CONSOLIDATION FOR THE FIRST TERM ENGLISH TEST, GRADE 12

English Test for Grade 12

Time allowed: 50 minutes
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. essential B. habitat C. protection D. priority
Question 2: A. marvelous B. assistance C. armchair D. argument

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. discriminate B. philosopher C. intellectual D. enlightenment
Question 4: A. agricultural B. undergraduate C. disadvantage D. administrative
Question 5: A. emergency B. activity C. vulnerable D. initiative

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 6: I suppose I found it hard at my new school because I just __________ to the situation.
A. didn’t use B. wasn’t used C. used not D. wasn’t getting used
Question 7: In no way __________ that people will be prevented from organizing peaceful protests.
A. this law means B. means this law
C. does this law mean D. this law does mean
Question 8: It’s about time Mrs. Richard apologized to me __________ me a gossip in front of everybody.
A. for having called B. that she called C. of calling D. to have called
Question 9: Da Vinci’s Mona Lisa is __________; if it was destroyed no amount of money could ever
replace it.
A. priceless B. valueless C. worthless D. invaluable
Question 10: Although he __________ to Ernest Hemingway, I think his books are unique.
A. often has been compared B. has often been compared
C. has often compared D. has been often comparing
Question 11: He looked at me as if I __________ from the moon.
A. have just landed B. had just landed C. would land D. would have landed
Question 12: The elaborate bridal costumes of the coastal Indians are __________ from mother to
daughter.
A. handed down B. taken after C. parted with D. put through
Question 13: I can’t believe that Sabina is going to __________ on that parachute jump. Of course, she’s
doing it for charity.
A. bear a charmed life B. risk life and limb
C. raise the alarm D. take sensible precautions
Question 14: As the years passed, Joe’s memories of his terrible experience __________ away, and he
began to lead a normal life again.
A. faded B. backed C. got D. passed
Question 15: People should eat __________ and do ___________ to reduce the risk of heart disease.
A. less fat / more exercise B. less and less fat / the more exercise
C. the less fat / the more exercise D. the least fat / the most exercise
Question 16: We all seem to have a different opinion, so let’s Joey decide, ___________?
A. will we B. do we C. are we D. shall we

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 17: Paris is the ideal place to learn French; it’s a beautiful and hospitable city with Institutions for
high quality linguistic teaching.
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CONSOLIDATION FOR THE FIRST TERM ENGLISH TEST, GRADE 12

A. noticeable B. natural C. affectionate D. friendly

Question 18: The Extension Program first established in 1873 at Cambridge University has successfully
withstood changing popular trends.
A. endured B. sponsored C. stabilized in D. extended

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 19: Slang can be defined as a set of lexical, grammatical, and phonological regularities used in
informal speech.
A. casual B. informative C. situational D. official
Question 20: The emergence of supersonic travel opened new horizons for the military, tourism, and
commerce.
A. simplicity B. profitability C. urgency D. disappearance

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete
each of the following exchanges.
Question 21: Will you have time for some sightseeing?
A. No, I've been here before on business. It's a great city.
B. Yes, I go to the gym and I do a bit of jogging, but only to keep fit. How about you?
C. Yes, it's fantastic. Great location & a comfortable bed - that's all you need, isn't it?
D. No, I'm afraid not. I've got to run to the airport right after the meeting.
Question 22: I'm just here to read for fun. I can't believe I've gone this long without reading The Catcher in
the Rye.
A. Oh, so long. And don’t take it seriously.
B. I love that book! Some people think it's overrated, but I completely disagree.
C. It really was! I knew you looked familiar.
D. Ah, the American Pageant. That film taught me everything I needed to know about American History.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 23: Owing to their superior skill, highly competitive athletes have been known to win contests and
break records even when suffered from injuries, physical disorders, and infections.
A. Owing to B. highly competitive C. have been known D. when suffered
Question 24: Some people believe that humans will never use away all the natural resources of our Earth.
A. use away B. natural resources C. never D. believe that
Question 25: Amelia Earhart, the first woman to fly solo across the Atlantic, disappeared on June 1937
while attempting to fly around the world.
A. to fly solo B. the Atlantic C. on D. attempting
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
What makes a good souvenir?
On my desk at home, I have a collection of souvenirs; objects that remind me of places I have visited
and important events in my life. These objects include a model boat that I saw being carved from a piece of
wood on a Caribbean island, a piece of lava that emerged hot from a volcano in the year I was born, and a
shell (26) __________ on my favourite childhood beach.
Unlike everything else, from which memory and detail fades, it is as if the longer you hold on to
certain objects, the (27) __________ their associations with the past become, and the sharper the
recollections that gather around them. They are, (28) __________, real souvenirs, encapsulations not only
of the place, but of your time in the place. But these days, the term ‘real souvenirs’ sounds like a

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contradiction in terms, and this is because the objects sold to tourists as souvenirs are often cheap mass-
produced imports that have nothing to do with the place at all.
It’s often the (29) ___________ that the best souvenirs, like my shell, are found rather than
purchased, but browsing for souvenirs can also be a fun holiday activity. But if you are buying souvenirs on
holiday this summer, make sure they (30) __________ the reality test. A good souvenir is not just made in
the area where it is bought, it also says something about the culture of that area. It is something made by
local people using sustainable local materials, and because you are effectively supporting the local economy,
it shouldn’t come too cheap, either.
Question 26: A. found out B. picked up C. come across D. bumped into
Question 27: A. wider B. larger C. harder D. greater
Question 28: A. otherwise B. whereas C. however D. therefore
Question 29: A. point B. case C. fact D. truth
Question 30: A. pass B. win C. take D. beat
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 37.
In 1752, Benjamin Franklin made his textbook experiment with a brass key and a silk kite that he
flew in a thunderstorm to prove that lightning and electricity are the same thing. In 1920, a kite-flying
championship for families and individuals was held in London. These two seemingly unrelated events
underscore the fact that kites can be flown for both pleasure and scientific purposes. For example, in the
1800s weather bureaus flew kites to record temperature and humidity at certain altitudes. On one occasion,
ten kites were strung together and flown at a height of four miles to lift men and carry cameras aloft.
The kite's ability to fly depends on its construction and the way that its line is attached. The familiar
diamond-shaped kite flies when its covered face is aligned against the wind flow. The line attached to the
nose of the kite pulls it into the wind, thus creating the necessary angle for the lift force. If the kite’s
construction and the angle of the air stream are correct, the kite will encounter greater pressure against its
face and lower pressure against its back. The difference in the pressure creates a lift that causes the kite to
rise until it hangs level from its bridle. Its angle against the wind should be sufficiently large or small to
create maximum lift to overcome both drag and gravity. The towing point to which the line is attached is
important because it sets the kite’s angle relative to the air flow. Although the kite must be headed up and
into the wind with a velocity of 8 to 20 miles per hour, it can maintain its position through a tail, a rudder, a
keel, vents, or tassels.
Question 31: What is the main topic of the passage?
A. How kites can be utilized. B. Why kites were spurned.
C. What parts kites consist of. D. What makes kites stay high in the air.
Question 32: The word ‘aloft’ in the reading passage is closest in meaning to ___________.
A. in flight B. in the flood C. for the analysis D. for amusement
Question 33: According to the passage, the kite flies when its nose is __________.
A. pointed away from the ground B. pointed into the wind flow
C. balanced with the tail D. aligned parallel to the wind flow
Question 34: What is the necessary condition for the kite to fly?
A. The kite must be sufficiently strong to withstand great pressure.
B. The kite must be diamond-shaped, and the wind of a certain velocity.
C. The pressure against its back must be lower than the pressure against its face.
D. The pressure of the air flow must be lower than the weight of the kite.
Question 35: According to the passage, the line of the kites is important because it ___________.  
A. lifts the kite’s cover and frame into the air space
B. contributes to the shape of the kite and extends it
C. determines the angle between the kite and the air flow
D. conveys the direction of the wind and the air flow

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CONSOLIDATION FOR THE FIRST TERM ENGLISH TEST, GRADE 12

Question 36: The phrase ‘headed up’ in the passage is closest in meaning to ___________.
A. diverted B. directed C. drafted D. dropped
Question 37: The paragraph following the passage most would likely discuss ___________.
A. fiberglass kites flown in competitions B. the cords and wires needed for kite flying
C. elements of kite design and composition D. bowed kites curved on their faces

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 38 to 45.
The official residence of the president of the United States is the White House, located at 1600
Pennsylvania Avenue, in Washington, D.C. The Commissioners of the District of Columbia held a meeting
in 1792 and decided to hold a contest for the best design for the Presidential House. James Hoban, an
architect born in Ireland, was the winner. His bid for the construction of the mansion asked for $200,000, but
the final cost of the building came to twice that amount. The work on the project began during the same
year, and the grounds of approximately one and a half miles west of the Capitol Hill were chosen by Major
Pierre-Charles L’Enfant, who was in charge of city planning. However, the construction continued for
several more years, and George Washington had stepped down as president before the building was
habitable. When John Adams, the second president of the United States and his wife Abigail moved in in
1800, only six rooms had been completed.
The grey sandstone walls of the house were painted white during construction, and the color of the
paint gave the building its name. The building was burned on August 24, 1814, and James Hoban
reconstructed the house for President James Monroe and his family, who moved there in 1817. The north
portico was added to the building in 1829, water pipes were installed in 1833, gas lighting in 1848, and
electricity in 1891. In 1948, inspectors announced that the building was so dilapidated that it was beyond
repair and suggested that it was cheaper to construct a new one than repair the existing dwelling. However,
the national sentiment was to keep the original form intact, and Congress appropriated $5.4 million dollars
for repairs. In 1961, Jacqueline Kennedy launched a program to redecorate the rooms and appointed a Fine
Arts Committee to make choices of furnishing and colors.
The house of the president accords its residents a great deal of space. The living quarters contain 107
rooms, 40 corridors, and 19 baths. The White House contains a doctor’s suite, a dentist’s office, a large
solarium, a broadcasting room, and a two-floor basement for storage and service rooms. The office in which
the president works is not located in the White House, but in a separate building called the West Wing. The
White House stands on 16 acres of parklike land and overlooks a broad lawn, flower gardens, and wood
groves. 

Question 38: The word “contest” in the passage is closest in meaning to __________. 
A. hearing                  B. concourse C. competition          D. computation 
Question 39: What does the passage imply about the cost of the White House construction? 
A. It was proposed at the meeting of the commissioners. 
B. It did not adhere to the original estimate. 
C. It was not included in the architectural design. 
D. It was considered excessive for the presidential home. 
Question 40: The word “grounds” in the passage is closest in meaning to __________.
A. high ground                  B. several lots           C. site             D. hills 
Question 41: It can be inferred from the passage that ___________.
A. George Washington often used the White House steps. 
B. George Washington contributed to the White House design. 
C. George Washington never lived in the White House. 
D. The White House was excluded from the city planning. 
Question 42: The author of the passage implies that the construction of the main White House building
continued __________.

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CONSOLIDATION FOR THE FIRST TERM ENGLISH TEST, GRADE 12

A. up to 1800                 B. after 1800             C. until 1814             D. until 1792 

Question 43: What can be inferred about the White House from the information in the second paragraph? 
A. Few changes occurred in the structure in the first half of the 20th century. 
B. The building was modernized extensively during one decade.
C. Running water was installed in the second half of the 19th century. 
D. Each president added new features to the building’s conveniences.
Question 44: The word “launched” in the passage is closest in meaning to __________.
A. stopped                     B. worked                C. began         D. requested 
Question 45. The passage mentions all of the following White House premises EXCEPT _________.
A. hallways             B. kitchen                  C. medical offices                D. storage rooms 

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to the
original sentence in each of the following questions.
Question 46: As Keanu Reeves became more famous, it was more difficult for him to avoid newspaper reporters.
A. The more famous Keanu Reeves became, the more difficult for him to avoid newspaper reporters it was.
B. The more famous Keanu Reeves became, the more difficult it was for him to avoid newspaper reporters.
C. The more famous Keanu Reeves became, the more difficult for him it was to avoid newspaper reporters.
D. The more Keanu Reeves became famous, the more difficult for him it was to avoid newspaper reporters.
Question 47: The man in that painting reminds me of my uncle.
A. The man in that painting bears a strong resemblance to my uncle.
B. In that painting the man has something similar to my uncle.
C. There are some likeness between my uncle and the man in that painting.
D. My uncle and the man in that painting were very alike.
Question 48: She never lets her daughter participate in an activity unless it is under the supervision of an adult.
A. She always takes her daughter to activities which are supervised by grown-ups.
B. As long as she herself is present at the activity, she permits her daughter to join in.
C. The only activities in which she allows her daughter to take part are those watched over by a grown-up.
D. If an older person is in attendance, she usually agrees to her daughter's participation in activities.
Question 49: Much as George loved traveling in Asia, he decided not to go to Iraq because of his fears of terrorism.
A. Although George liked touring Asia, ever since the threat of terrorism started, he hadn't been to Iraq.
B. George would have gone to Iraq if he hadn't been scared of terrorism so much because Asia was his
favourite travel spot.
C. As Iraq had become a high-risk terrorism spot, George, who normally loved Asia, was afraid to go there.
D. Even though George liked touring Asia very much, he was afraid of the terrorism in Iraq, so he chose
not to go there.
Question 50: Many countries share the view that drastic measures must be taken to stop the pollution of the seas.
A. The pollution of the seas can only be prevented provided that many countries follow the same policy.
B. By putting into practice a series of precautions it is generally believed that the pollution of the seas will
be prevented.
C. A lot of countries agree that it is essential to take strong action to put an end to the pollution of the seas.
D. The seas will, it seems, continue to be polluted unless this agreement is accepted by a majority of the
countries.

The end

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