Module 1 Operative Surgery Head and Neck Thoracic Abdominal Cavities

Module 1.
Operative surgery and topographical anatomy of the head and neck, regions and
organs of the thoracic and abdominal cavities
1. Which of the following nerves lies on spermatic cord within inguinal canal?
A. intercostalis
B. anterior scrotal
C. pudendal
D. lumbalis
E. ilioinguinalis *
2. Which of the following anatomical structures forms the anterior wall of sheath of rectus
muscle at level of ribs?
A. aponeurosis of external oblique abdominis muscle
B. aponeurosis of internal oblique abdominis muscle
C. aponeurosis of transverse abdominis muscle
D. pyramidal muscle
E. cartilages of V-VII ribs *
3. Why a surgeon can not cut compressed ring before incision of hernial sac?
A. possibility of damage of parietal peritoneum
B. possibility of damage of visceral peritoneum
C. possibility of damage of contents of hernial sac
D. inability to perform grafting
E. because of necessity to check viability of compressed organs *
4. Which of the following anatomical structures belongs to the round ligament of liver?
A. obliterated umbilical artery
B. urachus
C. ductus choledochus
D. obliterated umbilical vein
E. obliterated umbilical artery and vein *
5. During surgery injury of small intestine wall was founded. Which of the surgery should be
performed?
A. intestinal resection
B. enterotomy
C. enterostomy
D. enteropexy
E. intestinal suture *
6. A patient with perforated stomach ulcer has complication – subdiaphragmal abscess. Which
of the following abdominal spaces should be drainaged first?
A. omental bursa
B. pancreatic
C. left lateral abdominal canal
D. mesenteric sinuses
E. hepatic bursa *
7. During cholecystectomy bleeding from hepatic bed was found. The bleeding was arrested by
pressing of hepato-duodenal ligament in region of omental opening. Which of the following
arteries was pressed in this case?
A. right hepatic artery
B. left hepatic artery
C. common hepatic artery
D. gastroepiploic artery
E. proper hepatic artery *
8. What is the name of part of small intestine wall that is not covered with peritoneum?
A. margo mesenterica
B. margo epiploica
C. pars mesenterica
D. pars epiploica
E. pars nuda *
9. A. et v. lienales are within which of the following ligaments?
A. lig. phrenico- colicum
B. lig. hepato-duodenalis
C. lig. phrenico-renale
D. lig. lieno-renale
E. lig. phrenico-lienale *
10. A. cystica is branch of which of the following arteries?
A. a. hepatica
B. a. hepatica sinistra
C. a. hepatica propria
D. a. gastro-epiploica sinistra
E. a. hepatica dextra *
11. Lower wall of the omental bursa is formed by:
A. peritoneum, aorta
B. peritoneum, inferior caval vein
C. hepato-duodenal ligament, hepato-renal ligament
D. mesentery of small intestine
E. mesentery of transverse colon *
12. Upper wall of the omental bursa is formed by:
A. hepato-renal ligament, small curvature of the stomach
B. hepato-duodenal ligament, lobus caudatus of liver
C. superior part of duodenum, large curvature of the stomach
D. all are correct
E. lobus caudatus of liver, posterior wall of stomach *
13. Posterior wall of the omental bursa is formed by:
A. superior part of duodenum, large curvature of the stomach
B. hepato-renal ligament, horizontal part of duodenum
C. lobus caudatus of liver, posterior wall of stomach
D. hepato-duodenal ligament, lobus caudatus of liver
E. pancreas, inferior caval vein, aorta *
14. Which of the following approaches to pancreas is most comfortable?
A. Through mesentery of transverse colon
B. extraperitoneal approach
C. in according to site of surgery
D. through omental bursa
E. through gastro-epiploic ligament *
15. Porto-caval anastomoses are good developed in which of the following regions?
A. stomach, caecum
B. large intestine, stomach
C. duodenum,large intestine
D. caecum, large intestine
E. esophagus, rectum, ventral abdominal wall *
16. Which of the following ligaments should be cutted during mobilization of liver lobes?
A. lig. coronarium
B. lig. falciforme
C. lig.hepatorenalis
D. lig. hepatogastricum
E. lig. triangulare dexter et sinister *
17. Inferior caval vein lies within which of the following hepatic ligaments?
A. lig. coronarium
B. lig. triangulare dexter
C. lig. triangulare sinister
D. lig. falciforme
E. lig.hepatorenalis *
18. Identification of Latarzhe’s nerve is necessary in case of:
A. resection of stomach
B. gastrectomy
C. apendectomy
D. cholecystectomy
E. selective vagotomy *
19. Which of the following anatomical structures goes within gastro-pancreatic ligament?
A. a. et v. lienalis sinistrae
B. r. esophagealis from a. gastrica sinistra
C. a. et v. gastrici sinistrae
D. lymph nodes
E. r. pancreaticus from a. gastroduodenalis *
20. Right subdiaphragmatic space is bounded from above and from front by:
A. intraabdominal fascia
B. lig. coronarium
C. lig. triangulare dextrum
D. superior-posterior surface of liver
E. diaphragm *
21. What is a Richter-Littre’s hernia?
A. indirect inguinal hernia
B. sliding hernia
C. congenital hernia
D. irreducible hernia
E. incarcerated parietal hernia *
22. Fibers of which of the following muscles should be cutted together with vaginal sheath of
spermatic cord in case of herniotomy?
A. internal oblique muscle
B. external oblique muscle
C. transverse muscle
D. pyramidal muscle
E. cremaster muscle *
23. Hernial sac in boys in case of congenital inguinal herniae is formed with which of the
following structures?
A. wall of caval organ
B. skin, subcutaneous tissue
C. peritoneum
D. external spermatic fascia
E. vaginal appendage of peritoneum *
24. What is congenital inguinal hernia?
A. direct
B. direct and indirect
C. reducible
D. incarcerating
E. indirect *
25. What is hernia when hernial sac formed with wall of caval organ?
A. indirect
B. irreducible
C. congenital
D. incarcerating
E. sliding *
26. What is Riolan’s arch?
A. anastomosis between right and middle colic arteries
B. anastomosis between iliac and colic arteries
C. anastomosis between caeliac trunk and superior mesenteric artery
D. anastomosis between caeliac trunk and inferior mesenteric artery
E. anastomosis between inferior and superior mesenteric arteries *
27. Branches of superior mesenteric artery are:
A. ilio-colic, right colic
B. right colic, middle colic
C. ileum, colic, middle colic
D. right and middle colic
E. ilio-colic, right colic, middle colic *
28. Branches of inferior mesenteric artery are:
A. right colic, middle colic, superior rectal
B. left colic, middle colic
A. C.colic, middle colic, sygmoid
C. right colic, middle colic
D. left colic, sygmoid, superior rectal *
29. Sources of blood supply of duodenum are:
A. caeliac trunk
B. superior mesenteric artery
C. superior and inferior mesenteric arteries
D. short gastric branches
E. caeliac trunk and superior mesenteric artery *
30. What is Gartmann’s pocket?
A. dilatation of choledoch duct
B. bend in place of gallbladder body
C. dilatation of gallbladder fundus
D. dilatation of gallbladder
E. dilatation of gallbladder neck *
31. Common hepatic artery is divided into:
A. left and right hepatic arteries
B. left and right hepatic arteries and gallbladder artery
C. left and right hepatic arteries, gastro-duodenal artery
D. proper hepatic, gastric, duodenal arteries
E. proper hepatic and gastro-duodenal arteries *
32. What is Gubarev’s sphincter?
A. first narrowing of esophagus
B. junction between pharynx and esophagus
C. muscular layer of esophagus
D. abdominal part of esophagus
E. muscular layer of esophagus with muscles of diaphragm *
33. Czerny’s suture should be done through which of the following layers of intestinal wall?
A. serous, muscular
B. muscular, submucous, mucous
C. submucous, mucous
D. serous
E. serous, muscular, submucous, mucous *
34. What is Lambert’s suture?
A. Penetrating
B. interrupted
C. internal
D. infected
E. seroso-muscular *
35. What is cholecystoduodenoanastomosis?
A. performing of fistula of choledoch duct
B. performing of fistula of gallbladder
C. performing of fistula between choledoch duct and stomach
D. performing of fistula between choledoch duct and duodenum
E. performing of fistula between gallbladder and duodenum *
36. A patient with perforated stomach ulcer. A surgeon performed gastoraphy. The hole of
stomach in case of perforated ulcer should be stitched by which of the following sutures?
A. two layers of sero-muscular with stiching of omentum
B. marginal, sero-serous, Z-shaped
C. sero-muscular, sero-serous
D. marginal, sero-muscular, purse-string
E. marginal, sero-muscular with stiching of omentum *
37. A surgeon completes the appendectomy. The stump of appendix should be immersed by
which of the following sutures?
A. Albert’s suture
B. sero-serous suture
C. marginal suture
D. Schmiden's suture
E. purse-string suture *
38. During cholecystectomy surgeon found Kallo’s triangle. This triangle is landmark for which
of the folowing structures?
A. choledoch duct
B. left hepatic artery
C. right hepatic artery
D. cystic duct
E. cystic artery *
39. Which of the following arteries should be left in case of subtotal stomach resection?
A. right gastro-epiploic artery
B. common hepatic artery
C. right gastric artery
D. gastro-duodenal artery
E. left gastric artery *
40. A surgeon performed removing of left part of large intestine because of tumor of intestine.
Which of the following arteries should be ligated and cutted?
A. superior mesenteric artery
B. gastro-duodenal artery
C. right colic artery
D. splenic artery
E. left colic artery *
41. A surgeon performed removing of right part of large intestine. Which of the following
arteries should be ligated?
A. а. colica sinistra
B. а. gastroduodenalis
C. а. mesenterica superior
D. а. mesenterica inferior
E. а. colica dextra *
42. Stomach resection (Bilrot-II method) in case of tumor of pyloric part should be completed
by performing which of the following anastomoses?
A. gastro-enteroanastomosis antecolica anterior
B. gastro-enteroanastomosis antecolica роsterior
C. gastro-enteroanastomosis retrocolica роsterior
D. gastro-duodenoanastomosis “termino-terminalis”
E. gastro-enteroanastomosis retrocolica anterior *
43. There was bleeding from gallbladder bed during antegrade cholecystectomy. The surgeon
press lig. hepatoduodenale for temporary arrest bleeding. Which of the following vessels are
within this ligament?
A. а. hepatica communis
B. а. hepatica communis, v. роrta
C. а. суstica and v. роrta
D. а. суstica, v. роrta
E. а. hepatica propria, v. роrta *
44. Stomach resection (Bilrot-I method) in case of bleeding ulcer should be completed by
performing which of the following anastomoses?
A. gastro-duodenoanastomosis “end-to-side”
B. gastro-duodenoanastomosis “side-to-side”
C. gastro-enteroanastomosis “end-to-side”
D. gastro-enteroanastomosis “side-to-side”
E. gastro-duodenoanastomosis “end-to-end” *
45. Ligation and cutting of proper hepatic artery was mistakenly performed during resection of
the pancreas. Which of the folowing arteries is main anastomosis for blood supply of
pancreas?
A. inferior mesenteric artery
B. right gastric
C. left gastric
D. right gastro-epiploic
E. gastro-duodenal *
46. A patient with tumor has obstructive jaundice. Where tumor is localized?
A. body of pancreas
B. tail of pancreas
C. spleen
D. small intestine
E. head of pancreas *
47. A surgeon cut gastro-colic ligament during operative access to contents of omental bursa.
Which of the following arteries was ligated and cutted in this case?
A. left and right gastric
B. proper hepatic and gastro-duodenal
C. proper gastric
D. short gastric
E. left and right gastro-epiploic *
48. A surgeon found combined injury of duodenum and pancreas during examination of patient
with penetrating wound of abdomen. Which of the following parts of pancreas could be
damaged?
A. neck
B. body and tail
C. tail
D. body and neck
E. head *
49. Which of the following nerves innervates parietal peritoneum?
A. vagus nerve
B. sciatic nerve
C. sympathetic nerve
D. obturator nerve
E. iliohypogastic nerve *
50. What does “Caput Medusae” mean?
A. distending of superior mesenteric vein
B. distending of inferior mesenteric vein
C. varicose veins of esophagus
D. distending of veins of lower limb
E. varicose veins in umbilical region *
51. Which of the following veins connect superficial veins of umbilical region with portal
system?
A. hepatic veins
B. gastric veins
C. superior epigastric vein
D. inferior epigastric vein
E. paraumbilical veins *
52. Which of the following anatomical structures passes through inguinal canal in female?
A. femoral nerve
B. obturator nerve
C. pudendal nerve
D. ilio-hypogastric nerve
E. ilio-inguinal nerve *
53. Which of the following anatomical structures passes through inguinal canal in male?
A. obturator artery
B. internal pudendal artery
C. pudendal nerve
D. ilio-hypogastric nerve
E. testicular artery *
54. Which of the following herniae could be often incarcerated in female?
A. umbilical
B. inguinal
C. midline of abdomen
D. obturator
E. femoral *
55. External border of umbilical region is:
A. medial edge of rectus muscle
B. alba line of abdomen
C. Spiegel’s line
D. Douglas’ line
E. lateral edge of rectus muscle *
56. The most rare type of hernia is:
A. alba line hernia
B. postoperative hernia
C. Spigel’s line hernia
D. lumbar hernia
E. xyphoid process hernia *
57. Superior border of inguinal region is:
A. lin. costarum
B. lin alba
C. lin. spinoumbilialis
D. lin. pararectalis
E. lin. spinarum *
58. At which of the following levels median laparotomy is accompanied by incision of sheath of
rectus muscle?
A. near the xyphoid process
B. 2-3 см below umbilicus
C. 3-4 см above umbilicu
D. near the pubis
E. at level of umbilicus *
59. Which of the following anatomical structures forms posterior wall of sheath of rectus
muscle at 2-5 cm below umbilicus?
A. aponeurosis of external oblique muscle
B. aponeurosis of internal oblique muscle
C. cartilages of V-VII ribs
D. internal lamina of aponeurosis of internal oblique muscle
E. transverse fascia *
60. Pus in case of phlegmon of suprasternal interaponeurotic space is located between which of
the following neck fasciae?
A. between I and II neck fasciae
B. between superficial and proper neck fasciae
C. between III and IV neck fasciae
D. between superficial and deep laminae of proper neck fascia
E. between II and III neck fasciae *
61. In case of which of the following phlegmons pus could spreads in the mammary gland?
A. phlegmon of suprasternal interaponeurotic space
B. phlegmon of sheath of sternocleidomastoid muscle
C. phlegmon of sac of submandibular gland
D. phlegmon of Gruber’s sac
E. phlegmon of interfascial space (between laminae of superficial fascia) *
62. In case of which of the following phlegmons pus could spreads behind the mammary gland?
A. phlegmon of suprasternal interaponeurotic space
B. phlegmon of sheath of sternocleidomastoid muscle
C. phlegmon of sac of submandibular gland
D. phlegmon of Gruber’s sac
E. subfascial phlegmon (between I and II fasciae) *
63. V. jugularis externa formes at which of the following levels?
A. level of cricoid cartilage
B. level of thyroid cartilage
C. level of 7-8 tracheal rings
D. level of thymus
E. level of angle of mandible *
64. Pus could spreads from sac of submandibular gland to_____________?
A. Pyrogoff’s triangle
B. carotid triangle
C. interaponeurotic space
D. Gruber’s sac
E. along its duct to floor of mouth *
65. V. facialis passes along which of the following surfaces of submandibular gland?
A. internal surface
B. lateral surface
C. medial surface
D. superior surface
E. external surface *
66. A. facialis passes along which of the following surfaces of submandibular gland?
A. lateral surface
B. external surface
C. medial surface
D. superior surface
E. internal surface *
67. Thymus is closely adjacent to which of the following anatomical structures?
A. arch of aorta
B. common carotid artery
C. superior caval vein
D. thoracic duct
E. mediastinal pleura *
68. Which of the following operative approaches is best for incision of superior mediastinitis?
A. sternotomy
B. thoracotomy
C. intercostal
D. paravertebral
E. cervical *
69. At which of the following levels the pleural cavities are most closely adjacent to each other
in interpleural space?
A. I rib
B. V rib
C. VI rib
D. VII rib
E. III rib *
70. Pus could spreads to anterior mediastinum from which of the following cellular spaces of
neck?
A. retrovisceral
B. suprasternal
C. submandibular
D. prevertebral
E. previsceral *
71. Which of the following anatomical structures form anterior wall of sheath for rectus muscle
in fouth level?
A. transverse fascia
B. cartilages of V-VII ribs
C. pyramidal muscle
D. parietal peritoneum
E. aponeuroses of muscles of lateral part *
72. Which of the following arteries realizes blood supply of thymus?
A. arch of aorta
B. lateral thoracic artery
C. descending pharyngeal artery
D. inferior thyroid artery
E. internal thoracic artery *
73. Veins from thoracic part of esophagus flow into which of the following veins?
A. inferior caval vein
B. intercostal veins
C. internal thoracic vein
D. superior caval vein
E. azygos vein *
74. Which of the following nerves innervates the esophagus?
A. accessory nerve
B. phrenic nerve
C. subclavian nerve
D. intercostal nerve
E. vagus nerve *
75. Posterior border of mediastinum is:
A. sternum
B. right sheet of mediastinal pleura
C. left sheet of mediastinal pleura
D. superior edge of manubrium sterni
E. thoracic part of vertebrum *
76. Skeletotopy of thoracic part of aorta?
A. ТhV - TXII
B. ТhV - ThX
C. ТhV - ThIX
D. ТhVI - ThIX
E. ТhIV – ThXI *
77. How we should cut pericardium during operative approach to heart?
A. transverse incision
B. combined incision
C. oblique incision
D. V-shaped incision
E. longitudinal incision *
78. Where is located junction between right and left brachiocephalic veins to form superior
caval vein?
A. at level of right sterno-clavicular joint
B. at level of II right costal cartilage on sternal line
C. at level of III right costal cartilage on sternal line
D. at level of IV right costal cartilage on sternal line
E. at level of I right costal cartilage on sternal line *
79. Where is Marphan’s point for pericardiocentesis?
A. III intercostal space at left parasternal line
B. III intercostal space at right parasternal line
C. IV left intercostal space between parasternal and midclavicular line
D. at angle between xyphoid process and costal arch
E. III intercostal space at right parasternal line *
80. Universal approach to heart is:
A. paravertebral
B. posterior-lateral
C. lateral
D. middle-lateral
E. sternotomy *
81. Which of the following nerves innervates the pericardium?
A. supraclavicular nerves
B. Letarzhe’s nerve
C. accessory nerve
D. lateral thoracic nerve
E. intercostal nerve *
82. The biggest sinus of pericardium is:
A. transverse
B. longitudinal
C. vertical
D. obligue
E. anterio-lower *
83. Which of the following complications could develop after pulmonectomy?
A. hypotension in pulmonary artery
B. lymphostasis
C. atelectasis
D. hemopericardium
E. hypertension in pulmonary artery *
84. Which of the following surgical approaches often is used in case of tumor of lung?
A. lobectomy
B. combined resection of lung
C. segmental resection of lung
D. bilobal resection of lung
E. pulmonectomy *
85. Which of the following surgical approaches is most comfortable for excision of middle lobe
of lung?
A. anterior
B. lateral
C. median
D. posterior
E. antero-lateral *
86. On a hot summer evening, two not-overly-virtuous young ladies got into a scuffle over
which one would go home with a medical student. They came too near a powerful exhaust
fan which caught the hair of one of them and scalped her. The bloody, hairy mass whirling
in the fan had separated between the:
A. Skin and subcutaneous tissue
B. Subcutaneous tissue and the aponeurosis
C. Aponeurosis and the periosteum *
D. Periosteum and the bone
E. Outer table of the skull and the diploic space
87. Cranial nerves transmitting parasympathetic preganglionic neurons include the:
A. Oculomotor nerve *
B. Trochlear nerve
C. Abducens nerve
D. Trigeminal nerve
E. Hypoglossal nerve
88. Match the posterior meningeal artery with its origin from the list below:
A. Occipital *
B. Facial
C. Ascending pharyngeal
D. Posterior auricular
E. Lingual
89. The abducens nerve:
A. Enters the orbit outside the fibrous ring
B. Enters the ocular surface of the lateral rectus *
C. Has its motor nucleus located in the midbrain
D. Carries parasympathetic fibers to the lacrimal gland
E. All of the above are true
90. A patient with a lesion of the XII cranial nerve will present one of the following signs:
A. Loss of sensation over the left margin of the tongue
B. Partial loss of taste
C. Inability to protrude the tongue to the left
D. Loss of sensation from the left half of the dorsum of the tongue
E. None of the these *
91. The hypoglossal (XII) nerve:
A. Emerges from the cranial cavity through the posterior condylar canal
B. Has its cell bodies located in the lower pons
C. Is attached by rootlets to the medulla between the inferior cerebellar peduncle
D. Supllies only the intrinsic muscles of the tongue
E. None of the these *
92. Following a cervical injury, a patient has loss of sensation over ann area lateral to the
ligamentum nuchae on one side indicating injury to a series of posterior primary rami.
Which of the following muscles would probably not be paralyzed?
A. Splenius capitis
B. Splenius cervicis
C. Erector spinae (cervical portion)
D. Longus colli *
E. All of the above would be paralyzed
93. The nerve to the mylohyoid passes:
A. Deep to the mylohyoid muscle
B. Medial to the medial pterygoid muscle
C. Along the upper border of the hyoid bone
D. Inferior to the mylohyoid line *
E. None of these
94. In breaking up a knife fight, a policeman receives a slash under the chin. Prior to suturing,
you explore the wound and find it extends down to but not through the hyoglossus muscle.
Which of the following structures would you expect to find damaged?
A. The submandibular duct and the lingual nerve *
B. The submandibular duct and nerve
C. The glossopharyngeal nerve and lingual artery
D. The submandibular duct and the glossopharyngeal nerve
E. The lingual artery and nerve
95. A patient with carcinoma of the stomach has a small nodal metastasis in the ipsilateral (same
side) inferior deep cervical chain near the thoracic duct termination. The most probable
complication would be:
A. Loss of cough reflex
B. Phrenic nerve paralysis *
C. Weakness of the rotator cuff
D. A winged scapula (serratus anterior paralysis)
E. None of these
96. The superior cervical cardiac nerve originates from:
A. Cervical nerves 3 and 4
B. Cervical nerve 5
C. The superior cervical sympathetic ganglion *
D. The middle cervical sympathetic ganglion
E. The inferior cervical sympathetic ganglion
97. An infiltrating tumor which involves the stellate ganglion (fused inferior cervical and first
thoracic sympathetic ganglion) would lead to which of the following symptoms on the
involved side of the face?
A. Constriction of the pupil
B. Constriction of the pupil and flushing of the skin *
C. Excessive sweating and flushing of the skin
D. Excessive dryness of the mouth and sweating
E. Constriction of the pupil and excessive sweating
98. Match the artery to the parotid gland with its origin from the list below:
A. Occipital
B. Facial
D. Posterior auricular *
E. Lingual
99. Match the artery to the sternocleidomastoid with its origin from the list below:
A. Occipital *
B. Facial
E. Lingual
100. Match the submental artery with its origin from the list below:
A. Occipital
B. Facial *
E. Lingual
101. Match the artery to the submandibular gland with its origin from the list below:
A. Occipital
B. Facial *
E. Lingual
102. Which of the following surgical approaches is most comfortable for inferior
lobectomy?
A. anterior
B. antero-lateral
C. median
D. posterior
E. posterio-lateral *
103. Which of the following surgical approaches is most comfortable for superior
lobectomy?
A. anterior
B. antero-lateral
C. postero-latearl
D. posterior
E. lateral *
104. Place for draining of pleural cavity in case of trauma of thorax:
A. phrenico-mediastinal sinus
B. VI intercostal space at scapular line
C. III intercostal space at midclavicular line
D. two drainage at posterior axillary and midclavicular lines
E. VII intercostal space at posterior axillary line *
105. Which of the following anatomical structures should be stitched in first layer in case
of small penetrating wound of chest wall?
A. superficial muscle, superficial fascia
B. subcutaneous layer, superficial fascia
C. intercostal muscle, subcutaneous layer
D. superficial fascia, subcutaneous layer, skin
E. pleura, intrathoracic fascia, intercostal muscle *
106. Which of the following anatomical structures should be stitched in second layer in
case of small penetrating wound of chest wall?
A. pleura, intrathoracic fascia
B. intercostal muscles
C. superficial fascia
D. subcutaneous tissue, skin
E. superficial muscles *
107. Which of the following anatomical structures should be stitched in third layer in case
of small penetrating wound of chest wall?
A. pleura, intrathoracic fascia
B. intercostal muscles
C. superficial muscles, superficial fascia
D. skin, intrathoracic fascia
E. skin, subcutaneous tissue, superficial fascia *
108. Pleurocentesis in case of presence of air should be done at which of the following
lines?
A. parasternal
B. anterior axillary
C. posterior axillary
D. scapular
E. midclavicular *
109. Level of pleurocentesis (puncture of pleural cavity) in case f presence of air in
pleural cavity:
A. I intercostal space
B. IV-V intercostal spaces
C. V intercostal space
D. V-VI intercostal spaces
E. II-III intercostal spaces *
110. Level of puncture in case f presence of fluid in pleural cavity:
A. IV intercostal space
B. V intercostal space
C. VI intercostal space
D. IX-X intercostal spaces
E. VII-VIII intercostal spaces *
111. Puncture in case of presence of fluid in pleural cavity should be done at which of the
following lines?
A. midclavicular line
B. between midclavicular and anterior axillary lines
C. middle axillary line
D. paravertebral
E. between middle axillary and scapular lines *
112. Skin incision in case of lateral thoracotomy should be completed at which of the
following lines?
A. middle axillary line
B. scapular line
C. paravertebral line
D. parasternal line
E. posterior axillary line *
113. Skin incision in case of lateral thoracotomy should be began at which of the
following levels?
A. IV intercostal space at anterior axillary line
B. V intercostal space at middle axillary line, IV intercostal space at anterior axillary line
C. IV-V intercostal spaces at anterior axillary line
D. IV intercostal space at middle axillary line, V intercostal space at anterior axillary line
E. IV-V intercostal spaces at middle axillary line *
114. Skin incision in case of posterior lateral thoracotomy should be completed at which
of the following levels?
A. VI-VII ribs at posterior axillary line
B. V intercostal space at anterior axillary line
C. ІV intercostal space, middle axillary line
D. ІV intercostal space, posterior axillary line
E. VI-VII ribs at anterior axillary line or middle axillary line *
115. Skin incision in case of posterior lateral thoracotomy should be began at which of the
following levels?
A. posterior axillary line at level of spinal processes of V-IV thoracic vertebrae
B. III-IV thoracic vertebrae at scapular line
C. V intercostal space at posterior axillary line
D. ІV intercostal space posterior axillary line
E. paravertebral line at level of I-II thoracic vetebrae *
116. Skin incision in case of anterior lateral thoracotomy should be began at which of the
following levels?
A. cartilage of III rib at middle axillary line
B. cartilage of IV rib at midclavicular line
C. cartilage of IV rib at anterior axillary line
D. V intercostal space at anterior axillary line
E. cartilage of III rib at parasternal line *
117. Skin incision in case of anterior lateral thoracotomy should be completed at which of
the following levels?
A. middle axillary line
B. scapular line
C. paravertebral line
D. midclavicular line
E. posterior axillary line *
118. Foreign bodies of the upper airways in 70 % of cases fall in which of the following
bronchi?
A. left main bronchus
B. right lobar bronchus
C. left lobar bronchus
D. all are false
E. right main bronchus *
119. Indicate relative position of components of root of right lung in frontal plane?
A. artery, vein, bronchus
B. artery, vein, nerve
C. vein, bronchus, artery
D. vein, artery, bronchus
E. bronchus, artery, vein *
120. Indicate relative position of components of root of right lung in frontal plane
A. artery, vein, bronchus
B. vein, bronchus, artery
C. vein, artery, bronchus
D. bronchus, vein, artery
E. artery, bronchus, vein *
121. Lower border of lungs at scapular line is:
A. upper edge of VI rib
B. VIII rib
C. IX rib
D. X rib
E. lower edge of VII rib *
122. Lower border of lungs at paravertebral line is:
B. lower edge of VI rib
C. IX rib
D. X rib
E. XI rib *
123. Lower border of right lung at sternal line is:
A. V rib
B. VII rib
C. VIII rib
D. IX rib
E. VI rib *
124. Lower border of left lung at parasternal line is:
A. V rib
B. VII rib
C. VIII rib
D. IX rib
E. VI rib *
125. Lower border of lungs at midclavicular line is:
B. lower edge of VI rib
C. lower edge of VII rib
D. VIII rib
E. upper edge of VII rib *
126. Lower border of lungs at anterior axillary line is:
A. upper edge of VII rib
B. VIII rib
C. IX rib
D. X rib
E. lower edge of VII rib *
127. Lower border of lungs at middle axillary line is:
A. lower edge of VI rib
B. upper edge of VII rib
C. lower edge of VII rib
D. XI rib
E. VIII rib *
128. Projection of pleural cupula from the front is:
A. spinal process of V cervical vertebra
B. spinal process of VII cervical vertebra
C. 1 сm below clavicle
D. 1 сm above clavicle
E. 2-3 сm above clavicle *
129. Projection of pleural cupula from behind is:
A. spinal process of V cervical vertebra
B. spinal process of VI cervical vertebra
C. 1 сm above clavicle
D. 2-3 сm above clavicle
E. spinal process of VII cervical vertebra *
130. Which of the following borders of lungs is almost the same with borders of parietal
pleura?
A. lateral
B. lower
C. superior
D. all are not same
E. anterior, posterior *
131. Which of the following organs usually is contents of diaphragmatic hernia?
A. retroperitoneal space, left lobe of liver
B. right lobe of liver
C. anterior wall of stomach
D. posterior wall of stomach, fundus of stomach
E. cardial part of stomach *
132. Which of the following weak places of diaphragm usually is place for entrance of
diaphragmatic hernia into posterior mediastinum?
A. hiatus aorticus
B. centrum tendineum
C. hiatus inferior vena cava
D. Bohdaleck’s triangle
E. hiatus esophageus *
133. Which of the following anatomical structures is weak place of diaphragm?
A. hiatus aorticus
B. centrum tendineum
C. foramen venae cavae inferioris
D. pericardial bed
E. lumbo-costal triangles *
134. Which of the following anatomical structures goes between internal and middle
diaphragmatic peduncles?
A. aorta, inferior vena cava
B. inferior vena cava, esophagus
C. thoracic duct, vagus nerve
D. sympathetic trunk
E. azygos and hemiazygos veins *
135. Which of the following anatomical structures goes between external and middle
diaphragmatic peduncles?
A. aorta, inferior vena cava
B. esophagus, azygos vein
C. hemiazygos vein
D. thoracic duct, vagus nerve
E. sympathetic trunk *
136. Which of the following anatomical structures goes between internal diaphragmatic
peduncles?
A. inferior vena cava, aorta
B. azygos and hemiazygos veins
C. internal trunk, thoracic branches of axillary artery
D. sympathetic trunk, thoracic duct
E. aorta, esophagus, thoracic duct, vagus nerve *
137. Which of the following anatomical structures goes through centrum tendineum of the
diaphragm?
A. aorta
B. azygos vein
C. hemiazygos vein
D. thoracic duct
E. inferior vena cava *
138. The main way of collateral blood flow in case of stagnation in IVC system realizes
through:
A. subclavian vein, lumbar vein
B. common iliac vein
C. bronchial vein
D. brachiocephalic vein, pulmonary vein
E. azygos and hemiazygos veins *
139. Main way of lymph draining from mammary gland is:
A. parasternal lymph nodes
B. intercostal, mediastinal lymph nodes
C. prevertebral lymph nodes
D. visceral abdominal lymph nodes
E. axillary lymph nodes *
140. Sources of blood supply of mammary gland are:
A. thyro-cervical trunk, subscapular artery
B. internal thoracic, subscapular arteries
C. thoraco-acromial, subclavian arteries
D. axillary, subscapular arteries
E. lateral thoracic artery, intercostal arteries, internal thoracic artery *
141. Retromammary cellular space is located between which of the following anatomical
structures?
A. skin, superficial fascia
B. subcutaneous tissue, proper fascia
C. clavi-pectoral fascia
D. internal thoracic fascia
E. superficial fascia, pectoral fascia *
142. Which of the following anatomical structures provides mobility of mammary gland?
A. skin, subcutaneous tissue
B. skin, superficial fascia
C. ligamentum suspensorium mammae
D. pectoral fascia
E. retromammary cellular space *
143. Place attachment of ligamentum suspensorium mammae is:
A. sternal angle
B. sternal body
C. manubrium sterni
D. acromial process of scapula
E. clavicle *
144. Which of the following structures belong to fixative apparatus of mammary gland?
A. muscles of thorax
B. vasculo-nervous bundles
C. retromammary cellular space
D. fat tissue, vasculo-nervous bundles
E. ligamentum suspensorium mammae, fat tissue *
145. Which of the following fasciae forms capsula of mammary gland?
A. pectoral
B. clavi-pectoral
C. proper
D. internal thoracic
E. superficial *
146. Terminal branches of internal thoracic artery are:
A. mediastinal, esophageal
B. bronchial
C. thoracic
D. pericardo-phrenic
E. musculo-diaphragmatic, superior epigastric *
147. Pericardio-diaphragmatic artery arises from internal thoracic artery at which of the
following levels?
A. II rib
B. III rib
C. V rib
D. VI rib
E. I rib *
148. Internal thoracic artery locates at which of the following distance from lateral sternal
edge in retrosternal space at level of VI intercostal space?
A. 2-3 mm
B. 5-10 mm
C. 10-13 mm
D. 15-18 mm
E. to 20 mm *
edge in retrosternal space at level of I intercostal space?
A. 2-3 mm
B. 10-13 mm
C. 15-18 mm
D. tо 20 mm
E. 5-10 mm *
edge in retrosternal space at level of III intercostal space?
A. 2-3 mm
B. 5-10 mm
C. 15-18 mm
D. tо 20 mm
E. 10-13 mm *
151. Intercostal vasculo-nervous bundle is not covered by ribs in front of which f the
following lines?
A. scapular
B. posterior axillary
C. anterior axillary
D. midclavicular
E. middle axillary *
152. Indicate the reason of excessive bleeding from both ends of the damaged intercostal
vessels:
A. high pressure
B. slow venous outflow
C. anastomosis with mediastinal artery
D. arterio-venous anastomosis
E. anastomosis with internal thoracic artery *
153. Muscular fibers of ______________muscles reach just until angle of ribs which
explains the possibility of involvement of intercostal nerves in the inflammatory process of
the pleura?
A. external intercostal
B. subcostal, external intercostal
C. external and internal intercostal
D. subcostal
E. subcostal, internal intercostal *
154. Muscular fibers which of the following muscles reach to sternum?
A. external intercostal
B. subcostal
C. subcostal, external intercostal
D. internal intercostal, subcostal
E. internal intercostal *
155. Distribution of purulent processes from the deep subpectoral cellular space is
possible in which of the following regions?
A. subclavian
B. scapular, subdeltoid
C. subdeltoid, subclavian
D. thoracic cavity, abdominal cavity
E. supraclavicular, axillary, thoracic cavity *
156. Incision in case of subpectoral phlegmon should be made along external edge of
_________ muscle for avoiding damage of clavi-pectoral fascia.
A. lesser pectoral muscle
B. subclavian muscle
C. m. serratus anterior
D. lesser pectoral and subclavian muscles
E. greater pectoral muscle *
157. During incision of subpectoral phlegmon which of the following parts of clavi-
pectoral fascia should be saved for prevention distribution of inflammation to axillary fossa?
A. coracoid process
B. clavicular
C. costal
D. clavicular and costal
E. suspending *
158. Which of the following structures could be damaged in case of surgeries in
subclavian region within pectoral triangle?
A. cephalic vein, superior thoracic artery
B. thoraco-acromial artery, basilic vein
C. subscapular artery, superior thoracic nerve
D. suprascapular nerve, long thoracic nerve
E. axillary artery, lateral thoracic artery, long thoracic nerve *
159. Which of the following structures could be damaged in case of surgeries in
subclavian region within clavi-pectoral triangle?
A. lateral thoracic artery
B. basilic vein, subscapular artery
C. superior thoracic nerve, long thoracic nerve
D. long thoracic nerve, suprascapular nerve
E. cephalic vein, superior thoracic artery, thoraco-acromial artery, superior thoracic nerve *
160. Borders of phlegmon of deep subpectoral cellular space are:
A. greater pectoral muscle (clavicular portion), greater pectoral muscle (sterno-costal portion)
B. greater pectoral muscle (abdominal portion)
C. m. serratus anterior, external intercostal muscles
D. internal intercostal muscles, thoracic fascia, intrathoracic fascia
E. lesser pectoral muscle, clavi-pectoral fascia, thoracic fascia *
161. Borders of phlegmon of superficial subpectoral cellular space are:
A. greater pectoral muscle (clavicular portion), external intercostal muscles
B. m. serratus anterior, internal intercostal muscles
C. thoracic fascia, greater pectoral muscle
D. intrathoracic fascia, thoracic fascia
E. greater pectoral muscle, lesser pectoral muscle, clavi-pectoral fascia *
162. Which of the following vasculo-nervous bundles goes within subcutaneous tissue at
level of middle axillary line?
A. internal thoracic artery, subclavian nerve
B. costo-cervical artery, dorsal nerve
C. superior thoracic artery, subclavian nerve
D. dorsal nerve, internal thoracic artery
E. lateral thoracic artery, long thoracic nerve *
163. Indicate the sources of superficial vessels of chest wall:
A. transversal cervical artery
B. diaphragmatic artery
C. lateral thoracic artery, diaphragmatic artery
D. lateral thoracic artery, diaphragmatic artery, transversal cervical artery
A. E internal thoracic artery, intercostal arteries, lateral thoracic artery *
164. Which of the following arteries goes in antescalenus space in transverse direction?
A. subscapular artery
B. transverse cervical artery
C. superficial cervical artery
D. dorsal scapular artery
E. suprascapular artery *
165. Which of the following nerves passes behind the right subclavian artery?
A. phrenic nerve
B. accessory nerve
C. ansa cervicalis inferior
D. facial nerve
E. reccurent laryngeal nerve *
166. Which of the following complications could be developed in case of injure of neck
veins?
A. veins thrombosis
B. arterial thrombosis
C. varicose veins
D. subcutaneous emphysema
E. air embolism *
167. Subclavian vein passes ________________ the anterior scalenus muscle.
A. behind
B. above
C. in middle third
D. beneth
E. in front of *
168. Which of these fasciae are within occipital triangle?
A. II, III, IV
B. III, IV, V
C. IV, V
D. I, IV, V
E. I, ІІ, V *
169. Which of the following branches of subclavian artery passes between trunks of
brachial plexus?
A. thyro-cervical trunk
B. internal thoracic artery
C. costo-cervical trunk
D. deep cervical artery
E. transverse cervical artery *
170. Which of the following branches of subclavian artery makes anastomosis with
circumflex scapular artery in scapular region?
A. transverse cervical aretry
B. dorsal scapular artery
C. vertebral artery
D. inferior thyroid artery
E. suprascapular artery *
171. Which f the following branches arises from subclavian artery before its entrance to
interscalenus space of neck?
A. thyro-cervical trunk
B. internal thoracic artery
C. costo-cervical trunk
D. deep cervical artery
E. vertebral artery *
172. Which of the following nerves descends on anterior surface of right subclavian artery
in its anterior part?
A. vagus nerve
B. ansa cervicalis inferior
C. recurrent laryngeal nerve
D. all of these
E. phrenic nerve *
173. Venous angle is formed by union which of the following veins?
A. internal jugular vein, external jugula vein
B. brachiocephalic vein, subclavian vein
C. vertebral vein, external jugular vein
D. deep cervical vein, brachiocephalic vein
E. subclavian vein, internal jugular vein *
174. Bottom of scaleno-vertebral triangle of neck is:
A. subclavian vein
B. subclavian artery
C. clavicle
D. subclavian muscle
E. pleural cupula *
175. Which of the following nerves lies on anterior surface of anterior scalenus muscle?
A. hypoglossal nerve
B. accessory nerve
C. superior laryngeal nerve
D. greater occipital nerve
E. phrenic nerve *
176. Which of the following nerves forms thyroid nervous plexus?
A. superior laryngeal nerve
B. accessory nerve
C. hypoglossal nerve
D. phrenic nerve
E. recurrent laryngeal nerve *
177. Cellular space of medial vasculo-nervous bundle is bounded by which of the
following fasciae?
A. І
B. ІІ
C. visceral lamina of IV fascia
D. V
E. parietal lamina of IV fascia *
178. Branches of which of these thyroid arteries is crossed by recurrent laryngeal nerve on
posterior surface of lateral lobe of thyroid gland?
A. superior thyroid artery
B. proper thyroid artery
C. unpair thyroid artery
D. middle thyroid artery
E. inferior thyroid artery *
179. Which fascia separates esophagus from long muscles of neck?
A. I
B. II
C. III
D. ІІІ; IV
E. ІV; V *
180. Which of the following incisions should be done for draining of cellular space of
medial vasculo-nervous bundle of neck?
A. along anterior edge of sternocleidomastoid muscle
B. along posterior edge of sternocleidomastoid muscle
C. Kocher’s approach
D. combined
E. along projection line of vasculo-nervous bundle *
181. Which of the following vessels passes on anterior surface of trachea at level of
sterno-clavicular junction?
A. arch of aorta
B. isthmus of aorta
C. brachio-cephalic trunk
D. subclavian artery
E. comon carotid artery *
182. Point of injection during vago-sympathetic block should be located at level of:
A. middle of anterior edge of sternocleidomastoid muscle
B. jugular notch
C. midpoint of superior edge of esophagus
D. along posterio-lateral surface of esophagus
E. middle of posterior edge of sternocleidomastoid muscle *
183. Middle fistula of neck is located at level of which of the following anatomical
structures:
A. thyroid cartilage
B. cricoid cartilage
C. arytenoid cartilage
D. corniculate cartilage
E. hyoid bone *
184. In which direction thyro-cricoid cartilage should be cutted in case of conycotomy?
A. longitudinal
B. oblique
C. combined
D. radial
E. transversal *
185. Superior thyroid artery is branch of which of the following arteries?
A. internal carotid artery
B. superior laryngeal artery
C. inferior laryngeal artery
D. subclavian artery
E. external carotid artery *
186. Inferior thyroid artery is branch of which of the following arteries?
A. common carotid artery
B. internal carotid artery
C. subclavian artery
D. arch of aorta
E. thyro-cervical trunk *
187. Superior cervical node of sympathetic trunk is crossed from front by vagus nerve at
which of the following cervical vertebrae?
A. I
B. II
C. IV
D. V
E. III *
188. Which of the following arteries arises from external carotid artery at level of greater
cornu of hyoid bone
A. superior laryngeal artery
B. superior thyroid artery
C. ascending laryngeal artery
D. lingual artery
E. facial artery *
189. Which nerves form synocarotid zone in region of bifurcation of common carotid
artery?
A. facial, phrenic nerves, sympathetic trunk
B. lingual, facial, phrenic nerves
C. laryngeal recurrent, lingual, facial nerves
D. glossopharyngeal, lingual, facial nerves
E. vagus, hypoglossal nerves, sympathetic trunk *
190. Which of these nerves innervates platysma?
A. lingual nerve
B. mandibular nerve
C. transverse cervical nerve
D. sympathetic trunk
E. facial nerve *
191. Which of the following nerves associates with nerves of cervical plexus to form
superior root of ansa cervicalis?
A. lingual nerve
B. facial nerve
C. thyro-hyoid nerve
D. transversal cervical nerve
E. hypoglossal nerve *
192. Pulsation of superficial temporal artery could be palpated:
A. 2 cm in front of tragus
B. midpoint of zygomatic arch
C. at the external corner of eye
D. at external edge of temporal bone
E. 1,2 cm in front of tragus *
193. Which of the following directions of incisions of soft tissue of skull to avoid injury
of large vessels and nerves?
A. longitudinal
B. transversal
C. semilunar
D. cmbined
E. radial *
194. Interpterygoid interfascial cellular space is located in which of the following regions
of head?
A. temporal region
B. buccal region
C. occipital region
D. oral cavity
E. deep region of face *
195. Specify the characteristic of facial vein:
A. undulating course
B. presence of valves
C. presence of veno-arterial anastomoses
D. thick wall
E. valveless *
196. Specify the characteristic of facial vein:
A. undulating course
B. thick wall
C. situated near the corner of the mouth
D. situated at midpoint of anterior edge of masseter muscle
E. straight course *
197. Specify the characteristic of facial artery:
A. straight course
B. thick wall
C. presence of valveles
D. valveless
E. undulating course *
198. Which of the following approaches is used for cervical part of esophagus?
A. along anterior edge of right sternocleidomastoid muscle
B. Kocher’s approach
C. combined
D. radial
E. along anterior edge of left sternocleidomastoid muscle *
199. Which of the following structures lies most closely to esophagus within carotid
triangle?
A. internal jugular vein
B. vagus nerve
C. external jugular vein
D. hypoglossal nerve
E. common carotid artery *
200. Weak place of bed of submandibular gland is located in slit between which of the
following muscles?
A. digastric, sternocleidomastoid muscles
B. bellies of digastric muscle
C. digastric, stylohyoid muscles
D. geniohyoid, digastric muscles
E. mylohyoid, hyoglossus muscles *
201. Which of these structures could not be damaged by a deep laceration superior to the
superior nuchal line?
A. Occipital artery
B. Greater occipital nerve
C. Nuchal ligament *
D. Lesser occipital nerve
E. Occipitofrontalis muscle.
202. Which of the following statements about the scalp is not true?
A. Loose areolar tissue occupies the subaponeurotic space
B. The prolific arterial blood supply of the scalp is in the dense subcutaneous tissue
C. The scalp is innervated by the infraorbital nerve *
D. The subaponeurotic layer is sometimes referred to as the danger space of the scalp
E. All of the above statements are true.
203. The sensory nerves of the scalp always include branches from the following nerve
except:
A. Greater occipital nerve (C2)
B. Lesser occipital nerve (C2)
C. Posterior primary ramus of C1 (least occipital nerve) *
D. Supraorbital branch of the ophthalmic division of V
E. Al of the above.
204. A bump on the head produced a “goose egg” while a punch in the face produces a
black eye because:
A. The subcutaneous tissue around the eye is very loose while that in the scalp is dense *
B. There is subcutaneous muscle in the face but not the scalp
C. The skin over the face is thick while that over the scalp is thin
D. There are no lymphatics in the scalp
E. The statement is simply a fact without anatomical explanation.
205. The foramen ovale in the skull
A. Allows entrance of the spinal part of the accessory nerve into the cranial cavity
B. Is located in the petrous part of the temporal bone
C. Allows entrance of the middle meningeal artery into the cranial cavity
D. Allows exit of the mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve *
E. Allows exit of the glossopharyngeal nerve.
206. The foramen spinosum in the skull
A. Allows exit of the facial nerve
B. Is located in the lesser wing of the sphenoid
C. Allows entrance of the middle meningeal artery into the cranial cavity *
D. Allows exit of the maxillary division of the trigeminal nerve
E. Allows passage only of emissary veins.
207. The internal acoustic meatus in the skull
A. Is located in the body of the sphenoid bone
B. Is located in the mastoid bone
C. Allows passage of the glossopharyngeal nerve
D. Allows passage of the facial nerve only
E. Allows passage of the vestibulocochlear nerve and the facial nerve. *
208. The foramen magnum in the skull
A. Allows entrance of the spinal part of the accessory nerve into the cranial cavity *
B. Allows exit of the spinal part of the accessory nerve out of the cranial cavity
C. Is located in the sphenoid bone
D. Is located in the temporal bone
E. Allows entrance of the cranial part of the accessory nerve.
209. The jugular foramen in the skull
A. Is located in the petrous part of the temporal bone
B. Allows exit of the hypoglossal nerve
C. Is located in the middle cranial fossa
D. Allows exit of the vagus nerve *
E. Allows entrance of the external jugular vein.
210. The middle ethmoid sinuses drain into the
A. Middle meatus of the nose *
B. Superior meatus of the nose
C. Sphenoethmoidal recess
D. Inferior meatus of the nose
E. Nasolacrimal duct.
211. The sphenoid sinus drains into the
A. Middle meatus of the nose
C. Sphenoethmoidal recess *
212. The frontal sinus drain into the
B. Lacrimal sac
C. Superior meatus of the nose
D. Sphenoethmoidal recess
E. Inferior meatus of the nose.
213. The anterior ethmoidal sinuses drain into the
A. Lacrimal sac
C. Middle meatus of the nose *
D. Sphenoid sinus
214. The nasolacrimal duct drains into the
A. Lacrimal sac
B. Inferior meatus of the nose *
D. Middle meatus of the nose
E. Sphenoethmoidal recess.
215. The mylohyoid muscle:
A. Is separated from the anterior belly of the digastric by the nerve to the mylohyoid and
submental branch of the facial artery *
B. Is supplied by its own nerve from the submandibular branch of the facial nerve
C. Separates the submandibular lumph glands from the platysma muscle
D. Is supplied by the submandibular branch of the facial nerve which also innervates the
anterior belly of the digastric muscle
E. All of the above are true.
216. Which muscle found on the face shares a common origin and fascial covering with a
muscle of the pharynx?
A. Orbicularis oris
B. Depressor anguli oris
C. Risorius
D. Caninus
E. Buccinator. *
217. Which of the following relations of the hyoglossus muscle is incorrectly stated? It is
deep to the:
A. Lingual artery *
B. Hypoglossal nerve
C. Lingual nerve
D. Mylohyoid muscle
E. Submandibular gland.
218. Which of these statements are not true?
A. The stylohyoid muscle is supplied by the facial nerve
B. The styloglossus muscle is supplied by the hypoglossal nerve
C. The posterior belly of digastric muscle is supplied by the trigeminal nerve *
D. The stylopharyngeal muscle is supplied by the glossopharyngeal nerve
E. All of these statements are true.
219. Which of the following statements concerning the temporalis muscle are true?
A. It is relatively small in the newborn
B. It inserts into the medial surface of the coronoid process
C. It is innervated by the mandibular division of V
D. By contraction of the posterior fibers it retracts the mandible
220. The lateral pterygoids may cause which of the following actions of the mandible?
A. Depression
B. Protraction
C. Side to side movement
D. All of the above *
E. None of the above.
221. The transverse facial artery is usually a branch of the:
A. Superficial temporal artery *
B. Maxillary artery
C. Facial artery
D. Angular artery
E. Infraorbital artery.
222. Which of the following arteries does not accompany its correspondingly named
nerve throughout most of its course?
A. Lingual *
B. Posterior superior alveolar
C. Inferior alveolar
D. Greater palatine
E. Infraorbital.
223. The maxillary artery is distributed to about the same regions and structures as those
supplied by the:
A. Ophthalmic nerve
B. Maxillary nerve
C. Mandibular nerve
D. Ophthalmic and mandibular nerves
E. Maxillary and mandibular nerves. *
224. Which of the following structures is not supplied by the ophthalmic artery?
A. Retina
B. Frontal sinus
C. Ethmoid air cells
D. Lateral wall of the nose
E. All of these are supplied. *
225. The maxillary artery supplies all of the following areas except the:
A. Upper eyelid *
B. Lower eyelid
C. Meninges
D. Upper teeth
E. Lower teeth.
226. The maxillary artery has sixteen or seventeen branches. From the selection given
here, indicate the most important branch for anyone in medical practice to know:
A. Deep auricular
B. Masseteric
C. Middle meningeal *
D. Anterior deep temporal
E. Infraorbital.
227. Which of the following branches does not arise from the facial artery?
A. Labial
B. Tonsillar
C. Submental
D. Stylomastoid *
E. Submandibular.
228. Which of the following is not a branch of the maxillary artery?
A. Artery of the pterygoid canal
B. Mylohyoid artery *
C. Pharyngeal artery
D. Infraorbital artery
E. Posterior superior alveolar artery.
229. Which of the following structures is supplied by the facial artery?
A. Tonsil
B. Soft palate
C. Sublingual gland
D. Anterior belly of digastric
E. All of these structures are supplied by the facial artery. *
230. Following a boil on the upper lip, a rural lowan became comatose. The infection has
spread to the cavernous sinus from the facial vein by its communication with the:
A. Occipital sinus
B. Straight sinus
C. Superior saggital sinus
D. Maxillary sinus
E. Ophthalmic veins. *
231. Tributaries of the internal jugular vein include the:
A. Common facial vein
B. Inferior petrosal sinus
C. Middle meningeal vein
D. Inferior alveolar vein
E. All of these. *
232. The pterygoid plexus receives tributaries from the:
A. Sphenopalatine vein
B. Deep temporal vein
C. Middle meningeal vein
D. Inferior alveolar vein
E. All of these. *
233. In the root of the neck the left vagus nerve lies:
A. Anterior to the sympathetic trunk *
B. Medial to the common carotid artery
C. Lateral to the phrenic nerve
D. Posterior to the subclavian artery
234. Around which artery does the right recurrent laryngeal nerve hook as it passes to the
larynx?
A. The aortic arch
B. The brachiocephalic trunk
C. The right subclavian artery *
D. The right common carotid artery
E. The right inferior thyroid artery.
235. An invasive tumor of the thyroid gland is least likely to result in which of the
following?
A. Hoarseness
B. Tracheal obstruction
C. Phrenic nerve dysfunction *
D. Cervical sympathetic dysfunction
E. Lymph node enlargement in the neck.
236. Which one of the following structures does not come into contact with the thyroid
gland or its capsule?
A. The right recurrent laryngeal nerve
B. The left vagus nerve *
C. The left common carotid artery
D. The esophagus
E. All of the above come into contact with the thyroid gland or its capsule.
237. The arterial supply to the larynx includes branches of the:
A. Lingual artery
B. Superior thyroid artery
C. Facial artery
D. Inferior thyroid artery
E. Superior and inferior thyroid arteries. *
238. The following statements concerning an intercostal space are correct except which?
A. The anterior intercostals arteries of the lower five intercostals spaces are branches of the
musculophrenic artery
B. The sensory fibers in the lower five intercostals nerves supply the skin of lateral thoracic
and anterior abdominal walls
C. The posterior intercostals arteries of the lower nine spaces are branches of the thoracic
aorta
D. Throughout an intercostals space, the intercostals nerves and blood vessels lie close to
the upper border of the lower rib*
E. The intercostals nerves and blood vessels run between the internal and the innermost
intercostals muscles.
239. The following statements concerning the structure of the heart are correct except
which?
A. The trabeculae carneae are internal surface structures of both the left and the right
ventricles
B. The pericardial cavity is the potential space between the fibrous and the serous
pericardia*
C. The coronary arteries are functional end arteries
D. The sinuatrial node is supplied by the right and sometimes the left coronary artery
E. The four pulmonary veins open through the posterior wall of the left atrium and there are
no valves.
240. The following statements regarding the innervation of thoracic structures are correct
except which?
A. The lung and visceral pleura are innervated by the autonomic nerves and are not
sensitive to sensation of temperature, touch, and pressure
B. The motor innervation of the diaphragm is provided by the third, fourth, and fifth
cervical spinal nerves and by the lower six intercostals nerves*
C. The sensory nerve supply to the mucous membrane of the lower part of the trachea is
from the vagus and the recurrent laryngeal nerves
D. The nerve supply of the pericardium is the phrenic nerves
E. The sinuatrial node is supplied by sympathetic and parasympathetic nerves via the
cardiac plexuses.
241. The following statements concerning thoracic structures are correct except which?
A. The carina is the name given to the site of bifurcation of the trachea
B. The ligamentum arteriosum is the remains of the ductus arteriosus
C. The ductus arteriosus is formed from the sixth left pharyngeal arch
D. The thymus lies in the middle mediastinum*
E. The thymus receives its arterial supply mainly from the internal thoracic artery.
242. The following events occur on inhalation except which?
A. The diaphragm descends
B. The external intercostals muscles contract
C. The abdominal muscles contract and push the abdominal viscera cranially *
D. The ribs are raised
E. The vertical dimension of the thoracic cavity increases.
243. When passing a needle through the chest wall and into the pleural cavity in the
midaxillary line, the following structures will be pierced except which?
A. The external intercostal muscle
B. The skin
C. The parietal pleura
D. The levator costarum *
E. The internal intercostal muscle.
244. The following statements concerning the bronchopulmonary segments are correct
except which?
A. It is a subdivision of a lung lobe
B. It is pyramidal in shape, with its apex toward the lung surface *
C. It is surrounded by connective tissue
D. It has a segmental bronchus, a segmental artery, lymph vessels, and autonomic nerves
E. When diseased, it can be removed surgically as a structural unit.
245. The following statements concerning the main bronchi are correct except which?
A. The right main bronchus is wider than the left main bronchus
B. The right main bronchus is shorter than the left main bronchus
C. The right main bronchus is m than the left main bronchus
D. The left main bronchus passes to the left in front of the esophagus
E. The left main bronchus gives off the superior lobar bronchus before entering the hilum of
the lung. *
246. The following structures open into the right atrium except which?
A. The superior vena cava
B. The coronary sinus
C. The anterior cardiac vein
D. The inferior vena cava
E. The right pulmonary veins. *
247. The conducting system of the heart is composed of the following structures except
which?
A. The Purkinje plexus
B. The deep cardiac plexus *
C. The sinuatrial node
D. The atrioventricular bundle
E. The atrioventricular node.
248. Pain due to a gastric ulcer may be referred to the
A. Umbilical region
B. Right iliac region
C. Epigastric region *
D. Penis or clitoris
249. Pain caused by appendicitis may first be referred to the
A. Right iliac region
B. Umbilical region *
C. Point of the shoulder
D. Epigastric region
E. Below the right shoulder blade.
250. Interminent pain (colic) in the small intestine may be referred to
A. The epigastric region
B. The left iliac region
C. Just above the symphysis pubis
D. The umbilical region *
251. Pain caused by the passage of a stone down the lower end of the left ureter may be
referred to the
A. Umbilical region
B. Right iliac region
C. Epigastric region
D. Penis or clitoris *
252. The short gastric arteries originate from the
A. Superior mesenteric artery
B. Hepatic artery
C. Splenic artery *
D. Inferior phrenic artery
E. Left renal artery.
253. The right gastric artery originates from the
A. Inferior mesenteric artery
B. Superior mesenteric artery
C. Hepatic artery *
D. Gastroduodenal artery
254. The left gastric artery originates from the
A. Superior mesenteric artery
B. Left renal artery
C. Splenic artery
D. Celiac artery *
E. Hepatic artery.
255. The gastroduodenal artery originates from the
A. Splenic artery
B. Hepatic artery *
C. Superior mesenteric artery
D. Right renal artery
E. Celiac artery.
256. The left gastroepiploic artery originates from the
A. Inferior mesenteric artery
B. Superior mesenteric artery
C. Splenic artery *
D. Celiac artery
E. Left renal artery
257. The descending colon receives parasympathetic nerves from the
A. Pelvic splanchnic nerves *
B. Spinal cord segments L1 and 2
C. Greater splanchnic nerve
D. Lesser splanchnic nerve
E. Vagus nerve.
258. The jejunum receives sympathetic nerves from the
A. Vagus nerve
B. Pelvic splanchnic nerves
C. Spinal cord segments L1 and 2
D. Greater splanchnic nerve and lesser splanchnic nerve *
E. Spinal cord segments S2, 3 and 4.
259. The sigmoid colon receives sympathetic nerves from the
A. Lesser splanchnic nerve
B. Vagus nerve
D. Spinal cord segments L1 and 2 *
E. Spinal cord segments T5 to 9.
260. The ileum receives parasympathetic nerves from the
A. Vagus nerve *
B. Pelvic splanchnic nerves
C. Lesser splanchnic nerve
D. Spinal cord segments T10 and 11
E. Inferior mesenteric plexus.
261. The azygos vein passes _______ in the diaphragm.
A. Through the aortic hiatus *
B. Through the esophageal hiatus
C. Through the vena caval hiatus
D. Through perforations in the crura
E. Between the slips of origin of the diaphragm from the ribs.
262. The thoracic duct passes through _______ in the diaphragm.
A. The esophageal hiatus
B. The vena caval hiatus
C. The aortic hiatus *
D. Perforations in the crura
263. The vagus nerves pass _______ in the diaphragm.
A. Through the vena caval hiatus
B. Through the aortic hiatus
C. Between the slips of origin of the diaphragm from the ribs
D. Through the esophageal hiatus *
E. Through the perforations in the crura.
264. Lymphatic spread of carcinoma of the fundus of the stomach is likely to metastasize
to the
A. Internal iliac nodes
B. Superior mesenteric nodes
C. Inferior mesenteric nodes
D. Celiac nodes *
E. Right gastroepiploic nodes.
265. Infection from an inflamed appendix is likely to spread via the lymphatics to the
A. Superior mesenteric nodes *
B. Celiac nodes
C. Splenic nodes
D. Inferior mesenteric nodes
E. Right internal iliac nodes.
266. In both sexes, the inguinal canal is formed by the
A. Descent of the gonad
B. Contraction of the gubernaculums
C. Processus vaginalis *
D. Growth and descent of the ilioinguinal nerve
E. Contraction of the cremaster muscle.
267. The lacunar ligament is
A. Formed from the conjoint tendon
B. Part of the posterior wall of the rectus sheath
C. Not continuous with the inguinal ligament
D. An important medial relation to the femoral ring of the femoral sheath *
E. Attached to the inferior ramus of the pubis.
268. Which of the following statements about the portal vein is untrue?
A. It lies near the free edge of the hepatoduodenal ligament
B. It is formed by the junction of the superior mesenteric and splenic veins
C. It lies posterior to the common bile duct
D. It lies posterior to the hepatic artery
E. All of the above are true *
269. A surgeon wishes to anastomose the splenic and renal veins to treat portal venous
hypertension. After removing the spleen, the free end of the splenic vein is to be found in
the:
A. Gastrophrenic ligament
B. Lienorenal ligament *
C. Gastrosplenic ligament
D. Left edge of the lesser omentum
E. None of the above places
270. Advanced cirrhosis of the liver often results in portal hypertension. Which of the
following signs is not directly related to portal hypertension?
A. Gastroesophageal varices
B. Hemorrhoids (varicose veins in the rectum)
C. Caput medusae (dilation of the superficial umbilical veins)
D. Ascites (accumulation of fluid in the abdominal cavity)
E. Varicocele (varicose veins of the pampiniform plexus) *
271. The foramen ovale in the skull
A. Allows entrance of the spinal part of the accessory nerve into the cranial cavity
B. Is located in the petrous part of the temporal bone
C. Allows entrance of the middle meningeal artery into the cranial cavity
D. Allows exit of the mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve *
E. Allows exit of the glossopharyngeal nerve.
272. The foramen spinosum in the skull
A. Allows exit of the facial nerve
B. Is located in the lesser wing of the sphenoid
C. Allows entrance of the middle meningeal artery into the cranial cavity *
D. Allows exit of the maxillary division of the trigeminal nerve
E. Allows passage only of emissary veins.
273. The internal acoustic meatus in the skull
A. Is located in the body of the sphenoid bone
B. Is located in the mastoid bone
C. Allows passage of the glossopharyngeal nerve
D. Allows passage of the facial nerve only
E. Allows passage of the vestibulocochlear nerve and the facial nerve. *
274. The foramen magnum in the skull
A. Allows entrance of the spinal part of the accessory nerve into the cranial cavity *
B. Allows exit of the spinal part of the accessory nerve out of the cranial cavity
C. Is located in the sphenoid bone
D. Is located in the temporal bone
E. Allows entrance of the cranial part of the accessory nerve.
275. The jugular foramen in the skull
A. Is located in the petrous part of the temporal bone
B. Allows exit of the hypoglossal nerve
C. Is located in the middle cranial fossa
D. Allows exit of the vagus nerve *
E. Allows entrance of the external jugular vein.
276. The middle ethmoid sinuses drain into the
C. Sphenoethmoidal recess
277. The sphenoid sinus drains into the
A. Middle meatus of the nose
C. Sphenoethmoidal recess *
278. The frontal sinus drain into the
B. Lacrimal sac
D. Sphenoethmoidal recess
279. The anterior ethmoidal sinuses drain into the
A. Lacrimal sac
C. Middle meatus of the nose *
D. Sphenoid sinus
280. The nasolacrimal duct drains into the
A. Lacrimal sac
B. Inferior meatus of the nose *
D. Middle meatus of the nose
E. Sphenoethmoidal recess.
281. Which of these structures could not be damaged by a deep laceration superior to the
superior nuchal line?
A. Occipital artery
B. Greater occipital nerve
C. Nuchal ligament *
D. Lesser occipital nerve
E. Occipitofrontalis muscle.
282. Which of the following statements about the scalp is not true?
A. Loose areolar tissue occupies the subaponeurotic space
B. The prolific arterial blood supply of the scalp is in the dense subcutaneous tissue
C. The scalp is innervated by the infraorbital nerve *
D. The subaponeurotic layer is sometimes referred to as the danger space of the scalp
E. All of the above statements are true.
283. The sensory nerves of the scalp always include branches from the following nerve
except:
A. Greater occipital nerve (C2)
B. Lesser occipital nerve (C2)
C. Posterior primary ramus of C1 (least occipital nerve) *
D. Supraorbital branch of the ophthalmic division of V
E. Al of the above.
284. A bump on the head produced a “goose egg” while a punch in the face produces a
black eye because:
A. The subcutaneous tissue around the eye is very loose while that in the scalp is dense *
B. There is subcutaneous muscle in the face but not the scalp
C. The skin over the face is thick while that over the scalp is thin
D. There are no lymphatics in the scalp
E. The statement is simply a fact without anatomical explanation.
285. When trying to locate the parotid duct, a physician would consider each of the following
relationships EXCEPT:
A. its opening can be seen in the vestibule of the mouth opposite the upper 2nd premolar tooth
B. it extends from the anterior border of the parotid gland
C. it can be palpated as it crosses the face, superficial to the masseter muscle
D. it is inferior to the zygomatic arch
E. it is superior to the zygomatic arch *
286. Which of the following statements best describes the facial vein?
A. it is located within the substance of the parotid gland
B. it communicates superiorly with the ophthalmic vein *
C. it is more tortuous than the facial artery
D. it lies anterior to the facial artery as it passes through the face
E. it usually empties into the external
287. The tickling sensation felt in the nasal cavity, just prior to a sneeze is probably carried in
which of the following nerves?
A. facial
B. maxillary division of trigeminal *
C. mandibular division of the trigeminal
D. glossopharyngeal
E. none of the above
288. Tumors of the head may grow from one region of the head to another by passing through
fissures and foramina. Knowing this, if you found a tumor in the pterygopalatine fossa, it may have
developed there primarily or it may have grown into the fossa from any of the following EXCEPT:
A. infratemporal fossa
B. cranial cavity by way of the foramen ovale *
C. cranial cavity by way of the foramen rotundum
D. nasal cavity
E. oral cavity by way of the greater
289. The 4th cranial nerve (trochlear) innervates:
A. the lacrimal caruncle
B. a muscle that turns the eyeball superiorly and laterally
C. the lacrimal gland
D. the medial part of the lower eyelid
E. a muscle that turns the eyeball inferiorly *
290. During a physical examination, you have a patient stick out his/her tongue and say
AAH. The muscle that is responsible for this movement is the:
A. geniohyoid
B. styloglossus
C. palatoglossus
D. genioglossus *
E. hyoglossus
291. The coronoid process belongs to which bone in the head?
A. maxillary
B. mandible *
C. sphenoid
D. occipital
E. temporal
292. The muscles of mastication, their nerves and their vessels are located primarily in
which part of the head?
A. pterygopalatine fossa
B. jugular fossa
C. incisive fossa
D. infratemporal fossa *
E. temporal fossa
293. During a sinus attack, painful sensation from the ethmoid cells is carried in which
nerve?
A. meningeal
B. greater petrosal
C. pterygoid
D. nasociliary *
E. frontal
294. The facial artery gives rise to branches that supply each of the regions listed below
EXCEPT for the:
A. medial angle of the orbit
B. lateral nose
C. region of the eyebrow *
D. upper lip
E. lower lip
295. All of the following structures are located within the walls or cavity of the cavernous
sinus EXCEPT for the:
A. oculomotor nerve
B. internal carotid artery
C. ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve
D. mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve *
E. abducens nerve
296. The lateral wall of the ethmoid sinus is also part of the medial wall of the:
A. nasal cavity
B. orbit *
C. anterior cranial fossa
D. oropharynx
E. nasopharynx
297. The facial nerve:
A. exits the cranium through the foramen ovale
B. provides the primary parasympathetic supply to the parotid gland
C. supplies taste fibers to the posterior 1/3 of the tongue
D. supplies motor fibers to the medial pterygoid muscle
E. supplies motor fibers to the stapedius *
298. The tympanic plexus of nerves is found on the:
A. floor of the middle ear cavity
B. pyramid of the middle ear
C. medial surface of the tympanic membrane
D. promontory of the middle ear cavity *
E. mucous membrane lining the vestibule
299. Loss of lacrimation (dry eye) can be due to an injury to which nerve?
A. nasociliary
B. greater petrosal *
C. supraorbital
D. anterior ethmoid
E. lesser petrosal
300. Upon examining a sick child, you notice pus draining from the middle meatus of the
nose. You might suspect and look for further evidence of an infection originating from the:
A. nasolacrimal duct
B. sphenoid sinus
C. maxillary sinus *
D. mastoid sinus
E. posterior ethmoidal air cells
301. Destruction of which of the following would result in loss of pain from the anterior
2/3 of the tongue?
A. pterygopalatine ganglion
B. otic ganglion
C. trigeminal ganglion *
D. geniculate ganglion
E. inferior ganglion of the glossopharyngeal
302. An upper eyelid that droops (ptosis) - symptom that occur after a particular lesion of
which of the following nerves:
A. trochlear nerve
B. oculomotor nerve *
C. facial nerve
303. Loss of tears over the eyeball (dry eye) - symptom that occur after a particular lesion
of which of the following nerves:
A. trochlear nerve
B. oculomotor nerve
C. facial nerve *
304. A pupil that is small in diameter with no light reflex - symptom that occur after a
particular lesion of which of the following nerves:
A. trochlear nerve
B. oculomotor nerve
C. facial nerve
E. none of the above *
305. On protrusion, the tongue deviates to one side - symptom that occur after a particular
lesion of which of the following nerves:
A. trochlear nerve
B. oculomotor nerve
C. facial nerve
D. hypoglossal nerve *
306. Pulsations felt just above the zygomatic arch and in front of the ear are from which
vessel?
A. facial
B. internal jugular vein
C. superficial temporal artery *
D. retromandibular vein
E. maxillary artery
307. Which of the following accompanies the optic nerve through the optic canal?
A. cranial nerves III, IV and VI
B. ophthalmic nerve
C. meninges and opthalmic artery *
D. ophthalmic veins
308. The sensory supply to the skin over the lower eyelid comes from the:
A. mental nerve
B. maxillary division of the trigeminal *
C. auriculotemporal nerve
D. buccal branch of the trigeminal nerve
E. ophthalmic division of the trigeminal
309. The pterygomandibular raphe serves as a point of attachment for two important
muscles. They are:
A. superior constrictor and buccinator *
B. masseter and inferior constrictor
C. medial pterygoid and lateral pterygoid
D. lateral pterygoid and superior constrictor
E. lateral pterygoid and buccinator
310. The opening from the pterygopalatine fossa to the nasal cavity is the:
A. pterygoid canal
B. pterygomaxillary fissure
C. foramen rotundum
D. sphenopalatine foramen *
E. pharyngeal canal
311. Impaired function of which of the following muscles would result in difficulty in
protruding the lower jaw?
A. digastric
B. lateral pterygoid *
C. medial pterygoid
D. masseter
E. temporalis
312. Which nerve innervates the muscle for tight closure of the eyelids?
A. facial *
B. oculomotor
C. sympathetic
D. trigeminal
E. vagus
313. An acoustic neuroma is a tumor involving the vestibulocochlear nerve as it exits the
cranial cavity. Because this tumor compresses surrounding structures or invades nearby
tissues, in addition to hearing loss and equilibrium problems, a patient would most likely
also demonstrate ipsilateral (same sided):
A. loss of general sensation to the face
B. facial paralysis *
C. paralysis of the lateral rectus muscle
D. tongue paralysis
E. ptosis
314. A gag reflex overcomes your patient as you lightly swab an area of the oropharynx.
What nerve carries the sensory fibers of this reflex?
A. mandibular
B. maxillary
C. facial
D. glossopharyngeal *
E. vagus
315. Each of the following is characteristic of the maxillary sinus EXCEPT that:
A. it is lined with mucous membrane.
B. it drains through an opening under the superior concha (turbinate) *
C. it may become infected from an abscessed tooth.
D. its roof is the floor of the orbit.
E. its lining is innervated by the trigeminal
316. All of the following paranasal sinuses drain into the middle meatus, EXCEPT the:
A. frontal
B. maxillary
C. sphenoid *
D. anterior ethmoid
E. middle ethmoid
317. A nosebleed (epistaxis) frequently occurs because of picking of the nose with the
finger at the anterior inferior portion of the nasal septum. Branches of which arteries may be
involved?
A. maxillary and facial *
B. facial and ophthalmic
C. ophthalmic and maxillary
D. facial and maxillary
E. none of these
318. A lesion of the facial nerve just after it exits from stylomastoid foramen would result
in:
A. an ipsilateral (same side) loss of taste to the anterior tongue
B. a decrease in saliva production in the floor of the mouth
C. a sensory loss to the tongue
D. an ipsilateral paralysis of facial muscles *
E. a contralateral (opposite side)
319. The vertical depression in the midline of the upper lip is called the:
A. uvula
B. frenulum
C. philtrum *
D. torus
E. mentum
320. Depression of the jaw (opening the mouth) is accomplished by contraction of which
of the following muscles and gravity?
A. lateral pterygoids
B. geniohyoids
C. mylohyoid
D. digastrics
E. all of the above *
321. Arrange the following from lateral to medial: 1) infratemporal fossa; 2) nasal cavity;
3) pterygo-maxillary fissure; 4) pterygo-palatine fossa; 5) sphenopalatine foramen:
A. 1 4 5 2 3
B. 4 1 5 3 2
C. 1 3 4 5 2 *
D. 5 1 3 2 4
E. 1 3 5 4 2
322. A neurologist checking cranial nerve function olaces his fingers over the eyelids of
his patient and asks the patient to try to keep her eyes closed while he attempts to open
them. This is obviously one test of the functional integrity of the:
A. Facial nerve *
B. Motor root of the trigeminal nerve
C. Abducens nerve
D. Trochlear nerve
E. None of these
323. An injury to the mandibular nerve, just before it passes through the foramen ovale,
may give rise to one of the following effects:
A. Loss of function of levator veli palatini
B. Loss of secretion from the submandibular gland on that side
C. Weakness of depression of the mandible against resistance *
D. Loss of taste from the anterior 2/3 of the tongue on that side
E. None of the above effects could result from the injury described
324. A distinguished pianist is unable to meet his concert commitments because of
difficulty of vision and pain and vesicles over the right half of his forehead and nose. You
suspect herpes zoster (shingles) of the right:
A. Facial nerve
B. Optic nerve
C. Ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve *
D. Maxillary division of the trigeminal nerve
E. Mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve
325. A patient complains of difficulty in chewing following head injury. On examination,
you find his jaw moves asymmetrically, and he has blunting of sensation over the front of
the tongue and lower lip on one side. Tongue movements are normal. You suspect a
fractured base of skull with a fracture line running through the:
A. Stylomastoid foramen
B. Anterior condylar canal
C. Foramen lacerum
D. Foramen ovale *
E. None of these transmits the nerve involved
326. A surgeon injected local anesthetic into the mandibular division of the trigeminal
nerve as it emerges from the foramen ovale. The following sensory and/or taste loss
resulted:
A. Loss of taste and sensation in the anterior 2/3 of the same side of the tongue
B. Loss of taste and sensation from the posterior 1/3 of the same side of the tongue
C. Loss of sensation only from the anterior 2/3 of the same side of the tongue *
D. Loss of taste only from the anterior 2/3 of the same side of the tongue
E. None of these is true
327. A dentist operating on a left lower third molar tooth injures a nerve which lies close
to the mandible at that point. His patient subsequently sued him on the grounds that he:
A. Suffered repeated cigarette burns of his lower lip
B. Constantly bit his tongue *
C. Could not distinguish sweet from dry sherry
D. Could not protrude his tongue in the midline
E. Had a constantly dry mouth
328. A patient has a sunken appearance along the ramus of the mandible and above the
zygomatic arch due to muscle atrophy. Which of the following lesions would contribute mot
to cause this defect?
A. Lesion of the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve
B. Lession of the great auricular and the lesser occipital nerves
C. Lesion of the mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve *
D. Lesion of the maxillary division of the trigeminal nerve
E. Lesion of the facial nerve
329. In an infant, facial nerve palsy can be caused by the improper use of obstetric
forceps. The newborn anatomy which causes the nerve to be vulnerable is the:
A. Small size of the parotid gland
B. Absence of the mastoid process *
C. Small size of the coronoid process
D. Relative flatness of the parietal emminence
E. Inverted angle of the mandible
330. The facial nerve carries fibers subserving all but one of the following functions:
A. Secretomotor to the lacrimal gland
B. Secretomotor to the submandibular gland
C. Motor to the stapedius muscle
D. Some sensation to the soft palate
E. Taste to the posterior 1/3 of the tongue *
331. Which of the following statements does not apply to the mandibular division of the
trigeminal nerve?
A. It carries sensory innervation to the tongue
B. It furnishes motor innervation to the tongue *
C. It can be anesthetized intraorally to block the lower jaw
D. It helps to supply the dura
E. It supplies the muscles of mastication
332. A 75 year old patient is experiencing extreme pain in the anterior portion of the
alveolar ridge. This pain is greatest during mastications, when pressure is applied to the
area. The gums appear normal. The patient states that he has worn dentures since the age of
25. which of the following seems most likely?
A. The pain is due to pressure on the buccal branch of the trigeminal nerve
B. The pain is due to pressure on the inferior alveolar nerve at the mandibular foramen
C. The pain is due to pressure on the mental nerve at the mental foramen *
D. The pain is reffered from the nasopalatine nerve
E. The pain is psychosomatic
333. A surgeon injected local anesthetic into the mandibular division of the trigeminal
nerve as it emerges from the foramen ovale. All but one of the following muscles will be
paralyzed:
A. The masseter
B. The anterior fibers of the temporalis
C. The buccinator *
D. The tensor veli palatini
E. The tensor tympani
334. A housewife complains that during chewing, food accumulates in the vestibule of her
mouth. You suspect a lesion of the:
A. Mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve
B. Facial nerve *
C. Glossopharyngeal nerve
D. Spinal accessory nerve
335. The facial nerve supplies all but one of the following muscles:
A. The buccinator
B. The risorius
C. The posterior belly of the digastric
D. The stylopharyngeus *
E. The stylohyoid
336. A neurologist checking the function of the cranial nerves places his fingers just
below the zygomatic arches of his patient and asks the patient to bite down. If he feels
muscles contract he knows that which nerve is functioning normally?
A. The facial
B. The hypoglossal
C. The accessory
D. The motor root of the trigeminal *
E. The vagus
337. The buccal branch of the mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve passes:
A. Between the superior and inferior heads of the lateral pterygoid
B. Anterior to the ramus of the mandible
C. Through the buccal fat pad
D. Lateral to the buccinator muscle
E. All of these *
338. The major sensory branch of the anterior division of the mandibular nerve is the:
A. Deep posterior temporal nerve
B. Inferior alveolar nerve
C. Buccal nerve *
D. Auriculotempora nerve
E. None of these
339. On resecting the lower part of the ramus of the mandible in an approach to the
infratemporal fossa a surgeon sees two nerves on the exposed surface of the medial
pterygoid muscle. They are the:
A. Linqual and hypoglossal nerves
B. Linqual and inferior alveolar nerves *
C. Inferior alveolar and hypoglossal nerves
D. Hypoglossal and glossopharyngeal nerves
E. There are no nerves in this location, he is mistaking fascia for nerves
340. The nerves supplying the muscles which protrude the tongue is the:
A. Glossopharyngeal nerve
B. Trigeminal nerve
C. Facial nerve
D. Vagus nerve
E. Hypoglossal nerve *
341. Which of the following nerves is not a branch of the ophthalmic division of the
trigeminal nerve?
A. The lacrimal nerve
B. The frontal nerve
C. The nasociliary nerve
D. The middle meningeal nerve *
E. The tentorial nerve
342. Injures to, or diseases of, the facial nerve may result in paralysis of muscles supplied
by the nerve. Which of the following muscles is not supplied by the facial nerve?
A. The buccinator
B. The occipitofrontalis
C. The stapedius
D. The tensor tympani *
E. All the above muscles are supplied by the facial nerve
343. After an autumn night of poker, a medical student noticed that one side of a fellow
student’s face was smooth, his eye would not close, his mouth drooped, and saliva drooled
out of the corner of his mouth. Further examination revealed no change in his ability to taste
in the anterior 2/3 of the tongue. You suspect a lesion (unspecified damage) of the:
A. Mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve
B. Glossopharyngeal nerve in the jugular foramen
C. Facial nerve in the internal auditory meatus
D. Facial nerve in the middle ear
E. Facial nerve after its exit from the skull *
344. Loss of general and special sense from the posterior one-third of the tongue
following tonsillectomy is due to damage or compression to terminal portions of the:
A. Vagus nerve
B. Glossopharyngeal nerve *
C. Chorda tympani
D. Lesser palatine nerve
E. Lingual nerve
345. An anatomy instructor is unable to raise one of his eyebrows in surprise when you
answer his question correctly. You diagnose injure to his:
A. Frontal nerve
B. Anterior deep temporal nerve
C. Zygomaticotemporal nerve
D. Zygomaticofacial nerve
E. Temporal branch of the facial nerve *
346. Cutaneous branches of the ophthalmic nerve (V1) include the:
A. Supraorbital nerve
B. Supratrochlear nerve
C. Lacrimal nerve
D. All of these *
E. None of these
347. When the inferior alveolar nerve is blocked for extraction of a tooth, one can expect
anesthesia to also involve the:
A. Floor of the mouth
B. Upper incisors
C. Cheek
D. Lower lip *
E. Upper molars
348. Which of the following does not open into the pterygopalatine fossa?
A. Sphenopalatine foramen
B. Pterygomaxillary fissure
C. Foramen rotundum
D. Pterygopalatine canal
E. Superior orbital fissure *
349. If you were to inject a local anesthetic into and around the foramen ovale, which of
the following functions would not be impaired?
A. Loss of sensation to teeth of lower jaw on same side
B. Inability to chew effectively on same side
C. Interference with parotid gland function
D. Loss of taste to the anterior 2/3 of the tongue *
E. All of the above would be impaired
350. Tic dolourex – is a condition of unknown cause with severe pain along the maxillary
and mandibular divisions of the trigeminal nerve. This condition is sometimes relieved by
alcohol injections into the trigeminal ganglion. Which of the following foramina would be
used to reach the ganglion?
A. Foramen spinosum
B. Stylomastoid foramen
C. Foramen caecum
D. Foramen ovale *
E. Jugular foramen
351. What is the volume of the frontal sinus at birth?
A. 1 cc
B. 5 cc
C. 10 cc
D. 15 cc
E. None of these *
352. The orbit is closely related to which of the following paranasal sinuses?
A. The frontal
B. The maxillary
C. The sphenoid
D. The ethmoid
E. All of these are correct *
353. A patient consults you because he can feel a horizontal cord-like structure just below
his cheek bone when he clenches his teeth. You reassure him it is the:
A. Mandibular nerve
B. Facial nerve
C. Long buccal nerve
D. Transverse facial vein and artery
E. Parotid duct *
354. Both benign and malignant tumors of the parotid gland are common. The surgeon
commonly suspects malignancy when he sees signs of possible invasion of structures in or
in contact with the parotid gland. You might suspect a tumor was malignant if the patient
has apparently lost the functional integrity of any but one of the following:
A. Superficial temporal artery
B. External carotid artery
C. Auriculotemporal nerve
D. Facial nerve
E. Any of these could be involved – they are all closely related to the gland *
355. To reduce bleeding during excision of a sublingual salivary gland, a surgeon may
well elect to ligate the:
A. Superior thyroid artery
B. Lingual artery
C. Facial artery *
D. Maxillary artery
E. None of these give a substantial contribution to the blood supply of the sublingual gland
356. A medical student trying to study for an exam because so exasperated with his
roommate who would not stop talking that he jammed a towel into his mouth. The recipient
of the act found he could not close his mouth after removing the towel. He had probably
suffered:
A. A rupture of his temporalis tendon
B. A fracture of the neck of his mandible
C. An anterior dislocation of his temporomandibular joint *
D. An injure to his mandibular nerve
E. None of the above
357. All of the following contribute significantly to elevating the mandible and closing the
mouth except the:
A. Masseter muscle
B. Medial pterygoid muscle
C. Lateral pterygoid muscle *
D. Anterior fibers of the temporalis muscle
E. Posterior fibers of the temporalis muscle
358. Muscles involved in protruding the mandible include which of the following?
A. The masseter and posterior fibers of the temporalis
B. The medial and lateral pterygoid muscles *
C. The medial pterygoid and anterior digastric muscles
D. The temporalis and genioglossus muscles
E. The platysma and lateral pterygoid muscles
359. A circus performer who specializes in hanging from a high wire by biting a
suspended mouth gag feels a sudden pain in her left head and jaw and falls into the safety
net. On examination you find she is unable to retract the left side of her jaw. You suspect
injure to the left:
A. Masseter muscle
B. Medial pterygoid muscle
C. Lateral pterygoid muscle
D. Anterior part of the temporalis muscle
E. Posterior part of the temporalis muscle *
360. A frightened young lady comes to your office with a complaint of pain in her jaw
which will not close completely. After a few direct questions the site of the jaw problem is
obviously the temporomandibular joint. What must you remember about the joint as you
discuss the problem with the patient?
A. The temporomandibular joint permits both hinge and gliding movement
B. Anterior dislocation occurs relatively easily
C. Posterior dislocation occurs rarely
361. Severe bleeding following tonsillectomy used to be fairly common when this
operation was performed on almost everybody and by almost anybody. The source of the
bleeding could reasonably have been a tonsillar branch of the:
A. Lingual artery
B. Descending palatine artery
C. Ascending pharyngeal artery
D. Facial artery
E. All of thee arteries *
362. The sensory nerve supply to the tonsillar area is generally through to be via the:
A. Glossopharyngeal nerve *
B. Facial nerve
C. Vagus nerve
D. Mandibular nerve
E. Trigeminal nerve
363. The main venous drainage from the tonsil is via the:
A. Retromandibular nerve
B. Facial vein *
C. Lingual vein
D. Ascending pharyngeal vein
E. Pterygoid plexus
364. During a visit to the dentist, a dental burr flies off and mysteriously disappears
through the lateral wall of the palatine tonsillar fossa. It must have penetrated the:
A. Stylopharyngeal muscle
B. Middle constrictor muscle
C. Salpingopharyngeus muscle
D. Superior constrictor muscle *
E. Tensor veli palatini muscle
365. The lymphatic drainage from the left margin of the anterior tip of the tongue is to all
but which one of the following?
A. The left juguloomohyoid node
B. The submandibular nodes
C. The submental nodes
D. The jugulodigatric nodes
E. All of the above receive drainage from the site *
366. Which of the following statements about the nerve supply of the tongue is false?
A. The vallate papillae are innervated by the glossopharyngeal (IX) nerve
B. The filiform papillae are innervated by the hypoglossal (XII) nerve *
C. The tip of the tongue is innervated by the trigeminal (V) nerve
D. The lingual tonsil is innervated by the glossopharyngeal (IX) nerve
E. All of the above are false
367. The tongue is protruded from the mouth by the:
A. Hyoglossus muscle
B. Styloglossus muscle
C. Genioglossus muscle *
D. Stylohyoid muscle
E. Buccinator muscle
368. Kiesselbach’s area, on the anterior part of the nasal septum, has been blamed for a
high percentage of nose “bleeds”. It receives tributaries from the:
A. Sphenopalatine and labial arteries *
B. Anterior ethmoidal artery
C. Sphenopalatine and anterior ethmoidal arteries
D. Greater palatine and labial arteries
E. None of these
369. The most posterior portion of the nasal septum is formed by the:
A. Vomeronasal cartilage
B. Vomer *
C. Septal cartilage
D. Nasal spine of the frontal bone
E. Inferior conchae
370. A rhinologist decides to anesthetize the right nasal cavity by pushing a pad of cotton
soaked in cocaine into the back of the middle meatus of the nose. He should not be too much
surprised if the patient complains of:
A. Dryness of his mouth
B. Inability to smile
C. Loss of sensation in the lower molar teeth
D. Dryness of his right eye *
E. Numbness over his forehead
371. Which of these nerves does not supply the skin of the external nose?
A. The external nasal nerve
B. The infraorbital nerve
C. The infratrochlear nerve
D. The supratrochlear nerve *
E. All of the above supply it
372. A young man insults a fellow “drinker” in a bar and gets punched in the nose. The
bleeding is most likely from which of the following areas?
A. The lateral wall of the inferior meatus
B. The posterior third of the nasal septum
C. The anterior lower portion of the nasal septum *
D. The middle meatus
E. The superior surface of the hard palate
373. An otolaryngologist wishes to introduce a drain into the maxillary air sinus through
its orifice into the nose. In order to anesthetize the mucous membrane immediately around
the opening, the blocks the:
A. Anterior ethmoid nerve
B. Olfactory nerves
C. Sphenopalatine ganglion *
D. Infraorbital nerve
E. Anterior superior alveolar nerve
374. A patient had a purulent otitis media (infection of the tympanic cavity) but before he
reached a physician he had a sudden relief of his pain followed by a profuse purulent
discharge from his ear. After recovery from this episode, he complained of a loud whistling
noise in that ear whenever he blew his nose. This symptom strongly suggests that:
A. He had displacement of joint between the malleus and incus
B. He had a ruptured tympanic membrane *
C. He had a paralysis of the stapedius muscle
D. None of these
E. All of these
375. A patient had a purulent otitis media (infection of the tympanic cavity) but before he
reached a physician he had a sudden relief of his pain followed by a profuse purulent
discharge from his ear. After recovery from this episode, he complained of a loud whistling
noise in that ear whenever he blew his nose. This symptom strongly suggests that:
A. He had displacement of joint between the malleus and incus
B. The auditory tube was patent (open) *
C. He had a paralysis of the stapedius muscle
D. None of these
E. All of these
376. Following a motor car accident which resulted in a severe blow in the region of the
left eye and left side of the forehead, a patient complains of double vision especially when
he attempts to look up. Ptosis is not evident. You suspect injury to the:
A. Upper division of the oculomotor nerve
B. Lower division of the oculomotor nerve
C. Trochlear nerve
D. Abducent nerve
E. None of the above is likely to give rise to such symptoms. You look for another cause. *
377. Match the auricular anterior muscle with the appropriate motor branch of VII from
the list below:
A. Temporal and/or zygomatic *
B. Buccal
C. Marginal mandibular
D. Cervical
378. Match the levator labii superioris muscle with the appropriate motor branch of VII
from the list below:
A. Temporal and/or zygomatic
B. Buccal *
D. Cervical
379. Match the orbicularis occuli muscle with the appropriate motor branch of VII from
the list below:
A. Temporal and/or zygomatic *
B. Buccal
D. Cervical
380. Match the platysma with the appropriate motor branch of VII from the list below:
A. Temporal and/or zygomatic
B. Buccal
D. Cervical *
381. Match the external acoustic meatus with its relationship to the parotid gland from the
list below:
A. Anteromedial
B. Posteromedial
C. Lateral
D. Superior *
E. Not in contact with the parotid gland
382. Match the external carotid artery with its relationship to the parotid gland from the
list below:
A. Anteromedial
B. Posteromedial *
C. Lateral
D. Superior
383. Match the internal carotid artery with its relationship to the parotid gland from the
list below:
A. Anteromedial
B. Posteromedial
C. Lateral
D. Superior
E. Not in contact with the parotid gland *
384. Match the sternocleidomastoid muscle with its relationship to the parotid gland from
the list below:
A. Anteromedial
B. Posteromedial *
C. Lateral
D. Superior
385. Which of the following arteries is source of ophthalmic artery:
A. Common carotid artery
B. Internal carotid artery *
C. External carotid artery
D. Ethmoidal artery
E. Medial cerebral artery.
386. Which of the following arteries is source of supratrochlear artery:
A. Ophthalmic artery *
B. Anterior cerebral artery
C. Anterior meningeal artery
D. Medial cerebral artery
E. Ethmoidal artery
387. Which of the following arteries is source of zygomaticoorbital artery:
A. Ophthalmic artery
B. Temporal superficial artery
C. Facial artery
D. Maxillary artery *
E. Internal carotid artery
388. Which of the following structures can be damaged during antrotomy in case of
anterior border breach:
A. Facial nerve *
B. Sigmoid sinus
C. Cavernous sinus
D. Maxillary nerve
E. Mandibular nerve.
389. Which of the following structures can be damaged during antrotomy in case of
posterior border breach:
A. Facial nerve
B. Sigmoid sinus *
C. Cavernous sinus
D. Maxillary nerve
390. Inflammatory process in case of purulent parotitis spreads to:
A. Internal ear
B. Middle cranial fossa
C. External acoustic meatus *
D. Subcutaneous tissue of temporal region
E. Temporopterygoid space.
391. Which of the following structures pass through the parotid gland:
A. Temporal nerve
B. Vagus nerve
C. Facial nerve *
D. Maxillary nerve
A. Vagus nerve
B. Facial artery
C. Facial vein
D. External carotid artery *
E. Internal carotid artery.
A. Facial vein
B. External jugular vein
C. Retromandibular vein *
D. Internal jugular vein
E. Temporal superficial vein.
394. Inflammatory process in case of purulent parotitis spreads to:
A. Middle cranial fossa
B. Temporal interaponeurotical tissue
C. Parapharyngeal space *
D. Temporopterygoid space
E. Floor of oral cavity.
395. Complication in case of purulent parotitis:
A. Damage of proper parotid fascia
B. Pus spread to the temporopterygoid space
C. Paresis of muscles of facial expression on damaged side *
D. Neuritis of vagus nerve
E. Dysphagy.
396. Complication in case of purulent parotitis:
A. Neuritis of vagus nerve
B. Neuritis of mandibular nerve
C. Bleeding of erosive vessels *
D. Damage of proper parotid fascia
E. Neuritis of maxillary nerve.
397. Interfascial cellular space of temporopterygoid space locates in which of the
following head regions:
A. Temporal region
B. Deep facial region *
C. Buccal region
D. Occipital region
E. Oral cavity.
398. Interfascial cellular space of interpterygoid space locates in which of the following
head regions:
A. Temporal region
B. Deep facial region *
C. Buccal region
D. Occipital region
E. Oral cavity.
399. Parotid duct opens in which of the following structures:
A. External acoustic meatus
B. Vestibule of mouth *
C. Nasal cavity
D. Floor of oral cavity
E. Maxillary sinus.
400. Sphenoidal sinus opens in which of the following structures:
A. Superior nasal meatus *
B. Middle nasal meatus
C. Inferior nasal meatus
D. Oral cavity
E. Maxillary sinus.
401. Frontal sinus opens in which of the following structures:
A. Superior nasal meatus
B. Middle nasal meatus *
D. Oral cavity
E. Maxillary sinus.
402. Maxillary sinus opens in which of the following structures:
A. Superior nasal meatus
B. Middle nasal meatus *
D. Oral cavity
E. Sphenoidal sinus.
403. Which one of the following muscles raises the soft palate during swallowing?
A. Levator veli palatine *
B. Palatoglossus
C. Palatopharyngeus
D. All of these
E. Superior constrictor
404. The lymphatic vessels of the tongue drain primarily into the:,
A. Palatine nodes
B. Deep cervical nodes *
C. Gingival nodes
D. Facial nodes
E. Parotid nodes
405. The internal carotid arteries have significant anastomotic connections with tributaries
of all the following arteries except the:
A. Facial
B. Internal maxillary
C. Lingual *
D. Superficial temporal
E. Vertebral
406. Each of the following structures empties or opens into the middle nasal meatus
except the:
A. Middle ethmoidal air cells
B. Maxillary sinus
C. Sphenoid sinus *
D. Anterior ethmoidal air cells
E. Frontal sinus
407. The parotid duct penetrates which of the following muscles?
A. Masseter
B. Medial pterygoid
C. Buccinator *
D. Superior pharyngeal constrictor
E. Levator anguli oris
408. The primary action of the muscle that originates mostly from the medial aspect of the
lateral pterygoid plate is to:
A. Retrude (retract) the mandible
B. Elevate the soft palate
C. Protrude (protract) the mandible
D. Tense the soft palate
E. Elevate the mandible *
409. After entering the submandibular triangle, the lingual artery passes immediately deep
to which of the following muscles?
A. Genioglossus
B. Anterior belly of the digastric
C. Mylohyoid
D. Hyoglossus *
E. Styloglossus
410. Pulsations felt at the lower border of the mandible just anterior to the masseter
muscle are in the:
A. Superficial temporal artery
B. Lingual artery
C. Maxillary artery
D. Transverse facial artery
E. Facial artery *
411. Which one of the following bones enters into the formation of the roof of the orbit?
A. Palatine
B. Maxilla
C. Frontal *
D. Zygomatic
E. Lacrimal
412. The largest structure located on the medial wall of the tympanic cavity is the:
A. Fenestra vestibuli
B. Facial canal
C. Umbo
D. Promontory *
E. Fenestra cochlea
413. The artery that accompanies the inferior alveolar nerve is a branch of the:
A. Superficial temporal
B. Maxillary *
C. Posterior auricular
D. Facial
E. Lingual
414. Sympathetic preganglionic nerve fibers for the arteries supplying the submandibular
salivary gland synapse in the:
A. Ciliary ganglion
B. Superior cervical chain ganglion *
C. Submandibular ganglion
D. Inferior cervical chain ganglion
E. Pterygopalatine ganglion
415. The muscle that rotates the muscular process of the arytenoid cartilage anteriorly,
thus adducting the vocal folds, is the:
A. Transverse arytenoids
B. Posterior cricoarytenoid
C. Lateral cricoarytenoid *
D. Thyroarytenoid
E. Aryepiglottic
416. The middle meatus receives drainage from each of the following except the:
A. Maxillary sinus
B. Frontal sinus
C. Nasolacrimal duct *
D. Anterior ethmoid air cells
E. Middle ethmoid air cells
417. The submandibular gland receives its primary blood supply from branches of which
of the following arteries?
A. Facial *
B. Lingual
C. Superior thyroid
E. Occipital
418. The posterior superior alveolar nerve supplies sensory fibers from the:
A. Hard palate
B. Soft palate
C. Upper molars *
D. Nasal mucosa
E. Buccal mucosa
419. The bones that form the floor of the hard palate are the:
A. Sphenoid and zygomatic
B. Maxillary and frontal
C. Ethmoid and frontal
D. Palatine and maxillary *
E. Palatine and ethmoid
420. The membranous labyrinth of the internal ear consists of each of the following
except the:
A. Vestibule *
B. Sacculus
C. Semicircular ducts
D. Utriculus
E. Cochlear duct
421. Each of the following is located between the mylohyoid and hyoglossus muscles
except the:
A. Submandibuiar duct
B. Lingual nerve
C. Hypoglossal nerve
D. Submandibuiar ganglion
E. Lingual artery *
422. Which of the following muscles is involved in retraction of the mandible?
A. Lateral pterygoid
B. Masseter
C. Mylohyoid
D. Medial pterygoid
E. Posterior fibers of temporalis *
423. After exiting the stylomastoid foramen, the facial nerve is correctly described by
each of the following except:
A. It innervates the posterior belly of the digastric and stylohyoid muscles
B. It courses superficial to the retromandibular vein
C. It innervates the muscle that provides tone to the cheek
D. It innervates the submandibular and sublingual glands *
E. It innervates the muscles that elevate the upper lip
424. Which of the following ligaments is formed from a thickening of the deep parotid
fascia?
A. Temporomandibular
B. Stylohyoid
C. Stylomandibular *
D. Sphenomandibular
E. Nuchal
425. The levator anguli oris muscle is innervated by which of the following nerves?
A. Auriculotemporal
B. Facial *
C. Ansa cervicalis
D. Inferior alveolar
E. Inferior palpebral nerve
426. The angular artery is the terminal part of which of the following arteries?
B. Posterior auricular
C. Maxillary
D. Facial *
E. Occipital
427. The infraorbital artery is one of the terminal branches of which of the following
arteries?
A. Facial
B. Transverse facial
C. Superficial temporal
D. Lingual
E. Maxillary *
428. The mental artery is a terminal branch of which of the following arteries?
C. Inferior alveolar *
D. Facial
E. Lingual
429. The retromandibular vein is formed by the confluence of the superficial temporal and
which of the following veins?
A. Transverse facial
B. Maxillary vein *
C. Facial
D. Lingual
E. Submental
430. The parotid duct penetrates which of the following muscles?
A. Masseter
B. Medial pterygoid
C. Buccinator *
D. Superior pharyngeal constructor
E. Levator anguli oris
431. The deep portion of the parotid fascia forms which of the following?
A. Stylomandibular ligament *
B. Spenomandibular ligament
C. Pterygomandibular raphe
D. Carotid sheath
E. Buccopharyngeal fascia
432. The supraorbital artery is a branch of which of the following arteries?
C. Maxillary
D. Facial
E. Ophthalmic *
433. Which of the following nerves is a cutaneous branch of the maxillary division of the
trigeminal nerve?
A. Lacrimal
B. Infratrochlear
C. Auriculotemporal
D. Buccal
E. Superior labial *
434. The medial pterygoid muscle assists which of the following muscles in protrusion of
the mandible?
A. Mylohyoid
B. Lateral pterygoid *
C. Geniohyoid
D. Temporalis
E. Sphenomeniscus
435. A lesion of the lingual nerve immediately after it receives the chorda tympani nerve
could result in each of the following except:
A. Loss of sublingual gland secretion
B. Sensory loss from lower teeth *
C. Loss of taste from anterior two-thirds of the tongue
D. Loss of submandibular gland secretion
E. Sensory loss from mucosa on floor of mouth
436. Which of the following statements correctly applies to the maxillitis:
A. Inflammation of the frontal sinus
B. Inflammation of the maxillary sinus *
C. Inflammation of the ethmoid sinus
D. Inflammation of the pharynx
E. Inflammation of the nasal cavity
437. The regional lymph nodes which receive lymph directly from the lateral third of the
lower lip are the:
A. Submental
B. Superior deep cervical
C. Superficial cervical
D. Submandibular *
E. Pretracheal.
438. Which of the following statements is false?
A. Lymphatic drainage from the forehead is to the superficial parotid lymph nodes
B. Lymphatic drainage from the lateral eyebrows is to the superficial parotid lymph nodes
C. Lymphatic drainage from the external nose is to the buccal and submandibular nodes
D. Lymphatic drainage from the medial ear is to the superficial parotid lymph nodes *
E. Lymphatic drainage from the lower lip is to the submental lymph nodes.
439. The sphenopalatine artery:
A. Enters the nasal cavity through the sphenopalatine foramen
B. Gives rise to the ascending palatine artery
C. Gives rise to the posterior lateral nasal artery
D. Enters the nasal cavity through the sphenopalatine foramen and gives rise to the posterior
lateral nasal artery *
E. Enters the nasal cavity through the sphenopalatine foramen and gives rise to the external
nasal artery.
440. The facial vein:
A. Empties into the internal jugular vein
B. Anastomoses with the cavernous sinus by way of the angular vein
C. Has no valves
D. May receive tributaries from the external nasal, submandibular and submental veins
E. All are correct. *
441. Vincent Van Gogh once cut off one of his ears. As might be expected, he lost a lot of
blood which must have come from the:
A. Maxillary artery
B. Superficial temporal artery
C. Facial artery
D. Superficial temporal and facial arteries
E. Superficial temporal and posterior auricular arteries. *
442. The maxillary artery gives rise to the:
A. Inferior alveolar artery
B. Lingual artery
C. Middle meningeal artery
443. Which of the following anatomical structures are the drainage area of the
retroauricular (mastoid) lymph nodes:
A. External auditory meatus
B. Occipital scalp
C. Auricle and external auditory meatus *
D. Middle ear
E. External auditory meatus and middle ear.
444. The nerve of the pterygoid canal is formed by the:
A. Greater and lesser petrosal nerves
B. Greater and deep petrosal nerves *
C. Greater, lesser and deep petrosal nerves
D. Lesser and deep petrosal nerves
E. Greater petrosal nerve alone.
445. The secretomotor fibers to the lacrimal gland leave the central nervous system via the
________ nerve.
A. Oculomotor
B. Trigeminal
C. Facial *
D. Glossopharyngeal
E. None of these.
446. The terminal branches of the facial nerve:
A. Are motor to the muscles of mastication
B. Are motor to the muscles of facial expression *
C. Provide the sensory innervation of the face
D. Supply taste to the whole tongue
447. You have reason to suspect that your patient has a lesion to the facial nerve inside the
skull. In which of the following glands would normal secretion not suggest that you might
be wrong?
A. Lacrimal gland
B. Nasal glands
C. Parotid gland *
D. Lingual glands
E. Submandibular gland.
448. Which one of the following nerves is not sensory to the scalp behind the ear?
A. The great auricular nerve
B. The greater occipital nerve
C. The lesser occipital nerve
D. The least occipital nerve
E. The occipital branch of the facial nerve. *
449. The chorda tympani nerve is a branch of the:
A. Geniculate ganglion
B. Facial nerve *
C. Acoustico-vestibular nerve
D. Glossopharyngeal nerve
E. Vagus nerve.
450. If you were to bite the inside of your cheek, you would feel the pain via the:
A. Mandibular nerve
B. Trigeminal ganglion
C. Buccal nerve
E. None of these.
451. Which of the following does not communicate directly with the infratemporal fossa?
A. Pterygomaxillary fissure
B. Foramen rotundum *
C. Foramen ovale
D. Foramen spinosum
E. None of these.
452. The stapedius muscle is supplied by the:
A. Trigeminal nerve
B. Facial nerve *
D. Vagus nerve
E. Accessory nerve (cranial portion).
453. The tensor tympani muscle is supplied by the:
A. Trigeminal nerve *
B. Facial nerve
D. Vagus nerve
E. Accessory nerve (cranial portion).
454. Which of the following nerves does not supply the tympanic membrane?
A. The vagus nerve
B. The facial nerve *
C. The glossopharyngeal nerve
D. The auriculotemporal nerve
E. All of these supply it.
455. A tumor in the internal acoustic meatus may result in loss of:
A. Hearing and balance
B. Facial expression
C. Lacrimal secretion
D. Taste to the anterior 2/3 of tongue
E. All are correct. *
456. The skin of the tip of the nose is supplied by the:
A. Supratrochlear nerve
B. Infratrochlear nerve
C. External nasal nerve *
D. Long buccal nerve, superior branch
E. Infraorbital nerve.
457. The digastric muscle is a two-bellied muscle that attaches by an intermediate tendon
to which of the following?
A. Mandibular condyle
B. Thyroid cartilage
C. Cricoid cartilage
D. Styloid process
E. Hyoid bone *
458. The omohyoid, the sternocleidomastoid, and the posterior belly of the digastric
muscle form the boundary for which of the following triangles?
A. Occipital
B. Submandibular
C. Submental
D. Carotid *
E. Omoclavicular
459. As a rule, the isthmus of the thyroid gland crosses which of the following structures?
A. Hyoid bone
B. Second to fourth tracheal rings *
C. Cricoid cartilage
D. Thyroid cartilage
E. Inferior belly of the omohyoid muscle
460. The prevertebral layer of cervical fascia forms the floor for which of the following
triangles?
A. Submental
B. Posterior cervical *
C. Submandibular
D. Carotid
E. Muscular
461. Which of the following muscles aids in depressing the corner of the mouth
downward and widens the aperture, as in expressions of sadness or fright?
A. Orbicularis oris
B. Buccinator-
C. Mylohyoid
D. Mentalis
E. Platysma *
462. The cervical branch of the facial nerve innervates which of the following muscles?
A. Sternocleidomastoid
B. Geniohyoid
C. Sternothyroid
D. Platysma *
E. Masseter
463. Which of the following veins unites with the retromandibular to form the external
jugular vein?
A. Posterior auricular *
B. Superficial temporal
C. Transverse facial
D. Internal jugular
E. Facial
464. Which of the following veins crosses perpendicularly the superficial surface of the
sternocleidomastoid beneath the platysma muscle?
A. Internal jugular
B. Anterior jugular
C. Posterior jugular
D. External jugular *
E. Retromandibular
465. Which of the following nerves is a dorsal ramus of the second cervical nerve?
A. Great auricular
B. Greater occipital *
C. Lesser occipital
D. Transverse cervical
E. Supraclavicular
466. Which of the following nerves is formed by contributions from the ventral rami of
cervical nerves three and four?
A. Supraclavicular *
B. Greater occipital
C. Great auricular
E. Occipitalis tertius
467. The superficial layer of cervical fascia splits into two sheets to enclose which of the
following muscles?
A. Sternothyroid
B. Anterior scalene
C. Trapezius *
D. Mylohyoid
E. Semispinals capitis
468. Which of the following ligaments is formed from a thickening of the deep parotid
fascia?
A. Temporomandibular
B. Stylohyoid
C. Stylomandibular *
D. Sphenomandibular
E. Nuchal
469. Which of the following fascial layers gives rise to the axillary sheath?
A. Superficial layer of cervical fascia
B. Prevertebral *
C. Carotid sheath
D. Buccopharyngeal
E. Pretracheal
470. The sheath of the thyroid gland is formed from which of the following fascial layers?
A. Carotid sheath
B. Prevertebral
C. Superficial layer of the cervical fascia
D. Pretracheal *
E. Alar
471. Which of the following structures is located within the cervical visceral fasciae?
A. Cervical sympathetic trunk
B. Pharynx *
C. External jugular vein
D. Common carotid artery
472. The largest and most important interfascial interval in the neck is which of the
following spaces?
A. Suprasternal
B. Retropharyngeal *
C. Submandibular
D. Lateral pharyngeal
E. Parotid
473. The sternohyoid muscle is innervated by which of the following nerves?
A. Hypoglossal
B. Ansa cervicalis *
C. Transverse cervical
D. Supraclavicular
E. Vagus
474. The superior thyroid artery is usually the first branch of which of the following
arteries?
A. Common carotid
B. External carotid *
C. Internal carotid
D. Subclavian artery
E. Maxillary artery
475. The inferior thyroid artery is a branch of which of the following arteries?
A. Dorsal scapular
B. Costocervical
C. External carotid
D. Thyrocervical *
E. Vertebral
476. The middle thyroid vein empties into which of the following veins?
A. External jugular
B. Anterior jugular
C. Posterior jugular
D. Internal jugular *
E. Vertebral
477. Which of the following structures is embedded in the anterior sheath of the carotid
sheath?
A. Sympathetic trunk
B. Thyrocervical trunk
C. Vertebral artery
D. Prevertebral fascia
E. Superior ramus of the ansa cervicalis *
478. The common carotid artery usually bifurcates into the external and internal carotids
at the level of which of the following structures?
A. Jugular notch
B. Cricoid cartilage
C. Upper border of the thyroid cartilage *
D. Neck of the mandible
E. Sternoclavicular joint
479. Which of the following arteries passes obliquely upward deep to the posterior belly
of the digastric and the stylohyoid muscles running deep to the submandibular gland?
A. Lingual
B. Facial *
C. Maxillary
D. Superior thyroid
E. Occipital
480. Which of the following arteries arises from the posterior aspect of the external
carotid at the level of the upper border of the posterior belly of the digastric?
A. Facial
B. Occipital
C. Lingual *
E. Ascending pharyngeal
481. Which of the following nerves innervate the cricothyroid and the inferior constrictor
muscle of the pharynx?
A. Inferior cervical cardiac
B. External branch of the superior laryngeal *
C. Inferior laryngeal
D. Recurrent laryngeal
E. Superior cervical cardiac
482. The superior deep cervical lymph nodes occupy which of the following cervical
triangles?
A. Carotid *
B. Omoclavicular
C. Submandibular
D. Occipital
E. Submental
483. Which of the following ganglia is commonly located at the level of the second
cervical vertebra?
A. Stellate ganglion
B. Inferior cervical ganglion
C. Vertebral ganglion
D. Middle cervical ganglion
E. Superior cervical ganglion *
484. Which of the following ganglia is commonly located at the level of the cricoid
cartilage?
A. Superior ganglion of the vagus
B. Inferior ganglion of the glossopharyngeal
C. Otic
D. Middle cervical *
E. Submandibular
485. Which of the following ganglia is commonly located at the base of the transverse
process of the seventh cervical vertebrae?
A. Pterygopalatine
B. Submandibular
C. Cervicothoracic *
D. Vertebral
E. Geniculate
486. The posterior belly of the digastric muscle is innervated by which of the following
nerves?
A. Trigeminal
B. Facial *
C. Vagus
D. Ansa subclavia
E. Hypoglossal
487. The subclavian vein joins the internal jugular vein to form the brachiocephalic vein
at which of these structures?
A. The outer border of the first rib
B. Behind the acromioclavicular joint
C. Behind the coracoclavicular joint
D. In front of the coracohumeral ligament
E. Behind the sternal end of the clavicle *
488. The costocervical trunk usually gives rise to which of the following arteries?
A. Highest intercostal *
B. Inferior thyroid
C. Suprascapular
E. Ascending cervical
489. Which of the following laryngeal cartilages has a triangular base with vocal and
muscular processes?
A. Cricoid
B. Corniculate
C. Arytenoid *
D. Cuneiform
E. Epiglottis
490. Which of the following structures contributes to the formation of the vocal
ligaments?
A. Thyrohyoid membrane
B. Cricotracheal ligament
C. Quadrangular membrane
D. Conus elasticus *
E. Hyoepiglottic ligament
491. Which of the following structures constitutes the vestibular ligament of the false
vocal fold?
A. Quadrangular membrane *
B. Median cricothyroid ligament
C. Thyrohyoid membrane
D. Thyroepiglottic ligament
E. Cricotracheal ligament
492. The space between the apposed vocal folds and arytenoid cartilages is known as the:
A. Glottis
B. Rima glottidis *
C. Vestibule
D. Rima vestibuli
E. Piriform recess
493. Which of the following muscles of the larynx is abductor of the vocal ligament?
A. Posterior cricoarytenoid *
B. Lateral cricoarytenoid
C. Transverse arytenoid
D. Thyroarytenoid
E. Cricothyroid
494. Which of the following muscles of the larynx increases tension on the vocal folds?
A. Cricothyroid *
B. Lateral cricoarytenoid
C. Posterior cricoarytenoid
D. Thyroarytenoid
E. Transverse arytenoid
495. The vocalis muscles are composed of the internal fibers of which of the following
muscles?
A. Lateral cricoarytenoid
B. Cricothyroid
C. Thyroarytenoid *
D. Posterior cricoarytenoid
E. Oblique arytenoid
496. The principal sensory nerve of the larynx is the:
A. Recurrent laryngeal
B. Inferior laryngeal
C. Superior laryngeal *
D. Glossopharyngeal
E. Cervical sympathetic trunk
497. Which of the muscles of the larynx is innervated by the external branch of the
superior laryngeal nerve?
A. Lateral cricoarytenoid
B. Posterior cricoarytenoid
C. Thyroarytenoid
D. Transverse arytenoids
E. Cricothyroid *
498. The superior laryngeal artery is a branch of which of the following arteries?
A. Lingual
B. Superior thyroid *
C. Costocervical trunk
D. Thyrocervical trunk
E. Transverse cervical
499. The trachea begins at the level of which of the following structures?
A. Hyoid bone
C. Fourth cervical vertebra
D. Cricoid cartilage *
E. Second cervical vertebra
500. The carina is part of which of the following structures?
A. Hyoid bone
B. Epiglottis
C. Trachea *
D. Larynx
E. Pharynx
501. The pharynx terminates at the level of which of the following structures?
A. Hyoid bone
B. Second cervical vertebra
C. Thyroid cartilage
E. Jugular notch
502. The pharyngobasilar fascia contributes to which of the following layers of the
pharyngeal wall?
A. Mucous membrane
B. Submucosa *
C. Longitudinal muscle layer
D. Circular muscle layer
E. Buccopharyngeal fascia
503. The middle pharyngeal constrictor arises from which of the following structures?
A. Pterygomandibular raphe
C. Thyroid cartilage
D. Torus tubarius
E. Hyoid bone *
504. Which of the following muscles enters the pharyngeal wall in the gap between the
origins of the middle and superior pharyngeal constrictor muscles?
A. Stylopharyngeus *
B. Palatopharyngeus
C. Salpingopharyngeus
D. Thyrohyoid
E. Sternohyoid
505. Which of the following muscles of the pharynx is innervated by the
glossopharyngeal nerve?
A. Superior pharyngeal constrictor
B. Salpingopharyngeus
C. Stylopharyngeus *
D. Palatopharyngeus
E. Middle pharyngeal constrictor
506. Which of the following ganglia is a peripheral ganglion in the course of the
parasympathetic innervation of the parotid gland?
A. Ciliary
B. Pterygopalatine
C. Submandibular
D. Otic *
E. Geniculate
507. Which of the following nerves supplies parasympathetic fibers through the otic
ganglion to the parotid gland?
A. Vagus
B. Glossopharyngeal *
C. Facial
D. Hypoglossal
E. Accessory
508. Which of the following nerves innervates the genioglossus muscle?
A. Hypoglossal *
B. Ansa cervicalis
C. Glossopharyngeal
D. Vagus
E. Trigeminal
509. The esophagus begins at the level of which of the following structures?
A. Hyoid bone
C. Fourth cervical vertebra
E. Jugular notch
510. The masseteric fascia is formed from which of the following?
A. Superficial layer of cervical fascia *
B. Carotid sheath
C. Prevertebral fascia
D. Buccopharyngeal
E. Pretracheal fascia
511. The innervation of the masseter muscle is provided by which of the following
nerves?
A. Buccal branch of the facial
B. Buccal branch of the trigeminal
C. Maxillary division of the trigeminal
D. Inferior alveolar nerve
E. Mandibular division of the trigeminal *
512. The suboccipital triangle contains which of the following structures?
A. Vertebral artery *
B. Lesser occipital nerve
C. Spinal accessory nerve
D. Occipital artery
E. Posterior auricular artery
513. In addition to hearing loss and balance disturbances, a tumor in the internal acoustic
meatus may be responsible for all the following signs and symptoms except:
A. Dry eye from loss of secretion of the lacrimal gland
B. Loss of secretion of the parotid gland on one side *
C. Loss of secretion of the submandibular and sublingual glands on one side
D. Dry nasal mucosa form loss of secretion of the nasal glands on one side
E. Facial paralysis
514. Damage to the external laryngeal nerve during thyroid surgery will result in the
patient's inability to:
A. Relax the vocal cords
B. Rotate the arytenoid cartilages
C. Tense the vocal cords *
D. Widen the rima glottidis
E. Abduct the vocal cords
515. A lesion of the otic ganglion would be expressed clinically by a loss of:
A. Function of the sublingual gland
B. Taste on the posterior one-third of the tongue
C. Sensory innervation to the parotid gland
D. Secretion of the parotid gland *
E. Function of the stylopharyngeus muscle
516. A tonsillar abscess may extend posteriorly through the pharyngeal wall into the:
A. Pleural cavity
B. Anterior triangle of the neck
C. Suprasternal space
D. Pharyngeal tonsil
E. Retropharyngeal space *
517. Which muscle may be paralyzed by a superficial knife wound to the posterior
triangle to the neck?
A. Trapezius *
B. Sternocleidomastoid
C. Anterior scalene
D. Splenius capitis
E. Posterior scalene
518. Which of the following damaged ends of the cervical vein need to press for arrest of
bleeding:
A. Central *
B. Peripheral
C. Both
D. Middle of a vein
519. To indicate the orientators for brachial plexus anesthesia:
A. Sternal end of the clavicle
B. Middle of the clavicle *
C. Acromial end of the clavicle
D. Jugular notch
E. Carotid triangle
520. Which of the following structures locates in the antescalenus cellular space:
A. Venous angle *
B. Phrenical nerve
C. Vagus nerve
D. Brachial plexus
E. Inferior thyroid artery
521. Sheath for the scalenus muscles is formed by which of the following neck fasciae:
A. I
B. II
C. III
D. IV
E. V *
522. Submandibular gland situated between laminae of which of the following neck
fasciae:
A. I
B. II *
C. III
D. IV
E. V
523. From which of the following neck cellular spaces pus passes to the posterior
mediastinum:
A. Retrovisceral *
B. Parapharyngeal
C. Interaponeurotical suprasternale
D. Submandibular
E. Previsceral
524. The IV neck fascia forms the sheath for neurovascular bundle. To name its
structures:
A. Common carotid artery, internal jugular vein, vagus nerve *
B. Subclavian vein, brachial plexus, common carotid artery
C. Subclavian artery, common carotid artery, vagus nerve
D. Brachial plexus, vagus nerve, common carotid artery
E. Jugular vein, vagus nerve, common carotid artery
525. The V neck fascia forms the sheath for neurovascular bundle. To name its structures:
A. Vagus nerve, common carotid artery
B. Internal jugular vein, vagus nerve
C. External jugular vein, phrenic nerve
D. Subclavian artery, brachial plexus *
E. Phrenic nerve, vagus nerve
526. Which of the following veins passes within the submandibular triangle:
A. Internal jugular
B. Facial *
C. Mental
D. Superior thyroid
E. External jugular
527. Which of the following nerves situated between the common carotid artery and
internal jugular vein:
A. Lingual
B. Facial
C. Vagus *
D. Reccurent laryngeal
E. Sympathetic trunk (superior ganglion)
528. Where can passes pus from the bed of submandibular gland:
A. Floor of the oral cavity *
B. Previsceral cellular space
C. Retrovisceral cellular space
D. Anterior mediastinum
E. Posterior mediastinum
529. Which of the following neck fasciae divides the neck region on anterior and posterior
parts:
A. I
B. II *
C. III
D. IV
E. V
530. To indicate the injection point in case of vagosympathetic blockade after
Vyshnevskyy:
A. Middle of the posterior edge of sternocleidomastoid muscle *
B. Middle of the anterior edge of sternocleidomastoid muscle
C. Jugular notch
D. Lateral surface of the esophagus
531. Which of the following arteries haven’t branches in neck region:
A. Internal carotid artery *
C. Common carotid artery
D. Thyrocervical trunk
532. Which of the following structures forms the neck superior border:
A. Mandible *
B. Alba line
C. Superior temporal line
D. Digastric muscle
E. Vagus nerve
533. Which of the following arteries realizes the arterial supply of the pharynx:
A. Superior laryngeal
B. Ascending pharyngeal *
C. Sublingual
D. Ascending palatine
E. Descending palatine
534. Which of the following arteries realizes the arterial supply of the cervical part of
esophagus:
A. Thyrocervical trunk
B. Costocervical part
C. Superior thyroid artery
D. Inferior thyroid artery *
E. Inferior laryngeal artery
535. The esophagus is innervated by which of the following nerves:
A. Reccurent laryngeal *
B. Superior laryngeal
C. Accessory
D. Hypoglossal
E. Phrenic
536. The sympathetic trunk locates under which of the following neck fasciae:
A. I
B. II
C. III
D. IV
E. V *
537. The following statements concerning the structures in the neck are correct except
which?
A. The parotid salivary gland contains within its substance the facial nerve and the external
carotid artery
B. The parotid duct opens into the mouth opposite the upper second molar tooth
C. As the trachea descends through the neck it rests posteriorly on the vertebral column *
D. The nerve to the mylohyoid muscle innervates the anterior belly of the digastric muscle
E. The hypoglossal nerve innervates the muscle of the tounge.
538. Which of the following nerves might be injured when tying the inferior thyroid artery
during operations on the thyroid gland?
A. The sympathetic trunk
B. The internal laryngeal nerve
C. The descendens cervicalis
D. The recurrent laryngeal nerve *
E. The superior laryngeal nerve.
539. To where do the submental lymph nodes drain?
A. The superficial cervical lymph nodes
B. The deep cervical lymph nodes *
C. The submandibular lymph nodes
D. The tracheobronchial lymph nodes
E. The anterior cervical lymph nodes.
540. Which of the following anatomical structures forms one of the Pyrogov’s triangle
side?
A. N. hypoglossus *
B. M. geniohyoideus
C. M. genioglossus
D. M. styloglossus
E. M. sternocleidomastoideus.
541. The retrovisceral space is boarded by the:
A. I, II and III neck fasciae
B. IV, V neck fasciae *
C. Two laminae of the IV neck fasciae
D. I, III neck fasciae
E. II, III neck fasciae.
542. The phrenic nerve on the neck region is located in the
A. Interscalenic space
B. Antescalenic space *
C. Omovertebral triangle
D. Omotracheal triangle
E. Carotid triangle.
543. Which of the following anatomical structures closely attaches to the posterior surface
of the external edge of thyroid gland?
A. Internal jugular vein
B. Parathyroid glands
C. Common carotid artery *
D. Inferior laryngeal nerve
E. Vagus nerve.
544. Which tracheal cartilages is cutted during inferior tracheostomy?
A. 3-4 *
B. 1-2
C. 2-3
D. 5-6
E. 7-8.
545. How many branches originate from the internal carotid artery on the neck region?
A. 6
B. 9
C. 1
D. No one *
E. 3.
546. Which of the following arteries are located within the bed of the submandibular
gland?
A. Submandibular
B. Angular
C. Facial *
D. Buccal
E. Internal carotid.
547. Which of the following structures lies parallel and immediately deep to the carotid
sheath in the neck?
A. Superior ramus of the ansa cervicalis
B. Trachea
C. Sympathetic trunk *
E. Vagus nerve
548. Each of the following arteries is a direct branch of the external carotid artery except
the:
A. Occipital
B. Facial
C. Posterior auricular
D. Maxillary
E. Infraorbital *
549. The inferior root (ramus) of the ansa cervicalis contains nerve fibers derived from
the:
A. First and second cervical spinal nerves
B. Second and third cervical spinal nerves *
C. Third and fourth cervical spinal nerves
D. First, second, and third cervical spinal nerves
550. Each of the following is related to the walls of the laryngeal part of the pharynx
except the:
A. Piriform recess
C. Inferior pharyngeal constrictor muscle
D. Arytenoid cartilage
E. Palatine tonsil *
551. Each of the following is found within the carotid sheath except the:
A. Vagus nerve
B. Internal carotid artery
E. Cervical sympathetic trunk *
552. The thyroid gland:
A. Is ensheathed by the prevertebral layer of the deep cervical fascia
B. Has an isthmus which lies anterior to the 2nd, 3rd & 4th tracheal rings *
C. Is drained only by the middle thyroid veins
D. Is related to the hypoglossal nerve on each side
E. Is ensheathed by the superficial cervical fascia
553. The thyroid gland:
A. Is ensheathed by the prevertebral layer of the deep cervical fascia
B. Is closely related to the recurrent laryngeal nerves on both sides *
554. Recurrent laryngeal nerves
A. Arises from tenth cranial nerve in the jugular foramen
B. Supply all muscles of the vocal cords
C. Remain safe if inferior thyroid arteries are ligated away from the thyroid gland
D. Are so named because they curve around larynx *
E. Sensory to larynx and pharynx
555. Recurrent laryngeal nerves
D. Sensory to larynx and pharynx
E. If damaged on both sides the vocal fords are in cadaveric position *
556. Recurrent laryngeal nerve
A. Supplies all the muscles of larynx
B. Not damaged if the ligation of inferior thyroid artery is done away from its origin
C. Arises from tenth cranial nerve in the jugular foramen
E. Receives it name because it supplies the larynx *
557. Recurrent laryngeal nerve
E. Give branches to cardiac plexus *
558. At the level of cricoid cartilage following are found:
A. Junction of esophagus with pharynx *
B. Entrance of superior thyroid artery into thyroid gland
C. C8 vertebra exactly opposite
D. Isthmus of thyroid gland
E. Bifurcation of common carotid artery
A. Junction of the larynx with the trachea *
D. Isthmus of thyroid gland
A. Isthmus of thyroid gland
D. Middle cervical sympathetic ganglion *
A. Isthmus of thyroid gland
B. Inferior thyroid artery enters the thyroid gland *
D. Entrance of superior thyroid artery into thyroid gland
562. Thyroid gland
A. Enclosed in prevertebral fascia
B. Isthmus is related to 2nd-3rd tracheal rings *
563. Thyroid gland
B. Related to recurrent laryngeal nerve on both sides *
564. Thyroid gland
B. Is ensheathed by the superficial cervical fascia
E. Drain its venous blood partly thru middle thyroid vein *
565. Thyroid gland
B. Is related to the hypoglossal nerve on each side
D. Related to inferior constrictor *
566. Thyroid gland
A. Is ensheathed by the superficial cervical fascia
B. Moves on swallowing *
E. Enclosed in prevertebral fascia
567. Thyroid gland
A. Is supplied by the branches of external carotid and thyrocervical trunk *
B. Enclosed in prevertebral fascia
568. Thyroid gland
A. Is related to the hypoglossal nerve on each side
B. Is ensheathed by the superficial cervical fascia
D. Enclosed in prevertebral fascia
E. Has the inferior thyroid vein draining usually into the left brachiocephalic vein*
569. The following general statements concerning structures in the head and neck are
correct except which?
A. The sensory nerve supply to the mucous membrane lining the upper part of the trachea is from
the recurrent laryngeal nerve
B. The spinal part of the accessory nerve can be injured easily as it crosses the posterior triangle of
the neck
C. The afferent sensory nerve fibers for the gag reflex are contained in the glossopharyngeal nerve
D. The afferent sensory nerve fibers for the cough reflex are contained in the vagus nerve
E. The sternocleidomastoid and the trapezius muscles receive their innervation from the cranial
part of the accessory nerve *
570. A 59-year-old woman with a small swelling below the chin was seen by her
physician. At physical examination, a single, hard swelling could be palpated in the
submental triangle. It was mobile on the deep tissues and not tethered to the skin. A
diagnosis of a malignant secondary deposit in a submental lymph node was considered.
Using your knowledge of anatomy, where would you look for the primary carcinoma?
A. The posterior third of the tongue
B. The maxillary sinus
C. The angle of the mouth
D. The center of the lower lip *
E. The lining of the cheek
571. A 64-year-old man was seen by his physician for a hard-based ulcer on the right
lateral edge of the anterior two thirds of the tongue. Which group of nodes should be
examined by the physician for possible evidence of metastases?
A. Superficial cervical nodes
B. Submental nodes
C. Submandibular nodes *
D. Parotid nodes
E. Buccal nodes
572. A patient having lunch accidentally bit the inside of her left cheek. To which lymph
nodes are intecting bacteria likely to spread?
A. Mastoid nodes
B. Parotid nodes
C. Submental nodes
D. Superficial cervical nodes
E. Submandibular nodes *
573. A patient has a boil on the tip of her nose. To which lymph nodes does the lymph
from the skin of the infected area drain?
A. Submandibular nodes *
B. Submental nodes
C. Parotid nodes
D. Superficial cervical nodes
E. Tracheobronchial nodes
574. The ______ passes between the sixth and seventh cervical vertebrae.
A. Vertebral artery
B. Seventh cervical spinal nerve *
C. Sixth cervical spinal nerve
D. Vertebral vein
E. Eighth cervical spinal nerve
575. A 69-year-old woman complaining of a burning pain over the left shoulder and upper
part of the left arm was seen by her physician. The pain had started approximately 2 weeks
previously and had progressively worsened. The pain was made worse by moving the neck.
At physical examination, the patient showed hyperesthesia of the skin over the lower part of
the left deltoid muscle and down the lateral side of the arm. In addition, her left deltoid and
biceps brachii muscles were weaker than those on the right side. At radiologic examination,
extensive osteoarthritic changes of the vertebrae with spur formation on the bodies of the
fourth, fifth, and sixth cervical vertebrae were seen. The weakness of the left deltoid and
biceps brachii muscles could have resulted from pressure on which nerve roots?
A. The posterior nerve roots of C5 and 6
B. The anterior nerve roots of C5 and 6 *
C. The anterior nerve roots of C7 and 8
D. The anterior nerve roots of C8 and T1
E. None of these
576. Which of the following anatomical structures takes part in forming of “dangerous
area”, that located on posterior surface of lateral lobes of thyroid gland?
B. Inferior thyroid artery *
C. Superior laryngeal artery
D. Inferior laryngeal artery
E. Vagus nerve
A. Parathyroid glands *
B. Superior laryngeal artery
C. Inferior laryngeal artery
D. Superior thyroid artery
E. Isthmus of thyroid gland
A. Vagus nerve
B. Superior laryngeal nerve
C. Recurrent laryngeal nerve *
D. Superior laryngeal artery
579. At which of the following distance from superior polus of lateral lobes of thyroid
gland the superior thyroid artery divides into its branches?
A. 0,5 cm
B. 1 cm *
C. 2 cm
D. 2,5 cm
E. 3 cm
580. In which direction you should cut the cricothyroid ligament during conicotomy?
A. Longitudinal
B. Transversal *
C. Oblique
D. Z-shaped
E. None of these
581. Right recurrent laryngeal nerve runs
A. Along lateral wall of esophagus
B. Along posterior wall of esophagus
C. Along anterior wall of esophagus
D. Between trachea and esophagus *
E. None are correct
582. Left recurrent laryngeal nerve runs
A. Along lateral wall of esophagus
B. Along posterior wall of esophagus
C. Along anterior wall of esophagus *
D. Between trachea and esophagus
E. None are correct
583. Which of the following arteries attaches to the trachea at level of jugular notch?
A. Arch of aorta *
B. Isthmus af aorta
E. Brachiocephalic trunk
584. Which of the following arteries runs along anterior wall of trachea at level of
sternoclavicular junction?
A. Arch of aorta
B. Isthmus af aorta
E. Brachiocephalic trunk
585. Which of the following venous structures is located on anterior wall of trachea down
from the isthmus of thyroid gland?
A. Inferior thyroid vein
B. Unpair thyroid plexus *
C. Inferior laryngeal vein
D. Tracheal veins
E. Jugular venous arch
586. Blood supplying of trachea is realized by:
B. Costocervical trunk
C. Inferior thyroid artery *
E. Ascending cervical artery
587. Innervation of trachea is realized by:
A. Lingual nerve
B. Facial nerve
C. Vagus nerve
D. Recurrent laryngeal nerve *
E. Superior laryngeal nerve
588. Blood supplying of pharynx is realized by:
A. Superior laryngeal artery
B. Ascending pharyngeal artery *
C. Sublingual artery
D. Sphenopalatine artery
E. Superior thyroid artery
B. Sphenopalatine artery
D. Ascending palatine artery *
A. Descending palatine artery *
B. Superior laryngeal artery
D. Sphenopalatine artery
591. Which of the following nerves takes part in forming of pharyngeal plexus that is
located on posterior and lateral walls of pharynx?
A. Vagus nerve *
B. Facial nerve
C. Lingual nerve
D. Superior laryngeal nerve
E. Recurrent laryngeal nerve
A. Recurrent laryngeal nerve
B. Facial nerve
C. Lingual nerve
E. Sympathetic trunk *
A. Superior laryngeal nerve
B. Facial nerve
C. Lingual nerve
D. Glossopharyngeal nerve *
594. Origin of esophagus is placed at which of the following distance from anterior teeth?
A. 5 cm
B. 10 cm
C. 15 cm *
D. 20 cm
E. 25 cm
595. Length of cervical part of esophagus is
A. 3 cm
B. 4 cm
C. 5 cm *
D. 6 cm
E. 7 cm
596. Which of the following arteries crosses the lateral wall of esophagus at level of its
origin?
E. Inferior pharyngeal artery
597. Blood supplying of the cervical part of esophagus is realized by:
B. Costocervical trunk
C. Superior thyroid artery
D. Inferior thyroid artery *
598. Innervation of the cervical part of esophagus is realized by:
A. Recurrent laryngeal nerve *
B. Superior laryngeal nerve
C. Sympathetic trunk
D. Glossopharyngeal nerve
E. Vagus nerve
599. Which of the following thyroid arteries runs parallel and inward to external branch of
superior laryngeal nerve?
A. Superior thyroid artery *
B. Inferior thyroid artery
C. Lowest thyroid artery
D. Superior and inferior thyroid arteries
E. Inferior and lowest thyroid arteries
600. Ascending branch of which of the following thyroid arteries runs parallel to phrenic
nerve:
C. Lowest thyroid artery
D. None of these
E. All of these
601. Which of the following thyroid arteries is located within pretracheal space and may
be damaged during inferior tracheostomy:
C. Lowest thyroid artery *
D. None of these
E. All of these
602. Branches of which of the following nerves takes part in forming of nervous plexus of
thyroid gland:
A. Recurrent laryngeal nerve *
B. Accesory nerve
D. Vagus nerve
E. None of these
thyroid gland:
A. Vagus nerve
B. Accesory nerve
D. Sympathetic trunk *
E. None of these
thyroid gland:
A. Glossopharyngeal nerve
B. Accesory nerve
C. Superior laryngeal nerve *
D. Vagus nerve
E. None of these
605. Which part of sternocleidomastoid muscle is guide for access during surgeries on
cervical part of esophagus?
A. Anterior of the left
B. Posterior of the left*
C. Anterior of the right
D. Posterior of the right
E. Middle of the muscle
606. Emergency laryngotomy performed between ___________ cartilages.
A. Thyroid and cricoid *
B. Arytenoid and corniculate
C. Thyroid and arytenoid
D. Cricoid and corniculate
E. Arytenoid and cricoid
607. Bifurcation of common carotid artery is projected at superior edge of which of the
following cartilages?
A. Thyroid *
B. Arytenoid
C. Cricoid
D. Corniculate
E. Epiglottic
608. Branch of which of the following nerves forms inferior cervical ansa (together with
lower root of cervical plexus)?
A. Lingual nerve
B. Marginal branch of facial nerve
C. Hypoglossal nerve *
D. Transverse nerve of neck
E. Thyrohyoid nerve
609. Which of the following nerves participates in forming of sinocarotid zone located in
bifurcation of common carotid artery?
A. Vagus nerve *
B. Facial nerve
C. Lingual nerve
A. Hypoglossal nerve
B. Facial nerve
C. Glossopharyngeal nerve *
A. Sublingual node
B. Facial nerve
C. Lingual nerve
E. Sympathetic trunk *
612. The first branch of external carotid artery on the neck is:
B. Superior thyroid artery *
C. Lingual artery
D. Facial artery
E. Occipital artery
613. Which of the following branches arises from external carotid artery at level of major
corn of hyoid bone?
B. Lingual artery
C. Facial artery *
D. Occipital artery
614. Which of the following branches of external carotid artery runs along its wall up?
B. Ascending pharyngeal artery *
C. Facial artery
D. Occipital artery
615. Superior node of the sympathetic trunk is intersected by vagus nerve at level of
_________ cervical vertebrae.
A. I
B. II
C. III *
D. IV
E. V
616. Which of the following nerves is source of superior cervical cardial nerve formation?
A. Facial nerve
B. Vagus nerve
C. Recurrent laryngeal nerve
D. Sympathetic trunk (superior node) *
E. Accessory nerve
617. Why you should ligate the neck veins before its cutting?
A. for prevention air embolism *
B. for prevention bleeding
C. this rule does not apply to the neck veins
D. it’s important just for main veins
E. you should ligate just tributaries of external jugular vein
618. What is danger of postoperative bleeding from the wounds of the anterior region of
neck?
A. Possible compression of the trachea
B. Possible compression of vagus nerve
C. Development of septic complications
D. Development of air embolism
E. All of these are important *
619. Where is place for cervical vago-sympathetic block after O. Vyshnevskyy?
A. Between sternocleidomastoid muscles
B. In the corner between clavicle and external edge of sternocleidomastoid muscle
C. Jugular notch
D. 3 cm above the mid-clavicle
E. Intersection of the posterior edge of sternocleidomastoid with external jugular vein *
620. Which of the following parts of thyroid gland should be remained in case of subtotal
subfascial resection after O. Nikolaeff?
A. Anterior-lateral
B. Isthmus
C. Superior polus
D. Inferior polus
E. Posterior-lateral *
621. Which surgical instrument is used for dilatation of tracheal wound in case of
tracheostomy?
A. Dilator by Jansen
B. Dilator by Pasoff
C. S-shaped laminae hook by Farabeuf
D. Retractor by Troussean *
E. Miculitcz retractor
622. To abort an attack of paroxysmal tachycardia, an enterprising medical student
massaged the carotid sinus to reduce the heart rate. The landmark which guided him to the
sinus was the:
A. Inferior border of the mandible
B. Hyoid bone
C. Laryngeal prominence *
D. Cricoid cartilage
E. Suprasternal notch
623. Which of the following is not a branch of the superior thyroid artery?
A. Infrahyoid artery
B. Sternocleidomastoid artery
D. Ascending cervical artery *
E. Cricothyroid artery
624. The thyroid gland can be examined in which of the following triangles of the neck?
A. submental
B. glandular
C. carotid
D. submandibular (or digastric)
E. muscular (or visceral) *
625. The cough reflex, as do all reflexes, has a sensory and a motor part to it. What nerve
carries the sensory part of the cough reflex?
A. internal laryngeal nerve *
B. external laryngeal nerve
C. trigeminal nerve
D. facial nerve
E. maxillary nerve
626. A structure that can easily be injured during ligation of the superior thyroid artery is
the:
A. inferior laryngeal branch of the recurrent laryngeal nerve
B. ascending pharyngeal artery
C. superior parathyroid gland
D. transverse colli nerve
E. external branch of the superior laryngeal *
627. A surgeon removing a thyroid gland wishe to be sure that he is not removing the
parathyroid glands. If he cannot find the superior parathyroids it may be becaue they are:
A. In the thorax
B. Not present
C. Embedded in the thyroid
D. Easily mistaken for lymph nodes
E. Any of these *
628. All of the following are surgical hazards during a thyroidectomy because of their
anatomical relationships except the:
A. Accessory nerve *
B. Recurrent laryngeal nerve
C. Internal jugular vein
D. Parathyroid glands
E. External branch of the superior laryngeal nerve
629. A young woman chokes on a piece of rare steak in a restaurant. A doctor friend
cannot dislodge the steak and performs an emergency tracheotomy. Bleeding ensues. The
bleeding was most likely due to perforation of the:
A. Communicating arch of the anterior jugulars and inferior thyroid veins *
D. External carotid artery
E. Communicating arch of the anterior jugulars and superior thyroid veins
630. Which of the following statements about the ansa cervicalis is false?
A. It lies in front of the carotid sheath
B. It is formed by a loop between the descendens hypoglossi (superior ramus) and the
descendens cervicalis (inferior ramus)
C. The descendens cervicalis contains no fibers originating in the medulla oblongata
D. The descendens hypoglossi contains fibers originating in the medulla oblongata *
E. All of these statements are false
631. The cervical plexus contributes to the nerve supply of all of the following except the:
A. Diaphragm
B. Infrahyoid muscle
C. Trapezius muscle
D. Intrinsic muscles of the tongue *
E. Sternocleidomastoid muscle
632. The superior cervical ganglion gives:
A. White rami to C1, 2, 3, and 4
B. A branch to the middle cervical ganglion, the ansa subclavia
C. Visceral branches to the esophageal plexus
D. Brances to the internal carotid plexus *
633. A superficial cervical block is carried out by injecting local anesthetic along the
middle one-third of the posterior border of the sternocleidomastoid muscle. The nerves
blocked should include the:
A. Greater occipital and posterior auricular nerves *
B. Greater auricular and posterior auricular nerves
C. Posterior auricular nerve
D. Transverse cervical nerve
E. None of these
634. A surgeon attempting a left phrenic nerve resection as it lies on the front of the
scalenus anterior muscle at the root of the neck may encounter the:
A. Transverse cervical and suprascapular arteries and veins, thoracic duct *
B. Vertebral artery, thoracic duct
C. Transverse cervical veins, thoracic duct
D. Vertebral and transverse cervical arteries
E. Inferior cervical ganglion of the sympathetic trunk
635. To denervate the pressure receptors in the carotid sinus one must cut the:
A. Glossopharyngeal nerve *
B. Vagus nerve
C. Accessory nerve
D. Ansa hypoglossi
E. Cervical sympathetic trunk below the middle cervical ganglion
636. The recurrent laryngeal nerve:
A. Runs in the groove between the esophagus and the trachea
B. Enters the larynx through the cricothyroid membrane
C. Supplies motor fibers to the thyroarytenoideus muscle
D. All are correct *
E. None of these
637. The vocal folds extend between the:
A. Thyroid and cricoid cartilages
B. Cricoid and arytenoid cartilages
C. Thyroid and arytenoid cartilages *
D. Arytenoid and epiglottic cartilages
E. None of these
638. The motor nerve to the cricothyroid muscle is the:
A. Internal branch of the superior laryngeal nerve
B. Glossopharyngeal nerve
C. Recurrent laryngeal nerve
D. Cervical branch of the facial nerve
E. External branch of the superior laryngeal nerve *
639. All of the following are surgical hazards during a thyroidectomy because of their
anatomical relationships except the:
A. Accessory nerve *
B. Recurrent laryngeal nerve
C. Internal jugular vein
D. Parathyroid glands
E. External branch of the superior laryngeal nerve
640. If a surgeon removing a parathyroid adenoma were to injure the nerve which
constitutes a major hazard in this procedure, one of the muscles which would be paralyzed
would be the:
A. Middle pharyngeal constrictor
B. Diaphragm
C. Lateral thyroarytenoid *
D. Thyrohyoid
E. Mylohyoid
641. The middle constrictor of the pharynx arises partly from the:
A. Oblique line of the thyroid cartilage
B. Thyrohyoid membrane
C. Body of the hyoid bone
D. Stylohyoid ligament *
E. Posterior margin of the cricoid cartilage
642. Which of the following contribute branches to the pharyngeal plexus of nerves?
A. The superior cervical ganglion
B. The glossopharyngeal nerve
C. The vagus nerve
D. All of these *
E. None of these
643. The stylopharyngeus muscle is a landmark in locating the glossopharyngeal nerve.
The nerve lies:
A. Lateral the muscle
B. Middle to the muscle
C. Posterior to the muscle
D. All of these are correct depending upon the level of dissection *
E. All are not correct
644. Transection of the superior laryngeal nerve would result in paralysis of the:
A. Posterior cricoarytenoid muscle
B. Thyroarytenoid muscle
C. Thyrohyoid muscle
D. Cricothyroid muscle *
E. Middle pharyngeal constrictor
645. A patient complains of laryngeal stridor (crowing) on exertion. On laryngoscopic
examination you observe that the normal looking vocal cords are adducted. You suspect that
the abductors of the vocal cords are inoperative. These are the:
A. Cricothyroid muscle
B. Thyroarytenoid muscle
C. Anterior cricoarytenoid muscle
D. Posterior cricoarytenoid muscle *
E. All of these
646. If the right recurrent laryngeal nerve were injured during a thyroidectomy, laryngeal
muscles which would be functioning would include the:
A. Right cricothyroid muscle
B. Left thyroarytenoid muscle
C. Left cricothyroid muscle
D. All of these *
E. None of these
647. The thyroid gland receives blood from the:
A. External carotid artery and costocervical trunk
B. External carotid and subclavian arteries *
C. Internal and external carotid arteries
D. Internal carotid and subclavian arteries
E. Subclavian artery and costocervical trunk
648. Indication for vago-sympathetic block after Vyshnevskyy is:
A. Pleuro-pulmonary shock *
B. Hepatic failure
C. Postoperative shock in case of injure of pelvic organs
D. Renal failure
E. Cardiac failure
649. Indication for vago-sympathetic block after Vyshnevskyy is:
A. Hepatic failure
B. Postoperative shock in case of injure of pelvic organs
C. Postoperative shock in case of injure of thoracic and abdominal cavities*
D. Renal failure
E. Cardiac failure
650. Complication after subtotal subfascial resection of thyroid gland is:
A. Vagus nerve damage
B. Bleeding *
C. Horner’s syndrome
D. Tracheoesophageal fistula
E. Tracheitis
B. Phrenic nerve damage
C. Horner’s syndrome
D. Excision of parathyroid glands *
E. Difficult swallowing
B. Recurrent nerve damage *
C. Laryngeal edema
D. Fat embolism
E. Laryngeal cyst
B. Compression of recurrent nerve by hematoma *
C. Pharynx reflex
D. Retropharyngeal abscess
E. Difficult swallowing
B. Asphyxia *
C. Lacunar angina
D. Laryngeal angina
E. All of these
B. Violation of voice (hoarseness, aphonia) *
C. Laryngeal stenosis
D. Chondroperichondritis of larynx
E. Laryngeal angina
B. Air embolism *
C. Lacunar angina
D. Laryngeal angina
E. Pharynx reflex
B. Recurrent toxic goiter *
C. Chondroperichondritis of larynx
D. Horner’s syndrome
E. Tracheoesophageal fistula
A. Bleeding
B. Excision of parathyroid glands
C. Recurrent nerve damage
D. Compression of recurrent nerve by hematoma
E. All are correct *
A. Asphyxia
B. Violation of voice (hoarseness, aphonia)
C. Air embolism
D. Recurrent toxic goiter
660. The main method of surgical treatment of nodular goiter is:
A. Subtotal subfascial resection of thyroid lobe with node *
B. Resection of thyroid gland
C. Strumectomy
D. All methods can be used
A. Resection of thyroid gland
B. Strumectomy
C. Enucleation *
D. Hemityreoidectomy
E. All are correct
A. Resection of thyroid gland
B. Strumectomy
C. Hemityreoidectomy
D. Enucleation with resection *
E. None of these
A. Subtotal subfascial resection of thyroid lobe with node
B. Enucleation
C. Enucleation with resection
D. All methods can be used *
664. The main method of surgical treatment of diffuse goiter is:
A. Subtotal subfascial resection of thyroid gland after Nykolaeff *
B. Resection of thyroid gland
C. Enucleation
D. Hemityreoidectomy
E. Enucleation with resection
665. Length of tracheal incision is equal to diameter of which of the following
instruments?
A. Tracheostomy cannula *
B. Tracheal dilator
C. Wound dilator
D. Bronchoscope
E. Artificial airway
666. Indication for tracheostomy:
A. Damage of larynx or trachea if it is found to be impossible to remove of asphyxia *
B. Tracheoesophageal fistula
D. Compression of recurrent nerve by hematoma
E. Laryngeal cyst
A. Laryngeal cyst
B. Stenosis of larynx or trachea *
C. Tracheoesophageal fistula
D. Laryngeal angina
E. Pharynx reflex
A. Lacunar angina
B. Laryngeal cyst
D. False croup *
A. Foreign bodies of larynx *
B. Tracheoesophageal fistula
D. Laryngeal cyst
E. Pharynx reflex
A. Pharynx reflex
B. Laryngeal angina
C. Violation of voice (hoarseness, aphonia)
D. Traumatic brain injury *
A. Damage of larynx or trachea if it is found to be impossible to remove of asphyxia
B. Stenosis of larynx or trachea
C. False croup
D. Foreign bodies of larynx
E. All of these *
672. Which of the following instruments is necessary for performance of tracheostomy?
A. One-tooth sharp hook *
B. S-shaped laminae hook by Farabeuf
C. Artificial airway
D. Kocher’s probe
E. Buiallsky’s spatula
A. Wound dilator
B. Tracheostomy cannula *
C. S-shaped laminae hook by Farabeuf
D. Artificial airway
E. Kocher’s probe
A. Wound dilator
B. Buiallsky’s spatula
C. Blunt hook for isthmus of thyroid gland *
D. S-shaped laminae hook by Farabeuf
E. Artificial airway
A. One-tooth sharp hook
B. Tracheostomy cannula
C. Blunt hook for isthmus of thyroid gland
D. Tracheal dilator
676. Which of the following symptoms is evidence of correctly performed vago-
sympathetic blockade after Vyshnevskyy?
A. Narrowing of pupils
B. Hyperemia of face
C. Hyperemia of tunica albuginea of eye
D. Retraction of eyeball
A. Dilation of pupils
B. Narrowing of pupils *
C. Dilation of interpalpebral space
D. Exophthalmos
E. Tachycardia
B. Increase of arterial pressure
C. Hyperemia of face *
D. Dilation of interpalpebral space
E. Exophthalmos
B. Bradycardia
C. Exophthalmos
D. Hyperemia of tunica albuginea of eye *
E. Dilation of interpalpebral space
A. Decrease of arterial pressure
B. Dilation of pupils
C. Dilation of interpalpebral space
D. Narrowing of interpalpebral space *
E. Exophthalmos
A. Retraction of eyeball *
B. Dilation of pupils
C. Bradycardia
D. Dilation of interpalpebral space
E. Exophthalmos
682. The following statements concerning the structures in the neck are correct except
which?
A. The parotid salivary gland contains within its substance the facial nerve and the external
carotid artery
B. The parotid duct opens into the mouth opposite the upper second molar tooth
C. As the trachea descends through the neck it rests posteriorly on the vertebral column *
D. The nerve to the mylohyoid muscle innervates the anterior belly of the digastric muscle
E. The hypoglossal nerve innervates the muscle of the tounge.
683. Which of the following nerves might be injured when tying the inferior thyroid artery
during operations on the thyroid gland?
A. The sympathetic trunk
B. The internal laryngeal nerve
C. The descendens cervicalis
D. The recurrent laryngeal nerve *
E. The superior laryngeal nerve.
684. To where do the submental lymph nodes drain?
A. The superficial cervical lymph nodes
B. The deep cervical lymph nodes *
C. The submandibular lymph nodes
D. The tracheobronchial lymph nodes
E. The anterior cervical lymph nodes.
685. Which of the following anatomical structures forms one of the Pyrogov’s triangle
side?
A. N. hypoglossus *
B. M. geniohyoideus
C. M. genioglossus
D. M. styloglossus
E. M. sternocleidomastoideus.
686. The retrovisceral space is boarded by the:
A. I, II and III neck fasciae
B. IV, V neck fasciae *
C. Two laminae of the IV neck fasciae
D. I, III neck fasciae
E. II, III neck fasciae.
687. The phrenic nerve on the neck region is located in the
A. Interscalenic space
B. Antescalenic space *
C. Omovertebral triangle
D. Omotracheal triangle
E. Carotid triangle.
688. Which of the following anatomical structures closely attaches to the posterior surface
of the external edge of thyroid gland?
A. Internal jugular vein
B. Parathyroid glands
D. Inferior laryngeal nerve
E. Vagus nerve.
689. Which tracheal cartilages is cutted during inferior tracheostomy?
A. 3-4 *
B. 1-2
C. 2-3
D. 5-6
E. 7-8.
690. How many branches originate from the internal carotid artery on the neck region?
A. 6
B. 9
C. 1
D. No one *
E. 3.
691. Which of the following arteries are located within the bed of the submandibular
gland?
A. Submandibular
B. Angular
C. Facial *
D. Buccal
E. Internal carotid.
692. Which of the following statements concerning intercostals nerves is correct?
A. There are 11 pairs of thoracic spinal nerves
B. The thoracic spinal nerves are commonly called subcostal nerves
C. The ventral rami of the thoracic spinal nerves supply muscle, bone, joint, and skin of
the back
D. They supply the parietal pleura and are mainly sensory nerves
E. They are the ventral rami of the thoracic spinal nerves *
693. Which of the following structures passes through the aortic hiatus of the diaphragm?
A. Vagus nerve
B. Esophagus
C. Inferior vena cava
D. Sympathetic trunk
E. Azygos vein *
694. All of the following veins drain into the coronary sinus except the:
A. Great cardiac vein
B. Middle cardiac vein
C. Oblique vein of left atrium
D. Small cardiac vein
E. Anterior cardiac veins *
695. The major venous return system of the heart, the coronary sinus, empties into the:
A. Inferior vena cava
B. Left atrium
C. Superior vena cava
D. Right ventricle
E. Right atrium *
696. Which of these statements is true in relation to intercostal nerves?
A. In the intercostal space, they run between the internal and external intercostals
muscles
B. They are located in the costal groove above the artery and vein
C. They are all confined to the thorax
D. They are entirely cutaneous to the thoracic wall
E. The upper six nerves terminate as anterior cutaneous branches *
697. All the following structures empty into the right atrium of the heart except the:
A. Coronary sinus
B. Inferior vena cava
D. Anterior cardiac veins
E. Pulmonary veins *
698. The lateral boundary of the superior mediastinum is the:
A. Lateral border of the sternum
B. T-1 to T-4 vertebrae
C. Sternal angle
D. T-2 to T-5 vertebrae
E. Mediastinal pleura *
699. Most of the sternocostal surface of the heart is formed by the:
A. Right atrium
B. Left ventricle
C. Right auricle
D. Left atrium
E. Right ventricle *
700. Each of the following arteries is a branch of the internal thoracic except the:
A. Pericardiophrenic
B. Musculophrenic
C. Superior epigastric
D. Anterior intercostals
E. Superior phrenic *
701. Which of the following structures passes posterior to the root of the right lung?
A. Hemiazygos vein
B. Right phrenic nerve
C. Thoracic aorta
D. Right recurrent laryngeal nerve
E. Right vagus nerve *
702. Each of the following vessels empties into the coronary sinus except the:
A. Great cardiac vein
C. Small cardiac vein
D. Posterior vein of the left ventricle
E. Anterior cardiac vein *
703. Each of the following structures is found in the posterior mediastinum except the:
A. Vagus nerve
B. Azygos vein
C. Descending aorta
D. Esophagus
E. Phrenic nerve *
704. The brachiocephalic veins receive venous blood directly from each of the following
except the:
A. Subclavian vein
B. Internal jugular vein
C. Inferior thyroid vein
D. Internal thoracic vein
E. External jugular vein *
705. Each of the following is related to the right ventricle except the:
A. Interventricular septum
B. Trabeculae cameae
C. Anterior papillary muscle
D. Septomarginal band
E. Bicuspid valve *
706. The greater splanchnic nerve usually contains nerve fibers derived from each of the
following spinal nerves except:
A. T-5
B. T-9
C. T-8
D. T-7
E. T-10 *
707. The left coronary artery bifurcates into the circumflex branch and the:
A. Left marginal branch
B. Left ventricular branch
C. Right marginal branch
D. Posterior interventricular branch
E. Anterior interventricular branch *
708. The posterior intercostal artery in the fifth intercostal space arises from the
A. Musculophrenic artery
B. Internal thoracic artery
C. Costocervical trunk
E. Thoracic aorta *
709. All of the following can be found in the coronary sulcus (atrioventricular groove)
except the
A. Right coronary artery
B. Circumflex branch of the left coronary artery
C. Great cardiac vein
D. Coronary sinus
E. Middle cardiac vein *
710. The most anterior of the following structures in the superior mediastinum is the:
A. Aortic arch
B. Left common carotid artery
C. Right common carotid artery
D. Phrenic nerve
E. Brachiocephalic vein *
711. Each of the following arteries is a branch of the descending thoracic aorta except the:
A. Posterior intercostal
B. Esophageal
C. Bronchial
D. Pericardial
E. Left subclavian *
712. Within the superior mediastinum, the anterior surface of the esophagus is in contact
with the:
A. Anterior longitudinal ligament of the vertebral column
B. Thoracic duct
C. Thymus
D. Arch of the aorta
E. Trachea *
713. The thoracic duct is correctly described by each of the following except it:
A. Is the largest lymphatic channel in the body
B. Arises in a dilatation known as the cistema chyli within the abdomen
C. Returns to the bloodstream lymph from all of the body below the diaphragm and
from the left half of the body above the diaphragm
D. Courses through the posterior mediastinum between the aorta and the azygos vein
E. Diverges in the superior mediastinum to the right side of the esophagus, towards the
right superior aperture of the neck *
714. On the diaphragmatic surface of the heart, the posterior interventricular sulcus
separates which of the following chambers?
A. Right ventricle-right atrium
B. Left ventricle-left atrium
C. Left atrium-right atrium
D. Left ventricle-right atrium
E. Left ventricle-right ventricle *
715. The parietal pleura is described by each of the following terms except:
A. Diaphragmatic
B. Cervical
C. Costal
D. Mediastinal
E. Basal *
716. The blood supply to the anterior two-thirds of the interventricular septum is provided
by the:
A. Marginal branch of the right coronary artery
B. Marginal branch of the left coronary artery
C. Circumflex branch of the left coronary artery
D. Posterior interventricular artery
E. Anterior interventricular artery *
717. Which one of the following structures in the posterior mediastinum is found
immediately posterior to the left atrium and pericardium?
A. Vagus nerves
B. Azygos vein
C. Thoracic duct
D. Right pulmonary artery
E. Esophagus *
718. Each of the following statements correctly describes the costodiaphragmatic recess
except:
A. It is an inferior extension of the pleural cavity
B. It represents an area where the costal and diaphragmatic layers of parietal pleura can
come into apposition with each other
C. In quiet respiration, it is usually found deep to the eighth and ninth intercostals
spaces in the midaxillary line
D. It contains a thin film of serous fluid
E. It is a sub-compartment of the thoracic cavity *
719. The most superior structure at the root of the left lung is the:
A. Superior pulmonary vein
B. Primary bronchus
C. Inferior pulmonary vein
D. Bronchiolar artery
E. Pulmonary artery *
720. The horizontal fissure of the right lung separates the
A. Superior and inferior lobes
B. Inferior and middle lobes
C. Superior lobe from the cardiac notch
D. Superior lobe and lingula
E. Superior and middle lobes *
721. Each of the following is found at the horizontal plane of the sternal angle except the:
A. Superior termination of the fibrous pericardium
B. Intervertebral disk between the fourth and fifth thoracic vertebrae
C. Beginning and termination of aortic arch
D. Bifurcation of trachea
E. Bifurcation of the brachiocephalic artery into the right subclavian and right common
carotid arteries *
722. The part of the rib that articulates with the transverse process of the vertebra is the:
A. Superior articular facet
B. Inferior articular facet
C. Angle
D. Neck
E. Tubercle articular facet *
723. The superior vena cava is formed:
A. Deep to the right second costal cartilage
B. Deep to the right sternoclavicular joint
C. Deep to the right subclavian artery
D. Anterior to the aortic arch
E. Deep to the right first costal cartilage *
724. Deep to the fourth intercostal space on the right side of the sternum is the:
A. Superior vena cava
B. Right brachiocephalic vein
C. Left brachiocephalic vein
D. Brachiocephalic trunk
E. Right atrium *
725. The esophageal hiatus transmits the esophagus and the:
A. Superior phrenic artery
B. Thoracic duct
D. Lesser splanchnic nerve
E. Vagal nerve trunks *
726. The musculophrenic artery is a branch of which of the following arteries?
A. Inferior epigastric
B. Superficial epigastric
C. Superficial circumflex
D. Deep external pudendal
E. Internal thoracic *
727. The aortic hiatus of the diaphragm is located at the level of which vertebra?
A. Fourth cervical
B. Sixth cervical
C. Fifth thoracic
D. Fourth lumbar
E. 12th thoracic *
728. The mediastinum contains all the following structures except the:
A. Heart
B. Pulmonary arteries
C. Trachea
D. Esophagus
E. Lungs *
729. Anatomically components of the proper thoracic wall include the:
A. Pectoral muscles
B. Serratus anterior
C. Trapezius
D. Latissimus dorsi
E. Intercostal muscles *
730. The superior thoracic aperture can be described correctly by which of these
statements?
A. It is large and irregular
B. It is bounded by the third thoracic vertebra
C. It includes the costal arch
D. It involves costal cartilages of the tenth rib
E. Its plane slopes downward and forward *
731. The sternal angle is found at which of these locations?
A. Jugular notch
B. Xiphoid process
C. Level with the fourth costal cartilage
D. Level with the lower border of the sixth thoracic vertebra
E. Manubriosternal joint *
732. Ossification of the parts of the body of the sternum usually is complete by age (in
years):
A. One
B. Three
C. Six
D. 15
E. 21 *
733. Which of the following defines true ribs?
A. All 12 pairs
B. Lower five pairs
C. 10th and 11th pairs
D. 12th pair
E. Upper seven pairs *
734. All the following are correct statements about rib fractures except
A. Most frequently they occur as a result of compression forces on the thorax
B. Most often they occur just anterior to the costal angle
C. Broken rib ends tend to spring outward
D. Fractured bone ends may injure the lungs
E. Splinting the chest wall is essential treatment *
735. Which of these statements correctly describes intercostal muscles?
A. External intercostals begin anteriorly
B. External intercostal membrane is posterior
C. Fibers of external intercostals slant upward and backward
D. Innermost intercostals are the best developed of the intercostals
E. Fibers of internal intercostals run upward and forward *
736. Innervation of the thoracic wall can be described, correctly by all the following
statements except:
A. It receives a nerve supply from spinal nerves T1-12
B. Cutaneous innervation of skin over paravertebral regions of the thorax is provided by
dorsal rami of spinal nerves
C. Ventral rami of T1-11 are called intercostals nerves
D. The ventral ramus of T12 is the subcostal nerve
E. It receives no nerve supply from cervical nerves *
737. Which of these statements is true in relation to intercostal nerves?
A. In the intercostal space, they run between the internal and external intercostal
muscles
B. They are located in the costal groove above the artery and vein
C. They are all confined to the thorax
D. They are entirely cutaneous to the thoracic wall
E. The upper six nerves terminate as anterior cutaneous branches *
738. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the blood vessels of the
thoracic wall?
A. In the intercostal space, the vessels run just below the respective intercostal nerve
B. Branches of the vessels vary widely from those of the intercostal nerves
C. Posterior intercostal arteries are branches of the internal thoracic artery
D. Branches of the descending thoracic aorta become anterior intercostal arteries
E. Superficial structures of the thorax are served by intercostal vessels *
739. All the following are true statements about the anterior thoracic artery except:
A. It descends behind the subclavian vein
B. It divides into two terminal branches
C. It gives branches to the mediastinum
D. The musculophrenic artery is one of its terminal branches
E. It is a branch of the arch of the aorta *
740. Innervation of pleura can be described correctly by all of these statements except:
A. Costal pleura is supplied by intercostal nerves
B. The central portion of diaphragmatic pleura is supplied by the phrenic nerve
C. Peripheral diaphragmatic pleura is supplied by intercostal nerves
D. Mediastinal pleura is supplied by the phrenic nerve
E. The pain of pleurisy is mediated by autonomic nerves *
741. Which of the following statements is correct in relation to internal anatomy of the
lung?
A. Arteries and veins provide the major lung framework
B. Bronchi branch symmetrically
C. Bronchi are hollow tubes without particular wall support
D. Pulmonary vessels show no particular relationship to bronchial branching
E. Bronchopulmonary segments are the anatomic units *
742. Which of these items is true regarding external anatomy of the lung?
A. The upper tapered end of the lung is its base
B. The root of the lung is located at its base
C. Lobes are comparable to bronchopulmonary segments
D. Each lung has three lobes
E. Visceral pleura covers all lung surfaces *
743. Which of these statements is correct regarding pulmonary circulation of the lung?
A. It is the main blood supply to the bronchi
B. It is the main blood supply to the connective tissue of the lung
C. The pulmonary trunk goes directly to the left lung
D. Pulmonary veins enter the right atrium of the heart
E. The pulmonary trunk arises from the right ventricle *
744. The ligamentum arteriosum is located correctly by which of the following?
A. Between the ductus arteriosus and the right pulmonary artery
B. Between the left pulmonary vein and the aorta
C. Between the right pulmonary vein and the pulmonary trunk
D. Between the left bronchial artery and the aortic arch
E. Between the left pulmonary artery and the aortic arch *
745. All the following are correct statements about pulmonary veins except:
A. Two veins pass from the hilum of each lung
B. They show more variation than do the pulmonary arteries
C. They are formed by confluence of capillaries in the lung
D. Their primary tributaries are related to particular bronchopulmonary segments
E. Usually they enter the right atrium of the heart *
746. The bronchial arteries may arise from all the following except the:
A. Descending aorta
B. Right intercostal artery
C. Arch of the aorta
E. Anterior thoracic artery *
747. Which of the following statements describes nerve supply of the lungs correctly?
A. Sympathetic fibers in the pulmonary plexus are preganglionic fibers
B. Vagal fibers in the pulmonary plexus are postganglionic fibers
C. The vagus innervates the smooth muscle in walls of pulmonary vessets
D. Sympathetic fibers control constriction of the bronchi
E. Visceral afferents from the lung have been demonstrated only in the vagus nerve *
748. All of the following statements about the pericardial sac are true except:
A. The outer layer is fibrous
B. Epicardium completely invests the heart
C. The pericardial sac and its contents comprise the middle mediastinum
D. The pericardial sac is fused to the central tendon of the diaphragm
E. The fibrous pericardium lubricates the moving surfaces of the heart *
749. Which of these items correctly describes the heart?
A. All the great veins enter its apex
B. The apex points forward and toward the right
C. The diaphragmatic surface is formed largely by the right ventricle and atrium
D. The coronary sinus occupies the posterior interventricular sulcus
E. Its base is made largely of the left atrium and a portion of the right atrium *
750. The right atrium includes all of these structures except the:
A. Tricuspid valve
B. Crista terminalis
C. Musculi pectinati
D. Fossa ovalis
E. Trabeculae cameae *
751. Which of these statements correctly describes the azygos venous system?
A. Normally it drains into the inferior vena cava
B. It is located entirely on the right side of the vertebral column
C. It receives no blood from thoracic viscera
D. It has a number of valves
E. Primarily it drains blood from the body wall *
752. All of these items correctly described the thoracic duct except:
A. It returns lymph from the greater part of the body to the venous system
B. It is the upward continuation of the cisterna chyli
C. In most of its course it lies behind the esophagus
D. It contains valves
E. It ends at the confluence of the right subclavian and brachiocephalic veins *
753. Which of the following statements is correct in relation to thoracic splanchnic
nerves?
A. Their fibers relay in the sympathetic ganglion chain
B. They are part of the cardiac plexus
C. Usually they are five in number
D. They consist of parasympathetic nerve fibers
E. They are composed predominantly of preganglionic fibers *
754. Correct description of structure of the sternum includes which of the following
statements?
A. The jugular notch is located at the lower border of the manubrium
B. The sternal angle is located at the articulation of the body and the xiphoid process
C. The body consists of five fused stemebrae
D. The xiphoid process consists of bone thicker than that of the body
E. The upper border of the body is located at the level of the costal cartilage of the
second rib *
755. Ribs may be described correctly by all the following except:
A. Every rib articulates with the vertebral column
B. The upper seven pairs of ribs are called vertebrosternal
C. Ribs 8, 9, and 10 are called vertebrochondral ribs
D. Floating ribs are the last two pairs
E. Ribs one through 12 are called true ribs *
756. Which of these facts about ribs is not true?
A. The sternal end of each arch lies at a lower level than the vertebral end
B. Ribs and cartilages increase in length progressively from first to seventh rib
C. The transverse diameter of the thorax increases progressively from first to eighth rib
D. The ninth is the most obliquely placed rib
E. The typical rib takes an upward slope *
757. All of these statements about intercostal arteries are correct except:
A. The upper two posterior intercostal arteries arise from the supreme intercostal artery
B. The lower nine posterior intercostal arteries arise from the aorta
C. Intercostal arteries run under the shelter of a costal groove
D. Intercostal arteries accompany each intercostal nerve
E. The superior epigastric artery supplies anterior intercostal arteries *
758. Which of the following structures is not located in the mediastinum?
A. Heart and pericardium
B. Trachea
C. Vessels proceeding to and from the heart
D. Vagus nerves
E. Lungs *
759. All of the following are parts of the parietal pleura except:
A. Costal
B. Mediastinal
C. Diaphragmatic
D. Cervical
E. Pulmonary *
760. All of these statements describe the aortic arch correctly except:
A. It lies in the superior mediastinum
B. It begins at the level of the sternal angle
C. It gives off the left common carotid artery
D. It gives off the right and left coronary arteries
E. It gives off the right subclavian artery *
761. Correct description of the recurrent laryngeal nerves includes which of the
following?
A. They are branches of the phrenic nerve
B. They branch from the sympathetic trunk
C. Their neuronal cell bodies are in the cervical spinal cord
D. The right nerve recurs around the superior vena cava
E. The left nerve recurs around the ligamentum arteriosum *
762. Each segmental bronchus together with the portion of lung it supplies is called:
A. Primary segment
B. Lobar segment
C. Epiarterial segment
D. Alveolar segment
E. Bronchopulmonary segment *
763. Correct information about bronchial arteries includes all the following items except:
A. They arise by a stem from the aorta
B. They supply the pulmonary pleura
C. They supply the bronchi
D. They run through the interlobar structures
E. The pressure within them is low *
764. Nerves of the lungs and pleura include all of these except:
A. Branches of the vagus contribute to the pulmonary plexus
B. Branches of the thoracic sympathetic ganglia 1 through 5 help to form the pulmonary
plexus
C. Sensory vagal fibers constitute the afferent limb of the respiratory reflex arc
D. Efferent vagal fibers are secretomotor
E. Visceral pleura has many afferent nerves sensitive to mechanical stimulation *
765. The tracheal bifurcation can be seen at which of these levels?
A. T8 in the erect subject
B. T6 during inspiration
C. T12 during expiration
D. T2-3 in the supine cadaver
E. T4-5 in the supine living subject *
766. If the phrenic nerve was cut close to its origin, which of these effects could be seen?
A. Loss of bronchoconstriction
B. Loss of power in intercostal muscles
C. Difficulty in expiration
D. Loss of the respiratory reflex arc
E. Loss of sensation in the middle diaphragm *
767. The brachiocephalic veins are formed from the union of the:
A. External jugular and inferior vena cava
B. Ductus arteriosum and superior vena cava
C. Azygos vein and the axillary vein
D. Pulmonary vein and inferior vena cava
E. Internal jugular and subclavian *
768. All the following structures empty into the right atrium of the heart except the:
A. Coronary sinus
D. Anterior cardiac veins
E. Pulmonary veins *
769. In the adult, which of the following structures is not prominent in the anterior
mediastinum?
A. Loose areolar tissue
B. Lymph vessels and nodes
C. Fat
D. Sternopericardial ligaments
E. Thymus gland *
770. The thoracic aorta gives off all of these branches except:
A. Bronchial arteries
B. Pericardial arteries
C. Diaphragmatic arteries
D. One pair of subcostal arteries
E. The first pair of posterior intercostal arteries *
771. Which of these statements correctly describes the position of the esophagus?
A. It passes anterior to the left principal bronchus
B. It descends on the left of the aortic arch
C. It runs in the anterior mediastinum
D. It passes through the hiatus formed by the median arcuate ligament of the diaphragm
E. It begins at the level of the cricoid cartilage *
772. Which of the following statements is true of the trachea?
A. It descends behind the esophagus
B. Its posterior surface is convex
C. During inspiration, its bifurcation ascends
D. It contains 0-shaped bars of cartilage
E. It ends at the level of the sternal angle *
773. All of the following statements correctly describe the left vagus nerve except:
A. It gives off the left recurrent laryngeal nerve
B. Posterior to the left bronchus, it breaks up into the left pulmonary plexus
C. It forms part of the esophageal plexus
D. It descends from the neck posterior to the left common carotid artery
E. It supplies the left side of the diaphragm *
774. Which of the following correctly describes the aortic arch?
A. It passes to the right of the trachea
B. It receives the ligamentum arteriosum from the right pulmonary artery
C. It gives off the right subclavian artery
D. It gives off the left brachiocephalic trunk
E. It begins posterior to the sternal angle *
775. The superior vena cava returns blood from all of these structures except the:
A. Head
B. Neck
C. Upper limb
D. Thoracic wall
E. Lungs *
776. All of the following statements correctly describe the brachiocephalic veins except:
A. Each is formed by the union of the internal jugular and the subclavian veins
B. They unite to form the superior vena cava
C. Each vein receives the internal thoracic vein
D. They arise posterior to the medial ends of the clavicle
E. They contain valves to prevent backflow of blood *
777. All of these structures occupy the superior mediastinum except the:
A. Thymus
B. Aortic arch
C. Trachea
D. Esophagus
E. Heart and pericardium *
778. Which of the following statements is true regarding the coronary arteries?
A. Sharp lines of demarcation exist between their distribution to right and left ventricles
B. Most of the blood in these arteries returns to the left atrium
C. Variations of these arteries are uncommon
D. They are infrequent sites of arteriosclerosis
E. They arise from the right and left aortic sinuses *
779. Which of these statements correctly describes sensation of the heart?
A. Referred pain from the heart rarely occurs
B. Heart ischemia rarely results in generation of painful stimuli
C. Afferent pain fibers from the heart run in the vagus nerve
D. Usually pain from the heart is felt only in the left chest
E. The heart is insensitive to cold, heat, and touch *
780. All of the following correctly describe innervation of the heart except:
A. Sympathetics increase rate of heart beat
B. Parasympathetics reduce rate and force of heart beat
C. The impulse conducting system of the heart is controlled by the autonomic nervous
system
D. The parasympathetic cardiac nerves supply three branches to each side
E. Vagal stimulation dilates coronary arteries *
781. Which of the following is not a characteristic of the left ventricle?
A. Its wall is much thicker than that of the right ventricle
B. Its interior is covered by trabeculae cameae
C. The chordae tendinae of papillary muscles are distributed to cusps of the
atrioventricular valve
D. The aorta arises from its anterior uppermost part
E. It forms the base of the heart *
782. Characteristics of the left atrium consist of all the following except:
A. It forms most of the base of the heart
B. It contains a few musculi pectinati
C. Much of this atrium lies posterior to the right atrium
D. The auricle overlaps the root of the pulmonary trunk
E. It receives the pulmonary arteries *
783. Which of the following is characteristics of the right ventricle:
A. Ussualy it has only two pappilary muscles
B. It receives blood through the mitral valve
C. It has internal muscular ridges, the musculi pectinaty
D. It contains the fossa ovalis
E. It gives origin to the pulmonary trunk *
784. Which of the following correctly describes chambers of the heart:
A. The coronary sulcus separates the two ventricles
B. The right ventricle forms the right border of the heart
C. The valve of the superior vena cava directs blood downward
D. The interventricular septum contains the fossa ovalis
E. The superior vena cava opens into the right atrium *
785. The heart may correctly be described by all the following except:
A. An apex formed by the tip of the left ventricle
B. A diaphragmatic surface formed by both ventricles
C. A base formed by the atria
D. A location in the middle mediastinum
E. An anterior surface formed mainly by the left atrium *
786. The epicardium receives its arterial blood supply from the:
A. Pericardiophrenic
B. Musculophrenic
C. Superior phrenic
D. Bronchial
E. Coronary arteries *
787. Which of these statements is true of the fibrous pericardium?
A. It has no close relationship with the central tendon of the diaphragm
B. It moves freely within the thoracic cavity
C. Its base is pierced by the aorta
D. It has no attachment to the sternum
E. It extends upward to the level of the sternal angle *
788. Which of these statements correctly describes lymphatic drainage of the lungs?
A. Usually both bronchomediastinal lymph trunks terminate in the thoracic duct
B. Only one lymphatic plexus is involved in this drainage
C. Little transfer of lymph drainage from side to side occurs
D. Rarely is this lymph drainage responsible for transfer of cancer cells to other organs
E. No lymph vessels are located in the walls of the pulmonary alveoli *
789. In what way does the root of the right lung differ from that of the left lung?
A. In numbers of pulmonary veins
B. In numbers of primary bronchi
C. In the presence of a pulmonary plexus of nerves
D. In numbers of bronchial veins
E. In numbers of pulmonary arteries *
790. Characteristics of the left lung include which of the following?
A. It is heavier than the right lung
B. It is composed of three lobes
C. The azygos vein arches over its root
D. It has a horizontal fissure
E. The cardiac notch is found on its superior lobe *
791. The central part of the parietal diaphragmatic pleura is supplied by which of these
nerves?
A. Intercostals
B. Vagus
C. Parasympathetics
D. Sympathetics
E. Phrenic *
792. All of the following statements concerning the atrioventricular valves are true,
except:
A. The valves are attached to the anuli fibrosi
B. The right atrioventricular (tricuspid) valve is formed by the posterior, inferior and
septal cusps
C. Each cusp receives chordae tendinae from more than one papillary muscle
D. The chordae tendinae of the mitral valve are thicker than those of the tricuspid
E. The left atrioventricular (mitral) valve is formed by the septal and left cusps *
793. The pericardial sinuses areof considerable interest to the cardiac surgeon. When the
surgeon’s finger is in the transverse sinus, which of the following structures is not related to
the sinus in the manner noted?
A. Aorta, anterior to the sinus
B. Pulmonary artery, anterior to the sinus
C. Left atrium, posterior to the sinus
D. Superior left pulmonary vein, posterior to the sinus
E. Superior vena cava, anterior to the sinus *
794. Which of the following statements about the pericardial sinuses is untrue?
A. Only two major vessels, both arteries, lie anterior to an instruments in the transverse
sinus
B. The left atrium lies anterior to an instrument in the oblique sinus
C. The superior and inferior venae cavae lie in the right wall of the obligue sinus
D. A sharp instrument passed through the left part of the posterior wall of the transverse
sinus could enter the left atrium
E. None of these statements is true *
795. During cardiac surgery, which of the following vessels could be compressed between
a finger placed in the transverse sinus and an anteriorly placed thumb?
B. The inferior vena cava
C. The descending aorta
D. The right pulmonary vein
E. The pulmonary artery *
796. The chamber contributing most to the anterior (ventral) aspect of the heart is the:
A. Right atrium
B. Left atrium
C. Left ventricle
D. All four chambers contribute about equally
797. The right border of the heart is formed by the:
A. Right ventricle
B. Left atrium
C. Right and left atria
D. Right atrium and right ventricle
E. Right atrium *
798. Which of the following is in direct posterior relation to the left atrium?
A. The right atrium
B. The trachea
C. The aorta
D. The transverse pericardial sinus
E. The esophagus *
799. The base of the heart corresponds to the:
A. Diaphragmatic surface of the heart
B. Left ventricle and left atrium
C. Right ventricle and right atrium
D. None of these
E. Left and right atria *
800. A physician has detected something while examining a patient’s heart. He is now
listening carefully over the fourth intercostal space immediately to the left of the sternum.
His suspicion has evidently been directed toward the:
A. Mitral valve
B. Aortic valve
C. Pulmonic valve
D. Valve of the coronary sinus
E. Tricuspid valve *
801. You hear a loud systolic murmur (i.e., while the ventricles are contracting) most
clearly over the right second chondrosternal junction. You suspect:
A. Pulmonary stenosis (narrowing of the pulmonary valve)
B. Mitral stenosis (narrowing of the mitral valve)
C. Tricuspid stenosis (narrowing of the tricuspid valve)
D. A patent ductus arteriosus
E. Aortic stenosis (narrowing of the aortic valve) *
802. During a surgical procedure involving the coronary arteries, you would find the
circumflex artery in the:
A. Anterior atrioventricular groove
B. Posterior interventricular groove
C. Right atrioventricular sulcus
D. Left atrioventricular sulcus
E. Posterior interatrial sulcus *
803. The left coronary artery:
A. Arises from the anterior surface of the aorta
B. Ordinarily supplies the posterior interventricular branch
C. Ordinarily supplies the diaphragmatic portion of the right ventricle
D. All these
E. None of these *
804. A man past 50 years old suddenly collapsed and died while shoveling snow. A
massive area of necrotic heart muscle was found over the anterior wall of the right ventricle
with the involvement of the anterior wall of the left ventricle as well. Assuming that this was
the result of acute coronary arterial occlusion, the occlusion was probably of the:
A. Left coronary artery
B. Circumflex branch
C. Right coronary artery
D. Coronary sinus
805. The artery of the sinuatrial node is usually a branch of the:
A. Posterior interventricular artery
B. Anterior interventricular artery
C. Anterior ventricular artery
D. Left coronary artery
E. Right coronary artery *
806. The coronary sinus receives blood from the veins listed below, except the:
A. Small cardiac vein
C. Oblique vein of the left atrium
D. Great cardiac vein
E. Anterior cardiac veins *
807. All of the following arteries are branches of the right coronary artery, except the:
A. Nodal branch
B. Anterior ventricular branches
C. Posterior interventricular branch
D. Right marginal branch
808. The apex of the heart usually receives most of its blood supply from the:
A. Circumflex branch of the left coronary artery
B. Posterior interventricular artery
C. Marginal branch of the right coronary artery
D. Main division of the right coronary artery
809. The great cardiac vein contributes to the drainage of all of the chambers of the heart
except the:
A. Left atrium
B. Right ventricle
C. Left ventricle
D. It contributes to the drainage of all of the chambers
E. Right atrium *
810. Which of the following is usually a branch of the left coronary artery?
A. Nodal branch
B. Anterior ventricular branches
C. Posterior interventricular branch
D. Right marginal branch
811. The vein which can be seen in the anterior interventricular sulcus with the
interventricular branch of the left coronary artery is the:
A. Anterior cardiac vein
B. Small cardiac vein
C. Middle cardiac vein
D. Left marginal vein
E. Great cardiac vein *
812. The following statements concerning an intercostal space are correct except which?
A. The anterior intercostals arteries of the lower five intercostals spaces are branches of
the musculophrenic artery
B. The sensory fibers in the lower five intercostals nerves supply the skin of lateral
thoracic and anterior abdominal walls
C. The posterior intercostals arteries of the lower nine spaces are branches of the
thoracic aorta
D. The intercostals nerves and blood vessels run between the internal and the innermost
intercostals muscles.
E. Throughout an intercostals space, the intercostals nerves and blood vessels lie close
to the upper border of the lower rib *
813. The following statements concerning the structure of the heart are correct except
which?
A. The trabeculae carneae are internal surface structures of both the left and the right
ventricles
B. The coronary arteries are functional end arteries
C. The sinuatrial node is supplied by the right and sometimes the left coronary artery
D. The four pulmonary veins open through the posterior wall of the left atrium and there
are no valves.
E. The pericardial cavity is the potential space between the fibrous and the serous
pericardia *
814. The following statements regarding the innervation of thoracic structures are correct
except which?
A. The lung and visceral pleura are innervated by the autonomic nerves and are not
sensitive to sensation of temperature, touch, and pressure
B. The sensory nerve supply to the mucous membrane of the lower part of the trachea is
from the vagus and the recurrent laryngeal nerves
C. The nerve supply of the pericardium is the phrenic nerves
D. The sinuatrial node is supplied by sympathetic and parasympathetic nerves via the
cardiac plexuses.
E. The motor innervation of the diaphragm is provided by the third, fourth, and fifth
cervical spinal nerves and by the lower six intercostals nerves *
815. The following statements concerning thoracic structures are correct except which?
A. The carina is the name given to the site of bifurcation of the trachea
B. The ligamentum arteriosum is the remains of the ductus arteriosus
C. The ductus arteriosus is formed from the sixth left pharyngeal arch
D. The thymus receives its arterial supply mainly from the internal thoracic artery.
E. The thymus lies in the middle mediastinum *
816. The following events occur on inhalation except which?
A. The diaphragm descends
B. The external intercostals muscles contract
C. The ribs are raised
D. The vertical dimension of the thoracic cavity increases.
E. The abdominal muscles contract and push the abdominal viscera cranially *
817. When passing a needle through the chest wall and into the pleural cavity in the
midaxillary line, the following structures will be pierced except which?
A. The external intercostal muscle
B. The skin
C. The parietal pleura
D. The internal intercostal muscle.
E. The levator costarum *
818. The following statements concerning the bronchopulmonary segments are correct
except which?
A. It is a subdivision of a lung lobe
B. It is surrounded by connective tissue
C. It has a segmental bronchus, a segmental artery, lymph vessels, and autonomic
nerves
D. When diseased, it can be removed surgically as a structural unit.
E. It is pyramidal in shape, with its apex toward the lung surface *
819. The following statements concerning the main bronchi are correct except which?
A. The right main bronchus is wider than the left main bronchus
B. The right main bronchus is shorter than the left main bronchus
C. The right main bronchus is longer than the left main bronchus
D. The left main bronchus passes to the left in front of the esophagus
E. The left main bronchus gives off the superior lobar bronchus before entering the
hilum of the lung. *
820. The following structures open into the right atrium except which?
B. The coronary sinus
C. The anterior cardiac vein
D. The inferior vena cava
E. The right pulmonary veins. *
821. The conducting system of the heart is composed of the following structures except
which?
A. The Purkinje plexus
B. The sinuatrial node
C. The atrioventricular bundle
D. The atrioventricular node.
E. The deep cardiac plexus *
822. In repairing a patent interventricular septum, a cardiac surgeon must beware of
catching the stem of the atrioventricular bundle in his stitches. The most dangerous area is
_________ to the septal defect.
A. Anterior
B. Superior
C. Inferior
D. The atrioventricular bundle is not near the septal defect
E. Posterior *
823. All of the following structures are anterior to the pericardium except the:
A. Thymus
B. Sternal lymph nodes
C. Internal thoracic artery
D. Transversus thoracis muscle
E. Phrenic nerve *
824. The only one of the following structures which lies in contact with the fibrous
pericardium is the:
A. Azygos vein
B. Thoracic sympathetic ganglia
C. Thoracic duct
D. Bodies of the thoracic vertebrae
E. Phrenic nerve *
825. An aneurysm (sac-like dilatation) on the ascending aorta also involves the anterior
sinus. Which of the following is anatomically unlikely?
A. Erosion into the pulmonary artery
B. Involvement of the right coronary artery
C. Rupture into the pericardium
D. Extension forward to erode the sternum
E. Pressure on the recurrent laryngeal nerve causing hoarseness *
826. The right ventricle includes all of the structures listed below, except the:
A. Conus arteriosus pulmonaris
B. Trabeculae carneae
C. Anterior, septal and posterior papillary muscles
D. Crista supraventricularis
E. Aortic ostium *
827. All of the following are closely applied to the anterior surface of the esophagus
except the:
A. Trachea
B. Left bronchus
C. Pericardium
D. Diaphragm
E. All of these are closely applied to its anterior surface *
828. The sternal angle serves as a landmark for locating the:
A. First rib
B. Third rib
C. Fourth rib
D. None of the ribs
E. Second rib *
829. All of the following are useful surface landmarks for thoracic structures except the:
A. Sternal angle
B. Suprasternal notch
C. Anterior axillary fold
D. Xiphisternal junction
E. Nipple in the female *
830. A stab wound with a two inch blade in the left fifth interspace close to the edge of
the sternum would most likely penetrate the:
A. Left atrium
B. Right atrium
C. Left ventricle
D. Liver
831. A stab wound just lateral to and at the level of the right nipple, passing six inches
straight posteriorly would penetrate all of the following except the:
A. Pectoralis major muscle
B. Pectoralis minor muscle
C. Middle lobe of the right lung
D. Lower lobe of the right lung
E. Right lobe of the liver *
832. A perforating wound involving the pleural cavity is likely to result in a
pneumothorax. The right pleural sac could be punctured by a stab wound in any of the
following places except the:
A. Ninth intercostal space – midaxillary line
B. Level of the sternal angle at right border of the sternum
C. Ninth intercostal space – midscapular line
D. Anterior part of the posterior triangle of the neck an inch above the clavicle
E. Ninth intercostal space – midclavicular line *
833. A man was shot with a 22 caliber rifle. The bullet entered his chest through the right
fourth intercostal space in the midclavicular line and emerged at the inferior angle of his
right scapula. He can be expected to have:
A. Hemorrhage into his pericardium
B. Horner’s syndrome from injury to his right sympathetic chain
C. A traumatic aneurysm of the thoracic aorta
D. Perforation of the diaphragm with injurry to the liver
E. Collapse of the right lung *
834. A bullet entering the chest in the midline at the sternal angle and striking the disc
between the fourt and fifth thoracic vertebrae would be expected to perforate which of the
following last?
A. The ascending aorta
B. The bifurcation of the trachea
C. The thymus
D. None of these would be perforated
E. The esophagus *
835. The apex of the heart is located in the left:
A. Third interspace
B. Fourth interspace
C. Sixth interspace
D. None of these
E. Fifth interspace *
836. If, during quiet breathing, you locate the inferior border of the right lung at the eighth
rib in the midaxillary line, the border is:
A. Two spaces lower than normal
B. One space lower than normal
C. One space higher than normal
D. Two spaces higher than normal
E. In normal position *
837. During a sternal marrow puncture in the lower half of the manubrium the needle
inadvertently was inserted too far and produced 20 ml of blood. The source of the blood was
probably the:
A. Left atrium
B. Pulmonary vein
C. Azygos vein
D. Right atrium
E. Aorta *
838. A horizontal anteroposterior bullet wound at the left edge of the sternum in the fifth
interspace would most likely penetrate the:
A. Right atrium
B. Superior vena cava
D. It would be unlikely to perforate any of these
839. A patient with a wound from a 22 caliber bullet in the tenth intercostal space in the
right midaxillary line was X-rayed and the bullet was found to have penetrated medially
about two inch inches. It is almost certain that the bullet was lodged in the:
A. Costophrenic recess
B. Right lung
C. Posterior mediastinum
D. Right atrium
E. Liver *
840. A physician wishes to drain fluid from a pleural recess on the right side. With the
patient in maximum expiration he can place his needle at the lateral border of the erector
spinae in the:
A. Eighth intercostal space
B. Ninth intercostal space
C. Subcostal space
D. Cannot be done from behind
E. Eleventh intercostal space *
841. A horizontal anteroposterior bullet wound at the right edge of the sternum in the fifth
interspace would most likely penetrate the:
A. Right ventricle
B. Superior vena cava
D. It would be unlikely to perforate any of these
E. Right atrium *
842. A physician wishing to drain fluid from the pericardial cavity by approaching from
the front must be careful to avoid all but which one of the following?
A. The pleura
B. The internal thoracic vessels
C. The intercostal vessels
D. All of these are at risk and must be carefully avoided
E. The phrenic nerve *
843. All of the following are located partly or entirely above the level of the sternal angle
(Louis) except the:
A. Arch of the aorta
B. Left recurrent laryngeal nerve
C. Left brachiocephalic vein
D. Remains of the thymus gland
E. Pulmonary valve *
844. All of the following are related to the sternal angle, except the:
A. Bifurcation of the trachea
B. Arch of the aorta
C. Attachment of the second rib to the sternum
D. Termination of the azygos vein
E. Termination of the hemiazygos vein *
845. A chest X-ray of a one-year-old child shows a broad shadow occupying the superior
mediastinum. The child is free from any symptoms of disease. The shadow is probably that
of:
A. His noncalcified sternum
B. His congenitally abnormal heart
C. His double aortic arch
D. A tumor
E. His thymus *
846. All of the following structures are located in the superior mediastinum, except the:
A. Thymus
B. Aortic arch
C. Thoracic duct
D. Esophagus
E. Azygos vein *
847. The density of the shadow of the superior mediastinum on a chest x-ray is
determined by the size of all but which one of the following structures in the normal adult?
B. The brachiocephalic artery
C. The left common carotid artery
D. The left subclavian artery
E. All of these contribute to the shadow *
848. If the intercostal muscles are paralyzed, the most obvious effect which can be
observed by a physician in the living subject is that:
A. Breathing is impossible
B. Breathing is obviously extremely difficult
C. Movement of the liver in respiration is decreased
D. Expiration, but not inspiration, is impaired
E. The intercostal spaces move in during inspiration *
849. The volume of the thorax is increased through the action of all of the following
muscles except the:
A. External intercostals
B. Levator costarum
C. Diaphragm
D. Serratus anterior
E. Rectus abdominis *
850. Inspiration is accomplished by all of the following except:
A. Elevation of the rib cage with an increase in the cross-sectional area of the thoracic
cavity
B. Contraction of the diaphragm
C. The fact that the pleural cavities are completely closed and contain no air
D. Atmospheric pressure
E. Contraction of the abdominal wall musculature *
851. All of the following muscles can be involved in respiratory movements except the:
A. Serratus anterior
B. Scalenus anterior
C. Subcostals
D. Transversus thoracis
E. Psoas major *
852. In several clinical condition, patients use all the major and accessory muscles of
respiration. Which of the following is not a muscle of inspiration?
A. Pectoralis major
B. Scalenus anterior
C. Erector spinae
D. Sarratus anterior
E. All of these can assist in inspiration *
853. Which of the following muscles is not used in forced respiration?
A. Scalenus anterior
B. Sternomastoid
C. Rectus abdominis
D. Serratus anterior
E. All of these are used *
854. In a case where the eleventh rib on the left side was fractured by a blow, what critical
situation might arise?
A. Torn diaphragm
B. Punctured pleura
C. Punctured spleen
D. Punctured kidney
E. All of these may arise *
855. Which of the following structures is adjacent to the left lung?
B. The inferior vena cava
C. The arch of azygos vein
D. The right phrenic nerve
E. None of these *
856. If you were to open the right pleural cavity by a vertical incision parallel to the
border of the sternum, and slide your hand in dorsally between the mediastinal pleura and
the medial surface of the lung below the right pulmonary veins, you would be stopped by
encountering the:
A. Vertebral column
B. Diaphragm
C. Thymus gland
D. Aorta
E. Pulmonary ligament *
857. The two pleural cavities are in contact:
A. Above the aortic arch
B. Behind the left atrium
C. Underneath the aortic arch (“the aortic window”)
D. They are not in contact
E. Behind the sternal angle *
858. The trachea bifurcates at the level of the _________ vertebral body:
A. Seventh cervical
B. Second thoracic
C. Sixth thoracic
D. Eighth thoracic
E. Fourth thoracic *
859. If you were to explore the interval between the mediastinal pleura and the fibrous
pericardium anterior (ventral) to the root of the lung, the only one of the following structures
you would expect to encounter would be the:
A. Greater splanchnic nerve
C. Internal thoracic artery
D. Deep cardiac plexus
E. Phrenic nerve *
860. Which of the following structures is least likely to be involved in the local spread of
a carcinoma of the apex of the right lung?
A. The vagus nerve
B. The right phrenic nerve
C. The right sympathetic trunk
D. The first thoracic nerve to the brachial plexus
E. The thoracic duct *
861. The right lung:
A. Is smaller than the left lung
B. Has a lingula which is homologous to the middle lobe of the left lung
C. Has a cardiac notch in addition to an impression
D. Lies adjacent to the aorta near the hilus
E. Has an epiarterial bronchus *
862. In lung surgery which of the following may be of use as guide to distinguish the line
of separation between adjacent bronchopulmonary segments?
A. the pulmonary arteries and the bronchi
B. the pulmonary arteries and pulmonary veins
C. the pulmonary arteries and the connective tissue septa
D. there is no line of separation, adjacent bronchopulmonary segments merely diffuse
into one another
E. the pulmonary veins and the connective tissue septa *
863. Diseases of the lungs sometimes lead to involvement of the structures in contact with
them. Which of the following structures is not adjacent to the right lung?
A. the superior vena cava
B. the inferior vena cava
C. the arch of azygos vein
D. the right phrenic nerve
E. all of these are adjacent to the right lung *
864. Structures which are in contact with, and groove, the left lung include all of the
following except the:
A. aortic arch
B. left subclavian artery
C. esophagus
D. all of these are in contact with the left lung
865. The mediastinal surface of the right lung presents impressions corresponding to all of
the following structures except the:
A. esophagus
B. right brachiocephalic vein
C. azygos vein
D. superior vena cava
E. all of these make impressions on the right lung *
866. An infant is brought to you having “swallowed” an open safety pin. Respiratory
distress suggests to you that it may have entered the trachea. this is a dangerous situation
because of the close relationship between the trachea and all but which one of the
following?
A. the arch of the aorta
B. the brachiocephalic artery
C. the esophagus
D. the superior vena cava
E. all of these are closely related *
867. The thoracic duct:
A. is without valves
B. is thick walled
C. lies to the left of the aorta at the level of T8
D. lies deep to the lateral arcuate ligament
E. passes through the aortic opening of the diaphragm *
868. Which of the following lymph nodes are most likely to compress the left recurrent
laryngeal nerve if they become involved in malignant disease?
A. posterior thoracic
B. retrosternal
C. infraclavicular
D. broncho-pulmonary
E. tracheobronchial or paratracheal *
869. The anterior intercostal arteries are branches of the:
A. ascending aorta
B. descending aorta
C. superior epigastric artery
D. lateral thoracic artery
E. internal thoracic artery *
870. The drainage of the superior vena cava includes blood from the:
A. second intercostals space
B. right quadratus lumborum
C. left lung
D. trachea
E. all of these *
871. The vessels with the shortest intrathoracic course is the:
A. superior vena cava
B. ascending aorta
C. azygos vein
D. left brachiocephalic vein
872. The concavity of the arch of the aorta is in close or direct relationship with all of the
following except the:
A. right pulmonary artery
B. left bronchus
C. left recurrent laryngeal nerve
D. ligamentum arteriosum
E. right superior pulmonary vein *
873. Coarctation of the aorta is a congenital constriction which usually occurs just distal
to the ligamentum arteriosum. Which of the following findings would you expect in such a
case?
A. blood pressure unequal in the two arms
B. blood pressure higher in the right arm and leg than in the left arm and leg
C. blood pressure higher in the legs than in the arms
D. blood pressure equal wherever taken
E. blood pressure higher in the arms than in the legs *
874. An aneurysm of the arch of the aorta could produce all of the following except:
A. hoarseness
B. sternal erosion
C. dullness to percussion in the second intercostals space on the left side of the sternum
D. dyspnoea (difficulty in breathing)
E. it could produce any or all of the above *
875. Branches of the internal thoracic artery furnish blood supply to the:
A. breast
B. pericardium
C. diaphragm
D. abdominal muscles
E. all are correct *
876. The vagus nerve supplies fibers to each of the plexus below except the:
A. cardiac plexus
B. pharyngeal plexus
C. pulmonary plexus
D. esophageal plexus
E. brachial plexus *
877. From your knowledge of the sensory innervation of the pericardium, you might
expect pain from the pericardium to be referred to the area of skin which has the same
segmental innervation. This is predominantly the:
A. external auditory canal
B. medial side of the arm and forearm
C. epigastrium
D. there is no sensory innervation of the pericardium
E. side of the neck and upper shoulder *
878. The thoracic portion of the sympathetic trunk becomes involved in many disease
processes. To which of the structures listed below is it not closely related?
A. the neck of the first rib
B. the second thoracic nerve
C. the posterior intercostals arteries
D. the parietal pleura
E. the esophagus *
879. The heart receives parasympathetic innervation by way of the:
A. hypoglossal nerve
B. greater splanchnic nerve
C. phrenic nerve
D. superior cardiac nerves
E. vagus nerve *
880. Which branch of which vagus nerve hooks around the aortic arch adjacent to the
ligamentum arteriosum?
A. The right recurrent laryngeal nerve
B. The left superior laryngeal nerve
C. The anterior vagal trunk
D. The vagal cardiac branches
E. The left recurrent laryngeal nerve *
881. The nerve passing anterior to the root of the left lung is the:
A. Vagus nerve
B. Left recurrent laryngeal nerve
D. None of these is anterior to the lung root
E. Phrenic nerve *
882. The pain accompanying episodes of pleurisy arises from nerve endings in the:
A. Visceral pleura
B. Mediastinal pleura
C. Pulmonary ligament
D. All of these
E. Parietal pleura *
883. Surgical treatment of patent ductus arteriosus involves closure of the ductus. Of the
following, the structure nearest to the operative field is the:
A. Greater splanchnic nerve
B. Phrenic nerve
D. None of these is near the ductus arteriosus
E. Left recurrent laryngeal nerve *
884. Which of the following nerves is not related to the arch of the aorta?
A. The left vagus
B. The left cervical cardiac branches of the vagus
C. The left cervical cardiac branches of the sympathetic plexus
D. The left phrenic nerve
E. The left greater splanchnic nerve *
885. A patient whom you believe to have a cancer of the lung because of the finding of
cancer cells in the sputum, complains of pain over the left shoulder. This would lead you to
suspect invasion of the mediastinum immediately:
A. Above the root of the left lung
B. Below the root of the left lung
C. Anterior to the root of the left lung
D. None of these
E. All of these *
886. During unaccustomed exercise, pain may be produced in the diaphragm. The
innervation of the peripheral margin of the diaphragm from which this pain may be felt is by
the:
A. Phrenic nerves
B. Splanchnic nerves
C. Vagus nerves
D. All of these nerves
E. Intercostal nerves *
887. All of the following levels for opening in the diaphragm are correct except the:
A. Esophageal hiatus (T10)
B. Aortic hiatus (T12)
C. Thoracic duct (T12)
D. All of these are true
E. Inferior vena cava (T12) *
888. The central tendon of the diaphragm is pierced by the:
A. Aorta
B. Right greater splanchnic nerve
C. Esophagus
D. Right vagus nerve
E. Inferior vena cava *
889. Which of the following statements in regard to the diaphragm are true?
A. It has attachments to the sternum
B. It has attachments to the lower six ribs
C. It has attachments to the bodies to the first three lumbar vertebrae
D. The pericardium is fused to its superior surface
E. All of these are true *
890. Which of the following are in contact with the diaphragm?
A. The middle lobe of the right lung
B. The lingula
C. The right ventricle
D. The let ventricle
E. All of these are in contact with the diaphragm *
891. A horizontal stab wound with a short blade in the left second intercostal space close
to the sternum is most likely to injure the:
A. Left brachiocephalic vein
B. Left atrium
C. Left ventricle
D. Right ventricle
E. Aorta *
892. Which of the following is true about Meckel's diverticulum?
A. It is usually in the duodenum
B. It lies on the mesenteric side of the intestinal wall
C. It is due to the persistence of the mullerian duct
D. It is usually asymptomatic *
E. It is present in more than 30% of the population
893. Which of the following is true about blood flow through the liver?
A. The liver has a triple blood supply from the hepatic artery, the cystic artery, and the
portal vein
B. The caudate and quadrate lobes derive their blood supply in part from the right
hepatic artery
C. Blood supply from the portal vein alone would not provide the liver with sufficient
oxygenation *
D. The hepatic sinusoids are lined with a continuous endothelium and substantial basal
lamina
E. All of these are true
894. Which of the following statements concerning the anterior abdominal wall is true?
A. Between the costal margin and the umbilicus, the posterior layer of the sheath of the
rectus abdominis muscle is formed by the aponeurosis of the internal oblique and
transversus abdominis muscles *
B. The deep inguinal ring is in the aponeurosis of the transversus abdominis muscle
C. The external spermatic fascia is continuous with the transversalis fascia
D. The internal spermatic fascia is derived from the internal oblique aponeurosis
E. The anterior wall of the inguinal canal is formed primarily by the inguinal and
lacunar ligaments
895. Which of the following statements concerning the inferior epigastric artery is true?
A. It lies medial to a direct inguinal hernia
B. lt lies lateral and posterior to an indirect inguinal hernia
C. It is a branch of the internal iliac artery
D. It is a route of collateral circulation in coarctation of the aorta *
E. It anastomoses with the musculophrenic artery
896. Each of the following receives a contribution from the external abdominal oblique
muscle or its fascia except the:
A. Lacunar ligament
B. External spermatic fascia
C. Inguinal ligament
D. Anterior sheath of the rectus abdominis
E. Falx inguinalis *
897. The lateral boundary of the inguinal traingle is the:
A. Inguinal ligament
B. Rectus abdominis muscle
C. Ischiopubic rami
D. Urogenital diaphragm
E. Inferior epigastric artery *
898. The superior mesenteric artery supplies each of the following except the:
A. Appendix
B. Rectum *
C. Pancreas
D. Cecum
E. Transverse colon
899. The posterior boundary of the epiploic foramen is formed by the:
A. Duodenum
B. Lesser omentum
C. Stomach
D. Inferior vena cava *
E. Transverse colon
900. The hepatic portal vein is correctly described by each of the following except:
A. It drains most of the venous blood from the gastrointestinal tract
B. It is fanned by the confluence of the superior mesenteric and splenic veins
C. It is located in the hepatoduodenal ligament
D. It forms posterior to the head of the pancreas *
E. It forms the anterior border of the epiploic foramen
901. Posterior to the second part of the duodenum is the:
A. Transverse colon
B. Left lobe of the liver
C. Hilum of the right kidney *
D. Superior mesenteric artery
E. Gallbladder
902. Postganglionic fibers from the celiac plexus and ganglion distribute with the:
A. Middle colic artery
B. Left colic artery
C. Inferior pancreaticoduodenal artery
D. Left gastric artery *
E. Right colic artery
903. Part of the anterior wall of the omental bursa is formed by the:
A. Pancreas
B. Lesser omentum *
C. Lenorenal ligament
D. Mesentery
E. Coronary ligament
904. The falciform ligament:
A. Contains the ligamentum venosum
B. Is located between the liver and the diaphragm
C. Separates the caudate lobe from the quadrate lobe of the liver
D. Contains the ligamentum teres of the liver *
E. Contains the ductus venosum
905. All of the following statements correctly describe the deep inguinal ring except:
A. It is a diverticulum of the transversalis fascia
B. It is immediately lateral to the inferior epigastric artery
C. It is the site of direct inguinal hernias *
D. It transmits the round ligament of the uterus
E. It is reinforced anteriorly by fibers of the external abdominal oblique and internal
abdominal oblique
906. The vagus nerve provides parasympathetic innervation to the gut as far as the:
A. Duodenal-jejunal flexure
B. Ileocecal junction
C. Right colic flexure
D. Left colic flexure *
E. Upper third of the rectum
907. Which of the following nerves traverses the superficial inguinal ring?
A. Iliohypogastric
B. Subcostal
C. Ilioinguinal *
D. Pudendal
E. Obturator
908. The upper five slips of origin for the external abdominal oblique muscle interdigitate
with which of the following muscles?
A. Pectoralis major
B. Rectus abdominis
C. Latissimus dorsi
D. Serratus anterior *
E. Subscapularis
909. Which of the following structures is not a specialization of the external oblique
aponeurosis?
B. Lacunar ligament
C. Intercrural fibers
D. Internal spermatic fascia *
E. Medial and lateral crura
910. The thickened, rolled-under portion of the external oblique aponeurosis, which is
stretched between the anterior superior spine of the ilium and the pubic tubercle, is known as
the:
A. Inguinal ligament *
B. Lacunar ligament
C. Intercrural fibers
D. Rectus sheath
E. Linea alba
911. The lacunar ligament represents the more medial, rolled-under fibers of which of the
following?
A. Medial crura
B. Reflected inguinal ligament
C. Fundiform ligament
D. Pectineal ligament
E. Inguinal ligament *
912. In the lower one fourth of the abdomen, the internal abdominal oblique aponeurosis
does which of the following?
A. Splits to send one sheet anterior and one posterior to the rectus abdominis muscle
B. Fails to split and passes to the median line entirely posterior to the rectus abdominis
muscle.
C. Fails to split and passes to the median line entirely anterior to the rectus abdominis
muscle *
D. Disappears
E. Gives rise to the internal spermatic fascia
913. The aponeurosis of the transversus abdominis muscle contributes to which of the
following?
B. Lacunar ligament
C. Falx inguinalis *
D. External spermatic fascia
E. Superficial inguinal ring
914. Which of the following statements correctly applies to the tendinous intersections?
A. They are firmly adherent to both layers of the rectus sheath
B. The lowest is at the level of the symphysis pubis
C. The highest is near the xiphoid process *
D. The lowest is at the level of the arcuate line
E. There are usually ten tendinous intersections
915. Which of the following statements correctly applies to the pyramidalis muscle?
A. It is a large, well-developed muscle
B. It is always present
C. It is contained within the rectus sheath *
D. It is posterior to the rectus abdominis muscle
E. It is innervated by the tenth thoracic nerve
916. The transversalis fascia contributes to which of the following structures?
A. Deep inguinal ring *
B. Cremaster muscle and fascia
C. Inguinal ligament
D. Pectineal ligament
E. External spermatic fascia
917. The innervation of the muscles of the abdominal wall is provided by which of the
following cord segments?
A. Thoracic 3 through sacral 3
B. Thoracic 5 through lumbar 2
C. Thoracic 1 through sacral 5-
D. Thoracic 7 through lumbar 4 *
E. Lumbar 1 through sacral 5
918. The tenth intercostal nerve enters the rectus sheath at the level of which of the
following structures?
A. Xiphoid process
B. Umbilicus *
C. Pyramidalis muscle
D. Pubic tubercle
E. Symphysis pubis
919. The four lumbar arteries arise from which of the following vessels?
A. Internal thoracic
B. Internal iliac
C. Femoral
D. Aorta *
E. External iliac
920. Which of the following structures does not traverse the inguinal canal?
A. Inferior epigastric artery *
B. Ilioinguinal nerve
C. Genital branch of the genitofemoral nerve
D. Cremasteric artery
E. Internal spermatic fascia
921. The esophagogastric junction is located at the level of which of the following
vertebrae?
A. Seventh cervical
B. 11th thoracic *
C. Second lumbar
D. Fifth lumbar
E. Sixth thoracic
922. Which of the following arteries is a branch of the celiac trunk?
A. Gastroduodenal
B. Proper hepatic
C. Common hepatic *
D. Right gastroepiploic
E. Cystic
923. The cystic artery arises from which of the following arteries?
A. Splenic
B. Left gastroepiploic
C. Right gastric
D. Right hepatic *
E. Gastroduodenal
924. The left gastroepiploic artery arises from which of the following arteries?
A. Left hepatic
B. Gastroduodenal
C. Left gastric
D. Common hepatic
E. Splenic *
925. Which of the following statements correctly applies to the innervation of the
stomach?
A. The sacral plexus provides the parasympathetic fibers
B. The anterior vagal trunk carries preganglionic visceral efferents only
C. The stomach has no sympathetic innervation
D. The vagal trunks contain preganglionic visceral efferent and general visceral afferent
fibers *
E. The postganglionic parasympathetic cell bodies are located in the celiac plexus
926. Which of the following statements correctly applies to the spleen?
A. The sixth, seventh, and eighth ribs are in relation to the spleen
B. The spleen is retroperitoneal
C. The spleen develops in the ventral mesogastrium
D. The spleen normally descends below the costal margin
E. The spleen rests on the left flexure of the colon *
927. Which of the following statements correctly applies to the first part of the
duodenum?
A. It is surrounded by the hepatoduodenal ligament *
B. It is related to the caudate lobe of the liver
C. The common bile duct passes ventral
D. It is located at the level of the third lumbar vertebra
E. It has circular folds in its interior
928. The second portion of the duodenum is crossed by which of the following structures?
A. Right renal artery
B. Transverse colon *
C. Right ureter
D. Portal vein
E. Superior mesenteric vein
929. Which of the following arteries crosses the anterior aspect of the third part of the
duodenum?
A. Proper hepatic
B. Left colic
C. Superior mesenteric *
D. Inferior mesenteric
E. Splenic
930. Which of the following statements correctly applies to the greater duodenal papilla?
A. The location for the terminal opening of the accessory pancreatic duct
B. It is located in the interior of the third part of the duodenum
C. It is continued below by the longitudinal fold of the duodenum *
D. It is superior to the lesser duodenal papilla
E. It opens into the duodenojejunal flexure
931. The lower left portion of the head of the pancreas is inserted behind which of the
following arteries?
A. Left gastroepiploic
B. Common hepatic
C. Left colic
E. Superior mesenteric *
932. The superior mesenteric and splenic veins unite to form the portal vein behind which
of the following structures?
A. First part of the duodenum
B. Transverse colon
C. Spleen
D. Neck of the pancreas *
E. Duodenojejunal junction
933. The tail of the pancreas enters which of the following structures?
A. Epiploic foramen
C. Suspensory ligament of the duodenum
D. Paracolic fossa
E. Left coronary ligament
934. The pancreatica magna artery is a branch of which of the following arteries?
A. Common hepatic
B. Inferior mesenteric
C. Superior mesenteric
D. Left gastroepiploic
E. Splenic *
935. Which of the following structures represents the obliterated remains of umbilical
vein?
A. Ligamentum teres hepatis *
B. Ligamentum venosum
C. Ductus arteriosus
D. Falciform ligament
E. Porta hepatis
936. The hepatoduodenal ligament transmits which of the following structures?
A. Hepatic vein
B. Main pancreatic duct
C. Portal vein *
D. Ligamentum venosum
E. Superior mesenteric vein
937. The cystic artery usually arises from which of the following arteries?
A. Splenic
B. Gastroduodenal
C. Right gastroepiploic
D. Right hepatic *
E. Celiac trunk
938. The hepatic veins drain into which of the following veins?
A. Portal
B. Coronary
C. Inferior vena cava *
D. Superior mesenteric
E. Splenic
939. The portal vein ascends to the liver in the free margin of which of the following
structures?
A. Mesocolon
B. Greater omentum
C. Mesentery
D. Lesser omentum *
E. Falciform ligament
940. The superior mesenteric artery supplies all of the small intestine except which of the
following?
A. Proximal part of the duodenum *
B. Duodenojejunal junction
C. Jejunoileal junction
D. Distal end of the ileum
E. Descending portion of the duodenum
941. Which of the following statements correctly apply to the middle colic artery?
A. It takes origin from the celiac trunk
B. It supplies the cecum
C. It anastomoses with the inferior pancreaticoduodenal artery
D. It is a branch of the superior mesenteric artery *
E. It primarily supplies the left colic flexure
942. Both the vagal parasympathetic innervation and the thoracic splanchnic sympathetic
innervation of the gastrointestinal tract terminate at which of the following?
A. Duodenojejunal junction
B. Junction of the middle and left thirds of the transverse colon *
C. Jejunoileal junction
D. Ileocecal junction
E. Distal one third of the sigmoid colon
943. Epiploic appendages are located on which of the following structures?
A. Duodenum
B. Stomach
C. Ileum
D. Jejunum
E. Sigmoid *
944. Which of the following statements correctly applies to the vermiform appendix?
A. It is usually retroperitoneal
B. It has a small mesentery *
C. It receives its blood supply from the inferior mesenteric artery
D. It is usually located in a retrocecal position
E. It receives its innervation from the pelvic splanchnic nerve
945. The transverse mesocolon is attached posteriorly to which of the following
structures?
A. Hepatoduodenal ligament
B. Spleen
C. Second portion of the duodenum *
D. Lesser omentum
E. Gastrocolic ligament
946. The pampiniform plexus is located in which of the following locations?
A. Pancreas
B. Kidney
C. Spleen
D. Inguinal canal *
E. Liver
947. Which of the following layers of fasciae is associated with the diaphragm?
A. Alar
B. Superficial
C. Transversalis *
D. Buccopharyngeal
E. Innominate
948. The right suprarenal vein drains into which of the following veins?
A. Right renal
B. Inferior mesenteric
C. Superior mesenteric
D. Portal
E. Inferior vena cava *
949. Which of the following statements correctly applies to the sigmoid colon?
A. It begins at the brim of the pelvis *
B. It has no mesocolon
C. It continues as the rectum at the level of the fifth sacral segment
D. It receives its blood supply from the left colic artery
E. It has no teniae coli
950. Which of the following statements correctly applies to the small intestine?
A. The upper three fifths is considered jejunum
B. The lower three fifths contains aggregated lymph nodules *
C. None of it is retroperitoneal
D. The parasympathetic innervation is provided by the pelvic splanchnic nerves
E. The blood supply is provided by both the superior and inferior mesenteric arteries
951. Which of the following statements correctly applies to the gall bladder?
A. The submucosal layer is well developed
B. The mucous membrane is thrown into circular folds
C. Its epithelium concentrates the contents of the gall bladder *
D. It produces bile
E. It lies to the left of the falciform ligament
952. Which of the following statements correctly applies to the falciform ligament?
A. It represents the inferior limit of the common mesentery
B. It encloses the ligamentum teres of the liver
C. It extends from the umbilicus to the liver *
D. It contains the common bile duct
E. It does not extend over the diaphragmatic surface of the liver
953. The anterior surface of the liver lies against all of the following structures except:
A. Diaphragm
B. Costal margin
C. Xiphoid process
D. Abdominal wall
E. Spleen *
954. Which of the following structures is situated between the celiac trunk and the
superior mesenteric artery?
A. Duodenum and pancreas *
B. Spleen and stomach
C. Transverse colon and ileum
D. Stomach and cecum
E. Pancreas and jejunum
955. Which of the following statements correctly applies to the pancreas?
A. It extends from the right kidney to the spleen
B. It is inferior to the stomach
C. It is crossed by the transverse mesocolon *
D. It overlies the fourth lumbar vertebra
E. Its uncinate process extends behind the inferior mesenteric vessels
956. Which of the following statements correctly apply to the fourth portion of the
duodenum?
A. It is located at the level of the first lumbar vertebra
B. It is entirely retroperitoneal
C. The root of the mesentery begins at the duodenojejunal flexure *
D. It is in direct continuity with the pylorus of the stomach
E. It overlies the hilum of the right kidney
957. All of the following statements correctly apply to the duodenum except which?
A. It is the shortest portion of the small intestine
B. It is usually the breadth of twelve fingers
C. It is the fixed portion of the small intestine
D. It is suspended by a mesentery *
E. It is the first portion of the small intestine
958. Which of the following statements correctly applies to the innervation of the
stomach?
A. The parasympathetic innervation enhances muscular movement *
B. The sympathetic innervation exerts greater influence on the secretion of water
C. The sympathetic innervation exerts greater influence on the secretion of hydrochloric
acid
D. The parasympathetic innervation has the major influence in the secretion of enzymes
E. Afferents principally accompany the parasympathetic system
959. The inferior boundary of the epiploic foramen is which of the following structures?
B. Hepatoduodenal ligament
C. Caudate lobe of the liver
D. Lesser omentum
E. First part of the duodenum *
960. The lesser omentum includes which of the following ligaments?
A. Phrenicocolic
B. Coronary
C. Hepatogastric *
D. Gastrocolic
E. Gastrolienal
961. The lesser peritoneal sac is closed off from the greater peritoneal sac except for the
communication through which of the following?
A. Aortic hiatus
B. Esophageal hiatus
C. Caval foramen
D. Deep inguinal ring
E. Epiploic foramen *
962. Meckel's diverticulum is an occasional feature of which of the following structures?
A. Duodenum
B. Cecum
C. Ileum *
D. Jejunum
E. Liver
963. The transpyloric line is located at the level of which of the following vertebrae?
A. Fourth lumbar
B. Second sacral
C. First lumbar *
D. Fifth thoracic
E. Tenth thoracic
964. The upper one third of the free intestine occupies which of the following areas of the
abdomen?
A. Lower left quadrant
B. Lower right quadrant
C. Upper left quadrant *
D. Upper right quadrant
E. Middle of the abdominal cavity
965. Components of the superior hypogastric plexus include all but which one of the
following?
A. Preganglionic sympathetic fibers
B. Postganglionic sympathetic fibers
C. Visceral afferents for pain
D. Visceral efferents from T10-L2
E. Parasympathetic fibers *
966. The ovarian artery is a branch of the:
A. Internal iliac
B. External iliac
C. Inferior epigastric
D. Abdominal aorta *
E. Uterine artery
967. Which of these statements describes the superior hypogastric plexus correctly?
A. It lies above the bifurcation of the aorta
B. It contains mostly parasympathetic nerves
C. It is a downward prolongation of the preaortic plexus *
D. It is joined by the first and second lumbar splanchnic nerves
E. Its large branches do not contribute to the pelvic plexus
968. Which of the following statements about the umbilical vein is correct?
A. It closes immediately at the time of birth
B. The obliterated vein becomes the ligamentum teres of the liver *
C. The obliterated vein becomes the falciform ligament
D. The obliterated vein becomes the median umbilical ligament
E. It drains into the common iliac vein
969. A 55 year old woman dies of septicemia after going to the emergency department
with severe abdominal pain. She lost 15 kg in the past 2 months and complained of severe
pain after meals. Postmortem findings including severe aortic atherosclerosis and a segment
of necrotic bowel extending from the splenic flexure to the sigmoid colon. A blockage in
which of the following arteries would best support these findings?
A. Common iliac arteries
B. Common hepatic artery
D. Inferior mesenteric artery *
E. Splenic artery
970. A patient is diagnosed as having intestinal angina (thrombotic occlusion of the
superior mesenteric artery near its origin). If significant collateral circulation is not present
or fails to develop, all the following parts of the intestinal tract may become gangrenous
except the:
A. Ascending colon
B. Appendix
C. Descending colon *
D. Ileum
E. Transverse colon
971. If the inferior mesenteric vein was ligated (tied off), blood could still reach the liver
because of anastomoses between the:
A. Splenic and inferior mesenteric veins
B. Left colic and middle colic veins *
C. Right colic and middle colic veins
D. Ileocolic and right colic veins
E. Left gastroepiploic and splenic veins
972. Each of the following statements concerning inguinal hernia is correct except:
A. It is more common than femoral hernia
B. An indirect hernia passes through the deep inguinal ring
C. There are two types of hernia, indirect and direct
D. The deep inguinal ring is medial to the inferior epigastric artery *
E. In the direct type of inguinal hernia, the inferior epigastric artery is lateral to the
herniating mass
973. Herniation of abdominal contents into an unobliterated vaginal process and within
the coverings of the spermatic cord results in which of the following hernias?
A. Umbilical
B. Indirect inguinal *
C. Direct inguinal
D. Lumbar
E. Femoral
974. The inferior epigastric artery is lateral to the herniating mass in which of the
following hernia?
A. Direct inguinal *
B. Indirect inguinal
C. Femoral
D. Umbilical
E. Lumbar
975. Which of the following nerves innervates the muscles of the anterior abdominal wall:
A. Intercostals *
B. Phrenic
C. Vagus
D. Pudendal
E. Femoral
976. Which of the following anatomical structures forms the inferior wall of the inguinal
canal:
A. Lacunar ligament
B. Pectineal ligament
C. Linea alba base
D. Inguinal ligament *
E. Inferior edge of transverse muscle
977. The boundary of the external foramen of the inguinal canal is the:
A. Aponeurosis of abdominal external oblique muscle *
B. Internal abdominal oblique muscle
C. Transverse muscle of abdomen
D. Linea alba
E. Duglas' line
978. Which of the following anatomical structures forms anterior wall of the rectus
muscle sheath on ribs level:
A. Aponeurosis of abdominal external oblique muscle
B. Aponeurosis of abdominal internal oblique muscle
C. Aponeurosis of transverse muscle of abdomen
D. Cartilages of V-VII ribs *
E. Pyramidal muscle
979. Lateral umbilical fold is formed by which of the following arteries:
A. Umbilical *
B. Intercostal
C. Superior epigastric
D. Inferior epigastric
E. Cremaster
980. Between which of the following anatomical structures of the anterior abdominal wall
pass intercostals nerves:
A. Abdominal external oblique muscle and internal oblique abdominal muscle
B. Abdominal internal oblique muscle and transverse muscle of abdomen*
C. Superficial fascia and proper fascia
D. Endoabdominal fascia and parietal peritoneum
E. Rectus muscle and pyramidal muscle
981. Which of the following anatomical structures forms the posterior wall of the inguinal
canal:
A. Transverse fascia *
B. Aponeurosis of abdominal internal oblique muscle
C. Aponeurosis of transverse muscle of abdomen
D. Rectus muscle
E. Linea alba
982. Hernial gate in case of direct inguinal hernia:
A. Inguinal space *
B. Internal foramen of inguinal canal
C. External foramen of inguinal canal
D. Midline defects
E. Supravesical fossa
983. Aponeurosis which of the following muscles forms the inguinal ligament:
A. Abdominal external oblique muscle *
B. Abdominal internal oblique muscle
C. Transverse muscle of abdomen
D. Rectus muscle
E. Pyramidal muscle
984. Which of the following anatomical structures forms posterior wall of the rectus
muscle sheath below the umbilicus:
B. Aponeurosis of abdominal external oblique muscle
C. Aponeurosis of abdominal internal oblique muscle
D. Aponeurosis of transverse muscle of abdomen
E. Cartilages of V-VII ribs
985. The boundaries of the supravesical fossa is formed by the:
A. Middle umbilical fold and medial umbilical fossa *
B. Medial and lateral umbilical fossa
C. Medial inguinal fold and epigastric vessels
D. Rectus muscle and Shpigel's line
E. Rectus muscle and medial inguinal fold
986. The superior boundary of the inguinal region:
A. Lin. spinarum *
B. Lin. costarum
C. Lin. alba
D. Lin. spinoumbilicalis
E. Lin. pararectalis
987. Hernial gate in case of umbilical hernia:
A. Alba line defects
B. Spigel's lune defects
C. Umbilical ring *
D. Inguinal space
E. Medial fossa
988. Which of the following anatomical structures forms anterior wall of the rectus
muscle sheath in lower part:
A. Aponeuroses of abdominal wide muscles *
B. Transverse fascia
C. Cartilages of V-VII ribs
D. Pyramidal muscle
E. Parietal peritoneum
989. The boundaries of medial inguinal fossa are formed by which of the following
anatomical structures:
A. Lateral umbilical fold and epigastric vessels
B. Medial and lateral umbilical folds *
C. Lateral inguinal fossa and pyramidal muscle
D. Middle and medial umbilical folds
990. On which level the alba line is widest:
A. Near the xyphoid process
B. On 2-3 sm lower than umbilicus
C. On 3-4 sm upper than umbilicus
D. On umbilicus level *
E. Near the symphysis
991. Which of the following anatomical structures forms posterior wall of the rectus
muscle sheath in lower part:
B. Aponeurosis of abdominal external oblique muscle
D. Cartilages of V-VII ribs
E. Superficial lamina of aponeurosis of abdominal internal oblique muscle
992. Tendon of which of the following abdominal muscles forms the Spigel’s line:
A. External oblique
B. Internal oblique
C. Transverse *
D. Rectus
E. Pyramidal
993. Which of the following veins connects the subcutaneous veins of umbilical region
with the portal vein:
A. Paraumbilical veins *
B. Hepatic veins
C. Gastric veins
D. Superior epigastric vein
E. Inferior epigastric vein
994. Hernial gate in case of congenital inguinal hernia:
A. Femoral ring
B. External ring of inguinal canal
C. Inguinal space
D. Internal ring of inguinal canal *
E. Alba line defects
995. Sliding hernia differ from the ordinary hernia by which of the following components:
A. Hernial fluid
B. Hernial gate
C. One wall of the hernial sac is formed by hollow organ wall *
D. Signs of tunics inflammation
E. hernial contents
996. What is paramedian incision of the anterior abdominal wall:
A. Along medial edge of the left abdominal rectus muscle *
B. Along lateral edge of the left abdominal rectus muscle
C. Along medial edge of the right abdominal rectus muscle
D. Along lateral edge of the right abdominal rectus muscle
E. Along alba line above the umbilicus
997. What is transrectal incision of the anterior abdominal wall:
A. Along lateral edge of the right abdominal rectus muscle
B. Through the abdominal rectus muscle *
C. Along alba line above the umbilicus
D. Along alba line below the umbilicus
E. Along alba line above the umbilicus
998. What is combined incisions:
A. Laparotomy with thoracotomy *
B. Transverse incisions with oblique incisions of the abdominal wall
C. Two different incisions of the abdominal wall
D. Oblique incisions with longitudinal incisions of the abdominal wall
999. Gaster divides on which of the following parts:
A. 5 *
B. 3
C. 4
D. 2
E. 6
1000. Gaster is innervate by:
A. Right vagus nerve, celiac plexus
B. Left vagus nerve, celiac plexus
C. Left and right vagus nerves
D. Celiac plexus
E. Vagus nerve, celiac plexus *
1001. During 24 hours liver produces :
A. 1 liter of bile *
B. 2 liters of bile
C. 1,5-2 liters of bile
D. 0.5 liter of bile
E. 300-400 ml of bile
1002. Gall bladder consists of which of the following parts:
A. Fundus, body
B. Fundus, body, neck, ductus
C. Neck, ductus
D. Fundus, neck, ductus
E. Fundus, body, neck *
1003. External ring of inguinal canal is formed by which of the following anatomical
structures:
A. Aponeurosis of transverse muscle of abdomen
B. Aponeurosis of abdominal external oblique muscle *
D. Alba line
E. Pyramidal muscle
1004. The external boundary of umbilical region:
A. Lateral edge of rectus muscle *
B. Medial edge of rectus muscle
C. Spigel's line
D. Duglas' line
E. Alba line
1005. The inferior boundary of inguinal region:
A. Alba line
B. External edge of rectus muscle
C. Internal edge of rectus muscle
D. Inguinal ligament *
E. Pyramidal muscle
1006. Hernial sac in case of anterior abdominal wall hernias is formed by the:
A. Visceral peritoneum
B. Parietal peritoneum *
C. Aponeurosis of abdominal external oblique muscle
D. Superficial fascia
E. Proper fascia
1007. Which of the following hernias frequently can be incarceretive in female:
A. Umbilical
B. Inguinal
C. Femoral *
D. Midline
E. Obturator
1008. The boundaries of lateral inguinal fossa are formed by which of the following
anatomical structures:
A. Lateral umbilical fold and inguinal ligament *
B. Medial and lateral umbilical folds
C. Inguinal ligament and pyramidal muscle
D. Middle and medial umbilical folds
1009. Which of the following anatomical structures locates in umbilical region:
A. Lig. teres hepatis *
B. Spigel's line
C. Duglas' line
D. Superior epigastric artery
1010. Through which of the following anatomical structures on internal surface of the
anterior abdominal wall passes hernial sac in case of indirect inguinal hernia:
A. Supravesical fossa
B. Medial inguinal fossa *
C. Lateral inguinal fossa
D. Inguinal space
1011. Which of the following anatomical structures passes through the inguinal canal in
male:
A. Testicular artery *
B. Obturator artery
C. Pudendal artery
D. Femoral nerve
E. Sciatic nerve
female:
A. Femoral nerve
B. Sciatic nerve
C. Round ligament of uterus *
D. Lacunar ligament
E. Wide ligament of uterus
female:
A. Vagus nerve
B. Sciatic nerve
C. Femoral nerve
D. Ilioinguinal nerve *
1014. The peritoneum is stitched by the:
A. Continuous catgut suture together with the transverse fascia *
B. Interrupted silk suture together with the transverse fascia
C. Continuous catgut suture
D. Continuous silk suture together with the transverse fascia
E. Interrupted silk suture
1015. What is stomy:
A. Incision of an organ cavity
B. Connection of an organ cavity with another organ cavity
C. Connection of an organ cavity with outdoor environment *
D. Excision of an organ part
E. Stitching of a hollow organ wound
1016. What is Lamber's suture:
A. Blanket suture
B. "Danger" intestinal suture
C. Sero-muscular intestinal suture *
D. Internal
E. Continuous suture
1017. Czerny's suture lies through which of the following wall layers:
A. Serous, muscular, submucous, mucous *
B. Serous, muscular
C. Muscular, submucous, mucous
D. Submucous, mucous
E. Serous
1018. Length of the abdominal part of esophagus:
A. 2 cm
B. 1-1,5 cm
C. 1,5-2 cm *
D. 2-2,5 cm
E. 3 cm
1019. Venous drainage from the abdominal part of esophagus:
A. Left gastric vein *
B. Right gastric vein
C. Portal vein
D. Phrenic veins
E. Hemiazygos vein
1020. Which of the following gaster parts produces the hydrochloric acid:
A. Body
B. Fundus
C. Body, fundus *
D. All parts
E. Pyloric part
1021. Celiac trunk divides on which of the following arteries:
A. Splenic, common hepatic
B. Left and right gastric, hepatic
C. Left and right gastric, common hepatic, splenic
D. Left gastric, splenic, common hepatic *
E. Left and right gastric, splenic
1022. Common hepatic artery divides on which of the following vessels:
A. Left and right hepatic
B. Proper hepatic, gastoduodenal *
C. Left and right hepatic, cystic
D. Left and right hepatic, gastoduodenal
E. Proper hepatic, gastric, duodenal
1023. What is Gartman's recess:
A. Dilatation of gall bladder neck *
B. Dilatation of gall bladder ductus
C. Dilatation of gall bladder fundus
D. Dilatation of all parts of gall bladder
1024. Pancreas divides on which of the following parts:
A. Head, fundus, body
B. Head, body, tail *
C. Head, neck, body
D. Head, neck, fundus
E. Head, neck, tail
1025. Splenic artery arises from the:
A. Celiac trunk *
B. Abdominal aorta
C. Left gastric artery
D. Right gastric artery
E. Common hepatic artery
1026. Sources of arterial supply of duodenum:
A. Celiac trunk and superior mesenteric artery *
B. Celiac trunk
D. Superior and inferior mesenteric arteries
E. Short gastric branches
1027. Small intestine consists of:
A. 3 parts *
B. 2 parts
C. 4 parts
D. 2-3 parts
E. 1 parts
1028. Arterial supply of jejunum and ileum:
A. Superior mesenteric artery, celiac trunk
B. Inferior mesenteric artery
C. Superior mesenteric artery *
D. Celiac trunk
E. Inferior mesenteric artery, celiac trunk
1029. How many teniae has the large intestine:
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3 *
D. 4
E. No one
1030. Peritoneum attitude to the ascending colon:
A. Mesoperitoneal *
B. Intraperitoneal
C. Retroperitoneal
D. In retroperitoneal space
E. In accoding to filling
1031. Peritoneum attitude to the descending colon:
A. Mesoperitoneal *
B. Intraperitoneal
C. Retroperitoneal
1032. Peritoneum attitude to the transverse colon:
A. Mesoperitoneal
B. Intraperitoneal *
C. Retroperitoneal
1033. Peritoneum attitude to the sigmoid colon:
A. Mesoperitoneal
B. Retroperitoneal
C. Intraperitoneal *
1034. Sources of arterial supply of large intestine:
A. Superior and inferior mesenteric arteries *
B. Celiac trunk and superior mesenteric artery
C. Celiac trunk
D. Celiac trunk and inferior mesenteric artery
E. Superior and inferior mesenteric arteries, celiac trunk
1035. Superior mesenteric artery divides on the:
A. Right colic, middle colic
B. Iliocolic, right colic
C. Iliocolic, right colic, middle colic *
D. Ilial, colic, middle colic
E. Left and right colic
1036. Inferior mesenteric artery divides on the:
A. Left colic, sigmoid, superior rectal *
B. Iliocolic, right colic, middle colic
C. Right colic, middle colic
D. Ilial, colic, middle colic
E. Left colic, middle colic
1037. What is Riolan's arch:
A. Anastomosis between the superior and inferior mesenteric arteries *
B. Anastomosis between the right and middle colic arteries
C. Anastomosis between the ilial and colic arteries
D. Anastomosis between the celiac trunk and superior mesenteric artery
E. Anastomosis between the celiac trunk and inferior mesenteric artery
1038. Congenital inguinal hernias can be:
A. Sliding
B. Irreducible
C. Indirect and direct
D. Indirect *
E. Direct
1039. What is hernioplasty in case of indirect inguinal hernias:
A. Strengthening of the posterior wall of inguinal canal
B. Strengthening of the anterior wall of inguinal canal *
C. Strengthening of the posterior and anterior walls of inguinal canal
D. Strengthening of the medial inguinal fossa
E. Strengthening of the lateral inguinal fossa
1040. What is vagotomy:
A. Transection of the vagus nerve *
B. Transection of the celiac plexus branches
C. Stitching of the vagus nerve
D. Reinnervation by the vagus nerve branches
E. Anchoring of the vagus nerve
1041. Which types of vagotomy do you know:
A. Left and right
B. Total
C. Left and right selective
D. Stem, selective, selective proximal *
E. All of the above
1042. Gaster divides into which of the following parts:
A. 5 *
B. 3
C. 4
D. 2
E. 6
1043. Nothing opens into the peritoneal cavity except the:
A. Epiploic foramen
B. Urachus
C. Uterine tube *
D. Greater omentum
E. Mesonephric tubules
1044. Which of the following statements concerning the lesser omentum is true?
A. It extends from the greater curvature of the stomach to the duodenum
B. The cystic duct or common bile duct runs in its free edge *
C. It contains the celiac artery
D. It contains the anterior and posterior vagal trunk
1045. After an incision through the ventral abdominal wall, the lesser peritoneal sac could
be exposed by incising any of the following except the:
A. Phrenicocolic ligament *
B. Gastrohepatic ligament
C. Gastrocolic ligament
D. Gastrolienal ligament
E. Transverse mesocolon
1046. Which of the following will be posterior to a finger in the epiploic foramen?
A. The inferior vena cava *
B. The aorta
C. The portal vein
D. The hepatic vein
E. The hepatic artery
1047. Surgically, it is possible to gain entry to the lesser sac of peritoneum in all but which
one of the ways listed below?
A. Incise the lesser omentum
B. Incise the greater omentum superior to the transverse colon
C. Incise the greater omentum inferior to the transverse colon
D. Incise the transverse mesocolon
E. All of the above incisions grant entry into the lesser sac *
1048. A surgeon divides the gastrocolic ligament in order to reach the lesser peritoneal sac.
This will give him access to the:
A. Right ureter
B. Origin of the inferior mesenteric artery
C. Termination of the right colic veins
D. Splenic artery *
1049. Which of the following structures is considered to be retroperitoneal?
A. The duodenojejunal junction
B. The transverse colon
C. The appendix
D. The sigmoid colon
E. The rectum *
1050. In which of the following subphrenic spaces would you first look for an abscess
resulting from a perforation of an ulcer on the posterior wall of the stomach?
A. Right anterior
B. Left anterior
C. Right posterior
D. Left posterior
E. Superior recess of lesser sac *
1051. If you put your finger into the epiploic foramen, the structures crossing it anteriorly
should include the:
A. Common bile duct
B. Hepatic artery
C. Portal vein
D. None of the above
E. All of the above *
1052. The lesser omentum contains the:
A. Hepatic artery
B. Common bile duct
C. Portal vein
D. Right gastric artery
1053. Which of the following is not in contact with the spleen?
A. The liver *
B. The stomach
C. The pancreas
D. The left kidney
E. The colon
1054. During a splenectomy (removal of the spleen) which of the following structures is
most likely to be encountered?
A. The left suprarenal
B. The pancreas *
C. The left ureter
D. The inferior mesenteric vein
E. The superior mesenteric vein
1055. The transpyloric plane is represented by a horizontal line:
A. Midway between the suprasternal notch and the pubic symphysis *
B. Midway between the xiphoid and the pubic symphysis
C. Through the lower costal margin
D. At the level of the umbilicus
E. Through the most superior part of the iliac crest
1056. Which of the following accompanies the esophagus through the esophageal hiatus of
the diaphragm?
A. The phrenic nerves
B. The vagus nerves *
C. The azygos vein
D. The hemiazygos vein
E. The cisterna chili
1057. Which of the following structures is not related to the posterior surface of the
stomach?
A. The pancreas
B. The splenic artery *
C. The transverse colon
D. The duodenojejunal junction
E. The lesser sac of peritoneum
1058. Which of the following is not related to some part of the posterior wall of the
stomach?
A. The diaphragm
B. The splenic artery
C. The left kidney
D. The suprarenal gland
E. The left gastric artery *
1059. Which of the following structures is not closely related to the gall bladder?
A. The anterior abdominal wall
B. The colon
C. The duodenum
D. The right suprarenal gland *
E. All of the above are closely related
1060. In the course of a cholecystectomy, a surgeon encounters brisk hemorrhage. He
panics and uses a large hemostat blindly. Structures endangered by this clamp include all but
which one of the following?
A. The common bile duct
B. The common hepatic duct
C. The pancreatic duct *
D. The hepatic artery
E. The portal vein
1061. All of the following help to indicate the position of the gall bladder except the;
A. Ninth rib
B. Infracostal plane *
C. Transpyloric plane
D. Right linea semilunaris
E. None of the above help indicate the position of the gallbladder
1062. All but which one of the following is in contact with the normal liver?
A. The stomach
B. The right colic flexure
C. The left colic flexure *
D. The right kidney
E. The duodenum
1063. A patient with obstructive jaundice is found to have dilated common hepatic duct,
gall bladder and common bile ducts. Which is the least likely cause of the obstruction?
A. Carcinoma of the duodenal papilla
B. Carcinoma of the head of the pancreas
C. Calculus in the common bile duct
D. Enlarged nodes in the porta hepatic
E. Any of the above is likely to cause this syndrome *
1064. Posterior extension of a cancer of the body of the pancreas may involve the:
A. Aorta
B. Left suprarenal
C. Splenic vein
D. Aorta and splenic vein *
E. Aorta and inferior vena cava
1065. A carcinoma of the head of the pancreas may extend posteriorly and involve the:
A. Common bile duct
B. Sympathetic trunk
D. Common bile duct and inferior vena cava *
E. Sympathetic trunk and inferior vena cava
1066. The pancreas:
A. Lies transversely across the posterior abdominal wall from the duodenum to the spleen
B. Lies behind the stomach
C. Has a main and an accessory duct
D. Receives vessels from both the celiac and superior mesenteric arteries
E. All of the above are correct *
1067. If the common bile duct were obstructed by a stone just below the termination of the
cystic duct, the:
A. Pancreatic ducts would be blocked
B. Gallbladder might be distended
C. Biliary system would be obstructed
D. A and B
E. A and C *
1068. The viscera in contact with the surface of the right lobe of the liver include the:
A. Colon
B. Stomach
C. Right kidney
D. Colon and right kidney *
E. Colon and stomach
1069. Which of the following are true of the bare area of the liver?
A. The inferior vena cava is closely related to the bare area of the liver
B. The bare area is bounded above by the anterior (superior) coronary ligament
C. The bare area is bounded below by the posterior (inferior) coronary ligament
D. The bare area is bounded to the left by the groove for the ligamentum venosum
1070. The lymphatic drainage of the stomach tends to accompany its arterial blood supply.
Where would you not expect gastric lymph to pass?
A. Nodes at the hilus of the spleen
B. Nodes along the hepatic artery
C. The celiac nodes
D. Nodes along the upper border of the pancreas
E. Nodes behind the stomach at the origin of the jejunum *
1071. The lymphatic drainage from the pyloric end of the greater curvature of the stomach
is to the:
A. Left gastric lymph nodes
B. Right gastric lymph nodes
C. Gastroduodenal or gastroepiploic lymph nodes *
D. Pancreaticolienal lymph nodes
1072. The coeliac artery contributes to the blood supply of all of the following except the:
A. First part of the duodenum
B. Third part of the duodenum *
C. Gall bladder
D. Spleen
E. Stomach
1073. Which of the following arteries is not derived from the hepatic artery (either directly
or from one of its branches)?
A. The gastroduodenal artery
B. The right gastric artery
C. The right gastroepiploic artery
D. The superior pancreaticoduodenal artery
E. The short gastric arteries *
1074. All of the following veins are tributaries of the portal vein except the:
A. Superior mesenteric
B. Splenic
C. Hepatic *
E. Gastric
1075. All of the following arteries contribute to the blood supply of the stomach except the:
A. Left gastric artery
B. Splenic artery
C. Hepatic artery
D. Inferior pancreaticoduodenal artery *
E. All of the above contribute to the blood supply of the stomach
1076. The cystic artery is usually a branch of the:
A. Right hepatic artery *
B. Left hepatic artery
C. Common hepatic artery
D. Proper hepatic artery
E. Gastroduodenal artery
1077. Which of the following statement(s) are true?
A. The splenic vein drains into the portal vein posterior to the pancreas
B. The portal vein passes up in the free edge of the lesser omentum posterior to the common
bile duct
C. The portal vein has no valves
D. In the embryo, the portal vein communicates with the hepatic veins
E. All of the above are correct *
1078. The portal vein is conventionally formed by major contributions of the:
A. Superior mesenteric and splenic veins *
B. Renal and gastric veins
C. Renal and splenic veins
D. Superior mesenteric and gastric veins
E. Gastric and splenic veins
1079. All but which one of the following plexuses in the abdomen is fed by the splanchnic
nerve from the thoracic sympathetic trunk?
A. The left gastric plexus
B. The hypogastric plexus *
C. The superior mesenteric plexus
D. The renal plexus
E. The celiac plexus
1080. Which of the following statements about the portal vein is untrue?
A. It lies near the free edge of the hepatoduodenal ligament
B. It is formed by the junction of the superior mesenteric and splenic veins
C. It lies posterior to the common bile duct
D. It lies posterior to the hepatic artery
1081. A surgeon wishes to anastomose the splenic and renal veins to treat portal venous
hypertension. After removing the spleen, the free end of the splenic vein is to be found in
the:
A. Gastrophrenic ligament
C. Gastrosplenic ligament
D. Left edge of the lesser omentum
E. None of the above places
1082. Advanced cirrhosis of the liver often results in portal hypertension. Which of the
following signs is not directly related to portal hypertension?
A. Gastroesophageal varices
B. Hemorrhoids (varicose veins in the rectum)
C. Caput medusae (dilation of the superficial umbilical veins)
D. Ascites (accumulation of fluid in the abdominal cavity)
E. Varicocele (varicose veins of the pampiniform plexus) *
1083. If the inferior mesenteric artery were clamped off, which of the following structures
would have its blood supply endangered?
A. The descending colon *
B. The small intestine
C. The ascending colon
D. The appendix
E. The cecum
1084. Venous drainage from which of the following enters the liver via the portal veins?
A. Appendix
B. Sigmoid colon
C. Pancreas
D. Spleen
E. All of these *
1085. Which of the following statements about the superior mesenteric artery is usually not
true?
A. It arises from the anterior aspect of the aorta
B. It passes posterior to the neck of the pancreas
C. It passes anterior to the inferior part of the duodenum
D. It gives rise to the superior pancreaticoduodenal artery *
E. It gives rise to the middle colic artery
1086. The inferior mesenteric vein:
A. Drains into the portal system
B. Receives the superior rectal vein
C. Drains the sigmoid colon
D. Drains the descending colon
1087. The left colic artery:
A. Arises from the superior mesenteric artery
B. Arises from the inferior mesenteric artery *
C. Anastomoses with the right colic artery
D. Supplies the hepatic flexure
1088. The appendicular artery arises from the:
A. Iliocolic artery and passes ventral to the terminal ileum
B. Iliocolic artery and passes dorsal to the terminal ileum *
C. Right colic artery and descends along the cecum
D. Right colic artery and reaches the appendix through a peritoneal fold
E. Inferior mesenteric artery
1089. In carrying out a posterior gastrojejunostomy through the transverse mesocolon, you
must be careful to avoid injuring the:
A. Right gastro-epiploic artery
B. Left gastro-epiploic artery
C. Right colic artery
D. Middle colic artery *
1090. Arterial blood to the pancreas may by supplied from which of the following major
vessels?
A. The splenic artery
B. The superior mesenteric artery
C. The common hepatic
D. The gastroduodenal artery
1091. The superior mesenteric artery supplies the:
A. Distal duodenum *
B. Stomach
C. Liver
D. Head of the pancreas
E. Abdominal part of the esophagus
A. Stomach
B. Liver
C. Ascending colon *
D. Pancreas
E. Spleen
A. Stomach
B. Cecum *
C. Liver
D. Kidney
E. Abdominal part of the esophagus
1094. The left kidney is related to all of the following except the:
A. Liver *
B. Suprarenal gland
C. Pancreas
D. Spleen
E. Colon
1095. The right kidney is related to all of the following except the:
A. Liver
B. Suprarenal gland
C. Pancreas *
D. Duodenum
E. Colon
1096. An invasive tumor of the right suprarenal gland may invade all but which one of the
following?
B. Right kidney
C. Diaphragm
D. Gall bladder *
E. Liver
1097. The sigmoid colon gains its parasympathetic nerve supply from the:
A. Vagus
B. Celiac ganglion
C. Greater splanchnic nerves
D. Pelvic splanchnic nerves *
E. It has no parasympathetic nerve supply
1098. The ascending colon gains its parasympathetic nerve supply from the:
A. Vagus nerve *
B. Celiac ganglion
C. Greater splanchnic nerves
D. Pelvic splanchnic nerves
E. It has no parasympathetic nerve supply
1099. Carcinoma of the lower end of the esophagus affecting both vagus nerves might
cause serious disorders of gut motility as far as the:
A. Meckel’s diverticulum if present
B. Ileocaecal junction
C. Hepatic flexure of the colon
D. Splenic flexure of the colon *
E. Sigmoid colon
1100. The point of greatest tenderness in acute appendicitis is usually:
A. One-third the way along a line from the anterior superior ileac spine to the umbilicus *
B. Half-way along a line from the anterior superior ileac spine to the umbilicus
C. Two-thirds the way along a line from the anterior superior ileac spine to the umbilicus
D. At the junction of the midclavicular line and a line from the anterior superior ileac spine to
the umbilicus
E. One-third the way along a line from the anterior superior ileac spine to the pubic tubercle
1101. A student examining a rather thin female patient was excited when he found a
somewhat elongated palpable mass in the left lower quadrant of the abdomen. He has
probably palpated:
A. An ovarian cyst
B. A mass in the ileum
C. The inferior pole of the left kidney
D. A normal sigmoid colon *
E. An enlarged lymph node
1102. Which of the following structures a surgeon can expect to find behind the first part of
the duodenum?
A. The portal vein
B. The gastroduodenal artery
C. The common bile duct
E. Two of the above
1103. In a normal individual which portion of the gut is susceptible to volvulus?
A. The rectum
B. The jejunum *
C. The ascending colon
D. The descending colon
E. The second part of the duodenum
1104. If Meckel’s diverticulum becomes inflamed, you might expect the pain to be referred
during early stages of the disease to the:
A. Skin in the midline, halfway between the umbilicus and xiphoid
B. Skin around the umbilicus *
C. Skin in the midline, halfway between the umbilicus and pubis
D. Skin of the right loin
E. Wherever the diverticulum happened to be lying at that movement
1105. The midgut extends between which of the following points?
A. The pylorus of stomach to the ileocaecal valve
B. The duodenal papilla to the middle of the transverse colon *
C. The ileocaecal valve to the rectum
D. The duodenal-jejunal flexure to the rectum
1106. Peyer’s patches are most commonly found in the:
A. Ileum *
B. Jejunum
C. Duodenum
D. Caecum
E. Rectum
1107. Which of the following abdominal viscera can normally be felt in a thin individual?
A. The liver
B. The spleen
C. The pancreas
D. The sigmoid colon *
E. All of these
1108. Which of the following statements about the Meckel’s diverticulum is untrue?
A. It is present in a minority of adults
B. It is found at some point along the terminal one-fourth of the ileum
C. It is found on the antimesenteric border (i.e., away from the mesenteric side) of the bowel
D. Its blood supply is from the inferior mesenteric artery *
E. Its venous drainage is through the portal venous circulation
1109. Which of the following statements about the Meckel’s diverticulum is true?
A. It is found at some point along the terminal one-fourth of the ileum
B. It is found on the antimesenteric border (i.e., away from the mesenteric side) of the bowel
C. Its blood supply is from the superior mesenteric artery
D. Its venous drainage is through the portal venous circulation
E. All of the above statements are true *
1110. You find a loop of small bowel protruding through a knife wound. You know it is the
jejunum rather than the ileum because:
A. The jejunum has a thicker wall
B. The jejunum is of larger diameter
C. The jejunal mesentery has less fat
D. The jejunal arterial arcades are simple or double with long vasa recti while the ileal arcades
are multiple with short vasa recti
1111. A small segment of colon exposed through a limited surgical incision can be
distinguished from a segment of small bowel by:
A. The presence of teniae
B. The identification of haustrations
C. The presence of epiploic appendages
A. The presence of teniae *
B. Its universally larger diameter
C. The presence of arterial pulsation
D. The presence of arterial arcades
A. The presence of arterial arcades
B. The presence of epiploic appendages *
C. Its universally larger diameter
D. The presence of arterial pulsation
E. All of the above
A. Its universally larger diameter
B. The presence of arterial pulsation
C. The presence of arterial arcades
D. The identification of haustrations *
1115. Sigmoid colon:
A. Extends from pelvic brim to S2
B. Relates to both ureters
C. Is longer in male than in female
D. Indirectly drain into splenic vein *
E. All of the above are true
A. Cover entirely by peritoneum *
B. Extends from pelvic brim to S2
C. Relates to both ureters
D. Is longer in male than in female
E. All of the above are untrue
A. Has wider tenia coli *
B. Extends from pelvic brim to S2
C. Relates to both ureters
E. All of the above are untrue
1118. Appendix:
A. Is longer in male than in female
B. Has 2 bands of longitudinal muscle
C. Has mesoappendix *
D. Cover entirely by peritoneum
E. Relates to both ureters
1119. Appendix:
A. Emerges from posteromedial aspect of cecum *
B. Is longer in male than in female
C. Has 2 bands of longitudinal muscle
1120. Appendix:
C. Cover entirely by peritoneum
D. Lumen is irregular *
1121. Appendix:
A. Has numerous lymphoid tissue in mucosa *
B. Is longer in male than in female
C. Has tenia coli
1122. Appendix:
C. Cover entirely by peritoneum
D. Has prominent muscularis mucosa
E. Opens into posteromedial wall of cecum *
1123. Appendix:
A. Has tenia coli
C. Has a mesentery *
1124. Appendix:
A. Has a mesentery
B. Opens into posteromedial wall of cecum
C. Has numerous lymphoid tissue in mucosa
D. Lumen is irregular
E. All of the above statements are true *
1125. Appendix:
A. All of these statements are untrue *
B. Has tenia coli
E. Has prominent muscularis mucosa
1126. Meckel’s diverticulum is:
A. Derived from cephalic end of hindgut
B. Derived from vitello-intestinal duct *
C. Supplied by the inferior mesenteric artery
D. Has venous drainage in inferior vena cava system
E. Opens into posteromedial wall of cecum
A. Derived from cephalic end of hindgut
B. Supplied by the inferior mesenteric artery
C. Has venous drainage in inferior vena cava system
D. Usually situated on distance 120 cm (approximately) from the ileocecal valve *
A. Sometimes lined by ectopic gastric mucosa *
B. Derived from cephalic end of hindgut
C. Supplied by the inferior mesenteric artery
D. Has venous drainage in inferior vena cava system
1129. Regarding appendix:
A. Pain is at T10 segment
B. Lined by columnar epithelium
C. Appendicular artery is an end artery
1130. Megacolon:
A. Is covered anteriorly, along its whole length, by peritoneum
B. Results from absence of all sympathetic ganglion cells in mesenteric plexuses
C. Sympathetic ganglion cells are absent proximal to dilatation
D. The dilated colon has normal nerve supply *
E. Results from failure of development of muscular wall
1131. Jejunum differs from ileum in that it has:
A. Wider lumen *
B. Thin wall
C. More lymphoid tissue
D. More arterial arcades in its mesentery
E. Drained into internal ileac nodes
1132. Jejunum differs from ileum in that it has:
A. Thin wall
B. More lymphoid tissue
C. Often empty lumen *
D. More arterial arcades in its mesentery
E. Drained into internal ileac nodes
1133. Meckel’s diverticulum (when present):
A. Contains gastric or pancreatic tissue *
B. Develop from ventral mesoduodenum
C. Always produces symptoms
D. Has three constrictions
E. Obstruction can cause hematenesis
A. Develop from ventral mesoduodenum
B. Always produces symptoms
C. Has three constrictions
D. May ulcerate or perforate *
E. Obstruction can cause hematenesis
A. Develop from ventral mesoduodenum
B. Attached to terminal ileum *
C. Obstruction can cause hematenesis
D. Always produces symptoms
E. Has three constrictions
A. Pain is at T10 segment *
B. Common site is pelvis
C. 3 tenia coli are present
D. Has 2 bands of longitudinal muscle
E. Has prominent muscularis mucosa
A. Common site is pelvis
B. 3 tenia coli are present
D. Lined by columnar epithelium *
E. Is longer in male than in female
A. Appendicular artery is an end artery *
B. Common site is pelvis
C. 3 tenia coli are present
1139. Lymphatic spread of carcinoma of the sigmoid colon is likely to metastasize to the;
A. Left common ileac nodes
B. Inferior mesenteric nodes *
C. Superior mesenteric nodes
D. Celiac nodes
E. Para-aortic nodes
1140. Bacteria from diverticulitis of the proximal two thirds of the transverse colon are
likely to spread via lymph vessels to the:
A. Inferior mesenteric nodes
B. Celiac nodes
C. Para-aortic nodes
D. Superior mesenteric nodes *
E. Left renal nodes
1141. Which of the following is type of a gastrojejunostomy?
A. Bilrot’s I operation
B. Antecolica anterior *
C. Side-to-side anastomoses
D. Side-to-end anastomoses
E. End-to-end anastomoses
1142. Which of the following is type of a gastrojejunostomy?
A. Antecolica anterior
B. Retrocolica anterior
C. Antecolica posterior
D. Retrocolica posterior
1143. Topography of the root of mesentery:
A. Left L2 to right sacroileac junction *
B. Right L2 to left sacroileac junction
C. Left L1 to left sacroileac junction
D. Right Th12 to left sacroileac junction
E. Left Th12 to right sacroileac junction
1144. Inferior abdominal compartment is distance from the:
A. Mesentery of the transverse colon to the pelvic brim *
B. Mesentery of the transverse colon to the superior edge of the rectum
C. Diaphragm to the root of mesentery
D. Diaphragm to the mesentery of the transverse colon
E. Inferior part of the duodenum to the pelvic brim
1145. What is critical Zudeck’s point of blood supplying?
A. Point of rectal artery divide
B. Point of sigmoid artery dividing *
C. Point of inferior mesentery artery divide
D. Point of superior mesentery artery divide
E. Point of ileocolica artery divide
1146. Which of the following is not a branch of the superior mesenteric artery?
A. Inferior pancreaticoduodenal artery
B. Ileocolic artery
C. Right colic artery
D. Middle colic artery
E. Left colic artery *
1147. Which of the following is a branch of the inferior mesenteric artery?
A. Left colic artery
B. Sigmoid artery
C. Superior rectal artery
E. None of these
1148. Topographical anatomy studies:
A. System of organs
B. Variants of organ structure
C. Organs innervation and blood supply
D. Organs age changes
E. Morphological structure of organism regions *
1149. What is skeletotopy:
A. Anatomical structures attitude to body parts
B. Anatomical structures attitude to organism regions
C. Variants of organs blood supply
D. Relationship between organs
E. Anatomical structures attitude to skeleton bones *
1150. What is holotopy
A. Anatomical structures attitude to skeleton bones
B. Anatomical structures attitude to organism regions
C. Variants of organs blood supply
D. Relationship between organs
E. Anatomical structures attitude to body parts *
1151. What is syntopy
A. Anatomical structures attitude to body parts
B. Anatomical structures attitude to skeleton bones
C. Anatomical structures attitude to organism regions
D. Variants of organs blood supply
E. Relationship between organs *
1152. Indicate type of local anesthesia
A. Conduction anesthesia
B. Intravenous anesthesia
C. Spinal anesthesia
D. Endotracheal anesthesia
E. Infiltration anesthesia *
1153. Bleeding from dural sinuses cann’t be arrested because:
A. High pressure in dural sinuses
B. Many venous tributaries
C. Negative pressure in dural sinuses
D. High speed of blood flow
E. They are not collasible *
1154. Which of the following arteries is damage in case of temporal region injury
A. Anterior cerebral artery
B. Medial cerebral artery
C. Superficial temporal artery
D. Anterior meningeal artery
E. Medial meningeal artery *
1155. Which of the following methods of arrest of bleeding is temporary:
A. Tamponade
B. Electrocoagulation
C. Vessels ligation in wound
D. Hemostatic sponge
E. Hemostatic bandage *
1156. Which of the following methods of arrest of bleeding is permanent:
A. Tourniquet
B. Hemostatic bandage
C. Pressing in the wound
D. Tamponade
E. Hemostatic sponge *
1157. Which of the following methods of arrest of bleeding is temporary
A. Tamponade
B. Electrocoagulation
C. Vessels ligation in wound
D. Vessels ligation with suturing
E. Pressing in the wound *
1158. In which layer of calvarium hematoma has bump form
A. Subaponeurotical tissue
B. Subperiosteal tissue
C. Diploe substance
D. Skin
E. Subcutaneous tissue *
1159. In which layer of calvarium hematoma has diffuse character
A. Skin
B. Subcutaneous tissue
C. Diploe substance
D. Subperiosteal tissue
E. Subaponeurotical tissue *
1160. In which layer of calvarium hematoma has bone form
A. Skin
B. Subcutaneous tissue
C. Diploe substance
D. Subaponeurotical tissue
E. Subperiosteal tissue *
1161. Which of the following layers form scalping flap
A. Periosteum, subperiosteal tissue, bone
B. Epicranial aponeurosis, subaponeurotical tissue
C. Subcutaneous tissue, epicranial aponeurosis, subaponeurotical tissue
D. External lamina of bone, diploe, periosteum
E. Skin, subcutaneous tissue, epicranial aponeurosis *
1162. The head region divides on which of the following parts
A. Cerebral, occipital
B. Occipital, frontal
C. Temporal, occipital
D. Frontal, occipital
E. Cerebral, facial *
1163. Indicate the anterior border of frontoparietooccipital region
A. Superior temporal line
B. Zygomatic arch, frontal process
C. Superior nuchal line
D. Zygomatic arch
E. Glabella, supraorbital edge of frontal bone *
1164. Which of the following structures forms the posterior border of frontoparietooccipital
region
A. Medial nuchal line
B. Inferior nuchal line
C. Inferior temporal line
D. Superior temporal line
E. Superior nuchal line *
1165. Which of the following structures forms the lateral border of frontoparietooccipital
region
A. Medial temporal line
B. Inferior temporal line
C. Mastoid process
D. Zygomatic arch
E. Superior temporal line *
1166. The epicranial aponeurosis locates between which of the following structures
A. Frontal and occipital muscles
B. Left and right temporal muscles
C. Frontal and occipital bones
D. Left and right temporal bones
E. Frontal and occipital bellies of frontooccipital muscle *
1167. Which of the following vessels locates in subaponeurotical tissue of
frontoparietooccipital region
A. Temporal superficial artery
B. Temporal superficial artery and vein
C. Posterior auricular artery
D. Diploe locates
E. No vessels *
1168. Diploe locates
A. Under the skin
B. Under the epicranial aponeurosis
C. Under the temporal muscle
D. Between laminas of the temporal aponeurosis
E. Between external and internal laminae of skull bone *
1169. Which of the following arteries furnish circulation of occipital region
A. Left and right occipital arteries
B. Temporal and occipital arteries
C. Left and right vertebral arteries
D. Posterior cerebral artery
E. Left and right occipital arteries, posterior auricular arteries *
1170. Which of the following arteries is source of occipital artery
A. Internal carotid artery
B. Auricular arteries
C. Vertebral arteries
D. Medial temporal artery
E. External carotid artery *
1171. How many venous layers is in frontoparietooccipital region
A. One
B. Two
C. Four
D. Five
E. Three *
1172. The first venous layer of frontoparietooccipital region locates in which of the
following
C. Diploe
D. Epidural space
1173. The second venous layer of frontoparietooccipital region locates in which of the
following
A. Subcutaneous tissue
B. Subaponeurotical tissue
C. Subperiosteal tissue
D. Epidural space
E. Diploe *
1174. Venous drainage through emissary veins realizes in which of the following directions
A. To the veins of the head soft tissues
B. To the venous sinuses
C. To the temporal superficial vein
D. To the sigmoid sinus
E. To the veins of the head soft tissues and venous sinuses *
1175. Where locates the auriculotemporal nerve
A. In the interaponeurotical tissue of temporal region
B. In the subaponeurotical tissue of temporal region
C. In the subperiosteal tissue of temporal region
D. In the epidural space of temporal region
E. In the subcutaneous tissue of temporal region *
1176. Tendinous septa locate in which of the following calvarium fat tissues
A. Subperiosteal
B. Subaponeurotical
C. Interaponeurotical
D. All cellular spaces
E. Subcutaneous *
1177. Which of the following arteries is source of ophthalmic artery
A. Common carotid artery
C. Ethmoidal artery
D. Medial cerebral artery
E. Internal carotid artery *
1178. Which of the following arteries is source of supratrochlear artery
A. Anterior cerebral artery
B. Anterior meningeal artery
C. Medial cerebral artery
D. Ethmoidal artery
E. Ophthalmic artery *
1179. Which of the following arteries is source of temporal superficial artery
A. Facial artery
B. Maxillary artery
C. Supratrochlear artery
E. External carotid artery *
1180. Which of the following arteries is source of anterior auricular artery
A. Facial artery
B. Maxillary artery
C. Internal carotid artery
E. Temporal superficial artery *
1181. Which of the following arteries is source of deep temporal artery
B. Facial artery
E. Maxillary artery *
1182. Which of the following arteries is source of middle temporal artery
A. Parietal artery
B. Ophthalmic artery
C. Maxillary artery
E. Temporal superficial artery *
1183. Venous return from temporal superficial vein realize in
A. Facial vein
B. Maxillary vein
C. Parietal vein
D. Angular vein
E. Retromandibular vein *
1184. Temporal superficial artery locates in which of the following calvarium layers
C. Interaponeurotical tissue
D. Epidural space
1185. When permanent arrest of bleeding from skull bones is correct
A. Coagulation
B. Hemostatic sponge
C. Hot physiologic saline
D. Vessels ligation by catgut
E. Rodding *
1186. Which of the following arteries is source of zygomaticoorbital artery
A. Ophthalmic artery
B. Temporal superficial artery
C. Facial artery
D. Internal carotid artery
E. Maxillary artery *
1187. How realize the permanent arrest of bleeding from skull bones
A. By the catgut ligation
B. By the using of hot physiologic saline
C. By the electrocoagulation
D. By the clipping
E. By the rubbing of wax *
1188. How realize the permanent arrest of bleeding from meningeal arteries
B. By the rubbing of wax
C. By the using of hot physiologic saline
D. By the electrocoagulation
E. By the clipping. *
1189. Which of the following arteries is source of posterior auricular artery
A. Facial artery
B. Maxillary artery
E. External carotid artery. *
1190. How realize the permanent arrest of bleeding from skull bones
B. By the using of hot physiologic saline
C. By the electrocoagulation
D. By the clipping.
E. By the rubbing of rasping of a bone *
1191. Penetretive skull wound is:
A. Damage of skull bone
B. Damage of dura mater and arachnoid of brain
C. Damage of all meninges
D. Damage of internal lamina of skull bones
E. Damage of dura mater of brain *
1192. Venous layers connects by which of the following veins
A. Diploidic veins
B. Venous sinuses
C. Venous plexuses
D. Superficial veins of calvarium.
E. Emissary veins *
1193. Frontal nerve is branch of which of following
B. Facial nerve
C. Abducent nerve
D. Optic nerve
E. Trochlear nerve.
F. Ophthalmic nerve *
1194. Frontal belly of frontooccipital muscle is innervated by which of the following nerve:
A. Abducent nerve
B. Ophthalmic nerve
C. Optic nerve
D. Maxillary nerve.
E. Facial nerve *
1195. Lesser occipital nerve is branch of which of the following nerve:
A. Spinal nerve
B. Posterior auricular nerve
C. Facial nerve
D. Trigeminal nerve
E. Cervical plexus *
1196. Greater occipital nerve is branch of which of the following nerve:
A. Third spinal nerve
B. First spinal nerve
C. Cervical plexus
D. Vagus nerve.
E. Second spinal nerve *
1197. Posterior auricular nerve is branch of which of the following nerve
A. First spinal nerve
B. Second spinal nerve
C. Vagus nerve
D. Phrenic nerve.
E. Facial nerve *
1198. Lymphatic outflow from the frontal region of calvarium realize to which of the
following lymph nodes:
A. Superficial parotid lymph nodes
B. Deep parotid lymph nodes
C. Superficial, middle and deep parotid lymph nodes
D. Facial lymph nodes.
E. Superficial and deep parotid lymph nodes *
1199. Lymphatic outflow from the parietal region of calvarium realize to which of the
following lymph nodes:
A. Parotid lymph nodes
B. Deep parotid lymph nodes
C. Occipital lymph nodes
D. Facial lymph nodes.
E. Retroauricular lymph nodes *
1200. Where locate subperiostal hematoma and abscess
A. Subcutaneous tissue
B. Subaponeurotical tissue
C. Interaponeurotical tissue
D. Periosteum
E. Subperiostal tissue *
1201. In sponge substance of skull bone locates which of the following structures
A. Venous sinuses
B. Cranial nerves
C. Deep arteries of calvarium
D. Emissary veins
E. Diploidic veins *
1202. Which anatomical structures pass through the optic canal
A. Optic nerve, ophthalmic vein
B. Ophthalmic artery, ophthalmic vein
C. Optic nerve, vein and artery
D. Ophthalmic nerve, ophthalmic vein and artery
E. Optic nerve, ophthalmic artery and vein *
1203. Which anatomical structures pass through the round foramen
A. Ophthalmic and maxillary nerve
B. Ophthalmic and mandibular nerve
C. Maxillary and mandibular nerve
D. Optic and maxillary nerve
E. Maxillary nerve *
1204. Cecal foramen locates in
A. Middle cranial fossa
B. Posterior cranial fossa
C. Sphenoid bone
D. Near optic chiasm
E. Anterior cranial fossa *
1205. Pacchionian granulations is formations of which of the following structures
A. Dura mater of brain
B. Pia mater of brain
C. Venous sinuses
D. Pericranium.
E. Arachnoid of brain *
1206. Which nerve pass through the oval foramen
A. Optic nerve
B. Maxillary nerve
C. Facial nerve
D. Trochlear nerve.
E. Mandibular nerve *
1207. Which anatomical structure pass through the spinous foramen
A. Ethmoidal artery
B. Anterior meningeal artery
C. Posterior meningeal artery
D. Middle cerebral artery
E. Middle meningeal artery *
1208. Internal skull base forms by which of the following structures
A. Temporal and infratemporal fossa
B. Orbital and nasal cavity
C. Trigeminal impression and orbital cavity
D. Superior and inferior orbital fissure
E. Anterior, middle and posterior cranial fossa *
1209. Indicate brain structures, which form venous sinuses
A. Pericranium
B. Pia mater encephali
C. Arachnoid encephali
D. Epidural space
E. Dura mater encephali *
1210. Inferior sagittal sinus locates on
A. Upper edge of falx of cerebrum
B. Sulcus of transverse sinus of occipital bone
C. Edge of Turkish saddle
D. Edge of internal occipital tuberosity
E. Lower edge of falx of cerebrum *
1211. Which of the following sinuses realizes venous drainage from the skull
A. Superior sagittal sinus
B. Inferior sagittal sinus
C. Transverse sinus
D. Rectal sinus
E. Cavernous sinus *
1212. Which of the following vessels pass through the cavernous sinus
A. External carotid artery
B. Ophthalmic artery
C. Middle meningeal artery
D. Ophthalmic vein
E. Internal carotid artery *
1213. Middle meningeal artery locates in
A. Subdural space
B. Subarachnoid space
C. Subperiostal tissue
D. Epidural and subdural space
E. Epidural space *
1214. Superior sagittal sinus locates on
A. Lower edge of falx of cerebrum
B. Edge of falx of cerebellum
D. Edge of internal occipital tuberosity
E. Upper edge of falx of cerebrum *
1215. Rectal sinus locates on
A. Edge of falx of cerebellum
B. Upper edge of falx of cerebrum
C. Sulcus of transverse sinus of occipital bone
D. Edge of Turkish saddle
E. Connective place of falx and tentorium of cerebellum *
1216. Transverse sinus locates on
A. Sulcus between cerebellar hemispheres
B. Edge of falx of cerebellum
D. Lower edge of falx of cerebrum
E. Junction between tentorium of cerebellum and sulcus of transverse sinus of occipital
bone *
1217. How realize the arrest of bleeding from cerebral vessels
B. By the rubbing of wax
C. By the using of hot physiologic saline
D. By the electrocoagulation
E. By the clipping *
1218. How realize the arrest of bleeding from superior sagittal sinus
A. By the electrocoagulation
B. By the clipping
C. By the ligation
D. By the rubbing of wax
E. By the vessel suture *
1219. Subcutaneous emphysema is possible in case of damage of which of the following
structures:
A. Turkish saddle
B. Cavernous sinus
C. Superior sagittal sinus
D. Sigmoid sinus
E. Frontal sinus *
1220. Which of the following nerves pass through the cavernous sinus
A. Olfactory nerves
B. Optic nerve
C. Mandibular nerve
D. Maxillary nerve
E. Abducent nerve *
A. Optic nerve
B. Maxillary nerve
C. Facial nerve
D. Olfactory nerves
E. Oculomotor nerve *
A. Maxillary nerve
B. Accessory nerve
C. Facial nerve
D. Optic nerve
E. Ophthalmic nerve *
A. Facial nerve
B. Accessory nerve
C. Vagus nerve
E. Trochlear nerve *
1224. Which of the following anatomical structures produces the liquor
A. Pacchionian granulations
B. Lateral ventricles of cerebrum
C. Third ventricle of cerebrum
D. Subarachnoid space
E. Vascular plexuces *
1225. Which of the following nerves realizes the innervetion of dura mater of brain
A. Facial nerve
B. Hypoglossal nerve
C. Optic nerve
D. Olfactory nerve
E. Accessory nerve *
1226. Indicate the reason of convergent strabismus
A. Damage of facial nerve
B. Damage of optic nerve
C. Ophthalmic vein thrombosis
D. Damage of ophthalmic artery
E. Cavernous sinus thrombosis *
1227. Which of the following anatomical structures pass through the great occipital
foramen:
B. Occipital artery
C. Great occipital nerve
E. Left vertebral artery *
foramen:
A. Hypoglossal nerve
B. Occipital artery
C. Posterior auricular artery
D. Facial nerve
E. Right vertebral artery *
foramen:
A. Spinal cord
B. Occipital artery
C. Occipital vein
D. Occipital artery and vein
E. Medulla oblongata *
1230. Which of the following anatomical structures pass through the anterior part of
jugular foramen:
A. Jugular artery
B. Jugular vein
C. Bulb of jugular vein and artery
E. IX, X, XI cranial nerves *
1231. Liquor passes from 4-th ventricle of cerebrum to subarachnoid space through which
of the following foramen:
A. Interventricular Monro’s foramen
B. Cerebral Silvii’s aqueduct
C. Roland’s foramen
D. Lushka’s foramen
E. Magendie’s foramen *
1232. Magendie’s foramen connects which of the following structures
A. Later ventricles of cerebrum
B. 2-nd ventricle with 3-rd
C. 3-rd venticle with 4-th
D. 4-th venticle with subarachnoid space of spinal cord
E. 4-th venticle with subarachnoid cavity *
MSQs for figures:
1233. Which of the following anatomical structures in fig. 4 is indicated by 1?

A. m. pterygoideus lateralis
B. a. supraorbitalis
C. m. masseter
D. a. et m. pterygoideus lateralis *
E. a. facialis

A. a. pterygoideus lateralis
B. a. supraorbitalis *
C. a. supratrochlearis
D. a.ophtalmica
E. a. facialis

C. a. supratrochlearis *
D. a.ophtalmica
E. a.facialis

D. a.ophtalmica *
E. a.facialis

D. a.ophtalmica
E. a.dorsalis nasi *

A. a. angularis *
D. a.ophtalmica
E. a.dorsalis nasi

A. a. angularis
D. a.ophtalmica
E. a.infraorbitalis *

A. a. angularis
B. aa. alveolares superiores posteriores *
C. aa. alveolares superiores anteriores
D. aa. alveolares superiores mediales
E. a. maxillaris

A. a. angularis
B. aa. alveolares superiores anteriores *
C. aa. alveolares superiores posteriores
D. aa. alveolares superiores mediales
E. a. maxillaris

A. a. angularis
B. aa. alveolares superiores mediales *
C. aa. alveolares superiores anteriores
D. aa. alveolares superiores posteriores
E. a. maxillaris

A. a. et n. buccales *
B. a.et n. pterigoideus lat.
C. a.et n. pterigoideus med.
E. a.et n. maxillaris

A. a. et n. buccales
B. a.et n. pterigoideus lat.
C. a.et m. pterigoideus med. *
E. a.et m. masseter

A. n. buccalis
B. raphe pterigomandibularis *
C. n. lingualis
D. n. mandibularis
E. n. facialis

A. n. buccalis
B. raphe pterigomandibularis
C. n. lingualis *
D. n. mandibularis
E. n. facialis
A. a. buccalis
B. a. pterigomandibularis
C. a. lingualis
D. a. mandibularis
E. a. facialis *

A. a. buccalis
B. a. mentalis *
C. a. lingualis
D. a. submentalis
E. a. facialis

A. a. buccalis
B. a. submentalis *
C. a. mentalis
D. a. lingualis
E. a. facialis

A. a. maxillaris
B. a. submentalis
C. a. mentalis
D. a. lingualis *
E. a. facialis

A. a. maxillaris
B. a. submentalis
C. a. mentalis
D. a. facialis *
E. a. lingualis

A. a. maxillaris
B. a. carotis externa *
C. a. carotis communis
D. a. carotis interna
E. a. occipitalis

A. m. sthylohyoideus *
B. m. pterygoideus lateralis
C. m. pterygoideus medialis
D. m. digastricus
E. m. sterocleidomastoideus

A. m. sthylohyoideus
B. m. pterygoideus lateralis
C. m. pterygoideus medialis
D. m. digastricus *
E. m. sterocleidomastoideus

A. a. et n. mylohyoideus *
B. a. et n. sthylohyoideus
C. a. et n. alveolaris inferioris
D. a. et n. pterygoideus
E. a. et n. lingualis

A. Lig. mylohyoideus
B. Lig.. sthylohyoideus
C. Lig. Sphenomandibularis *
D. lig. pterygoideus lat.
E. Lig. pterygoideus med.

A. A. et n. mylohyoideus
B. A. et n. alveolaris inferior *
C. A. et n. pterygoideus lat.
D. A. et n. pterygoideus med.
E. A. et n. lingualis

A. n. maxillaris
B. n. mandibularis
C. n. pterygoideus lat.
D. n. pterygoideus med.
E. n. facialis *

A. A. occipitalis
B. A. auricularis posterior *
C. A. temporalis superficialis
D. A. pterygoideus med.
E. A. temporalis profunda

A. A. occipitalis
B. A. auricularis posterior
C. A. temporalis superficialis *
D. A. maxillaris
E. A. carotis externa

A. A. masseterica
B. A. auricularis anterior
C. A. temporalis superficialis
D. A. maxillaris *
E. A. carotis externa

A. n. auriculotemporalis *
B. n. temporalis superficialis
C. n. temporalis lat.
D. n. temporalis med.
E. n. auricularis

A. A. temporalis media
B. A. auricularis anterior
C. A. meningea media *
D. A. temporalis profunda
E. A. meningea posterior

A. A. et n. masseterica *
B. A. et n. alveolaris superioris
C. A. et n. pterygoideus lat.
D. A. et n. pterygoideus med.
E. A. et n. buccalis

A. m.mylohyoideus *
B. m. hyoglossus
C. m. cricothyroideus
D. m. sternothyroideus
E. m. omohyoideus

A. m.mylohyoideus
B. m. hyoglossus *
E. m. omohyoideus

A. m.mylohyoideus
B. m. hyoglossus
C. m. cricothyroideus *
E. m. omohyoideus

A. m.mylohyoideus
B. m. hyoglossus
D. m. sternothyroideus *
E. m. omohyoideus

A. m.mylohyoideus
B. m. hyoglossus
C. m. stylohyoideus *
E. m. omohyoideus
A. m.mylohyoideus
B. m. hyoglossus
D. m. sternothyroideus *
E. m. omohyoideus

A. m.mylohyoideus
B. m. hyoglossus
E. m. omohyoideus *

A. m.mylohyoideus
B. m. hyoglossus
E. m. omohyoideus *

A. m.trapezius *
B. m. scalenus medius
E. m. omohyoideus

A. m.mylohyoideus
B. m. hyoglossus
E. m. omohyoideus *

A. n. lacrimalis *
B. n. frontalis
C. n. mandibularis
D. n. temporalis profundus
E. n. maxillaris

A. n. lacrimalis
B. n. frontalis
C. n. mandibularis
E. n. maxillaris *

A. n. lacrimalis
B. n. frontalis
C. n. mandibularis
D. n. infraorbitalis *
E. n. maxillaris
1278. Anatomical structure in fig. 6 indicated by 26 is branch of which of the following

nerves?
A. n. vagus
B. n. frontalis
C. n. mandibularis
E. n. maxillaris *

A. n. vagus
B. n. frontalis
C. n. mandibularis *
E. n. maxillaris
1280. Anatomical structure in fig. 6 marked by 11 goes from the cranial cavity through
which of the following holes?
A. Foramen ovale *
B. Foramen lacerum
C. Foramen spinosum
D. Foramen rotundum
E. Foramen jugulare
1281. Anatomical structure in fig. 6 marked by 12 goes from the cranial cavity through
which of the following holes?
A. Foramen ovale
B. Foramen lacerum
C. Foramen spinosum
D. Foramen rotundum *
E. Foramen jugulare

A. Foramen ovale *
B. Foramen lacerum
C. Foramen spinosum
D. Foramen rotundum
E. Foramen jugulare

A. n. auriculotemporalis *
B. n. frontalis
C. n. mandibularis
E. n. maxillaris

A. n. auriculotemporalis
B. n. facialis *
C. n. mandibularis
E. n. maxillaris
A. n. lingualis *
B. n. facialis
C. n. mandibularis
E. n. maxillaris

A. n. lingualis
B. n. facialis
C. n. mandibularis
D. n. alveolaris inferioris *
E. n. mentalis

A. m. digastricus venter anterior *
B. m. stylohyoideus
C. m. mylohyoideus
D. m. sternohyoideus
E. m. omohyoideus

A. m. digastricus venter posterior *
B. m. stylohyoideus
C. m. mylohyoideus
E. m. omohyoideus

A. m. digastricus venter posterior
B. m. stylohyoideus *
C. m. mylohyoideus
E. m. omohyoideus

A. m. digastricus venter posterior
B. m. stylohyoideus
C. m. mylohyoideus *
E. m. omohyoideus

A. a. obturatoria *
B. a. epigastrica inferior
C. a. circumflexa ilium profunda
E. m. omohyoideus

A. a. obturatoria *
B. a. epigastrica inferior
D. ductus deferens
E. a. pudenda interna

A. ductus deferens *
B. a. pudenda interna
D. a. epigastrica inferior
E. a. obturatoria

A. Lig. lacunare *
B. Lig. pectineum
C. Lig. inguinale
D. Linea arcuata
E. Anulus inguinalis superficialis

A. Anulus inguinalis profundus *
B. Anulus umbilicalis
C. Lig. inguinale
D. Linea arcuata

A. Anulus femoralis *
B. Anulus umbilicalis
C. Lig. inguinale
D. Linea arcuata

A. M. iliopsoas *
B. M. piriformis
C. M. obturatorius
D. M. gemellus superior
E. M. gemellus inferior

A. Lig. falciforme *
B. Lig. teres
C. Lig. inguinale
D. Lig. coronarium
E. Lig. triangulare

A. Lig. falciforme
B. Lig. teres *
C. Lig. inguinale
D. Lig. coronarium
E. Lig. triangulare

A. Lobus quadratus *
B. Lobus dexter
C. Lobus sinister
D. Lobus caudatus
E. Processus caudatus

A. Lobus quadratus
B. Lobus dexter
C. Lobus sinister *
D. Lobus caudatus

A. Lobus quadratus
B. Lobus dexter *
C. Lobus sinister
D. Lobus caudatus

A. Vesica fellea *
B. Lobus dexter
C. Lobus sinister
D. Lobus caudatus

A. Lig. hepatoduodenale *
B. Lig. hepatogastrica
C. Lig. hepatorenale
D. Lig. duodenorenale
E. Lig. gastrocolicum

A. Lig. hepatoduodenale
B. Lig. Hepatogastrica *
C. Lig. hepatorenale
D. Lig. duodenorenale
E. Lig. gastrocolicum
1306. Lig. hepatoduodenale is indicated by which of the following numbers in fig.3?

A. 15 *
B. 14
C. 12
D. 7
E. 8
1307. Lig. hepatogastrica is indicated by which of the following numbers in fig.3?

A. 15
B. 14 *
C. 12
D. 7
E. 8
1308. Which of the following forms the anatomical structures are indicated in fig. 3 by
numbers 15 and 14?
A. Omentum minor *
B. Omentum majus
C. Mesocolon transversum
D. Radix mesenterii
E. Bursae omentalis
1309. Which of the following forms the anatomical structure is indicated in fig. 3 by
number 15?
A. Anterior wall of foramen epiploicum *
B. Omentum majus
C. Posterior wall of foramen epiploicum
D. Radix mesenterii
E. Bursae omentalis
1310. Which of the following goes within the anatomical structure that is indicated in fig. 3
by number 15?
A. Ductus choledochus *
B. A. hepatica communis
C. Truncus coeliacus
D. A. hepatica sinistra
E. Ductus hepaticus dexter
1311. Which of the following goes within the anatomical structure that is indicated in fig. 3
by number 15?
A. A. hepatica propria *
B. A. hepatica communis
C. Truncus coeliacus
D. A. hepatica sinistra
E. Ductus hepaticus dexter
1312. Which of the following doesn’t go within the anatomical structure that is indicated in
fig. 3 by number 15?
A. Ductus choledochus
B. A. hepatica communis *
C. A. hepatica propria
D. V. portae
1313. Which of the following limits the foramen epiploicum from behind (see fig. 3)?
A. Lig. Hepatorenale *
B. Lig. duodenorenale
C. Lobus caudatus
D. V. portae
1314. Which of the following limits the foramen epiploicum from below (see fig. 3)?
A. Lig. hepatorenale
B. Lig. duodenorenale *
C. Lobus caudatus
D. V. portae
1315. Which of the following limits the foramen epiploicum from above (see fig. 3)?
A. Lig. hepatorenale
B. Lig. duodenorenale
C. Lobus caudatus *
D. V. portae
1316. Posterior wall of sheath of rectus muscle below the umbilicus is formed by which of
the following anatomical structures (see fig. 2)?
A. F. transversa *
B. Aponeurosis of m. obliquus abdominis int.
C. Aponeurosis of m. obliquus abdominis ext.
D. M. transversus

Module 1 Operative Surgery Head and Neck Thoracic Abdominal Cavities

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Module 1.

1233. Which of the following anatomical structures in fig. 4 is indicated by 1?

1234. Which of the following anatomical structures in fig. 4 is indicated by 2?

1235. Which of the following anatomical structures in fig. 4 is indicated by 3?

1236. Which of the following anatomical structures in fig. 4 is indicated by 4?

1237. Which of the following anatomical structures in fig. 4 is indicated by 5?

1238. Which of the following anatomical structures in fig. 4 is indicated by 6?

1239. Which of the following anatomical structures in fig. 4 is indicated by 7?

1240. Which of the following anatomical structures in fig. 4 is indicated by 8?

1241. Which of the following anatomical structures in fig. 4 is indicated by 10?

1242. Which of the following anatomical structures in fig. 4 is indicated by 9?

1243. Which of the following anatomical structures in fig. 4 is indicated by 11?

1244. Which of the following anatomical structures in fig. 4 is indicated by 12?

1245. Which of the following anatomical structures in fig. 4 is indicated by 13?

1246. Which of the following anatomical structures in fig. 4 is indicated by 14?

1248. Which of the following anatomical structures in fig. 4 is indicated by 16?

1249. Which of the following anatomical structures in fig. 4 is indicated by 17?

1250. Which of the following anatomical structures in fig. 4 is indicated by 18?

1251. Which of the following anatomical structures in fig. 4 is indicated by 19?

1252. Which of the following anatomical structures in fig. 4 is indicated by 20?

1253. Which of the following anatomical structures in fig. 4 is indicated by 21?

1254. Which of the following anatomical structures in fig. 4 is indicated by 22?

1255. Which of the following anatomical structures in fig. 4 is indicated by 23?

1256. Which of the following anatomical structures in fig. 4 is indicated by 24?

1257. Which of the following anatomical structures in fig. 4 is indicated by 25?

1258. Which of the following anatomical structures in fig. 4 is indicated by 26?

1259. Which of the following anatomical structures in fig. 4 is indicated by 27?

1260. Which of the following anatomical structures in fig. 4 is indicated by 28?

1261. Which of the following anatomical structures in fig. 4 is indicated by 29?

1262. Which of the following anatomical structures in fig. 4 is indicated by 30?

1263. Which of the following anatomical structures in fig. 4 is indicated by 31?

1264. Which of the following anatomical structures in fig. 4 is indicated by 33?

1265. Which of the following anatomical structures in fig. 1 is indicated by 28?

1266. Which of the following anatomical structures in fig. 1 is indicated by 27?

1267. Which of the following anatomical structures in fig. 1 is indicated by 20?

1268. Which of the following anatomical structures in fig. 1 is indicated by 19?

1269. Which of the following anatomical structures in fig. 1 is indicated by 26?

1271. Which of the following anatomical structures in fig. 1 is indicated by 18?

1272. Which of the following anatomical structures in fig. 1 is indicated by 13?

1273. Which of the following anatomical structures in fig. 1 is indicated by 12?

1274. Which of the following anatomical structures in fig. 1 is indicated by 7?

1275. Which of the following anatomical structures in fig. 6 is indicated by 1?

1276. Which of the following anatomical structures in fig. 6 is indicated by 12?

1277. Which of the following anatomical structures in fig. 6 is indicated by 26?

1278. Anatomical structure in fig. 6 indicated by 26 is branch of which of the following

1279. Which of the following anatomical structures in fig. 6 is indicated by 11?

1282. Which of the following anatomical structures in fig. 5 is indicated by 4?

1283. Which of the following anatomical structures in fig. 5 is indicated by 8?

1284. Which of the following anatomical structures in fig. 5 is indicated by 10?

1286. Which of the following anatomical structures in fig. 5 is indicated by 22?

1287. Which of the following anatomical structures in fig. 5 is indicated by 21?

1288. Which of the following anatomical structures in fig. 5 is indicated by 16?

1289. Which of the following anatomical structures in fig. 5 is indicated by 17?

1290. Which of the following anatomical structures in fig. 5 is indicated by 24?

1291. Which of the following anatomical structures in fig. 2 is indicated by 2?

1292. Which of the following anatomical structures in fig. 2 is indicated by 2?

1293. Which of the following anatomical structures in fig. 2 is indicated by 5?

1294. Which of the following anatomical structures in fig. 2 is indicated by 7?

1295. Which of the following anatomical structures in fig. 2 is indicated by 14?

1296. Which of the following anatomical structures in fig. 2 is indicated by 8?

1297. Which of the following anatomical structures in fig. 2 is indicated by 11?

1298. Which of the following anatomical structures in fig. 3 is indicated by 1?