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Copyright © 2008, New Age International (P) Ltd., Publishers
Published by New Age International (P) Ltd., Publishers
All rights reserved.

No part of this ebook may be reproduced in any form, by photostat, microfilm,
xerography, or any other means, or incorporated into any information retrieval
system, electronic or mechanical, without the written permission of the
publisher.
All inquiries should be emailed to rights@newagepublishers.com
ISBN (13) : 978-81-224-2627-4
PUBLISHING FOR ONE WORLD

NEW AGE INTERNATIONAL (P) LIMITED, PUBLISHERS
4835/24, Ansari Road, Daryaganj, New Delhi - 110002
Visit us at www.newagepublishers.com
Dedicated to
PROF. DR. F.V. MANVI
Secretary
KLE Society, BELGAUM KARNATAKA.
“To My First Pharmacy teacher with Love”
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FOREWORD
C ompetitive Examinations are the order of the day. All C olleges conducting professional courses at PG level are
admitting students based on common entrance examination, which is of objective type.
In Pharmacy, M.Pharm admissions are based on qualifying the G ATE enterance examination conducted by G ovt. of
India.
In this book, The author has done good work in preparing several objective questions which help the students to face
the subject in the examination with poise and confidence.
The book is well balanced and consists of multiple choice questions from all the important topics like carbohydrate
metabolism and other important Biochemical aspects.
The typesetting and quality of printing is good. The author is also well experienced in taking up this type of work.
I recommend this book to all the students preparing for G ATE examination and also for Medical and Pharmacy C ollege
libraries.
PRO F. B.G . S HIVAN AN DA

Principal
AL-AMEEN C OLLEGE OF PHARMACY
BAN G ALO RE.
PREFACE
WATER AND ELECTROLYTE BALANCE 289
I have brought out this book basically for students who plan to appear for Biochemistry in the entrance examinations like
JIPMER and other Medical, Pharmacy, Physiotherapy, N ursing and other Paramedical PG Entrance Examinations. There is a
dearth of good entrance manual of Biochemistry for the above said examinations. Hence, I have prepared an exhaustive Q
uestion bank of around 5000 MC Q s with answers covering a wide spectrum of basic Biochemical topics of the subject.
Some of the important topics which are given a good coverage include C arbohydrate metabolism, Protein metabolism,
Lipid metabolism, N ucleic acids, Enzymes, Vitamins and Mineral metabolism.
The objective questions are prepared based on the background taken from previous question papers of Professional
medical and Paramedical competitive entrance examinations.
The book serves as a ready reckoner for Biochemistry as far as objective pattern is concerned. I feel satisfied if the book
serves the purpose for which it is intended.
I have tried to minimize typographical errors but still some must have crept in. If they are brought to my notice, I will be
rectifying them in the next edition.
C onstructive C riticism is always welcome
G . V idy a Sa g a r
ACKNOWLEDGEMENTS
I wish to express my profound gratitude and benevolence to the following who were the inspiring force in making this
book a reality
• Prof. Dr. K ishor Pra m od Bhusa ri
• Sa dhvi Shila piji
Principal, Nagpur College of Pharmacy
C hair person, Veerayatan Vidyapeeth,
N agpur.
Jakhaniya, Kutch, G ujarat
• Prof. Dr. R. Ra ng a ri
• Prof. Dr. R.K . G oy a l
Principal, J.N. Chaturvedi College of Pharmacy
L.M. College of Pharmacy
N agpur
Ahmedabad, G ujarat
• Prof. Dr. A na nt N a ik N a g a ppa
• Prof. Dr. A .K . Sa luja
Pharmacy group, Birla Institute of Technology &
A.R. College of Pharmacy
Sciences
Vallabh Vidyanagar
Pilani, Rajasthan
G ujarat
• Prof. Dr. Sriniva s Ra o
• Prof. J.V.L.N . Shesha g iri Ra o
Principal, VEL’s C ollege of Pharmacy
Dept. of Pharmaceutical Sciences
C hennai Andhra
University, Vishakhapatnam, A.P.
Finally, I express my gratitude to Mr. Saumya G upta. MD, N ew Age International (P) Limited, N ew Delhi, for his
encouragement and support.
Dr. G .V idy a Sa g a r
SOME VALUABLE COMMENTS
This book is very useful for students appearing for G ATE Exams. Recommended reading.
Prof. Dr. Subha s C. Ma riha l
Principal, G oa C ollege of Pharmacy, G oa.
Biochemistry made simple in the form of multiple choice questions. Strongly recommended.
Prof. Dr. V ija y k um a r Ishw a r H uk k eri
Principal, KLE C ollege of Pharmacy, Hubli
Dr. Vidya Sagar can be applauded for his untiring efforts in bringing out such a good book.
Recommended for students and Library
Dr. G . Deva la Ra o
Principal, Sidhartha College of Pharmaceutical Sciences
Vijaywada, A.P.
This book will be very useful companion for students appearing for PG Medical, Pharmacy, N ursing and
Physiotherapy competitive exams.
Prof. Dr. T.K . Ra vi
Principal, Sri Ramakrishna Institute of Pharmaceutical Science C
oimbatore.
MC Q s are well framed, mostly from previous entrance examinations. C ommendable work.
Prof. Ma dhuk a r R. Ta jne
Deptt. of Pharmaceutical Sciences,
N agpur University, N agpur
CONTENTS
Preface (x)
Cha pter 1
INTRODUCTION TO BIOCHEMISTRY 1
CH A PTER 2
CARBOHYDRATES AND CARBOHYDRATE METABOLISM 5

CH A PTER 3
PROTEINS & PROTEIN METABOLISM 27

CH A PTER 4
FATS & FATTY ACID METABOLISM 75

CH A PTER 5
VITAMINS 113
CH A PTER 6
ENZYMES 141
CH A PTER 7
MINERAL METABOLISM 183

CH A PTER 8
HORMONE METABOLISM 209

CH A PTER 9
NUCLEIC ACIDS 237

CH A PTER 1 0
WATER & ELECTROLYTE BALANCE 281

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1. A drug which prevents uric acid synthesisby 8. Which are the cholesterol esters that entercells
inhibiting the enzyme xanthine oxidase is through the receptor-mediated endocytosis of
(A) Aspirin (B) Allopurinol lipoproteins hydrolyzed?
(C) Colchicine (D) Probenecid (A) Endoplasmin reticulum
(B) Lysosomes
2. Which of the following is required
(C) Plasma membrane receptor
forcrystallization and storage of the hormone
insulin? (D) Mitochondria
(A) Mn++ (B) Mg++ 9. Which of the following phospholipids islocalized

(C) Ca ++
(D) Zn++ to a greater extent in the outer leaflet of the
membrane lipid bilayer?
3. Oxidation of which substance in the bodyyields (A) Choline phosphoglycerides
the most calories (B) Ethanolamine phosphoglycerides
(A) Glucose (B) Glycogen (C) Inositol phosphoglycerides
(C) Protein (D) Lipids (D) Serine phosphoglycerides
4. Milk is deficient in which vitamins? 10. All the following processes occur rapidlyin the
(A) Vitamin C (B) Vitamin A membrane lipid bilayer except
(C) Vitamin B2 (D) Vitamin K (A) Flexing of fatty acyl chains
(B) Lateral diffusion of phospholipids
5. Milk is deficient of which mineral?
(C) Transbilayer diffusion of phopholipids
(A) Phosphorus (B) Sodium
(D) Rotation of phospholipids around their
(C) Iron (D) Potassium longaxes
6. Synthesis of prostaglandinsis is inhibitedby 11. Which of the following statement iscorrect about
(A) Aspirin (B) Arsenic membrane cholesterol?
(C) Fluoride (D) Cyanide (A) The hydroxyl group is located near the
centreof the lipid layer
7. HDL is synthesized and secreted from
(B) Most of the cholesterol is in the form of
(A) Pancreas (B) Liver acholesterol ester
(C) Kidney (D) Muscle (C) The steroid nucleus form forms a rigid,
CHAPTER 1 (D)
planarstructure
The hydrocarbon chain of cholesterol
projectsinto the extracellular fluid
12. Which one is the heaviest particulatecomponent
INTRODUCTION TO of the cell?

(A) Nucleus (B) Mitochondria
(C) Cytoplasm (D) Golgi apparatus
13. Which one is the largest particulate of

BIOCHEMISTRY thecytoplasm?
(A) Lysosomes
(B) Mitochondria
(C) Golgi apparatus
(D) Entoplasmic reticulum
2 MCQs IN BIOCHEMISTRY
14. The degradative Processess are categorizedunder (C) Linear double helix
the heading of (D) None of these
(A) Anabolism (B) Catabolism 24. The absorption of intact protein from thegut in
(C) Metabolism (D) None of the above the foetal and newborn animals takes place by
15. The exchange of material takes place (A) Pinocytosis (B) Passive diffusion
(A) Only by diffusion (C) Simple diffusion (D) Active transport
(B) Only by active transport 25. The cellular organelles called “suicidebags” are
(C) Only by pinocytosis (A) Lysosomes (B) Ribosomes
(D) All of these (C) Nucleolus (D) Golgi’s bodies
16. The average pH of Urine is 26. From the biological viewpoint, solutionscan be
(A) 7.0 (B) 6.0 grouped into
(C) 8.0 (D) 0.0 (A) Isotonic solution
17. The pH of blood is 7.4 when the ratiobetween (B) Hypotonic solutions
H2CO3 and NaHCO3 is (C) Hypertonic solution
(A) 1 : 10(B) 1 : 20 (D) All of these
(C) 1 : 25 (C) 1 : 30 27. Bulk transport across cell membrane
18. The phenomenon of osmosis is oppositeto that of isaccomplished by
(A) Diffusion (B) Effusion (A) Phagocytosis (B) Pinocytosis

(C) Affusion (D) Coagulation (C) Extrusion (D) All of these
19. The surface tension in intestinal lumenbetween 28. The ability of the cell membrane to act asa
fat droplets and aqueous medium is decreased by selective barrier depends upon
(A) Bile Salts (B) Bile acids (A) The lipid composition of the membrane
(B) The pores which allows small molecules
(C) Conc. H2SO4 (D) Acetic acid
(C) The special mediated transport systems
20. Which of the following is located in (D) All of these
themitochondria? 29. Carrier protein can
(A) Cytochrome oxidase (A) Transport only one substance
(B) Succinate dehydrogenase (B) Transport more than one substance
(C) Dihydrolipoyl dehydrogenase (C) Exchange one substance to another
(C) All of these (D) Perform all of these functions
21. The most active site of protein synthesisis the 30. A lipid bilayer is permeable to
(A) Nucleus (B) Ribosome (A) Urea (B) Fructose
(C) Mitochondrion (D) Cell sap (C) Glucose (D) Potassium
22. The fatty acids can be transported intoand out of 31. The Golgi complex
mitochondria through
(A) Synthesizes proteins
(A) Active transport
(B) Produces ATP
(B) Facilitated transfer
(C) Provides a pathway for transporting
(C) Non-facilitated transfer chemicals(D) Forms glycoproteins
(D) None of these
32. The following points about microfilamentsare
23. Mitochondrial DNA is true except
(A) Circular double stranded (A) They form cytoskeleton with microtubules
(B) Circular single stranded
INTRODUCTION TO BIOCHEMISTRY 3
(B) They provide support and shape 7. B 8. B 9. A 10. C 11. C

(C) They form intracellular conducting channels 12. A 13. B 14. B 15. D
(D) They are involved in muscle cell contraction 16. B 17. B 18. A
19. A 20. D 21. B
33. The following substances are cellinclusions except 22. B 23. A 24. A
(A) Melanin (B) Glycogen 25. A 26. D 27. D
(C) Lipids (D) Centrosome 28. D 29. D 30. A
31. D 32. C 33. D
34. Fatty acids can be transported into andout of cell
34. B 35. D 36. C
membrane by
37. C 38. D 39. C
(A) Active transport (B) Facilitated 40. A
transport
(C) Diffusion (D) Osmosis
35. Enzymes catalyzing electron transportare present
mainly in the
(A) Ribosomes This
(B) Endoplasmic reticulum
(C)
(D)
Lysosomes
Inner mitochondrial membrane intentional
blank
36. Mature erythrocytes do not contain
(A) Glycolytic enzymes(B) HMP shunt enzymes
(C) Pyridine nucleotide(D) ATP
37. In mammalian cells rRNA is producedmainly in
the
(A) Endoplasmic reticulum
(B) Ribosome
(C) Nucleolus
(D) Nucleus
38. Genetic information of nuclear DNA istransmitted
to the site of protein synthesis by
(A) rRNA (B) mRNA
(C) tRNA (D) Polysomes
39. The power house of the cell is
(A) Nucleus (B) Cell membrane
(C) Mitochondria (D) Lysosomes
40. The digestive enzymes of cellularcompounds are
confined to
(A) Lysosomes (B) Ribosomes
(C) Peroxisomes (D) Polysomes
ANSWERS
1. B 2. D 3. D
4. A 5. C 6. A
CHAPTER 2 C
A
R
B
O
H
Y
D
R
A
T
E
S
A
N
D
C
A
R
B
O
H
Y
D
6. The pentose 11. The most
R sugar present important epimer
A mainly in
theheart muscle
of glucose is
(A) Galacto
T is se (B)
(A) Lyxose Fructose
E (B) Ribose (C) Arabinose (D)
(C) Arabinose Xylose
Xylose
α-D-glucose and β
M 7. Polysaccharides
are
12.
-D-glucose are
E (A)
rs
Polyme
(B)
(A) Stereois
omers (B)
T Acids Epimers
(C) Proteins (C) Anomers (D
A 8. The number of
Keto-aldo pairs
B isomers
glucose is
of 13. α-D-glucose +
112 → + 52.5 ←+
0 0
O (A) 2
(B) 4 190 βD-glucose for
L (C) 8 glucose above
represents
I 9. Two sugars which
differ from one (A) Optical
S anotheronly in isomerism (B)
configuration Mutarotation
M around a single
(C) Epimerisation
carbon atom are
(D) D and L isomerism
termed
1. The general 3. The aldose sugar 14. Compounds
(A) Epimers
formula of is(A) Glycerose having the same
(B) Anomers
monosaccharidesi structuralformula
(B) Ribulose (C) Optical isomers
s but differing in
(C) Erythrulose (D) Stereoisomers
(A) CnH2nOn spatial
Dihydoxyacetone
10. Isomers differing configuration are
(B) C2nH2On (C) 4. A triose sugar is as a result of known as
CnH2O2n (D) (A) Glycero variationsin (A) Stereois
CnH2nO2n se (B) configuration of omers (B)
Ribose the —OH and —H Anomers
2. The general on carbon atoms
formula of (C) Erythrose (C) Optical isomers
Fructose 2, 3 and 4 of
polysaccharidesis (D) Epimers
glucose are
(A) (C6H10O 5. A pentose sugar is known as
5)n (B) (A) Dihydro (A) Epimers
(C6H12O5)n xyacetone (B) (B) Anomers
(C) (C6H10O6)n Ribulose (C) Optical isomers
(C6H10O6)n (C) Erythrose (D) Steroisomers
Glucose
15. In glucose the orientation of the —H and—OH 1 → 4 glycosidic linkage in

groups around the carbon atom 5 adjacent to the
(A) Maltose (B) Sucrose
terminal primary alcohol carbon determines
(C) Cellulose (D) Cellobiose
(A) D or L series
(B) Dextro or levorotatory 26. Which of the following is a non-reducingsugar?
(C) α and β anomers (A) Isomaltose (B) Maltose

(D) Epimers (C) Lactose (D) Trehalose
16. The carbohydrate of the blood groupsubstances is 27. Which of the following is a reducingsugar?
(A) Sucrose (B) Trehalose
(A) Sucrose (B) Fucose (C) Isomaltose (D) Agar
(C) Arabinose (D) Maltose 28. A dissaccharide formed by 1,1-glycosidiclinkage
17. Erythromycin contains between their monosaccharide units is
(A) Dimethyl amino sugar (A) Lactose (B) Maltose

(B) Trimethyl amino sugar (C) Trehalose (D) Sucrose
(C) Sterol and sugar 29. A dissaccharide formed by 1,1-glycosidiclinkage
(D) Glycerol and sugar between their monosaccharide units is
18. A sugar alcohol is (A) Lactose (B) Maltose
(C) Trehalose (D) Sucrose
(A) Mannitol (B) Trehalose
(C) Xylulose (D) Arabinose 30. Mutarotation refers to change in
19. The major sugar of insect hemolymph is (A) pH (B) Optical rotation
(C) Conductance (D) Chemical properties
(A) Glycogen (B) Pectin
(C) Trehalose (D) Sucrose 31. A polysacchharide which is often calledanimal
starch is
20. The sugar found in DNA is
(A) Glycogen (B) Starch
(A) Xylose (B) Ribose
(C) Inulin (D) Dextrin
(C) Deoxyribose (D) Ribulose
32. The homopolysaccharide used forintravenous
21. The sugar found in RNA is
infusion as plasma substitute is
(A) Ribose (B) Deoxyribose
(A) Agar (B) Inulin
(C) Ribulose (D) Erythrose
(C) Pectin (D) Starch
22. The sugar found in milk is
33. The polysaccharide used in assessing
(A) Galactose (B) Glucose theglomerular fittration rate (GFR) is
(C) Fructose (D) Lactose (A) Glycogen (B) Agar
23. Invert sugar is (C) Inulin (D) Hyaluronic acid
(A) Lactose (B) Sucrose 34. The constituent unit of inulin is
(C) Hydrolytic products of sucrose (A) Glucose (B) Fructose
(D) Fructose (C) Mannose (D) Galactose
24. Sucrose consists of 35. The polysaccharide found in theexoskeleton of

invertebrates is
(A) Glucose + glucose(B) Glucose + fructose
(C) Glucose + galactose (A) Pectin (B) Chitin
(D) Glucose + mannose (C) Cellulose (D) Chondroitin sulphate
25. The monosaccharide units are linked by 36. Which of the following is a heteroglycan?
(A) Dextrins (B) Agar (A) Glycoside (B) Glucosaccharic acid

(C) Inulin (D) Chitin (C) Gluconic acid (D) Glucuronic acid
37. The glycosaminoglycan which does notcontain 46. Oxidation of galactose with conc HNO3 yields
uronic acid is (A) Mucic acid (B) Glucuronic acid
(A) Dermatan sulphate (C) Saccharic acid (D) Gluconic acid
(B) Chondroitin sulphate
47. A positive Benedict’s test is not given by
(C) Keratan sulphate
(A) Sucrose (B) Lactose
(D) Heparan sulphate (C) Maltose (D) Glucose
38. The glycosaminoglycan which does notcontain 48. Starch is a
uronic acid is
(A) Polysaccharide (B) Monosaccharide
(A) Hyaluronic acid (C) Disaccharide (D) None of these
(B) Heparin 49. A positive Seliwanoff’s test is obtainedwith
(C) Chondroitin sulphate
(A) Glucose (B) Fructose
(D) Dermatan sulphate
(C) Lactose (D) Maltose
39. Keratan sulphate is found in abundancein
50. Osazones are not formed with the
(A) Heart muscle (B) Liver
(C) Adrenal cortex (D) Cornea
(C) Sucrose (D) Lactose
40. Repeating units of hyaluronic acid are 51. The most abundant carbohydrate foundin
(A) N-acetyl glucosamine and D-glucuronic nature is
acid (A) Starch (B) Glycogen (C) Cellulose (D) Chitin
(B) N-acetyl galactosamine and D-
glucuronicacid 52. Impaired renal function is indicated whenthe
(C) N-acetyl glucosamine and galactose amount of PSP excreted in the first 15 minutes is
(D) N-acetyl galactosamine and L- iduronic (A) 20% (B) 35%
acid (C) 40% (D) 45%
41. The approximate number of branches 53. An early feature of renal disease is
inamylopectin is (A) Impairment of the capacity of the tubule
(A) 10 (B) 20 toperform osmotic work
(C) 40 (D) 80 (B) Decrease in maximal tubular
excretorycapacity
42. In amylopectin the intervals of glucoseunits of
(C) Decrease in filtration factor
each branch is
(D) Decrease in renal plasma flow
(A) 10–20 (B) 24–30 (C) 30–40 (D)
40–50 54. ADH test is based on the measurement of
43. A polymer of glucose synthesized by theaction of (A) Specific gravity of urine
leuconostoc mesenteroids in a sucrose medium is (B) Concentration of urea in urine
(A) Dextrans (B) Dextrin (C) Limit (C) Concentration of urea in blood
dextrin (D) Inulin (D) Volume of urine in ml/minute
44. Glucose on reduction with sodiumamalgam forms 55. The specific gravity of urine normallyranges
(A) Dulcitol (B) Sorbitol from
(C) Mannitol (D) Mannitol and sorbitol (A) 0.900–0.999 (B) 1.003–1.030
45. Glucose on oxidation does not give (C) 1.000–1.001 (D) 1.101–1.120
56. Specific gravity of urine increases in (A) Glucose (B) Galactose

(A) Diabetes mellitus (C) Lactose (D) Maltose
(B) Chronic glomerulonephritis 67. A carbohydrate, known commonly asinvert
(C) Compulsive polydypsia sugar, is
(D) Hypercalcemia (A) Fructose (B) Sucrose
57. Fixation of specific gravity of urine to (C) Glucose (D) Lactose
1.010 is found in 68. A heteropolysacchraide among thefollowing is
(A) Diabetes insipidus (A) Inulin (B) Cellulose
(B) Compulsive polydypsia (C) Heparin (D) Dextrin
(C) Cystinosis
69. The predominant form of glucose insolution is
(D) Chronic glomerulonephritis
(A) Acyclic form
58. Addis test is the measure of
(B) Hydrated acyclic form
(A) Impairment of the capacity of the tubule (C) Glucofuranose
toperform osmotic work (D) Glucopyranose
(B) Secretory function of liver
(C) Excretory function of liver 70. An L-isomer of monosaccharide formed
inhuman body is
(D) Activity of parenchymal cells of liver
(A) L-fructose (B) L-Erythrose
59. Number of stereoisomers of glucose is (C) L-Xylose (D) L-Xylulose
(A) 4 (B) 8
71. Hyaluronic acid is found in
(C) 16 (D) None of these
(A) Joints (B) Brain
60. Maltose can be formed by hydrolysis of (C) Abdomen (D) Mouth
(A) Starch (B) Dextrin
72. The carbon atom which becomesasymmetric
(C) Glycogen (D) All of these when the straight chain form of monosaccharide
changes into ring form is known as
61. α–D–Glucuronic acid is present in
(A) Anomeric carbon atom(B) Epimeric carbon
(A) Hyaluronic acid (B) Chondroitin
atom
sulphate
(C) Isomeric carbon atom
(C) Heparin (D) All of these
(D) None of these
62. Fructose is present in hydrolysate of
(A) Sucrose (B) Inulin (C) Both of the above 73. The smallest monosaccharide havingfuranose
(D) None of these ring structure is
(A) Erythrose (B) Ribose
63. A carbohydrate found in DNA is
(C) Glucose (D) Fructose
(A) Ribose (B) Deoxyribose
(C) Ribulose (D) All of these 74. Which of the following is an epimeric pair?
(A) Glucose and fructose
64. Ribulose is a these
(B) Glucose and galactose
(A) Ketotetrose (B) Aldotetrose
(C) Galactose and mannose
(C) Ketopentose (D) Aldopentose
(D) Lactose and maltose
65. A carbohydrate, commonly known asdextrose is
75. α-Glycosidic bond is present in
(A) Dextrin (B) D-Fructose
(C) D-Glucose (D) Glycogen (A) Lactose (B) Maltose
(C) Sucrose (D) All of these
66. A carbohydrate found only in milk is
76. Branching occurs in glycogen approximately (A) Phosphofructokinase-1

after every (B) Phosphofructokinase-2
(A) Five glucose units (C) Fructose biphosphate isomerase
(B) Ten glucose units (D) Fructose-1, 6-biphosphatase
(C) Fifteen glucose units 86. The highest concentrations of fructose arefound
(D) Twenty glucose units in
77. N–Acetylglucosamnine is present in (A) Aqueous humor (B) Vitreous humor
(A) Hyaluronic acid (B) Chondroitin (C) Synovial fluid (D) Seminal fluid
sulphate
87. Glucose uptake by liver cells is
(C) Heparin (D) All of these
(A) Energy-consuming (B) A saturable process
78. Iodine gives a red colour with (C) Insulin-dependent (D) Insulin-independent
(A) Starch (B) Dextrin
88. Renal threshold for glucose is decreasedin
(C) Glycogen (D) Inulin
(A) Diabetes mellitus (B) Insulinoma
79. Amylose is a constituent of (C) Renal glycosuria (D) Alimentary glycosuria
(A) Starch (B) Cellulose
89. Active uptake of glucose is inhibited by
(C) Glycogen (D) None of these
(A) Ouabain (B) Phlorrizin
80. Synovial fluid contains (C) Digoxin (D) Alloxan
(A) Heparin
90. Glucose-6-phosphatase is absent ordeficient in
(B) Hyaluronic acid
(A) Von Gierke’s disease
(C) Chondroitin sulphate
(B) Pompe’s disease
(D) Keratin sulphate
(C) Cori’s disease
81. Gluconeogenesis is decreased by (D) McArdle’s disease
(A) Glucagon (B) Epinephrine 91. Debranching enzyme is absent in
(C) Glucocorticoids (D) Insulin (A) Cori’s disease
82. Lactate formed in muscles can be (B) Andersen’s disease
utilisedthrough (C) Von Gierke’s disease
(A) Rapoport-Luebeling cycle (D) Her’s disease
(B) Glucose-alanine cycle
92. McArdle’s disease is due to the deficiencyof
(C) Cori’s cycle
(A) Glucose-6-phosphatase
(D) Citric acid cycle
(B) Phosphofructokinase
83. Glucose-6-phosphatase is not present in (C) Liver phosphorylase
(A) Liver and kidneys (D) muscle phosphorylase
(B) Kidneys and muscles
93. Tautomerisation is
(C) Kidneys and adipose tissue
(A) Shift of hydrogen (B) Shift of carbon
(D) Muscles and adipose tissue
(C) Shift of both (D) None of these
84. Pyruvate carboxylase is regulated by
94. In essential pentosuria, urine contains
(A) Induction (B) Repression
(A) D-Ribose (B) D-Xylulose
(C) Allosteric regulation(D) All of these
(C) L-Xylulose (D) D-Xylose
85. Fructose-2, 6-biphosphate is formed bythe
action of 95. Action of salivary amylase on starch leadsto the
formation of
(A) Maltose (B) Maltotriose (C) Protein primer for glycogen synthesis
(C) Both of the above (D) Neither of these (D) Intermediate in glycogen breakdown
96. Congenital galactosaemia can lead to 105. During starvation, ketone bodies are usedas a
(A) Mental retardation fuel by
(B) Premature cataract (A) Erythrocytes (B) Brain
(C) Death (C) Liver (D) All of these
(D) All of the above 106. Animal fat is in general
97. Uridine diphosphate glucose (UDPG) is (A) Poor in saturated and rich in
(A) Required for metabolism of galactose polyunsaturatedfatty acids
(B) Required for synthesis of glucuronic acid (B) Rich in saturated and poor in
polyunsaturatedfatty acids
(C) A substrate for glycogen synthetase
(C) Rich in saturated and polyunsaturated
(D) All of the above
fattyacids
98. Catalytic activity of salivary amylaserequires the (D) Poor in saturated and polyunsaturated
presence of fattyacids
(A) Chloride ions (B) Bromide ions
107. In the diet of a diabetic patient, the
(C) Iodide ions (D) All of these recommended carbohydrate intake
99. The following is actively absorbed in should preferably be in the form of
theintestine: (A) Monosaccharides (B) Dissaccharides
(A) Fructose (B) Mannose (C) Polysaccharides (D) All of these
(C) Galactose (D) None of these
100. An amphibolic pathway among the following is 108. Obesity increases the risk of
(A) HMP shunt (B) Glycolysis (A) Hypertension
(C) Citirc acid cycle (D) Gluconeogenesis (B) Diabetes mellitus
(C) Cardiovascular disease
101. Cori’s cycle transfers
(D) All of these
(A) Glucose from muscles to liver(B) Lactate
109. Worldwide, the most common
from muscles to liver (C) Lactate from liver
vitamindeficiency is that of
to muscles
(D) Pyruvate from liver to muscles (A) Ascorbic acid (B) Folic acid
(C) Vitamin A (D) Vitamin D
102. Excessive intake of ethanol increases theratio:
110. Consumption of iodised salt is recommended for
(A) NADH : NAD+ (B) NAD+ : NADH
prevention of
(C) FADH2 : FAD (D) FAD : FADH2
(A) Hypertension (B) Hyperthyroidism
103. Ethanol decreases gluconeogenesis by (C) Endemic goitre (D) None of these
(A) Inhibiting glucose-6-phosphatase 111. Restriction of salt intake is
(B) Inhibiting PEP carboxykinase generallyrecommended in
(C) Converting NAD+ into NADH and decreasing (A) Diabetes mellitus (B) Hypertension
the availability of pyruvate
(C) Cirrhosis of liver (D) Peptic ulcer
(D) Converting NAD+ into NADH and decreasing
the availability of lactate 112. Polyuria can occur in
104. Glycogenin is (A) Diabetes mellitus

(B) Diarrhoea
(A) Uncoupler of oxidative phosphorylation
(C) Acute glomerulonephritis
(B) Polymer of glycogen molecules
(D) High fever 123. The epimers of glucose is
113. Normal specific gravity of urine is (A) Fructose (B) Galactose

(C) Ribose (D) Deoxyribose
(A) 1.000–1.010 (B) 1.012–1.024
(C) 1.025–1.034 (D) 1.035–1.045 124. The intermediate in hexose monophosphate
shunt is
114. Specific gravity of urine is raised in all ofthe
following except (A) D-Ribolose (B) D-Arobinose
(C) D-xylose (D) D-lyxose
(A) Diabetes mellitus
(B) Diabetes insipidus 125. Honey contains the hydrolytic product of
(C) Dehydration (A) Lactose (B) Maltose
(D) Acute glomerulonephritis (C) Inulin (D) Starch
115. Specific gravity of urine is decreased in 126. On boiling Benedict’s solution is not reduced by
(A) Diabetes mellitus (A) Sucrose (B) Lactose
(C) Maltose (D) Fructose
(B) Acute glomerulonephritis
127. Glycosides are found in many
(C) Diarrhoea
(D) Chronic glomerulonephritis (A) Vitamins (B) Drugs
116. Heavy proteinuria occurs in (C) Minerals (D) Nucleoproteins
(A) Acute glomerulonephritis 128. Galactose on oxidation with conc. HNO 3

(B) Acute pyelonephritis(C) Nephrosclerosis produces
(D) Nephrotic syndrome (A) Gluconic acid (B) Saccharic acid
117. Mucopolysaccharides are (C) Saccharo Lactone (D) Mucic acid
(A) Hamopolysaccharides 129. The distinguishing test between

(B) Hetropolysaccharides monosaccharides and dissaccharides is
(C) Proteins (A) Bial’s test (B) Selwanoff’s test
(D) Amino acids (C) Barfoed’s test (D) Hydrolysis test
118. Bence-Jones protein precipitates at 130. Cellulose is made up of the molecules of

(A) 20°–40° C (B) 40–-60° C (A) α-glucose (B) β-glucose
(C) 60°–80° C (D) 80°–100° C (C) Both of the above (D) None of these
119. Serum cholesterol is decreased in 131. Iodine solution produces no color with
(A) Endemic goitre (B) Thyrotoxicosis (A) Cellulose (B) Starch
(C) Myxoedema (D) Cretinism (C) Dextrin (D) Glycogen
120. The heptose ketose sugar formed as a result of 132. Glycogen structure includes a branch in
chemical reaction in HMP shunt: between–glucose units:
(A) Sedoheptulose (B) Galactoheptose (A) 6–12 (B) 8–14
(C) Glucoheptose (D) Mannoheptose (C) 6–10 (D) 12–18
121. The general formula for polysaccharide is 133. Amylose contains glucose units
(A) (C6H12O6)n (B) (C6H10O5)n (A) 100–200 (B) 200–300
(C) (C6H12O5)n (D) (C6H19O6)n (C) 300–400 (D) 500–600
122. The number of isomers of glucose is 134. Each branch of amylopectin is at an interval of
(A) 4 (B) 8 glucose units:
(C) 12 (D) 16 (A) 14–20 (B) 24–30
(C) 34–40 (D) 44–50 145. Cyclic AMP is formed from ATP by the enzyme
adenylate cyclase which is activated by the
135. N-acetylneuraminic acid is an example of
hormone:
(A) Sialic acid (B) Mucic acid
(A) Insulin (B) Epinephrine
(C) Glucuronic acid (D) Hippuric acid
(C) Testosterone (D) Progesterone
136. In place of glucuronic acid chondroitinsulphate B
146. Hexokinase has a high affinity for glucosethan
contains
(A) Fructokinase(B) Galactokinase
(A) Gluconic acid (B) Gulonic acid
(C) Glucokinase (D) All of the above
(C) Induronic acid (D) Sulphonic acid
147. Dihydroxyacetone phosphate and
137. Blood group substances consist of
glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate are
(A) Lactose (B) Maltose intercoverted by
(C) Fructose (D) Mucose (A) Triose isomerase
138. The component of cartilage and cornea is (B) Phosphotriose isomerase
(A) Keratosulphate (C) Diphosphotriose isomerase
(B) Chondroitin sulphate (D) Dihydroxyacetone phosphorylase
(C) Cadmium sulphate
148. Citrate is converted to isocitrate byaconitase
(D) Antimony sulphate which contains
139. Benedict’s test is less likely to give weakly (A) Ca++ (B) Fe++
positive results with concentrated urine due to (C) Zn++ (D) Mg++
the action of
149. The reaction succinyl COA to succinate requires
(A) Urea (B) Uric acid (C) Ammonium
salts (D) Phosphates (A) CDP (B) ADP
(C) GDP (D) NADP+
140. Active transport of sugar is depressed by the
agent: 150. The carrier of the citric acid cycle is
(A) Oxaloacetate (B) Fumarate (A) Succinate (B) Fumarate
(C) Malonate (D) Succinate (C) Malate (D) Oxaloacetate
141. The general test for detection of carbohydrates 151. UDPG is oxidized to UDP glucuronic acid by UDP
is dehydrogenase in presence of
(A) Iodine test (B) Molisch test (A) FAD+ (B) NAD+
(C) Barfoed test (D) Osazone test (C) NADP+ (D) ADP+
142. Glucose absorption may be decreased in 152. Galactose is phosphorylated by galactokinase to
(A) Oedema (B) Nephritis form
(C) Rickets (D) Osteomalitis (A) Galactose-6-phosphate
(B) Galactose-1, 6 diphosphate
143. Glycogen synthetase activity is depressedby
(C) Galactose-1-phosphate
(A) Glucose (B) Insulin
(D) All of these
(C) Cyclic AMP (D) Fructokinase
153. The conversion of alanine to glucose istermed
144. The branching enzyme acts on the glycogen
when the glycogen chain has been lengthened (A) Glycolysis
to between glucose units: (B) Oxidative decarboxylation
(A) 1 and 6 (B) 2 and 7 (C) Specific dynamic action
(C) 3 and 9 (D) 6 and 11 (D) Gluconeogenesis
154. The blood sugar raising action of the hormones 163. Specific test for ketohexoses:
of suprarenal cortex is due to (A) Seliwanoff’s test (B) Osazone test
(A) Gluconeogenesis (C) Molisch test (D) None of these
(B) Glycogenolysis
164. Two important byproducts of HMP shuntare
(C) Glucagon-like activity
(A) NADH and pentose sugars
(D) Due to inhibition of glomerular filtration
(B) NADPH and pentose sugars
155. Under anaerobic conditions the glycolysis one (C) Pentose sugars and 4 membered sugars
mole of glucose yields __ moles of ATP. (D) Pentose sugars and sedoheptulose
(A) One (B) Two
(C) Eight (D) Thirty 165. Pyruvate dehydrogenase complex and α-
156. Which of the following metabolite integrates ketoglutarate dehydrogenase complex require
glucose and fatty acid metabolism? the following for their oxidative
(A) Acetyl CoA (B) Pyruvate decarboxylation:
(C) Citrate (D) Lactate (A) COASH and Lipoic acid
(B) NAD+ and FAD
157. Cerebrosides consist of mostly of this sugar:
(C) COASH and TPP
(D) COASH, TPP,NAD+,FAD, Lipoate
(C) Galactose (D) Arabinose
166. The four membered aldose sugar phosphate
158. Glucose will be converted into fatty acids if the
formed in HMP shunt pathway
diet has excess of
is
(A) Carbohydrates (B) Proteins (C) Fat
(A) Xylulose P (B) Erythrulose P
(D) Vitamins
(C) Erythrose P (D) Ribulose P
159. The purple ring of Molisch reaction is due to
167. Cane sugar (Sucrose) injected into blood is
(A) Furfural
(A) changed to fructose
(B) Furfural + α Napthol
(B) changed to glucose
(C) °C Napthol
(C) undergoes no significant change
(D) Furfurol + H2SO4 + α -Naphthol (D) changed to glucose and fructose
160. One of the following enzymes does not change 168. Pentose production is increased in
glycogen synthase a to b.
(A) HMP shunt
(A) Glycogen synthase kinases 3, 4, 5
(B) Uromic acid pathway
(B) Ca2+ calmodulin phosphorylase kinase
(C) EM pathway
(C) Ca2+ calmodulin dependent protein kinase
(D) TCA cycle
(D) Glycogen phosphorylase a
169. Conversion of Alanine to carbohydrate is
161. In EM pathway -2-phosphoglycerate isconverted termed:
to
(A) Glycogenesis (B) Gluconeogenesis
(A) Phospho enol pyruvate(B) Enol pyruvate
(C) Glycogenolysis (D) Photosynthesis
(C) Di hydroxy acetone phosphate (DHAP)
(D) 1,3 bisphosphoglycerate 170. The following is an enzyme required for
glycolysis:
162. An aneplerotic reaction which sustains
(A) Pyruvate kinase
theavailability of oxaloacetate is the
carboxylation of (B) Pyruvate carboxylase
(C) Glucose-6-phosphatase
(A) Glutamate (B) Pyruvate (C) Citrate (D)
Succinate (D) Glycerokinase
171. Our body can get pentoses from (B) Phosphorylase

(A) Glycolytic pathway (C) Aldolase
(B) Uromic acid pathway (D) Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase
(C) TCA cycle 180 Dehydrogenase enzymes of the hexose
(D) HMP shunt monophosphate shunt are
172. Conversion of glucose to glucose-6phosphate in (A) NAD+ specific (B) NADP+ specific
human liver is by (C) FAD specific (D) FMN specific
(A) Hexokinase only
181. Under anaerobic conditions the glycolysis of one
(B) Glucokinase only mole of glucose yields ______moles of ATP.
(C) Hexokinase and glucokinase
(A) One (B) Two
(D) Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase
(C) Eight (D) Thirty
173. The following is an enzyme required for
182. Glycogen is converted to glucose-1phosphate by
glycolysis:
(A) UDPG transferase (B) Branching enzyme
(A) Pyruvate kinase
(C) Phosphorylase (D) Phosphatase
(B) Pyruvate carboxylase
(C) Glucose-6-phosphatose 183. Which of the following is not an enzyme involved
(D) Glycerokinase in glycolysis?
174. The normal glucose tolerance curve reaches (A) Euolase (B) Aldolose
peak is (C) Hexokinase (D) Glucose oxidase
(A) 15 min (B) 1 hr 184. Tricarboxylic acid cycle to be continuousrequires
(C) 2 hrs (D) 2 ½ hrs the regeneration of
175. Oxidative decarboxylation of pyruvate requires (A) Pyruvic acid (B) oxaloacetic acid
(A) NADP+ (C) α-oxoglutaric acid (D) Malic acid

(B) Cytichromes 185. Dehydrogenation of succinic acid to fumaric acid
(C) pyridoxal phosphate requires the following hydrogen carrier:
(D) COASH (A) NAD+ (B) NADP+
176. Glucose tolerance is increased in (C) flavoprotein (D) Glutathione
(A) Diabetes mellitus (B) Adrenalectomy
186. The tissues with the highest total
(C) Acromegaly (D) Thyrotoxicosis glycogencontent are
177. Glucose tolerance is decreased in (A) Muscle and kidneys
(A) Diabetes mellitus (B) Hypopituitarisme (B) Kidneys and liver
(C) Addison’s disease (D) Hypothyroidism (C) Liver and muscle
(D) Brain and Liver
178. During glycolysis, Fructose 1,6 diphosphate is
decomposed by the enzyme: 187. Rothera test is not given by
(A) Enolase a (A) β-hydroxy butyrate (B) bile salts
(B) Fructokinase (C) Glucose (D) None of these
(C) Aldolase
188. Gluconeogenesis is increased in the following
(D) Diphosphofructophosphatose
condition:
179. The following enzyme is required for the hexose (A) Diabetes insipidus (B) Diabetes Mellitus
monophosphate shunt pathway:
(C) Hypothyroidism (D) Liver diseases
(A) Glucose-6-phosphatase
189. The oxidation of lactic acid to pyruvic acid 195. Tissues form lactic acid from glucose. This
requires the following vitamin derivative as the phenomenon is termed as
hydrogen carrier. (A) Aerobic glycolysis
(A) Lithium pyrophosphate (B) Oxidation
(B) Coenyzme A (C) Oxidative phosphorylation
(C) NAD+ (D) Anaerobic glycolysis
(D) FMN 196. One molecule of glucose gives ______ molecules
190. Physiological glycosuria is met with in of CO2 in EM-TCA cycle.
(A) Renal glycosuria (A) 6 (B) 3
(B) Alimentary glycosuria (C) 1 (D) 2
(C) Diabetes Mellitus 197. One molecule of glucose gives ______ molecules
(D) Alloxan diabetes of CO2 in one round of HMP shunt.
191. Two examples of substrate level phosphorylation (A) 6 (B) 1

in EM pathway of glucose metabolism are in the (C) 2 (D) 3
reactions of 198. The 4 rate limiting enzymes of gluconeogenesis
(A) 1,3 bisphosphoglycerate and are
phosphoenolpyruvate (A) Glucokinase, Pyruvate
(B) Glucose-6 phosphate and Fructo-6- carboxylaephosphoenol pyruvate
phosphate carboxykinase and glucose-6-phosphatase
(C) 3 phosphoglyceraldehyde and (B) Pyruvate carboxylase, phosphoenol
phosphoenolpyruvate pyruvatecarboxykinase, fructose1,6
(D) 1,3 diphosphoglycerate and 2- diphosphatase and glucose-6-phosphatase
phosphoglycerate (C) Pyruvate kinase, pyruvate
carboxylase,phosphoenol pyruvate
192. The number of molecules of ATP produced by
carboxykinase and glucose-6-phosphatase
the total oxidation of acetyl CoA in TCA cycle is
(D) Phospho fructokinase, pyruvate
(A) 6 (B) 8
carboxylase,phosphoenol pyruvate
(C) 10 (D) 12 carboxykinase and fructose 1, 6
193. Substrate level phosphorylation in TCA cycle is in diphosphatase
step: 199. For glycogenesis, Glucose should be converted to
(A) Isocitrate dehydrogenase(B) Malate (A) Glucuronic acid (B) Pyruvic acid
dehydrogenase (C) UDP glucose (D) Sorbitol
(C) Aconitase
200. Fluoride inhibits ______ and arrests glycolysis.
(D) Succinate thiokinase
(A) Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate dehydrogenase
194. Fatty acids cannot be converted into (B) Aconitase
carbohydrates in the body as the following (C) Enolose
reaction is not possible.
(D) Succinate dehydrogenase
(A) Conversion of glucose-6-phosphate into
glucose 201. One of the following statement is correct:
(B) Fructose 1,6-bisphosphate to fructose- (A) Glycogen synthase ‘a’ is the phosphorylated
6phosphate (B) cAMP converts glycogen synthase b to ‘a’
(C) Transformation of acetyl CoA to pyruvate (C) Insulin converts glycogen synthase b to a
(D) Formation of acetyl CoA from fatty acids (D) UDP glucose molecules interact and grow
intoa Glycogen tree
202. Amylo 1, 6 glucosidase is called 210. Which one of the following is a rate limiting
(A) Branching enzyme enzyme of gluconeogenesis?
(B) debranching enzyme (A) Hexokinase
(C) Glucantransferase (B) Phsophofructokinase
(D) Phosphorylase (C) Pyruvate carboxylase
(D) Pyruvate kinase
203. Glucose enters the cells by
(A) insulin independent transport 211. The number of ATP produced in the succinate
dehydrogenase step is
(B) insulin dependent transport
(C) enzyme mediated transport (A) 1 (B) 2
(D) Both (A) and (B) (C) 3 (D) 4
204. Glycogen while being acted upon by active 212. Which of the following reaction gives lactose?
phosphorylase is converted first to (A) UDP galactose and glucose
(A) Glucose (B) UDP glucose and galactose
(B) Glucose 1-phosphate and Glycogen with 1 (C) Glucose and Galactose
carbon less (D) Glucose, Galactose and UTP
(C) Glucose-6-phosphate and Glycogen with 1
213. UDP Glucuronic acid is required for the
carbon less
biosynthesis of
(D) 6-Phosphogluconic acid
(A) Chondroitin sulphates
205. When O2 supply is inadequate, pyruvate is (B) Glycogen
converted to (C) Lactose
(A) Phosphopyruvate (B) Acetyl CoA (D) Starch
(C) Lactate (D) Alanine
214. Which one of the following can covert glucose to
206. Reactivation of inactive liver phosphorylase is vitamin C?
normally favoured by (A) Albino rats (B) Humans
(A) Insulin (B) Epinephrine (C) Monkeys (D) Guinea pigs
(C) ACTH (D) Glucagon
215. Which one of the following cannot
207. Before pyruvic acid enters the TCA cycle it must convertglucose to Vitamin C?
be converted to (A) Albino rats (B) Dogs
(A) Acetyl CoA (B) Lactate (C) Monkeys (D) Cows
(C) α-ketoglutarate (D) Citrate 216. Transketolase has the coenzyme:
208. The hydrolysis of Glucose-6-phosphate is (A) NAD+ (B) FP
catalysed by a specific phosphatase which is (C) TPP (D) Pyridoxol phosphate
found only in
217. Two conditions in which gluconeogenesisis
(A) Liver, intestines and kidneys
increased are
(B) Brain, spleen and adrenals
(A) Diabetes mellitus and atherosclerosis
(C) Striated muscle
(B) Fed condition and thyrotoxicosis
(D) Plasma
(C) Diabetes mellitus and Starvation
209. The formation of citrate from oxalo acetate and (D) Alcohol intake and cigarette smoking
acetyl CoA is
218. Acetyl CoA is not used for the synthesis of
(A) Oxidation (B) Reduction
(A) Fatty acid (B) Cholesterol
(C) Condensation (D) Hydrolysis
(C) Pyruvic acid (D) Citric acid
219. The total glycogen content of the body is about (D) All of these
______ gms.
228. The absorption of glucose in the digestive tract
(A) 100 (B) 200
(A) Occurs in the small intestine
(C) 300 (D) 500
(B) Is stimulated by the hormone Glucagon
220. The total Glucose in the body is ________ gms. (C) Occurs more rapidly than the absorption
(A) 10–15 (B) 20–30 ofany other sugar
(C) 40–50 (D) 60–80 (D) Is impaired in cases of diabetes mellitus
221. Pyruvate kinase requires ______ ions for 229. UDP-Glucose is converted to UDP-
maximum activity. Glucuronic acid by
(A) Na+ (B) K+ (A) ATP(B) GTP
(C) Ca2 +
(D) Mg2 + (C) NADP+ (D) NAD+
222. ATP is ‘wasted’ in Rapoport-Lueberringcycle in 230. The enzymes involved in Phosphorylation of

RBCs as otherwise it will inhibit glucose to glucose 6- phosphate are
(A) Phosphoglucomutase (A) Hexokinase

(B) Phosphohexo isomerase (B) Glucokinase
(C) Phosphofructo kinase (C) Phosphofructokinase
(D) Phosphoenol pyruvate carboxy kinase (D) Both (A) and (B)
223. The following co-enzyme is needed for 231. In conversion of Lactic acid to Glucose,three
theoxidative decarboxylation of ketoacids: reactions of Glycolytic pathway are
circumvented, which of the following enzymes
(A) NADP+ (B) TPP (C) Folate coenzyme (D) Biotin do not participate?
coenzyme
(A) Pyruvate Carboxylase
224. Synthesis of Glucose from amino acids is termed (B) Phosphoenol pyruvate carboxy kinase
as (C) Pyruvate kinase
(A) Glycolysis (B) Gluconeogenesis (D) Glucose-6-phosphatase
(C) Glycogenesis (D) Lipogenesis 232. The normal resting state of humans, most of the
225. The following examples are important blood glucose burnt as “fuel” is consumed by
heteropolysaccharides except (A) Liver (B) Brain (C) Kidneys (D)
(A) Amylopectin (B) Heparin Adipose tissue
(C) Peptidoglycan (D) Hyaluronic acid 233. A regulator of the enzyme Glycogen synthase is
226. Whcih of the following features are common to (A) Citric acid
monosaccharides? (B) 2, 3 bisphosphoglycerate
(A) Contain asymmetric centres (C) Pyruvate
(B) Are of 2 types – aldoses and ketoses (D) GTP
(C) Tend to exist as ring structures in solution 234. Which of the following compound is a positive
(D) Include glucose, galactose and raffinose allosteric modifier of the enzyme pyruvate
227. Polysaccharides carboxylase?
(A) Contain many monosaccharide units (A) Biotin (B) Acetyl CoA
whichmay or may not be of the same kind (C) Oxaloacetate (D) ATP
(B) Function mainly a storage or 235. A specific inhibitor for succinate dehydrogenase
structuralcompounds is
(C) Are present in large amounts in
(A) Arsinite (B) Melouate
connectivetissue
(C) Citrate (D) Cyanide oxidized in presence of O 2 to the net number

formed in abscence of
236. Most of the metabolic pathways are either
O2 is
anabolic or catabolic. Which of the following
pathways is considered as “amphibolic” in (A) 4 : 1 (B) 10 : 2
nature? (C) 12 : 1 (D) 18 : 1
(A) Glycogenesis (B) Glycolytic pathway 244. The “Primaquin sensitivity types of haemolytic
(C) Lipolysis (D) TCA cycle anaemia has been found to relate to reduced
R.B.C activity of which enzyme?
237. Transketolase activity is affected in
(A) Pyruvate kinase deficiency
(A) Biotin deficiency
(B) Glucose-6-phosphatase deficiency
(B) Pyridoxine deficiency
(C) Glucose-6-p dehydrogenase deficiency
(C) PABA deficiency
(D) Hexokinase deficiency
(D) Thiamine deficiency
245. Which of the following hormones is not involved
238. The following metabolic abnormalities occur in
in carbohydrate metabolism?
Diabetes mellitus except
(A) Cortisol (B) ACTH
(A) Increased plasma FFA
(C) Glucogen (D) Vasopressin
(B) Increased pyruvate carboxylase activate
(C) Decreased lipogenesis 246. Dehydrogenases involved in HMP shunt are
(D) Decreased gluconeogenesis specific for
(A) NADP+ (B) NAD+
239. A substance that is not an intermediatein the
formation of D-glucuronic acid from glucose is (C) FAD (D) FMN
(A) Glucoss-1-p 247. Which of the following enzymes in Glycolytic
(B) 6-Phosphogluconate pathway is inhibited by fluoride?
(C) Glucose-6-p (A) Glyceraldehyde-3-p dehydrogenase
(D) UDP-Glucose (B) Phosphoglycerate kinase
240. The hydrolysis of Glucose-6-P is catalysed by a (C) Pyruvate kinase
phosphatase that is not formed in which of the (D) Enolase
following? 248. Out of 24 mols of ATP formed in TCA cycle,2
(A) Liver (B) Kidney molecules of ATP can be formed at “substrate
(C) Muscle (D) Small intestine level” by which of the following reaction ?
241. An essential for converting Glucose toGlycogen (A) Citric acid→ Isocitric acid (B) Isocitrate→
in Liver is Oxaloacetate
(A) Lactic acid (B) GTP (C) Succinic acid→ Fumarate
(C) CTP (D) UTP (D) Succinylcat→ Succinic acid
242. Which of the following is a substrate foraldolase 249. Which of the following statements regarding
activity in Glycolytic pathway? T.C.A cycle is true?
(A) Glyceraldehyde-3-p (A) It is an anaerobic process
(B) Glucose-6-p (B) It occurs in cytosol
(C) Fructose-6-p (C) It contains no intermediates for
(D) Fructose1,6-bisphosphate Gluconeogenesis
(D) It is amphibolic in nature
243. The ratio that approximates the numberof net
molecule of ATP formed per mole of Glucose 250. An allosteric enzyme responsible for controlling
the rate of T.C.A cycle is
(A) Malate dehydrogenase 258. The more positive the E0, the greater the
(B) Isocitrate dehydrogenase tendency of the oxidant member of that pair to
(C) Fumarase (A) Lose electrons
(D) Aconitase (B) Gain electrons
251. The glycolysis is regulated by (C) Lose (or) gain electrons
(D) Lose and gain electrons
(A) Hexokinase (B) Phosphofructokinase
(C) Pyruvate kinase (D) All of these 259. The standard free energy of hydrolysis of
terminal phosphate group of ATP is
252. How many ATP molecules will be requiredfor
conversion of 2-molecules of Lactic acid to (A) –7,300 cal/mol (B) –8,300 cal/mol
Glucose? (C) 10,000 cal/mol (D) +7,300 cal/mol
(A) 2 (B) 4 260. The transport of a pair of electrons from NADH
(C) 8 (D) 6 to O2 via the electron transport chain produces
253. Which of the following enzyme is not involved in (A) –52,580 cal (B) –50,580 cal
HMP shunt? (C) 21,900 cal (D) +52,580 cal
(A) Glyceraldehyde-3-p dehydrogenase 261. Sufficient energy required to produce 3 ATP from
(B) Glucose-6-p-dehydrogenase 3 ADP and 3 pi is
(C) Transketolase (A) –21,900 cal (B) 29,900 cal
(D) Phosphogluconate dehydrogenase (C) 31,900 cal (D) 39,900 cal
254. In presence of the following cofactor,pyruvate 262. The free energy change, AG
carboxylase converts pyruvate to oxaloacetate: (A) Is directly proportional to the standard
(A) ATP, Protein and CO2 freeenergy change, AG
(B) CO2 and ATP (B) Is equal to zero at equilibrium
(C) CO2 (C) Can only be calculated when the
reactantsand products are present at
(D) Protein
1mol/1 concentrations
255. For conversion of oxaloacetate to phosphoenol (D) Is equal to –RT in keq
pyruvate, high energy molecule is required in the
form of 263. Under standard conditions
(A) GTP only (B) ITP only (A) The free energy change ∆G°, is equal to 0
(C) GTP (or) ITP (D) None of these (B) The standard free energy change ∆G, is
equal to 0
256. If the more negative standard reductionpotential
of a redox pair, the greater the tendency to (C) The free energy change, ∆G°, is equal to the
standard free energy change, ∆G°
(A) To lose electrons
(D) Keq is equal to 1
(B) To gain electrons
(C) To lose/gain electrons 264. An uncoupler of oxidative phosphorylation such
(D) To lose and gain electrons as dinitrophenol
(A) Inhibits electron transport and ATP synthesis
257. Electron transport and phosphorylationcan be
(B) Allow electron transport to proceed
uncoupled by compounds that increase the
withoutATP synthesis
permeability of the inner mitochondrial
membrane to (C) Inhibits electron transport without
impairmentof ATP synthesis
(A) Electrons (B) Protons
(D) Specially inhibits cytochrome b
(C) Uncouplers (D) All of these
265. All of the following statements about the (B) Glucose enters most cells by a mechanism
enzymic complex that carries out the synthesis of inwhich Na+ and glucose are co-transported
ATP during oxidative phosphorylation are correct (C) Pyruvate kinase catalyses an
except irreversiblereaction
(A) It is located on the matrix side of the (D) An elevated level of insulin leads to
innermitochondrial membrane adecreased level of fructose 2, 6-
(B) It is inhibited by oligomycin bisphosphate in hepatocyte
(C) It can exhibit ATPase activity 271. Which one of the following compounds cannot
(D) It can bind molecular O2 give rise to the net synthesis of Glucose?
266. Glucokinase (A) Lactate (B) Glycerol
(A) Is widely distributed and occurs in (C) α-ketoglutarate (D) Acetyl CoA
mostmammalian tissues
272. Which of the following reactions is unique to
(B) Has a high km for glucose and hence is gluconeogenesis?
important in the phosphorylation of glucose
primarily after ingestion of a carbohydrate (A) Lactate Pyruvate
rich meal (B) Phosphoenol pyruvate pyruvate
(C) Is widely distributed in Prokaryotes (C) Oxaloacetate phosphoenol pyruvate
(D) None of these (D) Glucose-6-phosphate Fructose-6-phosphate
267. The reaction catalysed by phosphofructokinase 273. The synthesis of glucose from pyruvate by
gluconeogenesis
(A) Is activated by high concentrations of ATP
andcitrate (A) Requires the participation of biotin
(B) Uses fruitose-1-phosphate as substrate (B) Occurs exclusively in the cytosol
(C) Is the rate-limiting reaction of the (C) Is inhibited by elevated level of insulin
glycolyticpathway (D) Requires oxidation/reduction of FAD
(D) Is inhibited by fructose 2, 6-bisphosphate
274. The conversion of pyruvate to acetyl CoA and
268. Compared to the resting state, vigorously CO2
contracting muscle shows (A) Is reversible
(A) An increased conversion of pyruvate to (B) Involves the participation of lipoic acid
lactate (C) Depends on the coenzyme biotin
(B) Decreased oxidation of pyruvate of CO 2 and (D) Occurs in the cytosol
water 275. Pasteur effect is
(C) A decreased NADH/NAD+ ratio
(A) Inhibition of glycolysis
(D) Decreased concentration of AMP
(B) Oxygen is involved
269. Which one of the following would be expected in
(C) Inhibition of enzyme phosphofructokinase
pyruvate kinase deficiency?
(D) All of these
(A) Increased levels of lactate in the R.B.C(B)
Hemolytic anemia 276. How many ATPs are produced in the conversion
(C) Decreased ratio of ADP to ATP in R.B.C of phosphoenol pyruvate to citrate?
(D) Increased phosphorylation of Glucose (A) 1 (B) 2
toGlucose-6-phosphate (C) 4 (D) 6
270. Which one of the following statements 277. Reduced glutathione functions in R.B.Cs to
concerning glucose metabolism is correct? (A) Produce NADPH
(A) The conversion of Glucose to lactate (B) Reduce methemoglobin to hemoglobin
occursonly in the R.B.C (C) Produce NADH
(D) Reduce oxidizing agents such as H2O2 289. The distinguishing test between
monosaccharides and dissaccharide is
278. Phenylalanine is the precursor of
(A) Bial’s test (B) Seliwanoff’s test
(A) L-DOPA (B) Histamine
(C) Barfoed’s test (D) Hydrolysis test
(C) Tyrosine (D) Throxine
290. Barfoed’s solution is not reduced by
279. D-Mannose is present in some plant products
like (A) Glucose (B) Mannose
(C) Sucrose (D) Ribose
(A) Resins (B) Pectins
(C) Mucilage (D) Gums 291. Cori cycle is
280. Galactose is a main constituent of (A) Synthesis of glucose

(B) reuse of glucose
(A) Milk sugar (B) Honey
(C) uptake of glycose
(C) Cane sugar (D) Chitin
(D) Both (A) & (B)
281. Glucosamine is an important constituent of
292. Cane sugar is known as
(A) Homopolysaccharide
(A) Galactose (B) Sucrose
(B) Heteropolysaccharide
(C) Fructose (D) Maltose
(C) Mucopolysaccharide
(D) Dextran 293. Which of the following is not reducing sugar?
(A) Lactose (B) Maltose
282. Glycogen is present in all body tissuesexcept (C) Sucrose (D) Fructose
(A) Liver (B) Brain 294. α−D-Glucose and β−D-glucose are related by
(C) Kidney (D) Stomach (A) Epimers (B) Anomers
283. Iodine test is positive for starch, dextrin and (C) Multirotation (D) Ketoenol pair
(A) Mucoproteins (B) Agar 295. The stable ring formation in D-Glucose involves
(C) Glycogen (D) Cellulose (A) C-1 and C-4 (B) C-1 and C-2
284. The general formula for polysaccharide is (C) C-1 and C-5 (D) C-2 and C-5
(A) (C6H10O5)n (B) (C6H12C6)n 296. Reduction of Glucose with Ca++ in water produces
(C) (C6H12O5)n (D) (C5H10O5)n (A) Sorbitol (B) Dulcitol
285. Epimers of glucose is (C) Mannitol (D) Glucuronic acid
(A) Fructose (B) Galactose 297. Starch and glycogen are polymers of
(C) Ribose (D) Deoxyribose (A) Fructose (B) Mannose
286. Human heart muscle contains (C) α−D-Glucose (D) Galactose
(A) D-Arabinose (B) D-Ribose 298. Reducing ability of carbohydrates is due to
(C) D-Xylose (D) L-Xylose (A) Carboxyl group (B) Hydroxyl group
287. The intermediate n hexose monophosphate (C) Enediol formation (D) Ring structure
shunt is
299. Which of the following is not a polymer of
(A) D-Ribulose (B) D-Arabinose glucose?
(C) D-xylose (D) D-Lyxose (A) Amylose (B) Inulin
288. On boiling Benedict’s solution is not reduced by (C) Cellulose (D) Dextrin
(A) Sucrose (B) Lactose 300. Invert sugar is
(C) Maltose (D) Fructose (A) Lactose
(B) Mannose
(C) Fructose 133. C 134. B 135. C 136. C 137. C 138. A 139. B

(D) Hydrolytic product of sucrose 140. C 141. B 142. A 143. C 144. D
145. B 146. C 147. B
301 The carbohydrate reserved in human body is
148. B 149. B 150. D
(A) Starch (B) Glucose 151. B 152. C 153. D 154. A 155. B 156.
(C) Glycogen (D) Inulin A 157. C 158. A 159. B 160. D 161. A 162.
B
302 A dissaccharide linked by α-1-4 Glycosideic
linkages is 163. A 164. B 165. D
166. C 167. C 168. A
(A) Lactose (B) Sucrose
169. B 170. A 171. D
(C) Cellulose (D) Maltose
172. C 173. A 174. B
ANSWERS
175. D 176. B 177. A
1. A 2. A 3. A 4. A 5. B 6. A 7. A 8. D 9. A 10. A 178. C 179. D 180. B
11. A 12. C 13. B 14. A 15. A 16. B 17. A 18. A
181. B 182. C 183. D 184. B 185. C 186.
19. C 20. C 21. A
C 187. A 188. B 189. C 190. B 191. A 192.
22. D 23. C 24. B
D 193. D 194. C 195. D 196. A 197. B 198.
25. A 26. D 27. C
28. C 29. B 30. B B 199. C 200. C 201. C 202. B 203. D 204.
31. D 32. A 33. C C
34. B 35. B 36. B 205. C 206. D 207. A 208. A 209. C 210. C 211. B
37. C 38. B 39. D 212. A 213. A 214. A 215. C 216. C 217. C 218. C
40. A 41. D 42. B 219. C 220. B 221. B 222.C 223. B 224. B 225. A
43. A 44. B 45. A 226. C 227. D 228. A 229. B 230. D 231. C 232. B
46. A 47. A 48. A 233. C 234. A 235. B 236. D 237. B 238. B 239. B
240. C 241. D 242. D 243. B 244. C 245. D 246. A
49. B 50. C 51. C
247. D 248. D 249. D 250. B 251. D 252. D 253. A
52. A 53. A 54. A
254. A 255. C 256. A 257. B 258. B 259. A 260. D
55. B 56. A 57. D
261. A 262. B 263. C 264. B
58. A 59. C 60. D
265. D 266. B 267. C
61. C 62. C 63. B
268. A 269. B 270. C
64. C 65. C 66. C
271. B 272. C 273. A 274. B 275. D 276. C 277. D
67. B 68. C 69. D
278. C 279. D 280. A 281. C 282. B 283. C 284. A
70. D 71. A 72. A
285. B 286. C 287. A 288. A 289. C 290. C 291. D
73. B 74. B 75. B 292. B 293. C 294. B 295. C 296. A 297. C 298. A
76. B 77. A 78. C 299. B 300. D
79. A 80. B 81. D 301. C 302. D two types–
82. C 83. D 84. D hompolysacchar
85. B 86. D 87. D ides that
88. C 89. B 90. A contain a single
91. A 92. D 93. A 94. C 95. C 96. D type of
97. D 98. A 99. C 100. C 101. B 102. monosaccharide
A 103. C 104. C 105. B 106. B 107. C 108. (e.g., starch,
D 109. B 110. C 111. B 112. B 113. B 114. insulin,
EXPLANATIONS FOR cellulose) and
D 115. B 116. B 117. A 118. B 119. B 120. THE ANSWERS heteropolysacch
A 121. B 122. D 123. B 124. A 125. C 126. 7. A Polysaccharides are arides with two
A polymers of or more
127. B 128. D 129. C monosaccharide different types
130. A 131. A 132. D s. They are of of
monosaccharide arides 163. A Seliwanoff’s test: (b) Insulin-

s (e.g., heparin, (commonly this is a specific dependent
chondroitin known as test for transport: This
sulfate). glycosaminoglyc ketohexoses. occurs in muscle
30. B Mutorotation ans) are Concentrated and adipose
refers to the heteropolysacch hydrochloric tissue.
change in the arides acid dehydrates 230. D Hexokinase and
specific optical composed of ketohexoses to glucokinase
rotation sugar form furfural are involved
representing derivatives derivatives in the
the (mainly amino which condense phosphoryla
interconversion sugars and with resorcinol tion of
of α- and β- uronic acids). to give a cherry glucose to
anomers of D- The important red complex. glucose
glucose to an mucopolysacch 187. A Rothera’s test: 6phosphate.
equilibrium. arides include Nitroprosside in The enzyme
48. A Starch is a hyaluronic acid, alkaline hexokinase,
polysaccharide heparin, medium reacts present in
composed of chondroitin with keto group almost all
Dglucose units sulfate, of ketone the tissues,
held together dermatan bodies (acetone catalyses the
sulfate and and phosphoryla
by α-glycosidic
keratan sulfate. acetoacetate) to tion of other
bonds, (α 1→ 4
141. B Molisch test: It is a form a purple hexose also
linkages; at
general test for ring. This test is (fructose,
branching
the detection of not given by β- mannose). It
points α 1→ 6
carbohydrates. hydroxybutyrat has low Km
linkages).
The strong e. for
71. A Hyaluronic acid is H2SO4 substrates
203. D Two specific
the ground hydrolyses (about 0.1
transport
substance of carbohydrates mM) and is
systems are
synovial fluid of (poly- and inhibited by
recognized for
joints. It serves disaccharides) glucose
the entry of
as lubricants to liberate 6phosphate.
glucose into the
and shock monosaccharide In contrast,
cells.
absorbant in s. The glucokinase
joints. (a) Insulin-
monosaccharide independent is present in
93. A The process of s liver,
transport: This
shifting a get dehydrated catalyses the
is a carrier
hydrogen atom to form furfural phosphoryla
mediated
from one (from pentoses) tion of only
uptake of
carbon to or hydroxy glucose, has
glucose which is
another to methylfurfural high Km for
not dependent
produce (from hexoses) glucose (10
on the hormone
enediols is which condense mM)
inslulin. This
referred to as
with α-naphthol operates in and is not
tautomerization inhibited by glucose 6-
to form a violet hepatocytes,
. phosphate. 251. D The
coloured erythrocytes
117. A complex. three enzymes namely
and brain.
Mucopolysacch hexokinase (or
glucokinase),
phosphofructokinase
and pyruvate kinase,
catalyzing the
irreversible reactions
regulate glycolysis.
Among these,
phosphofructokinase
is the most regulatory.
It is an allosteric
enzyme inhibited by
ATP, citrate and
activated by AMP and
Pi.
275. D The inhibition
of glycolysis by oxygen
is referred to as
Pasteur effect. This is
due to inhibition of
the enzyme
phosphofructokinase
by ATP and citrate
(formed in the
presence of O2)
291. D The cycle involving
the synthesis of
glucose in liver
from the skeletal
muscle lactate
and the reuse of
glucose thus
synthesized by
the muscle for
energy purposes
is known as Cori
Cycle.
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CHAPTER 3
PROTEINS AND PROTEIN METABOLISM

1. All proteins contain the (D) All amino acids contain
(A) Same 20 amino acids negatively chargedside
chains
(B) Different amino acids
(C) 300 Amino acids occurring in 6. pH (isoelectric pH) of alanine is
nature (A) 6.02 (B) 6.6 (C) 6.8 (D)
(D) Only a few amino acids 7.2
2. Proteins contain 7. Since the pK values for aspartic
(A) Only L- α - amino acids acid are2.0, 3.9 and 10.0, it
follows that the
(B) Only D-amino acids
isoelectric (pH) is
(C) DL-Amino acids
(A) 3.0 (B) 3.9
(D) Both (A) and (B)
(C) 5.9 (D) 6.0
3. The optically inactive amino acid
8. Sulphur containing amino acid is
is
(A) Methionine (B) Leucine
(A) Glycine (B) Serine
(C) Valine (D) Asparagine
(C) Threonine (D) Valine
9. An example of sulphur containing
4. At neutral pH, a mixture of amino
aminoacid is
acidsin solution would be
predominantly: (A) 2-Amino-3-
mercaptopropanoic acid
(A) Dipolar ions
(B) 2-Amino-3-methylbutanoic
(B) Nonpolar molecules
acid
(C) Positive and monovalent
(C) 2-Amino-3-hydroxypropanoic
(D) Hydrophobic
acid
5. The true statement about (D) Amino acetic acid
solutions ofamino acids at
10. All the following are sulphur
physiological pH is
containingamino acids found in
(A) All amino acids contain both proteins except
positive andnegative charges
(A) Cysteine (B) Cystine
(B) All amino acids contain
(C) Methionine (D) Threonine
positively chargedside chains
(C) Some amino acids contain 11. An aromatic amino acid is
only positivecharge (A) Lysine (B) Tyrosine
(C) Taurine (D) Arginine (A) Valine (B) Arginine
12. The functions of plasma albumin (C) Lysine (D) Tyrosine
are
18. An example of polar amino acid is
(A) Osmosis (B) Transport
(A) Alanine (B) Leucine
(C) Immunity (D) both (A )and (B)
(C) Arginine (D) Valine
13. Amino acid with side chain
19. The amino acid with a nonpolar
containingbasic groups is
side chainis
(A) 2-Amino 5-guanidovaleric
(A) Serine (B) Valine
acid
(C) Asparagine (D) Threonine
(B) 2-Pyrrolidine carboxylic acid
(C) 2-Amino 3- 20. A ketogenic amino acid is
mercaptopropanoic acid (A) Valine (B) Cysteine
(D) 2-Amino propanoic acid (C) Leucine (D) Threonine
14. An example of α-amino acid not 21. An amino acid that does not form
present in proteins but essential an αhelix is
in mammalian metabolism is (A) Valine (B) Proline
(A) 3-Amino 3-hydroxypropanoic (C) Tyrosine (D) Tryptophan
acid(B) 2-Amino 3-
hydroxybutanoic acid 22. An amino acid not found in
proteins is
(C) 2-Amino 4-
mercaptobutanoic acid (A) β-Alanine (B) Proline
(D) 2-Amino 3- (C) Lysine (D) Histidine
mercaptopropanoic acid
23. In mammalian tissues serine can
15. An essential amino acid in man is be abiosynthetic precursor of
(A) Aspartate (B) Tyrosine (A) Methionine (B) Glycine
(C) Methionine (D) Serine (C) Tryptophan (D) Phenylalanine
16. Non essential amino acids 24. A vasodilating compound is
(A) Are not components of tissue produced bythe decarboxylation
proteins of the amino acid:
(B) May be synthesized in the (A) Arginine (B) Aspartic
body from essentialamino acid
acids (C) Glutamine (D) Histidine
(C) Have no role in the 25. Biuret reaction is specific for
metabolism
(A) –CONH-linkages (B) –CSNH2
(D) May be synthesized in the
group
body in diseasedstates
(C) –(NH)NH2 group (D) All of
17. Which one of the following is these
semiessential amino acid for
humans? 26. Sakaguchi’s reaction is specific for
(A) Tyrosine (B) Proline

(C) Arginine (D) Cysteine
27. Million-Nasse’s reaction is
specific for theamino acid:
(A) Tryptophan (B) Tyrosine
(C) Phenylalanine (D) Arginine
28. Ninhydrin with evolution of CO 2

forms a blue complex with
(A) Peptide bond (B) α-Amino

acids
(C) Serotonin (D) Histamine
29. The most of the ultraviolet
absorption ofproteins above 240
nm is due to their content of
(A) Tryptophan (B) Aspartate
(C) Glutamate (D) Alanine
30. Which of the following is a
dipeptide?
(A) Anserine (B)
Glutathione
(C) Glucagon (D) β -Lipoprotein

tripeptide?
(A) Anserine (B) Oxytocin
(C) Glutathione (D) Kallidin
PROTEINS AND PROTEIN METABOLISM 29
32. A peptide which acts as potent smoothmuscle 43. The amino acid from which synthesis ofthe protein
hypotensive agent is of hair keratin takes place is
(A) Glutathione (B) Bradykinin (A) Alanine (B) Methionine
(C) Tryocidine (D) Gramicidin-s (C) Proline (D) Hydroxyproline
33. A tripeptide functioning as an importantreducing 44. In one molecule of albumin the numberof amino
agent in the tissues is acids is
(A) Bradykinin (B) Kallidin (A) 510 (B) 590
(C) Tyrocidin (D) Glutathione (C) 610 (D) 650
34. An example of metalloprotein is 45. Plasma proteins which contain more than
(A) Casein (B) Ceruloplasmin 4% hexosamine are
(C) Gelatin (D) Salmine (A) Microglobulins (B) Glycoproteins
(C) Mucoproteins (D) Orosomucoids
35. Carbonic anhydrase is an example of
(A) Lipoprotein (B) Phosphoprotein 46. After releasing O2 at the tissues, hemoglobin
(C) Metalloprotein (D) Chromoprotein transports
(A) CO2 and protons to the lungs (B) O 2 to the
36. An example of chromoprotein is
lungs
(A) Hemoglobin (B) Sturine
(C) Nuclein (D) Gliadin (C) CO2 and protons to the tissue
(D) Nutrients
37. An example of scleroprotein is
47. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome characterized
(A) Zein (B) Keratin
byhypermobile joints and skin abnormalities is due
(C) Glutenin (D) Ovoglobulin to
38. Casein, the milk protein is (A) Abnormality in gene for procollagen
(A) Nucleoprotein (B) Chromoprotein (B) Deficiency of lysyl oxidase
(C) Phosphoprotein (D) Glycoprotein (C) Deficiency of prolyl hydroxylase
(D) Deficiency of lysyl hydroxylase
39. An example of phosphoprotein presentin egg yolk
is 48. Proteins are soluble in
(A) Ovoalbumin (B) Ovoglobulin (A) Anhydrous acetone(B) Aqueous alcohol
(C) Ovovitellin (D) Avidin (C) Anhydrous alcohol (D) Benzene
40. A simple protein found in the nucleoproteins of 49. A cereal protein soluble in 70% alcoholbut
the sperm is insoluble in water or salt solution is
(A) Prolamine (B) Protamine (A) Glutelin (B) Protamine
(C) Glutelin (D) Globulin (C) Albumin (D) Gliadin
41. Histones are 50. Many globular proteins are stable insolution
(A) Identical to protamine inspite they lack in
(B) Proteins rich in lysine and arginine (A) Disulphide bonds (B) Hydrogen bonds
(C) Proteins with high molecular weight (C) Salt bonds (D) Non polar bonds
(D) Insoluble in water and very dilute acids 51. The hydrogen bonds between peptidelinkages of a
42. The protein present in hair is protein molecules are interfered by
(A) Keratin (B) Elastin (A) Guanidine (B) Uric acid
(C) Myosin (D) Tropocollagen (C) Oxalic acid (D) Salicylic acid
52. Globular proteins have completely folded,coiled 60. At the lowest energy level α-helix of polypeptide
polypeptide chain and the axial ratio (ratio of chain is stabilised
length to breadth) is
(A) By hydrogen bonds formed between the H
(A) Less than 10 and generally not greater than ofpeptide N and the carbonyl O of the residue
3–4 (B) Disulphide bonds(C) Non polar bonds
(B) Generally 10 (D) Ester bonds
(C) Greater than 10 and generally 20
(D) Greater than 10 61. Both α-helix and β-pleated sheet conformation of
proteins were proposed by
53. Fibrous proteins have axial ratio
(A) Watson and Crick
(A) Less than 10 (B) Pauling and Corey
(B) Less than 10 and generally not greater than (C) Waugh and King
3–4
(D) Y.S.Rao
(C) Generally 10
(D) Greater than 10 62. The primary structure of fibroin, theprincipal
protein of silk worm fibres consists almost entirely
54. Each turn of α-helix contains the amino acid of
residues (number): (A) Glycine (B) Aspartate
(A) 3.6 (B) 3.0 (C) Keratin (D) Tryptophan
(C) 4.2 (D) 4.5 63. Tertiary structure of a protein describes
55. Distance traveled per turn of α−helix in nm is (A) The order of amino acids
(A) 0.53 (B) 0.54 (B) Location of disulphide bonds
(C) 0.44 (D) 0.48 (C) Loop regions of proteins
(D) The ways of protein folding
56. Along the α-helix each amino acid residue
64. In a protein molecule the disulphide bondis not
advances in nm by
broken by
(A) 0.15 (B) 0.10
(A) Reduction
(C) 0.12 (D) 0.20
(B) Oxidation
57. The number of helices present in acollagen (C) Denaturation
molecule is (D) X-ray diffraction
(A) 1 (B) 2
65. The technique for purification of proteinsthat can
(C) 3 (D) 4 be made specific for a given protein is
58. In proteins the α-helix and β-pleated sheet are (A) Gel filtration chromotography
examples of (B) Ion exchange chromatography
(A) Primary structure (B) Secondary (C) Electrophoresis
structure (D) Affinity chromatography
(C) Tertiary structure (D) Quaternary structure 66. Denaturation of proteins results in
59. The a-helix of proteins is (A) Disruption of primary structure(B) Breakdown
(A) A pleated structure of peptide bonds
(B) Made periodic by disulphide bridges (C) Destruction of hydrogen bonds
(C) A non-periodic structure (D) Irreversible changes in the molecule
(D) Stabilised by hydrogen bonds between NHand 67. Ceruloplasmin is
CO groups of the main chain (A) α1-globulin (B) α2-globulin
(C) β-globulin (D) None of these (B) Loss of apolipoprotein B

(C) Increased production of LDL from VLDL
68. The lipoprotein with the fastest electrophoretic
mobility and the lowest triglyceride content is (D) Functional deficiency of plasma
membranereceptors for LDL
(A) Chylomicron (B) VLDL (C) IDL (D) HDL
79. In abetalipoproteinemia, the biochemicaldefect is
69. The lipoprotein associated with activationof LCAT
in
is
(A) Apo-B synthesis
(A) HDL (B) LDL
(B) Lipprotein lipase activity
(C) VLDL (D) IDL
(C) Cholesterol ester hydrolase
70. The apolipoprotein which acts as activatorof LCAT (D) LCAT activity
is
80. Familial hypertriaacylglycerolemia isassociated
(A) A-I (B) A-IV
with
(C) C-II (D) D
(A) Over production of VLDL
71. The apolipoprotein which acts as actiatorof (B) Increased LDL concentration
extrahepatic lipoprotein is
(C) Increased HDL concentration
(A) Apo-A (B) Apo-B (D) Slow clearance of chylomicrons
(C) Apo-C (D) Apo-D
81. For synthesis of prostaglandins, theessential fatty
72. The apolipoprotein which forms theintegral acids give rise to a fatty acid containing
component of chylomicron is
(A) 12 carbon atoms (B) 16 carbon atoms
(A) B-100(B) B-48 (C) C (D) D (C) 20 carbon atoms (D) 24 carbon atoms
73. The apolipoprotein which from theintegral
82. All active prostaglandins have at least onedouble
component of VLDL is
bond between positions
(A) B-100(B) B-48 (C) A (D) D
(A) 7 and 8 (B) 10 and 11
74. The apolipoprotein which acts as ligandfor LDL (C) 13 and 14 (D) 16 and 17
receptor is
83. Normal range of plasma total phospholipids is
(A) B-48 (B) B-100
(A) 0.2–0.6 mmol/L (B) 0.9–2.0 mmol/L
(C) A (D) C
(C) 1.8–5.8 mmol/L (D) 2.8–5.3 mmol/L
75. Serum LDL has been found to be increasedin
84. HDL2 have the density in the range of
(A) Obstructive jaundice(B) Hepatic jaundice
(C) Hemolytic jaundice (A) 1.006–1.019 (B) 1.019–1.032 (C) 1.032–1.063
(D) 1.063–1.125
(D) Malabsorption syndrome
85. β-lipoproteins have the density in the range of
76. A lipoprotein associated with highincidence of
coronary atherosclerosis is (A) 0.95–1.006 (B) 1.006–1.019
(C) 1.019–1.063 (D) 1.063–1.125
(A) LDL (B) VLDL
(C) IDL (D) HDL 86. IDL have the density in the range of
77. A lipoprotein inversely related to theincidence of (A) 0.95–1.006 (B) 1.006–1.019
coronary artherosclerosis is (C) 1.019–1.032 (D) 1.032–1.163
(A) VLDL (B) IDL
87. Aspirin inhibits the activity of the enzyme:
(C) LDL (D) HDL
(A) Lipoxygenase (B) Cyclooxygenase
78. The primary biochemical lesion in homozygote
(C) Phospholipae A1 (D) Phospholipase A2
with familial hypercholesterolemia (type IIa) is
(A) Loss of feed back inhibition of HMGreductase 88. A ’suicide enzyme’ is
(A) Cycloxygenase(B) Lipooxygenase (C) Aromatic amino acids

(C) Phospholipase A1 (D) Phospholipase A2 (D) Next to small amino acid residues
89. In adipose tissue prostaglandinsdecrease 100. Chymotrypsin is specific for peptide

bondscontaining
(A) Lipogenesis (B) Lipolysis
(A) Uncharged amino acid residues
(C) Gluconeogenesis (D) Glycogenolysis
(B) Acidic amino acids
90 The optimal pH for the enzyme pepsin is (C) Basic amino acid
(A) 1.0–2.0 (B) 4.0–5.0 (D) Small amino acid residues
(C) 5.2– 6.0 (D) 5.8–6.2
101. The end product of protein digestion in
91. Pepsinogen is converted to active pepsinby G.I.T. is
(A) HCl (B) Bile salts (A) Dipeptide (B) Tripeptide
(C) Ca++ (D) Enterokinase (C) Polypeptide (D) Amino acid
92. The optimal pH for the enzyme rennin is 102. Natural L-isomers of amino acids are absorbed
from intestine by
(A) 2.0(B) 4.0
(A) Passive diffusion (B) Simple diffusion
(C) 8.0 (D) 6.0
(C) Faciliated diffusion(D) Active process
93. The optimal pH for the enzyme trypsin is
103. Abnormalities of blood clotting are
(A) 1.0–2.0 (B) 2.0–4.0
(A) Haemophilia (B) Christmas disease
(C) 5.2–6.2 (D) 5.8–6.2
(C) Gout (D) Both (A) and (B)
94. The optimal pH for the enzyme chymotrypsin is
104. An important reaction for the synthesisof amino
(A) 2.0(B) 4.0 acid from carbohydrate intermediates is
(C) 6.0 (D) 8.0 transamination which requires the cofactor:
95 Trypsinogen is converted to active trypsin by (A) Thiamin (B) Riboflavin
(A) Enterokinase (B) Bile salts (C) Niacin (D) Pyridoxal phosphate
(C) HCl (D) Mg++ 105. The main sites for oxidative deamination are
96 Pepsin acts on denatured proteins to produce (A) Liver and kidney
(A) Proteoses and peptones (B) Skin and pancreas
(B) Polypeptides (C) Intestine and mammary gland
(C) Peptides (D) Lung and spleen
(D) Dipeptides 106. A positive nitrogen balance occurs
97. Renin converts casein to paracasein inpresence (A) In growing infant
of (B) Following surgery
(A) Ca++ (B) Mg++ (C) In advanced cancer
(C) Na +
(D) K+ (D) In kwashiorkar
98. An expopeptidase is 107. The main site of urea synthesis in mammals is

(A) Trypsin (B) Chymotrypsin (A) Liver (B) Skin
(C) Elastase (D) Elastase (C) Intestine (D) Kidney
99. The enzyme trypsin is specific for peptidebonds 108. The enzymes of urea synthesis are found in
of (A) Mitochondria only
(A) Basic amino acids (B) Cytosol only
(B) Acidic amino acids (C) Both mitochondria and cytosol
(D) Nucleus 117. In carcinoid syndrome the argentaffintissue of

the abdominal cavity overproduce
109. The number of ATP required for urea synthesis is
(A) Serotonin (B) Histamine
(A) 0 (B) 1
(C) Tryptamine (D) Tyrosine
(C) 2 (D) 3
118. Tryptophan could be considered asprecursor of
110. Most of the ammonia released from L-αamino
(A) Melanotonin (B) Thyroid hormones
acids reflects the coupled action of transaminase
(C) Melanin (D) Epinephrine
and
(A) L-glutamate dehydrogenase 119. Conversion of tyrosine to
(B) L-amino acid oxidase dihydroxyphenylalanine is catalysed by tyrosine
hydroxylase which requires
(C) Histidase
(D) Serine dehydratase (A) NAD (B) FAD
(C) ATP (D) Tetrahydrobiopterin
111. In urea synthesis, the amino acid functioning
solely as an enzyme activator: 120. The rate limiting step in the biosynthesisof
catecholamines is
(A) N-acetyl glutamate(B) Ornithine
(C) Citrulline (D) Arginine (A) Decarboxylation of
dihydroxyphenylalanine
112. The enzyme carbamoyl phosphate synthetase (B) Hydroxylation of phenylalanine
requires (C) Hydroxylation of tyrosine
(A) Mg++ (B) Ca++ (D) Oxidation of dopamine
(C) Na+ (D) K+ 121. The enzyme dopamine β-oxidase which
113. Control of urea cycle involves the enzyme: catalyses conversion of dopamine to
(A) Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase norepinephrine requires
(B) Ornithine transcarbamoylase (A) Vitamin A (B) Vitamin C
(C) Argininosuccinase (C) Vitamin E (D) Vitamin B12
(D) Arginase
122. In humans the sulphur of methionine
114. Transfer of the carbamoyl moiety ofcarbamoyl andcysteine is excreted mainly as
phosphate to ornithine is catalysed by a liver (A) Ethereal sulphate
mitochondrial enzyme:
(B) Inorganic sulphate
(A) Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase (C) Sulphites
(B) Ornithine transcarbamoylase (D) Thioorganic compound
(C) N-acetyl glutamate synthetase
123. Small amount of urinary oxalates is contributed
(D) N-acetyl glutamate hydrolase
by the amino acid:
115. A compound serving a link between citricacid (A) Glycine (B) Tyrosine
cycle and urea cycle is
(C) Alanine (D) Serine
(A) Malate (B) Citrate
(C) Succinate (D) Fumarate 124. The amino acid which detoxicated benzoicacid
to form hippuric acid is
116. The 2 nitrogen atoms in urea are contributed by
(A) Glycine (B) Alanine
(A) Ammonia and glutamate (C) Serine (D) Glutamic acid
(B) Glutamine and glutamate
125. The amino acids involved in the synthesis of
(C) Ammonia and aspartate
creatin are
(D) Ammonia and alanine
(A) Arginine, glycine, active methionine(B) (C) Lysine (D) Threonine

Arginine, alanine, glycine 137. Pulses are deficient in
(C) Glycine, lysine, methionine
(A) Lysine (B) Threonine
(D) Arginine, lysine, methionine
(C) Methionine (D) Tryptophan
126. Chemical score of egg proteins is considered to
138. A trace element deficient in the milk is
be
(A) Magnesium (B) Copper
(A) 100 (B) 60
(C) Zinc (D) Chloride
(C) 50 (D) 40
139. A conjugated protein present in the eggyolk is
127. Chemical score of milk proteins is
(A) Vitellin (B) Livetin
(A) 70 (B) 65
(C) Albuminoids (D) Ovo-mucoid 140. The
(C) 60 (D) 40
chief protein of cow’s milk is
128. Chemical score of proteins of bengal gramis (A) Albumin (B) Vitellin
(A) 70 (B) 60 (C) Livetin (D) Casein
141. A water soluble vitamin deficient in egg is
(C) 44 (D) 42
(A) Thiamin (B) Ribofalvin
129. Chemical score of protein gelatin is
(C) Ascrobic acid (D) Cobalamin
(A) 0 (B) 44
(C) 57 (D) 60 142. Pulses are rich in
130 Chemical score of protein zein is (A) Lysine (B) Methionine
(A) 0 (B) 57 (C) Tryptophan (D) Phenylalanine
(C) 60 (D) 70 143. Milk is deficient in
131. Biological value of egg white protein is (A) Vitamin B1 (B) Vitamin B2
(A) 94 (B) 83 (C) Sodium (D) Potassium
(C) 85 (D) 77 144. Milk is deficient in
132. Net protein utilisation of egg protein is (A) Calcium (B) Iron
(A) 75% (B) 80% (C) Sodium (D) Potassium
(C) 91% (D) 72% 145. When net protein utilization (NPU) is low, the
133. Net protein utilization of milk protein is requirements for proteins are
(A) 75% (B) 80% (A) High (B) Moderate

(C) 86% (D) 91% (C) Low (D) Supplementary
146. Protein content of human milk is about
134. A limiting amino acid is an essential amino acid
(A) 1.4% (B) 2.4%
(A) That is most deficient in proteins(B) That
(C) 3.4% (D) 4.4%
is most excess in proteins
(C) That which increases the growth 147. Protein content of cow’s milk is about
(D) That which increases the weight gain (A) 2.5% (B) 3.5%
(C) 4.5% (D) 5.5%
135. The limiting amino acid of rice is
(A) Lysine (B) Tryptophan 148. Protein content of soyabean is about
(C) Phenylalanine (D) Tyrosine (A) 30% (B) 40%
(C) 50% (D) 60%
136. The limiting amino acid of fish proteins is
149. Lipid content of egg white is
(A) Tryptophan (B) Cysteine
(A) 12% (B) 33% (C) 10–11% (D) 160. At isoelectric pH, an amino acid exists as
Traces (A) Anion (B) Cation
150. The recommended daily allowance (RDA) of (C) Zwitterion (D) None of these
proteins for an adult man is
161. A disulphide bond can be formed between
(A) 70 gms (B) 50 gms
(A) Two methionine residues
(C) 40 gms (D) 30 gms
(B) Two cysteine residues
151. The basic amino acids are (C) A methionine and a cysteine residue
(A) Lysine (B) Bile acids (D) All of these
(C) Glycine (D) Alanine 162 A coagulated protein is
152. The daily caloric requirement for the normal (A) Insoluble
adult female is about (B) Biologically non-functional
(A) 1500 (B) 2100 (C) Unfolded
(C) 2500 (D) 2900 (D) All of the above
153. In the total proteins, the percentage ofalbumin 163. At a pH below the isoelectric point, anamino
is about acid exists as
(A) 20–40 (B) 30–45 (A) Cation
(C) 50–70 (D) 80–90 (B) Anion
(C) Zwitterion
154. In the total proteins percentage of α1 globulin is (D) Undissociated molecule
about
(A) 0.2–1.2% (B) 1.2–2.0% 164. An amino acid having a hydrophilic sidechain is
(C) 2.4–4.4% (D) 5.0–10.0% (A) Alanine (B) Proline
(C) Methionine (D) Serine 165. An amino acid
155. In the total proteins the percentage of γglobulin
is about that does not take part in α helix formation is
(A) 2.4–4.4% (B) 10.0–21.0% (A) Histidine (B) Tyrosine
(C) 6.1–10.1% (D) 1.2–2.0% (C) Proline (D) Tryptophan
156. Most frequently the normal albumin globulin 166. A protein rich in cysteine is
ratioratio (A : G) is (A) Collagen (B) Keratin
(A) 1.0 : 0.8 (B) 1.5 : 1.0 (C) Haemoglobin (D) Gelatin
(C) 2.0 : 1.0 (D) 2.4 : 1.0
167. Primary structure of proteins can be determined
157. In Thymol turbidity test the protein involved is by the use of
mainly
(A) Electrophoresis (B) Chromatography
(A) Albumin (B) α1-Globulin (C) Ninhydrin (D) Sanger’s reagent
) 168. Electrostatic bonds can be formed betweenthe

(C) α2-Globulin (D β Globulin
side chains of
158. In quaternary structure, subunits are linked by
(A) Alanine and leucine
(A) Peptide bonds (B) Disulphide bonds (B) Leucine and valine
(C) Covalent bonds (D) Non-covalent bonds (C) Asparate and glutamate
159. Molecular weight of human albumin is about (D) Lysine and aspartate
(A) 156,000 (B) 90,000 169. Sanger’s reagent contains
(C) 69,000 (D) 54,000 (A) Phenylisothiocyanate
(B) Dansyl chloride 179. An –OH group is present in the side chain of
(C) 1-Fluoro-2, 4-dinitrobenzene (A) Serine (B) Arginine
(D) Ninhydrin (C) Lysine (D) Proline
170. The most abundant protein in mammals is 180. Edman’s reagent contains
(A) Albumin (B) Haemoglobin (A) Phenylisothiocyanate
(C) Collagen (D) Elastin (B) 1-Fluoro-2, 4-dinitrobenzene
171. Folding of newly synthesized proteins is (C) Dansyl Chloride
accelerated by (D) tBOC azide
(A) Protein disulphide isomerase 181. Edman’s reaction can be used to
(B) Prolyl cis-trans isomerase (A) Determine the number of tyrosine residues
(C) Chaperonins ina protein
(D) All of these (B) Determine the number of aromatic amino
acidresidues in a protein
172. Primary structure of a protein is formed by (C) Determine the amino acid sequence of
(A) Hydrogen bonds (B) Peptide bonds aprotein
(C) Disulphide bonds (D) All of these (D) Hydrolyse the peptide bonds in a protein
173. α-Helix is formed by 182. Inherited deficiency of β−glucosidase causes

(A) Hydrogen bonds (A) Tay-Sachs disease
(B) Hydrophobic bonds (B) Metachromatic leukodystrophy
(C) Electrostatic bonds (C) Gaucher’s disease
(D) Disulphide bonds (D) Multiple sclerosis
174. Glutelins are present in 183. Tay-Sachs disease results from

inheriteddeficiency of
(A) Milk (B) Eggs
(C) Meat (D) Cereals (A) Arylsulphatase A
(B) Hexosaminidase A
175. Aromatic amino acids can be detected by
(C) Sphingomyelinase
(A) Sakaguchi reaction (D) Ceramidase
(B) Millon-Nasse reaction(C) Hopkins-Cole
184. The largest alpolipoprotein is
reaction
(A) Apo E (B) Apo B-48
(D) Xanthoproteic reaction
(C) Apo B-100 (D) Apo A-I
176. Two amino groups are present in
185. Apolipoprotein B-100 is synthesised in
(A) Leucine (B) Glutamate
(A) Adipose tissue (B) Liver
(C) Lysine (D) Threonine
(C) Intestine (D) Liver and intestine
177. During denaturation of proteins, all of the
following are disrupted except 186. Apolipoprotein B-48 is synthesized in
(A) Primary structure (B) Secondary (A) Adipose tissue (B) Liver
structure (C) Intestine (D) Liver and intestine
(C) Tertiary structure (D) Quaternary structure 187. Apolipoproteins A-I and A-II are present in
178. All the following are branched chain amino acids (A) LDL only
except (B) LDL and VLDL
(A) Isoleucine (B) Alanine (C) HDL only
(C) Leucine (D) Valine (D) HDL and chylomicrons
188. Apolipoprotein B-48 is present in (A) Starvation

(A) Chylomicrons (B) VLDL (B) Wasting diseases
(C) LDL (D) HDL (C) Growing age
(D) Intestinal malabsorption
189. Apolipoprotein B-100 is present in
199. Alanine can be synthesized from
(A) Chylomicrons (B) VLDL only
(C) LDL only (D) VLDL and LDL (A) Glutamate and α-ketoglutarate
190. Apolipoproteins C-I, C-II and C-III are present in (B) Pyruvate and glutamate
(A) Chylomicrons (B) VLDL (C) Pyruvate and α-ketoglutarate

(C) HDL (D) All of these (D) Asparate and α-ketoglutarate
191. Apolipoprotiens C-I, C-II and C-III are present in 200. All of the following are required for synthesis of
all of the following except alanine except
(A) Chylomicrons (B) VLDL (A) Pyruvate (B) α-ketoglutarate
(C) LDL (D) HDL (C) Glutamate (D) Pyridoxal phosphate
192. Apolipoprotein A-I acts as 201. All of the following statements about aspartate
(A) Enzyme activator (B) Ligand for receptor are true except
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of these (A) It is non-essential amino acid
(B) It is a dicarboxylic amino acid
193. Apolipoprotien B-100 acts as
(C) It can be synthesized from pyruvate
(A) Enzyme activator (B) Ligand for receptor andglutamate
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of these (D) It can be converted into asparagine
194. Apolipoprotein C-II is an activator of 202. Glycine can be synthesized from
(A) Lecithin cholesterola acyl transferase (A) Serine (B) Choline
(B) Phospholipase C (C) Betaine (D) All of these
(C) Extrahepatic lipoprotein lipase
203. All of the following are required for synthesis of
(D) Hepatic lipoprotein lipase
glutamine except
195. Nascent chylomicron receives apolipoproteins C (A) Glutamate
and E from (B) Ammonia
(A) VLDL remnant (B) VLDL (C) Pyridoxal phosphate
(C) LDL (D) HDL (D) ATP
196. Terminal transferase 204. A coenzyme required for the synthesis ofglycine
(A) Removes nucleotides from 3’ end(B) Adds from serine is
nucleotides at 3’ end (A) ATP
(C) Removes nucleotides from 3’end (B) Pyridoxal phosphate
(D) Adds nucleotides at 3’end (C) Tetrahydrofolate
(D) NAD
197. S1 nuclease hydrolyses
205. All of the following statements about proline are
(A) DNA of somatic cells
true except
(B) DNA of sperms
(C) Any double stranded DNA (A) It is an imino acid
(B) It can be synthesized from glutamate
(D) Any single stranded DNA
(C) It can be catabolised to glutamate
198. Positive nitrogen balance is seen in
(D) Free proline can be hydroxylated 214. Allosteric inhibitor of glutamate dehydrogenase
tohydroxyproline is
206. A protein rich in hydroxyproline is (A) ATP(B) ADP
(C) AMP (D) GMP
(A) Prolamin (B) Procollagen
215. Allsoteric activator of glutamate dehydrogenase
(C) Collagen (D) Proinsulin
is
207. All the following statement about
hydroxyproline are true except (A) ATP(B) GTP
(C) ADP and GDP (D) AMP and GMP
(A) There is no codon for hydroxyproline
(B) It is present in large amounts in collagen 216. Free ammonia is released during
(C) Free proline cannot be hydroxylated to (A) Oxidative deamination of glutamate(B)
hydroxyproline Catabolism of purines
(D) Hydroxylation of proline residues is (C) Catabolism of pyrimidines
catalysedby a dioxygenase (D) All of these
208. All of the following are required for 217. An organ which is extremely sensitive
hydroxylation of proline residues except toammonia toxicity is
(A) Ascorbic acid (B) Glutamate (A) Liver (B) Brain
(C) Ferrous ions (D) Molecular oxygen (C) Kidney (D) Heart
209. Cysteine can be synthesized from methionine 218. Ammonia is transported from muscles to liver
and mainly in the form of
(A) Serine (B) Homoserine (A) Free ammonia (B) Glutamine
(C) Homocysteine (D) Threonine (C) Asparagine (C) Alanine
210. Methionine is synthesized in human body from 219. The major site of urea synthesis is
(A) Cysteine and homoserine (A) Brain (B) Kidneys
(B) Homocysteine and serine (C) Liver (D) Muscles
(C) Cysteine and serine
220. Carbamoyl phosphate required for urea
(D) None of these
synthesis is formed in
211. Hydroxylation of phenylalanine requires all of (A) Cytosol (B) Mitochondria
the following except
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of these
(A) Phenylalanine hydroxylase
221. Cytosolic and mitochondrial carbamoyl
(B) Tetrahydrobiopterin
phosphate synthetase have the following
(C) NADH similarity:
(D) Molecular oxygen
(A) Both use ammonia as a substance
212. Non-Protein amino acids are (B) Both provide carbamoyl phosphate for
(A) Ornithine ureasynthesis
(C) Both require N-acetylglutamate as
(B) β-alanine
anactivator
(C) γ-amino butyric acid (D) Both are allosteric enzymes
(D) All of these
222. The following enzyme of urea cycle is present in
213. The amino acid that undergoes oxidative cytosol:
deamination at significant rate is
(A) Argininosuccinic acid synthetase
(A) Alanine (B) Aspartate (B) Argininosuccinase
(C) Glutamate (D) Glutamine (C) Arginase
(D) All of these (A) Tyrosine hydroxylase (tyrosinase) is absent

ordeficient in melanocytes
223. ATP is required in following reactions ofurea
(B) Skin is hypopigmented
cycle:
(C) It results in mental retardation
(A) Synthesis of carbamoyl phosphate
(D) Eyes are hypopigmented
andcitrulline
230. Glycine is not required for the formation of
(B) Synthesis of citrulline and argininosuccinate
(C) Synthesis of argininosuccinate and arginine (A) Taurocholic acid (B) Creatine
(D) Synthesis of carbamoyl phosphate (C) Purines (D) Pyrimidines
andargininosuccinate 231. Histamine is formed from histidine by
224. Daily excretion of nitrogen by an adult man is (A) Deamination(B) Dehydrogenation
about (C) Decarboxylation (D) Carboxylation
(A) 15–20 mg (B) 1.5–2 gm
232. DOPA is an intermediate in the synthesisof
(C) 5–10 gm (D) 15–20 gm
(A) Thyroid hormones
225. Maple syrup urine diseases is an inborn error of (B) Catecholamines
metabolism of
(C) Melanin
(A) Sulphur-containing amino acids (D) Catecholamines and melanin
(B) Aromatic amino acids
233. All the following statements about pepsinare
(C) Branched chain amino acids
correct except
(D) Dicarboxylic amino acids
(A) It is smaller than pepsinogen
226. Cystinuria results from inability to (B) It is formed by the action of HCl on its
(A) Metabolise cysteine precursor(C) Its optimum pH is 1.0–2.0
(B) Convert cystine into cysteine (D) It hydrolyses the C-terminal and N-terminal
(C) Incorporate cysteine into proteins peptide bonds of proteins
(D) Reabsorb cystine in renal tubules 234. Pancreatic juice contains the precursors of all of
227. The defective enzyme in histidinemia is the following except
(A) Histidine carboxylase (A) Trypsin (B) Chymotrypsin
(B) Histidine decarboxylase (C) Carboxypeptidase (D) Aminopeptidase
(C) Histidase 235. The only correct statement about chymotrypsin
(D) Histidine oxidase is
228. All the following statements about (A) It is formed from trypsin
phenylketonuria are correct except (B) Carboxypeptidase converts trypsin
(A) Phenylalanine cannot be converted intochymotrypsin
intotyrosine (C) Its optimum pH is around 7
(B) Urinary excretion of phenylpyruvate (D) It hydrolyses peptide bonds involving
andphenyllactate is increased basicamino acids
(C) It can be controlled by giving a 236. The portion of the antigen molecule which is
lowphenylalanine diet recognized by antibody is known as
(D) It leads to decreased synthesis of
(A) Hapten (B) Epitope
thyroidhormones, catecholamines and
melanin (C) Complement (D) Variable region
229. All the following statements about albinism are 237. All the following statements about haptens are
correct except true except
(A) They have high molecular weights
(B) They cannot elicit an immune response (A) N-terminal quarter (B) N-terminal half
bythemselves (C) C-terminal quarter (D) C-terminal half
(C) When combined with some other 246. The variable region of light chain is the
largemolecule, they can elicit an immune
(A) N-terminal quarter(B) N-terminal half
response
(C) C-terminal quarter
(D) Once an immune response develops, the
(D) C-terminal half
freehapten can be recognized by the
antibody 247. The variable region of light chains has
238. Antigens and haptens have the following (A) One hypervariable region
similarity: (B) Two hypervariable regions
(A) They have high molecular weights (C) Three hypervariable regions
(B) They can elicit immune response by (D) Four hypervariable regions
themselves 248. The variable region of heavy chains has
(C) They can elicit an immune response only
(A) One hypervariable region
inassociation with some other large
(B) Two hypervariable regions
molecule
(C) Three hypervariable regions
(D) Once an immune response develops,
freeantigen and free hapten can be (D) Four hypervariable regions
recognized by the antibody 249. The most abundant immunoglobulin in plasma is
239. The minimum number of polypeptide chains in (A) IgA(B) IgG
an immunoglobulin is (C) IgM (D) IgD
(A) Two (B) Four 250. The largest immunoglobulin is
(C) Five (D) Six
(A) IgA(B) IgG
240. Light chains of immunoglobulins are of following (C) IgM (D) IgD
types:
251. The plasma concentration of IgA is
(A) Alpha and kappa (B) Alpha and gamma
(A) 1–5 mg/dl (B) 40–200 mg/dl
(C) Lambda and delta(D) Kappa and lambda
(C) 60–500 mg/dl (D) 700–1,500 mg/dl
241 Immunoglobulins are classified on the basis of
252. An immunoglobulin found in exocrinesecretions
(A) Type of light chains is
(B) Type of heavy chains (A) IgA(B) IgG
(C) Types of light and heavy chains (C) IgM (D) IgE
(D) Molecular weight
253. Allergic reactions are mediated by
242. The molecular weight of light chains is
(A) IgA(B) IgG
(A) 10,000–15,000 (B) 20,000–25,000 (C) IgD (D) IgE
(C) 25,000–50,000 (D) 50,000–75,000
254. An immunoglobulin which can cross
243. The molecular weight of heavy chains is theplacental barrier is
(A) 20,000–25,000 (B) 25,000–50,000 (A) IgA(B) IgM
(C) 50,000–70,000 (D) 70,000–1,00,000 (C) IgD (D) None of these
244. Secretory component is present in 255. IgM possesses
(A) IgA(B) IgG (A) Two light chains and two heavy chains
(C) IgM (D) All of these (B) Four light chains and four heavy chains
245. The variable region of light chains is the (C) Six light chains and six heavy chains
(D) Ten light chains and ten heavy chains (A) The classical pathway of complement
256. The immunoglobulin having the longest half-life fixation
is (B) The alternate complement pathway
(A) IgA(B) IgG (C) Both (A) and (B)
(C) IgM (D) IgE (D) None of these
257. The half-life of IgG is 265. The alternate complement pathway doesn’t
involve
(A) 2–3 days (B) 5–6 days
(C) 8–10 days (D) 20–25 days (A) Antigen-antibody complex
(B) Complement 3
258. Recognition of antigen is the function of (C) Factors B and D
(A) Variable region of light chains (D) Membrane attack unit
(B) Variable regions of light and heavy chains
266. Antibody diversity arises from
(C) Constant region of heavy chains
(D) Constant regions of light and heavy chains (A) Gene amplification
(B) Gene re-arrangement
259. The effector function of antibody is performed (C) Alternative splicing
by
(D) All of these
(A) Variable region of light chains
(B) Constant region of heavy chains 267. A light chain gene is constructed from
thefollowing segments:
(C) Variable regions of light and heavy chains
(D) Constant regions of light and heavy chains (A) Variable and constant segments
(B) Variable, joining and constant segments
260. Complement system can be activated by binding
(C) Variable, diversity and constant segments
of antigen to
(D) Variable, joining, diversity and
(A) IgA(B) IgD constantsegments
(C) IgE (D) IgM
268. In metabolic point of view, amino acidsare
261. C1 component of classical complement pathway classified as
is made up of
(A) Glycogenic
(A) Complements 1q and 1r (B) Ketogenic
(B) Complements 1q and 1s (C) Glycogenic or Ketogenic
(C) Complements 1r and 1s (D) All of these
(D) Complements 1q, 1r and 1s
269. Diversity segments are present in
262. The components of complement system are
(A) Light chain genes
activated by
(B) Heavy chain genes
(A) Microsomal hydroxylation(B) (C) Light and heavy chain genes
Phosphorylation
(D) None of these
(C) Glycosylation
(D) Proteloysis 270. Constant segments of heavy chains are of
(A) Five types (B) Six types
263. The component system forms a
membraneattack complex made up of (C) Seven types (D) Eight types
(A) Complements 1q, 1r and 1s(B) 271. Gamma heavy chains are of
Complements 1, 2, 3 and 4 (A) Two types (B) Three types
(C) Complements 5b, 6, 7 and 8 (C) Four types (D) Five types
(D) Factors B and D 272. Gamma heavy chains are present in
264. Factors B and D are required in
(A) IgA(B) IgG (D) Macrophages and B lymphocytes

(C) IgM (D) IgD
283. MHC Class II proteins, in conjunction with
273. Heavy chains in IgD are of following type: antigens, are recognised by
(A) Alpha (B) Gamma (A) Cytotoxic T cells
(C) Delta (D) Epsilon (B) Helper T cells
(C) Suppressor T cells
274. On exposure to any antigen, the firstantibody to
(D) Memory T cells
be formed is of the following class:
(A) IgA(B) IgG 284. CD 8 is a transmembrane glycoproteinpresent in
(C) IgM (D) IgE (A) Cytotoxic T cells
(B) Helper T cells
275. Constant segment genes of heavy chains are
(C) Suppressor T cells
present in a cluster in which the first gene on
side is (D) Memory T cells
(A) Alpha (B) Gamma 285. CD 4 is a transmembrane glycoproteinpresent in

(C) Delta (D) None of these (A) Cytotoxic T cells (B) Helper T cells
276. Cell-mediated immunity is the function of (C) Suppressor T cells (D) Memory T cells
(A) B lymphocytes (B) T lymphocytes 286. CD 3 complex and p 56lck proteins are present in
(C) Plasma cells (D) Basophils (A) Cytotoxic T cells (B) Helper T cells
277. The most abundant T cells are
(A) Cytotoxic T cells (B) Helper T cells 287. Cytotoxic T cells release
(C) Suppressor T cells (D) Memory T cells (A) Perforins
(B) Interleukins
278. T cells can recognise
(C) Colony stimulating factors
(A) Free antigens
(D) Tumour necrosis factor
(B) Antigens bound to cells
(C) Antigens bound to antibodies 288. Helper T cells release
(D) Antigens bound to MHC proteins (A) Interleukins
(B) Colony stimulating factors
279. MHC proteins are unique to
(C) Tumour necrosis factor
(A) Each cell (B) Each organ (D) All of these
(C) Each individual (D) Each species
289. MHC Class III proteins include
280. MHC class I proteins are present on the surface
(A) Immunoglobulins
of
(B) Components of complement system
(A) B cells only (B) T cells only
(C) T cells receptors
(C) Macrophages only(D) All cells
(D) CD4 and CD8 proteins
281. MHC class I proteins, in conjunction with 290. Human immunodeficiency virus destroys
antigens are recognised by (A) Cytotoxic T cells (B) Helper T cells
(A) Cytotoxic T cells (B) Helper T cells (C) B cells (D) Plasma cells
(C) Suppressor T cells (D) Memory T cells
291. In allergic diseases, the concentration ofthe
282. MHC class II proteins are present on the surface following is increased in plasma:
of
(A) IgA(B) IgG
(A) All cells
(C) IgD (D) IgE
(B) B lymphocytes only(C) Macrophages only
292. IgE has a tendency to attach to 300. A Zwitterion is

(A) Basophils (B) Mast cells (A) Positive ion (B) Negative ion
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of these (C) Both (A) and (C) (D) None of these
293. Reaginic antibody is 301. After accounting for SDA, the net gain of energy
(A) IgA(B) IgG from 25 gm of proteins is about
(C) IgD (D) IgE (A) 70 kcal (B) 100 kcal
294. Active immunity can be produced by (C) 130 kcal (D) 200 kcal
administration of 302. After accounting for SDA, the net gain of energy
(A) Killed bacteria or viruses from 25 gm of carbohydrates is about
(B) Live attenuated bacteria or viruses (A) 70 kcal (B) 95 kcal
(C) Toxoids (C) 100 kcal (D) 105 kcal
(D) All of these
303. After accounting for SDA, the net gain of energy
295. Passive immunity can be produced by from 100 gm of fat is about
administration of (A) 600 kcal (B) 780 kcal
(A) Pure antigens (C) 900 kcal (D) 1020 kcal
(B) Immunoglobulins
304. If proteins, carbohydrates and fats areconsumed
(C) Toxoids
together:
(D) Killed bacteria or viruses
(A) The total SDA is the sum of individual
296. Helper T cells release all the following except SDAsof proteins, carbohydrates and fats
(A) Interleukins (B) The total SDA is more than the sum
(B) Colony stimulating factors ofindividual SDAs of proteins, carbohydrates
(C) Perforins and fats
(D) Tumour necrosis factor (C) Carbohydrates and fats lower the SDA
ofproteins
297. IgG cleaved by papain into (D) Proteins raise the SDA of carbohydrates
(A) Two light and two heavy chains andfats
(B) Two Fab and one Fc fragments
305. After calculating the energy requirement of a
(C) Two pairs of one light and one heavy person:
chaineach
(A) 10% kcal are subtracted on account of
(D) One Fab and two Fc fragments
SDA(B) 10% kcal are added on account of
298. Bence-Jones protein is SDA
(A) An immunoglobulin (C) 20% kcal are subtracted on account of SDA (D)
(B) A dimer of heavy chains 20% kcal are subtracted on account of SDA 306. The
(C) A dimer of light chains recommended energy intake for an adult
(D) A dimer of one heavy and one light chains sedentary Indian man is
299. Bence-Jones proteins possess all the following (A) 1,900 kcal/day (B) 2,400 kcal/day
properties except (C) 2,700 kcal/day (D) 3,000 kcal/day
(A) They are dimers of light chains
307. The recommended energy intake for an adult
(B) Their amino acids sequences are identical
sedentary Indian woman is
(C) Their N-terminal halves have variable
(A) 1,900 kcal/day (B) 2,200 kcal/day
aminoacid sequences
(C) 2,400 kcal/day (D) 2,700 kcal/day
(D) Their C-terminal halves have constant
aminoacid sequences
308. During pregnancy, the following shouldbe added (B) Digestibility coefficient
to the calculated energy requirement: (C) Digestibility coefficient and protein
(A) 300 kcal/day(B) 500 kcal/day efficiencyratio
(C) 700 kcal/day (D) 900 kcal/day (D) Digestibility coefficient and biological value
309. During first six months of lactation, the following 317. The gain in body weight (gm) per gm of protein
increment in energy intake is recommended: ingested is known as
(A) 200 kcal/day(B) 300 kcal/day (A) Net protein utilisation
(C) 550 kcal/day (D) 1,000 kcal/day (B) Protein efficiency ratio
(C) Digestibility coefficient
310. The proximate principles of diet are
(D) Biological value of protein
(A) Vitamins and minerals
(B) Proteins 318. The following is considered as reference
standard for comparing the nutritional quality of
(C) Carbohydrates and fats
proteins:
(D) Carbohydrates, fats and proteins
(A) Milk proteins (B) Egg proteins
311. The limiting amino acid in wheat is (C) Meat proteins (D) Fish proteins
(A) Leucine (B) Lysine
319. Biological value of egg proteins is about
(C) Cysteine (D) Methionine
(A) 70 % (B) 80 %
312. The limiting amino acid in pulses is (C) 86 % (D) 94 %
320. The following has the highest protein efficiency
(C) Tryptophan (D) Methionine
ratio:
313. Maize is poor in (A) Milk proteins (B) Egg proteins
(A) Lysine (C) Meat proteins (D) Fish proteins
(B) Methionine
321. The following has the lowest protein efficiency
(C) Tryptophan ratio:
(D) Lysine and tryptophan
(A) Maize proteins (B) Wheat proteins
314. The percentage of ingested protein/ nitrogen (C) Milk proteins (D) Rice proteins
absorbed into blood stream is known as
322. Protein content of egg is about
(A) Net protein utilisation
(A) 10% (B) 13%
(B) Protein efficiency ratio
(C) 16% (D) 20%
(C) Digestibility coefficient
323. Protein content of meat is about
(D) Biological value of protein
315. Biological value of a protein is (A) 10% (B) 13%
(C) 16% (D) 20%
(A) The percentage of ingested
protein/nitrogenabsorbed into circulation 324. Protein content of rice is about
(B) The percentage of ingested (A) 7% (B) 12%
protein/nitrogenin the body (C) 15% (D) 20%
(C) The percentage of ingested protein
utilisedfor protein synthesis in the body 325. The calorific value of wheat is about
(D) The gain in body weight (gm) per gm (A) 2.5 kcal/gm (B) 3.5 kcal/gm
ofprotein ingested (C) 4.5 kcal/gm (D) 5.5 kcal/gm
316. Net protein utilisation depends upon 326. For vegetarians, pulses are an important source
(A) Protein efficiency ratio of
(A) Carbohydrates (B) Proteins 337. Kwashiorkor occurs when the diet is severely
(C) Fat (D) Iron deficient in
327. The amino acids present in pulses can (A) Iron (B) Calories
supplement the limiting amino acids of (C) Proteins (D) Essential fatty acids
(A) Cereals (B) Milk 338. Clinical features of Kwashiorkor include all of the
(C) Fish (D) Nuts and beans following except
328. Milk is a good source of (A) Mental retardation (B) Muscle wasting
(C) Oedema (D) Anaemia
(A) Proteins, calcium and iron
(B) Proteins, calcium and ascorbic acid 339. Kwashiorkor usually occurs in
(C) Proteins, lactose and retinol (A) The post-weaning period
(D) Proteins, lactose and essential fatty acids (B) Pregnancy
329. Milk is a good source of all of the (C) Lactation
followingexcept (D) Old age
(A) Essential amino acids 340. Marasmus occurs from deficient intake of
(B) Vitamin C (A) Essential amino acids
(C) Galactose (B) Essential fatty acids
(D) Calcium and phosphorous (C) Calories
330. Milk is poor in (D) Zinc
(A) Cholesterol (B) Retinol 341. Marasmus differs from Kwashiorkor in the which
(C) Calcium (D) Iron of these following respect
331. Egg is rich in all of the following except (A) Mental retardation occurs in kwashiorkor
butnot in marasmus
(A) Cholesterol (B) Saturated fatty acids
(B) Growth is retarded in kwashiorkor but not
(C) Ascorbic acid (D) Calcium inmarasmus
332. A phosphoprotein present in egg is (C) Muscle wasting occurs in marasmus but
notkwashiorkor
(A) Casein (B) Albumin
(D) Subcutaneous fat disappears in
(C) Ovoglobulin (D) Ovovitellin
marasmusbut not in kwashiorkor
333. Consumption of raw eggs can cause deficiency of
(A) Calcium (B) Lipoic acid 342. Energy reserves of an average well-fed adult man
(C) Biotin (D) Vitamin A are about
334. Egg is poor in (A) 50,000 kcal (B) 100,000 kcal
(A) Essential amino acids (C) 200,000 kcal (D) 300,000 kcal
(B) Carbohydrates
343. During starvation, the first reserve nutrient to be
(C) Avidin depleted is
(D) Biotin
(A) Glycogen (B) Proteins
335. Cholesterol is present in all the following except (C) Triglycerides (D) Cholesterol
(A) Milk (B) Fish
344. Synthesis of the following enzymes is increased
(C) Egg white (D) Egg yolk during starvation.
336. Meat is rich in all of the following except (A) Digestive enzymes
(A) Iron (B) Fluorine (B) Gluconeogenic enzymes
(C) Copper (D) Zinc (C) Urea cycle enzymes
(D) Glucokinase
345. In hypoparathyroidism 353. Pre-proinsulin contains a signal sequence having

(A) Plasma calcium and inorganic (A) 9 amino acid residues
phosphorousare low (B) 19 amino acid residues(C) 27 amino acid
(B) Plasma calcium and inorganic residues
phosphorousare high (D) 33 amino acid residues
(C) Plasma calcium is low and
354. The number of intra-chain disulphide bonds in
inorganicphosphorous high
pro-insulin:
(D) Plasma calcium is high and
inorganicphosphorous low (A) One (B) Two
(C) Three (D) Four
346. The number of amino acid residues in calcitonin
in 355. Pentagastrin is a
(A) 9 (B) 32 (A) Naturally occurring form of gastrin
(C) 51 (D) 84 (B) Inactive metabolite of gastrin
(C) Active metabolite of gastrin
347. Calcitonin is synthesised in
(D) Synthetic form of gastrin
(A) Parathyroid glands
(B) Thyroid gland 356. Secretion of gastrin is evoked by
(C) Pars intermedia of pituitary (A) Entry of food into stomach
(D) Adrenal cortex (B) Vagal stimulation
(C) Lower aliphatic alcohols
348. Plasma calcium is lowered by
(D) All of these
(A) Parathormone (B) Calcitonin 357. Gastrin stimulates
(C) Aldosterone (D) Deoxycorticosterone
(A) Gastric motility (B) Gastric secretion
349. α Cells of Islets of Langerhans secrete
(A) Insulin (B) Glucagon
358. Secretin is made up of
(C) Somatostatin (D) Cholecystokinin
(A) 17 amino acids (B) 27 amino acids
350. A/G ratio is
(C) 37 amino acids (D) 47 amino acids
(A) Strength of proteins
359. Secretin causes all of the following except
(B) ratio of serum proteins
(C) ratio of ceruloplasmin (A) Secretion of pancreatic juice(B) Secretion of
bile
(D) None of these
(C) Inhibition of gastric secretion
351. Insulin is made up of (D) Stimulation of intestinal motility
(A) A single polypeptide chain having 51
360. All of the following statements about
aminoacid residues
cholecystokinin pancreozymin are true except
(B) A single polypeptide chain having 84
aminoacid residues (A) It is secreted by mucosa of small intestine
(C) A-chain having 21 and B-chain having 30 (B) It stimulates secretion of pancreatic juice
amino acid residues richin enzymes
(D) A-chain having 30 and B-chain having 21 (C) It stimulates contraction of gall bladder
amino acid residues (D) It inhibits gastric motility
352. The number of amino acid residues in 361. All of the following statements about pancreatic
preproinsulin is somatostain are true except
(A) 51 (B) 84 (A) It is secreted by δ cells of islets of Langerhans
(C) 109 (D) 119 (B) It stimulates the secretion of gastrin
(C) It inhibits the secretion of secretin (C) K+ (D) Ca++

(D) It inhibits the secretion of
371. Binding of acetylcholine to its receptors
cholecystokininpancreozymin
increases the permeability of cell membrane to
362. Histidine is converted into histamine by (A) Ca++ (B) Na+
(A) Carboxylation (B) Decarboxylation (C) K+ (D) Na+ and K+
(C) Methylation (D) Hydroxylation
372. All of the following are glycoproteins except
363. Histamine is synthesised in (A) Collagen (B) Albumin
(A) Brain (B) Mast cells (C) Transferrin (D) IgM
(C) Basophils (D) All of these
373. Sialic acids are present in
364. Histamine causes all the following except (A) Proteoglycans (B) Glycoproteins
(A) Stimulation of gastric secretion (C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of these
(B) Vasoconstriction
374. Hyaluronidase hydrolyses
(C) Pruritus
(A) Hyaluronic acid
(D) Increase in capillary permeability
(B) Chondroitin sulphate
365. H2-receptors are blocked by (C) Heparin
(A) Diphenhydramine (B) Mepayramine (D) Hyaluronic acid and chondroitin sulphate
(C) Pyrilamine (D) Cimetidine 375. The most abundant protein in bones is
366. Serotonin is synthesised from (A) Collagen type I
(A) Serine (B) Phenylalanine (B) Collagen type II
(C) Tyrosine (D) Tryptophan (C) Collagen type III
(D) Non-collagen proteins
367. All the following statements about serotonin are
true except 376. The most abundant collagen in cartilages is
(A) It causes vasolidatation (A) Type I (B) Type II
(B) It causes bronchoconstriction (C) Type III (D) Type IV
(C) It is metabolized by monoamine oxidase
377. Collagen and elastin have the following
(D) Its metabolite is 5-hydroxyindole acetic acid similarity:
368. All the following statements about angiotensin (A) Both are triple helices
are true except (B) Both have hydroxyproline residues
(A) Its precursor is an α2-globulin (C) Both have hydrolysine residues
(B) Its active form is an octapeptide (D) Both are glycoproteins
(C) It is a vasodilator 378. Abnormal collagen structure is seen in all of the
(D) It increases the secretion of aldosterone following except
369. Methyl dopa decreases blood pressure by (A) I-cell disease
(A) Inhibiting the synthesis of catecholamines (B) Osteogenesis imperfecta
(B) Antagonising the action of aldosterone (C) Menke’s disease
(C) Stimulating the release of renin (D) Ehlers-Danlos sydrome
(D) Inhibiting the breakdown of angiotensin 379. I-cell disease results from absence of the
following from lysosomal enzymes:
370. Binding of gamma-aminobutyric acid to its
receptors in brain increases the permeability of (A) Signal sequence
cell membrane to (B) Mannose-6-phosphate
(A) Cl– (B) Na+ (C) Sialic acid
(D) A serine residue 389. Average creatinine clearance in an adultman is

about
380. In I-cell disease, lysosomal enzymes
(A) 54 ml/min (B) 75 ml/min
(A) Are not synthesised
(C) 110 ml/min (D) 130 ml/min
(B) Are inactive
(C) Lack signal sequence 390. Inulin clearance in an average adult man is about
(D) Cannot reach lysosomes (A) 54 ml/min (B) 75 ml/min
381. Renal glycosuria occurs due to (C) 110 ml/min (D) 130 ml/min
(A) Increased filtration of glucose in glomeruli Q391. Among the following, a test of tubular function is
(B) Increased secretion of glucose by (A) Creatinine clearance
renaltubular cells (B) Inulin clearance
(C) Decreased reabsorption of glucose by (C) PAH clearance
renaltubular cells (D) PSP excretion test
(D) Increased conversion of glycogen into
glucosein tubular cells 392. A simple way to assess tubular functionis to
withhold food and water for 12
382. Haematuria can occur in
hours and, then, measure
(A) Haemolytic anaemia
(A) Serum urea
(B) Mismatched blood transfusion
(B) Serum creatinine
(C) Yellow fever
(C) Urine output in one hour
(D) Stone in urinary tract
(D) Specific gravity of urine
383. Haematuria can occur in all of the
393. Among the following, the most sensitive
followingexcept
indicator of glomerular function is
(A) Acute glomerulonephritis
(A) Serum urea
(B) Cancer of urinary tract
(B) Serum creatinine
(C) Stone in urinary tract
(C) Urea clearance
(D) Mismatched blood transfusion
(D) Creatinine clearance
384. Chyluria can be detected by addition of the
394. All the following statements about inulin are
following to the urine:
correct except
(A) Sulphosalicylic acid(B) Nitric acid
(A) It is completely non-toxic
(C) Acetic anhydride (D) Chloroform
(B) It is completely filtered by glomeruli(C) It is
385. Normal range of serum urea is not reabsorbed by tubular cells
(A) 0.6–1.5 mg/dl (B) 9–11 mg/dl (D) It is secreted by tubular cells
(C) 20–45 mg/dl (D) 60–100 mg/dl 395. Non-protein nitrogenous substances in blood
386. Normal range of serum creatinine is include all of the following except
(A) 0.6–1.5 mg/dl (B) 9–11 mg/dl (A) Urea (B) Uric acid
(C) 20–45 mg/dl (D) 60–100 mg/dl (C) Creatinine (D) Inositol
387. Standard urea clearance is 396. Non-protein nitrogenous substances in blood are
raised in
(A) 54 ml/min (B) 75 ml/min
(C) 110 ml/min (D) 130 ml/min (A) Starvation
(B) Liver damage
388. Maximum urea clearance is (C) Renal failure
(A) 54 ml/min (B) 75 ml/min (D) All of these
(C) 110 ml/min (D) 130 ml/min
397. Creatinine clearance is deceased in (A) Phenylalanine (B) Histidine

(A) Acute tubular necrosis (C) Tryptophan (D) Serine
(B) Acute glomerulonephritis 405. Which amino acid is a lipotropic factor?
(C) Hypertension
(A) Lysine (B) Leucine
(D) Myopathies
(C) Tryptophan (D) Methionine
398. Serum amylase is increased in
406. Which among the following is a nutritionally
(A) Acute parotitis (B) Acute pancreatitis essential amino acid for man ?
(C) Pancreatic cancer (D) All of these (A) Alanine (B) Glycine
399. Maximum rise in serum amylase occurs in (C) Tyrosine (D) Tryptophan
(A) Acute parotitis 407. The essential amino acids
(B) Acute pancreatitis (A) Must be supplied in the diet because
(C) Chronic pancreatitis theorganism has lost the capacity to aminate
(D) Pancreatic cancer the corresponding ketoacids
400. Serum lipase is increased in (B) Must be supplied in the diet because
(A) Acute parotitis (B) Acute pancreatitis thehuman has an impaired ability to
(C) Infective hepatitis (D) Biliary obstruction synthesize the carbon chain of the
corresponding ketoacids
401. Which one of the following metabolites is not (C) Are identical in all species studied
directly produced in the hexose monophosphate (D) Are defined as those amino acids
pathway? whichcannot be synthesized by the organism
(A) Fructose-6-phosphate at a rate adequate to meet metabolic
(B) Dihydroxy acetone phosphate requirements
(C) CO2 408. Which among the following is an essentialamino
(D) Erythrose-4-phosphate acid?
402. Which one of the following (A) Cysteine (B) Leucine

statementsconcerning glucose-6-phosphate (C) Tyrosine (D) Aspartic acid
dehydrogenase deficiency is correct? 409. Which among the following is a basic amino acid?
(A) Young R.B.Cs, particularly (A) Aspargine (B) Arginine
reticulocytes,contain the highest enzyme
(C) Proline (D) Alanine
activity cells show less enzyme activity
(B) Glucose-6-P Dehydroglucose deficiencyleads 410. This amino acid cannot have optical isomers:
to disfuction of many tissues (A) Alanine (B) Histidine
(C) G-6-p Dehydroglucose deficiency is due to (C) Threonine (D) Glycine
asingle deletion of a large sequence of DNA
in the G-6-PD gene 411. The amino acid which contains a guanidine group
is
(D) G-6-PD deficiency is precipitated by
ingestionof drugs such as aspirin (A) Histidine (B) Arginine
(C) Citrulline (D) Ornithine
403. The phenomenon of inhibition of glycolysis by O 2
is termed as 412. GABA(gama amino butyric acid) is
(A) Red drop (B) Pasteur effect (A) Post-synaptic excitatory transmitter
(C) Michaelis effect (D) Fischer’s effect (B) Post-synaptic inhibitor transmitter
(C) activator of glia-cell function
404. Seratonin is derived in the body from the
following amino acid: (D) inhibitor of glia-cell function
413. Sulphur-containing amino acid is (C) Are excreted to the extent of 50%(D)
(A) Glutathione (B) Chondroitin sulphate (C) Converted into glucose in the intestine
Homocysteine (D) Tryptophan 423. Cysteine has the formula:
414. The useful reagent for detection of amino acids is (A) CH3SH
(A) Molisch reagent (B) H2N—CH2—COOH
(B) Dichlorophenol Indophenol
(C) HS—CH2—CH(NH2)—COOH
(C) Ninhydrin
(D) S—CH2—CH(NH2)—COOH |
(D) Biuret
S—CH2—CH(NH2)—COOH
415. The amino acid which contains an indole group is
(A) Histidine (B) Arginine 424. The compound having the formula
(C) Glycine (D) Tryptophan H2N—CO—NH—CH2—CH2—CH2—CH— COOH is
416. Sakaguchi reaction is answered by |
(A) Lysine NH2
(B) Ornithine (A) Lysine (B) Glutamine
(C) Arginine (C) Serine (D) Citrulline
(D) Arginino succinic acid 425. An amino acid which contains a disulphidebond is
417. The pH of an amino acid depends (A) Lysine (B) Methionine

(C) Homocysteine (D) Cystine
(A) Optical rotation (B) Dissociation
constant 426. One of the following has a phenolic group:
(C) Diffusion coefficient(D) Chain length (A) Histidine (B) Hydroxy lysine
418. When amino acids are treated with (C) Seratonine (D) Hydroxy proline
neutralformaldehyde, the pH of the mixture 427. An amino acid not containing the usual—COOH
(A) Is not altered group is
(B) Increases (A) Alanine (B) Tryptophan
(C) Decreases (C) Methionine (D) Taurine
(D) First increases then decreases
428. Branched chain amino acids are
419. Which among the following has an imidazole
(A) Cysteine and cystine
group?
(B) Tyrosine and Tryptophan
(A) Histidine (B) Tryptophan
(C) Glycine and Serine
(C) Proline (D) Hydroxy proline
(D) Valine, Leucine and Isoleucine
420. The amino acid exist as Zwitter ions whenthey
429. A Zwitter ion is one which has in
are in
aqueoussolution:
(A) solid state (B) acidic solution
(A) One positive charge and one negative charge
(C) alkaline solution (D) neutral solution
(B) Two positive charges and one negative
421. Plasma proteins are isolated by charge
(A) Salting out (B) Electrophoresis (C) Two negative charges and one
(C) Flourimetry (D) Both (A) and (B) positivecharge
(D) No electrical charges at all
422. After digestion amino acids
430. The amino acid which gives yellow colour with
(A) Are absorbed into portal circulation
Ninhydrin in paper chromatography is
(B) Are absorbed into lymph
(A) Tyrosine (B) Proline
(C) Tryptophan (D) Alanine (C) Histidine (D) Proline

431. Hydroxylation of Proline and Lysine in a protein is 443. The amino acid which synthesizes many
effected by hormones:
(A) Vitamin B1 (B) Vitamin B2 (A) Valine (B) Phenyl alanine
(C) Vitamin B6 (D) Vitamin C (C) Alanine (D) Histidine
432. Millon’s test is for identification of 444. Amino acids are insoluble in
(A) Tyrosine (B) Tryptophan (A) Acetic acid (B) Chloroform

(C) Proline (D) Arginine (C) Ethanol (D) Benzene
445. The major end product of protein nitrogen
433. Hopkins-Cole test is for identification of metabolism in man is
(A) Tyrosine (B) Tryptophan (A) Glycine (B) Uric acid
(C) Arginine (D) Cysteine (C) Urea (D) NH3
434. Collagen is very rich in
446. An amino acid not involved in urea cycleis
(A) Glycine (B) Serine
(C) Aspartic acid (D) Glutamic acid (A) Arginine (B) Histidine
(C) Ornithine (D) Citrulline
435. All amino acids are optically active except
(A) Glycine (B) Serine 447. NH3 is detoxified in brain chiefly as
(C) Threonine (D) Tryptophan (A) Urea (B) Uric acid
(C) Creatinine (D) Glutamine
436. Out of 200 different amino acids form in nature
the number of amino acids present in protein: 448. In humans, NH3 is detoxified in liver as
(A) 20 (B) 25 (A) Creatinine (B) Uric acid
(C) 40 (D) 35 (C) Urea (D) Uronic acid
437. Enzyme catalyzed hydrolysis of proteins produces
449. The body protein after eighteen years
amino acids of the form:
(A) Remains unchanged
(A) D (B) L
(B) Is decomposed only slightly at intervals of
(C) DL (D) All of these
onemonth
438. The ionizable groups of amino acids are at least. (C) Is in a constant state of flux
(A) 1 (B) 2 (D) Is used only for energy requirement
(C) 3 (D) 4 450. The only known physiological methylatingagents
439. The neutral amino acid is in the animal organism are
(A) Lysine (B) Proline (A) Choline and betaine

(C) Leucine (D) Histidine (B) Choline and δ-adenosyl methionine
440. The amino acid containing hydroxyl group: (C) Betaine and δ-adenyosyl methionine
(D) Dimehtyl glycine and betaine
(A) Alanine (B) Isoleucine
(C) Arginine (D) Threonine 451. In the synthesis of 1 molecule of urea inthe
Kreb’s Hanseleit cycle, the number of ATPs
441. The sulphur containing amino acid:
required is
(A) Homoserine (B) Serine
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) Methionine (D) Valine
(C) 3 (D) 4
442. The basic amino acid:
452. For biosynthesis of proteins
(A) Glycine (B) Leucine
(A) Amino acids only are required 460. A growing peptide in a ribosome can notbe
(B) Amino acids and nucleic acids only shifted to the adjacent ribosome because
arerequired (A) It is firmly attached
(C) Amino acid, nucleic acids and ATP only (B) It will get the amino acid cleaved
arerequired (C) The gap between the ribosomes is too big
(D) Amino acids, nucleic acids, ATP, fora shift
GTP,enzymes and activators are required (D) The adjacent ribosomes have
453. Transmethylation of guanido acetic acidgives differentcomposition
(A) Creatine phosphate 461. The first amino acid incorporated in a
(B) Creatinine polypeptide in a ribosome of a human is
(C) Choline (A) N formyl methionine (B) Methionine
(D) n-methyl nicotinamide (C) Phenyl alanine (D) Hydroxy lysine
454. The 2 energy rich compounds needed for protein 462. The first amino acid incorporated in a
biosynthesis are polypeptide in a ribosome of a bacterium
(A) ATP and GTP (B) ATP and UTP is
(C) ATP and CTP (D) ATP and TTP (A) N formyl methionine (B) Methionine
(C) Alamine (D) Glycine
455. The following ketoacid is involved in fixing
dietary NH3 into amino acid: 463. The integrator between the TCA cycle andurea
(A) Pyruvate (B) Oxalo acetate cycle is
(C) Oxalo succinate (D) α-keto glutarate (A) Fumarate (B) Malate
(C) Pyruvate (D) Citrate
456. The metabolite which sustains urea cycle is
464. Bence jones proteinurial characterized by
(A) Ornithine
(B) Citrulline (A) Non-heat coagulability
(C) Carbamoyl phosphate (B) Heat coagulability at 100°C
(D) n-acetyl glutamate (C) Heat coagulability at 45 to 60°C
(D) Precipitation at 25°C
457. Tetra hydroglolate can be freed from N 5 methyl
tetrahydrofolate only by 465. Bence Jones proteins may be excreted in urine of
(A) Nor epinephrine (B) Ethanol amine patients suffering from
(C) Nicotinamide (D) Vitamin B12 (A) Tuberculosis(B) Diabetes mellitus
(C) Multiple myeloma (D) Hyperthyroidism
458. Neogenesis of methyl group is
466. Xanthuric acid is an abnormal metabolite of
(A) The availability of methyl group form δ
adenosyl methionine (A) Xanthine (B) Uric acid
(B) The availability of methyl group from (C) Tyrosine (D) Tryptophan
betaine 467. Two nitrogen atoms of Urea in the ureacycle
(C) Interaction between N5 N10 methylene tetra come from
hydrofolate with a NAD+ dependent
reductase (A) NH3
(D) Availability of methyl group from methyl B12 (B) One from NH3 and one from aspartate
(C) One from NH3 and one from glutamate
459. More creatinine is excreted by
(D) One from NH3 and one from alanine
(A) Adult males (B) Adult females
(C) Children (D) Pregnant women 468. Pyruvic acid can be obtained by transamination
of alanine with
(A) α- keto glutaric acid 476. The highest concentration of cystine can be
(B) Acetoacetic acid found in
(C) β−OH butyric acid (A) Melanin (B) Chondroitin sulphate (C)
(D) Phosphoenol Pyruvic acid Myosin (D) Keratin
469. In the synthesis of 1 molecule of urea inthe 477. One round of Edman degradation of the peptide:
Kreb’s Henseleit cycle the number of AMPs H2N— Gly—Arg—Lys—Phe—
formed is Asp— COOH would result in which of the
(A) 1 (B) 2 following structures or their phenyl
isothiocyanate derivatives?
(C) 3 (D) 4
470. Formation of melanin from tyrosine requires the (A) H2N—Gly—Arg—COOH + H2N—Lys— Phe—
action of Asp—COOH
(B) H2N—Gly—Arg—Lys—Phe—COOH + Asp (C)
(A) Dopa decarboxylation
H2N—Arg—Lys—Phe—Asp—COOH + Gly
(B) Diamine oxidase
(C) Peroxidase (D) H2N—Gly—Arg—Lys—COOH + H2N—Phe —
(D) Tyrosinase Asp—COOH
471. In one of the following the quality of theprotein 478. Which of the following techniques is used to
synthesized is affected: separate proteins based upon differences in their
mass?
(A) Diabetes mellitus (B) Gont
(A) Isoelectric focusing
(C) Multiple myeloma (D) Primaquine sensitivity
(B) Dialysis
472. Citrulline is an intermediate of (C) SDS-gel Electrophoresis
(A) TCA cycle (B) Urea cycle (D) Western blotting
(C) Pentose cycle (D) Calvin cycle
479. The greatest buffering capacity at physiologic pH
473. The semialdehydes are formed under theaction would be provided by a protein rich in which of
of enzymes characterised as the following amino acids ?
(A) Aldolases (A) Lysine (B) Histidine (C) Aspartic acid
(B) Peptidyl lysyl oxidases (D) Valine
(C) Collagenases 480. Which one of the amino acids could serve as the
(D) Elastases best buffer at pH 7?
474. Which of the following statement about the (A) Glutamic acid (B) Arginine
peptide bond is true? (C) Valine (D) Histidine
(A) It is a carbon-carbon bond 481. Which one of the following statements
(B) It has cis hydrogen and oxygen groups concerning glutamine is correct?
(C) It is planar (A) Contains three tetratable groups
(D) It has rotational freedom (B) Is classified as an acidic amino acid
475. Isoenzymes for a given reaction (C) Contains an amide group
(D) Migrates to the cathode during
(A) Have different spedificities
electrophoresis at pH 7.0
(B) Have identical affinities for the same
substrate(C) Exhibit different electrophoretic 482. One of the given example is an amino acid:
motilities (A) Oh-Lysine (B) Protein
(D) Contain similar ratios of different polypeptide (C) Leucine (D) Serine
chains
483. The lone pair of electrons at one of the ring
nitrogens in the given amino acid makes a
potential ligand, which is important in binding 492. Albuminoids are similar to

the iron atoms in hemoglobin: (A) Albumin (B) Globulin (C) Both A and B (D)
(A) Tryptophan (B) Threonine None of these
(C) Histidine (D) Serine 493. Abnormal chain of amino acids in sickle cells
484. The amino acid which is not optically active is anaemia is
(A) Alanine (B) Glycine (A) Alpha chain (B) Beta chain
(C) Glutamine (D) Lysine (C) Gama chain (D) Delta chain
485. Optically active compounds are capable of 494. In prehepatic jaundice, protein flocculation test is
(A) Different reactions (A) Normal/weekly positive
(B) Rotating plane of polarized light (B) Usually positive
(C) Showing same chemical properties (C) Negative
(D) None of these (D) None of these
486. The reference compound for absolute 495. Side chains of all amino acids contain aromatic
configuration of optically active compound is rings except
(A) Alanine (B) Lactic acid (A) Pheynl alanine (B) Alanine
(C) Glyceraldehyde (D) Dihydroxy acetone (C) Tyrosine (D) Tryptophan
487. All the standard amino acids except the following 496. In Nitroprusside test, amino acid cysteinproduces
have one chiral ‘c’ atom: (A) Blue colour complex
(A) Threonine, Isoleucine (B) Red colour
(B) Isoleucine, Alanine(C) Threonine, Alanine (C) Yellow colour
(D) Alanine, Glutamine (D) Purple colour
488. The role of complement proteins: 497. Bonds that are formed between two cysteine
(A) Defense residues is
(B) Helps immunity of the body (A) Disulphide (B) Peptide
(C) Not predicatable (C) Electrostatic (D) Hydrophobic
(D) None of these 498. The acid amide of Aspartic acid is
489. Optical isomers that are mirror images and non (A) Glutamine (B) Arginine
superimposable are called (C) Aspargine (D) Ornithine
(A) Diastereomers (B) Euantiomers
499. It is the only amino acid having anionizing ‘R’
(C) dl isomers (D) Stereomers
group with a pK’ near 7 and is important in the
490. Living cells have the unique ability to synthesize active site of some enzymes:
only _________ the form of optical isomer due to (A) Arginine (B) Cystein
_________. (C) Cystine (D) Histidine
(A) ‘d’ form, stereospecific enzymes
500. Hemoglobin has a high content of this amino
(B) ‘l’ form stereospecific enzymes
acid:
(C) ‘d’ form, DNA
(A) Proline (B) Leucine
(D) ‘L’ form, DNA
(C) Arginine (D) Histicline
491. Isoelectric pH of an amino acid is that pH at
which it has a 501. A hexa peptide with 5 aspartic acid wouldhave a
net charge at pH 7:
(A) Positive charge (B) Negative charge
(A) Neutral (B) Positive
(C) No net charge (D) All of these
(C) Negative (D) Not predictable
502. In the genetic disorder of cystinuria, thepatient (C) Histidine, Aspargine

excretes large quantities of cystine in their urine (D) Glutamine, Arginine
and its low solubility causes crystalline cystine to
precipitate as stones in kidneys. The remedy 507. Apolipoproteins are
involves ingesting Na HCO3. Reaction of this (A) AI (B) AI1
treatment is (C) C1 (D) All of these
(A) NaHCO2 combines with cystine 508. The amino acid which has a pK near 4 andthus is
(B) NaHCO3 raises the pH above the isoelectric negatively charged at pH 7 is
point of cystine (A) Alanine (B) Glutamic acid
(C) NaHCO3 prevents stone formation by (C) Glutamine (D) Aspargine
hydrolysis of cystine to cysteine
509. The side chain of which of the following amino
(D) None of these acid contain sulphur atom?
503. In the following reaction, Alanine acts as a (A) Methionine (B) Threonine
H H (C) Leucine (D) Tryptophan
| |
510. Which of the followings gives a positive test for
+H N –
C – COO ——
Ninhydrin?
3 →H3+N – C – COOH
| | (A) Reducing sugars (B) Triglycerides
CH3 CH3 (C) Alpha aminoacids (D) Esterified Fats
(A) Acid (B) Base 511. In glutathione (a tripeptide) is presentapart from
(C) Zwitter ion (D) None of these Glutamic acid and cysteine:
504. Amino acids excepting histidine are not good (A) Serine (B) Glycine
buffering agents in cell because (C) Leucine (D) Phenyl alanine
(A) They exist as zwitter ions 512. 2-Amino 3-OH propanoic acid is
(B) Their pk and not in the physiological pH of (A) Glycine (B) Alanine
acell (C) Valine (D) Serine
(C) Only Histidine has pk of its R group at 6.0
unlike the others which have at a different 513. All amino acids have one asymmetric carbon
pH (D) None of these atom, except
(A) Arginine (B) Aspargine
505. At neutral pH Alanine has the followingstructure:
(C) Histidine (D) Glycine
H H
514. Number of amino acids present in the plant,
(A) HN C COOH2 − − (B) H N C animal and microbial proteins:
COO3+ − − (A) 20 (B) 80
CH3 CH3 (C) 150 (D) 200
H + H 515. Immunoglobulins are characterized by their

(C) H N C COO2 (A) Heavy chains
− (D) H N C COO2 (B) Molecular weight
− (C) Light chains
CH3 CH3 (D) Electrophoretic behaviour
506. The amino acids in which the R groups have a net 516. The bond in proteins that is not hydrolysed under
positive charge at pH 7.0 are usual conditions of denaturation:
(A) Lysine, Arginine, Histidine (A) Hydrophobic bond (B) Hydrogen bond
(B) Lysine, Aspargine (C) Disulphide bond (D) Peptide bonds
517. If the amino group and a carboxylic groupof the (A) Transamination
amino acid are attached to same carbon atom, (B) Decarboxylation
the amino acid is called (C) Oxidative deamination
(A) Alpha (B) Beta (D) Urea cycle
(C) Gamma (D) Delta 528. Physiologically active configuration of amino
518. Zymogen is acids:
(A) An intracellular enzyme (A) L
(B) Serum enzyme (B) D
(C) A complete extracellular enzyme (C) For some amino acids it is either of two
(D) An inactivated enzyme (D) Neither L nor D
519. SGOT level in a adult is 529. Cystine is synthesized from
(A) 5–40 units/dl (B) 1–4 units/dl (A) Cysteine (B) Methionine
(C) 5–15 units/dl (D) 50–100 units/dl (C) Arginine (D) Leucine
520. Activity of ceruloplasmin shown in vitro: 530. The major constituent of the proteins of hair and
(A) Reductase (B) Hydrolase keratin of skin:
(C) Ligase (D) Oxidase (A) Arginine (B) Cysteine
(C) Glycine (D) Arginine
521. Increased serum alanine during fasting is due to
(A) Breakdown of muscle proteins 531. NH3 is removed from brain mainly by
(B) Decreased utilization of non essential (A) Creatinine formation
aminoacids (B) Uric acid production
(C) Leakage of aminoacids to plasma (C) Urea formation
(D) Impaired renal function (D) Glutamine formation
522. The following 4 amino acids are required for 532. Mechanism by which NH3 is removed from the
completion of urea cycle except kidneys is
(A) Aspartic acid (B) Arginine (A) Urea formation
(C) Ornithine (D) Glycine (B) Uric acid formation
523. Number of amino acids present in the dietary (C) Creatinine formation
proteins: (D) None of these
(A) 22 (B) 23 533. Low density plasma proteins are rich in
(C) 20 (D) 19 (A) Chylomicrons (B) Cholesterol
524. Urea synthesis takes place in (C) Triglycerides (D) Phospholipids
(A) Blood (B) Liver 534. Transcortins are
(C) Kidney (D) Heart (A) Mucoproteins (B) Glycoproteins
525. All followings are ketogenic aminoacids except (C) Metalloproteins (D) Lipoproteins
(A) Leucine (B) Isoleucine 535. Proteins that carries Iron into different tissues is
(C) Phenyl alanine (D) Glycine (A) Ceruloplasmin (B) Trans cortin
526. The amino acid containing an indole ring: (C) Mucoproteins (D) Glycoproteins
(A) Tryptophan (B) Arginine 536. Naturally occurring amino acids have
(C) Threonine (D) Phenylalanine (A) L-Configuration (B) D-Configuration
527. Histidine is converted to histamine through the (C) DL-Configuration (D) None of these
process of
537. Abnormal chain of aminoacids in sickle cell (C) Aspartate (D) Glutamate
anemia is 547. The amino acid which contains an indole group is
(A) β-chain (B) β-chain (A) Histidine (B) Arginine
(C) γ-chain (D) r-chain (C) Cystine (D) Tryptophan
538. A dietary deficiency of tryptophan andnicotinate 548. From two amino acids peptide bond formation
leads to involves removal of one molecule of
(A) Beri Beri (B) Xerophthalmia (A) Water (B) Ammonia
(C) Anemia (D) Pellegra (C) Carbondioxide (D) Carboxylic acid
539. Which one of the following is an essential amino 549. Polymers of more than 100 amino acids are
acid? termed
(A) Arginine (B) Tyrosine (A) Proteins (B) Polypeptides
(C) Phenylalanine (D) Proline (C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of these
540. One of the following amino acid is solely 550. The example of globulins:
ketogenic:
(A) Leucosin (B) Tuberin (C) Oryzenin (D)
(A) Lysine (B) Alanine Legunelin
(C) Valine (D) Glutamate
551. The example of scleroproteins:
541. Along with CO2, NH3 and ATP, the amino acid that (A) Glutamin (B) Giladin
is needed in urea cycle is
(C) Salmine (D) Elastin
(A) Alanine (B) Isoleucine
552. The example of phosphoprotein:
(C) Aspartate (D) Glycine
(A) Mucin (B) Ovovitellin (C) Ovomucoid
542. Isoelectric pH of an amino acid is that pH at (D) Tendomucoid
which it has a
553. The example of metalloproteins:
(A) Positive charge (B) Negative charge
(C) No charge (D) None of these (A) Siderophilin (B) OREES mucoid
(C) Elastin (D) All of these
543. Which of the following contributes nitrogen
atoms to both purine and pyrimidine rings? 554. The example of chromoprotein:
(A) Aspartate (A) Salmine (B) Catalase
(B) Carbamoyl phosphate (C) Zein (D) Gliadin
(C) CO2 555. Deamination is ______ of amino group.
(D) Glutamine (A) Removal (B) Addition
544. Which amino acid is a lipotropic factor? (C) Supplementation (D) None of these
(A) Lysine (B) Lecuine 556. Proteins produce polypeptides from proteins by
(C) Tryptophan (D) Methionine (A) Oxidizing (B) Reducing
(C) Hydrolyzing (D) None of these
545. Which of the following protein is rich in cysteine?
(A) Elastine (B) Collagen 557. Proteins react with biuret reagent which is
(C) Fibrin (D) Keratin suggestive of 2 or more
(A) Hydrogen bonds (B) Peptide bonds
546. Which amino acid is present at 6 th position of β-
(C) Disulphide bonds (D) Hydrophobic bonds
chain of Hbs instead of glutamate in
558. The disulphide bond is not broken under the
HbA?
usual conditions of
(A) Cysteine (B) Valine
(A) Filtration (B) Reduction
(C) Oxidation (D) Denaturation (D) None of these

559. Insulin is oxidized to separate the protein 569. When haemoglobin takes up oxygen there is a
molecule into its constituent polypeptide chains change in the structure due to the moving closer
without affecting the other part of the molecule together of
by the use of
(A) β-chains (B) β-chains
(A) Performic acid (B) Oxalic acid
(C) γ-chains (D) α and γ chains
(C) Citric acid (D) Malic acid
570. The hydrogen bonds in the secondary andtertiary
560. Each hydrogen bond is quite
structure of proteins are directly attacked by
(A) Weak (B) Strong
(A) Salts (B) Alkalies
(C) Detergents (D) All of these
561. A coiled structure in which peptide bondsare
571. The hydrogen bonds between peptide linkages
folded in regular manner by
are interfered by
(A) Globular proteins (B) Fibrous proteins
(A) Guanidine (B) Uric acid
(C) Salicylic acid (D) Oxalic acid
562. In many proteins the hydrogen bondingproduces
572. The digestability of certain denatured proteins by
a regular coiled arrangement called
proteolytic enzymes
(A) α-helix (B) β-helix (A) Decreases (B) Increases
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of these (C) Normal (D) None of these
563. Many globular proteins are stable in solution
573. The antigenic antibody functions of proteins by
although they lack in
denaturation are frequently
(A) Hydrogen bonds (B) Salt bonds
(A) Not changed (B) Changed
(C) Non-polar bonds (D) Disulphide bonds
564. Each turn of α-helix contains the number of 574. In case of severe denaturation of protein,there is
amino acids
(A) Reversible denaturation
(A) 2.8 (B) 3.2 (B) Moderate reversible denaturation
(C) 3.4 (D) 3.6 (C) Irreversible denaturation
565. The distance travelled per turn of α-helix in nm is (D) None of these
(A) 0.34 (B) 0.44 575. When egg albumin is heated till it iscoagulated,
(C) 0.54 (D) 0.64 the secondary and tertiary structures of the
proteins are completely lost resulting in a
566. α-helix is disrupted by certain amino acids like mixture of randomly arranged
(A) Proline (B) Arginine (A) Dipeptide chains (B) Tripeptide chains
(C) Histidine (D) Lysine (C) Polypeptide chains(D) All of these
576. In glycoproteins the carbohydrate is in theform
567. α-helix is stabilized by
of disaccharide units, the number of units are
(A) Hydrogen bonds (B) Disulphide bonds
(A) 50–100 (B) 200–300
(C) Salt bonds (D) Non-polar bonds
(C) 400–500 (D) 600–700
568. Foetal haemoglobin contains
577. The milk protein in the stomach of the infants is
(A) Two α and two γ chains digested by
(B) Two β and two γ chains (A) Pepsin (B) Trypsin (C) Chymotrypsin
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) Rennin
578. Achylia gastrica is said to be when absence of 588. By overheating the nutritional value ofcereal
(A) Pepsin only (B) Both pepsin and HCl proteins is
(C) HCl only (D) All of these (A) Increased (B) Decreased
(C) Unchanged (D) None of these
579. The pH of gastric juice become low in
(A) Hemolytic anemia (B) Pernicious anemia 589. More than half of the protein of the liver and
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of these intestinal mucosa are broken down and
resynthesised in
580. In small intestine trypsin hydrolyzes peptide
(A) 10 days (B) 12 days
linkages containing
(C) 15 days (D) 18 days
(A) Arginine (B) Histidine
(C) Serine (D) Aspartate 590. The half-life of antibody protein is about
(A) 4 weeks (B) 3 weeks
581. Chymotrypsin in the small intestine hydrolyzes
peptide linkages containing (C) 2 weeks (D) 1 week
(A) Alanine (B) Pheynl alanine 591. Protein anabolism is stimulated by

(C) Valine (D) Methionine (A) ACTH (B) Testosterone
582. Carboxy peptidase B in the small intestine (C) Glucagon (D) Epinephrine
hydrolyzes peptides containing 592. The metabolism of protein is integrated with that
(A) Leucine (B) Isoleucine of carbohydrate and fat through
(C) Arginine (D) Cysteine (A) Oxaloacetate (B) Citrate
583. The transport of amino acids regulated by active (C) Isocitrate (D) Malate
processes of different numbers:
593. The building up and breaking down of
(A) 1 (B) 2 protoplasm are concerned with the metabolism
(C) 3 (D) 4 of
584. The third active process for amino acids transport (A) Carbohydrate (B) Lipid
involves (C) Protein (D) Minerals
(A) Acidic amino acids(B) Basic amino acids 594. The amino acids abstracted from the liver are not
(C) Neutral amino acids utilized for repair or special synthesis but are
(D) Sulphur containing amino acids broken down to
585. The neutral amino acids for absorption need (A) Keto acids (B) Sulphur dioxide
(A) TPP (B) B6 – PO4 (C) Water (D) Ammonia
(C) NAD+ (D) NADP+ 595. The unwanted amino acids abstracted from the
586. If one amino acid is fed excess, the absorption of tissues are either used up by the tissue or in the
another is liver converted into
(A) Slightly accelerated (A) Ammonia (B) Urea
(B) Moderately accelerated (C) Ammonium salts (D) Uric acid
(C) Highly accelerated 596. Amino acids provide the nitrogen for the
(D) Retarded synthesis of
587. Under normal conditions, food proteins are (A) The bases of the phospholipids
generally readily digested upto the present (B) Uric acid
(A) 67 to 73 (B) 74 to 81 (C) Glycolipids
(C) 82 to 89 (D) 90 to 97 (D) Chondroitin sulphates
597. The metabolism of all proteins ingested over and 607. The α-ketoacid is decarboxylated by H 2O2 forming
above the essential requirements is called a carboxylic acid with one carbon atom less in the
(A) Exogenous metabolism absence of the enzyme:
(B) Endogenous metabolism (A) Catalase (B) Decarboxylase
(C) Both (A) and (B) (C) Deaminase (D) Phosphatase
(D) None of these 608. The activity of mammalian L-amino acid oxidase,
598. Sulphur containing amino acids after catabolism an FMN – flavo protein, is quite
produces a substance which is excreted: (A) Slow (B) Rapid
(A) SO2 (B) HNO3 (C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of these
(C) H2SO4 (D) H3PO4 609. From dietary protein as well as from the urea
present in fluids secreted into the
599. Ethereal sulphate is synthesized from the
gastrointestinal tract intestinal bacteria produce
_________ amino acid.
(A) Carbondioxide
(A) Neutral (B) Acidic
(B) Ammonia
(C) Basic (D) Sulphur containing
(C) Ammonium sulphate
600. The amino acids required for creatineformation: (D) Creatine
(A) Glycine (B) Arginine 610. The symptom of ammonia intoxication includes
(C) Methionine (D) All of these
(A) Blurring of vision (B) Constipation
601. In human and other ureotelic organisms,the end (C) Mental confusion (D) Diarrhoea
product of amino acid nitrogen metabolism:
611. Ammonia intoxication symptoms occur when
(A) Bile acids (B) Ketone bodies brain ammonia levels are
(C) Urea (D) Barium sulphate
(A) Slightly diminished (B) Highly diminished
602. The end product of amino acid nitrogen (C) Increased (D) All of these
metabolism in uricotelic organisms 612. Ammonia production by the kidney is depressed
(reptiles and birds) is in
(A) Bilirubin (B) Urea (A) Acidosis (B) Alkalosis (C) Both (A) and (B)
(C) Uric acid (D) Biliverdin (D) None of these
603. The transaminase activity needs the coenzyme:
613. Ammonia is excreted as ammonium saltsduring
(A) ATP (B) B6 – PO4 metabolic acidosis but the majority is excreted as
(C) FAD+ (D) NAD+ (A) Phosphates (B) Creatine
604. Transamination is a (C) Uric acid (D) Urea
(A) Irreversible process(B) Reversible process 614. Synthesis of glutamine is accompanied by the
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of these hydrolysis of
(A) ATP (B) ADP (C) TPP (D) Creatin
605. Most amino acids are substrates for
phosphate
transamination except
(A) Alanine (B) Threonine 615. In brain, the major metabolism for removal of
ammonia is the formation of
(C) Serine (D) Valine
(A) Glutamate (B) Aspartate
606 Oxidative conversion of many amino acids to their
(C) Asparagine (D) Glutamine
corresponding -ketoacids occurs in mammalian:
(A) Liver and kidney (B) Adipose tissue 616. Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase structure is
marked by change in the presence of
(C) Pancreas (D) Intestine
(A) N-Acetyl glutamate
(B) N-Acetyl Aspartate (A) Nucleoproteins (B) Proteoses

(C) Neuraminic acid (C) Metalloproteins (D) Flavoproteins
(D) Oxalate
628. All α-amino acids have one asymmetric carbon
617. The biosynthesis of Urea occurs mainly in the atom except
Liver:
(A) Arginine (B) Glycine (C) Aspartic acid
(A) Cytosol (D) Histidine
(B) Microsomes
629. Number of amino acids present in plants, animals
(C) Nucleus and microbial proteins:
(D) Mitochondria
(A) 20 (B) 80
618. One mol. of Urea is synthesized at the expense of (C) 150 (D) 200
the _______ mols. of ATP.
630. Hydrated density of (HD) lipoproteins is
(A) 2 (B) 3
(A) 0.94 gm/ml
(C) 4 (D) 5
(B) 0.94-1.006 gm/ml
619. Urea biosynthesis occurs mainly in the liver (C) 1.006-1.063 gm/ml
involving the number of amino acids:
(D) 1.063-1.21 gm/l
(A) 3 (B) 4
631. The bond in proteins that is not broken under
(C) 5 (D) 6
usual conditions of denaturation:
620. The normal daily output of Urea through urine in (A) Hydrophobic bond (B) Hydrogen bond
grams: (C) Disulphide bond (D) Peptide bonds
(A) 10 to 20 (B) 15 to 25
632. Plasma proteins act as
(C) 20 to 30 (D) 25 to 35
621. In severe acidosis, the output of urea is (A) Buffers (B) Immunoglobulins
(A) Decreased (B) Slightly increased (C) Reserve proteins (D) All of these
(C) Highly increased (D) Moderately increased 633. Group that reacts in the Biuret test:
622. Uremia occurs in (A) Peptide (B) Amino group
(A) Cirrhosis of the liver(B) Nephritis (C) Carboxylic group (D) Aldehyde group
(C) Diabetes mellitus (D) Coronary thrombosis 634. In nitroprusside test, amino acid
623. Clinical symptom in urea cycle disorder is cysteineproduces a:
(A) Mental retardation (B) Drowsiness(C) (A) Red colour (B) Blue colour
Diarrhoea (D) Oedema (C) Yellow colour (D) Purple colour
624. The sparing action of methionine is 635. Protein present in hemoglobin has the structure
known as
(A) Tyrosine (B) Cystine
(C) Arginine (D) Tryptophan (A) Primary (B) Secondary
(C) Tertiary (D) Quarternary
625. NH+4 aminates glutamate to form glutamine
requiring ATP and 636. Isoelectric pH of an amino acid is that pH at
(A) K+ (B) Na+ which it has a
(C) Ca ++
(D) Mg++ (A) Positive charge (B) Negative charge
(C) Nil net charge (D) None of these
626. Glutathione is a
(A) Dipeptide (B) Tripeptide 637. Albuminoids are similar to
(C) Polypeptide (D) None of these (A) Albumin (B) Globulin
627. All following are conjugated proteins except
638. Optical isomers of all aminoacids exist except (B) Molecular weight
(A) Glycine (B) Arginine (C) Ultra Centrifugation
(C) Alanine (D) Hydroxy proline (D) Immuno Ractivity
(E) All of these
639. Proteins that constitute keratin, collagen and
elastin in body are 649. More than one break in the line or in saturation
curve indicates the following quality of protein.
(A) Protamines (B) Phosphol proteins
(C) Scleroproteins (D) Metaproteins (A) Non homogenity (B) Purity
(C) Homogeneity (D) None of these
640. Systematic name of lysine is
650. A sharp moving boundary is obtainedbetween
(A) Amino acetic acid
the pure solvent and solute containing layer in
(B) 2,6 diaminohexanoic acid
(A) Chromatography
(C) Aminosuccinic acid
(B) Immuno Reactivity
(D) 2-Aminopropanoic acid
(C) Ultra Centrifugation
641. Side chains of all following amino acids contain (D) Solubility curve
aromatic rings except 651. The antibodies raised against a pure protein will
(A) Phenyl alanine (B) Alanine show only one sharp spike on this technique:
(C) Tyrosine (D) Tryptophan (A) Solubility curve
642. Abnormal chain of amino acids in sickle cell (B) Solvent precipitation
anaemia is (C) Molecular weight determination
(A) Alpha chain (B) Beta chain (D) Immuno electrophoresis
(C) Delta chain (D) Gama chain
652. This technique takes the advantage of the fact
643. Number of chains in globin part of normalHb: that each protein has different pH at which it is
(A) 1 (B) 2 electrically neutral i.e., its isoelectric pH:
(C) 3 (D) 4 (A) Isoelectric focussing
(B) Immunoel Ectro Phoresis
644. The PH of albumin is
(C) Chromatography
(A) 3.6 (B) 4.7
(D) HPLC
(C) 5.0 (D) 6.1
653. The following technique makes use of the
645. Ninhydrin reaction gives a purple colour and difference in net charges of proteins at a given
evolves CO2 with pH:
(A) Peptide bonds (B) Histamine (A) Thin layer chromatography
(C) Ergothioneine (D) Aspargine (B) Ion exchange chromatography
646. Denaturation of proteins involves breakdown of (C) High performance liquid
(A) Secondary structure(B) Tertiary structure chromatography
(C) Quarternary structure(D) All of these (D) Paper chromatography
647. In denaturation of proteins, the bondwhich is not 654. The ratio of the distance moved by a compound
broken: to the distance moved by the solvent frent is
known as its
(A) Disulphide bond (B) Peptide bond
(A) PI value (B) Linking number
(C) Hydrogen bond (D) Ionic bond
(C) Rf value (D) Gold number
648. The purity of an isolated protein can be tested by
employing various methods. 655. The movement of charged particles towards one
of the electrodes under the influence of electrical
(A) Solubility curve
current is
(A) Gel filtration 664. All the following amino acids are opticallyactive
(B) Molecular sieving except
(C) Gas liquid chromatography (A) Tryptophane (B) Phenylalanine (C)
(D) Electrophoresis Valine (D) Glycine
656. An anion exchange resin linked to cellulose 665. Proteinous substances which catalyze
backbone is biochemical reactions are known as
(A) DEAE cellulose (B) CM cellulose (A) Activators (B) Catalysts
(C) Sephadex (D) None of these (C) Enzymes (D) Hormones
657. A cation exchange resin linked to 666. Insulin is a protein which controls
cellulosebackbone is (A) Blood clotting (B) Metabolic pathway
(A) CM-cellulose (B) DEAE cellulose (C) Digestion (D) Kreb’s cycle
(C) Starch (D) Biogel 667. Proteins which are responsible for
658. The sorting out of molecules according to size defencemechanism are called
and shape may be adapted to protein purification (A) Antimetabolites (B) Antibodies
in this technique: (C) Antimycins (D) Apoproteins
(A) Adsorption chromatography
668. When the net charge on an amino acid is zero,
(B) Gel filtration chromatography the pH is maintained as?
(C) Paper chromatography
(A) 4.5 (B) 11.2
(D) None of these
(C) 7.0 (D) 9.1
659. Frequently employed materials for the
669. Isoelectric point of amino acids is used for
adsorption chromatography of proteins include
(A) Crystallisation (B) Precipitation
(A) High capacity supporting gel
(C) Solubility (D) Reactivity
(B) Starch blocks
(C) Calcium phosphate gel alumina gel 670. Xanthoproteic test is positive in proteins
andhydroxy apatite containing (A) Sulphur amino acids (B) α-Amino
(D) All of these acids
(C) Aromatic amino acids
660. The solubility of most proteins is lowered at high
(D) Aliphatic amino acids
salt concentrations is called as
(A) Salting in process (B) Salting out process 671. All α-amino acids give positive
(C) Isoelectric focussing(D) None of these (A) Million’s test (B) Biurete test
(C) Xanthproteic test (D) Ninhydrine test
661. Phenylalanine, ornithine and methionine are
involved in the biogenesis of 672. N-terminal amino acids of a polypeptide are
(A) Lysergic acid (B) Reserpine estimated by
(C) L-Hyoscyamine (D) Papaverine (A) Edmann reaction (B) Sanger’s reagent
(C) Formaldehyde test (D) Ninhydrine reaction
662. All the following diuretics inhibit the carbonic
anhydrase except 673. Million’s test is positive for
(A) Acetazolamide (B) Bumetanide (A) Phenylalanine (B) Glycine
(C) Furosemide (D) Ethacrynic acid (C) Tyrosine (D) Proline
663. Protein is a polymer of 674. Indole group of tryptophan responses positively

to
(A) Sugars (B) Phenols (C) Amino acids (D)
Carboxylic acids (A) Glyoxylic acid (B) Schiff’s reagent
(C) Biuret test (D) Resorcinol test
675. Guanidine group of argentine gives positive test (D) None of these
with
684. Most of calcium is present in bone, but 2%
(A) Lead acetate present in soft tissue and the blood is called
(B) Sakaguchi reagent (A) Calcinated blood (B) Solidified blood
(C) Tricholoroacetic acid (C) Physiological blood(D) Colloidal blood
(D) Molisch’s reagent
685. Calcium present with protein is known as free
676. Thiol group of cysteine gives red colour with while in salt form is called as
(A) Sodium acetate (A) Bound (B) Precipitated
(B) Lead acetate (C) Solid (D) Polymorphs
(C) Sodium nitroprusside 686. The following ions help in enzymatic transfer of
(D) Barfoed’s reagent phosphate from ATP to pyruvic acid:
677. Protein deficiency disease is known as (A) Sodium (B) Calcium
(A) Cushing’s disease(B) Fabry’s disease (C) Magnesium (D) Potassium
(C) Parkinson’s disease
687. International enzyme commission classifies
(D) Kwashiorkor and marasmus enzymes into
678. A vegetable source of protein is (A) Three classes (B) Six classes
(A) Egg plant (C) Four classess (D) Ten classes
(B) Soyabean 688. Michaelis – Menten equation is used toexplain
(C) Tree of the Heaven the effect of substrate concentration on
(D) Devil’s dung (A) Carbohydrate (B) Enzyme
679. Oxaloacetate is converted to aspartic acid by (C) Lipid (D) Protein
(A) Reductase (B) Oxidase 689. The pH at which an enzyme has
(C) Transminase (D) Catalase maximumactivity is known as
680. Deficiency of biotin results in decrease in (A) Isoelectric pH (B) Optimum pH
(A) Amino acid synthesis (C) Low pH (D) High pH
(B) Lipid synthesis 690. Degradation of proteins to amino acids, glucose
(C) Kidney from carbohydrates and fatty acids from lipids is
(D) Fatty acid synthesis known as
(A) Anabolism (B) Metabolism
681. The precursor of bile salts, sex hormones and
vitamin D is (C) Catabolism (D) Cretinism
(A) Diosgenin (B) Cholesterol 691. During glycolysis of glucose the energy liberated
(C) Campesterol (D) Ergosterol in the absence of oxygen is known as
(A) Oxygenesis
682 Unsaturated fatty acids is known as
(B) Glyconeogenesis
(A) Non-essential fatty acids
(C) Glycogenolysis
(B) Essential fatty acids
(D) Anaerobic fermentation
(C) Cerebrosides
(D) Phospholipids 692. Deficiency of urea cycle enzymes resultsinto
accumulation of citrulline argininosuccinate
683 Biuret test is specific for arginine in the liver resulting in increasing
(A) Two peptide linkage concentration of …….. in the blood.
(B) Phenolic group (A) Calcium (B) Sodium
(C) Imidazole ring (C) Ammonia (D) Lipid
693. Accumulation of trytophan in blood is known as (C) Enterokinase (D) Rennin

(A) Pompe’s disease (B) Wilson’s disease 703. Inactive zymogens are precursors of all the
(C) Wolman’s disease (D) Hartnup’s disease following gastrointestinal enzymes except
694. Lymphocytes are responsible for the formation (A) Carboxypeptidase (B) Pepsin
of (C) Amino peptidase (D) Chymotrypsin
(A) Serum (B) Plasma 704. Rennin acts on casein of milk in infants in
(C) Antibody (D) Calcium presence of
695. Platelets contain an enzyme which has (A) Mg++ (B) Zn++
important role in clotting in blood. This enzyme (C) Co++ (D) Ca++
is known as
(A) Cholinesterase (B) Transaminase 705. All the following are true about phenylketonuria
except
(C) Decarboxylase (D) Thrombokinase
(A) Deficiency of phenylalanine
696. Treatment of pentoses with a hydroxylase(B) Mental retardation
concentratedmineral acid yields a cyclic
(C) Increased urinary excretion of p-
aldehyde known as
hydroxyphenyl pyruvic acid
(A) Pentaldehyde (B) Cyclopental (D) Decrease serotonin formation
(C) Hexaldehyde (D) Furfural
706. Which of the amino acid produces a vasodilator
697. Isoelectric pH is that pH at which protein is on decarboxylation?
electrically:
(A) Glutamin acid (B) Histidine
(A) Neutral (B) Anionic (C) Ornithine (D) Cysteine
(C) Cationic (D) None of these
707. Neutral amino acid is
698. About 6.25 g of haemoglobin is produced and
destroyed in the body each day and the total
amount of haemoglobin in a normal healthy 70 (C) Aspartic acid (D) Histidine
kg weighing male adult is 708. The amino acid containing hydroxy group:
(A) 250 g (B) 150 g (A) Glycine (B) Isoleucine
(C) 100 g (D) 70 g (C) Arginine (D) Thereonine
699. Pancreatic juice contains all of the following 709. The amino acid which synthesizes many
except hormornes:
(A) Trypsinogen (B) Lipase (A) Valine (B) Phenylalanine
(C) Cholecystokinin (D) Chymnotrypsinogen (C) Alanine (D) Histidine
700. The milk protein in the stomach in an adultis 710. Insulin degradation of disulfide bond formation
digested by is effected by
(A) Pepsin (B) Rennin (A) Pyruvate dehydrogenase
(C) HCl (D) Chymotrypsinogen (B) Xylitol reductase
701. Carboxypeptidase, an enzyme of pancreatic (C) Gutathione reductase
juice, contains (D) Xanthine oxidase
(A) Mn (B) Zinc 711. A protein reacts with biuret reagent
(C) Magnesium (D) Manganese whichindicates 2 or more
702. The zymogen from trypsinogen of pancreatic (A) Blood clotting (B) Peptide bond
juice is converted to active trypsin by (C) Disulphide bonds (D) Hydrophobic bonds
(A) Peisin (B) Enterocrinin
712. In many proteins the hydrogen bondingproduces (C) Keratin (D) Gliadin
a regular coiled arrangement which is called as 723. Plasma protein can be separated by
(A) β-Helix (B) α-Helix (A) Salting out with (NH4)2SO4
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) Spiral (B) Ultracentrifugation
713. The milk protein in the stomach of theinfants is (C) Immuno electrophoresis
digested by (D) All of these
(A) Pepsin (B) Trypsin 724. RNA does not contain
(C) Chymotrypsin (D) Rennin
(A) Uracil
714. Protein anabolism is stimulated by (B) Adenine
(A) ACTH (B) Testosterone (C) Hydroxy methyl cytosine
(C) Glucagon (D) Epinephrine (D) Phosphate
715. The number of helices present in a 725. In mammalian cells, ribosomal RNA isproduced
collagenmolecule is mainly in the
(A) 1 (B) 2 (A) Nucleus
(C) 3 (D) 4 (B) Nucleolus
(C) Ribosome
716. Which bond is present in the primary structure (D) Golgi apparatus
of protein?
726. Which co-enzyme is not involved in oxidative
(A) Ester (B) Hydrogen
decarboxylation of pyruvic acid?
(C) Ionic bond (D) Peptide
(A) TPP (B) Mg++
717. Sakaguchi reaction is specific for (C) Biotin (D) CoA-SH
(A) Guanidine group (B) Phenolic group 727. A polymeric unit of starch which has abranched
(C) Carboxylic group (D) None of these structure is
(A) Glucose (B) Amylopectin
718. With the exception of glycine all amino acids
(C) Isomaltose (D) Amylose
found in protein are
(A) Isocitrate dehydrogenase 728 The repeating unit in hyaluronic acid is
(B) Fumarase (A) Glucuronic acid and Galactosamine(B)
(C) Succinate thiokinase Glucuronic acid are glucosamine
(D) ATPase (C) Glucuronic acid and N-acetyl glucosamine
(D) Glucuronic acid and N-acetyl galactosamine
719 In protein structure the α-helix and βpleated sheets
are example of 729 The repeating disaccharide unit in celluslose is
(A) Primary structure (B) Secondary structure (A) Sucrose (B) Maltose
(C) Tertiary structure (D) Quaternary structure (C) Dextrose (D) Cellobiose
720. An essential amino acid in man is

(A) Proline (B) Threonine
(C) Asparagine (D) Tyrosine
721. An amino acid that does not form an αhelix is

(A) Asparagine (B) Tyrosine
(C) Tryptophan (D) Proline 722. The
protein present in hair is
(A) Elastin (B) Prolamine
ANSWERS
1. A 2. A 3. A 4. A 5. A 6. A 7. A 8. A 9. A 10. D 11. B 12. A 13. A 14. C 15. C 16. B 17. B 18. C
19. B 20. C 21. B 22. A 23. B 24. D
25. A 26. C 27. B 28. B 29. A 30. A
31. C 32. B 33. D 34. B 35. C 36. A
37. B 38. C 39. C 40. B 41. B 42. A
43. B 44. C 45. C 46. A 47. A 48. B
49. D 50. A 51. A 52. A 53. D 54. A
55. B 56. A 57. C 58. B 59. C 60. A
61. B 62. A 63. D 64. C 65. D 66. C
67. A 68. D 69. A 70. A 71. C 72. B
73. A 74. B 75. A 76. A 77. D 78. D
79. A 80. A 81. C 82. A 83. C 84. D
85. C 86. B 87. B 88. A 89. A 90. A
91. A 92. B 93. C 94. D 95. A 96. A 97. A 98. D 99. A 100. A 101. D 102. D 103. D 104. D 105. A 106. A 107. A
108. C 109. D 110. A 111. A 112. A 113. A 114. B
115. D 116. C 117. A 118. A 119. D 120. C 121. B 122. B 123. A 124. A 125. A 126. A
127. B 128. C 129. A 130. A 131. B 132. C 133. A 134. A 135. A 136. A 137. C 138. A 139. A 140. D 141. C 142.
A 143. C 144. B 145. A 146. B 147. B 148. B 149. D 150. A 151. A 152. B 153. C 154. C 155. B 156. C 157. D
158. D 159. C 160. C 161. B 162. D 163. A 164. D 165. C 166. B 167. D 168. D 169. C 170. C 171. D 172. B 173.
A 174. D
175. D 176. C 177. B 178. B 179. A 180. A 181. C 182. C 183. B 184. C 185. B 186. C 187. D 188. A 189. B 190.
D 191. C 192. C 193. B 194. C 195. D 196. B 197. D 198. C
199. B 200. B 201. C 202. D 203. C 204. C 205. D 206. C 207. D 208. B 209. A 210. D
211. C 212. A 213. C 214. A 215. C 216. D
217. B 218. D 219. B 220. B 221. C 222. D 223. C 224. C 225. C 226. D 227. C 228. D
229. C 230. A 231. C 232. D 233. D 234. D
235. C 236. B 237. A 238. D 239. B 240. D
241. B 242. B 243. C 244. A 245. B 246. A 247. C 248. D 249. B 250. C 251. C 252. A 253. D 254. D 255. D 256.
B 257. D 258. B 259. D 260. D 261. D 262. D 263. D 264. B 265. A 266. B 267. B 268. D 269. B 270. D
271. C 272. B 273. C 274. C 275. D 276. B 277. B 278. D 279. C 280. D 281. A 282. D
283. B 284. C 285. A 286. D 287. B 288. B
289. D 290. B 291. D 292. C 293. D 294. D
295. B 296. C 297. B 298. C 299. B 300. C 301. A 302. B 303. B 304. C 305. B 306. B 307. A 308. A 309. C 310.
D 311. B 312. D 313. D 314. C 315. B 316. D 317. B 318. B
319. D 320. B 321. A 322. B 323. D 324. A
325. B 326. B 327. A 328. C 329. B 330. D 331. C 332. D 333. C 334. B 335. C 336. B 337. C 338. A 339. A 340.
C 341. D 342. B 343. A 344. B 345. C 346. B 347. B 348.B 349. B 350. B 351. C 352. C 353. B 354. C
355. D 356. D 357. C 358. B 359. D 360. D
361. B 362. B 363. D 364. B 365. D 366. D
367. A 368. C 369. A 370. A 371. D 372. B
373. B 374. D 375. A 376. B 377. A 378. B 379. D 380. B 381. D 382. D 383. D 384. D 385. C 386. A 387. A
388. B 389. C 390. D 391. D 392. D 393. D 394. D 395. C 396. B
397. D 398. B 399. B 400. A 401. B 402. A 403. B 404. C 405. D 406. D 407. B 408. B
409. B 410. D 411. B 412. B 413. C 414. C 415. D 416. C 417. B 418. C 419. A 420. D 421. D 422. A 423. C
424. D 425. D 426. C
427. D 428. D 429. A 430. B 431. D 432. A
433. B 434. A 435. A 436. A 437. B 438. B 439. C 440. D 441. C 442. C 443. B 444. D
445. C 446. B 447. D 448. C 449. C 450. C 451. C 452. D 453. A 454. A 455. B 456. C
457. D 458. C 459. A 460. C 461. B 462. A 463. A 464. C 465. C 466. D 467. B 468. A 469. A 470. D 471. C
472. B 473. A 474. B 475. B 476. D 477. C 478. C 479. B 480. D 481. C 482. B 483. C 484. B 485. B 486. C
487. C 488. D 489. B 490. B 491. C 492. C 493. B 494. A 495. B 496. B 497. A 498. C 499. D 500. D 501. C 502.
C 503. C 504. C 505. B 506. A 507. D 508. B 509. A 510. C 511. B 512. D 513. D 514. A 515. A
516. C 517. A 518. D 519. A 520. D 521. A 522. D 523. C 524. B 525. D 526. A 527. B
528. A
529. A 530. B 531. D 532. D 533. B 534. A
535. B 536. A 537. B 538. D 539. C 540. A 541. C 542. C 543. A 544. D 545. D 546. B
547. D 548. A 549. A 550. B 551. D 552. B 553. A 554. B 555. A 556. C 557. B 558. D
559. A 560. A 561. A 562. A 563. D 564. D 565. C 566. A 567. A 568. A 569. A 570. B
571. A 572. A 573. B 574. C 575. C 576. D
577. D 578. B 579. B 580. A 581. B 582. C 583. C 584. C 585. B 586. D 587. D 588. B
589. A 590. C 591. B 592. A 593. C 594. D
595. B 596. A 597. A 598. C 599. D 600. D 601. C 602. C 603. B 604. B 605. B 606. A
607. A 608. A 609. B 610. A 611. C 612. B 613. D 614. A 615. D 616. A 617. D 618. B
619. D 620. C 621. A 622. B 623. A 624. B 625. D 626. B 627. B 628. B 629. D 630. B 631. D 632. D 633. A
634. A 635. D 636. C 637. A 638. A 639. C 640. B 641. B 642. B 643. D 644. B 645. D 646. D 647. B 648. C
649. A 650.C 651. D 652. A 653. B 654. C 655. D 656. A 657. A 658. B 659. C 660. B 661. A 662. D 663. C 664.
D 665. C 666. B
667. B 668. C 669. B 670. C 671. D 672. A 673. C 674. A 675. B 676. C 677. D 678. B
679. C 680. D 681. B 682. B 683. A 684. C 685. A 686. D 687. B 688. B 689. B 690. C
691. D 692. C 693. D 694. C 695. D 696. D
697. A 698. D 699. C 700. A 701. B 702. C 703. C 704. D 705. C 706. B 707. A 708. D
709. B 710. C 711. B 712. B 713. D 714. B 715. C 716. D 717. A 718. B 719. B 720. B
721. D 722. C 723. D 724. C 725. B 726. C
727. B 728. C 729. D
EXPLANATIONS FOR THE ANSWERS hemophilia B or Christmas disease (defect-
Christmas factor, i.e., IX) are the major
12. A Albumin (mol. Wt. 69,000) is the major
abnormalities known.
constituent of plasma proteins with a
concentration 3.5–5.0 g/dl. It is exclusively 151. A Lysine, arginine, histidine. These are dibasic
synthesized by the liver. Plasma albumin monocarboxylic acids.
performs osmotic, transport and nutritive
212. A The amino acids which are never found in protein
function, besides the buffering action.
structure are collectively referred to as non-
67. A Ceruloplasmin is a blue coloured, copper protein amino acids. However, the
containing α –globulin. Its normal plasma
2 nonprotein amino acids perform several
concentration is around 30 mg/dl and it is biological functions. e.g., ornithine, citrulline,
decreased in Wilson’s disease. thyroxine.
103. D Defects in clotting factors cause abnormalities in 268. D Amino acids are divided into 3 groups based on
blood clotting. Hemophilia A their metabolic fats.
(defectantihemophilic factor i.e., VII),
(a) Glycogenic: These amino acids can serve as 555. A The removal of amino group from the amino
precursors for the synthesis of glucose (or acids as ammonia is deamination. It may be
glycogen) e.g., alanine, aspartate, glycine. oxidative or non-oxidative in nature. The NH 3
so liberated is used for synthesis or urea.
(b) Ketogenic: Fat can be synthesized from these
amino acids e.g., leucine, lysine. 600. D The three amino acids glycine, arginine and
(c) Glycogenic or ketogenic: The amino acids methionine are required for creatine
formation. Glycine combines
that can form glucose as well as fat e.g.,
isoleucine, phenylalanine, lysine. 683. A Biuret test is answered by compounds containing
300. C Zwitterion (dipolar ion) is a hybrid molecule two or more CO–NH groups i.e., peptide
containing positive and negative ionic bonds. All protein and peptides possessing at
groups. Each amino acid has a characteristic least two peptide linkages i.e., tripeptide
pH (e.g., leucine pH 6.0), at which it exists as (with 3 amino acids) give positive biuret test.
zwitterions. The principle of biuret test is conveniently
used to detect the presence of proteins in
350. B Albumin/Globulin (A/G) ratio expresses their biological fluids. The mechanism of biuret
relation in the serum concentration. The test is not clearly known. It is believed that
normal A/G ratio is 1.2 to 1.5:1, taking the the colour is due to the formation of a
concentration of albumin and globulins copper co-ordianated complex.
respectively in the range of 3.5-5.0 g/dl and
2.5–3.5 g/dl. The A/G ratio is lowered either 717. A Arginine, containing guanidine group, reacts with
due to a decrease in albumin 9liver disease) α-naphthol and alkaline hypobromite to form
a red colour complex.
or an increase in globulins (chronic infections).
421. D By salting out technique (using ammonium
sulfate or sodium sulfate), the plasma
proteins can be separated into 3 groups –
albumin, globulins and fibrinogen.
Electrophoresis is the most commonly
employed analytical technique for the
separation of plasma (serum) proteins. Paper
or agar gel electrophoresis with veronal
buffer (pH 8.6) separates plasma proteins
into 5 distinct bands namely albumin, α1 - α2,
β-and γ-globulins.
488. D Complement system is composed of about 20
plasma proteins that complement the
functions of antibodies in defending the body
from invading antigens. The complement
system helps the body immunity by
promoting phagocytosis, formation of
antigen-antibody complexes and
inflammatory reaction.
507. D Apolipoproteins or apoproteins are the
(structural) protein components of
lipoproteins and are closely involved in the
metabolism of the later, e.g., AI, AIII, B 100, C1,
CII
FATS AND FATTY ACID METABOLISM 73
CHAPTER 4
FATS AND FATTY ACID METABOLISM

1. An example of a hydroxy (A) Lignoceric acid (B)
fatty acid is Valeric acid
(A) Ricinoleic acid (B) Crotonic (C) Caprylic acid (D) Behenic acid
acid 7. The number of double bonds
(C) Butyric acid (D) Oleic acid in arachidonic acid is
2. An example of a saturated (A) 1 (B) 2
fatty acid is (C) 4 (D) 6
(A) Palmitic acid (B) Oleic 8. In humans, a dietary essential
acid fatty acidis
(C) Linoleic acid (D) Erucic acid (A) Palmitic acid (B) Stearic
acid
3. If the fatty acid is esterified
with analcohol of high (C) Oleic acid (D) Linoleic acid
molecular weight instead of 9. A lipid containing alcoholic
glycerol, the resulting amine residueis
compound is
(A) Phosphatidic acid (B)
(A) Lipositol (B) Ganglioside
Plasmalogen
(C) Glucocerebroside (D)
(C) Wax (D) Cephalin Sphingomyelin
4. A fatty acid which is not 10. Cephalin consists of
synthesized inthe body and
has to be supplied in the diet (A) Glycerol, fatty acids,
is phosphoric acid
andcholine
(A) Palmitic acid (B) Lauric
(B) Glycerol, fatty acids,
acid (C) Linolenic acid (D)
phosphoric acid
Palmitoleic acid
andethanolamine
5. Essential fatty acid: (C) Glycerol, fatty acids,
(A) Linoleic acid (B) Linolenic phosphoric acid
acid andinositol
(C) Arachidonic acid (D) All (D) Glycerol, fatty acids,
these phosphoric acid andserine
6. The fatty acid present in 11. In mammals, the major fat in

cerebrosides is adiposetissues is
(A) Phospholipid (B) (A) Liver (B) Brain

Cholesterol (C) Kidney (D) Muscle
(C) Sphingolipids (D)
18. Unsaturated fatty acid found
Triacylglycerol
in the codliver oil and
12. Glycosphingolipids are a containing 5 double bonds is
combination of (A) Clupanodonic acid
(A) Ceramide with one or (B) Cervonic acid
more sugar residues (C) Elaidic acid
(B) Glycerol with galactose (D) Timnodonic acid
(C) Sphingosine with
galactose 19. Phospholipid acting as
surfactant is
(D) Sphingosine with
phosphoric acid (A) Cephalin (B)
13. The importance of Phosphatidyl inositol
phospholipids asconstituent (C) Lecithin (D) Phosphati
of cell membrane is because serine
they possess
20. An oil which contains cyclic
(A) Fatty acids fatty acids andonce used in
(B) Both polar and nonpolar the treatment of leprosy is
groups (A) Elaidic oil (B)
(C) Glycerol Rapeseed oil
(D) Phosphoric acid (C) Lanoline (D) Chaulmoogric
14. In neutral fats, the oil
unsaponificable 21. Unpleasant odours and taste
matterincludes in a fat(rancidity) can be
(A) Hydrocarbons (B) delayed or prevented by the
Triacylglycerol addition of
(C) Phospholipids (D) (A) Lead (B) Copper
Cholsesterol (C) Tocopherol (D) Ergosterol
15. Higher alcohol present in 22. Gangliosides derived from
waxes is glucosylceramide contain in
addition one or more
(A) Benzyl (B) Methyl
molecules of
(C) Ethyl (D) Cetyl
(A) Sialic acid (B) Glycerol
16. Kerasin consists of (C) Diacylglycerol (D)
(A) Nervonic acid (B) Hyaluronic acid
Lignoceric acid
23. ’Drying oil’, oxidized
(C) Cervonic acid spontaneously
Clupanodonic acid byatmospheric oxygen at
17. Gangliosides are complex ordinary temperature and
glycosphingolipids found in
forms a hard water proof 29. Palmitic, oleic or stearic acid

material is ester ofcholesterol used in
(A) Coconut oil (B) Peanut manufacture of cosmetic
oil creams is
(C) Rape seed oil (D) Linseed oil (A) Elaidic oil (B) Lanoline
(C) Spermaceti (D)
24. Deterioration of food
Chaulmoogric oil
(rancidity) is due topresence
30. Dietary fats after absorption
of
appear inthe circulation as
(A) Cholesterol
(A) HDL (B) VLDL
(B) Vitamin E
(C) LDL (D) Chylomicron
(C) Peroxidation of lipids
(D) Phenolic compounds 31. Free fatty acids are
transported in theblood
25. The number of ml of N/10
KOH requiredto neutralize (A) Combined with albumin
the fatty acids in the distillate (B) Combined with fatty acid
from 5 gm of fat is called binding protein
(A) Reichert-Meissel number
(C) Combined with β-
(B) Polenske number
lipoprotein
(C) Acetyl number
(D) In unbound free salts
(D) Non volatile fatty acid
number 32. Long chain fatty acids are first
activatedto acetyl-CoA in
26. Molecular formula of
cholesterol is (A) Cytosol (B)
Microsomes
(A) C27H45OH (C) Nucleus (D) Mitochondria
(B) C29H47OH
33. The enzyme acyl-CoA
(C) C29H47OH synthase catalysesthe
(D) C23H41OH conversion of a fatty acid of
an active fatty acid in the
27. The cholesterol molecule is presence of
(A) Benzene derivative (A) AMP (B) ADP
(B) Quinoline derivative (C) ATP (D) GTP
(C) Steroid
34. Carnitine is synthesized from
(D) Straight chain acid
(A) Lysine and methionine
28. Salkowski test is performed
(B) Glycine and arginine
to detect
(C) Aspartate and glutamate
(A) Glycerol (B)
(D) Proline and
Cholesterol
hydroxyproline
(C) Fatty acids (D) Vitamin D
35. The enzymes of β-oxidation (C) Hepatosplenomegaly

are found in (D) Deafness
(A) Mitochondria (B) Cytosol 41. An important finding in
(C) Golgi apparatus (D) Neimann-Pickdisease is
Nucleus
(A) Leukopenia
36. Long chain fatty acids (B) Cardiac enlargement(C)
penetrate the Corneal opacity
innermitochondrial (D) Hepatosplenomegaly
membrane
42. Fucosidosis is characterized
(A) Freely
by
(B) As acyl-CoA derivative
(A) Muscle spasticity (B)
(C) As carnitine derivative
Liver enlargement
(D) Requiring Na dependent
(C) Skin rash (D) Kidney failure
carrier
43. Metachromatic
37. An important feature of
leukodystrophy is due
Zellweger’ssyndrome is
todeficiency of enzyme:
(A) Hypoglycemia
(A) α-Fucosidase (B)
(B) Accumulation of
Arylsulphatase A
phytanic acid in tissues
(C) Ceramidase
(C) Skin eruptions
Hexosaminidase A
(D) Accumulation of C26-C38
polyenoic acid in brain 44. A significant feature of
tissues Tangier disease is
38. An important finding of (A) Impairment of
Fabry’s diseaseis chylomicron formation
(A) Skin rash (B) (B) Hypotriacylglycerolmia
Exophthalmos (C) Absence of Apo-C-II
(C) Hemolytic anemia (D) (D) Absence of Apo-C-I
Mental retardation
45. A significant feature of Broad
39. Gaucher’s disease is due to Beta diseaseis
deficiency ofthe enzyme: (A) Hypocholesterolemia
(A) Sphingomyelinase (B) Hypotriacylglycerolemia
(B) Glucocerebrosidase (C) Absence of Apo-D
(C) Galactocerbrosidase (D) Abnormality of Apo-E
(D) β-Galactosidase 46. Neonatal tyrosinemia
improves on administration
40. Characteristic finding in of
Gaucher’sdisease is
(A) Thiamin (B)
(A) Night blindness Riboflavin
(B) Renal failure (C) Pyridoxine (D) Ascorbic acid
47. Absence of phenylalanine (B) Speech defect

hydroxylasecauses (C) Decreased urinary
(A) Neonatal tyrosinemia(B) histidine level
Phenylketonuria (D) Patients can not be
(C) Primary hyperoxaluria treated by diet
(D) Albinism 53. An important finding in
48. Richner-Hanhart syndrome is glycinuria is
due todefect in (A) Excess excretion of
(A) Tyrosinase oxalate in the urine
(B) Phenylalanine hydroxylase (B) Deficiency of enzyme
glycinase
(C) Hepatic tyrosine
transaminase (C) Significantly increased
serum glycine level
(D) Fumarylacetoacetate
hydrolase (D) Defect in renal tubular
reabsorption of glycine
49. Plasma tyrosine level in 54. Increased urinary indole
Richner-Hanhartsyndrome is acetic acid isdiagnostic of
(A) 1–2 mg/dL (B) 2–3 (A) Maple syrup urine disease
mg/dL (B) Hartnup disease
(C) 4–5 mg/dL (D) 8–10 mg/dL (C) Homocystinuia
50. Amount of phenylacetic acid (D) Phenylketonuria
excreted inthe urine in
55. In glycinuria daily urinary
phenylketonuria is
excretion ofglycine ranges
(A) 100–200 mg/dL (B) 200– from
280 mg/dL
(A)100–200 mg (B) 300–500
(C) 290–550 mg/dL (D) 600–
mg
750 mg/dL
(C) 600–1000 mg (D) 1100–
51. Tyrosinosis is due to defect in 1400 mg
the enzyme:
56. An inborn error, maple syrup
(A) Fumarylacetoacetate urinedisease is due to
hydrolase deficiency of the enzyme:
(B) p-Hydroxyphenylpyruvate
(A) Isovaleryl-
hydroxylase
CoAhydrogenase
(C) Tyrosine transaminase
(B) Phenylalnine hydroxylase
(D) Tyrosine hydroxylase
(C) Adenosyl transferase
52. An important finding in (D) α-Ketoacid decarboxylase
Histidinemia is
57. Maple syrup urine disease
(A) Impairment of conversion becomesevident in extra
of α-Glutamate to α- uterine life by the end of
ketoglutarate
(A) First week (B) Second 63. The percentage of

week polyunsaturated fattyacids in
(C) Third week (D) Fourth week soyabean oil is
(A) 62 (B) 10
58. Alkaptonuria occurs due to
deficiency ofthe enzyme: (C) 3 (D) 2
(A) Maleylacetoacetate 64. The percentage of
isomerase polyunsaturated fattyacids in
(B) Homogentisate oxidase butter is
(C) p-Hydroxyphenylpyruvate (A) 60 (B) 37
hydroxylase (C) 25 (D) 3
(D) Fumarylacetoacetate
65. Dietary fibre denotes
hydrolase
(A) Undigested proteins
59. An important feature of (B) Plant cell components
maple syrupurine disease is that cannot be digestedby
(A) Patient can not be treated own enzymes
by dietaryregulation (C) All plant cell wall
(B) Without treatment death, components
of patient may occurby (D) All non digestible water
the end of second year of insoluble polysaccharide
life
(C) Blood levels of leucine, 66. A high fibre diet is associated
isoleucine and serineare with reduced incidence of
increased (A) Cardiovascular disease
(D) Excessive brain damage (B) C.N.S. disease
(C) Liver disease
60. Ochronosis is an important
finding of (D) Skin disease
(A) Tyrosinemia(B) Tyrosinosis 67. Dietary fibres are rich in

(C) Alkaptonuria (A) Cellulose (B)
(D) Richner Hanhart syndrome Glycogen
61. Phrynoderma is a deficiency (C) Starch (D) Proteoglycans
of 68. Minimum dietary fibre is
(A) Essential fatty acids(B) found in
Proteins(C) Amino acids (A) Dried apricot (B) Peas (C)
(D) None of these Bran (D) Cornflakes
62. The percentage of linoleic 69. A bland diet is recommended
acid in safflower oil is in
(A) 73 (B) 57 (A) Peptic ulcer (B)
(C) 40 (D) 15 Atherosclerosis
(C) Diabetes (D) Liver disease
70. A dietary deficiency in both (D) Colon cancer

the quantityand the quality
76. Atherosclerosis and coronary
of protein results in
heartdiseases are associated
(A) Kwashiorkar (B) with the diet:
Marasmus
(A) High in total fat and
(C) Xerophtalmia (D) Liver saturated fat
diseases
(B) Low in protein
71. The deficiency of both energy
(C) High in protein
and proteincauses
(D) High in carbohydrate
(A) Marasmus (B)
Kwashiorkar 77. Cerebrovasular disease and
(C) Diabetes (D) Beri-beri hypertension is associated
with
72. Kwashiorkar is characterized
(A)High calcium intake(B)
by
High salt intake
(A) Night blindness (B) (C) Low calcium intake
Edema
(D) Low salt intake
(C) Easy fracturability (D)
Xerophthalmia 78. The normal range of total
serum bilirubin is
73. A characteristic feature of
Kwashiorkar is (A) 0.2–1.2 mg/100 ml
(B) 1.5–1.8 mg/100 ml(C) 2.0–
(A) Fatty liver
4.0 mg/100 ml
(B) Emaciation
(D) Above 7.0 mg/100 ml
(C) Low insulin lever
79. The normal range of direct
(D) Occurrence in less than 1 reacting
year infant (conjugated) serum bilirubin
74. A characteristic feature of is
marasmus is (A) 0–0.1 mg/100 ml
(A) Severe hypoalbuminemia (B) 0.1–0.4 mg/100 ml
(B) Normal epinephrine level (C) 0.4–06 mg/100 ml
(C) Mild muscle wasting (D) 0.5–1 mg/100 ml
(D) Low insulin and high 80. The normal range of indirect
cortisol level (unconjugated) bilirubin in
75. Obesity generally reflects serum is
excess intakeof energy and is (A) 0–0.1 mg/100 ml
often associated with the (B) 0.1–0.2 mg/100 ml(C) 0.2–
development of 0.7 mg/100 ml
(A) Nervousness (D) 0.8–1.0 mg/100 ml
(B) Non-insulin dependent
81. Jaundice is visible when
diabetes mellitus
serum bilirubinexceeds
(C) Hepatitis
(A) 0.5 mg/100 ml (B) (D) Obstructive jaundice

0.8 mg/100 ml
87. Fecal urobilinogen is
(C) 1 mg/100 ml (D) 2.4
increased in
mg/100 ml
(A) Hemolytic jaundice
82. An increase in serum (B) Obstruction of biliary duct
unconjugatedbilirubin occurs
(C) Extrahepatic gall stones
in
(D) Enlarged lymphnodes
(B) Obstructive jaundice 88. A mixture of conjugated and
(C) Nephritis unconjugated bilirubin is
found in the circulation in
(D) Glomerulonephritis
(A) Hemolytic jaundice(B)
83. One of the causes of
Hepatic jaundice
hemolytic jaundice is
(C) Obstructive jaundice
(A) G-6 phosphatase
(D) Post hepatic jaundice
deficiency
(B) Increased conjugated 89. Hepatocellular jaundice as
bilirubin compared topure obstructive
(C) Glucokinase deficiency type of jaundice is
(D) Phosphoglucomutase characterized by
deficiency (A) Increased serum alkaline
phosphate, LDH andALT
84. Increased urobilinogen in
(B) Decreased serum alkaline
urine andabsence of bilirubin
phosphatase, LDHand ALT
in the urine suggests
(C) Increased serum alkaline
(A) Obstructive jaundice phosphatase
(B) Hemolytic jaundice anddecreased levels of
(C) Viral hepatitis LDH and ALT
(D) Toxic jaundice (D) Decreased serum alkaline
phosphatase andincreased
85. A jaundice in which serum
serum LDH and ALT
alaninetransaminase and
alkaline phosphatase are 90. Icteric index of an normal
normal is adult variesbetween
(A) Hepatic jaundice (A) 1–2 (B) 2–4
(B) Hemolytic jaundice (C) 4–6 (D) 10–15
(C) Parenchymatous jaundice
91. Clinical jaundice is present
(D) Obstructive Jaundice
with an ictericindex above
86. Fecal stercobilinogen is
increased in (A) 4 (B) 8
(C) 10 (D) 15
(B) Hepatic jaundice
(C) Viral hepatitis
92. Normal quantity of (C) Renal defect

urobilinogen excretedin the (D) Muscle injury
feces per day is about
98. Increased serum ornithine
(A) 10–25 mg (B) 50–250 carabamoyltransferase
mg activity is diagnostic of
(C) 300–500 mg (D) 700–800
(A) Myocardial infarction
mg
(B) Hemolytic jaundice
93. Fecal urobilinogen is
decreased in (C) Bone disease
(D) Acute viral hepatitis
(A) Obstruction of biliary duct
(B) Hemolytic jaundice 99. The best known and most
(C) Excess fat intake frequently usedtest of the
(D) Low fat intake detoxicating functions of liver
is
94. A complete absence of fecal
(A) Hippuric acid test
urobilinogenis strongly
(B) Galactose tolerance test
suggestive of
(C) Epinephrine tolerance test
(A) Obstruction of bile duct(B)
(D) Rose Bengal dye test
Hemolytic jaundice
100. The ability of liver to remove
(C) Intrahepatic cholestasis
a dye like
(D) Malignant obstructive
BSP from the blood suggests
disease
a normal
95. Immediate direct Vanden (A) Excretory function
Bergh reactionindicates (B) Detoxification function
(A) Hemolytic jaundice(B) (C) Metabolic function
Hepatic jaundice (D) Circulatory function
101. Removal of BSP dye by the
(D) Megalobastic anemia
liver involves conjugation
96. The presence of bilirubin in with
the urinewithout (A) Thiosulphate
urobilinogen suggests
(B) Glutamine
(A) Obstructive jaundice (C) Cystein component of
(B) Hemolytic jaundice glutathione
(C) Pernicious anemia (D) UDP glucuronate
(D) Damage to the hepatic
102. Normal value of plasma total
parenchyma
proteins varies between
97. Impaired galactose tolerance (A) 3–4 gm/100ml (B) 6–8
test suggests gm/100ml
(A) Defect in glucose (C) 10–12 gm/100ml (D) 14–
utilisation 16 gm/100ml
(B) Liver cell injury
103. A decrease in albumin with (B) Renal plasma flow

increasedproduction of other (C) Ability of kidney to
unidentified proteins which concentrate the urine
migrate in β, γ region (D) Measurement of tubular
suggests mass
(A) Cirrhosis of liver
109. The formula to calculate
(B) Nephrotic syndrome maximum urea
(C) Infection U V×
(D) Chronic lymphatic clearance is ,
leukemia where
U
104. In increase in α2-Globulin denotes
with loss of albumin in urine B
suggests (A) Concentration of urea in
(A) Primary immune urine in gm/24hr
deficiency (B) Concentration of urea in
(B) Nephrotic syndrome urine in mg/100 ml
(C) Cirrhosis of liver (C) Concentration of urea in
blood in mg/100 ml
(D) Multiple myeloma
(D) Volume of urine in
105. The normal levels of ml/mt
prothrombin time is about
110. Average maximum urea
(A) 2 sec (B) 4 sec clearance is
(C) 14 sec (D) 10–16 sec
(A) 30 ml (B) 50 ml
106. In obstructive jaundice (C) 75 ml (D) 90 ml
prothrombin time
111. The average normal value for
(A) Remains normal standard urea clearance is
(B) Decreases
(A) 20 ml (B) 30 ml
(C) Responds to vit K and
(C) 40 ml (D) 54 ml
becomes normal
(D) Responds to vit K and 112. Urea clearance is lowered in
increases (A) Acute nephritis
107. In parenhymatous liver (B) Pneumonia
disease the prothrombin time (C) Early stage of nephritic
(A) Remains normal (B) syndrome
Increases (D) Benign hypertension
(C) Decreases (D) Responds
113. Glomerular filtration rate can
to Vit K be measured by
108. Urea clearance test is used to
(A) Endogenous creatinine
determine the
clearance
(A) Glomerular filtration rate
(B) Para-aminohippurate andreabsorbed by the

test tubule
(C) Addis test 118. Normal insulin clearance is
(D) Mosenthal test
(A) 40 ml/1.73 sqm (B) 60
114. At normal levels of creatinine ml/1.73 sqm
in the blood,this metabolite is (C) 80 ml/1.73 sqm (D) 120
(A) Filtered at the ml/1.73 sqm
glomerulus but not 119. Creatinine EDTA clearance is
secreted norreabsorbed a test tomeasure
by the tubule
(A) Renal plasma flow
(B) Secreted by the tubule
(B) Filtration fraction
(C) Reabsorbed by the
tubule (C) Glomerular filtration rate
(D) Secreted and reabsorbed (D) Tubular function
by tubule 120. The end products of
saponification:
115. The normal values for
creatinine clearancevaries (A) glycerol (B) acid
from (C) soap (D) Both (A) and (C)
(A) 20–40 ml/min (B) 40–60
121. The normal PAH clearance for
ml/min a surfacearea of 1.73 sqm. is
(C) 70–85 ml/min (D) 95–105
(A) 200 ml/min (B) 300
ml/min
ml/min
116. Measurement of insulin
(C) 400 ml/min (D) 574
clearance test is a measure of
ml/min
(A) Glomerular filtration rate
122. Para amino hippurate is
(B) Filtration factor
(C) Renal plasma flow (A) Filtered at glomeruli and
secreted by thetubules
(D) Tubular secretory mass
(B) Filtered at glomeruli and
117. The polysaccharide insulin is not secreted by
(A) Filtered at the thetubules
glomerulus but neither (C) Filtered at glomeruli and
secretednor reabsorbed reabsorbedcompletely
by the tubule (D) Not removed completely
(B) Filtered at the during a singlecirculation
glomerulus and secreted of the blood through the
bythe tubule kidney.
(C) Filtered at the 123. The Tm for PAH i.e the
glomerulus and maximal secretory capacity of
reabsorbed bythe tubule the tubule for PAH can be
(D) Filtered at the used to gavge the
glomerulus, secreted
(A) Extent of tubular (D) Starvation

damage
129. Excretion of
(B) Impairment of the phenolsulphanpthalein (PSP)
capacity of the tubule
reflects
toperform osmotic work
(A) Glomerulonephritis
(C) Impairment of renal
plasma flow (B) Maximaltabular
excretory capacity
(D) Glomerular filtration rate
(C) Filtration factor
124. The normal Tm in (D) Renal plasma flow
mg/min/1.73 sqm for PAH is
(A) 20 (B) 40
polyunsaturated fatty acid?
(C) 60 (D) 80
(A) Palmitic acid (B)
125. The normal range of filtration Palmitoleic acid
factor in an adult is (C) Linoleic acid (D) Oleic acid
(A) 0.10–0.15 (B) 0.16–0.21
131. Which of the following is
(C) 0.25–0.30 (D) 0.35–0.40 omega-3 polyunsaturated
126. The filtration factor tends to fatty acid?
be normal in (A) Linoleic acid (B) α-
(A) Early essential Linolenic acid
hypertension (C) γ-Linolenic acid (D)
(B) Malignant phase of Arachidonic acid
hypertension 132. Triglycerides are
(C) Glomerulonephritis
(A) Heavier than water
(D) Acute nephritis
(B) Major constituents of
127. The filtration factor is membranes
increased in (C) Non-polar
(A) Glomerulonephritis (D) Hydrophilic
(B) Malignant phase of
133. Cerebronic acid is present in
hypertension
(A) Glycerophospholipids
(C) Early essential
hypertension (B) Sphingophospholipids
(D) Acute nephritis (C) Galactosyl ceramide
(D) Gangliosides
128. The filtration factor is
decreased in 134. Acylsphingosine is also
known as
(A) Glomerulonephritis
(B) Early essential (A) Sphingomyelin (B)
hypertension Ceramide
(C) Malignant phase of (C) Cerebroside (D)
hypertension Sulphatide
135. The highest phospholipids (A) Linoleic acid (B) α-

content is found in Linolenic acid
(A) Chylomicrons (B) VLDL (C) γ-Linolenic acid (D)
(C) LDL (D) HDL Arachidonic acid
136. The major lipid in 143. All the following have 18

chylomicrons is carbon atoms except
(A) Triglycerides (B) (A) Linoleic acid (B) Linolenic

Phospholipids acid
(C) Cholesterol (D) Free fatty (C) Arachidonic acid (D)
acids Stearic acid
137. Number of carbon atoms in 144. A 20-carbon fatty acid among

cholesterol is the following is
(A) 17 (B) 19 (A) Linoleic acid (B) α-

(C) 27 (D) 30 Linolenic acid
(C) β -Linolenic acid (D)
138. The lipoprotein richest in Arachidonic acid
cholesterol is
145. Triglycerides are transported
(A)
from liver toextrahepatic
Chylomicrons
tissues by
(B) VLDL (C) LDL
(D) HDL (A) Chylomicrons
(B) VLDL (C) HDL
139. The major storage form of (D) LDL
lipids is
146. Cholesterol is transported
(A) Esterified cholesterol
from liver to extrahepatic
(B) Glycerophospholipids tissues by
(C) Triglycerides
(A) Chylomicrons
(D) Sphingolipids (B) VLDL (C) HDL
140. Cerebonic acid is present in (D) LDL
(A) Triglycerides 147. Elevated plasma level of the
(B) Cerebrosides following projects against
(C) Esterified cholestrol atherosclerosis:
(D) Sphingomyelin (A) Chylomicrons
(B) VLDL (C) HDL
141. The nitrogenous base in
(D) LDL
lecithin is
(B) Choline 148. All the following amino acids
(A) Ethanolamine
are nonessential except
(C) Serine (D) Betaine
142. All the following are omega- (A) Alanine (B) Histidine
6-fatty acids except (C) Cysteine (D) Proline
149. Sulphydryl group is present in
(A) Cysteine (B) 156. De novo synthesis of fatty

Methionine (C) Both (A) acids requiresall of the
and (B) (D) None of following except
these (A) Biotin (B) NADH
150. Oligosaccharide- (C) Panthothenic acid (D) ATP
pyrophosphoryl dolichol is
157. Acetyl CoA carboxylase
required for the synthesis of
regulates fatty acid synthesis
(A) N-linked glycoproteins by which of the following
(B) O-linked glycoproteins mechanism?
(C) GPI-linked glycoproteins (A) Allosteric regulation
(D) All of these (B) Covalent modification
151. In N-linked glycoproteins, (C) Induction and repression
oligosaccharideis attached to (D) All of these
protein through its
158. β-Oxidation of fatty acids
(A) Asparagine residue (B)
requires all the following
Glutamine residue
coenzymes except
(C) Arginine residue (D) Lysine
residue (A) CoA (B) FAD
152. De hovo synthesis of fatty (C) NAD (D) NADP
acids occurs in 159. Which of the following can be
(A) Cytosol (B) Mitochondria oxidized by β-oxidation
(C) Microsomes (D) All of pathway?
these (A) Saturated fatty acids
153. Acyl Carrier Protein contains (B) Monosaturated fatty
the vitamin: acids
(C) Polyunsaturated fatty
(A) Biotin (B) Lipoic acid
acids
(C) Pantothenic acid (D) Folic
(D) All of these
acid
160. Propionyl CoA is formed on
154. Which of the following is
oxidation of
required as a reductant in
fatty acid synthesis? (A) Monounsaturated fatty
acids
(A) NADH (B) NADPH
(B) Polyunsaturated fatty
(C) FADH2 (D) FMNH
acids
155. Hepatic liponenesis is (C) Fatty acids with odd
stimulated by: number of carbon atoms
(A) cAMP (B) Glucagon (D) None of these
(C) Epinephrine (D) Insulin 161. An enzyme required for the
synthesis ofketone bodies as
well as cholesterol is
(A) Acetyl CoA carboxylase
(B) HMG CoA synthetase 166. All the following can be

(C) HMG CoA reductase oxidized by βoxidation except
(D) HMG CoA lyase (A) Palmitic acid
162. Ketone bodies are (B) Phytanic acid
synthesized in (C) Linoleic acid
(A) Adipose tissue (B) Liver (D) Fatty acids having an odd
(C) Muscles (D) Brain number of carbonatoms
163. All the following statements 167. Anti-inflammatory

about ketonebodies are true corticosteroids inhibitthe
except synthesis of
(A) Their synthesis increases (A) Leukotrienes (B)

in diabetes mellitus Prostaglandins
(B) They are synthesized in (C) Thromboxanes (D) All of
mitchondria these
(C) They can deplete the 168. Diets having a high ratio of
alkali reserve polyunsaturated: saturated
(D) They can be oxidized in fatty acids can cause
the liver (A) Increase in serum
164. All the following statements triglycerides
about carnitine are true (B) Decrease in serum
except cholesterol
(A) It can be synthesised in (C) Decrease in serum HDL
the human body (D) Skin lesions
(B) It can be synthesized 169. Thromboxanes cause
from methionine and (A) Vasodilation
lysine (B) Bronchoconstriction
(C) It is required for (C) Platelet aggregation
transport of short chain (D) All of these
fattyacids into
mitochondria 170. Prostaglandins lower camp in
(D) Its deficiency can occur (A) Adipose tissue (B) Lungs
due to haemodialysis (C) Platelets (D)
165. Which of the following can be Adenohypophysis
synthesizedin the human 171. Slow reacting Substance of
body if precurors are Anaphylaxis is a mixture of
available?
(A) Prostaglandins (B)
(A) Oleic acid (B) Palmitoleic
Prostacyclins
acid (C) Thromboxanes (D)
(C) Arachidonic acid (D) All of Leukotrienes
these
172. Dipalmitoyl lecithin acts as
(A) Platelet activating (D) NAD

factor 178. Cerebrosides contain all the
(B) Second messenger following except
for hormones (A) Galactose (B) Sulphate
(C) Lung surfactant(D) (C) Sphingosine (D) Fatty acid
Anti-ketogenic compound
179. Niemann-Pick disease results
173. Reichert-Meissl number: from deficiency of
(A) 0.1 N KOH (B) 0.5 KOH (A) Ceramidase (B)
(C) 0.1 N NaOH (D) 0.5 NaOH
Sphingomyelinase
174. In glycerophospholipids, a (C) Arylsulphatase A (D)
polyunsaturated fatty acid is Hexosaminidase A
commonly attached to which
180. Chylomicron remnants are
of the following carbon atom
catabolised in
of glycerol?
(A) Intestine (B) Adipose tissue
(A) Carbon 1 (B) Carbon 2
(C) Liver (D) Liver and
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None
intestine
of these
181. VLDL remnant may be
175. Lysolecithin is formed from
converted into
lecithin by removal of
(A) VLDL (B) LDL
(A) Fatty acid
from position (C) HDL (D) Chylomicrons
1 (B) Fatty 182. Receptors for chylomicron
acid from remnants are
position 2
(A) Apo A specific (B) Apo B-
(C) Phosphorylcholine 48 specific
(D) Choline (C) Apo C specific (D) Apo E
176. Sphingosine is synthesized specific
from
183. LDL receptor is specific for
(A) Palmitoyl CoA and
(A) Apo B-48 and Apo B 100
Choline
(B) Apo B-48 and Apo E
(B) Palmitoyl CoA and
(C) Apo B-100 and Apo D
ethanolamine
(D) Apo B-100 and apo D
(C) Palmitoyl CoA and serine
(D) Acetyl CoA and choline 184. Nascent HDL of intestinal
origin lacks
177. For synthesis of sphingosine,
all the following coenzymes (A) Apo A (B) Apo C
are required except (C) Apo E (D) Apo C and Apo E
(A) Pyridoxal phosphate 185. HDL is synthesized in
(B) NADPH (A) Adipose tissue (B) Liver
(C) FAD
(C) Intestine (D) Liver

192.
and Lipid stores are mainly
intestine present in
186. Nascent HDL of intestinal (A) Liver (B) Brain
origin acquiresApo C and Apo (C) Muscles (D) Adipose tissue
E from
193. Glycerol is converted into
(A) Chylomicrons glycerol-3phosphate by
(B) VLDL (A) Thiokinase (B) Triokinase
(C) LDL (C) Glycerol kinase (D) All of
(D) HDL of the hepatic origin these
187. Heparin releasable hepatic 194. In adipose tissue, glycerol-3-
lipase converts phosphaterequired for the
(A) VLDL remnants into LDL synthesis of triglycerides
(B) Nascent HDL into HDL comes mainly from
(C) HDL2 into HDL3 (A) Hydrolysis of pre-existing
triglycerides
(D) HDL3 into HDL2
(B) Hydrolysis of
188. Activated lecithin cholesterol
phospholipids
acyl transferase is essential
(C) Dihydroxyacetone
for the conversion of
phosphate formed
(A) VLDL remnants into LDL inglycolysis
(B) Nascent HDL into HDL (D) Free glycerol
(C) HDL2 into HDL3
195. Glycerol released from
(D) HDL3 into HDL2 adipose tissue by hydrolysis
189. Fatty liver may be caused by of triglycerides is mainly
(A) Deficiency of methionine (A) Taken up by liver

(B) Puromycin (B) Taken up by extrahepatic
tissues
(C) Chronic alcoholism
(C) Reutilised in adipose
(D) All of these
tissue
190. Alcohol dehydrogenase (D) Excreted from the body
converts ethanol into 196. Free glycerol cannot be used
(A) Acetyl CoA (B) for triglyceride synthesis in
Acetaldehyde (A) Liver (B) Kidney
(C) Acetate (D) CO2 (C) Intestine (D) Adipose tissue
191. Lipids are stored in the body 197. Adipose tissue lacks
mainly in the form of (A) Hormone-sensitive lipase
(A) Phospholipids (B) (B) Glycerol kinase
Glycolipids (C) cAMP-dependent
(C) Triglycerides (D) Fatty protein kinase
acids
(D) Glycerol-3-phosphate (B) 1-

dehydrogenase Monoacylglyc
198. A digestive secretion that erol(C) 2-
does not containany digestive Monoacylglyc
enzyme is erol (D) 3-
(A) Saliva (B) Gastric juice Monoacylglyc
(C) Pancreatic juice (D) Bile erol 204.
Oxidation of
199. Saliva contains a lipase which
fatty acids
acts on triglycerides having
occurs
(A) Short chain fatty acids
(B) Medium chain fatty acids (A) In the cytosol
(C) Long chain fatty acids (B) In the matrix of
mitochondria
(D) All of these
(C) On inner mitochondrial
200. Salivary lipase hydrolyses the membrane
ester bondat (D) On the microsomes
(A) Position 1 of
205. Activation of fatty acids
triglycerides
requires all the following
(B) Position 2 of except
triglycerides(C)
(A) ATP (B)
Position 3 of
Coenzyme A
triglycerides
(C) Thiokinase (D) Carnitine
(D) All of these
206. Mitochondrial thiokinase acts
201. Salivary lipase converts
on
dietary triglycerides into
(A) Short chain of fatty acids
(A) Diglycerides and fatty
acids (B) Medium chain fatty
acids
(B) Monoglycerides and
fatty acids (C) Long chain fatty acids
(C) Glycerol and fatty acids (D) All of these
(D) All of these 207. Carnitine is required for the
transport of
202. Pancreatic lipase requires for
its activity: (A) Triglycerides out of liver
(A) Co-lipase (B) Bile salts (B) Triglycerides into
mitochondria
(C) Phospholipids (D) All of
these (C) Short chain fatty acids
into mitochondria
203. Pancreatic lipase converts (D) Long chain fatty acids
triacylglycerols into into mitochondria
(A) 2, 3-
208. Carnitine acylcarnitine
Diacylglycerol
translocase is present
(A) In the inner (D) Omega-oxidation of

mitochondrial fatty acids
membrane
213. The end product of omega-
(B) In the mitochondrial
oxidation of fatty acids
matrix
having an even number of
(C) On the outer surface of carbon atoms is
inner
mitochondrialmembran (A) Adipic acid (B) Suberic
e acid
(D) On the inner surface of (C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None
inner of these
mitochondrialmembran 214. De novo synthesis of fatty
e acids is catalysed by a multi-
209. Net ATP generation on enzyme complex which
complete oxidationof stearic contains
acid is (A)
One-SH group (B)
(A) 129 (B) 131 Two-SH groups
(C) 146 (D) 148 (C) Three-SH groups (D) Four-
SH groups
210. Propionyl CoA formed
oxidation of fatty acids 215. Fat depots are located in
having an odd number of (A) Intermuscular
carbon atoms is converted connective tissue
into (B) Mesentary
(A) Acetyl CoA (C) Omentum
(B) Acetoacetyl CoA (D) All of these
(C) D-Methylmalonyl CoA
216. Salivary lipase is secreted by
(D) Butyryl CoA
(A) Parotid glands
211. α-Oxidation of fatty acids (B) Sub-maxillary glands
occurs mainly in (C) Dorsal surface of tongue
(A) Liver (B) Brain (D) None of these
(C) Muscles (D) Adipose tissue
217. Co-lipase is a
212. Refsum’s disease results from
a defect in the following (A) Bile salt (B) Vitamin
pathway except (C) Protein (D) Phospholipid
(A) Alpha-oxidation of fatty 218. Plasma becomes milky
acids (A) Due to high level of HDL
(B) Beta-oxidation of fatty (B) Due to high level of LDL
acids
(C) During fasting
(C) Gamma-oxidation of
(D) After a meal
fatty acids
219. Mitochondrial membrane is (C) Less than the energy

permeable to generation from a16-
(A) Short chain fatty acids carbon fatty acid
(B) Medium chain fatty (D) In between the energy
acids generation from a16-
carbon fatty acid and an
(C) Long chain fatty acids
18-carbon fatty acid
(D) All of these
220. During each cycle of β- 223. Net energy generation on
oxidation complete oxidation of linoleic
acid is
(A) One carbon atom is
removed from (A) 148 ATP equivalents
thecarboxyl end of the (B) 146 ATP equivalents(C)
fatty acid 144 ATP equivalents
(B) One carbon atom is (D) 142 ATP equivalents
removed from the
224. Extramitochondrial synthesis
methylend of the fatty
of fatty acids occurs in
acid
(C) Two carbon atoms are (A) Mammary glands (B)
removed from Lungs
thecarboxyl end of the (C) Brain (D) All of these
fatty acid 225. One functional sub-unit of
(D) Two carbon atoms are multi-enzyme complex for de
removed from novo synthesis of fatty acids
themethyl end of the contains
fatty acid
(A) One —SH group
221. Net generation of energy on (B) Two —SH groups
complete oxidation of (C) Three —SH groups
palmitic acid is (D) Four —SH groups
(A) 129 ATP equivalents 226. NADPH required for fatty acid
(B) 131 ATP equivalents(C) synthesis can come from
146 ATP equivalents (A) Hexose monophosphate
(D) 148 ATP equivalents shunt
222. Net generation of energy on (B) Oxidative
complete oxidation of a 17- decarboxylation of
carbon fatty acid is malate
(C) Extramitochondrial
(A) Equal to the energy
generation from a16- oxidation of isocitrate
carbon fatty acid (D) All of these
(B) Equal to the energy 227. Fatty liver may be prevented
generation from an18- by all of the following except
carbon fatty acid
(A) Choline (B) Betaine
(C) Methionine (D) Ethionine

233. Synthesis of prostaglandins is
inhibited by
228. Human desaturase enzyme
system cannot introduce a (A) Glucocorticoids (B)
double bond in a fatty acid Aspirin
beyond (C) Indomethacin (D) All of
these
(A) Carbon 9 (B) Carbon
6 234. Lipo-oxygenase is required
for the synthesis of
(C) Carbon 5 (D) Carbon 3
(A) Prostaglandins (B)
229. Which of the following lipid is Leukotrienes
absorbed actively from
(C) Thromboxanes (D) All of
intestines?
these
(A) Glycerol
235. All of the following
(B) Cholesterol
statements about multiple
(C) Monoacylglycerol
sclerosis are true except
(D) None of these
(A) There is loss of
230. C22 and C24, fatty acids phospholipids from
required for the synthesis of white matter
sphingolipids in brain are (B) There is loss of
formed by sphingolipids from white
(A) De novo synthesis matter
(B) Microsomal chain (C) There is loss of esterified
elongation cholesterol from
(C) Mitochondrial chain whitematter
elongation (D) White matter resembles
(D) All of these gray matter
incomposition
231. Sphingomyelins:
236. After entering cytosol, free
(A) Phospholipids (B) fatty acids are bound to
Nitrolipids
(A) Albumin (B) Globulin
(C) Alcohols (D) None of these
(C) Z-protein (D) None of
232. All of the following these
statements about hypoglycin
237. Release of free fatty acids
are true except
from adipose tissue is
(A) It is a plant toxin increased by all of the
(B) It causes hypoglycaemia following except
(C) It inhibits oxidation of (A) Glucagon (B)
short chain fatty acids Epinephrine (C) Growth
(D) It inhibits oxidation of hormone (D) Insulin
long chain fatty acids
238. All the following statements (B) Its inheritance is

about brown adipose tissue autosomal recessive
are true except (C) Apoproteins A-I and A-II
(A) It is rich in cytochromes are not synthesised
(B) It oxidizes glucose and (D) Plasma HDL is increased
fatty acids 243. Genetic deficiency of
(C) Oxidation and lipoprotein lipase causes
phosphorylation are hyperlipoproteinaemia of
tightlycoupled in it following type:
(D) Dinitrophenol has no
(A) Type I (B) Type IIa
effect on it
(C) Type IIb (D) Type V
239. Lovastatin and mevastatin
244. Chylomicrons are present in
lower
fasting blood samples in
(A) Serum triglycerides hyperlipoproteinaemia of
(B) Serum cholesterol following types:
(C) Serum phospholipids (A) Types I and IIa (B)
(D) All of these Types IIa and IIb
240. Lovastatin is a (C) Types I and V (D) Types IV
and V
(A) Competitive inhibitor of
acetyl CoA 245. Glutathione is a constituent
carboxylase(B) of
Competitive inhibitor of
(A) Leukotriene A4 (B)
HMG CoA synthetase
Thromboxane A1
(C) Non-competitive
inhibitor of HMG (C) Leukotriene C4 (D) None of
CoAreductase these
(D) Competitive inhibitor of 246. Prostaglandins are
HMG CoA reductase inactivated by
241. Abetalipoproteinaemia (A) 15-
occurs due to a block in the Hydroxyprostaglandin
synthesis of dehydrogenase
(A) Apoprotein A (B) (B) Cyclo-oxygenase
Apoprotein B (C) Lipo-oxygenase
(C) Apoprotein C (D) (D) None of these
Cholesterol 247. Phenylbutazone and
242. All of the following indomethacin inhibit
statements about
Tangier disease are true (A) Phospholipase A1 (B)
except Phospholipase A2
(C) Cyclo-oxygenase (D) Lipo-
(A) It is a disorder of HDL
oxygenase
metabolism
248. Prostaglandins stimulate (A) Acetoacetate (B)

(A) Aggregation of platelets Acetone
(B) Lipolysis in adipose (C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None
tissue of these
(C) Bronchodilatation 254. Anti-inflammatory
(D) Gastric acid secretion corticosteroids inhibit
249. For extramitochondrial fatty (A) Phospholipase A1 (B)
acid synthesis,acetyl CoA Phospholipase A2
may be obtained from (C) Cyclo-oxygenase (D) Lipo-
(A) Citrate (B) oxygenase
Isocitrate 255. Cyclo-oxygenase is involved
(C) Oxaloacetate (D) in the synthesis of
Succinate (A) Prostaglandins (B)
250. Fluidity of membranes is Thromboxanes
increased by the following (C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None
constituent except (A) of these
Polyunsaturated fatty acids
256. Leukotrienes cause
(B) Saturated fatty acids
(A) Increase in capillary
(C) Integral proteins permeability
(D) Cholesterol (B) Aggregation of platelets
251. Transition temperature of (C) Bronchodilatation
membranesmay be affected (D) None of these
by the following constituent
of membranes: 257. Prostaglandins decrease all of
(A) Peripheral proteins (B)
Integral proteins (A) Gastric acid secretion
(C) Cholesterol (B) Blood pressure
Oligosachharides (C) Uterine contraction
(D) Platelet aggregation
252. Acetyl CoA formed from
pyruvate can be used for the 258. Hypocholesterolaemia can
synthesis of all the following occur in
except (A) Hyperthyroidism
(A) Glucose (B) Fatty (B) Nephrotic syndrome
acids (C) Obstructive jaundice
(C) Cholesterol (D) Steroid (D) Diabetes mellitus
hormones 259. De novo synthesis and
253. Which of the following can be oxidation of fattyacids differ
used as a source of energy in in the following respect:
extrahepatic tissues?
(A) Synthesis occurs in (D) It leads to mental

cytosol and oxidation retardation
inmitochondria
264. Hexosaminidase A is deficient
(B) Synthesis is decreased
in
and oxidationincreased
by insulin (A) Tay-Sachs disease
(C) NADH is required in (B) Gaucher’s disease
synthesis and FAD (C) Niemann-Pick disease
inoxidation (D) Fabry’s disease
(D) Malonyl CoA is formed
265. Mental retardation occurs in
during oxidation butnot
during synthesis (A) Tay-Sachs disease
(B) Gaucher’s disease
260. Free fatty acids released from
(C) Niemann-Pick disease
adipose tissue are
(D) All of these
transported in blood by
266. The enzyme deficient in
(A) Albumin (B) VLDL Fabry’s disease is
(C) LDL (D) HDL
(A) α-Galactosidase (B)
261. β-Galactosidase is deficient in β-Galactosidase
(C) α-Glucosidase (D) β-
(A) Fabry’s disease
Glucosidase
(B) Krabbe’s disease
(C) Gaucher’s disease 267. Highest protein content
amongst the following is
(D) Metachromatic
present in
leukodystrophy
(A) Wheat (B) Rice
262. The enzyme deficient in
(C) Pulses (D) Soyabean
metachromatic
leukodystrophy is 268. Daily protein requirement of
(A) Arylsulphatase A (B) an adult manis
Hexosaminidase A (A) 0.5 gm/kg of body
(C) Ceramidase weight
Sphingomyelinase (B) 0.8 gm/kg of body
weight(C) 1.0 gm/kg of
263. All of the following
body weight
statements about generalized
gangliosidosis are true except (D) 1.5 gm/kg of body weight
269. Daily protein requirement of
(A) It results from deficiency
an adult woman is
of GM1-βGangliosidase
(B) Breakdown of GM1 (A) 0.5 gm/kg of body
ganglioside is impaired weight
(B) 0.8 gm/kg of body
(C) GM2 ganglioside
weight(C) 1.0 gm/kg of
accumulates in liver and
body weight
elsewhere
(D) 1.5 gm/kg of body weight (A) Egg(B) Fish

(C) Milk (D) Pulses
270. Cysteine can partially meet
the requirement of 278. Which of the following has
(A) Phenylalanine (B) the highestcholesterol
Threonine content?
(C) Methionine (D) None of (A) Meat (B) Fish
these (C) Butter (D) Milk
271. Invisible fat is present in 279. Which of the following has
(A) Milk (B) Coconut the highestcholesterol
oil content?
(C) Groundnut oil (A) Egg yolk (B) Egg
Hydrogenated oils white
272. Visible fat is present in (C) Meat (D) Fish
(A) Milk (B) Pulses 280. The following contains the

(C) Coconut oil (D) Egg yolk least cholesterol:
(A) Milk (B) Meat
273. Fat content of eggs is about
(C) Butter (D) Cheese
(A) 7% (B) 10%
(C) 13% (D) 16% 281. Which of the following
constitutes fibre or roughage
274. Fat content of pulses is about in food?
(A) 5% (B) 10% (A) Cellulose (B) Pectin
(C) 15% (D) 20% (C) Inulin (D) All of these
275. Predominant fatty acids in 282. The starch content of wheat
meat are is about
(A) Saturated (A) 50% (B) 60%
(B) Monounsaturated (C) 70% (D) 80%
(C) Polyunsaturated
283. The starch content of pulses
(D) Mono and poly-
is about
unsaturated
276. Oils having more than 50 % (A) 50% (B) 60%
polyunsaturated fatty acids (C) 70% (D) 80%
include all of the following
284. A significant source of starch
except
among vegetables is
(A) Groundnut oil (B)
(A) Radish (B) Spinach
Soyabean oil
(C) Potato (D) Cauliflower
(C) Sunflower oil (D) Safflower
oil 285. The cyclic ring present in all
the steroids:
277. Cholesterol is present in all of
the following except (A) Cyclopentano
perhydrophenanthrene
(B) Nitropentano (C) Obstructive jaundice

(C) both (A) and (B) (D) Rotor’s syndrome
(D) None of these
290. In obstructive jaundice, urine
286. In Ames’ assay, addition of a
shows
carcinogento the culture
medium allows S. (A) Absence of bile
typhimurium to grow pigments and
urobilinogen
(A) In the presence of
histidine (B) Presence of bile
pigments and
(B) In the presence of
urobilinogen
arginine
(C) Absence of bile
(C) In the absence of
pigments and presence
histidine
ofurobilinogen
(D) In the absence of
(D) Presence of bile
arginine
pigments and absence
287. In Ames’ assay, liver ofurobilinogen
homogenate is included in
291. In haemolytic jaundice, urine
the culture medium because
shows
(A) It converts pro-
carcinogens into (A) Absence of bile
carcinogens pigments and
urobilinogen
(B) Liver can metabolise
histidine (B) Presence of bile
pigments and
(C) Salmonella mainly urobilinogen
infects liver
(C) Absence of bile
(D) Liver is very susceptible
pigments and presence
to cancer
ofurobilinogen
288. Bile pigments are present (D) Presence of bile
and urobilinogen absent in pigments and absence
urine in ofurobilinogen
(A) Haemolytic jaundice 292. Serum albumin may be
(B) Hepatocellular decreased in
jaundice(C) Obstructive (A) Haemolytic jaundice
jaundice (B) Hepatocellular jaundice
(D) Crigler-Najjar syndrome
(D) All of these
289. Bile pigments are absent and
293. Normal range of serum
urobilinogen increased in
albumin is
urine in
(A) 2.0–3.6 gm/dl (B)
(A) Haemolytic jaundice
2.0–3.6 mg/dl
(B) Hepatocellular jaundice
(C) 3.5–5.5 gm/dl (D) 3.5–5.5

300. All the following statements
mg/dl about obstructive jaundice
are true except
294. Normal range of serum
globulin is (A) Conjugated bilirubin in
serum is normal
(A) 2.0–3.6 mg/dl (B)
2.0–3.6 gm/dl (B) Total bilirubin in serum
is raised
(C) 3.5–5.5 mg/dl (D) 3.5–5.5
gm/dl (C) Bile salts are present in
urine
295. Serum albumin: globulin ratio (D) Serum alkaline
is altered in phosphatase is raised
(A) Gilbert’s disease (B) 301. All the following statements
Haemolytic jaundice about obstructive jaundice
(C) Viral hepatitis (D) Stones are true except
in bile duct (A) Prothrombin time may
296. Esterification of cholesterol be prolonged due
occurs mainly in toimpaired absorption
of vitamin K
(A) Adipose tissue (B)
(B) Serum alkaline
Liver
phosphatase may be
(C) Muscles (D) Kidneys raiseddue to increased
297. Galactose intolerance can release of the enzyme
occur in from liver cells
(A) Haemolytic jaundice (C) Bile salts may enter
systemic circulation
(B) Hepatocellular jaundice
dueto biliary obstruction
(D) There is no defect in
(D) None of these conjugation of bilirubin
298. Prothrombin is synthesised in 302. A test to evaluate detoxifying
(A) Erythrocytes function ofliver is
(B) Reticulo-endothelial (A) Serum albumin: globulin
cells ratio
(C) Liver (B) Galactose tolerance test
(D) Kidneys (C) Hippuric acid test
299. Prothrombin time remains (D) Prothrombin time
prolonged even after 303. Hippuric acid is formed from
parenterals administration of
vitamin K in (A) Benzoic acid and alanine
(B) Benzoic acid glycine
(C) Glucuronic acid and
(B) Liver damage
alanine
(C) Biliary obstruction
(D) Glucuronic acid and
(D) Steatorrhoea glycine
304. An enzyme which is excreted 309. Phenolsulphonephthalein

in urine is excretion test is an indicator
(A) Lactase dehydrogenase of
(B) Amylase (A) Glomerular filtration(B)
(C) Ornithine Tubular secretion
transcarbamoylase (C) Tubular reabsorption
(D) None of these (D) Renal blood low
305. Serum gamma glutamyl 310. Para-amino hippurate

transpeptidaseis raised in excretion test is an indicator
of
(B) Myocardial infarction (A) Glomerular filtration(B)
Tubular secretion
(C) Alcoholic hepatitis
(C) Tubular reabsorption
(D) Acute cholecystitis
(D) Renal plasma flow
306. Oliguria can occur in
311. Renal plasma flow of an
(A) Diabetes mellitus average adultman is
(B) Diabetes insipidus
(A) 120–130 ml/minute
(C) Acute
(B) 325–350 ml/minute
glomerulonephritis
(C) 480–52 ml/minute
(D) Chronic
glomerulonephritis (D) 560–830 ml/minute
307. Urea clearance is the 312. Filtration fraction can be

calculated from
(A) Amount of urea
excreted per minute (A) Standard urea clearance
and PSP excretion
(B) Amount of urea present
in 100 ml of urine (B) Maximum urea
clearance and PSP
(C) Volume of blood cleared
excretion
of urea in one minute
(C) Maximum urea
(D) Amount of urea filtered
clearance and
by glomeruli in
PAHclearance
oneminute
(D) Inulin clearance and PAH
308. Inulin clearance is a measure
clearance
of
(A) Glomerular filtration 313. Normal filtration fraction is
rate(B) Tubular about
secretion flow (A) 0.2 (B) 0.4
(C) Tubular reabsorption (C) 0.6 (D) 0.8
rate
314. Filtration fraction is increased
(D) Renal plasma flow in
(A) Acute
glomerulonephritis
(B) Chronic (A) Phospholipids (B)

glomerulonephritis Glycolipids
(C) Hypertension (C) Aminolipids (D) All of
(D) Hypotension these
315. Among the following, a test 321. Lecithin contains a

of Glomerular function is nitrogenous base named as
(A) Urea clearance (A) Ethanolamine (B)
(B) PSP excretion test Choline
(C) PAH clearance (C) Inositol (D) All of these
(D) Hippuric acid excretion 322. Lecithins contain an
test unsaturated fatty acid at
316. Esters of fatty acids with position:
higher alcohols other than
(A) α (B) α and β
glycerol are said to be
(C) β (D) None of these
(A) Waxes (B) Fats (C)
Both (A) and (B) (D) 323. Lecithins are soluble in
None of these ordinary solvents except
317. The combination of an amino (A) Benzene (B) Ethyl

alcohol, fatty acid and sialic alcohol
acid form (C) Methyl alcohol (D)
Acetone
(A) Phospholipids (B)
Sulpholipids 324. Lecithins combine with
(C) Glycolipids (D) Aminolipids protein to form
318. Hydrolysis of fats by alkali is (A)Phosphoprotein (B)

called Mucoprotein
(C) Lipoprotein (D)
(A) Saponification number
Glycoprotein
(B) Saponification
(C) Both (A) and (B) 325. Instead of ester link
plasmalogens possess an
(D) None of these
other link in position:
319. The number of milliliters of
(A) α (B) β
0.1 N KOH required to
neutralize the insoluble fatty (C) γ (D) None of these
acids from 5 gms of fat is 326. The alkyl radical in
called plasmalogen is an alcohol:
(A) Acid number (B) (A) Saturated (B)
Acetyl number Unsaturated
(C) Halogenation (D) Polenske (C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None
number of these
320. The rate of fatty acid
oxidation is increased by
327. The concentration of 334. Lipoprotein present in cell

sphingomyelins are increased membrane is by nature:
in (A) Hydrophilic (B)
(A) Gaucher’s disease(B) Hydrophobic
Fabry’s disease (C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None
(C) Fabrile disease of these
(D) Niemann-Pick disease 335. The density of lipoproteins
328. Sphingomyelins contain a increases as the protein
complex amino alcohol content
named as (A) Increases
(A) Serine (B) (B) Decreases
Lysolecithin (C) Highly decreases
(C) Sphingosine (D) Glycol (D) Slightly and promptly
329. The types of sphingomyelins decreases
are 336. Lipoprotiens may be
identified more accurately by
(A) 1 (B) 3
means of
(C) 4 (D) 5
(A) Electrophoresis
330. Glycolipids contain an amino (B) Ultra centrifugation
alcohol:
(C) Centrifugation
(A) Sphingosine (B) Iso- (D) Immunoelectrophoresis
sphingosine
(C) Both (A) and (B) 337.
(D) None Very low density lipoproteins
of these are alsoknown as
331. Cerebrosides may also be (A) β-lipoproteins (B)

classified as Pre β--lipoproteins
(A) Sphingolipids (B) (C) α-lipoproteins (D) None of
Sulpholipids these
(C) Aminolipids (D) Glycolipids
338. The protein moiety of
lipoprotein is knownas
332. Gaucher’s disease is
characterized specially by the (A)
Apoprotein (B) Pre-
increase in protein
(A) Lignoceric acid(B) (C) Post-protein (D)
Nervonic acid Pseudoprotein
(C) Cerebomic acid 339. The β-lipoprotein fraction
(D) Hydroxynervonic acid increases in severe
333. Gangliosides are the (A)
Diabetes Mellitus (B)
glycolipids occurring in Uremia
(A) Brain (B) Liver (C) Nephritis (D) Musc
(C) Kidney (D) Muscle dystrophy
340. ∆9 indicates a double bond 348. Lipose present in the

between carbon atoms of the stomach cannot hydrolyze
fatty acids: fats owing to
(A) 8 and 9 (B) 9 and 10 (A) Alkalinity (B) Acidity
(C) 9 and 11 (D) 9 and 12 (C) High acidity (D) Neutrality
341. The number of carbon atoms 349. Fatty acids are oxidized by
in decanoic acid present in
(A) α-oxidation (B) β
butter:
-oxidation
(A) 6 (B) 8 (C) ω -oxidation (D) All of
(C) 10 (D) 12 these
342. Arachidonic acid contains the 350. The fatty acids containing
number of double bonds: even number and odd
(A) 2 (B) 3 number of carbon atoms as
(C) 4 (D) 5 well as the unsaturated fatty
acids are oxidized by
343. The prostaglandins are
synthesized from (A) α-oxidation (B) β-
oxidation
(A) Arachidonic acid (B)
(C) ω-oxidation (D) All of these
Oleic acid
(C) Linoleic acid 351.
(D) Linolenic Long chain fatty acids are first
acid activated to acyl CoA in the
344. The Iodine number of (A) Cytosol (B)

essential fatty acids of Mitochodria
vegetable oils: (C) Ribosomes (D) Microsome
(A) High (B) Very 352. Long chain acyl CoA
high penetrates mitochondria in
(C) Very low (D) Low the presence of
345. Cholesterol is a (A) Palmitate (B)

Carnitine
(A) Animal sterol (B)
(C) Sorbitol (D) DNP
M.F. C27 H46O
(C) 5 methyl groups (D) All of353. Acyl-CoA dehydrogenase
these converts Acyl CoA to α-β
346. Waxes contain higher unsaturated acyl-CoA in
alcohols named as presence of the coenzyme:
(A) Methyl (B) Ethyl (A) NAD+ (B) NADP+
(C) Phytyl (D) Cetyl (C) ATP (D) FAD
347. Lieberman-Burchard reaction 354. For the activation of long

is performedto detect chain fatty acids the enzyme
thiokinase requires the
(A) Cholesterol (B) Glycerol
cofactor:
(C) Fatty acid (D) Vitamin D
(A) Mg++ (B) Ca++ 361. The desaturation and chain

(C) Mn++ (D) K+ elongation system of
polyunsaturated fatty acids
355. ω-oxidation takes place by are greatly diminished in the
the hydroxylase in absence of
microsomes involving (A) Insulin (B)
(A) Cytochrome b Glycagon (C)
(B)Cytochrome c Epinephrine (D)
(C) Cytochrome p- Thyroxine
4500(D)Cytochrome a3 362. Prostaglandins are liberated
356. Carboxylation of acetyl—CoA in the circulation by the
to malonyl stimulation of
— CoA takes place in
(A) Anterior pituitary glands
presence of
(B) Posterior pituitary
(A) FAD+ (B) Biotin glands
(C) NAD+ (D) NADP (C) Adrenal gland
357. Malonyl-CoA reacts with the (D) Thyroid gland
central 363. Prostaglandins have a
(A) —SH group (B) —NH2 common structure based on
group prostanoic acid which
(C) —COOH group(D) — contains carbon atoms:
CH2OH group (A) 12 (B) 16
358. Fatty acid synthesis takes (C) 18 (D) 20
place in the presence of the 364. The carbon chains of
coenzyme: prostanoic acid are bonded at
(A) NAD+ (B) Reduced the middle of the chain by a
NAD (A) 5-membered ring (B) 6-
(C) NADP+ (D) Reduced NADP membered ring
(C) 8-membered ring (D) None
359. Fatty acids are activated to
of these
acyl CoA by the enzyme
thiokinase: 365. All active prostaglandins have
(A) NAD +
(B) NADP + atleast onedouble bond
(C) CoA (D) FAD between positions:
(A) 7 and 8 (B) 9 and 10
360. Phospholipids help the
(C) 11 and 12 (D) 13 and 14
oxidation of
366. The enzyme systems for
(A) Glycerol (B) Fatty acids lengthening and shortening
(C) for saturating and
Glycerophosphates(D) desaturating of fatty acids
None of these occur in
(A) Intestine (B) Muscle
(C) Kidney (D) Liver (D) None of these
367. Which of the following are 372. Lipids have the following
classified as essential fatty properties:
acids? (A) Insoluble in water and
(A) Arachidonic acid (B) soluble in fat solvent
Oleic acid (B) High energy content
(C) Acetic acid (D) Butyric acid (C) Structural component of
cell membrane
368. Prostaglandins are
synthesized in the body from (D) All of these
(A) Myristic acid (B) 373. Carbohydrate moiety in

Arachidonic acid cerebrosides is
(C) Stearic acid (D) Lignoceric (A) Glucose (B) Sucrose
acid (C) Galactose (D) Maltose
369. All the following saturated 374. Which of the following is not
fatty acids are present in an unsaturated fatty acid?
buffer except (A) Oleic acid (B) Stearic
(A) Butyric acid (B) Capryllic acid
acid (C) Linaoleic acid (D) Palmitic
(C) Caproic acid (D) Capricacid
acid
375. All the following are
370. Biological functions of lipids functions of prostaglandins
include except
(A) Source of energy (A) Lowering of B.P
(B) Insulating material (B) Introduction of labour
(C) Maintenance of cellular (C) Anti inflammatory
integrity (D) Prevention of
(D) All of these myocardial infraction
371. Saponification number is 376. Calorific value of lipids per

gm is
(A) mg of KOH required to
saponify one gm offat or (A) 4 Kcal (B) 8 Kcal
oil (C) 9 Kcal (D) None of these
(B) mg of KOH required to 377. Fatty acid present in kerotin
neutralize free fattyacids is
of one gms of fat
(A)Lignoceric acid (B)
(C) mg of KOH required to
Cerebromic acid
neutralize the aceticacid
(C) Nervonic acid
obtained by
Hydroxynervonic acid
saponification of one gm
of fat after it has been 378. All the following are ketones
acetylated except
(A) Xylulose (B) Ribolose 385. Maximum energy produced

(C) Erythrose (D) Fructose by
379. Saponification: (A) Fats (B)

Carbohydrates
(A) Hydrolysis of fats by
(C) Proteins (D) Nucleic acids
alkali
(B) Hydrolysis of glycerol by 386. Lecithins are composed of
liposes (A) Glycerol + Fatty acids +
(C) Esterification Phosphoric acid +
(D) Reduction Choline
(B) Glycerol + Fatty acids +
380. Number of ml of 0.1 N KOH
Phosphoric acid +
required to neutralize fatty
Ethanolamine
acids from 5 gms of fat:
(C) Glycerol + Fatty acids +
(A) Iodine number Phosphoric acid + Serine
(B) Polenske number (D) Glycerol + Fatty acids +
(C) Reichert-Miessl number Phosphoric acid +
(D) None of these Beaine
381. Hydrated density of HD 387. Sphingomyelins are
lipoproteins is composed of fatty acids,
(A) 0.94 gm/ml phosphoric acid and
(B) 0.94–1.006 gm/ml (A) Sphingosine and choline
(C) 1.006–1.063 gm/ml (B) Glycerol and
(D) 1.063–1.21 gm/ml sphingosine
(C) Glycerol and Serine
382. Saponification number
(D) Glycerol and Choline
indicates
(A) Unsaturation in fat 388. Depot fats of mammalian
(B) Average M.W of fatty cells comprise mostly of
acid (A) Cholesterol (B)
(C) Acetyl number Cholesterol esters
(D) Acid number (C) Triacyl glycerol (D)
383. Acrolein Test is positive for Phospholipids
(A) Glycerol (B) 389. When choline of lecithine is

Prostaglandins replaced by ethanolamine
(C) Carbohydrates (D) the product is
Proteins (A) Sphingomyelin (B)
Cephalin
384. Iodine number denotes
(C) Plasmalogens (D)
(A) Degree of unsaturation Lysolecithine
(B) Saponification number
(C) Acid number
hydroxy fatty acid?
(D) Acetyl number
(A) Oleic acid (B) (A) Serine (B)

Ricinoleic acid Ethanolamine
(C) Caproic acid (D) Stearic (C) Betaine (D) Sphingosine
acid
397. The triacyl glycerol present in
391. Acrolein test is answered by plasma lipoproteins are
(A) Cholesterol (B) Glycerol hydrolyzed by
(C) Glycosides (D) Sphingol (A) Linqual lipase (B)
392. The smell of fat turned rancid Pancreatic lipase
is due to (C) Colipase (D) Lipoprotein
(A) Presence of vit E (B) lipase
Presence of quinones (C) 398. Amphiphatic lipids are
Phenols (D) Volatile fatty
(A) Hydrophilic (B)
acids
Hydrophobic
393. Phospholipids are important (C) Both (A) and (B) (D)
cell membrane components Lipophilic
because
399. Which of the following is not
(A) They have glycerol essential fatty acid?
(B) They can form bilayers
(A) Oleic acid (B) Linoleic
in water
acid
(C) They have both polar
(C) Arachidonic acid (D)
and non polar Linolenic acid
potions(D) They
400. The calorific value of lipid is
combine covalently with
proteins (A) 4.0 Kcal/gm (B) 6.0
Kcal/gm
394. Which one of the following is (C) 9.0 Kcal/gm (D) 15
not a phospholipid? Kcal/gm
(A) Lecithin (B)
401. Rancidity of butter is
Plasmalogen
prevented by the addition of
(C) Lysolecithin (D)
Gangliosides (A) Vitamin D (B)
Tocopherols
395. A fatty acid which is not (C) Presence of priotin(D)
synthesized inhuman body Presence of ‘Cu’
and has to be supplied in the 402. Sphingomyelins on hydrolysis
diet: yields
(A) Palmitic acid (B) (A) Glycerol, fatty acids,
Oleic acid phosphoric acid
(C) Linoleic acid (D) Stearic andcholine
acid (B) Glycerol, sphingosine,
396. In cephalin, choline is choline and fatty acids
replaced by
(C) Sphingosine, phosphoric 407. Acetoacetic acid and β-OH

acid, Glycerol butyric acid are formed as
andinositol
(A) Kidneys (B) Heart
(D) Sphingosine, fatty acids,
(C) Liver (D) Intestine
phosphoric acid
andcholine 408. Which amino acid is a
lipotropic factor?
403. Inherited deficiency of
enzyme cerebrosidase (A) Lysine (B) Leucine
produces (C) Tryptophan (D)
Methionine
(A) Fabry’s disease
(B) Niemann pick disease 409. The class of lipoproteins
(C) Gaucher’s disease having a beneficial effect in
(D) Tay-sach’s disease atherosclerosis is
(A) Low density of
404. Phosphatidic acid on
lipoproteins
hydrolysis yields
(B) very low density
(A) Glycerol, fatty acids, lipoproteins
phosphoric acid, (C) High density
choline(B) Glycerol, fatty lipoproteins
acids, phosphoric acid
(D) Chylomicrons
(C) Glycerol, fatty acids,
410. Cholesterol is the precursor
phosphoric acid,
for the biosynthesis of
Glucose
(D) Sphingol, fatty acids, (A) fatty acid (B)
phosphoric acid prostaglandins
(C) bile acids (D) sphingmyelin
405. The maximum number of
double bonds present in 411. Which of the following
essential fatty acid is condition is characterized by
ketonuria but without
(A) 1 (B) 2
glycosuria?
(C) 3 (D) 4
(A) Diabetes mellitus
406. Cerebrosides are composed (B) Diabetes insipidus
of
(C) Prolonged starvation
(A) Sphingosine, fatty acids, (D) Addison’s disease
glycerol andphosphoric
acid 412. Ketone bodies are formed in
(B) Sphingosine, fatty acids, (A) Kidney (B) Liver
galactose (C) Heart (D) Intestines
(C) Glycerol, fatty acids,
413. Changes in serum high
galactose
density lipoproteins
(D) Glycerol, fatty acids,
(HDL) are more truly reflected
galactose, sphingol
by those of
(A) HDL-1 (B) HDL-2 (B) mainly bound to β-

(C) HDL-3 (D) HDL lipoproteins
(C) stored in the fat
414. Mitochondrial lipogenesis
(D) mainly bound to serum
requires
albumin
(A) bicarbonate
(B) biotin 420. Adipose tissue which is a
store house for triacyl
(C) acetyl CoA
glycerol synthesis the same
carboxylase(D) NADPH
using
415. Fatty acids having chain (A) The glycerol released by
length of 10 carbon atoms hydrolysis of
enter the triacylglycerol
(A) Portal ciruclation (B) (B) The glycerol-3-
Lacteals phosphate obtained in
(C) Systemic circulation (D) themetabolism of
Colon glucose
416. A soluble system for (C) 2-phosphoglycerate
synthesis of fattyacids have (D) 3-phosphoglycerate
been isolated from avian 421. Increase in blood of this class
liver, required for the of lipoproteins is beneficial to
formation of long chain fatty ward off coronary heart
acids by this system is disease:
(A) ATP (B) Acetyl (A) HDL (B) LDL
CoA
(C) VLDL (D) IDL
(C) NADPH (D) All of these
422. In the extra mitochondrial
417. Most animal tissues contain synthesis offatty acids, CO 2 is
appreciable amounts of lipid, utilized
when in the form of depot fat
it consists largely of (A) To keep the system
anaerobic and
(A) Cholesterol ester (B) preventregeneration of
Phosphatides acetyl CoA
(C) Chylomicrons (D) (B) In the conversion of
Triacylglycerol malonyl to
418. A fatty acid not synthesized CoAhydroxybutyryl CoA
in man is (C) In the conversion of
(A) Oleic (B) Palmitic acetyl CoA to malonyl
CoA
(C) Linoleic (D) Stearic
(D) In the formation of
419. The ‘free fatty acids’ (FFA) of
acetyl CoA from 1
plasma:
carbonintermediates
(A) metabolically inert
423. Current concepts concerning (A) Water (B) NaCl

the intestinal absorption of (C) Fat (D) Proteins
triacylglycerols are that
428. The first lipoprotein to be
(A) They must be secreted by the liver is
completely hydrolysed
beforethe constituent (A) VLDL (B) nascent
fatty acids can be VLDL
absorbed (C) LDL (D) IDL
(B) They are hydrolysed 429. This lipoprotein removes
partially and the cholesterol from the body
materialabsorbed
(A) HDL (B) VLDL
consists of free fatty
acids, mono and diacyl (C) IDL (D) Chylomicrons
glycerols and unchanged 430. When the stired
triacyl triacylglycerol is lipolysedin
glycerols the adipose tissue blood
(C) Fatty acids with less levels of _____ increased.
than 10 carbon
(A) FFA only
atomsare absorbed
(B) Glycerol only
about equally via lymph
and (C) Free fatty acids (FFA)
via portal blood and Glycerol
(D) In the absence of bile (D) Triacyl glycero
the hydrolysis of 431. All long chain fatty acids with
triacylglycerols is even number of carbon
absorbed atoms are oxidized to a pool
424. Main metabolic end product of _________ by β-oxidation.
of cholesterol: (A) CO2 (B)
(A) Coprosterol (B) 5- Propionic acid
pregnenolone (C) Acetic acid (D) Acetyl CoA
(C) Bile acid (D) Glycine
432. The level of free fatty acids in
425. In the type II (a) hyper plasma is increased by
lipoproteinemiathere is
increase in (A) Insulin (B) Caffeine
(C) Glucose (D) Niacin
(A) Chylomicron bond (B) β
433. Cholesterol is excreted as
(C) Pre beta (D) α
such into ________.
426. Normal fat content of liver is (A) Urine (B) Faeces
about _______gms %.
(C) Bile (D) Tears
(A) 5 (B) 8 434. LCAT is
(C) 10 (D) 15
(A) Lactose choline alamine
427. Obesity is accumulation of transferse
_______ in the body.
(B) Lecithin cholesterol acyl (C) Phospholipase C (D)

transferase Phospholipase D
(C) Lecithin carnitine acyl
441. Fatty acids can not be
transferase
converted into carbohydrates
(D) Lanoleate carbamoyl in the body, as the following
acyl transferase reaction is not possible:
435. Cholesterol molecule has (A) Conversion of glucose-6-
_______ carbon atoms. phosphate intoglucose
(A) 27 (B) 21 (B) Fructose 1, 6
(C) 15 (D) 12 diphosphate to fructose-
6phosphate
436. A hydrocarbon formed in (C) Transformation of acetyl
cholesterol synthesis is CoA to pyruvate
(A) Mevalonate (B) HMG (D) Formation of acetyl CoA
CoA from fatty acids
(C) Squalene (D) Zymosterol
442. Cholesterol circulates in
blood stream chiefly as
437. While citrate is converted to
isocitrate in the (A) Free cholesterol
mitochondria, it is converted (B) Ester cholesterol
to _______ in the cytosol. (C) Low density lipoproteins
(A) Acetyl CoA + (D) Low density lipoproteins
oxaloacetate and high
(B) Acetyl CoA + malonyl densitylipoproteins
CoA
443. What is the sub cellular site
(C) Acetyl CoA + Pyruvate
for the βoxidation of fatty
(D) Acetyl CoA + acetoacetyl acids?
CoA
(A) Nucleus (B)
438. Avidin is antigonistic to Mitochondria
(A) Niacin (B) PABA (C) Lysosome (D) Cytosol
(C) Biotin (D) Pantothenic
444. acidA diet containing this fat is
439. CTP is required for the helpful inlowering the blood
synthesis of cholesterol level.
(A) Fatty acids (B) Proteins (A) Unsaturated(B)

Saturated
(C) Phospholipids (D)
Cholesterol (C) Vitamin enriched (D)
Refined
440. Lysolecithin is formed from
lecithin by the action of 445. Phospholipase A2 is an
enzyme which removes a
(A) Phospholipase A1 (B) fatty acid residue from
Phospholipase A2 lecithin to form
(A) Lecithin fragments acyl CoA

(B) Phosphotidic acid dehydrogenase,
(C) Glyceryl phosphate thiolose,
(D) Lysolecithin 449. Acyl carrier protein is
involved in the synthesis of
446. Pancreatic lipose is an
(A) protein
enzyme which hydrolyzes
facts. It acts as a/an (B) glycogen
(C) fatty acid outside the
(A) peptidase (B)
mitochondria
hydrolase
(D) fatty acid in the
(C) carbohydrates (D)
mitochondria
dehydrogenase
450. 1 molecule of palmitic acid
447. This interferes with
on total oxidation to CO2 will
cholesterol absorption
yield molecules of ATP (as
(A) Lipoprotein lipase high energy bonds):
(B) Creatinase (A) 129 (B) 154
(C) 7-dehydrocholesterol (C) 83 (D) 25
(D) β-sitosterol
451. HMG CoA is formed in the
448. The carbon chain of fatty metabolism of
acids is shortened by 2 (A) Cholesterol, ketones and
carbon atoms at a time. This leucine
involves successive reactions
(B) Cholesterol, fatty acid
catalysed by 4-enzymes.
and Leucine
These act the following
order: (C) Lysine, Lecuine and
Isoleucine
(A) Acetyl CoA (D) Ketones, Leucine and
dehydrogenase, β-OH Lysine
acyl CoA
dehydrogenase, enoyl 452. NADPH is produced when
hydrase, thiolose this enzyme acts
(B) Acyl CoA (A) Pyruvate
dehydrogenase, dehydrogenase(B) Malic
thiolase, enoylhydrase, enzyme
β-OH acyl CoA (C) Succinate
dehydrogenase dehydrogenase
(C) Acyl CoA (D) Malate dehydrogenase
dehydrogenase,
453. As a result of each oxidation
thiolose, enoylhydrase,
a long chainfatty acid is
β-OH acyl CoA
cleaved to give
dehydrogenase
(A) An acid with 3-carbon
(D) Enoyl hydrase, β-OH acyl
less and propionyl
CoA dehydrogenase,
CoA(B) An acid with 2-
carbon less and acetyl (B) Extra mitochondrial

CoA (C) An acid with 2- denovo fatty
carbon less and acetyl acidsynthesis
CoA (C) Ketone bodies formation
(D) An acid with 4-carbon and (D) Glycogenesis
butyryl CoA
460. The ‘Committed step’ in the
454. Liposomes are biosynthesis of cholesterol
(A) Lipid bilayered (B) from acetyl CoA is
Water in the middle (A) Formation of
(C) Carriers of drugs (D) All of acetoacetyl CoA from
these acetyl CoA
455. Long chain fatty acyl CoA
(B) Formation of
esters are transported across
mevalonate from HMG
the mitochondrial membrane
CoA
by
(C) Formation of HMG CoA
(A) cAMP (B) from acetyl CoA
Prostaglandin andacetoacetyl CoA
(C) Carnitine (D) Choline (D) Formation of squalene
by squalene synthetase
456. The acetyl CoA formed on β-
oxidation of all long chain 461. In β-Oxidation of fatty acids,
fatty acids is metabolized which of the following are
under normal circumstances utilized as coenzymes?
to
(A) NAD+ and NADP+
(A) CO2 and water (B)
(B) FADH2 and NADH + H+
Cholesterol
(C) FAD and FMN
(C) Fatty acids (D) Ketone
(D) FAD and NAD+
bodies
457. Very low density lipoproteins 462. The most important source of
are relativelyrich in reducing equivalents for FA
(A) Cholesterol (B) Triacyl synthesis on the liver is
glycerol (A) Glycolysis
(C) Free fatty acids (D) (B) HMP-Shunt
Phospholipids (C) TCA cycle
458. Neutral fat is stored in (D) Uronic acid pathway
(A) Liver (B) 463. All of the following tissue are
Pancreas (C) Adipose capable of using ketone
tissue (D) Brain bodies except
459. A pathway that requires (A) Brain (B) Renal
NADPH as acofactor is cortex
(A) Fatty acid oxidation (C) R.B.C. (D) Cardiac muscle
464. The major source of 469. All statements regarding 3-

cholesterol in arterialsmooth OH-3 methyl glutaryl CoA are
muscle cells is from true except
(A) IDL (B) LDL (A) It is formed in the
(C) HDL (D) Chylomicrons cytoplasm
465. Ketone bodies are (B) Required in ketogenesis
synthesized from fatty acid (C) Involved in synthesis of
oxidation products by which Fatty acid
of the following organs? (D) An intermediate in
(A) Liver (B) Skeletal cholesterol biosynthesis
muscles 470. Which of the following
(C) Kidney (D) Brain lipoproteins would
466. Chain elongation of fatty contribute to a measurement
acids occurring in mammalian of plasma cholesterol in a
liver takes place in which of normal individual following a
the following subcellular 12 hr fast?
fractions of the cell? (A) Chylomicrons
(A) Nucleus (B) (B) VLDL
Ribosomes (C) Both VLDL and LDL
(C) Lysosomes (D) Microsomes (D) LDL
467. Which of the following 471. All the following statements

cofactors or their derivatives regarding ketone bodies are
must be present for the true except
conversion of acetyl CoA to (A) They may result from
malonyl CoA starvation(B) They are
extramitochondrial fatty acid formed in kidneys
synthesis? (C) They include acetoacetic
(A) Biotin (B) FAD acid and acetone
(C) FMN (D) ACP (D) They may be excreted in
urine
468. Which of the following
472. In synthesis of Triglyceride
statement regarding β-
oxidation is true? from α-Glycero phosphate
and acetyl CoA, the first
(A) Requires β-ketoacyl CoA intermediate formed is
as a substrate
(B) Forms CoA thioesters (A) β-diacyl glycerol (B)
Acyl carnitine
(C) Requires GTP for its
activity (C) Monoacyl glycerol(D)
Phosphatidic acid
(D) Yields acetyl CoA as a
product 473. During each cycle of β-
oxidation of fatty acid, all the
following compounds are 478. The free fatty acids in blood

generated except are
(A) NADH (B) H2O (A) Stored in fat depots
(C) FAD (D) Acyl CoA (B) Mainly bound to β-
lipoproteins
474. The energy yield from
complete oxidationof (C) Mainly bound to serum
products generated by albumin
second reaction cycle of β- (D) Metabolically most
oxidation of palmitoyl CoA inactive
will be 479. Carnitine is synthesized from
(A) 5 ATP (B) 12 ATP (A) Lysine (B) Serine
(C) 17 ATP (D) 34 ATP (C) Choline (D) Arginine
475. β-Oxidation of odd-carbon 480. A metabolite which is
fatty acid chain produces common to pathways of
cholesterol biosynthesis from
(A) Succinyl CoA (B) acetyl-CoA and
Propionyl CoA cholecalciferol formation
(C) Acetyl CoA (D) Malonyl from cholesterol is
CoA
(A) Zymosterol(B)
476. Brown adipose tissue is Lumisterol
characterized by which of the (C) Ergosterol
following? (D) 7 Dehydrocholesterol
(A) Present in large
481. Acetyl CoA required for extra
quantities in adult
mitochondrialfatty acid
humans
synthesis is produced by
(B) Mitochondrial content
higher than (A) Pyruvate dehydrogenase
whiteadipose tissue complex
(C) Oxidation and (B) Citrate lyase
phosphorylation are (C) Thiolase
tightlycoupled (D) Carnitine-acyl
(D) Absent in hibernating transferase
animals 482. Biosynthesis of Triglyceride
477. Ketosis in partly ascribed to and Lecithine both require an
intermediate:
(A) Over production and
Glucose (A) Monoacyl glycerol
(B) Under production of phosphate(B)
Glucose Phosphatidic acid
(C) Increased carbohydrate (C) Phosphatidyl ethanol
utilization amine
(D) Increased fat utilization (D) Phosphatidyl cytidylate
483. The rage limiting step (D) Chylomicron, IDL, VLDL,

cholesterol biosynthesis is LDL
(A) Squalene synthetase(B) 488. A compound normally used
Mevalonate kinase to conjugatebile acids is
(C) HMG CoA synthetase (A) Serine (B) Glycine (C)
(D) HMG CoA reductase Glucoronic acid (D) Fatty
484. All the following are acid
constituents of ganglioside 489. Which of the following
molecule except lipoproteins would
(A) Glycerol (B) Sialic contribute to a measurement
acid of plasma cholesterol in a
(C) Hexose sugar (D) normal person following a 12
Sphingosine hr fast?
(A) High density
485. An alcoholic amine residue is
lipoprotiens
present inwhich of the
following lipids? (B) Low density lipoproteins
(C) Chylomicron
(A) Phosphatidic acid (B)
(D) Chylomicron remnants
Cholesterol
(C) Sphingomyelin (D) 490. Which of the following
Ganglioside products of triacylglycerol
breakdown and subsequent
486. Sphingosine is the backbone
β-Oxidation may undergo
of all the following except
gluconeogenesis?
(A) Cerebroside (B)
(A) Acetyl CoA (B)
Ceramide
Porpionyl CoA
(C) Sphingomyelin (D)
(C) All ketone bodies (D) Some
Lecithine
amino acids
487. Chylomicron, intermediate
491. Which of the following
density lipoproteins (IDL),
regulates lipolysis in
low density lipoproteins (LDL)
adipocytes?
and very low density
lipoproteins (VLDL) all are (A) Activation of fatty acid
serum lipoproteins. What is synthesis mediated by
CAMP
the correct ordering of these
particles from the lowest to (B) Glycerol
the greatest density? phosphorylation to
prevent
(A) LDL, IDL, VLDL, futileesterification of
Chylomicron fatty acids
(B) Chylomicron, VLDL, IDL, (C) Activation of triglyceride
LDL(C) VLDL, IDL, LDL, lipase as a result
Chylomicron
ofhormone stimulated (C) They include—OH β-

increases in CAMP levels butyrate and acetone
(D) They are utilized by the
(D) Activation of CAMP liver during long
production by Insulin termstarvation
492. Which one of the following 496. Which of the following
compounds is a key features is predicted by the
intermediate in the synthesis Nicolson–Singer fluid mosaic
of both triacyl glycerols and model of biological
phospholipids? membranes?
(A) CDP Choline (B) (A) Membrane lipids do not
Phosphatidase diffuse laterally
(C) Triacyl glyceride (B) Membrane lipid is
Phosphatidyl serine primarily in a
monolayerform
493. During each cycle of on going
fatty acid oxidation, all the (C) Membrane lipids freely
following compounds are flip-flop
generated except (D) Membrane proteins may
diffuse laterally
(A) H2O (B) Acetyl
CoA 497. Oxidative degradation of
(C) Fatty acyl CoA (D) NADH acetyl CoA in the citric acid
494. All the following statements cycle gives a net yield of all
describing lipids are true the following except
except (A) FADH2 (B) 3 NADH
(A) They usually associate (C) 2 ATP (D) 2CO
by covalent interactions
498. All the following correctly
describe theintermediate 3-
(B) They are structurally
OH-3-methyl glutaryl CoA
components
except
ofmembranes
(A) It is generated
(C) They are an intracellular
enzymatically in
energy source
themitochondrial matrix
(D) They are poorly soluble
(B) It is formed in the
in H2O
cytoplasm
495. All the following statements (C) It inhibits the first step
correctly describe ketone in cholesterol synthesis
bodies except (D) It is involved in the
(A) They may result from synthesis of ketone
starvation bodies
(B) They are present at high 499. Intermediate in the denovo
levels in synthesis of triacyl glycerols
uncontrolleddiabetes
include all the following 505. Hypoglycemia depresses

except insulin secretion and thus
(A) Fatty acyl CoA increases the rate of
(B) CDP diacyl glycerol (A) Hydrolysis (B)
(C) Glycerol-3-phosphate Reduction
(D) Lysophosphatidic acid (C) Gluconeogenesis (D)
Respiratory acidosis
500. Mitochondrial α-
ketoglutarate dehydrogenase 506. The process of breakdown of
complex requires all the glycogen to glucose in the
following to function except liver and pyruvate and lacate
(A) CoA (B) FAD in the muscle is known as
(C) NAD+ (D) NADP (A) Glyogenesis (B)
Glycogenolysis
501. Each of the following can be
(C) Gluconeogenesis (D)
an intermediate in the
Cellular degradation
synthesis of phosphatidyl
choline except 507. Across a membrane
(A) Phosphatidyl inositol phospholipids act as carrier
of
(B) CDP-choline
(C) Phosphatidyl (A) Organic compounds
ethanolamine (B) Inorganic ions
(D) Diacylglycerol (C) Nucleic acids
(D) Food materials
502. High iodine value of a lipid
indicates 508. Osteomalacia can be
(A) Polymerization (B) prevented by the
Carboxyl groups administration of calcium and
a vitamin:
(C) Hydroxyl groups (D)
Unsaturation (A) A (B) B
(C) C (D) D
503. Cholesterol, bile salts,
509. Milk sugar is known as
vitamin D and sex hormones
are (A) Fructose (B) Glucose
(A) Mucolipids (B) (C) Sucrose (D) Lactose
Glycolipids 510. The Instrinisic Factor (HCl and
(C) Phospholipids mucoproteins) present in the
Isoprenoid lipids gastric juice help in the
absorption of
504. Water soluble molecular
aggregates of lipids are (A) Vitamin B2 (B)
known as Tocopherols
(A) Micelle (B) Colloids (C) Folic acid (D) Vitmain B12
(C) Sphingol (D) Mucin 511. Lipase can act only at pH:
(A) 2.5–4 (B) 3.5–5 518. The essential fatty acids

(C) 4 to 5 (D) 5–7 retard
512. Bile is produced by (A) Atherosclerosis (B)

Diabetes mellitus
(A) Liver (B) Gall-
(C) Nepritis (D) Oedema
bladder
519. The majority of absorbed fat
(C) Pancreas (D) Intestine
appears in the forms of
513. Non-protein part of (A) HDL (B)
rhodopsin is Chylomicrone
(A) Retinal (B) Retinol (C) VLDL (D) LDL
(C) Carotene (D) Repsin
520. Daily output of urea in grams
514. A pathway that requires is
NADPH as a cofactor is (A) 10 to 20 (B) 15 to 25
(A) Extramitochondrial folic (C) 20 to 30 (D) 35 to 45
acid synthesis
521. Uremia occurs in
(B) Ketone body formation
(C) Glycogenesis (A) Cirrohsis of liver (B)
Nephritis
(D) Gluconeogenesis
(C) Diabetes mellitus (D)
515. LCAT activity is associated Coronary thrombosis
with which ofthe lipo-protein
complex? 522. Carboxyhemoglobin is
formed by
(A) VLDL (B)
Chylomicrones (C) IDL (A) CO (B) CO2
(D) HDL (C) HCO3 (D) HCN
516. In β−oxidation of fatty acids 523. Methemoglobin is formed as

which of the following are a result of the oxidation of
utilized as co-enzymes? haemoglobin by oxidation
(A) NAD+ and NADP+ agent:
(B) FAD H2 and NADH + H+ (A) Oxygen of Air (B)
(C) FAD and FMN H2O2
(D) FAD and NAD+ (C) K4Fe(CN)6 (D) KMnO4
517. The lipoprotein with the 524. Methemoglobin can be

fastest electrophoretic reduced to haemoglobin by
mobility and lowest TG (A) Removal of hydrogen
content are (B) Vitamin C
(A) VLDL (B) LDL (C) (C) Glutathione
HDL (D) (D) Creatinine
Chylomicrones
525. Fats are solids at
(A) 10°C (B) 20°C
(C) 30°C (D) 40°C 532. In hemolytic jaundice, the

urinary bilirubin is
526. Esters of fatty acids with
higher alcohol other than (A) Normal
glycerol are called as (B) Absent
(A) Oils (B) (C) More than normal
Polyesters (D) Small amount is present
(C) Waxes (D) Terpenoids
533. In obstructive jaundice,
527. The main physiological buffer urinary bilirubinis
in the blood is (A) Absent
(A) Haemoglobin buffer (B) Increased
(B) Acetate (C) Present
(C) Phosphate (D) Present in small amount
(D) Bicarbonate 534. In hemolytic jaundice,
528. All of the following bilirubin in urine is
substances have been used (A) Usually absent
to estimate GFR except (B) Usually present
(A) Inulin (B) (C) Increased very much
Creatinine (D) Very low
(C) Phenol red (D) Mannitol
535. The pH of gastric juice of
529. Relationship between GFR infants is
and seum creatinine
concentration is (A) 2.0 (B) 4.0
(C) 4.5 (D) 5.0
(A) Non-existent (B)
Inverse 536. The pH of blood is about 7.4
(C) Direct (D) Indirect when the ratio between
(NaHCO3) and (H2CO3) is
530. Urine turbidity may be
caused by any of the (A) 10 : 1 (B) 20 : 1
following except (C) 25 : 1 (D) 30 : 1
(A) Phosphates (B) Protein 537. The absorption of glucose is
(C) RBC (D) WBC decreased bythe deficiency of
531. Urine specific gravity of 1.054 (A) Vitamin A (B) Vitamin
indicates D
(C) Thiamine (D) Vitamin B12
(A) Excellent renal function
538. For the activity of amylase
(B) Inappropriate secretion
which of the following is
of ADH
required as co-factor?
(C) Extreme dehydration
(A) HCO3 (B) Na+
(D) Presence of glucose or
protein (C) K+ (D) Cl
539. Which of the following (A) Lecithin (B)

hormone increases the Plasmalogen
absorption of glucose from (C) Lysolecithin (D)
G.I.T? Gangliosides
(A) Insulin (B) Throid 546. A fatty acid which is not
hormones synthesized inhuman body
(C) Glucagon (D) FSH and has to be supplied in the
540. Predominant form of storage: diet is
(A) Carbohydrates (B) (A) Palmitic acid (B)

Fats Oleic acid
(C) Lipids (D) Both (B) and (C) (C) Linoleic acid (D) Stearic
acid
541. Degradations of Hb takes
place in 547. Phospholipids occur in
(A) Mitochondrion (B) (A) Myelin sheath

Erythrocytes (B) Stabilizes chylomicrans
(C) Cytosol of cell (D) R.E. cells (C) Erythrocyte membrane
(D) All of these
542. Biluveridin is converted to
bilirubin by the process of 548. Which of the following is not
essential fatty acids?
(A) Oxidation (B)
Reduction (A) Oleic acid (B) Linoleic
acid
(C) Conjugation
Decarboxylation (C) Arachidonic acid (D)
Linolenic acid
543. Amylase present in saliva is
549. The caloric value of lipids is
(A) α-Amylase (B) β-
Amylae (A) 6.0 Kcal/g (B) 9.0
Kcal/g
(C) γ -Amylase (D) All of
(C) 15.0 Kcal/g (D) 12.0
these
Kcal/g
544. Phospholipids are important
550. The maximum number of
cell membrane components
double bonds present in
since
essential fatty acid is
(A) They have glycerol
(A) 2 (B) 3
(B) Form bilayers in water
(C) 4 (D) 5
(C) Have polar and non-
polar portions 551. Prostaglandin synfhesis is
(D) Combine covalently with increased by activating
proteins phospholipases by
545. Which of the following is not (A) Mepacrine (B)

a phospholipids? Angiotensin II
(C) Glucocorticoids (D)
Indomenthacin
552. Selwanof’s test is positive in

(C) Galactose (D) Mannose
553. Spermatozoa in seminal fluid
utilises the following sugar
for metabolism:
(A) Galactose (B) Glucose
(C) Sucrose (D) Fructose
554. Depot fats of mammalian
cells comprise mostly of
(A) Cholesterol (B)
Phospholipid
(C) Cerebrosides (D)
Triglycerol
555. When choline of lecithin is
replaced by ethanolamine,
the product is
(A) Spingomyelin (B)
Cephalin
(C) Plasmalogens (D)
Lysolecithin

hydroxyl fatty acid?
(A) Oleic Acid (B)
Ricinoleic acid
(C) Caproic acid
Arachidonic acid
557. Acroleic test is given by

(A) Cholesterol (B) Glycerol
(C) Glycosides (D) Sphingol
ANSWERS
1. A 2. A 3. C 4. C 5. D 6. A
7. C 8. D 9. D 10. B 11. D 12. A
13. B 14. A 15. D 16. B 17. B 18. D
19. C 20. D 21. C 22. A 23. D 24. C
25. A 26. A 27. C 28. B 29. B 30. D
31. A 32. A 33. C 34. A 35. A 36. C
37. D 38. A 39. B 40. C 41. D 42. A
43. B 44. C 45. D 46. A 47. D 48. B
49. C 50. C 51. A 52. B 53. D 54. B
55. C 56. D 57. A 58. B 59. D 60. C
61. A 62. A 63. A 64. D 65. B 66. A
67. A 68. B 69. A 70. A 71. A 72. B
73. A 74. D 75. B 76. A 77. B 78. A
79. B 80. C 81. C 82. A 83. A 84. A 85. B 86. B 87. A 88. B 89. D 90. C
91. D 92. B 93. A 94. D 95. B 96. A 97. B 98. D 99. A 100. A 101. C 102. B 103. A 104. B 105. C 106. C 107. B
108. A
109. B 110. C 111. D 112. A 113. A 114. A 115. D 116. A 117. A 118. D 119. C 120. D
121. D 122. A 123. A 124. D 125. B 126. A
127. B 128. A 129. B 130. C 131. B 132. C 133. C 134. B 135. D 136. A 137. C 138. C
139. C 140. B 141. B 142. B 143. C 144. D
145. B 146. D 147. C 148. B 149. A 150. A
151. A 152. A 153. C 154. B 155. D 156. D 157. D 158. D 159. D 160. C 161. B 162. B
163. D 164. C 165. D 166. B 167. D 168. B
169. C 170. A 171. D 172. C 173. A 174. B
175. B 176. C 177. D 178. B 179. B 180. C 181. C 182. B 183. C 184. D 185. D 186. D
187. C 188. B 189. D 190. B 191. C 192. D 193. C 194. C 195. A 196. D 197. B 198. D
199. A 200. C 201. A 202. D 203. C 204. B
205. D 206. A 207. D 208. A 209. C 210. C
211. B 212. A 213. C 214. D 215. D 216. C 217. C 218. D 219. A 220. C 221. D 222. C
223. D 224. D 225. B 226. D 227. D 228. A 229. D 230. B 231. A 232. A 233. D 234. B
235. C 236. C 237. D 238. C 239. B 240. D 241. B 242. D 243. A 244. C 245. C 246. A
247. C 248. C 249. A 250. A 251. C 252. A 253. A 254. B 255. C 256. A 257. C 258. A 259. A 260. A 261. B 262.
A 263. C 264. A 265. D 266. A 267. D 268. C 269. C 270. C 271. A 272. C 273. C 274. A 275. A 276. A
277. D 278. C 279. A 280. A 281. D 282. C
283. B 284. C 285. A 286. C 287. A 288. C 289. A 290. D 291. C 292. B 293. C 294. B
295. C 296. B 297. B 298. C 299. B 300. A
301. B 302. C 303. B 304. C 305. C 306. A 307. A 308. B 309. D 310. D 311. D 312. A 313. C 314. A 315. D 316.
A 317. C 318. B
319. D 320. A 321. B 322. C 323. D 324. C
325. B 326. A 327. B 328. C 329. B 330. C
331. A 332. C 333. A 334. A 335. A 336. D
337. B 338. A 339. A 340. B 341. C 342. C 343. A 344. D 345. D 346. D 347. A 348. C 349. D 350. B 351. A 352.
B 353. D 354. B
355. C 356. C 357. A 358. D 359. C 360. B 361. A 362. C 363. D 364. B 365. A 366. D
367. A 368. D 369. C 370. D 371. C 372. D
373. B 374. B 375. D 376. C 377. A 378. C 379. A 380. B 381. D 382. B 383. A 384. A
385. A 386. A 387. A 388. C 389. B 390. B
391. B 392. D 393. C 394. D 395. C 396. B 397. D 398. C 399. A 400. C 401. B 402. D 403. C 404. B 405. D 406.
B 407. C 408. D 409. C 410. C 411. C 412. B 413. B 414. D
415. A 416. D 417. D 418. C 419. D 420. B 421. A 422. C 423. B 424. C 425. B 426. A 427. C 428. B 429. A 430.
C 431. D 432. B 433. C 434. B 435. A 436. C 437. A 438. C 439. C 440. B 441. C 442. D 443. B 444. A 445. D
446. B 447. D 448. B 449. C 450. A
451. A 452. B 453. B 454. D 455. C 456. A
457. B 458. C 459. B 460. B 461. D 462. B
463. C 464. B 465. A 466. D 467. A 468. A
469. B 470. D 471. B 472. D 473. B 474. D
475. D 476. B 477. D 478. C 479. A 480. D 481. B 482. B 483. D 484. A 485. C 486. D
487. B 488. B 489. A 490. B 491. C 492. B 493. A 494. A 495. D 496. D 497. C 498. C 499. B 500. D
501. A 502. D 503. D 504. A 505. C 506. B 507. B 508. D 509. D 510. D 511. D
512. A 513. A 514. A 515. D 516. D 517. C 518. A 519. B 520. C 521. B 522. A
523. C 524. B 525. B 526. C 527. D 528. C
529. B 530. B 531. D 532. C 533. B 534. A 535. D 536. B 537. C 538. D 539. B 540. D
541. D 542. B 543. A 544. C 545. D 546. C 547. D 548. A 549. B 550. C 551. B 552. B
553. D 554. D 555. B 556. B 557. B
EXPLANATIONS FOR THE ANSWERS 285. A Cyclopentanoperhydrophenanthrene (CPPP), it
5. D The fatty acids that cannot be synthesized by the consists of a phenanthrene nucleus to which
body and therefore should be supplied a cyclopentene ring is attached.
through the diet are referred to as essential 345. D Cholesterol is an animal sterol with a molecular
fatty acids (EFA). Linoleic acid and linolenic H
formula C27 46O. it has one hydroxyl group at
acid are essential. Some workers regard C3 and a double bond between C5 and C6. An
arachidonic acid as an EFA although it can be 8 carbon aliphatic side chain is attached to
synthesized from linoleic acid. C17, Cholesterol contains of total 5 methyl
61. A Phrynoderma (toad skin) is an essential fatty acid groups.
deficiency disorder. It is characterized by the 398. C The lipids which possess both hydrophobic and
presence of horny eruptions on the posterior hydrophilic groups are known as amphipathic
and the lateral parts of the limbs, on the back lipids (Greek: amphi- both; pathos- passion).
and buttocks.
454. D Liposomes have an intermittent aqueous phase
120. D The hydrolysis of triacylglycerols by alkali to in lipid bilayer. They are produced when
produce glycerol and soaps is known as amphipathic lipids in aqueous medium are
saponification. subjected to sonification. Liposomes are used
173. A Reichert-Meissl number is defined as the number as carriers of drugs to target tissues.
of moles of 0.1 N KOH required to completely 540. D Fats (triacyglycerols) are the most predominant
neutralize the soluble volatile fatty acids storage form of energy, since they are highly
distilled from 5g fat. concentrated form of energy (9 Cal/g) and
231. A Sphingomyelins (sphingophospholipids) are a can be stored in an anhydrous form (no
group of phospholipids containing association with water).
sphingosine as the alcohol (in place of
glycerol in other phospholipids).
1. Vitamins are 6. Retinol and retinal are
(A) Accessory food factors interconvertedrequiring dehydrogenase or
reductase in the presence of
(B) Generally synthesized in the body
(C) Produced in endocrine glands (A) NAD or NADP (B) NADH + H+
(D) Proteins in nature (C) NADPH (D) FAD
2. Vitamin A or retinal is a 7. Fat soluble vitamins are

(A) Steroid (A) Soluble in alcohol
(B) Polyisoprenoid compound containing (B) one or more Propene units
acyclohexenyl ring (C) Stored in liver
(C) Benzoquinone derivative (D) All these
(D) 6-Hydroxychromane
8. The international unit of vitamin A
3. β-Carotene, precursor of vitamin A, is oxidatively isequivalent to the activity caused by
cleaved by (A) 0.3 µg of Vitamin A alcohol
(A) β-Carotene dioxygenase (B) 0.344 µg of Vitamin A alcohol
(B) Oxygenase (C) 0.6 µg of Vitamin A alcohol
(C) Hydroxylase (D) 1.0 µg of Vitamin A alcohol
(D) Transferase 9. Lumirhodopsin is stable only at temperature
below
4. Retinal is reduced to retinol in intestinalmucosa
by a specific retinaldehyde reductase utilising (A) –10°C (B) –20°C
VITAMINS 111
(A) NADPH + H+ (B) FAD (C) –40°C (D) –50°C

(C) NAD (D) NADH + H+ 10. Retinol is transported in blood bound to
5. Preformed Vitamin A is supplied by (A) Aporetinol binding protein
(A) Milk, fat and liver (B) α2-Globulin
(B) All yellow vegetables (C) β-Globulin
(C) All yellow fruits (D) Albumin
(D) Leafy green vegetables 11. The normal serum concentration ofvitamin A
CHAPTER 5 in mg/100 ml is
(A) 5–10 (B) 15–60
(C) 100–150 (D) 0–5
12. One manifestation of vitamin A deficiencyis

(A) Painful joints
(B) Night blindness

(C) Loss of hair
(D) Thickening of long bones
VITAMINS 13. Deficiency of Vitamin A causes
VITAMINS 113
(A) Xeropthalmia 23. The normal serum concentration of

(B) Hypoprothrombinemia 1,25dihydroxycholecalciferol in pg/ml is
(C) Megaloblastic anemia (A) 26–65 (B) 1–5
(D) Pernicious anemia (C) 5–20 (D) 80–100
14. An important function of vitamin A is 24. The normal serum concentration of
(A) To act as coenzyme for a few enzymes 24,25dihydroxycholecalciferol in ng/ml is
(B) To play an integral role in protein synthesis
(C) To prevent hemorrhages (A) 8–20 (B) 25–50
(D) To maintain the integrity of epithelial tissue (C) 1–5 (D) 60–100
15. Retinal is a component of 25. A poor source of Vitamin D is
(A) Iodopsin (B) Rhodopsin (A) Egg (B) Butter

(C) Cardiolipin (D) Glycoproteins (C) Milk (D) Liver
16. Retinoic acid participates in the synthesisof 26. Richest source of Vitamin D is
(A) Iodopsin (B) Rhodopsin (A) Fish liver oils(B) Margarine

(C) Glycoprotein (D) Cardiolipin (C) Egg yolk (D) Butter
27. Deficiency of vitamin D causes
17. On exposure to light rhodopsin forms
(A) Ricket and osteomalacia
(A) All trans-retinal (B) Cis-retinal
(B) Tuberculosis of bone
(C) Retinol (D) Retinoic acid
(C) Hypthyroidism
18. Carr-Price reaction is used to detect (D) Skin cancer
(A) Vitamin A (B) Vitamin D
28. One international unit (I.U) of vitamin Dis
(C) Ascorbic acid (D) Vitamin E defined as the biological activity of
19. The structure shown below is of (A) 0.025 µg of cholecalciferol
(A) Cholecalciferol (B) 0.025 µg of 7-dehydrocholecalciferol
(B) 25-Hydroxycholecalciferol (C) 0.025 µg of ergosterol
(C) Ergocalciferol (D) 0.025 µg of ergocalciferol
(D) 7-Dehydrocholesterol 29. The β-ring of 7-dehydrocholesterol is cleaved
20. Vitamin D absorption is increased in to form cholecalciferol by
(A) Acid pH of intestine (A) Infrared light
(B) Alkaline pH of intestine (B) Dim light
(C) Impaired fat absorption (C) Ultraviolet irridation with sunlight
(D) Contents of diet (D) Light of the tube lights
21. The most potent Vitamin D metabolite is 30. Calcitriol synthesis involves
(A) 25-Hydroxycholecalciferol (A) Both liver and kidney
(B) 1,25-Dihydroxycholecalciferol (B) Intestine
(C) 24, 25-Dihydroxycholecalciferol (C) Adipose tissue
(D) 7-Dehydrocholesterol (D) Muscle
22. The normal serum concentration of 31. Insignificant amount of Vitamin E ispresent in
25-hydroxycholecalciferol in ng/ml is (A) Wheat germ oil (B) Sunflower seed oil
(A) 0–8 (B) 60–100 (C) Safflower seed oil (D) Fish liver oil
(C) 100–150 (D) 8–55 32. The activity of tocopherols is destroyedby
(A) Commercial cooking 42. Vitamin synthesized by bacterial in

(B) Reduction theintestine is
(C) Conjugation (A) A (B) C (C) D (D) K
(D) All of these
43. Vitamin K is involved in
33. The requirement of vitamin E is increasedwith posttranslationalmodification of the blood
greater intake of clotting factors by acting as cofactor for the
enzyme:
(A) Carbohydrates
(B) Proteins (A) Carboxylase (B) Decarboxylase
(C) Polyunsaturated fat (C) Hydroxylase (D) Oxidase
(D) Saturated fat 44. Vitamin K is a cofactor for
34. Vitamin E reduces the requirement of (A) Gamma carboxylation of glutamic
acidresidue
(A) Iron (B) Zinc
(C) Selenium (D) Magnesium (B) β-Oxidation of fatty acid
(C) Formation of γ-amino butyrate
35. The most important natural antioxidantis
(D) Synthesis of tryptophan
(A) Vitamin D (B) Vitamin E
45. Hypervitaminosis K in neonates maycause
(C) Vitamin B12 (D) Vitamin K
(A) Porphyria (B) Jaundice
36. Tocopherols prevent the oxidation of (C) Pellagra (D) Prolonged bleeding
46. Dicoumarol is antagonist to
(C) Vitamin K (D) Vitamin C
(A) Riboflavin (B) Retinol
37. Creatinuria is caused due to the deficiencyof (C) Menadione (D) Tocopherol
vitamin
47. In the individuals who are given
(A) A (B) K liberalquantities of vitamin C, the serum
(C) E (D) D ascorbic acid level is
38. All the following conditions produce a realor
functional deficiency of vitamin K except (A) 1–1.4 µg/100 ml (B) 2–4 µg/100 ml
(A) Prolonged oral, broad spectrum (C) 1–10 µg/100 ml
antibiotictherapy (D) 10–20 µg/100 ml
(B) Total lack of red meat in the diet 48. The vitamin which would most likelybecome
(C) The total lack of green leafy vegetables deficient in an individual who develop a
inthe diet completely carnivorous life style is
(D) Being a new born infant (A) Thiamin (B) Niacin
39. Vitamin K is found in (C) Vitamin C (D) Cobalamin
(A) Green leafy plants(B) Meat(C) Fish (D) Milk 49. In human body highest concentration
40. Function of Vitamin A: ofascorbic acid is found in
(A) Healing epithelial tissues (A) Liver (B) Adrenal cortex

(B) Protein synthesis regulation (C) Adrenal medulla (D) Spleen
(C) Cell growth 50. The vitamin required for the formation
(D) All of these ofhydroxyproline (in collagen) is
41. Vitamin K2 was originally isolated from (A) Vitamin C (B) Vitamin A
(C) Vitamin D (D) Vitamin E
(A) Soyabean (B) Wheat gram
(C) Alfa Alfa (D) Putrid fish meal 51. Vitamin required for the conversion of
phydroxyphenylpyruvate to homogentisate is
VITAMINS 113
(A) Folacin (B) Cobalamin (B) Potassium ferricyanide

(C) Ascorbic acid (D) Niacin (C) Potassium chlorate
(D) Potassium dichromate
52. Vitamin required in conversion of folicacid to
folinic acid is 62. Riboflavin is a coenzyme in the
(A) Biotin (B) Cobalamin reactioncatalysed by the enzyme
(C) Ascorbic acid (D) Niacin (A) Acyl CoA synthetase
(B) Acyl CoA dehydrogenase
53. Ascorbic acid can reduce
(C) β-Hydroxy acyl CoA
(A) 2, 6-Dibromobenzene
(D) Enoyl CoA dehydrogenase
(B) 2, 6-Diiodoxypyridine
(C) 2, 6-Dichlorophenol indophenol 63. The daily requirement of riboflavin foradult in
(D) 2, 4-Dinitrobenzene mg is
(A) 0–1.0 (B) 1.2–1.7
54. Sterilised milk lacks in
(C) 2.0–3.5 (D) 4.0–8.0
(C) Vitamin C (D) Thiamin 64. In new born infants phototherapy maycause
hyperbilirubinemia with deficiency of
55. Scurvy is caused due to the deficiency of
(A) Thiamin (B) Riboflavin
(A) Vitamin A (B) Vitamin D (C) Vitamin K (C) Ascorbic acid (D) Pantothenic acid
(D) Vitamin C
65. Riboflavin deficiency causes
56. Both Wernicke’s disease and beriberi canbe
reversed by administrating (A) Cheilosis
(B) Loss of weight
(A) Retinol (B) Thiamin
(C) Mental deterioration
(C) Pyridoxine (D) Vitamin B12
(D) Dermatitis
57. The Vitamin B1 deficiency causes
66. Magenta tongue is found in the deficiencyof
(A) Ricket (B) Nyctalopia the vitamin
(C) Beriberi (D) Pellagra (A) Riboflavin (B) Thiamin
58. Concentration of pyruvic acid and lacticacid in (C) Nicotinic acid (D) Pyridoxine
blood is increased due to deficiency of the
67. Corneal vascularisation is found in deficiency
vitamin
of the vitamin:
(A) B1 (B) B2
(C) Niacin (D) Pantothenic acid
(C) B3 (D) B6
59. Vitamin B1 coenzyme (TPP) is involved in
68. The pellagra preventive factor is
(A) Oxidative decarboxylation
(B) Hydroxylation (A) Riboflavin (B) Pantothenic acid
(C) Transamination (C) Niacin (D) Pyridoxine
(D) Carboxylation 69. Pellagra is caused due to the deficiencyof
60. Increased glucose consumption increasesthe (A) Ascorbic acid (B) Pantothenic acid
dietary requirement for (C) Pyridoxine (D) Niacin
(A) Pyridoxine (B) Niacin 70. Niacin or nicotinic acid is a monocarboxylic
(C) Biotin (D) Thiamin acid derivative of
61. Thiamin is oxidized to thiochrome inalkaline (A) Pyridine (B) Pyrimidine
solution by (C) Flavin (D) Adenine
(A) Potassium permanganate
71. Niacin is synthesized in the body from (A) Deamination(B) Amidation

(A) Tryptophan (B) Tyrosine (C) Carboxylation (D) Transamination
(C) Glutamate (D) Aspartate 83. The vitamin required as coenzyme for
72. The proteins present in maize are deficientin theaction of transaminases is
(A) Lysine (B) Threonine (A) Niacin

(C) Tryptophan (D) Tyrosine (B) Pantothenic acid
(C) Pyridoxal phosphate
73. Niacin is present in maize in the form of
(D) Riboflavin
(A) Niatin (B) Nicotin
84. Vitamin B6 deficiency may occur during
(C) Niacytin (D) Nicyn
therapy with
74. In the body 1 mg of niacin can beproduced (A) Isoniazid (B) Terramycin
from
(C) Sulpha drugs (D) Aspirin
(A) 60 mg of pyridoxine 85. Deficiency of vitamin B6 may occur in
(B) 60 mg of tryptophan(C) 30 mg of tryptophan
(A) Obese person (B) Thin person
(D) 30 mg of pantothenic acid
(C) Alcoholics (D) Diabetics
75. Pellagra occurs in population dependenton
(A) Wheat (B) Rice 86. ‘Xanthurenic acid index’ is a reliablecriterion
(C) Maize (D) Milk for the deficiency of the vitamin
(A) Pyridoxal (B) Thiamin
76. The enzymes with which nicotinamide actas
(C) Pantothenic acid (D) Cobalamin
coenzyme are
(A) Dehydrogenases (B) Transaminases 87. Epileptiform convulsion in human infantshave
(C) Decarboxylases (D) Carboxylases been attributed to the deficiency of the
vitamin
77. Dietary requirement of Vitamin D:
(A) B1 (B) B2
(A) 400 I.U. (B) 1000 I.U. (C) 6000 I.U. (D)
700 I.U. (C) B6 (D) B12
78. The Vitamin which does not contain a ringin 88. Biotin is a coenzyme of the enzyme
the structure is (A) Carboxylase (B) Hydroxylase
(A) Pantothenic acid (B) Vitamin D (C) Decarboxylase (D) Deaminase
(C) Riboflavin (D) Thiamin 89. The coenzyme required for conversion
79. Pantothenic acid is a constituent of ofpyruvate to oxaloacetate is
thecoenzyme involved in (A) FAD (B) NAD
(A) Decarboxylation (B) Dehydrogenation (C) TPP (D) Biotin
(C) Acetylation (D) Oxidation
90. In biotin-containing enzymes, the biotinis
80. The precursor of CoA is bound to the enzyme by
(A) Riboflavin (B) Pyridoxamine (A) An amide linkage to carboxyl group
(C) Thiamin (D) Pantothenate ofglutamine
(B) A covalent bond with CO2
81. ‘Burning foot syndrome’ has beenascribed to
the deficiency of (C) An amide linkage to an amino group of
lysine
(A) Pantothenic acid (B) Thiamin
(C) Cobalamin (D) Pyridoxine (D) An amide linkage to α-carboxyl group of
protein
82. Pyridoxal phosphate is central to
VITAMINS 113
91. A molecule of CO2 is captured by biotin when (B) Scurvy

it acts as coenzyme for carboxylation reaction. (C) Perniciuos anemia
The carboxyl group is covalently attached to (D) Ricket
(A) A nitrogen (N1) of the biotin molecule
100. Vitamin B12 deficiency can be diagnosed by
(B) Sulphur of thiophene ring urinary excretion of
(C) α-Amino group of lysine (A) Pyruvate (B) Methylmalonate
(D) α-Amino group of protein (C) Malate (D) Lactate
92. Consumption of raw eggs can causedeficiency 101. Subacute combined degeneration of cord is
of caused due to deficiency of
(A) Biotin (B) Pantothenic acid (A) Niacin (B) Cobalamin
(C) Riboflavin (D) Thiamin (C) Biotin (D) Thiamin
93. The cofactor or its derivative required forthe 102. Vitamin required for metabolism of diolse.g.
conversion of acetyl CoA to malonylCoA is conversion of ethylene glycol to acetaldehyde
is
(A) FAD (B) ACP
(C) NAD+ (D) Biotin (A) Thiamin (B) Cobalamin
(C) Pyridoxine (D) Folic acid
94. A cofactor required in oxidative
decarboxylation of pyruvate is 103. Both folic acid and methyl cobalamin
(vitamin B12) are required in
(A) Lipoate
(B) Pantothenic acid (A) Deamination of serine
(C) Biotin (B) Deamination of threonine
(D) Para aminobenzoic acid (C) Conversion of pyridoxal phosphate
topyridoxamine phosphate
95. The central structure of B12 referred to as (D) Methylation of homocystein to methionine
corrin ring system consists of
104. Folic acid or folate consists of the
(A) Cobalt (B) Manganese
(C) Magnesium (D) Iron (A) Base pteridine, p-amino benzoic acid
andasparate
96. The central heavy metal cobalt of vitaminB 12 is (B) Base purine, p-amino benzoic acid
coordinately bound to andglutamate
(A) Cyanide group (B) Amino group (C) Base pteridine, p-amino benzoic acid
(C) Carboxyl group (D) Sulphide group andglutamate
(D) Base purine, p-hydroxy benzoic acid
97. Vitamin B12 has a complex ring structure
andglutamate
(corrin ring) consisting of four
(A) Purine rings (B) Pyrimidine rings 105. Folate as a coenzyme is involved in the
transfer and utilization of
(C) Pyrrole rings (D) Pteridine rings
(A) Amino group
98. Emperical formula of cobalamin is
(B) Hydroxyl group
(A) C63H88N12O14P.CO (C) Single carbon moiety
(B) C61H82N12O12P.CO (D) Amido group
(C) C61H88N12O14P.CO 106. Folic acid deficiency can be diagnosed by
(D) C63H88N14O14P.CO increased urinary excretion of
(A) Methylmalonate (B) Figlu
99. A deficiency of vitamin B12 causes
(C) Cystathionine (D) Creatinine
(A) Beri-Beri
107. Sulpha drugs interfere with bacterial synthesis 117. FAD is a coenzyme for
of (A) Succinate dehydrogenase
(A) Lipoate (B) Vitamin E (C) (B) Glycerol-3-phosphate dehydrogenase
Tetrahydrofolate (D) Ascorbic acid (C) Sphingosine reductase
108. Folate deficiency causes (D) All of these
(A) Microcytic anemia 118. Riboflavin deficiency can cause
(B) Hemolytic anemia (A) Peripheral neuritis (B) Diarrhoea
(C) Iron deficiency anemia (C) Angular stomatitis (D) None of these
(D) Megaloblastic anemia
119. Pellagra preventing factor is
109. Thiamin is heat stable in
(A) Acidic medium (B) Alkaline medium (C) Niacin (D) Pyridoxine
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of these 120. Niacin contains a
110. Thiamin deficiency includes
(A) Sulphydryl group (B) Carboxyl group
(A) Mental depression (B) Fatigue (C) Amide group (D) All of these
(C) Beriberi (D) All of these
121. NADP is required as a coenzyme in
111. Thiamin diphosphate is required for oxidative
(A) Glycolysis (B) Citric acid cycle
decarboxylation of
(C) HMP shunt (D) Gluconeogenesis
(A) α-Keto acids (B) α-Amino acids
122. NAD is required as a coenzyme for
(C) Fatty acids (D) All of these
(A) Malate dehydrogenase
112. Loss of thiamin can be decreased by using (B) Succinate dehydrogenase
(A) Unpolished rice (C) Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase
(B) Parboiled rice (D) HMG CoA reductae
(C) Whole wheat flour
123. NAD is required as a conenzyme in
(D) All of these
(A) Citric acid cycle
113 . Daily requirement of thiamin is (B) HMP shunt
(A) 0.1 mg/1,000 Calories (C) β-Oxidation of fatty acids
(B) 0.5 mg/1,000 Calories(C) 0.8 (D) Both (A) and (C)
mg/1,000 Calories
124. Niacin can be synthesised in humanbeings from
(D) 1.0 mg/1,000 Calories
(A) Histidine(B) Phenylalanine
114. Thiamin requirement is greater in
(C) Tyrosine (D) Tryptophan
(A) Non-vegetarians(B) Alcoholics
125. Daily requirement of niacin is
(C) Pregnant women
(D) Both B and C (A) 5 mg (B) 10 mg
(C) 20 mg (D) 30 mg
115. People consuming polished rice as their staple
food are prone to 126. Niacin deficiency is common in people whose
staple food is
(A) Beriberi (B) Pellagra
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of these (A) Wheat
(B) Polished rice
116. Riboflavin is heat stable in
(C) Maize and /or sorghum
(A) Acidic medium (B) Alkaline medium (D) None of these
(C) Neutral medium (D) Both (A) and (C)
127. In pellagra, dermatitis usually affects
VITAMINS 113
(A) Exposed parts of body(B) Covered parts 137. Pyridoxal phosphate is a coenzyme for
of body (A) Glycogen synthetase
(C) Trunk only (B) Phosphorylase
(D) All parts of the body (C) Both (A) and (B)
128. Niacin deficiency can occur in (D) None of these
(A) Hartnup disease (B) Phenylketonuria 138. Pyridoxine deficiency can be diagnosed by
(C) Alkaptonuria (D) None of these measuring urinary excretion of
129. Pantothenic acid contains an amino acid which is (A) Pyruvic acid (B) Oxaloacetic acid
(A) Aspartic acid (B) Glutamic acid (C) Xanthurenic acid (D) None of these
139. Pyridoxine deficiency can be diagnosedby
(C) β-Alanine (D) β-Aminoisobutyric acid
measuring the urinary excretion of xanthurenic
130. Sulphydryl group of coenzyme a is contributed acid following a test dose of
by
(A) Glycine (B) Histidine
(A) β-Alanine (C) Tryptophan (D) Pyridoxine
(B) β-Aminoisobutyric acid
140. Pyridoxine requirement depends upon the
(C) Methionine intake of
(D) Thioethanolamine
(A) Carbohydrates (B) Proteins
131. Coenzyme A contains a nitrogenous base which (C) Fats (D) None of these
is
141. Anti-egg white injury factor is
(A) Adenine (B) Guanine
(A) Pyridoxine (B) Biton
(C) Choline (D) Ethanolamine
(C) Thiamin (D) Liponic acid
132. The following is required for the formationof
coenyzme A: 142. When eggs are cooked
(A) ATP (B) GTP (A) Biotin is destroyed but avidin

remainsunaffected
(C) CTP (D) None of these
(B) Avidin is inactivated but biotin
133. Coenzyme A is required for catabolism of remainsunaffected
(A) Leucine (B) Isoleucine (C) Both avidin and biotin are inactivated
(C) Valine (D) All of these (D) Both avidin and biotin remain
unaffected
134. Deficiency of pantothenic acid in human beings
can affect 143. Biotin is required as a coenzyme by
(A) Nervous system (B) Digestive system (A) Anaerobic dehydrogenases(B)
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of these Decarboxylases
(C) Aerobic dehydrogenases
135. Pyridoxal phosphate is a coenzyme for
(D) Carboxylases
(A) Glutamate oxaloacetate transaminase
(B) Glutamate pyruvate transaminase 144. Biotin is a coenzyme for
(C) Tyrosine transaminase (A) Pyruvate carboxylase
(D) All of these (B) Acetyl CoA carboxylase
136. Pyridoxal phosphate is required as a coenzyme (C) Propionyl CoA carboxylase
in (D) All of these
(A) Transamination (B) Transulphuration 145. Lipoic acid is a conenzyme for
(C) Desulphydration (D) All of these (A) Pyruvate dehydrogenase
(B) α-Ketoglutarate dehydrogenae (C) Mucopolysaccharide

(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) Cyanocobalaminm
(D) None of these 155. Vitamin B12 is
146. Chemically, lipoic acid is (A) Not stored in the body
(A) Saturated fatty acid (B) Stored in bone marrow
(B) Unsaturated fatty acid (C) Stored in liver
(C) Amino acid (D) Stored in RE cells
(D) Sulphur containing fatty acid 156. Vitamin B12 is transported in blood by
147. Folic acid contains (A) Albumin (B) Transcortin
(A) Pteridine (C) Transcobalamin I (D) Transcobalamin II
(B) p-Amino benzoic acid
157. Vitamin B12 is synthesized by
(C) Glutamic acid
(A) Bacteria only (B) Plants only
(D) All of these
(C) Animals only (D) Both (A) and (C)
148. Conversion of folate into tetrahydrofolate
requires 158. Deficiency of vitamin B12 can occur because of
(A) NADH (B) NADPH (A) Decreased intake of vitamin B12

(B) Atrophy of gastric mucosa
(C) FMNH2 (D) FADH2
(C) Intestinal malabsorption
149. Riboflavin deficiency symptoms are (D) All of these
(A) Glossitis (B) stomatis
159. Deficiency of vitamin B12 can be diagonised by
(C) Vomitting (D) Both (A) and (B)
(A) Carr-Price reaction
150. Vitamin B12 forms coenzymes known as (B) Ames assay
(A) Cobamide (B) Transcobalamin I (C) Watson-Schwartz test
(C) Transcobalamin II (D) Both (B) and (C) (D) Schilling test
151. Methylcobalamin is required for formation of 160. Gastyrectomy leads to megaloblastic anaemia
(A) Serin from glycine within a few
(B) Glycine from serine (A) Days (B) Weeks
(C) Methionine from homocysteine (C) Months (D) Years
(D) All of these 161. Ascorbic acid is required to synthesise all of the
152. Absorption of Vitamin B12 requires the presence following except
of (A) Collagen (B) Bile acids
(A) Pepsin (B) Hydrochloric acid (C) Bile pigments (D) Epinephrine
(C) Intrinsic factor (D) Boh (B) and (C) 162. Vitamin C enhances the intestinal absorption of
153. Intrinsic factor is chemically a (A) Potassium (B) Iodine
(A) Protein (C) Iron (D) None of these
(B) Glycoprotein 163. Vitamin C activity is present in
(C) Mucopolysaccaride
(A) D-Ascorbic acid
(D) Peptide
(B) D-Dehydroascorbic acid
154. Chemically, Extrinsic Factor of Castle is a (C) L-Ascorbic acid
(A) Mucoprotein (D) Both A and B
(B) Glycoprotein 164. Vitamin C is required for the synthesis of
VITAMINS 113
(A) Bile acids from cholesterol(B) Bile salts (A) α-Carotene (B) β-Carotene
from bile acids (C) γ-Carotene (D) All of these
(C) Vitamin D from cholesterol 174. Two molecules of vitamin A can be formedfrom
(D) All of these 1 molecule of
165. Deficiency of vitamin C causes
(A) α-Carotene (B) β-Carotene
(A) Beriberi
(C) γ-Carotene (D) All of these
(B) Pellagra
(C) Pernicious anaemia 175. Conversion of β-carotene into retinal requires
(D) Scurvy the presence of
166. An early diagnosis of vitamin C deficiencycan be (A) β-Carotene dioxygenase
made by (B) Bile salts
(A) Measuring plasma ascorbic acid (C) Molecular oxygen
(B) Measuring urinary ascorbic acid (D) All of these
(C) Ascorbic acid saturation test 176. Conversion of retinal into ritonal requires the
(D) All of these presence of
167. Daily requirement of vitamin C in adultsis about (A) NADH (B) NADPH
(A) 100 mg (B) 25 mg (C) FADH2 (D) Lipoic acid
(C) 70 mg (D) 100 mg
177. Retinal is converted into retinoic acid in the
168. The vitamin having the highest daily presence of
requirement among the following is (A) Retinal oxidase (B) Retinal carboxylase
(A) Thiamin (B) Ribovflavin (C) Retinene reductase(D) Spontaneously
(C) Pyridoxine (D) Ascorbic acid
178. Vitamin A absorbed in intestine is released into
169. Anaemia can occur due to the deficiency of all (A) Portal circulation (B) Lacteals
the following except (C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of these
(A) Thiamin (B) Pyridoxine
179. Vitamin A is stored in the body in
(C) Folic acid (D) Cyanocobalamin
(A) Liver
170. A vitamin which can be synthesized byhuman (B) Adipose tissue
beings is
(C) Reticuloendothelial cells
(A) Thiamin (B) Niacin (D) All of these
(C) Folic acid (D) Cyanocobalamin
180. Rhodopsin contains opsin and
171. Laboratory diagnosis of vitamin B 12 deficiency can
(A) 11-cis-retinal (B) 11-trans-retinal
be made by measuring the urinary excretion of
(C) All-cis-retinal (D) All trans-retinal
(A) Xanthurenic acid
(B) Formiminoglutamic acid 181. When light falls on rod cells
(C) Methylmalonic acid (A) All-cis-retinal is converted into all-trans-
(D) Homogentisic acid retinal(B) 11-cis-retinal is converted into 11-trans-
retinal
172. The molecule of vitamin A1 contains (C) 11-trans-retinal is converted into all-
(A) Benzene ring (B) β-Ionone ring transretinal
(D) 11-cis-retinal is converted into all-trans-
(C) β-Carotene ring (D) None of these
retinal
173. Precursor of Vitamin A is
182. Conversion of all-trans-retinal into alltrans- (A) Act as a photo receptor

retinol requires (B) Support growth and differentiation
(A) NAD (B) NADH (C) Act as an anti-oxidant
(C) NADP (D) NADPH (D) None of these
183. Retinol isomerase is present in 193. Prosthetic group in cone cell phototreceptors is
(A) Retina (B) Liver (C) Both (A) and (B) (A) Iodine (B) Opsin
(D) None of these (C) 11-cis-retinal (D) all-trans-retinal
184. Anti-oxidant activity is present in 194. Retinoic acid is involved in the synthesis of
(A) β-Carotene (B) Retinol (A) Rhodopsin (B) Iodopsin
(C) Retinoic acid (D) All of these (C) Porphyrinopsin (D) Glycoproteins
185. One international Unit of vitamin A is the activity 195 Transducin is a
present in (A) Signal transducer (B) Stimulatory G-protein
(A) 0.3 µg of β-Carotene (B) 0.3 µg of retinol (C) Trimer (D) All of these
(C) 0.6 µg of retinoic acid 196. Provitamin D3 is
(D) All of these
(A) Cholecalciferol
186. Daily requirement of vitamin A in an adultman (B) Ergosterol
can be expressed as
(C) 7-Dehydrocholesterol
(A) 400 IU (B) 1,000 IU (D) Ergocaliferol
(C) 5,000 IU (D) 10,000 IU
197. Ergosterol is found in
187. Vitamin B6 includes
(A) Animals (B) Plants
(A) Pyridoxal (B) Pyridoxamine (C) Bacteria (D) All of these
(C) Pyridoxine (D) All of these
198. A provitamin D synthesized in humanbeings is
188. An early effect of vitamin a deficiency is
(A) Ergosterol
(A) Xerophthalmia (B) 7-Dehydrocholesterol
(B) Keratomalacia (C) Cholecalciferol
(C) Prolonged dark adaptation time (D) 25-Hydroxycholecalciferol
(D) Follicular hyperkeratosis
199. 25-Hydroxylation of vitamin D occurs in
189. Nyctalopia is
(A) Skin (B) Liver
(A) Drying of eyes (C) Kidneys (D) Intestinal mucosa
(B) Destruction of cornea
200. Tubular reabsorption of calcium isincreased by
(C) Blindness
(D) Inability to see in dimlight (A) Cholecalciferol
(B) 25-Hydroxycholecalciferol
190. Rod cells possess a trans-membrane protein
(C) Calcitriol
which is
(D) All of these
(A) Adenylate cyclase (B) Transducin
(C) Rhodopsin (D) B as well as C 201. Parathormone is required for the conversion of
(A) Cholecalciferol into 1-hydroxycholecalciferol
191. Provitamins A include
(B) Cholecalciferol into 25-
(A) Retinal (B) Retionic acid hydroxycholecalciferol
(C) Carotenes (D) All of these (C) 25-Hydroxycholecalciferol into calcitriol
192. Retinoic acid can (D) Cholesterol into 7-dehydrocholesterol
VITAMINS 113
202. Calcitriol inhibits the conversion of (C) Menadione (D) None of these
(A) Cholesterol into 7-dehydrocholesterol 211. Prothrombin time is prolonged in
(B) Cholecalciferol into 1-hydroxycholecalciferol
(A) Vitamin K deficiency
(C) Cholecalciferol into 25-
(B) Liver damage
hydroxycholecalciferol
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) 25-Hydroxycholecalciferol into 1,25-
(D) None of these
dihydroxycholecalciferol
212. A synthetic form of vitamin K is
203. Bowlegs and knock-knees can occur in
(A) Menadione (B) Farnoquinone
(A) Rickets (B) Osteomalacia
(C) Phylloquinone (D) None of these
(C) Both A and B (D) Hypervitaminosis D
204. Calcification of soft tissues can occur in 213. Retinal is reduced to retinol by
retinenereductase in presence of the coenzyme
(A) Osteomalacia
(A) NAD+ (B) NADP+
(B) Rickets
(C) NADH + H+ (D) NADPH + H+
(C) Hypervitaminosis D
(D) None of these 214. Retinal exists as an ester with higher fatty acids
in the
205. Levels of serum calcium and inorganic
phosphorus are increased in (A) Liver (B) Kidney
(A) Hypervitaminosis D (C) Lung (D) All of these
(B) Hypoparathyroidism 215. Retinol is transported to the blood as retinol
(C) Hypovitaminosis D attached to
(D) None of these
(A) α1-globulin (B) α2-globulin
206. Requirement of vitamin E increases with the (C) β-globulin (D) γ-globulin
increasing intake of
216. Carotenes are transported with the
(A) Calories (B) Proteins
(A) Minerals (B) Proteins
(C) PUFA (D) Cholesterol
(C) Lipids (D) Lipoproteins
207. In human beings, vitamin E prevents
217. The drugs that form complexes with pyridoxal
(A) Sterility are
(B) Hepatic necrosis
(A) Isoniazid (B) Penicillamine
(C) Muscular dystrophy
(C) Rifampicin (D) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of these
218. In the blood the vitamin esters are attached to
208. Vitamin E protects
(A) Polyunsaturated fatty acids (A) α1-lipoproteins (B) α2-lipoproteins
againstaperoxidation (C) β-lipoproteins (D) γ-lipoproteins
(B) Vitamin A and carotenes against oxidation
219. The percentage of Vitamin A in the form of
(C) Lung tissue against atmospheric pollutants esters is stored in the liver:
(D) All of these
(A) 80 (B) 85
209. Intestinal bacteria can synthesise (C) 90 (D) 95
(A) Phyllogquinone (B) Farnoquinone 220. The performed Vitamin A is supplied by foods
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) Menadione such as
210. A water soluble form of vitamin K is (A) Butter (B) Eggs
(A) Phylloquinone (B) Farnoquinone (C) Fish liver oil (D) All of these
221. The non-protein part of rhodopsin is (A) Superoxide (B) Peroxide

(A) Retinal (B) Retinol (C) Trioxide (D) All of these
(C) Carotene (D) Repsin 232. The tocopherols prevent the oxidation of
222. Lumirhodopsin is stable only at a temperature (A) Vitamin A (B) Vitamin D
below (C) Vitamin K (D) Vitamin C
(A) –35°C (B) –40°C 233. Vitamin E protects enzymes from destruction in
(C) –45°C (D) –50°C
(A) Muscles (B) Nerves
223 The normal concentration of vitamin A in blood in (C) Gonads (D) All of these
I.V/dl:
234. Vitamin K regulates the synthesis of
(A) 20–55 (B) 24–60 bloodclotting factors:
(C) 30–65 (D) 35–70
(A) VII (B) IX (C) X (D) All of these
224. Continued intake of excessive amounts of
235. Ascorbic acid can reduce
vitamin A especially in children produces
(A) 2, 4-dinitro benzene
(A) Irritability (B) Anorexia
(B) 2, 6-Dichlorophenol Indophenol
(C) Headache (D) All of these
(C) 2, 4-dibromobenzene
225. Vitamin D2 is also said to be (D) 2, 6-dibromo benzene
(A) Activated ergosterol 236. Sterilized milk is devoid of
(B) Fergocalciferol (A) Vitamin A (B) Vitamin B1
(C) Viosterol
(C) Vitamin C (D) Vitamin D
(D) All of these
237. The symptoms of scurvy are
226. The poor sources of vitamin D:
(A) Poor healing of wounds
(A) Eggs (B) Butter
(B) Loosening of teeth
(C) Milk (D) Liver
(C) Anaemia(D) All of these
227. The activity of tocopherols is destroyed by
238. Kwashiorkor results from
(A) Oxidation (B) Reduction
(A) Vitamin A deficiency
(C) Conjugation (D) All of these
(B) Vitamin D deficiency
228 Some tocopherols are (C) Deficiency of minerals in diet
(A) Terpenoid in structure (D) Protein and caloric deficiency in diet
(B) Dional in structure 239. Which among the following fatty acids is an
(C) Isoprenoid in structure essential fatty acid for man?
(D) Farnesyl in structure
(A) Palmitic acid (B) Oleic acid
229. The methyl groups in the aromatic nucleusof a (C) Linoleic acid (D) None of these
tocopherols are 240. The number of nutritionally essential amino
(A) 2 (B) 3 acids for man is
(C) 4 (D) 5 (A) 6 (B) 8
230. Vitamin E stored in (C) 10 (D) 12
(A) Mitochondria (B) Microsomes 241. Avidin is present in
(A) Cow’s milk
231. Vitamin E protects the polyunsaturatedfatty (B) Raw egg
acids from oxidation by molecular oxygen in the (C) Green leafy vegetables
formation of
VITAMINS 113
(D) Carrots (C) Both (A) and (B)

242. Marasmus is due to malnutrition of (D) None of these
(A) Proteins 251. Which among the following is a nutritionally

(B) Proteins and calories essential amino acid for man?
(C) Proteins and vitamins (A) Alanine (B) Glycine
(D) Proteins and minerals (C) Tyrosine (D) Isoleucine
243. Energy value in kilocalorie per gram of fat in the 252. The maximum specific dynamic action of food
body is stuff is exerted by
(A) 1 (B) 4 (A) carbohydrates (B) fats
(C) 9 (D) 18 (C) proteins (D) vitamins
244. Which among the following is an essentialamino 253. The essential amino acids
acid for man? (A) must be supplied in the diet because
(A) Alanine (B) Serine theorganism has lost the capacity to
(C) Valine (D) Glutamic acid aminate the corresponding ketoacids
(B) must be supplied in the diet because
245. Under what condition to basal metabolic rate
thehuman has an impaired ability to
goes up?
synthesize the carbon chain of the
(A) Cold environment corresponding
(B) Hot environment ketoacids
(C) Intake of base forming foods (C) are identical in all species studied
(D) Hypothyroidism (D) are defined as these amino acids
whichcannot be synthesized by the
246. What is the major form of caloric storage in
organism at a rate adequate to meet
human body?
metabolic requirements
(A) ATP
254. Fibre in the diet is beneficial in
(B) Glycogen
(C) Creatine phosphate (A) Hyper glycemia
(D) triacylglycerol (B) Hyper cholseteremia
(C) Colon cancer
247. The phosphoprotein of milk is
(D) All of these
(A) Lactalbumin (B) Lactoglobulin
255 Sucrose intolerance leads to
(C) Vitellin (D) Caein
(A) Hyper glycemia (B) Glycosuria
248. Dictary deficiency of this vitamin leads to night
(C) Diarrhoea (D) Hypoglycemia
blindness:
(A) Retinol (B) Niacin 256. There can be intolerance with respect to the
(C) Ascorbic acid (D) Cholecalciferol following sugar:
249. A non essential amino acid is not (A) Glucose (B) Lactose
(A) Absorbed in the intestines (C) Maltose (D) Xylose
(B) Required in the diet 257. Milk contains very poor amounts of
(C) Incorporated into the protein (A) Calcium (B) Phosphate
(D) Metabolized by the body (C) Iron (D) Riboflavin
250. The deficiency of Vitamin B12 leads to 258. Egg contains very little
(A) Pernicious anaemia (A) Fat

(B) Megablastic anaemia (B) Proteins
(C) Carbohydrates (A) Cytochrome - a (B) Parathyroid hormone

(D) Calcium and phosphorus (C) Cytochrome-b (D) CAMP
259. BMR (Basal Metabolic rate) is elevated in 270. The egg injury factor in raw egg white is
(A) Hyper thyroidism (B) Under nutrition (A) Biotin (B) Avidin (C) Albumin (D)
(C) Starvation (D) Hypothyroidism Calcium salts
260. Soyabean proteins are rich in 271. The following has cyanide:
(A) Lysine (B) Alanine (A) Vitamin B12
(C) Glcyine (D) Aspartic acid (B) Adenyl cobamide
(C) Benzimidazole cobamide
261. Corn and gliadin are low in
(D) Methyl cobamide
(A) Lysine (B) Alanine
(C) Glycine (D) Aspartic acid 272. The human species can biosynthesize
(A) Vitamin C (B) Vitamin B12
262. What is the disease caused by thiamine
deficiency? (C) Thiamine (D) Niacin
(A) Nycalopia (B) Scurvy 273. Retina contains this photosensitive pigment:
(C) Rickets (D) Beriberi (A) Rhodopsin (B) Opsin
263. Retinol and retinol –binding protein (RBP) bound (C) Retinol (D) Melanin
with this protein:
274. Anti xerophthalmic vitamin is
(A) Albumin (B) Prealbumin
(A) Vitamin B1 (B) Vitamin B2
(C) α2-globulin (D) β-globulin
(C) Vitamin B6 (D) Vitamin A
264. Megaloblastic anemia is caused by the deficiency
of 275. One of the following is not a symptom of
addison’s disease.
(A) Folic acid (B) Vitamin B6
(A) Hypoglycemia (B) Hyponatremia
(C) Iron (D) Protein
(C) Hypokalemia (D) Hypochoremia
265. This vitamin acts as anti-oxidant:
276. Gammaxane is an antimetabolite of
(A) Thiamine (B) Riboflavin
(C) Vitamin E (D) Vitamin K
(C) Pyridoxin (D) Inositol
266. Calcitriol is
277. Pyridoxin deficiency may lead to convulsions as
(A) 1-OH-cholecalciferol it is needed for the synthesis of
(B) 25-OH-cholecalciferol
(A) GABA (B) PABA
(C) 24, 25-diOH cholecalciferol
(C) EFA (D) SAM
(D) 1, 25-diOH cholecalciferol
278. Sulpha drugs are antimetabolities of
267. 1-hydroxylation of 25-OH vitamin D 3 takes place
in (A) Vitamin K (B) Pyridoxin
(C) Folic acid (D) Vitamin B2
(A) Liver (B) Kidneys
279. This abnormal metabolite may be responsible for
(C) Intestine (D) Pancreas
the neurological manifestation of pernicious
268. 25-hydroxylation of vitamin D3 takes place in
anemia:
(A) Taurine (B) Methyl malonic acid
(C) Intestine (D) Pancreas
(C) Xantherunic acid (D) Phenyl pyruvic acid
269. Hydroxylation of 25-hydroxy cholecalciferol is
280. The vitamin in leafy vegetables:
promoted by
VITAMINS 113
(A) D (B) K (A) 5, 6 dimethyl benzimidazole cobamide

(C) A (D) Both (B) and (C) (B) Thioredoxin
(C) Tetra hydrobiopterin
281. Isonicotinic acid hydrazide given in the
treatment of tuberculosis may lead to a (D) Tetra hydrofolate
deficiency of 291. Biotin is also known as
(A) Vitamin A (B) Pyridoxin (A) Anti egg white injury factor
(C) Folate (D) Inositol (B) Rutin
282. Biotin is required for the reaction of CO2 with (C) Both (A) and (B)
(A) Water (D) None of these
(B) Acetyl CoA 292. Angular stomatosis is due to
(C) NH3 (A) Ariboflavinoses
(D) Incorporation of carbon 6 in purine (B) Deficiency of Vitamin C
283. A deficiency of folate leads to (C) Deficiency of Vitamin B1
(A) Megaloblastic anemia(B) Aplastic (D) Deficiency of folate
anemia 293. One of the main functions of Vitamin K
(C) Pernicious anemia iscofactor for
(D) Hypochromic microcytic anemia
(A) Carboxylate for the formation of γ
284. A deficiency of Iron leads to carboxyglutamate
(A) Megaloblastic anemia(B) Aplastic (B) Methylation of δ-adenosyl methionine
anemia (C) Carboxylation of biotin
(C) Pernicious anemia (D) One carbon transfer by tetrahydrofolate
(D) Hypochromic microcytic anemia
294. Prothrombin time is prolonged by administering
285. Corninoid coenzymes are coenzymes of
(A) Vitamin K (B) Dicoumarol (C)
(A) Vitamin B12 (B) Vitamin B6 Calcium (D) Prothrombin
(C) Vitamin B2 (D) Vitamin B1 295. This vitamin acts as antioxidant.
286. Vitamin B12 initially binds to the proteins known (A) Vitamin A (B) Vitamin D
as (C) Vitamin E (D) Vitamin K
(A) Transcobalamin I(B) R-Proteins 296. This is a photo-labile vitamin.
(C) Transcobalamin II
(D) Intrinsic factor of castle
(C) Niacin (D) Cholecalciferol
287. Extrinsic factor of castle is 297. Convulsive episodes occur when there is a severe
(A) Vitamin B12 (B) Glycoprotein deficiency of
(C) R-Proteins (D) Sigma protein (A) Pyridoxine (B) Folic acid
288. Intrinsic factor of castle is (C) Thiamine (D) Riboflavin
(A) Vitamin B12 (B) Glycoprotein
298. Metastatic classification is seen in
(C) R-Proteins 289. (D) Sigma protein hypervitaminosis:
Pernicious means
(A) A (B) K
(A) Prolonged (B) Dangerous (C) D (D) E
(C) Intermittent (D) Idiopathic 299. The anti vitamin for para aminobenzoic acid is
290. Reduction of D-ribonucleotides to Ddeoxy
(A) Aminopterin (B) Dicoumarol
ribonucleotides in prokaryotes requires
(C) Sulphonamides (D) Thiopanic acid 310. The significant ocular lesion in arbo flovinosis:
300. Several pantothenic acid deficiency in man has (A) Keratomalacia
been reported to cause (B) Bitot’s spots
(A) Burning feet syndrome(B) Scurvy (C) Vascularisation of the cornea
(C) Cataract (D) lachrymal metaplasia
(D) Xerophthalmia 311. Irradiation of foods raises the content of
301. Cholesterol is a precursor in the biogenesis of (A) Vitamin A (B) Vitamin D
(A) Vitamin A (B) Vitamin D (C) Vitamin E (D) Vitamin K
(C) Vitamin E (D) None of these 312. An anti-vitamin for folic acid is
302. This vitamin is a potent antioxidant of vitamin A: (A) Amethoptesin (B) Dicoumarol
(A) Vitamin C (B) Vitamin E (C) Pyrithoamine (D) Isoniazid
(C) Vitamin K (D) Vitamin D 313. Thymine is
303. In retinal rickets, the following hydroxylation of (A) Water soluble vitamin
Vitamin D3 does not take place: (B) Fat soluble vitamin
(A) 25 (B) 1 (C) Purine base
(C) 24 (D) 7 (D) Pyrimidine base
304. The following does not have phosphorous: 314. The anti-vitamin for para amino benzoic acid is
(A) Riboflavin (B) TPP (A) Aminopterrin (B) Dicoumarol
(C) NAD+ (D) COASH (C) INH (D) Sulphonamides
305. Convulsions and delirium could be caused by a 315. The sulphur-containing vitamins among the
severe deficiency of following B-Vitamin is
(A) Thiamine (B) Glutamate (A) Thiamine (B) Riboflavin
(C) Niacin (D) Magnesium (C) Niacin (D) Pyridoxine
316. Taurinuria may be encountered in
306. Rice polishings contain this vitamin:
(A) Permicious anemia (B) Beriberi
(A) Riboflavin (B) Niacin
(C) Pellegra (D) Folate deficiency
(C) Thiamine (D) Vitamin B12
307. In beri beri there will be accumulation of_______ 317. The three vitamins which are specially required
in blood. for proper nerve functions are acid:
(A) Thiamine, niacin and riboflavin
(A) Aceto acetic acid (B) β-OH butyric acid
(B) Thiamine, folic acid, choline
(C) Pyruvic acid (D) Methyl malonic acid
(C) Thiamine, riboflavin, patothenic acid
308. Symptoms of pellagra are (D) Thiamine, pyridoxin, vitamin B12
(A) Dermatitis and diarrhea only
318. This is a rich source for vitamin C.
(B) Dermatitis and dementia only
(A) Rice (B) Milk
(C) Diarrhea, dermatitis and dementia
(D) Diarrhea and elements only (C) Egg (D) Lemon
319. The following vitamin is involved in coenzyme
309. Pyridoxine deficiency leads to
function in transaminations:
(A) Megaloblastic anemia
(A) Nicotinamide (B) Pyridoxine
(B) Aplastic anemia
(C) Thiamine (D) Riboflavin
(C) Hypochromic microcytic anemia
(D) Permicious anemia
VITAMINS 113
320. Methyl malonic aciduria is seen in the deficiency 330. Which of the following statements regarding
of Vitamin A is true?
(A) Vitamin B6 (B) Folic acid (A) It is not an essential Vitamin
(C) Thiamine (D) Vitamin B12 (B) It is related to tocopherol
(C) It is a component of rhodopsin
321. Deficiency of Vitamin C leads to
(D) It is also known as Opsin
(A) Rickets (B) Scurvy (C) Night blindness (D)
All of these 331. Fully activated pyruvate carboxylase depends
upon the presence of
322. If no primer DNA was given, the
(A) Malate and Niacin
followingscientist could not have synthesized
DNA. (B) Acetyl CoA and biotin
(C) Acetyl CoA and thiamine pyrophosphate
(A) Ochoa (B) Okazaki
(D) Oxaloacetate and biotin
(C) Kornberg (D) Monod
332. Pantothenic acid is a constituent of coenzyme
323. Antisterility vitamin is
involved in
(A) Acetylation (B) Decarboxylation
(C) Dehydrogenation (D) Oxidation
324. All the following vitamins give rise to cofactors
333. Biotin is involved in which of the followingtypes
that are phosphorylated in the active form
of reactions?
except
(A) Hydroxylation (B) Carboxylation
(A) Vitamin A (B) Vitamin B1
(C) Decarboxylation (D) Deamination
(C) Vitamin D (D) Vitamin E
334. Which of the following vitamins is theprecurssor
325. Molecular Iron, Fe, is
of CoA?
(A) Stored in the body in combination with
(A) Riboflavin (B) Pantothenate
Ferritin
(C) Thiamine (D) Cobamide
(B) Stored primarily in the spleen
335. Vitamins that function as dinucleotide
(C) Excreted in the urine as Fe2+
derivatives include all the following except
(D) absorbed in the intestine by albumin
(A) Thiamine (B) Niacin
326. Humans most easily tolerate a lack of which of
(C) Nicotinate (D) Vitamin B2
the following nutrients?
(A) Protein (B) Iodine 336. Methyl malonic aciduria is seen in a deficiency of
(C) Carbohydrate (D) Lipid (A) Vitamin B6 (B) Folic acid
327. A deficiency of vitamin B12 causes (C) Thiamine (D) Vitamin B12
(A) Cheliosis(B) Beriberi 337. What is the disease caused by thiamine

(C) Pernicious anemia (D) Scurvy deficiency?
328. In adults a severe deficiency of vitamin Dcauses (A) Nyctalopia (B) Scurvy
(C) Rickets (D) Beriberi
(A) Night blindness (B) Osteomalacia
(C) Rickets (D) Skin cancer 338. Retinol and Retinol binding protein are bound
with this protein:
329. Which of the following vitamins would most
likely become deficient in a person who develops (A) Albumin (B) Prealbumin
a completely carnivorous life style? (C) α-globulin (D) β-globulin
(A) Thiamine (B) Niacin 339. Megaloblastic anemia is caused by the deficiency
(C) Cobalamine (D) Vitamin C of
(A) Folic acid (B) Vitamin B6 350. One of the following is not symptom of
(C) Iron (D) Protein Addison’s disease:
(A) Hypoglycemia (B) Hyponatremia
340. This vitamin acts as anti oxidant.
(C) Hypokalemia (D) Hypochloremia
(C) Vitamin E (D) Vitamin K 351. Gammaxine is an antimetabolite of
341. Calcitriol is
(C) Pyridoxin (D) Inositol
(A) 1-hydroxy cholecalciferol
(B) 25-hydroxy cholecalciferol 352. Pyridoxine deficiency may lead to convulsions as
(C) 24, 25-dihydroxy cholecalciferol it is needed for the synthesis of
(D) 1, 25-dihydroxy cholecalciferol (A) GABA (B) PABA
(C) EFA (D) SAM
342. 1-hydroxylation of 25-hydroxy Vitamin D3 takes
place in 353. Sulpha drugs are antimetabolites of
(A) Liver (B) Kidneys (A) PABA (B) Pyridoxin
(C) Intestine (D) Pancreas (C) Vitamin B2 (D) Pantothenic acid
343. 25-hydroxylation of Vitamin D3 takes place in 354. This abnormal metabolite may be responsible for
(A) Liver (B) Kidneys the neurological manifestation of pernicious
anemia.
(C) Intestines (D) Pancreas
(A) Taurine (B) Methyl malonic acid
344. Hydroxylation of 25-hydroxy cholecalciferol is
(C) Xanthurenic acid (D) Phenyl pyruvic acid
promoted by
(A) Cytochrome A (B) Panthyroid 355. Choline is not required for the formation of
hormone (A) Lecithins(B) Acetyl choline
(C) Cytochrome b (D) cAMP (C) Sphingomyelin (D) Cholic acid
345. The egg injury factor in raw egg white is 356. Isonicotinic acid hydrazide given in the
(A) Biotin (B) Avidin (C) Albumin (D) treatment of tuberculosis may lead to a
Calcium salts deficiency of
(A) Vitamin A (B) Pyridoxin
346. The following has cyanide:
(C) Folate (D) Inositol
(A) Vitamin B12
(B) Adenyl cobamide 357. Steroidal prohormone is
(C) Benzimidazole cobamide (A) Vitamin A (B) Vitamin C
(D) Methyl cobamide (C) Vitamin D (D) None of these
347. The human species can biosynthesize 358. A deficiency of folate leads to
(A) Vitamin C (B) Vitamin B12 (A) Megaloblastic anemia(B) Aplastic
anemia
(C) Thiamine (D) Niacin
(C) Pernicious anemia
348. Retina contains this photo sensitive pigment. (D) Hypochromic microcytic anemia
(A) Rhodopsin (B) Opsin
359. Deficiency of Iron leads to
(C) Retinol (D) Malanin
(A) Megaloblastic anemia(B) Aplastic
349. Antixerophthalmic vitamin is anemia
(A) Vitamin B1 (B) Vitamin B2 (C) Pernicious anemia
(C) Vitamin B6 (D) Vitamin A (D) Hypochromic microcytic anemia
360. Corrinoid coenzymes are coenzymes of
VITAMINS 113
(A) Vitamin B6 (B) Vitamin B12 370. This Vitamin acts as antioxidant:
(C) Vitamin B2 (D) Vitamin B1 (A) Vitamin A (B) Vitamin D
361. Vitamin B12 initially binds to the proteins known
as 371. This is photo labile vitamin:
(A) Transcobalamin I(B) R-proteins (A) Thiamine (B) Riboflavin
(C) Transcobalamin II (C) Niacin (D) Cholecalciferol
(D) Intrinsic factor of castle 372. Convulsive episodes occur when there is a severe
362. Extrinsic factor of castle is deficiency of:
(A) Vitamin B12 (B) Glycoprotein (A) Pyridoxine (B) Folic acid
(C) R-proteins (D) Sigma protein (C) Thiamine (D) Riboflavin
363. Intrinsic factor of castle is 373. Metastatic calcification is seen in

hypervitaminosis:
(A) Vitamin B12 (B) Glycoprotein
(C) R-proteins (D) Sigma protein (A) A (B) K
(C) D (D) E
364. Pernicious means
374. The anti-vitamin for para amino benzoic acid is
(A) Prolonged (B) Dangerous
(C) Intermittent (D) Idiopathic (A) Aminopterin (B) Dicoumasol
(C) Sulphanomides (D) Thiopamic acid
365. Reduction of D-ribonucleotides to D-
deoxyribonucleotides in prokaryotes requires 375. Severe patothemic acid deficiency in man has
been reported to cause
(A) 5, 6 dimethyl benzimindazole cobamide
(B) Thiredoxin (A) Burning feet syndrome(B) Scurvy
(C) Tetra hydrobiopterin (C) Cataract
(D) Tetra hydrofolate (D) Xeropththalmia
366. Antirachitic vitamin is 376. Cholesterol is a precursor in the biogenesisof
(A) Vitamin A (B) Vitamin D (A) Vitamin A (B) Vitamin D

(C) Vitamin E (D) Vitamin K (C) Vitamin E (D) None of these
367. Angular stomatitis is due to 377. Which of the vitamins is a potent antioxidant of
Vitamin A?
(A) Ariboflavinosis
(B) Deficiency of Vitamin C (A) Vitamin C (B) Vitamin E
(C) Deficiency of Vitamin B1 (C) Vitamin K (D) Vitamin D
(D) Deficiency of folate 378. In renal rickets, the following hydroxylation of
Vitamin D3 does not take place:
368. One of the main functions of Vitamin K isthe
cofactor for (A) 25 (B) 1
(C) 24 (D) 7
(A) Carboxylase for the formation of γ--
carboxy glutamate 379. Which of the following does not have
(B) Methylation by S-adenosyl methionine phosphorous?
(C) Carboxylation by biotin (A) Riboflavin (B) TPP
+
(D) One carbon transfer by tetra (C) NAD (D) CaASH
hydrofolate
380. Rice-polishings contain whcih of the following
369. Prothrombin time is prolonged by administering Vitamin?
(A) Vitamin K (B) Dicoumarol (C) (A) Riboflavin (B) Niacin
Calcium (D) Prothrombin (C) Thiamine (D) Vitamin B12
381. In beri beri there will be accumulation (A) Thiamine, Niacin and Riboflavin
of_________ in blood. (B) Thiamin, Folic acid, Choline
(A) Aceto acetic acid (C) Thiamine, Riboflavin, Pantothenic acid
(B) β−hydroxy butyric acid (D) Thiamine, Pyridoxin, Vitamin B12
(C) Pyruvic acid
391. This is a rich source for Vitamin C:
(D) Methyl malonic acid
(A) Rice (B) Milk
382. Symptoms of pellagra are (C) Egg (D) Lemon
(A) Dermatitis and diarrhea only
392. Which ot the following vitamin is involved in
(B) Dermatitis and Dermentia only coenzyme function in transaminations?
(C) Diarrhea and dermentia only
(A) Nicotinamide (B) Pyridoxine
(D) Diarrhea, Dermatitis and dementia
(C) Thiamine (D) Riboflavin
383. Pyridoxine deficiency leads to
393. Methyl malonic aciduria is seen in a deficiency of
(A) Megaloblastic anemia
(A) Vitamin B6 (B) Folic acid
(B) Aplastic anemia
(C) Hypochromic microcytic anemia (C) Thiamine (D) Vitamin B12
(D) Pernicious anemia 394. In pernicious anemia, Urine contains
384. The significant ocular lesion in a riboflavinosis is highamounts of
(A) Keratomalacia (A) Methyl malonic acid(B) FIGLU

(B) Bitot’s spots (C) VMA (D) 5 HIAA
(C) Vascularisation of the cornea 395. Anti sterility Vitamin is
(D) Lachrynal metaplasia (A) Vitamin B1 (B) Vitamin B2
385. An anti-vitamin for folic acid is (C) Vitamin E (D) Vitamin K
(A) Aminopterin (B) Dicoumarol 396. Biotin deficiency is characterized by the
(C) Pyrithiamine (D) Isoniazid following except
386. Thiamine is (A) Muscular pain (B) Anaemia
(A) Water-soluble vitamin (C) Nausea (D) Dermatitis
(B) Fat soluble vitamin 397. Deficiency of thiamine causes
(C) Purine base (A) Beri beri (B) Scurvy (C) Night blindness
(D) Pyrimidine base (D) Rickets
387. The anti-vitamin for para amino benzoic acid is 398. Deficiency of Vitamin D leads to
(A) Aminopterin (B) Dicoumarol (A) Rickets (B) Osteomalacia (C)
(C) INH (D) Sulphanomides Xeropthalmia (D) Both (A) and (B)
388. The sulphur containing vitamins among the 399. The vitamin that is useful in cancer is
following B Vitamin is (A) A (B) B complex (C) C (D) E
(A) Thiamine (B) Riboflavin 400. Vitamin A over dosage causes injury to
(C) Niacin (D) Pyridoxine
(A) Mitochondria (B) Microtubules
389. Taurinuria may be encountered in (C) Lysosomes (D) E.R
(A) Pernicious anemia (B) Beriberi 401. Which is a pro vitamin or vitamin that has
(C) Pellegra (D) Folate deficiency antioxidant properties?
390. The three vitamins which are specially required (A) Beta carotene (B) Vitamin E
for proper nerve functions are (C) Vitamin C (D) Vitamin D
VITAMINS 113
402. The vitamin required for carboxylation reaction (C) Vitamin B1 (D) Vitamin A
is
412. Vitamin essential for transamination is
(A) B1 (B) B2
(C) Biotin (D) Vitamin B12
(C) B6 (D) B12
403. Biological activity of tocopherols has been
attributed in part to their action as 413. The action of Vitamin K in formation of clotting
(A) Antioxidant factor is through
(B) Anticoagulents (A) Post transcription
(C) Provitamin (B) Post translation
(D) Carriers in electron transport system (C) Golgi complex
(D) Endoplasmic reticulum
404. Biotin is essential for
(A) Translation (B) Carboxylation 414. Vitamin necessary for CoA synthesis:
(C) Hydroxylation (D) Transamination (A) Pantothenic acid (B) Vitamin C
405. Which of the following vitamin act as a (C) B6 (D) B12

respiratory catalyst? 415. Cofactor for transamination is
(A) B2 (B) Pyridoxine (A) Thymine(B) Riboflavin
(C) B12 (D) C (C) Pyridoxine (D) Niacin
406. Metal in Vitamin B12 is 416. During deficiency of thiamine the concentration
(A) Copper (B) Cobalt of the following compound rises in blood and
intracellular fluid:
(C) Iron (D) Zinc
(A) Glycogen (B) Sugar
407. Whole wheat is an excellent source of (C) Amino acids (D) Pyruvic acid
(A) Vitamin D (B) Vitamin C
417. The conversion of carotenoids to Vitamin A takes
(C) Vitamin A (D) Thiamine
place in
408. Vitamin used in the treatment of homocystinuria (A) Intestine(B) Liver
is (C) Kidney (D) Skin
(A) B1 (B) B5
418. Man cannot synthesize vitamin:
(C) B12 (D) B6 (A) A (B) B
409. Which of the following is not a componentof (C) C (D) D
coenzyme A?
419. Vitamin A is required for the formationof a light
(A) Pantothenic acid (B) Adenylic acid receptor protein known as
(C) Acetic acid (D) Sulfhydryl group (A) Globulin (B) Lypoprotein
410. The most active form of Vitamin D is (C) Chomoprotein (D) Rhodospin
(A) 25-Hydroxycholecalciferol 420. Excessive vitamin A in children produces
(B) 1, 25-dihydroxycholecalciferol (A) Irritability (B) Anorexia
(C) 25-dihydroxyergocalciferol (C) Headache (D) All of these
(D) None of these
421. Tocopherols prevent the oxidation of
411. The important part in the structure of
flavoprotein is
(C) Vitamin K (D) Vitamin C
422. Vitamin K regulates the synthesis of (C) Methyl malonic acid

bloodclotting factors. (D) Urocanic acid
(A) VII (B) IX
(C) X (D) All of these
423. The colour of cyanomethmoglobin is
(A) Pale yellow (B) Pink
(C) Brown (D) Bright red
424. Transketolase activity is affected in
(A) Bitoin deficiency
(B) Pyridoxine deficiency
(C) PABA deficiency
(D) Thiamine deficiency
425. The hydrolysis of glucose-6-PO 4 is catalyzed by a
phosphatase that is not found in which of the
following?
(A) Liver (B) Kidney
(C) Muscle (D) Small intestine
426. Vitamin K2 was originally isolated from
(A) Soyabean (B) Putrid fishmeal
(C) Alfa alfa (D) Oysters
427. The following form of vitamin A is used in the
visual cycle:
(A) Retinol (B) Retinoic acid
(C) Retinaldehyde (D) Retinyl acetate
428. Increased carbohydrate consumption increases
the dietary requirement for
(A) Thiamine (B) Riboflavine
(C) Pyridoxine (D) Folic acid
429. Increased protein intake is accompanied by an
increased dietary requirement for
(A) Thiamine (B) Riboflavine
(C) Folic acid (D) Nicotininic acid
430. The deficiency of which one of the following
vitamin causes creatinuria?
(A) Vitamin E (B) Vitamin K
(C) Vitamin A (D) Vitamin B6
431. A biochemical indication of vitamin B12 deficiency

can be obtained by measuring the urinary
excretion of
(A) Pyruvic acid
(B) Malic acid
ANSWERS
1. A 2. B 3. A 4. A 5. A 6. A 7. D 8. A 9. D 10. A 11. B 12. B
13. A 14. D 15. B 16. C 17. A 18. A
19. A 20. A 21. B 22. D 23. A 24. C
25. C 26. A 27. A 28. A 29. C 30. A
31. D 32. A 33. C 34. C 35. B 36. A
37. C 38. B 39. A 40. D 41. D 42. D
43. A 44. A 45. B 46. C 47. A 48. C
49. B 50. A 51. D 52. C 53. C 54. C
55. D 56. B 57. C 58. A 59. A 60. D
61. B 62. B 63. B 64. B 65. A 66.A 67. B 68. C 69. D 70. A 71. A 72. C
73. C 74. B 75. C 76. A 77. A 78. A
79. C 80. D 81. A 82. D 83. C 84. A
85. C 86. A 87. C 88. A 89. D 90. C
91. A 92. A 93. D 94. A 95. A 96. A 97. C 98. D 99. C 100. B 101. B 102. B 103. D 104. C 105. C 106. B 107. C
108. D 109. A 110. D 111. A 112. D 113. B 114. D 115. A 116. D 117. D 118. C 119. C 120. B 121. C 122. A
123. D 124. D 125. C 126. C
127. A 128. A 129. C 130. D131. A 132. A 133. D 134. C 135. D 136. D 137. B 138. C
139. C 140. B 141. B 142. B143. D 144. D 145. C 146. D 147. D 148. B 149. D 150. A
151. C 152. D 153. B 154. D155. C 156. D 157. A 158. D 159. D 160. D 161. C 162. C
163. C 164. A 165. D 166. C167. C 168. D 169. A 170. B 171. C 172. B 173. D 174. B
175. D 176. B 177. D 178. B179. A 180. A 181. D 182. D 183. B 184. A 185. B 186. C
187. D 188. C 189. D 190. C 191. C 192. B
193. C 194. D 195. D 196. C 197. B 198. B
199. B 200. C 201. C 202. D 203. A 204. C 205. A 206. C 207. D 208. D 209. B 210. C
211. C 212. A 213. C 214. D 215. A 216. D
217. D 218. C 219. D 220. D 221. A 222. D 223. B 224. D 225. D 226. C 227. A 228. A 229. B 230. C 231. B
232. A 233. D 234. D 235. B 236. C 237. B 238. D 239. C 240. B 241. B 242. B 243. C 244. C 245. A 246. C 247.
D 248. A 249. B 250. C 251. D 252. C
253. B 254. D 255. C 256. B 257. C 258. C 259. A 260. B 261. D 262. D 263. B 264. A 265. C 266. D 267. B 268.
A 269. B 270. B 271. A 272. D 273. A 274. D 275. C 276. D
277. A 278. C 279. A 280. D 281. D 282. B 283. B 284. A 285. D 286. B 287. B 288. A
289. B 290. B 291. A 292. B 293. A 294. A
295. B 296. C 297. B 298. A 299. C 300. C 301. A 302. B 303. B 304. A 305. D 306. D 307. C 308. C 309. C 310.
B 311. C 312. A
313. D 314. D 315. A 316. A 317. D 318. D
319. B 320. D 321. C 322. C 323. C 324. B
325. A 326. C 327. C 328. B 329. D 330. C
331. B 332. A 333. B 334. B 335. A 336. D 337. D 338. B 339. A 340. D 341. D 342. B 343. A 344. B 345. B 346.
A 347. D 348. A 349. D 350. C 351. D 352. A 353. A 354. B
355. D 356. B 357. C 358. A 359. D 360. B
361. B 362. A 363. B 364. B 365. A 366. B
367. A 368. A 369. B 370. C 371. B 372. A
373.C 374. C 375. A 376. B 377. B 378. B 379. A 380. C 381. C 382. D 383. C 384. C
385. A 386. D 387. D 388. A 389. A 390. D 391. D 392. B 393. D 394. A 395. C 396. B 397. A 398. D 399. A
400. C 401. B 402. C
403. B 404. B 405. A 406. B 407. D 408. D 409. C 410. A 411. B 412. C 413. B 414. A 415. C 416. D 417. A 418.
C 419. D 420. D 421. A 422. D 423. D 424. D 425. C 426. B
427. C 428. A 429. A 430. C 431. C
EXPLANATIONS FOR THE ANSWERS 187. D Pyridoxal, pyridoxamine and pyridoxine are
collectively known as vitamin B6. All three
7. D The four fat soluble vitamins (A, D, E, K) are
compounds are efficiently converted to the
soluble in fats, oils and fat solvents (alcohol,
biologically active form of vitamin B6,
acetone etc.). Their occurrence in the diet,
pyridoxal phosphate. This conversion is
absorption and transport are associated with
catalyzed by the ATP requiring enzyme,
fat. All the fat soluble vitamins contain one or
pyridoxal kinase.
more of isoprene units (5 carbon units). They
217. D Isoniazid (anti-tuberculosis drug) and
can be stored in liver and adipose tissue.
penicillamine (used to treat rheumatoid
40. D Vitamin A is essential to maintain healthy
epithelial tissues and proper immunity. arthritis and cystinurias) are two drugs that
Retinol and retinoic acid functions like complex with pyridoxal and pyridoxal
steroid hormones. They regulate protein phosphate resulting in a deficiency in this
synthesis and thus are involved in cell growth vitamin.
and differentiation. βCarotene functions as 250. C The liver can store up to six years worth of
an antioxidant and reduces the risk for heart vitamin B12, hence deficiencies in this vitamin
attack, cancers etc. are rare. Penicious anemia is a megaloblastic
77. A The recommended dietary allowances for anemia resulting from vitamin B 12 deficiency
vitamin D is around 400 I.U. In countries with that develops as a result a lack of intrinsic
good sunlight (like India), it is much lower. factor in the stomach leading to
i.e., 200 I.U. The good sources include fatty malabsorption of the vitamin.
fish, fish liver oils, egg yolk. 291. A Biotin is also called anti-egg white injury factor
110. D The earliest symptoms of thiamin deficiency because, egg white contains a protein called
include constipation, appetite suppression, avidin, which combines with biotin in the
nausea as well as mental depression, intestinal tract and prevents absorption of
peripheral neuropathy and fatigue. Chronic biotin from intestines.
thiamin deficiency leads to more severe 321. B Deficiency in Vitamin C leads to the disease
neurological symptoms including ataxia, scurvy due to the role of the vitamin in the
mental confusion and loss of eye posttranslational modification of collagens.
coordination. Other clinical symptoms of Scurvy is characterized by easily bruised skin,
prolonged thiamin deficiency are related to muscle fatigue, soft swollen gums, decreased
cardiovascular and muscular defects. The wound healing and hemorraging,
severe thiamin deficiency disease is known as osteoporosis and anemia.
Beriberi. 357. C Vitamin D is a steroid prohormone. It is
149. D Riboflavin deficiency is often seen in chronic represented by steroids that occur in
alcoholics due to their poor diabetic habits. animals, plants and yeast. Active form of the
Symptoms associated with riboflavin hormone is 1, 25-dihydroxy vitamin D 3 (1, 25-
deficiency include, glossitis, seborrhea, (OH)2D3, also termed calcitriol). Calcitriol
angular stomatitis, cheilosis and functions primarily to regulate calcium and
photophobia. Riboflavin decomposes when phosphorous homeostasis.
exposed to visible light.
VITAMINS 113
398. D The main symptom of vitamin D deficiency in

children is rickets and in adults is
osteomalacia.
Rickets is characterized by improper
mineralization during the development of
the bones resulting in soft bones.
Osteomalacia is characterized by
demineralization of previously formed bone
leading to increased softness and
susceptibility to fracture.
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CHAPTER 6
ENZYMES
1. The tor
co y
mp dru
ou gs,s
nd uch
whi as
ch asp
has irin
the act
low by
est inhi
den biti
sity ng
is the
acti
(A) Chyl
vity
omic
of
ron
the
(B)
enz
β-
ym
Lipo
e:
prot
ein (A) Lipox
ygen
(C) α
ase
Lipoprotein
(B)
(D) pre
Cyclo
Lipoprotein
oxyg
2. No enas
n e
ste (C)
roi Phos
dal pholi
an pase
ti A2
infl (D)
am Lipo
ma prot
ein me
lipas is
e (A) Func
3. Fro tiona
m l unit
ara (B)
chi Apo
do enzy
nat me
e, (C)
syn Coenzyme
the (D) All of
sis these
of 5. Ga
pro uch
sta er’s
gla dis
ndi eas
ns e is
is due
cat to
aly the
sed de
by fici
(A) Cyclo enc
oxyg yof
enas the
e enz
(B) Lipox ym
ygen e:
ase
(A) α-
(C) Thro Fuco
mbo sidas
xane e (B)
synt
β-
hase Gala
(D) Isom ctosi
eras dase
e
(C) β-
4. A Glucosidase
Hol (D)
oen Sphingomy
zy elinase
6. Nei the
ma de
nn- fici
Pic enc
k yof
dis the
eas enz
e is ym
due e:
to
(A) Cera
the
mide
de
lacto
fici
sidas
enc
e
y of
the (B) Cera
enz mida
ym se
e: (C) β-
(A) Hexo Gala
sami ctosi
nidas dase
e A (D) GM1
and β-
B Gala
(B) Cera ctosi
mida dase
se
(C) Cera 8. Fab
mide ry’s
lacto dis
sidas eas
e e is
due
(D) Sphi
to
ngo
the
myel
de
inase
fici
7. Kra enc
bbe y
’s oft
dis he
eas enz
e is ym
due e:
to
(A) Cera β-
mide Gluc
trihe ocer
xosid
ebro
ase
sidas
(B) Gala
e (D)
ctoc
ereb Aryls
rosid ulph
ase atase
(C) Phyt A.
anic
10. A
acid
syn
oxid
the
ase
tic
(D) Sphi nuc
ngo leo
myel tid
inase e
ana
9. Far
log
ber
ue,
’s
use
dis
d
eas
ino
e is
rga
due
n
to
tra
the
nsp
de
lan
fici
tati
enc
on
yof
as
the
a
enz
sup
ym
pre
e:
sso
(A) α- r of
Gala im
ctosi mu
dase nol
(B) Cera ogi
c
mida
rej
se(C) ecti
on oxid
of ase
gra (C) Panc
fts reati
is c
(A) Theo lipas
phyll e
ine (D) Hexo
kinas
(B) Cytar
e
abin
e 12. Enz
(C) 4- ym
Hydr es,
oxyp whi
yraz ch
olop are
yrimi pro
dine duc
ed
(D) 6-
in
Merc
ina
apto
ctiv
purin
efo
e
rm
11. Exa
in
mp
the
le
livi
of
ng
an
cell
ext
s,
rac
are
ellu
call
lar
ed
enz
ym (A) Papa
e is in (B)
Lysoz
(A) Lacta
ymes
te
(C)
dehy
Apoenzyme
drog
s (D)
enas
Proenzyme
e
s
(B) Cyto
chro 13. An
me exa
mp m
le a
of r
liga a
ses s
is e
(A) Succi (C) C
nate h
thiok o
inase l
(B) Alani i
ne n
race e
mase s
t
(C) Fum
e
aras
r
e
a
(D) Aldol
s
ase
e
14 An (D) A
example of m
lyases is y
(A) G l
l a
u s
t e
a 15. Ac
m tiv
i ati
n on
e or
ina
s ctiv
y ati
n on
t of
h cer
e tai
t n
a key
s reg
e ula
(B) F tor
u y
enz ter
ym to
es aca
is rbo
acc n-
om car
plis bo
he n
d do
by ubl
cov e
ale bo
nt nd
mo or
difi re
cati mo
on ve
of wa
the ter
am to
ino cre
aci ate
d: a
(A) Tyr do
osi ubl
ne e
(B) bo
Ph nd
en wit
ylal ho
ani ut
ne bre
aki
(C) Lysine
ng
(D) Serine
the
16. Th bo
e nd
enz is
ym (A) Hy
e dra
wh tas
ich e
can (B)
ad Hy
d dro
wa
xyl tot
ase hat
(C) of
Hydrolase sub
(D) sta
Esterase nce
onl
17. Fis y
che aft
r’s er
‘loc int
k era
an cti
d on.
key
(B) Th
’
e
mo
ac
del
tiv
of
e
the
sit
enz
e is
ym
co
e
mp
acti
le
on
me
im
nta
pli
ry
es
in
tha
sha
t
pe
(A) Th tot
e hat
ac of
tiv sub
e sta
sit nce
e is (C) Su
co bst
mp rat
le es
me cha
nta ng
ry e
in co
sha nfo
pe
rm Mi
ati cha
on elis
pri -
or Me
to nte
ac n
tiv eq
esi ua
te tio
int n,
era Km
cti an
on d
(D) Th Vm
e ax
ac can
tiv be
e det
sit er
e is mi
fle ne
xibl d
e wh
an en
d V is
adj the
ust rea
s cti
tos on
ub vel
str oci
ate ty
18. Fro at
m sub
the str
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25. In reversible non-competitive enzymeactivity (A) Increases Km (B) Decreases Km

inhibition (C) Does not effect Km (D) Increases Km
(A) Vmax is increased (B) Km is increased 32. An enzyme catalyzing oxidoreduction,using
(C) Km is decreased oxygen as hydrogen acceptor is
(D) Concentration of active enzyme is reduced (A) Cytochrome oxidase
(B) Lactate dehydrogenase(C) Malate
26. In reversible non-competitive enzymeactivity dehydrogenase
inhibition
(A) Inhibitor bears structural resemblance
tosubstrate 33. The enzyme using some other substance,not
oxygen as hydrogen acceptor is
(B) Inhibitor lowers the maximum
velocityattainable with a given amount of (A) Tyrosinase
enzyme (B) Succinate dehydrogenase
(C) Km is increased (C) Uricase
(D) Km is decreased (D) Cytochrome oxidase
27. In competitive enzyme activity inhibition 34. An enzyme which uses hydrogen acceptoras
substrate is
(A) The structure of inhibitor generally
resemblesthat of the substrate (A) Xanthine oxidase
(B) Aldehyde oxidase
(B) Inhibitor decreases apparent Km
(C) Catalase
(C) Km remains unaffective
(D) Tryptophan oxygenase
(E) Inhibitor decreases Vmax without affecting Km
35. Enzyme involved in joining together
28. In enzyme kinetics Vmax reflects twosubstrates is
(A) The amount of an active enzyme(B) (A) Glutamine synthetase(B) Aldolase
Substrate concentration (C) Gunaine deaminase
(C) Half the substrate concentration (D) Arginase
(D) Enzyme substrate complex
36. The pH optima of most of the enzymes is
29. In enzyme kinetics Km implies (A) Between 2 and 4 (B) Between 5 and 9
(A) The substrate concentration that gives one (C) Between 8 and 12(D) Above 12
half
37. Coenzymes are
Vmax
(A) Heat stable, dialyzable, non protein
(B) The dissocation constant for the
organicmolecules
enzymesubstrate comples
(B) Soluble, colloidal, protein molecules
(C) Concentration of enzyme
(C) Structural analogue of enzymes
(D) Half of the substrate concentration
requiredto achieve Vmax (D) Different forms of enzymes
30. In competitive enzyme activity inhibition 38. An example of hydrogen transferringcoenzyme is
(A) Apparent Km is decreased (A) CoA (B) NAD+

(C) Biotin (D) TPP
(B) Apparent Km is increased
(C) Vmax is increased 39. An example of group transferringcoenzyme is
(A) NAD+ (B) NADP+
(D) Vmax is decreased
(C) FAD (D) CoA
31. In non competitive enzyme activity inhibition,
40. Cocarboxylase is
inhibitor
(A) Thiamine pyrophosphate
ENZYMES 141
(B) Pyridoxal phosphate (A) 60.0–250.0 IU/L (B) 4.0–17.0 IU/L

(C) Biotin (C) 3.0–15.0 IU/L (D) 0.1–14.0 IU/L
(D) CoA 50. The normal serum acid phosphataseactivity
41. A coenzyme containing non aromatichetero ring ranges from
is (A) 5.0–13.0 KA units/100 ml(B) 1.0–5.0 KA
(A) ATP(B) NAD units/100 ml
(C) FMN (D) Biotin (C) 13.0–18.0 KA units/100 ml
(D) 0.2–0.8 KA units/100 ml
42. A coenzyme containing aromatic heteroring is
(A) TPP (B) Lipoic acid 51. The normal serum alkaline phosphataseactivity
ranges from
(C) Coenzyme Q (D) Biotin
(A) 1.0–5.0 KA units/100 ml
43. Isoenzymes are (B) 5.0–13.0 KA units/100 ml
(A) Chemically, immunologically and (C) 0.8–2.3 KA units/100 ml
electrophoretically different forms of an (D) 13.0–21.0 KA units/100 ml
enzyme
(B) Different forms of an enzyme similar in 52. In early stages of myocardial ischemia themost
allproperties sensitive indicator is the measurement of the
activity of
(C) Catalysing different reactions
(D) Having the same quaternary structures (A) CPK(B) SGPT
likethe enzymes (C) SGOT (D) LDH
44. Isoenzymes can be characterized by 53. Serum acid phosphatase level increasesin
(A) Proteins lacking enzymatic activity that (A) Metastatic carcinoma of prostate
arenecessary for the activation of enzymes (B) Myocardial infarction
(B) Proteolytic enzymes activated by hydrolysis (C) Wilson’s disease
(C) Enzymes with identical primary structure (D) Liver diseases
(D) Similar enzymes that catalyse 54. Serum alkaline phosphatase levelincreases in
differentreaction
(A) Hypothyroidism
45. The isoenzymes of LDH (B) Carcinoma of prostate
(A) Differ only in a single amino acid (C) Hyperparathyroidism
(B) Differ in catalytic activity (D) Myocardial ischemia
(C) Exist in 5 forms depending on M and
55. Serum lipase level increases in
Hmonomer contents
(D) Occur as monomers (A) Paget’s disease (B) Gaucher’s disease
(C) Acute pancreatitis (D) Diabetes mellitus
46. The normal value of CPK in serum variesbetween
56. Serum ferroxidase level decreases in
(A) 4–60 IU/L (B) 60–250 IU/L
(C) 4–17 IU/L (D) > 350 IU/L (A) Gaucher’s disease (B) Cirrhosis of liver
(C) Acute pancreatitis (D) Wilson’s disease
47. Factors affecting enzyme activity: 57. The isoenzymes LDH5 is elevated in
(A) Concentration (B) pH (A) Myocardial infarction
(C) Temperature (D) All of these (B) Peptic ulcer
48. The normal serum GOT activity rangesfrom (C) Liver disease
(A) 3.0–15.0 IU/L (B) 4.0–17.0 IU/L (D) Infectious diseases
(C) 4.0–60.0 IU/L (D) 0.9–4.0 IU/L
58. On the third day of onset of acute myocardial
49. The normal GPT activity ranges from infarction the enzyme elevated is
(A) Serum AST (B) Serum CK (A) 1.0–2.0 (B) 5.2–6.0

(C) Serum LDH (D) Serum ALT (C) 5.8–6.2 (D) 5.4–6.0
59. LDH1 and LDH2 are elevated in 69. The pH optima for lactase is
(A) Myocardial infarction (A) 1.0-2.0 (B) 5.4–6.0
(B) Liver disease (C) 5.0–7.0 (D) 5.8–6.2
(C) Kidney disease 70. The substrate for amylase is
(D) Brain disease
(A) Cane sugar (B) Starch
60. The CK isoenzymes present in cardiacmuscle is (C) Lactose (D) Ribose
(A) BB and MB (B) MM and MB 71. The ion which activates salivary amylaseactivity
(C) BB only (D) MB only is
61. In acute pancreatitis, the enzyme raisedin first (A) Chloride (B) Bicarbonate
five days is (C) Sodium (D) Potassium
(A) Serum amylase 72. The pancreatic amylase activity is increased in
(B) Serum lactic dehydrogenase the presence of
(C) Urinary lipase (A) Hydrochloric acid (B) Bile salts
(D) Urinary amylase (C) Thiocyanate ions (D) Calcium ions
62. Acute pancreatitis is characterised by 73. A carbohydrate which can not be digested in
(A) Lack of synthesis of zymogen enzymes human gut is
(B) Continuous release of zymogen enzymes (A) Cellulose (B) Starch
intothe gut (C) Glycogen (D) Maltose
(C) Premature activation of zymogen enzymes
74. The sugar absorbed by facilitateddiffusion and
(D) Inactivation of zymogen enzymes requiring Na independent transporter is
63. An example of functional plasma enzyme is (A) Glucose (B) Fructose
(A) Lipoprotein lipase(B) Amylase (C) Galactose (D) Ribose
(C) Aminotransferase 75. In the intestine the rate of absorption ishighest
(D) Lactate dehydrogenase for
64. A non-functional plasma enzyme is (A) Glucose and galactose
(A) Psudocholinesterase (B) Fructose and mannose
(B) Lipoprotein lipase (C) Fructose and pentose
(C) Proenzyme of blood coagulation (D) Mannose and pentose
(D) Lipase 76. Glucose absorption is promoted by
65. The pH optima for salivary analyse is (A) Vitamin A (B) Thiamin
(A) 6.6–6.8 (B) 2.0–7.5 (C) Vitamin C (D) Vitamin K
(C) 7.9 (D) 8.6 77. The harmone acting directly on intestinalmucosa
66. The pH optima for pancreatic analyse is and stimulating glucose absorption is
(A) 4.0 (B) 7.1 (A) Insulin (B) Glucagon

(C) 7.9 (D) 8.6 (C) Thyroxine (D) Vasopressin
67. The pH optima for sucrase is 78. Given that the standard free energychange (∆G°)
for the hydrolysis of ATP is –7.3 K cal/mol and
(A) 5.0–7.0 (B) 5.8–6.2
that for the hydrolysis of Glucose 6-phosphate is
(C) 5.4–6.0 (D) 8.6 –3.3 Kcal/mol, the ∆G° for the phosphorylation
68. The pH optima for maltase is
ENZYMES 141
of glucose is Glucose + ATP → Glucose 6– (A) Displacement of the

Phosphate + ADP. oxyhemoglobindissociation curve to the left
(A) –10.6 Kcal/mol (B) –7.3 Kcal/mol (B) Displacement of the
oxyhemoglobindissociation curve to the
(C) –4.0 Kcal/mol (D) +4.0 Kcal/mol
right
79. At low blood glucose concentration, brainbut not (C) No change in oxy hemoglobin dissociation
liver will take up glucose. It is due to the curve(D) Increased affinity for oxygen
(A) Low Km of hexokinase
87. Erythrocytes under normal conditions
(B) Low Km of glucokinase andmicroorganisms under anaerobic conditions
(C) Specificity of glucokinase may accumulate
(D) Blood brain barrier (A) NADPH
80. In the reaction below, Nu TP stands forNuTP + (B) Pyruvate
glucose → Glucose 6–Phosphate + NuDP. (C) Phosphoenolpyruvate
(A) ATP(B) CTP (D) Lactate
(C) GTP (D) UTP 88. Enzymes leading to the high
81. In the figures shown below, fructose energyphosphorylation of substrates during
glycolysis include which of the following?
1,6biphosphate is located at point:
(A) A (B) B (C) C (D) D (A) Phosphoglycerate kinase
(B) Enolase
82. The enzyme of the glycolic pathway,sensitive to (C) Pyruvate Kinase
inhibiton by fluoride ions is
(D) Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate
(A) Hexokinase (B) Aldolase dehydrogenase
(C) Enolase (D) Pyruvate kinase
89. Lineweaver – Burk double reciprocal plotis
83. In glycolytic pathway, iodacetate inhibitsthe related to
activity of the enzyme: (A) Substrate concentration
(A) Phosphotriose isomerase (B) Enzyme activity
(B) Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate (C) Temperature
dehydrogenase (D) Both (A) and (B)
(C) Pyruvate kinase 90. Phosphofructokinase key enzyme inglycolysis is
(D) Phosphofructokinase inhibited by
84. In the glycolytic pathway, enolpyruvateis (A) Citrate and ATP (B) AMP
converted to ketopyruvate by
(C) ADP (D) TMP
(A) Pyruvate kinase
(B) Phosphoenolpyruvate 91. One of the enzymes regulating glycolysisis
(C) Pyruvate dehydrogenase (A) Phosphofructokinase
(D) Spontaneously (B) Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate
dehydrogenase
85. In erythrocytes, 2, 3-biphosphoglycerateis
(C) Phosphotriose isomerase
derived from the intermediate:
(D) Phosphohexose isomerase
(A) Glyeraldehyde-3-phosphate
(B) 1, 3-Biphosphoglycerate 92. Hexokinase is inhibited in an allostericmanner by
(C) 3-Phosphoglycerate (A) Glucose-6-Phosphate
(D) 2-Phosphoglycerate (B) Glucose-1-Phosphate(C) Fructose-6-
phosphate
86. 2, 3-Biphosphoglycerate in high concentrations,
combines with hemoglobin, causes (D) Fructose-1, 6-biphosphate
93. A reaction which may be considered (C) Lipolysis (D) Glycolysis

anisomerisation is
101. The enzymes of the citric acid cycle are located in
(A) Glucose 6-Phosphate fructose 6 phosphate (A) Mitochondrial matrix
(B) 3-Phosphoglycerate 2-phosphoglycerate (B) Extramitochondrial soluble fraction of the
cell
(C) 2-phosphoglycerate phosphoenolpyruvate (C) Nucleus
(D) Pyruvate Lactate (D) Endoplasmic reticulum
102. The initial step of the citric acid cycle is
94. The net number of ATP formed per moleof
glucose in anaerobic glycolysis is (A) Conversion of pyruvate to acetyl-CoA
(A) 1 (B) 2 (B) Condensation of acetyl-CoA with
oxaloacetate(C) Conversion of citrate to
(C) 6 (D) 8
isocitrate
95. Pyruvate dehydrogenase a multienzymecomplex (D) Formation of α-ketoglutarate catalysed by
is required for the production of isocitrate dehydrogenase
(A) Acetyl-CoA 103. The substance which may be considered to play
(B) Lactate a catalytic role in citric acid cycle is
(C) Phosphoenolpyruvate (A) Oxaloacetate (B) Isocitrate
(D) Enolpyruvate (C) Malate (D) Fumarate
96. Dietary deficiency of thiamin inhibits theactivity 104. An enzyme of the citric acid cycle alsofound
of the enzyme: outside the mitochondria is
(A) Pyruvate kinase (A) Isocitrate dehydrogenase
(B) Pyruvate dehydrogenase (B) Citrate synthetase
(C) Phosphofructokinase
(C) α-Ketoglutarate dehydrogenase
(D) Enolase (D) Malate dehydrogenase
97. Pyruvate dehydrogenase activity isinhibited by
105. The reaction catalysed by α-ketoglutarate
(A) Mercury (B) Zinc dehydrogenase in the citric acid cycle requires
(C) Calcium (D) Sodium (A) NAD (B) NADP
98. In the normal resting state of humans,most of (C) ADP (D) ATP
the blood glucose burned as fuel is consumed by
106. If all the enzymes, intermediates andcofactors of
(A) Liver (B) Adipose tissue the citric acid cycle as well as an excess of the
(C) Muscle (D) Brain starting substrate acetylCoA are present and
functional in an organelle free solution at the
99. All the enzymes of glycolysis pathway arefound
appropriate pH, which of the following factors of
in
the citric acid cycle would prove to be rate
(A) Extramitochondrial soluble fraction of the limiting?
cell
(A) Molecular oxygen
(B) Mitochondria
(B) Half life of enzyme
(C) Nucleus
(C) Turnover of intermediates
(D) Reduction of cofactors
100. Most major metabolic pathways are considered
mainly either anabolic or catabolic. Which of the 107. In TCA cycle, oxalosuccinate is convertedto α-
following pathway is most correctly considered ketoglutarate by the enzyme:
to be amphibolic? (A) Fumarase
(A) Citric acid cycle (B) Gluconeogenesis (B) Isocitrate dehydrogenase
(C) Aconitase
ENZYMES 141
(D) Succinase 116. The reaction of Kreb’s cycle which does not
require cofactor of vitamin B group is
108. The enzyme -ketoglutarate dehydrogenase in the
citric acid cycle requires (A) Citrate isocitrate
(A) Lipoate (B) Folate
(B) α-Ketoglutarate succinate
(C) Pyridoxine (D) Inositol
(C) Malate oxaloacetate
109. The example of generation of a high energy
phosphate at the substrate level in the citric acid (D) Succinate fumarate
cycle is the reaction:
117. The coenzyme not involved in the formation of
(A) Isocitrate α-Ketoglutarate acetyl-CoA from pyruvate is
(B) Succinate α-fumarate (A) TPP (B) Biotin

(C) NAD (D) FAD
(C) Malate α-oxaloacetate
118. A carrier molecule in the citric acid cycle is
(D) Succinyl CoA α-Succinate (A) Acetyl-CoA (B) Citrate
110. Fluoroacetate inhibits the reaction of citric acid (C) Oxaloacetate (D) Malate
cycle: 119. A specific inhibitor for succinate dehydrogenase
is
(A) Isocitrate α-Ketoglutarate
(A) Arsenine (B) Arsenite (C) Citrate (D)
(B) Fumarate α-Malate Fluoride 120. The rate of citric acid cycle is
controlled by the allosteric enzyme:
(C) Citrate α-cis-aconitate
(A) Aconitase (B)
(D) Succinate α-fumarate Fumarase (C)
111. Formation of succinyl-CoA from α-Ketoglutarate Fumarase
is inhibited by (D) Malate dehydrogenase
(A) Fluoroacetate (B) Arsenite
121. In the erythrocytes, the net production ofATP
(C) Fluoride (D) Iodoacetate molecules by the Rapport-Leubering pathway is
112. The number of ATP molecules generated for (A) 0 (B) 2
each turn of the citric acid cycle is (C) 4 (D) 8
(A) 8 (B) 12
122. The ratio that most closely approximates the
(C) 24 (D) 38 number of net molecules of ATP formed per
113. Oxidation of one molecule of glucose yields mole of glucose utilized under aerobic conditions
to the net number formed under anaerobic
(A) 12 ATP (B) 24 ATP
conditions is
(C) 38 ATP (D) 38 ATP
(A) 4:1 (B) 13:1
114. Which of the following intermediates of (C) 18:1 (D) 24:1
metabolism can be both a precursor and a
product of glucose? 123. The pathway of glycogen biosynthesis involves a
special nucleotide of glucose. In the reaction
(A) Lactate (B) Pyruvate
below, NuDP stands for
(C) Alanine (D) Acetyl-CoA
NuDP Glucose + glycogenn → NuDP + glycogenn+1
115. Mitochondrial membrane is freely preamble to
(A) ADP (B) GDP
(A) Pyruvate (B) Malate
(C) UDP (D) CDP
(C) Oxaloacetate (D) Fumarate
124. Glucose 6-phosphate is converted to glucose 1- (A) Insulin (B) Glucose

phosphate in a reaction catalysed by the enzyme (C) Mg2+ (D) Cyclic AMP
phosphoglucomutase, which is
132. The hormone activating the glycogen synthase
(A) Phosphorylated
activity is
(B) Dephosphorylated
(C) Phosphorylated-dephosphorylated
(C) Epinephrine (D) ACTH
(D) Phosphorylated-
dephosphorylatedrephosphorylated 133. Characteristic features of active site are
125. The glycogen content of the liver is upto (A) Flexible in nature (B) Site of binding
(A) 6% (B) 8% (C) Acidic (D) Both (A) and (B)
(C) 10% (D) 12% 134. Von Gierke’s disease is characterized bythe
126. In glycogenesis a branch point in themolecule is deficiency of
established by the enzyme (A) Glucose-6-phosphatase
(A) Amylo[1→ 4][1→ 6] transglucosidase (B) α-1→ 4 Glucosidase
(B) α [1→ 4] α [1→ 4] Glucan transferase
(C) 1→ 6 Glucosidase
(C) Amylo [1→ 6] glucosidase
(D) Liver phosphorylase
(D) Glycogen synthase
135. Cori disease (Limit dextrinosis) is caused due to
127. In glycogenolysis, the enzyme which transfers a absence of
trisaccharide unit from one branch to the other
(A) Branching enzyme
exposing 1→ 6 branch point is
(B) Debranching enzyme
(A) Phosphorylase
(C) Glycogen synthase
(B) α-[1→ 4]→ α-[1→ 4]→ Glucan (D) Phosphorylase
transferase
136. Mc Ardle’s syndrome is characterized bythe
(C) Amylo [1→ 6] glucosidase
absence of
(D) Amylo[1→ 4]→ [1→ 6] transglucosidase
(A) Liver phosphorylase
128. In the synthesis of glycogen from glucosethe (B) Muscle phosphorylase
reversible step is (C) Branching enzyme
(A) Glucose → glucose 6-phosphate (D) Debranching enzyme
(B) Glucose 6-phosphate → glucose 1- 137. Pompe’s disease is caused due to deficiency of
phosphate
(A) Lysosomal α-1→4 and 1→6-glucosidase
(C) Glucose 1-phosphate → UDP glucose (B) Glucose-6-phosphatase
(D) UDP glucose → glycogen (C) Glycogen synthase
129. The enzyme glucose-6-phosphatase which (D) Phosphofructokinase
catalyses the conversion of glucose 6-phosphate 138. Amylopectinosis is caused due to absence of
to glucose is not found in
(A) Debranching enzyme
(A) Liver (B) Muscle (B) Branching enzyme
(C) Intestine (D) Kidney (C) Acid maltase
130. Allosteric activator of glycogen synthase is (D) Glucose-6-phosphatase
(A) Glucose (B) Glucose-6-Phosphate 139. Her’s disease is characterized by deficiency of
(C) UTP (D) Glucose-1-phosphate (A) Muscle phosphorylase(B) Liver
131. Action of glycogen synthase is inhibited by phosphorylase
(C) Debranching enzyme
ENZYMES 141
(D) Glycogen synthase (B) Regenerates glucose 6-phosphate

140. Tarui disease is characterized by the deficiency (C) Generates fructose 6-phosphate
of the enzyme: (D) Forms glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate
(A) Liver phosphorylase 148. The pentose phosphate pathway protects
(B) Muscle phosphorylase erythrocytes against hemolysis by assisting the
(C) Muscle and erythrocyte enzyme:
phosphofructokinase(D) Lysosomal acid maltase (A) Superoxide dismutase
141. The hexose monophosphate pathway includes (B) Catalase
the enzyme: (C) Glutathionic peroxidase
(A) Maltase dehydrogenase (D) Cytochrome oxidase
(B) Hexokinase 149. Hemolytic anemia is caused by the deficiency of
(C) α-Ketoglutarate dehydrogenase certain enzymes of the pentose phosphate
(D) Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase pathway, the principal enzyme involved is
142. The hydrogen acceptor used in pentose (A) Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase
phosphate pathway is (B) Aldolase
(A) NAD (B) NADP (C) Fructose 1, 6-bisphosphatase
(C) FAD (D) FMN (D) Phosphohexose isomerase
150. The sites for gluconeogenesis are
143. The enzymes of the pentose phosphate pathway
are found in the (A) Liver and kidney
(A) Cytosol (B) Skin and pancreas
(C) Lung and brain
(B) Mitochondria
(D) Intestine and lens of eye
(C) Nucleus
(D) Endoplasmic reticulum 151. An enzyme involved in gluconeogenesis is
(A) Pyruvate kinase
144. In pentose phosphate pathway, D-ribulose5-
(B) Pyruvate carboxylase
phosphate is converted to D-ribose-5phosphate
by the enzyme: (C) Hexokinase
(D) Phosphohexose isomerase
(A) Fumarase (B) Ketoisomerase
(C) G-6-PD (D) Epimerase 152. The enzyme pyruvate carboxylase is present in
(A) Cytosol (B) Mitochondria
145. The transketolase enzyme in the pentose
(C) Nucleus (D) Golgi bodies
phosphate pathway requires the B vitamin.
(A) Pantothenic acid (B) Thiamin 153. The enzyme phosphoenolpyruvate
carboxykinase catalyses the conversion of
(C) Riboflavin (D) Nicotinic acid
oxaloacetate to phosphoenolpyruvate requires
146. Xylulose-5-phosphate serves as a donar of active (A) ATP (B) ADP
glycolaldehyde, the acceptor is (C) AMP (D) GTP
(A) Erythrose 4-phosphate
154. The enzyme glucose 6-phosphatase is present in
(B) Ribose 5-phosphate
(A) Liver (B) Muscle
(C) Glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate
(C) Adipose tissue (D) Brain
(D) Sedoheptulose 7-phosphate
155. In gluconeogensis, an allosteric activatorrequired
147. Pentose phosphate pathway is of significance in the synthesis of oxaloacetate from
because it generates bicarbonate and pyruvate, which is catalysed by
(A) NADPH for reductive synthesis the enzyme pyruvate carboxylase is
(A) Acetyl CoA (B) Succinate 164. The best known cause of galactosemia is the
(C) Isocitrate (D) Citrate deficiency of
156. The number of ATP molecules required to (A) Galactose 1-phosphate and uridyl
convert 2 molecules of lactate into glucose in transferase
mammalian liver is (B) Phosphoglucomutase
(A) 2 (B) 4 (C) Galactokinase
(C) 5 (D) 6 (D) Lactose synthase
157. For conjugation with many enogenous and 165 Conversion of fructose to sorbitol is catalysed by the
exogenous substances before elimination in enzyme:
urine, the uronic acid pathway provides (A) Sorbitol dehydrogenase
(A) Active glucuronate(B) Gulonate (B) Aldose reductase
(C) Xylulose (D) Xylitol (C) Fructokinase
(D) Hexokinase
158. UDP glucose is converted to UDP glucurronate, a
reaction catalysed by UDP glucose 166. A specific fructokinase present in liver hasa very
dehydrogenase requires high affinity for its substrate because
(A) NAD+ (B) FAD (A) Km for fructose is very high
(C) NADP (D) FMN (B) Km for fructose is very low
(C) Activity is affected by fasting
159. Pentosuria is a rare hereditary disease
ischaracterized by increased urinary excretion of (D) Activity is affected by insulin
(A) L-xylulose 167. Insulin has no effect on the activity of the
(B) Xylitol enzyme:
(C) Xylulose 5-phosphate (A) Glycogen synthetase
(D) Ribose 5-phosphate (B) Fructokinase
(C) Pyruvate kinase
160. The enzyme involved in essential pentosuria is
(D) Pyruvate dehydrogenase
(A) Reductase (B) Hydroxylase
(C) Isomerase (D) Racemase 168. The pathogenesis of diabetic cataract involves
accumulation of
161. Galactose is synthesized from glucose in
(A) Galactose (B) Mannitol
(A) Mammary gland (B) Intestine (C) Sorbitol (D) Pyruvate
(C) Kidney (D) Adipose tissue
169. Hereditary fructose intolerance involves the
162. Galactose is readily converted to glucose in absence of the enzyme:
(A) Liver (B) Intestine (A) Aldalose B
(C) Kidney (D) Adipose tissue (B) Fructokinase
163. Galactose 1-phosphate is converted to uridine (C) Triokinase
diphosphate galactose, the reaction is catalysed (D) Phosphotriose isomerase
by the enzyme:
170. Essential fructosuria is characterized by the lack
(A) Glactokinase of the hepatic enzyme:
(B) Galactose 1-phosphate uridyl (A) Phosphohexose isomerase(B) Aldalose A
transferase
(C) Aldolase B
(C) Uridine diphospho galactose 4-
(D) Fructokinase
epimerase
(D) UDP glucose pyrophosphorylase 171. In normal individuals glycosuria occurswhen the
venous blood glucose concentration exceeds
(A) 5–6 mmol/L(B) 7–8 mmol/L
ENZYMES 141
(C) 8.5–9 mmol/L 180. The formation of ∆2-trans-enoyl-CoA from acyl-

(D) 9.5–10 mmol/L CoA requires the enzyme:
172. Phlorizin inhibits (A) Acyl-CoA synthetase
(A) Renal tubular reabsorption of glucose (B) Acyl-CoA dehydrogenase
(B) Glycolysis (C) 3-Hydroxy acyl-CoA dehydrogenase
(C) Gluconeogenesis (D) Thiolase
(D) Glycogenolysis
181. In β-oxidation 3-ketoacyl-CoA is splitted at the 2,
173. Renal glycosuria is characterized by 3 position by the enzyme:
(A) Hyperglycemia (A) Hydratase (B) Dehydrogenase
(B) Hyperglycemia with glycosuria (C) Reducatse (D) Thiolase
(C) Normal blood glucose level with 182. Fatty acids with odd number of carbon atoms
glycosuria yield acetyl-CoA and a molecule of
(D) Hyperglycemia with ketosis
(A) Succinyl-CoA(B) Propionyl-CoA
174. Acute hemolytic anemia in person’s sensitive to (C) Malonyl-CoA (D) Acetoacetyl-CoA
the Fava beans is due to the deficiency of the
enzyme: 183 For each of the first 7-acetyl-CoA molecules formed
by α-oxidation of palmitic acid, the yield of high
(A) Pyruvate dehydrogenase
energy phosphates is
(B) G-6-PD
(A) 12 (B) 24
(C) Aconitase
(C) 30 (D) 35
(D) Transketolase
184. The net gain of ATP/mol of palmitic acid on
175 Acute hemolytic episode after administration of
complete oxidation is
antimalarial, primaquin, is due to deficiency of
the enzyme: (A) 88 (B) 105
(C) 129 (D) 135
(A) 6-Phosphogluconate dehydrogenase
(B) Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase 185. ω-oxidation is normally a very minor pathway
(C) Epimerase and is brought by hydroxylase enzymes involving
(D) Transketolase (A) Cytochrome a (B) Cytochrome b
176. The pH optima of gastric lipase is (C) Cytochrome c (D) Cytochrome p-450
(A) 3.0–6.0 (B) 1.0–2.0 186. α-Oxidation i.e., the removal of one carbon at a
(C) 8.0 (D) 8.6 time from the carboxyl end of the molecule has
been detected in
177. The optimum pH of pancreatic lipase is
(A) Brain tissue (B) Liver
(A) 2.0 (B) 4.0
(C) Adipose tissue (D) Intestine
(C) 6.0 (D) 8.0
178. Gastric lipae is activated in the presence of 187. In β-oxidation, the coenzyme for acyl-CoA
dehydrogenase is
(A) Bile salts (B) Cu++
(A) FMN (B) NAD
(C) K+ (D) Na+
(C) NADP (D) FAD
179. An example of enzyme inhibition:
188. The coenzyme involved in dehydrogenation of 3-
(A) Reversible inhibition hydroxy acyl-CoA is
(B) Irreversible inhibition (A) FAD (B) FMN
(C) Allosteric inhibition (C) NAD (D) NADP
(D) All of these
189. The concentration of ketone bodies in the blood 197. In extra hepatic tissues, one mechanismfor
does not normally exceed utilization of acetoacetate involves
(A) 0.2 mmol/L (B) 0.4 mmol/L (A) Malonyl-CoA (B) Succinyl-CoA
(C) 1 mmol/L (D) 2 mmol/L (C) Propionyl-CoA (D) Acetyl-CoA
190. In humans under normal conditions lossof 198. Ketosis reflects
ketone bodies via urine is usually less than (A) Increased hepatic glucose liberation
(A) 1 mg/24 hr (B) 4 mg/24 hr (B) Increased fatty acid oxidation
(C) 8 mg/24 hr (D) 10 mg/24 hr (C) Increased carbohydrate utilisation
191. The structure which appears to be the onlyorgan (D) Incresed gluconeogenesis
to add significant quantities of ketone bodies to 199. Ketosis is associated with the disease:
the blood is
(A) Nephritis
(A) Brain (B) Erythrocytes
(B) Diabetes mellitus
(C) Liver (D) Skeletal muscle
(C) Edema
192. The starting material for ketogenesis is (D) Coronary artery diseases
(A) Acyl-CoA (B) Acetyl-CoA 200. The main pathway for denovo synthesis of fatty
(C) Acetoacetyl-CoA (D) Malonyl-CoA acids occur in
193. Enzymes responsible for ketone body formation (A) Cytosol (B) Mitochondria
are associated mainly with the (C) Microsomes (D) Nucleus
(A) Mitochondria 201. Chain elongation of fatty acids in mammalian
(B) Endoplasmic reticulum liver occurs in
(C) Nucleus (A) Nucleus (B) Ribosomes
(D) Golgi apparatus (C) Lysosomes (D) Microsomes
194. The synthesis of 3-hydroxy-3-methylglutaryl-CoA 202. Acetyl-CoA is the principal building block of fatty
can occur acids. It is produced within the mitochondria and
(A) Only in mitochondria of all mammalian does not diffuse readily into cytosol. The
tissues availability of acetyl CoA involves
(B) Only in the cytosol of all mammalian (A) Carnitine acyl transferase
tissue (B) Pyruvate dehydrogenase
(C) In both cytosol and mitochondria (C) Citrate lyase
(D) In lysosomes (D) Thiolase
195. In the pathway leading to biosynthesisof 203. The synthesis of fatty acids is often
acetoacetate from acetyl-CoA in liver, the termedreductive synthesis.
immediate precursor of aceotacetate is
(A) NADP+ (B) NADH
(A) Acetoacetyl-CoA
(C) FADH2 (D) NADPH
(B) 3-Hydroxybutyryl-CoA
(C) 3-Hydroxy-3-methyl-glutaryl-CoA 204. The protein, which is in fact a multifunctional
(D) 3-Hydroxybutyrate enzyme complex in higher organism is
196. Ketone bodies serve as a fuel for (A) Acetyl transacylase

(B) Malonyl transacylase
(A) Extrahepatic tissues
(C) 3-Hydroxy acyl-ACP dehyratase
(B) Hepatic tissues
(D) Fatty acid synthase
(C) Erythrocytes
205. The fatty acid synthase complex catalyses
(D) Mitochondria
(A) 4 sequential enzymatic steps
ENZYMES 141
(B) 6 sequential enzymatic steps(C) 7 213. In the biosynthesis of triglycerides fromglycerol

sequential enzymatic steps 3-phosphate and acyl-CoA, the first intermediate
(D) 8 sequential enzymatic steps formed is
206. The main source of reducing equivalents (A) 2-Monoacylglycerol

(NADPH) for lipogenesis is (B) 1, 2-Diacylglycerol
(A) Pentose phosphate pathway (C) Lysophosphatidic acid
(B) Citric acid cycle (D) Phosphatidic acid
(C) Glycolysis 214. The enzyme glycerol kinase is low activityin
(D) Glycogenolysis (A) Liver (B) Kidney
207. In fatty acids synthase of both bacteriaand (C) Intestine (D) Adipose tissue
mammals, ACP (acyl carrier protein) contain the
215. The common precursor in the biosynthesis of
vitamin:
triacylglycerol and phospholipids is
(A) Thiamin (B) Pyridoxine
(A) 1, 2-Diacylglycerol phosphate
(C) Riboflavin (D) Pantothenic acid
(B) 1-Acylglycerol 3-phosphate
208. Carboxylation of acetyl-CoA to malonylCoA (C) Glycerol 3-phosphate
requires the enzyme: (D) Dihydroxyacetone phosphate
(A) Acetyl-CoA carboxylase
216. Synthesis of polyunsaturated fatty acids involves
(B) Pyruvate carboxylase the enzyme systems:
(C) Acetyl transacylase
(A) Acyl transferase and hydratase
(D) Acyl CoA-synthetase
(B) Desaturase and elongase
209. The rate limiting reaction in the lipogenic (C) Ketoacyl-CoA reductase and hydratase
pathway is (D) Dihydroxyacetone phosphate
(A) Acetyl-CoA carboxylase step
217. The desaturation and chain elongation system of
(B) Ketoacyl synthase step polyunsaturated fatty acid are enhanced by
(C) Ketoacyl reductase step
(D) Hydratase step
(C) Epinephrine (D) Thyroxine
210. Conversion of fatty acyl-CoA to an acylCoA
218. Higher rate of lipogenesis is associatedwith
derivative having 2 more carbon atoms involves
as acetyl donar: (A) High proportion of carbohydrate in diet
(A) Acetyl-CoA (B) Succinyl-CoA (B) Restricted caloric intake
(C) Propionyl-CoA (D) Malonyl-CoA (C) High fat diet
(D) Deficiency of insulin
211. A cofactor required for the conversion ofacetyl-
CoA to malonyl-CoA in extramitochondrial fatty 219. Example of enzyme specificity:
acid synthesis is (A) Stereo specificity (B) Reaction specificity
(A) Biotin (B) FMN (C) Substrate specificity(D) All of these
(C) NAD (D) NADP
220. Phospholipase C attacks the ester bond
212. The glycerol for fatty acid esterification in liberating 1, 2-diacylglycerol and a phosphoryl
adipocytes is base at position
(A) For the most part, derived from glucose (A) 1 (B) 2
(B) Obtained primarily from (C) Both (A) and (B) (D) 3
phosphorylation ofglycerol by glycerol kinase 221. Synthesis of phosphatidylinositol by transfer of
(C) Formed from gluconeogenesis inositol to CDP diacylglycerol is catalysed by the
(D) Formed from glycogenolysis enzyme:
(A) CTP phosphatidate cytidyl transferase(B) 230. A lipotropic factor is

Phosphatidate phosphohydrolase (A) Choline (B) Palmitic acid
(C) CDP-diacylglycerol inositol transferase (C) Calcium (D) Vitamin C
(D) Choline kinase
231. Fatty liver is also caused by
222. Synthesis of sphingosine requires the cofactor
(A) CH3Cl (B) CCl4
(A) NAD (B) NADP
(C) NADPH+ (D) ATP (C) Na2SO4 (D) Riboflavin
223. Ceramide is formed by the combination of 232. All the enzymes involved in the synthesis of
sphingosine and cholesterol are found in
(A) Acetyl-CoA (B) Acyl-CoA (A) Mitochondria

(C) Malonyl-CoA (D) Propionyl-CoA (B) Golgi apparatus
(C) Nucleus
224. The amino alcohol sphingosine is synthesized in (D) Endoplasmic reticulum and cytosol
(A) Mitochondria
233. The source of all the carbon atoms in cholesterol
(B) Cytosol
is
(C) Nucleus
(A) Acetyl-CoA (B) Bicarbonate
(C) Propionyl-CoA (D) Succinyl-CoA
225. The output of free fatty acids from adiposetissue
is reduced by 234. Two molecules of acetyl-CoA condense toform
acetoacetyl-CoA catalysed by
(A) Insulin (B) Glucagon (C) Growth
hormone (D) Epinephrine (A) Thiolase (B) Kinase
(C) Reductase (D) Isomerase
226. The principal action of insulin in adipose tissue is
to inhibit the activity of the 235. Acetoacetyl-CoA condenses with one more
(A) Hormone sensitive lipoprotein lipase molecule of acetyl-CoA to form
(B) Glycerol phosphate acyltransferase (A) Mevalonate
(C) Acetyl-CoA carboxylase (B) Acetoacetate
(D) Pyruvate dehydrogenase (C) β-Hydroxybutyrate
227. In non shivering thermogenesis (D) 3-Hydroxy 3-methyl-glutaryl-CoA
(A) Glucose is oxidized to lactate 236. HMG-CoA is converted to mevalonate by

(B) Fatty acids uncouple oxidative reduction catalysed by
phosphorylation (A) HMG-CoA synthetase
(C) Ethanol is formed (B) HMG-CoA reductase
(D) ATP is burned for heat production (C) Mevalonate kinase
228. Brown adipose tissue is (D) Thiolase
(A) A prominent tissue in human 237. For reduction enzyme HMG-CoA

(B) Characterised by high content of reductaserequires cofactor:
mitochondria (A) NADPH (B) NADP
(C) Associated with high activity of ATP (C) NAD (D) FAD
synthase(D) Characterised by low content of 238. In the biosynthesis of cholesterol, the stepwhich
cytochromes 229. Fatty liver is caused due to controls the rate and locus of metabolic
accumulation of regulation is
(A) Fatty acids (B) Cholesterol (A) Geranyl pyrophosphate farnesyl
(C) Phospholipids (D) Triacylglycerol pyrophosphate
ENZYMES 141
(B) Squalene → lanosterol 246. The principal sterol excreted in feces is

(C) HMG CoA → mevalonate (A) Coprostanol (B) Zymosterol
(D) Lanosterol → 1, 4-desmethyl lanosterol (C) Lanosterol (D) Desmosterol
239. The cyclisation of squalene in mammals results 247. The principal rate limiting step in the
in the direct formation of the sterol. biosynthesis of bile acids is at the
(A) Cholesterol (B) Lanosterol (A) 7-Hydroxylase reaction
(C) Sistosterol (D) Zymosterol (B) 12 α-Hydroxylase reaction
240. In the biosynthesis of cholesterol, the (C) Conjugation reaction
ratelimiting enzyme is (D) Deconjugation reaction
(A) Mevalonate kinase 248. Hypercholesterolemia is found in
(B) HMG-CoA synthetase
(A) Xanthomatosis
(C) HMG-CoA reductase
(B) Thyrotoxicosis
(D) Cis-prenyl transferase
(C) Hemolytic jaundice
241. Cholesterol by a feed back mechanism inhibits (D) Malabsorption syndrom
the activity of
249. Hypocholesterolemia is found in
(A) HMG-CoA synthetase
(A) Thyrotoxicosis
(B) HMG-CoA reductase
(B) Diabetes mellitus
(C) Thilase
(D) Mevalonate kinase
(D) Nephrotic syndrome
242. The activity of HMG-CoA reductase is inhibited
by 250. The major source of extracellular cholesterol for
human tissue is
(A) A fungal inhibitor mevastatin
(A) Very low density lipoprotein
(B) Probucol
(B) High density lipoprotein
(C) Nicotinic acid
(C) Low density lipoprotein
(D) Clofibrate
(D) Albumin
243. Hypolipidemic drugs reduce serumcholesterol
and triacylglycerol. The effect of clofibrate is 251. Correct ordering of lipoprotein moleculesfrom
attributed to lowest to the greater density is
(A) Block in absorption from G.I.T. (A) LDL, IDL, VLDL, chylomicron
(B) Decrease in secretion of triacylglycerol (B) Chylomicron, VLDL, IDL, LDL
andcholesterol containing VLDL by liver (C) VLDL, IDL, LDL, chylomicron
(C) Block in the reabsorption of bile acids (D) LDL, VLDL, IDL, chylomicron
(D) Decreased synthesis of cholesterol 252. In Hurler’s syndrome, urine shows thepresence
244. In biosynthesis of cholesterol triparanolinhibits of
the activity of the enzyme: (A) Keratan sulphate I
(A) ∆ Reductase
24 (B) Chondroitin sulphate
(B) Oxidosqualene-lanosterol cyclase (C) Dermatan sulphate and heparan sulphate
(C) Isomerase (D) Keratan sulphate II
(D) Squalene epoxidase 253. Defective enzyme in Hunter’s syndrome is
245. HMG-CoA reductase activity is increased by (A) α-L-iduronidase (B) Iduronate
administration of the hormone: sulphatase
(A) Insulin (B) Glucagon (C) Arylsulphatase B (D) C-acetyl transferase
(C) Epinephrine (D) Glucocorticoids 254. In Hunter’s syndrome
(A) There is progressive corneal opacity (C) β-Galactosidase (D) α-Fucosidase

(B) Keratan sulphate is excreted in the urine 263. The enzyme ceramidase is deficient in
(C) Enzyme defective is arylsulphatase B
(A) Farber’s disease (B) Fabry’s disease
(D) Hearing loss is perceptive
(C) Sandhoff’s disease(D) Refsum’s disease
255. An important feature of Von-Gierke’s disease is
264. Niemann-Pick disease is due to deficiency of the
(A) Muscle cramps (B) Cardiac failure enzyme
(C) Hypoglycemia (D) Respiratory alkalosis
(A) Ceramidase
256. The affected organ in Mc Ardle’s syndromeis (B) Glucocerebrosidase
(A) Liver (B) Kidney (C) Liver and Heart (D) (C) Galactocerebrosidase
Skeletal muscle (D) Sphingomyelinase
257. Refsum’s disease is due to deficiency of the 265. Wolman’s disease is due to deficiency of
enzyme: (A) Cholesteryl ester hydrolase
(A) Pytantate-α-oxidase (B) Hexosaminidase A
(B) Glucocerebrosidase (C) α-Fucosidase
(C) Galactocerebrosidase (D) Arylsulphatase A
(D) Ceramide trihexosidase
266. The enzyme deficient in Sandhoff’s diseaseis
258. An important finding in Refsum’s diseaseis
(A) α-Fucosidase
(A) Accumulation of ceramide trihexoside in (B) Hexosaminidase A and B
thekidney
(C) β-Galactosidase
(B) Accumulation of phytanic acid in the
bloodand tissues (D) β-Glucosidase
(C) Accumulation of gangliosides in brain 267. Jamaican vomiting sickness is due to inactivation
andspleen of the enzyme
(D) Skin eruptions (A) Pyruvate carboxylase
259. α-Galactosidase enzyme is defective in (B) Acyl-Co-A synthetase
(C) Acyl-Co-A dehydrogense
(A) Tay-sach’s disease(B) Refsum’s disease
(D) Thiolase
(C) Sandhoff’s disease
(D) Fabry’s disease 268. Zellweger’s syndrome is due to inherited
absence of
260. The hypothesis to explain enzyme– substrate
complex formation: (A) Peroxisomes
(A) Lock and key model (B) Phospholipase A1
(B) Induced fit theory (C) Acyl-Co-A dehydrogenase
(C) Proenzyme theory (D) Thiolase
(D) Both (A) and (B) 269. Bassen-Kornzweig syndrome is due to
261. An important finding in Tay-sach’s disease is (A) Absence of Apo-C-II
(A) Renal failure (B) Defect in Apo-B synthesis
(B) Accumulation of gangliosides in brain (C) Absence of Apo-E
andspleen (D) Absence of Apo-D
(C) Cardiac failure 270. Enzyme deficient in Hyperammonemia type II is
(D) Anemia (A) Glutamine synthetase
262. The enzyme deficient in Krabbe’s disease is (B) Glutaminase
(A) Hexosaminidase A(B) Arylsuphatase A (C) Ornithine transcarbamoylase
ENZYMES 141
(D) Carbamoylphosphate synthetase 278. Which of the following is a substratespecific

enzyme?
271. An important finding in Hyperammonemia type
II is (A) Hexokinase (B) Thiokinase
(A) Increased serum gluatmine level (C) Lactase (D) Aminopeptidase
(B) Enlarged liver 279. Coenzymes combine with
(C) Mental retardation (A) Proenzymes (B) Apoenzymes
(D) Increased carbamoyl phosphate (C) Holoenzymes (D) Antienzymes
synthetaselevel
280. Coenzymes are required in which of the
272. Absence of the enzyme argininosuccinate following reactions?
synthetase causes
(A) Oxidation-reduction
(A) Argininosuccinic aciduria (B) Transamination
(B) Hyperargininemia (C) Phosphorylation
(C) Tricorrhexis nodosa (D) All of these
(D) Citrullinemia
281. Which of the following coenzyme takes part in
273. Tricorrhexis nodosa is a characteristic finding of hydrogen transfer reactions?
(A) Argininosuccinic aciduria (A) Tetrahydrofolate (B) Coenzyme A
(B) Citrullinemia (C) Coenzyme Q (D) Biotin
(C) Phenylketonuria
282. Which of the following coenzyme takes part in
(D) Hyperargininemia
oxidation-reduction reactions?
274. Elevated blood argininosuccinate level isfound in (A) Pyridoxal phosphate(B) Lipoic acid
(A) Hyperargininemia (C) Thiamin diphosphate
(B) Argininosuccinic aciduria (D) None of these
(C) Citrullinemia
283. In conversion of glucose to glucose-6phsophate,
(D) Tyrosinosis
the coenzyme is
275. Hyperargininemia, a defect in urea synthesis (A) Mg++
develops due to deficiency of the enzyme:
(B) ATP
(A) Ornithine transcarbamoylase (C) Both (A) and (B)
(B) Argininosuccinase (D) None of these
(C) Arginase 284. A coenzyme required in transaminationreactions
(D) Argininosuccinate synthetase is
276. Albinism is due to deficiency of the enzyme:
(A) Coenzyme A (B) Coenzyme Q
(A) Phenylalanine hydroxylase (C) Biotin (D) Pyridoxal phosphate
(B) Tyrosinase
285. Coenzyme A contains a vitamin which is
(C) p-Hydroxyphenylpyruvic acid oxidase
(D) Tyrosine dehydrogenase (A) Thiamin (B) Ascorbic acid
(C) Pantothenic acid (D) Niacinamide
277. Neonatal tyrosinemia is due to deficiency of the
enzyme: 286. Cobamides contain a vitamin which is
(A) p-Hydroxyphenylpyruvate hydroxylase (A) Folic acid (B) Ascorbic acid
(B) Fumarylacetoacetate hydrolase (C) Pantothenic acid (D) Vitamin B12
(C) Phenylalanine hydroxylase
287. A coenzyme required in carboxylationreactions is
(D) Tyrosine dehydrogenase
(A) Lipoic acid (B) Coenzyme A
(C) Biotin (D) All of these
288. Which of the following coenzyme takes part in (C) Binds with the substrate
tissue respiration? (D) Competes with the substrate
(A) Coenzyme Q (B) Coenzyme A 298 Competitive inhibitors
(C) NADP (D) Cobamide
(A) Decrease the Km (B) Decrease the Vmax
289. The enzyme hexokinase is a
(C) Increase the Km (D) Increase the Vmax
(A) Hydrolase (B) Oxidoreductase
(C) Transferase (D) Ligase 299. Competitive inhibition can be relieved byraising
the
290. Which of the following is a proteolytic enzyme?
(A) Enzyme concentration
(A) Pepsin (B) Trypsin (B) Substrate concentration
(C) Chymotrypsin (D) All of these (C) Inhibitor concentration
291. Enzymes which catalyse binding of two (D) None of these
substrates by covalent bonds are known as 300. Physostigmine is a competitive inhibitor of
(A) Lyases (B) Hydrolases (A) Xanthine oxidase
(C) Ligases (D) Oxidoreductases (B) Cholinesterase
292. The induced fit model of enzyme action was (C) Carbonic anhydrase
proposed by (D) Monoamine oxidase
(A) Fischer (B) Koshland 301. Carbonic anhydrase is competitively inhibited by
(C) Mitchell (D) Markert
(A) Allopurinol (B) Acetazolamide
293. Allosteric inhibition is also known as (C) Aminopterin (D) Neostigmine
(A) Competitive inhibition 302. Serum lactate dehydrogenase rises in
(B) Non-competitive inhibition (A) Viral hepatitis
(C) Feedback inhibition (B) Myocardial infarction
(D) None of these (C) Carcinomatosis
294. An allosteric enzyme is generally inhibited by (D) All of these
(A) Initial substrate of the pathway 303. Which of the following serum enzyme rises in
(B) Substrate analogues myocardial infarction:
(C) Product of the reaction catalysed by (A) Creatine kinase (B) GOT
allostericenzyme
(C) LDH (D) All of these
(D) Product of the pathway
304. From the following myocardial infarction, the
295. When the velocity of an enzymatic earliest serum enzyme to rise is
reactionequals Vmax, substrate concentration is
(A) Creatine Kinase (B) GOT
(A) Half of Km (B) Equal to Km (C) GPT (D) LDH
(C) Twice the Km (D) Far above the Km
305. Proenzymes:
296. In Lineweaver-Burk plot, the y- (A) Chymotrysinogen (B) Pepsinogen
interceptrepresents (C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of these
(A) Vmax (B) Km
306. Alkaline phosphatase is present in
(C) Km (D) 1/Km
(A) Liver (B) Bones
297. In competitive inhibition, the inhibitor (C) Placenta (D) All of these
(A) Competes with the enzyme
(B) Irreversibly binds with the enzyme
ENZYMES 141
307. Which of the following isoenzyme of lactate 316. Lactate dehydrogenase is located in
dehydrogenase is raised in serum in myocardial (A) Lysosomes (B) Mitochondria
infarction:
(C) Cytosol (D) Microsomes
(A) LD1 (B) LD2
317. Lactate dehydrogenase is a
(C) LD1 and LD2 (D) LD5
(A) Monomer (B) Dimer
308. Enzymes which are always present in an (C) Tetramer (D) Hexamer
organism are known as
318. Ceruloplasmin is absent in
(A) Inducible enzymes
(A) Cirrhosis of liver (B) Wilson’s disease
(B) Constitutive enzymes
(C) Menke’s disease (D) Copper deficiency
(C) Functional enzymes
(D) Apoenzymes 319. Ceruloplasmin oxidizes
309. Inactive precursors of enzymes are knownas (A) Copper (B) Iron
(A) Apoenzymes(B) Coenzymes
(C) Proenzymes (D) Holoenzymes 320. Creatine kinase is present in all of the following
except
310. Whcih of the following is a proenzyme?
(A) Liver (B) Myocardium
(A) Carboxypeptidase
(C) Muscles (D) Brain
(B) Aminopeptidase
321. Alkaline phosphatase is present in
(C) Chymotrypsin
(A) Liver (B) Bones
(D) Pepsinogen
(C) Intestinal mucosa (D) All of these
311. Allosteric enzymes regulate the formationof
products by 322. All of the following are zinc-containing enzymes
(A) Feedback inhibition except
(B) Non-competitive inhibition (A) Acid Phosphatase
(C) Competitive inhibition (B) Alkaline Phosphatase
(D) Repression-derepression (C) Carbonic anhydrase
(D) RNA polymerase
312 Regulation of some enzymes by covalent
modification involves addition or removal of 323. All of the following are iron-containing enzymes
(A) Acetate (B) Sulphate except
(C) Phosphate (D) Coenzyme (A) Carbonic anhydrase
(B) Catalase
313. Covalent modification of an enzyme generally
requires a (C) Peroxidase
(D) Cytochrome oxidase
(A) Hormone (B) cAMP
(C) Protein kinase (D) All of these 324. Biotin is a coenzyme for
314. An inorganic ion required for the activityof an (A) Pyruvate dehydrogenase
enzyme is known as (B) Pyruvate carboxylase
(A) Activator (B) Cofactor (C) PEP carboxykinase
(C) Coenzyme (D) None of these (D) Glutamate pyruvate transminase
315. The first enzyme found to have isoenzymes was 325. Enzymes accelerate the rate of reactions by
(A) Alkaline Phosphatase (A) Increasing the equilibrium constant of
(B) Lactate dehydrogenase reactions
(C) Acid Phosphatase
(B) Increasing the energy of activation
(D) Creatine kinase
(C) Decreasing the energy of activation (D) All of these

(D) Decreasing the free energy change of
333. From the pentapeptide, phe-ala-leu-lysarg,
thereaction
phenylalanine residue is split off by
326. Kinetics of an allosteric enzyme are explained by (A) Trypsin (B) Chymotrypsin
(A) Michaelis-Menten equation (C) Aminopeptidase (D) Carboxypeptidase
(B) Lineweaver-Burk plot
334. A high-energy phosphate among thefollowing is
(C) Hill plot
(A) Glucose-6-phosphate
(D) All of these
(B) Glucose-1-phosphate
327. Covalent modification of an enzyme usually (C) 1, 3-Biphoglycerate
involves phosphorylation / dephosphorylation of (D) All of these
(A) Serine residue 335. The highest energy level is present amongst the
(B) Proline residue following in
(C) Hydroxylysine residue (A) 1, 3-Biphosphoglycerate
(D) Hydroxyproline residue (B) Creatine phosphate
328. Vmax of an enzyme may be affected by (C) Carbamoyl phosphate
(A) pH (D) Phosphoenol pyruvate
(B) Temperature 336. Daily urinary urobilinogen excretion in adult men
(C) Non-competitive inhibitors is
(D) All of these (A) 0–4 mg (B) 5–8 mg
329. In enzyme assays, all the following arekept (C) 9–12 mg (D) 13–20 mg
constant except
337. In obstructive jaundice, faecal urobilinogen is
(A) Substrate concentration
(A) Absent (B) Decreased
(B) Enzyme concentration
(C) Increased (D) Normal
(C) pH
(D) Temperature 338. Acetyl-CoA can be formed from
(A) Pyruvate (B) Fatty acids
330. If the substrate concentration is muchbelow the
km of the enzyme, the velocity of the reaction is (C) ketone bodies (D) All of these
(A) Directly proportional to substrate 339. Pyruvate is converted into acetyl-CoA by

concentration (A) Decarboxylation
(B) Not affected by enzyme concentration (B) Dehydrogenation
(C) Nearly equal to Vmax (C) Oxidative decarboxylation
(D) Inversely proportional to substrate (D) Oxidative deamination
concentration
340. Conversion of pyruvate into acetyl CoA is
331. Enzymes requiring NAD as co-substrate can be catalysed by
assayed by measuring change in absorbance at (A) Pyruvate dehydrogenase
(A) 210 nm (B) 290 nm (B) Didrolipoyl acetyl transferase
(C) 340 nm (D) 365 nm (C) Dihydrolipoyl dehydrogenase
(D) All the 3 acting in concert
332. Different isoenzymes of an enzyme havethe
same 341. Pyruvate dehydrogenase complex is located in
(A) Amino acid sequence (A) Cytosol
(B) Michaelis constant (B) Lysosomes
(C) Catalytic activity (C) Mitochondria
ENZYMES 141
(D) Endoplasmic reticulum (A) Citrate synthetase

(B) a-Ketoglutarate dehdrogenase
342. A flavoprotein in pyruvate dehydrogenase
complex is (C) Succinate thiokinase
352. All of the following are intermediates of citric
(B) Didrolipoyl acetyl transferase
acid cycle except
(C) Dihydrolipoyl dehydrogenase
(A) Oxalosuccinate (B) Oxaloacetate
(D) None of these
(C) Pyruvate (D) Fumarate
343. Pyruvate dehydrogenase complex is regulated by
(A) Covalent modification 353. All of the following intermediates of citric acid
(B) Allosteric regulation cycle can be formed from amino acids except
(C) Both (A) and (B) (A) α-Ketoglutarate (B) Fumarate
(D) None of these (C) Malate (D) Oxaloacetate
344. An allosteric inhibitor of pyruvate 354. Glycolytic pathway is located in
dehydrogenase is (A) Mitochondria (B) Cytosol
(A) Acetyl CoA (B) ATP
(C) Microsomes (D) Nucleus
(C) NADH (D) Pyruvate
355. End product of aerobic glycolysis is
345. Ribozymes:
(A) RNA enzyme (B) Non-protein enzymes (A) Acetyl CoA (B) Lactate
(C) Catalyst function (D) All of these (C) Pyruvate (D) CO2 and H2O
346. In citric acid cycle, NAD is reduced in 356. During fasting, glucose is phosphorylated mainly
by
(A) One reactions (B) Two reactions
(C) Three reactions (D) Four reactions (A) Hexokinase (B) Glucokinase (C) Both (A)
and (B) (D) None of these
347. Among citric acid cycle enzymes, a flavoprotein is
357. Glucokinase is found in
(A) Malate
(B) Fumarase (A) Muscles (B) Brain
(C) Succinate dehrogenase (C) Liver (D) All of these
(D) Isocitrate dehrogenase 358. In anaerobic glycolysis, energy yield from each
molecule of glucose is
348. In citric acid cycle, GDP is phosphorylatedby
(A) 2 ATP equivalents (B) 8 ATP equivalents
(A) Succinate dehydrogenase
(C) 30 ATP equivalents(D) 38 ATP equivalents
(B) Aconitase
(C) Succinate thiokinase 359. Which of the following is an allosteric enzyme?
(D) Fumarse (A) Phosphohexose isomerase
349. Malonate is an inhibitor of (B) Phosphotriose isomerase
(C) Lactate dehydrogenase
(A) Malate dehydrogenase
(D) Phosphofructokinase
(B) α-Ketoglutarate dehydrogenase
(C) Succinate dehydrogenase 360. Glycolysis is anaerobic in
(D) Isocitrate dehydrogenase (A) Liver (B) Brain
350. Isocitrate dehydrogenase is allosterically (C) Kidneys (D) Erythrocytes
inhibited by 361. Phosphofructokinase is allosterically inhibited by
(A) Oxalosuccinate (B) α-Ketoglutarate (A) Fructose-1, 6-biphosphate
(C) ATP (D) NADH (B) Lactate
351. All of the following are allosteric enzymes except (C) Pyruvate
(D) Citrate 370. Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase is induced

362. Glucose-6-phosphate is an allosteric inhibitor of by
(A) Glucokinase (A) 6-Phosphogluconolactone(B) Glucose-6-
(B) Hexokinase phosphate
(C) Phosphohexose isomerase (C) Ribose-5-phosphate
(D) None of these (D) Insulin
363. ATP is a co-substrate as well as an allosteric 371. The decarboxylation reaction in HMP shunt is
inhibitor of catalysed by
(A) Phosphofructokinase(B) Hexokinase (A) Gluconolactone hydrolase
(C) Glucokinase (B) 6-Phosphogluconate dehydrogenase
(D) None of these (C) 6-Phosphogluconate decarboxylase
(D) Transaldolase
364. Complete oxidation of one molecule of glucose
into CO2 and H2O yields 372. The first pentose formed in HMP shunt is
(A) 8 ATP equivalents (A) Ribose-5-phosphate (B)Ribulose-5-
(B) 15 ATP equivalents(C) 30 ATP phosphate
equivalents (C) Xylose-5-phosphate (D)Xylulose-5-phosphate
(D) 38 ATP equivalents
373. The regulatory enzyme in HMP shunt is
365. A unique by-product of glycolysis in erythrocytes (A) Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase
is (B) 6-Phosphogluconate dehydrogenase
(A) Lactate (C) Both (A) and (B)
(B) 1, 3-Biphosphoglycerate(C) 2, 3- (D) None of these
Biphosphoglycerate
(D) All of these 374. The rate of HMP shunt reactions is
(A) Increased by Insulin
366. Which of the following enzymes incorporates
(B) Increased in diabetes mellitus
inorganic phosphate into the substrate?
(C) Increased by glucagons
(A) Phosphoglycerate kinase
(D) Increased in starvation
(B) Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate
dehydrogenase 375. Glycogenesis requires
(C) Pyruvate kinase (A) GTP (B) CTP
(D) Enolase (C) UTP (D) None of these
367. Rapoport-Luebering cycle is located in 376. Glycogen synthetase catalyses the formation of
(A) Liver (B) Muscles (A) α−1, 4-Glycosidic bonds
(C) Brain (D) Erythrocytes
(B) α−1, 6-Glycosidic bonds
368. Glycerol can enter glycolytic pathway via (C) Both (A) and (B)
(A) Dihydroxyacetone phosphate (D) None of these
(B) 1, 3-Biphospoglycerate 377. Glycogenoloysis is increased by
(C) 3-Phosphoglycerate
(A) Glucagon (B) Insulin
(D) 2-Phosphoglycerate (C) Epinephrine (D) cAMP
369. HMP shunt is present in 378. Hepatic glycogenoloysis is increased by
(A) Erythrocytes (B) Liver (A) Insulin (B) Glucagon
(C) Testes (D) All of these (C) Epinephrine (D) Glucocorticoids
ENZYMES 141
379. Glycogen phosphorylase liberates the following 388. Gluconeogenesis does not occur in
from glycogen (A) Brain (B) Kidneys
(A) Glucose (C) Muscles (D) Liver
(B) Glucose-6-phosphate(C) Glucose-1-
389. Glucose cannot be synthesized from
phosphate
(D) Maltose (A) Glycerol (B) Lactate
(C) Alanine (D) Leucine
380. After the action of phosphorylase, glycogen is
converted into 390. Coenzyme for phosphoenolpyruvate
carboxykinase is
(A) Amylopectin (B) dextrin
(C) Amylose (D) Maltose (A) ATP (B) ADP
(C) GTP (D) GDP
381. Glucose-1-phosphate liberated from glycogen
cannot be converted into free glucose in 391. Therapeutic enzymes:
(A) Liver (B) Kidneys (A) Streptokinase (B) Asparaginase
(C) Muscles (D) Brain (C) Riboflavinase (D) Both (A) and (B)
382. A coenzyme present in phosphorylase is 392. A gluconeogenic enzyme among the following is
(A) NAD (A) Phosphofructokinase
(B) Pyridoxal phosphate (B) Pyruvate kinase
(C) Thiamin pyrophosphate (C) Phosphoenol pyruvate carboxykinase
(D) Coenzyme A (D) Glucokinase
383. If glucose-1-phosphate formed by 393. Glucose-6-phosphatase and PEP carboxy kinase

glycogenoloysis in muscles is oxidized to CO 2 and are regulated by
H2O, the energy yield will be (A) Covalent modification
(A) 2 ATP equivalents (B) 3 ATP equivalents (B) Allosteric regulation
(C) 4 ATP equivalents (D) 8 ATP equivalents (C) Induction and repression
(D) All of these
384. A molecule of phosphorylase kinase ismade up
of 394. The maximum possible chain length of fatty acids
(A) 4 subunits (B) 8 subunits formed in the pathway of de novo synthesis is
(C) 12 subunits (D) 16 subunits (A) 16 Carbon atoms (B) 18 Carbon atoms
(C) 20 Carbon atoms (D) 24 Carbon atoms
385. Cyclic AMP binds to
(A) Catalytic subunits of protein kinase 395. Acetyl CoA required for de novo synthesis of
(B) Regulatory subunits of protein kinase fatty acids is obtained from
(C) Catalytic subunits of phosphorylase (A) Breakdown of existing fatty acids
kinase (B) Ketone bodies
(D) Regulatory subunits of phosphorylase (C) Acetate
kinase (D) Pyruvate
386. Glucose is the only source of energy for 396. Formation of acetyl CoA from pyruvate for de
(A) Myocardium (B) Kidneys novo synthesis of fatty acids requires
(C) Erythrocytes (D) Thrombocytes (A) Pyruvate dehydrogenase complex
(B) Citrate synthetase
387. Glycerol-3-phosphate for the synthesis of
triglycerides in adipose tissue is derived from (C) ATP citrate lyase
(D) All of these
(A) Phosphatidic acid (B) Diacylglycerol
397. The major site for elongation of medium chain
(C) Glycerol (D) Glucose
fatty acids is
(A) Mitochondria (B) Cytosol 405. Which one of the following cofactors must be
(C) Microsomes (D) All of these utilized during the conversion of acetyl CoA to
malonyl CoA?
398. β-oxidation of fatty acids is inhibited by
(A) TPP (B) ACP
(A) NADPH (B) Acetyl CoA +
(C) NAD (D) Biotin
(C) Malonyl CoA (D) None of these
406. Which one of the following enzymes requires a
399. The enzyme regulating extramitochondrial fatty
coenzyme derived from the vitamin whose
acid synthesis is
structure is shown below?
(A) Thioesterase
(A) Enoyl CoA hydratase
(B) Acetyl CoA carboxylase
(B) Phosphofructokinase
(C) Acyl transferase
(C) Glucose-6-phosphatase
(D) Multi-enzyme complex
(D) Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase
400. Acetyl CoA carboxylase is activated by
407. Coenzymes derived from the vitamin shown
(A) Citrate (B) Insulin below are required by enzymes involved in the
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of these synthesis of which of the following?
401. All the following statements about acetyl CoA (A) ATP (B) UTP
carboxylase are true except: (C) CTP (D) NADH
(A) It is activated by citrate 408. Coenzymes derived from the vitamin shown
(B) It is inhibited by palmitoyl CoA below are required by which of the following
(C) It can undergo covalent modification enzymes?
(D) Its dephosphorylated form is inactive (A) Lactate dehydrogenase
402. All the following statements about acetyl CoA (B) Glutamate dehydrogenase
carboxylase are true except (C) Pyruvate dehydrogenase
(A) It is required for de novo synthesis of (D) Malate dehydrogenase
fattyacids 409. All the following are coenzymes except
(B) It is required for mitochondrial (A) Ubiquinone
elongation offatty acids
(B) CoA
(C) It is required for microsomal elongation
(C) Pyruvate dehydrogenase
of fattyacids
(D) Lipoic acid
(D) Insulin converts its inactive form into its
activeform 410. Which of the following is not a cofactor?
403. Both Acyl carrier protein (ACP) of fatty acid (A) Mg (B) Iron
synthetase and coenzyme (CoA) are (C) Cu (D) Methylcobalamine
(A) Contain reactive phosphorylated 411. All the following compounds are members of the
(B) Contain thymidine electron transport chain except
(C) Contain phosphopantetheine reactive (A) Ubiquinone (B) Carnitine
groups(D) Contain cystine reactive groups (C) NAD (D) FAD
404. Which one of the following transfers acyl 412. Thiamine is essential for
groups?
(B) Isocitrate dehydrogenase
(B) Lipomide
(C) Succinate dehydrogenase
(C) ATP
(D) Acetyl CoA synthetase
(D) NADH
413. Adenylate cyclase is activated by
ENZYMES 141
(A) Insulin (B) Glucagon (A) galactose-6-phosphate

(C) Prostaglandin E1 (D) Ca2+ ions (B) isocitric acid
(C) Glucose-1-phosphate
414. Maximum enzyme activity is observed at
(D) Fructose 1, 6 diphosphate
(A) Acidic pH (B) Neutral pH
(C) Basic pH (D) Optimum pH 423. Decarboxylation of α-keto acids requires
(A) Thiamine pyrophosphate, FAD, NAD+
415. Which of the following is known as bone forming
enzyme? (B) Flavin mononucleotide(C) NADP+
(D) NAD+ only
(A) Alkaline phosphatase
(B) Acid phosphatase 424. Coenzyme A contains the vitamin:
(C) Leucine aminopeptidase (A) Riboflavin (B) Pantothenic acid
(D) γ-glutamyl transpeptidase (C) Pyridoxine (D) Thiamine
416. Conversion of pepsinogen to pepsin is 425. Which of the following is not a component of
(A) Intra molecular rearrangement coenzyme A?
(B) Breaking of hydrogen bonds (A) Adenylic acid
(C) Covalent modification (B) Pantothenic acid
(D) Polymerisation (C) β-mercaptoethylamine
(D) Deoxyadenylic acid
417. Which of the following is not having an
apoenzyme and coenzyme? 426. Malic enzyme convers malic acid, in the presence
(A) Lactate dehydrogenase of NADP+ to Pyruvic acid. This reaction is a/an
(B) Succinate dehydrogenase (A) Decarboxylation
(C) Malate dehydrogenase (B) Decarboxylation and Dehydrogenation
(D) Pepsin (C) Dehydrogenation
(D) Oxidation
418. Pyruvate dehydrogenase is a/an
(A) Isomerase (B) Lyase 427. The following reaction is characteristic of what
type of enzymes?
(C) Ligase (D) Oxido reductase
419. Homogentisic oxidase is an 2H2O2 → 2H2O + O2
(A) Peroxides
(A) Oxidase
(B) Catalase
(B) Monooxygenase
(C) Dehydrogenase
(C) Dioxygenase
(D) Copper containing oxidases
(D) Anaerotic dehydrogenase
428. Of Which warburg’s yellow enzymecontains as a
420. Isocitrate dehydrogenase can use
prosthetic group?
__________ as a cofactor.
(A) NAD+ only (B) NADP+ only
(B) Biotin
(C) NAD+ or NADP+ (D) FMN and FAD
(C) NAD+
421. The rate of most enzyme catalysed reactions (D) Riboflavin-5-phosphate
changes with pH. As the pH increases, this rate
429. Dehydrogenases utilize, as coenzymes, allof the
(A) reaches a minimum, then increases following except
(B) reaches a maximum, then decreases (A) NAD+ (B) NADP+
(C) increases
(C) FAD (D) FH4
(D) decreases
430. Urea is produced physiologically by the action of
422. A substrate for the enzyme aldolase is the enzyme:
(A) Urease (B) Glutaminase 439. This catalyzes formation of CoA derivatives from
(C) Arginase (D) None of these fatty acid, CoA and ATP:
431. Urease is a (A) Acyl CoA dehydrogenase
(A) Lyase (B) Ligase (B) Enoyl hydrase
(C) Isomerase (D) Hydrolase (C) β-OH acyl CoA dehydrogenase

432. Velocity maximum for an enzyme at halfthe (D) Thio kinase
substrate concentration gives
440. Fructose 2, 3 bi phosphate is a powerful
(A) The molecular weight of the enzyme allosteric activator of
(B) Km value (A) Fructose 1, 6 diphosphatase
(C) Isoelectric pH (B) Phosphofructokinase
(D) Pk value (C) Hexokinase
433. Which of the following amino acid has been (D) Fructokinase
shown as one of the active site of
441. ‘Clearing factor’ is
phosphoglucomutase?
(A) Lipoprotein lipase
(A) Lysine (B) Tyrosine
(B) Crotonase
(C) Serine (D) Histidine
(C) 7-dehydro cholesterol
434. The inhibition of succinate dehydrogenase by (D) β-sitosterol
malonate by
442. Maltase attacks only
(A) Competitive inhibition
(B) Non-competitive inhibition (A) α-glucosides (B) β-glucosides
(C) Uncompetitive inhibition (C) Starch (D) Dextrins
(D) Feedback inhibition 443. Pepsin is
435. Cobamide coenzymes are (A) Exo-peptidase (B) Endo-peptidase
(A) Vitamin B1 (B) Riboflavin (C) Carboxy peptidase(D) Amino peptidase
(C) Pyridoxine (D) Vitamin B12 444. An enzyme in saliva which hydrolyzesstarch is
436. The isozyme CK-MB is specifically increased in (A) Pepsinogen (B) Chymotrysin
the blood of patients who had (C) α-Amylase (D) Malate
(A) Skeletal muscle disease 445. If a coenzyme is required in an enzymereaction,
(B) Recent myocardial infarction the former usually has the function of
(C) Infective hepatitis
(A) Acting as an acceptor for one of the
(D) Myxoedema cleavageproducts of the substrate
437. FAD containing enzyme, catalyzing formation of (B) Enhancing the specificity of the apo enzyme
α, β unsaturated fatty acyl CoA derivative. (C) Increasing the number of receptor sites of
(A) Acyl CoA dehydrogenase theapo enzyme
(B) Enoyl hydrase (D) Activating the substrate
446. The Michaehis-Menten hypothesis:
(C) β-OH acyl CoA dehydrogenase
(A) Postulates the formation of an
(D) Thiolase
enzymesubstrate complex
438. Immobilized enzymes:
(B) Enables us to calculate the isoelectric point
(A) Potentiation of activity ofan enzyme
(B) Presentation of activity (C) States that the rate of a chemical reaction
(C) Preparation of activity maybe independent of substrate
(D) All of these concentration
ENZYMES 141
(D) States that the reaction rate is proportional (A) Phosphorylation of serine OH on the
tosubstrate concentration enzyme(B) Allosteric modulation
(C) Competitive inhibition
447. Schardinger’s enzyme is
(D) Non-competitive inhibition
(A) Lactate dehydrogenase
(B) Xanthine dehydrogenase 455. A competitive inhibitor of an enzyme haswhich
(C) Uric oxidase of the following properties?
(D) L amino acid dehydrogenase (A) It is frequently a feedback inhibitor
(B) It becomes covalently attached to an
448. Tryptophan pyrolase is currently knownas enzyme
(A) Tryptophan deaminase (C) It decreases the Vmax
(B) Tryptophan dioxygenase (D) It interferes with substrate binding to
(C) Tryptophan mono oxygenase theenzyme
(D) Tryptophan decarboxylase
456. When [s] is equal to Km, which of the following
449. An enzyme which brings about lysis ofbacterial conditions exist?
cell wall is
(A) Half the enzyme molecules are bound
(A) Amylase (B) Lysozyme tosubstrate
(C) Trypsin (D) Lipase (B) The velocity of the reaction is equal to Vmax
450. Trypsin has no action on (C) The velocity of the reaction is independent
ofsubstrate concentration
(A) Hemoglobin (B) Albumin
(D) Enzyme is completely saturated with
(C) Histone (D) DNA substrate
451. Multiple forms of the same enzymes are known 457. Which of the following statements about an
as enzyme exhibiting allosteric kinetics with
(A) Zymogens (B) Isoenzymes cooperative interaction is false?
(C) Proenzymes (D) Pre-enzymes (A) A plot of V-Vk [s] has a sigmaidal shape
452. In non-competitive enzyme action (B) An inhibitor may increase the apparent Km
(C) Line weaver Bnrk plot is useful for
(A) Vmax is increased
determiningKm and Vmax
(B) Apparent km is increased
(D) Removal of allosteric inhibitor may result
(C) Apparent km is decreased inhyperbolic V-S [s] plot
(D) Concentration of active enzyme molecule
isreduced 458. Pantothenic acid acts on
(A) NADP (B) NADPH
453. An allosteric enzyme influences the enzyme
(C) FAD (D) CoA
activity by
(A) Competiting for the catalytic site with 459. Vitamin deficiency that causes fatty liver includes
thesubstrate all except
(B) Changing the specificity of the enzyme (A) Vitamin E (B) Pyridoxine
forthe substrate (C) Retionic acid (D) Pantothenic acid
(C) Changing the conformation of the enzyme 460. In which of the following types of enzymes an
bybinding to a site other than catalytic site inducer is not required?
(D) Changing the nature of the products formed (A) Inhibited enzyme (B) Cooperative enzyme
454. Which of the following regulatory reactions (C) Allosteric enzyme (D) Constitutive enzyme
involves a reversible covalent modification of an
enzyme?
461. In which of the following types of enzymewater (C) Urinary amylase

may be added to a C—C double bond without (D) Serum lipase
breaking the bond?
468. The slow moving fraction of LDH is typically
(A) Hydrolase (B) Hydratase increased in pancreas with
(C) Hydroxylase (D) Esterase
(A) Cerebrovascular accidents
462. ‘Lock’ and ‘Key’ model of enzyme (B) Acute myocardial infarction
actionproposed by Fisher implies that (C) Acute pancreatitis
(A) The active site is flexible and adjusts (D) Acute viral hepatits
tosubstrate
469. Which of the following enzyme typically elevated
(B) The active site requires removal of PO 4
in alcoholism?
group
(C) The active site is complementary in shape (A) Serum ALP
tothat of the substrate (B) Serum GOT(C) Serum γ-GT
(D) Substrates change conformation prior to (D) Serum acid phosphatase
activesite interaction 470. Patients with hepatocellular jaundice, as
463. In competitive inhibition of enzyme action compared to those with purely obstructive
jaundice tend to have
(A) The apparent Km is decreased
(A) Lower serum ALP, LDH and AST activity
(B) The apparent Km is increased
(B) Lower serum ALP, Higher LDH and AST
(C) Vmax is decreased activity(C) Higher serum ALP, LDH and AST
(D) Apparent concentration of enzyme activity
moleculesdecreased (D) Higher serum ALP, Lower LDH and AST activity
464. In competitive inhibition which of thefollowing 471. If results of the serum bilirubin, serum ALP,LDH
kinetic effect is true ? and AST determinations suggest obstructive
(A) Decreases both Km and Vmax jaundice, the best confirmatory test would be
(B) Increases both Km and Vmax the estimation of
(C) Decreases Km without affecting Vmax (A) Serum ALT

(B) Serum 5’ nucleotidase
(D) Increases Km without affecting Vmax
(C) Serum Pseudo cholinesterase
465. Enzymes increase the rates of reactions by (D) None of these
(A) Increasing the free energy of activation 472. Which enzyme estimation will be helpful in
(B) Decreasing the energy of activation differentiating the elevated serum ALP found in
(C) Changing the equilibrium constant of obstructive jaundice as well as bone disorders?
thereaction
(A) Serum AST (B) Serum ALT
(D) Increasing the free energy change of
thereaction (C) Serum LDH (D) Serum γ-GT
473. Cardiac muscle contains which of the following
466. The most useful test for the diagnosis of acute
CK osoenzyme?
hemorrhagic pancreatitis during the first few
days is (A) BB only (B) MM and BB only
(A) Urinary lipase test (B) Serum calcium (C) MM, BB and MB (D) MM and MB only
(C) Urinary amylase (D) Serum amylase 474. Liver and skeletol measle disorders are
characterized by on disk proportionate increase
467. The best test for acute pancreatitis in the
in which of the LDH isoenzyme fraction?
presence of mumps is
(A) LDH-1 (B) LDH-1 and LDH-2
(A) A serological test for mumps
(C) LDH-3 and LDH-4 (D) LDH-2 and LDH-3
(B) Serum amylase
(E) LDH-5
ENZYMES 141
475. On the third day following onset of (C) Enzymes are living organisms
acutemyocardial infarction, which enzyme (D) Enzymes get activated on heating
estimation will have the best predictive value?
484. Enzymes activity is controlled by
(A) Serum AST (B) Serum CK
(A) pH of the solution
(C) Serum ALT (D) Serum LDH
(B) Temperature
476. Serum AST activity is not characteristically (C) Concentration of the enzyme
elevated as the result of
(D) Concentration of the substrate
(A) Myocardial infarction (E) All of these
(B) Passive congestion of liver
(C) Muscular dystrophies 485. Which of the following is not true regarding
enzymes?
(D) Peptic ulcer
(A) They catalyze only a particular type of
477. On which day following acute reaction
myocardialinfarction the estimation of serum
(B) They remain active even after separation
AST will be of greatest significance?
fromthe source
(A) First day (B) Second day (C) They are destroyed after the completion
(C) Third day (D) Fourth day ofthe reaction they catalyse
478. In which diseases of the following (D) They are irreversibly destroyed at
organs,isoenzymes LDH-1 and LDH-2 will be hightemperature
released in plasma? (E) Their activity depends on the pH of the
solution
(A) Kidney, R.B.C and Liver
(B) Heart, Kidney and R.B.C 486 The number of enzymes known is about
(C) Heart, Kidney and Liver (A) 10,000 (B) 100
(D) Heart, Lungs and Brain (C) 50 (D) 26
479. Plasma non-functional enzymes are 487. Nicotine present in tobacco is a/an
(A) totally absent (A) Alkaloid (B) Terpene
(B) low concentration in plastic (C) Steroid (D) Protein
(C) important for diagnosis of several disease
(D) All of these 488. The poisonous alkaloid present in the oil of
hemlock is
480. Pyruvate dehydrogenase contains all except
(A) Cocaine (B) Nicotine
(A) Biotin (B) NAD (C) Quinine (D) Morphine
(C) FAD (D) CoA
489. Alkaloids are usually purified by extraction with
481. An increase in LDH-5 enzyme is seen inthe
(A) Ether (B) Dil HCl
following except
(C) NaOH (D) Chloroform
(A) Acute hepatitis (B) Muscular
490. The number of N-MC groups in alkaloids is best
distrophies
estimate with the help of
(C) Breast carcinoma (D) Pulmonary embolism
(A) HI (B) H2SO4
482. Diastase can be used for the hydrolysis can be
used for the hydrolysis of (C) (CH3CO)2 CO (D) CH3 Mg I
(A) Sucrose (B) Starch 491. A competitive inhibitor of an enzyme
(C) Cellulose (D) Maltose
(A) Increases Km without affecting Vmax
483. Which of the following statements is true? (B) Decreases Km without affecting Vmax
(A) Enzymes have names ending ase (C) Increases Vmax without affecting Km
(B) Enzymes are highly specific in their action
(D) Decreases both Vmax and Km 498. The chemical forces that bind most coenzymes
and substrates to enzymes such as LDH are
492. The Michaelis constant, Km is
(A) Hydrogen bonds (B) Peptide bonds
(A) Numerically equal to ½ Vmax (C) Coordinate bonds (D) Covalent bonds
(B) Dependent on the enzyme concentration
(C) Independent of pH 499. How many different proteins may be present in
normal LDH?
(D) Numerically equal to the substrate
concentration that gives half maximal (A) One (B) Two
velocity (C) Three (D) Four
493. The rate of an enzyme catalyzed reaction was 500. All the isoenzymes function with the coenzyme:
measured using several substrate concentrations (A) NADP+ (B) FAD
that were much lower than K m, the dependence
(C) Lipoate (D) NAD+
of reaction velocity on substrate concentration
can best be described as 501. ‘Lock’ and ‘Key’ theory was proposed by
(A) Independent of enzyme concentration (A) Sorenson (B) Fischer
(B) A constant fraction of Vmax (C) Mehler (D) Sanger
(C) Equal to Km 502. Which of the following forms part of
(D) Proportional to the substrate concentration acoenzyme?
494. The presence of a non competitive inhibitor (A) Zn2+ (B) Lipase
(A) Leads to both an increase in the V max of a (C) Vitamin B2 (D) Lysine
reaction and an increase in Km
503. The shape of an enzyme and consequently its
(B) Leads to a decrease in the observed Vmax
activity can be reversibly altered from moment
(C) Leads to a decrease in Km and Vmax to moment by
(D) Leads to an increase in Km without affecting (A) Heat (B) Amino acid substrate
Vmax (C) Allosteric subunits (D) Sulfur substitutions
495. Which one of the following statements is not 504. Which one of the following regulatory actions
characteristic of allosteric enzymes? involves a reversible covalent modification of the
(A) They frequently catalyze a committed enzyme?
stepearly in a metabolic pathway (A) Phosphorylation of ser-OH on the enzyme(B)
(B) They are often composed of subunits Allosteric modulation
(C) They follow Michaelis-Menten kinetics (C) Competitive inhibition
(D) They frequently show cooperativity (D) Non-competitive inhibition
forsubstrate binding
505. An enzyme is a
496. The abnormal isoenzyme need not (A) Carbohydrate (B) Lipid
(A) Be an oxidoreductase (C) Protein (D) Nucleic acid
(B) Have any coenzyme 506. An enzyme promotes a chemical reactionby
(C) Require ATP (A) Lowering the energy of activation
(D) Be localized intracellularly (B) Causing the release of heat which acts as
(E) Be a catalyst aprimer
497. LDH assays are most useful in diagnosingdiseases (C) Increasing molecular motion
of the (D) Changing the free energy difference
betweensubstrate and product
(A) Heart (B) Pancreas
(C) Brain (D) Kidney
ENZYMES 141
507. In most metabolic pathways, all neededenzymes 515. IUB had divided enzymes into how many classes?
are arranged together in a multienzyme complex (A) 6 (B) 5
within a
(C) 8 (D) 4
(A) Solution of ATP
516. The first enzyme isolated, purified and crystallied
(B) Membrane
from Jack bean (Canavalia) by summer in 1926
(C) Quanternary protein was
(D) Coenzyme
(A) Urease (B) Insulin
508. An enzyme catalyzes the conversion of analdose (C) Ribonuclease (D) Zymase
sugar to a ketose sugar would be classified as
one of the 517. Who suggested that enzymes are proteinaceous?
(A) Transferases (B) Isomerases (A) Buchner (B) Kuhne

(C) Oxido reductases (D) Hydrolases (C) Sumner (D) Pasteur
509. The function of an enzyme is to 518. Feedback inhibition of enzyme action is affected
by
(A) Cause chemical reactions that would
nototherwise take place (A) Enzyme (B) Substrate
(B) Change the rates of chemical reactions (C) End products (D) None of these
(C) Control the equilibrium points of reactions 519. The enzyme that converts glucose to glucose-6-
(D) Change the directions of reactions phosphate is
510. In which of the following types of enzymes, (A) Phosphatase(B) Hexokinase

water may be added to a C—C double bond (C) Phosphorylase (D) Glucose synthetase
without breaking the bond? 520. Enzymes are required in traces because they
(A) Hydrolase (B) Hydratase (A) Have high turnover number
(C) Hydroxylase (D) Oxygenase (B) Remain unused at the end of reaction
511. Enzymes increases the rate of reactions by andare re used
(A) Increasing the free energy of activation (C) Show cascade effect
(B) Decreasing the energy of activation (D) All correct
(C) Changing the equilibrium constant of 521. An organic substance bound to an enzyme and
thereaction essential for the activity of enzyme is called
(D) Increasing the free energy change of (A) Holoenzyme (B) Apoenzyme
thereaction (C) Coenzyme (D) Isoenzyme
512. The active site of an enzyme is formed bya few 522. Enzyme catalysed reactions occur in
of the enzymes: (A) Pico seconds(B) Micro seconds
(A) R groups of the amino acids (C) Milli seconds (D) None of these
(B) Amino groups of the amino acids
523. An enzyme can accelerate a reaction up to
(C) Carboxyl group of the amino acids
(A) 1010 times (B) 101 times
(D) Exposed sulfur bonds
(C) 10100 times (D) 10 times
513. Allosteric enzymes contain
(A) Multiple subunits (B) Single chain 524. In plants, enzymes occur in
(C) Two chains (D) Three chains (A) Flowers only (B) Leaves only
(C) All living cells (D) Storage organs only
514. Isoenzymes of lactate dehydrogenase are useful
for the diagnosis of 525. Zymogen is a
(A) Heart disease (B) Kidney disease (A) Vitamin (B) Enzyme precursor
(C) Modulator (D) Hormone
(C) Liver disease (D) Both (A) and (C)
526. Cofactor (Prosthetic group) is a part of (A) Prosthetic group

holoenzyme, it is (B) Holoenzyme
(A) Inorganic part loosely attached (C) Enzyme substrate complex
(B) Accessory non-protein substance (D) Enzyme product complex
attachedfirmly
534. Enzyme inhibition caused by a substance
(C) Organic part attached loosely resembling substrate molecule is
(D) None of these
(A) Competitive inhibition
527. A protein having both structural and enzymatic (B) Non-competitive inhibition
traits is (C) Feedback inhibition
(A) Myosin (B) Collagen (D) Allosteric inhibition
(C) Trypsin (D) Actin
535. An enzyme brings about
528. Enzymes are different from catalysts in (A) Decrease in reaction time
(A) Being proteinaceous (B) Increase in reaction time
(B) Not used up in reaction (C) Increase in activation energy
(C) Functional at high temperature (D) Reduction in activation energy
(D) Having high rate of diffusion
536. Feedback inhibition of enzyme is influenced by
529. Enzymes, vitamins and hormones are common in (A) Enzyme (B) External factors
(A) Being proteinaceous (C) End product (D) Substrate
(B) Being synthesized in the body of organisms
537. Coenzyme is
(C) Enhancing oxidative metabolism
(A) Often a vitamin (B) Always an
(D) Regulating metabolism
inorganic compound
530. Dry seeds endure higher temperature than (C) Always a protein (D) Often a metal
germinating seeds as 538. Genetic engineering requires enzyme:
(A) Hydration is essential for making (A) DNA ase
enzymessensitive to temperature (B) Amylase
(B) Dry seeds have a hard covering (C) Lipase
(C) Dry seeds have more reserve food (D) Restriction endonuclease
(D) Seedlings are tender
539. Which is not true about inorganic catalysts and
531. Coenzymes FMN and FAD are derived from enzymes?
vitamin
(A) They are specific
(A) C (B) B6 (B) Inorganic catalysts require specific
(C) B1 (D) B2 notneeded by enzymes
(C) They are sensitive to pH
532. Template/lock and key theory of enzymeaction
(D) They speed up the rate of chemical reaction
is supported by
(A) Enzymes speed up reaction 540. Key and lock hypothesis of enzyme actionwas
given by
(B) Enzymes occur in living beings and speedup
certain reactions (A) Fischer (B) Koshland
(C) Enzymes determine the direction of reaction (C) Buchner (D) Kuhne
(D) Compounds similar to substrate inhibit 541. An example of feedback inhibition is
enzymeactivity
(A) Allosteric inhibition of hexokinase by
533. Combination of apoenzyme and coenzyme glucose-
produces 6-phosphate
ENZYMES 141
(B) Cyanide action on cytochrome 550. The fruit when kept is open, tastes bitter after 2
(C) Sulpha drug on folic acid synthesizer hours because of
bacteria (A) Loss of water from juice
(B) Decreased concentration of fructose in juice
(D) Reaction between succinic (C) Fermentation by yeast
dehydrogenaseand succinic acid
(D) Contamination by bacterial enzymes
542. Feedback term refers to
551. Hexokinase (Glucose + ATP → Glucose-6– P +
(A) Effect of substrate on rate of ADP) belongs to the category:
enzymaticreaction
(A) Transferases (B) Lysases
(B) Effect of end product on rate reaction
(C) Oxidoreductases (D) Isomerases
(C) Effect of enzyme concentration on rate
ofreaction 552. Which enzyme is concerned with transfer of
(D) Effect of external compound on rate electrons?
ofreaction (A) Desmolase (B) Hydrolase
543. Allosteric inhibition (C) Dehydrogenase (D) Transaminase
(A) Makes active site unifit for substrate 553. The best example of extracellular enzymes
(B) Controls excess formation and end product (exoenzyme) is
(C) Both (A) and (B) (A) Nucleases
(D) None of these (B) Digestive enzymes
544. The ratio of enzyme to substrate molecules can (C) Succinic dehydrogenase
be as low as (D) None of these
(A) 1 : 100,000 (B) 1 : 500,000 554. Which mineral element controls the activity of
Nitrate reductase ?
(C) 1 : 10,000 (D) 1 : 1,000
545. Vitamin B2 is component of coenzyme: (A) Fe (B) Mo
(C) Zn (D) Ca
(A) Pyridoxal phosphate
(B) TPP 555. Name the enzyme that acts both as carboxylase
(C) NAD at one time and oxygenase at another time.
(D) FMN/FAD (A) PEP carboxylase
(B) RuBP carboxylase
546. Km value of enzyme is substrate concentration at
(C) Carbonic anyhdrase
(A) ½ Vmax (B) 2 Vmax (D) None of these
(C) ½ Vmax (D) 4 Vmax 556. A metabolic pathways is a
547. Part of enzyme which combines with nonprotein (A) Route taken by chemicals
part to form functional enzyme is (B) Sequence of enzyme facilitated
(A) Apoenzyme (B) Coenzyme chemicalreactions
(C) Prosthetic group (D) None of these (C) Route taken by an enzyme from one
reactionto another
548. Who got Nobel Prize in 1978 for working on (D) Sequence of origin of organic molecules
enzymes?
557. The energy required to start an enzymatic
(A) Koshland (B) Arber and Nathans
reaction is called
(C) Nass and Nass (D) H.G. Khorana
(A) Chemical energy (B) Metabolic energy
549. Site of enzyme synthesis in a cell is (C) Activation energy (D) Potential energy
(A) Ribosomes (B) RER
(C) Golgi bodies (D) All of these
558. Out of the total enzymes present in a cell, a (A) Invertase (B) Maltase
mitochondrion alone has (C) Sucrase (D) Diastase
(A) 4% (B) 70%
567. Enzymes functional in cell or mitochondriaare
(C) 95% (D) 50%
(A) Endoenzymes (B) Exoenzymes
559. Creatine phosphokinase isoenzyme is a marker (C) Apoenzymes (D) Holoenzymes
for
568. The enzymes present in the membrane of
(A) Kidney disease
mitochondria are
(B) Liver disease
(A) Flavoproteins and cytochromes
(C) Myocardial infarction
(B) Fumarase and lipase
(D) None of these
(C) Enolase and catalase
560. Which inactivates an enzyme by occupying its (D) Hexokinase and zymase
active site?
(A) Competitive inhibitor 569. A mitochondrial marker enzyme is
(B) Allosteric inhibitor (A) Aldolase
(C) Non-competitive inhibitor (B) Amylase
(D) All of these (C) Succinic dehydrogenase
(D) Pyruvate dehydrogenase
561. Which one is coenzyme?
570. The enzyme used in polymerase chain reaction
(A) ATP(B) Vitamin B and C (PCR) is
(C) CoQ and CoA (D) All of these
(A) Taq polymerase (B) RNA polymerase
562. The active site of an enzyme is formed by (C) Ribonuclease (D) Endonuclease
(A) R group of amino acids 571. Which of the following is a microsomal enzyme
(B) NH2 group of amino acids inducer?
(C) CO group of amino acids (A) Indomethacin (B) Clofibrate
(D) Sulphur bonds which are exposed (C) Tolbutamide (D) Glutethamide
563. Carbonic anhydrase enzyme has maximum turn 572. Identify the correct molecule which controls the
over number (36 million). Minimum turn over biosynthesis of proteins in living organisms.
number for an enzyme:
(A) DNA (B) RNA
(A) DNA polymerase (C) Purines (D) Pyrimidines
(B) Lysozyme
(C) Penicillase 573. The tear secretion contains an antibacterial
enzyme known as
(D) Lactase dehydrogenase
(A) Zymase (B) Diastase
564. In cell, digestive enzymes are found mainly in (C) Lysozyme (D) Lipase
(A) Vacuoles (B) Lysosomes
574. Identify one of the canbonic anhydrase inhibitor
(C) Ribosomes (D) Lomasomes
that inhibit only luminal carbonic anhydrase
565. Substrate concentration at which an enzyme enzyme.
attains half its maximum velocity is (A) Methazolamide (B) Acetazolamide
(A) Threshold value (C) Dichlorphenamide(D) Benzolamide
(B) Michaelis-Menton constant
575. Group transferring Co-enzyme is
(C) Concentration level
(A) CoA(B) NAD+
(D) None of these
(C) NADP+ (D) FAD+
566. Which enzyme hydrolyses starch?
ENZYMES 141
576. The co-enzyme containing an automatic hetero (C) Glucose-6-PO4 (D) GTP
ring in the structure is
586. A specific inhibitor for succinate dehydrogenase
(A) Biotin (B) TPP is
(C) Sugar Phosphate (D) Co-enzyme (A) Arsenite (B) Malonate
577. The example of hydrogen transferring Co- (C) Citrate (D) Fluoride
enzyme is: ANSWERS
1. A 2. B 3. A 4. D 5. C 6. D 7. C 8. A 9. B 10. D
(A) B6-PO4 (B) NADP+
11. C 12. D 13. A 14. B 15. D 16. A 17. B 18. C
(C) TPP (D) ATP 19. B 20. D 21. A
578. Enzyme catalyzed hydrolysis of proteins 22. A 23. B 24. B
produces amino acid of the form 25. D 26. B 27. A
28. A 29. A 30. B
(A) D (B) DL
31. C 32. A 33. B
(C) L (D) Racemic
34. C 35. A 36. B
579. Transaminase activity needs the Coenzyme:
37. A 38. B 39. D
(A) ATP(B) B6-PO4 40. C 41. D 42. A
(C) FADT (D) NAD+ 43. A 44. B 45. C
46. A 47. D 48. B
580. The biosynthesis of urea occurs mainly in the 49. C 50. B 51. B
liver: 52. A 53. A 54. C
(A) Cytosol (B) Mitochondria 55. C 56. D 57. C
(C) Microsomes (D) Nuclei 58. C 59. A 60. B
61. A 62. C 63. A
581. Bile salts make emulsification with fat for the
64. D 65. A 66. D
action of
67. A 68. C 69. B
(A) Amylose (B) Lipase 70. B 71. A 72. B
(C) Pepsin (D) Trypsin 73. A 74. B 75. A
582. All of the following compounds are 76. B 77. C 78. C
intermediates of TCA cycle except 79. A 80. A 81. C
82. C 83. B 84. D
(A) Maleate (B) Pyruvate
85. B 86. B 87. D
(C) Oxaloacetate (D) Fumarate
88. D 89. D 90. A
583. In conversion of lactic acid to glucose,three 91. A 92. A 93. A 94. B 95. A 96. B
reactions of glycolytic pathway are 97. A 98. A 99. A 100. A 101. A 102.
circumvented, which of the following enzymes B 103. A 104. C 105. A 106. D 107. B 108.
do not participate?
A
(A) Pyruvate carboxylase 109. D 110. C 111. B
(B) Phosphoenol pyruvate carboxy kinase 112. B 113. D 114. A
(C) Pyruvate kinase 115. B 116. A 117. B
(D) Glucose-6-phosphatase 118. C 119. B 120. C
584. In the normal resting state of human mostof the 121. A 122. C 123. C
blood glucose burnt as fuel is consumed by 124. D 125. A 126. A
127. B 128. B 129. B
(A) Liver (B) Brain
130. B 131. C 132. A
(C) Adipose tissue (D) Muscles
133. D 134. A 135. B
585. A regulator of the enzyme glucogen synthase is 136. B 137. A 138. B
(A) Citric Acid (B) Pyruvate
139. B 140. C 141. D 142. B 143. A 144. B 145. B 379. C 380. B 381. C
146. A 147. A 148. C 149. A 150. A 382. B 383. B 384. D
151. B 152. B 153. D 385. B 386. C 387. D 388. C 389. D 390. C 391. D
154. A 155. A 156. D 392. C 393. C 394. A 395. D 396. D 397. C 398. C
157. A 158. A 159. A 399. B 400. C 401. D 402. B 403. C 404. B 405. D
160. A 161. A 162. A 406. D 407. A 408. C 409. C 410. D 411. B 412. B
163. B 164. A 165. A 413. B 414. D 415. A 416. C 417. D 418. D 419. C
166. B 167. B 168. C 420. C
169. A 170. D 171. D 172. A 173. C 174. B 175. B 421. B 422. D 423. A
176. A 177. C 178.A 179. D 180. B 181. D 182. B 424. B 425. D 426. B
183. D 184. C 185. C 186. A 187. D 188. C 189. A 427. B 428. D 429. D 430. C 431. D 432. B 433. C
190. A 191. C 192. C 193. A 194. C 195. A 196. A 434. A 435. D 436. B 437. A 438. B 439. D 440. B
197. B 198. B 199. B 200. A 201. D 202. C 203. D 441. A 442.A 443. B 444. C 445. A 446. A 447. B
204. D 448. B 449. B 450. D 451. B 452. C 453. C 454. A
205. B 206. A 207. D 208. A 209. A 210. 455. D 456. A
D 211. A 212. A 213. D 214. D 215. A 216. 457. D 458. B 459. C
460. D 461. B 462. C
A 217. A 218. A 219. D 220. D 221. C 222.
463. B 464. D 465. B 466. D 467. D 468. D 469. C
C
470. B 471. B 472. D 473. D 474. C 475. D 476. D
223. B 224. D 225. A 226. A 227. B 228. 477. B 478. B 479. D 480. A 481. D 482. B 483. B
B 229. D 230. A 231. B 232. D 233. A 234. 484. C 485. C 486. C 487. A 488. A 489. B 490. A
A 491. A 492. D 493. C 494. B 495. C 496. A 497. A
235. D 236. B 237. A 238. C 239. B 240. C 241. B 498. D 499. D 500. D 501. D 502. C 503. C 504. A
242. A 243. B 244. A 245. A 246. A 247. A 248. A 505. C 506. A 507. B 508. B 509. B 510.
249. A 250. C 251. B 252. C 253. B 254. D 255. C A 511. B 512. C 513. A 514. D 515. A 516.
256. D 257. A 258. B 259. D 260. C 261. B 262. C A 517. C 518. C 519. B 520. D 521. C 522.
263. A 264. D 265. A 266. B 267. C 268. A 269. B C 523. A 524. C 525. B 526. B 527. A 528.
270. C A 529. D 530. A 531. D 532. D 533. B 534.
271. C 272. A 273. D 274. A 275. B 276. C 277. B A 535. D 536. C 537. A 538. D 539. B 540.
278. C 279. B 280. D 281. C 282. B A 541. A 542. B 543. C 544. A 545. D 546.
D 547. C 548. A 549. B 550. D 551. C 552.
283. B 284. D 285. C 286. D 287. C 288. A 289. C
A
290. D 291. C 292. B 293. C 294. D
553. C 554. A 555. B
295. D 296. B 297. D
556. B 557. C 558. B
298. C 299. B 300. B
559. C 560. A 561. D
301. B 302. D 303. D 304. A 305. B 306. D 307. C
562. A 563. B 564. B
308. B 309. C 310. D 311. A 312. C
565. B 566. D 567. A 568. A 569. C 570.
313. D 314. B 315. B
316. C 317. C 318. B D 571. D 572. A 573. C 574. B 575. A 576.
319. B 320. A 321. D 322. A 323. A 324. B 325. C C 577. D 578. C 579. B 580. B 581. B 582.
326. C 327. A 328. D 329. B 330. A 331. C 332. C B
333. C 334. C 335. D 336. A 337. A 338. D 339. C 583. B 584. B 585. C
340. D 341. C 342. C 343. C 344. A 345. D 346. C 586. B
347. C 348. C 349. C 350. C 351. C 352. C 353. C EXPLANATIONS FOR THE up of an
354. B ANSWERS apoenzyme (the
355. C 356. A 357. C 358. A 359. D 360. D 361. D 4. D The functional unit protein part)
362. B 363. A 364. D 365. C 366. A 367. D 368. A of an enzyme is and a coenzyme
369. D 370. D 371. C 372. B 373. C 374. A 375. C referred to as a (the non-
376. A 377. B 378. B holoenzyme. It protein part).
is often made
ENZYMES 141
47. D Concentration of enzyme hexokinase on (Koshland

enzyme, inhibition: D-hexose (Note: model): As per
concentration (a) Reversible isomerases do this, the
of substrate, inhibition: The not exhibit substrate
temperature, inhibitor binds stereospecificity induces a
pH, presence of noncovalently ). conformational
products, with the (b) Reaction change in the
activators and enzyme and the specificity: The enzyme
inhibitors are inhibition is same substrate resulting in the
some of the reversible. can undergo formation of
important Competitive, different types substrate
factors that non-competitive of reactions, binding (active)
influence and each catalysed site.
enzyme activity. uncompetitive by a separate 305. C Some enzymes are
89. D It is a straight line come under this enzyme e.g., synthesized in
graphic category. amino acids an inactive form
representation (b) Irreversible undergoing which are
depicting the inhibition: The transamination, referred to as
relation inhibitor decarboxylation proenzymes (or
between covalently binds etc. (c) zymogens).
substrate with the Substrate They undergo
concentration enzyme which is specifity: This irreversible
and enzyme irreversible. may be modification to
velocity. This (c) Allosteric absolute, produce active
plot is inhibition: relative or enzymes. e.g.,
commonly Certain enzymes broad e.g., proenzymes –
employed for possessing urease, ligase, chymotrypsinog
the calculation allosteric sites hexokinase. en and
of Km values for are regulated by 260. D pepsinogen are
enzymes. allosteric (a) Lock and Key respectively
133. D Active site is the effectors. converted to
model (Fischer’s
small region of chymotrypsin
219. D Enzymes are highly Template
an enzyme and pepsin.
specific in their theory): The
where substrate action 345. D The RNAs that can
binds. It is substrate fits to function as
compared with
flexible in active site of an enzymes are
chemical
nature and it catalysts. Three enzyme just as a referred to as
exists due to types of enzyme key fits into a ribozymes. They
the tertiary specificities are proper lock. are thus
structure of well-recognized. Thus, the active nonprotein
proteins. Acidic, enzymes. It is
(a) Stereospecificit site of the
basic and believed that
y: The enzymes enzyme is rigid
hydroxyl amino RNAs were
act only on one and preshaped
aicds are functioning as
isomer and
frequently where only a catalysts before
therefore
found at the specific the occurance
exhibit
active site. substrate can of proteins
stereoisomeris
179. D There are three bind. during
m.
broad evolution.
e.g., L-amino (b) Induced fit
categories of acid oxidase on theory 391. D Streptokinase is
L-amino acids; used for clearing
blood clots. Isoenzymes of

Asparaginase is LDH are
employed in the important for
treatment of the diagnosis of
leukemias. heart and liver
438. B Certain enzymes related
can be made to disorders i.e.,
bind to serum LDH1 is
insoluble elevated in
inorganic matrix myocardial
(e.g., cyanogens infarction while
bromide LDH5 is
activated increased in
sepharose) to liver diseases.
preserve their 559. C Creatine kinase (CK)
catalytic activity or creatine
for long periods. phosphokinase
Such enzymes (CPK) exists as 3
are referred to isoenzymes.
as immobilized Each isoenzyme
enzymes. is a dimmer
479. D These enzymes are composed of
either totally two subunits (M
absent or or B or both).
present at a low Elevation of
concentration in CPK2 (MB) in
plasma serum is an
compared to early reliable
their levels diagnostic
found in tissues. indication of
Estimation of myocardial
plasma non- infarction.
functional
enzymes is
important for
the diagnosis
and prognosis
of several
diseases.
514. D Lactate
dehydrogenase
(LDH) gas five
distinct
isoenzymes
(LDH1 … LDH5).
Each one is an
oligomeric
protein
composed of 4
subunits (N
and/ or H).
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CHAPTER 7
MINERAL METABOLISM
1. When ATP (C) –30.5 KJ/mol
forms AMP (D) –20.9 KJ/mol
(A) Inorgan 3. Standard free
ic
energy (∆G°) of
pyroph
hydrolysis of
osphate
ADP to AMP + Pi
is
is
produc
ed (A) –43.3
(B) Inorgan KJ/mol
ic (B) –
phosph 30.5
orous is KJ/mol
produc (C) –27.6 KJ/mol
ed (D) –15.9 KJ/mol
(C) Phsoph 4. Standard free
agen is energy (∆G°) of
produc hydrolysis of
ed phosphoenolpyr
(D) No uvate is
energy
(A) –61.9
is
KJ/mol
produc
(B) –
ed
43.1
2. Standard free KJ/mol
energy (∆G°) of (C) –14.2 KJ/mol
hydrolysis of (D) –9.2 KJ/mol
ATP to ADP + Pi
5. Standard free
is
energy (∆G°) of
(A) –49.3 hydrolysis of
KJ/mol creatine
(B) – phosphate is
4.93
KJ/mol (A) -–51.4
KJ/mol
(B) –
43.1 (A) –0.67
KJ/mol (B) –
(C) –30.5 KJ/mol 0.32
(D) –15.9 KJ/mol (C) –0.12 (D)
+0.03
6. The oxidation-
reduction 9. Redox potential
system (EO volts) of
havingthe ubiquinone,
highest redox ox/red system is
potential is
(A) +0.03
(A) Ubiquin (B)
one +0.08
ox/red (C) +0.10 (D)
(B) Fe3+ +0.29
cytochr
ome 10. Redox potential
a/Fe2+ (EO volts) of
(C) Fe3+ cytochrome C,
cytochr Fe3+/Fe2+ is
ome (A) –0.29
b/Fe2+ (B) –
(D) NAD+/N 0.27
ADH (C) –0.08 (D)
7. If ∆G°= –2.3RT +0.22
log Keq, the free
11. The prosthetic
energy for the
group of aerobic
reaction will be
dehydrogenases
(A) + B is
(A) NAD
C (B)
10moles 10moles NADP
10moles (C) FAD
Pantothenic acid
(A) –4.6 RT
2.3 RT 12. Alcohol
(C) +2.3 RT dehydrogenase
+4.6 RT from liver
contains
8. Redox potential (A) Sodium (B) Cop
(EO volts) of
(C) Zinc (D) Mag
NAD+/NADH is
13. A molybdenum
containing
oxidase is
(A) Cytochr (A) Cu2+

ome and
oxidase Zn2+
(B) Xanthin (B)
e Mn2+
oxidase (C) Mn2+ and Zn2+
(C) Glucose (D) Cu and Fe2+
2+
oxidase
(D) L- 17. Cytochrome
Amino oxidase contains
acid (A) Cu2+
oxidase and
Zn2+
14. A copper (B)
containing Cu2+
oxidase is and
(A) Cytochr Fe2+
ome (C) Cu2+ and Mn2+
oxidase (D) Cu 2+
(B) Flavin
monon 18. Characteristic
ucleoti absorption
de bands
(C) Flavin exhibitedby
adenine ferrocytochrom
dinucle e:
otide (A) α band
(D) Xanthin (B) β
e band
oxidase
(C) α and β bands
15. The (D) α, β and γ bands
mitochondrial
19. Monooxygenase
superoxide
s are found in
dismutasecontai
ns (A) Cytosol
++
(B)
(A) Mg
Nucleus
(B)
(C) Mitochondira
Mn++
(D) Microsomes
(C) Co++
20. A component of
16. Cytosolic the respiratory
superoxide chain
dismutase
contains
inmitochondria inrespiratory
is chain is
(A) Coenzy (A) NAD—
me Q
FMN—
(B) Coenzy
me A Q—cyt
(C) Acetyl b—cyt
coenzy
me c1—cyt
(D) Coenzy c—cyt
me
aa3
containi
ng →
thiamin
O2
21. The redox
(B) FMN—
carriers are
grouped Q—
intorespiratory NAD—
chain complex
cyt b—
(A) In the
cyt aa3
inner
mitoch —cyt c1
ondrial — cyt c
membr
ane(B) →
In O2
mitoch
(C) NAD—
ondiral
matrix FMN—
(C) On the Q—cyt
outer
mitochondr c1—cyt
ial c—cyt
membrane
b—cyt
(D) On the
inner aa3
surface of
outer →
mitochondr O2
ialmembra
(D) NAD—
ne
22. The sequence of FMN—
the redox carrier Q—cyt
b—cyt (C) Coenzyme Q

(D) Cyt b
aa3—
cyt c— 25. Reducing
equivalents
cyt c1 from succinate
→ enterthe
mitochondrial
O2 respiratory
23. The correct chain at
sequence of (A) NAD
cytochromecarri (B)
ers in Coenzy
respiratory me Q
chain is (C) FAD (D) Cyt
(A) Cyt b— 26. The respiratory
cyt c— chain complexes
cyt c1— acting asproton
cyt aa3 pump are
(B) Cyt aa3 (A) I, II and
— cyt b III (B) I,
—cyt c II and
—cyt c1 IV
(C) Cyt b— (C) I, III and IV
cyt c1— (D) I and II
cyt c—
27. If the reducing
cyt aa3
equivalents
(D) Cyt b— enter from
cyt aa3 FADin the
—cyt c1 respiratory
— cyt c chain, the
phosphate.oxyg
24. Reducing
en ration (P:O)
equivalents
is
from pyruvate
enterthe (A) 2 (B) 1
mitochondrial (C) 3 (D) 4
respiratory
chain at 28. If the reducing
equivalents
(A) FMN enter fromNAD
(B) in the
NAD respiratory
chain, the
phsphate/oxyge
n (P:O) is
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 4
29. One of the site of phsosphorylation (A) Oligomycin (B) Atractyloside

inmitochondrial respiratory chain is (C) Dinitrophenol (D) Pentachlorophenol
(A) Between FMN and coenzyme Q
38. Porphyrins are synthesized in
(B) Between coenzyme Q and cyt b
(A) Cytosol
(C) Between cytochrome b and cytochrome c1
(B) Mitochondria
(D) Between cytochrome c1 and cytochrome c
(C) Cytosol and mitochondria
30. Rotenone inhibits the respiratory chain at (D) Rough endoplasmic reticulum
(A) FMN → coenzyme Q (B) NAD → FMN 39. Heme is synthesized from
(C) Coenzyme Q → cyt b (A) Succinyl-CoA and glycine
(D) Cyt b → Cyt c1 (B) Active acetate and glycine
(C) Active succinate and alanine
31. Activity of cytochrome oxidase is inhibitedby
(D) Active acetate and alanine
(A) Sulphite (B) Sulphate
(C) Arsenite (D) Cyanide 40. In the biosynthesis of the iron protoporphyrin, the
product of the condensation between succinyl-
32. Transfer of reducing equivalents fromsuccinate CoA and glycine is
dehydrogenase to coenzyme Q is specifically
inhibited by (A) α-Amino β-ketoadipic acid
(A) Carboxin (B) Oligomycin (B) δ-Aminolevulinate
(C) Piericidin A (D) Rotenone (C) Hydroxymethylbilane
(D) Uroporphyrinogen I
33. Chemiosmotic theory for
oxidativephosphorylation has been proposed by 41. Porphyrin synthesis is inhibited in
(A) Chance and Williams (A) Mercury poisoning
(B) Pauling and Corey (B) Lead poisoning
(C) S. Waugh (C) Manganese poisoning
(D) P. Mitchell (D) Barium poisoning
34. The number of ATP produced in theoxidation of 1 42. During synthesis of porphyrins, synthesisof δ-
molecule of NADPH in oxidative phosphorylation amino levulinic acid occurs in
is
(A) Mitochondria
(A) Zero (B) 2
(B) Cytosol
(C) 3 (D) 4
(C) Both in mitochondria and cytosol
35. The coupling of oxidation and phosphorylation in (D) Ribosomes
intact mitochondria:
43. In the biosynthesis of heme,
(A) Puromycin (B) Oligomycin condensationbetween succinyl CoA and glycine
(C) Streptomycin (D) Gentamycin requires
36. An uncoupler of oxidative phosphorylation is (A) NAD+ (B) FAD
(A) Carboxin (B) Atractyloside (C) NADH + H+ (D) B6-phosphate
(C) Amobarbital (D) Dinitrocresol 44. In mammalian liver the rate controllingenzyme in
37. The chemical inhibiting oxidative phosphorylation, porphyrin biosynthesis is
Adependent on the transport of adenine (A) ALA synthase
nucleotides across the inner mitochondrial
(B) ALA hydratase
membrane is
(C) Uroporphyrinogen I synthase
(D) Uroporphyrinogen III cosynthase (B) Decrease hepatic ALA sythase

(C) Increase hepatic ALA dehydrase
45. The condensation of 2 molecules ofδ-
aminolevulinate dehydratase contains (D) Decrease hepatic ALA dehydrase
(A) ALA synthase 53. Acute intermittent porphyria

(B) ALA hydratase (paraoxymalporphyria) is caused due to deficiency
of
(C) Uroporphyrinogen synthase I
(D) Uroporphyrinogen synthase III (A) Uroporphyrinogen I synthase(B) ALA
synthase
46. The enzyme δ-aminolevulinate dehydratase (C) Coproporphyrinogen oxidase
contains (D) Uroporphyrinogen decarboxylase
(A) Zinc (B) Manganese 54. The major symptom of acute
(C) Magnesium (D) Calcium intermittentporphyria includes
47. A cofactor required for the activity of theenzyme (A) Abdominal pain
ALA dehydratase is (B) Photosensitivity
(A) Cu (B) Mn (C) No neuropsychiatric signs
(C) Mg (D) Fe (D) Dermatitis
48. The number of molecules of porphobilinogen 55. The characteristic urinary finding in
required for the formation of a tetrapyrrole i.e., a acuteintermittent porphyria is
porphyrin is (A) Increased quantity of uroporphyrin
(A) 1 (B) 2 (B) Increased quantity of coproporphyrin I
(C) 3 (D) 4 (C) Increased quantity of coproporphyrin III
(D) Massive quantities of porphobilinogen
49. Conversion of the linear
tetrapyrrolehydroxymethylbilane to 56. The enzyme involved in congenial erythropoietic
uroporphyrinogen III porphyria is
(A) Occurs spontaneously (A) Uroporphyrinogen I synthase
(B) Catalysed by uroporphyrinogen I synthase (B) Uroporphyrinogen III cosynthase
(C) Catalysed by uroporphyrinogen III (C) Protoporphyrinogen oxidase
cosynthase (D) Ferrochelatase
(D) Catalysed by combined action of
57. Main symptoms of congenital erythropoietic
uroporphyrinogen I synthase and
porphyria is
uroporphyrinogen III cosynthase
(A) Yellowish teeth (B) Photosensitivity
50. Conversion of uroporphyrinogen III (C) Abdominal pain (D) Brownish urine
tocoprophyrinogen III is catalysed by the enzyme.:
58. The probable cause of porphyria cutaneatarda is
(A) Uroporphyrinogen decarboxylase
deficiency of
(B) Coproporphyrinogen oxidase
(A) Uroporphyrinogen oxidase
(C) Protoporphyrinogen oxidase
(B) Coproporphyrinogen oxidase
(D) Ferrochelatase
(C) Protoporphyrinogen oxidase
51. The synthesis of heme from protophyrinIII is
catalysed by the enzyme: (D) Uroporphyrinogen I synthase
59. The characteristic urinary finding in porphyria
(A) ALA synthase (B) Ferroreductase
cutanea tarda is
(C) Ferrooxidase (D) Ferrochelatase
(A) Increased quantity of porphobilinogen
52. Many xenobiotics (B) Increased quantity of red cell
(A) Increase hepatic ALA synthase protoporphyrin
(C) Increased quantity of uroporphyrin (A) 1 κ and 3 λ type of chains (B) 2 κ and 2 λ
(D) Increased quantity of δ-ALA type of chains
(C) 3 κ and 1λ type of chains
60. Hereditary coproporphyria is caused dueto
(D) 2 κ and 2 λ chains
deficiency of
(A) Protoporphyrinogen oxidase 68 . The number of types of H chains identified in human
is
(B) ALA synthase
(C) ALA dehydratase (A) 2 (B) 3
(D) Coproporphyrinogen oxidase (C) 4 (D) 5
61. The enzyme involved in variegate porphyria is 69. The number of hypervariable region in Lchain is
(A) Protoporphyrinogen oxidase (A) 1 (B) 2

(B) Coproporphyrinogen oxidase (C) 3 (D) 4
(C) Uroporphyrinogen decarboxylase 70. The number of hypervariable region in Hchain is
(D) ALA decarboxylase (A) 1 (B) 2
62. Protoporphyria (erythrohepatic) is characterized (C) 3 (D) 4
by the deficiency of
71. Type γ H chain is present in
(A) ALA synthase (A) Ig G (B) Ig A
(B) ALA hydratase (C) Ig M (D) Ig D
(C) Protophyrinogen oxidae
(D) Ferrochelatase 72. Type α H chain is present in
(A) Ig E (B) Ig A
63. The amount of coproporphyrins excretedper day
in feces is about (C) Ig M (D) Ig D
(A) 10–50 µgs (B) 100–150 µgs 73. Type µ H chain is present in
(C) 200–250 µgs (D) 300–1000 µgs (A) Ig G (B) Ig A
64. The immunoglobulins are differentiatedand also (C) Ig M (D) Ig D
named on the basis of 74. Type δ H chain is present in
(A) Electrophoretic mobility (A) Ig G (B) Ig A
(B) Heat stability (C) Ig M (D) Ig D
(C) Molecular weight
(D) Sedimentaiton coefficient like 7 S, 19 S etc. 75. Type ε H chain is present in
(A) Ig A (B) Ig M
65. The immunoglobulins are classified on thebasis of
(C) Ig D (D) Ig E
(A) Light chains
76. A ‘J’ chain is present in
(B) Heavy chains
(C) Carbohydrate content (A) Ig D (B) Ig M
(D) Electrophoretic mobility (C) Ig G (D) Ig E
66. All immunoglobulins contain 77. A secretory protein T chain (T protein) ispresent
in
(A) 4 L chains
(A) Ig A (B) Ig M
(B) 4 H chains
(C) Ig D (D) Ig E
(C) 3 L chains
(D) 2 L chains and 2 H chains 78. A pentamer immunoglobulin is
67. An immunoglobulin molecule alwayscontains (A) Ig G (B) Ig A
(C) Ig M (D) Ig E
79. The portion of the immunoglobulinmolecule that (A) 1200 mg% (B) 500 mg%
binds the specific antigen is formed by (C) 300 mg% (D) 200 mg%
(A) Variable regions of H and L chains 88. The half life of Ig G is
(B) Constant region of H chain
(A) 2–8 days (B) 1–4 days
(C) Constant region of L chain
(C) 19–24 days (D) 6 days
(D) Hinge region
89. Most heat labile immunoglobulin is
80. The class specific function of the
differentimmunoglobulin molecules is (A) Ig G (B) Ig A
constituted by (C) Ig M (D) Ig D
(A) Variable region of L chain 90. The immunoglobulin possessing
(B) Constant region of H chain highestconcentration of carbohydrate is
(C) Variable region of H chain (A) Ig G (B) Ig M
(D) Constant region particularly CH2 and CH3 of (C) Ig A (D) Ig D
H chain
91. The normal serum level of Ig D is
81. Hinge region, the region of Ig moleculewhich is
(A) 1 mg% (B) 2 mg%
flexible and more exposed to enzymes is the
(C) 3 mg% (D) 5 mg%
(A) Region between first and second
constantregions of H chain (domains C H1 92. The half life of Ig D is
and CH2) (A) 1 day (B) 2–8 days
(C) 10–15 days (D) 20–24 days
(B) Region between second and third
constantregions of H chain (CH2 and CH3) 93. The carbohydrate content of Ig M is about
(C) Variable regions of H chain (A) 2.8% (B) 6.4%
(D) Variable regions of L chain (C) 8.0% (D) 10.2%
82. The smallest immunoglobulin is 94. The immunoglobulin having
(A) Ig G (B) Ig E highestsedimentation coefficient is
(C) Ig D (D) Ig A (A) Ig G (B) Ig A
(C) Ig M (D) Ig D
83. The number of sub classes of Ig G is
(A) 2 (B) 3 95. The immunoglobulin having highestmolecular
(C) 4 (D) 8 weight is
(A) Ig G (B) Ig M
84. Most abundant Ig G subclass in the serumis
(C) Ig E (D) Ig A
(A) Ig G1 (B) Ig G2
96. The half life of Ig M is
(C) Ig G3 (D) Ig G4
85. The immunoglobulin which can cross (A) 2 days (B) 4 days
theplacenta is (C) 5 days (D) 8 days
(A) Ig A (B) Ig M 97. The normal serum level of Ig M is
(C) Ig G (D) Ig D (A) 50 mg% (B) 120 mg%
86. The immunoglobulin possessing (C) 200 mg% (D) 300 mg%
lowestconcentration of carbohydrate is
98. The immunoglobulin associated withreginic
(A) Ig A (B) Ig E antibody is
(C) Ig M (D) Ig G (A) Ig E (B) Ig D
87. The normal serum level of Ig G is (C) Ig M (D) Ig A
99. The immunoglobulin having least concentration (C) 3–4 mg/100 ml (D) 4–5 mg/100 ml
in serum is
110. The normal serum level of phosphorous in
(A) Ig A (B) Ig M children varies from
(C) Ig D (D) Ig E
(A) 1–2 mg/100 ml (B) 2–3 mg/100 ml
100. The half life of Ig E protein is (C) 3–4 mg/100 ml (D) 4–7 mg/100 ml
(A) 1–6 days (B) 2–8 days 111. An inherited or acquired renal tubulardefect in
(C) 10 days (D) 20 days the reabsorption of phosphate (Vit D resistant
101. The immunoglobulin which provides highest ricket) is characterized with
antiviral activity is (A) Normal serum Phosphate
(A) Ig D (B) Ig E (B) High serum phosphate
(C) Ig A (D) Ig G (C) A low blood phosphorous with
elevatedalkaline Phosphate
102. The half life of Ig A is (D) A high blood phosphorous with
(A) 6 days (B) 2–4 days decreasedalkaline phosphatase
(C) 5–10 days (D) 12–20 days
112. The total magnesium content in gms of human
103. The normal serum level of Ig A is body is about
(A) 100 mg% (B) 200 mg% (A) 5 (B) 10
(C) 300 mg% (D) 400 mg% (C) 15 (D) 21
104. Calcium is excreted by 113. Iron is a component of

(A) Kidney (A) Hemoglobin(B) Ceruloplasmin
(B) Kidney and intestine (C) Transferase (D) Transaminase
(C) Kidney and liver
114. Daily requirement of iron for normal adult male
(D) Kidney and pancreas is about
105. A decrease in the ionized fraction of (A) 5 mg (B) 10 mg
serumcalcium causes (C) 15 mg (D) 20 mg
(A) Tetany (B) Rickets 115. The normal content of protein bound iron
(C) Osteomalacia (D) Osteoporosis (PBI) in the plasma of males is
106. A rise in blood calcium may indicate (A) 120–140 µg/100 ml

(A) Paget’s disease (B) Rickets (B) 200–300 µg/100 ml
(C) Osteomalacia (D) Hypervitaminosis D (C) 120–140 µg/100 ml
107. The normal serum level of phosphorus in human (D) 200–300 µg/100 ml
adult is
116. In iron deficiency anemia
(A) 1–2 mg (B) 2–3 mg
(A) The plasma bound iron is low
(C) 3–4.5 mg (D) 5–7 mg
(B) The plasma bound iron is high
108. An increase in carbohydrate metabolismis (C) Total iron binding capacity is low
accompanied by temporary decrease in serum: (D) Both the plasma bound iron and total
(A) Calcium (B) Phosphate ironbinding capacity are low
(C) Iron (D) Sodium 117. The total iron content of the human body is
109. In rickets of the common low-phosphatevariety, (A) 400–500 mg (B) 1–2 g
serum phosphate values may go as low as (C) 2–3 g (D) 4–5 g
(A) 1–2 mg/100 ml (B) 2–3 mg/100 ml 118. In hepatic diseases
(A) Both the bound iron and total iron (C) Caecum
bindingcapacity of the plasma may be low (D) Colon
(B) Both the bound iron and total iron
127. The iron containing nonporphyrin is
bindingcapacity of the plasma may be high
(C) Only bound iron may be high (A) Hemosiderin (B) Catalase
(D) Only the total iron binding capacity may (C) Cytochrome C (D) Peroxidase
behigh 128. Molecular iron is
119. The recommended daily requirement of iron for (A) Stored primarily in the spleen
women of 18–55 yrs age is (B) Exreted in the urine as Fe2+
(A) 5 mg (B) 8 mg (C) Stored in the body in combination with
(C) 10 mg (D) 15 mg ferritin(D) Absorbed in the ferric form
120. The percent of total iron in body in hemoglobin 129. In hemochromatosis, the liver is infiltratedwith
is (A) Iron (B) Copper
(A) 10–20 (B) 20–30 (C) Molybdenum (D) Fats
(C) 30–40 (D) 60–70 130. An acquired siderosis-Bantu siderosis isdue to
121. A hypochromic microcytic anemia withincreased (A) Foods cooked in iron pots
iron stores in the bone marrow may be (B) Diet high in phosphorous
(A) Iron responsive (C) Diet high in calcium
(B) Pyridoxine responsive (D) High fat diet
(C) Vitamin B12 responsive 131. The amount of copper in the human bodyis
(D) Folate responsive (A) 50–80 mg (B) 100–150 mg
122. A good source of iron is (C) 400–500 mg (D) 500–1000 mg
(A) Spinach (B) Milk 132. The amount of copper in muscles is about
(C) Tomato (D) Potato (A) 10 mg (B) 30 mg
123. The best source of iron is (C) 64 mg (D) 100 mg
(A) Organ meats (B) Milk 133. The amount of copper in bones is about
(C) Tomato (D) Potato (A) 5 mg (B) 10 mg
124. An increased serum iron and decreasediron (C) 15 mg (D) 23 mg
binding capacity is found in
134. The normal serum of concentration of copper in
(A) Fe deficiency anemia(B) Sideroblastic mg/100 ml varies between
anemia
(A) 0–5 (B) 50–100
(C) Folate deficiency anemia
(C) 100–200 (D) 200–300
(D) Sickle cell anemia
135. The normal serum concentration of
125. The absorption of iron is increased 2–10 times of
ceruloplasmin in mg/100 ml varies between
normal in
(A) 5–10 (B) 10–20
(A) Iron deficiency anemia
(C) 25–43 (D) 50–100
(B) Pregnancy
(C) Spherocytosis 136. Recommended daily dietary requirement of
(D) Sickle cell anemia copper for adults is
(A) 0.5–1 mg (B) 1.5–3.0 mg
126. Iron is mainly absorbed from
(C) 3.5–4.5 mg (D) 4.5–5.5 mg
(A) Stomach and duodenum
(B) Ileum 137. The richest source of copper is
(A) Liver (C) 3–5 (D) 4–20

(B) Milk
147. The adequate daily dietary requirement of
(C) Legumes manganese is
(D) Green leafy vegetables
(A) 1–2 mg (B) 2–5 mg
138. The cytosolic superoxide dismutase enzyme (C) 5–10 mg (D) 10–20 mg
contains
148. Mitochondrial superoxide dismutase contains
(A) Cu2+ (B) Cu2+ and Zn2+
(A) Zinc (B) Copper
(C) Zn2+ (D) Mn2+
(C) Magnesium (D) Manganese
139. The deficiency of copper decreases the activity of
149. Mitochondrial pyruvate carboxylase contains
the enzyme:
(A) Zinc (B) Zinc
(A) Lysine oxidase (B) Lysine hydroxylase
(C) Manganese (D) Magnesium
(C) Tyrosine oxidase (D) Proline hydroxylase
150. The adequate daily dietary requirement of
140. Wilson’s disease is a condition of toxicosisof
molybdenum for normal human adult
(A) Iron (B) Copper is
(C) Chromium (D) Molybdenum
(A) 10–20 µg (B) 25–50 µg
141. In Wilson’s disease
(C) 50–70 µg (D) 75–200 µg
(A) Copper fails to be excreted in the bile 151. In human beings molybdenum is mainlyabsorbed
(B) Copper level in plasma is decreased from
(C) Ceruloplasmin level is increased (A) Liver (B) Kidney
(D) Intestinal absorption of copper is decreased (C) Intestine (D) Pancreas
142. Menke’s disease is due to an abnormality in the
metabolism of 152. In human beings molybdenum is mainlyexcreted
in
(A) Iron (B) Manganese
(C) Magnesium (D) Copper (A) Feces (B) Sweat
(C) Urine (D) Tears
143. Menke’s disease (Kinky or steel hair disease) is a
X-linked disease characterized by 153. Molybdenum is a constituent of
(A) High levels of plasma copper (A) Hydroxylases (B) Oxidases
(B) High levels of ceruloplasmin (C) Transaminases (D) Transferases
(C) Low levels of plasma copper and of 154. Safe and adequate daily dietary intake of
ceuloplasmin chromium in adults in mg is
(D) High level of hepatic copper
(A) 0.01–0.02 (B) 0.02–0.03
144. The trace element catalyzing hemoglobin (C) 0.03–0.04 (D) 0.05–0.2
synthesis is
155. Richest source of chromium is
(A) Manganese (B) Magnesium
(A) Brewer’s yease
(C) Copper (D) Selenium
(B) Milk and milk products
145. The total body content of manganese is about (C) Yellow vegetables
(A) 2 mg (B) 4 mg (D) Green vegetables
(C) 8 mg (D) 10 mg
156. Metallic constituent of “Glucose tolerance
146. In blood the values of manganese in µg / factor” is
100 ml varies between (A) Sulphur (B) Cobalt
(A) 0–4 (B) 2–4 (C) Chromium (D) Selenium
157. Intestinal absorption of chromium is shared with (A) Polycythemia

(A) Mn(B) Mg (B) Megaloblastic anemia
(C) Ca (D) Zn (C) Pernicious anemia
(D) Microcytic anemia
158. Serum level of chromium in healthy adult is
about 168. The total sulphur content of the body is
(A) 2-5 µg/100 ml (B) 6-20 µg/100 ml (A) 25–50 gm (B) 50–75 gm
(C) 100–125 gm (D) 150–200 gm
(C) 30-60 µg/100 ml (D) 50-100 µg/100 ml
169. Sulphur is made available to the body by the
159. Chromium is potentiator of
amino acids:
(A) Cystine and methionine
(C) Thyroxine (D) Parathromone
(B) Taurine and alanine
160. Recommended daily dietary allowance of (C) Proline and hydroxyproline
selenium for adult human in µg is (D) Arginine and lysine
(A) 20 (B) 40 170. Sulphur containing coenzyme is
(C) 50 (D) 70 (A) NAD
161. Total body content of selenium is about (B) FAD
(A) 1–2 mg (B) 2–4 mg (C) Pyridoxal phosphate
(C) 4–10 mg (D) 50–100 mg (D) Biotin
162. Normal serum level of selenium is 171. Iodine is stored in
(A) 5 µg /100 ml (B) 8 µg /100 ml (A) Thyroid gland as thyroglobulin

(B) Liver
(C) 10 µg /100 ml (D) 13 µg /100 ml
(C) Intestine
163. Selenium is a constituent of the enzyme: (D) Skin
(A) Glutathione peroxidase 172. Iodine is the constituent of
(B) Homogentisate oxidase
(A) T3 and T4 (B) PTH
(C) Tyrosine hydroxylase
(C) Insulin (D) Adrenaline
(D) Phenylalanin hydroxylase
173. Goitrogenic substance present in cabbage is
164. A nonspecific intracellular antioxidant is
(A) 5-vinyl-2 thio oxalzolidone
(A) Chromium (B) Magnesium
(B) Pyridine-3-carboxylic acid
(C) Selenium (D) Nickel
(C) 3-Hydroxy-4, 5-dihydroxymethyl1–2-
165. Cobalt forms an integral part of the vitamin: methylpyridine
(A) B1 (B) B6 (D) δ-ALA dehydratase
(C) B12 (D) Folate 174. For an adult male daily requirement of iodine is
(A) 25–50 µg (B) 50–100 µg
166. Cobalt may act as cofactor for the enzyme:
(C) 100–150 µg (D) 200–250 µg
(A) Glycl-glycine dipeptidase
(B) Elastase 175. Recommended daily intake of fluoride for a
(C) Polynucleotidases normal adult is
(D) Phosphatase (A) 1.5–4.0 mg (B) 0–1 mg
(C) 5–10 mg (D) 10–20 mg
167. Excess intake of cobalt for longer periods leads
to 176. The percentage of fluoride present in normal
bone is
(A) 0.01–0.03 (B) 0.04–0.08 (C) Zinc (D) Manganese

(C) 0.10–0.12 (D) 0.15–0.2
186. Psychotic symptoms and parkinsonism like
177. The percentage of fluoride present in dental symptoms develop due to inhalation poisoning
enamel is of
(A) 0.01–0.02 (B) 0.05–0.10 (A) Manganese (B) Phosphorous
(C) 0.15–0.20 (D) 0.20–0.40 (C) Magnesium (D) Zinc
178. Fluorosis occurs due to 187. One gram of carbohydrate on complete
(A) Drinking water containing less than 0.2 oxidation in the body yields about
ppmof fluorine (A) 1 Kcal (B) 4 Kcal (C) 6 Kcal (D) 9
(B) Drinking water containing high calcium Kcal 188. One gram of fat on complete
(C) Drinking water containing greater than 1.2 oxidation in the body yields about
ppm of fluroine
(A) 4 Kcal (B) 6 Kcal
(D) Drinking water containing heavy metals
(C) 9 Kcal (D) 12 Kcal
179. Dental caries occur due to
(A) Drinking water containing less than 0.2 189. One gram of protein on complete oxidation in
ppmof fluorine the body yields about
(B) Drinking water containing greater than 1.2 (A) 2 Kcal (B) 4 Kcal
ppm of fluorine (C) 8 Kcal (D) 12 Kcal
(C) Drinking water containing high calcium
190. R.Q. of mixed diet is about
(D) Drinking water containing heavy metals
(A) 0.70 (B) 0.80
180. Total zinc content of human body is about (C) 0.85 (D) 1.0
(A) 800 mg (B) 1200 mg
191. R.Q. of proteins is about
(C) 2000 mg (D) 3200 mg
(A) 0.70 (B) 0.75
181. Metal required for polymerization of insulin is (C) 0.80 (D) 0.85
(A) Copper (B) Chromium
192. R.Q. of carbohydrates is about
(C) Cobalt (D) Zinc
(A) 0.75 (B) 0.80
182. Metalloenzyme-retinene for polymerization of (C) 0.85 (D) 1.0
insulin is
193. R.Q. of fats is about
(A) Copper (B) Zinc
(A) 0.75 (B) 0.80
(C) Cobalt (D) Manganese
(C) 0.85 (D) 1.0
183. An important zinc containing enzyme is
194. Proteins have the SDA:
(A) Carboxypeptidase A
(A) 5% (B) 10%
(B) Isocitrate dehydrogenase
(C) 20% (D) 30%
(C) Cholinesterate
(D) Lipoprotein lipase 195. Humans most easily tolerate a lack of the
nutrient:
184. Acrodermatitis enteropathica is due to defective
absorption of (A) Protein (B) Lipid
(C) Iodine (D) Carbohydrate
(A) Manganese (B) Molybdenum
(C) Iodine (D) Zinc 196. The basal metabolic rate (B.M.R.) is
measurement of
185. Hypogonadism develops due to deficiencyof
(A) Energy expenditure during sleep
(A) Sulphur (B) Cobalt
(B) Energy expenditure after 100 m walk
(C) Energy expenditure after a meal 205. Biological value of egg protein is
(D) Energy expenditure under certain basal (A) 94 (B) 60
(Standard) conditions (C) 51 (D) 40
197. B.M.R. is raised in 206. Biological value of protein of cow’s milk is
(A) Polycythemia (B) Starvation (A) 95 (B) 60
(C) Lipid nephrosis (D) Hypothyroidism (C) 71 (D) 67
198. B.M.R. is lowered in 207. Biological value of soyabean protein is
(A) Hypothyroidism (B) Leukemia (A) 86 (B) 71
(C) Cardiac failure (D) Hyperthyroidism (C) 64 (D) 54
199. B.M.R. is subnormal in 208. Plasma bicarbonate is decreased in
(A) Addison’s disease (A) Respiratory alkalosis(B) Respiratory acidosis
(B) Adrenal tumour (C) Metabolic alkalosis
(C) Cushing’s syndrome (D) Metabolic acidosis
(D) Fever
209. Plasma bicarbonate is increased in
200. A healthy 70 kg man eats a well balanceddiet
(A) Respiratory alkalosis(B) Metabolic alkalosis
containing adequate calories and 62.5 g of high
(C) Respiratory acidosis
quality protein per day. Measured in grams of
nitrogen, his daily nitrogen balance would be (D) Metabolic acidosis
(A) +10 g (B) +6.25 g 210. Total CO2 is increased in

(C) 0 g (D) –6.25 g (A) Respiratory acidosis
201. The percentage of nitrogen retained in thebody (B) Metabolic alkalosis
after absorption of diet represents (C) Both respiratory acidosis and
metabolicalkalosis
(A) Digestibility coefficient of proteins
(D) Respiratory alkalosis
(B) Biological value of proteins
(C) Protein efficiency ratio 211. Respiratory acidosis is caused by
(D) Net protein utilisation (A) Increase in carbonic acid relative
202. In a person increase in weight in gms pergm of tobicarbonate
protein consumption represents (B) Decrease in bicarbonate fraction
(C) Increase in bicarbonate fraction
(A) Protein efficiency ratio
(E) Decrease in the carbonic acid fraction
(B) Digestibility value of proteins
(C) Biological value of proteins 212. Respiratory alkalosis is caused by
(D) Net protein utilisation (A) An increase in carbonic acid fraction
203. The percentage of food nitrogen that is retained (B) A decrease in bicarbonic fraction
in the body represents (C) A decrease in the carbonic acid fraction
(A) Digestibility coefficient (D) An increase in bicarbonate fraction
(B) Biological value of proteins 213. Meningitis and encephalitis cause
(C) Protein efficiency ratio (A) Metabolic alkalosis
(D) Net protein utilisation (B) Respiratory alkalosis
204. The chemical score of different proteins is (C) Metabolic acidosis
calculated in terms of (D) Respiratory acidosis
(A) Egg proteins (B) Milk proteins 214. Metabolic acidosis is caused in
(C) Fish proteins (D) Wheat proteins
(A) Uncontrolled diabetes with ketosis (A) Copper (B) FAD

(B) Pneumonia (C) Manganese (D) None of these
(C) Intestinal Obstruction
223. Isocitrate dehydrogenases is
(D) Hepatic coma
(A) Aerobic dehydrogenase
215. Metabolic acidosis is caused in (B) Anaerobic dehydrogenase
(A) Pneumonia (C) Hydroperoxidase
(B) Prolonged starvation (D) Oxygenase
(C) Intestinal obstruction 224. Iron-pophyrin is present as prosthetic group in
(D) Bulbar polio (A) Cytochromes (B) Catalases
216. Respiratory acidosis occurs in (C) Peroxidase (D) None of these
(A) Any disease which impairs respiration
225. Microsomal hydroxylase system contains a
likeemphysema
(B) Renal disease (A) Di-oxygenase (B) Mono-oxygenase
(C) Poisoning by an acid (C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of thse
(D) Pyloric stenosis 226. Superoxide radicals can be detoxified by
217. Metabolic alkalosis occurs (A) Cytochrome c (B) Cytochrome b
(A) As consequence of high intestinal (C) Cytochrome a (D) None of these
obstruction 227. A copper containing cytochrome is
(B) In central nervous system disease (A) Cytochrome a (B) Cytochrome P-450
(C) In diarrhoea
(C) Cytochrome a3 (D) None of these
(D) In colitis
228. Rate of tissue respiration is raised when the
218. Respiratory alkalosis occurs in intracellular concentration of
(A) Hysterical hyperventilation (A) ADP increases (B) ATP increases
(B) Depression of respiratory centre (C) ADP decreases (D) None of these
(C) Renal diseases
(D) Loss of intestinal fluids 229. Which of the following component of
respiratory chain is not attached to the inner
219. Morphine poisoning causes mitochondrial membrane?
(A) Metabolic acidosis (A) Coenzyme Q (B) Cytochrome c
(B) Respiratory acidosis (C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of these
(C) Metabolic alkalosis
230. In some reactions, energy is captured inthe form
(D) Respiratory alkalosis of
220. Salicylate poisoning in early stages causes (A) GTP(B) UTP
(A) Metabolic acidosis (C) CTP (D) None of these
(B) Respiratory acidosis 231. Substrate-linked phosphorylation occursin
(C) Metabolic alkalosis
(A) Glycolytic pathway(B) Citric acid cycle
(D) Respiratory alkalosis
221. The compound having the lowest
232. Hydrogen peroxide may be detoxified in the
redoxpotential amongst the following is
absence of an oxygen acceptor by
(A) Hydrogen (B) NAD
(A) Peroxidase (B) Catalase
(C) Cytochrome b (D) Cytochrome a
222. All the oxidases contain a metal which is 233. Superoxide radicals can be detoxified by
(A) Cytochrome c (A) Congenital erythropoietic porphyria

(B) Superoxide dismutase (B) Protoporphyria
(C) Both (A) and (B) (C) Hereditary coproporphyria
(D) None of these (D) Variegate porphyria
234. The porphyrin present in haem is
243. During breakdown of haem, the methenylbridge
(A) Uroporphyrin (B) Protoporphyrin I between the following two pyrrole rings is
(C) Coproporphyrin (D) Protoporphyrin II broken:
235. An amino acid required for porphyrinsynthesis (A) I and II (B) II and III
is (C) III and IV (D) IV and I
(A) Proline (B) Glycine 244. Pre- hepatic jaundice occurs because of
(C) Serine (D) Histidine (A) Increased haemolysis
236. Which of the following coenzyme is required for (B) Liver damage
porphyrin synthesis? (C) Biliary obstruction
(A) Coenzyme A (D) None of these
(B) Pyridoxal phosphate 245. kernicterus can occur in
(D) None of these
237. The regulatory enzyme for haem synthesis is (C) Obstructive jaundice
(A) ALA synthetase (D) All of these
(B) haem synthetase 246. Bile pigments are not present in urine in
(D) None of these
238. Regulation of haem synthesis occurs by (C) Obstructive jaundice
(A) Covalent modification (D) Rotor’s syndrome
(B) Repression - derepression 247. Serum alkaline phosphatase is greatly increased
(C) Induction in
(D) Allosteric regulation
239. Sigmoidal oxygen dissociation curve is a (B) Hepatic jaundice
property of (C) Obstructive jaundice
(A) Haemoglobin (D) None of these
(B) Carboxyhaemoglobin
248. The active transport system for hepatic uptake
(C) Myoglobin of bilirubin is congenitally defective in
(D) Methaemoglobin
(A) Gilbert’s disease
240. Cyanmethaemoglobin can be formed from (B) Crigler-Najjar syndrome
(A) Oxy Hb (B) Met Hb (C) Rotor’s syndrome
(C) Carboxy Hb (D) All of these (D) Dubin-Johnson syndrome
249. Bilirubin UDP-glucuronyl transferase is absent
241. In thalassemia, an amino acid is substitutedin
from liver in
(A) Alpha chain(B) Beta chain
(A) Crigler-Najjar syndrome, type I(B) Gilbert’s
(C) Alpha and beta chains disease
(D) Any chain (C) Crigler-Najjar syndrome, type II
242. Haem synthetase is congenitally deficient in (D) Rotor’s syndrome
250. Unconjugated bilirubin in serum is soluble in (D) Endocytosis

(A) Water (B) Alkalis 260. Intestinal absorption of calcium is hampered by
(C) Acids (D) Methanal
(A) Phosphate (B) Phytate
251. Excretion of conjugated bilirubin from livercells (C) Proteins (D) Lactose
into biliary canaliculi is defective in
261. Calcitriol facilitates calcium absorption by
(A) Gilbert’s disease increasing the synthesis of the following in
(B) Crigler-Najjar syndrome intestinal mucosa:
(C) Lucey-Driscoll syndrome (A) Calcium Binding Protein
(D) Rotor’s syndrome (B) Alkaline Phosphatase
252. Breakdown of 1gm haemoglobin produces (C) Calcium-dependent ATPase
(A) 20 mg of bilirubin (B) 35 mg of bilirubin (D) All of these
(C) 50 mg of bilirubin (D) 70 mg of bilirubin 262. A high plasma calcium level decreasesintestinal
absorption of calcium by
253. Variable regions are present in
(A) Stimulating the secretion of
(A) Immunoglobulins
parathormone(B) Inhibiting the secretion of
(B) α-Chains of T cell receptors parathormone
(C) β-Chains of T cell receptors (C) Decreasing the synthesis of cholecalciferol
(D) All of these (D) Inhibiting the secretion of thyrocalcitonin
254. The total amount of calcium in an averageadult 263. The daily calcium requirement of an adult man is
man is about about
(A) 100 gm (B) 500 gm (A) 400 mg (B) 600 mg
(C) 1 kg (D) 10 kg (C) 800 mg (D) 1,000 mg
255. The following proportion of the total body 264. The daily calcium requirement in pregnancy and
calcium is present in bones and teeth: lactation is about
(A) 75% (B) 90% (A) 600 mg (B) 800 mg
(C) 95% (D) 99% (C) 1,200 mg (D) 1,500 mg
256. The normal range of plasma calcium is 265. Hypercalcaemia can occur in all the following
except
(A) 3-5 mg/dl (B) 5-10 mg/dl
(C) 9-11 mg/dl (D) 11-15 mg/dl (A) Hyperparathyroidism(B)
Hypervitaminosis D
257. Which of the normal range of ionized calcium in (C) Milk alkali syndrome
plasma is
(D) Nephrotic syndrome
(A) 2-4 mg/dl (B) 2-4 mEq/L (C) 4-5 mg/dl 266. Hypocalcaemia can occur in all the following
(D) 4-5 mEq/L 258. Tetany can occur in except
(A) Hypocalcaemia (A) Rickets
(B) Hypercalcaemia (B) Osteomalacia
(C) Alkalosis (C) Hyperparathyroidism
(D) Hypocalcaemia and alkalosis (D) Intestinal malabsorption
259. Intestinal absorption of calcium occurs by 267. The major calcium salt in bones is
(A) Active takeup (A) Calcium carbonate(B) Calcium chloride
(B) Simple diffusion (C) Calcium hydroxide
(C) Facilitated diffusion (D) Calcium phosphate
268. The correct statement about serum inorganic 276. Normal range of serum sodium is
phosphorous concentration is (A) 30–70 mEq/L (B) 70–110 mEq/L
(A) It is higher in men than in women (C) 117–135 mEq/L (D) 136–145 mEq/L
(B) It is higher in women than in men
277. Sodium is involved in the active uptake of
(C) It is higher in adults than in children
(A) D-Glucose (B) D-Galactose
(D) It is higher in children than in adults
(C) L-Amino acids (D) All of these
269. The product of serum calcium concentration
(mg/dl) and serum inorganic phosphorous 278. Aldosterone increases reabsorption of sodium in
concentration (mg/dl) in adults is about (A) Proximal convoluted tubules
(A) 30 (B) 40 (B) Ascending limb of loop of Henle
(C) 50 (D) 60 (C) Descending limb of loop of Henle
(D) Distal convoluted tubules
270. The product of serum calcium concentration
(mg/dl) and serum inorganic phosphorous 279. Restriction of sodium intake is commonly
concentration (mg/dl) in children is about advised in
(A) 30 (B) 40 (A) Addison’s disease (B) Diarrhoea
(C) 50 (D) 60 (C) Hypertension (D) None of these
271. The product of serum calcium concentration 280. Serum sodium level rises in all of the following
(mg/dl) and serum inorganic phosphorous except
concentration (mg/dl) is decreased in (A) Renal failure
(A) Rickets (B) Prolonged steroid therapy
(B) Hypoparathyroidism (C) Aldosteronism
(C) Hyperparathyroidism (D) Dehydration
(D) Renal failure
281. Hyponatraemia occurs in the following
272. Serum inorganic phosphorous rises in all the condition:
following conditions except (A) Addison’s disease (B) Chronic renal
(A) Hypoparathyroidism(B) failure
Hypervitaminosis D (C) Severe diarrhoea (D) All of these
(C) Chronic renal failure 282. Serum potassium level decreases in
(D) After a carbohydrate-rich meal (A) Familial periodic paralysis
273. Serum inorganic phosphorous decreases in all (B) Addison’s disease
the following conditions except
(C) Renal failure
(A) Hyperparathyroidism (D) All of these
(B) Intestinal malabsorption
283. Concentration of the following is higher in
(C) Osteomalacia
intracellular fluid than in extracellular fluid:
(D) Chronic renal failure
(A) Sodium (B) Potassium
274. Serum magnesium level ranges between (C) Chloride (D) Bicarbonate
(A) 2–3 mg/dl (B) 3–5 mg/dl
284. Normal range of serum potassium is
(C) 6–8 mg/dl (D) 9–11 mg/dl
(A) 2.1-3.4 mEq/L (B) 3.5-5.3 mEq/L
275. Magnesium ions are required in thereactions (C) 5.4–7.4 mEq/L (D) 7.5–9.5 mEq/L
involving
285. Normal range of serum chloride is
(A) NAD (B) FAD
(C) ATP (D) CoA (A) 24–27 mEq/L (B) 70–80 mEq/L
(C) 100–106 mEq/L (D) 120–140 mEq/L 297. Normal plasma iron level is
286. An extracellular fluid having a (A) 50100 µg/dl (B) 100150 µg/dl
higherconcentration of chloride than serum is (C) 50175 µg/dl (D) 250400 µg/dl
(A) Bile (B) Sweat
298. Iron is present in all the following except
(C) CSF (D) Pancreatic juice
(A) Peroxidase (B) Xanthine oxidase
287 Total amount of iron in an adult man is about (C) Aconitase (D) Fumarase
(A) 1–2 gm (B) 2–3 gm
299. Total daily iron loss of an adult man isabout
(C) 3–4 gm (D) 6–7 gm
(A) 0.1 mg (B) 1 mg
288. Haemoglobin contains about (C) 5 mg (D) 10 mg
(A) 30% of the total body iron
300. Iron absorption is hampered by
(B) 50% of the total body iron(C) 75% of the
total body iron (A) Ascorbic acid (B) Succinic acid
(D) 90% of the total body iron (C) Phytic acid (D) Amino acid
289. About 5% of the total body, iron is presentin 301. Iron absorption is hampered by
(A) Transferrin (B) Myoglobin (A) In achlorhydria

(C) Cytochromes (D) Haemosiderin (B) When ferritin content of intestinal mucosa
islow
290. Each haemoglobin molecule contains (C) When saturation of plasma transferring is
(A) One iron atom (B) Two iron atoms low
(C) Four iron atoms (D) Six iron atoms
(D) When erythropoietic activity is increased
291. Each myoglobin molecule contains
302. Daily iron requirement of an adult man is about
(A) One iron atom (B) Two iron atoms
(A) 1 mg (B) 5 mg
(C) Four iron atoms (D) Six iron atoms
(C) 10 mg (D) 18 mg
292. Apoferritin molecule is made up of
303. Daily iron requirement of a woman
(A) Four subunits (B) Eight subunits
ofreproductive age is about
(C) Ten subunits (D) Twenty-four subunits
(A) 1 mg (B) 2 mg
293. Ferritin is present in (C) 10 mg (D) 20 mg
(A) Intestinal mucosa (B) Liver
304. All the following are good sources of iron except
(C) Spleen (D) All of these
(A) Milk (B) Meat
294. Iron is stored in the form of (C) Liver (D) Kidney
(A) Ferritin and transferrin
305. Relatively more iron is absorbed from
(B) Transferrin and haemosiderin
(A) Green leafy vegetables
(C) Haemoglobin and myoglobin
(B) Fruits
(D) Ferritin and haemosiderin
(C) Whole grain cereals
295. Iron is transported in blood in the form of (D) Organ meats
(A) Ferritin (B) Haemosiderin
306. Iron absorption from a mixed diet is about
(C) Transferrin (D) Haemoglobin
(A) 1–5 % (B) 5–10 %
296. Molecular weight of transferrin is about (C) 20–25 % (D) 25–50 %
(A) 40,000 (B) 60,000
307. Iron deficiency causes
(C) 80,000 (D) 1,00,000
(A) Normocytic anaemia (C) 100 mg (D) 10 mg

(B) Microcytic anaemia 316. The normal range of plasma copper is
(C) Megaloblastic anaemia
(A) 25–50 µg/dl (B) 50–100 µg/dl
(D) Pernicious anaemia
(C) 100–200 µg/dl (D) 200–400 µg/dl
308. Prolonged and severe iron deficiency can cause
astrophy of epithelium of 317. Copper deficiency can cause
(A) Oral cavity (B) Oesophagus (A) Polycythaemia (B) Leukocytopenia

(C) Stomach (D) All of these (C) Thrombocytopenia (D) Microcytic anaemia
318. Daily requirement of copper in adults is about
309. All of the following statements about bronzed
diabetes are true except (A) 0.5 mg (B) 1 mg
(A) It is caused by excessive intake of copper (C) 2.5 mg (D) 5 mg
(B) Skin becomes pigmented 319. All the following statements about
(C) There is damage to β cells of Islets of ceruloplasmin are correct except
Langerhans (D) Liver is damaged (A) It is a copper-containing protein
(B) It possesses oxidase activity
310. The total amount of iodine in the body of an
(C) It is synthesised in intestinal mucosa
average adult is
(D) Its plasma level is decreased
(A) 10–15 mg (B) 20–25 mg inWilson’sdisease
(C) 45–50 mg (D) 75–100 mg 320. All the following statements about Wilson’s
311. Iodine content of thyroid gland in an adult is disease are correct except
about
(A) It is a genetic disease
(A) 1–3 mg (B) 4–8 mg (B) The defect involves copper-dependent P-
(C) 10–15 mg (D) 25–30 mg typeATPase
312. Daily iodine requirement of an adult is about (C) Copper is deposited in liver, basal
gangliaand around cornea
(A) 50 µg (B) 100 µg (D) Plasma copper level is increased in it
(C) 150 µg (D) 1 mg
321. Which of the following statements about
313. Consumption of iodised salt is recommended in Menke’s disease are true.
(A) Patients with hyperthyroidism (A) It is an inherited disorder of copper
(B) Patients with hypothyroidism metabolism
(C) Pregnant women (B) It occurs only in males
(D) Goitre belt areas (C) Plasma copper is increased in it
314. All the following statements about endemic (D) Hair becomes steely and kinky in it
goiter are true except 322. The total amount of zinc in an average adult is
(A) It occurs in areas where soil and water (A) 0.25–0.5 gm (B) 0.5–1.0 gm
havelow iodine content
(C) 1.5–2.0 gm (D) 2.5–5.0 gm
(B) It leads to enlargement of thyroid gland
(C) It results ultimately in hyperthyroidism 323. Plasma zinc level is
(D) It can be prevented by consumption (A) 10–50 µg/dl (B) 50–150 µg/dl
ofiodised salt (C) 150–250 µg/dl (D) 250–500 µg/dl
315. The total amount of copper in the body of an 324. Zinc is a cofactor for
average adult is (A) Acid phosphatase
(A) 1 gm (B) 500 mg (B) Alkaline phosphatase
(C) Amylase (D) Superoxide dismutase

(D) Lipase 336. Selenium decreases the requirement of
325. Zinc is involved in storage and release of (A) Copper (B) Zinc
(A) Histamine (B) Acetylcholine (C) Vitamin D (D) Vitamin E
(C) Epinephrine (D) Insulin 337. Upper safe limit of fluorine in water is
326. Intestinal absorption of zinc is retarded by (A) 0.4 ppm (B) 0.8 ppm
(A) Calcium (B) Cadmium (C) 1.2 ppm (D) 2 ppm
(C) Phytate (D) All of these 338. The daily fluoride intake should not exceed
327. The daily zinc requirement of an average adult is (A) 0.5 mg (B) 1 mg
(A) 5 mg (B) 10 mg (C) 2 mg (D) 3 mg
(C) 15 mg (D) 25 mg 339. In adults, water constitutes about
328. Zinc deficiency occurs commonly in (A) 50% of body weight(B) 55% of body weight
(A) Acrodermatitis enteropathica (C) 60% of body weight (D) 75% of body
(B) Wilson’s disease weight 340. 1 kcal is roughly equal to
(C) Xeroderma pigmentosum (A) 4.2 J (B) 42 J
(D) Menke’s disease (C) 4.2 KJ (D) 42 KJ
329. Hypogonadism can occur in deficiency of
341. Calorific value of proteins as determined in a
(A) Copper (B) Chromium bomb calorimeter is
(C) Zinc (D) Manganese
(A) 4 kcal/gm (B) 4.8 kcal/gm
330. Healing of wounds may be impaired in deficiency (C) 5.4 kcal/gm (D) 5.8 kcal/gm
of
342. Calorific value of proteins in a living person is
(A) Selenium (B) Copper less than that in a bomb calorimeter because
(C) Zinc (D) Cobalt
(A) Digestion and absorption of proteins is
331. Hypochromic microcytic anaemia can occur in lessthan 100%
(A) Zinc(B) Copper (B) Respiratory quotient of proteins is less
(C) Manganese (D) None of these than 1
(C) Specific dynamic action of proteins is
332. The daily requirement for manganese in adults is
high
about
(D) Proteins are not completely oxidized in
(A) 1–2 mg (B) 2–5 mg livingpersons
(C) 2–5 µg (D) 5–20 µg
343. Calorific value of alcohol is
333. Molybdenum is a cofactor for
(A) 4 kcal/gm (B) 5.4 kcal/gm
(A) Xanthine oxidase (B) Aldehyde oxidase (C) 7 kcal/gm (D) 9 kcal/gm
(C) Sulphite oxidase (D) All of these
344. Energy expenditure of a person can be
334. A trace element having antioxidant function is measured by
(A) Selenium (B) Tocopherol (A) Bomb calorimetry
(C) Chromium (D) Molybdenum (B) Direct calorimetry
335. Selenium is a constituent of (C) Indirect calorimetry
(A) Glutathione reductase (D) Direct or indirect calorimetry
(B) Glutathione peroxidase 345. Respiratory quotient of carbohydrates is about
(C) Catalase
(A) 0.5 (B) 0.7 (C) Starvation (D) Hypothyroidism

(C) 0.8 (D) 1.0 356. BMR is increased in all of the following except
346. Respiratory quotient of fats is about (A) Hyperthyroidism (B) Anaemia
(A) 0.5 (B) 0.7 (C) Addison’s disease (D) Pregnancy
(C) 0.8 (D) 1.0 357. Specific dynamic action of carbohydrates is
347. Respiratory quotient of proteins is about about
(A) 0.5 (B) 0.7 (A) 5% (B) 13%

(C) 0.8 (D) 1.0 (C) 20% (D) 30%
348. Respiratory quotient of an average mixeddiet is 358. Specific dynamic action of proteins is about
about (A) 5% (B) 13%
(C) 20% (D) 30%
(A) 0.65 (B) 0.7
359. All following are essential trace elements except
(C) 0.75 (D) 0.85
(A) Iron (B) Iodine
349. At a respiratory quotient of 0.85, everylitre of
(C) Zinc (D) Cadmium
oxygen consumed represents an energy
expenditure of 360. Maximum quantity of sodium is excreted
(A) 5.825 kcal (B) 4.825 kcal through
(C) 3.825 kcal (D) 2.825 kcal (A) Urine (B) Faeces
350. BMR of healthy adult men is about (C) Sweat (D) None of these
(A) 30 kcal/hour/square metre 361. All followings are rich sources of magnesium,
(B) 35 kcal/hour/square metre except
(C) 40 kcal/hour/square metre (A) Milk (B) Eggs
(D) 45 kcal/hour/square metre (C) Meat (D) Cabbage
351. BMR of healthy adult women is about 362. All followings are poor sources of iron except
(A) 32 kcal/hour/square metre (A) Milk (B) Potatoes (C) Wheat flour
(B) 36 kcal/hour/square metre (D) Liver
(C) 40 kcal/hour/square metre 363. The Iron deficient children, absorption of Iron
(D) 44 kcal/hour/square metre from GIT is
352. BMR is higher in (A) Unaltered
(A) Adults than in children (B) Double than in normal child
(B) Men than in women (C) Manifold than in normal child
(C) Vegetarians than in non-vegetarians (D) Lesser than in normal child
(D) Warmer climate than in colder climate 364. Main source of fluoride for human beings is
353. BMR is decreased in (A) Milk (B) Water
(A) Pregnancy (B) Starvation (C) Vegetables (D) Eggs
(C) Anaemia (D) Fever 365. Quantity of copper present in the body of an
adult is
354. BMR is increased in
(A) 0–50 mg(B) 50–100 mg
(A) Starvation (B) Hypothyroidism
(C) 100–150 mg (D) 150–250 mg
(C) Addison’s disease (D) Pregnancy
366. A level of 310–340 mg per 1000 ml ofblood is
355. BMR is decreased in all of the following except
normal for the
(A) Fever (B) Addison’s disease
(A) Copper (B) Iron
(C) Potassium (D) Sodium (C) Formation of potassium iodide

367. Daily requirement of phosphorous for an infant (D) Adrenalin
is 377. A hypochromic necrocytic anaemia withincrease
(A) 240–400 mg (B) 1.2 gms Fe stores in the bone marrow may be
(C) 800 mg (D) 800–1200 mg (A) Folic acid responsive(B) Vitamin B 12
368. Maximum quantity of Zinc is present in the body responsive
in (C) Pyridoxine responsive
(A) Prostate (B) Choroid (D) Vitamin C responsive
(C) Skin (D) Bones 378. A deficiency of copper effects the formationof
369. Average concentration of chloride ions normal collagen by reducing the activity of
incerebrospinal fluid per 100 ml is which of the following enzyme?
(A) 40 mg (B) 440 mg (A) Prolyl hydroxylase(B) Lysyl oxidase

(C) 160 mg (D) 365 mg (C) Lysyl hydroxylase
(D) Glucosyl transferase
370. Total iron content of the normal adult is
(A) 1-2 gm (B) 3-4 gm 379. Molecular iron (Fe) is
(C) 4-5 gm (D) 7-10 gm (A) Stored primarily in spleen
(B) Absorbed in the intestine
371. Absorption of phosphorous from diet is
(C) Absorbed in the ferric, Fe+++ form
favoured by
(D) Stored in the body in combination with
(A) Moderate amount of fat(B) Acidic
ferritin
environment
(C) High calcium content 380. All the following statements regarding calcium
(D) High phytic acid are correct except
(A) It diffuses as a divalent cation
372. Daily intake of potassium for a normal person
should be (B) It freely diffuses across the
endoplasmicreticulum of muscle cells
(A) 1 gm (B) 2 gm
(C) It can exist in the blood as ionic form
(C) 3 gm (D) 4 gm andalso protein bound
373. Absorption of calcium decreases if there is high (D) It is found in high concentration in
concentration in the diet of bones
(A) Copper (B) Sodium 381. Iron is absorbed from
(C) Magnesium (D) Cadmium
(A) Stomach
374. Of the following highest concentration (B) Duodenum and jejunum
ofcalcium is seen in (C) Ileum
(A) Blood (B) CSF (D) Noen of the above
(C) Muscle (D) Nerve
382. The normal route of calcium excretion is
375. Cobalt is essential component of (A) Kidney
(A) Vitamin B1 (B) Vitamin B6 (B) Kidney and Liver
(C) Vitamin B12 (D) All of these (C) Kidney and Intestine
(D) Kidney, Intestine and Pancreas
376. Iodine is required in human body for
383. Hypocalcaemia affects
(A) Formation of thyroxine
(B) Formation of Glutathione (A) Skeletal muslces(B) Smooth muscles
(C) Cardiac muscles (C) Hypochromic anaemia of pregnancy

(D) Skeletal muscles + smooth muscles + (D) Thalassaemia minor
cardiacmuscles
392. In hoemochromatosis, the liver is infiltrated
384. Transferrin is a type of with
(A) Albumin (B) α-globulin (A) Copper (B) Iron
(C) Manganese (D) Chromium
(C) β1 globulin (D) γ-globulin
393. Which of the following is true? Hypochromic
385. In case of wilson’s disease, the featuresinclude
anaemia is not due to iron deficiency except
all of the following except
(A) Serum ‘Fe’ is high
(A) Progressive hepatic cirrhosis
(B) Normal/low transferrin
(B) Keyser Fleisher ring
(C) Stainable iron in bone marrow
(C) Aminoaciduria
(D) Iron therapy is affective
(D) Urinary excretion of Cu is decreased
386. In Vitamin D poisoning (hyper-vitaminosis) 394. Cytosolic superoxide dismutase contains
(A) Both serum and urinary “Ca” (A) Zn only (B) Cu only
(B) The serum Ca is low and urinary calcium (C) Zn and Cu (D) Mn
high 395. A rise in blood ‘Ca’ may indicate
(C) The serum “Ca” is increased and urinary (A) Paget’s disease (B) Vitamin D
“Ca” is normal deficiency
(D) Both serum and urinary “Ca” are low (C) Cushing’s disease (D) Hypervitaminosis D
387. The % of ‘K’ in Extracellular fluid is about
396. The essential trace element which catalyzes the
(A) 1% (B) 2 to 3% formation of Hb in the body is
(C) 10% (D) 15% (A) Mn (B) Se
388. The Fe containing pigments is (C) Mg (D) Cu
(A) Haematoidin (B) Bilirubin 397. Zinc is a constituent of the enzyme:
(C) Hemasiderin (D) Urobilinogen (A) Succinate dehydrogenase
389. All of the following are true of Wilson’s disease (B) Carbonic anhydrase
except (C) Mitochondrial superoxide dismutase
(A) Low total plasma Cu (D) Aldolase
(B) Elevated urinary copper 398. The active transport of ‘Ca’ is regulated by
(C) Arthritis __________ which is synthesized in kidnyes.
(D) Aminoaciduria (A) Cholecalciferol
390. An increased serum ‘Iron’ and decreased (B) Ergosterol
‘Fe’ binding capacity are found in (C) 25-OH cholecalciferol
(A) Fe-deficiency anaemia (D) 1, 25-di OH-Cholecalciferol
(B) Sideroblastic anaemia 399. Ceruloplasmin shows the activity
(C) Thalassaemia
(A) As ferroxidase (B) As reductase
(D) Anaemia of chromic disorders
(C) As ligase (D) As transferase
391. Iron therapy is ineffective in which of the
400. The principal cation of extra cellular fluid:
following conditions:
(A) K+ (B) Na+
(A) Chronic blood loss
(B) Inadequate Fe intake (C) H+ (D) Ca2+
401. What is the principal cation of intracellularfluid? (C) Tyrosinase

(A) K+ (B) Na+ (D) All of these
(C) Ca2+ (D) Mg2+
411. Zn is present as prosthetic group in thisenzyme:
402. What is the normal level of K+ in the serum?
(A) Carbonic anhydrase
(A) 137–148 mEq/L (B) 120–160 mEq/L
(B) Carboxy peptidase
(C) 3.9–5.0 mEq/L (D) 0.3–0.59 mEq/L
(C) Lactate dehydrogenase
403. The general functions of minerals are (D) All of these
(A) The structural components of body
412. Fluorosis is caused due to
tissues
(B) In the regulation of body fluids (A) Excessive intake of fluorine
(C) In acid-base balance (B) Low intake of fluorine
(D) All of these (C) Discoloration of the teeth due to low
intake
404. What are the functions of potassium? (D) All of these
(A) In muscle contraction
413. What is the state of iron in transferrin?
(B) Cell membrane function
(A) Ferrous form (B) Ferric form
(C) Enzyme action
(C) Both A and B (D) None of these
(D) All of these
414. Haemoglobin formation needs both
405. The daily requirement of calcium is
(A) Iron and Zinc (B) Iron and Calcium
(A) 200 mg (B) 400 mg
(C) Iron and Copper (D) Iron and Magnesium
(C) 800 mg (D) 600 mg
ANSWERS
406. The normal serum inorganic phosphorouslevel 1. A 2. C 3. C 4. A 5. B 6. B
is
7. C 8. B 9. C 10. D 11. C 12. C
(A) 1.5–2.5 mg/100 ml
13. B 14. A 15. B
(B) 2.5–4.5 mg/100 ml(C) 4.5–6.5 mg/100 16. A 17. B 18. D
ml
19. D 20. A 21. A
(D) 0.5–1.5 mg/100 ml 22. A 23. C 24. B
407. When phosphorous level is lowered ? 25. C 26. C 27. A
28. C 29. C 30. A
(A) In hyper thyroidism (B) Cirrosis of liver
31. D 32. A 33. D
(C) Leukemia (D) Hypothyroidism
34. A 35. B 36. D
408. Ferritin is 37. B 38. C 39. A
(A) Coenzyme 40. A 41. B 42. A
(B) One of the component of 43. D 44. A 45. B
photophosphorylation 46. A 47. A 48. D
(C) It is the stored form of iron 49. D 50. A 51. D
(D) Non-protein moiety 52. A 53. A 54. A
55. D 56. B 57. B
409. What is ceruloplasmin? 58. A 59. C 60. D
(A) Plasma protein (B) Stored form of 61. A 62. D 63. D
copper (C) Both A and B (D) None of these 64. D 65. B 66. D
410. The following are the functions of copper: 67. D 68. D 69. C
70. D 71. A 72. B
(A) Constituent of cytochromes
73. C 74. D 75. D
(B) Catalase 76. B 77. A 78. C
79. A 80. D 81. A 331. B 332. B 333. D 334. A 335. B 336. D 337. C
82. A 83. C 84. A 338. D 339. C 340. C 341. C 342. D
85. C 86. D 87. A 343. C 344. D 345. D
88. C 89. D 90. D 346. B 347. C 348. D
91. C 92. B 93. D 94. C 95. B 96. C 97. B 98. A 99. 349. B 350. C 351. B 352. B 353. B 354. D 355. A
D 100. A 101. C 102. A 103. B 104. B 105. A 106. 356. C 357. A 358. D 359. D 360. A 361. C 362. D
D 107. C 108. B 109. A 110. D 111. C 112. D 113. 363. B 364. B 365. C 366. D 367. A 368. C 369. B
A 114. B 370. C 371. B 372. D 373. C 374. C 375. C 376. A
115. A 116. A 117. D 377. C 378. B
118. A 119. D 120. D 379. D 380. B 381. B 382. C 383. D 384. B 385. D
121. B 122. A 123. A 124. B 125. A 126. A 127. A 386. A 387. A 388. C 389. C 390. B
128. C 129. A 130. A 131. B 132. C 133. D 134. C 391. D 392. B 393. D
135. C 136. C 137. A 138. B 139. A 140. B 141. A 394. C 395. D 396. D
142. D 143. C 144. C 145. D 146. D 147. B 148. D 397. B 398. D 399. A 400. B 401. A 402. C 403. D
149. C 150. D 151. C 152. C 153. B 154. D 155. A 404. D 405. C 406. B 407. A 408. C 409. C 410. D
156. C 157. D 158. B 159. A 160. D 161. C 162. D 411. D 412. A 413. B 414. C
163. A 164. C 165. C 166. A 167. A 168. D
169. A 170. D 171. A
172. A 173. A 174. A
175. B 176. A 177. A
178. C 179. A 180. C
181. D 182. B 183. A 184. D 185. C 186. A 187. B
188. C 189. B 190. C 191. C 192. D 193. A 194. D
195. D 196. D 197. A 198. A 199. A 200. C 201. B
202. A 203. D 204. A 205. A 206. B 207. C 208. D
209. B 210. C 211. A 212. C 213. B 214. A 215. B
216. A 217. A 218. A 219. B 220. D 221. A 222. A
223. B 224. D 225. B 226. A 227. C 228. A 229. C
230. A 231. C 232. B 233. C 234. D 235. A 236. C
237. A 238. B 239. A 240. B 241. D 242. B 243. A
244. A 245. A 246. A 247. C 248. A 249. A 250. D
251. D 252. B 253. D 254. C 255. D 256.
C 257. C 258. D
259. A 260. B 261. D 262. B 263. C 264. C 265. D
266. C 267. D 268. D 269. A 270. C 271. A 272. D
273. D 274. A 275. C 276. D
277. D 278. D 279. C 280. A 281. D 282. A 283. B
284. B 285. C 286. C 287. C 288. C
289. B 290. C 291. A 292. D 293. D 294. D 295. C
296. C 297. C 298. D 299. B 300. C
301. A 302. C 303. D
304. A 305. D 306. B
307. B 308. D 309. A 310. C 311. C 312. C 313. D
314. C 315. C 316. C 317. D 318. C 319. C 320. D
321. C 322. C 323. B 324. B
325. D 326. D 327. C
328. D 329. C 330. C
1. Hormones
(A) Act as coenzyme HORMONE METABOLISM
(B) Act as enzyme
(C) Influence synthesis of enzymes
(D) Belong to B-complex group
2. Hormone that binds to intracellularreceptor is
(A) Adrenocorticotropic hormone(B)
Thyroxine
6. The number of amino acids in humangrowth
(C) Follicle stimulating hormone hormone is
(D) Glucagon
(A) 91 (B) 151 (C) 191 (D) 291
3. Hormone that bind to cell surface receptorand
7. Growth hormone causes hyperglycemia.
require the second messenger camp is
It is a result of
(A) Antidiuretic hormone
(A) Decreased peripheral utilization of glucose
(B) Cholecystokinin
(B) Decreased hepatic production via
(C) Calcitriol
gluconeogenesis
(D) Gastrin
(C) Increased glycolysis in muscle
4. A hormone secreted from anterior pituitaryis
(A) Growth hormone (B) Vasopressin (D) Decrersed lipolysis

(C) Oxytocin (D) Epinephrine 8. Acromegaly results due to excessiverelease of
5. A hormone secreted from posterior pituitaryis (A) Thyroxine (B) Growth hormone
(A) Vasopressin (C) Insulin (D) Glucagon
(B) Thyrotropic hormone 9. Growth hormone is released by
(C) Prolactin
(A) Somatostatin
(D) Adrenocorticotropic hormone
(B) Growth hormone releasing hormone
CHAPTER 8 (C)
(D)
Prolactin release inhibiting hormone
Luteinizing releasing hormone
10. The number of amino acids in prolactin is
(A) 134 (B) 146
(C) 172 (D) 199
11. Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) is asingle

polypeptide containing
(A) 25 amino acid (B) 39 amino acid (C)
49 amino acid (D) 52 amino acid
12. Biological activity of ACTH requires
(A) 10-N-terminal amino acid
(B) 24-N-terminal amino acid
(C) 24-C-terminal amino acid 21. Cortisol is synthesized in

(D) 15-C-terminal amino acid (A) Zona fasiculata (B) Zona glomerulosa
13. ACTH stimulates the secretion of (C) Zona reticularis (D) Chromaffin cells
(A) Glucocorticoids (B) Epinephrine 22. All mammalian steroid hormones areformed
(C) Thyroxine (D) Luteinizing hormone from
(A) Purine (B) Pyrimidine
14. Excessive secretion of ACTH causes
(C) Cholesterol (D) Pyrrole
(A) Cushing’s syndrome
(B) Addison’s disease 23. A very efficient inhibitor of steroidbiosynthesis is
(C) Myxoedema (A) Aminoglutethimide
(D) Thyrotoxicosis (B) Aminoimidazole
(C) Aminoimidazolesuccinyl carboxamine
15. In Cushing’s syndrome-a tumour associated
disease of adrenal cortex, there is (D) Aminopterin
(A) Decreased epinephrine production 24. In adrenal gland the cholesterol is stored
(B) Excessive cortisol production (A) Mostly in the free form
(C) Excessive epinephrine production (B) Mostly in esterified form
(D) Decreased cortsoil production (C) Large amount of free form and less
amountof esterified form
16. ACTH induces rise in
(D) Equal amounts of free and esterified form
(A) Cyclic AMP (B) Cyclic GMP
(C) Calcium (D) Magnesium 25. Aldosterone synthesis occurs in
(A) Zona reticularis (B) Zona fasciculata
17. The circulating concentration of ACTH inplasma
is (C) Zona glomerulosa (D) Chromaffian cells
26. In the biosynthesis of cortiol, the sequenceof
(A) 0.05 mµ/100 ml enzymes involved is
(B) 0.1–2.0 mµ/100 ml (C) 2.5–3.5 mµ/100 ml (A) Hydroxylase–dehydrogenase + isomerase –
(D) 3.0–5.0 mµ/100 ml hydroxylase
(B) Dehydrogenase–hydroxylase–isomerase
18. Hyperglycemic effect of glucocorticoids isdue to
(C) Hydroxylase–lyase–dehydrogenase
(A) Inactivation of protein phosphatase isomerase
(B) Inactivation of fructose 1,6-biphosphatase (D) Isomerase–lyase–hydroxylase–
(C) Stimulation of synthesis of pyruvate dehydrogenase
carboxylase
27. The defect in adrenal cortex responsiblefor lack
(D) Stimulation of synthesis of eltroxykinase
of glucocorticoids and mineralcorticoids is
19. The predominant glucocorticoid is (A) Androstenedione deficiency
(A) Cortisol
(B) 17α-OH progesterone deficiency
(B) Aldosterone
(C) C-21 hydroxylase deficiency
(C) Dehydroephiandrosterone
(D) Testosterone deficiency
(D) Androstenedione
28. 3-β-Hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase and ∆5,4
20. A specific cortisol binding protein, transcortin is
isomerase catalyse the conversion of the weak
a
androgen DHEA to
(A) Albumin (B) α1-Globulin (A) Androstenedione (B) Testosterone
(C) α2-Globulin (D) β-Globulin (C) Progesterone (D) Estrone
29. In the resting state plasma concentrationof (D) p-Hydroxy derivatives of phenyllactate
cortisol is
37. The sequential steps in the conversion oftyrosine
(A) 0.4–2.0 µg/100 ml to epinephrine are
(B) 2.0–4.0 µg/100 ml
(A) Ring hydroxylation-decarboxylation-side
(C) 5.0–15.0 µg/100 ml chainhydroxylation-N-methylation
(D) 18.0–25.0 µg/100 ml (B) Side chain hydroxylation-decarboxylation-
30. The most important effect of aldosteroneis to ringhydroxylation N-methylation
(A) Increase the rate of tubular reabsorption (C) Decarboxylation-ring hydroxylation-side
ofsodium chainhydroxylation-N-methylation
(B) Decrease the rate of tubular reabsorption (D) N-methylation-decarboxylation-ring and
ofpotassium sidechain hydroxylation
(C) Decrease the reabsorption of chloride 38. The hormone required for uterine
(D) Decrease the renal reabsorption of sodium musclecontraction for child birth is
31. One of the potent stimulators ofaldosterone (A) Progesterone (B) Estrogen
secretion is (C) Oxytocin (D) Vasopressin
(A) Increased sodium concentration 39. The number of amino acids in the
(B) Decreased potassium concentration hormoneoxytocin is
(C) Increased potassium concentration (A) 7 (B) 9
(D) Increased ECF volume (C) 14 (D) 18
32. In the rennin-angiotensin system theprimary 40. Vasopressin and oxytocin circulate unbound to
hormone is proteins and have very short plasma half lives,
(A) Angiotensinogen (B) Angiotensin I on the order of
(C) Angiotensin II (D) Angiotensin III (A) 1–2 minutes (B) 2–4 minutes
33. Aldosterone release is stimulated by (C) 5–8 minutes (D) 10–12 minutes
(A) α2-Globulin (B) Renin 41. Melanogenesis is stimulated by

(C) Angiotensin II (D) Growth hormone (A) MSH (B) FSH
34. In the synthesis of Angiotensin I, renninacts on (C) LH (D) HCG
Angiotensinogen and cleaves the 42. The number of amino acids in
(A) Leucine – leucine at 10 and 11 position(B) antidiuretichormone is
Valine – tyrosine at 3 and 4 position (A) 9 (B) 18
(C) Isoleucine – histidine at 5 and 6 position (C) 27 (D) 36
(D) Proline – histidine at 7 and 8 position 43. ADH
(A) Reabsorbs water from renal tubules
35. Catecholamine hormones are synthesizedin the
(B) Excretes water from renal tubules
(A) Chromaffin cells of adrenal medulla
(C) Excretes hypotonic urine
(B) Zona glomerulosa of adrenal cortex
(D) Causes low specific gravity of urine
(C) Zona fasciculate of adrenal cortex
44. Increased reabsorption of water from thekidney
(D) Zona reticularis of adrenal cortex is the major consequence of the secretion of the
36. Catecholamine hormones are hormone?
(A) 3, 4-Dihydroxy derivatives of (A) Cortisol (B) Insulin
phenylethylamine (C) Vasopressin (D) Aldosterone
(B) p-Hydroxy derivatives of phenylacetate
(C) p-Hydroxy derivatives of phenylpyruvate 45. An increase in the osmolality of extracellular
compartment will
(A) Inhibit ADH secretion (A) Tyrosine hydroxylase

(B) Stimulate ADH secretion (B) N-methyl transferase
(C) Cause no change in ADH secretion (C) Aromatic amino acid decarboxylase
(D) Stimulate the volume and osmoreceptor (D) Tryptophan pyrrolase
andinhibit ADH secretion
54. Epinephrine stimulates glycogenolysis in
46. For Catecholamine biosynthesis the ratelimiting (A) Liver (B) Muscle
enzyme is
(C) Liver and muscle (D) Kidney
(A) DOPA decarboxylase
55. A cup of strong coffee would be expectedto
(B) DOPAMINE β-hydroxylase
(A) Interfere with the synthesis of
(C) Tyrosine hydroxylase
prostaglandins(B) Decrease the effect of
(D) Phenylalanine hydroxylase
glucagon
47. A hormone which cannot cross the bloodbrain
(C) Enhance the effect of epinephrine
barrier is
(D) Provide the vitamin nicotinic acid
(A) Epinephrine(B) Aldosterone
(C) ACTH (D) TSH 56. Epinephrine is derived from norepinephrine by
(A) Decarboxylation (B) Hydroxylation
48. The plasma level of epinephrine is lessthan
(C) Oxidation (D) N-methylation
(A) 0.1 ng/ml (B) 0.2 ng/ml
(C) 0.4 ng/ml (D) 0.8 ng/ml 57. 5 HIAA test is negative if patient is taking
(A) Aspirin (B) Colchicine
49. Epinephrine is rapidly metabolized by
(C) Phenothiazone (D) Methotrexate
(A) Monoamine oxidase
(B) Deaminase 58. Presence of significant amount of 5-HIAAin urine
indicates
(C) Transminase
(D) Decarboxylase (A) Carcinoid in liver
(B) Carcinoid in appendix
50. Pheochromocytomas are tumours of
(C) Metastasis of carcinoma of liver
(A) Adrenal cortex (B) Adrenal medulla (D) Hepatoma
(C) Pancreas (D) Bone
59. The normal serum level of triiodothyronine (T 3)
51. A characteristic of pheochromocytoma is
iselevated urinary excretion of
(A) 0.2–0.5 ng/ml (B) 0.7–2.0 ng/ml (C)
(A) Dopamine 2.0–4.0 ng/ml (D) 5.0–8.0 ng/ml
(B) Tyrosine
60. The normal serum level of thyroxine (T4) is
(C) Vinylmandelic acid
(A) 2.0–4.0 µg/100 ml
(D) Phenylalanine
(B) 5.5–13.5 µg/100 ml
52. In the synthetic pathway of
epinephrine,disulfiram (antabuse) inhibits the (C) 14.0–20.3 µg/100 ml
enzyme: (D) 20.0–25.0 µg/100 ml
(A) Tyrosine hydroxylase 61. Excess secretion of thyroid hormonescauses
(B) Dopamine β-hydroxylase (A) Hyperthyroidism (B) Myxoedema
(C) DOPA decarboxylase (C) Cretinism (D) Cushing syndrome
(D) N-methyl transferase 62. Insufficient free T3 and T4 results in
53. The biosynthesis of both Catecholamineand (A) Grave’s disease (B) Mysoedema
serotonin require (C) Cushing syndrome(D) Gigantism
63. In primary hypothyroidism the usefulestimation (C) 50 (D) 70

is of
73. The number of amino acids in parathormone is
(A) T3 (B) T4
(A) 65 (B) 84
(C) TBG (D) Autoantibodies
(C) 115 (D) 122
64. When iodine supplies are sufficient the T 3 and T4
74. The sequence of amino acid in which
ratio in thyroglobulin is
thebiological value of parathormone is
(A) 1 : 2 (B) 1 : 4 (A) 1–15 (B) 1–34
(C) 1 : 7 (D) 1 : 10 (C) 30–50 (D) 50–84
75. PTH
65. A substance which competes with iodideuptake
mechanism by thyroid gland is (A) Reduces the renal clearance or excretion
ofcalcium
(A) Thiocynate (B) Iodoacetate
(B) Increases renal phosphate clearance
(C) Fluoride (D) Fluoroacetate
(C) Increases the renal clearance of calcium
66. Thyroperoxidase enzyme contains (D) Decreases the renal phosphate clearance
(A) Heme (B) Copper
76. The number of amino acids in the
(C) Zinc (D) Magnesium peptidehormone calcitonin is
67. Thyroproxidase requires hydrogenperoxide as (A) 16 (B) 24
oxidizing agent. The H2O2 is produced by (C) 32 (D) 40
(A) FADH2 dependent enzyme (B) NADH
77. Calcitonin causes
dependent enzyme
(A) Calcinuria and phosphaturia
(C) NADP dependent enzyme
(B) Decrease in urinary calcium
(D) NADPH dependent enzyme
(C) Decrease in urinary phosphorous
68. Thyroid stimulating hormone is a dimer.The α- (D) Increase in blood calcium level
subunits of TSH, LH, FSH are identical. Thus the 78. The characteristic of hyperparathyroidismis
biological specificity must therefore be β subunit
(A) Low serum calcium
in which the number of amino acids is
(B) High serum phosphorous
(A) 78 (B) 112 (C) 130 (D) 199 (C) Low serum calcium and high serum
69. TSH stimulates the synthesis delete phosphorous
(A) Thyroxine (B) Adrenocorticoids (D) High serum calcium and low
(C) Epinephrine (D) Insulin serumphosphate
70. Thyroid hormones are synthesized by 79. Parathyroid hormone

theiodination of the amino acid: (A) Is released when serum Ca++ is too high
(A) Glycine (B) Phenylalanine (B) Inactivates vitamin D
(C) Alanine (D) Tyrosine (C) Is secreted when Ca++ is too low
71. The tyrosine residues per molecule (D) Depends on vitamin K for adequate activity
ofthyroglobulin is
80. δ-Cells of islet of langerhans of pancreas produce
(A) 85 (B) 95
(A) Pancreatic polypeptide
(C) 115 (D) 135
(B) Pancreatic lipase
72. The percentage of inactive (C) Somatostatin
precursors(monoidotyrosine and diiodotyrosine) (D) Steapsin
in thyroglobulin is
(A) 30 (B) 40
81. β-cells of islet of langerhans of the pancreas (A) Calcium (B) Magnesium
secrete (C) Manganese (D) Zinc
(A) Insulin 91. The number of amino acids in pre-proinsulin is
(B) Glucagon
(A) 51 (B) 86
(C) Somatostatin
(C) 109 (D) 132
(D) Pancreatic polypeptide
92. Proinsulin has
82. Target tissue of insulin is
(A) Red blood cells
(B) Renal tubular cells
(C) GI tract epithelial cells 93. Daily secretion of insulin in a normal adultman is
(D) Liver about
(A) 10 units (B) 20 units
83. Insulin is a dimmer. The number of aminoacids
in the A and B chain respectively is (C) 30 units (D) 50 units
(A) 19 and 28 (B) 21 and 30 94. The insulin content of pancreas is about
(C) 25 and 35 (D) 29 and 38 (A) 50–70 units (B) 100–150 units
84. In A chain of the insulin molecule the Nterminal (C) 150–180 units (D) 200–250 units
amino acid is
95. The half life of insulin is
(A) Glycine (B) Valine
(A) < 3–5 minutes (B) < 8–10 minutes
(C) Serine (D) Phenylalanine
(C) < 15 minutes (D) < 15 minutes
85. In the A chain of insulin molecule the Cterminal 96. Insulin stimulates
amino acid is (A) Hepatic glycogenolysis
(A) Asparagine (B) Threonine (B) Hepatic glycogenesis
(C) Valine (D) Tyrosine (C) Lipolysis
86. In the B chain of insulin molecule, the Nterminal (D) Gluconeogenesis
amino acid is
97. Action of insulin on lipid metabolism is
(A) Proline (B) Threonine
(A) It increases lipolysis and increases
(C) Phenylalanine (D) Lysine
triglyceridesynthesis
87. In the B chain of insulin molecule, theC-terminal (B) It decreases lipolysis and increases
amino acid: triglyceride synthesis
(A) Threonine (B) Tyrosine (C) It decreases lipolysis and decreases
(C) Glutamate (D) Valine triglyceride synthesis
(D) It increases synthesis of triglyceride and
88. In the insulin molecule, the number ofinterchain increased ketogenesis
disulphide brides is
98. Insulin increases the activity of
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 4 (A) Pyruvate kinase
(B) Phosphorylase
89. In the insulin molecule, the number ofintrachain
(C) Triacylglycerol kinase
disulphide bridges is
(D) Fructose 2, 6-bisphosphatase
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 4 99. Insulin decreases the activity of
(A) cAMP dependent protein kinase
90. Insulin exists in polymeric forms,
(B) HMG CoA-reductas
forpolymerization it requires
(C) Phosphodiesterase 108. Glucagon enhances

(D) Acetyl CoA-carboxylase (A) Hepatic glycogenolysis
100. The human insulin gene located on the short (B) Muscle glycogenolysis
arm of chromosome: (C) Hepatic glycogenesis
(A) 11 (B) 17 (D) Lipogenesis
(C) 18 (D) 20 109. Normal serum glucagons level in fasting state
varies between
101. Normal serum insulin level varies between
(A) 0-–10 pg/ml (B) 20–100 pg/ml
(A) 4–25 µU/ml(B) 25–50 µU/ml (C) 200–300 pg/ml (D) 400–500 pg/ml
(C) 70–90 µU/ml (D) 100–120 µU /ml
110. Glucagon
102. Following is a normal overnight fast and a cup of (A) Increases protein synthesis
black coffee, a diabetic woman feels slightly
(B) Inhibits lipolysis in adipocytes
nausious and decides to skip breakfast. However
she does take her shot of insulin. This may result (C) Increases gluconeogenesis in liver
in (D) Stimulates muscle glycogenolysis
(A) Heightened glycogenolysis 111. Normal serum free testosterone in adult men
(B) Hypoglycemia varies between
(C) Increased lipolysis (A) 1–5 ng/dl (B) 6–9 ng/dl
(D) Glycosuria (C) 10–30 ng/dl (D) 50–100 ng/dl
103. Deficiency of insulin results in 112. Normal serum free testosterone in adult women
(A) Rapid uptake of sugar varies between
(B) Low blood glucose level (A) 0.0–0.2 ng/dl (B) 0.3–2 ng/dl
(C) Decrease urine output (C) 10–30 ng/dl (D) 50–100 ng/dl
(D) Presence of glucose in urine 113. The prepubertal total serum testosterone is
104. The primary stimulus for insulin secretion is (A) <100 ng/100 ml (B) < 200 ng/100 ml
increased. (C) <300 ng/100 ml (D) < 400 ng/100 ml
(A) Blood level of epinephrine
114. The total serum testosterone in adult men is
(B) Blood level of glucagon
(A) 50–100 ng/100 ml
(C) Blood level of glucose
(B) 150–250 ng/100 ml
(D) Water intake
(C) 300–1000 ng/100 ml
105. The α-cells of pancreas islets produce (D) 1000–3000 ng/100 ml
(A) Insulin 115. The total serum testosterone in adult women is
(B) Glucagon
(A) 0–5 ng/100 ml
(C) Somatostatin
(B) 10–15 ng/100 ml(C) 20–80 ng/100 ml
(D) Pancreatic polypeptide
(D) 100–200 ng/100 ml
106. The number of amino acids in single chain
116. The serum estradiol level in men is
polypeptide glucagons is
(A) 0–5 pg/ml (B) 5–10 pg/ml
(A) 21 (B) 29
(C) 24–68 pg/ml (D) 40–60 pg/ml
(C) 31 (D) 39
117. The serum estradiol level in women during
107. The half life of glucagons is
1–10 days of menstrual cycle is
(A) ~5 (B) ~7
(A) 0–10 pg/ml (B) 12–20 pg/ml
(C) ~10 (D) ~12
(C) 24–68 pg/ml (D) 80–100 pg/ml (A) Cholesterol to pregnenolone

(B) Pregnenolone to progesterone
118. The serum estradiol level in women during
11–20 days of menstrual cycle is (C) Progesterone to 17 α-hydroxy progesterone
(A) 5–30 pg/ml (B) 50–300 pg/ml (D) 17 α-Hydroxy progesterone to
(C) 500–900 pg/ml (D) 1000 pg/ml androstenedione
119. The serum estradiol level in women during 128. The enzyme catalyzing conversion of
21–30 days of menstrual cycle is androstenedione to testosterone is a
(A) 10-20 pg/ml (B) 22-66 pg/ml (A) Oxygenase (B) Dehydrogenase
(C) 73-149 pg/ml (D) 1000 pg/ml (C) Isomerase (D) Decarboxylase
120. The serum progesterone level in follicular phase 129. Conversion of testosterone to estradiol requires
is about the enzyme:
(A) 0.2–1.5 ng/100 ml(B) 2.0–2.5 ng/100 ml (C) (A) Aromatase (B) Dehydrogenase
3.5–4.5 ng/100 ml (D) 5.0–6.5 ng/100 ml (C) Lyase (D) Isomerase
121. Serum progesterone level during 130. The precursor of testosterone is
pregnancy is (A) Aldosterone (B) Methyl testosterone
(C) Estrone (D) Pregnenolone
(A) < 12 ng/ml (B) > 12 ng/ml
(C) < 20 ng/ml (D) >24 ng/ml 131. Urinary 17 ketosteroids
122. Serum progesterone level during luteal phase is (A) Are not found in women
(B) Reflect the total production of
(A) 0.2–203 ng/ml (B) 3.0–5.0 ng/ml
androgenicsubstances
(C) 6.0–30 ng/ml (D) 750 ng/ml
(C) Indicate the total production of sex hormone
123. Androgens are produced by (D) Are highly active androgens
(A) Cells of sertoli 132. The hormone measured in urine to test
(B) Leydig cells pregnancy is
(C) Rete testis (A) Anterior pituitary luteinizing hormone
(D) Efferent ductules (B) Androgen
124. The leyding cell activity is controlled by (C) Progesterone
(A) Intestitial cell stimulating hormone (D) Choroinic gonadotropin
(B) Adernocortex stimulating hormone 133. Total number of amino acids in humanchorionic
(C) Thyroid stimulating hormone gonadotropin is
(D) Melanocyte stimulating harmone (A) 53 (B) 92
125. Stein-leventhal syndrome is due to (C) 145 (D) 237
overproduction of 134. A hormone produced by corpus luteumand
(A) Estrogens (B) Androgens placenta, concerned with relaxation of pelvis
(C) Gastogens (D) Ethinyl estradiol tissue is
(A) HCG
126. The production of progesterone by corpus luteum
cell is stimulated by (B) Chorionic somatommotropin
(C) Relaxin
(A) LH (B) TSH
(D) Progestins
(C) ACTH (D) MSH
135. Synthetic progesterone used in oral contraceptive
127. In the biosynthesis of testosterone therate
is
limiting step is conversion of
(A) Norethindrone (B) Pregnenolone
(C) Androstenodione (D) Stilbestrol (D) They require cyclic AMP as second
messenger
136. Young women are protected againstmyocardial
infaracation because of the activity of 142. Cyclic AMP acts as the second messenger for
(A) Estrogen (B) Progesterone (A) ADH (B) Glucagon
(C) Growth hormone (D) Oxytocin (C) Calcitonin (D) All of these
137. Hormone receptors possess all the following 143. Cyclic AMP acts as the second messenger for all
properties except of the following except
(A) All of them are proteins (A) Oxytocin (B) TSH (C) ACTH (D) FSH 144.
(B) They possess a recognition domain Cyclic GMP acts as the second messenger
(C) They bind hormones with a high degree for
ofspecificity
(D) Number of receptors in a target cell is (A) Nerve growth factor
constant (B) Atrial natriuretic factor
138. The only correct statement about (C) Epinephrine
hormonereceptors is (D) Norepinephrine
(A) Receptors for protein hormones are 145. Some hormones produce their intracellular
presentin cytosol effects by activating
(B) Receptors for steroid hormones are
(A) Phospholipae A1 (B) Phospholipase B
membranebound
(C) Hormone-receptor binding is irreversible (C) Phospholipase C (D) All of these
(D) Receptors can undergo down regulation 146. Inositol triphosphate is the second messenger
andup regulatoin for
139. Down regulation is (A) Gastrin (B) Cholecystokinin
(C) Oxytocin (D) All of these
(A) Increased destruction of a hormone
(B) Feed back inhibition of hormone secretion 147. G-proteins act as
(C) Decreased concentration of a hormone (A) Hormone carriers
inblood (B) Hormone receptors
(D) Decrease in number of receptors for (C) Second messengers
ahormone
(D) Signal transducers
140. All the following statements about hormones are
148. Signal transducer for glucagons is a
true except
(A) Cyclic nucleotide
(A) All of them require specific carriers in plasma
(B) Phosphoinositide
(B) All of them require specific receptors in
(C) Stimulatory G-protein
targetcells
(D) Inhibitory G-protein
(C) Some of them are subject to
feedbackregulation 149. G-proteins are
(D) Some of them increase the transcription (A) Monomers (B) Dimers
ofcertain genes
(C) Trimers (D) Tetramers
141. All the following statements about 150. G-proteins have a nucleotide binding site for
steroidhormones are true except
(A) ADP/ATP (B) GDP/GTP
(A) They are hydrophobic
(C) CDP/CTP (D) UDP/UTP
(B) They require carriers to transport them
incirculation 151. The nucleotide binding site of G-proteins is
(C) Their receptors are intracellular present on their
(A) α-Subunit (B) β-Subunit α- and β- (C) Decerease in melanin concentration in

(C) γ-Subunit (D) δ-Subunit melanocytes
(D) Increase in number of melanocytes
152. Adenylate cyclase is activated by
161. Secretion of MSH is regulated by
(A) GDP-bearing α-Subunit of G-protein (B) GTP-
(A) Feedback mechanism
bearing α-Subunit of G-protein
(B) Melatonin
(C) GDP-bearing γ-Subunit of G-protein (C) Hypothalamic hormones
(D) GTP-bearing γ-Subunit of G-protein (D) ACTH
153. Tyrosine kinase activity is present in 162. A hormone synthesised in the hypothalamus is
(A) α-Adrenergic receptors (A) Melatonin
(B) β-Adrenergic receptors (B) Melanocyte stimulating hormone
(C) Cholinergic receptors (C) Vasopressin
(D) Insulin receptors (D) Prolactin
154. Insulin receptor is a 163. Posterior pituitary gland secretes
(A) Monomer (B) Dimer (A) Catecholamines
(C) Trimer (D) Tetramer (B) Oxytocin
155. Tyrosine kinase activity is present in (C) Follicle stimulating hormone
(D) Serotonin
(A) Acetylcholine receptor
(B) PDGF receptor 164. A nonapeptide among the following is
(C) ADH receptor (A) Antidiuretic hormone
(D) All of these (B) Insulin
156. Protein kinase C is activated by (C) ACTH
(D) Thyrotropin releasing hormone
(A) Cyclic AMP (B) Cyclic GMP
(C) Diacyl glycerol (D) Inositol triphosphate 165. Diabetes insipidus is caused by deficient
secretion of
157. Melatonin is synthesised in
(A) Hypothalamus
(C) Vasopressin (D) Oxytocin
(B) Posterior pituitary gland
(C) Pineal gland 166. Peripheral vasoconstriction is caused byhigh
(D) Melanocytes concentrations of
158. Melatonin is synthesised from (A) Antidiuretic hormone

(B) Melatonin(C) Glucagon
(A) Phenylalanine (B) Tyrosine
(D) Oxytocin
(C) Tryptophan (D) None of these
167. Somatotropin is secreted by
159. Melanocyte stimulating hormone is secreted by
(A) Hypothalamus (B) Anterior pituitary
(A) Pineal gland
(C) Posterior pituitary (D) Thyroid gland
(B) Anterior lobe of pituitary gland
(C) Posterior lobe of pituitary gland 168. Secretion of Insulin-like Growth Factor-I is
(D) Intermediate lobe of pituitary gland promoted by
160. MSH causes (A) Insulin (B) Glucagon

(C) Growth hormone (D) Somatomedin C
(A) Dispersal of melanin granules in melanocytes
(B) Increase in melanin concentration in 169. Growth hormone increases
melanocytes (A) Protein synthesis (B) Lipogenesis
(C) Glycogenolysis (D) All of these (B) It is synthesised in pars intermedia

andanterior lobe of pituitary gland
170. Secretion of growth hormone is inhibited by
(C) It is the precursor of ACTH and melatonin
(A) Somatomedin C (B) Somatostatin (D) It is the precursor of corticotropin
(C) Feedback inhibition(D) All of these likeintermediate lobe peptide and
171. Secretion of somatotrophin is promoted by endorphins
(A) Somatomedin C 179. All the following statements about ACTHare true
(B) Somatostatin except
(C) Growth hormone releasing hormone (A) It is a tropic hormone
(D) Hypoglycaemia (B) Its target cells are located in adrenal cortex
(C) Its receptors are located in the cell
172. Human growth hormone has
membrane
(A) One polypeptide chain and one intra-
(D) Its second messenger is inositol triphosphate
chaindisulphide bond
(B) One polypeptide chain and two intra- 180. Regulation of ACTH secretion occurs through
chaindisulphide bond (A) Corticotropin releasing hormone (CRH)
(C) Two polypeptide chains joined by andcorticotropin release inhibiting hormone
onedisulphide bond (CRIH) of hypothalamus
(D) Two polypeptide chains joined by (B) Feedback inhibition by cortisol
twodisulphide bond (C) CRH and feedback inhibition by cortisol
173. Number of amino acid residues in human growth (D) CRIH and feedback inhibition by cortisol
hormone is 181. ACTH is a polypeptide made up of
(A) 51 (B) 84 (A) 39 amino acids (B) 41 amino acids
(C) 191 (D) 198 (C) 51 amino acids (D) 84 amino acids
174. Number of amino acid residues in prolactin is
182. CRH is a polypeptide made up of
(A) 51 (B) 84
(C) 191 (D) 198
175. Secretion of prolactin is regulated by
183. Hormonal activity of ACTH is completely lost on
(A) Feedback inhibition removal of
(B) Prolactin releasing hormone
(A) 5 C-terminal amino acids
(C) Prolactin release inhibiting hormone
(B) 10 C-terminal amino acids(C) 15 C-terminal
(D) All of these
amino acids
176. Precursor of ACTH is (D) None of these
(A) Cholesterol (B) Pregnenolone
184. All the following statements about TSH are true
(C) Corticotropin (D) Pro-opiomelanocortin except
177. All of the following can be formed from pro- (A) It is a glycoprotein
opiomelanocortin except
(B) It is made up of α- and β-subunits
(A) α-and β-MSH (B) β-and γ-Lipotropins (C) Receptor recognition involves both the
(C) α-and β-Endorphins(D) FSH subunits
(D) Its subunit is identical with those of FSH
178. All the following statements about
andLH
proopiomelanocortin are true except
(A) It is made up of 285 amino acids 185. All the following statements about TSH are true
except
(A) It is a tropic hormone (A) Overgrowth of the bones of face, hands

(B) It acts on para-follicular cells of thyroid andfeet
glands (B) Increased stature
(C) Its receptors are membrane-bound (C) Enlargements of viscera
(D) Its second messenger is cyclic AMP (D) Impaired glucose tolerance
186. All the following statements about thyrotropin 194. Overproduction of growth hormone during
releasing hormone are true except
childhood causes
(A) It is secreted by hypothalamus(B) It is a (A) Acromegaly (B) Gigantism
pentapeptide (C) Cushing’s disease (D) Simmond’s disease
(C) It increases the secretion of TSH
195. Decreased secretion of growth hormone during
(D) Its secretion is inhibited by high level of T 3 childhood causes
and T4 in blood
(A) Simmond’s disease (B) Cushing’s disease
187. In males, luteinising hormone acts on (C) Dwarfism (D) Cretinism
(A) Leydig cells (B) Sertoli cells 196. Stature is increased in
(C) Prostate gland (D) All of these (A) Gigantism (B) Acromegaly
188. All the following statements about FSH are true (C) Simmond’s disease(D) Cushing’s disease
except 197. An amino acid used for the synthesis ofthyroid
(A) It is a tropic hormone secreted by hormone is
anteriorpituitary (A) Tyrosine (B) Tryptophan
(B) Its secretion is increased by (C) Histidine (D) Proline
gonadotropinreleasing hormone
(C) It acts on Sertoli cells 198. An enzyme required for the synthesis ofthyroid
(D) It increases the synthesis of testosterone hormones is
(A) Iodinase (B) Deiodinase
189. In males, secretion of luteinising hormoneis
(C) Thyroperoxidase (D) Thyroxine synthetase
inhibited by
(A) Gonadotropin releasing hormone 199. Thyroperoxidase iodinates
(B) FSH (A) Free tyrosine in thyroid gland
(C) High blood level of testosterone (B) Tyrosine residues of thyroglobulin
(D) Inhibin (C) Tyrosine residues of thyroxine binding
globulin
190. Secretion of luteinising hormone is increased by
(D) Tyrosine residues of thyroxine
(A) GnRH (B) FSH bindingprealbumin
(C) Testosterone (D) None of these
200. In thyroxine, tyrosine residues are iodinated at
191. In structure and function, HCG resembles positions:
(A) FSH (B) LH (A) 1 and 3 (B) 2 and 4
(C) GnRH (D) Progesterone (C) 3 and 5 (D) 4 and 6
192. Acromegaly results from overproduction of 201. Thyroid gland takes up circulating iodine
(A) ACTH during childhood (A) By simple diffusion
(B) TSH during adult life (B) By facilitated diffusion
(C) Growth hormone during childhood (C) By active uptake
(D) Growth hormone during adult life (D) In exchange for chloride
193. Acromegaly results in all the following except 202. Thyroid hormones are present in blood
(A) In free form (C) Exophthalmos, goiter, tachycardia and lossof

(B) In association with thyroxine binding appetite
globulin(TBG) (D) Exophthalmos, goiter, tremors and obesity
(C) In association with thyroxine binding 210. All the following may occur in hyperthyroidism
prealbumin (TBPA) except
(D) Mainly in association with TBG, partly in (A) Goitre (B) Increased appetite
freeform and sometimes in association with (C) Loss of weight (D) Low BMR
TBPA also
211. All the following may occur in myxoedema
203. When thyroxine binding globulin and thyroxine except
binding pre-albumin are saturated with (A) Cold intolerance (B) Low BMR
thyroxine, the excess hormone is transported by
(C) Tachycardia (D) Dry and coarse skin
(A) Albumin (B) Gamma globulins
212. Mental retardation can occur in
(C) Transcortin (D) None of these
(A) Cretinism
204. Receptors for thyroid hormones are present (B) Juvenile myxoedema
(A) On the cell membrane (C) Myxoedema
(B) Across the cell membrane (D) Juvenile thyrotoxicosis
(C) Inside the cells 213. Parathyroid hormone (PTH) is synthesised in
(D) In association with G-proteins (A) Chief cells of parathyroid glands
205. Binding of thyroxine to its receptors (B) Oxyphil cells of parathyroid glands
(C) Para follicular cells of thyroid glands
(A) Activates Adenylate cyclase
(D) Follicular cells of thyroid gland
(B) Activates guanylate cyclase
(C) Activates a stimulatory G-protein 214. The number of amino acid residues in PTH:
(D) Increases transcription (A) 51 (B) 84
(C) 90 (D) 115
206. The most powerful thyroid hormone is
215. Amino acid residues which are essential for the
(A) Reverse T3 (B) DIT
biological activity of PTH are
(C) T3 (D) T4 (A) N-terminal 34 amino acids
207. The most abundant thyroid hormone in blood is (B) N-terminal 50 amino acids
(C) C-terminal 34 amino acids
(A) Free T3 (B) T3 bound to TBG
(D) C-terminal 50 amino acids
(C) Free T4 (D) T4 bound to TBG
216. Half-life of PTH is
208. Secretion of thyroid hormones is regulatedby (A) A few seconds (B) A few minutes
(A) Hypothalamus (C) A few hours (D) A few days
(B) Anterior pituitary 217. The second messenger for PTH is
(C) Feedback regulation (A) Cyclic AMP (B) Cyclic GMP
(D) All of these (C) Diacylglycerol (D) Inositol triphosphate
209. Clinical features of hyperthyroidism include
218. PTH causes all of the following except
(A) Goitre, heat intolerance, weight loss
(A) Increased intestinal absorption of calcium
andtachycardia
(B) Goitre, tremors, tachycardia and
coldintolerance
(B) Increased intestinal absorption of (A) Outside the cell membrane(B) In the cell
phosphate(C) Increased tubular reabsorption membrane
of calcium (C) Across the cell membrane
(D) Increased tubular reabsorption of phosphate (D) In the cytosol
219. Secretion of PTH is regulated by 227. β-Subunits of insulin receptor are present
(A) Hypothalamus (A) Outside the cell membrane(B) In the cell
(B) Anterior pituitary membrane
(C) Feedback effect of plasma PTH (C) Across the cell membrane
(D) Feedback effect of plasma calcium (D) In the cytosol
220. A high concentration of PTH in blood causes 228. In the insulin receptor, tyrosine kinasedomain is
present in
(A) Increase in plasma calcium and
inorganicphosphorous (A) α-Subunits (B) β-Subunits
(B) Decrease in plasma calcium and (C) γ-Subunits (D) δ-Subunits
inorganicphosphorous
229. Binding of insulin to its receptor activates
(C) Increase in plasma calcium and decrease
inplasma inorganic phosphorous (A) Adenylate cyclase (B) Guanylate cyclase
(D) Decrease in plasma calcium and increase (C) Phospholipase C (D) Tyrosine kinase
inplasma inorganic phosphorous 230. Insulin receptor is made up of
221. Tetany can occur (A) One α-and one β-subunit
(A) In primary hyperparathyroidism (B) Two α-and two β-subunit
(B) In secondary hyperparathyroidism (C) Two, α two β-and two γ-subunit
(C) In idiopathic hypoparathyroidism (D) One α, one β-one γ-and one δ-subunit
(D) After accidental removal of parathyroid
glands 231. Insulin is required for the active uptake of
glucose by most of the cells except
222. Crystallisation of insulin occurs in the presence (A) Muscle cells (B) Renal tubular cells
of
(C) Adipocytes (D) Liver cells
(A) Chromium (B) Copper
232. Insulin decreases
(C) Zinc (D) Calcium
(A) Glycogenesis
223. Daily secretion of insulin is aboutδ– (B) Glyolysis
(A) 10–20 mg (B) 40–50 mg (C) Gluconeogenesis
(C) 10–20 units (D) 40–50 units (D) Tubular reabsorption of glucose
224. Insulin receptors are decreased in number in 233. Insulin increases
(A) Obesity (B) Starvation (A) Glycogenesis (B) Gluconeogenesis
(C) Hyperinsulinism (D) Kwashiorkor (C) Lipolysis (D) Blood glucose
225. Insulin binding sites are present on the 234. Insulin increases
(A) α-subunits of insulin receptor (B) β-subunits (A) Protein synthesis (B) Fatty acid synthesis
of insulin receptor (C) γ-subunits of insulin (C) Glycogen synthesis (D) All of these
receptor 235. Insulin decreases the synthesis of
(D) α-and β−subunits of insulin receptor (A) Hexokinase (B) Glucokinase
(C) PEP carboxykinase(D) Glycogen synthetase
226. α-Subunits of insulin receptor are present
236. Diabetes mellitus can occur due to all of the (A) Chromaffin cells of adrenal medulla
following except (B) Sympathetic ganglia
(A) Deficient insulin secretion (C) Brain
(B) Tumour of β−cells (D) All of these
(C) Decrease in number of insulin receptors 246. Immediate precursor of epinephrine is
(D) Formation of insulin antibodies (A) Metanephrine (B) Norepinephrine
237. Hypoglycaemic coma can occur (C) Dopa (D) Dopamine
(A) In untreated diabetes mellitus 247. The chief metabolite of catecholamines is
(B) In starvation (A) Metanephrine
(C) After overdose of oral hypoglycaemic drugs (B) Normetanephrine
(D) After overdose of insulin (C) 3, 4-Dihydroxymandelic acid
238. Second messenger for glucagons is (D) Vanillylmandelic acid
(A) Cyclic AMP (B) Diacylglycerol 248. An enzyme involved in catabolism of
(C) Cyclic GMP (D) Inositol triphosphate catecholamines is
239. Number of amino acid residues in glucagons is (A) Dopa decarboxylase
(A) 29 (B) 34 (B) Aromatic amino acid decarboxylase
(C) 51 (D) 84 (C) Monoamine oxidase
(D) Catechol oxidas
240. Glucagon secretion increases
249. Norepinephrine binds mainly to
(A) After a carbohydrate-rich meal
(B) After a fat-rich meal (A) α-Adrenergic receptors
(C) When blood glucose is high (B) β-Adrenergic receptrors
(D) When blood glucose is low (C) Muscarinic receptors
241. The maineffecting of glucagons is to increase (D) Nicotinic receptors
(A) Glycolysis in muscles 250. Astimulatory G-protein transduces the signals
(B) Glycogenolysis in muscles from
(C) Glycogenolysis in liver
(A) α1-and β1-adrenergic receptors
(D) Glycogenesis in liver
(B) α2-and β2-adrenergic receptors
242. Tyrosine is required for the synthesis ofall of the
following except (C) α1-and α2-adrenergic receptors
(A) Melatonin (B) Epinephrine (D) β1-and β2-adrenergic receptors
(C) Norepinephrine (D) Thyroxine 251. Binding of catecholamines to α2− adrenergic
243. Dopamine is synthesised from receptors
(A) Dihydroxyphenylalanine (A) Increases the intracellular concentration
(B) Epinephrine ofcAMP
(C) Norepinephrine (B) Increases the intracellular concentration
ofcGMP
(D) Metanephrine
(C) Decreases the intracellular concentration
244. Blood brain barrier can be crossed by ofcAMP
(A) Epinephrine (B) Dopamine (D) Decreases the intracellular concentration
(C) Dopa (D) All of these ofcGMP
245. Epinephrine is synthesised in

252. Phosphoinositide cascade is activated on binding (A) Cholesterol

of catecholamines to (B) 7-Dehydrocholesterol
(A) α1-Adrenergic receptors (C) Calcitriol
(D) 7-Hydroxycholesterol
(B) α2-Adrenergic receptors
262. A common intermediate in the synthesisof all
(C) β1-Adrenergic receptors
the steroid hormones is
(D) β2-Adrenergic receptors (A) Pregnenolone
253. Epinephrine decreases (B) 17-Hydroxypregnenolone
(A) Glycogenesis (B) Glycogenolysis (C) Corticosterone
(C) Gluconeogenesis (D) Lipolysis (D) Progesterone
254. Epinephrine increases the concentration of free 263. A common intermediate in the synthesisof
fatty acids in plasma by increasing cortisol and aldosterone is
(A) Extramitochondrial fatty acid synthesis (A) Progesterone (B) Testosterone
(B) Mitochondrial fatty acid chain elongation (C) Estradiol (D) None of these
(C) Microsomal fatty acid chain elongation 264. A common intermediate in the synthesisof
(D) Lipolysis in adipose tissue estrogens is
255. Epinephrine increases all of the following except (A) Cortisol
(A) Glycogenolysis in muscles (B) Andostenedione
(B) Lipolysis in adipose tissue (C) Corticosterone
(C) Gluconeogenesis in muscles (D) 11-Deoxycorticosterone
(D) Glucagon secretion 265. Glucocorticoids are transported in blood
256. Secretion of catecholamines is increasedin (A) In association with transcortin chiefly
(A) Cushing’s syndrome(B) Addison’s disease (B) In association with albumin to some extent
(C) Phaeochromocytoma (C) In free form partly
(D) Simmond’s disease (D) All of these
266. All the following statements about transcortin
257. Zona glomerulosa of adrenal cortex synthesises
are true except
(A) Glucocorticoids
(A) It is synthesised in liver
(B) Mineralocorticoids
(B) It transports glucocorticoids
(C) Androgens
(C) It transports aldosterone
(D) Estrogen and progesterone
(D) It transports progesterone
258. Cortisol is a
267. The second messenger for glucocorticoids is
(A) Glucocorticoid (B) Mineralocorticoid
(A) Cyclic AMP
(C) Androgen (D) Estrogen
(B) Cyclic GMP
259. The major mineralcorticoid is (C) Inositol triphosphate
(A) Hydrocortisone (B) Aldosterone (D) No second messenger is required
(C) Aldactone A (D) Androstenedione
268. Glucocorticoids increase all of the following
260. Steroid hormones are synthesised in allof the except
following except (A) Gluconeogenesis
(A) Testes (B) Ovaries (B) Lipolysis in extremities
(C) Adrenal medulla (D) Adrenal cortex (C) Synthesis of elcosanoida
261. Steroid hormones are synthesised from (D) Hepatic glycogenesis
269. Glucocorticoids increase the synthesis of all of (A) Deficient secretion of glucocorticoids
the following except (B) Deficient secretion of mineralcorticoids
(A) Glucokinase (C) Excessive secretion of androgens
(B) Glucose-6-phosphatase (D) All of these
(C) Fructose-1, 6-biphosphatase 278. Spironolactone is an antagonist of
(D) Pyruvate carboxylase
(A) Cortisol (B) Hydrocortisone
270. Secretion of glucocorticoida is regulated by all (C) Aldosterone (D) Testosterone
279. Androgens are synthesised in
(A) Hypothalamus
(A) Leydig cells in testes(B) Sertoli cells in testes
(B) Anterior pituitary
(C) Seminiferous tubules
(C) Feedback control by blood glucose
(D) Prostate gland
(D) Feedback control by glucocorticoids
280. Testosterone is transported in blood by
271. Excessive secretion of glucocorticoids raises
blood glucose by (A) Transcortin
(B) Testosterone binding globulin
(A) Decreasing glycogenesis
(C) Testosterone estrogen binding globulin
(B) Increasing glycogenolysis
(D) Albumin
(C) Increasing gluconeogenesis
(D) Inhibiting HMP shunt 281. The metabolites of androgens are
272. Mineralcorticoids regulate the metabolism of all (A) 17-Hydroxysteroids(B) 17-Ketosteroids

of the following except (C) 11-Hydroxysteroids
(A) Sodium (B) Potassium (D) 11-Ketosteroids
(C) Calcium (D) Chloride 282. An androgen which is more powerfulthan
testosterone is
273. Mineralocorticoids increase the tubular
reabsorption of (A) Androstenedione (B) Dihydrotestosterone
(C) Androsterone (D) Epiandrosterone
(A) Sodium and calcium
283. Secretion of androgens is increased by
(B) Sodium and potassium
(C) Sodium and chloride (A) LH (B) FSH
(D) Potassium and chloride (C) ACTH (D) Growth hormone
274. Mineralocorticoids increase the tubular 284. During late pregnancy, the major sourceof
secretion of progesterone is
(A) Sodium (B) Potassium (A) Adrenal cortex (B) Placenta
(C) Chloride (D) Bicarbonate (C) Corpus luteum (D) Graafian follicles
275. Secretion of mineralcorticoids is increased by 285. Progesterone is transported in blood by
(A) ACTH (B) Angiotensin (A) Transcortin
(C) Hypokalaemia (D) Hypernatraemia (B) Sex hormone binding globulin
276. In Addison’s disease, there is excessiveretention (C) Albumin
of (D) Testosterone estrogen binding globulin
(A) Potassium (B) Sodium 286. The major metabolite of progesterone is
(C) Chloride (D) Water (A) Pregnenolone (B) Pregnanediol
277. In adrenogenital syndrome due to totalabsence (C) Estradiol (D) Norethindrone
of 21-hydroxylase in adrenal cortex, there is
287. Secretion of progesterone
(A) Is more in first half of menstrual cycle than (B) It possess quaternary structure
insecond half (C) Its receptor is made up of a single
(B) Is more in second half of menstrual cycle polypeptide chain
thanin first half (D) Its receptor possesses tyrosine kinase
(C) Remains constant during menstrual cycle domain
(D) Decreases during pregnancy
295. Met-enkephalin is a
288. Women become susceptible to osteoporosis (A) Tripeptide (B) Pentapeptide
after menopause due to decreased (C) Octapeptide (D) Decapeptide
(A) Secretion of Parathormone
296. Vasoconstrictor effect of ADH is mediatedby
(B) Conversion of vitamin D into calcitriol
(A) cAMP (B) cGMP
(C) Secretion of estrogen
(D) Secretion of progesterone (C) Protein kinase C (D) Angiotensin II
289. A hormone used for detection of pregnancy is 297. The rate limiting step in catecholamine synthesis
is catalysed by
(A) Estrogen
(A) Phenylalanine hydroxylase
(B) Progesterone
(B) Tyrosine hydroxylase
(C) Oxytocin
(C) Dopa decarboxylase
(D) Chorionic gonadotropin
(D) Phenylethanolamine N-methyl transferase
290. Placenta secretes all of the followingexcept
298. Dopa decarboxylase is inhibited by
(A) FSH
(A) Epinephrine (B) Norepinephrine
(B) Progesterone
(C) Estrogen (C) α−Methyldopa (D) None of these
(D) Chorionic gonadotropin 299. Tyrosine hydroxylase is inhibited by
291. Gastrin is a polypeptide made up of (A) Catecholamines (B) α−Methyldopa
(A) Five amino acids (C) Phenylalanine (D) Vanillyl mandelic acid
(B) Twelve amino acids
300. Urinary excretion of vanillyl madelic acid is
(C) Seventeen amino acids increased in
(D) Twenty amino acids
(A) Phaeochromocytoma(B) Cushing’s syndrome
292. Biological activity of gastrin is present in the (C) Carcinoid syndrome
(A) Four N-terminal amino acids(B) Four C- (D) Aldosteronism
terminal amino acids (C) Five N-terminal
301. Iodide uptake by thyroid gland is decreased by
amino acids
(A) Thicyanate (B) Thiouracil
(D) Five C-terminal amino acids
(C) Thiourea (D) Methimazole
293. All the following statements about βendorphin
302. Binding of growth hormone to its receptor
are true except µ : results in phosphorylation of
(A) It is a polypeptide (A) JAK-2
(B) Its precursor is pro-opio-melanocortin (B) Growth hormone receptor
(C) Its receptors are represent in brain (C) STATs
(D) Its action is blocked by morphine (D) All of these
294. All the following statements about epidermal 303. Binding of growth hormone to its receptor
growth factor are true except results in increased transcription of
(A) It is a protein (A) c-fos gene (B) c-myc gene
(C) p-53 gene (D) None of these (B) It affects a number of exocrine glands
(C) It causes increased sweating
304. Activation of IRS-1, PI-3 kinase and GRB-
2 is brought about by (D) Sweat chlorides are above 60 mEq/L in
thisdisease
(A) Glucagon (B) Insulin
(C) Prolactin (D) IGF-2 313. Radioactive iodine uptake by thyroid gland 24
hours of a test dose is
305. The protein IRS-1 is phosphorylated by
(A) 1.5–15% of the test done(B) 15–20% of the
(A) Protein kinase A test done (C) 20–40% of the test done
(B) Protein kinase C (D) 50–70% of the test done
(C) Tyrosine kinase activity of insulin receptor
(D) Tyrosine kinase activity of IGF-1 receptor 314. Radioactive iodine uptake by thyroid gland is
increased in
306. Phosphorylated IRS-1 activates GRB-2 which is (A) Endemic goitre (B) Hyperthyroidism
(A) G-protein receptor binding protein-2 (C) Myxoedema (D) Creatinism
(B) Growth factor receptor binding protein-2 315. Normal range of total thyroxine in serum is
(C) Growth hormone receptor binding protein-2
(A) 0.8–2.4 ng/dl (B) 0.8–2.4 µg/dl
(D) Glucocorticoid receptor binding protein-2
307. STAT proteins are (C) 5–12 ng/dl (D) 5–12 µg/dl
(A) Thermostat proteins of brain 316. Normal range of total tri-iodothyroninein serum
(B) Glucostat proteins of hepatocyte is
cellmembrane
(A) 0.1–0.2 ng/dl (B) 0.1–0.2 µg/dl
(C) Short term activators of translation
(D) Signal transduction and activators (C) 0.8–2.4 ng/dl (D) 0.8–2.4 µg/dl
oftranscription 317. Administration of TSH increases serum T3 and T4
308. Activated phospholipase C acts on in
(A) Phosphatidyl inositol-4, 5-biphosphate (A) Hyperthyroidism of pituitary origin(B)
(B) Inositol-1, 4, 5-triphosphate Hyperthyroidism of thyroid origin
(C) Protein kinase C (C) Hypothyroidism of pituitary origin
(D) Pl-3 kinase (D) Hypothyroidism of thyroid origin
309. Phospholipase C is activated by 318. High level of T3 and T4 and low TSH in serum
(A) Gs proteins (B) Gi proteins indicates
(C) Gq proteins (D) G12 proteins (A) Hyperthyroidism of pituitary origin

(B) Hypothyroidism of pituitary origin
310. Proteoglycans are made up of proteins and (C) Hyperthyroidism of thyroid origin
(A) Glucosamine (B) Mannosamine (D) Hypothyroidism of thyroid origin
(C) Sialic acid (D) Mucopolysaccharides
319. BMR is increased in
311 Sweat chlorides are increased in (A) Endemic goitre (B) Thyrotoxicosis
(A) Cystic fibrosis (B) Pancreatic cancer (C) Myxoedema (D) Cretinism
(C) Acute pancreatitis (D) None of these
320. Which one of the following statements correctly
312. All the following statements about cystic fibrosis describes eukaryotic DNA?
are correct except (A) If uses DNA polymerase with
(A) It is inherited as an autosomal nucleaseactivities
recessivedisease (B) It is replicated bidirectionally at many points
(C) It contains no repetitive DNA (B) Thyroxine

(D) It is nonlinear (C) Tri iodo thyronine
(D) Para thyroid hormone
321. Which one of the following causes frameshift
mutation? 330. There is polyuria without glycosuria in this
(A) Transition disorder
(B) Transversion (A) Diabetes insipidus (B) Diabetes millitus
(C) Deletion (C) Bronze diabetes (D) Juvenile diabetes
(D) Substitution of purine to pyrimidine 331. In hyperparathyroidism there is
322. The second messenger for many hormones is (A) Hypocalcemia (B) Hypophophatemia
(A) ATP (B) cyclic AMP (C) Hypokalemia (D) Hyperkalemia
(C) cGMP (D) UTP
332. Insulin resistance is encountered in
323. The most potent hormone concerned with the
retention of sodium in the body is (A) Addison’s disease (B) Hypothyroidism
(A) Cortisone (B) Aldosterone (C) Hypopituctarism (D) Acromegaly
(C) Corticosterone (D) Cortisol 333. Richest source of prostaglandins in a human male
is
324. Aspirin blocks the synthesis of
(A) Blood (B) Urine (C) Semen (D)
(A) Prostaglandins only(B) Prostacyclins only
C.S.F.
(C) Thromboxanes only
(D) All of these 334. One of the following is not used as a second
messenger by hormones:
325. Retention of sodium in the body leads to a
(A) mRNA
retention of
(B) cAMP
(A) Potassium
(C) Calcium ions
(B) Water
(D) Myoinisotol 1, 4, 5 triphosphate
(C) Potassium and water
(D) Neither potassium nor water 335. This pancreatic hormone increases the blood-
sugar level:
326. cAMP is so called because it is formed during
(A) Insulin
(A) TCA cycle (B) Glucagon
(B) Urea cycle (C) Pancreozymin
(C) Rhodopsin cycle (D) Pancreatic polypeptide
(D) It has a cyclic structure
336. Which one of the following statements is fully
327. Protein bound iodine is _________ bound to correct?
protein.
(A) Hormones are needed in the diet
(A) Iodine (B) Thyroid hormones (B) Hormones can be elaborated only
(C) Thyroxine (D) Tri iodo thyronine byendocrine glands
328. In hypophysectonized animals, fastingproduces (C) All the hormones enter the cells and
performtheir function
(A) Severe hyperglycemia
(D) Hormones are substance synthesized in
(B) Hypoglycemia thebody in small quantities and control and
(C) No change in blood sugar regulate metabolic events
(D) Mild hyper glycemia
337. T3 is
329. Calcitomica is antagonist to
(A) Thyroxine
(A) Serotonin
(B) Triodo thyronine
(C) Triodo tyrosine (D) Insulin and Glucagon

(D) Reverse tri iodo thyronine
346. This hormone has disulphide group:
338. Whcih of the following hormone is a peptide of (A) Glucagon (B) Insulin
less than ten amino acids?
(C) T4 (D) Epinephrine
(A) Insulin (B) Growth hormone 347. The blood sugar raising action of the hormone of
(C) Oxytocin (D) Parathyroid hormone suprarenal cortex is due to
339. Tyrosine of thyroglobulin is acted uponby (A) Glyconeogenesis
________ to give mono and diiodo tyrosines.
(B) Glycogenolysis
(A) Potassium Iodide (C) Glucagon like activity
(B) Iodine (D) due to inhibition of glomerular filtration
(C) Iodide I ofglucose
(D) Higher valency state of iodine (I+)
348. Hyper insulinism can cause coma since
340. Whcih of the following hormone does not (A) The chief nutrient for the brain is glucose
activate adenylate cyclase? (B) The chief nutrient for the heart is glucose
(A) Epinephrine (C) The glucostatic role of the liver is damaged
(B) Glucagon (D) The kidneys are damaged
(C) Parathyroid hormone
349. Which of the following property ofprostaglandins
(D) Insulin has been utilized by chinicians in hospital for
341. Pheochromacytoma is a tumor of (A) Inducing fever
(A) adrenal medulla(B) bone (B) Causing inflammation
(C) head of Pancreas (C) Effecting smooth muscle contraction
(D) pituitary (D) Disaggregation of spermatozoa
342. Which one of the following statements is 350. A major structural difference betweenestrogens
incorrect? and androgens is the fact that
(A) Insulin increases glucose phosphorylation (A) The androgens are usually C21 steroids
(B) Insulin increases glycolysis (B) The estrogens are usually digitonin
(C) Insulin augments HMP shunt precipitable
(D) Insulin promotes gluconeogenesis (C) The androgens have an aromatic ring
(D) The estrogens have an aromatic ring
343. Which of one ring in the structure of the
following is aromatic? 351. Alloxan can experimentally induce diabetes
mellitus due to
(A) Androgens (B) Estrogens
(C) Cholesterol (D) Bile acids (A) Stimulation of αcells of the islets of
langerhans
344. Which of one of the following is not GUT
hormone? (B) Necrosis of the β cells of the islets
(A) Motiline (B) Secretion (C) Potentiation of insulinase activity
(C) Gastrin (D) Calcitonin (D) Epinephrine like action
345. Which of the following hormones are synthesized 352. Which of the following alleviates asthma?
as prehormones
(A) PGE1 only (B) PGE1 and PGE2
(A) Vasopressin and oxytocin
(C) PGF2 (D) PGA
(B) Growth hormone and insulin
(C) Insulin and parathyroid hormone 353. Thyroxine is derived from
(A) Tyrosine (B) Tyranine 363. Which is incorrect ? Epinephrin promotes the
(C) Taurine (D) Tryptaine glycogenolysis in
(A) Muscle (B) Liver
354. Adrneal cortical response is poor in
(C) Heart (D) None of these
(A) Kwashiorkor (B) Marasmus
364. Which of one of the following is releasedby
(C) Fatty liver (D) Atherosclerosis
hypothalamus?
355. Protein bound iodine in blood is present to the
(A) Somatostatin
extent of _______ / dL
(B) Somatotropic hormone
(A) 3–8 mg (B) 4–8 mg
(C) Somato medin C
(C) 3–8 gm (D) 4–8 gm
(D) Luteinising hormone
356. Prostaglandins are
365. Which one of the following is not liberatedby the
(A) C2 unsaturated acids adenohypophysis?
(B) C27 saturated alcohols (A) Growth hormone (B) TSH
(C) C20 saturated acids (C) ACTH (D) Gonadotropin
(D) C27 saturated alcohols 366. Which of the following hormone is notunder the
357. Which of tne of the following scientists has not control of ACTH?
worked in the field of prostaglandins? (A) Aldosterone (B) Cortisol
(A) Voneuler (B) Sultan Karim (C) Corticosterone (D) Deoxycorticosterone
(C) Andre robet (D) Kendal 367. Which of the following organ prefers fructose to
358. The suffix number in the names of prostaglandins glucose
gives the number of (A) Liver (B) Testes
(A) OH groups (B) Double bonds (C) Pancreas (D) Heart
(C) Acid groups (D) Ketoacids
368. Total synthesis of creatine can be done by
359. One of the important functions of prostacyclins is (A) Liver (B) Kidneys
(A) Inhibition of platelet aggregation(B) (C) Pancreas (D) Heart
Contraction of uterus
369. Thyrotropin releasing hormone is a
(C) Decrease of gastric secretion
(D) Relieving osthma (A) Dipeptide (B) Tripeptide
(C) Octapeptide (D) Decapeptide
360. Vasopressin is also known as
370. Hypthalamo _________ gonadal oxis, fill up the
(A) Antidiabetogenic hormone
blank with the suitable word.
(B) Antidiuretic hormone
(A) Adrenal (B) Thyroid
(C) Somatotropic hormone
(C) Hypophyseal (D) Pancreatic
(D) Pitoxin
371. The sequence of amino acids in human growth
361. Which of the following is used for
hormone and the synthesis were done by
inducinglabour?
(A) Sanger (B) Krebs
(A) Prostaglandins (B) Prostacyclins
(C) Chah Holi (D) Molisch
(C) Vasopressin (D) Thromboxanes
372. Proopiomelanocortin is the precussor of
362. Which of the following does not have disulphide
bond? (A) ACTH (B) β-tropin
(A) Oxytocin (B) Vasopressin (C) Endorphins (D) All of these
(C) Insulin (D) Glucagon 373. Adrenalin is synthesized from
(A) Adenine (B) Adenosine (A) Addison’s (B) Cushing’s

(C) Tyrosine (D) Tryptophan (C) Grave’s (D) Hartnup’s
374. Corticotropin releasing hormone controls the
383. One of the following does not bind T3 and
direct release of
T4:
(A) Pro-opiomelanocortin
(A) Albumin (B) TBG (C) TBPA (D)
(B) α MSH (C) β MSH
Haptoglobin
(D) Endorphins
384. Epinephrine causes in muscle:
375. The immediate parent of α, β and γ endorphins is
(A) Gluconeogenesis (B) Glycogenesis
(A) Pro-opiomelanocortin
(C) Glycolysis (D) Glycogenolysis
(B) β-lipotropin
(C) ATCH 385. Reverse T3 is
(D) Lipoprotein (A) A synthetic compound given counter the
376. Prolactin release inhibiting hormone is believed effectsof T3
to be (B) Formed from T4 but has no hormone
(A) Serotonin (B) Norepinephrine function
(C) Dopanine (D) Acetyl choline (C) Formed by isomerisation of T3
377. Whcih one of the following is not a symptom of (D) Formed from T4 and has hormone function
cushing’s disease? 386. This pancreatic hormone promotes hypogenesis:
(A) Hyperglycemia (B) Hypernatremia (A) Insulin (B) Glucagon
(C) Hirsutism (D) Hyperkalemia (C) Stomato station (D) Pancreozymine
378. Insulin increases the permeability of glucose 387. It is unique that the following
across the plasma membrane of muscle cells by singleantidiabetogenic hormone effectively
(A) Acting on adenylate cycle counter acts the several diabetogenic hormones:
(B) By loosening the integrity of the membrane (A) Glucagon (B) Glucocorticoids
(C) Through Ca2+ ions (C) Insulin (D) Growth hormone
(D) By membrane cruting the hexose carries
388. Which of the following statements is correct?
ofintracellular organelles and making them
fuse with the plasma membrane (A) Thyroxine inhibits utilization of glucose
(B) Insulin increases utilization of glucose
379. Somatostatin is produced by
(C) Glucagon promotes muscle glycogenolysis
(A) Hypothalamus (D) Insulin inhibits lipogenesis from
(B) Pancreas carbohydrates
(C) Hypothalamus and pancreas
389. Steroid hormones are synthesized from
(D) Hypothalamus and Adrenals
(A) Adenine (B) Protein
380. Insulin like growth hormones are produced by (C) Vitamin (D) Cholesterol
(A) Hypophysis (B) Liver
390. Hormones act only on specific organs or tissues.
(C) Pancreas (D) Thyroid These are called
381. In pheochromocytoma, urine will have (A) Active sites (B) Reaction centre
(A) FILGU (B) VMA (C) Target organ/Tissue(D) Physiological site
(C) 5 HIAA (D) Lysine and Arginine 391. __________ hormone is a single chain
382. Aldosteronism will present the chemical polypeptide having 32 amino acids with
pathology of molecular weight of 3,600.
(A) Testosteron (B) Thyroxine 399. Hormonal stimulation of the formation of the
(C) Calcitonine (D) Vasopressin second messenger inositol 1,4,5 triphosphate
(IP3) quickly leads to the release of which other
392. Which of the following is noted incushing’s intracellular messenger?
syndrome, a tumor associated disease of the
(A) cAMP (B) Prostaglandin
adrenal cortex?
(C) Calcinon (D) Leukotriene
(A) Decreased production of epinephrine
(B) Excessive production of epinephrine 400. Hormone receptors that stimulate cAMP
(C) Excessive production of vasopressin production
(D) Excessive production of cortisol (A) are part of a complex of two proteins
thattransform the external signal into
393. A cup of strong coffee would be expectedto internal
(A) Interfere with synthesis of prostaglandins cAMP production
(B) Decrease the effects of Glucagon (B) are proteins distinct and separate from
(C) Enhance the effects of epinephrine thosethat catalyze the production of cAMP
(D) Provide the vitamin nicotinic acid (C) cause release of the catalytic subunit
uponbinding of the hormone
394. Increased reabsorption of water from the kidney (D) are not very specific and bind a number
is the major consequence of which of the ofdifferent hormones
following hormones?
401. All the following hormones use cAMP as a second
(A) Cortisol (B) Insulin
messenger except
(C) Vasopressin (D) Aldosterone
(A) Estrogen (B) FSH
395. Lack of Glucocorticoids and mineral corticoids (C) Luteinizing (D) Glucagon
might be consequence of which of the following
defects in the adrenal cortex? 402. All the following hormones promote
hyperglycemia except
(A) Androstenadione deficiency
(B) Estrone deficiency (A) Epinephrine (B) Norepinephrine
(C) Insulin (D) Glucagon
(C) 17 α-OH progesterone deficiency
403. Glucagon activates the enzyme adenylcyclase
(D) C- α-Hydroxylase deficiency
which causes the increase of blood sugar level.
396. ADP ribosylation is the mode of action of Hence this hormone is called
(A) Cholera toxin (A) Hypoglycemic factor
(B) Acetyl choline (B) Hyper glycemic factor
(C) Muscerinic receptors (C) Antidiauritic factor
(D) Cyclic AMP (D) Thyrotropin-releasing factor
397. Which one of the following hormones is derived 404. TSH hormone biochemically is a
most completely from tyrosine? (A) Protein (B) Fat
(A) Glucagon (B) Thyroxine (C) Glycoprotein (D) Carbohydrate
(C) Insulin (D) Prostaglandins 405. The secondary sexual characters in females is
398. Insulin regulates fatty acid synthesis by effected by
(A) Dephosphorylating of acetyl CoA carboxylase (A) Estrogens (B) Gluco corticoids
(B) Activating phosphorylase (C) MIS (D) None of these
(C) Inhibiting malonyl CoA formation
406. A hypochromic microcytic anaemia
(D) Controlling carnitine-Acyl CoA whichincreases Fe, store in the bone marrow may
transferaseactivity be
(A) Folic acid responsive

(B) Vitamin B12 responsive
(C) Pyridoxine responsive
(D) Vitamin C responsive
407. Gastric Secretion is regulated by the hormone:

(A) Glucagon (B) Gastrin
(C) Epinephrin (D) ACTH
408. An essential agent for converting glucoseto

glycogen in liver is
(A) Latic acid (B) GTP
(C) UTP (D) Pyruvic acid
409. Which of the following hormones is not involved
in carbohydrate metabolism?
(A) ACTH (B) Glucagon
(C) Vasopressin (D) Growth hormone
410. In the process of transcription, the flowof genetic
information is from
(A) DNA to DNA (B) DNA to protein
(C) RNA to protein (D) DNA to RNA
411. Anticodon region is an important part of the
structure of
(A) r-RNA (B) t-RNA
(C) m-RNA (D) z-DNA
412. Thyroid function is determined by the use of
isotopes:
(A) Na24 (B) K42
(C) Ca45 (D) I131
413. Pernicious anaemia is diagnosed by the radio

active substance:
(A) Cl36 (B) P32
(C) CO60 (D) Fe59
ANSWERS
1. C 2. B 3. A 4. A 5. A 6. C 7. A 8. B 9. B 10. D 11. B 12. B
13. A 14. A 15. B 16. A 17. B 18. C
19. A 20. C 21. A 22. C 23. A 24. B
25. C 26. A 27. C 28. A 29. C 30. A
31. C 32. C 33. C 34. A 35. A 36. A
37. A 38. C 39. B 40. B 41. A 42. A
43. A 44. C 45. B 46. C 47. A 48. A
49. A 50. B 51. C 52. B 53. B 54. C
55. C 56. D 57. C 58. C 59. B 60. B
61. A 62. B 63. D 64. C 65. A 66. A
67. D 68. B 69. A 70. D 71. C 72. D
73. B 74. B 75. A 76. C 77. A 78. D
79. C 80. C 81. A 82. D 83. B 84. A
85. A 86. C 87. A 88. B 89. A 90. D
91. C 92. B 93. D 94. D 95. A 96. B
97. B 98. A 99. A 100. A 101. A 102. B 103. D 104. C 105. B 106. B 107. A 108. A
109. B 110. C 111. C 112. B 113. A 114. C 115. C 116. C 117. C 118. B 119. C 120. A 121. D 122. C 123. B 124.
A 125. B 126. A 127. A 128. B 129. A 130. D 131. B 132. D 133. D 134.C 135. A 136. A 137. D 138. D 139. D
140. A 141. D 142. D 143. A 144. B 145. C 146. D 147. D 148. C 149. C 150. B 151. A 152. B 153. D 154. D
155. B 156. C
157. C 158. C 159. D 160. B 161. C 162. C
163. B 164. A 165. C 166. A 167. B 168. C 169. A 170. B 171. C 172. B 173. C 174. D 175. C 176. D 177. D 178.
C 179. D 180. C 181. A 182. B 183. D 184. D 185. B 186. B 187. A 188. D 189. C 190. A 191. B 192. D 193. B
194. B 195. C 196. A 197. A 198. C
199. B 200. C 201. C 202. D 203. A 204. C 205. D 206. C 207. D 208. D 209. A 210. D 211. C 212. A 213. A 214.
B 215. A 216. B 217. A 218. D 219. D 220. C 221. D 222. C 223. D 224. A 225. A 226. A 227. C 228. B 229. D
230. B 231. D 232. C 233. A 234. D 235. C 236. B 237. D 238. A 239. A 240. D 241. C 242. A 243. A 244. C 245.
D 246. B 247. D 248. C 249. A 250. D 251. C 252. A 253. A 254. D 255. C 256. C 257. A 258. B 259. C 260. A
261. A 262. A 263. A 264. B 265. D 266. C 267. D 268. C 269. A 270. C 271. C 272. C 273. C 274. B 275. B 276.
A 277. D 278. C 279. A 280. C 281. B 282. B
283. A 284. B 285. A 286. B 287. B 288. C
289. D 290. A 291. C 292. B 293. D 294. B
295. B 296. C 297. B 298. C 299. A 300. A 301. A 302. D 303. A 304. B 305. B 306. B 307. D 308. A 309. C 310.
D 311. A 312. C
313. C 314. B 315. D 316. B 317. C 318. C 319. B 320. C 321. C 322. B 323. B 324. D 325. B 326. D 327. B 328.
B 329. D 330. A 331. B 332. D 333. C 334. A 335. B 336. D 337. B 338. C 339. D 340. D 341. A 342. D
343. B 344. D 345. C 346. B 347. A 348. A
349. C 350. D 351. B 352. B 353. A 354. A 355. A 356. A 357. D 358. B 359. A 360. A
361. A 362. D 363. C 364. A 365. D 366. A
367. B 368. C 369. B 370. C 371. C 372. D 373. C 374. A 375. B 376. C 377. D 378. D
379. C 380. B 381. B 382. B 383. D 384. D
385. B 386. A 387. C 388. B 389. D 390. C
391. C 392. D 393. C 394. C 395. D 396. A 397. B 398. A 399. C 400. B 401. A 402. C 403. B 404. C 405. A 406.
D 407. B 408. C
409. C 410. D 411. B 412. D 413. C
1. A nucleoside consists of
(A) Nitrogenous base
(B) Purine or pyrimidine base + sugar

(C) Purine or pyrimidine base + phosphorous NUCLEIC ACIDS
(D) Purine + pyrimidine base + sugar +
phosphorous
2. A nucleotide consists of
(A) A nitrogenous base like choline
(B) Purine + pyrimidine base + sugar +
phosphorous
(C) Purine or pyrimidine base + sugar 7. The chemical name of guanine is
(D) Purine or pyrimidine base + phosphorous (A) 2,4-Dioxy-5-methylpyrimidine
(B) 2-Amino-6-oxypurine
3. A purine nucleotide is
(C) 2-Oxy-4-aminopyrimidine
(A) AMP (B) UMP
(D) 2, 4-Dioxypyrimidine
(C) CMP (D) TMP
8. Nucleotides and nucleic acids concentrationare
4. A pyrimidine nucleotide is often also expressed in terms of
(A) GMP (B) AMP (A) ng (B) mg
(C) CMP (D) IMP
NUCLEIC ACIDS 235
(C) meq (D) OD at 260 nm

5. Adenine is
(A) 6-Amino purine 9. The pyrimidine nucleotide acting as thehigh
(B) 2-Amino-6-oxypurine energy intermediate is
(C) 2-Oxy-4-aminopyrimidine (A) ATP (B) UTP
(D) 2, 4-Dioxypyrimidine (C) UDPG (D) CMP
6. 2, 4-Dioxypyrimidine is 10. The carbon of the pentose in ester linkagewith

(A) Thymine (B) Cystosine the phosphate in a nucleotide structure is
(C) Uracil (D) Guanine (A) C1 (B) C3
CHAPTER 9 (C) C4 (D) C5
11. Uracil and ribose form

(A) Uridine (B) Cytidine
(C) Guanosine (D) Adenosine
12. The most abundant free nucleotide

inmammalian cells is
(A) ATP (B) NAD
(C) GTP (D) FAD
13. The mean intracellular concentration ofATP in (D) Polymer of purine and pyrimidine
mammalian cell is about ribonucleotides
(A) 1 mM (B) 2 mM 21. The nitrogenous base present in the
(C) 0.1 mM (D) 0.2 mM RNAmolecule is
(A) Thymine(B) Uracil
14. The nucleic acid base found in mRNA butnot in
DNA is (C) Xanthine (D) Hypoxanthine
(A) Adenine (B) Cytosine 22. RNA does not contain

(C) Guanine (D) Uracil (A) Uracil (B) Adenine
15. In RNA moleule ‘Caps’ (C) Thymine (D) Ribose
(A) Allow tRNA to be processed 23. The sugar moiety present in RNA is
(B) Are unique to eukaryotic mRNA (A) Ribulose (B) Arabinose
(C) Occur at the 3’ end of tRNA (C) Ribose (D) Deoxyribose
(D) Allow correct translation of prokaryotic
24. In RNA molecule
mRNA
(A) Guanine content equals cytosine(B)
16. In contrast to eukaryotic mRNA,prokaryotic Adenine content equals uracil
mRNA
(C) Adenine content equals guanine
(A) Can be polycistronic (D) Guanine content does not necessarily equalits
(B) Is synthesized with introns cytosine content.
(C) Can only be monocistronic
25. Methylated purines and pyrimidines
(D) Has a poly A tail
arecharacteristically present in
17. The size of small stable RNA ranges from (A) mRNA (B) hnRNA
(A) 0–40 nucleotides (C) tRNA (D) rRNA
(B) 40–80 nucleotides
26. Thymine is present in
(C) 90–300 nucleotides
(A) tRNA (B) Ribosomal RNA
(D) More than 320 nucleotides
(C) Mammalian mRNA(D) Prokaryotic mRNA
18. The number of small stable RNAs per cellranges
from 27. The approximate number of nucleotidesin tRNA
molecule is
(A) 10–50,000
(B) 50,000–1,00,000 (A) 25 (B) 50
(C) 1,00,000–10,00,000 (C) 75 (D) 100
(D) More than 10 lakhs 28. In every cell, the number of tRNA molecules is at
least
19. Molecular weight of heterogenous nuclearRNA
(hnRNA) is (A) 10 (B) 20
(A) More than 10 7 5
(B) 10 to 10 6 (C) 30 (D) 40
4 5
(C) 10 to 10 (D) Less than 104 29. The structure of tRNA appears like a
20. In RNA molecule guanine content does (A) Helix (B) Hair pin
notnecessarily equal its cytosine content nor (C) Clover leaf (D) Coil
does its adenine content necessarily equal its
30. Although each specific tRNA differs from
uracil content since it is a
theothers in its sequence of nucleotides, all tRNA
(A) Single strand molecule molecules contain a base paired stem that
(B) Double stranded molecule terminates in the sequence CCA at
(C) Double stranded helical molecule
(A) 3′Termini (B)5′ Termini
NUCLEIC ACIDS 237
(C) Anticodon arm (D) 35′ ′-Termini (C) Adenine content equals uracil content
31. Transfer RNAs are classified on the basisof the (D) Guanine content equals cytosine
number of base pairs in content
41. DNA rich in G-C pairs have
(A) Acceptor arm (B) Anticodon arm (C)
D arm (D) Extra arm (A) 1 Hydrogen bond (B) 2 Hydrogen bonds
(C) 3 Hydrogen bonds (D) 4 Hydrogen bonds
32. In tRNA molecule D arm is named for
thepresence of the base: 42. The fact that DNA bears the geneticinformation
(A) Uridine (B) Pseudouridine of an organism implies that
(C) Dihydrouridine (D) Thymidine (A) Base composition should be identical
fromspecies to species
33. The acceptor arm in the tRNA molecule has
(B) DNA base composition should charge
(A) 5 Base pairs (B) 7 Base pairs withage
(C) 10 Base pairs (D) 20 Base pairs (C) DNA from different tissues in the
34. In tRNA molecule, the anticodon armpossesses sameorganism should usually have the same base
composition
(A) 5 Base pairs (B) 7 Base pairs
(D) DNA base composition is altered
(C) 8 Base pairs (D) 10 Base pairs withnutritional state of an organism
35. The T ψ C arm in the tRNA molecule possesses 43. The width (helical diameter) of the doublehelix in
B-form DNA in nm is
the sequence
(A) 1 (B) 2
(A) T, pseudouridine and C(B) T, uridine and
C (C) 3 (D) 4
(C) T, dihydrouridine and C 44. The number of base pair in a single turnof B-form
(D) T, adenine and C DNA about the axis of the molecule is
36. Double helical structure model of the DNAwas (A) 4 (B) 8
proposed by (C) 10 (D) 12
(A) Pauling and Corey(B) Peter Mitchell 45. The distance spanned by one turn of Bform DNA
(C) Watson and Crick is
(D) King and Wooten (A) 1.0 nm (B) 2.0 nm
37. DNA does not contain (C) 3.0 nm (D) 3.4 nm
(A) Thymine(B) Adenine 46. In a DNA molecule the thymine concentration is
(C) Uracil (D) Deoxyribose 30%, the guanosine concentration will be
38. The sugar moiety present in DNA is (A) 10% (B) 20%
(C) 30% (D) 40%
(A) Deoxyribose (B) Ribose
(C) Lyxose (D) Ribulose 47. IN a DNA molecule, the guanosine contentis 40%,
the adenine content will be
39. DNA rich in A-T pairs have
(A) 10% (B) 20%
(A) 1 Hydrogen bond (B) 2 Hydrogen bonds
(C) 30% (D) 40%
(C) 3 Hydrogen bonds(D) 4 Hydrogen bonds
48. An increased melting temperature of duplex DNA
40. In DNA molecule
results from a high content of
(A) Guanine content does not equal
(A) Adenine + Guanine(B) Thymine +
cytosine content
Cytosine
(B) Adenine content does not equal thymine
(C) Cytosine + Guanine
content
(D) Cytosine + Adenine
49. A synthetic nucleotide analogue, 4- (C) Alanine (D) Threonine

hydroxypyrazolopyrimidine is used in the
57. N10-formyl and N5N10-methenyl tetrahydrofolate
treatment of
contributes purine carbon atoms at position
(A) Acute nephritis
(A) 4 and 6 (B) 4 and 5
(B) Gout
(C) 5 and 6 (D) 2 and 8
(C) Cystic fibrosis of lung
(D) Multiple myeloma 58. In purine nucleus nitrogen atom at 1 position is
derived from
50. A synthetic nucleotide analogue, used inthe
chemotherapy of cancer and viral infections is (A) Aspartate (B) Glutamate
(C) Glycine (D) Alanine
(A) Arabinosyl cytosine
(B) 4-Hydroxypyrazolopyrimidine 59. The key substance in the synthesis ofpurine,
(C) 6-Mercaptopurine phosphoribosyl pyrophosphate is formed by
(D) 6-Thioguanine (A) α-D-ribose 5-phosphate
51. Histamine is formed from histidine by theenzyme (B) 5-phospho β-D-ribosylamine
histidine decarboxylase in the presence of (C) D-ribose
(A) NAD (B) FMN (D) Deoxyribose
(C) HS-CoA (D) B6-PO4 60. In purine biosynthesis ring closure in
52. Infantile convulsions due to lesserformation of themolecule formyl glycinamide ribosyl-
gamma amino butyric acid from glutamic acid is 5phosphate requires the cofactors:
seen in the deficiency of (A) ADP (B) NAD
(A) Glutamate-dehydrogenase (C) FAD (D) ATP and Mg++
(B) Pyridoxine 61. Ring closure of formimidoimidazolecarboxamide
(C) Folic acid ribosyl-5-phosphate yields the first purine
(D) Thiamin nucleotide:
53. Which of the following amino acids produce a (A) AMP (B) IMP
vasoconstrictor on decarboxylation? (C) XMP (D) GMP
(A) Histidine(B) Tyrosine 62. The cofactors required for synthesis
(C) Threonine (D) Arginine ofadenylosuccinate are
54. The degradation of RNA by (A) ATP, Mg++ (B) ADP
pancreaticribonuclease produces (C) GTP, Mg ++
(D) GDP
(A) Nucleoside 2-Phosphates
63. Conversion of inosine monophosphate
(B) Nucleoside 5′-phosphates toxanthine monophosphate is catalysed by
(C) Oligonucleosides (A) IMP dehydrogenase
(D) Nucleoside 3′-phosphate and (B) Formyl transferase
oligonucleotide (C) Xanthine-guanine phosphoribosyl
55. Intestinal nucleosidases act on nucleosides and transferase
produce (D) Adenine phosphoribosyl transferase
(A) Purine base only (B) Phosphate only 64. Phosphorylation of adenosine to AMP
iscatalysed by
(C) Sugar only (D) Purine or pyrimidine bases and
sugars (A) Adenosine kinase
56. In purine biosynthesis carbon atoms at 4 and 5 (B) Deoxycytidine kinase
position and N at 7 position are contributed by (C) Adenylosuccinase
(A) Glycine (B) Glutamine (D) Adenylosuccinate synthetase
NUCLEIC ACIDS 237
65. The major determinant of the overall rateof (C) Fumarate (D) Alanine
denovo purine nucleotide biosynthesis is the
73. Pyrimidine biosynthesis begins with
concentration of
theformation from glutamine, ATP and CO2, of
(A) 5-phosphoribosyl 1-pyrophosphate
(A) Carbamoyl aspartate(B) Orotate
(B) 5-phospho β-D-ribosylamine
(C) Carbamoyl phosphate
(C) Glycinamide ribosyl-5-phosphate
(D) Dihydroorotate
(D) Formylglycinamide ribosyl-5-phosphate
74. The two nitrogen of the pyrimidine ringare
66. An enzyme which acts as allosteric regulator and
contributed by
sensitive to both phosphate concentration and to
the purine nucleotides is (A) Ammonia and glycine
(A) PRPP synthetase (B) Asparate and carbamoyl phosphate
(B) PRPP glutamyl midotransferase (C) Glutamine and ammonia
(C) HGPR Tase (D) Aspartate and ammonia
(D) Formyl transferase 75. A cofactor in the conversion of dihydroorotate to
orotic acid, catalysed by the enzyme
67. PRPP glutamyl amidotransferase, the
dihydroorotate dehydrogenase is
firstenzyme uniquely committed to purine
synthesis is feed back inhibited by (A) FAD (B) FMN
(A) AMP (B) IMP (C) NAD (D) NADP
(C) XMP (D) CMP 76. The first true pyrimidine
68. Conversion of formylglycinamide ribosyl5- ribonucleotidesynthesized is
phosphate to formyl-glycinamide ribosyl-5- (A) UMP (B) UDP
phosphate is inhibited by (C) TMP (D) CTP
(A) Azaserine (B) Diazonorleucine
77. UDP and UTP are formed by phosphorylation
(C) 6-Mercaptopurine (D) Mycophenolic acid from
69. In the biosynthesis of purine nucleotidesthe AMP (A) AMP (B) ADP
feed back regulates (C) ATP (D) GTP
(A) Adenylosuccinase
78. Reduction of ribonucleotide diphosphates(NDPs)
(B) Adenylosuccinate synthetase to their corresponding deoxy ribonucleotide
(C) IMP dehydrogenase diphosphates (dNDPs) involves
(D) HGPR Tase (A) FMN (B) FAD
70. 6-Mercapto purine inhibits the conversion of (C) NAD (D) NADPH
79. Conversion of deoxyuridine monophosphate to
(A) IMP→ XMP thymidine monophosphate is catalysed by the
(B) Ribose 5 phosphate → PRPP enzyme:
(C) PRPP → 5-phospho →β -D-ribosylamine (A) Ribonucleotide reductase
(D) Glycinamide ribosyl 5-phosphate → (B) Thymidylate synthetase
formylglycinamide ribosyl-5-phosphate (C) CTP synthetase
71. Purine biosynthesis is inhibited by (D) Orotidylic acid decarboxylase
(A) Aminopterin (B) Tetracyclin 80. d-UMP is converted to TMP by
(C) Methotrexate (D) Chloramphenicol
(A) Methylation (B) Decarboxylation
72. Pyrimidine and purine nucleoside biosynthesis (C) Reduction (D) Deamination
share a common precursor:
81. UTP is converted to CTP by
(A) PRPP (B) Glycine
(A) Methylation (B) Isomerisation
(C) Amination (D) Reduction 90. The correct sequence of the reactions
ofcatabolism of adenosine to uric acid is
82. Methotrexate blocks the synthesis ofthymidine
monophosphate by inhibiting the activity of the (A) Adenosine→hypoxanthine→xanthine→uric
enzyme: acid
(A) Dihydrofolate reductase (B) Adenosine→xanthine→inosine→uric acid
(B) Orotate phosphoribosyl transferase (C) Adenosine→inosine→hypoxanthine→
(C) Ribonucleotide reductase xanthine uric acid
(D) Dihydroorotase (D) Adenosine→xanthine→inosine→hypoxanthi
ne uric acid
83. A substrate for enzymes of pyrimidinenucleotide
biosynthesis is 91. Gout is a metabolic disorder of catabolismof
(A) Allopurinol (B) Tetracylin (A) Pyrimidine (B) Purine
(C) Chloramphenicol (D) Puromycin (C) Alanine (D) Phenylalanine
84. An enzyme of pyrimidine nucleotide biosynthesis 92. Gout is characterized by increased plasmalevels
sensitive to allosteric regulation is of
(A) Aspartate transcarbamoylase(B) (A) Urea (B) Uric acid
Dihydroorotase (C) Creatine (D) Creatinine
(C) Dihydroorotate dehydrogenase 93. Lesch-Nyhan syndrome, the sex linkedrecessive
(D) Orotidylic acid decarboxylase disorder is due to the lack of the enzyme:
85 An enzyme of pyrimidine nucleotides biosynthesis (A) Hypoxanthine-guanine

regulated at the genetic level by apparently phosphoribosyltransferse
coordinate repression and derepression is (B) Xanthine oxidase
(A) Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase (C) Adenine phosphoribosyl transferase
(B) Dihydroorotate dehydrogenase (D) Adenosine deaminase
(C) Thymidine kinase 94. Lesch-Nyhan syndrome, the sex linked,recessive
absence of HGPRTase, may lead to
(D) Deoxycytidine kinase
86. The enzyme aspartate transcarbamoylase of (A) Compulsive self destructive behaviour
pyrimidine biosynthesis is inhibited by withelevated levels of urate in serum
(B) Hypouricemia due to liver damage
(A) ATP(B) ADP
(C) Failure to thrive and megaloblastic anemia
(C) AMP (D) CTP
(D) Protein intolerance and hepatic
87. In humans end product of purine catabolism is encephalopathy
(A) Uric acid (B) Urea 95. The major catabolic product of pyrimidines in
(C) Allantoin (D) Xanthine human is
88. In humans purine are catabolised to uricacid due (A) β-Alanine (B) Urea
to lack of the enzyme:
(C) Uric acid (D) Guanine
(A) Urease (B) Uricase
96. Orotic aciduria type I reflects the deficiency of
(C) Xanthine oxidase (D) Guanase
enzymes:
89. In mammals other than higher primatesuric acid (A) Orotate phosphoribosyl transferase
is converted by andorotidylate decarboxylase
(A) Oxidation to allantoin (B) Dihydroorotate dehydrogenase
(B) Reduction to ammonia (C) Dihydroorotase
(C) Hydrolysis to ammonia (D) Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase
(D) Hydrolysis to allantoin
NUCLEIC ACIDS 237
97. Orotic aciduria type II reflects the deficiency of 105. mRNA is complementary to the nucleotide
the enzyme: sequence of
(A) Orotate phosphoribosyl transferase (A) Coding strand (B) Ribosomal RNA
(B) Orotidylate decarboxylase (C) tRNA (D) Template strand
(C) Dihydroorotase
106. In DNA replication the enzyme requiredin the
(D) Dihydroorotate dehydrogenase first step is
98. An autosomal recessive disorder, xanthinuria is (A) DNA directed polymerase
due to deficiency of the enzymes: (B) Unwinding proteins
(A) Adenosine deaminase (C) DNA polymerase
(B) Xanthine oxidase (D) DNA ligase
(C) HGPRTase
107. The smallest unit of DNA capable of coding for
(D) Transaminase the synthesis of a polypeptide is
99. Enzymic deficiency in β-aminoisobutyric aciduria (A) Operon (B) Repressor gene
is (C) Cistron (D) Replicon
(A) Adenosine deaminase 108. Termination of the synthesis of the RNAmolecule
(B) Xanthine oxidase is signaled by a sequence in the template strand
(C) Orotidylate decarboxylase of the DNA molecule, a signal that is recognized
(D) Transaminase by a termination protein, the
100. Polysomes lack in (A) Rho (ρ) factor (B) σ factor

(C) δ factor (D) ε factor
(A) DNA (B) mRNA
109. After termination of the synthesis of RNA
(C) rRNA (D) tRNA molecule, the core enzymes separate from the
101. Genetic information flows from DNA template. The core enzymes then recognize
(A) DNA to DNA a promoter at which the synthesis of a new RNA
(B) DNA to RNA molecule commences, with the assistance of
(C) RNA to cellular proteins (A) Rho (ρ) factor (B) δ factor
(D) DNA to cellular proteins (C) β factor (D) σ factor
102. Genetic code is 110. In the process of transcription in bacterialcells
(A) Collection of codon (A) Initiation requires rho protein
(B) Collection of amino acids (B) RNA polymerase incorporates
(C) Collection of purine nucleotide methylatedbases in correct sequence
(D) Collection of pyrimidine nucleotide (C) Both the sigma unit and core enzymes of
RNApolymerase are required for accurate
103. Degeneracy of genetic code implies that promotor site binding
(A) Codons do not code for specific amino acid (D) Primase is necessary for initiation
(B) Multiple codons must decode the same
111. The correct statement concerning RNA andDNA
aminoacids
polymerases is
(C) No anticodon on tRNA molecule
(D) Specific codon decodes many amino acids (A) RNA polymerase use nucleoside
diphosphates
104. Genetic code is
(A) Overlapping (B) Non-overlapping (B) RNA polymerase require primers and
(C) Not universal (D) Ambiguous addbases at 5’ end of the growing
polynucleotide
chain
(C) DNA polymerases can add nucleotides at (D) GCG, GCA and GCU
bothends of the chain
119. The formation of initiation complex
(D) All RNA and DNA polymerases can
duringprotein synthesis requires a factor:
addnucleotides only at the 3’ end of the
growing polynucleotide chain (A) IF-III (B) EF-I
(C) EF-II (D) IF-I
112. The eukaryotic nuclear chromosomal DNA
120. The amino terminal of all polypeptide chain at
(A) Is a linear and unbranched molecule
the time of synthesis in E. coli is tagged to the
(B) Is not associated with a specific
amino acid residue:
membranousorganelle
(C) Is not replicated semiconservatively (A) Methionine (B) Serine
(D) Is about of the same size as each (C) N-formyl methinine(D) N-formal serine
prokaryoticchromoses 121. Initiation of protein synthesis begins with
113. The function of a repressor protein in an operon binding of
system is to prevent synthesis by binding to (A) 40S ribosomal unit on mRNA
(A) The ribosome (B) 60S ribosomal unit
(B) A specific region of the operon (C) Charging of tRNA with specific amino acid
preventingtranscription of structural genes (D) Attachment of aminoacyl tRNA on mRNA
(C) The RNA polymerase 122. Initiation of protein synthesis requires
(D) A specific region of the mRNA (A) ATP(B) AMP
preventingtranslation to protein (C) GDP (D) GTP
114. All pribnow boxes are variants of the sequence:
123. The enzyme amino acyl tRNA synthetase is
(A) 5′–TATAAT –3′ (B) 5′–GAGCCA –3′ involved in
(C) 5′–UAACAA –3′ (D) 5′–TCCTAG –3′ (A) Dissociation of discharged tRNA from
115. 5’-Terminus of mRNA molecule is capped with 80Sribosome
(B) Charging of tRNA with specific amino
(A) Guanosine triphosphate
acids(C) Termination of protein synthesis
(B) 7-Methylguanosine triphophate
(D) Nucleophilic attack on esterified carboxyl
(C) Adenosine triphosphate
group of peptidyl tRNA
(D) Adenosine diphosphate
124. In the process of activation of amino acidsfor
116. The first codon to be translated on mRNA is
protein synthesis, the number of high energy
(A) AUG (B) GGU phosphate bond equivalent utilised is
(C) GGA (D) AAA (A) 0 (B) 1
117. AUG, the only identified codon for methionine is (C) 2 (D) 4
important as
125 Translation results in a product known as
(A) A releasing factor for peptide chains
(A) Protein (B) tRNA
(B) A chain terminating codon
(C) mRNA (D) rRNA
(C) Recognition site on tRNA
(D) A chain initiating codon 126. In the process of elongation of chain binding of
amino acyl tRNA to the A site requires
118. In biosynthesis of proteins the chain terminating
codons are (A) A proper codon recognition
(B) GTP
(A) UAA, UAG and UGA
(C) EF-II
(B) UGG, UGU and AGU
(D) GDP
(C) AAU, AAG and GAU
NUCLEIC ACIDS 237
127. The newly entering amino acyl tRNA into A site (C) Competing with mRNA for ribosomal
requires bindingsites
(A) EF-II (B) Ribosomal RNA (D) Preventing binding of aminoacyl tRNA
(C) mRNA (D) EF-I 134. In prokaryotes, chloramphenicol
128. The α-amino group of the new amino acyl tRNA (A) Causes premature release of the
in the A site carries out a nucleophilic attack on polypeptidechain
the esterified carboxyl group of the peptidyl (B) Causes misreading of the mRNA
tRNA occupying the P site. This reaction is (C) Depolymerises DNA
catalysed by (D) Inhibits peptidyl transferase activity
(A) DNA polymerase 135 Streptomycin prevents synthesis of polypeptide by
(B) RNA polymerase (A) Inhibiting initiation process
(C) Peptidyl transferase (B) Releasing premature polypeptide
(D) DNA ligase (C) Inhibiting peptidyl transferase activity
129. The nucleophilic attack on the esterified carboxyl (D) Inhibiting translocation
group of the peptidyl-tRNA occupying the P site
and the α-amino group of the new amino acyl 136. Erythromycin acts on ribosomes and inhibit
tRNA, the number of ATP required by the amino (A) Formation of initiation complex
acid on the charged tRNA is (B) Binding of aminoacyl tRNA
(A) Zero (B) One (C) Peptidyl transferase activity
(C) Two (D) Four (D) Translocation
130. Translocation of the newly formedpeptidyl tRNA 137. The binding of prokaryotic DNA dependent RNA
at the A site into the empty P site involves polymerase to promoter sites of genes is
inhibited by the antibiotic:
(A) EF-II, GTP
(B) EF-I, GTP (A) Puromycin (B) Rifamycin
(C) EF-I, GDP (C) Terramycin (D) Streptomycin
(D) Peptidyl transferase, GTP 138. The gene which is transcribed during repression
is
131. In eukaryotic cells
(A) Structural (B) Regulator
(A) Formylated tRNA is important for initiation
(C) Promoter (D) Operator
oftranslation
(B) Cyclohexamide blocks elongation 139 The gene of lac operon which has constitutive
duringtranslation expression is
(C) Cytosolic ribosomes are smaller than (A) i (B) c
thosefound in prokaryotes (C) z (D) p
(D) Erythromycin inhibits elongation
duringtranslation 140. The minimum effective size of an operator for lac
repressor binding is
132. The mushroom poison amanitin is an inhibitor of
(A) 5 base pairs (B) 10 base pairs
(A) Protein synthesis (B) mRNA synthesis (C) 15 base pairs (D) 17 base pairs
(C) DNA synthesis (D) Adenosine synthesis
141 To commence structural gene transcription the
133. Tetracylin prevents synthesis of polypeptide by region which should be free on lac operation is
(A) Blocking mRNA formation from DNA (A) Promoter site (B) Operator locus (C) Y gene
(B) Releasing peptides from mRNA-tRNA (D) A gene
complex 142. In the lac operon concept, a protein molecule is
(A) Operator (B) Inducer
(C) Promoter (D) Repressor (C) Only after an inducer protein, which can
beinactivated by a corepressor, switches it
143. The catabolite repression is mediated by a
on
catabolite gene activator protein (CAP) in
conjunction with (D) Only after an inducer protein, which
isactivated by an inducer, switch it on
(A) AMP (B) GMP
150. Interferon
(C) cAMP (D) Cgmp
(A) Is virus specific
144. The enzyme DNA ligase
(B) Is a bacterial product
(A) Introduces superhelical twists
(C) Is a synthetic antiviral agent
(B) Connects the end of two DNA chains
(D) Requires expression of cellular genes
(C) Unwinds the double helix
(D) Synthesises RNA primers 151. Repressor binds to DNA sequence and regulate
the transcription. This sequence is called
145. Restriction endonucleases
(A) Attenuator (B) Terminator
(A) Cut RNA chains at specific locations (C) Anti terminator (D) Operator
(B) Excise introns from hnRNA
(C) Remove Okazaki fragments 152. Okazaki fragment is related to
(D) Act as defensive enzymes to protect the (A) DNA synthesis (B) Protein synthesis
hostbacterial DNA from DNA of foreign (C) mRNA formation (D) tRNA formation
organisms
153. The region of DNA known as TATA BOX is the site
146. The most likely lethal mutation is for binding of
(A) Substitution of adenine for cytosine (A) DNA polymerase
(B) Insertion of one nucleotide (B) DNA topoisomerase
(C) Deletion of three nucleotides (C) DNA dependent RNA polymerase
(D) Substitution of cytosine for guanine (D) Polynucleotide phosphorylase
147. In the following partial sequence of mRNA, a 154. Reverse transcriptase is capable of synthesising
mutation of the template DNA results in a (A) RNA → DNA (B) DNA → RNA
change in codon 91 to UAA. The type of mutation (C) RNA → RNA (D) DNA → DNA
is
155. A tetrovirus is
88 89 90 91 92 93 94
GUC GAC CAG UAG GGC UAA CCG (A) Polio virus (B) HIV
(A) Missene (B) Silent (C) Herpes virus (D) Tobacco mosaic virus
(C) Nonsense (D) Frame shit 156. Peptidyl transferase activity is located in
(A) Elongation factor
148. Restriction endonucleases recognize and cut a
(B) A charged tRNA molecule
certain sequence of
(C) Ribosomal protein
(A) Single stranded DNA
(D) A soluble cytosolic protein
(B) Double stranded DNA
(C) RNA 157. Ultraviolet light can damage a DNA
(D) Protein strandcausing
(A) Two adjacent purine residue to form
149. Positive control of induction is best described as
acovalently bounded dimer
a control system in which an operon functions
(B) Two adjacent pyrimidine residues to
(A) Unless it is switched off by a formcovalently bonded dimer
derepressedrepressor protein
(C) Disruption of phosphodiesterase linkage
(B) Only after a repressor protein is
(D) Disruption of non-covalent linkage
inactivatedby an inducer
NUCLEIC ACIDS 237
158. Defective enzyme in Hurler’s syndrome is 168. Nuclear DNA is present in combination with
(A) α-L-diuronidase (A) Histones (B) Non-histones
(B) Iduronate sulphatase (C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of these
(C) Arylsulphatase B 169. Number of guanine and cytosine residues is
(D) C-acetyl transferase equal in
159. Presence of arginine can be detected by (A) mRNA (B) tRNA
(A) Sakaguchi reaction (C) DNA (D) None of these
(B) Million-Nasse reaction 170. Alkalis cannot hydrolyse
(C) Hopkins-Cole reaction
(A) mRNA (B) tRNA
(D) Gas chromatography
(C) rRNA (D) DNA
160. A nitrogenous base that does not occurin mRNA
171. Codons are present in
is
(A) Template strand of DNA
(A) Cytosine (B) Thymine
(B) mRNA
(C) Uracil (D) All of these
(C) tRNA
161. In nucleotides, phosphate is attached tosugar by (D) rRNA
(A) Salt bond (B) Hydrogen bond
172. Amino acid is attached to tRNA at
(C) Ester bond (D) Glycosidic bond
(A) 5’-End (B) 3’-End
162. Cyclic AMP can be formed from (C) Anticodon (D) DHU loop
(A) AMP (B) ADP (C) ATP (D) All of these
173. In prokaryotes, the ribosomal subunitsare
163. A substituted pyrimidine base of
(A) 30 S and 40 S (B) 40 S and 50 S
pharmacological value is
(C) 30 S and 50 S (D) 40 S and 60 S
(A) 5-Iododeoxyuridine
(B) Cytisine arabinoside 174. Ribozymes are
(C) 5-Fluorouracil (A) Enzymes present in ribosomes
(D) All of these (B) Enzymes which combine the
ribosomalsubunits
164 The ‘transforming factor’ discovered by Avery,
(C) Enzymes which dissociate
McLeod and McCarty was later found to be
(D) Enzymes made up of RNA
(A) mRNA (B) tRNA (C) DNA (D) None of
these 175. The smallest RNA among the following is
165. In DNA, the complementary base of adenine is (A) rRNA (B) hnRNA
(C) mRNA (D) tRNA
(A) Guanine (B) Cytosine
(C) Uracil (D) Thymine 176. The number of adenine and thymine basesis
equal in
166. In DNA, three hydrogen bonds are formed
(A) DNA (B) mRNA
between
(C) tRNA (D) rRNA
(A) Adenine and guanine(B) Adenine and 177. The number of hydrogen bonds between
thymine adenine and thymine in DNA is
(C) Guanine and cytosine (A) One (B) Two
(D) Thymine and cytosine (C) Three (D) Four
167. Left handed double helix is present in
178. The complementary base of adenine in
(A) Z-DNA (B) A-DNA
RNA is
(C) B-DNA (D) None of these
(A) Thymine (B) Cystosine
(C) Guanine (D) Uracil (C) Aspartate, glutamine and glycine

179. Extranuclear DNA is present in (D) Aspartate, glutamate and glycine
(A) Ribosomes 189 For de novo synthesis of purine nucleotides, glycine

(B) Endoplasmic reticulum provides
(C) Lysosomes (A) One nitrogen atom
(D) Mitochondria (B) One nitrogen and one carbon atom
(C) Two carbon atoms
180. Mitochondrial DNA is present in
(D) One nitrogen and two carbon atoms
(A) Bacteria (B) Viruses
(C) Eukaryotes (D) All of these 190. For de novo synthesis of purine nucleotides,
aspartate provides
181. Ribothymidine is present in
(A) Nitrogen 1 (B) Nitrogen 3
(A) DNA (B) tRNA (C) Nitrogen 7 (D) Nitrogen 9
(C) rRNA (D) hnRNA
191. In the purine nucleus, carbon 6 is contributed by
182. Ten base pairs are present in one turn ofthe helix
(A) Glycine (B) CO2
in
(C) Aspartate (D) Glutamine
(A) A-DNA (B) B-DNA
192. 5-Phosphoribosyl-1-pyrophosphate is required
(C) C-DNA (D) Z-DNA
for the synthesis of
183. Transfer RNA transfers (A) Purine nucleotides (B) Pyrimidine
(A) Information from DNA to ribosomes nucleotides (C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of
(B) Information from mRNA to cytosol these
(C) Amino acids from cytosol to ribosomes 193. Inosine monophophate is an intermediate during
(D) Proteins from ribosomes to cytosol the de novo synthesis of
184. Ceramidase is deficient in (A) AMP and GMP (B) CMP and UMP
(A) Fabry’s disease (B) Farber’s disease (C) CMP and TMP (D) All of these
(C) Krabbe’s disease (D) Tay-Sachs disease 194. Xanthosine monophosphate is an intermediate
185. Ceramide is present in all of the followingexcept during de novo synthesis of
(A) Plasmalogens (B) Cerebrosides (A) TMP (B) CMP

(C) Sulphatides (D) Sphingomyelin (C) AMP (D) GMP
186. Nucleotides required for the synthesis of nucleic 195. In the pathway of de novo synthesis ofpurine
acids can be obtained from nucleotides, all the following are allosteric
enzymes except
(A) Dietary nucleic acids and nucleotides
(A) PRPP glutamyl amido transferase
(B) De novo synthesis
(B) Adenylosuccinate synthetase
(C) Salvage of pre-existing bases and
nucleosides (C) IMP dehydrogenase
(D) De novo synthesis and salvage (D) Adenylosuccinase
187. De novo synthesis of purine nucleotideoccurs in 196. All of the following enzymes are uniqueto purine
nucleotide synthesis except
(A) Mitochondria (B) Cytosol
(A) PRPP synthetase
(C) Microsmes (D) Ribosomes
(B) PRPP glutamyl amido transferase
188. The nitrogen atoms for de novo synthesis of (C) Adenylosuccinate synthetase
purine nucleotides are provided by (D) IMP dehydrogenase
(A) Aspartate and glutamate
197. PRPP synthetase is allosterically inhibited by
(B) Aspartate and glycine
NUCLEIC ACIDS 237
(A) AMP (B) ADP 206. Deoxycytidine kinase can salvage

(C) GMP (D) All of these (A) Adenosine
198. An allosteric inhibitor of PRPP glutamylamido (B) Adenosine and deoxyadenosine
transferase is (C) Adenosine and guanosine
(A) AMP (B) ADP (D) Adenine and adenosine
(C) GMP (D) All of these 207. Adenosine kinase can salvage
199. An allosteric inhibitor of (A) Adenosine
adenylosuccinatesynthetase is (B) Adenosine and deoxyadenosine
(A) AMP (B) ADP (C) Adenosine and guanosine
(C) GMP (D) GDP (D) Adenine and adenosine
200. An allosteric inhibitor of IMP dehydrogenase is 208. Salvage of purine bases is regulated by
(A) AMP (B) ADP (A) Adenosine phosphoribosyl transferase
(C) GMP (D) GDP (B) Hypoxanthine guanine
phosphoribosyltransferase
201. GMP is an allosteric inhibitor of all the following (C) Availability of PRPP
except
(D) None of these
(A) PRPP synthetase
(B) PRPP glutamyl amido synthetase 209. The available PRPP is used preferentiallyfor
(C) IMP dehydrogenase (A) De novo synthesis of purine nucleotides
(D) Adenylosuccinate synthetase (B) De novo synthesis of pyrimidine nucleotides
(C) Salvage of purine bases
202. AMP is an allosteric inhibitor of
(D) Salvage of pyrimidine bases
(A) PRPP synthetase
(B) Adenylosucciante synthetase 210. The end product of purine catabolism in man is
(C) Both (A) and (B) (A) Inosine (B) Hypoxanthine
(D) None of these (C) Xanthine (D) Uric acid
211. The enzyme common to catabolism of allthe
203. The first reaction unique to purine nucleotide purines is
synthesis is catalysed by
(A) Adenosine deaminase
(A) PRPP synthetase
(B) Purine nucleoside phosphorylase
(B) PRPP glutamyl amido transferase
(C) Guanase
(C) Phosphoribosyl glycinamide synthetase
(D) None of these
(D) Formyl transferase
204. Free purine bases which can be salvaged are 212. Uric acid is the end product of purine as well as
protein catabolism in
(A) Adenine and guanine
(B) Adenine and hypoxanthine (A) Man (B) Fish
(C) Guanine and hypoxanthine (C) Birds (D) None of these
(D) Adenine, guanine and hypoxanthine 213. Daily uric acid excretion in adult men is
205. The enzyme required for salvage of free purine (A) 2–6 mg (B) 20–40 mg
bases is (C) 150–250 mg (D) 40–600 mg
(A) Adenine phosphoribosyl transferase 214. Dietary purines are catabolised in
(B) Hypoxanthine guanine
phosphoribosyltransferase
(C) Intesitnal mucosa (D) All of these
(D) None of these
215. De novo synthesis of pyrimidine nucleotides 224. Conversion of uridine diphosphate into
occurs in deoxyuridine diphosphate requires all the
(A) Mitochondria (B) Cytosol following except
(C) Microsomes (D) Ribosomes (A) Ribonucleotide reductase
(B) Thioredoxin
216. An enzyme common to de novo synthesisof
(C) Tetrahydrobiopterin
pyrimidine nucleotides and urea is
(D) NADPH
(A) Urease
(B) Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase 225. Amethopterin and aminopterin decrease the
synthesis of
(C) Aspartate transcarbamoylase
(D) Argininosuccinase (A) TMP (B) UMP (C) CMP (D) All of these
217. The nitrogen atoms of pyrimidine nucleus are 226. For synthesis of CTP and UTP, the amino group
provided by comes from
(A) Glutamate (A) Amide group of Asparagine(B) Amide group

of glutamine
(B) Glutamate and aspartate(C) Glutamine
(D) Glutamine and aspartate (C) α-Amino group of glutamine
(D) α-Amino group of glutamate
218. The carbon atoms of pyrimidine nucleus are
provided by 227. CTP synthetase forms CTP from
(A) Glycine and aspartate (A) CDP and inorganic phosphate
(B) CO2 and aspartate (B) CDP and ATP
(C) UTP and glutamine
(C) CO2 and glutamate
(D) UTP and glutamate
(D) CO2 and glutamine 228. For the synthesis of TMP from dump, acoenzyme
219. Nitrogen at position 1 of pyrimidine nucleus is required which is
comes from
(A) N10- Formyl tetrahydrofolate
(A) Glutamine (B) Glutamate
(B) N5- Methyl tetrahydrofolate
(C) Glycine (D) Aspartate
(C) N5, N10- Methylene tetrahydrofolate
220. Nitrogen at position 3 of pyrimidine nucleus (D) N5- Formimino tetrahydrofolate
comes from
(A) Glutamine (B) Glutamate 229. All the enzymes required for de novo synthesis
of pyrimidine nucleotides are cytosolic except
(C) Glycine (D) Aspartate
(A) Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase
221. The carbon atom at position 2 of pyrimidine
(B) Aspartate transcarbamoylase
nucleus is contributed by
(C) Dihydro-orotase
(A) CO2 (B) Glycine
(D) Dihydro-orotate dehydrogenase
(C) Aspartate (D) Glutamine
230. During de novo synthesis of pyrimidine
222. Aspartate contributes the following carbon nucleotides, the first ring compound to be
atoms of the pyrimidine nucelus: formed is
(A) C2 and C4 (B) C5 and C6 (A) Carbamoyl aspartic acid
(C) C2, C4 and C6 (D) C4, C5 and C6 (B) Dihydro-orotic acid
223. The first pyrimidine nucleotide to be formed in (C) Orotic acid
de novo synthesis pathway is (D) Orotidine monophosphate
(A) UMP (B) CMP 231. Tetrahydrofolate is required as a coenzyme for
(C) CTP (D) TMP the synthesis of
NUCLEIC ACIDS 237
(A) UMP (B) CMP (D) Cytosine and uracil

(C) TMP (D) All of these 241. The following coenzyme is required for
232. All of the following statements about catabolism of pyrimidine bases:
thioredoxin reductase are true except: (A) NADH (B) NADPH
(A) It requires NADH as a coenzyme (C) FADH2 (D) None of these
(B) Its substrates are ADP, GDP, CDP and UDP 242. Inheritance of primary gout is
(C) It is activated by ATP
(A) Autosomal recessive
(D) It is inhibited by dADP
(B) Autosomal dominant
233. De novo synthesis of pyrimidine nucleotides is (C) X-linked recessive
regulated by (D) X-linked dominant
(A) Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase
243. The following abnormality in PRPP synthetase
(B) Aspartate transcarbamoylase can cause primary gout:
(A) High Vmax
(D) None of these
(B) Low Km
234. Cytosolic carbamoyl phosphate synthetase is (C) Resistance to allosteric inihbition.(D) All of
inhibited by these
(A) UTP (B) CTP
244. All the following statements aboutprimary gout
(C) PRPP (D) TMP are true except
235. Cytosolic carbamoyl phosphate synthetase is
activated by (A) Its inheritance is X-linked recessive
(B) It can be due to increased activity of
(A) Glutamine (B) PRPP
PRPPsynthetase
(C) ATP (D) Aspartate
(C) It can be due to increased activity of
236. Aspartate transcarbamoylase is inhibited by hypoxanthine guanine phosphoribosyl
(A) CTP (B) PRPP transferase
(C) ATP (D) TMP (D) De novo synthesis of purines is increased in
it
237. The following cannot be salvaged in human
beings: 245. All of the following statements about uric acid
are true except
(A) Cytidine (B) Deoxycytidine
(A) It is a catabolite of purines
(C) Cytosine (D) Thymidine
(B) It is excreted by the kidneys
238. β-Aminoisobytyrate is formed from catabolism (C) It is undissociated at pH above 5.8
of (D) It is less soluble than sodium urate
(A) Cytosine (B) Uracil 246. In inherited deficiency of hypoxanthineguanine
(C) Thymine (D) Xanthine phosphoribosyl transferase
239. Free ammonia is liberated during the catabolism (A) De novo synthesis of purine nucleotides
of isdecreased
(B) Salvage of purines is decreased
(A) Cytosine (B) Uracil
(C) Salvage of purines is increased
(C) Thymine (D) All of these
(D) Synthesis of uric acid is decreased
240. β -Alanine is formed from catabolism of 247. All of the following statements about uric acid
(A) Thymine are true except
(B) Thymine and cytosine (A) It can be formed from allantoin
(C) Thymine and uracil
(B) Formation of uric acid stones in kidneys 254. Increased urinary excretion of orotic acid can
canbe decreased by alkalinisation of urine occur in deficiency of
(C) Uric acid begins to dissociate at pH above (A) Orotate phosphoribosyl transferase
5.8 (B) OMP decarboxylase
(D) It is present in plasma mainly as (C) Mitochondrial ornithine transcarbamoylase
monosodiumurate (D) Any of the above
248. All of the following statements about primary 255. All of the following can occur in LeschNyhan
gout are true except syndrome except
(A) Uric acid stones may be formed in (A) Gouty arthritis
kidneys(B) Arthritis of small joints occurs (B) Uric acid stones
commonly
(C) Retarted growth
(C) Urinary excretion of uric acid is decreased
(D) Self-mutiliating behaviour
(D) It occurs predominantly in males
256. Inherited deficiency of purine nucleoside
249. All of the following statements about allopurinol phosphorylase causes
are true except
(A) Dwarfism (B) Mental retardation
(A) It is a structural analogue of uric acid
(C) Immunodeficiency (D) Gout
(B) It can prevent uric acid stones in the kidneys
(C) It increases the urinary excretion of 257. Deoxyribonucleotides are formed by reduction
xanthineand hypoxanthine of
(D) It is a competitive inhibitor of xanthine (A) Ribonucleosides
oxidase (B) Ribonucleoside monophosphates
250. Orotic aciduria can be controlled by (C) Ribonucleoside diphosphates
(A) Oral administration of orotic acid (D) Ribonucleoside triphosphates
(B) Decreasing the dietary intake of orotic acid
258. An alternate substrate for orotate
(C) Decreasing the dietary intake of phosphoribosyl transferase is
pyrimidines(D) Oral administration of
uridine (A) Allopurinol (B) Xanthine
(C) Hypoxanthine (D) Adenine
251. All of the following occur in orotic aciduriaexcept
259. Mammals other than higher primates do not
(A) Increased synthesis of pyrimidine
suffer from gout because they
nucleotides(B) Increased excretion of orotic
acid in urine (A) Lack xanthine oxidase
(C) Decreased synthesis of cytidine triphosphate (B) Lack adenosine deaminase
(D) Retardation of growth (C) Lack purine nucleoside phosphorylase
(D) Possess uricase
252. Inherited deficiency of adenosine deaminase
causes 260. Hypouricaemia can occur in
(A) Hyperuricaemia and gout (A) Xanthine oxidase deficiency
(B) Mental retardation (B) Psoriasis
(C) Immunodeficiency (C) Leukaemia
(D) Dwarfism (D) None of these
253. Complete absence of hypoxanthine guanine 261. Synthesis of DNA is also known as
phospharibosyl transferase causes
(A) Duplication (B) Replication
(A) Primary gout (B) Immunodeficiency (C) Transcription (D) Translation
(C) Uric acid stones (D) Lesh-Nyhan syndrome
262. Replication of DNA is
NUCLEIC ACIDS 237
(A) Conservative (B) Semi-conservative 272. During replication, unwinding of double helix is
(C) Non-conservative (D) None of these initiated by
(A) DNAA protein (B) DnaB protein
263. Direction of DNA synthesis is
(C) DNAC protein (D) Rep protein
(A) 5’ → 3’ (B) 3’ → 5’
273. For unwinding of double helical DNA,
(A) Energy is provided by ATP
264. Formation of RNA primer:
(B) Energy is provided by GTP
(A) Precedes replication (C) Energy can be provided by either ATP or
(B) Follows replication GTP
(C) Precedes transcription (D) No energy is required
(D) Follows transcription
274. Helicase and DNAB protein cause
265. Okazaki pieces are made up of (A) Rewinding of DNA and require ATP as
(A) RNA (B) DNA asource of energy
(C) RNA and DNA (D) RNA and proteins (B) Rewinding of DNA but do not require
anysource of energy
266. Okazaki pieces are formed during the synthesis
(C) Unwinding of DNA and require ATP as
of
asource of energy
(A) mRNA (B) tRNA (D) Unwinding of DNA but do not require
(C) rRNA (D) DNA anysource of energy
267. After formation of replication fork 275. The unwound strands of DNA are held apart by
(A) Both the new strands are synthesized (A) Single strand binding protein
discontinuously (B) Double strand binding protein
(B) One strand is synthesized continuously (C) Rep protein
andthe other discontinuously
(D) DNAA protein
(C) Both the new strands are
synthesizedcontinuously 276. Deoxyribonucleotides are added to RNA primer
(D) RNA primer is required only for the by
synthesisof one new strand (A) DNA polymerase I
268. An Okazaki fragment contains about (B) DNA polymerase II
(C) DNA polymerase III holoenzyme
(A) 10 Nucleotides
(D) All of these
(B) 100 Nucleotides
(C) 1,000 Nucleotides 277. Ribonucleotides of RNA primer are replaced by
(D) 10,000 Nucleotides deoxyribonucleotides by the enzyme:
(A) DNA polymerase I
269. RNA primer is formed by the enzyme:
(B) DNA polymerase II
(A) Ribonuclease (B) Primase
(C) DNA polymerase III holoenzyme
(C) DNA polymerase I (D) DNA polymerase III
(D) All of these
270. In RNA, the complementary base of adenine is
278. DNA fragments are sealed by
(A) Cytosine (B) Guanine
(A) DNA polymerase II
(C) Thymine (D) Uracil
(B) DNA ligase
271. During replication, the template DNA is (C) DNA gyrase
unwound (D) DNA topoisomerase II
(A) At one of the ends (B) At both the ends
279. Negative supercoils are introduced in DNAby
(C) At multiple sites (D) Nowhere
(A) Helicase (C) Both (A) and (B)

(B) DNA ligase (D) None of these
(C) DNA gyrase
287. DNA topoisomerase I of E. coli catalyses
(D) DNA polymerase III holoenzyme
(A) Relaxation of negatively supercoiled DNA
280. Reverse transcriptase activity is present in the (B) Relaxation of positively supercoiled DNA
eukaryotic: (C) Conversion of negatively supercoiled
(A) DNA polymerase α DNAinto positively supercoiled DNA
(D) Conversion of double helix into supercoiled
(B) DNA polymerase γ (C) Telomerase
DNA
(D) DNA polymerase II
288. In mammalian cell cycle, synthesis of DNAoccurs
281. DNA polymerase III holoenzyme possesses
during
(A) Polymerase activity (A) S phase (B) G1 phase
(B) 3’→5’ Exonuclease activity (C) Mitotic Phase (D) G2 phase
(C) 5’→3’ Exonuclease and polymerase 289. Melting temperature of DNA is the temperature
activities at which
(D) 3’→5’ Exonuclease and polymerase (A) Solid DNA becomes liquid
activities (B) Liquid DNA evaporates
282. DNA polymerase I possesses (C) DNA changes from double helix
intosupercoiled DNA
(A) Polymerase activity
(D) Native double helical DNA is denatured
(B) 3’→5’ Exonuclease activity (C) 5’→3’
290. Melting temperature of DNA is increased by its
Exonuclease activity
(D) All of these (A) A and T content (B) G and C content
(C) Sugar content (D) Phosphate content
283. 3’→5’ Exonuclease activity of DNA polymerase I
291. Buoynat density of DNA is increased by its
(A) Removes ribonucleotides
(A) A and T content (B) G and C content
(B) Adds deoxyribonucleotides
(C) Sugar content (D) None of these
(C) Corrects errors in replication
(D) Hydrolyses DNA into mononucleotides 292. Relative proportions of G and C versus Aand T in
DNA can be determined by its
284. All of the following statements about RNA-
(A) Melting temperature
dependent DNA polymerase are true except:
(B) Buoyant density
(A) It synthesizes DNA using RNA as a template
(B) It is also known as reverse transcriptase
(D) None of these
(C) It synthesizes DNA in 5’→3’ direction
293. Some DNA is present in mitochondria of
(D) It is present in all the viruses
(A) Prokaryotes (B) Eukaryotes
285. Reverse transcriptase catalyses (C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of these
(A) Synthesis of RNA
294. Satellite DNA contains
(B) Breakdown of RNA
(C) Synthesis of DNA (A) Highly repetitive sequences
(D) Breakdown of DNA (B) Moderately repetitive sequences
(C) Non-repetitive sequences
286. DNA A protein can bind only to (D) DNA-RNA hybrids
(A) Positively supercoiled DNA
295. Synthesis of RNA and a DNA template is known
(B) Negatively supercoiled DNA
as
NUCLEIC ACIDS 237
(A) Replication (B) Translation 305. Post-transcriptional modification of

(C) Transcription (D) Mutation hnRNAinvolves all of the following except
(A) Addition of 7-methylguanosine
296. Direction of RNA synthesis is
triphosphatecap
(A) 5′ → 3’ (B) 3′ → 5’ (B) Addition of polyadenylate tail
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of these (C) Insertion of nucleotides
297. DNA-dependent RNA polymerase is a (D) Deletion of introns
(A) Monomer (B) Dimer 306. Newly synthesized tRNA undergoes

(C) Trimer (D) Tetramer posttranscriptional modifications which include
298. DNA-dependent RNA polymerase requiresthe all the following except (A) Reduction in size
following for its catalytic activity: (B) Methylation of some bases
(A) Mg ++
(B) Mn ++ (C) Formation of pseudouridine
(D) Addition of C-C-A terminus at 5’ end
307. Post-transcriptional modification does not occur
299. The initiation site for transcription is recognized
in
by
(A) Eukaryotic tRNA (B) Prokaryotic tRNA
(A) α−Subunit of DNA-dependent RNA (C) Eukaryotic hnRNA (D) Prokaryotic mRNA
polymerase
308. A consensus sequence on DNA, called TATAbox,
(B) β−Subunit of DNA-dependent RNA
is the site for attachment of
polymerase
(C) Sigma factor (A) RNA-dependent DNA polymerase
(D) Rho factor (B) DNA-dependent RNA polymerase
(C) DNA-dependent DNA polymerase
300. The termination site for transcription is (D) DNA topoisomerase II
recognized by
309. Polyadenylate tail is not present in mRNA
(A) α−Subunit of DNA-dependent RNA synthesising
polymerase
(A) Globin (B) Histone
(B) β−Subunit of DNA-dependent RNA
(C) Apoferritin (D) Growth hormone
polymerase
(C) Sigma factor 310. Introns are present in DNA of
(D) Rho factor (A) Viruses (B) Bacteria
301. Mammalian RNA polymerase I synthesises (C) Man (D) All of these
(A) mRNA (B) rRNA 311. A mammalian DNA polymerase amongthe

(C) tRNA (D) hnRNA following is
302. Mammalian RNA polymerase III synthesises (A) DNA polymerase α

(A) rRNA (B) mRNA (B) DNA polymerase I
(C) tRNA (D) hnRNA (C) DNA polymerase II
(D) DNA polymerase IV
303. In mammals, synthesis of mRNA is catalysed by
(A) RNA polymerase I (B) RNA polymerase II 312. Mammalian DNA polymerase γ is located in
(C) RNA polymerase III(D) RNA polymerase IV (A) Nucleus (B) Nucleolus
(C) Mitochondria (D) Cytosol
304. Heterogeneous nuclear RNA is the precursor of
(A) mRNA (B) rRNA (C) tRNA (D) None of these 313. Replication of nuclear DNA in mammals is
catalysed by
(A) DNA polymerase α (A) Encode the amino acids which are
(B) DNA polymerase β (C) DNA polymerase γ removedduring post-translational
modification
(D) DNA polymerase III
(B) Encode signal sequences which are
314. Primase activity is present in removedbefore secretion of the proteins
(A) DNA polymerase II (C) Are the non-coding sequences which are
nottranslated
(B) DNA polymerase α (C) DNA polymerase β
(D) Are the sequences that intervene
(D) DNA polymerase δ betweentwo genes
315. The mammalian DNA polymerase involved in
323. All of the following statements about post-
error correction is
transcriptional processing of tRNA are true
(A) DNA polymeraseα (B) DNA polymeraseβ except
(C) DNA polymerase γ (A) Introns of some tRNA precursors are
removed(B) CCA is added at 3′ end
(D) DNA polymeraseδ
(C) 7-Methylguanosine triphosphate cap
316. Novobicin inhibits the synthesis of isadded at 5′ end
(A) DNA (B) mRNA (D) Some bases are methylated
(C) tRNA (D) rRNA
324. α-Amanitin inhibits
317. Ciprofloxacin inhibits the synthesis of (A) DNA polymerase II of prokaryotes(B) DNA
(A) DNA (B) mRNA polymerase α of eukaryotes
(C) tRNA (D) rRNA (C) RNA polymerase II of eukaryotes
(D) RNA-dependent DNA polymerase
318. Ciprofloxacin inhibits
(A) DNA topisomerase II(B) DNA polymerase I 325. Ciprofloxacin inhibits the synthesis of
(C) DNA polymerase III (A) DNA in prokaryotes
(D) DNA gyrase (B) DNA in prokaryotes and eukaryotes
(C) RNA in prokaryotes
319. Rifampicin inhibits
(D) RNA in prokaryotes and eukaryotes
(A) Unwinding of DNA(B) Initiation of
replication 326. All of the following statements about bacterial
(C) Initiation of translation promoters are true except
(D) Initiation of transcription (A) They are smaller than eukaryotic promoters
(B) They have two consensus sequences
320. Actinomycin D binds to
upstreamfrom the transcription star site
(A) Double stranded DNA(B) Single stranded (C) TATA box is the site for attachment of
DNA RNApolymerase
(C) Single stranded RNA (D) TATA box has a high melting temperature
(D) DNA-RNA hybrid
327. All of the following statements about eukaryotic
321. DNA contains some palindromic sequenceswhich promoters are true except
(A) Mark the site for the formation of (A) They may be located upstream or down
replicationforks streamfrom the structural gene
(B) Direct DNA polymerase to turn back (B) They have two consensus sequences
toreplicate the other strand (C) One consensus sequence binds
(C) Are recognized by restriction enzymes RNApolymerase
(D) Are found only in bacterial DNA
322. Introns in genes
NUCLEIC ACIDS 237
(D) Mutations in promoter region can decrease 335. All the following statements about geneticcode
theefficiency of transcription of the are correct except
structural gene (A) It is degenerate (B) It is unambigous
328. In sanger’s method of DNA sequence (C) It is nearly universal(D) It is overlapping
determination, DNA synthesis is stopped by
336. All of the following statements about nonsense
using
codons are true except
(A) 1′, 2′- Dideoxyribonucleoside triphosphates (A) They do not code for amino acids
(B) 2′, 3′- Dideoxyribonucleoside triphosphates (B) They act as chain termination signals
(C) 2′, 4′- Dideoxyribonucleoside (C) They are identical in nuclear
triphosphates andmitochondrial DNA
(D) They have no complementary anticodons
(D) 2′, 5′ - Dideoxyribonucleoside triphosphates
329. tRNA genes have 337. A polycistronic mRNA can be seen in
(A) Upstream promoters (A) Prokaryotes (B) Eukaryotes
(B) Downstream promoters (C) Mitochondria (D) All of these
(C) Intragenic promoters 338. Non-coding sequence are present in the genes of
(D) No promoters
(A) Bacteria (B) Viruses
330. All of the following statements about tRNA are (C) Eukaryotes (D) All of these
true except
339. Non-coding sequences in a gene are known as
(A) It is synthesized as a large precursor
(A) Cistrons (B) Nonsense codons
(B) It is processed in the nucelolus
(C) Introns (D) Exons
(C) It has no codons or anticodons
(D) Genes for rRNA are present in single copies 340. Splice sites are present in
331. Anticodons are present on (A) Prokaryotic mRNA (B) Eukaryotic mRNA
(C) Eukaryotic hnRNA (D) All of these
(A) Coding strand of DNA
(B) mRNA 341. The common features of introns include all the
(C) tRNA following except
(D) rRNA (A) The base sequence begins with GU
(B) The base sequence ends with AG
332. Codons are present on
(C) The terminal AG sequence is preceded by
(A) Non-coding strand of DNA
apurine rich tract of ten nucleotides
(B) hnRNA
(D) An adenosine residue in branch site
(C) tRNA participates in splicing
(D) None of these
342. A splice some contains all the followingexcept
333. Nonsense codons are present on (A) hnRNA (B) snRNAs
(A) mRNA (B) tRNA (C) Some proteins (D) Ribosome
(C) rRNA (D) None of these
343. Self-splicing can occur in
334. Genetic code is said to be degenerate because (A) Some precursors of rRNA
(A) It can undergo mutations (B) Some precursors of tRNA
(B) A large proportion of DNA is non-coding (C) hnRNA
(C) One codon can code for more than one (D) None of these
aminoacids
344. Pribnow box is present in
(D) More than one codons can code for the
sameamino acids (A) Prokaryotic promoters
(B) Eukaryotic promoters 350. All the following statements about recognition
(C) Both (A) and (B) of a codon on mRNA by an anticodon on tRNA
(D) None of these are correct except
(A) The recognition of the third base of the
345. Hogness box is present in (A) Prokaryotic
codonis not very precise
promoters
(B) Imprecise recognition of the third base
(B) Eukaryotic promoters resultsin wobble
(C) Both (A) and (B) (C) Wobble is partly responsible for
(D) None of these thedegeneracy of the genetic code
(D) Wobble results in incorporation of
346. CAAT box is present in incorrectamino acids in the protein
(A) Prokaryotic promoters 10 bp upstream
oftranscription start site 351. The first amino acyl tRNA which initiates
translation in eukaryotes is
(B) Prokaryotic promoters 35 bp upstream
oftranscription start site (A) Mehtionyl tRNA
(C) Eukaryotic promoters 25 bp upstream (B) Formylmethionyl tRNA
oftranscription start site (C) Tyrosinyl tRNA
(D) Eukaryotic promoters 70–80 bp upstream (D) Alanyl tRNA
oftranscription start site
352. The first amino acyl tRNA which initiates
347. Eukaryotic promoters contain translation in prokaryotes is
(A) TATA box 25bp upstream of transcription (A) Mehtionyl tRNA
startsite (B) Formylmethionyl tRNA
(B) CAAT box 70-80 bp upstream of (C) Tyrosinyl tRNA
transcriptionstart site (D) Alanyl tRNA
353. In eukaryotes, the 40 S pre-initiation complex
(D) None of these
contains all the following initiation factors
348. All the following statements about tRNA are except
correct except
(A) eIF-1A (B) eIF-2
(A) A given tRNA can be charged with only (C) eIF-3 (D) eIF-4
oneparticular amino acid
(B) The amino acid is recognized by 354. Eukaryotic initiation factors 4A, 4B and
theanticodon of tRNA 4F bind to
(C) The amino acid is attached to end of tRNA (A) 40 S ribosomal subunit
(D) The anticodon of tRNA finds the (B) 60 S ribosomal subunit
complementary codon on mRNA (C) mRNA
(D) Amino acyl tRNA
349. All the following statements about charging of
tRNA are correct except 355. The codon which serves as translation start
(A) It is catalysed by amino acyl tRNA signal is
synthetase (A) AUG (B) UAG
(B) ATP is converted into ADP and Pi in (C) UGA (D) UAA
thisreaction
(C) The enzyme recognizes the tRNA and 356. The first amino acyl tRNA approaches 40 S
theamino acid ribosomal subunit in association with
(D) There is a separate enzyme for each tRNA (A) eIF-1A and GTP (B) eIF-2 and GTP
(C) eIF-2C and GTP (D) eIF-3 and GTP
357. eIF-1A and eIF-3 are required

NUCLEIC ACIDS 237
(A) For binding of amino acyl tRNA to 40 (A) Inhibits binding of amino acyl tRNA
Sribosomal subunit (B) Inhibits Peptidyl transferase activity
(B) For binding of mRNA to 40 S (C) Inhibits translocation
ribosomalsubunit (D) Causes premature chain termination
(C) For binding of 60 S subunit to 40 S subunit 366. Puromycin causes premature chain termination
(D) To prevent binding of 60 S subunit to 40 in
Ssubunit
(A) Prokaryotes (B) Eukaryotes
358. eIF-4 A possesses
(A) ATPase activity (B) GTPase activity
367. Diphtheria toxin inhibits
(C) Helicase activity (D) None of these
(A) Prokaryotic EF-1 (B) Prokaryotic EF-2
359. eIF-4 B
(C) Eukaryotic EF-1 (D) Eukaryotic EF-2
(A) Binds to 3’ chain initiation codon on mRNA
368. The proteins destined to be transported out of
(B) Binds to 3’ end of mRNA(C) Binds to 5’ end
the cell have all the following features except
of mRNA
(D) Unwinds mRNA near its 5’ end (A) They possess a signal sequence
(B) Ribosomes synthesizing them are bound
360. Peptidyl transferase activity is present in toendoplasmic reticulum
(A) 40 S ribosomal subunit (C) After synthesis, they are delivered into
(B) 60 S ribosomal subunit Golgiapparatus
(C) eEF-2 (D) They are tagged with ubiquitin
(D) Amino acyl tRNA
369. SRP receptors involved in protein export are
361. After formation of a peptide bond, mRNA is present on
translocated along the ribosome by (A) Ribosomes
(A) eEF-1 and GTP (B) Endoplasmic reticulum
(B) eEF-2 and GTP (C) Golgi appartus
(C) Peptidyl transferase and GTP (D) Cell membrane
(D) Peptidyl transferase and ATP
370. The signal sequence of proteins is cleaved off
362. Binding of formylmehtionyl tRNA to 30 S (A) On the ribosomes immediately after
ribosomal subunit of prokaryotes is inhibited by synthesis
(A) Streptomycin (B) Chloramphenicol (B) In the endoplasmic reticulum
(C) Erythromycin (D) Mitomycin (C) During processing in Golgi apparatus
(D) During passage through the cell membrane
363. Tetracyclines inhibit binding of amino acyltRNAs
to 371. The half-life of a protein depends upon its
(A) 30 S ribosomal subunits (A) Signal sequence
(B) 40 S ribosomal subunits(C) 50 S ribosomal (B) N-terminus amino acid
subunits (C) C-terminus amino acid
(D) 60 S ribosomal subunits (D) Prosthetic group
364. Peptidyl transferase activity of 50 S ribosomal 372. Besides structural genes that encode proteins,
subunits is inhibited by DNA contains some regulatory sequences which
(A) Rifampicin (B) Cycloheximide are known as
(C) Chloramphenicol (D) Erythromycin (A) Operons (B) Cistrons
365. Erythromycin binds to 50 S ribosomal subunit (C) Cis-acting elements (D) Trans-acting factors
and 373. Inducers and repressors are
(A) Enhancer and silencer elements respectively (A) Three structural genes
(B) Trans-acting factors (B) Three structural genes and their promoter
(C) Cis-acting elements (C) A regulatory gene, an operator and
(D) Regulatory proteins apromoter
(D) A regulatory gene, an operator, a
374. cis-acting elements include
promoterand three structural genes
(A) Steroid hormones (B) Calcitriol
382. The regulatory i gene of lac operon
(C) Histones (D) Silencers
(A) Is inhibited by lacotse
375. Silencer elements
(B) Is inhibited by its own product, the
(A) Are trans-acting factors repressorprotein
(B) Are present between promoters and (C) Forms a regulatory protein which
thestructural genes increasesthe expression of downstream
(C) Decrease the expression of some structural genes (D) Is constitutively
structuralgenes expressed
(D) Encode specific repressor proteins 383. RNA polymerase holoenzyme binds to lacoperon
376. trans-acting factors include at the following site:
(A) Promoters (B) Repressors (A) i gene (B) z gene
(C) Enhancers (D) Silencers (C) Operator locus (D) Promoter region
377. Enhancer elements have all the following 384. Trancription of z, y and a genes of lacoperon is
features except prevented by
(A) They increase gene expression through (A) Lactose (B) Allo-lactose
apromoter (C) Repressor (D) cAMP
(B) Each enhancer activates a specific promoter
385. Transcription of structural genes of lacoperon is
(C) They may be located far away from prevented by binding of the repressor tetramer
thepromoter to
(D) They may be upstream or downstream
(A) i gene (B) Operator locus
fromthe promoter
(C) Promoter (D) z gene
378. Amplification of dihydrofolate reductase gene
386. The enzymes encoded by z, y and a genesof lac
may be brought about by
operon are inducible, and their inducer is
(A) High concentrations of folic acid(B)
(A) Lactose
Deficiency of folic acid
(B) Allo-lactose
(C) Low concentration of thymidylate
(C) Catabolite gene activator protein
(D) Amethopterin
(D) All of these
379. Proteins which interact with DNA and affect the
387. Binding of RNA polymerase holoenzyme to the
rate of transcription possess the following
promoter region of lac operon is facilitated by
structural motif:
(A) Catabolite gene activator protein (CAP)
(A) Helix-turn-helix motif(B) Zinc finger motif
(B) cAMP
(C) Leucine zipper motif
(C) CAP-cAMP complex
(D) All of these
(D) None of these
380. Lac operon is a cluster of genes present in 388. Lactose or its analogues act as positiveregulators
(A) Human beings (B) E. coli of lac operon by
(C) Lambda phage (D) All of these (A) Attaching to i gene and preventing
381. Lac operon is a cluster of itsexpression
NUCLEIC ACIDS 237
(B) Increasing the synthesis of catabolite (A) uvr ABC excinuclease

geneactivator protein (B) DNA polymerase I
(C) Attaching to promoter region and (C) DNA ligase
facilitatingthe binding of RNA polymerase (D) All of these
holoenzyme
(D) Binding to repressor subunits so that 397. All the following statements about xeroderma
therepressor cannot attach to the operator pigmentosum are true except
locus (A) It is a genetic disease
389. Expression of structural genes of lac operon is (B) Its inheritance is autosomal dominant
affected by all the following except (C) uvr ABC excinuclease is defective in
thisdisease
(A) Lactose or its analogues
(D) It results in multiple skin cancers
(B) Repressor tetramer
(C) cAMP 398. Substitution of an adenine base by guanine in
(D) CAP-cAMP complex DNA is known as
(A) Transposition (B) Transition
390. The coding sequences in lac operon include
(C) Transversion (D) Frameshift mutation
(A) i gene
(B) i gene, operator locus and promoter 399. Substitution of a thymine base by adenine in
(C) z, y and a genes DNA is known as
(D) i, z, y and a genes ((A) Transposition (B) Transition
(C) Transversion (D) Frameshift mutation
391. Mutations can be caused by
(A) Ultraviolet radiation 400. A point mutation results from
(B) Ionising radiation(C) Alkylating agents (A) Substitution of a base
(D) All of these (B) Insertion of a base
(C) Deletion of a base
392. Mutations can be caused by
(D) All of these
(A) Nitrosamine(B) Dimethyl sulphate
(C) Acridine (D) All of these 401. Substitution of a base can result in a
(A) Silent mutation (B) Mis-sense mutation
393. Nitrosamine can deaminate
(C) Nonsense mutation(D) All of these
(A) Cytosine to form uracil
(B) Adenine to form xanthine 402. A silent mutation is most likely to result from
(C) Guanine to form hypoxanthine (A) Substitution of the first base of a codon
(D) All of these (B) Substitution of the third base of a codon
(C) Conversion of a nonsense codon into a
394. Exposure of DNA to ultraviolet radiation can lead
sensecodon
to the formation of
(D) Conversion of a sense codon into a
(A) Adenine dimers (B) Guanine dimers nonsensecodon
(C) Thymine dimers (D) Uracil dimers
403. The effect of a mis-sense mutation can be
395. Damage to DNA caused by ultraviolet radiation
(A) Acceptable (B) Partially acceptable
can be repaired by (A) uvr ABC excinuclease
(C) Unacceptable (D) All of these
(B) DNA polymerase I 404. Amino acid sequence of the encodedprotein is
(C) DNA ligase not changed in
(D) All of these
(A) Silent mutation
396. Xeroderma pigmentosum results from a defect (B) Acceptable mis-sense mutation
in (C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of these (C) Diptheria toxin (D) None of these

405. Haemoglobin S is an example of a/an 413. All of the following statements about puromycin
(A) Silent mutation are true except
(B) Acceptable mis-sense mutation (A) It is an alanyl tRNA analogue
(C) Unacceptable mis-sense mutation (B) It causes premature termination of
(D) Partially acceptable mis-sense mutation proteinsynthesis
(C) It inhibits protein synthesis in prokaryotes
406. If the codon UAC on mRNA changes intoUAG as a
(D) It inhibits protein synthesis in eukaryotes
result of a base substitution in DNA, it will result
in 414. Leucine zipper motif is seen in some
(A) Silent mutation helicalproteins when leucine residues appear at
every
(B) Acceptable mis-sense mutation
(C) Nonsense mutation (A) 3rd position (B) 5th position
(D) Frameshift mutation (C) 7th position (D) 9th position
407. Insertion of a base in a gene can cause 415. Zinc finger motif is formed in some proteins by
binding of zinc to
(A) Change in reading frame
(A) Two cysteine residues
(B) Garbled amino acid sequence in
theencoded protein (B) Two histidine residues
(C) Premature termination of translation (C) Two arginine residues
(D) All of these (D) Two cysteine and two histidine residues or
twopairs of two cysteine residues each
408. A frameshift mutation changes the reading
frame because the genetic code 416. Restriction endonucleases are present in
(A) Is degenerate (A) Viruses (B) Bacteria

(B) Is overlapping (C) Eukaryotes (D) All of these
(C) Has no punctuations 417. Restriction endonucleases split
(D) Is universal (A) RNA
409. Suppressor mutations occur in (B) Single stranded DNA
(A) Structural genes (B) Promoter regions (C) Double stranded DNA
(C) Silencer elements (D) Anticodons of tRNA (D) DNA-RNA hybrids
410. Suppressor tRNAs can neutralize the effects of 418. Restriction endonucleases can recognise
mutations in (A) Palindromic sequences
(A) Structural genes (B) Promoter regions (B) Chimeric DNA
(C) Enhancer elements(D) All of these (C) DNA-RNA hybrids
(D) Homopolymer sequences
411. Mutations in promoter regions of genescan
419. All of the following statements about restriction
cause
endonucleases are true except:
(A) Premature termination of translation
(A) They are present in bacteria
(B) Change in reading frame of
(B) They act on double stranded DNA
downstreamstructural gene
(C) They recognize palindromic sequences
(C) Decreased efficiency of transcription
(D) They always produce sticky ends
(D) All of these
420. Which of the following is a palindromic sequence
412. Mitochondrial protein synthesis is inhibitedby
(A) Cycloheximide (B) Chloramphenicol (A) 5′ − ATGCAG −3′
NUCLEIC ACIDS 237
(B) 3′ − TACGTC − 5′ 429. The first protein synthesized by recombinant

DNA technology was
(C) 5′ − CGAAGC − 3′
(A) Streptokinase
(D) 3′ − GCTTCG − 5′
(B) Human growth hormone
421. In sticky ends produced by (C) Tissue plasminogen activator
restrictionendonucleases
(D) Human insulin
(A) The 2 strands of DNA are joined to each
other 430. For production of eukaryotic protein by
recombinant DNA technology in bacteria, the
template used is
(B) The DNA strands stick to the
restrictionendonuclease (A) Eukaryotic gene (B) hnRNA
(C) The ends of a double stranded fragment (C) mRNA (D) All of these
areoverlapping
431. Monoclonal antibodies are prepared bycloning
(D) The ends of a double stranded fragment
arenon overlapping (A) Myeloma cells (B) Hybridoma cells
(C) T-Lymphocytes (D) B-Lymphocytes
422. All of the following may be used as expression
vectors except 432. Myeloma cells are lacking in
(A) Plasmid (B) Bacteriophage (A) TMP synthetase
(C) Baculovirus (D) E. coli (B) Formyl transferase
(C) HGPRT
423. A plasmid is a
(D) All of these
(A) Single stranded linear DNA
433. Hybridoma cells are selected by culturing them
(B) Single stranded circular DNA
in a medium containing
(C) Double stranded linear DNA
(D) Double stranded circular DNA (A) Adenine, guanine, cytosine and thymine(B)
Adenine, guanine, cytosine and uracil
424. Fragments of DNA can be identified by (C) Hypoxanthine, aminopterin and thymine
thetechnique of (D) Hypoxanthine, aminopterin and thymidine
(A) Western blotting (B) Eastern blotting
434. Myeloma cells and lymphocytes can befused by
(C) Northern blotting (D) Southern blotting
using
425. A particular RNA in a mixture can beidentified by (A) Calcium chloride (B) Ethidium bromide
(A) Western blotting (B) Eastern blotting (C) Polyethylene glycol (D) DNA polymerase
(C) Northern blotting (D) Southern blotting 435. Trials for gene therapy in human beingswere
first carried out, with considerable success, in a
426. A radioactive isotope labeled cDNA probeis used
genetic disease called
in
(A) Cystic fibrosis
(A) Southern blotting (B) Northern blotting
(B) Thalassemia
(C) Adenosine deaminase deficiency
427. An antibody probe is used in (D) Lesch-Nyhan syndrome
(A) Southern blotting (B) Northern blotting
436. Chimeric DNA
(C) Western blotting (D) None of these
(A) Is found in bacteriophages
428. A particular protein in a mixture can bedetected (B) Contains unrelated genes
by (C) Has no restriction sites
(A) Southern blotting (B) Northern blotting (D) Is palindromic
(C) Western blotting (D) None of these
437. Which of the following may be used as acloning (D) Alkali

vector?
446. Optimum temperature of DNA polymerase of T.
(A) Prokaryotic plasmid(B) Lambda phage (C) aquaticus is
Cosmid (D) All of these
(A) 30°C (B) 37°C
438. The plasmid pBR322 has (C) 54°C (D) 72°C
(A) Ampicillin resistance gene 447. In addition to Taq polymerase, polymerase chain
(B) Tetracycline resistance gene reaction requires all of the following except
(C) Both (A) and (B) (A) A template DNA
(D) None of these
(B) Deoxyribonucleoside triphosphates
439. Lambda phage can be used to clone DNA (C) Primers
fragments of the size (D) Primase
(A) Upto 3 kilobases (B) Upto 20 kilobases 448. DNA polymerase of T.aquaticus is preferred to
(C) Upto 45 kilobases (D) Upto 1,000 kilobases that of E. coli in PCR because
440. DNA fragments upto 45 kilobases in size can be (A) It replicates DNA more efficiently
cloned in (B) It doesn’t require primers
(A) Bacterial plasmids (C) It is not denatured at the melting
(B) Lambda phage temperatureof DNA
(C) Cosmids (D) It doesn’t cause errors in replication
(D) Yeast artificial chromosomes 449. Twenty cycles of PCR can amplify DNA:
441. A cosmid is a (A) 220 fold (B) 202 fold
(A) Large bacterial plasmid (C) 20 x 2 fold (D) 20 fold
(B) Viral plasmid 450. Transgenic animals may be prepared
(C) Hybrid of plasmid and phage byintroducing a foreign gene into
(D) Yeast plasmid (A) Somatic cells of young animals
442. Polymerase chain reaction can rapidly amplify (B) Testes and ovaries of animals
DNA sequences of the size (C) A viral vector and infecting the animals
(A) Upto 10 kilobases (B) Upto 45 kilobases withthe viral vector
(C) Upto 100 kilobases(D) Upto 1,000 kilobases (D) Fertilised egg and implanting the egg into
afoster mother
443. The DNA polymerase commonly used in 451. Yeast artificial chromosome can be usedto
polymerase chain reaction is obtained from amplify DNA sequences of the size
(A) E. coli (B) Yeast (C) T.aquaticus (D) (A) Upto 10 kb (B) Upto 45 kb
Eukaryotes
(C) Upto 100 kb (D) Upto 1,000 kb
444. Base sequence of DNA can be determinedby
452. DNA finger printing is based on the presence in
(A) Maxam-Gilbert method DNA of
(B) Sanger’s dideoxy method (A) Constant number of tandem repeats
(B) Varibale number of tandem repeats
(D) None of these (C) Non-repititive sequences in each DNA
445. From a DNA-RNA hybrid, DNA can be obtained (D) Introns in eukaryotic DNA
by addition of
453. All the following statements about restriction
(A) DNA B protein and ATP fragment length polymorphism are true except
(B) Helicase and ATP
(A) It results from mutations in restriction sites
(C) DNA topoisomerase I
NUCLEIC ACIDS 237
(B) Mutations in restriction sites can occur (C) Branched chain amino acid transaminase
incoding or non-coding regions of DNA (D) None of these
(C) It is inherited in Mendelian fashion
463. Which of the following is present as amarker in
(D) It can be used to diagnose any lysosomal enzymes to direct them to their
geneticdisease destination?
454. Inborn errors of urea cycle can cause all the (A) Glucose-6-phosphate
following except (B) Mannose-6-phosphate
(A) Vomiting (B) Ataxia (C) Galactose-6-phosphate
(C) Renal failure (D) Mental retardation (D) N-Acetyl neuraminic acid
455. Hyperammonaemia type I results from 464. Marfan’s syndrome results from amutation in
congenital absence of the gene coding:
(A) Glutamate dehydrogenase (A) Collagen (B) Elastin
(B) Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase (C) Fibrillin (D) Keratin
(C) Ornithine transcarbamoylase
465. All the following statements about fibronectin
(D) None of these are true except
456. Congenital deficiency of ornithine (A) It is glycoprotein
transcarbamoylase causes (B) It is a triple helix
(A) Hyperammonaemia type I (C) It is present in extra cellular matrix
(B) Hyperammonaemia type II (D) It binds with integrin receptors of cell
(C) Hyperornithinaemia
466. Fibronectin has binding sites for all of the
(D) Citrullinaemia
following except
457. A ketogenic amino acid among the following is (A) Glycophorin (B) Collagen
(A) Leucine (B) Serine (C) Heparin (D) Integrin receptor
(C) Threonine (D) Proline
467. Fibronectin is involved in
458. Carbon skeleton of the following aminoacid can (A) Cell adhension (B) Cell movement
serve as a substance for gluconeogenesis
(A) Cysteine (B) Aspartate 468. Glycoproteins are marked for destruction by
(C) Glutamate (D) All of these removal of their
459. N-Formiminoglutamate is a metabolite of (A) Oligosaccharide prosthetic group
(A) Glutamate (B) Histidine (B) Sialic acid residues
(C) Tryptophan (D) Methionine (C) Mannose residues
(D) N-terminal amino acids
460. Methylmalonyl CoA is a metabolite of
(A) Valine (B) Leucine 469. Glycophorin is present in cell membranes of
(C) Isoleucine (D) All of these (A) Erythrocytes (B) Platelets
(C) Neutrophils (D) Liver
461. Homogentisic acid is formed from
(A) Homoserine(B) Homocysteine 470. Selectins are proteins that can recognisespecific
(C) Tyrosine (D) Tryptophan (A) Carbohydrates (B) Lipids
(C) Amino acids (D) Nucleotides
462. Maple syrup urine disease results from absence
or serve deficiency of 471. Hunter’s syndrome results from absence of
(A) Homogentisate oxidase (A) Hexosaminidase A
(B) Phenylalanine hydroxylase (B) Iduronate sulphatase
(C) Neuraminidase (C) Insertion of a viral promoter upstream of

(D) Arylsulphatase B thegene
(D) Gene amplification
472. A cancer cell is characterized by
(A) Uncontrolled cell division 479. Ras proto-oncogene encodes
(B) Invasion of neighbouring cells (A) Epidermal growth factor (EGF)
(C) Spread to distant sites (B) Receptor for EGF
(D) All of these (C) Signal transducer for EGF(D) Nuclear
transcription factor
473. If DNA of a cancer cell is introduced into anormal
cell, the recipient cell 480. P 53 gene:
(A) Destroys the DNA (A) A proto-oncogene
(B) Loses its ability to divide (B) An oncogene
(C) Dies (C) A tumour suppressor gene
(D) Changes into a cancer cell (D) None of these
474. A normal cell can be transformed into acancer 481. Retinoblastoma can result from a mutation in
cell by all of the following except (A) ras proto-oncogene
(A) Ionising radiation (B) erbB proto-oncogene
(B) Mutagenic chemicals (C) p 53 gene
(C) Oncogenic bacteria (D) RB 1 gene
(D) Some viruses
482 All the following statements about retino blastoma
475. Proto-oncogens are present in are true except
(A) Oncoviruses (A) At least two mutations are required for
(B) Cancer cells itsdevelopment
(C) Healthy human cells (B) One mutation can be inherited from a
(D) Prokaryotes parent
476. All the following statements about (C) Children who have inherited one
protooncogenes are true except mutationdevelop retinoblastoma at a
younger age
(A) They are present in human beings
(D) RB 1 gene promotes the development
(B) They are present in healthy cells
ofretinoblastoma
(C) Proteins encoded by them are essential
(D) They are expressed only when a healthy 483. Ames assay is a rapid method for detection of
cellhas been transformed into a cancer cell (A) Oncoviruses
477. Various oncogens may encode all of thefollowing (B) Retroviuses
except: (C) Chemical carcinogens
(D) Typhoid
(A) Carcinogens
(B) Growth factors 484. Amplification of dihydrofolate reductase gene in
(C) Receptors for growth factors a cancer cell makes the cell
(D) Signal transducers for growth factors (A) Susceptible to folic acid deficiency(B) Less
478. Ras proto-oncogene is converted into oncogene malignant
by (C) Resistant to amethopterin therapy
(A) A point mutation (D) Responsive to amethopterin therapy
(B) Chromosomal translocation 485. Conversion of a procarcinogen into a carcinogen
often requires
NUCLEIC ACIDS 237
(A) Proteolysis 492. A prokaryotic ribosome is made up of________

(B) Microsomal hydroxylation sub units.
(C) Exposure to ultraviolet radiation (A) 20 S and 50S (B) 30S and 50S
(D) Exposure to X-rays (C) 30S and 60S (D) 20S and 50S
486. The only correct statement about oncoviruses is 493. AN Eukaryotic ribosome is made up of________
(A) All the oncoviruses are RNA viruses sub unit.
(B) Reverse transcriptase is present in (A) 40S and 60S (B) 40S and 50S
alloncoviruses (C) 40S and 80S (D) 60S and 80S
(C) Viral oncogenes are identical to 494. GTP is not required for
humanprotooncogens
(A) Capping L of mRNA
(D) Both DNA and RNA viruses can
beoncoviruses (B) Fusion of 40S and 60S of ribosome
(C) Accommodation of tRNA amino acid
487. RB 1 gene is (D) Formation of tRNA amino acid complex
(A) A tumour suppressor gene
495. The antibiotic which inhibits DNA dependent
(B) Oncogene
RNA polymerase is
(C) Proto-oncogene
(A) Mitomycin C (B) Actinomycin d (C)
(D) Activated proto-oncogene
Streptomycin (D) Puromycin
488. Cancer cells may become resistant to
496. The antibiotic which cleaves DNA is
amethopterin by
(A) Actinomycin d (B) Streptomycin
(A) Developing mechanisms to destroy
(C) Puromycin (D) Mitomycin C
amethopterin
497. The antibiotic which has a structure similarto the
(B) Amplification of dihydrofolate reducatse
amino acyl end of tRNA tyrosine is
gene
(C) Mutation in the dihydrofolate reductase (A) Actinomycin d (B) Streptomycin
geneso that the enzyme is no longer (C) Puromycin (D) Mitomycin c
inhibited by amethopterin 498. ATP is required for
(D) Developing alternate pathway of
(A) Fusion of 40S and 60S of ribosome
thymidylatesynthesis
(B) Accommodation tRNA amino acid in a site
489. The major source of NH3 produced by the kidney ofribosome
is (C) Movement of ribosome along mRNA
(A) Leucine (B) Glycine (D) formation of tRNA amino acid complex
(C) Alanine (D) Glutamine 499. What is the subcellular site for the biosynthesis
490. Which of these methyl donors is not a of proteins?
quanternary ammonium compound? (A) Chromosomes (B) Lymosomes
(A) Methionine (B) Choline (C) Ribosomes (D) Centrosomes
(C) Betain (D) Betainaldehyde 500. An animal is in negative nitrogen balancewhen
491. L-glutamic acid is subjected to oxidative (A) Intake exceeds output
deaminition by (B) New tissue is being synthesized
(A) L-amino acid dehydrogenase (C) Output exceeds intake
(B) L-glutamate dehydrogenase (D) Intake is equal to output
(C) Glutaminase
501. When NH3 is perfused through a dog’s liver
(D) Glutamine synthetase ______ is formed, while ______ is formed in the
birds liver.
(A) Urea, Uric acid (B) Urea, allantoin (C) yeast RNA (D) tRNA
(C) Uric acid, creatinine
511. From DNA the genetic message is transcribed
(D) Uric acid, Urea into this compound:
502. Aspartate amino transferase uses the following (A) Protein (B) mRNA
for transamination: (C) tRNA (D) rRNA
(A) Glutamic acid and pyruvic acid
512. This compound has a double helical structure.
(B) Glutamic acid and oxaloacetic acid
(C) Aspartic acid and pyruvic acid (A) Deoxyribonucleic acid
(D) aspartic acid and keto adipic acid (B) RNA
(C) Flavine-adevine dinucleotide
503. Which among the following compounds is not a
protein? (D) Nicotinamide adamine dinucleotide
(A) Insulin (B) Hheparin 513. The structural stability of the double helix of
(C) Mucin (D) Pepsin DNA is as cribbed largely to
(A) Hydrogen bonding between adjacent
504. Almost all the urea is formed in this tissue:
purinebases
(A) Kidney (B) Urethra
(B) Hydrophobic bonding between staked
(C) Uterus (D) Liver purineand pyrinuidine nuclei
505. A polyribosome will have about (C) Hydrogen bonding between
_______individual ribosomes. adjacentpyrimidine bases
(A) 20 (B) 10 (E) Hydrogen bonding between purine and
(C) 5 (D) 2 pyrimidine bases
506. Progressive transmethylation of ethanolamine 514. Which of the following statements about nucleic
gives acid is most correct?
(A) Creatinine(B) Choline (A) Both pentose nucleic acid and
(C) Methionine deoxypentosenucleic acid contain the same
(D) N-methyl nicotinamide pyrimidines
(B) Both pentose nucleic acid and
507. Genetic information originates from
deoxypentosenucleic acid and deoxypentose
(A) Cistron of DNA nucleic acid Contain the same purines
(B) Codons of mRNA (C) RNA contains cytosine and thymine
(C) Anticodons of tRNA (D) DNA and RNA are hydrolysed by weak alkali
(D) Histones of nucleoproteins
515. Acid hydrolysis of ribonucleic acid would yield
508. The genetic code operates through the following major products:
(A) The protein moiety of DNA (A) d- deoxyribose, cytosine, adenine(B) d-
(B) Cistrom of DNA ribose, thymine, Guanine
(C) Nucleotide sequence of m RNA (C) d-ribose, cytosine, uracil, thymine
(D) The anticodons of tRNA (D) d-ribose, uracil, adenine, guanine, cytosine
509. DNA synthesis in laboratory was first achieved by 516. RNA does not contain
(A) Watson and crick (B) Khorana (A) adenine (B) OH methyl cytosine
(C) A.Kornberg (D) Ochoa (C) d-ribose (D) Uracil
510. Among the different types of RNA, which one has 517. Which of the following statements is correct?
the highest M.W.? (A) a nucleo protein usually contain deoxy
(A) mRNA (B) rRNA sugarsof the hexose type
NUCLEIC ACIDS 237
(B) Nucleoproteins are usually absent from (C) Protein through mRNA
thecytoplasm (D) mRNA from pre mRNA
(C) Nucleoproteins usually are present in
525. Sigma and Rho factors are required for
thenucleus only
(D) Nucleoproteins usually occur in the (A) Replication (B) Transcription
nucleusand cytoplasm (C) Translation (D) Polymerisation
518. Whcih of the following compound is present in 526. The genine of φ×174 bacteriophage is interesting
RNA but absent from DNA? in that if contains
(A) Thymine (B) Cytosine (A) No DNA
(C) Uracil (D) Guanine (B) DNA with uracil
519. Nucleic acids can be detected by means of their (C) Single stranded DNA
absorption maxima near 260 nm. Their (D) Triple standard DNA
absorption in this range is due to 527. Okasaki fragments are small bits of
(A) Proteins (A) RNA
(B) Purines and pyrimidines (B) DNA
(C) Ribose (C) DNA with RNA heads(D) RNA with DNA
(D) Deoxyribose heads 528. In addition to the DNA of
520. Which of the following contains a deoxy sugar? nucleus there DNA is
(A) RNA (B) DNA (A) Mitochondrian
(C) ATP (D) UTP (B) Endoplasmic reticulum
521. DNA is (C) Golgi apparatus
(A) Usually present in tissues as a nucleo (D) Plasma membrane
proteinand cannot be separated from its 529. The mitochondrial DNA is
protein
(A) Like the nuclear DNA in structure
component
(B) Single stranded, linear
(B) A long chain polymer in which
theinternucleotide linkages are of the (C) Double stranded, circular
diester type between C-3’ and C-5’ (D) Single stranded, circular
(C) Different from RNA since in the latter 530. A synthetic RNA having the sequence ofUUUUUU
theinternucleotide linkages are between C- (Poly U) will give a protein having poly ______.
2’ and C-5’
(A) Alamine (B) Phenyl alanine
(D) Hydrolyzed by weal alkali (pH9 to 100°C)
(C) Glycine (D) Methionine
522. Nobody is the name given to 531. Lac operon of E. coli contains _______ is
(A) Ribosome (B) Microsome continuity.
(C) Centrosome (D) Nucleosome (A) Regulator and operator genes only
523. Transcription is the formation of (B) Operator and structural genes only
(A) DNA from a parent DNA (C) Regular and structural genes only
(B) mRNA from a parent mRNA (D) Regulator, operator and structural genes
(C) pre mRNA from DNA 532. A mRNA of eukaryotes can code for
(D) protein through mRNA (A) Only one polypeptide
524. Translation is the formation of (B) Two polypeptides
(A) DNA from DNA (C) Three polypeptides
(B) mRNA from DNA (D) Five polypeptides
533. mRNA of prokaryotes can code for (B) The base sequences of DNA
(A) More than one polypeptide (C) The nucleotide sequence of mRNA
(B) Only one polypeptide (D) The base sequence of tRNA
(C) Many exons and introns 544. Urine bases with methyl substituents occurring
(D) Introns only in plants are
534. DNA directed RNA polymerase is (A) Caffeine (B) Theophylline
(A) Replicase (C) Theobromine (D) All of these
(B) Transcriptase 545. Genetic information in human beings is stored in
(C) Reverse transcriptase
(A) DNA (B) RNA
(D) Polymerase III (C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of these
535. RNA directed DNA polymerase is 546. All following are naturally occurring nucleotides
(A) Replicase except
(B) Transcriptase (A) Cyclic AMP
(C) Reversetranscriptase (B) ATP
(D) Polymerase–III (C) DNA
Q536. RNA synthesis requires (D) Inosine monophosphate
(A) RNA primer (B) RNA template 547. If the amino group and a carboxylic group of the
(C) DNA template (D) DNA primer amino acid are attached to same carbon atom,
the amino acid is called as
537. The mRNA ready for protein synthesis hasthe
________ cap. (A) Alpha (B) Beta
(C) Gamma (D) Epsilon
(A) ATP(B) CTP
(C) GTP (D) UTP 548. If in a nucleic acid there are more than
8000 nucleotides it is most likely
538. mRNA ready for protein synthesis has the poly
_______ toil. (A) RNA (B) DNA
(A) G (B) A
(C) U (D) C 549. Genetic information in human beings is stored in
539. The codon for phenyl Alanine is (A) RNA (B) DNA
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) mRNA
(A) AAA (B) CCC
(C) GGG (D) UUU 550. In RNA, apart from ribose and phosphate,all
following are present except
540. Blue print for genetic information residuesin
(A) Adenine (B) Guanine
(A) mRNA (B) tRNA
(C) Thymine (D) Cytosine
(C) rRNA (D) DNA
551. Which of the following gives a positive Ninhydrin
541. Genes are
test?
(A) RNA (B) DNA (A) Reducing sugar (B) Triglycerides
(C) lipoproteins and (D) Chromoproteins
(C) α-amino acids (D) Phospholipids
542. Codons are in
552. A Gene is
(A) DNA (B) mRNA
(A) A single protein molecule
(C) tRNA (D) rRNA
(B) A group of chromosomes
543. The genetic code operates via (C) An instruction for making a protein molecule
(A) The protein moiety of DNA (D) A bit of DNA molecule
NUCLEIC ACIDS 237
553. In DNA, genetic information is located in 563. Using written convertion which one of
(A) Purine bases thefollowing sequences is complimentary to
TGGCAGCCT?
(B) Pyrimidine bases
(C) Purine and pyrimidine bases (A) ACC GTC GGA (B) ACC GUC GGA
(D) sugar (C) AGG CTG CCA (D) TGG CTC GGA
554. Which one of the following is not a constituent of 564. Ribosomes similar to those of bacterial found in
RNA? (A) Plant nucei
(A) Deoxyribose (B) Uracil (B) Cardiac muscle cytoplasm
(C) Adenine (D) Thymine (C) Liver endoplasmic reticulum
(D) Neuronal cytoplasm
555. Which of the following are nucleo proteins?
565 The mechanism of synthesis of DNA and RNA are
(A) Protamines
similar in all the following ways except
(B) Histones
(C) Deoxy and Ribo nucleo proteins (A) They involve release of pyrophosphate
fromeach nucleotide added
(D) All of these
(B) They require activated nucleotide
556. The total RNA in cell tRNA constitutes precursorand Mg2+
(A) 1–10% (B) 10–20% (C) The direction of synthesis is 5’ → 3’
(C) 30–50% (D) 50–80% (D) They require a primer
557. Unit of genetic information: 566. Template-directed DNA synthesis occurs inall the
(A) DNA (B) RNA following except
(C) Cistron (D) None of these (A) The replication fork
(B) Polymerase chain reaction
558. Anticodon sequence are seen in
(C) Growth of RNA tumor viruses
(A) tRNA and transcribed DNA strand
(D) Expression of oneogenes
(B) tRNA and complementary DNA strand
(C) mRNA 567. Which one of the following statements correctly
describes eukaryotic DNA?
(D) mRNA and complementary DNA strand
(A) They involve release of pyrophosphate
559. cAMD is destroyed by fromeach nucleotide precussor and Mg2+
(A) Adenylate cyclase (B) The direction of synthesis is
(B) Phosphodiesterase
(C) They require a primer 5’→ 3’
(C) Synthetase phosphatase
(D) None of these
(D) Synthetase kinase
568. Which one of the following causes frameshift
560. Restriction enzymes have been found in
mutation?
(A) Humans (B) Birds
(A) Transition
(C) Bacteria (D) Bacteriophase
(B) Transversion
561. Sulphur is not present in (C) Deletion
(A) Thiamine (B) Lipic acid (D) Substitution of purine to pyrimidine
(C) Thymine (D) Biotin 569. Catabolism of thymidylate gives
562. Which one of the following binds to specific (A) α-alanine (B) β-alanine
nucleotide sequences?
(C) α-aminoisobutyrate
(A) RNA polymerase (B) Repressor
(D) β-aminoisobutyrate
(C) Inducer (D) Restriction
570. Glycine gives __________ atoms of purine.
(A) C2, C3 (B) C4, C5 and N7 (C) NH3, Asparate and Glutamate
(C) C4, C5 and N9 (D) C4, C6 and N7 (D) Aspartate, Glutamine and Glycine
580. A drug which prevents uric acid synthesisby
571. A common substrate of HGPRTase, APRTaseand inhibiting the enzyme Xanthine oxidase is
PRPP glutamyl amidotransferase is
(A) Aspirin (B) Allopurinal
(A) Ribose 5 phosphate
(C) Colchicine (D) Phenyl benzoate
(B) Phosphoribosyl pyrophosphate
(C) Hypoxanthine 581. Glycine contributes to the following C and N of
(D) Adenosine purine nucleus:
(A) C1, C2 and N7 (B) C8, C8 and N9
572. Carbon 6-of purine skeleton comes from
(C) C4, C5 and N7 (D) C4, C5 and N9
(A) Atmospheric CO2
(B) 1 carbon carried by folate 582. Insoinic acid is the biological precursor of
(C) Betoine (A) Cytosine and Uric acid
(D) Methionine (B) Adenylve acid and Glucine floc acid
573. Uric acid is the catabolic end product of (C) Orotic acid and Uridylic acid
(A) Porphyrine (B) Purines (D) Adenosine acid Thymidine
(C) Pyrimidines (D) Pyridoxine 583. The probable metabolic defect in gents is
574. Diphenylamine method is employed in (A) A defect in excretion of uric acid by kidney
thequantitation of (B) An overproduction of pyrimidines
(A) Nucleic acid (B) RNA (C) DNA (D) Proteins (C) An overproduction of uric acid
(D) Rise in calcium leading to deposition of
575. Orcinol method is employed in the quantitation calciumurate
of
(A) Nucleic acid (B) DNA (C) RNA (D) Proteins 584. In humans, the principal break downproduct of
purines is
576. Nucleic acid show strong absorption at one of
(A) NH3 (B) Allantin
the wavelength:
(C) Alanine (D) Uric acid
(A) 280 nm (B) 220 nm
(C) 360 nm (D) 260 nm 585. A key substance in the committed step
ofpyrimidines biosynthesis is
577. tRNA has
(A) Ribose-5-phosphate
(A) Clover leaf structure (B) Carbamoyl phosphate
(B) anticodon arm (C) ATP
(C) poly ‘A’ tay 3’ (D) Glutamine
(D) Cap at 5’ end
586. In humans, the principal metabolic product of
578. Which one of the following contributes nitrogen pyrimidines is
atoms to both purine and pyrimidine rings?
(A) Uric acid (B) Allantoin
(A) Aspartate
(C) Hypoxanthine (D) β-alanine
(B) Carbanoyl phosphate
(C) Carbondioxide 587. In most mammals, except primates, uricacid is
metabolized by
(D) Tetrahydrofolate
(A) Oxidation to allantoin(B) Reduction to NH3
579. The four nitrogen atoms of purines are derived
(C) Hydrolysis to allantoin
from
(D) Hydrolysis to NH3
(A) Urea and NH3
(B) NH3, Glycine and Glutamate
NUCLEIC ACIDS 237
588. Two nitrogen of the pyrimidines ring areobtained 595. Nonsense codons bring about
from (A) Amino acid activation
(A) Glutamine and Carbamoyl-p (B) Initiation of protein synthesis
(B) Asparate and Carbamoyl-p (C) Termination of protein synthesis
(C) Glutamate and NH3 (D) Elongation of polypeptide chains
(D) Glutamine and NH3
596. Which of the following genes of the E.coli “Lac
589. All are true about lesch-nyhan syndrome except operon” codes for a constitutive protein?
(A) Produces self-mutilation (A) The ‘a’ gene (B) The ‘i’ gene
(B) Genetic deficiency of the enzyme (C) The ‘c’ gene (D) The ‘z’ gene
(C) Elevated levels of uric acid in blood 597. In the process of transcription, the flowof genetic
(D) Inheritance is autosomal recessive information is from
590. Synthesis of GMP and IMP requires the (A) DNA to DNA (B) DNA to protein
following: (C) RNA to protein (D) DNA to RNA
(A) NH3 NAD+, ATP
598. The anticodon region is an important part of the
(B) Glutamine, NAD+, ATP structure of
(C) NH3, GTP, NADP+
(A) rRNA (B) tRNA
(D) Glutamine, GTP, NADP+
(C) mRNA (D) hrRNA
591. Which pathway is correct for catabolismof
599. The region of the Lac operon which must be free
purines to form uric acid?
from structural gene transcription to occur is
(A) Guanylate→Adenylate→Xanthine→hypoxan (A) The operator locus
thine→Uric acid (B) The promoter site
(B) Guanylate→inosinate→Xanthine→hypoxant (C) The ‘a’ gene
hine→Uric acid (D) The ‘i’ gene
(C) Adenylate→Inosinate→Xanthine
600. Another name for reverse transcriptase is
hypoxanthine→Uric acid
(A) DNA dependent DNA polymerase(B) DNA
(D) Adenylate→Inosinate→hypoxanthine
dependent RNA polymerase (C) RNA
Xanthine→Uric acid dependent DNA polymerase
592. Polysemes do not contain (D) RNA dependent RNA polymerase
(A) Protein (B) DNA 601. In the ’lac operon’ concept, which of
(C) mRNA (D) rRNA thefollowing is a protein?
593. The formation of a peptide bond during the (A) Operator (B) Repressor
elongation step of protein synthesis results in the (C) Inducer (D) Vector
splitting of how many high energy bonds?
602. Degeneracy of the genetic code denotes the
(A) 1 (B) 2
existence of
(C) 3 (D) 4
(A) Base triplets that do not code for any
594. Translocase is an enzyme required in theprocess aminoacids
of
(B) Codons consisting of only two bases
(A) DNA replication (C) Codons that include one or more of
(B) RNA synthesis theunusual bases
(C) Initiation of protein synthesis (D) Multiple codons for a single amino acid
(D) Elongation of peptides
603. The normal function of restriction endonucleases (B) ATP synthesis

is to (C) DNA synthesis
(A) Excise introns from hrRNA (D) mRNA synthesis
(B) Polymerize nucleotides to form RNA 612. How many high-energy phosphate bond
(C) Remove primer from okazaki fragments equivalents are required for amino acid
(D) Protect bacteria from foreign DNA activation in protein synthesis?
(A) One (B) Two
604. In contrast to Eukaryotic mRNA, prokaryotic
mRNA is characterized by (C) Three (D) Four
(A) Having 7-methyl guanosine triphosphate 613. Translation results in the formation of
atthe 5’ end (A) mRNA (B) tRNA
(B) Being polycystronic (C) rRNA (D) A protein molecule
(C) Being only monocystronic
614. Elongation of a peptide chain involves all the
(D) Being synthesized with introns following except
605. DNA ligase of E. coli requires which of the (A) mRNA (B) GTP
following co-factors? (C) Formyl-Met-tRNA (D) Tu, TS and G factors
(A) FAD (B) NAD+
615. The ‘rho’ (ρ) factor is involved
(C) NADP+ (D) NADH
(A) To increase the rate of RNA synthesis
606. Which of the following is transcribedduring (B) In binding catabolite repressor to the
repression? promoterregion
(A) Structural gene (B) Promoter gene (C) In proper termination of transcription
(C) Regulator gene (D) Operator gene (D) To allow proper initiation of transcriptide
607. mRNA is complementary copy of 616. In the biosynthesis of c-DNA, the joiningenzyme
ligase requires
(A) 5′-3′ strand of DNA+
(A) GTP(B) ATP
(B) 3′-5′ strand of DNA (C) CTP (D) UTP
(C) Antisense strand of DNA
617. Which one of the following binds to specific
(D) tRNA
nucleotide sequences that are upstream and
608. Synthesis of RNA molecule is terminated by a most distant from the start site?
signal which is recognised by (A) RNA polymerase (B) Repressor
(A) α-factor (B) β-factor (C) Inducer (D) Restriction
(C) δ-factor (D) ρ 618. Using written convention which one of
609. The binding of prokaryotic DNA dependent RNA thefollowing sequences is complimentary to
polymerase to promoter sits of genes is inhibited TGGCAGCCT?
by the antibiotic: (A) ACCGTCGGA (B) ACCGUCGGA
(A) Streptomycin (B) Rifamcin (C) AGGCTGCCA (D) TGGCTCGGA
(C) Aueromycin (D) Puromycin 619. Ribosomes similar to those of bacteria found in
610. In E. coli the chain initiating amino acid inprotein (A) Plant nuclei
synthesis is (B) Cardiac muscle cytoplasm
(A) N-formyl methionine(B) Methionine (C) Liver endoplasmic reticulum
(C) Serine (D) Cysteine (D) Neuronal cytoplasm
611. Amanitin the mushroom poison inhibits
(A) Glycoprotein synthesis
NUCLEIC ACIDS 237
620. The mechanism of synthesis of DNA andRNA are 109. D 110. C 111. D
similar to all the following ways except 112. A 113. B 114. A
(A) They involve release of pyrophosphate 115. B 116. A 117. D 118. A 119. A 120.
fromeach nucleotide added C 121. A 122. D 123. B 124. C 125. A 126.
(B) They require activated nucleotide A
precursorand Mg2+ 127. D 128. C 129. A 130. A 131. B 132.
(C) The direction of synthesis is B 133. D 134. A 135. A 136. D 137. B 138.
(D) They require a primer B 139. A 140. D 141. B 142. D 143. C 144.
621. Template-directed DNA synthesis occurs inall the B 145. D 146. B 147. B 148. B 149. D 150.
following except D
(A) The replication fork 151. D 152. A 153. C
154. A 155. B 156. C
(B) Polymerase chain reaction
157. B 158. A 159. A 160. A 161. C 162. C 163. C
(C) Growth of RNA tumor viruses
164. C 165. D 166. C 167. A 168. C 169. C 170. D
(D) Expression of oncogenes
171. B 172. B 173. C 174. D
ANSWERS 175. D 176. A 177. B 178. D 179. D 180.
1. B 2. B 3. A 4. C 5. A 6. C 7. B 8. D 9. C 10. D C 181. B 182. B 183. C 184. B 185. A 186.
11. A 12. A D
13. A 14. D 15. B 187. B 188. C 189. D 190. A 191. B 192. C 193. A
16. A 17. C 18. C 194. D 195. D 196. A 197. D 198. C 199. A 200. C
19. A 20. A 21. B 201. D 202. C 203. B 204. D 205. C 206. D 207. B
22. C 23. C 24. D 208. C 209. C 210. D 211. B 212. C 213. D 214. C
25. C 26. A 27. C 215. B 216. B 217. D 218. B 219. D 220. A 221. A
28. B 29. C 30. A 222. D 223. A 224. C 225. A 226. B 227. C 228. C
31. D 32. A 33. B 229. D 230. B 231. C 232. A 233. C 234. A 235. B
34. A 35. A 36. C 236. A 237. C 238. C 239. D 240. D
37. C 38. A 39. B 241. B 242. C 243. D 244. C 245. C 246.
40. D 41. C 42. C B 247. A 248. C 249. A 250. D 251. A 252.
43. B 44. C 45. D C 253. D 254. D 255. C 256. C 257. C 258. D 259. D
46. B 47. A 48. C 260. A 261. B 262. B 263. A 264. A 265. C 266. D
49. B 50. A 51. D 267. B 268. C 269. B 270. D 271. C 272. B 273. A
52. B 53. B 54. D
274. C 275. A 276. C 277. A 278. B 279. C 280. C
55. D 56. A 57. D
281. D 282. D 283. C 284. D 285. C 286. B 287. A
58. A 59. A 60. D
288. A 289. D 290. B 291. B 292. C 293. B 294. A
61. B 62. C 63. A
64. A 65. A 66. A 295. C 296. A 297. D
67. A 68. A 69. B 298. C 299. C 300. D
70. A 71. A 72. A 301. B 302. C 303. B 304. A 305. C 306. D 307. D
73. C 74. B 75. C 308. B 309. B 310. C 311. A 312. C 313. A 314. B
76. A 77. C 78. D 315. B 316. A 317. A 318. D 319. D 320. A 321. C
322. C 323. C 324. C 325. A 326. D 327. A 328. B
79. B 80. A 81. C
329. C 330. D 331. C 332. B 333. A 334. D 335. D
82. A 83. A 84. A
336. C 337. A 338. C 339. C 340. C 341. C 342. D
85. A 86. D 87. A
343. A 344. A 345. B
88. B 89. A 90. C
346. D 347. C 348. B
91. B 92. B 93. A 94. A 95. A 96. A 97. B 98. B
349. B 350. D 351. A
99. D 100. A 101. B 102. A 103. B 104. B 105. A
352. B 353. D 354. C
106. B 107. C 108. A
355. A 356. B 357. D 571. B 572. A 573. A 574. C 575. C 576.

358. A 359. D 360. B D 577. A 578. A 579. D 580. B 581. C 582.
361. B 362. A 363. A B 583. C 584. D 585. B 586. D 587. A 588.
364. C 365. C 366. C B
367. D 368. D 369. B
589. B 590. B 591. D
370. B 371. B 372. C
592. B 593. B 594. D
373. B 374. D 375. C
595. C 596. B 597. D 598. B 599. A 600.
376. B 377. B 378. D
C 601. B 602. B 603. D 604. A 605. B 606.
379. D 380. B 381. D
382. D 383. D 384. C C 607. B 608. D 609. B 610. A 611. D 612.
385. B 386. B 387. C B 613. D 614. C 615. C 616. B 617. A 618.
388. D 389. C 390. D A
391. C 392. D 393. A 619. A 620. D 621. C
394. C 395. D 396. A
397. B 398. B 399. C 400. A 401. D 402. B 403. D
404. A 405. D 406. C 407. D 408. C
409. D 410. A 411. C
412. B 413. A 414. C
415. D 416. B 417. C 418. A 419. D 420. C 421. C
422. D 423. D 424. D 425. C 426. C 427. C 428. C
429. D 430. C 431. B 432. C
433. D 434. C 435. C 436. B 437. D 438. C 439. B
440. C 441. C 442. A 443. C 444. C 445. D 446. D
447. D 448. C 449. A 450. D 451. D 452. B 453. D
454. D 455. B 456. C 457. A 458. D 459. B 460. A
461. C 462. D 463. C 464. B 465. A 466. C 467. B
468. D 469. A 470. A 471. B 472. D 473. D 474. C
475. C 476. D 477.A 478. A 479. C 480. C 481. D
482. D 483. C 484. C 485. B 486. D 487. A 488. B
489. D 490. A 491. B 492. B 493. A 494. D 495. B
496. D 497. C 498. D 499. C 500. C 501. A 502. B
503. D 504. D 505. C 506. C 507. A 508. C 509. C
510. B 511. B 512. A 513. D 514. B 515.
D 516. B 517. D 518. C 519. B 520.
B 521. B 522. C 523. C 524. B 525.
C 526. C 527. C 528. A 529. C 530.
B 531. D 532. A 533. A 534. B
535. C 536. C 537. C
538. B 539. D 540. D
541. B 542. B 543. C
544. D 545. A 546. C
547. A 548. B 549. B
550. C 551. C 552. D
553. C 554. A 555. D
556. B 557. C 558. A
559. B 560. C 561. C
562. A 563. A 564. A
565. A 566. C 567. C
568. C 569. D 570. B
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intentionally left
blank
CHAPTER 10
WATER & ELECTROLYTE BALANCE
1. The total body water in (C) 45 (D) 55

various subjects is relatively
6. The total body water in
constant when expressed
ml/kg bodyweight in
as percentage of the lean
average normal young
body mass and is about
adult male is about
(A). 30% (B)
(A) 200 (B) 400
40% (C) 50%
(D) 70% (C) 600 (D) 1000
7. The fluid present in bones
2.. The percentage of water which can notbe
contained in the body of an exchanged readily
individual is less because of because of relative
(A) High fat content (B) Low avascularity is about
fat content (A) 20 ml/kg(B) 25
(C) High protein content(D) ml/kg
Low protein content
(C) 45 ml/kg (D) 60 ml/kg
3. In intracellular
8. Water derived in gm from
compartment the
completeoxidation of
fluidpresent in ml/kg
each gm of carbohydrate
body weight is about
is about
(A) 100 (B) 200
(A) 0.15 (B) 0.25
(C) 200 (D) 330
(C) 0.35 (D) 0.55
4. In extra cellular
compartment, the 9. The oxidation of 100 gm
fluidpresent in ml/kg of of fat yields
body weight is about (A) 50 gm water
(A) 120 (B) 220 (B) 107 gm water
(C) 270 (D) 330 (C) 150 gm water (D) 200
gm water
5. Fluid present in dense
connective tissueand 10. Each gm of protein on
cartilage in ml/kg body complete oxidationyields
weight is about (A) 0.21 gm water
(A) 10 (B) 20 (B) 0.31 gm water
(C) 0.41 gm water (D) 0.51 (A) Enhance
gm water facultative reabsorption of
water
11. The daily total body
(B) Decreases
water derived
reabsorption of water
fromoxidation of food
stuffs is about (C) Increases
excretion of calcium
(A) 100 ml (B) 300
(D) Decreases
ml
excretion of calcium
(C) 600 ml (D) 1000 ml
18. Enhanced facultative
12. The daily water allowance reabsorption ofwater by
for normalinfant is about Vasopressin is mediated
(A) 100–200 ml by
(B) 250–300 ml (A) Cyclic AMP
++
(C) 330–1000 ml (D) 1000– (B) Ca
2000 ml (C) Cyclic GMP (D) Mg++
13. The daily water allowance
for normaladult (60 kg) is 19. Action of kinins is to
about (A) Increase salt
(A) 200–600 ml excretion
(B) 500–800 ml (B) Decrease salt
(C) 800–1500 ml (D) 1800– retention
2500 ml (C) Decrease water
retention
14. Insensible loss of body (D) Increase both
water of normaladult is salt and water excretion
about
(A) 50–100 ml 20. The activity of kinins is
(B) 100–200 ml modulated by
(C) 300–500 ml (D) 600– (A) Prostaglandins
1000 ml (B) Ca++
15. The predominant cation (C) Increased cAMP

of plasma is level
(D) Increased cGMP
(A) Na+ (B) K+
level
(C) Ca+ (D) Mg
21. An important cause of
16. The predominant action water intoxicationis
of plasma is
(A) Nephrogenic
(A) HCO3– (B) Cl– (C) diabetes insipidus
HPO4– – (D) SO4 – – (B) Renal failure
(C) Gastroenteritis
17. Vasopressin (ADH)
(D) Fanconi (B) Low specific

syndrome gravity
22. Minimum excretory (C) High specific
urinary volume forwaste gravity
products elimination (D) Albuminuria
during 24 hrs
is 27. The total calcium of the
human body isabout
(A) 200–300 ml
(B) 200–400 ml (A) 100–150 g
(B) 200–300 g
(C) 500–600 ml (D) 800 ml
(C) 1–1.5 kg (D) 2–3 kg
23. In primary dehydration
28. Daily requirement of
(A) Intracellular fluid calcium for normaladult
volume is reduced human is
(B) Intracellular fluid
(A) 100 mg (B) 800
volume remains normal
mg
(C) Extracellular
(C) 2 g (D) 4 g
fluid volume is much
reduced 29. Normal total serum
(D) Extracellular calcium level
fluid volume is much variesbetween
increased (A) 4–5 mg (B) 9–
24. An important cause of 11 mg
secondary dehydration is (C) 15–20 mg (D) 50–100
mg
(A) Dysphagia
(B) Oesophageal
varices(C) Oesophageal
varices
(D) Gastroenteritis
25. Important finding of
secondary dehydration is
(A) Intracellular
oedema
(B) Cellular
dehydration
(C) Thirst
(D) Muscle cramps
26. Urine examination in
secondary dehydration
shows
(A) Ketonuria
30. The element needed in quantities greaterthan 40. In ricket, the product of Ca x p (in mg/
100 mg for human beings is 100 ml) in serum is below
(A) Calcium (B) Zinc (A) 30 (B) 50
(C) Selenium (D) Cobalt (C) 70 (D) 100
31. The mineral present in the human bodyin larger 41. In man, the amount of calcium in gmsfiltered in
amounts than any other cation is 24 hrs period by the renal glomeruli is
(A) Sodium (B) Calcium (A) 5 (B) 10 (C) 15 (D) 20
(C) Potassium (D) Iron
42. The percentage of the calcium eliminatedin feces
32. The percentage of the total body calciumpresent is
in bones is (A) 10–20 (B) 30–40
(A) 1 (B) 11 (C) 55 (D) 99 (C) 50–60 (D) 70–90
33. The percentage of calcium present 43. The maximal renal tubular reabsorptivecapacity
inextracellular fluid is for calcium (Tmca) in mg/min is about
(A) 1 (B) 5
(A) 1.5± 0.1(B) 4.99 ± 0.21
(C) 10 (D) 50
(C) 5.5 ± 1.2 (D) 10.2 ± 2.2
34. The physiologically active form of calciumis
(A) Protein bond 44. Renal ricket is caused by renal tubulardefect
(B) Ionised (usually inherited) which interferes with
reabsorption of
(C) Complexed with citrate
(D) Complexed with carbonate (A) Calcium (B) Phosphorous
(C) Sodium (D) Chloride
35. The normal concentration of calcium in
C.S.F is 45. After operative removal of the parathyroid
glands resulting into hypoparathyroidism the
(A) 1.5–2.5 mg/100 ml
concentration of the serum calcium may drop
(B) 2.5–4 mg/100 ml(C) 4.5–5 mg/100 ml below
(D) 9–10 mg/100 ml
(A) 11 mg (B) 10 mg
36. Absorption of calcium is increased on a (C) 9 mg (D) 7 mg
(A) High protein diet (B) Low protein diet 46. One of the principal cations of soft tissueand
(C) High fat diet (D) Low fat diet body fluids is
37. Calcium absorption is interfered by (A) Mg (B) S
(A) Protein in diet (C) Mn (D) Co
(B) Phytic acid in cereals 47. The normal concentration of magnesiumin whole
(C) Alkaline intestinal pH blood is
(D) Vitamin D (A) 0–1 mg/100 ml (B) 1–2 mg/100 ml (C)
38. Calcium absorption is increased by 2–4 mg/100 ml (D) 4–8 mg/100 ml
(A) Vitamin D (B) Vitamin C 48. The normal concentration of magnesiumin C.S.F
is about
(C) Vitamin K (D) Vitamin E
39. In serum product of Ca x p (in mg/100ml) in (A) 1 mg/100 ml (B) 3 mg/100 ml
children is normally (C) 5 mg/100 ml (D) 8 mg/100 ml
(A) 20 (B) 30 49. The magnesium content of muscle is about
(C) 50 (D) 60 (A) 5 mg/100 ml (B) 10 mg/100 ml
(C) 21 mg/100 ml (D) 50 mg/100 ml (C) PTH (D) Somatostatin
50. Intestinal absorption of magnesium isincreased 59. The principal cation in intracellular fluidis
in (A) Sodium (B) Potassium
(A) Calcium deficient diet (C) Calcium (D) Magnesium
(B) High calcium diet
60. The normal concentration of potassium inwhole
(C) High oxalate diet
blood is
(D) High phytate diet
(A) 50 mg/100 ml (B) 100 mg/100 ml
51. Deficiency of magnesium may occur with (C) 150 mg/100 ml (D) 200 mg/100 ml
(A) Alcoholism
61. The normal concentration of potassium inhuman
(B) Diabetes mellitus plasma in meq/I is about
(C) Hypothyroidism
(A) 1 (B) 2
(D) Advanced renal failure
(C) 3 (D) 5
52. Hypermagnesemia may be observed in
62. The normal concentration of potassium incells in
(A) Hyperparathyroidism ng/100 ml is about
(B) Diabetes mellitus (A) 100 (B) 200
(C) Kwashiorkar (C) 350 (D) 440
(D) Primary aldosteronism
63. Potassium content of nerve tissue in mg/
53. Na+/K+-ATPase along with ATP requires
100 ml is about
(A) Ca (B) Mn (A) 200 (B) 330
(C) Mg (D) Cl (C) 400 (D) 530
54. The principal cation in extracellular fluidis 64. Potassium content of muscle tissue inmg/100 ml
(A) Sodium (B) Potassium is about
(C) Calcium (D) Magnesium (A) 50–100 (B) 100–150
55. The normal concentration of sodium (inmg/100 (C) 250–400 (D) 150–200
ml) of human plasma is 65. One of the symptoms of low serumpotassium
(A) 100 (B) 200 concentration includes
(C) 250 (D) 330 (A) Muscle weakness
56. A decrease in serum sodium may occur in (B) Confusion
(C) Numbness
(A) Adrenocortical insufficiency
(D) Tingling of extremities
(B) Hypoparathyroidism
66. Potassium metabolism is regulated by
(C) Hyperparathyroidism
thehormone:
(D) Thyrotoxicosis
(A) Aldosterone (B) PTH
57. Hypernatremia may occur in
(C) Somatostatin (D) Estrogen
(A) Diabetes insipidus
(B) Diuretic medication 67. A high serum potassium, accompanied bya high
(C) Heavy sweating intracellular potassium occurs in
(D) Kidney disease (A) Adrenal insufficiency(B) Any illness
(C) Gastrointestinal losses
58. The metabolism of sodium is regulated bythe
hormone: (D) Cushing’s syndrome
(A) Insulin (B) Aldosterone 68. Hypokalemia occurs in

(A) Cushing’s syndrome (C) 26 meq/L (D) 30 meq/L

(B) Addison’s disease
78. At the pH of blood 7.4, the ratio betweenthe
(C) Renal failure carbonic acid and bicarbonate fractions is
(D) Advanced dehydration
(A) 1 : 10 (B) 1 : 20
69. Cardiac arrest may occur due to overdoses of (C) 1 : 30 (D) 1 : 40
(A) Sodium (B) Potassium
79. A 0.22 M solution of lactic acid (pK a 3.9) was
(C) Zinc (D) Magnesium
found to contain 0.20 M in the dissociated form
70. The normal concentration of chloride inmg/100 and 0.02 M undissociated form, the pH of the
ml of whole blood is about solution is
(A) 200 (B) 250 (A) 2.9 (B) 3.3
(C) 400 (D) 450 (C) 4.9 (D) 5.4
71. The normal concentration of chloride inmg/100 80. Important buffer system of extracellularfluid is
ml of plasma is about (A) Bicarbonate/carbonic acid
(A) 100 (B) 200 (B) Disodium hydrogen
(C) 365 (D) 450 phosphate/sodiumdihydrogen phosphate
72. The normal concentration of chlorine inmg/100 (C) Plasma proteins
ml of C.S.F is about (D) Organic Phosphate
(A) 200 (B) 250 81. The pH of body fluids is stabilized bybuffer
(C) 300 (D) 440 systems. The compound which will be the most
effective buffer at physiologic pH is
73. Hypokalemia with an
accompanyinghypochloremic alkalosis may be (A) Na2HPO4 pKa = 12.32
observed in
(B) Na2HPO4 pKa=7.21
(A) Cushing’s syndrome(B) Addison’s
(C) NH4OH pKa = 7.24
disease
(C) Hyptothyroidism (D) Malnutrition (D) Citric acid pKa = 3.09
82. The percentage of CO2 carrying capacity of whole
74. Hypercholremia is associated with blood by hemoglobin and oxyhemoglobin is
(A) Hyponatremia (B) Hypernatremia (A) 20 (B) 40
(C) Metabolic alkalosis(D) Respiratory acidosis (C) 60 (D) 80
75. The exclusive function of iron in the bodyis
confined to the process of 83. The normal serum CO2 content is
(A) Muscular contraction (A) 18–20 meq/L (B) 24–29 meq/L
(B) Nerve excitation (C) 30–34 meq/L (D) 35–38 meq/L
(C) Cellular respiration 84. The carbondioxide carrying power of theblood
(D) Blood coagulation residing within the red cells is
(A) 50% (B) 60%
76. The normal pH of the blood is
(C) 85% (D) 100%
(A) 7.0 (B) 7.1
85. Within the red blood cells the bufferingcapacity
(C) 7.2 (D) 7.4
contributed by the phosphates is
77. The normal concentration of bicarbonatein (A) 5% (B) 10%
blood is (C) 20% (D) 25%
(A) 21 meq/L (B) 24 meq/L
86. The normal ratio between the alkalinephosphate (C) 80% (D) 90%
and acid phosphate in plasma is
94. The highest concentration of proteins ispresent
(A) 2:1 (B) 1 : 4 in
(C) 20 : 1 (D) 4 : 1
(A) Plasma (B) Interstitial fluid
87. The oxygen dissociation curve forhemoglobin is (C) Interstitial fluid (D) Transcellular fluid
shifted to the right by
95. Oncotic pressure of plasma is due to
(A) Decreased O2 tension
(A) Proteins (B) Chloride
(B) Decreased CO2 tension
(C) Sodium (D) All of these
(C) Increased CO2 tension
96. Oncotic pressure of plasma is about
(D) Increased pH
(A) 10 mm of Hg (B) 15 mm of Hg
88. Bohr effect is
(C) 25 mm of Hg (D) 50 mm of Hg
(A) Shifting of oxyhemoglobin dissociation
curveto the right 97. Oedema can occur when
(B) Shifting of oxyhemoglobin dissociation (A) Plasma Na and Cl are decreased
curveto the left (B) Plasma Na and Cl are increased
(C) Ability of hemoglobin to combine with (C) Plasma proteins are decreased
O2
(D) Plasma proteins are increased
(D) Exchange of chloride with carbonate
98. Colloid osmotic pressure of intracellularfluid is
89. Chloride shift is
(A) Equal to that of plasma
(A) H ions leaving the RBC in exchange of
(B) More than that of plasma(C) More than
Cl(B) Cl– leaving the RBC in exchange of bicarbonate
that of plasma
(C) Bicarbonate ion returns to plasma
andexchanged with chloride which shifts (D) Nearly zero
into the 99. The water produced during metabolicreactions
cell in an adult is about
(D) Carbonic acid to the plasma (A) 100 ml/day (B) 300 ml/day
90. Of the total body water, (C) 500 ml/day (D) 700 ml/day
intracellularcompartment contains about
100. The daily water loss through gastrointestinal
(A) 50% (B) 60% tract in an adult is about
(C) 70% (D) 80% (A) Less than 100 ml/day
91. Osmotically active substances in plasmaare (B) 200 ml/day(C) 300
ml/day
(A) Sodium (B) Chloride
(D) 400 ml/day
(C) Proteins (D) All of these
101. Recurrent vomiting leads to loss of
92. Osmotic pressure of plasma is
(A) Potassium (B) Chloride
(A) 80–100 milliosmole/litre
(C) Bicarbonate (D) All of these
(B) 180–200 milliosmole/litre(C) 280–300
102. Obligatory reabsorption of water
milliosmole/litre
(D) 380–400 milliosmole/litre (A) Is about 50% of the total tubular
reabsorptionof water
93. Contribution of albumin to colloid (B) Is increased by antidiuretic hormone
osmoticpressure of plasma is about (C) Occurs in distal convoluted tubules
(A) 10% (B) 50% (D) Is secondary to reabsorption of solutes
103. Antidiuretic hormone (A) Phosphate buffer system

(A) Is secreted by hypothalamus (B) Carbonic acid-bicarbonate buffer system
(B) Secretion is increased when osmolality (C) Lactic acid-lactate buffer system
ofplasma decreases (D) Protein buffer system
(C) Increases obligatory reabsorption of water
112. In a solution containing phosphate buffer,the pH
(D) Acts on distal convoluted tubules will be 7.4, if the ratio of monohydrogen
andcollecting ducts phosphate : dihydrogen phosphate is
104. Urinary water loss is increased in (A) 4 : 1 (B) 5 : 1
(A) Diabetes mellitus (C) 10 : 1 (D) 20 : 1
(B) Diabetes insipidus
113. pKa of dihydrogen phosphate is
(C) Chronic glomerulonephritis
(D) All of these (A) 5.8 (B) 6.1
(C) 6.8 (D) 7.1
105. Diabetes insipidus results from
(A) Decreased insulin secretion 114. Buffering action of haemoglobin is mainly due to
its
(B) Decreased ADH secretion
(C) Decreased aldosterone secretion (A) Glutamine residues
(D) Unresponsiveness of osmoreceptors (B) Arginine residues(C)
Histidine residues
106. Thiazide diuretics inhibit
(D) Lysine residues
(A) Carbonic anhydrase
115. Respiratory acidosis results from
(B) Aldosterone secretion
(A) Retention of carbon dioxide
(C) ADH secretion
(B) Excessive elimination of carbon dioxide
(D) Sodium reabsorption in distal tubules
(C) Retention of bicarbonate
107. Furosemide inhibits reabsorption of sodium and
chloride in (D) Excessive elimination of bicarbonate
(A) Proximal convoluted tubules 116. Respiratory acidosis can occur in all of the
(B) Loop of Henle following except
(C) Distal convoluted tubules (A) Pulmonary oedema (B)
Hysterical hyperventilation
(D) Collecting ducts
(C) Pneumothorax
108. A diuretic which is an aldosterone antagonist is (D) Emphysema
(A) Spironolactone (B) Ethacrynic acid
117. The initial event in respiratory acidosis is
(C) Acetazolamide (D) Chlorothiazide
(A) Decrease in pH
109. In a solution having a pH of 7.4, thehydrogen ion (B) Increase in pCO2
concentration is (C) Increase in plasma bicarbonate
(A) 7.4 nmol/L (B) 40 nmol/L (D) Decrease in plasma bicarbonate
(C) 56 nmol/L (D) 80 nmol/L 118. Respiratory alkalosis can occur in
110. At pH 7.4, the ratio of bicarbonate : dissolved (A) Bronchial asthma
CO2 is (B) Collapse of lungs
(A) 1 : 1 (B) 10 : 1 (C) Hysterical hyperventilation
(C) 20 : 1 (D) 40 : 1 (D) Bronchial obstruction
111. Quantitatively, the most significant buffer 119. The primary event in respiratory alkalosisis
system in plasma is
(A) Rise in pH 127. All the following features are found in blood
(B) Decrease in pCO2 chemistry in uncompensated lactic acidosis
(C) Increase in plasma bicarbonate except
(D) Decrease in plasma chloride (A) pH is decreased
(B) Bicarbonate is decreased
120. Anion gap is the difference in the plasma
concentrations of (C) pCO2 is normal
(D) Anion gap is normal
(A) (Chloride) – (Bicarbonate)
(B) (Sodium) – (Chloride) 128. All the following statements about renal tubular
(C) (Sodium + Potassium) – (Chloride + acidosis are correct except
Bicarbonate) (A) Renal tubules may be unable to
(D) (Sum of cations) – (Sum of anions) reabsorbbicarbonate
(B) Renal tubules may be unable to
121. Normal anion gap in plasma is about
secretehydrogen ions
(A) 5 meq/L (B) 15 meq/L (C) Plasma chloride is elevated
(C) 25 meq/L (D) 40 meq/L (D) Anion gap is decreased
122. Anion gap is normal in 129. All the following changes in blood chemistry can
(A) Hyperchloraemic metabolic acidosis occur in severe diarrhoea except
(B) Diabetic ketoacidosis (A) Decreased pH
(C) Lactic acidosis (B) Decreased bicarbonate
(D) Uraemic acidosis (C) Increased pCO2
123. Anion gap is increased in (D) Increased chloride
(A) Renal tubular acidosis 130. During compensation of respiratory alkalosis, all
(B) Metabolic acidosis resulting from diarrhoea the following changes occur except
(C) Metabolic acidosis resulting from (A) Decreased secretion of hydrogen ions
intestinalobstruction byrenal tubules
(D) Diabetic ketoacidosis (B) Increased excretion of sodium in urine
124. Anion gap in plasma is because (C) Increased excretion of bicarbonate in urine
(D) Increased excretion of ammonia in urine
(A) Of differential distribution of ions across
cellmembranes 131. Blood chemistry shows the following changes in
(B) Cations outnumber anions in plasma compensated respiratory acidosis:
(C) Anions outnumber cations in plasma (A) Increased pCO2
(D) Of unmeasured anions in plasma (B) Increased bicarbonate
125. Salicylate poisoning can cause (C) Decreased chloride
(A) Respiratory acidosis (D) All of these
(B) Metabolic acidosis with normal anion 132. Metabolic alkalosis can occur in
gap
(A) Severe diarrhoea (B)
(C) Metabolic acidosis with increased anion Renal failure
gap(D) Metabolic alkalosis
(C) Recurrent vomiting
126. Anion gap of plasma can be due to the presence (D) Excessive use of carbonic anhydrase
of all the following except inhibitors
(A) Bicarbonate (B) Lactate
133. Which of the following features are present in
(C) Pyruvate (D) Citrate blood chemistry in uncompensated metabolic
alkalosis except?
(A) Increased pH 13. D 14. D 15. A

(B) Increased bicarbonate 16. B 17. A 18. A
(C) Normal chloride 19. D 20. A 21. B 22. C 23. A 24. D 25. A 26. B
(D) Normal pCO2 27. C 28. B 29. B 30. A
31. B 32. D 33. A
134. One joule is the energy required to 34. B 35. C 36. A
(A) Raise the temperature of 1 gm of water 37. B 38. A 39. C
by1°C 40. A 41. B 42. D
(B) Raise the temperature of 1 kg of water by 43. B 44. B 45. D
1°C 46. A 47. C 48. B
(C) Move a mass of 1 gm by 1 cm distance by 49. C 50. A 51. A
aforce of 1 Newton 52. B 53. C 54. A
(D) Move a mass of 1 kg by 1 m distance by 55. D 56. A 57. A
aforce of 1 Newton 58. B 59. B 60. D
61. D 62. D 63. D
135. Organic compound of small molecular size is
64. C 65. A 66. A
(A) Urea (B) Uric acid 67. A 68. A 69. B
(C) Creatinine (D) Phosphates 70. B 71. C 72. D
136. Organic substance of large molecular size is 73. A 74. B 75. C
76. D 77. C 78. B
(A) Starch (B) Insulin
79. C 80. A 81. B
(C) Lipids (D) Proteins
82. C 83. B 84. C
137. Body water is regulated by the hormone: 85. D 86. D 87. C
(A) Oxytocin (B) ACTH 88. A 89. C 90. C
(C) FSH (D) Epinephrine 91. D 92. C 93. C 94. C 95. A 96. C 97. C 98. B 99.
B 100. A 101. B 102. D 103. D 104. D 105. B 106.
138. Calcium is required for the activation of the D 107. B 108. A
enzyme: 109. B 110. C 111. B
(A) Isocitrate dehydrogenase 112. A 113. C 114. C
(B) Fumarase 115. A 116. B 117. B
(C) Succinate thiokinase 118. C 119. B 120. C
(D) ATPase 121. B 122. A 123. B 124. B 125. C 126. A 127. D
128. D 129. C 130. D 131. D 132. C 133. D 134. D
139. Cobalt is a constituent of 135. A 136. D 137. A 138. D
(A) Folic acid (B) Vitamin B12 139. B 140. A 141. B
(C) Niacin (D) Biotin
140. Calcium absorption is inferred by
(A) Fatty acids (B) Amino acids
(C) Vitamin D (D) Vitamin B12
141. The average of pH of urine is

(A) 5.6 (B) 6.0
(C) 6.4 (D) 7.0
ANSWERS
1. D 2. A 3. D 4. C 5. C 6. C
7. C 8. D 9. B 10. C 11. B 12. C

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ISBN (13) : 978-81-224-2627-4

PUBLISHING FOR ONE WORLD

PROF. DR. F.V. MANVI

PRO F. B.G . S HIVAN AN DA

SOME VALUABLE COMMENTS

CARBOHYDRATES AND CARBOHYDRATE METABOLISM 5

PROTEINS & PROTEIN METABOLISM 27

FATS & FATTY ACID METABOLISM 75

MINERAL METABOLISM 183

HORMONE METABOLISM 209

NUCLEIC ACIDS 237

WATER & ELECTROLYTE BALANCE 281

(A) Mn++ (B) Mg++ 9. Which of the following phospholipids islocalized

INTRODUCTION TO of the cell?

13. Which one is the largest particulate of

(A) Diffusion (B) Effusion (A) Phagocytosis (B) Pinocytosis

(B) They provide support and shape 7. B 8. B 9. A 10. C 11. C

15. In glucose the orientation of the —H and—OH 1 → 4 glycosidic linkage in

(C) α and β anomers (A) Isomaltose (B) Maltose

(A) Dimethyl amino sugar (A) Lactose (B) Maltose

24. Sucrose consists of 35. The polysaccharide found in theexoskeleton of

(A) Dextrins (B) Agar (A) Glycoside (B) Glucosaccharic acid

56. Specific gravity of urine increases in (A) Glucose (B) Galactose

76. Branching occurs in glycogen approximately (A) Phosphofructokinase-1

104. Glycogenin is (A) Diabetes mellitus

(D) High fever 123. The epimers of glucose is

113. Normal specific gravity of urine is (A) Fructose (B) Galactose

(A) Acute glomerulonephritis 128. Galactose on oxidation with conc. HNO 3

(A) Hamopolysaccharides 129. The distinguishing test between

118. Bence-Jones protein precipitates at 130. Cellulose is made up of the molecules of

171. Our body can get pentoses from (B) Phosphorylase

(A) NADP+ (C) α-oxoglutaric acid (D) Malic acid

191. Two examples of substrate level phosphorylation (A) 6 (B) 1

222. ATP is ‘wasted’ in Rapoport-Lueberringcycle in 230. The enzymes involved in Phosphorylation of

(A) Phosphoglucomutase (A) Hexokinase

(C) Citrate (D) Cyanide oxidized in presence of O 2 to the net number

280. Galactose is a main constituent of (A) Synthesis of glucose

(C) Fructose 133. C 134. B 135. C 136. C 137. C 138. A 139. B

monosaccharide arides 163. A Seliwanoff’s test: (b) Insulin-

PROTEINS AND PROTEIN METABOLISM

(A) Tyrosine (B) Proline

28. Ninhydrin with evolution of CO 2

(A) Peptide bond (B) α-Amino

(C) Glucagon (D) β -Lipoprotein

(C) β-globulin (D) None of these (B) Loss of apolipoprotein B

(A) Cycloxygenase(B) Lipooxygenase (C) Aromatic amino acids

89. In adipose tissue prostaglandinsdecrease 100. Chymotrypsin is specific for peptide

98. An expopeptidase is 107. The main site of urea synthesis in mammals is

(D) Nucleus 117. In carcinoid syndrome the argentaffintissue of

(A) Arginine, glycine, active methionine(B) (C) Lysine (D) Threonine

(A) 75% (B) 80% (A) High (B) Moderate

) 168. Electrostatic bonds can be formed betweenthe

173. α-Helix is formed by 182. Inherited deficiency of β−glucosidase causes

174. Glutelins are present in 183. Tay-Sachs disease results from

188. Apolipoprotein B-48 is present in (A) Starvation

(A) Chylomicrons (B) VLDL (C) Pyruvate and α-ketoglutarate

(D) All of these (A) Tyrosine hydroxylase (tyrosinase) is absent

(A) IgA(B) IgG (D) Macrophages and B lymphocytes

(A) Alpha (B) Gamma 285. CD 4 is a transmembrane glycoproteinpresent in

292. IgE has a tendency to attach to 300. A Zwitterion is

345. In hypoparathyroidism 353. Pre-proinsulin contains a signal sequence having

(C) It inhibits the secretion of secretin (C) K+ (D) Ca++