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Qatar Airways-Qatar Airways Pilot Interview and assessment Gouge

Qatar Airways Pilot Interview Preparation!

Qatar Airways Pilot Interview (assessment) consist of:

(1) introduction to Qatar airways
(2) 50 atpl questions
(3) panel interview
(4) a sim assessment.

The introduction consist of the history, fleet size, and the goal of the airline. 50 atpl questions with multiply answers will be given during an hour time. It can be
said that most of the questions are taken from JAA question bank. The panel interview will be asked by a representatives from HR department and a Chief
pilot or A Line Captain. If the candidate is successful he/she will be invited for a sim assessment on the airbus 320 or 330.

Below is a list of questions that has been asked during Qatar Airways pilot assessments. Latest Pilot Jobs doesn't guarantee that the exact questions below
will be asked during your assessment. Our statistics has shown that more than 90% of the questions asked during pilot interviews with Qatar Airways are listed
below. Please give us your feedback on questions below!

We will discuss the process in details below!

(1) Introduction to Qatar Airways

After being invited and shortly before your interview date (within one week), you will be sent an email with travel, accommodation and information for the
selection. The package contains:
Travel Tickets to / from DOH. Print it
Visa Copy. Print it
Sim Package Includes details about sim session, what’s going to be assessed and basic briefing about aircraft and procedures.
Checklist. For them to Xchecked the veracity of your documents. Fill it with your details, print it and bring it with your others documents to interview.
Hotel accommodation and details. Oryx Rotana Hotel, Doha.

Arrange to bring the following documents to the interview as it is mandatory

1. Original Flying Licences - Valid. Bring original and a copy as well

2. Original Medical Certificate – Valid. Bring original and copy also.
3. In case of CPL, ATPL theoretical exam results and Multi Crew Cooperation Certificate is required in accordance with JAR-OPS
4. All Original Logbook(s) – Please add up the hours (both PIC and SIC). Copy last two pages
5. Copy of last Simulator Check
6. Valid original passport. Bring original and copy also
7. Letters of Reference/Recommendation
8. Human performance and limitation certificate (if available)
9. English Proficiency Certificate if applicable

The Interview will start at 8:00 am local time at hotel conference room suites in the business centre (Oryx - rotana Hotel). You will be welcomed by Qatar
recruitment team, which consist of three pilots and one person from Human Resource department. You will be introduced to a 15 - 20 minutes power point
presentation abou the company. The power point presentation is about Qatar Airways history fleet, destinations, milestones, expansion intentions and
Captain, Fo and SO Packages. We strongly recommend to take notes as needed are taken as it will have the very latest company information that ca be
useful for Human Resource questions (panel interview) later on.

After the presentation you need to introduce yourself to the recruitment team and other candidates.

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1. State name.
2. Where you from.
3. Marital & Family Status.
4. Brief airline career history.
5. Why you want to work for Qatar.

After this, they request all your documents. They inmediately start to xcheck all documents.

(2) Qatar Airways ATPL Questions (50 questions with multiple choice answers during 1 hour)

How does a Pressure Altimeter works?

Answer: Air pressure is highest at Earth\'s surface and gradually falls, in a systematic way, the higher up you go. Measuring the air pressure is therefore (in
theory, at least) a simple and effective way of measuring altitude.
The altimeters onboard most planes are actually aneroid barometers (pressure-measuring instruments) that have been calibrated (marked with a scale) so
they show height inside of pressure. Like normal aneroid barometers, they consist of a hollow, sealed box that expands (as the pressure falls) or contracts
(as the pressure rises). As the box changes size, by very tiny amounts, an intricate system of levers and gears magnifies its movements and makes a pointer
rotate on a dial marked with height measurements. Hey presto, tiny changes in air pressure become accurate measurements of altitude.

Give definition of QNH, QFE?

Answer: Take the advertised elevation in feet and divide by 30 (or 27 if you prefer) and that gives you a number to add to the QFE in hPa to give a pretty
good approximation on the QNH
QFE + hPa = QNH
Airport elevation / 30 = hpa to add

How does weather affect altimeter settings?

Answer: Temperature affects the indicated altitude. The effect is not as drastic as pressure changes. Altimeters in small aircraft have no simple means to
compensate for non standard temperature. The effect is similar to high and low pressure changes. When going from low temperature to higher temperature,
the aircraft will be higher than the indicated altitude. When going from high temperature to low, the aircraft will be lower than indicated on the altimeter. The
pilot should keep this in mind if terrain clearance is a factor in the flight.
Always remember: From high to low (pressure or temperature) LOOK OUT BELOW

What are the altimeter instruments errors?

Answer:
Instrument error
Pressure error (also known as position or configuration error)
Time - Lag error
Barometric error
Temperature/density error
Blocked Static port

Static variation in pitot tube causes an error and is called?

Answer: Instrument error, Barometric error, pressure position error.

What is pressure altitude?

Answer: Pressure altitude is the altitude corrected to standard pressure - if you set your altimeter to 29.92", you will be reading pressure altitude.
For every millibar, pressure altitude changes by approximately 30 feet. For every inch of mercury, the pressure altitude changes by approximately 1000 feet.

Calculate Pressure altitude? QNH 1034 air port elevation 2,340 ft amsl
Answer: Pressure altitude is 1710
1034 - 1013=21 (Assume 30ft= 1hpa)
21X30=630
2340-630=1710
Since 1034 is higher than standard (1013) the pressure altitude will be lower than field elevation.

How to calculate True Altitude at an airport?

Answer: If you set the altimeter to local pressure corrected to sea level, indicated altitude is approximately true altitude.
or use the fallowing formula to calculate True Altitude.
True Altitude = Indicated Altitude + (4 x Indicated Altitude / 1000 x ISA Dev) + (27 x (QNH – Subscale))

An aircraft is flying at FL 150, with an outside air temperature of -30, above an airport where the elevation is 1660 ft and the QNH is 993 hpa.
Calculate the true altitude? (Assume 30ft= 1hpa)
Answer:
Lets found out ISA temperature. 15,000 feet so we will multiply 15X2= 30 in this case -30 + 15= -15C. We have -30 so there is a 15 degrees difference.
True altitude differs from indicated by 4% for every 10 degrees difference in temperature from ISA.
The last thing we need to take to consideration is altitude in ISA conditions = 15,000 - (20 x 30) = 14,400ft. (I got this number by subtracting 1013 - 993 = 20
True altitude = 14,400 - (4 x 14.4 x 15) = 14,400 - 864 = 13,536ft.

Flying at FL135 above the sea, the Radio altimeter indicates a true altitude of 13500ft. the local QNH is 1019 hpa hence the crossed air mass is on
average,
A. At ISA standard atmosphere
B. Colder than ISA
C. Warmer than ISA
D. There is insufficient information
Answer: If the QNH was 1013mb, you'd be at 13,500 feet when at FL135. Since if you increased the subscale setting to 1019 the indication would increase,
then FL135 is actually a bit lower than 13,500 ft. (You're flying into higher pressure air than ISA, so you're higher than you would be if it were ISA). Since the
radio altimeter says you are really at 13,500 feet, you must be in warmer than ISA air.

Airport QNH is 1008hPa, you land with 1013hPa set in altimeter, what altitude will your altimeter indicate? Air port Elevation: 1240ft
Answer: 1375 ft
1013 - 1008= 5 hPa
5X27=135 so we add this to the field elevation.
Remember: 1013hPa is a higher pressure than the QNH 1008hPa so it is lower in the atmosphere.

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Local QNH is 1023, when you pass and set QNE , your altitude will? Increase,decrease,stable,...
Answer: Decrease

Passing through transition Level FL080 you set QNH 1000. What is the true altitude?
Answer: 7649ft
1013hPa is a higher pressure than the QNH 1000hPa so it is lower in the atmosphere. 1000hPa is 13 x 27 = 351ft above the 1013 datum. the aircraft's
altitude is 8,000 - 351 = 7649ft above the sea level/QNH (1000hPa) datum.

What is ISA temp. at FL100?

ANSWER: -5c (Alt x -2 +15 = ISA temp)

The temperature at FL 110 is -5 Celsius. What will the temperate be at FL 050 if the ICAO standard lapse rate is applied?
Answer: 5X2=-10+15= +5

What is the ISA standard?

Answer: 15 C and 1013 hp

At fl100 temp is 15c. What's the ground temp?

Answer: 35C

During climb out when would you switch the altimeter setting to standard?
Answer: Transition Altitude

What happens to your Indicated Airspeed if the pitot tube is blocked at the start of a descent?
Answer: Indicated Airspeed will decrease.

If a pitot source is blocked in an Air Speed Indicator, and the drain hole is blocked, but the static source is open. What will happen during a climb?
Answer: ASI will show an increase

If a pitot source is blocked in an Air Speed Indicator, and the drain hole is open, and static source is open. What will happen during a descent or
climb?
Answer: Airspeed Indicator will read zero

The error in altimeter readings caused by the variation of the static pressure near the source is known as:
position pressure error

What happens to your Indicated Airspeed if the static went is blocked at the start of a climb?
Answer: When you are operating above the altitude where the static port became clogged, the airspeed will read lower than it should. A decrease

What happens to your Indicated Airspeed (IAS) if you descent at a constant True Air Speed (TAS)?
Ans: Increase

What happens to your TAS if you climb at a constant Indicated Airspeed?

Ans: Tas will Increase

What happens to your Mach Number (MN) if you climb at a constant calibrated airspeed or Indicated Airspeed?
Ans: Mach Number will Increase

What happens to your indicated airspeed and TAS if you fly at a constant IAS into a warmer area?
Ans: TAS Incr, IAS constant

What happens to MN or IAS when climbing through an isothermal layer at constant true airspeed?
Ans: MN remains Constant, IAS decrease

What happens to Local Speed of Sound (LSS) or TAS if one increases or the other decreases?
Answer: This will affect the Mach Number.
Remember the formula MN= TAS/LSS
For Example if LSS decreases for a constant true air speed (TAS), then the Mach number will rise.

What happens to the indicated Mach number (MN) in a long range cruise as weight decreases at the same flight level?
Answer: It decreases

You descend with constant Mach no,. Which speed limit will be exceeded? (VMO,MMO,VNE or VS)
Answer: MMO

Mach number is influenced by?

Answer: Temperature

Mach number is dependent on?

Answer: Altitude (as the air temperature drops at higher altitudes)

VNE is the speed which?

Answer:Should never be exceeded

What effect has an increase in temp.and altitude (airport) to VMCG?

ANSWER: VMCG decrease because engine thrust decrease

Reduced thrust should not be used when?

ANSWER:Windshear is reported or to be expected

If you lose 10kts GS during approach, what will happen to your VS?
ANSWER: Decrease by 50ft

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When do you use Anti-Ice?

Answer: Visible moisture and temperature close to or below freezing point

Effect on rime ICE accumulation on airframe? (accumulates slow or fast? Spreads out slow or fast?)
Answer: Accumulates slow and will spread out as a slower rate.

Which one gives the likely shortest holding time?

Answer: Freezing rain

In what type of cloud can icing virtually ruled out?

ANSWER: CIRRUS

Which cloud type is most easily detected by the weather radar?

ANSWER: Cumulus

What is the Temperature at Troposphere (Poles, equator)?

Ans: Poles -45, Equator -75 Celsius.

Altocumulus castellanus are indication of?

Ans: mid-atmospheric instability

Where is Hail most encountered?

Ans: CB clouds

Which cloud type is classified as a MEDIUM LEVEL cloud?

ANSWER: Altostratus (alto medium)

Shortest hold over time weather condition?

ANSWER: Freezing rain

What type of cloud can be expected with virga?

Answer: Nimbostratus and altucomlus cloud.

Decode a TAF and what will the wind be at you ETA?

Note: Study over TAF and METAR codes

A TAF will be given with ETA for LSZH (Zurich) and asks for the lowest cloub base for ETA at LSZH.
Note: Study over TAF and METAR codes

What does the meaning PROB30 means?

ANSWER: Probability 30%

Relative humidity depends on?

Answer: Temperature and pressure

What is a dewpoint?
Answer: dewpoint is the temperature at which a parcel of air becomes saturated.

How is windshear detected?

Answer: It's detected by identifying a difference in wind (direction and / or speed) and/or temperature between two places or identifying certain wether
phenomenon , like cumulonimbus clouds, that give rise to posible windshear conditions from weather reports. Modern aircraft have windshear warning
systems, which usually are incoporated into the ground proximity warning system (GPWS).

Windshear is a movement of air in which direction and duration?

ANSWER: Short duration/horizontal movement of air

What effect does windshear have during an approach for landing?

Answer: If the headwind component increases,then the aircraft will experience a transient increase in performance. This will lead to an overshoot tendency.
If the headwind component decreases, then the aircraft will experience a transient decrease in performance. This will lead to undershoot the aiming point.

What is the recovery technique for windshear?

Answer: For mild or even moderate windshear that causes a manageable flight path deviation, i.e., less than a single dot deviation on the approach, then it is
acceptable to use normal power (for speed) and pitch (for the descent profile) corrections to regain the desired flight path.

Takeoff techniques in windshear?

Answer:
If windshear is encountered during takeoff roll, apply the following recovery techniques without delay:
• Before V1:
− Reject the takeoff only if unacceptable airspeed variations occur and the pilot assesses there is sufficient runway remaining to stop the aircraft.

• After V1:
− Maintain or set the thrust levers to the maximum takeoff thrust (TOGA)
− Rotate normally at VR
− Follow the Flight Director pitch orders, or set the required pitch attitude if FD is not available (as recommended in the applicable FCOM).

Note: If a windshear occurs during takeoff roll, V1 may be reached later (or sooner) than expected. In this case, the pilot may have to rely on his/her own
judgment to assess if there is sufficient runway remaining to stop the aircraft, if necessary.
Note: Recovery technique during initial climb is described in the paragraph “Recovery technique for windshear encounter during initial climb, approach and
landing

Sequence of speeds on take off?

Answer: V1, Vmca, Vr, V2

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The ICAO Maximum holding speeds:

• Up to 14000 ft: 230kts
• 14000 ft to 20000 ft: 240kts
• 20000 ft to 34000 ft: 265kts
• Above 34000 ft: M0.83

Holding pattern entries?

Answer: Parallel Procedure, Teardrop Procedure, Direcet procedure.

Are standard holding with left or right turns?

Ans: Right

What is squawk code for hijacking?

Ans: 7500

Failure on IFR flight while in VMC, what is your action?

ANSWER:Squak 7600 and continue according flight plan.

What is squawk code for threat in an airplane?

Ans: 7700

What is the code for com failure?

Ans:7600

Bomb on board the airplane and what do you do?

Notes: Aparently good answer is landing gear and flaps down. Level off at altitude and cabin is at the moment.

Emergency Descent First Action?

Answer: Oxygen mask on

Rapid decompression First Action?

Answer: Oxygen masks on

Time of useful conscious at FL440?

Answer: 12 seconds

If engine fails in cruise flight which procedure you use?

Ans: Driftdown

If you loose the RWY while circling what actions do you take?
Ans: Missed Approach procedure.

Lost visual during circling on downwind leg, what is your action?

Ans: Missed Approach procedures

How long to evacuate an airplane with more than 44 sits?

Answer: Certification purposes, aircraft needs to be evacuated in less than 90 sec through half of the available exits.

ASDA is?
Answer: ACCELERATE-STOP DISTANCE AVAILABLE

TODA is?
Answer: TODA Take of distance available

VMCG is?
Answer: VMCG is the minimum contol speed on the ground for a multiengine aircraft at a constant power setting and configuration, at and above which it is
possible to maintain directional contol of the aircraft around the normal/vertical axis by use of the rudder to manintain runway heading after failure of an
off-center engine.
Answer:

Definition of TORA?
Answer: Takeoff run available is the usable length of the runway available that is suitable for the ground run of an aircraft taking off. In most cases this
corresponds to the physical length of the runway.

VMCA is?
Answer: VMCA: minimum control speed (air). The minimum speed at which control of a twin-engine aircraft can be maintained after failure of one engine.

ISA is?
Answer: ISA - Agreed International Standard Atmosphere (1013.2 millibars at 15\'C) to permit accurate comparison of aircraft performance figures.

Definition of STOPWAY?
Ans: The length of an unprepared surface at the end of the runway in the directionof the takeoff that is capable of supporting an aircraft if the aircraft has to be
stoped during a takeoff run.

Definition of Clearway?
Ans: The length of an obstacle free area at the end of the runway in the direction of the takeoff, with a minimum dimension of 75m either side of the extended
runway centerline that is under the control of the licensed authority.

What is definition of safe take off distance?

Answer: The usable runway available plus the length of the clearway available, within which the aircraft initiates a transition to climbing flight and attain a
screen height at a speed no less than the takeoff safety speed or V2.

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What is ETOPS?
Answer: • Extended-range Twin-engine Operational Performance Standards
• (ICAO) Standard and Recommended Practice (SARP) permitting twin-engined commercial air transporters to fly routes that, at some points, are farther
than a distance of 60 minutes\' flying time from an emergency or diversion airport.
• It refers to single-engine flight times between diversion airfields╉regardless as to whether such fields are separated by water or land.

What are the various ETOPS Categories?

Answer: The Extended Range Operations are covered under categories viz. 75 minutes, 120 minutes and 180-minutes diversion time
90mins, 120 mins, 138 mins, 180 mins, 240 mins.

What is Lapse Rate?

Answer: The lapse rate is defined as the rate of decrease with height for an atmospheric variable. The variable involved is temperature unless specified
otherwise

What is Climb Gradient?

Answer: The rate, expressed as a percentage, of the change in geometric height divided by the horizontal distance traveled in a given time.

The wake turbulence of a heavy weight aircraft will last for approximately how long? (1min, 3min,5 min or 30 sec?)
Answer: 5 minutes

What is your rate of descent on a 3degree ILS when your GS reads 100kt?
ANSWER: 500ft/min (of course …GSx5)

Mode C Transmits which information to ATC?

Ans:ALT, FL, 1013hpa, information.

Which altitude information shown to an ATC controller indicates that the aircraft
is flying at its cleared/assigned altitude?
ANSWER:+- 300 ft

ILS CAT 1 Minimums, RVR, MDA?

Answer: CAT 1 Approach Minimums are 200ft DH and 2400RVR
CAT 1 Approach Minimums may be reduced to RVR 1800 feet when centerline and touchdown zone lights are provided

The segments on a Tekeoff?

Answer: First Segment: The Climb from 35 feet point until the landing gears are fully retracted. Conditions in this segment are:
- landing gear extended
- flaps in T/O position
- Speed = V2
- Climb gradient for 2 engine A/C = Positive
- Climb gradient for 4 engine A/C = 0.5%
- Takeoff power

Second Segment: Climb from gear retraction point until a height of 400 feet is reached. conditions in this segment are:
- gears retracted
- flaps in T/O position
- speed = V2
- Climb gradient 2 engine a/c 2.4%, and 4 engine a/c 3.0%
- takeoff power

Third Segment: Its the horizontal distance covered after the second segment until the flap retraction speed is reached, to raise the flaps plus the distance
required to accelerate the aircraft to the flaps up climb speed. It consists of two parts:

First part of 3rd segment: Distance covered before flap retraction, accelerating to flap retraction speed. The conditions are:
- gears retracted
- flaps in t/o position
- speed increasing from v2 to flap retraction speed
- Climb gradient 2 engine a/c 1.2%, 4 engine a/c 1.7%
- takeoff power

Second part of 3rd segment: Distance covered after flap retraction, accelerating to final t/o climb speed. the conditions are:
- gears retracted
- flaps retracted
- speed, accelerating from flaps retraction to final t/o climb speed
- Climb gradient 2 engine a/c 1.2%, 4 engine a/c 1.7%
- maximum continous power

Fourth Segment: the Climb from 400 feet till 1500 feet is reached, after the end of third segment operating with max continous power. The conditions are:
- gears retracted
- flaps retracted
- speed = final t/o climb speed
- max continous power
- Climb gradient 2 engine a/c 1.2%, 4 engine a/c 1.7%

1st Segments stops at?

Answer: Landing gear is fully retracted with flaps in the takeoff setting

When does the second segment begins?

Answer: begins at the end of first segment and is continued to not less than 400 feet above the airport elevation. The climb requirement in second segment is
2.4% gradient for two engine aircraft and 2.7% for three engine aircraft. Second segment is usually, but not always the most limiting of the segments within
the takeoff flight path.

What is 3rd segment of a Climb?

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Answer: Third segment is the distance required to go from the end of the second segment climb at V2 to the final climb speed with the flaps retracted. It\'s
flown level while accelerating.

How many % to be considered a Contaminated Runway?

Answer: A runway where more than 25% of the required field length within the width being used is covered by standing water or slush more than 0.125 in (3.2
mm) deep, or that has an accumulation of snow or ice.

Definition of wet Runway?

Answer: A runway is considered “wet” when there is sufficient moisture on the surface to appear reflective, but. without significant areas of standing water.
A runway surface that appears darkened by residual moisture (damp runway) shall not be considered wet or contaminated except as outlined below

Actioins At V1 with an Engine Failure?

• Maintain or set the thrust levers to the maximum takeoff thrust (TOGA)
• Rotate normally at VR
• Follow the Flight Director pitch orders, or set the required pitch attitude if FD is not available (as recommended in the applicable FCOM).

How does a wet runway affect distance and V1?

Answer:
The takeoff runway required is increased.
The landing distance is increased.
The emergency distance required is increased.
Note: A recommended wet V1 for contaminated conditions is the dry V1 - 10 (minus 10), so a lower V1 (Recommended)

What is the difference between a dry V1 and wet V1?

Answer: A dry (maximum) V1 is the normal decision speed that following an engine failure allows the takeoff to be continued safely within the TODA or to be
stopped safely within thee EMDA (Emergency Distance Available). A wet (minimum) V1 is the maximum speed for abandoning a takeoff on a contaminated
runway. A wet v1 improves the stopping capabilities back to the dry conditions level but degrades the takeoff chances with a reduced screen height in the
event of a takeoff being continued. A recommended wet V1 for contaminated conditions is the dry V1 - 10 kts

How does screen height change with a we V1?

Answer: Screen height is reduced for a jet aircraft using a wet V1. This is due to a portion of the airborne distance being added to the ground run as a result
of the increased ground run used between the wet V1 and Vr if an engine failure occurs a the worst point just after the wet V1 and prior to Vr.

How does slope affects V1 speed?

Answer: Any factor (such as an upward slope) that decreases acceleration will increase the distance required to get from V1 to V2. If spare distance is not
available then V1 MUST be increased making it closer to V2. This makes an increased V1 NECESSARY. So an upward slope means that V1 MUST be
increased to complete the take-off. A downward slope will reduce V1.

Notams, and how are they distributed?

Answer: Three categories. These are NOTAM (D) or distant, NOTAMâ•?(L) or local, and Flight Data Center (FDC) NOTAMs.
• CLASS I NOTAMS (ICAO): NOTAMs distributed by means of telecommunication.
• CLASS II NOTAMS (ICAO) OR PUBLISHED NOTAMS: NOTAMs distributed by means other than telecommunications. In the United States these
NOTAMs are published in the Notices To Airmen Publication (NTAP) which is issued every 28 days.

What is a Dutch Roll?

Answer: A Dutch Roll is a combination of rolling and yawing (coupled lateral/directional) oscillations that normally occurs when the dihedral effects of an
aircraft are more powerful than the directional stability. .Please refer to this page for more information

Describe the spiral stability of the A320 in Normal Law?
Answer:
ON A320:
Neutral spiral stability as commanded by the pilot but positive spiral stability in case of external disturbance.
Positive spiral stability beyond 33° bank angle. This means beyond 33 degrees of bank and you release the joystick the bank will roll back to 33 degrees.
In case of engine failure contenaining the bank angle into a safe limit

What happens if you move C.G from fw to aft position?

Answer: It will be tail heavy, and the horizontal tailplane will have a short memento arm that will result in the aircraft is longitudinally unstable because it is too
tail heavy for the horizontal tailplane. Light stick forces for pitch is required. A decreased wing angle of attack which results in lower induced drag. It will also
increase aircraft range.

Effect of Forward C.G.?

Answer: Longitudinal stability is increased because the aircraft is nose heavy. The aircraft's pitch control is reduced because it experiences high stick forces
due to the aircraft's long tailplane moment arm. Increased wing angle of attack, witch will reduce in higher induced drag. Will reduce aircraft performance and
range. The stalling speed will increase.

Effect of fwd and aft C.G on performance stability and fuel?

fwd C.G. = High Angle of Atack , increase induced drag which will decrease performance and range. Longitudinal stability is increased because aircraft is
nose heavy.
aft C.G.= Low Angle of attack on the wing, which reduces induced drag. Fuel sufficient and increase aircraft range. The aircraft is longitudinal unstable.

What is the effect of aft C.G. and range?

Answer: Aft C.G. increases range

Lift Formula is?

Answer: L = (1/2) d v2 s CL

Which device increase the stalling AoA?

Ans: Slats

How is gliding distance affected by the weight of the aircraft?

Answer: Not affected by weight

What is the effect of speed brakes and ailerons simultaneous input?

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Answer:

During flare aircraft will float, why?

Answer: Using to high AoA, height of A/C is 1/2 wingspan (and some other answers duing the test)

If you are climbing at 270/.80 and then you increase your speed to 290/.80 are you going to reach the .80M earlier or later?
Answer: Earlier

If in a turn and try to maintain the same speed and altitude, what do you have to do?
Ans: Increase Power

MCRIT?
Answer: It's aircrafts Mach speed at which the airflow over a wing becomes sonic - crtical mach number. The aircrafts Mach speed is lower than the airflow
speed over a wing.

Why use Swept back wing?

Efficient for high speed aircrafts.

The boundary layer is a layer in which…? (You will be given 4 answers to choose from)
Answer: A thin layer of air next to the surface of an airfoil which shows a reduction in speed due to the airs viscosity or stickiness. the boundary layer can be
described either laminar or turbulent.

Roll is the movement of an aircraft along the?

ANSW: Longitudinal axis

Spoilers deployed have the following effect:

ANSWER: The Cl max decreases and Drag coefficient increases

What does DER/MORA stands for?

Answer: MORA = Minimum off route altitude. The MORA will guarantee you 1000 feet of obstacle clearance if below 6000 feet and 2000 feet of clearance
above 7000 feet.
DER = Departure end of Runway

What is the CAT I minimum?

ANSWER: DH200 feet , RVR2400 feet

What is the minimum obstruction clearance for IFR flights in mountainous regions?
ANSWER: Within 8km of the estimated position of the aircraft 2000ft above the highest obstacle

What is the definition of the speed Vr?

ANSWER: At Vr the pilot should start to rotate the airplane

What is the situation if the GPWS alerts with “DON’T SINK, DON’T SINK”?
Answer: Excessive altitude loss after takeoff or go-around

What happens to the stall speed Vs if weight of aircraft decrease?

Answer: Decreases

The actual Take-Off Mass (TOM) is?

Answer: The Take Off Mass is th mass of the aircraft at the start of the take-off run.

The actual Take-Off Mass is equivalent to:

Answer: Dry Operating Mass plus take-off fuel and the traffic load

MTOM and MLM, what type of limitations are these?

Answer: MTOM and MLM are either structural or performance limits.

Alert messages (lights) that require crew attention but not immediate action are what color?
Answer: Amber

TCAS is based upon the operation of?

ANSWER: a/c transponder

The fix distance markings on a RWY are at what distance?

Answer: 300 Meter (990 feet)

Red pyrotechnic or red flare from aircraft to tower means?

Answer: Red means the pilot requires immediate assistance
Aircraft shoot white, green or red flares. White means that the pilot is compelled to land. Green, at night, means may I land, and by day means may I land in a
different direction from that indicated.

What is loop or pigtail in an impulse line?

Answer:
1- Pigtail is used only in steam line which helps to convert steam vapour phase in to liquid water phase.
2-Avoid high temperature directly contact in instrument like pressure gauges, pressure transmitters.
3- Finally it reduces hight pressure into low pressure and avoid vibration in impulse lines.
Pigtail is also called syphon. It is used to reduce temperature of fluid like steam before enter in to the pressure gouges or pressure transmitter for
measurement.

How does control valves work?

Answer: Control valves are valves used to control conditions such as flow, pressure, temperature, and liquid level by fully or partially opening or closing in
response to signals received from controllers that compare a "setpoint" to a "process variable" whose value is provided by sensors that monitor changes in
such conditions.

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The opening or closing of control valves is usually done automatically by electrical, hydraulic or pneumatic actuators. Positioners are used to control the
opening or closing of the actuator based on electric, or pneumatic signals

What is a Barrette?
Answer: Is three or more ground lights closely spaced together to appear as a set of a bar of lights.

When does the Hold over time starts? At the beginning of: First step? Second step? Or at the end of First step or second step?
Answer: A goldover time starts at the beginning of the last step in the de-ice/anti-ice process. So if you de-ice then apply anti-ice fluid your holdover time
starts at the beginning of the anti-ice fluid application.

What is a CLASS B Fire?

Answer: These are fires whose fuel is flammable or combustible liquid or gas.

FIRST indication of hyperventilation?

Ans: Overbreathing, excessively breathing

What does the Blood transport?

Ans: hemoglobin

What are the consequences of fatigue and sleeplessness?

Answer: Reduced performance

90 knots is equal to how many km/hr

Answer: Answer: 166 Km/hr

What is the lowest visibility forecast at ETA Zurich 1430 UTC?

LSZH 260900Z 261019 20018G30KT 9999 RA SCT050
BKN080 TEMPO 1215 23012KT 6000 DZ BKN015 BKN030 BECMG 1518 23020G35KT 4000 RA OVC010=
Answer: 6km

Relative humidity depends on:

Answer: Moisture content and temperature of the air

During initiation of a turn with speedbrakes extended, the roll spoiler function induces a spoiler deflection:
Answer: On the downgoing wing only

Which of the following statements is correct regarding stop way?

A stop way means an area beyond the take off runway, able to support the aeroplane during an aborted take off

What are the minimum and maximum values of V1 in not limited by VMBE?
Answer: V1 cannot be less than Vmcg, nor greater than Vr. The available field lengths (TOD, TOR, ASD) may define min/max values, or a single value,
between those limits.

Which of the following is true with regard to VMCA (air minimum control speed)?
Answer: Straight flight cannot be maintained below VMCA, when the critical engine has failed

A DME is located at MSL. An aircraft passing vertically above the station at flight level FL 360 will obtain a DME range of approximately:
Answer: 6 NM

Fair weather cumulus often is an indication of:

Answer: Turbulence at and below the cloud level

The presence of ice pellets at the surface is evidence that:

Answer: Freezing rain occurs at a higher altitude.

Compared with stalling airspeed (VS) in a given configuration, the airspeed at which stick shaker will be triggered is?
Answer: Greater than Vs

What s the definition of virga?

Answer: Precipitation that falls from a cloud but evaporates before reaching the ground.

What s the meaning of lenticular clouds?

Answer: Mountain waves

Inbound course for holding is 053 with STD turn. Your approach heading is 233, so what is the procedure?
Answer: Once cleared for the approach you just intercept the outbound course for the holding and you should be on your approach heading.

When does the optimum altitude increase?

Answer: Tailwind headwind weight pressure

Mod c 2000 meaning?

Answer: Flying over areas without transponder requirement

What cloud delivers hail.

Answer: Cb

You have been intercepted, the frequency for communication is?

Answer: 121.5 or 243.0 MHz

A traffic coming from right. Which light do u see?

Answer: Fixed red

Speed 120 Ground Speed, approach angle 3,what s the fpm?

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Answer: 600fpm

High pressure altitude effect what? Landing distance increases, decreases, etc
Answer: Landing distance increases

Vmca assures what after engine failure?

Answer: Straight flight

Induced drag is produced by?

Answer: Lift

The Ground Proximity Warning System (GPWS) is a system working according to a height span ranging from:
Answer: 50 ft to 2500 ft

Noise min climb thrust change altitude?

Answer: 800 feet AGL

The navigation lights must be capable of being seen within how many degrees?
Answer: 110 degrees

What is secondary surveillance radar and how it works?

Secondary radar works on the respondent-reply signal principle. It requires the active participation of an aircraft, which transmits a new return / reply signal
back to the ground station whenever it receives an interrogation signal. This is accomplished by using an active onboard device called a transponder. The
transponder device also allows the return signal to carry additional information, such as an identification code and even the aircraft's altitude, that allows the
radar controller to easily identify a particular aircraft on this or her screen. Therefore, secondary radar is in fact two sets of radar talking to each other.

What is GPS?
Answer: The Global Positioning System, or GPS, can show you your exact position on Earth any time, anywhere, in any weather. The system consists of a
constellation of 24 satellites (with about 6 "spares") that orbit 11,000 nautical miles above Earth’s surface and continuously send signals to ground stations
that monitor and control GPS operations. GPS satellite signals can also be detected by GPS receivers, which calculate their locations anywhere on Earth
within less than a meter by determining distances from at least three GPS satellites. No other navigation system has ever been so global or so accurate.

Convert from Celsius to Farenheit? know the formula F = 9 / 5 C + 32 C = 5 / 9 (F - 32)

What is temperature inversion?

Answer: an inversion is a deviation from the normal change of an atmospheric property with altitude. It almost always refers to a temperature inversion, i.e.
an increase in temperature with height.

What does the take over button on the airbus on the side stick do?
Answer: if you push it, it will disengage the autopilot. Also if you hold it more than 40 seconds it will transfer the control of the sidestick to the crew that hold it
for more than 40 seconds.

Define Clim Gradient?

Answer: Climb gradient is a slope most frequently expressed in terms of altitude gain per 100 feet of horizontal distance, whereupon it is stated as a
percentage.

On take off and high speed you realize your tires are deflated. What do you do and how does it affect the braking performance?
Answer: Abort the takeoff before V1. It will reduce braking performance.

If you scuba dive greater than 30 ft, how long should you wait before flying?
Answer: 24 hrs

IFR and RVSM Flight levels?

Ans: 0-179 Magnetic Track, Degrees odd numbers, 180-359 Even numbers
Vertical Separation is only 1000 ft up to FL290 and 2000 ft above FL290 in non-RVSM airspace and only 1000 ft in RVSM airspace i all levels.

Why are Flight Level intervals increased to 2000 ft in non RVSM airspace?
Ans: Because of altimeter errors (lower air density). Reduced vertical RVSM to 1000ft separation above FL290 is granted to aircraft with advanced and more
accurate altimeters, usually crowded routes (Trans Atlantic Routes)

Heading rose is frozen on 200 deg and you are lined up on the ILS 25. Your Localizer needle will be?
Answer: Centered

What is MNPS?
Answer: Minimum Navigation Performance Specification

Minimum Temperature in Standard Atmosphere?

Answer: -56.5 degrees Celsius.

How many degrees of pitch would you fly with an engine failed right after take off? What would you see on the PFD?
Answer: Airbus 320 12.5 degrees and fallow the SRS orders which will may demand a lower pitch attitude to acquire or maintain V2.

Below are few questions that we can't provide any answers due to insufficient information submitted to us.
You are given a take off weight and asked to give the aircraft basic weight? (just subtract all other loads such as traffic load and fuel load)
Limitation for alternate limits?
MN Calculation?
Standby horizon energy source. With an independent gyro?!
ISA parameters? 15C 1013,25hPa 1225gr/m2 lapse 0,65c/1000m

Please Note: At the bottom of the page you will see a file called "Additional Study Guide" it is strongly recommended to review it after
going through the questions above

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(3) Qatar Airways Panel Interview (HR and Chief Pilot) We will not provide any answers for questions below.

Tell us about yourself?

Tell us about your family?
Does your wife approve your job in Qatar?
Why Qatar Airways?
What do you know about Qatar Airways?
Tell us about current fleet types?
Number of airplanes?
Name some of the destinations Qatar flies to?
Milestones of the company?
Qatar Airways CEO Name?
What do you expect from Qatar Airways?
What can you bring to the company?
How long time do you need to notify your company?
Do you currently have a bond with your company?
Why should we hire you instead of other applicants?
Why do you wan to leave your current job?
Tell us 10 good/bad things about you?
What makes a good/bad Captain/First Officer? Why
Have you flown with a demanding Captain? Give an Example
Give us an example you gave positive feedback to the crew and why?
Give us an example when you had made a decision initially and then at the advice of somebody else you changed that decision?
Give us an example where you had to adapt to somebody's work rules?
Give us an example where you disagreed with a decision?
Give us an example where politely but forcefully had to tell somebody to do something?
Any time a Captain or First Officer didn't agree with you?
Have you had someone to misinterpreting you? Give an Example

On take off and while on high speed you realize your tires are deflated. What do you do? and how does it affect the breaking performance?
If you have a bomb in the airplane what do you do?
Do you have a bomb immediate action in your company?
What is the definition of safe take off distance?
What are the five major elements in a emergency descent?
What is MNPS Alt Limits?
How many degrees of Pitch would you fly with an engine failure right after take off? What would you see on the PFD?
What is you company procedures for .......examples will be given....and what do you think about it?

- Introduce yourself briefly.

- What will change in your life when you will join?
- In which aircraft do you see yourself? Why?

Then they will ask you many situations questions. Important is to say what YOU did in this situation. Do not say we did this and that but I did .....

- Give an example when you had to go outside of SOPs. What did you do? Why? Do you think it was the good choice?

- Have you ever flown with a captain who was not following SOPs? What did you do? Why?

-State your company for a given emergency situation? What do you think about it? What would you change?

-Have you ever face an emergency or abnormal situation in flight? What did you do? Why?

- What cause you stress? How do you cope with it? Give an example when you were under stress? What did you do? Why

- What makes you angry? Give an example when you were angry. What did you do?

- In Qatar Airways there are many different cultures and religion. How will you cope with that?

It is important to give example in each situation. While you are speaking they will ask you secondary questions about the situation.

- Give your negative points? Give examples?

- What your colleagues would say about you?
- It is possible that you will not be on the fleet that you requested. Is that a problem for you?
- Ask your questions to the recruiters?

If you are Type Rated on one of Qatar Airways fleet, Question will be asked on:
Briefly explain the Electrical System?
The Hydraulic System?
Procedures for missed approach 2 engine?
Procedures for missed approach single engine?
Evasion maneuver for ground approximate?
Evasion maneuver for windshear? Limitations
What does the take over button on the side stick do on Airbus?

Qatar Airways Sim Assessment

The sim assessment varies from day to day, so we will post one of the sim
assessment that recently occurred.
The sim ride will most likely be an airbus 330, or sometimes A320. Depart
LHR RWY 27R, (or it could be RWY 34 DOHA). Straight out departure,

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sometimes the instructor will let you do some general handling, such as steep
turn, climb, descent so you get a feel of the airplane. But most of the time
they will immediate vector you for an ILS to land. You will be lined up for take
off again, and this time you might get an engine failure before V1. Then you
get a fire on the A/C, ask for memory items. Request mayday, Do the after
T/O checklist, ask for rest of checklist. Let the pilot not flying Inform Cabin
Crew and packs, quickly back request short vectors and fire guys to be
ready when you land. Do a briefing about evacuation etc. Be aware for GS
interception, since you might approach at a lower alt for the ILS. The sim
usually takes around 30-45 Minutes.

(UPDATED) SIMULATOR Assessment from April, 2011 SIMULATOR

(A330) was only 30minutes for me ! Take off to 3000ft than climbing and descending turns to get familiarized. Thereafter “intercept radial 180” with use of raw
data and ND (London VOR). Thereafter “intercept radial 150”. This was very strange because I am not familiarized with Airbus indications concerning VOR!
Boeing is much easier (VOR Rose mode, just fly into the needle…) and the instructor didn’t explain anything although he claimed during briefing. No TO/FROM
indication was there…All applicants made turns into wrong direction – but thereafter intercepted successful. NO MALFUNCTIONS And NO ABNORMALS.
Finally radar vectors for downwind HDG 090 for ILS 27R. Landing and
session over. I really don’t know my impression was that the instructor was not interested in our briefings and CRM. There may be other instructors who care
about CRM and Abnormals like a friend of mine did (APU Fire). The 330 is nice to fly and actually you get used to immediately.
Only VOR indication is different and was
strange to all BOEING guys that day. But all in all fair and they don’t put you under pressure. It takes 2-3 weeks until you get an answer! Nobody knows why! This
is a very long time, my opinion is that they are planning for you because most of people who pass interview were hired after sim.

(Updated on (29/09/2011) Simulator Assessment!

Sim A330 or rarely B777
You will take off from LHR RWY27 then left and right turn. Intercept radial LHR 212 inbound (don't turn the wrong way). Then intercept R 270 outbound. Then
visual approach and landing on RNW27. The different attitude and power settings will be send to you.
Then you take off again from LHR RWY27 turn downwind and you will have an emergency situation (APU fire, cargo fire,...) But no engine fire. You will have
to come back to land on RWY27. It will be an ILS raw data.

Everything has to be flown without any automation. No A/T, No A/P, No F/D.

Also they use the VOR arrows.. meaning it always points to the station, the tail will be your radial.

They will phone you the result 2-3 days after the sim.

Approach Plates Approach Plates

London Heatrow Doha International Airport
ILS RWY 27R ILS RWY 34 ILS RWY 16 VOR RWY 34
ILS RWY 27L
ILS RWY 09R
ILS RWY 09L

Below you will find feedback from March 2012! Recommended to review

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Below you will find feedback from February 2012! Recommended to review

Below is feedback from October 2011! Recommended to review.

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Dear Visitors, thank you for subscribing to Qatar Airways Pilot Interview Gouge. We wish you the best during your
interview and would like to hear back from you regarding our question bank and our interview gouge after your interview.
This way we can update and improve our gouge. Please contact us at info@latestpilotjobs.com

Additional Study Guide

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