LICENSURE EXAMINATION FOR CRIMINOLOGISTS

FINAL COACHING ON LAW ENFORCEMENT ADMINISTRATION

(20%)
BY DEAN RODOLFO V. CASTILLO JR.
COVERAGE:
1. Police Organization and Administration with Police Planning (4.5%)
2. Industrial Security Management (2.0%)
3. Police Patrol Operation with Police Communication System (4.0%)
4. Police Intelligence (4.0%)
5. Police Personnel & Records Management (4.5%)
6. Comparative Police System (1.0%)

Direction: Choose the letter of the correct answer.

POLICE ORGANIZATION AND ADMINISTRATION WITH POLICE OPERATIONAL

PLANNING

1. The word “POLICE” originated from the Greek word POLITEIA, which means:
a. An agency charged to enforce the law
b. A person who enforces the law
c. A government of a city
d. Internal organization or regulation of a State
2. The home rule theory of police service considers the policemen
as______________________.
1. Servants of the community, who depend for the effectiveness of their functions
upon the express wishes of the people.
2. Policemen are civil employees
3. Policemen’s primary duty is the preservation of the public peace and security.
a. 1 and 2 c. 1 and 3
b. 2 and 3 d. 1, 2 and 3
3. What is the concept of policing that considers the police organization as a merely
repressive machinery, hence its yardstick of efficiency is more on arrest and punishment
is the only instrument of crime control?
a. Old Concept c. Classical Concept
b. Modern Concept d. Crime Control
4. General objectives of the police are the following:
1. To ensure that there is an order in the community
2. To protect the lives and limbs of every member of the community
3. To arrest the criminals and bring them to prison
4. To protect the properties of the citizenry and render appropriate assistance to
other government office concerned
a. 1, 2, 3 and 4 c. 1, 2 and 4
b. 1, 2 and 3 d. 1, 3 and 4
5. What do you mean by crime prevention as one of the basic functions of the police?
a. An elimination or reduction of the desire to commit crime
b. Neutralization of criminal activity by proper enforcement of criminal laws
c. Enforcement of rules and regulations and ordinances all aimed at achieving a
desired uniform standard of activity among members of society
d. Police visibility to eliminate desire, opportunity and instruments of crime
6. Primary or line police activities are the following:
1. Patrol work, traffic control/management and criminal investigation
2. Laboratory, jail or custody maintenance and identification.
3. Transportation, communication, property supply and records
4. Juvenile and vice control
5. Personnel, inspection, planning activities, budgeting, training and public
relations
a. 1 and 4 c. 3 and4
b. 2 and 3 d. 4 and 5
7. Organization refers to_____________________.
1. The duties of designating the departments and the personnel that are to carry
on the work, defining their functions and specifying the relations that are to exist between
departments and individuals.

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 2. Consist of arranging personnel and functions in a systematic manner designed to
accommodate stated goals and objectives in the most efficient manner possible.
3. Apportioning of works or tasks among the various units or groups according to
some logical plan.
4. A graphic view of the general structure of work and work relationship in the
organization.
a. 1 and 3 c. 1 and 2
b. 2 and 4 d. 3 and 4
8. Group of individuals who were united for some end or work, arranged with a common
purpose and objective in a manner to enable the performance of related tasks by
individuals, and the establishment of areas of responsibility with clear-cut channels of
communication and authority is referred to as_______________.
a. Organization c. Federation
b. Association d. Functional organization
9. Organizational chart___________________________.
a. Shows the chain of command, organization’s strength and weaknesses and work
relationships
b. Serves as historical record of changes over the years, an excellent training and
briefing device and a guide in planning for expansion and changes in reorganization.
c. A and B
d. B only
10. In line and staff organization operational or line units are responsible for the direct
accomplishment of the police objectives while the administrative or staff units
are________________.
a. Responsible for the support or advisory functions to enhance the capability of
the line and facilitate the achievement of its functions and objectives.
b. Commanding the line so that it will perform its duties in a manner that it will
efficiently achieve the police objectives
c. Tasked to provide materials and logistics to the line
d. None of them
11. What is the organizational structure of the PNP?
a. Functional c. Line and staff
b. Line d. Matrix
12. Hierarchy of authority which is the order of ranks from the highest to the lowest
levels of the organization is known as_______________.
a. Scalar Chain c. Unity of command
b. Line of authority d. Chain of command
13. This organizational principle assumes that there is a limit to the number of individuals
that a supervisor can effectively control.
a. Chain of command c. Span of control
b. Unity of command d. A and B
14. Command responsibility postulates that_________________________.
a. The commander is directly responsible for any act or omission of his
subordinates in relation to the performance of their official duty
b. The commander is accountable to the people
c. The commander is responsible to all personnel within his command
D. The commander is responsible to his men, thus he has full authority to direct his
men

15. It depicts the unbroken flow of command from the top to the bottom of the
organizational hierarchy.
a. Chain of command c. Unity of command
b. Span of control d. Delineation of power
16. In ________________________________ lines of authority and responsibility is made as
definite and direct as possible so that responsibility may properly fixed and duplication
avoided. Thus, every member in the force knows where he fits in the pattern, to whom he
is responsible and who is responsible to him.
a. Delineation of Responsibility c. Division of Work
b. Span of Control d. Chain of Command
17. Division of tasks of command among the officers of the various units is
called______________.
a. Division of work c. Assignment
b. Delegation of Authority d. Placement

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18. Coordination and integrations is very important in the conduct of operation by
______________ whereby efforts of the different group or units are coordinated and
integrated so as to accomplish a harmonious progress towards the primary objectives of
the whole organization.
a. The Special Action Force c. Line units
b. Specialized units d. Generalists
19. The _____________ required that all male residents should guard the town to preserve
the peace maintain order, and protect life and property from harm and disturbance.
a. Trial by Ordeal c. Hue and Cry
b. The Royal Judge d. Tun Policing
20. Earliest type of policing which was based on the principle of self help .
a. Tithing System c. Hue and City
b. Office of Constable d. Tun
21. In this system of policing in Europe, England was divided into 55 military districts
known as the Shire-Rieve. Shire was the district, Rieve was the ruler who makes law, pass
judgment and impose punishment, with the assistance of the Constable.
a. Shire- Rieve System c. Leges Henri
b. The Travelling Judge d. The Magna-Carta
22. Which period England’s police force reach its milestone?
a. Modern Policing Period (1829) c. Norman Period (1066-1285)
b. Westminster Period (1285-1500) d. Anglo-Saxon Period (871-899
23. Sir Robert Peel’s concept of modern police are
1. Organized along military lines who are screened and trained
2. Hired on a probationary basis and deployed by time and area
3. Accessible to the people and maintains records
4. Good appearance commands respect.
5. Public security demands that every police be given a code
a. 1, 3 and 5 c. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
b. 2 and 4 d. 2, 3, 4 and 5
24. In line and Staff organization__________________________________.
I. The staff responsibility is indirect; the line officer discharges his responsibility by
taking direct action.
II. Staff officer furnishes technical information and advice, without having direct
authority over line personnel.
Choose the correct answer
a. I is true while II is false c. I and II are both true
b. I is false while II is true d. I and II are both false
25. Elements of modern policing introduced by London Police?
1. New Mission
2. Organizational Structure
3. Strategy
4. Professionalism
a. 1 and 3 c. 1, 2 and 3
b. 2 and 4 d. 2, 3 and4
26. Features of a modern police according to David Bayley, in his comparative study of
the development of policing around the world argues the essential features of the modern
police.
1. Highly trained
2. Public because they transfer responsibility for public safety to government
agencies
3. Specialized because they have a distinct mission of law enforcement and crime
prevention
4. Professional because they are full-time paid employees
a. 1 and 3 c. 1, 2 and 3
b. 2 and 4 d. 2, 3 and 4
27. England is often regarded________________________.
a. As the birth place of modern policing
b. As the birth place of police professionalism
c. As the birth place of community oriented policing
d. As the birth place problem oriented policing
28. What is considered to be the first Modern American police?
a. New York Police Department c. Los Angeles Police Department
b. Boston Police Department d. California Police Department

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29. Forces that lead towards professionalization of American police during the 20 th
Century.
1. Movement to established professional standards in policing
2. Introduction of modern communications technology
3. Internationalization of crimes
4. Emergence of organized crimes
a. 1 and 2 c. 1 and 3
c. 3 and 4 d. 2 and 4
30. He established the International Association of Chiefs of Police (IACP) which served as
the national voice of police reform in the US.
a. Richard Sylvester c. Orlando Wilson
b. August Vollmer d. Robert Peel
31. Primary goals of police professionalization introduced by August Vollmer through the
1931 Wickersham Commission are__________________________.
1. Elimination of political influence and appoint qualified chief executive
2. Establishment of a mission of non-partisan public service and raise personnel
standards
3. Introduction of principles of scientific management, emphasizing military-style
discipline and developing specialized units.
a. 1 and 2 c. 2 and 3
b. 1 and 3 d. 1, 2 and 3
32. He is the first one who injected a military spirit during brief career as a New York
Police Commissioner between 1895-1897.
a. Theodore Roosevelt c. Governor Calvin Coolidge
b. Lola Baldwin d. Alice Stebbins Welts
33. Between 1920 and 1960, ____________radically transformed the basic pattern of police
work.
a. Widespread crimes c. Urbanization
b. Technology d. Computers
34. _________________ is a protégé of August Vollmer who authored a book entitled “Police
Administration” which became the unofficial bible of police administration and influenced
two generations of police chiefs.
a. Edgar Hoover c. William Parker
b. O. W. Wilson d. Lola Baldwin

35. The first undergraduate law enforcement course was established at_______________.
a. University of California c. Harvard University
b. San Jose State College d. City College of New York
36. A study which revealed that increased patrol did not reduce crime and had no
significant effect on crime volume.
a. Kansas City Preventive Patrol Experiment
b. New York City Patrol Experiment
c. Washington Patrol System Experiment
d. Crime Commission Research
37. Considered as the “Father of the Modern Professional Police Force”, who advocated
high level of education for a police officer which he thought would foster police
professionalism.
a. August Vollmer c. Robert Peel
b. Orlando Wilson d. Henry Fielding
38. Organized in each town during the Spanish Regime. Its members are enlisted from the
five percent of the able-bodied male inhabitants of each province whose duties consist
of maintaining peace and order in the towns, patrolling, guarding the tribunal and prison
cells, and other odd duties in the town.
a. Carabineros de SeguridadPublica c. The Cuadrilleros
b. Cuerpo de SeguridadPublica d. The Guardia Civil
39. An Act passed on July 18, 1901, providing for the organization of the Insular
Constabulary whose power includes inspection of the Municipal Police is_______________.
a. RA 4864 c. PD 765
b. Act. No. 175 d. PD 1184
40. Police administration refers to_________________________
a. The act, art, or manner of administering, controlling or conducting a police unit
or organization.
b. The direction of the police organization or a part of it, and the use of its
resources in such a manner so as to carry out its functions efficiently.

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 c. The budgetting, accounting procedure, purchasing guides, recruitment of
personnel, training selection, and or organization of personnel.
d. The Activities conducted in the field by law enforcement officers as the “serve
and protect”, including patrol, traffic, investigation and general calls for police service.
41. Planning refers to___________________________.
a. The process of combining all aspects of the public safety activity and the realistic
anticipation of future problems, the analysis of strategy and the correlation of strategy to
detail.
b. A process done in structuring a work group into components in order to establish
workable channels of intra-group communication in the performance of an assigned task
or tasks.
c. An act ordering, commanding, instructing, and superintending the subordinates.
d. Process of making harmonious adjustment to give things and actions their
proper proportions and relationships
42. In the police service, directing is three-folds. Which of the following should be
excluded?
a. Command d. Monitor
b. Coordination d. Control
43. Best tools of controlling are_________________________.
1. Inspection of records 3. Checking of statistics
2. Observation 4. Interviewing
a. 1, 2, 3 and 4 c. 1 and 3
b. 1, 2 and 3 d. 2 and 4
44. Procedures utilized and officially adopted as the standard methods of action followed
by all members of the department under specified circumstances, regardless of the
functional unit to which the member may be confronted is _________________________.
a. Policy or Procedural Plans c. Operational Plans
b. Tactical Plan d. Extra- Office Plans
45. ________________________involves personnel and material organization, disbursement of
funds such as budget planning, accounting procedures and specification and purchasing
procedures, personnel and organization.
a. Management plans c. Budget plans
b. Administration plans d. Operational plans
46. Statement No. 1-Policies are guiding principles governing future courses of action;
they have to be stable.Statement No. 2- Procedures are the actual courses of action; they
include working details, methods of operation, and very frequently , paperwork, review,
routing, etc.
a. Statement no. 1 is true while statement no.2 is false
b, Statement no. 1 is false while statement no. 2 is true
c. Statements no. 1 and 2 are both true
d. Statements no.1 and 2 are both false
47. What procedures followed by the special units in the performance of t heir specific
mission?
a. Office Procedure c. Headquarters Procedures
b. Field Procedure d. Special Operating Procedures
48. After identification of the problem, the next step to undertake by the police planner?
a. Frame of Reference c. Collecting all Pertinent Facts
b. Clarifying the Problems d. Analyzing the facts
49. Before “selecting the most appropriate alternatives ”, you, the police planner should
__________ first.
a. Sell the Plan c. Evaluate he Effectiveness of the
Plan
b. Arrange for Execution of the Plans d. Develop alternative plans
50. Which of the following the effectiveness of planning depends?
a. Resources available for its implementation
b. Commitment of personnel who will implement the plan
c. Degree of timeliness of plans and strategy used for its implementation
d. Support of higher authorities and goodwill of its beneficiaries
51. In the National Operational Support Units like the Anti-Kidnapping and Anti-
Cybercrime Groups, its internal operational policy plans to efficiently achieve its
objectives and mission are performed by_________________.
a. The Legislature c. The Group Director
b. The Chief, PNP d. The DILG Secretary

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52. A large or disorderly crowd which is bent on riotous or destructive action is known
as_______.
a. Mob c. Casual
b. Crowd d. Psychological crowd
53. Agitated crowd is a_________________________________.
a. Well behaved crowd and requires only the simplest control by the police.
However, it can become riotous from improper handling
b. People who gather together from nowhere at the scene of an accident, fire or
disaster. This crow is curious, cooperative and anxious, but frequently becomes a
headache to the police.
c. Friendly or righteous crowds, when it becomes disturbed by emotional influences
or swayed by irresponsible party it develops into a mob.
d. Disorderly crowd which are willing to be led into lawlessness, but lacks the
courage and unity of purpose. It is composed of few determined leaders, active
participants and large number of spectators.
54. Executed to penetrate or break the crowd. This is usually done when there is
necessity to separate/isolate the unruly and violent groups in a crowd.
a. Stand-by Formation c. Wedge Formation
b. Single Line Formation d. Arrow Formation.

55. Created to guide the PNP’s internal security efforts to complement the AFP Internal
Peace and Security Plan Bayanihan.
a. Campaign Plan Samahan c. Oplan Santinig
b. Master Plan Sandugo d. Master Plan Sandigan
56. The civilianization of the PNP has the effect of __________________________.
a. the application of Civil Service Law and its implementing rules and regulations to
its personnel which is based on merit and fitness
b. deprivation of the military officers from joining the police service
c. professionalization of the police service
d. transformation of the PNP from mission oriented to a service oriented police
organization
57. Administrative control and operational supervision over the PNP is exercise by the
NAPOLCOM, which means____________________.
1. Development of policies and promulgation of police manual for the PNP
2. Affirming, reversing or modifying personnel disciplinary actions
3. Recommend the recall and reassignment of the Chief of Police
4. Exercise appellate jurisdiction over decisions on claims for police benefits
a. 1, 2 and 3 c. 1, 3 and 4
b. 2, 3 and 4 d. 1, 2 and 4
58. PNP mandated and not a NAPOLCOM-directive PNP function/s is/are_____________.
a. All-out campaign to stop and eradicate jueting, other illegal activities,
carnapping and kidnapping
b. Enforce all laws and ordinances relative to the protection of lives and properties
c. Intensified and continuous campaign against illegal drugs
d. All-out campaign against co-members of the PNP who are engaged in illegal
activities especially those involved in “kotong” or “hulidap” operations
59. Considered as the Philippine National Police main operating units are_______________.
1. Criminal Investigation, and Detection Group, Crime Laboratory Service and
Special Action Force
2. Police Regional Offices
3. Police Provincial and District Offices
4. City or Municipal Stations
5. Logistic Support, Finance, Legal and Health Services
a. 1, 2 and 3 c. 3, 4 and 5
b. 2, 3 and 4 d. 1 and 5
60. The PNP’s City or Municipal offices is headed by_________________.
a. Station Commander c. Chief of Police
b. Senior Inspector d. Commander or Chief
61. Philippine Natonal Police’s National Operational Support Units.
1. Maritime and Aviation Security Groups
2. Information Technology Management and Communication and Electronic
Services
3. Highway Patrol and Police Community Relation Groups
4. Civil Security and Crime Laboratory Service Groups

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 5. Headquarters Support, Engineering Service and Training Services
a. 1, 2 and 3 c. 1, 2 and 4
b. 1, 3 and 4 d. 1, 3 and 5
62. Command and direction of the Philippine National Police is vested upon the
___________.
a. Director General
b. President
c. Department of Interior and Local Secretary who is the Ex-Officio Chairperson of
the NAPOLCOM
d. Chief, PNP
63. If the Philippines has one hundred fifty million population, how many policemen is
needed to satisfy its minimum strength?
a. 300,000 c. 250,000
b. 150,000 d. 50,000
63-A How about in a highly urbanized city like Manila where the population is about two
million how many policemen are needed to satisfy it ideal policeman to population ratio?
a. 2,000 c. 4000
b. 3,000 d. 20,000
Note:
In compliance with the statutory requirements for the manning level [Sec 27, RA 6975], the
NAPOLCOM [MC NO. 2007 - 009 ] provides the following police to population ratio, to wit:
Highly urbanized cities (CPOs) - - - 1:500 – 700
Component Cities (CPSs) - - - - -- 1:650 – 800
Municipalities (MPSs) - - - - - - - -- 1:750 – 1000
which would depend on: peace and order in the locality; actual demands of the service;
and class city/municipality.

64. The PNP was established by virtue of the DILG Act of 1990. Provisions related to the
PNP personnel were amended by RA 8551. Provisions related to BJMP and BFP were
amended by RA 9263. What is the latest law that further amends provision related to PNP
personnel?
a. RA 9708 c. RA 10592
b. RA 10575 d. RA 10365
65. Romer Garcia is a PCO assigned in the PNP-DIDM at Camp Crame, Quezon City . Part
of his uniform is a rank insignia of 2 silver sampaguita cluster. What is the counterpart of
this rank in the AFP?
a. Captain c. Lieutenant Colonel
b. Major General d. Colonel
66. First in the hierarchy of command in the Philippine National Police is the __________.
a. Director General c. Commander-in- Chief
b PNP Chief d. DILG Secretary
67. Who among the following is not qualified for initial appointment as Chief of Police of the City or Municipal
Police Station?
a. A Lawyer-police officer who was formerly assigned at the National Capital Region Police Office
b. A Criminologist-police officer who was formerly assigned at the CIDG prior to his appointment
c. A doctor of medicine police officer who was formerly assigned at the PNP Crime Laboratory Service
prior to his appointment
d. A graduate of the PNPA who was formerly assigned at SAF and a survivor of the OPLAN Exodus at
Mamasapano Maguindanao
68. PCSupt. Ric Del Mundo was designated by the Chief, PNP as head of the Police
Regional Office of Region 1. What will be his position title?
a. Director c. Regional Director
b. Commander d. Regional Chief
69. In the large provinces which police districts were established by the NAPOLCOM, each
district is headed by__________________.
a. Chief of Police c. District Director
b. Provincial District Director d. Police District Director
70. PCOs and PNCOs who were recruited by virtue of their special technical skills and
competencies are called:
a. Specialists c. Line Officers
b. Technical Service Officers d. Staff Officers
71. The ex-officio member of the NAPOLCOM is the______________.
A. Chief PNP C. NBI Director
B. DILG Secretary D. Executive Secretary

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72. The NAPOLCOM is composed of how many regular commissioners?
A. 6 C. 4
B. 5 D. 3
73. What is the Organizational Relationship of the NAPOLCOM to the DILG?
a. The NAPOLCOM is under the DILG
b. The DILG Secretary is the Ex Officio Chairman of the NAPOLCOM
c. The NAPOLCOM is attached to the DILG for policy and program coordination
d. The DILG has the operational control and administrative supervision over the NAPOLCOM
74. Who shall direct the PNP, BJMP and BFP to assist the AFP in meeting the national
emergency?
a. The President
b. The DILG Secretary
c. The DND Secretary
d. The Chief of Staff of the Armed Forces of the Philippines
75. What will happen to a police officer who, after a given time period fails to satisfy a
continuing specific requirement for employment with the PNP?
a. Separated from the service if he is below 50 years of age and has served in
government for less than 20 years
b. Retired if he is from the age of 50 and above and has served the government for
at least 20 years without prejudice in either case to the payment of benefits he may be
entitled to under existing laws
c. Dismissed from the service if he is either below or above 50 years of age and
rendered less that 20 years service
d. A and B
76. Which of the following requirements under the waiver program, the member of the
cultural minority is automatically entitled?
a. Age c. Weight
b. Height d. Education
77. The Regional Police Office of MIMAROPA has a quota 200 POI in 2013. Out of 300
applicants however, only 175 possesses minimum qualifications. Which of the following
group of applicants may be given preference in the waiver program to fill up the
remaining slots?
a. BS Criminology undergraduates
b. Those who are underweight and overweight
c. Those who are below 1.62 m for male and 1.57 for female
d. Those who are over age
78. In what aspects of police work does the recruits shall have to undergo before
obtaining permanent appointment to the PNP?
a. Investigation, intelligence and traffic c. Patrol and investigation
b. Patrol, traffic and investigation d. Field and staff works
79. The Ex Officio Commissioner of the NAPOLCOM has a term of___________.
a. 6 years without reappointment or extension c. 2 years
b. 4 years d. None
80. What is the institution of learning tasks for the training, human resource development
and continuing education of all personnel of the tri-bureau under the DILG?
a. Philippine National Police Academy c. Philippine National Training Center
b. National Police College d. Philippine Public Safety College
81. By virtue of RA 8551 the DILG was relieved of the primary responsibility on matters
involving the suppression of insurgency and other serious threats to national security. In
what instance the PNP personnel may engage in combat operations against the
insurgents?
a. In times of national emergency
b. The President call on the PNP to support the AFP in combat operation
c. There is no instance that the PNP engage in combat operations against the
insurgents except in self-defense
d. None of the above
82. The NAB composed of a chairperson and three regular members have the following
appellate jurisdiction, except:
a. Demotion or dismissal cases decided by the RAB
b. Demotion or dismissal cases decided by the CPNP
c. Demotion or dismissal cases recommended by the IG-IAS that were not acted
upon by the CPNP

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 d. Affirmation of the IG-IAS to the resolution of the RIAS dismissing the complaint
for lack of probable cause
83. The RAB composed of Chairperson and two members for the PNP and RPOC have the
following appellate jurisdiction, except:
a. Demotion or dismissal cases decided by the PLEB
b. Demotion or dismissal cases decided by the PNP-RD
c. Decision of the City or Municipal Mayors; and demotion or dismissal cases
recommended by the RIAS but not acted upon by the PNP-RD
d. Demotion or dismissal cases decided by the PNP-PD
84. Decisions of the NAB and the RAB may be appealed to the:
a. Chief, PNP c. DILG
b. OPRES d. CSC
85. It was established to keep a healthy relationship between the PNP and the Muslim
community. It oversee police matters concerning Muslim communities, including the
handling of issues such as alleged harassment and discrimination against Muslim
Filipinos.
a. Zakat c. Maktab al-Khidamat
b. Hawala d. Salaam Police Center
86. Who grants age, height and weight waivers for police applicants who do not meet the
basic qualifications?
a. NAPOLCOM en banc c. PNP Chief
b. NAPOLCOM Regional Director d. DILG secretary

POLICE PERSONNEL AND RECORDS MANAGEMENT

87. NAPOLCOM policies on recruitment, selection, and appointment of POI applicants,
except:
a. Ensure the entry of highly qualified individuals into the police service
b. Appointment of applicants who possess basic qualifications but prepared himself
to become police officers
c. Strengthen PNP human resource capability
d. Give extra premium to applicants’ intellectual, mental, emotional and
psychological fitness and preparedness for police service
88. Which of the following is the correct sequence in the selection and appointment of POI
applicants?
1. Final committee interview
2. Complete character and background investigation
3. Complete physical, medical and dental examination
4. Psychiatric/psychological examination
5. Physical agility test
6. Preliminary interview
a. 3, 5, 2, 1, 5 and 6 c. 6, 4, 2, 3, 5 and 1
b. 1, 3, 4, 5, 6 and 2 d. 6, 5, 4, 3, 2 and 1
89. What office of the PNP charged to conduct background investigation of the PNP
applicant?
a. Directorate for Intelligence
b. Directorate for Personnel and Records Management
c. Directorate for Investigation and Detective Management
d. Directorate for Human Resource and Doctrine Development
90. Factors considered in PMDE for POI selection, except:
a. General appearance; nose; mouth and teeth
b. Genitals; varicose veins; arms; legs; hands and feet
c. Eyes; respiration; circulation; brain and nervous system and kidneys
d. Face; height; weight; complexion and body built
91. Which of the following are not a factors in determining police applicants’ aptitude to
join the police service?
a. Likability and affability c. Outside interest and conversational ability
b. Congeniality and sex appeal d. No disagreeable mannerism

92. When does a permanent appointment is issued to a POI recruit?

a. After having passed all of the selection process
b. After taking an oath as police officer
c. After the completion of PSBRC
d. After completion of the PSBRC and FTP

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93. Loss of power of speech, sense of hearing, one or both hands or feet fall under the
concept of:
a. Disability c. Permanent total disability
b. Permanent disability d. Temporary disability
94. Under Republic Act No. 9708, pending administrative and/or criminal case against
police officer is no longer a bar to his/her promotion. However, the following rules shall
be observed, except:
a. The police officer is ineligible for promotion during the pendency of criminal case
if such criminal case involves but not limited to violation of human rights punishable by
reclusion perpetua or life imprisonment and the court has determined that the evidence
of his guilt is strong
b. After finding of probable cause which means the information has already been
filed and docketed in court, the case remains unresolved for two (2) years, the concerned
police officer shall be considered for promotion
c. In the event that the police officer is held guilty for the crime by final judgment,
promotion shall be recalled
d. Whenever the concerned police offier is acquitted for an offense, unpaid salaries
and benefits during suspension or dismissal shall be paid
95. Which of the following is not an act constituting conspicuous gallantry and courage
which justify the grant of special promotion?
a. Overwhelming number of enemies and firepower capability as against the
strength of PNP operatives
b. A deed of personal bravery and self-sacrifice above and beyond the call of duty
c. An act of heroism exhibited in the face of an armed enemy or in the conduct of
rescue/disaster operations resulting the loss of life
d. B and C
96. What are other matters considered in granting special promotion?
a. The date of effectivity of special promotion shall be on the date of heroic deed
b. It must be attested by at least two eyewitnesses or testimonies of the immediate
superior officers
c. Only operational accomplishments shall merit special promotion
d. A and C
97. How does the retirement pay of a police officer is computed?
a. Monthly Retirement Pay= 50% of the base pay and longevity pay+ in case of 20
years of active service, increasing 2.5% for every year of active service rendered beyond
20 years
b. Monthly Retirement Pay= 100% of base pay and 10% longevity pay+ in case of
20 years of active service, increasing of 5% for every year of active service rendered
beyond 30 years
c. Monthly Retirement Pay= 25% of base pay and longevity pay
d. Monthly Retirement Pay= 80% of base pay and 50% of longevity pay
98. SPOIII Pedro Delos Reyes was administratively charged before the IAS; found culpable
and punished with suspension. Decision however was rendered upon his retirement. What
is the effect of the penalty of suspension to his retirement benefits?
a. His retirement benefits will be forfeited
b. His retirement benefits will not be paid
c. Corresponding amount relative to the period of suspension shall be deducted
from the portion of his retirement benefits
d. Twenty five percent of his retirement benefits will be forfeited and placed into
the trust fund for the victims of PNP personnel abuses
99. SPOI Dindo Solis was charged before the PLEB for oppression. During the pendency of
the case however, he died. What is the effect of such death to his pending administrative
case?
a. Dismissal c. Exoneration
b. Acquittal d. Attrition
100. PO3 Valentino Salazar was charged with frustrated homicide before the RTC of
Manila. On a petition of the plaintiff, he was preventively suspended for 90 days. After
the trial of the case he was acquitted on the ground of self-defense and performance of
official duty. What is the effect of such acquittal to his unpaid salary during the period of
suspension?
a. It will be forfeited
b. It will be paid promptly
c. It will be reduced of 10%
d. It will not be paid because he did not actually rendered service

10 | P a g e
101. A PCOs and PNCOs are considered in AWOL if he/is; except one:
a. Absent from place of work without approved vacation leave; or abandon his work
or assignment without prior approval of his immediate superior officer
b. Failed to report for duty after expiration of approved leave of absence; or failed
to give notice to his immediate superior officer of the fact of his inability to report for
work on account of sickness or injury
c. When a police officer go on absence without official leave for a continuous period
of 30 days or more
d. Failed to file appropriate application for sick leave after his return for work
attaching therewith the required medical certificate; or failed to report to his new
assignment within 3 days from receipt of the order or assignment or for reporting to a unit
where he is not officially assigned
102. POI Felipe Morris is frequently abandoning his post, disobey lawful orders of his
superior officer, and always late during the pre-patrol formation. He was even caught
playing cara y cruz while under the influence of liquor. Which of the following authorities
has no disciplinary power over him?
a. COP or PD or its equivalent c. RD or its equivalent
b. PLEB or IAS d.CPNP
103. One PLEB is necessary to be established for every how many police officers in the
City or Municipal Police Office?
a. 500 c. 2000
b. 1000 d. 750
104. Who among the following should be excluded in choosing membership to PLEB?
a. Sangguniang Panlunsod/Bayan member
b. Barangay Captain
c. Pastor, minister or priest of any religious congregation
d. A lawyer, college graduate or elementary school principal
105. Programs of the NAPOLCOM and PNP in relation to WCD, except:
a. Every police station throughout the country shall have Women’s Desk; and in the
annual recruitment and selection of applicants for police service at least 10% out of the
total number of quota shall be allocated and filled in by women applicants
b. The recruited policewomen should be assigned to city or municipal police
stations to assume the task in the WCD
c. The recruited policewomen shall be required to undergo a specialized course in
handling cases involving women and children
d. None of the above
106. The power of the LGE over the PNP personnel assigned in their area of jurisdiction
which is considered to be a disciplinary action is ____________.
a. Reassignment c. Relief
b. Transfer d. Reprimand

107. Permanent disability of the PCOs and PNCOs is compensable provided that the
following requisites are present, except:
a. Finding and certification by the appropriate medical officer that the extent of the
disability and sickness renders them unfit or unable to perform duties of the position
b. Duly recommended by the Regional Director and Chief PNP
c. Injuries suffered or sickness contracted resulting to permanent disability is due
to the performance of official duties
d. Certification by the NAPOLCOM
108. What is the duration period before physical disability will be considered permanent?
a. one year c. more than one year
b. more than 6 months d. six months
109. It concerned with promoting and enhancing the development of work effectiveness
and advancement of human resources in the organization through proper planning,
organizing, directing, coordinating and controlling activities related to procurement,
development, motivation, and compensation of employees to achieve organizational
goals.
a. Personnel management c. Human resource management
b. Personnel administration d. Manpower management
110. Statement no. 1: Personnel management refers to the handling, directing, and
controlling of individual employees rather than employees as group. Statement no. 2:
Personnel management covers the acquisition and retention of competent employees
through proper recruitment, selection, placement, utilization, and development.
a. Statement no. 1 is true while statement no.2 is false

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 b. Statement no. is false while statement no. 2 is true
c. Statement no.1 and 2 are both true
d. Statement no. 1 and 2 are both false
111. An act of choosing by the authority vested with the power, of an individual who is to
perform the functions of a given office;
a. Recruitment c. Selection
b. Appointment d. Attrition
112. A process of designating personnel in a particular function, duty or responsibility. Its
purpose is to ensure systematic and effective utilization of all members of the
organization.
a. Assignment c. Designation
b. Deployment d. Employment
113. An acting appointment which is extended to one who may not possess the requisite
qualifications required by law for the position.
a. Permanent c. Probationary
b. Temporary d. Casual
114. In the PNP, “Salary” means basic pay attached to the rank which one is appointed
including:
a. Longevity pay c. Clothing allowance
b. Hazardous pay d. Quarter allowance
115. A means that management uses to bring employees behavior under control. Its
purpose is not retribution or vengeance but to impress upon the employee the need to do
things in a prescribed manner. It also serves as a warning to other employees that the
organization will not tolerate any willful violation of its rules and regulations or proper
conduct and behavior.
a. Discipline c. Suspension
b. Penalty d. Investigation
116. Propounded by Douglas McGregor, it suggest that in disciplining erring subordinates
the disciplinary action should be immediate, with warning, consistent and impersonal.
a. Motivation Theory c. Theory X and Y
b. Hot-Stove Rule d. System theory

117. The following are principles concerning discipline: Statement no. 1. Disciplinary
action should not be taken unless there is an obvious necessity for it, the reasons for
disciplinary action should be made clear and give a person a chance to present his side of
the story; statement no. 2. Reproof or reprimand should be given as soon as possible
after the occurrence of the act, never discipline anyone in the presence of others
disciplinary measure should be applied or imposed by some other higher officer of the
affected employee.
a. Statement no. 1 is true while statement no.2 is false
b. Statement no. is false while statement no. 2 is true
c. Statement no.1 and 2 are both true
d. Statement no. 1 and 2 are both false
118. Types of Disciplinary Actions, except:
a. Admonition, warning or reprimand.
b. Bawl-out
c. Preventive suspension
d. Suspension, Transfer, Demotion and Discharge
119. Personnel management as a management function is delegated to a department or
a unit in the organization called personnel department which performs:
a. Staff function c. Operational function
b. Line function d. Support service function
120. A general plan of action that serve as guide in the operation of the organization. It
make up the basic framework of management decisions which set the course of the
organization to follow.
a. Policies c. Doctrines
b. Rules d. Regulations
121. It comes from the top level management and is intended to set up guidelines in the
operation of the organization. It is usually broad in scope to allow subordinates officers
some latitude in implementing them in the form of minor policies or rules and procedures.
a. Originated policy c. Imposed policy
b. Appealed policy d. Dictated policy
122. How does personnel policies are to be communicated among the employees?

12 | P a g e
 a Handbooks and Policy Manual
b. Numbered Memoranda and Circulars
c. Bulletin Boards, Meetings and conferences
d. Any of them
123. Job description is________________________.
a. An abstract of information derived from the job analysis report, describing the
duties performed, the skills, training and experience required, the responsibilities
involved, the conditions under the job is done, and the relation of the job to the other jobs
in the organization.
b. The statement of the qualification and traits of the worker so that he may
perform the job properly. It specifies the type of employee which the job calls for in terms
of skills, experience, training, and other special qualifications.
c. It is especially useful in the recruitment and selection of employees for a
particular job since it indicates the personal qualities required of the person to be
appointed.
d. A useful guide for employee placement, transfer and promotion.
124. The process of attracting candidates who are qualified for selection is known
as_________________.
a. Recruitment c. Appointment
b. Selection d. Placement
125. Chain of command is the line of authority, responsibility and communication in any
organization. It should be strictly observed in the organization. Failure to do so
will_____________.
a. Span of control
b. Breaking down command and control
c. Loses unity of command
d. Losing command responsibility
126. The National Police Commission is mandated to administer the entrance and
promotional examinations for policemen on the basis of the standards set by
the____________________.
a. Department of Interior and Local Government
b. Civil Service Commission
c. Philippine National Police
d. NAPOLCOM en banc
127. Personnel policies and guidelines issued by NAPOLCOM in relation to recruitment,
selection and appointment of a police officer.
1. Ensure the entry of highly qualified individuals into the police service and to
strengthen the human resource capability of the PNP
2. Give extra premium to applicants’ intellectual, mental, emotional, and
psychological fitness and preparedness for police service
3. Ensure that merit and fitness shall be strictly implemented no matter whom will
be affected
a. 1 and 2 c. 1 and 3
b. 2 and 3 d. 1, 2 and 3
128. An agency of the government that confirms quota allocation for PNP personnel
recruitment, selection and appointment are/is the___________________.
a. PNP Directorate for Personnel and Records Management
b. Civil Service Commission
c. National Police Commission
d. Department of Interior and Local Government
129. Posting or publication of notice for recruitment in the PNP is________________.
a. Optional
b. Mandatory, pursuant to RA 7041
c. Desirable, to attract individuals who possess maximum qualification to join
with the PNP
d. Required pursuant to RA 8551
130. A police officer who failed to satisfy a weight requirement for a period of six (6) months shall be:
a. Suspended indefinitely c. Attrited
b. Separated from the service d. Dismissed from the service
131. What would be the effect if the appointment paper of a PNP recruit is not submitted
to the Civil Service Commission for attestation within thirty (30) days from the date of
issuance?
a. The appointment becomes ineffective

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 b. The appointment shall be ante dated
c. The appointment is null and void
d. The appointment is still effective provided that it was issued without violating the
existing laws or rules, making the appointment unlawful
132. The “Salary Grade” of a Police Officer I is___________________
a. 30 c. P18,000.00
b. 10 d. P 14,000.00
133. PNP personnel who have accumulated at least twenty years active service and
incurs total permanent physical disability in line of duty shall be:
a. Compulsorily retired from the service
b. Separated from the service and entitled to a separation pay equivalent to one and
one-fourth months base pay for every year of service, or a fraction thereof, and longevity
pay of the permanent grade he/she holds
c. Discharged from the service
d. Resigned
134. PNP Uniformed personnel, who have served at least one (1) year of active service in
the permanent grade, for purposes of retirement pay, be retired in:
a. One rank higher than the permanent rank has last held
b. One grade higher than the permanent grade has last held
c. Two ranks higher than the rank last held
d. One grade higher regardless of the status of the last grade held
135. PNP Medal of Valor is granted by the__________________.
a. NAPOLCOM en banc c. President of the Philippines
b. DILG Secretary d. Chief, PNP
136. Evaluation report covering the period January to June shall be submitted after
completion to the Directorate for Personnel on the
a. Every 6 months c. First Week of July.
b. First week of July to December d. First Week of January
137. Purposes of PNP Complaints and Grievance System are_________________.
1. To provide a system for the promotion of wholesome and harmonious
relationships between employees and supervisors in the PNP organization
2. To provide the citizens a venue where they can express their complaints and
grievances against the police officer so that the latter will be properly punished
3. To encourage PNP members to exercise their rights to present complaints or
grievances and have them fairly, equitably and expeditiously adjudicated, thus
prevent/pre-empt discontent and dissatisfaction among the PNP rank and file; and to
discover interpersonal problems of employees and find ways to resolve problems and
issues, if any
4. To improve employee morale through management response to the needs of
personnel and employees and vice versa.
a. 1 and 3 c. 1, 2 and 3
b. 2 and 4 d. 1, 3 and 4
138. Administrative control and operational supervision over the PNP is exercise by the
NAPOLCOM, which means_____________________.
1. Development of policies and promulgation of police manual for the PNP
2. Affirming, reversing or modifying personnel personnel disciplinary actions
3. Recommend the recall and reassignment of the Chief of Police
4. Exercise appellate jurisdiction over decisions on claims for police benefits
a. 1 and 2 c. 1, 2 and 3
b. 3 and 4 d. 1, 2 and 4
139. Matters or issues that are not covered by Complaints and Grievance Machinery
is_______________________.
a. Implementation of policies, practices and procedures, working conditions, and
tools and equipment
b. Exercise of discretion or any other similar and significant matters that may cause
employee/subordinate dissatisfaction
c. Payment of salaries, and other benefits which the police officers are entitled

14 | P a g e
 d. Favoritism or improper placements or assignments or transfers,
Conferment/giving of recommendations and awards, promotions and salary increases
140. Which of the following principles that govern meritorious promotion?
1. Exhibited acts of conspicuous courage and gallantry at the risk of his/her life
above and beyond the call of duty
2. Validation by the Chief, PNP based on established criteria
3. Applicable even on personnel with temporary appointment
4. Transmission of the facts of the said act to the NAPOLCOM within one (1) year
from the time of the occurrence of the deed
a. 1, 2 and 3 c. 1, 2 and 4
b. 1, 3 and 4 d. 2, 3 and 4
141. Police Officer I Jeffrey Santiago was appointed in the PNP on February 2014. If the
time-grade pursuant to NAPOLCOM Resolution No. 2013-501 would be applied to him,
assuming that he would be promoted regularly, he would be a Police Inspector for how
many years in the police service?
a. 15 years c. 20 years
b. 12 years d. 16 years
Time- In Grade Based on NAPOLCOM Resolution No.
2013-501.
POI-POII - 2 years
POII-POIII - 2 years
*POIII-SPOI - 3 years
SPOI-SPOII - 2 years
SPOII-SPOIII - 2 years
SPOIII-SPOIV - 2 years
*SPOIV-Insp - 3 years
Insp- Sr Insp - 3 years
Chief Insp-Supt- 3 years
*Supt-Sr Supt- 3 years
*Sr. Supt-Chief Supt- 3 years
142. Which of the following is classified as third level position in the PNP?
a. Chief of Police
b. Station Commander of Police Station in Manila
c. Division Chief of the Quezon City Police Office
d. Provincial Director of a police provincial office in Region 5
143. The following are factors considered in the promotion of a police officer pursuant to
NAPOLCOM MC NO. 95-013, except:
a. Performance, Service Reputation, Potential, Physical Fitness, and Personality
traits
b. Educational Attainment, Training, and Time-in-Grade
c. Roundness of experience acquired in previous command such as staff and
instructor’s duty assignment
d. Academic achievements, awards and recognitions
144. After finding probable cause for the case of plunder filed against him, Director
General Jose Portia is preventively suspended by the Ombudsman. Who among the
following shall temporarily replaced him as officer in charge of the PNP?
a. DDG Pedro Santillan, the chief of the directorial staff
b. Director Necasio Dela Fuente who was recently designated as deputy director
general for administration
c. DDG Jefferson Terrado, the deputy director general for operation
d. Chief Supt Donato Fuentes, the NCR Director
145. Police Commissioned Officers who are mandated to perform essential and purely
police functions, i.e. law enforcement, crime prevention and investigation, intelligence,
internal security operations, and relative administrative work.
a. Line Officers c. Command Line Officers
b. Technical Services Officers d. Staff Line Officers
146. Type of leadership which the supervisor is more or less an information booth. He
plays down his role in the group’s activities; he is on hand mainly to provide materials and
information, together with minimum control.
a. Autocratic c. Free-Rein
b. Democratic d. Liberal

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147. He gave an interesting passage on loyalty to the organization, viz, “ If you work for a
man, in heaven’s name work for him. If he pays your wages which supply you bread and
butter, work for him: Speak well of him: Stand by him and by the institution he
represents. If put to a pinch, an ounce of loyalty is worth a pound of cleverness. If you
must vilify, condemn and eternally disparage, resign your position, and even when you
are outside, damn to your heart’s content. But as long as you are part of the institution
do not condemn it. If you do that you are loosening the tendrils that are holding you to
the organization and, at the first high wind that comes along you will be uprooted and
blown away, and probably you will never know the reason why.”
a. Elbert Hubbard c. Orlando Wilson
b. August Vollmer d. Sir Robert Peel
148. Non-Confiscation of firearms and paraphernalia by the Chief of Police or immediate
commander of the suspended police officer under his command will result to neglect of
duty and the former will be held_____________ for the payment of the value of the property
in case of lost.
a. Jointly liable with the erring police officer c. Accountable
b. Liable d. responsible
149. Police officer who, while in the performance of duty or by reason of his being an
officer of the PNP, is ________________________ by lawless elements shall, while so absent,
be entitled to receive or to have credited to his account the same pay and allowances to
which such officer or uniformed member was entitled at the time of the incident.
a. Killed
b. Kidnapped or captured
c. Officially confirmed missing in action, kidnapped or captured
d. Held hostage
150. Transfer is a movement from one position to another which is of equivalent rank,
level or salary without break in service. In the PNP, reassignment, transfer or relief of PNP
personnel______________ which would require prior investigation or observance of due
process. It can be effected by the commander concerned at his discretion but only when
the exigency of the service so requires or as may be necessary to effectively carry out
the functions/powers and duties of the PNP.
a. Is a disciplinary action c. Is equivalent to restrictive custody only
b. Is equivalent to suspension d. Is not a disciplinary action
151. The following are governing rules on PNP personnel’s separation from the service
through resignation or optional retirement:
Statement No. 1- An officer of the NAPOLCOM or the PNP may be allowed to resign
or retire provided that such resignation or retirement, as the case may be, shall be
without prejudice to the continuation of the criminal/administrative proceedings against
him and to the filing of any administrative/criminal case against him or any act committed
while still in the service and the payment of all benefits due to the retiring/ resigning
NAPOLCOM or PNP officer or member shall be withheld until the final disposition of the
case.
Statement No. 2- The investigation and adjudication of the administrative case of
the retiring or resigning NAPOLCOM or PNP officer or member is given top priority by the
disciplinary authority concerned.
a. Statement No. 1 is true while statement no. 2 is false
b. Statement No. 1 is false while statement no. 2 is true
c. Statements no. 1 and 2 are both true
d. Statements no. 1 and 2 are both false
152. Cadetship program of the PNP is administered by the_______________________ which
was originally established by virtue of Section 19, Presidential Decree 1184 otherwise
known as the INP Professionalization Law of 1977.
a. Philippine Military Academy c. National Police College
b. Philippine Public Safety College d. Philippine National Police Academy
153. Citizen’s complaints against PNP members, who are not assigned in the municipal
station or city police office/station or in areas where no PLEB is organized, is filed in the:
a. Regional Director
b. Provincial or Regional Internal Affairs Service where the offense was committed
c. National Police Commission
d. Chief, PNP
154. The PLEB serves as ______________ entity for any citizen’s complaint against officers
and members of the PNP. It shall take cognizance of or refer the complaint to the proper

16 | P a g e
disciplinary or adjudicatory authority WITHIN 3 DAYS upon the filing of the complaint.
a. The guardian of guardians c. Central complaining
b. Central receiving d. Central protecting
155. Compositions of the People’s Law Enforcement are______________________.
1. A member of the Sanggunian Panlungsod/bayan chosen by his/her respective
sanggunian
2. A punong-barangay of the city or municipality concerned chosen by the Liga ng
mga Barangay
3. A prosecutor selected by the DOJ Secretary
4. Three (3) other members, who can be removed only for cause, chosen by the
city/municipal peace and order council from among the respected members of the
community known for their probity and integrity, one (1) of whom must be a woman and
another, a member of the Bar or in the absence thereof, a college graduate, or, the
principal of the central elementary school in the locality
a. 1, 2 and 3 c. 1, 2 and 4
b. 1, 3 and 4 d. 1, 2, 3 and 4
156. The Internal Affairs Service can conduct motu proprio investigation on the incidents
where a police personnel discharges a firearm, where death, serious physical injury, or
any violation of human rights occurred in the conduct of police operation, evidence was
compromised, tampered with, obliterated, or lost while in the custody of police personnel,
a suspect in the custody of the police was seriously injured and the established rules of
engagement have been violated. Uniformed PNP personnel found guilty of any cases
mentioned or supervisor found negligent is____________________________.
a. Ordered dismissed or demoted
b. Recommended automatically dismissed or demoted as the case may be
c. Directed automatically dismissed or demoted as the case may be
d. Commanded automatically dismissed or demoted as the case may be
157. Disciplinary Appellate Bodies in the PNP, except one.
a. Regional Appellate Board and National Appellate Board
b. Secretary of the Interior and Local Government
c. Civil Service Commission
d. Chief PNP
158. Who among the following has the power to summarily dismissed a uniformed PNP
personnel?
a. National Police Commission c. PNP Regional Directors
b. PNP Chief d. Any of them
159. The following are grounds for summary dismissal with due notice and summary
hearing, except:
a. When the charge is serious and evidence of guilt is strong
b. When the respondent police officer is a recidivist or has been repeatedly charged
and there are reasonable grounds to believe that he is guilty of the charges
c. When the PNP Officer go on absence without leave (AWOL) for a continuous
period of thirty (30) days or more
d. When the respondent police officer is guilty of a serious offense involving
conduct unbecoming of a police officer
160. In case the retiree is any officer with the rank of ______________________________,
NAPOLCOM may allow his retention in the service for an unextendible period of one (1)
year. he/she will also retire with one (1) grade higher than the permanent grade last held.
provided that the pnp uniformed personnel served for at least one (1) year of active
service in the permanent grade.
a. Police Chief Superintendent to Deputy Director General
b. Police Superintendent to Senior Superintendent
c. Senior Police Officer IV
d. Director General
161. Non-Confiscation of firearms and paraphernalia by the Chief of Police or immediate
commander of the suspended police officer under his command will result to neglect of
duty and the former will be held_____________ for the payment of the value of the property
in case of lost.
a. Jointly liable with the erring police officer c. Accountable
b. Liable d. responsible
162. Police officer who, while in the performance of duty or by reason of his being an
officer of the PNP, is ________________________ by lawless elements shall, while so absent,

17 | P a g e
be entitled to receive or to have credited to his account the same pay and allowances to
which such officer or uniformed member was entitled at the time of the incident.
a. Killed
b. Kidnapped or captured
c. Officially confirmed missing in action, kidnapped or captured
d. Held hostage
163. Upon motion of the complainant, at any time after a case is formally filed but before
the presentation of complainant’s evidence is terminated, respondent-police officer may
be preventively suspended for a period not exceeding:
a. 90 days c. 30 days
b. 60 days d. 2 months
164. Due to one strike policy of the PNP, SSupt Benito Castro is relieved as Provincial
Director of Marinduque? How his replacement be chosen?
a. The chief PNP shall appoint a new Provincial Director
b. The Regional Director shall nominate three qualified PCOs to be appointed by
the Governor
c. The DILG Secretary shall nominate three list of eligibles to be appointed by the
governor
d. The NAPOLCOM shall appoint new Provincial Director
165 In his book “Police Records“ he suggested the maintenance of blotters, cards in the
police office and more often than not in the vest pocket memo book of each officer
concerned. this was the time that formal police information recording procedures take
shape.
a. Cornelius F. Calahane (1914) c. August Vollmer (1929)
b. Elmer Graper (1921) d. Orlando W. Wilson (1941)
166. Records stored for not less than ten (10) years after creation
a. Permanent Record c. Temporary Record
b. Semi-Permanent Record d. Non-essential records
Classification of Records and their Life Span/Period of Retention
1. Permanent Record. Stored for NOT LESS than TEN (10) years after creation
2. Semi-Permanent Record. Stored for FIVE (5) years after creation
3. Temporary Record. No specific period of storage but usually LESS than FIVE (5) years.

167. Records that are regularly utilized and maintained in records office or registry
a. Current Phase/Active Record
b. Semi-Current Phase/Semi-Current Record
c. Non-Current Phase/Non-Current/Inactive Record
d. Important/Useful Records

Three (3) Phases of the Life Cycle of Records

1. Current Phase/Active Record. Regularly used and maintained in records office or
registry.
2. Semi-Current Phase/Semi-Current Record. Still used but only infrequently. It is
maintained in a record center or other offsite intermediate storage pending their
ultimate disposal
3. Non-Current Phase/Non-Current/Inactive Record. No longer used and therefore
destroyed unless they have a continuing value for other purposes which merit their
preservation and archives.

Classification of Records According to its Importance

1. Vital Records. Irreplaceable, and do not have the same value as the original when
reproduced
2. Important Records. Could be reproduced after considerable delay and at great
expense.
3. Useful Records. Would cause inconvenience if lost, but could be readily replaced.
4. Non-Essential Records. Previously determined by retention schedule to be eligible for
destruction.

168. Considered as the “heart” of any police records system

a. Case Records c. Arrest and Booking Records
b. Identification Records d. Administrative Records
169. Which of the following should be excluded?
a. Complaint/Assignment and Investigative Report

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 b. Arrest Report
c. Booking Report
d. Prisoner’s Property Receipt
170. Foundation record of the police department are__________________.
a. Fingerprint Records c. Complaint Records
b. Criminal Specialty (MO) Files d. Personnel Records
POLICE PATROL OPERATION WITH POLICE COMMUNICATION
SYSTEM
171. Whatever manner it is performed,____________________ is considered as a basic law
enforcement method.
a. Patrol c. Community Oriented Policing System
b. Police Patrol d. Crime prevention
172. Since patrol force is the single largest element in the police organization, and the
actions taken by the officers have direct impact on citizen satisfaction and well being and
on the accomplishment of police goals and objectives, patrol is considered as the
_______________.
a. Essence of police function
b. Operational heart of a police organization
c. Backbone of the police organization
d. Nerve center of police organization
173. Considered as the most basic role of the police is________________________
a. Law enforcement c. Crime investigation
b. Crime prevention d. Traffic control
174. What is the general goal of police patrol?
a. Protection of life and property c. Prevention of crime
b. Preservation of peace and order d. Safeguarding the community
175. Commonly unrelated crime prevention and law enforcement duties are ___________.
1. Performing necessary services and inspections
2. Handling of conflicts among neighbor
3. Report to corresponding agencies underground water pipes leaks, open manhole,
clogged drainages, uncollected garbage, etc
4. Request to intervene in situation between husband and wife
a. 1, 2 and 3 c. 1 and 3
b. 2, 3 and 4 d. 2 and 4

176. Of all police activities, patrol is the most important because_________________.

1. It is the most visible form of police activity
2. The individual patrol officer represents the police department in its contact with
the community
3. Patrol is the essence of police function
4. It is the nerve center of police organization
a. 1, 2 and 3 c. 1 and 2
b. 2, 3 and 4 d. 3 and 4
177. What is the gauge of an efficient patrol officer?
a. Constant and alert patrolling with keen sense of observation of persons and
things
b. Absence of police hazard in his area of responsibility
c. Friendly attitude and good relations with the community
d. Absence of crime in his area
178. Persons, places, things, situations or conditions possessing a high potential for
criminal attack or for creation of any other type of problem necessitating a demand for
immediate police service.
a. Hazard c. Police Concerns
b. Police Hazard d. Police Problems
179. Territorial units in patrol, except______________________.
a. Route c. Sector
b. Beat d. Jurisdiction
180. It is restricted to small areas and used to deal with special problems of prevention
and repression that cannot be handled by the officers in radio cars.
a. Foot patrol c. Motorcycle patrol
b. Motorcycle patrol d. Low visibility patrol
181. Effective for saturation coverage in high crime areas is ___________________.
a. Plainclothes patrol c. Canine (K-9) assisted patrol

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 b. Decoy patrol ` d. Check point
182. A uniformed patrol officer’s work is generally judged by___________________.
a. his ability to keep his beat from crimes and minor offenses
b. when all of the residents are happy of him
c. his knowledge of all problems in the community
d. his ability to solve crimes occurred in his beat
183. Aircraft patrol may be ideally used in what territorial patrol unit?
a. Beat c. Route
b. Sector d. Area
184. What are the three (3) elements that must be present at the same time and place
before a crime to happen?
a. Motive, instrumentality and opportunity
b. Opportunity, convenience and instrumentality
c. Desire planning and execution
d. Desire, opportunity and convenience
185. Which of the following are the three (3) aspects of police visibility?
a. Proper, adequate and timely police response
b. Physical presence of the police, proper patrolling scheme and response time
c. Mobile, integrated and widespread
d. foot patrol, mobile patrol and specialized patrol scheme.
186. Done by R-44 “Raven” Aircraft whose mission is to conduct aerial anti-crime and
surveillance patrols in Metro Manila and nearby regions in support of ground operations.
a. PNP sky police c. Helicopter patrol
b. Sky patrol d. High visibility patrol
187. First used by the Egyptians for patrolling. It is useful in high crime areas, dangerous
search situations, dealing with street gangs, dispersing crowd, apprehending fleeing
suspects, parks, schools and other large building.
a. Dog patrol c. K-9 Police Operations
b. Canine Assisted Patrol d. K-9 Corps
188. Most frequently used and high scoring dog for police work
a. Bouviers c. Labrador
b. German Shepherd d. Askal
189. Horse patrol is commonly use in________________________.
1. Park 3. Commercial Center
2. Beach 4. Parade and crowd patrol
a. 1 and 3 c. 1, 2 and 3
b. 2 and 4 d. 1, 2 and 4
190. _________________ is based on the premise that the “aura of police omnipresence” in
the community can reduce certain types of crimes.
a. High visibility patrol c. proactive patrol
b. Low visibility patrol d. Reactive patrol
191. _____________ is a common police patrol practice particularly in high-crime areas
where persons whose behaviour is suspicious are accosted on the street, interrogated and
frisked.
a. High visibility patrol c. Stop and frisk
b. Reactive patrol d. Street interview/interrogation
192. What is the patrol pattern performed at the start of the 8-hour tour of duty of the
patrol officer?
a. straightway and criss-cross c. zig-zag or free wheeling
b. clockwise d. counter-clockwise
193. Statement No.1 Police patrol, whether on foot, in vehicle, or in whatever manner it is
performed, is the basic crime repression method. Statement No. 2 Careful patrolling by an
intelligent police officer is the first line of defense against crimes.
a. Statement No1 is true while statement no.2 is false
b. Statement No. 1 is false while statement no. 2 is false
c. Statements No.1 and 2 are true
d. Satetements No.1 and 2 are false
194. Patrol is considered to be the “Backbone” of the police organization
because____________
a. The man on the beat, the day-by-day work that makes or breaks a law
enforcement agency, that controls the majority of criminals and is the legal basis of the
police function of protecting life and property and service to the public
b. Patrol is the most important of all police functions and the essence of policing

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 c. Patrol force is the single largest element in the police organization and the
actions taken by the police officers have a direct impact on citizen satisfaction and well-
being, and on the accomplishment of police goals and objectives
a. 1 and 2 c. 1 and 3
b. 2 and 3 d. 1, 2 and 3
195. Patrol is the only form of police service which directly attempts to eliminate the
desire and opportunity of an individual to commit misconduct, hence patrol is the
________________.
a. Backbone of police organization
b. Operational heart of the police organization
c. Essence of police function
d. Nerve center of police organization
195-A. Patrol is called the “Operational Heart” of the police organization
because_________________.
a. The patrol force incorporates all objectives inherent in the police organization
b. The general goal of patrol is to safeguard the community
c. The patrol force have always been expected to handle variety of situations
d. A and C
195-B. This type of patrol will enable the patrol officer to closely observe persons and
things in his beat and would maintain better personal contact with citizens and develop
police community relations.
a. Bicycle Patrol c. Canine (K-9) Assisted Patrol
b. Motorcycle Patrol d. Foot Patrol
195-C. The most extensively used and effective means of transportation for police patrol.
It covers wider area, provide constant availability to public calls and provides an element
of surprise, especially when a crime is in progress.
a. Motorcycle Patrol c. Plainclothes Patrol
b. Automobile Patrol d. Helicopter Patrol
195-D. While in automobile patrol, police officer should do the following: No.1 Do not get
out of the car. Just observe the surrounding particularly persons, things, situations and
conditions; No.2 Whatever patrol pattern is used, do it in regular and predictable manner.
a. Statement No. 1 is correct while statement No. 2 is wrong
b. Statement No. 1 is wrong while statement no. 2 is correct
c. Statements No. 1 and 2 are both correct
d. Statements No. 1 and 2 are both wrong
196. Through this crime prevention strategy criminals are deterred to perpetrate crime. It
is composed of three elements of physical presence, patrolling scheme and adequate and
timely response in case of need.
a. Police visibility c. High visibility patrol
b. Police Omnipresence d. Low visibility patrol
197. Stop and frisk intensifies the effect of high visibility patrol. It is done
by___________________.
1. Stopping persons on the street whose behavior is suspicious
2. Briefly detains a suspicious person for questioning
3. Frisking suspicious person for concealed weapons
4. Arresting and searching suspicious person after finding him committed a crime
a. 1, 2, 3 and 4 c. 1 and 3
b. 1, 2 and 3 d. 2 and 4
198. Components of PNP Integrated Patrol System except:
a. Fixed c. Auxiliary
b. Patrol d. Support
199. What is the first stage in deploying patrol officers for duties?
a. Briefing c. Deployment
b. Pre-deployment d. Post-deployment
200. In performing a patrol work, what is the objective of the patrol officer to prevent the
commission of crime?
a. Educate the public on how not to become a victim of crime
b. Destroy the opportunity to commit crime through constant and alert patrolling
c. Arrest suspicious individual who are perceived to be potential criminal
d. Any of them
201. Canine patrol is popular in Great Britain because__________________________.
1. It protects the officer from possible attack from criminals
2. It has the ability to sniff drugs and weapons in port of entry and checkpoint
3. It causes fear to hoodlums and other criminals

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 a. 1, 2 and 3 c. 1 and 3
b. 1 and 2 d. 2 and 3
202. What is the gauge of an efficient patrol Officer?
a. Punctual reporting to his beat
b. Constant alert patrolling with a keen observation of persons and things
c. Attending to people's problems
d. Efficient and effective prevention of crime
203. Which of the following is the objective of high visibility patrol?
a. Reduction of certain type of crime by increasing the aura of police omnipresence
b. Increase apprehension of criminals engaged in selected street crimes
c. Deterrence of criminal activity as a result of greater probability of apprehension
d. B and C

204. Which of the following are the objectives of low visibility patrol?
a. Increase apprehension of criminals engaged in specific crimes
b. Deterrence of crime resulting from visible apprehension
c. Reduction of certain crime
d. Prevent index and non-index crimes
a. 1 and 2 c. 1, 2 and 3
b. 3 and 4 d. 2, 3 and 4
205. A common patrol practice, particularly, in high crime areas is________________.
a. Street interview c. Decoy
b. Stop, frisk and interrogation d. Convoy
206. The feeling of a would-be criminals that policemen are everywhere is known
as___________________.
a. Police presence c. Police omnipotent
b. Police visibility d. Psychology of omnipresence
207. Most frequently used and high scoring dog for police work.
a. Labrador c. German Shepherd
b. Bouviers d. Aspin
208. Directives , non-operational messages orders follow-ups, memoranda and
information cell are examples of what type of communication net?
a. Administrative c. Office
b. Operational d. Official
209. The patrol method that has the combined characteristics of mobility and stealth
refers to______________________.
a. Foot patrol c. Motorcycle patrol
b. Bicycle patrol d. Automobile patrol
210. The smelling sense of dogs is ____________ times more sensitive than the smelling
sense of human
a. One thousand times c. One hundred times
b. Ten thousand times d. Ten million times
211. The best type of patrol to be utilized in anti-smuggling activities along river banks
and water port is____________________.
a. Aircraft patrol c. Horse patrol
b. Marine patrol d. All of them
212. The four (4) basic requirements for any police communication system are reliability,
adequacy, speed and_______________.
a. Confidentiality c. Security
b. Adaptability d. Timeliness
213. Its key is the proper enforcement of the provisions of the criminal law and other laws
governing criminal acts.
a. Crime prevention c. Regulations of non-criminal conduct
b. Crime control d. Order maintenance
214. Police activities are generally categorized into, except.
a. Primary, line or operation c. Secondary, auxiliary or service
b. Crime prevention and control d. Administrative or managerial
215. Backbone of operational police radio system?
a. Mobile radio c. Antenna
b. Radio d. All of the above
216. Before a policeman or civilian can be a dispatcher, he must be______________.
a. licensed first c. given an order or authority
b. trained formally d. an expert

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217. Police communication system of all operational units of the organization must have
convenient access to every type of communications that is essential to its efficient
operation.
a. Dependability c. Confidentiality
b. Security d. Accessibility
218. Police operation net composed of mobile and foot patrol, anti-riot and crowd control
and VIP security.
a. Administrative communication c. Police communication operation
b. Operational communication d. B and C
219. Backbone of operational police radio system.
a. Mobile Radio Net c. Police Radio Dispatcher
b. Operational Radio Net d. Dispatched Personnel
220. How can a police communication system be made to conform to the standard
procedure?
a. It must be expeditious or speedy
b. It must be adaptable
c. Its personnel must be trained in its use
d. Its personnel must be reliable
INDUSTRIAL SECURITY MANAGEMENT
221. Which of the following should be excluded as major divisions of security?
A. Personal security C. Personnel security
B. Physical security D. Document Security
222. Measures that may undertake for the security of a plant against man-made hazards
are
____________________.
I. Installation of physical barriers, security lighting, use of vaults, locks and
deployment of security guards which called as physical measures.
II. Programs that will cease person from committing an act for fear of being
caught, charge in court or dismissed, e.g. security education programs, investigations,
fire prevention seminars, personnel security checks etc. which are called passive
measures
Choose the correct answer.
A. I is true while II is false C. I and II are both true
B. I is false while II is true D. I and II are both false
223. Consider the following statements
I. Physical Security prevents unauthorized access to equipment, facilities, materials
and documents.
II. Industrial Security applies to business groups engaged in industries like
manufacturing, assembling, research and development, processing, warehousing, and
even agriculture.
III. Operational Security is that part of physical security that deals primarily with
the protection of processes, formulas, patents, and other industrial and manufacturing
activities from espionage, loss, and compromise.
Choose the correct answer.
A. I and II are correct C. III is incorrect
B. II and III are correct D. I, II and III are all correct
224. Background checks of individuals commensurate with the security requirements of
their work is_______________________.
A. Personal security C. Personnel security
B. Security investigation D. Background investigation
225. Man-made hazards are acts or conditions affecting the safe operation of the facility
caused by human actions, intentional or________________.
A. Planned C. Accidental
B. Deliberate D. Force majeure
226. Can natural hazards be prevented by the security force of a plant?
A. Yes, by monitoring warning from the weather bureau
B. No, it is an act of God and nobody can prevents it
C. No, but its effects which can cause damage to life and property
D. Yes, by proper planning and constant drills
227. Placed at the top the fence. It is used by the security guards in observing activities
in the nearby surroundings.
a. Top guard c. Clear zone
b. Security tower d. perimeter barriers

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228. Outside or inside area of strip parallel to the perimeter fence to allow unobstructed
view.
a. Tower c. Perimeter fence
b. Perimeter d. Clear zone
229. Considered as the first line of physical defense viewing it from the outside.
a. Grills c. Perimeter fence
b. Doors d. Lock
230. Company X is experiencing substantial loss because of the involvement of its
personnel in various industrial problems such as disaffection, disloyalty, espionage and
pilferage. It also appeared that they hired key officials not suited to their positions. What
aspect of security did Company X went wrong?
a. Personnel security c. Personnel identification
b. Personal security d. Lack of Background Investigation
231. A pilferer who steals due to his inability to resist the unexpected opportunity and
has little fear of detection.
a. Casual c. Occasional
b. Systematic d. Perennial
232. Measures that may undertake for the security of a plant against man-made hazards
are:
I. Installation of physical barriers, security lighting, use of vaults, locks and
deployment of security guards which called as physical measures.
II. Programs that will cease person from committing an act for fear of being
caught, charge in court or dismissed, e.g. security education programs, investigations,
fire prevention seminars, personnel security checks etc. which are called passive
measures
Choose the correct answer.
A. I is true while II is false C. I and II are both true
B. I is false while II is true D. I and II are both false
233. A method used by security to screen outside visitors with or without vehicles before
being admitted into an establishment.
a. Paging system c. pass system
b. Badge system d. sprinkling system
234. Susceptibility of the plants to damage, loss, destruction due to various hazards.
a. Relative vulnerability c. relative criticality of operation
b. Degree of risk d. hazards
235. An area of strip parallel to a fencing to allow unobstructed view. It can be outside or
inside the fencing.
a. Tower c. perimeter
b. Perimeter fence d. clear zone
236. Built-in overhead device that emits liquid case of excessive heat in a room like fire or
hot smoke.
a. Fire hydrant c. hydraulic
b. Sprinkler system d. fire extinguisher
237. An addition vertical or included structure above a fencing to increase protection from
intruder.
a. Security tower c. top guard
b. Clear zone d. fences
238. A fixed or movable house-like structure usually a top the fencing used by the
security guards fro observing of the activities in the nearby environs.
a. Top guard c. security tower
b. Clear zone d. perimeter barriers
239. Any act or condition which may be conducive to breaches of security
a. Danger c. risk
b. Hazard d. natural hazard
240. An authenticated list of personnel allowing entry to the plant, facility or room with
classified work.
a. access list c. I.D. system
b. personnel list d. VIP list
241 Emergency lighting system is placed________________________.
a. On a regular schedule for secure areas
b. For occasions when more light is needed
c. When more light is needed in areas not usually lit
d. To be used as an alternate power source when the regular power source fails
242. Alarms are available for all three lines of defense. Which is not?

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 a. Perimeter alarms c. Property protected alarm
b. Area or space alarm d. Point or spot alarms
243. At all three lines of defense, perimeter, exterior and interior, certain basic equipment
can add considerable security. Which of the following should be excluded?
a. Guards c. Lights
b. Locks d. Alarms
244. Simplest and most commonly used form of surveillance equipment installed in any
establishment
A. Convex mirror
B. Closed-circuit television and videotape
C. Still sequence and motion picture cameras
D. Infrared camera
245. A heavily constructed fire burglar resistance container usually a part of the building
structure use to keep, and protect cash, document etc.
A. Safe C. File room
B. Vault D. Container
246. Security survey sequence of action except.
A. Examine and analyze the sight and organization
B. Ascertain the organization current security status and determine the level of
protection needed
C. Make recommendation
D. Check whether the recommendation followed
247. Which one is not a purpose of security survey?
A. To determine the existing state of security
B. To locate weakness in the defense
C. To determine degree of protection required
D To determine the procedure of employee’s control
248. He is responsible for the entire operation and administration of the security agency.
A. Detachment commander C. Security executive director
B. Staff director D. Security director
249. Jose R. Reyes, a retired Police Chief Superintendent of the Philippine National Police
(PNP) and his fellow retired PNP officers are planning to establish a security guard and
private detective agency in Manila. In what office of the government does their agency be
registered?
a. Department of Interior and Local Government (DILG)
b. Philippine Association of Detective and Protective Agency Operators, Inc.
(PADPAO)
c. Philippine National Police, Supervisory Office for Security and Investigative
Agencies (PNP-SOSIA)
d. Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC)
250. Before one can engage in employing security guards or detectives for the purpose
of posting to a prospective client, he must secure first a-
a. Duty Detail Order c. License to Exercise a Profession
b. License to Operate d. Mission Order
251. Which of the following is not one of the qualifications for a security officer?
a. Filipino citizen and physically and mentally fit
b. Baccalaureate degree holder
c. Undergo basic military course or public safety basic recruit course
d. Finished security officer training course
252. Its advantage is that contractor (the agency) assumes full responsibility for
scheduling and supervising all guard personnel.
a. Agency guard c. Government guard
b. Company guard d. Coast guard
253. A critical on-site examination and analysis of an industrial plant, business, home, or
public or private institution.
a. Security Inspection c. Security Investigation
b. Security Survey d. Security Education
254. Use firearms by private detective agency shall be_____________________.
a. Directory c. mandatory
b. Required d. optional
255. The minimum number of the security guards that a private security agency may
employ
a. One hundred c. one thousand
b. Two hundred d. two thousand

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256. The total number of the prescribed high power-firearms that private security
agency/company guard’s force is authorized to posses is not exceeding _____ percent of
the total number of guards employed.
a. 10 c. 20
b. 5 d. 15
257. A company security guard force allowed to maintain a minimum of _______and a
maximum of ______ guards.
a. 30-1000 c. 50-2000
b. 200-1000 d. 40-80
258. To acquire regular license, private security agency are required to maintain or
employed:
a. A minimum of 200 and a maximum of 1000 guards
b. A minimum of 100 and a maximum of 500 guards
c. A minimum of 50 and a maximum 200 guards
d. None of the above
259. The exposure and teaching of the employees on security and its relevance to their
work.
a. Education of security c. Employee security education
b. Security education d. Education
260. A code system using certain words in casual conversation with other personnel in
the installation to alarm him that the installation was entered through force by armed
men.
a. Duress Code c. Transmission code
b. Doppler effect d. Access Code
261. A cooper from Scotland and the Chicago Police Department’s first detective who
established one of the oldest private security force in the USA.
a. Allan Pinkerton c. Henry Fielding
b. John Fielding d. Orlando Wilson
262. Known as “Private Security Agency Law of the Philippines”. It governs the
organization, operation and supervision of private security and detective agency in the
Republic.
a. Act 175 c. RA 5487
b. RA 4864 d. RA 6975
263. A non-stock organization formed in 1958 which crafted the bill of what is known
today as the “Private Security Agency Law”
a. PNP SOSIA c. PNP SAGSG
b. P.C-INP SUSIA d. PADPAO
64. An office under the Chief of the PNP charged with the supervision, direction and
control of all security agency in the Republic.
a. Philippine National Police – Supervisory Office Security Investigation Agency
b. Philippine ConstabularyIntegrated national Police Supervisory Unit Security
Investigation Agency
c. Philippine National Police - Civil Security Group
d. Philippine Association of Detective and Protective Agency Operations, Inc.
265. Security Service contracts between private security and clients must be:
a. published c. typewritten
b. printed d. notarized
266. Private security agency with one hundred guards must initially procure at least _____
pcs. of licensed firearms for the use of its security guards.
a. 30 c. 40
b. 100 d. 50
267. After operating for six months or more, the private security agencies can procure
licensed firearms in ____ to the number of guard posted.
a. ratio c. proportion
b. ten percent d. twenty percent
POLICE INTELLIGENCE AND SECRET SERVICE
268. A product created through the process of planning, directing, collecting, collating,
and analyzing data, for dissemination as usable information that typically assesses
events, locations of adversaries, to allow the appropriate deployment of resources to
reach a desired outcome.
a. Police intelligence c. Intelligence report
b. Intelligence d. Strategic Intelligence

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269. For covert operatives, intelligence is a “network” while for dedicated intelligence
operative both clandestine and overt, intelligence is a______________________.
a. Profession or calling c. Game of wits
b. Business and a way of life d. Cult
270. _____________________ is a knowledge formed from the interpretation of the
intelligence developed by all the government departments which provides the valuable
inputs or the formulation of national policy and the promotion and enhancement of
national security.
a. National Intelligence c. Military Intelligence
b. Departmental Intelligence d. Police Intelligence
271. Knowledge essential to ensuring the protection of lives and properties
is_______________.
a. Police intelligence c. Internal security
b. Criminal Intelligence d. Public safety intelligence
272. Its operational value cannot be readily ascertained. They are not practical and
immediate but rather long range that requires build - up. It deals with identifying the
“intention” of the subject of intelligence effort and mostly employed in the formulation of
policy and military plans.
a. Order of battle intelligence c. Line/tactical intelligence
b. Strategic intelligence d. Counter-intelligence
273. An assignment of trained intelligence personnel to other agency in order to obtain
information of police intelligence value is called___________________.
a. Discovery and identification c. Liaison programs
b. Surveillance d. Debriefing
274. Consist of activities designed to protect classified and sensitive information and
other measures which may conceal to those who doesn’t need to know.
a. Defensive Counter Intelligence Measures
b. Active counter intelligence measures
c. Counter intelligence
d. None of them
275. Offensive counter-intelligence measures pertains to the activities used to actively
block the enemy attempt to gain information or engage in espionage, subversion or
sabotage. This includes the following except:
a. Detection c. Apprehension or arrest
b. Prevention d. Neutralization.
276. Intelligence is all about advance information is what principle of intelligence? .
a. Continuity and interdependence c. Flexibility and foresight
b. Usefulness and security d. Timeliness
277. He wrote the book entitled “Art of War” and the theories he set down around 490 BC
remain remarkably fresh and are required reading in the practice of intelligence today. It
basically postulated that “If you know the enemy and know yourself, you need not fear
the result of a hundred battles. If you know yourself but not the enemy, for every victory
gained you will also suffer defeat. If you know neither the enemy and nor yourself, you
will succumb in every battle”.
a. Sun Tzu c. Hannibal
b. Alexander The Great d. Julius Caesar
278. A Prussian General who is regarded by the military historians as the “Father of
Organized Military Espionage”. He divides his agents into four (4) classes: common spies;
double spies; spies of consequences; and person who undertake espionage against their
will.
a. Genghis Khan c. Frederick The Great
b. Shinobi d. Edward I
279. Regarded as the “Father of British Secret Service” and being considered as the “First
Great Spy Master”, who used information for national not for personal ends.
a. Sir Francis Walsingham Of England c. Karl Schulmeister
b. George Washington d. Allan Pinkerton
280. Who is considered as the “God Father of Secret Service”?
a. Sir Arthur Wellesley c. Alfred Redl
b. Wilhelm Johann Karl Eduard Steiber d. William Stephenson
281. Intelligence agency known as the “Institute” is __________________.
a. Central Intelligence Agency
b. Security Service (MI5) and Secret Intelligence Service (MI6)
c. Komitet Gosudarstvennoy Bezopasnosti
d. Ha Mossad Le modi’in Ule Tafkidim Meyuhadin

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282. Intelligence as a line functions, except.
a. Collection of information in the field and Handling of informants
b. Establishing of contacts
c. Recruitment of informers and informants and execution of certain intelligence
plans
d. Processing of collected information and dissemination of processed information
283. Process through which intelligence is obtained, produced, and made available to
users.
a. Processing c. Intelligence cycle
b. Evaluation d. Dissemination
284. The act of determining intelligence requirements, preparing a collection plan, issuing
orders and request for information collection and checking on the productivity of
collection entity.
a. Planning and directing c. Processing
b. Collecting d. Disseminating
285. Information needed regarding matters of intelligence interest that needs to be
collected and processed in order to meet the Priority Intelligence Requirements.
a. Information requirements c. Priority intelligence requirements
b. Intelligence requirements d. Essential elements of information
286. Person, things, action or events from which information about the enemy, weather or
terrain is derived. It may or may not be under friendly control.
a. Informant c. Source
b. Agency d. List
287. Which of the following is not one of the activities in the production of intelligence?
a. Recording c. Analysis/Interpretation
b. Evaluation d. Dissemination
288. Which of the following is the correct sequence of evaluation rating of the reliability
of the source of information
a. A – Completely reliable b. 1 – Confirmed by other sources
B – Usually reliable 2 – Probably true
C – Fairly reliable 3 – Possibly true
D – Not usually reliable 4 – Doubtfully true
E – Unreliable 5 – Improbable
F – Reliability cannot be judged 6 – Truth Cannot be judged

c. A – Confirmed by other source d. T–Direct Observation of Unit Commander

B – Probably true U – Penetration/ Resident Agent
C – Possibly true V – Troops involved in Operation
D – Doubtfully true W – Interrogation
E – Improbable X – Government & Civilian Employee
F- Truth cannot be judged Y – Members of the Populace
Z – Documentary
289. Assume that you are a Criminologist-Intelligence Analyst. How will you present the
evaluated information B-3U?
a. The information was reported by a civilian agent who is unreliable and the
information is possibly true.
b. The information was reported by the penetration agent who is usually reliable
and the information is possibly true.
c. The information was obtained from captured enemy subjected to interrogation.
d. A and B
290. You are an intelligence analyst tasked to interpret collected pertinent information.
Which of the following activities will you not be engaged in the interpretation of the
subject pieces of information?
a. Assessment c. Evaluation
b. Integration d. Deduction
291. Propriety in the dissemination of intelligence means____________________.
a. It must reach the user on time to be of value
b. It must be disseminated to the correct user
c. It must be given to the user through personal contacts such as conferences,
briefings and person to person exchanges
d. It must be disseminated through messages such as Couriers and other secured
electrical means

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292. The complete awareness by a person of his surroundings which are achieved through
maximum employment of the senses; and the technique of factually reporting one’s own
observations or the sensory experience recounted by others.
a. Observation and Description c. Casing
b. Elicitation d. Surveillance
293. Person or vehicle use to mislead surveillants as a form of surveillance evasion is
called______________.
a. Convoy c. Surveillant
b. Decoy d. Made
294. One of the basic tradecraft of intelligence operations. It is by nature inherent with
almost all intelligence activities. If conducted effectively it produces accurate, reliable
first hand information
a. Undercover investigation c. Surveillance
b. Tactical interrogation d. Informant
295. The surveillant follows the target from place to place in order to maintain continuous
observation. Movement maybe by foot or any type of vehicle.
a. Stationary c. Technical
b. Informer d. Mobile
296. Intermittent method of observation of subject, maybe applied frequently or
infrequently with varying period of observation on each occasion, often employed to spot
check activities of known subversive personalities
a. Discreet c. Close
b. Loose d. rough
297. Which of the following is the correct operational stage of foot surveillance?
a. Briefing, Pick up, Follow up, Call off, Debriefing and Reporting
b. Pick up, Follow up, Call off, Debriefing and Reporting
c. Briefing, Pick up, Follow up, Call off, and Reporting
d. Briefing, Pick up, Follow up, Call off, Reporting and Debriefing
298. Obtaining information by questioning a controlled and witting source who is normally
a willing one is __________________.
a. Eliciting c. Intelligence interview
b. Debriefing d. Tactical interrogation
299. An intelligence technique which the officer conceals his true identity and adopts an
assumed role to accomplish an intelligence mission and to obtain access to information
which would not be available through other means.
a. Undercover operation c. Covert operations
b. Surveillance d. Undercover intelligence
300. The means by which an individual, group or organization conceals the true nature of
its activities, and/its existence from the observer.
a. Cover c. Discreet
b. Concealment d. Undercover
301. Intelligence operative, with the cooperation of the university disguised as a professor
so that he can blend to the area where he will operate.
a. Cover for status c. Official cover
b. Natural or artificial cover d. Cover for action
302. Falsified documents and materials prepared by an undercover to make his cover
story credible.
a. Aging cover c. Artificial cover
b. Cover story d. Backstops
303. Hazards to cover such that the operative may be recognized by an ex-lover or
former classmate while in a place where he is conducting undercover work.
a. Passive opposition c. Hostile active opposition
b. Friendly opposition d. Unhostile opposition
304. Individuals who by social or professional position, possesses or has access to
information of continuing interest, and who willingly provides information to the
intelligence unit/ group, either in response to a specific request or his own initiative, ie.
Political, social, economical, security experts, academicians, private analyst, doctors etc.
a. Incidental informants c. Automatic informants
b. Casual Informants d. Recruited informants
305. A person who maintains covert affiliation with an intelligence unit who can access
the desired information, being part of his/her daily normal routine activity. They are
recruited, trained and put under operational control of such intelligence unit
a. Ordinary informant c. Full time informant
b. Penetration informant d. Intelligence brokers

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306. A person who is highly skilled in converting messages from clear to unintelligible
forms by the use of codes and ciphers.
a. Cryptographer c. Coding
b. Crypto Analyst d. Decoding
307. Information or material in any form or of any nature, the safeguarding of which is
necessary in the interest of national security.
a. Classified matter c. National security matter
b. Top security document d. Secret matter
307. Cut-out device refers to measures to conceal contact between two people – usually
an agent and a handler, or between personnel and units in the intelligence organization
who do not want to meet because one or both maybe under enemy observation. A cut –
out can be, except one:
a. Person and accommodating address c. Dead/Live drop
b. Safe house d. Place
308. Which of the following is not one of the elements of national security?
a. Moral - spiritual consensus and cultural cohesiveness
b. Economic solidarity and socio-political stability
c. Ecological balance, territorial integrity, and peace and harmony
d. Strong and credible armed forces and citizens’ readiness to defend their country
309. At present, the Philippine national security concerns are as follows are enumerated
hereunder. Which of the following must be included in the group?
a. Global and regional geopolitical issues
b. Overlapping territorial and maritime claims and other regional concerns
c. Internal armed conflicts, terrorism and weak institutions
d. Regional military build-up and weapons of mass destruction
310. The state of law and order prevailing within a nation.
a. Internal Security c. Crime situation
b. Internal Defense d. Peace and order situation
311. It directs the Philippine National Police (PNP) to undertake active support to the
Armed Forces of the Philippines (AFP) in internal security operations for the suppression of
insurgency and other serious threats to national security and amends provisions of series
of 1999.
a. Executive Order 546 c. RA 6975
b. Executive Order 110 d. RA 8551
312. Infiltration is a method whereby insurgents move into different organizations for the
purpose of exercising influence for control. If control is secured, the infiltrated
organization becomes the insurgent’s:
a. Back up c. Representative
a. Front d. Part of the organization
313. Identification of strength, command structure and disposition of the personnel, units
and equipment of any threat force.
a. Order of Battle c. Case Operational Plan
b. Master Plan d. Criminal Intelligence
314. Knowledge about persons or organizations engaged or contemplating engagement
in illegal activities. It may relate to tactical, strategic and subversive matters.
a. Criminal Intelligence c. Target List
b. Black List d. Police Intelligence
315. Statement no. 1- A profit motivated and highly capable group of persons or an
enterprise organized to undertake widespread, regular or long term, large scale, high
profile and diversified criminal activities that has high impact to the economy and
national security is an Organized Crime Group; Statement no. 2- A group of two or more
persons who have common identifying signs or symbols and whose members individually
or collectively engaged in or have engaged in a pattern of criminal activity, creating an
atmosphere of fear and intimidation within the community or a specific area using
violence and intimidation is a Terrorist Group.
a. Statement no. 1 is true while statement no. 2 is false
b. Statement no. 1 is false while statement no. 2 is true
c. Statements no. 1 and 2 are both true
d. Statements no. 1 and 2 are both false
316. It provides a consolidated reference containing data on organized crime groups for
operational purposes.
a. The Target List c. Wanted List
b. Priority List d. Watch List
317. Consider the following statements

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 I. Watch list contains the identities and locations persons whose inclinations and
attitudes toward the State’s objectives could not be determined
II. White list list contains the identities and locations of persons who have been
identified as being of intelligence interest and are expected to be able to provide
information or assistance in existing or new intelligence.
III. Black list contains the listing of actual or potential enemy collaborators,
sympathisers, intelligence suspects and other person whose presence menaces the
security of friendly forces.
Choose the correct answer
a. I, II and III are true c. Only II and III are true
b. Only I and II are true d. Only I and III are true
318. Places where the organized crime groups or criminal gangs normally store or conceal
its armaments, vehicles and other equipment prior to or immediately after each criminal
activity.
a. Main Base c. Safehouses
b. Sanctuary or Haven d. Stashhouses
319. The process of analyzing, interpreting and monitoring crime trends through
geographical representation of critical crime situations, criminal personalities and crime
causations in an area or community, to evaluate its implication to public safety, and for
planning, formulation and implementation of measures to address crime problems.
a. Crime Mapping c. Crime Trending
b. Criminal Intelligence d. Crime Analysis
320. NAPOLCOM is to “Police undercover Operators/Operatives”, PNP Intelligence
Community is to:
a. agents c. stool pigeon
b. Mole d. saviour
COMPARATIVE POLICE SYSTEM
321. A phenomenon by which regional economies, societies, culture, information, ideas
and authority are integrated by global network through communication transportation
and trade.
a. Globalization c. Transnational ideas
b. Territorial crossing d. International cooperation
322. Crimes that take place across national borders.
a. International crimes c. National crimes
b. Transnational crimes d. Borderless crimes
323. An Executive Order issued by President Joseph Ejercito Estrada in 1999 Creating the
Philippine Center on Transnational Crimes (PCTC).
a. E.O. 62 c. E.O. 100
b. R.A. 8551 d. R.A. 9165
324. The Philippine Center on Transnational Crimes (PCTC) is under the Office of the
President but placed under the general supervision and control of what?
a. Department of National Defense (DND)
b. Department of Interior and Local Government (DILG)
c. Department of Foreign Affairs (DFA)
d. National Security Adviser (NSA)
325. What is the functional relationship between the Executive Director of the PCTC and
the Chief of the PNP?
a. Subordinate and superior
b. Coordination and cooperation
c. Communication and subordination
d. None of them
326. Considered as the major concerns of the Philippine Center on Transnational Crimes
(PCTC).
1. Information exchange
2. Law enforcement coordination
3. Strategic studies and capacity building
a. 1 and 3 c. 1, 2 and 3
b. 2 and 3 d. Only 2
327. How the PCTC performs their role in fighting global crimes?
1. By establishing regional cooperation among ASEAN Nations
2. By supporting the United Nations through active involvement in the crafting of
Un Conventions and protocol against TNCs.
3. By National Cooperation and capacity building of local government unity.

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 a. 1 and 2 c. 2 and 3
b. 1 and 3 d. 1, 2 and 3
328. It is difficult to eliminate and is deeply rooted in police history.
a. Police culture c. Police brutality
b. Corruption d. Kickbacks
329. The following are the English heritage that contributed enduring features to
American policing which somehow influenced the Philippine Policing System, except:
a. Tradition of limited police authority
b. National in scope and civilian in character
c. Tradition of local control of law enforcement agencies
d. Highly decentralized and fragmented system of law enforcement
330. The English Constable is acting as a servant of the crown and not as an employee of
the provincial police authority that paid him; while American police Officers are:
a. acting as servant of the president
b. legally accountable to the governor
c. acting as servant of higher authority
d. legally accountable for the performance of their duties to the municipality that
they serve
331. Their recruits start their careers at the rank of constable, and since its inception in
1829 have not carried guns which is one of the unique and often discussed features of its
policing
a. English Policing c. Sweden Policing
b. French Policing d. German Policing
332. Which of the following is not one of the types of police models in the world?
a. Fragmented police System c. Continental Police System
b. Combined Police System d. National Centralized Police System
333. The National Police of France is Headed by__________________.
a. Director General c. Chief of Police
b. Commission of Police d. Police General
334. In France, The National police is under the Minister of Interior, while the National
Gendarmarie is under the_________________________.
a. Minister of Justice c. Inspector General
b. Minister of Defense d. Director of the Gendarmarie
335. The Central feature of police professionalism in French policing is, except one
a. Salary standardization c. Training
b. Recruitment d. Educational Opportunities
336. Swedish Police is a national police force which is under:
a. Ministry of Defense c. National Police Board
b. Ministry of Justice d. National Police Commissioner
337. Which office/ agency that has the actual control of the police in Japan which enjoy
degree of local autonomy?
a. Prime Minister c. National Police Agency
b. National Public Safety Commission d. Regional Police Bureaus
338. In each prefecture in Tokyo Japan there are several police stations that serve as the
principal operational unit of the police which is sub-divided into police boxes which are
populary known as:
a. Koban c. Chuzaishe
b. Chi sai san d. A and C
339. Riot police in Japan whose criteria for selection is is their physical strength,
command of the martial arts and ability to cope in stressful situation is called:
a. Bushido c. Samurai
b. Ninja d. Kidotai
337. If the NAPOLCOM has an administrative control and operational supervision over the
Philippines. The_________ of Japan has administrative supervision over its National Police
agency (NPA)
a. National Police Agency
b. Prefectural Public Safety Commission
c. Commissioned of Police
d. National Public Safety Commission
338. The highest rank in the Philippine National Police (PNP) is Director General, while
Royal Malaysian Police’ (RMP) highest rank is Inspector General of Police. Lowest rank of
the PNP is called Police Officer I, while RMP’ is called Constable. Japan’s National Police
Agency’s highest and lowest rank is-
a. Commissioner General – Police Officer

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 b. Commissioner of Police – Constable
c. General Superintendent- Officer
d. Police General- Policeman/Constable
339. Japan’s Complex Program of Crime prevention relies upon______________.
a. Large budget allocated by the government to the police organization
b. Cooperation and support of the community
c. Increase accountability to the public
d. Reorientation of the patrol activities
340. A kind of student-mentor relationship between the Japanese patrol officers and their
supervisors, which allows the officers a great input into decisions about local problems.
a. Kobun-Oyabun c. Koban
b. Buddy Buddy System d. Chisai-san
341. If the PNP of the Philippines has Chief PNP, Singapore Police Force is headed
by_______.
a. Commissioner of Police c. Commissioner General
b. General d. Commissioner
342. If the PNP of the Philippines has Police Officer 1, Singapore Police Force has________.
a. Constable c. Private
b. Policeman d. Inspector
343. Philippine National Police is in the Philippines; ____________________ is in Australia.
a. National Police of Australia c. Australian National Police
b. Australian Federal Police d. Federal Police of Australia
344. What is the highest rank in the Australian Federal Police?
a. Commissioner c. Commander
b. Superintendent d. Constable
345. The highest rank in the PNP is Director General (DG) and lowest is Police Officer I
(PO1), in Royal Malaysian Police (RMP)________
a. Inspector General of Police (IGP) and Constable (PC)
b. Police General and Private
c. Police General and Policeman/Constable
d. None of them
346. What is the official name of the Indonesian Police?
a. POLRI c. RTP
b. Ministry of Public Safety d. KNP
347. What is the lowest rank in the Korean National Police?
a. Police officer c. Private
b. Rank-and-File Officer d. Assistant Inspector
348. Director General is to the PNP; Police General is to the:
a. Singapore Police Force c. Royal Thai Police
b. Korean National Police d. National Police Agency
349. The UN Security Council is composed of how many permanent members?
a. 15 b. 5 c. 10 d. 3
350. The International Court of Justice has how many elective members for a term of 9
years?
a. 15 b. 10 c. 9 d. 11
351. An international Police Organization that facilitates cross-border police cooperation
and support to prevent and combat international crime
a. Philippine Center on Transnational Crime (PCTC)
b. International Criminal Police Organization (INTERPOL)
c. International Association of the Chief of Police (IACP)
d. None of the above
352. INTERPOL’s supreme governing body is_____________.
a. Secretary General c. General Assembly
b. Commissioner General d. General Secretariat
353. Designated contact point for the general secretariat, regional officers and other
INTERPOL member countries requiring assistance with overseas investigation and location
and apprehension of fugitives.
a. National Central Bureaus (NCB)
b. Executive Committee
c. Commission for the control of the INTERPOL’s files
d. None of the above
354. It process request concerning the information contained in the INTERPOL’s files.

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 a. Commission for the Control of the INTERPOL’s Files (CCF)
b. Advisers
c. National Central Bureaus (NCB)
d. Executive Committee
355. Core functions of the INTERPOL except one.
a. To secure global police communication services
b. Arrest of member country’s notorious fugitives
c. Operational data services and database
d. Operational police support services
356. Notice issued by the International Criminal Police Organization (INTERPOL) when a
certain fugitive has a pending warrant from his mother State and the latter seeks
to arrest him and be extradited.
a. Blue Notice c. Red Notice
b. Black Notice d. Green Notice
INTERPOL Notice System:
1. Red Notice – based on the national arrest warrants, are used to seek the arrest and extradition of
suspects.
2. Blue Notice – used to seek information on the identity of persons or on their illegal activities related
to criminal matters.
3. Green Notice – are used to provide warning and criminal intelligence about persons who have
committed criminal offenses and who are likely to repeat these crimes in other countries.
4. Yellow Notice – used to locate missing persons
5. Black Notice – used to determine the identity of deceased person.
6. Orange Notice – to warn of an event, a person, an object or a process representing an imminent
threat and danger to persons or property.
7. Purple Notice – issued to provide information on modus operandi, objects, devices and concealment
methods used by criminals.
8. INTERPOL–United Nations Security Council Special Notice – is issued for individuals and
entities that are subject to UN sanctions.

357. The Singapore Police Force is headed by_____________________.

a. Commissioner of Police c. Superintendent
b. Commissioner d. Chief Police Brigadier
358. How does INTERPOL helps bring perpetrators of international terrorism to justice?
a. By exchanging information with its member countries
b. By preventing acts of international terrorism
c. By cooperating operatives in the field
d. By promoting best practices and trainings
359. Known as 1-24-7
a. INTERPOL Red Notice Project
b. INTERPOL Global Communication System
c. 1-24-7 Expansion Program
d. inter-Agency Coordination
360. The General Headquarters of the United Nations is located in__________________.
a. Vienna, Austria c. Lyon, France
b. New York City d. Netherlands
361. This branch of the United Nations is located in Hague, Netherlands that handles
judicial matters among member states.
a. General Assembly c. Security Council
b. United Nations Judicial Body d. International Court of Justice
362. The firs president of the INTERPOL is__________________.
a. Oskar Dressler c. Bon Ki Moon
b. Johann Schober d. Vuk Jeremic
363. The Interpol headquarters was initially located in________________.
a. Vienna Austria c. London England
b. New York City USA d. Lyons France
364. Which of the following are not members of ASEANAPOL?
a. Brunei, Cambodia, Indonesia and Laos
b. Malaysia, Myanmar and Philippines
c. China, Japan, Taiwan and Hongkong
d. Singapore, Thailand and Vietnam
365. ASEANAPOL permanent secretariat is on_______basis.
a. election c. appointment
b. rotational d. screening
Notes:
1. The Philippines will host the 34th ASEANAPOL which will be held in Manila on May 2014.

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 2. The Philippines is a founding member of the ASEANAPOL which held its first conference in Manila in
1981.
3. The PNP last hosted the 23rd ASEANAPOL conference in Manila on September 2003.

366. Which of the following is not a factor in the Philippines’ participation in UN

peacekeeping operations?
a. National capabilities
b. The domestic peace and order situation
c. Available funds to finance the operation
d. National interest and national goals
367. Which directorate of the Philippine National Police (PNP) which is tasks to undertake
the screening and selection of PNP personnel that composes each UN Mission
Contingent?
a. Human Resource and Doctrine Development c. Comptrollership
b. Plans d. Logistics
368. Channels of global bilateral and multilateral international cooperation against
transnational crime.
1. Global multilateral cooperation via Interpol
2. Bilateral police cooperation agreements with individual states
3. European multilateral cooperation via Europol
4. Multilateral cooperation via United Nations Conventions on Law of the Sea
a. 1 and 3 c. 1, 2 and 3
b. 2 and 4 d. 2, 3 and 4
369. The policing strategy in the Philippines that was patterned from the Koban System of
Japan is:
A. Integrated Patrol System C. Community Oriented Policing
System
B. One PNP D. None of them
POLICE ORGANIZATION AND ADMINISTRATION WITH POLICE
OPERATIONAL PLANNING
370. Chain of command or command channel means_____________________.
1. The superior-subordinate relationship in the organization which is always
depicted graphically in an organizational chart.
2. Succession of leadership from a superior to a subordinate through which
command is exercised.
3. Hierarchy of officers given respective authority at varying levels through which
command action should be channeled
a. 1 and 2 c. 1, 2 and 3
b. 1 and 3 d. 2 and 3
371. When does chain of command may be dispensed?
a. In urgent situation
b. Observance of which becomes impractical
c. Adherence to it may cause unacceptable delay
d. Any of them
372. Due to urgent situation, Senior Superintendent Jose Ratzinger instructed Senior
Inspector John Pleno to launch an anti-drug operation without passing first to the latter’s
immediate superior. What is the effect of such non-observance to the chain of command?
a. Ratzinger assumed responsibility for the order he has given to Pleno
b. Pleno assumes command responsibility to the operation
c. Ratzinger becomes liable if Pleno overdo his role
d. None
373. In relation to the preceding number, what if Ratzinger is under suspension and Pleno
launched the operation in compliance with the former’s directive?
a. Ratzinger is liable for giving directives to Pleno knowing that he has no authority
to give such order
b. Pleno is exempted from any liability
c. Pleno assumed full responsibility and liability for the effects of carrying out the
suspended superior’s directives
d. A and B
374. Command means the authority of an individual over his subordinates by virtue of his
rank or assignment. Such authority is composed of, except one.
a. Control the movement of police personnel
b. Make decisions within the bound of his authority
c. Assign tasks to subordinates

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 d. Expect and require satisfactory performance from subordinates
375. An exchange of information to inform and integrate, synchronize, and de-conflict
operations. It is not necessarily a process of gaining approval but is most often used for
mutual exchange of information.
a. Integration c. Controlling
b. Coordination d. Directing
376. Controlling ensures that events, activities and direction conform to the___________.
a. Police plans c. Standard operating procedures
b. Standards d. Instructions
377. Planning, controlling and _________ are the three fundamental process of police
administration.
a. Organizing c. staffing
b. Supervising d. directing
378. Organizing in police planning is the setting up of________ steps in doing or
accomplishing things.
a. Alternative c. specific
b. Generalized d. broad
379. Refer to planning________________________.
1. Deciding in advance what to do, how to do, and who is to do it.
2. It is the interpersonal aspect of managing by which subordinates are led to
understand and contribute effectively and efficiently to the attainment of objectives.
3. It is the process of developing a method or procedure of an arrangement of parts
intended to facilitate the attainment of the defined objectives.
4. It is the intellectual process, conscious determination of courses of action, basing
of decisions on purpose, facts and considered estimate
a. 1, 2 and 3 c. 1, 3 and 4
b. 2, 3 and 4 d. 1, 2 and 4
380. To improve the output of operations, you as a police officer developing a plan, should
consider the end_______ by top leadership.
a. Result c. called for
b. Desired d. wanted
381. The preliminary steps to police planning is the_________________.
a. Recognition of the need of the plan c. Frame of reference
b. Collection of facts d. Securing of authority to plan.
382. In police operational planning, the use of the wedge, squad diagonal or deployed
line, would be most likely for_________________________.
a. Coup de etat c. employees walk-out
b. Disaster and relief operation d. Civil Disturbance
383. Broad internal planning is the responsibility of whom?
a. District Director c. Chief, PNP
b. Administrative Officer d. Directorial Staff
384. A compilation of what is to be done and how to do it in many administrative and
even operational activities is called “SOP”. This SOP means___________________________.
a. Stand by Operating Procedure c. Standard Operating
Procedures
b. Standard Operational Procedure d. Standard Operations Procedures
385. The three (3) criteria used to test the solution of a plan, whether for the police or
military are feasibility, acceptability and____________________.
a. Suitability c. possibility
b. Solvability d. adaptability
386 The implementers of a police tactical plan should undertake first the needed training
in order to implement the plans effectively.
a. Not necessary c. maybe
b. True d. False
387. Statement No. 1- A police plan development shows problem-solving procedures, a
type of staff duty and problem analysis and solution options.
Statement No. 2-Operational plans are police plans relating to patrol distribution, crime
investigation, traffic and vice control.
a. Statement no. 1 is true while statement no. 2 is false
b. Statement no. 1 is false while statement no. 2 is true
c. Statements no.1 and 2 are true
d. Statements no. 1 and 2 are false

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388. Statement No. 1-Dry-run is a practical exercise or test of a plan or activity to
determine its effectiveness. Statement No. 2- A police plan is not suitable if it can
accomplish the purpose.
a. Statement no. 1 is true while statement no. 2 is false
b. Statement no. 1 is false while statement no. 2 is true
c. Statements no.1 and 2 are true
d. Statements no. 1 and 2 are false
389. Recognition of the need to plan and the formulation of plan objectives are the first
two steps in the planning process. Which of the following does not form part of the
remaining three (3) basic steps in planning?
a. Gathering and analysis of data
b. Development of details of the plan
c. Obtaining concurrences from organizational units which may be affected by the
proposed plan.
d. Generation of alternatives and options
390. A plan that is restricted to methods of action to be taken at the designated location
and under specific situation is called________________________.
a. Procedural c. Operational
b. Tactical d. Management
391. You are appointed Chief of Police in one of the municipality. You have ten (10)
policemen and two (2) officers only. Which of the following alternatives shall you choose
so that the planning function can be effectively undertaken?
a. You, the COP will be the planning officer
b. You will delegate the planning functions to one of the two officers
c. You will form a planning section composed of one officer and two policemen
d. You will make day to day decisions based on the daily development and will not
make any plan.
392. Inspector Cruz is directed to prepare and anti-drug abuse plan for his police station.
He started collecting data on the extent of drug problems by going over the reports,
documents, news reports, books, periodicals, as well as previous researches on drug
problem in his area of responsibility. Aside from these data collection efforts, what
Inspector Cruz should do?
a. Conduct surveys using questionnaires or interview guide
b. Be contented with all data he gathered
c. Start analyzing his collected data
d. Submit his data to the chief of Police
393. During the preparation of police operation plan, and the planners perceive that he
lacks certain data, which are not readily available or cannot be obtained to finish his plan,
he would use this to complete the work.
a. Assumptions c. Estimates
b. Mathematical Computations d. Interview Results
394. These are effective approaches for promotion confidence, loyalty and interest on the
part of all the members of the police organization.
a. Conferences and dialogues c. Esprit de corps
b. Punishment d. Camaraderie
395. When the police plan can accomplish the purpose of its goal then the plan
is______________.
a. Feasible c. acceptable
b. Suitable d. excellent
396. One of the following is not a part of the internal policy planning of the PNP.
a. Clear definition of what is to be done c. Degree of effectiveness
b. Who will do work d. Rate of pay and allowances
397. Unusual need in the police parlance can be one of the following except one.
a. Extensive civil disturbance c. Disaster-like fire, earthquakes, etc.
b. Country-wide labor strike d. Traffic jams
398. Planning is essential in every police organizations because:
1. It identifies activities the determines tasks of everyone
2. It combines all aspects of police works for efficient and effective performance
3. It utilizes the easiest method in crime prevention
4. It promotes confidence to the commanding officer
5. It reveals the intellectual acumen of members of the police force
a. 1, 2 and 3 c. 1, 2, 3 and 4
b. 3, 4 and 5 d. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
399. Tactics and strategies are similar in the sense that______________.

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 1. They both concern police works
2. They deal on how police work can best be accomplished
3. They define the technique to accomplish the objective
a. 1, 2 and 3 c. 2 and 3
b. 1 and 2 d. Only 3
400. Planning and programming are different in the sense that__________________.
1. Planning is a broad concept while programming is not
2. Plan denotes what to be done while programming listed the things to be done,
when it will be done and who will do it
3. Planning is a part of police operation while programming is part of planning
4. There is no planning if there is no programming
a. 1, 2, 3 and 4 c. 1 and 2
b. 1, 2 and 3 d. Only 2
401. What plans that determines the routines of police Activities?
a. Policy or procedural plan c. Extra Departmental Plan
b. Tactical Plan d. Management plan
402 The accomplishment of the purpose of patrol, crime prevention, traffic, vice, etc,
can be found in________________.
a. Management plan c. Operational Plan
b. Tactical d. Extra departmental Plan
403. The responsibility for planning in a police office lies with_____________________.
a. The Chief of Police c. Delegated Staff Officer
b. Deputy Duly Authorized d. Chief of Planning Bureau
404. Three criteria used to test the solution of a plan, whether for the police or military.
These are_________________.
1. Feasibility 4. Acceptability
2. Suitability 5. Adaptability
3. Currency
a. 1, 2 and 4 c. 1, 4 and 5
b. 2, 3 and 5 d. 2, 3 and 4
405. Planning as s management function is done by various levels of PNP organization.
Broad planning is done by________________.
a. Chief, PNP c. DILG Secretary
b. Director, Directorate for Plans d. NAPOLCOM
406. As a registered criminologist, looking at the steps of the police plan development will
reveal that it is___________________.
a. A problem-solving procedure c. Problem analysis and solution
option
b. A type of staff duty d. A type of line function
407. Day to day or year-around activities of a police is a part of_____________________.
a. Tactical plan c. Extra Departmental Plan
b. Operational plan d. Management Plan
408. Identification of the law breakers, classes of crimes, tools of committing crimes, the
modus operandi are factors needed in_____________________.
a. Operational Plan c. Investigative Plan
b. Tactical Plan d. Investigative Operational Plan
409. Which of the following is not a step in planning?
a. Frame reference c. Analysis of the facts
b. Clarify the problem d. Collection of information
410. The Practicability of the plan is based on___________________________.
a. Competence of the persons who will perform the task
b. The status of who made the plan
c. The acceptance by the community of the plan.
d. Materials are available
411. Feasibility of the plan is based on____________________.
a. Outside environment such as the people who are willing to cooperate or against
it
b. Is the government willing to support it
c. Assistance of the local government unit concerned
d. Favorable factor will ensure accomplishment of the plan
412. In a police staff duty, the planner base his conclusion from the _______ of the study.
a. Facts c. Recommendations
b. Findings d. Conclusion
413. Requirements in planning are____________________.

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 1. What is the work to be done
2. Who will do the work
3. How will the work be accomplished
4. Why is there a need to accomplish
a. 1 and 3 c. 1, 2 and 3
b. 2 and 4 d. 2, 3 and 4
414. How can effective planning be achieved?
a. By accomplishing the task according to the plan
b. By providing with the output more than expected as the plan can expect
c. By accomplishing of functions, activities and responsibilities in order to know
them
d. By performing the task based on instruction
415 ____________in very simple sense, is deciding in advance on what is to be done and
how it is to be accomplished, it is in essence, preparations for action.
a. Operations c. management
b. Planning d. Administration
416. It guide members in routine and field operations and in some special operations in
accordance with some procedures.
a. Operational plans c. planning
b. Standard operating procedures d. characteristics of plans
417. Of the following standard operating procedures, one which is intended to be used in
all situations of all kinds, and shall be outlined as a guide to officers and men in the field.
a. Headquarters procedures c. special operating procedures
b. Field procedures d. Characteristics of plans
418. Of the following standard operating procedures, one which is included in these
procedures are the duties of dispatcher, jailer, matron, and other personnel concerned
which may be reflected in the duty manual.
a. Headquarters procedures c. Special operating procedures
b. Field procedures d. operational plans
419. Of the following standard operating procedures, one which is included are the
operations of the special unit charged with the searching and preservation of physical
evidence at the crime scenes and accidents, the control of licenses, dissemination of
information about wanted persons, and the like
c. Special operating procedures c. Field procedures
d. Headquarters procedures d. operational plans
420. Of the following type of plans, one is considered as plans for the operations of
special divisions like patrol, traffic, vice, and juvenile delinquency control
a. Policies and procedures c. tactical plans
b. Operational plans d. extra-office plans
421. Of the following types of plans, one is as those procedures for coping with specific
situations at known locations, such as plans for dealing with the attack against buildings
with the alarm systems and attack against Headquarters of the PNP.
a. Tactical Plans c. Management Plans
b. Extra-office plans d. Operational Plans
422. Of the following types of plans, one which deals with the active participation
individual citizens is so vital to the success of the PNP, to continue to motivate, promote,
and maintain an active concern in its affairs.
a. Management plans c. operational plans
b. Extra-office plans d. characteristics of plans
423. Of the following types of plans, one which includes the mapping out in advance all
operations involved in the organization, management of personnel and material and in
the procurement and disbursement of money, etc.
a. Management plans c. operational plans
b. Extra-office plans d. characteristics of plans
424. Of the following steps in planning, one calls for identification of the problem,
understanding both records and its possible solution; a situation must exist for which
something must can be done.
a. Frame of reference c. collecting all pertinent facts
b. Clarifying the problems d. analyzing the facts
425. Of the following steps in planning, one calls for identification of the problem,
understanding both records and its possible solution must exist for which something must
and can be done.
a. Collecting all pertinent facts c. collecting all pertinent facts
b. Clarifying the problems d. characteristics of plans

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426. Of the following steps in planning, one which states that no attempt shall be made to
develop a plan until facts relating to it have been gathered.
a. Collecting all pertinent facts c. developing alternative plans
b. Analyzing the facts d. selecting the most appropriate
alternatives
427. Of the following steps in planning, one which after all data have been gathered, a
careful study and evaluation shall be made; this provides the basis from which a plan or
plans are evolved.
a. Development alternative plans c. selecting the most appropriate
alternatives
b. Analyzing the fact d. selling the plan
428. Of the steps in the planning, in which the initial phases of plan development, several
alternatives measures shall appear to be logically comparable to the needs a situation.
a. Developing alternative plans c. Selling most appropriate alternative
b. Analyzing the facts d. Selecting the most appropriate
alternative
429. One of the steps in planning, which a careful consideration of all facts usually leads
to the selection of a best alternative proposal.
a. Analyzing the facts
b. Selecting the most appropriate alternative
c. Selling the plan
d. Arranging for the execution of the plan
430. One step in planning, which a plan to be effectively carried out, must be accepted by
persons concerned at the appropriate level of the plans development.
a. Selecting the most appropriate alternative
b. Selling the plan
c. Arranging for the execution of the plan
d. Evaluating the effectiveness of the plan
431. One step in planning, such that the execution of a plan requirements the issuance of
orders and directives to units and personnel concerned, the establishment of a schedule,
and the provision of manpower and equipment for carrying out the plan.
a. Selling the plan c. Evaluating the effectiveness of the plan
b. Arranging for the execution d. Selecting the most appropriate
alternative
432. One step in planning, that such is necessary in order to know whether a correct
alternative was chose, whether or not the plan is correct, which is phase was poorly
implemented, and whether additional planning may be necessary.
a. Evaluating the effectives of the plan
b. Arranging for the execution of the plan
c. Selecting the most appropriate alternative
d. Selling the plan
433. This activity requires the duty of a superior officer of any unit of the PNP and its unit
subordinates to establish rapport or good relationship with other law enforcement
agencies of the government.
a. Police Executive Training c. Business-like Activity
b. Coordinates and Cooperation d. Socialization
434. Police operation is a continuing activity; hence, it must be based on valid and
practical plans that are constantly made current. Therefore, every operation shall be
followed by a critique and rendition of an after-operation shall be____________________.
a. Coordinated c. Analyzed
b. Properly evaluated d. Reviewed
435. Consist of arranging personnel and functions in a systematic manner designed to
accommodate stated goals and objectives in the most efficient manner possible
is__________.
a. Administration c. Organization
b. Management d. Police Administration
436. A police officer who was dismissed from the service, under the waiver program
is________________.
a. No longer eligible to re-apply for appointment to the PNP
b. Disqualified to re-apply for appointment to the PNP
c. Qualified to return to the PNP
d. Eligible to reapply for appointment to the PNP
437. Police Officer can be attrited on any of the following grounds______________.

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 1. Relief for just cause without being given any assignment within two years after
such relief
2. Non Promotion for a continuous period of ten years
3. Poor performance
4. Indefinite suspension due to serious offense
a. 1 and 2 c. 1, 2 and 3
b. 3 and 4 d. 1, 2, 3 and 4
438. A police officer who has been attrited shall be______________________.
1. Dismissed from the service without prejudice to the benefits that he is entitled
2. Retired if he has rendered at least twenty (20) years of service to the PNP
3. Separated if he has rendered less than twenty (20) years of service
a. 1 and 2 c. 1 and 3
b. 2 and 3 c. Only 2
439. Promotion system in the PNP is based on merit and on___________________.
a. Experience or time and grade
b. Education and eligibility
c. Availability of vacant position
d. Intellectual capacity
440. Police Superintendent Ronvic Medallo is designated Deputy District Director for
Administration. After six (6) months of occupying the said position he
is____________________________.
a. Qualified for rank adjustment corresponding to the position
b. Not qualified for promotion because it does not fall under regular or meritorious
promotion
c. Entitled to a rank adjustment corresponding to the position
d. Not entitled for promotion corresponding to the position because it is not a key
position
441. A police officer who has exhibited acts of conspicuous courage and gallantry at the
risk of his life above and beyond the call of duty is entitled for special promotion provided
that the acts shall be validated by_______________________.
a. the appointing authority which will depend upon the rank of the appointee
b. the Internal Affairs Service
c. NAPOLCOM
d. PLEB, Regional Director, National Support Limit Director or Chief PNP as the case
may be
442. Which of the following incidents or cases involving PNP that IAS is mandated to
conduct inquiry even without a complaint or directive from the Chief PNP or the
NAPOLCOM?
a. Where police personnel discharges firearm or the suspect in custody was seriously
injured
b. Where death, physical injury or violation of human rights occurred in the conduct of
a police operation
c. Where evidence was compromised tampered with, obliterated, or lost while in the
custody of the police
d. Any of them
443. A police officer who transferred to Internal Affairs Service_____________________.
a. Can thereafter return to any other unit of the PNP
b. Cannot thereafter return to any other unit of the PNP
c. Can thereafter join the line unit of the PNP
d. Cannot thereafter join the line unit but can join the technical unit of the PNP
444. In addition to the other allowances available for the PNP personnel, Internal Affairs
Service personnel is entitled to receive ___________ not exceeding 50% of their basic pay
a. Clothing allowance c. .Occupational Specialty pay
b. Hazardous pay d. Specialization pay
445. The nature of the disciplinary power of the Internal Affairs Service over the erring
police personnel is________________.
a. Recommendatory c. Discretionary
b. Executory d. Mandatory
446. A police officer who was found guilty for conduct unbecoming of a police officer may
be summarily dismissed by______________.
1. Provincial Director 3. Chief PNP
2. NAPOLCOM 4. Regional Director
a. 1 and 3 c. 1, 2 and 3
b. 2 and 4 d. 2, 3 and 4

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447. Members of the National Appellate Board are______________.
1. Regular Commissioners of the NAPOLCOM
2. Executive Officer of the NAPOLCOM
3. DILG Secretary
4. Chief, PNP
a. 1 and 2 c. 1, 2 and 3
b. 3 and 4 d. 2, 3 and 4
448. A police Officer who is change with Criminal Offense punishable by a penalty of
lower than six (6) months imprisonment may be preventively suspended
if__________________.
a. He is harassing the complainant and or the witness
b. The PLEB requested
c. The complainant move for preventive suspension
d. He is dangerous or manage to escape from the jurisdiction of the court
449. Why does Women’s desks was created as part of the PNP office?
a. To give women an opportunity to work with the PNP
b. To give equal opportunities for women pursue career in law enforcement
c. To attend cases involving women and their children
d. Any of them
450. A police officer who violates the rules on gender sensitivity or equality more than
twice shall incur a penalty of:
a. Suspension c. Dismissal from the service
b. Demotion d. B or C

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