Class XII : Biology

Chapter 6 : Molecular basis of Inheritance

1. DNA replication is
(a) Conservative and discontinuous
(b) Semiconservative and semidiscontinuous
(c) Semiconservative and discontinuous
(d) Conservative
1. (b) In semi-conservative replication of DNA in each replica, one half is the old
strand and the other half is a new strand synthesized over it and it is
continuous on one strand and dis-continuous on other strand.

2. The process of transfer of genetic information from DNA to RNA/formation of

RNA from DNA is
(a) Transversion (b) Transcription
(c) Translation (d) Translocation
2. (b) Central dogma of protein synthesis explains a unidirectional or one way flow
of information from DNA to RNA (transcription) and from RNA to polypeptide
(translation).

3. During DNA replication, the strands separate by

(a) DNA polymerase
(b) Topoisomerase
(c) Unwindase/Helicase
(d) Gyrase
3. (c) Unwindase or helicase takes part in separation of two DNA strands. In
prokaryotes, helicase or unwindase is assisted by gyrase in this function.

4. Because most of the amino acids are represented by more than one codon, the
genetic code is
(a) Overlapping (b) Wobbling
(c) Degenerate (d) Generate
4. (c) All amino acids are specified by more than one codon (except Tryptophan
and Methionine). Hence they are degenerate.

5. Protein helping in opening of DNA double helix in front of replication fork is

(a) DNA gyrase

(b) DNA polymerase I
(c) DNA ligase
(d) DNA topoisomerase
5. (a) DNA gyrase participates in the unwinding of DNA helix during replication.

6. In Escherichia coli, lac operon is induced by

(a) Lactose (b) Promoter gene
(c) β-galactosidase (d) I-gene
6. (a) Lac operon is an inducible operon system which regulates genetic material.
The genetic material remains switched off normally but becomes operational
in the presence of inducer.

7. In split genes, the coding sequences are called

(a) Introns (b) Operons (c) Exons (d) Cistrons
7. (c) The region of a gene, which becomes part of mRNA and code for different
regions of the proteins are called exons.

8. The lac operon is an example of

(a) Arabinose operon (b) Inducible operon
(c) Repressible operon (d) Overlapping genes
8. (b) The lac operon consists of a promotor gene, an operator gene and a
structural gene. There are three structural genes designated as z, y and a,
which code for the enzymes β-galactosidase, lac permease and
transacetylase respectively. It is an example of inducible operon.

9. The eukaryotic genome differs from the prokaryotic genome because

(a) Genes in the former case are organized into operons.
(b) The DNA is complexed with histones in prokaryotes.
(c) Repetitive sequences are present in eukaryotes.
(d) The DNA is circular and single stranded in prokaryotes.
9. (c) DNA is complexed with histones in eukaryotes.

10. Protein synthesis occurs

(a) On ribosmes present in cytosol as well as in mitochindria
(b) Only on ribosomes attached to the nuclear envelope and endoplasmic
reticulum
(c) Only on the ribosomes present in cytosol
(d) On ribosomes present in the nucleolus as well as cytoplasm
10. (a) Ribosomes are the sites of protein synthesis. Mitochondrion being a semi-
autonomous organelle has its own protein synthesizing machinery.

11. In which direction mRNA is synthesised on DNA template?

(a) 5´ to 3´ (b) 3´ to 5´ (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Any
11. (a) The enzyme RNA polymerase can synthesize the bases only in 5´ to 3’
direction.

12. Gene and cistron words are sometimes used synonymously because
(a) One cistron contains many genes
(b) One gene contains many cistrons
(c) One gene contains one cistron
(d) One gene contains no cistron
12. (c) Cistron is that segment of DNA which specifies synthesis of a polypeptide.

13. During translation initiation in prokaryotes, a GTP molecule is needed in

(a) Association of 50 S subunit of ribosome with initiation complex
(b) Formation of formyl-met-tRNA
(c) Binding of 30 S subunit of ribosome with mRNA
(d) Association of 30 S-mRNA with formyl-met-tRNA
13. (d) For the formation of initiation complex during translation of mRNA, GTP is
also required. The initiator AUG codes for the formylmethionine in
prokaryotes.

14. In transgenics, expression of transgene in target tissue is determined by

(a) Enhancer (b) Transgene
(c) Promoter (d) Reporter
14. (b) Transgenic organisms are genetically modified organisms.

15. During transcription, holoenzyme RNA polymerase binds to a DNA sequence and
the DNA assumes a saddle like structure at that point. What is that sequence
called?
(a) AAAT box (b) TATA box (c) GGTT box (d) CAAT box
15. (b) About 28-base pairs from transcription start site are TATA boxes. After 40
bases from TATA boxes, appears a TAAT box. Both of these sequences serve
as recognition site in Eukaryotic peomoters (Transcription in eukaryotic
genes in a far more complicated process than in prokaryotes)

16. The mutation not involving a multiple of three base pairs is —

(a) Nonsense mutation
(b) Frameshift mutation
(c) Suppressor mutation
(d) None of the above
16. (b)Frameshift mutations are nucleotide additions and deletions not involving a
multiple of three base pairs, which move the ‘reading frame’ of tRNA to left or
right during translation phase of protein synthesis.

17. Ergotism is a
(a) a disease of humans and certain domestic animals
(b) a disease of chicken
(c) viral disease
(d) all of these
17. (a) Ergotism is a complex disease of humans and certain domestic animals,
caused by ingestion of grains and cereals infested by ergot (a fungus). There
are three types of ergotism: (i) gangrenous, (ii) convulsive and (iii)
hallucinogenic.

18. RFLPS can serve as genetic markers for certain debilitating genetic disorders,
such as —
(a) Sickle-cell anaemia
(b) Cystic fibrosis
(c) Duchenna muscular dystrophy
(d) All the above
18. (d)Early in life, RFLP analysis can predict with high accuracy the embryos of
people who will later develop debilitating genetic disorders. The current
genetic tests for sickle-cell anaemia, cystic fibrosis, PKU and Duchenne
muscular dystrophy are all based on RFLP analysis.
19. Incomplete proteins are —
(a) Most animal proteins
(b) Most plant proteins
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these
19. (b) Most animal origin proteins contain all the 10 essential amino acids, and are
called complete proteins. Most plant origin proteins do not contain all the
essential amino acids, hence called incomplete proteins.

20. Extra-nuclear inheritance occurs in —

(a) Killer strain in Paramecium
(b)Colour blindness
(c) Phenylketonuria
(d)Tay-sach disease
20. (a) One of the most striking and spectacular case of extra-nuclear inheritance
occurs in Paramicium Aurelia. Sonneborn (1938) reported that some strains
contain kappa particles in the cytoplasm and are known as killers.

21. Satellite DNA has —

(a) Repetitive sequences
(b)Recondensing during DNA hybridization
(c) Constitutive heterochromatin
(d)All the above
21. (b)Satellite DNA has large repetative sequences of chromosomal DNA forming
about 30% of the eukaryotic genome, recondensing rapidly during during
DNA hybridization consists of constitutive heterochromatin.

22. The central dogma of molecular biology —

(a) States that DNA is a template for RNA production during transcription.
(b)States that DNA is a template only for DNA production.
(c) States that translation precodes transcription.
(d)Pertains only to prokaryotes because humans are unique.
22. (a) The central dogma of molecular biology states that DNA is template for its
own replication and also for RNA formation during transcription.

23. Genotoxicity refers to the detection of agent that will damage —

(a) DNA (b) Enzyme
(c) Protein (d) Vitamins
23. (a) In this case damage is caused to genetic material, i.e. DNA.

24. A collection of closely linked genes that tend to behave as a single unit, is called
—
(a) Supergene (b) Polygene
(c) Bicoid gene (d) Gene frequency
24. (a) Supergene is group of gene loci with mutually reinforcing effects upon
phenotype that have come to lie on the same chromosome, closely linked so
as to be inherited as a block.
25. B-DNA is:
(a) Antiparallel and right handed
(b) Antiparallel and left handed
(c) Parallel and right handed
(d) Parallel and left handed
25. (a) The B-DNA occurs under the physiological conditions in the living cells. The different types of
DNA are A, B, C, D and Z. All DNAs are right handed except Z-DNA.

Class 12
Chapter 3
Molecular Basis of Inheritance

1. DNA molecules in E. coli is heavy (labeled with N15) and is allowed to replicate
in a medium containing N14. After one generation of replication, the two
daughter molecules-
a. Will be hybrid in density, and differ from that of the parent DNA
b. Will differ in density from one another and also from that of the parent
DNA
c. Will have the same density as that of the parent DNA
d. Will differ in density from one another but will resemble the parent
molecules
Ans. (a) The DNA of the E. coli one generation after the transfer from 15N to 14N
medium [that is after 20 minutes; E. coli divides in 20 minutes] had a hybrid
or intermediate density.

2. Bacterial DNA differ from DNA of eukaryotes in having-

a. Only unique sequences
b. Both repeated and unique sequences
c. Always in association with proteins
d. Replication associated with centrioles
Ans. (a) Bacterial DNA differ from DNA of eukaryotes as it has only unique
sequences.

3. DNA polymerase helps in-

a. Replication of DNA
b. Denaturation
c. Renaturation
d. Seperation of two strands of DNA
Ans. (a) A DNA polymerase is an enzyme that assists in DNA replication. Such
enzymes catalyze the polymerization of deoxyribonucleotides alongside a DNA
strand, which they "read" and use as a template.

4. DNA replication occurs in-

a. Mitosis only
b. Meiosis only
c. Meiosis I and mitosis
d. Meiosis II and mitosis
Ans. (c) DNA replication occurs during the “S” phases of mitosis and meiosis.

5. The first undoubted evidence about DNA being the genetic material comes
from-
 a. Transformation of rough coated strain of Diplococcus pneumonae into
smooth coated strain
b. The establishment of DNA as chief chemical constituent of
chromosomes
c. The establishment of DNA as a self replicating substances
d. Transduction of bacteria by action of bacteriophage
Ans. (a) The unequivocal proof that DNA is the genetic material came from the
experiments of Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase (1952). They worked with
viruses that infect bacteria called bacteriophages.

6. There are 64 codons in genetic code dictionary because-

a. There are 64 type of t-RNAs found in cell
b. There are 44 meaningless and 20 codons for amino acids
c. There are 64 amino acids to be coded
d. Genetic code is triplet
Ans. (d) George Gamov postulated that a three-letter code must be employed to
encode the 20 different amino acids used by living cells to encode proteins
(because 3 is the smallest n such that 4n is at least 20).

7. Genetic code was deciphered by chemically synthesizing nucleotides by-

a. Watson and Crick
b. Beadle and Tatum
c. M.W. Nirenberg and H.G. Khurana
d. None of these
Ans. (c) The first elucidation of a codon was done by Marshall Nirenberg and
Heinrich J. Matthaei in 1961 at the National Institutes of Health. Nirenberg's
group was able to determine the sequences of 54 out of 64 codons.
Subsequent work by Har Gobind Khorana identified the rest of the code,

8. The genetic information is carried by long chain molecules of-

a. Enzymes
b. Amino acids
c. Nucleotides
d. Chromosomes
Ans. (b) A molecule of DNA which is responsible for the transfer of genetic
information, consists of a long chain of nucleotides that are composed of
deoxyribose, a 5-carbon sugar, a phosphate group linked to the bases
(nucleotides) adenine, thymine, cytosine and guanine.

9. In m-RNA ‘AUG’ is the initiating codon and UAA, UAG and UGA are
terminating codons, therefore the polypeptide cannot be synthesized beyond
any these triplets to the end of m-RNA, then which one of the following m-
RNA can be translated completely-
a. AUG UUG UCC UGA UGG UAU
b. AUG UUC UCC UGG UAA UAU
c. AUG UAU UUC UGC CUG GUU
d. AUG AGG UAU UUC UGA CUC
Ans. (c) AUG UAU UUC UGC CUG GUU sequence will be transcribe fully because
there is no any stop codon.

10. The sigma factor of RNA polymerase ensures-

a. The correction of amino acid sequence in polypeptide chain
 b. That RNA polymerase binds stably to DNA at any site
c. That DNA polymerase binds stably to RNA only at promoter site to
cause replication of RNA
d. That RNA polymerase binds stably to DNA only at promoter site to
initiate transcription
Ans. (d) A sigma factor (σ factor) is a prokaryotic transcription initiation factor
that must be part of RNA polymerase (RNAP) for specific binding to promoter
sites on DNA.

11. Which is true that-

a. RNA is single stranded
b. Mostly cellular RNA is single stranded
c. RNA is double stranded
d. Both RNA (single and double) stranded found in equal amount
Ans. (

12. Eukaryotes differ from prokaryotes in the mechanism of DNA replication due
to-
a. Different enzymes (instead of same enzyme), for synthesis of lagging
and leading strands
b. Discontinuous rather than semi discontinuous replication
c. Use of DNA primers rather than RNA primers
d. Unidirectional rather than bidirectional replication
Ans. (a)

13. RNA primer is require for-

a. DNA repair
b. DNA replication
c. Translation
d. Transcription
Ans. (b) A primer is required because no DNA polymerases, enzymes that catalyze
the replication of DNA, can begin synthesizing a new DNA strand from
scratch, but can only add to an existing strand of nucleotides.

14. The exact replication of DNA is possible due to the base pairing rules. Which
enzyme catalyses the synthesis of a new strand for a DNA molecule by linking
nucleotides to the developing strand-
a. Topoisomerases
b. Helicases
c. DNA polymerases
d. DNA T4 ligases
Ans. (c) A DNA polymerase is an enzyme that assists in DNA replication. Such
enzymes catalyze the polymerization of deoxyribonucleotides alongside a DNA
strand, which they "read" and use as a template.

!5. Which of the following does not code for any protein-
a. Exon
b. Intron
c. Bacterial DNA
d. None of these
Ans. (b) Introns, derived from the term "intragenic regions", are non-coding
sections of DNA that are eliminated by splicing in the formation of mature
mRNA and therefore not expressed as proteins.
16. Which enzyme is basically involved in DNA repair-
a. Primase
b. Ligases
c. DNA polymerase I
d. DNA polymerase II
Ans. (c) DNA polymerase I is the enzyme which has exonuclease activity and
involved in the repair of DNA.

17. Genes are packaged into a bacterial chromosome by-

a. Histones
b. Basic proteins
c. Acidic proteins
d. None of these
Ans. (b) The proteins which are responsible for the packaging of the bacterial DNA
are the basic proteins.

18. Genes are located on chromosomes in-

a. Linear fashion
b. Circular fashion
c. Helical fashion
d. Spiral fasion
Ans. (a) The interpretation was given in 1911 by the American geneticist Thomas
Hunt Morgan about the foundation of the theory of linear arrangement of
genes in the chromosomes.

19. A gene which synthesizes a repressor protein is-

a. Operator gene
b. Structural gene
c. Promoter gene
d. Regulator gene
Ans. (d) Regulator gene is a gene that causes the production of a repressor protein
that regulates or suppresses the activity of one or more structural genes.

20. Which process is reffered to as translation-

a. Decoding of the triplet codons by tRNA to mRNA
b. Decoding of the triplet codons by mRNA to tRNa
c. Decoding of amino acids to proteins
d. None of these
Ans. (a) Translation is the process that takes the information passed from DNA as
triplet codons on messenger RNA and turns this into a series of amino acids
by decoding it with tRNA..

21. In E. coli, lac operon is induced by-

a. Promoter gene
b. The I gene
c. Lactose
d. Beta galactosidase
Ans. (c) Lactose is the substrate for the enzyme beta-galactosidase and it
regulates switching on and off of the operon. Hence, it is termed as inducer.

22. In E. coli, according to the operon theory, an operator gene combines with-
a. Regulator protein to switch on structural gene transcription
 b. Regulatory protein to switch off structural gene transcription
c. Inducer gene to switch on structural gene transcription
d. Regulator gene to switch on structural gene transcription
Ans. (b) The repressor (regulatory protein) of the operon is synthesised (all-the-
time – constitutively) from the i gene. The repressor protein binds to the
operator region of the operon and prevents RNA polymerase from transcribing
the operon.

23. The enzymes necessary for the break down of lactose into glucose and
galactose when the lactose is added to the medium of the E. coli are-
a. - galactosidase
b. - galactosidase and transcetylase
c. - galactosidase, permease and transacetylase
d. Prmease and transacetylase
Ans (a) The z gene codes for beta-galactosidase ( -gal), which is primarily
responsible for the hydrolysis of the disaccharide, lactose into its monomeric
units, galactose and glucose. The y gene codes for permease, which increases
permeability of the cell to -galactosides. The a gene encodes a
transacetylase. Hence, all the three gene products in lac operon are required
for metabolism of lactose.

24. In both inducible and repressible systems, the synthesis of protein is

controlled by-
a. Operator gene through regulator gene
b. Regulator gene through operator gene
c. Promoter genen through regulator gene
d. Operator gene through regulator and promoter gene
Ans. (b) Negative as well as positive regulation of operon is under control of
operator gene which is under the control of regulator gene.

25 The non-essential part of a cistron are called-

a. Exons
b. Introns
c Intervening sequences
d. Introns and intervening sequences
Ans. (d) The section of a chromosome that controls a single function is called
cistrons which are split with coding regions, called exons (for expressed
sequences), interrupted by intervening, non-coding sequences called introns
(for intervening sequences).