1.

It refers to a tool of assessment used to help narrow down and identify areas of deficit to be targeted
for intervention.

A . Informal Evaluation
B. Diagnostic Test
C. Psychological Autopsy
D. Integrative Reporting

2. It evaluates accomplishment or degree of learning that has taken place

A. Aptitude test
B. Interest Test
C. Achievement Test
D. Diagnostic Test

3. It Is defined as acting an improvised or partially improvised in part in a simulated situation.

A. Role Play
B. Role play test
C. both a and b
D. none of the choice

4. A Tool of assessment wherein assesses are directed to act as if they were in a particular situation.

A. Role Play
B. Role-play test
C. both a and b
D. none of the choice

5. It Is a monitoring actions of others or oneself by visual or electronic means while recording

quantitative/qualitative information regarding the actions

A. Behavioral Observation
B. Mental Status Examination
C. Intake interview
D. Survey

6. The term "alternate assessment" refers to

A. the alternation of verbal and performance tasks in administering a test.

B. the alternative of declining to be assessed on Constitutional grounds
C. a special accommodation or alternative method of assessment
D. an evaluation of a stand in for the person originally scheduled.
7. A key difference between the terms “psychological testing" and “psychological assessment” is that
"psychological testing” refers to a process that:

A. involves more problem solving than psychological assessment.

B. is more technician-like than psychological assessment.
C. was first described by Maloney and Ward -1970s.
D. is much broader in scope than psychological assessment.

8. “Johnny is inappropriately out of his seat for 56 minutes per morning session “A statement like this is
most likely to appear in a report using which tool of assessment?

A. behavioral observation
B. role play
C. interview
D. portfolio assessment

9. A psychometrician keenly chose the appropriate test to their clientele, he/she makes sure that it
could measure what It purport to measure and does so in a relatively consistent fashion. This is in
reference to the

A. degree to which a tool of assessment Is precise

B, degree to which a tool of assessment is concise.
C. computer administered version of a paper-and-pencil test.
D. technical or psychometric quality of a test.

10 If____ is to typically, to answer a referral question solve a problem or arrive at a decision through the
use of tools of evaluation; then ____ 1s to typically, obtain some gauge , usually numerical in nature,
with regard to an ability or attribute,

A. Testing: Assessment
B. Assessment; Testing
C. Retrospective Assessment; Remote Assessment
D. Remote Assessment, Retrospective Assessment

11.The following statements below are one of the examples of the advantages on using computer
assisted psychological assessment (CAPA), EXCEPT:

A. Saves professional time and admiration, scoring and interpretation

B. ensures standardized test administration to all test takers with little, if any, variation in test
administration Procedures.
C. computers can automatically tailor test content and length based on responses of test takers.
D. the possibility of software or hardware glitch is ever present and test takers may or have different
test taking experience
12. What is /are the particular way/s of interviewers made a difference?

A. the interviewer's pacing of interviews

B. the interviewer's rapport with interviewees
C. the interviewer's ability to convey genuineness, empathy, and humor
D. all of these

13. Case history data may include?

a. Portfolio in school
b. family album.
c. medical records.
d. all of the above.

14. These are the settings to where the behavioral observations are used, EXCEPT.

A. Behavioral research laboratories

B. Classrooms
C. Corporate setting
D. Pictures of humans in the yearbook

15. The following below are the tools for psychological assessment, EXCEPT.

A. Interview
B. Position at work
C. Behavioral Observation
D. Case History Data

16. It is a measure of variability equal to the square root of the average squared deviations about the
mean.

A. Measures of Variability
B. Correlation Coefficient
C. Standard Deviation
D. Variance

17. Changes in weather, emotional strain, and health are one of the variables in?

A. test user
B. test developer
C. both a and b
D. test taker
18. It is an indication of how scores in a distribution are scattered or dispersed.

A. variability
B. range
C. negatively skewed
D. positively skewed

19. It is a straightforward, unmodified accounting of performance that is usually numerical.

A. Average
B. Raw Score
C. Variance
D. Standard deviation

20. It refers to a tool of assessment used to help narrow down and identify areas of deficit to be
targeted for intervention.

A. Informal Evaluation
B. Psychological Autopsy
C. Diagnostic Test
D. Integrative Reporting

21. Francis Galton’s initial work on inheritance was conducted with?

A. white rats
B. poppy seeds
C. pea pods
D. all of the above

22. “We use tests that are standardized. valid. reliable. and has a normative data directly referable to
the population of our clients”

a. this statement is false

b. this statement is true
c this statement is conditional
d. this statement is true and also conditional

23. The following below are the rights of a test taker, EXCEPT

A. Right of informed consent

B. Right to privacy and confidentiality
C. Right to be informed of test findings
D. Right to know the labels
24. Psychologists accept as fundamental the Principle of Respect for the Dignity of Persons and Peoples
In so doing, they accept the following related values, EXCEPT.

A. respect for the unique worth and inherent dignity of all human beings
B. honesty, truthful, open, and accurate communications
C. fairness and justice in the treatment of persons and peoples
D. respect for the diversity among persons and peoples

25. These are one of the general standards and procedures of Psychologists and psychometricians.
EXCEPT.

A. how we resolve ethical issues in our professional lives and communities

B. how we adhere to the highest standards of professional competence
C how we maintain confidentiality in the important aspects of our professional and scholarly functions
D. how we commit and when to commit multiple relationship to our recent clients.

26. The multiple relationship occurs when a psychologist?

A. promises to enter into a future relationship with that client/patient or a person closely associated
with or related to that client/patient.
B. Is In another role with the same person/client
C. Is Sticking to the objective and maintain a client and psychologist relationship
D. both a and b are correct

27. When confidential information is needed to be shared with schools. organizations. social agencies or
industry, we make sure that?

A. It must be released to one who owned the test by the psychometrician

B. only qualified Psychologists will supervise such releases
C. it must be released to the one who requested It
D. both a and b are correct

28 Annie was a newly hired to work at a preschool as the resident school psychologist Her supervisor
informed that she had to conduct psychological tests on all the children at the preschool She also
assured that seeking parental consent was not necessary What is the best course of action for Annie to
take?

A. Annie must seek the informed consent of the parents aside from informed assent
B. Annie can proceed with the assessment
C. Annie can discuss her concerns with the preschool teachers
D. Anne can get the consent of the children she is assessing
29. “We ensure that we do not use descriptions or information that could be misinterpreted and we act
quickly to correct such misinterpretation.” This quote is under of what specific guidelines of the
advertisement and public statement was stipulated?

A. Public Statements
B. Avoidance of False or Deceptive Statements
C. Testimonial
D. Withholding client records

30. Test scores are frequently expressed as numbers and statistical tools are frequently used to

A. describe test scores

B make inferences from test scores.
C. draw conclusions about test scores
D. all of the above

31. This 1s the process of assigning evaluative codes or statements to performance on tests. tasks.
interviews. or other behavior samples.

A. Scoring
B. Evaluating
C. Assessing
D. Gathering

32. A type of scale with a true Zero point is?

A. an IQ scale
B. an ordinal scale
C. an interest scale.
D. a ratio scale.

33. An average IQ is 100 with a standard deviation of 15. What do you think is the stanine fell in the
normal curve?

A. 1-3
B. 46
C. 7-9
D. 5 only

34. The area of a normal distribution between +1 and -1 encompasses approximately how much of the
curve?

A. 50% C. 95%
B. 68% D. 99%
35. If a test taker got a score in the 7th stanine, What is the percentile equivalent of the score?

A. Approximately 85%
B. Approximately 50%
C. Approximately 40%
D. Approximately 99%

36. If a test taker ’s score 1s at -1 Standard Deviation away from the mean, what would the T score
equivalent be?

A. 80
B. 60
C. 40
D. 30

37. An individual test item that includes yes or no answer would be considered which kind of scale?

A. Nominal
B. Ordinal
C. Scale
D. Interval

38. If a test taker scores with the 95th percentile, what would you say about his/her score?

A. 5% got lower
B. 5% got higher
C. He/she has az score equivalent to -3
D. His/her IQ score would be equivalent to 55

39. Which does not belong?

A. Mean
B. Interval
C. Mode
D. Median

40. Ona test of general cognitive ability. a 5-year-old child obtains a mental age score of 4 years and a
10-year old child obtains a mental age score of 9 years If one were to compute their IQs according to the
original ratio IO formula, which of the following would be the result?

A. Both children would have the same IQ

B. The 5-year old would obtain a higher IO
C. The 10-year old would obtain a higher IQ
D. None of the above
41. The following are true about grouped frequency distribution EXCEPT

A. Test-score intervals replace actual test scores

B. Some detail may be lost
C. in most cases, a decision about the size of a class interval in a grouped frequency distribution is made
based on convenience
D. None of the above

42. It is the section of the code of ethics of the Psychological Association of the Philippines based on
enforceable rules of conduct.

a. Justice
b. Integrity
c. Respect for people's rights and dignity
d. Ethical Standards

43. As a psychometrician, a client came to you and asks you to evaluate the substandard work of
another psychometrician. What must you do?

A. Contact the erring psychometrician and inform him/her of the mistake

B. Inform the client of possible legal remedies
C. Seek the consent of the client before doing anything else
D. Refer the client to another psychometrician

44. In the PAP Code of Ethics, in the section of Competencies, a psychologist should do the following,
EXCEPT:

A. ensure that their professional activities match their training and expertise
B. makes efforts to avoid any negative impact of burnout or personal problems on their work.
C. attains cultural competence for a diverse range of clients
D. keeps all the recordings from sessions of counseling for a community exhibit.

45. What makes multiple relationship unethical?

A. If the multiple relationship could not be reasonably caused exploitation

B. If the multiple relationship could reasonably impair the objectivity, competence, or effectiveness in
performing his or her function as psychologist.
C. Both a and b
D. None of the choices above
46. The following below are the Ethical Principles of Psychologists and Code of Conduct relating to
multiculturalism, EXCEPT:

A. Respect for people's rights and dignity

B. Unfair Discrimination
C. Boundaries of competence
D. Spreading assessment results

47. When conducting assessments in children, one must do the following EXCEPT

A. Be responsive to the differing needs of children

B. Evaluate infants and children with competence and care
C. Be more aware of their own feelings than those of the parents
D. Adequately inform the parents of the procedures

48. A child is being assessed because of difficulties at school However, the parents and the school
authorities disagree on the issue and pressure Is not being placed on you. What is your best course of
action in this instance?

A. Follow the directive of the school because the school is your employer
B. Offer the most scientifically and clinically sound recommendation
C. Succumb to the wishes of the parents
D. Withdraw from the process

49. In order to avoid confusion during the assessment process, the psychologist must take the following
into consideration EXCEPT.

A. Clarify the referral questions

B. Explain the process in language the client can understand
C. Discuss the goals of the assessment
D. Fail to address the client’s expectations

50. When a client is unwilling to participate in the assessment process but is coerced to do so, which of
the following makes it unethical?

A. When the client is not happy about it

B. When the psychologist is able to explain the associated risks
C. When the client does not understand the nature of the evaluation
D. When the client needs to undergo testing for a specific reason.

51. It is part of the party who create tests or other methods of assessment.

A. Test Taker C. Test Examiner

B. Test Developer D. Test Distributor
52. The term “portfolio assessment” encompasses?

A. case study assessments.

B. school sample assessments.
C. work sample assessments.
D. all of the above

53.In Wilhelm Wundt's laboratory in Leipzig in the nineteenth century, psychological testing and
assessment?

a. focused more on individual similarities than differences

b. focused on variables such as reaction time and attention span.
c. both a and b
d. none of the choices

54. He Originated the concept of test reliability and built the mathematical framework from the
statistical technique of factor analysis

a. Francis Galton
b. Charles Spearman
c. Victor Henri
d. Jean Piaget

55. A body of rules thought to be good for society as a whole.

a. Law
b. Ethics
c. contract
d. memorandum of agreement

56. He is best known as the father of statistical method called “factor analysis and used to prophesize™
the accuracy of tests of different sizes.

A. Charles Spearman
B. Raymond Catell
C. Stanford Binet
D. Francis Galton

57. Measurement may be defined as the act of assigning numbers or symbols to characteristics of
objects (as well as people. events or other things) according to.

A. tests. C. rules.
B. scales. D. intuition.
58. Which of the following reflects the highest degree of correlation between two variables?

A.000
B. 0.95
C. 0.50
D. 0.20

59 An individual with a Deviation IQ score of 55 would have an equivalent percentage score of

A. 0.10%
B. 159%
C. 50.0%
D. 97.7%

60. A Deviation |Q score of 145 is approximately how many standard deviations away from the mean?

A. Between 0 and +1
B. Between +2 and +3
C. Between +1 and +2
D. Between +3 and +4

61. What is the curve of the given, Mean: 8, Median: 10, Mode: 3

A. Normal
B. Negatively Skewed
C. Positively Skewed
D. Imperfect

62. Honorable in High school graduation is an example of?

A. Nominal
B. Interval
C. Ordinal
D. Ratio

63 When a raw score number 8 has a standard score of 7. this entails that?

A. It falls in the negate side of the Cartesian Plane for 7 units

B. The score is deducted with 7 units
C. The score is below the Mean for about 7 units
D. None of the above
64 What curve will we see with the given, Mean: 30, Median: 28, Mode: 10

A. Normal
B. Positively skewed
C. Negatively skewed
D. Imperfect

65. Which is true about a Normal curve?

A. The Mean, Median and Mode are equal

B. The Mean is larger than the Median
C. The Median is larger than the Mean
D. The Mode is larger than the Mean and Median

66. Can the value of Range. Standard Deviation. and Variance of a set of score be negative?

A. Yes, if negative scores are greater than positive scores

B. Maybe. if the positive scores are cancelled out in the calculation
C. No, because these measures cancel out the possibility of negative scores
D. None of the above

67. A social Psychologist observed that when the scores are plotted. the curve of scores falls at the left
side of the scatter plot Which statement Is correct.

A. The curve is negatively skewed since its curve is on the left side of the scatter plot
B. The curve is positively skewed in which low scores are frequent and an extremely high score is in the
distribution
C. The curve is normal which means that the Mean. Median and Mode !s aligned in the left-center of the
plot
D. All of the above

68 When a percentile rank of a score falls in 20%, it means that?

A. 20% of scores are equal to the Mean

B. 20% of scores 1s above the raw score in question
C. 20% of scores falls below the raw score in question
D. 20% of scores falls under the Mean

69 These are three main reasons on why normal curve 's a very important distribution in the behavioral
sciences, except.

A. Many of the inference test used in analyzing experiments have sampling distribution s that become
normally distributed with increasing sample size
B. Many tests require sampling distributions that are normally distributed
C. Many variables measured in behavioral science research have distributions that quite closely
approximate the normal curve
D. Many tests require sampling distributions that are not normally distributed

70 What level of measurement is your phone number belong to?

A. Nominal
B. Ordinal
C. Interval
D. Ratio

71. It is an informed, scientific idea developed or generated to describe or explain behavior

A. Trait
B. Construct
C. Covert behavior
D. Overt Behavior k

72. It is most appropriate to use the Spearman-Brown formula to estimate what form of reliability?

A. Test-retest reliability
B. Past-present reliability
C. Split-half reliability
D. Alternate-forms reliability

73. It is obtained by correlating two pairs of scores obtained from equivalent halves of a single test
administered once.

A. Odd Even Reliability

B. Split-half reliability
C. Test-retest reliability
D. Spearman Brown Formula

74. It is to measure what it purports to measure

A. Reliability
B. Validity
C. Consistency
D. Norms

75. The test performance data of a particular group of test takers that are designed for use as a
reference when evaluating or interpreting individual test scores.
A. Reliability
B. Validity
C. Consistency
D. Norms

76. The process of selecting the portion of the universe deemed to be representative of the whole
population.
A. Norming
B. Sampling
C. Selecting
D. Discriminating

77. If ____ is to we arbitrarily select some sample because we believe it to be representative of the
population, then we have selected what is referred, while __s to the one that ts available for use.

A. Stratified sampling: Purposive sampling

B. Purposive sampling; Convenient sampling
C. Convenient sampling; Purposive sampling
D. Purposive sampling, stratified sampling

78. Which of the following does NOT belong to the choices?

A. Standard error of the mean

B. Standard error of the context
C. Standard error of the difference
D. Standard error of the estimate

79. It is an expression of the percentage of people whose score on a test or measure falls below a
particular raw score.

A. Norms
B. Percentile
C. Percent Correct
D. None of the choices
80. It is the raw data from a test's standardization sample converted to percentile form.

A. Percentile norms
B. Grade Norms
C. Local Norms
D. Subgroup Norms

81. “Take for granted that a test is based on assumptions that impact all groups in much the same way”.
As culturally informed assessment, this line 1s in contrast to the DO's of what statement below?
A. Be aware on the cultural assumptions on which a test is based
B. Select tests or other tools of assessment with little appropriateness
C. Score, interpret and analyze assessment in a cultural vacuum.
D. None of the these

82. Which of the following below is NOT true about criterion?

A. Standard against which a test or a test score Is evaluated

B. This standard may take any forms
C. This include behavior or set of behaviors
D. All of the above

83. When evaluating the homogeneity of a measure or all items are tapping a single construct. What
sources of error variance?

A. Test construction
B. Administration
C. Scoring and interpretation
D. All of these

84. It describes a judgement of how adequately a test samples behavior representative of the universe
of behavior that the test was designed to sample.

A. Concurrent validity
B. Predictive validity
C. Criterion related validity
D. Content validity

85. If ___ is an Index of the degree to which a test score is related to some criterion measure obtained at
the same time; while ___is an index of the degree to which test score expects some criterion measure.

A. Predictive validity; Concurrent validity

B. Concurrent validity; Predictive validity
C. Concurrent validity, Criterion related validity
D. Criterion related validity; Concurrent validity

86. Itis the term applied to a criterion measure that has been based, at least in part or predictor
measures.

A. Predictive validity
B. Concurrent validity
C. Criterion contamination
D. Criterion related validity
87. If __ Is the proportion of people a test accurately identifies as possessing or exhibiting a particular
trait, behavior, or attribute; while ____ is the extent to which a particular trait behavior , characteristic
or attribute exist in the population.

A. Hit rate; Base rate

B. Base rate; Hit rate
C. Miss rate; Hit rate
D. Hit rate; Miss rate

88. Itis a correlation coefficient that provides a measure of the relationship between test scores and
scores on the criterion measure,

A. Validity coefficient
B. Reliability coefficient
C. Construct validity
D. Incremental validity

89. A cancer screening test comes back positive, but you don't have the disease. This is an example of ?

A. False negative
B. False positive
C. Hit rate
D. Miss rate

90. It is a miss wherein the test predicted that the test taker did not possess the particular characteristic
or attribute being measured when the test taker actually did.

A. False negative
B. False positive
C. Hit rate
D. Miss rate

91. A job applicant takes a company-administered test for employment and then questions the
relevance to the job of certain test items. Stated another way, the applicant is expressing concern about
the test's…

A. incremental validity
B. content validity
C. factor loadings
D. all of the above

92. Eve an HR specialist choses the average on IQ Test result and with average Emotional Stability test
result than the applicant who got Superior in 1Q Test result but with low average on Emotional Stability
test result. This is an example of?
A. False negative
B. False positive
C. Hit rate
D. Miss rate

93. A test result which incorrectly indicates that a particular condition or attribute is present.

A. False negative
B. False positive
C. Hit rate
D. Miss rate

94. It refers to how uniform a test is in measuring a single concept.

A. Homogeneity
B. Construct
C. Criterion
D. Trait

95. A test scores obtained after some event of the mere passage of time (or posttest scores) differ from
pretest scores as theoretically predicted. This is an evidence of?

A. Homogeneity
B. Pretest-posttest changes
C. Construct validity
D. Changes with age

96. Which among of the following is a subtype of construct validity?

A. Discriminant validity
B. Convergent validity
C. Incremental validity
D. Both a and b

97. This assessment technique’s task is to sort a group of statement, usually in perceived rank order
ranging from most descriptive to least descriptive

A. Q Sort Technique
B. Selection Technique
C. Sort Task
D. Ranking Technique
98. In the MMPI-2-RF, an individual who scores high in this scale is described as acting in violation of
societal rules.
A. Antisocial Behavior
B. Somatic Complaints
C. Demoralization
D. Low Positive Emotions

99. In the MMPI-2-RF, this scale is described as diffuse complaints related to physical Health.

A. Cynicism
B. Aberrant experiences
C. Somatic Complaints
D. Hypomanic activation

100. This scale in the MMPI-2-RF is described as the pervasive belief that problems are unsolvable
and/or goals are unattainable

A. Helplessness/ Hopelessness
B. Juvenile Conduct Problems
C. Self-Doubt
D. Substance Abuse

101. These tests are designed to provide an indication of where a test taker stands with respect to some
variable or criterion, such as an educational or a vocational objective

A. Norm referenced Tests

B. Alternate Forms Tests
C. Criterion-Referenced Test
D. Parallel Forms Test

102. This may be viewed as an extension of true score theory wherein the concept of a universe score
replaces that of a true score

A. Generalizability Theory
B. Facetious Theory
C. Universal Theory
D. Domain Theory

103. These test items are questions that can be answered with only one of two alternative test
responses.

A. Polytomous Test Items

B. Monotonous Test items
C. Dichotomous Test Items
D. Differential Test Items

104. This is a judgment of how well a test measures what it purports to measure in a particular context.

A. Variability
B. Validity
C. Reliability
D. Consistency

105. The following are true about the valid! Of a test EXCEPT
A. Inherent in the judgment of an instrument’s validity is a judgment of how useful it is for a particular
purpose with a particular purpose with a particular population of people.
B. A test can be valid for all uses.
C. No test or measurement is universally valid for all time
D. A test may be shown to be valid within what would be characterized as reasonable boundaries.

106. The following are as-roaches to assessing validity EXCEPT

A. Content Valid
B. Criterion-related Validity
C. Inter-item validity
D. Construct validity

107. Which of the following measures of validity is considered the umbrella validity?

A. Construct Validity
B. Criterion-Related Validity
C. Content Validity
D. Inter Item Validity

108 Which of the following is true about the three types of validity evidence?

A. They contribute to a unified picture of a test’s validity

B. All three types of validity are equally relevant
C. A test user needs all three to determine a test’s validity
D. None of the three types are equally relevant

109 This type of validity relates more to what a test appears to measure to the person being tested than
to what it actually measures.

A. Predictive Validity
B. Face Validity
C. Concurrent Validity
D. Construct Validity
110 The following would be included in the test blueprint EXCEPT

A Structure of the test

B. The number of items tapping each area of coverage
C. The types of information covered by the items
D. Validity information of the test

111. This is an index of the degree to which a test score predicts some criterion measure.

A. Concurrent Validity
B. Face Validity
C. Predictive Validity
D. Content Validity

112. The following are steps in the computation of split-half reliability EXCEPT

A. Divide the test into equivalent halves

B. Adjust the half test reliability using the Spearman
C. Calculate the Pearson r between scores on the two halves of the test
D. Calculate the necessary statistic using Exploratory Brown Formula Factor Analysis

113. The following are appropriate uses of the Spearman Brown Formula EXCEPT

A. This increases as the test length increases.

B. It could be used to determine the number of items needed to attain a desired level of reliability
C. It may be used to estimate the effect of the shortening on the test's reliability
D. It is appropriate for measuring reliability of heterogeneous tests

114. This refers to the degree of correlation among all the items on a scale.

A. Homogeneous Consistency
B. Inter-Item Consistency
C. Inter-item Reliability
D. Heterogeneous Consistency

115. The following are true about heterogeneous tests EXCEPT

A. They are composed of items that measure more than one trait
B. They assess several areas related to a construct
C. They are composed of items that measure one trait
D. The inter item consistency can be expected to be lower
116. The following are true about the Kuder-Richardson-20 EXCEPT
A. They are similar with split half reliability estimates
B. A newer formula was developed and is known as KR-21
C. It is a statistic of choice for determining the inter-item consistency of dichotomous items
D. There are no other alternatives that can be used to compute a test's reliability

117. The Coefficient Alpha was developed by this individual.

A. G. Frederic
B. A. Cronbach
C. M.W, Richardson Kuder
D. L. Thurstone

118. Which coefficient alpha is the highest among the following numbers?

A. .90
B. .35
C. .75
D. .20

119. This refers to the degree of agreement or consistency between two or more scorers with regard to
a particular measure.

A. Inter-scorer reliability
B. Rater-reliability
C. Reviewer reliability
D. Consistency reliability

120. In using and interpreting a coefficient of reliability, which of the following are NOT TRUE?

A. An estimate of test-retest reliability would be computed if a specific test of performance over time is
needed.
B. The best estimate of reliability for a characteristic that changes from hour to hour would be inter-
tem consistency.
C. An estimate of internal consistency Is expected to be low in heterogeneous tests needed.
D. The reliability of a speed test should not be calculated from a single administration of the test with a
single time limit.

121. Which Wechsler Intelligence scale is administered to children as young as 2 years old and 3
months?

A. WAIS IV C. WISC
B. WPPSI-III D. WIAT
122. This group test was administered to Army recruits who could read.

A. Army Alpha test

B. Army Beta test
C. Army Charlie Test
D. Army Delta Test

123. This refers to an index designed to help understand the way the testtaker processes various kinds
of information.

A. Process Score
B. Spatial Score
C. Overall Score
D. Speed Score

124. The following are nonverbal factors found in the WISC-IV EXCEPT

A. Working Memory
B. Perceptual Reasoning«
C. Fluid Reasoning
D. Verbal Comprehension

125. Which of the following is an NOT issue when using short forms of a test?

A. Validity of the test is affected

B. Results from such tests may be considered similar to the test results of the original test original test
C. Reduction of a test reduces its reliability
D. Making decision on which items from the original test to retain.

126. The following are true about group tests EXCEPT

A. Large numbers of test takers can be tested at one time

B. It is more expensive than individual testing on a per-test taker basis
C. Test items are typically in a format easily scored by time computer or machine
D. it has proven value for screening purposes.

127. This term common to many measures of creativity is described as the variety of ideas presented
and the ability to shift from one approach to another

A. Originality
B. Fluency
C. Flexibility
D. Elaboration
128. This refers to the richness of detail in a verbal explanation or pictorial display.

A. Fluency
B. Flexibility
C. Originality
D. Elaboration

129. By the age of 2, the average child has a vocabulary of more than how many words?

A. 100
B. 200
C. 300
D. 400

130. This Public Law mandated the professional evaluation of children age 3 and older suspected of
having physical or mental abilities in order to determine their special education needs.

A. PL 94-142
B. PL 99-457
C. PL 105 17
D. PL 132-463

131. This reflects a comparison of the performance of the individual with the performance of others of
the same age in the standardization sample.

A. Chronological Ratio
B. Deviation IQ
C. Ratio IQ
D. Mental Ratio

132. Which of the following SB5 factor is described as the ability to see patterns and relationships and
spatial orientation as well as the gestalt among diverse stimuli?

A. Quantitative Reasoning
B. Visual-Spatial Processing
C. Knowledge
D. Working Memory

134. The Delayed Response Subtest is intended to measure which of the following SB5 Factors?

A. Fluid Reasoning
B. Working Memory
C. Quantitative Reasoning
D. Knowledge
135. In the SB5, this factor is described as skills and knowledge acquired by formal and informal
education.

A. Fluid Reasoning
B. Short Term Memory
C. Knowledge
D. Quantitative Reasoning

136. Which of the following SB5 subtest is related to Quantitative reasoning?

A. Verbal Quantitative Reasoning

B. Picture Absurdities
C. Form Board
D. Verbal Analogies

137. Your client had a measured IQ of 75 from the administration of the SB5. Which category would
your client belong in?

A. Low Average
B. Borderline impaired
C. Mildly Impaired
D. Moderately impaired

138. In the WAIS-IV, Digit Span, Arithmetic, and Letter-Number Sequencing are included in which Scale?

A. Verbal Comprehension Scale

B. Perceptual Reasoning Scale
C. Performance Scale
D. Working Memo Scale

139. The SB5 was based on which theory of intellectual abilities?

A. Factor Analytic Theory

B. Information Processing Theory
C. Stages of Cognitive Development
D. CHC Theory

140. In which instance would a self report be appropriate?

A. When the client has insight into his/her own behavior

B. When the client is motivated to respond to test items honestly
C. A only
D. A and B
141. Which of the following is TRUE in adaptive testing?

A. It may entail beginning a subtest question in the lower range of difficulty

B. If a test taker responds to an item incorrectly, an item of greater difficulty is added next
C. If a test taker responds to an item correctly, an item of lesser difficulty is added next
D. It helps ensure that early test or subtest items are item of not so difficult as to frustrate the test
taker

142. This refers to a questionnaire on which marks are made to indicate the presence or absence of a
specified behavior, thought, event, or circumstance.

A. Checklist
B. Multiple Item List
C. To do List
D. Matching List

143. How many syndrome structures does the Achenbach Child Behavior Checklist have?

A. 5
B. 6
C. 7
D. 8

144. The following are characteristics of an ideal test to be administered to preschool-aged children
EXCEPT

A. Relatively easy to administer

B. Flexible enough to be used both for older children and preschool aged children
C. Have simple start/discontinue rules
D. Have colorful, engaging and attention-sustaining materials

145. In which instance would faking good most likely be done?

A. When a litigant wants to claim high awards as compensation for an injury

B. When an assesse would like to have custody of his/her children
C. When the accused in a criminal case wants to be placed in a mental institution
D. When an individual would like to avoid being drafted into the army
146. In which of the following instances would another person be used as a referent?

A. When dealing with a child who is unable to complete any measure

B. When dealing with somebody who has good insight into his or her behavior
C. When dealing with a child who understands and Is able to take part in the testing process
D. When dealing with an individual who Is able to take part in the assessment process

147. Which of the following are true in relation to achievement tests?

A. They are designed to measure accomplishment

B. They may vary widely with respect to their psychometric soundness
C. They may be standardized nationally, regionally, or locally
D. All of the above

148. These types of tests are typically used to make predictions.

A. Achievement Tests
B. Entrance Tests
C. Prognostic Tests
D. Aptitude Tests

149. Which level of subtest of the Metropolitan Readiness Test may be administered to beginning and
middle kindergarteners?

A. Level I
B. Level Ill
C. Level II
D. Level IV

150. This test measures student achievement in elementary accounting by means of a 75-Item multiple-
choice questions.

A. Accounting Program Admissions Test

B. Allied Health Professionals Admissions Test
C. Dental Admission Test
D. Graduate Management Admission Test
151. He pioneered new technologies to measure intercorrelations between tests and found that
measures of intelligence tended to be correlated to various degrees with each other.

A. Arthur Cronbach C. Charles Spearman

B. Lewis Terman D. Howard Gardner

152. The Two-Factor Theory of Intelligence includes which of the following?

A. g, c, e
B. g, s, e
C. g, f, e
D. g, m, r

153, Thurstone initially conceived of intelligence as being composed of which of the following?

A. Intellectual abilities
B. Interpersonal abilities
C. Primary abilities
D. Intrapersonal abilities

154, Shirley is 50 years old and is well-versed about many topics. She also has experience that she
learned while she was studying. Which type of intelligence is being described in this situation?

A. Fluid Intelligence
B. Emotional Intelligence
C. Crystallized Intelligence
D. Maintained Intelligence

155. These types of abilities tend not to decline with age and may retum to preinjury levels following
brain damage.

A. Vulnerable Abilities
B. Primary Abilities
C. Maintained Abilities
D. Secondary Abilities

156. The following belong to the 2™ stratum in Carroll's model EXCEPT

A. General Memory and Learning

B. Processing/Decision Speed
C. Broad Retrieval Capacity
D. General Intelligence
157. The following are true about the CHC theory formulated by McGrew and Flannagan EXCEPT

A. It helps researchers and clinicians think about how many human abilities really need to be measured
B. Differences between the Cattell Horn and Carroll models were resolved more on the basis of factor-
analytic studies
C. It stimulates researchers to revisit other existing theories
D. The resolution of differences between the models were made based on judgments regarding
practical relevance to cross-battery assessment

158. In the PASS model of intellectual functioning, this refers to the receptivity to information.

A. Planning
B. Simultaneous
C. Attention
D. Successive

159. The following are elements of Robert Stemberg's Triarchic Theory of Intelligence EXCEPT

A. Metacomponents
B. Performance components
C. Microcomponents
D. Knowledge acquisition components

160. The following are types of tasks intellectual assessment of infants (those from birth to 18 months)
includes EXCEPT

A. Nonverbal motor responses

B. Following the movement of the objects with the eyes
C. Imitating gestures
D. Verbal abilities