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Назва наукового напрямку (модуля): Семестр: 11
Tests (2018)
Опис:
6 course
Перелік питань:
1. Where is located the second anatomical narrowing of esophagus?
A. * The site of crossing with left bronchus
B. The site of pharyngoesophageal junction
C. The site of crossing with aorta
D. The site of passing through diaphragm
E. The site of cardia
2. The site of passing through diaphragm is:
A. * The third anatomical narrowing of esophagus
B. The first anatomical narrowing of esophagus
C. The second anatomical narrowing of esophagus
D. The first physiological narrowing of esophagus
E. The second physiological narrowing of esophagus
3. The site of crossing with aorta is:
A. * The first physiological narrowing of esophagus
D. The third anatomical narrowing of esophagus
E. The second physiological narrowing of esophagus
4. The site of cardia is:
A. * The second physiological narrowing of esophagus
D. The third anatomical narrowing of esophagus
E. The first physiological narrowing of esophagus
5. What is the mechanism of formation of pulsion diverticula?

A. * Herniation of the esophageal wall proximal to anatomical narrowing
B. Inflammatory changes of paraesophageal tissues
C. Dilatation of esophagus caused by achalasia
D. Changes of esophagus caused by chemical burns
E. Changes of esophagus caused by reflux esophagitis
6. What is the mechanism of formation of traction diverticula?
A. * Inflammatory changes of paraesophageal tissues
B. Herniation of the esophageal wall proximal to anatomical narrowing
C. Dilatation of esophagus caused by achalasia
D. Changes of esophagus caused by chemical burns
E. Changes of esophagus caused by reflux esophagitis
7. What can bifurcational diverticula result in?
A. * Esophago-bronchial fistula with aspiration pneumonia
B. Signs of achalasia
C. Cyanosis of the upper part of body
D. Compressible mass on the left side of the neck
E. Coarctation of aorta
8. What is the main objective manifestation of epiphrenal diverticula?
A. * Signs of achalasia
B. Cyanosis of the upper part of body
C. Compressible mass on the left side of the neck
D. Esophago-bronchial fistula with aspiration pneumonia
E. Lung atelectasis
9. What is the main method of diagnostic of esophageal diverticula?
A. * Esophagogastroduodenoscopy
B. Pleural punctere
C. Ultrasound examination
D. Plain X-ray examination of the chest
E. Irrigoscopy
10. What is the indication for conservative treatment of bifurcational diverticula?
A. * Asymptomatic course
B. Frequently recurrent diverticulites
C. Perforation
D. Esophago-bronchial fistula
E. Suspicion on malignancy
11. What operation is performed in esophageal diverticula?
A. * Resection of diverticulum
B. Esophagomyotomy
C. Esophagogastric anastomosis
D. Extirpation of esophagus
E. Esophageal plastics by intestine
12. What surgical access should be applied for Zenker's diverticula?
A. * Cervical access along the anterior border of the sternocleidomastoid muscle
B. Left-sided anterolateral thoracotomy in ІV intercostal space
C. Right-sided posterolateral thoracotomy in ІV intercostal space
D. Left-sided posterolateral thoracotomy in VІІ intercostal space
E. Right-sided anterolateral thoracotomy in VІІ intercostal space
13. What surgical access should be applied for bifurcational diverticula?
A. * Right-sided posterolateral thoracotomy in ІV intercostal space
B. Cervical access along the anterior border of the sternocleidomastoid muscle
C. Left-sided anterolateral thoracotomy in ІV intercostal space
D. Left-sided posterolateral thoracotomy in VІІ intercostal space
14. What surgical access should be applied for epiphrenal diverticula?
A. * Left-sided posterolateral thoracotomy in VІІ intercostal space

B. Cervical access along the anterior border of the sternocleidomastoid muscle
C. Left-sided anterolateral thoracotomy in ІV intercostal space
D. Right-sided posterolateral thoracotomy in ІV intercostal space
15. What is the characteristic feature of achalasia of the cardia?
A. * Failure of the lower esophageal sphincter to relax
B. Spasm of the lower esophageal sphincter
C. Cicatrical changes after the burn
D. Anorexia
E. Esophageal gaping
16. What is the characteristic feature of the I stage of achalasia?
A. * Functional spasm without esophageal dilation
B. Asymptomatic
C. Constant spasm with a moderate esophageal dilation and maintained peristalsis
D. Cicatrical changes with expressed esophageal dilation, the peristalsis is absent
E. Considerable esophageal dilation with S-shaped elongation.
17. What is the characteristic feature of the II stage of achalasia?
A. * Constant spasm with a moderate esophageal dilation and maintained peristalsis
B. Asymptomatic
C. Functional spasm without esophageal dilation
D. Cicatrical changes with expressed esophageal dilation, the peristalsis is absent
E. Considerable esophageal dilation with S-shaped elongation.
18. For the clinical manifestation of esophageal achalasia is typical:
A. * Dysphagia
B. Dyspnea

D. Retention of stool and gases
E. Vomiting by "coffee masses"
19. For the clinical manifestation of esophageal achalasia is typical:
A. * Loss of weight
B. Dyspnea
20. What does dysphagia mean?
A. * Disturbances of swallowing
B. Pain behind breastbone
C. Absence of appetite
D. Esophageal vomiting
E. Vomiting with blood
21. What is the I stage of dysphagia?
A. * Disturbances of solid food passage
B. Asymptomatic
C. Disturbances of semisolid food passage
D. Disturbances of liquid food passage
E. No passage of food
22. What is the II stage of dysphagia?
A. * Disturbances of semisolid food passage
B. Asymptomatic
C. Disturbances of solid food passage
D. Disturbances of liquid food passage
E. No passage of food
23. What is the I stage of morphological changes of esophageal burns?
A. * Stage of acute esophagitis

B. Asymptomatic
C. Stage of chronic esophagitis
D. Stage of cicatrical stricture of esophagus
E. Stage of late complications
24. What is the II stage of morphological changes of esophageal burns?
A. * Stage of chronic esophagitis
B. Asymptomatic
C. Stage of acute esophagitis
D. Stage of cicatrical stricture of esophagus
25. What is the III stage of morphological changes of esophageal burns?
A. * Stage of cicatrical stricture of esophagus
B. Asymptomatic
D. Stage of chronic esophagitis
26. What is the IV stage of morphological changes of esophageal burns?
A. * Stage of late complications
B. Asymptomatic
D. Stage of chronic esophagitis
E. Stage of cicatrical stricture of esophagus
27. What is the I degree of esophageal burns?
A. * Superficial burn with the damage of epithelial layer of esophagus;
B. The burn with the damage of entire mucosa of esophagus;
C. The burn damage of all layers of esophagus;
D. The spread of postburn necrosis on paraesophageal tissue and adjacent organs.

E. Asymptomatic
28. What is the II degree of esophageal burns?
A. * The burn with the damage of entire mucosa of esophagus;
B. Superficial burn with the damage of epithelial layer of esophagus;
C. The burn damage of all layers of esophagus;
E. Asymptomatic
29. What is the III degree of esophageal burns?
A. * The burn damage of all layers of esophagus;
C. The burn with the damage of entire mucosa of esophagus;
E. Asymptomatic
30. What is the IV degree of esophageal burns?
A. * The spread of postburn necrosis on paraesophageal tissue and adjacent organs.
C. The burn with the damage of entire mucosa of esophagus;
D. The burn damage of all layers of esophagus;
E. Asymptomatic
31. What is the roentgenological sign of the esophageal burn of mild degree?
A. * Free passage of barium with maintained peristalsis
B. Filling defects without peristalsis
C. "Rat tail" sign with stagnation of barium
D. "Bird-beak" sign without peristalsis
E. Dilated esophagus with sites of constriction and weak peristalsis
32. What is the roentgenological sign of the esophageal burn of moderate degree?
A. * Dilated esophagus with sites of constriction and weak peristalsis
B. Filling defects without peristalsis
C. "Rat tail" sign with stagnation of barium
D. "Bird-beak" sign without peristalsis
E. Free passage of barium with maintained peristalsis
33. What is the main clinical manifestation of the esophageal burn of severe degree?
A. * Clinic of shock
B. Clinic of reflux-esophagitis
C. Clinic of acute abdomen
D. Clinic of hepatic insufficiency
E. Clinic of respiratory insufficiency
34. What is the main method of diagnostic of esophageal stricture?
A. * X-ray examination with barium swallow
B. General blood analysis
C. Ultrasound examination
D. Plain X-ray examination of the chest
E. Esophagogastroduodenoscopy
35. What solution is used for washing out of acid esophageal burn?
A. * Sodium hydrocarbonatis solution
B. Antiseptic solution
C. Antibiotic solution
D. Glucose solution
E. Vinegar solution
36. For the clinical manifestation of sliding diaphragmatic hernia is typical:
A. * Heartburn
B. Dyspnea

A. * Belching by air
B. Dyspnea
A. * Regurgitation
B. Dyspnea
39. What type of operation is used for paraesophageal diaphragmatic hernia?
A. * Cruroplasty
B. Esophagostomy
C. Resection of the esophagus
D. Resection of the stomach
E. Cruroplasty with Nissen's fundoplication
40. What type of operation is used for sliding diaphragmatic hernia?
A. * Cruroplasty with Nissen's fundoplication
B. Esophagostomy
C. Cruroplasty
D. Resection of the esophagus
E. Resection of the stomach
41. What is the cause of acute mediastinitis?

A. * Injuries of bronchi
B. Ischemia of esophagus
C. Tumour growth of esophagus
D. Diverticula of esophagus
E. Cicatrical changes after the burn of esophagus
42. What is the roentgenological sign of acute mediastinitis?
A. * Widening of mediastinum, shadowing of its anterior
B. Filling defect
C. The sign of "bell"
D. Lack of air bubble of the stomach
E. High standing of diaphragmatic dome
43. What sign is typical for anterior mediastinitis?
A. * Intensifying of pain during percussion of breast bone
B. Throbbing chest pain with irradiation in interscapular region
C. Intensifying of pain during vertebral pressing
D. Intensifying of pain at swallowing
E. Sign of compression of azygos and hemiazygos veins
A. * Intensifying of pain when head is unbent back
C. Intensifying of pain at swallowing
D. Swelling above clavicle
A. * Signs of compression of superior vena cava
C. Intensifying of pain at swallowing
D. Swelling above clavicle

46. What sign is typical for posterior mediastinitis?
A. * Throbbing chest pain with irradiation in interscapular region
B. Intensifying of pain during percussion of breast bone
C. Intensifying of pain when head is unbent back
D. Occurrence of swelling in the region of jugular fossa
E. Signs of compression of superior vena cava
47. What sign is typical for posterior mediastinitis?
A. * Intensifying of pain during vertebral pressing
B. Intensifying of pain during percussion of breast bone
C. Intensifying of pain when head is unbent back
D. Occurrence of swelling in the region of jugular fossa
E. Signs of compression of superior vena cava
48. The leading signs in acute intestinal obstruction are:
A. * Wave-like pain, vomiting, delay of gases and stool
B. „Knife-like” pain, wooden abdomen, proper anamnesis
C. „Knife-like” pain, wooden abdomen, vomiting
D. Wave-like pain, anaemia
E. Nausea, loss of appetite, metallic taste in the mouth
49. Name the character of peristalsis in the onset of the acute intestinal obstruction:
A. * Hyperperistalsis
B. Normal peristalsis
C. Absent
D. Variable
E. Heard only in regions upper the obstruction
50. The Sklyarov's sign in acute intestinal obstruction is:
A. * Noise of splash
B. Good heard cardiac tones during auscultation of the abdomen
C. Dullness in the lower regions
D. Sound of falling drop
E. Gaping of anus
51. The Grekov's sign in acute intestinal obstruction is:
A. * Gaping of anus
D. Sound of falling drop
E. Noise of splash
52. In acute intestinal obstruction the basic X-ray sign is:
A. * Air-fluid levels, Kloiber's cups
B. Expressed limitation of mobility of the right dome of diaphragm
C. Diffusely dilated loops of bowels
D. Free gas in the abdomen
E. Sklyarov's sign
53. The Spasokukotsky's sign in acute intestinal obstruction is:
A. * Sound of falling drop
D. Noise of splash
E. Gaping of anus
54. What are the Kloiber's cups?
A. * Horizontal air-fluid levels
B. Gas bubble of the stomach
C. Folds of intestine
D. Gas sickles under the domes of diaphragm
E. None of mentioned
55. What does not belong to conservative therapy of acute intestinal obstruction?
A. * Liquidation of hypervolemia
B. Decompression of gastrointestinal tract
C. The struggle against abdominal-pain shock
D. Detoxication
E. Correction of microcirculation
56. What does not belong to the fight against abdominal-pain shock?
A. * Performing of siphon enema
B. Paranephral novocaine blockade
C. Neuroleptanalgesia
D. Peridural anaesthesia
E. Spasmolytic therapy
57. The decompression of gastrointestinal tract includess everything, except:
A. * Lavage of abdominal cavity
B. Endoscopic intubation
C. Enterotomy with aspiration
D. Washing of the stomach
E. Performing of siphon enema
58. The criteria of the efficiency of gastrointestinal tract passage renewal during conservative therapy
of acute intestinal obstruction is:
A. * Pulling of gases and stool
B. Normalization of rectal temperature
C. Absence of Shchotkin-Blumberg's sign
D. Feeling of heartburn
59. To the criteria of permanent renewal of the gastrointestinal tract passage as efficiency of
conservative treatment belongs:
A. * Absence of stagnant content in the stomach
B. Absence of Shchotkin-Blumberg's sign
C. Normalization of rectal temperature
D. Feeling of heartburn
60. The absolute indication for operative treatment of acute intestinal obstructionє:
A. * III phase of the course of acute intestinal obstruction
B. II phase of the course of acute intestinal obstruction
C. I phase of the course of acute intestinal obstruction
D. The prolonged anamnesis of acute intestinal obstruction
E. Dynamic acute intestinal obstruction
61. The indication for operative treatment of acute intestinal obstruction is:
A. * Mechanical acute intestinal obstruction in inefficient conservative treatment
B. I phase of the course of acute intestinal obstruction
C. II phase of the course of acute intestinal obstruction
D. The prolonged anamnesis of acute intestinal obstruction
E. Mechanical acute intestinal obstruction
62. Optimal access in the operative treatment of acute intestinal obstruction is:
A. * Middle laparotomy
B. Phanenstil's
C. Vinkelman's
D. Fedorov's
E. Right pararectal
63. Choose the correct algorithm of the operative intervation for the II stage of acute intestinal
obstruction :
A. * Laparotomy, liquidation of obstruction, intestinal intubation, sanation of abdominal cavity,

suturing of the abdomen
B. Laparotomy, liquidation of the source of peritonitis, sanation of abdominal cavity, suturing of the
abdomen
C. Laparotomy, liquidation of obstruction, sanation of abdominal cavity, suturing of the abdomen
D. Laparotomy, liquidation of obstruction, intestinal intubation, sanation of abdominal cavity,

laparostomy
E. Laparotomy, liquidation of obstruction, liquidation of the source of peritonitis, intestinal

intubation, sanation of abdominal cavity, suturing of the abdomen
64. Choose the correct algorithm of operative intervation for the III stage of acute intestinal
obstruction:
A. * Laparotomy, liquidation of the source of peritonitis, intestinal intubation, sanation of abdominal

cavity, suturing of the abdomen or laparostomy
B. Laparotomy, liquidation of obstruction, intestinal intubation, sanation of abdominal cavity,

C. Laparotomy, liquidation of obstruction, intestinal intubation, sanation of abdominal cavity,

laparostomy
D. Laparotomy, liquidation of obstruction, intestinal intubation, sanation of abdominal cavity,

E. Laparotomy, liquidation of obstruction, liquidation of peritonitis, sanation of abdominal cavity,

65. What treatment is indicated in gall-stones intestinal obturation?
A. * Only operative
B. Only conservative
C. Operative in the case of the development of peritonitis
D. Treatment is not required
E. Tactic depends on the size of stone
66. The tumour obturation of cecum requires:
A. * Right-side hemicolectomy
B. Resection of cecum
C. Cecostomy
D. Only ileostomy
E. Only intubation of small intestine
67. What treatment tactic of acute intestinal obstruction, caused by a tumour obturation is required?
A. * Operative intervation
B. Liquidation of tumour by a chemotherapy
C. Liquidations of tumour by radiotherapy
D. Operative intervation only after chemotherapy
E. Only symptomatic treatment
68. What is the volvulus?
A. * Torsion of the bowel with its mesentery along longitudinal axis
B. Torsion of the bowel with the mesentery of another loop
C. Invagination of one part of the bowel in another
D. Obturation of the bowel lumen
E. Torsion of the bowel with its mesentery along transverse axis
69. The most frequently the sygmoid volvulus arises in:
A. * Elderly patients with frequent constipations
B. Females with menstrual arrest
C. Children
D. Elderly patients people with permanent diarrhea
E. New-borns
70. What is the aim of the operative treatment of volvulus if the bowel „alive”?
A. * Detorsion, decompression, fixing to the abdominal wall
B. Detorsion, resection, fixing to the abdominal wall
C. Detorsion, dilation, decompression, fixing to the abdominal wall
D. Detorsion, dilation, decompression
E. Decompression, fixing to the abdominal wall
71. The nodulus requires:
A. * Untie the knot, if impossible – resection of the bowel
B. Resection of the bowel
C. Untie the knot
D. To perform the stoma. The second stage the resection of the bowel
72. The contributory factor of the development of strangulation is:
A. * Long intestinal mesentery
B. Stool stones
C. Gall-stones
D. Tumour
73. The contributory factor of the development of obturation is:
A. * Stool stones
B. Long intestinal mesentery
C. Adhesions in abdominal cavity
D. All of mentioned
74. Where does the pain irradiate in acute appendicitis?
A. * Not irradiate
B. Lumbar region
C. Left iliac region
D. Right scapular
E. Perineum
75. What dyspeptic manifestations are typical for acute appendicitis?
A. * Single nausea and vomiting
B. Constant vomiting and nausea without any relief
C. Vomiting by bile without any relief
D. Absence of peristalsis
E. Constant diarrhea
76. What objective manifestations are typical for acute appendicitis?

A. * Muscular tension in a right iliac area
B. Abdominal distension
C. Absence of hepatic dullness
D. Absence of peristalsis
E. Rigidity of anterior abdominal wall
77. What does the Rozdolsky’s sign mean?
A. * Painfulness in a right iliac area during percussion
B. Pain in right lower quadrant during palpation of left lower quadrant
C. Increase of pain in a right iliac area when the patient lies on the left side
D. Increased pain with coughing
E. Migration of pain to the right iliac area from epigastric
78. What signs are typical for gangrenous appendicitis in contrast to simple appendicitis?
A. * Signs of intoxication
B. Signs of gas migration
C. Retention of stool or single diarrhea
D. Muscular tension in a right iliac area
E. Single nausea and vomiting
79. Who usually suffer from gangrenous appendicitis?
A. People of old age
B. * Newborns
C. Children
D. Pregnant women
E. Young men
80. What does the Gabay’s sign mean?
A. * Blumberg’s sign in Petit triangle
C. Migration of pain to the right iliac area from epigastric
D. Tapping of lumbar region cause the pain

E. Increase of pain in a right iliac area when the patient lies on the left side
81. What does the psoas-sign mean?
A. * Pain on extension of right thigh
B. Painfulness during palpation of Petit triangle
C. Migration of pain to the right iliac area from epigastric
D. Tapping of lumbar region cause the pain
E. Increase of pain in a right iliac area when the patient lies on the left side
82. What manifestation is predominant for retroperitoneal appendicitis?
A. * Clinic of retroperitoneal phlegmon
B. Clinic of acute abdomen
C. Dyspeptic syndrome
D. Clinic of acute intestinal obstruction
E. Clinic of acute pancreatitis
83. What manifestation is predominant for pelvic appendicitis?
A. * Clinic of irritation of pelvic organs (dysuria, pulling rectal pain, tenesmi)
B. Clinic of acute abdomen
C. Clinic of retroperitoneal phlegmon
D. Clinic of acute intestinal obstruction
84. What manifestation is typical for pelvic appendicitis?
A. * Absence of muscular tenderness
B. Clinic of retroperitoneal phlegmon
C. Clinic of acute intestinal obstruction
D. Clinic of acute abdomen
85. What objective manifestations are typical for retrocaecal appendicitis?
A. *
Painfulness of anterior rectal wall and posterior vaginal vault
B. Abdominal distension
C. Absence of hepatic dullness
D. Clinic of retroperitoneal phlegmon
E. Rigidity of anterior abdominal wall
86. What does the Kocher’s sign mean?
A. * Migration of pain to the right iliac area from epigastric
D. The increase of pain intensity during the palpation of right iliac area when the patient lies on the
left side.
E. Increased pain with coughing
87. What does the Rovsing's sign mean?
A. * Pain in right lower quadrant during palpation of left lower quadrant
B. Increase of pain in a right iliac area when the patient lies on the left side
C. The increase of pain intensity during the palpation of right iliac area when the patient lies on the
left side.
D. Increased pain with coughing
88. What does the Dunphy's sign mean?
A. * Increased pain with coughing
D. The increase of pain intensity during the palpation of right iliac area when the patient lies on the
left side.
89. What does the Voskresenky’s sign mean?
A. * The increase of pain during quick sliding movements by the tips of fingers from epigastric to
right iliac area.
B. Increased pain with coughing

C. Pain in right lower quadrant during palpation of left lower quadrant
D. Increase of pain in a right iliac area when the patient lies on the left side
90. What does the Rozdolsky’s sign mean?
A. * Painfulness in a right iliac area during percussion.
91. What does the Yaure-Rozanov sign mean?
A. * Painfulness during palpation of Petit triangle
92. What does the Gabay’s sign mean?
A. * Blumberg’s sign in Petit triangle
93. What does the psoas sign mean?
A. * Pain on extension of right thigh

94. The expressed pain in a right lumbar area is typical for:
A. * Retrocecal appendicitis
B. Phlegmonous appendicitis
C. Simple appendicitis
D. Left-side appendicitis appendicitis
E. Pelvic appendicitis
95. The dysuria is typical for:
A. * Pelvic appendicitis
B. Retrocecal appendicitis
C. Phlegmonous appendicitis
D. Simple appendicitis
E. Left-side appendicitis appendicitis
96. The pulling rectal pain is typical for:
97. The absence of muscular tenderness is typical for:
98. The painfulness of anterior rectal wall is typical for:
99. For the retrocecal appendicitis is typical:
A. * Expressed pain in a right lumbar area
B. Flank tenderness in right lower quadrant
C. The painfulness of the left iliac region
D. Clinic of irritation of pelvic organs
E. Painfulness of anterior rectal wall and posterior vaginal vault
100. For the retroperitoneal appendicitis is typical:
A. * Flank tenderness in right lower quadrant
B. Peritoneal signs
C. The painfulness of the left iliac region
101. For the left-side appendicitis is typical:
A. * The painfulness of the left iliac region
B. Expressed pain in a right lumbar area
C. Flank tenderness in right lower quadrant
102. For the pelvic appendicitis is typical:
A. * Clinic of irritation of pelvic organs
B. The painfulness of the left iliac region
C. Expressed pain in a right lumbar area
D. Flank tenderness in right lower quadrant
E. Peritoneal signs
A. * Painfulness of anterior rectal wall
E. Peritoneal signs
A. * Painfulness of posterior vaginal vault
E. Peritoneal signs
105. Characteristic changes in the general blood analysis in appendicitis:
A. * neutrophil leucocytosis with deviation of the differential count to the left
B. neutrophil lymphocytosis with deviation of the differential count to the left
C. neutrophil eosonophilia with deviation of the differential count to the left
D. neutrophil leucocytosis with deviation of the differential count to the right
E. white cells neutrophilia with deviation of the differential count to the right
106. Appendicular infiltrate is treated:
A. * antibiotics, paranephral blockade, detoxication therapy
B. antiseptics, analgesia, antibiotics, anti-inflammatory therapy
C. antibiotics, diuretics, antispasmodic, anti-inflammatory therapy
D. analgesia, antibiotics, diuretics, anti-inflammatory therapy
E. anti-inflammatory drugs, paranephral blockade, detoxication therapy
107. The removal of appendix from apex - is :
A. * antegrade appendectomy
B. retrograde appendectomy
C. retrocecal appendectomy
D. antececal appendectomy
E. laparoscopic appendectomy
108. The removal of appendix from the base is:
A. * Retrograde appendectomy
B. antegrade appendectomy
C. retrocecal appendectomy
D. antececal appendectomy
E. laparoscopic appendectomy
109. Pain during palpation in a lumbar region - is the sign:
A. * Yaure-Rozanov sign
B. Sitkovsky's sign
C. Obrastsow's sign
D. Voskresensky's sign
E. Kulenkampf's sign
110. Tumour with fluctuation are the main clinical manifestation of:
A. * appendicular abscess
B. appendicular peritonitis
C. appendicular infiltrate
D. appendicular mesadenitis
E. appendicular typhlitis
111. The most frequent complications of appendicitis are:
A. * infiltrate, abscess, pilephlebitis, peritonitis
B. infiltrate, abscess, thrombophlebitis, hepatitis
C. conglomerate, adhesions, cystitis, peritonitis
D. infiltrate, conglomerate, hepatitis
E. abscess, peritonitis, adhesions, phlebitis
112. The peculiarities of the clinical course of appendicitis in children are caused:
A. * by the bailer form of appendix
B. by the tubular form of appendix
C. by hypertrophy of appendix
D. by atrophy of appendix
E. by the spherical form of appendix
113. The clinical manifestations of acute appendicitis in pregnancy are characterised by the changes
of:
A. * localization of pain
B. severity of pain
C. irradiation of pain
D. duration of pain
E. character of pain
114. The changes of clinical manifestations of acute appendicitis in pregnancy are caused by:
A. * distension of anterior abdominal wall by uterus
B. inflammation of uterus
C. irritation of anterior abdominal wall by uterus
D. compression of appendix by uterus
E. inflammation of the right ovarium
115. The changes of clinical manifestations of acute appendicitis in pregnancy are caused by:
A. * absence of muscular tension of anterior abdominal wall
B. absence of tension of the uterus
C. presence of tension of the uterus
D. expressed muscular tension of anterior abdominal wall
E. presence of tension of peritoneum of anterior abdominal wall
116. The changes in clinical manifestation of acute appendicitis in pregnancy is characterized :
A. * by the absence of signs of peritoneal irritation
B. by the presence of signs of peritoneal irritation

C. by the presence of expressed signs of peritoneal irritation
D. by displacement of the signs of peritoneal irritation
E. by the change of the character of signs of peritoneal irritation
117. Chronic primary appendicitis - is the development of pathological changes in appendix after:
A. * without the signs of acute appendicitis in anamnesis
B. acute appendicitis
C. appendicular infiltrate
D. appendicular abscess
E. pilephlebitis
118. What form of appendicitis the signs of peritoneal irritation are absent in?
A. * chronic
B. calculous
C. perforative
D. appendicular infiltrate
E. appendicular abscess
119. Black colour, fibrino-purulent fur, pus in the lumen are the signs of:
A. * gangrenous appendicitis
B. phlegmonous appendicitis
C. catarrhal appendicitis
D. gangreno-perforative appendicitis
E. dystrophic appendicitis
120. Black colour, fibrino-purulent fur, perforation are the signs of:
A. * gangreno-perforative appendicitis
B. phlegmonous appendicitis
C. gangrenous appendicitis
D. catarrhal appendicitis
E. dystrophic appendicitis
121. The conditions, which contribute to the formation of appendicular infiltrate include:
A. * Phlegmonous changes of appendix
B. Chronic appendicitis
C. Meckel's diverticulum
D. Pylephlebitis
E. Perforation of appendix
122. Only during the operation is possible the differential diagnostics of acute appendicitis with:
A. * terminal ileitis
B. renal colic
C. acute pyelonephritis
D. acute paraproctitis
E. acute pancreatitis
123. After appendectomy for pregnant is recommended
A. * Application of abortion prophylaxis.
B. More frequent use of peritoneal dialysis
C. Active postoperative period
D. More rare use of peritoneal dialysis
E. More prolonged draining of the abdominal cavity
124. The distinctive peculiarities of acute appendicitis in the second half of pregnancy are:
A. * Weak express of pain syndrome, similar to the ligamentary tension of uterus
B. Absence of Volkovcha-Kocher's sign
C. Expressed signs of peritoneal irritation
D. The express local muscular tension in a right iliac area
E. Expressed of Obraztsov's sign
125. For the differential diagnostics of acute appendicitis with the urology diseases is not used
A. * Irrigoscopy
B. Urography
C. Cystochromoscopy
D. X-ray of kidneys
E. Urine analysis
126. In the diagnostics of pelvic appendicitis the most valuable is:
A. * rectal and vaginal examination
B. laboratory analyses
C. laparocentesis
D. laparoscopy
E. colonoscopy
127. For the retrocaecal appendicitis is not typical:
A. * Volkovcha-Kocher's sign
B. delayed diagnostics
C. late entrance of patients in the hospital
D. frequent development of destructive forms
E. weak expressed signs of peritoneal irritation
128. As the first period flowing of acute pancreatitis is named:
A. * Haemodynamic violations and pancretic shock
B. To functional insufficiency of parenchymatous organs
C. Degenerative and festerings complications
D. All answers are faithful
E. A right answer is not present
129. As the second period flowing of acute pancreatitis is named:
A. * Haemodynamic violations and pancretic shock
B. To functional insufficiency of parenchymatous organs

130. As the third period flowing of acute pancreatitis is named:
A. Haemodynamic violations and pancretic shock
B. * To functional insufficiency of parenchymatous organs
131. What complications at a acute pancreatitis is behave to early:
A. * Peritonitis
B. Phlegmon retroperitoneum space
C. Formation of pseudocysts
D. Development of saccharine diabetes
E. Intestinal impassability
132. What complications at a acute pancreatitis is behave to late:
A. Peritonitis
B. * Phlegmon retroperitoneum space
C. Formation of pseudocysts
D. Development of saccharine diabetes
E. Intestinal impassability
133. What a clinical flow can be at acute pancreatitis:
A. Easy, middle, heavy
B. Acute, chronic
C. * Abortive, making progress
D. Edema, necrosis
E. Any variant
134. For the abortive flowing characteristically:
A. * A process limited to the acute edema with convalescence in 7-8 days
B. A process limited to tearing away of the pathologically changed gland
C. A process limited to tearing away of the pathologically unchanged gland

D. A disease completed so not attaining clinical displays
E. Changes from the side of organ are not present
135. For pancreonecrosis characteristically is:
A. * Rapid progress, strengthening pain, proof enteroplegia, growth haemodynamic violations
B. Rapid progress, diminishing pain, strengthening of моторики of intestine, growth

haemodynamic violations
C. Slow progress, strengthening pain, phase of imaginary prosperity.
D. Abortive flow, toxemia, development shock.
E. Appearance light interval
136. Specify the optimum volume operation at acute biliar pancreatitis:
A. Deleting exsudate from abdominal region
B. Decapsulation pancreas
C. Pancreatectomy
D. * Sanitization and draining bilious ways
E. Draining pancreas channel
137. Peritonitis is divided into:
A. * reactive, toxic, terminal
B. compensated, subkompensovanyy, terminal;
C. stage (I; II; III);
D. upper and lower half of the abdomen;
E. Early and late
138. When toxic peritonitis Cardiac Output:
A. depends on the value of blood pressure;
B. increases;
C. does not change significantly;
D. * reduced
E. depends on the total peripheral vascular resistance

139. Duration of preoperative preparation of patients with peritonitis limited:
A. conduct necessary surveys;
B. stabilization of homeostasis;
C. Willingness of Surgeons;
D. their preparation for anesthesia;
E. * established ongoing all causes
F. neostigmine methylsulfate
140. To be carried out by blood tests?
A. now the whole blood transfusion is therefore not necessary to conduct tests;
B. determining blood type, biological samples;
C. to save time and Rh blood group-membership can be estimated by documented data (in passport),
to conduct a biological sample;
D. blood group O (I) Rh (-) is universal for transfusions for any recipient;
E. * blood grouping, Rh accessories, group and individual compatibility of biological samples
141. The reason for ICE - Syndrome can be:
A. incompatible blood transfusion;
B. massive hemorrhage;
C. septic state;
D. amniotic fluid embolism;
E. * All listed conditions
142. What is the abscessing pneumonia characterized by?
A. * Multiple destructive foci 0,3-0,5 cm in size within 1-2 segments of lungs
B. Purulent destruction of pulmonary tissue within 1 segment with formation of cavity, filled by pus
C. Purulent, necrosis of a pulmonary tissue within 2-3 segments, detached from adjacent pulmonary
parenchyma
D. Diffuse purulent, ichorous necrosis more than lobe without the tendency to defined demarcation
E. Accumulation of pus in a pleural cavity
143. What is the lung gangrene characterized by?
A. * Diffuse purulent, ichorous necrosis more than lobe without the tendency to defined demarcation
B. Multiple destructive foci 0,3-0,5 cm in size within 1-2 segments of lungs
C. Purulent destruction of pulmonary tissue within 1 segment with formation of cavity, filled by pus
D. Purulent, necrosis of a pulmonary tissue within 2-3 segments, detached from adjacent pulmonary
parenchyma
E. Accumulation of pus in a pleural cavity
144. What is the predominant factor which causes the lung abscess?
A. * Disturbances of bronchial permeability with the development of atelectasis
B. Increased cholesterol, dyslipoproteinemia
C. Pulmonary hypertension
D. Rheumatism, endocarditis
E. Myocardial infarction
145. What is the predominant factor which causes the lung abscess?
A. * Infection in a pulmonary tissue
B. Increased cholesterol, dyslipoproteinemia
C. Pulmonary hypertension
146. The blunted sound by percussion is typical for:
A. * Lung abscess
B. Bronchitis
C. Lung emphysema
D. Pneumothorax
E. Lung cyst
A. * Pneumonia
B. Bronchitis
C. Lung emphysema
D. Pneumothorax
E. Lung cyst
A. * Lung gangrene
B. Bronchitis
C. Lung emphysema
D. Pneumothorax
E. Lung cyst
149. What is revealed in the I stage of acute lung abscess by auscultation?
A. * Bronchial breathing with moist rales
B. Vesicular breathing
C. Amphoric breathing with moist rales
D. Harsh breathing with dry rales
E. The breathing isn't auscultated
150. One or several cavities with a thick, dense pyogenic sheath on X-ray is typical for:
A. * Chronic lung abscess
B. Lung gangrene
C. Acute lung abscess
D. Lung emphysema
E. Lung cyst
151. When the lung abscess is considered to be chronic?
A. * In 6-8 weeks after the onset
B. In 10 days after the onset
C. In 3-4 weeks after the onset
D. In 6-8 months after the onset
E. In 1 year after the onset
152. What kind of X-ray shadow is typical for acute lung abscess before draining?
A. * Rounded shadow with considerable perifocal infiltration
B. Homogeneous spherical shadow with regular edge on the background of intact pulmonary tissue
C. Heterogeneous shadow with calcifications, excentric destruction and regular edge
D. Homogeneous spherical shadow with irregular edge and phenomena of lymphangitis (corona
maligna)
E. Heterogeneous shadow with destruction, displaced in the upper lobes, with fibrosis, petrifactions
in adjacent tissue, peribronchial lymphadenitis
153. What kind of X-ray shadow is typical for lung cyst?
A. * Homogeneous spherical shadow with regular edge on the background of intact pulmonary tissue
B. Rounded shadow with considerable perifocal infiltration
C. Heterogeneous shadow with calcifications, excentric destruction and regular edge
maligna)
154. What kind of X-ray shadow is typical for tuberculoma?
A. * Heterogeneous shadow with calcifications and regular edge
C. Rounded shadow with considerable perifocal infiltration
maligna)
155. What kind of X-ray shadow is typical for peripheral lung cancer?
A. * Homogeneous spherical shadow with irregular edge and phenomena of lymphangitis (corona
maligna)
D. Heterogeneous shadow with calcifications and regular edge
156. What kind of X-ray shadow is typical for tubercular cavern?

A. * Heterogeneous shadow with destruction, displaced in the upper lobes, with fibrosis, petrifactions
D. Heterogeneous shadow with calcifications and regular edge
E. Homogeneous spherical shadow with irregular edge and phenomena of lymphangitis (corona
maligna)
157. Homogeneous spherical shadow with irregular edge and phenomena of lymphangitis (corona
maligna) on X-ray is typical for:
A. * Peripheral lung cancer
B. Tuberculoma
C. Lung cyst
D. Tubercular cavern
E. Lung emphysema
158. Heterogeneous shadow with destruction, displaced in the upper lobes, with fibrosis, petrifactions
in adjacent tissue, peribronchial lymphadenitis on X-ray is typical for:
A. * Tubercular cavern
B. Peripheral lung cancer
C. Tuberculoma
D. Lung cyst
E. Lung emphysema
159. The clinical dynamics of lung abscess which is characterized by prompt positive clinical,
roentgenological and laboratory dynamics and recovery after the adequate treatment regards to
the:
A. * Favorable course
B. Non-progressive course
C. Progressing course
D. Incapsulated process
E. Complicated course
160. The clinical dynamics of lung abscess which is characterized by transforming of the process into
the chronic form due to poor drainage of the suppurative focus and permanent purulent
intoxication regards to the:
A. * Non-progressive course
B. Favorable course
161. The clinical dynamics of lung abscess which is characterized by expansion of the zone of necrosis
and destruction with transforming in gangrene regards to the:
A. * Progressing course
B. Non-progressive course
C. Favorable course
162. The clinical dynamics of lung abscess which is characterized by the partial or complete
obstruction of the draining bronchus combined with satisfactory resistance of the organism
regards to the:
A. * Incapsulated process
B. Progressing course
C. Non-progressive course
D. Favorable course
163. The clinical dynamics of lung abscess which is characterized by different kinds of complications
regards to the:
A. * Complicated course
B. Incapsulated process
D. Non-progressive course
E. Favorable course
164. What is the indication for operative treatment of acute abscess of lungs?
A. * Pulmonary bleeding of ІІ- ІІІ degree
B. Decompensation of the vital organs
C. Bilateral purulent destruction of lungs
D. Incurable malignant tumours
E. Pulmonary hypertension
A. * Progression of the process despite appropriate therapy
A. * Tense pyopneumothorax, which is failed to liquidate by the draining of pleural space
A. * Impossibility to rule out the suspicion on a malignant tumour
168. What is revealed in pleural empyema by auscultation?
A. * The breathing isn't auscultated
B. Vesicular breathing
D. Bronchial breathing with moist rales
E. Harsh breathing with dry rales
169. The absence of breathing sounds by auscultation is typical for:
A. * Pleurisy
B. Bronchitis
C. Lung emphysema
D. Pulmonary hypertension
E. Pneumonia
170. The absence of breathing sounds by auscultation is typical for:
A. * Pleural empyema
B. Bronchitis
C. Lung emphysema
D. Pulmonary hypertension
E. Pneumonia
171. What is revealed in wide-spread pleural empyema by X-ray?
A. * Intensive homogeneous shadow in a basal parts with oblique upper contour
B. Rounded shadow with irregular contour
C. Rounded cavity with air-fluid level
D. Intensive homogeneous shadow in a basal parts with horizontal upper contour
E. Lung atelectasis
172. What is the most informative in differential diagnostic of pleural empyema with
pleuropneumonia?
A. * Pleural puncture
B. X-ray examination
C. Auscultation
D. Clinical manifestation
E. Sputum analysis
173. What is the most informative in the diagnostic of pleural empyema?
B. General blood analysis
C. Auscultation
D. Clinical manifestation
E. Sputum analysis
174. The swelled soft tissues of supraclavicular region are typical for the:
A. * Apical empyema
B. Paracostal empyema
C. Paramediastinal empyema
D. Basal empyema
E. Postoperative empyema
175. The restricted thoracic excursion with severe chest pain are typical for the:
A. * Paracostal empyema
B. Apical empyema
C. Paramediastinal empyema
D. Basal empyema
176. The heart pain is typical for the:
A. * Paramediastinal empyema
C. Apical empyema
D. Basal empyema
177. The pain in subcostal area, which increases at respiration is typical for the:
A. * Paramediastinal empyema
C. Apical empyema
D. Basal empyema
178. What is the typical method of treatment of focal empyema?
B. Drainage of pleural space
C. Thoracotomy
D. Pneumonectomy, bilobectomy, lobectomy
E. Conservative treatment
179. What is the typical method of treatment of spread empyema?
A. * Drainage of pleural space
B. Pleural puncture
C. Thoracotomy
180. Where is the drainage of pleural space in spread empyema performed?
A. * VII intercostal space, scapular line
B. II intercostal space, midclavicular line
C. II intercostal space, scapular line
D. IV intercostal space, anterior axillary line
E. VII intercostal space, midclavicular line
181. What is the typical method of treatment of chronic empyema?
A. * Pleurectomy, decortication of lung
B. Drainage of pleural space
C. Thoracotomy
182. What is the cause of pyopneumothorax?
A. * Suppurative cyst of lung
B. Obstructive bronchitis
C. Pulmonary embolism
D. Bronchial asthma
E. Pulmonary emphysema
183. What is the cause of pyopneumothorax?
A. * Bronchiectatic disease
B. Obstructive bronchitis
C. Pulmonary embolism
D. Bronchial asthma
E. Pulmonary emphysema
184. What is the early complication of chest trauma?
A. * Pneumothorax
B. Posttraumatic pneumonia
C. Posttraumatic pleurisy
D. Lung abscess
E. Pleural empyema
A. * Hemothorax
B. Lung abscess
C. Pleural empyema
D. Posttraumatic pneumonia
E. Posttraumatic pleurisy
A. * Traumatic shock
B. Lung abscess
C. Pleural empyema
D. Posttraumatic pneumonia
E. Posttraumatic pleurisy
187. What is the late complication of chest trauma?
A. * Pleural empyema
B. Pneumothorax
C. Hemothorax
D. Mediastinal emphysema
E. Traumatic shock, asphyxia
188. What is the late complication of chest trauma?
A. * Posttraumatic pneumonia
B. Pneumothorax
C. Hemothorax
D. Mediastinal emphysema
E. Traumatic shock, asphyxia
189. What is the chief clinical manifestation of noncomplicated rib fracture?
A. * Pain
B. Dyspnea
C. Hemoptysis
D. Shock
E. Vomiting
190. What is revealed in noncomplicated rib fracture by auscultation?
A. * Diminished vesicular breathing
B. The breathing isn't auscultated
191. What kind of X-ray picture is typical for noncomplicated rib fracture?
A. * Break in continuity of bone fragments of ribs
B. Exudate in pleural space
C. Collapse of the lung
D. Lung athelectasis
E. Heterogeneous lung shadow with destruction
192. What is the chief clinical manifestation of floating rib fracture?
A. * Shock
B. Pain
C. Dyspnea
D. Hemoptysis
E. Vomiting
193. What is the chief objective sign of floating rib fracture?
A. * Paradoxical respiratory movements of chest
B. Crepitation of ribs
C. Hematoma of the chest wall
D. Hemoptysis
E. Subcutaneous emphysema
194. What is revealed in floating rib fracture by auscultation?
A. * Diminished vesicular breathing
B. The breathing isn't auscultated
195. What kind of X-ray picture is typical for floating rib fracture?
A. * Multiple rib fracture with deformity of the chest
B. Lung emphysema
C. Spheric shadow of the lung
D. Lung athelectasis
E. Heterogeneous lung shadow with destruction
196. What is the main treatment of floating rib fracture?
A. * Mechanical ventilation with positive end-expiratory pressure
B. Pleural puncture
C. Pneumonectomy
D. Resection of lung
E. Decortication of lung
197. What type of Novocaine block is used for the treatment of floating rib fracture?
A. * Vagosympathetic block
B. Paranephral block
C. Spinal block
D. Epidural anesthesia
E. Lung root dlock
198. What type of Novocaine block is used for the treatment of floating rib fracture?
A. * Alcohol - novocaine block of the site of fracture
B. Paranephral block
C. Spinal block
D. Epidural anesthesia
E. Lung root dlock
199. Subtotal pneumothorax means:
A. * Collapse of lung to 2/3 of its volume
B. No collapse of lung
C. Collapse of lung to 1/3 of its volume
D. Collapse of lung more than 2/3 of its volume
E. Total collapse of lung
200. Total pneumothorax means:

A. * Collapse of lung more than 2/3 of its volume
B. No collapse of lung
C. Collapse of lung to 1/3 of its volume
D. Collapse of lung to 2/3 of its volume
E. Collapse of lung to 1/2 of its volume
201. The collapse of lung in pneumothorax from 1/3 to 2/3 of its volume is called:
A. * Subtotal pneumothorax
B. Partial pneumothorax
C. Total pneumothorax
D. Bilateral pneumothorax
E. Paradoxal pneumothorax
202. The collapse of lung in pneumothorax less than 1/3 of its volume is called:
A. * Partial pneumothorax
B. Subtotal pneumothorax
C. Total pneumothorax
203. The collapse of lung in pneumothorax more than 2/3 of its volume is called:
A. * Total pneumothorax
B. Partial pneumothorax
C. Subtotal pneumothorax
204. What is revealed in pneumothorax by X-ray?
A. * Lung collapse
B. Lung atelectasis
C. Rounded cavity with air-fluid level

D. Intensive homogeneous shadow in a basal parts with horizontal upper contour
E. Intensive homogeneous shadow in a basal parts with oblique upper contour
205. What is revealed in hemothorax by X-ray?
A. * Intensive homogeneous shadow in a basal parts with oblique upper contour
B. Lung atelectasis
C. Rounded shadow with irregular contour
D. Rounded cavity with air-fluid level
E. Intensive homogeneous shadow in a basal parts with horizontal upper contour
206. Where is the level of the X-ray shadow in small hemothorax?
A. * Shadow observed only in the region of sinus
B. Up to scapular angle
C. Up to ІІІ rib
D. Complete shadow of a pleural space
E. The shadow is absent
207. Where is the level of the X-ray shadow in moderate hemothorax?
A. * Up to scapular angle
B. Shadow observed only in the region of sinus
C. Up to ІІІ rib
D. Complete shadow of a pleural space
E. The shadow is absent
208. What test is used to determine the continuity of pleural bleeding?
A. * Revilour-Greguar's test
B. Troyanov-Trendelenburg's test
C. Talman's test
D. Mayo-Pratt's test
E. Delbe-Pertess test (marching test)
209. The Revilour-Greguar's test is used in the diagnostics of:
A. * Pleural bleeding
B. Lung abscess
C. Pleural empyema
D. Pneumothorax
E. Deep vein thrombosis
210. The property of pleural blood to form the clot is called:
A. * Revilour-Greguar's test
B. Troyanov-Trendelenburg's test
C. Talman's test
D. Mayo-Pratt's test
E. Delbe-Pertess test (marching test)
211. What pathology is the indication for operative treatment?
A. * Great and total hemothorax
B. Noncomplicated rib fracture
C. Closed partial pneumothorax
D. Closed total pneumothorax
A. * Clotted hemothorax
B. Noncomplicated rib fracture
C. Subcutaneous emphysema
D. Closed partial pneumothorax
E. Closed total pneumothorax
A. * Continuing hemothorax
B. Closed partial pneumothorax
C. Closed total pneumothorax

D. Noncomplicated rib fracture
214. What is the main cause of mediastinal emphysema?
A. * Disruptions of trachea, bronchi
B. Rib fracture
C. Pneumothorax
D. Hemothorax
E. Mediastinal tumours
215. What does the mediastinal emphysema result in?
A. * Cardiac tamponade
B. Hemoptysis
C. Pleural empyema
D. Pneumothorax
E. Lung atelectasis
216. What is the treatment of mediastinal emphysema?
A. * Drainage of anterior mediastinum
B. Conservative treatment
C. Drainage of pleural cavity
D. Novocaine block
E. Pericardial puncture
217. Where is located the first anatomical narrowing of esophagus?
A. * The site of pharyngoesophageal junction
B. The site of crossing with left bronchus
C. The site of crossing with aorta
D. The site of passing through diaphragm
E. The site of cardia
218.
Direct sign of ulcer at x-ray research
A. violation of evacuation from a stomach
B. change of tone of stomach
C. form the stomach as "sand-glasses"
D. * symptom of "niche"
E. defect of filling
219. Hectic fever is possible at
A. to the uncomplicated ulcer
B. cicatrical-ulcerous stenosis
C. * penetration
D. perforations of ulcer in the first clock
E. bleeding from an ulcer
220. Tactic of family doctor during the covered perforation of ulcer
A. * urgent hospitalization in surgical permanent establishment
B. planned hospitalization in surgical permanent establishment
C. supervision on to the house
D. hospitalization in therapeutic permanent establishment
E. there is not a right answer
221. Change in the analysis of blood at a perforete ulcer
A. leucopenia
B. anaemia
C. eosinophilia
D. * leucocytosis with a neutrophilic change
222. In treatment of ulcerous illness the stomach and duodenum executed only on urgent indications
A. stomach resection by Bilrot-II
B. * sewing up of the perforete opening
C. selective-proximal vagotomy
D. trunk vagotomy with a pyloroplasty
E. stomach resection by Bilrot-I
223. At the perforete ulcer of duodenum used more frequent
A. sewing up of the perforate opening
B. * sewing up gastroenteroanastomosis
C. resection of stomach
D. resection of stomach for a shutdown
E. different types of vagotomy in combination with the economy resection of stomach and other
draining operations
224. The ways distribution of gastroenteric content during the perforation of ulcer depend on
A. anatomic structure of the lateral ductings
B. locations of stomach
C. localizations of the perforate opening
D. * only transferred
E. forms and locations of transversal rim bowel
225. Sudden and painful pain with localization in the middle departments of stomach with an
irradiation in the back more characteristic for
A. heart attack the myocardium
B. * break aneurysm the aorta
C. bilious colic
D. perforate ulcers
E. nephrocolic
226. In the moment of perforation the gastric or duodenum ulcer meets most often
A. * suddenly arising up megalgia
B. cramp-like pain
C. noncommunicative, moderate pain
D. liquid chair
E. tachycardia
227. What primary purpose treatment the patients with the heavy form of hemorragic
pancreatonecrosis to the operation is:
A. Liquidations the pain
B. * Disintoxication the organism
C. Liquidations crampy the big duodenal papilla
D. Declines secretory activity the pancreas
E. Improvements microcirculation
228. What is condition hematomesis at acute pancreatitis:
A. Presence concomitant gastric ulcer
B. Presence concomitant gastritis
C. * Formation erosions in a stomach
D. Violation of microcirculation
E. Enzymes in blood
229. ERCP apply at:
A. Postcholecystectomy syndrome
B. Stenosing papillitis
C. * Stenosis the supraduodenal department of choledoch
D. Stricture the terminal department of choledoch
E. Mechanical icterus
230. What from operations does not execute at surgical treatment complicated acute pancreatitis:
A. Through draining the stuffing-box bag
B. Abdominisation the pancreas
C. Omentopankreatopeksiy
D. Left-side resection of gland
E. * Pancreatojejunostomy
231. At pancreatitis abscesses and infected necrosises execute such operations, except for:
A. Opening of abscess with draining
B. Pancreaticnecrsekvestrektomy
C. Pancreaticsekvestrektomy
D. Pancreaticsekvestrektomy with laparostomy
E. * Total pancreatotomy
232. What most effective treatment the unformed uncomplicated cyst is:
A. * Conservative treatment
B. External draining cyst
C. Resection cyst within the limits of the unchanged gland
D. Cysticenterostomy
E. Cystogastrostomy
233. What most effective treatment the unformed complicated cyst is:
A. Conservative treatment
B. * External draining cyst
E. Cystogastrostomy
234. What most effective treatment the formed uncomplicated cyst is:
A. External draining the cyst
B. Marsupialization
C. Resection the cyst within the limits of the unchanged gland
D. * Cysticenterostomy
E. Cystogastrostomy
235. All surgical interferences at the destructive forms of acute pancreatitis divide on:
A. * Early, late, deferred operations
B. Primary, second, repeated operations
C. Invasion, not invasion operations
D. Complicated, operations are not complicated
E. Not divided
236. What is sequestrotomy:
A. * Delete the necrotic area within the limits of nonviable fabrics
B. Delete the necrotic area within the limits of healthy fabrics
C. Delete part of organ with his transversal cutting within the limits of the changed fabrics
D. Total delete of organ
E. There is not a faithful answer
237. What is necrectomy:
A. Delete the necrotic area within the limits of nonviable fabrics
B. * Delete the necrotic area within the limits of healthy fabrics
238. What is resection the pancreas:
C. * Delete part of organ with his transversal cutting within the limits of the changed fabrics
239. Kulen’s sing at acute pancreatitis:
A. Violet spots on face and trunk
B. Cyanosis sides of stomach and trunk
C. Cyanosis skin of stomach
D. * Icteritiousness round a belly-button
E. Cyanosys of hands
240. Bonde’s sing at acute pancreatitis:
A. * Swelling the stomach only in epigastrium

B. Cyanosis sides of stomach and trunk
C. Cyanosis skin of stomach
D. Icteritiousness round a belly-button
E. Cyanosys of hands
241. Voskresenskiy’s sing at acute pancreatitis:
A. * Absence pulsation the abdominal aorta
B. Sickliness in left costal-vertebral coal
C. Sickliness and proof tension the muscles in an epigastrium with passing to left subcostal area
E. Skin hyperesthesia in projection the gland
242. Kerte’s sing at acute pancreatitis:
A. Absence pulsation the abdominal aorta
B. Sickliness in left costal-vertebral coal
C. * Sickliness and proof tension the muscles in an epigastrium with passing to left subcostal area
243. Meyo-Robson’s sing at acute pancreatitis:
A. Absence pulsation the abdominal aorta
B. * Sickliness in left costal-vertebral coal
C. Sickliness and proof tension the muscles in an epigastrium with passing to left subcostal area
244. The clinical picture the aneurysm of the thoracic aorta distinguish syndromes:
A. * Algic
B. Venous hypertension
C. Respiratory failure
D. Chronic arterial ischemia
E. Eating Disorders
A. * Compression
E. Eating Disorders
A. * Hemodynamic
E. Eating Disorders
A. * No right answer
E. Eating Disorders
248. Aortoalgya found at:
A. * Aneurysms of the thoracic aorta
B. Deep vein thrombosis
C. Thrombosis of the inferior vena cava
E. Vena cava superior syndrome
B. Deepvein thrombosis
250. Artalgya must be differentiated from
A. * Angina
B. Appendicitis
C. Chronic bronchitis
D. Asthmatic
E. Ileus
251. Artalgesia must be differentiated from
A. * Syndrome of the anterior chest wall
B. Appendicitis
D. Asthmatic
E. Ileus
A. * Fibromiositis anterior chest
B. Appendicitis
D. Asthmatic
E. Ileus
B. Appendicitis
D. Asthmatic
E. Ileus
254. Type I Coarctation of aorta are:

A. * Isolated contraction in the transition region of the aortic arch to the descending division
B. The combination of this defect with ductus arteriosus and arterial or venous shunting of blood
C. The combination of coarctation of the aorta with other congenital or acquired defects of the
cardiovascular system
D. Multiple or atypical localization of coarctation of the aorta
E. All answers are correct
255. Type II Coarctation of aorta are:
A. * The combination of this defect with ductus arteriosus and arterial or venous shunting of blood
B. Isolated contraction in the transition region of the aortic arch to the descending division
256. Type III Coarctation of aorta are:
A. * The combination of coarctation of the aorta with other congenital or acquired defects of the
C. The combination of this defect with ductus arteriosus and arterial or venous shunting of blood
257. For coarctation of the aorta is characterized
A. * Poor development of the lower limb muscles
B. Poor development of the musculature of the shoulder girdle
C. Well muscled legs
D. Good development of the pelvic belt
A. * Pulse on the radial artery a full and busy
B. Pulse on the radial artery weakened
C. Pulse on the radial artery is absent
D. Pulse on the radial artery thready
A. * Pulse on the dorsal artery of foot missing
B. Pulse on the back of a weakened artery of foot
C. Pulse on the dorsal artery of foot is determined
D. Pulse on the dorsal artery of foot satisfactory
A. * Pulse on the posterior tibial artery is absent
B. Pulse on the posterior tibial artery weakened
C. Pulse on the posterior tibial artery is determined
D. Pulse on the posterior tibial artery satisfactory
A. * Pulse on the femoral artery weakened
B. Pulse on the femoral artery is absent
C. Pulse on the femoral artery is defined clearly
D. Pulse on the femoral artery satisfactory

264. Tortuosity and increased intercostals arteries is characteristic
A. * Aortarctia
B. Aneurysms of the thoracic aorta
C. Abdominal aortic aneurysm
D. Vena cava superior syndrome
E. Vena cava inferior syndrome
266. Strong pulsation of the carotid, brachial, intercostal arteries is characteristic
A. * Coarctation of the aorta
A. * Blood pressure at the hands of elevated
B. Blood pressure is lowered at the hands of
C. Blood pressure at the hands of the norm
D. The difference of pressure on the right and left hand
A. * Blood pressure on the legs lowered
B. Blood pressure on the legs elevated
C. Blood pressure on the legs in normal
D. The difference of pressure on the right and left leg
270. Obliterating atherosclerosis of the carotid arteries is more common in:
A. * Men older than 40 years
B. In men younger than 40 years
C. In the men's 20 - 30 years
D. Not found
271. Obliterating atherosclerosis of the carotid arteries is more common in:
B. In men younger than 40 years
C. In the men's 20 - 30 years
D. Not found
272. Nonspecific aortoarteriitis carotid arteries is more common in:
A. * Women younger than 30 years
B. Women older than 30 years
C. Women 40 - 50 years
D. Not found
273. The most important mechanism compensation in lesions of brachiocephalic arteries is:
A. * Circle of Willis
B. Aortic arch
C. Brachial artery
D. Abdominal aorta
E. Vena cava superior
274. The most important mechanism of compensation in lesions of brachiocephalic arteries is:
B. Aortic arch
C. Brachial artery
D. Abdominal aorta
275. Steal syndrome characteristic:
A. * Occlusion of the proximal segment of the clavicular artery
B. Occlusion of the aortic arch
C. Occlusion of the brachial artery
D. Occlusion of the abdominal aorta
E. Occlusion of the superior vena cava

277. At Steal syndrome is characterized rob:
A. * Brain
B. Right upper extremity
C. Left upper limb
D. Both limbs
278. Reducing the pulsation the left superficial temporal characteristic for:
A. * Lesions of the left common carotid artery
B. Lesions of the aortic arch
D. Lesions of the abdominal aorta
E. Lesions of the superior vena cava
279. The absence pulsations the left superficial temporal characteristic for:
A. * Lesions of the left common carotid artery
280. The absence pulsation on the left radial artery characteristic:
A. * Lesion of the left subclavian artery

281. Reducing pulsation the left brachial artery is characteristic:
282. Absence pulsation left brachial artery is characteristic of:
283. Reducing pulsation left brachial artery is characteristic:
284. In the diagnosis pathology of the subclavian artery leading place is:
A. * Contrast angiography
B. Thermometry
C. Radiography of the neck
D. Radiography of the chest cavity
E. Ultrasonography of the abdomen
285. Nonspecific aortoarteriitis more striking:
A. * Brachiocephalic trunk
B. Brachial artery
C. Abdominal aorta
D. Thoracic aorta
E. Coronary arteries
286. For lesions the subclavian artery is characterized by:
A. * Weak hands
B. Dermahemia hands
C. Increased filling of subcutaneous veins of the upper extremities
D. The pulsation of the arteries of the upper extremities is not broken
E. All true
A. * Chill hand
B. Dermahemia hands
E. All true
A. * Cooling of the skin brushes
B. Dermahemia hands
E. All true
A. * Hypotrophy of muscles of hands
B. Dermahemia hands
E. All true
A. * Reduction of blood pressure on the upper extremity
B. Dermahemia hands
E. All true
A. * The weakening of the pulse at the radial artery
B. Dermahemia hands
E. All true
292. For atherosclerotic carotid arteries is characterized by:
A. * Headache
B. Dermahemia neck
C. Increased filling saphenous veins neck
D. The pulsation of the carotid artery is not broken
E. All true
293. In the diagnosis of atherosclerotic lesions an important role plays:
A. * Ultrasound of neck vessels
B. Thermometry
C. Rheovasography
D. Radiological examination of the neck
A. * Contrast radiography
B. Thermometry
C. Rheovasography
A. No right answer
B. Thermometry
C. * Rheovasography
A. * Digital subtraction angiography
B. Thermometry
C. Rheovasography
297. The linear velocity of blood flow in carotid arteries can be determined using
A. * Ultrasonic Doppler
B. CT
C. Radiography neck
D. Rheovasography
E. Thermometry
298. The volumetric blood flow rate on the carotid arteries can be determined using
B. CT
C. Radiography neck
D. Rheovasography
E. Thermometry
299.
The linear velocity of blood flow in carotid arteries can be determined using
B. CT
C. Radiography neck
D. Rheovasography
E. Thermometry
300. The percentage of stenosis of the carotid arteries can be determined using
B. CT
C. Radiography neck
D. Rheovasography
E. Thermometry
301. To diagnose the circle of Willis terms use:
A. * Transcranial Doppler
B. Thermometry
C. Rheovasography
302. To diagnose the Vilizievogo terms of use:
A. * Contrast X-rhey investigation of cerebrovascular artery
B. Thermometry
C. Rheovasography
303. Skalenus syndrome is
A. * Extravessel compression of the subclavian artery at the exit from the thorax
B. Atherosclerosis of the subclavian artery

C. Aneurysm of the subclavian artery
D. Acute thrombosis of the subclavian artery
E. Axillaries artery aneurysm
305. Indications for carotid endarterctomy based on
A. * Clinical manifestations of vascular insufficiency
B. Limitation of atherosclerosis
C. Prescription treatment of atherosclerosis
D. Patient's wishes
E. Want doctor
A. * Structural characteristics of atherosclerotic plaque
D. Patient's wishes
E. Want doctor
A. * State of the surface of atherosclerotic plaque
D. Patient's wishes
E. Want doctor

D. Patient's wishes
E. Want doctor
309. Carotid endarterctomy contraindicated
A. * Up to 6 weeks after stroke
B. Up to 8 weeks after stroke
C. Up to 10 weeks after stroke
D. Contraindications No
E. All true
A. * Patients with the gross neurological disorders after stroke
E. All true
A. * 2-3 months. myocardial infarction
B. 4-5 months. myocardial infarction
E. All true
A. * In renal insufficiency

E. All true
A. * Compression
E. Eating Disorders
A. * Hemodynamic
E. Eating Disorders
E. Eating Disorders
A. * Aneurysms of the thoracic aorta

B. Deepvein thrombosis
318. For aneurysms the thoracic aorta is characterized
A. * Increased breast-pressure
B. Reduced breast pressure
C. Pressure changes do not
D. All answers are correct
E. The lower abdominal pressure
A. * Dry unproductive cough
B. Moist cough
C. The presence of asthma
D. The presence of pleural effusion
E. Respiratory disorders are absent
B. Moist cough
C. The presence of asthma
D. The presence of pleural effusion
E. Respiratory disorders are absent
321. For artalgya is characteristic
A. * Increased blood pressure
B. Lowering blood pressure
C. Changes in blood pressure is not

D. Fluctuations in blood pressure
E. Reducing pulse pressure
B. Lowering blood pressure
C. Changes in blood pressure is not
D. Fluctuations in blood pressure
E. Reducing pulse pressure
A. * Lack of effect of nitrate
B. The presence of the effect of nitrate
C. The presence of the effect of statins
D. The presence of the effect of antibiotic
E. The presence of the effect of aspirin
324. For artalgya characteristic
B. The presence of the effect of nitrate
C. The presence of the effect of statins
D. The presence of the effect of antibiotic
E. The presence of the effect of aspirin
A. * Angina
B. Appendicitis
D. Asthmatic
E. Ileus
326. For the initial part of the aortic arch aneurysm is characterized by
A. * The decrease and delay the pulse on the radial artery on the right
B. The decrease and delay the pulse on the radial artery on the left
C. The increase in size and acceleration of the pulse on the radial artery on the right
D. The increase in size and acceleration of the pulse on the radial artery on the left
B. The decrease and delay pulse on the radial artery on the left
A. * The decrease and delay the pulse on the carotid artery on the right
B. The decrease and delay the pulse on the carotid artery on the left
329. For aneurysms of the distal aortic arch is characterized by
A. * The decrease and delay the pulse on the radial artery on the left
B. The decrease and delay the pulse on the radial artery on the right
330. For aneurysms of the distal aortic arch is characterized by
A. * The decrease and delay the pulse on the carotid artery on the left
B. The decrease and delay the pulse on the carotid artery on the right
331. Pulsating tumor-like formation with a reddish tinge of the skin over his right or left from the front
of the sternum is characteristic:
A. * Aneurysm
B. Aneurysms of the descending aorta
C. Abdominal aortic aneurysms
D. Embolism of aorta
E. Thrombosis of the aorta
332. Type I Coarctation of aorta are:
A. * Isolated contraction in the transition region of the aortic arch to the descending division
B. The combination of this defect with ductus arteriosus and arterial or venous shunting of blood
333. Type II Coarctation of aorta are:
A. * The combination of this defect with ductus arteriosus and arterial or venous shunting of blood
334. Type III Coarctation of aorta are:
A. * The combination of coarctation of the aorta with other congenital or acquired defects of the
C. The combination of this defect with ductus arteriosus and arterial or venous shunting of blood

A. * Poor development of the pelvic girdle muscles
A. * Poor development of the lower limb muscles
A. * Pulse on the radial artery a full and busy
B. Pulse on the radial artery weakened
C. Pulse on the radial artery is absent
D. Pulse on the radial artery thready

A. * Pulse on the dorsal artery of foot missing
B. Pulse on the back of a weakened artery of foot
C. Pulse on the dorsal artery of foot is determined
D. Pulse on the dorsal artery of foot satisfactory
A. * Pulse on the posterior tibial artery is absent
B. Pulse on the posterior tibial artery weakened
C. Pulse on the posterior tibial artery is determined
D. Pulse on the posterior tibial artery satisfactory
A. * Pulse on the femoral artery weakened
A. * Aortarctia
E.
Vena cava inferior syndrome
A. * Coarctation of the aorta
A. * Blood pressure at the hands of elevated
B. Blood pressure is lowered at the hands of
C. Blood pressure at the hands of the norm
D. The difference of pressure on the right and left hand
A. * Blood pressure on the legs lowered
B. Blood pressure on the legs elevated
C. Blood pressure on the legs in normal
D. The difference of pressure on the right and left leg
348. For diagnostic coarctation of the aorta used:
A. * Radiography of the chest cavity

B. Pulse Oximetry
C. Radiography limbs
D. Radiography abdominal
A. * Contrast aortography
B. Pulse Oximetry
B. Pulse Oximetry
351. In the etiology of stenosis brachycephalic arteries plays a role
A. * Obliterating atherosclerosis
B. Endarteritis
C. Viral diseases
D. Intoxication
E. Supercooling
352. The most important mechanism of compensation in lesions of brachiocephalic arteries is:
B. Aortic arch
C. Brachial artery
D. Abdominal aorta

A. * Occlusion of the proximal segment of the clavicular artery
355. Syndrome of vertebrobasilar insufficiency characteristic:
B. Lesions of the internal carotid arteries
C. Lost external carotid arteries
D. Lesions of brachial artery
E. Lesions of the aortic arch
356. In the diagnosis pathology of the carotid arteries leading place is:
A. * Vascular ultrasound
B. Thermometry
357. In the diagnosis pathology of the carotid arteries leading place is:
B. Thermometry
358. In the diagnosis pathology of vertebral arteries leading place is:
B. Thermometry
359. In the diagnosis pathology of vertebral arteries leading place is:
B. Thermometry
B. Thermometry
C. Neck X-ray
B. Thermometry

B. Thermometry
363. Nonspecific aortoarteriitis more striking:
A. * Brachiocephalic trunk
B. Brachial artery
C. Abdominal aorta
D. Thoracic aorta
E. Coronary arteries
A. * Weak hands
B. Dermahemia hands
E. All true
A. * Chill hand
B. Dermahemia hands
E. All true
A. * Cooling of the skin brushes
B. Dermahemia hands
E. All true
A. * Hypotrophy of muscles of hands
B. Dermahemia hands
E. All true
A. * Reduction of blood pressure on the upper extremity
B. Dermahemia hands
E. All true
A. * Loss of consciousness
B. Dermahemia neck
E. All true
A. * Sonitus
B. Dermahemia neck

E. All true
A. * Dysopia
B. Dermahemia neck
E. All true
A. * Diminished hearing
B. Dermahemia neck
E. All true
A. * Ischemic stroke with hemiparesis
B. Dermahemia neck
E. All true
374. Most of atherosclerotic lesions of carotid arteries captures:
A. * Bifurcation of the carotid artery
B. Initial division of the common carotid artery
C. Secondary divisions of the common carotid artery
D. Distal common carotid artery
E. All true
A. * Ultrasound of neck vessels
B. Thermometry
C. Rheovasography
A. * Contrast radiography
B. Thermometry
C. Rheovasography
A. No right answer
B. Thermometry
C. * Rheovasography
A. * Digital subtraction angiography
B. Thermometry
C. Rheovasography
A. * Nuclear Magnetic Resonance
B. Thermometry
C. Rheovasography

380. The percentage of stenosis of the carotid arteries can be determined using
B. CT
C. Radiography neck
D. Rheovasography
E. Thermometry
381. To diagnose the circle of Willis terms use:
A. * Transcranial Doppler
B. Thermometry
C. Rheovasography
382. To diagnose the Vilizievogo terms of use:
A. * Contrast X-rhey investigation of cerebrovascular artery
B. Thermometry
C. Rheovasography
A. * Extravessel compression of the subclavian artery at the exit from the thorax

A. * Clinical manifestations of vascular insufficiency
D. Patient's wishes
E. No right answer
A. * Degree of stenosis of internal carotid artery
D. Patient's wishes
E. No right answer
A. * State of the surface of atherosclerotic plaque
D. Patient's wishes
E. No right answer
D. Patient's wishes
E. No right answer
A. * Up to 6 weeks after stroke
E. All true
A. * Patients with the gross neurological disorders after stroke
E. All true
A. * 2-3 months. myocardial infarction
E. All true
A. * In renal insufficiency
E. All true
A. * At liver failure

E. All true
394. Sample Matas performed for
A. * Definitions of tolerance of the brain to the compression of the internal carotid artery
B. Definitions of tolerance of the brain to the compression of the external carotid artery
C. Definitions of tolerance of the brain to the compression of the common carotid artery
D. Definitions of blood flow velocity
E. All true
395. The advantages of local anesthesia at carotid endarterectomy are
A. * Precise control of the state of consciousness of the patient
B. Muscle relaxation
C. Lack of consciousness of the patient
D. The possibility of movements
E. All true
A. * Precise control of the neurological status of the patient
E. All true
A. * Possibility to save spontaneous respiration
E. All true
398. After carotid endarterectomy is necessary to monitor for:

A. * Neurological status
B. The muscle of the upper extremities
C. The muscle of the upper extremities
D. Possibility of movement
E. All true
A. * The wounds on the neck
E. All true
A. * Monitoring blood pressure
E. All true
401. Early complication after carotid endarterectomy:
A. * Thrombosis segment reconstruction
B. Aneurysm segment reconstruction
C. Arteriovenous fistula
D. Suppurating wounds
E. All true
402. How much blood are flows through the superficial veins?
A. * 10-15%
B. 5%
C. 30-40%
D. 70-80%
E. 90%
403. Where are falls the great saphenous vein?
A. * Thigh Vienna
B. Calf veins
C. Popliteal vein
D. External iliac vein
E. V. cava inf.
404. Where are runs a small subcutaneous vein?
A. * Popliteal vein
B. Vena cava inferior
C. External iliac vein
D. Thigh vein
E. Calf veins
405. Localization relapsing small saphenous vein are
A. * In the popliteal fossa
B. In the upper third of the lower extremity
C. In the lower third of the thigh
D. 2-3 cm below the inguinal ligament
E. In the lumbar region
406. What is the typical sign for stage I varicose veins?
A. * Feeling gravity
B. Temporary swelling
C. Permanent edema
D. Polychromia
E. Trophic ulcer
407. What is the typical sign for IIA stage of varicose veins?
A. * Transient edema
B. Feeling gravity
C. Permanent edema
D. Polychromia
E. Trophic ulcer
408. What is the typical sign for IIB stage of varicose veins?
A. * Polychromia
B. Feeling gravity
C. Temporary swelling
D. Open trophic ulcer
E. Repairer trophic ulcer
409. What is the typical sign for IIB stage of varicose veins?
A. * Permanent edema
B. Feeling gravity
E. Repairer trophic ulcer
410. What is the typical sign for the Third Stage varicose veins?
A. * Trophic ulcer
B. Feeling gravity
D. Permanent edema
E. Polychromia
411. For varicose veins of the lower extremities is characterized :
B. Intermittent claudication
C. Pain at rest
D. Loss of sensitivity
E. Loss of movement
412. For varicose veins of the lower extremities is characterized:
A. * Transient edema of lower extremities
C. Pain at rest
E. Loss of movement
A. * Extension of saphenous veins
B. Cyanosis of lower limb
C. The pallor of the lower extremity
E. Loss of movement
A. * Lipodermatosklerosis shin
E. Loss of movement
A. * Trophic ulcer leg
E. Loss of movement
A. * Hyperpigmentation shin
E. Loss of movement
417. Feeling the gravity of the lower extremities is characteristic for:
A. * Varicose
B. Atherosclerotic lesions
C. Obliterative endarteritis
D. Leriche
E. Femoral artery embolism
418. Lipodermatosklerosis lower third of the leg is characteristic for:
A. * Varicose
D. Leriche
419. Hyperpigmentation of the lower third of the leg is characteristic:
A. * Varicose
D. Leriche
420. Trophic ulcers of the lower third of the leg is characteristic:
A. * Varicose
D. Leriche
421. What is the test used to determine valvular insufficiency superficial veins?
A. * Troyanov-Trendelenburg’s test
B. Thalman’s test
C. Pratt’s test
D. Mayo Pratt’s test
E. Delba Perthes’s test (sustainer test)
422. What is the test used to determine valvular insufficiency communacative veins?
A. * Pratt’s test
B. Troyanov-Trendelenburg’s test
C. Hakenbruh’s test
D. Homans’s test
423. What is the test used to assess the patency of deep veins?
A. * Delba Perthes’s test (sustainer test)
D. Pratt’s test
E. Thalmann’s test
424. Troyanov-Trendelenburg’s test used in the diagnosis:
A. * Valvular insufficiency of superficial veins
B. Valvular insufficiency communicative veins
C. Passing deep vein
D. Deep phlebothrombosis
E. Extremity lymphedema
425. Thalmann’s test used in the diagnosis :

A. * Valvular insufficiency communicative veins
B. Valvular insufficiency of superficial veins
426. Pratt test used in the diagnosis of :
C. Patency of deep veins
427. Mayo Pratt’s test used in the diagnosis:
A. * Patency of deep veins
C. Valvular insufficiency of superficial veins
428. Delba Perthes’s test (sustainer test) is used in the diagnosis:
A. * Passing deep vein
429. What is typical complication of varicose veins?
A. * Subcutaneous thrombophlebitis
B. Arterial thrombosis
C. Paresis
D. Lymphostasis
E. Gangrene
430. Most subcutaneous thrombophlebitis is caused by:
A. * Varicose
C. Lymphedema of the lower extremities
D. Acute appendicitis
E. Acute cholecystitis
A. * Trophic ulcer
C. Paresis
D. Plegia
E. Gangrene
432. What is the main method of diagnosis of arteriovenous fistulas?
A. * Phlebography
B. Koagulograme
C. Delba Perthes’s test (sustainer test)
D. Ultrasound
E. Arteriography
433. What is the main method diagnosis еру venous angiodysplasia?
A. * Phlebography
B. Сoagulogramm
D. Ultrasound
E. Arteriography
434. Phlebography is used to diagnose:

A. * Arteriovenous fistula
C. Obliterate endarteritis
D. Lymphedema
E. Gynecology
435. Phlebography is used to diagnose:
A. * Venous angiodysplasia
D. Lymphedema
E. Gynecology
436. Troyanov-Trendelenburg’s operation is:
A. * Ligation sapheno-femoral ejection
B. Removal of the main stem saphenous vein
C. Extrafascial ligation perforating veins
D. Subfascial ligation perforating veins
E. Treatment of saphenous vein collaterals
437. Narath’s operation is:
A. * Treatment of saphenous vein collaterals
B. Ligation sapheno-femoral ejection
C. Removal of the main stem saphenous vein
D. Extrafascial ligation perforating veins
E. Subfascial ligation perforating veins
438. Babcock’s operation is:
A. * Removal of the main stem saphenous vein
B. Treatment of saphenous vein collaterals
C. Ligation sapheno-femoral ejection

D. Extrafascial ligation perforating veins
E. Subfascial ligation perforating veins
439. Coccet’s operation is:
A. * Extrafascial ligation perforating veins
D. Removal of the main stem saphenous vein
E. Subfascial ligation of perforating veins
440. Linton's operation is:
A. * Subfascial ligation of perforating veins
D. Removal of the main stem saphenous vein
E. Extrafascial ligation of perforating veins
441. Narath’s operation is performed at :
A. * Varicose
C. Lymphedema
D. Atherosclerosis obliterans
E. Occlusive disease
442. Indications to sclerotherapy is:
A. * Reticular varicose
B. Obliterating atherosclerosis
C. Occlusive disease
D. Deep vein thrombosis
443. Indications for sclerotherapy is:
A. * Telangiectasia
444. Indications for sclerotherapy is:
A. * Recurrence of varicose
445. The method of choice in treating varicose reticulum is:
A. * Sclerotherapy
B. Operation Linton
C. Saphenectomy
D. Intimectomy
E. Autogenous vein bypass
446. The method of choice in treating telangiectasia is:
A. * Sclerotherapy
B. Operation Linton
C. Saphenectomy
D. Intimectomy
447. The method of choice in treating recurrent varicose veins are:
A. * Sclerotherapy
B. Operation Linton
C. Saphenectomy
D. Intimectomy
448. For sclerotherapy used:
A. * Fibroveyn
B. Triumbrast
C. Verografin
D. Seabar
E. Bilignost
449. Why saphenectomy is always starts ligation safeno-femoral ejection?
A. * To prevent pulmonary embolism
B. To prevent bleeding
C. To prevent safeno-femoral reflux
D. To easily insert a venous extractor
E. To perform sclerotherapy
450. What is the main feature of subcutaneous thrombophlebitis?
A. * Painful bundle along the saphenous vein
B. Trophic ulcer
C. Gangrene fingers on the lower extremity
D. No pulsation
E. Edema of the lower extremity
451. Painful bundle along the saphenous vein is characteristic for:
B. Lymphedema
C. Atherosclerotic lesions
D. Obliterative endarteritis
E. Deep vein thrombosis
452. The development of limb edema in the case of subcutaneous thrombophlebitis indicates:
A. * The defeat of the deep veins

B. Infection
C. Heart failure
D. Renal failure
E. Development lymphostasis
453. What indicators prothrombin index should be in the treatment of venous thrombosis?
A. * 50-70%
B. 10-20%
C. 30-40%
D. 85-100%
E. 100-120%
454. What are the indicators of coagulation control dosing of anticoagulants?
A. * Prothrombin index
B. The number of platelets in the blood
C. The level of plasma fibrinogen
D. Trombotest
E. Recalcification time
455. What is the normal level of plasma fibrinogen?
A. * 2-4 g / l
B. 6-8 g / l
C. 10-16 grams / liter
D. 30-50 grams / liter
E. 75-100 g / l
456. What is the basis of postthrombotic syndrome?
A. * Valvular insufficiency
B. Venous occlusion
C. Arterial occlusion
D. Nerve damage
E. Limb gangrene
457. What is the clinical form of postthrombotic syndrome does not exist?
A. * Gangrenous
B. Sclerotic
C. Varicose
D. Oedema
E. Peptic
458. What is the typical consequence of deep venous thrombosis?
A. * Recanalization of thrombus from the valve insufficiency
B. Complete obliteration of the veins
C. Partial obliteration of the veins
D. Varicose
E. Arteriovenous fistula
459. What are the clinical manifestations of postthrombotic syndrome?
A. * Symptoms of venous insufficiency
B. Symptoms of nerve damage
C. Symptoms of vascular dystony
D. Signs of arterial insufficiency
E. Restriction of movement of the lower extremity
460. Which clinical sign characteristic of the postthrombotic syndrome?
A. * Edema
B. No pulsation
C. Paralysis
D. Gangrene
E. Lack of sensitivity
461. What is the typical sign for stage I postthrombotic syndrome?
A. * Transient edema
B. Permanent edema
C. Polychromia
D. Trophic ulcer
E. Gangrene
462. What is the typical sign for stage II postthrombotic syndrome?
A. * Polychromia
B. Feeling gravity
C. Transient edema
E. Healing of trophic ulcers
463. What is the typical sign for stage II postthrombotic syndrome?
A. * Permanent edema
B. Feeling gravity
C. Transient edema
E. Healing of trophic ulcers
464. What is the typical sign for stage III postthrombotic syndrome?
A. * Trophic ulcer
B. Feeling gravity
C. Transient edema
D. Permanent edema
E. Polychromia
465. What treatment is indicated in postthrombotic syndrome?
A. * Saphenectomy
C. Sclerotherapy
D. Troyanov-Trendelenburg’s operation
E. Saphenectomy with subfascial ligation communicative veins (Linton’s operation)
466. I degree of lymphatic edema corresponds to:
A. * Intermittent swelling
B. Permanent edema
C. Fibrosclerotic changes
D. Elephantiasis
E. No right answer
467. Localization relapsing great saphenous vein are
A. * 2-3 cm below the inguinal ligament
C. In the popliteal fossa
D. In the lower third of the thigh
468. Localization relapsing small saphenous vein are
A. * In the popliteal fossa
C. In the lower third of the thigh
D. 2-3 cm below the inguinal ligament
469. What veins belong to a surface system?
A. * Small and large subcutaneous vein
B. Veins
C. Superficial and deep femoral vein
D. Humeral vein
E. Elbow and radial veins
470. What vein belong to the deep vein system?
A. * V. radіalіs
B. There was subcutaneous Vienna
C. Large subcutaneous Vienna
D. V. basіlіca
E. V. ceрhalіca
471. Which factor are dominates in the development of primary varicose veins?
A. * The weakness of the connective tissue blood vessels
B. Arteriovenous fistula
C. Venous hypoplasia
D. Diabetes mellitus
E. Obliterating atherosclerosis
472. What are the hormonal changes contribute to the development of varicose veins?
A. * Pregnancy
B. Diabetes mellitus
C. Thyrotoxicosis
D. Myxedema
E. Adrenal insufficiency
473. What is the pathological basis for the development of chronic venous insufficiency?
A. * Venous hypertension
B. Block lymph drainage
C. Arterial ischemia
D. Arterial hypertension
E. Innervation
474. What is the cause of hypertension in the venous system of lower limbs?
A. * Venous valvular insufficiency
B. Arterial ischemia
C. Arterial hypertension
D. Block lymph drainage
E. Innervation
475. What are causes venous valve insufficiency?
A. * Venous hypertension
B. Arterial ischemia
C. Arterial hypertension
D. Innervation
E. Violation of lymph drainage
476. What is the typical sign for stage I varicose veins?
B. Temporary swelling
C. Permanent edema
D. Polychromia
E. Trophic ulcer
F. IV
477. For varicose veins of the lower extremities is characterized :
C. Pain at rest
E. Loss of movement
A. * Transient edema of lower extremities
C. Pain at rest
E. Loss of movement
A. * Extension of saphenous veins

E. Loss of movement
A. * Lipodermatosklerosis shin
E. Loss of movement
A. * Trophic ulcer leg
E. Loss of movement
482. What is the test used to determine valvular insufficiency communacative veins?
A. * Pratt’s test
D. Homans’s test
483. What is the test used to assess the patency of deep veins?
A. * Delba Perthes’s test (sustainer test)
D. Pratt’s test
E. Thalmann’s test
484. Troyanov-Trendelenburg’s test used in the diagnosis:
A. * Valvular insufficiency of superficial veins
485. Thalmann’s test used in the diagnosis :
486. Pratt test used in the diagnosis of :
C. Patency of deep veins
487. Mayo Pratt’s test used in the diagnosis:
A. * Patency of deep veins
488. Delba Perthes’s test (sustainer test) is used in the diagnosis:
A. * Passing deep vein

C. Paresis
D. Lymphostasis
E. Gangrene
490. What is the main method of diagnosis of arteriovenous fistulas?
A. * Phlebography
B. Koagulograme
D. Ultrasound
E. Arteriography
491. What is the main method diagnosis еру venous angiodysplasia?
A. * Phlebography
B. Сoagulogramm
D. Ultrasound
E. Arteriography
492. What method is used to assess the patency of deep veins?
A. * Ultrasound
B. Сoagulogramm
C. Rheovasography
D.
ECG
E. Arteriography
493. What operation is carried out at varicose veins?
A. * Saphenectomy
B. Thrombectomy
C. Vein ligation
D. Intimectomy
E. Femoropopliteal bypass
494. What treatment is indicated at varicose II A stage?
A. * Saphenectomy
C. Sclerotherapy
495. What treatment is indicated for uncomplicated varicose veins?
A. * Saphenectomy
C. Sclerotherapy
496. For reason recurrence of varicose veins include:
A. * Leaving the main trunk, the long stump of the great saphenous vein
B. Thrombosis of the inferior vena cava
C. Arteriovenous fistula
D. Lack ostial valve
E. Thrombosis of the iliac vein
497. In what sequence being saphenectomy
A. * Operation Troyanov-Trendelenburg’s, Babcock’s, Narath’s

B. Operation Linton’s. Cockett’s, Babcock’s
C. Operation Narath’s, Babcock’s, Cockett’s
D. Operation Babcock’s, Linton’s, Troyanov-Trendelenburg’s
E. Operation Babcock’s, Narath’s, Cokket’s
498. Maximum number communicative vein is:
A. * The lower third of tibia
B. The upper third of tibia
C. The middle third of tibia
D. Land thigh
E. The bottom third of the thigh
499. Contraindication to saphenectomy with varicose veins are:
A. * Obstruction deep veins
B. Incompetence of venous valves communicative vein
C. Incompetence ostial valve
D. Loose type of the great saphenous vein
E. Valvular insufficiency sural veins
500. What are the indicators of coagulation control dosing of anticoagulants?
A. * Prothrombin index
B. The number of platelets in the blood
C. The level of plasma fibrinogen
D. Trombotest
E. Recalcification time
501. What is the normal level of plasma fibrinogen?
A. * 2-4 g / l
B. 6-8 g / l
C. 10-16 grams / liter
D. 30-50 grams / liter

E. 75-100 g / l
502. What is the typical consequence of deep venous thrombosis?
A. * Recanalization of thrombus from the valve insufficiency
B. Complete obliteration of the veins
C. Partial obliteration of the veins
D. Varicose
E. Arteriovenous fistula
503. What are the clinical manifestations of postthrombotic syndrome?
A. * Symptoms of venous insufficiency
B. Symptoms of nerve damage
C. Symptoms of vascular dystony
D. Signs of arterial insufficiency
E. Restriction of movement of the lower extremity
504. What is the morphological basis of atherosclerotic lesions?
A. * The accumulation of lipids in the intima
B. Thrombosis
C. Inflammatory process
D. Embolism
E. Aneurysm
505. What is the main cause of atherosclerotic lesions?
A. * Hypercholesterolemia, dyslipoproteinemia
B. Infection
C. Trauma
506. What does applies to the first stage of atherosclerotic lesions according to the classification by
Fontane?
A. * Full compensation
B. Asymptomatic ran
C. Functional circulatory insufficiency
D. Limb ischemia at rest
E. Destruction of tissue
507. What does belongs to the second stage of atherosclerotic lesions according to the classification by
Fontane?
A. * Functional circulatory insufficiency
B. Asymptomatic ran
C. Full compensation
D. Limb ischemia at rest
508. What does belongs to the third stage of atherosclerotic lesions according to the classification by
Fontane?
A. Limb ischemia at rest
B. * Asymptomatic ran
D. Functional circulatory insufficiency
509. What does belongs to the fourth stage of atherosclerotic lesions according to the classification by
Fontane?
A. * Destruction of tissue
B. Asymptomatic ran
D. Functional circulatory insufficiency
E. Limb ischemia at rest
510. What is the most typical feature of the first stage of atherosclerotic lesions?
A. * Cooling of the lower extremities
B. Fever
C. Intermittent claudication
D. Gangrene
E. Pain at rest
511. What is the most typical sign of the second stage of atherosclerotic lesions?
A. * Intermittent claudication
B. Cooling of the lower extremities
C. Fever
D. Gangrene
E. Pain at rest
512. What is the most typical feature of the third stage of atherosclerotic lesions?
A. * Pain at rest
B. Fever
C. Cooling of the lower extremities
D. Intermittent claudication
E. Gangrene
513. What is the most typical feature of the fourth stage of atherosclerotic lesions?
A. * Gangrene
B. Pain at rest
C. Fever
D. Cooling of the lower extremities
E. Intermittent claudication
514. What is characterized by intermittent claudication?
A. * Pain in the muscles of his legs when walking, which disappears after rest
B. Ischialgia, lumbago
C. Constant pain in the joints
D. Pain along the superficial veins
E. Edema of lower extremities

515. Intermittent claudication is characterized by:
A. * Pain in the lower extremities
B. Heartache
C. Arthralgia
D. Dizziness
E. Edema of lower extremities
516. Which of the X-ray methods is the most informative at obliterating atherosclerosis?
A. * Arteriography
B. Abdominal radiography
C. Chest radiography
D. Radiography limb
E. Phlebography
517. For atherosclerotic lesions at arteriography is characterized by:
A. * Segmental occlusion of the arteries
B. Occlusion of terminal part of the inferior vena cava
C. Occlusion of the superior vena cava
D. Dysplasia arteries
E. Diffuse stenosis of small arteries
518. What is the main distinctive feature between atherosclerosis and endarteritis obliterans?
A. * The level of arterial pulsation
B. Pain syndrome
C. Trophic ulcers
D. Changes in coagulation
E. Skin color
519. What method of research is the most informative in the differential diagnosis between
atherosclerosis and endarteritis obliterans?
A. * Angiography
B. ECG
C. Biochemical analysis of blood
D. Complete blood
E. Target biopsy
520. What is the main distinctive feature between atherosclerosis and lumbosacral radiculitis?
A. * Arterial pulsation in the lower extremities
B. Pain syndrome of the lower extremities
C. The color of the skin of the lower extremities
D. Cold extremities
E. Paresthesias of lower extremities
521. At what level is no ripple at lumbosacral radiculitis?
A. * Stored at all levels of
B. Calf arteries
C. Popliteal artery
D. Femoral artery
E. Aorta
522. Which clinical sign is not typical for diabetic angiopathy?
A. * No pulsation of femoral artery
B. Necrosis of the fingers on the lower extremity
C. Trophic ulcers on the foot
D. Phlegmon of the foot
E. Paresthesias
523. What are the indications for conservative therapy of obliterative atherosclerosis?
A. * I-II stage of chronic arterial insufficiency
B. Not shown at all
C. III-IV stage of chronic arterial insufficiency
D. Leriche syndrome
E. Arterial thrombosis
524. Cooling stop is characteristic:
A. * Surface thrombophlebitis
B. Deep thrombophlebitis
D. Lymphostasis
E. Postthrombotic syndrome
525. Blanching of the skin foot is characteristic:
A. * Obliterative endarteritis
B. Deep thrombophlebitis
C. Surface thrombophlebitis
D. Postthrombotic syndrome
E. Phlegmon of the foot
526. What is the typical location the venous ulcers at occlusive disease?
A. * At fingertips
B. In the lower third of the lower extremities
C. In the upper third of the lower extremities
D. On the back of the knee
E. At the hip
527. What is the typical sign for the I stage of obliterating endarteritis?
A. * Cooling of the lower extremities
C. Fever
D. Pain at rest
E. Gangrene
528. What is the typical sign for II stage the obliterative endarteritis?
B. Fever
C. Cooling of the lower extremities

D. Gangrene
E. Pain at rest
529. What is the typical sign for the III stage of obliterating endarteritis?
A. * Pain at rest
B. Cooling of the lower extremities
C. Fever
D. Intermittent claudication
E. Gangrene
530. What is the main goal of therapy at obliterating endarteritis?
A. * Renewal or improvement of capillary circulation
B. Resumption pass vein
C. Resumption of the entrance of lymph
D. Resumption pass arteries
E. Improving the innervation of the lower extremity
531. For obliterative endarteritis is characterized by:
B. Angina
C. Dizziness
D. Oedema of lower extremities
E. Extension of saphenous veins
532. At atherosclerosis obliterans first affected:
A. * Arteries, aorta.
B. Arteriovenous shunt vessels.
C. Capillaries.
D. Arteries of medium diameter.
E. Small arteries.
533. At obliterative endarteritis first affected:
A. * Peripheral arteries.
B. Inguinal artery.
C. Aorta.
D. Ventral trunk.
E. The upper and lower mesenteric artery.
534. At what disease you can auscultated systolic murmur on the major arteries?
A. * In obliterating atherosclerosis.
B. When occlusive disease.
C. With varicose veins.
D. In acute venous thrombosis shins.
E. When ileofemoralnom venous thrombosis.
535. With the defeat of what artery atherosclerosis can develops Leriche syndrome?
A. * Bifurcation of the aorta, common iliac arteries.
B. Popliteal artery.
C. Arteries of the lower leg.
D. Ventral trunk.
E. Inferior mesenteric artery.
536. What kind of reconstructive operations on the vessels are carried out with Leriche syndrome?
A. * Aorto-femoral prosthesis or bypass surgery.
B. Operation Linton or Kokkett.
C. Leriche's operation.
D. Troyanov-Trendelenburg’s operation, Babcock’ s operation.
E. Embolectomy
537. What kind of reconstructive operations on the major arteries are carried out with obliterating
atherosclerosis?
A. * Endarterectomy, bypass surgery or prosthetic arteries.
B. Leriche's operation.
C. Lumbar sympathectomy.
D. Palm’s operation .
E. Troyanov-Trendelenburg’s operation.
538. What operations are conducted in obliterating endartereite lower extremities?
A. * Lumbar sympathectomy, Leriche's operation.
B. Embolectomy
C. Saphenectomy.
D. Thrombectomy.
E. Intimectomy
539. What kind of manipulation to be done vascular prostheses ifection?
A. * Remove the prosthesis.
B. Catheterization subclavian vein.
C. Catheterization great saphenous vein.
D. Fasciotomy.
E. Necrectomy.
540. Named the arteries that catheterization for aortography with bilateral Leriche syndrome?
A. * Brachial artery.
B. Total n artery.
C. Thigh iliac artery.
D. Subclavian artery.
E. Rear leg artery
541. Aorto-occlusive disease at arteriogram characterized by:
A. * Uniform narrowing of the lumen of the arteries of the lower extremities.
B. Occlusion of peripheral arteries.
C. Uneven narrowing of the lumen of the arteries of the lower extremities.
D. Occlusion of collateral arteries.
E. Occlusion of capillaries.
542. Lumbar sympathectomy is accompanied by:

A. * Removing the spasm of precapillary sphincter .
B. Decrease in prothrombin index.
C. Normalization of glucose.
D. Increased protein content in blood serum.
E. Normalization of bilirubin in the blood serum.
543. The most severe complication after reconstructive operations on the major arteries are:
A. * Bleeding
B. Suppuration
C. Thrombosis
D. Chylorrhea
E. Phlebeurysm
544. At occlusive disease of the lower extremities performed :
A. * Lumbar sympathectomy, Leriche's operation
B. Linton’s operation
C. Bypass surgery
D. Intimectomy
E. Troyanov – Trandelenburg’s operation
545. What are the indications for lumbar sympathectomy at obliterating endartereite?
A. * Stage II
B. Stage IV
C. Gangrene of the lower extremity
D. Deep venous thrombosis
E. The duration of reactive hyperemia was more than 3 minutes
546. At segmental occlusion of the bifurcation of the femoral artery what operation is performed:
A. * Endarterectomy of the femoral artery
B. Bifurcation bypass surgery

C. Iliac-femoral bypass surgery
D. Saphenectomy
E. Artery ligation
547. At segmental occlusion of the superficial femoral artery what operation is performed:
A. * Autogenous vein bypass
B. Endarterectomy of the femoral artery
D. Saphenectomy
E. Artery ligation
548. At segmental occlusion of the popliteal artery what operation is performed:
A. * Autogenous vein bypass
B. Endarterectomy of the femoral artery
D. Saphenectomy
E. Artery ligation
549. At segmental occlusion of the iliac artery what operation is performed:
A. * Iliac-femoral aloshuntirovanie
B. Autogenous vein bypass
C. Endarterectomy of the femoral artery
D. Saphenectomy
E. Artery ligation
550. Endarterectomy is performed at:
A. * Atherosclerosis obliterans
B. Occlusive disease
C. Varicose
E. Lymphedema
551. Agents, which cause peritonitis, can be all except for:

A. urines at the break of urinary bladder
B. tables of contents the stomach during the perforation of ulcer
C. to blood at the trauma of stomach
D. biles during the perforation of gall-bladder
E. * air in an abdominal region after laparoscopy research
552. Peritonitis does not develop at the next form of acute appendicitis
A. * catarrhal
B. phlegmonous
C. gangrenous
D. perforatiove
E. gangrenous-perforatiove
553. In classic motion of peritonitis select the stages:
A. early, intermediate, late
B. reactive, intermediate, late
C. toxic, intoxication, terminal
D. * reactive, toxic, terminal
E. reactive, toxic, late
554. For the terminal stage of peritonitis not characteristically:
A. Tachycardia
B. * bradycardia
C. hyperthermia
D. falling of arteriotony
E. dynamic intestinal impassability
555. To the local isolated peritonitis does not attribute:
A. subdiaphragmatic abscess
B. subhepatic abscess
C. interintestinal abscess
D. * primary idiopathic peritonitis
E. abscess cystic-rectal spaces
556. At festering peritonitis the disorder of hemodynamics not conditioned:
A. * by the decline of volume the circulatory blood
B. by the increase of volume the circulatory blood
C. by the decline of tone the vascular wall
D. by the change of properties the hemorheologys
E. by violation of cardiovascular activity
557. The complex treatment of festering peritonitis does not provide for:
A. delete of primary hearth
B. * vagotomy
C. correction the metabolic violations
D. adequate therapy by antibiotics
E. struggle of paresis the intestine
558. In the dynamics of acute peritonitis it is necessary positive to consider
A. * decline of amount the leucocytes
B. increase of amount the leucocytes
C. leucocytosis with the change of leukocytic formula to the left
D. growth of the leukocytic index intoxication
E. leukopenia
559. The diagnostics criteria of the anaerobic peritonitis is
A. stormy progress of disease
B. heavy festering intoxication
C. expressed enteroplegia
D. abundant amount of exsudate green-brown colors
E. * all is transferred
560. A prophylaxis and treatment of postoperative enteroplegias at peritonitis is
A. gastrotomy
B. gastrointestinotomy
C. * nasogastrointestinal intubation
D. intubation of abdominal region
E. intubation of stuffing-box bag
561. For the reactive stage of festering peritonitis not characteristically:
A. acute sickliness the stomach at palpation
B. positive Shchetkin-Blyumberg’s symptom
C. tension of muscles the front abdominal wall
D. * face of «Hippocrates»
E. tachycardia
562. Symptom of the toxic «scissors» at peritonitis it:
A. increase of temperature and pulse
B. diminishing of temperature and pulse
C. * diminishing of temperature and increase of pulse
D. increase of temperature and diminishing of pulse
E. increase of temperature and diminishing of breathing frequency
563. Postoperative peritonitis is characterized a flow:
A. typical
B. atypical
C. stormy
D. with the expressed pain reaction
E. * with the expressed intoxication
564. What must be done in the case of development the postoperative peritonitis?
A. * to appoint antibiotics
B. to appoint anaesthetic
C. to execute laparocenthezis
D. to execute lasparoscopy
E. to execute laparotomy
565. The most informing method the instrumental diagnostics of peritonitis is:
A. * survey sciagraphy of abdominal region
B. lasparoscopy
C. angiography
D. gastroscopy
E. colonoscopy
566. With what disease above all things is it necessary to differentiate the acute peritonitis?
A. Hepar-kidney syndrome
B. * ischemic abdominal syndrome
C. adrenogenital syndrome
D. Horner’s syndrome
E. diencephalic syndrome
567. Decision role in differential diagnostics the peritonitis and dissecting aneurysm of aorta , there is
a symptom:
A. aperistalsis
B. acute pain in a stomach
C. * systole noise above the abdominal department of aorta
D. absence of pulsation of abdominal department of aorta
E. melena at rectal research
568. Draining the abdominal region is conducted at:
A. phlegmonous appendicitis without exudation
B. * gangrenous appendicitis with exudation
C. phlegmonous appendicitis with serosal exudation odourless
D. there is not a right answer
E. catarrhal appendicitis
569. Preoperated complication of acute appendicitis
A. * diffusive peritonitis
B. intra-abdominal bleeding
C. suppuration of wound
D. eventeration wounds
E. there are not a right answer
570. Tension of muscles the right iliac area at the perforation of duodenal ulcer is explained
A. by development of the diffusive peritonitis
B. * by reflex connections through medullispinal nerves
C. flowing down of gastric content in a right lateral channel
D. entering of air abdominal region
E. viscero-visceral connections with a vermicular appendix
571. For perforative appendicitis characteristically
A. tension the muscles of front abdominal wall
B. there is the sudden strengthening of stomach-aches
C. rapid growth of clinical picture the peritonitis
D. Razdolskuy’s symptom
E. * all transferred
572. For peritonitis in the first 24 hours not typical
A. aperistalsis intestine
B. * kullenkamp’s symptom
C. tachycardia
D. dry language
E. tension the muscles of abdominal wall and positive Shchetkin-Blyumberg’s symptom
573. Tension of abdominal wall and stage peritonitis at acute appendicitis
A. absents, a stomach is swollen - terminal
B. absents, a stomach is not swollen - terminal
C. * expressed, a stomach is not swollen - terminal

D. absents, a stomach is swollen - toxic
E. absents, a stomach is swollen – initial
574. Patient with a gangrenous cholecystitis is indicating:
A. * Urgent operation
B. Operation at default of effect from conservative therapy
C. Conservative treatment
D. Deferred operation
E. A decision-making depends on age of patient
575. Intraoperative cholangiograpy at cholecystectomy used for
A. Researches of peristalsis the general bilious channel
B. Retrograde filling of intrahepatic bilious channels
C. Researches tone the sphincter Oddi
D. * Exceptions concrements in channels
E. Exposures cholangitis
576. Can not stipulate a mechanical icterus
A. Cancer the head of pancreas
B. * Stone of cystic channel
C. Chronic pancreatitis
D. Stone the general bilious channel
E. Tumour large duodenal papilla
577. Most widespread laparoscopic operation at bile-stone illness:
A. Cholecystectomy with revision the bilious ways
B. Ideal cholecysectomy
C. * Choledoholitotomy
D. Cholecystectomy
E. All answers are right
578. The liquid painted a bile in an abdominal region is not observed at

A. * Break pus hydatidoma
B. To the protracted mechanical icterus
C. Spontaneous bilious peritonitis
D. Perforations of gall-bladder
E. Perforations the ulcer of duodenum
579. The special research extrahepatic bilious ways is absolutely indicated at:
A. Shallow stone in common bile duct, suspicion on stenosis the large duodenal papilla, expansion
of the common bile duct, mechanical icterus in the moment of operation
B. Suspicion on stenosis of large duodenal papilla, expansion of the common bile duct, mechanical
icterus in the moment of operation
C. At expansion of the common bile duct
D. * All right
E. All not right
580. Indications to special intraoperaive examination bilious ways
A. * A cholangitis, expansion of the common bile duct, plural shallow concrements in a gall-bladder,
mechanical icterus in anamnesis
B. Cholangitis, expansion of the common bile duct, plural shallow concrements in a gall-bladder
C. Expansion of the common bile duct, icterus in the moment of operation, plural shallow
concrements in a gall-bladder
D. Expansion of the common bile duct, mechanical icterus in anamnesis
E. All right
581. Acute cholecystitis usually begins with
A. Increases the temperature
B. Appearances the vomiting
C. * Pains under a rib on the right
D. Disorders of chair
E. Weights are in a epigastria area
582. The attack of hepatic (bilious) colic development
A. * Suddenly, acutely
B. After a initial period

C. Gradually, gradually
D. After the protracted starvation
E. After supercooling
583. Characteristic laboratory sign of the acute uncomplicated cholecystitis
A. Diastasuria
B. * Leykocytosis
C. Hypoglycemia
D. Glucosuria
E. Hyperbillirubinemia
584. The index litogenic bile is determined correlation
A. Cholesterol, billirubine and lecithin
B. Billirubine, bilious acids and lecithin
C. Cholesterol, bilious acids and bilirubine
D. * Cholesterol, bilious acids and lecithin
E. Billirubine and lecithin
585. What operation is used for suppuration the pseudocysts of pancreas:
A. Cystojejunostomy on the eliminated loop
B. * External draining the cyst
C. Cystogastrostomy
D. Cystoduodenostomy
E. Cystoenteroanastomosis
586. What operation is used for the pseudocyst of pancreas in the 3th stage of its forming:
A. * Cystojejunostomy on the eliminated loop
B. External draining the cyst
C. Cystogastrostomy
D. Cystoduodenostomy
587. What operation is most often used for localization the formed pseudocyst in the area of tail the
pancreas:
A. Cystojejunostomy on the eliminated loop
B. External draining the cyst
C. Cystogastrostomy
D. * Cystoduodenostomy
588. What preparations from the cytostatic group use for intensifying the chronic pancreatitis:
A. Cyanocobalamin
B. Methyluracil
C. * 5-fluorouracil
D. Furadolizon
E. Mezimforte
589. What most effective blocker secretion of pancreas at acute pancreatitis:
A. Cyanocobalamin
B. Ubretid
C. Arginine
D. * Sandostatin
E. Benzogeksoniy
590. Indication to early operative interference at acute pancreatitis is:
A. Acute oedematous pancreatitis
B. Acute pancreatolysis
C. * Acute biliary pancreatitis
D. Acute fatty pancreatitis
E. Forming of pseudocyst

A. Acute oedematous pancreatitis
B. Acute pancreatolysis
C. * Acute traumatic pancreatitis at the „fresh” break the gland
E. A faithful answer is not present
A. Acute pancreatolysis
B. Acute oedematous pancreatitis
C. * Progressive multiple organ failure what not added conservative therapy during 48-72 hours
E. Forming of pseudocyst
593. What from operations does not execute at surgical treatment complicated acute pancreatitis:
A. Through draining the stuffing-box bag
B. Abdominisation the pancreas
C. Omentopankreatopeksiy
D. Left-side resection of gland
E. * Pancreatojejunostomy
594. At pancreatitis abscesses and infected necrosises execute such operations, except for:
A. Opening of abscess with draining
B. Pancreaticnecrsekvestrektomy
C. Pancreaticsekvestrektomy
D. Pancreaticsekvestrektomy with laparostomy
E. * Total pancreatotomy
595. What most effective treatment the unformed uncomplicated cyst is:
A. * Conservative treatment
B. External draining cyst
E.
Cystogastrostomy
596. What most effective treatment the unformed complicated cyst is:
A. Conservative treatment
B. * External draining cyst
E. Cystogastrostomy
597. What most effective treatment the formed uncomplicated cyst is:
A. External draining the cyst
B. Marsupialization
C. Resection the cyst within the limits of the unchanged gland
D. * Cysticenterostomy
E. Cystogastrostomy
598. All surgical interferences at the destructive forms of acute pancreatitis divide on:
A. * Early, late, deferred operations
B. Primary, second, repeated operations
C. Invasion, not invasion operations
D. Complicated, operations are not complicated
E. Not divided
599. What is sequestrotomy:
A. * Delete the necrotic area within the limits of nonviable fabrics
600. Pain in the left shoulder can be rather at
A.
acute cholecystitis
B. perforations the ulcer of duodenum
C. * perforations the gastric ulcer
D. mesenteric lymphadenitis
601. At percusion in the first clock after perforation the ulcer more possibly
A. * dulling in the gently sloping places of stomach
B. expansion of percusion border of liver
C. tympanitis in left subcosctal area
D. expansion of percusion border the spleen
602. For differentiation of acute appendicitis with the covered perforete ulcer useful
A. gastroduodenoscopy, X-rye of abdominal region, laparoscopy
B. gastroduodenoscopy, X-rye of abdominal region, USD of abdominal region
C. survey X-rye of abdominal region, USD of abdominal region, irrigoscopy
D. X-rye of abdominal region, irrigoscopy
E. * X-rye of abdominal region, laparoscopy
603. Relative absolute indication to operative treatment ulcerous illness is
A. * penetration of ulcer
B. ulcerous anamnesis more than 15 years
C. malignization ulcers
D. perforation of ulcer
E. relapses more than 3 times per a year
604. Udin’s sing at a perforated ulcer is
A. * feeling at palpation shove the gases which penetrate through the perforated opening
B. dulling perforated sound in the lateral departments of stomach
C. disappearance of hepatic dullness
D. irradiation pain in a shoulder or shoulder-blade

E. sickliness the back vault of vagina
605. Absolute sign of unstable hemostasis
A. * profluvium blood from a vessel;
B. absence blood in a stomach and bulb of duodenum;
C. presence light blood and faltungs of blood in a stomach;
D. all answers are correct;
E. all answers are not correct
606. Absolute indication to operative treatment the ulcerous illness is
A. heavy pain syndrome
B. * perforation of ulcer
C. relapses more than 2 one time per a year
D. ulcerous anamnesis more than 10 years
E. giant ulcers
A. * voluminous bleeding
B. callous ulcers
C. relapses more than 2 one time per a year
D. ulcerous anamnesis more than 10 years
E. heavy pain syndrome
A. ulcerous anamnesis more than 10 years
B. * bleeding what do not stopped with conservative
C. perforation ulcer in anamnesis
D. heavy pain syndrome
E. relapses more than 3 times per a year
A. relapses more than 2 one time per a year

B. ulcerous anamnesis more than 10 years
C. relapse ulcer after the resection of stomach
D. relapses more than 3 times per a year
E. * cicatrical-ulcerous stenosis of pylorus
A. relapses more than 2 one time per a year
B. * malignization ulcers
C. ulcerous anamnesis more than 10 years
D. heavy pain syndrome, proof heartburn
E. relapse ulcer after vagotomy
611. Patient which the gastroenteric bleeding in house is necessary
A. * To send a patient in surgical permanent establishment
B. To appoint rest, enter Cacl, vicasol
C. To wash a stomach, appoint a cold, rest of supervision
D. To send a patient in a therapeutic gastroenterology separation
E. A right answer absents
612. In what area of stomach practically never is not origin of ulcers, or it is extraordinarily rarely?
A. small curvature of stomach;
B. back wall of stomach, nearer to small curvature;
C. large curvature of stomach
D. * cardiac part of stomach;
E. pylorus.
613. Esophagogastroduodenoscopy can find out next changes in a stomach, except for
A. tumours
B. ulcers
C. bleeding polypuses
D. erosions
E. * changes of evacuation function
614. Hemobilia is
A. * all answers are correct;
B. bleeding the bilious ways and liver;
C. bleeding the general bilious channel;
D. bloody clot in the big duodenal papilla;
E. all answers are not correct.
615. To absolute indication to operative interference at ulcerous illness does not belong
A. * scarry-ulcerous stenosis
B. perforation of ulcer
C. profuse bleeding
D. diameter ulcer a more than 3 cm
E. bleeding what does not stopped with conservative
616. Diet at bleeding gastric and duodenum ulcers
A. * Meulengracht's
B. № 1 by Pevznerom
C. № 5 by Pevznerom
D. № 15 by Pevznerom
E. № 7 by Pevznerom
617. What from the transferred operations does not belong to organ protective
A. trunk vagotomy
B. * resection by Bilrot II
C. selective vagotomy
D. selective proximal vagotomy
E. the all transferred does not belong
618. At a subhepatic abscess can take place all, except for:
A. decline of respiratory excursion the lights

B. high standing of diaphragm dome
C. accumulation the exudate in a pleura cavity
D. pains what irradietion in a supraclavicular area
E. * diarrhea
619. At a subhepatic abscess can take place all, except for:
A. pains in a thorax with an irradiation in a supraclavicular area
B. reactive pleurisy
C. Courvoisier's symptom
D. Senator’s symptom
E. * Dyushen’s symptom
620. Least answers a subhepatic abscess:
A. Senator’s symptom
B. Dyushen’s symptom
C. Liten’s symptom
D. Rovzing’s symptom
E. * ShchotkiN-Blyumberg’s symptom
621. . The leading symptom of peritonitis is:
A. * stomach-ache
B. enteroplegia
C. swelling of stomach
D. symptoms the irritation of peritoneum
E. symptoms of the intestinal impassability
622. Widespread festering peritonitis is investigation of all above-stated diseases, except for:
A. * perforative ulcers of duodenum
B. phlegmonous cholecystitis
C. hydrocholecystiss
D. destructive pancreatitis
E. volvulus of sigmoid bowel
623. Specify obligatory measures which are conducted during an operation concerning widespread
fibrinopurulent peritonitis:
A. * removal the source of peritonitis
B. sanitization of the abdominal region.
C. decompression of intestine.
D. draining of abdominal region.
E. all answers are faithful
624. Specify a criterion which grounds the choice of middle laparotomy access at the deffusion
festering peritonitis:
A. * minimum trauma the abdominal wall
B. minimum cut
C. valuable revision the abdominal region.
D. minimum blood loss.
E. minimum level of infecting the wound
625. For what purpose in treatment of diffusive festering peritonitis does execute nasointestinal
intubation?
A. account of losses the liquid through a gastroenteric highway.
B. control of electrolyte composition the intestinal maintenance
C. prophylaxis of intestinal impassability
D. * stimulation of the intestinal peristalsis
E. suppression of the intestinal peristalsis
626. Specific symptom of perforation declivous organ in a free abdominal region is:
A. high leucocytosis.
B. absence of intestinal noises.
C. * pneumoperitoneum.
D. positive symptoms of irritation the peritoneum.
E. dulling of the percusion sound in the gently sloping places of abdominal region
627. For perforeted ulcer characteristically

A. * tension the muscles of front abdominal wall
B. melena
C. vomiting by coffee-grounds
D. high intestinal impassability
E. vomiting stagnant gastric maintenance
628. For the heavy flow of ulcerous illness characteristically
A. 2 and anymore relapses on a year
B. * 3 and anymore relapses on a year
C. 4 and anymore relapses on a year
D. 5 and more relapses are on a year
E. 6 and more relapses are on a year
629. For motion of disease ulcerous illness of middle weight characteristically
A. development of complications
B. * relapses 1-2 times per a year
C. 4 and anymore relapses on a year
D. 5 and more relapses are on a year
E. 3 and anymore relapses on a year
630. What is pancreatectomy:
D. * Total delete of organ

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A. * The site of crossing with left bronchus

B. The site of pharyngoesophageal junction

C. The site of crossing with aorta

D. The site of passing through diaphragm

E. The site of cardia

2. The site of passing through diaphragm is:

A. * The third anatomical narrowing of esophagus

B. The first anatomical narrowing of esophagus

C. The second anatomical narrowing of esophagus

D. The first physiological narrowing of esophagus

E. The second physiological narrowing of esophagus

3. The site of crossing with aorta is:

A. * The first physiological narrowing of esophagus

B. The first anatomical narrowing of esophagus

C. The second anatomical narrowing of esophagus

D. The third anatomical narrowing of esophagus

E. The second physiological narrowing of esophagus

4. The site of cardia is:

A. * The second physiological narrowing of esophagus

B. The first anatomical narrowing of esophagus

C. The second anatomical narrowing of esophagus

D. The third anatomical narrowing of esophagus

E. The first physiological narrowing of esophagus

5. What is the mechanism of formation of pulsion diverticula?

B. Inflammatory changes of paraesophageal tissues

C. Dilatation of esophagus caused by achalasia

D. Changes of esophagus caused by chemical burns

E. Changes of esophagus caused by reflux esophagitis

6. What is the mechanism of formation of traction diverticula?

A. * Inflammatory changes of paraesophageal tissues

B. Herniation of the esophageal wall proximal to anatomical narrowing

C. Dilatation of esophagus caused by achalasia

D. Changes of esophagus caused by chemical burns

E. Changes of esophagus caused by reflux esophagitis

7. What can bifurcational diverticula result in?

A. * Esophago-bronchial fistula with aspiration pneumonia

C. Cyanosis of the upper part of body

D. Compressible mass on the left side of the neck

8. What is the main objective manifestation of epiphrenal diverticula?

B. Cyanosis of the upper part of body

C. Compressible mass on the left side of the neck

D. Esophago-bronchial fistula with aspiration pneumonia

9. What is the main method of diagnostic of esophageal diverticula?

10. What is the indication for conservative treatment of bifurcational diverticula?

B. Frequently recurrent diverticulites

11. What operation is performed in esophageal diverticula?

E. Esophageal plastics by intestine

12. What surgical access should be applied for Zenker's diverticula?

A. * Cervical access along the anterior border of the sternocleidomastoid muscle

B. Left-sided anterolateral thoracotomy in ІV intercostal space

C. Right-sided posterolateral thoracotomy in ІV intercostal space

D. Left-sided posterolateral thoracotomy in VІІ intercostal space

E. Right-sided anterolateral thoracotomy in VІІ intercostal space

13. What surgical access should be applied for bifurcational diverticula?

A. * Right-sided posterolateral thoracotomy in ІV intercostal space

B. Cervical access along the anterior border of the sternocleidomastoid muscle

C. Left-sided anterolateral thoracotomy in ІV intercostal space

D. Left-sided posterolateral thoracotomy in VІІ intercostal space

E. Right-sided anterolateral thoracotomy in VІІ intercostal space

14. What surgical access should be applied for epiphrenal diverticula?

A. * Left-sided posterolateral thoracotomy in VІІ intercostal space