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Practice Problems
• 110 exam questions
• Complete with answers and explanations
Chapter 1

Mathematics

A.Geometry
B. Calculus
C. Equation Roots
D. Vectors

1. A circle is formed by applying this following equation:
x 2 − 16 x + y 2 + 8 y + 71 = 0
Find the coordinates of its center.
(A) (-8,4)
(B) (8,-4)
(C) (4,-8)
(D) (-4,8)





2. Determine the roots of x3 − 2 x 2 − 5 x + 6 = 0 .
(A) 1, 2, 3
(B) -1, 2, -3
(C) 1, -2, 3
(D) -1, -2, -3




2
3. Determine x, y, z satisfying these three simultaneous equations.

x + y − z = −1
x− y−z =3
x+ y+z =5
(A) ( −4, 2, −3)

(B) ( 4, 2, −3)

(C) ( 4,-2,3)

(D) ( −4, −2,3)




4. Determine the length of a straight line which connects point A (3, −1, −4) and point B ( −1, −5, 2 ) at both ends of the line.

(A) 17

(B) 2 17

(C) 3 17

(D) 4 17



3
5. Determine the angle θ between these two vectors.

V1 = 4i + j + 6k

V2 = i + 3 j + 4k

(A) 28.53°
(B) 33.37°
(C) 38.53°
(D) 43.37°




6. Referring to the vectors from question No. 5, find the cross product of those two vectors.
(A) −14i + 10 j + 11k
(B) -14i -10 j + 11k
(C) 14i + 10 j − 11k
(D) 14i − 10 j − 11k




4
6 x 2 − 3x + 20
7. Solve this equation lim
x →∞ 3x 2 + 5 x
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4




8. Find the inflection point for the polynomial function as follows
f ( x ) = x3 − 6 x2 + 12 x − 5

(A) ( −2, −3)

(B) ( 2, −3)

(C) ( −2,3)

(D) ( 2,3)

5
⎧2 ≤ x ≤ 4
9. Solve this integral ∫∫ xydxdy where R = ⎨
R ⎩4 ≤ y ≤ 6
(A) 8
(B) 10
(C) 12
(D) 16





10. A straight line intercepts Y axis at y = 4 and also passes point P ( 2, 2 ) . Determine the slope of the line.

(A) -2
(B) -1
(C) 1
(D) 2

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1. The correct answer is (B).
From the Mathematics section of the FE Reference Handbook the standard equation of a circle is:

2 2
( x − h) + ( y − k ) = r 2 and the coordinates of the center are at ( h,k )


x 2 − 16 x + y 2 + 8 y + 71 = 0

x2 − 16 x + 64 + y 2 + 8 y + 16 = 9

2 2
( x − 8) + ( y + 4 ) = 32

Therefore the coordinates of its center are (8, −4 ) .



2. The correct answer is (C).
x3 − 2 x 2 − 5 x + 6 = 0

(x 2
)
+ x − 2 ( x − 3) = 0

( x −1)( x + 2)( x − 3) = 0
The roots are 1, -2, 3

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3. The correct answer is (C).
Add the first and second equations to find y . The x and z terms cancel.

2 y = −4 → y = −2

Subtract the first and third equations to find z . The x and y terms cancel.

−2z = −6 → z = 3

Substitute y = −2 and z = 3 to one of the equations to find x .
x + y + z = 5

x + ( −2 ) + 3 = 5


x = 4

4. The correct answer is (B).

2 2 2
AB = ( −1 − 3) + ( −5 + 1) + ( 2 + 4 ) = 68 = 2 17

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5. The correct answer is (B).
⎛ V1 ⋅V2 ⎞
θ = cos −1 ⎜⎜ ⎟⎟
⎝ V1 V2 ⎠
⎛ ⎞
−1 ⎜
θ = cos ⎜
( 4 )(1) + (1)(3) + ( 6 )( 4 ) ⎟

( 2
⎜ 4 +1 + 6

2 2
)(
12 + 32 + 42 ) ⎟

⎛ 31 ⎞
θ = cos −1 ⎜ ⎟
⎝ 53 26 ⎠
θ = 33.37°




6. The correct answer is (B).
i j k
V1 × V2 = 4 1 6
1 3 4
V1 × V2 = ( (1)( 4 ) − ( 6 )( 3) ) i − ( ( 4 )( 4 ) − ( 6 )(1) ) j + ( ( 4 )(3) − (1)(1) ) k
V1 × V2 = −14i − 10 j + 11k




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7. The correct answer is (B).

Note that the denominator 3 x 2 + 5 x leads to an indeterminate form . To avoid this, divide the function as a whole by x 2 so that:


1 3 20 3 20
2 6− + 2 6− +
6 x − 3 x + 20 x 2
x x = lim ∞ ∞ = 6 = 2
lim = lim
x →∞ 2
3x + 5 x 1 x→∞ 5 x →∞ 5 3
2
3+ 3+
x x ∞



8. The correct answer is (D).
Inflection point occurs when second derivation of f ( x ) is 0.


f ( x ) = x3 − 6 x 2 + 12 x − 5
f ' ( x ) = 3x 2 − 12 x + 12

f " ( x ) = 6 x − 12 = 0 → x = 2
2
f ( 2 ) = 23 − 6 ( 2 ) + 12 ( 2 ) − 5 = 3

Therefore, the inflection point is ( 2,3)

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9. The correct answer is (D).
If the region R can be split into two separate regions R1 and R2 , then the integral can be written as:

∫∫ xy dx dy = ∫∫ xy dx dy + ∫∫ xy dx dy
R R1 R2
4 6
1 2 1 2
∫∫ xy dx dy = 2 x + y
2 4
R 2
∫∫ xy dx dy = 6 +10
R

∫∫ xy dx dy = 16
R




10. The correct answer is (B).
The general equation of straight line is y = mx + b where m is the slope of the line.
y = mx + b
2 = m (2) + 4

2 m = −2
m = −1

12
Chapter 2

Probability
and Statistics

A. Central Tendencies & Dispersions


B. Single Mean Estimations
C. Curve Fitting & Regression
D. Weighted Average Decisions
11. The bodyweight of students in the elementary school are summarized in the following table. Determine the mean of the
bodyweight.
Bodyweight Frequency
(kg)
27 3
30 5
32 8
33 14
36 10
40 6
45 7
(A) 33.82
(B) 35.17
(C) 35.64
(D) 36.13


12. Referring to the previous question, find the mode of the bodyweight.
(A) 32
(B) 33
(C) 36
(D) 40

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13. A result of marathon competition is recorded to determine the statistic result. This data represents the time spent to finish the
marathon: 54 minutes, 50 minutes, 56 minutes, 61 minutes, and 51 minutes. Find the variance of the recorded data.
(A) 17.3
(B) 18.3
(C) 15.4
(D) 20.3




14. Find the population standard deviation of {5, 5, 10, 3, 3, 8, 12}.
(A) 10.87
(B) 1.65
(C) 3.25
(D) 14.54







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15. A dice is rolled and it shows number 3. Find the probability the dice shows number 3 again if it is rolled once more.
1
(A)
2
1
(B)
6
1
(C)
12
1
(D)
3





16. An observation is made to check the quality of books produced at the publisher. It is found that 5% of the total books are
defected. Determine the probability the publisher picks up 3 defected books of total 10 books chosen randomly.
(A) 0.0105
(B) 0.0205
(C) 0.0305
(D) 0.0405



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11. The correct answer is (B).
The mean is determined by dividing the sum of the data by the total data.

x=
( 27 )(3) + (30)(5) + (32)(8) + (33)(14 ) + (36 )(10 ) + ( 40 )(6 ) + ( 45)(7 ) = 35.17
3 + 5 + 8 + 14 + 10 + 6 + 7



12. The correct answer is (B).
The mode is the most frequent data among all recorded data. We can determine the mode directly by choosing the most
frequent data, which is 33 kg.


13. The correct answer is (C).
From the Engineering Probability and Statistics section (see FE Reference Handbook) we get the formulas for mean and
variance.

µ=
∑X i
=
54 + 50 + 56 + 61+ 51
= 54.4
N 5
2

σ 2
=
∑( X i
−µ )
N
2 2 2 2 2

σ 2
=
(54 − 54.4) + (50 − 54.4) + (56 − 54.4) + (61− 54.4) + (51− 54.4)
5
2
σ = 15.44

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14. The correct answer is (C).
From the Engineering Probability and Statistics section (see FE Reference Handbook) we get the formulas for mean and
standard deviation. We can calculate the standard deviation by calculating the square root of variance.

µ=
∑X i
=
5+ 5+10 + 3+ 3+ 8 +12
= 6.57
N 7
2

σ=
∑( X i
−µ )
N
2 2 2 2 2 2 2

σ=
(5− 6.57) + (5− 6.57) + (10 − 6.57) + (3− 6.57) + (3− 6.57) + (8 − 6.57) + (12 − 6.57)
7
σ = 3.25



15. The correct answer is (B).
The sample space of the rolling dice is {1, 2,3, 4,5,6}.


Because the event of rolling dice is independent each other, so that the second rolling dice is not affected by the result from the
first rolling dice.
The event “number 3” of the rolling dice is {3}.

Therefore, we can obtain the probability as follows.


n(E) 1
P (E) = =
n (S ) 6

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16. The correct answer is (A).
We use binomial distribution to solve this question.
p = 0.05
q = 1 − p = 0.95
n!
p {3} = p x q n− x
x !( n − x )!
10! 3 10 −3
p {3} = ( 0.05) ( 0.95)
3!(10 − 3)!
p {3} = 0.0105

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Chapter 3

Computational
Tools

A. Spreadsheets
B. Programming
17. Which statement is correct related to the HLOOKUP() function in the Microsoft Excel.
(A) to search for a value in the top row of a table or an array of values, then returns a value in the same column from a row in the
table or array
(B) to search for a value in the column of a table or an array of values, then returns a value in the same row from a column in the
table or array
(C) to sort of data in a table or an array by ascending order
(D) to sort of data in a table or an array by descending order




18. Several lines of code program are written as follows.
a = 1;
b = 1;
while a <= 5
b = b + 2;
a = a + 1;
do
What is the last value of b in the end of the program?
(A) 5
(B) 7
(C) 9
(D) 11

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19. How many cells are there in the range D2:F10 of Microsoft Excel spreadsheet?
(A) 16
(B) 18
(C) 24
(D) 27





20. Determine the most appropriate function to create looping in a certain number.
(A) while … do
(B) if … else … end
(C) for … end
(D) if … else if … end



23






















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17. The correct answer is (A).





18. The correct answer is (D).
The looping condition can be solved by observing the variable data for each loop.
Condition b a
Initialize 1 1
First looping a = 1 3 2
First looping a = 2 5 3
First looping a = 3 7 4
First looping a = 4 9 5
First looping a = 5 11 6
First looping a = 6 looping stops

We can solve the question and find the last value of b is 11.




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19. The correct answer is (D).
For the range D2:J10, we have 3 columns and 9 rows, so that the total cells are 27 cells.






20. The correct answer is (C).
“if … else … end” and “if … else if … end” are the function to create conditional statements, while for the looping function we need
to use “while … do” or “for … end”. If we know the certain number of looping, “for … end” function will be very good option.

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Chapter 4

Ethics and
Professional
Practice
A. Codes of Ethics
B. Professional Liability
C. Licences
D. Sustainability
E. Professionalism
F. Contracts
21. Sam graduated from the university with a bachelor degree in Civil Engineering. He also passed FE exam during his senior year in
the university and currently works as an Engineer in Training (EIT) for a local engineering firm under the supervision of a
licensed professional engineer, Dom. The firm is about to join a tender of structural design on new apartment building in the
city. In the other hand, Sam’s father is the investor of the new apartment building. What should Sam do?
(A) Persuade his father to select Sam’s design bid as the winner
(B) Cancel the participation of tender project
(C) Continue to make the best design related to the design requirement
(D) Hold a meeting with his father and his supervisor to develop a good connection between them




22. As a fresh graduate, you were hired to be a junior field supervisor in a new hotel project. You found that the project manager
treated laborer in an unsafe and inhumane manner, but it’s legal in the country. You reported this problem to the company
executives about this problem, but you were told that they should do it in order to be competitive with time and cost. You were
also told that you should accept the culture company as the way things are. What should you do to satisfy the code of ethics?
(A) Report the company to the authorities
(B) Keep quiet and follow the company culture
(C) Quit from the job
(D) Organize strike/demonstration together with the laborer


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23. Which one is the benefit of doing ethical behavior?
(A) Higher salary
(B) Better reputation
(C) Better feeling about yourself
(D) None of the above





24. Sam and Harry are two licensed professional engineers. They have submitted design bid for a very big project. Sam submitted
higher bid than Harry. The client, however, preferred Sam’s work so that the client asked Sam to beat the Harry’s bid and Sam
would win the big project. What should Sam do?

(A) Withdraw his bid and let the client choose Harry’s bid
(B) Follow the client’s request and beat Harry’s bid
(C) Bargain the amount of bid with the client
(D) Keep the previous bid and let the client decide




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25. You are a city engineer in charge of selecting bids for a big infrastructure project in the city. There is one contractor who came
with high bid and offered limited edition of Rolex watch. You know you love Rolex watches and you also know that the lowest
bid will be selected as the winner of project. What should you do?
(A) Accept the Rolex watch and accept the bid
(B) Accept the Rolex watch and reject the bid
(C) Reject the Rolex watch and accept the bid
(D) Reject the Rolex watch and reject the bid


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21. The correct answer is (C).


22. The correct answer is (C).
The company hasn’t broken any laws, so there is no authority to report to. You could show your protest to the company because
it used unethical business practices. You could organize a strike/demonstration together with laborer, but it might be illegal in
the country. Therefore, at least you should quit from the job as your personal choice to keep your ethics.


23. The correct answer is (D).
By doing ethical behavior, you will not get any benefits because ethical behavior promises nothing.


24. The correct answer is (D).
It would be unethical for Sam to submit another bid and beat Harry’s bid. It is illegal depend on the regulatory agency. Sam
should keep his bid and let the client decide.


25. The correct answer is (C).
You should not accept any kind of gifts from parties expecting special consideration, so that you should reject the Rolex watch.
As long as the contractor satisfies all the bid requirement and follows the bidding rules, the bid could be accepted.

32
Chapter 5

Engineering
Economics

A. Cash Flow
B. Costs (Incremental, Average, Sunk, Estimating)
C. Economic Analyses
D. Expected Value and Risk
26. What is the approximate annual effective interest rate of money invested at 3% per year and compounded quarterly?
(A) 1.034%
(B) 2.034%
(C) 3.034%
(D) 4.034%





27. A bank advertisement offers an interest rate of 5.2% per year with continuous compounding. Find the approximate effective
annual interest rate.
(A) 4.337%
(B) 5.337%
(C) 6.337%
(D) 7.337%





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28. A tower crane was just bought for $70,000. The life span of the crane is estimated as 10 years and the salvage value is $5,800.
Determine the approximate value of depreciation for this crane.
(A) $4,620
(B) $5,800
(C) $6,420
(D) $7,000





29. A table manufacturing factory has the total operating cost $250,000 per year, including salaries, rent fee, and depreciation cost.
Each table needs $42, and the price of sale is $69. Find the break-even sales volume of the factory?(63)
(A) 6250 tables/year
(B) 7250 tables/year
(C) 8250 tables/year
(D) 9250 tables/year




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30. A home company, which manufactures bags, costs $25 for the material and equipment each bag and $6 for labor cost each bag. If
the company uses machine to produce bags, it will cost $500 for the material and equipment each bag and $1 for the operator
cost each bag. If the company produces 65 bags per month, how long will the company reach the break-even-point?
(A) 1.12 months
(B) 1.23 months
(C) 1.35 months
(D) 1.46 months





31. The maintenance cost of an investment is $15,000 per year for the first 5 years and $7,500 per year after 5 years. Assume that
the investment will never end. If the interest rate is 12%, determine the approximate present worth of annual disbursement.
(A) $26,936
(B) $27,936
(C) $28,936
(D) $29,936

36

37
26. The correct answer is (C).
m
⎛ r⎞
i = ⎜1 + ⎟ − 1
⎝ m⎠
4
⎛ 0.03 ⎞
i = ⎜1 + ⎟ −1
⎝ 4 ⎠
i = 0.03034 = 3.034%




27. The correct answer is (B).
Continuous compounding can be approximated by using large number for m , such as 1000.

m
⎛ r⎞
i = ⎜1 + ⎟ − 1
⎝ m⎠
1000
⎛ 0.052 ⎞
i = ⎜1 + ⎟ −1
⎝ 1000 ⎠
i = 0.05337 = 5.337%





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28. The correct answer is (C).
The depreciation value is equal to the difference between initial cost C and salvage value S n , then divided by the life span n .



C − Sn
D=
n
$70, 000 − $5,800
D=
10
D = $6, 420




29. The correct answer is (D).
The break-even-point occurs when costs (which are negative) and sales (which are positive) total zero. Let n be the number of
tables per year at break-even-point.


−$250, 000 − n$42 + n$69 = 0
n$27 = $250, 000
n = 9259 ≈ 9250tables/year


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30. The correct answer is (D).
Total cost for each bag (hand-made) = $25 + n$6 where n is the number of bags

Total cost for each bag (machine processed) = $500 + n$1 where n is the number of bags

$25 + n$6 = $500 + n$1
n$5 = $475
n = 95bags

95
t= = 1.46months
65

31. The correct answer is (B).
The costs or benefits for a cash flow that repeat should be broken into different benefits and costs that all start or finish at the
time of interest. Take $15,000 cost that repeats for 5 years and break it into two $7,500 costs: the first $7,500 cost goes on 5
years and the second $7,500 cost goes on for infinitely.

⎛P ⎞ ⎛P ⎞
PV = ( $7,500 ) ⎜ ,12%,5 ⎟ + ($7,500 ) ⎜ ,12%, ∞ ⎟
⎝A ⎠ ⎝A ⎠
PV = ( $7,500 )( 3.6048 ) + ( $7,500 )( 0.12 )
PV = $27,936

40
Chapter 6

Statics

A. Resultants of Force Systems


B. Force Systems
C. Equilibrium of Rigid Bodies
D. Frames and Trusses
E. Centroids
F. Moments of Inertia
G. Static Friction
32. Determine the length of vector V1 + V2 + V3 where the vectors are written as follows.

V1 = 5k m
V2 = 8i m
V3 = 2 j m
(A) 8.77 m
(B) 9.64 m
(C) 9.90 m
(D) 10.49 m


33. Find the moment at point B due to the force P as shown in the following figure.







(A) 200 kips-ft
(B) 233 kips-ft
(C) 266 kips-ft
(D) 300 kips-ft

42
34. Referring to the previous figure, determine the vertical reaction at support A.

( )
(A) 34.34 kips ↓

(B) 34.34 kips (↑ )

(C) 44.34 kips (↓)

(D) 44.34 kips (↑)




35. Given an irregular shape as shown below has the area of 50 cm2 and the inertia moment about X-axis is 3654.8 cm4. Determine
the inertia moment about X’-axis.

centroidal
axis Xc
4 cm
5 cm

X
X'

(A) 2854.8 cm4
(B) 3104.8 cm4
(C) 3854.8 cm4
(D) 4104.8 cm4

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Question 36 and 37 are based on this following figure. Three forces are connected at point

300 N F1

3 1
5 O 1

F2


36. Determine the required force F1 to satisfy the force equilibrium at point O is zero.

(A) 313.8 N
(B) 363.8 N
(C) 413.8 N
(D) 463.8 N



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37. Determine the required force F2 to satisfy the force equilibrium at point O is zero.

(A) 311.6 N
(B) 361.6 N
(C) 411.6 N
(D) 461.6 N


38. Three ropes are connected each other to hold a box of 50 N weight. Determine the tension T1 and T2 if the system is in

equilibrium.

(A) T1 = 40.41N , T2 = 80.83N

(B) T1 = 80.83N , T2 = 40.41N

(C) T1 = 50 N , T2 = 80.83N

(D) T1 = 80.83N , T2 = 50 N

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39. A book shelf with weight of 300 N is supported by hinge A and B on the wall. Find the horizontal reaction at hinge A.

2.5 m
5m
B

3m

300 N
(A) 140 N ( →)

(B) 160 N ( →)

(C) 180 N ( →)

(D) 200 N ( →)


40. Which one is defined by the centripetal force acting on a particle which travels in a circular path at constant velocity?
1
(A) mω 2 r 2
2
(B) mω 2 r 2
1
(C) mω 2 r
2
(D) mω 2 r

46

47
32. The correct answer is (B).

V1 + V2 + V3 = V12 + V2 2 + V32
V1 + V2 + V3 = 52 + 82 + 22
V1 + V2 + V3 = 9.64 m




33. The correct answer is (C).
Take point B as the center of rotation and a positive clockwise moment. We have more reaction forces (4 reaction forces) than
equilibrium equations so we must use the method of superposition.

( ) (
M B = P sin 60° 5− P cos60° 6 )
MB = ( 200 × sin 60°) 5− ( 200 × cos60°) 6
M B = 266.03 kips-ft







48
34. The correct answer is (C).
In order to get the vertical reaction at support A, we need to check the equilibrium at point B.
Hinge support can’t resist moment, so that the equilibrium moment at point B is 0.
Assume that the vertical reaction in A ( VA ) is downward.

∑M B =0
− (VA ) 6 + ( P sin 60° ) 5 − ( P cos 60° ) 6 = 0

−6VA + ( 200 × sin 60° ) 5 − ( 200 × cos 60° ) 6 = 0
VA = 44.34 kips ( ↓ )





35. The correct answer is (D).
We need to find the inertia moment about its centroidal axis first, then we can solve the inertia moment about other axis.
I x = I c + Ay 2
3654.8 = I c + 50 × 42
I c = 2854.8cm 4

I x ' = I c + Ay 2
I x ' = 2854.8 + 50 × 52
I x ' = 4104.8cm 4

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36. The correct answer is (B).
Because we have two unknown forces in vertical (Y) direction, we need to use equilibrium in horizontal (X) direction first.

∑F x =0
⎛ 5 ⎞ ⎛ 1 ⎞
−300 ⎜
2 2
⎟ + F1 ⎜ 2 2 ⎟ = 0
⎝ 3 +5 ⎠ ⎝ 1 +1 ⎠
F1 = 363.8 N





37. The correct answer is (C).
From question 36, we can find one unknown force. Therefore, in this question we can check the equilibrium in vertical (Y)
direction to find the other unknown force.

∑F y =0
⎛ 3 ⎞ ⎛ 1 ⎞
300 ⎜
2 2
⎟ + 363.8 ⎜
2 2
⎟ − F2 = 0
⎝ 3 +5 ⎠ ⎝ 1 +1 ⎠
F2 = 411.6 N



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38. The correct answer is (B).

∑F y =0
T1 sin 60° − 70 = 0
T1 = 80.83N

∑F x =0
T1 cos 60° − T2 = 0
T2 = 40.41N




39. The correct answer is (C).
In order to get the horizontal reaction at support A, we need to check the equilibrium at point B.
Hinge support can’t resist moment, so that the equilibrium moment at point B is 0.
Assume that the horizontal reaction in A ( H A ) is to the right.

∑M B =0
− ( 300 )1.5 + ( H A ) 2.5 = 0
H A = 180 N ( → )



51
40. The correct answer is (D).
Fcp = macp
v2
Fcp = m
r
2

Fcp =m
(ω r )
r
2
Fcp = mω r

52
Chapter 7

Dynamics

A. Kinematics (Particles & Rigid Bodies)


B. Mass Moments
C. Newton’s 2nd Law (Particles & Rigid Bodies)
D. Impulse and Momentum
E. Work and Energy (Particles & Rigid Bodies)
41. A stone with mass 150 gram is thrown upward with velocity 15 m/s. Find the kinetic energy of stone when the stone is 2 m
above the initial point!
(A) 13.635 Joule
(B) 13.735 Joule
(C) 13.835 Joule
(D) 13.935 Joule




42. A particle moves by the function v (t ) = 10t + 3 in unit of m/s. Calculate the distance traveled by the particle from 3 to 7 seconds.

(A) 40 m
(B) 54 m
(C) 212 m
(D) 266 m







54
43. A 1500 kg car moves with a velocity of 60 km/hour, then the car enters a curve with radius of 1 km. Determine the minimum
coefficient of friction between the road and the car so that the car can moves in the curve without any brakes.
(A) 0.018
(B) 0.023
(C) 0.028
(D) 0.033





44. An 8 kg box is pushed upward following the inclined plane of 15° to the horizontal plane. Determine the force required to push
the box until it accelerates 2 m/s2 at the inclined plane. Assume that the coefficient of friction between the inclined plane and
box is 0.3.
(A) 49 N
(B) 59 N
(C) 69 N
(D) 79 N



55
45. Assume that a blue billiard is located in the left side of a red billiard ball. The 1.5 kg blue billiard ball moves to the right with a
constant velocity of 30 m/s; while the 2.5 kg red billiard ball moves to the left with a constant velocity of 15 m/s. Those blue and
red billiard balls collide, after that they move together to the right with the same velocity. Find the velocity of both billiard balls
after collision.
(A) 1.125 m/s
(B) 1.375 m/s
(C) 1.675 m/s
(D) 1.875 m/s





46. A box moves and travels 8 m from the top of inclined plane to the bottom of incline plane. The inclination angle of the inclined
plane is 20° to the horizontal plane. Assume that the coefficient of friction between the inclined angle and box is 0.2. If the box
starts from rest at the top of inclined plane, find the velocity when it reaches the bottom of inclined plane.
(A) 2.9 m/s
(B) 3.9 m/s
(C) 4.9 m/s
(D) 5.9 m/s


56





57
41. The correct answer is (D).
The velocity at the height of 2 m :
Vt 2 = V0 2 − 2 gh
Vt 2 = 152 − 2 × 9.8 × 2

Vt 2 = 185.8
Vt = 185.8 = 13.631m / s
The kinetic energy at the height of 2 m :
1 1
Ek = mV 2 = × 0.15 ×185.8 = 13.935 J
2 2




42. The correct answer is (C).
Because the velocity function is in terms of time, the distance equation can be written as follows.

s ( t ) = ∫ v ( t ) dt
7
s ( t ) = ∫ (10t + 3) dt
3
7
s ( t ) = 5t 2 + 3t
3

( ) (
s ( t ) = 5 × 7 2 + 3 × 7 − 5 × 32 + 3 × 3 )
s ( t ) = 212m

58
43. The correct answer is (C).

Ff = Fcp
v2
µ mg = m
r
2

µ × 9.8 =
( 60 ×1000 / 3600 )
1000
µ = 0.028





44. The correct answer is (B).
We need to define the force worked to the moving box in the inclined plane, we will obtain the force required to be applied to
the moving box.

∑ F = ma
F − mg sin15° − µ mg cos15° = ma
F − 8 × 9.8sin15° − 0.3 × 8 × 9.8cos15° = 8 × 2
F = 59 N


59
45. The correct answer is (D).
Assume that right direction is positive and left direction is negative. We use the law of conservation of momentum as follows.

pinitial = pend
( mv )blue + ( mv )red = ( mblue + mred ) v
1.5 × 30 + 2.5 × ( −15 ) = (1.5 + 2.5 ) v
v = 1.875m / s




46. The correct answer is (C).
First, we need to define the force worked to the moving box in the inclined plane, we will obtain the acceleration of the moving
box.

∑ F = ma
mg sin 20° − µ mg cos 20° = ma

9.8sin 20° − 0.2 × 9.8cos 20° = a
a = 1.5m / s 2

After the acceleration is known, we use the principal of motion particles to find the final velocity of moving box.
Vt 2 = V0 2 + 2as
Vt 2 = 02 + 2 × 1.5 × 8
Vt = 24 = 4.9m / s

60
Chapter 8

Mechanics of
Materials

A. Shear and Moments


B. Stress (Axial, Bending, Torsional, Shear)
C. Deformations (Axial, Bending, Torsional, Shear)
D. Combined Loads
E. Principal Loads
F. Mohr’s Circle
G. Columns (Buckling, Boundaries)
H. Composite Sections
I. Deformations (Plastic, Elastic)
J. Stress - Strain
Question 47 and 48 are based on the following figure.


100 N/m

200 N

5m




47. Determine the vertical reaction of the cantilever beam.

( )
(A) 50N ↑

(B) 50N (↑ )

(C) 100N (↑ )

(D) 100N (↓ )

62
48. Determine the moment at the fixed end support of the cantilever beam.
(A) 583.33 Nm (clockwise)
(B) 583.33 Nm (counter clockwise)
(C) 375 Nm (clockwise)
(D) 375 Nm (counter clockwise)





49. A steel rebar is pulled in tension until it passes its yield point and it has a little permanent deformation. After that, the rebar is
unloaded. Which of these following statements is true if the rebar is pulled again?
(A) The ultimate strength will decrease
(B) The yield point remains the same
(C) The ductility will increase
(D) The yield point will change






63
50. Find the correct equation to define normal strain ε . Assume that the symbol δ is elongation and L is the length of specimen.
L
(A) ε =
δ
L +δ
(B) ε =
L
δ
(C) ε =
L +δ
δ
(D) ε =
L




51. A steel rod is stressed by a tension force of 250 N. It is found that the rod has length of 45 m and diameter of 1.5 mm. If the
modulus elasticity of steel rod is assumed as 2 ×105 MPa , determine the strain of the steel rod due to the applied force.
(A) 5.16 ×10−4
(B) 6.57 ×10−4
(C) 7.07 ×10−4
(D) 8.24 ×10−4




64
52. Find the normal stress of cantilever beam AB shown in the following figure.

0.3 m
100 N 250 N
5m
0.1

0.6 m 0.6 m

A B C


(A) 3333 N/m2 (compression)
(B) 5555 N/m2 (compression)
(C) 3333 N/m2 (tension)
(D) 5555 N/m2 (tension)








65
53. Find the maximum shear stress of this element.

50 MPa

50 MPa
120 MPa 120 MPa

50 MPa

50 MPa

(A) 46 MPa
(B) 61 MPa
(C) 72 MPa
(D) 85 MPa







66
54. A 2 m hollow cylindrical rod has the maximum allowable shear stress 40 MPa and the maximum allowable twist angle 0.025
radians. Find the maximum allowable torque T to this hollow, considering the following material properties and the maximum
allowable stress.
G = 70000MPa
J = 250cm 4


T

7.5 cm
5 cm
T
2m



(A) 2.19 kNm
(B) 3.25 kNm
(C) 4 kNm
(D) 5.15 kNm




67
55. The stress-strain relationship of steel reinforcement is shown in the following figure. Determine the strain hardening part.


fs
D
E
B C

A £s̀

(A) A-B
(B) B-C
(C) C-D
(D) D-E


56. Determine the location of maximum deflection of a simple-supported beam loaded by distributed loading.
(A) at the support
(B) at the 1 4 L from the support
(C) at the middle of span
(D) at the 3 4 L from the support

68
57. Determine the maximum principal strain at a point where ε x = 1000µ m , ε y = −600µ m , and ε xy = 800 µ m .

(A) 695 µ m
(B) 895 µ m
(C) 1095 µ m
(D) 1295 µ m

















69
Question 58 and 59 are based on this simple-supported beam below.

5 kN

3m 3m



58. Solve which of the following figures is the correct shear force diagram.

2.5 kN +

- 2.5 kN
(A)

+ 2.5 kN

2.5 kN -
(B)

2.5 kN +
-
2.5 kN
(C)

+ 2.5 kN
-
2.5 kN
(D)

70
59. Solve which of the following figures is the correct bending moment diagram.

(A) 7.5 kNm

(B) 15 kNm
15 kNm

+
(C)
7.5 kNm

+
(D)

71






















72
47. The correct answer is (A).
1
V = × 5 ×100 − 200
2
V = 50 N ( ↑ )





48. The correct answer is (A).
Assume that the clockwise moment is positive moment.

⎛1 ⎞⎛ 5 ⎞
M + ⎜ × 5 × 100 ⎟ ⎜ ⎟ − ( 200 )(5 ) = 0
⎝2 ⎠⎝ 3 ⎠
M = 583.33 Nm


49. The correct answer is (D).
Due to the permanent deformation, the yield point will change into a new point. You can confirm this by considering the stress-
strain relationship of steel rebar.




73
50. The correct answer is (D).
Strain is defined by elongation per length.




51. The correct answer is (C).


PL
δ=
EA
250N × 45m
δ=
⎛π ⎞
2 ×105 ×106 Pa ⋅ ⎜ ⋅ (1.5×10−3 ) 2 ⎟
⎝4 ⎠
δ = 0.003183m
δ
ε=
L
0.003183m
ε=
45m
ε = 7.07 ×10−4




74


52. The correct answer is (A).
Before we find the normal stress σ AB , we need to find the force of element AB ( FAB ) first.


From the free-body diagram, we can find FAB = −150 N .


FAB
σ =
AB
AAB
−150
σ =
AB
0.15 × 0.3
σ AB
= −3333 N / m 2













75


53. The correct answer is (B).
From the stress condition of element, we can draw Mohr circle as below.

τmax
(-120,50)

σ2 σavg σ1 σ

(-50,-50)




−120 − 50
σ avg = = −85MPa
2
2 2
τ max = ( −120 + 85) + (50) = 61.03MPa

76


54. The correct answer is (A).
We check both limitation of maximum allowable shear stress and maximum allowable twist angle, and take the minimum value
as the maximum allowable torque.

Tro
τ max =
J
T × 25
40 =
2500000
T = 4 ×106 Nmm = 4kNm

TL
φmax =
GJ
T × 2000
0.025 =
70000 × 2500000
T = 2187500 Nmm = 2.1875kNm


We take the maximum allowable torque as 2.1875 kNm.




77


55. The correct answer is (C).



56. The correct answer is (C).
The maximum deflection is occurred at the location of maximum moment, which for simple-supported structure with
distributed loading, the maximum moment occurs in the middle of span.



57. The correct answer is (C).

2 2
εx +εy ⎛ ε x − ε y ⎞ ⎛ ε xy ⎞
ε max,min = ± ⎜ ⎟ +⎜ ⎟
2 ⎝ 2 ⎠ ⎝ 2 ⎠
2 2
1000 − 600 ⎛ 1000 + 600 ⎞ ⎛ 800 ⎞
ε max,min = ± ⎜ ⎟ +⎜ ⎟
2 ⎝ 2 ⎠ ⎝ 2 ⎠
ε max,min = 200 ± 894.43 µ m
ε max = 1094.43 µ m
ε min = −694.43 µ m

78


58. The correct answer is (A).
To be able to draw shear force diagram, we need to calculate the reaction at support. Because the loading is applied at the
middle of span, the reaction at both supports is half of applied loading. In this case, the reaction is 2.5 kN.




59. The correct answer is (D).
The bending moment for this case is linear increase until the maximum moment is located when the shear force diagram is zero.

79
Chapter 9

Materials

A. Mixes (Concrete, Asphalt)


B. Testing Methods
C. Physical & Mechanical Properties
60. Based on test result, it is found that the stress of a new material is 320 MPa and the strain is 4.5% at the elastic limit. Determine
the elastic modulus of this material based on that data.
(A) 5000 MPa
(B) 6000 MPa
(C) 7000 MPa
(D) 8000 MPa




61. ASTM (American Standard Testing and Material) provides a lot of standard testing method for materials. Which of the following
testing methods is included for aggregates?
(A) Sieve analysis
(B) Relative density
(C) Absorption
(D) All of the above are correct





81
62. A steel rebar with elastic modulus of 200000 MPa is subjected to compressive force and the rebar has a strain of 0.0065. If the
diameter of steel rebar is 9.53 mm, find the applied compressive force.
(A) 90730 N
(B) 91730 N
(C) 92730 N
(D) 93730 N




63. Which of the following chemical admixtures is used to increase the workability of concrete?
(A) Retarders
(B) Accelerators
(C) Plasticizers/water reducers
(D) Air entraining agents







82
64. Marshall test is well-known stability test for ….
(A) Concrete
(B) Steel
(C) Wood
(D) Asphalt

















83

84
60. The correct answer is (C).

σ
E=
ε
320
E=
0.045
E = 7111MPa ≈ 7000MPa





61. The correct answer is (D).
C136-06 covers the standard test method for sieve analysis for fine and coarse aggregates.
C127-12 covers the standard test method for density, relative density (specific gravity), and absorption of coarse aggregates.
C128-12 covers the standard test method for density, relative density (specific gravity), and absorption of fine aggregates.







85
62. The correct answer is (C).
σ = Eε
σ = 200000 × 0.0065
σ = 1300 MPa

F =σ A
⎛1 ⎞
F = 1300 × ⎜ π × 9.532 ⎟
⎝4 ⎠
F = 92729.7 N ≈ 92730 N



63. The correct answer is (C).
Plasticizer/water reducer is used to increase the workability of concrete, allowing the concrete be placed more easily.



64. The correct answer is (D).

86
Chapter 10

Fluid
Mechanics

A. Flow Measurement
B. Properties of Fluids
C. Statics of Fluids
D. Equations (Impulse, Momentum, Energy)
65. Which of the following options is component of motion of fluid?
(A) Rotation
(B) Translation
(C) Angular distortion
(D) All of the above




66. The Reynolds number of a 1/10-scale model aircraft in a wind tunnel relates to the Reynolds number of a dimensionally similar
prototype aircraft as:
(A) Re mod = 10 × Re prototype

(B) 10 × Re mod = Re prototype

(C) Re mod = Re prototype

⎛v ⎞
(D) Re mod = f ⎜⎜ prototype ⎟⎟
⎝ vmod ⎠

88

⎛ kg ⎞
67. The pressure 1 m from the bottom of water tank with total depth is 3 m is ⎜ ρwater = 1000 3 ⎟ :
⎝ m ⎠

(A) 9.8 kPa


(B) 19.6 kPa
(C) 29.4 kPa
(D) 39.2 kPa




68. A continuous pipe has two different diameter sizes at the beginning and the end of pipe. The test result shows that the flow
velocity at the beginning of pipe is 0.38 m/s. The diameter at the beginning of pipe is 1.5 times larger than the diameter at the
end of pipe. Determine the flow velocity at the end of pipe.
(A) 0.168 m/s
(B) 0.38 m/s
(C) 0.855 m/s
(D) 1.055 m/s




89

69. A turbine with flow rate of 0.22 m3/minute has the pressure drop of 210 kPa. Determine the power output of the turbine.
(A) 0.46 kW
(B) 0.58 kW
(C) 0.63 kW
(D) 0.77 kW



70. Based on which concept is the Bernoulli’s law for fluid flow?
(A) Continuity equation
(B) Principle of conservation of momentum
(C) Principle of conservation of mass
(D) Principle of conservation of energy

90

91
65. The correct answer is (D).
Fluid has three components of its motion: rotation, translation, and angular distortion.




66. The correct answer is (C).
For dynamic similarity to exist, the ratios of all types of forces should equal. The Reynolds number is the ratio of internal forces
to the viscous forces and thus the Reynolds numbers should equal.




67. The correct answer is (B).
Remember that the pressure is calculated based on the depth from the water surface.

p = ρ gh
⎛ kg ⎞⎛ m⎞
⎝ m ⎠⎝ s ⎠
(
p = ⎜1000 3 ⎟⎜ 9.81 2 ⎟ 3m −1m )

p = 19.6kPa

92

68. The correct answer is (C).
By using the continuity law,
ρ A1v1 = ρ A2v2
⎛1 2⎞ ⎛1 2⎞
⎜ π d1 ⎟ v1 = ⎜ π d 2 ⎟ v2
⎝4 ⎠ ⎝4 ⎠
2
(1.5d2 ) × 0.38 = d 2 2 × v2
v2 = 0.855m / s



69. The correct answer is (D).
⎛ 0.22 ⎞
P = 210 × ⎜ ⎟
⎝ 60 ⎠
P = 0.77kW




70. The correct answer is (D).

93
Chapter 11

Hydraulics &
Hydrologics

A. Hydrology Basics
B. Hydraulics Basics
C. Systems of Pumping
D. Distribution Systems
E. Reservoirs
F. Groundwater Systems
G. Storm Sewer Design
71. A property of waste water system has length of 280 m and width of 150 m. Assume that the runoff coefficient of the property is
0.32. Determine the discharge if the intensity of rainfall is 127 mm/hour.
(A) 1500 m3/hour
(B) 1600 m3/hour
(C) 1700 m3/hour
(D) 1800 m3/hour
















95
72. A 300 mm pipe has a roughness factor of 0.22, and water flows through it at 1.3 m3/s. The kinematic viscosity of water is 1 x10-6
m2/s. The Moody friction factor is:
(A) 105
(B) 0.019
(C) 0.4
(D) 0.13





73. Water at standard conditions is pumped from an elevation of 180 m to 200 m, through a network of pipe 2000 m in length and a
head loss of 150 m. The fluid power required to pump water at 2 m3/min is ( η pump = 80% ):

(A) 42.2 MW
(B) 23.7 kW
(C) 33.4 MW
(D) 69.5 MW





96
74. Which of these flows has the flow cross-section that does not vary with time at any location along an open channel?
(A) Critical flow
(B) Uniform flow
(C) Steady flow
(D) Non-uniform flow



75. A pumping system is able to discharge 800 kPa water into a pipeline with length of 50 m and diameter of 8 cm. The initial
velocity Find the maximum elevation the water can reach if we neglect the friction.
(A) 60 m
(B) 70 m
(C) 80 m
(D) 90 m








97

76. An apartment complex has a population of 8000 people and an average sewage flow of 5000 m3/day. The minimum sewage flow
is:
(A) 1415 m3/day
(B) 1515 m3/day
(C) 1615 m3/day
(D) 1715 m3/day




77. An apartment complex has a population of 8000 people and an average sewage flow of 5000 m3/day. The peak sewage flow is:
(A) 13250 m3/day
(B) 14250 m3/day
(C) 15250 m3/day
(D) 16250 m3/day




98
78. A sanitary sewer has a length of 80 m and a pipe with diameter of 90 cm. The inlet elevation of the sewer is higher 1.2 m than the
outlet elevation. Assume that the Manning roughness coefficient is 0.01, constant with depth of flow. Determine the sewer
capacity during heavy rainfalls if the sewer is full of water flow with no surcharge.
(A) 2.88 m3/s
(B) 3.18 m3/s
(C) 3.48 m3/s
(D) 3.78 m3/s

99

100
71. The correct answer is (C).
Q = CiA
Q = 0.32 × 0.127 × 280 ×150 ( )
Q = 1707m3 / hour ≈ 1700m3 / hour


72. The correct answer is (B).
Use the Moody diagram at the end of the Fluid Mechanics section of the FE Reference Handbook to get the friction factor. We’ll
need to calculate the relative roughness and Reynolds number as follows:

e 0.22mm
Relative roughness = = = 0.000733
D 300mm

ρ ⋅Vave ⋅ D µ Q
To get the Reynolds number Re = into our correct form, substitute v = and V = to get:
µ ρ A


Q⋅D
Re =
π
4
⋅ D2 ⋅ v
3
(1.3 ms ) ⋅ (0.3m)
Re =
( π4 ⋅ (0.3m) 2 ) ⋅ (1×10−6 ms )
2

Re = 5.5×106

101
Using a relative roughness of 0.000733 and a Reynolds number of 5.5 x 106, we can get a friction factor of 0.019 from the Moody
diagram (shown below with a copyright free Moody Diagram for illustrative purposes).




















102

73. The correct answer is (D).
The required total head to pump the water is:

htotal = hheight + h friction

( )
htotal = 200m −180m + h friction
htotal = ( 200m −180m) +150m

htotal = 170m


From the Fluid Mechanics section of the FE Reference Handbook (search term “fluid power” or “pump power”):

ρ ghQ
W! =
η pump
⎛ kg ⎞⎛ m⎞ ⎛ m3 1min ⎞
⎜1000 3 ⎟⎜ 9.81 2 ⎟ (170m) ⎜ 2 x ⎟
⎝ m ⎠ ⎝ s ⎠ ⎝ min 60sec ⎠
W! =
0.8

W = 69.5kW




103
74. The correct answer is (B).
Uniform flow : the flow cross section does not vary with time at any location along an open channel.
Steady flow : the flow quantity does not vary with time at any location along an open channel.



75. The correct answer is (C).
By using the principal of conservation energy:

p1 v12 p2 v2
+ z1 + = + z2 + 2
γ 2g γ 2g
800000 42 0 42
+0+ = + z2 +
1000 × 9.8 2 × 9.8 1000 × 9.8 2 × 9.8
z2 = 81.6m ≈ 80m









104

76. The correct answer is (B).


From the sewage flow ratio curves above, we can find the ratio of minimum-to-average daily sewage flow for population of 8000
people follows curve A2:
Qmin P 0.2
=
Qavg 5
Qmin 80.2
=
5000 5
Qmin
= 0.303
5000
Qmin = 1515.7m3 / day ≈ 1515m3 / day

105

77. The correct answer is (C).


From the sewage flow ratio curves above, we can find the ratio of peak-to-average daily sewage flow for population of 8000
people follows curve G:

106
Q peak 18 + P
=
Qavg 4+ P
Q peak 18 + 8
=
5000 4+ 8
Q peak
= 3.05
5000
Q peak = 15251.3m3 / day ≈ 15250m3 / day

78. The correct answer is (A).


Slope of the sewer is:
zinlet − zoutlet
S=
L
1.2
S=
80
S = 0.015

Because the sewer is full of water flow during heavy rainfall, it can be assumed that the wetted perimeter is equal to the pipe
perimeter P . Therefore, the hydraulic radius is:
A
R=
P
1
π × 0.92
R= 4
π × 0.9
R = 0.225m
From the Manning equation, the flow velocity is:

107
1 2 3 12
v= R S
n
1 2 1
v= 0.225 3 0.015 2
0.01
v = 4.53m / s
The flow capacity is:
Q = vA
⎛1 ⎞
Q = 4.53 × ⎜ π × 0.92 ⎟
⎝4 ⎠
3
Q = 2.88m / s













108
Chapter 12

Structural
Analysis

A. Statically Determinant Force Analysis


B. Statically Determinant Deflection
C. Structural Determinancy & Stability
D. Load Paths
E. Indeterminate Structure Basics
79. Determine the centroidal coordinate of this T-beam shown in the following figure.
50 cm

10 cm
35 cm
Y

O X
20 cm

(A) (25 cm, 17.5 cm)
(B) (25 cm, 20 cm)
(C) (25 cm, 21.25 cm)
(D) (25 cm, 22.5 cm)









110
Question 80-82 are based on the following figure.
15 kN

C E

4m
B
A
D F

3m 3m 3m



80. Find the vertical reaction at point A and B.
(A) VA = 7.5kN ↑ ( ) ; V = 7.5kN (↑)
B

(B) VA = 10kN (↑) ; V = 5kN (↑)


B

(C) VA = 5kN (↑) ; V = 10kN (↑)


B

(D) VA = 6kN (↑) ; V = 9kN (↑)


B

111
81. Determine the magnitude of compressive force in member AC.
(A) 5.33 kN
(B) 6.25 kN
(C) 7.25 kN
(D) 8.33 kN





82. Determine the force and magnitude in member DF.
(A) 3.75 kN (tension)
(B) 3.75 kN (compression)
(C) 6.67 kN (tension)
(D) 6.67 kN (compression)



112






















113
79. The correct answer is (C).
The T-beam is divided into two areas to simplify the calculation.


Because the section is symmetrical about vertical, the centroidal X is in the center xc = 25cm from point O as the origin.

yc =
∑Ay i i

∑A i

yc =
(50 ×10 ) 30 + ( 20 × 25)12.5
(50 ×10 ) + ( 20 × 25)
yc = 21.25cm

80. The correct answer is (C).

∑M A =0
15 × 6 − VB × 9 = 0
VB = 10kN ( ↑ )

∑F y =0
VA + VB − 15 = 0

VA + 10 − 15 = 0
VA = 5kN ( ↑ )

114
81. The correct answer is (B).
From the solution number 80, we found that VA = 6kN , so that we can draw free-body diagram:
C

FAC

A
FAD D

VA= 5 kN


Check the equilibrium of Y direction at point A.

∑F y =0
4
VA − FAC =0
5
4
5 − FAC = 0
5
FAC = 6.25kN ( compression )

115
82. The correct answer is (A).
Continuing the solution from number 81, we should find the force in AD before calculating the force in DF. We check the
equilibrium of X direction at point A.

C ∑F x =0
3
FAD − FAC =0
5
FAC
3
FAD − 6.25 × = 0
5
A FAD = 3.75kN ( tension )
FAD D


VA= 5 kN



After the force in AD is obtained, we can check the equilibrium of X direction at point D.

C
∑F x =0
FAD − FDF = 0

3.75 − FDF = 0
FDF = 3.75kN (tension )
FAD FDF
A
D F

116
Chapter 13

Structural
Design

A. Steel Component Design


B. Reinforced Concrete
83. Based on ACI 318, determine the top flange effective width of this T-beam.

10 cm
35 cm
20 cm

400 cm

(A) 20 cm
(B) 105 cm
(C) 180 cm
(D) 400 cm

84. Consider the rectangular beam with the dimension in question 83. Assume that the compressive strength of concrete is 21 MPa
and the yield strength of shear reinforcement is 280 MPa. Determine the maximum spacing of shear reinforcement (No. #3 or
diameter of 9.53 mm) to satisfy ultimate shear force 73 kN. Neglect any axial force for this case. Assume the effective depth of beam
is 0.8h.
(A) 100 mm
(B) 150 mm
(C) 200 mm
(D) 250 mm

118
85. Find the correct condition for under-reinforced failure mechanism in reinforced concrete.
(A) As = As ,bal

(B) As < As ,bal

(C) As > As ,bal

(D) None of the above






86. Based on ACI standard, find the strength reduction factor of reinforced concrete members for shear; tension; compression
without spiral reinforcement; torsion (write it by order).
(A) 0.75; 0.9; 0.75; 0.65
(B) 0.9; 0.65; 0.75; 0.75
(C) 0.65; 0.75; 0.9; 0.75
(D) 0.75; 0.9; 0.65; 0.75

119

120
83. The correct answer is (B).
⎧1 1
⎪ 4 L = 4 × 420 = 105cm

b f = min ⎨bw + 16ts = 20 + 16 ×10 = 180cm
⎪center-to-center beam span = 400cm



84. The correct answer is (C).
The shear contribution of concrete:

Vc = 0.17 f c' bd
Vc = 0.17 21 × 200 × ( 0.8 × 350 )
Vc = 43626.12 N ≈ 43.6 kN

The nominal shear strength should be equal or larger than the ultimate shear force (φ = 0.75) .

φVc + φVs = Vu
0.75 × 43.6 + 0.75Vs = 73
Vs = 53.733kN
The required spacing of shear reinforcement:
Av f ys d
Vs =
s
⎛ 1 2⎞
⎜ 2 × π × 9.53 ⎟ × 280 × ( 0.8 × 350 )
4
53733 = ⎝ ⎠
s
s = 208mm ≈ 200mm

121
85. The correct answer is (B).
Balanced failure occurs when As = As ,bal , under-reinforced failure occurs when As < As ,bal , over-reinforced failure occurs when

As > As ,bal .





86. The correct answer is (D).

122
Chapter 14

Geotechnical
Engineering

A. Geology
B. Soil Classifications
C. Air-Water-Solid Phases
D. Lab & Field Tests
E. Effective Stresses
F. Retaining Walls
G. Shearing
H. Bearing Capacity
I. Foundations
J. Consolidation & Settlement
K. Seepage & Flow Nets
L. Slopes
87. A saturated soil sample from field is tested and the specific gravity is obtained as 2.85 with total unit mass 2535 kg/m3. Calculate
the dry unit mass.
(A) 2265 kg
(B) 2365 kg
(C) 2465 kg
(D) 2565 kg





Question 88-90 are based on the following figure. The section of a permanent retaining wall is shown below. Six meters excavation
was done through two different soil layers.

γ1 = 19kN/m3
Layer 1 φ1' = 33¢X 3m
c1' = 0

γ2 = 20kN/m3
φ2' = 25¢X
Layer 2 3m
c2' = 0

124
88. Calculate the active earth pressure coefficient K a for each layer based on each friction angle φ .

(A) 0.4553 for layer 1 and 0.5774 for layer 2


(B) 0.2948 for layer 1 and 0.4059 for layer 2
(C) 3.3921 for layer 1 and 2.4639 for layer 2
(D) 0.5430 for layer 1 and 0.6371 for layer 2


89. Calculate the total lateral pressure against the retaining wall at depth of 6 m.
(A) 35 kN/m2
(B) 45 kN/m2
(C) 55 kN/m2
(D) 65 kN/m2


90. A sample of soil has a mass of 17.4 gram, volume of 9 cm3, oven-dry mass of 14.6 gram, and specific gravity of 2.1. Determine the
void ratio of the soil based on the following information.
(A) 0.3
(B) 0.4
(C) 0.5
(D) 0.6

125

126
87. The correct answer is (B).
Assume that the total volume of saturated soil (soil + water) is 1 m3 → Vs + Vw = 1

Substitute the volume relationship to this equation:



ms + mw = 2535
GsVs ρ w + Vw ρ w = 2535
2.85 × Vs ×1000 + (1 − Vs ) ×1000 = 2535

2850Vs + 1000 − 1000Vs = 2535
1850Vs = 1535
Vs = 0.83m3

After obtaining volume of soil, we can calculate dry unit mass (mass of soil).

ms = GsVs ρ w
ms = 2.85 × 0.83 ×1000
ms = 2365.5kg


88. The correct answer is (B).
Based on Rankine theory,
⎛ φ⎞ ⎛ 33° ⎞
K a1 = tan 2 ⎜ 45° − ⎟ = tan 2 ⎜ 45° − ⎟ = 0.2948
⎝ 2⎠ ⎝ 2 ⎠

2⎛ φ⎞ 2⎛ 25° ⎞
K a 2 = tan ⎜ 45° − ⎟ = tan ⎜ 45° − ⎟ = 0.4059
⎝ 2⎠ ⎝ 2 ⎠

127
89. The correct answer is (D).
Total lateral pressure is the combination between active earth pressure and pore water / hydrostatic pressure.

Active earth pressure at depth = 6 m:

σ a = K a (γ 1 z1 + (γ 2 − γ w ) z2 )
σ a = 0.4059 (19 × 3 + ( 20 − 9.8 ) × 3)
σ a = 35.56kN / m2

Pore water / hydrostatic pressure at depth = 6 m:

σ w = γ w z2
σ w = 9.8 × 3
σ w = 29.4kN / m2

Total lateral pressure at depth = 6 m:
σ total = σ a + σ w
σ total = 35.56 + 29.4
σ total = 64.96kN / m2 ≈ 65kN / m2



128
90. The correct answer is (A).
The sample of soil can be divided into three components: dry soil, water, and air.
Dry soil properties:

ms 14.6
Vs = = = 6.95cm3
Gs ρ w 2.1×1


Volume of the void can be defined as the summation between volume of water and air. Therefore,

Vv = Vtotal − Vs = 9 − 6.95 = 2.05cm3



Void ratio is calculated by using this following equation:

Vv 2.05
e= = = 0.29 ≈ 0.3
Vs 6.95

129
Chapter 15

Transportation
Engineering

A. Geometric Design (Streets, Highways)


B. Geometric Design (Intersections)
C. Pavement
D. Traffic (Safety)
E. Traffic (Capacity)
F. Traffic Flow
G. Traffic (Control Devices)
H. Transportation Modeling
Question 91 and 92 are based on the following information.
The relationship of traffic flow can be written as q = kv
Where q is the traffic volume, k is the traffic density, v is the average speed of vehicles.
Based on several tests and observations, v can be approximated by using this following equation.
v = 80 − 0.5k



91. Determine the maximum capacity of traffic density at rush hour if the average speed of vehicles is 30 km/hour.
(A) 70 vehicles/km
(B) 80 vehicles/km
(C) 90 vehicles/km
(D) 100 vehicles/km



92. Find the maximum capacity of total traffic volume of the road.
(A) 3000 vehicles/hour
(B) 3200 vehicles/hour
(C) 3400 vehicles/hour
(D) 3600 vehicles/hour

131
Question 93 and 94 are based on this following figure.
A vertical curve and its complete data are shown in the figure below.
L = 12 sta

PVC EVC
-2% +1.8%

PVI = sta 76+00


PVI elevation = 500 m


93. Find the low point station for this vertical curve.
(A) sta 75+60
(B) sta 76+00
(C) sta 76+32
(D) sta 76+40


94. Determine the elevation of the low point.
(A) 502.68 m
(B) 503.68 m
(C) 504.68 m
(D) 505.68 m

132

133
91. The correct answer is (D).
By using the equation of average speed of vehicles, we can obtain the traffic density at the rush hour.

v = 80 − 0.5k
30 = 80 − 0.5k
k = 100 vehicles/km



92. The correct answer is (B).
By combining two equations given in the above information, we can obtain a new equation about the relationship between the
traffic volume and traffic density.

q = kv
q = k (80 − 0.5k )
q = 80k − 0.5k 2

According to mathematics principle, we can get the maximum value of q when the first derivation of the equation is equal to 0.

q = 80k − 0.5k 2
dq
= 80 − k = 0 → k = 80 vehicles/km
dk
2
qmax = 80 (80 ) − 0.5 (80 ) = 3200 vehicles/hour

134
93. The correct answer is (C).
L
PVC = PVI −
2
12 sta
PVC = sta 76+00 −
2
PVC = sta 70+00

G1 L
xm =
G1 − G2

xm =
( −0.02 )(12 sta )
−0.02 − 0.018
xm = 6.32 sta

lowpoint = PVC + xm
lowpoint = sta 70+00 + 6.32 sta
lowpoint = sta 76+32

94. The correct answer is (D).

( G2 − G1 ) xm 2
ellow point = elPVC + G1 xm +
2L
2

ellow point = ( 500 + 0.02 × 6 sta ) + ( −0.02 )( 6.32 sta ) +


( 0.018 + 0.02 )( 6.32sta )
2 (12 sta )
ellow point = 505.68m

135
Chapter 16

Environmental
Engineering

A. Water Quality
B. Basic Water & Air Tests
C. Regulations
D. Supply & Treatment of Water
E. Wastewater
Question 95 and 96 are based on the following information.
A sample of wastewater is placed in the incubator by keeping the temperature at 23°C. After 5 days, the BOD (Biochemical Oxygen
Demand) is found to be 234 mg/L. Assume that the reaction rate constant is 0.13 d-1 (base e).


95. Determine the ultimate BOD of the sample.
(A) 470 mg/L
(B) 480 mg/L
(C) 490 mg/L
(D) 500 mg/L



96. Determine the BOD of the sample if the incubation period is 7 days.
(A) 280 mg/L
(B) 290 mg/L
(C) 300 mg/L
(D) 310 mg/L



137
97. A sample of freshwater is taken from a small river. After several observations, the sample is found to contain dissolved oxygen
concentration of 6.2 mg/L when the temperature is 24.6°C and the atmospheric pressure is 740 mmHg. A partial listing of the
solubility of dissolved oxygen in freshwater at equilibrium with dry air containing 21.7% oxygen and at an atmospheric
pressure of 760 mmHg is as follows.

temperature oxygen solubility
(°C) (mg/L)
22 9.6
23 9.3
24 8.9
25 8.6
26 8.2


Find the saturation of dissolved oxygen in the sample water.
(A) 50%
(B) 60%
(C) 70%
(D) 80%


138
98. A tank reactor treats 0.35 m3/s of settled wastewater having 258 mg/L BOD5 at 22°C. The design mean cell resistance time, θ cd , is

12 days.
Vss ,mg
Y= = 0.55
BOD5,mg


The effluent BOD5 is 6.4 mg/L. MLVSS = 3600 mg/L. The endogenous decay coefficient K d = 0.06d −1 . Determine the reactor

capacity.
(A) 6350 m3/day
(B) 6420 m3/day
(C) 7210 m3/day
(D) 8110 m3/day


139

140
95. The correct answer is (C).
Substitute the five days values into the equation for BOD.

(
yt = L 1 − e− kt )
(
234 = L 1 − e−(0.13)(5) )
L = 489.6 mg/L ≈ 490 mg/L





96. The correct answer is (B).
Substitute the seven days values into the equation for BOD.

(
yt = L 1 − e − kt )
(
yt = 489.6 1 − e −( 0.13)( 7 ) )
yt = 292.5 mg/L ≈ 290 mg/L




141
97. The correct answer is (C).
The dissolved oxygen (DO) at 760 mmHg can be found by linear interpolation from the table.

DO24.6°C − 8.9 24.6 − 24
=
8.6 − 8.9 25 − 24
DO24.6°C − 8.9 = 0.6 × ( −0.3)
DO24.6°C = 8.72 mg/L

Oxygen is only slightly soluble in water and does not react with water. Therefore, Henry’s law is applicable, and oxygen’s
solubility is directly proportional to its partial pressure.

⎛ 740 ⎞⎛ 6.2 ⎞
%saturation= ⎜ ⎟⎜ ⎟ ×100% = 69.2% ≈ 70%
⎝ 760 ⎠⎝ 8.72 ⎠










142
98. The correct answer is (D).
The solids residence time is
θ =V / Q

The suspended solids concentration is determined using the following equation.

θcd Y ( So − S )
X=
θ (1 + K dθcd )


Combining equations, the volume of the reactor can be found.

θcd QY ( So − S )
V=
(
X 1 + K dθcd )
12 × 0.35 × 0.55 × ( 258 − 6.4 )
V=
3600 × (1 + 0.06 ×12 )
V = 0.094m3 / s
V = 8110m3 / day

143
Chapter 17

Construction

A. Documentation
B. Procurement
C. Project Delivery
D. Operations & Methodology
E. Scheduling
F. Project Management
G. Safety
H. Estimation
99. What is the definition of critical path in a project?
(A) The longest path of sequential tasks through a project
(B) The time unaccounted for in a project
(C) The extra time available in a project
(D) The sequences of tasks in a project




100. The illustrated model below is one of project scheduling tools, which is called as ….


(A) a PERT chart
(B) a bar (Gantt) chart
(C) Activity-On-Node (AON) diagram
(D) Activity-On-Arrow (AOA) diagram

145
Question 101-104 can be solved by using this following diagram.

C
2

A F
3 3
D
START 3 FINISH

B E
5 4

Note that the duration in days is displayed below the task.



101. Determine the critical path of the diagram.
(A) START-A-C-F-FINISH
(B) START-A-D-F-FINISH
(C) START-B-D-F-FINISH
(D) START-B-E-FINISH





146
102. Find the float time of activity D.
(A) 0 day
(B) 1 day
(C) 2 days
(D) 3 days



103. Find the EST (Earliest Start Time) of activity F.
(A) day 8
(B) day 9
(C) day 10
(D) day 11




104. Determine the LST (Latest Start Time) of activity C.
(A) day 5
(B) day 6
(C) day 7
(D) day 8

147

148
99. The correct answer is (A).


100. The correct answer is (C).


101. The correct answer is (C).

Critical path is defined as the longest duration in a project.
From the AON diagram, we could determine the total duration of sequences for each path.
START-A-C-F-FINISH : 3 + 2 + 3 = 8 days
START-A-D-F-FINISH : 3 + 3 + 3 = 9 days
START-B-D-F-FINISH : 5 + 3 + 3 = 11 days
START-B-E-FINISH : 5 + 4 = 9 days
Therefore, we can conclude that path START-B-D-F-FINISH is the critical path of this project.







149
102. The correct answer is (A).

Activity D is along the critical path (please see the solution for number 103), so that the float time (TF) of activity D is 0 day.
The project scheduling can be summarized in this diagram.

Activity Duration EST EFT LST LFT TF
(days) (day no.) (day no.) (day no.) (day no.) (days)
A 3 0 3 3 6 3
B 5 0 5 0 5 0
C 2 3 5 6 8 3
D 3 5 8 5 8 0
E 4 5 9 7 11 2
F 3 8 11 8 11 0




103. The correct answer is (A).
Activity F is affected by two activities: activity C and D. Therefore, the EST (Earliest Start Time) of activity F can be determined
as the maximum EFT of the two activities.


150
104. The correct answer is (B).
Activity C is only affected by activity A. Therefore, the LST (Latest Start Time) of activity C is the same as the LFT of the activity
A.

151
Chapter 18

Surveying

A. Geometry & Trigonometry


B. Area Calculations
C. Earth & Volume Calculations
D. Closure
E. Coordinates
F. Leveling
105. Find the length of the curve AB based on the following illustration.

θ = 12¢X

A B

R = 1150 ft R = 1150 ft

O
(A) 220 ft
(B) 240 ft
(C) 260 ft
(D) 280 ft






153
106. Determine the approximate hatched area in the following figure.

20.1 m
18.5 m
17.6 m
14.3 m 15.2 m

6m 6m 6m 6m

(A) 410 m2
(B) 430 m2
(C) 450 m2
(D) 470 m2






154
Question 107 and 108 are based on the following figure.

O

A B
L = 250 m

α = 106¢X
30'



107. Determine the approximate tangent distance.
(A) 210 m
(B) 215 m
(C) 220 m
(D) 225 m


108. Determine the approximate length of curve connecting point A and B.
(A) 260 m
(B) 270 m
(C) 280 m
(D) 290 m

155
The following data is used to solve question 109 and 110.
An earthwork of new roadway requires less soil to be thrown out, so that engineers should calculate the cut-and-fill volume based
on this data. Note: it can be assumed that for the transition region from fill area to cut area, both cut and fill area are triangular.

Station Cut area Fill area
(m) (m2) (m2)
10+00 - 153.42
10+4.50 - 32.56
10+12.35 13.67 8.25
10+16.40 52.84 -
10+20 165.14 -

109. Determine the total volume of fill work.
(A) 500 m3
(B) 505 m3
(C) 510 m3
(D) 515 m3

110. Determine the total volume of cut work.
(A) 540 m3
(B) 560 m3
(C) 580 m3
(D) 600 m3

156


157
105. The correct answer is (B).

Lcurve = R × α
⎛ π ⎞
Lcurve = 1150 × 12° ⎜ ⎟
⎝ 180° ⎠
Lcurve = 240.8 ft ; 240 ft




106. The correct answer is (B).
We can adopt the trapezoidal rule to get the total area of hatched area.

⎛h +h ⎞
A = w ⎜ 1 5 + h2 + h3 + h4 ⎟
⎝ 2 ⎠
⎛ 14.3 + 15.2 ⎞
A = 6⎜ + 20.1 + 18.5 + 17.6 ⎟
⎝ 2 ⎠
A = 425.7m2 ≈ 430m 2





158
107. The correct answer is (A).

⎛ 1° ⎞
α = 106° + 30 ' ⎜ ⎟ = 106.5°
⎝ 60 ' ⎠

L
T=
⎛α ⎞
2 cos ⎜ ⎟
⎝2⎠
250
T=
⎛ 106.5° ⎞
2 cos ⎜ ⎟
⎝ 2 ⎠
T = 208.9m ≈ 210m












159
108. The correct answer is (D).
The length of curve can be solved by multiplying radius of the curve with the intersection angle.
⎛ π ⎞
α = 106.5° ⎜ ⎟ = 1.8588rad
⎝ 180° ⎠

L
R=
⎛α ⎞
2sin ⎜ ⎟
⎝2⎠
250
R=
⎛ 106.5° ⎞
2sin ⎜ ⎟
⎝ 2 ⎠
R = 156m

Lcurve = R × α
Lcurve = 156 ×1.8588
Lcurve = 289.97m ; 290m








160
109. The correct answer is (D).
As it is written in the question that the cut and fill area can be assumed as triangular in shape for the transition area. Then for
the other area, the cut and fill area are assumed as trapezoidal area. Total volume for cut and fill work are summarized in the
following table.
Cut Fill Cut volume Fill volume
Station
area area (m3) (m3)
(m)
(m2) (m2)
10+00 - 153.42
⎛ 153.42 + 20.56 ⎞
- 4.50 ⎜ ⎟ = 391.46
⎝ 2 ⎠
10+4.50 - 20.56
⎛ 13.67 ⎞ ⎛ 20.56 + 8.25 ⎞
7.85 ⎜ ⎟ = 35.77 7.85 ⎜ ⎟ = 113.08
⎝ 3 ⎠ ⎝ 2 ⎠
10+12.35 13.67 8.25
⎛ 13.67 + 52.84 ⎞ ⎛ 8.25 ⎞
4.05 ⎜ ⎟ = 134.68 4.05 ⎜ ⎟ = 11.14
⎝ 2 ⎠ ⎝ 3 ⎠
10+16.40 52.84 -
⎛ 52.84 + 165.14 ⎞
3.6 ⎜ ⎟ = 392.36 -
⎝ 2 ⎠
10+20 165.14 -
total 562.81 515.68

The total volume of fill work is 515.68 m3 (515 m3).

161
110. The correct answer is (B).
Referring to the table above, the total volume of cut work is 562.81 m3 (560 m3).

162

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