Form 26

Block 1

A. Crackles
B. Egophony
C. Hyperresonant percussion
D. Increased Fremitus
E. Stridor
F. Wheezing
G. Whispered pectoriloquy

A. Abduction of the index, middle, ring, and small finger

B. Abduction of the thumb
C. Extension of the index, middle, ring, and small fingers
D. Extension of the thumb
E. Opposition of the thumb

A. Case series
B. Case control study
C. Cohort study
D. correlation study
E. Cross sectional study

A. Acute stress disorder.

B. Alcohol withdrawal.
C. Bipolar disorder
D. Histrionic personality disorder
E. Panic disorder

A. Androgen receptor mutation

B. Defect in adrenal steroid biosynthesis.
C. Deficiency of enzyme activity in gonadal steroid hormone biosynthesis
D. Increase anti-mullerian hormone secretion.
E. Translocation of the SRY gene to one of the X chromosomes.

A. Abruptio Placentae
B. Ectopic Pregnancy
C. Endometriosis
D. Leiomyomata uteri
E. Placenta Accreta
F. Placental site trophoblastic tumor

A) Astrocytes
B) Ependymal cells
C) Microglial cells
D) Neurons
E) Oligodendrocytes

A) Coxsackievirus
B) Influenza virus
C) Measle virus
D) Rubella virus
E) West Nile virus

A) Bacterial vaginosis
B) Bacteroides fragilis
C) Candida albicans
D) Haemophilus ducreyi
E) HSV
F) HIV
G) HPV
H) Pneumocystitis jirovecii
I) Treponema pallidum
J) Trichomonas vaginallis

A) Bregma
B) Coronal suture
C) Lambda
D) Lambdoid suture
E) Sagittal suture

A) Adenosine diphosphate
B) Collagen monomer
C) Immunoglobulin
D) Norepinephrine
E) Prostacyclin

A) Acute gouty arthritis

B) Osteoarthritis.
C) Rheumatoid arthritis
D) Septic arthritis
E) Normal age related changes in joints

A) Antagonism of B-adrenergic receptors

B) Blockade of voltage gated Na Channels
C) Enhanced action of y-aminobutyric acid GABA at GABAa receptors
D) Increase release of dopamine and nor epinephrine
E) Selective. Inhibition of uptake of serotonin at nerve terminals.
A) Interleukin 4
B) Interleukin 5
C) Interleukin 7
D) Interleukin 10
E) Interleukin 12

A) Attachment of tRNA to ribosomes

B) Dihydrofolate reductase
C) DNA repair by BNA gyrase
D) Electron transport
E) Transpeptidation of peptidoglycan

A) Cytomegalovirus
B) Herpes simplex virus
C) Measles Virus
D) Mumps virus
E) Varicella-zoster virus

PO2 PCO2 A-a O2

A) 40 50 35
B) 40 60 40
C) 50 25 10
D) 50 80 10
E) 60 35 25

A) Alternative polyadenylation site

B) Deletion of 5’ untranslated region
C) Expansion of trinucleotide repeat
D) Gene duplication
E) Nonhomologous recombination
F) Nonsense mutation
G) RNA splice error
H) X inactivation

A) Edema of the lower extremities

B) Esophageal varices
C) Hypoalbuminemia
D) Hyponatremia
E) Increased jugular venous pressure
F) Splenomegaly

A) Epstein-Barr Virus
B) Hepatitis A virus
C) Hepatitis B virus
D) Hepatitis C virus
E) Vibrio vulnificus

A) Decreased expression of cyclin B during G2/M transition

B) Decreased phosphorylation of RB1 protein during G1-S transtition
C) Genomic Instability during s,G2 and M phase
D) Overexpression of p15, p16, and p18 during G1 phase
E) Overepxression of p21, p27, p57 proteins during all phases

Methylmalonic Acid Homocysteine

A) Increased Increased
B) Increased Normal
C) Increased Decreased
D) Normal Increased
E) Normal Normal
F) Normal Decreased
G) Decreased Increased
H) Decreased Normal
I) Decreased Decreased
A) Autoimmune hemolysis
B) Chronic disease
C) Iron deficiency
D) Marrow replacement by neoplastic tissue
E) Myelodysplasia
F) B-Thalassemia minor

A) A2-Adrenoreceptor
B) B2-Adrenoreceptor
C) y-Aminobutyric acid B receptor
D) Calcium-sensing receptor
E) Ryanodine Receptor

A) Cause cerebral vasoconstriction

B) Decrease pulmonary atelectasis
C) Increase cerebral blood flow
D) Increase Intracranial pressure
E) Increase oxygenation
A) Inferior mesenteric vein
B) Inferior vena cava
C) Inferior vesical vein
D) Internal iliac vein
E) Left renal vein

A) Amylase
B) Gastrin
C) Glucagon
D) Human pancreatic polypeptide
E) Insulin
F) Lipase
G) Serotonin
H) Somatostatin
I) Vasoactive intestinal polypeptide

A) Advise the patient that constant question of recommendation suggest a lack of trust, and that
she should seek care from a provider in whom she has confidence
B) Advice staff to ignore the patietns calls if they are too frequent
C) Contact one of the patient’s family members to engage his or her help in enforcing more
responsible use of the physician’s times
D) Insist that the patient obtain routine psychiatric care
E) Set conditions and establish limits for phone calls, and set up a regular schedule of office visits
A) Decreased activity of carnitine acetyltransferase
B) Glycogen synthesis
C) Increased activity of actyl-CoA carboxylase
D) Inhibition of ketogenesis
E) Partial oxidation of fatty acids

A) 95
B) 105
C) 110
D) 120
E) 125

A) Attachment of the virus to the cell surface

B) Budding of the virus from the cell membrane
C) Fusion of the viral envelope and cell membrane
D) Integration of the provirus into the host cell genome
E) RNA splicing to produce an mRNA encoding the envelope glycoproteins

A) Atrophy of the left upper extremity

B) Decreased proprioception in the right upper extremity
C) Decreased sensation in the left lower extremity
D) Deviation of the tongue to the right
E) Weakness of the left lower area of the face
F) Weakness of the right lower extremity
G) Blisters
H) Easy bruising
I) Eczematous rash
J) Inability to sweat
K) Thickened skin
L) Ulcers

A) Bone marrow
B) Brain
C) Kidney
D) Liver
E) Lymph node
F) Skin

A) External branch of the superior laryngeal nerve

B) Inferior root of the ansa cervicalis
C) Nerve to the mylohyoid
D) Phrenic nerve
E) Transverse cervical nerve

A) Alcoholic ketoacidosis
B) Crohn disease
C) Diabetic ketoacidosis
D) Lactic acidosis
E) Renal tubular acidosis
F) Salicylate poisoning

Angiotensin I Angiotensin II Bradykinin

A) Inc Inc no change
B) Inc Dec Inc
C) Inc Dec Dec
D) Dec Inc Inc
E) Dec Inc Dec

A) Aortic obstruction
B) Aortic regurgitation
C) Left Ventricular aneurysm
D) Mitral obstruction
E) Rupture of the chordae tendineae

A) Aplastic anemia
B) Autoimmune hemolysis
C) Hereditary spherocytosis
D) Microangiopathic hemolysis
E) Monoclonal gammopathy
A) Attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder
B) Conduce disorder
C) Early sign of autistic disorder
D) Oppositional defiant disorder
E) Normal behavior for age

A) Glomerulonephritis
B) Hemolytic-uremic syndrome
C) Interstitial nephritis
D) Nephrotic syndrome
E) Tubular necrosis

A) Absence of circular muscle

B) Fewer villi
A) Greater bowel motility
B) Greater mucosal surface area
C) Less circular and longitudinal smooth muscle

A) Activation of phagocytosis
B) Adhesion to the endothelium
C) Diapedesis through the capillary wall
D) Migration to the site of injury
E) Rolling at the vessel pheriphery
 A) External urinary sphincter
B) Hypogastric nerve
C) Pelvic nerve
D) Pudendal nerves
E) Skeletal motor fibers

A) Decreased specificity
B) Improved sensitivity
C) Increase in false-negatives
D) Increase in false-positives
E) No change

A) Babesi Microti
B) Barontella bacilliformis
C) Bordetlla bronchiseptica
D) Borrella burgdorferi
E) Brucella melitensis

A) Adenine and thymine

B) Guanine and hypoxanthine
C) Guanine and uric acid
D) Uracil and cytosine
E) Xanthine and hypoxanthine

DONE
Block 2

A) Arthritis
B) Decreased body hair
C) Dental caries
D) Galactorrhea
E) Pituitary adenoma
F) Tachycardia
G) Thyroid gland enlargmetn

A) B) C) D)

A) Glucose
B) Magneisum
C) Sodium
D) Urea
E) Water
A) Anion gap metabolic acidosis, partially compensated
B) Anion gap metabolic acidosis, uncompensated
C) Chronic respiratory alkalosis, partially compensated
D) Chronic respiratory alkalosis, uncompensated
E) Non-anion gap metabolic acidosis, patially compensated
F) Non-anion gap metabolic acidosis, uncompensated

A) Binding of nucleosomal histones to the transcript

B) Cleavage of the transcript by RNA ligase
C) Modification of the transcript by small nuclear ribonucleoproteins
D) Recognition of the transcript by signal recognition particle
E) Transport of the transcript out of the nucleus

A) Chronic kidney disease

B) Coarctation of the aorta
C) Fibromuscular dysplasia of the left renal artery
D) Hyperthyroidism
E) Primary hyperaldosteronism

A) Calcium-mediated intracellular effects

B) GTP-binding proteins
C) Mitochondrial membrane association
D) Plasma membrane association
E) Zinc-containing DNA-binding domains
A) Cyanide
B) Iron
C) Lead
D) Nitric oxide
E) Selenium

A) Alanine-glucose cycle
B) Carnitine-Acylcarnitine cycle
C) Lactic Acid cycle
D) Tricarboxylic acid cycle
E) Urea cycle

A) Glucose 6-phosphatase
B) HMG-CoA lyase
C) Hormone-sensitive lipase
D) Lipoprotein lipase
E) Long-chain acyl-CoA dehydrogenase
F) Phosphoenolpyruvate carboxykinase
A) Atrial septal defect
B) Hypertension
C) Pulmonary arteriovenous shunting
D) Reactive airway disease
E) Thromboembolism

A) Case-control study
B) Case Series
C) Cross-sectional study
D) Prospective cohort study
E) Randomized clinical trial
F) Retrospective cohort study

A) Activation of phospolipase A2
B) Closing K channels
C) Increase in cAMP
D) Increase in inositol 1,4,5-trisphosphate
E) Inhibition of 5-lipoxygenase

A) Decreases the affinity of histones of DNA

B) Decreases the nucleosome content of the nucleus
C) Increase the affinity of histones for DNA
D) Increase the nucleosome content of the nucleus
E) Removes histone H1 from DNA
F) Removes histone H4 from DNA

A) Decreased calcium release

B) Decreased genomic instability
C) Decreased ubiquitination
D) Increased protein degradation
E) Induction of apoptosis

A) B) C) D) E)

A) Ascending colon
B) Falciform ligament
C) Ileal polyp
D) Meckel diverticulum
E) Vermiform appendix

A) Appreciable rate of gene mutation

B) Random matings in the population
C) Relatively large population
D) No selection against a certain genotype
E) No significant immigrant population

A) First
B) Second
C) Fourth
D) Fifth
E) Sixth

A) Atypical stress fracture

B) Chondrosarcoma
C) Enchondroma
D) Ewing Sarcoma
E) Giant Cell carcinoma
F) Multilobulated bone cyst
G) Osteosarcoma

A) Activates tissue plasminogen

B) Interferes with the carboxylation of coagulation factors
C) Irreversibly inactivates cyclooxygenase
D) Potentiates the action of antithrombin III
E) Selectively inhibits factor Xa
A) B) C) D) E) F)

A) Greater pancreatic
B) Hepatic
C) Right gastric
D) Superior mesenteric
E) Supraduodenal

A) Capsular polysaccharide
B) Cell wall polysaccharide
C) Exotoxin
D) Fimbria
E) Flagellum
F) Peptidoglycan
A) Bladder
B) Liver
C) Pancreas
D) Spleen
E) Stomach

A) B Lymphocytes
B) CD4 T lymphocytes
C) CD8 T lymphocytes
D) FOXP3-expressing regulatory T lymphocytes
E) Natural killer cells

A) Malignant hypertension
B) Retinal artery embolism
C) Retinal detachment
D) Retinal vein thrombosis
E) Vitreous hemorrhage secondary to neovascularization

A) Adult T-Lymphocyte leukemia

B) Chief cell adenoma of the parathyroid gland
C) Familial hypocalciuric hypercalcemia
D) Medullary carcinoma of the thyroid gland
E) Multiple myeloma

A) Alveolar exudation due to Cryptococcus

neoformans infection
B) Cytomegalovirus pneumonitis with diffuse
alveolar damage
C) Neutrophilic alveolar consolidation due to
pneumococcal pneumonia
D) Pneumocystits jirovecii infection with
alveolar exudation
E) Vascular invasion by aspergillus

A) Acute mastitis
B) Fibroadenoma
C) Fibrocystic changes
D) Intraductal carcinoma
E) Mammary duct ectasia

A) Antithrombin III
B) Platelets
C) Protein C
D) Vitamin B12
E) Vitamin C
F) Vitamin K
G) Von Willebrand factor

A) Anastomosis between the superior and inferior mesenteric veins

B) Paraoesophageal fistula
C) Inflammation of the distal esophagus
D) Retrograde blood flow between tributaries of the left gastric to the azygos veins
E) Shunting of blood from the portal paraumbilical veins to the superior epigastric veins

A) 27
B) 29
C) 31
D) 32
E) 33

A) Decreased arterial oxygen saturation

B) Decreased mixed venous oxygen saturation
C) Decreased stroke volume
D) Increased resting cardiac output
E) Increased systemic vascular resistance

A) “Have you interpreted for your father before in a medical capacity?”

B) “I believe it would be awkward for a daughter to interpret for her father.”
C) “It is best that I use a professional French interpreter.”
D) “Please ask your father if he’s ready to begin the examination.”
E) “That would be fine. I’ll just ask you to step out of the room for the physical examination.”

A) Bacteroides fragilis
B) Escherichia coli
C) Legionella pneumophila
D) Moraxella catarrhalis
E) Proteus mirabilis

A) Alveolar radii
B) Lung compliance
C) Lung elastic recoil
D) Pleural pressure
E) Surfactant secretion

A) High blood solubility

B) High cerebrospinal fluid solubility
C) High lipid solubility
D) Low blood solubility
E) Low lipid solubility

A) Cytokine
B) G protein-linked
C) Ion channel linked
D) Nuclear
E) Toll-like

A) Atrial septal defect

B) Patent ductus arteriosus
C) Persistent truncus arteriosus
D) Tetralogy of Fallot
E) Transposition of the great arteries
F) Ventricular septal defect

A) Hyperparathyroidism
B) Multiple myeloma
C) Osteitis deformans (Paget disease)
D) Sarcoidosis
E) Tuberculosis

A) ATPase
B) Cytochrome P450
C) Protease
D) Reverse transcriptase
E) Thymidine kinase

A) Decreased capillary hydrostatic pressure

B) Decreased plasma oncotic pressure
C) Increased plasma oncotic pressure
D) Decreased permeability of postcapillary venules
E) Increased permeability of postcapillary venules

A) Acceleration of the proliferation of cells in the dermis by increased estrogen production

B) Colonization of apocrine sweat glands by fungi
C) Decreased blood flow to skin capillaries by overproduction of elastic fibers
D) Follicular epidermal hyperproliferation with excess production of sebum
E) Thickening of the basement membrane in response to increased pubertal serum estrogen
concentrations

A) Acceleration of the metabolism of arachidonic acid

B) Inhibition of receptors medizting selected responses to
prostaglandins and leukotrienes
C) Nonselective inhibition of cyclooxygenase and lipoxygenase
D) Regulaation of phospholipase A2
E) Selective inhibition of lipoxygenase

A) “Did you bring your records from the emergency room with you?”
B) “I see some bruising on your neck. How did that happen?”
C) “Please demonstrate to me how this neck bruising occurred.”
 D) “This looks like you were choked. Is that true?”
E) “What sort of device did your husband use on your neck?”

A) Conus medullaris
B) Hypogastric nerves
C) Myenteric plexus
D) Pelvic nerves
E) Pudendal nerves

A) Aneurysm of ascending aorta

B) Left arterial hypertrophy
C) Left ventricular hypertrophy
D) Pericardial effusion
E) Right atrial hypertrophy
F) Right ventricular hypertrophy

A) Delirium
B) Dementia, Alzheimer type
C) Dementia caused by Pick Disease
D) Serotonin syndrome
E) Vascular dementia

A) Precontemplation
B) Contemplation
C) Preparation
D) Action
E) Maintenance

DONE
BLOCK 3

A) Absence
B) Complex partial
C) Generalized tonic-clonic
D) Simple partial motor
E) Simple Partial sensory
A) Glycine
B) Homocyst(e)ine
C) Leucine
D) Phenylalanine
E) Tyrosine

A) Fecal-oral transfer of attenuated organisms

B) Synthesis of IgG by circulating lymphocytes exposed to antigens in the lung
C) Trafficking of IgA-producing lymphocytes to see all mucosal sites
D) Transport of attenuated Neisseria gonorrhoeae from the lung to the vaginal mucosa
E) Transport of circulating IgM across the vaginal epithelium

A) Chronic pyelonephritis
B) Cigarette smoking
C) Diabetic nephropathy
D) Excessive consumption of caffeine
E) Long-term use of phenacetin
F) Schistosoma haematobium infection

A) Prophase, meisosis I
B) Prophase, meiosis II
C) Metaphase, meiosis I
D) Metaphase, meiosis II
E) Telophase, meiosis I
A) Complete ptosis of the ipsilateral eye
B) Inability to abduct the ipsilateal eye
C) Ipsilateral sensorineural deafness
D) Lack of tear fomration in the ipsilateral eye
E) Paralysis of ipsilateral jaw muscles

A) Malassezia furfur
B) Staphylococcus aureus
C) Streptococcus pyogenes
D) Treponema pallidum
E) Trichophyton rubrum
A) Asthma
B) Atelectasis
C) Bronchitis
D) Left-sided heart failure
E) Pneumococcal pneumonia

A) Disruption of the sympathetic nerves to the left ventricle

B) Extravascular compression of the coronary arteries
C) Increased left ventricular end-diastolic pressure
D) Increased myocardial oxygen consumption
E) Stenosis of the right coronary artery

Libido Nocturnal Erection

A) Decreased Decreased
B) Decreased Normal
C) Normal Decreased
D) Normal Normal

A) ABL activation of the p23 tumor suppressor gene

B) Fusion protein influence on the cell cycle
C) Point mutation in the ABL oncogene
D) Point mutation in the BCR gene
E) Under expression of the p53 tumor suppressor gene

A) N-Acetyltransferase
B) Cytochrome P450 2D6
C) Cytochrome P450 3A4
D) Glutathione synthetase
E) Ryanodine receptor
a) Osteitis deformans (Paget disease)
b) Osteogenesis imperfecta
c) Rheumatic fever
d) Tuberculosis
e) Vitamin B1 (thiamine) deficiency
f) Vitamin D deficiency

A) Calcification of the mitral valve

B) Enlargement of the mitral valve annulus
C) Fibrosis and calcification of the aortic valve
D) Myxomatous degeneration of the aortic valve cusp
E) Myxomatous degeneration of the mitral valve

A) CMV
B) HSV
C) HIV
D) HPV
E) VZV

A) Histidine
B) Phenylalanine
C) Proline
D) Tryptophan
E) Tyrosine

Residual volume Arterial PO2 A-a PO2 difference

A) Inc Inc Dec
B) Inc Dec Inc
C) No change Inc Inc
D) No change Inc Dec
E) Dec Inc Dec
F) Dec Dec Dec
A) Binding of ammonia and other hepatically cleared toxins in the gut
B) Blockade of new protein synthesis by the liver
C) Blockade of two successive steps in the metabolism of folic acid
D) Increased endotoxin production where bacterial overgrowth occurs in the gut
E) Killing of bacteria in the gut that generate ammonia

A) Concentration of mRNA for C-reactive protein

B) Detection of nitrated proteins in hepatic cell membranes
C) Microsomal cytochrome P450 concentration
D) Rate of state 3 mitochondrial respiration
E) Ratio of GSH:GSSG

A) Factitious thyrotoxicosis
B) Graves disease
C) Subacute granulomatous thyroiditis
D) Thyroid abscess
E) Toxic multinodular goiter

A) Esophageal
B) Hepatic
C) Left gastric
D) Splenic
E) Superior mesenteric

A) Creatinine
B) Glutamine
C) Glycine
D) Leucine
E) Urea

A) Cystadenocarcinoma
B) Dermoid cyst
C) Embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma
D) Fibroma
E) Granulosa cell tumor
F) Krukenberg tumor
G) Papillary carcinoma

A) Decreased carbonic anhydrase activity in the distal tubule

B) Decreased carbonic anhydrase activity in the proximal tubule
C) Decreased hydrogen ion secretion in the distal tubule
D) Decreased hydrogen ion secretion in the proximal tubule
E) Decreased sodium bicarbonate reabsorption in the distal tubule
F) Decreased sodium bicarbonate reabsorption in the proximal tubule

A) Drug efflux pump P-glycoprotein activity in leukemic cells

B) Drug metabolism by the hepatic CYP450 system
C) Drug metabolism by novel heme enzyme in leukemic blast cells
D) Production of sphingomyelin by the leukemic cells
E) Renal excretion of the drugs
F) Thiopurine methyltransferase activity in the leukemic cells

A) Activation of nuclear gene transcription

B) Decreased cAMP production
C) Displaced vitamin A from cellular stores
D) Increased sebum production
E) Protection of keratinocytes from UVB irradiation
A) Babinski sign
B) Clonus
C) Fibrillations
D) Hyporeflexia
E) Muslce atrophy

A) Multiple sclerosis
B) Myasthenia gravis
C) Myasthenic (Lambert-Eaton) syndrome
D) Periodic paralysis

A) Crossing over
B) DNA excision repair
C) Slipped-strand mispairing
D) Thymidine dimer formation
E) Transposon insertion
A) Antisocial
B) Borderline
C) Compulsive
D) Dependent
E) Histrionic
F) Narcissistic
G) Paranoid
H) Schizoid

A) Agonism of cholecystokinin B (CCK) receptor

B) Agonism of prostaglandin E receptor 3 (EP3) receptor
C) Antagonism of histamine-2 (H2) receptor
D) Antagonism of muscarinic (M3) acetylcholine receptor
E) Irreversible inhibition of H-K ATPase

A) Precontemplation
B) Contemplation
C) Preparation
D) Action
E) Maintenance

A) Chronic granulomatous disease

B) Leukocyte adhesion deficiency
C) Myeloperoxidase deficiency
D) NADPH oxidase deficiency
E) Neutrophil-specific granule deficiency
A) Disseminated intravascular coagulation
B) Hypersplenism
C) Iron deficiency
D) Vitamin B deficiency
E) Vitamin C deficiency

A) Calcium oxalate
B) Cystine
C) Magnesium ammonium phosphate
D) Potassium citrate
E) Uric acid

A) Acetylcholine
B) Y-Aminobutyric acid
C) Glutamine
D) Glycine
E) Norepinephrine

A) Analysis of variance
B) Chi-square test
C) Linear regression
D) Nonparametric regression
E) Student’s t-test

A) Decreased CSF production by the choroid plexus

B) Decreased venous pressure around the arachnoid granulations
C) Increased permeability of tight junctions (zonulae occludentes) between endothelial cells
D) Increased sodium permeabiity of the ependyma
E) Increased water transport by astrocyte end-foot processes

A) 2
B) 6
C) 12
D) 30
E) 55

A) Activation of alternate complement pathway

B) Streptococcal infection of the region drained by the lymph node
C) Type I (immediate) hypersensitivity reaction
D) Type III (immune complex-mediated
E) Type IV (delayed) hypersensitivity reaction
A) Decreased generation of N-acetyl-p-benzoquinoneimine
B) Increased glucuronidation
C) Increased hepatic glutathione stores
D) Increased sulfation
E) Induction of cytochrome P450

A) Present in bile ductules

B) Present on the basal surface of hepatocytes
C) Released from the gallbladder
D) Required for bile salt synthesis
E) Required for bilirubin conjugation
F) Required for heme catabolism

A) Avascular necrosis of the scaphoid

B) Avulsion of the ulnar styloid process
C) Dislocation of the first proximal phalanx
D) Disruption of the radioulnar joint
E) Fracture of the distal radius
A) The cytrotrophoblast is present, but the syncytiotrophoblast has not yet formed
B) Gastrulation is complete, but there are only two germ layers
C) The neural plate is present, but the neural tube is not yet complete
D) Placental development is complete, but the embryo is resistant to teratogens
E) The sclertome cells having begun migrating, but the somites have not yet formed

A) Calcified congential bicuspid valve

B) Infective endocarditis
C) Myxomatous degeneration
D) Postinflammatory valve stenosis

A) “Giving yourself insulin injections can be difficult. What’s it like for you?”
B) “I get the feeling you have not been taking your insulin regularly. Would yo like me to arrange
some training for you by our nurses?”
 C) “It’s been my experience that most poorly controlled diabetics have trouble giving themselves
insulin. Do have this problem?”
D) “You are clearly having difficulty with insulin injections. Would you like to arrange for a family
member to give you your shots?”
E) “You seem to have missed your shots. How often has this happened?”

A) Cholesterol acyltransferase
B) Hepatic lipase
C) LDL receptor
D) Lipoprotein lipase
E) Lysosomal cholesterol esterase

A) Lack of blinding between groups

B) Limited number of participants
C) Marginal statistical significance
D) Study location limited to only emergency departments
E) Subjective nature of the survey instrument

A) Erb
B) Fos
C) K-ras
D) P53 (TP53)
E) Rb
F) src

DONE
Block 4

A) Acinar formation
B) Foci of keratinization
C) Intracytoplasmic pigment
D) Neuroendocrine granules
E) Smooth muscle differentiation
A) Addison disease
B) Chronic kidney disease
C) Cushing disease
D) Hyperaldosteronism
E) Pheochromocytoma

A) Dartos Muscle
B) External abdominal oblique muscle
C) Internal abdominal oblique muscle
D) Peritoneum
E) Transversalis fascia

A) Ascending Aorta
B) Left atrium
C) Left ventricle
D) Right atrium
E) Right ventricle

A) Second-degree atrioventricular block

B) Sinoatrial exit block
C) Supraventricular premature beats
D) Third-degree atrioventricular block
E) Ventricular tachycardia
A) B) C) D) E) F) G) H) I) J)

A) Patient A
B) Patient B
C) Patient C
D) Patient D
E) Patient E
F) Patient F
G) Patient G
H) Patietent H

A) Border zone hypoperfusion

B) Embolism of the right anterior cerebral artery
C) Lacunar infarct of the internal capsule
D) Ruptured aneurysm of the circle of Willis
E) Thrombus of the left posterior cerebral artery

A) Altered binding to plasma proteins

B) Altered binding to tissue receptors
C) Altered distribution to active receptors
D) Inhibition of metabolism
E) Inhibition of renal excretion
A) Abnormal development of the muscularis propria
B) Atrophy of the muscularis propria
C) Hyperplasia of the columnar epithelium
D) Increased intraluminal pressure
E) Neoplastic proliferation of the columnar epithelium

A) Alcohol dehydrogenase
B) Aldehyde dehydrogenase
C) Formaldehyde dehydrogenase
D) Lactate dehydrogenase
E) Pyruvate dehydrogenase

A) Alcohol
B) Barbiturates
C) Benzodiazepines
D) Marijuana
E) Opioids

A) Calcitonin
B) Cortisol
C) Insulin-like growth factor I
D) Platelet-derived growth factor
E) Thyroxine (T4)

A) Developmental history
B) Family history of affective disorder
C) Orientation to time, place, and person
D) School history
E) Suicidal ideation or attempts
A) Duodenum
B) Esophagus
C) Ileum
D) Stomach
E) Transverse colon

A) Agnogenic myeloid metaplasia

B) Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
C) Hereditary hemochromatosis
D) Hypersplenism
E) Myelodysplastic syndrome

A) Abnormal targeting of these enzymes to lysosomes

B) Deficiency of the other lysosomal enzymes in the cytoplasm
C) Degradation of these enzymes within the cytoplasm
D) Degradation of these enzymes with the lysosomes
E) Storage of these enzymes within the cytoplasm
F)
A) Blastocytes
B) Eosinophils
C) Macrophages
D) Mastoid cells
E) Monocytes
F) T lymphocytes

A) “Can you tell me how often you go out in the sun and what kind of protection you use?”
B) “Don’t worry. Let me assure you this is not a serious condition.”
C) “It’s upsetting when you have a skin problem on your face.”
D) “Maybe a little. At least you are keeping your sense of humor about the situation.”
E) “You really do look rather odd. I can understand why you are so upset.”

A) Acute rejection
B) Cytomegalovirus infection
C) Graft-versus-host disease
D) Hepatitis C
E) Hyperacute rejection
F) Leukemia recurrence
G) Serum sickness
A) Elaboration of polyribitol phosphate
B) Growth inside nonactivated macrophages
C) Invasion of host tissues and vasculature
D) Phenotypic switching from yeast to hyphae in the host
E) Production of lipopolysaccharide capsule

A) Dermatome
B) Lateral plate mesoderm
C) Neural crest
D) Nonneural ectoderm
E) Prechordal plate mesoderm

A) 1
B) 2
C) 2.4
D) 2.5
E) 10
F) 20
G) 24
H) 25

A) Choriocarcinoma
B) Complete hydatidiform mole
C) Partial hydatidiform mole
D) Placenta accrete
E) Placental site trophoblastic tumor

A) Acute glomerulonephritis
B) Acute tubular necrosis
C) Diabetic nephropathy
D) Papillary transitional cell carcinoma
E) Renal papillary necrosis
A) Formation of glycogen deposits
B) Maintenance of prolonged tension
C) Passive stretching
D) Relaxation after contraction

A) Blockade of choline reuptake into presynaptic terminals

B) Blockade of effects on the nicotinic receptors of muscle
C) Enhanced influx of calcium into the presynaptic terminal
D) Prevention of acetylcholine release from subsequent action potentials
E) Prolongation of acetylcholine effects in the synaptic cleft

A) Carnitine-acylcarnitine translocase deficiency

B) Dietary carnitine deficiency
C) Fatty acyl CoA synthetase deficiency
D) Medium-chain acyl CoA dehydrogenase deficiency
E) Short-chain acyl CoA dehydrogenase deficiency

A) Crossover
B) Cross-sectional
C) Factorial
D) Nested
E) Simple

A) Bacteria-generated capillary congestion

B) Complement-activated coagulation
C) Histamine-stimulated vasodilation
D) IgE-mediated eosinophil degranulation
E) Trauma-induced arteriolar hemorrhage
A) Human chorionic gonadotropin antibodies
B) Oxytocic
C) Progesterone antagonists
D) Prostaglandin synthesis inhibitors
E) Selective estrogen receptor modulators

A) Alveolar capillary edothelial cell

B) Alveolar macrophage
C) Chondrocyte
D) Ciliated columnar epithelial cell
E) Club cell
F) Globlet cell
G) Kutchitsky cell
H) Squamous epithelitla cell
I) Type I pneumocyte
J) Type II pneumocyte

A) The drug prevents integration of proviral DNA into the host genome
B) The RNA is partially reverse transcribed into proviral DNA
C) There is a lack of a mature core
D) Transcription from the HIV promoter is blocked
E) The virus does not bind to CD4 in the presence of the drug
A) Acute arteritis with aneurysms in coronary arteries
B) Epidermal hyperplasia with epidermal microabscesses and parakeratosis
C) Granulomas with caseous necrosis in cervical lymph nodes
D) Grandulomatous arteritis in cervical and temporal arteries
E) Paracortical lymphoid hyperplasia with eosinophilic intranuclear inclusion in perihilar lymph
nodes

A) Essentially zero
B) 25%
C) 33%
D) 50%
E) 100%
A) B) C) D) E) F)

A) Coronary
B) Cutaneous
C) Exercising muscle
D) Pulmonary
E) Splanchnic
F) Systemic

A) Autoimmune hyperactivation of nicotinic receptors

B) Autoimmune inactivation of muscarinic receptors
C) Desensitization of nicotinic receptors
D) Excessive degradation of acetylcholine
E) Hypersensitization of muscarinic receptors
F) Insufficient release of acetylcholine

A) Cardiac tamponade
B) Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
C) Congestive heart failure
D) Mitral stenosis
E) Pleural effusion
F) sarcoidosis

A) Bisferiens carotid pulsation

B) Increased jugular venous pressure
C) Pansystolic apical murmur
D) S3
E) S4
A) 50/100
B) 50/500
C) 50/800
D) 50/900
E) 150/375
F) 150/525
G) 150/750
H) 150/900

A) Abscess
B) Adenoma
C) Choristoma
D) Hamartoma
E) Teratoma

A) Decreased degradation of 25-hydroxycholecalciferol

B) Direct action on intestine to increase calcium absorption
C) Direct action on intestine to increase magnesium absorption
D) Increased synthesis of 25-hydroxycholecalciferol
E) Inhibition of calcitonin production
F) Stimulation of 1,24-dihydroxy cholecalciferol production

A) Deoxyhemoglobin does not bind to 2,3-bisphosphoglycerate as efficiently as oxyhemoglobin

B) Deoxyhemoglobin has a lower capacity to form carbamino compounds than oxyhemoglobin
C) Deoxyhemoglobin has a lower pKa than oxyhemoglobin
D) Deoxyhemoglobin is a better buffer of hydrogen than oxyhemoglobin
E) Oxygen and carbon dioxide compete for the same binding site in hemoglobin
F) Oxyhemoglobin binds nitric oxide with a higher affinity than deoxyhemoglobin
A) Acute glomerulonephritis
B) Acute tubular necrosis
C) Angiomyolipoma
D) Autosomal recessive
polycystic kidney disease
E) Fibromuscular dysplasia
F) Hydronephrosis
G) Nephroblastoma
H) Papillar necrosis
I) Renal vein thrombosis
J) Stag horn calculus

A) Adrenergic nerve terminals

B) Cholinergic nerve terminals
C) Ligand-gated calcium channels
D) Na-K ATPase
E) Voltage-gated chloride channels

Intravenous Administration (mg) Time between Each Dose

(Current = 80 mg) (Current = 8 hours)
A) 60 6
B) 80 6
C) 80 12
D) 120 8
E) 120 12

A) Bactericidal permeability increasing protein

B) Hypochlorite
C) Lactoferrin
D) Lysozyme
E) Major basic protein
A) 2,3-Epoxide reductase
B) Glucose 6-phospahte dehydrogenase
C) Hexokinase
D) Methionine synthase
E) Prolyl hydroxylase
F) Pyruvate carboxylase
G) Pyruvate dehydrogenase

A) Hemophilia A
B) Hemophilia B
C) Immune Thrombocytopenic purpura
D) Ingestion of aspirin
E) Systemic lupus erythematosus
F) Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura
G) Von Willebrand disease