1.

CS The most suggestive sign in the diagnosis of acute appendicitis is:

A. Dieulafoy Triad

B. Kocher sign

C. Bartomier-Michelson sign

D. Sitkovsky sign

E. The Blumberg sign

2. CS Note which layer of the appendicular wall has a large number of follicles, for which the appendix has
been called the "abdominal amygdala":

A. lining

B. submucosa

C. Muscle

D. serous

E. All answers are correct.

3. CS Select the correct statement regarding the treatment of the appendix plastron in the infiltration
phase:

A Conservative

B. Chrurgical

Medico-surgical C.

D. physiotherapist

E. All answers are correct

4. CS The preferred approach route in Douglas bag abscess is:

A. Rectotomie

B. Subombilical laparotomy

C. Laparotomy in the right iliac fossa

D. By upper- and sub-umbilical laparotomy

E. Kocher-type laparotomy

5. CS Maneuver Blumberg consists of:

A. Pain caused by palpation of the right iliac fossa

B. Pain in the right iliac fossa at the extension of the body

C. Pain in the right iliac fossa in the rectal cough

D. Pain in sudden decompression in the right iliac fossa

E. Pain in the right iliac fossa on palpation when flexion of the lower right limb

6. CS The Kocher sign in the case of acute appendicitis signifies the onset of pain in:

A. Right iliac fossa

B. epigastric

C. On the entire surface of the abdomen

D. Left iliac fossa

E. hypogastrium

7. CS A tensed appendage "crunched" at the tip, with the matt silk and infiltrated mesh indicates a process
of:

A. Acute catarrhal appendicitis

B. Acute phlegmonous appendicitis

C. Chronic appendicitis

D. Acute gangrenous appendicitis

E. Acute perforative appendicitis

8. CM Causes determining in acute appendicitis are:

A. Microbial infection

B. Filling of the lumen of the vermicular appendix

C. Localization of the vermicular appendix

D. Length of vermicular appendix

E. The diameter of the vermicular appendix

9. CS The cardinal functional sign of acute appendicitis is:

A. Abdominal pain

B. anorexia

C. nausea.

D. Vomiting

E. Intestinal transit disorders

10. CS Regarding the frequency of acute appendicitis, the following can be stated, EXCEPT:

A. It is the most common abdominal emergency

B. The frequency in the elderly is higher

C. During puberty and adolescence, female sex seems to be more affected

D. The frequency is lower in newborns and infants

E. The maximum frequency is in the first 3 decades of life

11. CM Acute appendicitis in children up to 3 years requires less differential diagnosis with:

A. Check tumors

B. Mesenteric adenitis

C. Intestinal invagination

D. Gastroenteritis

E. Genital disorders

12. CS In the clinical examination of a patient with acute appendicitis, the Rovsing sign represents:

A. Muscular defense located in the right iliac fossa

B. Pain in the right iliac fossa when performing the rectal cough

C. Pain that appears in the right iliac fossa after abrupt decompression of the abdominal wall of this area

D. Pain in the right iliac fossa due to deep compression of the left iliac fossa

E. Disappearance of intestinal peristalsis

13. CS In the elderly, the clinical picture of acute appendicitis at onset is:
A. Attenuated

B. Brutal installed

C. In two stages

D. Typical for the condition

E. Headache-dominated

14. CS At the onset of acute appendicitis the site of pain in 30% is in:

A. Right hypochondrium

B. epigastric

C. Left hypochondrium

D. Straight iliac fossa

E. Left iliac fossa

15. CS The appendix plastron is:

A. Evolutionary complication of initially untreated acute appendicitis

B. Neoplastic lesion

C. Crohn's disease product

D. Product of gastric perforation

E. Product of acute cholecystitis

16. CS Blumberg sign in acute appendicitis manifests through pain:

A. At abrupt decompression of the abdominal wall within the right iliac fossa

B. Caused by palpation of the right iliac fossa

C. In the iliac fossa straight to the extension of the body

D. On palpation in the right iliac fossa with epigastric irradiation

E. In the right iliac fossa at the air inlet in the rectum

17. CS Periombilical pain and symptoms Kummel, Krasnobaev are more common in acute appendicitis:

A. subhepatic
B. In the elderly

C. Retrocecală

D. Mezoceliacă

E. pelvic

18. CS The most secure method of closing the appendix after the appendectomy is:

A. Catgut ligation of the appendix abutment

B. Invagination of the appendicular stump in the wall of the check with the "bag" and "Z" stitches

C. "In-stock" invagination of the appendicular abutment without its ligation

D. Catgut ligation of the appendicular abutment and its "in the bursa" invagination with atraumatic catgut

E. Catgut ligation of the appendix abutment and its invagination in the check wall with insulated wires

19. CS In the infiltrative phase of the appendicular plastron the therapeutic attitude is reduced to:

A. Conservative treatment (ice bag, diet, antibiotics, physiotherapy)

B. Surgical treatment in young people

C. Surgical treatment in the elderly

D. Surgical treatment when the process is located in the pelvis

E. Surgical treatment when a cancer of the check is not excluded clinically

20. CS The early major sign of appendicitis acute is:

A. Anorexia

B. vomiting

C. Fever

D. Diarrhea

E. Pain in the right iliac fossa

21. CS In children more commonly acute appendicitis requires differentiation with:

A. Perforated ulcer

B. Acute cholecystitis
C. Food poisoning

D. Renal colic

E. Acute pancreatitis

22. CS The most common position of the vermicular appendix is:

A. Side

B. downside

C. Retrocecală

D. Ascending

E. MEDIA

23. CS Indicate the access pathway in acute appendicitis with diffuse peritonitis:

A. Lenander

B. McBurney

C. Otto Gerhard Karl Sprengel

D. Median-median laparotomy

E. Lower middle laparotomy

24. CS Acute appendicitis in the elderly imposes the tactic:

A. Expectation, because a plastron is often formed

B. Emergency surgery

C. Irrigation to rule out cancer, commonly encountered at this age

D. Initial treatment of comorbidities

E. Antibiotic treatment only

25. CS Optimal drainage of the peritoneal cavity after appendectomy in destructive appendicitis,
complicated with local purulent peritonitis is:

A. Exteriorization of the tubular drain by counter-opening outside the wound

B. Exteriorization of the tubular drain through the wound

C. Applying the gauze pad

D. Drain both iliac pits with 2 drainage tubes

E. Drainage is not required

26. CS Dieulafoy Triad in acute appendicitis implies:

A. Pain in the epigastric with posterior displacement in the medium over 4-6 hours in the right iliac fossa,
skin hyperesthesia and muscular defense in the Iacobovici triangle

B. Pain caused by palpation, muscular defense and skin hyperesthesia in the Iacobovici triangle

C. Anorexia, pain caused and muscular defense in the Iacobovici triangle

D. Pain caused, skin hyperesthesia in the Iacobovici triangle, moderate fever

E. Local muscular rigidity, superficial hyperesthesia, testicular symptoms

27. CM The optimal medical-surgical tactic in the confirmed abscess appendix plastron is:

A. Conservative therapy, including antibiotic therapy and physiotherapy

B. Extraperitoneal drainage of the abscess (after Pirogov)

C. Abscess drainage under ultrasound control

D. Drainage of the abscess through inferior median laparotomy

E. McBurney type oblique incision drainage

28. CS The most argued theory of the origin of acute appendicitis is:

A. Infectious

B. polyetiologic

C. Mechanical

Cortico-visceral D.

E. Chemical

29. CS Pain in the palpation of the abdomen in acute appendicitis most commonly occurs in:

A. Sonnenburg Point

B. Wenglovschi triangle

C. McBurney Point
D. The Iacobovici triangle

E. Lanz Point

30. CS Indicate the most common morphological form of acute appendicitis:

A mule

B. We use the appendix

C. gangrenosum

D. drills

E. phlegmon

31. CM The follow-up of the evolution of the appendicular plastron is done by clinical and paraclinical
examination. Select them.

A thermometer

B. Leukocytosis in dynamics

C. Dynamic determination of alkaline phosphatase

D. Dynamic abdominal ultrasonography

E. The evolution of the dimensions of the inflammatory formation

32. CM The clinical picture of acute appendicitis at onset includes:

A. Fever and vomiting anticipate pain in the abdomen

B. Vomits, which appear shortly after the onset of pain in the abdomen

C. The feeling of nausea is confirmed after the pain in the abdomen

D. Gas shutdown, ballooning of the abdomen

E. May be diarrhea

33. CM Mark the sides of the Iacobovici triangle: A. Bispinal line

B. Subombilical midline

C. External margin of the rectus abdominal muscle

C. Right external third of the bispinal line E. Right spinal umbilical line
34. CM What statements are correct regarding acute appendicitis with location in the herniated sac:

A. The inflamed appendix is found in the inguinal hernia sac

B. Simulate a strangled hernia

C. It is called the Littre hernia

D. Can develop into phlegm of the hernia sac

E. It is called Amyand hernia

35. CM The appendicular plastron can be manifested by the following signs:

A. Painless formation in the right iliac fossa

B. Alteration of the general condition is accompanied by diarrhea

C. Pain in palpation in the right iliac fossa

D. The presence of fluctuation in the right iliac fossa

E. Pain formation with irregular contour located in the right iliac fossa

36. CM Which of the following symptoms correspond to the clinical picture of acute appendicitis?

A. Epigastric pain

B. Spontaneous and provoked pain in the right iliac fossa

C. Nausea and vomiting

D. Generalized colicative abdominal pain

E. Repeated diarrheal chairs that ease the patient's condition

37. CM In the acute acute appendicitis found the following medical-surgical manipulations are required:

A. Laxative medication

B. Evacuation clamps

C. Broad-spectrum antibiotics

D. Surgical intervention

E. Laparoscopic appendectomy

38. CS The most common appendicular abscess is located:

A. Mezoceliac

B. Pelvic

C. subhepatic

D. Retrocecal

E. Between the bowels of the small intestine

39. CM Generalized peritonitis of appendicular origin is characterized by:

A. Altered general condition

B. Intestinal transit der heifer

C. Fever

D. Leukocytosis 15-20,000

E. Abdominal pain with posterior irradiation

40. CM Indicate the clinical signs of acute appendicitis in adults at the onset of the disease:

A. Pain in the right iliac fossa

B. Early inattention

C. Fever greater than 39 ° C

D. The flavored tongue

E. Stopping the intestinal transit

41. CM Indicate possible variants of evolution of the appendix plastron:

A. Two-stage generalized peritonitis

B. Favorable after medical treatment

C. Abcedare

D. It always regresses spontaneously

E. fistulization

42. CM The morphopathological forms of acute appendicitis are:

A mule

B. Toxic
C. gangrenosum

D. phlegmon

E. Cystic

43. CS The rectal cough made in the patient with acute appendicitis may reveal the following sign:

A. Mendelson

B. Rovsing

C. Blumberg

D. Kulenkampff

E. Dieulafoy

44. CM The differential diagnosis of acute appendicitis in children is made with:

A. Acute gastroenteritis

B. Mesenteric adenitis

C. Intestinal invagination

D. omphalocele

E. Urinary tract infection

45. CM Select the correct positioning variants of the vermicular appendix:

A. Retrocecală

B. Mezoceliacă

C. retrogastric

D. pelvic

E. Juxtapancreatică

46. CM Indicate the clinical signs of the appendicular plastron in the infiltrative phase:

A. Leucocytosis

B. Painful tumor, with diffuse contours, occurring 3-5 days after the onset of the disease

C. Positive Blumberg sign in the right iliac fossa

D. The fluctuation phenomenon in the right iliac fossa

E. Fever

47. CM Which of the following statements regarding acute appendicitis is true:

A. Pain in the right iliac fossa

B. Fever is a characteristic sign in the elderly

C. Leukocytosis is always present

D. The pulse is diminished

E. Can evolve into peritonitis

48. CM Acute appendicitis with generalized peritonitis requires differentiation with:

A. Intestinal occlusion

B. Nephrolithiasis

C. Thrombosis of the mesenteric vessels

D. Acute pancreatitis

E. Atypical perforated ulcer

49. CM Indicate the correct statements that characterize subhepatic acute appendicitis:

A. It may manifest as renal colic

B. It is more common in adults

C. Can be accompanied by subicter

D. Muscle defense and maximal pain are located in the subhepatic region

E. It develops like an acute cholecystitis

50. CM The differential diagnosis of acute appendicitis in adults is made with:

A. Perforated gastroduodenal ulcer

B. Mallory-Weiss Syndrome

C. Food poisoning

D. Acute pancreatitis
E. Renal colic

51. CM Acute appendicitis in the elderly shows the following signs:

A. Noisy debut and rapid evolution

B. Weak muscle contracture

C. Pain caused by palpation in the right iliac fossa

D. Meteorism accompanied by abdominal pain

E. Moderate leukocytosis with deviation of leukocyte formula to the left

52. CM The following conditions can simulate acute retrocecal appendicitis:

A. Acute cholecystitis

B. Paranephral abscess

C. Meckel diverticulum inflammation

D. Hydronephrosis on the right

E. Piel

53. CM Indicate the incorrect statements regarding the abscessed appendix platon:

A. The appendectomy is mandatory

B. Emergency appendectomy is performed

C. The appendix is removed only if it is amputated

D. Surgery is not practiced

E. Only conservative treatment is done, including antibiotic therapy, physiotherapy

54. CM Specify 2 more important and constant factors in the onset of acute appendicitis:

A. Nervous

B. Vascular

infective C.

D. Chemical

E. Obstructive

55. CM The particularities of acute appendicitis in pregnant women are the following:
A. The muscle contracture is poorly pronounced

B. It occurs more frequently in the second half of pregnancy

C. Destructive forms are common

D. Pain and vomiting are confused with those due to pregnancy

E. Of great diagnostic value are the signs Bartomier-Michelson, Obraztsov, Cope

56. CM I can simulate the following acute pelvic appendicitis:

A. pyonephrosis

B. Meckel diverticulum inflammation

C. Ectopic pregnancy

Appendix D.

E. Abscess of psoas muscle

57. CM Select the useful signs for differentiating acute appendicitis from acute genital disorders in women:

A. Promtov sign

B. The Dieulafoy sign

C. The Jendrinsky sign

D. Kulenkampff sign

E. Bartomier-Michelson sign

58. CM The appendix plastron can evolve towards:

A. resorption

B. Abcedare

C. Generalized peritonitis without going through the abscess phase

D. Two-stage peritonitis

E. Fistualizare

59. CM Which laboratory tests are recommended in the diagnosis of acute appendicitis?

A. WBC counts
B. Glucose

C. Urine sediment

D. Liver tests

E. Alkaline phosphatase

60. CS Which of the factors involved in the onset of acute appendicitis is most important?

A. Spasm or thrombosis of the appendix

B. Excess protein in the food ration

C. General and intestinal infections

D. Appendix obstruction

E. The peculiarities of the ileocecoapendicular region

61. CM Select the useful methods for specifying the diagnosis of acute appendicitis:

A. Scintigraphy with Tc-labeled leukocytes

B. Abdominal ultrasonography

Laparoscopy C.

D. Abdominal CT

E. radiography

abdominal apnea

62. CM Indicate the measures of preoperative preparation of the patient with acute appendicitis
complicated with diffuse peritonitis:

A. Volumic rebalancing

B. Clister evacuator

C. Laxative administration

D. Nasogastric decompression

E. antibiotics

63. CM Indicate surgical approaches in case of acute uncomplicated appendicitis:

A. Bisubcostală
B. McBurney

C. Lower middle laparotomy

D. Laparoscopic

E. Median median laparotomy

64. CS In case of suspicion of an appendicular plastron without signs of peritoneal reaction to a satisfactory
general state, what solution do you suppose?

A. Expectation under medical treatment

B. Conservative treatment followed by appendectomy immediately after extinguishing the inflammatory

process

C. Laparotomy with drainage of the peritoneal cavity

D. Exterior drainage intervention of the periapendicular abscess

E. Appendectomy

65. CS At 6 days after an intervention for acute perforative appendicitis with generalized peritonitis, the
condition is progressively altered: gastric stasis, hectic fever, Le> 20 000 with deviation, without changes in
the rectal cough and chest x-ray. What complication do you suppose?

A. paralytic ileus

B. Adherent bowel occlusion

C. Residual abscess

D. Tertiary peritonitis

Septicemia E.

66. CM What are the most common complications after appendectomy?

A. Intra-abdominal bleeding

B. Dynamic intestinal occlusion

C. Stercoral fistula

D. Wounding

E. Pulmonary artery thrombembolia

67. CM Select the correct statements regarding laparoscopic appendectomy:

A. Diagnostic errors are excluded

B. The operation is performed with local anesthesia

C. Reducing complications

D. Cosmetic effect

E. Shortening the period of hospitalization and recovery of the patient

68. CS. What will be the tactic in the second semester of pregnancy, if acute appendicitis is confirmed?

A. expectations

B. Surveillance with repeat laboratory explorations every 6 hours

Laparoscopy C.

D. Appendectomy

E. Supervision with supervision

69. CM Within acute appendicitis secondary acute peritonitis occurs due to:

A. Establishment of drug treatment

B. A good reactivity of the body

C. Low virulence of germs

D. Propagation of infection from an inflamed appendix

E. Fistulization in the abdominal cavity of an appendicular plastron

70. CM The differential diagnosis of acute appendicitis is made with:

A. Ingenital adenitis

B. Pulmonary tuberculosis

C. Acute cholecystitis

D. Divergulite Meckel

E. Intestinal invagination

71. CM Gynecological disorders that can mimic acute appendicitis are:

A. Pelvic inflammatory disease

B. Incomplicated pelvic fibromion

C. Ovarian torsion

D. Ovarian cyst rupture

E. Ectopic pregnancy

72. CM In the case of the appendix plastron the therapeutic behavior is:

A. Apply a bag with local ice

B. Antibiotics

C. Hydroelectrolyte rebalancing

D. Bed rest and water diet

E. The patient will be followed in ambulatory conditions and operated for 3 weeks

73. CM Acute appendicitis is most commonly caused by the following microbial agents:

A. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

B. Klebsiella pneumoniae

C. Bacteroides fragilis

D. Streptococcus viridans

E. Escherichia coli

74. CM. List the characteristics of pain in acute appendicitis:

A. It is colicative

B. Coughing accentuates the pain

C. It is pulsatile

D. Initially it can be felt in the epigastric or periombilical

E. Has a sudden onset

75. CM Indicate the correct statements in the appendix plaston:

A. The appendectomy is performed 3-6 weeks after the fever disappears

B. The patient must be admitted, kept under supervision and instituted medical treatment
C. The septic process is missing

D. It evolves due to the low virulence of the germs and the good reactivity of the organism

E. Occurs more frequently than 3 days after onset

76. CM Laparoscopic surgery in acute appendicitis has the following characteristics compared to the
classical one:

A. It is inferior to the classic one

B. Rapid restoration of the patient

C. Short hospitalization

D. Reduced postoperative pain

E. Higher rate of wound complications

77. CM In the vermicular appendix, a hormone is produced, which contributes:

A. When adjusting the function of the sphincter Oddi

B. At the function of the sphincter apparatus of the intestine

C. When the ball is evacuated

D. In intestinal peristalsis

E. No hormone is produced

78. CS The cause of the Kocher sign is:

A. Canceling the appendix

B. Chronic gastritis

C. Reflective vegetative reactions

D. History of appendicular colic

E. Moving the inflammatory fluid from the epigastric to the right iliac fossa

79. CS At the onset of acute appendicitis, vomiting is caused by:

A. Irritation of the splanchnic nerve

B. Intestinal distension
C. Breach of diet

D. Perforation of the appendix

E. Result of irritation of the peritoneum

80. CS McBurney's maximum pain point is located:

A. At the border between the middle and middle third of the line, which unites the iliac spine with the
umbilicus

B. At the border between the lateral and middle thirds of the bispinal line

C. At the border between the lateral third and the middle third of the linen you take, which unites the iliac
spine with the navel

D. At the intersection of the bispinal line and the lateral margin of the straight abdominal muscle

E. At the intersection of the pararectal line with the bispinal line

81. CS The Morris-Kummel maximum pain point is located:

A. At the border between the middle and middle third of the line, which unites the iliac spine with the
umbilicus

B. At the border between the lateral and middle thirds of the bispinal line

C. At the border between the lateral and middle thirds of the line, which unites the iliac spine with the
umbilicus

D. At the intersection of the bispinal line and the lateral margin of the straight abdominal muscle

E. At the intersection of the medioclavicular line with the bispinal line

82. CS Lanz maximum pain point is located:

A. At the border between the medial third and the middle third of the line, which unites the iliac spine with
the umbilicus

B. At the border between the right and middle lateral thirds of the bispinal line

C. At the border between the lateral and middle thirds of the line, which unites the iliac spine with the
umbilicus

D. At the intersection of the bispinal line and the lateral margin of the straight abdominal muscle

E. At the intersection of the white line with the bispinal line

83. CS The palpation of the abdominal wall with the slow compression, followed by the sudden
decompression, which causes the accentuation of the pain is the sign:
A. Rovsing

B. Blumberg

C. Voskresensky

D. Sitkovsky

E. Bartomier-Michelson

84. CS The appearance of pain in the right iliac fossa upon passing the patient into the decubitus on the left,
is the sign:

A. Rovsing

B. Blumberg

C. Voskresensky

D. Sitkovsky

E. Bartomier-Michelson

85. CS What sign is present, if the palpation of the right iliac fossa in the left lateral decubitus causes violent
pain:

A. Rovsing

B. Blumberg

C. Voskresensky

D. Sitkovsky

E. Bartomier-Michelson

86. CS Name the author of the sign that states: raising the right foot at an angle of 90 ° with the
simultaneous palpation of the right iliac fossa causes violent pain:

A. Rovsing

B. Blumberg

C. Voskresensky

D. Sitkovsky

E. Obraztsov
87. CS Acute appendicitis in children has the following particularities:

A. It develops slowly, with moderate abdominal pain, with subfebrile temperament

B. It is noisy, with repeated vomiting, temperature 38-39 °, violent abdominal pain

C. It is classic

D. It manifests through pain in the lumbar region

E. Most commonly occurs in infants

88. CM The causes of the rapid evolution of acute appendicitis in children are:

A. Low reactivity of the body

B. Increased reactivity of the body

C. Late addressing

D. The large omentum is poorly developed

E. The microbial flora is more virulent

89. CM Destructive forms of acute appendicitis are more characteristic in the elderly because:

A. The body's reactivity is low

B. The body's reactivity is increased

C. Vascular factor is present

D. The large omentum is poorly developed

E. The microbial flora is more virulent

90. CS The clinical signs are little obvious, there is no abdominal muscular defense or it is not very
pronounced, the signs Jaure-Rozanov, Giordano are positive. These features are characteristic for:

A. Acute pelvic appendicitis

B. Acute mesocelliac appendicitis

C. Acute retrocecal appendicitis

D. Acute subhepatic appendicitis

E. Typical acute appendicitis

91. CM Perforated ulcer is distinguished from acute appendicitis by the presence of:

A. Levi-Dorn sign

B. Pain in the right iliac region

C. Ulcerative history

D. Pneumotoracelui

E. vomiting

92. CM Nephritic colic is distinguished from acute appendicitis by the lack of:

A. Antalgic position

B. For nausea and vomiting

C. Sign of Spasokukotsky

D. Microhematuriei

E. Blumberg's sign

93. CM Ovarian apoplexy is distinguished from acute appendicitis by:

A. The presence of the pallor of the earthenware

B. The presence of fever

C. Correlation with the phases of the menstrual cycle

D. The presence of hypotension

E. The appearance of lipotemia

94. CM Acute pancreatitis is distinguished from acute appendicitis by:

A. Pain "in the belt"

B. The presence of leukocytosis

C. Presence of amylazemia

D. It is triggered by the copious mass

E. Mistakes, repeated vomiting at the onset of the disease

95. CM Appendicectomy is contraindicated in:

A. The presence of serious associated pathology

B. Appendix plastron

C. appendicular colic

D. Lack of insurance policy

E. Pregnancy

96. CS Indicate the optimum time for appendectomy in the case of an appendicular plastron:

A. Over 3 months after the onset of the disease

B. After improving the patient's condition

C. During the detection of the infiltrate

D. More than 6 months after the onset of the disease

E. Over 3 weeks

97. CS What is the duration of resorption of the appendix plastron:

A. 1-2 weeks

B. 4-6 weeks

C. 9 months

D. Up to 6 months

E. Up to 1 year

98. CS The absolute indication for median laparotomy in case of acute appendicitis is:

A. The appendix plastron

B. Acute appendicitis in pregnant women

C. Diffuse peritonitis

D. Local peritonitis

E. Acute appendicitis in infants

99. CS Acute annexitis is clinically distinct from appendicitis by the following signs, EXCEPT:

A. Promtov sign

B. Aggravated gynecological history

C. Purulent vaginal discharge

D. Jendrinsky's sign

E. Kocher's sign

10 0. CM The appendicular abscess can be treated:

A. Only with antibiotics

B. Surgical

C. Echoidal drainage and "cold" appendectomy

D. Emergency appendectomy

E. Does not require surgical treatment

101. CM Which of the following are not complications of acute appendicitis:

A. pyelonephritis

B. Peritonitis

C. The appendix plastron

D. Thrombophlebitis veni portae

E. Phlebotromosis of the right femoral vein

102. CM The appendix plastron can develop into:

A. Phlebotromosis of the right femoral vein

B. Chronic appendicitis

C. Abcedare

D. Colon cancer

E. Peritonitis in 2 stages

103. CS Median-median laparotomy in acute appendicitis is indicated:

A. In the appendix plastron

B. In retrocecal appendicitis

C. In case of abscess of the retrocecal appendix plastron

D. In diffuse peritonitis

E. In the elderly

104. CS After appendectomy the drainage is maintained:

A. How much fever is maintained

B. Until the sutures are removed

C. How much is pathologically discharged from the peritoneal cavity

D. Until discharge

E. How much serum is contained in the peritoneal cavity

105. CM Indicate possible variants of retrocecal localization of the vermicular appendix:

A. Descending

B. retroperitoneal

C. intramural

D. Side

E. Intraperitoneal

106. CM The normal appendix to the ultrasound is visualized as a tubular structure:

A. Closed at one end

B. Easily compressible, painless

C. compressible

D. With diameter less than or equal to 5 mm

E. With a diameter greater than or equal to 6 mm

107. CM The clinical picture of acute appendicitis depends on the following factors:

A. The patient's age

B. sex

C. Personal pathological background

D. Anatomical position of the inflamed appendix

E. Phase of the inflammatory process in the appendix

108. CM Intra-abdominal abscesses secondary to perforation of the vermicular appendix more frequently
are located in:

A. Right iliac fossa

B. Left colic flexure

C. The Douglas Sack

D. Subhepatic space

E. Between the intestinal loops

109. CM The causes of obstruction of the vermicular appendix are:

A. Extrinsic compression

B. Lymphoid tissue hypertrophy

C. Seeds, seeds

D. ascaridae

E. coprolite

110. CM Indicate gynecological conditions that require differentiation with acute appendicitis:

A. salpingo-oophoritis

B. Intramural uterine fibroma

C. Twisted ovarian cyst

D. Ectopic pregnancy

E. Rupture of the Graaf follicle

111. CM Late complications after appendectomy are:

A. Adhering disease

B. Dehiscence of the appendicular stump

C. Pileflebita

D. Stercoral fistula

E. Postoperative hernia
112. CS In the case of the appendicular plastron, it is recommended to perform the appendectomy after the
acute episode is extinguished at:

A. 7-8 months

B. 3 months

C. 8-10 months

D. 1-2 months

E. 1-2 weeks

113. CS The main cause of acute appendicitis is:

A. Protein-rich diet

B. Appendix ischemia

C. Tuberculosis of the vermicular appendix

D. Microbial infection

E. Viral infection

114. CS Select the correct statement that characterizes acute appendicitis:

A. Identical prevalence by sex

B. Maximum frequency between 10 and 20 years

C. Has a slight preponderance in the elderly

D. Occurs frequently between 5 and 10 years

E. It is a most common abdominal surgical emergency

115. CS Select the correct statement of the Blumberg sign in acute appendicitis:

A. Zone with cutaneous hypersensitivity

B. Muscular defense in the right iliac fossa

C. Acute pain relief in the right iliac fossa upon abrupt abdominal decompression

D. Retrograde mobilization of gases through the colon, which results in painful distension of the check

E. Disappearance of skin reflexes in the right iliac fossa and right side of the abdomen
116. CS Differential diagnosis of acute appendicitis includes the following urological conditions, EXCEPT:

A. glomerulonephritis

B. Right kidney carbuncle

C. pyelonephritis

D. urethritis

E. Kidney colic on the right

117. CM In acute appendicitis the Dieulafoy triad includes:

A. Frison

B. Local pain

C. Muscular defense in the right iliac fossa

D. Fever

E. Skin Hyperesthesia

118. CM In acute appendicitis, the muscular defense is characterized by the following statements:

A. It is accompanied by the diminution of skin reflexes in the left iliac fossa

B. At abdominal wall decompression the pain decreases

C. Indicates the presence of acute peritonitis

D. Initially, it is generalized, localizing at the level of the right iliac fossa

E. Initially it is located in the right iliac fossa, with a tendency towards generalization on the entire surface of
the abdominal wall.

119. CM The differential diagnosis of acute appendicitis is made with:

A. Ingenital adenitis

B. Free inguinal hernia

C. Acute cholecystitis

D. Diverticulitis Meckel

E. Intestinal invagination
120. CM Select gynecological conditions that can mimic acute appendicitis:

A. Pelvic inflammatory disease

B. Uncomplicated uterine fibroma

C. Torsion of the ovarian cyst

D. Ovarian cyst rupture

E. Ectopic pregnancy

121. CS The symptoms of acute appendicitis depend on:

A. The sex of the patient

B. Etiology of the disease

C. Ethnicity of the patient

D. Patient comorbidities

E. Location of the appendix

122. CM To hang the following signs are NOT characteristic:

A. Temperature between 37 and 38 ° C

B. Fever anticipates pain

C. Tachycardia is inversely proportional to the severity of the infection and the temperature

D. Chills and fever above 38 ° C occur in the case of appendicular perforation

E. The temperature is usually kept below 37 ° C

123. CM The Dieulafoy Triad includes the following signs, except:

A. Abdominal distension

B. Generalized abdominal muscle defense

C. Muscular defense in the right iliac fossa

D. Local skin hypertension

E. Local pain

124. CM Select diagnostic imaging methods in acute appendicitis:

A. Computed tomography (has a specificity of 85%)

B. Abdominal ultrasound

C. Barite examination of the colon

D. Empty x-ray of the abdomen

E. Schwartz test

125. CM Select the correct statements in the pipe of the appendix:

A. The appendectomy is performed 3-6 weeks after the fever disappears

B. The patient requires hospitalization, clinical monitoring and medical treatment

C. Emergency surgery

D. Does not require treatment

E. Surgical treatment for abscess plastron

126. CM Indicate the correct statements regarding the treatment of acute appendicitis:

A. The laparoscopic approach makes it possible to diagnose and solve the case

B. Non-operative conduct

C. It can be made classic or minimally invasive

D. Surgical procedure involves ligation and sectioning of the appendix mesh, resorbable wire ligation and
sectioning of the appendix at the base, invagination of the "bursary" appendix with non-absorbable thread

E. It is usually a drug

127. CM Select the correct statements regarding the treatment of the appendix plastron:

A. It is treated without antibacterial therapy

B. Ice bag is recommended at the beginning

C. Requires hydroelectrolyte rebalancing

D. The appendectomy is done urgently

E. It is rarely recommended to hospitalize the patient

128. CM Select the correct statements regarding the paraclinical investigations in acute appendicitis:

A. Abdominal CT is indicated in all cases

B. Abdominal ultrasound is useful in the diagnostic algorithm

C. The level of leukocytes in the blood

D. Urinary sediment

E. Laparoscopy is mandatory

129. CS. Acute gangrenous appendicitis develops:

A. In children up to 2 years old due to low reactivity

B. In the elderly with strong associates

C. Due to the thrombosis of the mesoapendicular vessels, which results in appendicitis

D. More often in pregnant women due to low immunity

E. There are no concrete causes of gangrenous appendicitis

130. CS Select the correct statements regarding acute appendicitis in pregnant women:

A. It occurs more often than a month before birth

B. It develops in multiparous pregnancies

C. During pregnancy, appendicitis does not develop

D. It appears due to the increase in volume of the uterus

E. It develops more often in the first half of pregnancy

131. CM Indicate correctly the appendectomy stages in chronic appendicitis:

A. The McBurney approach moved the check and the appendix into the wound

B. Non-absorbable wire ligation and sectioning of the appendix mesh

C. Resorbable wire ligation and sectioning of the appendix at the base

D. Clogging of the appendix abutment in the bag connected with non-absorbable wire

E. Drainage of the peritoneal cavity

132. CS. The maximum pain point Sonnenburg is located:

A. At the border between the middle and middle third of the line, which unites the iliac spine with the
umbilicus
B. At the border between the right and middle lateral thirds of the bispinal line

C. At the border between the lateral and middle thirds of the line, which unites the iliac spine with the
umbilicus

D. At the intersection of the bispinal line and the lateral margin of the straight abdominal muscle

E. At the intersection of the white line with the bispinal line

133. CS Give the statement that is not characteristic of the Meckel diverticulum?

A. Location in the ascending part of the large intestine

B. There are 2-3% of the population

C. It is located at 60-70 cm from the ileocecal angle

D. Contains all layers of the intestinal wall

E. May contain heterotopic tissue of the pancreas or stomach

134. CS In a patient 40 years after the day after appendectomy, performed for gangrenous appendicitis,
there were: intestinal paresis, chills, fever, pain in the right side of the abdomen, jaundice, enlarged liver.
Signs of peritoneal irritation are missing. Indicate the possible complication.

A. Peritonitis

B. Subdiaphragmatic abscess

C. Intestinal abscess

D. Pileflebita

E. Subepathic abscess

135. CS Which of the following is not an indication for surgical treatment in acute appendicitis:

A. Diffuse peritonitis

B. Pregnancy of 37-38 weeks

C. Acute myocardial infarction

D. The appendicular plastron in the infiltrative phase

E. Abscess of the appendicular plastron

Appendix (answers):

HINGES (tests)

1. CS Which of the following statements characterizes direct inguinal hernia:

A. Never descend into the scrotum

B. It is congenital

C. It is most often unilateral

D. It gets strangled very frequently

E. It is a hernia of effort

2. CS Strangulation of the Meckel diverticulum is called hernia:

A. Riсhter

B. Maydl

C. Littre

D. Hesselbach

E. Broсk

3. CS The posterior wall of the inguinal canal is represented by:

A. Fascia transversalis

B. Internal oblique

C. Joint tendon

D. Crural arch

E. The external oblique

4. CM. Which hernias most commonly get strangled?

A. femoral

B. cord

C. Direct groin

D. Oblique groin in men

E. White line in children

5. CS Parietal anti-musculoskeletal strangulation is hernia:

A. Broсk

B. Gheselbach

C. Maydl

D. Riсhter

E. Littre

6. CS The neck of the typical femoral hernia sac is found:

A. Anterior of the crural arch

B. Medial of the femoral vessels

C. Side of femoral vessels

D. Posterior femoral vessels

E. Medial of the Cooper ligament

7. CM In the ischemia stage of a strangled hernia we find the following signs:

A. The dilated and cyanotic afferent handle

B. Mucosal vein thrombosis

C. The wall of the large intestine with false membranes on the serous membrane

D. Purulent, fecaloid fluid is present in the hernia sac

E. Pale effervescent hand, collared

8. The intestinal transit is maintained in the following forms of herniated strangulation:

A. Hernia Littre

B. Hernia Maydl

C. Hernia Broсk

D. Hernia Gheselbah

E. Hernia Riсhter
9. CS The hernia sac is missing in the hernia:

A. Congenital groin

B. cord

C. Swallowing by cleavage

D. perineum

E. Post-traumatic diaphragm

10. CM Pseudostrangulation in a hernia carrier manifests itself in the following situations:

A. Acute gangrenous cholecystitis with diffuse peritonitis

B. Pseudotumoral pancreatitis

C. Perforated gastroduodenal ulcer

D. Acute perforative appendicitis

E. Atypical perforation of the duodenal ulcer

11. CM The conservative treatment (bandage) of the hernia is indicated:

A. In case of categorical refusal of the patient to the operation

B. In reusable hernia

C. When surgery is contraindicated

D. In irreducible hernias

E. In inguinal hernia strangled in the elderly

12. CM Select the correct statements regarding the oblique groin hernias:

A. The hernia sac may descend into the scrotum

B. The sac extends anterior-medially from the spermatic cord

C. The sac is medially located in the inferior epigastric vessels

D. The sac extends laterally from the spermatic cord

E. It is rarely bilateral than the direct one

13. СМ If at the opening of the hernia sac we will find a dark red handle, dilated with the gloss free serum
and with suffusions in the region of the strangulation ditch, we will find:

A. The stage of congestion

B. The stage of ischemia

C. The stage of gangrene

D. The perforation stage

E. Reversibility of morphopathological changes

14. СМ Select the correct statements regarding the strangled hernias:

A. All are associated with stopping intestinal transit

B. The femoral hernia has a higher strangulation rate than the Spiegel line

C. Missing children

D. Hernia Brock is not characterized by ischemia

E. Maydl hernia only suffers from the related hernia

15. CM Select the correct statements regarding the inguinal hernia by sliding to the left:

A. The hernia gates are large

B. Always contains only the small intestine

C. The sigmoid colon is a wall of the hernia sac

D. Never strangle

E. It is accompanied by disturbance of the urination

16. CM In the direct inguinal hernias the major purpose of the operation is the plastic of the posterior wall
of the inguinal canal. The following are the most frequently used procedures:

A. Bassini

B. Girard-Spasokukotsky

C. Postempsky

D. Kimbarovsky

E. Martynov
17. CS In the treatment of the femoral hernias that plastic procedure provides for the consolidation of the
posterior wall of the groin canal?

A. Rudji

B. Postempsky

C. Rudji-Parlavecchio

D. Lexer

E. Bassini

18. CS In the umbilical hernias in children with hernia up to 3 cm more preferable is the plastic method:

A. Mayo

B. Bassini

C. Sapejko

D. Lexer

E. Martynov

19. CM Indicate the possible complications of hernias:

A. Coprostaza

B. Prostatitis

C. strangulation

D. Phlegmon of the hernia sac

E. irreducibility

20. CM In Richter strangled hernia we find:

A. Retained intestinal transit

B. Vomiting

C. Irreducible tumor in the hernia area

D. Stopping the intestinal transit

E. Fever at first
21. CM Indicate two signs of congenital inguinal hernia:

A. Never descend into the scrotum

B. It is only found in children

C. The hernia gates are large

D. It develops into an inguinal scrotal hernia

E. The hernia sac contains the testis

22. CM Which organ most commonly herniates:

A. Urinary bladder

B. omentum

C. The ascending colon

D. Small intestine

E. Prostate

23. CM The pain in a recoverable hernia can be:

A. In the form of weight or painful embarrassment

B. Violence

C. coli a few

D. Emphasizes physical exertion

E. May be absent

24. CM The differential diagnosis of inguinal scrotal hernia is made with:

A hydrocele

B. varicoceles

C. Bubonocelul

D. Epididymal testicular tumor

E. inguinal adenopathy

25. CM Choose three clinical signs of direct inguinal hernia:

A. Get down into the scrotum

B. Has a round-shaped tumor

C. It does not descend into the scrotum

D. It occurs more frequently in young people

E. Frequently it is bilateral

26. CM Choose the correct statements regarding oblique oblique inguinal hernia:

A. Can descend into the scrotum

B. The epigastric artery is located laterally in the herniated sac

C. The pulse of the epigastric artery is located medially by the herniated sac

D. Cough expansion

E. The spermatic cord is usually located laterally in the hernia sac

27. CM Which of the listed variants are external hernias?

A. Femoral hernia

B. Umbilical hernia

C. Diaphragmatic hernia

D. lumbar hernia

E. Hernia-scrotal hernia

28. CM What are the signs of a strangled umbilical hernia with the interest of a bowel?

A. Tensioned and painful herniated tumor

B. Stopping transit for materials and gases

C. Suddenly reduced irreducibility

D. Pain in the spermatic cord

E. Vomiting

29. CM Which situations do not fit into the Maydl hernia?

A. Retrograde strangulation in "W"

B. The hernia sac on opening contains two strangulated intestinal handles

C. Herniation of the Meckel diverticulum

D. Herniation of the vermicular appendix

E. Parietal strangulation of the intestine

30. CM Which of the types of hernias may be of more interest to the intestinal tract?

A. Hernia Littre

B. Hernia Richter

C. Femoral hernia

D. Hernia Maydl

E. ventral hernia

31. CM Which of the gestures presents risks and errors in the strangulated hernia?

A. Palpation of the herniated tumor

B. Scheduled surgery

C. Reduction by taxi

D. Rectal or vaginal cough

E. Release at home from the hospitalization department after the spontaneous hernia reduction

32. CM Which of the gestures can present risks in unresponsive hernia?

A. Palpation of the herniated tumor

B. Emergency surgery

C. Reduction by taxi

D. Compressive bandage of the herniated portion

E. Overall abdominal x-ray

33. CM Surgical procedures to recover the abdominal wall in adult umbilical hernias include:

A. Resection of organs in the herniated sac

B. Resection of the herniated sac

C. Suture of the hernia sac neck

D. Hernioplasty May

E. alloplastic

34. CM What are the stages of surgical treatment in replaceable hernias?

A. Mobilization of the hernia sac

B. Restoration of the contents of the hernia sac

C. Partial resection of epiploon

D. Segmental resection of the intestine

E. Plastic herniated portion

35. CM In the classification of inguinal hernias, direct hernia is a:

A. Congenital inguinal hernia

B. External hernia

C. Internal hernia

D. True hernia (true)

E. Hernia that does not descend into the scrotum

36. CS The famous aphorism "In each case of intestinal occlusion to be examined the herniated gates in
search of strangulated hernias" belongs to him:

A. Iudin

B. Spasokukotsky

C. Kukudjanov

D. Mondor

E. Bassini

37. CS Lichtenstein Aloplasty in the surgical treatment of inguinal hernia provides for consolidation of the
groin wall:

A. Previous

B. Posterior

C. Higher
D. Lower

E. Side

38. CM Lichtenstein Aloplasty is used in the surgical treatment of hernias:

A cord

B. femur

Ingestion C.

D. White lines

E. Post-traumatic diaphragm

39. CM The hernia sac is missing in:

A. Congenital inguinal hernia

B. Exomfal

C. inguinal hernia through cleavage

D. Perineal hernia

E. Post-traumatic diaphragmatic hernia

40. CS Conservative treatment of hernias is indicated in case of:

A. Umbilical hernia at birth

B. Direct inguinal hernia

C. Bubonocel

D. Intracanalicular oblique inguinal hernia

E. Exomfal

41. CS Of the ones listed, indicate the plastic procedure most commonly used in the treatment of oblique
groin hernias:

A. Bassini

B. Girard-Spasokukotsky

C. Postempsky
D. Kukudjanov

E. Martynov

42. CS The orthopedic method of hernia clearance is indicated in:

A. Irreducible hernias

B. Reducable hernias

C. Umbilical hernias in newborns

D. Small femoral hernias

E. Umbilical hernia in adults

43. CS The clinical differentiation of the inguinal hernia from the femoral hernia is made in relation to the
location of the parietal defect with respect to:

A. Gimbernati ligament

B. Malgaigne Line

C. Cooper's ligament

D. The spermatic cord

E. Epigastric vessels

44. CM The internal hole of the femoral canal is delimited by:

A. Femoral vein

B. Cooper's ligament

C. Gimbernati ligament

D. Poupart ligament

E. Median umbilical ligament

45. CS The occurrence of acquired hernias is due to:

A. Only increased intra-abdominal pressure

B. Only decreased abdominal wall strength

C. Increased intra-abdominal pressure and decreased abdominal wall strength

D. the hereditary factor

E. Increased abdominal wall strength

46. CS In any hernia we distinguish:

A. The herniated gate, c hernia heel, hernia content

B. The hernia sac, the contents of the hernia, the hernia collar

C. The hernia gate, the contents of the hernia, the hernia sac

D. Mouth, neck, body and bottom

E. Neck, body, bottom and hernia contents

47. CS Indicate the organ that cannot hernia:

A. Small intestine

B. Large intestine

The stomach C.

D. pancreas

E. Urinary bladder

48. CS Which hernias are called false?

A. Missing hernia sac

B. In which the contents of the hernia sac are missing

C. Missing herniated gate

D. In which the hernia door and bag are missing

E. Missing bag and contents of hernia bag

49. CS Hernia carriers accuse pain:

A. Instead of the hernia outlet, on the path of the hernia sac, deep inside the abdomen

B. Instead of the hernia exit, in the deep abdomen, in the lumbar region

C. In the deep abdomen, instead of the hernia outlet, in the region of the bottom of the hernia sac

D. Instead of hernia exit, abdomen, genital organs

E. Instead of the hernia exit and the lumbar region

50. CM Indicate the paraclinical methods used in the diagnosis of large ventral hernias:

A. Examination of the intestinal transit through a barite passage

B. cystography

C. Irrigation and Irrigation

D. Laparoscopy

E. Fibroesofagogastroscopia

51. CM The stage of congestion of the narrowed intestine is characterized by:

A. Stop the venous circulation

B. Paralytic distension of the related intestinal tract

C. Edema of the walls of the intestine

D. Thrombosis of the venous system

E. Hypersecretion in the lumen of the intestine and transudation in the herniated sac

52. CS The inguinal hernias are located in the triangle:

A. Petit

B. Venglovski

C. Iacobovici

D. Mayo-Robson

E. Mondor

53. CM One of the walls of the inguinal hernia sac by cleavage is:

A. Urinary bladder

B. Small intestine

C. check

D. The big omission

E. The womb with its attachments

54. CS The internal hole of the femoral canal consists of:

A. Previous - lig. Poupart, posterior - pectinian ridge of the horizontal branch of the pubis covered by lig.
Cooper, medial - Gimbernati ligament and lateral - femoral vein

B. Previous - lig. Poupart, posterior - lig. Gimbernati, medial - lig.Cooper, lateral - femoral vein

C. Previous - lig. Poupart, posterior - lig.Cooper, medial - femoral vein, lateral - lig. Gimbernati

D. Previous - lig. Poupart, posterior - lig. Gimbernati, lateral - lig.Cooper, medial - femoral vein

E. Posterior - lig. Poupart, previous - league. Gimbernati, lateral - lig.Cooper, medial - femoral vein

55. CS Indicate the most common hernia complication:

A. irreducibility

B. Inflammation

C. Coprostaza

D. Strangulation

E. Tuberculosis of the herniated sac

56. CS When in the hernia sac we find 2 strangulated intestinal handles and the third is in the abdominal
cavity, it is the hernia:

A. Richter

B. Littre

C. Brock

D. Maydl

E. Gheselbah

57. CS Intrasaccular strangulation occurs more frequently in:

A. Large umbilical hernias

B. Oblique groin hernias

C. Femoral hernias

D. Small umbilical and white line hernias

E. Hernias of the Spiegel line

58. CS Who is the most common with strangulation?

A. In adolescents
B. In women

C. In the elderly

D. At maturity

E. In children

59. CS Where the white line hernias are most commonly located:

A. Above the umbilicus

B. Below the umbilicus

C. Above the Malgaigne line

D. On the Spiegel line

E. On the Douglas line

60. CS Stercoral strangulation occurs in hernias with gates:

A. Broad

B. Narrow

C. Forms of muscle tissue

D. congenital

E. Forms of connective tissue

61. CS Winckelmann operation is indicated:

A. In Gheselbah hernia

B. In strangulated femoral hernia

C. In oblique congenital hernia

D. In large umbilical hernias

E. In the direct congenital hernia

62. CM Indicate the plastic procedures of the posterior wall of the groin canal:

A. Bassini

B. Girard-Spasokukotsky
C. Postempsky

D. Martynov

E. Lichtenstein

63. CM Indicate the procedures for the treatment of femoral hernias by inguinal approach:

A. Bassini

B. Rudji

C. Parlavecchio

D. Kukudjanov

E. Kimbarovsky

64. CM Indicate the plastic procedures used in the treatment of umbilical hernias:

A. Roux-Oppel

B. Lexer

C. Kukudjanov

D. Mayo

E. Sapejko

65. CS Which procedure provides the transverse plasticity of the herniated portion in the umbilical hernia:

A. Lexer

B. Sapejko

C. Kukudjanov

D. Mayo

E. Roux-Oppel

66. CM What includes the second stage in the treatment of replaceable hernia:

A. Resection of the hernia sac

B. Mobilization of the hernia sac

C. Opening the hernia sac

D. Partial resection of epiploon

E. Recovery of the abdominal wall

67. CS Plastia of the herniated portion after Parlavecchio states:

A. Suture of the internal and transverse abdominal oblique muscles in the Cooper and Poupart ligament

B. Poupart ligament suture to Cooper ligament by femoral approach

C. Poupart ligament suture to Cooper ligament by inguinal approach

D. Suturing the lateral edge of the torso of the rectus abdominal muscle at the Cooper and Poupart ligament

E. Transverse abdominal muscle suturing of the Cooper and Poupart ligament

68. CS The anterior wall of the inguinal canal is formed by:

A. Transverse fascia

B. Poupart ligament

C. Aponeurosis of the external oblique muscle

D. Internal oblique muscle

E. The sheath of the rectus abdominal muscle

69. CM Which hernias cannot be congenital:

A. Oblique inguinal hernia in men

B. Femoral hernia in women

C. Oblique hernia oblique to the newborn

D. Post-traumatic diaphragmatic hernia

E. Direct inguinal hernia

70. CM What statements regarding femoral hernia are incorrect:

A. It can be found more often after strangulation

B. It is most common in obese women

C. The hernia sac is located laterally from the femoral vein

D. It is located below the Malgaigne line

E. Herniation through the lateral cleft

71. CM Which of the following statements are not characteristic for direct inguinal hernia:

A. It gets strangled more often

B. Never descend into the scrotum

C. Can be congenital

D. It is a hernia of weakness

E. More often it is bilateral

72. CM Indicate with what diseases differentiation of the inguinal hernia requires:

A hydrocele

B. varicoceles

C. Cyst and lipoma of the spermatic cord

D. Ectopic testicle

E. Varicose dilation of the vein

73. CM According to the etiopathogenetic principle we distinguish hernia:

A. Congenital and acquired

B. Umbilical and epigastric

C. Postoperative and post-traumatic

D. Recurrent and pathological

E. Reductible and irreducible

74. CS Of the forms presented most commonly strangulate hernia:

A. femoral

B. cord

C. Direct groin

D. Oblique groin in men

E. White line in children

75. CM The most commonly strangled viscera in hernias are:

A. Urinary bladder

B. omentum

C. The ascending colon

D. Small intestine

Appendix E.

76. СМ Select the correct statements characteristic of the herniation strangled at the beginning:

A. In all cases they are associated with stopping the intestinal transit

B. Sudden, violent pain in the hernia region

C. Rapid irreducibility of hernia

D. Rapid growth of hernia volume and skin tension

E. In Maydl strangulation, only the central handles suffer

77. CM The hernias, from the anatomical-topographic point of view, can be:

A. groin

B. congenital

C. navel

D. femoral

E. Of the Douglas, Spiegel lines

78. CM Select rare complications of hernias:

A. Herniated tuberculosis

B. Strangulation

C. Trauma to the hernia

D. Foreign bodies of the hernia

E. Malignancy

79. CM Which hernias are rarely encountered:

A. The Douglas line

B. epigastric

C. perineum

D. Of the Petit triangle

E. Of the Grynfelt space

80. CM Choose the factors that cause the postoperative hernias to occur:

A. The suppuration of the wound

B. Food abuse

C. Major physical effort

D. Low tissue regeneration reaction

E. Hemorrhage in the wound during primary surgery

81. CS The maximum pathological changes in the choked intestinal tract are located:

A. On the related handle

B. On the central handle

C. On the efferent loop

D. At the level of the bottleneck

E. On the associated and central handle

82. CS A strangulated hernia is operated on:

A. As an immediate emergency

B. As a deferred emergency

C. The timing of the operation is irrelevant

D. Does not operate

E. When the patient's condition improves

83. CS In late-diagnosed Richter strangulation, evolution is:

A. Favorable

B. Towards intestinal occlusion

C. Towards gangrene and perforation of the intestine

D. Towards cryptogenic peritonitis

E. Towards urine retention

84. CM After the clinical signs the hernias can be:

A. Simple, reducible (free)

B. congenital

C. irreducible

D. strangled

E. Acquired

85. CM Abdominal evisceration may be caused by:

A. Postoperative Meteorism

B. Kidney failure

C. Postoperative pneumonia

D. Cardiovascular insufficiency

E. Postoperative wound suppuration

86. CM The lesions visible in the strangled hernias are located:

A. On the related handle

B. On the central handle

C. On the efferent loop

D. At the level of the bottleneck

E. On the related and efferent loop

87. CM Which of the following factors determine the appearance of hernia:

A. Constipation

B. Ascites

C. Chronic bronchitis and pneumonia

D. Urinary incontinence
E. Repeated tasks

88. CM What statements are common for Maydl and Brock hernias:

A. Pain in the hernia

B. The herniated tumor is painless

C. These complications are present in the hernia carriers

D. Stopping the intestinal transit for materials and gases

E. Colic pain is present

89. CS The Lichtenstein procedure is used to strengthen the groin wall:

A. Previous

B. Posterior

Lateral C.

D. Medial

E. Not used in the treatment of inguinal hernia

90. CS In which strangulated hernia are present signs of intestinal occlusion:

A. Richter

B. Littre

C. Brock

D. Maydl

E. Amyand

91. CM Which paraclinical examinations can be used in the ventral hernias to assess the contents of the
hernia sac:

A. Empty x-ray of the abdomen

B. Barite intestinal passage

C. barium enema

D. cystography
E. Laparoscopy

92. CS Richter strangulation is most commonly found in hernia:

A. femoral

B. cord

C. White line

D. Oblique groin that external

E. Direct groin

93. CM Indicate the hernias located above the Malgaigne line:

A shutter

B. Oblique groin

C. Direct groin

D. perineum

E. femoral

94. CS The pathognomonic sign Moure-Martin-Gregoire is characteristic for hernia:

A cord

B. epigastric

C. Oblique groin

D. Direct groin

E. femoral

95. CM What are the anatomical and functional conditions that determine the mechanism of the
strangulation of a hernia:

A. The presence of the hernia orifice

B. The presence of sudden effort

C. Reduction of abdominal pressure

D. Sudden cessation of effort

E. Relaxation of the diaphragm

96. CM Correctly indicate the forms of hernia strangulation:

A. Hernia Miculicz

B. Hernia Littre

C. Hernia Spiegel

D. Hernia Maydl

E. Hernia Brock

97. CS Indicate the most common procedure used in the treatment of oblique groin hernia:

A. Bassini

B. Girard-Spasocucotsky

C. Postempsky

D. Martynov

E. Roux-Oppel

98. CS Acute appendicitis diagnosed in the hernia sac represents hernia:

A. Riсhter

B. Maydl

C. Littre

D. Amyand

E. Broсk

99. CM Which of the following statements correspond to the oblique inguinal hernia:

A. It does not descend into the scrotum

B. Can be congenital

C. It is more often bilateral

D. It is only found in women

E. It is more common in men

100. CS Richter type strangulation usually occurs in patients with:

A. Small hernia gate

B. Large hernia gate

C. Giant hernia gate

D. In hernias with loss of home

E. Medium-sized hernia gate

101. CS Which of the listed pathologies contributes to the appearance of inguinal hernias?

A. Acute renal failure

B. Perforated gastro-duodenal ulcer

C. Chronic obstructive bronchitis

D. Myocardial infarction

E. Acute perforative appendicitis

102. CS The most important factor for the occurrence of postoperative hernias is:

A. Postoperative bowel disease

B. Secondary scarring of the postoperative wound

C. Early removal of the nasogastric decompression probe

D. The appearance of adhesions in the abdominal cavity

E. Old age of the patient

103. CS What is the absolute indication for emergency surgery for spontaneous recovery of herniated
strangulation?

A. The appearance of diarrhea

B. Occurrence of peritoneal signs

C. Increased blood pressure

D. Lower blood pressure

E. The appearance of tachycardia

104. CM After the spontaneous recovery of the herniated strangulation is necessary:

A. Dynamic patient monitoring

B. Emergency diagnosis of laparoscopy

C. Emergency laparotomy

D. Scheduled herniotomy in the absence of peritoneal signs

E. Emergency Herniotomy

105. CM What are the priority measures for a strangled hernia with a duration of more than 24 hours?

A. Warm bath

B. Analgesics for the purpose of repositioning the hernia

C. Emergency surgery

D. Pre- and postoperative hydroelectrolyte rebalancing

E. Pre- and post-operative antibiotic therapy for the prophylaxis of evolutionary complications

106. CS What hernia cannot be external:

A. Oblique inguinal hernia in men

B. Femoral hernia in women

C. Hernia oblique to the newborn

D. Post-traumatic diaphragmatic hernia

E. Direct inguinal hernia

107. CS In hernias by sliding the hernia sac:

A. It is represented totally by the parietal peritoneal sheet

B. It is partially formed by a retroperitoneal viscera

C. Missing

D. It has a tubular shape

E. In 90% does not have peritoneum

108. CS Indicate the most serious complication of hernias:

A. irreducibility
B. Inflammation

C. Coprostaza

D. Strangulation

E. Tuberculosis of the herniated sac

109. CS Select the correct hernia name, which is characterized by anti-musculoskeletal parietal
strangulation:

A. Littre

B. Richter

C. Brock

D. aperture

E. backpass

110. CM List the three signs that characterize congenital inguinal hernia:

A. The gates are large

B. The hernia sac contains the testis

C. Meet women

D. It develops into the inguinal scrotal hernia

E. Emphasizes physical exertion

INTESTINAL OCLUSION (tests)

1. CS Pain in intestinal occlusion by strangulation can be:

A. Continuous, powerful, dramatic

B. colic

C. Just a feeling of vague diffuse pain

D. Flashing in the form of "fighting colic"

E. Not specific

2. CS In the intestinal occlusion the Schlange sign is characterized by:

A. The presence of the popping on the balloon handle

B. The sound of the drop falling

C. Timpanism pronounced above the asymmetry

D. Presence of enlarged and empty rectal ampule

E. The presence of hyperperistalism through vivid, frequent sounds that can be heard at a distance

3. CS At the beginning of the intestinal occlusion a generalized distension of the intestinal handles without
hydroelectric images at the radiological examination confesses about:

A. Dynamic intestinal occlusion

B. Sigmoid volvulus

C. Strained inguinal hernia

D. Bouveret syndrome

E. Occlusion caused by check cancer

4. СМ About the effectiveness of the complex treatment of the dynamic ileus, it first confesses to us:

A. Lack of fever

B. Heating of the skin

C. Disappearance of stasis eliminations on the nasogastric tube

D. Restoration of peristalsis

E. Normalization of leukocytes

5. CS Occlusion on the small intestine is presented radiologically by:

A. Highlighting the fractures

B. Multiple centrally located hydroelectric images

C. Lateral hydraulic images

D. Appearance of "bicycle tire"

E. pneumoperitoneum

6. CS The major symptom of differentiation between intracellular and extracellular dehydration is:

A. Arterial hypotonia
B. Sorrowful thirst

C. tachycardia

D. The pronounced meteorism

E. Oliguria

7. CS The Sklearov sign in the intestinal occlusion is characterized by:

A. Timpanism pronounced from the asymmetrical place

B. Elastic resistance of the abdominal wall

C. Asymmetric ballooning of the abdomen

D. The presence of the popping over the balloon handle

E. The noise of "drop in the fall"

8. CM The main tasks in the treatment of mechanical intestinal occlusion are the following:

A. Removing the cause of occlusion

B. antibacterial

C. Restoration of intestinal peristalsis

D. Reduction of intestinal distension

E. Hydroelectrolyte rebalancing

9. CS Paroxysmal abdominal pain accompanied by vomiting, prolonged para-umbilical tumor formation and
rectal bleeding, encountered in a child, suggest the diagnosis of:

A. Acute pelvic appendicitis

B. Acute enterocolitis

C. dysentery

D. Intestinal invagination

E. Small intestine volvulus

10. CS The most common cause of distant intestinal occlusion in a laparotomized patient is:

A. intussusception
B. The biliary ileum

C. Bridles, adhesions

D. Postoperative foreign bodies

E. Postoperative intestinal stenosis

11. CS Which sign characterizes the mechanical ileus on the ascending colon:

A. Bayer sign

B. Abundant vomiting

C. Complete stopping of intestinal transit for materials and gases

D. Sign of the Conig

E. The Sign of Bouveret

12. CS Large hydroelectric images, few in number and located laterally in association with leukocytosis up to

15,000 are more characteristic for:

A. Sigmoid volvulus

B. Occlusion by obstruction of the large intestine

C. Occlusion in the small intestine

D. Strained inguinal hernia

E. Enteromezenteric infarction

13. CS Pain in mechanical intestinal obstruction by obstruction is:

A. Coarse

B. Continue

C. Collicative (paroxysmal)

D. Transient

E. burners

14. The clinical signs of extracellular dehydration are as follows:

A. Dryness and paleness of the skin

B. Dry and flavored tongue

C. Sorrowful thirst

D. The nausea and vomiting

E. Arterial hypotonia, tachycardia

15. CS Indicate the dynamic ileus present in pleurisy, vertebral fractures, retroperitoneal hematoma:

A. Toxic

B. reflex

Metabolic C.

D. Neurogen

E. Spastic

16. CS In case of necrosis of the intestinal loop in the occlusion on the small intestine, the limit of the
resection on the efferent loop from the visible edge of the necrosis will be performed at:

A. 30 - 40 cm

B. 10 - 15 cm

C. 15 - 20 cm

D. 5 - 10 cm E. 40 -50 cm

17. CS The biliary ileum is an occlusion by:

A. Intussusception

B. Volvulus

C. Compression

D. obstruction

E. Spasm of the intestinal muscle

18. The following phenomena contribute to the establishment of pathological liquid sector III in the
intestinal occlusion:

A. Transduction of fluid in the lumen of the intestine over the obstacle

B. Gastric stasis
C. Transduction of fluid in the wall of the intestine

D. Excessive absorption in the intestine below the obstacle

E. Transudation of the fluid into the peritoneal cavity

19. CS When developing the small intestine, necrosis of a segment of the ileum was found. The limit of the
resection of the necrotized handle in the cranial direction (the related handle) will pass to the distance from
the visible edge of the necrosis:

A. 10 - 15 cm

B. 20 - 30 cm

C. 5 - 10 cm D. 30 - 40 cm E. 15 - 20 cm

20. CS The König sign is characteristic for the early period of intestinal occlusion and is manifested by:

A. The noise of "drop by drop"

B. Distension of the check

C. Intestinal peristalsis visible on inspection

D. Abdominal Selenium

E . Asymmetric abdominal meteorism

21. CS Central hydroelectric images are characteristic for:

A. Bouveret syndrome

B. Cancer occlusion of the sigmoid

C. Occlusion in the small intestine

D. Acute pancreatitis

E. Pyloric stenosis

22. The most informative methods in the diagnosis of mechanical occlusion in the small intestine are:

A. Schwartz test

B. Abdominal ultrasonography

C. barium enema

D. Laparoscopy
E. Overall abdominal x-ray

23. CS In the occlusion on the large intestine the most effective method of diagnosis is:

A. Schwartz test

B. barium enema

C. Overall X-ray of the abdomen

D. Computed tomography

E. Laparoscopy

24. CS The Bayer sign is manifested by:

A. Symmetrical ballooning of the abdomen

B. Asymmetric ballooning on the right lateral flank of the abdomen

C. Hydraulic noises on the left flank

D. Asymmetric ballooning of the abdomen with the axis oriented from the left iliac fossa to the right
hypochondrium

E. Bloody removal from the rectum

25. CS Bouveret syndrome is characterized by persistent vomiting, alteration of the general condition of the
patient and is found in:

A. Mesenteric infarction

B. Check cancer

C. The biliary ileum

D. Postoperative ileus

E. Strangled hernia

26. СМ Indicate the 2 measures that are performed pre-, intra- and postoperatively in the treatment of
mechanical intestinal occlusion:

A. Suppression of the cause

B. Restoration of intestinal absorption function

C. Reduction of intestinal distension

D. Hydroelectrolyte rebalancing
E. Drainage and drainage of the abdominal cavity

27. СМ In which intestinal occlusion, from the beginning is affected the vascularization of the segment
involved in the pathological process?

A. Volvulus

B. intussusception

C. Intraluminal foreign bodies

D. Strangulation

E. Specific inflammatory parietal lesions

28. CM In which intestinal occlusion is present ischemic component:

A. Occlusion by invagination

B. Occlusion by volvulus

C. The biliary ileum

D. Strangulated hernia

E. Occlusion through trihobes

29. CM Being a low intestinal occlusion, the sigmoid volvulus:

A. It is frequently preceded by colic or subocclusive seizures

B. Sudden onset with pain in left iliac fossa and asymmetric abdominal distension

C. Intestinal transit is interrupted since the onset of the disease

D. Radiological examination of the abdomen shows an aerial image of a "bicycle tire"

E. Causes frequent vomiting

30. CM Which of the following causes can cause paralytic ileus?

A. Fitobezoarul

B. Non-relieving colic

Peritonitis C.

D. sigmoid volvulus
E. Retroperitoneal abscess

31. CM The main post-operative care of the patient with intestinal occlusion are:

A. Hydroelectrolyte rebalancing

B. Analgesia

C. Immobilization in bed

D. Early enteral feeding

E. Stimulation of intestinal peristalsis

32. CM In the high intestinal occlusion the gases accumulate in the intestinal lumen:

A. 70% of the swallowed air

B. 100% from microbial flora fermentation processes and biochemical reactions of digestive juices

C. 70% following the fermentation processes of the microbial flora

D. 30% from biochemical reactions of digestive juices

E. 30% from microbial flora fermentation processes and biochemical reactions of digestive juices

33. CM Decompression of the ballooned intestine in the mechanical intestinal occlusion is useful because:

A. Reduces bowel ischemia

B. Removes light toxins

C. Prevents Mendelson syndrome

D. Alter chlorine ion losses

E. Reduces fluid loss

34. CM Indicate the radiological signs characteristic for the early mechanical high intestinal occlusion:

A. Kloiber hydraulic imaging

B. pneumoperitoneum

C. Presence of arches and organ tubes

D. The presence of half-moon envelopes

E. The presence of Kerkring envelopes

35. CM What signs characterize the sigmoid volvulus:

A. Complete stopping of intestinal transit for materials and gases

B. Fever

C. Blood in the rectal cough

D. The presence of the Hocvag-Grekov sign

E. Asymmetry of the abdomen

36. CM What methods will be used to diagnose low bowel occlusion:

A. Empty abdominal x-ray

B. Schwartz test

C. rectoromanoscopy

D. FEGDS

E. barium enema

37. CM Which of the following statements characterizes the biliary ileus?

A. It is a complication of biliary lithiasis

B. It is characterized by signs of intestinal obstruction by obstruction

C. It can be manifested by aerobics

D. It is confirmed by irrigation

E. It is an atony of the gall bladder

38. CM Low mechanical intestinal occlusion is characterized by:

A. Early interruption of intestinal transit for materials and gases

B. Fever

C. Early vomiting

D. The general condition remains satisfactory for a long time

E. pneumoperitoneum

39. CM What types of intestinal occlusion can be resolved conservatively?

A. Stercoral intestinal occlusion

B. Occlusion by strangulation

C. The biliary ileum

D. Adherence occlusion

E. Postoperative ileus

40. CS Indicate intra-intestinal pressure in the norm:

A. 2-4 cm H2O

B. 6-8 cm H2O

C. 10-12 cm H2O

D. 14-16 cm H2O

E. 18-20 cm H2O

41. CS Car e is the most common cause of intestinal occlusion in the elderly:

A. Fecaloamele

B. Left colon neoplasm

C. intussusception

D. Right colon neoplasm

E. The small intestine volvulus

42. CS At what intraluminal pressure the intestinal wall becomes permeable to microbes and their toxins
that can cause endotoxic shock:

A. 10-15 cm H2O

B. 20-25 cm H2O

C. 30-40 cm H2O

D. 50-60 cm H2O

E. 65-70 cm H2O

43. CS At what level on the digestive tract in the intestinal occlusion is abdominal meteorism missing?

A. Near the Treitz ligament

B. In the area of passage of the jejunum into the ileum

C. In the ileocecal area

D. In the area of the lienal angle of the colon

E. In the rectosigmoid area at the level of the pelvic diaphragm

44. CS Indicate the radiological signs that confirm the high intestinal occlusion:

A. Hydraulic images located in the central region of the abdomen

B. Rare hydraulic images with large transverse diameter, located in the peripheral region of the abdomen

C. The transverse diameter of the hydraulic images is small

D. Hydroelectric images are arranged in "steps"

E. The presence of half-moon envelopes

45. CS. Which types of drugs can cause dynamic bowel occlusion?

A. diuretics

B. Cardiotonicele

C. Drugs

D. Laxatives

E. Cephalosporins

46. CS. Meckel diverticulum can cause the following type of intestinal occlusion:

A. Dynamic occlusion

B. sigmoid volvulus

C. Biliary Ileus

D. Mechanical intestinal occlusion

E. Low intestinal occlusion

47. CM. Abdominal ultrasound in the high intestinal obstruction by obstruction can provide the following
information:

A. Ballooning of the bowels

B. Presence of pneumoperitoneum

C. Pendulum paradoxical peristaltism

D. The presence of half-moon envelopes

E. Parietal edema of the gut

48. CM. Indicate the ultrasonographic criteria of the high mechanical intestinal occlusion:

A. Simultaneous observation of ballooned and collapsed intestinal segments

B. Free peritoneal fluid

C. Liquid peristaltic mass

D. The presence of half-moon envelopes

E. The presence of faeces

49. CS. The interruption of the intestinal transit for materials and gases in the intestinal occlusion is:

A. Early in the lower intestinal occlusions

B. Early in high intestinal occlusions

C. Early in the biliary ileus

D. Delayed bowel occlusion in the rectum

E. Not characteristic

50. CM. Clinical signs of intestinal occlusion are:

A. Colicative abdominal pain

B. Vomit

C. Stopping the transit of materials and gases

D. Abdominal meteorism

E. Hydroelectric imaging

51. CM. Radiologic examination of the abdomen in early mechanical high intestinal occlusion shows:

A. Hydroelectric imaging

B. pneumoperitoneum
C. Gaseous distension of the intestinal loops

D. Hydraulic images in "stairs"

E. Free fluid in the peritoneal cavity

52. CM The radiological examination on the void of the abdomen in the early intestinal occlusion by
obstruction presents:

A. Gaseous distension of the small intestine

B. Hydroelectric imaging

C. pneumoperitoneum

D. Aerobilie

E. Visualization of semilunar envelopes

53. CM. Decompression of the ballooned intestine in mechanical intestinal occlusion is useful because:

A. Reduces bowel ischemia

B. Removes lumenal toxins

C. Facilitates the installation of peritonitis

D. Reduces the risk of pulmonary complications

E. Prevents Mendelson syndrome

54. CM. Causes of low intestinal occlusion in the elderly may be:

A. Mesenteric thrombosis

B. Colon cancer

C. The biliary ileum

D. sigmoid volvulus

E. Coprostaza

55. CM. Vomiting occurs late in the course of intestinal occlusions:

A. High

B. Causes of gallstones

C. paralytic
D. Bass

E. By invagination

56. CM. Non-ischemic occlusions are:

A. Through phytobezar

B. By obstruction

C. By strangulation

D. Through foreign body

E. By extrinsic compression

57. CS In the intestinal occlusion by strangulation the occlusion caused by:

A. Retroperitoneal tumor

B. Intussusception

C. Inflammatory stenosis

D. atresia

E. paralytic ileus

58. CM Indicate the clinical signs of the terminal phase of intestinal occlusion:

A. Abdominal pain decreases

B. Fecaloid vomiting

C. Oliguria

D. Accentuated intestinal peristalsis

E. Arterial hypotonia

59. CS A 75-year-old woman, who has previously undergone surgery on her abdomen, presents urgently for
abdominal pain and vomiting. Radiological examination denotes occlusion on the small intestine. What is
the most likely cause of occlusion in this case?

A. Grips, braces

B. Crohn's disease

C. Tumor of small intestine

D. Strained groin herniation

E. Diverticulitis

60. CS Indicate the most common cause of mechanical intestinal occlusion in adults:

A. intussusception

B. Volvulus

C. Strangulated hernia

D. The biliary ileum

E. Fitobezoarul

61. CS The most common cause of intestinal occlusion in a laparotomized patient is:

A. intussusception

B. The biliary ileum

C. Postoperative flange

D. Fitobezoarul

E. Volvulus

62. CS The intestinal invagination diagnosed early in the adult is characterized by the following sign is,
except:

A. Mistakes, vomiting

B. Colic abdominal pain

C. Muscle contracture

D. palpable tumor

E. Blood in the rectal cough

63. CS Which statement regarding intestinal invagination is correct?

A. It consists of twisting the handle on a clamp

B. Does not affect the vascularization of the vaginal segment

C. It is most common in elderly patients

D. It is more common in children

E. The radiological examination does not find pathology

64. CM Which of the following statements regarding vaginal occlusions are true:

A. They are dynamic occlusions

B. There are obstructions through obstruction

C. They are favored by a short message

D. Appear due to intestinal hyperperistalism

E. It involves telescoping the intestinal segment

65. CS Extravasation of fluids accompanying intestinal occlusion does not occur in:

A. Intestinal lumen

B. The intestinal wall

C. Space III

D. Peritoneal cavity

E. Pleural cavity

66. CM Select the causes of intestinal obstruction by obstruction:

A. Ascaridiasis

B. Congenital intestinal pathologies

C. Benign or malignant intestinal tumors

D. Generalized infections (sepsis)

E. Retroperitoneal tumors

67. CM The paralytic ileus can appear in:

A. Peritonitis

B. Hypocalcemia

C. Toxic-septic syndrome

D. Entero-mesenteric infarction
E. Hipocaliemie

68. CM The earliest signs of high intestinal occlusion are:

A. Interruption of transit for materials and gases

B. Tightening of the abdominal wall

C. pain

D. Vomiting

E. Weight loss

69. CM Dynamic or functional intestinal occlusions are encountered in the following situations:

A. Cranio-cerebral trauma

B. Volvulare

C. Intussusception

D. Retroperitoneal infections

E. Lower rib fractures

70. CS Irigoscopy is indicated in early low occlusions and can be a therapeutic method in:

A. Early occlusion by sigmoid volvulation

B. Occlusion by rectal neoplasm

C. Occlusion by choked groin herniation

D. Occlusion by sigmoid neoplasm

E. Occlusion by check neoplasm

71. CS The mechanism of spastic occlusion can be triggered by a number of factors, except:

A. Porphyria

B. Lead poisoning

C. Compensated diabetes

D. Tabes dorsalis

E. hysteria

72. CS Advanced paralytic dynamic occlusion is characterized by:

A. Peristalism accentuated

B. The presence of colicative pain

C. Stopping the intestinal transit

D. Hydroelectric noises at the abdomen

E. Polyuria

73. The terminal phase of intestinal occlusion is detected in:

A. Flat abdomen

B. Exaggerated peristalsis

C. Polyorganic insufficiency

D. Major electrolyte disorders

E. The presence of the Sklearov sign

74. The gastrointestinal aspiration in the intestinal occlusion by strangulation with resection of the small
intestine and the terminal-terminal anastomosis, follows some objectives:

A. Improves the microcirculation of the intestine

B. Prevents dehiscence of anastomosis

C. Prevents the evisceration of the wound

D. Prevents paralytic occlusion

E. Prevents postoperative pancreatitis

75. CS Choose which of the clinical situations described below is NOT a cause of mechanical intestinal
occlusion:

A. Hernia strangulation

B. Intraluminal foreign bodies

C. Spastic occlusion

D. Intestinal volvulation

E. Intestinal invagination

76. CS From the topographic point of view the intestinal occlusions can be:
A. Acute

B. paralytic

Chronic C.

D. Bass

E. spastic

77. CS Which statement about vomiting in early intestinal occlusion is false:

A. In the low occlusion they are abundant

B. They appear early in high occlusion

C. They are late in the low occlusion

D. Initially they are billions, then fecaloids

E. They are accompanied by faults

78. CS Select the false statement for the biliary ileus:

A. It is determined by the penetration of a vesicular calculus into the digestive tract through a fistula

B. Clinical development may include: colic, fever, subterranean, occlusion

C. Empty radiological examination may reveal a radiopac calculus

D. It represents a high intestinal occlusion

E. Stopping the calculation in the Bauhin valve performs Bouveret syndrome

79. CS The most common location of the invagination is:

A. jejuno-ileal

B. jejuno-jejunal

C. Ileo-ileal

D. Ileo-ECSC-colic

Gastro-esophageal E.

80. CS In which type of intestinal occlusion is abdominal distension missing? A. The sigmoid volulus

B. The small intestine volvulus

C. High duodenal-jejunal occlusions

D. Dynamic occlusions

E. Occlusions by stenosing colorectal neoplasm

81. CS Indicate in which intestinal occlusion the general condition remains unaltered for a long time?

A. The small intestine volvulus

B. High occlusions

C. The sigmoid volvulus

D. Intestinal invagination

E. Occlusions by stenosing colorectal neoplasm

82. CS Bowel occlusion due to colon cancer is more common in:

A. Ascending colon cancer

B. Left colon cancer

C. Cancer of the gall bladder

D. Cancer of the hepatic colic angle

E. Cancer of ileo-cecal valve

83. CS The biliary ileum is a:

A. Functional intestinal occlusion accompanying gangrenous cholecystitis

B. Bowel obstruction with biliary calculus

C. Dynamic occlusion in acute cholecystopancreatitis

D. Occlusion of the terminal cholecyst by a gallstones migrated from the gallbladder

E. Congenital atresia of the cochlea

84. CM The radiological aspect in the low intestinal occlusion caused by adenocarcinoma is represented by:

A. Appearance of "niche"

B. Filling defect

C. Appearance of “bitten apple”

D. Presence of hydroelectric images

E. Stenosis of the intestinal lumen

85. CM Positive diagnosis in mechanical intestinal occlusions is based on:

A. Clinical signs

B. Radiological signs

C. Ultrasound signs

D. Pathological background of the patient

E. Mesenteric angiography

86. CM The most common causes of intestinal invagination in adults are:

A. Fitobezuarii

B. Polyps

C. leiomyomas

D. enteritis

E. trauma

87. CM Simple abdominal radiography in the intestinal occlusion highlights:

A. Gaseous distension of the intestinal loops

B. Hydro images

C. Filling defect

D. Narrowing of the intestinal lumen

E. Half moon envelopes

88. CM. Irrigation can also have a therapeutic role in:

A. Sigmoid cancer

B. The iliocecal invagination in the child

C. Chest volumetric groin herniation

D. sigmoid volvulus

E. Atresia of the rectum in children

89. CM. Dehydration and hypovolemia in the intestinal occlusion is caused by:

A. Ischemia of the intestinal wall

B. Extravasation of fluids into the intestinal lumen

C. Extravasation of fluids in the intestinal wall

D. Extravasation of fluids into the abdominal cavity

E. Reflex hypersecretion of the lining of the digestive tract

90. CM Ischemic bowel occlusions are:

A. By invagination

B. By obstruction

C. By strangulation

D. Bouveret syndrome

E. Caused by extrinsic compression

91. CM Which of the following statements regarding intestinal occlusion by strangulation are correct?

A. Abdominal distension develops

B. Vomiting is premature

C. The general condition changes rapidly

D. Muscle strain is missing at the onset of the disease

E. Irrigation assesses the condition of the intestine

92. CM The clinical diagnosis of high early intestinal occlusion is based on:

A. Muscle contraction of the abdominal wall

B. Colic pain in the abdomen

C. Grief and vomiting

D. The presence of the Blumberg sign

E. Interruptions in the first hours of the disease of intestinal transit for faeces and gas

93. CM The modalities of decompression of the digestive tract in the intestinal occlusion are:
A. Endoscopic stenting of the rectosigmoid tumor

B. The echoed position of the related loop

C. Installation of the naso-gastrointestinal tract

D. Performing anterograde intraoperative lavage of the colon

E. Sigmostomia

94. CM. Indicate the correct statements regarding intestinal occlusion by colon cancer:

A. Higher frequency of cancer in the right colon than in the left

B. Sudden onset with frequent vomiting

C. The endoscopic emergency examination is the "gold standard" for diagnosis

D. Asymmetrical abdominal distension

E. In the background, weight loss, colic, diarrhea, constipation can be seen

95. CM Which of the following statements is correct regarding the etiopathogenesis of intestinal occlusion?

A. Dynamic or functional occlusions recognize multiple causes that cause sympathetic-parasympathetic

imbalances

B. Cranio-cerebral trauma can cause intestinal occlusion

C. Professional poisoning can install dynamic intestinal occlusions

D. Extrinsic compressions cannot produce intestinal occlusions

E. The occlusions by strangulation also affect the vascularization of the affected segment

96. CM Which of the following is true regarding the symptomatology of low bowel obstruction?

A. Pain occurs at the onset of the disease

B. Vomiting occurs early

C. Abdominal distension is a constant sign

D. Late blown abdomen may show peritoneal signs

E. Percussion highlights localized or generalized tympanism

97. CM Do you select true statements regarding intestinal occlusions?

A. Cancer occlusion is more common in the left colon

B. Occlusion by strangulation begins suddenly

C. The most common volvulus appears on the sigmoid

D. Intestinal invagination is more common in the elderly

E. Meconial occlusion occurs more frequently in adolescents

98. CM Sigmoid volvulus is a small intestinal occlusion, characterized by:

A. Sudden onset, with severe pain in the left iliac fossa

B. General satisfactory condition

C. Asymmetric meteorism, with the long axis of the left iliac fossa towards the right hypochondrium

D. Complete interruption of intestinal transit from onset

E. Hydraulic image "bicycle tire"

99. CM From the etiopathogenetic point of view the intestinal occlusions are classified in:

A. Dynamic

B. High

C. Low

D. Acute

E. Mechanical

100. CM Indicate the closed methods of intraoperative decompression of the digestive tract in the intestinal
occlusion:

A. Installation of a rectal probe in the complete tumor occlusion of the descending colon

B. Moving the intestinal contents from the afferent handle to the efferent one after transecting the clamp

C. Installing a nasal-gastrointestinal probes

D. Enterotomy with aspiration of the intestinal contents of the related loop

E. Sigmostomy with intraoperative emptying of the contents intestine

101. CM Indicate the open methods of intraoperative decompression of the digestive tract in the intestinal
occlusion:
A. Ileostomy with intraoperative emptying of the contents intestine

B. Moving the intestinal contents from the afferent handle to the efferent one after transecting the clamp

C. Installation of the naso-gastrointestinal tract

D. Enterotomy with aspiration of the intestinal contents of the related loop

E. Sigmostomy with intraoperative emptying of the contents intestine

102. CS Select the statement that is not characteristic for ileo-colic invagination:

A. Bloody removal from the rectum

B. Acute evolution in children

C. Volume formation in the right iliac fossa

D. Colic abdominal pain

E. It is mainly found in adults

103. CM Select the correct statements, characteristic for acute low bowel occlusion:

A. Abdominal meteorism

B. Diarrhea

C. Multiple early vomiting

D. constipation

E. Vomiting with fetid character

104. CS Bloody blood vessels in the rectum are characteristic for intestinal occlusion

A. paralytic

B. spastic

C. By invagination

D. adherents

E. By strangulation

105. CM List the disorders that occur during the early period of the high intestinal occlusion:

A. Hipercaliemia

B. Dehydration
C. Reduction of hematocrit

D. Increased hematocrit

E. Hipocaliemia

BILITARY LITIAZA (tests)

1. CS. Indicate the clinical sign characteristic of obstructive biliary lithiasis:

A. High fever

B. Multiple vomiting

constipation C.

D. Jaundice

E. Palpable, painful tumor mass in the right hypochondrium

2. CS. Choose the most common cause of jaundice in acute cholecystitis:

A. Viral hepatitis

B. Spasm of sphincter Oddi

C. Extension of the inflammatory process in the main biliary tract

D. Pancreatic edema

E. Primary choledocholithiasis

3. CS. The bilio-digestive fistula is translated by the appearance of a communication of the gallbladder with
the neighboring organs. The most commonly affected is:

A. stomach

B. duodenum

C. ileum

D. The transverse colon

E. jejuni

4. CS Indicate the appropriate treatment in chronic biliary lithiasis with biliary colic:

A. Urgent surgery
B. Delayed emergency surgery

C. Only conservative treatment

D. Surgical treatment scheduled after spasmolytic biliary colic is coated

E. Emergency diagnostic laparoscopy with appreciation of healing tactics

5. CS. In the acute perforative lithiasis cholecystitis, the symptom is positive:

A. Bereznigovsky

B. Bartomie-Mihelson

C. Korte

D. Mondor

E. Blumberg

6. CS. Which of the complications of biliary lithiasis requires surgery in the emergency within the first 2
hours after hospitalization?

A. choledocholithiasis

B. Cholecystococcal fistula

C. Acute biliary pancreatitis

D. Acute destructive cholecystitis complicated with diffuse peritonitis

E. Mechanical jaundice

7. CS. Anterior cholecystectomy is indicated:

A. In elderly patients

B. In patients with jaundice

C. When the elements of the Callot triangle are not differentiated

D. In the vesicular hydrops

E. In acute cholangitis

8. CS. The noninvasive elective method with a 90% accuracy of detecting choledocholithiasis is:

A. Abdominal USG
B. Computed tomography without contrast

Laparoscopy C.

D. retrograde endoscopic cholangiopancreatography

E. MRI in cholangiographic regimen

9. CS. The medico-surgical tactic in chronic lithiasis cholecystitis associated with acute biliary pancreatitis
consists of:

A. Traditional cholecystectomy with drainage of the choledoid within the first 24 hours from onset

B. Laparoscopic cholecystectomy within the first 24 hours after onset

C. Laparoscopic cholecystectomy with choledo drainage within the first 24 hours after onset

D. Conservative treatment of acute pancreatitis until regression, with subsequent delayed cholecystectomy

E. Scheduled cholecystostomy

10. CS. Preferential for the prevention of complications in asymptomatic cholecystic lithiasis is:

A. Respect for diet and diet

B. Periodic monitoring of the patient's condition

C. Cole scheduled cystectomy

D. Symptomatic treatment with antispastic

E. Scheduled cholangiopancreatography

11. CS Which of the listed paraclinical procedures is not practicable in a patient with bilirubinemia greater
than 30 mmol / l?

A. Endoscopic retrograde cholangiography

B. Abdominal ultrasound

C. Transparietohepatic cholangiography

D. Intravenous cholangiography

E. Biliary scintigraphy

12. CS The primary choledochian liturgy is the consequence:

A. Migration of gall bladder calculi to the coledoc

B. A biliary-biliary fistula

C. Formation of biliary calculus in coledoc

D. A bilio-digestive fistula

E. Biliary colic

13. CS Which of the complications of gall bladder lithiasis can cause?

A. Cholecystococcal fistula

B. Cholecyst-duodenal fistula

C. Acute cholecystitis

D. Acute cholecystocreatitis

E. Cholecystic-colic fistula

14. CS A patient aged 44 years is admitted with colicative pain in the right hypochondrium, fever, jaundice.
The total bilirubin is 40 mmol / l. What exploration can guide the diagnosis?

A. Intravenous cholangiography

B. Oral cholecystography

C. Empty abdominal x-ray

D. Liver scintigraphy

E. Abdominal USG

15. CS What is the most common complication of bladder lithiasis?

A. Vesicular hydrops

B. Mechanical jaundice

C. Biliary fistulas

D. Acute cholecystitis

E. Bladder cancer

16. CS In the acute lithiasic cholecystitis, the surgical intervention is practiced most frequently in:

A. The first 24-48 hours after hospitalization

B. 10 days after the onset of the disease

C. After 6 weeks after the onset of the disease

D. 3 months after the onset of the disease

E. Scheduled - to "cold"

17. CS The symptomatic triad (pain, fever, jaundice) suggests the diagnosis of:

A. Cholediate lithiasis with cholangitis

B. Hypercholesterolemia

C. Pancreatic head neoplasm

D. Hydrops of the gallbladder

E. Acute necrotico-hemorrhagic pancreatitis

18. CS The mechanism of appearance of the hemolytic jaundice is:

A. Inefficient erythropoiesis

B. Excessive intra- and extravascular hemolysis

C. Transient hepatic transferase deficiency

D. Neonatal infections

E. Strict intrahepatic bile ducts

19. CS Simple abdominal radiography performed in patients with biliary disease may provide
pathognomonic data for:

A. Acute cholangitis

B. Cholediate dilation over 2 cm

C. Porcelain gall bladder

D. Vesicular malformations

E. Colosseum cysts

20. CS Identify which of the following is a curative advantage of retrograde cholangiopancreatography:

A. It can be done in the first trimester of pregnancy

B. Optimal visualization of the proximal bliar tract

C. It can occur in acute pancreatitis

D. Possibility of performing endoscopic sphincterotomy and removal of calculations

E. Solving cholecystitis lithiasis

21. CS One of the characteristics below does not correspond to chronic sclerosis-atrophic cholecystitis:

A. The bladder contains the stasis bile

B. Calculations may be missing, if there was a coledian passage

C. There is danger

D. The walls are infiltrated with sclero-lipomatosis

E. It represents an anatomopathological form

22. CS Select the mechanical complication of biliary lithiasis:

A. Acute cholecystitis

B. Vesicular hydrops

C. Biliary pancreatitis

D. Odd stenosis

E. Bladder cancer

23. CS The litiatic jaundice is characterized by the following, except:

A. Transient jaundice

B. Colitis that precedes jaundice

C. Install without preceding colic

D. It is installed within the first 24 hours after the onset of the disease

E. Initially, the coloration of the scleros and then the teguments is noticed

24. The Villard-Charcot Triad consists of:

A. Pain, fever, hepatomegaly

B. Pain, jaundice, hepatomegaly

C. Pain, fever, jaundice

D. Icter, Courvoisier-Terrier sign, pain

E. Pain, hepatomegaly, splenomegaly

25. CS Which of the listed therapeutic procedures is most appropriate for the treatment of symptomatic
bladder lithiasis?

A. Chemical solution

B. Extracorporeal lithotripsy

C. Colecistostomia

D. Cholecystotomy with lithextraction

E. Laparoscopic cholecystectomy

26. CS Which of the complications of gallbladder lithiasis can be accompanied by biliary ileus?

A. Bilio-biliary fistula

B. Bilio-skin fistula

C. Cholecyst-duodenal fistula

D. Porcelain gall bladder

E. Vesicular hydrops

27. CS Which paraclinical method is optimal for the diagnosis of bladder lithiasis?

A. Simple abdominal x-ray

B. Oral cholecystography

C. Intravenous cholecystocolangiography

D. Abdominal ultrasound

E. Radioisotopic scintigraphy

28. CS What is the most common cause of acute surgical abdomen of biliary origin?

A. Bilio-digestive fistula

B. Mechanical jaundice

C. Bilio-biliary fistula
D. Acute cholecystitis

E. Vesicular hydrops

29. CS Indicate the decisive element in the positive diagnosis of gall bladder:

A. The presence of leukocytosis

B. Presence of subicter

C. The presence of pain in the right hypochondriac

D. Ultrasound visualization of the calculations

E. Presence of non-ulcer dyspepsia

30. CS Select the false claim regarding the etiopathogenesis of gallbladder lithiasis:

A. It appears colder often after the age of 40

B. It occurs more frequently in women

C. Stasis and infection play an important role in lithogenesis

D. Decreased cholesterol concentration in the bile has a lithogenetic role

E. Decreased contraction capacity of the cholecyst has a lithogenetic role

31. CS Laparoscopic cholecystectomy is contraindicated in:

A. Chronic microlithiasis cholecystitis

B. Acute cholecystitis

C. The presence of the gall bladder

D. The presence of leukocytosis

E. When ultrasound shows gallbladder with thickened walls

32. CS Biliary peritonitis occurring in the development of acute cholecystitis is determined by:

A. The presence of a bilio-duodenal fistula

B. Punching of the cholecyst into the free peritoneum

C. Migration of the calculation in the main biliary tract

D. The presence of a cholecysto-choledochial fistula

E. Installation of a gallbladder

33. CS Radical treatment of biliary lithiasis is:

A. Chemical dissolution

B. Extracorporeal lithotripsy

C. cholecystectomy

D. Percutaneous lithotripsy

E. Colecistostomia

34. CS Which of the clinical manifestations are encountered in the latent form of bladder lithiasis?

A. With asymptomatic evolution

B. Biliary colic

C. Jaundice

D. Fever

E. Non-ulcerative dyspepsia

35. CS The installation of acute cholecystitis is mainly due to:

A. Cholestasis in the gallbladder

B. The irritating effect of bile acids

C. Lipid hydrolysis in the lumen of the cholecyst

D. Infection

E. gallbladder ischemia

36. CS The first manifestation of acute lithiasis cholecystitis is:

A. Fever

B. Anorexia and vomiting

C. Biliary colic

D. Jaundice

E. Palpable gallbladder in the right hypochondrium

37. CS Jaundice in acute cholecystitis cannot be a consequence of:

Hepatitis A.

B. Spasm of the sphincter Oddi

C. Inflammatory infiltration of the bile ducts

D. The cystic duct block

E. Choledochian litiazei

38. CS The first therapeutic measures in acute cholecystitis are the following, EXCEPT:

A. Intravenous fluid infusion

B. Administration of analgesics

C. Administration of antibiotics

D. Suppression of oral nutrition

E. Extracorporeal detoxification

39. CS During the laparoscopic intervention for cholecystitis, there was revealed: a vesicle with gross
morphological alterations, tight adhesions in the infundibulo-cystic region,

the main biliary tract masked by the inflammatory process. In such circumstances it is recommended:

A. An anterograde cholecystectomy

B. Retrograde cholecystectomy

C. Colecistostomia

D. Bipolar cholecystectomy

E. Conversion to laparotomy with traditional cholecystectomy

40. CS Indication for choledochotomy during surgery for acute cholecystitis serves:

A. The developing jaundice or history

B. cholangitis

C. Calculations in bile ducts

D. Non-lithiasic cholecystitis with no obvious pathology affecting the biliary tract

E. Vesicular hydrops

41. CS Which of the following statements regarding acute non-lithiasic cholecystitis is incorrect?

A. It is usually installed against the background of different critical states

B. The pathogenesis remains uncertain

C. Clinical manifestations are identical to those of lithiasic cholecystitis

D. It is distinguished by favorable evolution and tendency towards spontaneous involution

E. A conservative attitude is allowed in the treatment

42. CS In asymptomatic cholelithiasis is indicated:

A. Avoidance of any treatment measures

B. Periodic control over the patient's condition

C. medication

D. cholecystectomy

E. Abdominal computed tomography

43. CS For the treatment of the residual calculations of the coleduct the election method is:

A. Litextracţia

B. Application of contact solvents

C. medication

D. Extracorporeal lithotripsy

E. Laparoscopy

44. CS From the possible consequences of choledocholithiasis, the imminent life threat presents:

A. Chronic biliary obstruction

B. Bilio-digestive fistula

C. Secondary biliary cirrhosis

D. Portal hypertension

E. Obstructive jaundice
45. CS Of the factors that favor the appearance of purulent angiocolitis, the most common are:

A. The iatrogenic structure of the extrahepatic bile ducts

B. Neoplasms of the coledocum

C. choledocholithiasis

D. Stenosis of the ampulla of Vater

E. Chronic pancreatitis

46. CS The measures necessary for the initial rebalancing in the suppurated angiocolitis do not include:

A. Prohibition of peroral administration

B. Vitamin A

C. Vitamin K

D. Intravenous fluid infusions

E. Antibiotics

47. CS Among the methods of decompression of the bile ducts in lithiasic cholangitis it is preferable:

A. Colecistostomia

B. Cholecystectomy with choledochotomy

C. Transparietohepatic drainage

D. Papillosphincterotomy and lithextraction

E. Nose-biliary drainage

48. CS The diagnosis of certainty of vesicular lithiasis can be established by:

A. Radiological examination

B. Angiography

C. Ultrasound

D. Hepato-biliary scintigraphy

E. Fibrogastroscopie

49. CS Select the correct statement regarding cholecystostomy:

A. It is the treatment of choice for biliary lithiasis

B. It is long lasting and risky

C. It is indicated in the sick patients, with major anesthetic risk

D. It is the definitive treatment of choledochiasis lithiasis

E. Always requires general anesthesia and pneumopathy eritoneu

50. CS For what value, does the thickness of the vesicular walls, ultrasound, have the significance of an
acute process?

A. 2 mm

B. 3 mm

C. 4 mm

D. 5 mm

E. 6 mm

51. CS The presence of aerial images in the vesicular wall at the imaging examination is suggestive for:

A. Cholecyst-duodenal fistula

B. Cholecystic-colic fistula

C. Cholecyst-gastric anastomosis

D. Perforated cholecystitis

E. Anaerobic infection (emphysematous cholecystitis)

52. CS Indicate the false statement regarding acute cholecystitis:

A. The episode may occur 2-3 days after a heavy meal

B. Signs of peritoneal irritation may occur

C. After a few days of evolution the cholecystic plaque is formed

D. The presence of fever is excluded

E. Can be associated with palpable cholecyst

53. CS Pneumobilia found on simple radiological examination confirms:

A. choledocholithiasis

B. Acute lithiasis cholecystitis

C. Chronic lithiasis cholecystitis

D. Bilio-digestive fistula

E. Gastro-colic fistula

54. CS Select contraindication for endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography:

A. Acute necrotic pancreatitis

B. Mechanical jaundice

C. choledocholithiasis

D. Pancreatic lithiasis

E. Chronic pancreatitis

55. CS Most often gallstones are made up of:

A. Cholesterol

B. Cysteine

C. Sodium bicarbonate

D. Uric acid

E. Oxalate

56. CS The biliary ileum appears as a result of the migration of a giant calculus through a fistular orifice
formed between the gallbladder and:

A. Transverse colon

B. ileum

C. Check

D. duodenum

E. The descending colon

57. CS Multiple intrahepatic abscesses usually occur in the case of:

A. Vesicular hydrops
B. Chronic lithiasis cholecystitis

C. Acute purulent cholangitis

D. Structure of the sphincter Oddi

E. Chronic biliary pancreatitis

58. CS The pathway to enter the infectious process in the case of acute cholangitis is most often retrograde
digestive and occurs through:

A. The portal vein

B. Colosseum duct

C. Lower vena cava

D. Common hepatic artery

E. Lymphatic vessels

59. CM Which of the listed investigative methods are most commonly used to confirm acute cholecystitis?

A. Abdominal radiotherapy in orthostatism

B. Ultrasound

C. Computed tomography

D. Colescintigrafia

E. Laparoscopy

60. CM What can serve as an indication for cholangiography in the intervention for acute cholecystitis:

A. Large calculations in the gallbladder

B. Colosseum lithiasis

C. Dilation of the bile ducts

D. Angina pectoris

E. Jaundice in history

61. CM Among the ones listed below, the risk of intraoperative lesions of the biliary tract increases:

A. Massive intraoperative hemorrhage

B. Variations and anomalies in the anatomical structure of the bile ducts

C. Maneuvers in pathologically modified tissues

D. Bladder traction at the time of cystic ligation, instrumental investigation of the biliary tract

E. Jaundice in history

62. CM What can be the consequences of the iatrogenic lesions produced by the biliary tract, not observed
intraoperatively?

A. Intra-abdominal septic process

B. External biliary fistulas

C. The impermeability of the bile ducts

D. suppurated angiocolitis

E. Internal hernias

63. CM The complications of bladder lithiasis are:

A. Infectious

B. Mechanical

C. dyspeptic

D. hemorrhage

Degenerative neoplastic E.

64. CM In the case of the biliary ileus, which is the most common place where a calculation can be blocked,
migrated by fistula:

A. duodenum

B. pylori

C. Colic flexure

D. Ileo-cecal valve

E. coledoc

65. CM The dyspeptic form of a gall bladder is dominated by:

A. Nausea
B. Postprandial ballooning

C. Jaundice

D. Transit disorders

E. Colicative pain

66. CM The possibilities of retrograde endoscopic cholangiopancreatography in jaundice with lithiasis are:

A. It allows the exploration of the bile and pancreatic tree

B. Allows differentiation of jaundice syndrome

C. Ensures the etiological diagnosis is established in the mechanical jaundice

D. Allows a biopsy

E. It is easy to do in patients with Billroth II gastric resection

67. CM The major coledocian syndrome (Charcot-Villard triad) includes:

A. Muscular endurance

B. Fever

Dyspepsia C.

D. pain

E. Jaundice

68. CM Select the clinical elements suggestive for the diagnosis of acute cholecystitis?

A. Pain in the right hypochondrium

B. Fever

C. Contracture preceding biliary colic

D. Diarrhea

E. Jaundice

69. CM Which of the following techniques represents radical-curative methods of treatment of vesicular
lithiasis?

A. Laparoscopic cholecystectomy
B. Open cholecystectomy

C. Colecistostomia

D. Percutaneous lithotripsy

E. Extracorporeal lithotripsy

70. CM Which statements regarding the biliary ileus are correct?

A. Clinically manifests by high occlusion, the obstacle being, most of the times, placed at the terminal ileum
level

B. Bladder calculus with a minimum diameter of 3-4 cm, leaving the gallbladder passing into the duodenum

C. On the plain abdominal x-ray, the presence of pneumobilia is noted

D. Radiologic is the sentinel handle

E. It is accompanied by abdominal muscle contracture

71. CM What are the clinical forms of chronic gallbladder lithiasis?

A. Lat enta

B. ulcers

Painful C.

D. dyspeptic

E. neoplasia

72. CM Select the possibilities of the ultrasound examination in the gall bladder:

A. Appreciates the form, volume, walls and contents of the cholecyst

B. Provides information on the status of the pancreas

C. Provides information on intra- and extrahepatic bile ducts

D. Highlights minor coledo syndrome

E. Does not appreciate surgical tactics

73. CM Pain in biliary colic has the following characteristics:

A. The pain is anticipated by fever

B. The seat of pain is in the right hypochondrium with epigastric irradiation

C. Pain may radiate into the right shoulder or tip of the scapula

D. The patient is immobile, in an analgesic position ("shotgun")

E. Nausea and vomiting may accompany painful syndrome

74. CM The following factors are involved in the etiopathogenesis of vesicular lithiasis:

A. Excess cholesterol in the composition of the bile

B. Decreased concentration of bile acids and lecithin in the bile

C. Inability of the collector to effectively evacuate the content

D. Presence of precipitation nuclei (epithelium, leukocytes, germs)

E. Involvement of testosterone

75. CM The appearance of biliary lithiasis is favored by:

A. Modification of the ratio of the biliary components

B. The inability of the collector to evacuate the content

C. Antispastic medication

D. Stasis and infection

E. Pregnancy or prolonged intake of contraceptives

76. CM The advantages of laparoscopic cholecystectomy are:

A. Reduced postoperative pain

B. Reduced rate of wound complications (suppurations, accidental events)

C. Shortening the length of hospitalization

D. Decreasing intraoperative accidents and incidents

E. Rapid professional reintegration

77. CM Biliary colic has the following characteristics:

A. It is accompanied by violent pain with exacerbations against a permanent pain syndrome

B. The site of pain is in the right hypochondrium with epigastric irradiation

C. Nausea and vomiting are excluded

D. The site of pain is epigastric with posterior irradiation

E. It is determined by the tetanus contracture of the smooth bladder musculature

78. CM The following clinical signs suggest the appearance of complications in biliary lithiasis:

A. Fever

B. Repeated vomiting

C. Jaundice

D. hypotension

E. The presence of a painful infiltrate upon palpation in the region of the right hypochondrium

79. CM Among the inflammatory complications of biliary lithiasis are:

A. Acute phlegmous cholecystitis

B. Acute biliary pancreatitis

C. Vesicular hydrops

D. angiocolitis

E. All of the above listed

80. CM. The clinical picture of acute cholecystitis in the elderly highlights the following particularities:

A. Total regression of symptomatology after drug treatment

B. Local pain not pronounced with the prevalence of the symptoms of intoxication

C. Moderate fever in destructive forms

D. Symptoms of blurred peritoneal irritation in the association of complications

E. Diarrhea

81. CM. Laparoscopic retrograde cholecystectomy is performed in the following cases:

A. Chronic lithiasis cholecystitis

B. Acute catarrhal lithiasic cholecystitis

C. Acute perforative gangrenous lithiasis cholecystitis

D. Cholecystococcal fistula

E. Vesicular hydrops

82. CM. Intraoperative cholangiography allows:

A. Assessment of the presence and location of calculations in the main biliary tract

B. Finding the communication of the gallbladder with the neighboring organs

C. Finding the communication of the gallbladder with the main biliary tract

D. Appreciation of the permeability of the terminal cholecyst

E. Clearance of spasm of the bile ducts

83. CM. Mirizzi syndrome represents:

A. Communication of the gallbladder with the common hepatic duct

B. Communication of the gallbladder with the right hepatic duct

C. Communication of the gallbladder with the choledochial duct

D. Communication of the gallbladder with the duodenum

E. Communication of the gallbladder with the transverse colon

84. CM The sides of the Calot triangle are represented by:

A. Common hepatic duct

B. Right hepatic artery

C. Cystic artery

D. Cystic duct

E. The portal vein

85. CM. Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography is indicated in:

A. Acute lithiasis cholecystitis without jaundice

B. Choledo dilation with transient jaundice

C. Background jaundice

D. Suspicious choledochial lithiasis

E. cholangitis
86. CM Decompression of the biliary tract in the case of mechanical jaundice can be performed by:

A. Endoscopic papillospherterotomy

B. Cholecystectomy

C. Cholecystectomy with biliary tract drainage

D. Transparietohepatic drainage of the biliary tract

E. Endoscopic nasal-biliary drainage

87. CM Microlithiasis can cause the following nozologies:

A. Acute biliary pancreatitis

B. Transient mechanical jaundice

C. Biliary colic

D. The biliary ileum

E. Acute cholecystitis

88. CM Select the indications for conversion to laparoscopic cholecystectomy:

A. Subhepatic adhesion process with the impossibility of certain differentiation of the anatomical elements

B. Acute phlegmonous cholecystitis with local peritonitis

C. Iatrogenic lesion of the cholecedo

D. Intraoperative iatrogenic hemorrhage with inability to be controlled

E. Bilio-digestive fistula

89. CM. It is true that in the case of colecis laparoscopic tectomy?

A. The duration of hospitalization of patients can be 1-4 days

B. Cosmetically, the postoperative scar is more attractive to patients

C. The recovery period is shorter and easier

D. The cost of treatment is higher compared to conventional surgery

E. The procedure is contraindicated in patients over 60 years of age

90. CM Among the early complications after cholecystectomy are:

A. Biliary peritonitis

B. Intra-abdominal bleeding

C. Postoperative wound suppuration

D. Postoperative hernia

E. Portal hypertension

91. CM Iatrogenia of the biliary tract, not diagnosed intraoperatively, can evolve towards:

A. Diffuse biliary peritonitis

B. Mechanical jaundice

C. cholangitis

D. Abdominal sepsis

E. Subhepatic bilom

92. CM The procedures for external drainage of the bile ducts are used:

A. Vishnevsky

B. Halstedt-Pikovsky

C. Kehr

D. Razdolsky

E. Lane

93. CM Select the correct statements in the biliary ileus:

A. Has clinical manifestations, characteristic of the upper intestinal occlusion

B. Appears as a result of the migration of a giant calculation

C. USG confirms the absence of calculation in the gallbladder

D. Overall radiography reveals aerobics

E. Irrigation is informative

94. CM The most common bacteria in acute lithiasic cholecystitis are:

A. Escherichia coli
B. Staphylococcus aureus

C. Streptococcus

D. Helicobacter pylori

E. Bacteroidus

95. CM Select the causes of mechanical jaundice by intraluminal obstruction:

A. Pseudotumoral headache pancreatitis

B. Pancreatic head cancer

C. Biliary lithiasis

D. Hemobilie

E. Ampulom vaterian

96. CM In which of the following conditions is laparoscopic cholecystectomy indicated?

A. Vesicular hydrops

B. Biliary microlithiasis

C. Acute gangrenous cholecystitis

D. Biliary dyspepsia

E. Cancer of the gallbladder with liver invasion

97. CM Which of the listed signs differentiates acute cholecystitis from biliary colic?

A. Fever

B. Pain in the right hypochondrium

C. Presence of subhepatic infiltrate

D. Vomiting

E. Beginning after a high-fat lunch

98. CM Indicate typical signs for vesicular hydrops:

A. The bottom of the gallbladder is palpated

B. Subhepatic plastron is present

C. The patient is feverish

D. Sclero-conjunctival subicter

E. At USG there is present calculation included in the infundibulo-cystic region

99. CM Acute cholecystitis can be complicated by:

A. Peritonitis

B. Veterinary stenosis

C. Subhepatic plastron

D. Intrahepatic abscess

E. Bilio-digestive fistula

100. CM Select the causes of mechanical jaundice:

A. Klatskin tumor

B. Hemobilia

C. The Vaterian Ampuloma

D. Post-ulcer ulcer

E. Primary sclerosing cholangitis

101. CM A 60-year-old patient has jaundice for 2 weeks with no abdominal pain. The gallbladder is enlarged
by volume on ultrasound examination. Select possible causes:

A. choledocholithiasis

B. Choledochial obstruction due to chronic pancreatitis

C. Choledochial obstruction by cephalic pancreatic neoplasm

D. Acute cholecystitis

E. Alcoholic hepatitis

102. CM Complete obstruction of extrahepatic biliary ducts determines:

A. Jaundice

B. Unimportant hyperbilirubinemia
C. Marked bilirubinuria

D. Hyperchrome chairs

E. Acolytic chair

103. CM Which of the following signs guide the diagnosis of lithiasis:

A. Progressive jaundice, apiretic

B. Transient jaundice

C. Jaundice not accompanied by pain

D. Colic precedes jaundice

E. Bladder distension is present

104. CM Select scans that confirm the bladder disconnection:

A. NMR

B. Color Doppler ultrasound

C. Schwartz test

D. Radioisotopic biliary scintigraphy

E. Simple abdominal x-ray

105. CM Mark the correct statements regarding radioisotopic scintigraphy:

A. Accurate identification of gallstones

B. It allows to determine the volume and contractility of the gallbladder

C. Accurate identification of the obstruction of the colloquium

D. Immediate accessibility of the investigation

E. Identification of the obstruction of the colledo

106. CM Which of the following are specific to patients with biliary lithiasis:

A. Biliary colic

B. Mistakes and vomiting

C. Eructation

D. Dyspepsia
E. Fever

107. CM The advantage of abdominal ultrasound in bladder lithiasis lies in the following:

A. Always provide accurate data on coledoc

B. It is non-invasive

C. It can be done in patients with jaundice

D. Can be repeated as needed

E. Provides information on adjacent organs that might be involved in biliary distress

108. CM Preoperative preparation of patients with jaundice includes:

A. Coagulopathy correction

B. Prophylactic antibiotic therapy

C. Cardiotonic in the elderly

D. Decompression of the bile ducts

E. Correction of hydropower imbalances

109. CM Select features of jaundice from choledochian syndrome:

A. Appears first in the Charcot triad

B. The coloration of the sclerites and subsequently of the teguments

C. Urine is hyperchromic

D. Bradycardia appears

E. The chairs are acolic

110. CM Select the correct statements regarding the composition of the gallstones:

A. Cholesterol calculations are yellow

B. Cholesterol calculations have a muriform appearance

C. Pigment calculations are ma ro

D. Mixed calculations are most commonly encountered

E. Calcium bilirubin calculations are the most common variety

111. CM Pure cholesterol gallstones have the following characteristics:

A. Brown color

B. Yellow color

C. Muriform appearance

D. In Europe it ranks second in frequency

E. Little blacks

112. CM Among the symptoms of suppurated angiocolitis, the two most constant are:

A. Fever

B. Pain in the abdomen

C. Jaundice

D. Septic shock

E. Brain disorders

113. CM What inflammatory complications can occur in bladder lithiasis?

A. Biliary pancreatitis

B. Vesicular hydrops

C. Internal biliary fistula

D. Acute cholecystitis

E. Oddian Stenosis

114. CM The increased danger of acute cholecystitis in the elderly is conditioned by:

A. Oligosymptomatic evolution of the disease

B. The progressive nature of the condition

C. High rate of destructive forms

D. Inaccurate ultrasound diagnosis

E. The land on which the disease evolves

115. CM Transparietohepatic cholangiography can induce the following complications:

A. Intra-abdominal bleeding

B. Intra-abdominal bilirage

C. Acute pancreatitis

D. Descending colon lesion with peritonitis

E. Gallbladder lesion

116. CM The most informative methods in the diagnosis of mechanical jaundice are:

A. Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography

B. Peroral cholangiography

C. Scintigraphy of the liver

D. MRI in cholangiographic regimen

E. Computed tomography

117. CM The occurrence of jaundice syndrome in case of acute lithiasis cholecystitis can be explained by:

A. choledocholithiasis

B. Progressive renal failure

C. Edema of the cephalopancreas

D. cholangitis

E. Perforation of the gallbladder

118. CM Causal factor of primary choledocholithiasis can be:

A. The Vaterian papilloma

B. Chronic indurative cephalic pancreatitis

C. The annular pancreas

D. Stenosis of the sphincter Oddi

E. Acute lithiasis cholecystitis

119. CM Which of the clinical manifestations in a patient with large gallstones can suggest a fistular
complication?
A. Fever above 38 ° C

B. Jaundice syndrome

C. angiocolitis

D. The intestinal ileum

E. Peritoneal irritation

120. CM Indicate the surgical procedures that represent radical methods of treatment of bladder lithiasis:

A. Retrograde cholecystectomy

B. Laparoscopic cholecystostomy

C. Endoscopic retrograde cholangiography

D. Laparotomic cholecystectomy

E. Endoscopic papillosphinscterotomy

121. CM Select which of the following may be the cause of the subictery that appeared in the evolution of
acute cholecystitis:

A. Associated choledochian litiasis

B. Cholecyst plastron

C. Associated angiocolitis

D. Associated pancreatitis

E. Cholecyst-duodenal fistula

122. CM Select the true statements regarding the etiopathogenesis of vesicular lithiasis:

A. Excess cholesterol in the bile or decreased concentration of bile acids and lecithin lead to the emergence
of cholesterol precursor nuclei of lithiasis

B. Pregnancy results in a reduction in bladder ejection capacity, attracting consecutive stasis

C. Bladder evacuation insufficiency is one of the favorable causes of lithogenesis

D. Stasis and infection play a favorable role

E. Constitutional or dietary hypercholesterolemia is accompanied, in all cases, by an increase in cholesterol

in the bile
123. CM Select indications of intraoperative cholangiography in biliary lithiasis:

A. Recent or current jaundice episode

B. Diameter of the main bile duct over 10 mm

C. Bladder calculations smaller than 5 mm, with wide cystic duct

D. Hemolytic jaundice

E. Liver cirrhosis

124. CM Select the correct statements that suggest Bouveret syndrome:

A. Radiologic - pneumoperitoneum

B. Clinically - high occlusion through obstruction

C. Intraoperative - cholecysto-duodenal fistula and biliary obstruction at the lig.Treitz

D. Abdominal ultrasound - pneumonia

E. Laboratory - anemia

125. CM What morphopathological forms can the chronic lithiasis cholecystitis wear?

A. Hyperplastic form

B. The catarrhal form

C. The sclerotic-atrophic form

D. Gangrenous form

E. Phlegmous form

126. CM Among the listed ones, the clinical forms of vesicular lithiasis:

A. Latent

B. ulcers

Sclero-atrophic C.

D. Painful

E. Heart

127. CM Laparoscopic cholecystectomy is contraindicated in patients:

A. Over 50 years

B. Who have undergone multiple supramolecular surgery

Obese C.

D. With bladder plastron

E. Under 50 years old

128. CM Abdominal ultrasound can bring the following information into bladder lithiasis:

A. Appreciates the shape, volume, walls and contents of the gallbladder

B. Decide the operator approach

C. Provides information about the pancreas

D. Provides information about the biliary tract

E. Highlight the septum and the gallbladder

129. CM Pain in biliary colic has the following characteristics:

A. At the beginning it is located in the epigastric

B. May also have ascending irradiation in the epigastric area

C. Can radiate into the shoulder d challenge or at the tip of the scapula

D. Can be followed by jaundice

E. Nausea and vomiting may accompany pain

130. CM The following clinical-paraclinical signs are positive diagnostic elements of acute cholecystitis:

A. The Blumberg sign

B. Parietal edema of the lithiasic cholecyst at the abdominal USG

C. Intrahepatic biliary tract dilation at ultrasound

D. Progressive and persistent jaundice

E. Leukocytosis

131. CM Select complications that may occur in the development of acute cholecystitis:

A. Bladder plastron
B. Abscess of gallbladder cavity (piocolecist)

C. Biliary peritonitis

D. Subhepatic abscess

E. Malignant degeneration

132. CM Vesicular calculations can be:

A. uric

B. cholesterol

C. hemoglobin

D. Oxalate

E. Mycoses (bile pigments, proteins, mucus, calcium)

133. CS List the components of the biliary tree:

A. Cystic duct and choledochial

B. Colosseum and Wirsung pipeline

C. Intrahepatic and extrahepatic bile ducts

D. Extrahepatic bile ducts and the Vater papilla

E. The common hepatic and choledochial canal

134. CS Indicate the connection of the biliary tree through the cystic duct:

A. Biliary bladder with intrahepatic bile ducts

B. The gall bladder with the main biliary tract

C. Biliary bladder with duodenum

D. Gallbladder with colon

E. The gall bladder with the Wirsung duct

135. CS Specify indication for scheduled cholecystectomy:

A. In all cases of biliary lithiasis in the absence of absolute contraindications

B. In the latent form of biliary lithiasis

C. In the presence of clinical signs of biliary lithiasis

D. In the elderly

E. In persons up to 20 years old

PANCREATITA (heads)

1. CS Of the ones listed the pancreatogenic shock is determined by:

A. Pancreatogenic peritonitis

B. Compression of the distal portion of the colloid and the appearance of holemia

C. Fermentative toxin

D. Biliary hypertension

E. Dynamic intestinal ileum

2. CM For acute necrotico-haemorrhagic pancreatitis, the following symptoms are characteristic:

A. High blood pressure

B. Multiple vomiting

C. Mayo-Robson sign

D. Körte sign

E. Decreased intestinal peristalsis

3. CS In the diagnosis of pancreatic necrosis, the most informative instrumental diagnostic method will be:

A. Thermography

B. FEGDS

C. Urinary amylase

D. Blood amylase

E. Diagnostic laparoscopy

4. CS Select the sign that is NOT characteristic of acute pancreatitis:

A. Pain in the bar

B. Incomercible vomiting

C. Hypertension in the first hours after the onset of the disease

D. collapse

E. tachycardia

5. CS List the complications of acute pancreatitis, except:

A. Abscess of the omental scholarship

B. Hepato-renal failure

C. Pancreatic pseudocyst

D. fermentative peritonitis

E. cholelithiasis

6. CS In a patient with a history of pancreatic necrosis (6 months ago), a tumor formation was observed in
the epigastric region and the left hypochondrium 15x20 cm, on palpation - hard, slightly painful, without
febrile episodes. At FRGDS the prolapse of the posterior wall of the stomach is determined, the duodenal
quadrant being deformed. Make the diagnosis:

A. Transverse colon tumor

B. Pancreatic tumor

C. Pancreatic pseudochist

D. Renal polycystosis

E. Abscess of the omental pouch

7. CS The following refers to the forms of acute pancreatitis, EXCEPT:

A. Acute interstitial pancreatitis

B. Pseudotumoral chronic pancreatitis

C. Lipid pancreatic necrosis

D. Pancreatic hemorrhage

E. Acute infiltrative-necrotic pancreatitis

8. CS In the evolution of acute pancreatitis the decisive role belongs:

A. Microbial flora

B. Plasmocyte infiltration
C. Fermentation aggression

D. venous stasis

E. Mesenteric thrombosis

9. CS The cytosteatonecrosis spots are the result of:

A. Proteolytic necrobiosis of pancreatocytes under the action of trypsin and hemotrypsin

B. The action of elastase on the walls of the venules

C. The action of lipolytic fermions on pancreatocytes and interstitial adipose tissue

D. Spontaneous decrease of autolytic processes with the outbreak of microfocal pancreatonecrosis

outbreaks

E. The association of the infection against the background of acute acute pancreatitis -essential

10. CM Hemorrhagic pancreatic necrosis is the result:

A. Increased vascular permeability

B. The action of elastase on the walls of the venules

C. The action of proteolytic fermions on the vascular endothelium

D. Spontaneous decrease of autolytic processes with the outbreak of microfocal pancreatonecrosis

outbreaks

E. The association of the infection against the background of acute lipid pancreatitis

11. CS The persistent resistance to palpation of the abdomen in the projection of the pancreas in case of
acute pancreatitis characterizes the sign:

Mayo-Robson A.

B. Korte

C. Gray-Turner

D. Mondor

E. Voskresensky

12. CS FEGDS performed in patients with acute pancreatitis reveals:

A. Status of the Vater papilla

B. Confirmation of the existence of acute pancreatitis

C. Localization of the pathological process in the pancreas

D. Spread of the pathological process in the pancreas

E. Form of acute pancreatitis

13. CS The presence of palpation pain in the region of the left costal diaphragm is the sign:

Mayo-Robson A.

B. Korte

C. Gray-Turner

D. Mondor

E. Voskresensky

14. CS The ecchymoses on the lateral abdominal flanks in acute pancreatitis are characteristic of the sign:

Mayo-Robson A.

B. Korte

C. Gray-Turner

D. Mondor

E. Voskresensky

15. CS The occurrence of meteorism in patients with acute pancreatitis is determined by:

A. Compression of the duodenum by the edematous pancreatic headache

B. Incomercible vomiting

C. Intestinal paresis

D. Deficiency of pancreatic hormones

E. Fermentative insufficiency of the pancreatic gland

16. CS The impossibility of determining the abdominal aorta pulse in the epigastric in the case of acute
pancreatitis is characteristic of the symptom:

Mayo-Robson A.

B. Korte
C. Kehr

D. Mondor

E. Voskresensky

17. CS Finding steatonecrosis stains and serous exudate in the peritoneal cavity at diagnostic laparoscopy
confirms the diagnosis of:

A. Perforated ulcer

B. Acute pancreatitis

C. Acute appendicitis

D. Acute lithiasis cholecystitis

E. Mesenteric thrombosis

18. CM The principles of treatment of acute pancreatitis provide:

A. Suppression of the secretory function of the pancreas

B. Clearance of hypovolemia

C. Inactivation of pancreatic ferrules

D. Nasogastric decompression of the digestive tract

E. Opioid administration

19. CS The most informative instrumental method of diagnosis in acute pancreatitis is:

A. Pneumoperitoneum diagnosis

B. Overall X-ray of the abdomen

C. Diagnostic laparoscopy

D. FEGDS

E. Determination of amylase of urine and blood

20. CS In the presence of acute phlegmous cholecystitis and pancreatic necrosis it is indicated:

A. Conservative treatment

B. Laparoscopic drainage of the peritoneal cavity for the purpose of performing peritoneal dialysis
C. Conservative treatment, and after the decrease of acute manifestations - surgical treatment

D. Dynamic supervision on the background of conservative treatment, and in the case of development

diffuse peritonitis - surgical treatment

E. Emergency cholecystectomy with drainage of the biliary tract

21. CS For the relief of pain in acute pancreatitis the most effective is:

A. Spasmolytic administration

B. Peridural anesthesia

antibacterial C.

D. Blockade of the round ligament of the liver

E. Administration of i / m or i / v of the soil Morphini

22. CS Detection of hemorrhagic exudate and outbreaks of cytosteatonecrosis in the peritoneal cavity at
diagnostic laparoscopy in a patient with acute surgical abdomen indicates the presence:

A. Traumatic lesion of a retroperitoneal organ

B. Traumatic injury of the liver

C. Acute pancreatitis

D. Perforated duodenal ulcer

E. Mesenteric thrombosis

23. CS The most common symptom in acute pancreatitis is:

A. Presence of nausea and vomiting

B. subfertility

C. Jaundice

D. Ballooning of the abdomen

E. The presence of epigastric pain

24. CS The postnecrotic complication of acute pancreatitis is:

A. Pancreatic shock
B. Acute hepatic insufficiency

C. Abscess of the omental pouch

D. Fermentative peritonitis

E. Hemorrhagic pancreatitis

25. CS In the pathogenesis of acute pancreatitis the following ferment does not participate:

A. enterokinase

B. elastase

Phospholipase C

D. Trypsin

E. streptokinase

26. CS The most informative method in the diagnosis of pancreatic pseudocyst is:

A. Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancretography

B. Biochemical examination of blood

C. Abdominal CT

D. Barite examination of the small intestine

E. Abdominal USG

27. CS The most common form of acute pancreatitis is:

A. interstitial

B. lipid

C. Hemorrhagic

D. purulent

E. Lipid with fermentative peritonitis

28. CM In a 30-year-old patient with acute destructive pancreatitis, on the 14th day after the onset of the
disease, the following clinical symptoms appeared: hectic fever, chills, tachycardia, deviation of the
leukocyte formula to the left, palpation of an infiltrate into the epigastric area. This may be due to:

A. cholangitis
B. Left basal pneumonia

C. Pancreatic cyst

D. Retroperitoneal phlegmon

E. Pancreatic abscess

29. CS In case of pancreatic pseudochisturism it is indicated:

A. Only conservative antibiotic treatment

B. Nonoperative treatment

C. Emergency surgery

D. Surveillance in dynamics

E. Physiotherapy

30. CS The triggering factor of acute pancreatitis is:

A. The infectious factor

B. Acute gastroduodenitis

C. Acute alithiasis cholecystitis

D. Ball reflux and duodenal content in the Wirsung duct

E. Liver cirrhosis

31. CS The most commonly used non-invasive method for diagnosing acute pancreatitis is:

A. Overall X-ray of the abdomen

B. Abdominal USG

C. General blood analysis

D. Diagnostic laparoscopy

E. Abdominal CT

32. CS Diagnostic laparoscopy in acute pancreatitis does NOT allow:

A. Establishing the diagnosis of acute pancreatitis and determining the character of the pathological process

B. Extraction of the exudate from the peritoneal cavity, drainage of the peritoneal cavity and the omental
pouch
C. Application of the decompressive cholecystostoma

D. Avoidance of ungumented laparotomy

E. Papillotomy

33. CS For the acute syndrome of acute pancreatitis it is NOT characteristic:

A. Acute permanent pain "in the belt" is associated with vomiting

B. Pain causes pain on the transverse colon pathway, moderate muscular defense in the projection of the
pancreas (Körte symptom)

C. Pain occurs after ingestion of fatty foods, peppers or alcohol

D. Radiation of pain in the left costo-vertebral angle

E. Fever anticipates pain

34. CM State the clinical signs characteristic of severe acute pancreatitis:

A. collapse

B. Incomercible vomiting

C. Ballooning of the abdomen

D. Disappearance of hepatic maturity

E. Diarrhea

35. CS Indicate which of the listed preparations CANNOT be administered in acute pathogenetic
pancreatitis:

A. Octreotide acetate

B. Contricalul

C. 5-Fluorouracil

D. Ranititina

E. Morphine

36. CS Complications of pancreatic necrosis may be, EXCEPT:

A. Pancreatogenic abscess

B. Mechanical jaundice
C. choledocholithiasis

D. Pancreatic pseudocyst

E. Phlegmon of the retroperitoneal space

37. CS In a 35-year-old patient with a history of biliary lithiasis, after the failure of the diet, "bar" pains
appeared in the upper floor of the abdomen, multiple vomiting, incoercible. Objective: the general
condition is severe, Ps-120 beats / min, T / A-90/60 mmHg, the abdomen shows muscular resistance,
pronounced painfully in the epigastric, and on the flanks the percussion determines maturity. Intestinal
pesristaltism is absent. What is the presumptive diagnosis:

A. Perforation of gastric ulcer complicated by peritonitis

B. Acute intestinal ileum

C. Acute destructive cholecystitis

D. Acute pancreatitis

E. Acute mesenteric thrombosis

38. CS State the functional complication in acute pancreatitis:

A. Pancreatic abscess

B. Pancreatic plastron

C. Adult respiratory distress syndrome

D. Pancreatic pseudocyst

E. Purulent peritonitis

39. CS In the case of pancreatic necrosis, the following surgery is not indicated:

A. Echoogens drainage of pancreatic abscess

B. Application of omentobursostomy

C. Application of decompressive cholecystostomy

D. Pancreatoduodenal resection

E. Necrsechestrectomia

40. CS Select complications of acute pancreatitis, EXCEPT:

A. Pancreatogenic abscess

B. Lipomatosis of the pancreatic gland

C. Retroperitoneal phlegmon

D. External pancreatic fistula

E. erosive bleeding

41. CS In a 40-year-old patient with a history of duodenal ulcer, abdominal epigastric pain and multiple
vomiting suddenly appeared, which did not bring relief. Laboratory examinations: Le-16x109 / l, Hb-160g / l,
Total bilirubin-38.7 mmol / l, urea-11 mmol / l, urine diastase-1024 Un. Determine the presumptive
diagnosis:

A. Perforated duodenal ulcer

B. Acute destructive cholecystitis

C. Acute intestinal ileum with intestinal necrosis

D. Acute pancreatitis

E. Acute appendicitis

42. CS In a 60-year-old patient during laparoscopy for acute abdomen of unknown origin was found: stearin
stains on the colon, hemorrhagic exudate into the peritoneal cavity. How do you finish laparoscopy?

A. Laparotomy with drainage of the omental pouch and peritoneal cavity

B. Laparotomy, necrectomy, application of bursoomentostomy, drainage of the peritoneal cavity

C. Laparoscopic drainage of the peritoneal cavity

D. Resection of the affected pancreas with drainage of the omental pouch and peritoneal cavity

E. Laparoscopic assisted bursoomentostomy

43. CS The most informative diagnostic method in assessing the morphological form of acute pancreatitis is:

A. Diagnostic laparoscopy

B. Abdominal USG

C. Laparocenteza

D. Urinary amylase
E. Abdominal computed tomography

44. CS A large amount of serous exudate and multiple steatonecrosis spots on mesocolon were detected in
the diagnostic laparoscopy of a patient with acute peritonitis of unknown etiology. Make the diagnosis:

A. Tuberculous peritonitis

B. Pancreonecrosis with fermentative peritonitis

C. Chronic pancreatitis

D. Perforated peptic ulcer

E. Lipoidosis of the pancreas

45. CS The most common complications of acute pancreatitis in the first 24 hours after the onset of the
disease are the following, with the EXCEPTION:

A. Pancreatogenic shock

B. Pancreatic pseudocyst

Renal

C. they are polyorganic

D. fermentative peritonitis

E. pleurisy

46. CS Select the most informative method for the differential diagnosis of sterile and infected pancreatic
pancreatitis:

A. Diagnostic laparoscopy

B. Abdominal USG

C. blood culture

D. Position of retroperitoneal outbreaks under echolocated control

E. Determination of blood amylase and urine

47. CS In a patient who is undergoing treatment in the surgery department with the diagnosis of
pancreatonecrosis, on the 20th day after the onset of the disease, hectic fever, chills, palpator - infiltrate
into the epigastric without signs of peritonitis and intestinal paresis are determined. . Indicate which
complication of pancreatic necrosis has developed:
A. Pseudochist of the pancreas

B. Acute purulent-necrotic pancreatitis

C. cholangitis

D. Acute interstitial pancreatitis

E. Paranephritis on the left

48. CM Select the clinical manifestations characteristic of acute pancreatitis:

A. Increased blood pressure

B. Multiple vomiting

C. Mayo-Robson symptom

D. The symptom of Bonde

E. Decreased intestinal peristalsis

49. CM Indicate the curative measures aimed at combating toxemia in pancreatonecrosis:

A. Antiviral drug administration

B. Intra-aortic administration of Cyclophosphan or Fluorofur

C. Induction of forced diuresis

D. External drainage of the thoracic lymphatic duct

E. Opioid administration

50. CM A 24-year-old patient who became ill 12 hours ago was diagnosed with pancreatic necrosis. Indicate
the medical-surgical measures to be performed:

A. Emergency laparotomy

B. Diagnostic laparoscopy with drainage of the peritoneal cavity

C. Nasogastric decompression

D. Laparoscopic cholecystectomy in the presence of biliary lithiasis

E. Volemic replication

51. CM Postnecrotic complications of acute pancreatitis may be:

A. Calculated chronic pancreatitis

B. Wirsungolitiaza

C. Abscess of the omental pouch

D. Pancreatic pseudocyst

E. Biliary lithiasis

52. CM In the classification of acute pancreatitis after V. Filin the following forms are included:

A. Chronic pseudotumoral pancreatitis

B. Acute interstitial pancreatitis

C. Lipid pancreatic necrosis

D. Acute infiltrative-necrotic pancreatitis

E. Acute hemorrhagic pancreatitis

53. CM The status of toxemia in pancreatonecrosis is caused by the following biologically active substances:

A. Gastrin

B. Histamine

Bradykinin C.

D. Kalecreina

E. The products of tissue disintegration

54. CM The basic principles in the pathogenetic treatment of acute pancreatitis are:

A. Suppression of excretory function of the pancreas

B. Volemic replication

C. Inactivation of pancreatic ferrules

D. Decreased gastric secretion

E. Activation of intestinal peristalsis

55. CM In acute interstitial pancreatitis the following clinical manifestations can be determined:

A. Repeated vomiting

B. Abdominal muscle contracture

C. A displacement mat on the flanks of the abdomen

D. Colicative pains located in the epigastric area

E. Hepatic fever in the morning hours

56. CM List the most informative methods of positive diagnosis in acute pancreatitis:

A. Overall X-ray of the abdomen

B. Celiacografia

C. Abdominal CT

D. Diagnostic laparoscopy

E. pH-gastric metry

57. CM List the complications of pancreatosis:

A. Parapancreatita

B. Pancreatic pseudochist

C. Pleurisy

D. Pancreatic fistula

E. Mechanical intestinal occlusion

58. CM Indicate the medicinal preparations needed to treat acute pancreatitis:

A. Proton pump inhibitors

B. I colinoblocanţii

C. 5-Fluorouracil

D. H2 blockers

E. Morphine

59. CM Which investigations are useful in the differential diagnosis of acute pancreatitis with other medical-
surgical emergencies:

A. Overall X-ray of the abdomen

B. Diagnostic laparoscopy
C. Abdominal USG

D. Chest x-ray

E. Zeldovici test

60. CM State the healing procedures necessary for the fight against toxemia in pancreatonecrosis:

A. Administration of antiferrents

B. Laparoscopic drainage of the peritoneal cavity

C. Forced diuresis

D. Proton pump inhibitors

E. Laparoscopic cholecystostomy

61. CM List the symptoms characteristic of acute pancreatitis:

A. Frequent vomiting

B. Ballooning of the abdomen

C. Pain "in the bar"

D. Diarrhea

E. Caudal irradiation of pain

62. CM Which of the listed carriers participates in the pathogenetic link of acute pancreatitis:

A. Hepatic cytolysis carriers

B. elastase

C. Phospholipase A and B

D. Trypsin

E. Alkaline phosphatase

63. CM In acute pancreatitis, the following biochemical changes in blood are determined:

A. hypolipidemic

B. hyperazotaemia

C. Hipocalciemie
D. hypercalcemia

E. hypoprothrombinemic

64. CM The following curative measures are taken to combat toxemia in pancreatonecrosis:

A. Epidural blockage

B. I / V administration of 5-Fluoruracil

C. Freshly frozen plasma transfusion

D. Extracorporeal detoxification

E. Forced diuresis

65. CM Select the clinical signs characteristic of the infected pancreas:

A. Plastron in epigastric

B. Hypertension

C. Intestinal appearance

D. Hepatic fever

E. Leukocytosis

66. CM List the characteristics of pancreatic abscess:

A. Hepatic fever

B Infiltrated into the epigastric region

C. Jaundice

D. Hiperamilazemie

E. Choledoch dilation to abdominal USG

67. CM Jaundice in acute pancreatitis is caused by:

A. Compression of the terminal portion of the choledochea by the pancreatic headache

B. Terminal structure of the coledoc

C. Hepato-renal insufficiency

D. Acute cholecystitis

E. Associated choledocholithiasis
68. CM In the differential diagnosis of mechanical intestinal occlusion and acute pancreatitis are useful:

A. General blood analysis

B. Transaminase level

C. Blood electrolytes

D. Abdominal CT

E. Overall X-ray of the abdomen

69. CM The most common causes of death of patients with severe acute pancreatitis in the first 2 weeks
after the onset of the disease are:

A. Hypoglycaemic coma

B. Pancreatic abscess

C. erosive bleeding

D. Pancreatogenic shock

E. Multiple organ failure

70. CM List the complications that are characteristic of pancreatic necrosis:

A. Pancreatic abscess

B. Pancreatic pseudochist

C. Retroperitoneal phlegmon

D. Esophageal stenosis

E. Pancreatic fistula

71. CM List the indications for laparotomy in acute pancreatitis:

A. Fermentative peritonitis

B. Purulent peritonitis

C. Aseptic pancreatic necrosis

D. Septic pancreatic necrosis

E. Pancreatogenic shock
72. CM The most common etiological factors incriminated in acute pancreatitis are:

A. Biliary lithiasis

B. Alcohol consumption

C. triglycerides

D. duodenostasis

E. Pancreatic trauma

73. CM The sources of pancreatonecrosis infection are:

A. Bacterial translocation

B. Hematogenous dissemination

C. Perforation of the digestive tract

D. Early laparotomy

E. The transdiaphragmatic pathway from the chest

74. CM Select the most informative methods in differentiating acute interstitial pancreatitis from acute
purulent-necrotic pancreatitis:

A. Amylazuria level

B. Diagnostic laparoscopy

C. FEGDS

D. CT in angiographic regimen

E. Abdominal MRI

75. CM Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography in a patient with acute pancreatitis is indicated in

the following cases:

A. Biliary pancreatitis

B. Delay of cholecedo on ultrasound examination

C. Increased hepatic cytolysis by more than 3-fold

D. Increased alkaline phosphatase level

E. It is mandatory in all cases

76. CM FEGDS in a patient with acute pancreatitis allows to highlight:

A. Stenosing papillitis

B. Associated gastropathy

C. Spread of the necrotic process in the pancreas

D. Determine the form of acute pancreatitis

E. Dilation of esophageal veins

77. CM State the characteristics of algal syndrome in acute pancreatitis:

A. Finding pain in the epigastric area

B. The pain is colicative

C. Radiation of cranial pain

D. The presence of pain "in the belt"

E. Radiation of caudal pain

78. CM abdominal CT in acute pancreatitis is useful for:

A. Detection of erosive-haemorrhagic gastropathy

B. The concretization of the localization and spread of the inflammatory process

C. Establishing the presence and location of the necrosis zones

D. Dynamic monitoring of the pathological process in the pancreas

E. Assessment of the state of the retroperitoneal space

79. CM Coping with algal syndrome in acute pancreatitis provides:

A. Administration of non-steroidal anti-inflammatories

B. Administration of proton pump inhibitors

C. Administration of Sol. Morphine

D. Laparotomy with novocainization of the mesh

E. Application of the epidural block

80. CM Indicate the methods used to decrease the exocrine secretion of the pancreas in acute pancreatitis:
A. Food post

B. Applying the ice bag to the epigraph

C. Administration of proton pump pump blockers

D. Administration of Somatostatin

E. Administration of anticoagulants

81. CM What measures contribute to diminishing exocrine secretion in acute pancreatitis:

A. Antibacterial treatment

B. Administration of H2 blockers

C. Administration of proton pump inhibitors

D. Administration of Somatostatin

E. Morphine administration

82. CM Which of the manifestations are common for severe acute pancreatitis and perforated ulcer:

A. Repeated vomiting

B. Fever

C. Violent acute abdominal pain

D. Disappearance of hepatic maturity

E. Radiation of pain in the left scapular belt

83. CM The diagnostic similarities in acute pancreatitis and perforated ulcer may be:

A. Brutal onset of pain

B. Presence of peri-umbilical cutaneous ecchymoses

C. Tendency of pain extension throughout the abdomen

D. The presence of peritoneal signs

E. Peribilical subcutaneous emphysema

84. CM Acute pancreatitis can be confused with intestinal occlusion by the following signs:

A. Radiation of pain "in the belt"

B. The presence of colicative pain

C. The presence of repeated vomiting

D. Transverse colon swelling

E. Hydraulic levels in the proximal handles of the small intestine

85. CM The following pain characteristics are specific for acute pancreatitis:

A. They are colicative

B. They have a transient character

C. Hard to give in to the administration of analgesics

D. They are permanent

E. After analgesics are given up

86. CM What are the most common causes of acute pancreatitis?

A. Abdominal trauma

B. Pancreatic tumors eatice

C. Biliary lithiasis

D. Alcohol consumption

E. iatrogenic

87. CS Which electrolytic disorder is specific for acute pancreatitis?

A. hypochloraemia

B. Hypokalemia

C. hypocalcemia

D. Hyponatremia

E. Iron deficiency

88. CM What are the main mechanisms by which alcohol ingestion determines the onset of acute
pancreatitis:

A. Stimulates appetite

B. Deposition of calcium salts in small ducts with blocking them

C. Direct toxic action

D. Spasm of the sphincter Oddi

E. Stimulation of pancreatic secretion

89. CS Select the time interval in which the area of necrosis is formed in acute pancreatitis:

A. The first 3 days

B. The first 3 weeks

C. The first hours

D. 3-4 weeks

E. Over 4 weeks

90. CM Which of the data can be found on the abdominal USG in a patient with acute onset pancreatitis:

A. Intrapancreatic necrosis areas

B. Retroperitoneal collections

C. Irrelevant examination due to intestinal meteorism

D. Pancreas without changes

E. Free intraperitoneal fluid

91. CM The diagnostic confusion between acute appendicitis and acute pancreatitis can be determined by
the following clinical manifestations:

A. Repeated multiple vomiting

B. Specific pain irradiation

C. Deduction of pain from epigastric to meso- and hypogastric

D. The presence of faults

E. The presence of pain in the right iliac fossa

92. CM Indicate the diseases in which the pain at onset can move from the epigastric to the right iliac fossa:

A. Strangled hernia

B. Pieliflebită
C. Acute appendicitis

D. Acute pancreatitis

E. Perforated peptic ulcer

93. CS List the most common cause of acute pancreatitis in women:

A. Biliary lithiasis

B. Alcohol consumption

Hyperthyroidism C.

D. Viral infections

E. contraceptives

94. CS Select scores applied in acute pancreatitis, EXCEPT:

A. RANSON

APACHE B.

C. BALTAZAR

D. IMRE

E. ALVARADO

95. CS The standard method for defining pancreatitis is:

A. Thermography

B. CT with double contrast

C. Videoscopic retroperitoneal approach

D. Panoramic abdominal x-ray

E. Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography

96. CS Select the most useful diagnostic method for confirming bacterial contamination in
pancreatonecrosis:

A. Echoid position of necrosis areas

B. Laparoscopy
C. Necrosectomy and bacterial culture

D. Sowing of the peritoneal fluid

E. Videoscopic retroperitoneal approach

97. CS Indicate the main cause of mortality in acute pancreatitis:

A. Perforation of a cavity viscera

B. Acute renal failure

C. Parapancreatic infection

D. Formation of fistulas

E. Venous thrombosis

98. CS Select the objectives of the surgical treatment of the infected pancreatonecrosis, EXCEPT:

A. Removal of infected tissue

B. Maximum preservation of viable pancreatic tissue

C. Washing of the areas of pancreatic and peripancreatic infection

D. Removal of all infected tissue with a safe margin

E. Drainage of the omental pouch after debridement

99. CS From the ones listed, select the dominant symptom in acute pancreatitis:

A. Dyspnea

B. pain

C. Transit disorders

D. Vomiting

E. Anorexia

100. CS Indicate the correct statement regarding acute pancreatitis:

A. In the first week of illness, deaths are due to necrosis infection

B. In mild forms of pancreatitis, organ failure often occurs

C. Early laparotomy is the standard of treatment

D. In severe necrotic pancreatitis mortality is higher in infected forms

E. More than half of the cases are severe

101. CS Indicate the true statement in acute pancreatitis:

A. The presence and persistence of organ dysfunction from onset announces a severe form of the disease

B. In mild form mortality is similar to that in severe forms

C. In mild form, organ failure persists for more than 48 hours

D. The mild form is characterized by the presence of local complications

E. In mild form, CT imaging with intravenous contrast or MRI is always required

102. CS Indicate the correct statement in acute pancreatitis, the mild form:

A. Prophylaxis of deep vein thrombosis is contraindicated

B. In patients with biliary etiology, laparoscopic cholecystectomy is indicated during the same
hospitalization.

C. Surgical treatment is frequently indicated

D. It develops with complete resolution of the symptomatology after 2-3 weeks

E. It represents less than half of the cases of acute pancreatitis

103. CM List the evolutionary complications of the pancreatic pseudochist:

A. Mechanical jaundice

B. Intra-abdominal bleeding

C. Stuffing the cyst

D. Cyst rupture in the free peritoneum

E. Skin and urethral complications

104. CM Select the correct statements about pancreatic necrosis, EXCEPT:

A. Pancreatic necrosis infection is the most serious complication

B. Bacterial translocation is of colic origin

C. Necrosis resorption occurs after the first week

D. Pancreatic necrosis is a viable area

E. The evolution of pancreatic necrosis is dominated by the risk of secondary infection

105. CM List indications CT scans spiraled into acute pancreatitis:

A. The appearance of complications

B. Absence of therapeutic response after 72 hours

C. Scor Ranson under 3

D. Clinical diagnosis uncertain within the first 72 hours

E. Hyperamylazemia and signs of severe acute pancreatitis

106. CM List the main causes of acute pancreatitis:

A. Biliary lithiasis

B. Alcohol consumption

C. drugs

D. Idiopathic

E. hereditary

107. CM Select the true statements in the imaging diagnosis of acute pancreatitis:

A. Radiography of the abdomen has limited contribution

B. Chest x-ray is indicated to confirm the complications

C. TC is the most important image exploration

D. MRI is superior to TC in the analysis of pancreatic and extra-pancreatic morphology

E. Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography is indicated to confirm the diagnosis

108. CM Select the claims regarding the postnecrotic pancreatic cyst:

A. It represents intra- or extra-pancreatic fluid collection

B. It has its own walls lined with cylindrical epithelium

C. It represents a collection of pancreatic juice, necrotic nipples, blood and lymph

D. The most common location is at the level of the isthmus and body of the pancreas

E. The location of choice is the omental exchange or retroperitoneal space

109. CM Which of the following statements is true in the etiopathogeny of acute pancreatitis?

A. The disease is common at any age

B. The maximum incidence is between 40 and 60 years

C. Abdominal trauma is a common cause

D. There is certain seasonal determinism of the disease

E. The most common causes are alcohol consumption and biliary lithiasis

110. CM List the mechanical etiological factors that trigger acute pancreatitis:

A. Oddi sphincter stenosis

B. Ascaridiasis

C. Pancreatic trauma

D. Gastric ulcer

E. Biliary lithiasis

111. CM Indicate pathologies that may have symptoms similar to acute pancreatitis, the differential
diagnosis being necessary:

A. Lower myocardial infarction

B. Intestinal occlusion

C. Biliary colic

D. Pulmonary atelectasis

E. Entero-mesenteric infarction

112. CM Select useful imaging explorations in acute pancreatitis:

A. Colangio-NMR

B. Imaging by nuclear magnetic resonance

C. Computed tomography with intravenous contrast

D. Aortography

E. Abdominal ultrasound
113. CM Select the information provided by CT scan in acute pancreatitis:

A. Based on this exploration, Balthazar score is determined

B. Highlights the areas of necrosis of the pancreatic parenchyma

C. It is the only exploration that can detect the infection of the areas of pancreatic and peripancreatic
necrosis

D. Highlights peripancreatic fluid collections

E. It is mandatory for the confirmation of cholelithiasis

114. CM List the criteria, based on which the diagnosis of acute pancreatitis is installed:

A. Amylazemia is the definitive diagnostic criterion

B. Abdominal pain with acute, severe and persistent onset, with epigastric localization

C. Characteristic appearance of acute pancreatitis on CT with contrast, MRI or abdominal ultrasound

D. The activity of serum lipase (or amylase) greater than triple the maximum normal value

E. Abdominal pain with slow progressive, severe and persistent onset, with epigastric localization

115. CM Select signs of tissue hypoperfusion in pancreatic necrosis:

A. Metabolic alkalosis

B. Hypoxemia

Polyuria C.

D. Oliguria

E. Metabolic acidosis

116. CM List the clinical signs found in the examination of the abdomen in acute pancreatitis:

A. Periombilical and lateral scimymes

B. Decreased or absent intestinal filling

C. Abdominal contracture

D. Enlarged hepatic maturity

E. Diffuse abdominal distension

117. CM Select acute pathologies that require differentiation with acute pancreatitis:

A. Intestinal invagination

B. Dissecting aortic aneurysm

C. Biliary colic

D. Perforated gastric or duodenal ulcer

E. Acute myocardial infarction

118. CS Select the tomographic aspect in acute pancreatitis, which corresponds to grade C according to the
Balthazar classification:

A. Increased pancreas volume, heterogeneous hypodensity, Wirsung dilation, intraglandular collection

B. Changes in grades A and B, plus the presence of pancreatic or extra-pancreatic gas bubbles

C. Increased volume of the pancreas, heterogeneous hypodensity, Wirsung dilation, intraglandular

collection, unique liquid collection distant from the pancreas

D. Increased pancreas volume, heterogeneous hypodensity, Wirsung dilation, intraglandular collection,

peripancreatic tissue infiltration

E. Pancreas with normal imaging appearance

119. CM List the possible variants of pancreatic plaque evolution:

A. Formation of a pancreatic pseudochist

B. Plastron eruption in the peritoneal cavity

C. Gradual resorption of the infiltrate for 1-3 months

D. Plastron malignancy

E. Plastron suppuration with the development of purulent pancreatitis and parapancreatitis

120. CS. Select the functional characteristic attributed to chemotrypsin:

A. lipolytic

B. Hydrolyzes starch proteolytic C.

D. glycolytic

E. Decomposes amino acids

121. CS Select Langherhans Delta Pancake Cell Product:

A. Somatostatin

B. Insulin

The sugar C.

D. Pancreatic peptide

E. Enterokinase

122. CS Which of the following is the most argued theory in the pathogenesis of acute pancreatitis?

A. Anaphylactic theory

B. The canalicular theory

C. Infectious theory

D. Nervous theory

E. Vascular theory

123. CS Select the clinical significance of the Mayo-Robson sign in acute pancreatitis:

A. Periombilical ecchymosis

B. The pain radiates in the right costo-vertebral angle

C. Pain radiates in the left lumbar region

D. Pain radiates into the right and left hypochondriac

E. Pain radiates in the left costo-vertebral angle

124. CS. Select the meaning of the Körte sign in acute pancreatitis:

A. Resonance area transversely located in the upper abdomen

B. Absence of abdominal aortic pulsation

C. Asymmetry of the abdomen as a result of transverse colon meteorism

D. Muscle resistance in pancreas projection

E. Displacement in the declining areas of the abdomen

125. CM Select possible information characteristic of acute pancreatitis on chest radiological examination:

A. Left basal lobular atelectasis

B. Pneumomediastinum

C. Pneumothorax on the left

D. Left pleural exudate

E. Acute adult respiratory distress (ARDS)

126. CS In acute pancreatitis, the stains of cytosteatonecrosis are the consequence of:

A. Fermentative peritonitis

B. Protein necrosis

C. Lipid necrosis

D. Lactic acid catabolism

E. Glucose catabolism

127. CM List the effects expected from the application of the nasogastric probe in acute pancreatitis:

A. Prophylaxis of pulmonary complications

B. Inhibition of pancreatic secretion

C. Inactivation of pancreatic proteases

D. Prevention and reduction of vomiting frequency

E. For the purpose of differential diagnosis

128. CM Select pain characteristics in acute pancreatitis:

A colicky

B. Permanent

C. It is jugulated with nonsteroidal analgesics

D. High intensity

E. Irradiate "in the belt"

129. CM List the characteristics of fermentative peritonitis in acute pancreatitis:

A. Peritoneal fluid contains high levels of pancreatic enzymes

B. Peritonitis is aseptic
C. Requires laparotomy with healing of the peritoneal cavity

D. It develops in the late stages of the disease

E. Requires laparoscopic peritoneal lavage

130. CS Indicate the amount of time required for the maturation of the pancreatic pseudocyst:

A. 1 month

B. 3-6 months

C. 6-12 months

D. 12-24 months

E. Over 24 months

131. CM Indicate the options for the postnecrotic pseudo-surgical treatment:

A. External drainage

B. Transgastric endoscopic drainage

C. Chistogastroanastomoză

D. pancreatectomy

E. Partial resection of the pancreas

132. CS Indicate the method of choice in the diagnosis of external pancreatic fistula:

A. Computed tomography

B. Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography

C. Diagnostic laparoscopy

D. Fistulography

E. Abdominal USG

133. CS Select the indication for surgery of the external pancreatic fistula:

A. Conservative treatment ineffective within 1 month

B. Ineffective conservative treatment within 3 months

C. Ineffective conservative treatment within 6 months

D. Ineffective preservative treatment within 1-2 weeks

E. It is always surgical

134. CS Indicate the extent of the Puestow procedure in the treatment of chronic pancreatitis:

A. Duodeno-cephalic pancreatectomy

B. Distal pancreato-jejunostomy

C. Pancreato-caudal jejunostomy

D. Longitudinal pancreato-jejunostomy

E. Transverse pancreato-jejunostomy

135. CS Select the surgical procedure, which includes the section of the large splanchnic, small splanchnic
and left solar ganglion in the treatment of chronic pancreatitis:

A. Whipple operation

B. Operation Puestow

C. Operation Mallet-Guy

D. Operation Duval

E. McBurney Operation

136. CM List the information provided at FEGDS in acute pancreatitis:

A. Bombardment of the posterior wall of the stomach in the pancreatic pseudochist

B. Bumping of the anterior wall of the stomach

C. Dilation of esophageal veins

D. Multiple ulcerations of the stomach and duodenum with or without hemorrhagic elements

E. Signs of acute gastroduodenitis

137. CM Select pathologies that require differentiation with acute pancreatitis:

A. Penetrating gastroduodenal ulcer

B. Acute appendicitis

C. Ovarian apoplexy

D. Acute myocardial infarction

E. Entero-mesenteric infarction

138. CM List the clinical situations that require laparotomy in acute pancreatitis:

A. Fermentative peritonitis

B. Aseptic pancreatic necrosis

C. Purulent peritonitis

D. Pancreatic plastron infiltrative phase

E. Pancreatic abscess

139. CM Select the form of acute pancreatitis (PA) according to the Atlanta classification (1992):

A. Ephemeral PA

B. Easy PA

C. Necrotic PA

D. hemorrhagic PA

E. Severe PA

140. CM Indicate characteristics of vomiting in acute pacreatitis:

A. Single

B. Multiple

C. Improves the condition of the patient

D. They are fecaloids

E. Does not improve the condition of the patient

141. CS Indicate s the emnification of the Voskresensky sign in acute pacreatitis:

A. Muscle resistance in pancreas projection

B. Acute pain upon deep palpation in the mesogastric region

C. Absence of abdominal aortic pulsation

D. Percussion loudness zone in the upper abdomen region

E. Asymmetry of the abdomen as a result of transverse colon meteorism

142. CM List the operative times of bursoomentostomy in the treatment of acute pancreatitis:

A. External drainage of the omental pouch

B. Drainage of the abdominal cavity

C. Necrozectomia

D. Elimination of exudate from the omental stock exchange

E. Colosseum drainage

143. CM Select abdominal diseases that require differential diagnosis of chronic pancreatitis:

A. Abdominal distress

B. Sclerosing angiocolitis

C. Pancreatic cancer

D. Penetrating duodenal ulcer

E. Chronic appendicitis

144. CM Indicate the correct statements regarding acute pancreatitis:

A. It is an acute inflammation of the pancreas

B. The most common causes are biliary lithiasis and alcohol consumption

C. It frequently occurs in the evolution of pancreatic head tumors

D. It can be complicated by multi-organ failure

E. There is no need for hospitalization in mild forms of disease

145. CM List the complications of the pancreatic pseudocyst:

A. Organ compression

B. oozing

C. Wirsungoragiea

D. Malignancy

E. erupts

146. CM Indicate the etiological factors in chronic pancreatitis:

A. Genetic causes

B. Alcohol consumption

Hyperparathyroidism C.

D. Abdominal trauma

E. Hypothyroidism

147. CS Indicate which evolutionary phase of the pathological process in the pancreas corresponds to the
suppurative-necrotic form of pancreatic necrosis:

A. Of edema

B. Of fatty necrosis

C. Hemorrhagic necrosis

D. Lysis and sequestration

E. Pancreatic cyst formation

148. CS Which of the harmful substances that appear in the evolution of acute pancreatitis is formed in the
ischemic pancreas and causes the pancreatogenic shock:

A. Adrenaline

B. Heparin

C. Serotonin

D. Kallikrein

E. Dopamine

149. CM List the objectives of the preoperative treatment of severe acute pancreatitis:

A. Pain control

B. Detoxification

C. Whole blood transfusion

D. Volemic replication

E. Suppression of pancreatic secretion

150. CS Indicate the pathognomonic sign indicating a severe prognosis of acute pancreatitis:
A. Hiperamilazemia

B. Hypocalcemia

Hyperglycemia C.

D. Hiperamilazuria

E. Leukocytosis

151. CS Indicate the clinical significance of the Körte sign in acute pancreatitis:

A. Absence of abdominal aortic pulsation

B. Abdominal silence

C. Pain in the left scapulo-humeral region

D. Sound transversely determined in the upper abdomen

E. Muscle resistance and pain in pancreatic projection

152. CS. Indicate the optimal volume of surgery in suppurative-necrotic pancreatitis:

A. Peripancreatic blockade with local anesthetics and anti-inflammatory drugs

B. Necrsechestrectomy with drainage of the omental pouch

C. Resection of the pancreas

D. pancreatectomy

E. Decapsulation of the pancreas with drainage of the omental pouch

153. CS Indicate the clinical significance of the Courvoisier-Terrier sign in the pathology of the bilio-
pancreatic area:

A. Colosseum litigation

B. Pancreatic body cancer

C. Cholangiocarcinoma of the hepatic spleen

D. Cephalic pancreatic cancer

E. Bladder neoplasm

154. CM Indicate the extent of the surgery in the pancreatic cyst:

A. External drainage of the cyst

B. pancreatectomy

C. Gastrochistostomie

D. Jejunochistostomie

E. Colecistochistostomie

155. CM List the radiological signs characteristic of acute pancreatitis:

A. pneumoperitoneum

B. The "sentinel" handle

C. pronounced airway of the transverse colon

D. Aerobilie

E. Multiple central hydroelectric imaging

156. CS List the endocrine elements of the pancreas, which are presented as islands located in:

A. Parenchymatous tissue

B. The conjunctival interstices of the interlobular spaces

C. Pancreatic adipose tissue

D. Vascular stroma

E. Retroperitoneal space in the tail of the pancreas

157. CS Indicate the clinical significance of the Gobiet sign in acute pancreatitis:

A. Muscle resistance in pancreas projection

B. Cyanosis in the periombilical region

C. Absence of abdominal aortic pulsation

D. Elevated loudness transversely in the upper abdomen

E. Pain in the percussion below the left rib

158. CS Indicate the most informative method in the differential diagnosis of fermentative peritonitis:

A. Barite passage of the digestive tract

B. Ultrasound
C. Abdominal tomography

D. Laparoscopy

E. Endoscopic retrograde pancreatocolangiography

159. CS Indicate the operation with optimal indication in the case of chronic pancreatitis caused by Vater
papillary stenosis:

A. Cephalic resection of the pancreas

B. Pancreatojejunostomy (Puestow)

C. Pancreatojejunostomy caudal (Duval)

D. Papilosfincterotomy, endoscopic virsungotomy

E. Papilectomia

160. CS Indicate the clinical significance of the Gray-Turner sign in acute pancreatitis:

A. Marbled abdominal skin

B. Ecchymosis of the lateral regions of the abdomen

C. Pain in the corner l left costo-vertebral

D. “Sentinel” handle on a simple abdominal x-ray

E. Pain in pain in the left subcostal point

161. CS For suppressing pancreatic secretion, the following therapeutic gestures are useful, EXCEPT:

A. Nasogastric aspiration

B. Local hypothermia

C. Dietary rest

D. Antibiotic

E. Proton pump inhibitors

162. CS Indicate the clinical significance of the Cullen sign in acute pancreatitis:

A. Marbled abdominal skin

B. Periombilical ecchymosis

C. Pain in the left costo-vertebral point

D. “Sentinel” handle on a simple abdominal x-ray

E. Pain in pain in the left subcostal point

163. CS Indicate the optimal treatment in the edema phase of acute pancreatitis:

A. Complex conservative treatment, and in necessary cases - laparoscopy with exudate evacuation and
abdomen drainage

B. Laparotomy with biliary tract drainage and drainage

C. Laparotomy, decapsulation of the pancreas

D. Laparotomy, peripancreatic blockade

E. Laparotomy, "abdominization" of the pancreas

164. CS A healthy pancreas secretes pancreatic juice in 24 hours in medium (ml): A. 1500-2500ml

B. 600-700ml

C. 300-400ml

D. 1000-1500ml

E. 400-500ml

165. CS In 85-90% cases acute pancreatitis has the form:

A. Interstitial (edematous)

B. necrotic

C. Hemorrhagic

D. infiltration of necrotic

Suppurative necrotic E.

166. CS Select the EXCEPTION regarding pain control, clearance of Odd Spasm and improvement of
microcirculation in acute pancreatitis:

A. Epidural blockage

B. Morphine

C. spasmolytic

D. RAINS
E. rheology

167. CM Which of the following presents a fundamental anatomopathological lesion of chronic pancreatitis?

A. Wirsungian liturgy

B. Pancreas necrosis

C. Fibrosclerosis of the pancreas

D. Stomach pancreas

E. Pancreatic edema

168. CS Characterize pancreatic cysts:

A. They are usually malignant

B. They are covered with granulation tissue

C. They are lined with epithelium

D. Mobilize with breathing

E. Contain live liquid

169. CS Select the pain characteristic in acute pancreatitis:

A. Secondary symptom

B. Reduced in intensity

C. Major symptom

D. Discontinuous

E. MIGRATION

170. CS Indicate the level at which the digestive enzyme activation process is carried out by lysosomal
hydrolases in acute pancreatitis:

A. Wirsung Canal

B. Ampulei Vater

C. Acinar cells

D. Endocrine pancreatic cells

E. Pancreatic lodges
171. CS Indicate the major symptom characteristic of acute pancreatitis:

A. Abdominal distension

B. Nausea

C. Biliary vomiting

D. Abdominal pain

E. The skin of the skin

172. CM List the most common and valuable elements in the diagnosis of chronic pancreatitis:

A. Hyperamylazemia and / or hyperamilazuria

B. Weight loss

C. vomiting

D. pain

E. Epigastric tumor hard, fixed, bumpy

173. CM Select the operative procedures in the mature cephalic pancreatic pseudochist:

A. Chistogastrostomia

B. Endoscopic cystoduodenostomy

C. Chistojejunostomia

D. cystectomy

E. Cephalic Duodenopancreatectomy

174. CM List the signs of value in the early diagnosis of acute pancreatitis:

A. Periombilical cyanosis zones

B. The presence of intense rebellious pain in the usual analgesic treatment

C. Dyspnoea with polynees

D. Fever of hectic type

E. Discrepancy between the severity of the general signs and the objective state of the patient

175. CM Select the radiological signs characteristic of acute pancreatitis:

A. Meteorism with transverse colon gas distension

B. Pleural exudate in the left costal diaphragmal sinus

C. Atelectasis in the left lung

D. pneumoperitoneum

E. Reduction of left diaphragmatic dome trips

176. CM Select the differential diagnostic features between acute pancreatitis and perforated duodenal
ulcer at onset:

A. The presence of pain

B. Presence of pneumoperitoneum

C. Presence of shock

D. Radiation of pain

E. The presence of the oliguria

177. CM List the hormones produced by the pancreas:

A. Gastrin

B. Insulin

Somatostatin C.

D. Glucagon

E. Pancreatic polypeptide

178. CM List the changes in blood characteristic for acute pancreatitis:

A. Leucocytosis

B. monocytosis

C. Left deviation of the leukocyte formula

D. Anemia

E. Lymphopenia

179. CM Indicate early complications in acute pancreatitis:

A. Fermentative peritonitis

B. Pancreatogenic shock

C. Digestive fistula

D. Atelectasis in the basal segments of the left lung

E. encephalopathy

180. CM In acute pancreatitis the prognosis is worse when the vomiting is:

A. With a "coffee mug" character

B. Repeated bilious

C. Distressing, without ease

D. hemorrhage

E. Repeated, bulky

181. CM Indicate the diagnostic advantages of abdominal ultrasound in acute pancreatitis:

A. Emergency accessibility

B. Confirmation of clinical suspicion in all cases

C. Monitoring the evolution of the pancreatic process

D. Rapid diagnosis of bladder lithiasis

E. The non-invasive character

182. CM List which of the following can be attributed to acute pancreatitis:

A. Acute inflammatory process of the exocrine pancreas n

B. Psychological disorders can dominate the clinical picture

C. Left pleural effusion

D. The "sentry" handle

E. pneumoperitoneum

183. CM Indicate the triggers of early shock in severe acute pancreatitis:

A. Liquid seizure in Sector III Randall

B. SIRS

C. Endotoxemia due to necrotic detritus

D. Microbial contamination

E. Release of vasoactive quinine

184. CM Select surgical procedures with operative indication in the treatment of caudal pancreas wounds:

A. Suture

B. Hemostasis

C. Duodenopancreatectomia

D. Caudal resection of the pancreas

E. Drainage of the omental pouch

185. CM Select imaging scans that provide essential data in the diagnosis of pancreatic necrosis:

A. General radiological examination of the abdomen

B. Endoscopic cholangio-wiredungography

C. Abdominal ultrasound

D. Computed tomography

E. Fibrogastroduodenoscopia

186. CM Indicate the complications of the pancreatic pseudocyst:

A. The eruption of the pseudocyst in the peritoneal cavity

B. Intrachysmal hemorrhage

C. Erosion of the aorta

D. Digestive stenosis

E. Abcedarea

187. CM List the true statements regarding the treatment of acute pancreatitis:

A. Oral administration of the preparations is effective

B. I / m administration of the preparations is as effective as i / v

C. Antibiotics are given only for the treatment of septic pancreonecrosis

D. Early antibiotic prophylaxis decreases mortality

E. In most cases, drug treatment is the only one used

188. CM Select the true statements regarding the paraclinical diagnosis of acute pancreatitis:

A. Decreased serum amylase is the consequence of remission of acute pancreatitis

B. Decreased serum amylase is the consequence of pancreatic self-destruction by enzymatic lysis

C. Leukocytosis occurs late in the development of acute pancreatitis

D. Blood amylase increases at significant levels during the first hours of the disease

E. Lipase is more specific than amylase

189. CM List the indications for emergency laparoscopy in acute biliary pancreatitis:

A. Diagnosis and avoidance of laparotomy

B. Cholecystectomy in acute cholecystitis

C. Drainage of chemical peritonitis

D. Peritoneal exudate harvest

E. Pancreas biopsy

190. CM Select the clinical signs present in palpation of the abdomen in acute pancreatitis:

A. Size-enlarged regional lymph nodes

B. Diffuse pain, more marked in the epigastric and left hypochondriac

C. Area of adjustment in epigastric, right and / or left hypochondriac

D. Hepatomegaly

E. The presence of peristaltic waves

191. CM List the radiological signs present in plain abdominal radiography in acute pancreatitis:

A. Pneumobilie

B. pneumoperitoneum

C. Gaseous distension of the transverse colon

D. Gaseous distension of the first jejunal loop

E. Hemobilie

192. CM Indicate the signs of local examination of the abdomen in acute pancreatitis:

A. Epigastric kneading

B. Peri-umbilical marbled skin

C. Visualization of intestinal peristalsis at abdomen asymmetry

D. Asymmetrical abdominal distension

E. The pancreatic edema is enlarged and enlarged in size

193. CM Listed the Ranson / Imrie criteria for the evaluation of the patients with admission

acute pancreatitis:

A. Leukocytosis above 16,000 / mmc

B. Hypocalcemia below 1.9 mmol / l

C. Increased serum creatinine above 1.8 mmol / l

D. Hypoalbuminemia below 3.2 g / dl

E. Hyperglycemia above 11 mmol / l

194. CM Select clinical forms of pleuro-pulmonary disease found in acute pancreatitis:

A. Pulmonary atelectasis

B. bronchopneumonia

C. Adult respiratory distress syndrome

D. Apical nodular infiltrate

E. pleurisy

195. CM List the metabolic complications that may occur in the evolution of acute pancreatitis:

A. Hyperglycemia

B. Hypocalcemia

C. Hypophosphataemia

D. Hyperchloremic alkalosis
E. Respiratory acidosis

196. CM Select effective therapeutic treatment measures in acute pancreatitis:

A. Antiadrenergic medication

B. Administration of spasmolytics

Octreotide C.

D. Glucagon

E. Glucocorticoids

197. CM List the severity criteria for acute pancreatitis:

A. Serum albumin> 32 g / l

B. Serum lactate> 500 U / l

C. Increased serum amylase values

D. Hypocalcemia

E. hemoconcentration

198. CM Select the factors that negatively influence the prognosis in acute pancreatitis:

A. Serum citrine peritoneal fluid

B. Age> 55 years

Obesity C.

D. Serum AST between 100 - 200 U / L

E. Hypoxemia (PO2 <60 mm Hg)

199. CM List the trypsin-activated clusters in acute pancreatitis:

A. elastase

B. Carboxypeptidase

C. anhydrase

D. Amylase

E. peptidase
200. CM Retroperitoneal hemorrhage in acute pancreatitis is delayed on the outside, achieving:

A. Mallet-Guy sign

B. Gray Turner sign

C. The Cullen sign

D. Mayo-Robson sign

E. The Blumberg sign

201. CM Indicate the clinical and paraclinical signs evaluated at the hospitalization in Ranson score:

A. Lactate dehydrogenase over 350 U / l

B. Age of patient over 55 years

C. Hypocalcemia below 8 mg / l

D. Blood sugar> 200 mg / dl

E. ASAT over 250 USF

202. CM List the possibilities of the ope procedures rats in the early period of acute pancreatitis:

A. Pancreas resection

B. capsulotomy

C. sphincterotomy

D. Sequestrectomy

E. Drainage of the peritoneal cavity and the omental pouch

203. CM Select surgery for pancreatic necrosis:

A. Cholecystectomy

B. pancreatectomy

C. Debridizing necrotic outbreaks

D. Necrozectomie

E. Drainage-washing of the peritoneal cavity and the omental pouch

204. CM List the characteristics of pain in acute pancreatitis:

A. Irradiate in the right clavicle

B. Intense, atrocious

Intermittent C.

D. Resistant to common painkillers

E. It is often accompanied by bruises and vomiting

205. CM List the fundamental lesions of acute pancreatitis:

A. Interstitial inflammation of pancreatic tissue

B. Keratinization of pancreatic tissue

C. Lesions of the vascular endothelium

D. Pancreatic tissue necrosis

E. Hyalinization of pancreatic tissue

206. CM List the pancreas produced by the pancreas:

A. Alpha-amylase

B. Lipase, phospholipase A and B

Pepsin C.

D. Tripsin, chymotrypsin

E. Elastase, collagenase

207. CM Indicate the non-aggressive methods in the diagnosis of acute pancreatitis:

A. Overall X-ray of the abdomen

B. Computed tomography

C. Abdominal ultrasonography

D. Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography

E. The echoed point

208. CS The suppurative-necrotic form of pancreatic necrosis corresponds to the following evolutionary
phase of the pathological process in the pancreas:

A. Of edema
B. Of fatty necrosis

C. Hemorrhagic necrosis

D. Lysis and sequestration

E. Pancreatic cyst formation

209. CS Select the harmful substance that appears in the evolution of acute pancreatitis, it forms in the
ischemic pancreas and determines the pancreatogenic shock:

A. Adrenaline

B. Heparin

C. Serotonin

D. Kallikrein

E. Dopamine

210. CM Select radiological signs on plain abdominal radiography characteristic of acute pancreatitis:

A. ”Sentinel Ansa”

B. Hemobilie

C. Gaseous distension of the transverse colon

D. pneumoperitoneum

E. Gaseous distension of the first jejunal loop

ULCEROUS DISEASE (tests)

1. СS Select the area where the Brunner cells that secrete mucus are located:

A. Gastric cardia

B. Down duodenal bulb

C. The bottom part of the stomach

D. Horizontal and ascending part of the duodenum

E. The antral part of the stomach

2. CS Choose the pathogenetic factor, the imbalance which causes the appearance of the gastric ulcer:

A. Secretor

B. Food

C. to neuropsychiatric

D. Protector

E. Hereditary

3. CS Select the diagnostic test useful for monitoring anti-Helicobacter pylori therapy:

A. Determination of urease

B. biopsy

C. histology

D. Bacteriology

E. serology

4. CS Indicate the volume of blood lost in grade III digestive bleeding: A. 2000-3000 ml

B. 1500-2000 ml

C. 500-1000 ml

D. Under 500 ml E. 1000-1500 ml

5. CS Indicate the diagnostic method used to detect the source of upper digestive haemorrhage:

A. Radioisotope scanning

B. Ultrasound

C. Esogastroduodenal barite transit

D. Fibroesofagogastroduodenoscopia

E. Selective angiography

6. CS Select the period of ulcerative perforation characterized by the following clinical signs: vomiting,
accelerated pulse, shallow breathing, hypotension, loose abdomen and lack of intestinal transit:

A. Pseudoameliorare

B. shock
C. Diffuse peritonitis

D. Preperforation period

E. Period of onset of perforation

7. CM Choose the clinical situation that n the same surgery in case of upper digestive bleeding:

A. Bleeding that does not stop after endoscopic hemostasis

B. Continuous bleeding with more than 400 ml in 8 hours

C. Bleeding with unstable hemodynamics after volume rebalancing

D. Bleeding from the active vascular fistula

E. Blood loss below 1000 ml with FCC 100 b / min and TAs ≥ 100 mmHg

8. CS Define hematocentesis:

A. Black chair

B. Vomiting with digested blood

C. Expectation with fresh blood

D. Exteriorization of fresh blood and rectal clots

E. Vomiting with fresh blood

9. CS Select the surgical procedure indicated in the perforation of the chronic gastric ulcer in a patient aged
40-60 years, with up to 6 hours from the perforation:

A. Simple suture of the ulcer

B. Gastric resection

C. Biopsy and ulcer suture Oppel procedure

D. Cuneiform excision of the ulcer with vagotomy

E. Bilateral truncular vagotomy with single suture

10. CS Perforation of the duodenal ulcer in the free peritoneum occurs when:

A. The lesion penetrates all the layers of the anterior wall

B. The lesion penetrates all layers of the posterior wall

C. An internal fistula appears

D. Intestinal occlusion occurs

E. Pyloric stenosis occurs

11. CS Select the dominant clinical sign of chronic duodenal ulcer:

A. Hematemesis

B. Nausea

C. Vomiting

D. pain

E. tenesmus

12. CS Select the minimum volume of bleeding in the digestive tract that will manifest through the mane:

A. 50 ml

B. 1000 ml

C. 200-250 ml

D. 500 ml

E. 750 ml

13. CS Select the significance of the Gregersen-Adler reaction:

A. Pain relief at the onset of bleeding

B. Occult digestive bleeding

C. Presence of ulcerogenic adenoma in pancreas

D. Rectal bleeding

E. Bleeding from esophageal varices

14. CS Define the Bergman sign, found in ulcerative bleeding:

A. Mitigation of epigastric pain at the onset of hemorrhage

B. Upper microscopic hemorrhage

C. Presence of ulcerogenic adenoma in pancreas

D. Hemorrhage from the rectum

E. Bleeding from esophageal varices

15. CS The presence of postprandial plenitude, vomiting with episodic character and tendency to increase
their volume, corresponds to the following complication of the ulcer disease:

A. Subcompensated stenosis

B. Compensated stenosis

C. Decompensated stenosis

D. Penetration of gastric ulcer into the pancreas

E. Penetration of duodenal ulcer into the pancreas

16. CS Malignancy of gastro-duodenal ulcer most commonly occurs when it is located:

A. On the large curvature of the stomach

B. In the duodenal bulb

C. In gastric cardia

D. In the stomach

E. On the small curvature of the stomach

17. CS Select indication for scheduled surgical treatment of gastric ulcer:

A. Immediately after being detected

B. After the first bleeding

C. In case of relapse of the ulcer

D. After the failure of the 6-week drug therapy

E. In the case of perforation

18. CM Select the clinical signs encountered in uncomplicated gastric ulcer:

A. Nausea

B. Heartburn

C. bleeding
D. Pain

E. Muscle defense

19. CS Select the phase of gastric secretion assessed by the Hollender test:

A. Night

B. Basal

Intestinal C.

D. headache

E. Hormone

20. CS The presence of a rare patient with rare fetal odor vomiting, paresthesias, tetanus and metabolic
alkalosis with extrarenal azotemia characterizes the following complication of the ulcer disease:

A. Late intestinal occlusion

B. Zollinger-Ellison syndrome

C. Hemorrhagic shock

D. Chronic renal failure

E. Decompensated pyloric stenosis

21. CS Select the meaning of the Kullencampf-Grassman sign characteristic of ulcerative perforation:

A. Acute pain throughout the abdomen

B. Displacement in the right iliac fossa

C. Wooden abdomen

D. Painful bump of Douglas fir bottom

E. Pain perceived as "punching"

22. CS Select the degree of upper digestive bleeding when 1000-1500 ml of blood is lost (30% of the
circulating volume):

A. Grade IV

B. Grade I

C. Grade II

D. Grade III
E. Grade V

23. CS Select the most informative diagnostic method in the detection of the perforated ulcer:

A. Gastrography with contrast in orthostatism

B. Pneumogastrografia

C. Overall X-ray of the abdomen

D. Laparoscopy

E. Contrast gastrography in lateral decubitus

24. CS The ulcer of the small curve according to Johnson classification is:

A. Type IV

B. Type V

C. Type I

D. Type II

E. Type III

25. СS Define the sign Kussmaul encountered in ulcer disease:

A. Lower left limb phlebitis in gastric cancer

B. Metabolic disorders from decompensated pyloric stenosis

C. Muscle contracture in perforated duodenal ulcer

D. Presence of peristaltic waves of the stomach in piloroduodenal stenosis

E. Left supraclavicular adenopathy in gastric cancer

26. CS Which procedure provides for the use of the omentum on the foot in suturing the perforated ulcer?

A. Oppel

B. Judd

C. Braun

D. Heineke-Miculicz

E. Holle
27. CS Ulcerogenic adenoma produces large quantities of:

A. Histamine

B. Trypsin

C. kallikrein

D. Gastrin

E. quinine

28. СS Indicate the most common gastric drainage procedure a associated with truncular vagotomy in
ulcerative surgery:

A. Piloroplasty Judd

B. Finney pilesoplasty

C. Jaboulay gastroduodenostomy

D. gastrojejunostomy

E. Heineke-Miculicz Piloroplasty

29. CS Select the case complication, which is found in the duodenal ulcer:

A. Malignancy

B. stenosis

C. bleeding

D. penetration

E. perforation

30. CS Select the most characteristic laboratory index characteristic of perforated ulcer:

A. Leukopenia with deviation to the left

B. hypochloraemia

C. Moderate anemia

D. Leukocytosis with deviation to the left

E. Increased hematocrit
31. CS Select the antibiotic NOT given in Helicobacter pylori infection:

A. Metronidazole

B. Tetracycline

C. Clarithromycin

D. Amoxicillin

E. Streptomycin

32. CS Select the situation where acute gastroduodenal ulcers cannot develop:

A. Extended burns

corticosteroid B.

C. Ingestion of aspirin

D. Central nervous system lesions

E. Administration of penicillins

33. CS External digestive fistula after gastroduodenal ulcer surgery is the consequence:

A. Early organic stenosis

B. Edema of the mouth of anastomosis

C. Gastric atony

D. Dehiscence of anastomosis

E. Hemorrhage from the suture band

34. CS Select the most common cause of upper digestive bleeding:

A. Gastric ulcer

B. Duodenal ulcer

C. Esophageal varices

D. Gastric cancer

E. Mallory-Weiss Syndrome

35. CS Select from the ones listed the most common cause of upper digestive bleeding:
A. Gastric ulcer

B. Duodenal ulcer

C. Erosive gastritis

D. Gastric cancer

E. Mallory-Weiss Syndrome

36. CS The presence of the more frequent subcardial gastric ulcer is established on the basis of:

A. Clinical picture

B. Abdominal radiography

C. Abdominal ultrasonography

D. Digestive endoscopy

E. Gastric pH metrics

37. CS The presence of nocturnal pain in ulcer disease is characteristic for:

A. Duodenal ulcer

B. Gastric ulcer

C. hiatal hernia

D. Chronic gastritis

E. Reflux esophagitis

38. CS Select the most common location of gastric ulcer:

A. The anterior wall

B. Rear wall

C. Large curvature

D. pylori

E. Small curvature

39. CS Specify the distinctive feature of pain in the duodenal ulcer:

A. Permanent

B. It has colic character

C. Food addict

D. Relieved by gastric lavage

E. Gives up during the night

40. CS Select the factor NOT involved in the etiopathogenesis of peptic ulcer:

A. The imbalance of the factors of aggression and protection

B. Helicobacter pylori infection

C. Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs

D. hypergastrinemeia

Hyperthyroidism E.

41. CS Choose the pathology that does NOT represent the cause of a higher digestive bleeding:

A. Benign esophageal tumors

B. Gastric diversion

C. The gastric volvulus

D. Duodenal angiodysplasia

E. Tumors of the Vater ampule

42. CS Hematemesis in the case of ulcerative bleeding is always followed by:

A. Haematochezia

B. Haemoptysis

C. Melaena

D. rectal

E. metrorrhagia

43. CS Choose the earliest sign of gastric ulcer malignancy:

A. Vomiting with fetid odor

B. Hematemesis

C. Disappearance of periodicity and violence of pain

D. Weight loss

E. Melena

44. CS Indicate the most informative method of appreciation of gastric secretion:

A. The Hollender test

B. pH meter

C. Testicle Home

D. Radioscopic examination

E. Esofagogastroduodenoscopia

45. CS Select the characteristic that fits the type II gastric ulcer:

A. Prepiloric ulcer

B. Cardiac ulcer

C. Ulcer of small curvature with normal anther and pelts and subnormal acidity

D. Small curvature ulcer with evolutionary duodenal ulcer

E. Ulcer of small curvature with prepilli ulcers and high acidity

46. CS Select the characteristic that fits the gastric ulcer in Johnson type IV:

A. Prepiloric ulcer

B. Small curvature ulcer with evolutionary duodenal ulcer

C. Cardiac ulcer

D. Ulcer of small curvature with normal antral and skin and subnormal acidity

E. Ulcer of small curvature with prepilli ulcers and high acidity

47. CS Select the complication of the ulcer disease in which the vomiting is more common:

A. Compensated stenosis

B. Decompensated stenosis

C. Penetrating duodenal ulcer in the pancreas

D. Perforated duodenal ulcer associated with bleeding

E. Subcompensated stenosis

48. CS Select the most informative diagnostic method for detecting ulcer malignancy:

A. Radioscopy of the stomach with double contrast

B. pH-gastric metry

C. Fibroesophagogastroduodenoscopy with biopsy

D. Pneumogastrografia

E. Computed tomography

49. CS Choose the false claim about occult digestive bleeding:

A. It is detected by the hemoglobinperoxidase assay

B. Ingestion of vitamin C over 500 g / day always causes a false positive test

C. Patients should be tested during a high-fiber, low-meat diet

D. A daily dose of 325 mg of aspirin does not lead to false positive results

E. The test for the detection of occult bleeding is not mandatory in patients under 50 years

50. CS In a 45-year-old patient with long history of refractory duodenal ulcer in drug therapy and the
prevalence of hyperacidity after the Kay test, the most indicated operation is:

A. Supraselective vagotomy

B. Truncular vagotomy with ulcer excision and gastric drainage operation

C. Selective vagotomy with Jaboulay gastroduodenostomy

D. Truncular vagotomy with gastrojejunal anastomosis

E. Gastric resection 2/3

51. CS Select the period of ulcerative perforation that is characterized by violent pain in the epigastric, cold
sweats, superficial breathing, positive Eleker sign and forced analgesic position:

A. More than 12 hours after ulcer perforation is associated with bleeding

B. The first 6 hours after the retroperitoneal perforation of the duodenal ulcer

C. The first 4-6 hours after perforation of the ulcer in the free peritoneum

D. 6-12 hours after ulcer penetration

E. More than 12 hours after perforation of the ulcer in the free peritoneum

52. CS Indicate the author of the conservative method of treatment of perforated ulcer:

A. Billroth (1881)

B. Pierandozzi (1960)

C. Dragstedt (1960)

D. Taylor (1946)

E. Braun (1892)

53. CS Specify the examination in which the activity of the upper digestive haemorrhage is evaluated:

A. Clinic

B. Bacteriological

C. Radiology

D. Endoscopic

E. Laparoscopic

54. CS Fibroesophagogastrastroscopy shows esophageal varices gr.III that actively bleed and gastric mucosa
without ulcerations. Select the first-intention hemostasis method:

A. Binding of esophageal varices

B. Resection of the lower esophagus with esogastric anastomosis

C. Application of the Blakemore well

D. Azigoportal disconnection

E. Splenorenal anastomosis

55. CS Pean-Billroth I assembly in gastric resection performed for peptic ulcer complications consists of:

A. Terminal-terminal gastroduodenal anastomosis

B. Termo-lateral gastrojejunal anastomosis

C. Gastrojejunal anastomosis in "Y"

D. Latero-lateral gastroduodenal anastomosis

E. Termo-lateral gastroduodenal anastomosis

56. CS Mark the most relevant sign of the dehiscence of gastroduodenal anastomosis and gastric banding,
found in ulcerative surgery:

A. Pain pronounced in the epigastric

B. Vomiting and nausea

C. Fever and chills

D. Drain removal of methylene blue introduced into the stomach

E. Muscle contracture in the epigastric area

57. CM Select elements of curative conduction in Mallory-Weiss syndrome:

A. Antacids and hemostatic agents

B. Hormone therapy (corticosteroids)

C. Pituitrină

D. Blakemore probe

E. Endoscopic hemostasis

58. CM Select types of ulcerative stenosis:

A. Cardiac stenosis

B. Mediogastric stenosis

C. Pylobulbar stenosis

D. Post-pubic stenosis

E. Fundic stenosis

59. CM Select the possible locations of the ulcerogenic adenoma:

A. Pancreas

B. duodenum

C. Spleen

D. Gallbladder

E. Stomach
60. CM Select common complications in duodenal ulcer:

A. Malignancy

B. stenosis

C. bleeding

D. penetration

E. perforation

61. CM Select the correct statements regarding upper digestive bleeding:

A. In the elderly the upper digestive haemorrhage stops more easily than in the young

B. It is important to differentiate ulcerative bleeding from that of esophageal varices

C. Waiting for 48 hours for medical hemostasis

D. It is operated after 48 hours to reduce mortality

E. The source of the bleeding is located up to the Treitz lig

62. CM Indicate the factors that may induce Mallory-Weiss syndrome:

A. Alcohol and food abuse

B. whooping cough

C. Incomercible vomiting

D. hiatal hernia

E. Use of anticoagulants

63. CM Choose the characteristics of Zollinger-Ellison syndrome:

A. Increased nocturnal basal secretion

B. Constipation

C. Abundant, frequent and acidic vomiting

D. Frequent upper digestive bleeding

E. Intense, continuous epigastric pain with nocturnal seizures

64. CM Select types of atypical ulcerative perforation:

A. Covered

B. Blind

C. The posterior duodenal wall

D. The heart portion of the stomach

E. In the free peritoneum

65. CM Indicate the factors that influence gastric secretion in the cephalic phase:

A. Fundic gastric distension

B. The sight and smell of food

C. Mastication and salivation

D. swallowing

E. Insulin

66. CM Select the surgical procedures that can be used in the treatment of perforated gastric ulcer:

A. Antrumrezecţia

B. Ulcer suturing

C. Truncular vagotomy with ulcer suture

D. Proximal selective vagotomy with ulcer suture

E. Cuneiform excision of the ulcer

67. CM Select the primary pathogenic factors in the appearance of peptic ulcer:

A. Hyperacidity

B. Decreased gastroduodenal mucosal resistance

C. Stress

D. Gastroduodenal hypermotility

E. Presence of Helicobacter pylori

68. CM Choose the clinical situations that are radiologically manifested by pneumoperitoneum:

A. Perforation of the abdominal esophagus

B. Gastroduodenal perforation
C. Perforation of the colon

D. Perforation of the gallbladder

E. Perforations of the bladder

69. CM In the uncomplicated gastroduodenal ulcer the objective examination can find:

A. Epigastric claps

B. Epigastric tumor

C. Epigastric pain upon palpation

D. Muscular defense

E The objective examination is not informative in the calm phase

70. CM Perforation of peptic ulcer can occur:

A. In the free peritoneum

B. In the peritoneal cavities closed by adhesions

C. In a neighboring organ

D. On the teguments

E. In the retroperitoneal space

71. CM The clinical picture of the perforated duodenal ulcer in phase III is dominated by:

A. Wooden abdomen

B. Abdominal distension

C. Upper digestive bleeding

D. Septic shock

E. Pain in the right hypochondrium

72. CM Select indications for simple suturing of perforated ulcer:

A. Callous gastric ulcer

B. Acute ulcer medication

C. Duodenal ulcer with total peritonitis

D. Stress ulcer

E. Duodenal ulcers opposed

73. CM Select vagal effects on gastric secretion:

A. Increases the flow of HCl and pepsin

B. Stimulates the removal of antral gastrin

C. Sensitizes oxygen cells in the gastric system

D. HCl secretion decreases

E. It induces antral mucus secretion

74. CM List the indications for the application of the Blakemore probe in the upper digestive bleeding

A. Hemorrhagic subcardial gastric ulcer

B. Bleeding from the esophageal varices

C. Mallory-Weiss Syndrome

D. Peptic esophagitis

E. Gastro-oesophageal reflux

75. CM Specify the diseases that can induce stress ulcer:

A. Extended burns

B. Pulmonary fibrosis

C. Severe polytrauma

D. Chronic aspirin ingestion

E. Sepsis

76. CM Select gastric ulcer locations that do NOT match Johnson I type:

A. Prepiloric

B. Juxtacardial

C. Low curvature with subnormal acidity

D. Antral with evolutionary duodenal ulcer

E. Gastric angle

77. CM Indicate the radiological semiology characteristic of Johnson I gastric ulcer:

A. The presence of the niche

B. Increased size of the stomach up to the pelvis

C. Rigidity of the folds

D. Convergence of the folds towards the lesion

E. Retention of the barite mass in the stomach over 6 hours

78. CM Indicate acute complications of ulcerative disease:

A perforation

B. stenosis

C. Malignancy

D. penetration

E. hemorrhage

79. CM Specify the situations where the ulcer biopsy is required:

A. Acute duodenal ulcer

B. Calf duodenal ulcer with a diameter greater than 2 cm

C. Gastric ulcer in a patient past 40 years

D. Johnson gastric ulcer Johnson IV

E. Penile duodenal ulcer penetrating into the pancreas and associated with hemorrhage

80. CM Select radiological signs that advocate for piloroduodenal stenosis:

A. The presence of the niche

B. Increased stomach size

C. Retention of contrast mass in the stomach over 12 hours

D. Presence of pneumoperitoneum

E. Duodenogastric reflux
81. CM Select the locations of gastric lesions typical of Mallory-Weiss syndrome:

A. Unique gastric hemorrhagic lesion

B. Linear haemorrhagic lesions of the cardiac mucosa of the stomach

C. Hemorrhagic gastric erosions

D. Linear haemorrhagic lesions of the esophagogastric junction

E. Hemorrhagic duodenal erosions

82. CM Select the absolute indications for the surgical treatment of the duodenal ulcer:

A perforation

B. Decompensated stenosis

C. Evolutionary ulcer in acute exacerbation

D. Forrest IIB ulcerative bleeding

E. Forrest IA ulcerative hemorrhage with endoscopic hemostasis failed

83. CM Choose the components of Darrow syndrome, characteristic of ulcerative stenosis:

A. hypochloraemia

B. Hypokalemia

potassium increased C.

D. hyperazotaemia

E. Metabolic alkalosis

84. CM Choose the components of the Mondor triad, characteristic of perforated ulcer:

A. Violent epigastric pain

B. Abdominal muscle contracture

C. Hyperesthesia of the skin

D. pneumoperitoneum

E. Ulcerative history

85. CM Select the clinical signs characteristic of peptic ulcer perforation:

A. Muscle defense in the epigastric and the right iliac fossa

B. Violent pain in the epigastric area

Diarrhea C.

D. Superficial breathing

E. Multiple vomiting

86. CM Specify the signs that can be found in the perforated ulcer on the abdomen percussion:

A. Disappearance of hepatic maturity

B. The Celaditi sign

C. Occurrence of maturity in the right parieto-colic space

D. The Mandel sign

E. Damping in the epigastric area

87. CM Select the claims characteristic of the subcompensated ulcerous stenosis:

A. Vomiting abundant daily

B. Vomiting does not ease the general condition

C. At the objective examination it is possible to detect an epigastric flap

D. Gastric examination detects a large amount of gastric content

E. General abstinence and weight loss

88. CM Specify the absolute indications for the surgical treatment of peptic ulcer:

A. Gastric ulcer with suspected malignancy

B. Callous gastric ulcer

C. Complicated ulcer with active hemorrhage with unsuccessful endoscopic hemostasis and unstable
hemodynamics

D. Perforated ulcer

E. Recurrent duodenal ulcer

89. CM Indicate the therapeutic measures in the digestive haemorrhage of the esophageal varices:

A. Administration of Pituitrine
B. Endoscopic banding

C. Celiac trunk ligation

D. Application of the Blakemore probe

E. Performing supraselective vagotomy

90. CM Select clinical signs specific to perforated duodenal ulcer in the free peritoneum:

A. Vomiting

B. Epigastric meteorism

C. Abdominal contracture

D. The disappearance of pencils the liver

E. Slim, painless Douglas space

91. CM The presence of subdiaphragmatic open air on an abdominal radiograph, advocates:

A. Perforated gastric ulcer

B. Biliary Ileus

C. Adherent bowel occlusion

D. Acute perforative cholecystitis

E. Perforated duodenal ulcer

92. CM Name three most common sources of upper digestive bleeding:

A. Mallory-Weiss Syndrome

B. Hemobilia

C. Duodenal ulcer

D. Gastric cancer

E. Esophageal varices

93. CM The absolute indications for the surgical treatment of peptic ulcer are:

A. Malignant ulcer

B. Decompensated pyloric stenosis

C. Perforated ulcer

D. Post-ulcer ulcer

E. Bleeding ulcer

94. CM Acute duodenal ulcer can be complicated by:

A. stenosis

B. Malignancy

C. Penetration

D. perforation

E. bleeding

95. CM Select diseases that require differentiation with perforated ulcer:

A. Acute pancreatitis

B. Acute appendicitis

C. Pleuropneumonia on the right

D. Pulmonary artery thrombembolia

E. Mesenteric thrombosis

96. CM Select the statements that underline the informative value of digestive endoscopy in the diagnosis
of peptic ulcer:

A. Detects ulcers in the absence of specific radiological signs

B. Determines the degree of stenosis of piloroduodenal

C. It is the most commonly used method in establishing the diagnosis

D. Identifies small or superficial ulcers without specific manifestations

E. Establishes the location of the radiologically detected post-ulcer ulcer

97. CM Specify the characteristics of epigastric pain in uncomplicated duodenal ulcer:

A. It depends on the diet

B. It has a burning character

C. It never appears at night

D. Relieves after taking antacids

E. It can last up to 48 hours

98. CM Select endoscopic hemostasis techniques used in ulcerative digestive bleeding:

A. Electro-, thermo- or photocoagulation of hemorrhagic ulcers

B. Local injection of alcohol and thrombin

Varicose C.

D. Elastic band ligation

E. Application of hemostatic clips

99. CM Select clinical signs that advocate for upper digestive bleeding:

A. Melena

B. rectal

C. Haemoptysis

D. haematochezia

E. Hematemesis

100. CM Indicate the situations where the source of the melena may be:

A. Stomach bleeding

B. Bleeding at the jejunum

C. Bleeding in the rectum

D. Blood swallowed in oro-pharyngeal hemorrhage

E. Bleeding in the sigmoid colon

101. CM Select the statements that advocate for emergency surgery in a patient with upper digestive
bleeding:

A. Acute bleeding with rapid loss of more than 30% of the total blood

B. Repeated bleeding every week

C. Hemorrhages that cannot be endoscopically managed

D. Hemorrhages with unstable haemodynamics after volume replenishment

E. Bleeding in patients over 60 years

102. CM Select diseases that may be the cause of upper digestive bleeding:

A. Gastric ulcer

B. Mallory-Weiss Syndrome

C. Erosive-haemorrhagic gastropathy

D. hamartoma

E. Ano-rectal disease

103. CM Select false statements about therapeutic behavior in upper digestive haemorrhages:

A. An initially clear or bilious nasogastric aspirate suggests a current active bleeding

B. Erosive or hemorrhagic gastropathy is usually accessible to endoscopic therapy

C. Bleeding caused by non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs may be enhanced by administration of H2

receptor antagonists or proton pump inhibitors

D. Bleeding arteriovenous malformations are treated with bipolar electrocautery

E. Suction of blood or "coffee mug" through the nasogastric tube requires gastric lavage

104. CM Select the factors associated with the increased incidence of duodenal ulcer:

A. First-degree relatives of patients with duodenal ulcer

B. Blood group A (II)

C. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

D. Patients with chronic renal failure

E. Hypoparathyroidism

105. CM Select the true statements about the radiological aspect of gastric ulcers:

A. Benign gastric ulcers are most commonly located in the large curvature

B. The presence of radiating gastric folds from the edge of the gastric ulcer suggests malignancy

C. Gastric ulcers over 3 cm in diameter are more commonly malignant

D. About 1-8% of gastric ulcers that appear benign on barite radiological examination prove to be malignant

E. Radiological investigation can be used as the sole criterion for determining malignancy

106. CM Specify the true statements that characterize the gastric ulcer:

A. Epigastric pain is the most common symptom

B. Pain is always relieved by ingestion of food

C. Nausea and vomiting may also occur in the absence of mechanical obstruction

D. Weight loss occurs only in malignant ulcers

E. Hemorrhage is a complication of gastric ulcer

107. CM Indicate the correct statements about Helicobacter pylori:

A. It is a spiral bacillus, microaerophilic, Gram negative

B. It invades the gastric mucosa

C. It produces exotoxin that facilitates its aggressive effects on the mucosa they are gastric

D. Activates monocytes through HLA-DR-receptors for interleukin 2 on their surface

E. Produces an adhesin that facilitates the attachment of gastric epithelial cells

108. CM Specify the correct statements about the treatment of ulcerative disease with proton pump
inhibitors:

A. It acts by inhibiting H + / K + ATPase

B. It is administered daily at 6:00 pm

C. The standard dose of lansoprazole is 30 mg / day, 4-8 weeks

D. The serum level of gastrin returns to normal after 2 months after stopping treatment

E. Hyperplasia of enterochromophin cells of the gastric mucosa after administration of Lansoprazole has not
been reported in humans.

109. CM Prostoglandins influence gastric secretion by:

A. Stimulation of gastric mucus secretion

B. Stimulation of bicarbonate secretion

C. Stimulation of mucosal cell regeneration

D. Reduction of blood flow

E. Maintaining the barrier against retro-diffusion of hydrogen ions

110. CM Indicate the frequent evolutionary complications of gastric ulcer:

A. stenosis

B. hemorrhage

C. Malignancy

D. Volvulus

E. intussusception

111. CM Indicate the objectives of the surgery in the treatment of gastric ulcer:

A. Removing the ulcer

B. Interruption of the pathogenic chain

C. Haemostasis

D. Devolvularea

E. Restoration of the digestive tract

112. CM Select the conditions that can lead to upper digestive bleeding:

A. Erosive esophagitis

B. Disease Menetrier

C. hiatal hernia

D. Splenic artery thrombosis

E. Perforative appendicitis

113. CM Indicate the characteristics of the gastric ulcer:

A. It is less common than duodenal ulcer

B. It is more common than duodenal ulcer

C. It has an equal incidence in both sexes

D. Appears in decade 3

E. It can be malignant
114. CM Select specific pathogenetic elements for gastric ulcer:

A. Alteration of the gastric mucosal barrier

B. hyperacidity

C. Alkaline reflux

D. Peptic esophagitis

E. Presence of Helicobacter pylori

115. CM On the gastric ulcer, from an epidemiological point of view, it can be stated that:

A. It is more common than the duodenal one

B. It meets with a maximum frequency after the fifth decade

C. It is more common in men

D. It is less common than duodenal ulcer

E. It has an equal incidence in both sexes

116. CS Indicate who described the triad characteristic of duodenal ulcer perforation:

A. Mondor

B. Dieulafoy

C. Charcot

D. Virchow

E. Finsterer

117. CM Gastric antisecretory medication used in the treatment of peptic ulcer includes:

A. Antacids

B. Sucralfate

C. Proton pump inhibitors

D. Antihistamines H2

E. M-colinoblocante

118. CS Choose palliative surgical attitude in gastro-duodenal hemorrhagic ulcer:

A. Gastric resection B-I

B. Exclusion gastric resection

C. Gastro-jejunal anastomosis and vagotomy

D. Vagotomy + drainage operation

E. Gastro-duodenotomy, ulcer suture in situ, gastro-duodenorrhage

119. CS Hematemesis occurs when:

A. The origin of hemorrhage is pulmonary

B. When the source is up to the Treitz ligament and larger than 500 ml

C. Hemorrhage from the small intestine

D. Colon hemorrhages

E. hemoperitoneum

120. CM Melena - soft, pastel chair, of the color of "reborn cherry" can be found in:

A. Pulmonary bleeding

B. Hemorrhagic gastro-duodenal ulcer

C. Rupture of esophageal varices

D. Hemobilie

E. rectal-sigmoid colon neoplasm

121. CS Conservative treatment in gastro-duodenal hemorrhagic ulcer focuses on therapy with:

A. anticoagulants

B. Antibiotics

antisecretory C.

D. Corticosteroids

E. Adrenomimetice

122. CM List the suture indications in the perforated ulcer:

A. Acute perforated ulcer in young people

B. Chronic gastric ulcer ulcer

C. Acute ulcer in the elderly with severe comorbidities

D. Chronic ulcer with peritonitis over 24 hours

E. Kissing ulcers

123. CM The morphological origin of hemorrhage in gastroduodenal ulcer can be:

A. An extra-gastric vessel into which the ulcer has penetrated

B. By erosion of a parietal vessel

C. By erosion of the portal vein

D. From the aorta

E. From the inferior mesenteric vein

124. CM Select the pathophysiological phenomena that occur in haemorrhagic gastroduodenal ulcers:

A. Mechanisms of immediate hemodynamic readjustment

B. Selective systemic vasoconstriction

C. tachypnea

D. bradycardia

E. Vagal hyperfunction

125. CM Ulcerative perforation is associated with abdominal muscle contracture in 95% of cases. This is
diminished:

A. Obese

B. In rubbers

C. In patients undergoing immunosuppressive therapy

D. In patients who have ingested alcohol prior to perforation

E. The young

126. CM Pneumoperitoneum is a pathognomonic sign of perforation of a cavity digestive organ and is

manifested by:

A. Semilunar transparency under the right hemidiaphragm

B. Transparent located between the spleen and the left abdominal wall (Judin sign)

C. Hydropower levels

D. Colon pneumatosis

E. Aerobilie

127. CM Select the medical-surgical tactic in the covered perforated ulcer that occurs after 48 hours:

A. Immediate emergency surgical treatment

B. CT with water-soluble contrast administered by bone

C. L diagnostic apparoscopy

D. Drug treatment and supervision

E. Refusal of hospitalization

128. CS Gastric ulcer localization is the most common in the level:

A. To the previous wall

B. Posterior wall

C. Small curves

D. Large curves

E. The gastric fundus

129. CS Select the characteristic that fits the type I gastric ulcer:

A. Prepiloric ulcer

B. B. Cardiac ulcer

C. Ulceration of the small curvature with normal antrum and skin and low gastric secretion

D. Small curvature ulcer with evolutionary duodenal ulcer

E. Ulcers that appear anywhere on the gastric mucosa after long-term administration of aspirin or non-
steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs

130. CM Johnson III gastric ulcer has the following characteristics:

A. Hypersecretion is mentioned

B. It is located in the prepillion

C. Giant ulcer located in cardia

D. Of etiological genesis through RAINS

E. It is usually accompanied by gastritis

131. CS Select the characteristic that fits the gastric ulcer in Johnson type IV:

A. Prepiloric ulcer

B. Giant cardiac ulcer

C. Ulcer of small curvature with normal anther and pelts and subnormal acidity

D. Small curvature ulcer with evolutionary duodenal ulcer

E. Ulcers that appear anywhere on the gastric mucosa after long-term administration of aspirin or non-
steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs

132. CM List the radiological diagnostic criteria that indicate the malignant character of the gastric “niche”:

A. "Niche" framed in a tumor mass

B. The folds of the rigid, fused mucosa, broken away from the edges of the crater

C. The edges of the "niche" with irregular appearance

D. The spastic incision is located on the wall opposite the "niche"

E. The projection of the "niche" is outside the gastric lumen

133. CM Indicate the radiological semiology of the benign gastric niche:

A. The folds of the mucosa are symmetrical, convergent, visible up to the edges of the "niche"

B. Presence of a regular radiolabelled parcel surrounding the ulcerous crater due to edema

C. The projection of the "niche" is not outside the gastric lumen

D. Absence of peristalsis in the perilous area

E. Spastic incision on the wall opposite the "niche"

134. CS FEGDS represents the best method of diagnosing the ulcer, having an accuracy: A. 50-60%

B. 61-70%

C. 71-80%
D. 81-90%

E.> 91%

135. CM Select the endoscopic dimensional criteria of the giant ulcer:

A. Duodenal ulcer> 1cm

B. Duodenal ulcer> 2cm

C. Gastric ulcer> 1cm

D. Gastric ulcer> 2cm

E. Gastric ulcer> 3cm

136. CM Mark the pathophysiological mechanisms of Helicobacter pilory action in ulcer genesis:

A. Generates gastrin hypersecretion

B. Inhibits the release of antral somatostatin

C. It produces a cytotoxin with the consequence of an inflammatory and degenerative process of the
epithelium

D. It induces vagal hypersecretion

E. Inhibits gastroduodenal motility

137. CM List the proven genetic markers in the etiopathogenesis of gastroduodenal ulcer:

A. Acid hypersecretion following hyperpopulation of oxygen cells

B. Increased serum pepsinogen I content

C. Helicobacter pylori infection

D. Low epithelial cell turnover

E. Exaggerated response by release of gastrin to a food stimulus

138. CS Hypersecretion of hydrochloric acid is the dominant aggressive element in the genesis:

A. Duodenal ulcer

B. Gastric ulcer

C. Chronic antral gastritis

D. Pangastritei

E. Gastric cancer

139. CM Select factors with aggressive potential in gastric ulcer genesis:

A. Antral stasis

B. Duodenal-gastric reflux

C. Secretory endocrine tumors

D. CONSUMPTION OF RAINS

E. Disorders of anthropogenic secretory brake mechanisms (feedback)

140. CM Select which of the bleeding forms in the Forrest classification have a risk of bleeding greater than
50%?

A. Class IA

B. Class IB

C. Class IIA

D. Class IIB

E. Class III

141. CM Which of the endoscopic estimates completes the indications for the emergency surgical treatment
in the hemorrhagic gastroduodenal ulcer?

A. Class I - bleeding "in the jet"

B. Class Ib - bleeding "in the canvas"

C. Class IIa - vessel visible in ulcer crater> 2 mm

D. Class IIb - adherent clot at the base of the ulcer

E. Class III - the clean basis of the ulcer

142. CS Curling ulcer, as a stress ulcer appears in:

A. Extended, severe burns

B. Brain damage

C. polytrauma
D. Septic conditions

E. Major interventions

143. CM Which of the following explorations is of importance in the diagnosis of Zollinger-Ellison syndrome?

A. Dosage of gastric acidity

B. Gastric R-spelling

C. Dosage of gastrinemia

D. Abdominal CT

E. Dosage of pepsinogen

144. CM Select the circulatory-hypoxic ulcers that appear as a consequence of the deficiency of
gastrointestinal protective factors:

A. Atherosclerotic ulcer

B. Curling ulcer

C. Cushing's ulcer

D. Ulcer from hypovolemic shock

E. Ulcer from Zollinger-Ellison syndrome

145. CS Clinical manifestation of acute gastric ulcer is the most frequent:

A. bleeding

B. perforation

chronic C.

D. Malignancy

E. stenosis

146. CM The morphological characteristics of the acute ulcer are:

A. Very thin margin

B. It penetrates deeper into the mucosa of the mucosa

C. I can bleed

D. Heal by leaving a gum scar

E. Fibro-conjunctival tissue abundantly pericyte

147. CS Acute gastroduodenal perforated ulcer usually has a visa for surgical treatment:

A. Simple suturing

B. Gastric resection

C. Exclusion resection

D. Truncular vagotomy + gastric drainage operation

E. Isolated gastric drainage operation

148. CM Specify surgical indications in gastric ulcer:

A. Failure of medical treatment over 6 weeks

B. Ulcerative perforation

C. Massive repetitive bleeding

D. Acute appearance of the ulcer

E. Malignancy of the ulcer

149. CM Select the objectives of the surgical treatment in the gastric ulcer:

A. Extract ulcerative lesion

B. Obtaining a secretory rhythm and rhythmic gastric emptying

C. Choosing and performing, as a rule, an intervention of pathogenetic intention

D. Cholecystectomy, usually, for prophylaxis of biliary lithiasis

E. Truncular vagotomy for stopping vagal hypersecretion

150. CS Select the phase of gastric secretion assessed by the Kay test:

A. Night

B. Basal

Intestinal C.

D. headache
E. Hormone

151. CS Select the characteristic that fits the gastric ulcer in Johnson II type:

A. Prepiloric ulcer

B. Subcardial ulcer

C. Ulcer of small curvature with normal anther and pelts and subnormal acidity

D. Small ulcer curvature in combination with a duodenal ulcer with a normal or increased secretory level

E. Small curvature ulcer with prepillary ulcers and high acidity 152.CS Select the characteristic that fits the
gastric ulcer in Johnson V type:

A. Prepiloric ulcer

B. Cardiac ulcer

C. Ulcer of small curvature with normal anther and pelts and subnormal acidity

D. Small curvature ulcer with evolutionary duodenal ulcer

E. Ulcers that appear anywhere on the gastric mucosa as a result of chronic intake of aspirin or non-
steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs

153. CM The disappearance of the hepatic maturity can be found in:

A. Obstructive bowel obstruction of rectal cancer

B. Perforated gastroduodenal ulcer in the free peritoneum

C. Perforation of the gallbladder

D. Acute pancreatitis

E. Perforation of bladder

154. CS The natural history of perforated ulcer usually evolves towards:

A. Generalized peritonitis

B. Intra-abdominal abscesses

C. Spontaneous healing

D. Retroperitoneal phlegmon

E. Intestinal occlusion
155. CS The medical-surgical tactic in the covered perforated ulcer, admitted over 48h from the beginning in
a satisfactory state, resides at:

A. Conservative treatment

B. Emergency surgery

C. Diagnostic-curative laparoscopy

D. Retrograde endoscopic cholangiopancreatography with papillosphincterotomy

E. Curative bronchoscopes

ABDOMINAL TRAUMATISM (tested)

1. CS Indicate the statement that characterizes the traumatic injuries of the viscera:

A. Colon lesions require resection and anastomosis regardless of extension due to faecal contamination

B. Intestinal lesions that affect less than ½ of the intestinal circumference can most often be sutured

C. Antibioticoprophylaxis for 24 hours is sufficient

D. Gastric wounds do not suture but are drained by temporary gastrostomy

E. Abdominal viscera injuries are most often the result of closed trauma

2. CS Choose the most common clinical sign in retroperitoneal hematomas:

A. pollakiuria

B. Spasm of the lumbar muscles

Dysuria C.

D. Reno-ureteral colic

E. hematuria

3. CM Select the statements that characterize the traumatic lesions:

A. Autotransplantation of spleen fragments has proved futile

B. In case of splenectomy imposed by trauma, autotransplantation of small fragments of spleen in the large
epiploon is indicated

C. Hemostasis can be obtained by electrocoagulation, local hemostatic, spleen packing with resorbable
mesh
D. Non-operative treatment is preferred, especially in children

E. Splenectomy is usually the first-line treatment

4. CM Specify the correct characteristics about traumatic lesions of the pancreas:

A. Surgical examination is mandatory

B. Diagnosis is usually performed by contrast CT

C. Clinical signs are usually subtle or uncharacteristic

D. It is rarely complicated by pancreatitis

E. Retrograde endoscopic cholangiopancreatography is contraindicated because it aggravates the lesions

5. CM Select the statements that characterize the closed abdominal trauma:

A. In case of impact on lateral areas of the abdomen, the cavity organs are mainly affected

B. Intestinal lesions are rarer and may be omitted at the initial clinical examination

C. Deceleration injuries are most commonly encountered in road accidents

D. The lesions of the supramolecular floor are constantly accompanied by fractures of the bones of the
pelvis

E. Central abdominal contusions are of particular interest to the parenchymal organs

6. CM The abdominal wounds may have the following characteristics:

A. Those produced by blunt agents are associated with the destructive effect of the contusion

B. Those produced by firearms are usually serious

C. Tetanus prophylaxis is required

D. Those produced by white weapons are usually multiple and associate vascular lesions

E. It is classified into penetrating and non-penetrating

7. CM Specify the correct elements of exploratory laparotomy in abdominal trauma:

A. Intestinal lesions prevent abdominal contamination

B. The incision is median, xifopubian

C. Pringle maneuver is performed in case of hepatic bleeding

D. In major contamination, the skin is sutured

E. It is indicated only after the traumatized organ is identified

8. CM The nonoperative management of the hepatic and lienal lesions in the abdominal contusions is
characterized by:

A. The presence of associated extraabdominal lesions is a contraindication for nonoperative treatment

B. In case of non-operative treatment failure, surgery is performed

C. CT examination is mandatory in identifying lesions and initiating treatment

D. Most splenic trauma bleeds actively and cannot be treated non-operatively

E. It is contraindicated in patients with hemoperitoneum

9. CM Select the statements that characterize the surgical tactic in the lesions:

A. The prevention of serious infections is done by vaccination in the first 41 days

B. Non-operative treatment is regarded as the first intention

C. Hemostasis is obtained exclusively by electrocoagulation and suture

D. Try surgical treatment as often as possible

E. If surgical intervention is attempted, the total or partial conservation of the spleen is attempted

10. CM List the statements that characterize traumatic pancreatic lesions:

A. They have early clinical manifestations

B. Increased amylase values are an alarm signal

C. They are easy to identify

D. They are rare

E. Clinical signs are uncharacteristic

11. CM Choose the local hemostatic that is used in liver injury:

A. Fibrin

B. Collagen

C. X-factor blockers

D. Thrombin
E. Anti-platelet aggregates

12. CM Select the surgical methods to resolve the bleeding lesions by bleeding:

A. Argon coagulation, followed by autotransplantation of small spleen fragments into the large epiploon

B. Partial splenic resections

C. Application of local hemostatic agents

D. Packing the spleen with cellulose mesh

E. Pringle Maneuver

13. CS Indicate the specific post-operative post-operative complication:

A. Pancreatic lesion

B. haemoperitoneum

C. Systemic infections with encapsulated germs

D. Postoperative event

E. Postoperative wound suppuration

14. CM The surgical reintervention for traumatisations in which the exploratory laparotomy ended only with
the control of abdominal bleeding and contamination will be performed after:

A. stabilization h emodinamicii

B. 24 hours

C. a few weeks

D. correction of acidosis and anemia

E. correction of hypothermia

15. CM The surgical intervention ends only with the control of abdominal bleeding and contamination in the
exploratory laparotomy if the risk of developing syndromes persists:

A. asthenia

B. hyperthermia

C. hypothermia

D. coagulopathy
E. acidosis

16. CM Select the characteristics of the Pringle maneuver in the exploratory laparotomies:

A. Applies for headache pancreatic lesions

B. It can be done with vascular tweezers

C. It is not done in superficial liver lesions

D. It can be done manually

E. Applies for central liver injury

17. CS Manevra Pringle for the temporary control of hemorrhage in exploratory laparotomy represents:

A. Application of local hemostatic agents

B. Digital thinking of bleeding sources

C. Xifopubian median incision

D. Thought of the hepatic pedicle in bleeding from the hepatic ruptures

E. Thought of the spinal cord in "two stroke" lesions

18. CS Indicate the situation in liver trauma where the Pringle maneuver will not stop the bleeding:

A. Door vein injury

B. Liver artery injury

C. Bilateral parenchymal tear

D. Deep liver tear

E. Liver vein injury

19. CS Select the correct treatment method for piercing penetrating wounds:

A. Administration of painkillers and wound monitoring

B. The wound dressing associated with antibiotic therapy

C. Vaccination against pneumococcal infections

D. Laparotomy, exploration of the entire digestive tract and treatment of lesions

E. Stimulation of intestinal transit

20. CM Specify the principles of surgical management for mild lesions with unstable hemodynamics:

A. Emergency laparotomy

B. Splenectomy

C. antibiotics

D. Monitoring of postoperative leukocytes

E. Postoperative platelet monitoring

21. CS Indicate the specific complication that may develop as a result of liver trauma:

A. Intestinal occlusion

B. Biliary peritonitis

C. Post-traumatic acute pancreatitis

D. Douglas abscess

E. Parietal suppuration

22. CS Indicate the most common complication that may occur as a result of pancreatic trauma:

A. Generalized septic peritonitis

B. Massive hemoperitoneum

C. Subfrenic abscess on the right

D. Acute pancreatitis

E. Chronic pancreatitis

23. CS Select the surgical option in the case of stable lesions with stable hemodynamics:

A. Splenectomy

B. antibiotics

C. Vaccination against pneumococcal infections

D. Immobilization of costal fractures

E. Nonoperative treatment
24. CS Indicate the correct surgical behavior in the case of closed abdominal trauma in an unstable
hemodynamic patient:

A. Administration of analgesics

B. Emergency laparotomy

C. Heating the patient

D. Tetanus prophylaxis

E. Monitoring of the patient in the intensive care unit

25. CS Select the mandatory measure in all cases of abdominal wounds:

A. Exploratory laparotomy

B. Tetanus prophylaxis and antibiotic prophylaxis

C. Non-penetrating wound - exploration of the entire digestive tract

D. Diagnostic laparoscopy

E. Computed tomography

26. CM List the possible complications in liver trauma:

A. thromboembolism

B. Coleperitoneul

C. angiocolitis

D. Hemobilia

E. Pancreatic fistula

27. CS Select the cause that causes the spine break in "2 stroke":

A. Resistance transfer and capsule rupture with blood flow to the peritoneal cavity

B. Vascular fragility

C. Spleen infection

D. Spinal cord injury with intrasplenic hemorrhage, maintained by capsule resistance

E. Injury of the lining artery

28. CS The cause of the patient's agitation during the onset of hemorrhagic shock is determined by:
A. Vasoconstriction

B. Anxiety

C. Decreasing circulating blood mass

D. Insufficient oxygenation of the brain

E. tachycardia

29. CS Indicate the cause of tachypnea in intra-abdominal bleeding:

A. Decreased CO2 in blood and tissues

B. Increased CO2 in the blood and excitation of the respiratory center

C. Arterial vasoconstriction

D. Decreased hematocrit

E. Hypoxia

30. CM The clinical signs of hypovolemic shock are as follows:

A. Decreased TA (systolic <90 mmHg and mean TA <50-60 mmHg)

B. tachycardia

C. tachypnea

D. Reflective increase of urinary flow with polyuria

E. Alteration of the state of consciousness

31. CS Choose the definition of penetrating abdominal trauma:

A. Skin continuity solution

B. Lesion affecting the parietal peritoneum

C. Injury of an intra-abdominal viscera

D. Hematoma in the sheath of the rectus abdominal muscle

E. pneumoperitoneum

32. CS Choose the most characteristic assertion of mild trauma:

A. Most commonly require surgery

B. Has mediastinal balance

C. They have the characteristic Virchoff-Troissier sign

D. They are manifested by hemoperitoneum

E. They are rarer in people with splenomegaly

33. CS Intra-abdominal hemorrhage is defined as:

A. Haematemesis

B. Hemobilie

Epistaxis C.

D. Haemoptysis

E. haemoperitoneum

34. CS Select the non-characteristic blood loss sign:

A. Palo muco aces and teguments

B. Polyuria

C. Cooling of the extremities

D. Fast and shallow breathing

E. Shaking or obnubbing

35. CM Indicate the clinical situations that can be encountered only in closed abdominal trauma:

A. The Morel-Lavallée spillway

B. Two-stroke lesion

C. Secondary injury by shock wave

D. Perforation of the cavity organ

E. The integrity of the skin is preserved

36. CS Which organ is most commonly injured in firearms trauma:

A. liver

B. spleen
The stomach C.

D. Aperture

E. Small intestine

37. CM Select the clinical signs that can be seen in abdominal trauma with peritoneal syndrome:

A. Abolition of intestinal noises

B. Muscular defense

C. Diffuse sensitivity to palpation without muscular resistance

D. Disappearance of hepatic maturity

E. Skin cyanosis

38. CM Choose the contraindicated diagnostic methods in patients with unstable hemodynamics:

A. Computed tomography

B. Laparoscopy

C. thoracentesis

D. FAST

E. Laparocenteza

39. CM Indicate the intra-abdominal areas examined on the FAST ultrasound:

A. Perisplenic

B. Small pool

C. stools

D. The Morisson space

E. The omental scholarship

40. CS Indicate the pathognomonic sign characteristic of the diaphragm injury:

A. Pain in the left hypochondrium with irradiation in the left shoulder

B. Muscular defense in the epigastric

C. Confirmation of the presence of hemothorax

D. Intestinal noise when listening to the chest

E. The presence of opacification in the lower lung areas on radiological examination

41. CS Indicate the most sensitive method for diagnosing diaphragm lesions:

A thoracentesis

B. Laparoscopy

C. X-ray of the chest in 2 incidences

D. Double-contrast computed tomography

E. FAST ultrasonography

42. CM Specify in which of the following conditions in the traumas of the digestive tract the application of
primary anastomoses should be avoided, preferring the application of the stomata:

A. The presence of severe traumatic shock

B. Massive steroid contamination

C. Presence of a segment of devalized intestine

D. Addressing after 24h from trauma

E. Injury with a white or firearm

43. CM Select organs most commonly associated with duodenal lesions:

A. pancreas

B. stomach

C. Large vessels

D. The liver

E. Small intestine

44. CS Select the absolute contraindication for the application of the nonoperative conduct in the trauma of
the intra-abdominal parenchymal organs:

A. Presence of hemoperitoneum

B. Presence of pneumoperitoneum

C. Risk of "two stroke" injuries

D. Presence of abdominal pain

E. Suspected liver or spleen injury

45. CM Indicate the elements of the "Lethal Triad" when polytraumatized:

A. Hypothermia

B. acidosis

C. ANURA

D. coagulopathy

E. Adult respiratory distress syndrome

46. CM Choose the characteristics of the Morel-Lavallée type injury:

A. The treatment is usually summarized at the collection point

B. It is a superficial trauma

C. It is traumatic with intra-abdominal localization

D. It can lead to skin necrosis

E. It is an open trauma

47. CM Select the correct statements regarding penetrating traumatic gastric wounds:

A. The opening of the omental scholarship is mandatory

B. More frequent are open trauma

C. More often are closed traumas

D. Peritoneal syndrome is characteristic

E. Clinical manifestations are usually deleted, which is why they require paraclinical investigations

48. CM Specify the characteristics of spontaneous lesions of the abdominal rectus muscles:

A. More frequent location on the right side and in the hypogaster

B. More frequent location in the suprapubian region

C. More frequent localization in the mesogaster

D. Bleeding rarely results in shock

E. Requires compulsory surgery

49. CM Select diagnostic methods for assessing lesions of abdominal cold muscles:

A. Diagnostic peritoneal lavage

B. Laparoscopy

C. Computed tomography

D. Thoracoscopy

E. Abdominal ultrasonography

50. CS Classify trauma: abdominal wall ecchymosis and lienal hematoma:

A. Multiple

B. Isolated

C. Associated

D. Combined

E. polytrauma

51. CM Select the correct trauma statements:

A. Closed trauma is more common than open trauma

B. The most frequent closed traumas are associated

C. The most common open injuries are associated

D. Iatrogenic lesions are usually associated

E. Open trauma is more common than closed trauma

52. CS Choose the sign that differentiates between peritoneal and hemorrhagic syndrome in abdominal
contusions:

A. tachycardia

B. tachypnea

C. Oliguria

D. Intestinal paresis

E. Irradiation of abdominal pain in the left shoulder

53. CM Specify the methods of hemostasis used to resolve liver injury:

A. Enlargement of the hepatic lesion by suturing or ligation of the bleeding source

B. Buffering of the transfiguring liver wound

C. Injecting local haemostats into superficial liver lesions

D. Diatermocoagulation of superficial liver lesions

E. Perihepatic motion (packing)

54. CM Select the components of t surgical failure in traumatic gastric lesions:

A. Simple suture of the wound

B. Cuneiform resection of the parietal defect

C. Gastrostomy

D. Exposure of the posterior wall

E. Devascularization of the stomach

55. CM Indicate the significance of Reily's syndrome found in the injuries of the abdominal rectus muscles:

A. Acute false abdomen induced by peritoneal signs

B. Presence of pneumoperitoneum

C. Presence of free intra-abdominal fluid

D. Presence of hypovolemic shock

E. Presence of muscle defense in the epigastric area

56. CM Lesions whose organs will manifest clinically by peritonitis:

A. Gallbladder

B. ileum

C. kidneys

D. spleen

E. colon

57. CM Lesions whose organs will manifest clinically through intra-abdominal hemorrhage:

A. Gallbladder
B. Small intestine

C. liver

D. spleen

E. mesenteric

58. CM Select the evolutionary phases in the post-traumatic period in patients with diaphragm injury:

A. infiltration

B. Abcedare

C. Two-stroke injury

D. Pseudoameliorare

E. Herniation and strangulation

59. CM In case of road accident, the specific injuries for the driver can be determined by:

A. The presence of the open airbag

B. Sudden deceleration

C. Character of side-front impact

D. The steering wheel of the car

E. Seat belt coupled

60. CM Indicate the causes that limit the use of laparoscopy in abdominal trauma:

A. The risk of gas embolism

B. Low accuracy in case of diaphragm injury

C. Unstable hemodynamics

D. Low accuracy in visceral lesions within the first 12 hours after trauma

E. Severe craniocerebral trauma

61. CM In the diagnosis of laparoscopy in abdominal trauma, it is difficult to examine the following organs:

A. Aperture

B. liver
C. Small intestine

D. duodenum

E. pancreas

62. CS An adult patient addresses to the emergency department presenting a cut-stung wound of the
abdomen. At the time of addressing it is confused, with cold and breathable skin. The pulse is not felt even
in the femoral arteries. Select the correct surgical management:

A. Hospitalization in the ATI section

B. Nonoperative treatment

C. Exploratory laparotomy

D. Diagnostic laparoscopy

E. Surgical processing of the wound

63. CS A 25-year-old patient was brought to the emergency department after being involved in a road
accident as a passenger. At the time of addressing, he is accusing cervical and chest pain. Objective: GCS-14
pct, TA-110/70 mmHg, FCC-86, radiological: left X-ray fracture. Computed tomography outlines the lenal
lesion gr.II with paralienal fluid in a volume of about 300ml. Select the indicated medical-surgical
management:

A. Diagnostic laparoscopy

B. Peritoneal lavage diagnosis

C. Nonoperative treatment

D. Emergency laparotomy

E. Pleural puncture

64. CM Select the components of the Lafitte triad specific to traumatic lesions of the duodenum:

A. Steatonecrosis spots

B. Purulent peritonitis

C. Biliary ambition of the peritoneum

D. Retroperitoneal tissue emphysema

E. Paraduodenal hematoma
65. CM Select the components of the Finsterer triad that characterize hemobilia in liver injury:

A. Tachycardia

B. Hypertension

C. bradycardia

D. Weakness

E. Jaundice

66. CM Select the syndromes characteristic of abdominal contusions:

A. febrile

B. Neuroastenic

C. Hemorrhagic

D. Peritoneal

E. Mixed

67. CM Select the features of the supraaponevrotic hematoma:

A. Detachment of skin and subcutaneous cellular plane from aponeurosis

B. Appreciation of a fluctuating collection on palpation

C. Cold, cyanotic overlying skin

D. It may be accompanied by false peritoneal syndrome

E. The point is the indicated surgical management

68. CS Define the trauma caused by two or more etiological factors:

A. Associated trauma

B. Combined trauma

C. Complex trauma

D. polytrauma

E. Isolated trauma

69. CM Select the characteristics of the preperitoneal hematoma:

A. It is caused by the rupture of the epigastric arteries

B. It is followed by detachment of skin and subcutaneous tissue from aponeurosis

C. Haemorrhagic discharge takes off the parietal peritoneum

D. Can produce phenomena of peritoneal irritation

E. It can evolve to the necrosis of the skin

70. CS Choose the direct indication of the vulnerability:

A. Appreciation of the path of the wound

B. Highlighting foreign bodies

C. Exclusion of lesions of the abdominal organs

D. Confirmation of the penetration of the wounds of the dorsal region

E. It is performed on all abdominal wounds

71. CS Indicate the unnecessary diagnostic method in the trauma of the intra-abdominal parenchymal
organs:

A. FAST

B. Laparocenteza

Laparoscopy C.

D. Abdominal CT

E. Thoracoscopy

72. CS Indicate the triad characteristic of retroperitoneal duodenal lesions:

A. Dieulafoy

B. Charcot

C. Mondor

D. Laffite

E. Darrow

73. CM Specify the signs present in the bladder rupture:

A. Perineal urohematoma
B. The positive Zeldovich sample

pollakiuria C.

D. Extravasation of contrast in the abdominal cavity at cystography

E. Empty bladder on USG exam

74. CM Select the useful diagnostic methods in conf wound damage to the diaphragm:

A. Overall X-ray of the abdomen

B. Barite examination of the stomach

C. Ultrasound

D. barium enema

E. Laparocenteza

75. CM Abdominal radiography in the rupture of the diaphragm can find:

A. Hypertransparency of migrated organs in the thoracic cavity

B. Ascension of the affected hemidiaphragm

C. Hydraulic images

D. Pulmonary atelectasis

E. Moving the mediastinum to the affected part

76. CM The diagnostic laparoscopy, performed in the abdominal contusions, in case of pancreatic trauma
can highlight:

A. Cytosteatonecrosis spots

B. Suffering or hematoma of the mesenter and / or mesocolon

C. The actual condition of the pancreas

D. Hemorrhagic fluid in the peritoneal cavity

E. Spread of the retroperitoneal hematoma

77. CM Indicate the criteria for the non-operative approach of the hepatic and spinal injuries:

A. Stable hemodynamics
B. Absence of peritoneal signs

C. Lack of consciousness

D. The presence of associated lesions

E. Computed tomography is compulsory in assessing the severity and evolution of the lesions

78. CM Select the causes of false acute abdomen in abdominal trauma:

A. Interest of the last intercostal nerves in the rib fractures

B. Incomplete ruptures of the abdominal muscles with preperitoneal hematoma (Reily syndrome)

C. Associated vertebro-medullary trauma

D. Morell-Lavalle spillage of the abdominal wall

E. Extensive retroperitoneal hematoma

79. CM Indicate the radiological signs that may suggest the retroperitoneal lesion of the duodenum:

A. Broadening the opacity of the psoas muscle

B. Presence of air in the retroperitoneal space

C. The Levi-Dorn sign

D. The Sign of Vighiatto

E. Exit of the contrast substance outside the duodenal quadrant

80. CM Select the relative contraindications of the nonoperative conduct of the lesions:

A. Associated traumas of the locomotive

B. Craniocerebral trauma with consciousness disorder

C. Stable hemodynamics

D. Splenomegaly of diverse etiology

E. Age over 55 years

81. CM State the basic principles of surgical management in pancreatic trauma:

A. Safe hemostasis

B. Management of pancreatic parenchyma

C. Adequate drainage of the omental pouch

D. Pancreatojejunal anastomoses

E. Decompression of the bile ducts

82. CM Select the assertions characteristic of penetrating-perforating lesions of the abdominal wall:

A. They have a typical clinical picture of perforations of the digestive tract

B. It manifests through hemorrhagic syndrome

C. More often the small intestine is damaged

D. The colon is twice as frequent as the small intestine

E. Exploratory laparotomy with lesion resolution is appropriate surgical management

83. CM Indicate the clinical signs that characterize peritoneal syndrome:

A. Diffuse abdominal pain exacerbated by palpation

B. Abdominal wall contracture

C. Correlation of the signs: matt on the flanks + soft abdomen

D. Reduction or absence of abdominal wall respiratory excursion

E. The skin of the skin

84. CM Select lesion-specific features of intra-abdominal parenchymal organs:

A. It manifests through hemorrhagic syndrome

B. The most common are liver damage

C. The presence of peritoneal signs

D. FAST ultrasonography assesses hemoperitoneum

E. TC is the diagnostic method with the highest specificity

85. CS Select the clinical sign absent in the traumatic lesions of the pancreas:

A. Basal pleurisy on the left

B. Shock state

C. Hiperamilazemie

D. Muscle defense in the epi- and mesogastrum

E. pneumoperitoneum

86. CM Select non-specific abdominal trauma clinical syndromes at onset:

A. Astheno-vegetative syndrome

B. Peritoneal irritation syndrome

C. Internal bleeding syndrome

D. Mixed syndrome (hemorrhage + peritonitis)

E. Infectious inflammatory syndrome

87. CM Indicate the clinical signs characteristic of stomach lesions:

A. Muscle defense in the epigastric

B. Absence of abdominal contracture

C. Disappearance of hepatic maturity

D. The presence of the splash

E. The positive Blumberg sign

88. CS In the abdominal contusions the lesions of the cavity organs more often appear on an organ:

A. In full

B. Emptied

C. atonal

D. hypertonic

E. et al

89. CS Select the most informative method for diagnosing liver injury:

A. Fibroesofagogastroduodenoscopia

B. Panoramic X-ray of the abdomen

C. barium enema

D. TC

E. Laparocenteza
90. CM Specify the clinical signs of liver damage associated with hemobia:

A. Pain in the right hypochondrium

B. The positive Blumberg sign

C. Intermittent jaundice

D. Disappearance of hepatic maturity

E. The presence of the mane

91. CM Select the possible surgical procedures to stop the bleeding from the liver injury:

A. Injury suturing

B. Application of hemostatic sponge

C. Liver resections

D. hepatectomy

E. Crafting of the liver

92. CS The simple parietal wound with an inlet and an outlet has the name:

A. Penetrating wound

B. Penetrating but not perforated wound

C. Perforating wound

D. Plagued wound (tangential)

E. Blind wound

93. CS The lesions of the cavity organs in the closed trauma of the abdomen nului constitutes 20-30%,
among them

on the first place (50-60%) are:

A. duodenum

B. Small intestine

C. colon

D. Urinary bladder
E. stomach

94. CS Hemobilia most commonly occurs in the case of:

A. Rupture of a hepatic artery aneurysm

B. Liver trauma

C. Gangrenous cholecystitis

D. Viral hepatitis

E. Hepatic hemangiom

95. CM Select signs characteristic of the traumatic diaphragm injury:

A. Chest pain accentuated by breathing and coughing

B. Reduced gall bladder from the affected part

C. In the hemorrhages concerned, there may be maturity and loudness

D. Hydro-noise in the affected hemorrhage

E. Movement of the thoracic organs

96. CS Name the most common organ affected in closed abdominal trauma:

A. intestine

B. stomach

C. spleen

D. kidneys

E. pancreas

97. CS The penetrating abdominal wound implies the existence of a continuity solution at the level:

A. Skin and cellular tissue of the abdomen

B. The abdominal musculoskeletal wall

C. Parietal peritoneum

D. The wall of a cavity viscera

E. Structures of a parenchymal viscera

98. CS The absolute majority (90%) of abdominal trauma are multiple. Select the root cause:
A. Wounds by firearm

B. Wounds with a white weapon

C. katatraumas occured

D. Traffic accidents

E. Sports injuries

99. CS The share of isolated abdominal trauma is minimal (10%), because the main cause of trauma is
currently:

A. Traffic accidents

B. Wounds by firearm

C. Wounds with a white weapon

D. Trauma by precipitation

E. Sports injuries

100. CS In a patient with an intraoperative white wound wound, liver damage, small intestine and
mesoscale lesions were found. The correct name of the trauma is:

A. Multiple (multivisceral) trauma

B. Simple trauma

C. Plagued wound (tangential)

D. Associated trauma

E. Combined trauma

101. СS The patient suffered a traffic accident. In the hospitalization department, the following injuries were
noted: fracture of the bones of the pelvis, rupture of the urethra, rupture of the spleen. This trauma is
called:

A. Non-penetrating closed trauma

B. Multiple trauma

C. Associated trauma

D. Simple trauma
E. Combined trauma

102. CS In diagnosing lesions of the retroperitoneal portion of the duodenum, a relevant sign is:

A. Blumberg

B. Mandel-Razdolsky

C. Grassman-Kulenkampff

D. Levi-Dorn

E. Vighiatto

103. CS The Morel-Lavallée spillway of the abdominal wall is defined as:

A. Direct traumatic impact with the abdominal wall

B. Subaponevrotic hematoma

C. Serum haemopoietic accumulation

D. Infiltrative hematoma at the site of trauma

E. Muscle breakdown with accumulation of blood flow

104. CS Indicate the clinical situation that may be the consequence of post-traumatic intra-abdominal
injury:

A. Intraperitoneal hemorrhage in "2 stroke"

B. Pneumonia

C. Primary peritonitis

D. Mendelson syndrome

Septicemia E.

105. CS In the diagnosis of lesions of the cavity organs the most accessible and informative procedure is:

A. Ultrasonography

B. Laparoscopy

C. Overall abdominal x-ray

D. Laparocenteza
E. barium enema

106. CS The Kehr sign in spinal cord injury represents:

A. Caused pain and muscular defense in the left hypochondrium

B. Spontaneous pain in the left hypochondrium with irradiation in the left shoulder

C. Fixed maturity in the left hypochondrium

D. Movable mat on the flanks

E. Hypotension with decreasing tendency in orthostatism

107. CS The most frequent traumatic lesions of the pancreas occur in the case of:

A. Open univisceral

B. Open associates

C. Univisceral closed

D. Multivisceral enclosures

E. Combined

108. CS Select the true statement regarding imaging explorations in abdominal trauma:

A. Sigmoidoscopy has no value in the case of colon trauma

B. Computed tomography and ultrasound are the most commonly used methods in liver trauma

C. Empty abdominal radiography is essential for the diagnosis of splenic subscapular hematoma

D. The barium passage is recommended in the suspicion of gastric perforation

E. Existence of a duodenal parietal hematoma at the level of the Vater ampule will lead to an enlargement
of the luminal diameter on the abdominal x-ray with contrast substance

109. CM Stomach injury occurs more frequently in open traumas (6-12%), compared to closed ones (2-3%).
Choose the most informative diagnostic procedures:

A. Laparoscopy

B. Overall abdominal x-ray

C. Abdominal USG

D. Laparocenteza
E. FEGDS

110. CM In the closed trauma of the abdomen the damage of the parenchymal organs prevails. Which
organs are most commonly exposed:

A. pancreas

B. spleen

C. liver

D. kidneys

E. Aperture

111. CM The late diagnosis of extraperitoneal traumatic lesions of the duodenum is determined by the
following factors:

A. Spread of duodenal content in the retroperitoneal space

B. Reduced aggressiveness of duodenal content

C. Ev the initial olution of the process in diffuse peritonitis

D. Lack of diffuse peritonitis in the first hours after trauma

E. Predominance of clinical signs caused by associated lesions

112. CM Reily Syndrome signifies an acute false abdomen and is found in:

A. Spinal cord injuries

B. Fractures of the ribs with intrapleural discharge

C. Retroperitoneal hematoma

D. Incomplete spontaneous ruptures of the abdominal muscles with preperitoneal hematoma and
peritoneal irritation

E. Traumatic hematoma of the anterior abdominal wall and peritoneal irritation

113. CM The absolute indications for emergency laparotomy are:

A. Penetrating wounds with the evisceration of an organ

B. Non-penetrating abdominal wounds

C. Parietal abdominal wounds

D. Abdominal penetrating wounds associated with unstable hemodynamics

E. Abdominal penetrating wounds with bile contents elimination

114. CM Traumatic spleen rupture in "2 times" can develop more frequently during periods:

A. More than 48 hours after the trauma

B. Over 7 days from trauma

C. Over 14-21 days after trauma

D. At the traumatic impact

E. In the first 24 hours after the trauma

115. CS The most useful method for diagnosing pancreatic trauma is:

A. Abdominal USG

B. Laparocenteza

C. Overall radioscopy of the abdomen

D. Laparoscopy

E. Abdominal computed tomography

116. CM Which paraclinical investigations have the highest sensitivity and specificity in the diagnosis of liver
lesions:

A. General radiological examination of the abdomen

B. Laparocenteza

Laparoscopy C.

D. Computed tomography

E. USG

117. CM Select the characteristics that can be noticed in the retroperitoneal hematoma:

A. Hypovolemic shock

B. Abdominal or lower back pain

C. abdomen supple

D. Lack of hemoperitoneum
E. Presence of pneumoperitoneum

118. CM What are the indications of bladder catheterization in the traumatized patient:

A. Detection of kidney injury

B. Detection of the bladder injury

C. Performing the Zeldovich sample

D. Diuresis monitoring

E. Urethral injury

119. CS Delayed ruptures of the subcapsular hematomas of the spleen are defined as:

A. Pseudochist training

B. Abcedare

C. "2 stroke" lesion

D. Thyroid venous thrombosis

E. Prolonged bleeding

120. CM Intraperitoneal hemorrhage in "2 stroke" can occur through traumatization:

A. Liver

B. pancreas

C. Spleen

D. I came to the door

E. Kidney

121. CM The syndrome of intra- or retroperitoneal hemorrhage develops as a result of the injury:

A. A parenchymal organ

B. The small intestine

C. Large intestine

D. mesenteries

E. Large vessels
122. CM Perisplenic hematoma can be clinically manifested by:

A. Pain in left hypochondrium palpation

B. Radiation of pain in the left shoulder

C. Diffuse abdominal muscle defense

D. Tachycardia and pallor

E. Bumping the bottom of Douglas sack

123. CM Which of the clinical signs set out define intraperitoneal hemorrhage syndrome?

A. faintness

B. Pale skin and mucous membranes

C. Abdominal muscle contracture

D. Douglas painfully fluctuating

E. Abdomen with sloping sloping movement on the flanks

124. CM The subaponevrotic hematoma of the abdominal wall is caused by:

A. The perpendicular action of the traumatic agent on the abdominal wall

B. Muscle ruptures with diffuse bleeding

C. It is more common in lumbar muscle trauma

D. Lumbar artery lesions cause hematoma

E. Injury of the branches of the epigastric artery

125. CM Splenectomy is mandatory in the following cases of splenic trauma:

A. Impossibility of intraoperative hemostasis

B. Presence of subcapsular hematoma

C. Affection of the splenic spleen

D. Lignal lesion with stable hemodynamics

E. 2-stroke lesion

126. CM Regarding the clinical picture of abdominal trauma, the statements are true:

A. It may be uncharacteristic and difficult to evaluate

B. Shock may be the only manifestation

C. Intraperitoneal hemorrhage syndrome does not appear in the case of damage to the parenchymal
structures

D. Peritoneal irritation syndrome is a consequence of damage to the cavity organs

E. Hemorrhage is the only sign of abdominal trauma

127. CM Select false statements regarding the incidence of abdominal injuries:

A. Spline is most commonly affected

B. Traumatic injuries of the small intestine are more common than those of the duodenum and colon

C. Stomach contusions are more common than gastric penetrating wounds

D. The liver and spleen are the least damaged

E. Trauma to the colon is manifested by hemoperitoneum

128. CM Hemoperitoneum in traumatic spleen rupture is manifested by:

A. The "Myth-Mythic" sign

B. Pain in the left hypochondrium with irradiation in the shoulder

C. Muscle defense in the left hypochondrium

D. Hemobilie

E. Positive peritoneal signs

129. CM In the multiple lesions of the jejunum during the period up to 6 hours after the trauma, the surgical
resolution involves:

A. Defective suturing

B. Resection of the injured segment with anastomosis

C. Burso-omentostomie

D. Terminal ileostomy

E. Maydl-type jejunostomy

130. CM The early intraoperative signs in the retroperitoneal lesions of the duodenum are:

A. Stearin stains on the peritoneum and meso

B. Coloring of the posterior peritoneal sheet with a ball

C. Signs of diffuse fibrous-purulent peritonitis

D. Retroperitoneal adipose tissue emphysema

E. Retroperitoneal hematoma

THORACIC TRAUMATISM (tests)

1. CS In thoracic traumas thoracotomy is indicated in the following clinical situation:

A. In simple rib fracture, to stabilize fracture outbreak and prevent worsening of lesions

B. If a thoracostomy tube is bleeding with a flow of more than 300ml / hour more than 3 hours

C. If a volume of 1000 ml of blood is initially released on the thoracostomy tube

D. If 2 hours after placement of the thoracostomy tube, still air is removed in the drain

E. If a large amount of air is initially released on the thoracostomy tube

2. CS For lung contusions the following statement is correct:

A. The severity of the contusion is evaluated by pulmonary radiography, CT examination being unnecessary
in these cases

B. Most often requires exploratory thoracotomy

C. I can take severe forms until shock lung development (post-traumatic ARDS)

D. There are always minor and superficial lesions that require only drug treatment

E. They are produced exclusively through closed trauma

3. CS Chest traumas are characterized by:

A. In the vast majority of cases it requires laborious surgery

B. Mortality is> 75% in the case of polytrauma

C. Surgery is required in more than 75% of cases

D. Open trauma requires more frequent surgery than closed ones

E. Mortality of hospitalized patients for chest injuries is 15-30%

4. CS Chest traumas are NOT characterized by:

A. 35-40% mortality in the case of polytrauma

B. In 60-70% of cases surgery is required

C. Most thoracic contusions occur during road accidents

D. Mortality of hospitalized patients for chest injuries is 5-10%

E. Contributes to 75% of trauma deaths

5. CS Select the correct statement regarding chest injuries:

A. Continued bleeding with a flow rate of over 30ml / hour for 5 hours requires thoracotomy

B. At an initial bleeding volume of 1000 ml of blood thoracotomy is required

C. The presence of air in the pleural space signifies serious injuries

D. Minor esophageal perforation without mediastinitis does not require surgical treatment

E. Intrapleural post-traumatic hemorrhage in most cases is stopped spontaneously

6. CS The correct statement for costal fractures is:

A. In elderly patients opiate analgesics are indicated as they favor expectoration

B. Radiological examination identifies all lesions of the ribs

C. Chondrocyte disjunctions are radiologically visible

D. The most exposed to fractures are the IV-VII ribs

F. More frequently, the posterior arch is interested in its posterior portion

7. CM Traumatic hemothorax and pneumothorax may share the following characteristics:

A. It results in closed chest trauma

B. Determines lung collapse

C. Turgescence of jugular veins

D. In most cases it requires only thoracocentesis

E. May be tense

8. CS For traumatic lesions confirmed by the esophagus it is characteristic:

A. Antibiotics are given by bone

B. Surgical treatment should be delayed within the first 24 hours for adequate preoperative preparation of
the patient

C. Constant are classified as very serious

D. They are very common

E. Usually they are isolated lesions

9. CM Select false statements in hemothorax:

A. It is an accumulation of blood in the pleural cavity

B. The most frequent source is the intercostal vessels

C. Severe obstructive respiratory failure occurs

D. It may be the cause of restrictive respiratory disorders

E. Thoracotomy is always required

10. CS Select the false statement in the traumatic lesions of the esophagus:

A. They can be spontaneous

B. Frequently associates pleural lesions

C. At present, the most common are iatrogenic lesions

D. Surgical treatment is recommended within the first 24 hours

E. FEGDS is a mandatory diagnostic test that confirms the presence of the wound

11. CM In thoracic traumas thoracocentesis represents:

A. A complex maneuver, with risk of bleeding and other important complications, which will only be
performed by the thoracic surgeon in the operating room

B. It dramatically improves the condition of the patient with massive pneumothorax

C. It is exclusively a curative maneuver, not a diagnostic one

D. It can be therapeutic

E. Can be diagnostic

12. CM The following statements about the origin of the pneumothorax are correct:

A. It can be produced by oesophageal wounds

B. It can be produced by wounds of the lung or the airways

C. It can be produced by wounds of the chest wall

D. May appear in a healthy subject without trauma

E. Peritoneal cavity is a common source

13. CM About the airway obstruction in the case of trauma it can be stated:

A. Tracheostomy is mandatory

B. Noise is heard

C. Respiratory excursions are inefficient

D. The patient is cyanotic-gray

E. Lifting of the jaw should be avoided

14. CM Thoracocentesis is made taking into account the following correct statements:

A. It presents many risks and is not indicated in the absence of a definite diagnosis

B. It is indicated in hemothorax

C. It is indicated in all cases of pneumothorax

D. It can be therapeutic

E. It is exclusively diagnostic

15. CM Thoracocentesis in trauma can be described by:

A. The cutaneous incision is placed at the level of the X-rib, especially on the left

B. Local anesthesia is compulsory even for critical, unconscious traumatisations

C. It also has indications in the absence of a diagnosis of certainty

D. It is recommended in critically ill polytraumatized patients

E. It is a simple work

16. CM The following statements about the technique of applying thoracocentesis in trauma are correct:

A. After the incision it is advanced with a sharp instrument on the lower edge of the rib

B. The tube is connected to a suction source with negative pressure of 200 cm H2O

C. Requires general anesthesia

D. The tube is inserted after the digital revision of the pleural cavity

E. The collection system is initially connected to passive drainage

17. CM Chest traumas can be described by the following correct statements:

A. Blood autotransfusion is a mandatory therapeutic act in massive hemothorax

B. In massive bleeding, emergency surgery is indicated

C. In patients with small pneumothorax this can be evidenced by computed tomography

D. The air intake sucked into the pleura does not provide information on the severity of the airway injuries

E. USG of the chest is sensitive in the diagnosis of pneumothorax

18. CM The volume of the surgery in the cardiac tamponade in trauma consists of:

A. The blood is removed from the pericardium

B. Allows direct cardiac massage

C. Antero-lateral thoracotomy is the most useful approach

D. Median tternotomy allows fast and wide access

E. The pericardium is sutured tightly to protect the heart

19. CM About thoracic traumas the following can be stated:

A. The USG-FAST examination also examines intrathoracic structures

B. USG is not feasible in chest injuries

C. Chest CT is routinely indicated for all traumatisations as it allows full assessment of the lesion balance

D. Bronchoscopy has a diagnostic and curative role in lung lesions

E. Perfusion scintigraphy is the useful investigation for severe polytrauma

20. CM The following statements about thoracic trauma are correct:

A. A. Older people are at increased risk of costal fractures

B. Active respiratory kinetotherapy is used in the elderly

C. In the elderly, opiate administration favors atelectasis

D. Local anesthesia (intercostal obstruction) should be avoided

E. Optimal pain control during recovery is done by the administration of major analgesics

21. CM The sternal fractures are characterized by:

A. Fractures without movement do not exclude the presence of intrathoracic lesions

B. The seat belt is not a risk factor

C. It is usually associated with costal fractures

D. They occur frequently in road accidents

E. The coupled seat belt is a risk factor

22. CM The costal volume can be described by the following correct statements:

A. Alteration of fan dynamics

B. Determine obstructive ventilation changes

C. It involves simple fractures of two or more adjacent ribs

D. It involves the application of large forces

E. It represents a movable portion of the chest wall

23. CM The coastal volume produces:

A. Decreased cardiac output by balancing mediastinum

B. Decreased effective ventilation due to paradoxical breathing

C. Paradoxical breathing with the flap moving inward during expiration

D. The decrease v effective entilation due to pendular breathing

E. Paradoxical breathing with the flap moving outward during inspiration

24. CM The thoracic vault is characterized by:

A. Effective Expectoration

B. Drainage disorders by cough avoidance

C. Decreased respiratory movement

D. Mandatory is associated with hemo-pneumothorax

E. Pulmonary contusion is present in most cases

25. CM List the useful actions for the emergency treatment of the coastal area:

A. Routine mechanical ventilation should be avoided

B. Immobilization of fragments by osteosynthesis

C. Treatment of acute respiratory and cardio-circulatory failure

D. Use of thoracic circular bands

E. Provisional external fixed assets

26. CM Simple pneumothorax is characterized by:

A. Surgical drainage is not required in all cases

B. Does not influence heart rate

C. In open pneumothorax the severity depends on the size of the chest defect

D. It is rarely encountered in chest injuries

E. In closed pneumothorax the air reaches the pleural cavity through visceral lesions

27. CM The suffocating pneumothorax is characterized by:

A. The mobile tissue fragment blocks the expiration of air at expiration

B. Decompressive pleural puncture is performed in the intercostal space VII anterior axillary line

C. Diversion of the trachea to the healthy side

D. Dyspnea with bradypnea

E. Occurs in enlarged pleuro-pulmonary ruptures

28. CM Cardiac injuries from chest injuries can be characterized by the following correct statements:

A. Wounds are more common than bruises

B. The presence of pericardial blood requires emergency surgery

C. Pericardial rumbling is a constant sign

D. The Beck Triad is constantly present

E. Contusions are more common than wounds

29. CM About the injuries of the diaphragm caused during the thoracic traumas can be stated:
A. Laparoscopic approach should be avoided

B. Frequently the patient does not present accusations

C. The rupture of the diaphragm is more frequent in the dome

D. They occur when the intrathoracic pressure rises sharply

E. Most ruptures are at the level of the right diaphragm

30. CM State the indications for thoracotomy in thoracic trauma:

A. Initial bleeding of 1000 ml on the drainage tube

B. Bleeding with flow of over 250 ml / hour for 2 hours

C. Coagulated hemothorax

D. Bleeding with flow rate over 50 ml / hour for 5 hours

E. Bleeding with flow rate over 100 ml / hour for 2 hours

31. CM The treatment of coastal fractures requires:

A. Surgical intervention

B. Coast immobilization

C. Minor painkillers

D. Respiratory kinetotherapy

E. Intercostal blockade

32. CM Treatment of pulmonary contusions involves:

A thoracotomy

B. Excision of lung injury

C. Respiratory kinetotherapy

D. Medication that promotes expectoration

E. Cough-inhibiting medication

33. CM Identify correct statements in penetrating cardiac lesions:

A. The Beck triad is present

B. Heart sounds are accentuated

C. Require emergency surgery

D. The hemopericard can be detected at USG-FAST

E. Macrovoltage will be present on the ECG in all the bypasses

34. CM The efficiency of respiratory movements in thoracic trauma is evaluated by:

A. Estimation of the amplitude of the excursions of the chest wall

B. Appreciation of the character of the excursions of the chest wall

C. Finding the balance of mediastinum

D. Evaluation of paradoxical movements of the chest wall

E. Percussion hypersonality in compressive pneumothorax

35. CM The most exposed ribs to simple rib fractures are:

A. The IV coast

B. Coast VI

C. Coast II

D. Floating coasts

E. All have approximately equal probability

36. CM In elderly patients with simple costal fractures, the administration of major analgesics, opiates
favors:

A. Pulmonary atelectasis

B. Hyperventilation

C. Pulmonary emphysema

D. Rapid post-traumatic recovery

E. Post-traumatic pneumonia

37. CM Choose from the following, common features of sternal fractures:

A. There are isolated lesions

B. There are two fragments

C. They are more often oblique

D. They are more commonly comminutive

E. They are more often transverse

38. CM The following true statements are characteristic of the coastal area:

A. It is associated with effective cough blockage

B. It is associated with altered ventilatory dynamics

C. Has movements in the same direction as the rib cage

D. Usually it is isolated trauma

E. Turgescence of jugular veins

39. CM The emergency treatment of the traumatized patients with the coastal area consists of:

A. Treatment of respiratory failure

B. Fixing with bandages fixed with adhesive strips

C. Immobilization with circular bands of the chest

D. Permanent immobilization of the chest by external restriction

E. Treatment of acute heart failure

40. CM In closed pneumothorax air can enter the pleural cavity through:

A. Lesions of the pulmonary parenchyma

B. Esophageal lesions

C. Injuries of intrathoracic viscera

D. Defects of the chest wall

E. Path injuries breathe torii

41. CM Choose the true statements about suffocating pneumothorax:

A. It concerns the bronchi that close spontaneously

B. Occurs in spontaneous bursts of emphysematous bubbles

C. Interested in large-scale bronchi

D. Occurs in minor pleuro-pulmonary ruptures

E. Occurs in major pleuro-pulmonary ruptures

42. CM Specify the clinical changes in a patient with suffocating pneumothorax:

A. Cyanosis

B. Dyspnea

C. Filiform pulse, tachycardia

D. bradypnea

E. Agitation

43. CM Select the correct statements in the lung contusions:

A. They are produced by open trauma

B. Hypoxemia and hypercapnia can occur in severe forms

C. Severe imbalances of the ventilation / infusion ratio appear in severe forms

D. In severe forms the decrease of functional dead space appears

E. It causes hypovolemia

44. CM State the signs that characterize the suffocating pneumothorax:

A. Turgescent cervical vein

B. Collateral cervical veins

C. Percussion hypersonality

D. Maternity if associated with hemothorax

E. Dilatation of the maturity of mediastinum

45. CM Massive hemothorax is clinically characterized by:

A. Turgescent cervical vein

B. Collateral cervical veins

C. Pencils on percussion

D. Percussion hypersonality

E. Trahee moved to the healthy side

46. CM In the absence of a definite diagnosis of polytrauma, thoracocentesis is indicated in the following
situations:

A. Hemotorace

B. Small pneumothorax in intubated patients

C. Lesions of the esophagus

D. It is not indicated without a definite diagnosis, being a surgical maneuver

E. Polytraumatized in shock and critical condition

47. CM Anesthesia of the intercostal nerves in the rib fractures is performed:

A. In the immediate vicinity of the fracture outbreak

B. Distance from the place of the fracture

C. On the lower edge of the coast

D. On the upper edge of the coast

E. Local anesthesia is not usually practiced, with opiates being preferred

48. CS What is the first diagnostic gesture in an unstable hemodynamic patient with chest trauma:

A. Radiography of the chest in orthostatism

B. Thoracoscopy

C. thoracentesis

D. Computed tomography of the chest

E. General blood analysis

49. CS The lesions whose organs OBLIGATOR are suspected in case of fracture of the lower ribs:

A. Large cord and vessels

B. Stomach

C. Lower lung lobes

D. Spleen and liver

E. Pelvis
50. CS Select the most feasible sign for traumatic aortic injury at plain chest x-ray:

A. Canceling the aorto-pulmonary window

B. Compression of the main bronchus on the left

C. Moving the trachea

D. Enlargement of mediastinum

E. Abnormal contour of the aorta

51. CS Aortic lesions are most commonly caused by:

A. Wounds with a white weapon

B. Wounds with a firearm

C. Crush the chest

D. Trauma closed by deceleration

E. Trauma closed by back blow

52. CM Select false statements in traumatic lesions of the esophagus:

A. In all cases of transmediastinal wounds with right-left route are suspected

B. In the initial stages they may be without clinical manifestations

C. Radiography of the chest in 2 incidences is mandatory

D. Esophagoscopy allows to establish the definitive diagnosis in all cases

E. Usually they are closed traumas

53. CM Select the correct statements about the surgical treatment of traumatic lung injury:

A. In the transfixing lesions of the lung the hermetic defect of the parenchyma is avoided

B. It is usually imposed on wounds

C. It is usually imposed in closed trauma

D. Lobectomies are common

E. Lung lesions that would usually require a pulmonectomy are lethal

54. CM Specify the correct statements in the lesions of the diaphragm in the case of chest injuries:
A. In all cases of thoracic trauma is suspected

B. Mandatory are suspected in the thoracic wounds located inferior to the intercostal space V

C. Thoracoscopy is the most informative diagnostic method

D. Chest x-ray in 2 incidences usually identifies the lesion

E. The presence of hemothorax does not correlate with the presence of diaphragm injury

56. CM Which of the following characteristics of the thoracic injury involve a trauma with high kinetic
energy:

A. Coast fracture III-V

B. Fracture of the sternum

C. Clavicle fracture

D. Presence of hemopneumothorax

E. Scapula fracture

57. CS The lesion whose extrathoracic organ is most commonly associated with chest trauma:

A. Pelvis

B. Major vessels

C. Spleen

D. Kidney

E. Small intestine

58. CM Which of the following signs may be common for both choking pneumothorax and cardiac
tamponade:

A. Diversion of the trachea to the healthy side

B. Turgescence of jugular veins

hypotension C.

D. Enlargement of mediastinum

E. tachypnea

59. CS Which of the manifestations correspond to the massive hemothorax:

A. Deflection of the trachea to the opposite side of the lesion

B. Turgescence of jugular veins

C. Subcutaneous emphysema

D. Increased central venous pressure

E. Paradoxical breathing

60. CM Which of the traumas are classified in the category of fast lethal injuries:

A. The costal volume

B. Multiple fractures and coast

C. Pneumothorax with valve

D. Massive hemorrhoids

E. Dissecting aortic lesion

61. CM Cardiac flow disorders in chest injuries may be due to:

A. bleeding

B. Venous return disorders

C. Peripheral vasoconstriction

D. Cardiac valve lesion

E. Mobilization of blood from depots

62. CM The major causes of the ventilation disorders in the coastal area are:

A. The paradoxical movement

B. pain

C. Pendulum of mediastinum

D. Pulmonary contusion

E. Airway obstruction

63. CS Which medical gesture is NOT a priority in the behavior of patients with costal component:

A. Increased O2 intake

B. Massive volume replication

C. Ensure airway permeability

D. Immobilization of spinal cord injury

E. Ensure lung expansion

64. CM Which of the signs appear late in the evolution of the suffocating pneumothorax:

A. Cyanosis of the skin

B. Trachea deflection

The shock C.

D. Abolition of respiratory sounds

E. Anxiety, agitation

65. CM Thoracocentesis is mandatory in the following clinical situations:

A. Pneumothorax with valve

B. Traumatized with suspected esophageal injury

C. Small pneumothorax in patients with assisted ventilation

D. Small hemorrhage caused by costal fractures

E. Costal flap

66. CS What is the most common cause of shock in patients with chest trauma:

A. pain

B. hemorrhage

C. The costal volume

D. pneumothorax

E. Cardiac tamponade

67. CM Which of the following are common for choking pneumothorax and cardiac tamponade:

A. Fever

B. Trachea deflection

C. Disorders of venous return to the heart

D. Dyspnea

E. Pencils on the percussion of the left hemorrhage

68. CM The presence of the following thoracic lesions suggests trauma with a high kinetic energy vulnerable
agent:

A. X-rib fracture

B. Presence of hemopneumothorax

C. Coast fracture I

D. Fracture of the sternum

E. Scapula fracture

69. CS Chest traumas can be complicated by the following, EXCEPT:

A. Diaphragmatic hernia

B. shock

C. Polyorganic insufficiency

D. Peritonitis

E. pleurisy

70. CS The most common cause of diaphragm injury is:

A. Sports injuries

B. Falling from above

Bursts C.

D. Penetrating injuries

E. Iatrogenic lesions

71. CS Indicate the most common cause of morbidity and mortality in diaphragm injuries:

A. Hemorrhage from diaphragm injury

B. Peritonitis resulting from diaphragm injury

C. Respiratory failure
D. Compression of intrathoracic organs caused by hernia

E. Hernia strangled in lesions omitted

72. CM The following healing methods are used for lesions of the diaphragm:

A. Nonoperative, if the lesions are small and do not bleed

B. Plastic with fragment of oment on the foot

C. Simple seam with non-absorbable thread

D. alloplastic

E. Simple suture with resorbable thread

73. CS The following statement is correct for the trauma of the diaphragm:

A. Do not operate if they are small in size and do not bleed

B. They usually have clear clinical signs

C. It operates regardless of size and time interval after trauma

D. The stomach has a protective role

E. They are usually associated with hemoperitoneum

74. CS Select the most appropriate diagnostic test for an asymptomatic trauma with a simple fracture of the
left X-ray:

A. Electrocardiogram

B. Overall X-ray of the abdomen

C. Abdominal ultrasonography

D. General blood analysis

E. Spirometry

75. CS Isolated lesions of the clinical diaphragm are usually manifested by:

A. Intra-abdominal bleeding

B. Hemopneumotorace

C. They are frequently asymptomatic

D. Peritonitis

E. Adult respiratory distress syndrome

76. CS The correct statement about thoracotomy in chest injuries is:

A. It is the most common surgical gesture addressed to a patient with chest trauma

B. It is usually done by median sternotomy

C. Has limited indications

D. It is the approach path of choice in acute diaphragm injuries

E. It is required in the presence of blood in the pleural cavity to stop the bleeding in most cases

77. CS The following statement about cardiac tamponade in trauma is correct:

A. Rarely presents a danger to life

B. Can be excluded by chest x-ray in 2 incidences

C. Clinically it may be confused with tension pneumothorax

D. Causes lower systolic blood pressure> 15 mm Hg at expiration

E. Most commonly it results from closed chest trauma in the projection of the heart

78. CS The absence of respiratory noise and pitting at the left hemorrhage percussion can best be explained
by:

A. Hemothorax on the left

B. Cardiac tamponade

C. Pneumothorax on the left

D. Injury of the diaphragm on the left

E. Pneumothorax tensioned to the right

79. CS For which of the clinical situations immediate thoracostomy is mandatory:

A. pneumomediastinum

B. Massive hemothorax

C. Open pneumothorax

D. Diaphragm injury
E. Subcutaneous emphysema

80. CS A judicious restriction of volemic repulsion is required in the following clinical situation of thoracic
trauma:

A. P choking pneumothorax

B. Pulmonary contusion

C. Cardiac tamponade

D. Polytraumatized with shock of unknown origin

E. In all cases of thoracic trauma, aggressive volemic replication is welcome

81. CS The first gesture applied to a patient with chest trauma to improve oxygenation is:

A. Orotracheal intubation

B. Additional O2 administration

C. Blockage of the intercostal nerves

D. Volemic replication

E. thoracentesis

82. CS The most important immediate emergency management in the management of the open
pneumothorax is:

A. Endotracheal intubation

B. Application of the occlusive dressing

C. Surgical suture of the wound

D. Thoracocentesis in intercostal space II

E. Appropriate analgesia

83. CS The most important sign in the differential diagnosis of cardiac tamponade and valve pneumothorax
is:

A. tachycardia

B. Dyspnea

C. Respiratory noise
D. Turgescence of jugular veins

E. Hypertension

84. CS The loss of 20% of the volume of the circulating blood in the traumatized person is usually associated
with:

A. Oliguria

B. Hypotension

C. dizziness

D. Need for hemotransfusion

E. Tachycardia

85. CS One child sustained accidental trauma by cycling into a wall. Which of the following statements is
correct?

A. The costal volume is likely

B. Symptomatic heart contusion is common

C. Chest aortic lesions are more common than in adults

D. Lung contusion may be present in the absence of costal lesions

E. Coastal fractures are constantly present in such traumas

86. CM Hemorrhagic syndrome develops in a patient monitored for chest trauma. What are the suggestive
manifestations?

A. Accelerated pulse, lowering blood pressure

B. The ribcage on the affected side is enlarged in size

C. Increased hypoxemia

D. Presence of blood at the pleural puncture

E. "Box" sound on the affected side

87. CM Among the parietal lesions of the chest are:

A. Ecchymoses, cutaneous hematomas

B. Coastal fractures
C. Injuries of the spleen, liver

D. Muscle injury

E. Injury of master blood vessels

88. CS The following situation does NOT characterize the penetrating trauma of the chest:

A. Pneumoperitoneum

B. Hemotoracele

C. haemopericardium

D. Tires open

E. Tensioned tires

89. CM Select the components of the clinical triad characteristic of the suffocating pneumothorax:

A. Turgescence of jugular veins

B. Moving the trachea from the midline to the unaffected side

Dyspnea C.

D. Timpanism in the projection of the affected hemitorac

E. Tachycardia

90. CS Select the distinctive clinical sign that differentiates pneumothorax from suffocating heartbeat:

A. Turgescence of jugular veins

B. Moving the trachea from the midline to the unaffected side

Dyspnea C.

D. Weakness

E. Tachycardia

PERITONITY (heads)

1. CM Indicate the purpose of gastrointestinal intubation in the treatment of diffuse purulent peritonitis:

A. Evidence of fluid leakage from the digestive tract

B. Decompression of the intestine

C. Feeding the patient through a well

D. Probe introduction of drug preparations

E. Prophylaxis of paralytic intestinal occlusion

2. CM Indicate the clinical manifestations attributed to the reactive phase of acute peritonitis:

A. Pain in the suprapubian region when performing the rectal cough

B. Tachycardia

C. Irreversible hydroelectrolyte disturbances

D. Muscular defense of the anterior abdominal wall

E. Leucocytosis

3. CM Indicate the most commonly used routes of antibiotic administration in the postoperative period in
patients with diffuse peritonitis:

A. subcutaneous

B. Intramuscular

C. Intravenous

D. intraarterial

E. abdominal

4. CM Indicate the correct statements regarding the argument for laparotomic incision in acute diffuse
peritonitis:

A. Proper revision of the peritoneal cavity

B. Optimal healing of the peritoneal cavity

C. Minor trauma to the organs of the peritoneal cavity

D. Minor blood loss

E. Minimal risk of wounding

5. CM Indicate the forms of acute peritonitis, in which fibrin deposits are determined on the parietal and
visceral sheets of the peritoneum:

A. serous

B. purulent

C. faeces
D. fermentation

E. fibrin

6. CM Indicate the diseases that may cause false surgical abdomen syndrome:

A. Dissecting aortic aneurysm

B. Retroperitoneal hematoma

C. Multiple costal fractures

D. Reily syndrome

Her E. the choked femur

7. CM Indicate the substances that may cause acute peritonitis:

A. Urine in the intra-abdominal lesions of the bladder

B. Gastric content due to perforated ulcer

C. Blood following splenic trauma

D. Bile following gallbladder perforation

E. Air from the peritoneal cavity residual to laparoscopy

8. CM Diffuse acute peritonitis can be installed in the following forms of acute appendicitis:

A. Appendix colic

B. Acute catarrhal appendicitis

C. Acute phlegmonous appendicitis

D. Acute gangrenous appendicitis

E. Acute perforative appendicitis

9. CM Indicate the forms of acute peritonitis according to the character of the intraperitoneal exudate:

A. Local

B. fibrin

purulent C.

D. Diffuse
E. faeces

10. CM List the complications of acute peritonitis:

A. Subfrenic abscess

B. Intestinal fistula

C. Intestinal abscess

D. The abscess of Douglas space

E. Presence of gastric contents on the right lateral flank in perforated ulcer

11. CM Indicate the phases in the classical evolution of acute peritonitis:

A. Early

B. tarda

Reactive C.

D. Toxic

terminal E.

12. CM For the terminal phase of acute peritonitis are characteristic:

A. Adynamic

B. Hyperthermia

C. tachycardia

D. Arterial hypotonia

E. High blood pressure

13. CM Select the forms of circumscribed local peritonitis:

A. Subdiaphragmatic abscess

B. Subhepatic abscess

C. Mesoceliac abscess

D. Douglas bag abscess

E. Idiopathic primary peritonitis

14. CM List the therapeutic measures of the complex treatment of diffuse acute peritonitis:

A. Non-operative treatment

B. Reduction of intoxication

C. Correction of metabolic disorders

D. Antibiotics

E. Treatment of intestinal paresis

15. CM Specify the criteria that indicate the positive postoperative dynamics in acute peritonitis:

A. Decreased leukocytosis

B. Decrease in the leukocyte index of intoxication

C. Increased serum protein level

D. Decreased residual nitrogen level

E. Increased C-reactive protein level

16. CM Indicate the diagnostic criteria for anaerobic peritonitis:

A. Lightning evolution

B. Severe intoxication

C. Bacteriological confirmation

D. Huge amount of exudate into the peritoneal cavity with a greenish-brown hue

E. Lack of exudate in the peritoneal cavity

17. CM List the methods of prophylaxis and treatment of postoperative intestinal paresis in diffuse
peritonitis:

A. Infiltration with Soil. Novocaine of the root of the gut

B. Intubation of the small intestine

C. enterosorption

D. The epidural block

E. Hunger
18. CM List the signs characteristic of the reactive phase of acute peritonitis in the infected ulcer:

A. Violent pain in the palpation of the abdomen

B. The positive Blumberg sign

C. Symmetrical ballooning of the abdomen

D. tachycardia

E. Disappearance of intestinal peristalsis

19. CM List the detoxification methods in acute peritonitis:

A. Limfosorbţia

B. hemosorbtion

C. enterosorption

D. plasmapheresis

E. Early administration of antibiotics

20. CM Specify the curative gestures followed in the case of the open abdomen in diffuse acute peritonitis:

A. Repeated revision of the organs of the peritoneal cavity

B. Repeated abdominal lavage

C. Removal of purulent fluid under visual control

D. Control of the suture of the intestinal sutures

E. Stimulation of bladder function

21. CM List the factors that cause the favorable outcome in the treatment of patients with acute peritonitis:

A. Late surgical intervention

B. Antibacterial treatment

C. The correct operation of the surgery

D. Detoxification methods

E. Prophylaxis of intestinal paresis

22. CM The open abdomen (laparostoma) in acute peritonitis aims to:

A. Repeated healing of the peritoneal cavity

B. Exchange of drainage pipes

C. Removal of purulent fluid and fibrin deposits

D. Monitoring of the pathological changes in the peritoneal cavity at the stage interventions

E. Removal of mechanical sutures on the stomach or intestines as a result of dehiscence occurring with the
application of new anastomoses

23. CM Indicate the signs of diffuse acute peritonitis:

A. Ballooning of the abdomen

Hiperperistaltismul B.

C. Pain all over the surface of the abdomen on palpation

D. Symmetrical muscular defense of the abdominal wall

E. The presence of the Mandel-Razdolski sign

24. CM Indicate the methods that do NOT allow the detection of the intra-abdominal abscesses:

A. Abdominal ultrasonography

B. General X-ray of the abdomen

Colonoscopy C.

D. CT

E. FEGDS

25. CM List the main functions of the nasointestinal probe that argue for its pathogenic application in acute
peritonitis:

A. The need for long decompression of the small intestine

B. Need for detoxification as a result of stasis of intestinal contents

C. Postoperative adherence disease prophylaxis

D. Used for selective antibiotic therapy in the intestine

E. The need for the enteral feeding of the patient

26. CM Making the differential diagnosis between intra-abdominal bleeding and acute peritonitis, select the
characteristic clinical symptoms for acute peritonitis:
A. The Hopa-Mythic sign

B. Kulemkampff symptom

C. Blumberg symptom

D. The symptom of "silence of the grave"

E. Permanent pain in the abdomen

27. CM Specify the basic elements that determine the evolution of acute peritonitis:

A. Spread of the peritoneum

B. Virulence of microorganisms

C. Source of peritonitis

D. Duration of the disease

E. Presence in the patient of a history of frequent biliary colic

28. CM Specify the indications for the revision of the stage and the healing of the peritoneal cavity in
abdominal surgery by applying the laparostome:

A. Fecaloid peritonitis

B. Total purulent peritonitis

C. Thrombosis of the mesenteric vessels

D. Pancreonecrosis infected

E. Calculated chronic cholecystitis

29. CM List the antibacterial preparations of choice in the treatment of diffuse fibrinous purulent peritonitis:

A. carbapenems

B. Florchinolonele

C. 3rd-4th generation cephalosporins

D. Metronidazole derivatives

E. Macrolides

30. CS Indicate the form of peritonitis that develops without the presence of pathogenic germs:
A. Primitive

B. Secondary

C. Tertiary

Specifies D.

E. Postoperative

31. CM The complex treatment of acute peritonitis includes:

A laparotomy

B. antibacterial

C. Bacteriological sampling

D. Treatment of the cause of peritonitis

E. Washing of the abdominal cavity

32. CS Indicate the amount of intraperitoneal serum fluid in a healthy person with a body weight of 70 kg:

A. 50 ml

B. 500 ml

C. 120 ml

D. 200 ml

E. 220 ml

33. CM Indicate the abdominal pathologies that develop with hemorrhagic exudate in the peritoneal cavity:

A. Acute pancreatitis

B. Acute cholecystitis

C. Acute mesenteric ischemia

D. Perforated ulcer

E. Upper digestive haemorrhage

34. CS In a 46-year-old patient who underwent appendectomy for acute gangrenous appendicitis, at 5 days
postoperatively, deaf pain occurred in the suprapubian region, tenesmus, acute pain defecation and
dysuria, fever 37.8-38.5 ° C . What is the presumptive diagnosis?
A. Acute paraproctitis

B. Acute anorectal thrombosis

C. Diffuse peritonitis

D. Abscess of Douglas space

E. Acute pyelonephritis

35. CS Indicate the most common cause of peritonitis:

A. Acute intestinal ileum

B. Perforated gastroduodenal ulcer

C. Acute salpingitis

D. Acute appendicitis

E. Gastric cancer

36. CS Indicate the direction of the reactive phase of acute peritonitis:

A. 36 hours

B. 24 hours

C. 48 hours

D. 72 hours

E. More than 72 hours

37. CM Specify the most common ways of infection of the peritoneum in primary peritonitis:

A. Perforation of gastric ulcer

B. Perforation of the vermicular appendix

C. Gonococcal infection

D. The hematogenous route

E. Traumatic lesions of the ileum

38. CS For acute peritonitis it is NOT characteristic:

A. Abdominal muscle defense

B. Courvoisier symptom

C. tachycardia

D. Retention of gas and fecal mass removals

E. vomiting

39. CS Indicate the main clinical sign in acute peritonitis:

A. vomiting

B. Abdominal pain

C. Bloody stool

D. Withholding of feces and gas eliminations

E. Fever

40. CS Indicate the statement that is NOT characteristic for acute peritonitis:

A. tachycardia

B. Dry tongue

C. Muscular defense of the anterior abdominal wall

D. Lack of intestinal peristalsis

E. Diarrhea

41. CS Acute peritonitis may be secondary to the following conditions, EXCEPT:

A. Perforation of the Meckel diverticulum

B. Crohn's disease

C. Stenosis of the papilla Vater

D. Richter strangulation

E. Acute intestinal ileum

42. CM Specify the statements that correspond to the subdiaphragmatic abscess on the right:

A. The presence of pain in the right and epigastric hemorrhoids as a result of respiratory movements

B. The presence of pain in the palpation of the right hypochondrium

C. Hectic temperature

D. Presence of pneumoperitoneum

E. Increased hepatic maturity

43. CS Which statement does NOT correspond to the subphrenic abscess:

A. Decreased respiratory movement

B. High position of the diaphragm dome

C. Presence of the reactive fluid in the pleural cavity

D. Presence of pain in the hypochondrium with irradiation in the supraclavicular region

E. The presence of diarrhea

44. CS Specify the optimal treatment option for subdiaphragmatic abscess:

A. Only conservative treatment

B. Extraperitoneal opening and drainage of the abscess

C. Laparotomy, opening and drainage of the abscess

D. The echoed point

E. Drainage by thoracotomic approach

45. CS Name the optimal approach for opening and evacuating the subhepatic abscess:

A thoracic laparotomy

B. Lumbotomia

C. Two-stroke transpleural incision

D. Median-median laparotomy

E. Kocher-type laparotomy

46. CS Indicate surgical gesture in Douglas bag abscess:

A. Echoidal puncture of the abscess through the peritoneal cavity

B. Evacuation enema

C. Opening and draining of the abscess through the inferior median laparotomy

D. Transcutaneous puncture, opening and drainage of the abscess

E. Only conservative treatment

47. CS Note the indication of the average xipho-pubic laparotomy:

A. Diffuse peritonitis

B. Local peritonitis

C. Douglas bag abscess

D. Abscessed appendicular plastron

E. Acute appendicitis uncomplicated

48. CS Hemorrhagic tint of the fluid peritoneal is found in all the cases listed, EXCEPT:

A. Tuberculous peritonitis

B. The eruption of extrauterine pregnancy

C. Mesenteric thrombosis

D. Acute pancreatitis

E. Retroperitoneal hematoma

49. CS List what is NOT characteristic for acute peritonitis in the terminal phase:

A. Ballooning of the abdomen

B. Hypovolaemia

C. Disappearance of intestinal noise

D. Hypoproteinemia

E. Intensification of intestinal peristalsis

50. CS Indicate the most suggestive sign for establishing the diagnosis of acute postoperative peritonitis:

A. Fever

B. pain

C. Pneumoperitoneum

D. Persistent intestinal ileum

E. diuresis
51. CS In a 70-year-old patient with acute myocardial infarction in anamnesis, the clinical picture of
generalized peritonitis with a 5-day onset is present. Indicate the medical-surgical tactics:

A. Emergency surgery after 24 hours of preoperative preparation

B. Immediate surgical intervention after administration of cardiotonic preparations

C. Urgent surgical intervention after hydro-electrolytic replacement

D. Does not require preoperative training

E. Urgent surgery after establishing the diagnosis with correction of heart failure

52. CM Indicate the objectives of the surgery that require to be performed in the case of diffuse fibrin-
purulent peritonitis:

A. Removing or limiting the outbreak of peritonitis

B. Healing of the peritoneal cavity

C. Intestinal decompression

D. Application of the epicystostome

E. Drainage of the peritoneal cavity

53. CS For an acute peritonitis, the following statements are characteristic, EXCEPT:

A. The presence of systemic inflammatory response

B. The presence of signs of irritation of the peritoneum

C. Presence of the intestinal ileum

D. The presence of polyuria

E. The presence of tachycardia

54. CS Indicate the pathognomonic sign for acute peritonitis caused by perforation of a cavity:

A. The presence of leukocytosis

B. Lack of intestinal filling

C. Presence of pneumoperitoneum

D. Presence of signs of irritation of the peritoneum

E. Presence of maturity in the declining regions of the peritoneal cavity

55. CS In a patient with acute diffuse fecaloid peritonitis during laparotomy, resectable neoplasm of the
ascendant with perforation of the proximal intestinal tumor was detected. Indicate the volume of the
operation:

A. Perforation suture with ileotransversanastomosis application

B. Right hemicolectomy with terminal ileostomy

C. Perforation suture with terminal ileostomy

D. Perforation suture with drainage of the peritoneal cavity

E. Application of the cecostomy with perforation suture

56. CS Indicate the need for metronidazole administration as an important element in the treatment of
secondary peritonitis:

A. Fighting anaerobic infection

B. Fighting fungal infection

C. Fighting aerobic infection

D. Fighting viral infection

E. Prophylaxis of generalized candidiasis

57. CS For establishing the diagnosis of abscess of Douglas space all the methods listed may be indicated,
EXCEPT:

A. Rectal cough

B. Fibrocolonoscopiei

C. Ultrasonographic examination

D. CT

E. Vaginal cough

58. CS The following investigation methods are indicated for establishing the diagnosis of subhepatic
abscess, EXCEPT:

A. Toracoscopiei

B. Ultrasonographic examination

C. Radiography of the chest

D. Radiography of the abdomen

E. CT

59. CS The following statements are characteristic of the clinico-paraclinic picture of subdiaphragmatic
abscess on the left, EXCEPT:

A. Decreased airway respiration of the lungs

B. High position of the diaphragm dome

C. The presence of pleurisy on the left

D. Presence of left basal atelectasis

E. hemoptysis

60. CS Select the clinical sign that is NOT characteristic for acute peritonitis:

A. Dry tongue

B. Muscular contracture of the anterior abdominal wall with the presence of the positive Blumberg sign

C. Lack of intestinal peristalsis

D. Presence of jaundice

E. Ballooning of the abdomen

61. CS Indicate the most informative paraclinical method of diagnosis in case of diffuse acute peritonitis:

A. Diagnostic laparoscopy

B. Ultrasonographic examination

C. Laparocenteza

D. CT

E. Determination of C-reactive protein

62. CS Indicate which of the clinical forms of acute peritonitis does NOT require laparotomy surgery:

A. Total purulent peritonitis

B. Fermentative pancreatogenic peritonitis

C. Fibrin-purulent diffuse peritonitis

D. Biliary peritonitis

E. Fecaloid peritonitis

63. CS Choose one of the forms of acute peritonitis that has major problems in diagnosis and has a serious
evolution:

A. Postoperative peritonitis

B. Fermentative peritonitis

C. Biliary peritonitis

D. ascites, peritonitis

E. Pelvioperitonita

64. CS Indicate the disease, in the pathogenesis in which in the initial phase of peritonitis the bacterial factor
does NOT play a decisive role:

A. Tumor perforation of the large intestine

B. Pancreatonecrosis

C. Injury to the small intestine

D. Acute destructive appendicitis

E. Acute destructive cholecystitis

65. CS Indicate the disease that does NOT cause the development of secondary acute peritonitis:

A. Acute destructive cholecystitis

B. Purulent cholangitis

C. Thrombosis of the mesenteric vessels

D. Acute destructive appendicitis

E. Acute intestinal occlusion

66. CS Indicate the most informative method for the differential diagnosis of acute peritonitis of
appendicular and gynecological origin:

A. Diagnostic laparoscopy

B. Ultrasonographic examination

C. Posterior fornix puncture

D. Overall X-ray of the abdomen

E. Laparocenteza

67. CM Specify the most commonly encountered isolated germs in secondary acute peritonitis of
appendicular origin:

A. E. Coli

B. Gram negative bacteria

C. B. Koch

D. anaerobes

E. Fungi

68. CM Indicate the categories of patients in whom the clinical diagnosis of acute peritonitis is difficult:

A. Elderly

B. People following immunosuppressive medication

C. The patients during the menstrual cycle

D. Hospitalized patients in shock

E. Allergic patients

69. CM Multiple organ failure syndrome (MODS) is assessed after abnormal manifestations for 24 hours in
the following systems:

A. Cardiac

B. Respiratory

Renal C.

D. Osteoarticular

E. Central Nerves

70. CM Characterize primary peritonitis:

A. They are determined by a single pathogenic germ

B. They are caused by several pathogenic germs

C. Patients with liver cirrhosis are more frequently affected

D. They have sources of hematogenous contamination

E. They have sources of intraperitoneal contamination

71. CM Specify which of the following statements regarding the surgical treatment of intra-abdominal
abscesses are true:

A. Subphrenic and subhepatic abscesses in contact with the anterior parietal wall are opened preferably by
transpleurodiaphragmatic approach

B. In the pelvic abscesses the rectotomy or opening through the posterior fornix of the vagina is used

C. The appendix abscesses drain as transperitoneally as possible

D. Intestinal abscesses should be treated conservatively

E. Abscesses of the omental pouch drain through the gastrocolic ligament

72. CM The hemolithogram in acute peritonitis may show:

A. Hematoconcentraţie

B. Hyperleukocytosis with the left deviation of the leukocyte formula

C. Poichilocitoză

D. Thrombocytopenia

E. Most commonly monocytosis is determined

73. CM Select the correct statements regarding postoperative acute peritonitis:

A. They have a serious and unpredictable evolution

B. The diagnosis is relatively easy

C. Most peritonitis is the consequence of the dehiscence of digestive anastomoses

D. Most peritonitis is the consequence of extrabdominal contamination

E. They can be caused by iatrogenic lesions

74. CM Select true statements about intra-abdominal abscesses:

A. It is classified into intraperitoneal and visceral abscesses

B. They are generally monomrobial

C. Most commonly occur secondary to post-traumatic, post-operative injury or due to an abdominal
pathological process

D. They can occur in visceral lesions

E. They can be single or multiple

75. CM Characterize the muscle contracture in acute peritonitis:

A. Appears only on deep palpation

B. It is painful

C. It is permanent

D. She is invincible

E. It can be defeated by distracting the patient

76. CM.Select the correct statements regarding primary acute peritonitis:

A. Occur in the presence of an intra-abdominal infectious outbreak

B. They can occur at any age, but are prevalent in children

C. Clinically manifests with general signs of infection

D. In most cases they are polymicrobial

E. Treatment of primary peritonitis is based only on surgical treatment

77. CM Select true statements regarding the evolution of Douglas-sack bottom abscess in the absence of
treatment:

A. It can be evacuated through the rectum or vagina

B. It may erupt in the large peritoneal cavity

C. It frequently occurs in the bladder

D. It manifests through the appearance of distant septic complications

E. Can cause acute outbreaks of chronic infections

78. CM Indicate the etiological treatment of acute peritonitis:

A. antibacterial

B. Pleurostomie
C. Washing of the peritoneal cavity

D. Surgical treatment

E. corticosteroids

79. CM Indicate the signs of the clinical diagnosis of acute peritonitis:

A. Fever

B. Polyuria

C. vomiting

D. Oliguria

E. tachycardia

80. CM List the consequences of acute peritonitis at the systemic level:

A. Metabolic alkalosis

B. Metabolic acidosis

C. Respiratory acidosis

D. Hepatic impairment

E. Renal impairment

81. CM Specify the symptoms that facilitate the diagnosis of postoperative peritonitis:

A. Persistent fever

B. The presence of hyperperistalism

C. Acute renal failure, acute respiratory failure

D. Purulent secretions through the wound / on the drainage tubes

E. Presence of pneumoperitoneum

82. CM Indicate the clinical situations that require the Hartmann procedure in the treatment of acute
secondary peritonitis:

A. Perforated duodenal ulcer

B. Perforation of the small intestine

C. Perforated diverticular sigmoiditis

D. Perforated sigmoid cancer

E. Perforation of cancer of the hepatic angle of the colon

83. CM Specify the true statements r patients with acute postoperative peritonitis:

A. It is difficult to diagnose

B. It can be determined by anastomotic dehiscence

C. CT is not necessary, the diagnosis being often obvious due to the clinical picture

D. It is a form of primitive peritonitis

E. Intense chest pain with cough and dyspnoea will be present

84. CS Indicate pathology with the highest incidence in emergency surgical pathology:

A. Tuberculous peritonitis

B. Tertiary peritonitis

C. Secondary peritonitis

D. Idiopathic peritonitis

E. Primary peritonitis

85. CS Indicate the typical clinical manifestation of secondary peritonitis caused by ulcerative perforation:

A. Vomiting with “coffee mug”

B. Abdominal contracture

C. Stopping intestinal transit for fecal matter and gas

D. Slow, insidious onset of the disease

E. Pain in the belt

86. CM Specify the clinical signs present on palpation of the abdomen in diffuse secondary peritonitis:

A. The presence of hepatic maturity

B. Muscular defense

C. Movable pencil on the flanks

D. Fluctuation in the right iliac fossa

E. Epigastric kneading

87. CS in the case of peritonitis, the ionogram indicates the following deviations from the norm, EXCEPT:

A. Hipocloremiei

B. hyponatremia

C. Hipermagnezemiei

D. hypocalcemia

E. hypokalemia

88. CS Indicate the FALSE statement regarding secondary peritonitis:

A. They are usually monomrobial

B. Peritoneum contamination frequently occurs hematogenously

C. Contamination of the peritoneum is performed directly

D. They may occur following iatrogenic perforations of the digestive tract

E. They may occur as a result of abdominal trauma

89. CS About the clinical signs of acute peritonitis, the following can be stated, EXCEPT:

A. The essential element is abdominal contracture

B. At first, vomiting is food-containing and bilious

C. Some peritonitis may start with diarrhea

D. Pain is an inconvenient sign

E. Lack of fever does not exclude peritonitis

90. CS Treatment of intra-abdominal abscesses is as follows, EXCEPT:

A. Subcostal incision in drainage of subphrenic abscess

B. Drainage through the gastro-colic ligament in the abscess of the omental pouch

C. Non-surgical in mesoceliac abscess

D. Extraperitoneal drainage into the appendix abscess

E. Rectotomy or colpotomy in pelvic abscess

91. CS Select the true statement regarding the treatment of secondary acute peritonitis is:

A. In primary peritonitis the most important role is the surgical methods

B. In secondary acute peritonitis, surgical treatment is the method of choice

C. In secondary diffuse acute peritonitis, antibiotic therapy is usually sufficient

D. In acute peritonitis the role of surgery is not essential in the treatment of infectious outbreaks, more
importantly the patient's hydroelectrolyte rebalancing

E. Surgical treatment is scheduled after correction of the pathophysiological imbalances of the patient

92. CS Indicate the true statement regarding secondary peritonitis:

A. It constitutes less than 5% of the total peritonitis

B. Not associated with MODS

C. It represents the location by the peritoneum of the infection

D. They are frequently monomrobial

E. They are mainly due to the damage to the organs of the digestive tract and constitute the most numerous
group (over 90%) of the total peritonitis

93. CS Select the true statement regarding peritonitis produced as a result of retrograde endoscopic
cholangiopancreatography:

A. Common

B. By perforation of the duodenal wall

C. By gastric perforation

D. Through the perforation of the jejunum

E. By perforation at the level of the Treitz ligament

94. CS Indicate the characteristic of primary peritonitis:

A. It is the largest group of all abdominal pathologies

B. It develops in the body's inability to delimit and locate the collection

C. The integrity of the digestive tract is not preserved

D. Include tuberculous peritonitis

E. It constitutes 50% of the total peritonitis

95. CS Indicate the surface of the human peritoneum in adults:

A. 10 m²

B. 20 m²

C. 5 m²

D. Equal to the surface of the body 2 m2

E. 1 m²

96. CS Indicate the author of the modern treatment of acute peritonitis:

A. Billroth

B. Kocher

C. Mondor

D. Kirshner

E. Mandel

97. CS Indicate the most important element in the treatment of acute peritonitis:

A. Eradication of the source of infection

B. Combating paralytic ileus

C. Peritoneal lavage

D. Peritoneal drainage

E. heparin therapy

98. CS Indicate the first organ system affected in the context of MODS syndrome in acute peritonitis is:

Cardio-vascular A.

B. Renal excretion

C. Liver

D. Central nerves

E. Respiratory
99. CS State the suggestion of Stoks's law in the context of acute peritonitis:

A. Paralytic occlusion

B. Toxic hepatitis

C. Leukocytosis

D. hypovolaemia

E. Dehydration

100. CS Indicate the time period in which the repair of peritoneal defects takes place:

A. 1-3 days

B. 5-8 days

C. 1-2 weeks

D. 3-4 weeks

E. Monday days

101. CS Indicate the time required for adhesion formation as a result of fibrin polymerization, which comes
into contact with the peritoneal basal To:

A. 1-3 days

B. 5-7 days

C. 10 days

D. 4 weeks

E. 2-3 months days

102. CS As a result of the perforation of a cavity organ in the peritoneal cavity, multiple species of
microorganisms penetrate. In the end there are only:

A. 1 species

B. 2-3 species

C. 5-7 species

D. 10 species

E. All species
103. CM Indicate the microflora presented in the tertiary peritonitis:

A. Fungi

B. Low pathogenic bacteria

Enterococci C.

D. clostridia

E. staphylococci

104. CS Indicate the time required for colonization of the peritoneal cavity by bacteria in secondary
peritonitis by perforation:

A. 1 hour

B. 3-6 hours

C. 10-12 hours

D. 24 hours

E. 2-3 days

105. CM The function of absorption of the peritoneum results in the penetration into the systemic
circulation through the spaces between the mesothelial cells on the diaphragmal surface of:

A. Water and electrolytes

B. Blood

C. urea

D. analgesics

E. Antibiotic

106. CM Specify the causal factors of peritoneal abscesses:

A. Primary peritonitis

B. Secondary peritonitis

C. Tertiary peritonitis

D. bacteraemia

Septicemia E.

107. CS Indicate in which of the perforations the anaerobic germs play an essential role:
A. Gastric

B. duodenum

C. Pancreatic abscess

D. Destructive cholecystitis

E. Colón

108. CM Multiple organ dysfunction syndrome (MODS) in acute peritonitis is the consequence of excessive
invasion in the systemic circulation of:

A. endotoxins

B. exotoxins

C. Bacteria

D. inflammation mediators

E. Viruses

109. CM List the processes that create the local response of the peritoneum to the penetration of
pathogenic germs into the peritoneal cavity:

A. Phagocytosis initiation

B. Exudation with fibrin-rich fluid

C. Absorption of bacteria in the systemic circulation

D. Granulocyte migration into the peritoneal cavity

E. Intestinal hyperperistalism

110. CM List the factors with major role of adjuvants in the evolution of acute peritonitis:

A. Gastric juice

B. ball

C. Pancreatic juice

D. Urine

E. The cerebrospinal fluid

111. CM List the nozological entities that are included in the primary peritonitis:
A. Peritonitis with mycobacteria

B. Ascites-peritonitis in the context of liver cirrhosis

C. Pneumococcal peritonitis in girls

D. Gonococcal peritonitis

E. Peritonitis by iatrogenesis

112. CM List the possible combinations of rational antibiotic therapy in the treatment of acute peritonitis:

A. Cephalosporins + aminoglycosides + metronidazole

B. Fluorquinolone + aminoglycosides + metranidazole

C. Cephalosporins + macrolides

D. Imipenem + metronidazole

E. Vancomycin + tetracycline

113. CM Indicate the obligatory measures of preoperative preparation in acute peritonitis:

A. Catheterization of a venous trunk for volemic and electrolytic resuscitation

B. Continuous nasal gastric aspiration

C. Catheterization of the bladder

D. Parenteral nutrition

E. Extracorporeal detoxification

114. CS Peritoneal lavage as a step in the surgical treatment of peritonitis is mandatory and is performed
with:

A. Normosaline solutions, sterile (t-37 ° C)

B. Brilliant green dissolved

C. Sol. 10% NaCl

D. Sol. Glucose 5%

E. Sol. Dextran 70%

115. CM List the surgical principles in the treatment of generalized acute peritonitis:
A. Wide median laparotomy

B. Eradication of the source of infection

C. Toilet of the peritoneal cavity

D. Abdominal drainage

E. Application of the bursoomentostome for scheduled washing

116. CM Specify indications for open abdomen in generalized acute peritonitis:

A. Predicted mortality up to 30% (APACHE score)

B. Intra-abdominal bleeding stopped by buffering

C. Source of infection not cleared at the first intervention

D. Uncertain intestinal viability

E. MODS / MSOF syndrome

117. CM Indicate the possible evolutionary dangers of the intra-abdominal abscess, in case of its drainage
delay:

A. May erupt in the abdominal cavity

B. Usually, it erupts into a cavity

C. It may erupt on the skin

D. Can cause multiple organ dysfunction syndrome

E. It resolves spontaneously

118. CM Indicate the evolution variants of acute aseptic peritonitis:

A. Towards infection

B. Towards spontaneous healing

C. Generates Multiple Organ Dysfunction Syndrome (MODS)

D. Towards hypovolemic shock

E. Towards septicemia

119. CM List the physical signs of peritonitis:

A. Abdominal contracture

B. Diarrhea

C. Skin Hyperesthesia

D. Pain in the percussion of the abdomen

E. Hiccups

120. CM List the relevance of the paraclinical examinations, which certify the acute peritonitis syndrome:

A. Empty abdomen r - pneumoperitoneum

B. R-spelling of the abdomen - dilated intestinal loops, with thickened walls

C. Abdominal ultrasound - free fluid in the abdominal cavity

D. MRI and CT are not informative

E. Scintigraphy is definitive in the diagnosis of acute peritonitis

121. CM The differential diagnosis of acute peritonitis is made with a series of entities that mimic the clinical
picture (false acute surgical abdomen). List the most common:

A. Saturn crises

B. Myocardial infarction, abdominal form

C. Reily syndrome

D. Basal pneumonia

E. Trauma to the skull a brain

122. CM List the basic pathophysiological elements in acute peritonitis:

A. Huge losses of liquids and electrolytes

B. Toxemia caused by excess mediators

C. Endotoxinemia

D. Poisoning with nitrogenous products from the intestines

E. Anemia

123. CM Specify the objectives of the antibacterial treatment after the surgical drainage in case of acute
peritonitis:
A. Eradication of persistent or residual infection

B. Prevention of wound infection

C. Stimulating intestinal motility

D. Prophylaxis of acute respiratory failure

E. Duration of antibiotic therapy of 5-10 days

124. CM Specify the surgical techniques to eliminate the source of contamination in the secondary
peritonitis:

A. Simple drainage in intra-abdominal abscesses

B. Perforation suture with neighborhood drainage

C. Outsourcing the segment with perforation

D. Perforation segment resection

E. Enterostomy for paralytic ileus control

125. CM Indicate the clear signs obtained on CT and / or MRI examination in the diagnosis of acute
peritonitis:

A. Intraperitoneal fluid collections

B. Thickening of mesentery and peritoneal sheets

C. Thickening of the intestinal wall

D. Deletion of the contour of mesenteric and retroperitoneal adipose tissue

E. Dilation of intra- and extrahepatic bile ducts

126. CM List the factors that determine the magnitude of the pathophysiological phenomena in a
generalized peritonitis:

A. Virulence of contaminated germs

B. Extent and duration of contamination

C. The presence or absence of an adjuvant

D. Effectiveness of initial therapy

E. Gender of the patient

127. CS Indicate the causal factor of the main mechanism in the pathogenesis of serious systemic effects in
acute peritonitis:

A. Rapid absorption of bacteria and endotoxins through the diaphragmatic stomata

B. Hypovolemic shock

C. Onset of MSOF / MODS syndrome

D. Amplitude of the infectious process

E. Localization of perforation on digestive segments

128. CS Classification of peritonitis (Hamburg, 1987) does NOT include:

A. Retroperitoneal abscess

B. Tertiary peritonitis

C. Secondary peritonitis

D. Intra-abdominal abscess

E. Primary peritonitis

129. CM Specify the clinical phases in the evolution of diffuse peritonitis:

A. Reactive phase

B. Toxic phase

C. Intermediate phase

D. Terminal phase

E. Resorption phase

130. CM List the criteria for classification of peritonitis:

A. Type of causal agent

B. The mode of inoculation of the peritoneum

C. Extension of the inflammatory process

D. Character of peritoneal exudate

E. Severity of hydroelectrolyte disturbances

VARICOUS DISEASE (tests)

1. CM Which of the clinical signs listed are characteristic of varicose disease:

A. Acute pain in the lower limbs

B. Permanent limb edema along the entire path

C. Presence of trophic disorders in the medial ankle

D. Edema of the plant and pain in the limbs at the end of the day

E. Presence of varicose dilation of superficial veins

2. CM Which of the factors listed are the basis of the installation of skin trophic disorders in varicose
disease:

A. Occlusion of the tibial arteries

B. Insufficient valves of perforating veins

C. Deep vein thrombosis of the leg

D. Insufficiency of the ostial valve of the saphenous vein

E. Limfostaza

3. CM Functional tests performed in the diagnosis of variceal disease can provide the following data:

A. Assessment of valvular insufficiency of superficial veins

B. Diagnosis of superficial vein thrombophlebitis

C. Appreciation of the location of insufficient perforants

D. Highlighting arterio-venous fistulas

E. Assessment of the permeability of the deep veins

4. CS Select the evolutionary complications of variceal disease are the following, EXCEPT:

A. Superficial vein thrombophlebitis

B. Gangrene of the plant

C. Bleeding from varicose veins

D. Trophic ulcers of the calf

E. Thrombosis of the communicating veins

5. CM Secondary varicose veins require differentiation from primary ones, being the consequence of a pre-
existing pathology such as:

A. Abdominal-pelvic tumors

B. Post-thrombotic syndrome

C. Thrombophlebitis of superficial veins

D. Be arterio-venous stula

E. Insufficiency of the ostial valve

6. CM The physiological venous blood flow of the lower limbs is characterized by:

A. Flow from the periphery to the right atrium

B. Flow from the superficial to the deep veins

C. Flow from deep to superficial veins

D. Two-way flow

E. Flow from the cord to the periphery

7. CM Indicate the factors that positively influence the circulation of venous blood reflux:

A. Residual systolic force

B. Diastolic aspiration of the atria

C. Chest aspiration

D. Intra-abdominal pressure

E. Muscle-venous pump

8. CS List the true statements for the deep venous system of the lower limbs, EXCEPT:

A. The deep venous system drains about 90% of the blood flow of the limbs

B. The venous circulation in the paw region is bidirectional

C. Gravitational force is the most important factor favoring venous return

D. Deep veins are located subaponeurotic

E. Dopplerography is the method of choice in highlighting permeability

9. CM List the clinical signs that are NOT characteristic of varicose disease:

A. Trophic ulcers of the calf

B. Intermittent claudication

C. Hypertrophy of the limb

D. Lowering the local temperature

E. Lead members

10. CS Indicate the characteristic signs of trophic disorders in varicose disease:

A. Decreased local temperature, decreased hair layer

B. Brown skin coloration, indurative cellulite, eczema, presence of trophic ulcers

C. Hypertrophy and elongation of the affected limb, presence of angioomas, congenital varices

D. Pigmentation of the lower limbs, skin atrophy, arteriovenous fistulae

E. Bone hypertrophy, hyperpigmentation, trophic circular ulcers, angioomas

11. CM Foot ulcer is the trophic lesion, which can occur spontaneously or after minor traumas, being
characterized by:

A. Supramaleolar localization on the inside of the calf

B. Covered with granulation

C. Has a tendency for spontaneous healing

D. The bottom of the ulcer is atone

E. Can be associated with indurative cellulite

12. CS Acute thrombophlebitis of the superficial veins of the lower limbs is characterized by the presence of
the following clinical signs, EXCEPT:

A. Presence of an elastic cord, sensitive to palpation on the path of the affected vein

B. Edema and hyperemia on the involved vein pathway

C. Considerable increase in volume of the calf

D. Increasing the local temperature

E. May have upward evolution

13. CS In the ascending thrombophlebitis of the saphenous vein with the spread of the process at the level
of the upper third of the thigh it is indicated:

A. Elastic bandage of the member

B. Administration of disintegrators

C. Local application of heparin ointments

D. Emergency surgery

E. Administration of preparations that improve blood rheological qualities

14. CM Specify the complications of acute superficial vein thrombophlebitis:

A. Abscession of phlebitic outbreak

B. Propagation of thrombosis into the deep venous system

C. Post-thrombophlebitic syndrome

D. Pulmonary embolism

E. Wet gangrene

15. CS Indicate the correct statements regarding the superficial venous system, EXCEPT:

A. Blood flow through superficial veins constitutes 10%

B. In the thigh 35% there is an accessory vein (Giacomini)

C. The saphenous vein crosa magna has a number of 2-5 collateral

D. Through the communicating veins the deep venous system is connected

E. The highest number of communicators is at the thigh level

16. CS The mechanism of occurrence of varicose disease is due to the following factors, EXCEPT:

A. Venous reflux through the communicating veins

B. Venous stasis

C. Venous reflux due to insufficiency of the osteoid valve of the saphenous cruciate moss

D. Reduction of orthostatic venous pressure

E. Dilatation of collagen deficient veins

17. CS Indicate the optimal pathogenetic intervention in varicose vein disease complicated by trophic ulcers:
A. Troianov-Trendelenburg

B. Babcock

C. Linton

D. Madelung

E. narrative

18. CM Indicate the purpose of the surgery in varicose vein disease of the lower limbs:

A. Exclusion of pathological reflux from deep to superficial veins

B. Removal of dilated veins themselves

C. Restoration of deep veins permeability

D. Plastic skin defects

E. Excision of trophic tissue disorders

19. CM List the procedures indicated in varicose vein disease, in order to exclude reflux through the
perforating veins of the calf:

A. Babcock

B. Madelung

C. Linton

D. narrative

E. Cockett

20. CM Specify emergency maneuvers in bleeding by varicose rupture of the lower limbs:

A. Application of the proximal rupture sheath

B. Suturing of the damaged vessel

C. Application of compressive dressing

D. The Troianov-Trendelenburg procedure

E. Hemostatic administration

21. CS According to CEAP classification (2004) stage C5 of varicose disease is characterized by:
A. Shame in the calf, fatigue mainly in orthostatism

B. Feeling of weight in the calf ("lead calf")

C. Eczema, pigmented dermatitis, lipoderm-sclerosis, cured ulcer

D. sensors it's voltage in the knob

E. Eczema, pigmentary dermatitis, lipoderm-sclerosis, active ulcer

22. CM List the complications that may occur as a result of the sclerotherapy of variceal disease:

A. infiltrates

B. Acute thrombophlebitis of superficial and deep veins

C. Thrombembolism of the pulmonary artery

D. Regional necrosis of the skin

E. Arteriovenous fistula

23. CM List the indications for emergency surgery in acute thrombophlebitis of superficial avenues:

A. Thrombophlebitis at the level of the safeno-femoral junction

B. Coexistence of thrombophlebitis with erysipelas

C. Thrombosis of the saphenous vein magna along the entire path of the leg

D. Ascending thrombophlebitis

E. Thrombophlebitis veni safene parva

24. CM List the factors that induce the process of thrombus formation in the vascular bed:

A. Endothelial lesions

B. Arterio-venous joints

C. Coagulation disorders

D. Heart rhythm disorders

E. Stasis in the venous circulation

25. CS The Cockett procedure is used in the surgical treatment of variceal disease and consists of:

A. Resection of communicating veins

B. Subfascial ligation of the communicating veins

C. Upper and subfascial ligation of the communicating veins

D. Superficial ligation of the communicating veins

E. The procedure does not provide for manipulations on the communicating veins

26. CM List the characteristics of varicose disease as a chronic, degenerative disease of the venous wall:

A. Affecting 17-25% of the population

B. Men suffer more often

C. Increased incidence in women

D. Permanent venous dilatations

E. It is often associated with other pathologies (varicocele, hemorrhoids, hernias)

27. CM List the anatomical notions characteristic of the superficial venous system of the lower limbs:

A. Stool saphenous vein

B. Machine vein saphenous

C. The communicating veins that make the connection between the two superficial veins

D. The superficial venous system is located subaponeurotic

E. Giacomini accessory vein

28. CM The communicating veins present:

A. The direct connection between the superficial and the deep venous system

B. I have an ostial valve at the level of discharge into the deep venous system

C. The ostial valve allows blood to flow in both directions

D. In the thigh region, there are usually 4-5 communicating veins

E. Insufficiency of the ostial valve allows venous reflux

29. CM List the characteristics of ostial valve failure:

A. Transition of blood from deep to superficial veins

B. Reflux of venous blood from the superficial to the deep system

C. Increased pressure in the deep venous system

D. Increased pressure in the superficial venous system

E. Edema and cyanosis of the affected lower limb appear

30. CM List the characteristics of the venous system of the lower limbs:

A. The deep venous system drains 50% of the blood flow

B. The superficial venous system receives 10% of the blood

C. The deep venous system drains 90% of the blood flow

D. The venous blood circulation speed is 20 cm / sec

E. The arrangement and the continuity of the axial and ostial valves induce the unidirectional circulation

31. CM Acute thrombophlebitis of the superficial veins of the lower limb is characterized by the following
clinical signs, EXCEPT:

A. Acute pain along the affected vein

B. Constant edema of the lower limb

C. Trophic skin disorders in the medial ankle

D. Trophic skin disorders of the first plantar finger

E. Edema and foot pain, which appear at the end of the day

32. CM Acute superficial vein thrombophlebitis is characterized by the listed signs, EXCEPT:

A. Disappearance of pulsation in the artery dorsalis pedis

B. Presence of seals along the vein

C. Significant increase in volume of the limb

D. Increasing the local temperature

E. Pain in the path of the vein

33. CM Specify indications for emergency surgery in acute superficial vein thrombophlebitis:

A. Location of thrombophlebitis at the level of the saphenous vein cross

B. Incipient phase of the inflammatory process in the region of thrombosis

C. Combining thrombophlebitis with erysipelas

D. ascending thrombophlebitis

E. Total thrombosis of saphenous vein in the calf

34. CS Select the characteristic sign of the Virchow triad:

A. Slow blood flow

B. Presence of arterial-venous fistula

C. Blood electrolyte disorders

D. Increased arterial flow

E. Decreased blood oxygenation

35. CM Select clinical signs characteristic of acute deep vein thrombophlebitis:

A. Trophic ulcer of the lower limb

B. Dyspnea

C. Moderate edema of the plant and in the lower third of the calf

D. The positive Homans sign

E. Edema along the vein path

36. CM Select methods for prophylaxis of acute deep vein thrombophlebitis:

A. antibacterial

B. Elastic bandage of the lower limbs

C. Includes Vishnevsky ointment

D. anticoagulants

E. The elevated position of the limb

37. CS Indicate the place of formation of primary thrombi in the inferior vena cava basin, EXCEPT:

A. Deep veins of the calf

B. Superficial veins of the lower extremities

C. Arterio-venous anastomoses

D. Venele iliac internally

E. The plexus will come pelvic

38. CM List the complications characteristic of acute ilio-femoral venous thrombosis:

A. Pulmonary embolism

B. Muscle contracture

C. Post-thrombophlebitic syndrome

D. Phlegmon of the thigh

E. Crash syndrome

39. CS Select the investigation that can confirm the diagnosis of acute deep vein thrombosis:

A. Thermography

B. Doppler ultrasound

C. retrograde iliocavography

D. Distal ascending venography

E. Transcutaneous Oximetry

40. CM Select the characteristic signs of acute ileo-femoral thrombosis:

A. Persistent edema of the lower limbs

B. Emptying the veins at the elevated leg position

C. “fan” type veins

D. Pulse vein and local systolic bleeding

E. Accentuation of saphenous veins and cyanosis of the skin of the lower extremity

41. CS In acute deep vein thrombosis the following measures are indicated, EXCEPT:

A. Compresses with heparin ointment

B. Anticoagulant therapy

C. Disintegrating (Trental)

D. Hemostatic therapy

E. Elastic bandage of the extremity

42. CM List the factors involved in the development of deep vein thrombophlebitis:

A. Slow blood flow to the venous system of the lower limbs

B. Dermal endothelial damage

C. Reflux of venous blood from the deep veins to the surface through perforations

D. Relative insufficiency of deep vein valves

E. High blood pressure

43. CS Indicate the most dangerous complication of deep vein thrombosis:

A. Trophic foot ulcer

B. Pulmonary embolism

C. Phlebitis of varicose nodules

D. Deep vein cancellation

E. Limfantiaza

44. CM Select the characteristic symptoms of acute deep vein thrombosis:

A. Muscular atrophy

B. Pain in the muscles of the leg

C. Edema of the lower third of the calf and plant

D. The positive Homans sign

E. Positive sign of plantar ischemia

45. CM List the therapeutic measures that prevent the spread of thrombophlebitis in the magisterial veins
of the lower limbs:

A. Antibiotics

B. Rest in bed

anticoagulants C.

D. Disaggregating therapy

E. Elastic bandage of the lower extremities

46. CS Name the clinical sign characteristic of acute deep vein thrombophlebitis:

A. Rowzing

B. Korte

C. Homans

D. Musso

E. Joure-Rozanov

47. CM Specify the purpose of elastic bandage of the lower limbs during the postoperative period:

A. Prevention of pulmonary artery thromboembolism

B. Acceleration of blood flow to the deep veins

C. Prevention of trophic disorders

D. The need to influence arterial blood flow

E. Stabilization of the joints

48. CS Select the unfavorable factor to improve venous blood flow in the lower limbs during the
postoperative period:

A. Elastic bandage of the calves

B. Elevated position of the extremities

C. Long bed rest

D. Contractions of the muscles of the leg

E. Massage of the lower limbs

49. CM List the complications that may follow on the background of thrombophlebitis of the lower
extremity?

A. Renal infarction

B. Postinfarct pneumonia

C. Mesenteric thromboembolism

D. Pileflebita

E. Pulmonary embolism
50. CS List the main clinical symptoms of massive pulmonary artery thrombembolism, EXCEPT:

A. Retosternal pain

B. Collapse

C. suffocation

D. Abdominal pain

E. Cyanosis of the face and upper body

51. CM List the methods that can be used to prevent massive pulmonary thrombembolism in the case of a
floating thrombus of the inferior vena cava:

A thrombectomy

B. Application of the inferior vena cava

C. Resection of the inferior vena cava

D. Implantation of filter cavities

E. Creation of the aorto-caval fistula

52. CM Select the diagnostic methods specific to pulmonary embolism:

A. Indicative chest x-ray

B. Electrocardiography

C. USG to the heart

D. Angiopulmonografia

E. Pulmonary perfusion scan

53. CM Indicate the factors involved in thrombus formation:

A. Damage to the venous wall

B. Presence of congenital artery-venous shunts

C. Increased blood coagulability

D. Heart rhythm disorder

E. Slow blood flow to veins

54. CS Post-thrombophlebitic syndrome of the lower extremities is the consequence of:

A. Superficial vein thrombosis

B. Varicose veins of superficial veins

C. Deep vein thrombosis

D. ligation of the saphenous vein

E. Large artery thrombosis

55. CM List the main pathogenetic factors that underlie the posttrombophlebitic syndrome of the lower
extremities:

A. Arterial occlusion

B. Mechanical barrier of blood flow to the deep veins

C. The retrograde reflux in the deep veins

D. Pathological reflux through perforations in the superficial venous network

E. erysipelas

56. CM Post-thrombophlebitic syndrome involves in the pathological process:

A. The capillary system

B. Communicating veins

C. Deep veins of the lower limbs

D. Arterial vessels

E. Arterio-venous fistulas

57. CS Post-thrombophlebitis syndrome predominantly affects:

A. The popliteo-tibial segment

B. The femur-tibial segment

C. The iliac-femoral segment

D. The inferior vena cava

E. Vena silly sapphire

58. CM Select the clinical forms of post-thrombophlebitis syndrome:

A. Edema-algal form

B. Varicose-ulcerous form

C. Trofor

D. dystrophy

Hemorrhagic E.

59. CS List the diagnostic methods that determine the surgical treatment of post-thrombophlebitis
syndrome:

A. Functional tests

B. Radionuclide angiography

C. Doppler ultrasound

D. Computed tomography

E. phlebography

60. CS Post-thrombophlebitis syndrome is characterized by the following processes, EXCEPT:

A. Recanalization of thrombosed veins

B. Formation of new valves

C. Destruction of valves

D. Paravenoid fibrosis

E. Increased venous hydrostatic pressure

61. CS In post-thrombophlebitic syndrome the most pronounced changes appear in:

A. Deep veins

B. The master arts

C. Lymphatic vessels

D. The superficial venous network

E. Communicating veins

62. CM List the characteristics of post-thrombophlebitic syndrome:

A. Elongation of the lower limbs

B. Pain in the extremities

C. Increasing the volume of the members

D. Deformation of the leg joints

E. Trophic ulcers

63. CM Select the major therapeutic objectives indicated in acute deep vein thrombophlebitis:

A. Preventing phlebitis spread and preventing pulmonary embolism by stopping thrombus extension

B. Deconstruction of the vein by thrombolysis or thrombectomy

C. Combat venous stasis by applying external compression

D. Segmental resection of the affected vein

E. Ligature of the proximal vein to the obstruction area

64. CM List the visas of surgery in primary varicose veins, EXCEPT:

A. Suppression of ostial venous reflux

B. Plastic incompetent valves

C. Interruption of reflux through the collateral of the cross of the saphenous vein

D. Implantation of filter cavities

E. Stop reflux through communicating and collateral veins

65. CS Specify the causes of trophic ulcer in the varicose vein disease:

A. Chronic venous insufficiency

B. Chronic arterial insufficiency

C. Association of skin infection

D. Blood reflux through the adjacent perforating vein

E. Presence of arterial-venous fistula