English MCQ - New

NOTICE TO PARENTS AND STUDENTS OF CLASS 10
SAMPLE MCQ PAPERS
19th October, 2021
Dear Parents and Students,

Greetings and Good Wishes!
Please note that we have received a few sample MCQ based Test
Papers from publishing houses, which we would like to share with
you, to help you prepare for the forthcoming Semester 1
Examinations.
Please note that these sample papers are being uploaded for the
purpose of revision.
The content of the sample papers are works of the publishing

house, and are not the property of The Bishop’s Co-Ed School,
Kalyani Nagar.
Please find attached to this document, sample question papers,

for your perusal.
Shayne McPherson Ashley Eates

Principal Headmaster
Reduced Syllabus for the Examination Year 2022
ENGLISH (01)
English Language
CLASS X
There will be two papers: A number of questions requiring short answers will also
Paper 1: English Language; be asked on the passage. These questions will test the
Each of these papers will be of two hours duration. candidates’ ability to comprehend the explicit content
Paper 1: English Language (80 Marks) and organisation of the passage and to infer information,
Internal Assessment (20 Marks) intention and attitude from it.
The last question will consist of a summary that will test
PAPER 1 - ENGLISH LANGUAGE the candidates’ ability to distinguish main ideas from
Five questions will be set, all of which will be compulsory. supporting details and to extract salient points to re-
write them in the form of a summary. Candidates will
Question 1: Candidates will be required to write a
be given clear indications of what they are to summarise
composition of about 300– 350 words from a choice of
and of the length of the summary.
subjects which will test their ability to: organise, describe,
narrate, report, explain, persuade or argue, present ideas Question 5: There will be a number of short answer
coherently with accuracy and precision, compare and questions to test the candidates’ knowledge of functional
contrast ideas and arrive at conclusions, present relevant grammar, structure and use of the language.
arguments and use correct style and format. All the items in this question will be compulsory. They
The subjects will be varied and may be suggested by will consist of correct use of prepositions, verbs and
language or by other stimuli such as pictures. The transformation of sentences.
subjects will be so chosen so as to allow the candidates
to draw on first-hand experience or to stimulate their INTERNAL ASSESSMENT
imagination. Paper 1 - English Language
With one subject, a number of suggestions about the 1. Schools will prepare, conduct and record assessments
content of the composition will be given, but the use of of the Listening and Speaking Skills of candidates
the suggestions will be optional and a candidate will be as follows:
free to treat the subject in any way that he/she chooses. Class X: Two assessments in the course of the year.
The organisation of subject matter, syntax, punctuation, 2. Pattern of Assessment
correctness of grammatical constructions and spelling will
be expected to be appropriate to the mode of treatment a) Listening Skills
required by the subject. A passage of about 300 words is read aloud by
Question 2: Candidates will have to write a letter from the examiner twice, the first time at normal reading
a choice of two subjects requiring either a formal or speed (about 110 words a minute) and the next
an informal mode of treatment. Suggestions regarding time at a slower speed. Candidates may make
the content of the letter may be given. The layout of brief notes during the readings. They then answer
the letter with address, introduction, conclusion, etc., an objective type test based on the passage, on the
will form part of the assessment. Special attention must paper provided.
be paid to the format of the letter with emphasis on The recommended number of candidates at a
vocabulary appropriate to the context. sitting is 30.
Question 3: Candidates will be given a specific situation b) Speaking Skills
and will be required to:
Each candidate is required to make an oral
(a) Write the text for a notice based on given directions. presentation for about two minutes, which will
(b) Write an e-mail on the same content as the notice. be followed by a discussion on the subject with
Question 4: An unseen prose passage of about 450 the examiners, for about three minutes.
words will be given. Uncommon items of vocabulary, Subjects for presentation may include narrating
or structure will be avoided. One question will be set an experience, providing a description, giving
to test vocabulary. Candidates will be required to show directions how to make or operate something,
an understanding of the words/phrases in the context in expressing an opinion, giving a report, relating
which they have been used. an anecdote or commenting on a current event.
A candidate may refer to brief notes in the course The total marks obtained out of 20 are to be sent to the
of the presentation but reading or excessive Council by the Head of the School.
dependence on notes will be penalized. The Head of the School will be responsible for the online
It is recommended that candidates be given an hour for entry of marks on the Council’s CAREERS portal by the
preparation of their subject for presentation and that they due date. Schools are required to maintain a record of
be given a choice of subject, on a common paper. all assessments conducted in Listening and Speaking
Skills for candidates of Class X. These include copies of
EVALUATION the assessment tests, topics for presentation and marks
The assessment will be conducted jointly by the subject awarded. The record will be maintained for a period
teacher and the external examiner who will each assess of 2 months after the ICSE (10) examinations of the
the candidate. (The External Examiner may be a teacher candidates concerned.
nominated by the Head of the School who could be from
the faculty but not teaching the subject in the section/
class. For example, a teacher of English of Class VIII
may be deputed to be an External Examiner for Class X).
Award of Marks (20 Marks)
Listening Skills: 10 marks
Speaking Skills: 10 marks
ICSE Semester 1 English Language 3

ICSE SEMESTER 1 EXAMINATION
SPECIMEN QUESTION PAPER
ENGLISH LANGUAGE
English Paper – 1
Maximum Marks: 40
Time allowed: One hour (inclusive of reading time)
ALL QUESTIONS ARE COMPULSORY.
The marks intended for questions are given in brackets [ ].
Select the correct option for each of the following questions.
Question 1
Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow:
I was never able to get over the feeling that plants and trees loved Grandfather with as much tenderness
as he loved them. I was sitting beside him on the veranda steps one morning, when I noticed the tendril
of a creeping vine that was trailing near my feet. As we sat there, in the soft sunshine of a north Indian
winter, I saw that the tendril was moving very slowly away from me and towards Grandfather. Twenty
minutes later it had crossed the veranda step and was touching Grandfather’s feet.
There is probably a scientific explanation for the plant’s behaviour something to do with light and
warmth—but I like to think that it moved that way simply because it was fond of Grandfather. One
felt like drawing close to him. Sometimes when I sat alone beneath a tree I would feel a little lonely
or lost; but as soon as Grandfather joined me, the garden would become a happy place, the tree itself
more friendly.
Grandfather had served many years in the Indian Forest Service, and so it was natural that he should
know and understand and like trees. On his retirement from the Service, he had built a bungalow on
the outskirts of Dehra, planting trees all round it: limes, mangoes, oranges and guavas; also eucalyptus,
jacaranda and the Persian lilac. In the fertile Doon valley, plants and trees grew tall and strong.
There were other trees in the compound before the house was built, including an old peepul which had
forced its way through the walls of an abandoned outhouse, knocking the bricks down with its vigorous
growth. Peepul trees are great show-offs. Even when there is no breeze, their broad-chested, slim-waisted
leaves will spin like tops, determined to attract your attention and invite you into the shade.
Grandmother had wanted the peepul tree cut down, but Grandfather had said, ‘Let it be. We can always
build another outhouse.’
Our gardener, Govind, who was a Hindu, was pleased that we had allowed the tree to live. Peepul trees
are sacred to Hindus, and some people believe that ghosts live in the branches of these trees.
‘If we cut the tree down, wouldn’t the ghosts go away?’ I asked.
‘I don’t know,’ said Grandfather. ‘Perhaps they’d come into the house.’
Govind wouldn’t walk under the tree at night. He said that once, when he was a youth, he had wandered
beneath a peepul tree late at night, and that something heavy had fallen with a thud on his shoulders.
Since then he had always walked with a slight stoop, he explained.
‘Nonsense,’ said Grandmother, who didn’t believe in ghosts. ‘He got his stoop from squatting on his
haunches year after year, weeding with that tiny spade of his!’
4 ICSE Semester 1 English Language

I never saw any ghosts in our peepul tree. There are peepul trees all over India, and people sometimes
leave offerings of milk and flowers beneath them to keep the spirits happy. But since no one left any
offerings under our tree, I expect the ghosts left in disgust, to look for peepul trees where there was
both board and lodging.
Grandfather was about sixty, a lean active man who still rode his bicycle at great speed. He had stopped
climbing trees a year previously, when he had got to the top of the jackfruit tree and had been unable
to come down again. We had to fetch a ladder for him.
Grandfather bathed quite often but got back into his gardening clothes immediately after the bath.
During meals, ladybirds or caterpillars would sometimes walk off his shirtsleeves and wander about on
the tablecloth, and this always annoyed Grandmother.
She grumbled at Grandfather a lot, but he didn’t mind, because he knew she loved him.
[From ‘The Tree Lover’, Rusty the Boy from the Hills by Ruskin Bond]
(a) For each word given below choose the correct meaning (as used in the passage) from the options
provided:[3]
(i) tenderness:
1. affection 2. soreness 3. youthfulness
(ii) explanation:
1. an excuse or pretext
2. a statement or account that makes something clear
3. a long-winded speech
(iii) vigorous:
1. strong, healthy, and full of energy
2. manipulating and meandering
3. timorous
(b) Why did the author feel that plants loved Grandfather with as much tenderness as he loved them?
[2]
1. He saw the tendril of a creeping vine move very slowly towards Grandfather and cross the
veranda step to touch Grandfather’s feet.
2. Because the creeper moved as they sat there, in the soft sunshine of a north Indian winter; it
was something to do with light and warmth.
3. He saw the tendril of a creeping vine moving very slowly towards him, crossing the veranda
step to touch the author’s feet.
(c) Where had Grandfather worked for many years? [2]
1. the Indian Revenue Service 2. the Botanical Gardens 3. the Indian Forest Service
(d) Which trees did Grandfather plant around his bungalow? [2]
1. limes, mangoes, oranges, guavas, eucalyptus, jacaranda, the Persian lilac and a peepul tree
2. limes, mangoes, oranges, guavas, eucalyptus, jacaranda and the Persian lilac
3. creeper vines, limes, mangoes, oranges, guavas, eucalyptus, jacaranda, the Persian lilac, ladybirds
and caterpillars
(e) Why does the author say peepul trees are great show-offs? [2]
1. because there are peepul trees all over India, and people sometimes leave offerings of milk and
flowers beneath them to keep the spirits happy.
2. because even when there is no breeze, their broad-chested, slim-waisted leaves will spin like
tops, determined to attract your attention and invite you into the shade.
3. because ghosts lived in peepul trees where there was both board and lodging.
(f) How do we know Grandfather was fit? [2]
1. because even at about sixty he was a lean active man who still rode his bicycle at great speed.
2. because he climbed up but couldn’t get down from the jackfruit tree.
3. because he planted so many trees around his bungalow all by himself.
(g) Why did ladybirds or caterpillars sometimes wander about on the tablecloth? [2]
1. because Grandfather came straight to the dining table after his work in the garden.
2. because Grandfather loved both plants and animals and liked to keep them near.
3. because Grandfather wore his gardening clothes at mealtimes and they would wander off his
shirtsleeves and onto the tablecloth.
(h) What has the author said about the old peepul tree? Which of the following combination of sentences
best summarizes the answer? [5]
1. The old peepul knocked down the brick walls of an abandoned outhouse with its vigorous
growth. There are peepul trees all over India, and people sometimes leave offerings of milk and
flowers beneath them to keep the spirits happy. Govind said that once, when he was a youth,
he had wandered beneath a peepul tree late at night, and that something heavy had fallen with
a thud on his shoulders. Since then he had always walked with a slight stoop.
growth. Grandmother wanted it cut down but Grandfather said they could always build another
one. Govind was pleased but frightened of resident ghosts. As no one left any offerings under
the tree, the author decided the ghosts must have left in disgust, to look for trees offering board
and lodging.
growth. There are peepul trees all over India, and people sometimes leave offerings of milk and
flowers beneath them to keep the spirits happy. Grandmother said Govind got his stoop from
squatting on his haunches year after year, weeding with that tiny spade of his rather than from
any resident ghosts alighting on his shoulders.
Question 2
(a) Fill in the blanks with the correct forms of the words provided after the passage: [4]
When he saw the cottage, over amongst some bushes with a rank growth of nettles at one end, he (i)
(think) it was a miserable place. But when he came close to the peeling lime wash, the torn-
down ivy, sagging roof, the (ii) (break) stone doorstep, thick with trampled mud, he saw that
it was a wretched house. The door (iii) (stand) half-open, stuck. He knocked at it and (iv)
(listen) to the acute silence. He knocked again firmly and thought he (v) (hear)
thin whisperings. He did not like the (vi) (hush) fear in the sounds, and was just about (vii)
(knock) peremptorily when there was a shuffling and, as quietly as an apparition, a woman
(viii) (is) there.
(i) 1. Thinks 2. thought 3. thinked
(ii) 1. Breaks 2. broken 3. breaking
(iii) 1. stood 2. is standing 3. had been standing
(iv) 1. was listening 2. had been listening 3. listened
(v) 1. could hear 2. had been hearing 3. was hearing
(vi) 1. Hushing 2. hushed 3. hush
(vii) 1. Knocked 2. knocking 3. to knock
(viii) 1. Be 2. is 3. was
(b) Choose the correct option to fill in the blanks: [4]
(i) Surprised _________ the noise, the judge called for silence.
1. on 2. at 3. with
(ii) Ravi’s parents are not happy ________ his behaviour.
1. for 2. by 3. with
(iii) The Colonel congratulated the soldiers _______ their victory.
1. beside 2. alongside 3. on
(iv) The planet was seen ________ the telescope.
1. outside 2. before 3. through
(v) He is not afraid _______ the consequences.
1. over 2. of 3. for
(vi) He rushed ______ the class as he was late.
1. into 2. onto 3. in
(vii) The school is famous _______its sports achievements.
1. of 2. for 3. besides
(viii) ___________ being clever, he is brave.
1. Despite 2. Besides 3. For
(c) Choose the correct option to join the following sentences without using ‘and’, ‘but’ or ‘so’: [4]
(i) She sells sea shells. She sells them on the sea shore.
1. She sells sea shells on the sea shore.
2. The sea shells which she sells are found on the sea shore.
3. She sells sea shells which are on the sea shore.
(ii) Why are you upset? Did someone scold you?
1. You are upset having been scolded by someone.
2. She asked him why he was upset and if he had been scolded.
3. Are you upset because someone scolded you?
(iii) She has not seen the message perhaps. She may have chosen to ignore it.
1. Perhaps she chose to ignore the message which she had seen.
2. She may either have not seen the message or chosen to ignore it.
3. Neither did she see the message nor ignore it.
(iv) I often wake up late in the mornings. I am never late for school.
1. Although I often wake up late in the mornings, I am never late for school.
2. I am sometimes late for school because I often wake up late in the mornings.
3. I am never late for school because I usually wake up on time.
(d) Read each sentence with its instructions. Choose the correct answer from the options provided
beneath each: [8]
(i) I couldn’t stop my teeth from chattering as it was very cold.
(Use ‘so’)
1. It was so cold that I couldn’t stop my teeth from chattering.
2. It was so difficult to stop my teeth from chattering it being cold.
3. I couldn’t stop my teeth from chattering so it was very cold.
(ii) As soon as the vacation begins, my neighbour rushes to the seaside.
(Begin: No sooner…)
1. No sooner does my vacation begin than the neighbour rushes to the seaside.
2. No sooner does the vacation begin than my neighbour rushes to the seaside.
3. No sooner did the vacation begin when my neighbour rushed to the seaside.
(iii) “Will you lend me the book tomorrow?” Priya asked her classmate.
(Begin: Priya asked her classmate if…………………………)

1. Priya asked her classmate if he would lend her the book the next day.
2. Priya asked her classmate if he would lent her the book tomorrow.
3. Priya asked her classmate if he will lend her the book the day after.
(iv) But for Laila’s support, the woman would have lost her job.
(Begin: Had…)

1. Had Laila supported her, the woman would not have lost her job.
2. Had Laila supported her, the woman would have lost her job.
3. Had it not been for Laila’s support, the woman would have lost her job.
(v) Herbert consulted his parents before accepting the job offer.
(Begin: Herbert did not ………..)

1. Herbert did not forgot to consult his parents before accepting the job offer.
2. Herbert did not forget to consult his parents before accepting the job offer.
3. Herbert did not consult his parents before accepting the job offer.
(vi) The tornado had been raging for several hours before people were moved to safety.
(Begin: The people…)

1. The people were moved to safety before the tornado had been raging for several hours.
2. The people were moved to safety only while the tornado had been raging for several hours.
3. The people were moved to safety only after the tornado had been raging for several hours.
(vii) Put your tools away, the children may fall over them.
(Use: lest………………)

1. Put your tools away lest the children may fall over them.
2. Put your tools away lest the children fall over them.
3. Put your tools away, children, lets fall over them.
(viii) Unless you begin now, you will never finish.
(Use ‘If’ )

1. If you never finish, you must begin now.
2. If you do not begin now, you will never finish.
3. If you begin now, you will never finish.
ANSWERS
Question 1
(a) (i) (1) (ii) (2) (iii) (1)
(b) (1) (c) (3) (d) (2) (e) (2) (f) (1) (g) (3) (h) (2)
Question 2
(a) (i) (2) (ii) (2) (iii) (1) (iv) (3) (v) (1) (vi) (2) (vii) (3) (viii) (3)
(b) (i) (2) (ii) (3) (iii) (3) (iv) (3) (v) (2) (vi) (1) (vii) (2) (viii) (2)
(c) (i) (1) (ii) (3) (iii) (2) (iv) (1)
(d) (i) (1) (ii) (2) (iii) (1) (iv) (3) (v) (2) (vi) (3) (vii) (1) (viii) (2)

MOCK QUESTION PAPER 1
ENGLISH LANGUAGE
English Paper – 1
Maximum Marks: 40
Question 1
People came to him when the patient was on his last legs. Dr Raman often burst out, ‘Why couldn’t
you have come a day earlier?’ The reason was obvious—visiting fee twenty-five rupees, and more than
that, people liked to shirk the fact that the time had come to call in Dr Raman; for them there was
something ominous in the very association. As a result, when the big man came on the scene it was
always a quick decision one way or another. There was no scope or time for any kind of wavering or
whitewashing. Long years of practice of this kind had bred in the doctor a certain curt truthfulness; for
that very reason his opinion was valued; he was not a mere doctor expressing an opinion but a judge
pronouncing a verdict. The patient’s life hung on his words. This never unduly worried Dr Raman. He
never believed that agreeable words ever saved lives. He did not think it was any of his business to
provide comforting lies when as a matter of course nature would tell them the truth in a few hours.
However, when he glimpsed the faintest sign of hope, he rolled up his sleeve and stepped into the
arena: it might be hours or days, but he never withdrew till he wrested the prize from Yama’s hands.
Today, standing over a bed, the doctor felt that he himself needed someone to tell him soothing lies.
He mopped his brow with his kerchief and sat down in the chair beside the bed. On the bed lay his
dearest friend in the world: Gopal. They had known each other for forty years now, starting with their
kindergarten days. They could not, of course, meet as much as they wanted, each being wrapped in his
own family and profession. Occasionally, on a Sunday, Gopal would walk into the consulting room and
wait patiently in a corner till the doctor was free. And then they would dine together, see a picture and
talk of each other’s life and activities. It was a classic friendship, which endured untouched by changing
times, circumstances and activities.
In his busy round of work, Dr Raman had not noticed that Gopal had not called in for over three months
now. He only remembered it when he saw Gopal’s son sitting on a bench in the consulting hall one
crowded morning. Dr Raman could not talk to him for over an hour. When he got up and was about
to pass on to the operating room, he called up the young man and asked, ‘What brings you here, sir?’
The youth was nervous and shy. ‘Mother sent me here.’
‘What can I do for you?’
‘Father is ill ...’
It was an operation day and he was not free till three in the afternoon. He rushed off straight from the
clinic to his friend’s house, in Lawley Extension.
Gopal lay in bed as if in sleep. The doctor stood over him and asked Gopal’s wife, ‘How long has he
been in bed?’
‘A month and a half, Doctor.’
‘Who is attending him?’ ‘A doctor in the next street. He comes down once in three days and gives him
medicine.’
‘What is his name?’ He had never heard of him. ‘Someone I don’t know, but I wish he had had the
goodness to tell me about it. Why, why couldn’t you have sent me word earlier?’
‘We thought you would be busy and did not wish to trouble you unnecessarily.’ They were apologetic
and miserable. There was hardly any time to be lost. He took off his coat and opened his bag. He took
out an injection tube, the needle sizzled over the stove. The sick man’s wife whimpered in a corner
and essayed to ask questions.
‘Please don’t ask questions,’ snapped the doctor. He looked at the children, who were watching the
sterilizer, and said, ‘Send them all away somewhere, except the eldest.’
[From ‘The Doctor’s World’, Malgudi Days by R.K Narayan]
provided:[3]
(i) Ominous:
1. auspicious 2. portentous 3. evil
(ii) Whitewashing:
1. deliberate concealment of unpleasant facts
2. painting a room
3. changing a situation
(iii) Whimpered:
1. whispered 2. whined 3. lamented
(b) The main objective of the passage is to [2]
1. demonstrate how Dr Raman’s friendship with Gopal had grown over the years.
2. describe the nature of a doctor’s work.
3. introduce Dr Raman as a doctor and the importance he gave to his work.
(c) People came to him when the patient was on his last legs. The underlined phrase means- [2]
1. thriving
2. prepared to use the most desperate means to recover.
3. near the end of life
(d) Which of the following is not true about Dr Raman? [2]
1. He believed pleasant words could save lives.
2. He could not provide comforting lies to a patient.
3. Even with the faintest glimmer of hope, Dr Raman attempted his best to wrest the prize from
Yama’s hands.
(e) How long had Dr Raman known Gopal? [2]
1. Since they were at college.
2. Since their kindergarten days.
3. Since the time he started practicing as a doctor.
(f) In what way was Gopal and Dr Raman’s friendship a classic one? [2]
1. They both understood each other better than anyone else understood them.
2. Even if they did not meet, they stayed in each other’s hearts.
3. It was unaffected by changing times, circumstances and activities.

(g) Gopal’s son had come to Dr Raman’s clinic to- [2]
1. Inform Dr Raman about his father’s ailment.
2. Seek Dr Raman’s help for his ailing father.
3. Inform Dr Raman that his mother was upset about his ailing father.
(h) What does one come to know about Dr Raman from the passage? Which combination of sentences
best summarizes the answer? [5]
1. Dr Raman had practiced for long and was highly venerated for his experience. People visited
him frequently because his visiting fee was a mere twenty-five rupees and they believed that
his words were like a verdict. The patient’s life hung on his words. He was always pleasant to
them never saying anything that could make them lose hope.
2. Dr Raman had practiced for long; yet people feared to visit him for they thought that the doctor
would rebuke them for being too late. They valued his opinion but went to visit him only when
the patient was on his last legs. He would never tell them comforting lies; instead he preferred
to tell them the truth to give them some hope to cling to.
3. Dr Raman had practiced for long and had acquired a certain curt truthfulness. So his opinion
was highly valued. His words were generally true and were considered a verdict rather than an
opinion. He would not give false hopes to patients but when he glimpsed a sign of hope, he
prepared to fight his way to save his patient.
Question 2
Beekeepers often (i) (find) that some honey bee colonies produce more honey than
others. Such differences are due to variations in the strain of bee and the quality of the queen in
individual colonies. The queen bee may (ii) (replace) with a new queen of the desired
strain.
Queen bees (iii) (raise) in specifically built queen cells. A newly (iv) (hatch)
female larva is neither queen or a worker. The variation in diet (v) (start) from the time
of larvae hatching. On the third day after hatching a major difference in diet (vi) (occur)
when pollen is (vii) (include) in the diet of female larvae destined (viii)
(become) a worker.
(i)
1. find 2. found 3. may find
(ii) 1. replace 2. be replaced 3. replaced
(iii) 1. rise 2. is raised 3. are raised
(iv) 1. hatched 2. hatching 3. hatching out
(v) 1. started 2. starts 3. will start
(vi) 1. may occur 2. occurred 3. occurs
(vii) 1. is included 2. included 3. are included
(viii) 1. to become 2. for becoming 3. will become
(i) They walked the edge of the forest.
1. about 2. along 3. aside
(ii) We disposed all the old newspapers.
1. of 2. off 3. away
(iii) The thieves made with a gold chain and some cash.
1. over 2. away 3. off

(iv) Kirti is a student Delhi university.
1. at 2. in 3. of
(v) The manager called an explanation from the salesman.
1. out 2. up 3. for
(vi) I am looking my keys.
1. up 2. for 3. at
(vii) The police car chased the robbers the street.
1. through 2. among 3. on
(viii) The child on a bicycle accidentally knocked an old lady.
1. out 2. off 3. down
(i) It may rain. We will get wet.
1. It may rain, then we will get wet.
2. In case it rains, we will get wet.
3. Unless it rains, we will not get wet.
(ii) The weather was pleasant. We went out for a walk.
1. The weather was so pleasant that we went for a walk.
2. The weather being pleasant, we went out for a walk.
3. As the weather had been pleasant, we went out for a walk.
(iii) His feet slipped. He fell down.
1. No sooner did his feet slip than he fell down,
2. As soon as his feet slipped, he fell down.
3. His feet slipping, he fell down.
(iv) He saw the sunshine. He threw open the window.
1. On seeing the sunshine, he threw open the window.
2. Seeing the sunshine, he threw open the window.
3. No sooner did he see the sunshine than he threw open the window.
beneath each: [8]
(i) What a memorable journey it was!
(Begin: It was…)

1. It was a memorable journey.
2. It was truly a memorable journey.
3. It was a journey that will always be memorable.
(ii) As soon as the birds began singing in their nests, I woke up.
(Begin: No sooner…)

1. No sooner did the birds begin to sing in their nests than I woke up.
2. No sooner did the birds begin singing in their nests when I woke up.
3. No sooner did the birds begin singing in their nests than I woke up.

(iii) He could not appear for the interview because the interview letter reached him late.
(Begin: If…)

1. If the interview letter had not reached him late, he could have appeared for the interview.
2. If the interview letter had reached him on time, he could have appeared for the interview.
3. If the interview letter had not reached him late, he could appear for the interview.
(iv) I prefer that you take a bus to the workplace.
(Begin: I’d rather…)

1. I’d rather you take a bus to your workplace.
2. I’d rather that you take a bus to your workplace.
3. I’d rather you took a bus to your workplace.
(v) Macbeth said, “Why do you dress me in borrowed robes?”
(Begin: Macbeth asked…)

1. Macbeth asked why they dressed him in borrowed robes.
2. Macbeth asked why he was being dressed in borrowed robes.
3. Macbeth asked why they were dressing him in borrowed robes.
(vi) All the passengers in the bus were given food packets.
(Begin: Each…)

1. Each of the passengers in the bus were given food packets.
2. Each of the passengers in the bus was given food packets.
3. Each of the passengers in the bus was given a food packet.
(vii) They arrested the man merely on grounds of suspicion.
(Begin: The man…)

1. The man was arrested merely on grounds of suspicion.
2. The man was arrested, merely on grounds of suspicion by them.
3. The man has been arrested merely on ground of suspicion.
(viii) Someone will surely answer the doorbell.
(Add a question tag)

1. Someone will surely answer the doorbell, won’t he?
2. Someone will surely answer the doorbell, will they?
3. Someone will surely answer the doorbell, won’t they?
ANSWERS
Question 1
(a) (i) (2) (ii) (1) (iii) (2)
(b) (3) (c) (3) (d) (1) (e) (2) (f) (3) (g) (2) (h) (3)
Question 2
(c) (i) (2) (ii) (2) (iii) (3) (iv) (1)

ENGLISH LANGUAGE
English Paper – 1
Maximum Marks: 40
Question 1
In that last year at Prep school in Shimla, there were four of us who were close friends—Bimal, whose
home was in Bombay; Riaz, who came from Lahore; Bran, who hailed from Vellore; and your narrator,
who lived wherever his father (then in the Air Force) was posted.
We called ourselves the ‘Four Feathers’, the feathers signifying that we were companions in adventure,
comrades-in-arms, and knights of the round table. Bimal adopted a peacock’s feather as his emblem—he
was always a bit showy. Riaz chose a falcon’s feather—although we couldn’t find one. Bran and I were
at first offered crow’s or murghi feathers, but we protested vigorously and threatened a walkout. Finally,
I settled for a parrot’s feather (taken from Mrs Fisher’s pet parrot), and Bran found a woodpecker’s,
which suited him, as he was always knocking things about.
Bimal was all thin legs and arms, so light and frisky that at times he seemed to be walking on air. We
called him ‘Bambi’, after the delicate little deer in the Disney film. Riaz, on the other hand, was a sturdy
boy, good at games though not very studious; but always good-natured, always smiling.
Bran was a dark, good-looking boy from the South; he was just a little spoilt— hated being given out
in a cricket match and would refuse to leave the crease!—but he was affectionate and a loyal friend.
I was the ‘scribe’—good at inventing stories in order to get out of scrapes—but hopeless at sums, my
highest marks being twenty-two out of one hundred.
On Sunday afternoons, when there were no classes or organized games, we were allowed to roam about
on the hillside below the school. The Four Feathers would laze about on the short summer grass, sharing
the occasional food parcel from home, reading comics (sometimes a book), and making plans for the
long winter holidays. My father, who collected everything from stamps to seashells to butterflies, had
given me a butterfly net and urged me to try and catch a rare species which, he said, was found only
near Chotta Shimla. He described it as a large purple butterfly with yellow and black borders on its
wings. A Purple Emperor, I think it was called. As I wasn’t very good at identifying butterflies, I would
chase anything that happened to flit across the school grounds, usually ending up with Common Red
Admirals, Clouded Yellows, or Cabbage Whites. But that Purple Emperor—that rare specimen being
sought by collectors the world over—proved elusive. I would have to seek my fortune in some other
line of endeavour.
One day, scrambling about among the rocks, and thorny bushes below the school, I almost fell over a
small bundle lying in the shade of a young spruce tree. On taking a closer look, I discovered that the
bundle was really a baby, wrapped up in a tattered old blanket.
[From ‘The Four Feathers’, an anthology—collection for young readers, by Ruskin Bond]
provided:[3]
(i) frisky:
1. lively 2. talkative 3. feathery
(ii) elusive:
1. occasional 2. difficult to find 3. flighty
(iii) scrambling:
1. running wildly 2. climbing quickly using hands 3. running hastily
(b) The name ‘Four Feathers’ suggested that [2]
1. They were birds of the same feather.
2. They were King Arthur’s knights of the round table.
3. They were companions in adventure.
(c) Bambi was a name given to- [2]
1. Bran 2. Bimal 3. Riaz
(d) Why did the narrator feel that Bran’s feather suited him well? [2]
1. Bran chose a peacock’s feather and it suited him well because he was showy.
2. Bran chose a falcon’s feather and it suited him well because he loved to flaunt it.
3. Bran chose a woodpecker’s feather and it suited him well because he was always knocking
things about.
(e) The Four Feathers spent their Sunday afternoons- [2]
1. Lazing on the grass, chasing birds and reading comics.
2. Lazing on the grass, reading comics and making plans for the long winter holidays.
3. Lazing on the grass, reading and sharing the food that came occasionally.
(f) Common Red Admirals, Clouded Yellows or Cabbage Whites are names of- [2]
1. Butterflies 2. Birds 3. Flowers
(g) The expression ‘to get out of scrapes’ means- [2]
1. To get out of disputes 2. To shake off a dull mood
3. To seek escape from troubles or awkward situations
(h) What is known about the ‘Four Feathers’? [5]
1. The Four Feathers is a group of four close friends who, like the knights of the round table fought
secret wars, settled disputes and wore feathers.
2. The Four Feathers is a group of four close friends who were companions in adventures, and
chose a feather each as his emblem.
3. The Four Feathers is a group of four close friends who, wore a feather each as a mark of loyalty
to each other.
Question 2
Whenever we (i) (talk) of the hill stations of Uttarakhand, Nainital is always at the top of
the list. Be it breathtaking landscapes or mesmerizing scenes, Nainital has it. (ii) (locate)
2000 meters above sea level, the Naini lake is a fascinating thing to watch. I (iii) (take)
a taxi to Nainital from New Delhi. As soon as the mountain journey (iv) (commence), I
immediately (v) (feel) the gush of cool and fresh air. It (vi) (refresh) me and
took away the lethargy that (vii) (engulf) me. I stopped on my way (viii)
(snap) a few pictures.
(i) 1. Talked 2. had talked 3. talk
(ii) 1. Located 2. locating 3. location
(iii) 1. took 2. had taken 3. will take
(iv) 1. to commence 2. commenced 3. will commence
(v) 1. feel 2. felt 3. feeling
(vi) 1. refreshed 2. refreshing 3. refreshment
(vii) 1. engulfed 2. had engulfed 3. will have engulfed
(viii) 1. to snap 2. snapped 3. snapping
(i) The minister was impeached because he failed to comply the laws of the constitution.
1. to 2. by 3. with
(ii) Though it was just a lie, she fell it.
1. into 2. for 3. at
(iii) In contrast the living room, the master bedroom seems quite small.
1. with 2. to 3. of
(iv) all her faults, she is a likeable woman.
1. With 2. Of 3. By
(v) After a long-drawn dispute, the two brothers were reconciled each other.
1. to 2. between 3. with
(vi) Since there was no other way, he reconciled himself his fate.
1. to 2. with 3. towards
(vii) He is liable fall in debt for his extravagant expenditure.
1. to 2. for 3. of
(viii) He is liable his father’s debts.
1. to 2. for 3. with
(i) Mrs Charania was elected President of the organization. She was an activist fighting for the dispossessed.
1. Mrs Charania who was an activist fighting for the dispossessed, was elected President of the
organization.
2. Mrs Charania was elected President of the organization since she was an activist fighting for the
dispossessed.
3. Mrs Charania, who was an activist fighting for the dispossessed, was elected President of the
organization.
(ii) He felt tired. He laid his work aside.
1. When he felt tired, he laid his work aside. 2. Feeling tired, he laid his work aside.
3. On feeling tired, he laid his work aside.
(iii) He was ill last term. He was unable to attend school.
1. He was ill last term, so he was unable to attend school.
2. He was so ill last term that he was unable to attend school.
3. Being ill last term, he was unable to attend school.
(iv) The sun rose. The fog dispersed.
1. While the sun rose, the fog dispersed. 2. Since the sun rose, the fog dispersed.
3. As the sun rose, the fog dispersed.
beneath each: [8]
(i) Godhuli was most interested in music.
(Begin: Nothing…)
1. Nothing was of greater interest to Godhuli than music.
2. Nothing was of more interest to Godhuli than music.
3. Nothing interested Godhuli as much as music.

(ii) The steam engine was invented by Watt.
(Begin: Watt)
1. Watt invented the steam engine. 2. Watt had invented the steam engine.
3. Watt has invented the steam engine.
(iii) Gorillas are losing their natural habitat.
(Rewrite adding ‘increasingly’)
1. Gorillas are losing their natural habitat increasingly.
2. Gorillas are increasingly losing their natural habitat.
3. Increasingly gorillas are losing their natural habitat.
(iv) Father asked his son, “Why are you late from school today?”
(Write in reported speech)
1. Father asked his son why he had been late from school that day.
2. Father asked his son why he was late from school that day.
3. Father asked his son why was he late from school that day.
(v) She looks just as nice in a pantsuit as she does in a sari.
(Begin: Whether…)
1. Whether she wears a pantsuit or a sari, she looks nice.
2. Whether she wears a pantsuit or a sari, she looks just as nice.
3. Whether she is wearing a pantsuit or a sari, she looks just as nice.
(vi) He was too busy to see a doctor.
(Rewrite without using ‘too’)
1. He was extremely busy; so he could not see a doctor.
2. He is so busy that he cannot see a doctor.
3. He was so busy that he could not see a doctor.
(vii) I had to open all the windows as it was a very warm night.
(Change into a simple sentence)
1. So warm a night it was that I had to open all the windows.
2. Opening all the windows was necessary since it was a very warm night.
3. It being a very warm night, I had to open all the windows.
(viii) All the children were wearing blue jackets when they boarded the bus.
(Begin: Every…)
1. Every one of the children were wearing blue jackets when they boarded the bus.
2. Every child was wearing a blue jacket when he boarded the bus.
3. Every one of the children was wearing a blue jacket when they boarded the bus.
ANSWERS
Question 1
(a) (i) (1) (ii) (2) (iii) (2)
(b) (3) (c) (2) (d) (3) (e) (2) (f) (1) (g) (3) (h) (2)
Question 2
(c) (i) (3) (ii) (3) (iii) (3) (iv) (3)

ENGLISH LANGUAGE
English Paper – 1
Maximum Marks: 40
Question 1
Sustainable fishing guarantees there will be populations of ocean and freshwater wildlife for the
future. Aquatic environments are home to countless species of fish and invertebrates, most of which
are consumed as food. (Others are harvested for economic reasons, such as oysters that produce pearls
used in jewellery.) Seafood is respected all over the world, in many diverse cultures, as an important
source of protein and healthy fats. For thousands of years, people have fished to feed families and local
communities.
Demand for seafood and advances in technology have led to fishing practices that are depleting fish
and shellfish populations around the world. Fishers remove more than 77 billion kilograms (170 billion
pounds) of wildlife from the sea each year. Scientists fear that continuing to fish at this rate may soon
result in a collapse of the world’s fisheries. In order to continue relying on the ocean as an important
food source, economists and conservationists say we will need to employ sustainable fishing practices.
There are ways to fish sustainably, allowing us to enjoy seafood while ensuring that populations remain
for the future. In many indigenous cultures, people have fished sustainably for thousands of years.
Today’s sustainable fishing practices reflect some lessons learned from these cultures.
In the Philippines, the Tagbanua people have traditionally employed fishing practices that simultaneously
harvest and maintain fish populations. They continue to follow these practices today. Tagbanuas fish for
specific species only during certain times of the year, determined by tides and the moon, allowing fish
stocks to replenish themselves. They set aside certain areas, such as coral reefs, as protected spots in which
fishing is prohibited. When they do fish, these traditional fishers primarily use hook-and-line methods,
catching only what they need to feed themselves and their communities. A 2007 study lauded traditional
Tagbanua practices as a way to prevent injury and death to local Irrawaddy dolphins, which become
entangled in more modern fishing gear like nets and traps.
Many individuals, communities, and nations continue to rely on fish and other aquatic life as a source of
food and raw materials. To maintain fish stocks, overfishing and bycatch must be reduced through fisheries
management.
The goal of fisheries management is to develop regulations based on scientific data.
Fishing for bluefin tuna, for instance, is highly regulated in the United States. Fishers may only catch
this species with a rod and reel or hand-thrown harpoon. This regulation ensures they may only catch
one fish at a time. To be taken from the ocean, a fish must measure at least 185 centimeters (73 inches).
The goal of this rule is to give fish a chance to spawn before being caught. In addition, only a certain
tonnage of fish may be caught each year. Once that quota is reached, the fishery is closed for the season.

Rules like these take into consideration a fish species’ biology and natural history in order to maintain
populations for the future.
[Source: https://www.nationalgeographic.org/encyclopedia/sustainable-fishing]
provided:[3]
(i) harvested:
1. catch or kill animals for human consumption
2. removed or taken out
3. grown or gathered.
(ii) employ:
1. engage in 2. recruit 3. use
(iii) replenish:
1. freshen 2. replace 3. restock
(b) Why is there a need to employ sustainable fishing practices? [2]
1. Aquatic environments are increasingly becoming more polluted.
2. Fishers remove more than 77 billion kilograms of wildlife from the sea each year.
3. There is speculation that fishing practices that lead to depletion of fish and shellfish population
can ruin the world’s fisheries.
(c) What solution does the author contemplate to combat over-exploitation of fisheries? [2]
1. To learn from some indigenous cultures about sustainable fishing practices.
2. To draw lessons from conservationists who employ sustainable fishing practices.
3. To follow the ways of the Tagbanua people.
(d) What is distinctively unique about the fishing practices of the Tagbanua? [2]
1. They fish during certain times of the year only, not at all times.
2. They fish for specific species only.
3. They fish for certain species during certain times according to the tides and the moon.
(e) Which of the following practices do the Tagbanuas not follow? [2]
1. They do not fish in all areas.
2. They use nets to catch fish.
3. They catch only what they need to feed themselves and their communities.
(f) Which of the following is not a goal of fisheries management? [2]
1. To preserve fish stocks.
2. To reduce bycatch.
3. To harvest oysters for commercial purposes.
(g) Which of the following fishing methods is not advocated? [2]
1. Use of nets and traps.
2. Use of hook and line method.
3. Use of the hand-thrown harpoon.
(h) Which of the following sets of sentences explain the goal of fisheries management? [5]
1. The goal of fisheries management is to develop regulations based on scientific data. For example,
fishing for red-fin tuna is highly regulated in the US. Fishers are not allowed to use a net or
trawlers to catch this fish. They are also not permitted to catch any fish weighing more than
185 centimeters.

the regulation for fishing blue-fin tuna includes that no fish measuring less than 185 centimeters
can be caught from the ocean.
only 73 tonnes of blue fin tuna may be caught every year and the fishery is closed for the season
once the quota is reached. This ensures that the fish population is preserved.
Question 2
My jaw (i)
(drop) when I read a July 19, 2004, article from the International Herald
Tribune (ii) (headline): “Want Fries with Outsourcing?” Pull off Interstate Highway 55
near Cape Girradeau, Missouri, and into the drive-through lane of a McDonald’s next to the highway
and you’ll get fast, friendly service, even though the person (iii) (take) your order is
not in the restaurant. The order-taker is in a call center, (iv) (connect) to the customer
and to the workers (v) (prepare) the food by high-speed data lines. The man who owns
the restaurant (vi) (link) it and three other of his franchises to the Colorado call center;
Cheap, quick and reliable telecommunication lines let the order-takers take an electronics snapshot
of them, (vii) (display) the order on a screen. The order is then (viii)
(forward) to the restaurant kitchen.
(i) 1. drops 2. dropped 3. had dropped
(ii) 1. headlined 2. headlines 3. is headlined
(iii) 1. to take 2. taking 3. took
(iv) 1. connecting 2. has connected 3. connected
(v) 1. preparing 2. prepared 3. to prepare
(vi) 1. links 2. has linked 3. linked
(vii) 1. displayed 2. display 3. displaying
(viii) 1. forwarding 2. forwarded 3. forward
(i) The art form he practices has broken from being labeled as ‘primitive’ and ‘conventional’.
1. off 2. away 3. out
(ii) Peace talks with the militant leaders broke last night disappointing the state and its
people.
1. down 2. off 3. up
(iii) The man is distinguished a mole on his left cheek.
1. with 2. for 3. by
(iv) The house is put the market
1. of 2. off 3. on
(v) We came many foreign nationals in the city.
1. by 2. upon 3. across
(vi) Please make sure that you are time for the class.
1. on 2. in 3. at
(vii) He has an aptitude writing good short stories.
1. of 2. to 3. for

(viii) Do not dwell past mistakes.
1. over 2. on 3. onto
(i) His parents returned on his birthday. He was very pleased.
1. His parents returned on his birthday for it would please him very much.
2. When his parents arrived on his birthday he was very pleased.
3. His parents having returned on his birthday, he was very pleased.
(ii) The experiment was a failure. The lab manual was not studied carefully.
1. The lab manual not being studied carefully, the experiment was a failure.
2. Notwithstanding that the lab manual was not studied carefully, the experiment was a failure.
3. The experiment was a failure since the lab manual had not been studied carefully.
(iii) I speak the truth. I am not afraid of it.
1. I speak the truth as I am not afraid of it.
2. As I speak the truth, I am not afraid of it.
3. I am not afraid to speak the truth.
(iv) My memory is very strong. It does not fail me.
1. My memory is strong enough to not fail me.
2. My memory is too strong to fail me.
3. My memory is not too weak to fail me.
beneath each: [8]
(i) It is time for us to discuss the matter.
(Begin: It is time we…)

1. It is time we discussed the matter.
2. It is time that we discussed the matter.
3. It is time enough that the matter was discussed.
(ii) Rohit said to his friends, “Did you watch the movie yesterday?”
1. Rohit asked his friends if they watched the movie the previous day.
2. Rohit asked his friends whether or not they watched the movie the day before.
3. Rohit asked his friends if they had watched the movie the day before.
(iii) Walk fast, else we will reach only after the shop closes.
(Begin: If…)

1. If you walk slowly, we will reach only after the shop closes.
2. If you do not walk fast, we will reach only after the shop closes.
3. If you walk fast, we will reach before the shop closes.
(iv) Some beans are as nutritious as meat.
(Use: more nutritious)

1. Meat is more nutritious than some beans.
2. Some beans are not more nutritious than meat.
3. Meat is not more nutritious than some beans.

(v) No one can sing as beautifully as Lata Mangeshkar.
(Rewrite as question)

1. Can there be anyone who can sing as beautifully as Lata Mangeshkar?
2. Is there anyone who can sing as beautifully as Lata Mangeshkar?
3. Who can sing as beautifully as Lata Mangeshkar?
(vi) What an idea it is to store water in canes of bamboo!
(Change into assertive)

1. It may be a good idea to store water in canes of bamboo.
2. It is a great idea to store water in canes of bamboo.
3. It seems a good idea to store water in canes of bamboo.
(vii) The lady waters her plants with a watering can every day.
(Begin: The lady’s plants…)

1. The lady’s plants are watered by the lady everyday with a watering can.
2. The lady’s plants are watered by her with a watering can every day.
3. The lady’s plants receive water from her watering can everyday.
(viii) It’s a pity that she missed the fun at the gathering.
(Begin: I wish…)

1. I wish she could have fun at the gathering.
2. I wish that she would not miss the fun at gathering.
3. I wish she had not missed the fun at the gathering.
ANSWERS
Question 1
(a) (i) (1) (ii) (3) (iii) (3)
(b) (3) (c) (1) (d) (3) (e) (2) (f) (3) (g) (1) (h) (2)
Question 2
(c) (i) (3) (ii) (3) (iii) (3) (iv) (2)

ENGLISH LANGUAGE
English Paper – 1
Maximum Marks: 40
Question 1
It was the festival of spring. From the wintry shades of narrow lanes and alleys emerged a gaily clad
humanity. Some walked, some rode on horses, others sat, being carried in bamboo and bullock carts.
One little boy ran between his father’s legs, brimming over with life and laughter. “Come, child, come,”
called his parents, as he lagged behind, fascinated by the toys in the shops that lined the way.
He hurried towards his parents, his feet obedient to their call, his eyes still lingering on the receding toys.
As he came to where they had stopped to wait for him, he could not suppress the desire of his heart,
even though he well knew the old, cold stare of refusal in their eyes. “I want that toy,” he pleaded. His
father looked at him red-eyed, in his familiar tyrant’s way. His mother, melted by the free spirit of the
day was tender and, giving him her finger to hold, said, “Look, child, what is before you!”
It was a flowering mustard-field, pale like melting gold as it swept across miles and miles of even land.
A group of dragon-flies were bustling about on their gaudy purple wings, intercepting the flight of a
lone black bee or butterfly in search of sweetness from the flowers. The child followed them in the air
with his gaze, till one of them would still its wings and rest, and he would try to catch it. But it would
go fluttering, flapping, up into the air, when he had almost caught it in his hands. Then his mother
gave a cautionary call: “Come, child, come, come on to the footpath.”
He ran towards his parents gaily and walked abreast of them for a while, being, however, soon left
behind, attracted by the little insects and worms along the footpath that were teeming out from their
hiding places to enjoy the sunshine.
“Come, child, come!” his parents called from the shade of a grove where they had seated themselves on
the edge of a well. He ran towards them. A shower of young flowers fell upon the child as he entered
the grove, and, forgetting his parents, he began to gather the raining petals in his hands. But lo! he heard
the cooing of doves and ran towards his parents shouting, “The dove! The dove!” The raining petals
dropped from his forgotten hands. “Come, child, come!” they called to the child, who had now gone
running in wild capers round the banyan tree, and gathering him up they took the narrow, winding
footpath which led to the fair through the mustard fields. As they neared the village the child could see
many other footpaths full of throngs, converging to the whirlpool of the fair, and felt at once repelled
and fascinated by the confusion of the world he was entering.
[From ‘The Lost Child’ by Mulk Raj Anand]

provided:[3]
(i) Intercepting:
1. Preventing 2. Obstructing 3. Stopping
(ii) Teeming
1. Flying
2. Appearing in small groups
3. Appearing in huge numbers
(iii) Capers
1. Playful skipping movements 2. Nimble dancing steps 3. Frenzy
(b) Which of the following lines contain a kinesthetic image? [2]
1. He ran towards his parents gaily and walked abreast of them.
2. His mother melted by the free spirit of the day was tender.
3. But it would go fluttering, flapping, up into the air.
(c) What made the little boy lag behind? [2]
1. He was fascinated by the toys in the shops that lined the way.
2. A gaily clad humanity some of whom walked or rode on horses or were being carried in bullock
carts captivated him.
3. He kept following butterflies and was left behind.
(d) Which of the following did the child not do upon entering the grove? [2]
1. He chased dragonflies that hovered in the air.
2. He began to gather raining petals in his hands.
3. He ran in wild capers round the banyan tree.
(e) Which literary devices have been used in the line, “It was a flowering mustard-field, pale like melting
gold as it swept across miles and miles of even land.”? [2]
1. Metaphor and tactile imagery
2. Simile and visual imagery
3. Repetition and personification
(f) What did the boy desire? [2]
1. A toy 2. Sweets 3. A ride in a bullock cart.
(g) Which of the following is not a sign of the arrival of spring? [2]
1. Little insects and worms come out of their hiding places to enjoy the sunshine.
2. Dragon flies, bees and butterflies fluttered in the air.
3. From the wintry shades of narrow lanes and alleys emerged a gaily clad humanity.
(h) Which of the following set of sentences best describe the boy’s feelings while he was about to enter
the village fair? [5]
1. Walking along a narrow, winding path that led to the fair through the mustard fields, he saw
the flowering fields like melting gold, sweeping across miles of even land. Nearing the village,
he saw many other footpaths diverging from the whirlpool of the fair and felt amazed and
confounded by the great number of people and the confusion their presence created.
2. Walking along a narrow, winding footpath that led to the fair, he saw a gaily clad humanity
emerging from the wintry shades of narrow lanes and alleys. He brimmed with life and laughter
and grew fascinated by the toys in the shops in the village fair.

3. Walking along a narrow, winding footpath that led to the fair, he saw a great crowd converging
to the whirlpool of the fair and felt at once repelled and fascinated by the confusion of the world
he was entering.
Question 2
It would be impossible for us to continue (i)
(live) in the world if each of us
(ii) (know) exactly what fate had in store for him. So, God in his mercy (iii)
(conceal) the future from all His creatures. He (iv) (hide) from men what angels
(v) (know). For example, if a lamb had reason like a man, it (vi) (not
live) happily knowing it was destined to (vii) (kill). But by being ignorant of its fate,
it is happy to the last minute of its short life, (viii) (graze) in the flowery meadow.
(i) 1. To live 2. life 3. living
(ii) 1. had known 2. would have known 3. knew
(iii) 1. conceals 2. concealed 3. has concealed
(iv) 1. has hidden 2. hides 3. had hidden
(v) 1. know 2. have known 3. has known
(vi) 1. could not have lived 2. could not live 3. has not lived
(vii) 1. be killed 2. have been killed 3. kill
(viii) 1. have been grazing 2. being grazed 3. grazing
(i) all the accolades he has won, he is not content.
1. For 2. With 3. Besides
(ii) The men fell sick exhaustion.
1. of 2. for 3. from
(iii) The city of Kolkata is built the Hooghly river.
1. on 2. over 3. around
(iv) Contrary my expectations, it was a gloomy day for a picnic.
1. of 2. to 3. by
(v) Innocence is not proof scandal.
1. for 2. of 3. against
(vi) The pass will entitle you a hassle-free entry into the theatre premises.
1. into 2. to 3. for
(vii) The creditor accommodated me a loan.
1. into 2. for 3. with
(viii) He acted his mother’s suggestion.
1. upon 2. out 3. under
(i) She made several efforts to win his heart. She failed.
1. Having made several efforts to win his heart, she failed.
2. Notwithstanding the several efforts to win his heart, she failed.
3. Notwithstanding the several attempts she made to win his heart, she failed.

(ii) The judge gave his decision. The court listened silently.
1. The judge gave his decision along with the court listening silently.
2. The court listened silently to the judge giving his decision.
3. The judge gave his decision when the court listened silently.
(iii) Sonia wanted to buy a new bag. She went to the Baggit store.
1. Sonia wanted to buy a new bag, so she went to the Baggit store.
2. Wanting to buy a new bag, Sonia went to the Baggit store.
3. Sonia went to the Baggit store to buy a new bag.
(iv) It must rain in Mumbai. The city gets its potable water from the rains.
1. If it does not rain in Mumbai, the city will not get its potable water.
2. Unless it rains in Mumbai, the city will not get its potable water.
3. It must rain in Mumbai for the city must get its potable water.
beneath each: [8]
(i) It is a pity that we should have to undergo this disgrace.
(Begin: Our…)

1. Our disgrace is a matter of pity.
2. Our state of disgrace is a matter of pity.
3. Our having to undergo this disgrace is a pity.
(ii) Except that he hurt his hand, he was lucky.
(Begin: Except for…)

1. Except for his hurting his hand, he was lucky.
2. Except for the hurt to his hand, he was lucky.
3. Except for his hand, he was luckily not hurt.
(iii) He must not be late, or he will be punished.
(Begin: In the event…)

1. In the event that he is late, he will be punished.
2. In the event of his being late, he will be punished.
3. In the event of him being late, he will be punished.
(iv) I called him but he gave no answer.
(Rewrite as a simple sentence)

1. Although I called him, he gave no answer.
2. I called him; all the same he gave no answer.
3. He gave no answer to my call.
(v) Only members are allowed to hire the premises.
(Begin: None…)

1. None but members are allowed to hire the premises.
2. Nine other than members will be allowed to hire the premises.
3. None except members are allowed to hire the premises.

(vi) What though they ignore our suggestions?
(Begin: It…)

1. It matters much though that they ignore our suggestions.
2. It is a pity that they ignore our suggestions.
3. It does not matter much though they ignore our suggestions.
(vii) The Court will have taken the decision by noon tomorrow.
(Begin: The decision…)

1. The decision will be taken by the Court by noon tomorrow.
2. The decision will have been taken by the Court by noon tomorrow.
3. The decision will have to be taken by the Court by noon tomorrow.
(viii) Let us meet at a café.
(Add a question tag)

1. Let us meet at a café, shall we?
2. Let us meet at a café, can we?
3. Let us meet at a café, can’t we?
ANSWERS
Question 1
(a) (i) (1) (ii) (3) (iii) (1)
(b) (3) (c) (1) (d) (1) (e) (2) (f) (1) (g) (3) (h) (3)
Question 2
(c) (i) (3) (ii) (2) (iii) (3) (iv) (3)

ENGLISH (01)
Literature in English
CLASS X
There will be two papers: The Blue Bead – Norah Burke
(ii)
Paper 2: Literature in English. (iii) My Greatest Olympic Prize – Jesse Owens
Each of these papers will be of two hours duration. (iv) All Summer in a Day – Ray Douglas Bradbury
Paper 2: Literature in English (80 Marks)
Internal Assessment (20 Marks) INTERNAL ASSESSMENT
PAPER 2 - LITERATURE IN ENGLISH Paper 2 - Literature in English

Candidates will be required to answer five questions Schools will set, assess and record written assignments
from the prescribed textbooks, which include Drama, by the candidates as given below:
Prose (Short Stories) and Poetry.
Class X: Two or three assignments of reasonable length (not
Drama and Prose (Short Stories) exceeding 1500 words in total).
Questions set will be central to the text. Candidates
will be required to show that they have understood the SUGGESTED ASSIGNMENTS
passage and are able to clearly give their interpretation Assignments should be based on the prescribed textbooks
of the questions set, which should be in their own words on the following lines:
and relevant to the text. (i) Character/thematic analysis;
Excerpts may be given from the drama and prose texts (ii) Socio-economic, cultural, historical relevance /
leading to questions on the specific book. background;
Poetry (iii) Summary / paraphrase.
A poem, or passages from poems, will be given and (iv) Appreciation of literary qualities.
questions will be set to test the candidates’ response (v) Identifying with a character. Putting oneself in the
to the poem. The questions will focus on the content, place of a character in given circumstances and
understanding and the personal response of candidates explaining one’s actions.
to the poem as a whole. (vi) Imagine alternative outcomes or endings in a
NOTE: literary piece and the effect on all concerned.
Candidates will be tested ONLY on the portion of the
syllabus that is prescribed for Class X. EVALUATION
The assignments/projects are to be evaluated by the
SYLLABUS FOR CLASS X subject teacher and by an external examiner. (The External
Examiner may be a teacher nominated by the Head
Literature in English (English Paper – 2) of the school, who could be from the faculty, but not
1.
T HE MERCHANT OF VENICE (Shakespeare’s teaching the subject in the section/class. For example,
unabridged play by A.W. Verity) a teacher of English of Class VIII may be deputed to
(Act III, Act IV and Act V only) be an External Examiner for Class X, English projects.)
TREASURE TROVE - A collection of ICSE Poems and The Internal Examiner and the External Examiner will
Short Stories (Evergreen Publications) assess the assignments independently.
2. POETRY: Poems to be studied. Award of Marks (20 Marks)
I know why the Caged Bird Sings – Maya Angelou
(i) Subject Teacher (Internal Examiner) 10 marks
The Patriot – Robert Browning
(ii) External Examiner 10 marks
(iii) Abu Ben Adhem – Leigh Hunt The total marks obtained out of 20 are to be sent to the
(iv) Nine Gold Medals – David Roth Council by the Head of the school.
3. PROSE (short stories): Short stories to be studied. The Head of the school will be responsible for the online
The Little Match Girl – Hans Christian Andersen
(i) entry of marks on the Council’s CAREERS portal by the
due date.
SPECIMEN QUESTION PAPER (SOLVED)
LITERATURE IN ENGLISH
English Paper – 2
Maximum Marks: 40
Section A [10 × 1]
1. The story, The Little Match Girl, was written by .
(a) Hans Christian Andersen (b) Roald Dahl
(c) Ruskin Bond (d) J. K. Rowling
2. The visions seen by the little girl in the short story, ‘The Little Match Girl’ reveal the four things she
needed the most. They were .
(a) warmth, food, love and freedom from fear.
(b) food, shelter, warm clothes and a mother.
(c) roast goose, new slippers, candy and a warm cup of tea.
(d) a warm over coat, food, a scarf, a pair of socks.
3. Maya Angelou has used the caged bird as a symbol for .
(a) the oppressed (b) the opressors (c) feminist writers (d) writers and activists.
4. The central message of Browning’s poem, ‘The Patriot’ is .
(a) public adulation and glory are short lived.
(b) as you sow, so you reap.
(c) death comes to all people, even the rich and famous.
(d) God helps those who help themselves.
5. The Gujars mentioned in Norah Burke’s story, ‘The Blue Bead’ were .
(a) wandering herdsmen (b) Stone Age Hunters
(c) Hunter gatherers (d) Primitive cultivators
6. Sibia lingered behind after the other women had left because .
(a) she didn’t want to have to help her mother with preparing the evening meal.
(b) she wanted to check if her little clay cups were still in the cave where she had left them.
(c) she wanted to chat with the Gujar women who came to draw water from the river.
(d) she was exhausted and she wanted to rest for a while.
7. Tubal returns from Genoa with news both good and bad, for Shylock. Which of the following did
he NOT say to Shylock?
(a) That he had met Jessica, Shylock’s daughter in Genoa.
(b) That in Genoa, he had heard news of Antonio’s misfortunes.
(c) That Jessica had spent eighty ducats in one night in Genoa.
(d) That he had been shown Shylock’s ring that Jessica had traded in Genoa for a monkey.
ICSE Semester 1 Literature in English 3
8. Soon after Portia and Bassanio declare their love for each other, another pair also declare their love for
each other and ask to be married at the same time as Portia and Bassanio. They are .
(a) Gratiano and Nerissa (b) Gratiano and Jessica
(c) Lorenzo and Nerissa (d) Lorenzo and Jessica
9. Bassanio rejected the golden casket because .
(a) he knew that Midas had found gold hard to digest.
(b) he knew that outward appearances are often deceptive.
(c) he found gold too shiny for his taste.
(d) he had been told which casket contained Portia’s portrait.
10. When Portia left for Venice she put in charge of her house.
(a) Lorenzo (b) Jessica (c) Gratiano (d) Launcelot
Section B
I. Read the following extract from The Merchant of Venice (Act 3) and answer the questions that
follow by choosing the most appropriate response from the choices given below: [5 × 1]
Salarino: Why, I am sure, if he forfeit, thou
Wilt not take his flesh: What’s that good for? Shylock: To bait fish withal: if it will feed nothing
Else it will feed my revenge.
1. Where does the above exchange between Salarino and Shylock take place?
(a) On a street in Venice (b) On the Rialto
(c) On a street outside Shylock’s house (d) On a street in Belmont
2. What is Antonio required to forfeit if he fails to repay the amount he borrowed from Shylock within
the time specified in the bond?
(a) A pound of his flesh (b) Three times the sum that he had borrowed
(c) His friendship with Bassanio (d) All his wealth and property
3. A little later in his speech, Shylock compares Christians with Jews. Which of the following comparisons
does he NOT make?
(a) Both Jews and Christians bleed when cut.
(b) Both Jews and Christians die if poisoned.
(c) Both Jews and Christians treat each other with humility.
(d) Both Jews and Christians seek revenge when wronged.
4. What recent event in his personal life does Shylock lament earlier in the conversation?
(a) his wife’s death (b) his daughter’s death
(c) the loss of an expensive diamond (d) his daughter eloping with a Christian
5. Which of the following words would you use to describe Shylock’s state of mind after this impassioned
speech?
(i) hurt (ii) angry (iii) vindictive (iv) resourceful
(a) (i), (ii) and (iii) (b) (ii), (iii) and (iv) (c) (iii), (iv) and (i) (d) (iv), (i) and (ii)
II. Read the following extract from Act 3 of ‘The Merchant of Venice’ and answer the questions that
Portia: Away, then! I am locked in one of them:
If you do love me, you will find me out.- Nerissa and the rest, stand all aloof.
1. Portia says, “I am locked in one of them:” The word ‘one’ refers to .
(a) a silver casket (b) a golden casket
(c) a bronze casket (d) a lead casket
2. A little later, Portia compares Nerissa and the rest to .
(a) Alcides and the sea-monster (b) Alcides and the Dardanian wives
(c) Alcides and Hesione (d) the Dardanian wives with tearstained faces
4 ICSE Semester 1 Literature in English

3. Which of the following statements is NOT true?
(a) At the beginning of the scene Portia urges Bassanio to wait a while before taking the casket test.
(b) At the beginning of the scene Bassanio is eager to take the test as he finds the waiting a form
of torture.
(c) At the beginning of the scene Bassanio wants to wait and take the test later as he wants to spend
some time with Portia.
(d) At the beginning of the scene Portia is afraid that Bassanio might choose the wrong casket and
be lost to her forever.
III. Read the following extract from the short story, ‘The Little Match Girl’ and answer the questions
that follow by choosing the most appropriate response from the choices given below: [5 × 1]
“She was evidently trying to warm herself,” they said. But no one knew what beautiful visions she had
seen and in what a blaze of glory she had entered with her dear old grandmother into the heavenly joy and
gladness of a new year.
1. Who said “She was evidently trying to keep herself warm”?
(a) Her grandmother (b) The little girl’s father
(c) Her mother (d) The people who found her lying dead on the street.
2. The vision that the little match girl saw when she lit the first match was of
(a) an iron stove. (b) a beautiful Christmas tree.
(c) a delicious meal laid out on a table. (d) her kind and loving grandmother.
3. When the little girl saw the shooting star earlier that night, she realised .
(a) that someone was dying. (b) that someone has just been shot.
(c) that someone has just been born. (d) that misfortune awaited her.
4. How many matches did the little girl light that night?
(a) Two (b) Four (c) Three (d) Several
5. When the little girl left home that morning, she .
(a) was barefoot and bareheaded. (b) was wrapped in a warm woollen shawl.
(c) had on an old apron and oversized slippers. (d) had eaten a hearty breakfast.
IV. Read the following extract from the short story, ‘The Blue Bead’ and answer the questions that
Beside him in the shoals as he lay waiting glimmered a blue gem.
1. Who is ‘he’?
(a) Sibia’s father (b) Her brother (c) The man-eating tiger (d) The crocodile
2. What was he waiting for?
(a) Any creature that he could catch unawares and feed on.
(b) Sibia and her mother.
(c) To sun himself on the warm rocks.
(d) A shoal of fish to come swimming by.
3. The word closest in meaning to, ‘glimmered’ in the above line is:
(a) glimpsed (b) glittered (c) half-hidden (d) glued
4. What exactly was, the ‘blue gem’?
(a) a blue diamond (b) a shiny blue pebble
(c) a piece of sand-worn blue glass (d) an enormous sapphire
5. The only parts of ‘him’ that were soft and vulnerable were .
(a) his eyes and nose. (b) his nose and mouth.
(c) the undersides of his arms and tail. (d) his eyes and the undersides of his arms.

V. Read the following extract from the poem, ‘I Know Why the Caged Bird Sings’ and answer the questions
But a bird that stalks down his narrow cage can seldom see through his bars of rage
1. The caged bird sings about .
(a) the unknown things that he longs for and for freedom
(b) shadows and unknown things
(c) freedom and fat worms (d) fear and rage
2. What prevents the caged bird from flying?
(a) The narrow cage and clipped wings. (b) His broken wings and his inability to sing.
(c) His trimmed feathers and his damaged throat. (d) His rage at being held captive.
3. In this poem, Maya Angelou compares the caged bird with .
(a) the free bird (b) freedom fighters (c) children in school (d) the distant hill
4. Who, according to Maya Angelou ‘dares to claim the sky’?
(a) the caged bird (b) the free bird (c) the angry bird (d) the song bird
5. The closest in meaning to the word ‘seldom’ in the above context is:
(a) solitary (b) solemn (c) rarely (d) lonely
VI. Read the following extract from the poem, ‘The Patriot’ and answer the questions that follow by
choosing the most appropriate answer from the choices given below: [5 × 1]
It was roses, roses, all the way,
With myrtle mixed in my path like mad:
The house-roofs seemed to heave and sway,
The church-spires flamed, such flags they had,
A year ago on this very day.
1. The speaker is describing .
(a) the scene of his welcome the previous year.
(b) an outbreak of rioting in his town.
(c) a time when people lost their minds and attacked rose and myrtle bushes.
(d) the collapse of houses under the weight of the crowds.
2. The speaker is now .
(a) on his way to be greeted by the cheering crowds.
(b) on his way to the gallows.
(c) on his way to a political rally. (d) on his way to prison.
3. The closest in meaning to, ‘heave and sway’ in the above extract is:
(a) to move in a restless manner (b) to rise up higher and higher
(c) to sink down under a heavy weight (d) swing wildly
4. All the images used by the poet in this stanza are images.
(a) sound (b) visual (c) tactile (d) colourful
5. The mood described in this opening stanza of Browning’s poem, ‘The Patriot’ is
(a) noisy (b) celebratory (c) gloomy (d) filled with regret
ANSWERS
SECTION A
1. (a) 2. (a) 3. (a) 4. (a) 5. (a) 6. (b) 7. (a) 8. (a) 9. (b) 10. (a)
SECTION B
I. 1. (a) 2. (a) 3. (c) 4. (d) 5. (a)
II. 1. (d) 2. (d) 3. (c)
III. 1. (d) 2. (a) 3. (a) 4. (d) 5. (c)
IV. 1. (d) 2. (a) 3. (b) 4. (c) 5. (d)
V. 1. (a) 2. (a) 3. (a) 4. (b) 5. (c)
VI. 1. (a) 2. (b) 3. (d) 4. (b) 5. (b)

English Paper – 2
Maximum Marks: 40
Section A [10 × 1]
1. The story, The Blue Bead, was written by .
(a) David Routh (b) Roald Dahl (c) Ruskin Bond (d) Norah Burke
2. The crocodile in the short story, ‘The Blue Bead’ is also called an .
(a) antediluvian spinosaurus (b) ceratopsian tyrannosaurus
(c) antediluvian saurian (d) saurian antediluvian
3. The free bird dips his wing in the rays of the sun.
(a) orange (b) red (c) yellow (d) violet
4. The Patriot’s path was strewn with .
(a) jasmines and roses. (b) myrtle and willow.
(c) roses and myrtle. (d) roses and petunia.
5. The Gujar woman carried .
(a) two gurrahs. (b) a can of milk.
(c) two cans of milk. (d) one gurrah.
6. The short story ‘The Little Match Girl’is set on .
(a) the first evening of the new year. (b) the last evening of the old year.
(c) the first evening of the old year. (d) the last evening of the new year.
7. Lorenzo had transformed Jessica into a .
(a) Jew. (b) Parsee. (c) Christian. (d) Byzantine.
8. In his letter to Bassanio, Antonio wrote that Which of the following he did NOT
write?
(a) all his ships had been wrecked (b) his estate had fallen very low
(c) he was not feeling well (d) his creditors were growing impatient
9. Shylock asked Tubal to hire him a .
(a) legal officer. (b) priest. (c) monkey. (d) servant.
10. Portia sent Balthazar to .
(a) Venice (b) Belmont (c) Genoa (d) Padua

Section B
Portia: What, worse and worse!-
With leave, Bassanio; I am half yourself,
And I must freely have the half of anything
That this same paper brings you.
1. Where does the above scene take place?
(a) A room in Portia’s house (b) A room in Bassanio’s house
(c) In a street outside Shylock’s house (d) In the garden of Portia’s house
2. What is the “paper” referred to here?
(a) a will (b) Bassanio’s letter (c) Antonio’s letter (d) Duke’s letter
3. Portia had remarked that the letter had stolen the colour from ______________.
(a) Bassanio’s heart. (b) Bassanio’s cheek. (c) Antonio’s cheek. (d) Portia’s cheek.
4. Who has brought the letter?
(a) Lorenzo (b) Gratiano (c) Salerio (d) Launcelot
5. Portia says, “ I am half yourself,” she means:
(a) she is Bassanio’s better half (b) she is Bassanio’s best friend
(c) she is Bassanio’s well wisher (d) she is Bassanio’s beloved
Antonio: He seeks my life; his reason well I know:
I oft deliver’d from his forfeitures
Many that have at times made moan to me;
Therefore he hates me.
1. ‘He’ is referred to as ___________ .
(a) Stephano (b) Shylock (c) Gratiano (d) Bassanio
2. A little later, Antonio says that the duke cannot deny the course of law, because:
(a) he does not have enough power to do so
(b) if he does so it will impeach the justice of the state
(c) Shylock will be enraged
(d) it will promote trade and profit
(a) At the beginning of the scene, Shylock has refused to listen to Antonio’s prayers.
(b) At the beginning of the scene, Shylock has asked the jailor to keep a watchful eye on Antonio.
(c) At the beginning of the scene, Shylock has requested the gaoler to set Antonio free.
(d) At the beginning of the scene Antonio has requested Shylock to hear him.
4. Antonio is speaking to ____________ in the above extract.
(a) Salarino (b) Gratiano (c) Salanio (d) Bassanio
5. According to Antonio, why did Shylock hate him?
(a) He lent money to people without interest.
(b) He had borrowed from Shylock.
(c) He had insulted Shylock at the Rialto.
(d) He had often rescued people those who failed to pay their debts, from Shylock’s clutches.

“Now someone is dying”said the little girl

1. What made the little girl think so?
(a) the death of her grandmother
(b) the candles that appeared to rise higher through the air
(c) the transformation of the candles into stars
(d) the sudden fall of a bright star
2. Her grandmother had told her:
(a) Whenever a planet falls, a soul goes up to God.
(b) Whenever a star falls, a soul goes up to God.
(c) Whenever a star falls, a soul goes up to the sky.
(d) Whenever a star falls, a soul goes up to the sun.
3. Who was the only person ever been good to her?
(a) Her grandmother. (b) Her father. (c) Her grandfather. (d) Her mother.
4. What did the little girl see when she struck another match after this?
(a) Christmas tree (b) Her grandmother (c) Stars (d) A bright flame
5. The star that fell .
(a) was burning brightly. (b) showered like rain.
(c) flew away like a rocket. (d) streaked the sky with light.
In all her life, she had never owned anything but a rag.

1. Who is ‘she’?
(a) Sibia’s mother (b) Sibia (c) The Gujar woman (d) None of the above
2. How did ‘she’ look like?
(a) a thin, fair child. (b) a thin, starveling child.
(c) a chubby little girl. (d) a diseased child.
3. She had torn her rag:
(a) in two to make skirt and sari (b) in three to make sari, blouse and shirt
(c) to make a frock (d) in three to make skirt, sari and a scarf
4. Which of the following does NOT describe Sibia?
(a) ebony hair (b) great eyes (c) bright complexion (d) oily brown skin
5. She was dressed in rag.
(a) a bright coloured (b) a red coloured (c) an earth coloured (d) a multi-coloured
that follow by choosing the most appropriate response from the choices given below: [ 5 × 1]
A free bird leaps
On the back of the wind
And floats downstream
Till the current ends
1. The poem ‘I Know Why the Caged Bird Sings’ is composed by .
(a) Maya Angelou (b) Leigh Hunt (c) David Routh (d) O. Henry

2. Which of the following statement is NOT correct about the free bird?
(a) The free bird is daring. (b) The free bird flies freely.
(c) The free bird dares to claim the sky. (d) The free bird has clipped wings.
3. In this poem, the ‘free bird’ represents .
(a) the white people in the American society. (b) the African-Americans.
(c) the Red Indians (d) the American- Africans
4. Who ‘opens his throat to sing’?
(a) the lonely bird (b) the free bird (c) the song bird (d) the caged bird
5. The extract represents .
(a) the enslavement of the free bird (b) the free bird enjoying absolute freedom
(c) the enslavement of the caged bird (d) the caged bird enjoying absolute freedom
There’s nobody on the house-tops now---
Just a palsied few at the windows set;
For the best of the sight is, all allow,
At the Shambles’ Gate---or, better yet,
By the very scaffold’s foot, I trow.
1. “I” refers to .
(a) the poet. (b) the politician. (c) the patriot. (d) the people.
2. The speaker is describing .
(a) his journey through the cheering crowds. (b) his journey to the prison.
(c) his journey to the scaffold. (d) his journey to heaven.
3. The closest in meaning to, ‘trow’ in the above extract is:
(a) walk (b) believe or think (c) cry (d) revolt
4. What is ‘the Shambles’ Gate’?
(a) A place where people gather to watch public hangings.
(b) A place where matches are played.
(c) A place where people gather to watch wrestling.
(d) A place for public gatherings.
5. Who were there at the window sets?
(a) cheerful folks (b) elderly people (c) a few diseased people (d) children
ANSWERS
SECTION A
1 (d) 2. (c) 3. (a) 4. (c) 5. (a) 6. (b) 7. (c) 8. (c) 9. (a) 10. (d)
SECTION B
I. 1. (a) 2. (c) 3. (b) 4. (c) 5. (a)
II. 1. (b) 2. (b) 3. (c) 4. (a) 5. (d)
III. 1. (d) 2. (b) 3. (a) 4. (b) 5. (d)
IV. 1. (b) 2. (b) 3. (a) 4. (c) 5. (c)
V. 1. (a) 2. (d) 3. (a) 4. (d) 5. (b)
VI. 1. (c) 2. (c) 3. (b) 4. (a) 5. (c)

English Paper – 2
Maximum Marks: 40
Section A [10 × 1]
1. In the story, ‘The Little Match Girl’, the girl was .
(a) bareheaded (b) barefoot (c) wearing an old apron (d) all of the above
2. The third vision seen by the little girl in the short story, ‘The Little Match Girl’ was of .
(a) a star. (b) a well decorated Christmas tree.
(c) roasted goose. (d) an iron stove.
3. The free bird claims the to be his own.
(a) green valley (b) sunny sky (c) narrow cage (d) fat worms
4. The theme of Browning’s poem, ‘The Patriot’ is .
(a) public’s fickleness, rise and fall of glory and faith in God.
(b) rise and fall of glory, sibling love and faith in God.
(c) public’s fickleness, being rich and famous and sibling rivalry.
(d) faith in God, class distinction and leadership.
5. The crocodile lay on the rippled sand with only his raised eyes out of the water, and raised nostrils
breathing the .
(a) dirty, polluted air. (b) clean, sunny air. (c) clean, wet air. (d) perfumed air.
6. Sibia had seen many wonders in the bazaar. What had she NOT seen?
(a) satin sewn with real silver thread
(b) tin trays from Birmingham
(c) delicate glasswares
(d) sari with chips of looking-glass embroidered into the border
7. Portia calls herself .
(a) unlesson’d girl (b) unschool’d girl (c) unpractis’d girl (d) all of the above
8. Besides the scroll, what other object did Bassanio find in the leaden casket?
(a) a bone (b) Portia’s portrait (c) Nerissa’s portrait (d) a skull
9. Bassanio rejected the silver casket because .
(a) it was pale and common drudge between man and man.
(b) he knew that outward appearances are often deceptive.
(c) it was too expensive.
(d) he had been told which casket was the right one.
10. Portia said that she was leaving for a monastery off her house.
(a) ten miles (b) three miles (c) two miles (d) twenty miles

Section B
I. Read the following extract from The Merchant of Venice (Act 3) and answer the questions that follow
by choosing the most appropriate response from the choices given below: [5 × 1]
Salarino: I would she were as lying a gossip in that as ever knapped
Ginger or made her neighbours believe she wept for the
Death of a third husband.
1. Whom does ‘she’ refer to in the first line of the extract?
(a) Diana, the Goddess of Chastity.
(b) Rumour or report which is personified as a tatling old woman.
(c) Jessica, the daughter of Shylock.
(d) Nerissa, Gratiano’s beloved.
2. What does Salanio wish about ‘Rumour’?
(a) Rumour may prove to be an old woman (b) Rumour may prove to be a beautiful lady
(c) Rumour may prove to be a young woman (d) Rumour may prove to be a big liar
3. What was said earlier about Antonio’s ship?
(a) It incurred heavy loss.
(b) It was wrecked in the narrow water of the Goodwins.
(c) It was wrecked in Tripolis.
(d) It made good profit.
4. What is the meaning of the word ‘knapped’?
(a) chewed (b) kidnapped (c) churned (d) beaten
5. How does Shylock react to the loss of Antonio’s ship?
(a) He was enraged to hear about his loss. (b) He broke down to hear about his loss.
(c) He was pleased to hear about his loss. (d) He acted strange to hear about his loss.
Bassanio: How many cowards, whose hearts are all as false
As stairs of sand, wear yet upon their chins
The beards of Hercules and frowning Mars;
1. Which theme in the play is highlighted in the above extract?
(a) The theme of deception. (b) The theme of appearance of virtue.
(c) The theme of appearance and reality. (d) The theme of superiority.
2. Bassanio says that even the most simple vice has some .
(a) appearance of evil (b) real value
(c) deception (d) external resemblance to virtue
(a) External show has real value.
(b) External show has no real value.
(c) The world is always misled by the outward show.
(d) The face of evil is always concealed.
4. To what are ‘stairs of sand’ compared?
(a) Courageous men (b) Cowards (c) Great warriors (d) None of the above

5. Who were Hercules and Mars?
(a) Hercules was a great hero in Greek mythology.
(b) Mars was the Roman God of war.
(c) Their beards represent strength, manliness and bravery.
(d) All of the above.
“In the cold and gloom a poor girl walked, bareheaded and barefoot, through the streets.
1. What kind of weather was there in the evening?
(a) bitterly cold (b) snow was falling (c) dark and gloomy (d) all of the above
2. The girl had slippers on when she left home, but they were of no use. Why?
(a) They were over sized. (b) They were too tight.
(c) They were too small. (d) They were misfit.
3. We can conclude from the extract that the little girl was .
(a) poor but contended (b) happy but dejected
(c) poor and dejected (d) poor and amiable
4. Why was the little girl out in the cold?
(a) To sell roses. (b) To beg for a living. (c) To sell matches. (d) None of the above.
5. What prevented the little girl from going back home?
(a) the cold weather (b) she couldn’t earn a single penny
(c) she was enjoying the festive season (d) she felt sleepy
Where Sibia was working, wind coming across hundreds of miles of trees cooled her sweating body, and she
could look down over the river as if she were a bird.
1. To what was Sibia compared ?
(a) a crocodile (b) a bird (c) a fish (d) a flycatcher
2. Where was Sibia working?
(a) across the river (b) in the forest
(c) on the cliffs above the river (d) at the railhead
3. With whom was she working?
(a) With her mother and some other women. (b) With the Gujar woman.
(c) With her mother. (d) With the Gujar women.
4. What was their work?
(a) to gather grass (b) to gather pebbles
(c) to gather paper grass (d) to gather wood
5. What did she carry with her?
(a) her sickle and homemade food (b) her needle and hayfork
(c) clay cups (d) her sickle and homemade hayfork
But a caged bird stands on the grave of dreams
His shadow shouts on a nightmare scream
His wings are clipped and his feet are tied
So he opens his throat to sing.

1. The ‘caged bird’ is used as a .
(a) simile (b) metaphor (c) hyperbole (d) none of the above
2. “the grave of dreams” suggests
(a) the caged bird’s distressful condition (b) the caged bird’s enslavement
(c) the caged bird’s confidence (d) the caged bird’s rage at being held captive
3. In this poem, Maya Angelou does NOT highlight this theme:
(a) Freedom versus enslavement (b) Racism and slavery
(c) Patriotism (d) Voice against oppression
4. Which imagery has been used in “shadow shouts on a nightmare scream”?
(a) Auditory imagery (b) Visual imagery (c) Kinesthetic imagery (d) None of the above
5. Which figure of speech has been used in the line “his shadow shouts on a nightmare scream”?
(a) Metaphor (b) Alliteration (c) Hyperbole (d) Personification
Thus I entered, and thus I go!
In triumphs, people have dropped down dead.
Paid by the world, what dost thou owe
“Me?”- God might question; now instead,
‘Tis God shall repay: I am safer so.
1. Who is the speaker here?
(a) The patriot. (b) The poet. (c) God. (d) The crowd.
2. How did the speaker enter?
(a) in heavy rain (b) greeted by the cheering crowds
(c) carried on the shoulders of his fans (d) driven on a chariot
3. The closest in meaning to, ‘paid by the world’ in the above extract is:
(a) to be rewarded (b) to be awarded
(c) to be insulted (d) to be judged by his deeds and receive what he deserved
4. “In triumphs, people have dropped down dead” is an example of:
(a) Simile (b) Metaphor (c) Alliteration (d) Hyperbole
5. The mood described in this concluding stanza of Browning’s poem, ‘The Patriot’ is .
(a) optimistic (b) celebratory (c) gloomy (d) pessimistic
ANSWERS
SECTION A
1. (d) 2. (b) 3. (b) 4. (a) 5. (b) 6. (c) 7. (d) 8. (b) 9. (a) 10. (c)
SECTION B
I. 1. (b) 2. (d) 3. (b) 4. (a) 5. (c)
II. 1. (c) 2. (d) 3. (a) 4. (b) 5. (d)
III. 1. (d) 2. (a) 3. (c) 4. (c) 5. (b)
IV. 1. (b) 2. (c) 3. (a) 4. (c) 5. (d)
V. 1. (b) 2. (a) 3. (c) 4. (a) 5. (d)
VI. 1. (a) 2. (b) 3. (d) 4. (c) 5. (a)

English Paper – 2
Maximum Marks: 40
Section A [10 × 1]
1. In the story, ‘The Little Match Girl’, how did the girl lose her slippers?
(a) A carriage damaged her slippers.
(b) Someone had stolen her slippers.
(c) One was lost while running across the street and a boy ran off with the other.
(d) Her slippers went missing among a crowd.
2. Why was the poor girl scared of returning home?
(a) It was dark and cold outside.
(b) Her father would beat her for not earning a penny.
(c) Her father would beat her for losing the slippers.
(d) It was too cold back at her home.
3. Maya Angelou’s poem, ‘I know why the caged bird sings’ can be called .
(a) an autobiographical poem (b) a fable
(c) a ballad (d) a satirical poem
4. Browning’s poem, ‘The Patriot’ is written in the form of .
(a) a ballad (b) a fable (c) an elegy (d) a dramatic monologue
5. The Gujars mentioned in Norah Burke’s story, ‘The Blue Bead’ lived in encampment of .
(a) stone huts (b) grass huts (c) mud huts (d) brick huts
6. Sibia sprang from boulder to boulder, leaping like a .
(a) rock goat (b) squirrel (c) mountain deer (d) cheetah
7. Tubal reports Jessica has given Shylock’s ring to someone. What does she trade the ring for?
(a) fine clothes (b) three thousand ducats
(c) a necklace (d) a monkey
8. Jessica dressed herself as a in order to elope with Lorenzo.
(a) page boy (b) lover boy (c) clown (d) princess
9. Bassanio compares Portia’s hair to .
(a) dark clouds (b) golden wig (c) cobweb (d) silken robe
10. According to Shylock, what is Antonio’s flesh good for?
(a) feeding dogs (b) being sold at the Rialto
(c) baiting fish (d) making broth

Section B
I. Read the following extract from The Merchant of Venice (Act 3) and answer the questions that follow
by choosing the most appropriate response from the choices given below: [5 × 1]
My Lord Bassanio and my gentle lady,
I wish you all the joy that you can wish
For I am sure you can wish none from me:
And when your honours mean to solemnize
The bargain of your faith, I do beseech you,
Even at that time I may be married too.
1. Who is the speaker of the above extract?
(a) Nerissa (b) Gratiano (c) Launcelot (d) Lorenzo
2. Who is the ‘gentle lady’ referred to here ?
(a) Jessica (b) Nerissa (c) Portia (d) None of the above
3. What good wishes does the speaker give to Bassanio?
(a) all the joy and happiness they deserve may be showered upon them
(b) all the best
(c) all the joy and hardships of life
(d) love and good wishes
4. What request does the speaker make to Bassanio?
(a) to take him to Belmont (b) to allow him to marry
(c) to gift him an expensive diamond (d) to invite him at his wedding
5. Whom did he propose to marry?
(a) Leah (b) Portia (c) Jessica (d) Nerissa
Tubal: Yes, other men have ill luck too: Antonio, as I heard in
Genoa,-
1. Who is Tubal?
(a) a poor Jew (b) Launcelot’s friend (c) Shylock’s brother (d) a wealthy Jew
2. Why did he go to Genoa?
(a) in search of Jessica (b) in search of Shylock
(c) in search of Chus (d) in search of a monkey
3. What “ill luck” did Antonio have?
(a) His bond had been forfeited. (b) His money had been stolen.
(c) His ships had been wrecked. (d) He had been arrested.
4. What ill luck did Shylock have?
(a) Launcelot has stolen his ducats.
(b) Jessica has run away with Lorenzo stealing all his valuables.
(c) Shylock had a quarrel with Tubal and Chus.
(d) Antonio had insulted Shylock.
5. Later Shylock asked Tubal to meet him at the .
(a) Rialto (b) Temple (c) Synagogue (d) Belmont

Nobody had bought any from her, and no one had given her a single penny.
1. Who is “she” in the above extract?
(a) The poor little girl. (b) The little girl’s grandmother.
(c) Her mother. (d) None of the above.
2. “Nobody had bought any from her”- what does the word ‘any’ refer to?
(a) slippers (b) matches (c) iron stove (d) Christmas tree
3. In the Victorian society what was the act of selling matches used as a font of?
(a) earning money (b) showcasing talent (c) begging (d) all of the above
4. Earlier it was said that the girl’s naked feet had become with the cold.
(a) black and blue (b) black and red (c) red and blue (d) red and black
5. The story ‘The little match girl’ is interspersed with elements.
(a) didactic (b) epic (c) elegiac (d) dramatic
She joined the crowd round a Kashmiri travelling merchant on his way to the bungalows.
1. Who is ‘she’?
(a) Sibia’s mother (b) Her sister (c) Sibia (d) The Gujar woman
2. Where is ‘she’?
(a) at the railhead (b) in the town (c) in the forest (d) at the bazaar
3. Where was the merchant from?
(a) Karnataka (b) Kerala (c) Kashmir (d) Kanpur
4. What was the merchant showing to the crowd?
(a) dawn coloured silks that poured like cream (b) little locked chest with precious gems
(c) a box with a yellow woolen chicken (d) all of the above
5. ‘She’ had witnessed many things at the bazaar. What she had NOT seen?
(a) an eatery selling chapatti and green chilli
(b) a cloth shop stacked with rolls of cloth
(c) a sweetmeat stall selling green and magenta sweets
(d) idling gossiping bargaining humanity spitting betel juice
V. Read the following extract from the poem, ‘I Know Why the Caged Bird Sings’ and answer the
questions that follow by choosing the most appropriate response from the choices given below:
[5 × 1]
But a bird that stalks
down his narrow cage
can seldom see through
his bars of rage
1. The caged bird is .
(a) frustrated (b) thoughtful (c) wishful (d) meditative
2. What do the words ‘narrow cage’ refer to?
(a) the freedom of the caged bird (b) the caged bird’s ability to sing
(c) the restrictions on the life of the caged bird (d) the restrictions on the life of the free bird

3. In this poem, Maya Angelou expresses of the oppressed.
(a) freedom and happiness (b) physical pain and mental agony
(c) physical pain and mental peace (d) freedom and mental peace
4. What does Maya Angelou mean by “bars of rage”?
(a) imprisonment in the cage makes the bird angry
(b) the bird angrily looks through the bars of cage
(c) the angry bird wants to break the cage
(d) the angry bird looks at the bars of the cage
5. What is the only thing that ‘the caged bird ‘ can do?
(a) break the bars of the cage (b) open his throat to sing
(c) fly away (d) lament his imprisonment
And I think, by the feel, my forehead bleeds,
For they fling, whoever has mind,
Stones at me for my year’s misdeeds.
1. Where is the patriot at the moment?
(a) in the court (b) rioting in his town
(c) being led to the scaffold (d) walking in a rally
2. Who has been referred to as ‘they’ in the above extract?
(a) the cheering crowds (b) the palsied people
(c) the admirers of the patriot (d) the angry mob
3. The closest in meaning to, ‘misdeeds’ in the above extract is:
(a) evil deeds or wrong doings of the patriot (b) misconceptions of the public
(c) good efforts of the patriot (d) none of the above
4. The patriot is led to the Shambles’ Gate in .
(a) bright sunshine (b) violent storm (c) rain (d) snowfall
5. What describes the patriot’s present condition?
(a) bleeding forehead (b) disgraced (c) wrists bound by rope (d) all of the above
ANSWERS
SSECTION A
1. (c) 2. (b) 3. (a) 4. (d) 5. (b) 6. (a) 7. (d) 8. (a) 9. (c) 10. (c)
SECTION B
I. 1. (b) 2. (c) 3. (a) 4. (b) 5. (d)
II. 1. (d) 2. (a) 3. (c) 4. (b) 5. (c)
III. 1. (a) 2. (b) 3. (c) 4. (c) 5. (a)
IV. 1. (c) 2. (d) 3. (c) 4. (d) 5. (a)
V. 1. (a) 2. (c) 3. (b) 4. (a) 5. (b)
VI. 1. (c) 2. (d) 3. (a) 4. (c) 5. (d)

English Paper – 2
Maximum Marks: 40
Section A [10 × 1]
1. In the story, ‘The Little Match Girl’, how did the girl try to protect herself from the severe cold?
(a) she returned back to home
(b) she huddled herself in a corner formed by two houses
(c) she took shelter under a Christmas tree
(d) she lighted a fire using firewood
2. What did the little girl did NOT see in her visions?
(a) roasted goose (b) warm iron stove
(c) Christmas tree (d) Santa Claus
3. Maya Angelou’s poem, ‘I know why the caged bird sings’ expresses the concept of .
(a) love and hatred (b) peace and war
(c) liberty and bondage (d) rich and poor
4. The of the public is highlighted in Browning’s poem, ‘The Patriot’.
(a) fickle mindedness (b) senselessness
(c) humility (d) cruelty
5. The Gujar woman carried two gurrahs.
(a) bronze (b) brass (c) copper (d) steel
6. Sibia wanted to paint her clay bowls with .
(a) roses and horses (b) marigolds and lions
(c) marigolds and elephants (d) roses and elephants
7. Antonio had called Shylock .
(a) a fox (b) a dog (c) a snake (d) none of the above
8. Portia gives Bassanio that he must swear never to part with.
(a) a ring (b) a locket (c) a casket (d) a trinket
9. Portia asks to go to Padua.
(a) Lorenzo (b) Bassanio (c) Launcelot (d) Balthazar
10. In Act III Scene II, Portia compares Bassanio to which ancient hero?
(a) Ulysses (b) Troilus (c) Alcides (d) Achilles

Section B
Why, so: and I know not
What’s spent in the search: why thou loss upon
Loss! the thief gone with so much, and so much to
Find the thief;
1. Who is the speaker of the above extract?
(a) Salarino (b) Gratiano (c) Launcelot (d) Shylock
2. Whom is the speaker speaking to?
(a) Jessica (b) Tubal (c) Chus (d) Salarino
3. Who is ‘the thief’ referred to here?
(a) Lorenzo (b) Antonio (c) Jessica (d) Leah
4. What loss did the speaker mention at the beginning of his speech?
(a) loss of a diamond that costs two thousand ducats in Frankfort
(b) loss of an expensive turquoise
(c) loss of a diamond that costs two hundred ducats in Frankfort
(d) loss of a diamond that costs two hundred ducats in Belmont
5. What did the speaker wish?
(a) To see his daughter dead at his feet.
(b) To find his ducats in his daughter’s coffin.
(c) To see his daughter hearsed at his feet with the jewels in her ear.
(d) All of the above.
But in such a habit,
That they shall think we are accomplished
With that we lack.
1. Who is the speaker and the person spoken to?
(a) Portia is speaking to Nerissa. (b) Portia is speaking to Bassanio.
(c) Portia is speaking to Lorenzo. (d) Portia is speaking to Balthazar.
2. Whom did ‘they’ refer to in the extract?
(a) Antonio and Bassanio. (b) Shylock and Launcelot.
(c) Bassanio and Gratiano. (d) Bassanio and Lorenzo.
3. How will ‘we’ be accomplished?
(a) Two sisters. (b) A husband and wife.
(c) A man and a woman. (d) A doctor of Law and lawyer’s clerk.
4. Where are ‘we’ going?
(a) Padua (b) Venice (c) Genoa (d) None of the above
5. What do the words ‘we lack’ suggest?
(a) They lack feminine qualities. (b) They lack the qualities of men.
(c) They lack the qualities of women. (d) They lack childlike qualities.

She struck another – it burnt clearly and, where the light fell upon the wall, the bricks became transparent,

like gauze.
1. What did she strike?
(a) a drum (b) a chord (c) a match (d) none of the above
2. What does the word ‘gauze’ mean?
(a) a fabric that is loosely woven (b) a torn piece of cloth
(c) a rag (d) a thickly woven cloth
3. What did the little girl see inside?
(a) a shining white cloth spread on the table (b) beautiful glassware on the table
(c) a roasted goose (d) all of the above
4. Which vision of the girl has been referred to here?
(a) The first vision. (b) The second vision.
(c) The third vision. (d) The fourth vision.
5. What was the roasted goose stuffed with?
(a) eggs and noodles (b) apples and figs
(c) prunes and apples (d) prunes and plums
Sibia got her arms round the fainting woman, and somehow dragged her from the water.
1. Who is referred to as ‘the fainting woman’?
(a) Sibia’s mother (b) Her sister (c) Sibia (d) The Gujar woman
2. What has happened to ‘the fainting woman’?
(a) She had fallen on the stones. (b) She had fallen into the river.
(c) She had fainted. (d) She had been attacked by the crocodile.
3. Why did the woman go there?
(a) to fetch water from the river. (b) to catch fish in the river.
(c) to bathe in the river. (d) to wash clothes in the river.
4. What did Sibia do to help her?
(a) carried her gurrahs till the Gujar encampment
(b) found a blue bead for her
(c) killed the crocodile and saved her life
(d) gifted her a clay cup
5. What did Sibia do to stop her wounds?
(a) pour some sand and bound them with rag (b) washed and bandaged them
(c) provided first aid at a local medical store (d) none of the above
The free bird thinks of another breeze
And the trade winds soft through the sighing trees
And the fat worms waiting on a dawn bright lawn
And he names the sky his own.

1. The free bird is .
(a) frustrated (b) thoughtful (c) confident (d) submissive
2. What do the words ‘another breeze’ refer to?
(a) more freedom for the free bird (b) cool breeze for the free bird
(c) the trade winds for the free bird (d) happiness for the free bird
3. In this poem, Maya Angelou deals with the theme of:
(a) Segregation and racism (b) Struggle against slavery
(c) Awakening hope to get freedom (d) All of the above
4. The free bird CANNOT enjoy .
(a) imprisonment in the cage (b) flying across the blue sky
(c) fat worms on a sunlit lawn (d) flying through the sighing trees
5. Which figure of speech is used in the line ‘and the trade winds soft through the sighing trees’?
(a) Alliteration (b) Personification (c) Repetition (d) Metaphor
choosing the most appropriate answer from the choices given below: [ 5 × 1]
AIack, it was l who leaped at the sun
To give it my loving friends to keep!
1. What does the word ‘alack’ express?
(a) sorrow or regret (b) anger (c) good luck (d) ill fate
2. Who leaped at the sun?
(a) The poet. (b) The patriot.
(c) The loving friends of the patriot. (d) None of the above.
3. The above extract refers to the story of:
(a) Icarus and Venus (b) Cressida and Troilus
(c) Icarus and Daedalus (d) Athena and Daedalus
4. Which character trait of the patriot is visible in the extract?
(a) His melancholic nature (b) His vaulting ambition and over confidence
(c) His faith in God (d) All of the above
5. What does the patriot mean by “harvest” in the line: ‘And you see my harvest, what I reap.’
(a) The consequences of his past life deeds.
(b) The consequences of his personal deeds.
(c) The consequences of his after life deeds.
(d) The consequences of his so called political misdeeds.
ANSWERS
SECTION A
1. (b) 2. (d) 3. (c) 4. (a) 5. (b) 6. (c) 7. (b) 8. (a) 9. (d) 10. (c)
SECTION B
I. 1. (d) 2. (b) 3. (c) 4. (a) 5. (d)
II. 1. (a) 2. (c) 3. (d) 4. (b) 5. (b)
III. 1. (c) 2. (a) 3. (d) 4. (b) 5. (c)
IV. 1. (d) 2. (d) 3. (a) 4. (c) 5. (a)
V. 1. (c) 2. (a) 3. (d) 4. (a) 5. (b)
VI. 1. (a) 2. (b) 3. (c) 4. (b) 5. (d)

HISTORY, CIVICS AND GEOGRAPHY (50)
HISTORY AND CIVICS
H.C.G. - Paper - 1
Candidates offering History, Civics and Geography (Thailand) are not eligible to offer History, Civics and Geography.
CLASS X
There will be one paper of two hours duration carrying Appellate, Advisory, Revisory, Judicial Review and
80 marks and an Internal Assessment of 20 marks. Court of Record. Enforcement of Fundamental Rights
The paper will be divided into two parts, Part I and Part II. and Writs.
Part I (30 marks) will contain short answer questions set (b) The High Courts:
from the entire syllabus.
Composition, qualifications of judges and their
Candidates will be required to answer all questions. appointment.
Part II (50 marks) will consist of Section A and Section B. (c) Subordinate Courts:
Candidates will be required to answer two out of three Distinction between Court of the District Judge and
questions from Section A and three out of five questions Sessions Court.
from Section B. The sections will correspond to the sections Lok Adalats: meaning and advantages.
indicated in the syllabus.
SECTION B: HISTORY
SECTION A: CIVICS
1. The Indian National Movement (1857–1917)
1. The Union Legislature
(a) The First War of Independence, 1857
Meaning of the federal setup in India.
Only the causes (political, socio-religious, economic and

(i) Lok Sabha — term, composition, qualifications for military). [The events, however, need to be mentioned
membership. Parliamentary procedures: a brief idea in order to maintain continuity and for a more
of sessions, quorum, question hour, adjournment and comprehensive understanding.]
no-confidence motion. Speaker – election.
(b) Factors leading to the growth of Nationalism –
(ii) R ajya Sabha – composition, qualifications for socio-religious reform movements (brief mention of
membership, election, term, Presiding Officer. contribution of Raja Rammohan Roy and Jyotiba Phule)
P owers and functions of Union Parliament – and role of the Press.
(legislative, financial and control over the executive). Indian National Congress - Immediate objectives of
Exclusive powers of the two Houses. the Indian National Congress - the first two sessions
2. The Union Executive and their Presidents should be mentioned.
(a) The President: (c)
First Phase of the Indian National Movement
Qualifications for election, composition of Electoral
(1885-1907)
College, reason for indirect election, term of office, Objectives and methods of struggle of the Early
procedure for impeachment. Nationalists. Any two contributions of Dadabhai
P owers (executive, legislative, discretionary and
Naoroji, Surendranath Banerjee and Gopal Krishna
emergency). Gokhale.
(b) The Vice-President: (d) Second Phase of the Indian National Movement
(1905-1916)
Qualifications for election and term of office.
Brief mention of the causes of the Partition of Bengal

(c) Prime Minister and Council of Ministers:
and its perspective by the Nationalists. Objectives
A ppointment, formation of Council of Ministers
and methods of struggle of the Radicals. Any two
and their tenure. Position and powers of the Prime contributions of Bal Gangadhar Tilak, Bipin Chandra
Minister. Collective and individual responsibility of Pal and Lala Lajpat Rai. The Muslim League and its
the members of the Cabinet. Distinction between the objectives.
Council of Ministers and the Cabinet.
2. Mass Phase of the National Movement (1915-1947)
3. The Judiciary
Mahatma Gandhi - Non-Cooperation Movement :
(a)
(a) The Supreme Court: causes (Khilafat Movement, Rowlatt Act, Jallianwala
C omposition, qualifications of judges, and their
Bagh Tragedy), programme and suspension – Chauri
appointment; Jurisdiction and functions: Original,
Chaura incident and impact of the Movement; the •
Dr. Rajendra Prasad, Dr. S. Radhakrishnan and
Civil Disobedience Movement: causes (reaction to the Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam (or any other).
Simon Commission, Declaration of Poorna Swaraj at • Present a book review of any one of the following
the Lahore Session of 1929), Dandi March, programme works: Dadabai Naoroji’s ‘Poverty and un-British rule
and impact of the Movement, Gandhi-Irwin Pact and in India’, Gandhi’s ‘The Story of my Experiments with
the Second Round Table Conference; the Quit India Truth’, Nehru’s ‘Discovery of India’, Bhagat Singh’s
Movement: causes (failure of the Cripps Mission, ‘Why I am an Atheist’, Vijayalakshmi Pandit’s ‘The
Japanese threat), Quit India Resolution and the Scope of Happiness:
significance of the Movement.
A Personal Memoir’, Abdul Kalam’s ‘Wings of Fire’.
(b) Forward Bloc (objectives) and INA (objectives and
•
Discuss the relevance of any one of the following
contribution of Subhas Chandra Bose).
films to understand the history of 20th Century
(c) Independence and Partition of India – Mountbatten Europe: The Book Thief, Schindler’s List, Escape to
Plan (clauses and its acceptance) and the Indian Victory, The Boy in Striped Pyjamas, Life is Beautiful,
Independence Act of 1947 (clauses only). The Sound of Music, Gandhi (Richard Attenborough),
3. The Contemporary World Sardar (Ketan Mehta), Netaji Subhas Chandra Bose -
(a) The First World War The Forgotten Hero (Shyam Benegal).
Causes (Nationalism and Imperialism, division of
•
Highlight the work and achievements of any one
Europe and Sarajevo crisis) and Results (Treaty of Nobel Laureate - Malala Yousafzai or Kailash Satyarthi.
Versailles). •
M ake a PowerPoint presentation on India’s
(b) Rise of Dictatorships Independence and Partition.
Similarity between the ideologies of Fascism and • Make a presentation on the influence of Gandhian
Nazism. principles on Martin Luther King / Nelson Mandela.
(c) The Second World War •
Prepare a report on the contributions of any one
of the following agencies of the United Nations –
Causes (Dissatisfaction with the Treaty of Versailles,
UNESCO / WHO / UNICEF / ILO / UNDP / FAO.
Rise of Fascism and Nazism, Japanese invasion of
China, Failure of League of Nations and Hitler’s •
Present a case study of any recent human rights
invasion of Poland). violations and redressal mechanisms available to
prevent such instances in the future.
(d) United Nations
(i) The objectives of the U.N. EVALUATION
he composition and any four functions of the
T The assignments/project work is to be evaluated by
General Assembly, the Security Council, and the the subject teacher and by an External Examiner. (The
International Court of Justice. External Examiner may be a teacher nominated by the
(ii) Major agencies of the United Nations: UNICEF, Head of the School, who could be from the faculty,
WHO and UNESCO – any four functions only. but not teaching the subject in the section/class. For
example, a teacher of History of Class VIII may be
(e) Non-Aligned Movement
deputed to be an External Examiner for Class X, History
Brief meaning; objectives; Names of the architects of projects.)
NAM. [Jawaharlal Nehru, President Nasser, Joseph
The Internal Examiner and the External Examiner will
Broze Tito].
assess the assignments independently.
INTERNAL ASSESSMENT
Award of Marks (20 Marks)
Any one project/assignment related to the syllabus.
Subject Teacher (Internal Examiner) 10 marks
Suggested Assignments External Examiner 10 marks
• Compare the Parliamentary and Presidential forms of The total marks obtained out of 20 are to be sent to the
Government with reference to India and the U.S.A. Council by the Head of the School.
• Conduct a mock Court and record the proceedings. The Head of the school will be responsible for the online
• Present a life sketch and contributions of any one of entry of marks on the Council’s CAREERS portal by the
the following Presidents of India – due date.
ICSE Semester 1 History & Civics 3

HISTORY & CIVICS
H.C.G. Paper – 1
Maximum Marks: 40

Part I comprises 20 questions of 1 mark each. Part II comprises 6 questions of 2 marks each and
Part III comprises 2 questions of 4 marks each.
Part I (20 marks)

Question 1
If the strength of the House is 350 members, the quorum will be .[1]
1. 36 members 2. 40 members 3. 60 members 4. 35 members
Question 2 [1]
Lok Sabha 550
Rajya Sabha ?
1. 250 2. 545 3. 500 4. 350
Question 3
How many members of the Rajya Sabha retire once every two years? [1]
1. One-sixth 2. One-fourth 3. Two-third 4. One-third
Question 4
Residuary power refers to the power to make laws on subjects which are in the .[1]
1. Union List 2. State List
3. Concurrent List 4. Not part of these three lists
Question 5
Who determines the salaries and allowances of MPs and Ministers? [1]
1. The President 2. The Parliament
3. The Chairman of UPSC 4. The Finance Minister
Question 6
Who is empowered to promulgate an Ordinance when the Parliament is not in session? [1]
1. The Vice-President 2. The President
3. The Prime Minister 4. The Attorney General of India
4 ICSE Semester 1 History & Civics

Question 7
Which of the following procedures authorizes the Executive to draw funds from the Consolidated Fund
until the Budget is passed by the Parliament? [1]
1. Vote on Account 2. Veto 3. Prorogation 4. Supplementary Grants
Question 8
Who elect the members of the Rajya Sabha? [1]
1. The members of the Lok Sabha 2. The members of the Vidhan Sabha
3. The members of the Vidhan Parishad 4. The Citizens of India
Question 9
Complete the given analogy.
Lok Sabha : Speaker :: Rajya Sabha :? [1]
1. Vice President 2. Prime Minister 3. President 4. Chief Justice of India
Question 10
Which statement does not apply to the Subsidiary alliance? [1]
(i) The kings virtually lost their powers
(ii) It was introduced by Lord Dalhousie
(iii) The kings had to maintain the British army at their cost
(iv) They had a British resident in their court
1. Only i 2. both iii and iv 3. only ii 4. Only iv
Question 11
The year in which the Congress was established. [1]
1. 1885 2. 1856 3. 1898 4. 1886
Question 12
Which of the following is a method of the Assertive Nationalists?
(i) Swadeshi (ii) Boycott (iii) Passive Resistance (iv) Revivalism [1]
1. i, ii, iii 2. Only iv 3. Only ii and iii 4. All of the above
Question 13
Complete the given analogy.
Simon Commission: Civil Disobedience Movement :: Cripps Mission :? [1]
1. Non Cooperation Movement 2. Anti Partition Movement
3. Quit India Movement 4. Khilafat movement
Question 14
The Supreme Commander of the Indian National Army: [1]
1. Subash Chandra Bose 2. Ras Behari Gosh 3. Jawaharlal Nehru 4. Lord Wavell
Question 15
According to the Indian Independence Act, 1947 which of the following are applicable to the princely
states:
(i) They could remain independent (ii) They could join India
(iii) All treaties with the British were terminated. (iv) They could choose to be part of Pakistan [1]
1. All of the above 2. Only iii 3. Only ii and iv 4. None of the above

Question 16
Unity, Faith, Sacrifice was the motto of the Forward Bloc. Replace the underlined word to correct the
statement.[1]
1. Indian National Congress 2. Indian National Army
3. East India Association 4. The Muslim League
Question 17
was denied pension under the Doctrine of Lapse. [1]
1. Zeenat Mahal 2. Baji Rao II
3. Bahadhur Shah Zafar 4. Nana Saheb
Question 18
The General Service Enlistment Act implied that soldiers [1]
1. would not be given promotions 2. would have to travel overseas to fight
3. would be given less salaries 4. would not be given extra allowance
Question 19
Mahatma Gandhi signed a pact with to end the Civil Disobedience Movement. [1]
1. Lord Mountbatten 2. Lord Irwin 3. Lord Wavell 4. Stafford Cripps
Question 20
The nationalists felt Bengal was partitioned. [1]
1. To divide Hindus and Muslims 2. For effective administration
3. To stop the spread of Swadeshi 4. None of these reasons
Part II [12 Marks]

Question 21
When can the Parliament not legislate on subjects included in the State List? [2]
1. When the State is ruled by a coalition
2. During the Proclamation of an Emergency
3. When the Lok Sabha passes a resolution by two-thirds majority
4. When two or more States are of the opinion the Parliament should legislate on the subject
Question 22
Which of these are not exclusive powers of the Lok Sabha? [2]
1. It can introduce a Money Bill 2. It can pass an Ordinary Bill
3. It can pass the No Confidence motion 4. It can amend the Constitution
Question 23
Which of these are Legislative powers of the Parliament? [2]
1. Making laws on subjects in the Union List 2. Approving ordinances
3. Preparing the Budget 4. Supplementary grants

Question 24
From the given list identify the aims of the Muslim League. [2]
1. To develop and consolidate the feelings of national unity among Muslims.
2. To protect and advance the political rights of Muslims.
3. To train and organize public opinion of the Muslims in the country.
4. To prevent hostilities between Muslims and other communities.
Question 25
Identify the clauses of the Rowlatt Act. [2]
1. Restrictions on the movement of people
2. Suspension of the Habeas Corpus Writ
3. Vernacular Press must not publish anything against the British
4. Compulsory License for arms
Question 26
Choose the correct option to match the following:
(a) Jyothiba Phule (i) Indian National Congress
(b) Raja Ram Mohan Roy (ii) Forward Bloc
(c) Subash Chandra Bose (iii) Brahmo Samaj
(d) AO Hume (iv) Sathya Shodak Samaj [2]
(a) 1. (i) 2. (ii) 3. (iii) 4. (iv)
(b) 1. (ii) 2. (i) 3. (iv) 4. (iii)
(c) 1. (iii) 2. (iv) 3. (i) 4. (ii)
(d) 1. (iv) 2. (iii) 3. (ii) 4. (i)
Part III [8 Marks]
Question 27
Read the passage given and answer the questions that follow-
On February 4, 1922, a large group of nationalist volunteers had gathered on the streets of a small, obscure
hamlet. More than a year had passed since Mahatma Gandhi had launched the movement with the aim of attaining
‘Purna Swaraj’ (full independence). The volunteers marched through the streets shouting slogans of Gandhi and
the Khilafat. Soon they walked into the police. Sticks and stones were thrown from one end in return for bullets
from the other. As the crowd grew larger and fiercer, the cops retreated inside the police station. The protestors
doused the building in kerosene and set it on fire. Twenty-three policemen perished. A total of 228 people were
brought to trial in the incident, out of which 19 were sentenced to death.
Source- The Indian Express
(a) Where did this incident take place? [1]
1. Lahore 2. Chauri Chaura 3. Dandi 4. Awadh
(b) Which movement did Gandhiji withdraw because of this incident? [1]
1. Non-Cooperation Movement 2. Civil Disobedience Movement
3. Quit India Movement 4. Anti Partition Movement
(c) Identify any two impacts of the movement that was suspended due to this event. [2]
1. Instilled confidence in people 2. Led to large scale communal riots
3. Promoted Social reforms 4. Led to the First Round table Conference
Question 28
(a) Identify the man with Mahatma Gandhi. [1]

1. Lord Mountbatten 2. Lord Curzon 3. Lord Wavell 4. Lord Dalhousie
(b) He was deputed to India for the following reason: [1]
1. To implement Lord Wavell Plan 2. For effective administration
3. For peaceful transfer of power 4. To delay the partition of India
(c) Identify from the list, two proposals of the plan formulated by him. [2]
1. The country would be divided into two dominions
2. Formation of a Constituent Assembly
3. There would be grouping of provinces
4. Setting up of a Boundary Commission
ANSWERS
PART I
1. (4) 2. (1) 3. (4) 4. (4) 5. (2)
6. (2) 7. (1) 8. (2) 9. (1) 10. (3)
11. (1) 12. (4) 13. (3) 14. (1) 15. (1)
16. (2) 17. (4) 18. (2) 19. (2) 20. (1)
PART II
21. (1), (3) 22. (2), (4) 23. (1), (2) 24. (2), (4) 25. (1), (2)
26. 1. (iv) 2. (iii) 3. (ii) 4. (i)
PART III
27. (a) (2) (b) (1) (c) (1), (3)
28. (a) (1) (b) (3) (c) (1), (4)

HISTORY & CIVICS
H.C.G. Paper – 1
Maximum Marks: 40

Part I (20 marks)

Question 1
There are components in the Union Parliament. [1]
1. 4 2. 5 3. 3 4. 6
Question 2
Complete the given analogy [1]
The Upper House : 6 years :: The Lower House :
1. 5 years 2. 3 years 3. 7 years 4. 4 years
Question 3
What is the minimum age of The President? [1]
1. 32 years 2. 30 year 3. 25 years 4. 35 years
Question 4
Who dissolves the Lok Sabha? [1]
1. The Prime Minister 2. The Speaker 3. The Vice President 4. The President
Question 5
The Money Bill should be returned to the Lok Sabha within days. [1]
1. 12 days 2. 9 days 3. 14 days 4. 10 days
Question 6
The Vice President is elected by . [1]
1. The Electoral College 2. The Rajya Sabha
3. The Parliament 4. The Election Commission
Question 7
Who can show pardon to a convict given death sentence? [1]
1. The Chief Justice of India 2. The Supreme Court
3. The President 4. Parliamentary Committee

Question 8
Who presides over the meetings of the Cabinet? [1]
1. The President 2. The Speaker
3. The Prime Minister 4. The Deputy Chairman
Question 9
The Supreme Court Judges retire at the age of . [1]
1. 70 2. 65 3. 82 4. 62
Question 10
The Supreme Court hears appeals coming from . [1]
1. The Lower Court 2. The District Court
3. The Lok Adalat 4. The State High Courts
Question 11
Who staunchly followed the policy of Doctrine of Lapse? [1]
1. Lord Duffrin 2. Lord Canning 3. Lord Dalhousie 4. Lord Cornwallis
Question 12
Lord Bentinck banned . [1]
1. Sati 2. Polyandry
3. Pilgrimage to holy places 4. Widow Remarriage
Question 13
Raja Rammohan Roy set up the Brahmo Samaj in . [1]
1. 1826 2. 1828 3. 1829 4. 1830
Question 14
Who wrote the book Gulamgiri? [1]
1. Ramanuja 2. Jyotiba Phule 3. Sabitri Bai 4. Tilak
Question 15
Who started Young India? [1]
1. Derozio 2. Aurobindo Ghosh 3. Swami Dayanand 4. Lala Lajpat Rai
Question 16
When did the Surat Split occur? [1]
1. 1909 2. 1900 3. 1907 4. 1910
Question 17
One of the Two rival camps of Europe prior to the First World War had been: [1]
1. Triple Alliance 2. Axis Powers
3. Allied Powers 4. Rome Berlin Axis
Question 18
‘Go Back Simon’ slogan was associated with the Movement. [1]
1. Quit India Movement 2. Khera Satyagraha
3. Civil Disobedience Movement 4. Non Cooperation Movement

Question 19
Who formed the Forward Bloc? [1]
1. Mahatma Gandhi 2. C. R. Das
3. Jawaharlal Nehru 4. Subhash Chandra Bose
Question 20
Name the last Viceroy of India. [1]
1. Lord Wavell 2. Lord Mountbatten 3. Lord Minto 4. Clement Attlee
Part II [12 Marks]

Question 21
The President of India is elected indirectly because : [2]
1. Direct election would place too much power in the hands of the illeterate masses
2. India is a Republic
3. The framers of the Constitution wanted the Election to remain a quiet and dignified affair
4. India has a multiparty system
Question 22
Which of the following statements are true in connection with the Supreme Court? [2]
1. The President may seek advice from the Supreme Court
2. It is a Court of Record
3. The Parliament appoints the Judges of the Supreme Court
4. The independence of the Supreme Court is not ensured
Question 23
Which of the following powers are exercised by the Prime Minister? [2]
1. He acts as a link between the cabinet and the President
2. He is the Titular Head of our State
3. He coordinates the working of various departments
4. He appoints the Governors
Question 24
Tilak started: [2]
1. The Ganapati Festival 2. The Indian Association
3. Akharas and Lathi clubs 4. The Satya Shodhak Samaj
Question 25
Which of the followings led to the launching of the Non-cooperation Movement? [2]
1. The Rowlatt Act 2. Demand for Purna Swaraj
3. Failure of the Cripps Mission 4. The Khilafat Movement
Question 26
The causes of the Second World War were: [2]
1. Japan‘s invasion of China 2. Division of Europe into two rival camps
3. The Sarajevo Crisis 4. The failure of League of Nations

Part III [8 Marks]
Question 27
(a) Identify the man in this picture. [1]

1. Andrew Fraser 2. Lord Cornwallis
3. H. H. Risley 4. Lord Curzon
(b) Mention any two of his repressive measures. [1]
1. Partition of Bengal 2. The Subsidiary Alliance
3. The University Act 4. The Vernacular Press Act
(c) Whom did the Early Congress men want to preside over the Surat Congress? [2]
1. Dadabhai Naoroji 2. Lala Lajpat Rai
3. K.T. Telang 4. Rash Behari Ghosh
Question 28
The First World War broke out in 1914. It ruined many lives and damaged the property of millions. In this
context answer the followings:
(a) Which two rich mineral deposit areas of France were captured by Germany? [1]
1. Sar 2. Alsace 3. Trieste 4. Lorraine
(b) Who was guilty of war and aggression after the First World War? [1]
1. Austria 2. France 3. Serbia 4. Germany
(c) The Treaty of Versailles gave independence to: [2]
1. Russia 2. Belgium 3. Togoland 4. Poland
ANSWERS
PART I
1. (3) 2. (1) 3. (4) 4. (4) 5. (3)
6. (1) 7. (3) 8. (3) 9. (2) 10. (4)
11. (3) 12. (1) 13. (2) 14. (2) 15. (4)
16. (3) 17. (1) 18. (3) 19. (4) 20. (2)
PART II
21. (1), (3) 22. (1), (2) 23. (1), (3) 24. (1), (3) 25. (1), (4)
26. (1), (4)
PART III
27. (a) (4) (b) (1) and (3) (c) (4)
28. (a) (2) and (4) (b) (4) (c) (4)

HISTORY & CIVICS
H.C.G. Paper – 1
Maximum Marks: 40

Part I (20 marks)

Question 1
No Confidence Motion can be tabled in . [1]
1. The Rajya Sabha 2. The Vidhan Parishad
3. The Gram Sabha 4. The Lok Sabha
Question 2
are appointed by the President. [1]
1. The Speaker 2. The Deputy Chairman
3. The Ministers 4. The Deputy Speaker
Question 3
The term of the Rajya Sabha is . [1]
Question 4
One of the ways to control the Executive is: [1]
1. Interpellation 2. Budget 3. Quorum 4. Ordinance
Question 5
The President declares National Emergency when: [1]
1. The country is almost bankrupt
2. There is breakdown of Constitutional machinery in a state
3. External aggression
4. If no party wins absolute majority in the General Election
Question 6
The President consults regarding the proclamation of Emergency. [1]
1. The Supreme Court 2. The Chief Justice
3. The Comptroller and Auditor General 4. The Cabinet

Question 7
The Ministry meets . [1]
1. Every day 2. Frequently 3. Rarely 4. Occasionally
Question 8
The Ministers are collectively responsible to: [1]
1. The President 2. The Parliament 3. The Rajya Sabha 4. The Lok Sabha
Question 9
The Supreme Court exists in our country because : [1]
1. India is a Republic
2. India has a parliamentary system of government
3. India is a secular state
4. India has a Federal set up
Question 10
The Supreme Court consists of the Chief Justice and not more than other Judges. [1]
1. 25 2. 20 3. 30 4. 35
Question 11
Lord Dalhousie annexed on the basis of Doctrine of Lapse. [1]
1. Awadh 2. Hampi 3. Satara 4. Kanpur
Question 12
was started by Raja Rammohan Roy. [1]
1. Samvad Kaumudi 2. The Bengalee
3. The ShomePrakash 4. Rast Goftar
Question 13
was the last Governor General of India. [1]
1. Lord Dalhousie 2. Lord William Bentinck
3. Lord Curzon 4. Lord Canning
Question 14
Lala Lajpat Rai‘s publication includes: [1]
1. People 2. The Spirit of Indian Nationalism
3. The Ananda Math 4. The Orion
Question 15
Name the movement started by Mrs Annie Besant. [1]
1. The Home Rule Movement 2. The Swadeshi Movement
3. The Boycott Movement 4. The Quit India Movement
Question 16
Who told the troops to fire upon the unarmed mob at Jallianwala Bag? [1]
1. Lord Curzon 2. Lord Irwin 3. Lord Hardinge 4. General Dyer
Question 17
One of the reasons launching the Quit India Movement was: [1]
1. Failure of the Simon Commission 2. Demand for Purna Swaraj
3. Failure of the Cripps Mission 4. Drought and Famine

Question 18[1]
The First World War started in .
1. 1919 2. 1914 3. 1918 4. 1916
Question 19
Who murdered Francis Ferdinand of Austria prior to the World War I? [1]
1. Kaiser William 2. Gavrilo Princep 3. Bismarck 4. Woodrow Wilson
Question 20
Who formed the National Socialist Party? [1]
1. Mussolini 2. Churchill 3. Roosevelt 4. Hitler
Part II [12 Marks]

Question 21
Which portfolios are held by the Cabinet Ministers? [2]
1. The Military 2. The Finance
3. The Stock Exchange 4. The Aviation
Question 22
The Supreme Court here appeals regarding: [2]
1. Criminal cases 2. Family cases 3. Advisory cases 4. Civil cases
Question 23
The Vice President acts as the President if: [2]
1. The President is dead 2. The President is busy
3. The President is impeached 4. The President is taking rest
Question 24
Two leaders of the First War of Independence are: [2]
1. Bhagat Singh 2. Tantia Tope 3. Iqbal 4. Rani Lakshmi bai
Question 25
Two positive aspects of the programme of the Non-cooperation Movement were: [2]
1. Hindu Muslim Unity 2. Boycott of law courts
3. Promotion of Swadeshi 4. Surrender of titles
Question 26
Germany had to supply coal for ten years to: [2]
1. England 2. France 3. Austria 4. Italy
Part III [8 Marks]

Question 27

(a) Identify the person in the picture. [1]
1. Rash Behari Bose 2. Subhash Chandra Bose
3. C. R. Das 4. M. N. Roy
(b) Two famous slogans of this person were: [1]
1. Jai Hind 2. Go back Simon
3. Delhi Chalo 4. Quit India
(c) Who was appointed as the President of the INA? [2]
1. Captain Mohan Singh 2. Laxmi Sehgalwar
3. Rash Behari Bose 4. Rash Behari Ghosh
Question 28
The United Nations was established after the Second World War. In this context answer the followings:
(a) When was the UNO set up? [1]
1. 24th October 1946 2. 24th October 1945
3. 24th October 1948 4. 24th October 1947
(b) Two organs of the UNO are: [1]
1. Security Council 2. ILO
3. General Assembly 4. UNICEF
(c) One objective of the UNO is: [2]
1. To maintain international peace 2. To provide protective food
3. To provide clear drinking water 4. To organise book fairs
ANSWERS
PART I
1. (4) 2. (3) 3. (3) 4. (1) 5. (3)
6. (4) 7. (3) 8. (4) 9. (4) 10. (3)
11. (3) 12. (1) 13. (4) 14. (1) 15. (1)
16. (4) 17. (3) 18. (2) 19. (2) 20. (4)
PART II
21. (2), (4) 22. (1), (4) 23. (1), (3) 24. (2), (4) 25. (1), (3)
26. (2), (4)
PART III
27. (a) (2) (b) (1), (3) (c) (3)
28. (a) (2) (b) (1), (3) (c) (1)

HISTORY & CIVICS
H.C.G. Paper – 1
Maximum Marks: 40

Part I (20 marks)

Question 1
Two members are nominated to the Lok Sabha. [1]
1. Female 2. S.C.P 3. S.T. 4. Anglo-Indian
Question 2
is the estimate of income and expenditure of the Union Government in a financial
year.[1]
1. The Money Bill 2. The Vote on Account
3. Demand for Supplementary Grant 4. The Budget
Question 3
is a Concurrent list item. [1]
1. Defence 2. Education 3. Income tax 4. State pension
Question 4
The President appoints the Attorney General. It is the power of the President. [1]
1. Discretionary 2. Judicial 3. Executive 4. Emergency
Question 5
In front of whom does the President take his oath? [1]
1. The Supreme Court 2. The Chief Justice of India
3. The Comptroller and Auditor General 4. The Administrator
Question 6
The President is not bound to follow the advice of the Supreme Court as: [1]
1. It is not mandatory 2. It is the discretion of the President
3. It is not a Judicial decision 4. The President is the Head of the State
Question 7
Who is in-charge of the Contingency Fund of India? [1]
1. The Cabinet 2. The Union Finance Minister
3. The Prime Minister 4. The President
Question 8
The term of office of the Vice President is [1]
Question 9
The Supreme Court can review any law passed by the Parliament. It is its power of:
1. Judicial Review 2. Advisory Jurisdiction
3. Revisory Jurisdiction 4. Original Jurisdiction
Question 10
The Supreme Court issues Writs to: [1]
1. Ensure law and order 2. Protect our Fundamental Rights
3. Enforce its decisions 4. Provide advice
Question 11
The Brahmin pandits lost their jobs due to: [1]
1. Spread of Christianity 2. Banning of Sati
3. Introduction of railways 4. Introduction of Western Education
Question 12
Who set up the Indian Association? [1]
1. Dadabhai Naoroji 2. Gopal Krishna Gokhale
3. Surendra Nath Banerjee 4. Bipin Chandra Pal
Question 13
Dadabhai Naoroji edited: [1]
1. Young India 2. Mirat-ul-Akhbar 3. The Pioneer 4. Rast Goftar
Question 14
Who is called the political guru of Gandhi? [1]
1. Tilak 2. Lala Lajpat Rai
3. Pherozeshah Mehta 4. Gopal Krishna Gokhale
Question 15
The Assertives projected as national Hero. [1]
1. Nana Saheb 2. Rana Pratap 3. Baji Rao 4. Sher Shah
Question 16
The Muslim League and Congress met at Lucknow in: [1]
1. 1913 2. 1919 3. 1916 4. 1915
Question 17
The Ruler of Turkey was the of the Muslims of the world. [1]
1. Emperor 2. Caliph 3. Nizam 4. Leader
Question 18
The Second Round Table Conference was attended by: [1]
1. Nehru 2. Sardar Patel 3. Gandhiji 4. Saukat Ali

Question 19
The First World War destroyed in Austria. [1]
1. The Romanov 2. The Hapsburg 3. The Hohenzollern 4. The Tsar
Question 20
How many rival camps were there in Europe before the First World War? [1]
1. 3 2. 2 3. 5 4. 4
Part II [12 Marks]

Question 21
Any two high ranking Officials appointed by the President are: [2]
1. Governors 2. Deputy Speaker
3. Chief Election Commissioner 4. Deputy Secretary
Question 22
The qualifications of the Vice President are: [2]
1. He may hold an office of profit
2. He must be a citizen of India
3. He may not be qualified for election as a member of the Rajya Sabha
4. He must not be less than 35 years of age
Question 23
Any two categories of ministers are: [2]
1. Deputy Ministers 2. Finance Minister 3. Ministers of State 4. Prime Minister
Question 24
Which two statements are related to Muslim League: [2]
1. Aligarh politics 2. Surat Split
3. First Round Table Conference 4. Loyalty towards the British
Question 25
The provisions of the Treaty of Versailles were: [2]
1. Rhineland was demilitarized 2. Austria was guilty of aggression
3. Eupen was given to Belgium 4. German army was enlarged
Question 26
The impact of INA struggle had been: [2]
1. Followed by the Revolt of Royal Indian Navy 2. Women did not take part in the movement
3. The British realised their days were numbered 4. People forgot the sacrifice of the INA soldiers
Part III [8 Marks]

Question 27
The Civil Disobedience Movement was launched by the Congress in 1930. The Montague Chelmsford
Reforms failed to satisfy the people of India. The Simon Commission was sent. As it did not include a
single Indian representative, the Indians boycotted it. In this context answer the followings:

(a) Two features of the Dandi March were: [1]
1. The March started from Sabarmati Ashram 2. Gandhiji was in jail at that time
3. Salt Law was defied 4. The March started reached Digha
(b) Who was called Frontier Gandhi? [1]
1. Motilal Nehru 2. Khan Abdul Gaffar Khan
3. Sardar Patel 4. Muhammad Ali
(c) When was the Gandhi – Irwin pact signed? [2]
1. 1932 2. 1931 3. 1935 4. 1944
Question 28
In the context of the Independence of India answer the followings:
(a) Name the first and last Indian Governor General of Independent India. [1]
1. Nehru 2. Patel 3. CR Das 4. C Rajagopalachari
(b) Two provisions of the Indian Independence Act were: [1]
1. Division of Indian Army 2. Princely states were not taken into consideration
3. Creation of two Dominions 4. Creation of Boundary Commission
(c) Name the First Prime Minister of India. [2]
1. Gandhiji 2. Jawaharlal Nehru 3. Jinnah 4. Dr Rajendra Prasad
ANSWERS
PART I
1. (4) 2. (4) 3. (2) 4. (3) 5. (2)
6. (3) 7. (4) 8. (2) 9. (1) 10. (2)
11. (4) 12. (3) 13. (4) 14. (4) 15. (2)
16. (3) 17. (2) 18. (3) 19. (2) 20. (2)
PART II
21. (1), (3) 22. (2), (4) 23. (1), (3) 24. (1), (4) 25. (1), (3)
26. (1), (3)
PART III
27. (a) (1), (3) (b) (2) (c) (1)
28. (a) (4) (b) (1), (2) (c) (2)

HISTORY & CIVICS
H.C.G. Paper – 1
Maximum Marks: 40

Part I (20 marks)

Question 1
The Parliament can make law on the subjects of the State List if: [1]
1. There is disturbance in the country
2. The President has gone abroad
3. There is Emergency due to War
4. The Lok Sabha advises to do so
Question 2
Mr Z has been appointed as the Judge of the Supreme Court because: [1]
1. He is a hard-working advocate
2. He is a distinguished jurist in the eyes of the President
3. He is a dedicated individual
4. He can plead well
Question 3
The President is impeached if he: [1]
1. Disobeys the Constitution 2. Neglects his work
3. Does not sign the Bills 4. Fails to discharge his duties
Question 4
casts his special vote to break a tie. [1]
1. The Chairman 2. The Prime Minister
3. The Deputy Speaker 4. The Speaker
Question 5
Who is the leader of the Nation? [1]
1. The President 2. The Speaker
3. The Prime Minister 4. The Vice President

Question 6
The President issues the Ordinances when is not in session. [1]
1. The Supreme Court 2. The Rajya Sabha
3. The Parliament 4. The Lok Sabha
Question 7
The President can appoint an Administrator to administer: [1]
1. The States 2. The Union territories
3. The provinces 4. The Districts
Question 8
The Ministers are individually responsible to for their deeds. [1]
1. The Parliament 2. The Lok Sabha
3. The President 4. The Prime Minister
Question 9
are issued to protect our Fundamental Rights. [1]
1. The legal notice 2. Orders 3. Writs 4. Verdicts
Question 10
India has a judicial System. [1]
1. Disciplined 2. Single 3. Single-integrated 4. Apex
Question 11
Lord Dalhousie annexed a number of Indian territories: [1]
1. Easily 2. Without warfare
3. Through Subsidiary Alliance 4. Through Guerrilla warfare
Question 12
introduced the Permanent Settlement. [1]
1. Lord Cornwallis 2. Lord Duffrin 3. Lord Wellesley 4. Lord Canning
Question 13
Raja Rammohan Roy fought against the: [1]
1. Ilbert Bill 2. Jury Act 3. Arms Act 4. Rowlatt Act
Question 14
The East India Association was founded in: [1]
1. 1855 2. 1876 3. 1866 4. 1844
Question 15
Who was called the forerunner of Gandhiji? [1]
1. Aurobindo Ghosh 2. M. G. Ranade 3. Tilak 4. Gopal Krishna Gokhale
Question 16
Complete the given analogy: [1]
Dadabhai Naoroji: Prayer :: Bipin Chandra Pal:
1. Resolution 2. Meeting 3. Petition 4. Boycott

Question 17
The impact of the Non-Cooperation Movement was: [1]
1. Change in the character of the Congress 2. Widened the base of the Freedom struggle
3. People could resist violence with courage 4. Women took part in this movement
Question 18
Forward Bloc was set up in: [1]
1. 1936 2. 1939 3. 1959 4. 1949
Question 19
Germany had to pay as War indemnity after the First World War. [1]
1. 22 billion dollars 2. 32 billion dollars
3. 33 billion dollars 4. 34 billion dollars
Question 20
Japan invaded China and occupied prior to the World War II. [1]
1. Beijing 2. Taiwan 3. Taiping 4. Manchuria
Part II [12 Marks]

Question 21
Two qualifications of the President are: [2]
1. He should be a citizen of India
2. He should have completed 32 years of age
3. He should be qualified to become a member of the Lok Sabha
4. He may hold an office of profit
Question 22
Which of the following statements are correct? [2]
1. The Prime Minister is the ex-officio Chairman of the Cabinet
2. On the advice of the President the Prime Minister appoints the Ministers
3. The Prime Minister is the real Head
4. The President is the leader of the Lok Sabha
Question 23
Ministry is: [2]
1. A large body of all categories of ministers
2. It assists the President
3. It meets rarely
4. The Prime Minister consults it regularly
Question 24
Two causes of the First War of Independence were: [2]
1. Treatment meted out to Nana Saheb 2. Aligarh Politics
3. The Vernacular Press Act 4. Introduction of Enfield Rifles

Question 25
Hitler’s acts of aggression: [2]
1. Attacked Togoland 2. Captured Vienna
3. Wanted to get back Sar 4. Captured Sudetenland
Question 26
Which two of the followings are the major agencies of the UNO? [2]
1. WHO 2. The Economic and Social Council
3. UNICEF 4. The General Assembly
Part III [8 Marks]

Question 27
In 1857 AD an Uprising occurred against the British which spread over a large part of India. This was
a great and serious challenge faced by the Company in the first century of its rule in India. Several
factors were responsible for this Uprising. In this context answer the followings:
(a) Two Economic causes of this Uprising had been: [1]
1. The ruin of trade and handicrafts 2. Annexation of Jhansi
3. Low salary and poor prospect of promotion 4. Big Famines
(b) Who passed the General Service Enlistment Act? [1]
1. Lord Amherst 2. Warren Hastings
3. Lord Cornwallis 4. Lord Canning
(c) There had not been sufficient British sepoys at certain strategically important places like: [2]
1. Madras 2. Allahabad 3. Mumbai 4. Punjab
Question 28
(a) With which is this picture associated? [1]

1. Quit India Movement 2. Khera Satyagraha
3. Non-Cooperation Movement 4. Civil Disobedience Movement

(b) Identify the man in the forefront in this picture: [1]
1. Nehru 2. Patel
3. Gandhiji 4. Moulana Abul Kalam Azad
(c) Where were they all matching? [1]
1. Surat 2. Bardouli 3. Dandi 4. Nasik
(d) How many people initially were walking together? [1]
1. 79 2. 78 3. 70 4. 75
ANSWERS
PART I
1. (3) 2. (2) 3. (1) 4. (4) 5. (3)
6. (3) 7. (2) 8. (3) 9. (3) 10. (3)
11. (2) 12. (1) 13. (2) 14. (3) 15. (3)
16. (4) 17. (1) 18. (2) 19. (3) 20. (4)
PART II
21. (1), (3) 22. (1), (3) 23. (1), (3) 24. (1), (4) 25. (2), (4)
26. (1), (3)
PART III
27. (a) (1), (4) (b) (4) (c) (2)
28. (a) (4) (b) (3) (c) (3) (d) (2)

MATHEMATICS (51)
CLASS X
There will be one paper of two and a half hours duration (vi) Arithmetic Progression
carrying 80 marks and Internal Assessment of 20 marks. • Finding General term.
The paper will be divided into two sections, Section I (40 marks), • Finding Sum of first ‘n’ terms.
Section II (40 marks). (vii) Co-ordinate Geometry
Section I: Will consist of compulsory short answer questions. (a) Reflection
Section II: Candidates will be required to answer four out of (i) Reflection of a point in a line:
seven questions. x = 0, y = 0, x = a, y = a, the origin.
1. Commercial Mathematics (ii) Reflection of a point in the origin.
(i) Goods and Services Tax (GST) (iii) Invariant points.
Computation of tax including problems involving discounts, (b) Co-ordinates expressed as (x,y), Section formula,
list-price, profit, loss, basic/cost price including inverse Midpoint formula, Concept of slope, equation of
cases. Candidates are also expected to find price paid by a line, Various forms of straight lines.
the consumer after paying State Goods and Service Tax (i) Section and Mid-point formula (Internal section
(SGST) and Central Goods and Service Tax (CGST) - the only, co-ordinates of the centroid of a triangle
different rates as in vogue on different types of items will included).
be provided. Problems based on corresponding inverse cases (ii) Equation of a line:
are also included. • Slope–intercept form y = mx + c
(ii) Banking • Two-point form (y – y1) = m(x – x1)
Recurring Deposit Accounts: computation of interest Geometric understanding of ‘m’ as slope/
and maturity value using the formula: gradient/ tan θ where θ is the angle the line
n(n + 1) r makes with the positive direction of the x axis.
I = P ×
2 × 12 100 Geometric understanding of ‘c’ as the
MV = P x n + I y-intercept/the ordinate of the point where the
2. Algebra line intercepts the y axis/ the point on the line
(i) Linear Inequations where x = 0.
Linear Inequations in one unknown for x ∈ N, W, Z, R. • Conditions for two lines to be parallel or
Solving: perpendicular.
• Algebraically and writing the solution in set notation Simple applications of all the above.
form. 3. Geometry
• Representation of solution on the number line. (a) Similarity
(ii) Quadratic Equations in one variable Similarity, conditions of similar triangles.
(a) Nature of roots (i) C omparison with congruency, keyword being
• Two distinct real roots if b2 – 4ac > 0 proportionality.
• Two equal real roots if b2 – 4ac = 0 (ii) Three conditions: SSS, SAS, AA. Simple applications
(proof not included).
• No real roots if b2 – 4ac < 0
(b) Circles
(b) Solving Quadratic equations by:
(i) Angle Properties
• Factorisation • Using Formula.
• The angle that an arc of a circle subtends at the
(c) Solving simple quadratic equation problems.
centre is double that which it subtends at any
(iii) Ratio and Proportion point on the remaining part of the circle.
(a) Proportion, Continued proportion, mean proportion • Angles in the same segment of a circle are equal
(b) Componendo, dividendo, alternendo, invertendo (without proof).
properties and their combinations. • Angle in a semi-circle is a right angle.
(iv) Factorisation of polynomials: (ii) Cyclic Properties:
(a) Factor Theorem. • Opposite angles of a cyclic quadrilateral are
(b) Remainder Theorem. supplementary.
(c) Factorising a polynomial completely after obtaining • The exterior angle of a cyclic quadrilateral is equal
one factor by factor theorem. to the opposite interior angle (without proof).
Note: f (x) not to exceed degree 3. (iii) Tangent and Secant Properties:
(v) Matrices • The tangent at any point of a circle and the radius
(a) Order of a matrix. Row and column matrices. through the point are perpendicular to each other.
(b) Compatibility for addition and multiplication. • If two circles touch, the point of contact lies on
(c) Null and Identity matrices. the straight line joining their centres.
(d) Addition and subtraction of 2×2 matrices. • From any point outside a circle, two tangents can
(e) Multiplication of a 2×2 matrix by be drawn, and they are equal in length.
• a non-zero rational number • If two chords intersect internally or externally
• a matrix. then the product of the lengths of the segments
are equal.
2 ICSE Semester 1 Mathematics ICSE Semester 1 Mathematics 2

• If a chord and a tangent intersect externally, 7. Probability
then the product of the lengths of segments of the Random experiments, Sample space, Events, definition of
chord is equal to the square of the length of the probability, Simple problems on single events.
tangent from the point of contact to the point of
intersection. SI UNITS, SIGNS, SYMBOLS AND ABBREVIATIONS
• If a line touches a circle and from the point of (1) Agreed conventions
contact, a chord is drawn, the angles between the (a) Units may be written in full or using the agreed
tangent and the chord are respectively equal to the symbols, but no other abbreviation may be used.
angles in the corresponding alternate segments. (b) The letter ‘s’ is never added to symbols to indicate
Note: the plural form.
• Proofs of all Theorems EXCLUDED. (c) A full stop is not written after symbols for units
• Only application of all Circle Theorems in solving unless it occurs at the end of a sentence.
numerical problems are included. (d) When unit symbols are combined as a quotient, e.g.,
4. Mensuration metre per second, it is recommended that it should
Area and volume of solids – Cylinder and Cone. be written as m/s, or as m s–1.
Three-dimensional solids - right circular cylinder and right (e) Three decimal signs are in common international use:
circular cone: Area (total surface and curved surface) and the full point, the mid-point and the comma. Since
Volume. Direct application problems including cost, Inner and the full point is sometimes used for multiplication
Outer volume and melting and recasting method to find the and the comma for spacing digits in large numbers,
volume or surface area of a new solid. Combination of solids it is recommended that the mid-point be used for
included. decimals.
Note: Problems on Frustum are not included. (2) Names and symbols
5. Trigonometry In general
(a) Using Identities to solve/prove simple algebraic
Implies that ⇒ is logically equivalent to ⇔
trigonometric expressions
sin2 A + cos2 A = 1 Identically equal to ≡ is approximately equal to >>
1 + tan2 A = sec2 A
In set language
1 + cot2A = cosec2A; 0 ≤ A ≤ 90°
Belongs to ∈ does not belong to ∉
(b) Heights and distances: Solving 2-D problems involving
angles of elevation and depression using trigonometric is equivalent to ↔ is not equivalent to ↔
tables. union ∪ intersection ∩
Note: Cases involving more than two right angled universal set ξ is contained in ⊂
triangles excluded. natural (counting) Ν the empty set ø
6. Statistics numbers whole numbers W
Statistics – basic concepts, Mean, Median, Mode. integers Ζ real numbers R
Histograms and Ogive.
(a) Computation of: In measures
• Measures of Central Tendency: Mean*, median class
Kilometre km Metre m
and modal class for continuous grouped data.
Centimetre cm Millimetre mm
• * Mean by any method
Σfx Kilogram kg Gram g
Direct : Litre L Centilitre cL
Σf
Σfd square kilometre km2 Square metre m2
Short-cut : A + where d = x – A
Σf square centimetre cm2 Hectare ha
Σft X – A cubic metre m3 Cubic centimetre cm3
Step-deviation : A + × i where t =
Σf i kilometres per hour km/h Metres per second m/s
(b) Graphical Representation. Histograms and Less than Ogive.
• Finding the mode from the histogram, the upper quartile,
lower Quartile and median etc. from the ogive.
• Calculation of inter Quartile range.
3 ICSE Semester 1 Mathematics ICSE Semester 1 Mathematics 3

SPECIMEN QUESTION PAPER (SOLVED)
MATHEMATICS
Maximum Marks: 40
Time allowed: One and a half hours (inclusive of reading time)
Section A [16 Marks] [16 × 1]

1. If matrix A is of order 3 × 2 and matrix B is of order 2 × 2 then the matrix AB is of order
(a) 3 × 2 (b) 3 × 1 (c) 2 × 3 (d) 1 × 3
2. The percentage share of SGST of total GST for an Intra-State sale of an article is
(a) 25% (b) 50% (c) 75% (d) 100%
3. ABCD is a trapezium with AB parallel to DC. A B
Then the triangle similar to DAOB is
O
(a) DADB (b) DACB
(c) DCOD (d) DCOB D C
4. The mean proportion between 9 and 16 is
(a) 25 (b) 144 (c) 7 (d) 12
5. A man deposited ` 500 per month for 6 months and received ` 3300 as the maturity value. The
interest received by him is:
(a) 1950 (b) 300 (c) 2800 (d) none of these
6. The solution set representing the following number line is
–5 –4 –3 –2 –1 0 1 2 3 4
(a) {x : x ∈ R, –3  x < 2} (b) {x : x ∈ R, –3 < x < 2}

(c) {x : x ∈ R, –3 < x  2} (d) {x : x ∈ R, –3  x  2}
7. The first three terms of an arithmetic progression (A. P.) are 1, 9, 17, then the next two terms are
(a) 25 and 35 (b) 27 and 37 (c) 25 and 33 (d) none of these
8. If DABC ~ DQRP then the corresponding proportional sides are
AB BC AC BC AB BC AB BC
(a) = (b) = (c) = (d) =
QR RP QR RP QR QP PQ RP
9. If x ∈ W, then the solution set of the inequation –x > –7, is

(a) {8, 9, 10…} (b) {0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6}
(c) {0, 1, 2, 3 …} (d) {–8, –9, –10…}
4 ICSE Semester 1 Mathematics

10. The roots of the quadratic equation 4x2 – 7x + 2 = 0 are 1.390, 0.359. The roots correct to 2 significant
figures are
(a) 1.39 and 0.36 (b) 1.3 and 0.35 (c) 1.4 and 0.36 (d) 1.390 and 0.360
11. 1.5, 3, x and 8 are in proportion, then x is equal to
(a) 6 (b) 4 (c) 4.5 (d) 16
12. If a polynomial 2x – 7x – 1 is divided by (x + 3), then the remainder is
2
(a) –4 (b) 38 (c) –3 (d) 2

13. If 73 is the nth term of the arithmetic progression 3, 8, 13, 18…, then ‘n’ is
(a) 13 (b) 14 (c) 15 (d) 16
14. The roots of the quadratic equation x + 2x + 1 = 0 are
2
(a) Real and distinct (b) Real and equal

(c) Distinct (d) Not real/imaginary
15. Which of the following statement is not true?
(a) All identity matrices are square matrix
(b) All null matrices are square matrix
(c) For a square matrix number of rows is equal to the number of columns
(d) A square matrix all of whose elements except those in the leading diagonal are zero is the diagonal
matrix
16. If (x – 2) is a factor of the polynomial x3 + 2x2 – 13x + k, then ‘k’ is equal to
(a) –10 (b) 26 (c) –26 (d) 10
Section B [12 Marks] [6 × 2]

17. A man deposited ` 1200 in a recurring deposit account for 1 year at 5% per annum simple interest.
The interest earned by him on maturity is
(a) 14790 (b) 390 (c) 4680 (d) 780
18. If x – 4 is a factor of polynomial x + x – 4x – 4, then its factors are
2 3 2
(a) (x – 2)(x + 2)(x + 1) (b) (x – 2)(x + 2)(x – 1)

(c) (x – 2)(x – 2)(x + 1) (d) (x – 2)(x – 2)(x – 1)
19. The following bill shows the GST rates and the marked price of articles A and B:
BILL : GENERAL STORE
Articles Marked Price Rate of GST
A ` 300 12%
B ` 1200 5%
The total amount to be paid for the above bill is:

(a) 1548 (b) 1596 (c) 1560 (d) 1536
20. The solution set for the linear inequation –8  x – 7 < – 4, x ∈ I is
(a) {x : x ∈ R, –1  x < 3} (b) {0, 1, 2, 3}
(c) {–1, 0, 1, 2, 3} (d) { –1, 0, 1, 2}
ICSE Semester 1 Mathematics 5

5a 4c
21. If = , then by Componendo and dividendo
7b 3d
5a + 7b 4c – 3d 5a – 7b 4c + 3d
(a) = (b) =
5a – 7b 4c + 3d 5a + 7b 4c – 3d
5a + 7b 4c + 3d 5a + 7b 4c – 3d
(c) = (d) =
5a – 7b 4c – 3d 5a + 7b 4c – 3d
2 0
22. If A = , then A2 is
–1 7
4 0 4 0 4 0 1 9
(a) (b) (c) (d)
1 49 –9 49 9 49 –9 48
Section C [12 Marks] [3 × 4]

23. The distance between station A and B by road is 240 km and by train it is 300 km. A car starts from
station A with a speed x km/hr whereas a train starts from station B with a speed 20 km/hr more than
the speed of the car.
(i) The time taken by car to reach station B is
240 300 20 300
(a) (b) (c) (d)
x x x x + 20
(ii) The time taken by train to reach station A is
240 300 20 300
(a) (b) (c) (d) x + 20
x x x
(iii) If the time taken by train is 1 hour less than that taken by the car, then the quadratic equation
formed is
(a) x2 + 80x – 6000 = 0 (b) x2 + 80x – 4800 = 0
(c) x2 + 240x – 1600 = 0 (d) x2 – 80x + 4800 = 0
(iv) The speed of the car is
(a) 60 km/hr (b) 120 km/hr (c) 40 km/hr (d) 80 km/hr
24. In the given triangle PQR, AB || QR, QP || CB and AR intersects CB at O.
P
A B
3c
O
Q C 4c R
6c
Using the given diagram answer the following question:

(i) The triangle similar to ΔARQ is
(a) ΔORC (b) ΔARP (c) ΔOBR (d) ΔQRP
(ii) ΔPQR ~ ΔBCR by axiom
(a) SAS (b) AAA (c) SSS (d) AAS
(iii) If QC = 6 cm, CR = 4 cm, BR = 3 cm. The length of RP is
(a) 4.5 cm (b) 8 cm (c) 7.5 cm (d) 5 cm
(iv) The ratio PQ : BC is
(a) 2 : 3 (b) 3 : 2 (c) 5 : 2 (d) 2 : 5

25. The nth term of an arithmetic progression (A.P.) is (3n + 1).
(i) The first three terms of this A. P. are
(a) 5, 6, 7 (b) 3, 6, 9 (c) 1, 4, 7 (d) 4, 7, 10
(ii) The common difference of the A.P. is
(a) 3 (b) 1 (c) –3 (d) 2
(iii) Which of the following is not a term of this A.P.?
(a) 25 (b) 27 (c) 28 (d) 31
(iv) Sum of the first 10 terms of this A.P. is
(a) 350 (b) 175 (c) –95 (d) 70
ANSWERS
SECTION A
1 (a) 2. (b) 3. (c) 4. (d)
5. (b) x = ` 500 n = 6 months Amount = ` 3300
Interest = Amount – nx = ` 3300 – 3000 = ` 300
6. (a)
7. (c) AP 1, 9, 17 d = 8
\ The next 2 terms are 17 + 8 = 25, 25 + 8 = 33
8. (a)
9. (b) –x > –7 ⇒ 7 > x x ∈ W
{0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6}
10. (c) 4x2 – 7x + 2 = 0 x = 1.390, 0.359
\ Correct to 2 significant figure 1.4, 0.36
0.5
1.5 × 8
11. (b) = x \ x = 4
3
12. (b) f (–3) = 2(–3)2 – 7(–3) – 1 = 18 + 21 – 1 = 38
13. (c) 3, 8, 13, 18, ...
\ a = 3, d = 8 – 3 = 5
70
a + (n – 1)d = 3 + (n – 1)5 = 73 ⇒ n – 1 = = 14
5
\ n = 15
14. (b) (x + 1)2 = 0, real and equal.
15. (b) All null matrices are square matrix False
16. (d) (x – 2) is a factor of x3 + 2x2 – 13x + k
23 + 2(2)2 – 13(2) + k = 0 ⇒ 16 – 26 + k = 0 ⇒ k = 10
SECTION B
17. (b) x = ` 1200 n = 12
6
12 × 13 × 1200 5 1
I = × × = ` 390
2 100 12
18. (c) (x2 – 4) is a factor of x3 + x2 – 4x – 4
x2(x + 1) – 4(x + 1) = (x + 1) (x2 – 4) = (x + 2(x – 2)(x + 1)

12
19. (b) MP = ` 300 GST = × 300 = 36
100
5
MP = ` 1200 GST = × 1200 = 60
100
1500 96
\ 1500 + 96 = 1596
20. (d) –8  x – 7 < –4, x ∈ I ⇒ –1  x < 3
SS = {–1, 0 1, 2}
21. (c)
2 0 2 0 4 0
22. (b) A2 = =
–1 7 –1 7 –9 49
SECTION C
23. Road 240 km x km/h
Train 300 km (x + 20) km/h
240
(i) (a) Time taken by car =
x
300
(ii) (d) Time taken by train =
x + 20
240 300
(iii) (b) – = 1
x x + 20
\ 240x + 4800 – 300x = x2 + 20x ⇒ 0 = x2 + 80x – 4800
(iv) (c) (x + 120)(x – 40) = 0 ⇒ x = 40 km/h (speed of car)
24. (i) (a) ΔARQ ~ DORC
(ii) (b) AAA
(iii) (c) QC = 6 cm, CR = 4 cm, BR = 3 cm
RP QR PR 105 15
= ⇒ = \ PR = = 7.5 cm
BR CR 3 42 2
(iv) (c) PQ : BC = QR : CR = 10 : 4 = 5 : 2
25. an = 3n + 1
(i) (d) a1 = 3 + 1 = 4 a2 = 3 × 2 + 1 = 7 a3 = 9 + 1 = 10
4, 7, 10
(ii) (a) d = 7 – 4 = 3
(iii) (b) a + (n – 1)d = 4 + 3(n – 1) = 3n + 1
3n + 1 = 27
26
3n = 26 n = is a fraction \ 27 is not a term of the AP.
3
10
(iv) (b) S10 = [(2 × 4) + 9 × 3] = 5[8 + 27] = 5 × 35 = 175
2

MATHEMATICS
Maximum Marks: 40
Select the correct option for each of the following questions:

AB BC
1. In DABC and DDEF, if = then they will be similar, when
ED DF
(a) ∠B = ∠E (b) ∠B = ∠D (c) ∠A = ∠D (d) ∠A = ∠F
2. The order of matrix A is m × p and the order of matrix B is p × n, then the order of product matrix
AB is
(a) r × p (b) p × m (c) m × n (d) m × p
3. Identity matrix of order 2 is
2 0 2 2 1 0 0 1
(a) (b) (c) (d)
0 2 2 2 0 1 1 0
1
4. Mean proportion of and 108 is
3
(a) 36 (b) 324 (c) 9 (d) 6
5. A man deposited ` 600 per month for 9 months and received ` 5580 as the maturity value. The
interest is
(a) ` 270 (b) ` 450 (c) ` 180 (d) ` 540
6. The solution set representing the following number line is
–4 –3 –2 –1 0 1 2 3
(a) {–2, –1, 0, 1} (b) {–2, –1, 0}
(c) {x : –2  x < 1, x ∈ R} (d) {x : –2 < x  1, x ∈ R}
7. If 6, 8, x, 12 are proportional, then the value of x is
(a) 9 (b) 10 (c) 3 (d) 4
8. If 9 – 2x > 1, x ∈ W, then the solution set for the inequation is
(a) {x : 4 > x, x ∈ R} (b) {0, 1, 2, 3, 4} (c) {0, 1, 2, 3} (d) {1, 2, 3, 4}
9. If an is the nth term of an AP and a19 – a13 = 24, the common difference is
(a) 5 (b) 4 (c) 6 (d) None of these
10. In the given figure AB || EF || DC. DABE is similar to A
D
(a) DCBE
(b) DCFE E
(c) DCDE
(d) DDBC
B C
F
11. If A and I are 2 × 2 matrices and I is a unit matrix. Which of the following statements is not true?
(a) A × I = A (b) I × A = A × I (c) I × A = A (d) I × A = I
12. The first 2 terms of an AP are –3, 2. The next 2 terms are
(a) 7, 9 (b) 0, 2 (c) 7, 12 (d) 1, 0
13. The roots of a quadratic equation are 1.963 and 3.845. The roots correct to 2 significant figures are
(a) 1.9, 3.8 (b) 2.0, 3.8 (c) 1.96, 3.85 (d) None of these
14. Which of the following is not a quadratic equation?
1
(a) x3 – 1 = (x2 + 2)(x – 1) (b) x + = 2
x
(c) x2 – 3x = 0 (d) (x + 2)(x – 3) = x2 + 5x – 9
15. If (x + 2) is a factor of 2x3 + 9x2 + 7x – b, then the value of b is
(a) 4 (b) 6 (c) –66 (d) 44
16. When x + 4x – 2x – 8 is divided by (x + 3), the remainder is
3 2
(a) 7 (b) –65 (c) –7 (d) 65

1
17. Raj deposited ` 500 per month for 2 years at 8% p.a. in a Recurring Deposit Scheme. The interest
2
earned by him on maturity is
(a) ` 310 (b) ` 620 (c) ` 1550 (d) ` 755
18. If x – 1 is a factor of the polynomial 3x + 2x – 3x – 2, then its factors are
2 3 2
(a) (x + 1)(x – 1)(2x + 3) (b) (x + 1)(x – 2)(3x – 2)

(c) (x + 1)(x – 1)(3x + 2) (d) (x + 1)(x – 1)(2x – 3)
19. The marked price of an article is ` 1400. Discount given is 10% and GST charged is 5%. The price
paid for the article by a consumer is
(a) ` 1617 (b) ` 1197 (c) ` 1233 (d) ` 1323
20. The solution set for the following linear inequation is –2  1 – 3x < 7, x ∈ I
(a) {–1, 0, 1} (b) {x : –2 < x  1, x ∈ R}
(c) {–1, 0, 1, 2} (d) {–2, –1, 0, 1}
21. If k – 2, k + 2, 2k + 1 are in AP, then the value of k is
(a) –1 (b) 1 (c) 3 (d) 5
2 –2
22. If A = then A2 is
–2 2
4 4 4 0 8 –8 8 0
(a) (b) (c) (d)
4 4 0 4 –8 8 0 8

23. A fruit seller bought x mangoes for ` 1500. As 5 of these were spoilt, he sold each of the rest for
` 10 more than he had paid for. He made neither profit nor loss.
(i) The selling price of each mango is
1500 1500 1500 1510
(a) ` (b) ` (c) ` (d) `
x x – 5 x + 10 x – 5
(ii) The quadratic equation formed is
1500 1500 1500 1500 1500 1500 1500 1500
(a) – = 10 (b) – = 10 (c) – = 5 (d) – = 5
x x – 5 x – 5 x x x + 10 x + 10 x
(iii) After simplification the equation is
(a) x2 – 5x – 750 = 0 (b) x2 – 5x + 750 = 0 (c) x2 + 10x + 3000 = 0 (d) x2 + 10x – 3000 = 0
(iv) The value of x is
(a) 60 (b) 50 (c) 30 (d) 25
24. In the given triangle ABC, PQ || BC and PC and BQ intersect at O. AP = 6 cm, PB = 9 cm, PQ = 5 cm
and AQ = 8 cm.
A
6 cm 8 cm
P Q
9 cm O
B C
(i) The DAPQ ~ DABC by axiom
(a) SSS (b) SAS (c) AA (d) AAS
(ii) The ratio of PO : OC is
(a) 2 : 3 (b) 3 : 2 (c) 2 : 5 (d) 5 : 2
(iii) The length of BC is
(a) 10 cm (b) 7.5 cm (c) 12 cm (d) 12.5 cm
(iv) The length of AC is
(a) 12 cm (b) 20 cm (c) 16 cm (d) 18 cm
25. The first term of an AP is –1 and 350 is the last term. If the common difference is 9.
(i) The first 3 terms are
(a) –1, 8, 17 (b) –1, 10, 19 (c) –1, –10, –19 (d) –1, –8, –17
(ii) The number of terms is
(a) 40 (b) 41 (c) 39 (d) 38
(iii) The sum of all terms is
(a) 6800 (b) 6780 (c) 6980 (d) 6500
(iv) The 10th term is
(a) 82 (b) 81 (c) 80 (d) 79
ANSWERS
SECTION A
1. (b) 2. (c) 3. (c) 4. (d) 5. (c) 6. (c) 7. (a) 8. (c)
9. (b) 10. (c) 11. (d) 12. (c) 13. (b) 14. (d) 15. (b) 16. (a)
SECTION B
17. (c) 18. (c) 19. (d) 20. (a) 21. (d) 22. (c)
SECTION C
23. (i) (b) (ii) (b) (iii) (a) (iv) (c)
24. (i) (c) (ii) (c) (iii) (d) (iv) (b)
25. (i) (a) (ii) (a) (iii) (c) (iv) (c)

MATHEMATICS
Maximum Marks: 40

1. The product of two matrices A and B is possible if
(a) both have same order (b) no. of rows in A = no. of columns in B
(c) no. of columns in A = no. of rows in B (d) both are square matrices
2. If the mean proportion of a and 54 is 18, the the value of a is
(a) 3 (b) 2 (c) 9 (d) 6
3. An article costs ` 1400. GST charged on it is 12%. So SGST on the article is
(a) ` 168 (b) ` 1568 (c) ` 84 (d) ` 1484
4. In the given figure DAOB is similar to DCOD by the axiom
Y
4 A
1
B C
0 X
–3 –2 –1 1 2 3 4 5 6
–1
–2
–3
D
(a) SSS (b) AA (c) SAS (d) AAS

5. Write the next 2 terms of the following AP:
–1
–4, , 3
2
1 1 1 1
(a) 5 , 8 (b) –1 , 6 (c) 6 , 10 (d) –6 , –10
2 2 2 2

1
6. The mean proportion of 2 and 4 is
4
1
(a) 3 (b) 36 (c) 9 (d) 3
8
7. The roots of the equation x2 + kx + 9 = 0 are equal. The value of k is
(a) 6 (b) ±4 (c) 3 (d) ±6
7x 9
8. If = using Componendo and dividendo
5y 8
7x – 5y 1 7x + 5y
(a) = (b) = 17
7x + 5y 17 7x – 5y
7x + 5y 1 7x – 5y
(c) = (d) = 17
7x – 5y 17 7x + 5y
9. If (x – 2) is a factor of 2x3 – x2 – px – 2, then the value of p is
(a) 3 (b) 5 (c) 4 (d) –5
10. The third proportional to 18 and 54 is

(a) 144 (b) 72 (c) 972 (d) 162
11. Chetan deposits ` 600 per month for 1 year 8 months in a Recurring Deposit Scheme. If he receives
` 13050 as maturity amount, the interest earned is
(a) ` 150 (b) ` 2250 (c) ` 5010 (d) ` 1050
12. The roots of the following equation

(2x + 3)(3x – 1) = 0 are
–3 –1 3 1 –3 1 3 –1
(a) , (b) , (c) , (d) ,
2 3 2 3 2 3 2 3
13. If one root of the equation 2x2 – kx + 6 = 0 is 2, then the value of k is
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 7
x + 2 7 6 7
14. If = , then x and y are equal to
y – 1 x + y 4 9
(a) x = 8, y = 3 (b) x = 4, y = –5 (c) x = 4, y = 5 (d) x = 4, y = 3
15. If the first term of an AP is 2 and the common difference is 8, then 20th term is
(a) 162 (b) 154 (c) 160 (d) 158
16. What should be added to x2 + 3x – 30 so that (x – 4) is a factor?
(a) –2 (b) 3 (c) –3 (d) 2

17. If the sum of 3 consecutive numbers in an AP is 18 and their product is 192, then the numbers are
(a) 4, 6, 8 (b) 3, 6, 9 (c) 5, 6, 7 (d) 4, 5, 9
1
18. Niharika deposits ` 400 every month for 2 years in a Recurring Deposit Scheme. If she earns ` 1085
2
as interest at the time of maturity, then the rate of interest is
(a) 12% (b) 10% (c) 7% (d) 8%
19. (i) Third term of an AP is 5 and the sixth term is 11. The common difference is
(a) 3 (b) 2 (c) 6 (d) 1

(ii) Its first term is
(a) 9 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 1
20. Ravina bought the following items from a shop.
a school bag for ` 450, GST 18%

a pressure cooker for ` 3500, GST 28%
The total amount to be paid for the above is:

(a) ` 3950 (b) ` 1061 (c) ` 5011 (d) ` 5061
21. In the AP : 29, 27, ..., 5
(i) the number of terms is
(a) 24 (b) 11 (c) 13 (d) 15
(ii) The sum of these terms is
(a) 408 (b) 221 (c) 187 (d) 255
22. The solution set for the inequation –6  x – 4 < 1, x ∈ R
(a) {–2, –1, 0, 1, 2, 3, 4} (b) {–1, 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5}
(c) {x : –2  x < 5, x ∈ R} (d) {x : –2 < x  5, x ∈ R}

23. In the given parallelogram PQRS, PQ = 16 cm, QR = 10 cm, L is a point on PR such that RL : LP = 2 : 3.
QL is produced to meet RS at M and PS produced at N.
R 10 cm
Q
2c
L 16 cm
M 3c
N S P
(i)
DRLQ ~ DPLN by the axiom
(a) AA (b) SAS (c) SSS (d) AAS
(ii)
DRLM is similar to
(a) DRLQ (b) DPLQ (c) DPLN (d) DSNM
(iii) The ratio of QR : NP is
(a) 2 : 3 (b) 2 : 5 (c) 3 : 2 (d) 5 : 2
(iv) The length of NP is
(a) 16 cm (b) 12 cm (c) 15 cm (d) 6.67 cm
24. A wire which is 60 cm long is shaped to form a right triangle with hypotenuse 25 cm.
(i) If the base of the triangle is x cm, the height of the triangle is
(a) (60 – x) cm (b) (x – 60) cm (c) (35 – x) cm (d) (x – 35) cm

(a) 2x2 – 70x + 600 = 0 (b) 2x2 – 70x – 600 = 0
(c) 2x2 – 70x – 1850 = 0 (d) 2x2 + 70x – 1850 = 0
(iii) The factor form of the equation is
(a) (x – 15)(x – 20) = 0 (b) (x – 30)(x – 5) = 0
(c) (x + 65)(x – 30) = 0 (d) (x – 20)(x – 30) = 0
(iv) The value of x is
(a) 30 or 20 (b) 30 or 5 (c) 30 or –65 (d) 15 or 20
25. The nth term of an AP is 3n – 2.

(i) The first 3 terms are
(a) 1, 3, 5 (b) 3, 6, 9 (c) 1, 4, 7 (d) 3, 5, 7
(ii) The common difference is
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) –2 (d) –3
(iii) Sum of the first 10 terms of this AP is
(a) 210 (b) 56 (c) 145 (d) None of these
(iv) Which of the following is not a term of the AP?
(a) 25 (b) 49 (c) 45 (d) 31
ANSWERS
SECTION A
1. (c) 2. (d) 3. (c) 4. (c) 5. (c) 6. (d) 7. (d) 8. (b)
9. (b) 10. (d) 11. (d) 12. (c) 13. (d) 14. (c) 15. (b) 16. (d)
SECTION B
17. (a) 18. (c) 19. (i) (b) (ii) (d) 20. (c) 21. (i) (c) (ii) (b) 22. (c)
SECTION C
23. (i) (a) (ii) (b) (iii) (a) (iv) (c)
24. (i) (c) (ii) (a) (iii) (a) (iv) (d)
25. (i) (c) (ii) (b) (iii) (c) (iv) (c)

MATHEMATICS
Maximum Marks: 40

4 –2
1. When matrix A = , then A2 is
6 –3
16 4 4 –2 4 6
(a) (b) (c) (d) None of these
36 9 6 –3 –2 –3
2. A
–3 –2 –1 0 1 2 3 4 5
B
–3 –2 –1 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7
The diagram represents two inequations A and B.

A ∩ B =
(a) {x : –1  x < 6, x ∈ R} (b) {–1, 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5}
(c) {x : 2  x  4, x ∈ R} (d) {x : 2  x < 4, x ∈ R}
3. If Aditya deposited ` 800 per month for 2 years in a Recurring Deposit Scheme, then the total money
deposited by him in the account is
(a) ` 18200 (b) ` 13800 (c) ` 12900 (d) ` 19200
2x 4 2
4. + 3 = 5
8 y 4 –4
(a) x = 2, y = 4 (b) x = –1, y = 4 (c) x = –1, y = (d) x = 3, y = 4
3
5. Which term of the AP: 28, 26, 24, ... is zero?
(a) 13 (b) 14 (c) 15 (d) 16
6. When x – 6x + 3x + 8 is divided by (x + 1) the remainder is
3 2
(a) –2 (b) 2 (c) 10 (d) 6

x
7. If –1 <  2, x ∈ N, then the solution set of the inequation is
3
(a) {–2, –1, 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6} (b) {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6}
(c) {x : –3 < x  6, x ∈ R} (d) {0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6}
8. The price of an article including 5% GST is ` 714. The price before tax is
(a) ` 672 (b) ` 678 (c) ` 680 (d) ` 750
9. If DABC ~ DQRP and ∠A = 85°, ∠B = 65° then ∠P is
(a) 85° (b) 65° (c) 40° (d) 30°
10. The common difference of an AP is 3 and its 12th term is 37. The first term is
(a) 1 (b) 4 (c) 2 (d) 5
11. If a, 45, 4, 10 are proportional, then the value of a is
(a) 9 (b) 27 (c) 18 (d) 36
12. If 3, b, 75 are in continued proportion, then the value of b is
(a) 39 (b) 25 (c) 225 (d) 15
13. Which of the following equations has equal roots?
(a) 2x2 – 12x + 18 = 0 (b) x2 – 3x – 40 = 0 (c) x2 – 4 = 0 (d) x2 + 15x + 50 = 0
14. If (x – 2) is a factor 3x3 + kx2 – 17x – 6, then the value of k is
(a) –4 (b) 4 (c) 16 (d) –16
15. The first term of an AP is 3 and the sum of the first 8 terms is 192. Find the common difference.
(a) 8 (b) 7 (c) 6 (d) 5
16. The roots of the equation 2x2 – 5x = 0 are
5 2 5 5 5
(a) , 1 (b) , 0 (c) , 0 (d) ,
2 5 2 2 2
17. The fifth term of an AP is 19 and its 8th term is 31. Find the common difference and the first term.
(a) d = 4, a = 3 (b) d = 3, a = 4 (c) d = 4, a = –1 (d) d = 3, a = 7
18. Mean proportion of a and b is 6 and the third proportional to a and b is 48. The values of a and b
are:
(a) a = 4, b = 9 (b) a = 2, b = 18 (c) a = 3, b = 12 (d) None of these
5
19. If 3x + 5  1 x + 12, x ∈ R, then the solution set is
6
(a) {x : x  6, x ∈ R} (b) {x : x  7, x ∈ R}
(c) {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6} (d) {6, 7, 8, 9, ...}
20. Bryan has a Recurring deposit account in a post office for 2 years at 12% p.a. If he gets ` 3000 as
interest at the time of maturity, the monthly deposit is
(a) ` 900 (b) ` 1200 (c) ` 1000 (d) ` 1300
3 2 18
21. If X =
5 –4 8
The matrix X is
4 4 –4 4
(a) (b) (c) (d)
3 –2 3 –3
a3 + 3a 76
22. If = , using componendo and dividendo
3a2 + 1 49
(i) We get
a3 + 3a – 3a2 – 1 125 a3 + 3a + 3a2 + 1 76
(a) 3 = (b) =
a + 3a + 3a + 1
2
27 a + 3a – 3a – 1
3 2
49
a + 3a + 3a + 1
3 2
125
(c) 3 = (d) None of these
a + 3a – 3a – 1
2
27
(ii) The value of a is
5 3
(a) (b) (c) 4 (d) –4
3 5
23. A retailer buys a TV set for ` 20,000. He marks it 25% above his cost price and gives a discount of
10% to a consumer on the MP. The rate of GST is 18%.
(i) The marked price of the TV set is
(a) ` 30,000 (b) ` 22,000 (c) ` 25,000 (d) ` 24000

(ii) The reduced price after the discount is
(a) ` 22,500 (b) ` 27,000 (c) ` 21,600 (d) ` 20,000
(iii) GST paid by the retailer to the government is
(a) ` 360 (b) ` 540 (c) ` 225 (d) ` 450
(iv) The price paid by the consumer inclusive of GST is
(a) ` 26,550 (b) ` 23,600 (c) ` 29,500 (d) ` 32,400
24. In the given DABC, AP : PB = 3 : 4, PO || BC and PO is extended A
to Q so that CQ || BA, BC = 10.5 cm.
3c
(i) By which axiom is DAPO ~ DABC
(a) SSS (b) SAS O
P Q
(c) AA (d) AAS
(ii) PO : BC = 4c
(a) 3 : 7 (b) 3 : 4
(c) 4 : 3 (d) 4 : 7 B C
(iii) The length of PO is
(a) 7.5 cm (b) 7 cm (c) 6 cm (d) 4.5 cm
(iv) The length of OQ is
(a) 3.375 cm (b) 6 cm (c) 5 cm (d) 7.5 cm
25. A man bought x books for ` 1200. When the price of each rose by ` 30, he could buy 2 books less
for ` 1200.
(i) Cost price of each book is
1200 1200 1200 1200
(a) (b) (c) (d)
x x – 30 x + 30 x – 2
(ii) Price of each book after the rise in price is
1230 1230 1200 1200
(a) (b) (c) (d)
x – 2 x x + 30 x – 2
(iii) The quadratic equation formed is
(a) x2 + 30x – 18000 = 0 (b) x2 + 30x – 12000 = 0
(c) x2 – 2x – 80 = 0 (d) x2 – 30x + 18000 = 0
(iv) Original price of each book is
(a) ` 10 (b) ` 120 (c) ` 150 (d) ` 100
ANSWERS
SECTION A
1. (b) 2. (d) 3. (d) 4. (b) 5. (c) 6. (a) 7. (b) 8. (c)
9. (d) 10. (b) 11. (c) 12. (d) 13. (a) 14. (b) 15. (c) 16. (c)
SECTION B
17. (a) 18. (c) 19. (a) 20. (c) 21. (a) 22. (i) (c) (ii) (c)
SECTION C
23. (i) (c) (ii) (a) (iii) (d) (iv) (a)
24. (i) (c) (ii) (a) (iii) (d) (iv) (b)
25. (i) (a) (ii) (d) (iii) (c) (iv) (b)

MATHEMATICS
Maximum Marks: 40

3 –2 6
1. A = , B = . The product of matrix AB is
–4 5 7
46 –10 4 4
(a) (b) (c) (d)
23 23 –11 11
2. By which axiom is DABC ~ DPQC?
A 4 cm P
3 cm
C
2 cm 1.5
5
cm
cm Q
B
(a) AA (b) SSS (c) SAS (d) ASA
3. The roots of the quadratic equation x2 – 5x – 24 = 0 are
(a) –8, 3 (b) –8, –3 (c) 8, –3 (d) 8, 3
4. If (x + 4)(x – 4) = 20, then the roots of the quadratic equation are
(a) ±8 (b) ±6 (c) ±1 (d) ±2
5. If (x – 3) is a factor of x + ax – 6, then the value of a is
3
(a) –11 (b) –7 (c) 7 (d) –6

6. The first term of an AP is 5 and the sum of the first 12 terms is 258. Find the 12th term.
(a) 43 (b) 48 (c) 38 (d) 33
7. If 4, 7, x, x + 9 are in proportion. Find x.
(a) 8 (b) 6 (c) 2 (d) 12
8. If 6 – 5x  3 – 4x, x ∈ N, then solution set of the inequation is
(a) {3, 4, 5, ...} (b) {1, 2, 3} (c) {0, 1, 2, 3} (d) {x :  3, x ∈ R}
9. If A, B, C, I are matrices of order 2 × 2. Which of the following is false?
(a) A(BC) = (AB)C (b) A(B + C) = AB + AC
(c) (A – B)2 = A2 – 2AB + B2 (d) AI = IA
10. When a, b, c, d are non-zero real numbers, then which of the following statements is false?
(a) If a > b then a – c > b – c (b) If a < b then ac < bc
1 1
(c) If a – c < b – d then a + d < b + c (d) If a > b then <
a b
11. The first 4 terms of an AP are 2, 11, a, b. The values of a and b respectively are
(a) 20, 31 (b) 19, 27 (c) 18, 25 (d) 20, 29

12. A man deposits ` 400 per month in a Recurring Deposit Scheme for 1 year giving 5% p.a. simple
interest. The interest earned at the time of maturity is
(a) ` 65 (b) ` 75 (c) ` 130 (d) ` 150
13. In an AP, first term is 2 and the common difference is 8. The nth term of AP is 74. So n is
(a) 9 (b) 10 (c) 11 (d) 12
14. If 17 – 4x  8, x ∈ I, then the smallest number that x can take is
1
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 0 (d) not defined
4 D
15. In the figure the corresponding proportional sides of similar
Ds are
AB EC AB DC
(a) = (b) =
ED AC ED BC A
C
E
AB AC BC AC
(c) = (d) =
ED EC EC DC
B
16. When x3 – x2 + 3 is divided by (x + 1), the remainder is
(a) 3 (b) 2 (c) 5 (d) 1
17. The first term of an AP is 5 and the last term is 62 and the sum of terms is 670.
(i) The number of terms in the AP is
(a) 24 (b) 20 (c) 30 (d) 15
(ii) The common difference is
(a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 3 (d) 5
2a2 + 8ab + 5b2
18. If a, b, c are in continued proportion, then is .
2b2 + 8bc + 5c2
a b c a
(a) (b) (c) (d)
c c a b
3 –3
19. If A = and A2 = mA, then the value of m is
–3 3
(a) 18 (b) 3 (c) 6 (d) 9
20. A dealer buys an article for ` 1600 and sells it to a consumer at a profit of ` 200. GST = 5%.
(i) The GST paid by the dealer to the state government is
(a) ` 45 (b) ` 5 (c) ` 2.50 (d) ` 8
(ii) The price paid by the consumer is
(a) ` 1805 (b) ` 1845 (c) ` 1890 (d) ` 1810
21. John deposits ` 400 per month in a Recurring Deposit Scheme for 2 years. If the interest received at
the time of maturity is ` 900, the rate of interest is
(a) 5% (b) 8% (c) 6% (d) 9%
22. For what value of n are the nth terms of the following 2 AP’s same?
AP1 = 51, 49, 47, ... AP2 = 3, 7, 11, ...
(a) 9 (b) 8 (c) 7 (d) 6
23. A retailer purchases a camera for ` 2500 and sells it to a consumer at 10% profit. If the rate of GST
is 12%.
(i) The selling price of the camera excluding GST is
(a) ` 2700 (b) ` 3000 (c) ` 2800 (d) ` 2750
(ii) The selling price of the camera including GST is
(a) ` 3000 (b) ` 3024 (c) ` 3080 (d) ` 2780
(iii) The GST paid by the retailer to the state government is
(a) ` 165 (b) ` 15 (c) ` 30 (d) ` 330
(iv) The GST received by the central government on this item is
(a) ` 330 (b) ` 30 (c) ` 15 (d) ` 165
24. In the given DABC, ∠ABC = 90° and PQ is ⊥ AC. A
3 cm
If AP = 5 cm, AQ = 3 cm and QC = 17 cm.
5 cm Q
(i) DABC ~ DAQP by the axiom
(a) SSS (b) AA P
(c) SAS (d) SSA 17 cm
(ii) The length of AB is

(a) 15 cm (b) 16 cm
(c) 12 cm (d) 9 cm B C
(iii) The length of PQ is
(a) 4 cm (b) 4.5 cm (c) 3 cm (d) 2.5 cm
(iv) The length of BC is
(a) 15 cm (b) 16 cm (c) 12 cm (d) 18 cm
25. A passenger train covers a distance of 360 km at x km/h. An express train which is 10 km/h faster covers
the same distance in 1 hour 48 minutes less.
(i) The time taken by the express train is
360 360 360 370
(a) (b) (c) (d)
x x – 10 x + 10 x
360 360 9 360 360
(a) – = (b) – = 108
x + 10 x 5 x x + 10
360 360 360 360 9
(c) – = 108 (d) – =
x + 10 x x x + 10 5
(iii) The equation after simplification is
(a) x2 – 10x + 2000 = 0 (b) x2 + 10x – 2000 = 0
(c) 3x2 + 30x – 100 = 0 (d) 3x2 – 30x + 100 = 0
(iv) The speed of the passenger train is
(a) 45 km/h (b) 50 km/h (c) 40 km/h (d) 60 km/h
ANSWERS
SECTION A
1. (d) 2. (c) 3. (c) 4. (b) 5. (b) 6. (c) 7. (d) 8. (b)
9. (c) 10. (b) 11. (d) 12. (c) 13. (b) 14. (b) 15. (c) 16. (d)
SECTION B
17. (i) (b) (ii) (c) 18. (a) 19. (c) 20. (i) (b) (ii) (c) 21. (d) 22. (a)
SECTION C
23. (i) (d) (ii) (c) (iii) (b) (iv) (d)
24. (i) (b) (ii) (c) (iii) (a) (iv) (b)
25. (i) (c) (ii) (d) (iii) (b) (iv) (c)

SCIENCE (52)
PHYSICS
SCIENCE Paper - 1
CLASS X
There will be one paper of two hours duration carrying 80 marks Functions and uses of simple machines: Terms- effort E,
and Internal Assessment of practical work carrying 20 marks. load L, mechanical advantage MA = L/E, velocity ratio VR
The paper will be divided into two sections, Section I (40 marks) = VE/VL = dE / dL, input (Wi), output (Wo), efficiency (η),
and Section II (40 marks). relation between η and MA, VR (derivation included); for
Section I (compulsory) will contain short answer questions on all practical machines η <1; MA < VR.
the entire syllabus. Pulley system: single fixed, single movable, block and
Section II will contain six questions. Candidates will be required tackle(Pulleys using single tackle); MA, VR and η in
to answer any four of these six questions. each case.
Note: Unless otherwise specified, only SI Units are to be used (vi) Principle of Conservation of energy.
while teaching and learning, as well as for answering questions. Statement of the principle of conservation of energy;
1. Force, Work, Power and Energy theoretical verification that U + K = constant for a freely
falling body. Application of this law to simple pendulum
(i) Turning forces concept; moment of a force; forces
(qualitative only); [simple numerical problems].
in equilibrium; centre of gravity; [discussions using
simple examples and simple numerical problems]. 2. Light
Elementary introduction of translational and rotational (i) Refraction of light through a glass block and a
motions; moment (turning effect) of a force, also called triangular prism - qualitative treatment of simple
torque and its C G S and SI units; common examples - applications such as real and apparent depth of
door, steering wheel, bicycle pedal, etc.; clockwise and objects in water and apparent bending of sticks in
anti-clockwise moments; conditions for a body to be in water. Applications of refraction of light.
equilibrium ( translational and rotational); principle of Partial reflection and refraction due to change in medium.
moment and its verification using a metre rule suspended Laws of refraction; the effect on speed (V), wavelength (λ)
by two spring balances with slotted weights hanging and frequency (f) due to refraction of light; conditions for
from it; simple numerical problems; Centre of gravity a light ray to pass undeviated. Values of speed of light
(qualitative only) with examples of some regular bodies (c) in vacuum, air, water and glass; refractive index μ
and irregular lamina. = c/V, V = fλ. Values of μ for common substances such
(ii) Uniform circular motion. as water, glass and diamond; experimental verification;
refraction through glass block; lateral displacement;
As an example of constant speed, though acceleration
refraction through a glass prism, simple applications: real
(force) is present. Differences between centrifugal and
and apparent depth of objects in water; apparent bending
centripetal force.
of a stick under water. Simple numerical problems and
(iii) Work, energy, power and their relation with force. approximate ray diagrams required.
Definition of work. W = FS cos θ; special cases of (ii) Total internal reflection: Critical angle; examples in
θ = 0°, 90°. W = mgh. Definition of energy, energy as triangular glass prisms; comparison with reflection
work done. Various units of work and energy and their from a plane mirror (qualitative only). Applications
relation with SI units. [erg, calorie, kWh and eV]. of total internal reflection.
Definition of Power, P = W/t; SI and cgs units; other Transmission of light from a denser medium (glass/water)
units, kilowatt (kW), megawatt (MW) and gigawatt (GW); to a rarer medium (air) at different angles of incidence;
and horsepower (1 hp = 746 W) [Simple numerical critical angle (C) μ = 1/sin C. Essential conditions for
problems on work, power and energy]. total internal reflection. Total internal reflection in a
(iv) Different types of energy (e.g., chemical energy, triangular glass prism; ray diagram, different cases -
mechanical energy, heat energy, electrical energy, angles of prism (60°, 60°, 60°), (60°, 30°, 90°), (45°,
nuclear energy, sound energy, light energy). 45°, 90°); use of right-angle prism to obtain δ = 90° and
Mechanical energy: potential energy U = mgh (derivation 180° (ray diagram); comparison of total internal reflection
included) gravitational PE, examples; kinetic energy from a prism and reflection from a plane mirror.
K = ½ mv2 (derivation included); forms of kinetic energy: (iii)
Lenses (converging and diverging) including
translational, rotational and vibrational - only simple characteristics of the images formed (using ray
examples. [Numerical problems on K and U only in case of diagrams only); magnifying glass; location of
translational motion]; qualitative discussions of electrical, images using ray diagrams and thereby determining
chemical, heat, nuclear, light and sound energy, conversion magnification.
from one form to another; common examples. Types of lenses (converging and diverging), convex and
(v) Machines as force multipliers; load, effort, mechanical concave, action of a lens as a set of prisms; technical terms;
advantage, velocity ratio and efficiency; pulley centre of curvature, radii of curvature, principal axis, foci,
systems showing the utility of each type of machine.
2 ICSE Semester 1 Physics
focal plane and focal length; detailed study of refraction of (iii) Household circuits – main circuit; switches; fuses;
light in spherical lenses through ray diagrams; formation earthing; safety precautions; three-pin plugs; colour
of images - principal rays or construction rays; location coding of wires.
of images from ray diagram for various positions of a House wiring (ring system) (diagrammatic representation
small linear object on the principal axis; characteristics excluded), main circuit (3 wires-live, neutral, earth) with
of images. Sign convention and direct numerical problems fuse / MCB, main switch and its advantages, need for
using the lens formula are included (derivation of formula earthing, fuse, 3-pin plug and socket; Conventional
not required). location of live, neutral and earth points in 3 pin plugs
Scale drawing or graphical representation of ray and sockets. Safety precautions, colour coding of wires.
diagrams not required. (iv) Magnetic effect of a current (principles only, laws not
Power of a lens (concave and convex) – only definition and required); electromagnetic induction (elementary).
basic understanding based on the curvature or thickness Oersted’s experiment on the magnetic effect of electric
of lens. Applications of lenses. current; magnetic field (B) and field lines due to
(iv) Using a triangular prism to produce a visible current in a straight wire (qualitative only), right
spectrum from white light, Electromagnetic spectrum. hand thumb rule – magnetic field due to a current
Deviation produced by a triangular prism; dependence in a loop; Electromagnets: their uses; comparisons
on colour (wavelength) of light; dispersion and spectrum; with a permanent magnet; conductor carrying current
electromagnetic spectrum: broad classification (names only in a magnetic field experiences a force, Fleming’s
arranged in order of increasing wavelength); properties Left Hand Rule and its understanding, Simple
common to all electromagnetic radiations; properties and introduction to electromagnetic induction; a magnet
uses of infrared and ultraviolet radiation. moved along the axis of a solenoid induces current,
3. Sound Fleming’s Right Hand Rule and its application in
understanding the direction of current in a coil and
(i) Reflection of Sound Waves; echoes: their use; simple
Lenz’s law, Comparison of AC and DC.
numerical problems on echoes.
5. Heat
Production of echoes, condition for formation of echoes;
simple numerical problems; use of echoes by bats, dolphins, (i) Calorimetry: meaning, specific heat capacity; principle
fishermen, medical field. SONAR. of method of mixtures; Numerical Problems on
specific heat capacity using heat loss and gain and
(ii) Natural vibrations, Damped vibrations, Forced
the method of mixtures.
vibrations and Resonance - a special case of forced
vibrations. Meaning and simple applications of natural, Heat and its units (calorie, joule), temperature and its
damped, forced vibrations and resonance. units (°C, K); thermal (heat) capacity C’ = Q/DT... (SI
unit of C’): Specific heat Capacity C = Q/mDT (SI unit
(iii) Loudness, pitch and quality of sound
of C) Mutual relation between Heat Capacity and Specific
Definition of each of the characteristics and factors affecting Heat capacity, values of C for some common substances
them. (ice, water and copper). Principle of method of mixtures
4. Electricity and Magnetism including mathematical statement. Natural phenomenon
(i) Ohm’s Law; concepts of emf, potential difference, involving specific heat. Consequences of high specific heat
resistance; resistances in series and parallel, internal of water. [Simple numerical problems].
resistance. (ii) Latent heat; loss and gain of heat involving change
Concepts of pd (V), current (I), resistance (R) and charge of state for fusion only.
(Q). Ohm’s law: statement, V=IR; SI units; graph of Change of phase (state); heating curve for water; latent heat;
V vs I and resistance from slope; ohmic and non-ohmic specific latent heat of fusion (SI unit). Simple numerical
resistors, factors affecting resistance (including specific problems. Common physical phenomena involving latent
resistance) and internal resistance; super conductors, heat of fusion.
electromotive force (emf); combination of resistances in 6. Modern Physics
series and parallel. Simple numerical problems using the
Radioactivity and changes in the nucleus; background
above relations. (Simple network of resistors including not
radiation and safety precautions.
more than four external resistors. Internal resistance may
be included). Brief introduction (qualitative only) of the nucleus, nuclear
structure, atomic number (Z), mass number (A). Radioactivity
(ii) Electrical power and energy.
as spontaneous disintegration. α, β and γ - their nature and
E lectrical energy; examples of heater, motor, lamp, properties; changes within the nucleus. One example each of
loudspeaker, etc. Electrical power; measurement of α and β decay with equations showing changes in Z and A.
electrical energy, W = QV = VIt from the definition of Uses of radioactivity - radio isotopes. Harmful effects. Safety
pd. Combining with ohm’s law W = VIt = I2 Rt = (V2/R)t precautions. Background radiation.
and electrical power P = (W/t) = VI = I2R = V2/R. Units:
Radiation: X-rays; radioactive fallout from nuclear plants and
SI and commercial; Power rating of common appliances,
other sources.
household consumption of electric energy; calculation of
total energy consumed by electrical appliances; W = Pt Nuclear Energy: working on safe disposal of waste.
(kilowatt × hour = kW h) - simple numerical problems. Safety measures to be strictly reinforced.
ICSE Semester 1 Physics 3

PHYSICS
SCIENCE Paper – 1
Maximum Marks: 40
ALL QUESTIONS ARE COMPULSORY
The intended marks for questions or parts of questions are given in brackets [ ].
Question 1
(a) Choose the correct statement with respect to Refraction of light.[1]
1. The colour always changes when light enters from one optical medium to another.
2. Absorption of light when it strikes the surface of a medium is refraction.
3. Speed of light changes when it enters from one optical medium to another of different optical density.
4. Speed of light does not change when it enters from one optical medium to another of different optical
density.
(b) When a light ray enters from a denser medium to a rarer medium.[1]
1. The light ray bends towards the normal. 2. Angle of incidence is less than angle of refraction.
3. Speed of light decreases. 4. Speed of light remains unchanged.
(c) In the diagram shown below: [1]
1. B is incident ray and C is refracted ray. 2. A is incident ray and B is refracted ray.
3. C is incident ray and B is refracted ray. 4. A is incident ray and C is refracted ray.
(d) From the diagram shown below, identify the characteristics of the image that will be formed.[1]
1. Real. 2. Diminished.
3. Formed within the focal length. 4. Virtual.
(e) The wavelength of light in a medium A is 600 nm. The wave enters medium B of refractive index 1.5
Steps to find the wavelength of light in medium B are given below. Choose an option which has
the correct sequence of steps, to find the wavelength. [2]

600 l
(i)
l = 1.5 × 600 (ii) l = (iii) l = 400 nm (iv) l = 900 nm (v) 1.5 =
1.5 600
1. (i) then (iii) 2. (ii) then (iii) 3. (i) then (iv) 4. (ii), (i) then (iv) 5. (v) then (iv)
(f) The diagram below shows an image formed at a distance 36 cm from the lens LL’ of focal length
12 cm. With respect to this answer the questions that follow. [4]
(i) The position of the object on the left-hand side should be

1. between 12 cm to 30 cm from the lens. 2. beyond 24 cm from the lens.
3. between 12 cm to 24 cm from the lens. 4. within 12 cm from the lens.
(ii) Power of this lens is
1. –8.33 D 2. +8.4 D 3. +8.33 D 4. –8.4 D
(iii) The object distance with sign convention is
1. –18 cm 2. –15 cm 3. –9 cm 4. +18 cm
(iv) If the lens LL’ is replaced by another lens of same type but focal length 15 cm then for the same
object distance
1. the size of the image decreases. 2. the size of the image increases.
3. the size of the image remains the same. 4. information is insufficient to conclude.
Question 2
(a) The usable form of mechanical energy is[1]
1. Elastic potential energy 2. Kinetic energy
3. Gravitational potential energy 4. None of the given options.
(b) One horsepower is equal to [1]
1. 100 W 2. 735 W 3. 764 W 4. 746 W
(c) If A and B of the same mass can climb the third floor of the same building in 3 minutes and
5 minutes respectively, then the ratio of their powers of A is to B in an ideal situation is [1]
1. 1 : 1 2. 3 : 5
3. The information is insufficient to form a conclusion. 4. 5 : 3
(d) If the centre of gravity of a metre scale of mass 80 g lies at the 45 cm mark, then which one of the
following diagrams will show the balanced position of the scale.[1]
0 50 60 100 0 50 60 100
1. 2.
Fulcrum 40 gf Fulcrum 45 gf
0 50 60 100 0 50 60 100
3. 4.
Fulcrum 30 gf Fulcrum 80 gf
(e) A body has kinetic energy 250 J. If the mass of the body is 5 kg, then choose its velocity and
momentum from the following options. [2]
1. 50 m/s 2. 50 kg.m/s 3. 20 kg.m/s 4. 15 m/s
5. 10 m/s 6. 100 kg.m/s

(f) A girl at rest at gate of her society which is 3.2 m above the road comes down the slope AB on a
cycle without paddling. [g = 10 N/kg] [4]
3.2 m
(i) The mechanical energy possessed by the girl at B is

1. Vibrational kinetic energy. 2. Translational kinetic energy
3. Elastic potential energy. 4. Gravitational potential energy.
(ii) The velocity with which girl reaches point A is
1. 32 m/s 2. 10 m/s 3. 8 m/s
4. Insufficient information to calculate velocity.
(iii) If the mass of the girl is 40 kg then the kinetic energy of the girl at A is [Assuming no loss of energy.]
1. 1280 J 2. 1600 J 3. 400 J 4. 3200 J
(iv) The potential energy of the girl (of mass 40 kg) when she reaches the midpoint of the slope of AB
1. 800 J 2. 200 J 3. 1600 J 4. 640 J
Question 3
(a) Mechanical advantage (M.A.), load(L), and effort(E) are related as[1]
1. M.A. = L × E 2. M.A. = E/L 3. M.A. × E = L 4. M.A. × L = E
(b) Which one of the following statements is correct?[1]
1. A machine is used to have more output energy as compared to input energy.
2. Mechanical advantage of a machine can never be greater than 1.
3. If a machine gives convenience of direction, then its mechanical advantage should be greater than 1.
4. For a given design of a machine, even if the mechanical advantage increases, the velocity ratio remains
the same.
(c) If a block and tackle system with convenient direction has 3 movable pulleys, then its velocity ratio
[1]
1. is either 6 or 7 2. should be 6 3. should be 7 4. is 3
(d) Work done by a body moving on a circular track is zero at every instant because [1]
1. displacement is zero.
2. displacement is perpendicular to the centripetal force.
3. there is no force acting.
4. reason is not mentioned in the other options.
(e) Identify the conditions required to hear a clear and distinct echo by humans, in air [2]
1. The reflecting surface should be rough.
2. The size of the reflecting surface should be smaller than the wavelength of sound.
3. Sound should not be reflected back within 0.1 s.
4. The incident sound should have frequency more than 25000 Hz.
5. The size of the reflecting surface should be larger than the wavelength of sound.

(f) A person standing in front of a vertical cliff fires a gun and hears its echo in 3 s. The speed of
sound in air is 340 m/s
Cliff
(I) Calculate distance at which the person is standing in front of the cliff? Steps are given to calculate
the distance. Select the correct sequence of the steps from the given options:
2d d
(i) 340 = (ii) 340 =
3 3

(iii) d = 170 × 3 = 510 m (iv) d = 340 × 3 = 1020 m
1. (ii) then (iv) 2. (iii) then (ii) 3. (i) then (iii) 4. (iii) then (i) 5. (i) then (iv)
(II) If the speed of sound changes to 350 m/s then how much distance should the person move
towards or away from the cliff in order to hear the echo in the same time. Steps are given to calculate
the distance. Select the correct sequence of the steps from the given option. [4]
340 + 350 2d 2d
(i) = (ii) 350 − 340 =
2 3 3
345 × 3 30
(iii) d = = 517.5 m (iv) d = = 15 m (v) 7.5 m
2 2
1. (ii), (iii) then (v) 2. (iv) then (ii) 3. (iv) then (v)
4. (ii) then (iv) 5. (i), (iv) and (v)
Question 4.
(a) Assuming all lenses shown below are of the same material, state which lens has the maximum
power. [1]
P Q R S
1. R 2. P 3. Q 4. S
(b) In an electric cell while in use, the change in energy is from:[1]
1. Chemical to mechanical 2. Chemical to electrical
3. Electrical to mechanical 4. Electrical to chemical
(c) The diagram below shows a pendulum having a bob of mass 80 g. A and C are extreme positions
and B is the mean position. The bob has velocity 5 m/s at position B. Assuming there is no loss of
energy, select the correct statements from the options given below: [g = 10 N/kg] [2]

1. At point A the bob will have only kinetic energy.
2. The maximum potential energy gained by the bob will be 1000 J.
3. The maximum height ‘h’ reached by the bob will be 125 cm.
4. At point D the bob will have maximum kinetic energy.
5. The maximum potential energy gained by the bob will be 1 J.
6. At point B the energy possessed by the bob is 1000 J.
(d) Select correct options for Total internal reflection in a medium. [2]
1. Can take place in an optically denser medium as compared to an optically rarer medium.
2. Takes place for any angle of incidence greater than 42 degrees.
3. This reflection does not obey the laws of reflection.
4. Can take place if the angle of incidence in a denser medium is more than the critical angle.
(e) The diagram shows the path of light through a right-angled prism of critical angle 42°. Observe the
diagram and answer the questions that follow. [4]
(i) The phenomenon at the surface AC is

1. Refraction 2. Partial reflection 3. Total internal reflection 4. Scattering
(ii) The angle of incidence at the surface AC is
1. 30° 2. 45° 3. 0° 4. 60° 5. 90°
(iii) The angle of incidence at the surface AB is
1. 30° 2. 0° 3. 45° 4. 60° 5. 90°
(iv) Which of the following statement is wrong?
1. Speed of light ray PQ is equal to the speed of light ray ST.
2. Speed of light ray QR is equal to the speed of light ray RS.
3. Speed of light ray PQ is greater than the speed of light ray RS.
4. Speed of light ray RQ is greater than the speed of light ray ST.
ANSWERS
1. (a) (3) (b) (2) (c) (4) (d) (4) (e) (2)
(f) (i) (3) (ii) (3) (iii) (1) (iv) (2)
2. (a) (2) (b) (4) (c) (4) (d) (3) (e) (2), (5)
(f) (i) (4) (ii) (3) (iii) (1) (iv) (4)
3. (a) (3) (b) (4) (c) (1) (d) (2) (e) (5)
(f) (I) (3) (II) (4)
4. (a) (3) (b) (2) (c) (3), (5) (d) (1), (4)
(e) (i) (3) (ii) (4) (iii) (1) (iv) (4)

PHYSICS
SCIENCE Paper – 1
Maximum Marks: 40
Question 1
(a) One electron volt is equal to: [1]
1. 1.6 × 10 –17
J 2. 3.6 × 10 –19
J 3. 1.6 × 10 –19
J 4. 1.6 × 10 –24
J
(b) Kilowatt hour is the commercial unit of [1]
1. Electric power 2. Electric energy 3. Work 4. None of these
(c) A body is moved through a distance of 3 m in the following different ways. In which case is the
maximum work done? [1]
1. When pushed over an inclined plane.
2. When pushed over smooth rollers.
3. When lifted vertically upwards.
4. When pushed on a plain horizontal surface.
(d) The upper circular stone of a hand flour grinder is provided with a handle its
rim so that minimum force is required to produce the turning effect. [1]
1. In between 2. Far away 3. Near 4. None of the above
(e) A uniform metre scale is in equilibrium as shown in the diagram below:
Calculate the weight of the metre scale. [2]
5 cm 30 cm
F
0 cm 100 cm
40 gf
1. 150 gf 2. 200 gf 3. 120 gf 4. 50 gf
(f) A ball falls to the ground as shown below: [4]
Potential energy = 80 J B Kinetic energy = 48 J

A
Kinetic energy = 0
C Potential energy = 0
(i) What will be the kinetic energy of the ball when it hits the ground?
1. 8 J 2. 80 J 3. 0.8 J 4. 8 × 103 J
(ii) What is the potential energy of the ball at B?
1. 32 J 2. 320 J 3. 3.2 J 4. 56 J

(iii) Name the law/principle used to explain the above.
1. Principle of moment of force 2. Law of conservation of energy
3. Law of friction 4. Principle of Work energy theorem
(iv) A body is falling from a height h. After it has fallen a height h/2, it will possess
1. Only potential energy 2. Only kinetic energy
3. Half potential and half kinetic energy 4. more potential and less kinetic energy
Question 2
(a) The condition for an equilibrium is: [1]
1. The algebraic sum of moments of all the forces acting on the body about the point of rotation should
be zero.
2. Product of force and the perpendicular distance between them.
3. Both (1) and (2)
4. None of the above.
(b) The correct relationship between mechanical advantage (M.A.), velocity ratio (V.R.) and efficiency
(h) is: [1]
1. M.A. = h × V.R. 2. V.R. = h × M.A. 3. h = M.A. × V.R. 4. none of these
(c) A stone is thrown vertically upwards as shown in the diagram. When it reaches P, which of the
following has the greatest value for the stone? [1]
P
Stone
1. Its acceleration 2. Its kinetic energy 3. Its potential energy 4. Its weight
(d) When a body falls freely towards the earth then its total energy [1]
1. Increases 2. Decreases
3. Remains constant 4. First increase and then decreases
(e) A coin placed at the bottom of the beaker appears to be raised by 4.0 cm. If the refractive index of
water is 4/3 , find the depth of the water in the beaker. [2]
1. 12 cm 2. 16 cm 3. 20 cm 4. 24 cm
(f) From the diagram given below, answer the questions that follow: [4]
(i) State the kind of pulley A.

1. Fixed pulley 2. Movable pulley 3. Block and tackle 4. Combination of (1) and (4)
(ii) State the kind of pulley B.
1. Fixed pulley 2. Movable pulley
3. Block and tackle 4. Combination of (1) and (4)
(iii) State the purpose of pulley B.
1. Gain in speed
2. Force multiplier
3. Change the direction of effort to the convenient direction.
4. Change the point of application of effort to a convenient point.
(iv) What effort has to be applied at C to just raise a load L = 20 kgf?
1. 10 kgf 2. 20 kgf 3. 40 kgf 4. 5 kgf
Question 3
(a) Name the principle used in the diagram given below. [1]
1. Principle of conservation of energy 2. Principle of reversibility

3. Both (1) and (2) possible 4. None of the above
(b) Identify the factor which does not affect the lateral displacement. [1]
1. The thickness of the block 2. Temperature
3. Angle of incidence 4. Refractive index
(c) A convex lens will form a virtual erect and enlarged image, when the object is : [1]
1. Between 2F1 and F1 2. 2F1 3. 2F1 and infinity 4. F1 and optical centre
(d) Magnification produced by concave lens is always: [1]
1. more than 1 2. equal to 1
3. less than 1 4. more than 1 or less than 1
(e) An echo sounder in a trawler receives an echo from a shoal of fish 0.4 s after it was sent. If the
speed of sound in water is 1500 ms–1 , how deep is the shoal? [2]
1. 150 m 2. 300 m 3. 600 m 4. 7500 m
(f) A person is standing at the sea shore. An observer on the ship which is anchored in between a
vertical cliff and the person on the shore fires a gun. The person on the ship hears two sounds,
2 seconds and 3 seconds after seeing the smoke of the fired gun. If the speed of sound in the air
is 320 ms–1 then calculate: [2 + 2 ]
Cliff
Man
Observer
Ship
Sea shore
Water
1. The distance between the observer on the ship and the person on the shore.
1. 600 m 2. 640 m 3. 1280 m 4. 1200 m
2. The distance between the cliff and the observer on the ship.
1. 100 m 2. 160 m 3. 80 m 4. 480 m

Question 4
(a) Bats detect the obstacles in their path by receiving the reflected [1]
1. Ultrasonic waves 2. Infrasonic waves
3. Electromagnetic waves 4. Radio waves
(b) When a stone tied at the end of a string is whirled in a circular path, the tension in the string
provides [1]
1. Centrifugal force 2. Centripetal force 3. Gravitational force 4. Electrostatic force
(c) A ray of light is incident on the face of an equilateral prism at angle of 90°. The ray gets totally
reflected on the second refracting face. The total deviation produced in the path of ray is: [2]
1. 60° 2. 90° 3. 120° 4. 180°
(d) An illuminated object is placed at a distance of 20 cm from a converging lens focal length 15 cm.
The image obtained on the screen is: [2]
1. Upright and magnified 2. inverted and magnified
3. Inverted and diminished 4. Upright and diminished
(e) Observe the diagram and answer the questions given below: [4]
(i) Name the lens LL′.

1. Cylindrical lens 2. Convex lens 3. Concave lens 4. Bi-concave lens
(ii) State the nature of the image formed.
1. Real, inverted and magnified 2. Real, inverted and same size
3. Virtual, erect and diminished 4. Virtual, erect and magnified
(iii) State the position of the image formed.
1. Between F1 and 2F1 2. Between F1 and optical centre
3. Same side and behind the object 4. Infinity
(iv) Name the device in which this action of lens used.
1. Magnifying glass 2. Collimator of spectrometer
3. Slide projector 4. Camera lens
ANSWERS
1. (a) (3) (b) (2) (c) (3) (d) (3) (e) (4)
(f) (i) (2) (ii) (1) (iii) (2) (iv) (3)
2. (a) (1) (b) (1) (c) (3) (d) (3) (e) (2)
(f) (i) (2) (ii) (1) (iii) (3) (iv) (1)
3. (a) (2) (b) (2) (c) (4) (d) (3) (e) (2)
(f) (i) (2) (ii) (2)
4. (a) (1) (b) (2) (c) (3) (d) (2)
(e) (i) (2) (ii) (1) (iii) (4) (iv) (2)

PHYSICS
SCIENCE Paper – 1
Maximum Marks: 40
Question 1
(a) A ray of light passes from glass into air. The angle of refraction will be: [1]
1. equal to the angle of incidence. 2. Greater than the angle of incidence.
3. Smaller than the angle of incidence. 4. 45°
(b) The phenomenon due to which a ray of light deviates from its path while travelling from one optical
medium to another optical medium is called: [1]
1. Dispersion 2. Reflection 3. Refraction 4. Spectrum
(c) Which of the following coloured light has the least speed in glass prism: [1]
1. Violet 2. Yellow 3. Red 4. Green
(d) Choose the incorrect statement with respect to the factors affecting the refractive index of the medium.
[1]
1. Nature of the medium 2. Angle of incidence
3. Temperature 4. Colour or wavelength of light
(e) The refractive index of water is 1.33. The speed of light in water will be [2]
1. 1.33 × 10 ms
8 –1
2. 3 × 10 ms
8 –1
3. 2.25 × 10 ms
8 –1
4. 2.66 × 10 ms
8 –1
(f) An object is placed at a distance from a convex lens of focal length 15 cm. [4]
(i) State the position of the object which will produce a magnified real image.
1. 35 cm 2. 30 cm 3. 20 cm 4. 10 cm
(ii) State the position of the object which will produce a magnified virtual image.
1. 35 cm 2. 30 cm 3. 20 cm 4. 10 cm
(iii) State the position of the object which will produce a diminished real image.
1. 35 cm 2. 30 cm 3. 20 cm 4. 10 cm
(iv) State the position of the object which will produce an image of same size as the object.
1. 35 cm 2. 30 cm 3. 20 cm 4. 10 cm
Question 2
(a) Which one of the following is not a unit of energy? [1]
1. Joule 2. kilowatt hour 3. horse power 4. electron volt

(b) In the figure given below, the man is pushing the load on the inclined plane. [1]
The work done is

F
1. Positive 2. Negative 3. Zero 4. Both (1) and (2)

(c) One horse power is equal to: [1]
1. 0.764 W 2. 746 W 3. 7.46 W 4. 764 W
(d) A couple constitutes [1]
1. A pair of equal and opposite forces whose line of action are not same
2. A pair of equal and opposite forces whose line of action are same
3. A pair of equal and like forces whose line of action are not same
4. A pair of equal and like forces whose lines of action are same
(e) Two bodies of equal weight are kept at heights of h and 1.5h , respectively. The ratio of their PE is
[2]
1. 3 : 2 2. 2 : 3 3. 1 : 1 4. 4 : 3
(f) A piece of stone tied at the end of a thread is whirled in a horizontal circle with uniform speed by
hand. Answer the following questions: [4]
(i) Is the velocity of stone uniform or variable ?
1. Non-variable 2. Uniform linear motion
3. Variable 4. Uniform circular motion
(ii) What is the direction of acceleration of stone at any instant?
1. Away from the centre of the circle 2. Towards the centre of the circular path
3. No change in direction 4. Keeps changing at every instant
(iii) Which force provides the centripetal force required for circular motion?
1. Frictional force 2. Electrostatic force
3. Magnetic force 4. Tension in the string
(iv) Name the force and its direction which acts on the hand.
1. Frictional force away from the centre of circular path.
2. Reaction of tension towards the centre of the circular path.
3. Reaction of tension away from centre of the circular path.
4. Frictional force towards the centre of circular path.
Question 3
(a) For a practical machine [1]
1. M.A. = V.R. 2. M.A. < V.R. 3. M.A. > V.R. 4. None of these
(b) A single fixed pulley is used because it: [1]
1. Mechanical advantage > 1
2. Velocity ratio < 1
3. Gives 100% efficiency
4. Change the direction of effort to a convenient direction.

(c) Name the machine that is used to obtain the gain in speed. [1]
1. Jack used to lift a car
2. Single fixed pulley
3. Scissors
4. Rear wheel of cycle rotated by applying effort on the pedal
(d) Which is not the condition for the formation of echoes? [1]
1. Minimum distance between the source of sound and reflecting body should be 17 m.
2. There should not be any obstacle present in the path of sound.
3. The wavelength of sound should be less than the height of the reflecting body.
4. The intensity of sound should be sufficient so that it could be heard after reflection.
(e) A child hears an echo from a cliff 4 seconds after the sound is produced from a cracker. The distance
of the cliff from the child is . (speed of sound in air = 320 ms–1) [2]
1. 6.40 m 2. 640 m 3. 64.0 m 4. 640.4 m
(f) Choose and write the correct answer for each of the following: [1 + 2 + 1]
(i) Human ear can perceive sounds ranging from .
1. 20 Hz to 2000 Hz 2. 200 Hz to 20000 Hz
3. 20 Hz to 20000 Hz 4. 2000 Hz to 20000 Hz
(ii) A person standing between two vertical cliffs and 640 m away from the nearest cliff shouted. He heard
the first echo after 4 seconds and the second echo 3 seconds later. Find the speed of sound in air.
1. 320 ms–1 2. 300 ms–1 3. 310 ms–1 4. 1260 ms–1

(iii) The speed of sound can be found by relation.
f l
1. V = m a 2. V = f l 3. V = 4. V =
l f
Question 4
(a) A microphone converts : [1]
1. Electrical energy into sound energy in ordinary telephone
2. Microwave energy into sound energy in a mobile phone
3. Sound energy into mechanical energy in a stereo system
4. Sound energy into electrical energy in public address system
(b) A car is accelerated on a levelled road and attains a velocity 3 times of its initial velocity. The
potential energy of the car [1]
1. Does not change 2. Increases by three times
3. Becomes one third 4. Increases by nine times
(c) A girl is carrying a school bag of 3 kg mass on her back and moves 200 m on a levelled road. If
the value of g be 10 ms–2, the work done by the girl against the gravitational force will be : [2]
1. 6000 J 2. 0.6 J 3. 0 J 4. 6 J
(d) The power of the concave lens is –12.5 D. What is the focal length of the lens? [2]
1. –2.5 cm 2. –8 cm 3. +8 cm 4. +2.5 cm

(e) The diagram given below shows the ray of light PQ incident normally on the face AB of an equilateral
glass prism. Take critical angle for glass = 42°. Answer the questions given below: [4]
(i) What is the angle of incidence at face AB?

1. 60° 2. 90° 3. 42° 4. 0°
(ii) What is the angle of incidence at face AC?
1. 60° 2. 90° 3. 42° 4. 0°
(iii) Name the phenomenon which the ray of light suffers at the face AB.
1. Refraction 2. Total internal reflection
3. Reflection 4. Dispersion
(iv) Name the phenomenon which the ray of light suffers at the face AC.
1. Refraction 2. Total internal reflection
3. Reflection 4. Dispersion
ANSWERS
1. (a) (2) (b) (3) (c) (1) (d) (2) (e) (3)
(f) (i) (3) (ii) (4) (iii) (1) (iv) (2)
2. (a) (3) (b) (1) (c) (2) (d) (1) (e) (2)
(f) (i) (3) (ii) (2) (iii) (4) (iv) (3)
3. (a) (2) (b) (4) (c) (3) (d) (2) (e) (2)
(f) (i) (3) (ii) (1) (iii) (2)
4. (a) (4) (b) (1) (c) (3) (d) (2)
(e) (i) (4) (ii) (1) (iii) (1) (iv) (2)

PHYSICS
SCIENCE Paper – 1
Maximum Marks: 40
Question 1
(a) Light travelling from a denser medium to a rarer medium along a normal to the boundary: [1]
1. is refracted towards the normal 2. is refracted away from the normal
3. Is not refracted 4. goes along the boundary.
(b) A thick glass slab with a silvered side forms multiple images on account of: [1]
1. Reflection of light 2. Refraction of light
3. Dispersion of light 4. Both reflection and refraction of light
(c) When an equilateral prism is in minimum deviation position, the angle of incidence is [1]
1. Greater than the angle of emergence 2. Equal to the angle of emergence
3. Smaller than the angle of emergence 4. None of these
d) Centre of gravity of an object depends on its [1]
1. Weight 2. Density 3. Shape 4. Mass
(e) Calculate the power of a convex lens of focal length 12.5 cm [2]
1. +10.5 D 2. –10.5 D 3. +8 D 4. –8 D
(f) A boy of mass 55 kg runs up a flight of 40 stairs, each measuring 0.15 m in 15 s. [4]
[Take g = 10 ms and 1 HP = 746 W] -2
(i) The force acting on the boy will be

1. 500 N 2. 550 N 3. 5400 N 4. 2000 N
(ii) The Work done will be
1. 2250 J 2. 2500 N 3. 3300 J 4. 3300 N
(iii) The amount of power spent is
1. 220 W 2. 2000 W 3. 200 W 4. 20 W
(iv) Power in HP is
1. 2.68 HP 2. 0.29 HP 3. 161420 HP 4. 1.61420 HP
Question 2
(a) If force and displacement of an object (in the direction of force) are doubled, work should be [1]
1. Halved 2. Doubled 3. Four times 4. Reduced to one fourth
(b) Water stored in a dam possess [1]
1. No energy 2. Electrical energy 3. Kinetic energy 4. Potential energy

(c) Figure given below shows the coolie walking on a frictionless horizontal platform with load on his
head. What will be the work done by the coolie? [1]
1. Work done is positive 2. Work done is negative

3. Zero work done 4. Both (1) and (2)
(d) In an oscillating simple pendulum, [1]
1. Work is done by the string 2. Work is done by the mass
3. Work is done by the force of gravity 4. Only energy transformation takes place
(e) Boy A uses a single fixed pulley to lift a load of 50 kgf to some height. Boy B uses a single movable
pulley to lift the same load to the same height. Compare the effort applied by both the boys. [2]
1. Boy A applies lesser effort than the Boy B
2. Boy B applies lesser effort than the Boy A
3. Both the boys applies same effort
4. No effort is applied
(f) Figure given below shows a block and tackle system of pulleys used to lift a load. [4]
(i) How many strands of tackle are supporting the load?

1. 5 2. 4 3. 3 4. 2
(ii) What is the mechanical advantage of this system?
1. 4 2. 2 3. 5 4. 3

(iii) When load is pulled up by a distance 1 m, how far does the effort end move?
1. 3 m 2. 1 m 3. 4 m 4. 2 m
(iv) How much effort is needed to lift a load of 100 N?
1. 20 N 2. 10 N 3. 25 N 4. 50 N
Question 3
(a) The point at which the algebraic sum of moments of weights of the particles is zero. [1]
1. Inertia point 2. Centre of gravity 3. Centroid 4. Central point
(b) Which one of the following is not the property of electromagnetic waves? [1]
1. Electromagnetic waves exhibit the properties of reflection and refraction.
2. Electromagnetic waves require material medium for propagation.
3. Electromagnetic waves are not deflected by electric and magnetic fields.
4. Electromagnetic waves are transverse in nature.
(c) How is the critical angle related to the refractive index of a medium? [1]
i m m r
1. Sin C = 2. Sin C = 3. Sin C = 4. Sin C =
m i r m
(d) The principle on which SONAR works [1]
1. Reflection of sound 2. Reflection of ultrasonic waves
3. Principle of reversibility 4. Law of conservation of energy
(e) A radar send a signal to an aeroplane at a distance 45 Km away with a speed of
3 × 108 ms–1. After how long is the signal received back from the aeroplane? [2]
1. 135 s 2. 0.0003 s 3. 3000 s 4. 1350 s
(f) Calculate the resultant torque from the following diagram. [4]
1. 120 Nm 2. 60 Nm 3. 180 Nm 4. 240 Nm

Question 4
(a) Name the subjective property of light related to its wavelength. [1]
1. Colour 2. Frequency 3. Speed 4. Refractive index
(b) The diagram given below shows an object O and its image I. Identify the type of lens used. [1]
1. Concave lens 2. Biconcave lens 3. Convex lens 4. Biconvex lens

(c) A boy stands 83 m in front of a high wall and then blows a whistle. Calculate the time interval
when he hears an echo. Speed of sound is 332 ms–1.[2]
1. 1 s 2. 2 s 3. 0.5 s 4. 10 s

(d) Three different radiations of electromagnetic spectrum are X, Y and Z. [2]
Radiations X are used in medical science to kill cancer cells, Radiations Y are used in photography
at night, Radiations Z are used for analysis of atomic and molecular structure.
(i) Identify the type of vibrations X, Y and Z.
1. X – Infrared radiations, Y – microwaves, Z – Gamma radiations
2. X – microwaves, Y – infrared radiations, Z – Gamma radiations
3. X – Gamma radiations, Y – Infrared radiations, Z – microwaves
4. X – gamma radiations, Y – microwaves, Z – infrared radiations
(ii) How are radiations Y detected?
1. By passing through rock salt prism 2. By passing through the glass prism
3. By passing through quartz prism 4. Cause fluorescence on zinc sulphide screen
(e) The diagram shows a point source of light S, a convex lens L and a plane mirror M. The three are
placed such that rays of light from S return to it after reflection from M. [4]
(i) Identify the lens.

1. Convex lens 2. Concave lens 3. Biconcave lens 4. Biconvex lens
(ii) What is the distance OL called?
1. Radius of curvature 2. Focal length 3. Optical distance 4. Magnification
(iii) What is the size of image I?
1. Diminished 2. Enlarged 3. Same size 4. Highly magnified
(iv) Name the device where it is used.
1. Telescope 2. Burning glass 3. Camera lens 4. Slide projector
ANSWERS
1. (a) (3) (b) (4) (c) (2) (d) (3) (e) (3)
(f) (i) (2) (ii) (3) (iii) (1) (iv) (2)
2. (a) (3) (b) (4) (c) (3) (d) (4) (e) (2)
(f) (i) (2) (ii) (1) (iii) (3) (iv) (3)
3. (a) (2) (b) (2) (c) (1) (d) (2) (e) (2)
(f) (2)
4. (a) (1) (b) (3) (c) (3) (d) (i) (3) (ii) (1)
(e) (i) (1) (ii) (1) (iii) (3) (iv) (2)

PHYSICS
SCIENCE Paper – 1
Maximum Marks: 40
Question 1
(a) The figure given below shows a light ray enters from medium A to medium B. The refractive index
of medium B relative to A will be [1]
1. Greater than 1 2. Less than 1 3. Equal to 1 4. Zero
(b) In an experiment to trace the path of a ray of light passing through a rectangular glass slab, four
students measured the angles of incidence (i), angle of refraction (r) and angles of emergence (e) as
shown in the diagrams: [1]

(A)
(B)

(C)
(D)
Identify the correct measurement given in the diagram:
1. A 2. B 3. C 4. D
(c) Diamonds sparkle more than the glass, because they have: [1]
1. Smaller critical angle than the glass 2. Larger critical angle than the glass
3. Critical angle plays no role 4. None of these
(d) Which of the following colour of white light has the least wavelength? [1]
1. Red 2. Orange 3. Violet 4. Blue
(e) An object of height 2 cm is placed at a distance of 8 cm from a convex lens of focal length 10 cm.
Find the size of the image. [2]
1. –40 cm 2. 10 cm 3. 20 cm 4. 16 cm
(f) Observe the following ray diagrams drawn by four students to locate the position of image formed
by a convex lens when the object is placed at 2F. [4]

(I) (II)

(III) (IV)
(i) Identify the correct ray diagram drawn by the student.
1. I 2. II 3. III 4. IV
(ii) Name the device which uses this principle.
1. Magnifying glass 2. Slide projector
3. Terrestrial telescope 4. Galilean telescope
(iii) State the nature of the image.
1. Real, inverted and highly diminished 2. Real, inverted and magnified
3. Real, inverted and highly magnified 4. Real, inverted and of same size
(iv) The focal length of the lens changes when the lens is placed in water instead of air.
Choose the correct statement:
1. Focal length increases 2. Focal length decreases
3. Focal length remains unchanged 4. None of these
Question 2
(a) In a uniform circular motion: [1]
1. Speed of a body continuously changes because the direction of motion changes.
2. Velocity of body continuously changes because the direction of motion changes.
3. The motion of the body is accelerated.
4. Both (2) and (3)

(b) The centre of gravity of a uniform ball is [1]
1. At its geometric centre 2. At its bottom
3. At its topmost point 4. At any point on its surface
(c) The centre of gravity of a hollow cone of height h is at a distance x from its vertex where the value
of x is: [1]
h 2h h 3h
1. 4 2. 3 3. 3 4. 4
h
(d) A body is falling from a height h. After it has fallen a height 2 , it will possess [1]
1. Only potential energy 2. Only kinetic energy

3. Half potential and half kinetic energy 4. More potential and less kinetic energy
(e) A ball of mass 200 g falls from a height of 5 m. What will be its kinetic energy when it just reaches
the ground? (g = 9.8 ms–2) [2]
1. 98 J 2. 9.8 J 3. 980 J 4. 1000 J
(f) A bullet of mass 15 g has a speed of 400 ms–1. Answer the following questions: [4]
(i) Calculate the kinetic energy possessed by the bullet.
1. 120 J 2. 1200 J 3. 1000 J 4. 12 J
(ii) If the bullet strikes the thick target and is brought to rest in 2 cm, calculate the average retarding
force acting on the bullet.
1. 600 J 2. 6000 J 3. 1000 J 4. 6 × 104 J
(iii) For the same kinetic energy of a body, what should be the change in its velocity if its mass is increased
four times?
1. Velocity will be four times 2. Velocity will be doubled
3. Velocity will be halved 4. No change in velocity
(iv) State the energy conversion taking place in the bullet.
1. Kinetic energy to potential energy 2. Potential energy to kinetic energy
3. Kinetic energy to heat energy 4. Potential energy to heat energy
Question 3
(a) The ratio of the useful work done by the machine to the work done on the machine is called [1]
2. Output 2. Input 3. Efficiency 4. Principle of machine
(b) Which of the statement is not true for an actual machine? [1]
1. Its mechanical advantage is less than velocity ratio
2. Its efficiency is always less than 100%
3. Its mechanical advantage is greater than velocity ratio
4. Output of machine is always less than input
(c) State the energy change observed in the process of Photosynthesis [1]
1. Light energy to electrical energy
2. Light energy to chemical energy
3. Kinetic energy to potential energy
4. Chemical energy to light energy

(d) In the figure given below, a pendulum is shown oscillating from A to B, B to C and C to A. In its
one oscillation state the position where the kinetic energy is maximum. [1]
1. At position A 2. At position B 3. At position C 4. At position B and C

(e) A man fires a gun 150 m from a cliff. A second man who is standing 300 m further away from the
cliff hears the gun 1 second after he sees the flash. The second man will hear the echo from the
cliff [2]
Speed of sound
Cliff = 300 m/s (approximate)
150 m 300 m
Second
Man with
man
gun
1. 1 second after seeing the flash 2. 2 seconds after hearing the gun
3. 2 seconds after seeing the flash 4. 4 seconds after hearing the gun
(f) In an experiment, a student used an equilateral triangular glass prism and projected a narrow beam
of white light source from one side of the surface of the prism. She placed a screen on the other side
and saw many colours appearing as patches on the screen. But when she used a red light source,
she could see only a red patch on the screen. Similarly she used a blue and green light source and
could only see one colour patch on both occasions. [4]
(i) When white light ray falls on a prism, the ray at its first surface suffers:
1. No refraction 2. Only dispersion
3. Only deviation 4. Both deviation and dispersion
(ii) Name the phenomenon student was trying to demonstrate:
1. Dispersion 2. Reflection 3. Refraction 4. Scattering
(iii) The student could not see any other colour when the red light was used because:
1. Red colour does not refract in prism 2. Red colour is monochromatic
3. Prism was defective 4. The prism is opaque to red colour
(iv) The colour of white light which deviates the most.
1. Red 2. Violet 3. Blue 4. Yellow
Question 4
(a) Raindrop reaching the earth surface with constant velocity is in state of: [1]
1. Static equilibrium 2. Dynamic equilibrium
3. Neutral equilibrium 4. No equilibrium

(b) Apparent depth is expressed as [1]
Refractive index
1. Real depth × refractive index 2.
real depth
Real depth
3. 4. None of these
refractive index
(c) The action of a prism used to deviate a ray of light through 90° is used in [2]
1. Periscope 2. Prism binoculars 3. Telescope 4. Slide projectors
(d) A thin lens has a focal length of –10 cm. [2]
(i) Find the power of the lens
1. –0.5 D 2. + 20 D 3. – 10 D 4. +10 D
(ii) Identify the lens used with a negative power.
1. Convex lens 2. Concave lens 3. Biconcave lens 4. Biconvex lens
(e) Choose the most appropriate answer: [4]
(i) Multiple echoes are also called
1. Reflecting sound 2. Reverberations 3. Echolocation 4. Ultrasonics
(ii) The minimum distance from a sound reflecting surface to hear an echo is
1. 15m 2. 16.5 m 3. 17 m 4. 19 m
(iii) Which one of the following is not based on the principle of reflection of sound.
1. Doctor’s stethoscope 2. Spectrometer
3. Sonar 4. Radar
(iv) Device used to find the depth of a sea is called
1. Radar 2. Scanner 3. Trawlers 4. Sonar
ANSWERS
1. (a) (2) (b) (3) (c) (1) (d) (3) (e) (2)
(f) (i) (2) (ii) (3) (iii) (4) (iv) (1)
2. (a) (4) (b) (1) (c) (3) (d) (3) (e) (2)
(f) (i) (2) (ii) (4) (iii) (3) (iv) (2)
3. (a) (3) (b) (3) (c) (2) (d) (1) (e) (3)
(f) (i) (4) (ii) (1) (iii) (2) (iv) (2)
4. (a) (2) (b) (3) (c) (1) (d) (i) (3) (ii) (2)
(e) (i) (2) (ii) (3) (iii) (2) (iv) (4)

SCIENCE (52)
CHEMISTRY
SCIENCE Paper - 2
CLASS X
There will be one paper of two hours duration of 80 marks and Internal (ii) Ions present in mineral acids, alkalis and salts and their
Assessment of practical work carrying 20 marks. solutions; use of common acid - base indicators and
The paper will be divided into two sections, Section I (40 marks) and universal indicator, pH paper to test for acidity and
Section II (40 marks). alkalinity.
Section I (compulsory) will contain short answer questions on the • Examples with equation for the ionisation/dissociation of
entire syllabus. ions of acids, bases and salts.
Section II will contain six questions. Candidates will be required to • Acids form hydronium ions (only positive ions) and alkalis
answer any four of these six questions. form hydroxyl ions (only negative ions) with water and
Note: All chemical process/reactions should be studied with reference to their effect on indicators.
the reactants, products, conditions, observation, the (balanced) equations • Definitions - Salts are formed by partial or complete
and diagrams. replacement of the hydrogen ion of an acid by a metal
1. Periodic Properties and variations of Properties or Ionic definition of salt (To be explained with suitable
(i) Periodic properties and their variations in groups and examples).
periods. • Introduction to pH scale to test for acidity, neutrality and
Definitions and trends of the following periodic properties in alkalinity by using pH paper or Universal indicator.
groups and periods should be studied: • Types of salts: normal salts, acid salt, basic salt, definition
• atomic size • metallic character and examples.
• non-metallic character • ionisation potential 4. Analytical Chemistry
• electron affinity • electronegativity (i) Action of Ammonium Hydroxide and Sodium Hydroxide
(ii) Periodicity on the basis of atomic number for elements. on solution of salts: colour of salt and its solution;
• The study of modern periodic table up to period 4 and formation and colour of hydroxide precipitated from
Group 2 [IIA] (students to be exposed to the complete salt solutions of Ca, Fe, Cu, Zn and Pb; special action
modern periodic table but no questions will be asked on of ammonium hydroxide on solutions of copper salt and
elements beyond period 4 –Calcium) sodium hydroxide on ammonium salts.
• Periodicity and other related properties to be explained on On solution of salts:
the basis of nuclear charge and shells (not orbitals). • Colour of salt and its solution.
(Special reference to the alkali metals, alkaline earth metals, • Action on addition of Sodium Hydroxide to solution of Ca,
halogen groups and inert gases). Fe, Cu, Zn, and Pb salts drop by drop in excess. Formation
2. Chemical Bonding and colour of hydroxide precipitated to be highlighted with
Electrovalent, covalent and co-ordinate bonding, structures of the help of equations.
various compounds, Electron dot structure. • Action on addition of Ammonium Hydroxide to solution
(a) Electrovalent bonding: of Ca, Fe, Cu, Zn, and Pb salts drop by drop in excess.
• Electron dot structure of Electrovalent compounds NaCl, Formation and colour of hydroxide precipitated to be
MgCl2, CaO. highlighted with the help of equations.
• Characteristic properties of electrovalent compounds – state • Special action of Ammonium Hydroxide on solutions of
of existence, melting and boiling points, conductivity (heat copper salts and sodium hydroxide on ammonium salts.
and electricity), dissociation in solution and in molten state (ii) Action of caustic alkalis (NaOH, KOH) on aluminium, their
to be linked with electrolysis. oxides and hydroxides.
(b) Covalent Bonding: Self explanatory.
• Electron dot structure of non-polar covalent molecules 5. Mole Concept and Stoichiometry
on the basis of duplet and octet of electrons (example: Vapour Density and its relation to relative molecular mass:
hydrogen, chlorine, oxygen, nitrogen, carbon tetrachloride • Molecular mass = 2×vapour density (formal proof not required)
and methane. • Deduction of simple (empirical) and molecular formula from:
• P olar Covalent compounds – based on difference in (a) the percentage composition of a compound.
electronegativity: (b) the masses of combining elements.
Examples – HCl, NH3 and H2O including electron dot structures. 6. Electrolysis
• Characteristic properties of Covalent compounds – state of (i) Electrolytes and non-electrolytes.
existence, melting and boiling points, conductivity (heat Definitions and examples.
and electricity), ionisation in solution. (ii) Substances containing molecules only, ions only, both
Comparison of Electrovalent and Covalent compounds. molecules and ions.
(c) Coordinate Bonding: • Substances containing molecules only ions only, both
• Definition molecules and ions.
• The lone pair effect of the oxygen atom of the water • Examples; relating their composition with their behaviour
molecule and the nitrogen atom of the ammonia molecule as strong and weak electrolytes as well as non-
to explain the formation of H3O+ and OH– ions in water electrolytes.
and NH4+ ion. (iii) Definition and explanation of electrolysis, electrolyte,
The meaning of lone pair; the formation of hydronium electrode, anode, cathode, anion, cation, oxidation and
ion and ammonium ion must be explained with help of reduction (on the basis of loss and gain of electrons).
electron dot diagrams. (iv) An elementary study of the migration of ions, with
3. Study of Acids, Bases and Salts reference to the factors influencing selective discharge of
(i) S imple definitions in terms of the molecules, their ions (reference should be made to the activity series as
classification and characteristic properties. indicating the tendency of metals, e.g. Na, Mg, Fe, Cu,
to form ions) illustrated by the electrolysis of:
2 ICSE Semester 1 Chemistry

• Molten lead bromide • The burning of ammonia in oxygen.
• acidified water with platinum electrodes • The catalytic oxidation of ammonia (with conditions and
• Aqueous copper (II) sulphate with active and inert electrodes; reaction)
electron transfer at the electrodes. • Its reactions with hydrogen chloride and with hot copper
The above electrolytic processes can be studied in terms (II) oxide, lead monoxide (PbO) and chlorine (both chlorine
of electrolyte used, electrodes used, ionization reaction, in excess and ammonia in excess).
anode reaction, cathode reaction, use of selective discharge All these reactions may be studied in terms of reactants,
theory, wherever applicable. products, conditions, equations and observations.
(v) Applications of electrolysis. • Aqueous solution of ammonia - reaction with sulphuric
• Electroplating with nickel and silver, choice of electrolyte acid, nitric acid, hydrochloric acid and solutions of iron(III)
for electroplating. chloride, iron(II) sulphate, lead nitrate, zinc nitrate and
• Electro refining of copper. copper sulphate.
Reasons and conditions for electroplating; names of C. Nitric Acid
the electrolytes and the electrodes used should be Nitric Acid: one laboratory method of preparation of nitric
given. Equations for the reactions at the electrodes acid from potassium nitrate or sodium nitrate. Large scale
should be given for electroplating, refining of copper. preparation. Nitric acid as an oxidizing agent.
7. Metallurgy • Laboratory preparation of nitric acid from potassium nitrate or
(i) Occurrence of metals in nature: sodium nitrate; the laboratory method to be studied in terms
• Mineral and ore - Meaning only. of reactants, products, conditions, equations, setting up of
• Common ores of iron, aluminium and zinc. apparatus, diagram, precautions, collection and identification.
(ii) Extraction of Aluminium. (Tests)
(a) Chemical method for purifying bauxite by using NaOH – • M anufacture of Nitric acid by Ostwald’s process (Only
Baeyer’s Process. equations with conditions where applicable).
(b) Electrolytic extraction – Hall Heroult’s process: • As an oxidising agent: its reaction with copper, carbon, sulphur.
Structure of electrolytic cell - the various components as part D. Sulphuric Acid
of the electrolyte, electrodes and electrode reactions. Large scale preparation, its behaviour as an acid when dilute,
Description of the changes occurring, purpose of the as an oxidizing agent when concentrated - oxidation of carbon
substances used and the main reactions with their and sulphur; as a dehydrating agent - dehydration of sugar
equations. and copper (II) sulphate crystals; its non-volatile nature.
(iii) Alloys • Manufacture by Contact Process Equations with conditions
Definition, alloys of Aluminium (only constituent elements), where applicable).
properties and uses. • Its behaviour as an acid when dilute -reaction with metal, metal
8. Study of Compounds oxide, metal hydroxide, metal carbonate, metal bicarbonate,
A. Hydrogen Chloride metal sulphite, metal sulphide.
Hydrogen chloride: preparation of hydrogen chloride from • Concentrated sulphuric acid as an oxidizing agent - the
sodium chloride; refer to the density and solubility of oxidation of carbon and sulphur.
hydrogen chloride (fountain experiment); reaction with • Concentrated sulphuric acid as a dehydrating agent- (a) the
ammonia; acidic properties of its solution. dehydration of sugar (b) Copper (II) sulphate crystals.
• Preparation of hydrogen chloride from sodium chloride; the • Non-volatile nature of sulphuric acid - reaction with sodium
laboratory method of preparation can be learnt in terms of or potassium chloride and sodium or potassium nitrate.
reactants, product, condition, equation, diagram or setting of • Identification and Tests for both dilute and concentrated
the apparatus, procedure, observation, precaution, collection sulphuric acid.
of the gas and identification (Tests). 9. Organic Chemistry
• Simple experiment to show the density of the gas (Hydrogen (i) Introduction to Organic compounds.
Chloride) –heavier than air. • Unique nature of Carbon atom – tetra valency, catenation.
• Solubility of hydrogen chloride (fountain experiment); • Formation of single, double and triple bonds, straight chain,
setting of the apparatus, procedure, observation, inference. branched chain, cyclic compounds (only benzene).
• Method of preparation of hydrochloric acid by dissolving the (ii) Structure and Isomerism.
gas in water- the special arrangement and the mechanism • Structure of compounds with single, double and triple bonds.
by which the back suction is avoided should be learnt. • Structural formulae of hydrocarbons. Structural formula
• Reaction with ammonia must be given for: alkanes, alkenes, alkynes up to 5 carbon
• Acidic properties of its solution - reaction with metals, their atoms.
oxides, hydroxides and carbonates to give their chlorides; • Isomerism – structural (chain, position)
decomposition of carbonates, hydrogen carbonates, sulphides, (iii) Homologous series – characteristics with examples.
sulphites. Alkane, alkene, alkyne series and their gradation in properties
• Precipitation reactions with silver nitrate solution and lead and the relationship with the molecular mass or molecular
nitrate solution. formula.
B. Ammonia (iv) Simple nomenclature.
Ammonia: its laboratory preparation from ammonium Simple nomenclature of the hydrocarbons with simple functional
chloride and collection; ammonium salts. Manufacture groups – (double bond, triple bond, alcoholic, aldehydic,
by Haber’s Process; density and solubility of ammonia carboxylic group) longest chain rule and smallest number for
(fountain experiment); aqueous solution of ammonia; its functional groups rule – trivial and IUPAC names (compounds
reactions with hydrogen chloride and with hot copper (II) with only one functional group).
oxide; lead monoxide (PbO) and chlorine; the burning of (v) Hydrocarbons: alkanes, alkenes, alkynes.
ammonia in oxygen; uses of ammonia. • Alkanes - general formula; methane (greenhouse gas).
• Laboratory preparation from ammonium chloride and Complete combustion of methane and ethane, reaction of
collection; (the preparation to be studied in terms of, setting methane and ethane with chlorine through substitution.
of the apparatus and diagram, procedure, observation, • Alkenes – (unsaturated hydrocarbons with a double bond);
collection and identification (Tests). ethene as an example.
Ammonia from ammonium salts using alkalies. • Alkynes - (unsaturated hydrocarbons with a triple bond);
The reactions to be studied in terms of reactants, products, ethyne as an example of alkyne.
conditions and equations. Only main properties, particularly addition products with
• Manufacture by Haber’s Process. hydrogen and halogen namely Cl2, Br2 and I2 pertaining to alkenes
• Density and solubility of ammonia (fountain experiment). and alkynes.
ICSE Semester 1 Chemistry 3

CHEMISTRY
SCIENCE PAPER – 2
Maximum Marks: 40
Question 1
The trend in metallic nature of metals as we go from top to bottom in a group: [1]
1. increases 2. decreases
3. neither increases nor decreases 4. none of the above
Question 2
The colour change observed when the solution of magnesium hydroxide is tested with the following
indicators: [1]
1. phenolphthalein turns colourless to pink 2. methyl orange remains orange
3. phenolphthalein remains colourless 4. blue litmus solution turns red
Question 3
The compound which is a non-electrolyte: [1]
1. KCl (aq) 2. H2SO4 (dil) 3. CCl4 (l) 4. CH3COOH (aq)
Question 4
Twice the vapour density gives: [1]
1. Actual vapour density 2. Relative vapour density
3. Molecular mass 4. Molar volume
Question 5
The number of lone pair of electrons in the nitrogen atom in ammonia molecule: [1]
1. One 2. Two 3. Three 4. Four
Question 6
Elements with similar valence shell configuration in a Periodic Table are placed in: [1]
1. different groups 2. same period 3. different period 4. same group
Question 7
The gas liberated when sodium sulphite reacts with dilute sulphuric acid: [1]
1. Carbon dioxide 2. Hydrogen 3. Hydrogen sulphide 4. Sulphur dioxide
Question 8
Thickness of metal coating during electroplating depends on: [1]
1. Duration of current passage 2. A low current
3. Nature of cathode 4. Purity of anode
Question 9
Ionic bonding is seen in: [1]
1. Methane 2. Hydrogen 3. Ammonia 4. Sodium oxide

Question 10
The molecular formula of an organic compound is C6H12O6 and the empirical formula is CH2O, the value
of n is: [1]
1. 2 2. 6 3. 1 4. 12
Question 11
When an electron is added in the valence shell: [1]
1. energy is released 2. energy is absorbed
3. energy remains same 4. none of the above
Question 12
The most electronegative element is: [1]
1. Sodium 2. Aluminium 3. Bromine 4. Fluorine
Question 13
The bond in Carbon Tetrachloride is: [1]
1. Single Covalent Bond 2. Double Covalent Bond
3. Ionic bond 4. Triple Covalent Bond
Question 14
The type of bonding present in the nitrogen molecule: [1]
1. Single Covalent Bond 2. Double Covalent Bond
3. Polar Covalent bond 4. Triple Covalent Bond
Question 15
A compound with Empirical formula XY2, has the vapour density equal to its Empirical formula weight,
its molecular formula is [1]
1. X2Y4 2. X2Y2 3. XY 4. X4Y2
Question 16
Identify one statement that does not hold true for electrorefining of copper: [1]
1. Electrolyte is acidified CuSO4 solution 2. Cathode is a thin strip of impure copper
3. Anode dissolves in the electrolyte 4. Anode gets thicker
Question 17
The observation when ammonium chloride reacts with potassium hydroxide: [1]
1. A reddish brown gas.
2. A colourless gas which turns moist red litmus blue.
3. A green coloured gas which turns moist blue litmus paper red.
4. A colourless gas which turns lime water milky.
Question 18
The colour of the precipitate formed when ferrous ions react with ammonium hydroxide solution: [1]
1. Blue 2. Reddish brown 3. Dirty green 4. White
Question 19
During ionisation, metals lose electrons this change can be called: [1]
1. Oxidation 2. Reduction 3. Redox 4. Displacement
Question 20
The oxide of a metal that reacts both with acid and alkali to form salt and water: [1]
1. Sodium oxide 2. Magnesium oxide 3. Aluminium oxide 4. Ferrous oxide
Question 21
The property which decreases from left to right across the periodic table: [1]
1. Electron affinity 2. Electro negativity 3. Ionisation energy 4. Metallic character

Question 22
On the basis of electronic configuration the period and group of B59 is: [1]
1. 2 and IIIA 2. 3 and IIA 3. 4 and VIA 4. 5 and VIIA
Question 23
Select the ion that would get selectively discharged from the aqueous mixture of the ions listed below: [1]
1. SO4–2 2. NO3–1 3. OH–1 4. Cl–1
Question 24
Hydronium ion is formed when a molecule of water combines with: [1]
1. Hydrogen atom 2. Proton 3. Hydrogen molecule 4. Oxygen atom
Question 25
The condition that is most appropriate for electroplating with nickel: [1]
1. Electrolyte is molten copper sulphate 2. Anode should be made of impure nickel plate
3. Alternating current is used 4. Periodic replacement of cathode is needed.
Question 26
The hydroxide which is soluble in excess ammonium hydroxide: [1]
1. Lead hydroxide 2. Ferrous hydroxide 3. Zinc hydroxide 4. Ferric hydroxide
Question 27
Which statement is not true for electrolysis? [1]
1. Cations migrate towards cathode 2. Anions discharge at anode
3. Anions get reduced during electrolysis 4. Cations get reduced during electrolysis
Question 28
H2Y is the formula of a compound. What is the valency exhibited by Y? [1]
1. 1 2. 2 3. 3 4. none of the above
Question 29
The particles which attract one another to form electrovalent compounds are: [1]
1. Electrons 2. Protons 3. Ions 4. Molecules
Question 30
Which one of the following statements is NOT correct? [1]
1. Pure water does not allow a current to flow through it.
2. The electrolyte only conducts when in the molten state.
3. Electrodes that react with the electrolytes are said to be “active”.
4. Ions must be present in the electrolyte in order that it conducts electricity.
Question 31
The salt formed by partial replacement of hydrogen ion of an acid by a basic radical. [1]
1. Sodium sulphite 2. Magnesium hydroxide
3. Potassium sulphate 4. Zinc hydrogen sulphite
Question 32
Alkali which dissociates only partially in aqueous solution: [1]
1. Lithium hydroxide 2. Calcium hydroxide
3. Potassium hydroxide 4. Sodium hydroxide
Question 33
The property that matches with elements of the halogen family are: [1]
1. They are chemically highly reactive. 2. They are metallic in nature.
3. They are monoatomic in their molecular form. 4. They have one electron in the valence shell.

Question 34
Cathode is a reducing electrode because: [1]
1. It has less number of electrons 2. It has deficiency of electrons
3. Cations gain electrons from cathode 4. Anions lose electrons to cathode
Question 35
The simplest ratio of the atoms of carbon and hydrogen is 1:1. Identify the possible molecular formula. [1]
1. C6H6 2. C2H4 3. C6H2 4. C3H4
Question 36
The empirical formula of the compound is CH2O, the possible molecular formula can be: [1]
1. C3H6O3 2. C2H4O 3. C4H3O2 4. C4H6O2
Question 37
Observe the Periodic Table to answer the questions: [4]
Group No. 1-I A 2-IIA 13-IIIA 14-IVA 15-VA 16-VIA 17-VIIA 18-0
2nd period Li D O J Ne
3rd period A Mg E Si X M
4th period R T G Q Y Z
In the above table some elements are mentioned with their own symbol and position of the Periodic
Table while others are shown with a letter. Answer the following questions pertaining to the same.
(a) Identify the most electronegative element.
1. Li 2. Ne 3. Z 4. J
(b) How many Valence electrons are present in Q?
1. 3 2. 5 3. 15 4. 4
(c) The formula of the compound formed between E and O is
1. EO 2. E3O2 3. E2O3 4. EO3
(d) The type of bond formed between A and X:
1. Ionic bond 2. Metallic bond 3. Covalent bond 4. Coordinate bond
ANSWERS
1. (1) 2. (1) 3. (3) 4. (3) 5. (1)
6. (4) 7. (4) 8. (2) 9. (4) 10. (2)
11. (1) 12. (4) 13. (1) 14. (4) 15. (1)
16. (4) 17. (2) 18. (3) 19. (1) 20. (3)
21. (4) 22. (1) 23. (3) 24. (2) 25. (2)
26. (3) 27. (3) 28. (2) 29. (3) 30. (2)
31. (4) 32. (2) 33. (1) 34. (3) 35. (1)
36. (1) 37. (a) (4) (b) (2) (c) (3) (d) (1)

CHEMISTRY
SCIENCE PAPER – 2
Maximum Marks: 40
Question 1
Which of the following properties of the periodic table does not increase while moving down the group
of the periodic table? [1]
1. Atomic radius 2. Metallic character
3. Valency 4. Number of shells in an element
Question 2
Identify the method used for preparation of Iron (III ) chloride. [1]
1. Action of an acid on a metal 2. Direct combination
3. Neutralization 4. Precipitation
Question 3
Name a liquid which is non electrolyte. [1]
1. Dilute hydrochloric acid 2. Aq. Copper sulphate solution
3. Pure water 4. Sodium hydroxide solution
Question 4
State the term defined by : The mass of a given volume of gas compared to the mass of equal volume
of H2? [1]
1. Empirical formula 2. Vapour density
3. Molecular formula 4. Molecular weight
Question 5
Which of the following statement is not a correct statement about the trends when going from left to
right across the periods of the periodic table? [1]
1. The elements become less metallic in nature.
2. The atoms lose their electrons more easily.
3. The number of valence electrons increases.
4. Nuclear charge increases.
Question 6
The colour change observed when dil. Sulphuric acid is added to methyl orange solution. [1]
1. Colour changes from orange to red 2. Colour changes from orange to colourless
3. Colour changes from orange to blue 4. Colour changes from orange to pink

Question 7
A weak organic acid is: [1]
1. Sulphuric acid 2. Formic acid 3. Nitric acid 4. Hydrochloric acid
Question 8
The process of separation of ions of an ionic solid in solution. [1]
1. Electrolytic association 2. Electrolytic refining
3. Electrolytic dissociation 4. Electroplating
Question 9
Choose the property which is characteristic of an electrovalent compound: [1]
1. It is easily vapourized 2. It has a high melting point.
3. It is a weak electrolyte 4. It often exists as a liquid.
Question 10
The vapour density of carbon dioxide is [C = 12, O = 16] is: [1]
1. 32 2. 16 3. 44 4. 22
Question 11
The correct increasing order of the atomic radii of the elements oxygen, fluorine and Nitrogen. [1]
1. O, F, N 2. N, F, O 3. O, N, F 4. F, O, N
Question 12
The most electronegative element. [1]
1. Fluorine 2. Helium 3. Sodium 4. Magnesium
Question 13
Among the following compounds, identify the compound which is composed of all the three kinds of
bonds (ionic, covalent and coordinate bond). [1]
1. Sodium chloride 2. Ammonia
3. Carbon tetrachloride 4. Ammonium chloride
Question 14
The type of covalent bond present in Nitrogen molecule. [1]
1. Double bond 2. Triple bond 3. Single bond 4. Coordinate bond
Question 15
Vapour density of a gas is 22. Find its molecular weight. [1]
1. 33 2. 22 3. 44 4. 11
Question 16
During the electrolysis of molten lead bromide, which of the following takes place: [1]
1. Bromine is released at the cathode 2. Lead is deposited at the anode
3. Bromine ions gain electrons 4. Lead is deposited at the cathode
Question 17
Which of the following solution of the compound gives a dirty green precipitate with sodium
hydroxide? [1]
1. Ammonium sulphate 2. Copper nitrate
3. Ferrous sulphate 4. Zinc carbonate

Question 18
Calcium nitrate on reaction with ammonium hydroxide gives [1]
1. No precipitate 2. Green precipitate
3. White precipitate 4. Reddish brown precipitate
Question 19
The amount of energy released when an atom in the gaseous state accepts an electron to form an
anion. [1]
1. Electron affinity 2. Electronegativity
3. Ionisation potential 4. Atomic radius
Question 20
From the following oxides –SO2, SiO2 , Al2O3, MgO, CO, Na2O name the oxide which dissolves in water
forming an acid. [1]
1. Al2O3 2. MgO 3. SO2 4. CO
Question 21
Identify the group of an element with electronic configuration 2, 8 in the modern periodic table. [1]
1. Group 8 2. Group 2 3. Group 18 4. Group 10
Question 22
Beryllium, Magnesium, Calcium, Strontium, are elements in the periodic table. (Beryllium is the first
member of the group). Identify the element having highest electronegativity. [1]
1. Beryllium 2. Magnesium 3. Calcium 4. Strontium
Question 23
The aqueous solution of the compound which contains both ions and molecules. [1]
1. Sulphuric acid 2. Hydrochloric acid
3. Acetic acid 4. Nitric acid
Question 24
The atomic number of four elements W, X, Y and Z are 2, 8, 10 and 12 respectively. The two elements
which can react to form ionic bond are [1]
1. XZ 2. XY 3. YZ 4. WX
Question 25
A compound which during electrolysis in its molten state liberates a reddish brown gas at the anode.
[1]
1. Sodium chloride 2. Copper (II) oxide
3. Copper (II) sulphate 4. Lead (II) bromide
Question 26
The atomic number of an element A is 20 so the number of electrons in its A+2 will be [1]
1. 17 2. 18 3. 19 4. 20

Question 27
Which of the following diagram correctly describes the process of electrolytic refining? [1]
Key
+ + Key Key +
+
Anode Cathode Anode Cathode
Cathode Anode Cathode Anode
Acidified Acidified Acidified Acidified
Cu2+ CuSO4 Cu2+ CuSO4 CuSO4 CuSO4
Cu 2+
Cu 2+
solution solution solution solution
Cu 2+ Cu2+ Cu 2+
Cu2+
Impurities Impurities Impurities Impurities
(A) (B) (C) (D)

1. Figure A 2. Figure B 3. Figure C 4. Figure D

Question 28
What is the empirical formula of octane? [C8 H18] [1]
1. C4H9 2. C4H10 3. C2H12 4. C4H16
Question 29
Metals lose electrons during ionization. This change is called: [1]
1. Reduction 2. Oxidation 3. Redox 4. Displacement
Question 30
During electroplating an article with silver, name the electrolyte used. [1]
1. Silver nitrate solution 2. Silver cyanide solution
3. Sodium argentocyanide solution 4. Nickel sulphate solution
Question 31
Three solutions P, Q and R have pH value of 3.5, 5.2 and 12.2 respectively. State which one of these is
a strong alkali. [1]
1. P 2. Q 3. R 4. Both P and Q
Question 32
The substance that releases hydronium ions as the only positive ion when dissolved in water is known
as [1]
1. An acid 2. A base 3. An Alkali 4. Chemical bond
Question 33
Which of the following is generally true? [1]
1. Atomic size increases from left to right across a period.
2. Ionization potential increases from left to right across a period.
3. Electron affinity increases on going down a group.
4. Electronegativity increases on going down a group.
Question 34
Al3+ , Cu2+ , Na1+, Zn2+ ions are present in aqueous solution, such that the concentration of ions is same.
Write the decreasing order of discharge of ions. [1]
1. Al3+ < Cu2+ < Na1+< Zn2+ 2. Cu2+ < Al3+< Na1+ < Zn2+
3. Al3+ < Na1+ < Cu2+ < Zn2+ 4. Cu2+ < Zn2+< Al3+ < Na1+

Question 35
Find the percentage mass of water in washing soda crystals Na2CO3.10H2O [1]
1. 286% 2. 180% 3. 62.9% 4. 200%
Question 36
Calculate the molecular formula of a compound whose empirical formula is CH and vapour density
is 13. [C = 12, H = 1] [1]
1. C2H2 2. C4H8 3. C3H6 4. C5H10
Question 37
In the table given below H does not represent Hydrogen. Some elements are given in their own symbol
and position in the periodic table while others are shown with a letter. [4]
Group No. 1-I A 2-IIA 13-IIIA 14-IVA 15-VA 16-VIA 17-VIIA 18-0
2nd period Li D O J Ne
3rd period A Mg E Si H K
4th period B C F G L
With reference to the above table, answer the following questions:
(a) Identify the most reactive element of the group I.
1. Li 2. Ne 3. A 4. B
(b) Identify the element from period 3 with least atomic size.
1. A 2. K 3. E 4. H
(c) Identify the noble gas of the fourth period.
1. L 2. Ne 3. J 4. K
(d) In the compound between A and H what type of bond is formed?
1. Ionic bond 2. Covalent bond 3. Coordinate bond 4. Metallic bond
ANSWERS
1. (3) 2. (1) 3. (3) 4. (2) 5. (2)
6. (4) 7. (2) 8. (3) 9. (2) 10. (4)
11. (4) 12. (1) 13. (4) 14. (2) 15. (3)
16. (4) 17. (3) 18. (1) 19. (1) 20. (3)
21. (3) 22. (1) 23. (3) 24. (3) 25. (4)
26. (2) 27. (3) 28. (1) 29. (2) 30. (3)
31. (3) 32. (1) 33. (2) 34. (4) 35. (3)
36. (1) 37. (a) (4) (b) (2) (c) (1) (d) (1)

CHEMISTRY
SCIENCE PAPER – 2
Maximum Marks: 40
Question 1
The element which has the highest ionization potential. [1]
1. Helium 2. Lithium 3. Fluorine 4. Carbon
Question 2
The number of single covalent bond and lone pair electrons in ammonia. [1]
1. 1 single bond and 2 lone pairs 2. 3 single bond and 1 lone pair
3. 2 single bond and 3 lone pairs 4. 1 single bond and 3 lone pairs
Question 3
A solution of iron(III) chloride has pH less than 7. What is the nature of the solution? [1]
1. Acidic 2. Alkaline 3. Neutral 4. None of these
Question 4
How many valence electrons are present in the valence shell of the element with atomic number 18? [1]
1. 10 2. 6 3. 2 4. 8
Question 5
Relation between molecular weight and vapour density. [1]
1. Molecular weight = 2 × V.D 2. Molecular weight = V.D/2
3. Molecular weight = V.D 4. Molecular weight × V.D = 2
Question 6
A compound X consists of only molecules. Choose the correct statement from the options given below
to identify the property of compound X. [1]
1. A crystalline hard structure
2. A low melting point and low boiling point
3. An ionic bond
4. A strong force of attraction between its molecules
Question 7
Which of the following hydroxides is not an alkali? [1]
1. Copper hydroxide 2. Ammonium hydroxide
3. Calcium hydroxide 4. Magnesium hydroxide

Question 8
A formula which shows the simplest whole number ratio [1]
1. Molecular weight 2. Empirical formula 3. Vapour density 4. Molar mass
Question 9
An element Z has atomic number 16. Write the formula of the compound formed between Z and
hydrogen. [1]
1. HZ 2. H2Z4 3. HZ2 4. H2Z
Question 10
The salt in solution gives a dirty green precipitate with sodium hydroxide solution and a white precipitate
with barium chloride solution is [1]
1. Iron(II) chloride 2. Iron(III) sulphate 3. Iron(II) sulphate 4. Iron(III) chloride
Question 11
A substance which turns moist starch iodide paper blue. [1]
1. Lead carbonate 2. Chlorine 3. Copper nitrate 4. Magnesium sulphate
Question 12
An element in period 3 whose electron affinity is zero. [1]
1. Neon 2. Sulphur 3. Argon 4. Sodium
Question 13
The relative molecular mass of this compound is 168, so what is its molecular formula? [1]
1. C2H4Cl2 2. CHCl 3. CH2Cl 4. C2H2Cl4
Question 14
Select the ion in each case, that would get selectively discharged from the aqueous mixture of the ions
listed below: [1]
1. SO4 2–
2. NO3
–
3. OH –
4. CO3 2–
Question 15
A compound in which shared pair of electrons are unequally distributed between the two atoms is
known as [1]
1. Non-polar covalent compound 2. Polar covalent compound
3. Coordinate compound 4. Electrovalent compound
Question 16
A chloride which forms a precipitate that is insoluble in excess of ammonium hydroxide. [1]
1. Calcium chloride 2. Ferrous chloride 3. Ferric chloride 4. Copper chloride
Question 17
The electrolyte used for electroplating an article with silver. [1]
1. Aqueous solution of nickel sulphate 2. Aqueous copper (II) sulphate
3. Molten lead bromide 4. Aqueous solution of Silver argento cyanide
Question 18
A yellow monoxide that dissolves in hot and concentrated alkali. [1]
1. Lead hydroxide 2. Lead oxide 3. Magnesium oxide 4. Calcium oxide
Question 19
Gelatinous white precipitate soluble in excess of ammonium hydroxide. [1]
1. Calcium hydroxide 2. Magnesium hydroxide
3. Zinc hydroxide 4. Lead hydroxide
Question 20
An alkaline earth metal. [1]
1. Potassium 2. Calcium 3. Lead 4. Copper

Question 21
Atomic weight of chlorine is 35.5. What is its vapour density? [1]
1. 71 2. 32 3. 35.5 4. 70
Question 22
Name the product formed at the cathode during the electrolysis of aqueous copper (II) sulphate solution
using copper electrodes. [1]
1. Sulphate ions 2. Hydroxide ions 3. Water 4. Copper metal
Question 23
When fused lead bromide is electrolysed it is observed: [1]
1. A silver grey deposit at anode and a reddish brown deposit at cathode.
2. A silver grey deposit at cathode and a reddish brown deposit at anode.
3. A silver grey deposit at cathode and reddish brown fumes at anode.
4. A silver grey fumes at anode and reddish brown fumes at cathode.
Question 24
Choose the correct answer from the options given below: [1]
Ionisation potential increases over a period from left to right because:
1. Atomic radius increase and nuclear charge increases.
2. Atomic radius decreases and nuclear charge decreases.
3. Atomic radius increases and nuclear charge decreases.
4. Atomic radius decreases and nuclear charge increases.
Question 25
Identify the property from the following that is not exhibited by ionic compounds. [1]
1. Solubility in water 2. Conduction of electricity in molten state
3. Conduction of electricity in solid state 4. High melting point
Question 26
A metal that evolves a gas which burns with a pop sound when boiled with alkali solution. [1]
1. Lead 2. Zinc 3. Calcium 4. Magnesium
Question 27
A chocolate brown oxide which becomes colourless on addition of hot caustic soda solution. [1]
1. Lead (IV) oxide 2. Zinc oxide 3. Calcium oxide 4. Magnesium oxide
Question 28
The ions which impart acidic properties to an aqueous solution of hydrogen chloride. [1]
1. Hydronium 2. Hydroxyl ion 3. Chlorine 4. Hydrogen
Question 29
Metals lose electrons during ionization – this change can be called: [1]
1. Reduction 2. Oxidation 3. Redox 4. Displacement
Question 30
The metal oxide which can react with an acid as well as an alkali. [1]
1. Copper (II) oxide 2. Calcium oxide 3. Aluminium oxide 4. Silver oxide
Question 31
A solid non-metal belonging to the third period has atomic number [1]
1. 8 2. 10 3. 15 3. 19
Question 32
During the electrolysis of copper sulphate solution, the mass of the anode generally remains [1]
1. Same 2. Decreases 3. Increases 4. None of these
Question 33
Which of the following is correct? [1]
1. The metal to be plated on the article is placed at the cathode.
2. The metal to be plated on the article is placed at the anode.
3. For electroplating high amount of electricity is supplied for a longer time.
4. All are correct statement.
Question 34
If an element A belongs to period 3 and Group II, then it will have: [1]
1. 3 shells and 2 valence electrons 2. 2 shells and 3 valence electrons
3. 3 shells and 3 valence electrons 4. 2 shells and 2 valence electrons
Question 35
The acid which contains four hydrogen atoms [1]
1. Sulphuric acid 2. Acetic acid 3. Nitric acid 4. Phosphoric acid
Question 36
The salt solution which does not react with ammonium hydroxide is: [1]
1. Zinc nitrate 2. Lead nitrate 3. Magnesium nitrate 4. Calcium nitrate
Question 37
Four elements A, B, C, D of the same period have the following atomic numbers. [4]
A = 12, B = 17, C = 18, D = 11
(a) Which element has the lowest electron affinity?
1. A 2. B 3. C 4. D
(b) Which element has the highest electron affinity?
1. A 2. B 3. C 4. D
(c) Which element has the largest atomic size?
1. A 2. B 3. C 4. D
(d) Type of bond formed between D and B.
1. Covalent bond 2. Electrovalent bond 3. Coordinate bond 4. None of these
ANSWERS
1. (1) 2. (2) 3. (1) 4. (4) 5. (1)
6. (2) 7. (1) 8. (2) 9. (4) 10. (3)
11. (2) 12. (3) 13. (4) 14. (3) 15. (2)
16. (3) 17. (4) 18. (2) 19. (3) 20. (2)
21. (3) 22. (4) 23. (3) 24. (4) 25. (3)
26. (2) 27. (1) 28. (4) 29. (2) 30. (3)
31. (3) 32. (2) 33. (2) 34. (1) 35. (2)
36. (4) 37. (a) (4) (b) (2) (c) (4) (d) (1)

CHEMISTRY
SCIENCE PAPER – 2
Maximum Marks: 40
Question 1
The element in period 2 having the smallest atomic size. [1]
1. Neon 2. Lithium 3. Oxygen 4. Fluorine
Question 2
The type of bond present in a chlorine molecule is a _______ [1]
1. Double covalent bond 2. Single covalent bond
3. Triple covalent bond 4. Coordinate bond
Question 3
Methyl orange turns _________ when added to ammonia solution. [1]
1. Pink 2. Yellow 3. Orange 4. Colourless
Question 4
What will be the observation when silver nitrate solution is added to hydrochloric acid? [1]
1. Dirty green precipitate is formed 2. Curdy white precipitate is formed
3. Reddish brown precipitate is formed 4. Pale yellow precipitate is formed
Question 5
Which substance gets oxidised in the following reaction? [1]
4Na + O2 → 2Na2O
1. Na2O 2. O2 3. Na 4. None of these
Question 6
It is the amount of energy required to remove an electron from the outermost shell of an isolated gaseous
atom. [1]
1. Electronegativity 2. Ionisation potential
3. Electron affinity 4. None of these
Question 7
An element has atomic number 16. It belongs to [1]
1. Period 2, group II 2. Period 3, group VIA
3. Period 2, group 0 4. Period 3, group 0

Question 8
A pair of electrons which is not shared with other atom. [1]
1. Ionic bond 2. Hydrogen bond 3. Lone pair 4. Valence electrons
Question 9
When a metallic atom becomes anion? [1]
1. It loses electron and is oxidised. 2. It gains electrons and is reduced.
3. It gains electrons and is oxidised. 4. It loses electrons and is reduced.
Question 10
An acid which contains four hydrogen atoms but is monobasic. [1]
1. Sulphuric acid 2. Acetic acid 3. Hydrochloric acid 4. Nitric acid
Question 11
Compounds which liberate hydrogen sulphide gas when treated with acid. [1]
1. Aluminium sulphide 2. Copper sulphate 3. Zinc sulphide 4. Sodium sulphide
Question 12
The ‘n’ of CBr3 molecule is 2. Then, what is the molecular formula? [1]
1. C3Br8 2. C2Br6 3. C3Br9 4. C2Br5
Question 13
The formula of the compound formed between the alkaline earth metal and halogen of period 3. [1]
1. NaCl 2. Calcium oxide 3. MgCl2 4. NaBr
Question 14
What happens when ammonium hydroxide solution is added to iron (II) sulphate solution? [1]
1. Yellow precipitate is formed 2. Dirty green precipitate is formed
3. Gelatinous precipitate is formed 4. Reddish brown precipitate is formed
Question 15
Observe the diagram given below and identify the electrode which is oxidising electrode. [1]
A B
1. Electrode A 2. Electrode B
3. Electrode A and B 4. None of these
Question 16
P, Q, R, S are four elements having electronic configuration 2, 8, 3 ; 2, 8, 7 ; 2, 8, 5 ; 2, 8, 2 respectively.
The element with highest metallic character is [1]
1. P 2. Q 3. R 4. S

Question 17
A metal article is to be electroplated with silver. The electrolyte selected is sodium argentocyanide. Choose
the correct reaction from the following taking place at the cathode. [1]
1. Ag – 1e– → Ag+ 2. Ag+ + 1e– → Ag 3. Ag2+ + 1e– → 2Ag 4. Ag+ – 1e– → Ag

Question 18
The vapour density of a gas A is four times that of B. If the molecular mass of B is M, then molecular
mass of A is [1]
1. M 2. 4M 3. M/4 4. 2M
Question 19
The element in period 3 which does not form an oxide. [1]
1. Argon 2. Silicon 3. Chlorine 4. Magnesium
Question 20
Anhydrous Iron (III) chloride is stored in closed containers because: [1]
1. It is efflorescent in nature 2. It is deliquescent in nature
3. It is highly volatile 4. It evaporates
Question 21
A particular solution contains molecules and ions of the solute so it is a: [1]
1. Redox 2. Weak acid 3. Strong acid 4. Salt solution
Question 22
Which of the following is incorrect about electro–refining of copper? [1]
1. Cathode is pure copper rod.
2. Anode is impure copper block.
3. Electrolyte is copper sulphate solution, acidified with sulphuric acid.
4. Anode consists of both copper metal and its impurities.
Question 23
The non-metal in the period 3 having valency of 1. [1]
1. Gallium 2. Chlorine 3. Beryllium 4. Phosphorus
Question 24
The molecule of hydroxyl ions that one molecule of a base gives on dissociation in water [1]
1. Acidity 2. Basicity 3. Neutral 4. None of the above
Question 25
Percentage of calcium in calcium carbonate is [Ca = 40 , C = 12, O = 16] [1]
1. 48 2. 40 3. 36 4. 30

Question 26
Gas liberated at the anode during electrolysis of water. [1]
1. Hydrogen 2. Ammonia 3. Oxygen 4. Carbon dioxide
Question 27
The conditions necessary for electroplating are given below. Choose the condition which is not correct.
[1]
1. The article to be electroplated is placed at the cathode.
2. The AC current is used during electroplating.
3. Low current for a longer time is used.
4. The metal to be plated on the article is always made the anode.
Question 28
Which of the following properties do not match with the elements of the halogen family? [1]
1. They have seven electrons in their valence shell.
2. They are highly reactive chemically.
3. They are metallic in nature.
4. They are diatomic in their molecular form.
Question 29
Bonding in this molecule can be explained using coordinate bond. [1]
1. Carbon tetrachloride 2. Hydrogen chloride 3. Hydrogen 4. Ammonium chloride
Question 30
In the periodic table alkali metals are placed in which group? [1]
1. 1 2. 11 3. 17 4. 18
Question 31
Which of the following is not a typical property of covalent compound? [1]
1. Low melting point.
2. Conducts electricity in the molten and in aqueous solution state.
3. They are soluble in organic solvents.
4. They undergo ionisation.
Question 32
The figure given below represents the experiment carried out between conc. Sulphuric acid and sodium
chloride, which react with each other to form HCl gas. Blue litmus paper was brought near the mouth
of the delivery tube to check the presence of HCl acid but no change is observed in the colour of the
litmus paper because: [1]
Litmus paper
HCl gas
Delivery tube
Cork
Test tube
Conc. H2SO4
NaCl
1. Litmus paper used is dry.
2. Litmus paper used is moist.
3. Litmus paper does not change its colour in an acid.
4. Litmus paper was kept very close to the mouth of the delivery tube.
Question 33
Arrange the following elements in the order of their decreasing metallic character: [1]
Na, Si, Cl, Mg, Al
1. Cl > Si > Al > Mg > Na 2. Na > Mg > Al > Si > Cl
3. Na > Al > Mg > Cl > Si 4. Al > Na > Si > Ca > Mg
Question 34
Which of the following salt will give acidic solution when dissolved in water? [1]
1. Ammonium chloride 2. Sodium chloride
3. Sodium carbonate 4. Potassium chloride
Question 35
Identify the weak electrolyte from the following. [1]
1. Sodium chloride solution 2. Dilute hydrochloric acid
3. Dilute sulphuric acid 4. Aqueous acetic acid
Question 36
60 g of compound on analysis gave 24 g Carbon, 4 g of Hydrogen and 32 g of Oxygen. The empirical
formula of the compound is [1]
1. C2H4O2 2. CH2O2 3. C2H2O2 4. CH2O
Question 37
State the correct answer for changes in properties of elements on moving left to right across a period.
[4]
(a) Non-metallic character of elements:
1. Decreases 2. Increases 3. Remain the same 4. Depends on period
(b) The electronegativity
1. Decreases 2. Remain the same
3. Depends on number of valence electrons 4. Increases
(c) The ionization potential
1. Goes up and down 2. Decreases 3. Increases 4. Remain the same
(d) Atomic size
1. Decreases 2. Increases
3. Sometimes increases or decreases 4. Remain the same
ANSWERS
1. (4) 2. (2) 3. (2) 4. (2) 5. (3)
6. (2) 7. (2) 8. (3) 9. (1) 10. (2)
11. (3) 12. (2) 13. (3) 14. (2) 15. (1)
16. (4) 17. (2) 18. (2) 19. (1) 20. (2)
21. (2) 22. (4) 23. (2) 24. (1) 25. (2)
26. (3) 27. (2) 28. (3) 29. (4) 30. (1)
31. (2) 32. (1) 33. (2) 34. (1) 35. (4)
36. (4) 37. (a) (2) (b) (4) (c) (3) (d) (1)

CHEMISTRY
SCIENCE PAPER – 2
Maximum Marks: 40
Question 1
Which of the following elements would lose an electron easily? [1]
1. Mg 2. K 3. Na 4. Ca
Question 2
The compound which does not contain COVALENT bond is [1]
1. CCl4 2. K2S 3. HCl 4. H2O
Question 3
A white ppt soluble in dil. hydrochloric acid. [1]
1. Silver nitrate 2. Silver chloride 3. Sodium carbonate 4. Sodium sulphate
Question 4
An element X has mass number 40 and contains 21 neutrons in its atom. To which group of the periodic
table does it belong? [1]
1. Group 1 2. Group 4 3. Group 2 4. Group 3
Question 5
The maximum number of covalent bonds by which the two atoms can be bonded to each other is [1]
1. Four 2. Three 3. Two 4. None of these
Question 6
Pb(NO3)2 + 2NaOH → 2NaNO3 + Pb(OH)2
The colour of the above precipitate is [1]
1. Dirty green precipitate 2. Reddish brown precipitate
3. Pale yellow precipitate 4. Chalky white precipitate
Question 7
The molecular weight of a compound is 30. What is its molecular formula? [1]
1. C2H2 2. CH3 3. C2H3 4. C2H6
Question 8
Three elements B, Si and Ge are [1]
1. Metals 2. Non-metals 3. Metalloids 4. None of these
Question 9
The formula of the hydroxide of the element having electronic configuration 2, 8, 2. [1]
1. Ca(OH)2 2. Mg(OH)2 3. KOH 4. NaOH
Question 10
Which of the following does not conduct electricity? [1]
1. Molten NaOH 2. Molten KOH 3. Solid NaCl 4. Aqueous NaCl
Question 11
A metallic chloride insoluble in excess of NH4OH is ______ [1]
1. MgCl2 2. PbCl2 3. CaCl2 4. ZnCl2
Question 12
A hydrocarbon contains 82.8% carbon. If its vapour density is 29, find its molecular formula. [1]
1. CH3 2. C4H10 3. C2H5 4. C4H6
Question 13
State the reaction taking place at the cathode during electrolysis of molten lead bromide. [1]
Battery Ammeter
Steel rod
Graphite rod
(Cathode)
(Anode)
Silical crucible
Molten PbBr2
1. Pb2+ + 2e– → Pb 2. Pb2+ + 1e– → Pb 3. Pb2+ + 1e– → Pb2+ 4. Pb2+ – 2e– → Pb

Question 14
Choose the incorrect statement.
The electrolytic cell used during electrolysis of molten lead bromide is made up of Silica because [1]
1. It is non-reactive. 2. It cannot withstand high temperature.
3. It is non conductor of electricity. 4. It can withstand high temperature.
Question 15
Element ‘P’ which loses three electrons to form a cation belong to [1]
1. Group IA 2. Group IIA 3. Group III A 4. Group IVA
Question 16
Identify the cation present in salt solution ‘P’ that produces a reddish brown precipitate when NaOH is
added to it. [1]
1. Fe 3+
2. Fe
2+
3. Ca
2+
4. Cu 2+
Question 17
Method used for the preparation of Calcium carbonate. [1]
1. Neutralization by action of dil. acid on Insoluble base.
2. Neutralization by action of dil. acid on soluble base.
3. Precipitation by double decomposition.
4. Displacement reaction.
Question 18
Pale blue precipitate can be obtained from NH4OH when the salt solution contains: [1]
1. Cation of alkaline earth metal in period 4 2. Cation of lower valency of iron
3. Cation of a blue vitriol 4. Cation of alkali metal in period 3
Question 19
Calculate the empirical formula of a compound whose molecular formula is C8H6O4 and empirical formula
weight is 83. [ C = 12, H = 1, O = 16 ] [1]
1. C4H3O2 2. CHO2 3. C2H4O2 4. C6H10O6

Question 20
Element ‘X’ forms a chloride with the formula XCl2, which is a solid with high melting point.
X would most likely be in the same group of the periodic table as: [1]
1. Si 2. Mg 3. Al 4. Na
Question 21
An atom X has 2, 8, 7 electrons in its shell. It combines with Y having 1 electron in its valence shell.
What type of bond will be formed between X and Y? [1]
1. Covalent bond 2. Coordinate bond 3. Ionic bond 4. None of these
Question 22
The deliquescent salt ‘P’ turns yellow on dissolving in water and gives a reddish brown precipitate with
sodium hydroxide solution. [1]
1. Magnesium chloride 2. Iron chloride 3. Iron sulphate 4. Lead chloride
Question 23
Which one of the following is a strong electrolyte? [1]
1. Ammonium hydroxide 2. Calcium hydroxide 3. Sodium hydroxide 4. Magnesium hydroxide
Question 24
Electrodes made of copper, nickel and silver are known as _______electrodes. [1]
1. Inert 2. Active 3. Passive 4. None of these
Question 25
Which of these belong to the same period? [1]
Element A B C
Atomic number 2 10 5
1. A, B 2. B, C 3. C, A 4. A, B and C
Question 26
Empirical formula of a compound is XY2. If the empirical formula weight is equal to its vapour density,
calculate the molecular formula of the compound. [1]
1. XY2 2. XY4 3. X2Y4 4. X2Y2
Question 27
Carbon belongs to the second period and Group 14. Silicon belongs to the third period and Group 14.
If the atomic number of carbon is 6, the atomic number of silicon is [1]
1. 7 2. 14 3. 24 4. 16
Question 28
The extreme range of colour on the pH scale varies from: [1]
1. Green to Red 2. Green to Violet 3. Red to Violet 4. Orange to Indigo
Question 29
Which one of the following statement is not correct about the trends in the properties of the elements
of a period on going from left to right? [1]
1. The oxides become more acidic.
2. The elements become less metallic.
3. There is an increase in the number of valence electrons.
4. The atoms lose their electrons more easily.
Question 30
A bond formed by a shared pair of electrons with both electrons coming from the same atom. [1]
1. Ionic bond 2. Covalent bond 3. Coordinate bond 4. None of these

Question 31
The percentage composition of a gas is: [1]
Nitrogen 82.35% ; Hydrogen 17.64%. Find the empirical formula of the gas. [ N = 14, H = 1]
1. NH4 2. NH3 3. N2H4 4. N2H3
Question 32
The elements A, B and C belong to group 1, 14 and 17 respectively of the periodic table. Which two
elements will form ionic compounds? [1]
1. A and B 2. A and C 3. B and C 4. None of these
Question 33
Ions formed when proton is removed from water. [1]
1. Hydronium ion 2. Hydroxyl ion 3. Protium 4. Hydride ion
Question 34
A salt is dissolved in water. The pH of this salt solution was found to be 7 by measuring the pH with
a universal indicator paper. The salt is most likely to be [1]
1. Na2CO3 2. NH4Cl 3. CH3COONa 4. KCl
Question 35
On heating copper sulphate crystals , CuSO4.H2O, anhydrous sulphate (6.4 g) was left. Write the formula
of the crystalline sulphate. [1]
1. CuSO4.10H2O 2. CuSO4.5H2O 3. MgSO4.5H2O 4. CaSO4.5H2O
Question 36
The element M is in the group 13 of the periodic table, the formula for its oxide is [1]
1. MO 2. M2O3 3. M3O2 4. None of these
Question 37
Compound X consists of molecules.
Choose the correct answer from the statements given below: [4]
(a) The type of bonding in X will be:
1. Ionic 2. Electrovalent 3. Covalent 4. Molecular
(b) X is likely to have a:
1. low melting point and high boiling point 2. high melting point and low boiling point
3. low melting point and low boiling point 4. high melting point and high boiling point
(c) In the liquid state, X will:
1. become ionic 2. be an electrolyte
3. conduct electricity 4. does not conduct electricity
(d) The type of bond formed in Ammonium.
1. covalent bond 2. electrovalent bond 3. lone pair 4. coordinate bond
ANSWERS
1. (2) 2. (2) 3. (3) 4. (1) 5. (2)
6. (4) 7. (4) 8. (3) 9. (2) 10. (3)
11. (2) 12. (2) 13. (1) 14. (2) 15. (3)
16. (1) 17. (3) 18. (3) 19. (1) 20. (2)
21. (3) 22. (2) 23. (3) 24. (2) 25. (2)
26. (3) 27. (2) 28. (3) 29. (4) 30. (3)
31. (2) 32. (2) 33. (2) 34. (4) 35. (2)
36. (2) 37. (a) (3) (b) (1) (c) (4) (d) (4)

SCIENCE (52)
BIOLOGY
SCIENCE Paper - 3
CLASS X
There will be one paper of two hours duration of 80 marks and (ii) Transpiration - process and significance. Ganong’s
Internal Assessment of practical work carrying 20 marks. potometer and its limitations. The factors affecting
The paper will be divided into two sections, Section I (40 marks) rate of transpiration. Experiments on transpiration.
and Section II (40 marks). A brief idea of guttation and bleeding.
Section I (compulsory) will contain short answer questions on • Concept of transpiration and its importance to plants.
the entire syllabus. • Experiments related to transpiration:
Section II will contain six questions. Candidates will be required (a) Loss in weight of a potted plant or a leafy shoot
to answer any four of these six questions. in a test tube as a result of transpiration.
1. Basic Biology (b) Use of cobalt chloride paper to demonstrate unequal
(i) Cell Cycle and Cell Division. rate of transpiration in a dorsiventral leaf.
Cell cycle – Interphase (G1, S, G2) and Mitotic phase. • Adaptations in plants to reduce transpiration.
Cell Division: • A brief idea of guttation and bleeding.
• Mitosis and its stages. (iii) Photosynthesis: the process and its importance to life
• A basic understanding of Meiosis as a reduction in general; experiments to show the necessity of light,
division (stages not required). carbon dioxide, chlorophyll, formation of starch and
• A brief idea of homologous chromosomes and crossing release of oxygen.
over leading to variations. The process and significance of Photosynthesis.
• Significance and major differences between mitotic and • The internal structure of chloroplast to be explained
meiotic division. to give an idea of the site of light and dark reactions.
(ii) Structure of chromosome. • O verall balanced chemical equation to represent
Basic structure of chromosome with elementary photosynthesis.
understanding of terms such as chromatin, chromatid, • Introduction of the terms “photochemical” for light
gene structure of DNA and centromere. phase and “biosynthetic” for dark phases.
(iii) Genetics: Mendel’s laws of inheritance. • Light reaction - activation of chlorophyll followed by
• The three laws of Mendel. photolysis of water, release of O2 , formation of ATP
• Monohybrid cross – phenotype and genotype. Mendel’s (photophosphorylation) and NADPH.
experiments on inheritance taking 7 pairs of contrasting • Dark reaction - only combination of hydrogen released
features of garden pea. by NADP with CO 2 to form glucose. (detailed
• T he following terms to be covered: gene, allele, equations are not required).
heterozygous, homozygous, dominant, recessive, • Adaptations in plants for photosynthesis.
mutation, variation, phenotype, genotype, homologous • Experiments with regard to the factors essential for
chromosomes, autosomes, sex chromosomes. photosynthesis; emphasis on destarching and the steps
• Inheritance in Humans – A few characters and their involved in starch test.
traits. Tongue rolling as an example of inheritance. 3. Human Anatomy and Physiology
2. Plant Physiology (i) Circulatory System: Blood and lymph, the structure
(i) A bsorption by roots, imbibition, diffusion and and working of the heart, blood vessels, circulation
osmosis; osmotic pressure, root pressure; turgidity of blood (only names of the main blood vessels
and flaccidity; plasmolysis and de-plasmolysis; the entering and leaving the heart, liver and kidney will
absorption of water and minerals; active and passive be required). Lymphatic system.
transport (in brief); The rise of water up to the xylem; • Composition of blood (structure and functions of RBC,
Forces responsible for ascent of sap. WBC and platelets).
• Understanding of the processes related to absorption • Brief idea of tissue fluid and lymph.
of water by the roots. • Increase in efficiency of mammalian red blood cells due
• Characteristics of roots, which make them suitable for to absence of certain organelles; reasons for the same.
absorbing water. • A brief idea of blood coagulation.
• Structure of a single full-grown root hair. • Structure and working of the heart along with names
• A general idea of Cohesive, Adhesive forces and of the main blood vessels entering and leaving the
transpirational pull. heart, the liver and the kidney.
• Experiments to show the conduction of water through • Concept of systole and diastole; concept of double
the xylem. circulation.
• Brief idea of pulse and blood pressure. Hormones secreted by the following glands: Pancreas:
•
• Blood vessels: artery, vein and capillary to be explained insulin and glucagon; Thyroid: only thyroxin; Adrenal
with the help of diagrams to bring out the relationship gland: Cortical hormones and adrenaline; Pituitary:
between their structure and function. growth hormone, tropic hormones, ADH and oxytocin,
• Brief idea of the lymphatic organs: spleen and tonsils. TSH, ACTH, Gonado Tropic Hormones.
• ABO blood group system, Rh factor. Effects of hypo secretion and hyper secretion of
•
• Significance of the hepatic portal system. hormones.
(ii) Excretory System: A brief introduction to the excretory INTERNAL ASSESSMENT OF PRACTICAL WORK
organs; parts of the urinary system; structure and The practical work is designed to test the ability of the
function of the kidneys; blood vessels associated with candidates to make an accurate observation from specimens
kidneys; structure and function of nephron. of plants and animals.
• A brief idea of different excretory organs in the human
body. PLANT LIFE
• External and internal structure of the kidney; (i) Observation of permanent slides of stages of mitosis.
• Parts of the urinary system along with the blood (ii) Experiments demonstrating:
vessels entering and leaving the kidney; functions • Diffusion: using potassium permanganate in water.
of various parts of the urinary system (emphasis on • Osmosis: Thistle Funnel experiment and potato
diagram with correct labelling). A general idea of the osmoscope.
structure of a kidney tubule/ nephron. • Absorption: using a small herbaceous plant.
• A brief idea of ultra-filtration (emphasis on the (iii) Experiments on Transpiration:
diagram of malpighian capsule); selective reabsorption • demonstration of the process using a Bell Jar.
and tubular secretion in relation to the composition • demonstration of unequal transpiration in a
of blood plasma and urine formed. dorsiventral leaf using cobalt chloride paper.
(iii)
Nervous System: Structure of Neuron; central, • demonstration of uptake of water and the rate of
autonomous and peripheral nervous system (in brief); transpiration using Ganong’s potometer.
brain and spinal cord; reflex action and how it differs (iv) Experiments on Photosynthesis:
from voluntary action. • to show the necessity of light, carbon dioxide and
Sense organs – Eye: Structure, functions, defects and chlorophyll for photosynthesis.
corrective measures: Ear: Parts and functions of the • to show the release of O2 during photosynthesis using
ear. hydrilla / elodea.
• Parts of a neuron. ANIMAL LIFE
• Various parts of the external structure of the brain (i) Identification of the structures of the urinary system,
and its primary parts: Medulla Oblongata, Cerebrum, heart and kidney (internal structure) and brain (external
Cerebellum, Thalamus, Hypothalamus and Pons; their view) through models and charts.
functions. (ii) The identification of different types of blood cells under
• Reference to the distribution of white and gray matter a microscope.
in Brain and Spinal cord. (iii) Identification of the internal structure of the Ear and
• Voluntary and involuntary actions – meaning with Eye (Through models and charts).
examples. (iv) Identification and location of selected endocrine glands:
• Diagrammatic explanation of the reflex arc, showing Adrenal, Pancreas, Thyroid and Pituitary glands with
the pathway from receptor to effector. the help of a model or chart.
• A brief idea of the peripheral and autonomic nervous EVALUATION
system in regulating body activities. The practical work/project work are to be evaluated by the
• Differences between natural and acquired reflex. subject teacher and by an External Examiner. (The External
• External and Internal structure and functions of the Examiner may be a teacher nominated by the Head of the
Eye and Ear and their various parts. school, who could be from the faculty, but not teaching the
• A brief idea of stereoscopic vision, adaptation and subject in the relevant section/class. For example, a teacher
accommodation of eye. of Biology of Class VIII may be deputed to be an External
• Defects of the eye (myopia, hyperopia hypermetropia, Examiner for Class X, Biology projects.)
presbyopia, astigmatism and cataract) and corrective The Internal Examiner and the External Examiner will assess
measures (diagrams included for myopia and hyperopia the practical work/project work independently.
only) Award of marks (20 Marks)
• The course of perception of sound in human ear. Subject Teacher (Internal Examiner) 10 marks
• Role of ear in maintaining balance of the body. External Examiner 10 marks
(iv) Endocrine System: General study of the following The total marks obtained out of 20 are to be sent to the
glands: Adrenal, Pancreas, Thyroid and Pituitary. Council by the Head of the school.
Endocrine and Exocrine glands. The Head of the school will be responsible for the online
• Differences between Endocrine and Exocrine glands. entry of marks on the Council’s CAREERS portal by the
• Exact location and shape of the endocrine glands in due date.
the human body.
BIOLOGY
SCIENCE Paper – 3
Maximum Marks: 40
SECTION I (15 Marks)

Question 1
Name the following by choosing the correct option: [5]
(a) A pair of corresponding chromosomes of the same shape and size but one from each parent.
1. Autosomes 2. Sex chromosomes
3. Homologous chromosomes 4. Analogous chromosomes
(b) The factor that does not affect the rate of transpiration.
1. Intensity of light 2. Velocity of wind
3. Carbon dioxide 4. Oxygen
(c) Movement of molecules of a substance from their higher concentration to lower concentration when
they are in direct contact.
1. Diffusion 2. Endosmosis 3. Imbibition 4. Active transport
(d) The complex molecule consisting of a DNA strand and a core of histones.
1. Centrosome 2. Nucleotide 3. Nucleosome 4. Chromosome
(e) The solvent used to dissolve the chlorophyll pigment while testing a leaf for starch.
1. Soda lime 2. Carbolic acid 3. Methylated spirit 4. Water
Question 2
Complete the following statements by choosing the appropriate option for each blank: [5]
(a) During Meiosis daughter cells are formed.
1. 4 2. 2 3. 8 4. 6
(b) Wooden doors swell up during the rainy season due to .
1. Osmosis 2. Diffusion 3. Imbibition 4. Transpiration
(c) The semi permeable membrane in a plant cell is the .
1. Cell wall 2. Cell membrane 3. Tonoplast 4. None of the above
(d) Guttation takes place through .
1. Stomata 2. Lenticels 3. Cuticle 4. Hydathodes
(e) A plant with variegated leaves is .
1. Coleus 2. Lotus 3. Peepal 4. Mango
Question 3
Choose the correct answer from each of the four options given below: [5]
(a) The pressure exerted by the cell contents on the cell wall:
1. Turgor pressure 2. Partial pressure 3. Wall pressure 4. Osmotic pressure
4 ICSE Semester 1 Biology

(b) The cell component visible only during cell division:
1. Chromosome 2. Chromoplast 3. Chromatin 4. Centriole
(c) Marine fish when placed under tap water bursts, because of:
1. Endosmosis 2. Exosmosis 3. Diffusion 4. Plasmolysis
(d) The sites of dark reaction of photosynthesis:
1. Grana 2. Fret 3. Stroma 4. Stoma
(e) The alternative forms of the same gene occupying the same position on homologous chromosomes:
1. Chromatids 2. Alleles 3. Autosomes 4. Centromere
SECTION II (15 Marks)

Question 4
Explain the following terms: [5]
(a) Osmosis
1. Movement of water from their lower concentration to their higher concentration through a semi permeable
membrane.
2. Movement of solutes from their lower concentration to their higher concentration through a semi
permeable membrane.
3. Movement of water from their higher concentration to their lower concentration through a semi permeable
membrane.
4. Movement of water from their higher concentration to their lower concentration through a freely
permeable membrane.
(b) Photolysis
1. Splitting of water molecules into hydrogen ions and oxygen in the presence of light in grana.
2. Splitting of water molecules into hydrogen ions and oxygen in the presence of light in the stroma.
3. Splitting of water molecules into hydrogen ions and oxygen in the absence of light in grana.
4. Splitting of water molecules into hydrogen ions and oxygen in the absent of light in stoma.
(c) Law of segregation
1. The two members of a pair of factors join during the formation of gametes.
2. The two members of a pair of factors separate during the formation of gametes.
3. The two chromosomes of a pair of factors separate during the formation of gametes.
4. The two members of a pair of factors separate during the process of germination.
(d) Guttation
1. The loss of water in the form of water droplets from the surface of the leaf.
2. The loss of water in the form of water droplets through the stomata.
3. The loss of water in the form of water vapour along the leaf margin.
4. The loss of water in the form of water droplets along the leaf margin.
(e) Active transport
1. Passage of water from its lower to higher concentration through a cell membrane without any expenditure
of energy.
2. Passage of ions from its lower to higher concentration through a cell membrane without any expenditure
of energy.
3. Passage of water from its lower to higher concentration through a cell membrane using energy from
the cell.
4. Passage of ions from its lower to higher concentration through a cell membrane using energy from the
cell.
Question 5
State the exact location of the following: [5]
(a) Spindle fibres
1. Between the two centrioles 2. Between the two centrosomes
3. Between chromatid and centromere 4. Between two centromeres
ICSE Semester 1 Biology 5

(b) Root hair
1. Extension of the cortex 2. Extension of epithelium
3. Extension of epidermis 4. Extension of endodermis
(c) Stomata
1. More the upper surface of dorsi ventral leaves
2. More on the lower surface of the dorsi ventral leaves
3. Both upper and lower surface of the dorsi ventral leaves
(d) Thylakoids
1. In the inner membrane of the chloroplast 2. Wall of the chloroplast
3. In the chlorophyll 4. In the stroma of the chloroplast
(e) Palisade parenchyma
1. Between the upper and lower epidermis of dicot leaves.
2. Between the upper epidermis and spongy parenchyma of dicot leaves.
3. Between the lower epidermis and spongy parenchyma of dicot leaves.
4. Between the upper and lower epidermis of monocot leaves.
Question 6
State the function of the following: [5]
(a) Stroma
1. Site of photolysis of photosynthesis 2. Site of photochemical phase of photosynthesis
3. Site of light dependent phase of photosynthesis 4. Site of light independent phase of photosynthesis
(b) Guard cells
1. Regulate the closing of stomata 2. Regulate the opening and closing of stomata
3. Regulate the opening of stomata 4. Regulate the process of photosynthesis
(c) Xylem
1. Translocation of food from the leaves to the other parts of the plant.
2. Conduction of food.
3. Conduction of water and food.
4. Conduction of water and minerals from the root to the other parts of the plant.
(d) Chromosomes
1. The carriers of heredity 2. The controlling centre of the cell
3. The site for various chemical reactions 4. Intracellular digestion.
(e) Hydathode
1. Helps in transpiration 2. Helps in guttation
3. Helps in imbibition 4. Helps in transportation of water
SECTION III (10 Marks)

Question 7
Given below is a diagram representing a stage during mitotic cell division. Answer the questions that
follow.[5]

(a) Identify the stage
1. Telophase 2. Prophase 3. Metaphase 4. Anaphase
(b) Label part marked ‘X’
1. Centriole 2. Centrosome 3. Centromere 4. Chromatid
(c) Name the stage that follows the one shown here
1. Interphase 2. Anaphase 3. Telophase 4. Metaphase
(d) What is the diploid number of chromosomes shown in the diagram?
1. 6 2. 2 3. 4 4. 8
(e) Mention one important feature of this stage
1. Nucleolus reappears 2. Nuclear membrane reappears
3. Nuclear membrane disappears 4. Chromosomes align on the equator
Question 8
Observe the diagram given below and answer the questions. [5]
(a) Identify the cell organelle

1. Mitochondria 2. Lysosome 3. Ribosome 4. Chloroplast
(b) Label the parts marked A, B & C
A. 1. Granum 2. Stroma 3. Fret 4. Thylakoid
B. 1. Granum 2. Stroma 3. Fret 4. Thylakoid
C. 1. Granum 2. Stroma 3. Fret 4. Thylakoid
(c) The unit of light absorbed by chlorophyll is_____
1. Proton 2. Photon 3. Electron 4. Neutron
ANSWERS
SECTION I
1. (a) (3) (b) (4) (c) (1) (d) (3) (e) (3)
2. (a) (4) (b) (3) (c) (2) (d) (4) (e) (1)
3. (a) (1) (b) (1) (c) (1) (d) (3) (e) (2)
SECTION II
4. (a) (3) (b) (1) (c) (2) (d) (4) (e) (4)
5. (a) (1) (b) (3) (c) (2) (d) (4) (e) (2)
6. (a) (4) (b) (2) (c) (4) (d) (1) (e) (2)
SECTION III
7. (a) (2) (b) (3) (c) (4) (d) (3) (e) (3)
8. (a) (4) (b) A. (2) B. (1) C. (4) (c) (2)

BIOLOGY
SCIENCE Paper – 3
Maximum Marks: 40

Question 1
Name the following by choosing the correct option:[5]
(a) The structure which helps to attach the chromosomes to the spindle fibre.
1. Centrosome 2. Centromere 3. Chromatids 4. Centrioles
(b) The mineral element used in stomatal regulation:
1. Sodium 2. Calcium 3. Potassium 4. Iron
(c) The tissue that acts as the path in ascent of sap:
1. Phloem 2. Epidermis 3. Cambium 4. Xylem
(d) The type of cell division that helps in regeneration of lost parts in higher animals:
1. Meiosis 2. Amitosis 3. Mitosis 4. All of the above.
(e) The part of the chloroplast, where chlorophyll is present.
1. Grana 2. Stroma
3. Spongy mesophyll cells 4. Palisade cells
Question 2
Complete the following statements by choosing the appropriate word for each blank.[5]
(a) Water absorption by roots is the result of
1. Exosmosis 2. Endosmosis 3. Plasmolysis 4. None of the above.
(b) The oxygen evolved during photosynthesis comes from .
1. Glucose 2. Carbon dioxide 3. Water 4. Sunlight
(c) The phenotypic ratio of monohybrid cross in F2 generation is .
1. 1 : 3 2. 3 : 1 3. 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 4. 1 : 2 : 1
(d) If a homozygous tongue roller male, marries a heterozygous tongue roller female, then
% of their children will be tongue rollers.
1. 50% 2. 25% 3. 0% 4. 100%
(e) Cytokinesis in plant cell is .
1. Cenripetal 2. Centrifugal 3. Vertical 4. Oblique
Question 3
Choose the correct answer from each of the four options given below:[5]
(a) A true breeding plant with purple flowers is crossed with a pure plant producing white flowers.
Allele for purple colour of flower is dominant. After selfing the plants of first filial generation, the
proportion of plants producing white flowers in the progeny would be:
1 1 2 3
1. 2. 3. 4.
16 4 4 4

(b) Ascent of sap in plants was demonstrated by:
1. potometer experiment 2. Moll’s Half Leaf experiment
3. Girdling experiment 4. Osmoscope experiment
(c) Which of the following is not related to mitotic telophase?
1. Nuclear membrane is formed 2. Formation of two daughter nuclei
3. Chromosomes become distinct 4. Nucleoli reappear.
(d) The end products of photochemical phase of photosynthesis are:
1. Carbon dioxide and water 2. Glucose and oxygen
3. ATP, NADH and oxygen 4. ATP, glucose and water
(e) Maximum guttation takes place when:
1. Humidity decreases
2. Wind velocity increases
3. Root pressure is low and transpiration rate is high
4. Root pressure is more and transpiration rate is less

Question 4
Explain the following terms:[5]
(a) Imbibition:
1. A special type of diffusion where absorption of water takes place by hydrophilic substances/colloids
2. The pressure by which the water enters the cell
3. A special type of diffusion where absorption of water takes place by hydrophobic substances.
4. It is the absorption of water through a semi-permeable substance.
(b) Hybrid:
1. An organism that has genes that are similar for a trait.
2. An organism that has genes that are different for a trait.
3. An organism that has multiple genes for a particular trait.
4. An organism that has no genes for a particular trait.
(c) Photophosphorylation
1. It is the process of converting ADP to ATP by adding one phosphate group.
2. It is the process of converting ATP to ADP by adding one phosphate group in the presence of light.
3. It is the process of converting ADP to ATP by adding one phosphate group in the presence of light.
4. It is the process of converting ADP to ATP by removing one phosphate group in the presence of light.
(d) Monohybrid ratio
1. It is the kind of ratio obtained by crossing individuals with two pairs of contrasting characters.
2. It is the kind of ratio obtained by crossing individuals on the basis of three contrasting characters.
3. It is the kind of ratio obtained by crossing two similar traits of a single character.
4. It is the kind of ratio obtained by crossing two different traits of a single character.
(e) Karyokinesis
1. It is all the cytoplasmic changes that result in the division of the cytoplasm during cell division.
2. It is all the nuclear changes that result in the division of the nucleus during cell division.
3. It is the series of events that leads to the duplication of DNA in a cell.
4. It is the series of events that leads to the division of chloroplast.

Question 5
(a) Astral rays
1. arise from the cytoplasm in the animal cell. 2. arise from the centriole in the animal cell.
3. arise from the centrosome in the plant cell. 4. arise from the centromere in the plant cell.
(b) Guard cells
1. surrounding the stomatal pore in plant epidermis 2. outer wall of the plant epidermal cell
3. inner boundary of the plant cortex 4. surrounding the stomatal pore in plant cortex
(c) Stroma lamellae
1. Connecting the stroma, in the grana of the chloroplast
2. Connecting the discs of thylakoids of grana
3. Connecting the two membrane of chloroplast
4. Connecting the grana, in the stroma of the chloroplast
(d) Hydathodes
1. prsent on the tip of vein of leaf 2. present on the base of vein of leaf
3. present on the upper surface of leaf 4. present on barks of other stem
(e) Telomere
1. at the subterminal part of the chromosomes 2. at the midpoint of the chromosomes
3. at the free ends of the chromosomes 4. surrounding the entire chromosomes
Question 6
State the function of the following:[5]
(a) Histones
1. Help in attaching spindle fibre 2. Help in coiling and packaging of DNA
3. Help in synthesizing proteins 4. Help in uncoiling of DNA threads
(b) Plasma membrane of Root hair cell
1. Controls passage of water only
2. Controls passage of water and solutes into the cell
3. Controls passage of water and solutes into and out of the cell
4. Controls movements of cell contents out of the cell
(c) Methylated spirit in starch test
1. Absorbent of oxygen 2. Absorbent of carbon dioxide
3. Solvent of chlorophyll 4. Destarching the leaves
(d) Cobalt chloride paper
1. indicator of carbon dioxide 2. indicator of moisture
3. indicator of starch 4. indicator of magnesium
(e) Reservoir of potometer
1. helps to introduce air bubble 2. helps to control movement of air bubble
3. helps to record the rate of transpiration 4. helps to restart the experiment

Question 7
Given below are diagrams to indicate stages of cell division. Study them and answer the questions that follow:
[5]
A
B
C
1 2
3
(a) Label the parts A, B and C
1. A – Cell plate, B – Spindle fibre, C – Chromatid
2. B – Cell plate, C – Spindle fibre, A – Chromosome
3. A – Chromatid, B – Spindle fibre, C – Cell plate
4. A – Nuclear membrane, B – Chromosome, C – Cell plate
(b) How many chromosomes are visible in the above diagram?
1. 4 pairs 2. 4 pairs 3. 8 pairs 4. 8
(c) Name the stages 1, 2 and 3.
1. Stage 1 – Prophase, Stage 2 – Metaphase, Stage 3 – Telophase
2. Stage 2 – Prophase, Stage 3 – Anaphase, Stage 1 – Metaphase
3. Stage 1 – Prophase, Stage 2 – Metaphase, Stage 3 – Anaphase
4. Stage 2 – Anaphase, Stage 1 – Metaphase, Stage 3 – Prophase
(d) State one identifying characteristic of Stage 3.
1. Chromosomes have moved to the opposite poles.
2. Sister chromatids have moved to the opposite poles.
3. Chromosomes are at the equatorial plane.
4. Centromere has not split into two.
(e) How is the part C formed in the cell?
1. By furrowing of cytoplasm.
2. By alignment of chromosomes at the equator.
3. By the aggregation of droplets from golgi complex and microtubules.
4. By the disappearance of nuclear membrane.
Question 8
Study the diagram given below and answer the questions given:[5]
Swelling
Adventitious Bark Removed

Roots

(a) What is the aim of this experiment?
1. To show that upward conduction of sap occurs through xylem.
2. To show that downward conduction of food occurs through phloem.
3. To show that absorption of water occurs through roots.
4. To show that downward conduction of water occurs through phloem.
(b) Why does the stem above the ring swell up?
1. Due to the accumulation of food synthesised by leaves.
2. Due to bacterial degradation.
3. Due to reverse osmosis.
4. Due to accumulation of pure water.
(c) The leaves remain turgid
1. Phloem is intact 2. Xylem is intact 3. Cells are flaccid 4. None of these
(d) Which vascular tissue in the stem is located deeper internally?
1. Xylem 2. Phloem
3. Both xylem and phloem 4. Neither xylem nor phloem
(e) The method used in this experiment is called
1. Passive transport 2. Phloem loading
3. Radioactive tracer technique 4. Ring-barking
ANSWERS
SECTION I
1. (a) (2) (b) (3) (c) (4) (d) (3) (e) (1)
2. (a) (2) (b) (3) (c) (2) (d) (4) (e) (2)
3. (a) (2) (b) (3) (c) (3) (d) (3) (e) (4)
SECTION II
4. (a) (1) (b) (2) (c) (3) (d) (4) (e) (2)
5. (a) (2) (b) (1) (c) (4) (d) (1) (e) (3)
6. (a) (2) (b) (3) (c) (3) (d) (2) (e) (4)
SECTION III
7. (a) (3) (b) (2) (c) (3) (d) (2) (e) (3)
8. (a) (2) (b) (1) (c) (2) (d) (1) (e) (4)

BIOLOGY
SCIENCE Paper – 3
Maximum Marks: 40

Question 1
Name the following by choosing the correct option. [5]
(a) The condition in which both alleles are similar.
1. Heterozygous 2. Homozygous 3. Hybrid 4. Phenotype
(b) The stage in Interphase, where DNA replication occurs
1. G1 Phase 2. G2 Phase 3. S Phase 4. G0 Phase
(c) The recessive trait for pod shape in Garden pea.
1. Round 2. Wrinkled 3. Inflated 4. Constricted
(d) The components of nucleoside.
1. Nitrogenous base, phosphate and sugar 2. Nitrogenous base and sugar
3. Phosphate and sugar 4. Nitrogenous base and phosphate
(e) The scientist who first studied chromosomes in animals.
1. Gregor Mendel 2. Charles Darwin 3. Walther Flemming 4. R.H. Whittaker
Question 2
Complete the following statements by choosing the appropriate word for each blank. [5]
(a) The 23rd pair of chromosomes in humans are called
1. Autosomes 2. Allosomes 3. Centrosomes 4. None of these
(b) A plant cell kept in a certain solution got plasmolysed.
The nature of the solution is .
1. Hypotonic 2. Isotonic 3. Hypertonic 4. Dilute
(c) A negative result, while testing a leaf for starch is a colouration.
1. Blue-black 2. Blue 3. Black 4. Brown
(d) The force of attraction that keeps the water molecules together during ascent sap is
1. Cohesion 2. Adhesion 3. Diffusion 4. None of these
(e) An individual with morphologically similar sex chromosomes is a .
1. Male 2. Female
3. Both male and female 4. Neither male nor female
Question 3
Choose the correct answer from each of the four options given below. [5]
(a) What will be the number of chromosomes in a cell in which karyokinesis is completed but cytokinesis
has not taken place, if the parent cell has 8 chromosomes.
1. 4 2. 8 3. 16 4. 32
(b) In the experiments of photosynthesis, the purpose of destarching is to:
1. make the leaves colourless
2. kill the cells of the leaf
3. convert glucose into starch
4. avoid a false positive test when leaf is tested for presence of starch
(c) Which process increases oxygen level in the atmosphere?
1. Respiration 2. Photosynthesis 3. Metabolism 4. All of these
(d) Some plants show wilting of their leaves at noon even if the soil is well watered, because
1. rate of transpiration is more than rate of absorption
2. rate of absorption is more than the rate of transpiration
3. rate of transpiration is equal to the rate of absorption
4. rate of transpiration is very low
(e) Which of these factors do not affect the rate of photosynthesis?
1. Quality of light 2. Intensity of light
3. Oxygen concentration 4. Carbon dioxide concentration

Question 4
(a) Antitranspirants
1. Hormones that reduce transpiration
2. Physical or chemical agents that reduce or stop transpiration
3. Chemical substances that increase transpiration
4. Physical or chemical agents that do not have any effect on rate of transpiration.
(b) Law of Dominance
1. Out of two pairs of characters present together, one is dominant and the other is recessive.
2. Out of a pair of contrasting characters present together, both are able to express themselves equally.
3. Out of a pair of contrasting characters present together, only one is able to express itself, while the
other remains suppressed.
4. Out of two pairs of characters present together, both are dominant.
(c) Polymerisation
1. Small molecules combining chemically to produce a very large molecule.
2. Several glucose molecules combining to form a starch molecule.
3. Several similar or different monomer molecules combining to form a polymer.
4. All of the above
(d) Semi-permeable membrane
1. A membrane that allows the passage of solute as well as solvent molecules across them.
2. A membrane that allows the passage of water and some selected solutes across them.
3. A membrane that allows only water molecules and no solute to pass across them.
4. A membrane that allows neither solvent nor solute molecules to pass through them.
(e) Deplasmolysis
1. The phenomenon in which a plasmolysed cell regains its turgid state when placed in pure water.
2. The phenomenon in which a plasmolysed cell loses its turgid state when placed in water.
3. The phenomenon in which a turgid cell loses its state when placed in concentrated solution.

Question 5
State the exact location of [5]
(a) Homologous chromosomes
1. In the cytoplasm 2. In the nucleus
3. In the mitochondria 4. None of the above
(b) Mesophyll cells
1. Outside the upper and lower epidermis of leaf. 2. On the upper and lower epidermis of leaf.
3. In between the upper and lower epidermis of leaf. 4. Only on the upper epidermis of leaf.
(c) Germinal cells
1. In the ovary and testis in animals. 2. In the ovary, and anther in plants.
3. Neither (1) nor (2) 4. Both (1) and (2)
(d) Sunken stomata
1. Found in a depression on the lower epidermis of leaves of xerophytic plants.
2. Found in a depression on the upper epidermis of leaves of xerophytic plants.
3. Found in a depression on both the epidermis of leaves of xerophytic plants.
4. Found in a depression on upper epidermis of stem of terrestrial plants.
(e) Hydrogen bonds in DNA
1. Between the sugar and phosphate
2. Between the sugar and nitrogenous base
3. Between the purine and pyrimidine bases
4. Between adenine and thyonine and between Guanine and Cytosine
Question 6
(a) Thick cuticle
1. enhances diffusion of water vapour during transpiration
2. permits excessive loss of water by transpiration
3. prevents excessive loss of water by transpiration
4. prevents exchange of respiratory gases
(b) Xylem tissue in leaf veins
1. Transports food from roots to all parts of plants
2. Transports water and minerals from petiole throughout lamina
3. Transports food from the petiole throughout the lamina
4. Transports water from the petiole throughout the lamina
(c) Tonoplast of vacuole
1. Maintain turgor pressure inside the plant
2. Maintain balance of nutrients and ions inside and out of the vacuole.
3. Maintains the structure of vacuole.
4. All of the above.
(d) Centrosomes
1. Initiates and regulates cell division 2. Forms spindle fibres with the help of asters
3. Provides a supportive framework for the cell 4. Both (1) and (2) but not (3)
(e) Subsidiary cells in stomata
1. Produce ATP 2. Facilitates breaking down of water molecule.
3. Facilitates guard cell movement 4. Facilitates fixation of carbon dioxide.
Question 7
Study the diagram and answer the questions: [5]
Highest rate of photosynthesis
Photosynthesis
reached at 0–0.2% conc. of CO2
Rate of
Rate of Photosynthesis
Stabilised
0–0.2% 0–0.2%
CO2 Conc. CO2 Conc.
S’
Increasing Light Intensity
(a) Which two factors are affecting the rate of photosynthesis? (as shown in the diagram)
1. Light intensity and chlorophyll content. 2. Carbon dioxide concentration and water
3. Light intensity and carbon dioxide concentration 4. Light intensity and water
(b) Name two internal factors that can affect the rate of photosynthesis.
1. Structure of leaf and chlorophyll content 2. Structure of leaf and light intensity
3. Protoplasm and light intensity 4. Structure of leaf and carbon dioxide concentration
(c) How can the rate of photosynthesis be increased beyond the point S?
1. By increasing light intensity 2. By increasing carbon dioxide concentration
3. By decreasing light intensity 4. By decreasing carbon dioxide concentration
(d) Which law is followed here?
1. Moll’s Law of limiting factors 2. Hoff’s Law of limiting factors
3. Mendel’s Law of Inheritance 4. Blackman’s Law of limiting factors
(e) Why does photosynthesis rate fall and stops after 40°C?
1. Enzymes are destroyed. 2. Diffusive capacity of carbon dioxide is reduced.
3. Dehydration of protoplasm occurs. 4. None of the above.
Question 8
Study the diagram and answer the questions that follow: [5]
Spring Balance
Leafy Shoot
Oil
Water
(a) Name the phenomenon being demonstrated.

1. Absorption 2. Transpiration 3. Photosynthesis 4. Respiration

(b) What is the purposes of putting oil in the test tube?
1. To make the apparatus air tight
2. To measure the water lost from the surface
3. To avoid surface evaporation of water
4. To facilitate surface evaporation of water
(c) Why is the spring balance attached to the set up?
1. To measure the change in weight of the set up
2. To measure the loss in weight of the set up
3. To measure the difference in weight in the beginning and at the end of the experiment.
(d) What can be the control set up of the this experiment?
1. Similar set up without the plant.
2. Exactly similar as the experimental set up.
3. Similar set up, but without sprint balance.
(e) Define the process named in (a).
1. Loss of water as water droplets from the leaves.
2. Loss of water as water vapour from the aerial parts of the plant.
3. Loss of water as water droplets from the aerial parts of the plant.
4. Loss of water from the stem.
ANSWERS
SECTION I
1. (a) (2) (b) (3) (c) (4) (d) (2) (e) (3)
2. (a) (2) (b) (3) (c) (4) (d) (1) (e) (2)
3. (a) (3) (b) (4) (c) (2) (d) (1) (e) (3)
SECTION II
4. (a) (2) (b) (3) (c) (4) (d) (3) (e) (1)
5. (a) (2) (b) (3) (c) (4) (d) (1) (e) (4)
6. (a) (3) (b) (2) (c) (4) (d) (4) (e) (3)
SECTION III
7. (a) (3) (b) (1) (c) (2) (d) (4) (e) (1)
8. (a) (2) (b) (3) (c) (4) (d) (1) (e) (2)

BIOLOGY
SCIENCE Paper – 3
Maximum Marks: 40

Question 1
Name the following by choosing the correct option: [5]
(a) The procedure of arranging human chromosomes in order of their size and shape.
1. Genotype 2. Phenotype 3. Karyotype 4. Karyogram
(b) The nitrogenous base present in RNA but not in DNA
1. Thymine 2. Uracil 3. Cytosine 4. None of these
(c) The genotype of the parent, who is heterozygous for tongue rolling.
1. rr 2. RR 3. Rr 4. None of these
(d) The number of paired homozygous chromosomes in human male.
1. 22 2. 23 3. 44 4. 46
(e) The most abundant pigment in the green plants.
1. Carotene 2. Melanin 3. Xanthophyll 4. Chlorophyll
Question 2
Complete the following statements by choosing the appropriate word for each blank: [5]
(a) Plasmolysis identifies the process of .
1. Imbibition 2. Diffusion 3. Osmosis 4. Active transport
(b) Full form of NADP is .
1. Nicotinamide adenosine dinucleotide phosphate 2. Nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide phosphate
3. Nicotinamide adenosine dexynucleotide phosphate 4. Nicotinamide adenine dexynitro phosphate
(c) Guttation occurs due to increased and transpiration.
1. root pressure, increased 2. root pressure, decreased
3. wall pressure, decreased 4. wall pressure, increased
(d) Mutation: sudden change in genes :: Allele :
1. variant form of gene 2. alternate form of gene
3. one of two or more versions of a gene 4. All of the above
(e) is the price for photosynthesis.
1. Absorption 2. Respiration 3. Transpiration 4. Circulation
Question 3
Choose the correct answer from each of the four options given below: [5]
(a) Arrange in logical sequence
Catterpillar, Snake, Owl, Frog, Green leaves
1. Frog, Green leaves, Catterpillar, Snake Owl 2. Green leaves, Catterpillar, Frog, Snake, Owl
3. Green leaves, Catterpillar, Snake, Frog, Owl 4. Green leaves, Owl, Frog, Snake, Catterpillar
(b) Which of the following statements are not true?
(i) Exudation of water from injured part of a plant is called bleeding.
(ii) Drooping of leaves of Mimosa plant is an example of turgoy movement.
(iii) Mendel was an Indian monk.
1. Only (ii) 2. Both (i) and (ii)
3. Both (i) and (iii) 4. Only (iii)
(c) A cross between plants with green pods (GG) and plants with yellow pods (gg) will produce in the
F1 generation plants that are
1. 100% GG 2. 100% gg 3. 100% Gg 4. 50% Gg
(d) Deficiency of metal ‘Z’ causes lack of formation of chlorophyll in plant. Identify metal Z.
1. Zinc 2. Copper 3. Manganese 4. Magnesium
(e) Photosynthesis is a redox reaction because
1. Both water and carbon dioxide is reduced.
2. Carbon dioxide is reduced to Glucose and water is oxidised to oxygen.
3. Carbon dioxide is oxidised to oxygen and water is reduced.
4. Carbon dioxide is oxidised to Glucose and water is reduced to oxygen.

Question 4
Explain the following terms. [5]
(a) Photochemical phase
1. The chemical reactions of photosynthesis that is independent of light.
2. The chemical reactions of photosynthesis that occurs in the dark.
3. The chemical reactions of photosynthesis that is initiated by light and requires pressure of light.
4. The chemical reactions of photosynthesis that helps in the addition of inorganic phosphate.
(b) Food chain
1. A simple, graphic way of showing a food relationship between organisms.
2. The simple relation of ‘Eat and be eaten’.
3. The sequence of transfer of matter and energy in the form of food.
(c) Transpiration pull
1. Force that helps in drawing water upwards from roots to leaves.
2. Suction force that helps in upward movement of sap through xylem tissues.
3. Force that works against gravity to help in the upward movement of water and minerals from roots
to leaves.
(d) Carbon Cycle
1. The process by which carbon dioxide is fixed from the atmosphere by animlas and returned by plants.
2. The process by which carbon atoms continually travel from the atmosphere to the Earth and then back
to atmosphere.
3. The series of chemical reactions in which oxygen is removed from the air by living organisms and used
for metabolic reactions and then returned.
4. The cycle of thermonuclear reactions that occur in the Earth.
(e) Telophase
1. The stage of cell division where chromatides move to the opposite poles.
2. The phase of cell division in which chromatides move to the equatorial plane.
3. The phase of cell division in which chromatides form chromatin fibres, nuclear membrane and nucleolus
reappear.
4. The phase where contraction of spindle fibres occur.
Question 5
(a) Substomatal space
1. Space surrounding grana of chloroplast. 2. Openings present on epidermis of leaf.
3. Cavity located immediately proximal to stoma 4. Palisade mesophyll intercellular space.
(b) Pulvinus
1. Joint like thickening at the base of plant leaf.
2. Structure present at the base of the petiole or where the leaflets of compound leaf attached at rachis.
3. The stalk of the leaf.
4. The expanded base of the leaf.
(c) Chloroplast Envelope
1. Internal membrane, folded, surrounding, thylakoids.
2. Double membrane with outer and inner layers, surrounding the chloroplast.
3. Forming the lamellae in between the grana.
4. The space between the inner and outer membrane.
(d) Endodermis
1. On the upper and the lower surface of leaf.
2. Single celled outermost layer of the root.
3. Innermost layer of cartex, adjacent to pericycle.
4. Unspecialized cells between epidermis and vascular tissue.
(e) Cell plate
1. Structure that develops in the middle plane of the dividing cells in plants.
2. Indentation of the cell surface in the dividing animal cell.
3. Rigid layer surrounding a cell, located outside plasma membrane.
4. Layer that separates the interior of the cell from outside environment.
Question 6
(a) Potometer
1. Used to measure rate of water uptake by shoot.
2. Used to measure transpiration rate in laboratory.
3. Used to measure rate of water uptake by a leafy shoot which is equal to the water lost through transpiration.
(b) Leaf spines
1. Provide support to the plant. 2. Store water to be used in long dry periods.
3. Reduced loss of water by transpiration. 4. Fix the plant firmly to the soil.
(c) Histone proteins
1. helps in coiling and packaging of RNA. 2. helps in coiling and packaging of DNA.
3. helps in carrying information from DNA. 4. helps in carrying information fron RNA.
(d) Vacuole in root hair
1. contains cell sap at a higher concentration, so helps in endosmosis of water.
2. increases the surface area of absorption.
3. helps in fixing plant to the soil.
4. contains sap at a lower concentration, so helps in exosmosis of water.
(e) Punnett Square
1. Used to predict the genotype of a particular cross.
2. Used to determine the probability of an offspring having a particular genotype.
3. Used to determine the outcomes of crossing different genotypes.
Question 7
Two healthy plants of same kind were placed in the dark for 24 hours. Then they were kept in the
sunlight for four hours as shown in the diagram below. Then a leaf was taken from each plant and the
chlorophyll was removed from it. [5]
Light Light
Ball jar
Potassium
hydroxide sol.
Greased
glass sheet
Plant – A Plant – B
(a) How was the chlorophyll removed?
1. By boiling the leaf of water. 2. By boiling the leaf in oil.
3. By boiling the leaf in methylated spirit. 4. By boiling the leaf in milk.
(b) What is the purpose of keeping potassium hydroxide solution?
1. To absorb the carbon dioxide from the atmospheric air.
2. To absorb carbon dioxide from the air trapped inside the ball jar.
3. To absorb sunlight from inside the ball jar.
4. To make the leaves starch free.
(c) Why are greased sheets necessary for this experiment?
1. To prevent the escape of chlorophyll 2. To block the stomata
3. To seal the apparatus 4. To make the apparatus airtight
(d) What is the purpose of plant B in the experiment?
1. It is the control set up. 2. It is used to compare the results of the experiment.
3. It is used to verify the condition of the experiment. 4. All of the above.
(e) Give the equation of the biochemical process occurring here.
enzymes sunlight
1. C6H12O6 + 6O2 6CO2 + 6H2O + 38ATP 2. 6CO2 + 12H2O C6H12O6 + 6H2O + 6O2↑
chlorophyll
sunlight enzymes
3. 6CO2 + 6O2 C6H12O6 + 6H2O 4. C6H12O6 2C2H5OH + 2CO2
chlorophyll
Question 8
A T
T A
G C
T A
A T
C G
GC GC
TA TA
AT
AT
CG CG
AT AT
GC
GC
TA
TA
CG
(a) Name the process shown in the diagram.
1. Transcription 2. Translocation 3. DNA replication 4. RNA replication
(b) What do the letters A, T, C, G stand for?
1. A – Adenine T – Thymine C – Cytosine G – Guanine
2. A – Adenine T – Thiamine C – Cysteine G – Guanine
3. A – Adenosine T – Triphosphate C – Cytoxine G – Guanosine
4. A – Adenine T – Thymine C – Cysteine G – Glycine
(c) What type of bonds exist between A, T, C, G?
1. A and T triple hydrogen bond
2. G and C double hydrogen bond
3. A and T double hydrogen bond, G and C triple hydrogen bond
4. A and C double hydrogen bond, G and T triple hydrogen bond
(d) In which phase of Interphase does it occur?
1. In the G1 phase 2. In the S-phase 3. In the G2 phase 4. In the G0 phase
(e) In a human cell, where does this process occur?
1. In the cytoplasm 2. In the vacuole
3. In the nucleus 4. In the cell membrane
ANSWERS
SECTION I
1. (a) (3) (b) (2) (c) (3) (d) (1) (e) (4)
2. (a) (3) (b) (2) (c) (2) (d) (4) (e) (3)
3. (a) (2) (b) (3) (c) (3) (d) (4) (e) (2)
SECTION II
4. (a) (3) (b) (4) (c) (4) (d) (2) (e) (3)
5. (a) (3) (b) (2) (c) (2) (d) (3) (e) (1)
6. (a) (4) (b) (3) (c) (2) (d) (1) (e) (4)
SECTION III
7. (a) (3) (b) (2) (c) (4) (d) (4) (e) (2)
8. (a) (3) (b) (1) (c) (3) (d) (2) (e) (3)

BIOLOGY
SCIENCE Paper – 3
Maximum Marks: 40

Question 1
Name the following by choosing the correct option. [5]
(a) The pentose sugar present in DNA.
1. Ribose 2. Ribulose 3. Deoxyribose 4. Deoxyglucose
(b) Substances that act as imbibants.
1. Hydrophobic 2. Hydrophilic 3. Sulphur 4. Hydrocolloid
(c) Type of leaf having stomata on both surfaces
1. Compound leaf 2. Simple leaf 3. Isobilateral leaf 4. Dorsiventral leaf
(d) Experiment to demonstrate transpiration
1. Bell jar method 2. Cobalt chloride screen test
3. Four leaf experiment 4. All of the above
(e) Aerating pores formed in the bark of older stem.
1. Hydathodes 2. Lenticles 3. Stomata 4. None of these
Question 2
Complete the following statements by choosing the appropriate word for each blank: [5]
(a) The light that is maximally absorbed by chlorophyll is
1. Green 2. Red and blue 3. Orange and green 4. Green and yellow
(b) The type of transpiration that can be controlled by the plant itself is
1. cuticular 2. lenticular 3. stomatal 4. all of these
(c) Stomata of the plant open, due to
1. Decreased K+ concentration in guard cells 2. Decreased Ca+ concentration in guard cells
3. Increased K+ concentration in guard cells 4. Increased H+ concentration in guard cells
(d) A potted plant with variegated leaves was taken to prove is necessary for
photosynthesis.
1. Chlorophyll 2. Light 3. Carbon dioxide 4. Temperature
(e) Chromosome structure can be observed best during .
1. Prophase 2. Metaphase 3. Anaphase 4. Telophase
Question 3
Choose the correct answer from the options given below. [5]
(a) What pressure causes water molecules to cross the semi-permeable membrane?
1. Turgor pressure 2. Wall pressure 3. Osmotic pressure 4. Root pressure

(b) Measuring water uptake : Ganong’s potometer :: Demonstrating unequal transpiration : Measuring
water update :
1. Darwin’s potometer 2. Ganong’s potometer 3. Bubble potometer 4. None of these
(c) Find the odd one from the terms given below:
Egg membrane, parchment paper, rubber sheet, cellophase
1. Rubber sheet 2. Parchment paper 3. Cellophase 4. None of these
(d) Find the incorrect matching pair:
1. Utilisation of carbon dioxide – Dark phase 2. Evolution of oxygen – Light phase
3. Thickness of the leaf – Decrease photosynthesis 4. Form in which food is transported – Glucose
(e) Which of the following statements is NOT TRUE?
1. Carbon is an essential element of all body tissues.
2. The water droplets seen on the edges of banana, leaves in early morning is due to bleeding.
3. If the egg is fused with a Y-bearing sperm a boy is born.
4. Tiger and Lion, both have 19 pairs of chromosomes.

Question 4
(a) Phenotype
1. The observable characteristics of an organism
2. The observable traits of an organism
3. An organism’s physical appearance that is genetically controlled
(b) Phenotypic trait
1. It is a alternative form of a gene. 2. It is the alternative form of a character.
3. It is the difference created due to crossing over. 4. It is the genetic constitution of an organism.
(c) Osmoscope
1. It is an instrument for measuring turgor pressure. 2. It is an instrument for measuring transpiration.
3. It is an instrument for demonstrating osmosis. 4. It is an instrument for measuring respiration.
(d) Isotonic solution
1. The solution with lower solute concentration compared to cell sap.
2. The solution with equal solute concentration as that of cell sap.
3. The solution with higher solute concentration than cell sap.
4. The solution that causes endosmosis in cells.
(e) Passive transport
1. The transport of substances from high concentration to low concentration without spending energy.
2. The transport of substances against concentration gradient.
3. The transport of substances from low concentration to high concentration in presence of energy.
4. The transport of substances in a bidirectional manner, in presence of energy.
Question 5
State the exact location of: [5]
(a) Mitotic cells in plants
1. Growing tips of plants 2. Meristems 3. Root tip, shoot tip 4. All of these

(b) Xylem in leaf
1. Towards the lower surface 2. Towards the upper surface
3. Among the palisade parenchyma 4. Below the epidermis
(c) Pericycle
1. Between the cortex and endodermis 2. Between the epidermis and cortex
3. Between the endodermis and stele region 4. Between xylem and phloem
(d) Hypertonic solution in a plasmolysed cell
1. Between the cell wall and cell membrane 2. Inside the vacuole
3. Inside the chloroplast 4. None of these
(e) Cytosol
1. Inside the nucleus.
2. Between the outer nuclear membrane and the cell membrane, surrounding the cell organelles.
3. Inside the cell membrane.
4. Between the cell wall and cell membrane.
Question 6
(a) Autosomes
1. Determines the shape of the chromosomes.
2. Determines the sex of the individual.
3. Determines general body features.
4. Determines the number of the chromosomes.
(b) Nucleolus
1. Produces ribosomes
2. Dictates ribosomes to synthesise protein
3. Participates in protein synthesis by forming and storing RNA
4. All of the above
(c) NADPH in photosynthesis
1. Helps in transferring of electron and hydrogen, for glucose formation during dark phase.
2. Provides oxidising power for anabolic reaction.
3. Acceptor of carbon dioxide.
(d) Decomposers
1. Use carbon dioxide to produce carbohydrates.
2. Breakdown organic matter to release carbon dioxide.
3. Formation of organic matter with carbon dioxide.
4. Burning down limestone to release carbon dioxide.
(e) Deep roots
1. Absorb water from lightest rainfall.
2. Cannot hold the plant firmly.
3. Penetrate very low water table and helps the xerophytic plants to derive water.

Question 7
Gas bubbles
Test tube Beaker
Water
Hydrilla
(a) What is the aim of this experiment?

1. To show that light is necessary for photosynthesis.
2. To show that carbon dioxide is essential for photosynthesis.
3. To show that chlorophyll is necessary for photosynthesis.
4. To show that oxygen is evolved during photosynthesis.
(b) What is the source of carbon dioxide for this experiment?
1. From the atmosphere, above water level.
2. Dissolved in the water inside the beaker.
3. From the plant given out by respiration.
4. Both (2) and (3)
(c) What will happen when sodium bicarbonate is added to the water?
1. Rate of evolution of oxygen will decrease.
2. Rate of evolution of oxygen will increase.
3. Rate of evolution of oxygen will be unaffected.
(d) If boiled water is used in the beaker, will there be any change in the result of the experiment?
1. No not change in the evolution of oxygen.
2. Increase in the evolution of oxygen.
3. No oxygen evolution will occur, as boiling will drive out all carbon dioxide from the water.
4. Glowing splinter will be rekindled.
(e) What are the precautions to be followed in this experiments?
1. There should not be any trapped bubbles in the water in the test tube, at the beginning.
2. The level of the thistle funnel should be below the level of water in the beaker.
3. The funnel should fit tightly at the bottom of the beaker.

Question 8
Study the cross given below and answer the questions that follow: [5]
Grandmother Grandfather
Parents BB bb
F1 generation Bb ?
Father Mother
F2 generation
bb Bb Bb bb
Child 1 Child 2 Child 3 Child 4

(a) In humans gene for blue eye (b) is recessive to gene for brown eye (B). Using the symbols given,
write the genotype of the mother.
1. BB 2. bb 3. Bb 4. None of these
(b) What is the phenotype of the grandfather?
1. Brown eyed 2. Blue eyed 3. Black eyed 4. Grey eyed
(c) What is the phenotype of the father?
1. Brown eyed 2. Black eyed 3. Blue eyed 4. None of these
(d) What is the simplest ratio of the individuals with brown eyes to those with blue eyes in the F2
generation?
1. 2 : 2 2. 2 : 1 3. 1 : 1 4. 1 : 2
(e) How many characters and how many traits have been taken into consideration in this cross?
1. 2 characters, 1 trait 2. 2 characters, 2 traits
3. 1 character, 1 trait 4. 1 character, 2 traits
ANSWERS
SECTION I
1. (a) (3) (b) (2) (c) (4) (d) (4) (e) (2)
2. (a) (2) (b) (3) (c) (3) (d) (1) (e) (2)
3. (a) (3) (b) (2) (c) (1) (d) (3) (e) (2)
SECTION II
4. (a) (4) (b) (2) (c) (3) (d) (2) (e) (1)
5. (a) (4) (b) (2) (c) (3) (d) (1) (e) (2)
6. (a) (3) (b) (4) (c) (1) (d) (2) (e) (3)
SECTION III
7. (a) (4) (b) (4) (c) (2) (d) (3) (e) (4)
8. (a) (3) (b) (2) (c) (1) (d) (3) (e) (4)

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