Mock 18075 1646227013065

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Mock Test Solutions in English
Questions
1. Direction: Study the following data carefully and answer the questions accordingly.
Ten boxes are placed one above the other in a stack. Only four boxes are placed below O. Three boxes
are placed between O and R. Five boxes are placed between R and N. One box is placed between N and
M, which is placed immediately above V. Three boxes are placed between V and F. K is placed
immediately below W. L is placed above Q.
Which of the following boxes is placed at the bottom?

A. M B. F
C. R D. Q
E. None of these
2. How many boxes are placed between M and L?
A. Four B. One
C. Two D. Three
E. None
3. How many boxes are placed above Q?
A. More than four B. Less than four
C. More than three D. Less than two
E. Less than three
4. What is the position of W?
A. Second from the top B. Fifth from the top
C. Fourth from the bottom D. Third from the bottom
E. None of these
5. How many letters are there in alphabetical series between the box placed at the top and the box placed
exactly between V and Q?
A. Three B. Seven
C. One D. Five
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E. None of these
6. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word IRREVERENCE each of which has as many letters
between them (in both forward and backward direction) in the word as in the English alphabet?
A. Four B. One
C. Five D. Two
E. None of these
Point Z is 15m west of point X. Point Y is 15m west of point V. Point S is 20m south of point T. Point X is
25m north of point W, which is 15m east of point R. Point S is 10m west of point R, which is 20m north of
point V.
Point V is in which direction with respect to point Z?

A. South B. North-East
C. North-West D. West
E. None of these
8. Point W is in which direction with respect to point S?
A. South B. North-West
C. East D. North
E. None of these
Ten people are sitting in two rows. In Row 1 – P, Q, R, S, and T are sitting facing the south direction and in
Row 2 – F, G, H, J, and K are sitting facing the north direction but not necessarily in the same order.
T sits third to the right of R. The one, who sits opposite T, sits second to the left of K. F sits to the right of
K. Two people sit between F and G, who does not sit opposite T. P sits second to the right of S. J does not
sit opposite R.
How many people sit between J and K?

A. Three B. Two
C. One D. Either One or Two
E. None
10. Who among the following sits opposite S?
A. J B. K
C. F D. H
E. None of these
11. Who among the following sits to the right of Q?
A. R B. T
C. S D. P
E. None of these
12. Find the correct statement/statements from the following.
1) H sits to the right of F.
2) P sits opposite G.
3) J sits diagonally opposite S.

A. Only 2 B. Both 1 and 3
C. Both 2 and 3 D. Only 3
E. None is incorrect
13. Four from the following are similar in a certain way and forms a group. Find out the one, which does not
belong to that group.
A. T B. J
C. R D. F
E. S
14. Direction: Study the data carefully and answer the questions accordingly.
Six people M, N, O, P, Q, and S got different ranks in a class test. At most three people got different ranks
between P and M. M got the higher rank than N. S got the higher rank than O. Q does not get the last
rank. N got the higher rank than the fifth rank. O got the third rank.
Who got the second rank?

A. S B. Q
C. M D. P
E. None of these
15. How many people got the lower rank than Q?
A. Two B. Four
C. Three D. One
E. None of these
16. What is the rank of P?
A. I B. II
C. VI D. V
E. None is correct
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How many symbols are there in the series each of which is immediately preceded by a consonant and
immediately followed by a symbol?
A. Three B. One
C. None D. Four
E. More than four
18. How many symbols are there in the series eachofwhichisimmediatelyprecededandfollowedbyaconsonant?
A. Four B. Five
C. Three D. One
E. None
19. How many elements are there between M and C if all the symbols are dropped down from the given
series?
A. Eleven B. Ten
C. Six D. Nine
E. Three
20. Which amongst the following element is 8th to the left of 4th number from right end?
A. N B. V
C. M D. %
E. None of these
21. Direction: Study the following information carefully and answer the following question.
Seven people i.e., A, B, C, D, E, F, and G going to Delhi on seven different days of a week starting
Sunday to Saturday. All the information is not necessarily in the same order. G goes on Wednesday. Two
people go between G and A. Number of people go before A is the same as after C. Two people go
between B and D. D goes after G. Only one person goes between B and E. F goes between C and B.
How many people go after C?

A. Three B. One
C. None D. Five
E. None of these
22. Who goes on Saturday?
A. E B. A
C. D D. G
E. None of these
23. F goes on which day?
A. Thursday B. Sunday
C. Monday D. Tuesday
E. none of these
24. How many people go between F and A?
A. Four B. Three
C. None D. One
E. Two
25. Find the odd one.
A. C-B B. G-D
C. A-E D. D-B
E. F-G
26. Name the Indian Grand Master who has defeated world champion, Magnus Carlsen in the eighth round of
Airthings Masters Chess competition?
A. R Praggnanandhaa B. Sankalp Gupta
C. Bharath Subramaniyam D. R Raja Rithvik
E. Nihal Sarin
27. Which Indian airport has been ranked as the best airport of the country as per the Skytrax World Airport
Awards 2021 list?
A. Delhi Airport B. Mumbai Airport
C. Hyderabad Airport D. Bengaluru Airport
E. None of the above
28. Which among the following persons is not related to paintings?
A. Amrita Sher-Gil B. Jamini Roy
C. Tyeb Mehta D. Maqbool Fida Husain
E. Ravishankar
29. Which team has won the women's title in the National senior volleyball championship?
A. Kerala B. Railways
C. Haryana D. Karnataka
E. Punjab
30. G20 summit in 2022 will be held in which country?
A. Indonesia B. India
C. Saudi Arabia D. Malaysia
E. Brazil
31. Monpa tribal community belongs to which state who celebrated their traditional Torgya Festival recently?
A. Manipr B. Nagaland
C. Arunachal Pradesh D. Mizoram
E. Sikkim
32. Who is the author of the book titled ‘‘How to Prevent the Next Pandemic’?
A. Mark Zuckerberg B. Tim Cook
C. Elon Musk D. Bill Gates
E. Steve Jobs
33. Who has been appointed as the Chairman of the International Rubber Study Group (IRSG) for a period of
two years?
A. Sanjay Malhotra B. K.N. Raghavan
C. Vineet Joshi D. N Chandrasekharan
E. SR Narasimhan
34. Narora Atomic Power Station is situated in which state?

A. Gujarat B. Maharashtra
C. Uttar Pradesh D. Arunachal Pradesh
E. Rajasthan
35. Central Excise Day is celebrated every year on which date across India?
A. 20th February B. 21st February
C. 22nd February D. 23rd February
E. 24th February
36. In the financial term “SWIFT”, what does ‘S’ stand for?
A. Society B. Saving
C. Scheme D. Securitization
E. Standard
37. ‘The City of Thousand Temples’ is the name of _____.
A. Varanasi B. Dwarka
C. Kanchipuram D. Bhubaneshwar
E. Ujjain
38. Oriental Bank of Commerce merged with which bank?
A. Bank of Baroda B. Canara Bank
C. Union Bank of India D. Punjab National Bank
E. Bank of India
39. As per Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) which is the leading brokerage firm in March 2021?
B. RKSV
A. Zerodha
Securities
C. Angel Broking D. ICICI Securities
E. 5Paisa Capital
40. On which of the following river, Nagarjuna Sagar Dam is built?
A. Kaveri B. Mahanadi
C. Tungbhadra D. Krishna
E. None of the above/More than one of the above
41. Who received the Best Actor (Female) award in the Dadasaheb Phalke International Film Festival (DPIFF)
Awards 2022?
A. Deepika Padukone B. Kriti Sanon
C. Alia Bhatt D. Kangana Ranaut
E. Janhvi Kapoor
42. Manna patel is an Indian swimmer. What is her style of swimming?
A. freestyle B. backstroke
C. breaststroke D. butterfly
E. sidestroke
43. Which fighter aircraft has been showcased by India in the Singapore Air Show 2022?
A. Sukhoi Su-30 B. SEPECAT Jaguar
C. Tejas MK-1 D. Dassault Mirage 2000
E. Dassault Rafale
44. What is the capital of Ukraine?
A. Rome B. Oslo
C. Belgrade D. Kiev
E. None of the above/More than one of the above
45. The Indian Air Force (IAF) has conducted sixth edition of Eastern Bridge-VI exercise with which country?
A. UAE B. Oman
C. Qatar D. Israel
E. Singapore
46. Who has been appointed as the Governor of Kerala?
A. Bhagat Singh Koshyari B. Kalraj Mishra
C. Arif Mohammed Khan D. P. Sadashivam
E. None of these
47. Who has been named the recipient of the ICC Spirit of Cricket Award?
A. Daryl Mitchell B. Kane Williamson
C. Stive Smith D. Rohit Sharma
E. Babar Azam
48. The ‘Kisan Drone Yatra’ which was inaugurated virtually by PM Modi, was organised at which place?
A. Bhopal B. Dehradun
C. Amritsar D. Patna
E. Manesar
49. Which power company has collaborated with Germany-based RWE Renewable GmbH to explore potential
for a joint development of offshore wind projects in India?
A. Tata Power Renewable Energy B. Suzlon
C. Gita Renewable Energy D. Urja Global Ltd
E. Adani Power Ltd
50. Who has been appointed as the brand ambassador for Thums Up?
A. Salman Khan B. Amir Khan
C. Sharukh Khan D. Sanjay Dutt
E. Sonu Sood
51. Two trains of equal length takes 24 & 36 seconds to cross a pole. Each is of a length of 180 meters. In
what time will they cross each other in opposite direction?
A. 22 seconds B. 18 seconds
C. 32 seconds D. 28.8 seconds
E. 46 seconds
52. The simple interest on a sum of money is of its principal. Find the percentage rate of interest per annum,
if the time period is of rate of interest. (Time is in years)

A. 25% B. 30%
C. 27% D. 29%
E. None of these
53. The average height of 21 girls was recorded as 148 cm. When the teacher's height was included, the
average of their heights increased by 1 cm. What was the height of the teacher?
A. 156 cm B. 168 cm
C. 170 cm D. 162 cm
E. None of these
54. Two vessel P and Q of equal capacity contains mixture of milk and water in the ratio 8 : x and 7 : 6
respectively. If total quality of each vessel is 520 liter and quantity of milk in P is th of quantity of milk in Q
then find x?
A. 10 B. 5
C. 15 D. 20
E. 4
55. Three years ago, Ram was 6 years younger than Shayam and their average age now is 25 years then find
the ratio between their ages five years hence?
A. 25:4 B. 9:11
C. None of these D. 3:5
E. 1:2
56. Direction: What should come in place of the question mark '?' in the following question?
83 + (15 of 57 ÷ 3 – 25) = ?3
A. 8 B. 7
C. 6 D. 5
E. 4
+ = 17 +
A. 1800 B. 1600
C. 1200 D. 1500
E. 1900
of 357 + of 336 = ? + 55% of 120

A. 41 B. 21
C. 11 D. 61
E. 51
59. 175 × 22 + 30% of 760 = 2 × ?
A. 1206 B. 2039
C. 1469 D. 2279
E. 1039
60. Direction: What should come in place of question mark (?) in the following question? (36% of 225) –
(16% of 175) = ? – 72
A. 105 B. 102
C. 110 D. 112
E. 104
125% of 64 ÷ 4 + 40% of 242.5 = ?

A. 127 B. 945
C. 117 D. 105
E. 125
62. Direction: What should come in place of question mark (?) in the following question? (18 × 7) – =?
– (44% of 125)
A. 162 B. 160
C. 157 D. 151
E. 164
63. Direction: What should come in place of the question mark '?' in the following number series? 20, 21, 29,
38, 102, ?
A. 127 B. 163
C. 175 D. 199
E. None of these
64. Direction: What should come in place of the question mark '?' in the following number series? 4, 5, 12,
39, ?, 805
A. 120 B. 135
C. 140 D. 160
E. 175
65. Direction: What should come in place of question mark (?) in the following number series? 2, 5, 19, ?,
441, 2671
A. 85 B. 95
C. 105 D. 112
E. 118
66. Direction: What should come in place of the question mark '?' in the following number series? 288, 144,
48, 12, ?, 0.4
A. 4 B. 8
C. 6 D. 3
E. 2.4
67. Direction: Study the following graph carefully and answer the questions that follow.
The bar-chart given below shows the total number of students that appeared and qualified from various
schools in a Scholarship Exam.
The number of students qualified in the examination from schools C and D

are what percent of the number of students appeared for the examination from the same school?
A. 58.62% B. 73.91%
C. 62.58% D. 58.96%
E. None of these
68. What is the respective ratio of the number of students appeared in the number of students qualified at the
Scholarship exam from School C ?
A. 7 : 12 B. 6 : 5
C. 9 : 13 D. 9 : 10
E. None of these
69. What is the respective ratio of the number of students qualified in the Scholarship examination from school
A and the number of students qualified in the examination from school B ?
A. 8 : 3 B. 5 : 7
C. 7 : 3 D. 9 : 5
E. None of these
70. The number of students appeared in the Scholarship exam from School D are approximately what percent
of the total number of students appeared in the exam from all the schools together?
A. 12% B. 24%
C. 29% D. 18%
E. 8%
71. What is the difference between the average number of students appeared in the Scholarship exam from
all the given schools and the average number of students qualified from all the given schools?
A. 950 B. 1100
C. 990 D. 1020
E. None of these
72. A and B invested total Rs. 5250 in a business, while A invested for 12 months and B invested for 10
months. If the profit get in the ratio of 4 : 5, then find the investment of B.
A. Rs 2400 B. Rs 3350
C. Rs 3150 D. Rs 2100
E. Rs 3050
73. A and B cover a certain distance such that their speed ratio becomes 4 : 5. A takes 24 minutes more than
B to cover the distance. What is the time taken by B to reach the destination?
A. 1 hour 36 minutes B. 1 hour 6 minutes
C. 96 seconds D. 90 minutes
74. Amit and Sujit together can complete an assignment of data entry in 5 days. Sujit’s speed is 80% of Amit’s
speed and the total key depressions in the assignment are 576000. What is Amit’s speed in key
depressions per hour, if they work for 8 hours a day?
A. 4800 B. 6400
C. 8000 D. 7200
E. None of these
75. The monthly salary of A is 20% more than the monthly salary of B. If the saving of A is Rs. 24000 which is
40% of the monthly salary of A, then find the monthly salary of B.
A. Rs. 54000 B. Rs. 66000
C. Rs. 60000 D. Rs. 50000
E. Rs. 55000
76. Direction: Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow. Certain words are
printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the these.
It should come as no surprise that a serious lack of sleep, or seriously disturbed sleep, is one of the most
common symptoms of depression among adolescents. This is true for adults too, with 92% of people with
depression complaining of sleep difficulties. What is perhaps less intuitive is that problems with sleeping
might start before the depression, raising the risk of mental health problems in the future.
In a study published in 2020, examined data from a large group of teenagers followed from the age of 15
to 24. Those who reported sleeping badly at the age of 15, but didn't have depression or anxiety at the
time, were more likely than their peers to be experiencing anxiety or depression when they reached 17, 21
or 24 years of age.
With adults too, sleep problems can be a predictor of future depression. A meta-analysis of 34 studies,
which between them followed 150,000 people over a period of between three months and 34 years, found
that if people had sleep problems, their relative risk of suffering depression later in life doubled.
But you can see why in some cases poor sleep might contribute to poor mental health. A deficit of sleep
has well-established negative effects on us, including a tendency to withdraw from friends and family, a
lack of motivation and increased irritability, all of which can affect the quality of a person's relationships,
putting them at greater risk of depression. A lack of sleep can also lead to increased inflammation in the
body, which has been implicated in mental health difficulties.
Researchers are now examining the relationship between sleep disorders and other mental health
conditions. The eminent Oxford University neuroscientist has found that this link doesn't only occur in
depression. Disruption to circadian rhythms, i.e., the natural sleep-wake cycle – is not uncommon among
people with bipolar disorder or schizophrenia. In some cases, the body clock can become so out of sync
that people find themselves awake all night and asleep during the day.
Source: https://www.bbc.com/future/article/20210305
As per the passage, what does 92% of people with depression also complain about?
A. Visual inefficiency during the night B. The issue of sleep difficulties
C. Bulimia, a type of eating disorder D. Both A and B
E. Both B and C
77. Which of the following, as per the passage, can be a result of lack of sleep?
I. Lack of motivation to do anything in life.
II. Increase in irritability and a disrupted mood.
III. Inflammation of the body.

A. Only I B. Only II
C. Only III D. Both I and II
E. All of the above
78. Which of the following statements is/are true as per the passage?
I. Sleep problems can predict a future case of depression.
II. Problems with sleeping always start after depression.
III. Lack of sleep can affect our relationship with friends and family.
C. Only III D. Both I and III
E. All of the above
79. What, according to the passage, can be the definition the circadian rhythm?
A. A natural process that regulates the sleep–wake B. A chemically induced process that regulates the
cycle. sleep–wake cycle.
C. A natural process that regulates the bowel D. A natural process that regulates the sleep–sleep
movement. cycle.
80. What can be the possible title of the passage?
A. A history of human sleep B. Excess sleep and its problem in long run
C. The connection between sleep and mental health D. A study of circadian rhythm and sleep
81. Which of the following is the MOST SIMILAR in meaning to the given word as used in the passage?
Eminent
A. Distinguished B. Obscure
C. Alluring D. Frivolous
E. Callous
82. Which of the following is OPPOSITE in meaning to the given word as used in the passage?
Implicated
A. Incriminated B. Disabled
C. Absolved D. Involved
E. Culled
83. Direction: Rearrange the following seven sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E), (F) and (G) in a proper
sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.
(A) The banker first and foremost is concerned about his own profits, about how much more he is adding
up to his account and it is almost an addiction.
(B) The dire need for making more money is what drives bankers in the first instance.
(C) This could be considered as a 'personal' need and craving for money to largely fulfill personal wants.
(D) Any investment or commercial banker or broker or anyone in the financial sector will presumably have
a healthy or unhealthy personal need for money.
(E) Of course, we all need and love money but bankers are more focused on money.
(F) The banker's psychology is based on his personal, social and political need for money.
(G) Just as a merchant or shop owner is obsessed with the goods available, the banker will be obsessed
with the money he is able to lend, borrow or do business with. Which one of the following is the FIRST
sentence of the passage?
A. B B. D
C. A D. F
E. G
84. Which one of the following is the SECOND sentence of the passage?
A. C B. E
C. A D. B
E. F
85. Which one of the following is the THIRD sentence of the passage?
A. A B. G
C. C D. D
E. E
86. Which one of the following is the FOURTH sentence of the passage?
A. D B. E
C. F D. B
E. A
87. Which one of the following is the FIFTH sentence of the passage?
A. B B. D
C. C D. E
E. G
88. Direction: Read the sentence to find out whether there is any error in it. The error, if any, will be in one
part of the sentence. The number corresponding to that part will be your answer. If the given sentence is
correct as it is, mark the answer as ‘No error’. Ignore the errors of punctuation if any. The horse had
especially (1)/ attracted their notice, (2)/ because it was the biggest and a (3)/ strangest creature they had
ever seen. (4)
A. 1 B. 2
C. 3 D. 4
E. No error
89. Direction: Read the sentence to find out whether there is an error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part
of the sentence. The number corresponding to that part will be your answer. In addition the assistance
from the renters, (1)/ the money finally gave her (2)/ an income of her own, and (3)/ the token of
independence that went with it. (4)/ No error (5)
A. 1 B. 2
C. 3 D. 4
E. 5
part of the sentence. If the given sentence is correct as it is, mark the answer as No error. Ignore the
errors of punctuation if any. He was successful in (1)/ winning the support of many (2)/ of the younger
princes, and in (3)/ establish a new court of justice. (4)/ No error (5)
A. 1 B. 2
C. 3 D. 4
E. 5
correct as it is, mark the answer as ‘No error’. Ignore the errors of punctuation if any. Where the Civil War
broke out, (1)/ he fought on (2)/ the side of the South and (3)/ became a brigadier-general. (4)
A. 1 B. 2
C. 3 D. 4
E. 5
92. Direction: Read the following sentence to find out whether there is any error in it. The error, if any, will be
in one part of the sentence. The number corresponding to that part will be your answer. If the given
sentence is correct as it is, mark the answer as ‘No error’. Ignore the errors of punctuation if any. The
team has been practising hardly (1)/ for the test championship (2)/ that is due to take (3)/ place later this
year. (4)
A. 1 B. 2
C. 3 D. 4
E. No Error.
93. Direction: In the given question, four words are printed in bold and are numbered 1, 2, 3 and 4. Of these,
the positions of two words may be incorrect and need to be exchanged to make the sentence correct. Find
the two words which need to be exchanged. In case the given sentence is correct, your answer is (E) i.e.
No correction required. Even national governments in the region (1) accept the need to step away from
governance (2) force and move towards military (3) that can tackle (4) problems.
A. 1-2 B. 2-3
C. 3-4 D. 4-2
E. No correction required.
94. Direction: In the given questions, four words are printed in bold and are numbered 1, 2, 3 and 4. Of
these, the positions of two of these words may be incorrect and need to be exchanged to make the
sentence correct. Find the two words which need to be exchanged. In each case the given sentences is
correct, your answer is (E) i.e. 'No exchange required'. Congested (1) roads and massive traffic (2) are
one of the first things that comes (3) to our minds when we think (4) of Mumbai.
A. 1-2 B. 2-3
C. 1-3 D. 2-4
E. No exchange required
No correction required. The root crops should be clamped (1) in frost (2) dry conditions with adequate
(3) protection against reasonably. (4)
A. 2-4 B. 1-3
C. 1-2 D. 3-4
E. No correction required
No correction required. Environmentalists often (1) that it will not be easy (2) to persuade car drivers (3)
to use their vehicles less concede. (4)
A. 2-4 B. 2-3
C. 1-4 D. 1-3
No correction required. The invested (1) entrepreneur and a trio of venture (2) capital firms (3) in
January inveterate (4) 5 million dollars in Healthscape Inc.
A. 1-2 B. 3-4
C. 1-4 D. 2-3
98. Direction: The following question carries a word, which is followed by four alternatives. You have to select
all those alternatives which are synonyms of the word in different contexts. Select the correct alternative(s)
and mark the correct combination as your answer. Pole
(A) Oscillation
(B) Pillar
(C) A polish person
(D) Extremity
A. A, B, C B. B, C, D
C. C, D D. A, C, D
E. A, B, D
and mark the correct combination as your answer. Bark
(A) Growl
(B) Boat
(C) Patent
(D) Peel
A. A, B, C B. B, C, D
C. A, D D. A, B, D
E. All A, B, C, D
and mark the correct combination as your answer. Fair
(A) Nudge
(B) Equitable
(C) Fete
(D) Coerce
A. A, B, C B. B, C
C. A, D D. A, B, D
E. All A, B, C, D
Solutions
1. C
Sol. 1. Only four boxes are placed below O.
2. Three boxes are placed between O and R.
3. Five boxes are placed between R and N.
4. One box is placed between N and M, which is placed immediately above V.
(Here, case 1 will be eliminated and we will continue with the case 2)
5. Three boxes are placed between V and F.
6. K is placed immediately below W.
7. L is placed above Q.
Hence, the required answer is ‘R’.

2. E

Hence, the required answer is ‘None’.

3. C

Hence, the required answer is ‘More than three’ i.e. ‘4’.

4. D

Hence, the required answer is ‘Third from the bottom’.

5. C

Hence, there is one letter between L and N.

6. B
Sol. Given word: IRREVERENCE
The given word can be represented as follows:
There is only one pair - CE.
Hence, one is the correct answer.

7. A
Sol. 1) Point S is 20m south of point T.
2) Point S is 10m west of point R, which is 20m north of point V.
3) Point Y is 15m west of point V.
4) Point X is 25m north of point W, which is 15m east of point R.
5) Point Z is 15m west of point X.
Therefore, option A is the correct answer.

8. C

Therefore, option C is the correct answer.

9. C
Sol. 1. T sits third to the right of R.
2. The one, who sits opposite T, sits second to the left of K.
3. F sits to the right of K.
4. Two people sit between F and G, who does not sit opposite T.
5. P sits second to the right of S.
6. J does not sit opposite R.
Hence, the required answer is ‘One’.

10. C

Hence, the required answer is ‘F’.

11. B

Hence, the required answer is ‘T’.

12. D

Hence, only 3 is incorrect.

13. C
R does not sit at an end.

14. C
Sol. 1. O got the third rank.
2. S got the higher rank than O.
3. N got the higher rank than the fifth rank.

4. M got the higher rank than N.
5. Q does not get the last rank.
6. At most three people got different ranks between P and M.
(Here, case 1 will be eliminated)
Hence, the required answer is ‘M’.

15. D

Hence, the required answer is ‘one’.

16. C

Hence, the required answer is ‘VI’.

17. A
Sol. 5 € 8 % M V ¥ © 4 # µ @ 2 3 Z B N £ β 9 X C $ ∞ 6 7 & ®
Clearly, three symbols are there in the seriesin the series each of which is immediately preceded by a
consonant and immediately followed by a symbol.
18. E
Sol. 5 € 8 % M V ¥ © 4 # µ @ 2 3 Z B N £ β 9 X C $ ∞ 6 7 & ®
Clearly, none is the answer.

19. D
Sol. 5 € 8 % M V 4 2 3 Z B N 9 X C $ ∞ 6 7 & ®
Clearly, nine elements are there between M and C if all the symbols are dropped down from the given
series.
20. B
Sol. 5 € 8 % M V ¥ © 4 # µ @ 2 3 Z B N £ β 9 X C $ ∞ 6 7 & ®
3 is 4th number from right end and V is 8th left of 3.
Clearly, V is 8th to the left of 4th number from right end.

21. E
Sol. 1) G goes on Wednesday.
2) Two people go between G and A.
3) Number of people go before A is same as after C.

4) Two people go between B and D.
5) D goes after G.
6) Only one person goes between B and E.
7) F goes between C and B.
Hence, six people go after C.

22. B
5) D goes after G.

Hence, A goes on Saturday.

23. C
5) D goes after G.

Hence, F goes on Monday.

24. A

5) D goes after G.
Hence, four people go between F and A.

25. D

5) D goes after G.
Hence, two people go between D and B.

26. A
Sol. • Indian Grandmaster R Praggnanandhaa has defeated world champion, Magnus Carlsen in the eighth
round of Airthings Masters Chess competition
• He won with black pieces in 39 moves to halt Carlsen's run of three straight wins
• Prior to this, Indian registered solitary win versus Levon Aronian along with recording 2 draws and 4
defeats
• Airthings Masters: 16-player online rapid chess tournament
• He has become 3rd Indian to beat Carlsen after Viswanathan Anand and P Harikrishna
27. A
Sol. 4 Indian airports — Delhi, Hyderabad, Mumbai and Bengaluru — found a place in the world’s 100 best
airports by UK-based airline and airport review consultancy Skytrax.
Doha Hamad International Airport has been ranked at 1st.
Key Points
Delhi Airport (Indira Gandhi International Airport, Delhi) has retained its title as the Best Airport in India for
the past three years.
The Delhi airport increased its overall ranking, going from 50th place in 2020 to 45th place in the ‘World's
Top 50 Airports' league for 2021.
The Skytrax World Airport Awards are considered the quality benchmark for airport service providers
across the globe. Under the survey, around 550 airports across the world are judged.
28. E
Sol. Except Ravishankar all are famous Indian painter. Ravi Shankar is an Indian yoga guru, a
spiritual leader. He is frequently referred to as "Sri Sri", Guru ji, or Gurudev. From around the
mid 1970s, he worked as an apprentice under Mahesh Yogi, the founder of Transcendental
Meditation.
29. A
Sol. • Defending champion Kerala defeated Railways 25-21, 17-25, 25-21, 25-17 and won the
women's title in the National senior volleyball championships at the KIIT indoor stadium,
Bhubaneswar.
• It was Kerala's fourth straight triumph in the Nationals.
30. A
Sol. • G20 is the premier forum for international economic cooperation that plays an important role
in global economic governance.
• In 2021, the G20 summits was held in Rome, Italy. In 2022 the G20 summit will be held in
Bali, Indonesia while in 2023 it will be held in New Delhi, India.
• India will hold the Presidency of the G20 from 1st December this year to 30th November
2023, culminating with the G20 Summit in India in 2023.
• As per practice, a G20 Secretariat is being established to handle work relating to knowledge,
content, technical, media, security, and logistical aspects of India’s G20 Presidency.
31. C
Sol. The three days long Torgya Festival of the Monpa tribal community of Arunachal Pradesh is celebrated at
Tawang Monastery, Arunachal Pradesh. The main attraction of the festival is the ‘Sha-na Cham’, the ritual
dance performed by monks to showcase the Choe-Gyal Yap & Yum Tsa-Munde deity.
32. D
Sol. • A book titled ‘How to Prevent the Next Pandemic’ authored by Technologist, business leader,
philanthropist Bill Gates and will be published this year in May 2022.
• In the book Bill Gates has written about specific steps that can only stop future pandemics
but, in the process, provide better health care for everyone around the world.
• Bill Gates’ last book ‘How to Avoid a Climate Disaster’ was published in 2021.
33. B
Sol. • India’s K.N. Raghavan has been elected the new Chairman of the International Rubber Study
Group (IRSG) for a period of two years.

• Raghavan is currently the Executive Director of Indian Rubber Board and Head of the Indian
delegation to IRSG.
• India has taken over the chair of the IRSG from Cote d’Ivoire.
• IRSG is an intergovernmental organisation of natural rubber (NR) and synthetic rubber (SR)
producing and consuming countries.
34. C
Sol. • Narora Atomic Power Station (NAPS) is a nuclear power plant.
• It is located in Narora, Bulandshahar District in Uttar Pradesh.
• Its Unit-1 was commissioned on 1st January 1991 and Unit-2 on 1st July 1992.
• It is operated by the Nuclear Power Corporation Of India Ltd. (NPCIL).

35. E
Sol. • Central Excise Day is observed on February 24 and it commemorates the Central Excise and
Salt Act which was enacted on 24th February 1944.
• In India, the Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs (CBIC) is responsible for
administering Customs, Goods, and Service Tax (GST), Central Excise, Service Tax, and
Narcotics in India.
36. A
Sol. In 'SWIFT' S stands for - Society.
The Society for Worldwide Interbank Financial Telecommunication (SWIFT) provides a network
that enables financial institutions worldwide to send and receive information about financial
transactions in a secure, standardized and reliable environment.
The headquarters of SWIFT is located in - Belgium.
A SWIFT code is an international bank code that identifies banks worldwide.
It's also known as a Bank Identifier Code (BIC).
Commonwealth Bank of Australia uses SWIFT codes to send money to overseas banks.
SWIFT code consists of 8 or 11 characters.
CHAS - US - 33 - XXX
First four characters: These 4 characters (“CHAS” in our example) identify the bank (“JP Morgan
Chase”). This 4-letter code is used to identify this particular financial institution’s branches and
divisions all over the world.
Fifth and sixth characters: These 2 characters identify the country in which the bank is located.
“US” in this example means “UNITED STATES”.
Seventh and eighth characters: These 2 characters represent a location code (“33” in this
example).
Last three characters: These 3 characters form the branch code. “XXX” is used to identify the
HEAD OFFICE or the institution.
India was 74th Nation to join SWIFT Network.

37. C
Sol. • Kanchipuram is popularly known as the "City of Thousand Temples".
• The city of Kanchipuram is located in the state of Tamil nadu on the banks of the Vegavathi River.
• It is also the second holiest after Varanasi.
• Kanchipuram was established by the Pallava Dynasty and was named the capital of their empire.
• Ekambareswarar Temple is the largest shrine in Kanchipuram and Kailasanath Temple is the oldest in
Kanchipuram, dedicated to the God Shiva.
38. D
Sol. • Ten Public Sector Undertaking (PSU) banks were amalgamated into four banks.
• With this, the number of public sector banks in India come down to 12 from 27.
• Oriental Bank of Commerce (OBC) and United Bank of India merged into Punjab National
Bank (PNB).
• Syndicate Bank merged into Canara Bank, which will make it the fourth-largest public sector
lender.
• Indian Bank was merged with Allahabad Bank.
• Union Bank of India merged with Andhra Bank and Corporation Bank.
39. A
Sol. In financial year 2021, Zerodha was the leading equity brokerage firm across India, based on
the number of active clients. With around 3.4 million active clients, the Bengaluru-based
financial service company was far in front of RKSV Securities with nearly 2 million clients and
Angel Broking with 1.5 million clients. These three companies are comparatively young,
founded 2010 (Zerodha), 2009 (RKSV), and 1996 (Angel Broking) respectively.
40. D
Sol. Nagarjuna Sagar dam is built on Krishna River. This dam is situated in between the Nalgonda in
Telangana and Guntur district in Andhra Pradesh, and is the second biggest water reservoir in India.
41. B
Sol. * Dadasaheb Phalke International Film Festival (DPIFF) Awards 2022 was held in Mumbai.
* The award was presented by Dadasaheb Phalke International Film Festival (DPIFF) in memory of
Dadasaheb Phalkeji ‘Father of Indian Cinema’.
* It is India’s only independent international film festival.
* Bollywood stars Ranveer Singh and Kriti Sanon received awards in the Best Actor and Best Actress
category for their performances in movies ’83’ and ‘Mimi’.
42. B
Sol. * Female swimmer Maana Patel competed at Tokyo Olympic Games in the women’s 100m
backstroke.
* She has earned a Universality quota place.
* The 21-year-old from Gujarat was the third Indian swimmer to get a ticket to Japan.
43. C
Sol. * Indian Air Force(IAF) contingent participated in the Singapore Air Show 2022 held from 15th
to 18th February 2022 at the Changi Exhibition Centre, Singapore.
* India showcased the IAF’s ‘Made in India’ Light Combat Aircraft (LCA) Tejas Mark-One(MK-
1), a 4th generation fighter aircraft.
* Singapore Air Show is a biennial event that provides a platform for the Global Aviation
Industry to showcase its products.
* This is Asia’s largest Aerospace and Defence event.
44. D
Sol. * The Capital of Ukraine is Kiev.
* Ukraine is a European Country.
* Ukraine is a member of European Union.
45. B
Sol. • The Indian Air Force (IAF) and the Royal Air Force of Oman conducted a five-day bilateral
exercise at the Jodhpur air force station.
• The exercise named Eastern Bridge-VI is in its sixth edition.
• Exercise Eastern Bridge V was held in October 2019 at the Air Force Base Masirah, Oman.
• The IAF contingent comprised MiG-29 and C-17 aircraft. It was the first time that MIG-29
fighter aircraft participated in an International Exercise outside India.
46. C
Sol. • Arif Mohammad Khan has been appointed as the new Governor of Kerala on 6th September 2019.
• He replaced P. Sathasivam, a former Chief Justice of India, who demitted office after the end of his five-
year term.
• Arif Mohammad Khan is the 24th Governor of Kerala.

• He has been a member of the Uttar Pradesh Legislative Assembly and as well as the Lok Sabha.
• He also served as a Union minister in the Cabinets of former prime ministers Rajiv Gandhi and VP
Singh.
47. A
Sol. • New Zealand's Daryl Mitchell has been named the recipient of the ICC Spirit of Cricket
Award after his gesture in the 2021 ICC Men's T20 World Cup semi-final against England in
Abu Dhabi.
• As a result, Mitchell has become the fourth New Zealand player to win the award, following
the footsteps of Daniel Vettori, Brendon McCullum and Kane Williamson.
• Mitchell won the award for refusing to take a single in the high-pressure T20 World Cup
semi-final against England in Abu Dhabi on November 10, 2021.
48. E
Sol. • Prime Minister Narendra Modi virtually launched 100 ‘Made in India’ agricultural drones
across the country, which carried out farm operations in unique simultaneous flights in
Manesar, Haryana.
• The PM labelled it a “milestone” for Indian agriculture.
• A raft of recent policy relaxations and incentives, including proposals in the Union Budget
2022-23, has opened up India’s vast agriculture sector for commercial use of drones, or
unmanned aerial vehicles.
49. A
Sol. • Tata Power has collaborated with Germany-based RWE Renewable GmbH to explore
potential for a joint development of offshore wind projects in India.
• A corresponding MoU has been signed between Tata Power Renewable Energy Ltd and
RWE Renewables GmbH, one of the world's leaders in offshore wind.
• The MoU between Tata Power Renewable Energy and RWE becomes significant in the light
of the Central govt’s announcement of achieving 30GW of offshore wind installations by 2030.
50. C
Sol. • Coca-Cola India’s soft-drink brand Thums Up has on-boarded Shahrukh Khan as its brand
endorser.
• Earlier this month, The Coca-Cola Company announced that the home-grown Thums Up
brand became a billion-dollar brand in 2021—the first to reach the milestone from its portfolio
of drinks in India.
• The new campaign has been launched to mark this key milestone.
51. D
Sol. Speed of 1st train = = 7.5 m/s
Speed of 2nd train = = 5 m/s
Time taken by the trains to cross each other = = 28.8 seconds
52. A
Sol. Let the Principal be x
∴ Simple Interest =
Let rate of interest be y%
∴ Time Period = years
According to the question,
⇒ 4y² = 2500
⇒ y² =
⇒y= = 25 %
Hence, option A is correct

53. C
Sol. Sum of the heights of all the girls = 148 × 21 = 3108 cm
Sum of the heights of the teacher and all the girls = 149 × 22 = 3278 cm
∴ Teacher's height = 3278 – 3108 = 170 cm
Hence, option C is correct

54. B
Sol. Milk in Q liter
Milk in P = 320 liter
So,
55. B
Sol. Let the age of Ram 3 years ago be x years
Shayam= x+6 years
Ram’s present age= x+3
Shyam’s present age= x+6+3= x+9
Total ages of Ram and Shayam now= 25*2= 50
So,
x+3+x+9=50
2x= 50-12
x= 38/2= 19 years
Age of Ram after 5 years= 19+3+5= 27 years
Age of Shayam after 5 years= 19+9+5= 33 years
Required ratio= 27:33= 9:11
56. B
Sol. 83 + (15 of 57 ÷ 3 – 25) = ?3
⇒ 83 + (15 × 19 – 25) = ?3
⇒ ?3 = 83 + (285 – 25)
⇒ ?3 = 83 + (260)
⇒ ?3 = 343
⇒?=
⇒?=7
57. B
Sol. + = 17 +
⇒ 22 + 35 = 17 +
⇒ 57 – 17 =
⇒ = 40
⇒ ? = (40)2 = 1600
58. E
Sol. × 357 + × 336 = ? + × 120
⇒ 21 + 96 = ? + 66
⇒ ? = 117 – 66 = 51
59. B
Sol. 175 × 22 + 30% of 760 = 2 × ?
⇒ 3850 + × 760 = 2 × ?
⇒ 3850 + 228 = 2 × ?
⇒ 4078 = 2 × ?
⇒?=
⇒ ? = 2039
60. B
Sol. (36% of 225) – (16% of 175) = ? – 72
⇒?= × 225 – × 175 + 49
= 81 – 28 + 49 = 102
61. C
Sol. ? = 125% of 64 ÷ 4 + 40% of 242.5
= × 16 + × 242.5
= 20 + 97 = 117
62. A
Sol. (18 × 7) – = ? – (44% of 125)
⇒ 126 – 19 =
⇒ 107 = ? – 55
⇒ ? = 107 + 55 = 162
63. A
Sol. The pattern of the series is:
20 + 12 = 21
21 + 23 = 29
29 + 32 = 38
38 + 43 = 102
102 + 52 = 127
Thus, the missing number is 127.
64. D
4×1+1=5
5 × 2 + 2 = 12
12 × 3 + 3 = 39
39 × 4 + 4 = 160
160 × 5 + 5 = 805
65. A
2 × 2 + 12 = 5
5 × 3 + 22 = 19
19 × 4 + 32 = 85
85 × 5 + 42 = 441
441 × 6 + 52 = 2671

66. E
Sol. The pattern of series is:
288 ÷ 2 = 144
144 ÷ 3 = 48
48 ÷ 4 = 12
12 ÷ 5 = 2.4
2.4 ÷ 6 = 0.4
Thus, the missing number is 2.4.
67. B
Sol.
Required percentage = × 100 = × 100 = 73.91%
68. E
Sol. Required percentage = 3250 : 2250 = 13 : 9
69. E
Sol. Required ratio = 1750 : 1250 = 7 : 5
70. D
Sol. Total number of students appeared for the exam = 3000 + 2250 + 3250 + 2500 + 3000 = 14000
∴ Required percentage = × 100 18%
71. A
Sol. Total number of students passed in exam = 1750 + 1250 + 2250 + 2000 + 2000 = 9250
Total number of students appeared in the exam = 14000
Difference = 14000 – 9250 = 4750
∴ Required difference of averages
= × 4750 = 950
72. C
Sol. Let A invested Rs. X
So, investment of B = (5250 – X)
ATQ –
⇒ 3X = 10500 X
⇒ X = 2100
Investment of B = (5250 Rs. 3150

73. A
Sol. A : B = 4 : 5 (Speed ratio)
It must be known that, Speed ratio = 1/Time ratio
So, Time Ratio of A : B = 5 : 4
Say B takes X minutes to reach the destination.
Therefore, = =
On solving the equation, X = 96 minutes = 1 hour 36 minutes

74. C
Sol. Ratio between work done by Amit and Sujit = 100 : 80 = 5 : 4
Total work done by Amit = 320000
Speed of Amit =
75. D
Sol. Let the monthly salary of B be Rs. x.
Then, monthly salary of A = 1.2x
Savings of A = 40% of 1.2x
So, 24000 = 0.48x
⇒ x = 50000
So, monthly salary of B = Rs. 50000
So option (d) is the correct answer.
76. B
Sol. The passage in the first paragraph clearly says that “This is true for adults too, with 92% of people with
depression complaining of sleep difficulties.” The rest of the problems are not mentioned. Thus, option B is
the correct answer.
77. E
Sol. The passage states that “But you can see why in some cases poor sleep might contribute to poor mental
health. A deficit of sleep has well-established negative effects on us, including a tendency to withdraw
from friends and family, a lack of motivation and increased irritability, all of which can affect the quality of a
person's relationships, putting them at greater risk of depression. A lack of sleep can also lead to
increased inflammation in the body, which has been implicated in mental health difficulties.”
Thus, all of the statement is true as per the passage. Thus, option E is the correct answer.
78. D
Sol. Only statement I and III are true.
Refer to the following lines in the passage: “With adults too, sleep problems can be a predictor of future
depression.”
“A deficit of sleep has well-established negative effects on us, including a tendency to withdraw from
friends and family”.
Statement II is false. Refer to the statement: “What is perhaps less intuitive is that problems with sleeping
might start before the depression, raising the risk of mental health problems in the future.”
Thus, option D is the correct answer.

79. A
Sol. The passage clearly states that “. Disruption to circadian rhythms, i.e., the natural sleep-wake cycle – is
not uncommon among people with bipolar disorder or schizophrenia.”
Thus, option A is the correct answer.

80. C
Sol. The entire passage talks about sleep or how the lack of it can cause various kinds of mental problems, a
major one among them being depression. Thus, out of all the options, the title suggested by option C is
the most appropriate. Thus, option C is the correct answer.
81. A
Sol. The meaning of the word ‘eminent’ is (used about a person) famous and important.
The word distinguished meaning: important, successful and respected by other people

82. C
Sol. The term implicated means to show that somebody is involved in something unpleasant, especially a
crime.
The term absolved means that somebody does not have to take responsibility for something, or has been
formally acquitted of something.
Thus, option C is the correct answer.

83. D
Sol. When arranging sentences in a paragraph, we should first understand the main concept or the theme of
the statements and then arrange them in an order.
Here, the first statement should be F which gives an answer to the question, what is the banker's
psychology based on? Next should be statement A which talks on the same lines as that of F. It should be
followed by statement G which supports the above by an example. Next should be statement B. It
highlights the need being talked about. It should be followed by statement C and D. Both the statements
are in continuation of statement B and further discuss the need. Statement E should come last as it is a
concluding sentence for the context.
Hence, the correct sequence is FAGBCDE.
When arranging sentences in a paragraph, we should first understand the main concept or the theme of
So, the correct answer is option D.

84. C
So, the correct answer is option C.

85. B
So, the correct answer is option B.

86. D

87. C

88. C
Sol. While talking about single entity, article is used only once but in the sentence only a single horse is talked
about and there are two articles in part 3 is erroneous. we need to remove the wrong article 'a'. Hence
there is an error here and option C is the answer.
89. A
Sol. The correct structure used in English is ‘in addition to + noun’ and in part 1 ‘to’ is missing. So there should
be a ‘to’ after addition here. Hence there is an error part 1 and option A is the answer.
90. D
Sol. After a preposition only gerund form (V-ing) is used and in part 4 V1 form (establish) is used which is
incorrect here. It should be replaced by ‘establishing’. Hence there is an error part 4 and option D is the
answer.
91. A
Sol. We use "when" as a conjunction meaning ‘at the time that’ but in part 1 where is used to indicate time.
Hence there is an error part 1 and option A is the answer.
92. A
Sol. The error is in the first part of the sentence. Here we need the adverb ‘hard’ here which will mean
‘practising sincerely’.
“Hardly” means ‘not at all’ or ‘very little’. So ‘hardly’ should be replaced by ‘hard’ in the first part to correct
the question.
Hence, the correct answer is option A.
93. B
Sol. ‘governance force’ is an incorrect phrase. It should be replaced by ‘military force’
to make the sentence meaningful. Thus, 2 and 3 should interchange, making
option B the correct answer.
94. E
Sol. The sentence is correct and needs no changes. Hence, the correct answer is E.
95. A
Sol. In the given sentence we can ﬁgure out that (2) needs an adverb to modify the
adjective ‘dry’ while (4) needs a noun against which protection is required.
Therefore, (2) and (4) i.e. ‘frost’ and ‘reasonably’ must be exchanged to form a
correct sentence. Thus, option A is the correct answer.
96. C
Sol. Here we see that (1) needs a verb while (4) needs an adverb after ‘less’.
Therefore, (1) and (4) i.e. ‘often’ and ‘concede’ must be exchanged to form a
correct sentence. Thus, option C is the correct answer.
97. C
Sol. In the given sentence, it is evident that (1) needs an adjective to modify the noun ‘entrepreneur’ while (4)
needs a verb. Also, ‘invested’ is apt before the amount mentioned in the sentence.
Therefore, (1) and (4) i.e. ‘invested’ and ‘inveterate’ must be exchanged to form a correct sentence. Thus,
option C is the correct answer.
Inveterate: settled or confirmed in a habit, practice (in this case, that of being an entrepreneur), feeling, or
the like.
98. B
Sol. 'Pole' refers to a long, slender, rounded piece of wood or metal, typically used with one end placed in the
ground as a support for something (pillar). To refer to a native of Poland, we use the word ‘Pole’. 'Pole' is
also used to represent the extreme point of something. Thus, alternatives B, C and D are correct.
99. D
Sol. ‘Bark’ can be used in a sentence as ‘cry of a dog, fox, or sea’. In the literary form, it is also used to denote
a boat or ship. 'Bark' is as a verb is used as 'strip the bark from (a tree or piece of wood)'. Thus, "peel" is
also a synonym.
100. B
Sol. The word ‘fair’ refers to treating people equally without favouritism or discrimination. It also refers to a
gathering of stalls and amusements for public entertainment (fete).
Mock Test Solutions in Hindi
Questions
1. िनदश: िन निलिखत जानकारी का यानपूवक अ ययन कर तथा त नुसार प्र नों के उ तर द:
दस बॉ स एक टै क म एक के ऊपर रखे गए ह। O के नीचे केवल चार बॉ स रखे गए ह। O और R के म य तीन बॉ स रखे गए ह। R

और N के म य पांच बॉ स रखे गए ह। N और M, िजसे V के ठीक ऊपर रखा गया है, के म य एक बॉ स रखा गया है। V और F के म य
तीन बॉ स रखे गए ह। K, W के ठीक नीचे रखा गया है। L को Q के ऊपर रखा गया है।
िन न म से कौन सा बॉ स सबसे नीचे रखा गया है?

A. M B. F
C. R D. Q
E. इनम से कोई नहीं
2. M और L के म य िकतने बॉ स रखे गए ह?
A. चार B. एक
C. दो D. तीन
E. कोई नहीं
3. Q के ऊपर िकतने बॉ स रखे गए ह?
A. चार से अिधक B. चार से कम
C. तीन से अिधक D. दो से कम
E. तीन से कम
4. W की ि थित या है?
A. ऊपर से दूसरा B. ऊपर से पांचवां
C. नीचे से चौथा D. नीचे से तीसरा
5. शीष पर रखे गए बॉ स तथा V और Q के ठीक म य म रखे गए बॉ स के बीच वणमाला श्रंख
ृ ला म िकतने अ र ह?
A. तीन B. सात
C. एक D. पांच
6. श द IRREVERENCE म ऐसे िकतने यु म ह, िजनम से प्र येक म श द के बीच उतने ही अ र ह िजतने अंगर् ेजी वणमाला म (आगे और
पीछे दोनों ओर) होते ह?

A. चार B. एक
C. पांच D. दो
7. िनदश: िन निलिखत जानकारी का यानपूवक अ ययन कर और त नुसार प्र नों के उ र द।
िबंद ु Z, िबंद ु X के 15 मीटर पि चम म है। िबंद ु Y, िबंद ु V के 15 मीटर पि चम म है। िबंद ु S, िबंद ु T के 20 मीटर दि ण म ि थत है। िबंद ु
X, िबंद ु W के 25 मीटर उ र म है, जो िबंद ु R के 15 मीटर पवू म है। िबंद ु S, िबंद ु R के 10 मीटर पि चम म है, जो िबंद ु V के 20 मीटर
उ र म ि थत है।
िबंद ु V, िबंद ु Z के संबंध म िकस िदशा म है?

A. दि ण B. उ र-पूव
C. उ र-पि चम D. पि चम
8. िबंद ु W, िबंद ु S के संबंध म िकस िदशा म है?
A. दि ण B. उ र-पि चम
C. पूव D. उ र
9. िनदश: िन निलिखत जानकारी का यानपूवक अ ययन कर तथा त नुसार प्र नों के उ तर द।
दस यि त दो पंि यों म बैठे ह। पंि त 1 म - P, Q, R, S और T दि ण िदशा की ओर मुख करके बैठे ह और पंि त 2 म - F, G, H, J

और K उ र िदशा की ओर मुख करके बैठे ह लेिकन आव यक नहीं है िक इसी क् रम म हो।
T, R की दाई ं ओर से तीसरे थान पर बैठ ता है। वह, जो T के िवपरीत बैठ ता है, K की बाई ं ओर से दूसरे थान पर बैठ ता है। F, K की
दाई ं ओर बैठ ता है। F और G, जो T के िवपरीत नहीं बैठ ा है, के बीच दो यि त बैठे ह। P, S की दाई ं ओर से दूसरे थान पर बैठ ता है। J,
R के िवपरीत नहीं बैठ ा है।
J और K के बीच िकतने यि त बैठे ह?

A. तीन B. दो
C. एक D. या तो एक या दो
10. िन न म से कौन S के िवपरीत बैठ ता है?
A. J B. K
C. F D. H
11. िन न म से कौन Q की दाई ं ओर बैठ ता है?
A. R B. T
C. S D. P
12. िन निलिखत म से सही कथन/कथनों का पता लगाएं।
1) H, F की दाई ं ओर बैठ ता है
2) P, G के िवपरीत बैठ ता है
3) J, S के िवकणत: िवपरीत बैठ ता है

A. केवल 2 B. दोनों 1 और 3
C. दोनों 2 और 3 D. केवल 3
E. कोई गलत नहीं है
13. िन निलिखत म से चार एक िनि चत तरीके से एक समान ह और एक समहू बनाते ह। उसका पता लगाएं, जो इस समहू से संबंिधत नहीं है।
A. T B. J
C. R D. S
E. F
14. िनदश: जानकारी का यानपूवक अ ययन कर तथा त नुसार प्र नों के उ तर द:
छह यि तयों अथात् M, N, O, P, Q और S ने एक क ा परी ा म अलग-अलग रक प्रा त की है। P और M के बीच अिधकतम तीन

यि तयों को अलग-अलग रक प्रा त हुई है। M ने N से उ च रक प्रा त की है। S को O से उ च रक प्रा त हुई है। Q को अंितम रक
प्रा त नहीं हुई है। N को पांचवीं रक से उ च रक प्रा त हुई है। O को तीसरी रक प्रा त हुई है।
िकसे दूसरा रक प्रा त हुआ है?

A. S B. Q
C. M D. P
15. Q की तुल ना म िकतने यि तयों को िनचला रक प्रा त हुआ है?
A. दो B. चार
C. तीन D. एक
16. P का रक या है?
A. I B. II
C. VI D. V
E. कोई सही नहीं है
17. िनदश: िन निलिखत आंकड़ों का यानपूवक अ ययन कीिजए तथा तदनुसार प्र नों के उ र दीिजए।
5€8%MV��4#μ@23ZBN�β9XC$∞67&�
ृ ला म िकतने प्रतीक ह िजनम से प्र येक के तुरंत पहले एक यंजन और तुरंत बाद एक िच ह है?
श्रंख
A. तीन B. एक
C. कोई नहीं D. चार
E. चार से अिधक
18. श्रंख
ृ ला म िकतने िच ह ह िजनम से प्र येक के तुरंत बाद और पहले एक यंजन आता है?
A. चार B. पांच
C. तीन D. एक
19. M और C के बीच िकतने त व ह यिद सभी िच हों को दी गई श्रंख
ृ ला से हटा िदया जाता है?
A. यारह B. दस
C. छह D. नौ
E. तीन
20. िन निलिखत म से कौन सा त व दाई ं ओर से चौथी सं या के बाएं से आठव थान पर है?
A. N B. V
C. M D. %
21. िनदश: िन निलिखत जानकारी का यानपूवक अ ययन कर तथा िदए गए प्र नों के उ तर द:
सात यि त अथात् A, B, C, D, E, F और G रिववार से शिनवार तक स ताह के सात अलग-अलग िदनों म िद ली जा रहे ह। लेिकन
ू जानकारी इसी क् रम म हो। G बुधवार को जाता है। G और A के म य दो यि त जाते ह। A से पहले जाने
आव यक नहीं है िक संपण
वाले यि तयों की सं या C के बाद जाने वाले यि तयों की सं या के समान है। B और D के म य दो यि त जाते ह। D, G के बाद जाता
है। B और E के म य केवल एक यि त जाता है। F, C और B के म य जाता है।
C के बाद िकतने यि त जाते ह?

A. तीन B. एक
C. कोई नहीं D. पांच
22. कौन शिनवार को जाता है?
A. E B. A
C. D D. G
23. F िकस िदन जाता है?
A. बहृ पितवार B. रिववार
C. सोमवार D. मंगलवार
24. F और A के म य िकतने यि त जाते ह?
A. चार B. तीन
C. कोई नहीं D. एक
E. दो
25. िवषम का पता लगाएं।
A. C-B B. G-D
C. A-E D. D-B
E. F-G
26. उस भारतीय ग्रड मा टर का नाम बताइए िजसने एयरिथं स मा टस शतरंज प्रितयोिगता के आठव दौर म िव व चिपयन मै नस कालसन को
हराया है?
A. आर प्र ानानंद B. संक प ग ु ता
C. भरत सुबर् म यम D. आर राजा ऋि वक
E. िनहाल सरीन
27. काईट् रै स व ड एयरपोट अवा स 2021 सूची के अनुसार िकस भारतीय हवाई अ डे को देश के सवश्रे ठ हवाई अ डे के प म थान
िदया गया है?
A. िद ली हवाई अ डा B. मुबं ई हवाई अ डा
C. हैदराबाद हवाई अ डा D. बगलु हवाई अ डा
E. उपरो त म से कोई नहीं
28. िन निलिखत म से कौन सा यि त पिटंग से संबंिधत नहीं है?
A. अमत
ृ ा शेर-िगल B. जािमनी रॉय
C. तैयब मेहता D. मकबूल िफ़दा हुसैन
E. रिवशंकर
29. रा ट् रीय सीिनयर वॉलीबॉल चिपयनिशप म िकस टीम ने मिहला िखताब जीता है?
A. केरल B. रेल वे
C. हिरयाणा D. कनाटक
E. पंजाब
30. 2022 म G20 िशखर स मेल न िकस देश म आयोिजत िकया जाएगा?
A. इंडोनेिशया B. भारत
C. सऊदी अरब D. मलेिशया
E. ब्राजील
31. मोनपा जनजातीय समुदाय िकस रा य से संबंिधत है िज होंने हाल ही म अपना पारंपिरक तोर या महो सव मनाया?
A. मिणपुर B. नागालड
C. अ णाचल प्रदेश D. िमजोरम
E. िसि कम
32. 'हाउ टू िप्रवट द ने ट पांडेिमक' नामक पु तक के लेखक कौन ह?
A. माक जुकरबग B. िटम कु क
C. एलोन म क D. िबल गे स
E. टीव जॉ स
33. दो साल की अविध के िलए अंतरा ट् रीय रबर अ ययन समहू (IRSG) के अ य के प म िकसे िनयु त िकया गया है?
A. संजय म ोत्रा B. के.एन. राघवन
C. िवनीत जोशी D. एन चंदर् शेखरन
E. एसआर नरिस हन
34. नरौरा परमाणु पावर टे शन िकस रा य म ि थत है?
A. ग ुजरात B. महारा ट् र
C. उ र प्रदेश D. अ णाचल प्रदेश
E. राज थान
35. कद्रीय उ पाद शु क िदवस हर साल पूरे भारत म िकस तारीख को मनाया जाता है?
A. 20 फरवरी B. 21 फरवरी
C. 22 फरवरी D. 23 फरवरी
E. 24 फरवरी
36. िव तीय पद " SWIFT " म ‘S’ या दशाता है?

A. Society B. Saving
C. Scheme D. Securitization
E. Standard
37. ‘हजारों मंिदरों का शहर’_____ का नाम है।
A. वाराणसी B. ारका
C. कांचीपुरम D. भुवने वर
E. उ जैन
38. ओिरएंटल बक ऑफ कॉमस का िकस बक म िवलय हुआ?
A. बक ऑफ बड़ौदा B. केनरा बक
C. यूिनयन बक ऑफ इंिडया D. पंजाब नेशनल बक
E. बक ऑफ इंिडया
39. भारतीय प्रितभिू त एवं िविनमय बोड (सेबी) के अनुसार माच 2021 म अग्रणी ब्रोकरेज फम कौन सी है?
A. ज़ेरोधा B. आरकेएसवी िस योिरटीज
C. एंजेल ब्रोिकंग D. आईसीआईसीआई िस योिरटीज
E. 5पै सा कैिपटल
40. नागाजुन सागर बांध िन न म से िकस नदी पर ि थत है?
A. कावे री B. महानदी
C. तुंगभद्रा D. कृ णा
E. उपरो त म से कोई नहीं / उपरो त म से एक से अिधक
41. दादासाहेब फा के इंटरनेशनल िफ म फेि टवल (DPIFF) अवा स 2022 म सवश्रे ठ अिभनेता (मिहला) का पुर कार िकसे िमला?
A. दीिपका पादुकोण B. कृित सनोन
C. आिलया भ ट D. कंगना रनौत
E. जा हवी कपूर
42. म ना पटे ल एक भारतीय तैराक ह। उसकी तैराकी की शैल ी या है?
A. फ्री टाइल B. बैक ट् रोक
C. ब्रे ट ट् रोक D. बटर लाई
E. साइड ट् रोक
43. िसंगापुर एयर शो 2022 म भारत ारा िकस लड़ाकू िवमान का प्रदशन िकया गया है?
A. सुखोई एसयू-30 B. SEPECAT जग ुआर
C. तेजस एमके-1 D. डसॉ ट िमराज 2000
E. डसॉ ट राफेल
44. यूक्रेन की राजधानी या है?
A. रोम B. ओ लो
C. बेल ग्रेड D. कीव
E. उपयु त म से कोई नहीं/ उपयु त म से एक से अिधक
45. भारतीय वायु सेना (IAF) ने िकस देश के साथ ई टन िब्रज-VI अ यास का छठा सं करण आयोिजत िकया है?
A. संय ु त अरब अमीरात B. ओमान
C. कतर D. इज़राइल
E. िसंगापुर
46. केरल के रा यपाल के प म िकसे िनयु त िकया गया है?
A. भगत िसंह को यारी B. कलराज िमश्र
C. आिरफ मोह मद खान D. पी. सदािशवम
E. इनमे से कोई नहीं
47. ICC ि पिरट ऑफ िक् रकेट अवाड के प्रा तकता के प म िकसे नािमत िकया गया है?
A. डेिरल िमशेल B. केन िविलयमसन
C. टीव ि मथ D. रोिहत शमा
E. बाबर आजम
48. 'िकसान ड् रोन यात्रा' िजसका उ घाटन व तुतः पीएम मोदी ने िकया था, उसका आयोजन िकस थान पर िकया गया?
A. भोपाल B. देहरादून
C. अमत
ृ सर D. पटना
E. मानेसर
49. भारत म अपतटीय पवन पिरयोजनाओं के संय ु त िवकास की संभावनाओं का पता लगाने के िलए िकस िबजली कंपनी ने जमनी ि थत
आरड यूई अ य जीएमबीएच के साथ सहयोग िकया है?
A. टाटा पावर अ य ऊजा B. सुजलॉन
C. गीता अ य ऊजा D. ऊजा लोबल िलिमटे ड
E. अदानी पावर िलिमटे ड
50. ‘थ स अप’ के िलए ब्रांड एंबेसडर के प म िकसे िनयु त िकया गया है?
A. सलमान खान B. आिमर खान
C. शाह ख खान D. संजय द
E. सोन ू सूद
51. समान ल बाई की दो ट् रेनों को एक ख भे को पार करने म 24 और 36 सेकंड का समय लगता है। प्र येक ट् रेन की लंबाई 180 मीटर है।
तो िकतने समय म वे एक दूसरे को िवपरीत िदशा म पार करगी?

A. 22 सेकंड B. 18 सेकंड
C. 32 सेकंड D. 28.8 सेकंड
E. 46 सेकंड
52. एक धनरािश पर साधारण याज उसके मल
ू धन का है। यिद समयाविध, याज दर (प्रितशत म) का है, तो प्रितवष याज दर (प्रितशत
म) ात कर। (समय वष म है)
A. 25% B. 30%
C. 27% D. 29%
53. 21 लड़िकयों की औसत ऊचांई 148 सेमी. दज की गई थी। िशि का की ऊचाई जोड़ने पर औसत 1 से बढ़ जाता है। िशि का की
ऊचाई िकतनी है?
A. 156 सेमी. B. 168 सेमी.
C. 170 सेमी. D. 162 सेमी.
54. समान मता के दो बतन P और Q म क् रमशः 8 : x और 7 : 6 के अनुपात म दूध और पानी का िमश्रण है। यिद प्र येक बतन की कु ल
धािरता 520 लीटर है और P म दूध की मात्रा Q का है तो x का मान ात कीिजये।
A. 10 B. 5
C. 15 D. 20
E. 4
55. तीन वष पहले, राम, याम से 6 वष छोटा था और यिद वतमान म उनकी औसत आयु 25 वष हो तो पांच वष बाद उनकी आयु का अनुपात
ात कर?
A. 25:4 B. 9:11
C. इनमे से कोई नहीं D. 3:5
E. 1:2
56. िनदश: िन निलिखत प्र न म प्र नवाचक िच ह '?' के थान पर या आना चािहए?
83 + (57 का 15 ÷ 3 – 25) = ?3
A. 8 B. 7
C. 6 D. 5
E. 4
+ = 17 +
A. 1800 B. 1600
C. 1200 D. 1500
E. 1900
357 का + = ? + 120 का 55%

A. 41 B. 21
C. 11 D. 61
E. 51
59. 175 × 22 + 760 का 30% = 2 × ?
A. 1206 B. 2039
C. 1469 D. 2279
E. 1039
60. िनदश: िन निलिखत प्र न म प्र नवाचक िच ह (?) के थान पर या आना चािहए?
(225 का 36%) – (175 का 16%) = ? – 72

A. 105 B. 102
C. 110 D. 112
E. 104
64 का 125% ÷ 4 + 242.5 का 40% = ?

A. 127 B. 945
C. 117 D. 105
E. 125
62. िनदश: िन निलिखत प्र न म प्र नवाचक िच ह (?) के थान पर या आना चािहए?
(18 × 7) – = ? – (125 का 44%)

A. 162 B. 160
C. 157 D. 151
E. 164
63. िनदश: िन निलिखत सं या श्रंखला म प्र नवाचक िच ह '?' के थान पर या आना चािहए?
20, 21, 29, 38, 102, ?

A. 127 B. 163
C. 175 D. 199
4, 5, 12, 39, ?, 805

A. 120 B. 135
C. 140 D. 160
E. 175
65. िनदश: िन निलिखत सं या श्रंखला म प्र नवाचक िच ह (?) के थान पर या मान आना चािहए?
2, 5, 19, ?, 441, 2671

A. 85 B. 95
C. 105 D. 112
E. 118
288, 144, 48, 12, ?, 0.4

A. 4 B. 8
C. 6 D. 3
E. 2.4
67. िनदश : िन न आलेख (ग्राफ) का यानपवू क अ ययन कर तथा नीचे िदए गए प्र नों का उ तर द।
छात्रविृ परी ा म िविभ न िव ालयों से उपि थत हुए तथा उ तीण हुए छात्रों की कु ल सं या।
िव ालय C तथा D से परी ा म उ तीण हुए छात्रों की सं या उसी िव ालय

से परी ा म उपि थत हुए छात्रों की सं या का िकतना प्रितशत है?
A. 58.62% B. 73.91%
C. 62.58% D. 58.96%
68. िव ालय Cसे उपि थत हुए छात्रों की सं या तथा छात्रवृि परी ा म उ तीण हुए छात्रों की सं या का संबंिधत अनुपात या है?
A. 7 : 12 B. 6 : 5
C. 9 : 13 D. 9: 10
69. िव ालय Aसे छात्रवृि परी ा म उ तीण हुए छात्रों की सं या तथा िव ालय B से परी ा म उ तीण हुए छात्रों की सं या का संबंिधत
अनुपात या है?
A. 8 : 3 B. 5 : 7
C. 7 : 3 D. 9 : 5
70. िव ालय Dसे छात्रवृि परी ा हेत ु उपि थत हुए छात्रों की सं या सभी िव ालयों से एक साथ उपि थत हुए छात्रों की कु ल सं या का
लगभग िकतना प्रितशत है ?
A. 12 B. 24
C. 29 D. 18
E. 8
71. िदए गए सभी िव ालयों से छात्रवृि परी ा म उपि थत हुए छात्रों की औसत सं या तथा िदए गए सभी िव ालयों से उ तीण हुए छात्रों
कीऔसत सं या के बीच या अंतर है ?
A. 950 B. 1100
C. 990 D. 1020
72. A और B ने एक यवसाय म कु ल 5250 पये का िनवे श िकया, जबिक A ने 12 महीने के िलए और B ने 10 महीने के िलए िनवे श िकया।
यिद उ ह लाभ 4 : 5 के अनुपात म प्रा त होता है, तो B का िनवे श ात कीिजए।
A. 2400 पये B. 3350 पये
C. 3150 पये D. 2100 पये
E. 3050 पये
73. A और B एक िनि चत दूरी 4 : 5 की चाल से तय करते ह। A को यह दूरी तय करने म B से 24 िमनट अिधक लगते ह। B को गंत य तक
पहुंचने म िकतना समय लगेगा?
A. 1 घंटे 36 िमनट B. 1 घंटे 6 िमनट
C. 96 सेकड D. 90 िमनट
E. उपरो त म से कोई नहीं
74. अिमत और सुजीत डाटा एंट्री के एक असाइनमट को 5 िदन म पूरा कर सकते ह। सुजीत की गित, अिमत की गित का 80% है और
असाइनमट म बटन का कु ल 576000 बार प्रयोग है। यिद वे प्रित िदन 8 घंटे काम करते ह, तो बटन प्रयोग की अिमत की गित प्रित
घंटा या होगी?
A. 4800 B. 6400
C. 8000 D. 7200
75. A का मािसक वे तन B के मािसक वे तन से 20%अिधक है। यिद A की बचत 24000 पये है, जो िक A के मािसक वे तन का 40% है, तो
B का मािसक वे तन ात कर।
A. 54000 पये B. 66000 पये
C. 60000 पये D. 50000 पये
E. 55000 पये
76. Direction: Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow. Certain words are
printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the these.
It should come as no surprise that a serious lack of sleep, or seriously disturbed sleep, is one of the most
common symptoms of depression among adolescents. This is true for adults too, with 92% of people with
depression complaining of sleep difficulties. What is perhaps less intuitive is that problems with sleeping
might start before the depression, raising the risk of mental health problems in the future.
In a study published in 2020, examined data from a large group of teenagers followed from the age of 15
to 24. Those who reported sleeping badly at the age of 15, but didn't have depression or anxiety at the
time, were more likely than their peers to be experiencing anxiety or depression when they reached 17, 21
or 24 years of age.
With adults too, sleep problems can be a predictor of future depression. A meta-analysis of 34 studies,
which between them followed 150,000 people over a period of between three months and 34 years, found
that if people had sleep problems, their relative risk of suffering depression later in life doubled.
But you can see why in some cases poor sleep might contribute to poor mental health. A deficit of sleep
has well-established negative effects on us, including a tendency to withdraw from friends and family, a
lack of motivation and increased irritability, all of which can affect the quality of a person's relationships,
putting them at greater risk of depression. A lack of sleep can also lead to increased inflammation in the
body, which has been implicated in mental health difficulties.
Researchers are now examining the relationship between sleep disorders and other mental health
conditions. The eminent Oxford University neuroscientist has found that this link doesn't only occur in
depression. Disruption to circadian rhythms, i.e., the natural sleep-wake cycle – is not uncommon among
people with bipolar disorder or schizophrenia. In some cases, the body clock can become so out of sync
that people find themselves awake all night and asleep during the day.
Source: https://www.bbc.com/future/article/20210305
As per the passage, what does 92% of people with depression also complain about?
A. Visual inefficiency during the night B. The issue of sleep difficulties
C. Bulimia, a type of eating disorder D. Both A and B
E. Both B and C
77. Which of the following, as per the passage, can be a result of lack of sleep?
I. Lack of motivation to do anything in life.
II. Increase in irritability and a disrupted mood.

III. Inflammation of the body.

C. Only III D. Both I and II
E. All of the above
78. Which of the following statements is/are true as per the passage?
I. Sleep problems can predict a future case of depression.
II. Problems with sleeping always start after depression.
III. Lack of sleep can affect our relationship with friends and family.
C. Only III D. Both I and III
E. All of the above
79. What, according to the passage, can be the definition the circadian rhythm?
A. A natural process that regulates the sleep–wake B. A chemically induced process that regulates the
cycle. sleep–wake cycle.
C. A natural process that regulates the bowel D. A natural process that regulates the sleep–sleep
movement. cycle.
80. What can be the possible title of the passage?
A. A history of human sleep B. Excess sleep and its problem in long run
C. The connection between sleep and mental health D. A study of circadian rhythm and sleep
81. Which of the following is the MOST SIMILAR in meaning to the given word as used in the passage?
Eminent
A. Distinguished B. Obscure
C. Alluring D. Frivolous
E. Callous
82. Which of the following is OPPOSITE in meaning to the given word as used in the passage?
Implicated
A. Incriminated B. Disabled
C. Absolved D. Involved
E. Culled
83. Direction: Rearrange the following seven sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E), (F) and (G) in a proper
sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.
(A) The banker first and foremost is concerned about his own profits, about how much more he is adding
up to his account and it is almost an addiction.
(B) The dire need for making more money is what drives bankers in the first instance.
(C) This could be considered as a 'personal' need and craving for money to largely fulfill personal wants.
(D) Any investment or commercial banker or broker or anyone in the financial sector will presumably have
a healthy or unhealthy personal need for money.
(E) Of course, we all need and love money but bankers are more focused on money.
(F) The banker's psychology is based on his personal, social and political need for money.
(G) Just as a merchant or shop owner is obsessed with the goods available, the banker will be obsessed
with the money he is able to lend, borrow or do business with. Which one of the following is the FIRST
sentence of the passage?
A. B B. D
C. A D. F
E. G
84. Which one of the following is the SECOND sentence of the passage?
A. C B. E
C. A D. B
E. F
85. Which one of the following is the THIRD sentence of the passage?
A. A B. G
C. C D. D
E. E
86. Which one of the following is the FOURTH sentence of the passage?
A. D B. E
C. F D. B
E. A
87. Which one of the following is the FIFTH sentence of the passage?
A. B B. D
C. C D. E
E. G
correct as it is, mark the answer as ‘No error’. Ignore the errors of punctuation if any. The horse had
especially (1)/ attracted their notice, (2)/ because it was the biggest and a (3)/ strangest creature they had
ever seen. (4)
A. 1 B. 2
C. 3 D. 4
E. No error
89. Direction: Read the sentence to find out whether there is an error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part
of the sentence. The number corresponding to that part will be your answer. In addition the assistance
from the renters, (1)/ the money finally gave her (2)/ an income of her own, and (3)/ the token of
independence that went with it. (4)/ No error (5)
A. 1 B. 2
C. 3 D. 4
E. 5
part of the sentence. If the given sentence is correct as it is, mark the answer as No error. Ignore the
errors of punctuation if any. He was successful in (1)/ winning the support of many (2)/ of the younger
princes, and in (3)/ establish a new court of justice. (4)/ No error (5)
A. 1 B. 2
C. 3 D. 4
E. 5
correct as it is, mark the answer as ‘No error’. Ignore the errors of punctuation if any. Where the Civil War
broke out, (1)/ he fought on (2)/ the side of the South and (3)/ became a brigadier-general. (4)
A. 1 B. 2
C. 3 D. 4
E. 5
92. Direction: Read the following sentence to find out whether there is any error in it. The error, if any, will be
in one part of the sentence. The number corresponding to that part will be your answer. If the given
sentence is correct as it is, mark the answer as ‘No error’. Ignore the errors of punctuation if any. The
team has been practising hardly (1)/ for the test championship (2)/ that is due to take (3)/ place later this
year. (4)
A. 1 B. 2
C. 3 D. 4
E. No Error.
No correction required. Even national governments in the region (1) accept the need to step away from
governance (2) force and move towards military (3) that can tackle (4) problems.
A. 1-2 B. 2-3
C. 3-4 D. 4-2
E. No correction required.
94. Direction: In the given questions, four words are printed in bold and are numbered 1, 2, 3 and 4. Of
these, the positions of two of these words may be incorrect and need to be exchanged to make the
sentence correct. Find the two words which need to be exchanged. In each case the given sentences is
correct, your answer is (E) i.e. 'No exchange required'. Congested (1) roads and massive traffic (2) are
one of the first things that comes (3) to our minds when we think (4) of Mumbai.
A. 1-2 B. 2-3
C. 1-3 D. 2-4
E. No exchange required
No correction required. The root crops should be clamped (1) in frost (2) dry conditions with adequate
(3) protection against reasonably. (4)
A. 2-4 B. 1-3
C. 1-2 D. 3-4
No correction required. Environmentalists often (1) that it will not be easy (2) to persuade car drivers (3)
to use their vehicles less concede. (4)
A. 2-4 B. 2-3
C. 1-4 D. 1-3
No correction required. The invested (1) entrepreneur and a trio of venture (2) capital firms (3) in
January inveterate (4) 5 million dollars in Healthscape Inc.
A. 1-2 B. 3-4
C. 1-4 D. 2-3
and mark the correct combination as your answer. Pole
(A) Oscillation
(B) Pillar
(C) A polish person
(D) Extremity
A. A, B, C B. B, C, D
C. C, D D. A, C, D
E. A, B, D
and mark the correct combination as your answer. Bark
(A) Growl
(B) Boat
(C) Patent
(D) Peel
A. A, B, C B. B, C, D
C. A, D D. A, B, D
E. All A, B, C, D
and mark the correct combination as your answer. Fair
(A) Nudge
(B) Equitable
(C) Fete
(D) Coerce
A. A, B, C B. B, C
C. A, D D. A, B, D
E. All A, B, C, D
Solutions
1. C
Hence, the required answer is ‘R’.

2. E
Hence, the required answer is ‘None’.

3. C
Hence, the required answer is ‘More than three’ i.e. ‘4’.

4. D
Hence, the required answer is ‘Third from the bottom’.

5. C
Hence, there is one letter between L and N.

6. B
Sol. Given word: IRREVERENCE
The given word can be represented as follows:
There is only one pair - CE.
Hence, one is the correct answer.

7. A

Therefore, option A is the correct answer.

8. C

Therefore, option C is the correct answer.

9. C
Hence, the required answer is ‘One’.

10. C

Hence, the required answer is ‘F’.

11. B

Hence, the required answer is ‘T’.

12. D

Hence, only 3 is incorrect.

13. C
R does not sit at an end.

14. C

Hence, the required answer is ‘M’.

15. D

Hence, the required answer is ‘one’.

16. C

Hence, the required answer is ‘VI’.

17. A
Sol. 5 € 8 % M V ¥ © 4 # µ @ 2 3 Z B N £ β 9 X C $ ∞ 6 7 & ®
Clearly, three symbols are there in the series

eachofwhichisimmediatelyprecededbyaconsonantandimmediatelyfollowedbyasymbol.
18. E
Sol. 5 € 8 % M V ¥ © 4 # µ @ 2 3 Z B N £ β 9 X C $ ∞ 6 7 & ®
Clearly, none is the answer.

19. D
Sol. 5 € 8 % M V 4 2 3 Z B N 9 X C $ ∞ 6 7 & ®
Clearly, nine elements are there between M and C if all the symbols are dropped down from the given
series.
20. B
Sol. 5 € 8 % M V ¥ © 4 # µ @ 2 3 Z B N £ β 9 X C $ ∞ 6 7 & ®
3 is 4th number from right end and V is 8th left of 3.
Clearly, V is 8th to the left of 4th number from right end.

21. E
5) D goes after G.
Hence, six people go after C.

22. B

5) D goes after G.
Hence, A goes on Saturday.

23. C
5) D goes after G.

Hence, F goes on Monday.

24. A
5) D goes after G.

Hence, four people go between F and A.

25. D

5) D goes after G.
Hence, two people go between D and B.

26. A
Sol. • Indian Grandmaster R Praggnanandhaa has defeated world champion, Magnus Carlsen in the eighth
round of Airthings Masters Chess competition
• He won with black pieces in 39 moves to halt Carlsen's run of three straight wins
• Prior to this, Indian registered solitary win versus Levon Aronian along with recording 2 draws and 4
defeats
• Airthings Masters: 16-player online rapid chess tournament

• He has become 3rd Indian to beat Carlsen after Viswanathan Anand and P Harikrishna
27. A
Sol. 4 भारतीय हवाई अ डों - िद ली, हैदराबाद, मुबं ई और बगलु – को UK ि थत एयरलाइन और हवाईअ डा समी ा परामशदाता
काईट् रै स ारा दुिनया के 100 सवश्रे ठ हवाई अ डों म जगह िमली है।
दोहा हमद अंतररा ट् रीय हवाई अ डे को पहला थान िदया गया है।
प्रमुख िबंद ु
िद ली हवाई अ डा (इंिदरा गांधी अंतरा ट् रीय हवाई अ डा, िद ली) ने िपछले तीन वष से भारत म सवश्रे ठ हवाई अ डे के प म अपना
िखताब बरकरार रखा है।
िद ली हवाईअ डे ने अपनी समग्र रिकंग म वृि की, जो 2021 म 'िव व के शीष 50 हवाईअ डों' लीग म 2020 म 50व थान से बढ़कर
45व थान पर पहुंच गया।
काईट् रै स व ड एयरपोट अवा स को दुिनया भर म एयरपोट सिवस प्रोवाइडस के िलए वािलटी बचमाक माना जाता है। सव ण के
तहत, दुिनया भर म लगभग 550 हवाई अ डों को आंका गया है।
28. E
Sol. Except Ravishankar all are famous Indian painter. Ravi Shankar is an Indian yoga guru, a spiritual leader.
He is frequently referred to as "Sri Sri", Guru ji, or Gurudev. From around the mid 1970s, he worked as an
apprentice under Mahesh Yogi, the founder of Transcendental Meditation.
29. A
Sol. • Defending champion Kerala defeated Railways 25-21, 17-25, 25-21, 25-17 and won the women's title in
the National senior volleyball championships at the KIIT indoor stadium, Bhubaneswar.
• It was Kerala's fourth straight triumph in the Nationals.

30. A
Sol. • G20 is the premier forum for international economic cooperation that plays an important role in global
economic governance.
• In 2021, the G20 summits was held in Rome, Italy. In 2022 the G20 summit will be held in Bali, Indonesia
while in 2023 it will be held in New Delhi, India.
• India will hold the Presidency of the G20 from 1st December this year to 30th November 2023,
culminating with the G20 Summit in India in 2023.
• As per practice, a G20 Secretariat is being established to handle work relating to knowledge, content,
technical, media, security, and logistical aspects of India’s G20 Presidency.
31. C
Sol. The three days long Torgya Festival of the Monpa tribal community of Arunachal Pradesh is celebrated at
Tawang Monastery, Arunachal Pradesh. The main attraction of the festival is the ‘Sha-na Cham’, the ritual
dance performed by monks to showcase the Choe-Gyal Yap & Yum Tsa-Munde deity.
32. D
Sol. • A book titled ‘How to Prevent the Next Pandemic’ authored by Technologist, business leader,
philanthropist Bill Gates and will be published this year in May 2022.
• In the book Bill Gates has written about specific steps that can only stop future pandemics but, in the
process, provide better health care for everyone around the world.
• Bill Gates’ last book ‘How to Avoid a Climate Disaster’ was published in 2021.
33. B
Sol. • India’s K.N. Raghavan has been elected the new Chairman of the International Rubber Study Group
(IRSG) for a period of two years.
• Raghavan is currently the Executive Director of Indian Rubber Board and Head of the Indian delegation
to IRSG.
• India has taken over the chair of the IRSG from Cote d’Ivoire.
• IRSG is an intergovernmental organisation of natural rubber (NR) and synthetic rubber (SR) producing
and consuming countries.
34. C
Sol. • नरौरा परमाणु ऊजा टे शन (NAPS) एक परमाणु ऊजा संयंतर् है।
• यह उ र प्रदेश म बुल ंदशहर िजले के नरौरा म ि थत है।
• इसकी यूिनट-1 को 1 जनवरी 1991 और यूिनट -2 को 1 जुल ाई 1992 को गिठत िकया गया।
• यह यूि लयर पावर कॉरपोरेशन ऑफ इंिडया िलिमटे ड (NPCIL) ारा संचािलत है।
35. E
Sol. • Central Excise Day is observed on February 24 and it commemorates the Central Excise and Salt Act
which was enacted on 24th February 1944.
• In India, the Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs (CBIC) is responsible for administering
Customs, Goods, and Service Tax (GST), Central Excise, Service Tax, and Narcotics in India.
36. A
Sol. In 'SWIFT' S stands for - Society.
The Society for Worldwide Interbank Financial Telecommunication (SWIFT) provides a network
that enables financial institutions worldwide to send and receive information about financial
transactions in a secure, standardized and reliable environment.
The headquarters of SWIFT is located in - Belgium.
A SWIFT code is an international bank code that identifies banks worldwide.
It's also known as a Bank Identifier Code (BIC).
Commonwealth Bank of Australia uses SWIFT codes to send money to overseas banks.
SWIFT code consists of 8 or 11 characters.
CHAS - US - 33 - XXX
First four characters: These 4 characters (“CHAS” in our example) identify the bank (“JP Morgan
Chase”). This 4-letter code is used to identify this particular financial institution’s branches and
divisions all over the world.

Fifth and sixth characters: These 2 characters identify the country in which the bank is located.
“US” in this example means “UNITED STATES”.
Seventh and eighth characters: These 2 characters represent a location code (“33” in this
example).
Last three characters: These 3 characters form the branch code. “XXX” is used to identify the
HEAD OFFICE or the institution.
India was 74th Nation to join SWIFT Network.

37. C
Sol. • कांचीपुरम को "हजारों मंिदरों का शहर" के प म जाना जाता है।
• कांचीपुरम शहर, वे गवती नदी के तट पर तिमलनाडु रा य म ि थत है।
• यह वाराणसी के बाद दूसरा पिवत्रत मंिदर है।
• कांचीपुरम प लव राजवंश ारा थािपत िकया गया था और उनके साम्रा य की राजधानी नािमत िकया गया था।
• एक बरे वरार मंिदर कांचीपुरम म सबसे बड़ा मंिदर है और कैलासनाथ मंिदर कांचीपुरम म सबसे पुराना है, जो भगवान िशव को समिपत है।
38. D
Sol. • Ten Public Sector Undertaking (PSU) banks were amalgamated into four banks.
• With this, the number of public sector banks in India come down to 12 from 27.
• Oriental Bank of Commerce (OBC) and United Bank of India merged into Punjab National Bank (PNB).
• Syndicate Bank merged into Canara Bank, which will make it the fourth-largest public sector lender.
• Indian Bank was merged with Allahabad Bank.
• Union Bank of India merged with Andhra Bank and Corporation Bank.
39. A
Sol. In financial year 2021, Zerodha was the leading equity brokerage firm across India, based on the number
of active clients. With around 3.4 million active clients, the Bengaluru-based financial service company
was far in front of RKSV Securities with nearly 2 million clients and Angel Broking with 1.5 million clients.
These three companies are comparatively young, founded 2010 (Zerodha), 2009 (RKSV), and 1996
(Angel Broking) respectively.
40. D
Sol. नागाजुन सागर बाँध कृ णा नदी पर बना है। यह बांध तेल ंगाना के नलगोंडा और आंधर् प्रदेश के गट
ं ु ू र िजले के बीच ि थत है, और भारत म
दूसरा सबसे बड़ा जलाशय है।
41. B
Sol. * Dadasaheb Phalke International Film Festival (DPIFF) Awards 2022 was held in Mumbai.
* The award was presented by Dadasaheb Phalke International Film Festival (DPIFF) in memory of
Dadasaheb Phalkeji ‘Father of Indian Cinema’.
* It is India’s only independent international film festival.
* Bollywood stars Ranveer Singh and Kriti Sanon received awards in the Best Actor and Best Actress
category for their performances in movies ’83’ and ‘Mimi’.
42. B
Sol. * Female swimmer Maana Patel competed at Tokyo Olympic Games in the women’s 100m
backstroke.
* She has earned a Universality quota place.
* The 21-year-old from Gujarat was the third Indian swimmer to get a ticket to Japan.
43. C
Sol. * Indian Air Force(IAF) contingent participated in the Singapore Air Show 2022 held from 15th to 18th
February 2022 at the Changi Exhibition Centre, Singapore.
* India showcased the IAF’s ‘Made in India’ Light Combat Aircraft (LCA) Tejas Mark-One(MK-1), a 4th
generation fighter aircraft.
* Singapore Air Show is a biennial event that provides a platform for the Global Aviation Industry to
showcase its products.
* This is Asia’s largest Aerospace and Defence event.

44. D
Sol. * यूक्रेन की राजधानी कीव है।
* यूक्रेन एक यूरोपीय देश है।
* यूक्रेन यूरोपीय संघ का सद य है।

45. B
Sol. • The Indian Air Force (IAF) and the Royal Air Force of Oman conducted a five-day bilateral exercise at
the Jodhpur air force station.
• The exercise named Eastern Bridge-VI is in its sixth edition.
• Exercise Eastern Bridge V was held in October 2019 at the Air Force Base Masirah, Oman.
• The IAF contingent comprised MiG-29 and C-17 aircraft. It was the first time that MIG-29 fighter aircraft
participated in an International Exercise outside India.
46. C
Sol. • 6 िसतंबर, 2019 को आिरफ मोह मद खान को केरल का नया रा यपाल िनयु त िकया गया है।
• उ होंने भारत के पूव मु य यायाधीश पी. सदािशवम का थान िलया, िज होंने अपना पांच साल का कायकाल पूरा िकया।
• आिरफ मोह मद खान केरल के 24व रा यपाल ह।
• वह उ र प्रदेश िवधानसभा और साथ ही लोकसभा के सद य रह चुके ह।
• उ होंने पूव प्रधानमंतर् ी राजीव गांधी और वी.पी िसंह के मंित्रमंडलों म कद्रीय मंतर् ी के प म भी काम िकया है।
47. A
Sol. • New Zealand's Daryl Mitchell has been named the recipient of the ICC Spirit of Cricket Award after his
gesture in the 2021 ICC Men's T20 World Cup semi-final against England in Abu Dhabi.
• As a result, Mitchell has become the fourth New Zealand player to win the award, following the footsteps
of Daniel Vettori, Brendon McCullum and Kane Williamson.
• Mitchell won the award for refusing to take a single in the high-pressure T20 World Cup semi-final
against England in Abu Dhabi on November 10, 2021.
48. E
Sol. • Prime Minister Narendra Modi virtually launched 100 ‘Made in India’ agricultural drones across the
country, which carried out farm operations in unique simultaneous flights in Manesar, Haryana.
• The PM labelled it a “milestone” for Indian agriculture.
• A raft of recent policy relaxations and incentives, including proposals in the Union Budget 2022-23, has
opened up India’s vast agriculture sector for commercial use of drones, or unmanned aerial vehicles.
49. A
Sol. • Tata Power has collaborated with Germany-based RWE Renewable GmbH to explore potential for a joint
development of offshore wind projects in India.
• A corresponding MoU has been signed between Tata Power Renewable Energy Ltd and RWE
Renewables GmbH, one of the world's leaders in offshore wind.
• The MoU between Tata Power Renewable Energy and RWE becomes significant in the light of the
Central govt’s announcement of achieving 30GW of offshore wind installations by 2030.
50. C
Sol. • Coca-Cola India’s soft-drink brand Thums Up has on-boarded Shahrukh Khan as its brand endorser.
• Earlier this month, The Coca-Cola Company announced that the home-grown Thums Up brand became
a billion-dollar brand in 2021—the first to reach the milestone from its portfolio of drinks in India.
• The new campaign has been launched to mark this key milestone.
51. D
Sol. Speed of 1st train = = 7.5 m/s
Speed of 2nd train = = 5 m/s
Time taken by the trains to cross each other = = 28.8 seconds

52. A
Sol. Let the Principal be x
∴ Simple Interest =
Let rate of interest be y%
∴ Time Period = years

According to the question,
⇒ 4y² = 2500
⇒ y² =
⇒y= = 25 %
Hence, option A is correct
53. C
Sol. Sum of the heights of all the girls = 148 × 21 = 3108 cm
Sum of the heights of the teacher and all the girls = 149 × 22 = 3278 cm
∴ Teacher's height = 3278 – 3108 = 170 cm
Hence, option C is correct

54. B
Sol. Milk in Q liter
Milk in P = 320 liter
So,
55. B
Sol. माना 3 साल पहले राम की आयु x वष थी
याम= x+6 वष
राम की वतमान आयु= x+3
यामकी वतमान आयु= x+6+3= x+9
वतमान म, राम और याम की कु ल आयु= 25*2= 50
इसिलए,
x+3+x+9=50
2x= 50-12
x= 38/2= 19 वष
5वष बाद राम की आयु= 19+3+5= 27 वष
5वष बाद याम की आयु= 19+9+5= 33 वष
ात/ प्रा त अनुपात= 27:33= 9:11
56. B
Sol. 83 + (15 of 57 ÷ 3 – 25) = ?3
⇒ 83 + (15 × 19 – 25) = ?3
⇒ ?3 = 83 + (285 – 25)
⇒ ?3 = 83 + (260)
⇒ ?3 = 343
⇒?=
⇒?=7
57. B
Sol. + = 17 +
⇒ 22 + 35 = 17 +
⇒ 57 – 17 =
⇒ = 40
⇒ ? = (40)2 = 1600
58. E
Sol. × 357 + × 336 = ? + × 120
⇒ 21 + 96 = ? + 66
⇒ ? = 117 – 66 = 51
59. B
Sol. 175 × 22 + 30% of 760 = 2 × ?

⇒ 3850 + × 760 = 2 × ?
⇒ 3850 + 228 = 2 × ?
⇒ 4078 = 2 × ?
⇒?=
⇒ ? = 2039
60. B
Sol. (36% of 225) – (16% of 175) = ? – 72
⇒?= × 225 – × 175 + 49
= 81 – 28 + 49 = 102
61. C
Sol. ? = 125% of 64 ÷ 4 + 40% of 242.5
= × 16 + × 242.5
= 20 + 97 = 117
62. A
Sol. (18 × 7) – = ? – (44% of 125)
⇒ 126 – 19 =
⇒ 107 = ? – 55
⇒ ? = 107 + 55 = 162
63. A
20 + 12 = 21
21 + 23 = 29
29 + 32 = 38
38 + 43 = 102
102 + 52 = 127
64. D
4×1+1=5
5 × 2 + 2 = 12
12 × 3 + 3 = 39
39 × 4 + 4 = 160
160 × 5 + 5 = 805
65. A
2 × 2 + 12 = 5
5 × 3 + 22 = 19
19 × 4 + 32 = 85
85 × 5 + 42 = 441
441 × 6 + 52 = 2671

66. E
Sol. The pattern of series is:
288 ÷ 2 = 144
144 ÷ 3 = 48
48 ÷ 4 = 12
12 ÷ 5 = 2.4
2.4 ÷ 6 = 0.4
Thus, the missing number is 2.4.
67. B
Sol. Required percentage = × 100 = × 100 = 73.91%
68. E
Sol. Required percentage = 3250 : 2250 = 13 : 9
69. E
Sol. Required ratio = 1750 : 1250 = 7 : 5
70. D
Sol. Total number of students appeared for the exam = 3000 + 2250 + 3250 + 2500 + 3000 = 14000
∴ Required percentage = × 100 18
71. A
Sol. Total number of students passed in exam = 1750 + 1250 + 2250 + 2000 + 2000 = 9250
Total number of students appeared in the exam = 14000
Difference = 14000 – 9250 = 4750
∴ Required difference of averages
= × 4750 = 950
72. C
Sol. Let A invested Rs. X
So, investment of B = (5250 – X)

ATQ –
⇒ 3X = 10500 X
⇒ X = 2100
Investment of B = (5250 Rs. 3150

73. A
Sol. A : B = 4 : 5 (Speed ratio)
It must be known that, Speed ratio = 1/Time ratio
So, Time Ratio of A : B = 5 : 4
Say B takes X minutes to reach the destination.
Therefore, = =
On solving the equation, X = 96 minutes = 1 hour 36 minutes

74. C
Sol. Ratio between work done by Amit and Sujit = 100 : 80 = 5 : 4
Total work done by Amit = 320000
Speed of Amit =
75. D
Sol. Let the monthly salary of B be Rs. x.
Then, monthly salary of A = 1.2x
Savings of A = 40% of 1.2x
So, 24000 = 0.48x
⇒ x = 50000
So, monthly salary of B = Rs. 50000
So option (d) is the correct answer.
76. B
Sol. The passage in the first paragraph clearly says that “This is true for adults too, with 92% of people with
depression complaining of sleep difficulties.” The rest of the problems are not mentioned. Thus, option B is
the correct answer.
77. E
Sol. The passage states that “But you can see why in some cases poor sleep might contribute to poor mental
health. A deficit of sleep has well-established negative effects on us, including a tendency to withdraw
from friends and family, a lack of motivation and increased irritability, all of which can affect the quality of a
person's relationships, putting them at greater risk of depression. A lack of sleep can also lead to
increased inflammation in the body, which has been implicated in mental health difficulties.”
Thus, all of the statement is true as per the passage. Thus, option E is the correct answer.
78. D
Sol. Only statement I and III are true.
Refer to the following lines in the passage: “With adults too, sleep problems can be a predictor of future
depression.”
“A deficit of sleep has well-established negative effects on us, including a tendency to withdraw from
friends and family”.
Statement II is false. Refer to the statement: “What is perhaps less intuitive is that problems with sleeping
might start before the depression, raising the risk of mental health problems in the future.”
Thus, option D is the correct answer.

79. A
Sol. The passage clearly states that “. Disruption to circadian rhythms, i.e., the natural sleep-wake cycle – is
not uncommon among people with bipolar disorder or schizophrenia.”

80. C
Sol. The entire passage talks about sleep or how the lack of it can cause various kinds of mental problems, a
major one among them being depression. Thus, out of all the options, the title suggested by option C is
the most appropriate. Thus, option C is the correct answer.
81. A
Sol. The meaning of the word ‘eminent’ is (used about a person) famous and important.
The word distinguished meaning: important, successful and respected by other people

82. C
Sol. The term implicated means to show that somebody is involved in something unpleasant, especially a
crime.
The term absolved means that somebody does not have to take responsibility for something, or has been
formally acquitted of something.
Thus, option C is the correct answer.

83. D
When arranging sentences in a paragraph, we should first understand the main concept or the theme of

84. C

85. B
So, the correct answer is option B.

86. D

87. C

88. C
Sol. While talking about single entity, article is used only once but in the sentence only a single horse is talked
about and there are two articles in part 3 is erroneous. we need to remove the wrong article 'a'. Hence
there is an error here and option C is the answer.
89. A
Sol. The correct structure used in English is ‘in addition to + noun’ and in part 1 ‘to’ is missing. So there should
be a ‘to’ after addition here. Hence there is an error part 1 and option A is the answer.
90. D
Sol. After a preposition only gerund form (V-ing) is used and in part 4 V1 form (establish) is used which is
incorrect here. It should be replaced by ‘establishing’. Hence there is an error part 4 and option D is the
answer.
91. A
Sol. We use "when" as a conjunction meaning ‘at the time that’ but in part 1 where is used to indicate time.
Hence there is an error part 1 and option A is the answer.
92. A
Sol. The error is in the first part of the sentence. Here we need the adverb ‘hard’ here which will mean
‘practising sincerely’.
“Hardly” means ‘not at all’ or ‘very little’. So ‘hardly’ should be replaced by ‘hard’ in the first part to correct
the question.
Hence, the correct answer is option A.
93. B
Sol. ‘governance force’ is an incorrect phrase. It should be replaced by ‘military force’
to make the sentence meaningful. Thus, 2 and 3 should interchange, making
option B the correct answer.
94. E
Sol. The sentence is correct and needs no changes. Hence, the correct answer is E.
95. A
Sol. In the given sentence we can ﬁgure out that (2) needs an adverb to modify the
adjective ‘dry’ while (4) needs a noun against which protection is required.
Therefore, (2) and (4) i.e. ‘frost’ and ‘reasonably’ must be exchanged to form a
correct sentence. Thus, option A is the correct answer.
96. C
Sol. Here we see that (1) needs a verb while (4) needs an adverb after ‘less’.
Therefore, (1) and (4) i.e. ‘often’ and ‘concede’ must be exchanged to form a
correct sentence. Thus, option C is the correct answer.
97. C
Sol. In the given sentence, it is evident that (1) needs an adjective to modify the noun ‘entrepreneur’ while (4)
needs a verb. Also, ‘invested’ is apt before the amount mentioned in the sentence.
Therefore, (1) and (4) i.e. ‘invested’ and ‘inveterate’ must be exchanged to form a correct sentence. Thus,
option C is the correct answer.
Inveterate: settled or confirmed in a habit, practice (in this case, that of being an entrepreneur), feeling, or
the like.
98. B
Sol. 'Pole' refers to a long, slender, rounded piece of wood or metal, typically used with one end placed in the
ground as a support for something (pillar). To refer to a native of Poland, we use the word ‘Pole’. 'Pole' is
also used to represent the extreme point of something. Thus, alternatives B, C and D are correct.
99. D
Sol. ‘Bark’ can be used in a sentence as ‘cry of a dog, fox, or sea’. In the literary form, it is also used to denote
a boat or ship. 'Bark' is as a verb is used as 'strip the bark from (a tree or piece of wood)'. Thus, "peel" is
also a synonym.
100. B
Sol. The word ‘fair’ refers to treating people equally without favouritism or discrimination. It also refers to a
gathering of stalls and amusements for public entertainment (fete).

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Mock Test Solutions in English

Which of the following boxes is placed at the bottom?

Point V is in which direction with respect to point Z?

How many people sit between J and K?

1) H sits to the right of F.

3) J sits diagonally opposite S.

Who got the second rank?

How many people go after C?

34. Narora Atomic Power Station is situated in which state?

if the time period is of rate of interest. (Time is in years)

of 357 + of 336 = ? + 55% of 120

125% of 64 ÷ 4 + 40% of 242.5 = ?

The number of students qualified in the examination from schools C and D

I. Lack of motivation to do anything in life.

II. Increase in irritability and a disrupted mood.

III. Inflammation of the body.

I. Sleep problems can predict a future case of depression.

II. Problems with sleeping always start after depression.

2. Three boxes are placed between O and R.

3. Five boxes are placed between R and N.

4. One box is placed between N and M, which is placed immediately above V.

5. Three boxes are placed between V and F.

6. K is placed immediately below W.

Hence, the required answer is ‘R’.

2. Three boxes are placed between O and R.

3. Five boxes are placed between R and N.

4. One box is placed between N and M, which is placed immediately above V.

5. Three boxes are placed between V and F.

6. K is placed immediately below W.

Hence, the required answer is ‘None’.

2. Three boxes are placed between O and R.

3. Five boxes are placed between R and N.

4. One box is placed between N and M, which is placed immediately above V.

5. Three boxes are placed between V and F.

6. K is placed immediately below W.

Hence, the required answer is ‘More than three’ i.e. ‘4’.

2. Three boxes are placed between O and R.

3. Five boxes are placed between R and N.

4. One box is placed between N and M, which is placed immediately above V.

5. Three boxes are placed between V and F.

6. K is placed immediately below W.

Hence, the required answer is ‘Third from the bottom’.

2. Three boxes are placed between O and R.

3. Five boxes are placed between R and N.

4. One box is placed between N and M, which is placed immediately above V.

5. Three boxes are placed between V and F.

6. K is placed immediately below W.

Hence, there is one letter between L and N.

The given word can be represented as follows:

There is only one pair - CE.

Hence, one is the correct answer.

Sol. 1) Point S is 20m south of point T.

2) Point S is 10m west of point R, which is 20m north of point V.

3) Point Y is 15m west of point V.

4) Point X is 25m north of point W, which is 15m east of point R.

5) Point Z is 15m west of point X.

Therefore, option A is the correct answer.

2) Point S is 10m west of point R, which is 20m north of point V.

3) Point Y is 15m west of point V.

4) Point X is 25m north of point W, which is 15m east of point R.

5) Point Z is 15m west of point X.

Therefore, option C is the correct answer.