TOEFL PRACTICE TEST

ELI GMU, Jakarta

TOEFL PRACTICE TEST

SECTION 1
LISTENING COMPREHENSION
Time – approximately 35 minutes
(including the reading of the directions for each part)

Part A

Directions: In Part A you will hear short conversations between two people. After
each conversation, you will hear a question about the conversation. The conversations
and questions will not be repeated. After you hear a question, read the four possible
answers in your test book and choose the best answer. Then, on your answer sheet,
find the number of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of
the answer you have chosen.

Listen to an example . Sample Answer

A B C D
On the recording, you will hear:
(man) That exam was just awful.
(woman) Oh, it could have been worse.
(narrator) What does the woman mean?
In your test book, you will read:
(A) The exam was really awful.
(B) It was the worst exam she had ever seen.
(C) It couldn’t have been more difficult.
(D) It wasn’t that hard.
You learn from the conversation that the man thought the exam was very difficult and
that the woman disagreed with the man. The best answer to the question, “What does
the woman mean?“ is (D), “It wasn’t that hard .”Therefore, the correct choice is (D).

Go on to the next page.

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1. (A) There’s no more wood inside.
(B) He wood in the fireplace should
be put outside.
(C) There’s a fire outside.
(D) He needs to bring some wood
outside.
2. (A) She worked late at a conference.
(B) Her meeting was canceled.
(C) She called a conference at work.
(D) She was late to a conference.
3. (A) In a hospital.
(B) At a police station.
(C) At the beach.
(D) In a locker room.
4. (A) There was too much room on the
dance floor.
(B) He enjoyed the room where they
went dancing.
(C) The dance floor was too crowded.
(D) The club needed more rooms for
dancing.
5. (A) He could not understand the fax
machine.
(B) He wrote the letter that was
sent.
(C) The fax machine was easy for
him to use.
(D) He was not very good with
figures.
6. (A) The woman hit her head on a
nail.
(B) The woman hit his new car.
(C) The woman was exactly right.
(D) The woman bought the new car.
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7. (A) He would like the woman to help
him find his paper.
(B) He wants the woman to put the
paper away.
(C) He needs the woman to review
the paper.
(D) He would like the woman to write
the paper for him.
8. (A) Information about the problem is
unavailable.
(B) No one has been informed.
(C) Everybody knows what is going
on.
(D) Nobody is aware that the problem
is serious.
9. (A) He did not sleep well.
(B) He never woke up this morning,
(C) The alarm failed to go off.
(D) He needed a loud alarm to wake
up.
10. (A) The pilot made an emergency
landing
(B) The pilot was forced to leave the
plane in a hurry
(C) The pilot fielded questions about
the forced landing.
(D) The plane was damaged when it
landed forcefully.
11. (A) She just left her sister’s house.
(B) Her sister is not at home.
(C) She’s not exactly sure where her
sweater is.
(D) She doesn’t know where her
sister lives.
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12. (A) She doesn’t have time to
complete additional reports.
(B) She cannot finish the reports
that she is already working on.
(C) She is scared of having
responsibility for the reports.
(D) It is not time for accounting
reports to be compiled.
13. (A) He’s enough exercise.
(B) He’s going to give himself a
reward for the hard work.
(C) He’s going to stay on for quite
some time.
(D) He would like to give the
woman an exercise machine as
a gift.
14. (A) He cannot see the huge waves.
(B) The waves are not coming in.
(C) He would like the woman to
repeat what she said.
(D) He agrees with the woman.
15. (A) The exam was postponed.
(B) The man should have studied
harder.
(C) Night is the best time to study
for exams.
(D) She is completely prepared for
the exams.
16. (A) Students who want to change
schedules should form a line.
(B) It is only possible to make four
changes in the schedule.
(C) It is necessary to submit the
form quickly.
(D) Problems occur when people do
not wait their turn.
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ELI GMU, Jakarta
17. (A) In a mine.
(B) In a jewelry store.
(C) In a clothing store.
(D) In a bank.
18. (A) A visit to the woman’s family,
(B) The telephone bill.
(C) The cost of a new telephone.
(D) How far away the woman’s
family lives.
19. (A) She hasn’t met her new boss.
(B) She has a good opinion of your
boss.
(C) Her boss has been asked her
about her impressions of the
company.
(D) Her boss has been putting a lot
of pressure on him.
20. (A) The recital starts in three hours.
(B) He intends to recite three
different poems
(C) He received a citation on the
third of the months.
(D) He thinks the performance
begins at three.
21. (A) She could not comprehend the
chemistry lecture.
(B) She has not had time to look at
the assignment.
(C) It was possible for her to
complete the problem.
(D) She could not understand the
problem.
22. (A) She will lend it to the man.
(B) She never lent the book to Jim.
(C) Jim wants to borrow the book.
(D) Jim has the book.
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 TOEFL PRACTICE TEST
ELI GMU, Jakarta

23. (A) A physician. 28. (A) He thinks the lecture was really
(B) An astronomer. interesting
(C) A philosopher. (B) He’s not sure if the ideas are
(D) An engineer. workable.
(C) He understood nothing about the
24. (A) Starting on their exam lecture.
preparation. (D) He’s not sure what the woman
(B) Leaving for the exam. would like to know.
(C) Getting home to study.
(D) Going to her job. 29. (A) He missed an opportunity.
(B) He was late for his trip.
25. (A) It met her expectations. (C) He should take the next boat.
(B) It was what she had hope to see. (D) He should send in the application.
(C) It was rather mediocre.
(D) It was the last performance. 30. (A) That John would pick them up for
the concert.
26. (A) He’s already talked to the (B) That the concert would start
professor about the assignment. earlier.
(B) There is no assignment for (C) That john would not be going to
tomorrow. the concert.
(C) He’s not sure what the professor (D) That they would be late to the
talked about. concert.
(D) The professor discussed the
assignment only briefly.

27. (A) He doesn’t know how far away

the exhibit is.
(B) He’s uncertain about the fee.
(C) The exhibit is not very far away.
(D) He’s sure the exhibit is free.

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 TOEFL PRACTICE TEST
ELI GMU, Jakarta

Part B
Directions: In this part of the test, you will hear longer conversations. After each
conversation, you will hear several questions. The conversations and questions will not
be repeated.

After you hear a questions, read the four possible answers in your test book and
choose the best answer. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question
and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen.

Remember, you are not allowed to take notes or write in your test book.

31. (A) Taking some pictures. 36. (A).During regular class hours.
(B) Hanging some plants. (B) Just before class time.
(C) Taking a trip to the mountains. (C) As soon as class is finished.
(D) Putting some pictures on the (D) During office hours.
wall.
37. (A) To turn in an assignment.
32. (A) One (B) To ask a question.
(B) Two (C) To pick up a completed test.
(C) Three (D) To explain why he did not attend
(D) Four class.

33. (A) In the fireplace
(B) Above the sofa
(C) Home with Walt
(D) To the top of the mountain
34. (A) Sit on the sofa.
(B) Photograph Monica’s family.
(C) Hammer the nails into the wall.
(D) Climb the walls.
38. (A) The date the assignment was
due.
(B) The page number of the
assignment.
(C) The length of the assignment.
(D) The numbers of the assignment
questions

35. (A) A professor.

(B) An office worker.
(C) Professor Denton’s assistant.
(D) A student.

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 TOEFL PRACTICE TEST
ELI GMU, Jakarta

Part C
Directions: In this Part of the test, you will hear several talks. After each talk, you will
hear some questions. The talks and questions will not be repeated.

After you hear a question, read the four possible answers in your test book and choose
the best answer. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill
in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen.

Here is an example.

On the recording, you will hear:

(narrator) Listen to an instuctor talk to his class about painting.

(man) Artist Grant Wood was a guiding force in the second painting
known as American regionalist, a style reflecting the distinctive
characteristics of art from rural areas of the United States. Wood
began drawing animals on the family farm at the age of three,
and when he was thirty-eight, one of his paintings received a
remarkable amount of public notice and acclaim. This painting,
called American Gothic, is a starkly simple depiction of a serious
couple staring directly out at the viewer.

Now listen to a sample question. Sample Answer

A B C D

(narrator) What style of painting is known as American regionalist?

In your test book, you will read: (A) Art from America’s inner cities.
(B) Art from the central region of the United
States.
(C) Art from various urban areas in the
United States.
(D) Art from rural sections of America.

The best answer to the question, “What style of painting is known as American
Regionalist?” is (D), “Art from rural sections of America.” Therefore, the correct choice
is (D).

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 TOEFL PRACTICE TEST
ELI GMU, Jakarta

Now listen to another sample question. Sample Answer

A B C D

(narrator) What is the name of Wood’s most succesful painting?

In your test book, you will read:
(A) American Regionalist.”
(B) “The Family Farm in Iowa.”
(C) “American Gothic.”
(D) “A Serios Couple.”
The best answer to the question, “What is the name of Wood’s most successful
painting?” is (C) American Gothic. Therefore, the correct choice is (C).

Remember, you are not allowed to take notes or write in your test book.

39. (A) Valuable condition 44. (A) As a desert.

(B) Salt (B) As usable for army purposes.
(C) Ancient China (C) As located in the Sahara.
(D) Money (D) As available for farmland.

40. (A) To spice food 45. (A) It was a vast dessert.

(B) To build houses (B) It was covered with farms.
(C) To make coins (C) It was excellent farmland.
(D) To locate Africa (D) It was similar to the Sahara.

41. (A) Coins 46. (A) Agricultural Science.

(B) Earnings (B) American History.
(C) Soldiers (C) Geology of the United States.
(D) Commodities (D) Military Science.

42. (A) Salt 47. (A) Potential Water Resource

(B) Rome (B) Potential Water Reactor
(C) Money (C) Pressurized Water Resource
(D) Trade (D) Pressurized Water Reactor

43. (A) Zebulon Pike’s career

(B) A mistake that influenced the
settlement of America
(C) A report for the army
(D) The farmlands

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 TOEFL PRACTICE TEST
ELI GMU, Jakarta

48. (A) One 50. (A) They thought that there was too
(B) Two much water.
(C) Three (B) They thought that the water was
(D) Four too cold.
(C) They thought that there was too
49. (A) There were no problems with the little water.
PWRs. (D) They thought that the water was
(B) There was a problem with only too hot.
one of the PWRs.
(C) There were problems with one
PWR after another.
(D) There were problems with more
than one PWR at the same time.

This is the end of Section 1

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 TOEFL PRACTICE TEST
ELI GMU, Jakarta

SECTION 2
STRUCTURE AND WRITTEN EXPRESSION
Time - 25 minutes
(Including the reading of direction)
Now set your clock for 25 minutes

This section is designed to measure your ability to recognize language that is

appropriate for standard written English. There are two types of question in this
section, with special direction for each type.

STRUCTURE

Direction: Question 1-15 are incomplete sentences. Beneath each sentence you will
see four words of phrases, marked (A), (B), (C) and (D). Choose the one word or
phrase that best completes the sentence. Then, on your answer sheet, find the
number of your question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the
answer you have chosen. Fill in the space so that the letter inside the oval cannot be
seen.

Look at the following examples. Sample Answer

Example I:
A B C D

Vegetables are an excellent source_____________vitamins.

(A) of
(B) has
(C) where
(D) that

The sentence should read,” Vegetables are an excellent source of vitamins.” Therefore,
you should choose answer (A).

Example II: Sample Answer

A B C D

____________in history when remarkable progress was made within a relatively short
span of time.
(A) Periods
(B) Throughout periods
(C) There have been periods
(D) Periods have been

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The sentence should read, ”There have been periods in history when remarkable
progress was made within a relatively short span of time. Therefore, you should
choose answer (C).
Now begin work on the questions.
1. The 4th dynasty pyramid of Khafre at
Gizeh, the 2nd largest of the three
great Egyptian pyramids _____
141,3 m high.
(A) it stands
(B) stands
(C) they stand
(D) that it stand
2. When friends insists on _____
expensive gifts, it makes most
Americans uncomfortable.
(A) them to accept
(B) their accepting
(C) they accepting
(D) they accept
3. We had hoped _____ the game, but
the other team player played very
well.
(A) State University to win
(B) That State University win
(C) That State University would win
(D) State University’s winning
4. Warning _____ or operate heavy
equipment while taking this
medication.
(A) Please no drive
(B) Would you please no driving
(C) Please do not drive
(D) Have you please not driven
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5. Cirrhosis is a disease of the human
liver characterized _____ of liver
cells and degeneration of liver
function.
(A) destroyer
(B) destroy
(C) destructive
(D) destruction
6. Gilbert Stuart is considered by most
art critics _____ greatest portrait
painter in the North American
Colonies.
(A) that he was
(B) as he was
(C) who was the
(D) the
7. To relieve pain caused by severe
burns, prevent infection, and treat
for shock, _____
(A) Taking immediate steps
(B) To take immediate steps
(C) Taken steps immediately
(D) Take immediate steps
8. Thorax _____ situated between the
neck and the abdomen and is formed
by 12 vertebrae, 12 pairs of ribs and
associated muscles and fascia.
(A) is the upper part of the human
body
(B) the upper part of the human
body
(C) the upper part of the human
body is
(D) it is the upper part of the human
body
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9. The Appaloosa horse _____ is
distinguished by spots and stripped
hooves.
(A) the breeding by the Nez Perce
Indians
(B) breeding by the Nez Perce`
Indians
(C) bred by the Nez Perce` Indians
(D) the Nez Perce’ Indians breeding
10. Embryology includes within its
province the development of the
_____ and embryo and the growth
of the fetus.
(A) fertilized egg
(B) to fertilize egg
(C) fertilizing egg
(D) fertilizes egg
11. Since Elizabeth Barrett Browning’s
father never approved _____ Robert
Browning, the couple eloped to Italy,
where they lived and wrote.
(A) she to marry
(B) she marrying
(C) her marrying
(D) her to marry
12. The Persian Gulf region is known for
its high temperature _____, and low
rainfall.
(A) uncomfortable humiditY
(B) how uncomfortable the humidity
is
(C) how humid and uncomfortable it
is
(D) its humidity uncomfortable
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13. Diamonds were discovered in Namib
Desert in 1904 and _____ still mined
on the beaches of the desert present.
(A) that they are
(B) so they are
(C) are to be
(D) they are
14. Cryogenic temperature, temperature
below -150* C, takes place either
because of the rapid evaporation of
volatile liquids or _______ of gases
confined initially at pressures of 150
to 200 atmosphere.
(A) by the expansion
(B) the expansion is
(C) of the expansion
(D) because of the expansion
15. As a safety precaution, all city
cabdrivers carry only enough money
to make change for a _______bill.
(A) ten-dollar
(B) ten-dollars
(C) tens- dollar
(D) tens-dollars
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 TOEFL PRACTICE TEST
ELI GMU, Jakarta

Written Expression

Direction: in questions 16-40, each sentence has four underlined words or phrases.
The four underlined parts of the sentence are marked (A), (B), (C), and (D). Identify
the one underlined word or phrase that must be changed in order for the sentences to
be correct. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the
space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen.

Look at the following examples.

Example I: Sample Answer

A B C D

A ray of light passing through the centre of a thin lens keep its original direction.
A B C D

The sentence should read, “A ray of light passing through the centre of a thin lens
keeps its original direction.” Therefore, you should choose answer (C).

Example II: Sample Answer

A B C D

The mandolin, a musical instrument that has strings, was probably copied from
A B C
the flute, a many older instrument.
D

The sentence should read, “The mandolin, a musical instrument that has strings, was
probably copied from the flute, a much older instrument.” Therefore, you should
choose answer (D).

Now begin work on the questions.

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 TOEFL PRACTICE TEST
ELI GMU, Jakarta

16. The plants that they belong to the family of ferns are quite varied in their size and
A B C D
structure

17. Columbus Day is celebrated on the twelve of October because on that day in 1492,
A B C D
Christopher Columbus first landed in the Americas.

18. A good artist like a good engineer learns from their mistakes in order to improve.
A B C D

19. When they have been frightened , as, for example, by an electrical storm, daily
A B C
cows may refuse giving milk
D

20. The most common form of treatment it is mass inoculation and chlorination of
A B C
water Sources
D

21. Those of us who have a family history of heart disease should make yearly
A B C
appointments with their doctors
D

22. If one had thought about the alternatives, you would not have chosen such a
A B C
difficult topic for a term paper
D

23. When the silkworm gets through to lay its eggs, it died
A B C D

24. Starfish and sea urchins, members of the echinoderms or spiny skinned animals,

are particularly interested because of their unusual structures.

A B C D

25. Programs such as Head Start were developed to prepare children from deprived
A B C
situations to enter school without to experience unusual difficulties.
D

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 TOEFL PRACTICE TEST
ELI GMU, Jakarta

26. Almost poetry is more enjoyable when it is read aloud

A B C D

27. In the sixteenth century, Francois Vieta , a French mathematician , used the vowel
A B
a,e,i,o,u, to represent a unknown number.
C D

28. Anyone reproducing copyrighted works without permission of the holders of the
A
copyrights are breaking the law.
B C D

29. Some important characteristics of the Baroque style was a renewed interest in
A B
ornamentation and a powerful use of both light and shade
C D

30. A barometer is a device with a sealed metal chamber designed to reading the
A B C
changes in the pressure of air in the atmosphere
D

31. One of the metallic conductors of heat and electricity are silver, which is a very
A B C
ductile and malleable univalent coinage metal
D

32. The Clifton Suspension Bridge, completed at 1864, spans the Avon Gorge in
A B C
Bristol, England
D

33. Submersibles use electronic devices to photograph and monitor ocean deep in
A B C
addition to collecting samples from the ocean floor
D

34. The prices of homes are as high that most people cannot afford to buy them
A B C D

35. In purchasing a winter coat, it is very important for trying it on with heavy clothing
A B C D
Underneath

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 TOEFL PRACTICE TEST
ELI GMU, Jakarta

36. Although the Red Cross accepts blood from most donors, the nurses will not leave
A B
you give blood if you have just had a cold
C D

37. A prism is used to retract white light so it spreads out in continuous spectrum of
A BC D
colors.

38. The duties of the secretary are to take the minutes, mailing the correspondence,
A B C
and calling the members before meetings.
D

39. It is an accepted custom for one to say “excuse me” when he sneezed
A B C D

40. If it receives enough rain at the proper time, hay will grow quickly , as grass
A B C D

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 TOEFL PRACTICE TEST
ELI GMU, Jakarta

SECTION 3
READING COMPREHENSION
Time – 55 minutes
(Including the reading of the directions)
Now set your clock for 55 minutes

This section is designed to measure your ability to read and understand short passages
similar in topic and style to those that students are likely to encounter in North
American universities and colleges.

Directions: In this section you will read several passages. Each one is followed by a
number of questions about it. You are to choose the one best answer, (A), (B), (C), or
(D), to each question. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question
and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter the answer you have chosen.

Answer all questions about the information in a passage on the basis of what is stated
or implied on that passage.
Read the following passage:

John Quincy Adams, who served as the sixth president of the United
States from 1825 to 1829, is today recognized for his masterful
statesmanship and diplomacy. He dedicated his life to public service, both in
Line the presidency and in the various other political offices that he held.
(5) Throughout his political career he demonstrated his unswerving belief in
freedom of speech, the antislavery cause, and the right of Americans to be
free from European and Asian domination.

Example I Sample Answer

A B C D

To what did John Quincy Adams devote his life?

(A) Improving his personal life
(B) Serving the public
(C) Increasing his fortune
(D) Working on his private business

According to the passage, John Quincy Adams “dedicated his life to public service.“
Therefore, you should choose (B).

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 TOEFL PRACTICE TEST
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Example II Sample Answer

A B C D

In line 5, the word “unswerving” is closest in meaning to

(A) moveable
(B) insignificant
(C) unchanging
(D) diplomatic

The passage states that John Quincy Adams demonstrated his unswerving belief
“throughout his career.” This implies that the belief did not change. Therefore, you
should choose (C).

Now begin work on the questions.

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 TOEFL PRACTICE TEST
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Questions 1-9
Niagara Falls, one of the most famous North American natural
wonders, has long been a popular tourist destination. Tourists today flock to
Line see the two falls that actually constitute Niagara Falls: the 173-foot-high
Horseshoe Falls on the Canadian side of the Niagara River in the Canadian
5 province of Ontario and the 182-foot-high American Falls on the U.S. side of
the river in the state of New York. Approximately 85 percent of the water
that goes over the falls actually goes over Horseshoe Falls, with the rest
going over American Falls
Most visitors come between April and October, and it is quite popular
10 activity to take a steamer out onto the river and right up to the base of the
falls for a close-up view. It is also possible to get a spectacular view of the
falls from the strategic locations along the Niagara River, such as Prospect
Point or Table Rock, or from one of the four observation towers which have
height up to 500 feet.
15 Tourists have been visiting Niagara Falls in large numbers since the
1800’s; annually visitation now averages above 10 million visitors per year.
Because of concern that all these tourists would inadvertently destroy the
natural beauty of this scenic wonder, the State of New York in 1885 created
Niagara Falls Park in order to protect the land surrounding American Falls. A
20 year later Canada created Queen Victoria Park on the Canadian side of the
Niagara, around Horseshoe Falls. With the area surrounding the falls under
the juridiction of government agencies, appropriate steps could be taken to
preserve the pristine beauty of the area

1 What is the major point that the 2 The word “flock” in line 2 could best be
author is making in this passage? replaced by
(A) Niagara Falls can be viewed from (A) come by plane
either the American or the (B) come in large numbers
Canadian side. (C) come out of boredom
(B) A trip to the U.S. isn’t complete (D) come without knowing what they
without a visit to Niagara Falls. will see
(C) Niagara Falls has had an
interesting history.
(D) It has been necessary to protect
Niagara Falls from the many
tourists who go there

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3 According to the passage, which of
the following best describe Niagara
Falls?
(A) Niagara Falls consists of two
rivers, one Canadian and the
other American.
(B) American Falls is considerably
higher than Horseshoe Falls.
(C) The Niagara River has two falls,
one is Canada and one in the
U.S.
(D) Although the Niagara River flows
through the U.S. and Canada,
the falls are only in the U.S.
4 A “steamer” in line 10 is probably
(A) a bus
(B) a boat
(C) a walkway
(D) a park
5 The expression “right up” in line 10
could best be replaced by
(A) turn to the right
(B) follow correct procedures
(C) travel upstream
(D) all the way up
6 The passage implies that tourists
prefer to
(A) visit Niagara Falls during warmer
weather
(B) see the falls from a great
distance
(C) take a ride over the falls
(D) come to Niagara Falls for a
winter vacation
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7 According to the passage, why
was Niagara Falls created?
(A) to encourage tourists to visit
Niagara Falls
(B) to show off the natural beauty
of Niagara Falls
(C) to protect the area around
Niagara Falls
(D) to force Canada to open
Queen Victoria Park
8 The word “pristine” in line 23 is
closest in meaning to
(A) pure and natural
(B) highly develop
(C) well-regulated
(D) overused
9 The paragraph following the
passage most probably discusses
(A) additional ways to observe the
falls
(B) steps taken by government
agencies to protect the falls
(C) a detailed description of the
division of the falls between
the U.S. and Canada
(D) further problems that are
destroying the area around
the falls
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Questions 10-19
Carbon dating can be used to estimate the age of any organic
natural material; it has been used successfully in archeology to determine
Line the age of ancient artifacts or fossils as well as in a variety of other field.
The principle underlying the use of carbon dating is that the carbon is a part
5 of all living things on Earth. Since a radioactive substance such as carbon-14
has a known half-life, the amount of carbon-14 remaining in an object can
be used to date that object.
Carbon-14 has a half-life of 5,570 years, which means that after that
number of years half of the carbon-14 atoms have decayed into nitrogen-14.
10 It is ratio of carbon-14 to nitrogen-14 in that substance that indicates the
age of the substance. If, for example, in a particular sample the amount of
carbon-14 is roughly equivalent to the amount of nitrogen-14, this indicates
that roughly half of the carbon-14 has decayed into nitrogen-14, and the
sample is approximately 5,570 years old.
15 Carbon dating cannot be used effectively in dating objects that are
older than 80,000 years. When objects are that old, much of the carbon-14
has already decayed into nitrogen-14, and the minuscle amount that is left
does not provide a reliable measurement of age. In the case of older
objects, other age-dating methods are available, methods which use
20 radioactive atoms with longer half-lives than carbon has.

10 This passage is mainly about 12 The pronoun “it” in line 2 refers to

(A) the difference between carbon-14 (A) carbon dating
and nitrogen-14 (B) the age
(B) one method of dating old objects (C) any organic natural material
(C) archeology and the study of ancient (D) archeology
artifacts
(D) various uses for carbon 13 Which of the following is NOT true
about carbon-14?
11 The word “estimate” in line 1 is closest (A) It is radioactive
in meaning to (B) Its half-life is more than 5,000
(A) Understand years
(B) Hide (C) It and nitrogen always exist in
(C) Rate equal amounts in any substance
(D) Approximate (D) It can decay into nitrogen-14

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14 The word “underlying” in line 4 17 The expression “is left” in line 17

could best be replaced by could best be replaced by
(A) Below (A) Remains
(B) Requiring (B) has disappeared
(C) being studied through (C) changes
(D) serving as a basis for (D) is gone

15 It can be inferred from the passage 18 It is implied in the passage that

that if an item contains more
carbon-14 than nitrogen-14, then
the item is
(A) too old to be age-dated with
carbon-14
(B) not as much as 5,570 years old
(C) too radioactive to be used by
archeologists
(D) more than 5,570 years old
(A) carbon dating could not be
used on an item containing
nitrogen
(B) fossils cannot be age-dated
using carbon-14
(C) carbon-14 does not have the
longest known half-time
(D) carbon dating has no known
uses outside of archeology

16 The expression “roughly 19 The paragraph following the

equivalent” in line 12 could best be passage most probably discusses
replaced by (A) how carbon-14 decays into
(A) exactly the same nitrogen-1
(B) similar in all respects (B) various other age-dating
(C) rather ambivalent methods
(D) approximately equal (C) why carbon-14 has such a
long half-life
(D) what substances are part of
all living things

Questions 20-28
The hard rigid plates that form the outermost portion of the
Earth are about 100 kilometers thick. These plates include both the
Line Earth’s crust and the upper mantle.
The rocks of the crust are composed mostly of minerals with
5 light elements, like aluminum and sodium, while the mantle contains
some heavier elements, like iron and magnesium. Together, the crust
and upper mantle that form the surface plates are called the lithosphere.
This rigid layer floats on the denser material of the lower mantle the way
a wooden raft floats on a pond. The rocks are supported by a weak
10 plastic layer of the lower mantle called the asthenosphere. Also like a
raft on a pond, the lithosphere plates are carried along by slow currents
in this more fluid layer beneath them.
With an understanding of plate tectonics, geologists have put

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together a new history for the Earth’s surface. About 200 million years
15 ago, the plates at the Earth’s surface formed a “supercontinent” called
Pangaea. When this supercontinent started to tear apart because of
plate movement, Pangaea first broke into two large continental masses
with a newly formed sea that grew between the large areas as the
depression filled with water. The southern one—which included the
20 modern continents of South America, Africa, Australia, and Antartica—is
called Gondwanaland. The northern one—with North America, Europe,
and Asia—is called Laurasia. North America tore away from Europe about
180 million years ago, forming the northern Atlantic ocean.
Some of the lithospheric plates carry ocean floor and others
25 carry land masses or a combination of the two types. The movement of
the lithospheric plates is responsible for earthquakes, volcanoes, and the
Earth’s largest mountain ranges. Current understanding of the
interaction between different plates explains why these occur where they
do. For example, the edge of the Pacific Ocean has been called the “Ring
30 of Fire” because so many volcanic eruptions and earthquakes happen
there. Before the 1960’s geologists could not explain why active
volcanoes and strong earthquakes were concentrated in that region. The
theory of plate tectonics gave them an answer.

20 With which of the following topic is the 22 The author compares the
passage mainly concerned? relationship between the lithosphere
(A) the contributions of the theory of and the asthenosphere to which of
plate tectonics to geological the following?
knowledge (A) lava flowing from a volcano
(B) the mineral composition of the (B) a boat floating on the water
Earth’s crust (C) a fish swimming in a pond
(C) the location of the Earth’s major (D) the erosion of rocks by running
plates water
(D) the methods used by scientists to
measure plate movement 23 The word “one” in line 19 refers to
(A) Movements
21 According to the passage, the (B) Masses
lithospheric plates are given support by (C) Sea
the (D) Depression
(A) upper mantle
(B) ocean floor
(C) crust
(D) asthenosphere

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24 According to the passage, the 27 Which of the following can be

northern Atlantic Ocean was inferred about the theory of plate
formed when tectonics?
(A) Pangaea was created (A) it is no longer of great interest
(B) plate movement ceased to geologist
(C) Gondwanaland collided with (B) it was first proposed in the
Pangaea 1960’s
(D) parts of Laurasia separated (C) it fails to explain why
from each other earthquakes occur
(D) it refutes the theory of the
25 The word “carry” in line 24 could existence of a supercontinent
be best replaced by
(A) Damage 28 The paragraph following the
(B) Squeeze passage most probably discusses
(C) Connect (A) why certain geological events
(D) Support happen where they do
(B) how geological occurrences
26 In line 32, the word have changed over the years
“concentrated” is closest in (C) the most unusual geological
meaning to which of the following? developments in the Earth’s
(A) Allowed history
(B) Clustered (D) the latest innovations in
(C) Exploded geological measurement
(D) Strengthened

Questions 29-38
Glands manufacture and secrete necessary substances.
Exocrine glands secrete their products through ducts, but endocrine
Line glands, or ductless glands, release their products directly into the
bloodstream.
5 One important endocrine gland is the thyroid gland. It is in the
neck and has two lobes, one on each side of the windpipe. The thyroid
gland collects iodine from the blood and produces thyroxine, an
important hormone, which it stores in an inactive form. When thyroxine
is needed by the body, the thyroid gland secretes it directly into the
10 bloodstream. Thyroid is combined in the body cells with other chemicals
and affects many functions of the body.
The thyroid gland may be underactive or overactive, resulting in
problems. An underactive thyroid can cause hypothyroidism, while an
overactive one causes hyperthyroidism. The former problem, called
15 myxedema in adults and cretinism in children, causes the growth
process to slow down. A cretin’s body and mind do not grow to their full

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potential. Hyperthyroidism, on the other hand, results in extreme

nervousness, an increase in heart action, and other problems.
Either hypothyroidism or hyperthyroidism may result in goiter,
20 or an enlarged thyroid gland. A goiter will appear when the body is not
getting enough iodine. Goiter is less common today, since most people
use iodized salt.

29 The main idea of the passage is 34 The word “former” in line 14 refers
(A) how glands work to
(B) the function and illnesses of the (A) Hypothyroidism
thyroid gland (B) overactive thyroid
(C) secretion with and without glands (C) hyperthyroidism
(D) the illnesses of an overactive thyroid (D) secretion
gland
35 A goiter is
30 The thyroid gland is called an endocrine (A) a person with myxedema
gland because it (B) a swollen thyroid gland
(A) has ducts (C) an underactive thyroid gland
(B) has lobes (D) a chemical
(C) secretes directly into bloodstream
(D) is located in the neck 36 Exocrine and endocrine glands are
distinguished from each other by
31 The word “it” in line 8 refers to whether they
(A) Thyroxine (A) secrete through ducts or without
(B) Blood ducts
(C) Iodine (B) cause hyperthyroidism or
(D) thyroid gland hypothyroidism
(C) cause myxedema or cretinism
32 A cretin is (D) result in an enlarged or
(A) a child with hyperthyroidism shrunken goiter
(B) an adult with an underperforming
thyroid gland 37 In line 1 the word “secrete” is
(C) a young person with hypothyroidism closest in meaning to
(D) an extremely irritable child (A) Indiscernible
(B) Emit
33 Which of the following is a probable (C) Display
result of myxedema (D) Absorb
(A) Sluggishness
(B) Hyperactive
(C) overproduction of thyroxine
(D) perspiration

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38 If a thyroid is not working enough,

the illness is known as
(A) Hyperthyroidism
(B) Hyperactivity
(C) Excretion
(D) Hypothyroidism

Questions 39-50
In recent years, scientific and technological developments have
drastically changed human life on our planet, as well as our views both
Line of ourselves as individuals in society and of the universe as a whole.
Perhaps one of the most profound developments of the 1970’s was the
5 discovery of recombinant DNA technology, which allows scientists to
introduce genetic material (or genes) from one organism into another.
In its simplest form, the technology requires the isolation of a piece of
DNA, either directly from the DNA of the organism under study or
artificially synthesized from an RNA template by using a viral enzyme
10 called reverse transcriptase. This piece of DNA is then ligated to a
fragment of bacterial DNA which has the capacity to replicate itself
independently. The recombinant molecule thus produced can be
introduced into the common intestinal bacterium Escherichia coli,
which can be grown in very large amounts in synthetic media. Under
15 proper conditions, the foreign gene will not only replicate in the
bacteria, but also express itself, through the process of transcription
and translation, to give rise to large amounts of the specific protein
coded by the foreign gene.
The technology has already been successfully applied to the
20 production of several therapeutically important biomolecules, such as
insulin; interferon, and growth hormones. Many other important
applications are under detailed investigation in laboratories throughout
the world.

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39 Recombinant DNA technology consists 44 The word “ligated” in line 10 is

primarily of closest in meaning to
(A) producing several therapeutically (A) Intersected
important biomolecules (B) Cut
(B) giving rise to large amounts of (C) Elevated
protein (D) Bound
(C) introducing genetic material from
one organism into another 45 Which of the following is NOT true?
(D) using a viral enzyme called reverse (A) the foreign gene will replicate in
transcriptase the bacteria, but it will not
express itself through
40 The word “profound” in line 4 is closest transcription and translation
in meaning to (B) the bacterium Escherichia coli
(A) Significant can be grown in large amounts in
(B) Boring synthetic media
(C) Dangerous (C) research continues in an effort to
(D) Secret find other uses for this
technology
41 In line 7, the word “isolation” is closest (D) recombinant DNA technology is a
in meaning to recent development
(A) Destruction
(B) Duplication 46 In line 11, the word “fragment” is
(C) Segregation nearest in meaning to
(D) Study (A) Particle
(B) Reproduction
42 Recombinant DNA technology has been (C) Opposite
used in the production of all of the (D) large piece
following biomolecules EXCEPT
(A) growth hormones 47 The word “capacity” in line 11 is
(B) Escherichia coli nearest in meaning to
(C) Interferon (A) Hormones
(D) Insulin (B) Technology
(C) Ability
43 In line 9, “artificially” is closest in (D) Space
meaning to
(A) Correctly
(B) Synthetically
(C) Artistically
(D) Carefully

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48 Expression of a gene in Escherichia 50 The word “replicate” in line 15 is

coli requires closest in meaning to
(A) the viral enzyme reverse (A) reproduce
transcriptase (B) join
(B) the processes of transcription (C) reside
and translation (D) coexist
(C) production of insulin and other
biomolecules
(D) that the bacteria be grown in a
synthetic media

49 The term “recombinant” is used

because
(A) by ligation, a recombinant
molecule is produced, which
has the capacity of replication
(B) the technique requires the
combination of several types of
technology
(C) by ligation, a recombinant
protein is produced; part of
whole amino acids come from
each different organism
(D) Escherichia coli is a
recombinant organism

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