G3-BOARD EXAM TRIAL IN CRIME DETECTION AND INVESTIGATION

Prepared by: ARIANNE PATAGNAN SUPAT, RCrim, CSE, CCS

Top 2, June 2022 CLE

Instructions: Read carefully. Choose the best answer for each question. Shade the correct letter in the separate shading
sheet provided. Do not forget to write your name and the subject of your test questionnaire in your shading sheet.

CDI 1- FUNDAMENTALS OF CRIMINAL 8. One of the umbrellas of the Philippine Public

INVESTIGATION AND INTELLIGENCE Safety College that gives training to the man and women
of the tri-bureau of DILG to become a certified
1. A person may be considered as a criminal from investigator.
the time he or she committed the crime regardless a. National Police College
whether or not it has been reported to the police for b. Philippine National Police Academy
investigation. What point of view does this imply? c. National Fire Training Institute
a. Criminological Sense d. National Forensic Science Training Institute
b. CJS Sense
c. Legal Sense 9. As a rule, never touch, alter or remove anything
d. Criminal Sense at the crime scene until the evidence has been processed
through notes, sketches, and photographs, with proper
2. Criminal Investigation is ____________ for it is measurements. This refers to?
not governed by rigid rules. a. The golden rule in investigation
a. More a science than art b. The number one SOP in investigation
b. Always been an art c. Three-fold Aim
c. more an art than a science d. Cardinal Rule in Crime Scene Investigation
d. entirely science
10. What is the most important weapon an
3. The so-called three-fold aims of Criminal investigator must have?
Investigation are the following, except one. a. Loaded pistol
a. Identify the guilty party b. Knowledge of the Law
b. Locate the suspect c. Expertise in Martial Arts
c. Provide evidence to prove the victim’s guilt d. Charisma
d. Provide evidence to prove the perpetrator’s guilt
11. The primary job of the investigator is to discover
4. Any person arrested, detained or under custodial whether or not ____________under the law.
interrogation shall, at all times be assisted by? a. The victim is also the suspect
a. Arresting Police Officer b. an offense has been committed
b. Counsel c. the victim puts up defense
c. Council d. there are multiple offenders
d. Immediate Relative
12. It is the knowledge of facts which the
5. The success of investigations lie with the prompt investigator had gathered from persons or documents,
response of the investigating team, assuring that they which are pertinent relevant concerning the commission
comply with the golden hour of investigation which is of criminal activities.
______. a. Information
a. Within 72 hours b. Interview
b. Within 24 hours c. Interrogation
c. Within 48 hours d. Instrumentation
d. Within 36 hours
13. Is any person who furnishes the police
6. The ideal packaging material to be used in information relevant to a criminal case about the activities
biological evidence such as blood is? of criminals or syndicates. They provide information to the
a. Plastic bag prober voluntarily without any consideration.
b. Tin can a. Informer
c. Paper bag b. Informant Net
d. Glass bottle c. Informant
d. Information
7. This kind of reasoning is used in criminal
investigation where the prober will look for the pieces of 14. Ramon extends his assistance in an investigation
evidence first before formulating the conclusion. of a shooting incident initiated by the police. According to
a. Deductive Reasoning him, some of his neighbors were members of a prominent
b. Inductive reasoning gang who victimizes youth in syndicated trafficking. What
c. Probable reasoning type of informant is he?
d. Corroborative reasoning a. Self-aggrandizing Informant
b. Mercenary Informant
c. Anonymous Informant
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d. False Informant 23. It is an inquiry into the character, reputation,
discretion and loyalty of individual in order to determine a
15. The following are the objectives of Interrogation person’s suitability to be given security clearance.
except one: a. PSI
a. To obtain valuable facts b. CBI
b. Eliminate the guilty party c. PBI
c. Identify the guilty party d. BI
d. Obtain confession/admission
24. These are any information and material, the
16. Extra-Judicial Confession is made by the suspect unauthorized disclosure of which would endanger national
during custodial investigation this must be supported by security, cause serious injury to the interest or prestige of
evidence of ________. the nation or any governmental activity.
a. Documentary a. Top Secret
b. Corpus Delicti b. Secret
c. Testimonial c. Confidential
d. Associative d. Restricted

17. What is the most essential element of Extra- 25. What is the process of translating plain text data
judicial confession? into something that appears to be random and
a. Must be taken preferably in writing and under meaningless?
oath a. Decryption
b. It must be written in the language known and b. Decoding
understood by the accused, if not it must be clearly c. Encryption
translated d. Ciphertext
c. It must be freely and voluntary given by the
accused 26. Is a comprehensive inquiry of a crime by
d. Signed by the confessant or thumb marked conducting systematic procedure of various investigative
methodologies which involves recovery of physical and
18. In this method of identification by eyewitness, testimonial evidence for the purpose of identifying the
variety of facial types showing different features of the witnesses, and arrest of perpetrator(s) for prosecution.
face is presented to the witness by the investigator. a. Criminal Investigation
a. Portrait Parle b. Crime Scene Investigation
b. Rogue’s Galley c. Homicide Investigation
c. General Photograph d. Special Crime Investigation
d. Cartographic Sketch
27. What do you call an area which is ideally located
19. Is the discreet observation of persons, places, adjacent to the Crime Scene where the CSI Evidence
and vehicles for the purpose of obtaining information Custodian stays and receives the pieces of evidence
concerning the identities or activities of the subject. turned over to him for safekeeping by the other evidence
a. Surveillance collectors?
b. Stakeout Surveillance a. Custodian’s Post
c. Tailing b. Crime Scene Briefing Area
d. Roping c. Command Post
d. Collection and Preservation Area
20. Three important factors to be considered before
physical evidence may be introduced to court except one: 28. When the desk officer received a report of an
a. The article must be properly identified incident, what is the document he needed to prepare
b. Continuity or chain of custody must be proved containing the vital information about the case?
c. Competency must be proved, that the evidence a. Complaint Sheet
is material and relevant b. Synoptic Report
d. The evidence must be free from alteration and c. Investigation Report
other form of changes d. After-SOCO Report

21. What is evaluation of the intelligence report 29. Which of the following is not a part of
gathered by Agent Ricardo Dalisay which is “Fairly Reliable preliminary survey done by the IOC upon his arrival at the
and doubtfully true information? crime scene?
a. C-4-T a. Establishment of the extent of the crime scene
b. C-5-X b. Provide first aid to anyone who needs assistance
c. C-4-U c. Develop a general theory of the crime scene
d. C-5-V d. List down the evidence most likely to be
encountered
22. Police Captain Joseph Reyes interrogated a
suspected terrorist and after such interrogation, he 30. What is the proper procedure during Crime
labeled the intelligence report as A-2. What type of Scene Documentation?
information is this? 1. Sketching
a. Completely Reliable and Confirmed by other sources 2. Photography
b. Fairly Reliable and Probably True 3. Note-taking
c. Unreliable and Probably True 4. Videography
d. Completely Reliable and Probably True
a. 1,2, 3, 4

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b. 2, 4, 1, 3 38. Upon arrival of the first responder at the crime
c. 2, 1, 3, 4 scene, the victim is already dead, and the former was able
d. 4, 2, 1, 3 to recover the firearm and shells/bullets and the suspect
is running. What would be the immediate action to be
31. It is the duty of the investigator that after done by the First Responder?
determination that a crime was committed, the cardinal a. Isolate the Relatives
points shall be also determined. Which of among the b. Analyze the Evidence
following answers to the question “What is the motive of c. Apprehend immediately the Suspect
the crime commission”? d. Cordon the Crime Scene
a. What is the crime committed?
b. How the crime was committed? 39. In crime scene photography, the crime
c. Where and when it was committed? photographer should be interested only in _______.
d. Why it was committed? a. Making a graphic representation of the scene
b. Getting the scale & proportion
32. Which of the following is NOT one of the forms c. Preserving the actual appearance of the crime scene
of information the investigator obtained from regular, d. Taking good photographs
cultivated or grapevine sources?
a. Sensory 40. What kind of sketch gives a picture of the scene
b. Concrete of the crime and its environs, including neighboring
c. Written buildings, roads, etc.?
d. Physical Forms a. Sketch of Locality
b. Sketch of the Ground
33. Criminal Investigation is the reaction of the law c. Floor plan sketch
enforcement to a crime committed. Identification of d. Sketch in Details
criminals as the initial phase of criminal investigation can
be done in any/combination of the subsequent means, 41. The primary reason a finished sketch is made
except: from a rough sketch is for _______.
1. by confession or admission by the criminal a. scale and proportion
2. by circumstantial evidence and associative evidence b. accuracy and clarity
3. by presentation of corpus delicti c. future use
4. by description of eyewitness d. court presentation

a. 1, 2 and 3 42. Which of the following must be done to maintain

b. 1, 2 and 4 the integrity of evidence?
c. 1 only a. Evidence must be photographed and packaged
d. 3 only b. Evidence must be properly documented
c. Maintain its chain of custody
34. What do we refer to in the summary of habits, d. Identify, tag and seal the evidence
techniques and peculiarities of behavior characterizing the
operational procedure employed by certain offenders? 43. What is the final phase of crime scene
a. Syndicate investigation?
b. Modus Operandi a. preliminary survey
c. Methods b. documentation
d. Criminal tactics c. final survey
d. release of the crime scene
35. Among the following investigatory situations,
which is NOT classified as custodial investigation 44. The methodology involving the systematic
therefore, the appraisal of rights is unnecessary? searching, handling, distribution and accountability of all
a. The extraction of suspect’s confession evidence found at the crime scene, including the
b. The taking of a person into custody documentation of every article of evidence from the point
c. Taking into account the witness testimony of initial discovery at the scene, to its collection and
d. Suspect being interrogated transport to the point of examination, its temporary
storage and its final disposal is referred to is:
36. The following are facts about confession, a. Transmittal of evidence
except: b. Documentation
a. Confession is a voluntary statement, either oral or c. CSI Report
written. d. Chain of custody
b. It cannot be implied.
c. it should be direct and positive acknowledgment of guilt. 45. The type of search may be used when the area
d. It can be implied to be searched is approximately circular or oval. In this
search, the searchers gather at the center and
37. Criminal Investigation involves presentation of simultaneously proceeds toward along a radii or spoke.
evidence in court. Who among the following has the final a. Spiral method
say whether the evidence is admissible in court? b. zone search
a. Prober c. Grid method
b. Judge d. Radial method
c. Investigator
d. Defense counsel 46. When taking and documenting the confession of
the suspect, the following are suggested to be done,
except to _____________.

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a. assume the literacy of the suspect.
b. have additional witness to verify the statement made.
c. have all errors corrected and initiated by the suspect.
d. make sure that the page of the confession be numbered
consecutively.
47. The following questions are part of the cardinal
points of criminal investigation, except:
a. How was the crime committed?
b. Why was the crime committed?
c. What is the offender’s marital status?
d. Where was the crime committed?
48. The victim, the scene of the crime and the
suspect was regarded as the triangle of evidence. Which
among the following is the primary source of evidence?
a. victim
b. crime scene
c. suspect
d. all of these
49. . As a rule, it would not be sufficient for police
officers to just recite Section 12, Art 3 of the constitution.
He is also duty bound to _________.
a. Communicate what the person under interrogation may
or may not do
b. Tell the person of the rights to which he is detained
c. Explain the effect of some rights in practical terms
d. None of them
50. There was a reported trespassing incident. The
police responded to the incident and upon searching the
vicinity, they found Mr. Jab Olero hiding on the bushes.
The latter was searched by the police and found in his
possession the cellphone of the house-owner. In this case,
the cellphone would be what kind of physical evidence?
a. Tracing Evidence
b. Object evidence
c. Associative Evidence
d. electronic evidence
b. To apprehend the suspected offender
c. To protect and if necessary collect and destroy evidence
d. To cordon off and protect the area
55. The following are the factors to consider before
initiating any investigation, except:
a. The exact result desired
b. Jurisdiction over the locus criminis
c. Availability of qualified personnel
d. Prompt arrest and imprisonment of uninvolved
individual
56. The philosophy of interview and interrogation.
a. The right officer, asking the wrong questions, in the
wrong manner, at the wrong time and in the wrong place,
will get the few answers.
b. The right officer, asking the right questions, in the right
manner, at the wrong time and in the right place, will get
the right answers.
c. The right officer, asking the right questions, in the right
manner, at the right time and in the right place, will get
the right answers.
d. The right officer, asking the right questions, in the
wrong manner, at the right time and in the right place, will
get the right answers
57. Tactical interrogation report rendered by an
interrogator/ investigator which contains the following
information of subjects except one.
a. Personal and family background
b. Educational background
c. Professional background
d. None of the above
58. Which of the following is not a role of undercover
operative?
a. To gather information against the suspect
b. To gather evidence against the suspect
c. To instigate the commission of crime
d. Never to instigate the commission of crime

51. As the investigator-on-case, the physical 59. Sketches are not a substitute for notes or
evidence found at the crime scene is BEST described as photos; they are but a supplement to them. The types are
those that ______.* the following except one.
a. should be of interest to the scene of the crime a. Floor plan or “bird’s-eye view”
operatives b. Elevation drawing
b. can be perceived by senses c. Exploded view
c. are composed of matters d. Restricted drawing
d. can explain what actually have happened in a crime
60. It is a document stating the cause of death of
52. All investigators in any police unit must be a the victim.
graduate of prescribed investigation course with a rank of a. Anthropological report
at least: b. Death report
a. Pat c. Necropsy report
b. PCpl d. Pathological report
c. PEMS
d. PSSg 61. When the crime scene to be searched is large
and cumbersome, the most effective method search to be
53. Any physical evidence obtained must be marked used is _______.
or tagged before its submission to the evidence custodian. a. Zone Method
Markings on the specimen must at least contain the b. Quadrant Method
following except: c. Area Method
a. Exhibit Case Number d. All of the foregoing
b. Initials and or signature of the collecting officer.
c. Time and date of collection 62. A procedure wherein DNA extracted from the
d. Time and date of submission evidentiary sample as well as from the reference biological
samples obtained from the victim and suspect are
54. The following are the main tasks of the first analyzed and processed to generate a particular pattern
responder on the scene except: or profile for each sample.
a. To give first aid a. DNA Profiling

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b. DNA Extraction time discovery on each item of evidence for proper
c. DNA Quantification identification. Items that could not be marked should be
d. DNA Fingerprinting placed in a suitable container and sealed.
a. Removal of Evidence
63. Crime scene photographs are admissible as b. Tagging or Evidence
evidence in court; it should be taken from_____. c. Evaluation of Evidence
a. Specific to general d. Preservation of Evidence
b. Specific to close
c. General to specific 72. It is the investigator’s responsibility to ensure
d. Specific and midrange only that every precaution is exercised to preserve physical
evidence in the state in which it was recovered / obtained
64. The follow are the methods of Identifying the until it is released to the evidence custodian.
Criminals, except: a. Removal of Evidence
a. Confession and admission b. Tagging or Evidence
b. Corpus delicti c. Evaluation of Evidence
c. Circumstantial evidence d. Preservation of Evidence
d. Eyewitness’ statement
73. A declaration made under the consciousness of
65. The fundamentals responsibility of the officer in an impending death.
charge of protecting the crime scene is a. Self-serving statement
a. Interrogating the witnesses b. Independent relevant statement
b. Engaging in the search for traces left by the search for c. Dying declaration
traces left by the criminal d. Res gestae
c. Removal of evidence which may prone important to the
case 74. The test employed for the admissibility of
d. Preserving the site of the crime in the same physical admission or confession is:
condition as it was left by the perpetrator a. The subject delivers his statement orally
b. It must be voluntary and trustworthy
66. Which of the following is NOT among the rules c. The investigator prepare the statement
to be observed in questioning a suspect? d. Reduced into writing in the presence of a lawyer
a. Simplicity of the question
b. One question at a time 75. The following are the rules for two witnesses
c. Accepting implied answer during the conduct of search.
d. Saving faces a. In the absence of the owner, the presence of two (2)
public witnesses residing in the same locality
67. A police officer testifying to the fact that he b. In the absence of the owner, the presence of two (2)
observed the defendant assault the victim is presenting to witnesses of sufficient age and discretion residing in the
the court ____ evidence. same locality.
a. Circumstantial evidence c. In the absence of the owner, the presence of two (2)
b. Direct evidence witness, media men and prosecutor or its representative
c. Artificial evidence d. Neither A, B C
d. Real evidence
76. In crime scene investigation sketch is considered
68. In the scene of crime operation, he/she assumes as____
the control and ensures the safety of the personnel and a. Substitute evidence to photography
victim of the crime scene. b. Similar weight evidence of photography
a. Prober c. Supplemental evidence to photograph
b. Evidence recovery personnel d. All of these
c. SOCO Team Leader
d. Photographer 77. The primary reason for conducting search in the
crime scene.
69. When one say isolate the crime scene or a. Obtain and recover physical evidence
preserve the crime scene, it simply means. b. Ascertain for the reason of the crime
a. Remove the witness on the scene c. Cover hidden evidence
b. Protect the scene d. Determine the criminal’s method of operation
c. Apply interview and photograph the scene
d. Cordon the area 78. Scientific examination of real evidence,
application of instrument and methods of the physical
70. Articles and materials which are found in sciences in detecting crime.
connection with an investigation and which help in a. Information
establishing the identity of the perpetrator or the b. Instrumentation
circumstances under which the crime was committed or c. Interrogation
which in general, assist in the prosecution of the criminal. d. Interview
a. Physical evidence
b. Documentary evidence 79. It is a controlled group of people who worked in
c. Tracing evidence the direction of the agent handler. The informants,
d. Testimonial evidence principals or cutouts supply the agent handler directly or
indirectly with intelligence information.
71. The investigator places his initials, the date and a. Informer net
the time of discovery on each item of evidence and the b. Informant net

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c. Controlled information b. Victim’s
d. Information net c. Suspect’s
d. Evidence Custodian’s
80. A person who gives information to the police
voluntarily or involuntarily without any consideration or 88. As a basic guide to investigations, he should look
reward by using telephone, refusing to identify himself. upon the evidences as serving to establish ___________.
a. Informant a. Identification of the guilty person
b. Informer b. Any of these
c. Confidential informant c. Method of operation of the perpetrator
d. Anonymous informant d. The corpus delicti

81. In this method, the area is blocked out in the 89. Person who is charged with the duty of carrying
form of a rectangle. The three (3) searchers A, B, and C on the objectives of criminal investigation, e.g. to identify
proceed slowly at the same place along paths parallel to and locate the guilty and provide evidence of his guilt.
one side of the rectangle. When a piece of evidence is a. Criminal investigator
found, the finder announces his discovery, and the search b. Chief of Police
must stop until the evidence has been cared for. A c. Interviewer
photographer is called, if necessary. The evidence is d. Crime scene sketcher
collected and tagged and the search proceeds at a given
signal. At the end of the rectangle, the searchers turn and 90. A drawn overlay of the crime scene indicating
proceed along new lanes. the position or exact location where the body of the victim
a. Line method was found including the physical evidences.
b. Double Strip method a. Criminal investigator
c. Spiral method b. Criminal investigation
d. Zone method c. Crime Scene
d. Crime scene sketch
82. Which of the following evidence may provide
information about age, sex, and race of an individual from 91. A simple inquiry/ conversation type elicitation of
which it was collected? information(s) from a willing victim/ witness relevant to a
a. Fingerprint certain crime/ incident/ event under investigation.
b. Dental a. Custodial Investigation
c. Bones b. Interrogation
d. Hair c. Interview
d. Elicitation
83. The Latin term “In flagrante Delicto” means.
a. Surprise attack 92. Any act of anticipating criminal activity;
b. Caught in the act of committing a crime investigation is conducted before the crime is committed;
c. Malicious intent the suspect is identified before committing a crime.
d. Arrest immediately after a crime a. Preventive response
b. Proactive response
84. The part of the investigation report that gives a c. Associative evidence
summary of the major investigative steps accomplished is d. Reactive response
the _________.
a. Addressee 93. Which of the following need not be present in
b. Heading order to prove the guilt of the accused by means of
c. Synopsis confession or admission?
d. Conclusions and recommendations a. Confession must be supported by corroborative
evidence
85. The history of the French police proved that this b. Confession must be ratified by the judge or the
saying is true. fiscal
a. “It needs a thief to catch another thief” c. Corpus delicti must be established separately
b. “it needs the police officer to act as a thief d. Confession must be voluntarily and freely given
c. “it needs a way to entrap a thief”
d. “the thief will always be thief” 94. In this method of shadowing, operatives are
station at a fixed point assuming that subject followed the
86. This is the most effective among informers same general route each day.
because they could easily penetrate the ranks of criminals a. ABC Method
with less suspicion. Besides they could mingle with the b. Combined Foot- Auto Surveillance
crowd easily & could obtain information more than their c. Progressive/ Leap Frog Method
male counterparts, especially if their beauty attracts d. None of the above
attention.
a. Penetration agent 95. Which of the following must be done to maintain
b. Women informer the physical integrity of evidence?
c. Double informer a. Evidence must be photographed and packaged
d. Casual informer b. Evidence must be properly documented
c. Maintain its chain of custody
87. In marking ballistic evidence found at the crime d. Identify, tag and seal the evidence
scene, it is important to put the initials prior to the date of
collection. We can utilize the following initials except one: 96. In questioning a witness, an ideal type of written
a. Recovering officer statement is:

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a. Narrative type because it is easier and will be 3. What aggravating circumstance is present when the
short offended party was not given the opportunity to make a
b. Question and answer because it provides details defense?
of acts a. Employing means to weaken the defense
c. Combination of the two b. Taking advantage of superior strength
d. Your convenient type c. Means to afford impunity
d. Treachery
97. Which of the following is not one of the rationale
why many contemporary investigation argue that the 4. Produced by blunt instrument, this kind of wound is
success of most criminal investigations begin at the crime characterized by irregular or jagged patterned wounds.
scene? a. Incised wound
a. It is at the crime scene where vital physical b. Lacerated wound
evidence can be discovered c. Stabbed wound
b. It is at the crime scene where the modus d. Puncture wound
operandi of the criminal can be discovered and established
c. It is at the crime scene where vital information 5. Mr. Police Officer, as a general rule, can you arrest a
can be learned person with a warrant of arrest?
d. It is at the crime scene where vital witnesses can a. No, because that would be a violation of the 1987
be located, or sometimes the suspect arrested Philippine Constitution, Article III, Section 1
b. Yes, by means of In Flagrante Delicto or Caught in the
98. You are Criminologist-Police Commissioned act
Officer who leads the execution of a valid search warrant. c. No, because you must have a warrant of arrest to
Who must be present when a valid search warrant is apprehend a suspect.
conducted on a domicile? d. Yes
a. The house owner
b. Any member of the house owner’s family 6. A break or solution in the continuity of the skin.
c. Two witnesses residing in the same community a. Wound
d. All of the above b. Trauma
c. Bruise
99. Preparation for undercover work should be d. Scratch
sufficiently thorough. Which of the following is not a
consideration in the conduct of roping? 7. The following crimes provided below are included in the
a. To preclude compromise category of Destruction of Life, except:
b. To minimize danger to the undercover operative a. Mutilation serious physical injuries and rape
c. To ensure the ultimate success of the b. Duel, abortion and infanticide
investigation c. Homicide and murder
d. To establish the associates of the subject d. Parricide

100. During custodial investigation in the police 8. Mark killed Jane, his Common Law Partner. What is the
station, Mr. X confessed that he was the one who killed crime committed?
Mr. Y because the latter killed his brother a week ago. He A. Parricide
voluntarily signed a statement containing his confession, B. Homicide
but he refused the assistance of a lawyer claiming that he C. Murder
is not capable of paying the services of a private counsel. D. Matricide
Is the confession admissible as evidence?
a. Yes, because the confession is in writing. 9. A spouse of B conspires with C to kill B. C is the stranger
b. Yes, because it was voluntary given by the suspect in the relationship. C killed B by poisoning. The means
c. No, because it is not a confession but an admission. employed is made known to A and A agreed that the killing
d. No, because he made the confession without the will be done by poisoning. What crime is committed by A?
assistance of a counsel. A. Parricide
B. Homicide
CDI 2- SPECIALIZED CRIME INVESTIGATION C. Murder
WITH LEGAL MEDICINE D. Matricide

1. A muscular change characterized by the softness of the 10. In the above scenario, C committed the crime of?
muscles and in which it no longer responds to mechanical A. Parricide
or electrical stimulus due to the dissolution of proteins. B. Homicide
a. Stage of primary flaccidity C. Murder
b. Stage of secondary flaccidity D. Matricide
c. Rigor mortis
d. Livor mortis 11. It usually takes _________ for the stomach to empty
its contents after meals.
2. He who kills an illegitimate grandfather, or an A. 1-2 hours
illegitimate grandson is not guilty of parricide, but of B. 2-3 hours
homicide or murder. C. 3-4 hours
a. The above statement is erroneous D. 4-5 hours
b. The above statement is true
c. The above statement is partly correct 12. Is one in which the muzzle of the weapon is away from
d. The above statement is inadmissible the body at the time of discharge yet is sufficiently close

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so that power grains emerging from the muzzle strike the 22. Supposed Ana threw the three days old baby of her
skin producing powder tattooing. sister, what crime has been committed?
A. Contact range A. Infanticide
B. Distant range B. Parricide
C. Intermediate range C. Murder
D. Maximum range D. homicide

13. The "Anti-Cattle Rustling Law of 1974" 23. Instantaneous rigidity of the muscle of the body right
A. PD 532 after death.
B. PD 533 a. Rogor Mortis
C. PD 1612 b. Migor Rortis
D. PD 145 c. Rigor mortis
d. Ragor Mortis
14. This states that the greater number of points of
similarities and variations between two persons, the 24. The term “Other Ascendants” in the crime of Parricide
greater the probability of the conclusion to be accurate. shall refer to what?
a. Prima Facie evidence rule a. Father
b. Conclusive evidence rule b. Mother
c. Law of multiplicity of evidence in identification c. Grandchild
d. Chain of custody of evidence d. Grandparents

15. Evidence to show that the wound is accidental, except: 25. The transient loss of consciousness with temporary
A. Usually there is but one shot. cessation of the vital functions of the body is known as?
B. The fire is usually in contact or near contact a. death
C. There is no special area of the body involved b. state of suspended animation
D. Testimony of the witnesses c. coma
d. rigor mortis
16. Killing of a child more than 3 hours of age.
A. parricide 26. The following will show that the gunshot wound is
B. Infanticide Homicidal, EXCEPT
C. Abortion a. Presence of suicide note
D. Murder b. Signs of struggle / defense wounds may be present in
victim
17. Under RA 8353 which amended the Penal Code, on c. There may be disturbance of the surrounding on the
October 22, 1997, a male or female can now commit rape. account of the previous struggle
This statement is d. Wounding firearm is not usually found at the scene of
A. True the crime
B. False
C. Yes 27. With treachery, taking advantage of superior strength,
D. No with the aid of armed men, or employing means to weaken
the defense or of means or persons to insure or afford
18. A wound which inflicted in the body which is so serious impunity are some of the elements of the crime of Murder.
that it will endanger one’s life. As such, are all these circumstances necessary to be
a. Non-mortal wound present during the commission of the crime, for the killing
b. Mortal wound to be considered a consummated murder?
c. Trauma a. Murder
d. Coup injury b. Homicide
c. No
19. A physical injury which is found at the site and also d. Definitely yes
the opposite site of the application of force.
a. Extensive injury 28. Defloration is the laceration of the hymen due to:
b. Coup injury a. Masturbation
c. Contre coup injury b. Fingering
d. Coup-contre coup injury c. Sodomy
d. Sexual intercourse
20. Wound produced by a butcher’s knife.
a. Punctured wound 29. When the gunshot wound of the victim is located in
b. Hack wound the area of the body that is relatively inaccessible to the
c. Lacerated wound victim, it is an indication of:
d. Incised wound A. natural death
B. homicidal death
21. One night, while high on drugs, Ana threw her three C. Accidental death
hours old baby down the stairs, which caused D. Suicide
the same to die. What crime has been committed?
A. Infanticide 30. Which of the following are the questions in incidents
B. Parricide involving assaults that cannot be answered by a medico
C. Murder legal officer?
D. homicide A. How many are the victims?
B. What is the position of the victim when he was
assaulted

Amici Review Center 8|P age

C. Was there evidence of defense mark or struggle? C. homicide
D. From what direction was the force applied coming d. parricide
From
40. The investigation of major crimes thru the use of
31. Liquid Saliva samples should never be submitted in the special investigative techniques
laboratory. a. Homicide investigation
A. False b. Special crime investigation
B. True c. Major crime investigation
C. Partially False d. Crime scene investigation
D Partially True
41. In what circumstances change murder to homicide?
32. The cracks produced in glass originate on the opposite A. Lack of intent
surface of the glass and subjected to stretching are known B. Taking advantage of superior strength
as: C. Absence of qualifying circumstances
A. radial D. Treachery
B. Concentric
C. A and c 42. Death occurs when there is deep irreversible coma,
D. None absence of electrical brain activity and complete cessation
of all the vital functions without possibility of resuscitation.
33. When a bullet is fired through a pane of glass, the side a. Cardio-respiratory Death
of the glass where concentric fractures will MOST probably b. Somatic Death
appear in the __________. c. Brain death
A. the side where the bullet entered d. Molecular Death
B. the side where the bullet exited
C. neither of the side 43. Cherry red to pinkish color of lividity suggests that the
D. Both side where the bullet entered person died due to?
A. Racumin
34. Female pelvis diameter is _______ compared with B. Overdosed
male pelvis. C. Cyanide Poisoning
a. Greater D. Phosphorus Poisoning
b. Equal
c. Lesser 44. All of the following are evidence to show that the
d. Less significant wound is homicidal, except:
A. Wounding firearm is usually not found at the scene of
35. Rape is committed either by sexual intercourse or by the crime
sexual assault. Which of the following is not a rape by B. Signs of struggle/ defense wound maybe present in the
sexual assault? victim.
A. Inserting penis into another person's anal orifice C. The site or sites of the wound of entrance has no point
B. Inserting penis while the woman is sleeping of election.
C. Inserting any instrument or object, into the genital or D. The fire is usually in contact or near contact, as shown
anal orifice of another person by the presence of burning, singeing and tattooing of the
D. Inserting penis into another person's mouth area around the gunshot wound.

36. A simple test used to determine cessation of 45. Under RA 8353, rape is considered as______.
respiration by placing water or mercury in a container on a. felony
top of the chest of a person and no visible movement is b. offense
noticed. c. infraction
a. Winslow’s test d. none of these
b. Florence test
c. Barberio’s test 46. When two or more separate fires broke out within the
d. Kastle Meyer test building is an indication of:
a. Arson
37. In the following cases, defense wounds may be b. Terrorism
present, except: c. intentional fire
A. parricide d. none of the above
B. Infanticide
C. Physical injury 47. After a long day at work, PO1 Ping Guerrero went
D. murder home and caught her common-law wife, Ms. Tina Moran
having sex with their neighbor, Mr. Joe Tay. After having
38. The lifting or removal of a dead body from the grave been caught, PO1 Guerrero immediately drew his gun and
for the conduct of medical examination: killed both of them. Based on the situation given, is PO1
A. interment Guerrero liable for the crime under Article 247 of the
B. autopsy Revised Penal Code (RPC) entitled, Death or Physical
C. inhumation injuries inflicted under exceptional circumstances?
D. exhumation a. Yes
b. No
39. Anyone who, with evident premeditation, shall kill c. True
another is guilty of: d. False
A. infanticide
B. murder

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48. In connection with the previous question, what is the D. Both B and C
crime committed in the given situation?
a. Murder 57. The first person to conduct autopsy
b. Homicide A. Julius Caesars
c. Infanticide B. Antistius
d. Parricide C. Hippocrates
D. Aristotle
49. The penalty for Article 247 shall be?
a. Reclusion Perpetua 58. The stiffening of the body caused by severe trauma to
b. Reclusion temporal the nervous system of intense stress is
c. Death A. livor mortis
d. Destierro B. Rigor mortis
C. Cadaveric spasm
50. Any person who, not falling within the provisions of D. Contusions
Article 246, shall kill another without the attendance of
any of the circumstances enumerated under Article 248 59. The following qualifies homicide into murder:
will be liable for what kind? A. Killing of a wife or spouse
a. Parricide B. Killing by means of fire
b. Infanticide C. Killing of a victim without justification
c. Murder D. Killing of a child who is younger than three
d. Homicide days old

51. A man who entered the dwelling through an open 60. A blowfly almost always lays it eggs in
window and took the gold wristwatch placed atop the ___________.
table is liable for A. manure
a. Trespassing B. rotting flesh
b. Theft C. water
c. Robbery D. canal
d. Violation of Domicile
61. Considered to be the beginning of any homicide
52. This refers to the act or practice of painlessly putting investigation is:
to death a person suffering from incurable and distressing a. Process of establishing the accurate cause of death
disease: b. Process of determining who is responsible for the death
A. euthanasia c Process of determining how the victim was killed
B. homicide d. Process of determining when the victim was killed
C. Genocide
D. Uxoricide 62. In a case of dead person, when autopsy should be
performed?
53. If post-mortem rigidity would suggest approximate a. Death has been caused by violence
time of death, cadaveric spasm will suggest b. At once when there is the slightest reason to suspect
____________. the probability of homicide.
A. age of the victim c. Upon the request of the dead person’s family
B. duration of death d. In all cases involving death
C. cause of death
d. none of the above 63. Which of the following is the primary role of the
investigator upon arrival at the homicide scene?
54. Robin killed George by shooting. In order to conceal a. Verification of death
the crime, Robin placed the corpse inside a building and b. Identification of the person who is responsible for the
set fire to the body. The fire suddenly propagated and death
burned the building itself. What is the crime committed by c. Call a physician for the proper declaration of death
Robin? d. All of the above

A. Arson with homicide 64. You were a police officer responded in a violent crime
B. Arson only just recently occurred. How would you determine signs of
C. Arson and Homicide death?
D. Murder only a. By detecting signs of breathing and respiratory
movement
55. When the gunshot wound of the victim is located in b. By hearing heart sounds
the area of the body that is relatively inaccessible to the c. By applying pressure in the fingernails of a person
victim, it is an indication of: d. Any of the above
A. natural death
B. homicidal death 65. Post-mortem change that is characterized by the
C. Accidental death discoloration of the body after death.
D. Suicide A. livor mortis
B. rigor mortis
56. Which type of death by hanging is considered not C. algor mortis
common? D. all of the above
A. Suicidal
B. Homicidal 66. In attempted or frustrated homicide, the offender
C. Accidental must have the intent to kill the victim. If there is no

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intent to kill, the offender is liable for 76. Which of the following is not evidence of a suicidal
a. Physical injury gunshot?
b. Homicide a. A near contact fire evidenced by burning or tattooing
c. Serious physical injury around the wound.
d. Consummated physical injury b. Body part involved is accessible to the dexterous hand
c. Presence of multiple gunshot wound
67. What is the final phase of crime scene investigation? d. Wounding firearm us tightly held
A. preliminary survey
B. collection of evidence 77. It is a kind of wound wherein the instrument pierces a
C. documentation of scene solid organ as well as the inner structure of the body.
D. release of crime scene a. penetrating wound
b. perforating wound
68. Elements of robbery are the following EXCEPT one: c. laceration
a. Unlawful taking of personal property d. petechiae
b. The taking is done without violence
c. The property must belong to another 78. Evidence of violence characterized by the removal of
d. The taking is with intent to gain the superficial epithelial layer of the skin brought about by
the friction against a hard rough surface.
69. Which of the following is the most common means of a. Contusion
the death by asphyxia? b. Abrasions
A. Strangulation c. Patterned wound
C. Pneumonia d. Hematoma
B. Shock
D. Convulsion 79. When the offender enjoys and delights in making his
victim suffers slowly and gradually, causing him
70. The main cause of death in electrocution is --- unnecessary physical pain in the consummation of the
A. Asphyxia criminal act.
B. Marijuana a. Ignominy
C. Burn b. cruelty
D. Shock c. treachery
d. masochism
71. A type of lividity in which the blood is still in fluid form
inside blood vessel; change as position of the body 80. 2. It is the rise of temperature of the body after death
changes. Blood remains fluid in the blood vessel for 6- 8 due to rapid and early putrefactive changes or some
hours. internal changes.
A. Hypostatic lividity a. postmortem lividity
B. Diffusion lividity b. postmortem flaccidity
C. Post-mortem lividity c. postmortem cooling
D. Post-mortem rigidity d. postmortem caloricity

72. Are the result of a person’s instinctive reaction of self- 81. it is not unlawful or punishable for any peace officer,
protection. who is authorized by a written order of the RTC, to
A. Hacked wound execute acts of wiretapping, such Authorization shall be
B. Defense wound effective for the period not exceeding?
C. Lacerated wound A. 30 days
D. Incised wound B. 60 days
C. 10 days
73. Within what period should a police officer who has D. 48 hours
arrested a person liable for the crime of murder by virtue
of a warrantless arrest turn over the arrested person to 82. The robber/s forces a door or window with an iron tool
the judicial authority? such as a tire iron, screwdriver, or small crowbar or box
A. 12 hours opener.
B. 18 hours A. The hide –in entry
C. 36 hours B. The jimmy entry
D. None C. Roof entry
D. The cut-in entry
74. The validity period of Search Warrant is ____.
A. 10 days 83. Period wherein the body would be completely
B. No time Limit skeletonized under normal conditions in tropical countries.
C. 15 days A. 1 month
D. NONE B. 3 months
C. 6 months
75. What kind of wound is produced by a sharp edged and D. 12 months
sharp pointed instrument?
a. Lacerated wound 84. A muscular change characterized by the softness of
b. Punctured wound the muscles and no longer responds to mechanical or
c. incised wound electrical stimulus due to dissolution of protein.
d. stab wound
A. Livor mortis
B. Stage of primary flaccidity

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C. Rigor mortis B. Natural death
D. Stage of secondary flaccidity C. Sudden death
D. None of these
85. Pulverization of the body into ashes with the use of
intense fire is also known as: 95. Maggots are seen in dead bodies particularly in warm
A. Charring countries within how many days from death.
B. Cremation A. 5 days
C. Exhumation B. 2 days
D. Inhumation C. 3 days
D. 4 days
86. The following are muscle changes after death except:
A. Primary flaccidity 96. Livor mortis or postmortem lividity is completed in how
B. Secondary flaccidity many hours after death?
C. Rigor mortis A. 24 hours
D. Post-mortem lividity B. 12 hours
C. 36 hours
87. Postmortem lividity or livor mortis is a very good basis D. 48 hours
for determining the
A. Time of death 97. A condition of a female who has not experienced
B. Position maintained by the body after death sexual intercourse and whose genital organs have not
C. Relative position of the assailant been altered by carnal correction.
D. Cause of death a. Defloration
b. Virgo Intacta
88. Age of human wherein human bone will not exhibit c. Virginity
change according to Alphonse Bertillon. d. Physical Virginity
A. 10 years
B. 20 years 98. A complete study of a dead body, undertaken by a
C. 30 years trained physician.
D. 40 years a. Embalming
b. Post-Mortem Examination
89. The following judicial executions were exercised in the c. Autopsy
Philippines except. d. Cremation
A. Judicial hanging
B. Musketry 99. As regards to the depth of the wound, when the
C. Electrocution wound involves only the layers of the skin.
D. Lethal injection a. Superficial
b. Penetrating
90. It is a complete and persistent cessation of respiration, c. Deep
circulation and almost all brain functions. d. Perforating
A. Molecular Death
B. Somatic Death 100. Molecular death is a kind of death where:
C. Apparent Death A. There is loss of life of the individual cells of the body
D. State of suspended Animation B. It occurs immediately after death
C. It is usually pronounced by the physician
91. The following are signs of death EXCEPT one – D. There is a transient loss of vital functions of the body
A. Cessation of respiration
B. Cessation of heart function and circulation CDI 3- SPECIALIZED CRIME INVESTIGATION
C. Cooling of the body WITH INTERVIEW AND INTERROGATION
D. Heating of the body
1. What should be established first before or during
92. The breaking down of the complex proteins into the conduct of interview or interrogation?
simpler component associated with the evolution of foul- A. Motive that impels the offender
smelling gases and accompanied by the change of color B. Intent in the commission of the crime
of the body. C. Rapport with the subject
A. Putrefaction D. Guilt of the subject
B. Auto Digestion
C. Maceration 2. A warrantless arrest is when a police make an
D. Saponification arrest without a warrant.
A. true
93. What is a waxy substance derived from the body fat B. false
and is caused by hydrolysis and hydrogenation of adipose C. yes
tissue? D. no
A. Adipocere
B. Liposuction 3. _______ may be subsequent places which may
C. Saponification include the victim’s home, suspect’s home, suspect’s
D. None of these vehicle, the road between suspect’s home and the
victim’s, or any comparable indoor or outdoor area.
94. Deaths due to injuries inflicted in the body by some A. crime scene response
forms of outside force. B. primary
A. Violent death C. secondary

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D. single microscopic crime scene b. Immediate member of his family
c. Any medical doctor, priest or religious minister
4. ______ is the deprivation by a public officer of d. Personnel of the C.H.R.
the liberty of a person w/o any legal ground.
A. detention 12. This is the most unusual style of interrogation.
B. arbitrary detention a. Jolting
C. arrest warrant b. Hypnotism
D. none of the above c. Mutt and Jeff
d. Bluff on a split pair
5. Which is recommended to be performed when
taking a statement from witnesses at the scene of an 13. The investigator should employ friendly
accident? approach and should spend time in explaining that the
A. Different investigator should interview each information obtained will be treated as a confidential
witness separately and in private matter.
B. Each witness should be interviewed alone and in A. Boasting Egoistic, or Egocentric Witness
private B. Timid type
C. All witnesses should be interviewed by the same C. Suspicious Type
officer D. Deceitful Witness
D. Witnesses who agree about what took place
should be interviewed as a group to avoid unnecessary 14. The questioning techniques that should not be
duplication. adopted in conducting interrogation is___.
A. General to specific
6. It is the term used by authorities in securing an B. Funnel interview
area where crime occurred. C. Going upward
A. arrest D. Chronological
B. bail
C. cordon 15. . In interrogating a hostile witness, it is
D. detainee necessary that the investigator should not feel
disadvantaged due to the place of interrogation. What will
7. ________ is the taking of a person into custody you do if you are the investigator?
in order that he may be bound to answer for the A. I will choose crowded place like restaurants.
commission of an offense. Rule 113, Sec 1. B. My choice of the place of interrogation will be
A. arrest inside the police headquarters.
B. bail C. My choice will be the house of any of the relative
C. cordon of the suspect.
D. detainee D. I will choose the home of the suspect.

8. It includes any questioning by law enforcement 16. When during the custodial investigation, the
authorities after a person is taken into custody or deprived subject or suspect manifests sweating, color change, dry
of his freedom in any significant manner. mouth, pulse and breathing, it is____.
A. custodial investigation A. Psychological symptoms of guilt.
B. homicide B. Physical evidence of guilt.
C. murder C. Strong and convincing evidence of guilt.
D. seizure D. Circumstantial evidence of guilt.

9. In conducting interrogation of a suspect, what is 17. The corpus delicti for the crime of theft is the
the principal psychological factor that will help you to a _______.
successful interrogation? A. Fact the crime was committed.
A. Interrogation done publicly B. Value of the property taken.
B. Interrogation done privately preferably with assistance C. Consummation of the crime.
of a counsel D. Property taken regardless of the value.
C. Interrogation done privately
D. Interrogation done with the suspect’s family members 18. If Manuel entered a house through the main
door without breaking it since it was left opened and
10. When a person is under questioning and thereafter took an LCD Television, however, when he is
custody, he needs to be informed of his constitutional supposed to leave, Lenie arrived, thus Manuel was forced
rights. Which among the following forms of questioning in to pass at the back door which was locked by breaking it.
which the appraisal of such rights is not applicable? Manuel is liable of what crime?
A. Custodial Investigation a. Robbery
B. Tactical Interrogation b. Theft
C. Custodial Interrogation c. Malicious mischief
D. Field Inquiry d. snatching

11. Cardo was invited by the NBI operatives to
answer questions pertinent to the murder case
investigated. After the questioning at the NBI
Headquarters however, he was held for further
questioning and considered him a suspect already.
Persons who can visit him are as follows, except:
a. Close friends and work colleagues
19. Suppose Manuel entered the house through the
main door by opening it with the use of an ATM card to
open the door lock without breaking it. Upon entry he took
the LCD Television. Manuel is liable for a crime of?
a. Robbery
b. Theft
c. Malicious mischief

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d. Robbery with Theft 27. On a sari-sari store, a vehicle bumped the wall.
The wall collapsed. There was a small opening there. At
20. Animo Furandi means: ___________; Animo night, a man entered through that opening without
Lucrandi means _____________? breaking the same. What crime is committed by the man,
A. Intent to steal, intent to gain if any?
B. Intent to gain, intent to steal a. Robbery
C. Intent to gain, intent to kill b. Theft
D. Intent to steal, intent to kill c. Trespassing
d. Malicious Mischief
21. The interview of a witness can be best
performed and described by the acronym IRONIC, which 28. Genuine keys stolen from the owner, if used as
stands for: a means to enter the house and stealing something from
A. Inquiry, Recognition, Organization, Novelty, Identity, inside is what type of crime?
Continuity a. Robbery
B. Identity, Rapport, Opening statement, Narration and b. Theft
Inquiry and Conclusion c. Trespassing
C. Identity, Recognition, Opening, Narration, Inquiry, d. Malicious Mischief
Conclusion
D. Identity, Rapport, Opening statement, Narration, 29. While patrolling, Patrolman Cruz witnessed a
Inquiry, Conclusion robbery on a bank, after confirming the occurrence of
robbery, he then exchanged fire with the robbers and
22. What is the difference between robbery and unintentionally killed a bystander in the crossfire, what is
theft? the criminal liability of Pat. Cruz?
a. Murder
a. In robbery, unlawful taking is done with violence b. Robbery with Homicide
and intimidation while in theft, it is done with force. c. Homicide
b. In robbery, there is no violence while in theft, d. None of the above
there is.
c. In robbery, the property taken is a personal 30. In robbery with physical injuries, to be
property while in theft, the property taken is real property considered as such, the physical injuries must always be
d. There is violence, intimidation and force in ______.
robbery while in theft, there is none. a. Serious
b. Less Serious
23. In this tactic in robbery, the robber/s forces a c. Slight
door or window with an iron tool such as a tire iron, d. Fatal
screwdriver, or small crowbar or box opener.
a. The open-door entry 31. The act of any person who, with intent to gain
b. Celluloid entry for himself or for another, shall buy, receive, keep,
c. Cut-in entry acquire, conceal, sell, or dispose of, or shall buy an d sell
d. Jimmy entry or in any other manner deal in any article, item, object, or
anything of value which he knows, or should be known to
24. Using violence, Jerome robbed his victim, Sheila him, to have been derived from the proceeds of the crime
of her car when she is about to leave the grocery store. of robbery or theft.
What crime was committed by Jerome? a. Illegal Possession of Stolen Items
a. Robbery b. Fencing
b. Theft c. Syndicated Robbery
c. Highway Robbery d. Estafa
d. Carnapping
32. “Never conduct or let anyone conduct an
25. Nobody has to talk to law enforcers. No law interview if the interviewer has not gone to the crime
compels a person to talk to the police if he does not want scene.”
to. Therefore, people will have to be persuaded, always a. Golden Rule in Investigation
within ____ and ____limits, to talk to law enforcers. b. Golden Rule in Interrogation
A. Juridical and Legal c. Golden Rule in Interview
B. Legal and Ethical d. Golden in Homicide Investigation
C. Proper and Legitimate
D. Legal and Financial 33. During interview, the tone of voice must be
_________, not confrontational as in interrogation.
26. What is the difference between interview and a. Confidential
interrogation? b. Conversational
A. Interview is a skillful questioning and c. Conclusive
Interrogation is a simple questioning d. Elusive
B. Interview is a conversation with a purpose while
interrogation is simple questioning 34. An interviewer must possess the qualities of an
C. Interview is a simple questioning with a willing actor, salesman and psychologist. He must know how to
witness and interrogation is a skillful questioning with a use the power of persuasion.
hostile person A. Humility
D. Interview is strictly done at home at B. Common Interest
interrogation is done at police station C. Acting Abilities
D. Rapport

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 43. The interrogator makes clear his belief that the
35. It is the friendly relation between the interviewer subject is obviously not the sort of person who usually gets
and the interviewee which is conducive to a fruitful result. mixed up in a crime like this. The interrogator could tell
It is winning the confidence of a person being interviewed from the start that he was not dealing with a fellow who
in order that he/she will tell all the information in his/her is a criminal by nature and choice.
possession. a. Shifting the blame
A. Humility b. Extenuation
B. Common Interest c. Bluff on a split pair
C. Acting Abilities d. Kindness
D. Rapport
44. The investigator indicates he does not consider
36. All but one is the reason why witnesses refuse his subject’s indiscretion a grave offense.
to talk and testify. a. Shifting the blame
a. Fear of Reprisal b. Extenuation
b. Great Inconvenience c. Bluff on a split pair
c. Bigotry d. Kindness
d. Conviction of police’s efforts
45. The investigators will discuss and debate about
37. After all information have been given by the how strong evidence of the case will result to a conviction
subject, that is the time for the investigator to ask of maximum penalty. Their aim is to induce the suspect to
question to clarify him about the case under investigation. confess by conditioning his mind that he is finally cornered
A. Rapport with no other recourse but to confess.
B. Inquiry a. Shifting the blame
C. Identity b. Indifference
D. Conclusion c. Feigning contact with family members
d. Pretense of physical evidence
38. These are the most difficult subjects to deal
with. Find out the reasons for their personality. The cause 46. The investigator bluffs the suspect that even if
may be trauma, shock, fear, hatred, and others. Remove he would not confess, there is enough evidence to send
these fetters of silence and they will start talking. him to jail. If he confesses, the investigator will see to it
a. Refusal to talk witness that his prison term would be within range of probation.
b. Deceitful Witness a. Shifting the blame
c. Timid Witness b. Indifference
d. Disinterested type c. Feigning contact with family members
d. Pretense of physical evidence
39. This is the uncooperative and indifferent subject.
To deal with them is to find out their field of interest. 47. The suspect could be tricked that the
a. Refusal to talk witness investigator had gone to the residence and the family
b. Deceitful Witness members has supplied facts against the suspect. The
c. Timid Witness suspect’s family will be dragged into the investigation if
d. Disinterested type the suspect will not confess.
a. Shifting the blame
40. Is the skillful questioning of a hostile person b. Indifference
suspecting of having committed an offense or a person c. Feigning contact with family members
who is reluctant to make a full disclosure of information in d. Pretense of physical evidence
his possession which is pertinent to the investigation.
A. Interview 48. _________, the relentless investigator, who is
B. Interrogation not going to waste any time because he knows that the
C. Investigation subject is guilty.
D. Inquest proceeding a. Jeff
b. Mutt
41. “Make him admit something, no matter how c. Raul
small or trivial. Usually, the first admission will lead to d. Tanggol
another. In securing the first admission is the biggest
stumbling block in dealing with tough suspects”. 49. Subject Interrogee is placed in a longer period
a. Golden Rule in Investigation of interrogation without rest or sleep. The interrogator
b. Golden Rule in Interrogation permits the source to go to sleep and subsequently
c. Golden Rule in Interview awaken for another series of questioning repeatedly. After
d. Golden in Homicide Investigation many repetitions, the interrogee will be extremely tired
and will finally cooperate hoping that he can be allowed to
42. Custodial Investigation shall include the practice rest or sleep.
of issuing an ________ to a person who is investigated in a. Extenuation
connection with an offense he is suspected to have b. Exasperation
committed without prejudice to the person. c. Exclusivity
a. Arrest warrant d. Exclamation
b. Invitation
c. Court order 50. This is the act of recording every piece of
d. Search warrant evidence found in the crime scene. Observing proper
labelling of physical evidence by means of sketching,
taking photographs or video recording.

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A. crime scene investigation 59. ________ which is where any evidence might have
B. recognition of evidence been thrown by the suspect while fleeing.
C. documentation of evidence A. inner perimeter
D. collection of evidence B. outer perimeter
C. extended perimeter
51. When the robbery is committed in a house which D. none of the above
is inhabited, or in a public building or in a place devoted
to religious worship, the use of fictitious name or 60. The immediate area where the crime was committed.
pretension to possess authority ____________ will A. inner perimeter
characterize the taking inside as robbery with force upon B. outer perimeter
things. C. extended perimeter
A. after entering the premises D. none of the above
B. in order to gain entrance
C. after leaving the premise 61. Raid is where the crime took place.
D. while forcing the inhabitants to leave A. true
B. false
52. As long as the criminal objective or plan is to rob, C. yes
whether the killing committed by reason or on occasion D. no
thereof is intentional or accidental, the crime is
_____________. 62. An act defining certain rights of the person arrested,
A. Robbery with Rape detained.
B. Robbery with Murder A. search and seizure
C. Robbery with Homicide B. properties subject to seizure
D. Robbery and Reckless Imprudence C. Section 1. Statement of Policy
D. RA 7438
53. Keep question as simple as possible avoid confusing
questions. 63. It is an order in writing issued in the name of the
A. case review Philippine, signed by a judge and directed to a peace
B. build rapport officer, commanding him to search for any property
C. simple question described therein and bring it before the court. Read Art
D. avoid implied answers III, Sec. 2, 1987 Constitution.
A. search and seizure
54. It refers to establishing a good communication in order B. properties subject to seizure
to proceed a cognitive interview. C. Section 1. Statement of Policy
A. case review D. RA 7438
B. build rapport
C. simple question 64. It is the policy of the Senate to value the dignity of
D. avoid implied answers every human being and guarantee full respect for human
rights.
55. This means that investigators must not allow a A. search and seizure
question answerable by yes or no. B. properties subject to seizure
A. case review C. Section 1. Statement of Policy
B. build rapport D. RA 7438
C. simple question
D. avoid implied answers 65. This are the properties which are subject of the
offense.
56. The investigator must review the facts about the case. A. search and seizure
A. case review B. properties subject to seizure
B. build rapport C. Section 1. Statement of Policy
C. simple question D. RA 7438
D. avoid implied answers
66. The robbers enter the house. In entering through the
57. On a single case of robbery, three persons were killed window, one of the robbers stepped on a child less than
by the robbers. One was killed accidentally by the police, three days old. What was the crime committed?
and one had a heart attack because of panic. How many A. Robbery only, the killing of the infant was a mere
counts of robbery will be considered in this situation? aggravating circumstance
A. One B. Robbery with Infanticide
B. Two C. Robbery with Homicide
C. Five D. Robbery and Infanticide
D. Three
67. After the robbery had been committed and the robbers
58. It is the surrounding area which includes any entry were already fleeing from the house where the robbery
and exit points, or in the case of a shooting, any area was committed, the owner of the house chased them and
where spent ammunition might be found. the robbers fought back. The owner sustained less serious
A. inner perimeter physical injuries. What was the crime committed?
B. outer perimeter A. Robbery and Less Serious Physical Injuries
C. extended perimeter B. Robbery only
D. none of the above C. Robbery with Physical Injuries
D. Robbery and Physical Injuries

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68. Warrantless arrest is a document from court ordering decided to go home around midnight and saw Yana having
and directing a peace officer to apprehend and detain any sexual intercourse with a neighbor Gilbert. Brando
person whose name will appear in warrant for him to grabbed Gilbert and hacked the latter to death. As an
answer matters regarding the commission of a crime. investigator what crime if any would you charge against
A. true Brando?
B. false A. homicide
C. yes B. murder
D. no C. parricide
D. none
69. It is some sort of collateral, whether it is cash or a
bond to guarantee a defendant is going to show up to 78. In attempted or frustrated homicide, the offender
Court. must have the intent to kill the victim. If there is no intent
A. bail to kill, the offender is liable for?
B. Investigation A. physical injury
C. investigator B. homicide
D. Search warrant C. serious physical injury
D. consummated physical injury
70. It is a person who carries out a formal inquiry or
investigation. 79. An injury which creates a substantial risk of death, or
A. bail which causes death or serious and protracted
B. Investigation disfigurement, protracted impairment of health or
C. investigator protracted loss or impairment of the function of any bodily
D. Search warrant organ.
A. physical injury
71. It is the action of interrogating or the process of being B. homicide
interrogated. C. serious physical injury
A. bail D. consummated physical injury
B. Investigation
C. investigator 80. It is the unlawful killing of one person by another.
D. Search warrant A. physical injury
B. homicide
72. It is a legal document authorizing a police officer or C. serious physical injury
other official to enter and search premises. D. consummated physical injury
A. bail
B. Investigation 81. It refers to the forcible expulsion of a fetus from the
C. investigator mother’s womb.
D. Search warrant A. infanticide
B. parricide
73. It is a warrant directing any peace officer to search C. abortion
and seize. D. murder
A. instrumentation
B. SOCO 82. It is the crime of killing a child within a day of its birth.
C. search A. infanticide
D. search warrant B. parricide
C. abortion
74. It is the act of acquiring found evidence at the crime D. murder
scene that is relevant to the case and may have value in
the future. 83. In this case, a price, reward or promise has been
A. crime scene investigation considered to kill the victim.
B. recognition of evidence A. infanticide
C. documentation of evidence B. parricide
D. collection of evidence C. abortion
D. murder
75. Those are the one who use the `poker’ face who hide
their emotions by being expressionless. 84. Custodial investigation includes any questioning by law
A. withholders enforcement authorities after a person is taken into
B. revealers custody or deprived of his freedom in any significant
C. substitute expressors manner.
D. ever-ready expressors A. true
B. false
76. Any person who killed his father, mother or child, C. yes
whether legitimate or illegitimate, or any of his D. no
ascendants, or his spouse, is guilty of what crime?
A. homicide 85. SOCO means?
B. murder A. Scene of the Crime Operations
C. parricide B. Scene of the Criminal Operating
D. any of the choices C. Scene of the Crime Operative
D. none of the above
77. Brando and Yana is a married couple. While working
as security guard of Bank, Brando felt sick one night and 86. _________ is the act of looking for a person or a thing.

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A. instrumentation C. secondary
B. SOCO D. single microscopic crime scene
C. search
D. search warrant 96. A warrantless arrest is when a police make an arrest
without a warrant.
87. _________ is the legal act of confiscating. A. true
A. custodial investigation B. false
B. homicide C. yes
C. murder D. no
D. seizure
97. ________ is the first step in crime scene
88. Interrogation refers to the tools or means by which documentation.
investigators attempt to explain everything that A. sketching
transcribed in the crime scene. B. note-taking
A. true C. examine
B. false D. photograph
C. yes
D. no 98. When robbery is committed against a person, the most
important element is that it must be accompanied with:
89. _______ is issued by the competent authority upon a A. Violence
showing of probable cause, which means a warrant may B. Intimidation
be issued if a reasonable person would believe the C. Force
information at hand is sufficient to suggest criminal D. Both A and B
activities.
A. criminal investigation and detention 99. A point at which a check is performed by police officers
B. custodial investigation report or any other law enforcers for security and safety
C. arrest warrant purposes.
D. arrest by virtue of warrant of arrest A. warrantless arrest
B. warrant of arrest
90. A warrant of arrest may not be necessary when the C. checkpoint
accused is already under detention pursuant to warrant D. raid
issued by MTC judge in (Rule 1112, Sec. 6)
A. true 100. Any person from whom property was taken need not
B. false be the owner, legal possession is sufficient. Is this true
C. yes regarding robbery or theft?
D. no A. True
B. False
91. ______ is the deprivation by a public officer of the C. Yes
liberty of a person w/o any legal ground. D. No
A. detention
B. arbitrary detention CDI 4- TRAFFIC MANAGEMENT AND ACCIDENT
C. arrest warrant INVESTIGATION WITH DRIVING
D. none of the above
1. When the applicant for student driver’s permit is
92. ______ is the third step in crime scene documentation. between 16-18 years old, the most important document
A. sketching he should submit is________________.
B. note-taking a. Parent’s consent
C. examine b. Birth certificate
D. photograph c. Voter’s I.D.
d. Passport
93. _______ refers to the process of determining the
sequence of events about what occurred during and after 2. They were the first domesticated animals in the history
the commission of crime. of traffic and travel.
A. team leader a. Dogs
B. evidence custodian b. Donkeys
C. crime scene c. Ox
D. reconstruction d. Horses

94. _______ refers to the identification of evidence. 3. Safe use of the streets by drivers and pedestrians is a
A. crime scene investigation matter of:
B. recognition of evidence a. adequate utilization of traffic resources
C. documentation of evidence b. effective traffic enforcement
D. collection of evidence c. correct attitude and habit
d. sustained information campaign
95. _______ may be subsequent places which may include
the victim’s home, suspect’s home, suspect’s vehicle, the 4. These signs are intended to inform road users of special
road between suspect’s home and the victim’s, or any obligations, instructions or prohibitions which motorists
comparable indoor or outdoor area. must comply:
A. crime scene response a. Regulatory
B. primary b. Place identification

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c. Danger warning 13. A driver who was in traffic accident is justified to leave
d. Bus and Jeepney stop from the accident area, if any of the circumstances below
are present, except:
5. An elevated structure built for the safety of the A. He summons the assistance of a physician or nurse to
pedestrians in crossing busy highways: aid the victim
a. Flyover B. He hides from the police for justifiable cause
b. Skyway C. He is in imminent danger of being harmed by other
c. Underpass persons by reason of an accident
d. Overpass D. He surrenders to proper authority

6. A safety device installed at the roadside to protect 14. From the bottom, what is the arrangement of color of
vehicles, which run out of control form falling on steep the traffic light?
slopes or hitting fixed objects: A. red, yellow, green
a. Signal cycle B. green, red, yellow
b. Guard rail C. green, amber, red
c. Cycle split D. red, green, yellow
d. Drainage
15. Headlights of motor vehicles shall be lighted not later
7. While approaching an intersection, the green traffic than –
light is on, however, a police officer suddenly proceeds to A. 15 minutes after sunset and until at least 15 minutes
the center and signals a motorist to stop. What should the before sunrise
motorist do? B. 30 minutes hour before sunset and until at least 30
a. Ignore both the police officer and traffic light and cross minutes after sunrise
the intersection C. one-half hour after sunset and until at least one-half
b. Ignore the police officer and proceed with caution hour before sunrise
c. Ignore the traffic light and come to a full stop D. 15 minutes before sunset and until at least 15 minutes
d. Ignore the police officer and stop only when second after sunrise
signal is made
16. These are signs which impose legal restrictions
8. It deals with the study of the changing urban applicable at location usually enforceable in the absence
environment due to the scale and density of new urban of such signs. They are usually round in shape with the
concentration. exception of “stop sign” and “yield sign”
a. Traffic Education A. regulatory signs
b. Traffic Enforcement B. danger warning signs
c. Traffic Engineering C. informative signs
d. Traffic Environment D. any of these

9. It was them who brought road building to its highest 17. This kind of license is issued to owners of privately
point of perfection in ancient times: owned motor vehicles or those not for hire or paid for
A. Chinese driving.
B. Greeks A. Student permit
C. Romans B. Non-pro DL
D. Arabs C. Pro DL
D. Military DL
10. When two vehicles approach or enter an intersection
at approximately the same time, which vehicle shall give 18. It is first domesticated in the Middle East.
the right of way? A. dog
A. vehicle on the right B. donkey
B. vehicle on the left C. ox
C. both vehicles D. elephant
D. either vehicle on the left or vehicle on the right
19. The act of conveying people, animals or goods from
11. Sofia is traversing on a solid yellow or white line with one location to another.
a dotted yellow or white line, Sofia can overtake only A. Traffic
when: B. Travel
A. Oncoming traffic from the opposite direction is free C. Transportation
from any hazard D. Teleportation
B. The solid line is in her lane
C. the oncoming traffic is visible that no vehicle or 20. Single white dotted line indicates all the following
whatsoever is coming from the opposite direction except:
D. the dotted line is in her lane A. on two-lane road, it separates traffic moving in the
opposite directions
12. Under the Land Transportation Code, is it NOT parking B. on a one-way street, separates traffic moving in one
prohibition if you park _____________. direction
A. within the intersection C. absolutely no overtaking
B. in front of private driveway D. overtaking is possible when other lane is clear of
C. on a sidewalk oncoming vehicle
D. within 4 meters of the driveway of a Fire Station
21. A double yellow or white line with a dotted line in
between means all except:

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A. overtaking is extremely dangerous D. The offense is serious
B. stay in your lane until you pass the end of the solid lines
C. absolutely no overtaking 30. Marks left on the roadway by tires when the brakes
D. overtaking is possible when other lane is clear of were applied strongly, hence the wheels locked, and not
oncoming vehicle free to rotate.
A. Key event
22. When a driver’s license is confiscated for violations of B. Scuff marks
RA 4136 the traffic enforcer must issue a receipt of C. Debris
Temporary Operators Permit which is good for _____ D. Skid marks
within which the driver may continue to operate his
vehicle. 31. The effectiveness of traffic law enforcement program
A. 15 days is best measured by which of the following.
B. 24 hours a. Increase in traffic enforcement actions
C. 5 days b. Decrease in the ratio of convictions to enforcement
D. 72 hours actions
c. Reduction of traffic accidents and delay
23. A vehicle is said to be abandoned when it is left d. None of the foregoing
_______________.
A. unattended in an area provided for parking for one day 32. What is the general rule for the movement of vehicular
B. attended in an area not provided for parking or traffic in the Philippines?
attended for two or more days in area provided for parking a. “keep to the left”
C. unattended in an area not provided for parking or b. “Safety First”
unattended for 1 or 2 days in an area provided for parking c. “keep to the right”
D. unattended in an area not provided for parking while d. “watch out”
the engine is running
33. The first action taken by a traffic unit to escape from
24. The color of the traffic light which is on after the green collision course or otherwise avoid a hazard.
light is a. start of evasive action
A. amber b. point of possible perception
B. red c. point of no escape
C. green d. final position
D. brown
34. When approaching in an intersection where the
25. What is the most common cause of road accident in flashing yellow is on, the motorist should ___________.
the Philippines? a. Stop and proceed with caution
A. whether condition b. Slow down and proceed with caution
B. Pedestrian c. Reduce speed
C. reckless driving d. Give way to motor vehicles coming from the opposite
D. road condition direction

26. In an intersection not controlled by lights or peace 35. The privilege of immediate use of roadway in
officers, pedestrian have the right of way the moment he preference to another vehicle or pedestrian.
starts to cross: a. Immunity
A. Absolutely false b. Right of way
B. Absolutely true c. Leniency
C. Partly true d. Giving way
D. Partly false
36. How do you call a person, with a valid driver’s license,
27. The conveying of persons, goods and things from one onboard a motor vehicle?
place to another is referred to as ____. a. Driver
A. traffic b. Pedestrian
B. transportation c. Motorist
C. traffic management d. Passenger
D. any of these
37. What enforcement action will not result to legal
28. Bona fide tourist and transients who are duly licensed consequence(s)?
to operate motor vehicles in their respective countries may a. Warning
be allowed to operate motor vehicles during their stay but b. Apprehension
not beyond? c. Impounding
A. 12 months d. Issuance of citation ticket
B. 60 days
C. 90 days 38. According to the Land Transportation and Traffic Code
D. 3 years of the Philippines, is it true that trailers don’t have any
power rating?
29. If a traffic law enforcer would decide to arrest a traffic a. Yes
law violator, what would not be his basis for such action? b. No
A. There is reasonable doubt that the person will not c. True
appear in the court d. False
B. Detention is necessary to avoid continued violation
C. The offender would attend the hearing

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39. In the examination of the scene of accident, which of c. Vehicles
the following evidence will show how the accident d. None of these
happened?
a. hole on the road pavement 49. The main road as conduit system with a right of way
b. the driver under the influence of liquor from 20 meters to 120 meters.
c. point of impact a. National roads
d. vehicle has break failure b. Provincials Roads
c. City roads
40. What is the occurrence in a sequence of or a chain of d. Barangay roads
events which usually produce unintended injury, death, or
damage to property? 50. Motor vehicle accident occurs at a place other than on
a. Calamity a highway:
b. crime a. Motor vehicle non-traffic accident
c. Accident b. Non-motor vehicle traffic accident
d. Assault c. Motor vehicle traffic accident
d. Motor vehicle accident
41. Separation of traffic units in a vehicular accident is
referred to as_________________. 51. On a highway, a traffic sign reads 80 kph as the
a. final position maximum speed. While the area is very foggy, a man
b. Hazards drives at 80 kph. If you are a traffic patrol officer assigned
c. disengagement at the area, you may apprehend the driver for:
d. stopping a. Over speeding
b. Under speeding
42. A person can escape from the scene of the accident c. reckless driving
on one of the following grounds: d. failure to slow down
a. offense committed is serious
b. bringing the person to your custody 52. The narrow portion of the roadway due to traffic
c. bring the suspect before the court to answer a charge congestion or where “build up” usually occurs is called:
of violation a. Padlock
d. if the person is under the imminent danger b. Congestion
c. Traffic Jam
43. When two vehicles approach an intersection at d. Bottleneck
approximately the same time, which shall have the right
of way? 53. A passage of wide section cut through a hill or sea to
a. The vehicle coming from the left shorten circuitous roadway.
b. The vehicle coming from the center a. Skyway
c. The vehicle coming from the right b. Expressway
d. The one which arrives there first c. Subway
d. Tunnel
44. What country first used traffic signs and symbols?
a. Germany 54. It is painted on the pavement and placed at
b. England intersections and other places to provide pedestrians with
c. America safety zone when crossing:
d. France A. Crosswalk
B. Lane
45. It is an object or vehicle on the road that hinders or C. Stop lines
prevent the smooth flow of traffic: D. Center
a. Hindrance
b. Obstruction 55. What lane indicates your driving lane, which prohibits
c. Hazard you from crossing on it?
d. Debris A. White dotted line
B. Solid yellow
46. What is the combination of verbal warning and C. Cross walk
citations called? D. Center
a. Traffic consultation
b. Citation warnings 56. This is the method used to determine whether a driver
c. Written warnings is under the influence of alcoholic beverages or not.
d. Traffic rules implementation a. Counting
b. Field sobriety test
47. Motor vehicles registered under this classification shall c. Walking thru straight line
not be used for hire under any circumstances. d. Balance
a. Diplomatic
b. Government 57. When there are two or more vehicles approaching the
c. Private intersection almost at the same time, one is travelling
d. For hire along the national road and the other is in the secondary
road. Who has the right of way?
48. Which of the following does NOT belong to a traffic a. vehicle on the left
unit. b. vehicle on the right
a. Persons and animals c. Vehicle on the national road
b. Goods d. Vehicle on the secondary vehicle

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 B. danger warning signs
58. Which of the following consideration does not act as a C. informative signs
deterrent to motorist and pedestrian? D. any of these
a. Loss of driving privileges
b. increase of insurance premium
c. Fear of fine and punishment 67. These vehicles are issued to foreign diplomats and
d. possibility of being involved in an accident consuls assigned in the Philippines.
A. private
59. They are self-centered and not learned how to be B. public utility vehicles
unselfish. C. government
a. Egotist Driver D. diplomat
b. Over-emotional Driver
c. Thwarted Driver 68. These are registered primarily for the conveyance of
d. Top Notch Driver passengers and other commercial goods.
A. private
60. The maximum allowable speed for a passenger cars B. public utility vehicles
and motorcycle on “through streets” or boulevards, clear C. government
of traffic, with no ” blind corners,” when so designated is D. diplomat
________.
a. 50km/h 69. These signs are also known as “guide signs” or
b. 80km/h “direction signs”. It is rectangular in shape and white-
c. 40km/h colored on blue background.
d. 30km/ A. regulatory signs
B. danger warning signs
61. What enforcement action consists of taking a person C. informative signs
into custody for purpose of holding or detaining him to D. any of these
answer a charge of violation before a court?
A. Traffic enforcement 70. These are motor vehicles used for the personal use of
B. Traffic patrol their owners.
C. Traffic investigation A. private
D. Traffic arrest B. public utility vehicles
C. government
62. What is the proof that one is given permission by the D. diplomat
Land Transportation Office (LTO) to vehicle on public
highways? 71. A student permit is valid up to ______ from the
A. driver’s ID date of issue.
B. driver’s license A. 12 months
C. franchise B. 60 days
D. operator’s license C. 90 days
D. 3 years
63. Prohibitive signs and restrictive signs shall have
_______. 72. It is issued to persons who desire to learn to drive.
A. blue background and white symbol A. Student permit
B. red background with white symbol and black border B. Non-pro DL
C. white background with black symbols C. Pro DL
and red border D. Military DL
D. green background with white and black
Symbols 73. What is the minimum age of a person who has the
statutory qualification to drive a motor vehicle with
64. This pertains to all lines, patterns, words, colors professional license?
officially placed for the purpose of regulating, warning or A. 16 years old
guiding traffic. B. 17 years old
A. traffic signs C. 18 years old
B. traffic lights D. any of these
C. pavement markings
D. any of these 74. Which of these is the first domesticated animal in the
region of Siberia?
65. Refers to any device mounted on portable support A. Reindeer
whereby a message is conveyed by means of words or B. Dog
symbols officially installed for the purpose of regulating, C. Horse
warning or guiding traffic. D. elephant
A. traffic signal light
B. traffic signs 75. The application of the processes of planning,
C. traffic lights organizing, directing and controlling to traffic affairs is
D. any of these referred to as:
A. Traffic administration
66. These signs are also known as “caution signs” These B. traffic management
signs have equilateral triangular shape with one side C. traffic operation
horizontal and having red borders. D. traffic supervision
A. regulatory signs

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76. This field deals mostly on the implementation and A. true
enforcement of traffic laws rules and regulations. B. false
A. Traffic Engineering C. maybe true
B. Traffic Environment D. sometimes false
C. Traffic Economy
D. Traffic Enforcement 86. The marks left on the road surface left by metal parts
of the vehicle and may serve as a clue in traffic
77. What was the main problem in transportation when investigation is referred to as:
wheeled carts and carriages were introduced? A. scuff marks
A. lack of technical knowledge to operate the vehicle B. scratches and gouges
B. lack of animals to pull the carts C. skid marks
C. narrow man and animal pathways D. flat tire marks
D. inferior raw materials for wheel manufacturing
87. Holder of student driver’s permit for the period of not
78. When a driver unloads passengers on the middle of less than ________ can apply for non-professional driver’s
the road, he committed what violation? license.
A. illegal unloading A. 150 Days
B. traffic obstruction B. 180 Days
C. illegal loading C. 60 Days
D. illegal stopping D. 30 Days

79. It has a number of wheels, when propelled or intended 88. What should drivers do when an emergency vehicle
to be propelled by attachment to a motor vehicle shall be approaches displaying legally authorized red light and
classified as separate motor vehicle with no power rating. sounding a siren?
A. passenger automobiles A. Continue driving slowly without regard of the emerging
B. lawn mowers vehicle
C. trailers B. Yield the right of way and wait for the passage of the
D. any of these vehicle
C. Pull aside and stop the car abruptly
80. The government office that is responsible in the D. Disregard the red light and siren
enforcement of drivers’ licensing is the _________.
A. PNP 89. In this manner, a traffic enforcer while observing the
B. LTO flow of traffic tries to attract attention of the motorists by
C. DOTR keeping in full view of traffic:
D. LTFRB A. Stationary
B. Visible
81. PO1 Reyes is preparing a rough sketch of a traffic C. Conspicuous
incident. What should be given merit and importance? D. Inconspicuous
A. proper scale to be used
B. high grade of paper 90. The motor vehicle accident occurring entirely at a
C. no changes place other than on a highway is ______.
D. sketch be reprinted and improved A. non-motor vehicle traffic accident
B. motor vehicle traffic accident
82. It is considered as one of the most dangerous roads C. motor vehicle accident
in the world because of prevalence of number of D. motor vehicle non-traffic accident
accidents?
A. NLEX 91. What is the most important, in determining the
B. Commonwealth skidding distance of a motor vehicle?
C. C-5 A. Driver’s driving attitude
D. Balete drive B. Tire material of the motor vehicle
C. Slipperiness of the road surface
83. When could a driver leave the area of accident without D. Speed of the motor vehicle
being held liable for HIT and RUN?
A. when his life is in imminent danger of being harmed by 92. It is considered as the most effective deterrent to
other person/s by reason of the accident traffic accidents.
B. he surrenders to proper authorities A. Regular maintenance and check-up of the traffic units.
C. he summons the assistance of a physician or nurse to B. Increase insurance premium
aid the victim C. Arrest and prosecution of traffic law violators
D. all of these D. Decrease car insurance liability to a minimum

84. What is the modern procedure for coping with streets 93. As an investigator, the interviewing process of persons
and highway traffic by improving road efficiency? involved in a traffic accident should be done?
A. Traffic engineering A. jointly
B. Traffic education B. separately
C. Traffic management C. be fair
D. Traffic direction D. listen to both sides

85. Driving a motor vehicle in the Philippines is a matter 94. How many police officers are required in measuring
of right granted by the Philippine government. This the skid marks created by vehicles involved in a traffic
statement is _____. accident?

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A. one B. Fire Gases
B. two C. Smoke
C. three D. Flame
D. four
3. Means employed to avoid the occurrence of fire.
95. The following are major phases of traffic enforcement A. Fire Suppression
process EXCEPT __________. B. Fire Control
A. Detection C. Fire Inspection
B. Apprehension D. Fire prevention
C. Control
D. Adjudication 4. A term used to describe a transition which occur
in the development of a fire, when, for example, most of
96. What term is used to describe the frontal collision of all the combustible surfaces within a room are heated
vehicles? above their ignition temperature at the
A. Collision same time.
B. Head on collision A. Intensity
C. Full impact collision B. Ignition
D. Frontal collision C. Flash over
D. Starter
97. Which of the following the BEST reason why biorhythm
is an important aspect of traffic safety so that the person 5. A term of the start of the combustion, its
can avoid accident? detailed process of a solid is very complicated, since the
A. Knows his physical capacity on certain day. proportion of different flammable vapors varies from one
B. Knows his intellectual capacity on certain day. material to another and contact with oxygen must take
C. Gives hints on how he tends to feel in a certain day. place before combustion can begin.
D. Ascertains his physical, emotional, and intellectual A. Intensity
condition in a certain day. B. Ignition
C. Flash over
98. Considering that the motor vehicle has stalled or D. Starter
bogged down, as traffic enforcer or patrol officer, the
following should be done, EXCEPT 6. Fire stage that has the highest rate of intensity.
A. ensure the safety of other motor vehicles passing A. Incipient
through in the area B. Free burning
B. ignore the situation and just continue your patrolling C. Smoldering
function D. Initial
C. help push the motor vehicle up to the shoulder of the
road; if practicable 7. Decomposition of matter in reaction to heat.
D. Check whatever is the defect or condition of the stalled A. Thermal balance
or bogged motor vehicle B. Oxidation
C. Burning
99. What should the driver do if involved in a traffic D. Pyrolysis
accident?
A. Must report to the police station at once or 8. As the product of combustion rises in a building
immediately. or flows out of an opening an equal volume of air replaces
B. Must report to the nearest police station within 24 them. If during extinguishments, water is distributed in
hours. such a manner as to upset the thermal balance, a
C. Must see his lawyer within 72 hours. condition will appear known as:
D. Must see a police officer after 3 hours. A. Explosion of steam
B. Thermostat
100. Training Road users to avoid traffic-related accidents C. Thermal imbalance
is a part of ______. D. Sudden burst of fire
A. Traffic safety campaign
B. Traffic safety education 9. Means employed to pacify the fire.
C. Safety operation A. Fire prevention
D. Safety consciousness B. Fire safety
C. Fire control
CDI 5- FIRE PROTECTION AND ARSON D. Fire suppression
INVESTIGATION
10. What is a normally open device installed inside
1. Government’s office mandated by RA 6975 to an air duct system which automatically closes to restrict
suppress destructive fires, implements the fire code and the passage of smoke or fire?
investigates all fires cases in the Philippines A. fire exit
A. BFP B. damper
B. PNP C. fire trap
C. BJMP D. fire alarm
D. Bureau of Fire in the Philippines
11. Known as the “Fire Code of the Philippines”.
2. Product of combustion which combustible A. RA 6975
materials and oxidizing agents react to heat. B. RA 9263
A. Fire C. RA 9514

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D. PD 1613 22. The burnt pattern in concrete indicating the
spontaneous and intensive burning has occurred.
12. Known as the 4th element of fire. A. Alligatoring
A. Fuel B. Spalling
B. Heat C. Collapse
C. Uninhibited chemical reaction D. Charring
D. Oxygen
23. Which of the following should be performed first
13. Heat transfer that occurs in fluids. in conducting fire investigation?
A. Convection A. Secure the fire scene
B. Radiation B. Photograph the façade
C. Conduction C. Pacify the fire
D. Electrolysis D. Conduct search

14. The means employed to keep the fire to a 24. Fire which there are human casualties.
minimum or manageable level. A. Deadly fire
A. Fire control B. Fatal fire
B. Fire prevention C. Spot fire
C. Fire suppression D. Arson
D. Fire inspection
25. If the motive of fire is due to insanity, who
15. It refers to the size of fire which is determined among the following is the probable perpetrator?
by the size of flame and the area of fuel that is burning. A. Jolted lover
A. Temperature B. Rebel
B. Heat C. Terrorist
C. Intensity D. Pyromaniac
D. Magnitude
26. Which of the following will not cause the
16. An act of removing fire hazards from the investigator to hypothesize that the series of fires are not
building. performed by a serial arsonist?
A. Lien A. There is a significant difference in modus
B. Abatement operandi in all series of fire
C. Inspection B. There is significant variations as to the time of
D. Retrieval the commission of arson
C. There is a significant similarity in manner of
17. Normal pattern or movement of fire, smoke and commission of offense
fire gases within a building or structure or natural D. Similar devices were used to propagate the fire
condition created by fire.
A. Thermal balance 27. If the investigator did find any trace of
B. Thermal imbalance incendiarism, which of the following will be the
C. Fire turbulence assumption?
D. Fire direction A. The fire was intentional
B. The fire was accidental
18. Office of the BFP that facilitates the C. The fire was providential
implementation of the Fire Code of the Philippines. D. The fire was not accidental
A. Fire Investigation Section
B. Fire Safety Enforcement Branch 28. Which of the following shall cause the
C. Fire Safety Inspection Section investigator to assume that the victim died of direct
D. Personnel Section contact with flame?
A. Presence of soot and fire gases at respiratory
19. The process of determining the cause of fire in tract
a particular installation. B. Prominence of trauma that is probably caused
A. Fire safety by a stab
B. Fire inspection C. Intense charring of the whole body
C. Fire investigation D. None of the above
D. Fire control
29. System of interconnected pipe that supplies
20. The first to be observed in ascertaining the water for fire suppression system in a particular
cause of fire. installation.
A. The point of origin A. Wet pipe
B. The burnt pattern of ceiling B. Dry pipe
C. The room of origin C. Standpipe
D. The color of smoke and flame D. Sprinkler

21. Place in the fire scene where the fire started. 30. Product of fire that is detected by gas
A. Kitchen chromatogram and ion spectrometer.
B. Point of origin A. Flames
C. Electrical Wire B. Heat
D. None C. Soot
D. Fire gases

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31. To point out the difference between the 40. If combustion waves propagate at supersonic
incendiary cause of fire and natural cause the fire speed, a shock front develops ahead of it to produce:
investigator must photograph the natural fire pattern and: A. Explosion
A. Arson fire pattern B. Detonation
B. Accidental fire pattern C. Conflagration
C. Providential fire pattern D. Big fire
D. Suspicious fire pattern
41. As the product of combustion rises in a building
32. Most arson cases are proved or flows out of an opening an equal volume of air replaces
by evidence rather than that direct evidence. them. If during extinguishments, water is distributed in
A. Circumstantial such a manner as to upset the thermal balance, a
B. Documentary condition will appear known as:
C. Testimonial A. Explosion of steam
D. Physical B. Thermostat
C. Thermal imbalance
33. To establish the prima facie evidence of arson, D. Sudden burst of fire
the total insurance carried on the building and/or goods is
more than of the value of such building and/or 42. Fire can leapfrog across wide malls and shopping
goods at the time of the fire. centers through electromagnetic waves. This heat transfer
A. 60% is:
B. 50% A. conduction
C. 80% B. radiation
D. 90% C. combustion
D. convection
34. When carbon monoxide is present in the blood
of the dead body found in a burned structure, this will be 43. What equipment is made of trussed or solid
strong circumstantial evidence that the person: beam where rungs are connected horizontally to the beam
A. Was dead when the fire began forming ascent or descent?
B. Was killed by someone else during the blaze A. rope
C. Was still alive before the fire B. ladder
D. Died due to suffocation C. hydrant
D. nozzle
35. A popular chemical element used by the arsonist
to hide the odor of flammable liquids. 44. The lowest section of an extension ladder is
A. Sulfides known as:
B. Nitrates a. heel
C. Sulfur b. bed ladder
D. Ammonia c. butt
d. fly ladder
36. When fire occurred, the first action upon
discovery is: 45. What type of ladder is best suited for firefighting
A. Run for life operation involving high-rise building?
B. Raise the alarm A. attic
C. Pack up personal belongings B. aerial
D. Call an ambulance C. extension
D. hook
37. It is used to include not only architects
responsible for the design and erection of a complete 46. How high is a building to be considered high-rise
building but also the various specialist engineers who may according to National Building Code of the Philippines?
be concerned with the structure, the electrical installation, A. 48 meters
the heating ventilation system and so on. B. 49 meters
A. Building contractors C. 50 meters
B. Designers D. 51 meters
C. Office of building permits
D. Building planners 47. It refers to the luminous body of a burning gas
which becomes hotter and less luminous when burning
38. Which of the following is not a purpose of gas is mixed with proper amount of oxygen.
statutory requirements for fire protection? A. Heat
A. To see to it that the building is insured B. Flame
B. To put life in detrimental state C. Temperature
C. To insure that the building is hazard-free D. Fire
D. To generate income for the government
48. It refers to a thick, viscous, light, and stable
39. Preparation to set a fire. It is design to feed the material that floats on almost any liquid, including water.
fire as rapidly as possible when ignition device is lighted. This has the effect of excluding the oxygen during
A. Plants firefighting operations.
B. Trailer A. Blanket
C. Accelarants B. Carbon dioxide
D. Fuel C. Foam

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D. Dry chemical
57. A fire hydrant should be carefully opened when
49. AFFF means? in use in order to:
A. Aqueous Film Forming Foam a. reduce vibration of the hydrant
B. Aqueaous filter Forming Foam b. ensure that the drip valve is all the way closed
C. Aqeous Filter Foam Forming c. prevent water hammer
D. Aqueaous Film Forming Foam d. close the coupling

50. Those extinguishers that contain Carbon 58. These are the possible benefits of ventilation,
Monoxide Gas use to fight class A, B, and C fires are the – Except:
A. Water fire extinguishers a. Control the direction of fire
B. Liquefied fire extinguishers b. Possible visibility
C. Cryogenic gas c. Release of gases
D. Dry chemical fire extinguishers d. Slow down rate of burning

51. Flame safety lamp is a device which detects the 59. What is a vertical panel of non- combustible or
presence of flammable vapors, but its intentional use for fire-resistant materials attached to and extending below
this purpose is very dangerous particularly in an the bottom chord of roof trusses to divide the underside
atmosphere that may contain acetylene or hydrogen of the roof into separate compartments so that heat and
because of the possibility of – smoke will be directed upwards to a roof vent?
A. Backdraft a. fire door
B. Flashover b. electric arc
C. Vapor Explosion c. fire trap
D. Reflash d. curtain board

52. Upon arrival at the fire scene, the fire fighters 60. The fire extinguisher contains of .
noted based that the building contains large a. 4% foam 96% water
quantities of superheated fuel under pressure but little b. 94% water 6% foam
oxygen. The stage of fire is on – c. 50% foam 50% Water
A. Initial stage d. 5% foam 75% Water
B. Smoldering phase
C. Incipient stage 61. Passageway from building to another or through
D. Free-burning phase or around a wall in approximately the same floor level.

53. What is being used as a precautionary measure a. smelting

to facilitate the rescue of an overcome investigator or b. fulminate
firefighter who is wearing an OBA, air-line mask, or similar c. vestibule
equipment? It is usually made of a 50-foot nylon covered d. horizontal exit
steel wire for use with the OBA or air-line mask.
A. Airline 62. A finely powdered substance which, when mixed
B. Rescue rope with air in the proper proportion and ignited will cause of
C. Oxygen hose explosion.
D. Tending line a. fire lane
b. fire trap
54. Flashover is the sudden ignition of accumulated c. dust
radical gases produced when there is – d. fire alarm
a. incomplete combustion of fuels
b. insufficient oxygen 63. Those materials that yield oxygen or other
c. introduction of heat oxidizing gases during the process of a chemical reaction.
d. sufficient oxygen a. Fuel
b. oxygen
55. It refers to any condition or act that increases or c. heat
may cause increase in the probability that fire will occur, d. self-sustained chemical reaction
or which may obstruct, delay, hinder or interfere with
firefighting operations and the safeguarding of life and 64. A colorless, odorless gas and one of the
property. compositions of air which is approximately 21 % by
a. Fire trap volume.
b. Clogged fire way a. Fuel
c. Fire hazard b. oxygen
d. Hazardous fire area c. heat
d. self-sustained chemical reaction
56. Before attacking a fire in closed building it is
necessary to determine whether ventilating is necessary 65. In scientific terms, the fuel in a combustion
and if so, the method of ventilating. Which is of least value reaction is known as?
in making such a decision? a. Reducing agent
a. Observing density of smoke through windows b. oxidizing agent
b. Observing the points at which smoke may be c. temperature
oozing out from the building d. none of these
c. Feeling walls and roofs for hot spots
d. Observing the color of the smoke

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66. The heat energy derived from nuclear energy by D. No
the combining of atoms is known as:
A. Fission 75. If you saw a man carrying all materials in arson,
B. Radiation as an arson prober what case will you file?
C. Ignition A. Malicious Mischief
D. Fusion B. Attempted Arson
C. Illegal Possession of Arson Paraphernalia
67. What does it indicate when during a D. None
conflagration, the smoke emitted is grayish?
A. Presence of nitrate 76. It is arson when the owner of a house burned
B. Loosely packed substance such as straw and hay his own for purposes of collecting insurance money. This
C. Indicate humid substance is commonly referred as:
D. Presence of phosphorus A. Mischief
B. Estafa
68. It is the smoke which indicates lack of air but if C. Insurance Fraud
accompanied by large flames it indicates petroleum D. Arson
products or rubber?
A. Fire smoke 77. In order for arson to be deemed committed by a
B. Black smoke syndicate, what is the minimum number of persons
C. White smoke involved?
D. Biting smoke A. 1
B. 2
69. What will happen in case one or more electrical C. 3
appliances or devices draw or consume electrical current D. 4
beyond the designed capacity of the existing electrical
system? 78. The liquid which causes fire when in contact with
A. Overloading organic matter or with certain chemical is
B. Consumption .
C. Electric meter A. Corrosive Liquid
D. Overheating B. Gasoline
C. Kerosine
70. What is the most common motive in Arson D. Fuel
Cases?
A. Intimidation 79. Out of anger, because his younger brother was
B. Economic Gain mauled by the neighbor Hector, June burned the house of
C. Punitive Measure Hector who unknown to him was sleeping in the said
D. Concealment of Crime house during that time. As an Arson Investigator you will
charge June with .
71. Freddie, an employee of fireworks factory in A. Arson with Murder
Bocaue, Bulacan has been intensely reprimanded by his B. Murder only
supervisor for being a habitual late comer. With grudge to C. Arson and Murder
the company and his employer, he set fire in such factory D. Arson only
and the same has been burned. In this case, there is
. 80. Highly flammable chemicals that are used to
A. Consummated Arson facilitate flame propagation.
B. Destructive Arson A. Trailer
C. Simple Arson B. Gasoline
D. Hatred-induced Arson C. Accelerant
D. Plant
72. A sudden introduction of air into a closed space
containing an oxygen-starved superheated product of 81. These are materials involving combustible
incomplete combustion or oxygen-deficient free radicals, metals, alloys or metal compounds either in a solid, semi
may result to an explosion, which is called: solid or liquid state.
A. Flashover a. Class A
B. Flash Fire b. Class B
C. Backdraft c. Class K
D. Spontaneous Ignition d. Class D

73. Which among the following material will serves 82. The following are prohibited acts under the
as the best conducting material? Revised Fire Code of the Philippines of 2008, except:
A. Heat A. Locking fire exits during period when people are
B. Plastic inside the building
C. Iron B. Abandoning or leaving a building or structure by
D. Styrofoam the occupant or owner with appropriate safety measures
C. Giving false or malicious fire alarms
74. If the cause of fire is accidental in nature, does D. Removing, destroying, tampering or obliterating
it constitute prima facie of arson? any authorized mark, seal, sign or tag posted or required
A. Yes, but of less grave penalty only by the fire service
B. Yes, and negligent person will be prosecuted
C. Yes

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83. When white smoke appears even before the 93. It is the branch of knowledge that deals with the
water from the fire hose comes in contact with the fire, it science of fire, and fire protection.
indicates . A. Fire Protection
A. lack of air B. Fire Technology
B. humid material burning C. Arson Investigation
C. chlorine burning D. Fire and Arson Technology
D. lack of oxygen
94. _____ is a geometric representation
84. Fire is an example of what type of chemical of what is required for fire to exist, namely, fuel, an
reaction? oxidizing agent, heat, and an uninhibited chemical
A. Precipitation reaction.
B. Acid-base A. Fire Triangle
C. Oxidation-reduction B. Fire Tetrahydron
D. None of these C. Fire Tetrahedron
D. Uninhibited Chemical Reaction
85. The cause of the majority of fire death is
. 95. Human skin receives a first degree burn injury at
A. infection what temperature?
B. shock A. 37 degrees centigrade
C. burns B. 48 degrees centigrade
D. asphyxiation C. 47 degrees centigrade
D. 58 degrees centigrade
86. Which of the following restrict the spread of fire
to the point origin or at least to the area involved? 96. The following are elements of arson except one.
A. extinguishment
B. suppression A. Actual burning took place;
C. confinement B. Actual burning is done with malicious intent;
D. control C. The actual burning is done by person(s) legally
and criminally liable.
87. Rate of temperature of fire. D. The burning is inadvertent and damages other
a. Heat person’s property.
b. Intensity
c. Magnitude 97. What is the corresponding penalty if the arson
d. Ignition point was committed by the owner who intentionally burned his
own property?
88. Fires involving flammable liquids.
a. Class C A. Prision Mayor
b. Class B B. Prision Correctional
c. Class D C. Reclusion Temporal
d. Class A D. Reclusion Perpetua

89. What is the measure of the degree of thermal 98. What moves rapidly by convection and can
agitation of molecules? spread laterally along the cufling?
A. ignition point A. heat
B. temperature B. fire
C. flash point C. smoke
D. boiling point D. temperature

90. The ratio of the weight of a solid or liquid 99. The lowest section of an extension ladder is
substance to the weight of an equal volume of water. known as
A. vapor density A. heel
B. specific gravity B. bed ladder
C. molecular weight C. butt
D. vapor pressure D. fly ladder

91. What is the constant temperature at which the 100. The techniques used in clearing a building of
vapor pressure of the liquid is equal to the smoke and with the use of smoke ejector is called as
atmospheric pressure? what?
A. smoke ejector
A. vapor density B. horizontal ventilation
B. fire point C. forced ventilation
C. boiling point D. vertical
D. vapor pressure
CDI 6- VICE AND DRUG EDUCATION AND CONTROL
92. Why is water prohibited to quench class D fires?
A. burning metals are too hot 1. These kinds of drugs were the one of the first to be
B. there is the danger of electrocution used by mankind. These were used for many centuries for
C. water is not capable of extinguishing the fire healing, recreation, and in religious ceremonies.
D. explosion may occur a. Marijuana
b. Tobacco

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c. Illicit drugs 10. Which of the following is NOT among the street names
d. Herbal drugs of marijuana?
A. Flower
2. These drugs are also called “Psychedelics”, a drug that B. Crack
causes hallucinations. Psychoactive drugs that cause C. Brownies
subjective change in perception, thought, emotion, and D. Maryjane
consciousness.
a. Stimulants 11. The mind altering component of marijuana.
b. Downers A. Hallucinogens
c. Hallucinogens B. Maryjane
d. Narcotics/Opiates C. Tetrahydrocannabinol
D. Papaver Somniferum
3. This is also known as the Dangerous Drugs Act.
a. R.A. 4657 12. Columbia is said to be the world's largest producer of
b. R.A. 9165 Methamphetamine Hydrochloride.
c. R.A. 6786 A. True
d. R.A. 6425 B. False
C. Yes
4. MDMA is commonly known as D. No
Methylenedioxymethamphetamine. Which of the following
is NOT one of the other names of the drug? 13. Branch of medicine concerns with the use effects and
a. Joint actions of drugs.
b. Eve A. toxicology
c. Love drug B. Pharmacy
d. XTC C. Pharmacology
D. Chemistry
5. The following are NOT included in the classification of
drugs according to psychological effects, EXCEPT one; 14. A poppy plant considered as the plant of joy.
a. Stimulants A. Erythroxylon coca
b. Downers B. Papaver somniferum
c. Hallucinogens C. Cannabis sativa
d. All of the foregoing D. Hul Gil

6. One of the most abused hallucinogenic drugs in the 15. Jon, a 15 year old boy who has a father that is a
Philippines that contain active components known as regular user of Shabu. Whenever his father uses such
Tetrahydrocannabinol? drug, he is always wondering what would happen if he
a. Mescaline tried one of those. Jon displayed _______ as a
b. LSD contributing factor why people take illicit drugs.
c. Marijuana A. Peer pressure
d. Ecstasy B. Alienation
C. Curiosity
7. Considered to be one of the prime suppliers of Heroin D. Ignorance
in Asia is the so-called Golden Triangle where 60% of
opium of the world originate. This lies on the borders of: 16. What drug is known as “king of all drugs” for being
a. Thailand –Laos –Burma the most abused in the world?
b. Thailand – Laos- Myanmar A. Hallucinogens
c. Iran –Afghanistan – Pakistan B. Solvent
d. Perú- Colombia- Bolivia C. Cocaine
D. Alcohol
8. Any act of introducing any dangerous drug into the
body of any person, with or without his/her knowledge, by 17. The most widely illegal used substance in the world
injection, inhalation, ingestion or other means, or of today.
committing any act of indispensable assistance to a person A. Shabu
in administering a dangerous drug to himself/herself B. Cocaine
unless administered by a duly licensed practitioner for C. Marijuana
purposes of medication. D. Heroin
a. Administration
b. Administer 18. This kind of drug is obtained from fermentation of
c. Admonitions fruits.
d. Oral A. Beer
B. Wine
9. A drug syndicate is any organized group of _____ or C. Whisky
more persons forming or joining together with the D. Gin
intention of committing any offense enumerated by RA
9165: 19. The title of Republic Act 9165.
A. Two A. Comprehensive Dangerous Drugs Act of 2002
B. Three B. The Comprehensive Dangerous Drugs Act of 2003
C. Four C. The Comprehensive Dangerous Drugs Act of 2001
D. Five D. Comprehensive Drugs Act of 2002

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20. Selling, distributing, supplying or transporting of 29. This is the safest most convenient and economical
legitimately imported, in-transit, manufactured or route whenever possible is:
procured controlled precursors and essential chemicals, by A. Oral
the manufacturer of medicine to the drug trafficker is B. Inhalation
called: C. Injection
A. Drug trafficking D. none of the above
B. Sale
C. Chemical diversion 30. It is the fastest way of administering drug into the
D. Chemical smuggling body
A. Oral
21. It is the Agency of the Government that will take B. Inhalation
charge and have custody of all dangerous drugs C. Injection
confiscated: D. none of the above
A. Philippine Drug Enforcement Agency
B. NBI, Anti-Drug Task force 31. The Comprehensive Dangerous Drug Act of 2002
C. PNP Drug Enforcement Group refers to as:
D. Philippine National Police A. R.A. 6425
B. Executive Order 265
22. Cocaine is an example of a drug that is under the C. R.A. 9165
_______ classification. D. E.O. 218
A. Stimulants
B. Depressant 32. To administer illegal drug means______________
C. Hallucinogens A. To introduce any dangerous drug into the body of any
D. Narcotics/Opiates person, with or without his/her knowledge
B. To use drug through injection
23. This is also known as the "Poor man's cocaine" C. To consume dangerous drugs through inhalation
A. Cocaine D. To introduce any illegal drugs into the body through
B. Marijuana snorting
C. Shabu
D. MDMA 33. Any person who knowingly and willfully consents to
the unlawful act involved in the illegal trafficking of
24. The fourth link of the drug chain that pertains to the dangerous drugs and uses his/her influence, power or
surreptitious movement and delivery of dangerous drugs position in shielding. Harboring, or screening or facilitating
in big amounts of cash. the escape of any person he/she knows.
A. Trafficking A. Pusher
B. Financing B. Coddler
C. Harvesting C. Financier
D. Production D. Protector

25. This obtained from and Indian hemp plant known as 34. It is anything that is used or intended to be used in
“Cannabis Sativa” a strong, hardy annual shrub, which any manner in the commission of illegal drug trafficking or
grows wild in most temperate and tropical regions, is: related offenses:
A. Marijuana A. Paraphernalia
B. Narcotics B. Equipment
C. Hashish C. Instrument
D. Opium D. Tool

26. This type of drugs is widely used in veterinary. 35. Drug addicts when under the influence of drugs are a
A. codeine menace to the community because they:
B. bath salts A. Are violently insane
C. ketamine B. Ruin their life/health
D. morphine C. Flagrantly immoral
D. Feel no restraint in committing crimes.
27. It is an analytical test using a device, tool or equipment
with a different chemical or physical principle that is more 36. This refers to terrorist acts carried out by groups
specific which will validate and confirm the result of the directly or indirectly involved in illicit drug trade and
screening test: manufacture:
A. Confirmatory test A. Narcofanatic
B. Preparatory test B. Narcoterrorism
C. Preliminary test C. Narcoterrorists
D. Drug screening D. Narcotics

28. Any person apprehended or arrested, who is found to 37. If a person devotes considerable time and effort in
be positive for the use of any dangerous drugs shall be obtaining the drug, thinking and discussing it and using it
liable under what section of the R.A. 9165 to meet his problems and to escape from reality, he is
A. Section 5 _________.
B. Section 15 A. Socially dependent on drugs
C. Section 11 B. mentally dependent on drugs
D. Section 18 C. Psychologically dependent on drugs
D. Physically dependent on drugs

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38. Addiction to drugs are caused by the following, except-
A. People have generally different motivations in life. The
young ones are very much adventurous and some of them
have strong attraction in drug-taking because these
“Space” belongs to them so to speak. Thus, the “IN” thing
these days are drugs. To see drug abusers around seemed
to be common sight;
B. Through association with peer groups with a different
outlook in life such as hippies, rebels etc.
C. Inexperienced doctors who might prescribe different
drugs.
D. Morally upright individuals.
39. OPLAN Tokhang, which in Visayan term means “Katok-
Hangyo” (knock and plead) is considered practical and
realistic means of accelerating the governments drive
against illegal drugs in the Philippines. What is its main
objective?
A. To execute all drug users, pushers, dealers, drug lords
and their protectors
B. To plead drug users to surrender and undergo
rehabilitation to avoid summary executions
C. To eliminate illegal drugs within the first six months
term of Pres. Duterte’s term
D. To make the Philippine a 100% drug-free country
40. A term used for any place used for the illegal
manufacture of any dangerous drugs.
A. Overt laboratory
B. Clandestine laboratory
C. Den
D. Resort
41. What are the symptoms of the use of amphetamines?
A. Sensation of distorted time, space, sound, color
B. False perceptions of objects and experiences
C. Excitement, alertness and wakefulness
D. Loss of appetite, anxiety and irritability
46. What drugs that produce sensations such as
distortions of time, space, sound, color and other bizarre
effects?
A. Opiates
B. Narcotics
C. Heroine
D. Hallucinogens
47. The investigative technique of allowing an unlawful or
suspect consignment of any dangerous drug and/or
controlled precursor and essential chemical, equipment or
paraphernalia, or property believed to be derived directly
or indirectly from any offense, to pass into, through or out
of the country under the supervision of an authorized
officer, with a view to gathering evidence to identify any
person involved in any dangerous drugs related offense,
or to facilitate prosecution of that offense.
A. Controlled Facility
B. Clandestine Laboratory
C. Controlled Delivery
D. Den, Dive or Resort
48. Any act of knowingly planting, growing, raising, or
permitting the planting, growing or raising of any plant
which is the source of a dangerous drug.
A. Cultivate
B. Culture
C. Cultivate or Culture
D. Cultivation and Control
49. Any act of injecting, intravenously or intramuscularly,
of consuming, either by chewing, smoking, sniffing,
eating, swallowing, drinking or otherwise introducing into
the physiological system of the body, and of the
dangerous drugs.
A. Administer
B. Use
C. Possession
D. Deliver

42. A place where any dangerous drug and/or controlled 50. Any act of knowingly passing a dangerous drug to
precursor and essential chemical is administered, another, personally or otherwise, and by any means, with
delivered, stored for illegal purposes, distributed, sold or or without consideration.
used in any form. A. Administer
A. Clandestine Laboratory B. Use
B. Drugstore C. Possession
C. Den, Dive, or Resort D. Deliver
D. Sari-sari Store
51. MDMA is most commonly known as?
43. The act known as the dangerous drugs act of 1972. A. Shabu
A. R.A. 9165 B. Date-rape Drug
B. R.A. 6425 C. Ecstasy
C. R.A. 7610 D. Pump Drug
D. E.O. 73
52. Who are most commonly liable for Unlawful
44. The alkaloids contained in the leaves of “erythroxylon Prescription of Dangerous Drugs?
coca” a hardy plant cultivated in Bolivia is: A. Physicians
A. Cocaine B. Lawyers
B. Coca Plant C. Caregivers
C. Codeine D. Nurses
D. none of the above
53. A certification of the forensic laboratory examination
45. Any person who pays for, raises or supplies money or results, which shall be done under oath by the forensic
underwrites any of the illegal activities prescribed under laboratory examiner, shall be issued within ______ after
R.A. 9165. the receipt of the subject item/s.
A. Coddler A. 15 hours
B. Cashier B. 24 hours
C. Protector C. 48 hours
D. Financier D. 72 hours

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54. When will the final certification be issued on the
completed forensic laboratory examination of the drug?
A. 15 hours
B. 24 hours
C. 48 hours
D. 72 hours
55. After the filing of the criminal case, the Court shall,
within ________, conduct an ocular inspection of the
confiscated, seized and/or surrendered dangerous drugs,
plant sources of dangerous drugs, and controlled
precursors and essential chemicals, including the
instruments/paraphernalia and/or laboratory equipment.
A. 15 hours
B. 24 hours
C. 48 hours
D. 72 hours
56. Any person convicted for drug trafficking or pushing
under this Act, regardless of the penalty imposed by the
Court, cannot avail of the privilege granted by the
Probation Law or Presidential Decree No. 968, as
amended. Is the statement true?
A. Yes
B. No
C. Incorrect
D. Yes, only if the court allows
57. Notwithstanding the provisions of any law to the
contrary, a positive finding for the use of dangerous drugs
shall be a _____________ in the commission of a crime
by an offender, and the application of the penalty provided
for in the Revised Penal Code shall be applicable.
A. Mitigating Circumstance
B. Aggravating Circumstance
C. Qualifying Aggravating Circumstance
D. Alternative Circumstance
58. Is the mere conspiracy to import any dangerous drug
and/or controlled precursor and essential chemical already
punishable by our law?
A. Yes
B. No
C. True
D. False
59. Any elective local or national official found to have
benefited from the proceeds of the trafficking of
dangerous drugs as prescribed in this Act, or have
received any financial or material contributions or
donations from natural or juridical persons found guilty of
trafficking dangerous drugs as prescribed in this Act, shall
be removed from office and _________ from holding any
elective or appointive positions in the government, its
divisions, subdivisions, and intermediaries, including
government-owned or –controlled corporations.
A. Temporarily disqualified
B. Perpetually disqualified
C. Forever not allowed
D. Banned
60. All applicants for firearm's license and permit to carry
firearms outside of residence shall undergo a
___________ to ensure that they are free from the use of
dangerous drugs.
A. Optional Drug Test
B. Random Drug Test
C. Mandatory Drug Test
D. Free Drug Test
Amici Review Center
61. Any person authorized, licensed or accredited under
RA 9165 and its implementing rules to conduct drug
examination or test, who issues false or fraudulent drug
test results knowingly, willfully or through gross
negligence, shall suffer the penalty of imprisonment of
_________.
A. (6) years and one (1) day to twelve (12) years
B. (12) years and one (1) day to twenty (20) years
C. (20) years and one day to forty (40) years
D. life
62. Who shall be tasked to license and accredit drug
testing centers in each province and city in order to assure
their capacity, competence, integrity and stability to
conduct the laboratory examinations and tests provided in
RA 9165?
A. DOLE
B. DDB
C. PDEA
D. DOH
63. The _______ shall develop, promote and implement a
national drug abuse prevention program in the workplace
to be adopted by private companies with ten (10) or more
employees.
A. DOLE
B. DDB
C. PDEA
D. DOH
64. The following are considered exemption from the
criminal liability under the Voluntary Submission Program
except one:
A. He/she has complied with the rules and regulations of
the center, the applicable rules and regulations of the
Board, including the after-care and follow-up program for
at least eighteen (18) months following temporary
discharge from confinement in the Center or, in the case
of a dependent placed under the care of the DOH-
accredited physician, the after-care program and follow-
up schedule formulated by the DSWD and approved by
the Board.
B. He/she has never been charged or convicted of any
offense punishable under any laws related to drugs
C. He/she has no record of escape from a Center:
Provided, that had he/she escaped, he/she surrendered
by himself/herself or through his/her parent, spouse,
guardian or relative within the fourth degree of
consanguinity or affinity, within two (2) weeks from the
date of the said escape;
D. He/she poses no danger to himself/herself, his/her
family or the community by his/her exemption from
criminal liability.
65. Which of the following country in the Middle East is
the biggest producer of cannabis sativa?
a. Lebanon
b. Iraq
c. Kuwait
d. Afghanistan
66. Who shall handle the prosecution of drug related
cases?
a. Public Attorney’s Office
b. Ombudsman
c. National Prosecution Service
d. Special Prosecutor designated by the DOJ
67. Which of the following is not untrue?
33 | P a g e
a. The DDB shall have the custody of all dangerous drugs to insufficient oxygenation of the blood caused by increase
confiscated in carbon dioxide in the body is called?
b. The DDB cause the filing of the appropriate civil action a. Asphyxia
for violation of RA 9165 while the PDEA takes care to b. Cyanosis
criminal aspects c. Hematoma
c. The DDB promulgates rules and regulations related to d. Petechial hemorrhage
drugs which are usually implemented by PDEA
d. The DDB is the implementing arm of the PDEA in the 77. where was the first raid of marijuana happened in the
enforcement of the prohibitory provisions of RA 9165 Philippines?
A. Malabon
68. Those that stimulate defecation and encourage B. Paranaque
bowel movement. C. Manila
A. Laxatives D. Pasay
B. Decongestant
C. Antihistamines 78. The principal alkaloid of opium constituting as much
D. Vitamins 20% of opium is _________.
A. Morphine
69. The major transshipment point for international drug B. Shabu
traffickers in Europe and known to be the “Paradise of C. Heroin
Drug Users” in this continent. D. Codeine
a. Portugal
b. Spain 79. Derived from the Greek word “Narkotikos”, meaning
c. Germany sleep, what is the other term given to narcotics?
d. Turkey A. Opium
B. Opiates
70. The Golden Triangle produces how many percent of C. Morphine
opium in the world? D. Heroin
a. 60%
b. 70% 80. Which of the following is not false?
c. 80% a. R.A. 9165 gives a single definition to dangerous drug
d. 90% b. R.A. 9165 did not remove the distinction between
regulated and prohibited drug
71. A law which integrated drug related curricula in c. R.A. 9165 defers dangerous drug to prohibited drug
tertiary level? d. R.A. 9165 defined regulated drug as dangerous drug
A.RA 7624
B.RA 953 81. White crystalline powder with very bitter numbIing
c. RA 9165 taste and said to be one of the strongest derivatives of
d. RA 6425 Opium poppy.
a. Morphine
72. Office that controls and regulates gambling. b. Heroin
A. PAGCOR c. Codeine
B. PCGG d. Cocaine
C. PACC
D. PCSO 82. The largest amount of a drug that will produce a
desired therapeutic effect, without any accompanying
73. What government agency is tapped to assist PDEA in symptoms of toxicity.
conducting anti-drug operations in jails, detention centers A. Minimal dose
and similar facilities? B. Maximal dose
A. DILG C. Toxic dose
B. BJMP D. Fatal dose
C. Bureau of Immigration
D. BUCOR 83. It refers to the individual reaction to a drug, food, etc.
for unexplained reasons.
74. Among the group of hallucinogen drugs, which of them A. Idiosyncrasy
is considered the most potent? B. Allergy
a. Demerol C. Side Effects
b. DMT D. Overdose
c. LSD
d. STP 84. Type of administering drugs through injection wherein
the syringe is pressed directly on the prominent veins of
75. One who uses drug to keep wakefulness or additional the body.
energy in performing an important work is a: A. Intramuscular
a. Habitual drug user B. Intraosseous
b. Situational drug abuser C. Intravenous
c. Spree user D. Intradermal
d. None of these
85. Chinese Emperor who prohibited the trading of opium
76. The body sign in dangerous drug death investigation in China by the British Indies that lead to the
of bluish discoloration of the face and or fingernails due Opium War of 1840.
a. Lao Tzu

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b. Sun Tzu
c. Yung Chen 95. What is the state arising from the repeated
d. Ma Huang administration of a drug on a periodic or on a continuing
basis?
86. Known as the “Father of Medicine”. A. Habituation
a. Hippocrates B. Drug dependence
b. Morpheus C. Drug addiction
c. Confucius D. Physical dependence
d. Socrates
96. The PDEA is headed by a Director General w/ a rank
87. A laboratory examination is only required to of Undersecretary, assisted by two Deputies and
apprehended offender within 24 hours if the person is appointed by:
arrested has: a. DILG Secretary
a. Visible manifestation that suspect was under the b. President
influence of drugs c. Commission on Appointment
b. Physical sign of drug abuse d. Dangerous Drug Board
c. Symptoms of Drug abuse
d. All of the above 97. The term of office of the Chairman of the Dangerous
Drug Board:
88. In the Philippines, what is referred to as the “Green A. 2 years
Triangle Area”? B. 6 years
a. Mindoro- Palawan- Masbate C. 4 years
b. Benguet- Kalinga Apayao- Mt Province D. co-terminus
c. Ilocos Sur- Benguet- Mt Province
d. Zamboanga- Cotabato- Davao 98. Comprehensive Dangerous Drug Act took effect on:
a. June 7, 2002
89. First Important Drug Traffic Route which conducted b. July 30, 2002
Marketing and sales distribution. c. July 4, 2002
A. Middle East d. June 18, 2003
B. Turkey
C. Europe 99 . A method of therapy on alcoholism that is based on
D. USA conversion and fellowship is called?
A. Aversion Method
90. The Summerians called it “Hul Gil” which means, B. Program of Alcoholic Anonymous
“plant of joy” due to its jouful effect when administered. C. Psychotherapy method
A. Opium D. None of the above
B. MJ
C. Peyote 100. It shall be the institution responsible in the
D. Psilocybin recruitment and training of all PDEA agents and personnel.
A. PDEA Academy
91. Intoxication, when considered under the law is B. NCRTC
considered: C. Phil. Public Safety College
A. Alternative Circumstance D. NBI Academy
B. Exempting circumstance
C. Qualifying Aggravating CDI 7 AND 8- TECHNICAL ENGLISH 1 AND 2 (LEGAL
D. Aggravating Circumstance FORMS AND INVESTIGATIVE REPORT WRITING)

92. The drug outlook in the ASEAN Countries, in what

country responsible for the Area of Research as a part of 1. Specific form of writing organized around concisely
Asian Anti Narcotic Work conducted? identifying and examining issues, events, or findings that
A. Thailand have happened in a physical sense.
B. PH A. Report
C. Malaysia B. Police Report
D. Singapore C. Investigation Report
D. Progress Report
93. Dodong is a drug addict. Realizing that drug use will
bring him elsewhere he ceased from using it. Dodong’s act 2. Detailed account of an event, situation, etc. usually
is called: based on observation or inquiry.
a. Abstinence A. Report
b. Rehabilitation B. Police Report
c. Self-medication C. Investigation Report
d. Dependence D. Progress Report

94. Is the hallucinogenic alkaloid from a small Mexican 3. It is a natural and necessary part of the very job of an
mushroom used by Mexican Indians to induce nausea and investigator.
muscular relaxation. A. Report Writing
a. Psilocybin B. Police Report
b. STP C. Investigation Report
c. Marijuana D. Progress Report
d. Phencyclidine

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4. Internal Memorandum is an example of informal report. 13. When irrelevant materials are omitted in a police
This statement is _____. report, it observes ________.
A. True A. Complexity
B. False B. Brevity
C. Yes C. Completeness
D. No D. Accuracy

5. What type of report is often written as a matter of 14. Documentation made by a police officer or law
routine duty and the writer is given little or no advance enforcement personnel which includes the important
notice? details and events about an incident.
A. Analytical Report A. Police Investigation Report
B. Informational Report B. Police Report
C. Short Report C. Police Investigative Documentation
D. Long Report D. Police Crime Report

6. This type or report focuses on the major study of an in- 15. The following are the uses of Police Report except one:
depth problem and may take weeks or months to write. A. Identification of Criminals
A. Analytical Report B. Investigative Record
B. Informational Report C. Court Preparation
C. Short Report D. Criminal Liability Assessment
D. Long Report
16. Police Reports must be complete and eliminates
7. Provide facts, data, feedback and other types of vagueness, therefore, it must consist of the following
information, and also provide analysis, interpretation and except one:
recommendations A. Identification of Involved Parties
A. Analytical Report B. Victim/ Witness/ Suspect Statements
B. Informational Report C. Complete Names of Party’s Neighbors
C. Short Report D. Property Information
D. Long Report
17. Most police reports are basic or informal reports. This
8. Type of report that provide facts, data, feedback and statement is:
other types of info to assist management to make A. True
decisions. An example of this is Police Accident Report. B. False
A. Analytical Report C. Sometimes True
B. Informational Report D. Extremely inaccurate
C. Short Report
D. Long Report 18. As to its purpose, the _______ contains information
as to the status of an activity, activities or operations.
9. What is a document prepared to describe how one A. Performance report
organization can meet the needs of another? B. Fact-finding report
A. Invitation C. Technical report
B. Report D. Problem-determining report
C. Proposal
D. Memorandum 19. This type of report involves the gathering and
presentation of data in logical order, without an attempt
10. PMaj Rafael Cruz submitted a report of his recently to draw conclusions.
conducted Postmortem Examination to his colleagues in A. Performance report
Crime Laboratory for them to have a glance of his findings B. Fact-finding report
and coordinate with them. What type of report did he C. Technical report
make? D. Problem-determining report
A. Vertical Report
B. Lateral Report 20. An autopsy report is what type of report?
C. Office Report A. Performance report
D. Proposal Report B. Fact-finding report
C. Technical report
11. An annual gross sales report submitted by D. Problem-determining report
Metropolitan Shoe Company to the BIR for the purpose of
tax calculation is what type of report? 21. Operational Reports include those relating to the
A. Internal Report reporting of police incidents. investigation, arrests,
B. External Report identification of persons, and a mass of miscellaneous
C. Business Report reports necessary to the conduct of _____ police
D. Appraisal Report operations.
A. Specialized
12. In a police investigation report, the 5Ws and 1H were B. Routine
answered. What requisite is being complied? C. Weekly
A. Complexity D. Scheduled
B. Brevity
C. Completeness 22. _________ relate to the reporting necessary to the
D. Accuracy management of the agency and include financial reports,
personnel reports, purchase reports, equipment reports,

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property maintenance reports, and general D. Police Blotter
correspondence.
A. Operational Reports 31. Contains daily registry of crime incident reports
B. Business Reports involving Violence against Women and Children,
C. External Reports Trafficking in Person, and other gender-based Violence.
D. Internal Business Reports A. Blue Blotter
B. Pink Blotter
23. What is a type of police report that shows accounting C. Police Blotter
of the actions or series of actions undertaken in relation D. IRF
to an ongoing investigation of a case?
A. Spot Report 32. It contains daily registry of crime incident reports,
B. Investigation Report official summaries of arrest, and other significant events
C. Progress Report reported in a police station/unit.
D. After-operation Report A. Blue Blotter
B. Pink Blotter
24. This document details the findings of an investigation C. Police Blotter
as soon as a formal complaint is filed. This is where D. IRF
investigators record the issues of the matter, analyze the
evidence and formulate conclusion. 33. It is a victim’s statement regarding a crime.
A. Spot Report A. Incident Report
B. Investigation Report B. Incident Record Form
C. Progress Report C. Complaint-affidavit
D. After-operation Report D. Deposition of Witness

25. An immediate initial investigative or incident report 34. It is a form to be filled out by the complainant/victim.
addressed to HHQ pertaining to the commission of a Once it is signed and acknowledged by the Desk Officer
crime, occurrence of natural or man-made disaster or and the Chief of Police, or his representative, the data that
unusual incidents involving loss of lives and damage to were provided by the complainant or client in the IRF shall
properties. be entered in the Police Blotter Book.
A. Spot Report A. Incident Report
B. Investigation Report B. Incident Record Form
C. Progress Report C. Complaint-affidavit
D. After-operation Report D. Deposition of Witness

26. this type of report is done after every accomplished 35. Where should the filing out of form be done when the
activity of an organization. This shows what activities went subject for complaint is confidential?
well and its corresponding documentation. A. In a private room
A. Accomplishment Report B. In the WCPD section
B. Situation Report C. away from kibitzers
C. Special Report D. In the office of the Chief of Police
D. Progress Report
36. After the form is authenticated, what will serve as a
27. A form of status reporting that provides decision- proof or receipt of the transaction?
makers and readers a quick understanding of the current A. Receipt of payment to the municipal treasurer
situation. B. Lower portion of the IRF cut after the transaction
A. Accomplishment Report C. Valid ID shown by the client
B. Situation Report D. Entry in the police log book
C. Special Report
D. Progress Report 37. What is the term used to an authorized source of
28. This is prepared on the basis of some inquiry or written communication sent from higher offices to
investigation either by a single individual or by a body or subordinates?
a committee. In many cases, this is confidential and A. Police issuance
contains facts, information and recommendation. B. Issuance
A. Accomplishment Report C. Reports
B. Situation Report D. Directives
C. Special Report
D. Progress Report 38. It is a common practice in PNP and an informal letter
about matters to be remembered or a brief written outline
29. What is the dimensional size of a Police Blotter? of the terms of transactions in legal matters.
A. 12 x 18 inches A. Memorandum Circular
B. 16 x 18 inches B. Memorandum
C. 10 x 18 inches C. Circular
D. 12 x 16 inches D. Order

30. ________ is a record of daily events occurring within 39. Prescribes policies, rules and regulations and
the territory/jurisdiction of a given police unit or procedures promulgated pursuant to law, applicable to
command. individuals and organizations outside the government,
A. Incident Record Form essentially a letter containing some important information
B. Police Report that is distributed to a large number of people and
C. Arrest Report

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contains instructions which are directive but are
temporary in duration. 48. Order type intended to give instructions in the form of
A. Memorandum Circular a letter to the concerned persons through proper channels
B. Memorandum such as Annual Physical Examination, Combat Duty Pay,
C. Circular Detailed Abroad, Hazard Pay, and Seminar/ Training
D. Order A. Special Order
B. General Order
40. Contains administrative instructions which are C. Letter Order
directory, advisory or informative in nature and requiring D. Daily Bulletin
compliance of both PNP and Public.
A. General Circular 49. In a contract, who establish the terms and conditions
B. Memorandum of the stipulations written?
C. Circular A. The one who proposed the agreement
D. Order B. The contracting parties
C. The judge
41. Requires compliance by or informing majority or all D. The notary public
personnel in a particular PNP Directorate or office, not to
those in a field. 50. Meeting of minds between two persons whereby one
A. General Circular binds himself with respect to the other.
B. Non-field Circular A. Legal Forms
C. Office Circular B. Contract
D. Command Memorandum Circular C. Affidavit
D. Notarial Document
42. This type of issuance may be issued by Command
Group, D-staff, NSU, and approved only by C-PNP. 51. Binding written documents that serve as means for
A. General Circular putting into effect legal proceedings, court orders and
B. Non-field Circular notices.
C. Office Circular A. Legal Forms
D. Command Memorandum Circular B. Contract
C. Affidavit
43. These are issued for the purpose of providing D. Notarial Document
policies/guidelines and specific details of certain rules and
regulations to be observed by PNP Personnel, has 52. The following are the elements of a valid contract
continuing effect until rescinded or amended. except one:
A. General Circular A. Consent of Contracting Parties
B. PNP-MC B. Object that is subject matter of the contract
C. CMC C. Physical presence of the document with the terms
D. Orders D. Cause of Obligation which is established.

44. Refers to issuances directed to a particular office, 53. _________ is a public official whose duty is to attest
officials, or employees concerning matters on the genuineness of any deed or writing.
assignments, details and transfer of personnel, for A. Lawyer
compliance by all concerned. B. Judge
A. General Circular C. Prosecutor
B. PNP-MC D. Notary
C. CMC
D. Orders 54. Written instrument existing between the buyer and
seller stating the purchase price agreed and date of
45. These are used to promulgate directives affecting the transfer.
status of PNP personnel such as Commutation of A. Deed
Accumulated Leave, Confinement, Fine, Restrictive B. Contract
Custody and Termination. C. Conveyance
A. Special Order D. Affidavit
B. General Order
C. Letter Order 55. It grants its holder the ownership of a piece of real
D. Daily Bulletin estate or other assets, such as an automobile.
A. Deed
46. Includes publication of announcement from the PNP B. Contract
and other government agencies. C. Conveyance
A. Special Order D. Affidavit
B. General Order
C. Letter Order 56. Deed transfers the ______ of an asset to new owner.
D. Daily Bulletin A. Property rights
B. Title
47. Which of the following is not an example of General C. Tax responsibilities
order? D. Payment receipt
A. Awards
B. Change in Appointment Status 57. Conveyance transfer an assignment of any ________
C. Resignation or interest from one person or entity to another.
D. Demotion A. Property rights

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B. Title A. Search Warrant Application Form
C. Tax responsibilities B. Application for Search Warrant
D. Payment receipt C. Search Warrant Form
D. Compliance of Search Warrant
58. What do you call a person making the sworn
statement? 68. It is a witness’ sworn out-of-court testimony. Used to
A. Affiance gather information as part of the discovery process and,
B. Affiant in limited circumstances, may be used in trial.
C. Affidaviter A. Deposition of Witness
D. Affidavitist B. Counter-affidavit
C. Rejoinder Affidavit
59. A part of affidavit in which the officer certifies that the D. Complaint-Affidavit
instrument was sworn to before him.
A. Jurat 69. Written, out-of-court statement taken before a notary
B. Acknowledgement public or any person authorized to administer an oath.
C. Subscription portion A. Extrajudicial Affidavit
D. Signatory B. Judicial Affidavit
C. Affidavit
60. An act of one who has executed a deed, in going D. Written Testimony
before some competent officer or court and declaring it to
be his act or deed. 70. What is the effect of filing of Affidavit of Desistance?
A. Jurat A. It will automatically dismiss the case
B. Acknowledgement B. The case will still proceed, it’s up to the judge whether
C. Subscription portion he will dismiss the case later
D. Signatory C. The judge will consult the SC before dismissing the case
D. The judge will suspend the sentence
61. What is the most common use of Affidavit of Death?
A. For free interment benefits 71. Filed by respondent in reply to a petition. It responds
B. For last will and testament to and contradicting the affidavit produced by an
C. To claim insurance adversary and tends to oppose an affidavit already made.
D. For postmortem examination A. Reply Affidavit
B. Counter-affidavit
62. Document declaring the loss of a security through C. Rejoinder Affidavit
theft or destruction. D. Complaint-Affidavit
A. Affidavit of Lost
B. Affidavit of Death 72. Its purpose is simply to rebut or answer matter raised
C. Affidavit of Birth for the first time in the affidavits to which the replies are
D. Affidavit of Loss made.
A. Reply Affidavit
63. What is the most common use of Affidavit of Birth? B. Counter-affidavit
A. To prove bloodline and genes C. Rejoinder Affidavit
B. To prove whether the child is Filipino or not D. Complaint-Affidavit
C. To prove citizenship
D. To be used for passport requirements 73. Response by the petitioner to the counter affidavit filed
by the respondent and includes response to the response
64. Part of chattel mortgage contract to secure that to the new facts raised through the affidavit filed by the
obligation is not meant for fraud or ill purpose. respondent.
A. Affidavit of Good Faith A. Reply Affidavit
B. Affidavit of Undertaking B. Counter-affidavit
C. Affidavit of Loss C. Rejoinder Affidavit
D. Affidavit of two disinterested persons D. Complaint-Affidavit

65. A type of judicial affidavit voluntary executed in order 74. Sworn statement prepared by someone who wishes to
to attest to the truthfulness of the foregoing narration of file a legal complaint.
facts and undertaking. A. Reply Affidavit
A. Affidavit of Good Faith B. Counter-affidavit
B. Affidavit of Undertaking C. Rejoinder Affidavit
C. Affidavit of Loss D. Complaint-Affidavit
D. Affidavit of two disinterested persons
75. The witness writes out the facts about which she has
66. Contains the sworn statements of two persons knowledge that are relevant to the case, signing the
clarifying discrepancies in a person’s name. document and swearing under penalty of perjury that it is
A. Affidavit of Good Faith true.
B. Affidavit of Undertaking A. Affidavit of Witness
C. Affidavit of Loss B. Deposition of Witness
D. Affidavit of two disinterested persons C. Witness Statement
D. Judicial Testimony of Witness
67. What document is needed to be filled out in order for
the judge to examine whether there is a probable cause
to issue a search warrant?

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76. Once an application/petition to wiretap is approved, B. Case Records
how many days are given to the authorities to conduct the C. Fingerprint Records
wiretapping without being liable for violation of RA 4200? D. Mugshot Files
A. 90 days
B. 180 days 85. Function of administrative management business
C. 60 days operations and education-concerned with the creation,
D. 30 days protection, retention, retrieval, preservation, of records
and records information required for the continuance of
77. The ________ is one of the basic piece equipment government, business and industry operations at cost
which a number of policemen nowadays fail to appreciate consistence with services involved.
and utilize. A. Records Administration
A. Handgun B. Records Management
B. Notebook C. Records and Filing System
C. Baton D. Filing System
D. Helmet
86. Primary means of communications among members of
78. What should be the style of Criminal Investigation the police department and the integration of various units
Reports? of the organization for accomplishing the police task and
A. All reports are written in such a manner that it clearly goals is called as ____________.
presents only the relevant facts. A. Police Records
B. Reports must contain opinion from the writer B. Police Filing System
C. It must be properly handwritten C. Reporting System
D. Relevant factors must be omitted D. Superiority Complex

79. Reflects all information regarding complaints and 87. This report shall serve as information on persons who
reports received by the police from citizens, and other are wanted by the police shall be flashed by means of the
agencies or actions initiated by the police. "notice" Wanted Persons.
A. Complaint Sheet A. Wanted Reports
B. Blotter book B. Missing Persons Report
C. Complaint Assignment Sheet C. Warrant of Arrest
D. IRF D. Wanted Persons Report

80. This record maintains the arrest and jail booking 88. The officer who makes the search and removes the
report, which is required for all persons arrested. It is property shall itemize it completely in the presence of
made out in full on each person arrested. It shall bear an another officer must also see that the property is sealed
arrest number for each arrest made. in an envelope, which bears the prisoner's name, the
A. Case Records property receipt number and the data. He will then provide
B. Arrest and Booking Records what type of document for the booked detainee?
C. Identification Records A. Prisoner’s Property Receipt
D. Administrative Records B. Receipt and Custody of Property
C. Detainee’s Log sheet
81. It is considered as the heart of any identification D. Booking Record
system.
A. DNA Files 89. A logbook that contains the daily registry of all crime
B. Case Records incident reports, official summaries of arrests, and other
C. Fingerprint Records significant events reported in a police station. (PNP Manual
D. Mugshot Files revised 2010)
a. Manual
82. Provides positive identification and the police must b. Police Blotter
supplement it with a record of physical characteristics and c. Record
in some cases a photograph of the criminal. d. Reports
A. Case Records
B. Arrest and Booking Records 90. When an incident happens, this report must be made
C. Identification Records within twenty-four hours.
D. Administrative Records a. Crime report
b. Situation report
83. Records required in the management of the c. Spot report
department's personnel and designed to aid in d. Wanted Person report
assignments, promotion and disciplinary action. Such
records are so essential in administering personnel 91. Police officer Juan arrested a suspect. What should
matters that they must be maintained in a police he make to document all the events in arresting a suspect?
department. a. Situation report
A. Case Records b. Wanted person report
B. Arrest and Booking Records c. Spot report
C. Identification Records d. Arrest report
D. Administrative Records
92. Traffic Officer Gerry responded to a non-fatal vehicular
84. It is the heart of any police records system. accident. What report shall be made?
a. Arrest report
A. DNA Files b. Traffic Accident report

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c. Situation report 1. Typically defined as the protection of confidentiality,
d. Accident report integrity and availability of computer data and systems in
order to enhance security, resilience, reliability and trust
93. This is the message of the memorandum. it is double- in ICT.
spaced when the message is less that nine lines. a. Cyber crime
a. Subject b. Cyber security
b. Date c. Computer crime
c. Body
d. Complimentary ending 2. Offenses committed against computer data, computer
data storage media, computer systems, service providers.
94. Qualities of a Good report, except: a. Cyber crime
a. Fairness b. Cyber security
b. Brevity c. Computer crime
c. Clarity d. Computer security
d. None of the above
3. Is an organized way of using all of the laws in our legal
95. Ricky is a wanted person. In order for the public to system to minimize, prevent, punish, or remedy the
know that he is wanted, what report shall be made by the consequences of actions which damage or threaten the
police? environment, public health and safety.
a. Beat inspection report a. Environmental crimes.
b. Situation report b. Environmental Law System
c. Special Report c. Environmental law
d. Wanted Person report d. All of the above

96. This is the first step of writing the investigation report 4. Is the process of methodically examining computer
where the investigator determines his purposes and media for evidence.
objectives in writing the report. He the gathers the facts a. Computer science
and circumstances related to the case. b. Computer information
a. Initial preparation c. Computer forensics
b. Final organization of the collected data d. All of the above
c. Preparation of the first draft
d. Rewriting and polishing the report 5. _______ are individuals or teams of people who use
technology to commit malicious activities on digital
97. This part is the coherent presentation of all the systems or networks with the intention of stealing
important facts supported by evidences involving the sensitive company information or personal data, and
whole investigation. generating profit.
a. Matters investigated A. Service Providers
b. Facts of the case B. Cyber
c. Discussion C. Criminals
d. Conclusion D. Cybercriminals

98. These are written reports about police incidents, 6. Computer viruses is the gaining of unauthorized access
investigations, arrests, identification of persons, and other to data in a system or computer.
miscellaneous reports for routine operations of police A. true
organization. B. false
a. Technical reports C. yes
b. Summary reports D. no
c. Internal business reports
d. Operational reports 7. It is the access to the whole or any part of a computer
system without right.
99. Having this in writing is having or exhibiting a A. Illegal Interception
disposition that is free of favoritism, bias, impartiality, self- B. Illegal Access
interest, or preference in judgment. C. Data Interference
a. Exactness D. System Interference
b. Subjective
c. Elimination 8. It is the willful engagement, maintenance, control, or
d. Fairness operation, directly or indirectly, of any lascivious exhibition
of sexual organs or sexual activity, with the aid of a
100. It refers to having all the necessary normal part, computer system, for favor or consideration.
components, and style of writing in its entirety. In writing A. Hacking
a report the elements of the crime should established and B. Libel
the additional facts should prove those elements. C. Child Pornography
a. completeness D. Cybersex
b. accuracy
c. clarity 9. It is the intentional or reckless alteration, damaging,
d. brevity deletion or deterioration of computer data, electronic
document, or electronic data message, without right,
CDI 9- INTRODUCTION TO CYBERCRIME AND including the introduction or transmission of viruses.
ENVIRONMENTAL LAWS A. Illegal Interception
B. Illegal Access

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C. Data Interference 18. _____ is an email that appears to originate from one
D. System Interference source but actually has been sent from another source.
a. Email spoofing
10. It is the interception made by technical means without b. Worms
right of any non-public transmission of computer data to, c. Email bombing
from, or within a computer system including d. Phishing
electromagnetic emissions from a computer system
carrying such computer data. 19. The first Filipino to be convicted of cybercrime,
A. Illegal Interception particularly hacking.
B. Illegal Access a. JJ Helterbrand
C. Data Interference b. JJ Maria Osawa
D. System Interference c. JJ Maria Clara
d. JJ Maria Giner
11. It is the intentional alteration or reckless hindering or
interference with the functioning of a computer or 20. It is the unlawful or prohibited acts as defined in Article
computer network by inputting, transmitting, damaging, 355 of the Revised Penal Code, as amended, committed
deleting, deteriorating, altering or suppressing computer through a computer system or any other similar means
data or program, electronic document, or electronic data which may be devised in the future.
message, without right or authority, including the A. Cybersex
introduction or transmission of viruses. B. Unsolicited Commercial Communications
A. Illegal Interception C. Child Pornography
B. Illegal Access D. none of the above
C. Data Interference
D. System Interference 21. The first use of computer.
a. Entertainment
12. Refers to an electronic, magnetic, optical, b. Computation
electrochemical, or other data processing or c. Communication
communications device, or grouping of such devices, d. Gaming
capable of performing logical, arithmetic, routing or
storage functions. 22. Cutting, Gathering and/or Collecting Timber, or Other
a. Technology Forest Products without license is a criminal offense.
b. Computer A. true
c. Electronics B. false
d. Nota C. yes
D. no
13. _______ is the gaining of unauthorized access to data
in a system or computer. 23. It is the unauthorized input, alteration, or deletion of
A. Wire fraud computer data or program or interference in the
B. ATM fraud functioning of a computer system, causing damage
C. Internet Fraud thereby with fraudulent intent.
D. Hacking A. Computer-related Forgery
B. Computer-related Fraud
14. This refers to the virtual computer world, and more C. Computer-related Identity Theft
specifically, an electronic medium that is used to facilitate D. none of the above
online communication.
A. internet 24. It is the input, alteration, or deletion of any computer
B. face book data without right resulting in inauthentic data with the
C. cyberspace intent that it be considered or acted upon for legal
D. none of the above purposes as if it were authentic, regardless whether or not
the data is directly readable and intelligible.
15. Birth of Philippine Internet A. Computer-related Forgery
a. 1960 B. Computer-related Fraud
b. 1993 C. Computer-related Identity Theft
c. 2011 D. none of the above
d. 1996
25. It became the first national park in the Philippines
16. It is an unlawful or prohibited acts defined and established on June 27,1933 following the National Parks
punishable by Republic Act No. 9775. Act no. 3195.
A. Cybersex a. Mt. Makiling
B. Unsolicited Commercial Communications b. Mt. Arayat
C. Child Pornography c. Mt. Apo
D. none of the above d. Mt. Everest

17. In 2011, the Philippines is named with a percentage
of 93.9 users for Facebook alone.
a. Cyber-networking Capital of the World
b. Social Networking Capital of the World
c. Networking Capital of the World
d. Nota
26. Are relatively large areas not materially altered by
human activity where extractive resource uses are not
allowed and maintained to protect outstanding natural and
scenic areas of national or international significance for
scientific, educational and recreational use.
a. Natural Parks
b. National Parks

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c. People’s park d. Kawil
d. Linkin Park
35. Refers to the shifting and/or permanent slash-and-
27. Refers to forest reservations essentially of natural burn cultivation of forest land having little or no provision
wilderness character which have been withdrawn from to prevent soil erosion.
settlement, occupancy or any form of exploitation except a. Kaingin
in conformity with approved management plan and set b. Kainin
aside as such exclusively to conserve the area or preserve c. Kaigin
the scenery, the natural and historic objects, wild animals d. Deforestation
and plants therein and to provide enjoyment of these
features in such areas. 36. Those gases that can potentially or can reasonably be
a. Natural Parks expected to induce global warming, which includes carbon
b. National Parks dioxide, methane, oxides of nitrogen, chlorofluorocarbons,
c. People’s park and the like.
d. Rizal Park a. Green Gases
b. Greenhouse Gases
28. It is the intentional acquisition, use, misuse, transfer, c. House gases
possession, alteration or deletion of identifying d. House green gases
information belonging to another, whether natural or
juridical, without right. 37. Means the ecological community considered together
A. Computer-related Forgery with non-living factors and its environment as a unit.
B. Computer-related Fraud a. Ecology
C. Computer-related Identity Theft b. Solar system
D. none of the above c. Ecosystem
d. Environment
29. The largest country in Latin America and South
America and the fifth largest country in the world. Due to 38. It is a published false statement that is damaging to a
this vastness, there are different types of ecosystems, person's reputation.
which prevail all over the country. A. Hacking
a. Mexico B. Libel
b. Brazil C. Child Pornography
c. Canada D. Cybersex
d. UK
39. I This republic act is also known as the toxic
30. Is considered to be the world’s largest rainforest with substances and hazardous waste act.
biggest biological diversity. A. R.A. NO. 6967
a. Nile B. R.A. NO. 6968
b. Amazon C. R.A. NO. 6969
c. Europe D. R.A. NO. 6970
d. Brazil
40. Is the misuse and also the pollution of water supplies.
31. ______ can be defined as a subcategory of online Often, individuals throughout the world have to deal with
sexual activity where Internet is used for sexually either limited water supplies, or polluted water, often
gratifying activities. causes by human actions, except one:
A. Cybersex a. Water contamination
B. Unsolicited Commercial Communications b. Water degradation
C. Child Pornography c. Water pollution
D. none of the above d. Water preservation

32. Spamming is also known as? 41. Generally refers to the variety and variability of Life on
A. Cybersex Earth, and is represented by the number of different
B. Unsolicited Commercial Communications species there are on the planet.
C. Child Pornography a. Biodiversity
D. none of the above b. Biodiversification
c. Bioeconomy
33. Is a practice of protecting the natural environment on d. Biology
individual, organization controlled or governmental levels,
for the benefit of both the environment and humans. 42. RA 9275 is also known as Clean Water Act of 2004.
a. Environmental preservation What are the two bodies of water according to this act?
b. Environmental protection 1. Rainwater
c. Environmental conservation 2. Surface Water
d. Environmental coordination 3. Ground water
4. Salt water
34. Fishing method that requires diving and other physical
or mechanical acts to pound the coral reefs and other a. 1 and 2
habitat to entrap, gather or catch fish and other fishery b. 2 and 3
species. c. 3 and 4
a. Scuba diving d. 1 and 4
b. Muro-Ami
c. Dynamite Fishing

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43. The construction of any establishment within _____ c. Cyber organized crime
from any open dumps or sanitary landfill is prohibited d. Cyber organized criminals.
under RA 9003.
52. False or misleading promises of love and
a. 100 meters companionship designed to scam individuals out of their
b. 200 meters time, money and/or other items.
c. 300 meters a. Catfishing
d. 400 meters b. Censorship
c. Botherder
44. Tools and techniques used to obfuscate cybercrime d. Extortion
investigation and digital forensics efforts.
a. Anti- forensics 53. The use of information and communication technology
b. Anti-digital forensics to intentionally humiliate, annoy, attack, threaten, alarm,
c. Antimalware or Antivirus offend and/or verbally abuse an individual
d. Both a and b a. Cyberbullying
b. Cyberharassment
45. It is also considered as unauthorized access. c. Cyberstalking
A. Illegal Interception d. Cyberterrorism
B. Illegal Access
C. Data Interference 54. The use of information and communication technology
D. System Interference by children to annoy, humiliate, insult, offend, harass,
alarm, stalk, abuse or otherwise attack another child or
46. The prohibition of information, visual depictions, and children.
written or oral communications that are prohibited by law a. Cyberbullying
and/or their suppression by a government, community or b. Cyberharassment
group because they are unlawful and/or viewed as c. Cyberstalking
harmful, unpopular, undesirable, or politically incorrect. d. Cyberterrorism
a. Catfishing
b. Censorship 55. The cyber-dependent crimes perpetrated against
c. Botherder critical infrastructure to cause some form of harm and to
d. Buffer provoke fear in the target population.
a. Cyberbullying
47. When a computer becomes the weapon in committing b. Cyberharassment
cybercrime, any data might be affected. Which of the c. Cyberstalking
following is not a means of committing a crime using d. Cyberterrorism
computer as a weapon?
a. Cyber terrorism 56. The use of information and communication technology
b. Credit card fraud to commit a series of acts over a period of time designed
c. Cyberpornography to harass, annoy, attack, threaten, frighten, and/or
d. Virus attack verbally abuse an individual
a. Cyberbullying
48. refers to a computer or a computer network, the b. Cyberharassment
electronic medium in which online communication takes c. Cyberstalking
place; d. Cyberterrorism
a. Cyber
b. website 57. Cyber acts that compromise and disrupt critical
c. internet infrastructure systems, which amount to an armed attack.
d. electronics a. Cyberbullying.
b. Cyberharassment.
49. All but one is a term used to denote cybercrime. c. Cyberstalking.
a. Technological Crime d. Cyberattack
b. Biological Crime
c. High-tech Crime 58. The part of the World Wide Web, which is known for
d. Digital Crime its obscure and hidden websites that host illicit activities,
goods, and services, and can only be accessed using
50. Budapest convention in 2001 defined 4 categories of specialized software.
cybercrime. One of which is “Offenses against the a. Deep web
confidentiality, integrity and availability of computer data b. Illicit web
and systems.” Which of the following is an example of CIA c. Underground web
offense? d. Dark web
a. Illegal Interception
b. Intellectual Property Crime 59. The part of the World Wide Web that is not indexed
c. Child Pornography by search engines and is not easily accessible and/or
d. Computer-related forgery available to the public.
a. Deep web
51. A term used to describe a continuing criminal b. Illicit web
enterprise that rationally works to profit from illicit c. Underground web
activities that are in demand online. d. Dark web
a. Cyber-dependent crime.
b. Cyber-enabled crimes.

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60. It became the Landmark and placed the country on 69. Phishing via text messaging. Also known as SMS
the global cyber-map and pushed congress to pass the phishing.
first “cybercrime law. a. Sextortion
a. I don’t love you virus b. Smishing
b. Love is virus c. Sexting
c. She loves you virus d. Spam
d. I love you virus
70. A form of cyber harassment whereby the victim is
61. A cybercrime that interferes with systems by threatened with the release of sexually explicit content if
overwhelming servers with requests to prevent legitimate the demands of the perpetrator are not met. Situational
traffic from accessing a site and/or using a system. crime prevention. Measures used to prevent and reduce
a. Dogpiling crime.
b. DoS attack a. Sextortion
c. Doxware b. Smishing
d. Disinhibition c. Sexting
d. Spam
62. A form of crypto-ransomware that perpetrators use
against victims that releases the user’s data if ransom is 71. Sending of unsolicited emails.
not paid to decrypt the files and data. a. Sextortion
a. Dogpiling b. Smishing
b. DoS attack c. Sexting
c. Doxware d. Spamming
d. Disinhibition
72. Malware designed to surreptitiously monitor infected
63. The process whereby an individual demonstrates a systems and collect and relay information back to creator
lack of social restraint with regards to online behavior. and/or user of the spyware.
a. Dogpiling a. Spearphishing
b. DoS attack b. Spyware
c. Doxware c. Stalkerware
d. Disinhibition d. Swappers

64. The sending of an email to targets with a website link 73. The sending of emails with infected attachments or
for users to click on, which might either download links that are designed to dupe the receiver into clicking
malware onto the users’ digital devices or sends users to on the attachments or links.
a malicious website that is designed to steal users’ a. Spearphishing
credentials. b. Spyware
a. Pharming c. Stalkerware
b. Phishing d. Swappers
c. Hacking
d. Cracking 74. A form of spyware that can run on a victim’s computer,
smartphone or other Internet-enabled digital device and
65. The creation of a fake, duplicate website that is collect and relay all the user’s actions on these devices,
designed to trick users to input their login credentials. from emails and text messages sent and received, to
a. Pharming photographs taken and keystrokes.
b. Phishing a. Spearphishing
c. Hacking b. Spyware
d. Cracking c. Stalkerware
d. Swappers
66. An intermediary server that is used to connect a client
with a server that the client is requesting resources from. 75. Semi-automated cryptocurrency exchanges.
a. Ransomware a. Spearphishing
b. Xc6 b. Spyware
c. Both a and b c. Stalkerware
d. Malware d. Swappers

67. Malware designed to take users’ system, files, and/or 76. Malware that requires user activity to spread.
data hostage and relinquish control back to the user only a. Virus
after ransom is paid. b. Worm
a. Ransomware c. Whaling
b. Xc6 d. Web crawlers
c. Both a and b
d. Multiple Malware 77. Pretending to be higher level executives in a company,
lawyers, accountants, and others in positions of authority
68. Self-generated sexually explicit material sent through and trust, in order to trick employees into sending them
SMS. funds.
a. Sextortion a. Virus
b. Smishing b. Worm
c. Sexting c. Whaling
d. Spam d. Web crawlers

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78. Applications designed to traverse the World Wide Web a. Diversity within flora
to achieve specific objectives. b. Diversity within the fauna
a. Virus c. Diversity within the species
b. Worm d. Diversity within the fauna and flora
c. Whaling
d. Web crawlers 88.A biosphere reserve has following parts:
a. Input, process and output zone
79. Stand-alone malicious software that spreads without b. In and ex-zone
the need for user activity. c. Core, buffer and transition zone
a. Virus d. Legal and illegal zone
b. Worm
c. Whaling 89. Diversity at species level is called
d. Web crawlers a. Genetics diversity
b. Species diversity
80. designed and constructed the first working mechanical c. Diversity
calculator in 1623 d. Integration
a. Wilhelm Schickard
b. Blaise Pascal and Goffried Liebnits 90. It is the preservation of components of biological
c. Gottfried Leibniz diversity outside their natural habitats
d. Thomas de Colmar a. In - conservation
b. Ex - conservation
81. In 1820 he launched the mechanical calculator c. Inside - conservation
industry when he released his simplified arithmometer, d. Ex-situ – conservation
which was the first calculating machine strong enough and
reliable enough to be used daily in an office environment. 91. The act of illegally hunting or catching (game or fish)
a. Wilhelm Schickard on land that is not one's own or in contravention of official
b. Blaise Pascal and Goffried Liebnits protection.
c. Gottfried Leibniz a. Spearfishing
d. Thomas de Colmar b. Poaching
c. Pharming
82. Demonstrated a digital mechanical calculator, called d. Exporting
the Stepped Reckoner 1673. He may be considered the
first computer scientist and information theorist, for, 92. It shall be unlawful to engage in fishing in _________
among other reasons, documenting the binary number and in all bays as well as other fishery management areas
system. using active fishing gears as defined in RA 8550.
a. Wilhelm Schickard a. Municipal Waters
b. Blaise Pascal and Goffried Liebnits b. International Waters
c. Gottfried Leibniz c. Inter- Island waters
d. Thomas de Colmar d. Provincial Waters

83. Environment is derived from what word? 93. Who shall shall have jurisdiction over all declared
a. Environ aquatic critical habitats, all aquatic resources including but
b. Environner not limited to all fishes, aquatic plants, invertebrates and
c. Envirner all marine mammals, except dugong?
d. environr a. DENR
b. DA
84. The development that meets the needs of the present c. BFAR
without compromising the ability of future generations to d. DFA
meet their own needs is called?
a. Mutual development 94. Killing and destroying wildlife species are generally
b. Integrated development prohibited. Which of the following is not included in the
c. Reasonable development exception?
d. Sustainable development a. when it is done as part of the religious rituals of
established tribal groups or indigenous cultural
85. Refers to any method which can be used to gather communities
information about an object without coming in contact b. when it is deemed unnecessary to put an end to the
with it? misery suffered by the wildlife
a. Database c. when it is done to prevent an imminent danger to the
b. remote sensing life or limb of a human being
c. WWW d. when the wildlife is killed or destroyed after it has been
d. GIS used in authorized research or experiments

86. It is the permanent destruction of indigenous forests 95. Any vehicle suspected of violation of emission
and wood lands standards through visual signs, such as, but not limited to
a. Afforestation smoke-belching, shall be subjected to an emission test by
b. Deforestation a duly authorized emission testing center. What
c. Forestation equipment is used to test smoke emissions by the
d. Reforestation transportation agencies?
a. Automatic Emission Analyzer Machine
87. Genetic diversity is defined as b. Automatic Gas Analyzer Machine

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c. Emission Tester Equipment
d. Gas and Emission Smoke Tester

96. _________ means any building or immobile structure,

facility or installation which emits or may emit any air
pollutant.
a. Motor Vehicle
b. Factory
c. Stationary source
d. Buildings and Establishments

97. ___________________ is a document issued by the

DENR/EMB after a positive review of application, certifying
that based on the representations of the proponent, the
proposed project or undertaking has complied with all the
requirements of the EIS System.
a. Environmental Clearance Certification
b. Environmental Compliance Clearance
c. Environmental Compliance Certificate
d. Environmental Impact Statement

98. All other projects, undertakings and areas not declared

by the President as environmentally critical shall be
considered as non-critical. What must be done?
a. Secure Fire Safety Inspection Certificate
b. Make sure that the building is insured
c. Claim non-certification to the office of the Mayor
d. None

99. RA 9275 is also known as Clean Water Act of 2004.

What are the two bodies of water according to this act?
1. Rainwater
2. Surface Water
3. Ground water
4. Salt water

a. 1 and 2
b. 2 and 3
c. 3 and 4
d. 1 and 4

100. The construction of any establishment within _____

from any open dumps or sanitary landfill is prohibited
under RA 9003.

a. 100 meters
b. 200 meters
c. 300 meters
d. 400 meters

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