SET-1

AIRPLANE GENERAL
Q1. The flight crew oxygen mask EMERGENCY/ Test selector (rotary) when rotated to the EMERGENCY position
(a) Supplies 100% oxygen under positive pressure at all cabin altitudes
(b) Tests the positive pressure supply to the regulator
(c) Provides a mixture of ambient air with oxygen on demand
(d) Supplies 100% oxygen only at high altitudes

Q2. Where are the logo lights located ?

a) On top of the horizontal stabilizer
b) On top of the vertical stabilizer
c) On wing tips just in front of strobe lights
d) On the top and bottom of the fuselage

Q3. Normal pressure of the flight crew oxygen system is

(a) 1850PSI
(b) 2000PSI
(c) 1500PSI
(d) 1800PSI

Q4. In case the flight deck door lock fails

(a) There is no other way to lock the door.
(b) There is a dead bolt mechanical locking system which is key-operable from cabin side. The entry
to the flight deck cannot be denied .They have the key
(c) There is a dead bolt mechanical locking system which is key-operable from cabin side. The
option to deny access to the flight deck is available to the flight deck crew even if cabin crew
have the key
(d) There is an iron rod on the flight deck side which has to be put across the door incase of electrical
door back failure

AIR SYSTEMS

Q5. In the PACK non-normal procedure, the crew selects a warmer temperature in order to

(a) Reduce cabin air outflow

(b) Reduce the workload on the unaffected pack
(c) Reduce workload on the affected air-conditioning pack
(d) Reduce air flow through the air mix valves

Q6. With the engine bleed air switch ON, how are the engine bleed air valves powered?
(a) They are AC activated and pressure operated
(b) They are DC activated and pressure operated
(c) They are pressure activated and DC operated
(d) They are pressure activated and AC operated

Q7. The amber DUAL BLEED light indicates

(a) A possible APU back pressure condition and thrust must be limited to IDLE
(b) The isolation valve is open
(c) Overpressure on the left and right bleed air system
(d) The APU bleed air switch is ON and both bleed air switches are ON

Q8. What is the position of the isolation valve when the ISOLATION VALVE switch is in the AUTO?
(a)It depends on the position of the APU bleed switch.
(b)The isolation valve is always closed.
 (c)The isolation valve automatically oscillates between open and closed position, depending upon the
pneumatic load
(d)Open if either engine BLEED air or air conditioning PACK switch positioned OFF

Q9. Isolation Valve will be closed when Isolation valve switch in Auto and
(a)Both Bleeds Sw ON and both pack switches are in AUTO or HIGH.
(b)Both bleed valves and pack valves are open
(c)Both bleed switches and APU bleed sw ON.
(d)Both bleed switches and pack switches are OFF.

Q10. APU bleed air used to start No.1 engine is

(a)Controlled by modulating shut –off valve
(b)Routed directly to the No.1 engine starter valve
(c)Routed via the No1 engine bleed air valve to the No.1 engine starter valve.
(d)None of the above is correct.

Q11. Cabin rate of Climb indicator indicates

(a)Cabin rate of climb
(b)Cabin rate of descent
(c)Both (a) and (b) are correct
(d)None of the above is correct

Q12. Right Recirculation fan operates:-

(a)In air when both pack switches are selected High
(b)On ground when both pack switches are selected High
(c)In air when one pack switch is selected High
(d)Both (b) and (c) are correct

ANTI-ICE, RAIN

Q13. Which Pitot probes and sensors are not heated?

(a) The elevator pitot probes.
(b) The static ports.
(c) The Captain’s pitot probe
(d) The First officer’s pitot probe

Q14. The Rain Removal system consists of:-

(a) Wipers and a permanent rain repellent coating on the windshields
(b) A bottled solution located behind the captain’s seat
(c) Rain repellent switches located on the forward overhead panel
(d) All the answers are correct

Q15. The wing thermal anti-ice system:-

(a) Is effective with the slats in any position but does not include the leading edge flaps.
(b) Is effective with the slats in any position and does include the leading edge flaps
(c) Is not effective with the trailing edge flaps beyond the flaps 15 degree position.
(d) All above are incorrect

Q16. With engine number 1 Bleed Switch in OFF, Engines running, Cowl Anti-ice:-
(a)Can be done when selected ON
(b)Cannot be done when Selected ON
(c)As in (a) and engine no.1 bleed switch has no function for cowl anti-ice.
(d)None above is correct.
AUTOMATIC FLIGHT

Q17. Mark the correct statement with respect to IAS/MACH Display

(a)Displays 100knots when power is first applied
(b)Display range is 50 KIAS –VMO in 1 knot increments, 0.60M-MMO in 0.01M increments
(c)Display range is 150 KIAS –VMO in 1 knot increments, 0.60M-MMO in 0.01M increments
(d)Display range is 100 KIAS –VMO in 5 knot increments, 0.60M-MMO in 0.01M increments

Q18. When VNAV switch on the MCP is pushed

 (a) VNAV switch light illuminates and pitch mode annunciates VNAV SPD, VNAV PTH.
(b) A/T mode annunciates FMC SPD,N1,RETARD or ARM
(c) IAS/MACH Display and airspeed cursors positioned to FMC commanded airspeed.
(d) All of the above are correct.

Q19. What is true about the LVL CHG

(a) If a speed mode is active when LVL CHG is engaged, this speed is retained as target airspeed.
(b) As in a & If a speed mode is not active when LVL CHG is engaged, the existing speed becomes
target airspeed.
(c) The LVL CHG mode is inhibited after glideslope capture.
(d) All of the above.

Q20. In LNAV mode

(a) The FMC controls AFDS roll to intercept and track active FMC route
(b) Active route is entered and modified through FMC CDUs
(c) Active route cannot include SIDS,STARS and instrument approaches
(d) Both a & b

Q21. If pitch is manually overridden while in ALT HOLD and control force is released within 250 feet of selected
altitude
(a) A/P pitch mode engages in ALT ACQ
(b) A/P roll modes engages in LNAV.
(c) As in a and returns to selected altitude in ALT HOLD mode
(d) None of the above

Q22. F/D modes are controlled directly from the respective FCC under certain conditions. This independent F/D
operation occurs when neither A/P is engaged in CMD, both F/D switches are ON
(a) APP mode engaged with LOC and G/S captured
(b) GA mode engaged and below 400 feet RA.
(c) TO mode engaged and below 400 feet RA
(d) Any of the above

Q23. Shortly after capturing LOC or G/S capture below 1500 feet RA
(a) The second A/P couples with the flight controls
(b) Test of the ILS deviation monitor system is performed and the G/S or LOC display turn amber and
flashes
(c) FLARE armed is annunciated and the 1 CH annunciation extinguishes
(d) All of the above and A/P go – around mode arms but is not annunciated

Q24. If both A/P are not engaged, a manual F/D only go-around is available
(a) Inflight below 2000feet RA
(b) Not in takeoff mode
(c) Both a & b
(d) None of the above

COMMUNICATIONS
Q25. The flight deck CALL light illuminates blue:
(a) Simultaneously with a single HIGH-tone chime
(b) Indicates that flight deck is being called by flight attendant or ground crew
(c) The location of the call originator is the nose wheel or attendant station.
(d) All are correct.

Q26. The Cockpit Voice Recorder (CVR) can be erased:

(a) Pushing erase button for 2 seconds and aircraft in flight.
(b) Pushing erase button for 2 seconds and aircraft in ground with parking brake ON.
(c) Pushing erase button for 2 seconds and aircraft in ground with parking brake ON or OFF.
(d) Pushing erase button for 2 seconds and aircraft in flight with parking brake ON.
 ELECTRICAL SYSTEM

Q27 . Which lights illuminate to indicate the loss of both engine driven generators?
(a) Amber TRANSFER BUS OFF lights
(b) SOURCE OFF lights
(c) Blue GEN OFF bus lights
(d) All of above

Q28. Generator drive (DRIVE) light illuminates due to

(a) IDG failure
(b) IDG failure & IDG automatics disconnected due to low oil temperature
(c) IDG failure engine shutdown and IDG disconnected drive disconnect switch
(d) Any of above

Q29. The two basic principles of operation for 737 electrical system is
(a) There is no paralleling of the AC source of power
(b) The source of power being connected to a transfer bus automatically disconnected an existing
source
(c) As in (a) & (b)
(d) There is no paralleling of the DC source of power

Q30. Amber TR unit light illuminates when

(a) In-flight TR1 fails
(b) In-flight TR2 & TR3 fails
(c) On ground TR1 or TR 2 or TR 3 fails
(d) Any of above

Q31. Amber ELEC light illuminates when

(a) In flight above 1000ft fault is detected in DC or standby power system
(b) In flight fault exist in DC power system or standby power system
(c) On ground fault exist in DC power system or standby power system
(d) On ground fault exit in AC standby bus & DC standby bus.

Q32. Select the correct statement with respect to electrical generators drive IDG
(a) Complete mechanical isolation of IDG is by integral mechanical disconnecting devices.
(b) IDG 's consist of starter generator & drive
(c) IDG’s are cooled by self contained oil system.
(d) IDG’s are cooled by fuel passing around he generator & drive

Q33. CROSS BUS TIE RELAY AUTOMATICALLY OPENS ISOLATING dc BUS 1 FROM dc BUS 2 WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING
CONDITION
(a) Bus transfer switch ion auto position or at glide slope capture during FD or autopilot ILS approach
(b) Bus transfer switch positioned off and before GS capture during FD or autopilots ILS approach
(c) Bus transfer switch positioned off or at GS capture during FD or autopilot ILS approach.
(d) None of above.

Q34. WHEN STBY POWER SWITCH IS IN AUTO POSITION AUTOMATIC SWITCHING FROM NORMAL TO ALTERNATE
POWER OCCURS IF
(a) AC transfer bus 1 is lost
(b) Dc bus 1 is lost
(c) Dc standby bus & DC bus 1 is lost
(d) Ac transfer bus 1 or DC bus 1 is lost

ENGINES
Q 35. A/T LIM indication when illuminated white indicates the following.
(a) A/T computer is not functioning properly
(b) EEC is not functioning properly.
 (c) A/T is using a degraded N1 thrust limit from the related EEC.
(d) Any of the three above.

Q36. What is thrust mode display?

(a) TMD indicates the active N1 limit reference Mode
(b) TMD can also indicate manually selected thrust limit when FMC is not functional
(c) R- TO on TMD indicates the type of reduced Take-off
(d) As given in all the above.

Q37. Thrust reverser indications indicate the following

(a) “REV” displayed amber- indicates thrust reverser is moved from the stowing position
uncommanded
(b) “REV” displayed green indicates thrust reverser is deployed.
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) “REV” displayed Red - indicates thrust reverser cannot be deployed.

Q38. What are the conditions under which engine fail (ENG FAIL) alert gets activated?
(a) Engine is below sustainable idle and engine start lever is in IDLE position.
(b) Any time engine is below 56% N2 and auto relight does not cut in
(c) Any time start lever is put to cutoff from idle in the air.
(d) When ever there is a malfunction of EGT gauge.

Q39. What is the function of Engine Start switch in “GND” position?

(a) For inflight and ground starts, arms selected igniters to provide ignition when engine start lever is
moved to idle.
(b) It opens start valve when on the ground and when in the air.
(c) It releases to off when ever EEC commands it off.
(d) All the above.

Q40. Illumination of reverser lights occurs under following conditions

(a) Isolation valve or thrust reverser control valve is not in commanded positions.
(b) One or more thrust reverser sleeves are not in commanded. position
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Auto– restow circuit has malfunctioned

Q41. The EEC provides redline over speed protection for:-

(a) N1 only in both the normal and alternate modes
(b) N2 only in both the normal and alternate modes
(c) N1 and N2 in normal mode only
(d) N1and N2 in both the normal and alternate modes

Q42. The EEC hard alternate mode thrust is:

(a) Always equal to or greater than normal mode thrust for the same lever position.
(b) Not approved for use.
(c) Always less than normal mode thrust for the same lever position.
(d) Used only for assumed temperature reduction take offs and go-around.

Q43. With the Fuel Flow switch selected to USED position, the digital display on both fuel flow Indicators:-
(a) Shows the total fuel consumed per engine since engine start.
(b) Shows the total fuel consumed per engine per hour.
(c) Shows the total fuel consumed per engine since last reset.
(d) As in (c) and after 10 sec. display automatically reverts to fuel flow

Q44. The START VALVE OPEN light (amber) indicates:-

(a) The engine starter valve is open and air is being supplied to air driven starter
(b) The engine starter valve is open irrespective of air being supplied to the air driven starter.
(c) The engine start switch is in GRD
(d) As in (a) and the light blinks when un-commanded opening of start valve is there

Q45. Cross-bleed start (X-BLD) indication:-

 (a) Displayed (Amber)-Cross-bleed air recommended for Ground start
(b) Displayed (Magenta) – Cross-bleed air recommended for inflight start
(c) Displayed (Amber) – Cross-bleed air recommended for inflight start
(d) None above is correct

APU
Q46. FUNCTIONS OF APU ARE:
(a)SUPPLIES BLEED AIR FOR ENGINE STARTING & AIR CONDITIONING SIMULTANEOUSLY.
(b)SUPPLIES BLEED AIR FOR ENGINE STARTING OR AIR CONDITIONING
(c) SUPPLIES BLEED AIR FOR ENGINE STARTING OR AIR CONDITIONING & APU GENERATOR PROVIDES
AC POWER SOURCES
(d)SUPPLIES ELECTRIC POWER FOR ENGINE STARTING ONLY.

Q47. WITH FUEL PUMPS OPERATING

(a)FUEL TO START & OPERATE COMES FROM LEFT SIDE OF FUEL MANIFOLD WITH AC PUMP OPERATING
(b)FUEL IS SUCTION FEED FROM NO.1 TANK WITH AC PUMP OPERATING.
(c)DURING APU OPERATION BLEED AIR IS USED TO PREVENT ICING.
(d)ALL OF ABOVE.

Q48. THE SOURCE OF ELECTRIC POWER TO START APU COMES FROM

(a)NO 1. TRANSFER BUS.
(b)NO 2. TRANSFER BUS
(c)NO 1. TRANSFER BUS OR AIRPLANE MAIN BATTERY
(d)NO 2. TRANSFER BUS OR AIRPLANE MAIN BATTERY.

FIRE PROTECTION SYSTEM

Q49. What is the function of (OVHT DET) overheat detector switch?
(a) In NORMAL, Loop A or B is active
(b) If one Loop is faulty, fault light does not illuminate in normal position
(c) In A or B position, selected loop is active
(d) All the above.

Q50. What is the function of Fire Warning BELL CUT OUT switch?
(a) Silences the remote APU fire warning horn
(b) Resets the system for additional warnings.
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) As given in (c) and extinguishes both Master Caution light.

Q51. Mark the correct statement with regard to Engine Fire Warning Switch in the up Position
(a) Closes fuel, hydraulic shut off valve and engine bleed valves
(b) As given in (a) and disables thrust reverser and closes spar fuel shutoff valve
(c) As given (b) and de-activates engine driven hydraulic pump LOW PRESSURE light
(d) As given in (c) and arms both discharge squibs on each engine fire extinguisher.

Q52. Mark the correct statement with regard to cargo compartment fire protection
(a) Cargo compartment is fitted with a smoke detection system.
(b) As given in (a), the system is powered by DC bus 1 and DC bus 2
(c) Cargo compartment fire extinguishing system is powered by hot battery bus.
(d) All the above.

FLIGHT CONTROLS
Q53. The speed trim system improves flight characteristics during operations with:-
(a) Low gross weight and aft centre of gravity.
(b) High thrust.
 (c) Autopilot not engaged.
(d) All the answers are correct.

Q54. The power transfer unit (PTU) provides an alternate source of power for the Auto slats systems if :-
(a) A loss of hydraulic system A pressure is sensed
(b) The hydraulic system A engine driven pump is inoperative
(c) Standby rudder power control unit fails.
(d) Loss of pressure is sensed from the higher volume system B engine driven pump.

Q55. Yaw damper inputs (main or standby) can be overridden:-

(a) Only when Yaw damper switch is OFF
(b) By trim inputs but not rudder pedal inputs
(c) By rudder pedal inputs but not trim inputs
(d) By either trim or rudder pedal inputs.

Q56. During descent from altitude, you need to decrease your airspeed by using your speed brakes. What is the
correct position for the SPEED BRAKE LEVER?
(a) ARMED
(b) FLIGHT DETENT
(c) UP.
(d) Any intermediate position.

Q57. Mach trim system:-

(a) Provides stability at mach numbers above .615.
(b) Adjusts the elevators with respect to the stabilizer as airspeed increases.
(c) The Mach trim actuator repositions the elevator feel and centering unit which adjusts the control
column neutral position.
(d) All of the answers are correct.

Q58. The rudder power control units ( PCU’s) are powered by:-
(a) System A and System B for the main rudder PCU and standby pump for the standby rudder
PCU.
(b) System A and standby pump for the main rudder PCU System B for the standby rudder PCU
(c) System B and standby pump for the main rudder PCU and system A for the standby rudder PCU.
(d) None above is correct

Q59. Mark the correct Statement with respect to stabilizer Trim Wheel.
(a)Provides for Electrical operation of Stabilizer
(b)Over rides auto pilot Stabilizer Trim only
(c)Rotates When Stabilizer is in motion
(d)Handle should be folded inside during manual operation of Stabilizer.

Q60. ‘LE FLAPS TRANSIT’ light illuminated amber indicates:-

(a)Auto Slat operation in flight
(b)During Alternate flap extension until L.E devices are fully extended and T E flaps reach flaps 10
(c)L. E. device in Transit
(d)Both (b) and (c) are correct

FLIGHT INSTRUMENTS, DISPLAYS

Q61. The CDS fault annunciation
(a) Is displayed only in flight
(b) Is displayed only on the ground
(c) It is a dispatchable fault
(d) Is displayed after the second engine starts

Q62. ROLL displayed in amber in the lower portion of the Attitude Indicator means:
(a) The airplane has exceeded 40 degrees of bank
(b) No F/D or autopilot roll mode has been engaged
(c) The Captain’s roll attitude is more than 3 degrees in error
 (d) The Captain’s and First officers roll angle display differ by more than 5 degrees

Q63. The NO VSPD flag is displayed

(a) When all V speeds are selected.
(b) When V1 or Vr has not been selected or is invalid.
(c) If the airspeed indicator is inoperative.
(d) Prior to selecting Vref.

Q64. Minimum maneuvering speed bar:

(a)Shows during the entire flight
(b)Is Inhibited on TO until first flap retraction or valid VREF entered
(c)Shows as a red and black bar at the bottom of the airspeed tape.
(d)Shows as a yellow bar on the upper side of the airspeed tape.

Q65. DFDR (Digital Flight Data Recorder) records airplane systems and flight data for:
(a) 72 hours
(b) 60 hours
(c) 25 hours
(d) Only the duration of the flight
Q66. The rising runway is displayed when localizer pointer is in view and radio altitude is less
(a) 2500feet
(b) 1500feet
(c) 500feet
(d) 200feet

Q67. The Flaps Up Airspeed Bug (green) is displayed

(a) After Zero Fuel Weight is entered in the CDU and takeoff gross weight is calculated
(b) As in (a) or after takeoff gross weight is set with the speed reference selector.
(c) After Take off Weight is entered in the CDU and Zero Fuel weight is calculated
(d) All the above are correct

Q68. In case of PFD and ND Failure

(a) Outboard PFD shifts automatically to inboard and ND shifts upper display unit.
(b) Outboard PFD shifts automatically to inboard and ND on inboard shifts to lower display unit.
(c) There is no automatic shifting of PFD from outboard and ND from inboard.
(d) Outboard PFD shifts inboard and there is no automatic shifting for ND.

FLIGHT MANAGEMENT, NAVIGATION

Q69. When airplane gross weight is not available from the FMC, the approach Ref page display will be.
(a) Flashing
(b) Blank.
(c) Box prompts.
(d) INVALID

Q70. The airplane is not certified for operations…….

(a) Above 78°15’ N or below 78°15’ S
(b) Above 73°N or below 60°S
(c) Above 82°N or below 82°S
(d) Approaching North or South pole

Q71. If a CLB1 or CLB2 derate is selected, the derate is maintained for the initial part of the climb. Thrust
gradually increases to full rated climb thrust by:
(a) 10 000 feet
(b) 12 000 feet
(c) 15 000 feet
(d) 18 000 feet

Q72. A fast alignment should be complete in

(a) 15 seconds
(b) 30 seconds
(c) 45 seconds
(d) 20 seconds
 FUEL SYSTEM
Q73. Mark the correct statement with regard to fuel system.
(a) Fuel temperature indicator indicates fuel temperature in Main tank No. 2
(b) Minimum fuel temperature permitted is -34ºC
(c) Maximum fuel temperature permitted is 49ºC
(d) Both (a) and (b).

Q74. The pressure developed by the fuel pump of airplane system is as follows.
(a) Fwd Main tank pumps produce lesser pressure than Aft tank pumps
(b) Fuel pumps of main tanks produce same pressure, both centre tank pumps and aft pumps of
main tanks produce higher pressure.
(c) Main tank pumps produce more pressure than centre
(d) All pumps produce same pressure.

Q75. Fuel alert indications include the following

(a) Fuel low indications when fuel quantity is less than 907 kgs in related main tank or centre tank.
(b) Fuel Imbalance indication which comes On when the quantity between main tanks differ by
more than 453 kg or when centre tank quantity is greater than 726kg.
(c) As given in (a), fuel imbalance is inhibited when fuel low indication exist for the same tank
(d) When alert is present for any tank fuel quantity arc and digits turn amber for the tank.

Q76. What is the function of center tank fuel scavenge jet pump?
(a) The scavenge jet pump operates automatically to transfer fuel from center tank to main tank
No. 1
(b) As given in (a) fuel transfer begins when center tank fuel pump switches are put off.
(c) Once the scavenge operation begins, it continues for 20’ and then the operation stops.
(d) The function of center tank fuel scavenge jet pump is the same as main tank fuel scavenge Jet
pump.

HYDRAULICS

Q77. If a leak occurs in the B system, the standby hydraulic reservoir will :-

(a) Leak to zero capacity

(b) Leak to 64% capacity
(c) Leak to 76% capacity
(d) A leak in system B has no effect on the standby hydraulic system.

Q78. Pulling the number 2 engine fire warning switch shuts off the hydraulic fluid to:
(a) The engine driven pump in system A.
(b) The engine driven pump in system B.
(c) Both engine driven pumps
(d) Both electric hydraulic pumps

Q79. The standby hydraulic system provides backup power for:-

(a) The outboard spoilers, rudders and thrust reversers.
(b) Thrust reversers, rudder, leading edge flaps and slats (extend only) and standby yaw damper.
(c) The thrust reversers, inboard spoilers and rudder.
(d) The alternate brakes, rudder, thrust reversers and standby yaw damper.

Q80. What is the minimum fuel for ground operation of the electric hydraulic pumps?
(a) 453kgs in the related main tanks
(b) 726kgs in both main tanks.
(c) 760kgs in the related main tanks.
(d) 760kgs in the center tank.
Q81. If a leak occurs in the standby system:

(a) System B fluid level indication decreases and stabilizes at approximately 72% full.
(b) The standby reservoir quantity decreases to zero.
(c) The LOW QUANTITY light illuminates when the standby reservoir is approximately half empty.
(d) All the answer are correct

Q82. If the system A engine-driven hydraulic pump LOW PRESSURE (amber) annunciator light illuminates:

(a) Position the hydraulic pump switch to OFF

(b) Pull the No. 1 engine fire warning switch.
(c) Disconnect the No. 1 IDG
(d) Monitor system B pressures.

Q83. If a leak develops in system B (either pump, line or component), the quantity decreases to:

(a) 76%
(b) 20%
(c) Approximately zero and system B pressure is lost
(d) B system is self sealing and any leak would stop

Q84. The system B reservoir has;

(a) One standpipe

(b) Two standpipes
(c) One standpipe used for reservoir pressurization of the standby reservoir.
(d) No standpipe

Q85. The engine driven hydraulic pump switch:-

(a) In the OFF position will de-activate the hydraulic LOW PRESS light.
(b) Is left in the ON position on shutdown to prolong the life of the blocking valve solenoid
(c) Should be switched OFF in the event of the electric hydraulic pump OVERHEAT light illuminating.
(d) Is left in the ON position on shut down to prolong the life of Hydraulic Shut Off valve solenoid

Q86. Mark the correct statement.

(a) The pressure transmitter sends the pressure of EDP to the hydraulic system pressure
(b) There are separate pressure transmitters to send the pressure of EDP and EMDP separately to the
related hydraulic system pressure indicator.
(c) The pressure transmitters sends the combined pressure of EDP and EMDP to the hydraulic
indicator.
(d) None of the above is correct.

LANDING GEAR
Q87. WHEN RED LANDING GEAR INDICATOR LIGHTS EXTINGUISHED
(a) Landing gear is up & locked with landing gear lever up.
(b) Landing gear is up & locked with landing gear lever off
(c) Landing gear is down & locked with landing gear lever down
 (d) All of above

Q88. LANDING GEAR IS NORMALLY CONTROLLED BY

(a) Up locks
(b) Landing gear lever
(c) Up locks & down locks system
(d) Retraction & extension system

Q89. DURING RETRACTION MAIN GEAR WHEELS ROTATION IS STOPPED BY

(a) Brakes automatically
(b) Brakes automatically with landing gear lever in up position
(c) Snubbers
(d) Brakes mechanically

Q90. WITH THE MANUAL EXTENSION OCCURS DOOR OPEN

(a) Manual landing gear extension is possible with landing gear lever in any position
(b) Manual landing gear extension is possible with landing gear lever in any position except in up
position
(c) Normal landing gear extension is possible if hydraulic system B pressure is available
(d) All of above

Q91. Normal precharge for accumulator hydraulic brake pressure is

(a) 1000psi
(b) 3000psi
(c) 2800psi
(d) 1800psi

Q92. The RTO mode is automatically disarmed when

(a) Both air / ground system indicates air mode
(b) Either air / ground system indicates air mode
(c) Both air / ground system indicates air mode, Autobrake select switch remains in RTO position &
Autobrake disarm light illuminates
(d) Nose gear strut extends

WARNING
Q93. The Ground Proximity Warning System Test:

(a)Can be performed on the ground and in-flight.

(b)Is inhibited in-flight.
(c)Can be performed only above 1,000 feet Radio Altitude.
(d)Can be performed anytime.

Q94. The Takeoff Configuration Warning horn sounds if:

(a)Stabilizer trim is not in the green band.

(b)Leading edge flaps and trailing edge flaps are not in the correct position for takeoff.
(c)Speed brake lever is not in the down position.
(d)All of the above is correct.

Q95. How can you silence the mach/ airspeed warning in flight?

(a) Reduce airplane speed below Vmo/ Mmo

(b) Press the Mach/Airspeed warning cutout switch.
(c) Press the mach/airspeed override switch
(d) All of the answers are correct

Q96. The Red landing gear indication lights are illuminated under which of the following conditions?

(a) Landing gear is not in disagreement with the LANDING GEAR lever position (not in transit or
unsafe).
 (b) Landing gear is not down and locked (with either or both forward thrust levers retarded to
idle, and below 800 feet AGL)
(c) Landing gear is up and locked with the LANDING GEAR lever UP or OFF.
(d) Landing gear is down and locked.

Q97. Mark the correct statement with regards to Tail Skid

(a) Tail Skid is serviceable when cartridge warning decal shows both green and red.
(b) Tail skid serviceable when cartridge warning decal shows red
(c) When the warning decal is all red cartridge must be replaced.
(d) Both (a) and (c) are correct.

Q98. With flaps 15 selected and landing gear UP the landing gear warning horn cannot be silenced with the HORN
CUTOUT switch if

(a) Either lever is below 10 degrees or an engine not running and the other thrust lever is less than 30
degrees
(b) Either lever is below 20 degrees or an engine not running and the other thrust lever is less
than 34 degrees
(c) Both thrust lever are below approx 30 degrees
(d) None above is correct.

Q99. Mark the correct statement regarding Altitude, Acquisition and deviation alerting System

(a) Altitude Alerting occurs when approaching or departing MCP selected altitudes
(b) Acquisition Alerting occurs 900 feet before reaching the selected altitude.
(c) Deviation Alerting occurs when deviating by 200/300 feet from the selected altitude
(d) All above are correct.

Q100. Mark the correct statement with respect to Alerts

(a) Aural alert for Look Ahead Terrain is TERRAIN, TERRAIN PULLUP
(b) PULLUP, TERRAIN, DONTSINK, GLIDESLOPE, SINK RATE are Radio Based Alerts
(c) Wind shear Warning aural alert is Two tone siren followed by WIND SHEAR.
(d) All above are correct.