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BA Mass Communication Sample Paper

Please read the below instructions carefully before proceeding

• This question paper consists of 4 sections, 150 questions and 150 marks

o Q 1-25: Reasoning, 1 mark each

o Q 26-50: English, 1 mark each

o Q 51-75: Quantitative Aptitude, 1 mark each

o Q 76-100: General Awareness, 1 mark each

• You have 120 minutes to complete the test. Each question has a negative marking of 0.25 for each wrong
answer.

• Please note that each section has sectional cut-offs. Hence, you are advised to not spend too much time on
one question or one section.

• The questions may be answered in any order within the given time.

1.

Find the odd number/alphabet/word from the given alternatives

A BDW

B IKP

C GIQ

D FHS

2.

Which one set of letters when sequentially placed at the gaps in given letter-series shall complete it?
_ A' B B _ A A' _ B B' _ A' B

A AB'BA

B ABAB

C A'B'BA

D A'BBA

3.

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In each of the following questions, Select the related letters/word/numbers from the given alternatives.

BXWC : XDCY : : TLGP : ?

A KGOT

B KTOG

C KOTG

D KGTO

4.

Amit said - "This girl is the wife of the grandson of my mother". How is Amit related to the girl?

A Brother

B Grandfather

C Husband

D Father-in-law

Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.

Six persons 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 are sitting in a circular table facing outwards the centre. 6 is third to right of 3 and second
to the left of 2. 1 is the immediate neighbour of 6 and 2. 5 is third to the right of 2 and to the immediate left of 6.

5.

Who is the immediate neighbour of '3' ?

A 4, 2

B 5, 6

C 6, 1

D 4, 1

6.

Which person is sitting second to the right of '1' ?

A6

B3

C5

D4

7.

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Rahul walks 5 km to the west direction. Then he takes a left and walks for another 10 km. Now he takes a right turn
and walks 5 km. Which direction is Rahul facing ?

A East

B West

C South

D North

8.

One fine morning Seeta and Geeta were talking to each other face to face. If Geeta's shadow was exactly to the left of
Seeta, which direction was Seeta facing?

A East

B West

C North

D South

9.

If with the fourth, sixth and eighth letters of the word 'KINGMAKER' a meaningful word can be formed, then which
one of the following would be the last letter of that word ? If no meaningful word can be formed then X is the answer
and if more than one words are possible then M is the answer—

AT

BM

CI

DE

10.

If -5 > a and a > b then -5 is

A less than a

B greater than b

C grater than a

D less than b

11.

From the given alternatives select the word which can be formed using the letters given in the word
'LACKADAISICAL' .

A LACHES

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B DELICT

C KIDDLE

D SCALD

12.

If 30th January 2013 was Thursday, what was the day on 2nd March 2013?

A Tuesday

B Thursday

C Saturday

D Sunday

13.

How many such digits are there in the number 3246759, each of which will occupy the same position when rearranged
in ascending order as in the number?

A None

B One

C Two

D Three

14.

Raman is taller than Heera. Neera is taller than Harry, but shorter than Heera. Sunil is shorter than Raman. Who is the
tallest?

A Raman

B Sunil

C Heera

D Harry

15.

1. Geeta's weight less than Reema

2. Geeta's weight more than Seema
3. Of all three girls Seema's weight least.

If the first two statements are true then third is -

A TRUE

B FALSE

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C Uncertain

D Vague

16.

A tired lady slept at 07:45 PM. If she rose at 12 noon, for how many hours did she sleep?

A 12 hours 15 minutes

B 4 hours 15 minutes

C 6 hours 45 minutes

D 16 hours 15 minutes

17.

Three statements are given followed by four conclusions. You have to consider the statements to be true even if they
seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. You have to decide which of the given conclusions, if any, follow
from the given statements.

Statements:
Some tables are trees
Some trees are flowers
All flowers are jungles

Conclusion:
1. Some jungles are tables
2. Some trees are jungles
3. Some flowers are tables
4. All jungles are flowers

A Only 2 follows

B Only 1 and 2 follows

C Only 3 follows

D None of these

18.

As 'Hill' is related to 'Mountain', in the same way, 'Shrub' is related to which ?

A Plant

B Land

C Forest

D Tree

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In the question a series is given. Which one of the alternatives will replace the question-mark (?) ?
MN, NM, MNO, ONM, MNOP, ?

A NPOM

B POMN

C MOPN

D PONM

20.

Choose the alternative which is closely resembles the mirror image of the given combination.

A1

B2

C3

D4

21.

Identify the figure that completes the pattern.

AA

BB

CC

DD

22.

A piece of paper is folded and cut as shown below in the question figures from the given answser figures, indicates
how it will appear when opened?

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AA

BB

CC

DD

23.

Which colour is opposite to purple?

A Blue

B Orange

C Red

D Green

24.

Select the related figure from the Answer figures.

AA

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BB

CC

DD

25.

Choose the box that is similar to the box formed from the given sheet of paper (X).

A 1, 2 and 3 only

B 2 and 3 only

C 1, 3 and 4 only

D 2, 3 and 4 only

Directions : -you have to brief passages with 5 questions in each passage. Read the passage carefully and choose the
best answer to each questions out of the four alternatives.

Pidgins are languages that are not, acquired as mother tongues and that are used for a restricted set of communicative
functions. They are formed from a mixture of languages and have a limited vocabulary and a simplified grammar.
Pidgins serve as a means of communication between speakers of mutually unintelligible language and my become
essential, in multilingual areas. A creole develops from a pidgin when the pidgin becomes the mother tongue of the
community. To cope with the consequent expansion of communicative functions the consequent expansion of
communicative functions the vocabulary is increased and the grammar becomes more complex. Where a creole and the
standard variety of English coexist, as in the Caribbean, there is a continuum form the most extreme form of creole to
the form that is closest to the most extreme form of creole to the form that is closest to the standard language. Linguists
mark off the relative positions on the creole continuum as the 'basilect' (the furthest from the standard language), the
'mesolect', and the 'acrolet'. In such stuations, most creole speakers can very their speech along the continuum and many
are also competent in the standard English of their country.

26.

A pidgin develops in a situation when

A Different and mutually unintelligible languages exist side by side

B A creole becomes the mother tongue of a linguistic community

C A language with restricted vocabulary undergoes an expansion in grammar and vocabulary

D Two similar languages are mixed to create a new language

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According to the given passage a pidgin becomes a creole when

A It creases to be a means of communication

B It becomes the mother tongue for a new generation of speakers

C Its vocabulary undergoes some kind of change

D Two or more languages are mixed with an existing pidgin

28.

According to the passage, a creole continuum is

A A linguistic term for the mixture of more than tow languages

B A scale which measures the linguistic competence of the speaker

C A scale in which the proximity of the creole to the standard language is measured

D A record of the continuous history of a creole

29.

According to the passage ‘basilect’ means

A An impure form of a creole

B A form of creole which is furthest from the standard language

C A form of creole which has an extended vocabulary

D A form of creole which is very close to the standard language

30.

Find out a word in the passage which is opposite in meaning to the word-‘Simplified’

A Complex

B Expansion

C Restricted

D Consequent

31.

Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the Idiom/phrase and mark your answer.
In a fix

A fixed the issue

B losing hope

C in a dilemma

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D very confident

32.

Out of four alternatives, choose the one which can be used to replace the given phrase/idiom
In a lurch

A to leave a friend in difficulty

B to enjoy a party

C to have a fun time

D to show kindness

33.

In questions below out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given sentence and
mark your answer.
That which can never be believed—

A Irrevocable

B Inevitable

C Incredible

D Irritable

34.

In questions below out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given sentence and mark
your answer.

That which cannot be avoided—

A Inevitable

B Irreparable

C Incomparable

D Indisputable

35.

In questions below out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentence
and mark your answer.
One who can use either of his hands with ease.

A Amphibious

B Ambidexterous

C Ambivalent

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D Amateur

36.

In question out of four alternatives, choose the one which is best express the meaning of the given word and mark
your answer-
Ordain

A Request

B Elaborate

C Establish

D Flourish

37.

In question out of four alternatives, choose the one which is best express the meaning of the given word and mark
your answer-
Chastise

A Reprimand

B Castle

C Cherish

D Docile

38.

In the questions given below, choose the word most opposite in meaning to the given word and mark your answer.
Infallible

A Efficient

B Profound

C Inerrant

D Imperfect

39.

In the questions given below, choose the word most opposite in meaning to the given word and mark your answer.
Philistine

A Barbarian

B Uncivilized

C Cultured

D Dishonest

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40.

In the following questions same of the error and some have none. Find out which part of a sentence has an error and
mark the answer to the appropriate letter (A,B and C). If there is no error, mark your answer as D.
No girl in her troupe is / so sprightly as / your daughter.

A No girl in her troupe is

B so sprightly as

C your daughter

D No error

41.

In the following questions same of the error and some have none. Find out which part of a sentence has an error and
mark the answer to the appropriate letter (A,B and C). If there is no error, mark your answer as D.
I used to visit / her and I always wondered /why she had those dreadful pictures on the wall.

A I used to visit

B her and I always wondered

C why she had those dreadful pictures on the wall

D No error

42.

In the following questions same of the error and some have none. Find out which part of a sentence has an error and
mark the answer to the appropriate letter (A,B and C). If there is no error, mark your answer as D.
The police asked / each of us about our /movements on the night of the crime.

A The police asked

B each of us about our

C movements on the night of the crime

D No error

43.

In questions given below, a part of the sentence is highlighted. Below are given alternatives to the underlined part at
(A), (B) and (C) which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative.In case no improvement is needed
your answer is (D).

Last evening I went to the optician and bought spectacles.

A a spectacle

B a pair of spectacles

C two spectacles

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D No improvement

44. In questions given below, a part of the sentence is highlighted. Below are given alternatives to the underlined part
at (A), (B) and (C) which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative.In case no improvement is needed
your answer is (D).

He was so rude that they were compelled for asking him to leave.

A ask him to leave

B him to ask to leave

C to ask him to leave

D No improvement needed

45.

In questions given below, a part of the sentence is highlighted. Below are given alternatives to the underlined part at
(A), (B) and (C) which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative.In case no improvement is needed
your answer is (D).
What we have done is from humanity point of view.

A have been doing was

B have done were

C had done being

D no correction

46.

Find the fill in the blank with appropriate word given in the options:
I am interested …… some other job.

A in

B to

C about

D for

47.

Find the fill in the blank with appropriate word given in the options:
There is not much difference …… you and me.

A between

B in

C for

D to

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48.

Find the fill in the blank with appropriate word given in the options:
The shortage of essential …… must be overcome in a short time.

A products

B commodities

C material

D delivery

49.

In questions a sentence has been given in Active /Passive Voice. Out of the four alternatives suggested, select the one
which expresses the same sentence in Passive /Active Voice and mark your answer
Who wrote this article ?

A Whom was this article written ?

B By whom this article was written ?

C Who was written this article ?

D By whom was this article written ?

50.

In questions given below, a sentence has been given in Direct/Indirect form’ Out of the four alternatives suggested,
select the one which best expresses the same sentence in Indirect/Direct form.
He said, "I have often told you not to waste your time".

A He said that he had often told not to waste your time.

B He said that he had often told him not to waste his time.

C He said that he had often suggest to him not to waste his time.

D He told that he had often told him not to waste his time.

51.

If x2 - x + 1 = 0 then find the value of x18 + x15 + x12 +x9 +x6 + x3 + 18

A 16

B0

C2

D 18

52.

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In Veeru Bhai Pvt.limited company 60% of the employees are men and 48% of the employees are Engineer and 66.6%
of these are men. The percentage of women who are not engineers:

A 33.33%

B 60%

C 52%

D 46.66%

53.

LCM of 36,45,52,108 and 236 is.

A 414180

B 480414

C 441180

D 441170

54.

Anil took 4 tests during first year. His average on them was 76. He took 3 tests during the second year. His average on
them was 81. What was his over all average for both years ?

A 542/7

B 539/7

C 536/7

D 547/7

55.

Ragini purchase oranges at Rs. 10 per dozen and sells them at Rs. 12 for every 10 oranges. What is the profit
percentage ?

A 40%

B 44%

C 60%

D 48%

56.

A sum of Rs. 250 is divided among 10 students. Each boy gets Rs. 20 where as a girl gets Rs. 30. Calculate the
number of boys in class ?

A5

B6

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C4

D3

57.

A can do a piece of work in 4 hours . A and C together can do it in just 2 hours, while B and C together need 3 hours
to finish the same work. B alone can complete the work in-

A 12 hours

B 6 hours

C 8 hours

D 9 hours

58.

A trader allows two successive discounts of 20% and 10%. If he gets Rs 108 for an article, find its marked price.

A Rs 130

B Rs 140

C Rs 150

D Rs 138

59.

If ∠OAB=20o, ∠OCB=30o then find value of ∠AOC?

A 80o

B 100o

C 60o

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D 50o

60.

In the given figure, find area of the figure (in cm2.)

A 96.25

B 115.5

C 228.5

D 154

61.

The orthocentre of a triangle ΔABC is O, if ∠ BAC = 52o, then the measurement of ∠ BOC is

A 116 degree

B 38 degree

C 128 degree

D 126 degree

62.

If then what is (m2 ƒ- n2) sin2 y equal to?

A 1 - n2

B 1 + n2

C m2

D n2

63.

The product of two positive numbers is 120 and the sum of their squares is 289, the difference between them will be -

A7

B2

C 14

D2

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64.

When n is even, the product n(n+1)(n+2) is divisible by -

A 24

B7

C0

D None of these

65.

The total surface area of a cube is 600 cm2. The length of its diagonal is -

A 10√3cm

B 10√2cm

C 5√2 cm

D 10/√3cm

Study the following graph carefully and answer

Demand and Production of Colour T.V. of Five companies for October 1988.

66. The ratio of production of company A is that of the production of company D?

A 1.5

B 1.11

C 1.8

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D 2.5

67.

What is the difference between the demand of company B and that of company D?

A 800

B 700

C 900

D 1000

68.

What is the difference between average demand and average production of the five companies taken together?

A 400

B 138

C 2300

D 280

The pie chart gives below shows the break -up of the cost of construction of a house, Assuming that the total cost of
construction is Rs. 60000, answer the question given below.

69.

The amount spent on cement is.

A Rs. 11000

B Rs. 12000

C Rs. 13000

D Rs.14000
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70.

The amount spent on labour exceed the amount spent on steel by.

A 5%

B 8%

C 10%

D 12%

71.

The amount spent on cement, steel and supervision is what percent of the total cost of construction.

A 30%

B 40%

C 50%

D 60%

72.

There are two examinations rooms A and B. If 10 students are sent from A to B, then the number of students in each
room is the same. If 20 candidates are sent from B to A, then the number of students in A is double the number of
students in B. The number of students in room A is

A 20

B 80

C 100

D 200

73.

A, B and C jointly thought of engaging themselves in a business venture. It was agreed that A would invest Rs. 6500
for 6 months, B, Rs. 8400 for 5 months and C, Rs. 10,000 for 3 months. A wants to be the working member for which,
he was to receive 5% of the profits. The profit earned was Rs. 7400. Calculate the share of B in the profit.

A Rs. 1900

B Rs. 2660

C Rs. 2800

D Rs. 2840

74.

A 270 metres long train running at the speed of 120 kmph crosses another train running in opposite direction at the
speed of 80 kmph in 9 seconds. What is the length of the other train?

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A 230 m

B 240 m

C 260 m

D 320 m

75.

A bank offers 5% compound interest calculated on half-yearly basis. A customer deposits Rs. 1600 each on 1st January
and 1st July of a year. At the end of the year, the amount he would have gained by way of interest is:

A Rs. 120

B Rs. 121

C Rs. 122

D Rs. 123

76.

Who appoints the Comptroller and Auditor General in India ?

A Speaker of Lok Sabha

B Prime Minister

C President

D Vice President

77.

During the Crown Prince of Abu Dhabi Sheikh Mohamed bin Zayed Al Nahyan visit to India, India and UAE have
inked how many agreements ?

A7

B 12

C9

D8

78.

The United Nations (UN) and Govt of which country announced the launch of a new multi-partner trust fund in
Bogota ?

A Uruguay

B Bolivia

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C Colombia

D Argentina

79.

What is a synagogue ?

A An epic

B A religion

C Jewish House of Prayer

D The Parsi temple

80.

Many times we see a news item FDI proposals approved. Who clears or approves these FDI proposals?

A The Lok Sabha

B The President of India

C The Prime Minister's Office

D The Reserve Bank of India

81.

Which of the following is not a Free Trade Zone?

A Kandla

B Mumbai

C Visakhapatnam

D Thiruvananthapuram

82.

The Women's Ashes Series is the perpetual trophy in women's international cricket between which of the two
countries?

A England and India

B India and West-Indies

C Australia and England

D England and South Africa

83.

Which of the following India and Israel jointly developed Long Range Surface to Air Missile, successfully test fired
from INS Kolkata recently?

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A Astra

B Barak 8

C Barak 2

D Akash

84.

What is the name of first Mars Orbiter mission that was successfully enter into the Mars?

A Maven

B Mangalyaan

C Mars 1

D Prithvi

85.

Which of the following books is the recipient of Man Booker Prize 2016 ?

A The Lowland

B The Vegeterian

C Bleeding Edge

D Tenth of December

86.

Who wrote “Glimpses of world History” ?

A Pandit Jawahar Lal Nehru

B Dr. Rajendra Prasad

C Maulana Abul Kalam Azad

D Subhash Chandra Bose

87.

'Gram Uday Se Bharat Uday Abhiyan' a nationwide campaign, was started from which city of India?

A Mhow

B Akbarpur

C Surat

D Varanasi

88.

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Abdul Sattar Edhi, who died recently, was the well-known philanthropist of which country?

A India

B Pakistan

C Iran

D Israel

89.

What is the full form of the term NDTL, as used in banking environment?

A Net Demand and Term Liability

B Net Demand and Term Liquidity

C Net Demand and Time Liability

D Net Demand and Time Liquidity

90.

Consider the following statements and identify the right ones.

i. The Ministry of Agriculture implements the National Bamboo Mission
ii. The mission adopts regionally differentiated strategy for the holistic growth of bamboo sector.

A i only

B ii only

C both

D none

91.

Which acid is normally found in lemons and grapes ?

A Citric acid

B Lactic acid

C Tartaric acid

D Sulphuric Acid

92

Which are the diseases caused by Virus ?

A Chickenpox

B Measles

C Poliomyelitis

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D All the above

93.

Which among the following monoculture crops provide immediate cash to the farmers?

1. Tea in Assam
2. Rubber in Africa
3. Sugarcane in Malaysia
4. Coffee in Brazil

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A 1 only

B 2 and 3

C 3 and 4

D 1 and 4

94.

A person cannot see objects clearly which are nearer than 75 cms from his eyes. What disease is he suffering from?

A Astigmatism

B Colour-blindness

C Myopia

D Hypermetropia

95.

The study Science of Small is known as ________ ?

A Nanotechnology

B Cosmology

C Molecular Biology

D Microbiology

96.

In rainy season the dust in the ballast becomes mud and comes up by suction from below the rail joint. Such joint is
called _______ ?

A Wet Joint

B Water Joint

C Blowing Joint

D Pumping Joint

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97.

How many members can the President of India nominate to Rajya Sabha?

A 15

B 14

C 12

D 21

98.

D. K. Jain is the Chairman of the ______ Law Commission.

A 20th

B 23rd

C 25th

D 27th

99.

Mahatma Gandhi Rural Employment Guarantee Act makes a paradigm shift from the previous wage employment
programmes by doing which of the following ?

A focusing on all-round development of the rural people

B providing wage employment in rural areas a legal binding for the State Governments

C providing a statutory guarantee of wage employment

D augmenting food security through wage employment in rural areas

100.

Which Indian state has banned forceful religious conversions ?

A Andhra Pradesh

B Tamil Nadu

C Kerala

D Maharashtra

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