1. The most common etiologic agents causing diarrhea in the baby.
baby. Which of the following statements are you NOT going to
Philippines setting is...
C. Rotavirus
2. Antibiotic therapy for diarrheal illnesses is NOT indicated in
the following situations, EXCEPT:
A. Cholera
3. A mother brought her 2 year old son Greg and 3-year old
daughter Nicole in the hospital because of diarrhea of several
days described as profuse watery diarrhea with vomiting. The
children are not getting better. Further history showed more
children affected by diarrhea. What is your most probable
diagnosis?
B. Cholera infection
4. You did your physical examination on Greg and found that he
has sunken eyeball, tears and moist tongue. He drinks eagerly
and his skin pinch goes back quickly. What is his state of
hydration?
B. Some signs of dehydration
5. The key signs of dehydration include the following, EXCEPT:
B. Dryness of mouth
6. Your estimated fluid deficit would be?
B. 5-10% of body weight
7. A 7 day old baby boy was brought to your attention because
of fever. On further history, you learned that the baby was born
at home assisted by a local midwife. On day 6 of life, he had fair
suck. The mother cannot recall medications given to her baby
after delivery until few days ago, she noticed bilateral eye
discharge. This could have been prevented if only the midwife
administered silver nitrate eye ointment. If you did gram
staining, you expect to find what organism?
C. Gram (-) intracellular diplococci
8. Patrick is born preterm, 35 weeks via NSD. He has good suck
right after birth, however, on the 12th hour, he was noted to
have fair suck which eventually became poor on the 24th hour.
He was also not active and has fair cry. Mother disclosed that
she had UTI one week prior to giving birth. Which of the
following is the most cost effective step to help establish the
diagnosis?
C. Obtain blood culture
9. The pediatric consultant is making rounds with you and saw
her patient Faith who is a 5 month old girl who developed 6 days
of on and off fever with occasional watery nasal discharge and
mild cough. She was noted to have fair suck and sleeping most
of the time of the day before she was brought to the hospital.
On day of admission, she had 2 episodes of generalized seizure.
Neurologic exam showed the patient to be drowsy with bulging
anterior fontanelle. Mother has several questions and wanted to
know more about the organism that most probably infected her
tell her regarding this illness?
D. The infection carries a good prognosis so she
does not have to worry at all.
10. All of the following statements regarding leprosy is true,
EXCEPT:
B. Leprosy is common in children and should be
given attention once a diagnosis is given.
11. Brent is an 18 year old nursing student who was admitted at
AUF because of sudden high grade fever, poor appetite and
muscle calf tenderness for 3 days duration. He disclosed that he
waded in a flood 1 week ago. Four days after admission in the
hospital, he developed jaundice. You requested for blood
culture to isolate the organism. What else can you do to help
you strengthen your diagnosis?
A. Do a lumbar puncture
12. What is the prognosis of Brent's illness?
B. Guarded
13. All of the following illnesses have vaccines available for
prevention, EXCEPT:
D. Leptospirosis
14. A previously well 4 year old girl has abrupt onset of sore
throat, fever, chills and poor activity 2 days prior to admission.
You suspect meningococcemia when you saw her rashes which
are described as:
A. Initially morbiliform or urticarial within an hour
becoming petechial then purpuric
15. All of the following vaccines can be given at 6 weeks, 10
weeks, 14 weeks of life, EXCEPT:
C. Measles
16. A 17 year old pregnant teenager is seen for a routine
pregnancy check up has a reactive screening test using Rapid
Plasma Reagin (RPR) test. What is the next best step to do?
B. Perform a Fluorescent Treponemal Antibody-
Absorption (FTA-ABS) test on the specimen
17. In the screening test for syphilis, a negative test using Rapid
Plasma Reagin (RPR) would indicate all of the following possible
conditions, EXCEPT:
D. Co-infection with tuberculosis
18. A widespread rash that extends to the soles of the feet is
associated with...
B. Secondary syphilis
19. Edgar, a 9 year old boy, was admitted because of fever of 5
days duration with accompanying headache, abdominal pain
and vomiting. Enteric fever was entertained. How are you going
to confirm the diagnosis?
A. Blood culture
20. A 7 year old boy was brought to OPD because of diffuse,
finely papular erythematous skin eruptions all over his body. This
eruptions is very red, has rough, goose pimple appearance and
blanches on pressure. If this is scarlet fever, what etiologic agent
is involved?
A. Streptococcus pyogenes
21. A 10 month old child presents with a fever of 38.8C, watery
diarrhea and a generalized seizure. The most likely cause of this
syndrome is...
B. Shigella Gastroenteritis
22. What is the infective stage of pertussis?
A. Catarrhal stage
23. A 2 year old female was brought to the ER because of severe
respiratory distress. She was intubated and hooked for
mechanical ventilator support. Her chest radiography revealed
presence of pneumotocoeles on her right lung field. She also has
numerous skin boils on all her extremities. Which of the
following is most likely the cause of her infection?
B. Staphylococcus aureus
24. What is the drug of choice for pneumonia caused by
Mycoplasma pneumoniae?
C. Erythromycin
25. What organism causes pseudomembranous colitis?
C. Clostridium difficile
26. An 8 year old male was admitted because of fever,
nonproductive cough, headache and body malaise. His chest X
ray revealed extensive interstitial pneumonia. On further inquiry,
it was revealed that he is fond of raising and takes care of several
pigeon ("kalapati"). Which among the following is the most likely
cause of his pneumonia?
A. Chlamydophilia psitacci
27. Which among the following drug classification isthe drug of
choice for treatment and post exposure prophylaxis of pertussis?
C. Macrolides
28. Streptococcus pyogenes causes all of the following
conditions, EXCEPT:
C. Diarrhea
29. A 2 year old female came in at the clinic because of multiple
furuncles and carbuncles all over her body. Which among the
following organisms is MOST LIKELY AND THE MOST COMMON
etiology?
B. Staphylococcus aureus
30. All of the following statement regarding Mycoplasma
pneumonia are true, EXCEPT:
B. Immunity after infections is long lasting
31. An 8 year old boy who has been admitted to the hospital
for 5 days for treatment of Plasmodium falciparum infection
was referred to you because he was noted to have: BP – 80/50,
CR – 122/min, RR – 30/min, T – 36C. He has faint pulses and he
is pale. He is conscious but weak-looking. You believe he is
developing complications and your primary consideration is:
a. hypoglyvemia
b. cerebral malaria
c. respiratory distress
d. algid malaria
e. Prostration
32. which of the following statements regarding Toxoplasma
gondii infection is FALSE?
a. T. gondii is not transmitted from person to person
b. Cockroaches and flies can contaminate food with oocyts
c. Lymphadenopathy caused by T. gondii may be painful
d. T. gondii may cause disseminated disease in
immunocompromised individuals
33. In patients with amebic liver abscess, aspiration may be
considered if there is no clinical improvement after ______ days
of treatment.
a. 2-4
b. 3-5
c. 4-6
d. 5-7
34. A 5 year old girl was brought to your clinic because of
chronic diarrhea and periumbilical pain. You noted that the
patient is underweight, stunted and pale looking. Her stool
exam revealed presence of:
You decide to give:
a. Mebendazole 500 mg once daily for 3 days
b. Albendazole 400 mg once daily for 3 days
c. Nitazoxanide 100 mg 2x a day for 3days
d. Nitazoxanide 500 2x a day for 3 days
35. The following parasites gain entry into the human body by
ingestion of ova or larvae EXCEPT:
a. Ancylostoma duodunale
b. Ascaris lumbricoides
c. Strongyloides stercoralis
d. Enterobius vermicularis
36. Praziquantel given at 40mg/kg/day in 2 divided doses for 1 42. A 14 year old girl is being treated for P.vivax with
day is the recommended treatment for the following EXCEPT: chloroquine but she has a poor clinical response to the
a. Schistosoma mekongi treatment. She is conscious, coherent and her vital signs are
b. Schistosoma intercalatum stable. However, she continues to have paroxysms of fever,
c. Schistosoma mansoni sweating and chills. You decided to shift chloroquine to:
d. Schistosoma haematobium e. quinine + doxycycline + primaquine

37. The most commonly encountered opportunistic infection in 43. which of the following statement regarding Pneumocystis
infants and children with HIV is jirovecii infection is TRUE?
a. Candida albicans a. Chest x-ray usually show bilateral diffuse interstitial disease
b. Candida parapsilosis interstitial disease with granular pattern
c. Cryptococcus neoformans b. most human are infected before 3 years of age
d. Histoplasma capsulatum c. control of infection depends on humoral cell mediated
e. Pneumocystis jirovecii immunity
d. in patients with profound congenital immunodeficiency,
38. A 37 year old was diagnosed to have hyperinfection the onset of hypoxia and symptoms is subtle
syndrome caused by Strongyloides stercoralis. He should be e. CD8 cell are not effective in eradicating P.jirovecii but they
given: also help modulate the inflammation caused by CD4 cells.
a. Thiabendazole for 2 days
b. Thiabendazole for 5 days 44. Immunocompromised patients who remain at high risk for
c. Ivermectin for 5 days cryptococcal infection may be given
d. Ivermectin for 7 days a. Fluconazole
e. Ivermectin for 10 days
45. stools in giardia lamblia infection are characterized by the
39. Which of the following clinical manifestation is following features EXCEPT:
characteristics of a schistosomal infection? a. Profuse and watery
a. Itching and restless sleep secondary to nocturnal perianal or b. foul smelling
perineal pruritus c. greasy and mucoid with fecal leukocytes
b. Chronic dysentery and rectal prolapse d. they may float
c. Iron deficiency anemia with cognitive and intellectual defects
d. Papular pruritic rash followed after 4 weeks by acute 46. jonathan was born preterm and developed neonatal sepsis.
onset of fever, chills and sweating He was isolated in the nursery and treated the infection. Work-
e. Pruritic, tortuous, urticarial rash on the lower abdomen ups showed positive for cytomegalic Inclusion bodies. Which of
followed by manifestations similar to Loeffler syndrome the following complications should be closely monitor for
jonathan?
40. An 8 month old baby was brought to your clinic because of c. sensorineural hearing loss
fussiness and decreased milk intake. On physical examination,
you noted cheese-like curds in the infant’s mouth. You decide 47. which of the following statements is TRUE regarding CMV
to prescribe: infection?
a. Amphotericin B a. risk for fetal infection is highest with primary maternal CMV
b. Single dose fluconazole infection
c. Clotrimazole 1% cream b. respiratory secretions is one of the most important
d. Flucytosine sources of the virus
e. Miconazole gel c. it is a differential diagnosis for jaundice in neonates
d. it can present as mononucleosis-like syndrome in younger
41. Significant eosinophilia is seen in the following parasitic children
infections EXCEPT:
a. ascaris 48. A mother brought her 4 year old son Marco to JBL because
b. strongyliodiasis of fever which started 3 days ago. Marco appears weak and he
c. trichuriasis doesn’t want to eat because he said his throat aches. You let
d. schistosomiasis him open his mouth and you saw exudative pharyngitis. You
e. hookworm infection seem to have a clue of his illness. What else in the physical
examination will you check to complete the triad and confirm
your diagnosis of a viral illness?
b. splenomegaly and lymphadenopathy
49. which of the following laboratory findings is suggestive of
Epstein Barr virus infections?
d. Downey cells
50. All of the following statements regarding polio virus are
true EXCEPT:
a. patients are potentially contagious for as long as fecal
excretion persists
b. in OPV recipient, virus persists in the throat for 1-2 weeks
and excreted in the feces for several weeks
c. incubation period is 3-6 days for abortive poliomyelitis
d. poliovirus is often recovered from cerebrospinal fluid
and blood
51. WHO recommends which of the following anti-polio virus
vaccine schedule?
a. primary series of OPv/IPV at 2, 4, 6 mos and booster
doses at 18 mos and 4-6 yo
52. the oral live polio vaccine is recommended in the following
situations EXCEPT:
a. locations with continued or recent circulation of the wild-
type poliovirus
b. most developing countries where the higher cost of IPV
vaccine is prohibitive
c. patient with immunodeficiency disorder
d. areas where inadequate sanitation necessitates an optimal
mucosal barrier to wild-type poliovirus circulation
56. In the recent findings of the prevalence of AIDS, the
prevalence rate of men who have sex with men or MSM related
HIV/AIDS in these cities has exceeded the national average,
EXCEPT:
a. quezon city
b. davao
c. cebu
d. pasig
57. All of the following statements are tru regarding vaccine-
associated paralytic poliomyelitis, EXCEPT:
a. mechanism of VAPP is belived to be mutation or
reversion of the vaccine virus to a more aggressive form
b. paralysis that results is identical to that caused by wild virus
and may be permanent
c. incidence is 1 case in >3million doses distributed
d. it happens in cases where oral polio vaccine is administered
58. What is the risk of fetal infection with primary maternal
CMV infection?
b. 40%
59. the DOH recoomend the following hospital where MERS-
CoV patients can be treated EXCEPT:
a. southern Philippines medical center, davao
b. east avenue medical center
c. vicente sotto memorial hospital, cebu
d. bagiuo general hospital

53. A 20 month old baby was brought to AUF-OPD because of 60. The Philippines was certified polio-free by WHO in October
fever and drooling. You were assisting the resident on duty and 2000. However, three cases of VDPV were isolated in what year?
have asked you to do physical examination. You noticed A. 2001
vesicles on the baby’s buccal mucosa when he was crying. The B. 2002
same lesions were also present in his hands and feet. Having C. 2003
just learned viral infection, what is the most probable etiologic D. 2004
agent of this baby’s illness?
b. Coxsackievirus 61. The most common cause of death in Measles infection is:
A. Pneumonia
54. All of the following constitute close contact, EXCEPT: B. Gastroenteritis
a. being within approximately 6 feet for a prolonged period of C. Otitis media
time while not wearing recommended personal protective D. Encephalitis
equipment
b. having direct contact with infectious secretions while not 62. Lilly, a 5 year-old visited their relatives in the province not
wearing recommended personal protective equipment knowing that her cousin has varicella. Lilly did not receive
c. brief interactions. Such as walking by a person while not varicella vaccine. What should be done as post-exposure
wearing recommended personal protective equipment prophylaxis to Lilly?
d. none of the above A. Give oral acyclovir for 7 days
B. Administer Varicella vaccine within 3-5 days
55. Humans are the only known reservoir host for HIV. Which C. Give Varicella-Zoster virus immune globulin immediately
of the following is not a usual mode of transmission for the D. Isolate Lilly for 7-10 days
virus?
c. in schools or child care setting 63. What type of influenza virus can cause sporadic upper
respiratory tract disease?
A. Type A
B. Type B
C. Type C
D. All of the above
64. The influenza vaccine is given annually to all infants and 72. The following statements are true regarding history taking,
children starting at the age of? except:
A. 2 months A. A good history is the best pointer to pediatric diagnosis
B. 4 months B. Information in pediatric history is usually taken from the
C. 6 months mother or caretaker
D. 12 months C. Majority of pediatric diagnosis are based on physical
examination
65. How is Rotavirus infection transmitted? D. There is no substitution for a thorough history in diagnosis
A. Fecal-oral route pediatric disorders
B. Droplet
C. Direct contact 73. A 5-day old baby was brought to the clinic for well-baby
D. Airborne check-up. On examination, pertinent findings were jaundice up
to the chest and SGA. These findings are included in?
66. A six-year old boy was scratched by the dog of their neighbor A. Antenatal history
while playing with it. What post-exposure measure for Rabies B. Perinatal history
must be done? C. Past Medical History
A. Observe the dog for 10 days D. Growth and Development History
B. Immediate immunization
C. Euthanize the dog for examination 74. Which of the following statements is not true regarding
D. Immediate Rabies immunoglobulin examination of the head?
A. Infants with meningitis will present neck rigidity
67. The most common hematologic abnormality of DHF? B. The fontanel is normally slightly depressed and pulsatile
A. Hemoconcentration and is best evaluated when an infant is held upright and is
B. Thrombocytopenia asleep or feeding
C. Prolonged bleeding time C. A bulging fontanel is a reliable indicator of increased ICP in
D. Increased prothrombin level an asleep baby
D. Palpation of a newborn's skull characteristically shows
68. What is the proper fluid therapy for a case of Dengue shock? overriding of the cranial sutures for the first several days
A. Ringer Lactated Saline
B. Ringer Lactated with glucose 75. The following will present as recurrent fever with chills,
C. Normal saline except:
D. Fresh whole blood A. Malaria
B. Typhoid fever
69. The virus that is the common cause of viral croup C. Abscess
(laryngotracheobronchitis) is: D. Cor pulmonale
A. Influenza virus
B. Parainfluenza virus 76. In testing for arm recoil in the New Ballard Score, square
C. Rotavirus window score of _______ is selected only if there is contact
D. Coronavirus between the infant's face and fist.
A. 2
70. The following statements are true of Herpes labialis except: B. 3
A. The common site is the vermillion border of the lip C. 4
B. It is the common manifestation of recurrent HSV-2 D. 5
infection
C. The vesicles may become pustular 77. The prenatal frank breech position can interfere with the
D. Complete healing of the vesicles occur within 6-10 days popliteal angle maneuver of postnatal maturation scoring for
the first ______ hours of age due to prolonged intrauterine flexor
71. A 9-month old boy was rushed to the emergency room by fatigue.
her mother. If you are the one on duty at the ER, what is the A. 12-24
important data that you would want to know first? B. 24-36
A. Identifying data C. 24-48
B. Chief complaint D. 36-72
C. History of Present Illness
D. Feeding History
78. In the early phases of development, the fetus lies in extension
but as it matures, it gradually assumes a flexed attitude in utero
or in the nursery suggesting that flexion results from:
A. Maturation of the CNS
B. Development of the compressive forces of the uterus
C. Continued growth of the fetus in a constricted space
D. Growth and development of muscles
85. To prevent heat loss by convection, one remedial measure to
do is?
A. To eliminate drafts such as windows or air conditioning
B. To cover the surfaces with warm blanket or towel
C. To move the cold window surface as far from the cold
surface
D. To dry the baby and remove the amniotic fluid immediately

79. When doing the square window maneuver, the examiner 86. Following the neonatal asphyxia curve, arterial pressure
noted that the angle formed between the palm and the forearm (mmHg) only drops during?
of the baby is 60º. This corresponds to square number ______ on A. Primary apnea
the score sheet? B. Secondary apnea
A. 0 C. Tertiary apnea
B. 1 D. All of the above
C. 2
D. 3 87. Intrapartum risk factors that predict the need for
E. 4 resuscitation include the following except?
A. Pregnancy-induced HPN
80. In making a rapid delivery room assessment of gestational B. Precipitous labor
age, the most useful clinical signs in determining whether the C. Persistent fetal bradycardia
baby is premature, borderline mature, or full-term infants D. Abruptio placenta/placenta previa
include the following, except:
A. Density of lanugo 88. A term baby girl was born to a 32-year-old G2P2 mother via
B. Cartilaginous development of the earlobe NSD with meconium-stained amniotic fluid. Apgar score then
C. Size of the breast nodule was 7. What would be your course of action if you were there to
D. Testicular descent attend to this baby?
81. Successful transition from intrauterine to extrauterine life is A. Simply use a bulb-syringe or large bore suction catheter
evident if: to clear secretions and meconium from the mouth and
A. Expansion of lungs lead to retention of lung fields for better the nose
diffusion of oxygen B. Ambu-bag the baby to provide oxygenation then suction
B. Elevation of PO2 in both alveoli and arterial the nose and then, the mouth
concentration C. Start inserting an endotracheal tube via laryngoscope into
C. Increase in pulmonary vascular resistance the trachea, and then, attach to a suction source
D. Expansion of the lungs lead to termination of L-R shunting D. Start with the procedure in A then proceed to the procedure
in C
82. The second step in Essential Newborn Care would be:
A. Immediate and thorough drying for 30 seconds 89. Assessment of the following parameters are no longer used
B. Early skin-to-skin contact between the mother and the in deciding the need for oxygenation?
baby A. Pulse oximeter
C. Properly timed cord clamping B. Apgar score
D. Early breastfeeding C. Color of the baby
D. Muscle tone
83. Time band interventions from 90 minutes to 6 hours include
but one. 90. A baby remained to be apneic, has a HR of <60 and with
A. Eye care with chloramphenicol ointment depressed muscle tone after providing positive pressure
B. Vitamin K, 1mg IM ventilation for 30 seconds. What is the next move?
C. Hepatitis B and BCG vaccination A. Continue providing positive pressure ventilation and
D. Cord care increase oxygen delivery to 15 L/min
B. Check the airway status and then proceed to inserting
84. Oil bath or complete warm bath of the baby should be done endotracheal intubation
_____ hours after birth? C. Administer chest compression and decide endotracheal
A. 2 intubation at any point of the steps
B. 4 D. Proceed to endotracheal intubation first then administer
C. 6 chest compression
D. 8
91. A 2-year-old baby who has a stormy perinatal course now 98. A 12-year-old girl had intermittent fever accompanied by
has cerebral palsy, spastic type. Which of the following cough and colds. Erythematous facial flushing appeared after 2
neurologic examinations can be elicited in this child? days.
A. Increased DTR - D. Erythema infectiosum
B. Decreased muscle tone
C. Flaccid paralysis 99. An 8-year-old boy developed slight fever with no other
D. All of the above accompanying signs and symptoms. Twenty-four hours later,
macular rashes were seen on his trunk then spread outward
92. The neurologic mental status is designed to test the appearing in crops.
following, except: - E. Varicella zoster
A. Memory
B. Understanding 100. A 9-year-old girl had high fever with conjunctivitis.
C. Though perception Maculopapular rashes appeared on the 4th day of fever which
D. Temperament started on the head then spread downwards.
- A. Rubella
93. Pathologic reflexes like the Babinski's sign may be normal up
to age?
A. 1 year
B. 2 years
C. 3 years
D. 4 years

94. A 6 month old, Celine, was born 32 weeks gestation last April
26, 2015 via NSD. She is scheduled today for developmental
assessment. What would be her adjusted age?
A. 2 months
B. 3 months
C. 4 months
D. 5 months

95. What is DENVER II?

A. Screen specifically for symptomatic children with potential
developmental disorders
B. Generate data that can help you establish the diagnosis of
developmental disorders
C. Used to monitor children "at-risk" for developmental
disorders
D. Can label a child's mental ability

MATCHING TYPE

A. Rubella
B. Rubeola
C. Exanthema subitum
D. Erythema infectiosum
E. Varicella zoster

96. A 9-month-old infant developed high fever for 3 days,

accompanied by soft stools. Maculopapular rashes appeared on
the face then spread to the extremities on the 4th day of illness.
- C. Exanthema subitum

97. A 4-year-old boy had low fever accompanied by headache

and body malaise. Macular rashes appeared at the onset of
fever, which started on the neck then spreads centrifugally.
- B. Rubeola