FINAL COACHING
Lace instructed the newly hired nurse to inform the client with
COMMUNICABLE DISEASE NURSING
Prepared by: Prof. Jessie Daclis Take One Nursing
1. The nurse is to explain to a client and his family about transmission
based precautions. It was verbalized by the client that he felt “unclean
and disliked” as a result of the perception that he was highly
communicable. The nurse’s MOST appropriate instructions would
include:
1. Protective equipment used by the staff are to protect the
client health team and others
2. Precautions are temporary and continuously evaluated
3. Proper hand hygiene before and after visiting the client is
very effective in preventing infection
4. Patient care items like glasses, pitchers, basin must always
be in sterile condition to prevent spread of infection
A. 2, 3, 4
B. 1, 2, 3
C. 1, 3, 4
D. 1, 2, 4
2. The nurse is explaining standard precaution to the client. The
primary purpose of standard precaution as part of maintaining safe
environment is to:
A. Reduce the spread of the disease
B. Prevent the spread of communicable diseases
C. Protect health workers from acquiring communicable
diseases
D. Prevent nosocomial infection
Situation: Lace is an emergency department nurse working during the
morning shift. A newly hired nurse was assigned to work with her as
part of the orientation program.
3. A 41 year old victim of gunshot wound is being assessed closely for
signs of hypovolemic shock. Which of the following instructions of
Lace to the newly hired nurse is LEAST intended to obtain data
regarding hypovolemic shock?
A. “Talk to the patient.”
B. “Note skin color of the patient.”
C. “Report to me changes in vital signs.”
D. “Maintain pressure on the wound.”
4. The newly hired nurse observed Lace perform assessment on a 50
year old female who sustained partial and full thickness burns on both
lower extremities due to fire. Which of the following questions asked
by Lace will the newly hired nurse consider as an attempt to determine
the full thickness burns?
A. “Can you move both extremities?”
B. “How long were your extremities exposed to flames?”
C. “Did you cover extremities with any material like a
blanket?” D. “Do you experience pain?”
5. Lace administered as prescribed antivenom and tetanus toxoid to a
client admitted with history of snake bite. If you were the newly hired
nurse, which of the following will you consider INCORRECT? A.
Tetanus toxoid enhance effect of antivenom.
B. Amount of antivenom is dependent on the severity of
reaction than weight of the client.
C. Complications induced may be prevented by the tetanus
toxoid.
D. Antivenom is an antidote for snake bite.
6.
congestive heart failure to avoid Valsalva-type Maneuvers. The newly
hired nurse understands that these include the following EXCEPT:
A. Walking to and from the bathroom
B. Moving from supine to lateral position
C. Coughing and Straining
D. Getting out of bed to a wheelchair.
Situation: Worthy, 4 years old is positive for Bacterial Meningitis.
7. From the history obtained from the mother, which of the following
could be the possible method by which the infection was transmitted to
the patient?
A. Drinking water in the community was contaminated.
B. Contact with respiratory secretions of an infected person
C. Hands of caregiver was contaminated with local discharges
D. Eating utensils of the child were contaminated
8. The physician prescribed lumbar tap. When the nurse reads the
laboratory results, which of the following reflects positive results
indicative of Bacterial Meningitis?
A. Decreased white blood cells, decreased proteins, high
glucose
B. Normal white blood cells, increased proteins, high glucose
C. Increased white blood cells, increased proteins, low glucose
D. Increased white blood cells, decreased proteins, low glucose
9. Assessment findings reveal positive Brudzinski sign, when the nurse
flexed the child’s neck forward, which of the following behavior
indicated a positive Brudzinski’s sign?
A. Hip flexed and knee Extended
B. Knee extended and ankle flexed
C. Leg extended with resistance
D. Hip, knee and ankle flexed
10. In the nursing care plan prepared by the nurse, “Pain related to
meningeal irritation” is a priority nursing diagnosis. Which of the
following should the nurse avoid to do to prevent pain when
positioning the patient? A. Extend leg
B. Flex the neck forward
C. Hyperextend the neck
D. Flex the hip
11. The nurse understands that this leucocytes is related to
phagocytosis? A. neutrophils.
B. eosinophils.
C. basophils.
D. monocytes.
12. The large, heavy, and older adult patient, post stroke, develops an
infected decubitus on the sacrum during the hospital stay. When the
patient goes home, about 2 weeks later, the patient returns to the
hospital with pneumonia.
The distinction between these two infections is which of the
following?
A. The decubitus infection was transmitted from other patients
on the unit, but the pneumonia was transmitted from a neighbor
visiting when the patient was at home.
B. The decubitus and pneumonia are caused by the same host.
C. The decubitus is termed nosocomial and the pneumonia is
termed community-acquired.
 D. The decubitus is considered to be caused by protozoa,
whereas the pneumonia is termed unpreventable because of the size
of the patient. 21. Surgical asepsis is observed when:
A. inserting an intravenous catheter
13. When discarding used needles and syringes after injection to the B. disposing of syringe and needles in puncture proof
patient, which of the following is appropriate nursing action?
containers
A. Remove needle from syringe and discard them in separate C. washing hands before changing wound dressing
containers.
D. placing dirty soiled linen in moisture resistant bags
B. Recap needle, then discard the needle still attached to the
syringe into a container.
22. A client with viral infection, will most likely manifest which of the
C. Discard the uncapped needle and syringe into a container in following during the illness stage of the infection?
the nurse station
A. Client was exposed to the infection 2 days ago but without
D. Discard the uncapped needle and syringe into a container in any symptoms
the patient’s room B. Oral temperature shows fever
C. Acute symptoms are no longer visible
14. The nurse caring for an immunosuppressed patient is diligent about
protecting the patient from infection. When visitors come in, in
D. Client “feels sick” but can do normal activities
addition to having them put on isolation garb, the nurse would prohibit
them bringing: 23. Which action by a new nurse signifies an understanding about
A. a battery-operated DVD player. infection control?
B. baked broccolli with beans A. The nurse touches the the inside portion of the gloves only
C. potted plants. when wearing gloves.
D. boxed candy. B. The nurse washes gloved hands before removing.
C. The nurse uses her bare hands to change the dressing
15. The patient with the diagnosis of Clostridium difficile infection D. The nurse applies standard precaution to all types of patients.
asks what has caused the diarrhea. The nurse responds that it is caused
by: 24. A 20 year-old client has an infected leg wound from a
A. protozoal infection. motorcycle accident, and the client has returned home from the
B. fecal–oral contamination. hospital. The client is to keep the affected leg elevated and is on
C. inflammatory response. contact precautions. The client wants to know if visitors can come.
D. long-term antibiotic therapy. The appropriate response from the home health nurse is that:
A. Visitors must wear a mask and a gown
16. Six hours after a beach picnic on a hot afternoon, a young man B. There are no special requirements for visitors of clients on contact
enters the ER with nausea and vomiting, headache, and diarrhea. On precautions
interview, the patient says that he ate potato salad and tuna fish C. Visitors should wash their hands before and after touching the
sandwiches. The nurse anticipates that the causative organism for these client
symptoms is: D. Visitors should wear gloves if they touch the client
A. Clostridium botulinum
B. Clostridium perfringens 25. Several clients are admitted to an adult medical unit. The
C. Salmonella nurse would ensure airborne precautions for a client with which
medical condition?
D. Staphylococcus aureus A. Autoimmune deficiency syndrome (AIDS) with cytomegalovirus
(CMV)
17. Which of the following is the MOST COMMON sign of infection B. A positive purified protein derivative with an abnormal chest x-
among the elderly? A. decreased breath sounds with crackles ray
B. fever C. A tentative diagnosis of viral pneumonia with productive brown
sputum
C. pain D. Advanced carcinoma of the lung with hemoptysis
D. change in mental status
26. The nurse is assigned to a client newly diagnosed with active
18. The nurse would anticipate a caesarean birth for a client who has tuberculosis. Which of these protocols would be a priority for the
which infection present at the onset of labor? nurse to implement?
A. Herpes-simplex virus type 2 A. Have the client cough into a tissue and dispose in a separate bag
B. Human papilloma virus B. Instruct the client to cover the mouth with a tissue when coughing
C. Herpes simplex type 1 C. Reinforce for all to wash their hands before and after entering the
D. Toxoplasmosis room
D. Place client in a negative pressure private room and have all who
19. Which of the following nursing interventions is done when enter the room use masks with shields
examining the incision wound and changing the dressing?
A. Observe the dressing and type and odor of drainage if any
B. Get patient’s consent 27. A sputum specimen was collected from Mr. Ramos for
C. Wash hands culture and sensitivity. This study is to ascertain which of the
D. Request the client to expose the incision wound following facts?
A. The virulence of microorganism involved
20. A solution used to treat Pseudomonas wound infection is: B. The antibiotics which would be most helpful
A. Dakin’s solution C. The patients probably reaction to the causative
B. Half-strength hydrogen peroxide microorganism
C. Acetic acid D. The patient’s sensitivity to antibiotics
D. Betadine
28. In cleaning the inner cannula or other parts of the tracheostomy
tube, The best cleansing mediums are:
A. Hydrogen peroxide and Sterile NSS
B. Providone Iodine and Sterile NSS
C. Alcohol and Sterile NSS
D. Alcohol and Hydrogen Peroxide
29. The nurse is caring for a client in the Isolation Room. Which of the
following is the correct technique to be observed by the nurse
regarding use of the stethoscope to prevent spread of microorganisms
to other clients?
A. Leave the stethoscope inside the room of the client
B. Place the stethoscope inside a double bag every after use
C. Wipe the stethoscope with a disinfectant solution every after use
D. Hang the stethoscope inside the patient’s room
30. While you were obtaining intravenous access to start fluids, you
accidentally pricked yourself with the needle you were about to use.
Which the following is the BEST action to do?
A. Dispose the needle, change gloves and restart the procedure
B. Discontinue the procedure and report to the Head nurse
C. Dispose the needle, ask to be excused and secure treatment for the
needle prick
D. Ignore the needle prick, replace the needle and proceed with the
IV insertion
31. While assessing the pressure sore of a 75 year old client, the nurse
documents that healing is taking place when she observes presence of:
A. Exudates
B. Ragged edges around the wound
C. Eschar
D. Granulation tissue
32. Personal Protective Equipment (PPE) like the face mask when
worn correctly offers maximum protection against transmission of
droplets. Below are descriptions of how a mask is worn. Which
statement describes a CORRECTLY WORN MASK?
A. The mask is placed to cover the nose, ear and mouth tied at
the back of the head
B. Place the mask to cover the nose and mouth with two ties
tied at the back of the head
C. With the two loops on either side of the mask, anchor it to
both ears and adjust to cover the nose and the mouth
D. The mask is placed to cover the nose and mouth with the
four sides snugly fitting against the skin and with the two pairs of ties
tied separately at the back of the head
33. You are caring for a client who had a near-drowning incident in a
lake. Which assessment will you perform to monitor for possible
complications?
A. Check the client’s blood glucose level before meals
B. Assess the client’s bowel sounds three times daily
C. Check the client’s skin for petechiae daily
D. Assess the client’s temperature every 8 hours.
34. Your nursing action which indicates your observance of standard
precautions would be when you:
A. dispose needles, scalpel blades, sharp instrument in double bags.
B. protect yourself from infections through contact with blood or
body fluid borne viruses.
C. protect yourself from contact with blood, open wounds, and body
fluids.
D. practice frequent hand washing including washing of
contaminated gloves.
35. You have mild cough, runny nose and low fever but you still
reported to work. Which of the following actions is NOT an effective
way to control infection?
A. Do frequent hand washing.
B. Cover your mouth and nose when you sneeze or cough.
C. Minimize working with clients highly susceptible to
infections.
D. Use mask, gloves and gown while working.
36. Understanding the risks of infection, who among the clients listed
below should receive immediate attention and care?
A. Adult female with Vitamin B deficiency due to chronic
alcohol intake.
B. Adult male with fresh second degree burns on arms and
chest.
C. A teenager who is bleeding due to a cut on the finger.
D. An elderly male with diabetes mellitus and toe infection
37. During the seminar the nurses are informed that Intensive Care
Unit (ICU) patients have a high risk of contracting hospital acquired
infections. Which of the following explanations is TRUE?
A. Many procedures done in the ICU expose clients to more
pathogens
B. B.ICU is never empty so disinfection of this special area is
difficult to accomplish
C. Clients are critically ill and highly susceptible to infection
D. ICU personnel are less strict with asepsis since clients are on
antibiotics all the time
38. The effectiveness of nurse's teaching regarding take home
prescribed antibiotic self-administration is indicated in which
statement of the client?
A. "I will see to it that the medication schedule is synchronized
with my daily routine."
B. "I have read the prescription and its specific instructions"
C. "I fully understand the beneficial effects of the antibiotic"
D. "I will report side effects immediately."
39. Where should you put Mr.Alejar, with Category II TB?
A. In a room with positive air pressure and at least 3 air
exchanges an hour
B. In a room with positive air pressure and at least 6 air
exchanges an hour
C. In a room with negative air pressure and at least 3 air
exchanges an hour
D. In a room with negative air pressure and at least 6 air
exchanges an hour
40. A new technology adopted by the Philippines for a rapid diagnosis
of TB in less than 2 hours? A. Chest X ray
B. Sputum Microscopy
C. Xpert-MTB/RIF
D. Mantoux Test
41. Which of the following anti TB drugs would least likely allergic
reaction? A. Rifampicin
B. INH
C. Pyrazinamide
D. Streptomycin
42. Which of the following anti TB drugs is contraindicated to
pregnant woman? A. Rifampicin
B. INH
C. Pyrazinamide
D. Streptomycin
43. The nurse is to insert an NG Tube when suddenly, she accidentally
dip the end of the tube in the client’s glass containing distilled drinking
water which is definitely not sterile. As a nurse, what should you do?
A. Don’t mind the incident, continue to insert the NG Tube
 B. Obtain a new NG Tube for the client C. “No, having had Hepatitis A has done the same thing a
C. Disinfect the NG Tube before reinserting it again vaccination would.” D. “Yes, because now you are more
susceptible to have Hepatitis A.”
D. Ask your senior nurse what to do

50. While you are preparing to administer a tetanus toxoid vaccination

44. In removing protective devices, which should be the exact for Carlo who had a punctured wound, he tells you that he had tetanus
sequence? shot just 1 year ago. What will be your BEST response?
1. Eye wear or goggles A.” Antibody production slows down as you age. You need a booster.”
2. Mask B. “You probably do not need another vaccination now.”
3. Gloves C. it won’t hurt to receive an extra dose of the toxoid.”
4. Gown D. “you need this vacation because the strain of tetanus changes
every year.
A. 3,1,4,2
B. 4,3,1,2
C. 1,3,4,2 51. You are having a Mother’s Class for Primigravidas who had
recently given birth about immunity that has been passed to the baby
D. 2,1,4,3 in utero. Which statement by a participant indicates that additional
45. The following are interventions for clients under airborne teaching is needed?
precaution except: a. Wear an N95 respirator A. I had chickenpox and I am immune to it, so my baby will not
b. Wear a mask when working within 3 feet away from the need to have chickenpox vaccine.”
client B. “I had the measles, so many baby will be protected against it
c. Place the client in a private room or a client infected with the until he is old enough to receive the MMR vaccine?”
same organism C. “only certain antibodies were able to cross the placenta to
d. Instruct family members and caregivers to wear respiratory protect my baby.”
devices D. “My baby received some antibodies from me before birth
and I will give him more when I breastfeed.”
46. Which new admission should the nurse plan to place in a private
room with negative-pressure airflow? a. Client with rubella
52. Gerry who is receiving intravenous chemotherapy asks you why
b. Client with strep throat you are wearing a mask, gloves and gown when giving the drugs to
c. Client with measles him. What is your BEST response?
d. Client with TB of the bone A. “There clothing protect me from accidentally absorbing
these drugs through the skin and mucous membrane.”
47. A nursing instructor asks a nursing student to describe human B. “I am preventing the spread of infection from you to me or
immunoglobulin. The student correctly states that these types of to any other clients.” C. “Our hospital policy requires that any
vaccine are: nurse giving these drugs should wear a gown.
A. Vaccine that have their virulence diminished so as to not D. “These protective barriers will prevent you from getting an
produce a full blown clinical illness infection coming from me.”
B. Vaccine that contains pathogens made inactive by either
chemicals or heat 53. What antibodies is transmitted through breastmilk?
C. Bacterial toxins that have been made inactive by either A. IgG
chemicals or heat B. IgA
D. Vaccines collected from pooled blood of people and provide C. IgM
antibodies to variety of diseases D. IgD

48. You are preparing Hazel for discharge. She had splenectomy
following multiple injury sustained from a vehicular accident. The
MOST important precaution to teach Hazel regarding her immune
function is that she:
A. Will be at a decreased risk for developing allergies, so it will
no longer be necessary for her worry about asthmatic allergies.
B. Should have yearly checkup because she is high risk for
cancer development now.
C. Will no longer developed a fever when she has an infection.
She must learn to identify other symptoms of infections.
D. Should avoid people with the flu because it is hard for her to
developed antibodies.
49. Jane who is recovering from Hepatitis A asks you if should take
the vaccine to avoid contacting the disease again.
What is your BEST response?
A. “No, your liver and immune system are too impaired at this
time.”
B. “Yes, because the Hepatitis A virus strain changes from year
to year.”
54. What type of immunity is attained if a patient received Sinovac
vaccine? A. Natural Passive Immunity
B. Natural Active Immunity
C. Artificial Passive Immunity
D. Artificial Active Immunity
SIUTUATION: - You are caring for Rolando, 58 years old, was
admitted because of difficulty of swallowing and stiffening of the
neck. He has history of a wound laceration on his right hand sustained
whiel gardening. Physician suspects Tetanus infection.
55. While you were preparing to administer oxygen inhalation,
Rolando had seizures and assumed an opisthotonic position. Which of
the ff. correctly describe the position?
A. Head retracted, back arched and feet extended
B. Neck, hip, knee flexed and feet plantar flexed
C. Head flexed forward, jaw clenched, arms pronated and feet
plantar flexed D. Head hyper extended hip flexed and feet extended
56. Taking into consideration the incubation period, which of the ff.
data in Rolando’s’ health history will you consider relevant?
 A. positive for type 2 diabetes mellitus
B. Immunization status uncertain, no booster dose administered
C. Wound laceration, sustained a week ago, was treated at
home D. Wound pain, unbearable and unrelieved by analgesic
57. To decrease stimuli that cause muscle spasms and seizures, which
of the ff. nursing interventions is LEAST relevant for you to do?
A. Maintain a quiet, well ventilated and darkened room
B. Administer sedatives as prescribed
C. Monitor for hazards of immobility
D. Perform physical care during time of maximal sedation
58. The priority nursing diagnosis for Rolando is “Risk for ineffective
airway clearance” related to which of the ff.? A. Stiffness
B. seizures
C. back muscle spasms
D. infection
59. During a seizure, which of the ff. are you expected to do FIRST?
A. Monitor vital signs especially the respiratory rate
B. Place a padded tongue blade in the patient’s mouth
C. Provide mechanical ventilation
D. Turn patient to his side
60. You are at the RHU clinic when a mother brought in her infant
Dodong, for his OPV immunization. You have assessed that the infant
has diarrhea. What will be your next action? a. Notify the physician
b. Give the OPV and record the dose
c. Give the OPV but do not record the dose
d. Do not give the OPV
Situation: Patient with Rabies
61. Nursing care of clients diagnosed with rabies is provision of this
comfortable environment which is: a. Adequately supplied with food
and water
b. Quiet and dark
c. Provided with soft music
d. Accessible to medication
62. A patient, who is exhibiting signs of rabies, is admitted to San
Lazaro Hospital. The patient’s mother is in disbelief since her son was
bitten by a dog 2 years ago. The nurse correctly responds by
explaining to the mother that: a. Incubation period of rabies can reach
more than 1 year
b. Incubation period of rabies is 1-3 months
c. That bite two years ago did not cause the rabies
d. Rabies virus does not live that long
63. Nursing intervention for the patient would include:
a. Covering the IV fluid bag with paper
b. Opening the windows in the room
c. Bringing extra fan for the patient to avoid hyperthermia
d. Avoiding dim light
Situation: Patient with Dengue
64. Which of the following treatment should NOT be considered if the
child has severe dengue hemorrhagic fever?
A. use plan C if there is bleeding from the nose or gums
B. give ORS if there is skin petechiae, persistent vomiting and
positive tourniquet test
C. give aspirin
D. prevent low blood sugar
65. An important role of the community health nurse in the prevention
and control of Dengue H-fever includes:
A. advising the elimination of vectors by keeping water
containers covered
B. conducting strong health education drivers/campaign
directed towards proper garbage disposal
C. explaining to the individuals, families, groups and
community the nature of the disease and its causation
D. practicing residual spraying with insecticides
66. Community health nurses should be alert in observing a Dengue
suspect. The following is NOT and indicator for hospitalization of H-
fever suspects.
a. Marked anorexia, abdominal pain and vomiting
b. Increasing hematocrit count
c. Fever for more than 2 days
d. Persistent headache
67. The community health nurse’s primary concern in the immediate
control of hemorrhage among patients with dengue is:
A. advising low fiber and non-fat diet
B. providing warmth through light weight covers
C. observing closely the patient for vital signs leading to shock
D. keeping the patient at rest
68. Which of these signs may NOT be REGARDED as a truly positive
signs indicative of Dengue H-Fever?
A. Prolonged bleeding time
B. Appearance of at least 5 petechiae
C. Steadily increasing hematocrit count
D. Fall in the platelet count
69. Which of the following is the most important treatment of patients
with Dengue H-Fever? a. Give aspirin for fever
b. Replacement of body fluids
c. Avoid unnecessary movement of patient
d. Ice cap over the abdomen in case of melena
70. The community health nurse’s primary concern in the immediate
control of hemorrhage among patients with dengue is:
A. Advising low fiber and non-fat diet
B. Providing warmth through light weight covers
C. Observing closely the patient for vital signs leading to shock
D. Keeping the patient at rest.
71. Which of these signs may NOT be REGARDED as a truly positive
signs indicative of Dengue H-fever?
A. Prolonged Bleeding Time
B. Appearance of at least 20 petechiae within 1 cm square
C. Steadily increasing hematocrit count
D. Fall in the platelet count
72. Which of the ff. Was MOST likely the description of Bobby’s
fever prior to onset of hematuria that supported the physician's
diagnosis of DENGUE FEVER?
A. intermittent fever for 4 days
B. onset of fever was abrupt and remained elevated for 4 days
 C. abrupt onset of fever and sudden drop on the 4th day 78. When planning the care of a client diagnosed with asymptomatic
herpes simplex virus type 2 (Hsv-2), which of the following should the
D. gradual increase of body temperature and sudden drop on the
nurse consider?
4th day A. there is no risk of transmitting the condition to anyone else
B. after prescribed treatment, herpes simplex virus type 2 is cured
73. With proper medical care and early recognition, case-fatality rates C. an antibiotic is used successfully in the treatment
are below 1%. On the other hand, special attention needs to be given to D. the client is a carrier, and still able to transmit the disease
these warning signs as it could lead to severe dengue: Select all that
apply 79. The nurse assesses what clinical manifestation to be the priority in
a child with Enterobius (pinworm)?
1. Severe abdominal pain A. nocturnal anal itching
B. weight loss
2. Persistent vomiting C. chronic or relapsing diarrhea
3. Bleeding gums D. flatulence
4. Vomiting blood
5. Rapid breathing 80. The nurse assesses which of the following to be a clinical
manifestation of human papillomavirus (HPV)?
6. Fatigue/ restlessness A. soft papules in the anogenital area
7. Hemoptysis B. nocturnal anal itching
8. Headache C. erythematous and macular rash on the ankles and wrists
D. painful raised vesicles

A. 1,2,3,4,5,6
81. A client with neutropenia has an absolute neutrophil count of 900.
B. 1,2,3,4,5,6,7 What is the client’s risk of infection?
C. 1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8 A. Normal risk.
D. 1,2,3,4,5,7 B. Moderate risk.
C. High risk.
D. Extremely high risk.
74. The nurse understands that the cycle of transmission of the Dengue
Fever virus begins during which of the ff. 82. The nurse is reviewing the lab reports of a client who is HIV
positive. Which laboratory report provides information regarding the
A. Infected mosquito bites an uninfected human effectiveness of the client’s medication regimen?
B. Virus multiply in the midgut of the mosquito A. ELISA
C. Mosquito feeds on an infected human
D. Mosquito's saliva is invaded by the virus during subsequent B. Western Blot
biting of infected human C. Viral load
D. CD4 count
75. To prevent transmission of the virus to others. Which of the ff. Is
MOST appropriate isolation measure the nurse should implement in 83. A client with AIDS related CMV is started on cytoven
the care of Bobby? (ganciclovir). The nurse should tell the client that the medication will
A. screen the environment be needed:
B. blood and body secretion isolation A. Until the infection clears
C. use gown, gloves, and mask B. for 6 months to a year
C. Until the cultures are normal
D. use strict universal isolation technique D. for the remainder of life.

76. The mother is preparing for their discharge. She tells the nurse that
she is relieved that everything is fine and her daughter is now immune
to dengue. The nurse replies based on the knowledge that:
A. Immunity against one serotype can lead to immunity to other
serotypes
B. Immunity against one serotype does not make the individual
immune to other serotypes
C. Immunity against all dengue viruses is based on the individual’s
immune response
D. Cross-immunity to other viruses is possible only if infected with
DEN-4 serotype
77. The mother of a child whose chickenpox rash first appeared 8 days
ago asks the nurse when her child may return to school without being
contagious. Which of the following is the nurse’s most appropriate
response?
A. “Your child cannot return to school until all the lesions
disappear.”
B. “Your child is contagious as long as your child is itching.”
C. “The contagious state of chickenpox is generally 2 weeks.”
D. “Your child is not contagious and may return to school
now.”
84. The nurse is caring for a client with suspected AIDS dementia
complex. The first sign of dementia in the client with AIDS is:
A. Changes in gait
B. Loss of concentration
C. Problems with speech
D. seizures
85. A second year nursing student has just suffered a needlestick
while working with a patient that is positive for AIDS. Which of the
following is the most important action that nursing student should
take?
A. Immediately see a social worker
B. Start prophylactic AZT treatment
C. Start prophylactic Pentamide treatment
D. Seek counseling
Situation: The Department of Health has vowed to end Neglected
Tropical diseases (NTDs) by 2030. In the Philippines, the NTDs that
are prevalent include leprosy and rabies. One of the strategies to
address this goal is through conduct of Health Education program.
86. Public Health Nurse Gabriela is educating a group of
residents in Community X about rabies. A partciipant asks, “How can
you get the virus?” The nurse explains that the virus can be B. Rapid destruction of all infected or exposed birds
transmitted by which source? C. Transferring of the live poultry in another area or location.
A. Saliva D. Vigorous disinfection of poultry farms
B. Blood
C. Urine 94. There are measures that should be observed by the humans to
D. Stool prevent bird flu infection. Which of the following is NOT included?
A. Non-poultry workers should avoid contact with the chickens and
87. She emphasized that the bites, which are responsible for nearly 99 ducks as much as possible.
percent of human rabies infections, are those of the infected ____. B. All poultry farm workers should be given the current season’s flu
A. monkeys vaccine.
C. Avoid eating chicken or any poultry products until the epidemic
B. Dogs has abated
C. Bats D. Advise people on proper cooking of poultry meat and eggs.
D. Cats

95. For patients with bird flu infection, health care workers should
88. Nurse Gabriela explains that there are situations which increased observe the following, EXCEPT:
risk of rabies. These are _____. A. Establish a separate isolation facility
A. stray dog bites B. Utilize Personal Protective Equipment (PPE)
B. All of these C. Avoid going near the patient as much as possible
C. unprovoked bites D. Apply the principles of handwashing.
D. Animals display abnormal behavior
96. Which of the following has been recognized as a significant risk
89. In another health education session, Nurse Gabriela explains about factor for the development of acute respiratory distress syndrome
LEPROSY. Which of the following should be included? (ARDS) and death in patients with COVID-19? A. Decreased Lactate
1. Leprosy is curable dehydrogenase levels.
2. Not all leprosy patients are infectious
B. Elevated D – dimer tests
3. Leprosy is hereditary
C. Neutropenia

4. Casual contact with a patient causes leprosy

D. Lymphocytosis

5. Regular and adequate treatment is essential

97. Syphilis is another infection that may impose risk during
pregnancy. Since we are under the practice of health science, you
A. 1,3,4 know that Syphilis is caused by:
B. 2,4,5 A. Treponema Syphilis
C. 1,2,5 B. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
D. 2,3,4 C. Chlamydia Trachomatis
D. Treponema Pallidum
90. Nurse Garbriela stated that a definitive diagnosis of Leprosy is
obtained through _____. 98. Under the second level of prevention, you know that one of the
A. blood examinations focuses of care is the screening of diseases. What is the screening test
B. Tuberculin testing for syphilis?
C. Skin smears/biopsies A. VDRL
D. Nasal smears
B. Western blot
C. PSA
D. ELISA
Situation: – In recent months, “bird flu” or avian influenza caused a
significant concern among the people especially those in Central 99. Which of the following are recommended infection control
Luzon and Metro Manila. It is both an emerging and re-emerging measures upon arrival of a patient with suspected COVID-19
infection. infection?
A. Rapid triage of symptomatic infection
91. Which of the following statement is TRUE about “bird flu”?
A. All forms of bird flu can easily cause illness to humans B. Implement respiratory hygiene and cough etiquette.
B. Domestic poultry flocks are much less vulnerable to infections C. Have a separate, well ventilated space that allows waiting
C. Infected chickens can also infect domestic animals like cats and symptomatic patients to be separated by 6 or more feet.
dogs D. All of the above
D. Only birds are normally infected by the viruses, less commonly
pigs.
100. Which of the following is the most effective method for
92. When humans are infected, the following signs and symptoms of prevention of COVID-19 infection in the health care setting?
bird flu may appear, EXCEPT: A. Avoid exposure (Use standard precautions, Contact
A. Fever precautions, and Airborne Precautions and eye protection when
B. Sore eyes/Sore throat caring for patients with confirmed or possible COVID-19
C. Chicken rashes infection)
D. Body weakness B. Vaccination
C. Handwashing
93. Which of the following is NOT included in the control measures in D. None of the above
infected birds?
A. Restrictions on the movement of the live poultry.