Red Spot-A Level Chemistry Exam Questions

SCHEME OF ASSESSMENT
Paper Type of paper Duration Marks Weighting
As Level A
Level
1 Multiple Choice 1h 40 31% 15%
2 As Structured questions 1 h 15min 80 45% 23%
3 Advanced Practical skills 2h 40 23% 12%
4 A2 Structured questions 1h 45min 100 36%
5 Planning, Analysis & Evaluation 1h 15min 30 20%
Paper 1
The paper will consists of 40 questions, thirty of the direct choice type of ten of the multiple
completion type, all with four options. All questions will be based on the As Syllabus.
Paper 2
This paper will consist of a variable number of structured questions of variable mark value. All
questions will be based on the AS Syllabus. Candidates will answer all questions on the question
paper.
Paper 3
This paper will consist of two or three experiments drawn from different areas of chemistry. The
examiners will not be restricted by the subject content. Candidates will answer on the question
paper. Two versions of this paper will be set, Paper 31 and Paper 32. The two papers will be
equivalent and each candidate will be required to take only one of them. This is to allow large
centres to spread the assessment of candidates‟ practical skills over two days.
Paper 4
This paper will consists of two sections.
Section A (70 marks) will consists of questions based on the A2 core.
Section B (30 marks) will consists of questions based on the section „Applications of Chemistry‟
Both sections will consists of a variable number structured and free response style questions of
variable mark value. Candidates will answer all questions on the question paper.
Paper 5
This paper will consists of a variable number of questions of variable mark value based on the
practical skills of planning, analysis and evaluation. The examiners will not be restricted by the
subject content. Candidates will answer all question paper.
Combination of papers
- Candidates for Advanced Subsidiary (AS) certification will take Papers 1, 2 and 3 at a
single examination session.
- Candidates who, having received AS certification, wish to continue their studies to the
full Advanced Level qualification may carry their AS marks forward and take just Papers
4 and 5 in the examination session in which they require certification.
- Candidates taking the complete Advanced Level qualification at the end of the course
take all the papers in a single examination session.
Candidates may not enter for single papers either on the first occasion for re-sit purpose.
Candidates may only enter for the papers in the combinations above.
SUBJECT CONTENT
The learning outcomes to be studied by AS candidates are in normal type.
The additional learning outcomes to be studied by A2 candidates are shown in bold type.
An asterisk * placed next to an assessment objective indicates an area where IT might be used.
PHYSICAL CHEMISTRY
1. ATOMS, MOLECULES AND STOICHEMISTRY
Content
1. Relative masses of atoms and molecules

2. The mole, the Avogadro constant
3. The determination of relative atomic masses, An, and relative molecular masses, Mn from
mass spectra.
4. The calculation of empirical and molecular formulae
5. Reacting masses and volumes (of solutions and gases)
Learning Outcomes
(The term relative formula mass or Mr will be used for ionic compounds)
Candidates should be able to:
a) Define the terms atomic, isotopic, molecular and formular masses, based on the 12c scale
b) Define the term mole in terms of the Avogadro constant
c) *analyse mass spectra in terms of isotopic abundances and molecular fragments
(knowledge of the working of the mass spectrometer is not required.
d) Define the terms empirical and molecular formulae
e) Calculate empirical and molecular formulae using combustion data or composition by
mass
f) Write and/ or constant balanced equations
g) Calculate relative atomic mass of an element given the relative abundances of its
isotopes, or its mass spectrum
h) Perform calculations, including use of the mole concept, involving:
i). reacting masses (from formulae and equations)
ii). Volumes of gases (e.g. in the burning of hydrocarbons)
iii). Volumes and concentrations of solutions
i). deduce stoichiometric relationships from calculations such as those in (h).
2. ATOMIC STRUCTURE
Content
i. The nucleus of the atom, netrons and protons, isotopes, proton and nucleus numbers
ii. Electrons, electronic energy levels, ionization energies, atomic oerbitals, extranucleus
structure
Learning Outcomes
a) *identify and describe protons, neutrons and electrons in terms of their relative charges
and relative masses
b) *deduce the behavior of beams of protons, neutrons and electrons in electric fields
c) Describe the distribution of mass and charges within an atom
d) Deduce the numbers of protons, neutrons and electrons preset in both atoms and ions
given proton and nucleon numbers (and charge)
e) i – describe and contribution of protons and neutrons nuclei in terms of proton number
and nucleon number
ii- distinguish between isotopes on the bases of differential numbers present
f) *describe the number and relative energies of the s,p and d orbitals for the principal
quantam numbers 1, 2 and 3 and also the 4s and 4p orbitals.
g) *describe the shapes of s and p orbitals
h) State the electronic configuration of atoms and ions given the proton number (and
charge)
i) i- explain and use the term ionization energy
ii- explain the factors influencing the ionization energies of elements
iii- *explain the trends in ionization energies across a Period and down a Group of the
Periodic Table (see also section 9)
j) deduce the electronic configurations of elements from successive ionization energy data
k) *Interpret successive ionization energy data of an element in terms of the position of that
element within the Periodic Table
3. CHEMICAL BONDING
Content
I. Ionic (electrovalent) bonding
II. Covalent bonding and co- ordinate (dative covalent) bonding
a). The shapes of simple molecules
b). Bond energies, bond lengths and bond polarities
III. Intermolecular forces, including hydrogen bonding
IV. Metallic bonding
V. Bonding and physical properties
Learning Outcomes
a). *describe ionic (electrovalent) bonding, as in sodium chloride and magnesium oxide,
including the use of „dot and cross‟ diagrams.
b). *describe, including the use of dot and cross diagrams
i). covalent bonding, as in hydrogen, oxygen, chlorine, hydrogen chloride, carbon dioxide,
methane, ethane.
ii). Co-ordinate (dative covalent) bonding, as in the formation of the ammonium ion and in
the Al2 Cl6 molecule
c). *Explain the shapes of, and bond angles in , molecules by using the qualitative model of
electron pair repulsion (inclusion lone pairs), using as simple examples: BF4 (trigonal), CO2
(linear), CH4 (tetrahedral), NH3 (pyramidal)H2O (non- linear), SF6 (octahedral).
d). *describe covalent bonding in terms of orbital overlap, giving o and π bonds
e). explain the shape of, and bond angles in, the ethane, ethane and benzene molecules in terms
of π bonds (see also section 10.1)
f). predict the shapes of, and bond angles in, molecules analogues to those specified in (c)and (e)
g). describe hydrogen bonding, using ammonia and water as simple examples of molecules
containing N- H and O – H groups.
h). explain the terms bond energy, bond length and bond polarity and use them to compare the
reactivities of covalent bonds (see also 5 (b) ii.
i). describe intermolecular forces (van der Waals‟ forces), based on permanent and induced
dipoles, as in CHCl2(l), Br2(l) and the liquid gases.
j). describe metallic bonding in terms of a lattice of positive ions surrounded by mobilic electrons
k). *describe, interpret and/ or predict the effect of different types of bonding (ionic bonding,
covalent bonding, hydrogen bonding, other intermolecular interactions, metallic bonding) on the
physical properties of substances.
l). deduce the type of bonding present from given information
m). show understanding of chemical reactions in terms of energy transfers associated with the
breaking and making of chemical bonds.
4. STATES OF MATTER
Content:
i. The gaseous state:
a). ideal gas behavior and deviations from it.
b). pV – nRT and its use in determining a value for M1
ii. The liquid state.

The kinetic concept of the liquid state and simple kinetic molecular descriptions of
changes of state
iii. The solid state
Lattice structures
Learning Outcomes
a) State the basic assumptions of the kinetic theory as applied to an ideal gas
b) Explain qualitatively in terms of intermolecular forces and molecular size:
i). the conditions necessary for a gas to approach ideal behavior
ii). The limitations of ideality at very high pressure and very low temperatures
c) State and use the general gas equation pV = nRT in calculations, including the
determination of Mr
d) *describe, using a kinetic molecular model, the liquid state, melting, vaporization and
vapour pressure
e) *describe, in simple terms, the lattice structure of a crystalline solid which is:
i. Ionic, as in sodium chloride, magnesium oxide
ii. Simple molecular, as in iodine
iii. Glant molecular, as in graphite, diamond, silicon (IV) oxide
iv. Hydrogen bonded, as in ice
v. Metallic, as in copper
(the concept of the unit call is not required)
f) Explain the strength, high melting point and electrical insulating properties of ceramics in
terms of their giant molecular structure
g) Relate the uses of ceramics, based on magnesium oxide, aluminium oxide and silicon
(IV) oxide, to their properties (suitable examples include furnace linings, electrical
insulators, glass, crockery)
h) Describe and interpret the uses of the metals aluminium, including its alloys, and copper,
including brass, in terms of their physical properties.
i) Understand that materials are a finite resource and the importance of recycling processes.
j) Outline the importance of hydrogen bonding to the physical properties of substances,
including ice and water
k) Suggest from quoted physical data the type of structure and bonding present in a
substance
5. CHEMICAL ENERGETICS
CONTENT
i. Enthalpy changes ΔH of information, combustion, hydration, solution, neutralization and

atomization, bond energy, lattice energy, electron affinity
ii. Hess‟ Law including Born Haber cycles
Learning Outcomes
a). *explain that some chemical reactions are accompanied by energy changes, principally in the
form of heat energy, the energy changes can be exothermic (ΔH, negative) or endorthermic
b). explain and use the terms:

i). enthalpy change of reaction and standard conditions with particular reference to: formation,
combustion, hydration, solution, netralisation, atomization
ii). Bond energy (ΔH positive, i.e bond breaking)
iii). Lattice energy (ΔH negative i.e gaseous ions to solid lattice)
c). calculate enthalpy changes from appropriate experimental results, including the use of the
relationship.
Enthalpy change = mcΔT
d). explain in qualitative terms, the effect of ionic charge and of ionic radius on the numerical
magnitude of a lattice energy
e). apply Hess‟ Law to construct simple energy cycles, and carry out calculations involving such
cycles and relevant energy terms, with particular reference to:
i). determining enthalpy changes that cannot be found by direct experiment e.g an enthalpy
change of formation from enthalpy changes of combustion
ii). Average bond energies
iii). The formation of a simple ionic solid and of its aqueous solutioin.
iv). Born Haber cycles (including ionization energy and electron affinity)
f). construct and interpret a reaction pathway diagram, in terms of the enthalpy change of the
reaction and of the activation energy (see Section B)
8. ELECTROCHEMISTRY
Content
I. Redox processes, electron transfer and changes in oxidation number (oxidation state)
II. Electrode potentials
a. Standard electrode (redox) potentials, F, the redox series
b. Standard cell potentials, and their uses
c. Batteries and fuel cells
III. Electrolysis
a. Factors affecting the amount of substance liberated during electrolysis
b. The Faraday constant: the Avogadro constant: their relationship
c. Industrial uses of electrolysis
Learning Outcomes
a). describe and explain redox processes in terms of electron transfer and/ or changes in
oxidation number (oxidation state).
b). explain, including the electrode reactions, the industrial processes of:
i. the electrolysis of bine, using a diaphragm cell
ii. the extraction of aluminium from molten aluminum oxide/ cryolite
iii. the electrolytic purification of copper
c). define the terms:
i). standard electrode (redox) potential
ii). Standard cell potential
d). describe the standards hydrogen electrode
e). describe methods used to measure the standard electrode potentials of:
i. metals or non-metals in contact with their ions in aqueous solution
ii. ions of the same element in different oxidation states
f). calculate a standard cell potential by combining two standard electrode potentials
g). use standard cell potentials to:
i). explain / deduce the direction of electron flow a simple cell
ii). *predict the feasibility of a reaction
i) Construct redox equations using the relevant half questions (see also Section 9.5)
j) State the possible advantages of developing other types of cell e.g the H2IO2 fuel cell and
improved batteries (as in electric vehicles) in terms of smaller size, lower mass and
higher voltage.
k) State the relationship F = Le, between the Faraday constant, the Avogadro constant and
the charge in the electron
l) Predict the identify of the substance liberated during electrolysis from the state of
electrolyte (molten or aqueous), position in the redox series (electrode potential) and
concentration.
m) Calculate:
i. The quantity of charge passed during electrolysis
ii. The mass and/ or volume of substance liberated during electrolysis, including
those in the electrolysis of H2SO4 (aq), Na2SO4(aq)
n) Describe the determination of a value of the Avogadro constant by an electrolytic
method.
EQUILIBRA
Content
i. Chemical equilibra, reversible reactions, dynamic equilibrium

a. Factors affecting chemical equilibra
b. Equilibra constants
c. The Haber process, the Contact process
ii. Ionic equilibria
a. Bronsted- Lowry theory of acids and bases
b. Acid dissociation constants K3 and the use of pK2
c. The ionic product of water Kw
d. pH: choice indicators
e. Buffer solutions
f. Solubility product : the common ion effect
Learning Outcomes
*explain, in terms of rates of the forward and reverse reactions, what is meant by a reversible
reaction and dynamic equilibrium
- state Le Chateller‟s Principle and apply it to deduce qualitatively (from appropriate

information) the effects of changes in temperature, concentration or pressure, on a system at
equilibrium.
Deduce whether changes in concentration, pressure or temperature or the presence of a catalyst

affect the value of the equilibrium constant for a reaction.
Deduce expressions for equilibrium constants in forms of concentrations, K and partial pressures,
Kp
(treatment of the relationship between Kp and Kr is not required)
Calculate the values of equilibrium constants in terms of concentrations or perial pressures from
appropriate data.
Calculate the quantities present at equilibrium given appropriate data (such calculations will not
require the solving of quadratic equations)
Describe and explain the conditions used in the Haber process and the Contact process, as
examples of the importance of an understanding of chemical equilibrium in the chemical
industry (see also Section 9.6)
Show understanding of, and use the Bronsted Lewry theory of acids and bases
Explain qualitatively the differences in behavior between strong and weak acids and bases in
terms of the extend of dissociation.
Explain the terms pH, K8, pKa, Kw and use them in calculations
Calculate [H*(aq)] and pH values for strong and weak acids and strong bases
Explain the choice of suitable indicators for acid base titrations, given appropriate data
*describe the changes in pH during acid base titrations and explain these changes in terms of the
strengths of the acids and bases.
Explain how buffer solutions control pH.
Describe and explain their uses, including the role of HCO3 in controlling pH in bllod.
Calculate the pH of buffer solutions, given appropriate data.
Show understanding of, and use, the concept of solubility product K
Calculate Ksp from concentrations and vive versa
Show understanding of the common ion effect.
8. REACTION KINETICS
Content
i. Simple rate equations, orders of reaction, rate constants

ii. Effect of temperature on rate constants, the concept of activity energy
iii. Homogenous and heterogeneous catalysis
Learning outcomes
a). explain and use the terms, rate of reaction, activation energy, catalysis, rate equation, order of
reaction, rate constant, half life of a reaction, rate determining step
b). *explain qualitatively, in terms of collisions, the effect of concentration changes on the rate of
a reaction
c). *explain qualitatively, in terms both of the Boltzman distribution and of collision frequency,
the effect of temperature change on the rate of reaction.
d). *show understanding, including reference to the Boltzman distribution of what is meant by
the term activation energy.
e). i. explain that, in the presence of a catalyst, a reaction has a reaction has a different
mechanism, i.e one of lower activation energy.
ii. interpret this catalytic effect in terms of the Boltzman distribution.
f). describe enzymes as biological catalysts (proteins) which may have specific activity
g). construct and use rate equations of the form rate = k (A)m (B)n (limited to simple cases of
single step reactions and of multi step processes with a rate determining step for which m and n
are 0, 1 or 2), including :
i. deducing the order of a reaction by the initial rates method
ii. justifying, for zero and first order reactions, the order of reaction from concentration time
graphs
iv. Verifying that a suggested reaction mechanisms is consistent with the observed kinetics.
v. Predicting the order that would result from a given reaction mechanism (and vice versa)
vi. Calculating an initial rate using concentration data (integrated forms of rate equations are
not required)
vii. Show an understanding that the half life of a first order reaction is independent of
concentration
viii. Use the half life of a first order reaction in calculations
Calculate a rate constant using the initial rates method
*devise a suitable experimental technique for studying the rate of a reaction, from given
information.
Outline the different modes of action of homogeneous and heterogenous catalysts, including:
i. *the Haber process

ii. The catalytic removal of oxides of nitrogen in the exhaust gases from car engines (see
also Section 10.2)
iii. The catalytic role of atmospheric oxides of nitrogen in the oxidation of atmospheric
sulphur dioxide
iv. Catalytic role of Fe3- in the TIS2O82+ reaction
9. INORGANIC CHEMISTRY
Statement of Aims
It is intended that the study should:
Be concerned primarily with aspects of selected ranges of elements and their compounds, be
based on a study of the patterns:
- Across the third period of the Periodic Table

- In the two Groups II and VII
Introduce, with examples, the transition elements and their compounds

Introduce the more important everyday aspects of nitrogen, sulphur and their compounds and
apply unifying inorganic chemistry, such as structure (section 2) chemical bonding (section 3),
redox (section B), the reactions of ions, acid base behavior, precipitation (section 7) and
complexing behavior (section 9.5) where appropriate,
Include:
- The representation of reactions by means of balanced equations (molecular and/ or ionic

equations, together with state symbols)
- The interpretation of redox reactions in terms of changes in oxidation state of the species
involved
- The prediction of the feasibility of reactions from E0 values
- The interpretation of chemical reactions in terms of ionic equilibria
- The interpretation of chemical reactions in terms of the formation of complexions
9.1 THE PERIODIC TABLE: CHEMICAL PERIODICITY
Content
i. Periodicity of physical properties of the elements; variation with proton number across
third period (sodium to argon) of:
a. Atomic radium and ionic radius
b. Melting point
c. Electrical conductivity
d. Ionization energy
ii. Periodicity of chemical properties of the elements in the third period
a. Reaction of the elements with oxygen, chlorine and water
b. Variation in oxidation number of the oxides (sodium to sulphur only) and of the
chlorides (sodium to phosphorous only)
c. Reactions of these oxides and chlorides with water
d. Acid/ base behavior of these oxides and the corresponding hydroxides
Learning Outcomes
Candidates should, for the third period (sodium to argon), be able to:
a). describe qualitatively (and indicate the periodicity in) the variations in atomic radius, ionic
radius, melting point and electricity conductivity of the elements
b). explain qualitatively the variation in atomic radius and ionic radius
c). interpret the variation in melting point and in chemical conductivity in terms of the presence
of simple molecular, giant molecular or metallic bonding in the elements.
d). explain the variation in first ionization energy
e). describe the reactions, if any, of the elements with oxygen (to give Na2O, MgO, AI2O3, P4O,
SO2, SO3)
chlorine (to give NaC1, Mg only)
f). State and explain the variation number of the oxide and chlorides
g). describe the reactions of the oxides with water (treatment of peroxides and superoxides is not
required)
h). describe and explain the acid / base behavior of oxides and hydroxide, including, where
relevant, amphoteric behavior in reaction with sodium hydroxide (only) and acids
i). describe and explain the reactions of the chloride with water
j). interpret the variations and trends in (f), (g), (h) and (i) in terms of bonding and
electronegativity.
k). suggest the types of chemical bonding present in chlorides and oxides from observations of
their chemical and physical properties.
In addition, candidates should be able to:
l). predict the characteristic properties of an element in a given group by using knowledge of
chemical periodicity
m). deduce the nature, possible position in the Periodic Table, and identity of unknown elements
from given information of physical and chemical properties.
9.2 GROUP II
Content
i. Similarities and trends in the properties of the Group II metals magnesium to barium and
their components.
ii. Some uses of Group II compounds
Learning outcomes

a). describe the reactions of the elements with oxygen and water
b). describe the behavior of the oxides with water
c). describe the thermal decomposition of the nitrates and carbonates
d). interpret and make predictions from, the trends in physical and chemical properties of the
elements and their compounds.
e). explain the use of magnesium oxide as a refractory lining material and calcium carbonate as a
building material
f). describe the use of lime in agriculture
g). interpret and explain qualitatively the trend in the thermal stability of the nitrates and
carbonates in terms of the charge density of the cation and the polarisability of the large anion.
h). interpret and explain qualitatively the variation in solubility of the sulphates in terms of
relative magnitudes of the enthalpy change of hydration and the corresponding lattice energy.
9.3 GROUP IV
Content
The elements carbon to lead as a group in which the physical and chemical properties of the
elements change with increase in proton number from non- metals through metalloids to metals
and their compounds.
I The variation in melting points and electrical conductivies of the elements
II The bonding, molecular shape volatility and hydrolysis of the tetrachlorides
III The bonding, acid /base nature and thermal stability of the oxides of oxidation states II
and IV
IV The relative stability of higher and lower oxidation states for the elements in their oxides
and aqueous cations.
Learning outcomes

a). outline the variation in melting point and in electrical conductivity of the elements and
interpret them in terms of structure and bonding.
b). describe and explain the bonding in, molhloridesecular shape and volatility of the tetra
c). describe and explain the reactions of the tetrachlorides with water in terms of structure and
bonding
d). describe and explain the bonding, acid base nature and thermal stability of the oxides of
oxidation states II and IV
e). describe and explain the relative stability of higher and lower oxidation states of the elements
in their oxidises and aqueous cations, including – where relevant values
f). recognize the properties and uses of ceramics based on silicon IV oxide.
9.4 GROUP VII
Content
This similarities and trends in the physical and chemical properties of chlorine, bromine and
iodine
I Characteristics physical properties
II The relative reactivity of the elements as oxidizing agents
III Some reactions of the halide ions
IV The manufacture of chlorine
V The reactions of chlorine with aqueous sodium hydroxide
VI The important uses of the halogens and of halogen compounds (see also section 10.4)
Learning Outcomes
a). describe the trends in volatility and colour of chlorine, brominc and iodine
b). interpret the volatility of the elements in terms of van der Waals forces
c). describe and deduce from EΘ values the relative reactivity of the elements as oxidizing
agents
d). describe and explain the reactions of the elements with hydrogen
e)i. describe and explain the relative thermal stabilities of the hydrides
ii. interpret these relative stabilities in terms of bond energies
f). describe and explain the reactions of halide ions with
i. aqueous silver ions followed by aqueous ammonia
ii. concentrated sulphuric acid
g). outline a method for the manufacture of chlorine from brine a diaphragm cell (see also
section 6)
h). describe and interpret in terms of changes of oxidation number the reaction of chlorine
with cold, and with hot, aqueous sodium hydroxide
i). explain the use of chlorine in water purification.
j). recognize the industrial importance and environmental significance of the halogens and
their compounds (e.g for bleaches PVC, halogenated hydrocarbons as solvents, refridgerants and
in aerosols) (see also Section 10.3)
9.5 AN INTRODUCTION TO THE CHEMISTRY OF TRANSITION ELEMENTS
Content
I. General physical and characteristic chemical properties of the first set of transition
elements, titanium to copper
II. Colour of complexes
Learning Outcomes
a). explain what is meant by a transition element, in terms of d – block elements forming one or
more stable ions with incomplete d orbitals
b). *state the electronic configuration of a first row transition element of its ions
c). state that the atomic radii, ionic radii and first ionization energies of the transition elements
are relatively invariant.
d). contrast, qualitatively, the melting point, density, atomic radius, ionic radius, first ionization
energy and conductivity of the transition elements with those of calcium as a typical a block
element.
e). describe the tendancy of transition elements to have variable oxidation states.
f). predict from a given electronic configuration, the likely oxidation states of a transition
element
g).describe and explain the use of Fe3+, MnO4/Mn2+ and CrOr2+/Cr3+ as examples of redox
systems (See also section 6)
h). predict, using EΘ values, the likelihood of redox
i). *Explain qualitatively that ligand exchange may occur, including the complexes of copper (II)
ions with water hydroxide and ammonia.
k). describe the shape and symmetry of the d orbitals, and the splitting of detergents of orbitals
into two energy levels in octahedral complexes of copper (II) ions with water and ammonia as
examples
l). explain the origin of colour in transitional metal complexes resulting from the absorption of
light energy as an electron moves between two non- degenerate d orbitals.
m). describe, in quantitative terms, the effects of different ligands on the absorption, and hence
colour, using the complexes of copper (II) ions with water, hydroxide and ammonia as examples.
n). state examples of catalysis by transition metals and/ or their compounds, including iron in the
Haber process and vanadium in the Contact process.
9.6 NITROGEN AND SULPHUR
Content
1. Nitrogen
i). Its unreactivity
ii). Ammonia, the ammonium ion, nitric and fertilizers
iii). The environmental impact of nitrogen oxides and nitrates

2. Sulphur
i). The formation of atmospheric sulphur dioxide, its role in acid rain formation, the use of
sulphur dioxide in food preservation.
ii). Sulphiric acid
Learning Outcomes
a). explain the lack of reactivity of nitrogen
b). describe:
i). the formation, and structure, of the ammonium ion
c). describe the Haber process for the manufacture of ammonia from its elements, giving
essential operating conditions, and interpret these conditions (qualitatively) in terms of the
principles of kinetics and equilibra (see also sections 7 and 8)
d). understand the environmental consequences of the uncontrolled use of nitrate fertilizers.
e). understand the industrial importance of ammonia and nitrogen compounds derived from
ammonia
f). understand and explain the occurrence and catalytic removal of oxides of nitrogen.
g). explain why atmospheric oxides of nitrogen are pollutants, including their catalytic role in the
oxidation of atmospheric sulphur dioxide.
h). describe the formation of atmospheric sulphur dioxide from the combustion of sulphuric
contaminated carbonaceous fuels.
i). state the role of sulphur dioxide in the formation of acid rain and describe the main
environmental consequences of acid rain.
j). state the main details of the Contact process for sulphuric acid production.
k). understand the industrial importance of sulphuric acid
l). describe the use of sulphur dioxide in food preservation.
10. ORGANIC CHEMISTRY
Statement of Aims
Although there are features of organic chemistry topics that are distinctive. It is intended in that
appropriate cross references with other sections/ topics in the syllabus should be made.
When describing preparative reactions, candidates will be expected to quote the reagents, e.g.
aqueous NaOH, the essential practical conditions e.g. reflux, and the identity of each of the
major products. Detailed knowledge of practical procedures is not required, however candidates
may be expected to suggest (from their knowledge of the reagents, essential conditions and
products) what steps may be needed to purify/ extract a required product from the reaction
mixture. In equations for organic redox reactions, the symbols (O) and (H) are acceptable.
10.1 INTRODUCTORY TOPICS
In each of the sections below, 10.1 to 10.8 candidates will be expected to be able to predict the
reaction products of a given compound in reactions that are chemically similar to those specified.
Content
i. Molecular, structural and empirical formulae
ii. Functional groups and the namlog or organic compounds
iii. Character organic reactions
iv. Shapes of organic molecules
v. Isomerism: structural : cis trans; optical
Structural formulae
In candidates answers, an acceptable response to a request for a structural formula will be to give
the minimal detail, using conventional groups, for an unambiguous structure e.g.
CH3CH2CH2OH for propan -1 ol not C3HlOH.
Displayed formulae
A display formula should both the relative placing of atoms and the number of bonds between
them e.g.
H O
H C C
H O H for ethanoic
The convention for representing the aromatic ring is preferred.
The symbol for cyclohexane is acceptable. Skeletal or partial skeletal representations of the
carbon backbone are also acceptable where they are unambiguous.
Optical Isomers
When drawing a pair of optical isomers, candidates should indicate the three dimensional
structures according to the convention used in the example below.
Learning outcomes
a). interpret and use the nomenclature, general formulae and displayed formulae following
classes of compound:
i). alkanes, alkenes and arenas
ii). halogenoalkanes and halogenoareness
iii). Alcohols (including primary, secondary and tertiary) and phenols
iv). Aldehydes and ketones
v). carboxylic acids, esters and acyl chlorides
vi). Aminos (primary only), nitrites, amides and amino acids
(Candidates will be expected to recognize the shape of the benzene ring when it is presented in
organic compounds. Knowledge of benzene or its compounds is not required for AS.)
b). Interpret and use the following terminology associated with organic reactions:
i). functional group
ii). hemolytic and heterolytic fission
iii). Free radical, initiation, propagation, termination
iv). Nucleophile, electrophila
v). addition, substitution, elimination, hydrolysis
vi). Oxidation and reduction
(In equations for organic redox reactions, the symbols (O) and (H) are acceptable)
c). i). „Describe the shapes of the ethane, ethane and benzene molecules
ii). „predict the shapes of other related molecules‟
d). „explain the shapes of the ethane, ethane and benzene molecules in terms of δ and π carbon-
carbon bonds.
e). describe structural isomerism
f). describe cis-trans isomerism in alkanes, and explain its origin in terms of restricted rotation
due to the presence of bonds.
g). „explain what is meant by a chiral centre and that such a centre gives rise to optical
isomerism.
h). deduce the possible isomers for an organic molecule of known molecular formula.
i). identify chinal centres and/ or cis- trans isomerism in a molecule of given structural formula
10.2 HYDROCARBONS
Content
I. Alkenes (exemplified by ethane)
a. Free radical reactions
b. Crude oil and cracking
II. Alkenes (exemplified by ethane)
a. Addition and oxidation reactions
b. industrial importance
III. Arenes (exemplified by benzene and methylbenzene)
a. influence of delocalized π electrons on structures and properties
b. Substitution reactions with electrophiles
c. Oxidation of side chain
IV. Hydrocarbons as fuels
Learning Outcomes:

a). be aware of the general unreactivity of alkenes, including towards polar reagents
b). describe the chemistry of alkanes as exemplified by the following reactions of ethane:
i. Combustion
ii. Substitution by chlorine and by bromine
c). describe the mechanism of free radical substitution at methyl groups with particular reference
on the initial, propagation and termination reactions.
d). describe the chemistry of alkenes as exemplified, where relevant, by the following reactions
of ethane:
i). *addition of hydrogen, steam, hydrogen halides and halogens
ii). * oxidation by cold, dilute manganate (VII) ions to form diol
iii). Oxidation by hot, concentrated manganete (VII) ions leading to the rupture of the carbon
double bond in order to determine the position of alkene linkages in larger molecules.
iv). Polymerization (see also Section 10.8)
e). *describe the mechanism of electrophillic addition in alkenes, using bromine/ ethane as an
example.
f). explain the use of crude oil as a source of both and aromatic hydrocarbons
g). suggest how „cracking‟ can be more useful alkanes and alkenes of lower Mr from larger
hydrocarbon molecules
h). describe and explain how the combustion reactions of alkenes lead to their use as fuels in
industry, in the home and in transport.
i). recognize the environmental consequences of carbon monoxide, oxides of nitrogen and
unburnt hydrocarbons arising from the internal combustion engine and of their catalytic removal.
j). describe the chemistry of arenas as exemplified by the following reactions of benzene and
methylbenzene:
a. „substitution reactions with chlorine and with bromine

b. nitration
c. oxidation of the side chain to give a carboxylic acid
d. describe the mechanism of electrophillic substitution in arenas, using the mononitration of
benzene as an example
e. describe the effect of the delocalization of electrons in arenas in such reactions
k). predict whether halogenation will occur in the side chain or aromatic nucleus in arenas
depending on reaction conditions.
l). apply the knowledge of positions of substitution in the electrophillic substitution of arenas.
10.3 HALOGEN DERIVATIVES
Content
I Halogenoalkanes and halogencarenes
a. Nucleophillic substitution
b. Hydrolysis
c. Formation of nitrites, primary armines
d. Elimianation
II Relative strength of the C-Hal bond
Learning Outcomes:
a). recall the chemistry of halogenoalkanes as exemplified by
i). the following nucleophillic substitutions reactions of bromoethane, hydrolysis of nitrites,

formation of primary amines by reaction with ammonia
ii). the climination of hydrogen bromide from 2 bromopropane
b). describe the mechanism of nucleophillic substitution (by both Sn1 and Sn2 mechanisms) in
halogenoalkalines.
c). interpret the different reactivities of halogenoalkanes e.g. CFCs , anesthetics, flame
retardants, plastics and chlorobenzene with particular reference tohydrolysis and to the relative
strengths of the C- Hal bonds.
d). explain the uses of flouralkanes and flourohalogenoalkkanes in terms of their relative
chemical inortness.
e). recognize the concern about the effect of chloroflouroalkanes on the ozone layer
Content
I Alcohols (exemplified by ethanol)
a. Formation of halogenoalkanos
b. Reaction with sodium, oxidation, dehydration, esterification, acylation
c. The tri- iodomethane test
II Phenol
a Its acidity reaction with sodium
b. Nitration of, and bromination of, the aromatic ring
Learning Outcomes
a. recall the chemistry of alcohols, exemplified by ethanol
i. combustion
ii. substitution to give halogenoalkanes
iii. reaction with sodium

iv. oxidation to carbonyl compounds and carbocylic acids
v. dehydration to alkenes
vi. oster formation
vii. classify hydroxyl compounds into primary, secondary and tertiary
viii. suggest characteristic distinguishing reactions e.g. mild oxidation
deduce the presence of a CH3CH(OH) – group in an alcohol from its reaction with alkaline
aqueous iodine to form tri – iodomethene
d). recall the chemistry of phenol, as exemplified by the following reactions:
i). with bases
ii). with sodium
iii). Nitration of, and bromination of, the aromatic ring
e). explain the relative acidities of water, phenol and ethanol
10.5 CARBONYL COMPOUNDS
Content
I. Aldehydes (exemplified by ethanol)
a. Oxidation to carboxylic acid
b. Reaction with hydrogen cyanide
c. Characteristic tests for aidehydes
II. Katones (exemplified by propanone and phenylcthanone)
a. Reaction with hydrogen cyanide

b. Characteristic tests for ketones
learning Outcomes
a). Describe
i. the formation of aldehydes and ketones from primary and secondary alcohols respectively
using Cr2O12+lH6
ii). the reduction of aldehydes and ketones e.g. using NaBH4
b). describe the mechanism of the nucleophilic addition reactions of hydrogen cyanide with
aldehydes and ketones
c). describe the use of 2,4 dinitrophenythydrazibne (2,4 DNPH) tp detect the presence of
carbonyl compoumds.
d). deduce the nature (aidehyde or ketone) of an unknown carbonyl compound from the results of
simple test (i.e Fehling‟s and Tollens reagents, ease of oxidation)
e). describe the reaction of CH3CO- compounds with alkaline aqueous iodine to give tri-
iodomethane.
10.6 CARBOXYLIC ACIDS AND DERIVATIVES
Content:
I. Carboxylic acids (exemplified by ethanoic acid and benzoic acid)
a. Formation from primary alcohols and nitrites
b. Salt, ester and acyl chloride formation
II. Acyl chlorides (exemplified by ethanoyl chloride)

a. Ease of hydroclysis compared with alkyl and aryl chlorides
b. Reaction with alcohols, phenols and primary amines
III. Estares (exemplified by ethyl ethanoats and phenyl benzoate)
a. Formation from carboxylic acids and from chlorides
b. Hydrolysis (under acidic and under basic conditions)
c. Uses of esters
Learning Outcomes
a. Describe the formation of carboxylic from alcohols, aidehydes and nitrites
b. describe the reactions of carboxylic acids in the formation of:
i. salts
ii. esters
iii. acyl chlorides
c). explain the acidity of carboxylic acids and of chlorine substituted ethanoic acids in terms of
their structures
d). describe the hydrolysis of acyl chloride
e). describe the reactions of acyl chlorides with alcohols, phenols and primary amines
f). explain the relative case of hydrolysis of acyl chlorides, alkyl chlorides and aryl chlorides
g). describe the formation of esters iron carboxylic acids or acyl chlorides, using ethyl ethanoate
and phenyl benzoate as examples
h). describe the acid and base hydrolysis of esters
i). describe the formation of polysters (see also section 10.8)
j). state the major commercial uses of esters e.g. solvents, perfumes, flavourings
10.7 NITROGEN COMPOUNDS
Content
I. Primary amines (exemplified by ethylamine and phenylamine)
a. formation
b. salt formation
c. other reactions of phenylamine
II Amides (exemplified by ethanamide)
a. formation from acyl chlorides
b. hydrolysis
III Amino acids (exemplified by aminoethanoic acid)
a. Acid and base properties
b. Zwitterion formation
IV Proteins
a. Structure, based on the peptide lnkage
b. Hydrolysis of proteins
Learning Outcomes
a). describe the formation of ethylamine (by nitrate reduction – see also Section 10.3) and of
phenylamine (by reduction of nitrobenzene)
b). explain the basicity of amines
c. explain the relative basicities of ammonia, ethylamine and phenylamine in terms of their
structures.
d). describe the reaction of phenylamine with:
i. aqueous bromine
ii. nitrous acid to give the diazonium salt and phenol and the use of similar reactions in the
formation of dyestuff
e). describe the coupling of benzenediazonium chloride and phenol and the use of similar
reactions in the formation of dyestuff
f). describe amide hydrolysis on treatment with aqueous alkali or acid.
g). describe the acid / base properties of amino acids and the formation of zwitterions
i. describe the formation of peptide bonds between amino acids and, hence, explain protein
formation.
ii. describe the hydrolysis of proteins
iii. describe the formation of polyamides (see also section 10.8)
10.8 POLYMERISATION
Content:
I Addition polymerization
II Condensation polymerization
Learning Outcomes
a). describe the characteristic of addition polymerization as exemplified by poly (ethane) and
PVC
b). recognize the difficulty of the disposal ofpoly (alkene)s i.e non biodegradability and harmful
combustion products.
c). describe the characteristics of condensation polymerization
i. in polysters as exemplified by Terylene
ii. in polyamides as exemplified by peptides, proteins, nylon 6 and nylon 6.6
d). predict the type of polymerization reaction for a given monomer or pair of monomers
e). deduce the repeat unit of a polymer obtained from a given monomer or pair of monomers
f). deduce the type of polymerization reaction which produces a given section of a polymer
molecule
g). identify the monomer(s) present in a given section of a polymer molecule.
11. APPLICATIONS OF CHEMISTRY
Key concepts
- Chemistry is fundamental to understanding biological systems and processes and to modern

medicine
- Novel chemistry can provide both the means of monitoring and solutions to environmental
problems
- the chemist is a designer, both of methods of analysis and of novel molecules and materials
- the applications of chemistry have both positive and negative impacts on society and can be
useful to address the issues of pollution, disease and resources
11.1 THE CHEMISTRY OF LIFE
At the end of this course candidates should be aware of the diverse variety of roles played by the
proteins. These will be illustrated by examples in this section and in sections 11.2 and 11.3. The
recalls of specific examples will not be tested but candidates will be expected to discuss the
chemistry of given examples.
Content
I Protein chemistry
II Genetic information
III Energy
IV Metals in biological systems
Learning Outcomes
a). recall that proteins are condensation polymers formed from amino acid monomer and
recognize and describe the generalized structure of amino acids (link to core syllabus, sections
10.7 and 10.8)
b). explain the importance of amino acid sequence (primary structure) in determining the
properties of proteins.
c). distinguish between the primary, secondary and tertiary structure of proteins and explain the
establisation of secondary and tertiary structure using the chemistry learnt in the core syllabus,
sections 3 and 10.7
d). describe and explain the characteristics of enzyme catalysts, including
i. specifically (using a simple lock and key model) and the idea of competitive inhibition
ii. structured integrity in relation to denaturation and non- competitive inhibition
e). given information, use core chemistry to explain how small molecules interact with proteins
and how they can modify the structure and function of biological systems (for example, as
enzyme inhibitors, disrupting protein interactions, blocking ion chemicals) (link to 11.3 a).
f). describe the double heitcal structure of DNA in terms of a sugar phspophatre backbone and
attatched bases. (Candidates will be expected to know the general structure in terms of a block
diagram but will not be expected to recall the detailed structures of the components involved.
Where these are required they will be given in the question paper).
g). explain the significance of hydrogen bonding in the pairing of bases in DNA in relation to the
replication of genetic information.
h). explain in outline how DNA encodes for the amino acids sequence of proteins with reference
to mRNA and tRNA and the ribosome in transition and transcription.
i). explain the chemistry of DNA mutation from provided data

j). discuss the genetic basis of disease (for example, sickle cell anaemia) in terms of altered
protein structure and function.
k). explain how modification to protein/ enzyme primary structure can result in structure and/ or
function.
l). outline in terms of the hydrolysis of ATP to ADP + Pa the provision of energy for the cell.
m). understand why some metals are essential to life and , given information and with reference
to the chemistry of the core syllabus, be able to explain the chemistry involved and potassium in
transmission of nerve impulses (section 3, ion salvation and section 5, energetics), zinc as an
enzyme cofactor (section 10.1, nucleophillic attack)
n). recognize that some metals are toxic and discuss, in chemical terms, the problems associated
with heavy metals in the environment entering the food chain, for example mercury
(development of methods to detect and address these problems will be discussed in 11.2 (i) and
11.3 (f).
11.2 APPLICATIONS OF ANALYTICAL CHEMISTRY
Questions in this section will focus on the techniques involved rather than the recall of examples.
All necessary information about the context will be given in the question and candidates will be
expected to apply their knowledge.
Content:
i. Methods of detection and analysis
ii. Applications in chemistry and society
Learning outcomes
a). describe simply the process of electrophoresis and the effect of pH, using peptides and amino
acids as examples (link to 11.1 a).
b). explain, in simple terms, the technique of DNA fingerprinting and its applications in forensic
science, archeology and medicine
c). describe the importance to modern medicine, and the challenges, of separating and
characteristic the protein in cells (link to 11.1)
d). Outline in simple terms the principles of nuclear magnetic resonance in 1H and be able to
interrupt simple NMR spectra.
e). show awareness of the use of NMR and X – ray crystallography in determining the structure
of macromolecules and in molecules their function (link to 11.1) and 11.2 (c)
f). state what is meant by partition coefficient and calculate a partition coefficient for a system in
which the solute in the same molecular state in the two solvents.
g). understand qualitatively paper, high performance liquid, thin layer and gas/ liquid
chromatography in terms of absorption and/ or partition and be able to interpret data from these
techniques.
h). explain the concept of mass spectroscopy, deduce the number of carbon atoms in a compound
using the M+1 peak and the presence of bromine and chlorine atoms using the M+2 peak and
suggest the identity of molecules formed by simple fragmentation in a given spectrum (see also
core syllabus, section 1 (c) and (d).
i). Draw conclusions given appreciate information and data from environmental monitoring (for
example, PCBs in the atmosphere, isotopic ratios in ice cores)
11.3 DESIGN AND MATERIALS
Candidates will not be expected to recall specific examples but to use and explain materials
given in the question paper.
Content:
i. Medicinal chemistry and drug delivery
ii. Properties of polymers
iii. Nanotechnology
iv. Environment and energy
Learning Outcomes
Candidates should be able to use the concepts and knowledge from the core syllabus in sections
11.1 and 11.2 to:
a). discuss the challenges of drug design and explain in simple terms how molecules may be
identified and developed to overcome these problems.
b). discuss the challenges of drug delivery and explain in simple terms how materials may be
developed to overcome these problems.
c). discuss the properties and structure of polymers based on their methods of formation
(addition or condensation, link to core syllabus, section 10.8)
d). discuss how the presence of side chains and intermolecular forces affect the properties of
polymeric materials (for example, spider silk)
e). show awareness of nanotechnology and, given information and data, be able to discuss the
chemistry involved with reference to the core syllabus.
f). discuss how a knowledge of chemistry can be used to extend the life of existing resources, to
identify alternative resources and to improve the efficiency of energy production and use.
TOPIC 1
ATOMS, MOELCULES AND STOICHIPMETRY
SECTION A
Mole concept
1. A mixture of 10cm3 of methane and 10cm3 of ethane was sparked with an excess of oxygen.
After cooling to room temperature, the residual gas was passed through aqueous potassium
hydroxide. What volume of gas was absorbed by the alkali?
a. 15cm3
b. 20 cm3
c. 25cm3
d. 30 cm3
e. 40 cm3
2. On heating 0,02 mol of the element M reacts with 0,025 mol of oxygen gas. What is the
empirical formula of the oxide of M?
a. M2O
b. MO2
c. MO4
d. M2O5
e. MO5
3. When potassium chlorate (V) KCIO3+ is heated at its melting point, it disproportionate to
potassium chlorate (VII) KC/O4 and potassium chloride
What is the maximum number of moles of potassium chlorate (VII) which could be produced
from 0.1 mol of potassium chlorate (V)?
a. 0.1
b. 0.08
c. 0.019
d. 0.06
e. 0.05
4. When 20cm3 of a gaseous hydrocarbon were completely burnt is n excess of oxygen, 60cm3
of carbon dioxide and 40cm3 of water vapour were formed, ali volumes being measured all the
same temperature and pressure.
What is the formula of the hydrocarbon?
a. C2H6
b. C3H4
c. C3H6
d. C3H8
e. C6Hg
5. In a pathology laboratory a sample of urine containing 0.120g of urea, NH2CONH2+ (Mr = 60)
was treated with an excess of nitrons acid. The urea reacted according to the following equation
NH2CONH2 + 2HNO2 CO2 + 2N2 + 3H2O
The gas produced was passed through aqueous sodium hydroxide and the final volume
measured. What was this volume at room temperature and pressure? (Molar volume of a gas at
r.t.p is 24 000 cm3 mol-1)
a, 0,6cm3
b. 14.4 cm3
c. 48.0cm3
d. 96.0cm3
e. 144.0cm3
6. Group I and Group II ionic hydrides react with water:
H- (S) + H2O(l) OH (aq) + H2 (g)
In an experiment, 1 g samples of each of the following five ionic hydrides are treated with an
excess of water.
Which sample produces the greatest mass of hydrogen?
a. CaH2
b. LiH
c. MgH2
d. NaH
e. Kh
7. A mixture of 10cm3 of oxygen and 50cm3 of hydrogen is sparked continuously.
What is the maximum theoretical decrease in volume? (All gas volume are recorded at 298K and
standard atmospheric pressure)
a. 10cm3
b. 15cm3
c. 20cm3
d. 30 cm3
e. 40cm3
8. A gaseous organic compound X was burnt in an excess of oxygen. A 0.112dm3 sample of X

measured at s.t.p produced 0.88g of carbon dioxide.
How many carbon atoms are there in one molecule of X?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
e. 8
9. How many atoms of carbon are present in 18g of glucose, C6H12O6?
a. 6.0 x 1022
b. 3.6 x 1023
c. 6.0 x 1023
d. 3.6 x 1024
e. 6.0 x 1024
10. When the salt (C2H5)4N6Cl- is treated with hydrogen chloride, a white ionic solid X is
formed.
When X is dissolved in water, a 20cm3 sample of the solution requires 24cm3 of 0.1 mol dm-3
NaOH for neutralization.
Another 20cm3 sample of the solution requires 40cm3 of 0.1 mol dm-3 AgNO3 for complete
precipitation of chloride as AgCL.
What do these data show the formula of the anion in X to be?
a. HCl -2
b. HCl -2/ 3
c. HCl -3/4
d. H2CL-3
e. H2Cl-3/5
11. A tube is filled with 50cm3 of methane and 150cm3 of oxygen at room temperature over a
vessel containing KOH (aq) as shown in the diagram. The reaction CH4 + 2O3 CO2 +
2H2O was caused to take place.
When the tube is cooled to the original temperature, at what level will the liquid be?
12. Analytical chemists can detect very small amounts of amino acids down to 3 x 10-21 mol.
How many molecules of an amino acid (Mr = 200) would this be?
a. 9
b. 200
c. 1800
d. 40 000
e. 360 000
13. The hardness present in a water sample due to dissolved calcium ions can be determined by
using an ion exchange column as shown in the diagram.
A 50cm3 sample of a solution containing calcium sulphate was passed through the ion exchange
resin. The calcium ions in the sample were quantitatively exchanges by hydrogen ions. The
sample collected in the flask required 25cm3 of 1.0 x 10-2 mol dm-3 potassium hydroxide for
complete neutralization.
What was the concentration of the calcium sulphate in the original sample?
a. 2.5 x 10-2 mol dm-3
b. 1.0 x 10-2 mol dm-3
c. 2.0 x 10-2 mol dm-3
d. 4.0 x 10-2 mol dm-3
14. Which of the following exerts the highest pressure?
a. 1 mol N2 at 00C in 11.2 dm3
b. 1 mol of N2 at 27 0C in22.4 dm3
c. 1 mol of H2O at 270C in 1 dm3

d. 1 mol of C4H10 at its normal boiling point
15. Methane was burned in an incorrectly adjusted burner. The methane was converted into a
mixture of carbon dioxide and carbon monoxide in the ratio of 99:1 together with water vapour.
What will be the volume of oxygen consumed when ydm3 of methane is burned?
a. (2y – 0.01y ) dm3

2
b. (2y – 0.01y) dm3
c. (y – 0.01y ) dm3
2
d. (y – 0.01y) dm3
16. Use of data booklet is relevant to this question.

How many electrons have to be removed to ionize 1.0 x 10-6 mol of Ne atoms to Ne+ ions in a
neon advertising tube?
a. 6.02 x 1023
1.0 x 10-6
b. 1.0 x 10-6 x 6.02 x 1023
c. 1.0 x 10-6 x 6.02 x 1023

20.2
d. 1.0 x 10-6 x 6.02 x 1023

9.65 x 104
17. What volume of 0.10 mol dm-3 aqueous silver nitrate reacts with 20cm3 of 0.20 mol dm-3
harium chloride.
a. 10cm3
b. 20cm3
c. 40cm3
d. 80cm3
18. The use of data booklet is relevant to this question.

Bromine, extracted from the Dead Sea is transported as a 52% solution (by mass) of calcium
bromide.
What mass of bromine, in tonnes, is contained in 100 tonnes of solution?
a. 52 x 160
100 x 200
b. 52 x 80
200
c. 52 x 160
200
d. 52
19. Which of the following contains 1 mol of the stated particles?

a. chlorine molecules in 35.5g of chlorine gas
b. electrons in 1g of hydrogen gas
c. hydrogen ions in 1dm3 of 1 mol dm -3 aqueous sulphuric acid
d. oxygen atoms in 22,4dm3 of oxygen gas at s.t.p
20. Nervous disorders resulting from mercury poisoning occur because mercury forms a 1:3
complex with lipoyl groups which are vital for glucose metabolism.
If the average concentration of lipoyl groups in the body fluid is 1.0 x 10-8 mol kg-1, what mass
of mercury could complex all the lipoyl groups in a human containing 5.0 kg of body fluid?
a. 2.5 x 10-9 g
b. 4.0 x 10-8 g
c. 1.0 x 10-7 g
d. 1.0 x 10-5 g
21. To identify an oxide of nitrogen, 0.10 mol of the oxide is mixed with an excess of
hydrogen and passed over a catalyst at a suitable temperature.
H2(g)
NxOy xNh3 + yH2O
Catalyst
The water produced weighs 7.20g. The ammonia produced is neutralized by 200cm3 of 1.0 mol
dm-3 HCl.
What is the formula of the oxide of nitrogen?
a. N2O
b. NO
c. NO2
d. N2O4
22. Which statement about one mole of a metal is always true?

a. it contains the same number of particles as one mole of hydrogen atoms.
b. it contains the same number of particles as 1/12 mole of 12/C
c. it has the same mass as one mole of hydrogen atoms.
d. It is liberated by one mole of electrons.
23. What is the minimum volume of air required for complete combustion of 10cm3 of a
hydrocarbon C3H4?
(Assume that air contains one fifth oxygen by volume and that both gas volumes are measured at
the same temperature and pressure.)
a. 40cm3
b. 50cm3
c. 200cm3
d. 250 cm3
24. A pure hydrocarbon was completely isolated from bottled gas used for cooking and heating.
When 10cm3 of the hydrocarbon were buried in 70cm3 of oxygen (an excess), the final gaseous
mixture contained 30cm3 of carbon dioxide and 20cm3 of unreacted oxygen. All gaseous
volumes were measured under identical conditions. What is the formula of the hydrocarbon?
a. C2H6
b. C3H6
c. C3H8
d. C4H16
25. Sodium azide NaN3 is made for use in ear „air bags‟. When this compound is heated to
3000C, it rapidly decomposes into its elements.
Which volume of gas, at room temperature and pressure would be produced by the
decomposition of one mole of sodium azide.
a. 24dm3
b. 36dm3
c. 48dm3
d. 72dm3
26. When 20cm3 of a gaseous hydrocarbon were completely burnt in an excess of oxygen 60cm3
of carbon dioxide and 40cm3 of water vapour were formed, all volumes being measured at the
same temperature and pressure.
What is the formula of the hydrocarbon?

a. C3H4
b. C3H6
c. C3H8
d. C6H8
27. Complete combustion of a hydrocarbon gave 0.352g of carbon dioxide and 0.072 of water.
Which formula could represent this hydrocarbon?
a. CH2 = CH2
b. CH2 = CH – CH = CH2
c.
d.
28. In 1892, Lord Rayleigh made atmospheric nitrogen by removing oxygen from the
atmosphere. He found the density of this nitrogen to be 1,2572g dm-3 at s.t.p. Chemically pure
nitrogen has a density of 1,2505g dm-3 at s.t.p.
Which gas was present in „atmospheric nitrogen‟ to cause this discrepancy?
a. argon
b. hellum
c. methane
d. neon
29. The reaction of hydrogen sulphide with sulphur dioxide gives sulphur as one of the
products.
H2S (aq) 5(s) + 2H (aq) + 2e-

SO2 (aq) + 4H+ )aq) + 4e- S (s) + 2H2O (I)
How many moles of hydrogen sulphide are needed to react with sulphur dioxide to produce 1
mol of sulphur?
1
a. /3 mol
2
b. /3 mol
3
c. /2 mol
d. 2 mol
30. Since 1850, most books have been printed on acidic paper, which eventually becomes brittle
and disintegrates. These books can be preserved by treatment with ditchylzinc vapour.
Zn(C2H5)2, which reacts both with acids residues and also with small amounts of water retained
in the paper.
Ditchylsinc reacts with an acid to give ethane.
Zn (C2H5)2 + 2HX ZnX2 + 2C2H6

Which of the products are likely to result from the reaction of diethylzinc with water?
a. ZnH2 + C2II6
b. ZnH2 + C2H5OH
c. Zn(OH)2 + C2H6
d. Zn(OH)2 + C2H5OH
31. Which statement about one mole of a metal is always correct?

a. it contains the same number of atoms as 1 mol of hydrogen atoms
b. it contains the same number of atoms as 1/12 mol of 12C
c. it has the same mass of 1 mol of hydrogen atoms
d. it is liberated by 1 mol of electrons
32. Carbon disulphide CS2, is a volatile flammable liquid used in the manufacture of cellophane.
On combustion, CS2 is oxidized as follows
CS2(g) + 3O2 (g) CO2 (g) + 2SO2 (g)
A 20cm 3 sample of carbon disulphide vapour is ignited with 100cm3 of oxygen. The final
volume of gas after burning is treated with an excess of aqueous alkali.
Which percentage of this final volume dissolves in the alkali?

(All volumes measured at the same temperature and pressure conditions under which CS2 is a
gas)
a. 20%
b. 40%
c. 60%
d. 80%
33. Bones contain a complex mixture or calcium salts, protein and other material. When a bone
is strongly heated in a current of air, the only residue is calcium oxide.
From a separate of 50.0 g of bone. 14.0g of calcium oxide were obtained.
What is the percentage by mass of calcium in the bone?
a. 10.0%
b. 14.0%
c. 20.0 %
d. 23.3 %
34. Which statement about relative atomic mass is correct?

a. it is ratio of masses
b. it is measured in grams
c. it is related to the number of atoms in a molecule
d. it is the same as the mass of 1 mol of atoms
35. When a refrigerator comes to the end of its useful life, it is desirable to recover and destroy
any chloroflouroalkanes (CFCs) used as the refridgerator.
A process was devised in 1996 to pass CCI2F2 through a packed bed of sodium ethanedoiate at
2700C, this CFC into solid and gaseous products.
CCI2F2(g) + 2Na2C2O4(s) 2NaCI(s) + 2NaI-2(s) + X (s) + yCO2(g)
What is the identity of the product X and the number y?
X Y
a. C 2
b. C 4
c. 2C 2
d. 2C 4
36. In polluted air, the white pigment in older oil paintings forms lead (II) sulphide. PbS, that is
black. To restore the white colour a solution of hydrogen peroxide H2O2 is used.
PbS(s) + 4H2O2 (aq) PbSO4(s) + 4H2O(l)
Black pigment white pigment
(Mr: Pbs, 239, H2O2+, 34)
What mass of hydrogen peroxide is required to react with 0.239g of lead (II) sulphide?
a. 0.034g
b. 0.060g
c. 0.136g
d. 0.956g
37. As a simplification, an adult human can be considered to have a daily diet of 1.80 kg of
carbohydrate (empirical formula CH2O)
Which mass of carbon dioxide does a person produce each day if all carbohydrate eaten is
digested and oxidized?
a. 0,267kg
b. 0,800kg
c. 1,32kg
d. 2,64kg
38. For complete oxidation, 1 mol of an organic compound requires 3 mol of oxygen gas.
What could be the formula of the compound?
a. CH3CHO
b. CH3CH2OH
c. CH3CH3
d. CH3CO2H
39. The use of the Data Booklet is relevant to this question.

What is the number of molecules in 500cm3 of oxygen under room conditions?
a. 1.25 x 1022
b. 1.34 x 1022
c. 3.0 x 1022
d. 3.0 x 1026
40. Chlorine gas is a severe irritant to the eyes and respiratory system. The maximum safe
toleration level of chlorine gas in air is 0,.005 mg dm-3.
How many molecules of chlorine gas are present in 1dm3 of air at this toleration level?
a. 0.005 x 71
6 x 1023
b. 0.005 x 6 x 1023
71
c. 0.005 x 1 x 6 x 1023
1000 71
d. 0.005 x 71 x 6 x 1023
1000
MASS SPECTOMETRY
1. The relative atomic mass of chlorine is 35.5. Which one of the following is the mass
spectrogram of chlorine.
2. Which one of the following pieces of information about an element cannot be obtained by
using a mass spectrometer?
a. the relative atomic mass
b. the relative masses of the isotopes
c. the relative abundance of the isotopes
d. the number of isotopes
e. the electron configuration of its atoms
3. The relative atomic mass of boron which consists of the isotopes 103B and 115B is 10B. What is
the percentage of 115B atoms in the isotopic mixture?
a. 0.8%
b. 8.0%
c. 20%
d. 80%
e. 92%
4. The diagram shows the mass spectrum of an alkane X

What is likely to be?
a. C12H26
b. C6H12
c. C3H12
d. C4H10
5. Bromine occurs naturally as two isotopes 7935Br and 8135Br, in equal abundance.
The mass spectrum for 12C2 1H4Br2 is obtained.
Which one of the following gives the complete mass spectrum illustrated?
a. CO2
b. C3H8
c. N2O
d. a mixture of CH4 and N2
6. Which a sketch shows part of the mass spectrum of the refridgerator CF2CI2?
(The isotopes are 12C, 19P, 35Cl, 37CI)
8. Which set of mlc values is most likely to correspond to the mass spectrum of chlorine gas?
Mlc values
A 35 35.5 37 70 71 74
B 35 37 70 72 74
C 35 37 70 74
D 35 37 71
9. Which pair of characteristics is shown by the mass spectra of propanone and propoanal?
Mass of molecular ion molecular fragmentation

a. different different
b. different same
c. same same
10. The diagram shows the mass spectrum of a sample of naturally occurring copper.
What is the relative atomic of this copper?
a. 63.3
b. 63.5
c. 63.6
d. 64.0
SECTION B
For each of the questions in this section one or more of the three numbered statements 1 to 3 may
be correct. Decide whether each of the statements is or is not correct (you may find it helpful to
put a tick against the statements which you consider to be correct). The responses A to E should
be selected on the basis of
A B C D E
1, 2 and 3 are 1 and 2 only are 2 and 3 only are 1 only is correct 3 only is correct
correct correct correct
No other combination of statements is used as a correct response.
MOLE CONCEPT
1. In an experiment 10cm3 of an organic compound in the gaseous state were sparked with an
excess of oxygen, 20cm3 of carbon dioxide and 5cm3 of nitrogen were obtained among the
products. All gas volumes were measured at the same temperature and pressure.
Which of the following molecular formulae would fit these data?

1. C2H2N 2. C2H3N 3. C2H6N2
2. Compounds containing CN- are toxic, 50mg of CN- being fatal to humans.
Which of the following do not contain free CN- ions?
1. NH4CN 2. CH3CN 3. [He(CN)6] 4-
3. Which statements about a 12.0g sample of 12C are correct?

1 The number of atoms is 6.01 x 1023
2. The number of atoms is the same as the number of atoms in 4.0g of 4He.
3. The number of atoms is the same as the number of atoms in 2.0g of 1H2-
MASS SPECTROMETRY
1. The mass spectrum of sulphur vapour is shown.
Which conclusions can be drawn from this mass spectrum?
1. The most abundant species in the vapour is S2
2. The relative molecular mass of sulphur vapour is 64.
3. Sulphur has eight isotopes.
2. Which of the following can be determined by using a mass spectrometer?

a. the relative molecular mass of an organic compound
b. the accurate mass of an individual nuclide
c. the proton (atomic) number of an unidentified element.
3. The diagram shows the form of results that is obtained by one technique in analytical
chemistry.
Which types of information can be determined from such a diagram?

a. the relative atomic mass of an element
b. the relative molecular mass of a compound
c. the possible structure of an organic compound
SECTION C
MOLE CONCEPT
1. Hydrazine N2H4 is used as a rocket fuel.
Calculate the volume of oxygen, measured at s.t.p which would be required for the complete
combustion of 100 kg of hydrazine.
2a). Define the term mole.

Why is the phrase „the mass of one mole of oxygen‟ ambiguous? (2)
b). A meteorological balloon of 2m diameter has a volume of 4,19 m3 or 4190dm3. It float since
it is given an upthrust equal to the mass of air it displaces.
Calculate (i) the mass the hydrogen in the balloon

ii). the mass of air it displaces
iii). The load the balloon can carry for it just to lift off from the ground.
[Average M1 of air = 29. Under the conditions of inflation, 1 mol of hydrogen occupies a volume
of 23dm3].
3. Pure silicon is required for microchips. It can be manufactured by heating silicon tetrachloride
with zinc.
i). Construct a balanced equation for this reaction
A sample of silicon tetrachloride contained 10%, by mass of unreactive material as impurity.
ii). Calculate the mass of pure silicon that could be obtained by heating 8.50g of the impure
tetrachloride with an excess of zinc.
4. One brand of antacid chewing gum contains 2.5% by mass of urea.

Each mole of urea reacts with two moles of aqueous acid in the mouth to give carbon dioxide
and an ammonium salt.
Construct a balanced equation for the reaction between urea and the ethanoic acid that occurs in
vinegar and use it to deduce the mass of chewing gum that would be required to neutralize 1.00 g
of ethanoic acid. (4)
5. TNT is used as an explosive. It can decompose according to the following equation.
a). The volume of gas produced at 4000C when 10g of TNT explode is to be calculated.
i. What is the relative molecular mass of TNT? (1)
ii. How many moles of gas are produced from 1 mol of TNT? (1)
At 4000C and 1 atm, 1 mol of gas occupies 55dm3
iii. What volume of gas at 4000C and 1 atm will be produced from the 10g of TNT? (2)
6. By using the data in this question, estimate how much oxygen a person requires on average in
a life time and how far a motor car can go using the same amount of oxygen.
The typical daily food requirement of a person can be considered to be 1.2 kg of carbohydrate.
The person obtains energy by the oxidation of the carbohydrate. The person obtains energy by
the oxidation of the carbohydrate, which can be represented by the formula (CH2O)n
a)i. Construct an equation for the complete oxidation (combustion) of the carbohydrate (CH2O)n.
ii). The empirical relative formula mass of the carbohydrate is 30.
Use your equation above to calculate the number of moles of oxygen required by the person each
day.
iii. How many moles of oxygen will a person require in a life time of 70 years? (3)
A typical motor car requires 6dm3 of octane C8H18 to travel 100km.

b)i. Construct an equation for the complete combustion of octane.
ii). The density of octane is 0.7 g cm-3
Calculate how many moles of octane are present in the 6 dm3 of octane. [Mr of octane, C8H18 is
1. [4]
iii). Calculate how many moles of oxygen would be required to burn the 6dm3 of octane
completely. (4)
c). Calculate how many kilometers the car can travel using the same amount of oxygen a person
uses in a life time (your answer to (a) (iii).
7. A coal fired power station (which generates electricity) is fitted with a Five Gas
Desulphurisation (FCD) plant, which removes some of the sulphuric dioxide from waste gases.
In the FCD plant, the waste gases are treated with powered limestone,CaCO3, producing calcium
sulphate CaSo3. This is oxidized by air to form solid calcium sulphate CaSO4-
b). Write a balanced equation in each case to show how

i. limestone reacts with sulphur dioxide
ii. air oxidizes calcium sulphite. (2)
c).i. Use the equation in (b) (i) to determine the maximum mass of sulphur dioxide which could
be removed by 3 x 105 t of limestone in the FCD plant. (t = tonne= 1000kg)
ii. Use the equations in (b) to determine the maximum mass of calcium sulphate which wouls be
produced from 3 x 105 of limestone. (2)
d). The FGD plant removes 90% of the sulphur dioxide from the waste gases.
Using your answer to (c) (i) , calculate the mass of sulphur dioxide which is released into the
atmosphere each year by this power station when 5 x 106 t of coal are burnt. (1)
8b). Analysis of a sample of a mixture of the two sulphur containing gases showed that hydrogen
sulphide and carbon disulphide were present in a 5:1 mole ratio. During analysis, this mixture
was burned in an excess of oxygen.
i). Write a balanced equation for the complete combustion of H2S and of CS2.
ii. Calculate the SO2, CO2 mole ratio in the mixture obtained after combustion.
iii. The SO2 and CO2 mixture dissolves in aqueous NaOH. Give the formula of an anion
produced from each of these oxides. (4)
9a). State the full electronic configuration of krypton. (1)

b). Explain what is meant by the term isotope. (1)
c). Natural samples of krypton consist of mixtures of isotopes. A particular sample produced the
following peaks in its mass spectrum.
Nucleon number relative abundance (%)

80 2.4
82 11.7
83 11.6
84 56.9
86 17.4
i). Calculate its average Ar from these data.

ii). State the number of electrons, protons and neutrons present in the atoms with nucleon
numbers 83 and 86. (4)
d). When an evacuated glass bulb of 1.00 dm3 capacity was filled with another sample of krypton
at a pressure of 1.00 x 105 Pa and a temperature of 300 K, its mass increased by 3.32g. Calculate
the average Ar of this sample of krypton, and deduce whether it is likely o have the same
isotopic composition as the sample in (c). (3)
10.c. Indigestion remedies often contain a suspension of magnesium hydroxide. When a typical
dose of 10.0 cm3 of suspension was mixed with water and titrated against 0.200 mol dm-3
hydrochloric acid, 35.0cm3 of acid were required to neutralize it.
Calculate the mass of magnesium hydroxide in the dose. (3)
11.b). When a sample of methane hydrate was brought to room temperature and pressure 160cm3
of methane and 1000g of water were produced.
i). How many moles of methane are contained in 160cm3?
ii). How many moles of water are contained in 1000g?
iii). How many moles of water are associated with each mole of methane in methane hydrate? (3)
12. Calcium sulphate occurs naturally as the dihydratic gypsum CaSO42H2O. When heated to
1600C, gypsum loses some of its water to give palster of Paris, which is used for making fine
plaster casts and for setting broken limbs.
During the heating process, 100g of gypsum loses 15.7g of water. Calculate the formula of
plaster of Paris. (3)
13. Sodium peroxide Na2O2 is used in submarines for absorbing atmospheric carbon dioxide and
regenerating oxygen. The reaction produces sodium carbonate as a by- product.
i. Write a balanced equation for this reaction

ii. Calculate the mass of sodium peroxide needed per day to absorb the carbon dioxide produced
by a craw of eight submarines, each of whom exhales 600dm3 of CO2 per day.
14. When aqueous ammonia is added to an aqueous solution of an aluminium salt, a precipitate
of „aluminium hydroxide‟ is formed as an amorphous gelatinous mass. When dried, this
precipitate forms a white crystalline compound called bochmite.
Bochmite has the following composition by mass, AI, 45.0%, O, 53,3%, H, 1,7%
Calculate the empirical formula of bochmite and write a balanced equation for its formation from
aluminium ions and hydroxide ions. (3)
15. i. Write an equation of calcium hydroxide with ethanoic acid to produce calcium hydroxide
with ethanoic acid to produce calcium ethanoate.
ii. When calcium ethanoate is heated a liquid ketone A, of composition C, 62.1%, H, 10.3%, O,
27.6% by mass, with an Mr of 58 is produced. Use these data to calculate the empirical formula
and identify A.
Construct an equation for the thermal decomposition of calcium ethanoate.
16a). Gallium exists as two isotopes 69Ga (65%) and 71O3 (35%)
i). Calculate the relative atomic mass of gallium
ii). Define the term relative atomic mass. (3)
b). Galliam nitride could revolutionise electric light bulb design as only a small filament is
needed to give a bright light.
Gallium reacts with nitrogen gas to form gallium nitride.
i). Write an equation for the formation of gallium nitride.
ii). Calculate the volume of nitrogen at room temperature and pressure which will react with
10.0kg of gallium. (3)
MASS SPECTROMETRY
1. Ion implantation techniques are currently being developed. Ion implantation involves
bombarding the surface of a material with charged atoms so that the bombarding atoms mingle,
just below the surface, with the atoms of the host material. Metals, silicon and ceramics are
frequently used as the host material. The surface of the host material becomes modified;
imperfections in the material are removed so that resistance to wear and corrosion are improved.
Also, adhesive techniques allow the formation of a surface coating which is chemically different
from the host material.
The ion gun is outlined in the diagram below:
a). What will be the formulac of the ions produced from the following elements?
i). chromium……………………….
ii). nitrogen……………………….. (2)
b)i. What causes ionization to take place in chamber A?

ii. What is used to deflect the ions in chamber C?
iii. Explain how the ions are accelerated in the chamber between points D and E.
iv). What important operating condition has been omitted from the description of the ion gun?
(4)
c). What will be a likely change of the surface properties of a steel target after prolonged ion
bombardment with chromium ions? (1)
2a). What do you understand by the term relative atomic mass?
b). Outline, with the aid of a labeled diagram, the use of the mass spectrometer in the
determination of relative atomic masses. (7)
Naturally occurring gallium, Ga is a mixture of two isotopes, gallium 71. Use this information,
together with the relative atomic mass of gallium on page 3 of your Data Booklet, to calculate
the percentage abundance of each isotope. (3)
c). The mass spectrum of chlorine, CI2(g), consists of packs at m/e values of 70, 72 and 74 of
relative abundance 9:6:1. Explain these observations as fully as you can. (8)
3. Apart from peaks associated with solitary nitrogen atoms (at m/e = 14) and chlorine atoms (at
m/e = 35 and m/e = 37), the mass spectrum of nitrogen trichloride contains 9 peaks arranged in 3
groups, ranging from m/e = 49 to m/c = 125. Predict the m/e values of all 9 peaks, and suggest a
formula for the species responsible for each one. (6)
4. Because of differing proportions of isotopes, the relative atomic mass of lead depends on its
source.
Two samples of lead were subjected to analysis. The mass spectrum of the first was taken and
the following results were obtained:
Mfc value of peak Relative abundance

204 2.7
206 48.0
207 41.5
208 100.0
When 1.000g of the second sample was converted into lead (II) chloride, the mass of the product
was 1.341g.
Calculate the average relative atomic mass of each sample of lead, and decide whether or not the
two samples have identical isotopic compositions. (4)
(Take the relative atomic mass of chlorine to be 35.45)
5. The five isotopes of krypton occur in the following abundances:
Relative isotopic mass % abundance

80 2
82 12
83 12
84 57
86 17
Use the data to calculate a value, to one decimal place, for the A1 of atmospheric krypton. (2)
6. Iodine and chlorine can react together to give a compound A. The mass spectrum of A. The
mass spectrum of A contains 12 peaks, or which the first three are at m/e values of 35, 37 and
127, and the last one is at an m/e value of 238.
a). Predict the m/e values of four of the other peaks, giving the formula of the species responsible
for each peak. (3)
b). Suggest a molecular formula for compound A, and calculate the oxidation number and the
percentage, by mass, of iodine in it. (2)
c). When dissolved in an excess of aqueous potassium iodide, A liberates iodine quantitatively.
i. Predict the equation for the reaction between A and potassium iodide.
ii. What volume of 1.00 mol dm-3 sodium thlosulphate would be required to react with all the
iodinic liberated when 1.00g of A reacts with an excess of aqueous potassium iodide? (3)
7a). Chlorine consists of two isotopes 35Cl and 37Cl in the abundance ratio 3:1. Phosphorous is
mono- isotopic, 31P. Apart from lines due to atomic ions, the mass spectrum of a chloride of
phosphorous contains 9 lines arranged in 3 groups:
Group m/e values of lines
A 66, 68
B 101, 103, 105
C 136, 138, 140, 142
i). Identify the ions responsible for each group of lines. (2)
ii). Predict the abundance ratios of the various m/s values within each group. (3)
b). Naturally occurring carbon contains mainly the 12C isotope, with about 1% of 13C and a much
smaller percentage of 14C. By measuring the intensities of the moleculkar ion peak at m/e = M
and the peak at m/c = M + 1,the number of carbon atoms in a molecule of a compound can be
calculated.
i). Assuming that the molecules may contain so isotopes other than 12C, 5H and 16O suggest the
molecular formulae of the following compounds and give your reasons. (3)
compound m/e no. of carbon atoms

I 30 1
II 30 2
III 74 3
IV 74 4
ii). Predict, with a reason, which of the two compounds I and II has the higher boiling point. (2)
8. When the isotopically labeled ester.

HO - CH3
CH3 - C
O
Was completely hydrolysed in dilute acid, and the mass spectrum of the mixture was recorded,
peaks occurred at m/e values of 18, 34 and 60.
Identify the species responsible for each peak, and hence deduce which of the two C – O bonds
in the ester breaks during hydrolysis. (4)
9. An organic acid has the following composition by mass: C 40.0%, H, 6.7%, O 53,3%. Its mass
spetrum shows major peaks (including the molecular ion) at the following mle (mass) values, 15,
43, 45, 60.
a). Calculate the empirical formula of the acid, and use the mass spectrum to suggest its
molecular formula and its structural formula.(3)
b). By suggesting their molecular formula, identify the various species responsible for the peaks
in the mass spectrum. (3)
c). When measurements are made of the Mr of the acid in a non- aqueous solvent like pentane, a
value of 120 is obtained. Suggest an explanation for this, and draw a displayed formula for the
species formed. (3)
10.a). Define an isotope in terms of its sub atomic particles. (1)

b). In a mass spectrometer some hydrogen chloride molecules will spilt into atoms. The mass
spectrum of HCl is a given. Chlorine has two isotopes. The hydrogen involved here is the isotope
1
H only.
i). What particle is responsible for the peak at mass 35?

ii). What particle is responsible for the peak at mass 38? (2)
c). Use the relative heights of the peaks to determine the proportions of the two isotopes of
chlorine. Explain simply how you obtained your answer. (2)
d). Use your answer to (c) to explain why chlorine has a relative atomic mass of 35.5 (1)
ANSWERS
SECTION A
Mole concept
1. D 2. D 3. C 4. B 5. D
6. B 7. D 8. D 9. B 10. A
11. D 12. C 13. A 14. A 15. A
16. D 17. D 18. C 19. B 20. D
21. D 22. A 23. C 24. C 25. B
26. A 27. D 28. A 29. B 30. C
31. A 32. C 33. C 34. A 35. B
36. C 37. D 38. B 39. A 40. C
Mass Spectrometry
1. E 2. E 3. D 4. A 5. B
6. C 7. D 8. B 9. C 10. A
Section B
Mole concept
1. B 2. C 3. B
Mass Spectrometry
1. D 2. B 3. A
Section C
Mole concept
1. 700 dm3
2. a)i. 364g ii). 5283,8g iii). 4,92kg

3 i. 1,27g
4. 20g
5.i). 227 ii). 7.5 iii). 18.2dm3
6.a)i. 40 mol ii). 102 x 106 mol
b)i. 36.8 mol ii). 460.5 mol
c). 2.2 x 103 km
7.i). 1,92 x 105 tonnes ii). 4.08 x 105 tonnes
b). 1,92 x 104 tonnes
8. 7: 1
9.i. 83,9
ii). 82,7
10. 0,203g
11.i. 6.7 x 10-3 moll
ii. 55.6 mol
iii. 8.33 x 103 mol
12. CaSO4 ½ H2O

13. 15.6 kg
14. AIO2H
15. C3H6O
16a). 69.7
b). 1721.7 dm3
Mass Spectrometry
2. 69Ga, 65% 71
Ga, 35%
4. 207,9
5. 83.9
6. A = ICβ ii). 17.1 cm3
9a). Empirical formula = CH2O
Molecular formula = C2H4O2
Structural formula = CH3COOH
10. i. 35CI+ ii). H37CI+

TOPIC 2
ATOMIC STRUCTURES
SECTION A
1. Which of the following ions has more electrons than protons and more protons than neutrons?
1 2 4 16
[H = 1 H; D = 1 H, He = 2 He; O = 8 O]
a. D-
b. He-
c. OH-
d. D3O+
e. OD-
2. Which of the following corresponds to the configuration of the three electrons of highest
energy for the ground state of an element in Group III?
a. 1s2 – 2s1
b. 1s1 2s1 2p1
c. 2s1 2p2
d. 3p1
e. 4s2 4p1
3. Which of the following elements has no paired p electrons in a single uncombined atom of the
element?
Element proton (atomic) number
a. carbon 6
b. oxygen 8
c. neon 10
d. magnesium 12
e. silicon 14
4. Which of the following electronic configurations represents an element that forms a simple ion
with a charge of -3.
a. 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p1
b. 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p3
c. 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3dt 4s2
d. 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d3 4s2
e. 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p4 3d7 4s7
5. What is the proton (atomic) number of an element that has four unpaired electrons in its
ground state?
a. 6 b. 14 c. 16 d. 22 e. 26
6. Which of the following formulae represents a particle with the composition 1 proton, 1
neutron and 2 electrons?
(D represents deuterium, 2H)
a. D b. D- c. H- d. He e. He-
7. Which of the following ions contains an unpaired electron?

a. Ca2+ b. Cu2+ c. K+ d. Tle+ e. Zn2+
The successive ionization energies in kj mol-1 of an element X are given below.
870 1800 3000 3600 5800 7000 13200
What is X?
a. 33As
b. 90Zr
c. 52Te
d. 53I
9. What is the electronic configuration of the atom of the element which is isoelectronic with (i.e
it has the same number of electrons as) 112 S7
a. 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2
b. 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p2
c. 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p4
d. 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6
10. Which of the following particles would on ionizing an electron have a half filled set of p
orbitals?
a. C- b. N c. N- d. O+ e. O-
11. Use of the Data Booklet is relevant to this question

The graph shows the logarithm 1g of the ionization energies for the outermost seventeen
electrons in an atom of an element X.
Which of the following could be X?
a. argon
b. calcium
c. chlorine
d. potassium
SECTION B
pass a tick against the statements which you consider to be correct). The responses A to B should
be selected on the basis of :
A B C D E
1, 2, and 3 are 1 and 2 only are 2 and 3 only are 1 only is correct 3 only is correct
1. Which statement about s,p and d orbitals of principal quantum numbers 1,2, and 3 are correct?
i. Each s orbital can contain a maximum if two electrons.

ii. A series of transition elements arises from the filling of d orbitals.
iii. A p orbitals has a higher energy than the s orbital of the same principal quantum number.
2. Gaseous particle X has a proton (atomic) number n and a charge of +1.

Gaseous particle Y has been Y has a proton (atomic) number of (n + 1) and is isothermic with
(has the same number of electrons as) X.
Which of the following statements correctly describe X and Y?
i. X has a larger radius than Y

ii. X requires more energy than Y when a further electron is removed from each particle.
iii. X releases more energy than Y when an electron is added to each particle.
3. Which of the following statements about 3215P, 3216S are correct?

i. The phosphorous atom has more neutrons than the sulphur atom.
ii. If a neutron is added to the nucleus of 3215P, 3216S is produced
iii. Both contain 32 electrons
4. A species Z has the following electronic configuration.
What could Z be?

1. Cl+ ion 2. S atom 3. Ar2- ion
5. Which statements about atomic particles are correct?

i. The nucleon number of an element is the number of neutrons in one of the element
ii. The proton number of an element is the number of protons in one atom of the element
iii. The size of the charge on an electron is the same as that on a proton.
6. Which particles have a single unpaired electron?

i. the copper ion in CuO
ii. the methyl free radical
iii. a molecule of NO
7. Semiconductors are now widely used in electronic devices. An element is semi conductor if
one of its electronic levels is fully occupied (such as an s level), but a level immediately above it
is only slightly higher energy (such as a p level) and is empty or only partially filled.
On this basis, which elements could be expected to be semi conductors?
1. 31Ga 2. 32Ge 3. 31Sb
SECTION C
1. Describe the relative charges and masses of the three types of particle contained within the
atom.
How do beams of these particles behave in an electric field? (6)
2. Beams of particles traveling at the same speed from different sources are subjected to an
electric field as shown in the diagram below. A beam of neutrons has already been drawn.
a). Sketch on the diagram above how beams of each of the following particles are affected by the
electric field:
2
i). proton ii). electrons iii). 1H+
Label each of the beams. (3)

b). Explain briefly the position and shape of each beam:
i. protons ii). electrons iii). 21H+
3a). Describe the lithium atom, 7Li as fully as you can, including the nature and location of the
sub atomic particles.
b). Predict, with reasons how the radius of

i. the fluoride ion F-
ii. the magnesium Mg2+
compares with the radius of the neon atom. (4)
4a). Describe the relative masses and relative charges of the three sub atomic particles : protons,
neutrons and electrons. (3)
b). Describe by means of a diagram, how the paths of separate beams of:
i). protons
ii). deuterons ( a deuteron is an atomic nucleus containing a proton and a neutron).
iii). Hydrogen atoms
are affected on passing through an electric field which is at right angles to their direction of
travel. You should relate clearly the magnitude and the direction of deflection of each beam to
the others. (3)
5a). On a scale where the proton has a mass of one unit and a charge of +1, state the masses and
charges of
i). a neutron
ii). an electron
iii). An alpha particle (which is the nucleus of a helium atom) (4)
b). A particle contains 18 electrons, has a charge of 3- and a mass of 31 units. Deduce the
numbers of protons and neutrons it contains. (2)
c). Isotopes are atoms of the same element that have different numbers of neutrons. In most
cases, different numbers of neutrons. In most cases, different isotopes of the same element have
identical chemical reactions. Why is this? (2)
6a). Define the terms i). isotope ii). isotopic mass

b).i. Give the symbols (showing the nucleon numbers and charges) of the following three
particles
Particle Protons Neutrons Electrons
P 6 8 6
Q 7 7 10
R 8 7 7
ii). Use the Data Booklet to identify which are not the usual isotopes of the elements concerned.
(6)
c). A plasma is a gaseous mixture in which the atoms have been completely stripped of their
electrons, leaving bare nuclei. Because of possible use in controlled nuclear fusion reactions,
plasma behaviour has been intensively studied. When passed between two plates carrying a
certain electric charge. 1H and 4He nuclei are defected as follows:
Giving reasons for your answers, suggest

i). the popularity (+ or -) of plane A
ii). Why 1H is deflected twice as much as 4He
iii). The angles of deflection of i). 2H nuclei ii). 3He nuclei
7. The use of Data Booklet is relevant to this question

i). Sketch how the first ionization energies of the elements change from lithium to neon.
ii). Give the equation that represents the first ionization energy of nitrogen.
iii). Explain why the first ionization energy of oxygen is less than that of nitrogen. (4)
b)i. State the electronic configuration of nitrogen.

ii). Draw and label the shapes of the two types of electron orbital found in nitrogen atoms. (3)
8. In this question, a maximum of 4 marks is available for the quality of language.
a). State and explain the trend of the first ionization energies for the Group 1 elements lithium to
cesium. (2)
b). Explain the trend of the first ionization energies across the period sodium to argon. (2)
9. Sir James Jeans who was a great populariser of science, once described an atom of carbon as
being like six bees buzzing around a space the size of a football stadium.
a)i. Suggest what were represented by the six bees in this description.
ii). Explain (in terms of an atom of carbon) what stopped the bees from flying away from the
space of the football stadium.
iii). What is missing from Jeans‟ description when applied to an atom of carbon? (3)
b). The diagram below represents the energy levels of the orbitals in atoms of the second period,
lithium to neon.
i). Label the energy levels to indicate the principal quantum number and the type of orbital at
each energy level.
ii). In the space below, sketch the shapes of the two types of orbital.
iii). Complete the electron configurations of nitrogen and oxygen on the energy level diagrams
below, using arrows to represent electrons.
iv). Explain with reference to your answer to (iii), the relative values of the first ionization
energies of nitrogen and oxygen. The values are given in the Data Booklet and should be quoted
in your answer. (6)
c)i. State the formulae of the negatively charged ions, but not positive ions, in simple binary
compounds? (2)
ANSWERS
SECTION A
1. C 2. E 3. A 4. B 5. E
6. B 7. B 8. C 9. D 10. C
11. D 12. D 13. B 14 D 15. C
16. A 17. A 18. B 19. A 20. B
21. C 22. A 23. D 24. B 25. B
26. C 27. A 28. D 29. D 30. B
31. C
SECTION B
1. A 2. D 3. D 4. B 5. C
6. A 7. A
SECTION C
5b). no, of protons = 15 , no. of neutrons = 16
6b).i. P is 14C, Q is 14N3-, R is 15O+
7a).i. N (g) N+ (g) + e
b). 1s2 2s2 2p3
9. electrons
b). N3 – and O2-
10. i. V3-, X2-, Z-
ii. V3-, X2-, Y-
iii. V3-, W2-, Y-
c). V3-
d). Z-
11.c). 182 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d10 4s2 4p1

ii). b3- 1s2 2s2 2p6
TOPIC 3
CHEMICAL BONDING
SECTION A
1. Which one of the following is a property of a solution of dry hydrogen chloride in dry
methylbenzene?
a. It has pH less than 7
b. It is a non- conductor of electricity
c. It reacts with magnesium to give hydrogen
d. It reacts with dry copper (II) oxide on warming to give a blue solution.
e. It reacts with anhydrous sodium carbonate to give carbon dioxide.
2. Why is the boiling point of methane greater than that of a neon? (Ar, H, I, C, 12, Ne, 20)
a. A molecule of methane has a greater mass than a molecule of a neon
b. A molecule of methane has more electrons than a molecule of neon
c. Molecules of methane have stronger intermolecular forces than those of neon.
d. Molecules of methane from hydrogen bonds, but those of neon do not.
e. The molecule of methane is polar, but that of neon is not
3. A stable molecule containing atoms of the elements, X, Y and Z has the following structure.
Which of the following is a possible combination of elements?
X Y Z
a. N P Cl
b. O S Cl
c. B C H
d. P N P
e. P SI H
4. Why is the molecule of BCI3, planar, whereas the molecule of PH3 is pyramidal?
a. The boron atom has no d – orbitals available for bonding
b. The boron atom is BCl3 has six electrons in its valency shell, whereas the phosphorous atom
inPH3 has eight.
c. The repulsion between chlorine atoms is greater than that between hydrogen atoms
d. The covalent radius of phosphorous is greater than that of boron.
e. The covalent radius of chlorine is greater than that of hydrogen
5. Which of the following statements best explains why the boiling point of butanone (79.6 0C) is
higher that that of pentane (36.10C) ? (Ar, H, 1.0, C, 12, O, 16)
a. The relative molecular mass of butanane is higher than that of pentane.
b. The butanone molecule has a larger surface area than the pentane molecule.
c. The covalent bonds in the butanone molecule are stronger than those in the pentane molecule.
d. There are hydrogen bonds between butanone molecules but not between pentane molecules.
e. There are dipole forces between butanone molecules, but only van der Waals‟ forces between
pentane molecules.
6. Which of the following solids consist of atoms or molecules held together only by van der
Waals‟ forces?
a. CO2
b. Cu
c. H2O
d. MgO
e. SiO2
7. Which of the following statements describes a phenomenon which can be explained by

intermolecular hydrogen building?
a. The melting points of the Group I hydroxides increase with increasing relative molecular mass
(Mr)
b. The bonding points of the alkanes increase with increasing relative molecular mass
c. CH3OCH3 (Mr = 46) has a higher boiling point than CH3CH2CH3 (Mr = 44)
d. Hydrogen chloride forms an acidic solution when dissolved in water.
e. Ice has a lower density than water at 00C.
8. Which of the following molecules will not form a hydrogen bond with another of its own
molecules?
a. CH3CHO
b. CH3NH2
c. CH3OH
d. NH7
9. Which of the following structures represents the gaseous SnCl2 molecule?

10. Which of the following statements about the properties associated with ionic and covalent
bonds is correct?
a. A covalent compound cannot be an electrolyte

b. The only covalent compound with high melting points are those in which hydrogen bonds
occur.
c. Any covalent compound that contains both oxygen and hydrogen in its molecule forms
hydrogen bonds.
d. Ionic bonds and covalent bonds cannot both occur in the same compound
e. Ionic compounds differ from metals in that ionic compounds do not conduct electricity in the
solid state.
11. What is the approximate value of the O- C – O bond angle in ethanoic acid?
a. 450
b. 900
c. 1090
d. 1200
e. 1800
12. Which of the following isomers is likely to have the highest boiling point?
a. (CH3)3 CCH2 CH3
b. (CH3)2 CHCH (CH3)
c. (CH3)2 CHCH2 CH2 CH3
d. CH3CH2CH (CH3) CH2CH3
e. CH3 CH2 CH2 CH2 CH2 CH3
13. Which of the following molecules contains six bonding electrons?

a. C2H4
b. CO2
c. H2S
d. H2S
e. SF6
14. In which one of the following pairs do the molecules have similar shapes?
a. AICI3 and BCl3
b. AICI3 and PCI3
c. BF3 and NH3
d. BcCI3 and H2O
e. CO2 and SO2
15. The SO2-3 ion may be represented as
XX 2-
O- S- O
What is the O- S – O bond angle?

a. 900 exactly
b. about 1070
c. about 117.50
d. 1200 exactly
16. Which of the following molecules has no permanent dipole?

a. CCl2F2
b. CHCl3
c. C2Cl4
d. C2H5Cl
17. Oxygen reacts with platinum (VI) fluoride. PUF26, as follows:
O2 + PUF6 O+2 PUF-6
It was suggested that xenoin should react similarity and, in this way, the first noble gas
compound was produced.
Xe + PuF6 Xe+ PuF6-
What is the most likely reason for the suggestion being made?
a. O and Xe have similar atomic radii

b. O and Xe have similar electron affinities
c. O and Xe have similar electron configuration
d. O2 and Xe have similar first ionization energies
18. When barium metal burns in oxygen, the ionic compound barium peroxide BaO2 is formed.
Which dot and cross diagram could represent the structure of the peroxide anion in BaO27
19. Trimethylamine, Me3N, reacts with boron triflouride, BF3 to form a compound of formula
Me3N, BF3 (the symbol Me = CH3)
How may this reaction be written in terms of the shapes of the reactants and products?
20. In which pair of molecules is the permanent dipole in molecule I greater than in molecule II?
21. The Voyager 2 probe has shown that the surface of Trion, a moon of the planet Neptune,
contains condensed methane which flows rapidly.
Which statement explains the flow within the condensed methane?
a. Condensed methane has a metallic structure
b. Methane molecules contain strong C – H bonds
c. Methane molecules have a tetrahedral structure
d. The intermolecular forces between methane molecules are weak
22. The diagram shows a liquid flowing from a burette and a charged rod being brought near the
flow.
Which liquid would be deflected as shown?

a. bromine
b. cyclohexane
c. hexachloroethane
d. trichloromethane
23. MTBE is a constituent of petrol

What are the values of angle P and angle Q in a molecule of MTBE?
Angle P Angle Q
A 900 1050
b. 900 1800
c. 1090 1050
d. 1090 1800
24. BF3 CH3OH is a reagent used to form methyl esters from compounds containing acyl groups.
In the diagrams X- and O represent electrons from B, F and O respectively.
Which tetrahedral structure illustrates the electron pairs around the boron atom?
25. Which of the following molecules is not planar?

a. benzene
b. boron triflouride
c. ethane
d. phosphorous trichloride
26. Which type of bond is responsible for intermolecular forces in liquid tetrachloromethane
CCl4?
a. covalent bonding
b. hydrogen bonding
c. induced dipole – induced dipole attractions
d. permanent dipole – permanent dipole attractions
27. Which of the following best describes the change in the bond angle in water when ion H3O+
is formed?
a. decreases to approximately 900
b. decreases to approximately 1090
c. increases slightly
d. increases to approximately 1200
28. A mixture of aqueous silver nitrate and aqueous potassium cyanide, KCN, is used for
electroplating.
The mixture contains the complex ion [Ag(CN)2] –
What is the carbon - silver- carbon bond angle?
a. 1040
b. 109½ 0
c. 1200
d. 1800
29. Solid carbon dioxide, CO2(s), (dry ice) is used as a refrigerating agent because it readily
changes directly from the solid into the vapour state at a low temperature.
What does this indicate the main intermolecular bonding in CO2(s) to be?
a. covalent bonding
b. hydrogen bonding
c. ionic bonding
d. van der Waals‟ forces
30. Ethanol is much more soluble in water than is ethyl ethanoate. Which statement helps to
account for this?
a. A hydrogen bond forms between the hydrogen of the –OH group in ethanol and the hydrogen
of a water molecule.
b. A hydrogen bond forms between the hydrogen of the –OH group is ethanol and the oxygen of
a water molecule.
c. Ethanol is a polar molecule, but ethyl ethanote is non polar
d. Ethanol is able to dissociate into hydrogen ions and ethoxide ions, but ethyl ethanoate is not
able to dissociate.
31. What is the approximate value of the O – C – O bond angle in ethanoic acid?
a. 900
b. 1090
c. 1200
d. 1800
32. A compound has the structure shown.

What are the values of the bond angle x, y and z?
X Y Z
A 109.50 900 120
B 190.50 109.50 1800
C 1200 900 1800
D 1200 109.50 1200
33. A slow stream of water from a tap can be deflected by an electrostatically charged plastic rod
because water is a polar molecule.
Why is a water molecule polar?

a. Molecules are bonded together by hydrogen bonds.
b. The oxygen and hydrogen atoms have different electromegativities
c. The oxygen atom has two ionic pairs of electrons
d. Water is able to dissociate into ions
34. Why does copper wire conduct electricity when a potential difference is applied?
a. Bonding electrons in the crystal lattice move
b. Copper (II) ions move to the cathode
c. The atoms of copper become iodised
d. The crystal lattice breaks down
35. The melting point of an organic compound is dependent on the molecular forces present.
What is the order of increasing melting points of the polymers nylon 66, poly(ethane) and
Terylene of similar chain lengths?
a. nylon 66 < poly (ethane) < Terylene
b. poly(ethane) < nylon 66 < Terylene
c. poly (ethane) < Terylene < Nylon 66
d. Terylene < poly(ethane) <nylon 66
36. The C2H2 molecule is linear

What can be deduced from this about the numbers of δ and π bonds present in the molecule?
δ π
a. 2 2
b. 2 3
c. 3 1
d. 3 2
37. A stable molecule containing atoms of the elements X, Y and Z has the following structure
Which elements could X, Y and Z be?
X Y Z
a. N P Cl
b. O S Cl
c. B C H
d. P Si H
38. AlCl3 reacts with LiAlH4 and (CH3)3N to give (CH3)3 NAlH3.
Which statement about (CH3) 3 NAlH3 is correct?
a. It contains hydrogen bonding
b. it is dimeric
c. The Al atom is electron deficient
d. The bonds around the Al atom are tetrahedrally arranged.
SECTION B
For each of the questions in this section one or more of the three numbered statements 1 to
3 may be correct. Decide whether each of the statements is or is not correct (you may find it
helpful to put a tick against the statements which you consider to be correct). The
responses A to E should be selected on the basis of:
A B C D E
1,2 and 3 are 1 and 2 only are 2 and 3 only are 1 only is correct 3 only is correct
1. After an oil spillage at sea, a liquid hydrocarbon layer floats on the surface of the water.
Which of the following statements helps to explain why liquid hydrocarbons both float on, and
are less dense than, water?
i. There are only van der Waals‟ interactions between hydrocarbon molecules.
ii. Hydrogen bonding between the molecules in liquid water causes them to pack close together.
iii. Hydrocarbon molecules are not solvated by water.
2. Which of the following properties of ammonia can be explained in terms of hydrogen

bonding?
i. It is base
ii. The liquid form contains the ions NH+4 and NH-2
iii. It is very soluble in water
3. The bond lengths and bond angles in the molecules of methane, ammonia and water may be
represented as follows:
What causes this trend in the bond angles shown?
1. increasing repulsion between hydrogen atoms as the bond length decreases
2. the number of non bonding electron pairs in the molecule
3. a non bonding electron pair having a greater repulsive force than a bonding electron pair.
4. The boiling points of pentane and 2,2 dimethylpropanc are 360C and 90C respectively.
Which of the following suggested factors help to account for this difference in boiling points?
1. The covalent bonds in pentane are stronger than those in 2.2- dimethylpropane
2. There is more effective hydrogen bonding in pentane than in 2.2- dimethylpropane
3. The molecule of 2.2- dimethylpropane is more compact than that of pentane.
5. In microwave ovens, the wave energy produced is absorbed by certain polar molecules.
Which of the following would absorb microwave energy?
1 C2H3OH
2 NaCl
3 SiO2
6. Which of the following contain hydrogen bonds?

1 NH4Cl(s)
2 NH3(l)
3 HNO3(l)
7. Which molecules are linear in shape?

1 BeCl2
2 CO2
3 Cl2O
8. Beryllium is the first member of Group II and forms covalent compounds which are said to be
electron deficient. In many ways, beryllium resembles aluminium.
Which of the following are possible?
9. Compounds containing cyanide ions, CN-, are toxic: 50 mg of CN- is fatal to humans.
Which of the following do not contain free CN- ions?
1 NH4CN
2 CH3CN
3 [Fe(CN)6]4-
10. In which sequences are the molecules quoted in order of increasing bond angle within
molecule?
1 H2O NH3 CH4

2 H2O SF6 BF3
3 CH4 CO2 SF6
11. The concepts of bond energy, bond length and bond polarity are useful when comparing the
behaviour of similar molecules e.g. thermal stability.
For example, it could be said:
“Compared with the HCI molecule, the bond …..X…. of the HI molecule is …Y..”
Which pairs of words correctly complete the above sentence?
X Y
1 energy greater
2 length greater
3 polarity less
12. In which of the following reactions is the bond angle in the product greater than in the
reactant?
1 H2O (i) + H+ (aq) H3O+ (aq)

2 C2H4(g) + H2 (g) C2H6(g)
3 CO2(g) + OH- (aq) HCO-3(aq)
13. Silicon tetrachloride, SiCl4+ is a liquid of low boiling point. In the presence of water it
decomposes to form silicon (IV) oxide and hydrogen chloride.
What types of bonding occur in SiCl4(I)?
1 co-ordinate bonding
2 covalent bonding
3 van dor Waals forces
SECTION C
1. Explain each of the following observations as fully as you can
a). The relative molecular mass of ethanoic acid in benzene solution is approximately 120. (3)
b). The boiling point of ammonia (-330C) is higher than that of phosphine, PH3 (-870C) (4)
c). The nitrogen trichloride molecule is pyramidal in shape, but the boron trichloride molecule,
BCI3 is trigonal planar in shape. (4)
d). The bond energy of the nitrogen- nitrogen bond in the nitrogen molecule is 944 kj mol-1,
whereas the bond energy of the carbon- oxygen bond in the carbon monoxide molecule, which
is isoelectronic with nitrogen is 1074 kJ mol– 1
2. Draw a „dot and cross‟ diagram to show the electronic structure of a molecule of boron
triflouride, BF3. Use the electron pair repulsion theory to predict the shape of the molecule.
(4)
State and explain how you would expect boron triflouride to react with ammonia. Draw a dot-
and – cross diagram to show the electronic structure of the product of this reaction. (4)

b). The nitronium ion, NO2+ is linear, but the nitric ion NO2-, is non linear.
c). The melting point of 4 – nitrophenol is higher than that of 2 nitrophenol

a). When a charged poly(ethane) rod is held near trichloromethane which is being released from
a burette in a slow, steady stream the liquid stream is deflected. (3)
b). A solution of hydrogen chloride in water turns blue litmus paper red, but a solution of
hydrogen chloride in methylbenzene has no effect on dry litmus paper. (4)
5a). Hydrazine, N2H4 is used as a rocket fuel.
i). Draw a dot-and –cross diagram of a molecule of hydrazine. (2)
6a). State the number, charge and location of the sub atomic particles in the atom 168O. (3)
b). Calculate the number of each sub atomic particle in an atom of 7432Ge and give its electronic
configuration. (3)
c). Predict the formula, type of bonding, and physical properties of the oxide of germination in
its highest oxidation state. (4)
7a). What are the main features of the electron pair repulsion model for accounting for the shapes
of molecules? (2)
b). By considering the numbers of lone and bonding pairs of electron, predict the general shapes
of the following molecules or ions.
F2O, H3O+, C/F-4 (6)
c). Antimony, Sb, is in Group V of the Periodic Table. It forms a series of salts which contain the
SbF5n- anion, the structure of which is a square based pyramid.
Deduce the total number of electrons around the antimony atom, the value of n and the oxidation
number of Sb in this ion. (2)
8a). Describe the bonding present in

i). solid krypton, 36Kr
ii). solid rubidium, 37Rb (5)
b). Use your descriptions of their bonding to explain why the boiling point is -1520C whereas
that of rubidium is 6860C, despite their having nearly the same relative atomic mass Ar. (3)
9.b)i. Construct dot- and- cross diagrams to illustrate the bonding in the molecules of sulphur
difouride, SF2, and sulphur hexafluoride, and predict their shapes. (3)
ii). Caesium fluoride has a similar formula mass to sulphur hexafluoride. Describe three major
differences you would expect to find in the physical properties of the two compounds (3)
10. Selenium, Se, is in Group VI of the Periodic Table and occurs in nature as a mixture of six
isotopes having the relative abundances given below:
Nucleon (mass) number % abundance
74 0.9
76 9.0
77 7.6
78 23.5
80 49.8
82 9.2
a). Calculate the relative atomic mass, Ar of selenium to three significant figures. (2)
b). Predict the number of neutrons in the most abundant isotope of selenium and write down the
electronic configuration of the selenium atom. (2)
c). How would you expect the first ionization and of selenium to compare with that of (i) sulphur
ii) bromine ? Give your reasoning. (4)
d). Selenium dioxide, SeO2 is a solid that melts at 3150C and does not conduct electricity when
molten. State the type of bonding and structure you would expect to find in crystalline selenium
dioxide. (2)
1.a). What ions are formed when

i). ammonia is dissolved in HCl (aq)
ii). water has HCl(g) dissolved in it.
iii). Carbon dioxide is dissolved in an excess of NaOH(aq)
iv). Boron triflouride reacts with NAF? (4 x 1)
b). In (a) above, the bond angles in the reactants in italics differ from those in the ions they form.
By considering, in each case, the changes in the number, and type, of electron pairs around the
central atom, explain why. (6)
2. Aluminium fluoride (m.p 129t 0C) and phosphorous triflouride (m.p – 1510C) have very
different physical properties.
a). Draw dot- and – cross diagrams to illustrate the bonding in these compounds, and hence
explain the difference in their melting points. (3)
3. Describe the various forces responsible for keeping particles together in elements and
compounds and their effects on physical properties, making use of the data below.
Substance formula molar mass Mr m.p.f0C
Neon Ne 20 -248
Argon Ar 40 -189
Water H2O 18 0
Sodium fluoride NaF 42 993
Diamond C 12 3550
b). The table below gives the boiling points of five organic compounds.
Formula relative molecular mass boiling point 10C

A. CH3CH2CH2CH2CH3 72 36
B. (CH3)4C 72 10
C. CH3CH2OCH2CH3 74 35
D. CH3CH2CH2CH2OH 74 117
E. (CH3)3COH 74 82
By comparing A with B, A with C, C with D and D with E, suggest explanations for the
similarities or differences in the boiling points within each of these four pairs. (5)
5a). Describe the shapes of the four fluorides BF3, CF4, NF3 and SF6. Explain their shapes in
terms of the numbers and types of electron pairs they contain. (7)
b). The strength of the C – F bond is 467 kJ mol -1. Free chlorine atoms, initially formed in the
upper atmosphere by the actions of ultraviolet light on chloro fluorocarbons, CFCs, are believed
to be responsible for the destruction of the ozone layer.
By reference to the Data Booklet, suggest why CFCs such as CF2Cl2 are being replaced by
flouro- hydrocarbons such as C2H2F4. (3)
6a)i. The following table lists the boiling points of some compounds of hydrogen. By reference
to the type and extent of relevant intermolecular forces, explain as fully as you can the
differences in boiling points between A and B between B and C, and between A and D.
Compound Formula b.p/ 0C
A Methane CH4 -164
B Ammonia NH3 -33
C Water H2O 100
D Silane SiH4 -112
ii). Use the explanations you have given in (i) to predict boiling points for hydrogen fluoride,
HP, and for germanium hydride, GeH4 (8)
b). Honey contains 20% of water by mass, all of which is bound to sugar molecules by
intermolecules forces.
Assume the sugar contained in honey consists entirely of glucose, C6U12O6. A simplified
structure is given below
i). Calculate the average number of water molecules bound to each molecule of glucose in the
honey, assuming the honey contains glucose and water only.
ii). What type of intermolecular force is likely to be responsible for the binding of water to
glucose? Illustrate your answer with a diagram based on the above figure of glucose, showing
clearly which atoms take part in the intermolecular interaction. (4)
17. The boiling points and solubilities in water of the three gases ammonia, hydrogen chloride
and carbon dioxide are given in the table below:
Gas Formula Mr b.p/0C Solubility in

water/ mol dm-3
Ammonia NH3 17 -33 18
Hydrogen HCl 36.5 -85 23

chloride
Carbon dioxide CO2 44 -78 0.033
a).i. Describe both the intramolecular and the intermolecular bonding in each of the above
compounds, relating the bonding to the boiling point where appropriate.
ii. Draw a dot- and – cross diagram to show the arrangement of electrons in the CO2 molecule.
(6)
h). Each of these gases is soluble in water because it interacts with solvent.
i). Write equations for any chemical reactions that occur
ii). Suggest reasons for the much higher solubilities of ammonia and hydrogen chloride,
compared to that of carbon dioxide. (4)
18a). Draw dot- and – cross electron diagrams for aluminium chloride, AlCl3, and ammonia.
b). Explain why these two molecules form a product when they react in the molar ratio 1:1
(1)
c). By considering the numbers of bonding and non- bonding electron pairs, draw diagrams in
the boxes below to show the likely shapes of aluminium chloride, ammonia and the product.
In your diagrams, clearly indicate the values of the bond angles.
Aluminium chloride Ammonia
The product
(5)
d). Suggest the structural formulae of possible similar products from

i). beryllium diflouride and ammonia
ii). boron triflouride and ammonia (2)
19.a). Draw the shapes of the molecules of ethane, C2H6 and ethane, C2H4, showing the values of
the bond angles. (3)
b). The two carbon atoms of ethane can be described as being joined by a δ-bond and π bond.
Briefly explain the terms in italics using diagrams where appropriate. (3)
20. The average oxidation number of the two sulphur atoms in sodium thiosulphate Na2S2O3 is
+2.
When solid sulphur containing the radioactive isotope 35S is boiled with sodium sulphite
Na232SO3, a radioactive sample or sodium thiosulphate is produced. Adding HCl(aq) to this
sample cause all the 35S to precipitate as sulphur. The resuming solution contains non-
radioactive sulphite ions.
i). Draw the structural formula of the sulphiric ion.
ii). Use your answer to (i) and the reactions described to suggest a structure for the thiosulphate
ion produced. On your structure, label any radioactive atom.
iii). Deduce the oxidation number for each sulphur atom in the thiosulphate ion. (4)
21. Glucose is a sugar used to sweeten drinks. Its formula may be written as shown.
CHO
CHOH
CHOH
CHOH
CHOH
CH2OH
i). Which bonds are broken and which bounds are formed when glucose dissolves in water?
ii). Draw a simple diagram to show one of the bonds formed between glucose and water?
b). Some fizzy drinks are produced by dissolving carbon dioxide in them. State the bonding
between carbon dioxide and water in these fizzy drinks, and give an equation for any reaction
which occurs. (2)
22a). Magnesium fluoride MgF2, is a solid of a high melting point (126 0C) whereas sulphur
difflouride SF2 is a gas.
i). Suggest how these two fluorides differ in their bonding and suggest a reason for this
difference.
ii). Draw dot- and- cross diagrams (outer shells only) to show the different electron arrangements
in the two compounds. (5)
c). The compound SF2 readily reacts with fluorine to give SF4. Suggest reasons why MgF2 does
not react with more fluorine to give MgF4- (2)
23a). Boron triflouride BF3 and aluminium fluoride, AlF3 differ markedly in their physical
properties.
Compound Melting point / 0C
BF3 - 144
A/F2 1291
Deduce the type of branding present in each of these compounds and draw dot- and – cross
diagrams to illustrate this bonding. (4)
h). Boron triflouride forms a compound with ammonia. Describe the type of bond that is formed
during this reaction. Draw a diagram to illustrate the shape of and bonding in the product. (2)]
24. A newly discovered source of frozen fuel is „methane ice‟ also called „methane hydrate‟.
This is methane trapped in ice about 500m to 2 000m below the ocean surface. Deposits have
been detected off Norway, North Carolina and in the Pacific Ocean off Japan, Indonesia and
New Zealand.
The ice in methane hydrate has a more open structure than ordinary ice and contains spaces large
enough to contain methane molecules.
a).i. Draw a diagram of a water molecule and explain why its bond angle is about 1050. (2)
ii). The diagram below shows part of the structure of ordinary ice.
Explain why the bond angles in ice 1090. (2)
25. Ethanol is miscible with water because of hydrogen bonding between molecules of ethanol
and water. Draw a diagram, including dipoles, to show the hydrogen bonding between a
molecule of ethanol and a molecule of water. (2)
26. In 1886, Henri Moissan succeeded in obtaining fluorine by the electrolysis of molten
potassium hydrogen diflouride, KIP2, which is an ionic compound containing one cation and one
anion.
i). Write the formulae of the ions present in KHF2-
callon ……………………..
anion ………………………..
ii). Suggest a structure for the anion and state what types of bonding occur within it. (3)
ANSWERS
SECTION A
1. A 2. C 3. A 4. B 5. E
6. A 7. E 8. A 9. C 10. E
11. D 12. E 13. D 14. A 15. B
16. C 17. D 18. D 19. C 20. A
21. D 22. D 23. C 24. B 25. D
26. C 27. C 28. D 29. D 30. B
31. C 32. D 33. B 34. A 35. C
36. A 37. A 38. D
SECTION B
1. A 2. E 3. C 4. E 5. D
6. C 7. B 8. B 9. C 10. D
11. C 12. D 13. C
SECTION C
7. n = 2 oxidation no. of Sb = +3
10. 79.1
16. 2.5
20. oxidation number of 32S = +4
Oxidation number of 35S = O
22. MgF2 – ionic bond
SF2 – covalent bond
26. K+ and HF-2

b). covalent bond
TOPIC 4
STATES OF MATTER
1. Which of the following structural features of graphical best accounts for its use as a lubricant?
a. delocalized electrons
b. hexagonal management of carbon atoms
c. strong covalent bonds within layers
d. the covalency of carbon is limited to three
e. van der Waals‟ forces between layers
2. Which one of the following sets of solid elements A, B, C, D or E includes a giant metallic
structure, a macromolecular structure and a simple molecular structure?
a. Na Mg Al
b. Mg Al Si
c. C Si Sn
d. Al Si S
e. Si P S
3. Which of the following graphs is correct for a fixed mass of an ideal gas at constant
temperature?
4. Under what conditions of temperature and pressure will a real gas behave most like an ideal
gas?
Temperature pressure
a. low low
b. low high
c. standard standard
d. high low
e. high high
5. In the graphite lattice, what is the number of nearest neighbours for each carbon atom?
a. 3
b. 4
c. 5
d. 6
e. 12
6. When compared at the same pressure and temperature, which one of the following properties
has the same value for H2 and for D2? (D = 21H)
a. density
b. average molecular speed
c. relative molecular mass
d. rate of intermolecular collision
e. average molecular kinetic energy
7. A small spacecraft of capacity 10m3 is connected to another of capacity 30cm3. Before

connection, the pressure inside the smaller craft is 50 kPa and that inside the larger is 100 kPa.
If all measurements are made at the same temperature, what is the pressure in the combined
arrangement after connection?
a. 75 kPa
b. 87.5 kPa
c. 100 kPa
d. 125 kPa
e. 150 kPa
8. Which of the following diagrams correctly describes the behaviour of a fixed mass of an ideal
gas?
(T is measured in K)
9. Which of the following statements explains why copper conducts electricity when a potential
difference is supplied?
a. Copper (II) ions move to the cathode
b. The crystal lattice breaks down
c. The atoms of copper become ionized
d. Electrons combine with copper (II) ions
e. Bonding electrons in the crystal lattice move.
21. Which set of properties could apply to a non ionic compound which has a giant lattice?
Physical state at room electricity conductivity melting point

Temperature of the molten compound
a. liquid does not conduct -114

b. liquid does not conduct melts over a temperature
range
c. solid conducts well 808
d. solid does not conduct 1610
22. Under which set of conditions does a real gas most closely obey the ideal gas laws?
a. high pressure and low temperature
b. low pressure and high temperature
c. low pressure and low temperature
d. standard temperature and pressure
23. In a syringe experiment, 0.10g of a gas is found to occupy 83.1 cm3 measured at a standard
pressure (1.0 x 103 Pa) and 270C.
What is the relative molecular mass of the gas?

a. 0.10 x 8.31 x 27
1.0 x 105 x 83.1
b. 0.10 x 8.31 x 300

1.0 x 105 x 83.1
c. 0.10 x 8.31 x 27
1.0 x 105 x 83.1 x 10-6
d. 0.10 x 8.31 x 300

1.0 x 105 x 83.1 x 10-6
24. The grid represents two periods of the Periodic Table, for the elements 3 to 18.
P Q R S
An element from one group P, Q, R or S, reacts with an element from another of these groups to
produce a compound with a giant covalent structure.
Which are the two groups?
a. P and R
b. Q and R
c. Q and S
d. R and S
25. Which graph is correct for a given mass or an ideal gas constant pressure?
26. A sample of mg of an organic compound is vapourised in gas syringe and occupies V cm3 at
T K and p atm
What is the relative molecular mass of the compound Mr?
a. Mr = m x 22400 x T
p x V x 273
b. Mr = m x 22400 x (T + 273)
p x V x 273
c. Mr = m x 22400 x 273 x p
VxT
d. Mr = m x 22400 x 273 x p
V x (T + 273)
27. Which gas can be most easily liquefied by cooling and applying pressure?
a. H2
b. CH4
c. F2
d. NH3
28. Which type of structure, present in ceramics, explains why these materials are strong?
a. giant molecular
b. ionic
c. layer
d. metallic
29. A 5.0 dm3 sample of oxygen at a pressure of 200 kPa and 2.0 dm3 sample of nitrogen at a
pressure of 500 kPa are introduced into a 2/5 dm3 vessel.
What is the total pressure in the vessel?
a. 500 kPa
b. 700 kPa
c. 725 kPa
d. 800 kPa
30. Flask X contains 1 dm3 of helium at kPa pressure and Y contains 2 dm3 of neon at 1 kPa
pressure.
If the flasks are connected at constant temperature, what is the final pressure?
a. 1 1/3 kPa
b. 1 ½ kPa
c. 1 2/3 kPa
d. 2 kPa
31. When heated, solid iodine readily forms iodine vapour. What does this information suggest
about the nature of the particles in these two physical states of iodine?
Solid Vapour
a. ionic atomic
b. ionic molecular
c. molecular atomic
d. molecular molecular
32. Consider a fixed mass of ideal gas at constant temperature and occupying a vessel of
volume V at a pressure p.
Which graph shows the relationship between the product pV and p?
33. Which of the following solids has a simple molecular lattice?

a. magnesium oxide
b. sodium
c. silicon (IV) oxide
d. sulphur
34. Measured values of the pressure, volume and temperature of a known mass of a gaseous
compound are to be substituted into the equation
pV = nRT
in order to calculate the relative molecular mass, Mr of the compound.
Which conditions of pressure and temperature would give the most accurate value of Mr?
Pressure Temperature
a. high high
b. high low
c. low high
d. low low
35. Which graph is obtained when pV is plotted against p for a fixed amount of an ideal gas at
constant temperature?
SECTION B
A B C D E
1. Which of the following are true statements about the structure of sodium chloride?
1 The Na+ and CI- ions are both arranged in a face centered cubic lattice
2 The distance between the nuclei of adjacent ions is the sum of the two ionic radii.
3 Each Na+ ion is surrounded by six CI- ions.
2. Which of the following are features of the structure of metallic copper?

1 Ionic bonds
2 delocalised electrons
3 lattice of ions
3. Which of the following systems contains delocalized electrons?

1 cyclohexene
2 graphite
3 sodium
4 Which of the following statements about the properties of graphite are correct?
1 Graphite can be used as a lubricant
2 Graphite is a good conductor of electricity in the direction parallel to the planes
containing hexagonal rings of carbon but a poor conductor perpendicular to these planes.
3 Carbon to carbon distances between the planes of hexagonal rings are greater than carbon
to carbon distances within those planes.
5. Simple ionic crystals have good cleavage planes because the particles in the crystals are
1 held by electrostatic forces
2 separated by large distances
3 arranged in a regular lattice
6. Which of the following equations apply to an ideal gas? p = pressure, V = Volume, m = mass,
M = Molar mass, p = density, c = concentration, R = gas constant, T = temperature)
1 p = pRT
M
2 pV = MRT
3 pv = cRT
M
7. What assumptions are made in the kinetic theory about an ideal gas?
1 There are no forces of attraction between molecules
2 The molecules are in a state of continual, random motion
3 The size of the molecules is negligible
8. The Gas Laws can b e summarized in the ideal gas equation pv= nRT
Where each symbol has its usual meaning.
Which of the following statements are correct?
1 One mole of any ideal gas occupies the same volume under the same conditions of
temperature and pressure.
2 The density of an ideal gas at constant pressure is inversely proportional to the
temperature.
3 The volume of a given mass of an ideal gas is doubled if its temperature is raised from
250C to 500C at constant pressure.
9. The diagram shows the structure of boron nitride which is similar to that of graphite
Which properties is this compound likely to have?

1 It is a lubricant
2 It is transparent when pure
3 It is very hard
10. Which statements correctly represent the behaviour of an ideal gas? (p denotes pressure, Vm
molar gas volume, M molar mass, c concentration, d density and T temperature)
1. pVm = T
2 pM = dT
3 p = cT
11. Which statements concerning the lattice structures of graphite and diamond are correct?
1 The shortest carbon to carbon bond occurs in diamond
2 The C – C – C bond angle between nearest neighbours is smaller in diamond than in
graphite
3 All bonds in diamond are of the same strength but those in graphite are not.
12. Consider one mole of ideal gas at a given pressure.

Which processes will increase the number of molecules which have energy greater than a
particular value?
1 increasing the temperature
2 introducing more of the same gas into the same volume at the same temperature
3 compressing the gas at constant temperature
13. When a sample of a gas is compressed at constant temperature from 15 atm to 60 atm, its
volume changes from 76.0cm3 to 20.5cm3
Which statements are possible explanations of this hebaviour?
1 The gas behaves non ideally
2 The gas dismerises
3 Gas is absorbed on to the vessel walls
14. Which of the following solids have giant lattices?
1 iodine
2 sodium
3 sodium iodide
15 Many ceramic materials based on silicon (IV) oxide have recently been developed.
Which properties apply to these materials?
1 They are heated during manufacture and from solids
2 They are heat resistant solids
3 They are good conductors of electricity due to delocalized electrons
16. Which structures might be typical of a ceramic material?
1 a giant molecular lattice

2 a lattice of linear polymeric chains
3 a close packed lattice with electron delocalization
SECTION C
1. A steel target isbombarded with a beam containing both nitrogen ions and boron ions. The
nitrogen and the boron combine to form nitride, the empirical formula of which is BN, and which
has a graphite like structure.
i). Draw a structure for a layer of the boron nitride in which atoms of boron and nitrogen
alternate in a graphite like structure.
ii). By considering the electron distribution of your structure in (d) (i) comment upon, and
explain the likely electrical conductivity of boron nitride.
2. What assumptions are made in the kinetic theory of gases? Discuss the validity of these
assumptions for a real gas.
b). Describe the lattice structure of (i) sodium chloride, ii). Iodine and show how they can be
used to explain two characteristic physical properties of each of these substances. (8)
3a). Sketch graphs of
i). pressure P against volume V
ii). P against I
V
For a given mass of an ideal gas at a constant temperature.
i).
b). Sketch graphs of
i). V against t (0C) for a given mass of an ideal gas at constant pressure and
ii). P against t for a given mass of N2O4 as constant volume
c). Attractions between the molecules of a gas cause its behaviour to be non- ideal. Under what
two physical conditions are those attractions likely to be greatest? (2)
d). 0.080 g of a liquid compound was completely vapourised in a gas syringe at 1270C and a
pressure of 1 atmosphere. 81cm3 of vapour was produced.
i). Calculate the relative molecular mass of the liquid. (3)
ii). The liquid used was pure methanol. Suggest reasons why there is a difference between the
theoretical value and the value obtained in (d) (i).
4. A canister of gas, of the type used in camping stoves, contains mainly hutane under sufficient
pressure to cause it to liquefy partially.
a). What do you understand by the term ideal gas? (1)
b). Would you expect the gas in the canister to behave as an ideal gas/ Explain your answer. (2)
c). Describe how increasing the pressure on a gas can sometimes cause it to liquefy. (2)
d). Describe the main forces that occur between molecules of burane, and explain how they arise.
(2)
e). A canister was connected to a gas syringe and the valve opened slightly to allow some of the
gas into the syringe. It was found that 0.200g of the gas took up a volume of 96.0 cm3 at a
temperature of 20.0 0C and a pressure of 1.02 x 105 Pa.
Use the general gas equation pV = nRT to calculate the average Mr of the gas mixture. (2)
f). Suggest a reason why propane is used instead of butane for gas stoves in cold climates in the
winter. (1)
5. Aluminium fluoride (m.p 1291 0C) and phosphorous triflouride (m.p – 151 0C) have very
different physical properties.
b). Predict two further physical properties in which they might differ, stating the difference in
each case. (3)
c). A 0.45g sample of gaseous aluminium chloride at this temperature, and how would you
predict the average Mr to change as the temperature is increased? (4)
6. Explain the main differences between the structures of solids, liquids and gases and the
processes that occur when one state changes into another, illustrates your answer by using ice,
water and steam as an example. (5)
7. The noble gases find many useful applications in gas discharge tubes („neon‟ lights), where
light is emitted as a result of the ionization of gaseous atoms.
a). State and explain which noble gas ionizes most readily. (2)
b)i. Suggest two reasons why the noble gases become less ideal in their behaviour down the
group from helium to xenon. (2)
ii). Under what conditions of temperature and pressure is the behaviour of real gases most nearly
ideal? Explain your answer. (4)
8. The general gas equation pV = nRT can be derived by applying the kinetic theory to the
behaviour of an ideal gas.
State two ways in which an ideal gas differs from a real gas such as oxygen. Under what
conditions of temperature and pressure is a real gas most likely to behave like an ideal gas?
9a). State two assumptions of the kinetic theory of gases. (2)

b). Using the kinetic molecular model, explain why, at a given temperature and pressure.
i). solids keep their shape and volume, no matter what container they are in,
ii). liquids take up shape of their container but do not necessarily fill it.
iii). Gases quickly take up the shape of their container and always fill it.
c). Hot air balloons are open at their lower end. A basket is suspended from the balloon and can
take several passengers as well as the pilot. A propane turner fixed to the basket is used to heat
up the air in the balloon. A hot air balloon has a volume of 1500m2 and its volume does not
change when the enclosed air is heated.
i). Use the idea gas equation, pV = nRT, to calculate how many moles of air molecules the
balloon contains at a temperature of 283K and a pressure of 1.01 x 103 Pa.
ii). Hence calculate the mass of air it contains assuming an average Mr of 29.
10a). Describe briefly, in terms of particles, the differences in structure between solids, liquids
and gases. (2)
b). Explain the following observations

i). The boiling points of the halogens show a trend.
Element boiling point / 0C

Cl2 - 35
Br2 +59
I2 +184
ii). Carbon dioxide and silicon (IV) oxide have widely different melting points.
Oxide melting point/ 0C

CO2 -78
SiO2 +1723
iii). Ethanoic acid, C2H4O2 in the gas phase just above its boiling point has an apparent Mr of
120.
iv). Graphite conducts electricity but diamond does not. (10)
11. Carbon dioxide is used as a coolant gas in some nuclear reactors. Unlike hydrogen or helium,
carbon dioxide shows marked deviations from the ideal behaviour that is predicted by the kinetic
theory of gases.
a). State two assumptions of the kinetic theory, and use these to explain why you might expect
the behaviour of carbon dioxide to be less than that of hydrogen. (3)
b). Under what condition of temperature and pressure would you expect the behaviour of carbon
dioxide to be most like that of an ideal gas? (2)
c). The volume of 1 mol of carbon dioxide was measured at various pressure but at a constant
temperature of 285K. The following results were obtained.
Pressure. P / Pa Volume V/ m3 Pressure x volume, pV / m3 Pa
4.0 x 105 5.80 x 10-3 2320
8.0 x 105 2.85 x 10-3
15.0 x 105 1.46 x 10-3
20.0 x 105 1.07 x 10-3
i). Complete the calculations for the third column and use these data to plot a graph of the
product pV against pressure p.
ii). State how the value of the product pV should change with pressure for an ideal gas.
iii). Use the graph to calculate the volume of 1 mol of carbon dioxide at a pressure of 10 x 103
Pa.
Calculate the volume at 285 K that the ideal gas equation predicts for this pressure and comment
on the difference between two values. (7)
12. In the solid state, both krypton and carbon exist as three dimensional arrays of atoms, yet
their melting points differ widely (Kr, - 1570C, C, 3080 0C) Explain this difference in terms of
the bonding between the particles in the two elements. (3)
13a). State two assumptions of the kinetic theory of gases. (2)

b). Under what conditions of temperature and pressure do gases behave most ideally? Give
reasons for your answers. (3)
In the industrial liquefaction of air, high pressure air is pre-cooled in a cool surrounded by cold
water. It is then allowed to expand into a region of low pressure, whereupon it cools down by a
large amount. An ideal gas does not show this behaviour.
c). Suggest why the expansion of air into a region of low pressure is an endothermic process. (2)
d). Gases like carbon dioxide can be liquefied at room temperature just by pressurizing them.
Why does the application of pressure cause the gas to liquefy?
e). Gases can only be liquefied by pressure alone if their temperature is below their temperature
is below their „critical temperature‟, Tc. Above the critical temperature no amount of pressure
will liquefy a gas.
Use the following data on critical temperatures to suggest an explanation for this.
Gas Formula Mr Tc/ 0C
Methane Ch4 16 -82
Ammonia NH3 17 133
Steam H2O 18 374
14. This question is about the physical chemistry of gases, with particular emphasis on the inert
gas argon. Argon exists in the atmosphere as single atoms.
a). State two of the assumptions of the kinetic theory as applied to an inert gas. (2)
b). How many atoms of argon are present in one mole of the gas?
c). You are to calculate the percentage of the volume occupied by the atoms themselves in one
mole of argon at room temperature and pressure.
i). Use the Data Booklet to calculate the volume of one atom of argon.
(volume = 4/3πr3 π= 3.14)
ii). Use your answer to (c) (i) to calculate the volume of one mole of argon atoms.
iii). State the volume occupied by one mole of argon (assume it to have as an ideal gas) at room
iv). What percentage of this volume is occupied by the atoms themselves?
v). Explain how your answer to (c) (iv) justifies one of your assumptions in (a). (5)
d). Argon is used to fill electric light bulbs. These have a fine filament of a metal wire, usually
tungsten, which glows white hot from its electrical resistance to the current.
Suggest why argon, rather than air, is used to fill electric light bulbs. (2)
15a). Describe the bonding within, and the shape of, the carbon dioxide molecule, include a dot
and cross diagram in your answer. (3)
b). Describe the type of attractions that might occur between carbon dioxide molecules. (1)
c). Cylinders of pressurized carbon dioxide are used to produce carbonated drinks. One such
cylinder has an internal volume of 2,5dm3, and contains 2.3kg of carbon dioxide.
i). Calculate the amount of carbon dioxide (in moles) in the cylinder. (1)
ii). Using the ideal gas equation pV = nRT, calculates the pressure (in pascals) the carbon
dioxide would exert inside the cylinder at room temperature (298K) (1m3 = 103 dm3) (2)
iii). In fact, the pressure inside the cylinder is 2.2 x 107 Pa under these conditions. Explain why
this differs from the pressure you calculated in (ii). (1)
iv). A glass of cola is fizzy because carbon dioxide has been dissolved in it under pressure. When
the cola is poured out of a can, the carbon dioxide is gradually released as bubbles of gas. the
cola will eventually go flat, as the concentration of dissolved carbon dioxide decreases to its
saturation level.
A 500cm3 can of cola has 2.0g of carbon dioxide dissolved in it under pressure. Calculate the
volume of carbon dioxide that is released to the atmosphere as it goes flat.
(A saturated solution of carbon dioxide at room temperature contains 1.5g dm-3. Assume carbon
dioxide behaves as an ideal gas under these conditions) (2)
ANSWERS
SECTION A
1. E 2. D 3. A 4. D 5. A
6. E 7. B 8. E 9. E 10. E
11. D 12. B 13. A 14. D 15. D
16. C 17. A 18. C 19. B 20. C
21. D 22. B 23. D 24. B 25. C
26. A 27. D 28. A 29. D 30. A
31. D 32. A 33. D 35. C
SECTION B
1. A 2. C 3. C 4. A 5. E
6. D 7. A 8. B 9. D 10. A
11. C 12. B 13. D 14. C 15. B
16. D
SECTION C
3. 32.4
4. Mr = 48.7
5. Average Mr = 263
7. Mr = 86.9
9. i). 6.44 x 104 ii). 1.87 x 106g
11. high temperature, low pressure
c). 2280, 2190, 2140
iii). V = 2,256 x 10-3 m3 (real)
V = 2,368 x 10-3 m3 (ideal)
13. High temperature, low pressure
14.b). 6.02 x 1023
c)i. 2.96 x 10-26 dm3
ii. 1.78 x 10-2 dm3
iii. 24 dm3
iv. 0.074%
15.i. 52,27 mol

ii. 5.2 x 107 Pa
iii). 0.68 dm3
TOPIC 5
CHEMICAL ENERGETICS
1. Which one of the following equations is correctly associated with the definition of the
enthalpy change of formation of carbon monoxide?
a. C (s) + ½ O2 (g) CO (g)
b. C (s) + O (g) CO (g)
c. C (s) + CO2 (g) 2CO (g)
d. C (g) + ½ O2 (g) CO (g)
e. C (g) + CO2 (g) 2CO (g)
2. Which of the following elements in its crystalline form will have the lowest enthalpy change
of vapourisation?
a. argon
b. chlorine
c. phosphorous
d. silicon
e. sulphur
3. Which one of the following is involved in determined the enthalpy change in a chemical
reaction?
a. the number of stages involved in the chemical reaction
b. the activation energy of the reaction
c. the initial and final states of the reacting system
d. the intermediaries in the overall chemical reaction
e. the mechanism of the reaction
4. The standard enthalpy changes of formulation of carbon dioxide and water are – 394 kJ mol-2
and – 286 kJ mol-1 respectively. If the standard enthalpy change of combustion of propyne, C3H4
is – 1938 kJ mol-1, what is its standard enthalpy change of formation?
a. +1258 kJ mol-1
b. +184 kJ mol-1
c. -184 kJ mol-1
d. -680 kJ mol-1
e. -1258 kJ mol-1
5. The gaseous oxides of nitrogen have positive enthalpy changes of formation. Which of the
following factors is likely to make most significant contribution to these enthalpy changes?
a. the tendency of oxygen to form oxide ions O2-
b. the high electron affinity of oxygen atoms
c. the high electron affinity of nitrogen atoms
d. the high bond energy of the nitrogen molecule N2
e. the similarity of the electronegativities of oxygen and nitrogen
6. Which one of the following has the same value as the standard enthalpy change of formation
of carbon monoxide?
(∆Hcø (X) is the standard enthalpy change of combustion of X.
∆Hcø is the standard enthalpy change of formation of X.
a. ½ ∆Htø (CO2)
b. ½ ∆Hcø (graphite)
c. ∆Hcø (CO2)- ∆Hcø (graphite)
d. ∆Hcø (CO2) – ½ ∆Hcø (graphite)
e. ∆Hcø (graphite) - ∆Hcø (CO)
7. The radius and change of each of six ions are shown in the table
Ion J+ L+ M2+ X- Y- Z2-

Radius / nm 0.14 0.18 0.15 0.14 0.18 0.15
The ionic solids JX, LY and MZ are of the same lattice type.
What is the correct order of their lattice energies placing the one with the highest numerical
value first?
a. JX > LY > MZ
b. JX > MZ > LY
c. LY > MZ > JX
d. MZ > JX > LY
e. MZ > LY > JX
8. The enthalpy change of formation of gaseous ethane and gaseous ethane are 52kJ mol-1 and -
85 kJ mol-1 respectively at 298K.
What is the enthalpy change of reaction at 298K for the following process?
C2H4(g) + H2 (g) C2H6(g)
a. -137 kJ mol-1
b. - 33 kJ mol-1
c. 33 kJ mol-1
d. 137 kJ mol-1
e. It cannot be calculated from the information above.
9. The standard enthalpy changes for two reactions are given by the equations:
2Fe (s) + 3/2 O2 (g) Fe2O3(s) ∆Hø = -822 kJ mol-1
C(s) + ½ O2(g) CO(g) ∆Hø = 110 kJ mol-1
What is the standard enthalpy change for the following reaction?

Fe2O3(S) + 3C(s) 2Fe(s) + 3CO(g)
a. - 932 kJ mol-1
b. - 712 kJ mol-1
c. - 492 kJ mol-1
d. +492 kJ mol-1
e. +712 kJ mol-1
10. Which of the following is the lattice energy likely to have the greatest numerical value. (i.e
the greatest magntitude, disregarding sign)?
a. lithium fluoride
b. lithium iodide
c. rubidium chloride
d. sodium chloride
e. sodiunm fluoride
11. For which of the following ions is the enthalpy change of hydration likely to be the most
exothermic?
Ion ionic radius / nm charge on ion
a. 0.065 +2
b. 0.095 +1
c. 0.135 +2
d. 0.169 +1
e. 0.181 -1
12. When water is stirred with glucose, strong hydrogen bonds are initially formed between
glucose molecules and water molecules, but as more water is added, these hydrogen bonds are
broken.
Which graph best represents the observed temperature changes?
13. The value of the enthalpy change for the process represented by the equation
Na (s) Na+ (g) + e-
Is equal to
a. the first ionization energy of sodium
b. the enthalpy change of vapourisation of sodium
c. the sum of the first ionization and the electron affinity of sodium
d. the sum of the enthalpy change of atomization and the first ionsation energy of sodium.
e. the sum of the enthalpy change of atomization and the electron affinity of sodium
14. The enthalpy change for the neutralization given below is -114 kJ.
2NaOH (aq) + H2SO4 (aq) Na2SO4 (aq) + 2H2O (l)
By using this information, predict the value for the enthalpy change for the following
neutralization.
Bu(OH)2 (aq + 2HCl (aq) BaCl2 (aq) + 2H2O (l)
a. - 57kJ
b. -76 kJ
c. -114 kJ
d. -171 kJ
e. -228 kJ
15. Given the following enthalpy changes

I2(g) + 3Cl2 (g) 21Cl2 (s) ∆Hø= - 214 kJ mol-1
I2 (s) 12 (g) ∆Hø = +38 kJ mol-1
What is the standard enthalpy change of formation of iodine trichloride, ICI3?
a. +176 kJ mol-1
b. +138 kJ mol-1
c. -88 kJ mol-1
d. - 138 kJ mol-1
e. - 214 kJ mol-1
16. Which of the following processes is endothermic?

a. the condensation of steam
b. the electrolysis of water
c. the freezing of water
d. Ca (a) + 2H2O (l) Ca (OH)2 (aq) + H2(g)
e. H+ (aq) + OH- (aq) H2O (l)
17. The standard enthalpy change of combustion of but l ene C4H8(g) is x kJ mol-1
What is the standard enthalpy change of combustion of ethane C2H4(g)?
a. ½ + y kJ mol-1
b. x + y/2 kJ mol-1
c. 1 + y kJ mol-1
2
d. x – y kJ mol-1
2
e. 2x – y kJ mol-1
18. Nitrogen exists as the molecule N = N, phosphorous as the molecule shown

Imagine that nitrogen were to form a similar molecule N4.
2N2 (g) N4(g)
By considering the bonds broken and the bonds formed, what would be the value of ∆H for the
above reaction?
(Bond energies: N – N, 160 kJ mol-1 N = N, 994 kJ mol-1)
a. 1028 kJ mol-1
b. 1348 kJ mol-1
c. 1954 kJ mol-1
d. 2628 kJ mol-1
e. 2948 kJ mol-1
19. The lattice energies of ribidium fluoride, RbP and caesium chloride, CaCl are -760 kJ mol-1
and -650 kJ mol-1, respectively.
What is the lattice energy of caesium fluoride CsF likely to be?
a. - 620 kJ mol-1
b. -720 kJ mol-1
c. - 800 kJ mol-1
d. - 900 kJ mol-1
20. Which quantity would best indicate the relative strengths of the hydrogen bond between the
molecules in liquid hydrogen halides?
a. bond dissociation energies
b. enthalpy changes of solution
c. enthalpy changes of formation
d. enthalpy changes of vapourisation
21. For which compound is the lattice energy likely to have the greatest numerical value (i.e the
greatest magnitude, disregarding sign)
a. lithium fluoride
b. lithium iodide
c. rubidium chloride
d. sodium chloride
22. Which equation defines the lattice energy of the ionic compound XY?
a. X (s) + Y (s) XY(s)
b. X (g) + Y (g) XY (s)
c. X+ (s) + Y- (s) XY(s)
d. X+ (g) + Y- (g) XY(s)
23. Which statement helps to explain why calcium and chlorine form CaCl2 rather than CaCl?
a. Less energy is required to remove one electron from the calcium atom than to improve
two electrons
b. More energy is released in forming chloride ions from chlorine molecules in the
formation of CaCl2(s) than in the formation of CaCl(s)
c. The lattice energy of CaCI(s) is less exorthemic than that of CaCl2(s).
d. When CaCl(s) is formed from its elements, more energy is released than when CaCl2(s) is
formed from its elements.
24. Which equation is used to define the first ionization of bromine?

a. Br(g) Br- (g) - e-
b. Br(g) Br+ (g) + e-
c. ½ Br2(g) Br- (g) – e-
d. ½ Br2(g) Br+ (g) + e-
25. Which equation represents the change corresponding to the enthalpy change of atomization
of iodine?
a. ½ l2(s) 1(g)
b. 12(s) 21(g)
c. 12(l) 21(g)
d. 12(g) 21(g)
26. Which value would be required to estimate the lattice energy for the hypothetical ionic
compound MgH?
a. the electron affinity of hydrogen
b. the first ionization energy of hydrogen
c. the magnesium hydrogen bond energy
d. the standard enthalpy change of formation of MgH2
27. The lunar module which landed the first man on theMoon in 1969 used the reaction between
the propellants methylhydrazine, CH3NHNH2 and dinitrogen tetraoxide N2O4. The equation for
the reaction is shown below.
4CH3NHNH2(l) + 5N2O4(l) 4CO2(g) + 9N2(g) + 12H2O(g)
The appropriate enthalpy changes of formation are given in the table
∆Hr (kJ mol-1)

CH3NHNH2(l) +53
N2O4(l) -20
CO2(g) -394
H2O(g) -242
What is the enthalpy change of the reaction?
a. (+ [d x 53] – [5 x 20] ) kJ mol-1
b. [ + (4 x 53) – (5 x 20) – (4 x 394) – (12 x 242) ] kJ mol-1
c. [ + (4 x 53) – (5 x 20) + (4 x 394) ./. (12 x 242) ] kJ mol-1
d. [- (4 x 53) + (5 x 20) – (4 x 394) – (12 x 242) ] kJ mol-1
28. From which of the following reactions can the bond energy of the C – F bond be determined
by using only the standard enthalpy change of the reaction?
a. CF4(g) C (g) + 4F (g)

b. CF4(g) CF2(g) + F2(g)
c. CF4(s) CF4(g)
d. 2F2(g) + C (s) CF4(g)
29. The second ionization energy of calcium is 1150 kJ mol-1

Which of the following correctly represents this statement?
a. Ca(g) Ca2+ (g) + 2e- ∆Hø = +1150 kJ mol-1

b. Ca+ (g) Ca2+ (g) +e ∆Hø = +1150 kJ mol-1
c. Ca+ (g) Ca2+ (g) + e- ∆Hø = +1150 kJ mol-1
d. Ca (s) Ca2+ (aq) + 2e- ∆Hø = +1150 kJ mol-1
30. Phosphate reacts with hydrogen iodide to form phosphonium iodide in the reaction shown
PH3 (g) H1 (g) PH 4+1 – (s) ∆Hø = 101.8 kJ mol-1
Given that ∆Hfø for PH3 (g) = +5.4 kJ mol-1 and ∆H1ø for HI (g) = +26.5 kJ mol-1, what is the
standard enthalpy change of formation of phosphonium iodide?
a. - 133.7 kJ mol -1
b. - 69.9 kJ mol -1
c. +69.9 kJ mol -1
d. +133.7 kJ mol -1
31. In an experiment to measure the enthalpy change of neutralization of hydrochloric acid,

3
20cm of solution containing 0.04 mol of HCl is placed in a plastic cup of negligible heat
capacity.
A 20cm3 sample of aqueous sodium hydroxide containing 0.04 mol of NaOH, at the same initial
temperature, is added and the temperature rises by 15K.
If the heat capacity per unit volume of the final solution is 4.2 jK -2 cm-3, what is the enthalpy
change of neutralization of hydrochloric acid?
a. 20 x 4.2 x 15 j mol -1
0.04
b. 40 x 4.2 x 15 x 0.08 J mol -1
c. 40 x 4.2 x 15 J mol -1
0.04
d. 20 x 4.2 x 15 J mol -1
0.08
32. In oil refineries, an important process is the recovery of any sulphur from petroleum. Sulphur
compounds are converted into the gas hydrogen sulpgide, H2S, By using a catalyst. The H2S is
then oxidized by using a controlled amount of air to give steam, H2O(g) and sulphur S (s).
The enthalpy change of formation of H2S(g) is -20.5 kJ mol -1 and that of H2O(g) is -243.0 kJ
mol-1
What is the enthalpy change of reaction per mole of H2S?
a. - 202.5 kJ mol -1
b. - 222.5 kJ mol -1
c. - 263.5 kJ mol -1
d. - 445.0 kJ mol -1
33. Which equation defines the enthalpy change of atomization of white phosphorous?
a. P(s) P(g)
b. P4(s) P4(g)
c. ¼ P4(s) P(g)
d. P4(s) 4P(g)
34. Which equation defines the enthalpy change of formation of carbon monoxide?
a. C(g) + O(g) CO(g)
b. C(g) + ½ O2(g) CO(g)
c. C(s) + ½ O2 (g) CO (g)
d. C(s) + CO2(g) 2CO (g)
35. Which statement about the standard enthalpy change of formation of carbon dioxide is
correct?
a. It is equal to the standard enthalpy change of combustion of carbon.
b. It is equal to twice the bond energy of the C = O bond.
c. It is the energy released when one mole of carbon dioxide is formed from carbon at the
temperature of combustion of the carbon.
d. It is the same for carbon dioxide produced from graphite and from diamond.
36. Use of Data Booklet is relevant to this question.

Hydrazine was used as a fuel for the Messerselumidt 163 rocket fighter in World War II and for
the American Germini and Apollo space craft. It has the following formula
H H
N N
H H
What is the enthalpy change of atomization of 1 mol of gaseous hydrazine?
a. 550 kJ
b. 1720 kJ
c. 1970 kJ
d. 2554 kJ
37. The enthalpy change of reaction between calcium and water can be measured in the
laboratory.
Ca(s) + 2H2O (l) Ca(OH)2 (s) + H2 (g)
What information, other than that obtained in this experiment is needed to calculate a value for
the enthalpy change of formation of Ca(OH)2 (S)?
a. enthalpy change of atomization of calcium
b. enthalpy change of combustion of hydrogen
c. first and second ionization energies of calcium
d. lattice energy of calcium hydroxide
38. Gaseous phosphorous pentachloride can be decomposed into gaseous phosphorous

trichloride and chlorine by heating. The table below gives the bond energies.
Bond Bond energy / kJ mol -1
P- Cl (in both chlorides) 330

Cl – Cl 240
What is the enthalpy change in the decomposition of PCl5 to PCl3 and Cl2?
a. - 420 kJ mol -1
b. - 90 kJ mol -1
c. + 90 kJ mol -1
d. +420 kJ mol -1
SECTION B
A B C D E

1. What factors contribute to the lattice energy of calcium chloride being numerically
greater than that of potassium bromide?
1 The radius of the chloride ion is smaller than that of the bromine ion
2 The charge on the calcium ion is greater than that on the potassium ion
3 Chlorine is more highly electronegative than bromine
2. The values of two lattice energies are given below:

NaF - 915 kJ mol-1
MgO - 3933 kJ mol-1
Which of the following correct statements help to explain the difference between these two
values?
1 In each of these compounds, the ions are isoelectronic (have the same number of
electrons)
2 The attraction between doubly charged ions is about four times that between singly
charged ions
3 The interionic distance in NaF is 0.102 nm and tht in MgO is 0.074 mm.
3. For which of the following reactions does the value of ∆Hø represents both a standard
enthalpy change of combustion and a standard enthalpy change of formation?
1. C (s) + O2(g) CO2(g)
2 2C(s) + O2 (g) 2CO (g)
3 CO(g) + ½ O2 (g) CO2(g)
4. Magnesium oxide and sodium fluoride are isoelectronic (have the same number of
electrons)
Which of the following are reasons why the value of the lattice energy of magnesium oxide is
four to five times that of sodium fluoride.
1 the higher enthalpy change of hydration of the doubly charged ions

2 the higher electrostatic attraction between the doubly charged ions
3 the shorter intermolecular distance between the doubly charged ions
5. Which of the following are always endothermic processes?

1 the hydration of a gaseous carbon‟
2 The dissociation into atoms of a diatomic molecule
3 the sublimation of a solid
6. For which of the following classes of reaction is the enthalpy change always
endothermic?
1 atomisation
2 neutralisation
3 solution
7. Which statements are correct for the neutralization of a strong acid by a strong alkali in
aqueous solution at 250C?
1 It is an endothermic process
2 It can be represented as H3O+ (aq) OH- (aq) 2H2O(l)
3 The enthalpy change per mole of H2O formed is independent of the acid or alkali used.
8. The following equations each represent a step in the Born Haber cycle for the enthalpy change
of formation of sodium chloride.
Which changes have a negative ∆H value?
1 Cl (g) + e- Cl- (g)

2 ½ Cl 2 (g) Ci (g)
3 Na(s) Na(g)
9. The diagram illustrates the energy of a set of reactions

1 The enthalpy change for the transformation U – R is +42 kJ mol-1
2. The enthalpy change for the transformation T – S is endothermic
3. The enthalpy change for the transformation R – T is – 33 kJ mol-1
The standard enthalpy changes of combustion of carbon are as follows:
C (graphite) = - 393.1 kJ mol-1

C (diamond) = - 395.0 kJ mol-1
Which of the following deductions can be made from the data above?
1 Graphite is more stable than diamond
2 Graphite has a higher energy content than diamond
3 Graphite is formed endothermically from diamond
4. The enthalpy level diagram shown represents the dissolving b of anhydrous magnesium
chloride in a large volume of water
Which statements about the process are correct?

1 The lattice energy of magnesium chloride is -2526 kJ mol-1
2 The enthalpy change of hydration of the chloride ion is -384 kJ mol-1
3 The enthalpy change of solution of anhydrous magnesium chloride – 132 kJ mol-1
5. The conversion of graphite into diamond is an endothermic reaction (∆H = +3 kJ mol-1)

Which statements are correct?
1 The enthalpy change of atomization of diamond is smaller than that of graphite.
2 The bond energy of the C- C bonds is graphite is greater than that in diamond
3 The enthalpy change of combustion of diamond is greater than that of graphite.
SECTION C
1. Explain the following observation as fully as you can.

The enthalpy changes of neutralization of 1 mol of sodium hydroxide by various acids are as
follows:
Hydrochloric acid, - 57.3 kJ mol-1
Nitric acid - 57.3 kJ mol-1
Ethanoic acid -55.2 kJ mol-1
2. Consider the energy cycle below for the elements of Group VH (the halogens)
a)i. What does the term ∆H1 represent?

ii). What does the term ∆H2 represent?
iii). Explain why the halogen at the start of the cycle has not been given a state symbol. (3)
The values of some ∆H terms for chlorine, bromine and iodine are given in the table below
Cl Br I
∆H1 I kJ mol-1 121 112 107
∆HcI kJ mol-1 -364 -295
∆Hhyd I kJ mol-1 -381 -351 -307
b)i. Calculate ∆H2 for each of the halogens:

CI…………….
Br………………
I…………………….
ii). What do these values indicate? (3)
3a). State Hess‟ Law

Define:
i). enthalpy change of combustion
ii). enthalpy change of formation
How is a knowledge of the enthalpy change of combustion of a substance useful to the industrial
chemist? (3)
b). Calculate the enthalpy change of hydrogenation of (i) cyclohexene ii) benzene, using the
enthalpy change of combustion data in the following table:
Substance ∆Hø (combustion) / kJ mol-1

Benzene - 326
Cyclohexane -3920
Cyclohexene -3754
Hydrogen -286
What conclusions can you draw from these enthalpy changes of hydrogenation about the
structure of benzene compared with that of cyclohexene?
4. A molecules of dinitrogen tetraoxide, N2O4, is formed by the dimerisation of nitrogen dioxide.

i). Calculate the energy of the N – N single bond in dinitrogen tetraoxide, given that the enthalpy
change of formation of nitrogen dioxide is +33.2 kJ mol-1 and that of dintrogen tetraoxide is +
9.2 kJ mol-1
5. By using the following data, draw an appropriate energy cycle and calculate the enthal[py
change of hydration of (i) the chloride ion, (ii) the iodide ion. Comment on the difference in their
values.
Enthalpy change of solution of NaCI(s) = - 2 kJ mol-1

Enthalpy change of solution of Nal (s) = + 2 kJ mol-1
Enthalpy change of hydration of Na+(g) = - 390 kJ mol-1
Lattice energy of sodium chloride = - 772 kJ mol-1
Lattice energy of sodium iodide = - 699 kJ mol-1
b). The taste of solutions of alkali metal halides depends on the sum of the ionic radii of the ions,
sodium iodide and potassium chloride are salty, rubidium chloride is both salty and bitter,
caesium chloride and rubidium bromide and bitter.
Use the following data to predict the tastes of sodium bromide and potassium iodide, showing
your reasoning.
Ion radius / nm ion radius/ nm
Na+ 0.098 Cl - 0.181
K+ 0.133 Br- 0.196
Rb+ 0.148 I- 0.219
Cs+ 0.167
6. The lattice energy of lithium chloride can be calculated from a Born Haber cycle using the
following data:
∆H/ kJ mol-1
First ionization energy of lithium +520
Enthalpy change of atomization of lithium +159
Enthalpy change of atomization of chlorine +121
Electron affinity of chlorine atoms - 364
Enthalpy change of formation of lithium chloride -409
a). Write an equation, including state symbols, for each of the process which corresponds with
the enthalpy changes listed below.
i).First ionization energy of lithium
ii).Enthalpy change of formation of lithium chloride
iii). The lattice energy of lithium chloride. (3)
b). In the space below, construct a labeled Born Haber cycle for lithium chloride and use the
cycle to calculate the lattice energy of lithium chloride. (3)
c). Explain how you would expect the numerical magnitude of the lattice energy of sodium
chloride to compare with that of lithium chloride. (1)
7. Chemical companies manufacture containers filled with liquid butane for use by campers. The
enthalpy change of combustion of butane is -3000 kJ mol-1
a). Write an equation for the complete combustion of butane. (1)
A camper estimates that the liquid butane left in a container would give 1.2 dm2 of butane gas
(measured at ordinary temperature and pressure).
b). Calculate the mass of water at 200C that could be brought to the boiling point by burning this
butane, use the following information.
Assume that
80% of the heat from the butane is absorbed by the water, the specific heat capacity of water is
4.2 g-1 K -1, 1 mol of a gas occupies 24dm3 at ordinary temperatures and pressures. (3)
c). Suggest how the camper might have estimated how much butane was left in the container. (1)
d). When burnt in a limited supply of air, butane forms carbon and steam.
i). Construct a balanced equation for this reaction. The enthalpy change of this reaction is – 1400
kJ mol-1
ii). Explain why the enthalpy changes or these two combustion reactions are different.
iii). What additional quantitative information can be calculated from this difference? (3)
8a). Explain, with the aid of a suitable example, what is meant by the term bond energy. (2)
b). Some bond energy values are given in the table below
Bond Bond energy/ kJ mol-1 Bond Bone energy/ kJ mol-1
H–H 436 H–H 436
P–P 208 Cl – Cl 244
P–H 322 H – Cl 431

The P – H bond energy is the mean (average) of the H – H and P – P values. Explain why the H
– Cl bond energy is not the mean of the H – H and Cl – Cl values. (3)
c). Explain in bond energy terms why the Haber process involves a high activation energy. (1)
9a). By reference to the F2 molecule, explain the meaning of the term bond energy. (1)
Sulphur hexafluoride can be made by reacting sulphur tetraflouride with fluorine in the gas
phase:
SF4 (g) + F(g) SF6 (g): ∆H = - 434 kJ mol-1
By considering the bonds broken and bonds formed during this reaction, calculate an average
value for the S- F bond energy. State any assumptions you have made.
10. The yellow gas chlorine dioxide CIO2 has been used for many years as a flour improving
agent in bread making. It can be made in the laboratory by the following reaction:
2AgCIO3(s) + CI2(g) 2AgCI(s) + 2CIO2(g) + O2(g), ∆H, zero
Calculate and comment on, the value of ∆Hfø (CIO2) given the following data:
∆Hrø (AgCIO3) = -25 kJ mol-1
∆Hrø (AgCI) = - 127 kJ mol-1
11. The formation of magnesium oxide from its elements may be represented by a Born Haber
energy cycle as described below
a). name the enthalpy changes represented as:
i). ∆H1
ii).∆H2
iii).∆ H3
b). Use ionization energy values from the Data Booklet together with the values
∆H1 = +150 kJ mol-1
∆H2 = -3889 kJ mol-1
∆H4 + ∆ H5 + ∆ H6 = +950 kJ mol-1
To calculate the enthalpy change of formation. ∆H of magnesium oxide. (3)
c). The value of ∆H7 for barium oxide is -3152 kJ mol-1. Account for the difference in the values
of ∆H7 for magnesium oxide and barium oxide. (2)
12a). What is meant by the term standard enthalpy change of combustion? (2)
b). Write a balanced equation for the complete combustion of ethanol C2H6O. (1)
c). When 1.00 g of ethanol was burned under a container of water, it was found that 100g of
water was heated from 150C to 650C. The process was known to be only 70% efficient.
Use these data and values from the Data Booklet to calculate the enthalpy change of combustion
per mole of ethanol. (3)
d). Using the value you have calculated in (c) and the following data, calculate the enthalpy
change of formation of ethanol from its elements. (2)
enthalpy change of combustion of carbon = -393 kJ mol-1
enthalpy change of combustion of hydrogen = -285.8 kJ mol-1
e). Based on the qualitative use of bond energy data given in the Data Booklet, suggest briefly
why the combustion of ethanol is an exothermic process. (2)
13. A small petrol car needs about 3.6 x 104 kJ to travel 100km. What volume of petrol (CgH18)
would it use during this journey, assuming that the engine efficiency was 20%?
∆Hc (C8H18) = 5470 kJ mol-1
Density of petrol = 0.66g cm-3
14. The major natural source of fluorine is the mineral fluorspar, which is mainly calcium
fluoride, CaF2.
a)i. Construct a Born Haber cycle for the formation of CaF2 from its elements.
ii). Use the cycle to calculate the lattice energy of CaF2 (s). incorporate the following data as well
as relevant data given in the Data Booklet.
∆Hat (Ca) = +178 kJ mol-1
F (g) – F – (g) ; ∆H = - 328 kJ mol-1
(this is the electron affinity of fluorine)
∆Hr (CuF2) = - 1220 kJ mol-1
b). The first stage in liberating the fluorine from CaF2 is to grind this compound up and react it
with concentrated sulphuric acid. The products are hydrogen fluoride and calcium sulphate
CaSO4.
i). Write a balances equation for this reaction.
ii). Calculate the enthalpy change for this reaction, by using the following data in addition to
those given above:
∆H2 (H2SO4) = - 814 kJ mol-1
∆Hr(HF) = - 271 kJ mol-1
∆Hr (CaSO4) = - 1434 kJ mol-1
iii). Should the reaction be heated or cooled? Give a reason for your answer. (5)
15a)i. What is meant by the standard enthalpy change of formation of a compound?

ii). Write an equation with the state symbols, which represents the standard enthalpy change of
formation of ethane. (1)
b). Use the following standard enthalpy changes of combustion ∆HCø, to calculate the enthalpy
change of formation of ethane:
∆HCø kJ mol-1
Carbon - 393
Hydrogen - 286
Ethane -1560
16. The key stage in the manufacture of nitric acid is the reaction of ammonia with air in the
presence of platinum rhodium gauze:
4NH3(g) + 5O2 (g) 4NO(g) + 6H2O (g) ; ∆H = x kJ mol-1
b). Use the enthalpy changes of formation given below to calculate the enthalpy change of
reaction (∆H = x kJ mol-1) for the oxidation of ammonia.
Compound ∆Hr / kJ mol-1

NH3 (g) - 46
H2O (g) - 242
NO (g) +90
17. Sodium reacts with water to form aqueous sodium hydroxide.

Na(s) + H2O (l) Na+ (aq) + OH- (aq) + ½ H2 (g)
An energy cycle which starts from Na(s) and H2O (l) is sketched below. Some enthalpy changes
are included.
Na+ (g) + s- + H+ (aq) + OH- (aq)

C - 50 kJ mol-1
Na+ (g) + - H2OH

B
Na(g) + H2O (I) D - 60 kJ mol-1
A + 107 kJ mol-1
Na(s) + H2O (I)

E
Na+ (aq) + OH- (aq) + ½ H2 (g)
ai). Name the enthalpy changes involved in steps A, B and C

ii). Describe two of the processes which are involved in step D
b)i. Use the Data Booklet to obtain the enthalpy change for step B.
ii). calculate the enthalpy change for step E i.e for the reaction
Na (s) + H2O (l) Na+ (aq) + OH- (aq) + ½ H2 (g)
18. By means of a Balanced chemical equation, including state symbols, illustrate the term the
average C – H bond energy in methane. (2)
b). Hydrogen is used in large quantities in industry to convert nitrogen into ammonia, for use in
fertilizers. One method of manufacturing hydrogen is to pass methane and steam over a heated
nickel catalyst.
Ch4 (g) + H2O (g) – CO (g) + 3H2 (g) ∆H1 = + 206 kJ mol-1
i). Use the value of ∆H1 above and bond energy values from the Data Booklet to calculate the
total bond energy in the carbon monoxide molecule.
ii). Suggest why the bond energy you have calculated in (i) is larger than either of the carbon
oxygen bond energies in the Data Booklet.
19. Define what is meant by the standard enthalpy change of formation of a compound.
The standard enthalpy changes of atomization of the elements silicon ands chloride are +338 and
+122 kJ mol-1 of atoms respectively.
b). Incorporate these three values into an energy cycle on the grid below
energy
e)i. Hence calculate the average bond energy of the Si- Cl bond from these data.
ii). How does the calculated value compare with the value given in the Data Booklet? (3)
20. The lattice energy of lithium chloride is – 848 kJ mol-1 and that of sodium chloride is – 776
kJ mol-1 .
a)i. Define, using sodium chloride as an example, what is meant by the term lattice energy.
ii). Explain why the lattice energy of lithium chloride is more exothermic than that of sodium
chloride. (4)
b). The ionic radius of lithium is 0.074 nm. Use the Data Booklet to determine the distance
between adjacent nuclei in these two solids. (2)
c). what is the relationship between lattice energy enthalpy change of hydration, ∆Hhyd, and the
enthalpy change of solution, ∆H solin
d). Some enthalpy changes of hydration are listed below:
∆Hhyd/ kJ mol-1
Li+ - 499
Na+ - 390
Cl- - 381
i). Draw two energy cycles using data in this question to determine the enthalpy change or
solution. ∆Hsoln for these two salts.
Energy
Lithium chloride
Energy
ii). State the ∆Hsoln values of these two salts,
Lithium chloride and sodium chloride
iii). How would you expect the temperature to change when lithium chloride is dissolved in
water? (5)
21.iii). The standard enthalpy change of combustion of propane (C3H8) is – 2220 kJ mol-1. It
requires 1.0 J of energy to raise the temperature of 1.0g of air by 1.0 K
Calculate what mass of propane needs to be burned to raise the temperature of the sir in the
balloon by 50K. (5)
22. i). What do you understand by the term bond energy?

ii). By using appropriate bond energy data from the Data Booklet, calculate a value for the
enthalpy change of the following reaction.
H – C = C – H + 2Hg CH3 – CH3 (4)
23a). The equation for the complete combustion of octane C8H18 is given below
C8H18(l) + 12 ½ O2 (g) 8CO2 (g) + 9H2O (l)
Using the following enthalpy changes of formation, calculate the enthalpy changes of
combustion of octane.
∆Hr (C2H18) = -250 kJ mol-1
∆Hr (H20) = -286 kJ mol-1
∆Hr (CO2) = - 394 kJ mol-1
24. In an attempt to cut down carbon dioxide emissions during the production of electricity from
fossil fuels, there has recently been a move in some countries to build more power stations
burning natural gas (methane, CH4) rather than coal. The following table compares these two
types of power station.
Type of power station Overall efficiency of Amount of by- product produced per MJ of
power station electrical energy (1 MJ = 105)
SO2 NO2
Coal 40% 0.31g 0.64
Natural gas 51% 0.0015g 0.1tg
For your calculations, assume that coal consists of 95% of carbon, together with 5% of non
combustible ash.
a). Write balanced equations for the complete combustion of
i). methane ii). carbon
b). The enthalpy changes of combustion of methane and carbon are:

∆Hc (CH4) = - 890 kJ mol-1
∆Hc (C) = - 394 - 890 kJ mol-1
i). Use these data (and your equations in part (a) ) to calculate how many moles of each methane
and carbon need to be buried in order to produce 1 MJ of heat energy.
ii). Using the efficiency figures in the table, calculate how many moles of each of methane and
carbon need to be burned to produce 1MJ of electrical energy.
iii). Hence calculate the ratio:

(moles of CO2 emitted per MJ of electricity from coal power station)
Moles ofCO2 emitted per MJ of electricity from gas power station
c). Why is it considered important to cut down CO2 emissions? (1)
d). Calculate the mass of ash that would be produced per MJ of electrical energy in a coal fired
power station. (3)
e). Use the data in the table to suggest one other environmental advantage of using a natural gas
power station. Explain your answer. (1)
25a). Write a complete equation to represent the first ionization energy of fluorine. (1)
b). Explain the differences in the following ionization energies:
Element First ionization energy / kJ mol-1
Fluorine 1 680
Neon 2080
Sodium 494
c). Using the Data Booklet, list the first ionization energies of the alkali metals lithium, sodium
and potassium. Explain the trend observed. (2)
d). The electrode potential Eø of a Group 1 element gives an indication of the ease with which of
the following reaction occurs:
M(S) – e- M+ (aq) (1)
The enthalpy change of reaction (1) can be related to the first ionization energy of the element
by using its enthalpy change of atomization and the enthalpy change of hydration of its gaseous
ion.
i). Construct a Hess‟s Law cycle relating the four terms in italics, and use the following values
and those you have listed in (c) above to calculate the enthalpy change of reaction (1) for each of
the alkali metals Li, Na and K.
26. Define the standard enthalpy change of formulation, ∆H1ø, of a compound.

ii). Given that ∆Hrø for water is – 286 kJ kJ mol-1 what is the standard enthalpy change of the
following reaction?
2H2O (l) 2H2 (g) + O2 (g)
27. Using the following data, and relevant data from the Data Booklet, construct a
thermochemical cycle to calculate the enthalpy change of formation of MgF2.
Include state symbols in your cycle.
Value/ kJ mol-1
Lattice energy of MgF2 (S) - 2957
Electron affinity of fluorine (F (g) - F- (g) ) - 328
Enthalpy change of atomization of magnesium +148
28. Dinitrogen pentoxide, N2O5 can be produced by the following reaction sequence.
I N2 (g) + O2(g) 2NO (g) ∆H = + 180 kJ mol-1

II NO(g) + ½ O2 (g) NO2(g) ∆H = - 57 kJ mol-1
III 2NO2(g) + ½ <>2 (g) N2O5 (g) ∆H = - 55 kJ mol-1
a). i. Explain why reaction I occurs in car engines.

ii). Suggest why reaction I is endothermic. (3)
b).i. What is meant by the standard enthalpy change of formation of a compound?
ii). Write the equation which compounds corresponds to the enthalpy change of formation of
dintrogen pentoxide.
iii). Use the data given to calculate the enthalpy change of formation of dintrogen pentoxide. (3)
c). Dinitrogen pentoxide is a covalent molecule. Draw a possible displayed formula for the
molecule, and suggest the bond angles in the molecule. (3)
d). Suggest an equation for the reaction of dintrogen pentoxide with water. (1)
29. Aluminium fluoride is almost completely insoluble in cold water, but aluminium chloride
dissolves to give a clear solution. The addition of aqueous sodium hydroxide to this solution
produces a white precipitate which dissolves in an excess of aqueous sodium hydroxide forming
another clear solution.
i). What enthalpy factors are involved in process of dissolving an ionic salt in water? Use these
factors to suggest a reason why AIF3 is so insoluble. (4)
ii). Suggest equations for the formation of the white precipitate and for its dissolving in an
excess of aqueous sodium hydroxide. (2)
30. „Water gas‟ is an equimolar mixture of hydrogen and carbon monoxide. It is used as an
industrial gaseous fact. It is produced when steam is blown through white hot coke in the
following reaction:
H2O(g) + C (s) H2(g) + CO(g)
Another widely used industrial fuel is natural gas, which consists mainly of methane.
a)i. Use the following enthalpy changes of combustion to calculate the volume of methane
(measured at 250C and 1 atm) required to produce 1 MJ (1000 kJ) of heat energy when burned.
ii). Calculate the volume of water gas (measured at 250C and 1 atm) required to produce the
same amount of heat energy.
Substance Enthalpy change of combustion

∆H/ kJ mol-1
CH4 - 890
H2 - 242
CO - 283
iii). Based on your calculations, or on other considerations, suggest two advantages (economic,
safety of engineering) of using natural gas rather than water gas. give reasons for your answers.
(7)
b). An industrially important source of hydrogen is the reaction below.

CH4 (g) + 2H2O (g) CO2(g) + 4H2 (g)
i). Use the above enthalpy changes of combustion to construct an energy cycle and use it to
calculate the enthalpy change of this reaction.
ii). Predict how the position of equilibrium might be affected by
I an increase in pressure
II an increase in temperature
32. Ethanol C2H5OH, is a most important industrial chemical and is used as a solvent, a fuel and
an intermediate in large scale organic synthesis.
Ethanol is prepared industrially by the reaction of ethane and steam in the presence of a catalyst.
C2H4 (g) + H2O (g) C2H5H(g)
The standard enthalpy change of the reaction can be determined by using the standard enthalpy
changes of combustion. ∆Hcø, at 298K.
∆Hcø/ kJ mol-1
C2H4(g) - 1411
C2H5OH(l) -1367
a). Calculate the standard enthalpy change for the following reaction.
C2H4(g) + H2O (l) C2H5OH(l)
b)i. Define the term standard enthalpy change of combustion.

ii). Explain why the state symbols for water and ethanol given in the equation in (a) have been
changed from those quoted in the industrial process.
iii). Write the equation for the complete combustion of ethanol. (4)
32. The magnesium ions in seawater are mainly associated with chloride ions.
i). Use the following ∆Hrø values to calculate a value for the ∆Hø of the following reaction.
MgCI2(s) Mg2+ (aq) + 2CI- (aq)
Species ∆Hrø / kj mol-1

MgCl2 (s) - 64t
Mg2+ (aq) - 467
CI- (aq) - 167
i). Use your answer to explain why MgCl2 is very soluble in water. (2)
33a)i. Explain what is meant by the lattice energy of an ionic compound.

ii). Write an equation which represents the lattice energy of calcium oxide. (3)
b)i. Write one equation, with state symbols, which represents the first and second ionization
energies of calcium.
ii). Use the Data Booklet to calculate this energy change. (2)
c). Use the grid below to construct a Born Haber cycle which can be used to calculate the lattice,
energy of calcium oxide.
Label each energy level of your cycle, and draw arrows representing the energy terms involved.
Use your words or symbols to represent these energy terms.
ii). Calculate the lattice energy of calcium oxide using the following data and the ionization
energy value you obtained in (b) (ii).
enthalpy change of formation of calcium oxide = - 635 kJ mol -1
enthalpy change of atomization of calcium = +178 kJ mol -1
enthalpy change of atomization of oxygen = +249 kJ mol -1
sum of first and second electron affinities of oxygen = +657 kJ mol -1
energy
0
d). The lattice energy of a metal is small compared with that of an ionic compound. The value for
the lattice energy of calcium is – 178 kJ mol -1
Comment on and suggest reasons for the difference between this value for calcium and the value
you obtained in(c) (ii) for calcium oxide. (4)
34a). Define the term standard enthalpy change of neutralization. (1)
Solutions of carbonites and hydrogencarbonates react with acids as follows:
CO32- (aq) + 2H+ (aq) H2O(l) + CO2(g) reaction 1
HCO3- (aq) + H+ (aq) H2O (l) + CO2 (g) reaction 2
b). The standard enthalpy change of reaction 2 was determined experimentally by mixing known
volumes or 1.0 mol dm-3 NaHCO3(aq) and 1.0 mol dm-3 HCl(aq). The following results were
obtained.
Volume of NaHCO3(aq) used = 40.0 cm3

Volume of HCl(aq) used = 40.0 cm3
Change in temperature = -0.5 0C
Use the data given to calculate the standard enthalpy change for the reaction (Assume the heat
capacity of all solutions = 4.2 JK-1 cm-3)
c)i. Use the data in the table below to calculate another value for standard enthalpy change of
reaction 2.
Species ∆Hrø/ kJ mol -1
H2O (l) - 285.8
CO2 (q) - 393.5
HCO3-(aq) -692
H+(aq) 0.0
ii). Compare your answers in (b) and (c) (i) and suggest one possible reason for any difference.
(1)
d)i. The standard enthalpy change of reaction 1 is -2.3 kJ mol-1. Use this figure and those in the
table to calculate a value for ∆Hrø of CO32- (aq). (2)
ii). Use your answer to (d) (i) to calculate the standard enthalpy change of the reaction.
2HCO3- (aq) CO32-(aq) + H2O (l) + CO2(g)
And hence predict the effect of heat on an aqueous solution of NaHCO3. Explain your answer.
(3)
35a. Define the term standard enthalpy change of combustion. (1)

b). An experiment was carried out as follows to determine the standard enthalpy of combustion
of butane contained in the gas cylinder of a camping gas stove.
A larger beaker of water was placed on the above and heated. The temperature rise was recorded.
The cylinder was weighed before and after the experiment to determine the mass of gas used.
The following results were obtained.
Mass of butane used = 3.4g
Mass of water heated = 500g
Temperature rise = 440C
i). Write a balanced equation for the combustion of butane. (1)

ii). State one precaution you should observe when carrying out an experiment such as this one in
order to gain accurate results. (1)
iii). Use the data given to calculate the enthalpy change of combustion of butane. (Assume the
heat capacity of water = 4.2 K-1 cm-3) (2)
iv). The standard enthalpy change of combustion of butane is – 2877 kJ mol-1, suggest an
explanation for the difference between this and your value in (iii). (1)
c).i. Use the bond energies given in the Data Booklet to calculate another value for the standard
enthalpy change of combustion of butane. (Use a value of 805 kJ mol-1 for the bond energy of C
= O in CO2)
ii). Suggest a reason for the discrepancy between this value and that quoted in (b) (iv). (1)
ASNWERS
SECTION A
1. A 2. A 3. C 4. B 5. D
6. E 7. D 8. A 9. D 10. A
11. A 12. C 13. D 14. C 15. C
16. B 17. C 18. A 19. B 20. D
21. A 22. D 23. C 24. B 25. A
26. A 27. D 28. A 29. B 30. B
31. C 32. B 33. C 34. C 35. A
36. B 37. B 38. D
SECTION B
1. B 2. C 3. D 4. C 5. C
6. C 7. C 8. D 9. D 10. D
11. A 12. A
SECTION C
2. Cl: - 624: Br = - 581.1 = - 495 kJ mol-1
3. i). – 120 kJ mol-1
ii). – 206 kJ mol-1
4b)i. + 57.2 kJ mol-1
5. Lattice energy = -845 kJ mol-1
6. 357g
7. 296 kJ mol-1
8. +102 kJ mol-1
11. ∆Hr = - 603 kJ mol-1
12. ∆Hc = -1373 kJ mol-1
b). ∆Hr = -271 kJ mol-1
13. 5.68 dm3

14a). Lattice energy = -2640 kJ mol-1
b). Enthalpy change = 58 kJ mol-1
15. ∆Hr = -84 kJ mol-1

16. x = - 908
17.i). + 495 kJ mol-1
ii). – 191 kJ mol-1
18. +1046 kJ mol-1
19. +359 kJ mol-1
20. 0.255 nm : 0.276nm

b). – 32 kJ mol-1 ; +5 kJ mol-1
21. 1.85 x 103 g

22. – 278 kJ mol-1
23. – 5476 kJ mol-1
24. i). 1.12 mol CH4: 254 mol C
ii). 2.20 mol CH4 : 635 mol C
iii). 2.89
b). 4.01g
25. ∆H = - 279 kJ mol-1 for Li

∆H = - 240 kJ mol-1 for Na
∆H = - 253 kJ mol-1 for K
26. +572 kJ mol-1

27. ∆Hr = - 1121 kJ mol-1
28. – 11 kJ mol-1
30. 26.97 dm3
31. – 44 kJ mol-1
32. – 160 kJ mol-1
33. – 3459 kJ mol-1
34. + 4.2 kJ mol-1
ii). +12.7 kJ mol-1
iii). +27.7 kJ mol-1
35.i). – 1576.8 kJ mol-1

ii). – 2666 kJ mol-1
TOPIC 6
ELECTROCHEMISTRY
SECTION A
REDOX PROCESSES
1. „Iron tablets‟ can be bought at chemises to supplement the diet. The contain iron (II0 sulphate.
Which of the following aqueous reagents could be used under suitable conditions to determine
the percentage of iron in the tablets by titration?
a. ethaedioic acid
b. iodine in potassium iodide
c. nitric acid
d. potassium manganete (VII)
e. sodium thiosulphate
2. In which of the following substances does sulphur exhibit its highest oxidation state?
a. Ss
b. SO2
c. SO2Cl2
d. Na2S2O3
e. Na2S4O6
3. A sample of 10.0 cm3 of 0.10 mol dm-3 iron (II) sulphate is titrated against 0.025 mol dm-3
potassium manganate (VII) in the presence of an excess of fluoride irons. It is found that 10.0
cm3 of the manganete (VII) solution is required to reach the end point.
What is the oxidation number of the manganese at the end point?
a. +2 b. +3 c. +4 d. +5 e. +6
4. In an attempt to establish the formula or an oxide of nitrogen, a known volume of the gas was
mixed with hydrogen and passed over a catalyst at a suitable temperature. 100% conversion of
the oxide to ammonia and water was shown to have taken place.
NxOy H2 (g) NH3 + yH2O

Catalyst
2400 cm3 of the nitrogen oxide, measured at room temperature and pressure (r.t.p) produced
7.20g of water. The ammonia produced was neutralized by 200 cm3 of 1.0 mol dm-3HCl.
(Molar volume of gas at r.t.p = 24000cm3 mol-1
Ar; H, 1:O, 16)
What was the oxidation number of the nitrogen in the nitrogen oxide?
a. +1 b. +2 c. +3 d. +4 e. +5
5. An aqueous solution contains 1 mol of S2O32- ions and this reduces 4 mol of CI2 molecules.
What is the sulphur containing product of this reaction?
a. S
b. SO2
c. SO32-
d. SO42-
e. S4O62-
6. Which of the following a redox reaction?

a. AlH3 (g) + H- (g) AlH-4 (g)
b. Al3+ (aq) + 3OH- (aq) Al (OH)3 (s)
c. 2Al (s) + 3Cl2 (g) 2AICI3 (s)
d. AIO-2 (aq) + H+ (aq) + H2O (l) AI (OH)3 (s)
e. AI2CI6 (g) 2AICI3 (g)
7. In an experiment, 50cm3 of a 0.1 mol dm-3 solution of a metallic salt reacted exactly with
25cm3 of 0.1 mol dm-3 a aqueous sodium sulphite.
The half equation for oxidation of sulphite ion is shown below:
SO2-3 (aq) + H2O(l) SO2-4 (aq) + 2H+ (aq) + 2e-
If the original oxidation number of the metal in the salt was 3, what would be the new oxidation
number of the metal?
a. 0 b. 1 c. 2 d. 4 e. 5
8. Ethanedoite ions C2O2-4 are oxidized by acidified aqueous potassium manganese (Vii)
according to the equation:
2MaO-4 (aq) + 5C2O2-3 (aq) + 16H+ (aq) 2Mn2+(aq) + 10CO2 (g) + 8H2O (l)
What volume of 0.200 mol dm-3 potassium manganate (VII) is required to oxidize completely 1.0
x 10-3 mol of the salt KHC2O4-H2C2O4?
a. 20cm3
b. 40cm3
c. 50cm3
d. 125 cm3
e. 250 cm3
9. For complete oxidation 1 mol of an organic compound requires 3 mol of oxygen gas. what
could be the formula of the compound?
a. CH3CHO
b. CH3CH2OH
c. CH3CH3
d. CH3CO2H
e. CH3OH
10. Which of the following ions is readily able to donate electrons?

a. Al3+
b. Cu2+
c. Fe2+
d. Mg2+
e. Zn2+
11. Sodium thiosulphate is used in the textile industry to remove an excess of chlorine from
bleaching processes by reducing it to chloride ions.
S2O2-3 + 4cl2 + 5H2O 2HSO-4 + 8H+ + 8Cl-
In this reaction, how many moles of electrons are supplied per mole of thiosulphate?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 4
d. 8
12. The anti cancer drug cisplatin has the formula Pt(NH3)2Cl2.
In the human body, one of the chloride ions of cisplatin is replaced by one water molecule
Pt(NH3)2 Cl2 + H2O (Pt (NH3)2 (H2O) CI]+ + Cl-
What is the oxidation number of platinum in each of these substances?
Cisplatin In the aquocomplex

A +2 +1
B +2 +2
C +4 +3
D +4 +4
Titanium is manufactured from ilmenire which is a mixture of iron (II) tilamate FcTiO3, and iron
(III) titanate, Fe2(TiO3)3.
What is the oxidation number of titanium in each of these compounds?
FeTiO3 Fe2(TiO3)3
A +2 +3
B +4 +2
C +4 +3
D +4 +4
14. A weedkiller can be prepared by heating a bleach solution.

3NaCIO heat 2NaCI + NaCIO3
Bleach Weedkiller
What are the oxidation states of chlorine in these three compounds?

a. -1 -1 +5
b. +1 -1 +5
c. +1 -1 +7
d. +2 +1 +7
15. A constituent of wood preservative is manufactured by heating the one chromite, FeCr2O4,
with sodium carbonate in air.
4FeCr2O4 + 8Na2CO3 + 7O2 8Na2CrO4 + 2Fe2O3 + 8CO2
Which species is oxidized and which species is reduced in this process?
Species oxidized Species reduced
A Chromium only Carbonate ion only
B Chromium and iron Carbonate ion and oxygen
C Chromium and iron Oxygen only
D Chromium and iron Carbonate ion and oxygen
16. Disproportionation occurs when an element is both oxidized and reduced in a reaction, the
oxidation number of the named element will change both to a higher and a lower value.
Which named element does not disproportionate in the reaction shown?
a. carbon in H2C2O4 H2O + CO + Co2
b. chlorine in 3CLO- ClO3 + 2Cl-
c. nitrogen in H2O + 2NO2 HNO3 + HNO2
d. sulphur in 2FeSO4 Fe2O3 + SO2 + SO3
17. The equations for three equations are given below:

CI2(g) + 2H2O (l) + SO2 (g) 2HCI (aq) + H2SO4(aq)
Cl2 (ag) + H2S(g) 2HCI(g) + 5 (s)
SO2(g) + 2H2S(g) 2H2O (l) + 3S (s)
What is the correct order of strength of the three reacting gases as reducing agents?
Strongest weakest
a. chlorine hydrogen sulphide sulphur dioxide
b. chlorine sulphur dioxide hydrogen sulphide
c. hydrogen sulphide sulphur dioxide chlorine
d. sulphur dioxide hydrogen sulphide chlorine
18. When ammonia is converted into nitric acid on a commercial scale, the following reactions
can occur.
In which reaction does the greatest change in oxidation number of the nitrogen occur?
Reaction
A 4NH3 + 5O2 4NO + 6H2O
B 3NO2 + H2O 2HNO3 + NO
C 2NO + O2 2NO2
D 4NH3 + 6NO 5N2 + 6H2O
ELECTRODE POTENTIAL
1. The e.m.f of a simple cell was found to be 1.2V under standard conditions. The following
standard electrode potentials are given. (The letters are not the usual symbols for the elements
concerned)
P+ / P -1.8V
Q2+ / Q + 0.3V
R+ / R -0.9V
S2+ / S -0.3V
What were the two electrodes of the cell?
a. P and Q
b. P and S
c. Q and R
d. Q and S
e. R and S
2. A student set up the hydrogen electrode shown in the diagram below

What would have to be changed to make a standard hydrogen electrode?
a. the temperature of the gas and the acid solution
b. the pressure of the hydrogen gas
c. the metal comprising the electrode
d. the thickness of the layer of platinum black
e. the concentration of the hydrochloric acid
3. The standard electrode potentials for the metals X and Y are given below
X2+ (aq) / X (s);Eø = +0.30 v

r2+ (aq) / Y (s) ; Eø = - 0.40V
The cell shown in the diagram is set up.

Which of the following is correct description of this cell?
Electrode in which positive ions e.m.f / V
Enter the solution
a. X 0.10
b. X 0.70
c. X 0.75
d. Y 0.70
4. half equation Eø/ V

12 (aq) + 2e- 21- (aq) +0.54
2H+ (aq) + O2(g) + 2e- H2O2 (aq) +0.68
H2O2 (aq) + 2H+ (aq) + 2e- 2H2O(l) +1.77
What will be observed when a few drops of acidified aqueous hydrogen peroxide are added to an
excess of aqueous potassium iodide?
a. The solution turns brown and effervescence occurs.
b. The solution turns brown without effervescence.
c. The solution does not change colour and effervescence occurs
d. The solution turns purple and effervescence occurs.
e. The solution turns purple without effervescence

In acidic solution, MnO-4 ions oxidize Cl- ions to CI2. The value of Eø for the reaction is +0.16V.
Which statement or equation is correct?
a. The oxidation number of chlorine changes from -1 to +2.
b. The oxidation number of manganese changes from +7 to +4.
c. 2MnO-4 + 2CI- 2MnO2-4 + CI2
d. 2MnO-4 + BH+ + 6CI- 2MnO2 + 4H2O + 3CI2
e. 2MnO-4 + 16H+ + 10I- 2Mn2+ + 8H2O + 5CI2
6. From the two standard redox potentials

MnO2 (s) + 4H+ (aq) + 2e- Mn2+ (aq) + 2H2O (l), Eø = +1.23V
Cl2 (g) + 2e- 2Cl- (aq) Eø= +1.36V
It may be predicted that chloride ions will not be oxidized by solid manganese (IV) oxide. In
fact, chlorine can be prepared by heating this oxide with concentrated hydrochloric acid.
What is the reason for this prediction failing?
a. The reaction does not produce manganese (II) ions
b. The standard redox potentials apply only if one mole of manganese (IV) oxide is used.
c. Concentrated hydrochloric acid contains almost no chloride ions.
d. Standard redox potentials apply only under specified conditions of concentration and
temperature.

What is the standard c.m.f of the cell
Mg(s) [Mg2+ (aq) Cu2+ (aq)] Cu (s)?
a. 2.72V
b. 2.53V
c. 2.04V
d. 1.36V
e. 1.02V
8. Four standard electrode potentials are listed below.

Cu2+ (aq) + 2e- Cu (s) 0.34V
AgCl (s) + e- Ag (s) + Cl- (aq) +0.22V
H+ (aq) + e- ½ H2(g) 0.00V
Zn2+ (aq) + 2e- Zn(s) -0.76V
Which cell potential could be obtained by combining two of these standard electrodes?
a. 0.39V
b. 0.42V
c. 0.54V
d. 0.56V
e. 0.98V
9. The use of Data Booklet is relevant to this question:

In many areas, tap water becomes slightly acidic due to dissolved carbon dioxide.
By considering the relevant Eø values, which of the following metals will not be dissolved by tap
water containing carbon dioxide?
a. chromium
b. copper
c. iron
d. lead
e. zinc
10. The following standard half cells are connected:
Cd2+ (aq) + 2e- Cd(s); gø = -0.40V

Ag+ (aq) + e- Ag (s); Eø = +0.80V
What is the potential of the cadmium electrode relative to the silver electrode?
a. -2.00 V
b. - 1.20 V
c. - 0.40V
d. +0.40 V
e. +1.20V
11. The standard electrode potentials of Ag+ (aq) / Ag (s) and Zn2+ (aq) / Zn (s) are +0.80V and -
0.76V respectively,
Which of the following conclusions can be drawn from these data?
a. Silver displaces zinc from a solution containing zinc ions.
b. Silver is an oxidizing agent
c. Zinc has a greater tendency than silver to form positively charged ions
d. Zinc ions can act as a reducing agent
12. The standard redox be used for the half cell reaction.
Fe3+ + c- = Fc- is +0.77V
Which cell would be used to determine this standard value?

a. Fe electrode in 1 mol dm-3 Fe3+ against Fe electrode in 1 mol dm-3 Fe2+.
b. Pt electrode in 1 mol dm-3 Fe3+ against Pt electrode in 1 mol dm-3 Fe2+.
c. Fe electrode in a solution containing 1 mol dm-3 Fe3+ and 1 mol dm-3 Fe2+ against a
standard hydrogen electrode.
d. Pt electrode in a solution containing 1 mol dm-3 Fe3+ and 1 mol dm-3 Fe2+ against a standard
hydrogen electrode.
13. In the construction of heat „peacemakers‟, it is possible to use a tiny magnesium electrode
which creates an electrical cell with the inhaled oxygen. The relevant half cells are as follows:
Mg2+ + 2e- Mg Eø = - 2.38V
½ O2 + 2H+ + 2e- H2O E ø = 1.23V
Under standard conditions, the cell e.m.f would be 3.61 V but in the body a potential of 3.25V is
more usual.
What is the best explanation of this lower e.m.f

a. the small size of the magnesium electrode
b. the low concentration of Mg2+ ions surrounding the magnesium electrode
c. the high resistance of the body fluids surrounding the electrodes
d. the pH of between 7 and 8 of the body fluid surrounding the electrodes
14. The use of Data Booklet is relevant to this question.
Sir Humphrey Davy showed that the corrosion of copper hulls of sca going ships could be
prevented by placing strips of „sacrificial‟ metals on the hulls.
Which of these metals is least likely to dissolve when attached to the copper hull of a sca going
ship?
a. iron b. magnesium c. tin d. zinc

The salt K3Fe(CN)6 is prepared by oxidizing K4Fe(CN)6.
Which reagent carries out this oxidation?
a. Ag (s)
b. CI2 (g)
c. Cu2+ (aq)
d. Fe2+ (aq)

Which reactant is likely to be reduced by Sa2+ (aq) ions?
a. Fe3+ (aq)
b. H+ (aq)
c. Pb2+ (aq)
d. V3+ (aq)
Spatulas are often made from nickel.
Which aqueous solution should not be stirred with a nickel spatula because a reaction could
occur?
a. CO2+ (aq)
b. Cr3+ (aq)
c. Fe3+ (aq)
d. Mn2+ (aq)
18. In the dry cell battery, one electrode is the zinc casing. The other electrode is a carbon rod, at
which MnO2 and NH4 ions are converted into MnO (ON)and NH3.
What mass of MnO2 is consumed when 0.1g of zinc is used by the cell?
[Ar ; Zn; 65, Mr; MnO2, 87]
a. 0.1 x 2 x 87/ 65
b. 0.1 x 87/ 65
c. 0.1 x 65/87
d. 0.1 x ½ x 87/65
19. The standard cell potentials for the redox equilibria of aqueous vanadium containing ions
and the colours of these ions are given below.
Vo ½ + 2H+ + e- H2O + VO2+ Eø = +1.00 V
Yellow blue
VO2+ + 2H+ + e- H2O + V3+ Eø = +0.34V

Blue green
V3+ + e- V2+ Eø= -0.26V

Green purple
What is likely to be the final colour when metallic tin is added to a solution containing VO2+?
Sn2+ + 2e- Sn Eø = - 0.14V
a. yellow
b. blue
c. green
d. purple
ELECTROLYSIS
1. Some data relating to magnesium and its compound are as follows
Standard electrode potential of magnesium = -2.38V
Melting point of magnesium oxide = 2850 0C
Melting point of magnesium chloride = 7140C
What is the most suitable method for extracting magnesium metal from its ores?
a. electrolysis of aqueous magnesium chloride
b. electrolysis of molten magnesium chloride
c. electrolysis of molten magnesium oxide
d. reduction of magnesium oxide with carbon
e. reduction of magnesium chloride with aluminium
2. In the commercial electrolysis of brine, the products are chloride, hydrogen and sodium
hydroxide.
What is the maximum yield of each of these products when 58.5kg of sodium is electrolysed as
brine?
[Ar; H; 1; 0; 16; Na; 23; Cl; 35.5]
Chlorine hydrogen sodium hydroxide

a. 35.5kg 1 kg 40kg
b. 35.5kg 2kg 40kg
c. 71kg 1kg 40kg
d. 71kg 1kg 80kg
e. 71kg 1kg 80kg
3. The extraction of aluminium involves the electrolysis of purified beuxile dissolved in molten
cryolite. Na3A/F6 what is the main purpose of the cryolite?
a. to reduce the melting point of the mixture
b. to provide an additional source of aluminium
c. to increase the electrical conductivity of the melt
d. to prevent the reoxidation of the aluminium formed at the cathode
e. to prevent oxidation of the anodes
4. When 5 mol od electrons are passed through a molten aluminium salt, what is the maximum
mass of aluminium formed at the cathode? (Ar, A1, 27)
a. 5.4g b. 16.2g c. 27g d. 45g e. 135g
5. When a large current was passed through acidified aqueous copper (II) sulphate, there was
simultaneous liberation, at the cathode, of x mol of copper and y dm3 of hydrogen (measured at
s.t.p)
How many moles of electrons passed through the solution?
a. x+y
22.4
b. x+y
11.2
c. x+y
5.6
d. 2x + y
11.2
e. 2x + y
22.4
6. During an industrial electrolysis to obtain aluminium, both hydrogen fluoride and carbon
monoxide may be evolved as undesirable by products.
What are the sources of these gases?
Sources of hydrogen fluoride source of carbon monoxide
a. the bauxile in the electrolyte the anode
b. the bauxile in the electrolyte the cathode lining
c. the cryolite in the electrolyte the anode
d. the cryolite in the electrolyte the bauxile in the electrolyte
e. the cryolite in the electrolyte the cathode lining
7. During electrolysis under suitable conditions 0.015 mol of chromium is deposited on the
cathode when 0.090 mol of electrons is passed through a chromium containing electrolyte.
Which of the following substances could have been the electrolyte?
a. CrCl2
b. CrCl3
c. CrF4
d. CrF5
e. Na2CrO7
8. The circuit shown in the diagram was set up,
Which electrode reactions will occur on closing the switch?

Anode reaction Cathode reaction
a. Copper dissolves preferentially Copper is precipitated
b. Copper dissolves preferentially Hydrogen is evolved
c. Zinc and copper both dissolve Copper is precipitated
d. Zinc and copper both dissolve Hydrogen is evolved
e. Zinc dissolves preferentially Hydrogen is evolved
9. A current of 8A is passed for 100 min through molten aluminium oxide using inert electrodes.
What will be the approximate volume of gas liberated, measured at s.t.p?
a. 2.8 dm3
b. 5.6 dm3
c. 8.4 dm3
d. 11.2 dm3
e. 22.4 dm3
10. Which of the following products is not obtained commercially by the electrolysis of
concentrated brine?
a. chlorine
b. hydrogen
c. oxygen
d. sodium chlorate (V)
e. sodium hydroxide
11. Aqueous sodium chloride (brine) is electrolysed by using inert electrodes in a cell which is
stirred so that the products of electrolysis are able to react. The cell is kept cold.
Which of the following pairs of substances is among the final products?
a. hydrogen and chlorine only

b. hydrogen and sodium chlorate (I)
c. hydrogen and sodium chlorate (V)
d. hydrogen chloride and sodium chlorate (I)
e. sodium hydroxide and chlorine only
12. Which treatment is frequently used to protect aluminium articles from subsequent
corrosion?
a. making the aluminium the anode during an electrolysis
b. dipping the aluminium in hot aqueous sodium hydroxide
c. dipping the aluminium in molten cryolite
d. coating the aluminum with a less reactive metal
13. During electrolysis of brine in a diaphragm cell, chlorine, hydrogen and sodium hydroxide
are produced.
What is the molar ratio of these products?
Chlorine Hydrogen Sodium hydroxide
A 1 1 1
B 1 1 2
C 2 1 1
D 2 2 1
14. In an experiment to determine values of the Faraday constant and the Avogadro constant,
lead (II) bromide was electrolysed using the apparatus and circuit shown.
Which item of apparatus in the diagram is unnecessary?
15. During the industrial electrolysis to obtain aluminium, both fluorine and carbon monoxide
may be evolved as undesirable by products.
What are the sources of these gases?
Source of fluorine source of carbon monoxide

a. the bauxite in the electrolyte the anode
b. the bauxite in the electrolyte the cryolite in the electrolyte
c. the cryolite in the electrolyte the anode
d. the cryolite in the electrolyte the cathode lining
16. Which factors determine the number of atoms of copper deposited on the cathode of ana
electrolytic cell?
Cu2+ aq Current Lime
A √ X X
B X √ √
C √ √ √
D X X √
17. At the stage of 17, in a woodshed in Ohiom Charles Martin Hall discovered the commercial
process for the production of aluminium metal by the electrolysis of a mixture of bauxine, AI2O3,
and cryolite, Na3AIF6.
What is the main purpose of the cryolite?
a. AI2O3 is covalent and AIF3- ions interact with it to produce AI3+ ions which can be
discharged at the cathode.
b. Cryolite is a base, forming NaAIO2 with bauxite, enabling aluminium to be discharged at
the anode.
c. Cryolite reduces the melting point of the bauxite.
d. Cryolite minimizes the release of O2- ions at the graphite anodes, which are otherwise
burnt away to CO
18. Electrolysis of aqueous copper (I) sulphate was carried out using copper electrodes and a
steady current.
Which graph shows the change in mass of the cathode with time?
SECTION B
put a tick against the statements which you consider to be correct). The response A to E should
A B C D E
REDOX PROCESSES
1. A tritation is carried out between 0.05 mol dm-3 potassium manganete (VII) in alkaline
solution and 0.05 mol dm-3 potassium methanoate. The following reaction occurs
2KMnbO4 + 3KOH + HCO2K 2K2MnO4 + K2CO3 + 2H2O
Which of the following statements are correct about this reaction?
1 Potassium methanoate acts as a reducing agent

2 volume of aqueous potassium methanoate solution (red is half that of the aqueous
potassium manganate (VII).
3 The oxidation number of the manganese is increased by one unit.
2. Which of the following methods could be used to obtain aluminium?
1 the electrolysis of an aqueous aluminium salt

2 heating aluminium oxide with iron filings
3 heating aluminium oxide with sodium
4 Which of the following pairs of reagents produce a change in oxidation numbers of metal
atoms?
1 aqueous potassium manganate (VII) and acidified aqueous iron (II) sulphate
2 aqueous ammonia and an aqueous suspension of silver chloride
3 aqueous ammonia and aqueous copper (II) sulphate
5. In which of the following pairs of species is the sulphur in the same oxidation state of in
both members of the pair?
1 SF6 and SO42-
2 SO2 and HSO-3
3 S2O32- and S4O62-
6. The equation for a reaction is shown below

2MnO-4 + 5H2O2 + 6H+ 2Mn2+ + 8H2O + 5O-2
Which of the following statements about this reaction are correct?
1 Hydrogen peroxide is oxidized to oxygen
2 Hydrogen ions are oxidized to water
3 The oxidation number of manganete changes by o.
7. In which of the following conversions does the oxidation number of the nitrogen change
by two?
1 NH2OH NH3
2 N2 NO
3 NO2 HNO3
8. Where hydrogen peroxide is added to acidified potassium dichromate (VI), the reaction that
occurs is:
Cr2O2-7 + 3H2O2 + 8H+ 2Cr3- + 3O2 + 7H2O
Which of the following statements are correct for this reaction?
1 The hydrogen peroxide acts as a reducing agent

2 The colour changes from orange to green
3 The oxidation number of chromium does not change
9. Which changes can be regarded as oxidation of bromine?

1 Br2 BrO-
2 Br2 BrF
3 Br2 Br1
10. When dilute acid is added to an aqueous solution containing nitrite ions, gases are evolved.
2H+ (aq) + 2NO-2 (aq) H2O (l) + NO (g) + NO2 (g)
Which changes in oxidation number of the three elements involved occur?

1. -3 to -2
2 0 to +1
3 +1 to 0
12. Which statements about the reaction given are correct?

IO3- (aq) + 2l- (aq) + 6H+ (aq) + 6CI- (aq) 31CI2- (aq) + 3H2O(l)
1 The oxidation number of the iodine in the iodate ion 103- (aq), changes from +5 to +1
2 The oxidation number of the iodine in the iodide ion, 1-(aq), changes from -1 to +2.
3 The oxidation number of chlorine changes from -1 to -2
13. Methane and nitrogen monoxide, NO are emitted in car exhaust gases. In the atmosphere
they react with hydroxyl reactions.
OH + CH4 + O2 CH3O2 + H2O
2NO + CH3O2 + O2 HCHO + 2NO2 + OH-
Which are the correct statements about these reactions?
1 Oxygen gas is reduced in reaction 1

2 Reduction I and II together are propagation steps of a chain reaction
3 Nitrogen monoxide is a reducing agent in reaction II.
ELECTRODE POTENTIAL
1 Which of the following statements are true for a standard cell set up the half below?
NI2+ (aq) / NI (s) Eø = -0.25 V
Sn2+ (aq) / Sn(s) Eø = -0.14 V
1 Electron flow in the external circuit from Ni to Sn.

2 The concentration of Sn2+ (aq) will decrease.
3 Oxidation occurs at the NI terminal.
2. Pain is often felt when a piece of aluminium foil touches a dental amalgam filling in a
tooth because an electric current momentarily flows. The amalgam contains tin. The
standard electrode potentials are as follows:
AI3+ (aq) / AI (s) = -1.66V
Sn2+ (aq) / amalgam = -0.13V
Which of the following are features of the cell obtained?
1 The aluminium foil acts as the negative electrode
2 Sn2+ ions are momentarily discharged into the saliva in the mouth.
3 The e.m.f of the cell is +1.79V
4. Use of the Data Booklet is relevant to this question.

Which halide ions should be oxidized to the corresponding halogen by acidified potassium
dichromate (VI) under standard conditions?
1 CI- (aq)
2 Br- (aq)
3 I- (aq)
5. The diagram shows an apparatus to find the transition temperature (180C) at which white tin
and grey tin are in equilibrium. Below 180C, white tin dissolves from W and is deposited on G as
grey tin.

1 The stable form of tin at 250C is grey.
2 Below 180C electrons flow through the external circuit from W to G.
3 At 180C no current flows
6. The standard potential for the electrode reaction represented by the equation
Pb4+ (aq) + 2e- pb2+ (aq)
Is + 1.69 V. What may be deduced from this information alone?
1 Lead (IV) compounds can act as oxidizing agents
2 Lead is more stable in the +2 than in the +4 oxidation state
3 Pb (SO4)2 will not exist

Many audio tapes are coated with iron(III) oxide. To find the mass of iron oxide on a tape, the
iron (III) oxide is quantitatively converted into Fe2+ (aq) and the solution is titrated against an
appropriate reagent.
Which reagents could be used for this titration?
1 acidified MnO-4
2 acidified CrO2-7
3 aqueous I2
9. A cell involving aqueous potassium iodide and acidified potassium manganate (VII) is shown.
Electrode Eø I V
Pt ] ½ 12 (aq), 1 – (aq) +0.54
Pt ] MnO-4 (aq), Mn2+ (aq) +1.52
Which observations about this arrangement are correct?
1. The Eø for this cell is 2.06V
2 The potassium iodide solution turns brown
3 The purple colour of the potassium manganete (VII) solution becomes less intense
11. When iron and aluminium are exposed to moist air, a very thin layer of oxide forms on the
surface of each metal.
Which statements explain why aluminium does not corrode whereas iron does?
1 The AI2O3 layer is non porous to water.
2 The AI2O3 layer is atmospheric
3 The redox potential of AI3+ (aq) AI (s) is too small.
12. What are the conditions usually quoted for the standard electrode potential of hydrogen to be
0.00V?
1 The concentrates of H+ (aq) is 1 mol dm-3
2 The temperature is 0 0C
3 The atmospheric pressure is exactly 1 atm
ELECTOLYSIS
An aqueous copper (II) salt is electrolysed between copper electrodes, using a constant current.
What affects the mass of copper deposited on the cathode?
1 the time taken
2 the concentration of the solution
3 the nature of the anion present
1. Which of the following statements concerning the manufacture of aluminium by

electrolysis are correct?
1 The high temperature of the alumina/ cryolite melt is partly maintained by the reactions
on the reactions on the carbon anode surface.
2 Cryolite is added to lower the melting point of aluminium oxide
3 Aluminium being more dense than the molten electrolyte, sinks to the bottom of the cell.
2. When copper is electroplanted with silver, a solution containing both silver nitrate and
potassium cyanide, KCN is used. The process involves the sequence shown below:
Stage 1 Stage 2
Ag(CN)-2 Ag+(aq) Ag
Which of the following statements are true of this sequence?
1 Both stages 1 and 2 involve a change of oxidation number.

2 The copper object will be the anode.
3 The cyanide ions reduce the concentration of aqueous silver ions.

When 1930C of electricity are passed through a molten compound of a metal, 1.00 x 10-3 mol of
atoms of the metal is deposited at the cathode.
What could the metal be?
1 copper
2 lead
3 silver
5. The discharge at the cathode of1.00 mol of gold ions from an aqueous solution of a gold
salt requires 2.90 x 105 C of electricity.
Which of the following conclusions can be drawn from these observations?

1 The gold ions are positively charged
2 The magnitude of the charge on the gold ions is three times the electronic charge
3 Gold is a d- block (transition) element.
6. Which statements about the manufacture of aluminium by electrolysis are correct?

1 The high temperature of the alumina/ cryolite melt is partly maintained by the reactions
on the carbon anode surface
2 Cryolite is used so that the melting point of the electrolyte is lower
3 Aluminium being more dense than the molten electrolyte, sinks to the bottom of the cell.
7. Why is aluminium extracted by the electrolysis of a mixture of molten aluminium oxide

and cryolite, rather than by the electrolysis of molten aluminium chloride?
1 aluminium chloride is covalent
2 aluminium oxide has a low melting point
3 aluminium oxide, but not aluminium chloride, can be reduced by using a carbon anode
SECTION C
REDOX PROCESSES
1a). By calculating the oxidation numbers of the relevant elements on each side of the following
equation, state which atoms have been oxidized and which reduced. Show all your working.
i). 2HNO3 + 2SO2 + H2O N2O3 + 2H2SO4
ii). FeO42- + MnO2 + 4H+ Fe3+ + MnO4- + 2H2O
2d). Several steps are needed to produce pure chromium from chromine as shown below
AI
FeCr2O4 Na2CrO4 Na2CrOr Cr2O3 Cr
Chromite
i). Complete this table, which asks for the oxidation states of chromium in some of these
compounds, and also their colours.
Compound Oxidation state of Cr Colour
Na2CrO4 Yellow
Na2Cr2O7
Cr2O3
ii). Write an equation for the last step, the action of aluminium on Cr2O3
3c). Iodine and chlorine react together to form compound X (ICln).

When 0.0010 mol of X was reacted with an excess of Kl (ag) all of its iodine was converted into
12. The iodine liberated required 40.0 cm3 of 0.10 mol dm-3 sodium thisulphate, Na2S2O3 for
complete reaction.
i). Calculate the amount (in moles) of iodine produced.
[ 12 + 2S2O32- 21- + S4O62-] (1)
ii). Hence calculate the value of n in ICIn. (1)

iii). Write a balanced equation for the reaction between CI2 and I2. (1)
ELECTRODE POTENTIAL
Aqueous potassium manganete (VII) can be used for the titrimetric determination of ion (II) salts
in the presence of sulphuric acid, but not in the presence of hydrochloric acid.
2. A student on a field trip at the sea shore found sea shells which had purple markings on their
inner surfaces. The student took the shells to the school laboratory to see if the colours could be
due to transition elements, especially manganese. Scraping of the purple markings were heated
gently and went black. The student thought this black substance might be manganese (IV) oxide.
CO2H
Mn2+
CO2H
A
MnO2
KNO2
B
MnO2-4 CI2 MnO4-
C
Some reactions of manganese (IV) oxide are set out in the scheme below. Only the redox
reagents are given.
a). What colours would the student look for in each of these aqeous ions?
i). Mn2+ …………
ii). MnO42- ………..
iii). MnO4-………….
b)i. By using the half equations on p. 6- 7 of the Data Booklet construct balanced equations
for reactions A and B. In B the KNO3 is converted into KNO2.
ii). What additional reagents are therefore required for reactions A and B?
c). The student than considered that the purple colour might be an organic dyestuff. Suggest
a simple test that the student could perform on the black solid which would indicate that
the dye was organic. (2)
3a). Hydrazine N2H4 is used as a rocket fuel.
i). The standard electrode potential for hydrazine in acidic solution
N2(g) + 5H+ (aq) + 4c- N2H5+ (aq)
Is -0.17V. By using this, and any other necessary data from your Data Booklet, predict the
outcome of the reaction of bromine with hydrazine in acidic solution and write a balanced
equation for the overall reaction. (4)
4i). Use the electrode reactions given on page 3 of The Data Booklet to construct a balanced
equation for the oxidation of Cr3+ (aq) to dichromate (VI) ions by hydrogen peroxide, H2O2,
under acidic conditions.
ii). In the laboratory, this oxidation ofCr3+ (aq) by hydrogen peroxide is more satisfactory
achieved under alkaline conditions. Use your equation in (c) (i) to suggest why alkaliqe
conditions are used. (2)
5a). Describe the components in any one fuel cell and the reactions taking place at the electrodes.
Suggest one advantage of fuel coils as sources of energy. (5)
b). Hydrogen and oxygen can be used in a fuel cell. By choosing suitable electrode reactions
from the Data Booklet, calculate the e.m.f of a cell consisting of an oxygen electrode and a
hydrogen electrode, each under standard acidic conditions. (2)
c). One type of rechargeable battery makes use of the nickel cadmium cell, in which nickel and
cadmium electrodes, coated with their respective, are immersed in potassium hydroxide solution.
In normal use, the cadmium electrode is the one that releases electrons to the external circuit.
The relevant electrode reactions are:
Cd (OH)2 + 2e- Cd(s) + 2OH- (aq)
NiO (OH) (s) + H2O(l) + e- Ni (OH)2(s) + OH- aq

Draw a cell diagram for this arrangement, showing the polarity of the electrodes, and construct a
balanced equation for the reaction that occurs during discharge. (3)
6a). What are the colours of the ions listed below?
MnO4- (aq) ………… Cr2O2-3 (aq) ………………..
Mn2+ (aq) ………… Cr3+ (aq) …………………..
b). Use the half equations in the Data Booklet to construct a balanced equation, under conditions
of low pH, for each of the reactions between
i). manganese (VII) and iron (II) ions
ii). dichromate (VI) and iron (II) ions.
c). Suggest why potassium manganate (VII) rather than potassium dichromate (VI) is used to
titrate Fe(II) in volumetric analysis. (2)
d). A nail of mass 1.40g was dissolved in an excess of dilute sulphuric acid to form 100 cm3 of
solution required 4.0 x 10-4 mol of manganete (VII) for complete oxidation.
e). By assuming that, in dissolving in sulphuric acid, the iron in the nail was converted entirely
into Fe2+ (aq), calculate
i). the number of moles of Fe2+ produced from the nail (2)
ii). the percentage of iron in the nail. (1)
7. Chlorine dioxide acts as a powerful oxidizing agent in acid solution.

CIO2 (aq) + 4H+ (aq) + Se- CI- (aq) + 2H2O(l); Eø = +1.50V
And disproportionates to a mixture of chlorate (III) and chlorate (V) in alkaline solution.
b). Suggest an equation for the disproportionation of CIO2 in alkaline solution. (1)
c). Describe, in outline, how the redox potential Eø (CIO2ICI-) might be measured in the
laboratory. (2)
d). By using Eø value in (a), predict the reaction, if any, of chlorine dioxide in acid solution with
i). aqueous iron (II) ions
ii).aqueous hydrogen sulphide H2S.
In each case, calculate Eøeel and write an equation for any reaction that occurs. (4)
8. A simple rechargeable eeli may be constructed by dipping two lead electrodes into aqueous
lead (II) nitrate and passing a current for a few minutes. During the process, lead (IV) oxide is
deposited on one of the electrodes. When the power source is disconnected and a bulb is
connected across the two electrodes, the bulb lights for a time as the cell discharges.
a). By reference to the Data Booklet, choose two half equations to construct the full equation for
the reaction that occurs during discharge. Calculate the value of Eø for this cell reaction. (3)
b). In a lead acid car battery, similar reactions take place but the electrolyte of dilute sulphuric
acid causes the lead (II) ions to be precipitated as PbSO4(s), which coats the electrode. The c.m.f
of this cell is 2.0V
Explain the difference between this e.m.f and the Eø calculated in (a) by reference in the
concentrations of the relevant aqueous ions. (2)
c). Use the Data Booklet to predict the outcome of mixing

i). aqueous tin (II) chloride and acidified aqueous hydrogen peroxide.
ii). acidified aqueous sodium dichromate (VI) and hydrogen sulphide.
Calculate Eø values for the reactions that occur and write balanced equations for them. (5)
9a). Batteries for electric cars can be made with one electrode of zinc, and the other of carbon.
During discharge, the zinc dissolves as ions, which migrate through the electrolyte to the carbon
electrode, where they combine with oxygen from the air and water to form zinc hydroxide.
i). Sketch a diagram of the above cell, showing which battery electrode provides electrons to the
external circuit (i.e the negative electrode) (2)
ii). By choosing two suitable electrode process from the Data Booklet, write the overall equation
for the reaction that occurs during discharge.
Calculate the e.m.f of the cell battery, assuming standard conditions. (3)
iii). Suggest a suitable substance to use as an electrolyte. (1)
10. Chrome yellow has been used for a long time as a yellow pigment in oil paintings.
i). Use the standard redox potentials below to explain why yellow colour changes when the
painting is exposed to an atmosphere containing sulphur dioxide.
SO42- + 4H+ + 2e- = 2H2O + SO2 Eø = +0.17V
C1O42- + 8H+ + 3e- = Cr3+ + 4H2O Eø = +1.33V
ii). Explain why this colour change takes a long time. (2)
iii). What colour change takes place? (1)
11a). What is the oxidation number of nitrogen in

i). NH3
ii). NO?
12a). A cell consisting of Cu2+ (aq) / Cu(s) half cell and a Fe3+ (aq), Fe2+ (aq)/ P (s) half cell is
shown below, using conventional notation.
Cu(s)/ Cu2+ (aq) : Fe3+ (aq), Fe2+ (aq) / Pt(s)
i). Calculate the standard potential Eø of this cell.

ii). Write the equation for the reaction occurring in each half cell, and hence write a balanced
equation for the overall reaction which takes place when current flows. (3)
b). It is not possible to use Eø values reliably to decide whether a chemical reaction will occur:
suggest why it is nevertheless probable that the reaction for which you have written an equation
in (a) (ii) will proceed if performed in a test tube. (2)
c). Suggest a replacement half cell for Cu2+ (aq) / Cu(s) which would reverse the direction of the
electron flow in the Fe3+ (aq), Fe2+ (aq)/ Pt(s) half cell.
Your answer needs to state both the electrode and the reagents of your new half cell. (2)
13a). What do you understand by the term standard electrode potential? (2)
b). Draw labeled diagrams to show how you could measure the standard electrode potential of
each of the following electrode systems.
i). Cu2+ (aq) / Cu(s)
ii). Fe3+ (aq) / Fe2+ (aq)
c). By making use of data contained in the Data Booklet, predict whether the following pairs of
reagents are likely to react when mixed in the acidified aqueous solution. Calculate the Eø and
write a balanced equation for each reaction you predict will occur.
i). 12(aq) and Cr2+ (aq)

ii). H2O2(aq) and MnO4-(aq)
14. The reverse of electrolysis takes place in a fuel cell in which electrical energy is obtained
from hydrogen and oxygen gases.
A fuel cell is illustrated in the diagram below.
There is a common electrolyte of aqueous sodium hydroxide. One electrode in the fuel becomes
the anode and the other the cathode.
b)i. Write the two ion electron equations for the changes which take place at each electrode.
Left hand electrode (hydrogen)……………..
Right hand electrode (oxygen) ………………
ii). What will be the cell e.m.f if the process takes place under standard conditions?
iii). On the diagram, mark and label the direction of the electron flow in the circuit through the
lamp.
15. The standard redox potential of chlorate (V) ions is given below.
CIO3- + 6H+ + 6e- CI- + 3H2O Eø = 1.45V
Use the Data Booklet to predict what you would expect to observe when acidified potassium
chlorate (V) is added separately to each of the following reagents. Write a balanced equation for
any reaction that occurs.
i). aqueous iron (II0 sulphate
ii). acidified potassium manganate (VII)
16a). Draw a labeled diagram of the standard hydrogen electrode and d escribe how it may be
used to measure the standard electrode potential for Fe3+ (aq)/ Fe2+ (aq). (5)
b). By calculating relevant oxidation numbers, determine which elements undergo oxidation, and
which undergo reduction, during the following reactions.
i). 2HNO2 + 2HI 2NO + 12 + 2H2O
ii). NO2 + NaCIO3 NaNo3 + CIO2 (4)
c). The oxidation number of vanadium in a complex ion was determined as follows. A 0.013 mol
sample of the complex was dissolved in water and the solution made up to 100cm3. A 10cm3
portion of this solution required 20.8 cm3 of 0.025 mol dm-3 KMnO4 to oxidize all the vanadium
to the +5 state.
Use these data to calculate the original oxidation number of the vanadium.
[MnO4- + 8H+ + 5e- Mn2+ 4H2O] (3)
17a). State the electronic configuration of the chromium atom, and predict two of the likely
oxidation states of chromium. (2)
b). Use the Data Booklet to predict the outcome of mixing acidified aqueous potassium
dichromate (VI) with
i). aqueous iron (II) sulphate
ii). aqueous potassium iodide
In each case, calculate the Eøeeli for the reaction and write a balanced equation. (4)
18a). Draw a fully labeled sketch of how you would determine the standard electrode potential of
the Fe3+(aq) / Fe2+(aq) electrode system. (4)
b). Iron (II0 salts are often used as a dietary supplement to help cure some forms of anaemia. The
amount of iron in such a pill may be estimated by titration with KMnO4 (aq).
Use information in the Data Booklet to write a balanced equation for the reduction in acid
solution of MnO4- (aq) to Mn2+ (aq) by Fe2+ (aq). (1)
c). A dietary supplement pill was dissolved in 10cm3 of dilute sulphuric acid and titrated against
0.0200 mol dm-3 KmnO4. The Eøcell was measured against a standard hydrogen electrode and the
following graph was obtained.
Using suitable Eø data listed in the Data Booklet, suggest approximate Eø values, in volts, for the
points X and Y. (3)
d). Use the graph to calculate how many moles of Fe2+ were contained in the pill. (2)
e). The end point of this titration can be determined without using either a voltmeter or an
indicator. By deducing the colours of the solution at points X, Y and Z suggest how the end point
might be recognized. (2)
Nitrogen exhibits a range of oxidation numbers in its compounds.
a). complete the table below which refers to possible reduction products of nitric acid.
Formula of product Oxidation number of nitrogen
NO2
N2O
NH2OH
NH4+
b).i. Copper can reduce nitric acid to NO2. Write a balanced equation for this reaction.
ii). Aluminium can reduce nitric acid to NH4+. Write a balanced equation for this reaction.
iii). Suggest a reason why the reduction products of nitric acid are different for each of these two
metals. (3)
c). The compound NH2OH is oxidized by Fe3+ (aq), which is itself reduced to Fe2+(aq).
In an experiment, 25.0 cm3 of 0.100 mol dm-3 NH2OH required 25.0cm3 of 0.200 mol dm-3 Fe3+
for complete reaction.
i). How many moles of Fe3+ react with one mole of NH2OH?
ii). What change in oxidation number does the nitrogen in NH2OH undergo?
iii). Which formula from the table in (a) correxponds to the nitrogen containing product of this
reaction?
iv). Construct an equation for the reaction of NH2OH with Fe3+.
b)i. Describe the experimental procedure you would use to measure the standard electrode
potential of the 12(aq)/ 1-(aq) system.
ii). What effect would an increase in the concentration of ioidide have on the Eøcell of this
system? (4)
c). Use the Data Booklet to predict the reactions that would occur when the following pairs of
solutions are mixed. Calculate the Eøcell and write an equation for each reaction.
i). aqueous iron (II) sulphate and acidified dichromate (VI)
ii). acidified manganate (VII) and aqueous sulphur dioxide. (4)
21a). Complete the electronic configuration of the Fe3+ ion.

182 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 (1)
b). By quoting suitable data from the Data Booklet, explain how Eø values can be used to show
the relative oxidizing abilities of
i). the halogens CI2, Br2, I2
ii). the transition metal ions Cr3+, Fe3+, CO3+ (3)
c). Use these Eø values to predict whether a reaction will occur when the following pairs of
aqueous solutions are mixed. If a reaction occurs, write a balanced equation and calculate the
Eøcell.
i). Fe3+ (aq) and CI- (aq) l
ii). Co3+ (aq) and Br- (aq)
iii). Cr2+ (aq) and 12(aq)
22. Architectural and other models are often made from brass. The pattern of, say, a window
frame on the brass using a special ink and the unprotected brass removed by etching. The outline
of the window frame remains.
a). Brass is a mixture of copper and zinc. When a piece of brass is placed in dilute hydrochloric
acid, only one of the metals present dissolves.
i). Write an equation for this reaction.
ii). Use the Data Booklet to explain why one metal dissolves and one metal does not dissolve in
dilute hydrochloric acid. (3)
b). The process of etching brass involves dissolving the unprotected brass in a suitable reagent.
In practice, the sample is placed in aqueous iron (III) chloride until all of the unwanted brass has
been removed.
i). By using the relevant Eø values, explain why both the components of brass are soluble in
aqueous iron (III) chloride.
ii). Write an ionic equation with state symbols for the reaction between copper and aqueous iron
(III) chloride. (3)
c). Copper and zinc are the two electrodes in a Daneill cell. The cell is set up as below.
i). State half equations for the two electrode processes that occur.
Copper electrode………………
Zinc electrode……………………
ii). In which direction will the electrons flow in the external circuit?
From………………………to…………………….
iii). What voltage should the voltmeter show in the above cell? (3)
d). Models made from brass components are often soldered together. During soldering acidic
„fluxes‟ such as phosphoric acid, are used in order to help the solder form a strong joint. This
process often leaves the brass tarnished rather than shiny.
Such a model can be cleaned by setting up the following cell.
i). Suggest a reason why hydrogen is given off at the brass electrode.
ii). During soldering with theflux the brass model becomes dirty. Suggest why this process
cleans the brass stores the shine.
iii). Suggest one reason, other than its use as an electrolyte, for using aqueous sodium carbonate
in the cell. (3)
23a). What do you understand by the term standard electrode potential? (2)
b). The following cell was set up between a copper electrode and an unknown metal electrode
M2+(aq) / M(s). The standard cell potential was found to be 0.76V, and the copper foil was the
positive electrode.
i). Use the Data Booklet to calculate the standard electrode potential of the M2+ (aq)/ M(s)
system.
ii). Draw an arrow over the voltmeter symbol in the above diagram toshow the direction of
electron flow through the voltmeter.
iii). Predict the outcomes of the following situations. Describe what you might see and write
ionic equations for any reactions that occur.
I A rod of metal M is dipped into a solution of 1mol dm-3 CuSO4.

II Dilute sulphuric acid is added to a beaker containing a powdered sample of metal M. (6)
ELECTROLYSIS
When concentrated, aqueous sodium ethanoate is electrolysed, hydrogen is produced at the
cathode. At the anode a mixture of two gases, A and B in the ratio 2:1 by volume is produced.
The gas B contains 80.0% of carbon by mass. (4)
2. An important commercial process is the electrolysis of brine using inert electrodes.

c). Give ion electron equations, with state symbols, for the electrode reactions;
i). at the cathode
ii). at the anode (2)
d). When the electrolytic cell is stirred, two of the products react to form a solution. Write an
equation for the reaction which occurs if the cell if kept cold. (1)
e). State two everyday uses of the solution formed in (d)
3a). Draw and label the apparatus used to electrolyse molten lead (II) bromide in an evaporating
basin using graphite electrodes and including an ammeter in the circuit. (3)
b). Give the ion electron equations for the reactions which occur at the
i). anode…………..
ii).cathode………..
Suggest how you would detect the product formed at the anode. (2)
c). When a current of 3.0 A was passed for 30 minutes a bead of lead of mass 5.60g was
obtained.
i). Ho w many coulombs were passed?
ii). In this experiment how many coulombs would be required to deposit one mol of lead? (2)
d)i. One mole of lead contains L atoms, the charge on one electron is e coulombs. Deduce the
equation which links L, e and the result obtained in (c) (ii).
ii). If the value of e given on page 2 of the Data Booklet is used, what value does this experiment
given for L?
iii). Suggest a reason why the value obtained in (d) (ii) is not exactly the theoretical value. (3)
4. Explain the following observations as fully as you can.

c). When aqueous copper (II) sulphate is electrolysed between inert electrodes the solution
eventually becomes colourless and gas is evolves at each electrode. (4)
5. Briefly describe how a value for the Faraday constant can be determined experimentally.
Assuming the value for the charge on the electron, how can the Avogadro constant then be
obtained? (4)
6.a). Outline the principles involved in the electrochemical purification of copper. By reference
to electrode potentials in the Data Booklet, explain how the impurities of silver and zinc are
removed. (6)
b). When a current is passed through a cell containing aqueous silver nitrate (using inert
electrodes), silver is deposited at the cathode and oxygen at s.t.p would be produced if the
current were passed for a sufficient time to deposit 0.54g of silver? (4)
7a). Describe how you could determine a value for the Avogadro constant by electrolysis. You
should describe the apparatus and chemicals that you would use, the measurements you would
make, any other data you need to know, and the calculations you would carry out. (7)
b). Calculate the ratio of the mass of silver to the mass of nickel deposited on the cathodes when
the same current is passed through electrolytic cells containing aqueous silver (I) nitrate and
aqueous nickel (II) sulphate, connected in series. (3)
8a). What do you understand by the term anodizing of aluminium? Describe the method used to
carry out this process and, with the aid of balanced equations, explain the chemistry involved.
Give one example of an anodized aluminium object, and explain the advantages of anodizing it.
(7)
b). Aluminium is manufactured by the electrolysis of a molten mixture of aluminium oxide and
cryolite,Na3AIF6. Suggest and explain the factors that must particularly be considered when
choosing the site of an aluminium factory, and suggest one the main potential environmental
hazards of the process. (3)
9. Plastic articles can be chromium plated by coating them with a thin layer of graphite paste,
placing them in a bath of aqueous chromium (III) sulphate and electroplating.
a). suggest a reason why the article is first coated with graphite. (1)
b). what substance could be used for the other electrode in the electroplating cell? (1)
c). Draw a diagram of the electrical circuit for the electroplating. (2)
d). If a current of 0.50A were passed through the cell for 300s, what would be the increase in
mass due to the chromium plating? (2)
e). Why is it not possible to coat articles with zinc by this method?
f). Write an equation representing the overall reaction during the electrolysis of brine, NaCl(aq),
and use it to calculate the ratio of masses of the sodium hydroxide and chlorine produced. (2)
10a). The overall chemical change taking place during the industrial electrolyte manufacture of
aluminium metal can be represented by the following equation.
2AI2O3 + 3C 4AI + 3CO2
Give details of the process, including equations for all charges taking place and explain how the
above equation is an over simplification. (6)
b). A aluminium object with a surface area of 500cm2 is to be anodised.
How many coulombs of electricity will be required to increase its oxide layer by 1 x 10-3cm in
thickness? (Density of AI2O3 = 4.0 g cm-3) (4)
11. Over one million tones of chromium are produced in the world each year. 70% is used in
alloys and the rest in electroplating.
a). Name an alloy containing chromium. (1)
b). Give a reason why chromium is used to electroplate metal objects. (1)
c). Chromium is electrolytically deposited on the cathode from a solution containing Cr3+ (aq).
Oxygen is produced at the anode according to the following electrode process.
H2O(l) – 2e 2H+(aq) + ½ O2 (g)
i). Give the equation, with state symbols, for the electrode process which produces the deposit of
chromium. (1)
ii). Calculate the volume of oxygen, at room temperature and pressure produced at the anode
when 1.00 kg of chromium is deposited on the cathode. (3)
12. Copper often occurs in the Earth‟s crust as the sulphide, Cu2S, associated with the sulphides
of zinc, ZnS and silver, Ag2S. The copper is extracted from its ore by partial air oxidation to
copper (I) oxide and sulphur dioxide, followed by the reaction between this copper (I) oxide and
unchanged copper (I) sulphide to give copper metal and more sulphur dioxide.
a). Write balanced chemical equations for those two reactions. (2)
This first stage products copper containing some zinc and silver as impurities.
b). Describe in detail how this impure copper is purified electrolytically, explaining what
happens to the zinc and silver impurities. Use of relevant Eø data from the Data Booklet is
recommended. (6)
c). Using inert electrodes, a current was passed through two beakers containing aqueous silver
nitrate and aqueous copper (II) sulphate, connected in series. After 30 min, 0.100g of silver was
deposited from the first solution:
Calculate:
i). how many moles of silver were deposited
ii). the current passed
iii). The mass of copper deposited from the aqueous copper (II) sulphate
13. The electrolysis of aqueous sodium sulphate containing litmus indicator was carried out in
the apparatus illustrates. Inert electrodes were used. After some time the volumes of gas liberated
were as shown in the diagram. The litmus in both electrode compartments had changed colour.
a)i. Write the appropriate ion electron half equations, with state symbols, for the changes which
take place in each electrode compartment.
The negative electrode………………
The positive electrode……………………
ii). hence explain why the gas volumes are in the ratio 2:1
iii). State and explain the colour of the litmus around the negative electrode. (5)
14a). describe in outline how aluminium is manufactured from purified aluminium oxide,
including in your account the electrode reactions. (5)
15a). Give the ion electron equations for the electrode reactions in the electrolysis of aqueous
sulhuric acid using inert electrodes.
Cathode………………….
Anode……………… (2)
16. When a graphite anode is used in this electrolysis, the gas librated is a mixture of oxygen,
carbon monoxide and carbon dioxide. In the experiment illustrated, 30cm3 of gas formed above
the cathode and 17cm3 of gas above the anode. The anode gas was collected and its volume was
reduced to 9cm3 when shaken with aqueous sodium hydroxide.
i). Explain why oxides of carbon are produced at the anode.

ii). The volume of gas collected at the anode is larger than that expected. Explain, with the aid of
an equation, why this is so. (2)
c)i. What volume of carbon dioxide was present in the 17cm3 of gas from the anode?
ii). How much oxygen would you expect to be produced at the anode using an inert electrode?
iii). What was the volume of each of the following in the anode gas?
carbon monoxide……………
oxygen………………………. (4)
16a). Give an account of the industrial electrolysis of brine, NaCl(aq), using a diaphragm cell.
Include equations for each electrode reaction and the overall process. (6)
b). Use relevant Eø data from the Data Booklet to suggest reasons for the following observations.
i). The electrolysis of dilute NaCl(aq) produces mainly oxygen gas at the anode,whereas the
electrolysis of concentrated NaCl(aq) produces mainly chlorine gas.
ii). The electrolysis of either dilute or concentrated NaF(aq) produces only gas at the anode. (3)
c). In order to replace the worn silver coating on a trophy, it is estimated that 0.50g of silver
needs to be electroplated onto it. Calculate the length of time that a current of 0.20 A has to be
passed through the electrolysis bath in order to achieve this. (3)
17. When an iron sheet is made the anode during the electrolysis of very concentrated aqueous
potassium hydroxide, an anion containing iron in a high oxidation state is formed in solution.
The addition of an excess of barium nitrate to this solution precipitates a red solid having the
following composition by mass:
Ba, 53,3%, Fe 21.7%, O 24,9%
i). calculate the empirical formula of the red solid and the oxidation number of the iron in it.
ii). After a current has been passed through the solution for some time, the addition of barium
nitrate produces 1.00g of the red solid. Calculate how many moles of red solid are formed and
hence calculate how many coulombs of electricity were needed. (6)
18. Strontium metal can be obtained by the electrolysis of molten strontium bromide, SrBr2 using
the apparatus shown in the diagram.
i). Write the equations, including state symbols, for the electrode reactions.
- at the anode
- at the cathode
ii). Explain why an atmosphere of argon is used around the cathode.

iii). A current of 5.0 A was passed through molten strontium bromide for 60 min.
calculate
-how many coulombs were passed
- the mass of strontium metal formed
iv). Explain why aqueous strontium bromide cannot be used to extract strontium by electrolysis.
(7)
19. Aluminium is the third most abundant element in the Earth‟s crust, occurring combined in
many minerals.
a). Name a mineral from which aluminium may be extracted. (1)
b).i. Describe with the aid of a diagram, the electrolytic extraction of aluminium from purified
aluminium oxide. State what the electrodes are made of.
ii. Give an ion electron for the electrode process
at the cathode………………….
At the aode……………………..
iii. What further reaction takes place at the anode? (8)
c). Much of the bodywork of trains, aircraft and ships is made from aluminium rather than from
steel. State two advantages of using aluminium in the making of vehicles. (20
20. Many of the early attempt to produce fluorine involved the electrplysis of aqueous solutions
of metallic fluorides. In every case, oxygen was produced at the anode.
i). When NaF(aq) is electrolysed, hydrogen is produced at the cathode and oxygen at the anode.
Give the half equation for each electrode reaction.
Cathode……………………..
Anode…………………………
ii). By considering appropriate Eø values, suggest a reason why fluorine is not produced in the
electrolysis of NaF(aq).
21. Because of its increased scarcity, cheaper copper ornaments are no longer made from the
solid metal, but from iron that has been copper plated.
i). Complete the following diagram showing the set- up for a copper electroplating process.
Show clearly the polarity (+/ -) of the power source, and suggest a suitable electrolyte.
ii). A current of 0.500 A is passed through the electroplating cell. Calculate the time required to
deposit a mass of 0.500g of copper on to the ornament. (5)
22a). Chlorine ismanufactured from brine by electrolysis. Chlorine gas is evolved at the anode.
The anode and cathode compartments are separated by a diaphragm or membrane.
i). Write ionic equations for the reactions occurring at the anode and at the cathode.
ii). Explain the purpose of the diaphragm. Suggest what the products might be if the diaphragm
were removed, by writing an equation for any reaction that occurs.
iii). What other anion dos the solution of brine contain? By reference to the Data Booklet explain
why it might be expected that this ion is more likely than chloride ion to be discharged. Suggest
a reason why chloride ions are in fact discharge. Suggest a reason why chloride ions are in fact
discharged preferentially. (6)
b). Write a balanced equation for the reaction between chlorine and hot NaOH(aq)
ANSWERS
SECTION A
Redox Process
1. D 2. C 3. B 4. D 5. D
6. C 7. C 8. B 9. B 10. C
11. D 12. B 13. D 14. B 15. C
16. D 17. C 18. A
ELECTRODE POTENTIAL
1. C 2. A 3. E 4. B 5. E
6. E 7. A 8. E 9. B 10. B
11. C 12. D 13. D 14. C 15. B
16. A 17. C 18. A 19. C
ELECTROLYSIS
1. B 2. A 3. A 4. D 5. D
6. C 7. E 8. E 9. A 10. C
11. B 12. A 13. B 14. C 15. C
16. B 17. C 18. A
SECTION B
REDOX PROCESSES
1. B 2. E 3. E 4. D 5. B
6. D 7. B 8. B 9. B 10. D
11. C 12. D 13. A
ELECTRODE POTENTIAL
1. A 2. D 3. C 4. C 5. C
6. B 7. B 8. D 9. C 10. D
11. D 12. D
ELECTROLYSIS
1. D 2. A 3. E 4. B 5. B
6. A 7. D
SECTION C
REDOX PROCESSES
2. i. +6
+6 Orange
+3 Green
3c).i. 2 x 10-3 mol
n=3
ELECTRODE POTENTIAL
5. 1.23V
6. 2 x 10-2 mol
7.i). 0.73V ii). 1.36V
8a). 1.60V
c). 1.62V ii). 1.19V
9. 1.16V
11.i). -3 ii). +2
12a). +0.43V
13i). +0.95V
ii). +0.84V
14. +1.23V
16. +3
17. (Ar) 3d5 4s1
18. 1.65 x 10-3 mol
19. Oxidation no: NO2 = +4, N2O = +1
NH2OH = -1, NH4+ = -3
c)i. 2 moles
ii). +2
iii). N2O
20.i). +0.56V ii). +1.35V

21.i). +0.8V ii). +0.95V
22. 1.1V
23. -0.42V
ELECTROLYSIS
3.i. 5 400 coulombs ii). 199600 coulombs
b). 6.23 x 1023 mol-1
6. 2.80 x 10-2 dm3
7. mass of Ag: mass of Ni = 3.68 : 1
9. 0.027g
NaOH: Cl2 = 1.13 : 1
10. 1.14 x 104 coulombs
11. 346 dm3
12i 9.26 x 10-1 mol
ii. 0.0496 A
iii. 0.0294 g
15i. 8cm3
ii. 15cm3
iii. 4cm3 CO, 5cm3 O2
16. 2.23 x 103 seconds
17. BaFeO4
3.89 x 10-3 ; 750. 8 coulombs
18. 18 000 C
8.2g
21. 304 sec
TOPIC 7
SECTION A
CHEMICAL EQUILIBRIA
1. Two equilibria are shown below
Reaction 1: 2X2 (g) + Y2 (g) 2X2Y (g)
Reaction II: X2Y (g) X2 (g) + ½ Y2 (g)
The numerical value of Kc for reaction 1 is 2. Under the same conditions, what is the numerical
value of Kc for reaction II?
a. 1 b. ½ c. ¼ d. -1 e. -2
√2
2. The equilibrium can be represented by the following equation

P (aq) + Q (aq) 2R (aq) + S (aq)
In a certain mixture, the equilibrium concentration of Q is 10 mol dm -3.
What will be the new equilibrium concentration of Q if 5 mol of pure Q is dissolved in the
mixture?
a. 15 mol dm-3
b. between 10 mol dm-3 and 15 mol dm-3
c. 10 mol dm-3
d. between 5 mol dm-3 and 10 mol dm-3
e. 5 mol dm-3
3. A sample of 1 mol of N2O4 was placed in an empty 1dm3 container and allowed to reach
equilibrium according to the following equation.
N2O4(g) 2NO2(g)
At equilibrium, x mol of N2O4 had dissociated. What is the value of the equilibrium constant. Kc
at the temperature of the experiment?
a. 2x
(1 – x)
b. 2x
(1 – x)2
c. 2x2
(1 – x)
d. 4x
(1 – x)
e. 4x2
(1 – x)
4. Which of the statements about the forward and reverse reactions, P + Q R + S, is

correct?
a. The ratio of the rates of the forward reaction to that of the reverse reaction equals the
equilibrium constant.
b. The rates of both the forward and reverse reactions are equal to zero.
c. The rates of the forward and reverse reactions are equal.
d. The rate constant for the forward reaction equals the rate constant for the reverse
reaction.
e. [P] [Q] = [R] [S]
5. Which of the following statements is correct about a reaction for which the equilibrium
constant is independent of temperature?
a. The activation energies for both forward and reverse reactions are zero.
b. The enthalpy change is zero
c. Its rate constants do not vary with temperature
d. There are equal numbers of moles of reactants and products
e. The forward and reverse reactions are of the same order.
6. An equilibrium is represented by the following equation

N2(g) + 3H2 (g) 2NH3 (g), ∆Hø = xkJ mol-1
Which of the following changes would affect both the value of the equilibrium constant Kp and
the proportion of ammonia present at equilibrium?
a. adding a catalyst of finely divided iron
b. reducing the temperature
c. increasing the mass of nitrogen
d. increasing the pressure
e. increasing the mass of hydrogen
7. What is the effect of a catalyst on the rate constants, k1 forward reaction and k-1 for the reverse
reaction, and on the equilibrium constant K, for a reversible reaction?
K1 k-1 k
a. increases decreases no effect
b. increases decreases increases
c. increases increases no effect
d. increases increases increases
e. no effect no effect increases
8. Hydrogen ald iodine vapour exist in equilibrium with hydrogen iodide at a constant
temperature in a gas syringe.
H2 + 12 2HI
Which of the following will increase when the pressure is increased at constant temperature?
(Assume that the mixture shows ideal behaviour)
a. the energy of activation

b. the enthalpy change
c. Kp
d. the partial pressure of hydrogen iodide
e. the rate constant for the forward reaction
9. A nitrogen hydrogen mixture, initially in the mole ratio of 1.3 reached equilibrium with
ammonia when 50% of the nitrogen had reacted. The total final pressure was p.
N2 + 3H2 2NH3
9. What was the partial pressure of ammonia in the equilibrium mixture?

a. pl8
b. pl6
c. pl4
d. pl3
e. pl2
10. In the equilibrium

N2(g) + 3H2(g) 2NH3(g)
Is established with the gases having the following partial pressures, p (arbitrary units)
Gas p
N2 1
H2 9
NH3 1
What is the numerical value of the equilibrium constant Kp?

a. 1 b. 1 c. 1 d. 9 e. 729
729 27 9
11. Nitrogen dioxide decomposes on heating according to the following equation.

2NO2(g) 2NO(g) + O2(g)
12. When 4 mol of nitrogen dioxide were put into a 1dm3 container and heated, the equilibrium
mixture contained 0.8 mol of oxygen.
a. 0.8 x 0.8
2.4
b. 0.82 x 0.8
42
c. 1.6 x 0.8
2.42
d. 1.62 x 0.8
42
12. Which statements about the effect of a catalyst on a reversible reaction is correct?
a. It increases the equilibrium constant for the forward reaction
b. It increases the yield of product in an equilibrium
c. It increases the rate constant for both the forward reaction and the reverse reaction.
d. It increases the rate constant for the forward reaction, but not that of the reverse reaction.
13. The percentage of ammonia obtainable, if equilibrium were established during the Haber
process, is plotted against the operating pressure for two temperatures, 4000C and 5000C.
14. For the reaction

Ag2CO3(s) Ag2O(s) + CO2 (g)
The value of the equilibrium constant Kp is 3.16 x 10-3 atm at 298 K and is 1.48 atm at 5000K.
What deduction can be made from this information?
a. The yield of carbon dioxide will increase at higher pressure
b. The yield of carbon dioxide is independent of temperature
c. The forward reaction is endothermic
d. The value of Kp depends on the amount of Ag2CO3 used
16. Two diatomic gases X2 and Y2 react as follows

X2(g) + Y2(g) 2XY(g)
A mixture containing 0.5 moles each of X2 and Y2 is heated in a closed container and the
reaction allowed to reach equilibrium. The graph shows how the number of moles of each gas
varies with time.
What is the value of the equilibrium constant Kc for this reaction?
a. 1.5
b. 3
c. 9
d. 18
18. Methanol is manufactured industrially by the catalytic reaction shown

CO(g) + 2H(g) CH3OH(g) : ∆H = -92 kJ mol-1
The operation conditions are:

2500C, a pressure between 50 atm and 100atm, a copper based catalyst
Which factor influence the choice of these conditions?
a. The catalyst increases the equilibrium yield of methanol
b. At lower pressures, the rate of formation of methanol increases
c. At lower temperatures, the equilibrium yield of methanol increases
d. At lower temperatures, the rate of formation of methanol increases.
19. Known amounts of hydrogen and iodine are allowed to come to equilibrium at 5000C
in a vessel of known volume
H2 + I2 2HI
From which experimental method can Kc be found?
a. Measuring the total pressure in the vessel

b. slow cooling to 200C, breaking open the vessel under aqueous potassium iodide, and titrating
the iodine present with aqueous sodium thiosulphate.
c. rapid cooling to 200C, breaking open vessel under aqueous potassium iodide, and training the
iodine present with aqueous sodium thiosulphate.
d. withdrawal of a measured sample of the equilibrium mixture, followed by complete
decomposition of the hydrogen iodide present, and then titrating the total amount of iodine with
aqueous sodium thiosulphate.
20. When the system H2(g) + 12(g) 2HI(g) is in equilibrium at 4440C at 1 atm pressure,
the value of the equilibrium constant, Kp is 50.
What is the value of Kp at a pressure of 2 atm at the same temperature?
a. 25
b. 50
c. 100
d. 200
21. Which factor is the most significant in explaining the non- ideal behaviour of the gases
present in the reaction chamber in the Haber process?
a. strong bonds between the atoms in nitrogen molecules

b. the presence of a catalyst
c. the high temperature of 4500C
d. the high pressure of 150 atm
23. When 0.20 mol of hydrogen gas an 0.15 mol of iodine gas are heated at 723 K until
equilibrium is established, the equilibrium is established, the equilibrium mixture is found to
contain 0.26 mol of hydrogen iodide.
The equation for the reaction is as follows
H2(g) + 12(g) 2HI(g)
What is the correct expression for the equilibrium constant Kc?

a. 2 x 0.26
0.20 x 0.15
b. (2 x 0.26)2
0.20 x 0.15
c. (0.26)2
0.07 x 0.02
d. (0.26)2
0.13 x 0.13
IONIC EQUILIBRIA
1. What is a satisfactory indicator for the titration of 0.1 mol dm-3 ethanoic acid with 0.3 mol dm3
aqueous ammonia?
a. Bromothymol blue (pH range 6.0 – 7.6)

b. Methyl orange (pH range 3.2 – 4.2)
c. Methyl red (pH range 4.2 – 6.3)
d. Phenolphthalein (pH range 8.2 – 10.0)
e. There is no satisfactory indicator.
2. A buffer solution consists of an aqueous solution of a weak acid and its sodium salt. Which of
the following expressions gives the best estimate of the hydrogen ion concentration?
a. [H+] = K3 (acid)
b. [H+] = Ka (salt]
c. [H+] = Ka [acid + salt]
d. [H+] = Ka [acid]/ [salt]
e. [H+] = Ka [salt] / [acid]
3. Why is ethanoic acid a stronger acid in liquid ammonia than in water?

a. Ammonia is a stronger base than water
b. Ethanoic acid molecules form hydrogen bonds with water
c. Ethanoic acid is more soluble in liquid ammonia than in water
d. Ethanoic acid has a high enthalpy change of hydration
e. Ethanoic ions form hydrogen bonds with water.
4. When expressed film from a camera is developed, one step involves reacting the light
activated silver bromine crystals with aqueous alkaline hydroquinone.
Which of the following best describes the role of the hydroquinone?
a. an acid only
b. an oxidizing agent only
c. a reducing agent only
d. both an acid and a reducing agent
e. both a base and a reducing agent
6. Which one of the following affects the value of the solubility product. Ksp of silver sulphide
when it is precipitated by passing hydrogen sulphide into aqueous silver nitrate?
2AgNO3 (aq) + H2S (g) Ag2S(s) + 2HNO3 (aq)
a. an increase in temperature
b. the addition of aqueous sodium sulphate
c. the addition of aqueous silver nitrate
d. the presence of an excess of acid
e. the pressure of the hydrogen sulphide
7. In an acid base titration, a 0.10 mol dm-3 solution of a base is added to 25cm3 of a 0.10 dm-3
solution of an acid.
The pH value of the solution is plotted against the volume, V, of base added as shown in the
diagram
This diagram could represent a titration between
a. CH3CO2H (aq) and NH3 (aq)

b. CH3 CO2 H (aq) and KOH (aq)
c. HCI (aq) and KOH (aq)
d. HCI (aq) and NH3 (aq)
e. H2SO4 (aq) and KOH (aq)
8. Public swimming pools are often chlorinated to kill bacteria. As an alternative to chlorination,
silver ions can be used in a concentration of not more than 10-6 mol dm-3 and not less than 10-7
mol dm-3 of silver ions.
Which compound would, in saturated solution, provide the necessary concentration of silver
ions?
Compound Solubility product
A AgBr 5 x 10-13 mol2 dm-6
B AgCl 2 x 10-10 mol2 dm-6

C Ag103 2x 10-8 mol2 dm-6
D Ag2CO3 5 x 10-12 mol3 dm-9
9. The graph shows the change in pH when 0.10 mol dm-3 acid is gradually added to 10cm3 of
0.10 mol dm-3 alkali.
Which of the following substances could have given these results?
Alkali acid
a. Ba(OH)2 CH3CO2H
b. Ba(OH)2 H3PO4
c. Ca(OH)2 H2SO4
d. NaOH H2SO4
e. NaOH CH3CO2H
10. Hardness in tap water can be determined by titrating a sample against a reagent which forms
complex ions with dissolved metal ions. The indicator for this titration requires the pH to be
maintained at about 10.
Which of the following, in aqueous solution, could be used to do this?

a. ammonia and ammonium chloride
b. ammonium chloride and hydrochloric acid
c. sodium ethanoate and ethanoic acid
d. sodium hydroxide and sodium ethanoate
e. sodium hydroxide only
11. The pKb value for aqueous ammonia at 250C is 4.8.

What is the correct pKa value for the ammonium at this temperature? (Kb denotes the base
dissociation constant and Ka denotes the acid dissociation constant.)
a. -4.8
b. 2.2
c. 4.8
d. 9.2
e. 11.8
12. A 1.0 x 10-2 mol dm-3 aqueous solution of the weak, mono basic acid H4 has a pH of 4.0.
What is the approximate pKa value for the acid?
a. 4.0
b. 6.0
c. 7.0
d. 8.0
e. 10.0
13. A sample of 1 mol of ethanoic acid is diluted at constant temperature to a volume V.

Which diagram shows how the pH of the acid varies with V?
14. The following equilibrium exists in a mixtures of concentrated nitric acid and concentrated
sulphhric acid.
HNO3 + 2H2SO4 NO+2 + 2HSO-4 + H3O+
Which statement about this equilibrium is correct?

a. Addition of H2O will reduce the NO+2 concentration
b. HNO3 and NO+2 are a conjugate acid base pair.
c. The nitric acid acts as an oxidizing agent
d. The sulphuric acid acts as a dehydrating agent
e. The sulphuric acid acts as a base
15. Which statement explains the observation that magnesium hydroxide dissolves in aqueous
ammonium chloride, but not in aqueous sodium chloride?
a. Ammonium hydroxide is first formed, and then acts through a common ion effect
b. The ammonium ion changes the solubility product of Mg(OH)2
c. NH4CI dissociates less fully than NaCl
d. The ions Na+ and Mg2+ are isoelectronic (have the same number of electrons).
e. The ion NH+4 acts as an acid.
16. A 1 mol sample of ethanoic acid is diluted at constant temperature to a volume V.
Which diagram shows how Ka, the acid dissociation constant, varies with V?
17. Under appropriate conditions, NH4Br and KNH2 react as follows:

NH4Br + KNH2 KBr + 2NH3
How is the reaction best classified?
a. acid base
b. condensation
c. disproportionation
d. oxidation- reduction
18. The graph shown can be plotted for the titration of aqueous ammonia with hydrochloric acid.
What is the explanation for the change of slope at point X?
a. a buffer solution has been produced

b. More hydroxide ions are produced as the reaction proceeds
c. The base has been completely neutralized by the acid
d. The reaction produces heat.
19. The value of the ionic product of water Kw, varies with temperature
Temperature / 0C Kw / mol2- dm-6
25 1.0 x 10-14
62 1.0 x 10-13
What can be deduced from this information?

a. The ionic dissociation of water is an endothermic process
b. the ionic dissociation of water increase by a factor of 5 between 250C and 620C
c. The association of water molecules by hydrogen bonding increase as temperature rises
d. Water is not a neutral liquid at 620C
20. Stomach juices have a pH of 1.0

Aspirin is a monobase acid and represented by HA (Ka – 107 mol dm-3) which dissociates into
ions H+ and A-.
What are the relative concentrations of H+, A- and HA when aspirin from a tablet enters the
stomach?
a. [H+] > [HA] > [A-]
b. [HA] > [H+] = [A-]
c. [H+] > [A-] [HA]
d. [H+] = [A-] > [HA]
21. Aminoethanoic acid (glycine) ionizes in aqueous solution in the following manner.
NH3+CH2CO-2 (aq) NH2CH2CO-2 (aq) + H+ (aq)
The dissociation constant Ka, of the acid for the above dissociation is 1.0 x 10-12 mol dm-3
What will be the approximate pH of 1.0 x 10-2 mol dm-3 aminoethanoic acid?
a. 5
b. 6
c. 7
d. 8
22. An enzyme, found in the stomach, operates at maximum efficiency when in an aqueous
solution buffered at pH5.
Which combination of substances, when dissolved in 10dm3 of water, would give the necessary
buffer solution?
a. 1 mol of HCI and 1 mol of CH3CO2H
b. 1 mol of CH3 CO2H and 1 mol of CH3 CO2 Na
c. 1 mol of HCI and 1 mol of CH3CO2Na
d. 1 mol of CH3 CO2 NH4
25. The graph shows the variation of pH during the titration of an aqueous alkali with an aqueous
acid of similar concentration.
What could be the alkali and acid in this titration?
Alkali Acid
A NH3 (aq) CH3CO2H (aq)
B NH3 (aq) HCI (aq)
C NaOH (aq) CH3CO2H (aq)
D NaOH (aq) HC (aq)
26. Which pair of 0.1 mol dm-3 aqueous solutions is most likely to give a precipitate when added
together?
a. KBr and MgSO4
b. NaNO3 and CaCI2
c. NH3 and BaCI2
d. MgSO4 and SrCI2
27. The diagram below shows the change of pH produced by gradually adding aqueous Y to a
certain volume of aqueous X. The concentration of each constituent of the aqueous solutions X
and Y is 0.1 mol dm-3.
What could X and Y be?
X Y
A Na2CO3 HCI
B NaOH + KOH HCI
C NaHCO3 HCI
D NaOH CH3CO2H + HCI
28. In liquid ammonia, the following equilibrium exists

2NH3 NH+4 + NH-2
At a certain temperature, the composition of the equilibrium mixture obeys the following
equation.
Kamm = [NH+4] [NH-2] = 1.0 x 10-22 mol2 dm-6
What is the total concentration of ions in this equilibrium?
a. 1.0 x 10-11 mol dm-3
b. 2.0 x 10-11 mol dm-3
c. 1.0 x 10-22 mol dm-3
d. 2.0 x 10-22 mol dm-3
29. Aminoethanoic acid (glycine) ionizes in aqueous solution in the following manner.
NH3CH2CO2- (aq) NH2CH2CO2- (aq) + H+ (aq)
The dissociation constant Ka, of the acid for the above dissociation is 1.0 x 10-12 mol dm-3.
What is the approximate pH of 1.0 x 10-2 mol dm-3 aminoethanoic acid?
a. 5
b. 6
c. 7
d. 8
30. Which statement explains the observation that magnesium hydroxide dissolves in aqueous
ammonium chloride, but not in aqueous sodium chloride?
a. The radius of the NH+4 ions is similar to that of Mg2+ but not that of Na+.
b. NH4CI dissociates less fully than NaCI
c. The ions Na+ and Mg2+ are isoelectronic (have the same number of electrons)
d. The ion NH+4 acts as an acid
31. Use of Data Booklet is relevant to this question.

Water dissociates as shown:
H2O H6 + OH-
At 250C the equilibrium value of [H+] is10-7 mol dm-3 [H2O] = 1000/18 mol dm-3
What is the order of increasing numerical value of pH, pKa and pKw for this equilibrium at this
temperature?
(pKw = log Kw)
Smallest Largest
a. pH pKa pKw
b. pH pKw pKa
c. pKa pKw pH
d. pKw pKa pH
32. An acidified solution containing 0.10 mol dm-3 of zinc sulphate and 0.10 mol dm-3 of copper
(II) sulphate is saturated with hydrogen sulphide at 150C. The concentration of S2- (aq) in the
solution is then 10-35 mol dm-3.
The solubility product of zinc sulphide at 150C is 10-24 mol3 dm-6 and that of copper (II) sulphide
is 10-40 mol2 dm-6
Which statements describes what happens in the solution?
a. No precipitate is formed
b. Copper (II) sulphide only is precipitated
c. Copper (II) sulphide followed by zinc sulphide
d. Zinc sulphide is precipitated followed by copper (II) sulphide
33. Why is ethanoic acid a stronger acid in liquid ammonia than in aqueous solution?
a. ammonia is a stronger base than water
b. ammonium ethanoate is completely ionized in aqueous solution
c. ammonium ethanoate is strongly acidic in aqueous solution
d. liquid ammonia is a more solvent than water
SECTION B
For each of the questions in this section one or more of the three numbered statements 1 to 3
may be correct.
Decide whether each of the statements is or is not correct (you may find it helpful to put a tick
against the statements which you consider to be correct).
The responses A to E should be selected on the basis of
A B C D E

CHEMICAL EQUILIBRIA
1. Two bulbs R and S connected by a mercury manometer, are held in a thermostat, as shown
below. The volume of R is twice that of S. R contains a gas X at the same pressure as the
nitrogen in S.
When the thermostat temperature is increased, which of the following gases in bulb R would
cause the mercury level in the right hand limb of the manometer to rise?
1. nitrogen
2. an equilibrium mixture CH3NC (g) CH3CH(g) ∆H negative
3. an equilibrium mixture N2F4 (g) 2NF2 (g), ∆H positive
2. For the reaction

N2O4 (g) 2NO2(g)
The numerical value of Kp when the partial pressures of the gases are measured in atmosphere
is:
1.70 x 103 at 500K
1.78 x 104 at 600 K

1 The units Kp are atm-1
2 The standard enthalpy change of the forward reaction is negative
3 The proportion of NO2 in the equilibrium mixture is increased by decreasing the pressure
3. One explanation of the Chernobyl nuclear power plant in 1986 is that the graphite reactor
overheated and reacted with the cooling water as shown below.
C (s) + H2O (g) H2(g) + CO (g) : ∆H = +131 kJ mol-1
Which of the following are possible reasons why the forward reaction is more likely to occur at
high temperature?
1 The energy of activation is high
2 At lower temperature, the position of equilibrium lies too far to the left
3 hydrogen and carbon monoxide do not react at high temperature
4. which of the following statements are true about the Haber process for the manufacture of
ammonia?
1 At higher temperatures, the yield goes down but the rate of production of ammonia is
faster
2 At higher pressures, the yield goes down but the rate of production of ammonia is faster
3 In the presence of a catalyst, the yield goes down but the rate of production of ammonia
is faster.
5. What can be deduced from the following information?

2SO2(g) + O2 (g) 2SO3 (g) ; ∆H = - 98 kJ mol-1
1 Increasing the pressure increases the equilibrium yield of SO3 (g)

2 The maximum mass of sulphur trioxide that can be made from 64g of sulphur dioxide is
80g.
3 Increasing the temperature decreases the rate of the forward reaction.
6. Poly (tetraflourothene) is a polymer used as a coating in non stick kitchen utensils for
replacement bone joints. One of the stages in the manufacture of the polymer is
2CHCIF2(g) C2F4 (g) + 2HCI (g) ; ∆H = +128 kJ mol -1
Which of the following conditions will shift this equilibrium to the right?
1 high temperature
2 high pressure
3 using a catalyst
7. Which statements about the following equilibrium are correct?
2SO2 + O2 2SO3 ∆H= -188.3 kJ mol-1
1 The value of Kp falls with a rise in temperature

2 The value of Kp falls with increasing pressure
3 Adding vanadium (V) oxide catalyst increases the equilibrium yield of sulphur trioxide
8. What can affect the magnitude of the equilibrium constant, Kp of a reversible gaseous
reaction?
1 temperature
2 pressure
3 catalysts
9. The reaction shown is reversible.

N2O4(g) 2NO2(g): ∆H = +61.7 kJ mol-1
When, at the same temperature, the pressure is increased, which of the following decrease?
1 the proportion of NO2(g) present at equilibrium

2 the value of the equilibrium constant Kp
3 the activation energies of both forward and reverse reactions
10. The equilibrium constant Kp for the reaction
X(g) + Y(g) Z(g)
Varies with temperature as shown in the diagram below
Which conclusions can be drawn from this information?

1 the reaction is exothermic in the forward direction
2 the equilibrium mixture contains a greater proportion of Z at higher pressures
3 the equilibrium mixture contains a greater proportion of Z at higher temperatures
IONIC EQUILIBRA
1. Hydroxyapatite Ca5 (PO4)3 OH is the main constituent of tooth enamel. In the presence of
saliva, the following equilibria exist.
Ca5 (PO4)3 OH(s) SCa2+ (aq) + 3PO4 3-(aq) + OH- (aq)
HPO42-(aq) H+ (aq) + PO4 3-(aq)
Which of the following statements help to explain why tooth enamel is dissolved more readily
when saliva is acidic?
1 The hydroxide ions are neutralized by the acid
2 The phosphate ion PO43-(aq) it reacts
3 calcium ions react with acid
2 A titration curve is shown below

To which pairs of substances could this curve apply?
1 NaOH (aq)/ HCI (aq)
2 NaOH (aq)/ CH3CO2H(aq)
3 NH3 (aq) / HCI (aq)
3. In water, the following equation exists

H2O(I) H+ (aq) + OH- (aq)
AHø = +57 kJ mol-1 at 298K
The ionic product of water is defined by the expression.
[H+] [OH-] = 1.0 x 10-14 mol2 dm-0 at 298K.
What can be deduced from these data?

1 When water is heated, the concentration of H+ (aq) increases
2 when water is heated, the concentration of OH-(aq) increases
3 The pH of pure water at temperatures greater than 250C is greater than 7.
5. Which of the following in aqueous solution do not considerably change in pH when relatively
small volumes of strong acid or strong alkali are added?
1 a mixture of sodium carbonate and sodium hydrogencarbonate

2 a mixture of sodium ethanoate and ethanoic acid
3 a mixture of sodium sulphate and sodium chloride
6. The use of chlorine as a disinfectant in swimming pools is now widely banned nad the weak
acid trichloroisocynatic acid is used instead.
Trichloroisocyanuric acid + OH- C/O- + cyanuric acid
The CIO- ion is the effective disinfectant.
Why is it necessary to keep the pH of the water at 7.5?
1 The concentration of H+ is too low for the following reaction to occur.
2H+ (aq) + CIO- (aq) + CI- (aq) H2O (I) + CI2 (g)
2 The concentration of the CIO- ion depends on the pH
3 At a pH of 7.5 the concentration of the CIO- ion is at a maximum
7. Which of the following are correct descriptions of a strong acid?

1 it has a low pKa value
2 It has a relatively high electrical conductivity in dilute solutions
3 Its conjugate base is strong
8. Which of the following could act as buffer solutions?

1 NaHCO3 and Na2CO3
2 CH3CO2H and NaCi
3 HNO3 and NaNO3
SECTION C
CHEMICAL EQUILIBRIA
1a). What do you understand by the term equilibrium constant?
At 600C and a total pressure of 1 atmosphere dinitrogen tetraoxide is 50.0% dissociated into
nitrogen dioxide.
N2O4(g) 2NO2 (g)
Calculate the equilibrium constant Kp at this temperature.
2. Interpret the following observations as fully as you can.

a). The equilibrium constant Kp for the reaction.
N2O4 (g) 2NO2(g)
Decreases as the temperature rises, whereas Kp for the reaction

N2(g) + O2(g) 2NO(g)
Increases as the temperature rises.
b). A catalyst is used in the synthesis of ammonia Haber process

N2(g) + 3H2(g) 2NH3 (g) ∆H Negative
But not in the synthesiss of nitrogen monoxide.
N2(g) + O2(g) 2NO (g) ∆H Positive
3. Recent developments using more efficient catalysts have allowed the working conditions of
the Haber process to be modified so that pressures of 70 – 80 atmosphere need only be used to
make an economical yield of ammonia.
a)i. Write an equation for the synthesis of ammonia.
b). In comparison with traditional practice, state and explain the effect the pressure of 70- 80
atmospheres will have on:
i). The rate of the process
ii. the position of equilibrium, assuming it to be attained
c). In the light of your answers in (b) state what advantages the new catalysts bring to the
process.
4.a). Explain what is meant by dynamic equilibrium.

b). Write the equation for the reaction between ethanoic acid and ethanol, giving full structural
formulae for the organic substances.
c). 0.6 mol ethanoic acid 0.5 mol ethanol, 0.6 mol ethyl ethanoate and 0.4 mol of water
containing hydrochloric acid were mixed together. When equilibrium had been reached only 0.4
mol of ethanoic acid remained.
i). How many moles of each of these were present at equilibrium?
Ethanol………………………
Ethyl ethanoate………………
Water…………………….
ii). Write an expression for the equilibrium constant Kc, for the reaction.
iii). Determine the value of Kc for this reaction
iv). What was the purpose of the hydrochloric acid?
d). 0.1 mol ethanoic acid, 0.1 mol ethanol, 0.5 mol ethyl ethanoate and 0.5 mol of water were
mixed together. How many moles of each would be present at equilibrium?
Ethanoic acid …………….
Ethanol ……………
Ethyl ethanoate ……………..
Water ……………………….
5. Two of the oxides can co- exist in the equilibrium
N2O4 (g) 2 NO2 (g)
i). Calculate the enthalpy change ∆H, for the forward reaction.
ii). Sealed tubes containing NO2 and N2O are left as shown in the diagram below.
What colours would you expect to see in each tube?

Justify your answers with an explanation.
6. At room temperature, gaseous dinitrogen tetraoxide and nitrogen dioixide are in dynamic
equilibrium according to the following equation.
N2O4 (g) 2NO2 (g) ∆H = +58kJ mol -1
a). Explain what is meant by the term dynamic equilibrium, and write the expression for the
equilibrium constant, Kp for this reaction. (2)
b). At a temperature of 250C (298K), 1.00g of a mixture of these two gases takes up a volume of
3.17 x 10-4 m3 at a pressure of 101 kPa (1.01 x 105 N m-2). Calculate the average relative
molecular mass of the mixture. (2)
c). State Le Chatelier‟s principle, and use it to deduce qualitatively the effect on the average
relative molecular mass of this gaseous mixture was titrated quickly with 1.00 mol dm-3 sodium
hydroxide and 80cm3 of alkali were required.
a)i. Write an equation for the reaction between ethanoic acid and ethanol.
ii). Explain why the reaction mixture was titrated quickly.
b). By making use of the titration results, and the equation in (a) (i), calculate
i). how many moles of ethanoic acid remained at equilibrium
ii). how many moles of ethanoic acid had reacted
iii). How many moles of ethanol were left in the equilibrium mixture (3)
c)i. Write the expression for the equilibrium constant, Kc, for the equation you have given in (a)
(i).
ii). Calculate a value for Kc for this reaction. (3)
8. When a solid A is heated in a closed vessel to a temperature T, it forms two gases B and C in
the molar ratio 1:2 according to the equation.
A (s) B (g) + 2C (g)
In the closed system, the reaction comes to equilibrium.
a)i. Write an expression for the equilibrium constant. Kp in terms of partial pressures
ii). Explain briefly why this expression does not include A.
b). The equilibrium pressure for the above system at the temperature T is 3 x 103 kPa.
i). What is the partial pressure of each component
ii). Determine the value of Kp stating the units. (4)
9. Part of the process by which coal can be converted into a combustible mixture of gases
involves passing steam over a white hot coke:
H2 O(g) + C(s) H2 (g) + CO (g): ∆H = +131 kJ mol-1

a). For this reaction, write an expression for Kp, the equilibrium constant, in terms of partial
pressures, state the units of Kp.
b). State and explain how the composition of the equilibrium mixture would change if there were
an increase in
i). the pressure
ii). the temperature (3)
c). When steam was passed over coke at 2300C, the following partial pressures were measured at
equilibrium:
p(H2O) = 90 kPa
p(H2) = 183 kPa
i). State what equilibrium partial pressure of carbon monoxide is and hence calculate the
equilibrium constant. (3)
ii). What will be the new equilibrium partial pressure of hydrogen if the partial pressure of steam
is increased to 150 kPa at equilibrium? (2)
10. For the reaction

CH3 CO2H (I) + C2 H5 OH (I) CH3 CO2 C2 H5 (I) + H2O (l)
The value of the equilibrium constant is 4.0
a). Write an expression for the equilibrium constant, Kc of the reverse reactioin i.e the hydrolysis
of ethyl ethanoate, stating its numerical value. (2)
b). In an experiment, 2 mol of ethyl ethanoate and 2 mol of water are mixed.
Calculate the number of moles of each substance present when equilibrium is reached.
i). CH3 CO2 H
ii). C2 H5 OH
iii). CH3 CO2 C2 H5
iv). H2O
11a). State Le Chatelier‟s principle (2)
b). In relation to the following equilibria,
Equilibrium 1
H2O (g) + C (s) H2 (g) + CO (g) ∆H = +131 kJ mol-1
Equilibrium II
2CrO42- (aq) + 2H+ (aq) Cr2O72- (aq) + H2O (I)
Use Le Chatelier‟s principle to predict and explain the effect of

i). increasing the pressure on Equilibrium I
ii). increasing the temperature in Equilibrium I
iii). Increasing [H+ (aq)] on Equilibrium II (4)
c). The key reaction during the Contact process for manufacturing sulphuric acid is as follows:
2SO2 (g) + O2 (g) 2SO3 (g) ; ∆H = 197 kJ mol -1
When a 2:1 ratio of sulphur dioxide and oxygen at a total initial pressure of 3 atm is passed over
a catalyst at 4300C, the partial pressure of sulphur trioxide at equilibrium is found to be 1.9 atm.
i). calculate the partial pressures of SO2 and O2 at equilibrium, and hence the new total pressure
and the percentage conversion of SO2 into SO3.
ii). Write an expression for the equilibrium constant , kP and calculate its value. (4)
12.a). Le Chateliers principle predicts that the highest equilibrium yield of ammonia in the Haber
process.
N2 (g) + 3H2 (g) 2NH3 (g) : ∆H = -92kJ mol-1
Should occur at a high pressure and at a low temperature. In practice, however, these conditions
are not used.
i). What are the typical values of pressure and temperature used industrially, and what factors
other than Le Chatelier‟s principle affect this choice? (3)
ii). Why are the gases passed through a tower packed with lumps of iron? (2)
13. CH4 (g) + H2O (g) CO(g) + 3H2 (g) ∆H1 = +206 kJ mol-1
Predict and explain the effect of separately increasing the pressure and increasing the
temperature on the above equilibrium.
The carbon monoxide is further reacted with more steam over a copper / zinc catalyst.
CO (g) + H2O (g) CO2(g) + H2 (g) ∆H2 = -41 kJ mol-1
iv). Suggest and explain a method whereby the carbon dioxide could be removed from the
product gas stream.
14. On heating gaseous phosphorous pentachloride, the following equilibrium is set up:
PCI2 (g) PCI3 (g) + CI2 (g) : ∆H2 = 141 kJ mol-1
i). Use the Data Booklet to calculate the relative molecular masses (Mr) of PCI1, PC3 and CI2
When 15.0 g of phosphorous pentachloride were put into a scaled evacuated vessel of capacity 1
x 10-3 m3 and heated to 473 K, the pressure increased to 3.10 x 105 Pa.
ii). Use the above data and the general gas equation to calculate the average Mr of the gaseous
mixture.
ii). From the figures you calculated in (i) and (ii), use the two formulae
Fraction dissociated (x) = Mr (PCI5) – average Mr
Average Mr
And Kc = x2 / (1 – x)
To calculate a value for x, and hence to show that Kc under the above conditions has a numerical
value of 1.0 x 10-2
iv). Predict, with reasoning, how the position of equilibrium might change if there were an
increase in
1. the pressure
2 the temperature (8)
15. Steam dissociates into its elements at very high temperatures

2H2O (g) 2H2(g) + O2 (g)
i). Write an expression for the equilibrium constant, Kp for the reaction as given by this
equation.
ii). At a high temperature and a total pressure of 1 atm, 20% of the steam is dissociated into
hydrogenand oxygen. Calculate the pressure that each of the three gases exerts at equilibrium
ii). calculate the value for Kp, giving its units. (4)
16. Ammonia is manufactured from nitrogen and hydrogen by the Haber process.
a). Apart from its use in making fertilizers, give two reasons why the manufacturer of ammonia
is important. (2)
b)i. Write an equation for the manufacture of ammonia
ii). Explain why the activation energy of the process is high.
iii). Explain in detail why the process is carried out at a high pressure. (4)
c)i. Write an expression for the equilibrium constant Kc for the Haber process.
ii). calculate the value of Kc given the following equilibrium concentrations at 1000 K. State the
units of Kc.
Gas Concentration / mol dm-3
Nitrogen 1.36
Hydrogen 1.84
Ammonia 0.142
7. Nitrogen dioxide, NO2 is a brown gas that is a constituent of smogs caused by cars in critics.
a). Suggest how NO2 is formed in a car engine and how it may be removed from exhaust gases.
(2)
b). In the gaseous state. NO2 can dimerise as follows

2NO2 (g) N2O4 (g) ∆H = -58 kJ mol -1
i). Explain with reasons, whether the above dimerisation is favoured by

I high or low pressure
II high or low temperature
ii). The NO2 molecule has an unpaired electron on its nitrogen atom but the N2O4 molecule does
not. Suggest a shape for the NO2 molecule and suggest a structural formula for N2O4 (5)
c). At a temperature of 320K and a pressure of 1.0 x 105 Pa(1.0 atm), 0.50g of the gaseous NO2/
N2O4 mixture takes up a volume of 190 cm3.
Calculate the average Mr of the mixture. (2)
d). At another temperature, it is found that the partial pressures of NO2 and N2O4 at equilibrium
are 0.4 atm and 0.6 atm respectively.
Write an expression for Kp and calculate its value giving units. (3)
18a). State Le Chatelier‟s principle. (1)

b). The following are all equilibrium processes. In each case, write a chemical equation
(including state symbols) to show the equilibrium, and use Le Chateliers principle to explain the
observations described.
i). When potassium nitrate dissolves in water, the temperature drops if a saturated solution of
potassium nitrate at 1000C is cooled to room temperature crystals are formed.
ii). When a small volume of a concentrated solution of sodium sulphate is added to a standard
solutioin of calcium sulphate, a white precipitate appears.
iii). When brown NO2 (g) is cooled, colourless N2O4 (g) is formed. A gas syringe is filled wirh
NO2 (g) is formed. A gas syringe is filled with NO2 (g) and the end sealed. When the gas is
compressed, the brown colour fades. Warming the syringe restores the colour. (7)
c). The following reaction is used industrially to produce a combustible gas from coal.
H2O (g) + C (s) H2(g) + CO (g)
A mixture of powdered coal and steam at a pressure of 1 atm and a temperature of 13000C was
allowed to reach equilibrium. It was found that the total pressure had increased to 1.9 atm but the
remaining steam had a partial pressure of only 0.1 atm.
i). Write down the expression for Kp including its units.
ii). Use the data given to calculate the partial pressures of hydrogen and carbon monoxide, and
hence calculate a value for Kp (4)
19. Sulphuric acid is used in many industrial processes of major importance.

The first stage in the manufacture of sulphuric acid is to pass air over burning sulphur. The
emerging gas has the following composition by volume.
Sulphur dioxide 10%

Sulphur trioxide 0.2%
Oxygen 10%
Nitrogen etc 79 – 80%
a)i. Write an equation for sulphur burning in air.

ii). Suggest why the air is passed so fast that only half the oxygen is used. (2)
The emerging gas is passed over a catalyst maintained at 450 – 5500C in the reaction chamber.
b). Name the catalyst used in the Contact process. (1)
Sulphur trioxide is formed in 98% yield, 2% of sulphur dioxide remains unconverted.
2SO2 (g) + O2 (g) 2SO3 (g) ∆H = - 197 kJ mol-1
c). The high yield is only achieved under certain conditions.
After each condition explain why this leads to an increased yield of sulphur trioxide.
i). There needs to be an excess of air in the reacting gas mixture
Explanation………………….
ii). The catalyst needs to be cooled

Explanation………………………
iii). The air used to burn sulphur must be as clean as possible.

Explanation……………… (3)
20. The key stage in the manufacture of sulphuric acid is the reaction between sulphur dioxide
and oxygen.
2SO2 (g) + O2 (g) 2SO3 (g) ∆H = - 197 kJ mol -1
a). Describe and explain the effect on the position of this equilibrium of increasing
i). the pressure ii). the temperature (4)
b). The reaction is carried out at a pressure of 5 atmospheres and a temperature of 5000C.
i). In what respects are these conditions not what you might have expected?
ii). Suggest why these particular conditions are used. (3)
c)i. write an expression for Kp for this reaction, giving its units.
ii. When a 2:1 mixture of SO2 and O2 was allowed to reach equilibrium at 5000C and a total
pressure of 5 atm, the partial pressure of SO3 was found to be 4.7 atm.
Use your expression in (c) (i) to calculate the value for Kp (3)
21. In the Haber Process, ammonia is synthesized from its elements.

a). Write an equation for the Haber Process and state whether it is endo or exothermic. (2)
b). What are the three usual operating conditions of the Haber Process? (2)
c). Explain the considerations which lead to the temperature you have stated in (b) being used.
d). Under certain conditions the equilibrium pressures of the three gases are
nitrogen 44.8 atm
hydrogen 105.6 atm
ammonia 37.2 atm
i). Write an expression for the equilibrium constant Kp for the Haber Process.
ii). Calculate Kp from these data, giving the units. (4)
e). One of the uses of ammonia is to form nitrates which are used as efficient inorganic
fertilizers. The uncontrolled use of these fertilizers has led to environmental problems. Briefly
and explain these problems. (3)
IONIC EQUILIBRIA
1. Define pH. (2)
Calculate the pH of
i). 0.100 mol dm-3 aqueous ethanoic acid (3)
ii). a mixture of equal volumes of 0.100 mol dm-3 aqueous ethanoic acid and 0.100 mol dm-3
aqueous sodium ethanoate. (4)
What are the solutions of the type used in (ii) called? Give one example of their practical
application. (3)
(Dissociation constant Ke of ethanoic acid = 1.75 x 10-5 mol dm-3)
2. The solubility of barium hydroxide Ba(OH)2 at 250C is 0.24g dm-3.

a)i. Calculate the molar concentration of the saturated aqueous solution.
ii. If it is assumed that the solute is completely ionized, calculate the hydroxide ion concentration
of the solution.
iii). Calculate the pH of saturated aqueous barium hydroxide.
b)i. Write an expression for the solubility product of barium hydroxide.
ii. Using the values obtained in part (a) calculate the value of the solubility product, stating the
units. (4)
c). Bottles containing aquoues barium hydroxide need to be kept firmly stoppered or a white
deposit forms on the surface
i). What is this white deposit
ii. Explain, with the aid of an equation, how it is formed.
3. An excess of solid hydroxide is shaken in 0.010 mol dm-3 sodium hydroxide to reach
equilibriumand then filtered. 25.0 cm3 of the filtered solution is required to neutralize 20.0 cm3
of 0.050 mol dm-3 hydrochloric acid.
a)i. Calculate the total hydroxide ion concentration in mol dm-3 in the solution.
ii). Calculate the concentration of hydroxide ions which is associated with the calcium ions.
iii). Calculate the concentration of calcium ions in mol-3 in the solution. (3)
b)i. Give the expression for the solubility product of calcium hydroxide.
ii. Use the values obtained in (a) to calculate the solubility product of calcium hydroxide, stating
the units. (4)
4. A solution which contains both ammonia and ammonium chloride acts as a buffer solution.
Calculate the ph of a buffer solution which contains 0.10 mol of ammonia and 0.050 mol of
ammonium chloride per dm3.
(Dissociation constant, Ka for ammonium ion = 5.6 x 10 – 10 dm-3) (4)
5. Apple juice has a pH of 3.5.

a). Define pH.
b. Calculate the molar concentration of hydrogen ions in apple juice. (2)
Apple juice can be titrated with standard alkali.

A 25.0 cm3 sample of apple juice was exactly neutralized by 27.5 cm3 of 0.10 mol dm-3 sodium
hydroxide using phenolphthalein as indicator.
b). Assuming that apple juice contains a singe acid which is monobasic, calculate the molar
concentration of the acid in the juice. (1)
c)i. How can you explain the difference between the two results you have obtained in (a) (ii) and
(b)?
ii. What constant can be determined from these two results?
iii. Calculate a numerical value of this constant. (3)
d). Suggest two reasons why phenolphthalein is a suitable indicator for this titration. (2)
6. The water of Lake Nakuru in the Kenyan rift valley contains dissolved sodium carbonate and
sodium hydrogencarbonate. The following equilibrium exists:
HCO3- (aq) H+ (aq) + CO32- (aq)
a). Explain how this solution acts as a buffer on the addition of either or alkali. (3)
b). The pH of Lake Nakuru is 10.3 and the ratio [ CO32- (aq)]
[HCO3- (aq) ]
is 0.958. Calculate the equilibrium constant for the above reaction. (2)
c). When 10.0 cm3 of lake water were titrated with 0.20mol dm-3 HCI 22.0 cm3 of acid were
required to neutralize all the carbonate and hydrogencarbonate ions according to the following
equations:
H+ (aq) + HCO3- (aq) H2O (I) + CO2 (g)
2H+ (aq) + CO32- (aq) H2O (I) + CO2 (g)
Calculate the total number of moles of acid used, and thus, by using the ratio quoted in part (b),
calculate [HCO3- (aq)] and [CO32- (aq)] in the lake. (5)
Information about a commercial cola drink is given in the table below.
Added flavour Added acid Acid Volume at s.t.p

concentration in of CO2 dissolved
drink/ g/ dm-3 in 1 volume of
drink
Cola Kolu not extract Phorphoric acid 0.49 1.12
a)i. Calculate the concentration, in mol dm-3 of phosphoric acid, H3PO4 in the cola drink.
ii). Assuming that the phosphoric acid acts as a strong monoprotic acid i.e ionizes
H3PO4 H+ H2PO4-
Calculate the pH of the cola drink. (2)
b). How many moles of carbon dioxide are dissolved in 1dm3 of cola drink at s.t.p? (2)
c). Comment on the expected flavour and taste of this cola drink in the light of your answers to
(a) and (b). (You may omit that it tastes of kola not extract).(1)
8. The following chemical equilibria occur in limestone areas subject to rainfall.

CO2(g) CO2(aq)
CO2 (aq) + H2O (I) + CaCO3 (s) Ca2+ (aq) + 2HCO3- (aq)
a). By applying Le Chatclier‟s principle to these equilibria, explain qualitatively how rainwater
passing through limestone rock and then dripping from the roof of a cave can produce pillars,
stalagmites and stalactites of ever increasing thickness. (4)
b). Water saturated with pure carbon dioxide at atmospheric pressure contains 0.15% by mass of
dissolved CO2.
Calculate the concentration, in mol dm-3 of dissolved CO2 in water, [CO2 (aq)] which is in
equilibrium with air containing 1% of carbon dioxide. (2)
c). Write an expression for the equilibrium constant for the second reaction given above. By
using the value of this equilibrium constant (4.7 x 10-5 mol2 dm-6) and the [CO2 (aq)] you
calculated in (b), estimate the maximum value of [Ca(HCO3)2 (aq)] that could occur in water
passing through limestone rock. (4)
9a)i. Explain what is meant by the term buffer solution, by using an aqueous solution of ethanoic
acid, CH3CO2H, and its sodium salt as an example. (4)
ii). Calculate the pH of a buffer that contains 0.50 mol dm-3 ethanoic acid and 0.20 mol dm-3
sodium ethanoate.
(Ka (CH3 CO2 H) = 1.7 x 10-5 mol dm-3). (2)
10. The colour of black berries is due to a compound known as cyaniding. At low pH, cyaniding
(Cy) exists as CyH+, which is red, and at high pH as Cy, which is purple.
CyH+ Cy + H+
Red purple
a). Write an expression for the acid dissociation constant, Ka of CyH+. (1)
b). In a buffer of pH = 5.00 the ratio of the red to purple form is 1:3 Calculate a value for Ka. (2)
c). Calculate the ratio of the red to the purple form in a fruit juice buffered at pH = 3.00 and
hence predict its colour. (3)
d). Fruit juices are often preserved by adding small quantities of sulphur dioxide, but this also
reacts withg both forms of cyanide to give colourless addition compounds. For the red form, this
may be represented as follows:
CyH+ + SO2 + H2O CySO3 H2 + H+
When sufficient sulphur dioxide is added to a fruit juice buffered at pH = 3.0 to give an
equilibrium concentration. (SO2) of 1.0 x 10-2 mol dm-3 , the intensity of the red colour decreases
to one tenth of its original value.
i). Write an expression for the equilibrium constant for reaction (1) and use these data to
calculate its value. (2)
ii). Would this decolourisation of the preserved fruit juice be more or less of a problem at pH =
4.0 compared to pH = 3.07. Explain your answer. (2)
11. The major acidic component of soured milk is lactic acid.

CH3 CH (OH) CO2 H
When 10.0 cm3 of a solution of lactic was titrated against 0.050 mol dm-3 sodium hydroxide the
following pH readings were obtained:
Volume of NaOH added/ cm3 pH
0 2.5
2 3.1
4 3.4
6 3.7
8 3.9
10 4.1
12 4.4
14 4.7
16 9.1
18 11.6
20 11.8
a). Plot a graph of these results with pH on the y axis and volume added on the x- axis. Comment
on the shape of the curve before, at and after neutralization. (4)
b). Suggest an indicator, giving a reason for your choice. (2)
c). Calculate the concentration of the lactic acid in the solution in
i). mol dm-3
ii). g dm-3
d). deduce the Ka, value for lactic acid giving your reasoning and the units. (2)
12a). Write an expression for the solubility product of calcium hydroxide Ca(OH)2. (1)
b). A 20.0 cm3 sample of saturated, aqueous calcium hydroxide required 18.2 cm3 of 0.050 mol
dm-3 hydrochloric acid for neutralization.
Calculate
i). the hydroxide ion concentration of the saturated solution. (1)
ii). the pH of the standard solution (1)
iii). A value for the solubility product of calcium hydroxide, stating the units. (2)
c). State a use of calcium hydroxide which depends on its solubility in water. (1)
13i). Explain what is meant by a buffer solution. (1)

ii). With the aid of two equations, explain how a solution of ammonium chloride and ammonia
can control pH. (2)
b). The buffer solution is prepared as follows: 53.5g of ammonium chloride, NH4CI is dissolved
in 400cm3 of 15.0 mol dm-3 ammonia and the mixture is diluted to 1.00 dm3.
Calculate the concentration, in mol dm-3 in the prepared buffer solution of
i). {NH4+ (aq)}
ii). {NH3 (aq)} (2)
c). Use one of the following values to calculate the pH of the prepared buffer solution:
NH4+ (aq), Ka = 6.00 x 10-10 mol dm-3
NH3 (aq), Kb = 1.67 x 10-5 mol dm-3
i). Write a chemical equation, with an equilibrium sign, for the equilibrium you have chosen for
the pH calculation. (1)
ii). Write an expression, in terms of concentrations, for the equilibrium constant Ka or Kb for
your chosen equilibrium. (1)
iii). Calculate the pH of the prepared buffer solution. (2)
14. Chrome yellow, the pigment used for yellow road markings is lead (II) chromate (VI)
PbCrO4
a). Write an equation, with state symbols, for the formation by precipitation of PbCrO4.
b). The solubility product of PbCrO4 at 150C is 1.69 x 10-14 mol2 dm-6.
i). Write an expression for the solubility product, Ksp, of PbCrO4.
ii). What is the solubility, in mol dm-3 of PbCrO4?
iii). Concentrated aqueous lead (II) nitrate is added dropwisew to 0.010 mol dm-3 potassium
chromate (VI).
What is the concentration, in mol dm3 of lead (II) ions when the first trace of precipitate
appears? (3)
15. „Acidity regulators‟ are food additives that have a buffering action on the pH of foodstuffs.
Mixtures of citric acid and its sodium salt are often used for this purpose.
C5H7 O4 CO2 H C5 H7 O4 CO2- H+
Ka = 7.4 x 10-4 mol dm-3 citric acid
a). The concentration of citric acid in lemon juice is 0.22 mol dm-3
Assuming that no other acid is present, calculate the pH of lemon juice. (3)
b). Write equations to show how the citric acid / sodium citrate buffer system regulates the
acidity on the addition of
i). H+ ions
ii). OH- ions. (2)
c). Calculate the pH of a solution containing 0.10 mol dm-3 citric and 0.30 mol dm-3 sodium
citrate. (2)
d). Define the term Kw and explain why, at 250C water has a pH of 7. (3)
16. A student on a field trip investigates some difused lead which have been flooded for some
time. The presence of lead (II) ions in the water is to demonstrated by precipitating yellow (II)
iodide.
a). Write an expression for the solubility product Ksp of lead (II) iodide.
b). The solubility of lead (II) iodide in water at 150C is 0.46g dm-3.
For a saturated solution of lead (II) iodide at 150C calculate:
i). the concentration, in mol dm-3 of lead (II) ions
ii). the concentration, in mol dm-3 of iodide ions
iii). The value of the Ksp of lead (II) iodide, stating the units. (4)
c). If equal volumes of the water from the flooded lead workings and 4 x 10-3 mol dm-3
potassium iodide are mixed, calculate the minimum concentration in mol dm-3 of lead(II) ions
which might be detected in the flood water. (1)
d). There are reasons why this method of detection is not particularly reliable.
i). Name another metal ion which might also be precipitated by adding aqueous potassium
iodide. (1)
ii). When an excess of aqueous potassium iodide is added to the precipitate of lead (II) iodide, it
redissolves.
Suggest a reason why this should be so. (1)
17. When 100 cm3 of aqueous squaric acid containing 0.011 moles of the acid was titrated
against aqueous sodium hydroxide using a pH meter, the following graph was obtained.
Is squaric acid a strong or a weak acid?

Give two reasons to justify your answer. (2)
c). How many acidic hydrogen atoms are contained in one molecule of squaric acid?
18. A solution A is saturated with both hydroxide and calcium sulphate. Both are only sparingly
soluble.
a). The pH od solution A is 12,3. calculate the hydroxide ion concentration in mol dm-3. (1)
b)i. Write an expression for the solubility product, Ksp of calcium hydroxide.
ii). The numerical value of the solubility product of calcium hydroxide is 4.0 x 10-5. Calculate
the concentration in mol dm-3, of calcium ions in solutioin A. (2)
c)i. Write an expression for thesolubility product, Ksp of calcium sulphate.
ii). The numerical value of the solubility product of calcium sulphate is 2.5 x 10-5. What is the
molar concentration of sulphate ions in solution A?
iii). The concentration of sulphate ions in solution A is less than 5.0 x 10-3 mol dm-3 i.e the
square root of the Ksp value of calcium sulphate. Explain why this is so. (3)
19a). What do you understand by the Bronsted Lowry theory of acids and bases? (2)
b). For each of the following reactions C and D;
i). Identify the two acids and the two bases present
ii). Suggest, with reasons, which ion or molecule is the stronger acid, and which the stronger
base.
c). NH3 + H2O NH4+ OH – Kc = 1.8 x 10-5 mol dm-3
d). C6H5O- + CH3CO2H C6H5OH + CH3CO2-
Kc = 1.3 x 106 mol dm-3 (5)
c)i. the PH of a 0.1 mol dm-3 solution of CH3CO2H is 2.4 whereas the pH of a 0.1 mol dm-3
solution of HCI is 1.0. Calculate the ratio of hydrogen ion concentrations in these two solutions.
ii). However, when 100 cm3 of 0.1 mol dm3 CH3CO2H is reacted with an excess of zinc powder,
the same volume of hydrogen (120 cm3) is evolved as when 100cm3 of 0.1 mol dm-3 HCI is used.
Explain why this is so. (5)
20a)i. What do you understand by the terms strong and weak when applied to acids?
ii). An aqueous solution of an acid HA of concentration 0.0100 mol dm-3 has a pH of 2.0.
Explain, with reasons, whether HA is a strong or a weak acid. (3)
The label on a bottle of white wine describes it as containing 12% of alchohol (ethanol,C2H5OH)
and having a total acidity content of 7g dm-3.
b). Assuming the alchohol content is 120g dm-3 of wine, calculate the concentration, in mol dm-3
of ethanol. (1)
c). Assume that the acid present is lartatic acid, which behaves effectively as RCO2H, with Mr =
150 and acidity constant, Ka = 1.0 x 10-3 mol dm-3
Calculate
i). the concentration in mol dm-3 of tartaric acid
ii). the pH of the wine (3)
d). On keeping for some time, the wine develops a fruity taste as the following equilibrium is set
up.
RCO2H + C2H5OH RCO2C2H5 + H2O
i). Write an expression for the equilibrium constant Kc.
ii). The equilibrium concentration, (RCO2C2H5) = 0.015 mol dm-3. Use this value, and the initial
concentrations (RCO2H) and (C2H5OH) calculated in (b) and (c) above, to calculate the
equilibrium concentrations of tatriate acid and ethanol.
iii). Assuming the concentration of water stays constant at 50.0 mol dm-3 throughout, calculate a
value for Kc, and the final pH of the wine. (5)
21. Water pumped to the surface from copper mines contains appreciable quantities of copper
(II) ions from which valuable copper can be recovered. This is done by adding a solution of oil
containing organic ligands which can form strong links with the copper (II) ions. An equilibrium
is established which can be represented as:
Cu2+ (aq) + 2HL (oil) CuL2 (oil) + 2H+ (aq)
a). L is the ligand. Explain, using CUL2 as an ex ample, what is meant by the term ligand. (2)
b). Would you expect HL to be strong or a weak acid in aqueous solution? Give a reason for your
answer. (2)
c)i. Write an expression for the equilibrium mixture of mine water and ligand oil solution at pH3
correcponds to the following concentrations:
Cul2 (oil) = 0.050 mol dm-3
(HL (oil) ) = 0.20 mol dm-3
Calculate the concentration, in mol dm-3 of copper (II) ions remaining in the mine water.
iii). What percentage of the copper in 1.0 dm3 of the mine water would be extracted by 1.0 dm3
of the ligand oil solution?
iv). Would more or less copper have been extracted if the mine water had been at pH 2? Explain
your answer.
v). Suggest how copper ions could be released from the CuL2 molecules in solution in the oil. (6)
22a). State what is meant by a buffer solution. (2)

b). Explain, using equations, why an aqueous mixture of ethanoic acid (represented as HA) and
sodium ethanoate (Na+ A-) can act as a buffer solution:
i). On the addition of acid
ii). on the addition of alkali (2)
c).i. Explain what is meant by the acid dissociation constant, Ka as applied to ethanoic acid
(HA).
ii). What is meant by pKa?
iii). Use the relationship pH = pKa – log10 (acid)
(salt)
To calculate the pH of a solution which is 0.40 mol dm-3 with respect to ethanoic acid and 0.20
mol dm-3 with respect to sodium ethanoate.
(Take Ka for ethanoic acid as 1.80 x 10-5 mol dm-3)
iv). Calculate the change of pH of 1.0 dm3 of the solution in (c) (iii) when 0.050 mol of solid
sodium hydroxide is added (assume no change in volume)
v). What is the change of pH when 0.050 mol of sodium hydroxide is added to 1.0 dm3 of water?
(6)
d). State a buffer system which helps to control the pH of blood. (1)
23. An organic acid has the following composition by mass; C, 40.0%, H, 6.7%, O, 53.3%. its
mass spectrum shows major peaks (including the molecular ions) at the following m/e (mass )
values: 15, 43, 45, 60.
When 1.00 g of the pure acid is dissolved in water and made up to 100cm3, the resulting pH is
2.55.
Calculate the hydrogen ion concentration in this solution and the Ka of the acid. (3)
24. Phenylboronic acid, C6H5B (OH)2, and benzoic acid C6H5CO2H, are both monoprotic
(monobasic) acids, with pKa values of 8.86 and 4.20 respectively.
a). State the relationship between the pKa of an acid and its acid dissociation constant Ka (1)
b). Give the equation which represents the dissociation of phenylboronic acid. (1)
c). calculate the hydrogen ion concentration, (H+ (aq)) and the pH of 0.010 mol dm-3
phenylboronic acid. (1)
d). Which is the stronger of the two acids? Explain your reasoning. (2)
e). A 10.0 cm3 sample of X, a solution containing both of these acids, was titrated against 0.050
mol dm-3 NaOH using a mixture of two indicators, bromothymol blue and phenolphthalein.
It was found that 8.6 cm3 of NaOH (aq) were needed to change the colour of the first indicator
and a further 7.1 cm3 were needed to change the colour of the second indicator.
i). Sketch the shape of the pH curve during this titration.
ii). Use the data to calculate the concentration of each of the two acids in X. (6)
25. Hydrangeans are flowering plants which commonly have pink flowers. They produce blue
flowers only in soils which contain high concentrations of Mg+2 (aq). The pH of well limed soil
is 9, whereas the pH of peat- based soil is 6.5. The numerical value of the solubility product Ksp
of magnesium hydroxide is 1.8 x 10-12.
a)i. Write an expression for the Ksp of magnesium hydroxide

ii). Calculate the theoretical maximum value of (Mg2+ (aq) in a well limed soil.
iii). Calculate the theoretical maximum value of (Mg2+ (aq) in a peat based soil.
iv). Deduce which of these types of soil favours good cultivation of blue hydrangeas. (4)
b). Horticulturalists use ammonium magnesium sulphate (NH4)2 Mg(SO4)2 – 6H2O, to provide
Mg2+ as well as nitrogen. Calculate the percentage by mass of Mg2+ in this fertilizer. (1)
c). Explain why NH4+ is acidic, and why it helps the uptake of Mg2+ by the plant. (1)
26. In an experiment, 50.0 cm3 of aqueous magnesium chloride were titrated with 1.00 mol dm-3
sodium hydroxide. The pH of the solution changed as in the diagram.
a). Write an equation (ionic or molecular) for the reaction between aqueous MgCI2 and aqueous
NaOH. Include state symbols so that any precipitation is clearly indicated. (1)
b). Calculate the concentration, in mol dm-3, of the aqueous MgCI2. (1)
c). When 10cm3 of aqueous NaOH were added
i). calculate the hydroxide ion concentration from the pH of the mixture
ii). estimate the hydrated magnesium ion concentration, assuming that it is half the original
concentration. (2)
d)i. Write an expression for the solubility product, Ksp of magnesium hydroxide.
ii). Use your values from (c) to calculate this Kp including the units. (2)
e). Show by calculation why the pH after the addition of 30cm3 of aqueous NaOH should be 3.1
(1)
27a). Outline the Bronsted Lowry theory of acids and bases (2)
b). The following is a list of compounds that react with or dissolve in water:
sodium chloride, hydrogen chloride, silicon tetrachloride, ammonia, methanol
Water can react as either an acid or a base. Choose a compound from the above list with which
water acts as
i). a Bronsted base
ii). a Bronsted acid
Construct a balanced equation for each reaction. (3)
c). Lactic acid is a monoprotic acid which is an important flavouring component of many foods
such as cheese, yoghurts and pickled cabbage. A solution of lactic acid in water containing 0.10
mol dm-3 has a pH of 2.43.
i). Is lactic acid a strong or a weak acid? Explain yur answer.
ii). Use the data given to calculate the value of Ka for lactic acid.
iii). Suggest a suitable indicator for the titration of lactic acid with aqueous sodium hydroxide.
iv). A sample of lactic acid having a mass of 1.00g was dissolved in water and titrated with 0.500
mol dm-3 sodium hydroxide. It was found that 22.2 cm3 of hydroxide was required for
neutralization. Calculate the Mr of lactic acid. (7)
28. The four most abundant salts in sea water are as follows.
Salt Tonnes km-3
Sodium chloride 27 500 000
Magnesium chloride 6 750 000
Magnesium sulphate 5 625 000
Calcium sulphate 1 800 000

Magnesium oxide is obtained from sea water by the following steps.
Step 1 step 2
Mg(OH)2(s)
Sea water Controlled addition addition
filtrate
Of CO32- (aq) filter of OH- (aq)
Step 3 Heat
Step 5 Step 4
Mg MgCI2
MgO
a). Explain why the addition of carbonate ions in Step 1 has to be controlled.
The numerical values of the relevant solubility products are given below.
Magnesium carbonate 1.0 x 10-5
Calcium carbonate 5.0 x 10-9
b)i. Write an equation for Step 3.

ii). Suggest a reagent for Step 4.
iii). Suggest how Step 5 could be carried out.
iv). Write an equation for Step 5. (4)
c). State a use for magnesium of magnesium ocide. State which substance you choose. (1)
d)i. Write an expression for the solubility product of magnesium carbonate.

ii). Calculate the concentration, in mol dm-3, of each of the two cations in saturated solutions of
the following.
Magnesium carbonate ………………….
Calcium carbonate ……………………….
29a). Write an expression for Kw. (1)

b). use your expression to help you calculate the pH of 0.200 mol dm-3 NaOH(aq). (2)
c). The pH of 0.200 mol dm-3 NH3 (aq) is 11.3. Explain why this answer differs from your
answer in (b). (1)
d). A 20.0 cm3 sample of 0.200 mol dm-3 NH3 (aq) was titrated with 0.100 mol dm-3 HCI. On the
following axes, sketch how the pH changes during this titration. Mark clearly where the end
point occurs.
e). From the following list of indicators, put a tick in the box by the side of the indicator you
consider most suitable for this titration.
Indicator pH at which colour changes Place one tick only in this

column
Methyl violet 0.0 – 1.6
Methyl orange 3.1 – 4.4
Bromothymol blue 6.0 – 7.6
Phenolphthalein 8.3 – 10.0
f). A solution containing NH3 (aq) and NH4CI (aq) acts as a buffer solution, resisting changes in
pH when acids or alkalis are added.
Explain with the help of equations how this mixure acts as a buffer. (2)
30.a). Ethanoic acid is a weak Bronsted acid.

What do you understand by the terms in italics? (2)
b). The dissociation constant for ethanoic acid, Ka is equal to 1.8 x 10-5 mol dm-3
i). Write an expression for Ka
ii). Use the value of Ka to calculate the (H+) in, and the pH of, a 0.10 mol dm-3 solution of
ethanoic acid. (3)
c). A solution containing ethanoic acid and its salt sodium ethanoate, CH3CO2Na, acts as a buffer
solution.
i). What do you understand by the term buffer solution?
ii). Write ionic equations to show how this solution reacts with
I added H+ (aq) ions
II added OH- (aq) ions
iii). Use the value of Ka given above to calculate the pH of a buffer solution that contains 0.50
mol of ethanoic acid and 0.20 mol of sodium ethanoate dissolved in 1.0 dm3 of water. (5)
31a). Barium ions are poisonous. Patients with digestive tract problems are sometimes given an
X ray after they have swallowed a „barium meal‟, consisting of a suspension of BaSO4 in water.
The (Ba2+ (aq)} in a saturated solution of BaSO4 is too low tocause problems of toxicity.
i). Write an expression for the solubility product, Ksp for BaSO4 including its units.
ii). The numerical value of Ksp is 1.30 x 10-10. Calculate (BA2+ (aq)) in a saturated solution of
BaSO4.
iii). The numerical value of Ksp for BaCO3 (5 x 10-10) is not significantly higher than that for
BaSO4, but barium carbonate is very poisonous if ingested. Suggest a reason why this might be
so. (3)
b). A useful commercial source of magnesium is sea water,where [Mg2+ (aq)] is 0.054 mol dm-3.
The magnesium is precipitated from solution by adding calcium hydroxide.
Mg2+ (aq) + Ca(OH)2 (s) Ca2+ (aq) + Mg (OH)2 (s)
i). Write an expression for the Ksp of Mg(OH)2 including its units.
ii). The numerical value for Ksp is 2.00 x 10-11. Calculate [Mg2+ (aq)] in a saturated solution of
Mg (OH)2.
iii). Hence calculate the maximum percentage of the original magnesium in the seawater that this
method can extract. (5)
ANSWERS
Chemical Equilibria
1.A 2. B 3. E 4. C 5. B
6. B 7. C 8. D 9. D 10. A
11. D 12. C 13. A 14. C 15. D
16. C 17. C 18. C 19. C 20. B
21. D 22. B 23. C
Ionic Equilibria
1. E 2. D 3. A 4. A 5. D
6. A 7. D 8. A 9. A 10. A
11. D 12. B 13. E 14. A 15. E
16. E 17. A 18. A 19. A 20. A
21. C 22. B 23. D 24. A 25. C
26. D 27. A 28. B 29. C 30. D
31.A 32. B 33. A
SECTION B
Chemical Equilibria
1. E 2. E 3. B 4. D 5. B
6. D 7. D 8. D 9. D 10. C
Ionic Equilibria
1. B 2. E 3. B 4. B 5. B
6. B 7. B 8. D
SECTION C
Chemical Equilibria
4
1.a). /3 atm
4. i). ethanol = 0.3 mole
Ethyl ethanoate = 0.8 mole, water = 0.6 mole
ii). Kc = 4.0
d). ethanoic acid = 0.2 mole : ethanol = 0.2 mole

ethyl ethanoate = 0.4 mole water = 0.4 mole
5. ∆H = +57.2 kj mol-1
6. Average Mr = 77.3
7. i). 0.08 ii). 0.42 iii). 0.58
c)i. 3.8
8. Kp = 4 x 109 kPa3
9. i. p(CO2) = 183 kPa, Y = 372 kPa

ii. p(H2) = 236 kPa
10a). Kc = 0.25
b)i. 2/3 mol ii). 2/3 mol iii). 4/3 mol iv). 4/3 mol
11.i). Pso2 = 0.1 atm; PO2 = 0.05 atm

P total = 2.05 atm % conversion = 95%
ii). Kp = 7220 atm-1
14i). Mr ; PCI5 = 208.5

PCI3 = 137.5
CI2 = 71.0
ii). Average Mr = 190.2

iii). x = 0.0962
15b). PH20 = 0.727 atm

PH2 = 0. 182 atm
PO2 = 0.0909 atm
iii). 5.70 x 10-3 atm
16. Kc = 0.00238 ; unit of Kc = mol-2 dm6

17. Mr = 70.0 Kp = 3.75 atm-1
18. PH2 = 0.9 atm
PCO = 0.9 atm
Kp = 8.1 atm
20. Kp = 5.52 x 103 atm-1

21. Kp = 2.62 x 10-5 atm-2
Ionic Equilibria
1.i). pH = 2.88 ii). pH = 4.76
2a)i. 1.4 x 10-3 mol dm-3
ii). 2.80 x 10-3 mol dm-3
iii). pH = 11.45
b). 1.098 x 10-8 mol3 dm-9

c). white precipitate is BaCO3
3a). 0.04 mol dm-3

ii). 0.03 mol dm-3
iii). 0.015 mol dm-3
b). 2.4 x 10-5 mol3 dm-9
4c). pH = 9.55
5a). 3.16 x 10-4 mol dm-3

b). 0.11 mol dm-3
c). Ka = 9.09 x 10-7 mol dm-3
6. Kc = 4.80 x 1011 mol dm-3

c). 4.4 x 10-3 mol
[HCO3-] = 0.151 mol dm-3
[CO32-] = 0.145 mol dm-3
7a). 0.005 ii). pH = 2.3

b). 0.05
8. [CO2 (aq)] = 3.4 x 10 -4 mol dm-3
c). [Ca {HCO3}2] = 1.6 x 10-3 mol dm-3
9a). pH = 4.4
10. Ka = 5 x 10-5 mol dm-3
c. red; purple – 20 : 1
d. Kc = 0.9
11.i. 0.080 mol dm-3

ii). 7.2g dm-3
b). 1.26 x 10-4 mol dm-3
12.i. [OH-] = 0.0455 mol dm-3

ii). pH = 12.7
iii). [Ca2+] = 0.0228 mol dm-3
Ksp = 4.71 mol3 dm-9
13i). 1 mol dm-3

ii). 6 mol dm-3
b). pH = 10.01
14. 1.30 x 10-7 mol dm-3

ii). 1.69 x 10-12 mol dm-3
15a). pH = 1.91
b). pH = 3.61
16. i). 9.98 x 10-4
ii). 2.00 x 10-3
iii). 3.97 x 10-9 mol3 dm-9
c). 1.99 x 10-3
18.a. [OH-] = 0.0200 mol dm-3

b). (Ca2+) = 0.100 mol dm-3
c). SO2-4) = 2.50 x 10-4 mol dm-3
19. {H+) in CH3COOH = 0.0398 : 1

(H+) in HCI
20. 2.61 mol dm-3

c). 0.0467 mol dm-3
ii). 2.17
d). ii. (Tartaric acid) = 0.0317 mol dm-3
(ethanol) = 2.595 mol dm-3
iii). Kc = 9.12, pH = 2.25
21. 6.25 x 10-5 mol dm-3

ii). 9.99%
22. i. 4.44
ii). Increase by 0.16
iii). Increase by 5.7
23. [H+] = 2.82 x 10-3 mol dm-3

Ka = 4.85 x 10-5 mol dm-3
24. 3.72 x 10-6 mol dm-3

ii). 0.0430 mol dm-3 , 0.0355 mol dm-3
25. 1.8 x 10-2 mol dm-3

ii). 1803 mol dm-3
b). 6.74%
26. 0.2 mol dm-3

c). 1 x 10-5 mol dm-3
0.1 mol dm-3
d). K = [Mg2+ ] [OH-] 2
1 x 10-11 mol dm-3
27. Ka = 1.43 x 10-4 mol dm-3

Mr = 90.1
28. [Mg2+] = 3.16 x 10-3 mol dm-3

[Ca2+] = 7.07 x 10-5 mol dm-3
29. pH = 13.3
30. pH = 2.87
ii). pH = 4.35
31a). 1.14 x 10-5 mol dm-3
b). 1.71 x 10-4 mol dm-3
ii). 99.6%
TOPIC 8: REACTION KINETICS
SECTION A
1. Which one of the following correctly represents the units of the rate constant k for a first order
reaction?
a. s-1
b. mol dm-3
c. mol dm-3 s-1
d. mol-1 dm3 s
e. mol-1 dm3 s-1
2. The following reaction is first order with respect to (P) and zero order with respect to (Q).
P+Q products
If the rate constant doubles for each 100C rise in temperature, which of the following sets of
conditions will give the greatest rate of reaction?
(P) / mol dm-3 Q/ mol dm-3 temperature
a. 0.1 0.2 40
b. 0.1 0.3 30
c. 0.2 0.2 30
d. 0.3 0.1 20
e. 0.3 0.1 30
3. Why does the exothermic reaction
C (diamond) C (graphite) ∆H = 3 kJ mol-1
Set occur spontaneously
a. A tetrahedral configuration is always more stable than a planar one

b. Diamond has only strong covalent bonds whereas graphite has both covalent and van der
waals‟ forces
c. Graphite has delocalized elections
d. The change from diamond to graphite has a high activation energy
e. The density of graphite is less than that of diamond
4. If the rate of decay of a radioactive isotope decreases from 200 counts per minute to 25
counts per minute after 24 hours, what is its half life?
a. 3 hours
b. 4 hours
c. 6 hours
d. 8 hours
e. 12 hours
5. The two steps involved in the gas phase reaction

X + 2Y XY2 are shown below
Slow
X+Y XY
Fast
XY + Y XY2
What is the rate equation for the overall reaction?
a). rate = k (X)0 (Y)1

b. rate = k(X)0 (Y)2
c. rate = k(X)1 (Y)1
d. rate = k(XY)3 (Y)1
e. rate = k(X)1 (Y)2
6. Which one of the following curves would be obtained if the rate of reaction was plotted
against time for an auto catalytic reaction (i.e reaction in which one of the products catalyses the
reaction)?
7. The concentration of a reactant, R, was plotted against time as it reacted exothermically with S
to reach equilibrium.
The graph shows the results.
Which of the following graphs could be obtained if the reactions were repeated at a higher
temperature but with the same initial concentrations of R and S?
8. The distributions of molecular kinetic energies within a gas at temperatures T1 and T2 are
shown in the diagram.
Which of the following statements correctly explains why a small increase in temperature leads
to a significant increase in the rate of a gaseous reaction?
a. The frequency of collisions between molecules is greater at a higher temperature.
b. The activation energy of the reaction is less when the gases are at a higher temperature.
c. The frequency of collisions between molecules with kinetic energy greater than the
activation energy is greater at a higher temperature.
d. The proportion of molecules with more kinetic energy than the activation energy is lower
at a higher temperature
e. The average kinetic energy of the molecules is slightly greater at a higher temperature.
9. The table shows experimental results obtained for the following reaction.
2XO + O2 2XO2
Partial pressure of XO (in arbitrary units) 100 100 50 50
Partial pressure of O2 (in arbitrary units) 100 25 100 -
Relative rate 1.0 0.25 0.50 0.125
What is missing value of the partial pressure of O2 in the table?

a. 12.5 b. 25 c. 40 d. 50 e. 75
10. The reaction represented by the following equation was carried out.
HCO2CH3 (aq) + NaOH (aq) HCO2 Na (aq) + CH3OH (aq)
Which graph best shows the relationship between CH3OH (aq) and I, the time from mixing of the
reactants?
11. The reactants of acidified, aqueous potassium iodide with aqueous hydrogen peroxide.
21- (aq) + H2O2 (aq) + 2H+ (aq) 12 (aq) + 2H2O (I)
Is thought to involve the following steps:
H2O2 + 1- H2O + O1 - (slow)
OI- + H+ zHOI (fast)
HOI + H+ + I- I2 + H2O (fast)
Which of the following conclusions cannot be drawn from this information?

a. The iodide ion is o : d s- d by the hydrogen peroxide
b. The acid acts as a catalyst
c. The reaction is first order with respect to the iodided ion
d. The rate determining step is H2O2 + 1- H2O + O1-
e. The rate equation for the reaction is : rate = k (H2O2) (I-)
12. An exothermic chemical reaction proceeds by two stages.

Stage 1 stage 2
Reactants intermediate products
The activation energy of stage 1 is 50kj mol-1. The overall enthalpy change of reaction is -100 kJ
mol-1.
Which diagram could represent the energy level diagram for the reaction?
13. The rate equation for a reaction is given by : rate = k (A) (B). If concentration units are mol
dm-3, what are the possible units of the rate constant, kl
a. mol dm-3 s-1
b. mol-1 dm-3 s-1
c. mol-2 dm-3 s-1
d. mol-1 s-1
e. s-1
18. The alkaline hydrolysis of RBr, where RBr = (CH3)3 CBR proceeds in two steps.
RBr R+ + Br- slow

R1 + OH ROH fast
Which of the following rate equations is consistent with this scheme?

a. rate = k (OH-)
b. rate = k (RBr)
c. rate = k(RBr)2
d. rate = k (RBr) (OH-)
e. rate = k (R-) (OH-)
19. The acid catalysed iodination of proponone may be investigated by reacting dilute aqueous
iodine with solutions containing known concentrations of propanone and acid. The rate can be
followed using a colorimeter.
Why is a large excess of propanone used?
a. to buffer the acid concentration
b. to give a convenient rate of reaction
c. to keep the rate of reaction consant
d. to keep the propanone concentration effectively constant
e. to prevent iodine from precipitating out of solution
20. The diagram applies to nitrogen at 273K.
Which of the following diagrams is likely to apply to nitrogen at 473K?

21. In the conversion of compound X into compound Z, it was found that reaction proceeded by
way of compound Y, which could be isolated. The steps involved were:
X Y ∆H positive
Y Z ∆H negative
Which reaction profile fits these data?
22. A substance P changes by a first order reaction to form the product Q, according to the
equation
K1
P Q
k-1
Which expressions represents the rate of the forward reaction? 1k1 = rate constant of the forward
reaction; k-1 = rate constant of the reverse reaction.
a. k1 b. k1/ k-1 c. k1 (P) d. k1 (p) / k-1 (Q)
23. For the gaseous reaction 2X(g) + Y(g) Z(g), the rate equation is:
Rate = k(X)2 (Y)0
If the pressure in the reaction vessel is doubled, but the temperature remains constant by what
factor does the rate of reaction increase?
a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 8
24. The distribution of the number of molecules with energy E is given in the sketch for two
temperatures, T1 and a higher temperature T2. The letters P, Q, R refer to the separate and
differently shaded areas. The activation energy is marked on the energy axis.
Which expression gives the fraction of the molecules present which have at least the activation
energy at the higher temperatire T2?
Q
a. /P
Q+R
b. /P
Q+R
c. / P+Q
Q+R
d. / P+Q–R
25. A radioactive element has two isotopes, G and H with half lives of 5 min and 15 min
respectively. An experiment starts with 4 times as many atoms of G as of H.
Radioactive decay is a first order reaction.
How long will it be before the number of atoms of G left equals the number of atoms of H left?
a. 5 min
b. 10 min
c. 15 min
d. 20 min
26. In the diagram, curve X was obtained by observing the decomposition of 100cm3 of 1.0 mol
dm-3 hydrogen peroxide, catalysed by manganese (IV) oxide.
Which alteration to the original experimental conditions would produce curve Y?

a. adding water
b. adding some 0.1 mol dm-3 hydrogen peroxide
c. using less manganese (IV) oxide
d. lowering the temperature
27. The diagram shows the Boltzman distribution of the speeds of the molecules of a gas. Point
X represents the most probable speed.
If the gas is cooled, in which direction does X move?
28. Proponpone reacts with iodine in the presence of an acid.
H+
CH3COCH3 + 12 CH3COCH2I + HI
The mechanism involves the following steps

H+
CH3COCH3 CH3CaCH2 (slow)
OH
CHaC – CH2 + 12 CH3CICH2I (fast)
OH
CH3CICH2I CH3COCH2I + Hi (fast)
OH
Which conclusion cannot be drawn from this information?
a. Iodine is not involved in the rate determining step
b. The acids acts as a catalyst
c. The overall order of the reaction is 3
d. The rate of the reaction is not affected by a change inthe iodine concentration
29. The conversion of a diamond into graphite is exothermic by 2 kJ mol-1. Diamond does not
readily change into graphite.
Which reaction pathway correctly represents this conversion?
30. In the reaction between aqueous sodium thiosulphate and dilute acid,the reaction is found to
be first order wit respect to acid to low concentrations of acid, but zero order with respect to acid
when the acid concentration is high.
Which graph represents the experiments results?
31. The energy diagram represents the reaction occurring with and without a catalyst.
Which of the following statements is correct?

a. E4 is the evaluation energy for the reverse catalysed reaction.
b. The forward reaction, with catalyst is endothermic
c. The enthalpy change of reaction is (E2 – E3).
d. The enthalpy change of reaction is reduced by using a catalyst.
32. Photochromic glass, used for sunglasses, darkens when exposed to bright light and becomes
more transparent again when the light is less bright. The depth of colour of the glass is related to
the concentration of silver atoms.
The following reactions are involved
Reaction 1 Ag+ + CI- Ag + CI
Reaction 2 Cu+ + CI Cu2+ + CI-
Reaction 3 Cu2+ + Ag Cu+ + Ag+
Which statement about these reactions is correct?
a. Cu+ and Cu2+ ions acts as catalysts

b. Cu+ ions act as an oxidizing agent in reaction 2
c. Reaction 2 is the one in which loight is absorbed
d. Ag+ ions are oxidized in reaction 1
33. Which graph most accurately represents the distribution of molecular speeds in a gas at 500K
if the dotted curve represents the corresponding distribution for the same gas at 300K?
34. The product (X) (Y) of the concentrations of X and Y is plotted against time, t, for the
following second order reaction.
X+Y Z
Which graph would be obtained?
35. The reaction of iodine with propanone in the presence of aqueous acid is zero order with
respect to iodine.
Which diagram represents the variation of (12) with time?

36. The mechanism for the iodination of propanone in aqueous acid is thought to be as follows
O OH
H+ fast
CH2 C CH3 CH3 C CH3 slow
OH 12 fast
CH2 C CH3 CH21COCH3 +
HI
What are the orders of reaction with respect to iodine and to propanone?
Iodine propanone
a. 0 1
b. 0 2
c. 1 0
d. 1 1
37. In which units could the rate constant of a first order reaction be expressed?
a. s-1
b. mol s-1
c. mol-1 dm3 s-1
d. mol dm-3 s-1
38. The table gives data for the reaction between X and Y at constant temperature.
Experiment (X) (Y) Initial rate

/ mol dm-3 / mol dm-3 / mol dm-3 s-1
1 0.3 0.2 4.0 x 10-4
2 0.6 0.4 1.6 x 10-3
3 0.6 0.8 6.4 x 10-3
What is the rate equation for the reaction?

a. rate = k(X) (Y)2
b. rate = k(X)2 (Y)
c. rate = k(X)2
d. rate = k(Y)2
39. Which graph would confirm that the rate of decomposition of hydrogen peroxide was first
order with respect to the concentration of hydrogen peroxide?
40. The energy diagram represents a reaction that occurs in the absence, and in the presence of a
catalyst.
Which statement is correct?
a. E4 is the activation energy for the reverse catalysed reaction.

b. The forward catalysed reaction is endothermic
c. The enthalpy change of reaction is (E2 – E3).
d. The enthalpy change of reaction is decreased by using a catalyst
41. Which curve is obtained if the rate of reaction is plotted against time for an autocatalytic
reaction (i.e a reaction in which one of the products catalyses the reaction)?
42. The table shows experimental results obtained for the rate of the following reaction.
2XO + O2 2XO2
Partial pressure of XO (in arbitrary units) 100 100 50 25
Partial pressure of O2 (in arbitrary units) 100 25 100 -
Relative rate 1.0 0.25 0.50 0.125
What is the missing value of the partial pressure of O2 in the table?

a. 12.5
b. 25
c. 50
d. 100
43. It is often said that the rate of a typical reaction is roughly doubled by raising the temperature
by 100C.
What explains this observation?
a. Raising the temperature by 100C doubles the average energy of each molecule.
b. Raising the temperature by 100C doubles the average velocity of the molecule.
c. Raising the temperature by 100C doubles the number of molecular collisions in a given
time.
d. Raising the temperature by 100C doubles the number of molecules having more than a
certain minimum energy.
Section B
A B C D E
correct correct correctly
The graph below shows the Boltzmann distribution of molecular speeds.

1 Raising the temperature always decreases the number of molecules with a given speed.
2. The area under the curve is proportional to the number of molecules present
3 Raising the temperature increases the spread of molecular speeds
2. The diagram below represents the reaction profile of a typical reaction.

Which of the following changes would cause both of the rate constants k1 and k-1 to be
increased?
1 introducing a catalyst
2 heating the equilibrium mixture
3 increasing the concentrations of the reactants
3. The stiochemistry of a catalysed reaction is shown by the equation below

P(g) + Q (g) R (g) + S (g)
Two experiments were carried out in which the rates of this reaction were measured. The results
are shown in the diagram below.
Which of the following independent changes in the conditions from Experiment 1 to Experiment
II might explain the results shown?
1 Less of P was used

2 A different catalyst was used
3 Product S was continously removed from the reaction vessel
The activation energy of a reaction is usually

1 unaffected by the presence of a catalyst
2 low for a reaction that takes place slowly
3 different for the forward and back reactions in an exothermic process
5. The graph shows the results of an investigation of the initial rate of hydrolysis of molase by
the enzyme amylase. In the experiments, the initial concentration of maltose was varied, but that
of amylase was kept constant.
Which conclusion can be deduced from these results?

1 When (maltose) is low, the rate is first order with respect to (maltose).
2 When (maltose) is high, the rate is independent of (maltose)
3 When (maltose) is high, the rate is independent of (amylase)
6. The diagram represents the Boltzmann distribution of molecular energies at a given

temperature.
As temperature increases, which statements are correct?

1 The maximum of the curve is displaced to the right
2 The proportion of molecules with energies above any given value increases
3 The proportion of molecules with any given energy increases
7. Which of the following may affect the rate constant for a reaction?
1 Change in concentration
2 Change in pressure
3 Change in temperature
8. The following reaction was believed to be of first order.

X Products
In an experiment, (X) the concentration of X, varied with time as shown in the graph.
What can the graph be used for?

1 to determine the rate of reaction at any given instant
2 to check whether the reaction is of first order throughout
3 to determine the half life of the reaction
9. A reversible reaction is catalysed

Which of the following statements about this system are correct?
1 The catalyst alters the mechanism of the reaction
2 The catalyst reduces the energy of activation (the energy barrier) for both the forward and
the backward reaction
3 The catalyst alters the composition of the equilibrium mixture.
10. The graph represents the decomposition of a sample of hydrogen peroxide in the presence of
manganese (IV) oxide.
What conclusions can be drawn from the graph?
1 The rate of decomposition of hydrogen peroxide depends on its concentration in the

sample.
2 The half life of the hydrogen peroxide in the sample is 200s.
3 The reaction is first order with respect to hydrogen peroxide.
11. The rate of reaction between bromine and methanoic acid is first order with respect both to
bromine and to methanoic acid.
Br2 (aq) + HCO2H (aq) 2Br- (aq) + 2H+ (aq) + CO2 (g)
Which of the following can be correctly deduced from this information?
1 Doubling the concentration of methanoic acid doubles the rate of evolution of gas.
2 Halving the concentration of both reactants simulataneously will halve the reaction rate.
3 The overall order of the reaction is one
12. When light is shone for a fixed period into a solution of CH2[CH2] and 12 in
tetrachloromethane at 1000C, the following reaction occurs:
CH2ICH2I CH2 = CH2 + I2
Experiement Relative initial Relative light Relative initial rate of

concentrations intensity formation of iodine
C2H2I2
I2
1 2 4 2
1
2 2 1 1
1
3 1 4 1
1
4 1 4 1
2
From the data in the table, the rate of formation of iodine is

1 proportional to √light intensity
2 independent of initial concentration of I2
3 proportional to initial concentration of C2H4I2
13. Hydrogen peroxide reacts with acidified iodide ions, liberating iodide. In investigations of
this reaction, the following results were obtained.
Initial concentrations of reactants/ mol dm-3 Initial rate of formation of iodine/ mol dm-3 s-1
(H2O2) (I-)
(H+)
2.0 x 10-6
0.010 0.010
0.10 6.0 x 10-6
0.030 0.010 1.2 x 10-5
0.10
1.2 x 10-5
0.030 0.020
0.10
0.030 0.020
0.20
Which statements follow from these results?

1 The rate equation for the reaction can be written: rate = k (H2O2) (I-)
2 The reaction is zero ordser with respect to acid
3 The rate constant is 2 x 10-1 mol-2 dm6 s-1
14 The conversion of graphite has only a small positive value of ∆H.

C (graphite) C (diamond) ∆H = + 2.1 kJ mol1
However, the production of synthetic diamonds is very difficult.
Which of the following statements help to explain this?

1 The activation energy of the reaction is large
2 An equilibrium exists between diamond and graphite
3 Only exothermic reactions can be made to occur readily
16. The graph shows the Boltzmann distribution of molecular speeds.
a
1 Raising the temperature always decreases the number of molecules with a given speed
2 The area under the curve is proportional to the number of molecules present
3 Raising the temperature moves the maximum of the curve to theright
17. When ethylbenzene is nitrated by a solution of nitric acid in an inert solvent, the progress of
the reaction can be followed by plotting the concentration of ethylbenzene against time. One
such plot is given below.
What conclusions can be drawn fromthis result?

1 The reaction is zero order with respect to ethylbenzene
2 The rate determining step involves only nitric acid
3 For mixtures containing a fixed concentration of nitric acid, theslope of the line depends
on the initial concentration of ethylbenzene.
SECTION C
1. Explain each of the following as fully as you can

a). The rate of the reaction
CH3CO2C2H5 + H2O CH3 CO2 H + C2H5OH
Gradually increases at first,but then decreases (4)
b). The acid catalysed hydrolysis of ethyl ethanoate in aqueous solution is a first order reaction,
but the alkaline hydrolysis of ethyl ethanoate, using equal concentrations of the reactants,is a
second order reaction.
c). A relatively small increase in temperature can cause a large increase in the rate of a chemical
reaction, for example, the time of cooking a certain quantity of vegetables in a pressure cooker at
1200C is approximately one quarter of that in an ordinary saucepan.
2.a). What do you understand by the terms i). order of reaction ii). rate constant
b). Explain, with the aid of suitable diagrams, why a relatively small increase in temperature can
cause a large increase in the rate of a chemical reaction. (5)
c). The kinetics of the acid catalysed reaction of propanone with iodine.
H+ (aq)
CH3COCH3 (aq) + I2 (aq) CH2 ICO CH3 (aq) + HI (aq)
Can be investigated experimentally by varying the concentrations of the three substances

involved and determining the time for the colour of the iodine to disappear. In this method, the
rate of the reaction is measured in terms of the rate at which the iodine concentration changes.
Volume of aqueous iodine used
i.e. rate of reaction time for colour of iodine to disappear
The following results were obtained in such an experiment
Volume of Volume of Volume of Volume of water/ Relative time for

propanone/ cm3 iodine/ cm3 sulphuric acid/ cm3 colour of iodine
cm3 to disappear
8 4 8 0 1
8 4 4 4 2
4 4 8 4 2
8 2 8 2 0.5
Deduce the order of the reaction with respect to (i) propanone, (ii) iodine, (iii) hydrogen ions.
Write a rate equation for the reaction. (8)
What conclusions about the mechanism of the reaction can you draw from the rate equation? (3)
3. In the stratosphere 30km above the Earth‟s surface, ozone is being made continously by the
following reaction:
O + O2 O3, rate = k (O) (O2)
The free oxygen atoms arise from the splitting of oxygen molecules by ultraviolet light from the
Sun:
O2 2O
a). Calculate the rate at which ozone forms, given the following values:
k = 3.9 x 10-5 dm3 mol-1 s-1
(O) – 3 x 10-14 mol dm-3
(O2) = 1.3 x 10-4 mol dm-3
b). The temperature of the stratosphere is 500C

i). State a typical value of air temperature at sea level
ii). Calculate the molar concentration of oxygen molecules (in mol dm-3). (One mole of gas
occupies 24dm3 under the conditions at sea level).
iii). By using the collision theory of reaction kinetics and your answers to (b) (i) and (b) (ii),
discuss qualitatively how the rate of ozone formation at sea level would compare with that in the
stratosphere.
In fact, practically no ozone is formed in the lower atmosphere. Suggest a reason for this. (6)
c). It is assumed that the concentration in the stratosphere has remained roughly constant for
many thousands of years but there is now some evidence that chlorofluorocarbons, (CFCs – used
as refrigerants and aerosol propellants) are causing the ozone concentration to decrease. It is not
though that their presence affects the rate of ozone formation, however.
What does this tell you about the role of CFCs in the other reactions involving ozone that must
be occurring in the stratosphere? (2)
4. a dilute solution of hydrogen peroxide can be used to bleach hair. It decomposes slowly in
aqueous solution according to the following equation:
2H2O2 (aq) 2H2O(I) + O2 (g)
A solution with an origibal concentration of 3.0 mol dm-3 was placed in a bottle contaminated
with transition metal ions which act as catalysts for the decomposition. The rate of
decomposition was measured by withdrawing 10cm3 portions at various times and titrating with
acidified 0.1 mol dm-3 KMnO4(aq). (5 moles of peroxide react with 2 moles of KMnO4). The
following results were obtained:
Time/ min volume of 0.1 mol dm-3

KMnO4 (aq) / cm3
0 30.0
5 23.4
10 18.3
15 14.2
20 11.1
25 8.7
30 6.8
a). Confirm that the reaction is first order with respect to the peroxide. (2)
b). Write an expression for the rate equation and calculate the rate constant and half life. (4)
c). Calculate the concentration of the hydrogen peroxide at the time the first portion was
withdrawn. Hence estimate how long the solution had been in the contaminated bottle.
d). Suggest a method whereby the shelf life of hydrogen peroxide solutions couls be increased.
(1)
5a). Explain the terms order of reaction and half life. (2)
b). Sucrose has been used as a feedstock in the production of alchohol for use as a motor fuel.
The initial reaction is its hydrolysis:
C12 H22 O13 + H2O C6H12O6 + C6 H12 O6
Sucrose glucose fructose
The reaction can be catalysed either by dilute acid or by the the enzyme sucrose, which occurs in
yeast.
The following results were obtained using hydrochloric acid as the catalyst:
Experiment initial (HCI) initial (sucrose) initial rate
/ mol dm-3 / mol dm-3 / mol dm-3 s-1
I 0.10 0.10 0.024
II 0.10 0.15 0.036
III 0.20 0.10 0.048
i). Define the order of reaction with respect to both HCI and sucrose and, hence, calculate the
rate constant for the reaction, stating its units. (4)
ii). The half life of sucrose in experiment I was 3.0s. Predict the half life of sucrose in
experiment II and in experiment III, giving your reasoning. (2)
c). By using the concept of activation energy, explain in general terms why a catalyst affects the
rate of a chemical reaction. (20
6. At 7000C, nitrogen monoxide and hydrogen react as follows:
2NO(g) + 2H2 (g) N2(g) + 2H2O (g)
The results of some investigations of the rate of this reaction are shown below.
a). Explain what is meant by the term order of reaction. (2)
b).i. Use the below data to determine the order of the reaction with respect to:
1 nitrogen monoxide
2 hydroge (1)
Experiment number Initial concentration Initial concentration Initial rate of reaction

of nitrogen monoxide of hydrogen / mol dm-
/ mol dm-3 3 / mol dm-3 s-1
1 0.0020 0.012 0.0033
2 0.0040 0.012 0.013
3 0.0060 0.012 0.030
4 0.012 0.0020 0.020
5 0.012 0.0040 0.040
6 0.012 0.0060 0.060
ii). Use these answers to write a rate equation for the reaction. This will include the rate constant,
k. (1)
iii). Determine a value for k, stating the units. (2)
c). Explain briefly why the initial reaction rate would be expected to increase by increasing each
of the following:
i). the pressure ii). the temperature (2)
d) Suggest, with reasons, whether you would expect the reaction between nitrogen monoxide and
hydrogen to be endothermic or exothermic. (2)
7a). Describe, and explain in m olecular terms, how the rate of a chemical reaction is affected by
a change in temperature. (4)
b). Suggest reasons why reaction (I) below must be heated for some time for it to occur whereas
reaction (2) takes place almost instantaneously at room temperature.
C3H7CI (aq) + NaOH (aq) C3H7OH (aq) + NaCI (aq) (1)
HCI (aq) + NaOH (aq) H2O(I) + NaCI(aq) (2)
c). Reaction (I) is a second order reaction.

i). Explain what the phrase in italics means. (1)
ii). Estimate the effect on the rate of this reaction of diluting the solution with an equal volume of
solvent. (1)
8a). What is the oxidation number of nitrogen in

i). NO ii). ONF
b). The compound nitrosyl fluoride, ONF, can be produced from nitrogen monoxide and
fluorine.
2NO(g) + F2(g) 2ONF (g)
The rate equation for this reaction is rate = k (NO) (F2)
The mechanism has two steps. One of these steps produces ONF and the free radical F0 in
equimolar amounts.
i). Suggest equations for the two steps of the mechanism, stating which is the slower step.
ii). Justify your answer to (b) (i) in terms of the relative reactivities of the species involved. (3)
9. The following information was taken from the side of a carton of milk.
How long does your milk keep?
250C (hot summer’s day) ½ day
180C (room temperature) 1 day
100C 2 days
50C (fridge temperature) 4 days
a)i. Plot a graph of the time the milk keeps against the temperature and describe the shape of the
curve you obtain.
ii). Use your graph to predict how long milk will keep at a temperature of 150C. (3)
b). The going off (souring) of milk is a chemical reaction. How is the rate of this reaction related
to the length of time the milk keeps? (1)
c). Explain how and why this rate varies with temperature. (4)
d). Suggest a reason why milk that has been boiled keeps longer than fresh milk. (2)
10a). With the aid of a sketch of a Boltzmann distribution, explain how both an increase in
temperature and the presence of a catalyst increase the rate of a chemical reaction.
b). The reaction below has an activation energy of +173.2 kJ mol-1

A. H2(g) + I2 (g) 2HI(g) ; ∆H = -9.6 kJ mol-1
i). Calculate the activation energy of the reverse reaction.
B. 2HI(g) H2(g) + I2(g)

ii). Predict, with reason, which reaction A or B will increase more in rate as the temperature is
increased.
11. One reaction which occurs in air polluted with nitrogen oxides is shown below:
2NO(g) + O2(g) 2NO2(g)
Five experiments were carried out to find the relationship between the initial concentration of
NO and of O2 and the initial rate of formation of NO2.
Initial concentrations Initial rate of

formation of NO/ mol
Experiment /mol dm-3 dm-3 s-1
(NO) (O2)
1 0.001 0.001 7 x 10-6
2 0.001 0.002 14 x 10-6
3 0.001 0.003 21 x 10-6
4 0.002 0.003 84 x 10-6
5 0.003 0.003 189 x 10-6
i). What is the order of the reaction with respect to each of the reactants?
NO………………………
O2……………………….
ii). What equation for the rate determining step does this suggest?
iii). Comment on why this rate determining step is unusual. (3)
12a). The rate of reaction between propanone, CH3COCH3, and iodine to give iodopropanone,
CH3COCH2I, is found to be independent of (I2), but directly proportional to (H+) and directly
proportional to (propanone).
i). Construct the balanced stiochiometric equation for the overall reaction.
ii). Write the rate equation for this reaction, and state the overall order and the units of the rate
constant.
iii). Suggest with reasons, which of the following two possible mechanisms, A or B, fits the
observed kinetic data (X and Y are intermediates):
CH3COCH3 + H+ X (slow) A
X + I2 Products (fast)
CH3COCH3 + I2 Y (slow) B
Y + H+ Products (fast)
iv). Describe the roles of I2 and H+ in this reaction.

v). The reaction between propanone and bromine proceeds by a similar mechanism. How would
you expect the rate of this reaction to compare with that of the above reaction? Explain your
answer. (10)
b). Oxides of nitrogen in the atmosphere contribute to the formation of acid by catalyzing the
oxidation of SO2 to SO3. Write equations to show how this occurs and describe the type
ofcatalysis observed here. (2)
13. A student investigated the rate of reaction between sodium and ethanol. A freshly cut piece
of sodium was weighed and added to a large excess of ethanol.
a)i. Write an equation, including state symbols, for sodium reacting with ethanol.
ii). Explain why the sodium needs to be freshly cut. (2)
The total volume of gas liberated was recorded every minute. The results are tabulated below:
Time/ min 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7
Total
volume of
gas/ cm3 0 23.0 36.5 46.0 51.0 54.5 57.0 58.5
b)i. Plot the experimental results on the grid below.

ii). Explain, as fully as you can, why the experimental results indicate that the overall kinetics are
first order.
iii). In this experiment, the kinetics appear to be zero order with respect to ethanol. Suggest a
reason for this. (3)
c)i. Calculate how many moles of gas were produced in the experiment, conducted at room
ii). Calculate the mass of sodium weighed out at the start of the experiment. (2)
d). The student wishes to modify the experiment by changing the concentration of the ethanol.
i). Explain, with the aid of an equation, why water should not be used to dilute the ethanol.
ii). Suggest a suitable solvent the student could use to dilute the ethanol. (2)
14a). Explain the terms rate equation, order of reaction and rate constant. (3)
b). Ethyl ethanoate undergoes a slow acid catalysed hydrolysis in water.
HCI
CH3CO2C2H5 + H2O CH3CO2H + C2H5OH
The reaction was followed twice with different concentrations of HCI and the following results
were obtained
Time/ min With (HCI) = 0.1 mol dm-3 With (HCI) = 0.2 mol dm-3
(ethyl ethanoate) (ethyl ethanoate)
/ mol dm-3 / mol dm-3
0 0.200 0.200
25 0.152 0.115
50 0.115 0.067
75 0.088 0.038
100 0.067 0.022
125 0.051 0.013
i). Plot the graphs of these values

ii). Use your graphs
1 to show that the reaction is first order with respect to the ester.
2 to calculate the order of reaction with respect to hydrochloric acid
iii). Deduce the rate equation and calculate the rate constant, giving its units. (8)
c). Why is it not possible to determine the order with respect to water in this experiment? (1)
15a). The kinetics of the reaction:

2NO(g) + Br2(g) 2NOBr (g); ∆H = -23 kJ mol-1
Are second order with respect to (NO) and first order with respect to (Br2). The reaction has an
activation energy of +5.4 kJ mol-1.
i). Write the rate equation for the reaction and state the units of the rate constant.
ii). Sketch and label a reaction pathway diagram for the reaction showing all relevant energy
changes. (4)
b)i. A bromoalkane, RBr, is hydrolysed by aqueous sodium hydroxide.

Write a balanced equation for the reaction and suggest what type of reaction it is.
ii). The following results were obtained from two experiments on such a hydrolysis. In each
experiment, the overall (NaOH (aq) remained virtually constant at the value given at the top of
the column.
Time/ min (RBr)/ mol dm-3 when (OH-) (RBr) / mol dm-3 when (OH-)
= 0.10 mol dm-3 = 0.15 mol dm-3
0 0.0100 0.0100
40 0.0079 0.0070
80 0.0062 0.0049
120 0.0049 0.0034
160 0.0038 0.0024
200 0.0030 0.0017
240 0.0024 0.0012
Plot these data on suitable axes and use your graphs to determine the following
I Use the half life method to deduce the order of reaction with respect to the bromoalkane.
II Use the initial rates method to deduce the order of reaction with respect to sodium
hydroxide
III Construct a rate equation for the reaction and use it to calculate a value for the rate
constant. (8)
16. The kinetics of the hydrolysis of a bromoalkane with aqueous potassium hydroxide depend
upon the chemical structure of the bromoalkane.
a). Explain what is meant by the rate of a chemical reaction. (2)
The table below gives the order with respect to each pair of reagents in two experiments.
Experiment Reactants Order with respect to Order with respect to

(RBr) (OH-)
A Ch3CH2CH2CH2Br + OH 1 1
B (CH3)3CBr + OH- 1 0
b)i. Write the rate equation for experiment A using the rate constants k.
ii). State the units of k.
iii). Suggest what the rate equation indicates about the mechanism of experiment A. (4)
c). Suggest a mechanism for experiment B. (2)
17. The ester 4 nitrophenyl ethanoate hydrolyses in alkaline solution according to the following
equation.
a). Suggest and briefly describe, a suitable experimental technique for studying the rate of this
reaction. (4)
18. The reaction rate was studies using two solutions of different hydroxide ion concentrations
Run A: ((OH-) = 0.20 mol dm-3
Run B ; (OH-) = 0.40 mol dm-3
The following graphs show how the concentration of the ester, 4 nitrophenyl ethanoate, varied
over time in the two runs.
i). By drawing tangents on the graphs, measure and calculate the initial rates of reaction during
the two runs. Give the units in each case. (3)
ii). By using your results, calculate the overall order of reaction with respect to (OH-) (1)
iii). From the curve of run B, determine the order of reaction with respect to (ester). (1)
iv). Explain how you arrived at your answer in (iii). (1)
v). Write a rate of equation for the reaction. (1)
vi). Use your rate equation and the initial rates to calculate a value for the rate constant,
including units. (2)
19.a). Explain in molecular terms how changing the concentrations of reactants in a reaction can
often affect its rate. (2)
b). a solution of vanadium (V) ions in 1 mol dm-3 H2SO4 slowly oxidizes arsenic (III) oxide to
arsenic (V) oxide, according to the following (unbalanced) equation.
As2O3 + VO2 + H+ As2O5 + VO2+ + H2O
i). Balance this equation (1)
20. The rate of the reaction was followed by measuring the concentration of remaining vanadium
(V) ions after fixed time intervals. Two experiments were carried out starting with different
concentrations of arsenic (III) oxide. The following results were obtained.
Time/ minutes Experiment 1, with (As2O3) = Experiment 2, with (As2O3) =

0.10 mol dm-3 0.05 mol dm-3
0 0.0050 0.0050
15 0.0040 0.0045
30 0.0032 0.0040
45 0.0026 0.0036
60 0.0021 0.0032
75 0.0017 0.0029
90 0.0014 0.0026
ii). Using the same axes, plot graphs of (VO+2) against time for the two experiments. (2)
iii). Use your graphs to determine the order of reaction with respect to (As2O3) and to (VO+2)
showing your working clearly. Hence give the rate equation for the reactrion. (3)
iv). Calculate the initial rate from experiment 1 and use it, together with your rate equation, to
calculate the rate constant for the reaction including units. (2)
ANSWERS
SECTION A
1. A 2. E 3. D 4. D 5. C
6. C 7. B 8. C 9. B 10. A
11. B 12. D 13. B 14. C 15. D
16. A 17. B 18. B 19. D 20. D
21. A 22. C 23. C 24. C 25. C
26. B 27. A 28. C 29. D 30. B
31. C 32. A 33. C 34. C 35. B
36. A 37. A 38. D 39. C 40. C
41. C 42. C 43. D 44. B
SECTION B
1. C 2. B 3. B 4. E 5. B
6. B 7. E 8. A 9. B 10. A
11. D 12. A 13. B 14. D 15. D
16. C 17. D
SECTION C
2c)i. order of reaction ; propanone
ii. iodine = 0
iii. hydrogen ions = 1
3a). Rate = 1.5 x 10-22 mol dm-3 s-1

b)i. 250C
ii). (O2) = 8.75 x 10-3 mol dm-3
4. K = 0.05 min -1, t = 14.0 min

(H2O2) = 0.75 mol dm-3 ; r = 28 mins
5.i. Order of reaction: HCI = 1, sucrose = 1

Rate constant = 2.40 mol-1 dm3 s-1
ii). t ½ = 3.0 s and 1.5s
6. k = 6.9 x 10-4 mol-2 dm-6 s-1
8.i. +2
ii. +3
9a). 1 ¼ days
10. Ea = +182.8 kJ mol -1

11. NO- second order; O2 – first order
13. 2.50 x 10-3

ii). 0.115g
14. Order = 1
Rate equation = k (ethyl) ethanoate (HCI)
Rate constant, k = 0.112 min-1
15a)i. Rate = k (NO)2 (Br

ii). I – 1st Order
II – 1st Order
III- Rate = k(RBr) (OH-)
16. rate = k (CH3CH2CH2Br) (OH-)
17. Run A: 4.00 x 10-5 mol dm-3 min -1

Run B : 8.00 x 10-5 mol dm-3 min -1
b). order I
ii). Order I
v). Rate = k (OH-) (ester)
vi). K = 0.200 mol-1 dm3 min -1
TOPIC 9.1
THE PEROIDIC TABLE: CHEMICAL
PERIODICITY
SECTION A
1. The highest oxides of the elements sodium to chlorine are separately added to water. Which of
the following diagrams best represents the pH of the solutions produced?
When either chlorine or hydrogen chloride is passed over a heated metal M, the same chloride is
produced. An aqueous solution of this chloride is acidic. Which one of the following could be
M?
a. aluminium
b. barium
c. copper
d. iron
e. sodium
2. Which one of the following oxides has molecular structure as distinct froma giant structure?
a. Na2O
b. MgO
c. AI2O3
d. SiO2
e. CI2O7
3. Which one of the following determines the position of an element in the Periodic Table?
a. chemical reactivity
b. first ionization energy
c. number of electrons in outer orbital
d. number of protons in the nucleus of its atom
e. relative atomic mass
4. Which of the following oxides will produce the strongest acid when treated with water?
a. CI2O
b. CI2O7
c. P2O5
d. SIO2
e. SO2
6. Which of the following diagrams represents the first four ionization energies, I, of a Group III
element?
7. X, Y and Z are elements in the same short period of the Periodic Table. The oxide of X is
amphoteric, the oxide of Y is basic and the oxide of Z is acidic.
What is the order of increasing atomic (proton) number for these elements?
a. XYZ b. XZY c. YXZ d. YZX e. ZXY
8. Which of the following sets contains a basic, an acidic and an atmospheric oxide?
a. AI2O3 SiO2 P4O10
b. MgO AI2O3 P4O10
c. MgO P4O10 SO3
d. Na2O MgO AI2O3
e. Na2O MgO SO3
19. Aluminium chloride catalyses certain reactions by forming carbocations (cranium ions) with
chloroalkanes as shown in the following equation.
RCI + AICI3 R+ + AICI-4

This can occur because:
a. AICI3 is a covalent molecule
b. AICI3 exists as the dimmer AICI6 in the vapour
c. the aluminium atom in AICI3 has an incomplete octet of electrons
d. the chlorine atom in RCI has a vacant p orbital.
e. the AICI-4 ion is tetrahedral
10. Fibre glass can be considered to be a mixture of ionic oxides and giant covalent oxides.
Which of the following is not a constituent of fibre glass?
a. AI2O3 b. MgO c. Na2O d. P4O10 e. SiO2
11. Which of the following elements has an oxide with a giant structure and a chloride which is
readily hydrolysed?
a. barium
b. carbon
c. phosphorous
d. silicon
e. sodium
12. Which graph best shows the variation of melting point of the third period elements?
13. The elements radon (Rn), francium (Fr) and radium (Ra) are consecutive elements in the
Periodic Table.
What is the order of their first ionization energies?
Most endothermic least endothermic

a. Fr Ra Rn
b. Ra Fr Rn
c. Ra Rn Fr
d. Rn Fr Ra
e. Rn Ra Fr
14. Which of the following sets of diagrams best indicates the relative radii of the atom and ions
of sodium and of chlorine?
Sodium chloride
Atom ion atom ion
15. Which of the following oxides is unlikely to dissolve in aqueous sodium hydroxide?
a. AI2O3 b. MgO c. P4O10 d. SIO2 e. SO2
16. Which of the following solids is an example of asubstance with a macromolecular structure?
a. aluminium chloride
b. ice
c. magnesium oxide
d. silicon (IV) oxide
e. sodium chloride
17. The first ionization energies, in kJ mol-1 of a sequence of elements of increasing proton
(atomic) number are given below.
548 620 660 660 680
Where in the Periodic Table is this sequence of elements likely to be located?

a. Group I
b. Group II
c. Group VII
d. from Li to N inclusive
e. from Sr to Mo inclusive
18. The chloride of an element R is a liquid has a boiling point of 760C and fumes in air.
After mixing 0.010 mol of the chlorine with water, the resulting solution required 100cm3 of 0.30
mol dm-3 silver nitrate for complete precipitation of the chloride ion.
To which group of the Periodic Table does R belong?
a. I b. II c. III d. IV e. VI
19. The elements radon (Rn), francium (Fr) and radium (Ra) are consecutive in the Periodic
Table. What is the order of their first ionization energies?
Least endothermic most endothermic

a. Fr Ra Rn
b. Fr Rn Ra
c. Ra Fr Rn
d. Rn Ra Fr
20. In which of the following pairs is the radius of the second atom greater than that of the first
atom?
a. Na, Mg b. Sr, Ca c. P, N d. CI, Br
21. Aluminium chloride sublines at 1780C.

Which structure best represents the species in the vapour at this temperature?
22. Which species represented by the following formulae has the largest radius?
23. Which element is likely to have an electronegativity similar to that of aluminium?

a. barium
b. beryllium
c. magnesium
d. strontium
24. The chloride of element J neither reacts with or dissolves in water. Which element could be J
be?
a. aluminium
b. carbon
c. magnesium
d. silicon
25. The graph shows how a property of the elements Na to CI varies with proton number.
What is the poverty?

a. electronegativity
c. ionic radius
d. melting point
26. An element Q has a low proton number. It forms an amphoteric oxide and a chloride which,
when anhydrous, is readily hydrolysed by water.
Which group in the Periodic Table might contain Q?
a. II
b. III
c. IV
d. V
27. Coloured glass, as used in church windows, requires three oxides one macromolecular, one
ionic and one of a transition metal.
Which combination is likely to produce a coloured glass?
a. AI2O3 MgO SnO
b. P4O10 CaO CuO
c. SiO2 CaO PbO
d. SiO2 PbO CoO
28. The following species contain the same number of electrons, in which order do their radii
increase?
Smallest radius largest radius

a. Ar K+ Ca2+
b. Ca2+ Ar K+
c. Ca2+ K+ Ar
d. K+ Ar Ca2+
29. Which property of the first six elements of Period 3 (sodium to sulphur) continuously
increases numerically?
a. atomic radius
c. maximum oxidation number in oxide
d. melting point
30. Consider the sequence of oxides Na2O, SiO2, P4O10

Which factor decreases from Na2O to SiO2 and also from SiO2 to P4O10?
a. covalent character
b. melting point
c. pH when mixed with water
d. solubility in aqueous alkali.
31. Which metal reacts most vigorously with cold water?

a. calcium
b. magnesium
c. potassium
d. sodium
32. An element of the third period (Na to S) is related in chlorine. The product is purified and
then added to water. The resulting solution is found to be neutral.
What is the element?
a. sodium
b. aluminium
c. silicon
d. phosphorous
33. The sketch shows the atomic radii of five elements in order of increasing proton number.
In which part of the Periodic Table do these elements belong?
a. Group II
b. Group VII
c. the Periodic sodium to chlorine
d. the transition metals
34. Which sketch shows the variation in electrical conductivity of the elements sodium to
chloride?
35. A mixture of the oxides of two elements of the third period is dissolved in water. The
solution is approximately neutral.
What could be the constituents of the mixture?
a. AI2O3 and MgO
b. Na2O and MgO
c. Na2O and P4O10
d. SO3 and P4O10
36. Aluminium chloride catalyses certain reactions by forming carbocations (carbonium ions)
with chloroalkanes as shown.
KCI + AICI3 R+ + AISI4-
Which property makes this reaction possible?

a. AICI3 is a covalent molecule
b. AICI3 exists as the dimmer AI2CI6 in the vapour
c. The aluminium atom in AICI3 has an incomplete octet of electrons
d. The chloride atom in RCI has a vacant p orbital
37. Fruit juices and fizzy drinks such as a lemonade are often sold in aluminium cans.
What is the noist important reason why alumiun is a suitable metal?
a. Aluminium can be recycled
b. Aluminium is resistant to corrosion by acids
c. Aluminium is resistant to corrosion by water
d. Aluminium is the most abundant metal in the Earth‟s crust
38. Which of the following elements is expected to show the greatest tendency to form some
covalent compounds?
a. barium
b. calcium
c. magnesium
d. potassium
SECTION B
For each of the questions in this section, one or more of the three numbered statements 1 to 3
may be correct.
against the statements which you con sider to be correct)
The responses A to E should be selected on the basis of
A B C D E
1. Which of the following properties of aluminum chloride are related to the lack of an octet of
electrons in the aluminium atom in this compound?
1 its tendency to dimerise

2 its covalent character
3 its acidity in aqueous solution
2. Which of the following sets contain two covalent chlorides and two ionic chlorides?
a. NaCI BaCI2 CCI4 ICI
b. BeCI2 SiCI4 PbCI4 SCI2
c. CaCI2 SiSI4 PCI3 SCI2
3. In the periodic Table, the electronegativity of the elements in
1 Period 3 increases from sodium to chlorine
2 Group II increases from barium to beryllium
3 Group VII increases from iodine to fluorine
4. In the gas phase, aluminium chloride dimerises to form AI2CI6 molecules.

By using this information, which of the following are likely structural features of the AI2CI6
molecule?
1 Each aluminium atom is surrounded by four chlorine atoms
2 There are twelve non bonded electron pairs in the molecule
3 Each aluminium atom contributes electrons to four covalent bonds.
5. Boron is a non metallic element which is placed above aluminium in Group III of the Periodic
Table. It forms a compound with nitrogen known as boron nitride which has a graphite structure.
Which of the following conclusions can be drawn from this information?
1 The empirical formula of boron nitride is BN.
2 The boron and nitrogen atoms are likely to be arranged alternatively in a hexagonal
pattern.
3. Boron nitride has a layer structure with van der Waals‟ forces between the layers.
6. Which of the following statements are correct for the sequence of compounds below
considered from left to right?
NaF MgO AIN SiC
1 The electronegativity difference between the elements in each compound increases
2 The formula units of these compounds are isoelectronic (have the same number of
electrons)
3. The bonding becomes increasingly covalent.
7. Which of the following statements describing the characteristic of elements within any one
particular group of the Periodic Table are correct?
1 the elements are either all metals or all non- metals
2 the melting points of the elements increase with increasing proton (atomic) number
3 The first ionization energies of the elements generally decrease with increasing proton
(atomic) number
8. Why is a solution of aluminium chloride acidic?

1 Chloride ions react with water to form hydrochloric acid
2 Aluminium ions have a large charge/ surface area ratio
3 The H-O bonds are weaker in *AI (H2O)6)3+ than in H2O.
9. Which are correct descriptions of theproperties ofanhydrous aluminium chloride?

1 it dissolves in benzene to give a solution which conducts electricity.
2 It fumes in moist air due to the formation of hydrogen chloride.
3 In the vapour phase it has a covalent molecular structure
10. The first ionization energies of elements in the third Period are show
Which factors explain why the value of the first ionization energy of sulphur is lower than that of
phosphorous?
1 repulsion between the pair of 3p electrons
2 greater shielding by inner electrons
3 increase of principal quantam number
11. The sketch shows the first ionization energy for the first five elements of Group II and Group
IV.
1 Group IV elements have a higher nuclear charge than the corresponding Group II
elements.
2 Group IV elements have macromolecular structures and the ionization energies are higher
because several bonds have to be broken.
3 A p electron in a given shell is further away from the nucleus than an s electron in the
same shell
12. Which statements about the electronegativity of elements in the Periodic Table are correct?
1 In Periodic 3 it increases from sodium to chlorine
2 In Group II it increases from barium to beryllium
3 In Group VII it increases from iodine to fluorine
SECTION C
1. Give the formulae of the chlorides (if any) of the elements in the third period of the Periodic
Table (sodium to argon). Describe and account for the bonding in these chlorides and their
reaction (if any) with water.
2. Interpret the following observations as fully as you can.

a). The first ionization energy of nitrogen is higher than that of either of the elements
immediately preceding or following it in the Periodic Table. (4)
3. State and explain how each of the following properties varies across the third period of
the Periodic Table from sodium to argon:
a). The first ionization energy of the element ………….. (4)
b. The boiling point of the element …………. (8)
c. The acid/ base behaviour of the oxide………. (8)
4. The first cight ionization energies of an element E are as follows:

703, 1610, 2460, 4350, 5400, 8500, 10 300 and 12 300 kJ mol-1
State, giving reasons, the group of the Periodic Table to which E is likely to belong. (3)
5. An element in the second period (lithium to neon) in the Periodic Table often shows a
diagonal similarity to the element a group higher in thethird period (sodium to argon). Discuss
this statement with special reference to beryllium and aluminium. (6)
State and explain how far the following observations support the view that lithium shows a
diagonal relationship to magnesium.
i). Lithium chloride forms a number of hydrates such as LiCI, 3H2O
ii). Lithium nitrate undergoes thermal decomposition to give lithium oxide, oxygen and nitrogen
dioxide. (6)
6. a). What do you understand by the term ionization energy? (2)

b). Sketch a graph of the first ionization energies of the elements lithium to sodium against
proton (atomic) number.
Explain the variation in ionization energy illustrates by this graph and how it provides
evidence for the existence within the atom of different energy levels containing different
numbers of electrons. (6)
c). Orange steert lamps contain sodium with a small amount of neon. The light is produces
when gaseous atoms are ionized in an electric field. When first turned on, the lamps emit
a red glow characteristic of neon but, after a time, the orange glow of sodium
predominates.
Suggest a brief explanation of this phenomenon. (2)
7a). Magnesium oxide is insoluble in water whereas barium oxide dissolves togive an alkaline
solution. An aqueous solution dioxide is acidic.
Explain these observations with the aid of equations. (4)
8. On each of the grids below, sketch the general trends of the properties of the elements or
their compounds across the third period of the Periodic Table. No scale is specified on the
vertical axis. Your sketches to be clear though qualitative only.
Below each grid, explain why each of these properties varies in the way shown.
9a). Describe the periodic trend that is apparent in the reactions with water of the chlorides of
the elements sodium to phosphorous. Write equations and correlate the chemical
properties with the structure and bonding in the chlorides. (7)
b). The reaction of silicon tetrachloride with moist ethoxythane produces two exochlorides
with the formulae Si2OCI6 and Si3O2CI8. When 0.10g of one of these oxochlorides
completely reacted with water, all of its chlorine was converted into chloride ions, and
produced 0.303g of silver chloride precipitate when an excess of aqueous silver nitrate
was added.
Deduce the identity of the oxochloride. (3)
10a). Define by means of an equation, what is meant by the second ionization energy of an
element. (1)
b)i. On the grid below and using the values in the Data Booklet, plot the second ionization
energies of the elements magnesium to chlorine.
ii). Explain the relative values of the second ionization energies of alminium and silicon. (3)
11a). State the formulae, and describe the reactions with water, of the oxides of the elements in
the third period from sodium to sulphur. (5)
b). Aluminium sulphate and calcium oxide are sometimes added to water supplies to co-
precipitate suspended solids and bacteria. A small amount of aluminium remains in solution and
its presence in drinking water may contribute to the illness known as Alzheimer‟s discase.
i). Suggest an identity for the insoluble aluminium compound that might be formed when
water, aluminium sulphate and calcium oxide are mixed, ands write a balanced equation
for its production. (2)
ii). Why is it important to add too much calcium oxide? (2)

iii). By considering the uses to which aluminium metal is put, suggest possible source of
ingestion of aluminium. (1)
12a). It has often stated that the elements of the Periodic Table show a general trend across a
period from metallic to non- metallic behaviour, coupled with an increase of oxidation
number in their compounds.
Illustrate this statement by describing and explaining the formulae, the properties and the
reactions with water of the chlorides of the elements sodium to phosphorous. (5)
b). In each of the following reactions, describe the way in which the oxide of the named is
reaching and discuss whether its behaviour is what you would expect from the position of
the element in the Periodic Table:
i) Silicon : CaO + SiO2 CaSiO3

ii). Beryllium : 2NaOH + BeO Na2BeO2 + H2O
iii). Bismuth : Bi2O3 + 6HNO3 2Bi(NO3)3 + 3H2O
13. The oxides Na2O, MgO, AI2O3, SiO2 and P4O10 differ considerably in their physical and
chemical properties
i). the last has a low melting point whereas the other have high melting points.
ii). the first and last dissolve in water whereas the other do not
iii). The first three react with acids whereas the last three react with alkalis
Describe fully the chemistry outlined above, writing equations for all the reactions involved, and
explain these physical and chemical properties in terms of the acid base nature, and structures of
the oxides. 91)
14a). What oxidation numbers do the elements sodium to phosphorous show in their chlorides?
Outline the reactions, if any, of these chlorides with water and relate these reactions to
the bonding present. (5)
b). Sulphur and chlorine can react together to form S2CI2. When 1.00g of this sulphur
chloride reacted with water, 0.36g of a yellow precipitate was formed, together with a
solution containing a mixture of together with a solution containing a mixture of
sulphorous acid, H2SO3 and hydrochloric acid.
i). Use the above data to deduce the equation for the reaction between S2CI2 and water.
ii). What volume of 1.00 mol dm-3 sodium hydroxide would be required to neutralize the
final solution?
15. The first ionization energies, in kJ mol -1 of Group II and Group III elements are given
below:
Group II Group III
Be 900 B 799
Mg 736 AI 577
Ca 590 Ga 577
St 548 In 558
Ba 502 TI 589 (TI = thallium)
a)i. Define, by means of an equation, what is meant by the first ionization energy of an element.
(1)
ii). Explain why the first ionization energies decrease in magnitude on descending Group II. (1)
b)i. On the grid below, plot and label the two graphs of the variation of the first ionization
energies of these two groups of elements. Join the points of each group using a ruler.
ii). Explain why the first ionization energy of aluminium is less than that of magnesium. (2)
iii). Suggest why the first ionization energy of thallium, TI, is greater than that of barium. (1)
c). Use the values of ionization energies from the Data Booklet to explain why barium
compounds are ionic but boron compounds are predominantly covalent. (3)
16a). Describe the variations in melting points and conductivities of the elements sodium to
argon, and explain these variations in terms of their structures and bonding. (6)
b). Alloys of aluminiun and magnesiumare often used in aircraft manufacture because of their
strength and low density.
A 1.00g sample of one such alloy was reacted with an excess of aqueous sodium hydroxide and
the volume of hydrogen given off was measured: 1.00 dm3 of gas was produced at 250C and a
pressure of 1.01 x 105 Pa.
The aluminium containing product of this reaction is the same as that from the reaction between
aluminium oxide and sodium hydroxide. From your knowledge of the letter reaction, construct
an equation for the reaction between aluminium and sodium hydroxide, and hence calculate the
percentage of aluminium in the sample of alloy. (4)
17a). Describe and explain the variation in atomic radius of the elements across the period from
lithium to neon. (3)
b). Comment on the following data, giving explanations where appropriate.
In your answer: discuss the variation in atomic radius and in density
Suggest a simple relationship you might expect between density, relative atomic mass, Ar
and atomis radius.
Test your relationship by calculation
Metal Ar atomic radius/ nm dentity/ g cm-3
Mg 24 0.160 1.74
AI 27 0.143 2.70
Ca 40 0.197 1.54
Fe 56 0.127 7.86
18a). The oxides Na2O, AI2O3 and SO3 have the melting points 12750C, 20720C and 170C
respectively
i). Relate their melting points to their structures and bonding
ii). Describe their solubilities in, and reactions with water. Give the approximate pH of any
solution formed and write equations where appropriate. (7)
b). Campden tablets are composed of a mixture of sodium metabisulphate, Na2S2O5, and
various presevatives. They are used during wine making to sterilize equipment by
dissolving them in water and adding an organic acid, HA. These two components react
together to produce an aqueous solution of sulphur dioxide and the sodium salt of the
organic acid.
Write an equation for the reaction of sodium metallic sulphite with the acid, and use it to
predict how many moles of sulphur dioxide are produced from dissolving one tablet
containing 0.80g of Na2S2O5. (3)
19a). The elements in the third period show a change from a metallic to a non metallic nature,
which is reflected in the bounding of their compounds.
Describe the physical properties of the chlorides of theelements sodium to phosphorous,

and the reactions, if any, of these chlorides with water. Relate their properties and
reactions to the structures of, and bonding in the chlorides. Includes equations where
appropriate. (6)
b). Element X forms a choride XCI12 which melts at 30C. When 0.500g of the chloride reacts
with an excess of acidified silver nitrate 1.19 of AgCI are formed.
Another 0.500g sample of the chloride is heated strongly and chlorine gas is given off.
When the residue is treated with an excess of acidified silver nitrate, only 0.714g of AgCI
is precipitated.
i). Suggest, with reasons, to which Group of the Periodic Table element X belongs. (1)
ii). Calculate the value of n and attempt to identify X. (2)
20a). The melting points of four chlorides are given below
Compound Formula m.p/ 0C
Sodium chloride NaCI 801
Aluminium chloride AICI3 178
Carbon tetrachloride CCI4 -23
Silicon tetrachloride SiCI4 -70
i). Briefly relate these melting points to the structure of, and bowing in each of these chlorides.
ii). Describe the reaction, if any, of each of these four chlorides with water, stating the
approximate pH of any solution formed, and writing a balanced equation for any reaction that
takes place. Offer an explanation for any differences that occur in their reactivities. (8)
b). A spray used to relieve the pain and swelling caused by insect stings contains aluminium
sulphate, AI2(SO4)3, as its active ingredient. A 5.000 g sample of the spray was dissolved in
water and an excess of aqueous barium chloride was added. The precipitated barium sulphate
weighed 2.047g
Calculate the percentage of aluminium sulphate in the spray. (4)
21a). Describe and explain the difference in electrical conductivity of the elements
aluminiumand sulphur.
i). Aluminium ii). Sulphur (4)
b). Write equations for the reactions, if any, of oxides of these elements with aqueous alkali and
with aqueous acid.
i). With aqueous sodium hydroxide
Aluminium oxide
One of the sulphur oxides
ii). With aqueous hydrochloric acid
Aluminium oxide
One of the sulphur oxides
22a). Describe the combustion is oxygen of magnesium and ofphosphorous, writing an

equation for each reaction. (3)
b). The oxides of magnesium, silicon and phosphorous differ in their bonding and their
reactions with water.
Describe these reactions, relating them to the structure and bonding in each oxide. Write
equations where appropriate. (7)
23a). Sketch the change in the first ionization energy with proton number for the elements of
the third period (Na- Ar), and suggest explanations for the following:
i). the general increase in first ionization energy from Na to Ar;
ii). the discontinuities in the trend between Mg and AI and between P and S. (5)
b). Suggest why the ionis radius of Mg2+ is less than that of Na+
c)i. By quoting suitable data from the Data Booklet, suggest explanations for the following
observations:
Compound pH of a 1.0 mol dm-3 solution in water
NaCI 7.0
MgCI2 6.0
AICI3 3.0
ii). Use your answer to part (i) together with further data from the Data Booklet to suggest the
pH of 1.0 mol dm-3 solutions of 1. CaCI2, and 2. BcCI2. Explain your answers. (6)
24a). Write a complete equation to represent the second ionization energy of iron, and state the
electronic configuration of the resulting ion. (2)
b). Using values from the Data Booklet, plot a graph of the first ionization energies of the nine
elements from sodium to potassium. (3)
c). Comment on the shape of your graph, in particular explaining the reasons for:
i). the general trend across the period from Na to Ar
ii). the discontinuities between Mg and AI and between P and S.
iii). The difference between the first ionization energy of Na and that of K. (5)
d). A common application of the ionization of gases is in „neon‟ advertising tubes, in which a
noble gas is contained at very low pressures. When a potential difference is applied
across two electrodes, theh gas molecules gain enough energy to lose an outer electron
and become ionized.
The potential difference required to ionize helium gas is 24V. Estimate the potential
difference needed to ionize neon.
(The use of the Data Booklet is recommended) (2)
25. The elements of the third period are as follows:

Na Mg AI Si P S CI Ar
a). Which of these elements

i). exists as diatomic molecules at room temperature and pressure
ii). has the largest first ionization energy
iii). Has the highest electrical conductivity (3)
b)i. Which of these elements form covalent chlorides?
ii). Write an equation for one of these chlorides reacting with water. (2)
c). Two elements from the period form covalent oxides with formulate of the type XO2.
Draw displayed formulae showing the bonding of these two oxides, and suggegst values
for the bond angles. (4)
26. The use of Data Booklet is relevant to this question

a). On the same graph, plot the atomic and ionic radii of the elements from sodium to
chlorine. Comment on and explain as fully as you can the shapes of the two plots you
obtain.
b). The atoms are a series of salts formed when a cation with a charge of 1+ and a large
radius (e.g K+ or NH4+) and a cation with a charge of 3+ and a small radius (e.g AI3+,
Fe3+ or Cr3+) combine with sulphate ions.
An ammonium iron alum has the formula (NH4)aFe(SO4)b xH2O. Use the following
information to calculate the values of a and b, the relative formula mass, and the value of
x.
A 1.00g sample of the salt was dissolved in 100cm3 of water and the solution was divided
into two equal portions.
To one portion was added an excess of NaOH(aq) and the mixture boiled. The ammonia
that was evolved exactly neutralized 10.4 cm3 of 0.100 mol dm-3 HCI(aq).
To the other portion an excess of zinc was added which reduced the Fe3+ (aq) to Fe2+
(aq). The mixture was filtered and the resulting filtrate required 20.8 cm3 of 0.0100 mol
dm-3 KMnO4 (aq) to oxidize the Fe2+ (aq) back to Fe2+ (aq).
(MnO4- + 8H+ + 5e- Mn2+ + 4H2O)
27a). Describe and explain the difference in the electrical conductivity of molten sodium chloride
and of solid silicon (IV) oxide.
i). Molten sodium chloride
ii). Solid silicon (IV) oxide (4)
b). Write equations for the reactions of the following oxides with aqueous sodium hydroxide and
with concentrated hydrochloric acid.
i) with aqueous sodium hydroxide
Aluminium oxide
Sulphur dioxide
ii). with concentrated hydrochloric acid
Aluminium oxide
Lead (IV) oxide
28a. Give the formulae of the common oxides of the elements fromsodium to sulphur. (3)
b. Describe and explain the variation in structure and bonding of these oxides. (3)
c. The melting points of Ga2O3 and As2O5 are 1795 0C and 3150C respectively.
(gallium is 31Ga, arsenic is 33As)
i). Suggest the likely structure and bonding of each of these oxides.
ii). By means of balanced equations indicate whether or not each oxide reacts with
1. NaOH (aq)
2. HCI (aq)
29. The chlorides of the elements sodium to phosphorous all dissolve in or react with water.
a). State the formula of a chloride of each of these five elements (2)
b). Describe the reaction, if any, of the chlorides of sodium and silicon with water, relating any
differences to their bonding. Give equations for any reactions and suggest the pH values of the
resulting solutions. (5)
A chloride of a Group V element has the formula MCI3.
c). Draw a dot and cross diagram showing the arrangement of outer shell electrons in MCI3.
Suggest the shape of the molecule and draw a diagram to illustrate this. (3)
d). When 0.100g of MCI3 was added to water and the resulting solution titrated with 0.0500 mol
dm-3 silver nitrate, it was found that 33.0 cm3 of aqueous silver nitrate were needed to precipitate
all the chloride ions. Use these data to calculate the Ar of M and hence identify M.
(Ag+ (aq) + CI- (aq) AgCI(s)) (2)

Part of the Periodic Table is shown below.
B C N O F Ne
Na Mg AI Si P S CI
Ti V Cr Mn Br
Ca
Ag Sn I
Ca Pb Rn
From the elements shown in this table, identify one which

a). has the lowest first ionization energy.
b). has the highest first ionization energy
c). has a hydride that forms the strongest intermolecular hydrogen bonds.
d). has a nitrate of formula X(NO3)2 that evolves a brown gas when heated.
e). can undergo a reduction of the type
XO2+(aq) + 2H+ (aq) + e- XO2+ (aq) + H2O (I).
f). has a monopositive ion which forms a complex with ammonia.
g). has a triflouride with molecules of trigonal shape
h). has an oxide used in ceramics and glass
i). is likely to have the most exothermic reaction with fluorine (per mole of X)
j). has an insoluble chloride
31. The six elements in the third period from sodium in sulphur show a change in ther properties
from metallic to non metallic.
a). Illustrate this statement by describing the variation in boiling point of the elements, and
explaining this variation in terms of their structures and bonding. (3)
b). Choose one metallic and one non- metallic element from these six and, for each chosen
element, describe what you would observe when
i). the element reacts with oxygen
ii). its oxide reacts with water containing universal indicator
Write equations for the reactions you describe.
32. In this question, a maximum of 4 marks is available for quality of language.

a). What factors determine the size of an atom? (1)
b)i. Explain why the ionic radius of sodium is far smaller than its atomic radius.
ii. Explain why the cations of Group 1 increase in radius with increasing proton number
c). Explain why the atomic radii of the transition elements Cr ro Cu are similar. (2)
33a). Describe the reactions, if any, that occur when separate samples of sodium and
phosphorous are
i). added to water
ii). burned in air, and water is added to the resulting oxide
Write equations where appropriate and suggest the pH of any aqueous solution formed. (7)
34a). When heated in chlorine, aluminium and phosphorous form chlorides.

i). State the oxidation numbers of the elements in their chlorides, and write balanced equations
for their formation.
ii). Describe the reactrions, if any, of thechlorides with water, suggesting the pH of the resulting
solutions and writing equations where appropriate. (7)
35a). The use of the Data Booklet is relevant to this question. Complete these sketches for
elements of thethird period (sodium to argon) to show how each property changes along the
period. (6)
b)i. In the boxes below, write the formulae of one of the oxides of each of these five elements.
Sodium Magnesium Aluminium Phosphorous Sulphur
ii). Write an equation for sodium oxide reacting with water.

iii). Write an equation for your chosen oxide of sulphur reacting with an alkali. (3)

a)i. Complete these sketches for elements of the third period to show how each property changes
along the period.
ii). Briefly explain the shapes of each of your sketches

melting point…………………..
electrical conductivity………………
ionic radius……………… (6)
b).i. Write an equation for the reaction of each of the following oxides with aqoeus sodium
hydroxide.
Sulphur dioxide…………………
Aluminium oxide………………….
iii). Comment on the role of aluminium oxide in reactions (i) and (ii). (4)
TOPIC 9.2
GROUP II
SECTION A
1. Which one of the following equations represents the reaction that occurs when calcium nitrate
is heated strongly?
a. Ca(NO3)2 Ca(NO2)2 + O2
b. Ca(NO3)2 CaO + N2O + 2O2
c. Ca(NO3)2 CaO2 + 2NO2
d. 2Ca(NO3)2 2CaO + 4NO2 + O2
e. 3Ca(NO3)2 Ca3N2 + 4NO2 + 5O2
2. Which one of the following conclusions can be drawn from the observations that BaSO4
is precipitated immediately when solutions of barium chloride and sodium sulphate are
mixed?
a. Ba(OH)2 is a very weak base
b. BaSO4 forms a predominantly covalent molecule
c. BaSO4 is strongly hydrated
d. BaSO4 has a very high solubility product
e. Free Ba2+ (aq) and SO42- (aq) ions probably exists in the initial solutions.
3. Which one of the following elements has the same oxidation number in all of its known
compounds?
a. beryllium
b. bromine
c. chlorine
d. nitrogen
e. sulphur
4.Magnesium oxide is used in the making of the lining of blast furnaces. It is extracted from
seawater as follows.
Aqueous calcium hydroxide is added to seawater.
Ca(OH)2 (aq) + Mg CI2(aq) Mg(OH)2 (s) + CaCI2 (aq)
The magnesium hydroxide is then filtered off and roasted.

Which of the following comparisons between calcium and magnesium explains why magnesium
hydroxide forms?
a. Magnesium is less electropositive than calcium.
b. Magnesium is lower than calcium in the reactivity series
c. The enthalpy change of hydration for Mg2+ is less exothermic than Ca2+.
d. The solubility product for Mg(OH)2 is lower than that for Ca(OH)2.
e. The magnitude of the lattice energy of Mg(OH)2 is less than that of Ca(OH)2.
5. Which of the following elements is in Group II of the Periodic Table? (Ω = ohm)

Element melting point 0C density/ g cm-3 electricity
Conductivity / Ω-1 m-1
A 98 0.97 2.4 x 107

B 113 4.93 7.7 x 10-8
C 113 2.07 5.0 x 10-16
D 649 1.74 2.2 x 107
E 1744 11.3 6.0 x 107
6. Which of the following statements is true for strontium or its compounds?

a. strontium does not burn in air
b. strinium does not react with steam
c. Stronium carbonate decomposes at a lower temperature than calcium carbonate
d. Stronium hydroxide is dehydrated to the oxide on being heated
e. Stronium sulphate is soluble in water
7. Which of the following methods is the most suitable for the extraction of barium?
a. electrolyzing aqueous barium chloride
b. electrolyzing moltend barium chloride
c. reducing barium oxide with aluminium
d. reducing barium oxide with carbon
e. roasting barium sulphide in air
8. Which diagram shows the variation of the metallic radius, r of the Group II elements, Mg, ca,
sr, Ba with increasing proton (atomic) number?
9. Which property of the Group II elements (magnesium to barium) and their compounds
increases with increasing proton (atomic) number?
a. the magnitude of the enthalpy change of hydration of the metal ion
b. the pH of the aqueous chloride
c. the solubility of the sulphate in water
d. the stability of the carbonate to heat
e. the tendency to form complex ions
10. One mole of each of the following compouns is strongly heated with a Bunsen flame and any
gas produced is collected at room temperature and pressure.
From which compound is 24dm3 of gas likely to be collected? (One mole os any gas occupies
24dm3 at room temperature and pressure)
a. MgCI2
b. MgCO3
c. Mg(NO3)2
d. Mg(Oh)2
11. Dilute sulphuric acid was added to aqueous barium hydroxide until the acid was in excess.,
Which graph shows the variation in the total number of ions in solution
12. Strontium lies between calcium and barium in Group II in the Periodic Table. Which of the
following properties could be predicted for strontium?
a. It forms a water soluble carbionate which does not decompose on heating
b. It forms a sparingly suloble sulphate
c. It forms a nitrate which decomposes on heating to form strontium nitrate and oxygen
d. It is reduced by cold water, liberating hydrogen
13. When a mixture of white solids, F, is treated with an excess of dilute hydrochloric acid, a
colourless gas is evolved and some, but not all, of the mixture dissolves.
Which mixture could be F?

a. Ba(NO3)2 and Ca(OH)2
b. BaSO4 and CaCO3
c. CaCO3 and MgSO4
d. Ca(OH)2 and MgCO3
14. What changes occur in the magnitudes of:

i). the lattice energy
ii). the enthalpy change of hydration
iii). The solubility of the sulphates
as Group II is descended?
Lattice energy enthalpy change of hydration solubility of sulphate

A decrease decrease decrease
B decrease increase decrease
C increase decrease increase
D increase increase decrease
15. Which method is the most suitable for the extraction of barium?
a. electrolyzing aqueous barium chloride
b. electrolysin molten barium chloride
c. reducing barium oxide with aluminium
d. reducing barium oxide with carbon
16. The solubilities of the Group II metal sulphates decrease at the proton number of the metal
increases.
Which factor affects this trend?
a. the atomic radius of the metal atom
b. the enthalpy change of formation of the sulphate
c. the enthalpy change of hydration of the metal ion
d. the first ionization energy of the metal
17. The graph represents the change in mass that occurs when 1.0g of powdered calcium
carbonate, CaCo3, is heated at a temperature, T.
Which graph would be obtained by heating 1.0g of powdered magnesium carbonate, MgCO3 at
T?
18. The graph shows the decomposition temperature for the Group II carbonates of magnesium,
calcium and strontium.
Which factor makes MgCO3 the least thermally stable?
a. a small cation polarizing a small anion

b. a small cation polarizing a large anion
c. a large cation polarizing a small anion
d. a large cation polarizing a large anion
19. The solubility of Group II sulphates decreases from magnesium sulphate to barium sulphate.
How do the values of lattice energy and enthalpy change of hydration alter as the Group is
descended?
Lattice energy enthalpy change of hydration

A less exothermic less exothermic
B less exothermic more exothermic
C more exothermic less exothermic
D more exothermic more exothermic
20. On descending Group Ii from magnesium to barium, which statement correctly describes the
trend in properties?
A The enthalpy change of hydration of the +2 ion becomes less negative
B The first ionization energy increases
C The ionic radius decreases
D The solubility of the sulphate increases
21. Lithium resembles magnesium in its chemical properties.

Which property of lithium compounds is unlikely to be correct?
a. Lithium carbonate decomposes to give carbon dioxide on being heated
b. Lithium nitrate gives oxygen as the only gas on being heated
c. Lithium oxide in water produces a solution with pH greater than 7.
d. Lithium sulphate is soluble in water
22. On strong heating, CaSo4 decomposes into CaO and SO3. The compound CaCO3
decomposes at a lower temperature than CaSO4.
Which factor best explains the greater thermal stability of CaSO4?
a. CuCO3 less a higher lattice energy than CaSO4.
b. CO2 is a smaller molecule than SO3.
c. CO32 ions are more easily polarized than SO42-.
d. The charge density of CO32- is greater than that of SO42-.
23. Barium sulphate occurs naturally as barite, which is a solid ore. Magnesium sulphate,
however, occurs mainly in solution.
Why is this?
a. Barium ions are less readily hydrated than magnesium ions
b. Barium sulphate has a stronger crystalline lattice
c. Barium sulphate is more resistant to oxidation than magnesium sulphate
d. Magnesium sulphate is hydrolysed by naturally acidic solutions, but barium sulphate is
not.
24. What are the products of the thermal decomposition of magnesium nitrate?
a. magnesium nitride and oxygen
b. magnesium oxide and nitrogen
c. magnesium oxide, nitrogen and oxygen
d. magnesium oxide, nitrogen dioxide and oxygen
25. The carbonates of Group II decompose according to the following equation

MCO3(S) MO(s) + CO2 (g)
For this reaction, ∆H increases on descending the group.
Carbonate Mg Ca Sr Ba
∆H/ kJ mol-1 +101 +178 +235 +269
Which property best explains this trend?

a. the ionic radius of the metal ion
b. the ionization energy of the metal
c. the proton number of the metal
d. the thermal stability of the oxide
26. Radium, proton number 88, was discovered by the Curies in 1898. Some of its properties are
compared to thise of barium.
Enthalpy change Ionic radius / nm Solubility of Sum of first two

in hydration of sulphate/ mol per ionization
M2+/ kJ mol-1 100g H2O at energies / kJ mol-
250C 1
Ba -1450 0.135 9 x 10-3 1458
Ra -1350 0.140 8 x 10-4 1490
Which property of radium is unexpected when considering the known trends of Group II
elements and their compounds?
a. enthalpy change of hydration
b. ionic radius
c. solubility of sulphate
d. sum of first two ionization energies
27. M is a Group II metal which can undergo two reaction routes.

Oxygen Water evaporate to dryness
M solid P solution of Q solid R
Less residue
Water Evaporate to dryness dissolve
M Solution of S Solid T solution of U
Residue in BNO3
Which set contains three different compounds?

a. P Q U
b. P R T
c. Q S U
d. R S T
28. The sulphates of Group II elements exist in crystalline form as follows:
MgSO4+7H2O CaSO4+2H2O SrSO4 BaSO4
What is the reason for this trend in hydration?

a. The atomic radius of the elements increases down the group
b. The ionic character of these sulphates increases
c. The ionization energy of the elements decreases down the group
d. The radius of the cations increases down the group

Lead (II) carbonate and zinc carbonate decompose on heating in the same way as calcium
carbonate.
What will be the predicted order of decomposition temperatures of these three carbonates?
Highest lowest
a. CaCO3 > PbCO3 > ZnCO3
b. CaCO3 > ZnCO3 > PbCO3
c. PbCO3 > CaCO3 > ZnCO3
d. ZnCO3 > CaCO3 > PbCO3
30. Galistones can form in the gall bladder and are very painful. The inorganic part of gallstones
is calcium ethanedoiate which is insoluble in water. The corresponding magnesium ethanedioate
is soluble in water.
What factor accounts for the difference insolubility between calcium ethanedioate and
magnesium ethanedioate?
a. Calcium ethenedioate has a higher solubility product than magnesium ethanedioate.
b. Calcium ethanedoite has a numerically higher lattice energy than magnesium ethanediote
c. Calcium ions have a lower enthalpy change of hydration than magnesium ions
d. Calcium is more electropositive than magnesium
31. Which factors help to explain theincrease in thermal stability of the carbonates of Group II
metals from magnesium to barium?
Charge density of cation relative polarisability of carbonate and

oxide ions
a decreases CO2-3 less than O2-
b. decreases O2- less than CO32-
c. increases CO32- less than O2-
d increases O2- less than CO32-
SECTION B
be correct.
Decide whether each of the statements is or is note correct (you may find it helpful to put a tick
against the statements which you consider to be correct ).
The responses A to D should be selected on thebasis of
A B C D
1,2 and 3 are correct 1 and 2 only are 2 and 3 only are 1 only is correct
correct correct
1. Which of the following statements concerning the GroupII elemenents, magnesium,

calcium and barium, are correct?
1 Their reactivity increases concerning relative atomic mass
2 The only oxidation number exhibited in their stable compounds is +2
3 On strong heating nitrates give off oxygen only.
2. Which of the following statements are true about the elements in Group II of the Periodic
Table?
1 They are reducing agents

2 The ionjic radius increases down the group
3 The electronegativity decreases down the group
3 Which of the following statements about the elements calcium, stronthium and barium
are correct?
1 Their oxides are amphoteric
2 Aqueous solutions of their hydroxides have a pH greater than Y.
3 The elements react with cold water liberating hydrogen
4. Anhydrous barium nitrate and anhydrous magnesium nitrate both decompose on heating,
evolving nitrogen dioxide and oxygen and forming an oxide.
Which of the following statements concerning these decompositions are correct?
1 Nitrogen dioxide is evolved at a lower temperature from magnesium nitrate than from
barium nitrate than from barium nitrate
2 For both nitrates the volume of nitrogen dioxide evolved is four times greater than the
volume of oxygen
3 The numerical value of the lattice energy of magnesium nitrate is greater than that of
barium nitrate.
5. In hospitals, barium sulphate is used in takin g X- ray photographs of the alimentary canal. It
is mixed with food and eaten by the patient prior to the phorographs being taken.
Why is the sulphate used rather than other compounds of barium?
1 Barium sulphate is not poisonous because it is insoluble in water.
2 Barium sulphate reacts with organic materials in the body
3 Barium sulphate forms sulphuric acid with the acid in the stomach
6. Which of the following factors helps to explain the differing solubility in water of magnesium
sulphate compared with that of barium sulphate?
1 Barium sulphate has a numerically lattice energy than magnesium sulphate

2 The enthalpy change of hydration of magnesium ions is more exothermic than that of
barium ions
3 The charge density of magnesium ions is greater than that of barium ions.
7. When decomposing in water, organic refuse is oxidized to form carboxylic acids. The water
become sacidic and aquatic life destroyed.
Which additives are suitable to remove this acid pollution?
1 calcium carbonate
2 calcium hydroxide
3 potassium nitrate
8. The Group II metals have a higher melting points than the Group I metals.
Which factors could contribute towards the higher melting points?
1 There are smaller interatomic distances in the metallic lattices of the Group II metals
2 Two valency electrons are available from each Group II metal atom for bonding the atom
into the metallic lattice
3 Group II metals have the higher first ionization energies.
9. Lime mortar, used in building to join housebricks, is a paste made from lime (calcium
hydroxide), sand (silicon IV oxide) and water. After mixing, the paste sets and hardens.
Which processes take place during the setting?
1 Lime and sand react with water
2 Lime reacts with sand
3 Lime reacts with carbon dioxide
10. Which diagrams correctly show the trend in a property of theGroup II elements Mg, Ca, Sr,
Ba?
11. Beryllium is the element at the top of Group II. In comparison with the other Group II
elements, which statements about heryllium are likely to be correct?
1 The enthalpy change of hydration of Bc2+ will be the most negative
2 BeCO3 decomposes on heating at the lowest temperature
3 Beryllium forms compounds with the most covalent character
12. Which properties would be expected for the Group II element, strontium, or its compounds?
1 When heated in ocygen, strontium does not burn
2 On being heated, strontium carbonate decomposes to give strontium oxide
3 When strontium oxide is added to water, the solution is alkaline.
13. Which statements about calcium oxide are correct?

1 It reacts with cold water
2 It is a product when calcium nitrate is heated
3 It can be reduced by heating with magnesium
SECTION C
1. Explain each of the following observations in terms of structure and bonding
a). The alkaline earth metals (beryllium, magnesium, calcium, strontium and barium) all
have a fixed oxidation number in their compounds
b). Beryllium chloride (boiling point 5470C) is much more volatile than magnesium chloride
(boiling point 14180C)
c). Magnesium sulphate is readily soluble in water at room temperature (33g per 100g of
water at 200C) but barium sulphate is only sparingly soluble (2.4 x 10-4 g per 100g of
water at 200C).
d). Beryllium oxide is atmospheric, but the oxides of all the other alkaline earth metals are
basic.
e). Magnesium carbonate undergoes thermal decomposition at a much lower temperature
(3530C) than barium carbonate does (14300C).
2i). Write the equation for the action of heat on calcium hydroxide.
ii). Explain why magnesium hydroxide decomposes at a lower temperature than calcium
hydroxide. (3)
3)i. What would you expect to see when anhydrous calcium nitrate is heated?
ii). Describe and explain how the thermal stability of the nitrates of theGroup II metals varies
from magnesium to barium. (5)
b)i. When a 1.01g sample of potassium nitrate is heated above its melting point, a colourless
odourless gas is evolved and the mass of the sample decreases by 0.16g.
Suggest an identity for the gas and for the resulting solid, and hence construct an
equation for the decomposition.
ii). Unlike all other Group I nitrates, lithium nitrate decomposes on heating in the same way
as Group II nitrates. Suggest a reason for this difference in behaviour and give an
equation for its decomposition. (5)
4i). Write an equation for the action of chlorine on magnesium and state what changes in
oxidation number take place.
When aqueous magnesium chloride is allowed to evaporate to dryness, a basic salt, Mg (OH) CI
is formed.
ii). Construct an equation for the formation of this salt.
When this basic salt is heated strongly in an evaporating basin, the residue consists of
magnesium oxide and no magnesium chloride.
iii). Suggest why this is so.

5a). Describe and explain how the thermal decomposition of the nitrates of the Group II metals
varies from magnesium to barium. (6)
b). Formerly, the white pigment in paints was „white lead‟ Pb(OH)2, PbCO3. This has now been
replaced by titanium (IV) oxide.
Assuming Pb(II) compounds react in the same way as Sr(II) compounds, predict the action
ofheat on white lead and calculate the percentage loss in mass on heating a sample until no
further change occurred. (4)
6. This question is about some energy terms and their values forteh Group II elements calcium
and barium.
a). State what is meant by the first ionization energy of an element
b). Use the Data Booklet to calculate ∆H for each of the following:
i). Ca(g) Ca2+ (g) + 2e-
ii). Ba(g) Ba2+ (g) + 2e-
c). Suggest a reason for the difference in the two values obtained in (b) (i) and (b) (ii). (1)
d)i. Explain with the aid or a diagram, how the standard electrode potential of a metal, M is
measured. (4)
ii). Explain briefly why the standard electrode potential of calcium cannot be measured
directly by the method described in (d) (i). (1)
The standard electrode potentials quoted in the Data Booklet for calcium and barium are
Calcium: -2.87V
Barium: -2.90V
These two Eø values are closely similar, the degree of similarity between ∆H values calculated in
(b) is noticeably lower. One factor relevant to the similarity of dissimilarity of the two pairs of
values is that the Eø values refer to the solid metals and their ions in solution whereas the ∆H
values refer to atoms, and ions, in the gaseous state.
e)i. What other factor is relevant to the Eø values being similar but the ∆H values being
dissimilar? (1)
ii). Indicate how this other factor is relevant to the different degree of similarity within the two
pairs of values. (2)
7a). Describe and suggest an explanation for, the trend observed in the thermal decomposition of
the nitrates of the Group II elements magnesium to barium, writing equations where appropriate.
(5)
b). Suggest an explanation for the decreasing solubilities of the sulphates of the Group II
elements as the proton (aromic) number of the cation increases. (3)
c). Barium atoms are opaque to X rays as a consequence of the large number of electrons they
contain. Before an X- ray examination is carried out, patients with digestive tract problems are
sometimes given a barium meal, consisting of a suspension of barium sulphate in water.
Soluble barium salts are highly poisonous. Most salts of barium with polyvalent unions (e.g the
sulphate, carbonate and phosphate) are very insoluble, as shown by their solubility products:
Ksp (BaSO4) = 1.3 x 10-10 mol2 dm-6
Ksp (BaCO3) = 5.5 x 10-10 mol2 dm-6
i). Calculate the concentration of barium ions in a saturated solution of barium sulphate.
ii). Barium carbonate is much more poisonous than barium sulphate when ingested by mouth.
Briefly suggest a reason why this is so. (2)
8a). Describe the reactions of the Group II metals, magnesium to barium, with
i). Oxygen
ii). Water
Write equations where appropriate. (2 x 2)
b)i. Suggest reasons why magnesium gives the nitride: Mg3N2 in addition to its oxide when
burned in air. (2)
ii). A 1.00g sample of the poweder obtained from buring magnesium in air was boiled with
water. The ammonia that was evolved neutralized 12.0cm3 of 0.5 mol dm-3 hydrochloric acid.
Construct balanced equations for the production of magnesium nitride and its reaction with
water.
Calculate the percentage of magnesium nitride in the 1.00g sample. (4)
c)i. Construct an equation for the action of sulphur dioxide and oxygen with magnesium
hydroxide to give magnesium sulphate as the only product containing sulphur. (1)
ii). Comment on, and explain, the relative solubilities of calcium sulphate and magnesium
sulphate. (2)
d). State a commercial use of either magnesium sulphate or calciuym sulphate (specify which)
(1)
10a). Describe the reactiuons, if any of magnesium and calcium with cold water and write a
balanced equation for any reaction. (3)
b). Explain qualitatively why magnesium sulphate and calcium sulphate have different
solubilities in water. (4)
c). Give a commercial use of either magnesium sulphate or calcium sulphate (specify which)
(1)
d). Magnesium reacts with nitrogen only at a very high temperature, producing a yellow
solid, D.D contains 72% of magnesium, by mass.
i). Suggest why a high temperature is required for this reaction. (1)
ii). calculate the empirical formula of D. (2)
e). when water is added to the yellow solid D, a white suspension forms and ammonia is
liberated.
Identify the white suspension and write an equation for the action of water on D. (2)
11a). Describe and explain the trend observed in the ease of thermal decomposition of the
carbonates of the Group II elements magnesium to barium. Write equations where
appropriate. (5)
b). Heating barium oxide with oxygen under pressure causes barium peroxide to be formed
in the following equilibrium reaction:
2BaO + O2 2BaO2
When 1.00g of the mixture of oxides was treated with dilute sulphuric acid. 1.49g of a
white solid was precipitated and a solution of hydrogen peroxide was produced. On the
addition of an excess of acidified potassium iodide to the solution, 1.18 x 10-3 mol of
iosine, 12 was produced.
Suggest an identity for the white solid and write an equation for the reaction of each of
the oxides with dilute sulphuric acid. Use the above data to calculate the mass of each
oxide present in the mixture. (5)
12a)i. Describe how the case of thermal decomposition of the hydroxides and nitrates of the
Group II metals varies down the group. Write generalized balanced equations for the
reaction.
ii). Suggest an explanation for this trend. (6)
b). A Group II hydroxide exists as a hydrate M(OH)2, nH2O. On heating 1.000g of this
hydrate lost 0.542g in the form of steam, as it was converted into the anhydrous
hydroxide M(OH)2. Subsequent heating to constant mass produced a further mass loss of
0.068g
Calculate the value of n, and the Ar of the metal M. (4)
13a)i. Write down the electronic configuration of a calcium atom and of a calcium ion
Ca……………… ca2+………………………
ii) Explain why the atomic radius of calcium is significantly greater than the ionic radius of
calcium. (3)
b). The enthalpy changes of hydration of some Group II ions except for Sr2+ are given below
in the table.
i). Complete the ionic radii column from the values in the Data Booklet
Ionic radius / nm ∆H hydration / kJ mol-1
Be2+ -2450
Mg2+ -1920
Ca2+
Ba2+ -1360
ii). Draw a graph or enthalpy change of hydration (vertical axis) against ionisc radius on the grid
below.
iii). Estimate a value for the enthalpy change of hydration of Sr2+.

iv). Explain the trend shown by your graph in terms of the interaction between the cations and
water. (5)
c). The enthalpy change of hydration of Na1 is – 406 kJ mol-1.

Explain why this is much less exothermic than the value of Mg2+.
d). State a use of either anhydrous MgSO4, or CaSO- ½ H2O.

14a). How and under what conditions do the metals magnesium and calcium react with water?
State what you would observe, write equations for the reactions that occur and suggest
the pH values of the resulting solutions. (5)
b). Describe and explain the trend in the thermal stabilities of the carbonates of Group II
metals. (3)
c). A slurry of limestone CaCO3 is used in a „flue gas desulphurisation‟ process to extract
sulphur dioxide from the flue gases of coal fired power stations. Calcium sulphide is one
product of the reaction.
i). Why is it important to limit the amount of sulphur dioxide entering the atmosphere?
ii). Suggest an equation for the reactions between limestone and sulphur dioxide, and use it
to estimate the mass of limestone needed to extract the sulphur dioxide produced when 1
million tonnes of coal containing 1.5% ofsulphur by mass are burned. (4)
15. Agricultural lime is manufactured from limestone (calcium carbonate) by first heating the
rock to a high temperature in a lime kila. The product is then allowed to cool and a
calculated amount of water is added. A highly exothermic reaction takes place and a
white powder called slaked lime is produced.
a). Write balanced equations for these reactionc. (2)
b). Why is lime used in agriculture? (1)
c). How doess the temperature required to decompose the carbonates of the Group II
elements vary down the group and why this is so? (3)
d). The following table lists the melting points or the oxides of the Group II elements.
Oxide Melting point/ 0C
MgO 2852
CaO 2614
SrO 2430
BaO 1918
i). Suggest an explanation of this trend

ii). Suggest a use for one of these oxides, based on ite melting point. (3)
e). The mineral dolomite is a double carbonate of magnesium and calcium, with the formula
CaMg(CO3)2. When 1.000g of an impure sample of dolomite was completely dissolved in
an excess of hydrochloric acid, 0.450g of carbon dioxide was given off. Write a balanced
equation for the reaction and calculate the purity of the dolomite. (3)
16a). Anhydrous magnesium sulphate paste is sold by pharmacies as a treatment for

boils,which are infected areas of the skin. The paste is applied to a boil to draw out water
and the infected matter.
i). Suggest why anhydrous magnesium sulphate is able to draw water out of the treated boil.
ii). Suggest two reasons why anhydrous barium sulphate would not be suitable in place of
magnesium sulphate in the paste. (4)
b). Suggest a liquid which could be added to the anhydrous magnesium sulphate to make a
paste. (1)
17. However, electric cable used in firre alarm systems has copper wire surrounded by
magnesium oxide which acts as an insulator. The sholw cable is encased in thin copper
tubing.
i). Describe the bonding in magnesium oxide and explain why it acts as an insulator.
ii). Suggest two reasons why magnesium oxide is preferred to pvc as an insulator.
iii). Suggest a reason why copper is suitable for encasing the magnesium oxide. (5)
18a). Describe and explain the variation doen the groupof the ease of thermal decomposition of
the Groyp II metal nitrates. Write an equation for the reaction that takes place. (4)
b). When water is added to the solid remaining after barium nitrate has been heated, an
alkaline solution is produced. The addition of sulphuric acid to this solution produces a
white precipitate.
Identify the products of these two reactions, and write equations for them. (3)
c). When the procedure described in (b) is repeated using the solid remaining after
magnesium nitrate has been heated, several differenced are observed.
Describe clearly what these differences are, and explain why they occur. (3)
d). A 4.50g sample of a carbonate of a Group II metal (known to be either calcium or
strontium) lost 1.34g in mass when heated strongly. Identify the metal, showing clearly
your working. (2)
19. Stronium, Sr, is an element in Group II of the Periodic Table.

a). State the full electronic configuration of an atom of strontium. (1)
b)i. Write a balanced equation for the action of heat on strontium nitrate.
ii). Magnesium nitrate decomposes at a lower temperature than strontium nitrate.
Explain why these two nitrates decompose at different temperatures. (4)
c). Name a magnesium compound and state its commercial use. (1)
20. The solid calcium carbonate produced by this process can be decomposed by heating.
i). Write an equation for the thermal decomposition of calcium carbonate.
ii). Calcium carbonate decomposes at a lower temperature than barium carbonate.
Explain why this is so. (3)
Explain why line is used in agriculture. (1)
21a). Write an equation to represent the thermal decomposition of calcium nitrate Ca(NO3)2.
b). Describe and explain how the thermal stabilities of the Group II nitrates vary down the
group. (3)
c). when a molten nitrate of a Group 1 metal is heated strongly, it evolves oxygen and leaves
the metal nitric MNO2 (M = Na, K, Rb or Cs)
i). Write a balanced equation for this reaction.
ii). When a particular Group 1 metal nitrate was heated in this way in this way until no
further change occurred, it lost 10,85% of its mass. Calculate the Ar of the metal and
hence identify it. (3)
22a). Describe and explain the trend in the thermal stabilities of the nitrates of the Group II
elements from Mg to Ba. Write a general equation for the reaction that occurs on heating.
(3)
b). Describe the reactions that occur when limestone CaCO3 is heated strongly, and then a
small amount of water added, followed by an excess of water.
Write equations where appropriate. (4)
23. All the chlorided of Group II elements are soluble in water. The same is not true of their
sulphates. These become less soluble as the group is descended.
Explain qualitatively the variation in solubility of thesulphates of the elements in Group
II down from magnesium to barium. (2)
ANSWERS
SECTION A
1. D 2. E 3. A 4. D 5. D
6. D 7. B 8. A 9. D 10. B
11. C 12. B 13. B 14. A 15. B
16. C 17. D 18. B 19. A 20. A
21. B 22. C 23. A 24. D 25. A
26. D 27. A 28. D 29. A 30. C
31. A
SECTION B
1. B 2. A 3. C 4. A 5. D
6. C 7. B 8. B 9. C 10. D
11. A 12. C 13. B
SECTION C
3. O2
5. 12.2%
7. (Ba2+) = 1.1 x 10-5 mol dm-3
8. 30% Mg3N2
10. Mg3N2
11. Mass of BaO = 0.80g
Mass of BaO2 = 0.20g
12. n= 8 ; Ar = 87.2, M= Ra
14. 4.68 x 104 tonnes
15. 94.2%
18. Metal= strontium
21. Ar = 85.5
Metal = rubidium
TOPIC 9.3
GROUP VII
SECTION A
1. Tin (IV) iodide can be prepared by boiling 0.04 mol of tin (under reflux) with 0.03 mol of
iodide (I2) dissolved in 50cm3 of tetrachloromethane (boiling point, 770C)
Sn + 212 SnI4
Orange crystals of the product are obtained by filtering the hot reaction mixture and then
cooling thefiltrate.
Which of the following would indicate that the reaction was complete?
a. The boiling point of the mixture if 770C
b. No tin remains in the reaction flask
c. Crystals begin to be deposited from the boiling solvent
d. No more purple vapour is seen
e. No more liquid remains in the reaction flask
2. Which of the following will not decolourise aqueous bromine?

a. CI2(g)
b. FeSO4(aq)
c. CH3CHO(I)
d. C2H4(g)
e. C6H5OH(aq)
3. The propellant used in the sold rocket booster of a space shuttle is a mixture of
aluminium and compound X. Compound X contains chlorine in an oxidation state of 7.
Which of the following could be compound X?
a. NCI3
b. NH4CI
c. NH4CIO3
d. NH4CIO4
e. N2H5CI
4. Which of the following compounds reacts with chlorine to give two products in which
chlorine has different oxidation numbers?
a. ethane
b. potassium iodate (V)
c. potassium iodide
d. sodium hydroxide
e. sulphuric acid
5. Which of the following gaseous hydrided most readily decomposes into its elements on
contact with a hot glass rod?
a. ammonia
b. hydrogen chloride
c. hydrogen iodide
d. methane
e. steam
6. Which of the following compounds would give coloured fumed on warming with
concentrated sulphuric acid?
a. sodium bromide
b. sodium carbonate
c. sodium chloride
d. sodium ethanoate
7. The following report appeared in a newspaper
Drums of bromine broke open after a vehicle crash on the motorway. Traffic was
diverted as purple gaseous bromine drifted over the road (it is denser than air) causing
irritation to drivers‟ eyes. Firemen sprayed water over the scene of the accident,
dissolving the bromine and washing it away.
What is wrong with the report?
a. Bromine does not dissolve in water
b. Bromine does not vapourise readily
c. Bromine is less dense than air
d. Bromine is not purple
8. Which graph correctly describes a trend found in the halogen groups?
9. Which statement is most likely to be true for astatinc which is below iodine in Groupd
VII of the Periodic Table?
a. Sodium astaide and hot concentrated sulphuric acid react to form astatine
b. Silver astatide reacts with dilute aqueous ammonia in excess to form a solution of a
soluble complex
c. Astastine and aqueous potassium chloride react to form aqueous potassium astaside and
chlorine
d. Potassium astaside and hot dilute sulphuric acid react to form only white fumes of
hydrogen astaside.
10. An aqueous solution containing Br- ions is treates with AgNO3(aq), giving a precipitate
P, which is then tested for its solubility in concentrated NH3(aq)
What is the colour of P and its solubility in NH3(aq)?
Colour of P Solubility in NH3(aq)

a. white insoluble
b. white slightly soluble
c. cream slightly soluble
d. yellow insoluble
11. Aqueous chlorine is added to aqueous sodium bromide and the mixture is shakes with an
equal volume of trichloroethane.
Which observation would be made?
12. Which products are obtained when chlorine is bubbled into hot concentrated sodium
hydroxide?
a. NaCI and NaCIO
b. NaCI and NaCIO3
c. NaCIO only
d. NaCIO3 only
13. Which substance produces iodine when added to solid potassium iodide?
a. aqueous silver nitrate
b. concentrated hydrochloric acid
c. concentrated sulphuric acid
d. solid lead (II0 oxide
14. Which anions containing chlorine are formed when chlorine is passed into cold aqueous
potassium hydroxide?
a. CI- and CIO-
b. CI- and CIO-3
c. CI- and CIO-4
d. CIO- and CIO-3
15. When a white solid X reacts with concentrated H2SO4, the products include pungent
smelling gases and a dark brown solution containing a yello precipitate. When aqueous
sodium thiosulphate is added, the precipitate remains but the dark brown colour
disappears.
What is X?
a. AgNO3
b. CaCO3
c. NaBr
d. KI
16. When concentrated sulphuric acid is added to separate solid samples of sodium chloride,
sodium bromide and sodium iodide, which set of halogen containing substances is
produced?
a. CI2, Br2 and I2 only
b. HCI, Br2 and I2 only
c. HCI, HBr and HI only
d. HCI, HBr, HI, Br2 and I2 only
17. Tin (IV) iodide can be preparedf by refluxing 0.04 mol of tin with 0.03 mol of iodide (I2)
dissolved in 50cm3 of tetrachlomethane (boiling point 770C)
Sn + 2I2 SnI4
Orange crystals of the product are obntained by filtering the hot reaction mixture and then
cooling the filtrate.
What would indicate that the reaction was complete?
a. The boiling point of the mixtures is 770C
d. No more purple vapour is seen in the reaction vessel
18. An aqueous solution containing both potassium chloride and potassium iodide is treated
with an excess of aqueous silver nitrate. The precipitate formed is filtered off and washed
with distilled water. The precipitate isthen shaken with aqueous ammonia and filtered off
again.
Which ion is present in the final filtrate?
a. chlorine
b. iodide
c. potassium
d. silver
19. The solubility of the silver halides in aqueous ammonia decreases from AgCI to AgI.
What helps to explain this trend?
a. As a more powerful ligand, NH3 can displace CI- ions and Br- ions, but not I- ions.
b. CI- ions and Br- ions form complexes with NH3 (aq), but I- ions do not.
c. The value of the solubility product of the silver halides decreases from AgCI to AgI.
d. The covalent bonding between Ag and the halogen atom increases in strength from AgCI
to AgI.
20. Chlorine compounds show oxidation states ranging from -1 to +7.
What are the reagent(s) and conditions necessary for the oxidation of elemental chlorine
into a compound containing chlorine in the +5 oxidation state?
a. AgNO3 (aq) followed by NH3 (aq) at room temperature
b. concentrated H2SO4 at room temperature
c. cold dilute NaOH(aq)
d. hot concentrated NaOH(aq)
21. The table shows the results of experiments in which the halogens X2, Y2 and Z2 were
added to separate aqueous solutions containing X-, Y- and Z- ions.
X- (aq) Y- (aq) Z-(aq)
X2 No reaction No reaction No reaction
Y2 X2 formed No reaction Z2 formed
Z2 X2 formed No reaction No reaction
Which set contains the ions X-, Y- and Z- in order of their decreasing strength as a reducing g
agent?
Strongest Weakness
A X- Y- Z-
B X- Z- Y-
C Y- Z- X-
D Z- X- Y-
SECTION B
be correct.
Decide whether each of the statements is or is note correct (you may find it helpful to put a tick
against the statements which you consider to be correct ).
The responses A to D should be selected on thebasis of
A B C D
correct correct
1. Which of the following statements are true for concentrated sulphuric acid?
1 It oxidizes ethanoic acid

2 It dehydrates methanoic acid
3 It is reduced by potassium iodide
2. Iodine (V) oxide, I2O5, reacts at 700C with carbon monoxide as shown below
I2O5 + 5CO 5CO2 + I2
The amount of carbon monoxide originally present can be determined by analysis of the
products. Which of the following aqueous reagents could be used in this determination?
1 sodium carbonate
2 potassium iodide
3 sodium thiosulphate
3. Which of the following statements are correct for all three halogens, chlorine, bromine
and iodine?
1 They all form hydrides that are strong acids in aqueous solution
2 They all react with aqueous sodium hydroxide to form oxo anions
3 They all need to gain one electron to fill completely the p orbitals of their outer shells.
4. For the sequence hydrogen chloride, hydrogen bromide and hydrogen iodide, there is an
increase in
1 thermal stability
2 bond length
3 case of oxidation
5 Which suggestions concerning the element astatine (proton number 85) are consistent
with its position in Group VII?
1 The element is a solid at room temperature and pressure
2 Hydrogen astatide is less stable to heat than hydrogen iodide
3 Silver astitide issoluble in aqueous ammonia
6. Which statements about the trends in the properties of the halogens are correct?
1 The electronegativity decreases on descending the group
2 The volatility decreases on descending the group
3 Their reactivity as oxidisding agents decreases on descending the group
7. The use of the Data Booklet is relevant on this question.

In the sequence HCI – HBr – HI, which statements are correct?
1 The enthalpy change of formation becomes less exothermic
2 The polarity of the hydrogen halide molecule increases
3 The thermal stability of the hydrogen halide increases
8. The cyanide ion CN- closely resembles CI- in its chemical behaviour
On the basis, which properties of compounds containing cyanide can be expected?
1 AgCN is insoluble in water but soluble in aqueous ammonia
2 HCn dissolves in water, ionizes and forms an acidic solution
3 NaCN reacts with concentrated sulphuric acid to produce HCN gas
9. Which sodium salts form a precipitate when AgNO3(aq) followed by dilute NH3 (aq) is
added to its aquoues solution?
1 chloride
2 bromide
3 iodide
10. Which properties of the hydrogen halides because as Group VII is descended?
1 bond energy of the hydrogen – halogen bound
2 thermal stability
3 boiling point
11. Why is the addition of concentrated sulphuric acid to solid potassium iodide unsuitable
for the preparation of hydrogen iodide?
1 Hydrogen iodide is not displaced by sulphuric acid
2 Iodide ions are oxidized to iodine
3 The product is contaminated by sulphur compounds
12 Which quantities are greater for fluorine than chlorine?

1 standard electrode potential Eø for X2/ 2X-
2 boiling point of the element X2
3 ionic radius of the X- ion
SECTION C
1. State what you would observe in each of the following experiments. Explain these
observations with the aid of the Data Booklet where appropriate.
a). Solid iodine is shaken with aqueous potassium iodide aqueous sodium thiosulphate is
then added.
b). Aqueous iron (III) sulphate is added to aqueous potassium hydroxide is then added.
c). Aqueous chlorine is added to aqueous iron (II) sulphate and aqueous sodium hydroxide is
then added
d). Chlorine is passed into aqueous sodium hydroxide at room temperature and the mixture is
then heated.
2. When chlorine is bubbled through a concentrated aqueous solution of ammonium

chloride, a yellow oily liquid, nitrogen trichloride, NCI3, is formed, together with a
solution of hydrochloric acid. Nitrogen trichloride is hydrolysed by aqueous sodium
hydroxide, producing ammonia gas and a solution of sodium chlorate (I).
a). Write balanced equations for the formation and hydrolysis of nitrogen trichloride. (2)
b). Draw the shape of the nitrogen trichloride, molecule. (2)
3a). State two compounds ofchlorine, other than sodium chloride,with large scale uses and
describe one such use for each.
b). Explain the chemistry that is occurring during the following series of reactions that all
take place under aqueous conditions.
When sodium chloride is added to silver nitrate, a white precipitate forms which
dissolves in an excess of dilute ammonia. The subsequent addition of sodium bromide to
this latter solution causes the precipitation of a cream coloured solid
Suggest why this latter precipitate dissolves when sodium cyanide is added. (8)
4a). Describe the reactions that occur when chlorine is bubbled through (i) cold, (ii) hot,
aqueous sodium hydroxide.
Write equations and explain how the oxidation number of chlorine changes during these
reactions. What observation would make it clear that the chlorine had reacted? (5)
b). When chlorine is bubbled through a solution of iodine in not aqueous sodium hydroxide,
the two halogens react in the CI2: I2 ratio of 7:1, forming a white precipitate A and a
solutions of sodium chloride A has the following composition by mass:
Na, 6.9% I, 46.7%
H 1.1% O, 35.3%
Calculate the empirical formula of A and thus deduce the balanced equation for the
reaction. What is the oxidation number of iodine in A? (5)
a).i. Explain briefly why the addition ofchlorine in drinking water is of great importance.
ii). Explain, with the aid of an equation (ionic or otherwise), why the smell ofchlorine
disappears when aqueous chlorine is made alkaline. (4)
6a). Describe and explain the relative thermal stabilities the halogen hydrides.
b). One major use of chlorine is in the manufacture sodium chlorate (I), used in solution as a
household bleach. Describe the reaction you could use in laboratory to make a solution
that contains sodium chlorate(I). (3)
c). Acidified aqueous potassium bromate (V), KBrO3, reacts with hydrogen sulphide, H2S, to
give a precipitate of sulphur and an orange red solution. On shaking the solution with
trichioethane, the colour is transferred to the organic layer.
Describe the type of reaction taking place and suggest an identity for the orange red
product. Construct a balanced equation for the reaction. (3)
7a). Describe and explain the variation in volatility of the elements in Group VII. (3)
b). How does a study of bond energies (see Data Booklet) help to explain the trends
observed in the relative thermal stabilities or the hydrides or the Group VII elements?
c). The carbon monoxide in a sample of polluted air can readily be determined by passing it
over solid iodine (V) oxide. I2O3 to give carbon dioxide and iodine.
i). Write a balanced equation for the reaction between carbon monoxide and iodine (V)
oxide. (1)
The iodine produced is removed and titrated with aqueous sodium thiosulphate:
2Na2S2O3 + I2 Na2S4O6 + 2NaI
A 1.0 dm3 sample of air produced iodine that required 20.0 cm3 of 0.10 dm-3 sodium thiosulphate
to discharge the iodine colour.
ii). Calculate the mass of carbon monoxide in this sample of polluted air. (2)
8a). How do the chloride, bromide and iodide ions differ in their reactions with
i). silver nitrate, followed by aqueous ammonia
ii). Concentrated sulphuric acid?
In each case, suggest the products of the reaction and write equations, where appropriate.
(7)
b). What explanations can you offer for the differences in their reactions? (3)
9a). Outline the process by which chlorine is manufactured from brine. (2)
b). Describe how chlorine reacts with
i). hot, aqueous sodium hydroxide
ii). aqueous potassium bromide
iii). Ethane
In each case, describe what is seen, write an equation and identify the type of reaction
occurring. (8)
10a). The elements of Group VII are all oxidizing agents, but some are more strongly oxidizing
than others.
Illustrate this statements by quoting suitable Eø values from the Data Booklet and by
describing and explaining
i). the reactions of the elements with hydrogen, and the thermal stabilities of the resulting
hydrides.
ii). the reactions of the elements with reducing agents such as sodium thiosulphate and iron
(II) ions. (7)
b). Bromine is obtained from the sodium bromide dissolved in sea water by
passing chlorine into the sea water at pH 3.5
II blowing out the bromine with air and absorbing it in aqueous sodium carbonate
III acidifying the solution and distilling out the bromine
i). Write an equation for the reaction in step I

ii). Step II produces a solution of sodium bromate (V), NaBrO3, and sodium bromide in the
molar ratio 1: 5
Construct an equation for the formation of bromine in step III. (3)
11a). Describe the physical states and the solours of chlorine, bromine and iodine at room
temperature, and explain the observed trend in their volalities. (5)
b). Describe what is observed when each of the halide ions CI-, Br- and I- reacts with
aqueous silver nitrate followed by aqueous ammonia (dilute and concentrated). (5)
c). During the process of „fixing‟ a photographic print, unreacted silver bromide on the paper
is dissolved in aqueous sodium thiosulphate, Na2S2O3. Aqueous sodium thiosulphate also
dissolves silver chloride and silver iodide.
By considering this information together with the results you have described in part (b)
suggest, with reasons, the relative strengths as ligands of thiosulphate ions, water and
ammonia. (2)
12. Potassium chlorate (V), KCIO3, is widely used in fireworks and match heads. It
decomposes when heated with a catalyst to form potassium chloride and oxygen.
a)i. Construct an equation for this decompositions of potassium chlorate (V). (1)
b. i). Suggest why potassium chlorate (V) is used in fireworks and match heads.
ii). Suggest one substance which could be used as the combustile material in fireworks or
match heads. (2)
c). How can potassium chlorate (V) be obtained from chlorine? Illustrate your answer with
an equation. (2)
13. Hydrogen iodide can be prepared by adding water to a mixture of red phosphorous and
iodide, and then warming gently.
a). Construct the following equations:
i). phosphorous and iodine forming phosphorous tri- iodide
ii). phosphorous tri- iodide and water reactiong to form hydrogen iodide and phosphoric (III)
acid, H3PO3. (2)
b). What would you expect to see when hydrogen iodide reacts with:
i). aqueous silver nitrate, followed by aqueous ammonia
ii). warm concentrated sulphuric acid? (3)
14. Bromine has been obtained from sea salt for a number of years. for simplification, sea
salt can be considered to be sodium chloride containing some sodium bromide.
One early method of obtaining bromine is outlined below
Chlorine intense separate with yellow

Sea salt A yellow either solution
Colour B in either
Cold aqueous
Other potassium C
Recycled hydroxide
Two colourless
Layers
Red fumes
Which condense warm with acid white aqueous layer
To a red liquid D and paste is concentrated
(bromine)
a)i. What causes the yellow colour produced in A?

ii). Write an equation for the reaction in A. (1)
b). Either is an organic solvent immiscible with water. Explain why the yellow substance
dissolves in the ether in B but the salt does not dissolve in ether. (2)
c). Suggest an equation for reaction C (1)
d). Suggest an equation for reaction D, the reaction of acid on the products of reaction C.
15a). The elements of Group VII show clear trends in both the H- X bond energy and the Eø
values for ½ X2 (aq) / X- (aq), where X = CI, Br, I.
Use relevant data from the Data Booklet to describe and explain.
i). the reactions of the halide ions with concentrated sulphuric acid
ii). the action of heat on the hydrogen halitics
iii). The reaction of the elements with aqueous sodium thiosulphate
Give an equation for any reaction that occurs. (8)
16a)i. State three different substances in everyday or industrial use which contain chlorine.
First substance…………………..
Second substance……………….
Third substance……………….
ii). For each substance, state one use and explain how the use depends on a relevant property
of the substance. (5)
b). Comment on any problems which arise from the disposal of materials which contain
chlorine. (2)
17a). When spearked, hydrogen reacts explosively and completely with chlorine, but iodine it
reacts only slowly, and reaches an equilibrium.
Write equations for the reactions that occur, and explain the difference in extent of
reaction in terms of relevant bond energy values. (4)
b). Sodium chloride and sodium bromide react differently when warmed with concentrated
sulphuric acid.
Describe what you would observe when these reactions are carried out, write equations
for the two reactions and suggest an explanation for these different reactions. (5)
c). Chlorine – containing bleaches are usually made by reacting chlorine gas with cold
aqueous sodium hydroxide.
State the produces of this reaction, and explain what different reaction occurs with hot
concentrated sodium hydroxide. Write equations for the reactions involved. (3)
18i). When concentrated sulphuric acid is warmed with solid chloride, misty fumes are
produced. Identify the fumes
Write an equation for the reaction.
ii). When concentrated sulphuric acid is warmed with solid sodium iodide, purple fumes are
produced.
Identify the fumes (3)
19. In 1819, the element fluorine was known to exist but had not been isolated. The mineral
fluorspar, which contained calcium fluoride, CaF2, had many properties similar to those
of other calcium halides.
a). What type of bonding is present in calcium fluoride? (1)
b). When calcium fluoride reacts with concentrated sulphuric acid, gaseous hydrogen
fluoride is produced. A similar reaction occurs with calcium chloride but with calcium
bromide, bromine is formed.
i). Write an equation for the reaction of calcium fluoride with concentrated sulphuric acid.
ii). Why, when reacted with concentrated sulphuric acid, does calcium bromide form
bromine whereas calcium chloride forms hydrogen chloride?
iii). Suggest a possible reaction product of the concentrated sulphuric acid in the reaction (ii)
above. (3)
c). Flouride ions are often present in natural waters. They may be added to domestic water
supplies because they help to prevent tooth decay. They strengthen tooth enamel by
converting the hydroxyapatite, Ca3(PO4)2+ Ca(OH)2, present in tooth enamel, into
flouroapatite, Ca3(PO4)2- CaF2.
Suggest why hydroxyapatite is soluble in the acids present in food whereas flouroapatite
is not. (2)
20a). Describe and explain how the thermal stability of the hydrogen halides varies down
Group VII. (3)
b). Describe what you would see if chlorine water is added to aqueous sodium bromide.
Write an equation for the reaction. (2)
c). When chlorine is bubbled through an aqueous solution containing sodium hydroxide and
sodium bromide, bromide ions are oxidized to a bromine containing oxyanion. Careful
addition of aqueous silver nitrate to the resulting solution precipitates 4.31g of AgCI.
When this precipitates is filtered off, and more silver nitrate solution added. 1.18g of a
cream solid is produced. The solid had the following composition by mass
Ag, 45.8% Br 33.9% O 20.3%
i). Calculate the formula of the cream solid. (2)

ii). Calculate the number of moles of cream solid and of silver chloride formed. (2)
iii). Construct a balanced equation for the reaction between chlorine, sodium bromide and
sodium hydroxide. (1)
ANSWERS
SECTION A
1. D 2. A 3. D 4. D 5. C
6. A 7. D 8. B 9. A 10. C
11. D 12. B 13. C 14. A 15. D
16. D 17. D 18. A 19. C 20. D
21. B
SECTION B
1. C 2. E 3. A 4. C 5. B
6. A 7. D 8. A 9. C 10. B
11. C 12. D
SECTION C
4. A = Na2H3IO6 oxidation no = +7
7 0.140g
20. AgBrO3
n(AgCI) = 0.03 mol
n(cream solid) = 5 x 10-3 mol
TOPIC 9.4
AN INTRODUCTION TO THE CHEMISTRY OF TRANSITION
ELEMENTS
SECTION A
1. A crystalline salt Z was dissolved in water and then aqueous sodium hydroxide was added
until present in an excess. A white precipitate was formed, which turned brown on exposure
to the air.
Which one of the following could be Z?
a. AI2 (SO4)3
b. MnSO4
c. NiSO4
d. FeSO4
e. Fe2(SO4)
2. An aqueous solution containing a mixture of copper (II), iron (II) and lead (II) ions was
treated with an excess of aqueous ammonia. What precipitate was left by this reaction?
a. copper (II) hydroxide only
b. iron (II) hydroxide only
c. lead (II) hydroxide only
d. copper (II) hydroxide and iron (II) hydroxide
e. iron (II) hydroxide and lead (II) hydroxide
3. Platinun (IV) chloride combines with ammonia to form compounds in which the co-
ordination number of platinum is 6. A formula unit of one of the compounds contains a
cation and only two chloride ions.
What is the formula of this compound?
a. Pt(NH3)6 CI4
b. Pt(NH3)5CI4
c. Pt(NH3)4CI4
d. Pt(NH3)3 CI4
e. Pt(NH3)3CI2
4. The table shows the possible oxidation states fo five d- block elements in the Periodic
Table. (The elements are represented by letters which are not their symbols.)
Element possible oxidation numbers
P - - 3 - - - -
Q - 2 3 4 - - -
R 1 2 3 4 5 - -
S - - 3 4 5 6 -
T - 2 - 4 5 6 7
Which of the following ions is likely to exist?

a. PO2+
b. QO-3
c. RO24
d. SO4-
e. TO2+2
5. Titanium (IV) oxide is widely used in the paint industry as a white pigment. It is soluble in hot
concentrated sulphuric acid according to the equation below:
TiO2 + H2SO4 (TiO)2+ + SO2-4 + + H2O
Which of the following describes the nature of this reaction?
a. acid base
b. complex ion formation
c. dehydration
d. dehydration
e. redox
6. Iron has a proton (atomic) number of 26.

What is the electronic configuration of the iron cation which can form the complex ion
[Fe(CN)6]4- ? [(AR) = 1s2 2s2 2p2 3s2 3p6]
a. (Ar) 3d3 4S2
b. (Ar) 3d4 4s2
c. (Ar) 3d5 4s0
d. (Ar) 3d6 4s0
e. (Ar) 3d6 4s2
7. Letters written on paper using aqueous ammonium thiocyanate are invisible until tured
blond-red by brushing the paper with aqueous iron (III) chloride. If the ammonium
thiocyanate is first made alkaline, the letters are orange and less clear.
Which of the following substances, when formed on the paper in these reactions, best
explains these observations?
With aqueous ammonium thiocyanate with alkaline aqueous ammonium
Thiocyanate
a. Fe – NH3 complex Fe (OH)3
b. Fe- CNS- complex Fe- NH3 complex
c. Fe- CNS- complex Fe (OH)3
d. Fe- CNS- complex Fe- OH- complex
8. Which species does not acts as a ligand in the formation of complexes?

a. CH3NH2
b. CI-
c. NH4+
d. OH-
9. A compound of chromium with the general formula CrCI3 - 6H2O forms an aqueous
solution. When this solution is treated with an excess of aqueous silver nitrate. Only one
third of the total chloride present is precipitated as AgCI.
What represents the structure of the chromium ion present in the original compound?
a. Cr3+ (aq)
b. (CR[H2O]6)3+
c. (Cr[H2O]5CI)2+
d. (Cr [H2O]4 CI2)+
10. The following data refer to copper as a typical transition element and to calcium as an s-
block element.
For which property are the data under the correct element?
Property Copper Calcium
A Density/ g cm-3 8.92 1.54
B Electrical 9.6 85
conductivity / relative
units
C Melting point/ 0C 810 1083
D Metallic radius/ nm 0.197 0.117
11. For which transition metal does its ground state atom have an unpaired electron in an s
orbital?
a. chromium
b. cobalt
c. iron
d. manganese
12. Which ion produces the dark blue colour of the solution formed when excess of ammonia
is added to a solution of copper (II) sulphate?
a. [Cu(NH3)4]2+
b. [Cu (NH4)2]4+
c. [Cu (H2O)4] 2+
d. [Cu(OH)4 ]2-
13. Which of the following ions contains five unpaired d- electrons?

a. Cr3+
b. Fe3+
c. Mn3+
d. Ni2+
14. Titanium has the electronic structure 1s2 2s2 2p0 3s2 3p0 3d2 4s2
Which titanium compound is unlikely to exist?

a. K2TiO4
b. K3TiF6
c. TiCI3
d. TiO
15. A precipitate of copper (II) hydroxide dissolves in concentrated aqueous ammonia due to
the formation of a complex ion.
Which complex ion is formed?
a. [Cu(NH3)2]2+
b. [Cu(NH3)4]2+
c. Cu(NH3)4 (OH)2
d. [Cu(NH4)4] 2+
16. When aqueous ammonia ia edded to aqueous copper (II) sulphate without shaking, the
test tube has the appearance shown.
What is the formula of the pale blue solid in the central band?
a. [Cu(NH3)4]2+ SO2-4
b. [Cu(H2O)2+ SO2-4
c. [Cu (NH3)4] 2+ (OH-) 2
d. (NH4)2 SO4
17. Which statement concerning the transition metals is correct?
a. They are the only metals of which the anhydrous chlorides have covalent bonds.
b. They are theonly metals which give coloured ions in an aqueous solution
c. They are the only metals which have more than one valency (oxidation state)
d. They are the only metals with a complete 4s orbital in their atoms
18. When drops of NH3 (aq) are added to Cu (NO3)2 (aq), a pale blue precipitate is formed.
This precipitate dissolves when an excess of NH3(aq) is added, forming a deep blue
solution.
Which process does not occur in this sequence?
a. dative bond formation
b. formation of a complex ion
c. precipitation of copper (II) hydroxide
d. reduction of Cu2+ ions
SECTION B
may be correct.
The responses A to D should be selected on the basis of
A B C D
correct correct
1. In which of the following chemical reactions does the transition metal compound behave
as a catalyst?
1 the formation of ethanol iron ethanol, using acidified potassium dichromate (VI)
2 the formation of oxygen from hydrogen peroxide, using iron (III) hydroxide
3 the chlorination of benzene, using chlorine and iron (III) chloride
2. The hexa- aquairon (III) ion hydrolyses as shown

[Fe (H2O)6]3+ (aq) + H2O (I) [Fe(H2O)5 OH]2+ (aq) + H3O+ (aq)
1 The corresponding iron(II) ion, [Fe(H2O)6]2+, is less likely to undergo hydrolysis.
2 The iron undergoes a change in oxidation state
3 This hydrolysis is favoured by low pH values
3. The elements with the outer electronic structure 3d5 4s2 will be expected to
1 form coloured ions
2 form complex compounds
3 have a lowmelting point
4. A reaction complex ion, Z, is formed in the following reaction

Fe (H2O)63+ + SCN- (Fe(H2O)5 SCN)2+ + H2O
The formula of the complex ion can be determined by mixing equimolar solutions in varying
proportions and then using a colorimeter to analyse the intensities of the colour produced.
Which of the following observations is correct?
1 Ion Z is red in colour
2 The maximum colour intensity is achieved with equal volumes of the two solutions
3 Low concentrations of iron (III) ions can be estimated by this method.
The exhaust systems of most new cars are fitted with catalytic converse that contain transition
metals as catalysts to decrease the emission of atmospheric pollutants. Platinum and polaadium
are the two most common elements used. They come below nickel in the Periodic Table.
Which properties are nickel, palladium and platinum likely in have in common?
1 variable oxidation states
2 high melting points
3 similar atomic radii
The table contains data for three elements.

Which of the elements are transition metals?
Element mp/ 0C Density/ g cm-3
1 1535 7.86
2 660 2.70
3 328 11.34
SECTION C
1. Give three characteristic chemical properties of the d- block (transition) elements,
illustrating your answers with reference to iron.
b). Explain each of the following observations as fully as you can

i). When aqueous sodium hydroxide is added to aqueous iron (II) sulphate a green
precipitate is obtained, but when aqueous sodium hydroxide is added to aqueous sodium
hexacynanoferrate (II) no precipitate is obtained. (3)
ii). Aqueous iron (III) sulphate oxidizes sodium iodine to iodine to sodium iodide. (4)
iii). When aqueous iron (II) sulphate is boiled with an excess of sodium cyanide a yellow
solution is produced, from which pale yellow crystals can be obtained by evaporation.
These crystals contain 30.26% sodium, 18.42% iron, 23.68% carbon and 27.63%
nitrogen by mass. Acidification of the yellow solution, followed by the passage of
chlorine, gives a red solution, from which dark red crystals can be obtained by
evaporation. These crystals contain 24.56% sodium, 19.93% iron, 25.63% carbon and
29.89% nitrogen by mass.
2. The densities of the elements K to Cu are plotted in the sketch. Potassium has the same
crystal structure at sodium.
Suggest reasons which explainb each of the following:

i). potassium has a low density
ii). copper has a high density
iii). The density of the elements increase along the sequence as far as copper. (3)
b). State two physical properties of copper (other than density) which are markedly different
from those of sodium or potassium. (2)
3. The apparatus and reagents shown in the diagram are used to prepare chromium (II)
ethanoate.
All the acid is added to the dischromate solution and the zinc in the flask. The tap funnel is left
open. The flask is shaken and the chromium soon reaches the Cr3+ state.
a).i. What is the colour of the aqueous potassium dichromate (VI)
ii. What is the colour of Cr3+ (aq)?
iii. Write balanced equations (ionic or otherwise) for the two reactions which take place in
the flask.
iv. Suggest a reason why the top funnel is left open. (6)
3 The colour in the flask subsequently changes as Cr2+ (aq) is produced.

a). Use the redox potentials on pages 6 and 7 of the Data Booklet to show why the reduction
of Cr3+ to Cr2+ would be expected to proceed. (2)
The tap funnel is thenj closed and the liquid in the flask is forced over into tube
containing the aqueous sodium ethanoate.
c). What causes the liquid to be forced over into the tube? (1)
A red precipitate of chromium (II) ethanoate is produced.
d). What property of this compound would indicate that chromium has d- block character?
4. Chromium (atomic number 24) is a d- block element. Its compound are useful reagents in
the laboratory.
a)i. Using s, p and d notation for electron energy levels, write the electronic configuration of
the Cr3+ ion.
ii. Comment briefly on the fact that the Cr3+ (aq) ion is coloured.
Chromium (VI) is found in the chromate (VI) ion and the dichromate (VI) ion.
b)i. State one reason why the Cr6+ (aq) ion does not exist but CrO42- (aq) ions are formed
instead.
ii. Write an equation for the effect of acid on the aqueous chromate (VI) ion. (3)
5a). What do you understand by the term transition element, ligand and complex ion? (3)
b). Iron is an important component of several biological molecules, especially haemoglobin.
i). What is the function of haemoglobin in the body, and how does it carry out this function?
(3)
ii). Crabon monoxide acts as a poison through its interaction with haemoglobin. Describe
this interaction and discuss why carbon monoxide is so much poisonous than carbon
dioxide. (3)
c). A patient suffering from carbon monoxide poisoning can be treated by being given pure
oxygen to breathe. Suggest a reason why this treatment is effective.
6a). State, and explain in terms of electrode structure, three characteristic properties of
transition metals or their compounds. (3)
b). Predict and explain the change in colour caused by adding the following substances to
separate portions of aqueous iron (III) chloride
i). aqueous potassium thiocyanate, KSCN
ii). powdered zinc (4)
c). Comment on the values of the seconf, third and fourth ionization energies of chromium,
manganese and iron, as given in the Data Booklet. (3)
7a). What do you understand by theh term transition element? State two properties of iron or
its compounds that typify it as a transition element. (3)
b). By quoting and using relevant Eø values from the Data Booklet, explain why
i). the green precipitate obtained when aqueous sodium hydroxide is added to aqueous iron
(II) sulphate rapidly turns brown on exposure to the air. (4)
ii). The blue solution, containing Cr2+ (aq), obtained by dissolving chromium metal in dilute
sulphuric acid slowly turns green even in the absence of air. (3)
8. Suggest an explanation for the difference in the Eø values between

Mr2+ + 2e- M
And
(M[NH3]6)2+ + 2e- M + 6NH3
where M is Co or Ni. (2)

9a). Give an account of the following points concerning the chemistries of aluminium and
iron:
i). the charges on, and colours of, their common cations (3)
ii). the reactions of aluminium oxide with aqueous sodium hydroxide and with hydrochloric
acid. (3)
iii). The reactions between aqueous potassium thiocyanate and aqueous solutions of iron salts.
(2)
In your answer, include equations for all the reactions you describe and relate the above
properties of aluminium and iron to the electronic structures and sizes of their ions.
10a). Using chromium and iron as examples, describes four physical or chemical properties in
which transition metals and their compounds differ from those of magnesium, aluminium
and their compounds. (6)
b)i. Suggest the function of haemoglobin in the body, and how it carries out this function. (2)
ii). Name one poison that can affect haemoglobin and describe how it reacts. (2)
11. What is the colour of the chromate (VI) ion?

ii). What colour is formed when chromate (VI) ions are acidified?
iii). By using relevant redox potentials in the Data Booklet, predict which oxidation state of
chromium will eventually be formed when acidified chromium (VI) ions are treated with
an excess of zinc. Give your reasoning. (4)
12. The transition metals have a tendency to vary in their oxidation states, whereas s- block
elements such as calcium do not.
a). Suggest an explanation for this difference. (2)
b). For each of the elements chromium and iron,
i). choose two common oxidation states and, for each one, write the formula of a compound
that contains the element in that oxidation state.
ii). by using appropriate data from the Data Booklet, choose a reducing agent (a different one
in each case) that can reduce the higher oxidation state to the lower.
Write a balanced equation for each reaction. (8)
13. Articles made from copper and its alloys can be cleaned of their oxide tarnish by the use
of metal polishes containing aqueous ammonia and an abrasive.
a)i. Name a common copper- containing alloy, and state the other major alloying metal in it.
ii). Explain how adding this other alloying metal causes a change in one physical property of
the copper. (3)
b). Assuming the tarnish contains copper (II) ions, suggest – with an equation- how the
aqueous ammonia might react with the tarnish, and suggest the colour of the resulting
solution. (3)
c). Dilute hydrochloric acid can be used to clean pure copper but not copper containing
alloys because the other metal often reacts with the acid.
By referring to the Data Booklet, explain why copper does not react with dilute
hydrochloric acid, whereas the other metal you have stated in (a) does. (3)
d). Copper metal does, however, react with concentrated nitric acid, to give a solution of
copper (II) nitrite and an oxide of nitrogen (no hydrogen is evolved). By referring to the
Data Booklet, construct a balanced equation for this reaction and calculate the overall Eø
14. Chromium is used extensively in steel alloys. It is extracted from its ore chromite,
FeCr2O4, which contains chromium in the +3 oxidation state.
a). Give the electron configuration of the elements iron and chromium (after the argon
configuration).
Iron (Ar)………………………….
Chromium (Ar)………. (1)
b). What is the oxidation state of iron in chromite? (1)

Chromium is produced in two forms – ferrochrome and pure chromium metal.
c). To produce ferrochrome, chromite is reduced with carbon at a high temperature.
FeCr2O4 + 4C Fe + 2Cr + 4CO
i). Suggest how environmental problems posed by the carbon monoxide produced in the
process can be minimized .
ii). Calculate the volume of CO, measured at room temperature and pressure, that is
produced when 2.24kg of chromite is reduced.
Iii). Ferrochrome is used to make stainless steel. Suggest one property chromium brings to the
iron to make it useful as cutlery. (4)
15a). Titanium is an important transition metal. The metal itself is a component of many high
strength low weight alloys, and its oxide is used as an opaque agent in many paints and
pigments.
i). Write out the electronic configuration of the titanium atom.
ii). Titanium forms two chlorides. Suggest possible formulae for them. (2)
b). Anhydrous copper sulphate, CuSO4(s), is a white powder that readily dissolves in water.
i). Describe and explain what is seen when CuSO4(s) is stirred with water.
ii). Describe and explain the final colour change seen when an excess of NH3(aq) is added to
CuSO4 (aq). (4)
16a). Explain way so many transition element complexes are coloured. (3)
b). Anhydrous copper (II) sulphate, CuSO4(s), is a white powder which readily dissolves in
water.
Describe and explain what is seen when CuSO4(s) is stirred with water, followed by the
addition of NH3(aq) until in excess. (3)
c). „Blueprints,‟ the detailed plans for architectural or engineering projects, were made in the
19th century by forming the insoluble complex “Prussion Blue” on sensitized paper.
Prussian Ble is the name given to the deep blue precipitate formed by adding a solution of
Fe3+ (aq) to a solution of [Fe(CN)6]4- (aq).
i). Construct a balanced equation for this reaction. (1)
ii). Suggest a reason for the difference between the following redox potentials.
[Fe (H2O)6] 3+ + e- [Fe(H2O)6]2+ Eø = +0.77V

[Fe(CN)6]3- + o- [Fe (CN)6]4- Eø = +0.36V
iii). Suggest why the red colour of a solution of [Fe(SCN) (H2O)5]2+ ions is destroyed by
adding F-(aq) ions. (1)
ANSWERS
SECTION A
1. B 2. E 3. C 4. E 5. A
6. D 7. C 8. C 9. D 10. A
11. A 12. A 13. B 14. A 15. B
16. C 17. B 18. D
SECTION B
1. C 2. D 3. B 4. A 5. B
6. D
SECTION C
3. +0.35 volts
13. +0.47 V
14.c.ii. 960 dm3
TOPIC 9.5 NITROGEN AND SULPHUR

SECTION A
1. When dilute hydrochloric acid is added to aqueous solution of a compound X, a colourless
gas is evolved which rapidly decolourises acidified, aqueous potassium manganate (VII). Which
one of the following compounds could be X?
a. sodium carbonate
b. sodium chlorate (I)
c. sodium nitric
d. sodium sulphate
e. sodium sulphate
2. A compound G gave a gas when heated with an excess of aqueous sodium hydroxide. When
no more gas was evolved, the resulting alkaline solution was heated with aluminium powder and
the same gas was given off. Which one of the following was G?
a. CO [NH2]2
b. NH2CH2CONH2
c. NaNH2
d. NH4NO3
e. NO2
NH2
3. Which one of the following is a fertilizer which could be used as an explosive?
a. Ca(H2PO4)2
b. K2SO4
c. NH4NO3
d. (NH4)2 SO4
e. Ca (OH)2
4. An acid impurity is removed from the gaseous emissions of a coal fired power station by
passing them through an aqueous suspension of a mineral followed by oxidation.
Which of the following combinations satisfies these conditions?
Acidic impurity mineral oxidized product
a. NO2 MgCO3 Mg(NO2)2
b. P4O6 Ca(OH)2 Ca(PO4)2
c. SiO2 CaO CaSiO3
d. SO2 CaCO3 CaSO4
e. SO3 MgCO3 MgSO4
5. Which of the following reagents, when mixed and heated with ammonium sulphate,
liberates ammonia?
a. aqueous bromine
b. dilute hydrochloric acid
c. limewater
d. nitrous acid
e. acidified potassium dichromate (VI)
6. When ammonia is manufactured by the Haber process, about 10% of the unreacted gases
consists of argon, which may be extracted commercially from this mixture.
Which methods could be used for this separation?
a. absorption of the hydrogen on platinum
b. fractional distillation of theli liquefied unreacted gases
c. reacting the hydrogen catalytically with oxygen and removal of the water formed
d. reacting the hydrogen by sparking with oxygen and removal of the water formed
e. recycling the reaction mixture through the Haber plant unti only argon remains.
7. Samples of a compound X are heated seperatley with aqueous sodium hydroxide and
with concentrated sulphuric acid. The two gases that are evolved in these reactions re-
form the original compound on mixing.
Which of the following could be X?
a. CH3CO2C2H5
b. NH2CH2CO2CH3
c. NH4CI
d. NH4I
e. (NH4)2SO4
8. The diagram represents an unsuccessful attempt to prepare and collect sulphur dioxide.
Which modification would make the experiment successful?

a. omitting flask P entirely
b. omitting flask Q entirely
c. using dilute sulphuric acid instead of hydrochloric acid
d. using water in flask P instead of aqueous potassium hydroxide
e. collecting by upward delivery
9. Nitrogen is frequently used as an inert atmosphere because it is an unreactive gas.

Which is the best explanation of this unreactivity?
a. Its molecule contains a triple bond
b. The bond energy of the molecule is high (994 kJ mol-1)
c. The bond in its molecule is very short (0.110nm)
d. The three p orbitals of nitrogen are half filled
10. Which gas is present in the exhaust fumes of a car engine in a much greater amount than
any other gas?
a. carbon dioxide
b. carbon monoxide
c. nitrogen
d. water vapour
11. A sales leaflet claims that „applications of a sodium of ammonium sulphate, which is
acidic, improve the growth of acid- loving rhododendron bushes both by increasing the
availability of nitrogen and also by increasing the pH of the soil‟.
What is wrong with this statement?
a. Aqueous ammonium sulphate is not acidic.
b. Ammonium sulphate does not dissolve in water.
c. To be a fertilizer, nitrogen is needed in its oxidized form (nitrate) and not its reduced
form (ammonium).
d. The pH of the soil will be reduced, not increased
13. Which reaction of ammonia does not involve the non- bonding pair of electrons on the
nitrogen atom?
a. NH3(g) + CH3I (g) CH3NH3+I- (s)
b. NH3(g) + BCI(g) NH4CI(s)
c. 2NH3(I) + 2Na(s) 2NaNH2(s) + H2(g)
d. 2NH3(aq) + Ag+ (aq) [Ag(NH3)2]+ (aq)
In which reaction of ammonia has the nitrogen atom acted as a base?
NH2OH
2 1 3
NH2- NH3 NH4+
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. 3 only
d. 1and 2 only
15. Lime, CaO is used to reduce the acidity of soil, and ammonium sulphate is a nitrogenous
fertilizer. Why cannot they be used in a mixed form?
a. The dry mixture is explosive

b. CaSO4 formed on mixing, causes hard water
c. When dampened ammonia is given off
d. Sulphuric acid will form
16. Which substance, sometimes present in car exhaust fumes, can react with nitrogen
monoxide, also in the fumes, to form non- poisonous products?
a. Carbon monoxide
b. oxygen
c. tetraethyl lead
d. water vapour
17. Nitrates are commonly added to soils by means of nitrogenous fertilizers but can be
leached out of the soil. Soils can, however, retain nitrogen if the nitrate is converted into
ammonium ions.
Which conditions in the soil would improve the production and retention of ammonium ions?
a. acidic oxidising
b. acidic and reducing
c. neutral and reducing
d. alkaline and oxidizing
19. The gaseous oxides of nitrogen have positive enthalpy changes of formation.
Which factor is likely to make the most significant contribution to these enthalpy changes?
a. the high bond energy of the nitrogen molecule, N2
b. the high electron affinity of nitrogen atoms
c. the high electron affirnity of oxygen atoms
d. the similarity of the electronegativities of oxygen and nitrogen
20. Which combination of molecules and ions exists in a solution of ammonia in water?
a. ions only
b. simple molecules and hydrogen bonded molecules only
c. simple molecules, hydrogen bonded molecules and ions
d. simple molecules only
21. Which compound is an ionoic solid at room temperature, is present as ions in aqueous
solutions, and decomposes into covalent compounds when heated?
a. ammonium chloride
b. barium sulphate
c. lead (IV) chloride
d. sodium chloride
22. What is the main reason why it is difficult to form nitrogen compounds from gaseous
nitrogen?
a. All reactions of N2 are endothermic
b. The bond dissociation energy of N2 is very high
c. The first ionization energy of the nitrogen atom is very high
d. The triple bond in nitrogen is three times as strong as N – N single bond
23. What is the main reason why it is difficult to form nitrogen compounds from gaseous
nitrogen?
Which property is shown by one of these compounds, but not by the other?
a. forms acid rain
b. is a reducing agent
c. is insoluble in water
d. is used as a food preservative
24. Which descriptions of nitrogen dioxide and sulphur dioxide are correct?
Property NO2 SO2
A Colour Colourless Brown
B How formed in From buring fossil Iron car exhausts

atmospheric fuels
C How prepared Burning element in air Heating appropriate

Group II salt
D Use in food Not used As a preservative

technology
25. The substances shown can be present in the exhaust fumes of a car engine.
Which substance could contribute to „acid rain‟?
a. CO
b. C2H4
c. NO
d. PbO
26. How are oxides of nitrogen formed in a car engine?
a. oxidation of nitrogen by ethanol in petrol
b. reaction of nitrogen with oxygen
c. oxidation of nitrogen by carbon dioxide
d. reaction of nitrogen compounds in petrol with oxygen
27. Sulphur dioxide is an important food preservative.

What property makes sulphur dioxide useful in this role?
a. It is a gas
b. It is a reducing agent
c. It reacts with oxygen to form sulphur trioxide
d. It reacts with water to form acidic solution
28. Which pollutant is formed in the internal combustion engine and, if not removed by the
catalytic converter, may become involved in the formation of acid rain?
a. C
b. C8H18
c. CO
d. NO
SECTION B
may be correct.
A B C D
correct correct

1. Which of the following pairs of substances evolve ammonia when mixed in aqueous solution
and heated?
1 (NH4)2SO4 and Ca(OH)2
2 CH3CONH2 and NaOH
3 C6H5NH2 and HNO2
2. Which of the following observations about a lake on a farm could have resulted from the
farmer using too much fertilizer?
1 There is a thick layer of algae growing on part of the lake
2 The farmer no longer allows his cattle to drink water from the lake
3 The number of fish in the lake decreases year by year
4. A car burning lead free fuel has a catalytic converter fitted to its exhaust. On analysis, its
exhaust gases are shown to contain small quantities of nitrogen oxides.
Which modifications would result in lower exhaust concentrations of nitrogen oxides?
1 an increase in the surface area of the catalyst in the converter
2 an increase in the rate of flow of the exhaust gases through the conveter
3 a much higher temperature of combustion in the engine
5. Sulphur dioxide in the atmosphere can be responsible for the formation of acid rain. It
can be converted into sulphur trioxide by the action of nitrogen dioxide in a apolluted
atmosphere.
The nitrogen dioxide reacts according to the following equations.
NO2 + SO2 NO + SO2
2NO + O2 2NO2
What is the role of the nitrogen dioxide?
1 an acid
2 a homogenous catalyst
3 an oxidizing agent
7. Which operations form important stages of the industrial production of sulphuric acid?
1 The burning of sulphur to form sulphur dioxide
2 The reaction of sulphur dioxide with oxygen in the presence of Vanadium (V) oxide
catalyst
3 The dissolving of sulphur (VI) oxide in water
8. When decomposing in water, organic refuse is oxidized to form carboxylic acids. The
water becomes acidic and aquatic life destroyed.
Which additives are suitable to remove this acid pollution?
1 calcium carbonate
2 calcium hydroxide
3 potassium nitrate
9. Which elements are reasons why sulphur dioxide is used as a food preservative?
1 It is a reducing agent and therefore an anti- oxidant
2 It prevents alcohols forming sour tasting acids
3 It does not smell and therefore can be used in more than trace quantities
SECTION C
1. Sulphur dioxide is used in the food and drinks industry but is also a major atmospheric
pollutant
i). State one reason why it is used in some foods and drinks
ii). Name two sources of sulphur dioxide as an atmospheric pollutant. What are the
consequences of its presence in the atmosphere and how can its emission be controlled?
2. Nitrogen occurs in the air as diatomic molecules. It undergoes very few reactions.
a). Why is nitrogen so unreactive chemically? Describe one reaction (other than the Haber
process) in which atmospheric nitrogen takes part. (3)
b). Ammonia is a very important intermediate in the manufacture of fertilizers. Its synthesis
from nitrogen may be represented by the following equation.
N2(g) + 3H2(g) 2NH3(g) : ∆H = - 92 kJ mol-1
i). Suggest reasons why the pressures used in this process have today increased to over five
times that used seventy years ago. (3)
ii). Explain why a temperature of 4000C – 5000C is usually employed. (2)
c). Explain why aqueous ammonia has an alkaline pH. (2)
3. The combustion of petrol in cars produces various atmospheric pollutants of which

nitrogen monoxide, NO, and nitrogen dioxide, NO2 are two. They can be removed by
passing the exhaust gases through a „catalytic converter‟, which contains a filter of fine
meshed aluminium alloy coated with a platinum rhodium mixture. This decomposes the
oxides of nitrogen into their elements but requires a temperature of at least 2500C for its
efficient working. Cars fitted with catalytic converters must be run on unleaded petrol.
a). Name two other pollutants that can occur in the exhaust fumes of cars run on unleaded
petrol. (2)
b). Write equations to show how the oxides of nitrogen are formed during combustion in the
car engine. (1)
c). Explain
i). why a catalyst affects the rate of a chemical reaction
ii). why the catalyst in a catalytic converter is in the form of a fine mesh, and why it need to
be kept hot. (3)
d). Suggest a reason why leaded petrol should not be used in car engines fitted with catalytic
converters. (1)
e). Given a suitable catalyst suggest and explain a method by which the other pollutants you
have mentioned in (a) could be removed from car exhausts. (2)
4a). Heating calcium curbide in nitrogen at 1000 produces calcium cyanamide:
CaC2 + N2 CaNCN + C
Draw a dot- and – cross diagram to show the arrangement of electrons in the linear
cyanamide ion. (2)
b). Cyanamide was formerly used in fertilizers as a source of ammonia, by reaction with
water in the soil.
Construct a balanced equation to show how it is hydrolysed to give ammonia. (2)
5. Nitrogen dioxide (from car exhaust fumes) can react with sulphur dioxide (from the
burning of fossil fuels) in the presence of water in the atmosphere to produce sulphuric
acid (acid rain) and nitrogen monoxide id rapidly re-oxidised to nitrogen dioxide by
oxygen.
Construct balanced equations for these two reactions and hence suggest the role played
by nitrogen dioxide in the overall process. (3)
6a). Describe the conditions used in the Haber process for the manufacture of ammonia from
its elements. Why is the temperature used in the process often described as a
compromise? (5)
b). Ammonia and chloride react in the gas phase to give gaseous nitrogen and solid
ammonium chloride. Write a balanced equation for this reaction and explain how
ammonia is behaving both as a reducing agent and as a base. (3)
7.i. Explain why oxides of nitrogen should be eliminated from the exhaust fumes ofcar
engines. (1)
ii). Suggest one substance lilely to be present in exhaust fumes which could convert nitrogen
oxide into a harmless product in a car fitted with a catalytic converter. (1)
8. One way of decreasing „acid rain‟ is to remove sulphur dioxide from the gaseous
emissions of power stations.
a). Name a fuel used by power stations which emits sulphur dioxide on combustion. (1)
Several chemical methods for SO2 removal have been suggested.
b). One method uses a suspension of calsium carbonate and allows the calcium sulphite,
CaSO3, so proceeded to be oxidized to calcium sulphate.
i). Write an equation for the reaction of sulphur dioxide with water to produce an acidic
solution. (1)
ii). Write an equation for the reaction of this acidic solution with a suspension of calcium
carbonate. (1)
9a). Nitrogen can be obtained in the laboratory by warming a mixture of ammonium chloride
and sodium nitrite, NaNO2. Steam is also produced and a solid is left.
i). Suggest an identity for the solid and write a balanced equation for the reaction. (2)
ii). Calculate the changes in oxidation numbers of the nitrogen atoms during this reaction.
iii). A similar reaction takes place when ammonium chloride is heated with sodium nitrate.
NaNO3 but this time the only different product is an oxide of nitrogen.
Suggest a formula for this oxide and calculate the oxidation number of nitrogen in it. (2)
b). One of the main uses of nitrogen compounds is for agricultural fertilizers.
i). Name two compounds usef in this way. (1)
ii). Why it is sometimes necessary to apply nitrogen based fertilizers several times during the
growing season,whereas one application of a phosphate based fertilizers is all that is
likely to be needed? (1)
iii). What are the environmental consequences of the over use of nitrogen based fertilizers?
How do they arise? (2)
10. The percentages of nitrogen in foodstuffs gives an indication of how much protein is
present. It can be estimated by the following method.
1 the foodstuff is weighed and boiled under reflux with concentrated sulphuric acid for
some time. This converts all the nitrogen into ammonium sulphate.
II An excess of aqueous sodium hydroixide is added, and the mixture again boiled. The
liberated ammonia gas is passed into a known excess of dilute hydrochloric acid
III The unreacted hydrochloric acid is then titrated with aqueous sodium hydroxide of
known concentration
i). Write equations for the two reactions occurring in step II. (2)
ii). calculate the percentage of nitrogen in a foodstuff from the following data.
When 1.00g of the foodstuff was subjected to the above procedure, and the gases in stage
III were passed into 50.0cm3 of 0.100 mol dm-3 HCI, it was found that only 20.0 cm3 of
0.100 mol dm-3 NaOH were needed to neutralize the unreacted acid. (3)
11. One method for removing sulphur dioxide from the flue gases of coal fired power stations
is to absorb it in a slurry of magnesium oxide, to produce magnesium sulphite, MgSO3.
This is later heated to drive off the sulphur dioxide, leaving magnesium oxide which can
be recycled. The sulphur dioxide can be used to make sulphuric acid.
i). Write chemical equations for the reactions involved in the desulphurization process.
ii). Suggest an advantage that this method of flue gas desulphurization has over the
alternative method which produces gypsum. CaSO4 from a limestone slurry.
iii). Suggest why it is not possible to make direct use of the sulphur dioxide could be
recovered in this way, what is the maximum mass od sulphuric acid that could be
produced from the burning of 1 million tonnes of coal containing 1.5% of sulphur by
mass? (6)
12a)i. Why is nitrogen monoxide, NO, formed in a car engine?

ii). Explain briefly why the presence of nitrogen oxides in air is polluting. (3)
b). Construct an equation for the reaction of NO2 with water. One product is nitric acid. This
involves a change of oxidation number of the nitrogen and another compound of nitrogen
is also formed. (2)
13. Oxides of nitrogen in the atmosphere contribute to the formation of acid rain by
catalyzing the oxidation of SO2 to SO3. Write equations to show how this occurs, and
describe the type of catalysis observed here. (2)
14a). State the conditions used in the Haber process for the manufacture of ammonia from
nitrogen. (3)
Ammonia‟s main use is in the manufacture of fertilizers, either as ammonium salts or as
nitrates.
b). Wheat contains 0.75^ of nitrogen in the form of proteins. If a farmer applies a nitrate
fertilizer at the rate of 160kg of nitrogen per hectare, the yield of wheat is 8.0 tonnes per
hectare (1 tonne = 103 kg)
i). Calculate the percentage of applied nitrogen that is incorporated as nitrogen in the wheat.
ii). What might happen to the remainder of the nitrogen and what problems might this cause?
(4)
c). Describe what you would observe when aqueous ammonia is

i). shaken with solid silver chloride
ii). Added dropwise to aqueous copper (II) sulphate until there is no further reaction
In each case suggest the formulate of the products formed and a brief explanation of the
observations. (5)
15a). During the industrial manufacture of nitric acid, three processes take place:
- Ammonia and oxygen (in the form of air) are passed , a platinum – rhodium catalyst at
9000C. Nitrogen monoxide, NO and steam are formed.
- The gases are cooled and more oxygen is added, which converts the nitrogen monoxide
into nitrogen dioxide
- Finally, the nitrogen dioxide is moxed with yet more oxygen and absorbed in water,
forming nitrix acid HNO3
i). Write balanced equations for these three reactions
ii). Calculate the maximum mass of nitric acid that can be obtained from 1 tonne of ammonia
by this method.
iii). Suggest two uses for nitric acid. (8)
b. Nitrogen oxides also occur in the exhaust fumes of motor vehicles.

i). By what reaction are they found, and why does it occur in the engine?
ii). What chemical reactions occur in a catalytic converter to remove them from the exhaust?
(4)
16. The trichlorides ofnitrogen and phosphorous each react with water to give two products,
but they react in different way.
Phosphorous trichloride, PCI3, reacts to give HCI as the only chlorine containing product.
Nitrogen trichloride, NCI3 produces HOCI as the only chlorine containing product.
In each case, predict the other product and write an equation for its production. Suggest
an explanation for this difference in behaviour. (4)
17. Sulphur forms two oxides, SO2 and SO3

a). By considering both bonding and non bonding electrons, suggest shapes for these two
simple molecules. (2)
b). Sulphur trioxide is a key intermediate in the production of sulphuric acid from sulphur in
the Contact process.
Describe the reactions by which it is formed and explain how it is converted into
sulphuric acid in the later stages of the process. Write equations where appropriate and
explain why the particular conditions are used. (6)
c). Gardeners sometimes fumigate their greenhouses to rid them of pests and moulds by
burning a sulphur „candle‟. A gaseous concentration of sulphur dioxide of 50ppm (parts
per million) by volume is effective.
Calculate how many grams of sulphur a grams of sulphur a gardener needs to burn in
order to produce a concentration of 50ppm of SO2 in a greenhouse that measures 2m x
3m x 4m (Volume of 1 mol of gas = 24dm3 (0.024 m3)at r.t.p) (4)
18a). Ammonia is very soluble in water. At room temperature 100cm3 of its saturated solutions
contains 33g of NH3.
i). Suggest why ammonia is so soluble in water.
ii). Calculated the concentration in mol dm-3 of its saturated solution.
iv). Suggest the pH of its saturated solution in water and write an equation showing how this
arises.
b). The key stae in the industrial production of nitric acid is the reaction between ammonia
and oxygen over a platinum catalyst at 8000C. The products are nitric oxide (NO) and
steam.
Write a balanced equation for this reaction. (1)
c). Atmosphere oxides if nitrogen are pollutants. They are involved in the oxidation of
atmospheric sulphur dioxide.
i). Describe the role of the oxides of nitrogen in this oxidation, writing equations for the
reactions involved.
ii). Describe the environmental impact of the products of this oxidation. (5)
19. In modern plants, nearly all the SO2/ SO3 mixture is absorbed but up to 0.05% by volume
of SO2 may be allowed to pass into the atmosphere through a chimney stack.
Give two reasons why SO2 should not be discharged into the atmosphere. (2)
ANSWERS
SECTION A
1. E 2. D 3. C 4. D 5. C
6. B 7. C 8. A 9. B 10. C
11. D 12. C 13. C 14. C 15. C
16. A 17. B 18. B 19. A 20. C
21. A 22. B 23. D 24. D 25. C
26. B 27. B 28. D
SECTION B
1. B 2. A 3. A 4. D 5. C
6. B 7. B 8. B 9. B
SECTION C
10 b).ii. 4.20%
11c).iv. 4.13 x 104 tonnes
14.b. 37.5%
15a). 3.7 ton
17.c. 3.2g
18a)ii. 19.41 mol dm-3
TOPIC 9.6GROUP IV
SECTION A
1. Which of the following is a property of tin (IV) chloride?
a. it disproportionates on heating
b. it does not react with water
c. it dissolves in tetrachloromethane
d. it has a high melting point
e. it acts as an electrolyte when molten
2. The following diagrams show the structures of an element, its principle oxide and its
halide.
What could the element be?

a. aluminium
b. carbon
c. lead
d. phosphorous
e. silicon
3. Which one of the following properties would lead (IV) chloride be expected to possess?
a. high melting point
b. ionic bonding
c. stable to hydrolysis in water
d. tetrahedral molecule
e. thermally stable
4. Which of the following properties of the elements of Group IV of the Periodic Table
shows a decrease with increasing relative atomic mass?
a. the first ionization energy
b. the basic character of the oxides
c. the ionic character of the compounds
d. the stability ofte +2 oxidation state
e. the ease of hydrolysis of the tetrahalides
5. Which of the following Group IV oxides cannot be formed by the direct combination of
the element and oxygen?
a. CO2
b. SIO2
c. GeO2
d. SnO2
e. PbO2
6. Which one of the following properties increases on descending Group IV of the Perioidic
Table?
a. the acidic character of the oxides
b. the covalent character of the chlorides
c. the ionization energies of the first two electrons
d. the melting points of the elements
e. the stability of the oxidation state II
7. Why is silicon tetrachloride readily hydrolysed whereas carbon tetrachloride is not?

a. A Si- CI is more polar than a C- CI bond
b. A Si- CI is weaker than a C- CI bond
c. Silicon can use available d orbitals, whereas carbon cannot
d. The d orbitals of carbon are filled, whereas those of silicon are not
e. The carbon tetrachloride and silicon tetrachloride molecules have different shapes
8. Solder is an alloy of tin and lead. A sample of solder is heated in an excess of oxygen and
is then allowed to cool at room temperature.
Which two substances will remain?
a. Sn and PbO
b. SnO and Pb
c. SnO and Pb
d. SnO and PbO2
e. SnO2 and PbO2
9. Which of the following oxides of elements in Group IV is the moist acidic in character?
a. GeO
b. GeO2
c. PbO
d. SnO2
10. In which use of lead is it not possible to recycle the lead?

a. car batteries
b. church roofs
c. petroleum additives
d. solder
11. What would the complete combustion of silane, SIH4, in oxygen be expected to produce?
a. Si and H2O
b. SIO and H2O
c. SIO and H2O
d. SIO and H2
12. Stoppers of bottles containing SiCI4 often become sealed due to SiO2 – 2H2O being
deposited around the stopper. This is formed by the following reaction.
SiCI4 + 4H2O SiO2 + 2H2O + 4HCI
Why does this reaction occur with SICI4 and not with CCI4?
a. The atomic radius of silicon is greater than that of carbon
b. The ionization energies of silicon are lower than those of carbon
c. Silicon atoms have 3d orbitals available for bonding
d. The +4 oxidation state becomes less stable on descending Group IV
13. Which statement about the properties of the tetrachlorides of Group IV, CCI4 to SnCI4, is
correct?
a. their boiling points points decrease down the Group
b. the melting points increase down the Group
c. they are all polar molecules
d. Tin (IV) chloride is the only ionic tetrachloride
14. Tin (IV) iodide can be prepared by refluxing 0.04 mol of tin with 0.03 mol of iodine (I2)
dissolved in 50 cm3 of tetrachloromethane (boiling point, 770C)
Sn + 212 SnI4
Orange crystals of the product are obtained by filtering the hot reaction mixture and then
cooling the filtrate.
Which of the following would indicate that the reaction was complete?
a. The boiling point of the mixture is 770C

d. No more purple vapour is seen in the reaction vessel
15. Which oxide gives oxygen on being heated?
a. lead (II) oxide
b. lead (IV) oxide
c. magnesium oxide
d. silicon (IV) oxide
16. An excess of aqueous silver nitrate is added to aqueous barium chloride, and the
precipitate is removed by filtration.
What are the main ions in the filtrate?
a. Ag+ and NO-3 only
b. Ag+, Ba2+ and NO3-
c. Ba2+ and NO3- only
d. Ba2+, NO3- and CI-
17. In the Group IV elements, from C to Pb which property increases?

a. acidity of oxides
b. thermal stability of covalent chlorides
c. stability of the II oxidation state
d. stability of the IV oxidation state
SECTION B
For each of these questions in this section one or more of the three numbered statements 1 to 3
may be correct. Decide whether each of the statements is or is not correct (you may find it
difficult to be correct. The responses A to E should be selected on the basis of
A B C D E
1. Silicon carbide has a similar to diamond

Which of the following are advantages of using a silicon carbide ceramic compared with steel?
1 Silicon carbide has a higher melting point
2 Silicon carbide is more resistant to oxidation
3 Silicon carbide is less likely to deform under compression
2. In the extraction of germanium, the oxide GeO2 is chlorinated to give germanium

tetrachloride, GeCI4, which is then converted into germanium. The chloride exists as
simple covalent molecules.
Which of the following statements about germanium tetrachloride are likely to be correct?
1 It may be purified by fractionbal distillation
2 It is readily hydrolysed
3 The molten chloride can be electrolysed to give pump germanium
3. The Group IV element germanium is widely used in the manufacture of semi conductors
an other electronics components. The existence of this element in Group IV between
silicon and tin was predicted by Mendeleev some years before it was discovered.
From its position in the group, what properties of germanium may be predicted?
1 Its most stable oxide has the formula GeO2
2 The oxide GeO2 forms ions GeO2-3
3 The bonding in GeCI4 is covalent
4. Carbon monoxide burns readily in oxygen to form carbon dioxide.

What can be deduced from this information?
1 The +4 oxidation state of carbon is more stable than the 2+ state
2 The standard enthalpy change of formation of carbon dioxide is more negative than that
of carbon monoxide
3 The value of the equilibrium constant for the reaction 2CO (g) + O2(g) 2CO2(g) is
likely to be high.
5. Which of the following statements about GeCI4 are correct?

1 Its molecule is tetrahedral in shape
2 It is covalently bonded with van der Waals‟ Forces between molecules
3 It is hydrolysed by water to give hydrogen chloride as one of its products

Which of the following properties of the dioxides, XO2 of the Group IV elements from
germanium to lead would be expected to increase in magnitude as the proton (atomic) number of
X increases?
1 the standard redox potential of:
XO2 (s) + 4H+ (aq) + 2e- = X2+ (aq) + 2H2O (I)
2 the temperature of decomposition
3 the enthalpy change of reaction of
XO2(s) XO(s) + ½ O2 (g)
7. Which statements about the oxides of the elements in Group IV are correct?
1 GeO2 is more acidic than SnO2
2 GeO2 is more covalent than GeO
3 PbO2 has greater thermal stability than PbO.
8. In which reactions does silicon (IV) oxide act as a base?

1 SiO2 + 4HF 2H2O + SiF4
2 SiO2 + 2NaOH Na2SiO3 + H2O
3 SiO2 + 2Mg Si + 2MgO
9. Which reactions involve a change in oxidation number of a Group IV element from +4 to
+2?
1 The action of concentrated hydrochloric acid on PbO2
2 The action of carbon on CO2
3 The action of heat on SiO2
10. Which statements about carbon, silicon and their compounds are correct?
1 Silicon tetrachloride reactrs more violently with water than does carbon tetrachloride
2 Silicon (IV) oxide has a higher melting point than carbon dioxide
3 Silicon exhibits more oxidation states than does carbon
SECTION C
1a). The tetrachlorides of elements of Group IV of the Periodic Table are readily hydrolysed
but tetrachloro – methane is exceptional in that it does not react with water.
i). Write an equation for the reaction of one of these tetrachlorides with water
ii). How can the unreactivity of tetrachlorometahne towards water be explained? (3)
b)i. How does the thermal stability of the hydrides of molecular formular XH4 change on
descending Group IV?
ii). Suggest two reasons for this change. (3)
c). Carbon dioxide is a gas and silicon (IV) oxide is a solid of high melting point and boiling
point. How can the difference between the physical properties of these two oxides be
explained? (4)
2a). The first member of a group in the Periodic Table is often not typical of the group as a
whole. Discuss this statement with special reference to the elements in Group IV of the
Periodic Table. (8)
3. The standard enthalpy changes of formation of carbon dioxide are – 110 kJ mol-1 and –
393 kJ mol-1 respectively.
a)i. Write an equation, including state symbols, for each of these enthalpy changes
ii). Use these two values to calculate, in kJ mol-1, the standard enthalpy change of the
reaction C + CO2 2CO
iii). Explain briefly why the separation of lead (II0 oxide from unreacted lead and lead (IV)
oxide is not as straightforward as your answer in (b) (3)
4. Dentists sometimes fill cavities in back teeth with an amalgam, a metallic material. A
recent development has produced a composite material based on silicon (IV) oxide
(silica) and a binding agent which hardens as it polymerises.
The composite is stored in containers as a paste which hardens on exposure to light as the
dentist uses it to fill the cavity.
a)i. Suggest one cosmetic advantage (in terms of appearance) of using the composite rather
than the amalgam.
ii). Identify two properties of silicon (IV) oxide which make it suitable for dental fillings.
iii). Draw a simple diagram of the bonding involved in silicon (IV) oxide, and briefly
describe its structure. (5)
b)i. What type of reaction mechanism found in organic chemistry is likely to take place in the
polymerization process?
ii). Suggest why the polymerization process is unlikely to be satisfactory if it involved
condensation polymerization. (3)
5a). Describe the bonding, molecular shapes and reactions with water of the tetrachlorides of
the elements in Group IV. Explain how their thermal stabilities cary down the group. (7)
b). Some cases of lead poisoning have been traced to the reaction of lead in water pipes with
oxygen dissolved in the water to give lead (II) hydroxide. Write a balanced equation for
this reaction. Use the Data Booklet to find the two redox potentials involved and briefly
discuss why lead (II) hydroxide is formed. (3)
6a). Lead, lead(II) chloride have melting points of 3270C, 4980C and -150C respectively.
Describe the bonding in these three substances and explain how it accounts for the above
melting points. (8)
b). By using appropriate Eø values from the Data Booklet, predict what reaction, if any, will
occur when a solution of lead (IV) chloride in hydrochloric acid is added to a solution
containing V3+ (aq) ions. (2)
7a). What type of structure and of bonding would you expect for the element silicon in its
solid state? (1)
b). Silicon tetrachloride and tetrachloromethane are both covalent liquids that behave
differently towards water.
i). Describe how they each behave when shaken with water and give an equation for any
reaction that occurs.
ii). Briefly account for the difference in behaviour in b (i). (5)
8a). Describe how the melting points and the electrical conductivities of the eleme4nts in
Group IV cary from carbon to lead; explain this variation in terms of their structure and
bonding. (6)
9a). Carbon dioxide is a gas that dissolves in, and reacts slightly with, water.
Silicon (IV) oxide (silicon dioxide) is a solid that is insoluble in, and unreactive with,
water.
The tetrachlorides of carbon and silicon are both liquids, one of which reacts with water
and the other does not.
Explain the differences in physical and chemical properties of the four compounds
described by these statements, writing balanced chemical equations for all reactions that
occur. (8)
b). How would you expect the properties of boron trichloride to compare with those of the
two chlorides mentioned above? Explain your answer. (2)
10a). The elements in Group IV form oxides in more than one oxidation state. Describe
i). how the relative stabilities of the +2 and +4 oxidation states vary down the group
ii). what effect this difference in oxidation state has on their acid base properties
Give examples of reactions that illustrate your statements. (6)
b). The elements germanium was once an important component of transistors. It can be made
by heating the ore germanite with hydrogen chloride, distilling off the germanium
chloride formed, hydrolyzing the chlorine to the oxide, and reducing the oxide to the
metal.
When 1.00g of germaite was treated in this way, the germanium present was completely
converted into 0.177g of a chloride containing 33.9% by mass of germanium. Calculate
i). the empirical formula of the chloride (2)
ii). the oxidation number of germination in the chloride
iii). The percentage of germanium in germanite (1)
11a). Compare and contract the properties of the Group IV chlorides by completing the table
below
Tetrachloromethane Silicon tetrachloride Lead (II) chloride
Physical state at room

temperature
Electrical
conductivity when
liquid
Effect of adding water

at room temperature
Type of bonding
(9)
b).i. Write an equation for one of the Group IV oxides reacting with a base.
ii). Write an equation for one of the Group IV oxides reacting withg an acid. (2)
c).i. Which group IV metal forms divalent ions that readily decolourise acidified, aqueous
potassium manganete (VII)?
ii). Use the redox half equations in the Data Booklet to write a balanced equation for the
reaction in (c) (i). (2)
12a). The densities (at 250C) of tin and lead are 7.3 g cm-3 and 11.3g cm-3 respectively.
i). What factors account for this difference in density?
ii). Suggest, with a reason, which of these factors is the most important.
iii). Plumber‟s solder is an alloy of tin and lead and has a density of 9.7g cm-3 (5)
Estimate the composition, by mass, of the two metals in this solder.

b). It has been stated that, for lead, the +2 oxidation state is more stable than the +4 state,
whereas the reverse is true for tin.
By referring to the Data Booklet and by considering their oxides and/ or their chlorides
and/ or their aqueous cations, comment on the experimental evidence for this statement.
(5)
13. On the grids below, sketch the trends of the stated properties of Group IV elements of
their compounds. Below each grid give a brief explanation of the trend illustrated.
Explanation…………………………………………
Explanation………………………………………………..
Explanation………………………………
Explanation…………………… (8)
14. Pure silicon is made by reducing SiCI3H with hydrogen at a high temperature.
i). Construct a balanced equation for the reaction
ii). Use the bond energy values given in the Data Booklet to suggest why no Si- H bonds
survive the temperatures involved in the process.
iii). State a use for pure silicon. (4)
15. In this question, a maximum of 4 marks are available for quality of language.
The data below refers to the five elements of Group IV.
Element Proton A1 Aromic m. pl j 0C Density/ g Sum of first

number radius / nm cm-3 two
ionization
energies /
kJ mol -1
Cation 6 12 0.077 3550 3.51 3440
Silicon 14 24 0.117 1410 2.30 2356
Germination 32 73 0.122 9.37 5.32 2207
Tin 50 119 0.140 232 7.28 2117
Lead 62 207 0.154 327 81.3 2166
What are the trends to be found in structure, physical and chemical properties of the elements
of Group IV with increase in proton number? Suggest reasons for these trends. (4 + 4)
16a). How and why do CCI4 and SiCI4 differ in their reactions with water? Include in your
answer equations for any reactions that occur. (3)
b). Use the qualitative model of electron pair repulsion to predict the shapes of the BF3, CF4
and NF3 molecules. (3)
c). NF3 is inert to hydrolysis, whereas BF3 readily reacts with water. Suggest a reason for
this difference, and suggest an equation for the reaction that occurs. (2)
d). When tin (IV) chloride reacts with potassium hydroxide in a small amount of water,
potassium chloride is produced, together with an anhydrous salt having the following
composition by mass: K, 22.05%, Sn, 33.55%, CI, 30.03%, O, 13.53%, H, 0.85%
i). Calculate the empirical formula of the salt
ii). Deduce the structural formula, and the charge, of the anion. Suggest its shape.
iii). Write an equation for the reaction. (4)
17a). For the Group IV elements, the oxides in oxidation state +4 show a marked variation in
structure, acid basic and redox character.
Illustrate these variations by describing their reactions, ifany,
i). with water
ii). with dilute sodium hydroxide
iii). With concentrated hydrochloric acid
iv). On heating
write equations for any reactions that occur. (9)
b). Disilance, Si2H6, is much more unstable than its carbon analogue C2H6. In the presence of
air, it is rapidly and spontaneously oxidized to SiO2 and H2O.
With the help of relevant data from the Data Booklet, suggest reasons for this
comparative instability and for the ready reaction of disilane with air. (3)
18a). Describe and explain the variation in electrical conductivity of the elements in Group IV.
(6)
b). One of the three chlorides CCI4 SiCI4 does not react with water but the other two do.
Write an equation for one of the reactions, and suggest an explanation for why the third
chloride does not react. (3)
c). „Red lead‟ is an oxide of lead used extensilvely as a surface coating to prevent corrosion
of iron and steel. It contains 90.66% by mass of lead, which is present in both +H and
+IV oxidation states.
Calculate the empirical formula of red lead,and predict the reaction it would undergo on
being heated strongly in air. Write an equation for the reaction. (3)
19a). The melting points of some oxides of Group IV elements are given below
Oxide Melting point/ 0C
CO2 -78
SiO2 1610
SnO2 1630
Describe the bonding in each oxide, and how it relates to its melting point.
i). CO2
ii). SiO2
iii). SnO2
b). Writing balanced equations where appropriate, describe how the above three oxides differ
in their reactions with
i). NaOH (aq)
ii). HCI (aq) (4)
c). The last oxide in Group IV, PBO2, reacts with concentrated hydrochloric acid liberating
chlorine gas. Use the Data Booklet to calculate the Eøcell and to write a balanced equation
for this reaction. (2)
ANSWERS
SECTION A
1. C 2. E 3. D 4. A 5. E
6. E 7. C 8. D 9. B 10. C
11. C 12. C 13. B 14. D 15. B
16. B 17. C
SECTION B
1. A 2. B 3. A 4. A 5. A
6. D 7. B 8. D 9. B 10. B
SECTION C
3a). +173 kJ mol-1
10b).i. GeCI4 ii). +4 iii). 6%
12.a. % of Sn = 30.1%; % of Pb = 69.9%
16.i K2SnCI3O3H3
ii. [SnCI3 (OH)3]2- charge = -2
shape = octahedral
18. Pb3PO4
19c. Eøcell = 0.11V
TOPIC 10.1
ORGANIC CHEMISTRY:
INTRODUCTORY TOPICS
SECTION A
1. The anti asthma drug Intal contains disodium cromoglycate which has the following
structure.
How many chiral centres are there in the molecule?
a. 0 b. 1 c. 2 d. 3 e. 5
2. How may isomers (including both structural isomers and steriosomers ) are possible for
C4H10O?
a. 3 b. 4 c. 5 d. 6 e. 8
3. Which of the following amino acids contains two chiral carbon atoms?
A B
H2NCHCO2H H2NCHCO2H
CH2OH CH2
CH2OH
C. D
H2NCHCO2H H2NCHCO2H
CHCH3 CH2
CH3 C6H5
E.
H2NCHCO2H
CHCH3
CH2
CH3
4. The diagram shows the structure of vitamin C.
How many chiral centres are there in one molecule?

a. 1 2. 2 c. 3 d. 4 e. 5
5. Four isomers of C6H12 are shown below.
Which of the following pairs consists of a pair of cis-trans isomers?

a. 1 and 2
b. 1 and 3
c. 1 and 4
d. 2 and 4
e. 3 and 4
6. Warfarin is used as a rat poison.
Warfarin
How many chiral centres are present in the Warfarin molecule?
a. 0 b. 1 c. 2 d. 3 e. 4
7. The diagram shows the structure of the insect attractant methoprene.

What is the total number of steriosomers (cis- trans and optical) of this molecule?
a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 8 e. 16
8. Many drugs show optical isomerism. The diagram show the structure of three drugs.
What is the total number of chiral carbon centres in these three structures?
a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4
9. The compound of molecular formular CH3CH (NH2) CO2H exists in two forms.
What are these forms called?
a. isotopes
b. cis- trans isomers
c. optical isomers
d. structural isomers
10. One of the chemicals used to make the hard outer covering of golf balls has the following
structural formula.
H C OCH3
C C
H CH3
Which of the following statements about this molecule is correct?

a. It is a cis isomer
b. It is a trans isomer
c. It has only one chiral centre
d. It has only structural isomers
11. It is claimed that many polyunsaturated margarines contain esters derived from cis- cis
linoleic acid, CH3(CH2)4 CH = CH CH2CH – CH (CH2)7 CO2H
Which simplified formula of linoleic acid contains the cis- cis arrangement?
13. The compound ibuprofen is an important anti- inflammatory drug used in the treatment of
arthritis.
How many optical isomers does Ibuprofen have?
a. 0 b. 2 c. 4 d. 6
14. Which of these compounds can exist as a pair of cis- trans isomers
a. (CH3)2 C = CH2
b. (CH3)2 C = CHCH3
c. CH3CH = CHCH3
d.
15. Beta- blockers are used for the treatment of angina and blood pressure disodreds. One
such beta blocker is atenolol.
How many chiral centres are there in one molecule of atenolol

a. 0 b. 1 c. 2 d. 3
16. Which hydrocarbon can form a monochloro- substitution derivative which shows both
chirality and cis- trans isomerism?
a. CH3CH= CH2
b. (CH3)2C = CH2
c. CH3CH = C (CH3)2
d. CH3CH= CHCH2CH3
17. The drug cortisone has the formula shown
In addition to those chiral centres marked by an asterisk (*) how many other chiral centres are
present in the cortisone molecule?
a. 0 b. 1 c. 2 d. 3
18. One of the main components of Semtex, a widely used explosive, is RDX.
The three bonds around each nitrogen atom in the ring are all at 1200C to each other.
NO2
N
CH2 CH2
N N
O2N CH2 NO2
RDX
How many steriosomers does RDX have?
a. 0 b. 2 c. 3 d. 6
19. The diagram shows the structure of the insect attractant methoprene.
How many cis- trans isomers and how many chiral carbon atoms does this molecule have?
Cis trans isomers Chiral carbon atoms
A 2 1
B 2 2
C 4 1
D 4 2
20. What is the total number of different chloroethanes (formula C2H6-nCIn, where n can be
any integer from 1 to 6)?
a. 6 b. 8 c. 9 d. 10
21. How many structural and cis- trans isomers are there for dichloropropene, C3H4CI2?
a. 3 b. 5 c. 6 d. 7
22. The isomers, citric acid and isocitric acid, are intermediates in the Krebs cycle of the
oxidation of glucose in living cells.
CH2CO2H CH2CO2H
C (OH)CO2H CHCO2H
CH2CO2H CH(OH)CO2H
Citric acid isocitric acid
How many chiral does each acid posses?
Citric acid Isocitric acid
A 0 1
B 0 2
C 1 1
D 1 2
SECTION B
A B C D E

1. In what ways could two compounds of molecular formula C2H2BR2 be related to each
other?
3. Which of the following pairs illustrate cis- trans isomerism?
4. Salbutamol is a widely used anti- asthmatic drug. The structure of salbutamol is
Which of the carbon atosm numbered on the structure are chiral?
5. What will always be a characteristic of a compound containing a single carbon atom with
four different groups bonded to it?
1 It will have an optical isomer
2 It will have a chiral centre
3 It will have a structural isomer
SECTION C
1. What do you understand by the terms cis- trans isomerism and optical isomerism? (4)
State and explain clearly which, if any, of these types of isomerism would be shown by each of
the following compounds
i). CHBrCH = CH2
ii). CH3CH = CHCH2CH(OH)CH3

iii). (CH3)2C = CHCH2CH(OH)CH2CH = C(CH3)2
(3 x 4)
2a). Three types of isomerism shown by organic compounds are: structural, cis-trans and
optical. The following two formulae together involve all of these types of isomerism. The
two part structural formulae A and B below are ambiguous in that each represents more
than one compound. Draw full structural formulae to illustrate the four isomers that
formula A represents and the two isomers that formula B represents. In each case,
identify the type of isomerism involved.
i). CH3CH(OH)C3H7
A
ii). CH3CH = CHC2H5
B (6)
b). What class of compound, and how many isomers of the product, will be formed when
i). A reacts with acidified potassium dichromate (VII)
ii). B reacts with hydrogen in the presence of nickel? (4)
3a). Linoleic acid is an essential fatty acid in human diet

CH3(CH2)4CH= CHCH2CH= CH(CH2)7CO2H
In linolec acid, both double bonds are in the cis configuration. Representing the formula by the
abbreviated structure A – CH = CH- CH2- CH – B, draw the displayed formulae of linolele acid
and the other possible cis- trans isomers with this structure. (4)
ANSWERS
SECTION A
1. A 2. E 3. E 4. B 5. A
6. B 7. D 8. A 9. C 10. D
11. A 12. D 13. B 14. C 15. B
16. D 17. D 18. A 19. C 20. C
21. D 22. B
SECTION B
1. B 2. E 3. B 4. D 5. B
TOPIC 10.2
STRUCTURAL IDENTIFICATION OF ORGANIC COMPOUNDS BY NMR
SPECTROSCOPY
SECTION A
1. The nmr spectrum of a compound V is given below
What could V be?

a. CH3CHCI2
b. CH3CH2Br
c. CH3CH2OH
d. CH3COCH2CI
SECTION C
1. Compound E is a carbonyl compound with the molecular formular C4H8O. Fig 7.1 shows its
nmr spectrum. Suggest a structure for E, based on your predictions of the number of protons in
each group of the spectrum, and the number of protons adjacent to them.
2. 2 Bromopropane is a useful intermediate in organic synthesis. It can be made industrially

from propene, and undergoes a variety of reactions, some of which are mentioned below
a). When 2 bromopropane is treated with sodium hydroxide under different conditions, two
different compounds, A (C3H6) and B (C3H7OH) are formed. Their nmr spectra are
shown below.
i). Use the spectra to identify compounds A and B and draw their structural formulae.
Explain your reasoning.
ii). Predict the effect on their nmr spectra (if any) and adding D2O to separate samples of A
and B.
iii). Describe the different conditions needed to make A and B from 2 – bromopropane.
ANSWERS
SECTION A
1. B
TOPIC 10.3
HYDROCARBONS
SECTION A
1. Hydrobromic acid reacts with ethane to form bromoethane. Which of the following is the
best description of the engine intermediate?
a. it is a free radical
b. it contains carbon, hydrogen and bromine
c. its structure is planar
d. it is an electrophilic
e. it has a negative charge
2. Which of the following reagents could be used to distringuish between hex – I – ene and
methylbenzene?
a. Ag(NH3)2+ in H2O
b. Br2 in CCI4
c. I2 in NaOH(aq)
d. 2, 4+ dinitrophenylhydrazine in CH3OH
e. dilute aqueous H2SO2
3. Samples of 10cm3 of the first four members of the alkane series are each mixed with
70cm3 of oxygen. Each is then burned and the total volume, V, of residual gas measured
again at room temperature and pressure.
Which one of the followinbg graphs represents the results that would be obtained.
The first stage of the cumene process for the industrial production of phenol is as follows
Which one of the following would be the product of the reaction, under similar con ditions,
between benzene and cyclonhexene?
5. During the nitration of benzene, a nitro group substitutes at a carbon atom. Which one of
the following gives the arrangement of the bonds at this carbon atom during the reaction?
At the start of the reaction in the intermediate complex at the end of the reaction
a. planar planar planar
b. planar tetrahedral planar
c. planar tetrahedral tetrahedral
d. tetrahedral planar tetrahedral
e. tetrahedral tetrahedral tetrahedral
6. What happens when one mole of ethane is mixed in the dark at room temperature with six
moles of chlorine?
a. There is no reaction
b. CH3CH2CI and HCI are formed
c. CH3CCI and HCI are formed
d. CCI3CCI3 and HCI are formed
e. Carbon and HCI are formed
7. Oxidation of an alkene X gives a diol, further oxidation gives a diketone. Which one of
the following could be X?
a. (CH3)2C = C (CH3)2
b. CH3CH = C(CH3)2
c. (CH3)2CHCH = CH2
d. C6H5CH = CHC6H5
e. (C6H5)2C = CHCH3
8. 1,2 Dibromo-3- chloropropane (DBCP) has been used in the control of earthworms in
agricultural land. Which of the following would be the best synthesis of this compound?
a. CH3CH2CH2CI + 2Br2 DBCP + 2HBr
b. CH3CHBrCH2BR + CI2 DBCP + HCI
c. CH2 = CHCHBr2 + HCI DBCP
d. CH2 = CHCH2CI + Br2 DBCP
e. CICH2CH = CH2 + PBr5 DBCP + PR3
9. Which one of the following is a propagation step in the reaction between methane and
chlorine when they are irradiated with light?
a. H+ + CI2 HCI + CI+
b. CH4 + CI+ CH3CI + H+
c. CH4 + CI+ CH3+ + HCI
d. CH4 + CI+ CH3 + HCI
e. CH4 + CI CH3CI + H+
10. How many chiral compounds is it possible to prepare by subjecting ethane to repeated
substitution by chlorine?
a. 0 b. 1 c. 2 d. 3 e. 4
11. Which one of the following formulae represents the organic compound formed when
methylbenzene is heated under reflux with alkaline potassium manganete (VII) solution
and the mixture then acidified?
12. Which of the following statements about the two alkenes CH3CH2CH = CH2 and CH3CH
= CHCH3 is correct?
a. Neither exhibits cis- trans isomerism
b. Neither may be polymerized
c. Neither reacts with bromine to give 1.4 dibromobutane
d. Neither reacts with hydrogen to form butane
e. Neither may be oxidized by alkaline potassium manganete (VII) to a diol
13. In a preparation of ethane, ethanol is added a drop or at a time to a heated reagent Y. The
impure ethane is washed by being bubbled through a solution Z and then collected.
What could reagent Y and solution Z be?
Reagent Y solution Z
a. acidified K2Cr2O7 dilute NaOH
b. concentrated H2SO4 dilute H2SO4
c. concentrated H2SO4 dilute NaOH
d. ethanoic NaOH concentrated H2SO4
14. When methylbenzene is treated with bromine in the presence of a catalyst, a mixture of
two monobromo isomers is formed.
What are the structure of these two isomers?
15. The oxo reaction is an important industrial process in which an alkene combines directly
with carbon monoxide and hydrogen under suitable conditions. The reaction with ethane
is shown below.
catalyst
CH2 = CH7 + CO + H2 CH3CH2CHO
High T, p
Which of the following structural formulae correctly represents the product of the oxo reaction
starting with but-2-ene?
a. CH3CH2CH(CH3)CHO
b. CH3CH2CH2CH2CHO
c. CH3CH2COCH2CH3
d. CH3COCH2CH2CH3
e. (CH3)2CHCH2CHO
16. An energy level diagram for a single reaction step is shown below.
To which of the following steps in the reaction ofmethane with chlorine in the presence of light
does this diagram apply?
a. CH2CI+ + CI2 CH2CI2 + CI+
b. CH3 + CH3 C2H6
c. CH3 + CI2 CH3CI + CI+
d. CH3 + CI+ CH3CI
e. CI2 CI- + CI+
17. Which property or benzene may be directly attributed to the stability associated with its
delocalized electrons?
a. It has a low boiling point
b. It does not conduct electricity
c. Its enthalpy change of formation is positive
d. It is susceptible to attack by nucleophilic reagents
e. It tends to undergo substitution rather than additive reactions
18. The reaction between boiling methylbenzene and chlorinc takes place in a number of
steps to give several products
Which of the following could be one of the steps?
19. Trichloroethene is widely used as a dry cleansing agent.
With which of the following does trichloroethene react to give a chiral product?
a. H2
b. Br2
c. HCI
d. NaOH (aq)
e. NaCN(aq)
20. In the reaction represented by the equation.
C6H6 + CI2 C6H5CI + HCI
What type of reaction has benzene undergone?
a. electrophilic addition
b. electrophillic substitution
c. free radical substitution
d. nucleophillic addition
e. nucleophillic substitution
21. Iron filings were added to a solution containing equimolar quantities of methylbenzene
and bromine. The mixture was immediately placed in the dark until no further change
took place.
Which of the following are likely to have been the main products?
22. Which of the following compounds could be formed by the action of bromine on an
alkene of formula C4H8?
23. The nitration of benzene by concentration nitric acid dissolved in concentrated sulphuric
acid can be represented by the following equation.
C6H6 + NO2+ C6H6NO2+ C6H5NO2 + H+
Which of the following reaction profiles correctly represents this mechanism?
24. When ethane reacts with bromine in the presence of concentrated aqueous sodium nitrate,
the product contains the following compound.
What is the intermediate formed in this reaction?

25. As the number of carbon atoms, in the homologous series of alkane molecules increases,
for which property of the alkanes does the numerical value decrease?
a. density
b. enthalpy change of vaporization
c. number of isomers
d. vapour pressure
26. Propan – I- ol, C3H7OH, is dehydrated by passing its vapour over hot aluminium oxide to
give a hydrocarbon.
Which structural formula represents the product obtained when the hydrocarbon reacts with
bromine?
27. A sample of 1.2 dimethylbenzene is quantitatively oxidized to the corresponding
dicarboxylic acid.
What is the mass of product formed from 1.00g of 1.2 dimethylbenzene?
a. 1.15g
b. 1.28g
c. 1.57g
d. 1.60g
28. Limonene is an oil formed in the peel of citrus fruits.
Which product is formed when molecular bromine reacts with limonene at room temperature in
the dark?
29. The use of the Data Booklet may be relevant to this question.
Which would be the easiest initiating step in a free radical process (i.e the one involving least
energy)?
a. HCI H+ + CI+
b. CI2 2CI-
c. CH4 CH3 + H+
d. C6H5CH3 C6H5CH7 + H+
30. Deuterium, D, is a heavy isotope of hydrogen. Deuterio benzene is reacted with a mixture
of nitric acid and sulphuric acid under controlled conditions, so that only mononitration
takes place.
Assuming that the carbon deuterium bond is broken as easily as a carbon hydrogen bond, which
proportion of the nitrated products will be 3 nitrodeuteriobenzene?
a. 16% b. 20% c. 33% d. 45%
31. What is the product when propane is oxidized with cold dilute potassium manganete
(VII)?
a. CH3CH(OH)CH2OH
b. CH2CH2CH2OH
c. CH3CH2CHO
d. CH3COCH3
32. Hydrogen bromide reacts with ethane to form bromoethane.

What is the best description of the organic intermediate in the reaction?
a. It contains carbon, hydrogen and bromine
b. It has a negative charge
c. It is an electrophilic
d. It is a free radical
33. Which compound reacts with HBr in an electrophillic addition reaction to give a chiral
product?
a.
b. CH3(CH2)7CH= CH(CH2)7CO2H
c. CH3CH2CHO
d. CH3CH= CH2
34. Which hydrocarbon,on treatment with hot acidified potassium manganete (VII) would
give ethanoic acid only?
a. CH3CH = CH2
b. CH3CH = CHCH3
c. CH3
C = CHCH3
CH3
d. CH3 CH3
C= C
CH3 CH3
35. Methane reacts with chlorine in the presence of sunlight.

Which statement about the intermediaries is correct?
a. They are more energetically stable than the reactants
b. They are positrively charged ions
c. They combine to form HCI
d. They contain an odd number of electrons
36. Which compound can be obtained by reacting a hydrocarbon with bromine in the
presence of a halogen carrier?
a. CH2 = CHCH2Br
b. CH3CHBrCH3
c.
d.
37. Which reagent and conditions are used to bring about the reaction shown?
a. CI2 in the dark

b. CI2 with AICI3
c. CI2 with ultraviolet light
d. concentrated HCI heated under reflux
38. What is the reason for adding concentrated sulphuric acid to concentrated nitric acid in
the preparation of nitrobenzene?
C6H6(I) + HNO3(I) C6H25NO2(I) + H2O (I)
a. It acts an an inert solvent for the benzene and nitric acid
b. It removes protons from nitric acid, thus forming NO3- ions
c. It donates protons to the nitric acid, thus forming NO2+ ions
d. It removes the water, thus preventing equilibrium being established
39. Tetramethyl- lead (IV) increases the rate of the reaction of methane with chlorine.
CH4(g) + CI2(g) CH3CI(g) + HCI(g)
Why can tetramethyl- lead (IV) behave in this way?
a. It is a source of methyl radicals
b. It releases CH3+ (g)
c. It reacts with chloromethane and prevents equilibrium being established
d. Metal ions catalyse the reaction
40. What is the correct set of conditions for the conversion of benzene into nitrobenzene?
Acid Temperature
A Dilute HNO3 1000C
B Concentrated HNO3 00C
C Concentrated HNO3 and concentrated H2SO4 100C
D Concentrated HNO3 and concentrated H2SO4 1200C
41. Benzene reacts with chlorine as shown

C6H6 + CI2 C6H5CI + HCI
Which term describes this type of reaction?

a. electrophilic substitution
b. free- radical substitution
c. nucleophilic addition
d. nucleophilic substitution
42. Sampels of the gases CH3CI and CI2 are mixed together and irradiated with light.
Which compound is produced in trace amounts by a termination stage in the chain reaction?
a. HCI
b. CH2 = CH2
c. CH2CICH2CI
d. CH3CH3
43. Which of the following is a propagation step in the reaction between methane and
chlorine?
a. CI2 2CI+
b. CH3 + CI- CH3CI
c. CH3+ + HCI CH3CI + H+
d. CH+3 + CI2 CH3CI + CI+
44. Which property does benzene have as a consequence of delocalization of electrons in the
benzene molecule?
a. Benzene is a good conductor of electricity
b. The carbon – carbon bond lengths are between those C- C bonds and C- C bonds
c. Addition reactions of benzene take place more easily than substitution.
d. Sustitution in benzene takes place at one particular carbon atom
45. Which property does the compound produced by the addition of bromine to propene
have?
a. It can exist as cis- trans isomers
b. It is more volatile than propene
c. It possesses a chiral centre
d. It possesses hydrogen bonding
46. Which of the following can act as an electrophile?

a. CI2
b. CH2 = CH2
c. CN-
d. H2O
47. The structure of Vitamin A is shown below
When it is completely reacted with hydrogen in the presence of a palladium catalyst at room
temperature, how many chiral centres does the product molecule possess?
a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5
48. The anaesthetic halothane, CF3CHB, CI, is make industrially as shown below
HF Br2
CCI2= CHCI CF3CH2CI CF3CHBrCI
Stage 1 stage 2
What type of reaction is occurring in stage 2?
a. electrophilic addition
b. electrophilic substitution
c. free radical substitution
d. nucleophilic addition
49. Which substance in a vehicle exhaust results from incomplete combustion of a

hydrocarbon fuel?
a. CO
b. H2O
c. N2
d. NO
50. Which is a correct statement about the intermediate complex, [C6H6NO2]+, formed during
the mononitration of benzene?
a. It is a planar
b. It contains a chiral centre
c. It can exist in either a cis or a trans form
d. It contain only one tetrahedrally bonded carbon atom.
51. In the preparation of soft margarine, glycel trieleostearate

CH3 (CH2)3CH = CHCH = CHCH = CH(CH2)7 CO2 CH2
CH3(CH2)3 CH = CHCH = CHCH = CH(CH2)7 CO2CH
CH3(CH2)3 CH = CHCH = CHCH = CH(CH2)7CO2CH2
Is suitably hydrogenated so that, on average, one of its side-chains is converted into the
CH3(CH2)4CH = CHCH2CH= CH(CH2)7CO2 residue and two side- chains are converted into the
CH3(CH2)7CH= CH(CH2)7CO2 residue.
How many moles of hydrogen are required to convert one mole of glyceryl trieleosteorate into
the soft margarine?
a. 4 b. 5 c. 6 d. 9
52. The complete combustion of alkanes to produce carbon dioxide and water is an important
exothermic reaction
Which line on the graph shows the relationship between the number of carbon atoms in the
alkane and the number of moles of oxygen gas needed for complete combustion of thr alkane?
53. Cyctohexa 1, 4 diane is treated with a solution of bromine in tetrachloromethane.
Which product is formed?

SECTION B
For each of the statements in this section one or more of the three numbered statements 1 to 3
may be correct.
A B C D
1, 2 and 3 are correct 1 and 2 only are 2 and 3 only are 1 only is correct
correct correct
2. Which of the following molecules would be present in the photochemical chlorination of

methane?
1 hydrogen
2 hydrogen chloride
3 dichloromethane
3. With which of the following reagents do benzene and methylbenzene behave differently?
1 Warming with aqueous alkaline potassium manganate (VII)
2 Warming with bromine in the presence of an iron catalyst
3 Warming with a mixture of concentrated nitric acid and concentrated sulphuric acid
4. Bromine in an inert solvent is added separately to hexane, hexane, benzene and

methylbenzene. In which of the following pairs wil the observations be the same?
1 hexane and benzene
2 hexane and hexane
3 hexene and methylbenzene
5. 2- Methylbuta- 1.3- diene can be polymerized to make synthetic rubbers. The structure of
this monomer is shown below
CH3
CH2 = C = CH = CH2
Which of the following statements about 2- methylbuta-1, 3- diene are correct?
1 It decolourises aqueous bromine
2 It is chiral (optically active)
3 It undergoes nucleophillic addition reactions
6. Which of the following statements suggests the presence of free radicals in the
chlorination of methane?
1 Hydrogen chloride is present in the product
2 The reaction proceeds most quickly in sunlight or ultraviolet light
3 Ethane is present in small quantities in the product
7. The diagram represents a section of a catalytic converter on the exhaust system of a car.
Harmful gases are converted into carbon dioxide, nitrogen and water vapour.
Which processes take place in this catalytic converter?
1 Carbon monoxide and hydrocarbons react together
2 Carbon monoxide and nitrogen oxide react together
3 Platinum and rhodium catalyse redox reactions
8. The compounds shown are used in perfumes.

Which compounds:
i). react with 2 mol Br2 per mol in the absence of light,
and
ii). are chiral?
CH3 H H H OH3 H
1 Linalo – ol C= C- C- C- C = CH2
CH3 H H OH
CH3 H H H OH3 H H
2. Geranoil C=C- C- C= C- C- O
CH3 H H H
CH3O H H
3. Eugenol HO C- C= CH2
H
9. The diagram shows the structure of a catalytic converter as fitted into the exhaust system
of a car. It also describes the substances involved in the exhaust gases.
Which reactions between the stated compounds could take place on the surface of the catalyst?
1 hydrocarbons + oxides of nitrogen carbon dioxide + water + nitrogen

2 carbon monoxide + oxides of nitrogen carbon dioxide - nitrogen
3. carbon monoxide + hydrocarbons carbon dioxide + water
10. Which statements about the complete combustion of an alkene COH2n in oxygen are
correct?
1 The volume of oxygen required is directly proportional to the number of carbon atoms
present in the molecule
2 The volume of gas produced at 250C is the same as for the complete combustion of an
alkane with the same number of carbon atoms per molecule
3 At 1200C, the volume of steam produced is always twice the volume of carbon dioxide.
11. Which pairs of compounds have the same empirical formula?

1 ethane and ethane
2 ethene and cycohexane
3 cyclohexane and oct-I – ene
12. Which compounds would be formed in the reaction of ethane with aqueous bromine in
the presence of sodium chloride?
1 CH2CICH2CI
2 CH2BrCH2CI
3 CH2BrCH2Br
13. Which substances consists of planar molecules?
1 benzene
2 ethene
3 cyclohexene
SECTION C
1. Methane and chlorine react when irradiated with ultraviolet light. The following equation
gives the first stagte of the reaction
CH4 + CI2 CH3CI + HCI (1)
a)i. Write the equation for the step which initiates this reaction.
ii). Write two equations for the propagation steps
iii). What is the intermediate organic species for the reaction? (3)
b). Some enthalpy changes of formation are given in the table below:
∆Hrø/ kJ mol-1
CH4 -75
CH3CI -82
HCI -92
i). Calculate the enthalpy change for reaction. (1)

ii). The energy of activation for this reaction is 16 kJ mol-1. Sketch on the axes below the
reaction/ energy profile for the complete reaction path including the formation of the
intermediate species.
The sketch should be labeled with the relevant energy changes. (5)
energy
progress of reaction
c). Explain why the reaction requires only a flash of ultraviolet light rather than prolonged
radiation. (2)

a). when a mixture of cyclohexane and bromine in an inert solvent is exposed tp ultraviolet
light the bromine is gradually decolourised and colourless fumes are produced. (4)
b). When ethane is shaken with aqueous bromine a mixture of 1.2 dibromoethane and 2-
bromoethanol is produced. (5)
c). When phenylethene (a liquid) is allowed to stand in the air for some time it gradually
solidifies. (3)
3a). Show how the experimental conditions are important in determining the nature of the
products of an organic reaction by reference to the reaction of methylbenzene with
chlorine. (6)
The reaction of methylbenzene with chlorine under certain conditions is said to occur by
a free radical mechanism. Explain carefully what is meant by a free radical and describe
the mechanism of the reaction under these conditions. (7)
b). Outline a possible synthesis for each of the following compounds from methylbenzene:
i). C6H5CH2OH
ii). C6H5CH2CO2H
4a). A gaseous hydrocarbon A contains 85.7% of carbon by mass. When 10.0 cm3 of A
underwent complete combustion in 80.0 cm3 of oxygen the remaining gases occupied 60.0 cm3.
After shaking these gases with aqueous sodium hydroxide the final volume of gas remaining was
20.0 cm3. (All volumes were measured at room temperatures and pressure.)
A exists as a pair of cis- trans isomers
Deduce the structural formula of A, explaining your reasoning clearly. (10)
5. For each of the following pairs of compounds describe one simple chemical test which
would enable you to distinguish between them. State clearly how each compound
behaves in the test and write balanced equations for the reactions involved.
a). Benzene and methylbenzene (4)
b). Benzene and cyclohexane (4)
6a). Saccharin is an artificial sweetening agent used in some soft drinks and is manufactured
from methylbenzene by the following series of reactions:
i). What types of reaction do steps I, II and III illustrate? (3)

ii). Suggest reagents for steps II and III. (2)
b). When methylbenzene is nitrated by a mixture of concentrated nitric acid and concentrated
sulphuric acid, the product consists largely of two isomers of formula C7H7NO2.
i). Draw the structural formulae of the two isomers. (2)
ii). Briefly outline the mechanism of this reaction. (3)

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SCHEME OF ASSESSMENT

Paper Type of paper Duration Marks Weighting

1 Multiple Choice 1h 40 31% 15%

2 As Structured questions 1 h 15min 80 45% 23%

3 Advanced Practical skills 2h 40 23% 12%

4 A2 Structured questions 1h 45min 100 36%

5 Planning, Analysis & Evaluation 1h 15min 30 20%

This paper will consists of two sections.

Section A (70 marks) will consists of questions based on the A2 core.

1. ATOMS, MOLECULES AND STOICHEMISTRY

1. Relative masses of atoms and molecules

Candidates should be able to:

i). deduce stoichiometric relationships from calculations such as those in (h).

Candidates should be able to:

Candidates should be able to:

b). *describe, including the use of dot and cross diagrams

l). deduce the type of bonding present from given information

i. The gaseous state:

a). ideal gas behavior and deviations from it.

b). pV – nRT and its use in determining a value for M1

ii. The liquid state.

Candidates should be able to:

i. Enthalpy changes ΔH of information, combustion, hydration, solution, neutralization and

Candidates should be able to:

b). explain and use the terms:

ii). Bond energy (ΔH positive, i.e bond breaking)

Enthalpy change = mcΔT

ii). Average bond energies

Candidates should be able to:

i. the electrolysis of bine, using a diaphragm cell

ii. the extraction of aluminium from molten aluminum oxide/ cryolite

iii. the electrolytic purification of copper

c). define the terms:

i). standard electrode (redox) potential

ii). Standard cell potential

d). describe the standards hydrogen electrode

i. metals or non-metals in contact with their ions in aqueous solution

ii. ions of the same element in different oxidation states

i). explain / deduce the direction of electron flow a simple cell

ii). *predict the feasibility of a reaction

i. Chemical equilibra, reversible reactions, dynamic equilibrium

Candidates should be able to:

- state Le Chateller‟s Principle and apply it to deduce qualitatively (from appropriate

Deduce whether changes in concentration, pressure or temperature or the presence of a catalyst

(treatment of the relationship between Kp and Kr is not required)

Calculate the pH of buffer solutions, given appropriate data.

Show understanding of, and use, the concept of solubility product K

Calculate Ksp from concentrations and vive versa

Show understanding of the common ion effect.

i. Simple rate equations, orders of reaction, rate constants

Candidates should be able to:

ii. interpret this catalytic effect in terms of the Boltzman distribution.

i. deducing the order of a reaction by the initial rates method

Calculate a rate constant using the initial rates method

i. *the Haber process

It is intended that the study should:

- Across the third period of the Periodic Table

Introduce, with examples, the transition elements and their compounds

- The representation of reactions by means of balanced equations (molecular and/ or ionic

9.1 THE PERIODIC TABLE: CHEMICAL PERIODICITY

d). explain the variation in first ionization energy

chlorine (to give NaC1, Mg only)

In addition, candidates should be able to:

Candidates should be able to: