crimes which B. Contusions D. Lacerations
leave physical evidence? 122. The following are possibilities on what can happen
A. Carnapping and arson C. Homicide and to the bullet upon entry in the body, EXCEPT:
assault A. Either shatter or fragment
B. Treason and libel D. Sexual assault and robbery B. Ricochet off bone
111. In identification of the victim, dental comparison C. Maybe ineffective
may be resorted to. Generally, two of the following must D. Shift location away from the entry path or exit
be present in order to make a successful dental 123. The stiffening of the muscles of the body because
comparison: of chemical change is ______ mortis.
1.The victims dental work is present and charted A. Algor C. Rigor
2.The dentist who accomplished the work is located B. Livor D. Edgar
3.The dental structures are well preserved 124. Which of the following tests is applied when
A. 1, 2 C. 2, 3 forensic experts want to determine if the blood being
B. 1, 2, 3 D. 1, 3 examined is of human or non-human?
112. Which of the following is NOT the intentional killing A. Blood grouping C. Confirmatory
of a human by another human? B. Precipitin D. Preliminary
A. Murder C. Homicide 125. On stage of death, the respiration and metabolism
B. Negligence D. Infanticide of the body ____ death of cells happen.
113. What is the approximation of the time of death A. Rigor mortis C. Molecular or Cellular
based on what appears typically as deep blue purplish B. Clinical D. Apparent
discoloration on the body after death? 126. What will be the findings in gunshot wound
A. Medico-legal C. Autopsy examination, when the powder produces yellow marks
B. Post-mortem lividity D. Rigor mortis around the wound?
114. Which of the following is NOT an indication of A. The victim was dead before the shooting
suicidal and homicidal gunshot cases? B. The person shoot himself
A. The location of the wound is in the area of the body C. The person died immediately after the shooting
which is inaccessible D. Someone shoot him at the back
B. The victim did not die as a result of the gunshot 127. What is this stiffening of the body caused by severe
wound trauma to the nervous system of intense stress?
C. The wound that was inflicted is in the area other than A. Cadaveric spasm C. Livor mortis
that head or chest B. Post-mortem lividity D. Rigor mortis
D. The wound indicates discharge beyond the victim’s 128. The age of sexual consent under the Philippine
arm’s length Law:
115. In attempted or frustrated homicide, the offender A. under 16 C. 16 years old
must have the intent to kill the victim. If there is no intent B. 16 below D. 18 years old
to kill, the offender is liable for – 129. What is the condition of a dead body characterized
A. Physical Injury C. Serious physical injury by the hardening of the muscles due to solidification of
B. Homicide D. Consummated physical injury fats when the body is exposed to cold temperature?
116. Legally, when does death considered to have A. Flaccidity C. Putrefaction
occurred? B. Cadaveric spasm D. Cold stiffening
1. Respiratory system is no longer performing within the 130. Rape by fraudulent machinations under RA 8353
body can be committed either among the choices except one.
2. Cardiac activity is no longer performing within the a. Promise to marry
body b. Prostitute who has not been paid as agreed
3. Central Nervous System ceases to function c. Person in authority who arrest another and having sex
A. 1 C. 2 and 3 with the latter with the promise of release from custody
B. 1 and 2 D. 1, 2 and 3 d. Sexual intercourse while the victim is unconscious or
117. What medical evidence can show that a gunshot otherwise deprive of reason
wound is homicidal? 131. Which of the following is not a rape by sexual
A. no sign of struggle from the victim assault?
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A. Inserting penis into another person’s mouth A. From what direction was the force applied coming
B. Inserting penis into another person’s anal orifice from?
C. Inserting penis while the woman is sleeping B. How many are victims?
D. Inserting any instrument or object, into the genital or C. What is the position of the victim when he was
anal orifice of another person. assaulted?
132. What is the type of wound that occurs when your D. Was there evidence of defense mark or struggle?
skin rubs or scrape against a rough surface? 145. Outside of the family structure, emotional
A. Laceration C. Stab disputes that result to killing often occur in the bars
B. Abrasions D. Punctured and similar social gathering places. Which of the
133. When a bullet is fired through a pane of glass, the following are MOST LIKELY the cause?
side of the glass where concentric fractures will MOST A. Consumption of alcoholic beverages
probably appear is the pane of glass. B. Jealousy between friends
A. both side where the bullet entered C. Taking of illegal drugs
B. neither side D. Distrust with or among strangers
C. the side where the bullet exited 146. Studies have shown that workplace homicide
D. the side where the bullet entered suspects are TYPICALLY caused by the following,
134. Deaths resulting from asphyxia are due to: EXCEPT:
A. a sudden or gradual cessation of oxygen A. disgruntled employee C. obsessive
intake employee
B. sudden and gradual loss perspiration B. domestic offender D. stranger or outsider
C. the hardening and clotting of the blood 147. The following can be answered by medico legal
D. lack of platelets in the blood. report regarding the weapon used in the commission of
135. The cracks produced in glass originated on the the crime, EXCEPT _________.
opposite surface of the glass and subjected to stretching A. injuries discovered upon examination
are known as: B. type of the weapon used
A. Concentric C. radial C. characteristics of certain type of crime
B. A and c D. none D. sexual orientation of the suspect
136. When murders based on relationship are to be 148. To estimate the post mortem interval for a corpse, it
committed in a home, who among the following is important to collect as many insects as possible and
MOST LIKELY could be murdered in the also to have a good estimate of the __________.
BEDROOM? A. soil conditions
A. Parents-in-law C. Female B. body weight of the dead person
B. Male D. Children C. body clothing of the dead person
137. What is the stiffening of the body muscles after D. temperature of the surroundings
death due to chemical changes which is used to 149. When a screw driver used to force a lock, it leaves
estimate the time of death? _________.
A. Regur mortes C. Rigor Mortes A. Scratch C. Trademarks
B. Livor mortis D. Rigor Mortis B. Scrap D. Tool marks
138. A killing NOT caused by human being is death by: 150. A crime of killing is being investigated by PSSG
A. by means of intent C. negligence Razal which requires the of assistance of Dr. Corpuz in
B. imprudence D. natural cause the conduct of post-mortem examination and autopsy.
139. How long before the death of individual cells of the After conducting examination on the cadaver, one of the
body (muscles) starts to occur? findings, among others, is that the victim’s tongue is
A. Three to six hours C. Immediately after protruding between the lips, about 1 inch teeth line.
death Which MOST LIKELY of the following is the cause of
B. Twenty-four hours D. Twelve hours death?
5 mins – nerve cells and brain cells A. Stabbing C. Hanging
140. The method of approximation of the time of death B. Strangulation D. Gunshot
based on what appears typically as a deep blue or 151. Which of the following most likely is the result of
purplish discoloration on the body after death is: friction of the body against a hard rough object?
A. post-mortem lividity C. medico legal A. Laceration C. Hacked wound
B. autopsy D. rigor mortis B. Puncture D. Abrasions
141. Evidence of violence characterized by the removal 152. Not a good questioning technique to be adopted in
of the superficial epithelial layer of the skin brought about the conduct of interrogation:
by friction against a hard rough surface is __________. A. General to specific C. Chronological
A. Contusion C. Patterned wound B. Going downward D. Going upward
B. Abrasions D. Hematoma 153. Criminal investigation of homicide or murder is a
142. One important characteristics of the gunshot wound discovery process. The investigator seeks to discover
of exit is _____. and document the following IMPORTANT facts,
A. that the edge is averted EXCEPT the:
B. that the edge is inverted A. cause of death C. identity of the offender
C. that the size is smaller than the missile B. relationship D. type of death or crime
D. that the shape is round or ova 154. Which statement is TRUE when an investigator
143. Death by Asphyxia MAY BE the result of the looks for signs of death by LIVOR MORTIS?
following strangulation, EXCEPT A. The body gradually cools
A. hanging C. suffocation B. The first sign is a greenish skin discoloration
B. manual D. ligature appearing on the right lower abdomen about the
144. Which of the following are the questions in incidents second or third day after death,
involving assaults that CANNOT be answer by a medico C. All of the body muscles are affected.
legal?
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D. The skin, no longer under muscular control, 168. A portable metal device used to put out fires of
succumbs to gravity, and forming new shapes, limited size:
among others. A. fire hose C. fire hydrant
B. fire extinguisher D. fire truck
169. Opening is made to a building for purposes of
CDI 4: FIRE TECH. & ARSON INVESTIGATION removing smoke and heat from the burning building.
A. distillation C. abatement
155. The heat transfer exemplified by heat applied on B. ventilation D. combustion
one end of an iron rod, and the heat spreads throughout 170. A complete and detailed checked of the fire scene
the entire iron rod: to ensure that every spark and ember has been
A. Radiation C. Conduction extinguished and to prevent rekindling.
B. Flammation D. Convection A. Overhaul C. Rescue
156. A manifestation of fire in a gas-phased combustion B. Salvage D. None
characterized by its incandescence: Rescue - any action taken by the firefighters to remove
A. Flame C. Soot occupants/ persons from building/ hazards to a safety
B. Smoke D. Fire place
157. When heat is transmitted through fluid or vapor, the Salvage - an action taken by the firefighters in
method is called___________. preventing excessive damage by fire
A. radiation C. oxidation Overhaul – searching a fire scene to detect hidden fires
B. convection D. conduction or sparks that may rekindle and to identify the possible
158. Which of the following does not fall under class A point of origin.
fires? 171. Highly flammable chemicals that are used to
A. none of these C. burning nipa hut facilitate flame propagation.
B. exploding gas depot D. Forest fire A. Plant C. Trailer
159. A device mechanically and strategically located in B. Accelerant D. Gasoline
an installation or street where fire hose is connected as a Plant – the preparation and or gathering of combustible
source of pressurized water use to extinguish fire. materials needed to start a fire.
A. fire hose box C. fire truck Trailer – the preparation of flammable substances in
B. hose reel D. fire hydrant order to spread the fire.
160. As a fire prober, you need to look for the last person 172. Indicates the type of burning materials.
to get out from the fire scene for the purpose of A. Size of fire C. Size of Flame
__________. B. Color of Smoke D. Color of Flame
A. Interview C. Suspect 173. Arson is commonly committed because of ___.
B. Witness D. All of these A. Economic gain C. Intimidation
161. This is the normal/ common behavior of fire in a B. Concealment of Crime D. Punitive Measure
building: 174. This can be readily identified by their distinctive
A. It only moves horizontally odors and most common examples are gasoline,
B. It has a circular movement turpentine and kerosine:
C. It moves vertically A. Trailers C. Stoppers
D. It has a circular movement while moving B. Timing device D. Accelerants
horizontally 175. Which of the following best illustrate arson?
162. Extinguishing fire by lowering the temperature: A. unexplained explosion
A. Quenching B. simultaneous fire
B. Smothering C. faulty electrical wiring
C. Starving D. thick reddish smoke
D. Inhibition 176. The clearing of smoke and heated gases at the
163. The increase of amperage while electric current is highest point of the roof is referred to as:
flowing in a transmission line resulting to the damage or A. vertical ventilation C. mechanical ventilation
destruction of insulating materials: B. forced ventilation D. horizontal ventilation
A. Arcing C. Induced Current 177. Upon examination of the cadaver found at the fire
B. Over Heating D. Sparking scene, no abnormal quantity of carbon monoxide or
164. Flame which is orange-red, has low temperature dioxide are found on lungs and blood. Your interpretation
and deposit soot at the bottom of a vessel being heated would be?
due to incomplete combustion: A. The person died of asphyxia
A. Luminous C. Non – luminous B. The person died of the burning
B. Laminar D. Turbulent C. The person was killed before it was burned
165. A phase of fire where it may last for hours but not D. The person died of choking
directly observable? 178. Which of the following is the LEAST utilized ignition
A. Growth technique employed by sophisticated arsonists?
B. Incipient A. Striking matches
C. Decay B. Gasoline
D. Fully-developed C. Chemicals
166. Product of combustion composed of tiny solid D. Electrical appliances
particles ________. 179. A protection system usually found on high-rise
A. Fire gases C. Smoke buildings connected to fire hose stations and which
B. Flames D. Heat firefighters can also use to connect their hoses:
167. Heat energy derived from nuclear energy by the A. Fire hose system
splitting of atoms is known as: B. Standpipe system
A. Fusion C. Fission C. Sprinkler system
B. Radiation D. Ignition D. Alarm system
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180. If the cause of fire is accidental in nature, does it B. cryogenic D. cryoprocessor

constitute prima facie of arson? 194. Which of the following is NOT a special aggravating
A. no C. it depends circumstances in arson?
B. yes D. sometimes A. If committed for the benefit of another.
CLASSIFICATION OF FIRE CAUSES (NAIU) B. If committed with intent to gain.
1. Natural/Providential – w/o direct human C. If spite or hatred is the motive behind it.
intervention D. If committed by insane person.
2. Accidental – due to human error or negligence 195. The liquid which causes fire when in contact with
3. Incendiarism – fire was deliberately set, aka organic matter or with certain chemicals is ________.
intentional fire/arson A. fuel C. corrosive acid
4. Undetermined - cause is not proven B. combustible liquid D. incendiary
Note: It can only be considered as arson if the cause 196. A phenomenon when a combustible material
incendiarism. generates or produces heat because of internal chemical
181. A strong oxidizing organic compound which reaction:
releases oxygen readily. A. All of these C. Combustion
A. Blasting agent C. Corrosive liquid B. Spontaneous Combustion D. Ignition
B. Organic Peroxide D. Combustible Liquid 197. What is the category of fire setting that is a
182. A condition where the unburned fire gasses consequence of a simultaneous criminal act in order to
accumulate at the top of an enclosed room, ignite and hide the primary criminal activity?
flame propagates through the hot gas layer across the A. Crime concealment C. Pyromania
ceiling: B. Extremism D. Vandalism
A. Rollover C. Backdraft 198. It occurs when one or more electrical appliances or
B. Flashover D. Isolated flame device which draw or consume electrical current beyond
183. What possible fuel is being burned when emission the designed capacity of the existing electrical system:
of black colored smoke is observed? A. Overheating C. Electric meter
A. Hay C. humid substance B. Consumption D. Overloading
B Tire D. nitrate 199. Anything that will burn when exposed to heat with
184. The effort of every individual done to avoid or sufficient oxygen is ____________.
prevent the occurrence of fire: A. combustion C. energy
A. Fire education C. fire evaluation B. fuel D. oxygen
B. Fire prevention D. fire suppression 200. What is the material or mixture consisting of a fuel
185. Fire occurrences are divided into three stages. and oxidizer used to set off explosive?
Which stage has the highest rate of intensity? A. Combustible liquid C. Blasting agent
A. Incipient C. Smoldering B. Corrosive acid D. All of these
B. Free burning D. Initial 201. The lowest temperature at which a flammable liquid
186. Authorities established what is known as the 4th in an open container at which vapors are evolved fast
element of fire. This refers to ____. enough to support continuous combustion:
A. Fuel C. Uninhabited chemical reaction A. Flash point C. Melting point
B. Heat D. Oxygen B. Fire Point D. Boiling point
187. Heat transfer that occurs in fluids is known as 202. The main source where it is assumed to be the
_________. beginning and the exact place where fire started is
A. Convection C. Conduction _____________.
B. Radiation D. Electrolysis A. fire scene C. incendiary place
188. Mansky, motivated by revenge, burned the house of B. point of origin D. corpus delicti
Ines who unknown to him was sleeping in the said house 203. The rapid oxidation of substances by the generation
during that time. As Criminologist-Arson Investigator you of heat and light is referred to as________.
will charge Mansky with ______. A. radiation C. combustion
A. Arson with homicide C. Destructive arson B. ignition D. convection
B. Murder D. Arson only 204. An open device installed inside the air duct system
189. Out of grudge, Thirdy burned five warehouses which is automatically closes the passage of smoke or
owned by Barok, where farm products are stored. He fire:
committed what crime? A. Ventilation C. Exhaust system
A. Simple Arson C. Destructive arson B. Damper D. Fire exit
B. Malicious mischief D. Qualified arson 205. What are these changes whereby energy (heat) is
190. Which of the following is the source of ignition? absorbed or is added before the reaction takes place?
A. Oxygen C. All of these A. Fuel Combustion C. Exothermic reaction
B. Heat D. Fuel B. Endothermic reaction D. Combustion reaction
191. When white smoke appears even before the water 206. In the investigation of suspected arson, which of the
from the fire hose comes in contact with the fire, it following is NOT some factors that may affect the extent
indicates ___________. of burning?
A. lack of oxygen C. indicates lack of air A. Wind velocity C. Relative humidity
B. chlorine burning D. humid material burning B. Numbers of incendiary D. Air temperature
192. The method whereby heat travel through solids or
between solids in contact with each other or through 207. Can FO1 Johny use water to extinguish the fire
intervening heat conducting medium: involving flammable liquids such as asphalt or krudo?
A. Inflammation C. Convection I. No, water is not the best extinguishing agent for
B. Radiation D. Conduction flammable liquid.
193. Materials which by their nature produces a reaction II. Yes, if water is used in a rainy or sprinkler manner.
that results to rapid drop of temperature of immediate III. No, absolutely not.
surroundings are called __________. A. I, III C. I, II
A. coolers C. distillation B. I D. III
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208. In Class B fires, what would be the best C. Location of the building
extinguishing agent of FO Johny? D. Whether or not the building burned was
A. Water, so that the flammable liquid may be occupied
diluted. 220. The motive of the arsonists who enjoys the actual
B. Chemical powder, as it will absorb the fire setting or the fire suppression activities is
flammable liquid material. A. excitement C. vandalism
C. Removal of the flammable material form the B. adventure D. thrill
fire. 221. What is this smoke that indicates lack of air
D. Foam extinguishing agent as it will block the but if accompanied by large flames it indicates
oxygen in penetrating the flammable liquid. petroleum and petroleum products and rubber?
209. In Class B fires, can CO2 be used as an A. Biting smoke C. White smoke
extinguishing agent? B. Black smoke D. Fire smoke
I. Yes, as it will absorb the flammable liquid if the fire is 222. Fire is an example of what type of chemical
just a small one reaction?
II. No, as it will only be absorbed by the flammable liquid. A None of these C. Oxidation-reduction
III. Yes, provided that the CO2 is in substantial amount. B. Acid-base D. Precipitation
A. I, II C. I, III 223. What is this class of fire that involves woods and
B. I D. III wood product?
210. The suggested effective mixture of AFFF with water A. Class "C" C. Class "B"
to produce a foam: B. Class "A" D. Class "D"
A. 6% water to 94% foam 224. Because of the metallic nature of this flammable
C. 94% water to 6% foam material, this fire can be best extinguished by using dry
B. 60% water to 40% foam powder ABC chemical, baking soda or sand. This is a __
D. 50% water to 50% foam fire.
211. Investigating a burning building, you look for the A. Class "B" B. Class "D"
source of fire and its ignition. Which of the following in C. Class "A" D. Class "C"
NOT a source of ignition? 225. A fire gas that will react with hemoglobin, thus
A. Electrical C. Accidental removing the oxygen from the blood and at the same
B. Mechanical D. Chemical time prevents the disposal of a carbon dioxide through
212. An indication of arson caused by splashing of our lungs. The hazard of this is toxicity and may cause
flammable substance on the surface of the floor/ground death by asphyxia.
inside the burning building: A. Carbon Monoxide C. Carbon Dioxide
A. Pour pattern C. Point of B. Sulfur Dioxide D. Ammonia
origin 226. A colorless and highly toxic gas it smells like a
B. Timing device D. Smoke color rotten egg, prolonged exposure to a concentrate for
213. What is this liquid having a flash point at or above more than half an hour is dangerous and mat cause
37.8*C (100*F)? symptoms of poisoning.
A. Kerosine C. Corrosive liquid A. Hydrogen Sulfide C. Hydrogen Chloride
B. Turpentine D. Combustible liquid B. Hydrogen Cyanide D. Hydrogin Bilog
214. The Dry Chemical that is intended to be used for
Class “A”, “B”, and “C” fires is 227. At a major fire in a factory, a number of compressed
A. Multi-purpose Dry Chemical gas cylinders containing carbon dioxide (CO2) are
B. CO2 dry Chemical threatened by the flames. Which is CORRECT to say
C. Ordinary and Regular Dry Chemical about this situation?
D. All of these A. The gas is toxic and will make fighting the fire very
215. A building must have this design which is used as hazardous.
a continuous passageway for the transmission of air? B. Since CO2 is a hon-flammable gas, there’s no hazard
A. Exhaust system C. Duct System and no problem.
B. Fire exit D. Duct C. The cylinders may explode and injure the firefighters.
216. After a fire in which arson is suspected, you may D. If the safety valves let go, the CO2 will intensify the
be able to trace the fire to its origin because __. fire.
A. the alligator pattern of charring is not as light
absorbent of the surrounding areas 228. At a large fire in a factory, a firefighter discovers a
B. the checks of the charring process will be number of compressed gas cylinders that are severely
larger than the surrounding areas exposed by the fire. Which is the MOST critical hazard in
C. the pattern of charring at the point of origin is this situation?
smaller and deeper than the rest of the areas A. The valuable gas and cylinders may be
D. the point of origin will be darker than the rest damaged.
of the areas B. The cylinders may explode.
217. The burning of a building used as offices of the C. The flammable compressed gas may be
government or any of its agencies was burned it is released and intensify the fire.
classified as D. The toxic fumes from the compressed 75gas
A. destructive arson C. none of these may be released.
B. malicious arson D. other cases of arson 229. While responding to fire, fire 'officers do not talk
218. The tool employed by an arsonist to delay the with the firefighter driving the apparatus. The primary
start of the fire and allow him to establish an alibi is reason for this is to
A. accelerants C. timing device A. ensure that the chain of command is
B. stopper D. delaying tactic maintained
219. NOT one of the bases of criminal liability in arson: B. allow the officer to prepare mentally to fight
A. Location of fire the fire
B. Kind and character of the building burned
11
C. ensure that the driver is able to concentrate Subway - An underground conduit running entirely
and safely get the apparatus to the fire under the ground for fast travel route of commuters.
D. allow the officer to watch how the firefighter 239. Which of the following should NOT be considered in
handles the apparatus the examination of the body of the victim in a hit-and-run
230. Firefighters should not use water on live electrical case?
equipment because: A. Other parts of the victim's body
A. there is a danger of conducting electricity and B. Tire marks, grease or paint chips
endangering the firefighter C. The victim’s brand of clothing
B. It will cause short circuit and damage the D. Victim’s internal organs or cause of death
equipment 240. Holder of student driver’s permit for the period of
C.it is ineffective on electrical equipment not less than ________ can apply for professional
D. this expensive, sophisticated equipment may driver’s license.
be ruined it will cause short circuits and damage A. 150 Days C. 180 Days
the equipment B. 60 Days D. 30 Days
231. The motive of the arsonists who enjoys the actual 241. 1st - Driver’s license is a matter of right not only a
fire setting or the fire suppression activities is: privilege.
A. excitement C. vandalism 2nd- Driver’s License is issued to a person, who has all
B. adventure D. thrill the qualification as provided by law
232. What is this motive of the fire setter in retaliation to 3rd- Driver’s License is a public document
real or perceived injustice? A. The 1st and 2nd statements are correct
A. Revenge C. Vandalism B. The 1st and 3rd statements are incorrect.
B. Adventure D. Pyromania C. The 2nd and 3rd statements are correct
233. Which is NOT a description of materials or D. All statements are correct
compounds that are easily set on fire? 242. Human errors as one cause of traffic congestion is
A. Flammable C. Combustible best characterized by, EXCEPT:
B. Inflammable D. Corrosive. A. Poor legislation activities
B. Lack of foresight on the part of pedestrians
CDI 5: TRAFFIC MANAGEMENT & ACCIDENT C. Effective and efficient traffic officers
INVESTIGATION WITH DRIVING D. Slow drivers or bad driving habit
243. In arresting the traffic violator or when it involved
234. A number of traffic regulations revolve around arrest due to traffic violation, the following procedures
questions of right of way, for practically purposes, one of are followed except:
the following is the best definition of “Right of way”. A. bring the suspended person before the court
A. The personal right to move from one place to another B. detention of the arrested person may take place
B. The privilege of immediate use of particular section of C. arrest can be affected even without a warrant
highway D. impose the probable penalty that might be imposed
C. The way or place open to the motorist and pedestrian 244. Is it correct to say that the world’s first traffic light
D. The right of a vehicle to occupy a space w/c at the came into being before the automobile was in use?
time is occupied by another vehicle A. No C. It Depends
B. Sometimes D. Yes
235. Professional and non-professional driver’s license is 245. The double solid white line:
valid for _________ from the date of issuance and A. doesn’t allow lane changing.
renewable every birth month. B. allows overtaking
A. 60 Months C. 36 Months C. allows lane changing
B. 24 Months D. 12 Months D. allows parking
Administrative Order No. 2016–034/RA 10930– Rules 246. Marks left on the roadway by tires when the brakes
and Regulations providing for a Five-Year Validity of were applied strongly, hence the wheels locked, and not
Driver’s Licenses and Conductor’s Licenses. free to rotate.
236. Whenever signs are seen intended to inform road A. skid marks C. scuff marks
users of special obligations, instructions or prohibitions B. key event D. debris
which motorists must comply with, the purpose is _____. Skid mark - forward movement without rotating
A. Place identification C. Bus and jeepney stop Scuff mark - forward movement and rotating at the
B. Regulatory D. Danger warning sign same time
237. The basic objective of police traffic control is the Centrifugal skid - due to fast moving vehicle on a curve
______. road.
A. Movement with traffic with safety 247. It is a wholly police responsibility and entails looking
B. Prevention of traffic accidents for defects in the behavior of the motorists, pedestrian,
C. Planning for safe roads vehicles and roadway condition.
D. Economically transport of goods and services A. Apprehension C. Adjudication
238. Serves as main artery that caters on big volumes of B. Detection D. Prosecution
vehicular traffic on national roadway. 248. What method is used to determine whether a driver
A. Traffic way C. Major Highway is under the influence of alcoholic beverages or not?
B. Skyway D. Feeder Roads A. walking thru straight-line C. field sobriety test
Skyway -- a modern urban system of roadway above B. counting D. balance
street level for free-flow traffic. 249. Training Road users to avoid traffic-related
Feeder Roads - Intended for farm-to-market roads. accidents is a part of ______.
Expressway - A through traffic for free-flow of vehicular A. Traffic safety campaign
movement. B. Traffic safety education
Tunnel Road - A passage of wide section cut through a C. Safety operation
hill or sea to shorten circuitous roadway. D. Safety consciousness
12
250. Traffic arrest can be made when the following are 259. What is the Validity period of Ordinance Violations
present, except: Receipt upon issuance?
A. to avoid continued violation A. 72 hours C. 3 days
B. offense committed is serious B. 48 hours D. 5 days
C. the violator will not attend in court 260. Ancient civilization invented wheeled carts to make
D. Involved in a vehicular accident travel faster and convenient. What was the problem
251. What is the most common cause of road accidents brought about by the wheeled carts?
in the Philippines? A. Animals leave stingy odors to sophisticated
A. Whether condition C. Pedestrian people riding the wheeled carts
B. Reckless driving D. Road condition B. They must build wider paths to accommodate
252. When the applicant for student driver’s permit is wider wheeled carts
between 16-18 years old, the most important document C. They needed an engine to power the wheeled
he should submit is________________. carts
A. Birth certificate C. Voter’s I.D. D. They needed to replace domesticated
B. Passport D. Parent’s consent animals to power the carts
253. What should drivers do when an emergency vehicle 261. In this manner, a traffic enforcer while observing the
approach displaying legally authorized red light and flow of traffic tries to attract attention of the motorists by
sounding a siren? keeping in full view of traffic:
A. Continue driving slowly without regard of the A. Stationary C. Visible
emerging vehicle B. Conspicuous D. Inconspicuous
B. Yield the right of way and wait for the TRAFFIC OBSERVATION
passage of the vehicle  Stationary Traffic Observation - officer is assigned
C. Pull aside and stop the car abruptly at specific place
D. Disregard the red light and siren  Visible Traffic Observation – stationary observation
254. Which of the following is the best reason why the that the observer is in full view
concept of TRAFFIC ECONOMY is included as one of  Concealed Traffic Observation - observer is not
the pillars of traffic management? visible to the public
A. Because traffic is a national daily problem 262. The motor vehicle accident occurring entirely at a
which affect the Filipino people place other than on a highway is ______.
B. Because traffic directly and indirectly affects A. non-motor vehicle traffic accident
our national economy B. motor vehicle traffic accident
C. Because traffic influences the transport and C. motor vehicle accident
delivery of goods and services D. motor vehicle non-traffic accident
D. Because traffic is expensive for those actually 263. In the enforcement of traffic laws, the enforcer may
caught in it conduct pursuit operation against the motorist, when
255. To which of the following do we attribute over ______.
speeding that causes traffic accidents? A. the motorist is unaware that he violated the
A. Road deficiency C. Traffic error traffic law
B. Unworthy vehicle D. Human error B. the motorist committed a serious traffic
256. It refers to enforcement actions which consist of violation
taking a person into custody for the purpose of holding or C. the motorist sideswiped a pedestrian and
detaining him to answer a charge of law violation before killed the latter
a court. D. not aware that he violated the law and failed
A. Arrest C. Traffic Arrest to stop when instructed by the traffic enforcer
B. Traffic Citation D. Traffic Warning 264. While approaching an intersection, the green traffic
Traffic Citation - made to compel violators to appear in light is on, however, a police officer suddenly proceeds
court in absence of arrest. Ticket issued to an erring to the center and signals a motorist to stop. What should
driver apprehended for certain violations in exchange of the motorist do?
his confiscated driver’s license for the period provided in A. Ignore the police officer and proceed with
the ticket. caution
Traffic Warning - an act of reminding the driver of his B. Ignore the traffic light and come to a full stop
violation in order for him to not do it again. No arrest or C. Ignore both the police officer and traffic light
citation is made. and cross the intersection
257. A form of traffic enforcement action which involves D. Ignore the police officer and stop only when
telling the violation to the motorists and explaining the second signal is made
hazards for such actions: 265. It is considered as the most effective deterrent to
A. visual warning C. verbal warning traffic accidents.
B. written warning D. oral warning A. Regular maintenance and check-up of the
258. This traffic warning is usually used when you have traffic units.
observed a minor violation but are more importantly B. Increase insurance premium
occupied at a moment. C. Arrest and prosecution of traffic law violators
A. visual warning C. verbal warning D. Decrease car insurance liability to a minimum
B. written warning D. oral warning Deterrents to Traffic Accidents:
TYPES OF TRAFFIC WARNING: - Loss of driving privilege
A. Visual Warning - Usually used when you observed - Decrease of insurance premium
minor violation/Using gestures and signals. - Fear of fine and punishment
B. Verbal Warning - Form of safety education / oral - Possibility of being involve in an accident
warning made when there is newly enacted law 266. Which could be considered an indication of hit-and-
C. Written Warning - Combination verbal warning and run accident?
citation. It has more deterrence effect than verbal A. The driver leaving the area of accident
warning because he is in imminent danger
13
B. The driver fleeing the area of accident to A. Crosswalk C. Cross lines

evade responsibility. B. Ped Xing D. Center Lane
C. After hitting someone on the highway, the 276. Running on a two- lane road, what does a single
driver left and reported to the police. white dotted line indicates?
D. After sideswiping a pedestrian the driver fled A. no overtaking C. separates traffic direction
to seek assistance of a physician. B. for pedestrian only D. intersection approaching
267. Choose the motor vehicle accident occurring 277. When a driver unloads passengers on the middle of
entirely on a highway. the road, he committed ______________.
A. non-motor vehicle traffic accident A. Illegal unloading C. Illegal loading
B. Motor vehicle non-traffic accident B. Traffic obstruction D. illegal stopping
C. Motor vehicle traffic accident 278. Considered as emergency vehicles are/is:
D. Motor vehicle accident 1. Police car on call 3. Ambulance on call
268. An elevated structure built for the safety of the 2. Fire truck on call 4. Physician’s car
pedestrians in crossing busy highways: A. 1, 2 and 3 C. 1, 2, 3 and 4
A. Flyover C. Underpass B. 2, 3 and 4 D. Only 4
B. Skyway D. Overpass 279. Poor control measures as a major cause of traffic
269. Accident occurring entirely on a highway involving a congestion is characterized by:
bicycle crashed into a vehicle not in-motion such as 1. Narrow bridges and absence of catwalk to control
parked car. pedestrians
A. non-motor vehicle traffic accident 2. Lack of traffic enforcers along intersections
B. motor vehicle traffic accident 3. Lack of discipline among drivers and other road users
C. motor vehicle accident 4. Insufficient mechanical control devices and ineffective
D. motor vehicle non-traffic accident traffic officers
270. What is the entire width between boundary lines of 5. Corruption of traffic officers
every way or place of which any part is open to the use A. 1, 2 and 4 C. 1, 2 and 3
of the public for purposes of vehicular traffic as a matter B. 2, 3 and 5 D. 3, 4 and 5
of right or custom? 280. Consider the following steps in the conduct of the
A. Street C. Traffic way traffic accident investigation (1) care of injured, (2) get to
B. Road way D. Subway the scene quickly and safely, (3) interview the drivers
271. The traffic congestions or “build-up” happening in a and witnesses, (4) take photograph and measurement.
narrow portion of the road is _____. Arrange in chronological order the foregoing steps.
A. Gridlock C. Bottleneck A. 2, 4, 3, 1 C. 2, 1, 4, 3
B. Bumper to bumper D. Traffic jam B. 2, 3, 4, 1 D. 1, 2, 3, 4
272. When there are two motor vehicles approaching the 281. What is the appropriate term to be used when an
intersection almost at the same time, one is travelling object or vehicle on the road hinders or prevent the
along the national road and the other is in the secondary smooth flow of traffic?
road. Who has the right of way? A. Hindrance C. Hazard
A. vehicle on the secondary road B. Obstruction D. Illegal Parking
B. Vehicle on the right 282. As an investigator, the interviewing process of
C. vehicle on the national road persons involved in a traffic accident should be done?
D. Vehicle on the left A. jointly C. separately
RIGHT OF WAY RULE: B. be fair D. listen to both sides
 Intersection- when two or more vehicles is entering 283. What should the driver do if involved in a traffic
an intersection the one on the left will give way to the accident?
right vehicle. A. Must report to the police station at once or
 Pedestrian- drivers should yield to pedestrian immediately.
crossing except at intersection whereas the B. Must report to the nearest police station within
movement of vehicles is regulated by a police 24 hours.
officer. C. Must see his lawyer within 72 hours.
 Through highway/ railroad crossing- the driver D. Must see a police officer after 3 hours.
shall bring to a full stop before traversing to an 284. The following are major phases of traffic
intersection. If there is no hazard the driver may enforcement process EXCEPT __________.
slowdown to 5mph. A. Detection C. Apprehension
 Police /emergency vehicle- all drivers should yield B. Control D. Adjudication
to emergency vehicle, except as directed by traffic 285. Two vehicles approach an intersection at
enforcer. Fire trucks are accepted to speed limit but approximately the same time, the vehicle ________
they are prohibited to have unnecessary speed. should give the right of way.
273. In a large majority of traffic accidents, the most A. coming from the left
important defect in human element is attributed _____. B. coming from the center
A. Perceptual C. Attitudinal C. coming from the right
B. Intellectual D. Educational D. one which arrives first
274. What is the most important, in determining the 286. Conveyance of persons and goods from one place
skidding distance of a motor vehicle? to another is _____________.
A. Driver’s driving attitude A. vehicle C. carrier
B. Tire material of the motor vehicle B. transportation D. traffic
C. Slipperiness of the road surface 287. Under the Land Transportation Code, it is NOT
D. Speed of the motor vehicle parking prohibition if you park ________.
E. All of the above A. within 4 meters of the driveway of a Fire
275. What are these paintings made on the pavement Station
along intersections and other places to provide B. within the intersection
pedestrians with a safety zone when crossing? C. in front of private driveway
14
D. on a sidewalk A. not overtake under any circumstances

288. The first and most important step in enforcing traffic B. overtake as long as there is no traffic
rules is ________. enforcers looking
A. Planning C. Enforcement C. overtake when the opposite direction is clear
B. Planning and enforcement D. Organizing of incoming vehicles
289. The following are causes of traffic accidents D. not overtake when there is oncoming
EXCEPT: vehicles on the opposite lane
A. undisciplined drivers 299. Any event the results in unintended injury or
B. road works obstructions property damage attribute directly or indirectly to the
C. vehicle over speeding action of motor vehicle is called -
D. lack traffic rules and regulations A. motor transportation way
290. What term is used to describe the frontal B. non motor vehicle traffic accident
collision of vehicles? C. motor vehicle accident
A. Collision C. Head on collision D. motor vehicle non traffic accident
B. Full impact collision D. Frontal collision 300. In a large majority of the vehicular accidents, the
291. As a rule, maximum speed limits are necessary most important defect in human element is
for the use of our streets. The following are attributed
instances when these maximum speed limits may A. educational C. intellectual
not be observed, EXCEPT: B. attitudinal D. perceptual
A. drivers who are members of the PNP or 301. The separation of traffic units in a vehicular
the AFP accident is referred to as
B. any driver bringing a wounded or sick A final position C. deconstruction
person for emergency treatment B. disengagement D. reconstruction
C. the driver or his passengers who are in 302. The traffic congestions or "build-up" happening in a
pursuit of a criminal narrow portion of the road is
D. a physician or his driver when responding A. traffic jam C. bottleneck
to emergency calls B. bumper to bumper D. gridlock
292. What should NOT be done by the fire truck 303. Select the signs intended to warn road users of the
driver when crossing an intersection where there is danger that lies ahead and its nature.
a traffic control? A. Regulatory C. Informative
A. Must do a full stop. B. Control D. Warning
B. Wait for the light to change. 304. What pillar of traffic management is LTO a part of?
C. See the traffic stop and heed. A. Licensing C. Enforcement
D. Proceed only when it is safe. B. Education D. Engineering
293. Which of the following the BEST reason why 305. The device mounted on a portable support where a
biorhythm is an important aspect of traffic safety so message is conveyed by means of words or symbols is:
that the person can avoid accident? A traffic signs C. pavement marking
A. Knows his physical capacity on certain day. B. traffic light D. Road signs
B. Knows his intellectual capacity on certain 306. Inner lanes of four-lane two-way roads are
day. designed for:
C. Gives hints on how he tends to feel in a A. overtaking and fast-moving vehicles
certain day. B overtaking purposes
D. Ascertains his physical, emotional and C. fast moving vehicles
intellectual condition in a certain day. D. slow moving vehicles – outer lane
294. Considering that the motor vehicle has stalled 307. The friction mark on a pavement made by a tire,
or bogged down, as traffic enforcer or patrol officer, which is both rotating and slipping is:
the following should be done, EXCEPT A. scuff mark C. centrifugal force
A. ensure the safety of other motor vehicles B. skid mark D. centrifugal
passing through in the area
B. ignore the situation and just continue your 308. The combination of simultaneous and sequential
patrolling function factors without any of which result could not happen:
C. help push the motor vehicle up to the A. factor C. cause
shoulder of the road; if practicable B. primary D. attributes
D. Check whatever is the defect or condition 309. Pursuit operation is conducted when the driver is
of the stalled or bogged motor vehicle A. sideswiped a pedestrian and killing the victim
295. The following are characteristics of human instantly
errors that cause traffic congestion, EXCEPT: B. unaware that he violated traffic law and fails
A. lack of due diligence on the part of to stop when signaled to do so
pedestrians C. unaware that he violated the traffic law
B. lack of presence of uniformed traffic D. committed a serious traffic violation
enforcers 310. The systematic examination of all facts relating to
C. bad driving habits like slow drivers conditions, actions and physical features associated with
D. poor legislative traffic regulations and motor collision is ___.
activities A. traffic accident investigation
296. What term refers to the distance traveled before B traffic collision
applying the brakes? C. traffic engineering
A. braking distance C. reaction time D. hit and run investigation
B. reaction distance D. braking reaction 311. The investigator of hit-and-run cases should prove
297. Traversing a highway with double yellow line that the:
with dotted line in between means that the motorist A. suspect is either intoxicated with drugs or unlicensed
can B. suspect was the one driving the vehicle
15
C. victim is killed in the accident o Specificity - must be specific by using concrete

D suspect is wanted for another crime examples
312. Which describes the separation of traffic units o Completeness - must be complete by using the
involve in vehicular accident? Cardinal Points of Investigation.
A. Final position. o Timeliness - must submit on time. As much as
B. Mental reconstruction. possible immediately after the incident has
C. Physical reconstruction. happened.
D Disengagement. o Security - must be considered classified, hence
313. Select the term used referring to the first action to transmission, handling, and access are limited
be taken by a traffic unit to escape from a o Impartiality - must know what the receiving
collision course or avoid a hazard. office needs to know important data must not be
A. State of evasive action omitted
B. Point of no escape
C. Point of possible perception 320. A quality of report showing neutrality and equality. It
D. State of no escape avoids being biased.
314. In traffic accident, the touching between traffic units a. Accuracy
involved in the collision is c. Brevity
A. perception of hazards b. Impartiality
B. first impact d. Clarity
C. deconstruction 321. It is an affidavit fled by the respondent in reply to
D. Initial contact petition.
315. Which of the following should be BEST observed A. Reply affidavit
when requesting a driver's license and/or vehicle B. Counter affidavit > 10 days
registration certificate? C. Rejoinder affidavit
A. Place your body directly in front of the door or D. Petition Affidavit
window of the motor vehicle. 322. Making the sentences short, eliminating
B. Never accept anything other than the unnecessary words to make the report easier to
document asked. understand
C. Insert your head of arms in the car windows. a. Accuracy
D. Get the driver's license or certificate of
b. Impartiality
registration when about to end the interview.
c. Brevity
————————————————————————— d. Clarity
TECHNICAL WRITING 1&2 323. It means making your report brief but concise
a. Accuracy
b. Brevity
c. Clarity
316. In conducting field operations, what is this function
d. Completeness
that the individual police perform essential to the
324. The report must be submitted to proper judicial
administrative operation of the police?
authority within the period prescribed for in Article 125 of
A. Police report writing
Revised Penal Code.
B. Traffic function
a. Accuracy
C. Conduct of investigation
b. Brevity
D. Patrolling functions
c. Impartiality
317. It is the wilful and corrupt assertion of a falsehood
d. Timeliness
under oath or affirmation administered by authority of law
325. Words must be concrete and definite
on a material matter.
a. Brevity
A. False Testimony
c. Specificitv
B. Perjury
b. Clarity
C. Malicious lie
d. Completeness
D. Judicious lie
326. It is rendered when case is completed from the time
318. Usually a letter or memorandum used in day-by-day
of arrest, to the decision of the court until the convicted
police operations.
offender was turned over to jail
a. Informal Report
a. Spot Report
b. Police Report c. Performance Report
c. Formal Report b. Progress Report
d. General Order d. Final Report
319. A quality of a report refers not only with exactness 327. This report is submitted upon the take over by the
but non-commission of error. investigator of the case
a. Accuracy a. Spot Report
c. Brevity b. Progress Report
b. Clarity c. Performance Report
d. Completeness
d. Final Report
328. Is a written message or information from one
QUALITIES OF GOOD REPORT
person or department to another in the same business
o Clarity - the police report must be clear and it
a. Memorandum
should be written directly and easy to
b. General Order
understand
c. Special Orders
o Accuracy - must conform with the established
d. Upward Report
rules of syntax, format, spelling and grammar.
o Brevity - must be short, with sentences, 329. Record of daily events, occurring within the
territories and jurisdictions of a given police unit
common words and easy to understand
16
a. Blotter b)Police reports likewise serve as a gauge for

c. police report good police performance
b. Incident Report c)Police reports make police investigators
d. report efficient in their iobs
330. The purpose of this affidavit in reply is simply to d) Police report can be used for future reference
rebut or answer matters raised for the first time in the 340. This statement is incorrect, except
affidavits to which the replies are made. a. A police report that carries lies or half truth
A. Reply affidavit statements is till a police report
B. Counter affidavit b. A police report can be submitted as time allows
C. Rejoinder affidavit c. Accurateness of a police report can be based
D. Affidavit of Loss partly on the use of our senses.
331. Is the foundation record of the police department d. Adverbs are modifiers
a. Blotter
b. Complaint and Assignment Sheet 341. A final police report can only be submitted, and the
c. Investigation Report case considered closed and solved when suspect was
d. Progress Report arrested and charged, witnesses are willing to testify in
332. It is a written statement under oath by the court, and:
complainant stating that he's no longer interested in a. Police investigator was summoned to appear in
pursuing the complaint in a criminal case against another court
person. b. Statements taken were corroborated by
A. Affidavit of Loss witnesses
B. Affidavit of Desistance c. Evidence were gathered and preserved for the
C. Affidavit of Undertaking prosecution of the case
D. Counter Affidavit d. Judge to handle the case was already appointed
333. This includes the mug shot of the suspect, his/her 342. Considered as the best criteria of a police report?
particulars, the crime he/she has committed as well as a. Timeliness
its date, time and place of occurrence. b. Completeness
a. Arrest and Booking Sheet c. Brevity
b. Affidavit of Arrest d. Accuracy
c. Complaint Sheet 343. What style of report is the most widely used and
d. Rogues Gallery sets forth information in a logical manner or sequence?
334. Which of the following is not one of the mechanics a. Narrative
of note taking? b. Chronological (arrangement in order of time)
a. Readable c. Specialized
b. Vague d. None of the above
c. Accurate 344. What is a skill in law enforcement that helps an
d. Concise officer describe things?
335. PCPL Bayagbag never uses highfalutin words in his a. Observation
report. What basic of report writing he is observing? b. Memory
a. Writing in first person c. Picture taking skills
b. Using of correct pronoun reference d. Binoculars
c. Using chronological order
d. Avoiding jargon and wordiness 345. One of the official action before submitting the
336. Statement No.1 - The plaintiff can "save" matters reports is to read the proofs of a text and marking
from its initial affidavits and then put those matters in corrections to be made.
affidavits in reply. Statement No. 2 - The affidavits in a. Proofreading
reply should only rebut or answer new matters raised by b. Jargon
the defendants which the plaintiffs have not already c. Logical
addressed. d. Narrative
A. Both statements are correct
B. Both statements are wrong 346. Is a communication that lends itself to a useful tool
C. Statement no. 1 ls correct. Statement no. 2 is wrong for people in a free society to express their thoughts and
D. Statement no, is wrong. Statement no. 2 is correct ideas and to obtain what they need or want.
a. Investigative writing
337. In records management, it is considered as the b. Report writing
heart of identification system? c. Surveillance report
a. Police Blotter d. After operation report
b. Case Record
347. Provides fact to competent authorities and serve as
c. Rogues Gallery
permanent record after the conduct of criminal
d. Fingerprint Record
investigation.
338. Which of the following preposition is to be used to
a) Criminal Investigation Report
denote centuries, years or months
b)Police Report
a. Verb c)Arrest and booking sheet
b. In d)All of the above
c. On
d. At 348. Changes in the standard operating procedure must
339. These statements are correct, except? be issued which of the following document in order for its
a)Police reports can serve as raw materials from
implementation.
which record systems can be adopted a)Special order
b)General order
17
c)Numbered memorandum unit or command which contains material details

d)Unnumbered memorandum concerning the event for legal and statistical purposes.
Which is true with regard to a police blotter?
349. Which of the following is not one of the content of I. A record book with hard cover
Basic Report? II. 12”x16” in size
a)the date when it was made III. Ring bound
b)the name of the writer or source of report
a. 1 and 3 c. 1 and 2
c)The person to whom it is addressed
b. 2 and 3 d. 1, 2 and 3
d)The place where it is needed to submit
361.A quality of good repoft where it should
350. Considered as the backbone of criminal be a true
investigation representation of facts to the best of the
a)Report Writing investigator's abity.
b)Filing of criminal case a. Accuracy
c)Inquest proceeding b. Completeness -> 5W and 1H
d)Cordoning off the crime scene
c. Clarity - develop logically
351. In addition to the cardinal points, which should be d. Brevity
entered in the police blotter? 362.It is the part of the investigation report
a. Who are the persons involved? that gives a
b. What is the nature of the action or offense brief summary of the major investigation
c. When and Where the crime was committed steps accomplished.
d. Disposition of the case. A) Abstract B) Synopsis C) summary
D)5Ws&1H
353. It classifies the use or function of words in a
sentence 363.These are the prototypes of any
a)Noun documents or forms used in legal transaction
b)Grammar or judicial proceedings, these contain
c)Composition important matters conveyed in technical
d)Parts of speech terminologies and presented in a suitable and
354. It describes when and where the events took place
systematic order in accordance with the
a)Interiection
b)Adverb circumstances of any case.
c)Preposition A. Technical report -> presents data on
d)Verb specialized subject
355. It composes of the particulars of the suspects as B. Report
well as their mug shots C. Legal forms
a)Arrest and booking sheet D. Affidavit
b)Complaint sheet
364.It is a written statement of facts
c)Affidavit of arrest
d)All of the above voluntarily made by an affiant under an cath
356. This refers to the chronological or step-by-step or affirmation administered by a person
account of an incident that transpired in a given time, at authorized to do so by law.
a given place which serves as permanent written record A. Report
of police activities. B. Legal forms
a. Report writing C. Affidavit
b. Police Report
c. Police Report Writing D. Technical Report
d. Incident Record 365.It Is the recognition of particular facts by
357. Some are purposes of Police Report, except: either direct observation or experience.
a. To serve as the raw materials from A. Personal Knowledge
which records system are made B. Information and belief
b. Guide for proper decision making by C. Self knowledge
higher officers. D. Any of these
c. Yardstick for efficiency evaluation of 366. “Sinumpaang Salaysay” or affidavit executed by the
police officers police officer, on its face, is NOT ______.
d. Unofficial and personal record of the A. proof that the suspect is guilty of the crime
officers. B. evidence of record of the police operation
358. Which should not be done in writing a report? C. testimonial evidence of the police officer
a. It should be in chronological order D. a written statement of fact
b. Must be written in the first person 367. An affidavit is similar to a deposition in EXCEPT in
c. Use active voice a
d. The use of future tense sense that_.
359. In writing police report, which should be avoided? A. Both legal forms are used in a judicial proceeding.
a. Write facts rather than opinion B. Both legal forms are sworn statements.
b. Use of correct pronoun reference C. Both legal forms are written testimonies from a
c. Use of jargon and wordiness witness.
d. Use of past tense D. Both legal forms are taken "ex-parte”
360.A police blotter is a record of daily events occurring 368. The purpose of motion for reconsideration is/are.
within the territories and jurisdictions of a given police A. modification of decision
B. reversal of decision
18
C. either of these
D. neither of the above  Affidavit of Undertaking - A type of
369. The motion for reconsideration shall be filed at judicial affidavit voluntary executed in
____. order to attest to the truthfulness of
A. Appellate Court
the foregoing narration of facts and
B. Trial Court
C. Tax Court undertaking.
D. RTC  Affidavit of Two Disinterested Persons
370. A mittimus may only be issued by the Court. - Contains the sworn statements of two
A. False. It can also be issued by any authorized persons clarifying discrepancies in a
agency. person's name.
B. False. It can also be issued by the Senate.
C. True. An order of service of sentence may only be
ordered by the court.
CDI 7: VICE AND DRUG EDUCATION AND CONTROL
D. True. Because only the court may order the
restrictions of liberty of an accused during the pendency
of the case. 376. Which of the following causes the withdrawal
sickness?
371. A shabbily crafted police report submitted by the A. Psychological dependency C. Tolerance
police officers and part of the record in court proceedings B. Exhaustion D. Physical dependency
at it WORST, makes the? 377. The effect of illegal drug use that gives a feeling of
A. Police officers practically a witness for the defense a need for more and more of illegal drugs to achieve the
B. Police report just another court record same level of effect is ______.
C. Police report a basis for scrutiny A. Tolerance C. Habituation
D. Police officer just another contributor to the state of B. Addictions D. Abstinence
criminal justice 378. What countries constitute the Golden Crescent?
372. Which is not the most important reasons why police A. Iran, Afghanistan, Pakistan, India
report should be given utmost attention? B. Peru, Columbia, Bolivia
A. Police report will be scrutinized by the judges up to C. Burma, Laos, Thailand
the appellate court D. Myanmar, Laos Thailand
B. Police report will serve as personal written records of 379. Which of the following statements is correct;
the police 1. Drug addicts can be detected by means of
C. Police report follow the suspect through judicial observation of a person suspected to be addicted to
process drugs.
D. Police report will be likely be reviewed by prosecutors 2. Drug addicted can be detected through laboratory
and defense lawyers examination
373. _______ is a writ issued under the authority of a 3. Drug addicts can be detected through psychological
court to compel the appearance of a witness at a judicial and psychiatric examinations
proceeding, and the disobedience of which may be A. 2, 3 are correct C. 1, 2 are correct
punishable by contempt court. B. 1, 3 are correct D. 1, 2, 3 are correct
A. Warrant C. Order 380. The drug taken from the coca bush plant
B. Subpoena D. Summons Erythroxylon coca.
Summons - is a mandate requiring the appearance of A. Cocaine C. Marijuana
the defendant in the action in court under the penalty of B. Papaver Somniferum D. Claviceps Purpurea
having judgment entered (against him or her) for failure 381. Drug trafficking, according to Comprehensive Drug
to do so. The object of the summons is to notify the Act of 2002, except:
defendant that he or she has been sued. A. cultivation, culture and delivery,
B. Administration, dispensation, manufacture,
374. The police report must know what the receiving sale and trading,
office needs to know. Important data must not be omitted C. Use, consumption, addiction and tolerance
or added to conceal responsibilities, to impute labilities D. Transportation, distribution, importation,
or to favor parties. exportation and possession
A. Completeness C. Impartiality 382. A laboratory examination is only required to an
B. Timeliness D. Specificity apprehended offender within 24 hours if the person
 Specificity - The police report must be specific arrested has:
by using concrete examples. A good descriptive 1. Visible manifestation that suspect was under the
narration gives life to the written words through influence of drugs
particular terms that project hues, movements, 2. Physical sign of drug abuse
quantities and shapes. 3. Psychological manifestation of drug addiction
 Completeness - The police report must be 4. Symptoms of Drug abuse
complete by using the 5W’s and 1H. A. 1, 2 and 3 C. 2, 3 and 4
 Timeliness-The police report must be submitted B. 1, 2 and 4 D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
on time. As much as possible immediately after 383. Which of the following forms of physical
the Incident has happened. dependence that a person’s severe craving for the drug
extends up to the point of interfering with his/her ability to
375. Part of chattel mortgage contract to secure that function normally?
obligation is not meant for fraud or ill purpose. A. Addiction C. Tolerance
A. Affidavit of Good Faith B. Psychological dependence D. Habituation
B. Affidavit of Undertaking 384. A person who is applying for Professional Driver’s
C. Affidavit of Loss license is required to undergo Mandatory Drug Testing.
D. Affidavit of two disinterested persons A. True C. False
B. Partially True D. Partially False
19
385. Which of the following statements is TRUE of drug (2) alternative livelihood programs. (3)
addiction? sustainable income-generating
A. Withdrawal symptoms are manifestation of programs like yakon and jathropa
cessation from drug use
(commonly known as tuba-tuba)
B. Psychological dependence does not mean
drug addiction propagation.
C. Tolerance on drugs involves a greater drug (4) other socio-economic programs
response offering health services, Phil-health
D. Nicotine is an addictive drug insurance, education and
386. Hallucinogen or psychedelic drugs are Natural or Infrastructure like farm-to market
synthetic psychoactive drugs that produce reactions roads, irrigation systems, etc.
such as perceptual alterations and changes in the state
4. Civic Awareness
of consciousness. Which among the following is the
most potent form of hallucinogen? - public communication strategy
A. LSD C. Cocaine - anti drug abuse messages (evils of drug
B. Barbiturates D. Methadone abuse; legal consequences)
387. Which of the following is not false? - community based outreach programs –
A. R.A. 9165 gives a single definition of "Challenge Yourself', "Be Drug-Free".
dangerous drugs
5. Regional and International Cooperation
B. R.A. 9165 did not remove the distinction
between regulated and prohibited drugs - cooperative undertakings at the bilateral,
C. R.A. 9165 defers dangerous drugs from regional, and international level on all matters
prohibited drugs pertaining to drug abuse and illicit trafficking of
D. R.A. 9165 defined regulated drugs as dangerous drugs.
dangerous drugs
388. Describe the following statements:
I - An act of introducing any dangerous drugs into the 391. The crystalline powder with a very numbing taste
body of any person with or without his/her knowledge and considered as the strongest derivative of opium
either by injection, inhalation, ingestion or other means is poppy is _______.
called USE. A. Codeine C. Heroin
II. Illegal trafficking of dangerous drugs through text B. Cocaine D. Morphine
messages is called trading. 392. Marijuana can be easily identified by its _______.
A. Statement No. 1 is false while statement no. 2 A. branches occurring opposite its stalk
is true B. stalk growing up to twelve feet
B. Statement no. 2 and 2 are both false C. Finger-like leaves where edges are serrated
C. Statement no. 1 is true while statement no. 2 D. Pungent scent full grown
is false 393. The illegal drug that produces sensations such as
D. Statement no. 1 and 2 are both true distortion of time, space, sound, color and other bizarre
389. Brando was found guilty under the Section 70 of RA effects is _____.
9165; therefore, Brando is ______. A. Opiates
A. Qualified to apply for probation B. Hallucinogens
B. Disqualified to apply for probation C. Narcotics
C. Allowed to apply for probation D. Heroin
D. Not allowed to apply if the sentence is more 394. The illegal drugs also known as Papaver
than 6 years and 1 day Somniferum and considered mother drugs of other
390. National campaign strategy against illegal drugs, narcotic substance is_____.
focus of which is through law enforcement, prosecution A. Opium poppy
and judicial actions. B. Codeine
A. Demand reduction C. Alternative Development C. Heroin
B. Supply reduction D. International cooperation D. Morphine
395. Preliminary investigation of drug cases shall be
NATIONAL CAMPAIGN STRATEGY terminated within the period of _____ days.
A. 20
5 PILLARS OF ACTION B. 30
1. Supply Reduction - market denial operations C. 15
- forms: D. 3
(1) law enforcement 396. Hashish is 8 to 10 times stronger than the
(2) regulatory compliance commercial trade marijuana because ___________.
(3) institution of judicial/legislative measures. A. It is a concentrated resin extracted from
marijuana
2. Demand Reduction - reducing the consumer's B. Dried flower of marijuana
demand C. Fruiting top of the plant cannabis sativa
- school-based or community based programs: D. Finest and high-grade leaves of marijuana
(1) Preventive Education plant
(2) Treatment and Rehabilitation 397. Which of the following is NOT CORRECT regarding
(3) Research. possession of dangerous drugs?
A. The penalty to be imposed by law is
3. Alternative Development
determined by the quantity of illegal substances.
- reduce the production of marijuana B. The suspect may be convicted for possession
- eliminates its cultivation through: if the charge for delivery is not proven
(1) sustainable rural development
20
C. The person caught with possession of C. violence against rival drug dealers
different kinds of illegal drugs may be charged D illegal possession of shabu
for complex crimes for as many possessions. 503. The type of drugs which according to its
D. The question of possession is one that is pharmacological classification can relieve pain and
actual or constructive. induce sleep is ____.
398. What part of the globe is the principal source of all A. Narcotics
forms of cocaine? B. Depressant
A. South East Asia C. South America C. Stimulant
B. Middle East D. South West Asia D. Sedatives
399. Drug in gaseous form enter the lungs and are 504. The drugs that is commonly used by athletes
quickly absorbed by the rich capillary system, it is having the properties of increasing stamina and/or
probably the second most commonly used route of drug energy is ______.
administration. A. Marijuana
A. Snorting C. Inhalation B. Anabolic steroid
B. Injection D. Oral Ingestion C. Shabu
400. Heroin is Blanco; Codeine is School Boy; psilocybin D. Ecstasy
is Magic Mushroom; Cocaine is ________. 505. A person who is known as a drug addict and by his
A. Hearts C. Uppers own volition ceased from taking illegal drugs is referred
B. Crack D. Speed to as _____.
500. Which of the following does not carry a capital A. Into wellness C. In self-medication
punishment? B. In abstinence D. In well-healing
A. possession of 20 grams’ morphine 506. The BEST reason why Marijuana has been one of
B. possession of 100 grams of marijuana the most abused hallucinogens in the Philippines and its
C. possession of 15 grams MDMA control becomes difficult according to some authorities is
D. possession of 60 grams SHABU because it _____.
501. What is the appropriate term in determining the A. Is highly in demand for all classes of users
drugs and crime relationship especially when drug use B. Can be easily and secretly be smoked
and crimes are common aspects of deviant behavior and C. Can be cultivated even in the backyard
lifestyle or increases exposure to situations that D. Is sellable in any place, in any market
encourage crime? 507. A category of drugs which involves those which are
A. Drug related offenses legally sold or dispensed without prescription. A user is
B. Drug induces circumstances prone to self-medication syndrome.
C. Inter-fractional circumstances A. Prescriptive drugs C. over the counter drugs
D. Drug defined offenses B. Illicit drugs D. unrecognized drugs
508. When the organism is too accustomed with a
certain chemical, it will no longer react to such particular
Drug-defined Drug-related Drug-using substance. The need for additional amount to achieve
Offenses Offenses Lifestyle the desired effect is necessary.
Includes Includes Drug and crime A. Addiction C. tolerance
violation of laws offenses which are common B. Habituation D. Abstinence
prohibiting or drug’s aspect of 509. This statement is not true when referring to family
regulating the pharmacological deviant lifestyle. problems as factor that pushes a person to be involved
possession, effect The likelihood in drug using.
use, distribution contributes to and frequency A. Domestic violence; liberal parentage
or manufacture offenses of involvement B. Parents who are irresponsible giving less
of illegal drugs. motivated by in drug activity attention to their children
user‘s need for is increased C. Broken family and lack of parental values
Ex. Drug using money to because drug D. Drug using friends encourage and pressure a
and possession; support users may not certain individual
Marijuana continued use; participate in 510. Drug trafficking generally refers to the sale and
cultivation; and offenses the legitimate distribution of illegal drugs. Which of the following do not
Shabu connected to economy and supports this statement?
production; drug distribution are exposed to A. It refers to the illegal process through which narcotics
Selling of itself. situation that and other illegal drugs are produced, transported, and
dangerous encourage sold.
drugs. Ex. Violent crime. B. It refers to the illegal cultivation, culture, delivery,
behavior arising Ex: Orientation administration, dispensation, manufacture, sale, trading,
from drug effect; to criminal transportation, distribution, importation, exportation
stealing to activities with C. Includes possession of any dangerous drug and/or
support drug other offenders. controlled precursor and essential chemical.
using; Violence D. It refers to the use and consumption which led to the
against rival addiction, tolerance and habituation
drug dealers.
511. The placing of any dangerous substance in the
person, house, effects, or in the immediate vicinity of an
innocent individual for the purpose of implicating,
502. The BEST example of a drug-related offense incriminating or imputing the commission of any violation
wherein the commission of the offense is motivated of Comprehensive Dangerous Drugs Act of 2002 is
by the need to support drug use is ______.
A. stealing to have money A. Incriminatory machination
B. dealing or selling illegal drugs B. Fabrication of evidence
21
C. Incriminating an innocent person 524. It refers to the medical service rendered to client for
D. Planting of Evidence the effective management of physical and mental
512. Marijuana is difficult to control in the Philippines conditions related to drug abuse.
according to some authorities because it is ______. A. Rehabilitation C. Detoxification
A. Easy to smoke secretly B. Treatment D. None of these
B. Sellable in the market 525. Psychologically speaking, in terms of motives and
C. Easy to cultivate functions of drug use, the more a drug is used the more
D. Highly in demand it tends to:
513. Selling, distributing, supplying or transporting of A. reduce the need for the drug
legitimately imported, in-transit, manufactured or B. satisfy more than one motive or need
procured controlled precursors and essential chemicals, C. increase the satisfaction of use
by the manufacturer of medicine to the drug trafficker is D. give sense of well being
called: 526. What is this process of removal of toxic substances
A. Drug trafficking C. Chemical diversion from the body of a person as a result of drug abuse?
B. Sale D. Chemical smuggling A. Detoxification
514. Bob Marley uses drugs. This drug produces B. Wellness treatment
sensations such as distortion of time, space, sound, C. Cleansing process
color and other bizarre effects? D. Rehabilitation Program
A. Opiates C. Narcotics 527. In the Philippines, the most abused hallucinogenic
B. Heroin D. Hallucinogens drugs that contain Tetrahydro-cannabinol is
515. Which of the following are symptoms of the use of ___________.
amphetamines? A. marijuana C. ecstasy
A. False perceptions of objects and experiences B. LSD D. Shabu
B. Loss of appetite, anxiety and irritability 528. The facility used for the illegal manufacture of
C. Excitement, alertness and wakefulness dangerous drugs is __________-.
D. Sensation of distorted time, space, sound, A. drug laboratory
color B. laboratory equipment
516. Which of the following is NOT included on the “Big C. drug den
Four Drugs” trafficked in the global drug market. D. clandestine laboratory
A. Hearts C. Diacetylmorphine 529. Which of the following is referred to as the Golden
B. Crack D. Cannabis Triangle wherein 80% of illicit drugs of the world
517. Drugs that affect sensation, thinking, self- originate?
awareness and emotion: A. Thailand – Laos – Myanmar
A. Hallucinogens C. Stimulants B. Peru – Columbia – Bolivia
B. Sedatives/Depressant D. Narcotics C. Iran – Afghanistan – India
518. A form of physical dependence characterized by D. Thailand – Laos – Burma
severe craving for the drugs even to the point of 530. Which of the following does R.A. 9165 provides
interfering with the person’s ability to function normally. when a person discharged from confinement as a drug
A. Tolerance C. Habituation dependent under voluntary submission programs?
B. Addiction D. Psychological A. Deserving of a suspended sentence for a
519. The prevention of drug addiction is primarily a period of 6 years.
responsibility of what institution so as to prevent its B. Entitled to a mitigating circumstance for his
members from being hook to addiction? criminal liability.
A. Church C. Barangay C. Considered pardoned of his criminal liability.
B. Family D. School D. Exemption from serving criminal liability.
520. What group of drugs is used medically as pain 531. The following acts of law enforcement officers are,
killers? in relation to the enforcement of R.A. 9165, penalized
A. Opiates C. Shabu ________.
B. Track D. coke A. of dismissal through patent laxity, inexcusable
521. as A “Sacred Tree” considered by the Assyrians neglect or unreasonable delay
planted by Incas of Peru. B. failure of the immediate superior to notify the
A. Papaver Somniferum C. Marijuana court of the transfer or reassignment of a
B. Coca Plant D. Ephedra witness during the pendency of the case to
522. Consider the following: another territorial jurisdiction
I. Addiction is an overpowering compulsion to continue C. failure if the immediate superior to exert
taking drugs reasonable efforts to present the witness in court
II. Addiction provide tendency of drug tolerance D. failure or refusal after due notice, to appear as
III. Addiction has a detrimental effect to the individual witness for the prosecution
and society 532. One of the significant drug education programs is
A. I and II are correct C. I and III are wrong one hinges on the belief that even if there is an over-
B. II and III are correct D. I, II and III are correct supply of drugs if there is no demand, there will be no
523. To administer illegal drug means __________. drug addiction. The BEST approach to curb drug
A. To introduce any dangerous drug into the addiction under this belief is to ____________.
body of any person, with or without his/her A. control the supply of illegal drugs
knowledge B. jail all users without benefit of probation or
B. To use drug through injection parole
C. To consume dangerous drug through C. implement legislation and imposition of severe
inhalation penalty
D. To introduce any illegal drugs into the body D. conduct seminars to all sectors of society
through snorting
22
533. Generally this drug produces a relaxing state A. forget their problems C. get high
without impairment of high facilities or the inducement of B. feel good D. spend money
sleep is known as – 552. Which of the following is NOT a condition
A. Stimulants C. Narcotics precedent before an arrested person may be
B. Tranquilizers D. Barbiturates required to undergo a laboratory examination within
534. Which of the following is NOT CORRECT 24?
regarding treatment and rehabilitation of drug A. The person is manifestly showing
dependents? symptoms of drug abuse.
A. Charges can be filed against a drug dependent B. There is a clear showing that the
who is not rehabilitated under the voluntary suspect was under the influence of drugs.
submission program. C. There person is showing physical signs
B. The Dangerous Drugs Board shall order the of drug abuse,
confinement of a drug dependent who refuses to D. The person is showing psychological
apply under the voluntary submission program. drug addiction,
C. A drug dependent discharged as rehabilitated 553. Mandatory drug testing is NOT required by R.A.
but does not qualify for exemption from criminal 9165 for
liability shall be placed on probation. A. applicant for firearms license and for
D. Temporary release of drug dependent subject to permit to carry firearms outside residence
after-care and follow-up treatment from DOH B. all persons charged before the
shall be for a period of not exceeding 18 prosecutor's office with a criminal offense
months. having an imposable penalty of not less than
535. The following are the most popular plants as six (6) years and one (1) day
source of dangerous drugs EXCEPT C. officers and members of the military, police
A. opium poppy C. coca bush and other law enforcement agencies
B. Indian hemp D. ephedra D. officers and employee of public and private
536. Aware of number of arrests and cases filed in offices
court, experts propose that hearing of illegal drugs 554. The following are the crimes that DO NOT involve
cases should be tried and heard by: drugs but a result of the exigencies of illicit market:
A. RTC Courts designated as Heinous Crime I. Some users steal to support their drug activities
B. Special Court designated by the SC among II. Prostitution is sometimes utilized to support drug use
existing RTC III. Drug markets are perpetuated by violent group to
C. Sandiganbayan gain competition advantage
D. Special Court designated by the SC A. I & II C. II & III
537. Probable cause on drug cases is determined by the B. I, II & III D. I & III
special _____ which is designated by the _______. 555. The legality of buy-bust operation or entrapment is
A. judge; Supreme Court described in the following, EXCEPT?
B. court: Supreme Court A. Buy bust operation catches the drug pusher in
C. prosecutor; DOJ flagrante delicto
D. bulalo; yung sinusutsut B. In buy bust operation, the police have personal
538. A minor who is convicted for the possession of knowledge of the drug sale transaction
illegal drugs is entitled to C. Buy bust operation is proven to be effective
A. suspended sentence method of arresting a drug peddler
B. suspension of judgment D. Police officer is the one who induce a person to
C. custody by the DSWD commit a crime.
D. suspended enforcement 556. Which of the following BEST describes the
539. Without a supply of illegal drugs, it will be difficult functions of DDB?
for drug addicts to A. The DDB is the implementing arm of the
A. be happy and feel good PDEA in the enforcement of the prohibitory
B. sustain their habit of drug abuse provision of RA 9165
C. undergo rehabilitation B. The DDB promulgates rules and regulation
D. have easy access to illegal drugs related to drugs which are usually
540. Which of the following is the manifestation of implemented by PDEA
withdrawal syndromes produced by illegal drugs? C. The DDB shall have the custody of all
A. Withdrawal symptoms that are usually severe and dangerous drugs confiscated
incapacitating D. The DDB case the filling of the appropriate
B, Withdrawal symptoms which are psychological in civil action for violation of RA 9165 while the
nature PDEA takes care to criminal aspects
C. Symptoms which are usually opposite to the effects of 557. Which does NOT describe BEST why a person
the drug itself takes drugs?
D. Being seen with alcohol but never with heroin A. Personal, family and social problems
550. A person found guilty of use of dangerous drugs B. Friends and peer pressure
for the first time shall be punished with: C. High self-esteemed and ego
A. Imprisonment of 6 yrs and one day to 12 D. Accessibility of sources of illegal drugs
years
B. Rehabilitation of a minimum period of 6 558. The powerful stimulant in a form of a white powdery
months substance extracted from cocoa leave is
C. Rehabilitation for 6 months to 18 months A. marijuana
D. Imprisonment of at least 6 months B. cocaine
551. Pleasure or reward is that part of the brain C. shabu
affected by pain, thus, the motivation why people D. opium
used drugs and alcohol is to
23
559. The operation utilized by drug syndicates to conceal 569. The first “link” in the chain of custody in any case is
their activities is the ____.
A. hide -out A. Computer Hard Drive
B. disguised
B. The RAM
C. clandestine
D. confidential operation. C. Person collecting the digital evidence
560. Drug addicts when under the influence of drugs are D. Digital forensic analysts
menace to the community because they 570. The interactional environment created by linking
A. are violently insane computers together into communication network.
B. ruin their life/health A. Cyberspace
C. are flagrantly immoral B. Virtual environment
D. feel no restraint in committing crimes.
C. ICT
561. The person who is discharge from confinement as a
drug dependent and under the voluntary D. Computer world
submission program is 580. Telephone calls, instant messages, chatroom
A. considered pardon of his criminal liability meetings, streaming audio, streaming video, and other
B. given a mitigating circumstance in his criminal interactive means of communication that are not
liability registered or preserved are all examples of ______.
C. deserving of a suspended sentence for a period A. Latent Print
six years
B. Computer Data
D. exempt from serving his criminal liability
562. Rugby, solvents, paints and kerosine are C. Electronic Messages
substances that are sniffed to gain intoxication and are D. Ephemeral electronic communication
classified as ________. 590. Duality of criminal action is possible only through
A. Stimulants C. Inhalants extradition of a fugitive who’s _____.
B. Alcoholics D. Depressants A. Identity is unknown
B. Hiding in a country having treaty with the
Philippines
CDI 9 – INTRODUCTION TO CYBERCRIME AND C. Strong religious relation
ENVIRONMENTAL LAWS AND PROTECTION D. Whereabout is unknown
591. The intentional hindering or interference with the
563. The malicious use of e-mail to try to get the user to functioning of a computer or computer network by
share personal information by pretending to be from a altering or suppressing computer data or program.
reputable source encouraging the user to take action. A. Misuse of device
A. Phishing C. Information fraud B. System interference
B. Identity theft D. Computer fraud C. Illegal access
564. A device that allows read-only access to all D. Hacking
accessible data on a drive, as well as preventing
592. In order to advance some political or social
anything from being written to the original drive, which
would alter or modify the original evidence. objectives, a computer-based assaults are made against
A. FTK Imager C. SSD other computers or networks in an effort to intimidate or
B. Hard drive D. Write Blocker coerce a nation.
565. It is the combination of written statements, reports, A. White Hat Hacking
and other oral evidence documenting the identification, B. Cyberterrorism
lawful seizure, examination, and movement of evidence C. Computer Assaults
from time of identification through presentation in court
D. Freedom of Expression
as evidence.
A. Marking C. Tagging
B. Recording D. Chain of Custody 593. This is performed by technical means without right
566. The treaty is entered into by members of the of any non-public transmission or private
Budapest Convention against cybercrime to obtain communications.
international cooperation A. Illegal access
A. Extradition Treaty B. Hacking
B. International Justice C. Illegal interception
C. Mutual Legal Assistance Treaty D. Cybercrime
D. National Legal Cooperation Treaty 594. A type of cybercrime warrant issued against a
567. Is the process of making an exact copy (bit-by-bit) service provider or telecommunication company,
of the original drive onto a new digital storage device. ordering the latter to disclose computer data stored and
A. Acquisition preserved in their database.
B. Imaging A. WDCD C. WECD
C. Examination B. WSSECD D. WICD
D. Cloning 595. The integrity of traffic data and subscriber
568. It is the continuous process of searching for information shall be kept, retained and preserved by a
evidence and leads in cyberspace. service provider from the date of transaction.
A. Cybercrime A. 6 months C. 5 months
B. Online investigation B. 12 months D. 3 months
C. Cybercrime investigation
D. Cyber terrorism
24
596. The acquisition of a domain name over the internet  Black Hat Hackers - These hackers, also known
in bad faith to profit, mislead, destroy reputation, and "crackers”, attempt to obtain unauthorized
deprived others from registering the same. access to a device in order to disrupt its activities or
A. Cybersquatting steal classified information. Because of its bad.
B. Computer-related forgery intent, black hat hacking is still illegal, like stealing
C. Computer-related identity theft corporate data, breaching privacy, causing server
D. Cyber bullying damage, blocking network connectivity, and so on.
597. If a crime defined and punished in the RPC was  Gray Hat Hackers - These hackers are a mix of
committed through the use of ICT, the penalty is: black and white. They behave without malice, just
A. 2 degrees higher than the provided in the RPC for the sake of amusement, they exploit a security
B. The same with the PC but the maximum period will be flaw in a computer device or network without the
imposed consent or knowledge of the owner.
C. 1 degree higher then provided in the RPC  Red Hat Hacker - Is a combination of black and
D. 1 degree lower than provided in the RPC white hat hackers. They normally operate at the level
of hacking government departments, top-secret
598. If the programmer of an ISP opened the account of intelligence hubs, and everything else that pertains
a subscriber to correct its services. While providing the to classified data.
necessary services discovered sex scandal and watched  Blue Hat Hacker - Is a person who works computer
it, the programmer is liable for: security independently consultancy companies and
A. Illegal access is responsible for bug-testing a device prior to its
B. Violation of privacy release. They search for flaws in the system that
C. Illegal interception can be used and work to plug them. The word
D. Violation of RA 9995 "BlueHat" used by Microsoft to refer to a series of
599. Using the packet sniffing software and hardware to security briefings.
monitor network traffic and intercept those packets  Green Hat Hacker (Neophyte,"nOOb”,"Newbie”) - Is
someone is interested in is considered as someone who is new to hacking or phreaking and
A. Hacking has little to no understanding about how computers
B. Illegal interception and hacking work.
C. Cybersquatting
D. Illegal Access 703. When responding to a cyber-related crime, it is
600. Is a type of eavesdropping attack that occurs when okay for the responding officer to turn off the computer if
a malicious actor inserts himself as a relay/proxy into a it is on.
communication session between people or systems? A. The statement is absolutely correct
A. Doppler B. Partly corrects
B. System interference C. The statement is wrong
C. Illegal interception D. The officer will decide based on his discretion
D. Man-in-the-middle 704. Only computer forensic expert should search for
700. The 3 steps of incident response are the following any digital evidence contained in the computer
EXCEPT: hardware. The statement is ______.
A. Image the computer A. absolutely correct C. yes
B. Image the monitor B. absolutely wrong D. Not correct
C. Check for password
D. None of the above 705. This is descriptive of environmental laws which
701. The is the process of using a mathematical encompasses the protection of both inland waters such
algorithm against data to produce a numeric value that is
as rivers, lakes, and streams, and the seas and oceans,
representative of that data. whether part of our territorial waters or not.
A. Imaging A. Environmental Protection Law
B. Hashing B. Blue laws
C. Algorithm C. Law of the sea
D. Brown laws
D. cloning
706. A Chinese vessel boarded by Mr. Pu Ching and his
702. Also referred to as ethical hackers, hired for crew are spotted by the locals, fishing 12km from the
penetration testing and risk tests, aimed to discover shore of Subic. Under the Philippine Fisheries Code of
vulnerabilities in computer system. 1998 (RA 8550), these acts are termed as ______-.
A. Red Hat Hackers A. Illegal fishing
B. Gray Hat Hackers B. Kitang
C. White Hat Hackers C. Poaching
D. Marine crime
D. Green Hat Hackers
707. Green laws are those that deals with the protection,
 White Hat Hackers - They're often referred to as conservation, utilization and development of forest, other
"ethical hackers." As part of intrusion testing and
land-based natural resources, and wildlife. The following
risk assessments, they never plan to damage a are violations of green laws, except:
device; rather, they aim to discover vulnerabilities A. Illegal Logging and Unlawful use of a chain saw
in a computer or network system. B. Unlawful occupation or destruction of forest and
grazing lands
25
C. Inflicting injury which cripples and/or impairs the

reproductive system of wildlife species
D. Illegal gathering, possessing, catching, and
selling of certain marine species:
708. One is NOT a law enforcement agency tasked to
enforce blue laws:
A. PCG C. PNP-MG
B. BFAR D. DENR-FMB
709. The Wildlife Resources Conservation and
Protection Act (RA 9147) specifically punishes the
following acts, except:
A. Killing and destroying wildlife species
B. Gathering or destroying active nests, nest trees,
and host plants
C. Maltreating and inflicting other injuries to wildlife
species
D. Killing wildlife species for religious rituals
710. Which is punishable by law?
A. Animals killed after it has been used in an
authorized research or experiment
B. The animal is inflicted with an incurable
communicable disease
C. Killing is necessary to end misery of the wild life
D. Inflicting injury which cripples a wildlife species
711. The following are regarded as violations against
blue laws?
I. Fishing with explosives
II.Fishing with noxious or poisonous substances
III. Electrofishing
IV. Use of Fine Mesh Net
A. I, II, III, V C. I, II, III
B. I, II, III, IV D. I, III, IV
712. A method of fishing NOT only prohibited within
Municipal Waters?
A. Use of superlights regardless of the wattage
of the bulb
B. Commercial Fishing
C. Poaching
D. Muro-Ami and Use of Active Gears
MURO-AMI – A Method and gear used for fishing
require diving and other physical or mechanical acts to
pound coral reefs and other habitats. Act of pounding
coral reefs and other habitats is meant to entrap, gather
or catch fish
713. Kind of process in developing land, cities and

communities that meets the present needs without
affecting the needs of the future generation?
A. Perpetuation Ecology
B. Sustainable Development
C. Continues Development
D. Resilient Ecology
SUSTAINABLE DEVELOPMENT
An organizing principle that aims to meet human
development goals while also enabling natural
systems to provide necessary natural resources and
ecosystem services to humans.
_____________________________________________
_ _
_ Your victory is right around the _
fucking corner. Never give up! 🤘🏼

_ _
_ _
_ _
_ _
_________________________________

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1

FINAL COACHING ON CRIME DETECTION & INVESTIGATION

CDI 1- FUNDAMENTALS OF CRIMINAL

D. Wait for the arrival of SOCO C. Made supplemental to photograph

B. Paraffin D. acid- phosphatase B. site of wound entrance has no point of election

180. If the cause of fire is accidental in nature, does it B. cryogenic D. cryoprocessor

B. The driver fleeing the area of accident to A. Crosswalk C. Cross lines

D. on a sidewalk A. not overtake under any circumstances

C. victim is killed in the accident o Specificity - must be specific by using concrete

a. Blotter b)Police reports likewise serve as a gauge for

c)Numbered memorandum unit or command which contains material details

C. Inflicting injury which cripples and/or impairs the

713. Kind of process in developing land, cities and

fucking corner. Never give up! 🤘🏼

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