Basic Course in Biomedical Research: Cycle 1, 2 & 3

Basic
BASIC COURSE IN BIOMEDICAL

RESEARCH
Cycle 1, 2 & 3
MCQs with Answers

Assignment 1
1) Which of the following areas can be included c) Ethics committee approves the main
in health research? study only after successful completion of
i. Improving the health of the population. the pilot study
ii. Predicting progression of a disease in a d) They are small scale studies
patient 6) Before initiating a study involving primary data
iii. Prevention of various diseases collection, the Principal Investigator must
iv. To explore various societal, community ensure that various approvals are obtained.
based and programmatic interventions for Which of the following approvals is absolutely
disease prevention and control mandatory?
a) i and ii a) Scientific committee approval
b) i, ii and iv b) Ethics committee approval
c) All of the above c) Technical committee approval
d) None of the above d) Regulatory authority approval
2) What is appropriate for sample and sample 7) Which is the best source of information on
size? 'effect modifiers' while exploring cause and
a) Should be representative of the population effect relationship in a research study?
[External validity or generalizability] a) Deductive thinking
b) Should be adequate [power to draw b) Thorough review of literature
meaningful inferences] c) Intelligent guessing
c) Both 'a' and 'b' d) Discussing with experienced researchers
d) Neither 'a' nor 'b' 8) The policy makers want to know whether
3) Which of the following statements are correct introduction of pentavalent vaccine in the
regarding defining inclusion and exclusion national program is resulting in reduction in
criteria in a study protocol? the number of Hemophilus influenza cases.
a) They should be vague because this will Which of the following studies will they have
allow greater and easy enrollment to conduct to find an answer?
b) They should be very specific a) Case-control study
c) They should be very large in number b) Field trial
d) It is not important to define exclusion c) Ecological study
criteria in a clinical trial d) Case series
4) Which of the following are examined as part of 9) What is true about Confounders?
regulatory review? a) They affect both study variable as well as
a) Information regarding transfer of funds outcome
and utilization of funds b) Their effect can be minimized by proper
b) Shipment of samples and transfer of data study design and through stratified
outside the country analysis
c) Sharing and protection of intellectual c) Both 'a' and 'b'
property d) None of the above
d) All of the above 10) Which of the following is not a type of study
5) Which of the following statements is not true design?
in case of pilot study? a) Qualitative study
a) They are conducted for developing and b) Observational study
testing adequacy of research instruments c) Retrospective study
b) They establish whether the sampling d) Pilot study
frame and technique are effective 11) Any systematic error in the design, conduct or
analysis of a study that results in an erroneous
Compiled By Dr. Vimesh Mistry (Medical College Baroda) 1

Assignment 1
estimate of an exposure's effect on the risk of rotavirus disease. Which of the following
disease is called: studies will they have to conduct to find an
a) Confounding answer?
b) Bias a) Case-control study
c) Interaction b) Ecological study
d) Stratification c) Field randomized trial
12) Which of the following is not part of ethics d) Case-series
review of a project? 16) What effect does increasing the sample size
a) Informed consent document and have upon the random error?
procedure a) It increases the random error
b) Competence of researcher and institute b) It has no effect on the random error
conducting research c) It reduces the random error
c) Sharing and protection of intellectual d) None of the above
property 17) Which of the following will best describe the
d) Care and support during and after scientific inquiry that seeks to understand the
completion of research acceptability and functionality of a health
13) A study was conducted to assess the program?
extrapyramidal side effects of a new a) Basic science research
antipsychotic drug in patients with b) Translational research
schizophrenia. Many of these patients were c) Clinical research
smokers and some of them were on d) Implementation research
anticholinergic drugs. What was the role of the 18) The following statements describe
anticholinergic drugs in this study? confounding and effect modification. Which of
a) Confounder the statement is/are correct?
b) Random Variable a) In a study of relationship between coffee
c) Effect Modifier drinking and oro-pharyngeal cancer;
d) Independent Variable smoking is a confounder
14) Before initiating a study involving primary data b) In a study to explore relationship between
collection, the Principal Investigator must hepatitis B infection and post-infection
ensure that various approvals are obtained. hepatic sequelae, habit of alcohol drinking
Which of the following approvals is absolutely acts as an effect modifier and patients with
mandatory? this habit may be excluded from the study
a) Scientific committee approval c) ‘a’ and ‘b’ Correct
b) Ethics committee approval d) ‘a’ and ‘b’ Wrong
c) Technical committee approval 19) Issues regarding shipment of samples and
d) Regulatory authority approval transfer of data outside the country are
15) The policy makers want to know whether examined by:
introduction of a new rotavirus vaccine in the a) Regulatory review
national immunization programme is resulting b) Ethics review
in reduction of morbidity and mortality from c) Scientific review

Assignment 1
d) None 26) Health research is usually focused on which of

20) Which of the following disciplines contribute the following areas?
to health research? a) Estimation of disease burden in a
a) Bio-medical research population
b) Biostatistics b) Prevention of common diseases in the
c) Social science research community
d) All of the above c) Evaluation of public health programs
21) Which of the following best describes a study d) All the above
done in a laboratory setting using animals? 27) Which of the following is NOT a component of
a) Translational research a research study?
b) Bench-based research a) Setting up the institute scientific
c) Theoretical research committee
d) Preventive research b) Calculating sample size
22) Which of the following review is NOT essential c) Development of a study tool
before initiating a clinical trial? d) Framing the research question
a) Scientific review 28) A researcher wants to study the relationship
b) Peer review between COVID-19 infection in pregnancy and
c) Regulatory review birth weight. Currently, there is no evidence
d) Ethics review on this topic. Which of the following options is
23) Which of the following is NOT a type of study the scope of this health research?
design? a) Verifying and confirming known
a) Qualitative study information
b) Observational study b) Getting additional or new information
c) Retrospective study c) Evaluating ongoing programs
d) Translational study d) All of the above
24) Which of the following statements is NOT 29) Which of the following is NOT a critical
correct regarding errors in a health research? consideration in planning a health research?
a) Random error is due to chance a) Adequate justification
b) Systematic error is due to bias b) Clear and focused research question
c) Random errors can be eliminated by c) Standard case definitions
improving study design d) Financial gain
d) Bias distorts the study results in one 30) Identify the CORRECT statement about
direction implementation of a research
25) State whether true or false. Assigning roles a) Research findings must be approved by the
and responsibilities to the team members is funder
one of the fundamental principles of a b) Research finding must be error free
research c) Adequate sample size is a prerequisite
a) True d) Pilot study can be done during data
b) False analysis stage
_________

Assignment 2
1) Which of the following is an element of life d) Choose the study design

cycle of research? 7) A clear research question facilitates to do
a) Identify data needs and spell out the the following
research question a) Choose the most optimal design
b) Formulate the objective and design the b) Identify who should be included as study
study population
c) Draw conclusion and give c) Specify the outcomes that should be
recommendation to stakeholders measured
d) All of the above d) All of the above
2) Which of the following verbs is preferably 8) Which of the following statements is
used in the statement of objectives of an incorrect?
analytical research study? a) A good research question should be
a) Estimate Feasible, Interesting, Novel, Ethical and
b) Determine Relevant
c) Study b) A good research question should be in
d) Describe epidemiological terms
3) Source(s) of research question is/are c) A good research question facilitates to
a) Published literature choose optimal design
b) Being alert to new ideas d) A good research question will focus on
c) Careful observation and teaching one issue
d) All of the above 9) The verb "estimate" is used in the objective
4) Which of the following is stated mainly for of analytical research studies
statistical purpose? a) True
a) Research question b) False
b) Objectives 10) The process of refining the "ideas" into
c) Research hypothesis research questions begins with general
d) All of the above uncertainty about a health issue and narrow
5) If your objective is to estimate the down to a specific, concrete researchable
prevalence of a health problem in a issue
community in 2019, Identify the type of a) True
research question this study is addressing b) False
a) Analytical research question 11) Which of the following statement is
b) Descriptive research question incorrect about a good research question?
c) Hypothetical research question a) Research question should advance
d) Experimental research question scientific knowledge, improve practice,
6) What is the first step in the life cycle of influence policy
research? b) Research question should be approved
a) Spell out the research question by the ethics committee
b) Formulate the objective of the study c) Research question should confirms,
c) Identify the data needs refutes or extends previous findings

Assignment 2
d) Feasibility should not be a criterion a) To determine the association of

while developing research question maternal smoking during pregnancy
12) All the following are characteristic of good with respiratory infectious disease
research hypothesis EXCEPT morbidity and mortality in infants
a) Research hypothesis should be simple b) To estimate the lifetime prevalence of
b) Research hypothesis should be devoid mental health morbidities among
of any ambiguity about study elderly people in India
participants and variables c) To describe the pattern of physical
c) Research hypothesis should be focused activity among school going children
on primary objective aged 6-18 years
d) Research hypothesis should be written d) To describe the temporal and spatial
once the study is completed trends of mortality due to
13) Which of the following verb is used in the cardiovascular diseases, by age and sex
statement of objective of a descriptive in India during 2009-2019
research study? 18) All the following are components of 'FINER '
a) Estimate criteria for a research question EXCEPT
b) Determine a) Feasible
c) Examine b) Reliable
d) Compare c) Novel
14) A research question states about what the d) Ethical
results of the study might ultimately 19) Which is the last step in the life cycle of
contribute to that particular field of science research?
a) True a) Spell out the research question
b) False b) Formulate the objective of the study
15) Purely descriptive research questions do not c) Formulate recommendations
require a hypothesis d) Choose the study design
a) True 20) The following are the steps in framing a
research question.
b) False
I. Review of state-of-art information
16) Identify the type of research question if the
II. Define measurable exposures &
objective of a study is "To determine the
outcomes
effect of tobacco cessation services on III. Raise a question
tuberculosis treatment outcomes among IV. Decide worth investigating by peer-
patients with tuberculosis under National review
Tuberculosis Elimination Program"? Choose the correct sequence of framing a
a) Descriptive research question research question from below.
b) Hypothetical research question a) I, II, III, IV
c) Analytical research question b) II, IV, III, I
d) Experimental research question c) I, III, IV, II
d) III, I, II, IV
17) As per the following objectives a hypothesis
21) A clear research question is required in order
should be stated for which study?
to facilitate the following:

Assignment 2
a) To choose an optimal study design 27) Which of the following statement about study
b) To identify the outcomes that need to be objective/s is FALSE?
measured a) Objectives are stated in scientific terms
c) To decide when the outcomes need to be b) Objectives can be primary and secondary
measured c) Each objective is written using multiple
d) All the above verbs
22) Characteristics of a good hypothesis are all, d) Objectives should be specific
EXCEPT: 28) In the life cycle of research, ‘spelling out the
a) There should be no ambiguity about the research question’ is followed by
study variables a) Preparing data collection instrument
b) It should be stated ‘a priori’ b) Formulating study objectives
c) It can be revised based on the study c) Collecting data
findings d) Formulating recommendation
d) It should specify one exposure and one 29) How can the given study objective be
outcome improved? “To understand the anaemia in
23) Which of the following is NOT an ideal source pregnancy”
of a research question? a) Using appropriate action verb
a) Reviewing the published literature b) Specifying the outcome measure
b) Attending conferences where latest c) Specifying the study setting and time
findings are shared period
c) Observing keenly in the out-patient clinic d) All the above
d) Mining existing datasets for research 30) Which of the following is NOT a step in framing
question an ideal research question?
24) Which of the following is TRUE for a a) Literature review
‘Descriptive Research Question’? b) Peer review
a) Involves observations to measure a c) Broadening the initial question
quantity d) Defining measurable outcomes
b) Involves comparison groups
c) Tests the efficacy of interventions
d) Requires hypothesis testing ______________
25) Which of the following characteristics best
describe a good research question?
a) Feasible, Novel, Ethical
b) Feasible, Noble, Ethical
c) Ethical, Novel, Intuitive
d) Fantastic, Novel, Relevant
26) State whether true or false. A research study is
conducted to estimate the seroprevalence of
COVID-19 in Ahmedabad city during April-June
2020. This is an example of analytical research
question.
a) True
b) False

Assignment 3
1) The ability to apply the principles of analysis to c) It is not necessary to address the
identify those studies which are unbiased and weakness of the study in a scholarly
valid is called as manner
a) Critical appraisal d) Sources should be accurately documented
b) Information seeking 7) Critical appraisal is done in an organized and
c) Information management systematic manner
d) Systematic Review a) True
2) A __________ is a collection of articles, b) False
abstracts, scientific proceedings, books, 8) The process of identifying, within a large
citations etc. that is organized so that it can document collection, a subset of documents
easily be accessed while doing literature whose content is most relevant to user's need
review is called as
a) Database a) Information retrieval
b) Critical appraisal b) Information management
c) Hard disk c) Systematic Review
d) Index d) Narrative Review
3) Why should we need to do a literature review? 9) The query system in the information retrieval
a) Save yourself from work process of literature review is
b) Know the subject matter better a) User defined
c) Suggest new research topics, questions b) Provider defined
and methods c) Conditional
d) All of the above d) Not structured
4) The process of scanning the literature 10) In the National Library of Medicine (NLM),
efficiently using manual or computerized MeSH means
methods to identify a set of potentially useful a) Medical Services Heading
articles and books is called as b) Medical Subject Heading
a) Information seeking c) Medical Subject Helpline
b) Critical appraisal d) Medicine Services Helpline
c) Database management 11) In literature review method of identifying
d) Information retrieval studies which are unbiased and valid is known
5) In the Boolean search strategy AND tells that as critical appraisal.
database that you want records that contain a) True
all the words you specify b) False
a) True 12) Choose the correct sequence of the steps of
b) False systematically doing literature search from
6) Which of the following is unethical while below
writing a Literature Review? a) Organize the information, identify the
a) The contents from the studies should be lacunae, develop the research question,
presented honestly synthesize the results
b) The contents from the studies should not
be distorted

Assignment 3
b) Identify the lacunae, develop the research d) Google scholar

question, synthesize the results, organize 17) Literature searches are important to do at the
the information start of a project; and do not need to continue
c) Develop the research question, synthesize throughout the project.
the results, organize the information, a) True
identify the lacunae b) False
d) Organize information, synthesize the 18) Which of the following search query should be
results, identify the lacunae, develop the used to find the articles on chest pain other
research question than angina?
13) All the following about literature review is a) Chest pain AND angina
correct EXCEPT b) Chest pain OR angina
a) It identifies lacunae in the existing c) Chest pain NOT angina
knowledge about a topic d) Chest pain EXCEPT angina
b) It saves valuable time for a researcher 19) A researcher wants to assess effects of
c) It helps the researcher in arriving the polyunsaturated fatty acids (PUFA) on
conclusion of a study diabetes prognosis. For this, the researcher
d) It suggests the researcher about new searches related articles in PubMed and
research topics Google scholar. This process is known as
14) While drafting a scientific manuscript, a) Information retrieval
literature review is useful on the following b) Indexing
section EXCEPT c) Critical appraisal
a) Introduction d) Data management
b) Methods 20) Which of the following about MeSH is
c) Results incorrect?
d) Discussion a) MeSH thesaurus is controlled vocabulary
15) Which of the following about PubMed is produced by the National Library of
incorrect? Medicine
a) PubMed comprises more than 25 million b) It consists of sets of terms naming
citations for biomedical literature descriptors in a hierarchical structure that
b) Citations may include links to full-text permits searching at various levels of
article from PubMed Central specificity
c) PubMed is developed and maintained by c) It is used for indexing and searching of
the National Centre for Biotechnology biomedical and health-related information
Information (NCBI), at the U.S. National d) MeSH is used for EMBASE database
Library of Medicine (NLM) 21) Which of the following is INCORRECT about
d) PubMed is a paid service provider for literature review for a proposed study?
searching of literature a) Begins with a systematic literature search
16) All the following are examples of databases b) Involves critical appraisal of retrieved
a) MEDLINE studies
b) EMBASE c) Presents existing knowledge concisely
c) CINAHL d) Guides the findings of the proposed study

Assignment 3
22) A researcher conducts a review of literature to 27) The organized collection of articles, abstracts,
identify a set of potentially useful articles and scientific proceedings, books, and citations
books related to their research topic. This used for the purpose of literature review, is
process is known as known as
a) Indexing a) Database
b) Critical appraisal b) Data management
c) Data management c) Critical appraisal
d) Information seeking d) Index
23) Literature review is a well thought out and 28) Which of the following does not satisfy the
organized search for all literature published on ethical principles in conducting a literature
a particular topic in a library or online review?
database. a) Results of previous studies are presented
a) True without distortion
b) False b) Weaknesses of previous studies are
24) Which of the following search query in highlighted
PubMed will give relevant articles for the c) Previous studies are accurately cited
following question? “What is the burden of d) Reputation of study authors are
gastroenteritis among children?” questioned
a) Gastroenteritis OR children 29) For which of the following purpose is the
b) Gastroenteritis AND children Boolean operator ‘OR’ commonly used in
c) Gastroenteritis BUT children literature search?
d) Gastroenteritis NOT children a) Connecting synonyms of one key concept
25) Which of the following Boolean operator will b) Connecting different key concepts
give the highest number of results when used c) Connecting keywords which need to be
between two given search terms? excluded
a) AND d) Connecting keywords to narrow down the
b) NOT results
c) OR 30) Medical Subject Headings is a controlled
d) ALL vocabulary thesaurus used for indexing
26) A researcher wants to study the effect of articles in
physical activity on reduction of systolic blood a) PubMed
pressure among patients with hypertension. b) Google scholar
The researcher has identified a subset of c) Scopus
document which are most relevant to the d) Health on Net
research question within a large document
collection. This process is known as
a) Information management __________________
b) Critical appraisal
c) Information retrieval
d) Literature organization

Assignment 4
1) Which of the following must be considered a) Incidence density

while measuring occurrence of a disease? b) Case fatality
a) The number of people affected by the c) Disease specific mortality
disease d) Attack rate
b) The population size from which the cases 8) While measuring the frequency of a chronic
of disease arise disease in a community in terms of Incidence
c) The length of the time the population is per 1000 persons per year, and point
followed prevalence per 1000 persons, what is the
d) All of the above expected pattern of incidence and
2) __________ is most useful for evaluating the prevalence?
impact of prevention programme a) Low prevalence, high incidence
a) Point prevalence b) High prevalence, low incidence
b) Period prevalence c) Both prevalence and incidence will be
c) Case fatality similar
d) Incidence d) None of the above statements are true
3) Which one of the following statements is 9) In a study among 3400 children aged 5-10
true? years, 16 children were diagnosed with
a) High cure rate can increase the autistic disorder. Calculate the prevalence of
prevalence of a disease autism per 1000 children
b) Low case fatality can reduce the a) 4.01
prevalence of a disease b) 5.53
c) Both 'a' and 'b' are true c) 3.35
d) High cure rate and high case fatality can d) 4.71
reduce the prevalence of a disease 10) Statistic used to estimate the risk of acquiring
4) Measures of disease frequency a disease
a) Incidence a) Prevalence
b) Prevalence b) Incidence
c) Birth rate c) Mortality rate
d) 'a' and 'b' d) All of the above
5) A measure that reflects severity of an acute 11) What is the appropriate measure when a
infectious disease researcher wishes to know the burden of a
a) Case fatality ratio particular disease in terms of the number of
b) Incidence rate deaths it causes in a specified geographical
c) Prevalence region and population?
d) Mortality rate a) Incidence density
6) Incidence data can be used to measure the b) Case fatality
occurrence of disease with gradual onset c) Attack rate
a) True d) Disease specific mortality
b) False 12) If health policy makers want to evaluate the
7) This measure reflects the impact of a disease impact of a prevention program, which is the
on population in terms of death appropriate measure to be considered?
Assignment 4
a) Period prevalence incidence per 1000 persons per year and

b) Incidence point prevalence per 1000 persons, how will
c) Point prevalence the pattern of incidence and prevalence be?
d) Case fatality a) High prevalence
13) Select the correct statement among the b) Low incidence
following c) Both prevalence and incidence will be
a) Prevalence of a disease will increase similar
when it has a high cure rate d) Low prevalence and high incidence
b) Prevalence of a disease will decrease 18) Among 25000 population in a city, 105
when it has a low case fatality ratio residents were identified with Hepatitis B
c) Prevalence of a disease will increase infection. Calculate the prevalence of
when it has a low cure rate Hepatitis B per 1000 population.
d) Prevalence of a disease will increase a) 5.2
when it is acute in nature b) 4.2
14) What is the appropriate epidemiologic c) 3.2
measure to determine the severity of an d) 2.2
acute disease? 19) Which of the following condition tends to
a) Incidence rate increase the prevalence of a particular
b) Prevalence disease?
c) Mortality rate a) High cure rate
d) Case fatality ratio b) Low case fatality ratio
15) Cumulative incidence is otherwise known as c) Short duration
a) Attack rate d) Emigration of patients
b) Case fatality rate 20) Which of the following is true about
c) Mortality rate incidence density?
d) Morbidity rate a) Numerator has number of new cases
16) The healthcare professionals working in an b) Also called cumulative incidence
intensive care unit were asked whether there c) Denominator is number of persons at risk
has been an increase in the number of new d) Numerator has person-years at risk
pneumonia cases. Which of the following 21) In a rural block with 1,00,000 population, 250
factor(s) is inappropriate in the calculation of residents were identified with cardiovascular
cumulative incidence? disease. Calculate the prevalence of
a) Number of new cases of pneumonia cardiovascular disease per 1000 population.
during a specific period of time a) 0.2
b) Total number of people at risk of b) 0.5
developing the disease in that population c) 2.5
during the same period of time d) 25
c) Pre-existing cases of pneumonia 22) What is the appropriate epidemiologic
d) Both ‘a’ and ‘b’ measure to determine the burden of a
17) When measuring the frequency for an acute disease in terms of number of cases present
infectious disease in a community in terms of
Assignment 4
in a specified geographical area at a specific 26) In a food poisoning outbreak, 75 people were
point in time? affected. Among them, 50 were hospitalized,
a) Cumulative Incidence and two died. Calculate the case-fatality
b) Point Prevalence ratio.
c) Incidence rate a) 1.2%
d) Case fatality ratio b) 2.7%
23) In a study, 300 children were followed up for c) 4%
a period of one year to determine the burden d) 8%
of acute respiratory infections (ARI). 27) Which of the following is NOT required for
Calculate the incidence density if the total calculating prevalence of a disease?
number of ARI episodes recorded was 1500. a) Pre-existing cases of the disease
a) 5 episodes per child year b) New cases of the disease
b) 0.2 episodes per child year c) Total number of people at risk
c) 3 episodes per child year d) Total person-time of observation
d) 0.5 episodes per child year 28) Which of the following condition tends to
24) A total of 100 people with hypertension were reduce the prevalence of a particular
followed up for 3 years to observe for the disease?
development of myocardial infarction in a a) High cure rate
cohort study. At the end of first year, 10 b) Low case fatality ratio
people developed myocardial infarction, at c) Improved case detection rate
the end of second year, 10 people left the d) Immigration of diseased people
study and at the end of third year, another 10 29) In which of the following conditions,
people developed myocardial infarction. prevalence is an appropriate measure of
Calculate the total person-years of disease frequency?
observation in this study? a) Common cold episodes in elderly
a) 250 b) Number of exacerbations in asthma
b) 260 patients
c) 270 c) Proportion of foot ulcers in Diabetes
d) 280 Mellitus
25) During a one-year follow-up, a psychiatrist d) Number of diarrhoea episodes in children
determined the burden of suicidal ideation 30) Which of the following is INCORRECT about
among 100 patients with drug addiction. case fatality?
Seven patients had previous history of a) It reflects the severity of a disease
suicidal ideation and 20 patients developed it b) High case fatality indicates poor
for the first time. What is the incidence of prognosis
suicidal ideation in the study population? c) It relates the number of deaths to the
a) 7% per year number of cases of a disease
b) 20% per year d) It is a true rate
c) 21.5% per year
______________
d) 27 per year

Assignment 5
1. Study design(s) useful for describing 7. Which one of the following study designs
uncommon clinical manifestations does not employ comparison groups to
a) Case reports answer the primary study objectives?
b) Case series a) Cross-sectional study
c) Both 'a' and 'b' b) Cohort study
d) Ecological study c) Ecological study
2. Cross-sectional studies are used to d) Clinical trials
a) Estimate prevalence 8. Unit of observation in the cross-sectional
b) Generate hypotheses study is
c) Describe trends a) Individual
d) All of the above b) Group
3. In a cross-sectional study, we can observe c) Both 'a' and 'b'
one or more outcomes d) None of the above
a) True 9. Case reports can include presentation of
b) False a) Unique features/symptoms of a
4. Which one of the following is useful to disease
measure the burden or magnitude of a b) Rare manifestation of common
disease or risk factor? disease
a) Case-control study c) New or unfamiliar diseases
b) Cross-sectional study d) All of the above
c) Case report 10. Advantage of the ecological study is
d) Case series a) Relate rate of disease and exposure
5. Which of the following is wrong about b) Useful to test hypothesis
descriptive study designs? c) Useful to study rare diseases
a) Describe the study outcome for 1 d) All of the above
group 11. A researcher can assess the following by
b) Compare the study outcomes for 2 conducting a descriptive study EXCEPT
group a) Population in which the disease was
c) Calculate the incidence for prevalent
surveillance data b) Period in which the disease occurred
d) Calculate prevalence for cross- c) Risk factors of the disease
sectional study d) Place distribution of the disease
6. Descriptive epidemiology study designs 12. The following study design provides
can answer all of the following questions group exposure and group
EXCEPT: response/outcome without knowing the
a) Who? individual exposure and response for a
b) When? specific health problem
c) Where? a) Ecological study
d) Why? b) Cross sectional survey
c) Case report
d) Case series
Assignment 5
13. Which of the following study design will c) Analytical study

be helpful if the department of health d) None of the above
wants to know the burden of a particular 18. One of the major limitations of a cross-
disease? sectional study is that
a) Ecological study a) It is time consuming
b) Cross sectional survey b) It has lower validity
c) Case series c) It does not establish disease etiology
d) Case report d) It requires a large sample size
14. A clinician comes across an unusual 19. Characteristic of a cross sectional study is
presentation of a particular neurological that
disorder. If the clinician describes this a) We can calculate the incidence of a
single case in detail and publishes the disease
same in a journal, then it will be called b) We can test a hypotheses
a) Analytical study c) It is difficult to conduct
b) Case report d) Exposure and outcome are assessed
c) Cross sectional survey at the same time
d) Ecological study 20. If a researcher wishes to estimate the
15. The advantage of an ecological study is incidence of Myocardial infarction cases
that among a group of women using oral
a) It is analytical in nature contraceptive pills followed up for
b) It will cover individual level 10year, the researcher has to carry out
information on risk factors and a) Case series
disease b) Cohort study
c) It will be useful to test hypotheses c) Cross sectional study
d) It will be useful to generate d) Ecological study
hypotheses 21. Case series are useful
16. In a tertiary care hospital, a surgeon a) To estimate burden of a disease
collected information on quality of life b) To determine risk factors of a disease
and outcome among a small group of c) To determine efficacy of a new drug
(about 15) post-operative patients after d) To describe uncommon clinical
using a novel surgical device. But this is manifestation
not sufficient to establish the efficacy of 22. All the following are true about cross-
the surgical device because sectional survey, EXCEPT
a) There is no comparison group a) Individual is the unit of observation
b) There is no information of risk factors b) Involves only incident cases
c) We do not have details of the c) Estimate the burden of a disease
outcome d) It can be used to generate hypothesis
d) We do not have individual level data 23. A detailed presentation of a single case
17. Population census is a which is rare and unfamiliar, is called
a) Cross sectional survey a) Case report
b) Ecological study b) Case series
Assignment 5
c) Ecological study b) Can be used to establish temporality

d) Cross-sectional study of association
24. Which of the following is INCORRECT c) Can be used to estimate disease
about ecological study? burden
a) It relates the rate of disease and d) Can be used to identify factors
frequency of exposure associated with outcome
b) It is an example of observational study 29. State whether true or false. Descriptive
c) It uses individual level data cross-sectional study does not have a
d) It helps in generating hypothesis comparison group.
25. Which of the following is NOT applicable a) True
in a case study? b) False
a) Clinical features 30. Which of the following studies can be
b) Laboratory parameters used to identify the factors associated
c) Socio-demographic background with an outcome?
d) Incidence a) Descriptive cross-sectional study
26. To determine the association between air b) Analytical cross-sectional study
pollution and male infertility, data on air c) Case study
quality index and prevalence of male d) Case series
infertility was collected for 183 countries
for the year 2019. What best describes
the study? __________________
a) Case report
b) Case series
c) Ecological study
d) Cross-sectional study
27. In a medical journal, 18 cases of
Creutzfeldt Jakob disease were reported
from a tertiary care hospital in Sikkim.
The authors of the paper gave a
description of the socio-demographic,
clinical, and laboratory features of the 18
patients. What best describes this study
design?
a) Case study
b) Case series
c) Case control study
d) Ecological study
28. Which of the following is FALSE about
cross-sectional studies?
a) Can be used to generate hypothesis

Assignment 6
1. Exposure is not assigned by the a) True

investigator in the following study design b) False
a) Cohort 8. Which of the following is NOT true
b) Case-control regarding case-control study?
c) Cross-sectional i. Appropriate for study of rare
d) All of the above outcome
2. Which of the following statement(s) is ii. More time consuming than cohort
true about the cohort study? study
a) It is not suitable for disease with a iii. Multiple exposures can be examined
long latency period iv. Relatively expensive compared to
b) Loss to follow up can introduce bias cohort study
c) Both 'a' and 'b' a) Both (i) and (ii)
d) None of the above b) Both (ii) and (iii)
3. Which of the following study design is c) Both (ii) and (iv)
better suited to demonstrate a temporal d) Both (iii) and (iv)
association between exposure and 9. What is an appropriate measure of
disease? statistical association in a cohort study?
a) Cross-sectional study a) Prevalence ratio
b) Case-control study b) Risk ratio
c) Cohort study c) Odds ratio
d) Ecological study d) Pearson's correlation coefficient
4. Relative risk of more than 1 indicates 10. The entire population of a given
a) Incidence in unexposed is higher than community is screened and all those
exposed judged as being free of Colon cancer are
b) Incidence in exposed and unexposed questioned extensively about their diet.
are same These people are then followed-up for
c) Incidence in exposed is higher than several years to see whether their eating
unexposed habits will predict their risk of developing
d) Relative risk is significant Colon cancer - This is an example of
5. If the odds of exposure among cases is a) Case-control study
lower than the odds of exposure among b) Clinical trial
the controls, the odds ratio will be c) Cross-sectional study
a) More than 1 d) Cohort study
b) Less than 1 11. Exposure is assigned by the investigator in
c) It depends on other factors which of the following epidemiological
d) None of the above study?
6. All babies born in a particular year will a) Case-control
form a birth cohort b) Cross-sectional
a) True c) Experimental
b) False d) Cohort
7. Cohort study is suitable for rare diseases
Assignment 6
12. When a group of people with defined b) Both (iii) and (iv)
characteristics are followed up to c) Both (ii) and (iv)
determine incidence is known as d) Both (ii) and (iii)
a) Case series 17. Which of the following statement
b) Cohort regarding the cohort study is FALSE?
c) Case control a) Suitable to study a disease with long
d) Experimental latency period
13. Relative risk is a b) Loss to follow up can introduce bias
a) Rate c) Relative risk can be calculated
b) Ratio d) Temporal association with the risk
c) Proportion factor can be established
d) None of the above 18. Odds ratio of more than one indicates
14. Relative risk of one in a cohort study a) Odds of exposure among cases is
indicates lower than the odds of exposure
a) Incidence in unexposed is higher than among the controls
exposed b) Odds of exposure among cases is
b) Incidence in exposed is higher than equal to the odds of exposure among
unexposed the controls
c) Relative risk is significant c) Odds of exposure among cases is
d) Incidence in the exposed and higher than the odds of exposure
unexposed groups are same among the controls
15. Women aged above 35 years were d) Exposure is negatively associated with
screened for the HPV (Human papilloma the disease
virus) infection and those who had HPV 19. If there is a comparison group in an
infection were then followed for several epidemiological study design, it is called
years to predict the risk of developing a) Descriptive
cervical cancer. This study is known as b) Analytical
a) Prospective cohort c) Ecological
b) Retrospective cohort d) None of the above
c) Case control 20. Which of the following statements about
d) Cross sectional case control/cohort studies is correct?
16. Which of the following is appropriate a) Case control study always establishes
regarding a cohort study? temporal association
i. Multiple exposures can be b) Cohort study establishes temporal
examined association
ii. Appropriate for studying rare c) Cohort has lower level of evidence
exposures than case-control
iii. Expensive and time consuming d) Do case control for rare exposures
iv. Appropriate for studying rare and cohort for rare diseases
diseases 21. To determine the associated factors of
a) Both (i) and (ii) anti-hypertensive drug compliance, an
Assignment 6
investigator selected 384 participants nonhypertensives as non-exposed. The

with hypertension who were undergoing study found an odds ratio of 1.45. Which
treatment in a tertiary care hospital. The of the following is correct?
investigator collected the details on the a) Psoriasis is positively associated with
socio-economic background of the hypertension
participants and took history regarding b) Odds of hypertension among
the consumption of medicines in the past psoriasis patients is lower than the
two weeks. Then the drug compliant odds of hypertension among patients
group and the non-compliant group were without psoriasis
compared to identify factors associated c) Odds of psoriasis among hypertensive
with drug compliance. What is the type of patients is lower than the odds of
the study design? psoriasis among non-hypertensives
a) Case control study d) Hypertension is a causative factor of
b) Prospective cohort study psoriasis
c) Case study 24. A prospective cohort study was
d) Analytical cross-sectional study conducted to determine the association
22. A gynaecology resident intends to between coffee consumption and risk of
determine the association between intra- pancreatitis among 10000 healthy
uterine device (IUD) use and risk of participants. Among the participants
extrauterine pregnancy. The investigator 3500 participants consumed coffee,
recruited 100 cases of extrauterine whereas 6500 participants did not. After
pregnancy and 200 participants who had a follow up of 10 years 85 participants in
intrauterine pregnancy as controls from the coffee consumption group developed
the obstetrics ward of a tertiary care pancreatitis, whereas among the non-
hospital over a period of 2 years. Both coffee consumption group 130 in
cases and controls were interviewed developed pancreatitis. Calculate the
about the history of IUD use. Among the relative risk of pancreatitis due to coffee
cases, 6 participants had history of IUD consumption.
use and among controls, 4 had history of a) 0.04
IUD use. Calculate the odds ratio of b) 0.85
extrauterine pregnancies among women c) 1.21
with history of IUD use? d) 1.50
a) 0.32 25. All the following are elements of a cohort
b) 1.39 study, EXCEPT
c) 3.12 a) It involves calculation of incidence
d) 0.72 rate
23. An investigator conducted a case control b) It proceeds from exposure to
study with psoriasis patients as cases and outcome
other skin disease patients as controls. c) It involves randomization of
Those having hypertension were participants
considered as exposed and
Assignment 6
d) It involves follow-up of the a) Cases are study participants who had

participants the disease in the source population
26. All the following are limitations of a case b) Selection of cases should be based on
control study, EXCEPT the exposure status
a) It can introduce recall bias c) Inclusion of prevalent cases can save
b) Incidence of disease cannot be time and money
determined d) Inclusion of prevalent cases may
c) Selection of appropriate control introduce survivor bias
group may be difficult 30. A multicentric study was conducted to
d) It can introduce attrition bias determine the association between
27. Using medical records from a tertiary care diabetes and cataract. The investigators
cancer hospital, a researcher collected recruited 1000 diabetics and 2500 non-
data on occupational exposure and lung diabetics. The participants were
carcinoma on patients admitted between examined to exclude presence of cataract
2000 and 2010. He classified the patients at the time of recruitment. They were
who had history of working in coal mines followed once yearly for 10 years to
as exposed and others as unexposed. He document the development of cataract.
then compared the frequency of lung The study found that the incidence of
carcinoma among the exposed and the cataract among diabetics was more when
unexposed. What best describes the compared with the non-diabetics.
study design? Identify the study design in this study?
a) Case control study a) Cross-sectional study
b) Retrospective cohort study b) Case control study
c) Cross-sectional study c) Prospective cohort study
d) Analytical cross-sectional study d) Experimental study
28. A paediatrician recruited 120 children
with Crohn’s disease and their matched
sibling controls. The researcher collected ----------------
history of exclusive breastfeeding (EBF)
from the mothers. Presence/ absence of
EBF was compared between the diseased
and the non-diseased children. Identify
the study design in this research?
a) Case series
b) Cross-sectional study
c) Case control study
d) Cohort study
29. Which of the following is INCORRECT
about selection of cases in case control
study?

Assignment 7
1. One of the cornerstones of the randomized 7. The purpose of a double-blinding in a clinical

controlled trials is trial is to
a) Recruitment a) Achieve comparability of all arms of a
b) Randomization clinical trial
c) Blinding b) Avoid observer and participant bias
d) Placebo c) Avoid observer bias and sampling
2. Randomized clinical trials can be best variation
described as d) Avoid subject bias and sampling
a) Experimental studies variation
b) Analytic studies 8. What is the purpose of randomization in a
c) Descriptive studies clinical trial?
d) Observational studies a) Get better power for data analysis
3. Which of the following is/are true in a b) Generalizing the study findings to the
clinical trial? population which is not studied
a) Sample size determination c) Achieve balance in baseline
b) Approval from regulatory authority characteristics
c) Agreement between the investigators d) Guarantee that the statistical tests have
and sponsors valid significance levels
d) All of the above 9. Which phase of a clinical trial is referred to
4. A pharmacologically inactive agent that as post-marketing surveillance?
investigators administer to participants in a) Phase 1
the control group of a trial b) Phase 2
a) Comparator drug c) Phase 3
b) Placebo d) Phase 4
c) Conjugate 10. Long-term adverse effects and efficacy of a
d) Drug under investigation new drug can be tested in which of the
5. Key methodological components of a following phases of a clinical trial?
Randomized Controlled Trials are a) Phase 1
a) Use of a control to which the b) Phase 2
experimental intervention is compared c) Phase 3
b) Random assignment of participants to d) Phase 4
intervention 11. Which of the following is incorrect in case of
c) Taking informed consent from all study a clinical trial?
participants a) All clinical trials must be blinded
d) All of the above b) Randomization is a critically important
6. Double-blinding in a clinical trial involves step in a clinical trial
a) Participants before and after study c) All clinical trials must be approved by
b) Participants and investigators Institutional Ethics Committee before
c) Investigators and analysts initiation
d) Participants and analysis d) It is mandatory to register clinical trials
with Clinical Trials Registry of India
Assignment 7
12. Which of the following procedures ensure 16. In a clinical trial, what is the main purpose of
safety of the clinical trial participants? randomization?
a. Adverse events reporting a) To get more power for data analysis
b. Serious adverse events reporting b) To reduce investigator bias
c. Periodic follow-up c) To get groups with comparable baseline
d. Review by Data Safety Monitoring Board characteristics
1) 'a', 'b', 'c', and 'd' d) To ensure optimum number of
2) 'a', 'b' and 'd' participants in each trial arm
13. All the following correctly describe a clinical 17. Which of the following can eliminate the
trial, except problem of Co-intervention?
a) It has all advantages of a cohort study a) Random sampling
b) It is possible to analyze the confounders b) Allocation concealment
c) Loss to follow up of study participants c) Informed consent
does not affect the study outcome d) Blinding
d) Appropriate implemented informed 18. Which of the following is not true in case of
consent procedure as well as long-term a clinical trial?
care and support to trial participants help a) Clinical trials are planned experiments
to overcome several ethical concerns designed to assess the efficacy of an
14. Which of the following can be considered as intervention
an advantage of a double blinding in a b) Clinical trials usually involve comparing
randomized controlled trial? the outcomes in two or more groups of
a) Equally distributes known and unknown individuals
confounders in experiment and control c) Clinical trials are usually free from
arm selection bias
b) Ensures that participants adhere to the d) Clinical trials are usually prospective in
protocol nature
c) Gives benefits of an intervention to 19. Which of the following trials assesses
some of the study participants effectiveness of a new vaccine?
d) Prevent bias that arises from a) Phase 1 trial done in healthy volunteers
researchers being able to influence the b) Phase 2 trial done in a susceptible
data due to knowledge of allocated population
groups c) Phase 3 trial done in healthy volunteers
15. Biased outcome ascertainment results from: d) Phase 3 trial done in a susceptible
a) Participants reporting symptoms or population
outcomes differently 20. Which of the following is not true about a
b) Investigators eliciting symptoms or randomized control trial?
outcomes following a standardized a) Baseline characteristics of intervention
technique and control groups must be similar
c) None of the above b) Investigator bias can be minimized by
d) Both "a" and "b" double blinding

Assignment 7
c) The sample size depends on the 26. Which of the following is NOT an advantage
hypothesis being tested of randomized controlled trials?
d) Drop outs should be excluded from the a) Provides high quality evidence
analysis b) Controls for selection and confounding
21. State whether true or false. In a randomized bias
controlled trial, the investigator is unaware c) Establishes temporality of association
of the sequence of allocation of the d) Entails minimal ethical issues
participants to one of the study arms before 27. Post-marketing surveillance is done in which
and until the assignment is complete. This of the clinical trial phases?
process is known as allocation concealment. a) Phase 1
a) True b) Phase 2
b) False c) Phase 3
22. Which of the following is NOT a feature of d) Phase 4
randomized controlled trials? 28. State whether true or false. Randomized
a) Simple random sampling controlled trials are retrospective in nature.
b) Randomization a) True
c) Allocation concealment b) False
d) Blinding 29. In a clinical trial conducted by the
23. A research group from a medical college in Orthopaedic department of a medical college
Lucknow conducted a study to assess the in Bhubaneshwar, the investigators
efficacy of a new herbal medicine for the compared the wound healing time between
prevention of pneumonia in elderly. What conventional suturing technique and stapling
type of randomized controlled trial is this technique for open fractures. The
study? investigators, patients and data analysts
a) Screening RCT were aware about the treatment assignment.
b) Diagnostic RCT What best describes this study design?
c) Therapeutic RCT a) Open-label RCT
d) Prophylactic RCT b) Single blind RCT
24. In which type of population is a phase-I c) Double blind RCT
vaccine trial conducted? d) Triple blind RCT
a) Healthy volunteers 30. Blinding in a randomized controlled trial
b) High risk group addresses which of the following biases?
c) Diseased population a) Ascertainment bias
d) Laboratory animals b) Recall bias
25. State whether true or false. Randomization is c) Volunteer bias
a process, where the participants have an d) Attrition bias
equal chance of being assigned to any one of
the study groups.
a) True ---------------
b) False

Assignment 8
1. Obtaining an estimate that is generalizable to c) Adequate sample size

relevant study population in a research study d) Training, Certification and re-certification
is of data collectors
a) External validity 7. Variability in estimation due to
b) Internal validity unknown/uncontrollable factors
c) Bias a) Chance
d) Confounding b) Bias
2. Any process that tends to produce results c) Confounding
that depart systematically from true values in d) Effect modification
a research study 8. All are true regarding confounding in an
a) Chance epidemiological study, EXCEPT
b) Bias a) May simulate an association that does
c) Random error not exist
d) Effect Modification b) May increase or decrease the strength of
3. Systematic selection of more number of association
expose participants with the higher risk of c) May not reveal an association that does
outcome in a cohort study will result in exist
a) Selection bias d) Always change the direction of effect
b) Information bias 9. The method which can used to alleviate
c) Confounding confounding during data analysis in an
d) Random error epidemiological study
4. The effect of the exposure of interest on the a) Multivariate analysis
outcome is distorted because of the effect of b) Restriction
extraneous factors that are related to both c) Matching
the exposure and outcome. This d) Randomization
phenomenon is called 10. To reduce selection bias in case-control
a) Correlation effect studies, all of the following are true EXCEPT
b) Confounding a) Use population based design
c) Recall bias b) Apply different eligibility criteria for
d) Measurement error selecting cases and controls
5. Biases can occur during which stage of c) Both cases and controls undergo the
research study? same diagnostic procedures
a) Study design d) Avoid hospital based design
b) Study implementation 11. Obtaining an accurate estimate of disease
c) Data analysis frequency and effect of exposure on health
d) At any of the above stages outcomes in study population pertains to
6. All are true regarding measures to reduce a) External Validity
information bias, EXCEPT b) Internal Validity
a) Precise operational definitions of all c) Bias
variables d) Confounding
b) Detailed measurement protocols
Assignment 8
12. Blinding in an epidemiological study is a way third factor, ie. smoking. This phenomenon is
to deal with called as
a) Chance a) Correlation effect
b) Selection Bias b) Confounding
c) Information Bias c) Recall bias
d) Sampling Error d) Measurement error
13. Better recall of exposure only among the 18. Which of the following method is used to
cases in a case control study can result in address for known confounders at the
a) Information bias designing stage of a study
b) Confounding a) Matching
c) Investigator bias b) Regression
d) Selection bias c) Stratification
14. The ability of a tool to correctly measure d) Adjusted analysis
what it is supposed to measure is called as 19. Systematic distortion of the truth by study
a) Precision subjects is called as
b) Validity a) Plagiarism
c) Reliability b) Chance
d) Consistency c) Confounding
15. Bias may distort the association between d) Prevarication
exposure and outcome among the study 20. Crude association in the presence of a
participants confounder is the actual causal association
a) True a) True
b) False b) False
16. A case control study was conducted to know 21. Which of the following is the best method of
the effect of smoking on lung cancer among ensuring that the experimental and control
hospitalized patients. The controls were arms in an experimental study are similar
recruited from patients admitted to the with regard to known and unknown
respiratory ward for other conditions. What confounders at the planning stage?
type of bias will be introduced by virtue of a) Matching
recruiting controls from the hospital who are b) Randomization
potentially different from the general c) Stratification
population? d) Multivariate analysis
a) Selection bias 22. When the study finding is generalizable to the
b) Information bias target population, then it is
c) Confounding a) Internally valid
d) Random error b) Reliable
17. A researcher studied the effect of coffee c) Accurate
drinking on Myocardial Infarction. The effect d) Externally valid
of coffee drinking on Myocardial Infarction 23. Which of the following can introduce
was distorted because of the presence of a selection bias in a case control study?

Assignment 8
a) Differential recall about exposure by the d) Confounding may change the direction of
cases an exposure-outcome association
b) Collecting data differently from the 28. Systematic collection of data by an
exposed and unexposed investigator supporting an expected
c) Inclusion of controls not representative conclusion in an epidemiological study may
of the target population result in
d) Systematic distortion of the truth by the a) Confounding
study participants b) Information bias
24. Which of the following is TRUE about c) Selection bias
information bias in a cohort study? d) Random error
a) It is caused by higher attrition rate among 29. Which of the following is NOT a method of
the exposed group dealing with confounding during the design
b) It can be caused by selecting controls stage?
from the community a) Restriction
c) It can be avoided by uniform outcome b) Stratification
ascertainment c) Matching
d) It can be minimised by reducing loss to d) Randomization
follow-up 30. A cohort study was conducted to examine the
25. Which of the following is NOT a systematic association between obesity and
error in an epidemiological study? cardiovascular disease. During analysis,
a) Random error gender was suspected to be a confounder.
b) Confounding Which of the following methods will help in
c) Selection bias examining the confounding effect due to
d) Information bias gender?
26. Which of the following measure is related to a) Matching
ensuring the internal validity of a study? b) Restriction
a) Using a validated study questionnaire to c) Randomization
assess outcomes d) Multivariate regression
b) Including an adequate number of study
participants
c) Complying strictly with the study protocol
d) All the above
27. Which of the following is FALSE about -------------------------
confounding in epidemiological studies?
a) Confounding may simulate an association
when it does not exist
b) Confounding does not increase or
decrease the strength of the association
c) Confounding may hide an association that
exists

Assignment 9
1. Which methods in qualitative research use b) To seek the depth of understanding

flexible interview guide? c) Exploration of behaviors
a) In depth Interviews and participant d) View the social phenomenon holistically
observation 7. The main methods used in qualitative
b) Focus Group Discussions and In-depth research method include all EXCEPT
interviews a) In-depth Interviews
c) Participant Observation and focus group b) Focus Group Discussions
discussions c) Participant observation
d) Structure interviews and surveys d) Structured questionnaire based
2. Which of the following study designs can be interviews
used as a tool a generate ideas/hypotheses? 8. The observer becomes a part of the group or
a) Qualitative study event in this method of qualitative study
b) Case-control study a) In-depth Interviews
c) Experimental study b) Focus Group Discussions
d) Cohort study c) Participant observation
3. The qualitative data analysis method in d) Structured interviews
which investigators code text into categories 9. All the statements regarding Participant
and build theoretical models Observation is true EXCEPT
a) Content analysis a) Observer becomes a part of the
b) Grounded theory event/group
c) Schema analysis b) Systematic collection of data is easy
d) Hermeneutics c) Analytic methods for observation are not
4. Open-ended, one-to-one interviews to well described
discover interviewee's own framework of d) Data is very detailed
meanings 10. The qualitative data analysis method which
a) In-depth Interviews uses theoretical framework as the basis for
b) Focus Group Discussions analysis
c) Participant observation a) Content analysis
d) Structured interviews b) Grounded theory
5. Audio recordings during Focus Group c) Schema Analysis
Discussions d) Hermeneutics
a) Can be done without any prior informed 11. Which of the following are characteristics of
written consent qualitative research methods?
b) Cannot be done a) Objective, measurable, reliable and
c) Should always be done repeatable
d) Can be done with prior informed consent b) Subjective, measurable, credible and
6. All of the following are situations in which repeatable
qualitative research methods can be used, c) Subjective, credible, inductive and
EXCEPT interpretation of responses
a) Familiar and sufficiently researched d) Objective, credible, inductive and
matter interpretation of responses
Assignment 9
12. The research method which is best suited for 17. In qualitative research, researchers interpret
collection of information regarding highly the social reality from the participants’ point
sensitive matters such as alcohol use of view.
a) Focus Group Discussions a) True
b) Participant Observation b) False
c) In-Depth Interview 18. Which of the following statements is
d) Group discussions “Incorrect” about in-depth interviews?
13. Which of the following is not the utility of a) Findings are always generalizable
qualitative research b) The transcripts are time consuming to
a) To provide insight to why people behave analyze
in a certain way c) Helps understand sensitive issues
b) To estimate the prevalence of disease d) Useful when participants are
c) To help understand the results of a knowledgeable on a particular topic
quantitative study 19. Which of the following statement is “False”
d) For developing a questionnaire about focus group discussion.
14. Which of the following statement is true a) Focus group discussions help understand
regarding Participant Observation local terminologies
a) Observer becomes a part of the b) Group interaction is integral for an
event/group effective discussion
b) Systematic collection of data is easy c) Heterogeneity of the group is a pre-
c) Analytic methods for observation are well requisite
described d) Audio and video recordings are done with
d) Data is brief as compared to in-depth prior consent
interviews 20. Triangulation is the use of multiple methods,
15. Open ended group interviews that promotes multiple theories and or multiple sources for
discussion among participants is called as a comprehensive understanding of the topic
a) In depth Interviews in question
b) Focus Group Discussions a) True
c) Participant Observation b) False
d) Structured interviews 21. Which of the following characteristics is NOT
16. A researcher decided to conduct a study to related to qualitative research data?
explore the child feeding practices among a) Subjective validity
mothers of under five children in a b) Data is in text form
community. Which of the following c) Hypothesis testing is a goal
qualitative techniques can the researcher d) It involves interpretation of responses
employ to gather wide range of information 22. Which of the following CANNOT be done
on the topic in a short span of time? using qualitative research?
a) Structured interview a) Viewing a social phenomenon holistically
b) In depth Interview b) Estimating the burden of a disease
c) Participant Observation c) Seeking in-depth understanding of a
d) Focus Group Discussion phenomenon
Assignment 9
d) Unfamiliar subject matter b) The researcher himself becomes a part

23. A researcher wants to estimate the of the study group
prevalence of exclusive breast feeding in a c) Data obtained is very concise
remote tribal population. She also wants to d) The researcher interviews each
understand the myths and taboos participant in detail
associated with breast feeding. Which of the 29. State whether true or false. Data obtained
following approaches can be employed in from Focus Group Discussion may be
this scenario? sensitive to biased analysis.
a) Qualitative study a) True
b) Clinical trial b) False
c) Mixed-methods study 30. The analytical approach where the
d) Cross-sectional study researcher proceeds to develop a theory
24. Which of the following is NOT a data based on learnings obtained from the data is
collection method used in qualitative called
research? a) Grounded theory analysis
a) Interviews b) Content analysis
b) Sociogram c) Schema analysis
c) Participant observation d) Factor analysis
d) Focus group discussion
25. Which of the following is NOT a feature of
‘In-depth interviews’? ------------------
a) It involves two or more participants at a
time
b) It follows an interview guide
c) It is suitable for a highly sensitive topic
d) It obtains rich contextualized information
26. Which of the following is an advantage of
conducting ‘in-depth interviews’?
a) It expresses the ‘Emic’ perspective
b) It is generalizable
c) It is a quick process
d) It uses a systematic sampling approach
27. State whether true or false. In a focus group
discussion, it is easy to obtain personal
behaviors on a sensitive issue
a) True
b) False
28. Which of the following is TRUE regarding
‘participant observation’ method?
a) It is easy to analyze the data

Assignment 10
1. In a study on hypertension, patients are a) True

categorized based on their systolic blood b) False
pressure as normal, pre-hypertension, stage 8. In a study, researchers are interested in
1 hypertension and stage 2 hypertension. measuring the cholesterol levels of
What type of variable is this? participants. Cholesterol level is a ________
a) Qualitative variable
b) Descriptive a) Ordinal
c) Nominal b) Nominal
d) Ordinal c) Continuous
2. Most commonly used measure of central d) Discrete
tendency is 9. In the following set of data, what is the
a) Mode mean? 4,1,9,7,3,8,2,6
b) Median a) 5
c) Mean b) 4.5
d) Range c) 9
3. First quartile (Q1) is equivalent to d) 8
__________ percentile 10. Difference between the minimum value and
a) 25th the maximum value of the observations
b) 50th a) Variance
c) 75th b) Inter-quartile range
d) 1st c) Range
4. Find the median in the following sample of d) Standard Deviation
observations: 12, 26, 10, 29, 48 11. All the following are measures of dispersion
a) 29 except
b) 48 a) Mean
c) 26 b) Variance
d) 25 c) Standard deviation
5. The following measure is not influenced by d) Range
extreme values in a data set 12. Which percentile is equivalent to the
a) Arithmetic Mean median?
b) Inter-quartile range a) 25
c) Range b) 50
d) 'b' and 'c' c) 75
6. Which of the following statistic does not d) 100
belong with the others? 13. All the following are true for standard
a) Range deviation (SD) EXCEPT
b) Variance a) It is the square root of the average of the
c) Mode squared deviations of the observations
d) Standard deviation from the arithmetic mean
7. 'Number of children per household' is an b) It is the most important measure of
example of a continuous variable dispersion
Assignment 10
c) It is expressed in the same units of 18. In a study, a researcher was interested in

measurement as the observation measuring the hemoglobin levels of 10
d) The square of the standard deviation is participants. The values are 10.0, 8.5, 12.0,
called mean deviation 14.0, 11.5, 13.5, 9.0, 12.0, 11.3, 7.5. What is
14. A researcher measures fasting blood level of the mode of this distribution?
glucose of 100 participants. The mean blood a) 7.5
sugar level was measured as 110 mg/dl. The b) 12.0
standard deviation was 11 mg/dl. Calculate c) 10.9
the coefficient of variance. d) 14.0
a) 20% 19. All the following are examples of a nominal
b) 14% variable EXCEPT
c) 10% a) Gender
d) 25% b) Age
15. A researcher measures the height of 100 c) Place of residence
school going children for his study. What type d) Colour of eyes
of variable is ‘height’? 20. Which of the following is true about inter-
a) Nominal quartile range?
b) Ordinal a) It describes the middle value of the
c) Continuous distribution
d) Discrete b) It divides the distribution into two halves
16. A chest physician observed the distribution of c) It covers the middle 50% of observations
forced expiratory volume (FEV) in 100 d) It is affected by the extreme values in the
Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary disease distribution
(COPD) patients and calculated a median 21. When the data set contains too many
value of 2.0 litres. The value of first and third extreme values, the most representative
quartile of the distribution was 1.5 litres and average value is
3.0 litres respectively. Based on this data how a) Mean
many patients in the sample are expected to b) Mode
have a FEV between 1.5 and 3.0 litres? c) Median
a) 100 d) Variance
b) 50 22. The age of ten pregnant women who visited
c) 25 an ANC clinic is given. What is the mean age
d) 75 of this group? (26, 31, 25, 26, 30, 27, 25, 32,
17. The average of the absolute deviations of the 25 and 33 years).
observations from the arithmetic mean is a) 45
known as b) 28
a) Variance c) 25
b) Inter-quartile range d) 32
c) Mean deviation 23. Which of the following is a relative measure
d) Standard deviation of dispersion when comparing variables
which are measured in different units?
Assignment 10
a) Inter-quartile range b) It gives the number of observations

b) Coefficient of variation bearing the same value
c) Range c) It is the difference between the
d) Standard deviation minimum and maximum value
24. The following scores were obtained by ten d) It shows the degree to which the mean
medical students in a quiz: (5, 3, 6, 8, 7, 8, 3, value differs from its expected value.
11, 6, 3) What is the median score of this 29. In a survey, socio-economic status (SES) was
group? collected in the following manner – ‘Lower,
a) 3 Lower Middle, Upper Middle and Upper’.
b) 6 What type of variable is SES?
c) 8 a) Ordinal
d) 11 b) Nominal
25. ‘Height of the students in a particular class c) Continuous
measured in centimeter’ is an example of a d) Discrete
continuous variable 30. Body weights of 11 children who attended a
a) True pediatric OPD was measured. For this group,
b) False the first quartile, median, mean and third
26. What is the appropriate measure of quartile were 8.5, 12, 11.9 and 16,
dispersion to report when median is reported respectively. Calculate the Interquartile
as the measure of central tendency for a Range.
given set of data? a) 3.5
a) Standard deviation b) 7.5
b) Inter-quartile range c) 0.1
c) Variance d) 24.5
d) Coefficient of variance
27. In the NCD clinic of a primary health Centre,
fasting blood sugar (in g/dL) of 11 patients
was measured. The following values were
obtained - (85, 93, 104, 108, 105, 120, 129, -----------------------------
202, 160, 400, 410). What is the most
appropriate measure of central tendency for
this data?
a) Mean = 120
b) Median = 120
c) Mean = 174.1
d) Median = 174.1
28. Which of the following about ‘Range’ is
TRUE?
a) It indicates the way in which values
cluster about a particular point

Assignment 11
1. The process by which some members of a b) The sampling unit is group of subjects
population are selected as representative of c) Sampling error is difficult to measure
the entire population is known as d) Resources required are less
a) Census 7. Methods used in probability samples are
b) Sampling a) Stratified sampling
c) Survey b) Multi-stage sampling
d) Randomization c) Cluster sampling
2. Sampling based upon equal chance of d) All of the above
selection is called 8. All the following statements are true
a) Stratified random sampling regarding simple random sampling EXCEPT
b) Simple random sampling a) Sampling error is easily measurable
c) Systematic sampling b) It needs a complete list of all units
d) Subjective sampling c) It ensures equal chance of selection for
3. A researcher wishing to draw a sample from each unit
sequentially numbered houses uses a d) It always achieves best
random starting point and then selects every representativeness
6th houses, s/he has thus drawn a ________ 9. People who volunteer or who can be easily
sample recruited are used in a sampling method
a) Sequential called
b) Systematic a) Cluster sampling
c) Simple random b) Multi-stage sampling
d) Stratified c) Convenience sampling
4. The following statement is correct regarding d) Systematic sampling
sampling error 10. Based on the number of cigarettes per day, a
a) Sampling error is difficult to measure in researcher divides the population into three
simple random sampling risk groups for lung cancer (low, moderate,
b) Sampling error is easy to measure in high risk). If the researcher then draws a
stratified sampling random sample from each of these risk
c) The magnitude of error can be measured groups independently, s/he has created a
in non-probability samples _________ sample
d) The magnitude of error can be measured a) Systematic
in probability samples b) Simple random
5. The only sampling method allows to draw c) Stratified
valid conclusions about the population is d) Group data
a) Non-probability sampling 11. All the following are non-probability sampling
b) Convenience sampling methods EXCEPT
c) Probability sampling a) Convenience sampling
d) Subjective sampling b) Snowball sampling
6. All the following are true regarding cluster c) Quota sampling
sampling EXCEPT d) Systematic sampling
a) It needs a complete list of units
Assignment 11
12. In a study to measure the prevalence of c) The selected sampling units are likely to
fluorosis in a district, towns are sampled first. be more representative than simple
This is followed by a sample of wards within random sampling
the selected towns, and finally a sample of d) It is a type of non-probability sampling
households within the selected wards. What 18. A researcher planned a cross-sectional study
is the type of the sampling used here? to assess the level of satisfaction of patients
a) Multistage sampling attending a clinic. For this, the researcher
b) Systematic random sampling selected the first 100 patients who visited the
c) Simple random sampling clinic starting from a fixed date. What is the
d) Convenience sampling type of the sampling mentioned in this case?
13. The magnitude of sampling error can be a) Snowball sampling
measured in probability sampling. b) Purposive sampling
a) True c) Simple random sampling
b) False d) Stratified random sampling
14. All the following statements are true 19. The list of all individuals in the study
regarding stratified sampling EXCEPT population from whom study participants in
a) It classifies population into homogeneous a research are to be selected is known as
subgroups a) Sampling frame
b) The probability of a participant being b) Study population
selected is unknown c) Sampling unit
c) The sampling error is difficult to measure d) Study sample
d) It allows inclusion of representative 20. Which of the following is an advantage of
participants from all subgroups multistage sampling?
15. Which of the following is true about non- a) Sampling error is easy to measure
probability sampling? b) It does not require a complete list of the
a) It removes the possibility of bias in total population
selection of participants c) It requires only one sampling list
b) Sampling error can be measured d) It always achieve the best representative
c) Quota sampling is a type of non- sample
probability sampling 21. Which of the following sampling method
d) Inferences drawn from non-probability ensures that valid conclusions can be drawn
sampling can be generalized about different subgroups in a population?
16. Random sampling in probability samples a) Simple random sample
reduces the possibility of selection bias b) Systematic random sample
a) True c) Stratified random sample
b) False d) Cluster random sample
17. Which of the following statement is true 22. Which of the following about simple random
regarding systematic random sampling? sampling method is FALSE?
a) Sampling error cannot be measured a) It needs a complete list of the units in the
b) The chance of selection for each sampling target population
unit is unknown
Assignment 11
b) Purposive sampling is a type of simple 28. Which one of the following statements about
random sample multistage sampling is TRUE?
c) It draws units from the target population a) It saves resources as compared to simple
randomly random sampling
d) It gives equal chance of selection to every b) It requires a complete listing of the entire
unit in the target population population
23. Sampling achieves c) It’s sampling error can be easily measured
a) Efficient utilization of resources d) It is not suitable for sampling from a large
b) Elimination of random error population
c) Low non-response rate 29. Which one of the following about stratified
d) Complete enumeration of population random sampling is FALSE?
24. In simple random sampling, the probability of a) Units within a strata are homogenous
selection of each individual is b) Sample is taken from every strata
a) Unequal c) Precision improves with low numbers
b) Equal sampled in each stratum
c) Unknown d) Stratum specific estimates are weighted
d) One to obtain the overall estimate
25. Which one of the following biases is 30. State whether True or False: Commonly used
prevented by an appropriate sampling statistical inferences have the assumption of
technique? a probability sample.
a) Volunteer bias a) True
b) Interviewer’s bias b) False
c) Social desirability bias
d) Recall bias
26. In a neighborhood with 5000 houses, a -------------------------
researcher wants to obtain a systematic
random sample of 50 houses. What will be
the sampling interval in this case?
a) 1000
b) 100
c) 0.1
d) 0.01
27. Which one of the following statement about
cluster sampling is FALSE?
a) Units within a cluster are heterogeneous
b) Sampling frame of the entire study area is
not required
c) Variability between clusters is assumed
to be high
d) Sampling error is difficult to measure

Assignment 12
1. Statistical power is defined as the probability 7. In general, sample size formula takes into
of account the crude association between
a) Accepting a null hypothesis when it is exposure and outcome as well as the
false confounders
b) Rejecting a null hypothesis when it is true a) True
c) Rejecting a null hypothesis when it is b) False
false 8. Design effect of 'more than 1' needs to be
d) Failing to reject a null hypothesis when it considered in studies involving
is false a) Cluster sampling
2. Steps in the estimation of sample size b) Simple random sampling
included all of the following EXCEPT c) Stratified random sampling
a) Identify major study variable d) Non-probability sampling
b) Decide on the desired precision of the 9. Which of the following is necessary in sample
estimate size determination?
c) Adjust for population size a) Desired confidence level
d) Adjust for selection bias b) Desired precision
3. A type-II error occurs when c) Magnitude of the population variance
a) The null hypothesis is rejected when it is d) All of the above
false 10. Which one of the following statements is
b) The null hypothesis is not rejected when false?
it is false a) Design effect is a relative change in the
c) The null hypothesis is not rejected when variance due to use of clusters
it is true b) As the magnitude of the expected effect
d) The null hypothesis is rejected when it is increases, the required sample size
true increases
4. Exact calculation of design effect for a study c) The population variance is unknown in
parameter can take place you after study general and has to be estimated
completion d) Larger the sample size, smaller the
a) True sampling error
b) False 11. A type-I error occurs when
5. Population variance can be estimated from a) The null hypothesis is rejected when it is
a) A pilot study false
b) Reports of previous studies b) The null hypothesis is not rejected when
c) Guessing it is false
d) 'a' and 'b' c) The null hypothesis is not rejected when
6. The recommended minimum level of power it is true
for an analytical study d) The null hypothesis is rejected when it is
a) 5% true
b) 95% 12. Which of the following is true about β error?
c) 80% a) It is the probability of correctly rejecting
d) 0.05% the null hypothesis when it is false
Assignment 12
b) It is the probability of accepting the null 18. The following are needed to calculate sample
hypothesis when it is false size for analytical studies using simple
c) It is the probability of rejecting the null random sampling method EXCEPT
hypothesis when it is true a) Desired value for the probability of α
d) It is the probability of making a Type I b) Magnitude of the expected effect based
error on previous studies
13. All the following are essential statistical c) Desired value for the probability of β
considerations for sample size calculation d) Estimated design effect
EXCEPT 19. A researcher wants to estimate the
a) Desired precision prevalence of surgical site infection following
b) Anticipated proportion of factor of cesarean section at a tertiary care hospital.
interest What would be the minimum number of
c) Sampling method sample size to estimate the magnitude of
d) Allocated budget surgical site infection following cesarean
14. For each confounder/variable added in the section if it is estimated that the proportion
study empirically 10% increase in the sample of surgical site infection will be 10% in the
size should be made. hospital considering 5% absolute precision
a) True and 95% confidence level (Z α/2 = 1.96).
b) False a) 100
15. The design effect should be calculated after b) 138
completion of the study and it, need not be c) 148
counted at the design stage. d) 158
a) True 20. Precision is described as a measure of how
b) False close an estimate is to the true value of a
16. When estimating sample size for a cross- population parameter.
sectional study, we need to account for a) True
a) Expected proportion of characteristic of b) False
interest 21. In a cross-sectional study, a group of
b) Estimated design effect, in case of cluster researchers wanted to estimate the
sampling prevalence of cephalosporin-resistant E.coli
c) Population size among adult males with urinary tract
d) All the above infections. From previous literature, the
17. The power of a study prevalence was found to be 6.5%. If the
a) Does not influence the sample size researchers want to estimate the prevalence
b) Represented as ‘α’ with a 20% relative precision and 95%
c) Can be defined as the probability of significance level, what is the minimum
correctly rejecting null hypothesis when sample size required?
it is false a) 1042
d) Represented as the probability of making b) 1381
a Type I error c) 6
d) 600
Assignment 12
22. Which of the following factors is NOT 27. Ability of a study to detect correctly the
essential for calculating sample size for a presence of an association is known as
single mean estimation? a) Precision
a) Need for statistical significance b) Power
b) Assumptions about population standard c) Confidence
deviation d) Significance
c) Precision 28. Standard deviation of a sampling distribution
d) Significance level is called systematic error
23. Adjustments to a calculated sample size need a) True
NOT be done for which of the following b) False
reasons? 29. Design effect is considered for which of the
a) Non-response rate following sampling strategy?
b) Finite population size a) Cluster sampling
c) Cluster design b) Simple random sampling
d) Hospital-based study c) Stratified random sampling
24. State whether true or false. A pilot study can d) Non-probability sampling
be conducted to get an estimate of the 30. In a hospital based cross-sectional study, it is
expected prevalence of the disease being planned to estimate the mean D-dimer level
studied to calculate the minimum required among COVID-19 patients. From previous
sample size. literature, the standard deviation was found
a) True to be 200 ng/mL. If the researchers want to
b) False estimate the mean with a 50 ng/mL precision
25. A cross-sectional study aims to estimate the and 95% significance level, what is the
prevalence of Hydatid liver disease among minimum sample size required?
patients undergoing Ultrasonography in a a) 62
tertiary care hospital. Which of the following b) 16
is NOT required for calculating the minimum c) 31
required sample size for this objective? d) 248
a) Significance level
b) Assumed prevalence
c) Precision
d) Population variance
26. What is Type I error? --------------------------
a) The probability of accepting the null
hypothesis when it is false
b) The probability of rejecting the null
hypothesis when it is true
c) The probability of rejecting the null
hypothesis when it is false
d) The probability of accepting the null
hypothesis when it is true
Assignment 13
1. Selection of study participants depends on c) The degree to which a test actually

a) Representativeness measures what it is designed to measure
b) Acceptable cost d) The degree to which the findings are
c) Adequate size reliable
d) All of the above 7. Participants may be excluded from the study
2. Target population is determined by because of
a) Demographic characteristics a) Interference with the success of study
b) Temporal characteristics follow-up
c) Clinical characteristics b) Ethical concerns
d) 'a' and 'c' c) Interference with the quality of data
3. Study sample is a subset of accessible collection or non-acceptance to participate
population in the study
a) True d) All of the above
b) False 8. While choosing the accessible population and
4. Representativeness of a study sample refers to the sampling approach for selection of study
a) The extent to which the characteristics of population, an important factor that we need
the sample accurately reflect the to consider is
characteristics of the population a) Simplicity
b) The size of the sample which is large b) Technology
enough c) Feasibility
c) Volunteering nature of the subjects from d) Reliability
the population 9. If your research question is related to
d) The extent to which the characteristics of diagnosis, treatment or prognosis of a severe
exposed population accurately reflect the medical condition, then it is an easy and cost-
characteristics of unexposed sample effective way to recruit the study population
5. Non-response in a study can be minimized by from the community
a) Repeat contact of the study participants a) True
b) Providing compensation for participants b) False
time 10. Reasons for interference with the success of
c) Less invasive and less sensitive follow-up in a study may include
questionnaires a) Migration of some study participants from
d) All of the above the study area
6. External validity means b) Marriage of some of the female study
a) The degree to which the inferences drawn participants because of which they might
from a study can be generalized to a move out of the study area
broader population beyond the study c) Refusals for follow-up
population d) All of the above
b) The degree to which the observed findings 11. The population defined by clinical and
lead to correct inferences about demographic characteristics is called
phenomena taking place in the study a) Target population
sample b) Accessible population
Assignment 13
c) Subset b) The degree to which a test actually

d) Study sample measures what it is designed to measure
12. The population defined by geographical and c) The degree to which the inferences drawn
temporal characteristics is called as from a study can be generalized to a
a) Target population broader population beyond the study
b) Accessible population population
c) Subset d) The degree to which the findings are
d) Sample size reliable
13. Random errors can be effectively handled by 18. The degree to which the observed findings lead
a) Randomisation to correct inferences about phenomena of
b) Representativeness interest in the study sample is
c) Adequate sample size a) Reliability
d) All of the above b) Feasibility
14. A researcher found an inference about a c) Internal validity
particular disease of interest. If he/she wants d) External validity
to generalize the results, it is important to have 19. Which factor is important to consider while
a) Internal validity choosing the accessible population and the
b) External validity sampling approach?
c) Feasibility a) Feasibility
d) Accuracy b) Sensitivity
15. Reasons for interference with the success of c) Specificity
follow-up in a study may include d) Reliability
a) Out-migration of some study participants 20. The participants may be excluded from the
from the study area study because of
b) Marriage of some of the female study a) Interference with the success of study
participants because of which they might follow-up
move out of the study area b) Ethical concerns
c) Refusals for follow-up c) Interference with the quality of data
d) All of the above collection
16. Less invasive and less sensitive questionnaires d) All of the above
will 21. Which of the following helps to minimize the
a) Increase the power random error in a research study?
b) Decrease the power a) Limited study duration
c) Improve the significance b) Adequate sample size
d) Reduce the non-response c) Adequate budget
17. The external validity in a research study means d) More than six investigators
a) The degree to which the observed findings 22. Representativeness of the study participants
lead to correct inferences about similar to the population of interest can help in
phenomena taking place in the study which of the following aspects of a research
sample study?
a) Generalizability of the findings
Assignment 13
b) Internal validity a) Study sample is a subset of the accessible

c) Reduce information bias population
d) Minimize recall bias b) Target population is a subset of the
23. An investigator intends to estimate the accessible population
prevalence of Urinary Tract Infection (UTI) c) Accessible population is a subset of the
among circumcised children (<5 years old) in study sample
Jaipur city. However, the researcher selects the d) Target population is a subset of the study
study participants from one government sample
hospital. Which of the following is the target 28. State whether true or false. Biases can affect
population in this study? both internal and external validity.
a) All children aged <5 years in the city a) True
b) All circumcised children aged <5 years in b) False
the city 29. In a community based vaccine trial, which aims
c) All circumcised children aged <5 years to compare the 1 year incidence of
attending the government hospital intussusception in children receiving/not
d) All children having UTI in the city receiving rotavirus vaccine, which of the
24. Which of the following is the accessible following can be a likely exclusion criterion?
population in the above study? a) Children who may leave the study area
a) All children aged <5 years in the city within a month
b) All circumcised children aged <5 years in b) Children aged 0 months to 24 months
the city c) Children without pre-existing intestinal
c) All circumcised children aged <5 years anomalies
attending the government hospital d) Children who have not received rotavirus
d) All children having UTI in the city vaccine previously
25. State whether true or false. High non-response 30. In a cohort study planned to estimate the
rate in a study may affect the internal validity. incidence of birth defects among Zika virus
a) True infected pregnant women in Chennai city,
b) False which of the following CANNOT be an inclusion
26. Which of the following is TRUE about study criterion?
validity? a) First trimester pregnant women with lab-
a) An internally valid study result is always confirmed Zika virus infection
generalizable to the target population b) Pregnant women who are permanent
b) An internally valid study result may or may residents of Chennai city
not be generalizable to the target c) Pregnant women aged above 18 years
population d) Pregnant women taking drugs known to
c) An externally valid study result is not cause birth defects
generalizable to the target population
d) A study without internal validity can be
generalized to the target population -----------------------------
27. Which of the following statements on study
populations is TRUE?
Assignment 14
1. Which of the following statements regarding a) Defined timeframe

study objectives is correct? b) Defined budget
a) Objectives should be defined at the c) Expected quality standards
planning stage of study d) All of the above
b) Objectives can be defined at any time of 6. Which of the following statements best
the study describes the study objectives?
c) Objectives can be changed even at the a) They should be minimum, achievable
end of the study and clear
d) Objectives should be defined before b) They can be primary and / or secondary
identifying the research question c) Adding objectives during study
2. Which of the following is (are) required to implementation is a good practice
determine the key indicators for planned d) 'a' and 'b'
research study? 7. Principles to be followed while collecting the
a) Frame study objectives information elements are
b) Identify parameters needed for the key a) Use the variables that will best reflect
indicators the information element
c) Choose the right study design b) Adopt standardize case definitions and
d) All of the above laboratory criteria/normal ranges
3. Which of the following can improve c) Choose the most accurate ways of
efficiency of a research study? collecting information on various
a) Time management elements
b) Planning and scheduling activities d) All of the above
c) Budgeting 8. Study conducted following an ad hoc
d) All of the above approach may lead to the following
4. Which of the following represents the consequences
correct sequence in a life cycle of a study? a) Generation of useful data in programs or
a) Identifying data needs, formulating study for policy making
objectives, planning analysis, spelling out b) Efficient utilization of resources
research question c) Serious difficulties in analysis and
b) Formulating study objectives, planning interpretation
analysis, spelling out research question, d) All of the above
identifying data needs 9. Common reasons for research study failures
c) Identifying data needs, spelling out a) Poorly defined research question
research question, formulating study b) Vague timelines
objectives, planning analysis c) Lack of supervision
d) Formulating study objects, spelling out d) All of the above
research question, identifying data 10. Sample size for a cross-sectional study is
needs, planning analysis decided based on the following
5. It should be ensured that a) Assumed/reported prevalence
products/deliverables of health research b) Confidence interval
projects are delivered within the c) Acceptable precision
Assignment 14
d) All of the above c) Life expectancy at birth

11. Which of the following is a criterion for a d) 'a' and 'c'
good research question? e) 'b' and 'd'
a) Long and self-explanatory question using f) 'a', 'b', 'c' and 'd'
complex terms 15. Which of the following techniques is
b) A question based on ill-defined preferentially used when the population is
hypothesis finite?
c) A question based on strong hunch on a) Purposive sampling technique
part of the investigator b) Area sampling technique
d) A question based on established theory c) Systematic sampling technique
and some research evidence d) None of the above
12. Which of the following can be considered 16. A study began in 1980 with enrollment of a
true in case of ad hoc approach to conduct a group of 7000 adults in Pondicherry who
research study? were asked about their alcohol
a) Its advantages are the low development consumption, smoking, diet, environmental
effort and possibility of getting results risk factors etc. All the participants were
in a short time span periodically examined and evaluated for
b) Its advantage is that the accuracy of the evidence of various types of cancers
results is usually high between 1990-1995. Which of the following
c) Only 'a' study designs was used by the investigators?
d) Both 'a' and 'b' a) Case-control study
13. A cross sectional study is carried out to b) Prospective cohort study
examine whether naval medical personnel of c) Ecological study
a higher rank have more positive copying d) Retrospective cohort study
skills than those of a lower rank. Which of 17. An increased number of postoperative
the following statement is true of this study? wound infections were recorded in patients
a) Neither variable is dependent as the who underwent incision appendectomy
researcher cannot manipulate them compared with those who had a
b) The independent variable is rank and laparoscopic procedure. Which of the
the dependent variable is copying skills following statement/s is/are true in such a
c) The independent variable is copying skills scenario?
and the dependent variable is rank a) This association may simply be owing to
d) None of the above the presence of a confounding factor
14. Indicators are considered positive when they b) Association between the two can be
have a direct relationship (association, better studied in randomized controlled
correlation) with the state of health. Which clinical trials
of the following are the examples of positive c) Both 'a' and 'b'
indicators? d) None
a) The proportion of cured tuberculosis 18. In a study to evaluate the effectiveness of a
cases new medication, which of the following will
b) Incidence of AIDS generate a stronger evidence?
Assignment 14
a) Comparing outcomes among those 22. Which of the following is a reason for the
receiving medication with those not failure of a study?
receiving the same. a) Poorly stated research question
b) Comparing outcomes among those b) Unrealistic timeline
receiving higher doses of medication c) Inadequate supervision
with those receiving lower doses d) All the above
c) Comparing adverse events and drug 23. Which of the following represents the
reactions among those receiving correct sequence in the life cycle of a study?
medication and those not receiving i. Developing research question
medication ii. Planning the data analysis
d) All of the above iii. Data collection
19. Smart objectives are goals that are designed iv. Data analysis
to be be specific, measurable, achievable, a) i, iii, iv, ii
relevant and time-bound. Which of the b) i, ii, iii, iv
following is an illustration of non- c) i, iii, ii, iv
measurable objective? d) ii, iii, iv, i
a) Incidence of colorectal cancers in Indian 24. Which of the following factor is NOT
adult men essential for effective planning and
b) Experiences shared by victims of management of a study?
domestic violence a) Time management
c) To determine if regular skin emollients b) Financial management
applied from 2 weeks of age reduced c) Reduction of sample size
development of atopic dermatitis by age d) Team work
12 months in the general infant 25. Which of the following is to be followed
population while collecting the information elements?
d) None of the above a) Use of variables that best reflect the
20. Validity of a research can be improved by: information element
a) Taking the true representative sample of b) Standardized case definitions
the population c) Use of validated and standardized
b) Eliminating extraneous factors and methods
collecting detailed information on d) All the above
confounding factors 26. State whether true or false. Framing several
c) 'a' and 'b' study objectives improves the study
d) None of these planning and management
21. Which of the following is ideally the first a) True
step in developing a study? b) False
a) Fixing the title 27. State whether true or false. Selection of
b) Formulating the research question study design should be related to the
c) Writing the background objectives.
d) Planning for analysis a) True
b) False
Assignment 14
28. A postgraduate wants to do a community

based thesis. Which of the following is a part
of the planning and program management
of the study?
a) Calculating sample size
b) Arranging transport to community
c) Writing thesis
d) All the above
29. Which of the following can be used to
represent the duration, timeline and
sequence of activities and milestones of a
research project?
a) Bar chart
b) Histogram
c) Gantt chart
d) Pie chart
30. Who is primarily responsible for resource
allocation and time management in a study?
a) Institute where the research is
conducted
b) Principal investigator
c) Funding agency
d) Scientific committee
---------------------------------

Assignment 15
1. Which component of the data collection a) Facts

instrument is constituted by open, closed b) Knowledge
and semi-open items? c) Judgments
a) Introduction d) Texts
b) Identifier 8. The type of questions in which there is a
c) Questions possibility to add other answer in addition
d) Concluding statement to the options suggested
2. Self-administered questionnaire can be a) Open questions
a) Paper-based or computer-assisted b) Semi-open questions
b) Used in face-to-face interviews c) Closed questions
c) Used in telephonic interviews d) Close questions with multiple options
d) All of the above 9. The type of questions in a questionnaire
3. While formulating the questions, all the which allow creation of continuous
following need to be followed, EXCEPT variables as responses
a) Short and clear questions a) Closed questions with quantitative
b) Avoid ambiguities answers
c) Avoid words of every-day language b) Open questions with quantitative
d) Avoid negatives and double negatives answers
4. Structured observation guide c) Both of the above
a) Is useful to document certain processes d) None of the above
b) Use checklist of items 10. All are true regarding the order of
c) Can be used for in-depth interviews questions in a data collection tool EXCEPT
d) 'a' and 'b' a) From intimate to casual
5. The interviewer does not provide options b) From general to specific
for responses in c) From simple to complicate
a) Open-ended questions d) In chronological order, if questions
b) Close-ended questions related to sequence of events
c) Semi-open questions 11. A question was framed by an
d) All of the above ophthalmologist as a part of data collection
6. What is the disadvantage of closed tool for her research- “Which of the
questions with dichotomous options in a following symptoms you had in the last one
study questionnaire? week?” The options were 1. Eye pain 2.
a) Detailed information available Redness of eye 3. Watering of eye 4. Low
b) Oversimplifies the issues vision
c) Forces an unclear position Given that a study participant may have
d) May not be useful for key well framed multiple complaints, which of the following
issues best describes the type of question?
7. The information about participant's a) Open question
attitudes for behaviors such as wearing b) Closed questions with dichotomous
helmets, washing hands before eating, options
constitute c) Closed question with multiple options
Assignment 15
d) Closed question with quantitative b) From general to specific

answers c) From intimate to casual
12. A researcher has framed a question in the d) In chronological order
research tool as- “What is the monthly 17. Structured observation guide
income of the family?” This information a) Is useful to document certain process
constitutes b) Uses checklist of items
i. Facts c) Both 'a' and 'b'
ii. Knowledge d) None of the above
iii. Judgments 18. Which of the following factors related to
iv. Healthy Life styles data collection may lead to study failures?
13. Which of the following is correct in relation a) Poorly defined research question
to an open question? b) Vague timelines
a) Answers are suggested c) Lack of supervision
b) Stimulate memory d) All of the above
c) Easy to code and analysis 19. In which of the following type of question
d) Freedom to respond is compromised the interviewer does not provide options
14. Glasgow coma Scale (GCS) is a scoring for responses?
system to understand the consciousness a) Open-ended questions
level of a person. The score varies between b) Close-ended questions
3 and 15. A researcher has included a c) Semi-open questions
question in research tool- “What is the GCS d) Closed question with multiple options
score during admission?” This question is 20. 'Age in years' is commonly a continuous
an example of: variable. However, a resident doctor
a) Open question decided to ask age as a closed question
b) Closed question with dichotomous with dichotomous options (If age>65 years
option or <65 years). What is the disadvantage of
c) Closed question with multiple option such type of ques in a study questionnaire?
d) Closed question with quantitative a) Detailed information available
answers b) Oversimplifies the issues
15. An investigator wanted to study the clinical c) Forces an unclear position
profile of patients presented with foreign d) It is easy to convert a dichotomous
body in nose, attended in the emergency variable to a continuous variable
department in the last 2 years in a hospital. 21. Which one of the following is NOT a
Which of the following is the most suitable component of a data collection tool?
way to collect data? a) Informed consent
a) Review of records b) Concluding statements
b) Cohort study c) Identifiers
c) Randomized trial d) Tabulated results
d) Focus group discussion 22. Which of the following is TRUE about a data
16. Order of a question should be all, except abstraction form?
a) From simple to complicated
Assignment 15
a) It is used to collect data by going a) Open ended

through records b) Closed
b) It is more valid than a questionnaire c) Semi-open
c) It can be self-administered by the d) Open question with closed answers
participants 27. Which of the following is FALSE about
d) It is also called an observational checklist formulating questions in a study tool?
23. Which of the following is FALSE about a a) They must be concise and precise
questionnaire? b) They must use scientific terms
a) It can contain instructions or prompts for c) They must use a neutral tone
data collectors d) They must avoid double negatives
b) It should contain unique participant 28. Which rule is NOT followed in the framing
identifiers of the question given below? "When and
c) It should avoid skip patterns where did you get tested for COVID-19
d) It can contain a mix of open and closed infection?"
questions a) Using a neutral tone
24. Identify the type of the question given b) Avoiding use of double negatives
below. “How do you spend your leisure c) Asking a single question at a time
time?_____________ d) Using simple words of everyday language
a) Open ended 29. State whether true or false. Before using a
b) Closed data collection tool in the study, it will be
c) Semi-open useful to get it reviewed by a statistician.
d) Open question with closed answers a) True
25. Which of the following is TRUE about ‘Open b) False
question with closed answers’? 30. What is FALSE about pilot testing of a study
a) Its answers are not suggested to the questionnaire?
participants a) It checks the tool for clarity and
b) It can be used in a self-administered acceptability
questionnaire b) It is conducted among persons who will
c) It is analyzed like an open ended be included in the study
question c) It provides an estimate of the duration of
d) It is expressed as a closed question to interview
the participants d) Changes are made to the questionnaire
26. What is the type of the question given based on its findings
below?
From where do you usually get health-
related information? -------------------------
i. Television
ii. Radio
iii. Newspaper
iv. Magazine
v. Others (specify)________________
Assignment 16
1. Reliability denotes c) Clarify the issues experienced by staff

a) Precision during data collection
b) Repeatability d) All of the above
c) Reproducibility 8. There is no need to present the study and its
d) All of the above objectives to the field investigators
2. This should not be done in data collection a) True
a) Training of staff members b) False
b) Review of collected data for quality and 9. Which of the following statement is (are)
completeness true regarding data collection for an
c) Manipulation of data epidemiological study?
d) Validation a) Reliability refers to consistency of
3. Supportive supervision is essential for a information
good data collection process b) Accuracy is the ability of a measurement
a) True to be correct on an average
b) False c) Feasibility is the ability of investigator to
4. The collected data should be understand the data
a) Complete d) 'a' and 'b'
b) Readable 10. Time pressure during data collection may
c) Consistent result in dilution of data quality
d) All of the above a) True
5. Which of the following is (are) true about b) False
the training of data collection staff? 11. A data collection tool should be
a) Conduct on-site training _____________
b) Conduct mock training sessions a) Valid
c) Training is always optional b) Reliable
d) 'a' and 'b' c) Both 'a' and 'b'
6. Which one of the following is the proper way d) None
of validating the data? 12. A neurosurgeon is planning for a hospital-
a) Repetition of full data collection in the based study on the patients coming to the
same population emergency department with head injury.
b) Data collection in new population The collected data should be
c) Repetition of data collection in a a) Complete
randomly selected subset in the same b) Readable
population c) Consistent
d) Repeat data collection is not required d) All of the above
7. Appropriate means to troubleshoot the 13. Which of the following should not be done
difficulties in data collection process in relation to data collection?
a) Regular review meetings a) Training of staff members
b) Facilitate the discussion to identify issues b) Review of collected data for quality and
during the review completeness
c) Validation
Assignment 16
d) None of the above d) Study participant

14. State whether true or false: Piloting a data 20. All the following statements are true about
collection tool should be done under training of the data collectors, except
supervision a) Essential to ensure good quality data
a) True b) The investigators should choose the right
b) False people
15. All of the following are true about a c) Communication skill is important for the
‘question by question guide’, except data collectors
a) It is a document for the data collectors d) Onsite training is not essential for data
b) It helps in maintaining uniformity of the collectors
data collection 21. The ability of an instrument to produce
c) It helps participants on how to respond similar results on repeated measurement is
d) It clarifies doubts on data collection called
16. Time pressure during data collection may a) Validity
result in dilution of the data quality b) Reliability
a) True c) Accuracy
b) False d) Sensitivity
17. Which one of the following is the proper way 22. The mean value of fasting blood sugar
of validating the data? among 50 healthy volunteers in a
a) Repetition of full data collection in the community was found to be 90 g/dL with a
same population standard deviation of 5 mg/dL using a new
b) Data collection in a new population diagnostic test. In the same volunteers, the
c) Repetition of data collection in a gold standard test found a mean of 88 g/dL
randomly selected subset in the same with standard deviation of 4.7 g/dL. What
population can be said about the new diagnostic test?
d) Repeat data collection not required a) The new diagnostic test is valid
18. Which of the following statement is true b) The new diagnostic test is reliable
regarding data collection for an c) The new diagnostic test is valid and
epidemiological study? reliable
a) Reliability refers to consistency of d) The new diagnostic test is invalid and
information unreliable
b) Accuracy is the ability of a measurement 23. Which of the following is NOT used as a
to be correct on an average criterion to judge the quality of data
c) Both ‘a’ and ‘b’ collected in a study?
d) None of the above a) Accuracy
19. Who is mainly responsible to check the b) Repeatability
accuracy of data collection instruments c) Precision
before leaving the location? d) External validity
a) Field investigator 24. Which of the following should NOT be done
b) Field supervisor during data collection in a study?
c) Principle investigator a) Referring to the data collection guide
Assignment 16
b) Checking the quality of data 30. During data collection in a study, a data
c) Modifying the study objectives collector is faced with a situation where the
d) Validating the data collection process participant refuses to answer a particular
25. State whether true or false. Accuracy of an question in the middle of the interview.
instrument is the ability to measure what it What is the appropriate action in this
intends to measure. situation?
a) True a) End the interview and report to the
b) False investigator
26. Which of the following is the correct b) Continue the interview with the
sequence of steps of data collection? remaining questions
i. Preparation of data collection guide c) Seek the answer to that question from
ii. Checking the collected data for family members
completeness d) Try to persuade the participant to
iii. Training of the data collector answer the question somehow
iv. Validating the collected data
a) i, iv, iii, ii
b) ii, iii, iv, i ---------------------
c) i, iii, ii, iv
d) iii, i, iv, iii
27. State whether true and false. A data
collection guidebook can be revised time to
time as issues in the data collection process
are identified.
a) True
b) False
28. Which of the following should NOT be done
during training of data collectors?
a) Simulating the data collection procedure
b) Discussing the study objectives with
them
c) Using an early version of the
questionnaire for training
d) Revising the question guide according to
queries
29. Which of the following does NOT apply in
checking the quality of filled forms during
data collection?
a) Completeness
b) Consistency
c) Readability
d) Statistical significance
Assignment 17
1. Steps in data management include b) Outline of major data collection

a) Defining a variable, creating a study topics/items
database and dictionary c) Auto coding function
b) Enter data, correct errors and create d) All of the above
data set for analysis 8. When we are coding for data entry, we
c) Backup and archive data set should
d) All of the above a) Prefer numerical coding
2. When we are creating variable name, it b) Use highly complex codes
should be c) Decide on the codes for 'missing values'
a) Clearly understandable and should refer and 'not applicable' items
to the questionnaire d) 'a' and 'c'
b) Long and can have spaces 9. When information is available at various
c) Consistent and without duplicates levels (e.g. at Village, Household, Individual
d) 'a' and 'c' and Illness episode), we can store
3. In a data management system, each row information at each level in separate
represents a databases and link when necessary
a) Variable a) True
b) Record b) False
c) Heading 10. Which of the following is (are) not true
d) Appendix about normalized database?
4. What is (are) the specifications that we a) Normalized database facilitates further
need to check before doing data entry? aggregation
a) Minimum and maximum values, legal b) It has only one count by record
codes, skip patterns c) Normalized database does not facilitate
b) Record name and description of record further data aggregation
c) Automatic coding, coping data from d) 'a' and 'b'
preceding record and calculations 11. A post-graduate researcher has completed
d) 'a' and 'c' the data collection for her thesis. During
5. Identifier in the database is (are) data management, she should do all the
a) Unique following, except
b) Maintained by a computerized index a) Applying for the ethics committee
c) Secured by quality assurance procedures clearance
d) All of the above b) Create study database
6. Key elements of data management c) Create dataset for analysis
a) Data structure and data entry d) Back-up dataset
b) Individual and aggregated databases 12. Data documentation includes information
c) Mother and daughter databases about the following items
d) All of the above a) Structure (Name, number of records etc)
7. The design of data collection instrument alone
a) Data entry friendly b) Storage information (Media, location,
backup information)
Assignment 17
c) Structure (Name, number of records research any coding of missing value as 99

etc), Variables (Name, values, coding), may lead to an erroneous result.
History (Creation, modification), and a) True
Storage information (Media, location, b) False
backup information) 18. While documenting the storage information
d) Structure (Name, number of records of the database, we need to document
etc), Storage information (Media, a) Investigators information
location, backup information), and b) Time, place, person information
Variables (Name, values, coding) c) Media, location and backup information
13. A variable name should be d) Hardware configuration
a) Clearly understandable and should refer 19. Which of the following is incorrect in
to the questionnaire relation to the data catalogue?
b) Short, no space a) It describes all the variable for any future
c) Consistent and without duplicates reference
d) All of the above b) It is useful if we share the data with
14. Design of data entry can be broadly others
outlined as c) It is useful to know how a variable has
a) Identifier, Demographics, Outcome, and been coded
Exposure d) It is advisable to exclude the missing
b) Informed consent, Identifier, and values from data catalogue
Demographics 20. Which of the following is incorrect about
c) Identifier, Demographics, Outcome and normalized database?
data analysis plan a) Normalized database facilitates further
d) Informed consent, Identifier, aggregation
Demographics, Outcome and data b) It has only one count by record
analysis plan c) Normalized database does not facilitate
15. All of the following are true about ‘Coding’ further data aggregation
a new variable, except d) Both ‘b’ and ‘c’
a) Prefer numerical coding 21. Which of the following is FALSE about
b) Decide on missing values while coding Unique Identifier (ID)?
c) Avoid cumbersome codes a) It can be same for more than one
d) Coding with ‘0’ and ‘1’ should be participant in a study
avoided for dichotomous variables b) It can be alphanumeric
16. Data entry can be considered as an c) It can be a composite number
opportunity to partially clean the data d) It can be used to maintain the anonymity
a) True of participants
b) False 22. Which of the following is NOT a quality
17. A researcher in diabetes expected that that assurance measure in designing a data
the fasting blood sugar levels may take any entry form?
value between 50 and 150 gm/dL. In this a) Using legal values
b) Using minimum and maximum values
Assignment 17
c) Avoiding skip patterns 28. In a study on cancer, the ‘stage of cancer’

d) Use of automatic coding was recorded as Stage I, Stage II, Stage III
23. In a data management system each column and Stage IV. Which of the following
represents a(n)- variable types best describes the ‘stage of
a) Variable cancer’?
b) Record a) Nominal
c) Heading b) Ordinal
d) Appendix c) Categorical
24. Which of the following is FALSE about d) Continuous
Mother-Daughter databases? 29. In a study with 100 participants, age was
a) Information is collected at various levels recorded as a continuous variable. During
b) Information of each level is stored in a data entry, it was seen that age was missing
different database in the forms for 13 people. Which of the
c) They can be linked by a common index following is TRUE in this situation?
identifier a) Missing values can be coded as ‘999’
d) Each database cannot have its own b) Age variable should be removed from
unique identifier system the study
25. State whether true or false. Coding with ‘0’ c) An arbitrary value can be assigned by the
and ‘1’ should be avoided for dichotomous data entry operator
variables. d) Participants with missing age should be
a) True removed from the study
b) False 30. State whether true or false. While entering
26. Which of the following is FALSE about data the systolic blood pressure (expected value
dictionary? 60 to 200) value in a database, coding the
a) It is created after the data entry is missing value as 99 may lead to an
started erroneous result.
b) It contains the values assigned to the a) True
variables b) False
c) It gives a brief description of the
variables
d) It links the variables in the database to ----------------------
the questionnaire
27. Identify the type of variable in this
question. “Have you ever smoked
cigarettes?
i. Yes
ii. No
a) Categorical
b) Ordinal
c) Continuous
d) Discrete
Assignment 18
1. The three stages of data analysis are in the E. Examine outcome/exposure

following order association
a) Descriptive stage, analytical stage and F. Characterize study population
recoding stage G. Create additional two-way tables
b) Recoding stage, descriptive stage and a) A, B, C, D, E, F, G
analytical stage b) G, E, F, D, A, B, C
c) Analytical stage, descriptive stage and c) D, B, C, F, E, G, A
recoding stage d) E, F, G, C, A, B, D
d) Descriptive stage, coding stage, recoding 7. In case of descriptive studies, which of the
stage following is wrong?
2. We need to avoid the following while a) We describe the study outcome for 1
performing data analysis group
a) Post hoc analysis b) We compare the study outcome for 2
b) Data drenching groups
c) Stratified data analysis c) We calculate the incidence for cohort or
d) 'a' and 'b' surveillance data
3. In the descriptive stage of analysis, we use d) We calculate prevalence for cross
logistic regression models sectional survey
a) True 8. If we are doing an analytical study and the
b) False study outcome is of acute nature and rare
4. "Epi-Info" is a software used for data entry condition what is the appropriate (i) study
and data analysis design and (ii) measure of association?
a) True a) Cohort study - Relative risk
b) False b) Case-control study - Odds ratio
5. In analytical stage of data analysis, we c) Cross-sectional study - Prevalence ratio
perform the following in order d) Surveillance - Incidence
a) Stratified analysis, univariate analysis 9. Analysis plan depends on
and multivariate analysis a) Objectives of the study
b) Univariate analysis, stratified analysis b) Budget
and multivariate analysis c) Study type (Descriptive or analytical)
c) Multivariate analysis, univariate analysis d) 'a' and 'c'
and stratified analysis 10. Use of spreadsheets, such as Excel, should
d) Frequency analysis and univariate be avoided for data management and
analysis analysis
6. Among the seven steps of data analysis a) True
strategy, the sequence of data analysis is as b) False
follows 11. Multivariate regression models are used
A. Conduct advanced analysis during the descriptive stage of analysis
B. Identify main variables a) True
C. Become familiar with the data b) False
D. Identify study type
Assignment 18
12. “Epi-Info” is a software that can be used to a) Plan for data analysis is made at the end
create data collection instrument format of the study
a) True b) Recoding can be done for key variables
b) False c) Multivariate analysis is done before
13. In a research study the analysis plan doing a univariate analysis
depends on d) Data drenching is acceptable
a) Objectives and study type 19. Which of the following is the correct
b) Allocated budget sequence for data analysis
c) Availability of the statistician i. Multivariate analysis
d) Existing time for analysis ii. Recoding
14. At the time of data cleaning, which of the iii. Measures of association
following is not done? iv. Frequency distribution
a) Checking and removing duplicates a) ii, iii, iv, i
b) Dealing with missing observations b) i, iii, iv ii
c) Calculating strength of association c) ii, iv, iii, i
d) Checking range and legal values d) iii, iv, i, ii
15. To describe the study population 20. Spreadsheets are ideal tools for data entry
characteristics we need to and analysis
a) Calculate the frequency distribution a) True
b) Calculate measures of association b) False
c) Look for correlation between variables 21. All the following are done to characterize
d) perform multivariable regression the study population EXCEPT
16. While examining the association between a) Provide frequency distribution of age
exposure and outcome based on a priori b) Provide percentages of gender
hypotheses, we compare frequency of c) Compare baseline characteristics of
exposures between cases and controls study groups
using appropriate measure of association d) Conduct logistic regression analysis
a) True 22. Which of the following is the appropriate
b) False measure of association in a case-control
17. If we are doing an analytical study and the study?
study outcome is of acute nature and a a) Odds ratio
frequent condition what is the appropriate b) Prevalence ratio
(i) study design and (ii) measure of c) Relative risk
association? d) Incidence
a) Cohort study - relative risk 23. State whether true or false. Prevalence
b) Case-control study – odds ratio ratio is one of the measures of association
c) Cross sectional study - Prevalence calculated in an analytical cross-sectional
d) Surveillance - Incidence study.
18. Which of the following statements are a) True
CORRECT b) False

Assignment 18
24. State whether true or false. Hypothesis acoustic neuroma, 24 cases of acoustic
testing is conducted in an analytical neuroma and 72 hospital controls were
epidemiological study. recruited from the ENT department of a
a) True medical college in Gilgit. History of mobile
b) False phone use (>6 hours/day) was ascertained
25. Identify the correct sequence in the steps using a standard questionnaire. Exposure
of data analysis. was present among 16 cases and 18
i. Identify exposure, outcome and controls. Calculate the measure of
other variables association.
ii. Check data for consistency, a) Odds ratio 1.5
duplicates and missing values b) Relative risk 1.5
iii. Examine association between c) Odds ratio 6
outcome and exposure d) Relative risk 6
iv. Examine baseline characteristics of 30. In a case control conducted taking 100
the study population autism children and 200 normal children in
a) i, ii, iii, iv Bhopal city, it was found that 90 autism
b) i, ii, iv, iii children and 60 normal children had a
c) ii, iv, i, iii history of instrumental delivery. Calculate
d) iii, i, ii, iv the measure of association between
26. Which of the following is NOT done during instrumental delivery and autism.
the analytic stage of data analysis? a) 12
a) Calculating frequency of the outcome in b) 21
one group c) 6
b) Calculating frequency of the outcome by d) 9
age and gender
c) Calculating odds ratio between
exposure and outcome --------------------------
d) Applying logistic regression
27. Relative risk is calculated in which of the
following study designs?
a) Cross-sectional study
b) Cohort study
c) Case study
d) Case control study
28. State whether true or false. Risk ratio can
be calculated in a descriptive cross-
sectional study.
a) True
b) False
29. In a case-control study to examine the
association between mobile phone use and
Assignment 19
1. In which of the following guidelines, c) Beneficence

discussion on rationale and justification of d) Non-Maleficence
risk benefit analysis of research and 6. Which of the following are not ethical
voluntary consent in research was initiated? practices in health research?
a) Belmont report a) Taking informed consent from
b) Helsinki declaration participants prior to study participation
c) Nuremberg code b) Giving lot of money to increase study
d) CIOMS guidelines participation
2. In which type of the following study/studies c) Lack of adherence to study protocol
is (are) informed consent not necessary? d) 'b' and 'c'
a) Investigation of an outbreak 7. "Do no harm" concept was emphasized in
b) Analysis of mortality data of 2001-2010 which of the following ethical principles?
c) Using verbal autopsy to determine the a) Justice
cause of death b) Autonomy
d) All of the above c) Beneficence
3. In which of the following type of research, d) Non-Maleficence
ethical review is (are) mandatory? 8. Genetic research that involves human
a) Prevalence of HIV infection using blood participants and conducted by a private
investigation research institute should follow
b) Awareness about diabetes using a) ICMR Guidelines
questionnaire only b) Genome Policy and Genetic Research
c) Calculate out of pocket expenditure [2000]
using secondary data c) Both 'a' and 'b'
d) All of the above d) Neither 'a' nor 'b'
4. Which of the following is not important in 9. While conducting research among tribal
the context of an informed consent populations, which of the following is
document? recommended?
a) Detailed description of study procedures a) Consent from the tribal head (Group
b) Budget of the study consent) is desirable
c) Details regarding compensation and b) Group consent can replace individual
post-trial access to care consent
d) Contact details of the Principal c) Women can be excluded from informed
Investigator consent process
5. In the middle of a clinical trial, one d) Confidentiality not required
participant decides to withdraw from the 10. In a clinical research, the researcher
trial. But, the investigator pressurizes the knowingly excludes recruitment of female
participant to continue in the study till it participants without any compelling
completes. Which of the following ethical indications. Which of the following ethical
principles does the investigator violate? principle does the investigator violate?
a) Justice a) Justice
b) Autonomy b) Autonomy
Assignment 19
c) Beneficence c) IC process intends to protect the study

d) Non-Maleficence participants
11. In which of the following situations is ethics d) IC taken by coercion is considered valid
review essential? 16. Which of the following have the guidance in
a) When already available or archived data the Belmont report?
are used for research a) The procedure of ‘informed consent’
b) Involving some risk when some b) The basic ethics principles of autonomy,
questions are asked, some samples are justice and beneficence
collected or some drugs are given c) Review by ethics committee
c) ‘a’ and ‘b’ d) All of the above
d) Only ‘b’ e) None of the above
12. A study participant can be forced by the 17. Which of the following is typically not within
investigator to continue in a trial against his the domain of ethical review of the
will. This is in conflict with which of the proposed research?
following ethical principles? a) Novelty of research
a) Autonomy b) Competence of researchers
b) Justice c) Relevance of research
c) Beneficence d) To advocate for the study in the
d) None of the above community
13. The physician should do what is medically 18. The process of Informed consent can be
indicated, do good than possible harm. This repeated several times during the research
principle is encompassed in the ethical study if necessary.
dimension of: a) True
a) Beneficence b) False
b) Justice 19. As part of evaluation of a new vaccine which
c) Nonmaleficence requires taking a daily oral dose of a
d) Autonomy refrigerated vaccine, the research team
14. Study monitors, regulators and ethics offers to provide a refrigerator to families of
committee members have an authority to participants who don’t have one. Which of
verify the consent documentation of the following ethical issues the Institutional
research participants. Ethics Committee will have to deal with
a) True while reviewing the research study?
b) False a) Undue inducement
15. Which of the following is not true about an b) Coercion
Informed Consent? c) Compromising principle of justice
a) IC helps participants take an informed d) None of the above
decision about participation in the 20. In an observational study on menstrual
research study hygiene among school going girls aged 14 to
b) IC has information on potential risks and 16 years, informed assent will be required to
benefits of the study be taken from the adolescent girls. In

Assignment 19
addition, informed consent will be required 26. State whether true or false. Once a
from: participant has provided informed consent,
a) Parent of adolescent girls it cannot be withdrawn.
b) Institutional Head a) True
c) Both b) False
d) None of the above 27. Which of these is NOT a part of informed
21. State whether true or false. Review of health consent process?
records for research does NOT require a) Confidentiality
approval of institute ethics committee b) Disclosure of risks and benefits
a) True c) Compensation for lost wages
b) False d) Encouraging the person to consent
22. A participant wants to withdraw from a 28. Which of the following statement is NOT
study before its completion. Which of the correct?
following principles of ethics entitles a) Compensation for participants is offered
him/her to do so? for trial related injury
a) Autonomy b) Research participants can be paid for
b) Justice travel expenses
c) Beneficence c) Payment can be offered to encourage
d) Non-maleficence participation
23. Which of the following does NOT describe d) Wage loss of the participants can be
ethical principles in research? compensated
a) Nuremberg code 29. Which of the following is NOT a
b) Helsinki declaration responsibility of the Institutional Ethics
c) Council for International Organization Committee?
and Medical Sciences a) Evaluate the potential benefit from the
d) Bhore report study to the community
24. When a research study is planned among b) Protect the rights of the study
adolescents (12-15 years), the following is participants
NOT required? c) Sanction funding for the study
a) Assent from participant d) Re-evaluate the study if and when
b) Consent from participant modified
c) Consent from parent 30. When a particular ethnic group is excluded
d) Consent from legally accepted from a research study without any valid,
representative scientific reason(s), this is breach of -
25. Non-Maleficence means a) Autonomy
a) Self-respect b) Justice
b) Do no harm c) Beneficence
c) Fair and correct d) Non maleficence
d) Doing good
--------------------------------

Assignment 20
1. A study design that randomly assigns c) Ethics review

participants into an experimental group or d) All of the above
a control group is call as 6. Which of the following is (are) monitored in
a) Cohort study a clinical trial?
b) Case-control study a) Adherence to Good Clinical Practice
c) Randomized controlled trials (GCP)
d) Cross-sectional study b) Documentation of informed consent,
2. Which of the following statements is (are) randomization and study product
true in case of adverse events in a clinical administration
trial? c) Adverse events reporting
a) An unexpected clinical/familial/social d) All of the above
problem that occurs during treatment 7. The primary responsibilities of the Data
with a drug or other therapy is termed as Safety Monitoring Body (DSMB) are to
adverse event a) Periodically review and evaluate the
b) Adverse events do not have to be caused accumulated study data for participant
by the drug or therapy under trial safety, study conduct and progress of
c) Temporal relationship between study trial
product administration and adverse b) Periodically review and evaluate the
events is critically important accumulated study data for participant
d) All of the above safety, study conduct and progress and
3. To ensure that safety and welfare of the make recommendation concerning the
research participants is adequately continuation, modification, or
protected, it is important that the clinical termination of the trial
trial protocol is critically reviewed for the c) Periodically make recommendations
following concerning the continuation,
a) Scientific content modification, or termination of the trial
b) Ethical issues d) Decide the randomization sequence
c) Regulatory norms 8. Which of the following best describes the
d) All of the above advantages of conducting a Randomized
4. Informed consent is provided after controlled trial?
explanation of a) It is only effective design for
a) All study procedures overcoming selection bias of
b) Risks participants
c) Benefits b) The result can be readily generalized
d) All of the above c) It is a simple, uncomplicated and
5. Bodies like Drug Controller General of India nonregulated study design
(DCGI) and Health Ministry Screening d) It requires small sample size
Committee (HMSC) are concerned with the 9. When is the Informed consent obtained
following from the subjects in a clinical trial?
a) Regulatory review a) Prior to participation in the trial
b) Scientific review b) Just after the trial has started
Assignment 20
c) At any point during the conduct of a trial with a drug or other therapy during
d) At the end of the trial participation in a clinical trial without any
10. Investigators are required to report adverse judgment about causality or relationship to
events occurring during a clinical trial to the drug is known as:
which of the following agencies? a) Serious adverse event
a) Regulatory authority b) Adverse event
b) Sponsor c) Reportable event
c) Institutional Ethics Committee d) None of the above
d) All of the above 15. Clinical trials require review at various
11. A method of allocating treatment such that levels as per the in-country guidelines.
each subject has an equal chance of State whether true or false.
receiving any of the possible treatments in a) True
a clinical trial is known as: b) False
a) Blinding 16. The most common method of preventing
b) Randomization potential harm to study participants is by
c) Allocation concealment adhering to ‘trial stoppage rules’ based on
d) None of the above. evidence on unacceptable toxicity or
12. Which of the following statements adverse effects rates seen during
regarding document storage and archival monitoring. State whether true or false.
after the conclusion of a trial; is correct? a) True
a) If the data is computerized, there is no b) False
need to archive paper based records. 17. Which of the following is true about
b) The investigator has a right to refuse to screening protocol of a clinical trial?
show the data even to regulatory a) Those who are interested in participating
authorities in the trial participate in an interview
c) Archival for a period of 5 - 15 years as may have to undergo medical
per the requirement of the sponsor may examination
be necessary b) Eligibility of the potential participant is
d) All of the above determined in screening
13. Which of the following is not true? c) Information on study related procedures
a) Data Safety Monitoring Body (DSMB) is and inclusion and exclusion criteria are
an independent entity. provided by the study investigators to
b) DSMB is appointed by the Investigators the potential participants
c) DSMB periodically reviews and d) All the above three statements are true
evaluates the accumulated study data e) None of the above is true
for participants’ safety f) Only ‘a’ is true
d) DSMB assures that the scientific 18. Reimbursements for which of the following
integrity of the trial is maintained raise no ethical questions?
during the period of interim analysis a) Compensating for the time spent in
14. An unexpected clinical/ familial/ social coming over and the loss of daily wages
problem that occurs while on treatment due to participation
Assignment 20
b) For the travel cost involved participants must give their informed
c) For food expenses voluntary consent.
d) Only ‘a’ and ‘b’ a) True
e) ‘a’, ‘b’ and ‘c’ b) False
19. Which of the following statements is 24. Which of the following is FALSE with regard
wrong? to data analysis in clinical trials?
a) Drug Controller General of India is a a) Baseline characteristics of participants
Regulatory Authority in India should be compared across study arms
b) Institutional Governing Board is b) Interim analysis can be performed if pre-
responsible for scientific review of stated in the protocol
projects c) Analyses in clinical trials are only
c) Institutional Ethics Committee is descriptive in nature
responsible for ethics review of a d) People who are lost to follow up can be
proposal included in the analysis
d) None of the above 25. Which of the following is FALSE when
20. Which of the following are NOT methods dealing with serious adverse events in a
for identifying and preventing potential clinical trial?
harm to study participants? a) Making provision for free treatment
a) Adverse and serious adverse events b) Informing the regulatory authorities
reporting c) Taking action only if 1% are affected by
b) Periodic review of the project by Data the adverse events
Safety Monitoring Board d) Withdrawing the implicated intervention
c) Close watch on enrolment targets for the affected
d) Regular monitoring of the trial by a pre- 26. A trial can be pre-maturely stopped if
identified monitoring agency a) A significant unanticipated risk is
21. State whether true or false. The scientific demonstrated
advisory committee examines the safety b) The investigators lose interest
and welfare of the research participants in c) The principal investigator retires
a trial. d) Minor adverse events are reported
a) True 27. Data Safety Monitoring Body (DSMB) is
b) False primarily responsible for which of the
22. If the project is getting funded following?
internationally, which of the following a) Periodically review and evaluate the
committees looks at the regulatory affairs? accumulated study data for participant
a) Health ministry screening committee safety
b) Genetic engineering approval committee b) Periodically review and evaluate the
c) Ethics committee study conduct and progress
d) All the above c) Make recommendations concerning the
23. State whether true or false. In order for a continuation, modification, or
clinical trial to be ethically appropriate, termination of a clinical trial
d) All of the above
Assignment 20
28. Which of the following is NOT an advantage

of a Randomized Controlled Trial?
a) Controls for confounding bias effectively
b) Provides high level of evidence
c) Can be conducted in the community or
hospital
d) Blinding in trial eliminates selection bias
29. Which of the following statement is FALSE
with regards to a Randomized Controlled
Trial?
a) Adverse events should be reported to
the Data Safety Monitoring Board
b) Trial related documents must be
archived after the trial is over
c) Drug trials ideally should have a pre-
defined stoppage rule
d) Ethics committee clearance cannot be
withdrawn after initial approval
30. State whether true or false. It is unethical
to use a placebo for the control arm instead
of the current standard of care in a clinical
trial.
a) True
b) False
---------------------------

Assignment 21
1. If there are many study objectives, it may be d) Information that needs to be generated
necessary to differentiate the objectives into to address the problem in an effective
primary and secondary or general and manner, known and unknown aspects of
specific objectives the problem and statement of objectives
a) True 5. Advantages of writing a concept paper
b) False include
2. Which among the following is not a a) You may be able to organize your ideas
component of concept paper? b) It gives an opportunity to stand out and
a) Background and Justification receive a positive response from
b) Objectives and Methods reviewers
c) Expected benefits, Key references and c) You are sure to get funding
Budget d) 'a' and 'b'
d) Conclusion 6. The elements of the methods section in the
3. Which of the following is NOT true about concept proposal needs to be adopted
references in the concept paper? according to the study design chosen
a) We can cite references in Introduction a) True
and Methods section b) False
b) It is important to write references 7. The ethics section of the concept proposal
following standard guidelines should include information about
c) Statements should be linked to a) Key measures taken to protect the study
references participants
d) We can have as many references as b) The ethics committee to which the study
possible will be submitted for approval
4. The "Background and Justification" section c) Scientific committee that will review the
in the concept paper should be written in study
the following sequence d) 'a' and 'b'
a) Known and unknown aspects of the 8. Which of the following needs to be spelt out
problem, information that needs to be in "Expected benefits" section of the
generated to address the problem in an concept proposal?
effective manner and statement of a) Expected outputs that the study will
objectives generate with timeline
b) Known and unknown aspects of the b) Proposed immediate action based on
problem, Importance of the study research findings
problem and information that needs to c) How this research may set agenda for
be generated to address the problem in further research
an effective manner d) All of the above
c) Importance of the study problem, 9. Budget estimate is not mandatory in the
known and unknown aspects of the concept proposals. However, it would be
problem and information that needs to very useful to prepare the indicative budget
be generated to address the problem in for key items
an effective manner a) True
COMPILED BY DR. VIMESH MISTRY (MEDICAL COLLEGE BARODA) 1
Assignment 21
b) False 15. Which of the following components are

10. While writing the concept papers for included in the background and justification
intervention studies, the methods section section of the concept paper
must have the following details a) Context of the study problem
a) Primary and secondary outcome b) Operational definitions
definitions c) Sampling technique
b) Randomization, sequence allocation and d) Study procedure
allocation concealment 16. Which of the following information is not
c) Dose, frequency, nature of Intervention addressed in the ethics section of the
d) All of the above concept paper?
11. Immediately after identification of research a) Information about sample and data
topic and statement of objectives, it may be storage
preferable to b) Key measures taken to protect the study
a) Write protocol participants
b) Outline one-page concept paper c) The ethics committee to which the study
c) Prepare dummy tables as per the will be submitted for approval
analysis plan d) Budget for salary of the projects staff
d) Seek review by an institutional ethics 17. Which of the following is a component of
committee concept paper?
12. References need to be written following a) Abstract
standard guidelines such as International b) Objectives and Methods
Committee of Medical Journal Editors c) Conclusion
(ICMJE) d) Discussion
a) True 18. What is the basis for writing a one page
b) False concept paper?
13. Which of the following is the guideline that a) Lack of time to draft a complete protocol
can be used for drafting protocols for a b) Overcomes inhibitions in drafting a
clinical trial? complete protocol
a) SPIRIT c) It is mandatory for scientific committee
b) PRISMA protocol
c) CARE d) For ethics committee approval
d) STROBE 19. The indicative budget in a concept paper
14. Why is concept paper necessary for a includes salaries, per diem, travel,
research project? equipment and supplies
a) It helps to finish the data collection a) True
rapidly b) False
b) It helps to organize the ideas 20. The concept paper helps agencies for
c) It helps to get instant approval of ethics a) Screening the proposal for funding
committee b) Scientific committee approval
d) It helps to publish the research quickly c) Ethics committee approval
d) Publishing the manuscript
Assignment 21
21. Which of the following is NOT included in c) Reference section is usually an optional
the background section of a concept paper? component
a) Importance of a health problem d) References are usually required for the
b) Known fact about the health problem results section
c) Prior contribution of the researcher in 27. A post graduate has mentioned the
the topic estimated budget for her thesis to be 50,000
d) Knowledge gap in that topic INR in the concept paper. Which of the
22. The methods section of the concept paper following components of the budget may
contains the following: not be justified?
a) Key operational definitions a) Salary for data collectors
b) Conclusions b) Travel cost for data collection
c) Context of study c) Equipment cost
d) Novelty of the study d) Remuneration for the thesis guide
23. Which of the following best describes the 28. Identify the INCORRECT statement about
‘Expected Benefits’ section of a concept protocol writing?
paper? a) A protocol is a must for obtaining the
a) Financial benefit to the funding agency ethics committee approval
b) Policy changes based on the study b) A well-written protocol is often helpful
findings to draft a one-page concept proposal
c) Financial benefit to the researcher c) All known facts in a protocol must be
d) Academic improvement of the supported by appropriate reference
researchers d) Peer review helps in improving the
24. Which of the following are components of a quality of a protocol
concept paper? 29. All the followings are recommended while
a) Study title and references writing a concept paper, EXCEPT
b) Study title, abstract and references a) Preparing a concise document
c) Abstract and references b) Presenting mostly in bullet forms
d) Study title, results and references c) Describing the methods section in detail
25. Sampling strategy is discussed in which of d) Restricting the number of objectives
the following section of a concept paper? 30. Which of the following is a consideration in
a) Background framing the objectives of a concept paper?
b) Objectives a) Choosing appropriate action verbs
c) Methodology b) Calculating sample size based on the
d) Results secondary objectives
26. Which of the following statement is true c) Stating broad objectives
about the ‘Reference’ section of a concept d) All the above
paper?
------------------
a) References must be written following
standard guidelines
b) Unlimited references are preferred in a
concept paper
Assignment 22
1. Description of the intervention is essential a) Data analysis

in a research protocol for b) Data collection tools
a) Experimental study c) Sampling
b) Case-control study d) Operational definitions
c) Cohort study 8. Human participant protection paragraph
d) Cross-sectional study addresses all except
2. Inclusion and exclusion criteria should be a) Confidentiality
included under the following section in the b) Risks
protocol c) Compensation
a) Sampling d) Sample size calculation
b) Study population 9. Willingness of 'study participants' to
c) Study design participate in the study is obtained by
d) Sample size a) Informed consent
3. The details regarding data quality assurance b) Oral commitment
should be written in the following section in c) Willingness not necessary
the protocol d) None of the above
a) Data collection 10. The section that guides how the objectives
b) Data analysis lead to indicators
c) Project implementation a) Introduction
d) Data entry b) Study design
4. The following annexure in the study c) Budget
protocol deals with toxicity management d) Objectives
a) Study management forms 11. Which of the following statements is True
b) Standard operating procedures regarding the first draft of the protocol
c) Consent forms a) The draft is the final document and has
d) Adverse event management form to be adhered to as it is.
5. Study population, sample size and sampling b) The concept paper can be used as an
are included in the following section of the outline for drafting the first draft of the
protocol protocol.
a) Introduction c) Background with justification, method of
b) Methods conducting the study and expected
c) Objectives benefits are stated briefly as in the
d) Expected Benefits concept paper.
6. First step for writing a successful protocol d) Additional references must not be
a) Write a one page concept paper added.
b) Identify topic, research question and 12. It is ideal that the first draft of the protocol
objectives a) Exceeds >2000 words
c) Write a draft protocol b) Does not exceed >2000 words
d) Seek ethics approval c) Exceeds >3000 words
7. Key outcomes and exposures should be d) Does not exceed >3000 words
explained under
Assignment 22
13. Data collection paragraph in the protocol 18. Which of the following sections mentions
should specify all, EXCEPT about the detailed plan for conducting the
a) The kind of data that will be collected study
b) Information about the data collector a) Introduction
involved in data collection b) Results
c) The detailed manner in which the data c) Methods
collector is going to collect the data d) Discussion
d) The details of how the collected data 19. Which of the following is a part of
will be used for policy introduction section of the protocol?
recommendations a) Inclusion and Exclusion criteria
14. Mode of data entry, software for data b) Detailed budget
analysis and plan for data analysis are c) Participant safety and protection
included in the following section of the d) Background with justification
protocol 20. Informed consent, procedures for
a) Introduction minimizing participant risk and
b) Methods compensations are included in which of the
c) Objectives following sections
d) Expected Benefits a) Introduction
15. Which of the following is a step for drafting b) Abstract
a successful protocol? c) Human subject protection
a) Writing an abstract d) Study procedure
b) Submitting for peer review 21. Which of the following is NOT an
c) Seeking consent from participants appropriate step of protocol development?
d) Data analysis a) Development of research question
16. Which of the following statements is true? b) Preparation of the analysis plan
a) It is sufficient to mention whether the c) Development of study tool
study is quantitative or qualitative in d) Initiation of data collection
study design section 22. In which of the following section of a
b) The concept paper can contain more protocol, is the analysis plan written?
than 20 references relating to the study a) Objective
c) Sample size calculation is not necessary b) Results
for conducting research c) Budget
d) Human subject protection statement d) Methods
should be included in the methods 23. State whether true or false. Study
section population and the study sample are same.
17. The introduction can be 40% of the content a) True
of the protocol b) False
a) True 24. Which of the following is CORRECT about
b) False operational definitions in a study protocol?
a) It is part of the background section
b) It spells out the key research gaps
Assignment 22
c) It should be broad and non-specific 30. State whether true or false. Researchers
d) It may be supported by appropriate can amend a research protocol after re-
references obtaining the ethics committee clearance
25. Which of the following component is LEAST for the amendments made.
appropriate for a project implementation a) True
plan? b) False
a) Calculating sample size
b) Coordinating project activities
c) Assigning job responsibilities ------------------------------
d) Preparing project timeline
26. Human subjects are protected by all the
following mechanisms, EXCEPT
a) Obtaining informed consent from the
participants
b) Reviewing proposal by the ethics
committee
c) Incentivizing target population for
participation
d) Compensating participants for loss of
wages
27. Which section of a protocol describes the
need to maintain anonymity of study
participants while sharing data to others?
a) Human subject protection
b) Data collection methods
c) Data analysis plan
d) Expected benefits
28. In the methods section of a protocol, a
researcher can include all the following,
EXCEPT
a) Analysis plan
b) Supportive reference
c) Expected benefits
d) Quality assurance
29. The number of study participants required
for a research study can be decided by
a) Pilot study
b) Sample size calculation
c) Sampling procedure
d) All the above

Assignment 23
1. All of the following statements regarding 4. Which of the following is false about
research publications are correct, Except plagiarism?
a) Publishing paper is important for getting a) It can be copying and pasting of contents
promotion in academic institutions from a published manuscript
b) Publishing research findings help to b) It can be copying someone's idea
identify the research gaps c) It is not considered as a serious
c) Negative findings in a research should publication misconduct
not be published d) 'Urkund' is one of the software used to
d) Publishing research findings improves check plagiarism
the credibility of a researcher 5. Which of the following is (are) the
2. A senior resident of Psychiatry department consequence(s) of plagiarism of
of a medical college wrote a manuscript manuscript?
based on his thesis work. He has put his a) The journal can retract the manuscript
wife's name as a co-author who is working b) Institute can take action on the
in the Physiology department of the same author/researcher
college. Which of the following statements c) The researcher loses professional
supports the act of the senior resident in reputation
providing authorship to his wife? d) All of the above
a) He can give authorship to anyone since it 6. You have finished writing a manuscript and
is his research work plan to publish it. Which of the following is
b) The guide should decide on who should the best practice?
be the authors a) Submit to multiple journals at the same
c) His wife has contributed in designing time
the residents’ thesis work b) Submit to a journal and wait for the
d) It is not a good practice to include journal's response
researcher from different department as c) Submit to many journals; once it gets
authors published in one journal, withdraw it
3. Which of the following is incorrect about from the other journals
authorship? d) Submit the same manuscript in different
a) Authorship confers credit, implies languages to different journals
responsibility and accountability of the 7. A researcher conducted a study to identify
published work risk factors for exacerbation of bronchial
b) International Committee of Medical asthma. The researcher was due for job
Journal Editors recommends criteria on promotion. However, the researcher was
authorship lacking enough publications to ensure
c) It is mandatory to declare the promotion. Hence, in order to have
contribution of each author maximum number of publications from the
d) It is not mandatory that all authors work, the researcher decided to produce
should approve the final version of the three different manuscripts instead of one
manuscript manuscript comprehensively covering all

Assignment 23
aspects of the study. What is this act a) Publishing paper is important for getting
called? promotion in academic institutions
a) Plagiarism b) Publishing research findings helps to
b) Falsification identify the research gaps
c) Salami slicing c) Common people should not read such
d) Fabrication research findings
8. Which of the following organizations d) None of the above
directly deals with publication ethics? 12. All clinical trials in India should be
a) Indian Medical Association (IMA) registered with Clinical Trial Registry of
b) Committee on Publication Ethics (COPE) India.
c) World Health Organization (WHO) a) True
d) Joint National Committee (JNC) b) False
9. A group of researchers submitted a 13. A neonatologist planned to conduct a
manuscript for publication based on a drug clinical trial to explore the effect of
trial. Because they did not register under intervention X on hypothermia of the
the clinical trial registry of India (CTRI), one newborn children (Age <7 days) over
reputed journal rejected the paper. The intervention A (The current practice). All
researcher resubmitted the paper in a the following are true about the trial,
different journal and this journal published except
it without asking any queries. Which of the a) Ethics Committee approval is a must to
following is the correct statement? conduct the trial
a) It is necessary to register all drug trials b) The trial should be registered under the
under CTRI Clinical Trial Registry of India
b) The journal which published the paper is c) Informed consent should be taken from
likely to be a predatory journal either of the parents
c) Both 'a' and 'b' are correct d) Age appropriate assent is a must in this
d) None of the above trial
10. Among the following which is the best 14. Manipulating data is known as fabrication
practice for determining the authorship? a) True
a) Authorship can be based on the criteria b) False
given by ICMJE 15. Which of the following is correct about
b) Authorship should be decided after determining the authorship?
submission to a journal a) The investigators can follow ICMJE
c) It is necessary to include head of the guideline to determine authorship
department/institution as a co-author b) The sequence should always be based on
d) Authorship can be gifted to friends even alphabetical orders
if they have not contributed to that c) The investigators should include the
study head of the institution’s name
11. Which of the following is incorrect about irrespective of his/ her contribution
publishing a research work? d) None of the above

Assignment 23
16. A group of researchers submitted a it as a case of plagiarism. Which of the

manuscript in a reputed journal. Even after following about plagiarism is true?
5 months of submission, they did not a) The journal can retract the article, if
receive the peer review comments from the already published
journal. The authors decided to submit the b) The editor can inform the authors’
manuscript to a different journal without institute about it
informing the editor of the previous c) The researchers may lose their
journal. Which of the following term reputation
describes the situation best? d) All of the above
a) Duplicate publication 21. Which of the following is TRUE regarding a
b) Simultaneous submission clinical trial?
c) Self-citation a) It is mandatory to register the trial under
d) Breach of confidentiality ‘Clinical Trials Registry of India’ after
17. Dr. D has copied the idea of Dr. A for his completing it.
thesis. Copying an idea shouldn’t be b) Ethical issues are considerably low in
considered as plagiarism. clinical trials when compared with
a) True descriptive studies.
b) False c) Informed consent is a must for
18. Dr. A is in the process of writing review of recruiting a study participant in a
literature for her thesis. Her guide has clinical trial
instructed her to avoid plagiarism. Dr. A d) Both ‘a’ and ‘c’
should take all the following measures to 22. Altering the original data to obtain a
avoid plagiarism, except statistically significant result by the
a) Avoid copying and pasting researcher is known as
b) Acknowledge original sources a) Fabrication
c) Take help of anti-plagiarism software b) Falsification
d) Copy from her own previous work c) Fascination
19. Which of the following is correct in relation d) Fasciation
to the conflict of interest? 23. All the following help in reducing ethical
a) Conflict of interest is always financial issues associated with research publication,
b) Conflict of interest necessarily changes EXCEPT
the outcome of interest a) Obtaining the institutional ethics
c) It is recommended to hide the COI committee permission
during submission of a manuscript b) Including a guest author to improve the
d) Readers can determine the influence of acceptance of the manuscript
COI on conclusion of the paper c) Obtaining permission from the copyright
20. An editor of a reputed journal found that holder to reproduce a figure
most of the finding of a manuscript d) Declaring familial relationship between
matches with a previously published paper an author and the CEO of the funding
by different authors. The editor considered agency

Assignment 23
24. Which of the following is INCORRECT about a) True

publishing research finding? b) False
a) Publication often helps in career 30. Direct or indirect influence of which of the
progression and academic promotion following aspect is considered ‘conflict of
b) It is a way to communicate research interest’?
findings with the peer groups a) Financial
c) Conflicts of interest can be suppressed b) Personal
as it has implication in study findings c) Social
d) It identifies research gaps d) All the above
25. State whether true or false. The first author
is mostly responsible for addressing the
comments received from the reviewers of ----------------------------
the journal.
a) True
b) False
26. Submitting a manuscript to more than one
journal at the same time is known as
a) Duplicate publication
b) Self-citation
c) Simultaneous publication
d) Peer review
27. Which of the following is NOT an essential
criterion for authorship?
a) Conceptualizing the study
b) Drafting the manuscript
c) Approval of the final manuscript
d) Being departmental head
28. A Post Graduate in a medical college
submitted a proposal to the ethics
committee of the institute. The committee
found that the proposal is a near copy of an
earlier proposal from the same
department. This act of the PG can be best
termed as
a) Fabrication
b) Falsification
c) Plagiarism
d) Breach of confidentiality
29. State whether true or false. Unpublished
work must be acknowledged in a
manuscript.

Basic Course in Biomedical Research: Cycle 1, 2 & 3

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Basic Course in Biomedical Research: Cycle 1, 2 & 3

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Basic

BASIC COURSE IN BIOMEDICAL

MCQs with Answers

Compiled By Dr. Vimesh Mistry (Medical College Baroda) 1

Compiled By Dr. Vimesh Mistry (Medical College Baroda) 2

d) None 26) Health research is usually focused on which of

Compiled By Dr. Vimesh Mistry (Medical College Baroda) 3

1) Which of the following is an element of life d) Choose the study design

Compiled By Dr. Vimesh Mistry (Medical College Baroda) 1

d) Feasibility should not be a criterion a) To determine the association of

Compiled By Dr. Vimesh Mistry (Medical College Baroda) 2

Compiled By Dr. Vimesh Mistry (Medical College Baroda) 3

Compiled By Dr. Vimesh Mistry (Medical College Baroda) 1

b) Identify the lacunae, develop the research d) Google scholar

Compiled By Dr. Vimesh Mistry (Medical College Baroda) 2

Compiled By Dr. Vimesh Mistry (Medical College Baroda) 3

1) Which of the following must be considered a) Incidence density

a) Period prevalence incidence per 1000 persons per year and

Compiled By Dr. Vimesh Mistry (Medical College Baroda) 3

13. Which of the following study design will c) Analytical study

c) Ecological study b) Can be used to establish temporality

Compiled By Dr. Vimesh Mistry (Medical College Baroda) 3

1. Exposure is not assigned by the a) True

investigator selected 384 participants nonhypertensives as non-exposed. The

d) It involves follow-up of the a) Cases are study participants who had

Compiled By Dr. Vimesh Mistry (Medical College Baroda) 4

1. One of the cornerstones of the randomized 7. The purpose of a double-blinding in a clinical

Compiled By Dr. Vimesh Mistry (Medical College Baroda) 2

Compiled By Dr. Vimesh Mistry (Medical College Baroda) 3

1. Obtaining an estimate that is generalizable to c) Adequate sample size

Compiled By Dr. Vimesh Mistry (Medical College Baroda) 2

Compiled By Dr. Vimesh Mistry (Medical College Baroda) 3

1. Which methods in qualitative research use b) To seek the depth of understanding

d) Unfamiliar subject matter b) The researcher himself becomes a part

Compiled By Dr. Vimesh Mistry (Medical College Baroda) 3

1. In a study on hypertension, patients are a) True

c) It is expressed in the same units of 18. In a study, a researcher was interested in

a) Inter-quartile range b) It gives the number of observations

Compiled By Dr. Vimesh Mistry (Medical College Baroda) 3

Compiled By Dr. Vimesh Mistry (Medical College Baroda) 3

1. Selection of study participants depends on c) The degree to which a test actually

c) Subset b) The degree to which a test actually

b) Internal validity a) Study sample is a subset of the accessible

1. Which of the following statements regarding a) Defined timeframe

d) All of the above c) Life expectancy at birth

28. A postgraduate wants to do a community

Compiled By Dr. Vimesh Mistry (Medical College Baroda) 4

1. Which component of the data collection a) Facts

d) Closed question with quantitative b) From general to specific

a) It is used to collect data by going a) Open ended

1. Reliability denotes c) Clarify the issues experienced by staff

d) None of the above d) Study participant

1. Steps in data management include b) Outline of major data collection

c) Structure (Name, number of records research any coding of missing value as 99

c) Avoiding skip patterns 28. In a study on cancer, the ‘stage of cancer’

1. The three stages of data analysis are in the E. Examine outcome/exposure

Compiled By Dr. Vimesh Mistry (Medical College Baroda) 2

1. In which of the following guidelines, c) Beneficence

c) Beneficence c) IC process intends to protect the study

Compiled By Dr. Vimesh Mistry (Medical College Baroda) 2

Compiled By Dr. Vimesh Mistry (Medical College Baroda) 3

1. A study design that randomly assigns c) Ethics review

28. Which of the following is NOT an advantage