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ĐỀ SỐ 01

Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part
differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.(2)
Question 1. A. weighed B. laughed C. helped D. missed
Question 2. A. exhaust B. honor C. honest D. heir

Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the
other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.(2)
Question 3:
A. survive B. enlarge C. struggle D. occur
Question 4:
A. preservative B. conventional C. reliable D. intellectual

Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.(3)
Question 5: After our discussion, we decided to take a later fight and so that we
A B C
could spend more time with the clients.
D
Question 6: As the old one, this new copier can perform its functions in half the time.
A B C D
Question 7:The assumption that smoking has bad effects on our heath have been proved.
A B C D

Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of
the following questions (12)
Question 8: The higher the content of carbon dioxide in the air is, _____.
A. more heat is retains B. it retains the more heat
C. the heat it retains more D. the more heat is retains

Question 9: We received a call from the teacher ___ charge of our course.
A. at B. in C. about D. to

Question 10: Tom hasn’t completed the work yet and Maria hasn’t_________.
A. neither B. either C. too D. Also

Question 11: ______ was the tea that we couldn’t drink it.
A. No longer B. So strong C. Hardly ever D. How strong

Question 12: We could have caught the last train, but we ____ five minutes late.
A. were B. would be C. have been D. are

Question 13: Do you remember ____ to help us when we are in difficulty?

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A. you offer B. being offered C. once offering D. to offer


Question 14: In our team, no person ____ John could finish this tough task in such a short
time.
A. including B. rather than C. outside D. other than

Question 15: _____ he got top mark at high school, he never want to go to university
A. Nevertheless B. Despite C. Although D. Meanwhile

Question 16: The superstar, accompanied by the other members of the bands , _____ to visit
our school next week.
A. are going B. is going C. outside D. has had

Question 17: Be sure not to rely too _____ on your mother tongue when you are learning a
foreign language.
A. abundantly B. severely C. numerously D. heavily

Question 18: Communities in remote areas are extremely _______ to famine if crops fail.
A. vulnerable B. helpless C. disappointed D. defenseless

Question 19: I could hear voices but I couldn’t ________ what they were saying.
A. Figure out B. turn up C. Make out D. bring about

Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to
complete each of the following exchanges.(2)
Question 20: Lucy : “ You look really nice in that red sweater!”
Sue: “____”
A. How dare you? B. Thank you.
C. I’m afraid so. D. Don’t mention it.

Question 21: Kay: “ I wouldn’t do that if I were you.”


John: “____”
A. Wouldn’t you? Why? B. It’s out of the question
C. I’d rather you didn’t D. Would you, really?

Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSET in meaning
to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.(2)
Question 22: Even though the mountain was very steep and the climb was hazardous, several
adventurous tourists managed to reach the top.
A. causing a lot of risks B. bringing excitement
C. costing a lot of money D. resulting in depression

Question 23: Thank to the invention of the microscope, biologists can now gain insights into
the nature of the human cell.
A. deep understanding B. in – depth studies
C. spectacular sightings D. far – sighted view

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Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.(2)
Question 24: Any student who neglects his or her homework is unlikely to do well at school.
A. puts off B. looks for C. attends to D. approves of

Question 25: We run a very tight ship here, and we expect all our employees to be at their
desks by eight o’clock and take good care of their own business.
A. manage an inflexible system
B. have a good voyage
C. run faster than others
D. organize things inefficiently

Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closet in
meaning to each of the following questions.(3)
Question 26: I had two job offers upon graduation, neither of which was appropriate for my
qualifications.
A. The two jobs offered to me after my graduation didn’t suit my qualifications.
B. Both of the job offers I had prior to my graduation were appropriate for my qualifications.
C. I was offered two jobs soon after my graduation, both of which were suitable for my
qualifications.
D. Though I wasn’t qualified enough, two jobs were offered to me upon graduation.

Question 27: They arrived too late to get good seats.


A. As they got there too late, they were no good seats left.
B. Although they were late, they found some good seats.
C. They got good seats some times after they arrived.
D. They had to stand for the whole show.

Question 28: It was only when I left home that I realized how much my family meant to me.
A. Not until I left home did I realize how much my family meant to me.
B. I left home and didn’t realize how meaningful my family was.
C. Before I left home, I realized how much my family meant to me.
D. As soon as I left home, I found out what a family could do without.

Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines
each pair of sentences in the following questions.(2)
Question 29: I do my homework and schoolwork in separate books. I don’t get muddled up.
A. I do not get muddled up due to the separation between homework and schoolwork.
B. I would get muddled up if I did not separate homework from schoolwork.
C. I do my homework and schoolwork in separate books so that I don't get muddled up.
D. Having two separate books at home and at work he ps me avoid getting muddled up.

Question 30: Most scientists know him well. However, very few ordinary people have heard
of him.
A. Many ordinary people know him better than most scientists do.
B. Although he is well known to scientists, he is little known to the general public.

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C. He is the only scientist that is not known to the general public.


D. Not only scientists but also the general public know him as a big name.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A,B,C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35.
Why is it that many teenager have the energy to play computer games until late at night but
can’t find the energy to get out of bed (31)______ for school? According to a new report,
today’s generation of children are in danger of getting so less sleep that they are putting their
mental and physical heath at (32) ____ . Adults can easily survive on seven to eight hours sleep
a night, whereas teenagers require nine or ten hours. According to medical experts, one in five
youngsters (33)_________ anything between two and five hours sleep a night less than their
parents did at their age.
This raises serious question about whether lack of sleep is affecting children’s ability to
concentrate at school. The connection between sleep deprivation and lapses in memory,
impaired reaction time and poor concentration is well (34) _________. Research has shown
that losing as little as half an hour’s sleep a night can have profound effects on how children
perform the next day. A good night’s sleep is also crucial for teenagers because it is while they
are asleep (35) ________ they release a hormone that is essential for their growth spurt (the
period during teenage years when the body grows at a rapid rate). It’s true that they can, to
some extent, catch up on sleep at weekends, but that won’t help them when they are dropping
off to sleep in class on a Friday afternoon.
By Tim Falla and Paul A. Davies . Solutions Advanced. OUP

Question 31: A. in time B. at time C. behind time D. about time


Question 32: A. risk B. danger C. threat D. jeopardy
Question 33: A. makes B. puts C. gets D. brings
Question 34: A. arranged B. organized C. established D. acquired
Question 35: A. where B. that C. which D. at which

Read the following passage and mark the letter A,B,C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
A radio telescope is a radio receiver that “sees” radio waves. Unlike a normal telescope, which
sees light, a radio telescope is used primarily in the area of astronomy because it can detect
radio waves that are emitted by celestial objects. Such objects in space, also called radio objects,
can be things such as hot gas, electrons, and wavelengths given off by different atoms and
molecules.
The first radio telescope was invented by Grote Reber in 1937. He was an American who
graduated with a degree in engineering. He went on to work as an amateur radio operator and
later decided to try to build his own radio telescope in his backyard. Reber’s first two radio
receivers failed to pick up any signals from outer space, but in 1938, his third radio telescope
successfully picked up radio waves from space.
A radio telescope consists of a large parabolic – shaped dish antenna or a combination of two
or more. The significance of the parabolic shape allows for the incoming radio waves to be
concentrated on one focal point, allowing the signals to be pick up as strongly as possible. A
larger dish means that more signals can be received and focalized.

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In the late 1950s and early 1960s, the largest radio telescope of the time was invented with a
seventy- six – meter telescope although larger telescope have been made since then. The largest
current radio telescope in the world is the RATAN – 600 in Russia, whose diameter is 576
meters. It has provided valuable feedback of the sun’s radio wavelengths and atmosphere. The
largest radio telescope in Europe is a 100- meter diameter telescope in Germany, and the largest
radio telescope in the United States in the Big Ear in the state of Ohio. The largest array of
telescope in the Giant Metrewave Radio Telescope in India.
Radio telescopes have provided scientists with valuable information about our universe. One
of the most important functions of radio telescopes is their ability to allow scientists to track
different space probes, the unmanned space missions in outer space. Radio telescope allow for
the travel of space probes into places like the surface of Mars that are too dangerous for men
to explore. Without radio wave technology, scientists would not know much of what inhabits
the universe nor would they be able to see it. Radio waves are our eyes and ears in outer space.

Question 36: According to the passage, a radio telescope enables the detection of _____.
A. normal light of celestial objects
B. radio waves sent out by celestial objects
C. creatures that inhabit celestial objects
D. shapes and sizes of celestial objects

Question 37: According to paragraph 2, all of the following are true about Grote Reber
EXCEPT that ___.
A. he was an amateur radio operator
B. he was an astronomer
C. he was an engineer
D. he was an inventor

Question 38 : The verb “pick up” in paragraph 3 is closest meaning to _____.


A. send B. receive C. select D. lift

Question 39: According to the passage, which of the following statements is TRUE?
A. The pattern of radio waves received by radio telescope is significant.
B. The largest radio telescope of the time is the one with a seventy – six – meter diameter
C. A larger dish antenna helps a radio telescope produce better results
D. The Big Ears in the United Sates produces the largest array of telescopes

Question 40: The word “current” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to ______.


A. water movement B. electricity flow
C. moving D. existing

Question 41: The word “they” in paragraph 5 refers to _________.


A. places B. scientists
C. radio wave D. eyes and ears

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Question 42: Radio wave are scientists eyes and ears in outer space because ___.
A. they allow them to travel to such dangerous places as Mars
B. they help to track only manned space missions in space
C. they can recognize who dominates the universe
D. they can help them understand more about the universe

Read the following passage and mark the letter A,B,C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50.

The ability to conduct electricity is one of the key properties of a metal. Other solid materials
such as silicon can conduct electricity but only effectively at certain temperatures. Also, some
substances such as salt (sodium chloride) can conduct when molten or when dissolved in water.
The ability of metals to conduct electricity is due to how their atoms bond together. In order to
bond together the metal atoms lose at least one of their outermost electron. This leaves the
metal atoms with a positive charge and they are now strictly ions. The lost electrons are free to
move in what is known as a sea of electron. Since the electrons are negatively charged they
attract the ions and this is what keeps the structure together.

An electric current is a flow of charge and since the electron in the sea of electron are free to
move they can be made to flow in one direction when a source of electrical energy such as a
battery is connected to the metal. Hence we have an electric current following through the wire,
and this is what makes metals such good conductor of electricity. The only other common solid
conducting material that pencil users are likely to encounter is graphite (what the ‘lead’ of a
pencil is made from). Graphite is a form of carbon and again the carbon atoms bond in such a
way that there is a sea of electron that can be made to flow as an electric current. Likewise, if
we have a ionic substance like salt we can make the electrically charged ions follow to create
a current but only when those ions are free to move, either when the substance is a liquid or
dissolves in water. In its solid state an ionic substance like salt cannot conduct electricity as its
charged ions cannot flow.

Electrical insulators are substances that cannot conduct electricity well either, because they
contain no charged particles or any charged particles they might contain do not flow easily.
Water itself is a poor conductor of electricity as is does not contain a significant amount of fully
charged particles (the ends of the water molecule are partly charged but overall the molecule is
neutral). However, most water we encounter does contain dissolved charged particles, so it will
be more conductive than pure water. Many of the problems that occur when touching electrical
devices with wet hands result from the ever – present salt that is left on our skin through
perspiration and is dissolves in the water to make it more conductive.
By Helena Gillespie and Rob Gillespie, Science for Primary School Teachers. OUP.

Question 43: Electrical conductivity is _______.


A. one of the most important properties of metals
B. one of the key properties of most solid materials
C. impossible for any substance when it is dissolved in water
D. completely impossible for silicon

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Question 44: According to the passage, a metal can conduct electricity due to _____.
A. the loss of one electron in the core of its atoms
B. the way its atoms bond together
C. the absence of free electrons
D. its atoms with a positive charge

Question 45: The word “outermost” in paragraph I mostly means ______.


A. furthest from the inside B. nearest to the inside
C. the heaviest D. the lightest

Question 46: The atoms of metal can bond together because _______.
A. they lose all of their electrons
B. negatively charged electron attract positive ions
C. electrons can flow in a single direction
D. the lost electrons cannot move freely in the sea of electrons

Question 47: The word “they” in paragraph 3 refers to ______.


A, charged particles
B, electrical insulators
D, electric currents
D, changed ions

Question 48: Water is a poor conductor because it contains ______.


A, only a small amount of fully charged particles
B, only a negative electric charge
C, no positive or negative electric charge
D, only a positive electric charge

Question 49: Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage?
A. Some materials are more conductive than others.
B. Graphite is a common solid substance that can conduct electricity
C. Salt can conduct electricity when it is molten or dissolved
D. Pure water is much more conductive than most water we encounter every day.

Question 50: Which of the following could best serve as the title of the passage?
A. Electrical Insulators B. Electrical energy
C. Electrical Devices D. Electrical conductivity

--- THE END ----

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ĐỀ SỐ 02

Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part
differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.(2)
Question 1. A. resort B. position C. pleasure D. desert
Question 2. A. helped B. wicked C. knocked D. coughed

Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the
other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.(2)
Question 3.A.overweight B.convenient C.resistant D.allowance
Question 4.A.criminal B.accurate C.disease D.resolute

Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.(3)
Question 5: Our astronauts chosen for fly spacecraft were selected from military test pilots.
A B C D
Question 6: These exercises look easy, but they are very relatively difficult for us.
A B C D
Question 7: All of the students in this course will be assessed according to their attendance
A B
, performance, and they work hard.
C D

Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions (12)
Question 8: The carefully nurtured garden with a wide ____of flowers and fruit trees have
added elegance to this place and made it a major tourist attraction.
A. variety B. amount C. species D. number

Question 9: Visitors to the local museum are mostly attracted by ____rocking chair.
A. an old wooden European beautiful
B. a beautiful old European wooden
C. an old beautiful wooden European
D. a wooden old beautiful European

Question 10: ____my mother’s encouragement, I wouldn’t have made such a daring decision.
A. Until B. In spite of C. But for D. Providing

Question 11: The cinema is no longer as popular as it was in the 1930’s and 1940’s, but it is
still an important ____of entertainment.
A. status B. source C. origin D. prospect

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Question 12: They got lost in the forest, and ____made matters worse was that night began to
fall.
A. that B. what C. which D. it

Question 13: Students are encouraged to develop critical thinking ____accepting opinions
without questioning them.
A. in addition B. for instance
C. instead of D. because of

Question 14: The bank has more than 100 branches, ____in a major urban area.
A. the location of which B. each locating
C. each located D. and are located

Question 15: In my opinion, ____new technology who will finally decide which ideas take off.
A. it is the development of B. that the development of
C. it is the user of D. that the user of

Question 16: “My secretary will book you an afternoon flight and have you ____at the airport”
A. picked up B. picking up C. pick up D. to pick up

Question 17: In the last match, Sabella changed his formation at half-time, introducing
Fernando Gago in midfield and Higuain in attack, but in the end it was Messi’s magic that
____the difference.

A. made B. gave C. did D. took


Question 18: We’ve already bought the house but won’t ____it until May, when the present
occupants have moved out.
A. take possession of B. catch sight of
C. keep track of D. gain recognition of

Question 19: Jessica looks very tired. She ____have stayed up late to finish her assignment last
night.
A. would B. should C. will D. must

Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to
complete each of the following exchanges.(2)
Question 20: Jane had difficulty carrying her suitcase upstairs, and Mike, her friend, offered to
help. Select the most suitable response to fill in the blank.
Mike: “Need a hand with your suitcase, Jane?”
Jane: “____”
A. That’s very kind of you. B. Not a chance.
C. I don’t believe it. D. Well done!

Question 21: Minh, a student from Hai Phong, is going to take the college entrance exam in
Hanoi next week. His father is seeing him off at the railway station. Select the most suitable
response to fill in the blank.

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Dad: “Good luck with the exam, Minh!”


Minh: “____, Dad.”
A. By no means B. I wish so
C. Thank you D. Never mind

Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSET in meaning
to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.(2)
Question 22: Within a week on display at the exhibition, the painting was hailed as a
masterpiece.
A. a down- to – earth work of art B. an excellent work of art
C. an expensive work of art D. a large work of art

Question 23: Deer like figures made from willow shoots are the oldest evidence of human
habitation in the Grand Canyon.
A. proof B. clue C. dispute D. exhibit

Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.(2)
Question 24: Because Jack defaulted on his loan, the bank took him to court.
A. failed to pay B. paid in full C. had a bad personality D. was paid
much money

Question 25: His career in the illicit drug trade ended with the police raid this morning.
A. elicited B. irregular C. secret D. legal

Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closet in
meaning to each of the following questions.(3)
Question 26: “Getting a good job doesn’t matter much to me.”
A. “I am only interested in getting a good job.”
B. “It’s interesting for me to get a good job.”
C. I am not good at getting a good job.”
D. I don’t care about getting a good job.”

Question 27: Access to the library computer facilities is open to students.


A. Computers in the library are not used for students.
B. Students can freely assess the library computer service.
C. Students are not allowed to use library computers.
D. The library computer facilities are accessible to students.

Question 28: They were exposed to biased information, so they didn’t know the true story.
A. If they got unbiased information, they could know the true story.
B. If they had unbiased the information, they could have known the story.
C. If they had been exposed to unbiased information, they would have known the true story.
D. If they have exposed to the unbiased information, they could have seen the true story.

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Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines
each pair of sentences in the following questions.(2)
Question 29: He felt very tired. However, he was determined to continue to climb up the
mountain.
A. He felt so tired that he was determined to continue to climb up the mountain.
B. Feeling very tired, he was determined to continue to climb up the mountain.
C. As a result of his tiredness, he was determined to continue to climb up the mountain.
D. Tired as he might feel, he was determined to continue to climb up the mountain.

Question 30: The Prime Minister set up a committee of financial experts. They were to help
him discuss and formulate new policies.
A. The Prime Minister, who is a financial expert, set up a committee to discuss and formulate
new policies.
B. A committee consisting of financial experts was set up by the Prime Minister to help him
discuss and formulate new policies.
C. The Prime Minister, who was helped by financial experts, set up a committee to discussed
and formulate new policies.
D. A committee consisting of financial experts who were helped by the Prime Minister
discussed and formulated new policies.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A,B,C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35.

BODY LANGUAGE.
Throughout history people have always communicated with one another, not only by speech
but also by movements of the hands and body. It is, however, only (31) ______ the last few
years that these aspects of communication have been studied at all widely. This type of
communication is known as body language or non-verbal communication.
People sometimes wonder how you can learn how body language works. It is of course possible
to read books on the subject but you also need to (32) _________ time observing people’s
movements. A railway station is a particular good place for such observation, as here people
can be seen openly expressing eagerness, sorrow, delight, impatience and many other human
emotions by means of movement.
If you turn down the sound on your television set and try to understand (33) __________ is
happening simply by watching the picture you will learn even more about communication
without words. By turning the sound back up every five (34) _________ or so, it is possible to
check how accurate your understanding is.
Having studied the art of body language you will have a definite advantage at a boring party.
You will be able to sit on your own for the whole evening and thoroughly enjoy yourself by
both watching (35) __________ interpreting the body language of all the other people there.
Question 31: A. with B. during C. for D. on
Question 32: A. kill B. spend C. give D. lose

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Question 33: A. who B. which C. what D. that


Question 34: A. years B. minutes C. hours D. months
Question 35: A. with B. and C. but D. or

Read the following passage and mark the letter A,B,C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
We find that bright children are rarely held back by mixed-ability teaching. On the contrary,
both their knowledge and experience are enriched. We feel that there are many disadvantages
instreaming pupils. It does not take into account the fact that children develop at different rates.
It can have a bad effect on both the bright and the not-so-bright child. After all, it can be quite
discouraging to be at the bottom of the top grade!
Besides, it is rather unreal to grade people just according to their intellectual ability. This is
only one aspect of their total personality. We are concerned to develop the abilities of all our
pupils to the full, not just their academic ability. We also value personal qualities and social
skills, and we find that mixed-ability teaching contributes to all these aspects of learning.
In our classroom, we work in various ways. The pupils often work in groups; this gives them
the opportunity to learn to co-operate, to share, and to develop leadership skills. They also learn
how to cope with the personal problems as well as learning how to think, to make decisions, to
analyze and evaluate, to communicate effectively. The pupils learn from each other as well as
from the teachers.
Sometimes the pupils work in pairs; sometimes the work on individual tasks and
assignments, they can do this at their own speed. They also have some formal class teaching
when this is appropriate. We encourage our pupils to use the library, and we teach them the
skills they need in order to do this effectively. An advanced pupil can do advanced works; it
does not matter what age the child is. We expect our pupils to do their best, not their least, and
we give them every encouragement to attain this goal.
Question 36: In the passage, the author’s attitude towards “mixed-ability teaching” is
________
A. questioning B. approving C. objective D. critical

Question 37: The phrase “held back” in paragraph 1 means ______


A. prevented from advancing B. forced to study in lower class
C. made to remain in the same classes D. made to lag behind

Question 38: The author argues that a teacher’s chief concern should be the development of
the pupils’ _________
A. learning ability and communicative skills B. intellectual abilities
C. total personality D. personal and social skills

Question 39: Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage?


A. Group work provides the pupils with the opportunity to learn to be capable organizers
B. Pupils also learn how to participate in teaching activities
C. Group work gives pupils the opportunity to learn to work together with others

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D. Pupils also learn to develop their reasoning ability

Question 40: The author’s purpose of writing this passage is to _________


A. recommend pair work and group work classroom activities
B. offer advice on the proper use of the school library
C. argue for teaching bright and not-so-bright pupils in the same class.
D. emphasize the importance of appropriate formal classroom teaching

Question 41: Which of the following statements can best summarize the main idea of the
passage?
A. The aim of education is to find out how to teach the bright and not-so-bright pupils
B. Various ways of teaching should be encouraged in class
C. Children, in general, develop at different rates
D. Bright children do benefit from mixed-ability teaching

Question 42: According to the passage, “streaming pupils” ______


A. is the act of putting pupils into class according to their academic abilities
B. aims at enriching both their knowledge and experience
C. is quite discouraging
D. will help the pupils learn best
D. its aim at developing the children’s total personality

Read the following passage and mark the letter A,B,C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50.
Long before they can actually speak, babies pay special attention to the speech they hear around
them. Within the first month of their lives, babies' responses to the sound of the human voice
will be different from their responses to other sorts of auditory stimuli. They will stop crying
when they hear a person talking, but not if they hear a bell or the sound of a rattle. At first, the
sounds that an infant notices might be only those words that receive the heaviest emphasis and
that often occur at the ends of utterances. By the time they are six or seven weeks old, babies
can detect the difference between syllables pronounced with rising and falling inflections. Very
soon, these differences in adult stress and intonation can influence babies' emotional states and
behavior. Long before they develop actual language comprehension, babies can sense when an
adult is playful or angry, attempting to initiate or terminate new behavior, and so on, merely on
the basis of cues such as the rate, volume, and melody of adult speech.
Adults make it as easy as they can for babies to pick up a language by exaggerating such cues.
One researcher observed babies and their mothers in six diverse cultures and found that, in all
six languages, the mothers used simplified syntax, short utterances and nonsense sounds, and
transformed certain sounds into baby talk. Other investigators have noted that when mothers
talk to babies who are only a few months old, they exaggerate the pitch, loudness, and intensity
of their words. They also exaggerate their facial expressions, hold vowels longer,
and emphasize certain words.

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More significant for language development than their response to general intonation is
observation that tiny babies can make relatively fine distinctions between speech sounds. In
other words, babies enter the world with the ability to make precisely those perceptual
discriminations that are necessary if they are to acquire aural language.
Babies obviously derive pleasure from sound input, too: even as young as nine months they
will listen to songs or stories, although the words themselves are beyond their understanding.
For babies, language is a sensory-motor delight rather than the route to prosaic meaning that it
often is for adults.

Question 43: Which of the following can be inferred about the findings described in paragraph
2?
A. Babies ignore facial expressions in comprehending aural language.
B. Mothers from different cultures speak to their babies in similar ways.
C. Babies who are exposed to more than one language can speak earlier than babies exposed to
a single language.
D. The mothers observed by the researchers were consciously teaching their babies to speak.

Question 44: According to the author, why do babies listen to songs and stories, even though
they cannot understand them?
A. They can remember them easily.
B. They focus on the meaning of their parents' word.
C. They enjoy the sound.
D. They understand the rhythm.

Question 45: The passage mentions all of the followings as the ways adults modify their speech
when talking to babies EXCEPT ______________.
A. speaking with shorter sentences B. giving all words equal emphasis
C. using meaningless sounds D. speaking more loudly than normal

Question 46: The word "diverse" is closest in meaning to ______________.


A. different B. surrounding C. stimulating D. divided

Question 47: The word "They" refers to ______________.


A. words B. mothers C. investigators D. babies

Question 48: What does the passage mainly discuss?


A. The differences between a baby's and an adult's ability to comprehend language
B. How babies perceive and respond to the human voice in their earliest stages of language
development
C. The response of babies to sounds other than the human voice
D. How babies differentiate between the sound of the human voice and other sounds

Question 49: The word "emphasize" is closest in meaning to ______________.


A. stress B. leave out C. explain D. repeat

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Question 50: The word "noted" is closest in meaning to______________.


A. requested B. observed C. theorized D. disagreed

The end

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ĐỀ SỐ 03

Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined
part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.(2)
Question 1.A. future B. figure C. adventure D. mature
Question 2.A. rejects B. always C. players D. confides

Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the
other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.(2)
Question 3.A.resources B.televise C.descendant D.possession
Question 4.A.survival B.scholarship C.mechanic D.imagine

Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.(3)
Question 5: Most of the students are queuing in lines waiting to enter the classroom.
A B C D
Question 6: Since January this year, Joe has suffered two injuries, one to his ankle
A B C
and the other in New York.
D
Question 7: Women in many parts of the world have had lower status than men, which the
A B
extent of the gap between genders varies across cultures and times.
C D

Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of
the following questions (12)
Question 8: ____, she continued to carry out her duties.
A. Although in poor health B. Although she is in good health
C. Despite her good health D. No matter how poor her health

Question 9: Carbon dioxide ________as one of the main contributors to the greenhouse
effect.
A. had identified B. have been identified
C. have identified D. had been identified

Question 10: The young lady sat still in the afternoon breeze, with her hair ____her back.
A. running over B. streaming down
C. flowed down D. fallen against

Question 11: China’s placement of its oil rig in Vietnam’s East Sea EEZ has been denounced
by ASEAN and Western politicians and professionals as the violation of Vietnam’s
____waters.

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A. farmed B. fresh
C. inland D. territorial

Question 12: We need to talk more about ____for the summer vacation before July.
A. why to choose B. how to make
C. where to go D. when to use
Question 13: In no circumstances ____on campus.
A. should smoking be allowed B. should allow smoking
C. smoking should be allowed D. we should allow smoking

Question 14: While I was looking through my old albums the other day, I ____this
photograph of my parents’ wedding.
A. took after B. made up
C. turned down D. came across

Question 15: “Take a spare type ____you have a puncture on the way to the beach.”
A. in case B. if
C. so that D. unless

Question 16: He applied for a teaching ____at Bales University with great confidence.
A. employment B. post
C. work D. career

Question 17: “Could you turn off the stove? The potatoes ____for at least thirty minutes.”
A. boiled B. were boiling
C. are boiling D. have been boiling

Question 18: You can use my car _____ you drive carefully.
A. though B. as though C. as long as D. at least

Question 19: His honesty is____; nobody can doubt it.


A. in question B. beside the question
C. without question D. out the question

Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to
complete each of the following exchanges.(2)
Question 20: Phuong Thao is a student in Ms.Lan’s writing class. She is asking for Ms.Lan’s
comments on her last essay. Select the most suitable response to fill in the blank.
Phuong Thao: “You must have found reading my essay very tiring.”
Ms.Lan: “____. I enjoyed it.”
A. Not in the least B. Just in case
C. At all costs D. You are welcome

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Question 21: Thanh: “Lan’s the best singer in our school.”


Nadia: “_____”
A. Yes, tell me about it! B. I can’t agree with you more!
C. That’s OK! D. Yes, please.

Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSET in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.(2)
Question 22: He drives me to the edge because he never stops talking.
A. frightens me B. moves me C. irritates me D. steers me
Question 23: I think we can safely say now that we have got our money back, we are home
and dry.
A. have got home dry
B. have been successful
C. have not got wet
D. have got no water

Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.(2)
24: The government is not prepared to tolerate this situation any longer.
A. look down on B. put up with C. take away from D. give on to

25: I clearly remember talking to him in a chance meeting last summer.


A. unplanned B. deliberate C. accidental D. unintentional

Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closet in
meaning to each of the following questions.(3)
Question 26: It doesn’t cost much to run a solar power system.
A. A solar power system is quite cheap to set up.
B. Running a solar power system costs nothing.
C. A solar power system costs so much to run.
D. Running a solar power system is not costly.

Question 27: We missed the turning because we forgot to take the map with us
A. Without the right map with us, we missed the turning.
B. If we were taking the map with us, we did not miss the turning.
C. Without the map with us, we missed the turning.
D. Having remembered the map with us, we would not miss the turning

Question 28: The staff couldn’t have worked any harder, but they could not even finish half
of the order all the week.
A. Had the staff worked a little harder, they might have finished all the order by the end of the
week.

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B. Throughout the week, the staff could only complete half of the order, which how they did
not work as hard as they should have.
C. The staff, who only completed half of the order all week, could not have worked as hard as
they claimed they did.
D. Throughout the week, less than half of the order could be produced, although the staff
worked as hard as they could.

Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines
each pair of sentences in the following questions.(2)
Question 29: Some economists argue that new technology causes
unemployment. Others feel that it allows more jobs to be created.
A. Arguing that new technology causes unemployment, other economists feel that it allows
more jobs to be created.
B. Besides the argument that new technology causes unemployment, some economists feel
that it allows more jobs to be created.
C. Some economists argue that new technology causes unemployment whereas others feel
that it allows more jobs to be created.
D. Some economists argue that new technology causes unemployment, so others feel that it
allows more jobs to be created.

Question 30: One student failed because he completely ignored the instructions on the paper.
The instructions appeared at the top of every page.
A. One student failed to ignore the instructions printed at the top of every page of the paper.
B. No matter how completely one student ignored the instructions printed at the top of every
page of the paper, he failed.
C. One student failed because he completely ignored the instructions appearing at the top of
every page of the paper.
D. Even though one student ignored the instructions printed at the top of every page, he failed.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A,B,C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to
35.
In Korea, in former days the marriage between a man and woman represented the joining of
two families, rather (31)_______ the joining of two individuals. The event was often
called Taerye (Great Ritual), and people from all over the village or neighborhood participated.
The ceremonies and events surrounding the actual marriage were long and (32)_________.
Professional matchmakers paired up likely candidates for marriage, with the new couple often
meeting for the first time at their wedding. The families considered many factors in the decision,
consulting with fortune tellers for prediction about the couple's future life together. During the
Chosun period, people married (33)________ their early teens, with the girl often being several
years older than the boy.
The groom usually traveled to the house of the bride for the ceremony, then stayed there for
three days before taking his new bride to his family's home. The actual ceremony involved
many small rituals, with many bows and symbolic gestures. The (34)_______ were expected to
control their emotions and remain somber.

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Although Koreans have kept several aspects of the traditional ceremony, most modern
ceremonies resemble Western marriage ceremonies more than (35)________ Korean ones.
However, many folk villages and museums across the country regularly perform ceremonies to
keep the traditions alive.

Question 31:A. as B. more C. than D. more than


Question 32: A. elaborate B. elaborately C. elaboration D. elaborateness
Question 33: A. for B. in C. on D. from
Question 34: A. examiners B. competitors C. contests D. participants
Question 35: A. traditional B. old C. ancient D. antique

Read the following passage and mark the letter A,B,C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
In the world today, particularly in the two most industrialized areas, North America and Europe,
recycling is big news. People are talking about it, practicing it, and discovering new ways to be
sensitive to the environment. Recycling means finding was to use products a second time. The
motto of the recycling movement is "Reduce, Reuse ,Recycle".
The first step is to reduce garbage. In stores, a shopper has to buy products in blister packs,
boxes and expensive plastic wrappings. A hamburger from a fast food restaurant comes in lots
of packaging : usually paper, a box, and a bag. All that packaging is wasted resources. People
should try to buy things that are wrapped simply, and to reuse cups and utensils. Another way
to reduce waste is to buy high-quality products. When low quality appliances break, many
customers throw them away and buy new ones - a loss of more resources and more energy. For
example, if a customer buys a high-quality appliance that can be easily repaired, the
manufacturer receives an important message. In the same way, if a customer chooses a product
with less packaging, that customer sends an important message to the manufacturers. To reduce
garbage, the throwaway must stop.
The second step is to reuse. It is better to buy juices and soft drinks in returnable bottles. After
customers, empty the bottles, they return them to the store. The manufacturers of the drinks
collect the bottles, wash them, and then fill them again. The energy that is necessary to make
new bottles is saved. In some parts of the world, returning bottles for money is a common
practice. In those places, the garbage dumps have relatively little glass and plastic from
throwaway bottles.
The third step is being environmentally sensitive is to recycle. Spent motor oil can be cleaned
and used again. Aluminum cans are expensive to make. It takes the same amount of energy to
make one aluminum can as it does to run a color TV set for three hours. When people collect
and recycle aluminum (for new cans), they help save one of the world's precious resources.
Question 36: What is the main topic of the passage?
A. how to reduce garbage disposal
B. what people often understand about the term 'recycle'

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C. what is involved in the recycling movement


D. how to live sensitively to the environment.
Question 37: What does the word 'sensitive' in the phrase 'sensitive to the environment' mean?
A. cautious B. logical C. friendly D. responding
Question 38: People can do the following to reduce waste EXCEPT____.
A. buy high-quality product B. buy simply-wrapped things
C. reuse cups D. buy fewer hamburgers
Question 39: Why is it a waste when customers buy low-quality products?
A. Because people will soon throw them away.
B. Because they have to be repaired many times.
C. Because customers change their ideas all the time.
D. Because they produce less energy.
Question 40: The word 'motto' is closest in meaning to_________
A. meaning B. value C. belief D. reference
Question 41: What best describes the process of reuse?
A. The bottles are collected, washed, returned and filled again.
B. The bottles are filled again after being returned, collected and washed.
C. The bottles are washed, retuned, filled again and collected.
D. The bottles are collected, returned filled again and washed.
Question 42: The word 'practice' is closest in meaning to_________
A. drill B. deed C. exercise D. belief

Read the following passage and mark the letter A,B,C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50.
You can usually tell when your friends are happy or angry by the looks on their faces or by
their actions. This is useful because reading their emotional expressions helps you to know how
to respond to them. Emotions have evolved to help us respond to important situations and to
convey our intentions to others. But does raising the eyebrows and rounding the mouth say the
same thing in Minneapolis as it does in Madagascar? Much research on emotional expressions
has centered on such questions.
According to Paul Ekman, the leading researcher in this area, people speak and understand
substantially the same “facial language”. Studies by Ekman’s group have demonstrated that
humans share a set of universal emotional expressions that testify to the common biological
heritage of the human species. Smiles, for example, signal happiness and frowns indicate
sadness on the faces of people in such far- flung places as Argentina, Japan, Spain, Hungary,
Poland , Sumatra ,the United States, Vietnam, the jungles of New Guinea , and the Eskimo

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villages north of Artic Circle. Ekman and his colleagues claim that people everywhere can
recognize at least seven basic emotions: sadness, fear, anger, disgust, contempt, happiness, and
surprise. There are, however, huge differences across cultures in both the context and intensity
of emotional displays – the so called display rules. In many Asian cultures, for example,
children are taught to control emotional responses – especially negative ones- while many
American children are encouraged to express their feelings more openly. Regardless of culture,
however, emotions usually show themselves, to some degree, in people’s behavior. From their
first days of life, babies produce facial expressions that communicate their feelings.
The ability to read facial expressions develops early, too. Very young children pay close
attention to facial expressions, and by age five, they nearly equal adults in their skill at reading
emotions on people’s faces. This evidence all points to a biological underpinning for our
abilities to express and interpret a basic set of human emotions. Moreover, as Charles Darwin
pointed out over a century ago, some emotional expressions seem to appear across species
boundaries. Cross - cultural psychologists tell us that certain emotional responses carry different
meanings in different cultures. For example, what emotion do you suppose might be conveyed
by sticking out your tongue? For Americans, this might indicate disgust, while in China it can
signify surprise. Likewise, a grin on an American face may indicate joy, while on a Japanese
face it may just as easily mean embarrassment. Clearly, culture influences emotional
expressions.
Question 43: According to the passage, we respond to others by _________.
A. observing their looks B. watching their actions
C. observing their emotional expressions D. looking at their faces
Question 44: The word “evolved” in line 3 is closest in meaning to __________.
A. reduced B. increased C. simplified D. developed
Question 45: Paul Ekman is mentioned in the passage as an example of ____________.
A. lacked many main ingredients
B. researchers on universal language
C. researchers who can speak and understand many languages
D. investigators on universal emotional expressions
Question 46: Smiles and frowns __________.
A. are universal expressions across cultures
B. do not convey the same emotions in various cultures
C. are not popular everywhere
D. have different meanings in different cultures
Question 47: The biggest difference lies in __________.
A. how long negative emotions are displayed B. how intensive emotions are
expressed

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C. how emotional responses are controlled D. how often positive emotions are shown
Question 48: Unlike American children, Asian children are encouraged to _______.
A. control their emotions B. display their emotions openly
C. conceal their positive emotions D. change their behavior
Question 49: Young children _______.
A. spend a long time learning to read others’ emotions
B. are sensitive towards others’ emotions
C. make amazing progress in controlling their emotions
D. take time to control their facial expressions
Question 50: The phrase “this evidence” in line 24 refers to _________.
A. the fact that children are good at recognizing others’ emotions
B. human facial expressions
C. a biological underpinning for humans to express emotions
D. the fact that children can control their feelings
The end

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ĐỀ SỐ 04

Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part
differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.(2)
Question 1.A. walked B. jumped C. involved D. missed
Question 2.A. hours B. fathers C. dreams D. thinks
Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the
other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.(2)
Question 3.A.majority B.discovery C.benfector D.machinery
Question 4.A.computer B.imagine C.property D.horizon

Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.(3)
Question 5: As seeing from the mountain top, the area looks like a picturesque Harbour town.
A B C D
Question 6: I like the fresh air and green trees of the village which I spent my vacation last
year.
A B C D
Question 7: Some people often say that using cars is not as convenient than using motorbikes.
A B C D

Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions (12)
Question 8: In our hospital, patients____ every morning.
A. are examined B. were examining
C. have examined D. can examine

Question 9: The Moon is much closer to Earth____, and thus it had greater influence on the
tides.
A. but the Sun is B. where the Sun is
C. than the Sun is D. unlike the Sun

Question 10: Connecticut was the fifth of the original thirteen states____the Constitution of
the United States.
A. to ratify B. ratify
C. ratified D. have ratified

Question 11: I'll give this dictionary to_____ wants to have it.
A. anyone B. whatever
C. everyone D. whoever

Question 12: No one can avoid____ by advertisements.


A. to be influenced B. having influenced
C. influencing D. being influenced

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Question 13: He wasn’t attending the lecture properly and missed most of____.
A. things said by the teacher B. that the teacher said
C. which the teacher said D. what the teacher said

Question 14: It is____work of art that everyone wants to have a look at it.
A. such an unusual B. such unusual a
C. a so unusual D. so an unusual

Question 15: The children ran away as if they____a ghost.


A. have seen B. had seen C. would see D. see

Question 16: I would join that running competition____.


A. when I was 5 years older B. if I were 5 years younger
C. if it would happen 5 years ago D. unless I were 5 years younger

Question 17: We decided to take a late flight____ we could spend more time with our family.
A. so as to B. in order C. so that D. in order to

Question 18: He’s sometimes bad-tempered but he s a good fellow____.


A. at heart B. by heart C. with heart D. in heart

Question 19: Scarcely had he stepped out of the room____ he heard a loud laughter within.
A. then B. until C. than D. when

Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to
complete each of the following exchanges.(2)
Question 20: Mai: “Do you want another serving of chicken soup?”
Scott: “____”
A. No way B. No comment
C. No thanks D. No longer

Question 21: Tom: “___”


Mike: “I won't say no!”
A. How are things with you, Mike?
B. What about playing badminton this afternoon?
C. Mike, do you know where the scissors are?
D. What's your favourite, tea or coffee?

Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSET in meaning
to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.(2)
Question 22: I could see the finish line and thought I was home and dry.
A. hopeless B. hopeful C. successful D. unsuccessful

Question 23 : Carpets from countries such as Persia and Afghanistan often fetch high prices
in the United States.
A. Artifacts B. Pottery C. Rugs D. Textiles

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Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.(2)
Question 24: The International Organizations are going to be in a temporary way in the
country.
A. soak B. permanent C. complicated D. guess

Question 25: The US troops are using much more sophisticated weapons in the Far East.
A. expensive B. complicated
C. simple and easy to use D. difficult to operate

Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closet in
meaning to each of the following questions.(3)
Question 26: You needn’t have taken so many warm clothes there.
A. It’s not necessary for you to take so many warm clothes there.
B. You have taken so many warm clothes there that I don’t need.
C. There’s no need for you to take so many warm clothes there.
D. You took lots of warm clothes there but it turned out not necessary.

Question 27: In Thailand, the further you go towards the border with Laos, the higher the risk
of malaria.
A. There is a great risk to you a catching malaria around the far - 0 Thai border with Laos.
B.The border with Laos has a higher risk to you of malaria than anywhere else in Thailand.
C. Although there is malaria all over Thailand, the risk of catching it gets higher in Laos.
D. The danger of getting malaria in Thailand increases the closer you get to its border with
Laos.

Question 28: My sister would love to be involved in the organization of the event, so would I.
A. My sister is so much like me, since she too takes part in organizing events voluntarily.
B. My sister was so keen to take part in the organization of the event, that I encouraged her.
C. Both my sister and I would be very happy to take part in organizing the event.
D. I would like my sister to volunteer to take part in organizing the event.

Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines
each pair of sentences in the following questions.(2)
Question 29: she heard the news of the death of her mother. She fainted.
A. On hearing the news of her dead mother, she fainted.
B. On hearing the news of her mother’s death, she fainted.
C. She fainted so she heard the news of the death of her mother.
D. She fainted and then she heard the news of the death of her mother.

Question 30:1 think I should have cooked more food. There’s nothing left now.
A. I should not have cooked so much food.
B. I regrets cooking too much food now.
C. I did not cook much food and I think it is ok now.
D. I did not cook much food and I think it was a mistake.

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Read the following passage and mark the letter A,B,C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35.
Most Americans eat three meals (31) ______ the day: breakfast, lunch, and dinner.
Breakfast begins between 7:00 and 8:00am, lunch between 11:00 am and noon, and dinner
between 6:00 and 8:00 pm. On Sundays "brunch" is a combination of breakfast and lunch,
typically beginning at 11:00 am. Students often enjoy a "study break" or evening snack around
10:00 or 11:00 pm. Breakfast and lunch tend to be light meals, with only one (32) ______.
Dinner is the main meal.
At breakfast Americans will eat cereal with milk which are often mixed (33) ______ in a
bowl, a glass of orange juice, and toasted bread or muffin with jam, butter, or margarine.
Another common breakfast meal is scrambled eggs or an omelet with potatoes and breakfast
meat (bacon or sausage). People who are on (34) ______ eat just a cup of yogurt. Lunch and
dinner are more varied. When eating at a formal dinner, you may be overwhelmed by the
number of utensils. How do you (35) ______ the difference between a salad fork, a butter fork,
and a dessert fork? Most Americans do not know the answer too. But knowing which fork or
spoon to use first is simple: use the outermost utensils first and the utensils closest to the plate
last.
Question 31. A. in B. for C. on D. during
Question 32. A. course B. food C. menu D. goods
Question 33. A. each other B. together C. one another D. others
Question 34. A. holiday B. engagement C. diet D. duty
Question 35. A. say B. talk C. speak D. tell

Read the following passage and mark the letter A,B,C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
Learning means acquiring knowledge or developing the ability to perform new behaviors.
It is common to think of learning as something that takes place in school, but much of human
learning occurs outside the classroom, and people continue to learn throughout their lives.
Even before they enter school, young children learn to walk, to talk, and to use their hands
to manipulate toys, food, and other objects. They use all of their senses to learn about the sights,
sounds, tastes, and smells in their environments. They learn how to interact with their parents,
siblings, friends, and other people important to their world. When they enter school, children
learn basic academic subjects such as reading, writing, and mathematics. They also continue to
learn a great deal outside the classroom. They learn which behaviors are likely to be rewarded
and which are likely to be punished. They learn social skills for interacting with other children.
After they finish school, people must learn to adapt to the many major changes that affect their
lives, such as getting married, raising children, and finding and keeping a job.
Because learning continues throughout our lives and affects almost everything we do, the
study of learning is important in many different fields. Teachers need to understand the best
ways to educate children. Psychologists, social workers, criminologists, and other human-
service workers need to understand how certain experiences change people’s behaviors.

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Employers, politicians, and advertisers make use of the principles of learning to influence the
behavior of workers, voters, and consumers.
Learning is closely related to memory, which is the storage of information in the brain.
Psychologists who study memory are interested in how the brain stores knowledge, where this
storage takes place, and how the brain later retrieves knowledge when we need it. In contrast,
psychologists who study learning are more interested in behavior and how behavior changes as
a result of a person’s experiences.
There are many forms of learning, ranging from simple to complex. Simple forms of
learning involve a single stimulus. A stimulus is anything perceptible to the senses, such as a
sight, sound, smell, touch, or taste. In a form of learning known as classical conditioning, people
learn to associate two stimuli that occur in sequence, such as lightning followed by thunder. In
operant conditioning, people learn by forming an association between a behavior and its
consequences (reward or punishment). People and animals can also learn by observation - that
is, by watching others perform behaviors. More complex forms of learning include learning
languages, concepts, and motor skills.
(Extracted from Microsoft® Student 2009 – DVD Version)

Question 36: According to the passage, which of the following is learning in broad view
comprised of?
A. Knowledge acquisition and ability development
B. Acquisition of social and behavioural skills
C. Acquisition of academic knowledge
D. Knowledge acquisition outside the classroom
Question 37: According to the passage, what are children NOT usually taught outside the
classroom?
A. interpersonal communication B. life skills
C. literacy and calculation D. right from wrong
Question 38: Which of the following can be inferred about the learning process from the
passage?
A. It becomes less challenging and complicated when people grow older.
B. It plays a crucial part in improving the learner’s motivation in school.
C. It takes place more frequently in real life than in academic institutions.
D. It is more interesting and effective in school than that in life.
Question 39.It can be inferred from the passage that social workers, employers, and politicians
concern themselves with the study of learning because they need to ______.
A. change the behaviours of the objects of their interest towards learning
B. thoroughly understand the behaviours of the objects of their interest

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C. make the objects of their interest more aware of the importance of learning
D. understand how a stimulus relates to the senses of the objects of their interest
Question 40: The word “retrieves” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. generates B. creates C. recovers D. gains
Question 41: Which of the following statements is NOT true according to the passage?
A. Psychologists studying memory are concerned with how the stored knowledge is used.
B. Psychologists studying memory are concerned with the brain’s storage of knowledge.
C. Psychologists are all interested in memory as much as behaviours.
D. Psychologists studying learning are interested in human behaviours.
Question 42: The passage mainly discusses ______.
A. application of learning principles to formal education
B. simple forms of learning
C. practical examples of learning inside the classroom
D. general principles of learning

Read the following passage and mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50.
Culture is a word in common use with complex meanings, and is derived, like the
term broadcasting, from the treatment and care of the soil and of what grows on it. It is directly
related to cultivation and the adjectives cultural and cultured are part of the same verbal
complex. A person of culture has identifiable attributes, among them a knowledge of and
interest in the arts, literature, and music. Yet the word culture does not refer solely to such
knowledge and interest nor, indeed, to education. At least from the 19th century onwards, under
the influence of anthropologists and sociologists, the word culture has come to be used
generally both in the singular and the plural (cultures) to refer to a whole way of life of people,
including their customs, laws, conventions, and values.
Distinctions have consequently been drawn between primitive and advanced culture and
cultures, between elite and popular culture, between popular and mass culture, and most
recently between national and global cultures. Distinctions have been drawn too
between culture and civilization; the latter is a word derived not, like culture or agriculture,
from the soil, but from the city. The two words are sometimes treated as synonymous. Yet this
is misleading. While civilization and barbarism are pitted against each other in what seems to
be a perpetual behavioural pattern, the use of the word culture has been strongly influenced by
conceptions of evolution in the 19th century and of development in the 20th century. Cultures
evolve or develop. They are not static. They have twists and turns. Styles change. So do
fashions. There are cultural processes. What, for example, the word cultured means has
changed substantially since the study of classical (that is, Greek and Roman) literature,
philosophy, and history ceased in the 20th century to be central to school and university
education. No single alternative focus emerged, although with computers has come electronic

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culture, affecting kinds of study, and most recently digital culture. As cultures express
themselves in new forms not everything gets better or more civilized.
The multiplicity of meanings attached to the word made and will make it difficult to
define. There is no single, unproblematic definition, although many attempts have been made
to establish one. The only non-problematic definitions go back to agricultural meaning (for
example, cereal culture or strawberry culture) and medical meaning (for example, bacterial
culture or penicillin culture). Since in anthropology and sociology we also acknowledge
culture clashes, culture shock, and counter-culture, the range of reference is extremely
wide.

Question 43: According to the passage, the word culture____.


A. is related to the preparation and use of land for farming
B. develops from Greek and Roman literature and history
C. comes from a source that has not been identified
D. derives from the same root as civilization does

Question 44: The author remarks that culture and civilization are the two words that_____.
A. share the same word formation pattern
B. are both related to agriculture and cultivation
C. have nearly the same meaning
D. do not develop from the same meaning

Question 45: It can be inferred from the passage that since the 20th century______.
A. schools and universities have not taught classical literature, philosophy, and history
B. classical literature, philosophy, and history have been considered as core subjects
C. classical literature, philosophy, and history have not been taught as compulsory subjects
D. all schools and universities have taught classical literature, philosophy, and history
Question 46: The word “attributes” in paragraph 1 most likely means______.
A. aspects B. fields C. qualities D. skills

Question 47: The word “static” in paragraph 2 could best be replaced by “_____”.
A. regular B. balanced C. unchanged D. dense
Question 48: Which of the following is NOT stated in the passage?
A. Anthropology and sociology have tried to limit the references to culture.
B. Distinctions have been drawn between culture and civilization.
C.The word culture can be used to refer to a whole way of life of people.
D.The use of the word culture has been changed since the 19th century.

Question 49: It is difficult to give the definitions of the word culture EXCEPT for its______.
A. agricultural and medical meanings B. historical and figurative meanings
C. philosophical and historical meanings D. sociological and anthropological
meanings.

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Question 50: The passage mainly discusses______.


A. the distinction between culture and civilization
B. the figurative meanings of the word culture
C. the derivatives of the word culture
D. the multiplicity of meanings of the word culture

The end

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ĐỀ SỐ 05
Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined
part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.(2)
Question 1 A. element B. dedicate C. event D. devote
Question 2 A. thousand B. thereafter C. ethnic D. theatre

Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the
other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.(2)
Question 3 A.electric B.luxury C.architect D.mineral
Question 4 A.arithmetic B.assassinate C.agricuture D.contributor

Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.(3)
Question 5: It was not until the end of prehistoric times that the first wheeled vehicles
apprearing.
A B C D
Question 6: In the early 1900's, Pennsylvania's industries grew rapidly, a growth sometimes
A D
accompanied by disputes labor.
C D
Question 7: Looking from afar, the village resembles a small green spot dotted with tiny
fireballs.
A B C D

Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of
the following questions (12)
Question 8: We expressed ____the missing child would be found alive.
A. the hope for B. the hope which
C. as we hoped D. the hope that

Question 9: A large number of workmen____ because of the economic recession.


A. have laid down B. has laid aside
C. have been laid off D. has been laid out

Question 10: Her mother, ____has been working for thirty years, is retiring next month.
A. who B. that C. whom D whose

Question 11: My brother tried to learn Japanese at a night school, ____he gave up after 2
months.
A. therefore B. when C. until D. but

Question 12: Having traveled to different parts of our country____.


A. we have learned a lot about interesting lifestyles and customs
B. we are seeing a lot of interesting lifestyles and customs
C. many interesting lifestyles and customs have been learned by us

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D. much has been learned about interesting lifestyles and customs

Question 13: The government was finally____ by a minor scandal.


A. put back B. brought down
C. pulled down D. taken down

Question 14: The water supply of our home city has failed to ____average purity
requirements.
A. see B. meet C. own D. hold

Question 15: Books and magazines ____around made his room very untidy.
A. that lie B. laying C. which lied D. lying

Question 16: As a millionaire who liked to show off her wealth, Mrs. Smith paid ____we
asked.
A four time much than C. four times much as
B. four times as much as D. four time as many as

Question 17: Regular exercise and good diet will bring ____fitness and health.
A. from B. to C. about D. up

Question 18: The pool should not be made so deep ____small children can be safe there.
A. if B. so as to C. though D. so that

Question 19: We all agree that she is ____student in our class.


A. the cleverest B. a more clever C. most clever D. cleverest

Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to
complete each of the following exchanges.(2)
Question 20: Stephanie: “Oh, no! I left my book at home. Can I share yours?”
Scott: “____”
A. No, thanks. B. No, not at all!
C. Yes, I do too. D. Yes, sure!

Question 21: Tom: “Can I have another cup of tea?


Christy: “ .”
A. Be yourself B. Do it yourself
C. Allow yourself D. Help yourself

Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSET in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.(2)
Question 22: The shop assistant was totally bewildered by the customer’s behavior.
A. disgusted B. puzzled C. angry D. upset
B.
Question 23: He didn’t bat an eyelid when he realized he failed the exam again.
A. wasn’t happy B. didn’t want to see C. didn’t show surprise D. didn’t care

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Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.(2)
Question 24: In remote communities, it’s important to replenish stocks before the winter sets
in.
A. remake B. empty C. refill D. repeat

Question 25: There has been no discernible improvement in the noise levels since lorries
were banned.
A. clear B. obvious C. thin D. insignificant

Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closet in
meaning to each of the following questions.(3)
Question 26: Some doubt remains as to the route Alvar Nunez Cahaza de Vaca took to
Mexico.
A. A1 var Nunez Cahaza de Vaca remained uncertain as to which route he should take to get
to Mexico.
B. Some people doubt that Alvar Nunez Cahaza de Vaca went to Mexico by road.
C. It is still not certain how Alvar Nunez Cahaza de Vaca discovered Mexico.
D. Which way Alvar Nuner Cahaza de Vaca took to Mexico is still not entirely clear.

Question 27: In spite of heavy rain, my brother went to work.


A. In spite it rained heavily, my brother went to work.
B. Despite it rained heavily, my brother went to work.
C. Though rain was heavily, my brother went to work.
D. Although it rained heavily, my brother went to work.

Question 28 You are all welcome to take any food you like.
A. Any food welcome to take if you like.
B. Please help yourselves to any food you like.
C. You don’t have to pay for any food that you like.
D. It’s my pleasure to take any food you like.

Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines
each pair of sentences in the following questions.(2)
Question 29: Put your coat on. You will get cold.
A. It is not until you put your coat on that you will get cold.
B. Put your coat on, otherwise you will get cold.
C. You not only put your coat on but also get cold.
D. You will not get cold unless you put your coat on.

Question 30: Ann always keeps up with the latest fashions. She works for a famous fashion
house.
A. Despite working for a famous fashion house, Ann hardly keeps up with the latest fashions.
B. Ann always keeps up with the latest fashions so as not to work for a famous fashion house.
C. Not working for a famous fashion house, Ann always keeps up with the latest fashions.

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D. Ann works for a famous fashion house, so she always keeps up with the latest fashions.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A,B,C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to
35.
Researchers in the field of psychology have found that one of the best ways to make an
important decision, such as choosing a university to attend or a business (31)……….….…..,
involves the utilization of a decision worksheet. Psychologists who study optimization compare
the actual decisions made by people to theoretical ideal decisions to see how similar they are.
Proponents of the worksheet procedure believe that it will yield optimal, that is, the best
decisions. (32)……………... there are several variations on the exact format that worksheets
can take, they are all similar in their essential aspects.
Worksheets require defining the problem in a clear and concise way and then listing all
possible solutions to the problem. Next, the pertinent considerations that will be affected by
each decision are listed, and the relative importance of each consideration or consequence
(33)…………... Each consideration is assigned a numerical value to reflect its relative
importance. A decision is mathematically calculated by adding these values together. The
alternative with the highest number of points emerges as the best decision.
Since most important problems are multifaceted, there are several alternatives to choose
from, each with unique advantages and disadvantages. One of the benefits of a pencil and paper
decision-making procedure is that it permits people to deal with more variables than their minds
can generally comprehend and remember.
(34)…………….., people can keep about seven ideas in their minds at once. A worksheet
can be especially useful when the decision involves a large number of variables with complex
relationships. A realistic example for many college students is the question "What will I do after
graduation?" A graduate might seek a position that offers specialized training, pursue an
advanced degree, or (35)………….….. for a year.
A decision-making worksheet begins with a succinct statement of the problem that will
also help to narrow it. It is important to be clear about the distinction between long-range and
immediate goals because long-range goals often involve a different decision than short-range
ones. Focusing on long-range goals, a graduating student might revise the question above to
"What will I do after graduation that will lead to a successful career?"
Question 31. A. to work B. to invest C. to work in D. to invest in
Question 32. A. Therefore B. Despite C. Although D.However
Question 33. A. determined B. be determined C. are determined D. is determined
Question 34. A. By average B. Of average C. On the average D. At the average
Question 35. A. travel to abroad B. traveling abroad
C. traveling to abroad D. travel abroad

Read the following passage and mark the letter A,B,C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
Carnegie Hall, the famous concert hall in New York City, has again undergone a
restoration. While this is not the first, it is certainly the most extensive in the building's history.

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As a result of this new restoration, Carnegie Hall once again has the quality of sound Line 3 that
it had when it was first built.
Carnegie Hall owes its existence to Andrew Carnegie, the wealthy owner of a steel
company in the late 1800s. The hall was finished in 1891 and quickly gained a reputation as an
excellent performing arts hall Line 7 where accomplished musicians gained fame. Despite its
reputation, however, the concert hall suffered from several detrimental renovations over the
years. During the Great Depression, when fewer people could afford to attend performances,
the directors sold part of the building to commercial businesses. As a result, a coffee shop was
opened Line 10 in one corner of the building, for which the builders replaced the brick and terra
cotta walls with windowpanes. A renovation in 1946 seriously damaged the acoustical quality
of the hall when the makers of the film Carnegie Hall cut a gaping hole in the dome of the
ceiling to allow for lights and air vents. The hole was later Line 14 covered with short curtains
and a fake ceiling, but the hall never sounded the same afterwards.
In 1960, the violinist Isaac Stern became involved in restoring the hall after a group of
real-estate developers unveiled plans to demolish Line 17 Carnegie Hall and build a high-rise
office building on the site. This threat spurred Stern to rally public support for Carnegie Hall
and encourage the City of New York to buy the property. The movement was successful, and
the concert hall is now owned by the city. In the current restoration, builders tested each new
material for it Line21 sound qualities, and they replaced the hole in the ceiling with a dome.
The builders also restored the outer walls to their original appearance and closed the coffee
shop. Carnegie has never sounded better, and its prospects for the future have never looked
more promising.
Question 36: This passage is mainly about ………………
A. changes to Carnegie Hall
B. the appearance of Carnegie Hall
C. Carnegie Hall's history during the Great Depression
D. damage to the ceiling in Carnegie Hall

Question 37: In line 8, what is the meaning of the word "detrimental"?


A. dangerous B. significant C. extreme D. harmful

Question 38: What major change happened to the hall in 1946?


A. The acoustic dome was damaged.
B. Space in the building was sold to commercial businesses.
C. The walls were damaged in an earthquake.
D. The stage was renovated.

Question 39: Which of the following words could best replace the word "gaping" in line 13?
A. small B. round C. vital D. wide

Question 40: What was Isaac Stern's relationship to Carnegie Hall?


A. He made the movie "Carnegie Hall" in 1946.
B. He performed on opening night in 1891.
C. He tried to save the hall, beginning in 1960.

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D. He opened a coffee shop in Carnegie Hall during the Depression.

Question 41: Which of the following is closest in meaning to the word "unveiled" in line 17?
A. announced B. restricted C. overshadowed D. located

Question 42: Which of the following would most likely be the topic of the next paragraph?
A. a scientific explanation of acoustics and the nature of sound
B. a description of people's reactions to the newly renovated hall
C. a discussion of the coffee shop that once was located in the building
D. further discussion about the activities of Isaac Stern in 1960

Read the following passage and mark the letter A,B,C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50.
About 200 million years ago, as the Triassic Period came to a close, many species of
animals disappeared from the face of the Earth. Scientists previously believed that the series
of extinctions happened over a period of 15 to 20 million years. Recent discoveries in Nova
Scotia Line 3 suggest, however, that the extinctions may have happened over a much shorter
period of time, perhaps less than 850,000 years.
Evidence for a rapid extinction of species at the end of the Triassic Period is found in the
McCoy Brook Formation along the Bay of Fundy Line 7 in Nova Scotia. Fossils found in this
formation indicate a rapid disappearance of species rather than a slow and gradual change over
time. One explanation for a relatively sudden extinction at the end of the Triassic may be that
a large meteorite struck the earth at the time and is responsible for a 70- kilometer hole nearby.
If geologists Line 11 and other researchers can find evidence, such as shocked quartz in the
rock formations, that a meteorite did strike the earth, it would give more credence to the theory
of rapid Triassic extinctions. It is possible, however, that even if a rapid extinction happened in
and around Nova Scotia, it did not necessarily occur in the rest Line 14 of the world.
Question 43: What is the main topic of this passage?
A. the disappearance of animal species at the end of the Triassic Period
B. evidence of a relatively sudden extinction of species
C. the possibility of an extinction happening simultaneously throughout the world
D. a meteorite hole in the Bay of Fundy in Nova Scotia
Question 44: The author uses the phrase "the face of the Earth" in line 2 in order to …………
A. emphasize the disappearance B. focus on one part of the Earth
C. focus on one period of time D. point out the reference to land, not water

Question 45: All of the following were mentioned in the passage EXCEPT ………………
A. the extinction of late Triassic animals
B. the duration of time for the extinction
C. a large meteorite hitting the Earth 10 million years ago
D. the use of types of rock in scientific research

Question 46: According to the passage, what would give evidence that a meteorite struck the
earth?
A. a gradual change in species over time

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B. a change in the quartz


C. gold deposits in the veins of rocks
D. a change in the waters of the Bay of Fundy

Question 47: Which of the following could best replace the word "struck" as used in line 10?
A. affected B. discovered C. devastated D. hit

Question 48: Which of the following is most probably the meaning of "shocked quartz" in
line 11?
A. narrow chasms B. tiny lines C. hardened ores D. cracked minerals

Question 49: In line 12, "it" refers to ………………


A. evidence B. an extinction C. the Earth D. a meteorite

Question 50: Which of the following could best replace the word "credence" in line 12?
A. demonstration B. elevation C. suitability D. credibility

The end

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ĐỀ SỐ 06

Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined
part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.(2)
Question 1.A. pushes B. rushes C. sacrifices D. figures
Question 2.A. honorable B. honesty C. historic D. heir

Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the
other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.(2)
Question 3.A.preservation B.potentially C.perversity D.magnificent
Question 4.A.trigonometry B.dramatically C.photochemical D.documentary

Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.(3)
Question 5: When precipitation occurs, some of it evaporates, some runs off the surface it
strikes,
A B C
and some sinking into the ground.
D
Question 6: Globally and internationally, the 1990's stood out as the warmer decade in the
history
A B C
of weather records.
D
Question 7: Of all the art-related reference and research library in North America, that of the
A B
Metropolitan Museum of Art in New York City is among the largest and most complete.
C D

Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of
the following questions (12)
Question 8: There has been a great increase in retail sales,____?
A. hasn't there B. isn't there
C. isn't it D. doesn't it

Question 9: I am sorry I have no time at present to____detail of our plan.


A. bring in B. take into C. come in D. go into

Question 10: Long ago, women were____to vote in political elections.


A. prevented B. stopped C. forbidden D. banned

Question 11: She asked me____I was looking at.


A. when B. if C. what D. why

Question 12: In spite of her abilities, Laura has been____ overlooked for promotion.
A. repeat B. repeatedly C. repetitive D. repetition

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Question 13: Education in many countries is compulsory____the age of 16.


A for B. when C. until wards

Question 14: ____one of the most beautiful forms of performance art, ballet is a combination
of dance and mime performed to music.
A. Being considering B. Considering
C. Considered D. To consider

Question 15: The examination was not very difficult, but it was____long.
A. so much B. too much C. very much D. much too

Question 16: ____has been a topic of continual geological research.


A. The continents formed B. If the continents formed
C. How did the continents form D. How the continents were formed

Question 17: We must push the piano to the corner of the hall to____our party tonight.
A. make place for B. take up room to
C. make room for D. give place to

Question 18: Standing on the tip of the cape, ____.


A. people have seen a lighthouse far away
B. lies a lighthouse in the middle of the sea
C. a lighthouse can see from the distance
D. we can see the lighthouse in the distance

Question 19: Only one of our gifted students____to participate in the final competition.
A. has been chosen B. have been chosen
C. were choosing D. chosen

Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to
complete each of the following exchanges.(2)
Question 20: Lora: “Do you mind if I turn on the fan?”
Maria: “_________.”
A. Not for me B. Not at all C. Never mind D. Not enough

Question 21: Ann: “Do you need any help?”


Kate: “ .”
A. That’s fine by me B. No, thanks. I can manage
C. I haven’t got a clue D. That’s all for now.

Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSET in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.(2)
Question 22: This tapestry has a very complicated pattern.
A. obsolete B. intricate C. ultimate D. appropriate

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Question 23: During the Great Depression, there were many wanderers who traveled on the
railroads and camped along the tracks.
A. veterans B. tyros C. vagabonds D. zealots

Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.(2)
Question 24: In remote communities, it’s important to replenish stocks before the winter sets
in.
A. remake B. empty C. refill D. repeat

Question 25: There has been no discernible improvement in the noise levels since lorries
were banned.
A. clear B. obvious C. thin D. insignificant

Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closet in
meaning to each of the following questions.(3)
Question 26. Jane refused to attend his birthday party, which made him feel sad.
A. He felt sad not be able to attend her birthday party.
B. Jane made him sad despite her refusal to attend his birthday party.
C. Jane’s refusal to attend his birthday party made him feel sad.
D. Jane refused to attend his birthday party because it made him sad.

Question 27. I only recognized him when he came into the light.
A. Not until he came into the light I did recognize him.
B. I did not recognize him even when he came into the light.
C. Only when I recognized him, he came into the light.
D. It wasn’t until he came into the light that I recognized him.

Question 28. The mistake in the accounts was not noticed until the figures were re-checked.
A. When the figures were re-checked, they came to light the mistake in the accounts.
B. Once re-checking the figures, the mistake in the accounts was noticed.
C. The mistake in the accounts only came to light when the figures were re-checked.
D. It was not until the mistake in the accounts was noticed that the figures were checked.

Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines
each pair of sentences in the following questions.(2)
Question 29: Everyone was watching the little dog. They were greatly amused at it.
A. The little dog was greatly amused by the way everyone was watching it.
B. Everyone felt great and amused when the little dog was watching them.
C. The little dog was watching everyone with great amusement.
D. Everyone was greatly amused at the little dog they were watching.

Question 30: Mike graduated with a good degree. However, he joined the ranks of the
unemployed.
A. Although Mike graduated with a good degree, he joined the ranks of the unemployed.

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B. If Mike graduated with a good degree, he would join the ranks of the unemployed.
C. Mike joined the ranks of the unemployed because he graduated with a good degree.
D. That Mike graduated with a good degree helped him join the ranks of the unemployed.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A,B,C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to
35.

OWNING A PET
The joys and tribulations of being a pet owner! During our lifetime most of us have some
experience of either owning a pet or being in (31) __________ contact with someone who does.
Is there such a thing as “the ideal pet”? If so what characterizes the ideal pet? Various factors
influence one’s choice of pet, from your reasons for getting a pet to your lifestyle. For example,
although quite a few pets are relatively cheap to buy, the cost of (32) __________ can be
considerable. Everything must be taken into account, from food and bedding, to vaccinations
and veterinary bills. You must be prepared to (33) _________ time on your pet, which involves
shopping for it, cleaning and feeding it. Pets can be demanding and a big responsibility. Are
you prepared to exercise with an animal or do you prefer a more independent pet? How much
spare room do you have? Is it right to lock an energetic animal into a (34) __________ space?
Do you live near a busy road which may threaten the life of your pet? Pets such as turtles and
goldfish can be cheap and convenient, but if you prefer affectionate pets, a friendly cat or dog
would be more (35) ___________. People get pets for a number of reasons, for company,
security or to teach responsibility to children. Pets can be affectionate and loyal and an excellent
source of company as long as you know what pet suits you and your lifestyle.
Question 31: A. tight B. narrow C. near D. close
Question 32: A. maintenance B. upbringing C. raising D. upkeep
Question 33: A. waste B. occupy C. take D. spend
Question 34: A. reduced B. detained C. closed D. confined
Question 35: A. likely B. suited C. appropriate D. good

Read the following passage and mark the letter A,B,C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
This rapid transcontinental settlement and these new urban industrial circumstances of the last
half of the 19th century were accompanied by the development of a national literature of great
abundance and variety. New themes, new forms, new subjects, new regions, new authors, new
audiences all emerged in the literature of this half century.
As a result, at the onset of World War I, the spirit and substance of American literature
had evolved remarkably, just as its center of production had shifted from Boston to New York
in the late 1880s and the sources of its energy to Chicago and the Midwest. No longer
was it produced, at least in its popular forms, in the main by solemn, typically moralistic men
from New England and the Old South; no longer were polite, well-dressed, grammatically
correct, middle-class young people the only central characters in its narratives; no longer were

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these narratives to be set in exotic places and remote times; no longer, indeed, were fiction,
poetry, drama, and formal history the chief acceptable forms of literary expression; no longer,
finally, was literature read primarily by young, middle class women.
In sum, American literature in these years fulfilled in considerable measure the condition Walt
Whitman called for in 1867 in describing Leaves of Grass: it treats, he said of his own major
work, each state and region as peers "and expands from them, and includes the world ...
connecting an American citizen with the citizens of all nations." At the same time, these years
saw the emergence of what has been designated "the literature of argument," powerful works
in sociology, philosophy, psychology, many of them impelled by the spirit of exposure and
reform. Just as America learned to play a role in this half century as an autonomous international
political, economic, and military power, so did its literature establish itself as a producer of
major works.
Question 36: The word “evolved” in paragraph two is closest in meaning to______________
A. changed B. turned back C. diminished D. became famous

Question 37: All of the following can be inferred from the passage about the ne J literature
EXCEPT_______
A. It was not highly regarded internationally
B. It broke with many literary traditions of the past
C. It spoke to the issue of reform and change
D. It introduced new American themes, characters, and settings

Question 38: The word “it” in the second paragraph refers to______________
A. the population B. American literature
C. the energy D. the manufacturing

Question 39: It can be inferred from the first paragraph that the previous passage probably
discussed________
A. new developments in industrialization and population shifts
B. he importance of tradition to writers
C. the limitations of American literature to this time
D. the fashions and values of 19th century America

Question 40: The word “exotic" in paragraph two is closest in meaning to_________
A. unusual B. old-fashioned C. well-known D. urban

Question 41: The main idea of this passage is____________


A. that the new American literature was less provincial than the old
B. that most people were wary of the new literature
C. that World War I caused a dramatic change in America
D. that centers of culture shifted from East to West

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Question 42: The author uses the word “indeed” in the second paragraph for what purpose?
A. To show a favorable attitude to these forms of literature.
B. To emphasize the contrast he is making.
C. For variety in a lengthy paragraph.
D. To wind down his argument.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A,B,C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50.
Ever since humans have inhabited the earth, they have made use of various forms of
communication. Generally, this expression of thoughts and feelings has been in the form of oral
speech. When there is a language barrier, communication is accomplished through sign
language in which motions stand for letters, words, and ideas. Tourists, the deaf, and the mute
have had to resort to this form of expression. Many of these symbols of whole words are very
picturesque and exact and can be used internationally, spelling, however, cannot.
Body language transmits ideas or thoughts by certain actions, either intentionally or
unintentionally. A wink can be a way of flirting or indicating that the party is only joking. A
nod signifies approval, while shaking the head indicates a negative reaction.
Other forms of nonlinguistic language can be found in Braille (a system of raised dots read with
the fingertips), signal flags, Morse code, and smoke signals. Road maps and picture signs also
guide, warn, and instruct people.
While verbalization is the most common form of language, other systems and techniques also
express human thoughts and feelings.

Question 43: Which form other than oral speech would be the most commonly used among
blind people?
A. Signal flags B. Picture signs C. Body language D. Braille

Question 44: Which of the following best summarizes this passage?


A. Although other forms of communication exist, verbalization is the fastest.
B. When language is a barrier, people will find other forms of communication.
C. Nonlinguistic language is invaluable to foreigners.
D. Everybody uses only one form of communication.

Question 45: Sign language is said to be very picturesque and exact and can be used
internationally EXCEPT for_____________
A. spelling B. whole words C. ideas D. expressions

Question 46: What would be MOST likely to use Morse code?


A. A scientist B. A spy C. An airline pilot D. A telegrapher

Question 47: The word "wink" in the second paragraph means most nearly the same
as______________
A. bob the head up and down B. close one eye briefly
C. shake the head from side to side D. close two eyes briefly

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Question 48: The word "these" in the first paragraph refers to___________
A. thoughts and feelings B. tourists
C. sign language motions D. the deaf and the mute

Question 49: All of the following statements are true EXCEPT______________


A. There are many forms of communication in existence today.
B. Verbalization is the most common form of communication.
C. Ideas and thoughts can be transmitted by body language.
D. The deaf and mute can use an oral form of communication.

Question 50: What is the best title for the passage?


A. The Many Forms of Communication B. Picturesque Symbols of Communication
C. Ways of Expressing Feelings D. The Importance of Sign Language

The end

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ĐỀ SỐ 07

Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part
differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.(2)
Question 1.A. depends B. years C. temples D. parents
Question 2.A. wine B. cinema C. diner D. ninth

Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the
other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.(2)
Question 3.A.carerr B.avoid C.manage D.advise
Question 4.A.burglary B.employment C.courageous D.dependent

Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.(3)
Question 5: Different fourteen crops were grown 8,600 years ago by some of the world’s
A B C
earliest farmers.
D
Question 6: A warning printed on a makeshift lifebuoy says: “This is not a live- saving device.
A
Children should be accompany by their parents.”
B C D
Question 7: Not until he got home he realised he had forgotten to give her the present.
A B C D

Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions (12)
Question 8: ____his brother, Mike is active and friendly.
A. Alike B. Unlike C. Dislike D. Liking

Question 9: The packages____ so that it would be easier to carry them.


A. are tied in a bundle B. are tied altogether
C. were tied in a knot D. were tied together

Question 10. Michael looked deeply hurt and surprised when____.


A. scolded B. scolding C. to scold D. having scolded

Question 11: Question 36: ____John Kennedy was elected president, he was the youngest
American President ever.
A. When B. While C. Before D. As long as

Question 12: He ____us but he was short of money at the time.


A. could have helped B. can help
C. might help D. would help

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Question 13: The boat was sailing north when a terrible storm____.
A. had broken B. broke
C. would break D. was breaking

Question 14: The Lake District, ____was made a national park in 1951, attracts a large number
of tourists every year.
A that B. where C. what D. which

Question 15:I_________ work last week, but I changed my mind.


A. would start B. had started
C. have started D. was going to start

Question 16: The Principal usually has his pupils ________waste paper for their mini-
project.
A. having collected B. collect
C. collected D. to collect

Question 17: He came ___________a lot of criticism for the remarks he made in a television
interview.
A. in for B. over C. out of D. off

Question 18: They live on a busy road. _________a lot of noise from traffic.
A. There must have B. It must have been
C. There must be D. It must be

Question 19: Due to ever more spreading poaching, there__________ a dramatic decline in the
number of elephants over the last decade.
A. has been B. is C. was D. had been

Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to
complete each of the following exchanges.(2)
Question 20: "Why wasn't your boyfriend at the party last night?"
- "He ______ the lecture at Shaw Hall. I know he very much wanted to hear the speaker."
A. may have attended B. was to attend
C. should have attended D. can have attended
Question 21: - “Can I carry these suitcases into the room for you?”
- “______”
A. You can’t, I think! B. No, you can’t.
C. Yes, you can. D. Can you? That’s very kind.

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Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSET in meaning
to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.(2)
Question 22: We decided to pay for the furniture on the installment plan.
A. monthly payment B. cash and carry C. credit card D. piece by piece

Question 23: The last week of classes is always very busy because students are taking
examinations, making applications to the University, and extending their visas.
A. hectic B. eccentric C. fanatic D. prolific

Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.(2)
Câu 24: She had a cozy little apartment in Boston.
A. uncomfortable B. warm C. lazy D. dirty

Câu 25: He was so insubordinate that he lost his job within a week.
A. fresh B. disobedient C. obedient D. understanding

Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closet in
meaning to each of the following questions.(3)
Question 26: Twice as many men as women are insurance agents.
A. Women are twice as likely as men to have insurance.
B. More men than women have insurance.
C. Insurance is twice as difficult to sell to women as to men.
D. Male insurance agents outnumber female agents.
E.
Question 27: At no time did the two sides look likely to reach an agreement
A. The two sides never look like each other.
B. The two sides had no time to reach an agreement.
C. If the two sides had had time, they would have reached an agreement.
D. The two sides never looked likely to reach an agreement.

Question 28: “A baby has no knowledge of the difference between good and evil” means
............
A. No knowledge of the difference between good and evil has in a baby.
B. A baby doesn’t know the difference between good and evil.
C. A baby know no difference between good and evil.
D. Good and evil are different from a baby.

Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines
each pair of sentences in the following questions.(2)
Question 29: They drove fifteen miles off the main road. Also, they had nothing to eat for the
day.
A. They drove fifteen miles off the main road until they had something to eat for the day.
B. They neither drove fifteen miles off the main road nor had anything to eat for the day.
C. Driving fifteen miles off the main road, they eventually had something to eat for the day.
D. Not only did they drive fifteen miles off the main road, they also had nothing to eat for the

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day.
Question 30. I do my homework and schoolwork in separate books. I don't get muddled up.
A. I do not get muddled up due to the separation between homework and schoolwork.
B. I would get muddled up if I did not separate homework from schoolwork
C. I do my homework and schoolwork in separate books so that I don't get muddled up.
D. Having two separate books at home and at work helps me avoid getting muddled up.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A,B,C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35.
Symbols
Reality for human beings is not action or feeling but meaning. Humans are symbolic creatures;
a symbol is anything (31) __________ carries a particular meaning recognized by the people
who share culture. A whistle, a wall of graffiti, a flashing red light, a fist raised in the air - all
serve for symbols. We see the human capacity to create and manipulate symbols in the various
ways a simple wink of the eye can convey interest, (32) __________, or insult.
We are so dependent on our culture's symbols that we take them for granted. Often,
however, we gain a heightened sense of the importance of a symbol when someone uses it in
an (33) _________ way, say when a person in a political demonstration bums a U.S. flag.
Entering an unfamiliar culture also reminds us of the power of symbols; culture shock is nothing
more than the inability to "read" meaning in one's surroundings. We feel lost, unsure of how to
act and sometimes frightened - a consequence of slipping outside the symbolic web of culture.
Culture shock is both what travelers experience (34) ___________ what they inflict on
others by acting in ways that may offend them. For example, because North Americans consider
dogs to be beloved household pets, travelers to the People's Republic of China might well be
appalled to discover people roasting dogs as a wintertime meal. (35) ___________, a North
American who orders a hamburger in India causes offense to Hindus, who hold cows to be
sacred and thus unfit for human consumption
Question 31: A. where B. that C. as D. when
Question 32: A. understanding B. know C. to understand D. understand
Question 33: A. conservative B. traditional C. conventional D. unusual
Question 34: A. but B. and C. neither D. or
Question 35: A. On the other hand B. However C. Therefore D. At the same

Read the following passage and mark the letter A,B,C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
BASKETBALL
Although he created the game of basketball at the YMCA in Springfield, Massachusetts,
Dr. James A Naismith was a Canadian. Working as a physical education instructor at the
International YMCA, now Springfield College, Dr. Naismith noticed a lack of interest in
exercise among students during the wintertime. The new England winters were fierce, and the

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students balked at participating in outdoor activities. Naismith determined a fast-moving game


that could be played indoors would fill a void after the baseball and football seasons had ended.
First, he attempted to adapt outdoor games such as soccer and rugby to indoor play, but
he soon found them unsuitable for confined areas. Finally, he determined that he would have
to invent a game.
In December of 1891, Dr. Naismith hung two old peach baskets at either end of the
gymnasium at the school, and, using a soccer ball and nine players on each side, organized the
first basketball game. The early rules allowed three points for each basket and made running
with the ball violation. Every time a goal was made, someone had to climb a ladder to retrieve
the ball.
Nevertheless, the game became popular. In less than a year, basketball was being played
in both the United States and Canada. Five years later, a championship tournament
was staged in New York City, which was won by the Brooklyn Central YMCA.
The teams had already been reduced to seven players, and five became standard in 1897
season. When basketball was introduced as a demonstration sport in the 1904 Olympic Games
in St. Luis, it quickly spread throughout the world. In 1906, a metal hoop was used for the first
time to replace the basket, but the name basketball has remained.
Question 36: What does this passage mainly discuss?
A. Dr. James Naismith B. The development of basketball
C. The YMCA athletic program D. The Olympic Games in St. Luis in 1904
Question 37: Why did Naismith decide to invent basketball?
A. He was tired of baseball and football
B. He did not like soccer or rugby.
C. He wanted his students to exercise during the winter.
D. He could not convince his students to play indoors
Question 38: The word "fierce" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to
A. long B. boring C. extreme D. dark
Question 39: Soccer and rugby are the example of ________.
A. outdoor games B. old peach baskets C. indoor play D. confined areas
Question 40: The word "them" in paragraph 2 refers to
A. seasons B. areas C. indoors D. games
Question 41: The word "staged" in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to
A. replaced B. organized C. run D. remained
Question 42: The author mentions all of the following as typical of the early game of
basketball EXCEPT__________.
A. nine players were on a team

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B. the ball had to be retrieved from the basket after each score
C. three points were scored for every basket
D. running with the ball was not a foul

Read the following passage and mark the letter A,B,C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50.
Course numbers are an indication of which courses are to various categories of students
at the University. Undergraduate courses with the numbers 100 or 200 are generally
introductory courses appropriate for freshmen or sophomores, whereas courses with the
numbers 300 or 400 often have prerequisites and are often to juniors and seniors only. Courses
with the numbers 800 or above are open only to graduate students. Certain graduate courses,
generally those devoted to introductory material, are numbered 400 for undergraduate students
who qualify to take them and 600 for graduate students. Courses designed for students seeking
a professional degree carry a 500 number for undergraduate students and a 700 number for
graduate students. Courses numbered 99 or below are special interest courses that do not carry
academic credit. If students elect to take a special interest course, it will not count toward the
number of hours needed to complete graduation requirements
Full-time undergraduate student is expected to take courses that total twelve to eighteen
credit hours. A full-time graduate student is expected to take courses that total ten to sixteen
credit hours. Student holding assistantships are expected to enroll for proportionately fewer
hours. A part-time graduate may register for minimum of three credit hours. An overload, that
is, more than the maximum number of hours, may be taken with the approval of an academic
advisor. To register for an overload, students must submit the appropriate approval form when
registering. Overloads above 24 hours will not be approved under any circumstances.
Question 43: Where would the passage most likely be found?
A. In a graduate course B. In an undergraduate course
C. In a college catalog D. In a syllabus
Question 44: What is the purpose of the passage?
A. To apologize B. To inform C. To persuade D. To criticize
Question 45: The word "categories" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to______.
A. teachers B. courses C. jobs D. groups
Question 46: The word "those" in paragraph 1 refers to_______.
A. graduate courses B. course numbers C. introductory courses D. graduate
students
Question 47: Which classification of students would be eligible to enroll in Mechanical
Engineering 850?
A. A part- time student B. An undergraduate student
C. A full- time student D. A graduate student

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Question 48: How is a student who registers for eight credit hours classified?
A. Full- time student B. Graduate student
C. Part- time student D. Non-degree student
Question 49: A graduate student may NOT_________.
A. enroll in a course numbered 610
B. register for only one one-hour course
C. enroll in an introductory course
D. register for courses if he has an assistantship
Question 50: The word "appropriate" in the LAST paragraph is closest in meaning
to______.
A. wrong B. interest C. suitable D. denial

The end

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ĐỀ SỐ 08

Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part
differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.(2)
Question 1.A.cheap B.child C.chemist D.chair
Question 2.A.academic B.grade C. behave D. examination

Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the
other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.(2)
Question 3.A.computer B.expression C.instantly D.appliance
Question 4.A.elementary B.continental C.beneficial D.dormitory

Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.(3)
Question 5: He has hardly never given a more impressive performance than this.
A B C D
Question 6: A lot of people stop smoking because they are afraid their health will be affected
A B C
and early death.
D.
Question 7: The student must have her assessment form fill in by the examiner during the oral
exam.
A B C D
Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions (12)
Question 8:________make a good impression on her.
A. Only by doing so can I B. Only so doing can I
C. Only by so doing I can D. Only by doing so I can

Question 9: People don’t like the way he shows off,_______?


A. don’t they B. do they
C. does he D. doesn’t he

Question 10: The use of vitamin _______ and herbs has become increasingly
popular among Americans.
A. materials B. ingredients
C. supplements D. components

Question 11: No matter how angry he was, he would never_______to violence.


A. refuse B. resort C. resist D. resolve

Question 12:_________that Columbus discovered America.


A. In 1492 B. There was in 1492
C. That was in 1492 D. It was in 1492

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Question 13: Anna is holding her shopping bag with one hand and turning
the door handle with__________
A. other B. another C. the other D. others

Question 14:I can’t find my dictionary at the moment. I hope it will_______


up soon.
A. look B. clear C. turn D. come

Question 15: The language centre offers courses of various levels, such as elementary,
intermediate and__________.
A. advance B. advancement C. advanced D. advancing

Question 16: She started the course two months ago but dropped _________after only a month.
A. back B. out C. off D. in

Question 17: Nowadays, with the help of the computer, teachers have developed a
_______approach to teaching.
A. multilingual B. multilateral
B. C. multiple-choice D. multimedia

Question 18: He died _________ lung cancer last month, leaving his wife a great shock.
A. for B. by C. of D. in

Question 19: He is a very intelligent boy; _________, he sometimes gets bad marks,
A. so B. thus C. otherwise D. however

Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to
complete each of the following exchanges.(2)
Question 20: -"Let's have a pizza." -"__________"
A. Not again B. It doesn't matter C. It’s a good idea D. Not really

Question 21: “I hear Tom’s always been a bit of a problem” “Yes, he’s the _______ of the
family.”
A. lone wolf B. black sheep C. lame duck D. red bull

Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSET in meaning
to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.(2)
Question 22: When their rent increased from 200 to 400 a month, they protested against such
a tremendous increase.
A. light B. huge C. tiring D. difficult

Question 23: In 1952, Akihito was officially proclaimed heir to the Japanese throne.
A. installed B. declared C. denounced D. advised

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Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.(2)
Câu 24: There is growing concern about the way man has destroyed the environment.
A. ease B. attraction C. consideration D. speculation

Câu 25: Fruit and vegetables grew in abundance on the island. The islanders even exported
the surplus.
A. large quantity B. small quantity C. excess D. sufficiency

Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closet in
meaning to each of the following questions.(3)
Question 26: I have learnt never to take sides in any arguments between my close friends.
A. I support neither side in my close friends’ arguments.
B. I don’t support any of my close friends.
C. If I support one side in arguments, the other will be upset.
D. I don’t encourage my close friends to argue.

Question 27: Lucy always reminds me of my youngest sister.


A. Whenever I see Lucy, I think of my youngest sister.
B. My youngest sister’s name is Lucy.
C. It is Lucy who is my youngest sister.
D. I always think of Lucy, my youngest sister

Question 28: Soil erosion is a result of forests being cut down carelessly.
A. That forests are being cut down carelessly results from soil erosion.
B. Soil erosion contributes to forests being cut down carelessly.
C. Soil erosion results in forests being cut down carelessly
D. That forests are being cut down carelessly leads to soil erosion.

Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines
each pair of sentences in the following questions.(2)
Question 29: Most scientists know him well. However, very few ordinary people have heard
of him.
A. Many ordinary people know him better than most scientists do.
B. Although he is well known to scientists, he is little known to the general public.
C. He is the only scientist that is not known to the general public.
D. Not only scientists but also the general public know him as a big name.

Question 30: She wrote the text. She selected the illustration as well.
A. In order to select the illustration, she had to write the text.
B. The text she wrote was not as good as the illustration she selected.
C. If she had written the text, she would have selected the illustration.
D. She not only wrote the text but also selected the illustration.

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Read the following passage and mark the letter A,B,C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35.
You will make the interview process easier for the employer if you prepare relevant
information about yourself. Think about how you want to present your (31) _______,
experiences, education, work style, skills, and goals. Be prepared to supplement all your
answers with examples that support the statements you make. It is also a good idea to review
your résumé with a critical eye and identify areas that an employer might see as limitations or
want further information. Think about how you can answer difficult questions (32) _______
and positively, while keeping each answer brief.
An interview gives the employer a chance to get to know you. While you do want to
market yourself to the employer, answer each question with an honest (33) _______. Never say
anything negative about past experiences, employers, or courses and professors. Always think
of something positive about an experience and talk about that. You should also be (34) _______.
If you are genuinely interested in the job, let the interviewer know that.
One of the best ways to show you are keen on a job is to demonstrate that you have
researched the organization prior to the interview. You can also show interest by asking
questions about the job, the organization, and its services and products. The best way to impress
an employer is to ask questions that build upon your interview discussion. This shows you are
interested and (35) _______close attention to the interviewer. It is a good idea to prepare a few
questions in advance, but an insightful comment based on your conversation can make an even
stronger statement. At the end of an interview, it is appropriate for you to ask when you may
expect to hear from the employer.

Question 31: A. practices B. strengths C. pressures D. promotions


Question 32: A. sharply B. accurately C. hardly D. rightly
Question 33: A. expression B. ability C. response D. respect
Question 34: A. enthusiast B. enthusiastic C.enthusiastically D. enthusiasm
Question 35: A. make B. spend C. pay D. choose

Read the following passage and mark the letter A,B,C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
In most of the earliest books for children, illustrations were an afterthought. But in the Caldecott
“toy books”, which first appeared in 1878, they were almost as important as the lines of text,
and occupied far more space in the book. One can almost read the story from the dramatic action
in the pictures.
Since then, thousands of successful picture books have been published in the United
States and around the world. In the best, the words and illustrations seem to complement each
other perfectly. Often a single person, is responsible for both writing and illustrating the book.
One of the greatest, and certainly one of the most successful, illustrator-authors was Dr. Seuss,
whose real name was Theodor Geisel. His first children’s book, And to Think That I Saw It on
Mulberry Street, hit the market in 1937, and the world of children’s literature was changed

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forever. Seuss’s playful drawings were a perfect complement to his engaging stories and
unforgettable characters. In 1957, Seuss’s The Cat in the Hat became the first book in Random
House’s best-selling series, Beginner Books, written by Seuss and several other authors. These
combine outrageous illustrations of people, creatures, and plants, and playful stories written in
very simple language.
Dr. Seuss is not the only well-known author-illustrator, of course. There is Max Sendak,
who wrote and illustrated Where the Wild Things Are, the story of a little boy named Max, who
becomes king of the fierce ( but funny) creatures that live in the Land of the Wilds Things.
Robert McCloskey produced both the richly textured illustrations and delightful story of a
family of ducks living in downtown Boston, Make Ways for Ducklings. Some books are
produced by a collaborative author-artist team. Author Margaret Wise Brown combined with
illustrator Clement Hurd to produce two delightful books loved by very young
children, Goodnight Moon and The Runaway Bunny. Another example is the husband-and-
wife team of writer Audrey Wood and illustrator Don Wood, who were responsible for King
Bidgood’s in the Bathtub andThe Napping House.
Wordless and nearly wordless picture books have become popular. With a little help,
three-and four-year-olds can follow the sequence of events, and they can understand the stories
suggested in them. The marvel of books with few or no words is that they allow children and
their parents the opportunity to tell and retell the same stories over and over in their own words.
One of the most charming examples of a wordless book is Jan Omerod’sSunshine. Barbara
Berger’s Grandfather Twilight and David Weisner’s Tuesday are examples of books
containing only a few words.
U.S.publishers have also drawn on illustrators from other countries whose original,
imaginative works have brought their different visions to American children’s books. Among
them are Leo Lionni fromItaly, Feodor Rojankovsky fromRussia, and Taro Yashimi fromJapan.
( Source: “ The Complete Guide to the TOEFL Test” – Bruce Rogers)
Question 36. When did illustrations become important in books for children?
A. In late 19th century B. In 1937
C. Only recently D. In 1957
Question 37. The word “they” in the first paragraph refers to ________.
A. the earliest books for children B. illustrations
C. the Caldecott “toy books” D. lines of text
Question 38. The phrase “the best” in paragraph 2 refers to the best __________.
A. picture books B. illustrations
C. authors D. words
Question 39. According to the passage, pictures help make children’s books _________.
A. sell better B. unforgettable
C. more successful D. more original

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Question 40. The word “original” in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to _________.
A. in the first place B. of the first source
C. imaginary and beautiful D. new and creative
Question 41. Leo Lionni, Feodor Rojankovsky, and Taro Yashimi are mentioned in the passage
to show that____________.
A. there are talented authors in different countries.
B. U.S. publishers attract good artists from other countries.
C. illustrators from other countries want to work for U.S. publishers.
D. illustrators from other countries have different visions to U.S. publishers.
Question 42. What is the main idea of the reading passage?
A. Dr. Seuss was one of the most successful illustrator-authors.
B. Husband-and-wife teams can become successful in producing books.
C. Only wordless and nearly wordless picture books have become popular.
D. Pictures are very important in books for children.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A,B,C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50.
Most people think that lions only come from Africa. This is understandable because in
fact most lions do come from there but this has not always been the case. If we went back ten
thousand years, we would find that there were lions roaming vast sections of the globe.
However now, unfortunately only a very small section of the lion's former habitat remains.
Asiatic lions are sub-species of African lions. It is almost a hundred thousand years since
the Asiatic lions split off and developed as a sub-species. At one time the Asiatic lion was living
as far west as Greece and they were found from there, but in a band that spreads east through
various countries of the Middle East, all the way to India. In museums now, you can see Greek
coins that have clear images of the Asiatic lion on them. Most of them are dated at around 500
B.C. However, Europe saw its last Asiatic lions roaming free two thousand years ago. Over the
next nineteen hundred years the numbers of Asiatic lions in the other areas declined steadily,
but it was only in the nineteenth century that they disappeared from everywhere but in India.
The Gir Wildlife Sanctuary in India was established especially to protect the Asiatic lion.
There are now around three hundred Asiatic lions in India and almost all of them are in this
sanctuary. However, despite living in a sanctuary, which makes them safe from hunters, they
still face a number of problems that threaten their survival. One of these is the ever-present
danger of disease. This is what killed more than a third of Africa’s Serengeti lions in 1994, and
people are fearful that something similar could happen in the Gir Sanctuary and kill off many
of the Asiatic lions there.
India's lions are particular vulnerable because they have a limited gene pool. The reason
for this is interesting - it is because all of them are descended from a few dozen lions that were
saved by a prince who took a particular interest in them. He was very healthy, and he managed
to protect them; otherwise they would probably have died out completely.

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When you see the Asiatic lion in India, what you sense is enormous vitality. They are
very impressive animals and you would never guess that they have this vulnerability when you
look at them.

Question 43: According to the passage, many people believe that lions come from _____.
A. Europe B. Africa C. Middle East D. India
Question 44: Ten thousand years ago _____.
A. lions came mainly fromAfrica
B. lions did not live in small forests
C. lions roamed much more than nowadays
D. there were much more lion habitats than nowadays
Question 45: The phrase "split off" in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _____.
A. changed the original species B. divided
C. developed into different species D. spotted animals
Question 46: According to the passage, nowadays we can find the Asiatic lion _____.
A. in Africa and India B. only in Greek museums
C. nowhere in the world D. only inIndia
Question 47: The word "vulnerable" in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to _____.
A. cautious B. weak C. careless D. easily protected
Question 48: According to the author, the Gir Wildlife Sanctuary _____.
A. protects the Asiatic lion from hunters and diseases
B. can make the Asiatic lion become weak
C. cannot reduce the Asiatic lion's risk of catching diseases
D. is among many places where the Asiatic lion is well protected
Question 49: The author refers to all of the following as characteristics of the Asiatic lion
EXCEPT _____.
A. vital B. strong C. impressive D. vulnerable
Question 50: The passage was written to _____.
A. provide an overview of the existence of the Asiatic lions
B. describe the developmental history of the Gir Sanctuary
C. persuade readers to protect the Asiatic lions
D. explain why the Gir Sanctuary is the best habitat for the Asiatic lions
The end

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ĐỀ SỐ 09

Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part
differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.(2)
Question 1.A.humor B. honest C. hotel D. hurry
Question 2.A.washed B. worked C. corrected D. crossed

Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the
other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.(2)
Question 3.A.curriculum B.enthusiast C.subordinate D.democratic
Question 4.A.gravity B.professor C.pyramid D.colorful

Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.(3)
Question 5:A novel is a story long enough to fill a complete book, in that the characters
A B C
and events are usually imaginary.
D
Question 6: Most greetings cards are folding and have a picture on the front and a message
inside.
A B C D
Question 7: Aloha is a Hawaiian word meaning ‘love’, that can be used to say hello or
goodbye.
A B C D

Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions (12)
Question 8: I ______with my aunt when I am on holiday in Ho Chi Minh City next month.
A. will have been staying
B.will have stayed
C. stay
D.will be staying

Question 9: Although we have a large number of students, each one receives _______attention.

A. alone B. only C. separate D. individual

Question 10: The children made _______a funny story and wrote it on the card.
A .up B. off C. for D. out

Question 11: Geometry is a branch of mathematics _________the properties of lines, curves,


shapes, and surfaces.
A. that concerning with B. that concerned with
C. that it is concerned with D. concerned with

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Question 12: She passed the National High School Graduation Exam with ______ colors.
A. bright B. flying C. red D. true

Question 13: The struggle for women’s rights began in the 18th century during a period______
as the Age of Enlightenment.
A. known B.is knowing C. that knew D. knew

Question 14: Scientists have ________a lot of research into renewable energy
sources.
A. solved B. made C. carried D. done

Question 15: When Peter was a child, there _______a cinema near his house.
A. used to be being B. used to have been
C. used to have D. used to be

Question 16: He didn’t know ________or stay until the end of the festival.
A. if to go B. if he should go
C. to go D. whether to go

Question 17: The team were eager to make _________the loss of the previous match.
A. away with B. off with C. up for D. up with

Question 18: You should look up the meaning of new words in the dictionary _______misuse
them.
A. so that not to B.so not to C. so as not to D. so that not

Question 19: My mother had to work 12 hours a day in a factory just to_________.
A. make ends meet B. call it a day C. tighten the belt D. break the ice

Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to
complete each of the following exchanges.(2)
Question 20. Tom: “ When are we leaving for the concert?” Kyle: “ ………………”
A. Straight away B. That’s right C. Certainly D. No problem.
Question 21. “Can you wait while I run into the library?” “ OK, ………..you hurry.”
A. even though B. when C. as long as D. unless

Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSET in meaning
to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.(2)

Question 22: If we had taken his sage advice, we wouldn’t be in so much trouble now.
A. willing B. sturdy C. wise D. eager
Question 23: A mediocre student who gets low grades will have trouble getting into an Ivy
League college.
A. average B. lazy C. moronic D. diligent

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Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.(2)

Question 24: During the five- decade history the Asian Games have been advancing in all
aspects.
A. holding at B. holding back C. holding to D. holding by
Question 25: The distinction between schooling and education implied by this remark is
important.
A. explicit B. implicit C. obscure D. odd

Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closet in
meaning to each of the following questions.(3)
Question 26: She prefers going to the library to staying at home
A. She would rather go to the library than stay at home.
B. She likes nothing better than going to the library.
C. She does not like either going to the library or staying at home.
D. She stays at home instead of going to the library.

Question 27: She did not study hard enough to win the scholarship.
A. She studied hard but she could not win the scholarship.
B. Winning the scholarship did not make her study harder.
C. She could have won the scholarship if she had studied harder.
D. It was very hard for her to win the scholarship.

Question 28: No matter how hard Fred tried to lose weight, he did not succeed.
A. It did not matter whether Fred could lose weight.
B. However hard Fred tried, he could not lose weight.
C. Fred tried very hard to lose weight and succeeded.
D. It was hard for Fred to lose weight because he never succeeded.

Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines
each pair of sentences in the following questions.(2)

Question 29: Nam defeated the former champion in three sets. He finally won the inter-school
table tennis championship.
A. Being defeated by the former champion, Nam lost the chance to play the final game of
inter-school table
tennis championship.
B. Having defeated the former champion in the inter-school table tennis, Nam did not hold
the title of champion.
C. Having defeated the former champion in three sets, Nam won the inter-school table tennis
championship.
D. Although Nam defeated the former champion in three sets, he did not win the title of inter-
school table tennis champion.

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Question 30: She looked through the hotel advertisements. She stopped only when taking a
fancy to one piece.
A. She stopped looking through the hotel advertisements only when she had found another
piece.
B. She took so great a fancy to the hotel advertisements that she could not stop reading them.
C. She stopped reading the hotel advertisements only when one of them caught her fancy.
D. She found the hotel advertisements so interesting that she could hardly turn away from
them.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A,B,C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35.
John F Kennedy
(John Fitzgerald Kennedy 1917-1963) the 35thUSPresident (1961–1963). He was the
country’s youngest president and the first Roman Catholic ever (31) ___________. He was also
known informally as Jack Kennedy and JFK. His wife was Jackie Kennedy. He won a medal
for (32) ______________ during World War II, and was elected to the US House of
Representatives (1947–53) and then to the US Senate (1952–60).
Kennedy’s greatest success (33) _________ President was in dealing with the Cuban missile
crisis and his worst failure was over the Bay of Pigsincident. He worked (34) _______ his
brother, US Attorney General Robert Kennedy, to support the civil rights movement. He was
murdered in Dallas, probably by Lee Harvey Oswald, in one of the most shocking events in US
history. Some people believe that others were responsible for his murder, but (35) _______ has
ever been definitely proved. Kennedy’s book, Profiles in Courage (1956), won a Pulitzer Prize.
John F Kennedy
Câu 31: A. to be electing B. elected C. electing D. to be elected
Câu 32: A. nerve B. audacity C. resolution D. courage
Câu 33: A. the same B. like C. alike D. as
Câu 34: A. beside B. upper C. with D. for
Câu 35: A. nothing B. something C. anything D. everything
Read the following passage and mark the letter A,B,C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
Federal Express is a company that specializes in rapid overnight delivery of high-priority
packages. The first company of its type, Federal Express was founded by the youthful Fred
Smith in 1971, when he was only 28 years old. Smith had actually developed the idea for the
rapid delivery service in a term paper for an economics class when he was a student at Yale
University. The term paper reputedly received a less-than-stellar grade because of the
infeasibility of the project that Smith had outlined. The model that Smith proposed had never
been tried; it was a model that was efficient to operate but at the same time was very difficult
to institute.

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Smith achieved efficiency in his model by designing a system that was separate from the
passenger system and could, therefore, focus on how to deliver packages most efficiently. His
strategy was to own his own planes so that he could create his own schedules and to ship all
packages through the hub city of Memphis, a set-up which resembles the spokes on the wheel
of a bicycle. With this combination of his own planes and hub set-up, he could get packages
anywhere in the United States overnight.
What made Smith’s idea difficult to institute was the fact that the entire system had to be created
before the company could begin operations. He needed a fleet of aircraft to collect packages
from airports every night and deliver them to Memphis, where they were immediately sorted
and flown out to their new destinations; he needed a fleet of trucks to deliver packages to and
from the various airports; he needed facilities and trained staff all in place to handle the
operation. Smith had a $4 million inheritance from his father, and he managed to raise an
additional $91 million dollars from venture capitalists to get the company operating.
When Federal Express began service in 1973 in 25 cities, the company was not an immediate
success, but success did come within a relatively short period of time. The company lost $29
million in the first 26 months of operations. However, the tide was to turn relatively quickly.
By late 1976, Federal Express was carrying an average of 19,000 packages per night and had
made a profit of $3.6 million.
Question 36: The most appropriate title for this passage is _____.
A. The Capitalization of Federal Express
B. The Importance of Business Studies
C. The Implementation of a Successful Business
D. The Problems and Frustrations of a Business Student
Question 37: The word "developed" in paragraph 1 could best be replaced by _____.
A. come up with B. come into C. come across D. come about
Question 38: What was a key idea of Smiths?
A. That he should focus on passenger service
B. That packages could be delivered on other companies’ planes
C. That package delivery should be separate from passenger service
D. That passenger service had to be efficient
Question 39: A "hub city" in paragraph 2 is _____.
A. a centralized city with destinations emanating from it
B. a city that is the final destination for many routes
C. a large city with small cities as destinations
D. a city where many bicycle routes begin
Question 40: It can be inferred from the passage that Smith selected Memphis as his hub city
because it _____.

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A. already had a large package delivery service B. had a large number of passenger
aircraft
C. was near the middle of the country D. was a favorite passenger airport
Question 41: The pronoun "they" in paragraph 3 refers to _____.
A. destinations B. aircraft C. packages D. airports
Question 42: It is NOT mentioned in the passage that, in order to set up his company, Smith
needed _____.
A. faculty B. trucks C. personnel D. airplanes

Read the following passage and mark the letter A,B,C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50.
A rather surprising geographical feature of Antarctica is that a huge freshwater, one of
the world’s largest and deepest, lies hidden there under four kilometers of ice. Now known as
Lake Vostok, this huge body of water is located under the ice block that comprises Antarctica.
The lake is able to exist in its unfrozen state beneath this block of ice because its waters are
warned by geothermal heat from the earth’s core. This thick glacier above Lake Vostok actually
insulates it from frigid temperatures (the lowest ever recorded on Earth) on the surface.
The lake was first discovered in the 1970s while a research team was conducting an
aerial survey of the area. Radio waves from the survey equipment penetrated the ice and
revealed a body of water of indeterminate size. It was not until much more recently that data
collected by satellite made scientists aware of the tremendous size of the lake; satellite-borne
radar detected an extremely flat region where the ice remains level because it is floating on the
water of the lake.
The discovery of such a huge fresh water lake trapped under Antarctica is of interest to
the scientific community because of the potential that the lake contains ancient microbes that
have survived for thousands upon thousands of years, unaffected by factors such as nuclear
fallout and elevated ultraviolet light that have conducting research on the lake in such a harsh
climate and in the problems associated with obtaining uncontaminated sampled from the lake
without actually exposing the lake to contamination. Scientists are looking for possible ways to
accomplish this.
Question 43: The purpose of the passage is to __________.
A. explain how Lake Vostok was discovered
B. provide satellite data concerning Antarctica
C. discuss future plans for Lake Vostok
D. present an unexpected aspect of Antarctica’s geography
Question 44: The word “lies” in the first paragraph could be best be replaced by ______.
A. sleeps B. sits C. tells falsehoods D. inclines
Question 45: What is true of Lake Vostok?
A. It is completely frozen. B. It is a saltwater lake.

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C. It is beneath a thick slab of ice D. It is heated by the sun.


Question 46: Which of the following is closest in meaning to “Frigid” in the first paragraph?
A. extremely cold B. never changing C. quite harsh D.
rarely recorded
Question 47: All of the following are true about the 1970 survey of Antarctica EXCEPT that
it________.
A. was conducted by air
B. made use of radio waves
C. did not measure the exact size of the lake
D. was controlled by a satellite
Question 48: It can be interfered from the passage that ice would not be flat if _______.
A. there were no lake B. the lake were not so big
C. Antarctica were not so cold D. radio waves were not used
Question 49: The word “microbes” in paragraph 3 could best be replaced by which of the
following?
A. pieces of dust B. trapped bubbles C. tiny organism D. rays of light
Question 50: The paragraph following the passage most probably discusses________.
A. further discoveries on the surface of Antarctica
B. problems with satellite-borne radar equipment
C. ways to study Lake Vostok without contaminating it
D. the harsh climate of Antarctica

The end

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ĐỀ SỐ 10
Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.(2)
Question 1.A. adventure B. mature C. figure D. procedure
Question 2.A. father B. healthy C. other D. another

Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.(2)
3.A.industrial B.exhibition C.preparation D.decoration
4.A.luxurious B.energetic C.adventurous D.congratulate
Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.(3)
Question 5: The Oxford English Dictionary is well known for including many different meanings
A B C
of words and to give real examples.
D
Question 6: When you are writing or speaking English, it is important to use language that includes
A B C
both men and women equally the same.
D
Question 7: It was disappointing that almost of the guests left the wedding too early.
A B C D

Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions (12)
Question 8: As a(n)_______girl, she found it difficult to socialise with other students in the class.
A. reserved B. industrious C. ashamed D.dynamic

Question 9:_________smoking is a causative factor of many diseases, there is not ban on tobacco
advertising.
A. However B. Although C. In spite of D.Therefore

Question 10: Working as a volunteer gives her a chance to develop her interpersonal skills, promote
friendship, and________ her own talent.
A. discovering B. to discover C. discover D.discovered

Question 11: The bad weather caused serious damage to the crop. If only it ______warmer.
A. has been B. had been C.was D. were

Question 12: He is coming ________a cold after a night out in the rain.
A. away from B. down with C. across with D. up with

Question 13: New machinery has enhanced the company’s productivity and______.
A. competitor B. competition
C. competitive D. competitiveness

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Question 14: In a formal interview, it is essential to maintain good eye _____with the interviewers.
A contact B. touch C. link D. connection

Question 15: The restaurants on the island are expensive, so it’s worth_____ packed lunch.
A. taken B. taking C. to take D. take

Question 16: Before going to bed, he wanted some tea but there was_____ left.
A. nothing B. a few C. any D. no

Question 17: It has been suggested that Mary ________a computer course in preparation for a
steady job.
A. take B. would have taken
C. was taken D. have been taken

Question 18: It was so kind of her to put me________ while I was on a business trip in her town.
A. up B. down C. in D. off

Question 19: It is interesting to take _______a new hobby such as collecting stamps or going fishing.
A. over B. up C. in D. on

Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete
each of the following exchanges.(2)
Question 20: Mary: “Thanks a lot for your help.”
John: “_________”
A. My happiness B. My delight C. My pleasure D. My excitement

Question 21: Mary: “I will never go mountaineering again.”


Linda: “Me_________.”
A. so B. too C. neither D. either

Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSET in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.(2)
Question 22: The augmentation in the population has created a fuel shortage.
A. increase B. necessity C. demand D. decrease

Question 23: The politician’s conviction for tax fraud jeopardized his future in public life.
A. rejuvenated B. penalized C. jettisoned D. endangered

Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.(2)
Question 24: A chronic lack of sleep may make us irritable and reduces our motivation to
work.
A. uncomfortable B. responsive C. calm D. miserable

Question 25: Population growth rates vary among regions and even among countries within the
same region.
A. restrain B. stay unchanged C. remain unstable D. fluctuate

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Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closet in
meaning to each of the following questions.(3)
Question 26: Walking on the grass in the park is not permitted.
A. People like walking on the grass in the park.
B. We do not have to walk on the grass in the park.
C. We must not walk on the grass in the park.
D. You can walk on the grass in the park if you want to.

Question 27: To my surprise, the stranger knew my name.


A.It surprised the stranger that I knew my name
B.What surprised me most was the stranger’s name.
C.I was surprised that the stranger knew my name.
D.My name was the only thing the stranger knew.

Question 28: “I will not leave until I see the manager,” said the customer.
A. The customer was persuaded to see the manager before leaving.
B. The customer said he would leave before he saw the manager.
C. The customer refused to leave until he saw the manager.
D.The customer decided to leave because he did not see the manager.

Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions.(2)
Question 29: We spend about one-third of our lives sleeping. We know relatively little about
sleep.
A. We know relatively little about sleep; as a result, we spend about one- third of our lives
sleeping.
B. We shall know more about sleep if we spend more than one-third of our lives sleeping.
C. Despite spending about one-third of our lives sleeping, we know relatively little about sleep.
D. We spend about one-third of our lives sleeping so that we know relatively little about sleep.

Question 30: Overeating is a cause of several deadly diseases. Physical inactivity is another
cause of several deadly diseases.
A. Not only overeating but also physical inactivity may lead to several deadly diseases.
B. Apart from physical activities, eating too much also contributes to several deadly
diseases,
C. Both overeating and physical inactivity result from several deadly diseases.
D. Overeating and physical inactivity are caused by several deadly diseases.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A,B,C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35.
Everyone wants to reduce pollution. But the pollution problem is (31) ____________
complicated as it is serious. It is complicated because much pollution is caused by things that
benefit people. (32) ___________, exhaust from automobiles causes a large percentage of air
pollution. But the automobile provides transportation for millions of people. Factories discharge
much (33) ________the material that pollutes their and water, but factories give employment
to a large number of people. Thus, to end or greatly reduce pollution immediately, people would

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have to (34) __________ using many things that benefit them. Most of the people do not want
to do that, of course. But pollution can be gradually reduced in several ways. Scientists and
engineers can work to find ways lessen the (35) ________ of the pollution that such things as
automobiles and factories cause. Governments can pass and enforce laws that require
businesses and traffic to stop, or to cut down on certain polluting activities.
Question 31. A. less B. like C. as D. more
Question 32. A. like B. such as C. specific D. For example
Question 33.A. of B. about C. with D. for
Question 34. A. stop B. go on C. start D. continue
Question 35. A. number B. way C. figure D. amount

Read the following passage and mark the letter A,B,C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
Harvard University, today recognized as part of the top echelon of the world’s universities,
came from very inauspicious and humble beginning.
This oldest of American universities was founded in 1636, just sixteen years after the
Pilgrims landed at Plymouth. Included in the Puritan emigrants to the Massachusetts colony
during this period were more than 100 graduates of England’s prestigious Oxford and
Cambridge universities, and these universities graduates in the New Word were determined
that their sons would have the same educational opportunities that they themselves had had,
Because of this support in the colony for an institution of higher learning, the General Court
of Massachusetts appropriated 400 pounds for a college in October of 1636 and early the
following year decided on a parcel of land for the school; this land was in an area called
Newetowne , which was later renamed Cambridge after its English cousin and is the site of
the present-day university
When a young minister named John Harvard, who came from the neighboring town of
Charlestowne, died from tuberculosis in 1638, he willed half of his estate of 1,700 pounds to
the fledgling college. In spite of the fact that only half of the bequest was actually paid, the
General Court named the college after the minister in appreciation for what he had done. The
amount of the bequest may not have been large, particularly by today’s standard, but it was
more than the General Court had found it necessary to appropriate in order to open the college.
Henry Dunster was appointed the first president of Harvard in 1640, and it should be
noted that in addition to serving as president, he was also the entire faculty, with an entering
freshmen class of four students. Although the staff did expand somewhat, for the first century
of its existence the entire teaching staff consisted of the president and three or four tutors.

Question 36: The main idea of this passage is that_________.


A. Harvard is one of the world’s most prestigious universities.
B. What is today a great university started out small
C. John Harvard was key to the development of a great university
D. Harvard University developed under the auspices of the General Court of Massachusetts

Question 37: The passage indicates that Harvard is___________.


A. One of the oldest universities in the world B. the oldest university in the world
C. One of the oldest universities in America D. the oldest university in America

Question 38: It can be inferred from the passage that the Puritans who traveled to the
Massachusetts colony were__________.
A. Rather well educated B. rather rich

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C. rather supportive of the English government D. rather undemocratic

Question 39: The “pounds” in the second paragraph are probably_______.


A. Types of books B. college students C. units of money D. school campuses

Question 40: The “ English cousin” in the second paragraph refers to a_______.
A. City B. relative C. person D. court

Question 41: Which of the following is NOT mentioned about John Harvard?
A.What he died of B. Where he came from
C. Where he was buried D. How much he bequeathed to Harvard

Question 42: The word “fledgling” in the third paragraph could be best replaced by which of
the following?
A. newborn B. flying C. winged D. established

Read the following passage and mark the letter A,B,C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50.
In most discussions of cultural diversity, attention has focused on visible, explicit aspects
of culture, such language, dress, food, religion, music, and social rituals. Although they are
important, these visible expressions of culture, which are taught deliberately and learned
consciously, are only the tip of the iceberg or culture. Much of culture is taught and learned
implicitly, or outside awareness. Thus, neither cultural insiders nor cultural outsiders are aware
that certain "invisible" aspects of their culture exist
Invisible elements of culture are important to us. For example, how long we can be late
before being impolite, what topics we should avoid in a conversation, how we show interest or
attention through listening behavior, what we consider beautiful or ugly. These are all aspects
of culture that we learn and use without being aware of it. When we meet other people whose
invisible cultural assumptions differ from those we have learned implicitly, we usually do not
recognize their behavior as cultural in origin.
Differences in invisible culture can cause problems in cross-cultural relations. Conflicts
may arise when we are unable to recognize others’ behavioral differences as cultural rather than
personal. We tend to misinterpret other people's behavior, blame them, or judge their intentions
or competence without realizing that we are experiencing cultural rather than individual
differences.
Formal organizations and institutions, such as schools, hospitals, workplaces,
governments, and the legal system are collection sites for invisible cultural differences. If the
differences were more visible, we might have less misunderstanding. For example, if we met a
man in a courthouse who was wearing exotic clothes, speaking a language other than ours, and
carrying food that looked strange, we would not assume that we understood his thoughts and
feelings or that he understood ours. Yet when such a man is dressed similarly to us, speaks our
language, and does not differ from us in other obvious ways, we may fail to recognize the
invisible cultural differences between us. As a result, mutual misunderstanding may arise.

Question 43. What is the main purpose of the passage?


A. To explain the importance of invisible aspects of culture
B. To describe cultural diversity.
C. To point out that much of culture is learned consciously.
D. To explain why cross-cultural conflict occurs.

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Question 44. The word "deliberately" in bold in paragraph I is Closest in meaning to


________
A. slowly B. accurately C. intentionally D. randomly

Question 45. The phrase "the tip of the iceberg" in bold in paragraph 1 means that
________
A. other cultures seem cold to us
B. visible aspects of culture are learned in institutions
C. we usually focus on the highest forms of culture
D. most cannot be seen

Question 46. Which or the following was NOT mentioned as an example of invisible culture?
A. What topics to avoid in conversation
B, What food to eat in a courthouse
C. How late is considered impolite
D. How people express interest in what others are saying

Question 47. The word "those" in bold in 2 refers to________


A. people from a different culture
B. invisible assumptions
C. people who speak a different language
D. topics that should be avoided

Question 48. It can be inferred paragraph 3 that conflict results when_______


A. people think cultural differences are personal
B. people compete with those from other cultures
C. one culture is more invisible than another culture
D. some people recognize more cultural differences than others

Question 49. The “exotic” in bold in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to _______


A. colorful B. strange C. familiar D beautiful

Question 50. Which of the following would most likely result in misunderstanding?
A. Learning culture about our own culture in school
B. Unusual food being cooked by foreign visitors
C. Strange behavior from someone speaking a foreign language
D. Strange behavior from someone speaking our language

The end

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ĐỀ SỐ 11
Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined
part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.(2)
Question 1.A. washed B. matched C. intended D. walked
Question 2,A. loved B. appeared C. agreed D. coughed

Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the
other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.(2)
Question 3.A.alcohol B.chemical C.effective D.president
Question 4.A.competition B.television C.repetition D.adjustment

Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.(3)
Question 5: In spite of the heavy rain, all we enjoyed the excursion.
A B C D
Question 6: Opened the letter from her boyfriend, she felt extremely excited.
A B C D

Question 7: Wood is an excellent resource for heating homes, cooking food, and build
houses.
A B C D

Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of
the following questions (12)
Question8: A few animals sometimes fool their enemies _______ to be dead.
A. have been appearing B. to be appearing C. to appear D. by appearing
Question 9: On _______ he had won, he jumped for joy.
A. he was told B. having told C. being told D. telling
Question 10: It has been raining ______ I got up.
A. when B. since C. until D. as
Question 11: When a fire broke out in the Louvre, at least twenty _______ paintings were
destroyed, including two by Picasso.
A. worthless B. priceless C. valueless D. worthy
Question 12: Learning English isn't so difficult once you_______ .
A. get on it B. get off it C. get down to it D. get down with it
Question 13: Next week when there ______ a full moon, the ocean tide will be higher.
A. is B. will be C. is being D. will have been
Question 14: _____ is the natural environment in which plants or animals live.
A. Ecology B. Habitat C. Extinction D. Biodiversity

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Question 15: I have told you not to do it_______ .


A. hundreds of times B. many hundred times
C. hundred times D. a hundred times
Question 16: George wouldn't have met Mary_______ to his brother's graduation party.
A. had he not gone B. hadn't he gone
C. if he has not gone D. if he shouldn't have gone
Question 17: Jane’s brother doesn’t work as a worker and she doesn’t ______.
A. neither B. so C. too D. either
Question 18: It is generally believed that “men build the ________ and women make it
home”.
A. school B. bridge C. hospital D. house
Question 19: Venice, ______ was built on water, is a city in Italy.
A. where B. that C. who D. which

Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to
complete each of the following exchanges.(2)
Question 20: Tom. "I'm sorry. I won't be able to come". - Mary. “_______”.
A. Great B. Oh, that's annoying
C. Well, never mind D. Sounds like fun
Question 21: Tom: "Would you like another coffee?" Jerry: " ___ ___ "
A. It's a pleasure. B. Very kind of your part.
C. I'd love one. D. Me, too.

Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSET in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.(2)
Question 22: This is the instance where big, obvious non-verbal signals are appropriate. A.
B. C. D. matter
A. situation B. attention C. place D. matter

Question Câu 23: He had never experienced such discourtesy towards the president as it
occurred at the annual meeting in May.
A. politeness B. rudeness C. encouragement D. measurement

Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.(2)
Question 24-A knee injury forced her to withdraw from the competition.
A-reduce B-want C-need D-advance

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Question 25-If you are at a loose end this weekend, I’ll show you round the city.
A-free B-confident C-occupied D-reluctant

Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closet in
meaning to each of the following questions.(3)
Question 26 :Fiona has been typing the report for an hour.
A. It took Fiona an hour to type the report.
B. Fiona finished the report an hour ago.
C. It is an hour since Fiona started typing the report.
D. Fiona will finish typing the report in an hour.

Question 27: The situation was so embarrassing that she did not know what to do.
A. It was such an embarrassing situation; however, she did not know what to do.
B. So embarrassing was the situation that she did not know what to do.
C. So embarrassing the situation was that she did not know what to do.
D. She did not know what to do, though it was not an embarrassing situation.

Question 28: “Please accept my apology for arriving late,” said Janet to her employer.
A. Janet apologised to her employer for her late arrival.
B. Janet thought she would apologise to her employer for arriving late.
C. Janet quickly made an apology and the employer accepted it.
D. Janet had to make an apology because her employer demanded it.

Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines
each pair of sentences in the following questions.(2)
Question 29: He was successful because he was determined to pursue personal goals. He was
not talented.
A. His success lay in his natural ability, not in his determination to pursue personal goals.
B. In addition to his determination, his talent ensured his success in pursuing his goals.
C. His determination to pursue personal goals made him successful and talented.
D. It was his determination to pursue personal goals, not talent, that contributed to his success.

Question 30: 1 did not arrive in time. I was not able to see her off.
A. She had left because I was not on time.
B. I did not go there, so I could not see her off.
C. I was not early enough to see her off.
D. I arrived very late to say goodbye to her.

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Read the following passage and mark the letter A,B,C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to
35.
Language learning advice
A recent issue of a language learning magazine has consulted a number of experts in the (31)
__________of second language acquisition. Their advice may prove invaluable for those
considering a language course.
One suggestion is that you (32) ______whether you are likely to be successful at learning a
language or not. Did you enjoy studying languages at school, for example? Do you have enough
time to learn a language? The main cost will be your own time and effort. Therefore you must
make sure that the course on offer leads to a (33) ______qualification.
Also, be realistic in your goals. If you don't set achievable aims you are more likely to give up.
Do not be deceived (34) ______thinking that the most expensive courses are the best. Shop
around to get the best possible value for money.
You should also bear in mind that the quicker you learn a language the more quickly you forget
it. Sandra Miller, a French teacher, tried to teach herself German by enrolling on a (35) ______
course. Already fluent in four languages and with a sound knowledge of teaching methodology
her chances of making progress were high. Three years on she remembers very little. She feels
her biggest mistake was not to build on her previous studies. "I should have consolidated what
I'd learnt by continuing to study, even if it were by myself."
Question 31: A. field B. area C. branch D. domain
Question 32: A. review B. balance C. assess D. survey
Question 33: A. recognized B. valued C. regarded D. understood
Question 34: A. by B. into C. about D. in
Question 35: A. quick B. rash C. fast D. rapid

Read the following passage and mark the letter A,B,C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
Coincident with concerns about the accelerating loss of species and habitats has been a
growing appreciation of the importance of biological diversity, the number of species in a
particular ecosystem, to the health of the Earth and human well-being. Much has been written
about the diversity of terrestrial organisms, particularly the exceptionally rich life associated
tropical rain-forest habitats. Relatively little has been said, however, about diversity of life in
the sea even though coral reef systems are comparable to rain forests in terms of richness of
life.
An alien exploring Earth would probably give priority to the planet's dominants - most
distinctive feature - the ocean. Humans have a bias toward land that sometimes get in the way
of truly examining global issues. Seen from far away, it is easy to realize landmasses occupy
only one-third of the Earth’s surface. Given that two thirds of the Earth's surface is water and
that marine life lives at all levels of the ocean, the total three-dimensional living space of the

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ocean is perhaps 100 times greater than that of land and contains more than 90 percent of all
life on Earth even though the ocean has fewer distinct species.
The fact that half of the known species are thought to inhabit the world's rain forests
doesn't seem surprising, considering the huge numbers of insects that comprise the bulk of the
species. One scientist found many different species of ants in just one tree from a rain forest.
While every species is different from every other species, their genetic makeup constrains them
to be insects and to share similar characteristics with 750,000 species of insects. If basic, broad
categories such as phyla and classes are given more emphasis than differentiating between
species, then the greatest diversity of life is unquestionably by sea. Nearly every major type of
plant and animal has some presentation there.
To appreciate fully the diversity and abundance of life in the sea, it helps to think
small. Every spoonful of ocean water life, on the order of 100 to 100,000 bacteria cells plus
assorted microscopic plants and animals, including larvae of organisms ranging from sponges
and corals to starfish and clams and much more.
Question 36. What is the main point of the passage?
A. Humans are destroying thousands of species
B. There are thousands of insect species
C. The sea is even richer in life than the rain forests
D. Coral reefs are similar to rain forests
Question 37. The word "appreciation" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to______
A. ignorance B. recognition C. tolerance D.
forgiveness
Question 38. Why does the author compare rain forests and coral reefs in paragraph 1?
A. They are approximately the same size
B. They share many similar species
C. Most of their habitats require water
D. Both have many different forms of life

Question 39. The "bias" in 2 is closet in meaning to________


A. concern B. disadvantage C. attitude D. prejudice

Question 40. Which of the following is true about the ocean to the passage?
A. It's 100 times greater than land
B. It contains more species than land
C. It contains a vast majority of life on Earth
D. It occupies one-third of the Earth' surface

Question 41. The passage suggests that most rain forests species are_______
A. insects B. bacteria C. mammals D. birds

Question 42. The word "there" in paragraph 3 refers to _______


A. the sea B. the rain forests C. a tree D. the Earth’s surface

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Read the following passage and mark the letter A,B,C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50.
It is estimated that over 99 percent of all species that ever existed have become extinct. What
causes extinction? When a species is no longer adapted to a changed environment, it may
perish. The exact causes of a species’ death vary from situation to situation. Rapid ecological
change may render an environment hostile to a species. For example, temperatures may change
and a species may not be able to adapt. Food Resources may be affected by environmental
changes, which will then cause problems. For a species requiring these resources. Other species
may become better adapted to an Environment, resulting in competition and, ultimately, in the
death of a species.
The fossil record reveals that extinction has occurred throughout the history of Earth.
Recent analyses have also revealed that on some occasions many species became extinct at the
same time – a mass extinction. One of the best-known examples of mass extinction occurred
65 million years ago with the demise of dinosaurs and many other forms of life.
Perhaps the largest mass extinction was the one that occurred 225 million years ago,
when approximately 95 percent of all species died, Mass extinctions can be caused by a
relatively rapid change in the environment and can be worsened by the close interrelationship
of many species. If, for example, something were to happen to destroy much of the plankton in
the oceans, then the oxygen content of Earth would drop, affection even organisms not living
in the oceans. Such a change would probably lead to a mass extinction.
One interesting, and controversial, finding is that extinctions during the past 250
Million years have tended to be more intense every 26 million years. This periodic extinction
might be due to intersection of the Earth’s orbit with a cloud of comets, but this theory is purely
speculative. Some researchers have also speculated that extinction may often be random. That
is, certain species may be eliminated and others may survive for no particular reason. A species’
survival may have nothing to do with its ability or inability to adapt. If so, some of evolutionary
history may reflect a sequence of essentially random events.

Question 43. The word “it” in line 2 refers to


A. environment B. species C. extinction D. 99 percent
Question 44. The word “ultimately” in line 7 is closest in meaning to
A. exceptionally B. dramatically C. eventually D. unfortunately
Question 45. What does the author say in paragraph 1 regarding most species in Earth’s history
A. They have remained basically unchanged from their original forms.
B. They have been able to adapt to ecological changes.
C. They have caused rapid change in the environment.
D. They are no longer in existence.

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Question 46. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in paragraph 1 as resulting from rapid
ecological change?
A. Temperature changes B. Availability of food resources
C. Introduction of new species D. Competition among species
Question 47. Why is “plankton” mentioned in line 15?
A. To demonstrate the interdependence of different species
B. To emphasize the importance of food resources in preventing mass extinction.
C. To illustrate a comparison between organisms that live on the land and those that live in the
ocean
D. To point out that certain species could never become extinct.
Question 48. The word “finding” in line 18 is closest in meaning to
A. published information B. research method
C. ongoing experiment D. scientific discovery
Question 49. The word “demise” in line 11 is closest in meaning to
A. change B. recovery C. help D. death
Question 50. According to the passage, it is believed that the largest extinction of a species
occurred
A. 26 million years ago B. 65 million years ago
C. 225 million years ago D. 250 million years ago

The end

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ĐỀ SỐ 12

Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined
part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.(2)
Question 1. A.organism B.independent C.presentation D.indication
Question 2. A.mystery B.flourishing C.eternal D.calendar

Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the
other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.(2)
Question 3.A.committee B.referee C.elegant D.refugee
Question 4.A.energy B.specific C.dishwasher D.misbehave

Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.(3)
Question 5: The novelist Shirley Hazzard is noted for the insight, poetic style,
A B
and sensitive she demonstrates in her works.
C D
Question 6: My father asked me where had I gone the night before.
A B C D
Question 7: The harder he tried, the worst he danced before the large audience.
A B C D

Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of
the following questions (12)
Question 8: It is recommended that he ___________ this course.
A. took B. take C. takes D. taking
Question 9: My friend is very ______ in listening to rock music.
A. interested B. amused C. surprised D. amazed
Question 10: If you had taken my advice, you _______ in such difficulties now.
A. wouldn't have been B. hadn't been C. wouldn't be D. won't be
Question 11: One's fingerprints are _______ other person.
A. different from B. different from any
C. differ from any D. different from those of any
Question 12: I have a good job with good salary. You _________ send me any money, my
lovely father.
A. mustn’t B. mightn’t C. mayn’t D. needn’t

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Question 13: ___ appears considerably larger at the horizon than it does overhead is merely an
optical illusion.
A. The Moon B. The Moon which C. When the Moon D. That the Moon
Question 14: I should very much like to have gone to that party of theirs, but _______
A. I'm not invited B. I will not be invited
C. I have not been invited D. I was not invited
Question 15: The last person __________ will have to turn off the lights.
A. have left B. left C. leaving D. to leave
Question 16: She listened so attentively that not a word_______.
A. she had missed B. she missed C. she didn't miss D. did she
miss
Question 17: When I came to visit her last night, she ________ a bath
A. is having B. was having C. has D. had
Question 18: My family consist ________ five people: my parents, my two younger brothers
and I.
A. on B. of C. over D. up
Question 19: Staying in a hotel costs _______ renting a room in a dormitory for a week.
A. as much as twice B. twice as much as C. twice more than D. twice as

Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to
complete each of the following exchanges.(2)

Question 20: Joanne is criticising Alex for taking a late flight. Choose the most suitable
response to fill in the blank in the following exchange.
Joanne: “You should have flown with the earlier flight!” Alex: “___________________”
A. Oh, I’m sorry to hear that.
B. Yes but It was fully booked.
C. Yes, I should
D. Why not?

Question 21: Paul is asking Joe for permission to play the guitar in the room. Choose the
most suitable response to fill in the blank in the following exchange.
Paul: “Is it all right if I play the guitar in here while you’re studying?” Joe:
“_____________________”
A. Well, if only you didn’t. B. Oh, I wish you wouldn’t.
C. Well, actually, I’d prefer it if you didn’t D. Well, I’d rather not.

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Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSET in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.(2)
22: Parents interpret facial and vocal expressions as indicators of how a baby is feeling.
A. translate B. understand C. read D. comprehend
23: He didn’t bat an eye when he realized he failed the exam again.
A. didn’t show surprise B. didn’t want to see
C. didn’t care D. wasn’t happy

Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.(2)
Câu 24: Unless the two signatures are identical, the bank won’t honor the check.
A. similar B. different C. fake D. genuine
Câu 25: Strongly advocating health foods, Jane doesn’t eat any chocolate.
A. supporting B. impugning C. advising
D. denying

Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closet in
meaning to each of the following questions.(3)
Question 26:1 was astonished that he knew a lot about Vietnamese food.
A. It surprised me that Vietnamese food was what he liked most.
B. I was astonished at his poor knowledge of Vietnamese food.
C. That he knew a lot about Vietnamese food amazed me.
D. I knew very little about Vietnamese food, which astonished him.

Question 27: “If I were you, I would not choose to write about such a sensitive topic,” the
teacher said.
A. I was blamed for writing about such a sensitive topic by the teacher.
B. I was ordered by the teacher not to write about such a sensitive topic
C. The teacher advised me on writing about such a sensitive topic.
D. The teacher advised me against writing about such a sensitive topic.

Question 28: Martin missed his flight because he had not been informed of the change in flight
schedule.
A. Martin missed his flight, though he had been informed of the change in the flight schedule.
B. Martin had been informed of his flight delay, which was due to the change in flight schedule.
C. Not having been informed of the change of the flight schedule, Martin missed his flight.
D. Not having missed his flight, Martin was informed of the change in flight schedule.

Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines
each pair of sentences in the following questions.(2)
Question 29. I had never seen her before. However, I recognized her from a photograph.
A. Although I had never seen her before, I recognized her from a photograph.
B. I recognized her from a photograph before I had never seen her.
C. Although I had never seen her before but I recognized her from a photograph.
D. After I had seen her, I recognized her from a photograph.

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Question 30. The human brain is ten times the size of a baboon’s. It weighs about 1,400
grams.
A. The size of human brain is ten times that of a baboon’s which is about 1,400 grams weigh.
B. The human brain which weighs about 1,400 grams is ten times the size of a baboon’s.
C. The size of a baboon’s brain is 1,400 grams, ten times that of the human one.
D. The weight of a baboon’s brain is 1,400 grams, ten-fold than that of the human one.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A,B,C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to
35.
Most people feel that when they dream, they are (31) ________ off to another world. On
the contrary, dreams are often connected to our daily lives. When our whole (32) _________ is
filled with something, when we are either very upset or when we are in good spirit, a dream
will represent this reality in symbols. It is often (33) _______ that we benefit from dreams
because they help the spirit to heal itself when things go wrong. Dreams are therefore a kind of
escape, almost a holiday from (34) __________ life, with its fears and responsibilities. It is,
however, a strange kind of holiday because whether we have a wonderful time or whether it
turns out to be a nightmare, we quickly forget it. Most dreams disappear forever, (35)
_________ you are one of those people disciplined enough to write them down as soon as you
wake up.

Question 31. A. taken B. guided C. brought D. carried


Question 32. A. spirit B. mind C. brain D. soul
Question 33. A. said B. spoken C. declared D. started
Question 34. A. real B. factual C. genuine D. actual
Question 35. A. except that B. therefore C. thus D. unless

Read the following passage and mark the letter A,B,C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
By far the most important United States export product in the eighteenth and nineteenth
centuries was cotton, favored by the European textile industry over flax or wool because it was
easy to process and soft to tile touch. Mechanization of spinning and weaving allowed
significant centralization and expansion in the textile industry during this period, and at the
same time the demand for cotton increased dramatically. American producers were able to meet
this demand largely because of tile invention of the cotton gin by Eli Whitney in 1793. Cotton
could be grown throughout the South, but separating the fiber – or lint – from the seed was
a laborious process. Sea-island cotton was relatively easy to process by hand, because its fibers
were long and seeds were concentrated at the base of the flower, but it demanded a long growing
season, available only along the nation's eastern seacoast. Short-staple cotton required a much
shorter growing season, but the shortness of the fibers and their mixture with seeds meant that
a worker could hand-process only about one pound per day. Whitney's gin was a hand-powered
machine with revolving drums and metal teeth to pull cotton fibers away from seeds. Using the

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gin, a worker could produce up to 50 pounds of lint a day. The later development of larger
gins, powered by horses, water, or steam, multiplied productivity further.
The interaction of improved processing and high demand led to the rapid spread of the
cultivation of cotton and to a surge in production. It became the main American export,
dwarfing all others. In 1802, cotton composed 14 percent of total American exports by value.
Cotton had a 36 percent share by 1810 and over a 50 percent share in 1830. In 1860, 61 percent
of the value of American exports was represented by cotton. In contrast, wheat and wheat
flour composed only 6 percent of the value of American exports in that year. Clearly, cotton
was king in the trade of the young republic. The growing market for cotton and other American
agricultural products led to an unprecedented expansion of agricultural settlement, mostly in
the eastern half of the United States---west of the Appalachian Mountains and east of the
Mississippi River.

Question 36. The main point of the passage is that the eighteenth and nineteenth centuries were
a time when
A. the European textile industry increased its demand for American export products
B. mechanization of spinning and weaving dramatically changed the textile industry
C. cotton became a profitable crop but was still time-consuming to process
D. cotton became the most important American export product

Question 37. All of the following are mentioned in the passage as reasons for the increased
demand for cotton EXCEPT
A. cotton's softness B. cotton's ease of processing
C. a shortage of flax and wool D. the growth that occurred in the textile
industry.
Question 38. The word "laborious" in line 6 is closest in meaning to
A. unfamiliar B. primitive C. skilled D. difficult
Question 39. According to the passage, one advantage of sea-island cotton was its
A. abundance of seeds B. long fibers
C. long growing season D. adaptability to different climates
Question 40. The word "surge" in line 14 is closest in meaning to
A. sharp increase B. sudden stop
C. important change D. excess amount
Question 41. The word "unprecedented" in line 18 is closest in meaning to
A. slow B. profitable C. not seen before D. never explained

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Question 42. According to the passage, the Mississippi River was


A. one of the boundaries of a region where new agricultural settlement took place
B. a major source of water for agricultural crops
C. the primary route by which agricultural crops were transported
D. a main source of power for most agricultural machinery

Read the following passage and mark the letter A,B,C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50.
Perhaps the most striking quality of satiric literature is its freshness and its originality of
perspective. Satire itself, however, rarely offers original ideas. Instead, it presents the familiar
in a new form. Satirists do not offer the world new philosophies. What they do is look at familiar
conditions from a perspective that makes these conditions seem foolish, harmful, or affected.
Satire jars us out of complacence into a pleasantly shocked realization that many of the values
we unquestioningly accept are false.
Don Quixote makes chivalry seem absurd; Brave New World ridicules the pretensions of
science; A Modest Proposal dramatizes starvation by advocating cannibalism. None of these
ideas is original. Chivalry was suspect before Cervantes, humanists objected to the claims of
pure science before Aldous Huxley, and people were aware of famine before Swift.
It was not the originality of the idea that made these satires popular. It was the manner of
expression, the satiric method, that made them interesting and entertaining. Satires are read
because they are aesthetically satisfying works of art, not because they are morally wholesome
or ethically instructive. They are stimulating and refreshing because with commonsense
briskness they brush away illusions and secondhand opinions. With spontaneous irreverence,
satire rearranges perspectives, scrambles familiar objects into incongruous juxtaposition, and
speaks in a personal idiom instead of abstract platitude.
Satire exists because there is need for it. It has lived because readers appreciate
a refreshing stimulus, an irreverent reminder that they live in a world of platitudinous thinking,
cheap moralizing, and foolish philosophy. Satire serves to prod people into an awareness of
truth, though rarely to any action on behalf of truth. Satire tends to remind people that much of
what they see, hear, and read in popular media is sanctimonious, sentimental, and only partially
true. Life resembles in only a slight degree the popular image of it.
Question 43: What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Difficulties of writing satiric literature. B. Popular topics of satire.
C. New philosophies emerging from satiric literature. D. Reasons for the popularity of satire.
Question 44: The last sentence of the first paragraph refers to _______as a result of reading
satire.
A. a long fact-finding quest B. a pleasant surprise
C. a process of disillusionment D. a process of total confusion

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Question 45: Don Quixote, Brave New World, and A Modest Proposal are cited by the author
as_________.
A. classic satiric works B. a typical approach to satire
C. best satirists of all time D. good critiques by satirists
Question 46: Which of the following can be found in satiric literature?
A. Newly emerging philosophies. B. Odd combinations of objects and ideas.
C. Abstract discussion of morals and ethics. D. Wholesome characters who are
unselfish.
Question 47: According to the passage, there is a need for satire because people need to
be_______.
A. informed about new scientific developments
B. exposed to original philosophies when they are formulated
C. reminded that popular ideas may often be inaccurate
D. told how they can be of service to their communities
Question 48: The word "refreshing" in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to_________.
A. popular B. revitalizing C. common D.
awakening
Question 49: The word "sanctimonious" may be new to you. It most probably means
"_______" in this context.
A. exaggerated B. good C. educational D.
moderate
Question 50: Readers of satiric literature will be most likely to________.
A. teach themselves to write fiction B. accept conventional points of view
C. become better informed about current affairs D. re-examine their opinions and
values

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ĐỀ SỐ 13

Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined
part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.(2)
Question 1.A. sacrifice B. marvelous C. category D. applicant
Question 2.A. snatched B. laughed C. introduced D. involved

Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the
other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.(2)
Question 3. A.evaporate B.temperature C.impossible D.experiment
Question 4. A.brilliant B.insect C.lunar D.proceed

Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.(3)
Question 5: The pupils haven’t done their homework, what is too bad.
A B C D
Question 6: George hasn’t completed the assignment yet, and Maria hasn’t too.
A B C D
Question 7: There are many frequently mentioned reasons why one out of four arrests
A B C
involve a juvenile. (young person)
D
Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of
the following questions (12)
Question 8: There’s nothing we can do to help the boys, _________?
A. is there B. isn’t there C. can we D. wasn’t there
Question 9: The more I tried my best to help her, ________ she became.
A. less lazy B. the more lazy C. the lazier D. lazier
Question 10: Each of us must take ______ for our own actions.
A. probability B. ability C. possibility D.
responsibility
Question 11: I have lost one of my gloves. I _________it somewhere.
A. should have dropped B. may have dropped
C. had dropped D. must have dropped
Question 12: When Carol _______ last night, I ______ my favorite show on television.
A. was calling / watched B. called / have watched

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C. called / was watching D. had called / watched


Question 13: The foundation of all other branches of mathematics is arithmetic ,_____science
of calculating with numbers.
A. is the B. the C. which the D. because the
Question 14: At first sight I met her. I was impressed with her _______.
A. big beautiful round black eyes B. beautiful black big round eyes
C. beautiful big round black eyes D. beautiful round big black eyes
Question 15: The exercise was ___________ for the pupils to do.
A. very difficult B. so difficult that C. too difficult D. such a difficult
Question 16: Would you mind __________ me a hand ?
A. give B. gave C. to give D. giving
Question 17: Our visit to Japan was delayed _______ my wife's illness.
A. because B. because of C. thanks to D. though
Question 18: Never before _______ such a wonderful child.
A. I have seen B. I had seen C. have I seen D. I saw
Question 19: Before Alexander Fleming discovered penicillin, many people died ___
A. infected with simple bacteria B. from simple bacterial infections
C. infections were simple bacteria D. infecting of simple bacteria

Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to
complete each of the following exchanges.(2)

Question 20: “ Thank you for taking the time to come here in person.” “ _______________”

A. It’s my pleasure. B. I don’t know what time that person comes.


C. I’d love to come. What time? D. Do you have time for some gossip?

Question 21: “ I have a terrible headache.” “ ___________”

A. Maybe I’m not going to the doctor’s. B. Not very well. Thanks.
C. Maybe you should take a rest. D. Not bad. I’m not going to the doctor’s.

Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSET in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.(2)
Question 22: : The notice should be put in the most conspicuous place so that all the students
can be well- informed.
A. popular B. suspicious C. easily seen D. beautiful

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Question 23: I think we have solved this problem once and for all.
A. forever B. for goods C. temporarily D. in the end

Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.(2)
Question 24: He decided not to buy the fake watch and wait until he had more money.
A. authentic B. forger C. faulty D. original

Question 25: Her father likes the head cabbage rare.


A. over-boiled B. precious C. scarce D. scare

Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closet in
meaning to each of the following questions.(3)

Question 26: “We lost the game because of the referee,” said the team captain.
A. The team captain refused to tell the referee about their loss in the last game.
B. The team captain admitted to the referee that they had lost the last game.
C. The team captain blamed the referee for their loss in the last game.
D. The team captain said that without the referee, they might have lost the last game.

Question 27: The man wore gloves in order not to leave any fingerprints.
A. His fingerprints would not be left unless the man wore gloves.
B. The man wore gloves so that he would not leave any fingerprints.
C. The man wore gloves in order that his fingerprints would be taken.
D. In order to leave some fingerprints the man took off his gloves.

Question 28:1 have never used a more fascinating MP3 player than this one.
A. I am very fascinated by the MP3 player I am using.
B. This MP3 player does not fascinate me much.
C. Like the other MP3 players, this one is fascinating to me.
D. This is the most fascinating MP3 player I have ever used.

Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines
each pair of sentences in the following questions.(2)
Question 29. No member in the team came to his birthday party. But Julia did come.
A. Julia was the only member in the team to come to his birthday party.
B. Not only did Julia come to his birthday party but also other members did.
C. Julia was one of the members who came to his birthday party.
D. Every member in the team came to his birthday party.

Question 30. What happened in class yesterday is being investigated. But we haven’t figured
out.
A. We don’t know what could be worked out in class yesterday.
B. What to figure out in class yesterday haven’t been done.

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C. What happened in class yesterday hasn’t been figured out yet.


D. We haven’t found out the happening class yesterday

Read the following passage and mark the letter A,B,C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to
35.
There can be no (31)...........at all that the internet has made a huge difference to our lives.
Parents are worried that children spend too much time playing on the internet, hardly ever doing
anything else in their spare time. Naturally, parents are curious to find out why the internet is
so attractive, and they want to know if it can be harmful to their children. Should parents worry
if their children are spending that much time staring at their computer?
Obviously, if children are bent over their computers for hours, (32)............in some game,
instead of doing their homework, then something is wrong. Parents and children could decide
how much use the child should (33). ..........of the internet, and the child should give his or her
word that it won't interfere with homework. If the child is not holding to this arrangement, the
parents can take more drastic (34)............. Dealing with a child's use of the Internet is not much
different from negotiating any other sort of bargain about behavior.
Any parent who is seriously alarmed about a child's behavior should make an appointment to
(35)................the matter with a teacher. Spending time in front of the screen does not
necessarily affect a child's at school. Even if a child is absolutely crazy about using the internet,
he or she is probably going through a phase, and in a few months there will be something else
to worry
Question 3l. A. doubt B. reason C. purpose D. motive
Question 32. A. supposed B. occupied C. obsessed D. absorbed
Question 33. A. do B. have C. make D. create
Question 34. A. rules B. regulations C. methods D. steps
Question 35. A. speak B. discuss C. talk D. debate

Read the following passage and mark the letter A,B,C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
The Winterthur Museumis a collection and a house. There are many museums devoted to the
decorative arts and many house museums, but rarely in the United States is a great collection
displayed in a great country house. Passing through successive generations of a single family,
Winterthur has been a private estate for more than a century. Even after the extensive
renovations made to it between 1929 and 1931, the house remained a family residence. This
fact is of importance to the atmosphere and effect of the museum. The impression of a lived-in
house is apparent to the visitor: the rooms look as if they were vacated only a short while ago
whether by the original owners of the furniture or the most recent residents of the house can be
a matter of personal interpretation. Winterthur remains, then, a house in which a collection of
furniture and architectural elements has been assembled. Like an English country house, it is
an organic structure; the house, as well as the collection and manner of displaying it to the
visitor, has changed over the years. The changes have coincided with developing concepts of
the American arts, increased knowledge on the part of collectors and students, and a progression

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toward the achievement of a historical effect in period-room displays. The rooms at Winterthur
have followed this current, yet still retained the character of a private house.
The concept of a period room as a display technique has developed gradually over the years in
an effort to present works of art in a context that would show them to greater effect and would
give them more meaning for the viewer. Comparable to the habitat group in a natural history
museum, the period room represents the decorative arts in a lively and interesting manner and
provides an opportunity to assemble objects related by style, date, or place of manufacture.
Question 36: What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Historical furniture contained in Winterthur
B. How Winterthur compares to English country houses
C. Elements that make Winterthur an unusual museum
D. The reason that Winterthur was redesigned

Question 37: The phrase "devoted to" in line 1 is closest in meaning to


A. specializing in B. sentimental about C. surrounded by D. successful in

Question 38: What happened at Winterthur between 1929 and 1931?


A. The old furniture was replaced B. The estate became a museum
C. The owners moved out D. The house was repaired

Question 39: The word "assembled" in line 9 is closest in meaning to


A. summoned B. appreciated
C. fundamentally changed D. brought together
Question 40: The word "it" in line 10 refers to
A. collection B. English country house
C. visitor D. Winterthur
Question 41: The word "developing" in line 11 is closest in meaning to
A. evolving B. exhibiting C. informative D.traditional
Question 42: According to the passage, objects in a period room are related by all of the
following EXCEPT
A. place of manufacture B. date
C. past ownership D. style

Read the following passage and mark the letter A,B,C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50.

Since water is the basis of life, composing the greater part of the tissues of all living things, the
crucial problem of desert animals is to survive in a world where sources of flowing water are
rare. And since man’s inexorable necessity is to absorb large quantities of water at frequent
intervals, he can scarcely comprehend that many creatures of the desert pass their entire lives
without a single drop.
Uncompromising as it is, the desert has not eliminated life but only those forms unable to
withstand its desiccating effects. No moist- skinned, water-loving animals can exist there. Few

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large animals are found. The giants of the North American desert are the deer, the coyote, and
the bobcat. Since desert country is open, it holds more swift-footed running and leaping
creatures than the tangled forest. Its population is largely nocturnal, silent, filled with reticence,
and ruled by stealth. Yet they are not emaciated.
Having adapted to their austere environment, they are as healthy as animals anywhere else in
the word. The secret of their adjustment lies in the combination of behavior and physiology.
None could survive if, like mad dogs and Englishmen, they went out in the midday sun; many
would die in a matter of minutes. So most of them pass the burning hours asleep in cool, humid
burrows underneath the ground, emerging to hunt only by night. The surface of the sun-
baked desert averages around 150 degrees, but 18 inches down the temperature is only 60
degrees.
Question 43: The title for this passage could be .
A. “Animal Life in a Desert Environment”
B. “Desert Plants”
C. “Man’s Life in a Desert Environment”
D. “Life Underground”
Question 44: The word “tissues” in the passage mostly means .
A. “the smallest units of living matter that can exist on their own”
B. “the simplest forms of life that exist in air, water, living and dead creatures and plants”
C. “collections of cells that form the different parts of humans, animals and plants”
D. “very small living things that cause infectious disease in people, animals and plants”
Question 45: Man can hardly understand why many animals live their whole life in the desert,
as .
A. water is an essential part of his existence
B. water composes the greater part of the tissues of living things
C. very few lager animals are found in the desert
D. sources of flowing water are rare in a desert
Question 46: The phrase “those forms” in the passage refers to all of the following EXCEPT
A. many large animals
B. water-loving animals
C. moist-skinned animals
D. the coyote and the bobcat
Question 47: The author mentions all the following as examples of the behavior of desert
animals EXCEPT .
A. they dig home underground

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B. they sleep during the day


C. they are watchful and quiet
D. they are noisy and aggressive
Question 48: The word “emaciated” in the passage mostly means .
A. “living or growing in natural conditions, not kept in a house or on a farm”
B. “large and strong, difficult to control or deal with”
C. “thin and weak because of lack of food and water”
D. “able to get what one wants in a clever way, especially by tricking or cheating”
Question 49: The word “burrows” in the passage mostly means .
A. “places where a particular type of animal or plant is normally found”
B. “holes or tunnels in the ground made by animals for them to live in”
C. “places where insects or other small creatures live and produce their young”
D. “structures made of metal bars in which animals or birds are kept”
Question 50: We can infer from the passage that .
A. desert life is colorful and diverse
B. living things adjust to their environment
C. healthy animals live longer lives
D. water is the basis of desert life

The end

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ĐỀ SỐ 14

Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined
part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.(2)
Question 1.A. character B. switch C. chemical D. Christmas
Question 2.A. addition B. advantage C. adventure D. advertise

Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the
other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.(2)
Question 3.A A.astonish B.forgetful C.industrious D.militant
Question 4.A.influential B.advertiser C.contaminate D.numerator

Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.(3)
Question 5: He is not able to define the process in which the body
A B C
is protect by the immunologic system.
D
Question 6: Do you ever feel that life is not being fair to you because you cannot seem to get
A B C
the job where you want or that really suits you?
D
Question 7: The wooden fence surrounded the factory is beginning to fall down because of the
rain.
A B C D

Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of
the following questions (12)
Question 8: The trouble with Frank is that he never turns up _______on time for the meeting.
A. arrives B. tests C. delays D. takes after
Question 9: This shirt is ______ that one.
A. much far expensive than B. a bit less expensive
C. as much expensive as D. not nearly as expensive as
Question 10: My friend bought ___________ from a shop on Tran Phu street.
A. a nice brown leather belt B. a brown nice leather belt
C. a leather brown nice belt D. a nice leather brown belt

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Question 11: It is reported that humans are the main reason for most species decline and habitat
________.
A. destroy B. destructive C. destructor D. destruction
Question 12: She built a high wall round her garden_________________ .
A. in order that her fruit not be stolen B. to enable people not taking her fruit
C. so that her fruit would be stolen D. to prevent her fruit from being stolen
Question 13:__________he arrived at the bus stop when the bus came.
A. Hardly had B. No sooner had C. No longer has D. Not until had
Question 14: I try to be friendly but it is hard to _______ some of my colleagues.
A. get on with B. watch out for C. come up with D. stand in for
Question 15: I am bored with doing the _____ chores.
A. household B. house C. housework D. homework
Question 16: She always had wanted to go to places _______she could speak her native tongue.
A. that B. in that C. which D. where
Question 17: It gets ______to understand what the professor has explained.
A. the more difficult B. more difficult than
C. difficult more and more D. more and more difficult
Question 18: Petrol is ___________________it used to.
A. twice as expensive as B. twice expensive more than
C. twice more than expensive D. more expensive than twice
Question 19: The more you practice your English, ________ .
A. you will learn faster B. the faster you will learn
. faster you will learn D. the faster will you learn

Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to
complete each of the following exchanges.(2)
Question 20: Shop assistant: “ __________”
Customer: “ Yes, I want to send some flowers to my wife in Italy.”
A. Do you like flowers B. What do you like
C. Can you help me D. How can I help you
Question 21: David: “You ‘ve got a beautiful dress!’’- Helen: “___________.”
A. I do B. Thank for your complement. C. You too D. Ok

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Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSET in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.(2)
Question 22: The crew divided the life preservers among the twenty terrified passengers as
the ship began to sink.
A. exhausted B. surprised C. frightened D. excited

Question 23: You must answer the police’s questions truthfully , otherwise, you will get into
trouble.
A. exactly as things really happen B. with a negative attitude
C. in a harmful way D. as trustingly as you can

Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.(2)
Question 24: He decided not to buy the fake watch and wait until he had more money.
A. authentic B. forger C. faulty D. original
Question 25: Her father likes the head cabbage rare.
A. over-boiled B. precious C. scarce D. scare

Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closet in
meaning to each of the following questions.(3)

Question 26:1 think it is more enjoyable to play a sport than to watch it on TV.
A. I think watching a sport on TV is more enjoyable than playing it.
B. In my opinion, to play a sport is more enjoyable than to watch it on TV.
C. In my view, playing a sport is as enjoyable as watching it on TV.
D. As far as I know, more people watch a sport on TV than they play it.

Question 27: “May I see your passport, Mrs Scott?” said the customs officer.
A. The customs officer promised to show Mrs Scott his passport.
B. The customs officer asked to see Mrs Scott’s passport.
C. The customs officer suggested seeing Mrs Scott’s passport.
D. The customs officer asked Mrs Scott to see his passport.

Question 28: “Trust me! Do not invest all your money in one company,” said my friend.
A. My friend encouraged me to invest all my money in one company.
B. My friend offered to help me to invest all my money in one company.
C. My friend persuaded me not to invest all my money in one company.
D. My friend ordered me to invest all my money in one company

Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines
each pair of sentences in the following questions.(2)
Question 29. The painting displayed in the museum has been stolen. They are rumouring
about that.
A. There is a rumour that the painting displayed in the museum has been stolen.
B. The displayed painting is rumoured to be stolen.

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C. Displaying in the museum, the painting was rumour to be stolen.


D. As being displayed and rumoured, the painting has been stolen.

Question 30: Women still cover their heads in some countries. They did so in the past.
A. Women still cover their heads in some countries as they did in the past.
B. Women still cover their heads in some countries as they did so in the past.
C. Women cover their heads in some countries similar to what they did so in the past.
D. In the past, women covered their heads but they do so today in some countries.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A,B,C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to
35.
Early writing and Alphabets
When people first began to write, they did not use an alphabet. Instead, they drew small
pictures to (31) ______ the objects they were writing about. This was very slow because there
was a different picture for every word.
The Ancient Egyptians had a (32) ______ of picture writing that was known
hieroglyphics. The meaning of this writing was forgotten for a very long time but in 1799 some
scientists (33) ______ a stone near Alexandria, in Egypt. The stone had been there for over a
thousand years. It had both Greek and hieroglyphics on it and researchers were finally able to
understand what the hieroglyphics meant.
An alphabet is quite different (34) ______ picture writing. It consists of letters or
symbols that represent a sound and each sound is just part of one word. The Phoenicians, (35)
______ lived about 3,000 years ago, developed the modern alphabets. It was later improved by
the Roman’s and this alphabet is now used broadly throughout the world.
Question 31: A. notice B. show C. appear D. mark
Question 32: A. practice B. manner C. plan D. system
Question 33: A. discovered B. realized C. delivered D. invented
Question 34: A. at B. from C. before D. between
Question 35: A. which B. whose C. what D. who

Read the following passage and mark the letter A,B,C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
The Nobel Peace Prize is awarded annually and the first woman to win this prize was
Baroness Bertha Felicie Sophie von Suttner in 1905. In fact, her work inspired the creation of
the Prize. The first American woman to win this prize was Jane Addams, in 1931. However,
Addams is best known as the founder of Hull House.
Jane Addams was born in 1860, into a wealthy family. She was one of a small number of
women in her generation to graduate from college. Her commitment to improving the lives of
those around her led her to work for social reform and world peace. In the1880s Jane Addams
traveled to Europe. While she was in London, she visited a ‘settlement house’ called Toynbee

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Hall. Inspired by Toynbee Hall, Addams and her friend, Ellen Gates Starr, opened Hull House
in a neighborhood of slums in Chicago in 1899. Hull House provided a day care center for
children of working mothers, a community kitchen, and visiting nurses. Addams and her staff
gave classes in English literacy, art, and other subjects. Hull House also became a meeting place
for clubs and labor unions. Most of the people who worked with Addams in Hull House were
well educated, middle-class women. Hull House gave them an opportunity to
use their education and it provided a training ground for careers in social work.
Before World War I, Addams was probably the most beloved woman in America. In a
newspaper poll that asked, “Who among our contemporaries are of the most value to the
community?”, Jane Addams was rated second, after Thomas Edison. When she opposed
America’s involvement in World War I, however, newspaper editors called her a traitor and a
fool, but she never changed her mind. Jane Addams was a strong champion of several other
causes. Until 1920, American women could not vote. Addams joined in the movement for
women’s suffrage and was a vice president of the National American Woman Suffrage
Association. She was a founding member of the National Association for the Advancement of
Colored People (NAACP), and was president of the Women’s International League for Peace
and Freedom. . Her reputation was gradually restored during the last years of her life. She died
of cancer in 1935.
Question 36: With which of the following subjects is the passage mainly concerned?
A. The first award of the Nobel Peace Prize to an American woman
B. A woman’s work for social reform and world peace
C. The early development of Social Work in America
D. Contributions of educated women to American society
Question 37: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. the work of Baroness Bertha Felicie Sophie von Suttner was an inspiration to Jane Addams
B. Jane Addams is most famous for her opening of Hull House
C. those who lived near Hull House had very poor literacy skills
D. Jane Addams considered herself as a citizen of the world rather than of one particular country
Question 38: The word “commitment” in line 6 is closest in meaning to
A. involvement B. obligation C. dedication D. enthusiasm
Question 39: The word “their” in line 16 refers to
A. children of working mothers B. middle-class women
C. visiting nurses D. labor union members
Question 40: The word “it” in line 16 refers to
A. opportunity B. Hull House C. meeting place D. Toynbee
Hall
Question 41: The word “contemporaries” in line 19 is closest in meaning to

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A. people of the same time B. famous people still alive


C. elected officials D. people old enough to vote
Question 42: According to the passage, Jane Addams’ reputation was damaged when she
A. allowed Hull House to become a meeting place for clubs and labor unions
B. joined in the movement for women’s suffrage
C. became a founding member of the NAACP
D. opposed America’s involvement in World War I

Read the following passage and mark the letter A,B,C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50.
Traditionally in America, helping the poor was a matter for private charities or local
governments. Arriving immigrants depended mainly on predecessors from their homeland to
help them start a new life. In the late 19th and early 20th centuries, several European
nations instituted public-welfare programs. But such a movement was slow to take hold in the
United States because the rapid pace of industrialization and the ready availability of farmland
seemed to confirm the belief that anyone who was willing to work could find a job.
Most of the programs started during the Depression era were temporary relief measures, but
one of the programs Social Security - has become an American institution. Paid for by
deductions from the paychecks of working people, Social Security ensures that retired persons
receive a modest monthly income and also provides unemployment insurance, disability
insurance, and other assistance to those who need it. Social Security payments to retired persons
can start at age 62, but many wait until age 65, when the payments are slightly higher. Recently,
there has been concern that the Social Security fund may not have enough money to fulfill its
obligations in the 21st century, when the population of elderly Americans is expected to
increase dramatically. Policy makers have proposed various ways to make up the anticipated
deficit, but a long-term solution is still being debated.
In the years since Roosevelt, other American presidents have established assistance
programs. These include Medicaid and Medicare; food stamps, certificates that people can use
to purchase food; and public housing which is built at federal expense and made available to
persons on low incomes. Needy Americans can also turn to sources other than the government
for help. A broad spectrum of private charities and voluntary organizations is available.
Volunteerism is on the rise in the United States, especially among retired persons. It is estimated
that almost 50 percent of Americans over age 18 do volunteer work, and nearly 75 percent of
U.S. households contribute money to charity.

Question 43: New immigrants to the U.S. could seek help from ______.
A. the people who came earlier B. the US government agencies
C. only charity organizations D. volunteer organization

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Question 44: It took welfare programs a long time to gain a foothold in the U.S. due to the
fast growth of______.
A. industrialization B. modernization C. urbanization D. population

Question 45: The word “instituted” in the first paragraph mostly means ______.
A. “executed” B. “studied” C. “introduced” D. “enforced”

Question 46: The Social Security program has become possible thanks to ______.
A. deductions from wages B. people’s willingness to work
C. donations from companies D. enforcement laws

Question 47: Most of the public assistance programs ______ after the severe economic crisis.
A. were introduced into institutions B. did not become institutionalized
C. functioned fruitfully in institutions D. did not work in institutions

Question 48: That Social Security payments will be a burden comes from the concern that
______.
A. elderly people ask for more money B. the program discourages working people
C. the number of elderly people is growing D. younger people do not want to work.

Question 49: Persons on low incomes can access public housing through ______.
A. low rents B. state spending C. donations D. federal expenditure

Question 50: The passage mainly discusses ______.


A. public assistance in America B. immigration into America
C. funding agencies in America D. ways of fund-raising in America
The end

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ĐỀ SỐ 15

Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined
part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.(2)
Question 1.A. doubt B. drought C. double D. cloud
Question 2.A. subtle B. timber C. plumber D. doubtful

Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the
other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.(2)
Question 3. A.capitalist B.diagnostic C.satellite D.flowery
Question 4. .A.recapture B.immature C.domestic D.recover

Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.(3)
Question 5: I think she will be suitable for the work because she has been working like a
teacher for a long time.
A B C D
Question 6: The students will have good preparations before they had their
A B C
final examination next week.
D
Question 7: Women's movements ensure the full education, develop and
A B C
advancement of women.
D

Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of
the following questions (12)
Question 8: It is considered women are suited for_______ childbearing and homemaking
rather than social activities.
A. an B. a C. the D. Ø (no article)
Question 9: Thanks to the women's liberation, women can take part in ________ activities.
A. socially B. socialize C. society D. social
Question 10: They asked me _________ in Paris then.
A. if my mother was working B. was my mother working
C. if my mother had worked D. if was my mother working

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Question 11: Many parts of the country are suffering water ______ after the unusually dry
summer.
A. shortage B. absence C. supply D. thirst
Question 12: ________want to get a job have to have certain qualifications and experience.
A. Those whom B. Those which C. Those who
D. Who
Question 13: When Carol _______ last night, I _______ my favorite show on television.
A. was calling / watched B. had called / watched
C. called / was watching D. called / have watched
Question 14: Most doctors and nurses have to work on a ________ once or twice a week at
the hospital.
A. solution B. night shift C. household chores D. special dishes
Question 15: If you were not sick, ________ camping with us?
A. do you go B. are you going C. will you go D. would you go
Question 16: The boy waved his hands to his mother, who was standing at the school gate, to
________ her attention.
A. follow B. tempt C. attract D. pull
Question 17: __________ education is normally taken to include undergraduate arid
postgraduate education, as well as vocational education and training
A. Intermediate B. Primary C. Tertiary D. Secondary
Question 18: The room is too dirty. It _________now.
A. should be being cleaned B. should clean
C. should have cleaned D. should be cleaned
Question 19: _________ of all the staff, I would like to wish you a happy retirement.
A. Instead B. In place C. On behalf D. On account

Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to
complete each of the following exchanges.(2)
Question 20: Mimi is going to take a trip with her friends about six days. Choose the most
suitable response to fill in the blank with the following exchange.
David: "_________________"
Mimi: "Thank you. Goodbye."
A. Have a good trip!
B. How do you do?
C. May I introduce myself? My name's David Wilson.
D. Nice to meet you, Mimi.

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Question 21: Last week, John did an essay very well, which was complimented. Choose the
most suitable response to fill in the blank with the following exchange.
Teacher: "John, you've written a much better essay this time."
John: "________________"
A. Thank you. It's really encouraging. B. You're welcome.
C. Writing? Why? D. What did you say? I'm so shy.

Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSET in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.(2)
Question 22: What we know about certain diseases is still not sufficient to prevent them from
spreading easily among the population.
A. enough B. imperative C. important D. efficient
Question 23: 47% of Chinese millionaires plan to emigrate. They want better education for
their children and purer and safer environment for the whole families. Their ideal destinations
are North America and Northern Europe.
A. stay in B. become richer C. fly away D. come back

Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.(2)
Question 24: "Don't be such a pessimist. I'm sure you'll soon get over it. Cheer up!"
A. activist B. hobbyist C. optimist D. feminist
Question 25: "Be quick! We must speed up if we don’t want to miss the flight. "
A. turn down B. look up C. slow down D. put forward

Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closet in
meaning to each of the following questions.(3)
Question 26: Take this route and you will get to the village.
A. There is no doubt that this route will never lead you to the village.
B. Although this route may lead you to the village, you cannot take it.
C. Certainly, you will get to the village if you take this route.
D. Unless you take this route, you will get to the village.
Question 27: “Don’t forget to tidy up the final draft before submission,” the team leader told
us.
A. The team leader asked us to tidy up the final draft before submission.
B. The team leader reminded us to tidy up the final draft before submission.
C. The team leader ordered us to tidy up the final draft before submission.
D. The team leader simply wanted us to tidy up the final draft before submission.

Question 28: “My company makes a large profit every year. Why don’t you invest more money
in it?” my friend said to me.

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A. My friend suggested his investing more money in his company.


B. My friend persuaded me to invest more money in his company.
C. I was asked to invest more money in my friend’s company.
D. My friend instructed me how to put more money into his company

Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines
each pair of sentences in the following questions.(2)
Question 29: Marry loved her stuffed animal when she was young. She couldn’t sleep without
it.
A. When Marry was young, she loved her stuffed animal so as not to sleep with it.
B. As Marry couldn’t sleep without her stuffed animal when she was young, she loved it.
C. When Marry was young, she loved her stuffed animal so much that she couldn’t sleep without
it.
D. When Marry was young, she loved her stuffed animal though she couldn’t sleep without it.

Question 30: She phoned him early in the morning. She didn’t want him to forget to bring along
the
document.
A. She phoned him early in the morning lest he would forget to bring along the document.
B. She phoned him early in the morning so that she wanted him to bring along the document.
C. She phoned him early in the morning when she didn’t want him to bring along the document.
D. She phoned him early in the morning though she didn’t want him to forget to bring along
the document.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A,B,C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35.
Any change in one part of an ecosystem can cause changes in other parts. Droughts,
storms and fires can change ecosystems. Some changes 31______ ecosystems. If there is too
little rainfall, plants will not have enough water to live. If a kind of plant dies off, the animals
that 32_____ it may also die or move away. Some changes are good for ecosystems. Some pine
forests need fires for the pine trees to reproduce. The seeds are sealed inside pinecones. Heat
from a forest fire melts the seal and lets the seeds 33______. Polluting the air, soil, and water
can harm ecosystems. Building dams on rivers for electric power and irrigation can harm
ecosystems 34______ the rivers. Bulldozing wetlands and cutting down forests destroy
ecosystems. Ecologists are working with companies and governments to find better ways of
35______ fish, cutting down trees, and building dams. They are looking for ways to get food,
lumber, and other products for people without causing harm to ecosystems.
Question 31. A harms B. harmful C. harmless D. harm
Question 32. A. fed B. feed C. feed on D. food
Question 33. A. out B. in C. go D. fly
Question 34. A. on B. around C. over D. under
Question 35. A. catching B. holding C. carrying D. taking

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Read the following passage and mark the letter A,B,C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
Millions of people are using cellphones today. In many places, it is actually considered
unusual not to use one. In many countries, cellphones are very popular with young people.
They find that the phones are more than a means of communication - having a mobile phone
shows that they are cool and connected.
The explosion in mobile phone use around the world has made some health professionals
worried. Some doctors are concerned that in the future many people may suffer health problems
from the use of mobile phones. In England, there has been a serious debate about this issue.
Mobile phone companies are worried about the negative publicity of such ideas. They say that
there is no proof that mobile phones are bad for your health.
On the other hand, medical studies have shown changes in the brain cells of some people who
use mobile phones. Signs of change in the tissues of the brain and head can be detected with
modern scanning equipment. In one case, a traveling salesman had to retire at young age
because of serious memory loss. He couldn't remember even simple tasks. He would often
forget the name of his own son. This man used to talk on his mobile phone for about six hours
a day, every day of his working week, for a couple of years. His family doctor blamed his
mobile phone use, but his employer's doctor didn't agree.
What is it that makes mobile phones potentially harmful? The answer is radiation. High-tech
machines can detect very small amounts of radiation from mobile phones. Mobile phone
companies agree that there is some radiation, but they say the amount is too small to worry
about.
As the discussion about their safety continues, it appears that it's best to use mobile phones
less often. Use your regular phone if you want to talk for a long time. Use your mobile phone
only when you really need it. Mobile phones can be very useful and convenient, especially in
emergencies. In the future, mobile phones may have a warning label that says they are bad for
your health. So for now, it's wise not to use your mobile phone too often.

Question 36: According to the passage, cellphones are especially popular with young people
because ______.
A. they are indispensable in everyday communications
B. they make them look more stylish
C. they keep the users alert all the time
D. they cannot be replaced by regular phones

Question 37: The changes possibly caused by the cellphones are mainly concerned with
______.
A. the mobility of the mind and the body B. the smallest units of the brain
C. the arteries of the brain D. the resident memory

Question 38: The word "potentially" in the passage most closely means ______.
A. “obviously” B. “possibly” C. “certainly” D. “privately”

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Question 39: "Negative publicity" in the passage most likely means ______.
A. information on the lethal effects of cellphones
B. widespread opinion about bad effects of cellphones
C. the negative public use of cellphones
D. poor ideas about the effects of cellphones

Question 40: The man mentioned in the passage, who used his cellphone too often, ______.
A. suffered serious loss of mental ability B. could no longer think lucidly
C. abandoned his family D. had a problem with memory

Question 41: According to the passage, what makes mobile phones potentially harmful is
______.
A. their radiant light C. their raiding power
B. their power of attraction D. their invisible rays

Question 42: The most suitable title for the passage could be ______.
A. “The Reasons Why Mobile Phones Are Popular”
B. “Technological Innovations and Their Price”
C. “The Way Mobile Phones Work”
D. “Mobile Phones: A Must of Our Time”

Read the following passage and mark the letter A,B,C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50.
A survey is a study, generally in the form of an interview or a questionnaire, which provides
information concerning how people think and act. In the United States, the best-known surveys
are the Gallup poll and the Harris poll. As anyone who watches the news during campaigns
presidential knows, these polls have become an important part of political life in the United
States.
North Americans are familiar with the many “person on the street” interviews on local
television news shows. While such interviews can be highly entertaining, they are not
necessarily an accurate indication of public opinion. First, they reflect the opinions of only
those people who appear at a certain location. Thus, such samples can be biased in favor of
commuters, middle-class shoppers, or factory workers, depending on which area the news
people select. Second, television interviews tend to attract outgoing people who are willing to
appear on the air, while they frighten away others who may feel intimidated by a camera. A
survey must be based on a precise, representative sampling if it is to genuinely reflect a broad
range of the population.
In preparing to conduct a survey, sociologists must exercise great care in the wording of
questions. An effective survey question must be simple and clear enough for people to
understand it. It must also be specific enough so that there are no problems in interpreting the
results. Even questions that are less structured must be carefully phrased in order to elicit the
type of information desired. Surveys can be indispensable sources of information, but only if
the sampling is done properly and the questions are worded accurately.

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There are two main forms of surveys: the interview and the questionnaire. Each of these
forms of survey research has its advantages. An interviewer can obtain a high response rate
because people find it more difficult to turn down a personal request for an interview than to
throw away a written questionnaire. In addition, an interviewer can go beyond written questions
and probe for a subject’s underlying feelings and reasons. However, questionnaires have the
advantage of being cheaper and more consistent.

Question43: What does the passage mainly discuss?


A. The principles of conducting surveys
B. The importance of polls in American political life
C. The history of surveys in North America
D. Problems associated with interpreting surveys
Question44: The word "they" in line 7 refers to______.
A. interviews B. news shows C. North Americans D. opinions
Question45: According to the passage, the main disadvantage of person-on-the-street
interviews is that they
A. reflect political opinions B. are used only on television
C. are not carefully worded D. are not based on a representative sampling
Question46: The word "precise" in line 10 is closest in meaning to______.
A. rational B. accurate C. required D. planned
Question47: According to paragraph 3, which of the following is most important for an
effective survey?
A. An interviewer's ability to measure respondents' feelings
B. Carefully worded questions
C. A sociologist who is able to interpret the results
D. A high number of respondents
Question48: The word "elicit" in line 15 is closest in meaning to______.
A. rule out B. bring out C. predict D. compose
Question49: It can be inferred from the passage that one reason that sociologists may
become frustrated with questionnaires is that______.
A. respondents are too eager to supplement questions with their own opinions
B. respondents often do not complete and return questionnaires
C. questionnaires are expensive and difficult to distribute
D. questionnaires are often difficult to read

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Question50: According to the passage, one advantage of live interviews over questionnaires
is that live interviews______.
A. minimize the influence of the researcher B. are easier to interpret
C. can produce more information D. cost less
The end

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