Module 1. Abdominal Surgery Text Test Questions

MODULE 1.
ABDOMINAL SURGERY
Text test questions
1. Acute appendicitis in the 1st phase is necessary to differentiate from:

A. * gastric ulcer
B. pancreatitis
C. cholecystitis
D. intestinal obstruction
E. strangulated hernia
2. After appendectomy the patient stands out of bed on:

A. * first day
B. second day
C. third day
D. fourth day
E. fifth day
3. After appendectomy to early postoperative complications belongs:

A. * peritonitis
B. intestinal fistula
C. ventral hernia
D. ligature fistula
E. colitis
4. After appendectomy to late postoperative complications belongs:

A. * intestinal fistula
B. appendicular infiltrate
C. pilephlebitis
D. peritonitis
E. colitis
5. Appendectomy after the treatment of appendicular infiltrate performed after:

A. * 2-4 months
B. 1-2 weeks
C. 3-4 weeks
D. 1-2 months
E. 3-5 days
6. Appendectomy, as a rule, is performed under such anaesthesia:

A. * intravenous anaesthesia
B. local anaesthesia
C. ether anaesthesia
D. conducting anaesthesia
E. endotracheal anaesthesia
7. Appendicular infiltrate appears after:

A. * 3-5 days
B. 1-2 days
C. 5-6 days
D. 7-8 days
E. 8-10 days
8. Appendicular infiltrate is treated:

A. * conservative therapy, then surgery
B. only conservative therapy
C. puncture
D. drainage
E. only surgical treatment
9. Appendicular infiltrate is treated:

A. * antibiotics, paranephral blockade, detoxication therapy
B. antiseptics, analgesia, antibiotics, anti-inflammatory therapy
C. antibiotics, diuretics, antispasmodic, anti-inflammatory therapy
D. analgesia, antibiotics, diuretics, anti-inflammatory therapy
E. anti-inflammatory drugs, paranephral blockade, detoxication therapy
10. Bartomier’s sign is typical for:

A. * acute appendicitis
B. acute cholecystitis
C. acute intestinal obstruction
D. food poisoning
E. acute pancreatitis
11. Black colour, fibrino-purulent fur, perforation are the signs of:
A. * gangreno-perforative appendicitis
B. phlegmonous appendicitis
C. gangrenous appendicitis
D. catarrhal appendicitis
E. dystrophic appendicitis
12. Black colour, fibrino-purulent fur, pus in the lumen are the signs of:
A. * gangrenous appendicitis
C. catarrhal appendicitis
D. gangreno-perforative appendicitis
13. Blumberg’s sign in Petit triangle is:

A. * Gabay’s sign
B. Rovsing's sign
C. Sitkovsky's sign
D. Obrastsow's sign
E. Kulenkampf's sign
14. Blumberg’s sign is typical for:

B. acute thrombophlebitis
C. pneumothorax
D. food poisoning
E. bleeding ulcer
15. Causes of the appendicular infiltrate development:

A. * late hospitalisation, misdiagnosed appendicitis
B. aggressive infection, impaired immunity
C. adhesions, increased immunity
D. peritonitis, abscessing
E. surgical trauma, infection
16. Characteristic changes in the general blood analysis in appendicitis:
A. * neutrophil leucocytosis with deviation of the differential count to the left
B. neutrophil lymphocytosis with deviation of the differential count to the left
C. neutrophil eosonophilia with deviation of the differential count to the left
D. neutrophil leucocytosis with deviation of the differential count to the right
E. white cells neutrophilia with deviation of the differential count to the right
17. Chronic primary appendicitis - is the development of pathological changes in appendix after:
A. * without the signs of acute appendicitis in anamnesis
B. acute appendicitis
C. appendicular infiltrate
D. appendicular abscess
E. pilephlebitis
18. Chronic residual appendicitis arises up after:

B. chronic appendicitis
C. colicks
D. recurrent appendicitis
E. primary chronic appendicitis

A. * appendicular infiltrate
B. chronic appendicitis
C. recurrent appendicitis
D. colicks

A. * appendicular abscess
B. colicks
C. chronic appendicitis
D. recurrent appendicitis
21. Conservative treatment of appendicular infiltrate is going on:

A. * 1-2 weeks
B. 1 week
C. 3-4 weeks
D. 1-2 months
E. 2-4 months
22. Dunphy's sign is typical for:

D. food poisoning
23. During appendectomy the most frequent complication is:

A. * bleeding
B. infiltrate
C. leak of the sutures
D. infecting
E. peritonitis
24. Dyspeptic syndrome is characteristic for acute appendicitis in:

A. * children
B. females
C. males
D. pregnant
E. elderly patients
25. Dyspeptic syndrome is characteristic for acute appendicitis in:

A. * children
B. females
C. males
D. pregnant
E. elderly patients
26. For acute appendicitis is typical:

A. * Kocher-Volkovitch's sign
B. Ortner's sign
C. Homans sign
D. Sklyarov's sign
E. Meyo-Robson sign

A. * Rovsing's sign
B. Ortner's sign
C. Homans sign
D. Sklyarov's sign
E. Meyo-Robson sign

A. * Sitkovsky’s sign
B. Ortner's sign
C. Homans sign
D. Sklyarov's sign
E. Meyo-Robson sign

A. * Bartomier’s sign
B. Ortner's sign
C. Homans sign
D. Sklyarov's sign
E. Meyo-Robson sign

A. * Dunphy's sign
B. Ortner's sign
C. Homans sign
D. Sklyarov's sign
E. Meyo-Robson sign

A. * Blumberg’s sign
B. Ortner's sign
C. Homans sign
D. Sklyarov's sign
E. Meyo-Robson sign

A. * Voskresenky’s sign
B. Ortner's sign
C. Homans sign
D. Sklyarov's sign
E. Meyo-Robson sign

A. * Rozdolsky’s sign
B. Ortner's sign
C. Homans sign
D. Sklyarov's sign
E. Meyo-Robson sign

A. * Yaure-Rozanov's sign
B. Ortner's sign
C. Homans sign
D. Sklyarov's sign
E. Meyo-Robson sign

A. * Gabay’s sign
B. Ortner's sign
C. Homans sign
D. Sklyarov's sign
E. Meyo-Robson sign

A. * Psoas sign
B. Ortner's sign
C. Homans sign
D. Sklyarov's sign
E. Meyo-Robson sign

A. * Obrastsow's sign
B. Ortner's sign
C. Homans sign
D. Sklyarov's sign
E. Meyo-Robson sign
38. For acute appendicitis typical t° is:

A. * 38° С
B. 37° С
C. subfebrile
D. 37-39° С
E. 38-40° С
39. For appendectomy the most suitable surgical access is:
A. * Volkovich-Dyakonov
B. McBurney
C. Lenander
D. Sprengel
E. Kocher
40. For pelvic appendicitis is characteristic the sign:

A. * Kulenkampf's sign
B. Yaure-Rozanov sign
C. Sitkovsky's sign
D. Obrastsow's sign
E. Voskresensky's sign
41. For retrocecal appendicitis is characteristic the sign:

A. * Yaure-Rozanov sign
B. Sitkovsky's sign
C. Obrastsow's sign
D. Voskresensky's sign
42. For retrocecal appendicitis is characteristic the sign:

A. * Gabay's sign
B. Sitkovsky's sign
C. Obrastsow's sign
43. For retroperitoneal appendicitis is characteristic the sign:

A. * Pasternatsky's
B. Sitkovsky's
C. Yaure-Rozanov
D. Rovzing's
E. Koer's
44. For the left-side appendicitis is typical:

A. * The painfulness of the left iliac region
B. Expressed pain in a right lumbar area
C. Flank tenderness in right lower quadrant
D. Clinic of irritation of pelvic organs
E. Painfulness of anterior rectal wall and posterior vaginal vault
45. For the pelvic appendicitis is typical:

A. * Clinic of irritation of pelvic organs
B. The painfulness of the left iliac region
C. Expressed pain in a right lumbar area
D. Flank tenderness in right lower quadrant
E. Peritoneal signs

A. * Painfulness of anterior rectal wall
E. Peritoneal signs

A. * Painfulness of posterior vaginal vault
E. Peritoneal signs
48. For the perforation of appendix is not characteristic:

A. * Decrease of body temperature
B. Acute pain in a right iliac area, especially expressed after false improvement
C. Tension of the abdominal wall at first in a right iliac area, and then spreading on other
departments
D. Increasing swelling of abdomen
E. Leucocytosis
49. For the retrocaecal appendicitis is not typical:

A. * Volkovcha-Kocher's sign
B. delayed diagnostics
C. late entrance of patients in the hospital
D. frequent development of destructive forms
E. weak expressed signs of peritoneal irritation
50. For the retrocecal appendicitis is typical:

B. Rovsing's sign
C. Blumberg's sign

A. * Gabay’s sign
B. Rovsing's sign
C. Blumberg's sign

A. * Pasternatsky’s sign
B. Rovsing's sign
C. Blumberg's sign

A. * Psoas sign
B. Rovsing's sign
C. Blumberg's sign

A. * Expressed pain in a right lumbar area
B. Flank tenderness in right lower quadrant
C. The painfulness of the left iliac region
55. For the retroperitoneal appendicitis is typical:

A. * Flank tenderness in right lower quadrant
B. Peritoneal signs
C. The painfulness of the left iliac region
56. For the simple appendicitis is typical:

A. * Rovsing's sign
B. Blumberg's sign
C. Yaure-Rozanov sign

A. * Sitkovsky’s sign
B. Blumberg's sign

A. * Bartomier’s sign
B. Blumberg's sign

A. * Dunphy's sign
B. Blumberg's sign
60. Gabay’s sign is typical for:

C. pneumothorax
D. food poisoning
E. bleeding ulcer
61. Hyperaemia, thickening, oedema of appendix are the signs of:

A. * catarrhal appendicitis
D. gangreno-perforating appendicitis
62. Hyperemia, fibrino-purulent fur, pus the lumen are the signs of:
A. * phlegmonous appendicitis
B. catarrhal appendicitis
D. gangreno-perforative appendicitis
63. In what location of appendix the rectal examination is the most informing?
A. * Pelvic
B. Retrocaecal
C. Madian
D. Subhepatic
E. Retroperitoneal
64. Increased pain with coughing is:

A. * Dunphy's sign
B. Rovsing's sign
C. Sitkovsky's sign
D. Obrastsow's sign
65. Inexpressive abdominal pain in acute appendicitis is characteristic for:

A. * elderly patients
B. children
C. females
D. males
E. pregnant
66. Inexpressive abdominal pain in acute appendicitis is characteristic for:

B. children
C. females
D. males
E. pregnant
67. Inexpressive leucocytosis in acute appendicitis is characteristic for:

B. females
C. children
D. pregnant
E. males
68. Inexpressive leucocytosis in acute appendicitis is characteristic for:

B. females
C. children
D. pregnant
E. males
69. Inexpressive muscular tension of anterior abdominal wall in acute appendicitis is characteristic
for:
B. females
C. children
D. pregnant
E. males
70. Inexpressive muscular tension of anterior abdominal wall in acute appendicitis is characteristic
for:
B. females
C. children
D. pregnant
E. males
71. Initially-gangrenous appendicitis differs from inflammatory-gangrenous form mostly

developing in persons:
A. * of elderly age
B. children of early age
C. pregnant in the first half of pregnancy
D. pregnant in the second half of pregnancy
E. with concomitant diseases
72. Kocher-Volkovitch's sign is typical for:

D. food poisoning
73. Lymphoid hypoplasia determines the peculiarities of the clinical course of appendicitis in:
A. * children
B. elderly patients
C. pregnant
D. males
E. females
74. Lymphoid hypoplasia determines the peculiarities of the clinical course of appendicitis in:
A. * children
B. elderly patients
C. pregnant
D. males
E. females
75. Microhematuria is typical for such kind of appendicitis:

A. * retroperitoneal
B. retrocecal
C. pelvic
D. subhepatic
E. left-side
76. Migration of pain to the right iliac area from epigastric is:
A. * Kocher-Volkovitch's sign
B. Rovsing's sign
C. Sitkovsky's sign
D. Obrastsow's sign
77. Modern method of appendectomy is:
A. * laparoscopic
B. microlaparotomy
C. laparocentesis
D. laparotomy
E. ligation
78. Obrastsow's sign is typical for:

C. pneumothorax
D. food poisoning
E. bleeding ulcer
79. On the line between the anterior-superior process of the iliac bone and umbilicus located the
point:
A. * McBurney's
B. Kalk's
C. Kehr's
D. Lenander's
E. Volkovich-Dyakonov
80. Only during the operation is possible the differential diagnostics of acute appendicitis with:
A. * terminal ileitis
B. renal colic
C. acute pyelonephritis
D. acute paraproctitis
81. Pain during digital examination of rectum - is:

A. * Kulenkampf's sign
B. Obrastsow's sign
C. Voskresensky's sign
D. Kocher-Volkovitch's sign
E. Sitkovsky's sign
82. Pain during palpation in a lumbar region - is the sign:

B. Sitkovsky's sign
C. Obrastsow's sign
83. Pain during palpation in a lumbar region after taking away of the hand is the sign:
A. * Gabay's sign
B. Sitkovsky's sign
C. Obrastsow's sign
84. Pain during palpation in the Petit triangle - is the sign:

B. Sitkovsky's sign
C. Obrastsow's sign
85. Pain during percussion by fingers of anterior abdominal wall - is:

A. * Rozdolsky's sign
B. Obrastsow's sign
C. Sitkovsky's sign
86. Pain during removing of the hand from abdominal wall after its pressing - is:
A. * Shchotkin-Blumberg's sign
B. Rovsing's sign
C. Sitkovsky's sign
D. Obrastsow's sign
87. Pain during sliding of hand on abdominal wall - is:

A. * Voskresensky's sign
B. Sitkovsky's sign
C. Obrastsow's sign
E. Bartomier-Mikhelson's sign
88. Pain in the iliac region during elevation of the leg - is:
A. * Obrastsow's sign
B. Sitkovsky's sign
C. Kocher-Volkovitch's sign
D. Bartomier-Mikhelson's sign
E. Voskresensky's sign
89. Pain in the right iliac region by pushing of the left - is:
A. * Rovsing's sign
B. Sitkovsky's sign
C. Obrastsow's sign
90. Pain in the right iliac region during palpation of the iliac region on the left side - is:
A. * Bartomier-Mikhelson's sign
B. Sitkovsky's sign
C. Obrastsow's sign
E. Kocher-Volkovitch's sign
91. Pain on extension of right thigh is:

A. * Psoas sign
B. Rovsing's sign
C. Sitkovsky's sign
D. Obrastsow's sign
92. Painfulness during palpation of Petit triangle is:

A. * Yaure-Rozanov's sign
B. Rovsing's sign
C. Sitkovsky's sign
D. Obrastsow's sign
93. Painfulness of posterior vaginal vault is typical for:

A. * Pelvic appendicitis
B. Retrocecal appendicitis
C. Phlegmonous appendicitis
D. Simple appendicitis
E. Left-side appendicitis appendicitis
94. Psoas sign is typical for:

C. pneumothorax
D. food poisoning
E. bleeding ulcer
95. Rapid destruction of the appendix in the course of acute appendicitis is characteristic for:
B. children
C. pregnant
D. males
E. females
96. Rapid destruction of the appendix in the course of acute appendicitis is characteristic for:
B. children
C. pregnant
D. males
E. females
97. Reduced reactivity of the organism influences on the peculiarities of the course of acute
appendicitis in:
B. females
C. males
D. pregnant
E. children
98. Reduced reactivity of the organism influences on the peculiarities of the course of acute
appendicitis in:
B. females
C. males
D. pregnant
E. children
99. Rovsing's sign is typical for:

D. food poisoning
100. Rozdolsky’s sign is typical for:

C. pneumothorax
D. food poisoning
E. bleeding ulcer
101. Sitkovsky’s sign is typical for:

D. food poisoning
102. Strengthening of pain in right iliac region on the left side - is:
A. * Sitkovsky's sign
B. Obrastsow's sign
C. Voskresensky's sign
103. The absence of muscular tenderness is typical for:

104. The appendix ends its formation at the age of:

A. * 7 years
B. 6 months
C. 1 year
D. 3 years
E. 3 months
105. The bailer form of appendix is characteristic for:

A. * new-born
B. males
C. females
D. pregnant
E. elderly patients
106. The Bartomier’s sign is typical for:

A. * Simple appendicitis
C. Retroperitoneal appendicitis
D. Pelvic appendicitis
E. Left-side appendicitis
107. The Blumberg’s sign is typical for:

A. * Phlegmonous appendicitis
B. Simple appendicitis
C. Retrocecal appendicitis
D. Retroperitoneal appendicitis
E. Pelvic appendicitis
108. The changes in clinical manifestation of acute appendicitis in pregnancy is characterized :

A. * by the absence of signs of peritoneal irritation
B. by the presence of signs of peritoneal irritation
C. by the presence of expressed signs of peritoneal irritation
D. by displacement of the signs of peritoneal irritation
E. by the change of the character of signs of peritoneal irritation
109. The changes of clinical manifestations of acute appendicitis in pregnancy are caused by the
displacement of appendix in relation to cecum:
A. * upword
B. lateral
C. downword
D. medial
E. retroperitoneal
110. The changes of clinical manifestations of acute appendicitis in pregnancy are caused by:
A. * distension of anterior abdominal wall by uterus
B. inflammation of uterus
C. irritation of anterior abdominal wall by uterus
D. compression of appendix by uterus
E. inflammation of the right ovarium
111. The changes of clinical manifestations of acute appendicitis in pregnancy are caused by:
A. * absence of muscular tension of anterior abdominal wall
B. absence of tension of the uterus
C. presence of tension of the uterus
D. expressed muscular tension of anterior abdominal wall
E. presence of tension of peritoneum of anterior abdominal wall
112. The clinical manifestation of acute appendicitis does not relate to destructive changes in the
appendix in:
B. children
C. females
D. males
E. pregnant
113. The clinical manifestation of acute appendicitis in pregnancy depends on:

A. * the term of pregnancy
B. degree of inflammatory changes
C. the relation of appendix to peritoneum
D. the duration of appendicitis
E. the form of appendicitis
114. The clinical manifestation of appendicular infiltrate is:

A. * swelling
B. the signs of peritoneal irritation
C. muscular tension
D. high temperature
E. leucocytosis
115. The clinical manifestations of acute appendicitis in pregnancy are characterised by the
changes of:
A. * localization of pain
B. severity of pain
C. irradiation of pain
D. duration of pain
E. character of pain
116. The clinical manifestations of acute appendicitis in the first trimester of the pregnancy are:
A. * typical
B. atypical
C. expressed
D. unexpressed
E. absent
117. The clinical manifestations of acute appendicitis in the second trimester of the pregnancy
are:
A. * typical
B. atypical
C. expressed
D. unexpressed
E. absent
118. The clinical manifestations of acute appendicitis in the third trimester of the pregnancy are:
A. * atypical
B. typical
C. expressed
D. unexpressed
E. absent
119. The conditions, which contribute to the formation of appendicular infiltrate include:
A. * Phlegmonous changes of appendix
B. Chronic appendicitis
C. Meckel's diverticulum
D. Pylephlebitis
E. Perforation of appendix
120. The destructive changes in the appendix don't relate to the clinical manifestation of acute
appendicitis in:
B. children
C. females
D. males
E. pregnant
121. The distinctive peculiarities of acute appendicitis in the second half of pregnancy are:
A. * Weak express of pain syndrome, similar to the ligamentary tension of uterus
B. Absence of Volkovcha-Kocher's sign
C. Expressed signs of peritoneal irritation
D. The express local muscular tension in a right iliac area
E. Expressed of Obraztsov's sign
122. The Dunphy's sign is typical for:

123. The dysuria is typical for:

124. The expressed deviation of the differential leukocyte count to the left in acute appendicitis is
characteristic for persons :
B. females
C. males
D. pregnant
E. children
125. The expressed pain in a right lumbar area is typical for:

A. * Retrocecal appendicitis
B. Phlegmonous appendicitis
C. Simple appendicitis
D. Left-side appendicitis appendicitis
126. The Gabay’s sign is typical for:

127. The most frequent complications of appendicitis are:

A. * infiltrate, abscess, pilephlebitis, peritonitis
B. infiltrate, abscess, thrombophlebitis, hepatitis
C. conglomerate, adhesions, cystitis, peritonitis
D. infiltrate, conglomerate, hepatitis
E. abscess, peritonitis, adhesions, phlebitis
128. The most informative for differentiation of appendicitis with a basal pleurisy is:
A. * X-ray film
B. percussion
C. tomography
D. auscultation
E. bronchoscopy
129. The most informative for differentiation of appendicitis with an epigastric form of
myocardial infarction are the changes in:
A. * ECG
B. hemodynamic disturbances
C. expressed shortness of breath
D. auscultation
E. tachycardia
130. The most informative for differentiation of appendicitis with food poisoning is:
A. * frequent vomit
B. single vomit
C. nausea
D. increased peristalsis
E. slow peristalsis
131. The most informative for differentiation of appendicitis with gastric phlegmon is:
A. * esophagogastroscopy
B. roentgenoscopy
C. palpation
D. laparocentesis
E. ultrasound examination
132. The most informative for differentiation of appendicitis with intercostal neuralgia is:
A. * paravertebral blockade
B. laparoscopy
C. microlaparotomy
D. laparocentesis
E. peridural blockades
133. The most informative for differentiation of appendicitis with perforative ulcer of duodenum
is:
A. * absence of hepatic dullness
B. presence of hepatic dullness by percussion
C. absence of the splenic dullness
D. presence of a high tympanic sound by percussion
E. absence of the gastric dullness
134. The most informative for the differentiation of appendicitis with cholecystitis is:
A. * ultrasound examination
B. X-ray film
C. anamnesis
D. laparocentesis
E. laparoscopy
135. The most informative for the differentiation of appendicitis with intestinal obstruction is:
A. * X-ray film
B. ultrasound examination
C. blockade
D. laparotomy
E. laparoscopy
136. The most informative for the differentiation of appendicitis with pancreatitis is:
B. blockades
C. laparostomy
D. laparoscopy
E. X-ray film
137. The most informing method of instrumental diagnostics of acute appendicitis is:
A. * tomography
B. esophagogastroscopy
C. colonoscopy
D. gastroscopy
E. contrasting roentgenoscopy
138. The most informing method of instrumental diagnostics of acute appendicitis is:
B. contrasting roentgenoscopy
C. gastroscopy
D. esophagogastroscopy
E. colonoscopy
139. The most prominent clinical sign of chronic appendicitis is:

A. * pain by deep palpation
B. pain by percussion
C. pain by superficial palpation
D. skin hyperesthesia
E. pain by bimanual palpation
140. The omental hypoplasia influences on the peculiarities of the course of acute appendicitis
in:
A. * children
B. females
C. males
D. pregnant
E. elderly patients
141. The omental hypoplasia influences on the peculiarities of the course of acute appendicitis
in:
A. * children
B. females
C. males
D. pregnant
E. elderly patients
142. The pain all over the whole abdomen in acute appendicitis is characteristic for:
A. * children
B. females
C. pregnant
D. males
E. elderly patients
143. The pain all over the whole abdomen in acute appendicitis is characteristic for:
A. * children
B. females
C. pregnant
D. males
E. elderly patients
144. The painfulness of anterior rectal wall is typical for:

145. The painfulness of the left iliac region is typical for:

A. * Left-side appendicitis appendicitis
B. Pelvic appendicitis
D. Phlegmonous appendicitis
E. Simple appendicitis
146. The Pasternatsky’s sign is typical for:

147. The peculiarities of the clinical course of appendicitis in children are caused:
A. * by the bailer form of appendix
B. by the tubular form of appendix
C. by hypertrophy of appendix
D. by atrophy of appendix
E. by the spherical form of appendix
148. The peculiarities of the clinical course of appendicitis in children are caused:
A. * by the bailer form of appendix
B. by the tubular form of appendix
C. by hypertrophy of appendix
D. by atrophy of appendix
E. by the spherical form of appendix
149. The pelvic appendicitis manifests by:

A. * F. tenesmi
B. G. spasms
C. H. myalgia
150. paresis
A. J. enuresis

A. * diarrhea
B. vomiting
C. constipation
D. nausea
E. colicks

A. * dysurination
B. dyspepsia
C. hyperthermia
D. hematuria
E. dystrophy
153. The psoas sign is typical for:

154. The pulling rectal pain is typical for:

155. 154. The purulent inflammation of portal vein as the complication of acute appendicitis -
is:
A. * pilephlebitis
B. mesadenitis
C. tiphlitis
D. thrombophlebitis
E. adnexitis
156. The rapid spread of inflammatory process in acute appendicitis is characteristic for:
A. * children
B. females
C. males
D. pregnant
E. elderly patients
157. The rapid spread of inflammatory process in acute appendicitis is characteristic for:
A. * children
B. females
C. males
D. pregnant
E. elderly patients
158. The removal of appendix from apex - is :

A. * antegrade appendectomy
B. retrograde appendectomy
C. retrocecal appendectomy
D. antececal appendectomy
E. laparoscopic appendectomy
159. The removal of appendix from the base is:

A. * Retrograde appendectomy
B. antegrade appendectomy
C. retrocecal appendectomy
D. antececal appendectomy
E. laparoscopic appendectomy
160. The Rovsing's sign is typical for:

161. The Rozdolsky’s sign is typical for:
162. The sign of gas migration is called:

A. * Rovsing's sign
B. Kocher’s sign
C. Sitkovsky’s sign
D. Bartomier’s sign
E. Dunphy's sign
163. The Sitkovsky’s sign is typical for:

164. The tenesmi are typical for:

165. The undiagnosed destructive appendicitis complicated by:

A. * infiltrate
B. fistula
C. adhesions
D. bleeding
E. colic
166. The Voskresenky’s sign is typical for:

167. The Yaure-Rozanov sign is typical for:

168. To the chronic secondary appendicitis belongs:

A. * residual
B. catarrhal
C. empyema
D. phlegmonous
E. gangrenous
169. Tumour with fluctuation are the main clinical manifestation of:
A. * appendicular abscess
B. appendicular peritonitis
C. appendicular infiltrate
D. appendicular mesadenitis
E. appendicular typhlitis
170. Typical complications of the appendicitis are:

A. * infiltrate, abscess, peritonitis, pilephlebitis
B. abscess, phlegmon, paraproctitis, pilephlebitis
C. infiltrate, gangrene, paraproctitis, pilephlebitis
D. abscess, phlegmon, peritonitis, pilephlebitis
E. infiltrate, abscess, osteomyelitis, pilephlebitis
171. Voskresenky’s sign is typical for:

C. pneumothorax
D. food poisoning
E. bleeding ulcer
172. What clinical picture is typical for appendicitis in children?

A. * Clinic of destructive forms of appendicitis and intoxication
B. Abdominal distension
C. Absence of dyspeptic manifestation
D. Absence of muscular tenderness
E. Clinic of acute intestinal obstruction
173. What complication is typical for acute appendicitis?

A. * Appendicular infiltrate
B. Appendicular bleeding
C. Acute intestinal obstruction
D. Appendicular-intestinal fistula
E. Malignization
174. What complication is typical for acute appendicitis?

A. * Appendicular abscess
B. Appendicular bleeding
C. Acute intestinal obstruction
D. Appendicular-intestinal fistula
E. Malignization
175. What does the Bartomier-Mikhelson's sign mean?

A. * The increase of pain intensity during the palpation of right iliac area when the
patient lies on the left side.
B. Increased pain with coughing
C. Pain in right lower quadrant during palpation of left lower quadrant
D. Increase of pain in a right iliac area when the patient lies on the left side
E. Migration of pain to the right iliac area from epigastric
176. What does the Blumberg's sign mean?

A. * The sharp increase of pain quick taking off the hand during palpation of anterior
abdominal wall.
177. What does the Dunphy's sign mean?

A. * Increased pain with coughing
B. Pain in right lower quadrant during palpation of left lower quadrant
C. Increase of pain in a right iliac area when the patient lies on the left side
D. The increase of pain intensity during the palpation of right iliac area when the patient
lies on the left side.
178. What does the examination of infant children in acute appendicitis require to use?
A. * Chloralhydrate enema
B. Contrast enema
C. Siphon enema
D. Cleaning enema
E. X-ray with barium swallow
179. What does the Gabay’s sign mean?

A. * Blumberg’s sign in Petit triangle
C. Migration of pain to the right iliac area from epigastric
D. Tapping of lumbar region cause the pain
E. Increase of pain in a right iliac area when the patient lies on the left side
180. What does the Gabay’s sign mean?

A. * Blumberg’s sign in Petit triangle
181. What does the Kocher’s sign mean?

A. * Migration of pain to the right iliac area from epigastric
D. The increase of pain intensity during the palpation of right iliac area when the patient
E. Increased pain with coughing
182. What does the Pasternatsky’s sign mean?

A. * Tapping of lumbar region cause the pain
D. Increased pain with coughing
183. What does the psoas sign mean?

A. * Pain on extension of right thigh
184. What does the psoas-sign mean?

A. * Pain on extension of right thigh
B. Painfulness during palpation of Petit triangle
185. What does the Rovsing's sign mean?

A. * Pain in right lower quadrant during palpation of left lower quadrant
B. Increase of pain in a right iliac area when the patient lies on the left side
C. The increase of pain intensity during the palpation of right iliac area when the patient
186. What does the Rozdolsky’s sign mean?

A. * Painfulness in a right iliac area during percussion
187. What does the Rozdolsky’s sign mean?

A. * Painfulness in a right iliac area during percussion.
188. What does the Sitkovsky’s sign mean?

A. * Increase of pain in a right iliac area when the patient lies on the left side
C. The increase of pain intensity during the palpation of right iliac area when the patient
189. What does the Voskresenky's sign mean?

A. * Increase of pain during quick sliding movements by the tips of fingers from
epigastric to right iliac area
190. What does the Voskresenky’s sign mean?

A. * The increase of pain during quick sliding movements by the tips of fingers from
epigastric to right iliac area.
191. What does the Yaure-Rozanov sign mean?

A. * Painfulness during palpation of Petit triangle
192. What does the Yaure-Rozanov sign mean?

A. * Painfulness during palpation of Petit triangle
193. What dyspeptic manifestations are typical for acute appendicitis?

A. * Single nausea and vomiting
B. Constant vomiting and nausea without any relief
C. Vomiting by bile without any relief
D. Absence of peristalsis
E. Constant diarrhea
194. What form of appendicitis the signs of peritoneal irritation are absent in?
A. * chronic
B. calculous
C. perforative
D. appendicular infiltrate
E. appendicular abscess
195. What form of the appendicitis results in the developing of fibrosis of the appendix?
A. * chronic
B. phlegmonous
C. catarrhal
D. gangrenous
E. perforative
196. What form of the appendicitis results in the obliteration of the appendix??
A. * chronic
B. phlegmonous
C. catarrhal
D. gangrenous
E. perforative
197. What is the lethality in acute appendicitis caused by?

A. * late hospitalization
B. tactical errors
C. concomitant diseases
D. technical errors during an operation
E. severity of disease
198. What is the medical tactic of the acute appendicitis in pregnant:

A. * to operate
B. to prescribe antibiotics
C. to prescribe conservative therapy
D. to observe
E. to interrupt pregnancy
199. What is the treatment of appendicular infiltrate?

A. * Conservative treatment
B. Draining operation
C. Appendectomy
D. Hemicolectomy
E. Caecostomy
200. What manifestation is predominant for pelvic appendicitis?

A. * Clinic of irritation of pelvic organs (dysuria, pulling rectal pain, tenesmi)
B. Clinic of acute abdomen
C. Clinic of retroperitoneal phlegmon
D. Clinic of acute intestinal obstruction
E. Clinic of acute pancreatitis
201. What manifestation is predominant for retroperitoneal appendicitis?

A. * Clinic of retroperitoneal phlegmon
B. Clinic of acute abdomen
C. Dyspeptic syndrome
D. Clinic of acute intestinal obstruction
202. What manifestation is typical for pelvic appendicitis?

A. * Absence of muscular tenderness
B. Clinic of retroperitoneal phlegmon
C. Clinic of acute intestinal obstruction
D. Clinic of acute abdomen
203. What objective manifestations are typical for acute appendicitis?

A. * Muscular tension in a right iliac area
C. Absence of hepatic dullness
D. Absence of peristalsis
E. Rigidity of anterior abdominal wall
204. What objective manifestations are typical for retrocaecal appendicitis?

A. * Pain and muscular rigidity in a right iliac area during palpation
D. Clinic of retroperitoneal phlegmon
205. What objective manifestations are typical for retrocaecal appendicitis?

A. * Painfulness of anterior rectal wall and posterior vaginal vault
D. Clinic of retroperitoneal phlegmon
206. What sign is typical for phlegmonous appendicitis in contrast to simple appendicitis?
A. * Blumberg's sign
B. Kocher’s sign
C. Bartomier’s sign
D. Sitkovsky’s sign
E. Dunphy's sign
207. What sign is typical for phlegmonous appendicitis in contrast to simple appendicitis?
A. * Voskresenky's sign
B. Sitkovsky’s sign
D. Kocher’s sign
E. Dunphy's sign
208. What sign is typical for retrocaecal appendicitis in contrast to simple appendicitis?
A. * Pasternatsky’s sign
B. Kocher’s sign
D. Sitkovsky’s sign
E. Dunphy's sign
209. What sign is typical for retrocaecal appendicitis in contrast to simple appendicitis?
A. * Psoas sign
B. Sitkovsky’s sign
D. Kocher’s sign
E. Dunphy's sign
210. What signs are typical for gangrenous appendicitis in contrast to simple appendicitis?
A. * Signs of intoxication
B. Signs of gas migration
C. Retention of stool or single diarrhea
D. Muscular tension in a right iliac area
E. Single nausea and vomiting
211. What signs are typical for phlegmonous appendicitis in contrast to simple appendicitis?
A. * Peritoneal signs
B. Signs of gas migration
C. Signs of pain migration
D. Muscular tension in a right iliac area
E. Nausea and vomiting
212. Where does the pain arise in the onset of acute appendicitis?
A. * Epigastric region
B. Left iliac region
C. Right iliac region
D. Left subcostal region
E. Right lumbar region
213. Where does the pain irradiate in acute appendicitis?

A. * Not irradiate
B. Lumbar region
C. Left iliac region
D. Right scapular
E. Perineum
214. Where is the pain localized in acute appendicitis?

A. * Right iliac region
B. Epigastric region
C. Left iliac region
215. Where is the pain localized in left-side appendicitis?

A. * Left iliac region
B. Epigastric region
C. Right iliac region
216. Where is the pain localized in retrocaecal appendicitis?

A. * Right lumbar region
B. Right iliac region
C. Epigastric region
D. Left iliac region
E. Left subcostal region
217. Which method of appendectomy is used in children before age 3?

A. * ligation
B. amputation
C. retrograde
D. antegrade
E. laparoscopic
218. Who usually suffer from gangrenous appendicitis?

A. * People of old age
B. Newborns
C. Children
D. Pregnant women
E. Young men
219. Yaure-Rozanov's sign is typical for:

C. pneumothorax
D. food poisoning
E. bleeding ulcer
220. A patient 40 years old, suffered ulcerous diseases of stomach. Last 2 days the pain became
less intansive, but weakness and dizziness were appeare. Rose from a bed and lost
consciousness. Pale. There are insignificant pains in epigastrium. It is
A. Combination perforation with bleeding
B. Perforation
C. Malignization of ulcer
D. Stenosis of ulcer
E. * Gastroenteric bleeding
221. A sick on a background the stones in the common bile duct needs icterus:
A. To the urgent operation
B. Conservative treatment
C. * To the urgent operation after preoperative preparation
D. Cannulations of the abdominal artery
E. Plasmapheresis
222. A veritable postchlecystectomy syndrome can be conditioned only

A. Cicatrical stenosis of the common bile duct
B. The stone of the common bile duct not found during an operation
C. Stenosis of the large duodenal nipple
D. Duodenostasis
E. * Decline of tone of sphincter Oddi and expansion of the common bile duct after
cholecystrctomy
223. A veritable postcholecystectomy syndrome can be conditioned only:

A. By cicatrical stenosis of the common bile duct
B. By the stone of the common bile duct not found during an operation
C. By stenosis of large duodenal nipple
D. Duodenostasis
E. * By the decline of tone the sphincter Oddie and expansion of the common bile duct
after cholecystectomy
224. Absolute indication to operative treatment the ulcerous illness is

A. heavy pain syndrome
B. * perforation of ulcer
C. relapses more than 2 one time per a year
D. ulcerous anamnesis more than 10 years
E. giant ulcers

A. * voluminous bleeding
B. callous ulcers
E. heavy pain syndrome

A. ulcerous anamnesis more than 10 years
B. * bleeding what do not stopped with conservative
C. perforation ulcer in anamnesis
D. heavy pain syndrome
E. relapses more than 3 times per a year

A. relapses more than 2 one time per a year
B. ulcerous anamnesis more than 10 years
C. relapse ulcer after the resection of stomach
D. relapses more than 3 times per a year
E. * cicatrical-ulcerous stenosis of pylorus

B. * malignization ulcers
C. ulcerous anamnesis more than 10 years
D. heavy pain syndrome, proof heartburn
E. relapse ulcer after vagotomy
229. Absolute sign of unstable hemostasis

A. * profluvium blood from a vessel;
B. absence blood in a stomach and bulb of duodenum;
C. presence light blood and faltungs of blood in a stomach;
D. all answers are correct;
E. all answers are not correct
230. Acute cholecystitis usually begins with

A. Increases the temperature
B. Appearances the vomiting
C. * Pains under a rib on the right
D. Disorders of chair
E. Weights are in a epigastria area
231. Acute cholecystitis usually begins with:

A. Increases of temperatures
B. Appearances of vomiting
C. * Pains in right under rib space
D. Disorders of defecation
E. Weights in the epigastric area
232. Acute pancreatitis with a heavy flow treat in terms:

A. Ambulatory
B. Permanent establishment
C. * Department of intensive therapy
D. All answers are faithful
E. A faithful answer is not present
233. After cholecystectomy drainage is more frequent than all used

A. By Robson - Vishnevskiy
B. By Holsted - Pikovskiy
C. * To the couch of the gall-bladder and Vinslov foramen
D. By Ker
E. Combination draining by Pikovskiy and Spasokukotskiy
234. After cholecystostomy drainage more frequent than all used:

A. By Robson-Vishnevskiy
B. By Holsted-Pikovskiy
C. * By Spasokukotskiy
D. By Ker
E. Combination draining by Pikovskiy and Spasokukotskiy
235. After time of origin complications acute pancreatitis select:

A. Premature and remote
B. Urgent and deferred
C. Primary and second
D. * Early and late
E. Any of variants faithful
236. After what operation at ulcerous illness the natural arcade of meal is saved on a digestive
tract
A. Valter-Braun’s gastroenterostomy
B. not saved after any operation
C. resection by Bilrot II
D. * resection by Bil'rot I
E. saved after all transferred operations
237. After what operation innervation of pyloric department of stomach is saved

A. * selective vagotomy
B. barrel vagotomy
C. selective proximal vagotomy
D. at all transferred
E. not saved after all operations
238. All surgical interferences at the destructive forms of acute pancreatitis divide on:
A. * Early, late, deferred operations
B. Primary, second, repeated operations
C. Invasion, not invasion operations
D. Complicated, operations are not complicated
E. Not divided
239. Among acute surgical diseases acute pancreatitis occupies:

A. First place
B. * Third place
C. Fifth place
D. Second - third place
E. Most widespread
240. An intravenous cholecystography are indicated and informing at

A. Gall-bladder is palpated
B. To the icterus
C. Peritonitis
D. * Calming down attack of the acute cholecystitis
E. Cholangitis
241. An intravenous cholecystography is indicated and informing:

A. At presence of palpation the gall-bladder
B. At an icterus
C. At peritonitis
D. * At the calming down attack of the acute cholecystitis
E. At a cholangitis
242. As the first period flowing of acute pancreatitis is named:

A. * Haemodynamic violations and pancretic shock
B. To functional insufficiency of parenchymatous organs
C. Degenerative and festerings complications
E. A right answer is not present
243. As the second period flowing of acute pancreatitis is named:

244. As the third period flowing of acute pancreatitis is named:
A. Haemodynamic violations and pancretic shock
B. * To functional insufficiency of parenchymatous organs
245. At a acute calculary cholecystitis can be used

A. Extra operation
B. Urgent operation
C. Medicinal therapy is the planned operation in future
D. Only medicinal therapy
E. * All are right
246. At a acute calculary cholecystitis can be used:

A. Extraordinaly operation
B. Urgent operation
C. Conservative therapy is the planned operation in future
D. Only conservative therapy
E. * All transferred
247. At a frequent „fat” chair with disseminations of undigested meat and permanent thirst, it is
foremost necessary to think about:
A. * Chronic pancreatitis
B. Chronic duodenitis
C. Chronic hepatocholecystitis
D. Ulcerous diseases of duodenum
E. Hepatocirrhosis
248. At an acute and chronic cholecystitis application is contra-indicated

A. Omnoponum
B. * Morphine hydrochloride
C. No-spa
D. Atropine sulfate
E. Spazmalgon
249. At beginning bleeding from an ulcer

A. * pain diminishes
B. pain increases
C. there is knife-like pain
D. character of pain does not change
E. girdle pain
250. At bile-stones diseases cholecystectomy is indication

A. * In all cases
B. At the latent form of disease
C. At the clinical signs of disease
D. Decline of ability to work
E. For patients more senior 55 years
251. At bleeding emergency operative interferences are executed

A. * to 3 hours
B. to 1,5 hour
C. to 6 hours
D. to 8 hours
E. 6 – 12 hours
252. At gangrenous cholecystitis is indication

A. Deferred operation
B. Operation in default of effect from the conservative therapy
C. Conservative treatment
D. * Urgent operation
E. A decision-making depends on age of patient
253. At III stage blood loss at the bleeding ulcer the patient loses
A. over 1000 ml blood
B. * over 2000 ml blood
C. over 500 ml blood
D. over 2500 ml blood
E. over 1500 ml blood
A. more than 25 % blood volume
B. * more than 30 % blood volume
C. more than 20 % blood volume
D. more than 15 % blood volume
E. more than 35 % blood volume
255. At localization the stone in a cystic channel and absence infection the phenomenon is
carried by the name
A. Courvoisier’s symptom
B. Acute cholecystitis
C. Hydrocholecystis
D. * Cyst of gall-bladder
E. All answers are not right
256. At pancreatitis abscesses and infected necrosises execute such operations, except for:
A. Opening of abscess with draining
B. Pancreaticnecrsekvestrektomy
C. Pancreaticsekvestrektomy
D. Pancreaticsekvestrektomy with laparostomy
E. * Total pancreatotomy
257. At the duodenum ulceroperation of choice is

A. * resection by Bilrot I
B. resection by Bilrot II
C. resection of duodenum
D. selective proximal vagotomy
E. sewing up of ulcer
258. At the gastroenteric bleeding the middle degree of blood loss is diagnosed at next indexes
A. Hb below 80 g/l
B. * Hb 80-100 g/l
C. red corpuscles below 2,5 · 1012/l
D. red corpuscles of 3,5-4,0 · 1012/l
E. Ht below 25%
259. At the III item of activity hemostasis and III sage blood loss from the I – III sage blood loss
indicated
A. * urgent operations (6 – 12 hours);
B. emergency operations (to 3 hours);
C. exigent operations (12 – 24 hours);
D. early deferred (24 – 72 hours);
E. planned operations (4 – 10 days)
260. At the V item activity of hemostasis and at the recurrent bleeding of the I – III item of blood
loss indicated
A. * emergency operations (to 3 hours);
B. urgent operations (6 – 12 hours);
C. exigent (12 – 24 hours);
261. At transferring the stone from a gall-bladder in the common bile duct develops
A. * Hepatic colic
B. Icterus
C. Festering cholangitis
D. Stenosis papillitis
E. Syndrome of Badd – Kiyary
262. At ulcerous illness can a bleeding source be

A. artery;
B. veins;
C. shallow vessels and ulcers;
D. all answers are not correct.
E. * all answers are correct
263. At what disease pain of girdle character is characteristic:

A. Gastric ulcers
C. Intestinal impassability
D. * Acute pancreatitis
E. Acute cystitis
264. At what pathology is absence pulsation of abdominal aorta

A. * Acute cholecystitis
B. Acute pancreatitis
C. Perforated ulcer
D. Intestinal obstruction
E. Acute appendicitis
265. At what pathology is appearance cyanosys the sides of stomach:

A. * Acute pancreatitis
B. Perforated ulcer
C. Acute cholecystitis
266. At what pathology is appearance of sickliness in left costal-vertebral coal:

C. Perforated ulcer
267. Basic method examination the patients with the uncomplicated cholecystitis
A. Infusion cholegraphy
B. ERCP
C. * Sonography
D. Laparoskopy
E. Gastroduodenoscopy
268. Bergman’s sing is characteristic for

A. * bleeding ulcer
B. for cicatrical-ulcerous pylorostenosis
C. perforeted ulcers
D. penetratration ulcers
E. malignization ulcers
269. Berhtein’s sing characteristic for

A. * perforeted ulcers
B. bleeding ulcer
C. penetratrated ulcers
D. malignizated ulcers
E. for cicatrical-ulcerous pylorostenosis
270. Bile-stones diseases can cause everything, except for

A. Cystic-duodenal fistula
B. Mechanical icterus
D. * Intra-abdominal bleeding
E. Cholangitis
271. Bile-stones diseases is dangerous all transferred, except for

A. * Development the postnecrotic hepatocirrhosis
B. Cancer transformation of gall-bladder
C. Second pancreatitis
D. Development of destructive cholecystitis
E. Mechanical icterus
272. Bleeding ulcer, complicated blood loss III stage degrees, requires
A. * blood and its components transfusions
B. transfusion of salt solutions
C. transfusion of colloid solutions
D. transfusion of salt and colloid solutions
E. infusion therapy does not need
273. Blood loos I stage characterized such indexes

A. Ht 48-44, Hb 120
B. Ht 23 and below, Hb 50 and below
C. Ht 31-23, Hb 80
D. * Ht 38-32, Hb 100
E. Ht 44-40, Hb 110 /?
274. Blood loos II stage characterized

A. * Ht 23 and below, Hb 50 and below
B. Ht 31-23, Hb 80
C. Ht 44-40, Hb 110
D. Ht 48-44, Hb 120
E. Ht 48-44, Hb 120
275. Blood loos III stage characterized a degree such indexes

A. * Ht 31-23, Hb 80
C. Ht 38-32, Hb 100
D. Ht 44-40, Hb 110
E. Ht 48-44, Hb 120
276. Blumberg’s sing is

A. Sickliness at palpation of blind gut in position the patient on the left side
B. * Sickliness at the acute tearing away the palpation hand
C. Appearance or strengthening the pains in position on the left side
D. Percussion sickliness in a right iliac area
E. At pressing on a left arm in the left iliac area shove there causes a sickliness in a right
iliac area
277. Bonde’s sing at acute pancreatitis:

A. * Swelling the stomach only in epigastrium
B. Cyanosis sides of stomach and trunk
C. Cyanosis skin of stomach
D. Icteritiousness round a belly-button
E. Cyanosys of hands
278. Can not stipulate a mechanical icterus

A. Cancer the head of pancreas
B. * Stone of cystic channel
C. Chronic pancreatitis
D. Stone the general bilious channel
E. Tumour large duodenal papilla
279. Caused a remittent icterus is

A. The wedged stone of terminal department of the common bile stone
B. The tumour of the common bile stone
C. The stone of cystic channel
D. * The valve stone of the common bile stone
E. Stricture of the common bile stone
280. Characteristic complication acute pancreatitis is:

A. * Pancreonecrosis
B. Pylephlebitis
C. Hepatocirrhosis
D. Veritable pancreas cyst
E. Hepatitis
281. Characteristic complication the acute pancreatitis is:

A. Paranephritis
B. Duglas’s abscess
C. Pylephlebitis
D. Cyst of pancreas
E. * Pancreonecrosis
282. Characteristic laboratory sign of the acute uncomplicated cholecystitis

A. Diastasuria
B. * Leykocytosis
C. Hypoglycemia
D. Glucosuria
E. Hyperbillirubinemia
283. Complication of choledocolitiasis

A. Hydrocholecystis
B. Empyema of gall-bladder
C. * Icterus, cholangitis
D. Chronic active hepatitis
E. Perforate cholecystitis, peritonitis
284. Complications of acute cholecystitis

A. Bleeding
B. * Empyema of gall-bladder
C. Syndrome of v. cava sup.
D. Artery-venous fistula
E. All answers are right

A. Bleeding
B. * Hepatic-renal insufficiency

A. Bleeding
B. * Mechanical icterus

A. Bleeding
B. * Hydrocholecystis

A. Bleeding
B. * Perforation of gall-bladder

A. Bleeding
B. * Peritonitis

A. Bleeding
B. * Approximately cystic infiltration

A. Bleeding
B. * Approximately cystic abscess
292. Complications of the acute cholecystitis

A. Bleeding
B. * Cholangitis
C. Syndrome v. cava sup.
293. Conservative treatment the acute pancreatitis includes:

A. * Hunger
B. Povzner’s diet №5
C. Povzner’s diet №15
D. Moderation in a meal
E. Morning gymnastics
294. Courvoisier’s symptom is

A. Painless megascopic gall-bladder, patient is not yellow
B. Sickly megascopic gall-bladder, patient is not yellow
C. * Painless megascopic gall-bladder, patient is yellow
D. A gall-bladder don’t palpaton
295. De-Cerven’s sing is characteristic for

A. bleeding ulcer
B. * perforeted ulcers
C. penetrated ulcers
296. Diet at bleeding gastric and duodenum ulcers

A. * Meulengracht's
B. 1 by Pevznerom
C. 5 by Pevznerom
D. 15 by Pevznerom
E. 7 by Pevznerom
297. Disappearance or diminishing the pain with beginning of bleeding from an ulcer is
A. * Bergman’s sing
B. Spazarskiy’s sing
C. Mendel’s suing
D. De Keven’s sing
E. Eleker’s sing
298. Duration the period of primary shock at a perforeted ulcer

A. * 3-6 hours
B. 6-12 hours
C. 1-3 hours
D. 12-24 hours
E. 24-36 hours
299. Early complications the acute pancreatitis is not:

A. * Fistula of pancreas
B. Pancreatic shock
C. Collapse
D. Ferment peritonitis
E. Pancreatic delirious syndrome
300. Eleker’s sing is characteristic for

B. bleeding ulcer
301. ERCP apply at:

A. Postcholecystectomy syndrome
B. Stenosing papillitis
C. * Stenosis the supraduodenal department of choledoch
D. Stricture the terminal department of choledoch
302. Esophagogastroduodenoscopy can find out next changes in a stomach, except for
A. tumours
B. ulcers
C. bleeding polypuses
D. erosions
E. * changes of evacuation function
303. Etiology of the acute cholecystitis:

A. * Infection and stagnation of bile
B. Stagnation of bile
C. An infection in a gall-bladder
D. Duodenostasis
304. For a colic, caused a cholelithiasis, not characteristically

A. A megalgia in a right side
B. Nausea
C. * Blumberg’s sing in a right side
D. Ortner’s sing
E. Merfi sing
305. For a mechanical icterus, conditioned the stones of the common bile duct , not
characteristically
A. Symptom of Kurvuazie
B. Increase the direct bilirubine of blood
C. Increase of alkaline phosphathase
D. A considerable increase level the transaminasis in plasma
E. * Absence the stercobiline in an excrement
306. For a patient 48 years clinical picture the acute phlegmon cholecystitis and phenomenon
of the local peritonitis. Conservative treatment was conduct. Over 6 hours from a receipt great
pains appeared in a stomach, death-damp, pulse is 120 in min, a stomach is tense and acute
sickly in all departments, Blumberg’s sing is positive. It is decided to make an operation
A. * Cholecystectomy, revision the bilious channels, draining the abdominal region
B. Gastrotomy, sewing of acute ulcers
C. Cholecystectomy, draining and sanitization abdominal region
D. Sewing up of the perforated opening, sanitization and draining abdominal region
E. Cholecystectomy and gastrotomy
307. For an acute catarrhal cholecystitis not characteristic:

A. Nausea
B. * Ker’s sing
C. Merfi sing
D. Absence tension of muscles in right under rib space
E. Mussi sing
308. For an acute catarrhal cholecystitis not characteristically

A. Nausea
B. Ker’s sing
C. Merfi sing
D. * Tension the muscles in right underrib space
E. Symptom by Myussi
309. For an icterus on soil the stone ofcommon bile duct not characteristically:
A. * Urobilinuria
B. Increase of alkaline phospathase
C. A normal or lowered albumen in blood
D. Increase the bilirubine of blood
E. Normal or moderato enhanceable transaminase
310. For an icterus owing to stones of the common bile duct not characteristic
A. * Urobilinuria
B. Increase of alkaline phosphatase
C. A normal or lowered albumen in blood
D. Increase bilirubine of blood
E. Normal or moderato increase of transaminase
311. For bleeding ulcer characteristic sign is

A. * pain in an epigastrium;
B. knife-like pain;
C. signs irritation of peritoneum;
D. presence fresh blood in incandescence
E. melena;
312. For bleeding ulcer characteristically
A. * melena
B. tension the muscles of front abdominal wall
C. Spazarskiy’s sing
D. sickliness the back vault of vagina
E. irradiation pain in a shoulder or shoulder-blade
313. For clarification the character icterus and reason of its origin don’t used
A. Computer tomography
B. * Peroral cholecystocholangiography
C. Throughskin transhepatic cholangiography
D. ERCPG
E. Sonography
314. For clarification character of the icterus and reason of it development is necessary to make:
A. X-ray examination of the subhepatic space, infusion cholecystography, ERCP
B. Sonography, ERCP
C. Infusion cholecystography, ERCP
D. * Sonography, infusion cholecystography, ERCP
E. ERCP
315. For diagnostics of acute pancreatitis most informing is:

A. * Sonography
B. CT
C. Cholangiography
D. Esophagogastroduodenoscopy
E. Colonoscopy
316. For motion of disease ulcerous illness of middle weight characteristically

A. development of complications
B. * relapses 1-2 times per a year
C. 4 and anymore relapses on a year
D. 5 and more relapses are on a year
E. 3 and anymore relapses on a year
317. For pancreonecrosis characteristically is:

A. * Rapid progress, strengthening pain, proof enteroplegia, growth haemodynamic
violations
B. Rapid progress, diminishing pain, strengthening of моторики of intestine, growth
haemodynamic violations
C. Slow progress, strengthening pain, phase of imaginary prosperity.
D. Abortive flow, toxemia, development shock.
E. Appearance light interval
318. For perforeted ulcer characteristically

A. * tension the muscles of front abdominal wall
B. melena
C. vomiting by coffee-grounds
D. high intestinal impassability
E. vomiting stagnant gastric maintenance
319. For pneumoperitoneum is characteristic symptom

A. * Zhober’s;
B. Khelatid’s;
C. Podlag’s;
D. Vigats’s;
E. Udin’s.
320. For the abortive flowing characteristically:

A. * A process limited to the acute edema with convalescence in 7-8 days
B. A process limited to tearing away of the pathologically changed gland
C. A process limited to tearing away of the pathologically unchanged gland
D. A disease completed so not attaining clinical displays
E. Changes from the side of organ are not present
321. For the clinic of acute cholangitis not characteristically

A. High temperature
B. Pains in right under rib space
C. Icterus
D. Leucocytosis
E. * Unsteady liquid stool
322. For the clinic of acute obturation cholangitis not characteristically

A. Icterus
B. Increase of temperature
C. * Diminishing sizes the liver
D. Leucocytosis
E. Increase the liver
323. For the exposure the stone of common bile duct without an icterus used more frequent than
all
A. * Sonography
B. Intravenous cholecystocholangiography
C. ERCPG
D. Peroral cholecystography
E. Low blood pressure duodenography
324. For the exposure the stone of the common bile duct not used:
A. Sonography
B. Intravenous cholecystocholahgiography
C. ERPKHG
D. Transhepatic cholegraphy
E. * Low pressure duodenography
325. For the heavy flow of ulcerous illness characteristically

A. 2 and anymore relapses on a year
B. * 3 and anymore relapses on a year
E. 6 and more relapses are on a year

A. * development of complications
B. seasonal exacerbation more not frequent 1-2 times per a year
C. 1-2 relapse on a year
D. liquid, but protracted exacerbation
E. exacerbation duration more than 10 days
327. For what pathology appearance of violet spots on the skin of person and trunk is
characteristic:
A. Perforated ulcer
C. * Acute pancreatitis
328. From what department degestyive tract developmentp more frequent than all the bleeding at
the Mallory-Weiss syndrome
A. gastric fundus
B. * cardial pert;
C. pyloric department;
D. from duodenal;
E. from a thick intestine
329. Giant ulcer is an ulcer measuring

A. over 4,5 cm
B. * over 3 cm
C. over 4 cm
D. over 5 cm
E. over 3,5 cm
330. Hemobilia is
A. * all answers are correct;
B. bleeding the bilious ways and liver;
C. bleeding the general bilious channel;
D. bloody clot in the big duodenal papilla;
E. all answers are not correct.
331. Holsted’s sing at acute pancreatitis:

A. Violet spots on face and trunk
C. * Cyanosis skin of stomach
332. How many is the period of haemodynamic violations and pancreatic shock lasts:
A. * 1-3 days
B. 3-7 days
C. More 7 days
D. 2 weeks
E. 2 hour
333. How many is the period of degenerative and festerings complications lasts:
A. 1-3 days
B. 3-7 days
C. * More 7 days
D. 2 weeks
E. 2 hour
334. How many is the period of functional insufficiency of parenchymatous organs lasts:
A. 1-3 days
B. * 3-7 days
C. More 7 days
D. 2 weeks
E. 2 hour
335. How often does the pancreatitis department the general bilious channel pass through the
head of pancreas?:
A. * 80-90 %
B. 90-100 %
C. 75-85 %
D. 50-60 %
E. 40-50 %
336. In a gall-bladder stone formation don’t promote

A. Stagnation of bile in a bladder
B. Exchange violations
C. Inflammatory changes in a gall-bladder
D. Diskinetic of the bile excretive ways
E. * Violation secretion the pancreas
337. In obedience to classification complications of acute pancreatitis, after etiology and

pathogeny, distinguish such complications, except for:
A. Infectiously inflammatory
B. Enzymic
C. * Allergic
D. Mixed
E. Trombogemoragic
338. In the case of bile-stones diseases an urgent operation is indicated at

A. Occlusion of cystic channel
B. Cholecystopancreatitis
C. * Perforate cholecystitis
D. The mechanical icterus
E. The hepatic colic
339. In what area of stomach practically never is not origin of ulcers, or it is extraordinarily
rarely?
A. small curvature of stomach;
B. back wall of stomach, nearer to small curvature;
C. large curvature of stomach
D. * cardiac part of stomach;
E. pylorus.
340. In what vein is a venous outflow carried out in from a stomach?

A. * V. Portae;
B. V. odd;
C. V. pair;
D. V. overhead hollow;
E. V. lower hollow;
341. Indication to early operative interference at acute pancreatitis is:

A. Acute oedematous pancreatitis
B. Acute pancreatolysis
C. * Acute traumatic pancreatitis at the „fresh” break the gland
D. Acute fatty pancreatitis

A. Acute oedematous pancreatitis
B. Acute pancreatolysis
C. * Acute biliary pancreatitis
E. Forming of pseudocyst

A. Acute pancreatolysis
B. Acute oedematous pancreatitis
C. * Progressive multiple organ failure what not added conservative therapy during 48-
72 hours
344. Indications to special intraoperaive examination bilious ways

A. * A cholangitis, expansion of the common bile duct, plural shallow concrements in a
gall-bladder, mechanical icterus in anamnesis
B. Cholangitis, expansion of the common bile duct, plural shallow concrements in a
gall-bladder
C. Expansion of the common bile duct, icterus in the moment of operation, plural shallow
concrements in a gall-bladder
D. Expansion of the common bile duct, mechanical icterus in anamnesis
E. All right
345. Indications to the special intraoperative examination the bilious ways

A. Expansion the common bile duct, mechanical icterus in anamnesis
B. Expansion the common bile duct, icterus in the moment of operation, plural shallow
C. * All right
D. A cholangitis, expansion the common bile duct, plural shallow concrements in a gall-
bladder, mechanical icterus in anamnesis
E. Cholangitis, expansion the common bile duct, plural shallow concrements in a gall-
bladder
346. Intraoperative cholangiographic is not absolutely indicated at

A. Shallow stone in the common bile duct
B. Suspicion on the cancer the large duodenal nipple
C. Expansion of the common bile duct
D. To the mechanical icterus in anamnesis
E. * Switched-off gall-bladder
347. Intraoperative cholangiography at cholecystectomy used for

A. Exposures of cholangitis
B. Researches of peristalsis of the general bilious channel
C. Researches the tone of sphincter Oddi
D. * Retrograde filling of intrahepatic bilious channels
E. Exceptions the concrements in channels
348. Intraoperative cholangiography is absolutely indication at everything, except for:

A. Presences of shallow stone are in the common bile duct
B. Suspicion on the cancer of the large duodenal nipple
C. Expansions the common bile duct
D. Mechanical icterus in anamnesis
E. * Switched-off gall-bladder
349. Intraoperative cholangiograpy at cholecystectomy used for

A. Researches of peristalsis the general bilious channel
B. Retrograde filling of intrahepatic bilious channels
C. Researches tone the sphincter Oddi
D. * Exceptions concrements in channels
E. Exposures cholangitis
350. Intraoperatrive cholangiography is not indication at

A. * Finding concrements in the common bile duct at palpation
B. Cancer the head of pancreas
C. The icterus in anamnesis
D. Expansion of common bile duct
E. The icterus during an operation
351. Kerte’s sing at acute pancreatitis:

A. Absence pulsation the abdominal aorta
B. Sickliness in left costal-vertebral coal
C. * Sickliness and proof tension the muscles in an epigastrium with passing to left
subcostal area
E. Skin hyperesthesia in projection the gland
352. Kulen’s sing at acute pancreatitis:

D. * Icteritiousness round a belly-button
353. Kurvuazie symptoms is not characteristic for

A. * Acute calculary cholecystitis
B. Tumor the head of pancreas
C. The pancreatitis
D. Tumours large duodenal nipple
E. Tumours common bile duct
354. Large ulcer is an ulcer measuring

A. 1-4 cm
B. 1-3 cm
C. 3-5 cm
D. 2- 6 cm
E. * 2-3 cm
355. Little ulcer it is an ulcer measuring

A. * to 0,5 cm
B. 0,5-1 cm
C. to 1,0 cm
D. 3 to 1,5 cm
E. 0,5-1,5 cm
356. Meets the most frequent localization bleeding the digestive tract is
A. gullet;
B. stomach;
C. rectum;
D. * duodenum;
E. colon
357. Megascopic sickly gall-bladder, positive Ortner’s sing, Obraztsov’s sing, Merfi sing, Ker’s
sing more frequent meet at
B. The hydrocholecystis
C. Syndrom by Kurvuaz'e
D. Hepatitis
E. Panerkatitis
358. Melena is
A. black designed chair
B. * black liquid tarry chair
C. a discoloured liquid excrement
D. foamy stinking emptying of black
E. an excrement designed veined blood
359. Melena is a characteristic sign

A. * bleeding ulcer
B. for cicatrical-ulcerous pylorus stenosis
D. penetration ulcers
360. Method intraoperative diagnostics the pathology of bilious ways

A. Intravenous cholegraphy
B. * Choledochoscopy
C. Selective celiacography
D. Peroral cholecystography
361. Meyo-Robson’s sing at acute pancreatitis:

B. * Sickliness in left costal-vertebral coal
C. Sickliness and proof tension the muscles in an epigastrium with passing to left
subcostal area
362. Mondor’s sing at acute pancreatitis:

A. * Violet spots on face and trunk
363. Most informing method at a bleeding ulcer

A. survey sciagraphy the organs of abdominal region
B. * EFGDS
C. sciagraphy the stomach with contrasting
D. Sonography
E. Laparoskopy
364. 145. Most widespread laparoscopic operation at bile-stone illness:

A. Cholecystectomy with revision the bilious ways
B. Ideal cholecysectomy
C. * Choledoholitotomy
D. Cholecystectomy
365. Name classc complications of ulcerous illness

A. bleeding, pyloristenosis, second pancreatitis, malignization, perforation
B. * perforation, penetration, bleeding, pyloristenosis, malignization
C. malignization, pyloristenosis, penetration, anaemia, perforation
D. bleeding, perforation, second pancreatitis, anaemia, malignization
E. perforation, peritonitis, pancreatitis, bleeding, penetration
366. Name most frequent complication after ERDPH:

A. * Pancreatitis
B. Cholangitis
C. Pancreatic sepsis
D. Reactive cholecystitis
E. Obstructing papillitis
367. Name principal reason the acute pancreatitis:

A. Trauma the pancreas
B. * Bile-stone diseases
C. Alimentary factor
D. Chronic alcoholic pancreatitis
E. Cardiospasm
368. Name the optimum lines the operative interference concerning a acute pancreatitis after the
beginning of disease:
A. 7-8 days
B. 1-3 days
C. 1-5 days
D. 3-5 days
E. * Surgical treatment is not indicate
369. Name the optimum volume of operation at acute biliary pancreatitis:

A. Deleting exsudate from an abdominal region
B. Decapsulation pancreas
C. Pancreatectomy
D. * Sanitization and draining the bilious ways
E. Draining the chanel of pancreas
370. Normal indexes the billirubin of blood:

A. 0,10-0,68 mcmol/l
B. * 8,55-20,52 mcmol/l
C. 2,50-8,33 mcmol/l
D. 3,64-6,76 mcmol/l
E. 7,62-12,88 mcmol/l
371. Normal width of the common bile duct
A. To 0,4 cm
B. * 0,5-0,7 cm
C. 0,8-1,3 cm
D. 1,4-2,0 cm
E. Over 2,0 cm
372. On a background choledocholitiasis needs a sick icterus

A. To the urgent operation
B. Medicinal treatment
C. * To the urgent operation after preoperative preparation
D. Cannulations of the abdominal artery
E. Plazmopheresis
373. Operating access at operations on a stomach

A. * Upper-middle laparotomy
B. Lower-middle laparotomy
C. Pararectum access
D. Volokovich-Dyakonov’s access
E. Pfanenhtil’s access
374. pathognomonic symptom at acute pancreatitis is:

A. Pasternatskiy’s sing
B. * Kulen’s sing
C. Ker’s sing
D. Lenander’s sing
E. Rovsing’s sing
375. Patient which the gastroenteric bleeding in house is necessary

A. * To send a patient in surgical permanent establishment
B. To appoint rest, enter Cacl, vicasol
C. To wash a stomach, appoint a cold, rest of supervision
D. To send a patient in a therapeutic gastroenterology separation
E. A right answer absents
376. Patient with a gangrenous cholecystitis is indicating:

A. * Urgent operation
B. Operation at default of effect from conservative therapy
D. Deferred operation
377. Radical operation at a bleeding gastric ulcer and duodenum consists in

A. sewing vessels on a draught;
B. * vagotomy or resection the stomach;
C. sewing vessels in an ulcer;
D. gastroenteroanasmosis;
E. all answers are faithful
378. Relative absolute indication to operative treatment ulcerous illness is

A. * penetration of ulcer
C. malignization ulcers
D. perforation of ulcer
379. Resection of stomach by Bilrot II belongs to

A. * radical operation
B. palliative operation
C. draining operations
D. organ protect operation
E. does not belong to any group
380. Selective proximal vagotomy belongs to

A. palliative
B. draining
C. * organ protect operation
D. resection
381. Signs of stable hemostasis

A. * absence blood in a stomach and duodenum bulb;
B. presence the light blood and faltungs of blood in a stomach;
C. profluvium blood from a vessel;
D. all answers correct;
382. Signs of unstable hemostasis

A. * the pulsation of vessel is determined;
B. the bottom ulcer is covered a fibrin;
383. Specify the optimum volume operation at acute biliar pancreatitis:

A. Deleting exsudate from abdominal region
C. Pancreatectomy
D. * Sanitization and draining bilious ways
E. Draining pancreas channel
384. Stone formation in a gall-bladder promote

A. Infection, stagnation of bile, exchange violations, inflammatory processes in a bubble,
constitution, enhanceable amount of bilious acids
B. * An infection, stagnation of bile, exchange violations, inflammatory processes in a
bubble, sex, constitution
C. Stagnation of bile, inflammatory processes in a bubble, inflammatory processes in a
bubble, half, enhanceable amount of bilious acids
D. An infection, stagnation of bile, exchange violations, inflammatory processes in a
bubble, enhanceable amount of bilious acids
E. All answers correct
385. Stoneformation in a gall-bladder promote:

A. * An infection, stagnation of bile, exchange violations, inflammatory processes in a
bubble, sex, constitution
B. Infection, stagnation of bile, exchange violations, inflammatory processes in a
bubble, constitution, raised amount of bilious acids
C. Stagnation of bile, inflammatory processes in a bubble, inflammatory processes in a
bubble, sex, raised amount of bilious acids
D. An infection, stagnation of bile, exchange violations, inflammatory processes in a
bubble, raised amount of bilious acids
386. Symptoms perforation the gall-bladder are

A. * Strengthening of pains, appearance Blumberg’s sing on all stomach, irradiation the
pain in a right shoulder
B. Megascopic sickly gall-bladder
C. Positive Ortner’s sing
D. Positive Obraztsov’s sing
387. The attack of hepatic (bilious) colic arises up:

A. * Suddenly, acutely
B. After a initial period
C. Gradually, gradually
D. After the protracted starvation
E. After supercooling
388. The attack of hepatic (bilious) colic development

389. The characteristic laboratory sign of the acute uncomplicated cholecystitis is:
A. Diastasuria
B. * Leucocytosis
C. Hypoglycemia
D. Glucosuria
E. Hyperbilirubinemia
390. The Courvoisier’s symptom is not observed at a cancer

A. Heads of pancreas
B. Supraduodenal part of the common bile stone
C. Retroduodenal part of general bilious channel
D. Large duodenal papilla
E. * Gall-bladder
391. The index litogenic bile is determined correlation

A. Cholesterol, billirubine and lecithin
B. Billirubine, bilious acids and lecithin
C. Cholesterol, bilious acids and bilirubine
D. * Cholesterol, bilious acids and lecithin
E. Billirubine and lecithin
392. The laboratory signs of total pancreonecrosis is:

A. Growth glucose concentration
B. Diminishing maintenance fibrinogenum
C. * Growth activity diastase
D. Diminishing activity diastase
E. Growth index AST
393. The leading clinical symptoms the acute pancreatitis is:

A. * Stomach-ache
B. Vomiting by „coffee-grounds”
C. Disuria
D. Febrile temperature of body
E. Lock
394. The liquid painted a bile in an abdominal region is not observed at

A. * Break pus hydatidoma
B. To the protracted mechanical icterus
C. Spontaneous bilious peritonitis
D. Perforations of gall-bladder
E. Perforations the ulcer of duodenum

A. Perforations the ulcer of duodenum
B. Perforations the gall-bladder
C. To the protracted mechanical icterus
D. * Break the pus hydatidoma
E. Spontaneous bilious peritonitis
396. The nosotropic mechanisms bleedingness at ulcerous illness is

A. * all answers are correct.
B. permanent hyperemia all system of stomach
C. different degree dystrophy of superficial layers the mucus shell
D. accumulation the central mucopolysaccharides
E. hypoplastic, dystrophic processes
397. The patients with a gangrenous cholecystitis is indication

A. Conservative treatment
B. Deferred operation
C. A decision-making depends on age of patient
D. Operation at default of effect from medicinal therapy
E. * Urgent operation
398. The secretory function stomach is carried out the next membrane of stomach
A. * mucous membrane
B. internal muscular layer
C. serosal
D. mucous submembrane
E. external layer
399. The special examination the extrahepatic bilious ways is absolutely indicated at
A. Suspicion on stenosis of large duodenal papilla, expansion the common bile duct,
mechanical icterus in the moment of operation
B. Suspicion on stenosis of large duodenal papilla, expansion the common bile duct, to
the mechanical icterus in anamnesis, mechanical icterus in the moment of operation
C. Expansion the common bile duct, mechanical icterus in the moment of operation
D. Shallow stone in the common bile duct, suspicion on stenosis of large duodenal
papilla, expansion the common bile duct, mechanical icterus in the moment of
operation
E. * All right
400. The special research extrahepatic bilious ways is absolutely indicated at:
A. Shallow stone in common bile duct, suspicion on stenosis the large duodenal papilla,
expansion of the common bile duct, mechanical icterus in the moment of operation
B. Suspicion on stenosis of large duodenal papilla, expansion of the common bile duct,
C. At expansion of the common bile duct
D. * All right
E. All not right
401. To absolute indication to operative interference at ulcerous illness does not belong
A. * scarry-ulcerous stenosis
B. perforation of ulcer
C. profuse bleeding
D. diameter ulcer a more than 3 cm
E. bleeding what does not stopped with conservative
402. To complications of the acute calculary cholecystitis does not attribute:

A. * Phlebeurysm gullet
C. Cholangitis
D. Subhepatic abscess
E. Peritonitis
403. To complications of the acute stone cholecystitis does not attribute

A. * Varicose widening the vein of gullet
C. Cholangitis
D. Under hepatic abscess
E. Peritonitis
404. To early complications acute pancreatitis attribute:

A. Shock
B. Acute hepatic-kidney insufficiency
C. Poured out peritonitis
D. Icterus
E. * All answers are faithful
405. To the gastric – intestinal bleeding of unulcerous etiology belong

A. * Mallory-Weiss syndrome;
B. hemorragic erosive gastritis;
C. diseases by Randyu – Oslera – Vebera;
D. Menetrie's sing;
E. all answers are correct.
406. To the intraoperative methods research the extrahepatic bilious ways does not pertaine
A. Palpation of the common bile duct
B. Choledochoscopy
C. Intraoperative cholangiography
D. Sounding of the common bile duct
E. * Intravenous cholangiography
407. To the intraoperative methods of research the extrahepatic bilious ways all behaves, except
for:
A. Palpation of the common bile duct
B. Choledochoscopy
C. Intraoperative cholangiography
D. Soundings of the common bile duct
E. * Intravenous holangiography
408. Turner’s sing at acute pancreatitis:

B. * Cyanosis sides of stomach and trunk
409. Udin’s sing at a perforated ulcer is

A. * feeling at palpation shove the gases which penetrate through the perforated opening
B. dulling perforated sound in the lateral departments of stomach
C. disappearance of hepatic dullness
D. irradiation pain in a shoulder or shoulder-blade
E. sickliness the back vault of vagina
410. Vomiting coffee-grounds is a characteristic sign

A. * bleeding ulcer
B. penetrative ulcers
C. perforated ulcers
E. for cicatrical-ulcerous pylorus stenosis
411. Vomiting what arose up in 4-6 hours after eating characteristic for
A. chronic alcoholic gastritis
B. cancer and ulcers of cardia
C. * pylorus ulcers
D. achalasia of gullet
E. ulcer and cancer the body of stomach
412. Voskresenskiy’s sing at acute pancreatitis:

A. * Absence pulsation the abdominal aorta
subcostal area
413. What nosotropic conditionality Voscresencky’s sing at acute pancreatitis:

A. * Inflammatory edema of pancreas
B. Reflex paresis of colon
C. Thrombosis of abdominal aorta
D. Embolism of abdominal aorta
E. Development of peritonitis
414. What a clinical flow can be at acute pancreatitis:

A. Easy, middle, heavy
B. Acute, chronic
C. * Abortive, making progress
D. Edema, necrosis
E. Any variant
415. What basic method the treatment of acute pancreatitis is:

A. Surgical
B. * Conservative
C. Homoeopathic
D. Physical therapy
416. What cages of pancreas are make glucagon:

A. клетки
B. клетки
C. -клетки
D. None of cages
E. D-клетки
417. What cages of pancreas are make insulin:

A. клетки
B. клетки
C. -клетки
D. None of cages
E. D-клетки
418. What colouring of chair is most characteristic for bleeding from the ulcer of stomach and
duodwnum?
A. * Tarry excrement
B. Presence on the formed excrement of strokes of red blood
C. Littlechanged blood in an excrement
D. Excrement of the raspberry colouring with the admixtures of mucus
E. Acholic excrement
419. What complication the ulcerous illness of stomach is most characteristically for the patients
of elderly and senile age
A. perforation
B. perforation + bleeding
C. pylorus stenosis
D. malignization + penetration
E. * bleeding
420. What complications at a acute pancreatitis is behave to early:

A. * Peritonitis
B. Phlegmon retroperitoneum space
C. Formation of pseudocysts
D. Development of saccharine diabetes
E. Intestinal impassability
421. What complications at a acute pancreatitis is behave to late:

A. Peritonitis
B. * Phlegmon retroperitoneum space
422. What external signs are characteristic for the profuse bleeding from a gastric ulcer?
A. Vomiting by the littlechanged blood, excrement of the raspberry colouring
B. * Vomiting by the littlechanged blood, tarry darkly-cherry chair
C. Vomiting by a complete mouth by dark blood with clots, black formed excrement
D. Vomiting on the type of "coffee-grounds", presence on the formed incandescence of
strokes of red blood
E. Tarry darkly-cherry chair
423. What from operations does not execute at surgical treatment complicated acute pancreatitis:
A. Through draining the stuffing-box bag
B. Abdominisation the pancreas
C. Omentopankreatopeksiy
D. Left-side resection of gland
E. * Pancreatojejunostomy
424. What from preparations has the expressed bacteriostatic action on Hеlісоbасtеr руlоrіs
A. * trichopol
B. Licviroton
C. oxiferiskorbon
D. atropine
E. pirinzsipin
425. What from the transferred operations does not belong to organ protective
A. trunk vagotomy
B. * resection by Bilrot II
C. selective vagotomy
E. the all transferred does not belong
426. What from the transferred operations on the stomach organ protective is
A. * selective proximal vagotomy
B. resection by Bilrot I
D. gastrectomy
E. all are transferred
427. What hormone of pancreas has influences on metabolism glucose:

A. * Insulin
B. Vasopressin
C. Adrenalin
D. Somatotropin
E. Tiroksin
428. What hormone of pancreas has influences on the exchange of fats:

A. Insulin
B. Glyukagon
C. * Lipocainu
D. Adrenalin
E. Somatotropin
429. What hormones undertake the protective operating on the mucous membrane of stomach,
except for
A. * ACTH
B. epidermal factor of growth
C. prostaglandin E
D. estrogens
E. STH
430. What is blood supply the body and tail pancreas:

A. * Splenic artery
B. A.gastroduodenalis
C. A.gastrica sinistra
D. A.cystica
E. Variously
431. What is condition hematomesis at acute pancreatitis:

A. Presence concomitant gastric ulcer
B. Presence concomitant gastritis
C. * Formation erosions in a stomach
D. Violation of microcirculation
E. Enzymes in blood
432. What is necrectomy:

A. Delete the necrotic area within the limits of nonviable fabrics
B. * Delete the necrotic area within the limits of healthy fabrics
C. Delete part of organ with his transversal cutting within the limits of the changed
fabrics
D. Total delete of organ
E. There is not a faithful answer
433. What is pancreas located in relation to a peritoneum:

A. * Retroperitoneal
B. Mesoperitoneal
C. Intraperitoneal
D. All answers are incorrect
E. Variously
434. What is pancreatectomy:

B. Delete the necrotic area within the limits of healthy fabrics
fabrics
D. * Total delete of organ
435. What is resection the pancreas:

C. * Delete part of organ with his transversal cutting within the limits of the changed
fabrics
436. What is sequestrotomy:

A. * Delete the necrotic area within the limits of nonviable fabrics
fabrics
437. What level diastase answers a acute pancreatitis:

A. 100-160
B. 200-500
C. * 600-1000
D. 1000-1500
E. 10-20
438. What level diastase answers a chronic pancreatitis:

A. * 200-500
B. 100-160
C. 600-1000
D. 1000-1500
E. 10-20
439. What level diastase answers pancreonecrosis:

A. 600-1000
B. 200-500
C. 100-160
D. * 1000-1500
E. 10-20
440. What localization of ulcer is most characteristic for the patients of elderly and senile age
A. * cardial department of stomach
B. overhead third of gullet
C. lower third of gullet
D. bulb of duodewnum
E. small curvature
441. What method diagnostics hte ulcerous illness most informing

A. * esophagogastroduodenoscopy
B. analysis of excrement on the hidden blood
C. X-ray
D. global analysis of blood
E. research of gastric secretion
442. What method is it orientation possible to define the volume of hemorrhage on at the acute
gastroenteric bleeding?
A. On maintenance red corpuscles, haemoglobin, Ht, thrombocytes
B. On blood volume
C. * On an arteriotony, pulse, state of patient
D. On a globular volume
E. On the level of thrombocytes
443. What most effective blocker secretion of pancreas at acute pancreatitis:

A. Cyanocobalamin
B. Ubretid
C. Arginine
D. * Sandostatin
E. Benzogeksoniy
444. What most effective treatment the formed uncomplicated cyst is:
A. External draining the cyst
B. Marsupialization
C. Resection the cyst within the limits of the unchanged gland
D. * Cysticenterostomy
E. Cystogastrostomy
445. What most effective treatment the unformed complicated cyst is:
B. * External draining cyst
C. Resection cyst within the limits of the unchanged gland
D. Cysticenterostomy
E. Cystogastrostomy
446. What most effective treatment the unformed uncomplicated cyst is:
B. External draining cyst
E. Cystogastrostomy
447. What most optimum resort is which used for pathology the pancreas:
A. Pyatigorsk
B. * Morshin
C. Kuyal'nik
D. Truskavets
E. Nemirov
448. What norm diastase is:

A. * To 160
B. To 50
C. To 200
D. To 300
E. To 1200
449. What operation is most often used for localization the formed pseudocyst in the area of tail
the pancreas:
A. Cystojejunostomy on the eliminated loop
B. External draining the cyst
C. Cystogastrostomy
D. * Cystoduodenostomy
E. Cystoenteroanastomosis
450. What operation is used for suppuration the pseudocysts of pancreas:

B. * External draining the cyst
C. Cystogastrostomy
D. Cystoduodenostomy
451. What operation is used for the pseudocyst of pancreas in the 3th stage of its forming:
A. * Cystojejunostomy on the eliminated loop
C. Cystogastrostomy
452. What operation on a pancreas is indicated at the oedematous form the acute pancreatitis:
A. * Interference on a pancreas is not needed
B. Pancreatectomy
C. Omentopankreatopeksy
D. Abdominisation pancreas
E. Marsupialization
453. What preparation does behave to blocker H2-retseptors?

A. * tavegil
B. obzidan
C. hystdol
D. cerucal
E. oraza
454. What preparation does behave to blocker of muscarine receptors of coating cages?
A. cymetidin
B. eglonin
C. * gastocepini
D. etimsiloli
E. vinylin
455. What preparation is applied at violation the extrasecretory function of pancreas at a chronic
pancreatitis:
A. Pyracetam
B. Papaverin
C. Pantocrin
D. * Panzinorm
E. Panthenol
456. What preparation is applied at violation the extrasecretory function pancreas at a chronic
pancreatitis:
A. Pyracetam
B. Papaverin
C. Pantocrin
D. * Mezim-forte
E. Panthenol
457. What preparation is attributed to the proteases inhibitors:

A. Garamycin
B. Gaviskon
C. * Gordox
D. Halidor
E. Gramicidin

A. Tocopherol
B. Triampur
C. Tagamet
D. * Trasylol
E. Trypsin
459. What preparation is not attributed to the inhibitors proteases:

A. Pantripin
B. Kontrikal
C. Gordox
D. Trasylol
E. * Trypsin
460. What preparations from the cytostatic group use for intensifying the chronic pancreatitis:
A. Cyanocobalamin
B. Methyluracil
C. * 5-fluorouracil
D. Furadolizon
E. Mezimforte
461. What preparations, except for other properties, own yet and a bacteriostatic effect on
Hеlісоbасtеr руlоrіs
A. * all are transferred preparations
B. Almagel
C. Vinylin
D. De-nol
E. Claritromycin
462. What primary purpose treatment the patient with fatty pancreatonecrosisto the operation is:
A. Liquidations the pain
B. * Disintoxication the organism
C. Liquidations crampy the big duodenal papilla
D. Declines secretory activity the pancreas
E. Improvements microcirculation
463. What primary purpose treatment the patients with the heavy form of hemorragic
pancreatonecrosis to the operation is:
464. What products are recommended in the diet of № 1?

A. * hen in a steam kind
B. pancakes
C. raw egg-white
D. bread rye fresh
E. acute cheeses
465. What syndrome is characteristic for hemorragic erosive gastritis?

A. * ulcerous
B. hemorragic;
C. pain;
466. What time urgent operations are executed at acute bleeding

A. * 6 – 12 hours;
B. 6 – 10 hours;
C. 6 – 8 hours
D. 6 – 14 hours;
E. 6 – 20 hours
467. What violation of mineral exchange is characteristic for patients with ulcerous illness of
stomach and intestine
A. hypocalcemia
B. * hypokaliemia
C. Hyponatremia
D. Hypercalcinemia
E. hyperkaliemia
468. When apply Teylor’s method at ulcerous illness

A. * at conservative treatment perforeted ulcers
B. at conservative treatment sanguifluous ulcers
C. at conservative treatment penetration ulcers
D. at conservative treatment malignization ulcers
E. at conservative treatment of cicatrical pyloristenosis
469. With the purpose preparation to operation the patient with the protracted icterus of bail–
stone diseases origin and phenomena hepatic insufficiency, it is necessary to make
A. Endoscope papilotomy, throughskin transhepatic draining of hepaticocholedoch,
endoscope papilotomy and nosebilliar draining
B. Throughskin transhepatic draining of the hepaticocholedoch, enteropersorption,
lymphopersorption or hemopersorption, endoscope papilotomy and nosebilliar
draining
C. * All right
D. Laparoscopic cholecystostomy, nosebilliar draining, throughskin transhepatic draining
of hepaticocholedoh
E. Laparoscopic cholecystostomy, nosebilliar draining, throughskin transhepatic draining
of hepaticocholedoch, endoscope papilotomy and nosebilliar draining
470. With transferring of stone from a gall-bladder in the common bile duct does not develop:
A. Hepatic colic
B. Icterus
C. Festering cholangitis
D. Stenotic papillitis
E. * Syndrome by Badd-Khiary
471. A patient 2 hours ago fallen down from the first floor. State heavy. There are signs of the
diffusive peritonitis.Survey sciagraphy of stomach is executed. What from roentgenologic
symptoms diagnosis of break of cavernous organ will confirm?
A. hight standings of diaphragm dome
B. Kloybers bowls
C. * free gas in an abdominal region
D. a free liquid in an abdominal region
E. infiltration in an abdominal region
472. A patient 2 hours ago got a blow in a stomach. Delivered in a urgent clinic in a grave
condition with suspicion on the break of cavernous organ. What method of roentgenologic
research will allow to specify a diagnosis?
A. laparocentzis
B. laparoscopy
C. * sciagraphy of stomach
D. contrasting X-ray examination
E. irrigoscopy
B. Perforation
474. A patient entered to urgent with closed trauma of stomach. At an inspection are positive
symptoms the irritation of peritoneum. The damage of internalss is suspected. What method of
diagnostics does use for confirmation the diagnosis?
A. angiography
B. X-ray examination
C. Sonography
D. * diagnostic laparotomy
E. diagnostic puncture
475. A patient entered urgent clinic in a grave condition. Pulse is 112 in min., AP - 11060, T -
35,1 C. It was found diagnosis the diffusive peritonitis. What treatment is rotined a patient?
A. laparotsentez
B. laparoscopy
C. * operation
D. antibiotic
E. puncture
476. A patient entered urgent in a clinic on 3 days from the beginning of disease. The state is
heavy, adynamic. Face of Hippocrates, pulse 138 in 1 min, AP - 8040. A stomach is blown
away, moderato sickly at palpation. Shchotkin-Blyumbergs symptom is doubtful. A liquid is
determined in the lower departments the stomach. A liquid, stinking excrement departs through
gaping sphincter. That does explain the state of patient?
A. intestinal impassability
B. * diffusivr peritonitis
C. mesenteric ischemia
D. toxic dilatation of colon
477. A patient got the trauma of stomach 3 hours ago. Delivered in a urgent clinic with
complaints about tormina. The lines of person are focus. Positive symptoms the irritation of
peritoneum. At survey X-ray examination is found out free gas under the dome of diaphragm. A
diagnosis is set: break of cavernous organ. What type of treatment is most expedient?
A. cold on a stomach
B. laparotsentez
C. laparoscopy
D. * operative
E. antibiotic
478. A patient grumbles about great pain in a stomach, which arose up suddenly 6 hours ago. The
diagnosis of peritonitis is set. What symptom is most characteristic for this diagnosis?
A. increases of temperature
B. tachycardia
C. leucocytosis
D. tension of muscles the abdominal wall
E. * irritations of peritoneum
479. A patient suffers a stenocardia. Became ill suddenly after the physical loading. Complaints
about pain in a epigastric area, which spread on the right half of stomach. Positive Shchotkin-
Blyumbergs symptom. Rectal – overhang and painfulness the front wall of rectum. It is not
discovered the free gas on the survey sciagram of stomach. What is most reliable diagnosis?
A. abdominal form of heart attack the myocardium
C. acute pancreatitis
D. * peritonitis
E. peritonitis of apendicular character
480. A prophylaxis and treatment of postoperative enteroplegias at peritonitis is

A. gastrotomy
B. gastrointestinotomy
C. * nasogastrointestinal intubation
D. intubation of abdominal region
E. intubation of stuffing-box bag


483. Acute pancreatitis with a heavy flow treat in terms:

A. Ambulatory
B. Permanent establishment
C. * Department of intensive therapy
484. After time of origin complications acute pancreatitis select:

A. Premature and remote
B. Urgent and deferred
C. Primary and second
D. * Early and late
E. Any of variants faithful
tract
B. barrel vagotomy
487. Agents, which cause peritonitis, can be all except for:

A. urines at the break of urinary bladder
B. tables of contents the stomach during the perforation of ulcer
C. to blood at the trauma of stomach
D. biles during the perforation of gall-bladder
E. * air in an abdominal region after laparoscopy research
E. Not divided
489. Among acute surgical diseases acute pancreatitis occupies:

A. First place
B. * Third place
C. Fifth place
D. Second - third place
E. Most widespread
490. As the first period flowing of acute pancreatitis is named:

491. As the second period flowing of acute pancreatitis is named:

492. As the third period flowing of acute pancreatitis is named:

A. Haemodynamic violations and pancretic shock
B. * To functional insufficiency of parenchymatous organs
493. Aseptic inflammation of peritoneum can be caused:

A. by a collibacillus
B. by staphylococcuss
C. * by pancreatitis juice
D. by an abscess
E. by intestinal maintenance
494. At a subdiaphragmatic abscess in a clinical picture characteristically all following, except

for:
A. declines the respiratory excursion of lights.
B. high standing of diaphragm dome.
C. concord pleurisy.
D. basale atelectasis of lights.
E. * blood spitting
495. At a subhepatic abscess can take place all, except for:

A. pains in a thorax with an irradiation in a supraclavicular area
B. reactive pleurisy
C. * Courvoisier's symptom
D. Senator’s symptom
E. Dyushen’s symptom

B. pain increases
E. girdle pain

A. * to 3 hours
B. to 1,5 hour
C. to 6 hours
D. to 8 hours
E. 6 – 12 hours
498. At festering peritonitis the disorder of hemodynamics not conditioned:

A. by the decline of volume the circulatory blood
B. * by the increase of volume the circulatory blood
C. by the decline of tone the vascular wall
D. by the change of properties the hemorheologys
E. by violation of cardiovascular activity
501. At peritonitis intestinal impassability develops, as a rule:

A. mechanical
B. dynamic
C. spastic
D. * paralytic
E. mixed
502. At peritonitis of violation the proteometabolism characterized:

A. by the increase of concentration the albumen
B. by the increase of concentration the globulins
C. diminishing of concentration the albumen
D. * diminishing of the albumen - globulins coefficient
E. by the increase of the albumen - globulins coefficient
503. At suspicion on a subdiaphragmatic abscess the followings methods of diagnostics are

rotined, except for:
A. * laparoscopy.
B. Sonography.
C. X-ray examination of thorax.
D. X-ray examination of abdominal region.
E. computer tomography
504. At suspicion on the abscess of Duglas space all followings methods of diagnostics are
A. rectal inspection.
B. * proctoscopy.
C. Sonography.
D. computer tomography.
E. vaginal research

A. Hb below 80 g/l
B. * Hb 80-100 g/l
E. Ht below 25%
indicated
loss indicated

A. artery;
B. veins;
510. At what disease pain of girdle character is characteristic:

A. Gastric ulcers
C. Intestinal impassability
D. * Acute pancreatitis
E. Acute cystitis
511. At what pathology is absence pulsation of abdominal aorta

C. Perforated ulcer
512. At what pathology is appearance cyanosys the sides of stomach:

B. Perforated ulcer
513. At what pathology is appearance of sickliness in left costal-vertebral coal:

C. Perforated ulcer
514. Atipical clinical motion of postoperative peritonitis is conditioned setting in a postoperative

period:
A. spasmolytic
B. anticoagulant
C. * anaesthetic
D. analeptics
E. cardiac

A. * bleeding ulcer
B. bleeding ulcer

A. Ht 48-44, Hb 120
C. Ht 31-23, Hb 80
D. * Ht 38-32, Hb 100
E. Ht 44-40, Hb 110 /?

B. Ht 31-23, Hb 80
C. Ht 44-40, Hb 110
D. Ht 48-44, Hb 120
E. Ht 48-44, Hb 120

A. * Ht 31-23, Hb 80
C. Ht 38-32, Hb 100
D. Ht 44-40, Hb 110
E. Ht 48-44, Hb 120
521. Bonde’s sing at acute pancreatitis:

A. * Swelling the stomach only in epigastrium
522. Characteristic complication acute pancreatitis is:

A. * Pancreonecrosis
B. Pylephlebitis
C. Hepatocirrhosis
D. Veritable pancreas cyst
E. Hepatitis
523. Characteristic complication the acute pancreatitis is:

A. Paranephritis
B. Duglas’s abscess
C. Pylephlebitis
D. Cyst of pancreas
524. Conservative treatment the acute pancreatitis includes:

A. * Hunger
B. Povzner’s diet №5
C. Povzner’s diet №15
D. Moderation in a meal
E. Morning gymnastics

A. bleeding ulcer
526. Decision role in differential diagnostics of peritonitis and acute vascular purpura is a
symptom:
A. * hemorragic rash on a skin
B. acute pain in a stomach
C. systole noise above the abdominal department of aorta
D. absence of pulsation of abdominal department of aorta
E. melena at rectal research
527. Decision role in differential diagnostics of peritonitis and break the bone of pelvis is:
A. to appoint antibiotics
B. to appoint anaesthetic
C. to execute laparocenthezis
D. * to execute laparoscopy
E. to execute survey sciagraphy of abdominal region
528. Decision role in differential diagnostics the peritonitis and dissecting aneurysm of aorta ,
there is a symptom:
A. aperistalsis
C. * systole noise above the abdominal department of aorta

A. * Meulengracht's
B. 1 by Pevznerom
C. 5 by Pevznerom
D. 15 by Pevznerom
E. 7 by Pevznerom
530. Diffusive festering peritonitis can be investigation of all transferred diseases, except for:
A. perforations Meckel's diverticulum
B. destructive appendicitis
C. * stenosis of large duodenal nipple
D. Richter strangulation of hernia
E. acute intestinal impassability
C. Mendel’s suing
E. Eleker’s sing
532. Draining the abdominal region is conducted at:

A. phlegmonous appendicitis without exudation
B. * gangrenous appendicitis with exudation
C. phlegmonous appendicitis with serosal exudation odourless
D. there is not a right answer
E. catarrhal appendicitis

A. * 3-6 hours
B. 6-12 hours
C. 1-3 hours
D. 12-24 hours
E. 24-36 hours
534. Early complications the acute pancreatitis is not:

A. * Fistula of pancreas
B. Pancreatic shock
C. Collapse
D. Ferment peritonitis
E. Pancreatic delirious syndrome

B. bleeding ulcer
536. ERCP apply at:

A. Postcholecystectomy syndrome
B. Stenosing papillitis
C. * Stenosis the supraduodenal department of choledoch
D. Stricture the terminal department of choledoch
A. tumours
B. ulcers
D. erosions
538. Fibrinogenous impositions on a peritoneum are not at peritonitis:

A. * serosal
B. fibrinogenous
C. festering
D. putrid
E. excrement
539. For a patient, suffering ulcerous illness, sudden great pain in an epigastrium and unclear
symptoms of peritonitis appeared. During subsequent days the display of these symptoms
diminished, the state of patient had become better. It is possible to suppose at such clinic
A. typical perforation the ulcer
B. * covered perforation
C. preperforative state
D. intensifying of ulcerous illness
E. there is not a right answer
540. For a perforation declivous organ all is characteristic in a free abdominal region, except for:
A. acute began pains.
B. wooden belly.
C. collapse.
D. * oliguria.
E. tachycardia.

B. knife-like pain;
E. melena;

A. * melena
543. For diagnostics of acute pancreatitis most informing is:

A. * Sonography
B. CT
C. Cholangiography
D. Esophagogastroduodenoscopy
E. Colonoscopy

545. For pancreonecrosis characteristically is:

A. * Rapid progress, strengthening pain, proof enteroplegia, growth haemodynamic
violations
B. Rapid progress, diminishing pain, strengthening of моторики of intestine, growth
haemodynamic violations
C. Slow progress, strengthening pain, phase of imaginary prosperity.
D. Abortive flow, toxemia, development shock.
E. Appearance light interval
546. For perforative appendicitis characteristically
A. tension the muscles of front abdominal wall
B. there is the sudden strengthening of stomach-aches
C. rapid growth of clinical picture the peritonitis
D. Razdolskuy’s symptom
E. * all transferred

B. melena
548. For peritonitis in the first 24 hours not typical

A. aperistalsis intestine
B. * Kullenkamp’s symptom
C. Tachycardia
D. dry language
E. tension the muscles of abdominal wall and positive Shchetkin-Blyumberg’s symptom
549. For peritonitis there is a not characteristic symptom:

A. Shchetkin-Blyumberg’s symptom
B. Voskresenskiy’s symptom
C. Kulenkampf’s symptom
D. * Moebius’s symptom
E. Krymov’s symptom

A. * Zhober’s;
B. Khelatid’s;
C. Podlag’s;
D. Vigats’s;
E. Udin’s.
551. For the abortive flowing characteristically:

A. * A process limited to the acute edema with convalescence in 7-8 days
B. A process limited to tearing away of the pathologically changed gland
C. A process limited to tearing away of the pathologically unchanged gland
D. A disease completed so not attaining clinical displays
E. Changes from the side of organ are not present


554. For the late stage of peritonitis all is characteristic, except for:
A. swelling of stomach
B. hypovolemia
C. disappearance of intestinal noises
D. hypoproteinemia
E. * increased peristalsis
555. For the reactive stage of festering peritonitis not characteristically:

A. acute sickliness the stomach at palpation
B. positive Shchetkin-Blyumberg’s symptom
C. tension of muscles the front abdominal wall
D. * face of «Hippocrates»
E. tachycardia
556. For the terminal stage of peritonitis not characteristically:

A. tachycardia
B. * bradycardia
C. hyperthermia
D. falling of arteriotony
E. dynamic intestinal impassability
557. For what pathology appearance of violet spots on the skin of person and trunk is
characteristic:
A. Perforated ulcer
C. * Acute pancreatitis
558. For what purpose in treatment of diffusive festering peritonitis does execute nasointestinal
intubation?
A. account of losses the liquid through a gastroenteric highway.
B. control of electrolyte composition the intestinal maintenance
C. * prophylaxis of intestinal impassability
D. stimulation of the intestinal peristalsis
E. suppression of the intestinal peristalsis
A. gastric fundus
B. * cardial pert;
D. from duodenal;

A. over 4,5 cm
B. * over 3 cm
C. over 4 cm
D. over 5 cm
E. over 3,5 cm
561. Hemobilia is
562. Holsted’s sing at acute pancreatitis:

C. * Cyanosis skin of stomach
563. How is the diagnosis of the general peritonitis set to the operation?
A. roentgenologic
B. anamnestetic
C. by laboratory determination the signs of inflammatory reaction
D. * on clinical signs
E. on the level secretion the gastric juice
564. How many is the period of haemodynamic violations and pancreatic shock lasts:
A. * 1-3 days
B. 3-7 days
C. More 7 days
D. 2 weeks
E. 2 hour
565. How many is the period of degenerative and festerings complications lasts:
A. 1-3 days
B. 3-7 days
C. * More 7 days
D. 2 weeks
E. 2 hour
566. How many is the period of functional insufficiency of parenchymatous organs lasts:
A. 1-3 days
B. * 3-7 days
C. More 7 days
D. 2 weeks
E. 2 hour
567. In a patient with pains in a epigastric area, what was displaced from a right iliac area. There
was nausea and single vomiting. A patient accepted an analgin and put a hot-water bottle to the
stomach, pains calmed down whereupon. On 2 days pains recommenced, spread on all
stomach, the frequent vomiting appeared. The state of patient is heavy. Consciousness
entangled. Euphoria. Pulse 128 in min, AP - 95/60. Language is dry. A stomach is tense in all
departments. Temperature 37,2. Leucocytes in blood of 18? 109/l. Diagnosis
A. * acute appendicitis, terminal stage of peritonitis
B. typhoid, perforation of typhoidal ulcer
C. perforation gastric ulcer
D. gastric bleeding
568. In classic motion of peritonitis select the stages:
A. early, intermediate, late
B. reactive, intermediate, late
C. toxic, intoxication, terminal
D. * reactive, toxic, terminal
E. reactive, toxic, late
569. In the dynamics of acute peritonitis it is necessary positive to consider

A. * decline of amount the leucocytes
B. increase of amount the leucocytes
C. leucocytosis with the change of leukocytic formula to the left
D. growth of the leukocytic index intoxication
E. leukopenia
570. In treatment of the diffusive peritonitis of appendicitis origin a basic value has
A. * all transferred
B. antibacterial therapy
C. correction water-electrolyte violations
D. removal of source of peritonitis
E. sanitization of the abdominal region
A. correction water-electrolyte violations
B. sanitization of abdominal region
C. removal the source of peritonitis
D. * all answers are faithful
E. antibacterial therapy
rarely?
E. pylorus.

A. * V. Portae;
B. V. odd;
C. V. pair;
E. V. lower hollow;

72 hours
575. Kerte’s sing at acute pancreatitis:

C. * Sickliness and proof tension the muscles in an epigastrium with passing to left
subcostal area
576. Kulen’s sing at acute pancreatitis:

D. * Icteritiousness round a belly-button
577. Laparostomy at the diffusive peritonitis used with a purpose

A. * to repeated sanitization the abdominal region
B. extracorporal dialysis
C. hemosorption
D. laparoscopy
E. stimulations the peristalsis

A. 1-4 cm
B. 1-3 cm
C. 3-5 cm
D. 2- 6 cm
E. * 2-3 cm
579. Least answers a subhepatic abscess:

A. Senator’s symptom
B. Dyushen’s symptom
C. Liten’s symptom
D. * Rovzing’s symptom
E. ShchotkiN-Blyumberg’s symptom

A. * to 0,5 cm
B. 0,5-1 cm
C. to 1,0 cm
D. 3 to 1,5 cm
E. 0,5-1,5 cm
A. gullet;
B. stomach;
C. rectum;
D. * duodenum;
E. colon
582. Melena is
A. * bleeding ulcer
584. Meyo-Robson’s sing at acute pancreatitis:

B. * Sickliness in left costal-vertebral coal
subcostal area
585. Middle laparotomy must be conducted at:

A. * diffusive peritonitis
B. local unlimited peritonitis
C. abscess of Duglas space
D. periappendiceal infiltration
E. acute appendicitis
586. Mondor’s sing at acute pancreatitis:

A. * Violet spots on face and trunk
587. Most frequent reason of peritonitis

A. posoperative complication
B. acute trauma of stomach
C. acute cholecystitis
D. * acute appendicitis

B. * EFGDS
D. Sonography
E. Laparoskopy

590. Name most frequent complication after ERDPH:

A. * Pancreatitis
B. Cholangitis
D. Reactive cholecystitis
E. Obstructing papillitis
591. Name principal reason the acute pancreatitis:

A. Trauma the pancreas
B. * Bile-stone diseases
D. Chronic alcoholic pancreatitis
E. Cardiospasm
592. Name the optimum volume of operation at acute biliary pancreatitis:

A. Deleting exsudate from an abdominal region
C. Pancreatectomy
D. * Sanitization and draining the bilious ways
E. Draining the chanel of pancreas

594. pathognomonic symptom at acute pancreatitis is:

A. Pasternatskiy’s sing
B. * Kulen’s sing
C. Ker’s sing
D. Lenander’s sing
E. Rovsing’s sing

596. Peritonitis does not develop at the next form of acute appendicitis
A. * catarrhal
B. phlegmonous
C. gangrenous
D. perforatiove
E. gangrenous-perforatiove
597. Postoperative peritonitis is characterized a flow:

A. typical
B. * atypical
C. stormy
D. with the expressed pain reaction
E. with the expressed intoxication
598. Preoperated complication of acute appendicitis

B. intra-abdominal bleeding
C. suppuration of wound
D. eventeration wounds
E. there are not a right answer
599. Preoperative preparation for patients from peritonitis does not provide:
A. corrections the violations cardiovascular system
B. * laparocentzis
C. declines the intoxication
D. corrections the exchange violations
E. struggle with hy hypovolemia

601. Relaparotomy at difuusive festering peritonitis pursues:

A. * repeated revision of abdominal region
B. repeated laparoscopy of abdominal region
C. repeated endoscopy of abdominal region
D. normalization the function of gall-bladder
E. normalization the function of urinary bladder



A. palliative
B. draining
D. resection

607. Specific symptom of perforation declivous organ in a free abdominal region is:
A. high leucocytosis.
B. absence of intestinal noises.
C. * pneumoperitoneum.
D. positive symptoms of irritation the peritoneum.
E. dulling of the percusion sound in the gently sloping places of abdominal region
608. Specify a criterion which grounds the choice of middle laoarotomy access at the deffusion
festering peritonitis:
A. minimum trauma the abdominal wall
B. minimum cut
C. * valuable revision the abdominal region.
D. minimum blood loss.
E. minimum level of infecting the wound
609. Specify obligatory measures which are conducted during an operation concerning
widespread fibrinopurulent peritonitis:
A. removal the source of peritonitis.
B. sanitization of the abdominal region.
C. decompression of intestine.
D. draining of abdominal region.
E. * all answers are faithful
610. Specify possible reasons of the pseudoperitoneal syndrome:

A. uremia.
B. porphyria.
C. diabetic crisis.
D. nephrocolic.
611. Specify reason of use the derivatives of metronidasoli as an obligatory component of

antibacterial therapy of widespread peritonitis?
A. * removal of anaerobic microflora.
B. removal of mycotic flora.
C. removal of microflora of aerobic.
D. prophylaxis of intestinal worm invasion.
E. prophylaxis of widespread candidosis
612. Specify the most rational way the introduction of antibacterial preparations in treatment of
diffusive festering peritonitis:
A. peroral
B. hypodermic
C. intramuscular
D. * intravenous
E. intraperitoneal
613. Specify the optimum volume operation at acute biliar pancreatitis:
A. Deleting exsudate from abdominal region
C. Pancreatectomy
D. * Sanitization and draining bilious ways
E. Draining pancreas channel
614. Symptom of the toxic «scissors» at peritonitis it:

A. increase of temperature and pulse
B. diminishing of temperature and pulse
C. * diminishing of temperature and increase of pulse
D. increase of temperature and diminishing of pulse
E. increase of temperature and diminishing of breathing frequency
615. Symptom of toxic «scissors» at the peritinitis it is correlation:

A. * pulse and temperature
B. arteriotony and pulse
C. arteriotony and temperature
D. rectal and axillar temperature
E. rate breathings and temperatures
616. Tactic of surgeon at periappendiceal mas:

A. operative treatment
B. * conservative treatment, systematic looking after a patient
C. there is not a right answer
D. supervision
E. punction
617. Tension of abdominal wall and stage peritonitis at acute appendicitis

A. * absents, a stomach is swollen - terminal
B. absents, a stomach is not swollen - terminal
C. expressed, a stomach is not swollen - terminal
D. absents, a stomach is swollen - toxic
E. absents, a stomach is swollen – initial
618. Tension of muscles the right iliac area at the perforation of duodenal ulcer is explained
A. by development of the diffusive peritonitis
B. by reflex connections through medullispinal nerves
C. * flowing down of gastric content in a right lateral channel
D. entering of air abdominal region
E. viscero0visceral connections with a vermicular appendix
619. The best method of treatment the subhepatic abscess is:

A. thoracolaparotomy
B. lumbotomy
C. double-stage transpleural approach
D. laparotomy by Fedorov
E. * extrapleural extra-peritoneal method
620. The best variant the treatment of subhepatic abscess is:

A. conservative treatment
B. extra-peritoneal section and draining
C. laparotomy, section and tamponing of cavity
D. * punction of abscess by a thick needle under control Sonography
E. all transferred right
621. The complex treatment of festering peritonitis does not provide for:
A. delete of primary hearth
B. * vagotomy
C. correction the metabolic violations
D. adequate therapy by antibiotics
E. struggle of paresis the intestine
622. The diagnostics criteria of the anaerobic peritonitis is

A. stormy progress of disease
B. heavy festering intoxication
C. expressed enteroplegia
D. abundant amount of exsudate green-brown colors
E. * all is transferred
623. The exsudate painted blood in an abdominal region is observed always, except for:
A. * tubercular peritonitis
B. violations of extra-uterine pregnancy
D. acute pancreatitis
E. twisted oothecoma
624. The favourable result of treatment the patients with peritonitis provide:
A. early surgical interference
B. adequate operation
C. intravenous antibacterial therapy
D. methods of extracorporal dialysis
625. The laboratory signs of total pancreonecrosis is:

A. Growth glucose concentration
B. Diminishing maintenance fibrinogenum
C. * Growth activity diastase
D. Diminishing activity diastase
E. Growth index AST
626. The leading clinical symptoms the acute pancreatitis is:

A. * Stomach-ache
B. Vomiting by „coffee-grounds”
C. Disuria
D. Febrile temperature of body
E. Lock
627. The leading symptom of peritonitis is:

A. stomach-ache
B. enteroplegia
C. swelling of stomach
D. * symptoms the irritation of peritoneum
E. symptoms of the intestinal impassability
628. The methods of disintoxication at peritonitis are not:

A. lymphosorbtion
B. hemosorption
C. enterosorbtion
D. plasmapheresis
E. * antibiotic
629. The most informing method the instrumental diagnostics of peritonitis is:
A. * survey sciagraphy of abdominal region
B. lasparoscopy
C. angiography
D. gastroscopy
E. colonoscopy

C. serosal
E. external layer
632. The sign of the diffusive peritonitis is not

A. * visible peristalsis
B. absence the peristaltic intestinal noises
C. sickliness of stomach at palpation in all departments
D. even tension the muscles of front abdominal wall
E. positive Shchetkin-Blyumberg’s symptom
633. There is vomiting at peritonitis, as a rule:

A. single
B. episodic
C. * frequent
D. abundant
E. scanty
C. profuse bleeding
635. To early complications acute pancreatitis attribute:

A. Shock
B. Acute hepatic-kidney insufficiency
C. Poured out peritonitis
D. Icterus
E. * All answers are faithful

D. Menetrie's sing;
637. To the initial phase the peritonitis of appendicle origin does not behave
A. sickliness the pelvic peritoneum at rectal research
B. tachycardia
C. * noticeable electrolyte changes
D. tendency to growth leucocytosis
E. tension of muscles the abdominal wall
638. To the late stage of peritonitis of appendicle origin does not behave
A. dehydration
B. swelling of stomach
C. * increased peristalsis
D. hypoproteinemia
E. disappearance of intestinal noises
639. To the local isolated peritonitis does not attribute:

A. subdiaphragmatic abscess
B. subhepatic abscess
C. interintestinal abscess
D. * primary idiopathic peritonitis
E. abscess cystic-rectal spaces
640. Turner’s sing at acute pancreatitis:

B. * Cyanosis sides of stomach and trunk


A. * bleeding ulcer
C. * pylorus ulcers
644. Voskresenskiy’s sing at acute pancreatitis:
A. * Absence pulsation the abdominal aorta
subcostal area

646. What a clinical flow can be at acute pancreatitis:

A. Easy, middle, heavy
B. Acute, chronic
C. * Abortive, making progress
D. Edema, necrosis
E. Any variant
647. What basic method the treatment of acute pancreatitis is:

A. Surgical
B. * Conservative
C. Homoeopathic
D. Physical therapy
648. What cages of pancreas are make glucagon:

A. клетки
B. клетки
C. -клетки
D. None of cages
E. D-клетки
649. What cages of pancreas are make insulin:

A. клетки
B. клетки
C. -клетки
D. None of cages
E. D-клетки
duodwnum?
A. perforation
C. pylorus stenosis
E. * bleeding
652. What complications at a acute pancreatitis is behave to early:

A. * Peritonitis
B. Phlegmon retroperitoneum space
653. What complications at a acute pancreatitis is behave to late:

A. Peritonitis
B. * Phlegmon retroperitoneum space
A. * trichopol
B. Licviroton
C. oxiferiskorbon
D. atropine
E. pirinzsipin
657. What from the transferred diseases can be reason of the pseudoperitoneal syndrome?
A. dissecting aneurysm of the abdominal part of aorta.
B. Extraperitoneal haematoma.
C. Nephrolithiasis, nephrocolic
D. Thrombosis the pelvis veins
A. trunk vagotomy
D. gastrectomy
660. What hormone of pancreas has influences on metabolism glucose:

A. * Insulin
B. Vasopressin
C. Adrenalin
D. Somatotropin
E. Tiroksin
661. What hormone of pancreas has influences on the exchange of fats:

A. Insulin
B. Glyukagon
C. * Lipocainu
D. Adrenalin
E. Somatotropin
except for
A. * ACTH
C. prostaglandin E
D. estrogens
E. STH
663. What is blood supply the body and tail pancreas:

A. * Splenic artery
B. A.gastroduodenalis
D. A.cystica
E. Variously
664. What is condition hematomesis at acute pancreatitis:

A. Presence concomitant gastric ulcer
B. Presence concomitant gastritis
C. * Formation erosions in a stomach
D. Violation of microcirculation
E. Enzymes in blood

fabrics
666. What is pancreas located in relation to a peritoneum:

A. * Retroperitoneal
B. Mesoperitoneal
C. Intraperitoneal
D. All answers are incorrect
E. Variously

fabrics

fabrics

fabrics
670. What level diastase answers a acute pancreatitis:

A. 100-160
B. 200-500
C. * 600-1000
D. 1000-1500
E. 10-20
671. What level diastase answers a chronic pancreatitis:

A. * 200-500
B. 100-160
C. 600-1000
D. 1000-1500
E. 10-20
672. What level diastase answers pancreonecrosis:

A. 600-1000
B. 200-500
C. 100-160
D. * 1000-1500
E. 10-20
E. small curvature

C. X-ray
B. On blood volume

A. Cyanocobalamin
B. Ubretid
C. Arginine
D. * Sandostatin
E. Benzogeksoniy
E. Cystogastrostomy
E. Cystogastrostomy
679. What most optimum resort is which used for pathology the pancreas:
A. Pyatigorsk
B. * Morshin
C. Kuyal'nik
D. Truskavets
E. Nemirov
680. What must be done in the case of development the posoperative peritonitis?
D. to execute lasparoscopy
E. * to execute laparotomy
681. What norm diastase is:
A. * To 160
B. To 50
C. To 200
D. To 300
E. To 1200
the pancreas:
C. Cystogastrostomy

C. Cystogastrostomy
C. Cystogastrostomy
685. What operation on a pancreas is indicated at the oedematous form the acute pancreatitis:
A. * Interference on a pancreas is not needed
B. Pancreatectomy
C. Omentopankreatopeksy
D. Abdominisation pancreas
E. Marsupialization

A. * tavegil
B. obzidan
C. hystdol
D. cerucal
E. oraza
A. cymetidin
B. eglonin
C. * gastocepini
D. etimsiloli
E. vinylin
pancreatitis:
A. Pyracetam
B. Papaverin
C. Pantocrin
D. * Panzinorm
E. Panthenol
689. What preparation is applied at violation the extrasecretory function pancreas at a chronic
pancreatitis:
A. Pyracetam
B. Papaverin
C. Pantocrin
D. * Mezim-forte
E. Panthenol

A. Tocopherol
B. Triampur
C. Tagamet
D. * Trasylol
E. Trypsin
691. What preparation is not attributed to the inhibitors proteases:

A. Pantripin
B. Kontrikal
C. Gordox
D. Trasylol
E. * Trypsin
A. Cyanocobalamin
B. Methyluracil
C. * 5-fluorouracil
D. Furadolizon
E. Mezimforte
B. Almagel
C. Vinylin
D. De-nol
E. Claritromycin
694. What primary purpose treatment the patient with fatty pancreatonecrosisto the operation is:
695. What primary purpose treatment the patients with the heavy form of hemorragic
pancreatonecrosis to the operation is:

B. pancakes
C. raw egg-white
D. bread rye fresh
E. acute cheeses
697. What surgical pathology is a characteristic symptom of toxic «scissors» ?

A. appendicitis
B. cholecystitis
C. pancreatitis
D. * peritonitis
E. mesadenitis
698. What symptom is most characteristic in the initial phase of peritonitis:

A. sickliness and overhanding of pelvic peritoneum at rectal research.
B. dulling in declivous places at percusion of stomach
C. * tension of muscles the front abdominal wall.
D. swelling of stomach
E. melena

A. * ulcerous
B. hemorragic;
C. pain;

A. * 6 – 12 hours;
B. 6 – 10 hours;
C. 6 – 8 hours
D. 6 – 14 hours;
E. 6 – 20 hours
701. What type of peritonitis are fibrinogenous impositions at on a parietal and visceral
peritoneum?
A. at serosal.
B. at festering.
C. at fibrinogenous
D. at putrid.
E. * at all
A. hypocalcemia
B. * hypokaliemia
C. Hyponatremia
D. Hypercalcinemia
E. hyperkaliemia

704. Widespread festering peritonitis is investigation of all above-stated diseases, except for:
A. perforative ulcers of duodenum
B. phlegmonous cholecystitis
C. * hydrocholecystiss
D. destructive pancreatitis
E. volvulus of sigmoid bowel
705. With what disease above all things is it necessary to differentiate the acute peritonitis?
A. Hepar-kidney syndrome
B. * ischemic abdominal syndrome
C. adrenogenital syndrome
D. Horner’s syndrome
E. diencephalic syndrome
706. A patient 2 hours ago fallen down from the first floor. State heavy. There are signs of the
diffusive peritonitis.Survey sciagraphy of stomach is executed. What from roentgenologic
symptoms diagnosis of break of cavernous organ will confirm?
A. hight standings of diaphragm dome
B. Kloybers bowls
C. * free gas in an abdominal region
D. a free liquid in an abdominal region
E. infiltration in an abdominal region
707. A patient 2 hours ago got a blow in a stomach. Delivered in a urgent clinic in a grave
condition with suspicion on the break of cavernous organ. What method of roentgenologic
research will allow to specify a diagnosis?
A. laparocentzis
B. laparoscopy
C. * sciagraphy of stomach
D. contrasting X-ray examination
E. irrigoscopy
B. Perforation
709. A patient 59 years old grumbles about permanent pains in an epigastrium, givings in the
back, bad appetite, weakness, becoming thin. Pains appeared 3 months ago and in the beginning
disturbed little, but grew gradually, during the last week there is vomiting, bringing a
facilitation. Patient of the lowered feed, pale. The turgor of skin is lowered. A stomach is
pulled in, palpation is sickly in an epigastrium, peripheral lymphonoduss are not megascopic.
Roentgenologic is a defect of filling in area of back wall of pyloric department of stomach. At
a fibroscopy deep ulcer of back wall of stomach is with overpeering uneven edges. Possible
complication
A. malignization
B. penetration, germination in surrounding organs
C. perforation
D. * stenosis
E. bleeding
710. A patient delivered in a clinic with complaints about great pain after a breastbone and
between shoulder-blades, arising up during the massive vomiting. A patient has low blood
pressure, temperature is 39,5; leucocytosis - 20000. At x-ray photography research found the
accumulation air and liquid in the left pleura cavity and mediastinum. Preliminary diagnosis
A. * perforation of gullet
B. subdiaphragmatic abscess
C. acute pneumonia with the parapneumonic empyema of pleura
D. perforation the gastric ulcer
E. heart attack of myocardium
711. A patient entered urgent in a clinic on 3 days from the beginning of disease. The state is
heavy, adynamic. Face of Hippocrates, pulse 138 in 1 min, AP - 8040. A stomach is blown
away, moderato sickly at palpation. Shchotkin-Blyumbergs symptom is doubtful. A liquid is
determined in the lower departments the stomach. A liquid, stinking excrement departs through
gaping sphincter. That does explain the state of patient?
A. intestinal impassability
B. * diffusivr peritonitis
D. toxic dilatation of colon
712. A patient got the trauma of stomach 3 hours ago. Delivered in a urgent clinic with
complaints about tormina. The lines of person are focus. Positive symptoms the irritation of
peritoneum. At survey X-ray examination is found out free gas under the dome of diaphragm. A
diagnosis is set: break of cavernous organ. What type of treatment is most expedient?
A. cold on a stomach
B. laparotsentez
C. laparoscopy
D. * operative
E. antibiotic
713. A patient grumbles about great pain in a stomach, which arose up suddenly 6 hours ago. The
diagnosis of peritonitis is set. What symptom is most characteristic for this diagnosis?
A. increases of temperature
B. tachycardia
C. leucocytosis
D. tension of muscles the abdominal wall
E. * irritations of peritoneum
714. A patient suffers a stenocardia. Became ill suddenly after the physical loading. Complaints
about pain in a epigastric area, which spread on the right half of stomach. Positive Shchotkin-
Blyumbergs symptom. Rectal – overhang and painfulness the front wall of rectum. It is not
discovered the free gas on the survey sciagram of stomach. What is most reliable diagnosis?
A. abdominal form of heart attack the myocardium
C. acute pancreatitis
D. * peritonitis
E. peritonitis of apendicular character
715. A prophylaxis and treatment of postoperative enteroplegias at peritonitis is

A. gastrotomy
B. gastrointestinotomy
C. * nasogastrointestinal intubation
D. intubation of abdominal region
E. intubation of stuffing-box bag
716. A stomach-ache develops suddenly at (complication of ulcerous illness)

A. bleeding
B. malignization
C. stenosis
D. penetration
E. * perforations


719. Acute cholecystitis usually begins with

A. Increases the temperature
B. Appearances the vomiting
C. * Pains under a rib on the right
D. Disorders of chair
E. Weights are in a epigastria area
720. Agents, which cause peritonitis, can be all except for:

A. urines at the break of urinary bladder
B. tables of contents the stomach during the perforation of ulcer
C. to blood at the trauma of stomach
D. biles during the perforation of gall-bladder
E. * air in an abdominal region after laparoscopy research
E. Not divided
722. An intravenous cholecystography are indicated and informing at

A. Gall-bladder is palpated
B. To the icterus
C. Peritonitis
D. * Calming down attack of the acute cholecystitis
E. Cholangitis
723. Appearance „splashing sound” in acute intestinal obstruction is caused:

A. * By the accumulation of liquid and gases in the afferent loop of intestine
B. By the accumulation of liquid and gases in the efferent loop of intestine
C. By the presence of liquid in the abdominal cavity
D. By the presence of free gas in the abdominal cavity
E. By the presence of free gas and liquid in the abdominal cavity
724. Aseptic inflammation of peritoneum can be caused:

A. by a collibacillus
B. by staphylococcuss
C. * by pancreatitis juice
D. by an abscess
E. by intestinal maintenance
725. At a perforation gastric ulcer, vomiting blood is

A. often
B. very often
C. it is never
D. * rarely
726. At a subdiaphragmatic abscess in a clinical picture characteristically all following, except

for:
A. declines the respiratory excursion of lights.
B. high standing of diaphragm dome.
C. concord pleurisy.
D. basale atelectasis of lights.
E. * blood spitting
727. At a subhepatic abscess can take place all, except for:

A. pains in a thorax with an irradiation in a supraclavicular area
B. reactive pleurisy
C. * Courvoisier's symptom
D. Senator’s symptom
E. Dyushen’s symptom
728. At an acute and chronic cholecystitis application is contra-indicated

A. Omnoponum
B. * Morphine hydrochloride
C. No-spa
D. Atropine sulfate
E. Spazmalgon
729. At festering peritonitis the disorder of hemodynamics not conditioned:

A. by the decline of volume the circulatory blood
B. * by the increase of volume the circulatory blood
C. by the decline of tone the vascular wall
D. by the change of properties the hemorheologys
E. by violation of cardiovascular activity
730. At localization the stone in a cystic channel and absence infection the phenomenon is
carried by the name
A. Courvoisier’s symptom
C. Hydrocholecystis
D. * Cyst of gall-bladder
731. At operations on a stomach sometimes by mistake bandage an additional hepatic artery,

that, in same queue, can result to necrosis the segment, sectors or even stakes of liver. An
additional hepatic artery more frequent walks away from an artery
A. general hepatic
B. * left stomach
C. splenic
D. overhead mesenteric
733. At percusion in the first clock after perforation the ulcer more possibly
A. * dulling in the gently sloping places of stomach
B. expansion of percusion border of liver
C. tympanitis in left subcosctal area
D. expansion of percusion border the spleen
734. At perforated ulcer the pulled wooden belly is determined in the stage of peritonitis
A. * reactive
B. terminal
C. toxic
D. terminal-toxic
735. At peritonitis intestinal impassability develops, as a rule:

A. mechanical
B. dynamic
C. spastic
D. * paralytic
E. mixed
736. At peritonitis of violation the proteometabolism characterized:

A. by the increase of concentration the albumen
B. by the increase of concentration the globulins
C. diminishing of concentration the albumen
D. * diminishing of the albumen - globulins coefficient
E. by the increase of the albumen - globulins coefficient
737. At suspicion on a duodenal ulcer conduct above all things

A. research of gastric secretion
B. * EGDS
C. X-ray examination organs of abdominal region
D. determination the level of gastrin the whey blood
E. cholecystography
738. At suspicion on a subdiaphragmatic abscess the followings methods of diagnostics are

A. * laparoscopy.
B. Sonography.
C. X-ray examination of thorax.
D. X-ray examination of abdominal region.
739. At suspicion on the abscess of Duglas space all followings methods of diagnostics are
A. rectal inspection.
B. * proctoscopy.
C. Sonography.
D. computer tomography.
E. vaginal research
740. At the perforete ulcer of duodenum used more frequent

A. * sewing up of the perforate opening
B. sewing up + gastroenteroanastomosis
C. resection of stomach
D. resection of stomach for a shutdown
E. different types of vagotomy in combination with the economy resection of stomach
and other draining operations

A. artery;
B. veins;
742. Atipical clinical motion of postoperative peritonitis is conditioned setting in a postoperative

period:
A. spasmolytic
B. anticoagulant
C. * anaesthetic
D. analeptics
E. cardiac
743. Basic method examination the patients with the uncomplicated cholecystitis
A. Infusion cholegraphy
B. ERCP
C. * Sonography
D. Laparoskopy
E. Gastroduodenoscopy

A. Ht 48-44, Hb 120
C. Ht 31-23, Hb 80
D. * Ht 38-32, Hb 100
E. Ht 44-40, Hb 110 /?

B. Ht 31-23, Hb 80
C. Ht 44-40, Hb 110
D. Ht 48-44, Hb 120
E. Ht 48-50, Hb 130

A. * Ht 31-23, Hb 80
C. Ht 38-32, Hb 100
D. Ht 44-40, Hb 110
E. Ht 48-44, Hb 120
747. Can not stipulate a mechanical icterus

A. Cancer the head of pancreas
B. * Stone of cystic channel
D. Stone the general bilious channel
E. Tumour large duodenal papilla
748. Change in the analysis of blood at a perforete ulcer

A. leucopenia
B. anaemia
C. eosinophilia
D. * leucocytosis with a neutrophilic change
749. Characteristic laboratory sign of the acute uncomplicated cholecystitis

A. Diastasuria
B. * Leykocytosis
C. Hypoglycemia
D. Glucosuria
E. Hyperbillirubinemia
750. Conservative treatment of intestinal obstruction is indicated in all cases, except for:
A. * Torsion
B. Spastic obstruction
C. Paralytic obstruction
D. Coprostasis
E. There is no right answer
751. Courvoisier’s symptom is

A. Painless megascopic gall-bladder, patient is not yellow
B. Sickly megascopic gall-bladder, patient is not yellow
C. * Painless megascopic gall-bladder, patient is yellow
D. A gall-bladder don’t palpaton
752. Decision role in differential diagnostics of peritonitis and acute vascular purpura is a
symptom:
A. * hemorragic rash on a skin
C. systole noise above the abdominal department of aorta
753. Decision role in differential diagnostics of peritonitis and break the bone of pelvis is:
D. * to execute laparoscopy
E. to execute survey sciagraphy of abdominal region
754. Decision role in differential diagnostics the peritonitis and dissecting aneurysm of aorta ,
there is a symptom:
A. aperistalsis
C. * systole noise above the abdominal department of aorta
755. Dehidratation of the organism in acute intestinal obstruction most rapidly develops in:
A. * Torsion of small intestine
B. Torsion of sygmoid intestine
C. Tumours of rectum with the phenomena of obstruction
D. Obturation large intestinal obstruction
E. Ileocaecal invagination

A. * Meulengracht's
B. 1 by Pevznerom
C. 5 by Pevznerom
D. 15 by Pevznerom
E. 7 by Pevznerom
757. Diffusive festering peritonitis can be investigation of all transferred diseases, except for:
A. perforations Meckel's diverticulum
B. destructive appendicitis
C. * stenosis of large duodenal nipple
D. Richter strangulation of hernia
758. Direct sign of ulcer at x-ray research

A. violation of evacuation from a stomach
B. change of tone of stomach
C. form the stomach as "sand-glasses"
D. * symptom of "niche"
E. defect of filling
C. Mendel’s suing
E. Eleker’s sing
760. Draining the abdominal region is conducted at:

A. phlegmonous appendicitis without exudation
B. * gangrenous appendicitis with exudation
C. phlegmonous appendicitis with serosal exudation odourless
D. there is not a right answer
E. catarrhal appendicitis

A. * 3-6 hours
B. 6-12 hours
C. 1-3 hours
D. 12-24 hours
E. 24-36 hours
762. During the examination of patient with acute intestinal obstruction: the Zege-Maitenphel's
and "Obuhov's hospital" symptoms are positive. What type of obstruction it is characteristic
for?
A. * Sigmoid intestine torsion
B. Ileocaecal invagination
C. Obturation by the tumour of ascending intestine
D. Torsion of small intestine
E. All mentioned is correct
A. tumours
B. ulcers
D. erosions
764. Fibrinogenous impositions on a peritoneum are not at peritonitis:

A. * serosal
B. fibrinogenous
C. festering
D. putrid
E. excrement
765. For a patient 35 years old "knife-like pain" in an epigastrium, appearing suddenly hour
back. Pale, pulse is 50, T-36,9 °C. A stomach is tense, as a board. In anamnesis an ulcer of
duodenum is during 5 years. Complication came
A. malignization
B. stenos
C. penetration
D. * perforation
E. bleeding
766. For a patient, suffering ulcerous illness, sudden great pain in an epigastrium and unclear
A. typical perforation the ulcer
C. preperforative state
D. intensifying of ulcerous illness
767. For a perforation declivous organ all is characteristic in a free abdominal region, except for:
A. acute began pains.
B. wooden belly.
C. collapse.
D. * oliguria.
E. tachycardia.
768. For a perforete gastric ulcer in the first six clock typical
A. great sudden pains in a stomach, frequent vomiting, swelling of stomach,
disappearance the hepatic dullness, "sickle" under the right dome of diaphragm
B. frequent vomiting, swelling of stomach, disappearance the hepatic dullness, "sickle"
under the right dome of diaphragm
C. great sudden pains in a stomach, wooden belly, swelling of stomach
D. * great sudden pains in a stomach, wooden belly, disappearance the hepatic dullness,
"sickle" under the right dome of diaphragm
E. combinations of signs are equivalent
769. For acute intestinal obstruction the followings types of operations are possible, except for:
A. * Gastrostomy
B. Right-side hemicolectomy
C. Resections of intestine
D. Colostomy
E. Hartmann's operation

B. knife-like pain;
E. melena;

A. * melena
772. For clarification character of the icterus and reason of it development is necessary to make:
A. X-ray examination of the subhepatic space, infusion cholecystography, ERCP
B. Sonography, ERCP
C. Infusion cholecystography, ERCP
D. * Sonography, infusion cholecystography, ERCP
E. ERCP
773. For clarification diagnosis of perforete ulcer used

A. Gastroscopy
B. X-ray of abdominal region
C. * X-ray of abdominal region, after gastroscopy, then X-ray of abdominal region
D. CT
E. There is not a right answer
774. For differentiation of acute appendicitis with the covered perforete ulcer useful
A. gastroduodenoscopy, X-ray of abdominal region, laparoscopy
B. gastroduodenoscopy, X-ray of abdominal region, Sonography of abdominal region
C. survey X-ray of abdominal region, Sonography of abdominal region, irrigoscopy
D. X-ray of abdominal region, irrigoscopy
E. * X-ray of abdominal region, laparoscopy
775. For intestinal obstruction caused by invagination is characteristic:

A. * Bloody discharges from rectum
B. The wave-like abdominal pain
C. Tumurous formation in a right iliac area by palpation
D. Bolus-like feces
E. Atony of rectal sphincter

777. For paralytic intestinal obstruction is characteristic:

A. * Delay of stool and gases and acute distension of abdomen
B. Asymmetry of abdomen
C. The expressed wave-like pain in the abdominal cavity
D. Zege-Maitenphel's sign
E. Effusion in the abdominal cavity
778. For perforative appendicitis characteristically

A. tension the muscles of front abdominal wall
B. there is the sudden strengthening of stomach-aches
C. rapid growth of clinical picture the peritonitis
D. Razdolskuy’s symptom

B. melena
780. For peritonitis in the first 24 hours not typical

A. aperistalsis intestine
B. * Kullenkamp’s symptom
C. Tachycardia
D. dry language
E. tension the muscles of abdominal wall and positive Shchetkin-Blyumberg’s symptom
781. For peritonitis there is a not characteristic symptom:

A. Shchetkin-Blyumberg’s symptom
B. Voskresenskiy’s symptom
C. Kulenkampf’s symptom
D. * Moebius’s symptom
E. Krymov’s symptom

A. * Zhober’s;
B. Khelatid’s;
C. Podlag’s;
D. Vigats’s;
E. Udin’s.

784. For the high small intestinal obstruction is not characteristic:

A. * Zege-Maitenphel's sign
C. Splashing sound” (Sklyarov's sign)
D. Multiple vomiting
E. Cloyber's cups on X-ray
785. For the late stage of peritonitis all is characteristic, except for:
A. swelling of stomach
B. hypovolemia
C. disappearance of intestinal noises
D. hypoproteinemia
E. * increased peristalsis
786. For the low large intestinal obstruction all is characteristic, except for:
A. * Rapid dehydration
B. Delay of stool
C. Appearances of Cloyber's cups
D. Gradual progression of symptoms
E. Abdominal distension
787. For the reactive stage of festering peritonitis not characteristically:

A. acute sickliness the stomach at palpation
B. positive Shchetkin-Blyumberg’s symptom
C. tension of muscles the front abdominal wall
D. * face of «Hippocrates»
E. tachycardia
788. For the terminal stage of peritonitis not characteristically:

A. tachycardia
B. * bradycardia
C. hyperthermia
D. falling of arteriotony
E. dynamic intestinal impassability
789. For the treatment measures in obturation intestinal obstruction all mentioned belong, except:
A. * Prescribing of medicines which increase intestinal peristalsis
B. Prescribing of spasmolytics
C. Performing of siphon enema
D. Introducing of nasogastral tube for intestinal decompression
E. Corrections of water-electrolytes disturbances
790. For what purpose in treatment of diffusive festering peritonitis does execute nasointestinal
intubation?
A. account of losses the liquid through a gastroenteric highway.
B. control of electrolyte composition the intestinal maintenance
C. * prophylaxis of intestinal impassability
D. stimulation of the intestinal peristalsis
E. suppression of the intestinal peristalsis
A. gastric fundus
B. * cardial pert;
D. from duodenal;

A. over 4,5 cm
B. * over 3 cm
C. over 4 cm
D. over 5 cm
E. over 3,5 cm
793. Hectic fever is possible at

A. the uncomplicated ulcer
B. bleeding from an ulcer
C. perforations of ulcer in the first clock
D. * penetration
E. cicatricle-ulcerous stenosis
794. Hemobilia is
795. Hepatic dullness is not determined at

A. break of spleen
B. * perforations of gastric ulcer
C. break of bud
D. volvulus of stomach
E. mesenterial ishemia
796. How is the diagnosis of the general peritonitis set to the operation?
A. roentgenologic
B. anamnestetic
C. by laboratory determination the signs of inflammatory reaction
D. * on clinical signs
E. on the level secretion the gastric juice
797. In a patient with pains in a epigastric area, what was displaced from a right iliac area. There
was nausea and single vomiting. A patient accepted an analgin and put a hot-water bottle to the
stomach, pains calmed down whereupon. On 2 days pains recommenced, spread on all
stomach, the frequent vomiting appeared. The state of patient is heavy. Consciousness
entangled. Euphoria. Pulse 128 in min, AP - 95/60. Language is dry. A stomach is tense in all
departments. Temperature 37,2. Leucocytes in blood of 18? 109/l. Diagnosis
A. * acute appendicitis, terminal stage of peritonitis
B. typhoid, perforation of typhoidal ulcer
C. perforation gastric ulcer
D. gastric bleeding
798. In a patient, suffering ulcerous illness, sudden great pain in an epigastrium and unclear
A. typical perforation of ulcer
C. preperforete state
D. intensifying the ulcerous illness
799. In an induction centre the sick is delivered with the attacks of cramps. Many years suffers
ulcerous illness. Lately the daily vomiting appeared practically by the eaten food. Exhausted,
in a эпигастральной area pigmentation of skin. A capotement is determined. Diagnosis
A. malignization
B. bleeding
C. * stenosis
D. perforation
E. penetration
800. In classic motion of peritonitis select the stages:

A. early, intermediate, late
B. reactive, intermediate, late
C. toxic, intoxication, terminal
D. * reactive, toxic, terminal
E. reactive, toxic, late
801. In patient of 82 years old with acute intestinal obstruction caused by the tumour of sigmoid
intestine, who entered in late terms, the most rational tactic of treatment is the following:
A. * Preparing for the operation during 2-3 hours with following performance of
Hartmann's operation
B. Examination and performance of operation in 48-72 hours
C. Only conservative therapy
D. Infusion therapy and repeated siphon enemas
E. Urgent operation with performance of sigmoid intestine resection and anastomosis
"end to end"
802. In the dynamics of acute peritonitis it is necessary positive to consider

A. * decline of amount the leucocytes
B. increase of amount the leucocytes
C. leucocytosis with the change of leukocytic formula to the left
D. growth of the leukocytic index intoxication
E. leukopenia
803. In the moment of perforation the gastric or duodenum ulcer meets most often
A. * suddenly arising up megalgia
B. cramp-like pain
C. noncommunicative, moderate pain
D. liquid chair
E. tachycardia
A. correction water-electrolyte violations
B. sanitization of abdominal region
C. removal the source of peritonitis
D. * all answers are faithful
E. antibacterial therapy
805. In treatment of ulcerous illness the stomach and duodenum executed only on urgent
indications
A. stomach resection by Bilrot-II
B. * sewing up of the perforete opening
C. selective-proximal vagotomy
D. trunk vagotomy with a pyloroplasty
E. stomach resection by Bilrot-I
rarely?
E. pylorus.
807. In what type of intestinal obstruction one of the symptom is the red water after a cleaning
enema:
A. * Intestinal infarction
B. Paralytic
C. Spastic
E. Invagination
808. In what type of intestinal obstruction one of the symptom will be a blood discharge from
rectum:
A. * Invagination
B. Paralytic
C. Spastic
E. Intestinal infarction

A. * V. Portae;
B. V. odd;
C. V. pair;
E. V. lower hollow;

72 hours
811. Indications to special intraoperaive examination bilious ways

A. * A cholangitis, expansion of the common bile duct, plural shallow concrements in a
gall-bladder, mechanical icterus in anamnesis
B. Cholangitis, expansion of the common bile duct, plural shallow concrements in a
gall-bladder
C. Expansion of the common bile duct, icterus in the moment of operation, plural shallow
D. Expansion of the common bile duct, mechanical icterus in anamnesis
E. All right
812. Intraoperative cholangiograpy at cholecystectomy used for

A. Researches of peristalsis the general bilious channel
B. Retrograde filling of intrahepatic bilious channels
C. Researches tone the sphincter Oddi
D. * Exceptions concrements in channels
E. Exposures cholangitis
813. Laparostomy at the diffusive peritonitis used with a purpose

A. * to repeated sanitization the abdominal region
B. extracorporal dialysis
C. hemosorption
D. laparoscopy
E. stimulations the peristalsis
814. Large intestine obstruction is more frequently caused:

A. * By the malignant tumours of intestine
B. Foreign bodies
C. By the adhesions of abdominal cavity
D. By gall-stones
E. Helmints

A. 1-4 cm
B. 1-3 cm
C. 3-5 cm
D. 2- 6 cm
E. * 2-3 cm
816. Least answers a subhepatic abscess:

A. Senator’s symptom
B. Dyushen’s symptom
C. Liten’s symptom
D. * Rovzing’s symptom
E. ShchotkiN-Blyumberg’s symptom
817. Middle laparotomy must be conducted at:

B. local unlimited peritonitis
C. abscess of Duglas space
D. periappendiceal infiltration
E. acute appendicitis
818. Most frequent reason of peritonitis

A. posoperative complication
B. acute trauma of stomach
C. acute cholecystitis
D. * acute appendicitis
819. Most guarantee against the recedive of ulcer during an operation concerning ulcerous
diseases of duodenum gives
A. selective-proximal vagotomy
B. trunks vagotomy with a pyloroplasty
C. * resection no less than a 2/3 stomach
D. antrumectomy with selective vagotomy
E. veritable antrumectomy
820. Most informing method diagnostics the perforate ulcers

A. X-ray examination
B. Sonography
C. EGDS
D. * laparoscopy
E. laparocentezis
821. 116. Most widespread laparoscopic operation at bile-stone illness:

A. Cholecystectomy with revision the bilious ways
B. Ideal cholecysectomy
C. * Choledoholitotomy
D. Cholecystectomy
822. Name the most important method of investigation in the diagnostic of „acute intestinal
obstruction”:
A. * Research of barium passage trough intestine
B. Plain X-ray of abdominal cavity
C. Fibrogastroduodenoscopy
D. Laparoscopy
E. Biochemical blood analysis
823. Normal width of the common bile duct

A. To 0,4 cm
B. * 0,5-0,7 cm
C. 0,8-1,3 cm
D. 1,4-2,0 cm
E. Over 2,0 cm
824. Numbers of complications the ulcerous illness

A. * 5
B. 4
C. 1
D. 3
E. 2
825. Pain in the left shoulder can be rather at

A. acute cholecystitis
B. perforations the ulcer of duodenum
C. * perforations the gastric ulcer
D. mesenteric lymphadenitis

827. Patient with a gangrenous cholecystitis is indicating:

B. Operation at default of effect from conservative therapy
D. Deferred operation
828. Penetration of gastric content in an abdominal region possibly at

A. bleeding
B. stenosis
C. penetration
D. malignixation
E. * perforations
829. Peritonitis does not develop at the next form of acute appendicitis
A. * catarrhal
B. phlegmonous
C. gangrenous
D. perforatiove
E. gangrenous-perforatiove
830. Postoperative peritonitis is characterized a flow:

A. typical
B. * atypical
C. stormy
D. with the expressed pain reaction
E. with the expressed intoxication
831. Preoperated complication of acute appendicitis

B. intra-abdominal bleeding
C. suppuration of wound
D. eventeration wounds
E. there are not a right answer
832. Preoperative preparation for patients from peritonitis does not provide:
A. corrections the violations cardiovascular system
B. * laparocentzis
C. declines the intoxication
D. corrections the exchange violations
E. struggle with hy hypovolemia
833. Rational operation at the subcompensated ulcerous stenosis of pylorus

A. antrumectomy
B. * resection 2/3 stomach
C. front gastroenteroanastomosis
D. gastrectomy
E. selective proximal vagotomy
834. Relaparotomy at difuusive festering peritonitis pursues:

A. * repeated revision of abdominal region
B. repeated laparoscopy of abdominal region
C. repeated endoscopy of abdominal region
D. normalization the function of gall-bladder
E. normalization the function of urinary bladder

836. Specific symptom of perforation declivous organ in a free abdominal region is:
A. high leucocytosis.
B. absence of intestinal noises.
C. * pneumoperitoneum.
D. positive symptoms of irritation the peritoneum.
E. dulling of the percusion sound in the gently sloping places of abdominal region
837. Specify a criterion which grounds the choice of middle laoarotomy access at the deffusion
festering peritonitis:
A. minimum trauma the abdominal wall
B. minimum cut
C. * valuable revision the abdominal region.
D. minimum blood loss.
E. minimum level of infecting the wound
838. Specify obligatory measures which are conducted during an operation concerning
widespread fibrinopurulent peritonitis:
A. removal the source of peritonitis.
B. sanitization of the abdominal region.
C. decompression of intestine.
D. draining of abdominal region.
E. * all answers are faithful
839. Specify possible reasons of the pseudoperitoneal syndrome:

A. uremia.
B. porphyria.
C. diabetic crisis.
D. nephrocolic.
840. Specify reason of use the derivatives of metronidasoli as an obligatory component of

antibacterial therapy of widespread peritonitis?
B. removal of mycotic flora.
C. removal of microflora of aerobic.
D. prophylaxis of intestinal worm invasion.
E. prophylaxis of widespread candidosis
841. Specify the most rational way the introduction of antibacterial preparations in treatment of
diffusive festering peritonitis:
A. peroral
B. hypodermic
C. intramuscular
D. * intravenous
E. intraperitoneal
842. Sudden and painful pain with localization in the middle departments of stomach with an
irradiation in the back more characteristic for
A. heart attack the myocardium
B. * break aneurysm the aorta
C. bilious colic
D. perforate ulcers
E. nephrocolic
843. Symptom of the toxic «scissors» at peritonitis it:

A. increase of temperature and pulse
B. diminishing of temperature and pulse
C. * diminishing of temperature and increase of pulse
D. increase of temperature and diminishing of pulse
E. increase of temperature and diminishing of breathing frequency
844. Symptom of toxic «scissors» at the peritinitis it is correlation:

A. * pulse and temperature
B. arteriotony and pulse
C. arteriotony and temperature
D. rectal and axillar temperature
E. rate breathings and temperatures
845. Tactic of family doctor during the covered perforation of ulcer

A. * urgent hospitalization in surgical permanent establishment
B. planned hospitalization in surgical permanent establishment
C. supervision on to the house
D. hospitalization in therapeutic permanent establishment
846. Tactic of surgeon at periappendiceal mas:

A. operative treatment
B. * conservative treatment, systematic looking after a patient
C. there is not a right answer
D. supervision
E. punction
847. Tension of abdominal wall and stage peritonitis at acute appendicitis

A. * absents, a stomach is swollen - terminal
B. absents, a stomach is not swollen - terminal
C. expressed, a stomach is not swollen - terminal
D. absents, a stomach is swollen - toxic
E. absents, a stomach is swollen – initial
848. Tension of muscles the right iliac area at the perforation of duodenal ulcer is explained
A. by development of the diffusive peritonitis
B. by reflex connections through medullispinal nerves
C. * flowing down of gastric content in a right lateral channel
D. entering of air abdominal region
E. viscero0visceral connections with a vermicular appendix
849. Tension the muscles of stomach in an initial period of perforation ulcer

A. absents
B. * visible
C. sickliness under the left shoulder-blade
D. appears at palpation
850. The attack of hepatic (bilious) colic development

851. The best variant the treatment of subhepatic abscess is:

B. extra-peritoneal section and draining
C. laparotomy, section and tamponing of cavity
D. * punction of abscess by a thick needle under control Sonography
E. all transferred right
852. The complex treatment of festering peritonitis does not provide for:
A. delete of primary hearth
B. * vagotomy
C. correction the metabolic violations
D. adequate therapy by antibiotics
E. struggle of paresis the intestine
853. The development of paralytic intestinal obstruction is caused by all mentioned except for:
A. * Leaden poisoning
B. Peritonitis
C. Acute pancreatitis
D. Retroperitoneal hematoma
E. Disorders of mesenterial circulation of blood
854. The diagnostic measures which immediately performed in suspicion on acute intestinal
obstruction include everything, except:
A. * Angiography of abdominal cavity
B. Auscultation of abdomen
C. Plain X-ray of abdominal cavity
D. Introducing of nasogastal tube for the decompression of intestine
E. Palpation of abdomen, digital examination of rectum
855. The diagnostics criteria of the anaerobic peritonitis is

A. stormy progress of disease
B. heavy festering intoxication
C. expressed enteroplegia
D. abundant amount of exsudate green-brown colors
856. The exsudate painted blood in an abdominal region is observed always, except for:
A. * tubercular peritonitis
B. violations of extra-uterine pregnancy
D. acute pancreatitis
E. twisted oothecoma
857. The favourable result of treatment the patients with peritonitis provide:
A. early surgical interference
B. adequate operation
C. intravenous antibacterial therapy
D. methods of extracorporal dialysis
858. The index litogenic bile is determined correlation

A. Cholesterol, billirubine and lecithin
B. Billirubine, bilious acids and lecithin
C. Cholesterol, bilious acids and bilirubine
D. * Cholesterol, bilious acids and lecithin
E. Billirubine and lecithin
859. The leading symptom of peritonitis is:

A. stomach-ache
B. enteroplegia
C. swelling of stomach
D. * symptoms the irritation of peritoneum
E. symptoms of the intestinal impassability

A. * Break pus hydatidoma
B. To the protracted mechanical icterus
C. Spontaneous bilious peritonitis
D. Perforations of gall-bladder
E. Perforations the ulcer of duodenum
861. The methods of disintoxication at peritonitis are not:

A. lymphosorbtion
B. hemosorption
C. enterosorbtion
D. plasmapheresis
E. * antibiotic
862. The most frequent cause of small intestine mechanical obstruction is:
A. * Adhesions of abdominal cavity
B. Gall-stones
C. Foreign bodies
D. Tumours
E. Helmints
863. The most informing method the instrumental diagnostics of peritonitis is:
A. * survey sciagraphy of abdominal region
B. lasparoscopy
C. angiography
D. gastroscopy
E. colonoscopy
864. The patient of 62 years old grumbles about a weakness, fatigue ability, sometimes moderate
pains and sense of weight in an anticardium, vomiting after-meal. Sick about 6 months. The
pallor of skin covers, sickliness and compression is marked in a epigastric area, a reaction with
a benzidine is acutely positive, haemoglobin is 52 g/l, eras. 2,5. At x-ray research pyloric
department of stomach the defect of filling is determined 3х2 cm, displaced at palpation.
Complication
A. * bleeding, anaemia
B. stenosis
C. penetration, germination in surrounding organs
D. perforation
E. malignization
865. The sign of the diffusive peritonitis is not

A. * visible peristalsis
B. absence the peristaltic intestinal noises
C. sickliness of stomach at palpation in all departments
D. even tension the muscles of front abdominal wall
E. positive Shchetkin-Blyumberg’s symptom
866. The special research extrahepatic bilious ways is absolutely indicated at:
A. Shallow stone in common bile duct, suspicion on stenosis the large duodenal papilla,
expansion of the common bile duct, mechanical icterus in the moment of operation
B. Suspicion on stenosis of large duodenal papilla, expansion of the common bile duct,
C. At expansion of the common bile duct
D. * All right
E. All not right
867. The ways distribution of gastroenteric content during the perforation of ulcer depend on
A. anatomic structure of the lateral ductings
B. locations of stomach
C. localizations of the perforate opening
D. * only transferred
E. forms and locations of transversal rim bowel
868. There is vomiting at peritonitis, as a rule:

A. single
B. episodic
C. * frequent
D. abundant
E. scanty
C. profuse bleeding
870. To determine the viability of strangulated intestine it is necessary to be oriented on the

followings signs, except:
A. * Presence of strangulation groove
B. Color of intestine
C. Presence of peristalsis
D. The pulsation of mesenteric vessels
E. All answers are incorrect

D. Menetrie's sing;
872. To the initial phase the peritonitis of appendicle origin does not behave
A. sickliness the pelvic peritoneum at rectal research
B. tachycardia
C. * noticeable electrolyte changes
D. tendency to growth leucocytosis
E. tension of muscles the abdominal wall
873. To the late stage of peritonitis of appendicle origin does not behave
A. dehydration
B. swelling of stomach
C. * increased peristalsis
D. hypoproteinemia
E. disappearance of intestinal noises
874. To the local isolated peritonitis does not attribute:

A. subdiaphragmatic abscess
B. subhepatic abscess
C. interintestinal abscess
D. * primary idiopathic peritonitis
E. abscess cystic-rectal spaces

876. Ulcerous diaeases behaves to the diseases

A. innate
B. because of alcoholism
C. because of the broken circulation of blood
D. * hronic recurrent
E. traumatic

duodwnum?
A. perforation
C. pylorus stenosis
E. * bleeding
A. * trichopol
B. Licviroton
C. oxiferiskorbon
D. atropine
E. pirinzsipin
883. What from the transferred diseases can be reason of the pseudoperitoneal syndrome?
A. dissecting aneurysm of the abdominal part of aorta.
B. Extraperitoneal haematoma.
C. Nephrolithiasis, nephrocolic
D. Thrombosis the pelvis veins
A. trunk vagotomy
D. gastrectomy
except for
A. * ACTH
C. prostaglandin E
D. estrogens
E. STH

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891. What kind of operation is more rationally to perform for the patient with the cancer of
caecum, complicated by acute intestinal obstruction in early terms of the disease:
A. * Right-side hemicolectomy with ileotransversoanastomosis
B. Formation of ileostomy
C. Formation of caecostomy
D. Hartmann's operation
E. Mikulich's operation
E. small curvature

C. X-ray

A. Cyanocobalamin
B. Ubretid
C. Arginine
D. * Sandostatin
E. Benzogeksoniy
E. Cystogastrostomy
E. Cystogastrostomy
897. What must be done in the case of development the posoperative peritonitis?
D. to execute lasparoscopy
E. * to execute laparotomy
the pancreas:
C. Cystogastrostomy

C. Cystogastrostomy
C. Cystogastrostomy

A. * tavegil
B. obzidan
C. hystdol
D. cerucal
E. oraza
A. cymetidin
B. eglonin
C. * gastocepini
D. etimsiloli
E. vinylin
pancreatitis:
A. Pyracetam
B. Papaverin
C. Pantocrin
D. * Panzinorm
E. Panthenol
A. Cyanocobalamin
B. Methyluracil
C. * 5-fluorouracil
D. Furadolizon
E. Mezimforte
B. Almagel
C. Vinylin
D. De-nol
E. Claritromycin

B. pancakes
C. raw egg-white
D. bread rye fresh
E. acute cheeses
907. What surgical pathology is a characteristic symptom of toxic «scissors» ?

A. appendicitis
B. cholecystitis
C. pancreatitis
D. * peritonitis
E. mesadenitis
908. What symptom is most characteristic in the initial phase of peritonitis:

A. sickliness and overhanding of pelvic peritoneum at rectal research.
B. dulling in declivous places at percusion of stomach
C. * tension of muscles the front abdominal wall.
D. swelling of stomach
E. melena

A. * ulcerous
B. hemorragic;
C. pain;

A. * 6 – 12 hours;
B. 6 – 10 hours;
C. 6 – 8 hours
D. 6 – 14 hours;
E. 6 – 20 hours
911. What type of peritonitis are fibrinogenous impositions at on a parietal and visceral
peritoneum?
A. at serosal.
B. at festering.
C. at fibrinogenous
D. at putrid.
E. * at all
A. hypocalcemia
B. * hypokaliemia
C. Hyponatremia
D. Hypercalcinemia
E. hyperkaliemia

914. Widespread festering peritonitis is investigation of all above-stated diseases, except for:
A. perforative ulcers of duodenum
B. phlegmonous cholecystitis
C. * hydrocholecystiss
D. destructive pancreatitis
E. volvulus of sigmoid bowel
915. With what disease above all things is it necessary to differentiate the acute peritonitis?
A. bronchitis
B. enterorrhagia
C. anaemia
D. * acute vascular purpura
E. endotoxicosis
916. The “light intervals” is characteristic for such phase of acute intestinal obstruction:
A. Ileus scream"
B. Intoxications
C. Terminal
D. Initial manifestations
E. False improvement
917. A typical sign for invagination in irrigoscopy is:

A. Cockades”
B. Candles”
C. Rat tail”
D. Spizharny's sign
918. Acute intestinal obstruction according to the level of obstruction is divided on:
A. * Small intestinal, large intestinal
B. Small intestinal, large intestinal, caecal
C. High, low, middle
D. Long, short
E. High, small intestinal, large intestinal
919. Acute intestinal obstruction according to the origin is divided on:

A. * Dynamic and mechanical
B. Dynamic and paralytic
C. Dynamic, spastic and strangulation
D. Strangulation and spastic
E. Mechanical and paralytic
920. Appearance „splashing sound” in acute intestinal obstruction is caused:

A. * By the accumulation of liquid and gases in the afferent loop of intestine
B. By the accumulation of liquid and gases in the efferent loop of intestine
C. By the presence of liquid in the abdominal cavity
D. By the presence of free gas in the abdominal cavity
E. By the presence of free gas and liquid in the abdominal cavity
921. Arterial mesenteric acute intestinal obstruction belongs to:

A. * obturation
B. Strangulation
C. Paralytic
D. spastic
E. Mixed
922. Bloody discharge during eneme in acute intestinal obstruction is the sign of:
A. * Hemodynamic intestinal obstruction as the result of mesenteric thrombosis
B. Obturation intestinal obstruction
C. Strangulation intestinal obstruction
D. Adhesive intestinal obstruction
E. Hemorrhoids
923. Choose the correct algorithm of operative intervation for the III stage of acute intestinal
obstruction:
A. * Laparotomy, liquidation of the source of peritonitis, intestinal intubation, sanation
of abdominal cavity, suturing of the abdomen or laparostomy
B. Laparotomy, liquidation of obstruction, intestinal intubation, sanation of abdominal
cavity, suturing of the abdomen
C. Laparotomy, liquidation of obstruction, intestinal intubation, sanation of abdominal
cavity, laparostomy
D. Laparotomy, liquidation of obstruction, intestinal intubation, sanation of abdominal
E. Laparotomy, liquidation of obstruction, liquidation of peritonitis, sanation of
abdominal cavity, suturing of the abdomen
924. Choose the correct algorithm of the operative intervation for the II stage of acute intestinal
obstruction :
A. * Laparotomy, liquidation of obstruction, intestinal intubation, sanation of abdominal
B. Laparotomy, liquidation of the source of peritonitis, sanation of abdominal cavity,
suturing of the abdomen
C. Laparotomy, liquidation of obstruction, sanation of abdominal cavity, suturing of the
abdomen
D. Laparotomy, liquidation of obstruction, intestinal intubation, sanation of abdominal
cavity, laparostomy
E. Laparotomy, liquidation of obstruction, liquidation of the source of peritonitis,
intestinal intubation, sanation of abdominal cavity, suturing of the abdomen
925. Choose the operation, which is not performed in intestinal obstruction, caused by cancer of
sigmoid intestine:
A. * Collateral ileotransversoanastomosis
B. Obstructive resection (Hartmann's operation)
C. Colostomy
D. Resection of sigmoid intestine with anastomosis "end to end"
E. Resection of sigmoid intestine with closed anastomosis and temporal transversostomy
926. Choose the type of acute intestinal obstruction which is characterized by excretion of blood
from anus:
A. * Invagination of iliac intestine in caecum
B. Paralytic
C. Spastic
D. Volvulus of small intestine
927. Conservative treatment of intestinal obstruction is indicated in all cases, except for:
A. * Torsion
B. Spastic obstruction
C. Paralytic obstruction
D. Coprostasis
E. There is no right answer
928. Dehidratation of the organism in acute intestinal obstruction most rapidly develops in:
A. * Torsion of small intestine
B. Torsion of sygmoid intestine
C. Tumours of rectum with the phenomena of obstruction
D. Obturation large intestinal obstruction
E. Ileocaecal invagination
929. Describe the Kloiber's cups in large intestinal obstruction:

A. * Not wide, high, single
B. Wide, not high, maltiple
C. Not characteristic
D. Wide, not high, with folds
E. Of different size, localization
930. Describe the Kloiber's cups in small intestinal obstruction:

A. * Wide, not high, maltiple
B. Not wide, high, single
C. Not characteristic
D. Wide, not high, with folds
E. Of different size, localization
931. Disorders, resulting in spastic acute intestinal obstruction:

A. * All mentioned
B. Hysteria
C. Lead colics
D. Neuroses
E. None of mentioned
932. During the examination of patient with acute intestinal obstruction: the Zege-Maitenphel's
and "Obuhov's hospital" symptoms are positive. What type of obstruction it is characteristic
for?
A. * Sigmoid intestine torsion
B. Ileocaecal invagination
C. Obturation by the tumour of ascending intestine
E. All mentioned is correct
933. During the revision of the site of obstruction an afferent loop looks like:
A. * Dilated and overfull intestinal content
B. Spastic
C. Collapsed
D. The same as efferent loop
E. The diagnostics is not a necessary
934. Dynamic intestinal obstruction is divided on:

A. * Spastic, paralytic
B. Strangulation, obturation, mixed
C. Strangulation, spastic, paralytic
D. Mechanical, spastic, paralytic
935. For acute intestinal obstruction the followings types of operations are possible, except for:
A. * Gastrostomy
B. Right-side hemicolectomy
C. Resections of intestine
D. Colostomy
E. Hartmann's operation
936. For intestinal obstruction caused by invagination is characteristic:

A. * Bloody discharges from rectum
C. Tumurous formation in a right iliac area by palpation
D. Bolus-like feces
E. Atony of rectal sphincter
937. For paralytic intestinal obstruction is characteristic:

A. * Delay of stool and gases and acute distension of abdomen
C. The expressed wave-like pain in the abdominal cavity
D. Zege-Maitenphel's sign
E. Effusion in the abdominal cavity
938. For performance of siphon enema in acute intestinal obstruction it is necessary to prepare:
A. * 10 – 15 litres and more of warm water
B. 500 ml. of cold water
C. 1 litre of mineral water with gas
D. 5 litres of mineral water without gas
E. 500 ml. of warm water
939. For stimulation of peristalsis of intestine used:

A. * Proserin
B. No-spa
C. Analgin
D. Droperidol
E. Dimedrol
940. For strangulation is not typical:

A. * Normal body temperature
B. Tension of abdominal wall
C. Leucocytosis
D. Frequent vomit
E. Wahl's symptom
941. For strangulation is not typical:
A. * Leucopenia
B. Tension of abdominal wall
C. Frequent vomit
D. Body temperature 37,5°C and higher
E. Wahl's symptom
942. For the differential diagnostic of acute intestinal obstruction with perforative gastric ulcer it
is necessary to perform above all:
A. * Plain X-ray of abdominal cavity
B. Pneumogastrography
C. Roentgenoscopy of the abdomen
D. Gastroscopy
E. Laparoscopy
943. For the high small intestinal obstruction is not characteristic:

C. Splashing sound” (Sklyarov's sign)
E. Cloyber's cups on X-ray
944. For the initial stage of acute strangulation intestinal obstruction the most frequent first
symptom is:
A. * Primary reflex vomiting and pain shock
B. Appearance of outpouching of intestinal loops on abdominal wall (visible peristalsis)
C. Strengthening of peristalsis
D. Delay of stool and gases
E. Lost of peristalsis
945. For the low large intestinal obstruction all is characteristic, except for:
A. * Rapid dehydration
B. Delay of stool
C. Appearances of Cloyber's cups
D. Gradual progression of symptoms
E. Abdominal distension
946. For the patient of 72 years old, who entered in late term with acute intestinal obstruction
caused by the tumour of sigmoid intestine, the most acceptable tactic is the following:
A. * Preparation to the operation for 2-3 hours with following Hartmann's operation
B. Inspection and performance of operation in 48-72 hours
E. Urgent operation with resection of the intestine and anastomosis „end to end”
947. For the torsion of small intestine is not characteristic:

C. Splashing sound”
E. The wave-like abdominal pain
948. For the treatment measures in obturation intestinal obstruction all mentioned belong, except:
A. * Prescribing of medicines which increase intestinal peristalsis
B. Prescribing of spasmolytics
C. Performing of siphon enema
D. Introducing of nasogastral tube for intestinal decompression
E. Corrections of water-electrolytes disturbances
949. For what type of acute intestinal obstruction is possible the "syndrome of minor signs"?
A. * Obturation
B. Spastic
C. Strangulation
D. Invagination
E. All types
950. For which type of intestinal obstruction is characteristic the abcence of Sklyarov's, Wahl's
Kywul's signs?
A. * Spastic
B. Strangulation
C. Obturation
D. Invagination
951. If the disease begins from a sudden „knife” pain, it is characteristically for:
A. * Perforative gastric ulcer
B. Spastic acute intestinal obstruction
C. Volvulus
D. Peritonitis
E. Acute pancreatitis
952. If the high level of normal hematocrit is 40 %, what level of fluid must be infused on every
5 % increase in acute intestinal obstruction?
A. * 1000 ml. of liquid
B. 200 ml. of liquid
C. 2500 ml. of liquid
D. 100 ml. of liquid
E. Transfusion of liquid is not indicated
953. In acute intestinal obstruction the basic X-ray sign is:

A. * Air-fluid levels, Kloiber's cups
B. Expressed limitation of mobility of the right dome of diaphragm
C. Diffusely dilated loops of bowels
D. Free gas in the abdomen
E. Sklyarov's sign
954. In case of large intestine obstruction, the surgeon must begin the intraoperative revision:
A. * From cecum to the rectosygmoid part of colon
B. From cecum to the level of obstruction
C. From the level of obstruction to the rectosygmoid part of colon
D. A revision is not necessary
E. A revision is not performed
955. In case of small intestine obstruction, the surgeon must begin the intraoperative revision:
A. * From Treitz ligament to ileocecal angle
B. From Treitz ligament to the level of obstruction
C. From the level of obstruction to ileocecal angle
D. A revision is not necessary
E. A revision is not performed
956. In early period of acute small intestinal obstruction in the organism of patient observed all,
except:
A. * Decrease of hematoctritis
B. Dehidratation
C. Increase of hematoctritis
D. Decrease of blood potassium
E. There is no correct answer
957. In paralytic intestinal obstruction the stimulation of peristalsis of intestine is performed:

A. * Only after infusion therapy and correction of hypovolemia
B. Depending on age
C. Contra-indicated
D. Depending on a clinical situation
E. Not indicated
958. In patient 75 years old two days ago aroused up the volvulus of sigmoid intestine. On
operation wasfound out its necrosis, acute distension of the colon. What is the optimal variant
of the operation?
A. * Resection of sigmoid intestine with formation of colostomy
B. Resection of sigmoid intestine with anastomosis „end to end”
C. Resection of sigmoid intestine with anastomosis "side to side"
D. Sigmostomy
959. In patient of 42 years old after the considerable physical exertion appeared spastic pain in
the wholel abdomen, nausea, double vomiting, distension of abdomen, retention of gases. What
disease such clinical picture is characteristic for?
A. * Acute intestinal obstruction
B. Perforative gastric ulcer
D. Acute appendicitis
E. Acute gangrenous cholecystitis
960. In patient of 82 years old with acute intestinal obstruction caused by the tumour of sigmoid
intestine, who entered in late terms, the most rational tactic of treatment is the following:
A. * Preparing for the operation during 2-3 hours with following performance of
Hartmann's operation
B. Examination and performance of operation in 48-72 hours
E. Urgent operation with performance of sigmoid intestine resection and anastomosis
"end to end"
961. In patient was diagnosed acute intestinal obstruction caused by cancer of caecum. During an
urgent operation was revealed, that regional lymph nodes are not enlarged, the distant
metastases of the tumour are absent. What is the tactic?
A. * Right-side hemicolectomy
B. Caecostomy
C. Resection of caecum and ascending intestine
E. Ileostomy
962. In the initial stages of obturation colon obstruction the most valuable is the following
medical tactic:
A. * First conservative treatment and if it is failed – immediate operation
B. Urgent operation, that allows to prevent necrosis of intestine and its perforation
C. Performance of operation in 48-72 hours after inspection and establishment of the
cause of intestinal obstruction
D. Direct performance of operation with formation of colostomy or enterostomy
E. Direct performance of Hartmann's operation
963. In what case the drainage of the abdominal cavity is inadvisable in operative treatment of
acute intestinal obstruction?
A. * None of mentioned cases
B. In formation of anastomosis
C. In formation of haematoma
D. In formation of stoma
E. In all these cases
964. In what type of intestinal obstruction one of the symptom is the red water after a cleaning
enema:
A. * Intestinal infarction
B. Paralytic
C. Spastic
E. Invagination
965. In what type of intestinal obstruction one of the symptom will be a blood discharge from
rectum:
A. * Invagination
B. Paralytic
C. Spastic
966. Increased and loud peristaltic noises in early period of the disease are characteristic for:
A. * mechanical intestinal obstruction
B. paralytic intestinal obstruction
C. Perforative gastric ulcer
D. Gangrenous cholecystitis
E. Thrombosis of mesenteric vessels
967. Invagination much more frequent in:

A. * Children
B. Pregnant
C. Elderly people
D. Teenagers
E. Does not depend on age
968. Is a fecal vomit is characteristic sign for acute intestinal obstruction?

A. * Yes, in III phase
B. Yes, in I phase
C. Never
D. Always
E. In obturation acute intestinal obstruction
969. Is it reasonable to perform a paranephral blockade in acute intestinal obstruction?
A. * Yes
B. No
C. Yes, except strangulation
D. Yes, except obturation
E. Contraindicated
970. Is obligatory the consultation of anesthesiologist at suspicion on acute intestinal obstruction:

A. * Yes
B. No
C. Only anaesthesist
D. Only internist
E. Only one of them
971. Is obligatory the digital examination of rectum at suspicion on acute intestinal obstruction?
A. * Yes
B. No, if you know that acute intestinal obstruction is of obturative origin
C. Yes, if you know that acute intestinal obstruction is of obturative origin
D. No
E. Yes, except for children, pregnant
972. Is obligatory the X-ray examination at suspicion on acute intestinal obstruction?

A. * Yes
B. No, if you know that acute intestinal obstruction is of obturative origin
C. Yes, if you know that acute intestinal obstruction is of obturative origin
D. No
E. Yes, except for children and pregnant
973. Is the intestinal obstruction suitable in the treatment of ²-²² stage of acute intestinal
obstruction?
A. * Yes
B. No
C. Only in the case of formation of anastomosis
D. Only in strangulation acute intestinal obstruction
E. Only in obturation acute intestinal obstruction
974. Is the programmable laparostomy suitable in the treatment of ²-²² stage of acute intestinal
obstruction?
A. * No
B. Yes
C. Only in the case of formation of anastomosis
D. Only in strangulation acute intestinal obstruction
E. Only in obturation acute intestinal obstruction
975. Large intestine obstruction is more frequently caused:

A. * By the malignant tumours of intestine
B. Foreign bodies
C. By the adhesions of abdominal cavity
D. By gall-stones
E. Helmints
976. Mechanical intestinal obstruction is divided on:

A. * Strangulation, obturation, mixed
B. Mechanical, spastic, paralytic
C. Strangulation, spastic, paralytic
D. Spastic, paralytic
977. Mechanism of the development of intestinal obstruction, caused by gall-stones:

A. * Stones produce bile acids which irritatethea bowel causing its spasm
B. Stones mechanically irritate the wall of the bowel and causing its spasm
C. Stones secrete toxic substances which irritate the wall of the bowel causing its spasm
D. Stones obturate the lumen of the bowel
E. All answers are correct
978. Name a radical operation in the volvulus of sygmoid colon:

A. * A resection of sygmoid colon in any modifications
B. Mesosygmoplication
C. Gartman's operation
D. Mesosygmopexia
E. Detorsion of volvulus
979. Name a tactical error during performance of operation for intestinal obstruction:
A. * Refuse of intestine intubation
B. Resection of necrotic part of bowel
C. Lavage of abdominal cavity
D. Draining of abdominal cavity
E. Liquidation of obstruction
980. Name duration of conservative treatment of acute intestinal obstruction in the stage of
compensation?
A. * 5-7 days
B. 1-2 days
C. 12-24 hours
D. To 12 hours
E. not less than 2 weeks
981. Name the causes of intestinal obstruction:

A. * All mentioned causes
B. Long mesentery of small or large intestine which results in the mobility of their loops
C. Tumours of the abdominal cavity and retroperitoneal space
D. None of mentioned
E. Adhesions of abdominal cavity
982. Name the character of peristalsis in the oncet of the acute intestinal obstruction:
A. * Hyperperistalsis
B. Normal peristalsis
C. Absent
D. Variable
E. Heard only in regions upper the obstruction
983. Name the leading signs of acute intestinal obstruction:

A. * Wave-like pain, vomiting, delay of gases and stool
B. Knife-like” pain, wooden abdomen, proper anamnesis
C. Knife-like” pain, wooden abdomen, vomiting
D. Wave-like pain, anaemia
E. Nausea, loss of appetite, metallic taste in the mouth
984. Name the method of examination which is not obligatory in acute intestinal obstruction:
A. * All are obligatory
B. General blood analysis
C. General urine analysis
D. Coagulogramm
E. Electrolytes
985. Name the methods of intestinal intubation:

A. * All types are acceptable, depending on a clinical situation
B. Through gastrostoma
C. Through ceco- or appendicostoma
D. Through the rectum
E. Nasogasral
986. Name the methods of operative treatment of acute intestinal obstruction for preventing of its
relapse:
A. * Operations of Noble and Child-Pott
B. Gartman's operation
C. Anisevich operation
D. Kirsh operation
E. Zeremin-cummel operation
987. Name the most frequent causes of obturation intestinal obstruction:

A. * All mentioned
B. Scar and inflammatory stricture
C. Foreign bodies
D. Helmints
E. Tumours
988. Name the most frequent form of colon volvulus:

A. * Volvulus of sygmoid colon
B. Volvulus of cecum
C. Volvulus of ascending colon
D. Volvulus of appendix
E. Volvulus of descending colon
989. Name the most important method of investigation in the diagnostic of „acute intestinal
obstruction”:
A. * Research of barium passage trough intestine
B. Plain X-ray of abdominal cavity
C. Fibrogastroduodenoscopy
D. Laparoscopy
E. Biochemical blood analysis
990. Name the most severe form of strangulation intestinal obstruction:

A. * Nodulus
B. Volvulus
C. Adhesive intestinal obstruction
D. Invagination
E. None of the mentioned forms
991. Name the operation of choice in intestinal obstruction caused by solid colon tumour of
hepatic angle (T3N0M0):
A. * Right-side hemicolectomy with formation of ileotransversoanastomosis and
obligatory intestinal intubation
B. Right-side hemicolectomy without intestinal intubation
C. Collateral anastomosis without the removal of tumour
D. A resection of hepatic angle of colon with ascendotransversoanastomosis
E. Formation of ileostomy in the right iliac region
992. Necrosis of intestine is possible in all variants of intestinal obstruction, except for:
A. * Obturation of small intestine by gall-stone
B. Torsion of small intestine
C. Nodulus
D. Hernia strangulation
E. Acute mesenteric obstruction
993. Optimal access in the operative treatment of acute intestinal obstruction is:
A. * Middle laparotomy
B. Phanenstil's
C. Vinkelman's
D. Fedorov's
E. Right pararectal
994. Select the phases of the clinical course of acute intestinal obstruction:
A. Ilius scream”, intoxication, terminal
B. Initial, to development
C. Initial, intoxications „ilius scream”
D. Ilius scream”, purulent, septic complications
E. Acute onset, false improvement, peritonitis
995. Stool and gases in volvulus of small intestine:

A. * Is possible in case of high localization of obstruction
B. Is possible after digital examination of rectum
C. Impossible
D. Is possible in case of low localization of obstruction
E. Is possible after washing out of the stomach
996. Tactic of treatment of acute sigmoid torsion without the visual changes of intestine consists
of:
A. * Detorsion of sigmoid intestine with mesosigmoplication
B. Colostomy
C. Resection with primary anastomosis
E. Liquidation of torsion
997. The "trident", "crescent" signs are characteristic for such type of acute intestinal obstruction,
as:
A. * Invagination
B. Spastic
C. Obturation
D. Strangulation
E. All kinds
998. The absolute indication for operative treatment of acute intestinal obstructionº:
A. * III phase of the course of acute intestinal obstruction
B. II phase of the course of acute intestinal obstruction
C. I phase of the course of acute intestinal obstruction
D. The prolonged anamnesis of acute intestinal obstruction
E. Dynamic acute intestinal obstruction
999. The acute obstruction of duodeno-jejunal junction is characterized by:

A. * Vomiting by bile
B. The phenomena of paralytic intestinal obstruction
C. Diffuse distension of abdomen
D. Delay of stool and gases
E. Tenesmi
1000. The air-fluid levels (Kloiber's cups) are not characteristic for such type of acute intestinal
obstruction, as:
A. * Spastic
B. Paralytic
C. Obturation
D. Invagination
E. All kinds
1001. The cause of obturation intestinal obstruction includes all, except:

A. * Torsion of intestinal mesentery
B. Inflammatory adhesions
C. Gall-stones
D. Invagination
E. Compression by tumour
1002. The contributory factor of the development of obturation is:

A. * Stool stones
B. Long intestinal mesentery
C. Adhesions in abdominal cavity
D. All of mentioned
1003. The contributory factor of the development of strangulation is:

A. * Long intestinal mesentery
B. Stool stones
C. Gall-stones
D. Tumour
1004. The criteria of the efficiency of gastrointestinal tract passage renewal during conservative
therapy of acute intestinal obstruction is:
A. * Pulling of gases and stool
B. Normalization of rectal temperature
C. Absence of Shchotkin-Blumberg's sign
D. Feeling of heartburn
1005. The criterion of the conservative therapy efficiency of acute intestinal obstruction is:
A. * Absence of Sklyarov's sign
B. Absence of Shchotkin-Blumberg's sign
C. Absence of Sitkovsky's sign
D. Normalization of rectal temperature
1006. The decompression of gastrointestinal tract includess everything, except:
A. * Lavage of abdominal cavity
B. Endoscopic intubation
C. Enterotomy with aspiration
D. Washing of the stomach
E. Performing of siphon enema
1007. The development of paralytic intestinal obstruction is caused by all mentioned except for:
A. * Leaden poisoning
B. Peritonitis
D. Retroperitoneal hematoma
E. Disorders of mesenterial circulation of blood
1008. The diagnosis of acute intestinal obstruction is established on the base of:
A. * Character of pain and roentgenologic signs
B. Anamnesis and laboratory information
C. Anamnesis, clinical research and laboratory information
D. Clinical course of the disease
E. Only by roentgenologic signs
1009. The diagnostic measures which immediately performed in suspicion on acute intestinal
obstruction include everything, except:
A. * Angiography of abdominal cavity
B. Auscultation of abdomen
C. Plain X-ray of abdominal cavity
D. Introducing of nasogastal tube for the decompression of intestine
E. Palpation of abdomen, digital examination of rectum
1010. The dividing of mechanical intestinal obstruction is based on:

A. * Compression of mesentery vessels
B. Compression of bowel loops
C. Involvement in a tumour process
D. Degree of adhesions
E. Medical tactic
1011. The efficiency of conservative measures for acute intestinal obstruction are determined by
clinical changes except:
A. * Decrease of height of Cloyber's cups on X-ray
B. Appearance of stool and gases
C. Diminishing of distension of the abdomen
D. Lost of peristalsis
E. Diminishing of pain intensity
1012. The first phase of the clinical course of acute intestinal obstruction lasts:
A. * To 12 hours
B. To 2 hours
C. To 1 days
D. More than 1 day
E. To 1 hour
1013. The Grekov's sign in acute intestinal obstruction is:

A. * Gaping of anus
B. Good heard cardiac tones during auscultation of the abdomen
C. Dullness in the lower regions
D. Sound of falling drop
E. Noise of splash
1014. The I phase of the clinical course of acute intestinal obstruction is:
A. Ileus scream"
B. Intoxications
C. Terminal
1015. The II phase of the clinical course of acute intestinal obstruction is:
A. * Intoxications
B. Terminal
C. Ileus scream"
1016. The III phase of the clinical course of acute intestinal obstruction is:
A. * Terminal
B. Intoxications
C. Ileus scream"
1017. The indication for cecopexia in the operative treatment of invagination is:
A. * For the prophylaxis of relapses
B. For self desinvagination
C. For better desinvagination
D. Is not indicated
E. Not performed
1018. The indication for operative treatment of acute intestinal obstruction is:
A. * Mechanical acute intestinal obstruction in inefficient conservative treatment
B. I phase of the course of acute intestinal obstruction
C. II phase of the course of acute intestinal obstruction
D. The prolonged anamnesis of acute intestinal obstruction
E. Mechanical acute intestinal obstruction
1019. The Kloiber's cups on X-ray examination are:

A. * A presence of gas and levels of fluid in the loops of bowel
B. Presence of gallstones in the loops of bowel
C. A presence of foreign bodies in the loops of bowel
D. A presence of intestinal content in the loops of bowel
E. A presence of stool stones in the loops of bowel
1020. The leading signs in acute intestinal obstruction are:

A. * Wave-like pain, ðâîòà, delay of gases and stool
B. Knife-like” pain, wooden abdomen, proper anamnesis
C. Knife-like” pain, wooden abdomen, vomiting
D. Wave-like pain, anaemia
E. Nausea, loss of appetite, metallic taste in the mouth
1021. The Loteyssen's sign in acute intestinal obstruction is:
A. * Good heard cardiac tones during auscultation of the abdomen
B. Noise of splash
E. Gaping of anus
1022. The manifestation of the Anshuts sign in large intestinal obstruction is:
A. * Considerable meteorism in the right iliac region
B. Visible peristalsis of intestine
C. Sound of intestinal splash”
D. Sound of falling drop”
E. A metallic sound over the dilated bowel
1023. The manifestation of the Babuk's sign is:

A. * A presence of blood after the repeated siphon enema
B. Periodic appearance of wave-like pain in the abdomen
C. Tenesmi during palpation of elastic tumour in the abdomen
D. Bleeding from the rectum
E. The presence of the fluid level in abdominal cavity
1024. The manifestation of the Cruvelew's sign is:

A. * Bleeding from the rectum
B. Tenesmi during palpation of elastic tumour in the abdomen
C. A presence of the blood after the repeated siphon enema
D. Periodic appearance of wave-like pain in the abdomen
E. A presence of solitary level in abdominal cavity
1025. The manifestation of the Kywul's sign in acute intestinal obstruction is:
A. * A metallic sound over the dilated bowel
B. Noise of intestinal splash
C. Sound of falling drop”
D. Gaping of anus
E. Sounds of the beginning, quiet of the end”
1026. The manifestation of the Rush's sign is:

A. * Tenesmi during palpation of elastic tumour in the abdomen
B. Periodic appearance of wave-like pain in the abdomen
1027. The manifestation of the Shlange's sign in acute intestinal obstruction is:
A. * Peristalsis of the bowel which arises up after palpation of the abdomen
B. Sounds of the beginning, quiet of the end”
D. Noise of intestinal splash
E. Gaping of anus
1028. The manifestation of the Simagin's sign is:

A. * A presence of solitary level in abdominal cavity
E. Periodic appearance of wave-like pain in the abdomen
1029. The manifestation of the Tiliyax's sign is:

A. * Periodic appearance of wave-like pain in the abdomen
C. A presence of blood after the repeated siphon enema
1030. The manifestation of the Wahl's sign in acute intestinal obstruction is:
A. * Limited elastic formation in the abdomen
B. A metallic sound over the dilated bowel
D. Gaping of anus
E. Noise of intestinal splash
1031. The method of choice in sigmoid intestine torsion can be such operations, except:
A. * Nobble's operation
B. Resection of sigmoid intestine with anastomosis "end to end"
C. Hartmann's operation
D. Mesosigmoplication after Gagen-Thorn
1032. The most characteristic manifestation of the tumour obturation of colon is:
A. * Chronic intestinal obstruction
B. Acute intestinal obstruction
C. Dynamic intestinal obstruction
D. Paralytic intestinal obstruction
E. Wooden abdomen
1033. The most frequent cause of small intestine mechanical obstruction is:
A. * Adhesions of abdominal cavity
B. Gall-stones
C. Foreign bodies
D. Tumours
E. Helmints
1034. The most frequent cause of the large intestinal obstruction is:
A. * Tumours
B. Invagination
C. Volvulus
D. Hemorrhoids of IV degree
E. Errors in the diet
1035. The most frequent cause of the mechanical intestinal obstruction is:
A. * Adhesions
B. Tumours of small intestine
C. Internal hernia
D. Invagination
E. Dull trauma of abdomen
1036. The most frequently the sygmoid volvulus arises in:

A. * Elderly patients with frequent constipations
B. Females with menstrual arrest
C. Children
D. Elderly patients people with permanent diarrhea
E. New-borns
1037. The nodulus involves in the process:

A. * Not less than two parts of intestine
B. One part of intestine
C. One or more parts of intestine
D. All parts of intestine
E. Parietal peritoneum
1038. The nodulus requires:

A. * Untie the knot, if impossible – resection of the bowel
B. Resection of the bowel
C. Untie the knot
D. To perform the stoma. The second stage the resection of the bowel
1039. The percussion in acute intestinal obstruction reveals:

A. * Tympanic sound
B. No changes
C. Dull sound
D. Tympanic sound in the region of liver
E. Dullness in lower sites
1040. The peritonitis, caused by perforation of duodenal ulcer is characterised by such type of
obstruction:
A. * Paralytic
B. Spastic
C. Strangulation
D. There is no characteristic type
E. The obstruction can not develop in this case
1041. The peritonitis, caused by perforation of gastric ulcer is characterised by such type of
obstruction:
A. * Paralytic
B. Spastic
C. Strangulation
D. There is no characteristic type
E. The obstruction can not develop in this case
1042. The positive Gregersen's reaction is the most typical for such form of intestinal obstruction:
A. * obturation of tumour origin
B. spastic
C. strangulation
D. adhesive
E. characteristic for all mentioned
1043. The purpose of conservative therapy in compensated acute intestinal obstruction:

A. * All mentioned
B. Preoperative preparation
C. Treating
D. Detoxication
E. Diagnostic
1044. The purpose of conservative therapy in decompensated acute intestinal obstruction:
A. * Preoperative preparation
B. Treating
C. Detoxication
D. All mentioned
1045. The raspberry jelly-like feces are characteristic for:

A. * Invagination
B. Stenosis of pilorus
C. Meckel's diverticulum
D. Chronic appendicitis
E. Chronic enterocolitis
1046. The Samarin's sign does not include:

A. * Excess sodium in the blood plasma
B. Erythrocytosis
C. Leucocytosis
D. Hypoproteinemia
E. Drop in the chloride content of the blood serum
1047. The Samarin's sign does not include:

A. * Hyperproteinemia
B. Leucocytosis
C. Erythrocytosis
D. Decreased potassium in the blood plasma
E. Hypovitaminosis
1048. The sign of what disease is the expressed abdominal pain, which does not relief after intake
of spasmolytics and analgetics?
A. * Acute disturbance of mesenteric bloodflow
B. Chronic enterocolitis
C. Acute appendicitis
D. Acute cholecystitis
E. Chronic pancreatitis
1049. The similar signs of the clinical manifestation of acute intestinal obstruction and perforation
ulcer are:
A. * Acute course with sudden intensive pain and muscular tension of the abdomen
B. The abdominal pain with irradiation in the right shoulder-blade and shoulder
C. Slowly-progressive course with gradual increasing pain
D. Presence of diarrhea
E. Absence of general signs
1050. The similar signs of the clinical manifestation of acute pancreatitis and acute intestinal
obstruction are:
A. * Presence of the signs of intoxication and repeated vomiting
B. Presence of diarrhea
C. Positive Mayo-Robson sign
D. A high level of urine diastase
E. Presence of constipation
1051. The Sklyarov's sign in acute intestinal obstruction is:

A. * Noise of splash
E. Gaping of anus
1052. The Spasokukotsky's sign in acute intestinal obstruction is:

A. * Sound of falling drop
D. Noise of splash
E. Gaping of anus
1053. The treatment of patients with strangulation acute intestinal obstruction which accompanied
by the manifestations of peritonitis must include:
A. * 2 hours of conservative treatment, then operative
B. To 12 hours conservative treatment, then operative
C. Immediately operative without conservative
D. Conservative in ambulatory conditions
E. During the first days conservative with the gradual increase of volume infusion
1054. The tumour obturation of cecum requires:

A. * Right-side hemicolectomy
B. Resection of cecum
C. Cecostomy
D. Only ileostomy
E. Only intubation of small intestine
1055. To detect the presence of "sequestral fluid" in the lumen of the bowel in mechanical
intestinal obstruction is possible by means of:
A. * Ultrasound examination
B. X-ray examination
C. Irrigography
D. Fibrocolonoscopy
E. Digital examination of rectum
1056. To determine the viability of strangulated intestine it is necessary to be oriented on the

followings signs, except:
A. * Presence of strangulation groove
B. Color of intestine
C. Presence of peristalsis
D. The pulsation of mesenteric vessels
1057. To differentiate acute pancreatitis with acute intestinal obstruction used such methods of
examination, except:
A. * General analysis of blood
B. Determination of amylase in blood
C. Determination of diastase in urine
D. Plain X-ray of abdominal cavity
1058. To the criteria of permanent renewal of the gastrointestinal tract passage as efficiency of
conservative treatment belongs:
A. * Absence of stagnant content in the stomach
B. Absence of Shchotkin-Blumberg's sign
C. Normalization of rectal temperature
D. Feeling of heartburn
1059. To the method of early diagnostics of acute intestinal obstruction belongs:

A. * Plain X-ray of abdominal cavity
B. Laparoscopy
C. Ultrasound examination of abdominal cavity
D. Irrigography
E. Colonoscopy
1060. Treatment of patients with acute intestinal obstruction in the stage of decompensation must
be:
A. * 2-4 hours of conservative, then operative
B. To 24 hours of conservative, then operative
C. Immediately operative
D. During the first days conservative treatment with the gradual increase of volume of
infusion
E. Conservative in ambulatory conditions
1061. What among mentioned is correct in relation to the diagnostics of acute intestinal
obstruction:
A. * All answers are correct
B. The typical roentgenologic signs appear in 3-6 hours from the onset of mechanical
intestinal obstruction
C. In strangulation obstruction the X-ray with barium is contra-indicated
D. More higher the obstruction, more quick the vomiting arise up
E. In operated on the abdominal organs patients the cause of the obstruction is
represented by adhesions, and in not operated – by tumours of intestine
1062. What among the mentioned types of intestinal obstruction has primary vascular origin:
A. * Mesenteric obstruction
B. Arteriomesenteric obstruction
C. Adhesive
D. Strangulation
E. Obturation
1063. What are the causes of the dynamic intestinal obstruction:

A. * All answers are correct
B. Leaden colic
C. Uremia
D. Pancreonecrosis
E. Peritonitis
1064. What are the Kloiber's cups?

A. * Horizontal air-fluid levels
B. Gas bubble of the stomach
C. Folds of intestine
D. Gas sickles under the domes of diaphragm
1065. What are the measures of resection of nonviable region of bowel in thrombosis of
mesenteric vessels?
A. * 30-40 sm. of afferent and 15-20 sm. of efferent part
B. 10-15 sm. of afferent and efferent part
C. Within the limits of visible healthy tissues
D. 30 sm. of afferent and efferent part
E. 20 sm. afferent and efferent part
1066. What belongs to the clinical signs of invagination intestinal obstruction?

A. * All mentioned signs
B. The periodic abdominal pain
C. A presence of elastic, slightly painful, mobile formation in abdominal cavity
D. Appearance of blood in a stool
E. None of mentioned signs
1067. What can be the cause of mechanical intestinal obstruction?

A. * All mentioned
B. Strangulated hernia
C. Scar strictures
D. Adhesions, tumours
E. Drainage mistakes
1068. What changes in laboratory indexes are characteristic for adhesive intestinal obstruction?
A. * Hypoproteinemia
B. Lymphocytosis
C. Excess sodium in the blood plasma
D. Increased diastase
E. No changes
1069. What changes in laboratory indexes are characteristic for nodulus?

A. * Hyponatremia
B. Lymphocytosis
C. Leucopenia
D. Increased diastase
E. No changes
1070. What changes in laboratory indexes are characteristic for spastic intestinal obstruction?
A. * No changes
B. Leucopenia
C. Lymphocytosis
D. Excess sodium in the blood plasma
E. Increased diastase
1071. What complication mainly influences on the choice of operation:

A. * Perforation and peritonitis
B. Bleeding
C. Obstruction of intestine
D. Distant metastases
E. Ulceration
1072. What does acute intestinal obstruction, caused by a tumour obturation, require?
A. * Operative intervation
B. Liquidations of the tumour by chemotherapy
C. Liquidations of the tumour by radiotherapy
D. Surgery only after chemotherapy
E. Only symptomatic treatment
1073. What does not belong to conservative therapy of acute intestinal obstruction?
A. * Liquidation of hypervolemia
B. Decompression of gastrointestinal tract
C. The struggle against abdominal-pain shock
D. Detoxication
E. Correction of microcirculation
1074. What does not belong to conservative therapy of acute intestinal obstruction?
A. * Liquidation of hypervolemia
B. Decompression of gastrointestinal tract
C. A struggle against abdominal-pain shock
D. Detoxication
E. Correction of microcirculation
1075. What does not belong to the fight against abdominal-pain shock?
A. * Performing of siphon enema
B. Paranephral novocaine blockade
C. Neuroleptanalgesia
D. Peridural anaesthesia
E. Spasmolytic therapy
1076. What does the appearance of the signs of peritoneal irritation int the thrombosis of
mesenteric vessels mean?
A. * Necrosis of all layers of the bowel wall
B. Necrosis of muscular layer of this segment of bowel
C. About necrosis of ñåðîçíî¿ membrane of this segment of bowel
D. Necrosis of mucus membrane of this segment of bowel
E. About paresis of intestine
1077. What does the decompression of gastro-intestinal tract include?

A. * Stomach wash out, introduction of nasogastral zond, and performing of cleaning
enemas
B. Only washing out of the stomach
C. Only introduction of nasogastral zond
D. Only performing of cleaning enemas
E. Introduction of rectal mirror
1078. What does the positive Mondor's sign in acute intestinal obstruction mean?
A. Sounds of the beginning, quiet of the end”
B. Noise of intestinal splash
C. Frequent uncontrollable vomiting
D. Limited elastic formation in the abdomen
E. Gaping of anus
1079. What does volvulus mean?

A. * Torsion of the bowel with its mesentery along longitudinal axis
B. Torsion of the bowel with the mesentery of another loop
C. Invagination of one part of the bowel in another
D. Obturation of the bowel lumen
E. Torsion of the bowel with its mesentery along transverse axis
1080. What is not characteristic for acute high intestinal obstruction:
A. * Distension of abdomen in the first hours of the disease
B. Rapid decrease of the volume of circulating blood
C. Frequent prolonged vomiting
D. Rapid dehydration
E. Wave-like pain
1081. What is not typical for the high small intestinal obstruction:
A. * Early even distension of abdomen
B. A presence of Cloyber's cups in the upper half of abdomen
C. Early vomiting
D. Wave-like pains
E. Rapid worsening of the patient condition
1082. What is the aim of conservative therapy in compensated acute intestinal obstruction?
A. * Treating
B. Preoperative preparation
C. Detoxication
D. All mentioned
1083. What is the aim of conservative therapy in decompensated acute intestinal obstruction?
A. * Preoperative preparation
B. Treating
C. Detoxication
D. All mentioned
1084. What is the aim of the operative treatment of volvulus if the bowel „alive”?
A. * Detorsion, decompression, fixing to the abdominal wall
B. Detorsion, resection, fixing to the abdominal wall
C. Detorsion, dilation, decompression, fixing to the abdominal wall
D. Detorsion, dilation, decompression
E. Decompression, fixing to the abdominal wall
1085. What is the character of peristalsis at the beginning of acute intestinal obstruction:
A. * Hyperperistalsis
B. Normal peristalsis
C. Absent
D. Variable
E. Heard only in the region higher to obstruction
1086. What is the definition of intestinal obstruction?

A. * Complete or partial disturbance of passage through intestinal tract
B. Syndrome of acute vomiting
C. Constipation
D. Absence of stool
E. Disturbances of defecation
1087. What is the drawback of Gartman's operation?

A. * Formation of stoma
B. Volvulus of mesentery
C. Development of early adhesive intestinal obstruction
D. A long term of patient stay in the hospital
E. Death of patient
1088. What is the essence of arterial mesenteric intestinal obstruction?

A. * superior mesenteric artery compresses the duodenum
B. duodenum compresses the superior mesenteric artery
C. acute intestinal obstruction on the background of mesenteric thrombosis
D. mesenteric thrombosis caused by obstruction
E. duodenum compresses inferior mesenteric artery
1089. What is the forced patient's position with embolism of mesenteric vessels?
A. * Knee-elbow or on-side position with flexed legs
B. On abdomen
C. Semi-sitting position
D. On back with flexed legs
E. Lotus position
1090. What is the Gartman's operation in cancer of the left side of colon or rectum with obturative
intestinal obstruction?
A. * A resection of the cancered segment of bowel with suturing of distal end and
formation of the stoma of proximal end of the bowel
B. A resection of the cancered segment with formation of primary anastomosis
C. Anterior resection of rectum
D. Formation of stoma
E. Formation of transversostoma
1091. What is the mechanism of gall-stones entrance in the lumen of small intestine which results
in acute intestinal obstruction:
A. * As a result of the bedsore in the walls of gallbladder and bowel which adjoins to
him
B. From bile ducts through the Vater's papilla
C. Creates in the lumen of small intestine by itself
D. All variants are correct
E. None of variants is correct
1092. What is the most frequent localization of invagination:

A. * the region of cecum
B. splenic angle
C. hepatic angle
D. Rectosygmoid angle
E. Patients with the Led's syndrome
1093. What is the volvulus?

A. * Torsion of the bowel with its mesentery along longitudinal axis
B. Torsion of the bowel with the mesentery of another loop
C. Invagination of one part of the bowel in another
D. Obturation of the bowel lumen
E. Torsion of the bowel with its mesentery along transverse axis
1094. What kind of acute intestinal obstruction the invagination belongs to?
A. * Mixed
B. Paralytic
C. Volvulus
D. Strangulation
E. Dynamic
1095. What kind of acute intestinal obstruction the nodulus belongs to?
A. * Strangulation
B. Paralytic
C. Volvulus
D. Dynamic
E. Mixed
1096. What kind of operation is more rationally to perform for the patient with the cancer of
caecum, complicated by acute intestinal obstruction in early terms of the disease:
A. * Right-side hemicolectomy with ileotransversoanastomosis
B. Formation of ileostomy
C. Formation of caecostomy
E. Mikulich's operation
1097. What of mentioned is considered to be the morphological signs of dynamic intestinal

obstruction?
A. * All mentioned signs
B. Slight thickening of intestinal wall
C. Edema of intestinal tissues
D. A presence of fluid and gases in the lumen of the bowel
1098. What organ diseases results in the embolism of mesenteric vessels?

A. * Heart
B. Blood
C. Stomach
D. Liver
E. Lungs
1099. What pathology the Gray-Turner's sign is characteristic for?

C. Spastic acute intestinal obstruction
D. Volvulus
E. Peritonitis
1100. What pathology the Mayo-Robson's sign is characteristic for?

C. Spastic acute intestinal obstruction
D. Volvulus
E. Peritonitis
1101. What pathology the phrenicus sign is characteristic for?

C. Volvulus
D. Peritonitis
1102. What pathology the Rovsing's sign is characteristic for?

A. * Appendicitis
C. Perforative gastric ulcer
D. Volvulus
E. Acute cholecystitis
1103. What pathology the Spizharny's sign is characteristic for?

C. Volvulus
D. Peritonitis
1104. What precedes the development of intestinal obstruction of gall-stones origin?

A. * Attack of biliary colic and clinic of acute cholecystitis
B. Constipation
C. Diarrhea
D. Clinics of acute pancreatitis
E. Nausea and vomiting
1105. What signs are typical for intestinal obstruction?

A. * Wahl's, Kywul's, Sklyarov's, Grekov's, Spasokukotsky's
B. Jober's, Spizharny's, Rattner's
C. Grekov's, Murphy's, Georgievsky's, Mussi
D. Rovsing's, Sitkovsky's, Rozdolsky's, Bartomier-Mikhelson's, Obrastsow's, Shchotkin-
Blumberg
E. Motzart's, Beethoven's
1106. What treatment is indicated in gall-stones intestinal obturation?

A. * Only operative
B. Only conservative
C. Operative in the case of the development of peritonitis
D. Treatment is not required
E. Tactic depends on the size of stone
1107. What treatment tactic of acute intestinal obstruction, caused by a tumour obturation is
required?
A. * Operative intervation
B. Liquidation of tumour by a chemotherapy
C. Liquidations of tumour by radiotherapy
D. Operative intervation only after chemotherapy
E. Only symptomatic treatment
1108. What type of vomit is characteristic for acute intestinal obstruction?

A. * Frequent, without relief
B. Single, with relief
C. With relief
D. Not characteristically
E. Double
1109. When is the intubation zond removed from intestine after the operation for acute intestinal
obstruction?
A. * On the next day after appearance of peristalsis, but not later than on 7th day
B. On the 5th day
C. On the 4th day
D. On the 3th day
E. On desire of the patient
1110. When is the operative intervention for acute intestinal obstruction accompanied by the
drainage of abdominal cavity?
A. * In all mentioned cases
B. In formation of stoma
C. In increased bleeding during dissecting of adhesions
D. In formation of anastomosis
E. None of mentioned cases
1111. Where the pain irradiates in acute intestinal obstruction?

A. * The irradiation is not characteristic
B. In lumbar region
C. In the right shoulder
D. In shoulder-blade
E. In testicle
1112. Which form of intestinal obstruction belongs the retrograde incarceration of small intestine:
A. * Strangulation
B. Richter's hernia
C. Litre's hernia
D. Paralytic
E. Obturative
1113. Which of the phase of acute intestinal obstruction the „Gippokrath face” is characteristic
for?
A. * III
B. I
C. II
D. Not characteristic
E. In all
1114. Which type of acute intestinal obstruction is connected with previous operations:
A. * Strangulation
B. Spastic
C. Obturation
D. Invagination
E. All kinds
1115. Which type of strangulation intestinal obstruction is characterised by the Rush's, Babuck's
signs:
A. * Invagination
B. Nodulus
C. Adhesive intestinal obsruction
D. Obturation by gall-stones
E. Obturation by tumour
B. Perforation
1117. A peristalsis is absent as a rule in:

A. * peritonitis
B. paraproctitis
C. appendicitis
D. colitis
E. cholecystitis
1118. A peritoneal cavity is closed in:

A. * males
B. females
C. children
D. persons of elderly age
E. young persons
1119. A peritoneal cavity is opened in:

A. * females
B. males
C. children
D. persons of elderly age
E. young persons
1120. A peritoneum consists of sheets:

A. * visceral, parietal
B. parietal
C. visceral
D. visceral, extraorganic
E. parietal, extraorganic
1121. A presence of peritonitis is the indication for the operation:

A. * absolute
B. relative
C. conditional
D. no operation required
E. planned
1122. A programmed laparostomy is indicated in peritoneal endotoxicosis of:

A. * IIIA or IV degree
B. II degree
C. IIIA-B degree
D. I stage
E. V stage
1123. Abdominal, infracostal, retropleural accesses are used for the drainage of the abscess:
A. * anterior subphrenic
B. back subhepatic
C. anterior subhepatic
D. interintestinal
E. back subphrenic
1124. Abscess is the form of peritonitis:

A. * focal
B. diffuse
C. total
D. general
E. unfocal
1125. Absence of diaphragm excursion in breathing is characteristic for the abscess:

A. * subphrenic
B. pelvic
C. appendicular
D. Douglas space
E. iliac

E. giant ulcers

B. callous ulcers




1132. According to microbal character the peritonitis is distinguished:
A. * aerobic, anaerobic, mixed
B. aerobic, clostridial, mixed
C. anaerobic, nonclostridial, mixed
D. bacteroid, streptococcual, mixed
E. aerobic, staphylococcal, mixed
1133. According to the course the peritonitis is distinguished:

A. * acute, chronic, subacute
B. fulminant, acute, chronic
C. acute, torpid, subacute
D. acute, subacute, fulminant
E. acute, progressive, subacute
1134. According to the severity the peritonitis is distinguished:

A. * slight, moderate, severe, grave, terminal
B. slight, moderate, severe, terminal
C. slight, moderate, severe
D. slight, moderate, severe, terminal, agonal
E. slight, moderate, severe, agonal
1135. According to the spread the peritonitis is distinguished:

A. * local, diffuse, general
B. furunculus, diffuse, general
C. furunculus, diffuse, total
D. local, furunculus, general
E. local, diffuse, furunculus
1136. After the operation for peritonitis performed:

A. * intestinal intubation
B. fixing of the intestine
C. stimulation of the intestine
D. dilation of the intestine
E. removal of the intestine
tract

B. barrel vagotomy
1139. Ambulatory treatment after the operation for diffuse peritonitis lasts:
A. * 1,5-4 months
B. 2-3 weeks
C. 1-2 months
D. 10-15 days
E. 6 months
1140. Among causes of death rate from acute surgical diseases peritonitis possesses the place:
A. * first
B. second
C. third
D. fourth
E. fifth
1141. Appearance of pain during percussion of anterior abdominal wall in peritonitis is the sign:
A. * Rozdolsky's
B. Spasokukotsky's
C. Shchotkin-Blumberg
D. Kulenkampf's
E. Voskresensky's
1142. Appearance of pain during sliding of fingers on anterior abdominal wall in peritonitis is the
sign:
A. * Voskresensky's
B. Sitkovsky's
C. Rovsing's
D. Rozdolsky's
E. Ortner's

B. pain increases
E. girdle pain

A. * to 3 hours
B. to 1,5 hour
C. to 6 hours
D. to 8 hours
E. 6 – 12 hours

A. Hb below 80 g/l
B. * Hb 80-100 g/l
E. Ht below 25%
indicated
loss indicated

A. artery;
B. veins;
1152. Basic role in pathogenesis of peritonitis belongs:

A. * to cytokines
B. to lymphocyts
C. to enzymes
D. to monocytes
E. to leucocytes

A. * bleeding ulcer

B. bleeding ulcer

A. Ht 48-44, Hb 120
C. Ht 31-23, Hb 80
D. * Ht 38-32, Hb 100
E. Ht 44-40, Hb 110 /?

B. Ht 31-23, Hb 80
C. Ht 44-40, Hb 110
D. Ht 48-44, Hb 120
E. Ht 48-44, Hb 120

A. * Ht 31-23, Hb 80
C. Ht 38-32, Hb 100
D. Ht 44-40, Hb 110
E. Ht 48-44, Hb 120
1159. Cryptogenic peritonitis - is:

A. * primary
B. subacute
C. acute
D. secondary
E. chronic

A. bleeding ulcer
1161. Deep palpation in peritonitis is impossible in the stage:

A. * first
B. second
C. third
D. fourth
E. fifth

A. * Meulengracht's
B. 1 by Pevznerom
C. 5 by Pevznerom
D. 15 by Pevznerom
E. 7 by Pevznerom
C. Mendel’s suing
E. Eleker’s sing
1164. Distinguished such operative accesses for subphrenic abscesses:

A. * peritoneal, retroperitoneal
B. retroperitoneal
C. peritoneal
D. pleural
E. pleural, retropleural

A. * 3-6 hours
B. 6-12 hours
C. 1-3 hours
D. 12-24 hours
E. 24-36 hours
1166. During one daythe inflamed peritoneum can absorbe a volume of fluid to:
A. * 70 litres
B. 20 litres
C. 40 litres
D. 50 litres
E. 10 litres

B. bleeding ulcer
A. tumours
B. ulcers
D. erosions

B. knife-like pain;
E. melena;
A. * melena


B. melena

A. * Zhober’s;
B. Khelatid’s;
C. Podlag’s;
D. Vigats’s;
E. Udin’s.
1174. For subphrenic abscess is characteristic the X-ray sign:

A. * displacement of the diaphragm upword
B. thinning of the diaphragm
C. thickening of the diaphragm
D. displacement of the diaphragm downword
E. displacement of the diaphragm is abcent
1175. For the abscess of Douglas space used surgical access:

A. * rectal
B. subpubic
C. perineal
D. suprapubic
E. obturatorial


1178. For the parietal peritoneum of anterior and back abdominal wall is characteristic:
A. * exudation
B. imbibition
C. salivation
D. proliferation
E. resorbtion
1179. For the parietal peritoneum of diaphragm is characteristic:

A. * resorbtion
B. imbibition
C. proliferation
D. exudation
E. salivation
1180. For the parietal peritoneum of lateral wall of the abdomen is characteristic:
A. * resorbtion
B. imbibition
C. salivation
D. exudation
E. proliferation
1181. For the terminal stage of peritonitis is characteristic:

A. * face of Gippokrath
B. cyanosys of the abdomen
C. frog belly
D. Caput Medusae"
E. tension of the abdomen
1182. Forced diuresis belongs to:

A. * intracorporal methods of detoxication
B. extracorporal methods of detoxication
C. programmed laparostomy
D. peritoneal lavage
E. peritoneal dialysis
1183. Frequent painful urination is characteristic for such abscess:

A. * pelvic
B. paraappendicular
C. iliac
D. appendicular
E. retroperitoneal
A. gastric fundus
B. * cardial pert;
D. from duodenal;

A. over 4,5 cm
B. * over 3 cm
C. over 4 cm
D. over 5 cm
E. over 3,5 cm
1186. Hemobilia is
1187. How many anatomic regions are involved in inflammatory process in local peritonitis?
A. * one
B. 2 – 3
C. 3 – 6
D. 6 – 9
E. all regions
1188. How many layers does the peritoneum of mesentery of large intestine consist of?
A. * 4
B. 3
C. 5
D. 6
E. 7
1189. How many layers does the peritoneum of mesentery of small intestine consist of?
A. * 7
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
E. 3
1190. How many sites of the drainage of abdominal cavity used in peritonitis?
A. * four
B. two
C. three
D. one
E. five
1191. How to prevent the development of peritonitis in the penetrate wound of the abdomen on
the prehospital stage?
A. * to impose an aseptic bandage and inject antibiotics
B. to impose an aseptic bandage and inject cardiac medicines
C. to anesthetize the wound by novocaine. aseptic bandage
D. to inject antibiotics
E. to put a cold on the abdomen
1192. If the inflammatory process in peritonitis spreads on 2-3 anatomic regions it is named:
A. * diffuse
B. local
C. total
D. general
E. widespread
1193. Impaired fibrinolysis is the base of pathogenesis of peritonitis:
A. * focal
B. unfocal
C. total
D. general
E. total
1194. In case of involvement of 3 – 6 anatomic regions in inflammatory process the peritonitis is

named:
A. * diffuse
B. focal
C. local
D. general
E. total
1195. In diffuse peritonitis the inflammatory process spreads on anatomic regions:

A. * more than 6
B. from 2 to 3
C. from 3 to 6
D. 1
E. 9
1196. In interintestinal abscess used such medical tactic:

A. * opening of the abscess with drainage
B. detoxication therapy
C. antiinflammatory therapy
D. puncture of the abscess with drainage
E. antibiotics
1197. In paraappendicular abscess used such operative access:

A. * retroperitoneal
B. McBurney
C. pararectal
D. middle
E. Volkovich-Dyakonov
1198. In peritonitis in intestine prevails:

A. * secretion
B. exudation
C. absorption
D. resorbtion
E. excretion
1199. In peritonitis the development of polyorganic insufficiency results from the lesion of:
A. * parenchymatous organs
B. respiratory organs
C. connective tissue organs
D. hollow organs
E. genitourinary organs
1200. In peritonitis the first organ which is affected by the toxins from a parietal peritoneum is:
A. * lungs
B. spleen
C. kidneys
D. liver
E. heart
1201. In peritonitis the II degree of endotoxicosis requires:

A. * intracorporal methods of detoxication
B. extracorporal methods of detoxication
D. peritoneal lavage
E. peritoneal dialysis
1202. In peritonitis the main cause of metabolic disturbances is:

A. * hypoxia
B. venous disfunction
C. acidosis
D. alcalosis
E. arterial disfunction
1203. In peritonitis the most optimal volume of the operation is:

A. * minimal
B. maximal
C. complex
D. extended
E. radical
1204. In peritonitis the toxins from a visceral peritoneum affect first of all:
A. * liver
B. spleen
C. kidneys
D. lungs
E. heart
1205. In peritonitis the toxins spread from a visceral peritoneum through:

A. * portal vein
B. superior cava vein
C. inferior cava vein
D. hepatic vein
E. splenic vein
1206. In peritonitis, the formation of the pathological ”third space” takes place through the
sequestration of the fluid into:
A. * abdominal cavity, retroperitoneal space
B. lumen of intestine, muscles
C. lumen of intestine, parenchymatous organs
D. parenchymatous organs, muscles
E. lumen of intestine, subcutaneous tissue
1207. In subphrenic abscess the retraction of intercostals spaces during deep breath in is the sign:
A. * Lithen's
B. De Gardin's
C. De Cervan's
D. Dushen's
E. Senator's
1208. In the case of operation for acute peritonitis performed:
A. * wide laparotomy
B. laparostomy
C. microlaparotomy
D. laparocentesis
E. laparotomy after Volkovich-Dyakonov
1209. In the widespread forms of peritonitis after the resection of the bowel the most optimal
operation is:
A. * Formation of stoma
B. anastomosis " end to side "
C. collateral anastomosis
D. anastomosis " side to side "
E. anastomosis " end to end "
rarely?
E. pylorus.

A. * V. Portae;
B. V. odd;
C. V. pair;
E. V. lower hollow;
1212. Interintestinal abscesses complicates as a rule:

A. * by the diffuse peritonitis, intestinal fistula, obstruction, pilephlebitis
B. by the diffuse peritonitis intestinal fistula, ulcer, pilephlebitis
C. by the diffuse peritonitis, intestinal fistula, ulcer, gangrene
D. By the diffuse peritonitis, intestinal fistula, ulcer, phlegmon
E. By the diffuse peritonitis, intestinal fistula, ulcer, paraproctitis
1213. Interintestinal abscesses formed after peritonitis are named:

A. * residual
B. chronic
C. recurrent
D. remittent
E. acute

A. 1-4 cm
B. 1-3 cm
C. 3-5 cm
D. 2- 6 cm
E. * 2-3 cm
1215. Late subphrenic abscesses arise up as a rule after:

A. * 30-60 days
B. 10-15 days
C. 15-20 days
D. 7-10 days
E. 60-90 days

A. * to 0,5 cm
B. 0,5-1 cm
C. to 1,0 cm
D. 3 to 1,5 cm
E. 0,5-1,5 cm
1217. Low virulence of microbe flora on the background of normal reactivity of the organism
predetermines the peritonitis:
A. * focal
B. diffuse
C. local
D. total
E. general
A. gullet;
B. stomach;
C. rectum;
D. * duodenum;
E. colon
1219. Melena is

A. * bleeding ulcer
1221. Mesoteliocyts of peritoneum are located in such layer:

A. * superficial
B. deep
C. middle
D. vascular
E. nervous

B. * EFGDS
D. Sonography
E. Laparoskopy
1224. Name correct classification of pelvic abscesses:

A. * recto-uterine, vesico-rectal, paravesical, retrorectal
B. recto-uterine, ischio-rectal, pelviorectal, retrorectal
C. recto-uterine, vesico-rectal, pelviorectal, retrorectal
D. recto-uterine, paravesical, pelviorectal, retrorectal
E. recto-uterine, paravesical, ischio-rectal, retrorectal
1225. Name etiologic classification of peritonitis:

A. * traumatic, postoperative, perforating, inflammatory
B. lymphogenous, postoperative, perforating, inflammatory
C. contact, postoperative, perforating, inflammatory
D. reactive, postoperative, perforating, inflammatory
E. hematogenous, postoperative, perforating, inflammatory
1226. Nasogastrointestinal intubation in peritonitis is used for:

A. * decompression of intestine
B. relaxation of intestine
C. enteral feeding
D. compression of intestine
E. stimulation of intestine

1228. Pain in peritonitis is caused by the lesion of:

A. * parietal peritoneum
B. anterior abdominal wall
C. back abdominal wall
D. internal organs
E. visceral peritoneum
1229. Painful, dense infiltrate in the abdomen determined by palpation are the signs of the
abscess:
A. * interintestinal
B. retrocecal
C. subphrenic
D. subhepatic
E. pelvic

1231. Percussion sign of subphrenic abscess:

A. * expanding of hepatic dullness
B. diminishing of hepatic dullness
C. absence of hepatic dullness
D. impaired hepatic dullness
E. tympanic sound over the liver
1232. Peritonitis is treated:

A. * urgent operation
B. antibiotic therapy
C. detoxication therapy
D. no treatment required
E. conservative therapy
1233. Peritonitis resulting from surgical diseases, damages is called:

A. * secondary
B. residual
C. primary
D. chronic
E. recurrent
1234. Pleural, retropleural operative accesses are used for the drainage of the abscess:
A. * back subphrenic
B. subnephral
C. subhepatic
D. superior subphrenic
E. anterior subhepatic
1235. Polyorganic insufficiency is the main cause of the death of patients of:
A. * peritonitis
B. cholecystitis
C. ulcers
D. myocardial infarction
E. appendicitis
1236. Preoperative preparation of patients with acute peritonitis must be:

A. * individual and lasts not more than 2 hours
B. complex and lasts not more than 5 hours
C. depending on the patients condition to the complete correction of the vital functions
D. complex and to last not more than 6 hours
E. individual and lasts not more than 8 hours
1237. Programed laparapertion is:

A. * formation of the provisional sutures on the wound with a further revision and
sanation of abdominal cavity
B. leaving of open wound with its washing by antiseptics
C. suturing only of peritoneum with a further revision and sanation of abdominal cavity
D. suturing only of aponeurosis with a further revision and sanation of abdominal cavity
E. suturing of wound with a further revision of abdominal cavity

1239. Rational operative access in peritonitis is:

A. * median laparotomy
B. lower-middle laparotomy
C. upper-middle laparotomy
D. pararectal
E. lumbar
1240. Rectal infiltrate with fluctuation is determined in:

A. * pelvic abscess
B. appendicular infiltrate
C. appendicular abscess
D. pelvic infiltrate
E. iliac abscess



A. palliative
B. draining
D. resection


1246. Subphrenic space is limited:
A. * by a diaphragm, transverse colon, walls of the abdomen
B. by a diaphragm, small intestine, walls of the abdomen
C. by a diaphragm, gastro-colic ligament, walls of the abdomen
D. by a diaphragm, liver, walls of the abdomen
E. by a diaphragm, small omenthum, walls of the abdomen
1247. Such stages of peritonitis are distinguished:

A. * reactive, toxic, terminal
B. reactive, toxic, serous
C. toxic, fibrinous, terminal
D. acute, fibrinous, terminal
E. shock, toxic, terminal
1248. The recession between rectum and uterus is the space of:
A. * Douglas
B. Dushen's
C. Dragsten's
D. Dumbadze
E. De Cervan's
1249. The recession between urinary bladder and rectum is named the space of:
A. * Douglas
B. Dushen's
C. Dragsten's
D. Dumbadze
E. De Cervan's
1250. The abdominal cavity is named the space between:

A. * anatomic structures which contain organs and tissues
B. peritoneum and abdominal wall
C. parietal and visceral peritoneum
D. organs and abdominal wall
E. diaphragm and pelvis
1251. The abscess of abdominal cavity is limited at first:

A. * by demarcation bulwark from leucocytes
B. by demarcation bulwark from lymphocytes
C. by demarcation bulwark from fibroblasts
D. by demarcation bulwark from monocytes
E. by pyogenic membrane
1252. The abscess of Douglas is localized in space:

A. * recto-vesicle
B. paravesicle
C. retrorectal
D. antevesicle
E. recto-colica
1253. The abscesses of abdominal cavity are divided on:

A. * subphrenic, pelvic, interintestinal
B. subphrenic, rectal, subhepatic
C. subphrenic, interintestinal, subhepatic
D. subphrenic, rectal, subhepatic
E. supraphrenic, pelvic, interintestinal
1254. The absence of somatic innervation of pelvic peritoneum in peritonitis predetermines:

A. * The absence of muscular tension of the abdomen
B. The swelling of the abdomen
C. The wooden abdomen
D. The rigidity of muscles of anterior abdominal wall
E. The retraction of the abdomen
1255. The absorbal ability of the diaphragm predetermines formation of abscess:

A. * subphrenic
B. interintestinal
C. pelvic
D. appendicular
E. supraphrenic
1256. The base of pathogenesis of the focal peritonitis is:

A. * increased activity of the coagulative system
B. absence of activity of the coagulative system
C. impaired activity of the coagulative system
D. activity of the coagulative system is not changed
E. presence of activity of the coagulative system
1257. The cavity between organs and abdominal wall is called:

A. * peritoneal
B. abdominal
C. pelvic
D. retroperitoneal space
E. interintestinal
1258. The clinic of pelvic abscess is often accompanied :

A. * by absence of tension of anterior abdominal wall
B. by tension of anterior abdominal wall
C. by painfullness of anterior abdominal wall
D. by a wooden abdomen
E. swelling of the abdomen
1259. The connective tissue membrane has such abscess of the abdominal cavity:
A. * formed
B. primary
C. early
D. not formed
E. loose
1260. The connective tissue membrane is formed in peritonitis:

A. * secondary focal
B. diffuse
C. general
D. primary focal
E. total
1261. The diarrhea often is the sign of such abscess:

A. * pelvic
B. paraappendicular
C. iliac
D. appendicular
E. retroperitoneal
1262. The difference of more than 2° Ñ between the morning and evening temperatures occurs in:
A. * subphrenic abscess
B. diffuse peritonitis
C. general peritonitis
D. subphrenic infiltrate
E. local peritonitis
1263. The disturbance of protein metabolism in peritonitis is represented by:

A. * diminishing of albumins, increasing of globulins
B. increasing of albumins and globulins
C. increasing of albumins, diminishing of globulins
D. diminishing of albumins and globulins
E. lbumins, globulins is not changed
1264. The draining of Douglas space is performed through:

A. * rectum
B. foramen obturatorium
C. perineum
D. sacrum region
E. anterior abdominal wall by retroperitoneal
1265. The euphoric state of patient in peritonitis arises up as a rule in the stage:
A. * II
B. I
C. III
D. IV
E. V
1266. The focal peritonitis is limited by such anatomic structures:

A. * omentum, mesentery and the wall of bowel
B. liver, adhesions
C. appendix, cecum
D. adhesions, vessels, the wall of bowel
E. adhesions, round ligament of liver
1267. The frequency of what pathogenic flora increases in peritonitis:

A. * anaerobic nonclostridial
B. aerobic clostridial
C. aerobic nonclostridial
D. anaerobic clostridial
E. aerobic
1268. The general surface of peritoneum is:

A. 2 - 3 m2
B. 1 - 2 m2
C. 0,5 - 1 m2
D. 3 - 4 m2
E. 5 - 6 m2
1269. The immobility of back bone at walking of patient in peritonitis is the sign:
A. * Senator's
B. Dushen's
C. Lithen's
D. Mussi
E. Voskresensky's
1270. The immobility of back bone in a subphrenic abscess is the sign:

A. * Senator's
B. Dushen's
C. Lithen's
D. Sitkovsky's
E. Spasokukotsky's
1271. The increased peristalsis is characteristic for such abscess:

A. * interintestinal
B. subphrenic
C. subhepatic
D. retrocecal
E. subsplenic
1272. The infection in peritonitis in the most cases is:

A. * aerobico-anaerobic
B. anaerobic
C. nonclostridial
D. clostridial
E. aerobic
1273. The infection in peritonitis in the most cases represented by:

A. * E. coli
B. Bacteroids
C. Pneumococcus
D. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
E. Protheus
1274. The interintestinal abscesses formed near the primary source of infection are named:
A. * primary
B. lymphogenous
C. metastatic
D. hematogenous
E. secondary
1275. The involvement of epigastric region during breath in and its outpouching during breath out
in peritonitis is the sign:
A. * Dushen's
B. Lithen's
C. Senator
D. Mussi
E. Voskresensky's
1276. The irradiation of pain in the lumbar region is characteristic for such abscess:
A. * subphrenic
B. retrocecal
C. retroperitoneal
D. appendicular
E. subhepatic
1277. The main cause of the development of peritonitis is:

A. * infection
B. trauma
C. shock
D. impaired immunity
E. impaired resistance
1278. The main spread of infection in peritonitis is:

A. * hematogenous and lymphogenous
B. exogenous
C. lymphogenous
D. hematogenous
E. endogenous
1279. The middle thickness of peritoneum is:

A. * 0,7 – 1,1 mm.
B. 0,5-1,0 mm.
C. 0,3 – 0,5 mm.
D. 1 - 2 mm.
E. 2 - 3 mm.
1280. The morphologic structure of peritoneum:

A. * connective tissue
B. fibrous
C. serous
D. visceral
E. parietal
1281. The most information instrumental method of diagnostics of peritonitis is:

A. * laparoscopy
C. roentgenoscopy
D. laparocentesis
1282. The most informative additional method of examination in peritonitis is:

A. * plain X-ray
B. irrigography
C. esophagogastroscopy
D. barium swallow
E. coprologic examination
1283. The most informative instrumental method of diagnostics of peritonitis is:

A. * laparoscopy
C. thermography
D. esophagogastroscopy
E. barium swallow
1284. The most informative instrumental method of diagnostics of peritonitis is:

A. * laparocentesis
B. Rectoscopy
C. rheovasography
D. thermography
E. roentgenoscopy

1286. The organs are fixed around the site of inflammation in the focal peritonitis by:
A. * fibrin
B. exudate
C. transsudate
D. prothrombin
E. thrombin
1287. The painfullness during palpation in a supraclavicular region in subphrenic abscess is the
sign:
A. * Mussi-Georgievsky
B. Bartomier-Mikhelson's
C. Yaure-Rozanov's
D. Shchotkin-Blumberg's
E. Rovsing's
1288. The painfullness of anterior wall of rectum is the sign:

A. * Kulenkampf's
B. Krymov's
C. Kocher
D. Culen's
E. Crown's
1289. The paralysis of microcirculation in peritonitis develops in such stage:

A. * terminal
B. toxic
C. reactive
D. acute
E. subacute
1290. The participation of anterior abdominal wall in the act of breathing in peritonitis:
A. * does not take part
B. takes part partly
C. takes part
D. takes part doubtfully
E. takes part fastly
1291. The peritonitis caused by the contamination of the peritoneum by hematogenous and
lymphogenous way is called:
A. * primary
B. chronic
C. acute
D. secondary
E. recurrent
1292. The peritonitis develops in such concentration of microorganisms in 1 ml. of exudate:

A. * 1?107
B. 1?103
C. 1?105
D. 1?101
E. 1?109
1293. The peritonitis of 3? degree requires:

A. * extracorporal methods of detoxication
B. laparocentesis
D. laparoscopy
E. lavage
1294. The peritonitis of IV degree requires:

A. * programmed laparostomy
B. laparoscopy
C. lavage
D. extracorporal methods of detoxication
E. laparocentesis
1295. The retraction of epigastric region during breath in and its outpouching during breath out in
subphrenic abscess is the sign:
A. * Dushen's
B. Lithen's
C. De Cervan's
D. De Gardin's
E. Senator's
C. serosal
E. external layer
1297. The separation by tissue structures parallel to the development of inflammatory process
leads to the form of peritonitis:
A. * the primary focal
B. the secondary diffuse
C. diffuse
D. the secondary focal
E. the primary diffuse
1298. The signs of peritoneal irritation are absent in such abscess:

A. * pelvic
B. paraappendicular
C. interintestinal
D. subphrenic
E. appendicular
1299. The stages of the operative treatment of peritonitis:

A. * liquidation of the cause, sanation, drainage of the abdominal cavity
B. laparotomy, sanation, drainage of the abdominal cavity
C. liquidation of the cause, drainage of abdominal cavity, suturing of wound
D. laparotomy, liquidation of the cause, drainage of abdominal cavity
E. liquidation of the cause, sanation
1300. The subphrenic abscess is treated by:

A. * opening and drainage of abscess
B. puncture, washing out by antiseptics
C. resection of abscess
D. opening of abscess, washing out by antiseptics
E. puncture
1301. The subphrenic abscesses are caused:

A. * by negative pressure during excursion of diaphragm
B. by the inflammatory reaction of diaphragm
C. by the presence of free space
D. by positive pressure during excursion of diaphragm
E. by position of patient
1302. The tenesmi often are the signs of such abscess:

A. * pelvic
B. paraappendicular
C. iliac
D. retroperitoneal
E. appendicular
1303. The tense resistance of anterior abdominal wall in peritonitis is the sign:
A. * Mondor's
B. Voskresensky's
C. Kulenkampf's
D. Shchotkin-Blumberg
E. Pasternatsky's
1304. The toxic phase of peritonitis above all things is caused by:
A. * endotoxins
B. exotoxins
C. toxins
D. polytoxins
E. monotoxins
1305. The toxins in peritonitis spread from a parietal peritoneum through:

A. * inferior cava vein
B. superior cava vein
C. portal vein
D. hepatic vein
E. splenic vein
1306. The vascular layer of peritoneum is located under:

A. * superficial
B. serous
C. deep
D. fibrous
E. nervous
1307. The wooden abdomen in peritonitis is characteristic for the stage:
A. * first
B. third
C. fourth
D. second
E. fifth
C. profuse bleeding
1309. To the focal peritonitis belongs:

A. * infiltrate of abdominal cavity
B. diffuse, limited
C. total, unlimited
D. total
E. general

D. Menetrie's sing;
1311. To the local peritonitis belongs:

A. * abscess
B. diffuse
C. general
D. furunculus
E. total

1313. Vasoconstriction of microcirculation in peritonitis develops in such stage:

A. * reactive
B. toxic
C. terminal
D. acute
E. subacute
1314. Vasodilatation of microcirculation in peritonitis develops in such stage:

A. * toxic
B. reactive
C. terminal
D. acute
E. subacute

A. * bleeding ulcer
1316. Vomiting in peritonitis:

A. * does not relief
B. relief
C. does not change the state of patient
D. deteriorates the state of patient
E. improves the state of patient
C. * pylorus ulcers
1318. What are the changes, which don't require the drainage of abdominal cavity in peritonitis:
A. * A presence of inflammatory changes of the peritoneum + absence of exudate
B. intestinal content in abdominal cavity + possibility of anastomosis leakage
C. presence of turbid exudate + presence of pus in abdominal cavity + presence of
inflammatory infiltrate
D. inflammatory changes of peritoneum + presence of turbid exudate
E. inflammatory changes of peritoneum + presence of pus in abdominal cavity F. a
presence of pus in abdominal cavity + infection of abdominal cavity
duodwnum?
A. perforation
C. pylorus stenosis
E. * bleeding
A. * trichopol
B. Licviroton
C. oxiferiskorbon
D. atropine
E. pirinzsipin
A. trunk vagotomy
D. gastrectomy
except for
A. * ACTH
C. prostaglandin E
D. estrogens
E. STH
1326. What is the treatment tactic in pelvic abscess?

A. * opening and drainage of the abscess,
B. antibiotics
C. antiinflammatory therapy
D. puncture of the abscess, drainage
E. detoxication therapy
1327. What is the treatment tactic in subphrenic abscess?

A. * operative treatment
B. antiinflammatory medicines
C. conservative treatment
D. antibiotics
E. contemplate tactic
1328. What is the volume of fluid contained in peritoneal cavity?

A. * 10 ml.
B. 100 ml.
C. 30 ml.
D. 40 ml.
E. 50 ml.
1329. What kind of abdomen is characteristic for the reactive stage of peritonitis?
A. * wooden
B. soft
C. bloated
D. rigidit
E. retracted
E. small curvature

C. X-ray
B. On blood volume
1333. What phase of peritonitis lasts after 72 hours?

A. * terminal
B. hemodynamic
C. polyorganic
D. toxic
E. reactive
1334. What phase of peritonitis lasts for 24 hours?

A. * reactive
B. toxic
C. terminal
D. hemodynamic
E. polyorganic
1335. What phase of peritonitis lasts from 24 to 72 hours?

A. * toxic
B. hemodynamic
C. reactive
D. terminal
E. polyorganic

A. * tavegil
B. obzidan
C. hystdol
D. cerucal
E. oraza
A. cymetidin
B. eglonin
C. * gastocepini
D. etimsiloli
E. vinylin
B. Almagel
C. Vinylin
D. De-nol
E. Claritromycin

B. pancakes
C. raw egg-white
D. bread rye fresh
E. acute cheeses
1340. What stage of peritonitis is characterised besides general manifestation the clinic of
intestinal obstruction?
A. * second
B. first
C. third
D. fourth
E. fifth

A. * ulcerous
B. hemorragic;
C. pain;

A. * 6 – 12 hours;
B. 6 – 10 hours;
C. 6 – 8 hours
D. 6 – 14 hours;
E. 6 – 20 hours
A. hypocalcemia
B. * hypokaliemia
C. Hyponatremia
D. Hypercalcinemia
E. hyperkaliemia
1345. Which stage of peritonitis is characterized by endotoxication?

A. * toxic
B. terminal
C. reactive
D. hemodynamic
E. polyorganic
1346. Which stage of peritonitis is characterized by infection generalization?

A. * terminal
B. toxic
C. hemodynamic
D. reactive
E. polyorganic
1347. Which stage of peritonitis is characterized by the reaction of the organism on infecting of
abdominal cavity?
A. * reactive
B. toxic
C. terminal
D. polyorganic
E. hemodynamic
B. Perforation

E. giant ulcers

B. callous ulcers




1355. Acquire hernia could be all, except:

A. Neurological
B. Traumatic
C. Recurrent
D. Postoperative
E. * Post-natal
1356. Acute ileus arises up at presence in the hernia sac:

A. Urinary bladder
B. Salpinx
C. Omentum
D. Subcutaneous fatty tissue
E. * Loops of bowel
1357. After the method of Kukudzhanov it is performed hernioplasty of:

A. Umbilical hernia
B. Femoral and inguinal hernias
C. Epigastroceles
D. Femoral hernia
E. * Inguinal hernia
1358. After the method of Meyo it is performed hernioplasty of:

A. Femoral and inguinal hernias
B. Epigastroceles
C. Femoral hernia
D. Inguinal hernia
E. * Umbilical hernia
tract

B. barrel vagotomy
1361. Any hernia of abdomen consists of:

A. Hernia sack
B. Hernia sack and content
C. Hernia content
D. Hernia gate and hernia sack
E. * Hernia gate, hernia sack, hernia content

B. pain increases
E. girdle pain

A. * to 3 hours
B. to 1,5 hour
C. to 6 hours
D. to 8 hours
E. 6 – 12 hours
1366. At incarcerated hernia after the dissection of hernia sack, the next manipulation is:
A. Finish operation
B. Sequence of manipulations are not important
C. To perform puncture of hernia sack and delete hernia water
D. To cut a incarceration ring
E. * To cut a hernia sack
1367. At incarceration hernia microcirculation disorders could be:

A. In abdominal cavity
B. In a hernia gate
C. In a hernia sack
D. In a distal bowel
E. * In a proximal bowel
1368. At incarceration of diaphragmatic hernia more frequent arises up:

A. Syndrome of respiratory insufficiency
B. Dyspepsia
C. Intoxication syndrome
D. Pain a syndrome
E. * Pain shock with violation of cardiac rhythm
1369. At incarceration of hernia the most deep changes arise up in:

A. In all simultaneously
B. In the peritoneum
C. In the serosa
D. In the muscular tunic
E. * In the mucus tunic
1370. At left-side non-reducible femoral hernia is used:

A. Methods of Martinov, Postempsky
B. Methods of Martinov, Zhirar, Spasokukotsky, Kimbarovsky
C. Methods of Bassini, Kukudzhanov, Postempsky
D. Methods of Sapezhko, Meyo
E. * Methods of Bassini, Rudzhi, Parlavecho

A. Hb below 80 g/l
B. * Hb 80-100 g/l
E. Ht below 25%
indicated
loss indicated

A. artery;
B. veins;
1376. Auscultative sign of presence in the hernia sack of loop of bowel:

A. Drum shot
B. Noise of falling drop
C. Clang
D. Absence of peristaltic waves
E. * Presence of peristaltic waves
1377. Auscultative sign of presence in the hernia sack of omentum is:

A. Drum shot
B. Noise of falling drop
C. Clang
D. Presence of peristaltic waves
E. * Absence of peristaltic waves
1378. Autoplastic methods of surgical treatment of femoral hernia:

A. Method of Spasokukotsky
B. Method of Meyo
C. Method of Rudzhi
D. Methods of Lockwood and Abrazhanov
E. * Method Caravanov

A. * bleeding ulcer

B. bleeding ulcer

A. Ht 48-44, Hb 120
C. Ht 31-23, Hb 80
D. * Ht 38-32, Hb 100
E. Ht 44-40, Hb 110 /?

B. Ht 31-23, Hb 80
C. Ht 44-40, Hb 110
D. Ht 48-44, Hb 120
E. Ht 48-44, Hb 120

A. * Ht 31-23, Hb 80
C. Ht 38-32, Hb 100
D. Ht 44-40, Hb 110
E. Ht 48-44, Hb 120
1385. By Bassini method the plastic are performed:

A. All of the listed hernia
B. Umbilical hernia
C. Only inguinal hernia
D. Only femoral hernia
E. * Inguinal and femoral hernia
1386. By Spasokukocky method treated:

A. A method can be applied at all hernias
B. Umbilical hernia
C. Femoral hernia
D. Direct inguinal hernia
E. * Oblique inguinal hernia
1387. By the method of Postempsky it is performed hernioplasty of:

B. Epigastroceles
C. Femoral hernia
D. Umbilical hernia
1388. By the method of Sapezhko it is performed hernioplasty of:

B. Epigastroceles
C. Femoral hernia
D. Inguinal hernia
E. * Umbilical hernia
1389. Congenital inguinal hernia could be?

A. Upper and lower
B. Combined
C. Oblique and direct
D. Direct
E. * Oblique

A. bleeding ulcer

A. * Meulengracht's
B. 1 by Pevznerom
C. 5 by Pevznerom
D. 15 by Pevznerom
E. 7 by Pevznerom
1392. Differential diagnostics of femoral hernia is performed with:

A. Lymphadenitis
B. Inguinal hernia
C. Varicosity
D. Cold abscess
E. * All listed
C. Mendel’s suing
E. Eleker’s sing
1394. Duration of dynamic supervision if incarcerated hernia is replaced:

A. 2 hours
B. 1 hour
C. 12 hours
D. 6 hours
E. * 24 hours

A. * 3-6 hours
B. 6-12 hours
C. 1-3 hours
D. 12-24 hours
E. 24-36 hours
1396. During Postempsky method:

A. Forming of double-layer of white line of abdomen
B. Suturing of defect of anterior abdominal wall
C. Strengthening of posterior wall of inguinal channel
D. Strengthening of anterior wall of inguinal channel
E. * The closing of inguinal interval
1397. During retrograde incarceration:
A. Large part of bowel is jammed
B. All of bowel is jammed
C. Only small part of bowel is jammed
D. Jammed part of loop which located in a hernia sack
E. * Jammed part of bowel, located in the abdominal cavity
1398. During what operation is performed suturing between the ligament of Kuper, by the vagina
of direct muscle of abdomen and aponeurosis of transversal muscle:
A. The plastic by Bassini
B. Method of Postempsky
C. Method of Martinov
D. Method of Spasokukotsky
E. * Method of Kukudzhanov

B. bleeding ulcer
A. tumours
B. ulcers
D. erosions
1401. For a hernioplasty by skins materials is used:

A. Method of Martinov
B. Method of Rudzhi
C. Method of Meyo
D. Method of Postempsky
E. * Method of Janov

B. knife-like pain;
E. melena;

A. * melena
1404. For closing of hernia gate from the femoral side is used:
A. Method of Spasokukocky
B. Method of Meyo
C. Method Caravanov
D. Method of Rudzhi
E. * Methods of Lokvud and Abrazhanov
1405. For diaphragmatic hernia a typical symptom is:

A. Negative cough sign
B. Nausea
C. Pain
D. Positive cough sign
E. * Feeling of grumbling in a thorax on the side of hernia
1406. For hernioplasty of wide femoral fascia is used:

A. Method of Martinov
B. Method of Zhirar
C. Method of Postempsky
D. Method of Meyo
E. * Method of Kirschner


B. melena

A. * Zhober’s;
B. Khelatid’s;
C. Podlag’s;
D. Vigats’s;
E. Udin’s.
1410. For strengthening of anterior wall of inguinal channel is used:

A. Method of Kukudzhanov
C. Method of Bassini, Kukudzhanov
D. Method of Cherni, Ru
E. * Methods of Martinov, Zhirar, Spasokukotsky
1411. For strengthening of posterior wall of inguinal channel is used:

A. Methods of Kirschner
B. Methods of Postempsky
C. Methods of Cherni, Ru
D. Methods of Martinov, Zhirara, Spasokukotsky
E. * Method of Bassini, Kukudzhanov


A. gastric fundus
B. * cardial pert;
D. from duodenal;

A. over 4,5 cm
B. * over 3 cm
C. over 4 cm
D. over 5 cm
E. over 3,5 cm
1416. Hemobilia is
1417. Hernioplasty by Kimbarovsky is mean:

A. Use of alloplastic material
B. Strengthening of lateral wall of inguinal channel
C. Narrowing of inguinal channel
D. Strengthening of posterior wall of inguinal channel
E. * Renewing the inguinal channel to it normal state
1418. Hernioplasty by Kukudzhanov is mean:

E. * Strengthening of posterior wall of inguinal channel
1419. Hernioplasty by Martinov is mean:

E. * Strengthening of anterior wall of inguinal channel
1420. Hernioplasty by Rudzhi is mean:
A. Strengthening of lateral wall of inguinal channel
B. Narrowing of inguinal channel
C. Strengthening of anterior wall of inguinal channel
E. * Closing of hernia gate from the side of femoral channel
1421. Hernioplasty by Zhirar is mean:

1422. How many days patients stays in hospital after hernioplasty:

A. 17 days
B. 14 days
C. 12 days
D. 10 days
E. * 2-5 days
1423. If a bowel is jammed in a hernia sack, the diameter will increase in:
A. None of the listed part
B. Remote loop of bowel
C. Loop in a hernia sack
D. Distal loop of bowel
E. * Proximal loop of bowel
1424. If after dissecting of incarceration ring there are signs of necrosis of bowel, surgeon must:
A. To perform the resection of bowel in the distance 50 cm
B. To perform the resection of bowel in the distance 60 cm
C. To perform the resection of bowel in the distance 70 cm
D. To replace a bowel in an abdominal cavity
E. * To perform the resection of bowel in the distance 25-30 cm proximally and 10-15
cm distally
1425. If during introduction of finger to the superficial ring of inguinal channel the pulsation of
lower epigastric artery is determined laterally to the hernia swelling, its mean:
A. Incarcerated inguinal hernia
B. Femoral hernia
C. Umbilical hernia
D. Oblique inguinal hernia
E. * Direct inguinal hernia
1426. If during introduction of finger to the superficial ring of inguinal channel the pulsation of
lower epigastric artery is determined medially to the hernia swelling, its mean:
A. Incarcerated inguinal hernia
B. Umbilical hernia
C. Direct inguinal hernia
D. Femoral hernia
1427. If hernia, complicated by phlegmon, is jammed:

A. Performed hernioplasty by Kukudzhanov
B. Performed hernioplasty by Spasokukocky
C. Performed hernioplasty by Sapezhko
D. Performed hernioplasty by Bassini
E. * A hernioplasty is not performed
1428. If in a hernia sack organs compressed with lost of function, necrosis, its mean:
A. Damage of hernia
B. Tumor of hernia
C. Nonreducible hernia
D. Inflammation of hernia
E. * Incarceration of hernia
1429. In case of incarceration of loop of bowel, above the hernia sack will be:
A. Absence of sounds
B. Clang
C. Sonorous sound
D. Dull sound
E. * Tympanit
1430. In the case of direct inguinal hernia lower epigastric vessels are located:
A. Behind a hernia sack
B. Higher hernia sack
C. Medially from a hernia sack
D. Below hernia sack
E. * Lateral to hernia sack
1431. In the case of incarceration of omentum above the hernia sack will be:
A. Absence of sounds
B. Clang
C. Sonorous sound
D. Tympanit
E. * Dull sound
1432. In the case of negative cough sign will be:

A. Tumor of hernia
B. Inflammation of hernia
C. Coprostasis
D. Nonreducible hernia
1433. In the case of oblique inguinal hernia lower epigastric vessels are located:
A. Behind a hernia sack
B. Lateral to hernia sack
C. Higher hernia sack
D. Below hernia sack
E. * Medially from a hernia sack
1434. In the case of the incarcerated hernia a main symptom is:

A. Nausea and vomit
B. Bleeding
C. Negative cough sign
D. High temperature
E. * Pain in the hernia swelling
rarely?
E. pylorus.

A. * V. Portae;
B. V. odd;
C. V. pair;
E. V. lower hollow;
1437. Incarcerated hernia does not complicated by:

A. Acute ileus
B. Peritonitis
C. Necrosis of hernia sack
D. Phlegmon of hernia sack
E. * Lymphadenitis
1438. Incarcerated hernia must be treated:

B. Dynamic supervision
C. By reducing of hernia
D. Planned operation

A. 1-4 cm
B. 1-3 cm
C. 3-5 cm
D. 2- 6 cm
E. * 2-3 cm

A. * to 0,5 cm
B. 0,5-1 cm
C. to 1,0 cm
D. 3 to 1,5 cm
E. 0,5-1,5 cm
1441. Lower epigastric vessels at oblique inguinal hernia is located:

A. Behind hernia sack
B. Laterally to hernia sack
C. Higher to hernia sack
D. Below to hernia sack
E. * Medially to hernia sack
1442. Maydlya hernia is:

A. Unreducible hernia
B. Incarceration of sliding hernia
C. Incarceration of diverticulum of Mekkel
D. Wall incarceration
E. * Retrograde incarceration
1443. Measure of resection of the incarcerated bowel:

A. 10-15 cm distally
B. 25-30 cm proximally
C. Within the limits of visible healthy tissue
D. 15-20 cm proximally and 5-10 cm distally
E. * 25-30 cm proximally and 10-15 cm distally
A. gullet;
B. stomach;
C. rectum;
D. * duodenum;
E. colon
1445. Melena is

A. * bleeding ulcer
1447. Method of examination of incarcerated hernia is:

A. Colonoscopy
B. Endoscopy
C. CT
D. Sonography
E. * X-Ray examination
1448. Methods of operative treatment of the left-side oblique reducible inguinal hernia:
A. Methods of Sapezhko, Meyo
B. Methods of Abrazhanov, Caravanov
C. Methods of Rudzhi, Parlavecho, Praksin
D. Methods of Bassini, Kukudzhanov, Postempsky
E. * Methods of Martinov, Zhirar-Spasokukocky-Kimbarovsky
1449. Most frequent form of incarceration:

A. All listed meets rare
B. All listed meets often
C. Incarceration is mixed
D. Excrement incarceration
E. * Elastic incarceration

B. * EFGDS
D. Sonography
E. Laparoskopy

1452. Negative cough sign means:

A. Tumor of hernia
C. Coprostasis
D. Nonreducible hernia
1453. Nonreducible hernia arises because of:

A. Necrosis
B. Coprostasis
C. Peristalsis
D. An acute jamming of hernia content in the hernia gate
E. * Adhesion process between hernia content and hernia sack
1454. Objective sign of the incarcerated hernia:

A. Bleeding
B. Positive cough sign
C. Vomit
D. Pain
E. * Negative cough sign
1455. On the method of the plastic by Bassini is performed:

A. Strengthening of medial wall of inguinal channel
B. Suturing of defect of anterior abdominal wall
C. Strengthening of lateral wall of inguinal channel
E. * Creation or strengthening of posterior wall of inguinal channel
1456. Opening, through which goes out direct inguinal hernia:

A. White line of abdomen
B. Femoral channel
C. Lateral inguinal fossa
D. Left inguinal fossa
E. * Medial inguinal fossa

1458. Operation which narrow inguinal channel without its opening:
A. Method of Spasokukotsky, Kimbarovsky
B. Method of Bassini, Kukudzhanov
C. Method of Ru
D. Method of Martinov, Zhirar
E. * Method of Postempsky
1459. Operation, which is used at right nonreducible femoral hernia:

A. Methods of Martinov, Postempsky
B. Methods of Bassini, Kukudzhanov, Postempsky
C. Methods of Martinov, Jirar, Spasokukocky, Kimbarovsky
D. Methods of Sapezhko, Meyo
E. * Methods of Bassini, Rudzhi, Parlavecho
1460. Operations of narrowing of inguinal channel without it opening is named by:

A. By Spasokukotsky, Kimbarovsky
B. By Bassini, Kukudzhanov
C. By Martinov, Zhirar
D. By Postempsky
E. * By Cherni, Ru
1461. Operations of renewing of inguinal channel is named by:

A. Method of Lockwood
B. Method of Kirschner
C. Method of Postempsky
D. Method of Cherni, Ru
E. * Method of Martinov, Zhirar
1462. Operations with liquidation of inguinal channel is named by:

A. Method of Lockwood
B. Method of Kirschner
C. Method of Cherni, Ru
D. Method of Martinov, Zhirar
E. * Method of Postempsky

1464. Principle of Janov method is:

A. Strengthening of upper wall of inguinal channel
B. Strengthening of anterior wall of inguinal channel
E. * Use for hernioplasty patch of skin
1465. Principle of Kirschner method is:

E. * Used for hernioplasty of wide femoral fascia
1466. Principle of Lexer method at umbilical hernia is:

A. Vertical cut on middle line
B. Removing of the umbilicus
C. Horizontal hernioplasty
D. Transversal hernioplasty
E. * Placing of circle sutures around the edges of defect
1467. Principle of Lockwood method is:

E. * Closing of femoral channel by sewing inguinal ligament to the periosteum of pubic
bone
1468. Principle of Zhirar method is:

C. Narrowing of inguinal channel without its opening
1469. Principles of Meyo method:

A. Strengthening of posterior wall of inguinal channel
D. Formation of double-layer of white line
E. * Suturing of defect of anterior abdominal wall in the area of umbilical ring by U-
shape sutures
1470. Purpose of the using of Kukudzhanov method:

A. Closing of hernia gate is from the side of femoral channel
C. Narrowing of inguinal channel is without its opening
E. * Strengthening of posterior wall of inguinal channel



A. palliative
B. draining
D. resection
1475. Signs of non-complicated hernia are all, except:

A. Nausea
B. Constipation
C. Swelling
D. Vomit
E. * Bleeding from hernia


1478. Strengthening of posterior wall of inguinal channel performed at the hernioplasty by:
A. Martinov
B. Kimbarovsky
C. Rudzhi
D. Meyo
E. * Bassini
1479. Swelling in the area of lateral fossa is means:

A. Umbilical hernia
B. Epigastroceles
D. Femoral hernia
1480. Swelling in the area of medial fossa is means:

A. Umbilical hernia
B. Epigastroceles
C. Oblique inguinal hernia
D. Femoral hernia
1481. Swelling of anterior abdominal wall in the area of lateral fossa could be at:
A. Direct and oblique inguinal hernia
B. Epigastroceles
D. Femoral hernia
1482. Swelling of anterior abdominal wall in the area of medial fossa could be at:
A. Direct and oblique inguinal hernia
B. Epigastroceles
C. Femoral hernia
D. Oblique inguinal hernia
1483. Tactic of doctor, if during hospitalization incarcerated hernia is replaced:

A. Nothing to do
C. To discharge patient
D. Urgent surgical treatment
E. * Hospitalization, supervision
1484. Tactic of surgeon during replacing of the incarcerated hernia during operation:
A. Finishing of operation
B. Draining of abdominal cavity
C. Laparotomy
D. Hernioplasty without revision of nearest organs
E. * Operative treatment with the revision of nearest organs
1485. The „symptom of flowing” is characteristic for:

A. Epigastroceles
B. Umbilical hernia
C. Inguinal hernia
D. Femoral hernia
E. * Diaphragmatic hernia
1486. The anterior wall of inguinal channel is:

A. Inguinal ligament
B. Lower edge of internal oblique and transversal muscles of abdomen
C. Direct muscle of abdomen
D. Transversal fascia
E. * Aponeurosis of external oblique muscle of abdomen
1487. The best method for differential diagnostics of acute hydropsy of testicle with the
incarcerated inguinal hernia is:
A. Colonoscopy
B. Endoscopy
C. CT
D. Sonography
E. * Diaphanoscopy
1488. The effective method of prophylaxis of incarceration of hernia is:

A. Changing of job
B. Diet
C. Anti-spastic drugs
D. Antibiotics
E. * The planned operations
1489. The elastic incarceration develops:

A. Languidly
B. With high speed
C. Too slowly
D. Gradually
E. * Suddenly
1490. The excrement incarceration arises up at:

A. Sneeze
B. Cough
C. Physical training
D. Bleeding
E. * Decreasing of peristalsis
1491. The excrement incarceration develops:

A. Too slowly
B. Suddenly
C. With high speed
D. Languidly
E. * Gradually
1492. The external wall of femoral channel is:

A. Transversal fascia
B. Os pubis
C. Lakunar ligament
D. Inguinal ligament
E. * Femoral vein
1493. The internal wall of femoral channel is formed by:

A. Transversal fascia of abdomen
B. By the inguinal ligament
C. By a femoral vein
D. By the horizontal branch of pubic bone
E. * By the edge of Jimbernat ligament
1494. The lower wall of inguinal channel is formed by:

A. Pubic bone
B. Transversal fascia of abdomen
C. Aponeurosis of external oblique muscle of abdomen
D. Lower edge of internal oblique and transversal muscles of abdomen
E. * Inguinal ligament
1495. The method of Kukudzhanov is performed at hernioplasty of:

A. Umbilical hernia
B. Femoral and inguinal hernia
C. Epigastroceles
D. Femoral hernia
1496. The method of Spasokukotsky is performed at hernioplasty of:
A. Umbilical hernia
B. Umbilical hernia
C. Femoral hernia
1497. The methods of hernioplasty with using of synthetic materials:

A. Fixation of graft for the edges of defect
B. Fixation of graft between peritoneum and aponeurosis layer (inlay technic)
C. Fixation of graft under autoplasty (sublay technic)
D. Fixation of graft above autoplasty (onlay technic)
E. * All listed methods

1499. The objective sign of hernia is:

A. Vomit
B. Nausea
C. Constipation
D. Pain
E. * Swelling
1500. The posterior wall of femoral channel is:

B. Edge of Jimbernat ligament
C. Femoral vein
D. Inguinal ligament
E. * Horizontal branch of pubic bone
1501. The posterior wall of inguinal channel is:

A. Pubic bone
B. Inguinal ligament
C. Lower edge of internal oblique and transversal muscles of abdomen
D. Aponeurosis of external oblique muscle of abdomen
E. * Transversal fascia of abdomen
1502. The resection of the loop of incarcerated bowel in hernia gate is indicated:
A. At presence of all of the listed signs
B. In default of pulsation of mesentery vessels
C. In default of discoloration
D. In default of peristalsis
E. * At presence of any of the listed signs
1503. The retrograde incarceration arises up at presence of:

A. Adhesion in a hernia sack
B. Wrong form of hernia gate
C. Narrow hernia gate
D. Negative pressure in a hernia sack
E. * Wide hernia gate
1504. The retrograde incarceration looks like :

A. Letters of F
B. Letters of R
C. Letters of B
D. Letters of G
E. * Letters of W
1505. The Richter incarceration arises up, when in a hernia sack located:
A. Part of urinary bladder
B. Loop of bowel
C. Lateral wall of bowel
D. Part of mesentery
E. * Part of wall of bowel
1506. The Rudzhi method is use for:

A. Oblique and direct inguinal hernia
B. Direct inguinal hernia
C. Acquired oblique inguinal hernia
D. Congenital oblique inguinal hernia
E. * Femoral hernia
1507. The second stage of operation at incarcerated hernia:

A. Sequence of manipulations not important
B. Section of hernia sack
C. Fixing of jammed organ
D. Puncture of hernia sack
E. * Scission of incarceration ring
C. serosal
E. external layer
1509. The signs of non-complicated hernia are all, except of:

A. Nausea
B. Constipation
C. Swelling
D. Vomit
E. * Bleeding from hernia
1510. The sizes of hernia gate at small hernia:

A. Over 20 cm
B. Over 15 cm
C. To 15 cm
D. To 8 cm
E. * To 2 cm
1511. The upper wall of inguinal channel is:

A. Pubic bone
C. Inguinal ligament
E. * Lower edge of internal oblique and transversal muscles of abdomen
C. profuse bleeding

D. Menetrie's sing;


A. * bleeding ulcer
C. * pylorus ulcers
1517. Wall of inguinal channel, which is strengthened at the plastic by Bassini:

A. Anterior and posterior
B. Lower
C. Upper
D. Anterior
E. * Posterior
1518. What additional symptom, which will arise up at incarceration of sliding inguinal hernia, the
wall of which is an urinary bladder:
A. Absence of other symptoms
B. Bleeding
C. Symptom of sexual weakness
D. Intoxication symptom
E. * Disuria
duodwnum?
A. perforation
C. pylorus stenosis
E. * bleeding
1521. What complications can be at incarceration of omentum:

A. Peritonitis
B. Necrosis of hernia sack
C. Intestinal obstruction
D. Phlegmon of hernia sack
E. * A thrombosis of vessels of omentum and embolism of portal vein
1522. What diameter of hernia gate at large hernia:

A. Over 8 cm
B. Over 14 cm
C. Over 12 cm
D. Over 10 cm
E. * Over 4 cm
1523. What diameter of hernia gate at middle hernia:

A. Over 8 cm
B. Over 14 cm
C. Over 12 cm
D. Over 10 cm
E. * Up to 4 cm
1524. What does form the anterior wall of femoral channel?

A. Transversal fascia
B. Pubic bone
C. Lakunar ligament
D. Femoral vein
E. * Inguinal ligament
A. * trichopol
B. Licviroton
C. oxiferiskorbon
D. atropine
E. pirinzsipin
A. trunk vagotomy
D. gastrectomy
1529. What hernia has mesoperitoneal organ as part of hernia sack wall:
A. Umbilical hernia
B. Oblique inguinal hernia
C. Femoral hernia
E. * Sliding hernia
1530. What hernia is operated by Sapezhko method?

A. Direct inguinal hernia
B. Only at hernia of white line
C. Only umbilical hernia
D. Only femoral hernia
E. * Umbilical and white line
1531. What hernia tissue can be the tumors origin?

A. Never arise
B. Hernia sack
C. Membrane of hernia
D. Hernia content
E. * All listed elements of hernia
1532. What hernioplasty is indicated in case of phlegmon of hernia sack:

A. Meyo hernioplasty
B. Bassini hernioplasty
C. Hernioplasty with draining of wound
D. Performed by any methods
E. * Contra-indicated
except for
A. * ACTH
C. prostaglandin E
D. estrogens
E. STH
1534. What is contra-indicated for patients with coprostasis?
A. Enemas
B. Antispastic
C. Anaesthetic
D. Easy local massage
E. * Purgative drugs
1535. What is external hernia of abdomen:

A. An output of organs through the damaged abdominal wall
B. Jamming of organs
C. Inflammations of organs
D. An output of organs outside of peritoneum
E. * Output of organs, covered by peritoneum under a skin
1536. What is incarcerated hernia:

A. Jamming of content of hernia is from the side of abdominal cavity
C. Jamming of content of hernia by the wall of hernia sack
D. Jamming of content of hernia by surrounding tissue
E. * A jamming of content of hernia in its gate
1537. What is initial femoral hernia?

A. Swelling goes out outside of internal femoral ring
B. Swelling goes out outside superficial fascia
C. Swelling passes all anatomic structure of femoral channel
D. Swelling does not go outside superficial fascia
E. * Swelling does not go outside of internal femoral ring
1538. What is internal hernia of abdomen:

A. An output of organs through the damaged abdominal wall
B. Jamming of organs
C. Inflammations of organs
D. An output of organs outside of peritoneum
E. * The output of organs through the natural folds of peritoneum within the limits of
abdominal cavity
1539. What is Lihtenshtein method?

A. Hernioplasty with painter net
B. Hernioplasty with metallic net
C. Hernioplasty with arachnoidite net
D. Hernioplasty with polyethylene net
E. * Hernioplasty with mesh material “Ethicon”
1540. What is Littre hernia ?

A. Nonreducible hernia
C. Antegrade incarceration
D. Retrograde incarceration
E. * Incarceration of Mekkel diverticul
1541. What is more frequent forms wall at sliding left-side inguinal hernia?
A. Stomach
B. Transverse colon
C. Urinary bladder
D. Small intestine
E. * Sigmoid colon
1542. What is more frequent forms wall at sliding right-side inguinal hernia?:
A. Stomach
B. Transverse colon
C. Urinary bladder
D. Small intestine
E. * Urinary bladder
1543. What is not characteristic for determination of viability of incarcerated bowel:

A. Presence of peristalsis
B. Presence of pulsation of mesentery vessels
C. Absence of strangulation furrow
D. Renewing of the natural color of organ
E. * Presence of strangulation furrow
1544. What is orifice of hernia sack?

A. Its widest part
B. Its upper part
C. Its lower part
D. Distal part of hernia sack
E. * Part of hernia sack, which connected with abdominal cavity
1545. What is principle of Lexer method at umbilical hernia?

A. Vertical cut on middle line
B. Removing of the umbilicus
C. Horizontal hernioplasty
D. Transversal hernioplasty
E. * Placing of circle sutures around the edges of defect
1546. What is Richter’s hernia?

A. Nonreducible hernia
C. Incarceration of diverticulum of Mekkel
D. Retrograde incarceration
E. * A hernia in which only a portion of the wall of the intestine is involved.
1547. What is the condition of expression and character of development of pathological changes at
incarceration hernia?:
A. Degree of jamming of organ by the incarcerated ring
B. Structure of jammed organ
C. State of vessels
D. Duration of incarceration
E. * All listed signs
1548. What is the first sign of the false incarceration?

A. Intestinal obstruction
B. Peritonitis
C. Intoxication syndrome
D. Pain in the hernia
E. * Pain in the abdominal cavity
1549. What is the first step of operation at the incarcerated hernia?
A. Estimation of viability of jammed organ
C. Dissecting of jamming ring
D. Puncture of hernia sack.
E. * Quick opening of hernia sack and fixing of jammed organ.
1550. What is the internal wall of femoral channel?:

B. Inguinal ligament
C. Femoral vein
D. Horizontal branch of pubic bone
E. * Edge of Jimbernat ligament
1551. What is the most frequent complication of incarcerated hernia:

A. Colitis
B. Tumor of colon
C. Pancreatitis
D. Peptic ulcer
E. * Necrosis of hernia sack
1552. What is the principle of inlay technic of the hernioplasty of postoperative hernia:
A. All are transferred methods
B. Fixation of graft for the edges of defect
C. Fixation of graft above autoplasty
D. Fixation of graft under autoplasty
E. * Fixation of graft between peritoneum and aponeurosis layer
1553. What is the principle of onlay technic of the hernioplasty of postoperative hernia:
C. Fixation of graft between peritoneum and aponeurosis layer
D. Fixation of graft under autoplasty
E. * Fixation of graft above autoplasty
1554. What is the principle of sublay technic of the hernioplasty of postoperative hernia:
C. Fixation of graft between peritoneum and aponeurosis layer
D. Fixation of graft above autoplasty
E. * Fixation of graft under autoplasty
1555. What is the superior wall of inguinal channel?

A. Pubic bone
C. Inguinal ligament
E. * Lower edge of internal oblique and transversal muscles of abdomen
1556. What is the time of disability after treatment of incarcerated hernia?:

A. 14 days
B. 1 week
C. 4-6 days
D. 12 weeks
E. * 4-6 weeks
E. small curvature

C. X-ray
B. On blood volume
1560. What method is used for closing of hernia gate from the side of femoral channel:
A. Method of Spasokukotsky
B. Method of Meyo
C. Method Caravanov
D. Methods of Lockwood and Abrazhanov
E. * Method of Rudzhi
1561. What methods of hernioplasty at postoperative hernia?:

A. Aponeurotic hernioplasty
B. Alloplasty by a tantal mesh
C. Alloplasty by lavsan suture
D. Muscle-aponeurotic
E. * All listed
1562. What name of method of closing of femoral channel by sewing of inguinal ligament to the
periosteum of pubic bone?
A. Method Caravanov
B. Method of Spasokukotsky
C. Method of Meyo
D. Method of Rudzhi
E. * Method of Lockwood
1563. What name of the symptoms of the incarcerated hernia:

A. Nausea and vomit
B. Pain in the hernia swelling
C. Negative cough sign
D. Nonreducible swelling
E. * All are transferred signs

A. * tavegil
B. obzidan
C. hystdol
D. cerucal
E. oraza
A. cymetidin
B. eglonin
C. * gastocepini
D. etimsiloli
E. vinylin
B. Almagel
C. Vinylin
D. De-nol
E. Claritromycin

B. pancakes
C. raw egg-white
D. bread rye fresh
E. acute cheeses
1568. What signs of viability of the jammed loop of bowel is used?:

A. By a tint
B. By a color
C. By the presence of pulsation of vessels
D. By the presence of peristalsis
E. * Used all signs
1569. What stages has by medial vascular-lacunar femoral hernia?

A. Incomplete, complete
B. Initial, complete
C. Incomplete, complete, eventual
D. First, second, third
E. * Initial, incomplete, complete

A. * ulcerous
B. hemorragic;
C. pain;

A. * 6 – 12 hours;
B. 6 – 10 hours;
C. 6 – 8 hours
D. 6 – 14 hours;
E. 6 – 20 hours
A. hypocalcemia
B. * hypokaliemia
C. Hyponatremia
D. Hypercalcinemia
E. hyperkaliemia
1573. What wall of inguinal channel is strengthened by Bassini hernioplasty:

B. Inferior
C. Superior
D. Anterior
E. * Posterior
1574. What wall of inguinal channelis strengthened at the plastic by Kukudzhanov:

B. Inferior
C. Superior
D. Anterior
E. * Posterior

1576. When could be false incarceration of hernia?

A. At incarceration of diverticul of Mekkel
B. At inflammation of hernia
C. At jamming of the organ in a hernia sack
D. At the partial incarceration of wall of organ
E. * At the acute diseases of organs of abdominal cavity
1577. When lower epigastric vessels is located laterally to hernia sack?

A. Epigastroceles
B. Umbilical hernia
C. Oblique inguinal hernia
D. Femoral hernia
1578. When lower epigastric vessels is located medially to hernia sack?

A. Epigastroceles
B. Umbilical hernia
D. Femoral hernia
1579. With the purpose of strengthening of anterior wall of inguinal channel it is performed:
A. Method of Kirschner
C. Method of Bassini, Kukudzhanov
D. Method of Ru
E. * Methods of Martinov, Zhirar, Spasokukotsky
B. Perforation
1581. A patient, 32 years, 4 hours ago has "knife-like" abdominal pain. Diagnosis?
A. Acute appendicitis.
B. Acute ileus.
C. Acute pancreatitis.
D. Gangrenous cholecystitis.
E. * All of answers are incorrect.


tract

B. barrel vagotomy
1586. Among the symptoms of perforative peptic ulcer one is indicated wrong:
A. Positive symptom of Schetkin-Blumberg.
B. Disappearance of hepatic sound.
C. There is a knife-like pain.
D. Tension of muscles of anterior abdominal wall.
E. * Vomiting is not facilitate.
1587. An absolute indication to the operation at peptic ulcerous disease are:

A. Persistent duodeno-gastric reflux with gastritis and peptic ulcer
B. Presence of genetic predisposition to peptic ulcerous disease
C. Combination of gigant gastric and duodenal peptic ulcers
D. Large peptic ulcer of pylorus with possible development of stenos
E. * Penetrative peptic ulcer with formation of pathological fistula
1588. An intraduodenal brake effect of acid secretion is realized through:

A. Duodeno-gastric reflux
B. Decreasing of pancreatic secretion
C. Increasing of pancreatic secretion
D. Increasing of bile production
E. * Increasing of secretine production
1589. An operation at a duodenal peptic ulcer is not performed at:

A. Development of malignancy
B. Development of perforation
C. Development of stenosis
D. Massive bleeding
E. * Formation of peptic ulcer after anti-inflammation non-steroid drug
1590. Appearance of disgust for meat is the most characteristic complaint of patient with:
A. Peptic peptic ulcer
B. Pancreatitis
C. peptic ulcerous disease of stomach
D. Uremic gastritis
E. * Cancer of stomach
1591. At a large gastric peptic ulcer the best method of treatment is:
A. Selective proximal vagotomy.
B. Gastrectomy.
C. Selective vagotomy and pyloroplasty by Finney.
D. Trunk vagotomy with excision of peptic ulcer.
E. * Resection of stomach.

B. pain increases
E. girdle pain

A. * to 3 hours
B. to 1,5 hour
C. to 6 hours
D. to 8 hours
E. 6 – 12 hours
1594. At determination of indications to surgical treatment of peptic ulcerous disease not

important:
A. Duration of disease
B. Duration of remission
C. Efficiency of conservative therapy
D. Frequency of relapses
E. * Expressed of inflammation in region of pylorus and duodenum
1595. At determination of indications to the operation of peptic ulcerous disease there it is

important:
A. Sizes of antral part of stomach
B. Secretion
C. Evacuation function of stomach and duodenum
D. X-Ray examination of stomach and duodenum
E. * Information of endoscopic examination of peptic ulcer and its localization
1596. At determination of indications to the operation of peptic ulcerous disease there it is not
important:
A. Duodeno-gastric reflux
B. Gastric secretion
C. Pathogenesis of disease
D. Complications of peptic ulcerous disease
E. * Predisposition to dumping-syndrome
1598. At often relapse of peptic ulcers of duodenum it is possible to suspect:

A. Bleeding
B. Perforation
C. Penetration
D. Tumor
E. * Syndrome of Zollinger-Ellison.
1599. At patient 40 years old 5 hours ago the perforation of gastric peptic ulcer is happened. What
is the best surgical treatment:
A. Gastrectomy.
B. Vagotomy and pyloroplasty.
C. Vagotomy and sewing of peptic ulcer.
D. Antrumectomy.
E. * Classic resection 2/3 stomach.
1600. At patients with peptic ulcerous disease the risk of the gastro-duodenal bleeding is most
high at:
A. All of cases
B. Malignancy
C. Perforations of peptic ulcer
D. Stenosis of pylorus
E. * Penetration of peptic ulcer to the omentum
1601. At peptic ulcerous disease of stomach more frequent in all:

A. Gastritis is expressed less than at a duodenal peptic ulcer.
B. Malignity more rare, than at a duodenal peptic ulcer.
C. low pH in antral part
D. The motor function of stomach is enhanceable in an interdigestive period
E. * Surgical treatment is used considerably more frequent, than at a duodenal peptic
ulcer.
1602. At peptic ulcerous disease:

A. All of answers are faithful
B. Increased motility of duodenum
C. Considerably more frequent, than at a gastric peptic ulcer, surgical treatment is used
D. Decreased motility of duodenum
E. * Considerably more frequent, than at a gastric peptic ulcer, conservative treatment is
used
1603. At perforative gastric peptic ulcer method of operation is determined from:

A. Age of patient
B. Time from the moment of perforation
C. Degree of peritonitis
D. Localization of the perforation
E. * All of listed
1604. At suspicion of duodenal peptic ulcer is performed:

A. Examination of gastric secretion
B. X-Ray of organs of abdominal cavity
C. Cholecystography
D. Determination of level of gastrin in blood
E. * Esophagogastroduodenoscopy
1605. At suspicion on the perforative peptic ulcer of stomach the first examination must be:
A. Laparoscopy
B. Angiography
C. Urgent esophagogastroduodenoscopy
D. X-Ray of stomach with barium
E. * X-Ray of abdominal region

A. Hb below 80 g/l
B. * Hb 80-100 g/l
E. Ht below 25%
indicated
1609. At the relapse of the peptic ulcerous gastro-duodenal bleeding is performed:

A. Conservative therapy
B. Colonoscopy
C. Sonography
D. Planned surgical treatment
1610. At the threat of relapse of the peptic ulcerous gastro-duodenal bleeding is recommended:
B. Colonoscopy
C. Sonography
D. Planned surgical treatment
loss indicated

A. artery;
B. veins;
1613. At which disease will be tension of muscles of anterior abdominal wall?

A. At pylorostenosis
B. At hernia
C. At appendicitis
D. At chronic gastritis
E. * Right answer not present
1614. Belching by bright red blood which increased at a cough is characteristic for:
A. Syndrome of Randyu - Osler
B. Bleeding gastric peptic ulcer
C. Syndrome of Mellori - Weiss
D. Tumor of cardiac part
E. * Pulmonary bleeding

A. * bleeding ulcer

B. bleeding ulcer

A. Ht 48-44, Hb 120
C. Ht 31-23, Hb 80
D. * Ht 38-32, Hb 100
E. Ht 44-40, Hb 110 /?

B. Ht 31-23, Hb 80
C. Ht 44-40, Hb 110
D. Ht 48-44, Hb 120
E. Ht 48-44, Hb 120

A. * Ht 31-23, Hb 80
C. Ht 38-32, Hb 100
D. Ht 44-40, Hb 110
E. Ht 48-44, Hb 120
1621. By the most credible reason of development peptic ulcer by decreasing of resistance of
mucous tunic of stomach is:
A. Hormonal changes in organism
B. Deficit of plastic and biochemically active substances
C. Local ischemia of gastro-duodenal mucous membrane
D. Metabolic changes in organism
E. * Chronic gastritis
1622. Choice of method of operative treatment at the perforative peptic ulcer complicated by
peritonitis?
A. Selective proximal vagotomy
B. Pyloroplasty with vagotomy
C. Antrumectomy with vagotomy
D. Subtotal resection of stomach
E. * Sewing of the perforative opening
1623. Clinical sign of perforative peptic ulcer in the first 6 hours of disease is not characterized
by:
A. By absence of vomiting.
B. By disappearance of hepatic sound.
C. By a "knife-like" abdominal pain.
D. Wooden belly.
E. * Diarrhea.
1624. Conservative therapy at perforative peptic ulcer is prescribed only at:

A. Combination of peptic ulcerous disease of stomach and duodenum
B. High degree of operating risk
C. Absence in patient peptic ulcerous anamnesis
D. Old age of patients
E. * Absence of possibility of urgent operation

A. bleeding ulcer
1626. Decreasing of gastric acid secretion comes at duodenal pH:

A. 6,0
B. 3,0
C. 4,0
D. 5,0
E. * 2,5 and below
1627. Decreasing of pain and appearance of "melena" at duodenal peptic ulcer is characteristic for:
A. Penetration to pancreas
B. Pyloroduodenal stenosis
C. Malignancy
D. Perforations of peptic ulcer
E. * Bleeding

A. * Meulengracht's
B. 1 by Pevznerom
C. 5 by Pevznerom
D. 15 by Pevznerom
E. 7 by Pevznerom
C. Mendel’s suing
E. Eleker’s sing

A. * 3-6 hours
B. 6-12 hours
C. 1-3 hours
D. 12-24 hours
E. 24-36 hours
1631. During transformation of gastric peptic ulcer to cancer will be such clinical signs: 1.
Decreasing of pain. 2. Appearance of anemia. 3. Change of appetite. 4. Absent of "niche" at X-
Ray examination of stomach. Choose correct combination of answers:
A. 1 and 3.
B. Only 4.
C. 2,3.
D. 1,2,3.
E. * 1,2,3,4.

B. bleeding ulcer
1633. Endoscopic examination does not diagnose:

A. Stenosis of pylorus
B. Type of gastritis
C. Cancer of stomach
D. Syndrome of Mellori - Weiss
E. * Syndrome of Zollinger - Ellison
1634. Endoscopy does not allow:

A. To perform pH- metry
B. To inform about cardiac sphincter and pylorus
C. To inform about mucous membrane of gullet, stomach and duodenum
D. To inform about peptic ulcerous defect and define its localization
E. * To define the degree of duodenogastric reflux
A. tumours
B. ulcers
D. erosions
1636. Etiopatogenetic method of operation at the uncomplicated duodenal peptic ulcer is:
A. Selective vagotomy
B. trunk vagotomy
C. combination of antrumectomy with trunk vagotomy
D. ideal antrumectomy with trunk vagotomy
E. * SPV (selective proximal vagotomy)

B. knife-like pain;
E. melena;

A. * melena
1639. For chronic gastro-duodenal peptic ulcers is not characteristic:

A. Possibility of develop different complications
B. Dense edges
C. Different sizes of peptic ulcerous defect
D. Penetration
E. * Absence of convergence of folds of mucous membrane
1640. For decompensated stenosis of pylorus is characteristic: 1. Vomiting by food which eaten
the day before. 2. Tension of muscles of abdominal wall. 3. Decrease of diuresis. 4. "Splash
sound" in abdomen on an empty stomach. 5. Delay of barium in a stomach more than 24 hours.
Choose correct combination of answers:
A. 1,2.
B. 1,2,3.4.
C. 1,2,4,5.
D. 1,2,4.
E. * 1,3,4,5.
1641. For decompensated stenosis of pylorus is not characteristic:

A. Delay of barium in a stomach more than 24 hours on X-Ray
B. Vomiting by food, eaten a day before
C. Oliguria
D. Splash sound" in a abdomen on an empty stomach
E. * Tension of muscles of abdominal wall
1642. For decompensated stenosis of pylorus is not characteristic:

A. Delay of barium in stomach for more than 24 hours
B. Splash sound in empty stomach
C. Anuria
D. Vomiting by food, eaten the day before
E. * Tension of muscles of abdominal wall

1644. For perforative gastric peptic ulcer in the first 6 hours is not characteristic:
A. Gas under the diaphragm
B. Acute stomach
C. Absent of hepatic sound
D. Wooden belly
E. * Swelling of stomach
1645. For perforative gastro-duodenal peptic ulcer is characteristic:

A. General weakness
B. Vomiting
C. Spastic pain
D. Gradual growth of pain syndrome
E. * Acute pain in epigastrium

B. melena

A. * Zhober’s;
B. Khelatid’s;
C. Podlag’s;
D. Vigats’s;
E. Udin’s.
1648. For successful surgical treatment of duodenal peptic ulcer is necessarily:

A. Sonography
B. Angiography
C. Examination of liver
D. Colonoscopy
E. * Estimation of the state of pylorus
1649. For successful surgical treatment of duodenal peptic ulcer not necessarily:
A. Examination of duodenal permeability
B. Determination of gastrin production
C. Estimation of the state of pylorus
D. Examination of gastric secretion
E. * Determination of etiology of peptic ulcer
1650. For the bleeding peptic ulcer not characteristic:

A. Decreasing of blood volume
B. Melena
C. Decreasing of hemoglobin
D. Vomiting by color of coffee-grounds
E. * Increasing of pain in stomach
1651. For the bleeding peptic ulcer the followings signs are characteristic: 1. There is increasing
of pain syndrome. 2. Vomiting by "coffee-grounds". 3. There is decreasing pain syndrome. 4.
Bradicardia. 5. Melena. Choose correct combination of answers:
A. 1,3,5.
B. 3,4,5.
C. 2,3,4.
D. 1,2,5.
E. * 2,3,5.


1654. For what complications of peptic peptic ulcer is characteristic convergences of folds of
mucous pmembrane:
A. Bleeding
B. Stenosis
C. Perforation
D. Penetration
E. * Malignancy
A. gastric fundus
B. * cardial pert;
D. from duodenal;

A. over 4,5 cm
B. * over 3 cm
C. over 4 cm
D. over 5 cm
E. over 3,5 cm
1657. Hemobilia is
1658. How to explain the reason of appearance of tension of muscles in the right iliac region in
patients with perforative peptic ulcer:
A. Viscero-visceral reflex.
B. Developing of peritonitis.
C. Reflex through the spinal nerves.
D. An accumulation of air in abdominal region.
E. * Flowing of gastric content to the right lateral channel
1659. How to find the source of the gastro-duodenal bleeding:

A. Sonography
B. X-Ray examination of stomach
C. Nasogastric probe
D. Laparoscopy
E. * Endoscopy
1660. If patient with perforative gastric peptic ulcer is refuse from the operation, it is prescribed:
1.Cleaning the stomach by cold water. 2.Long-term naso-gastric aspiration. 3.Stimulation of
intestine. 4.Antibiotic therapy. 5. Position of Trendelenburg. Choose correct combination of
answers:
A. 2,3,5.
B. 1,2,5.
C. 1,4.
D. 2,3,4,5.
E. * 2,4.
rarely?
E. pylorus.

A. * V. Portae;
B. V. odd;
C. V. pair;
E. V. lower hollow;
1663. Indications to surgical treatment of the uncomplicated peptic ulcerous disease are: 1. Low
localization of peptic ulcer. 2. Long time of peptic ulcerous anamnesis with the frequent
relapse. 3. Young age of patient. 4. Ineffective conservative treatment more than 3 months.
Choose correct combination of answer.
A. 1,2,3,4.
B. 1,4.
C. 2,3,4.
D. 1,3.
E. * 2,4.
1664. Isolated selective proximal vagotomy is performed at:

A. Gastro-duodenal bleeding.
B. Malignancy.
C. Perforative peptic ulcer
D. Duodenal peptic ulcer with subcompensated stenosis of pylorus.
E. * Duodenal chronic peptic ulcer without the stenosis.

A. 1-4 cm
B. 1-3 cm
C. 3-5 cm
D. 2- 6 cm
E. * 2-3 cm

A. * to 0,5 cm
B. 0,5-1 cm
C. to 1,0 cm
D. 3 to 1,5 cm
E. 0,5-1,5 cm
1667. Maximal Histamin test at peptic ulcerous disease is used for:
A. Estimations of efficiency of H-2 blockers.
B. Determinations of base acid production.
C. Determinations of function of antrum part of stomach.
D. Examinations of motility of stomach.
E. * Examinations of humoral phase of gastric secretion.
A. gullet;
B. stomach;
C. rectum;
D. * duodenum;
E. colon
1669. Melena is

A. * bleeding ulcer

B. * EFGDS
D. Sonography
E. Laparoskopy
1672. Most physiological method of resection of stomach:

A. Resection by Raykhel-Polia
B. Bilroth-II in modification by Hakker-Balfur
C. Bilroth-II in modification by Hofmeister-Finsterer
D. Resection in modification by Ru
E. * Bilrot-I

1674. Name the most characteristic symptom of chronic gastric peptic ulcer:
A. Weakness
B. Pain in 1,5-2 hours after food intake
C. Heartburn
D. Vomiting
E. * Pain in 30 minutes after food intake
1675. Name the most characteristic symptom of chronic peptic ulcer:

A. Vomiting
B. Pain in 2,5-3 hours after food intake
C. Pain in 30 minutes after food intake
D. Nightly pain
E. * Heartburn, pain in 1,5-2 hours after food intake
1676. Name the most informative method of examination at dumping-syndrome:

A. Colonoscopy
B. Examination of volume of circulatory blood
C. Endoscopy
D. CT
E. * X-Ray with barium

1678. Operation of choice at peptic ulcerous disease with violation of duodenal passage is:
A. SPV without the special correction of the duodenal passage
B. SPV with duodeno-jejuno anastomosis
C. Resection of stomach (antrumectomy) with vagotomy by Gofmeyster-Finsterer
D. Resection of stomach (antrumectomy) with vagotomy by Bilroth-1
E. * Resection of stomach (antrumectomy) with vagotomy by Ru
1679. Operative treatment of patient with a duodenal peptic ulcer is performed in cases of: 1.
There are often relapses of disease, 2. A disease is complicated by bleeding, 3. A disease is
complicated by stenosis 4. A disease is complicated by perforation of peptic ulcer 5. A disease
is complicated by penetration. Choose correct combination of answers:
A. 1,2
B. 3.4
C. 2,3
D. 1,4
E. * 1,2,3,4,5.

1681. Patients with the compensated pyloroduodenal stenosis without the signs of active peptic
ulcer:
A. Operated after 2-monthly course of intensive antipeptic ulcer therapy
B. Does not need surgical treatment
C. Operated only in the case of progress of stenosis
D. Need surgical treatment in the case of intensifying of peptic ulcerous disease
E. * Need obligatory surgical treatment
1682. Penetrative gastric and duodenal peptic ulcer can result of: 1. abscess of abdominal region 2.
pylephlebitis, 3. fistule 4. acute pancreatitis 5. bleeding. Choose correct combination of
answers:
A. 1,2,3,4,5
B. 1,3,5.
C. 1,2,3
D. 2,3,4.
E. * 3,4,5.
1683. Planning of operation on duodenal peptic ulcer, there it is not important:

A. Examination of function of duodenum
B. X-Ray of stomach
C. Endoscopic examination of lung
D. Examine of gastric secretion
E. * Examination of secretion of pancreas

1685. Rare complication of peptic ulcer is:

A. Cicatrical deformation of bowel
B. Penetration
C. Bleeding
D. Perforation
E. * Malignancy

1687. Relative indications to surgical treatment of peptic ulcerous disease:

A. Atypical perforation of peptic ulcer
B. Malignant regeneration of peptic ulcer
C. Stenosis of pylorus
D. Relapse of the peptic ulcerous bleeding after endoscopic hemostasis
E. * Low bulb peptic ulcers


A. palliative
B. draining
D. resection
1690. Selective proximal vagotomy is not indicated for:

A. peptic ulcers with subcompensated stenosis
B. Duodenal peptic ulcer, complicated by bleeding
C. Uncomplicated duodenal peptic ulcer
D. Perforative peptic ulcer
E. * Gastric and duodenal peptic ulcer


1693. Spastic pain in epigastric region could be at

A. Ascitis
B. Acute ileus
C. Hypertension
D. Chronic bronchitis
E. * Peptic peptic ulcer
1694. Specify factors, which determine the choice of method of operation at the perforative peptic
ulcer of stomach: 1. Presence of peritonitis. 2. Time from the moment of perforation of peptic
ulcer. 3. Qualification of surgeon. 4. General state and age of patient. 5. Sizes of peptic ulcer.
Choose correct combination of answers:
A. All of answers are correct.
B. 1,2,3,5.
C. 1,2,4.
D. 1,3,4,5.
E. * 1,2,3,4.
1695. Specify physiopathology changes characteristic for decompensated stenosis of pylorus: 1.

Hypervolemia. 2. Anaemia. 3. Metabolic alkalosis. 4. Hypovolemiya. 5. Acidosis. Choose
correct combination of answers:
A. 2,3,4.
B. 4,5.
C. 1,3.
D. 2,4.
E. * 3,4.
1696. Specify the most characteristic symptoms of peptic ulcerous stenosis of pylorus:
A. Weakness
B. Constipation, vomiting
C. Constipation
D. Vomiting
E. * Filling of weight in the epigastrium
1697. Specify the most informative method of examination at a peptic peptic ulcer:
A. Colonoscopy
B. CT
C. Determine the gastric secretion
D. Sonography
E. * Endoscopy
1698. Syndrome of Mellori-Veys is:

A. hemorragic erosive gastroduodenitis
B. Varicosity of cardiac part, complicated by bleeding
C. Bleeding from mucous membrane.
D. Bleeding peptic ulcer from diverticulum of Mekkel
E. * Fissure in a cardiac part of stomach with bleeding
1699. Syndrome of Zollinger-Ellison is?

A. Hepatitis
B. Cholecystitis
C. Diabetes
D. Hyperthyroidism
E. * Tumor of pancreas
1700. Tension of muscles at right iliac region at the perforation of duodenal peptic ulcer is
explained by:
A. By viscero-visceral reflex
B. By development of peritonitis
C. Bleeding
D. Entering of air to abdominal cavity
E. * Flowing of gastric content to the right lateral channel
1701. The best method of diagnostics of perforative peptic ulcers is:

A. X-Ray
B. Endoscopy
C. Laparocentesis
D. Sonography
E. * Laparoscopy
1702. The best method of examination of gastric secretion is:

A. by using a cabbage juice
B. by using an insulin
C. by using a coffee
D. by using a food
E. * by using Histaminum
1703. The best method of intraoperative control after vagotomy:

A. MRI
B. CT
C. Sonography
D. X-Ray
E. * Intragastric ??-metry by the special ??-tube
1704. The characteristic clinical signs of cancer of cardiac part of stomach is:
A. Pain in epigastrium
B. Belch
C. Weakness
D. Sense of weight in epigastrium
E. * Dysphagia
1705. The characteristic of X-Ray signs of malignancy of stomach is:

A. Rigidity of wall of stomach
B. Strengthening of peristalsis
C. Defect of filling
D. Niche"
E. * Convergence of folds of mucous membrane of stomach
1706. The clinic of decompensated pyloroduodenal stenosis is characterized:

A. By a "splash sound" on an empty stomach.
B. By the hypovolemia.
C. Delay of barium in a stomach to 24 hours.
D. By the decrease of mass of body.
E. * All of answers are correct.
1707. The compensated stage of piloroduodenal stenosis is characterized by: 1. "Splash sound" on
an empty stomach. 2. Vomiting at mornings. 3. By the delay of barium in a stomach more than
12 hours. 4. By the hypovolemia. 5. General weakness. Choose correct combination of answers:
A. 1,2,3.
B. All of answers are correct.
C. 1,4,5.
D. 1,3,4.
E. * All of answers are wrong.
1708. The diet of Meylengraft is based:

A. All listed is not right
B. On mechanical defense of mucous membrane of stomach
C. On providing of high-calorie food
D. On suppression of secretion of gastric juice
E. * All of listed is right
1709. The dumping-syndrome conditioned:

A. By dilatation of stomach
B. By psycho state of patients
C. By hormonal changes
D. By the result of intestinal hyperosmose
E. * By the genetically determined reaction of organism on food products
1710. The gastric secretion in healthy persons:

A. Brake
B. Inert
C. Asthenic
D. Excitable
E. * Normal
1711. The high risk of the gastro-duodenal bleeding has patients with:
A. In all of cases.
B. Malignancy.
C. Perforation of peptic ulcer.
D. Stenosis of pylorus.
E. * Penetration of peptic ulcer to the omentum.
1712. The highest level of acidity is observed at peptic ulcer in:

A. Cardiac part of stomach
B. Body of stomach
C. Bottom of stomach
D. Antral part
E. * Pyloric part
1713. The initial process of peptic ulcer formation is depended from:

A. With decreasing of secretion of pancreas
B. With reverse diffusion of hydrogen ions
C. With violation of acid-neutralization function of duodenum
D. With decompensation of antral acid-neutralization function
E. * Balance between the factors of defence and aggression of gastro-duodenal region
1714. The morning vomiting by “acid” is characterized by?

A. Hepatitis
B. Cholecystitis
C. Diabetes
D. Hyperthyroidism
E. * To peptic ulcerous disease
1715. The most frequent complication of penetrative gastric peptic ulcer is:
A. Perforation
B. Development of stenosis of pylorus
C. formation of fistula
D. Malignancy
E. * Bleeding
1716. The most typical complication of peptic ulcer of posterior wall of duodenum is:
A. Stenosis.
B. Malignancy.
C. Penetration to the head of pancreas.
D. Perforation.
E. * Bleeding.

1718. The operation of choice at the perforative peptic ulcer of stomach in the stage of festering
peritonitis is:
A. Antrumectomy
B. SPV with sewing of perforation
C. Resection of stomach
D. Excision of peptic ulcer with vagotomy and pyloroplasty
E. * Sewing of perforation
1719. The reliable X-Ray sign of perforation of gastro-duodenal peptic ulcer is:
A. Absent of gas in the stomach
B. Kloyber’s "cup"
C. Gas in the intestine
D. High location of diaphragm
E. * Presence of free gas in abdominal region
C. serosal
E. external layer
1721. The symptoms of perforative gastric peptic ulcer are: 1. "Knife-like" pain. 2. Wooden belly.
3. Frequent vomiting. 4. Disappearance of hepatic sound. 5. Arterial hypertension. Choose
correct combination of answers:
A. 1,5.
B. 4,5.
C. 2,3.
D. 1,3,4.
E. * 1,2,4.
1722. The typical ways of metastasis of tumor of antrum part on large curvature of stomach is:
A. Lymphatic nodes of pancreas
B. Mesenteri
C. Spleen
D. Paraesophageal lymphatic nodes
E. * Liver
C. profuse bleeding

D. Menetrie's sing;


A. * bleeding ulcer
C. * pylorus ulcers
1728. What are indications to operative treatment of peptic peptic ulcer disease. 1. Perforation. 2.
Penetration. 3. Stenosis of pylorus. 4. Malignancy. 5. Gastro-duodenal bleeding. Correct will
be:
A. Only 1.
B. 1,4.5.
C. 1,3,5.
D. 1,5.
E. * 1,2,3,4,5.
1729. What are indications to urgent operative treatment of peptic peptic ulcer disease. 1.
Perforation. 2. Penetration. 3. Stenosis of pylorus. 4. Malignancy. 5. Gastro-duodenal bleeding.
Correct will be:
A. 1,2,3,4,5.
B. Only 1.
C. 1,4.5.
D. 1,3,5.
E. * 1,5.
1730. What are the normal indexes of Histaminum-stimulated рН of body and antral parts of
stomach?
A. body 5,0-7,0, antrum part of stomach 5-7
B. body 3,0-4,0, antrum part of stomach 4-5
C. body 8,9-10, antrum part of stomach 1,5-2,5
D. body 0,5-0,7, antrum part of stomach 1-2
E. * body 1,2-1,6, antrum part of stomach from 5 and higher
duodwnum?
1732. What complication of peptic ulcerous disease has disappearance of pain in an epigastrium
and appearance characteristic melena?
A. Penetration of peptic ulcer to the pancreas.
B. Malignancy of peptic ulcer.
C. Piloroduodenal stenosis.
D. Perforation of peptic ulcer.
E. * Bleeding from an peptic ulcer.
1733. What complication of peptic ulcerous disease of stomach is characteristic tension of
abdominal muscles ?
A. Stenosis.
B. Bleeding .
C. Penetration of peptic ulcer in a pancreas.
D. Covered perforation.
E. * Perforation in a free abdominal cavity.
A. perforation
C. pylorus stenosis
E. * bleeding
1735. What complications of peptic peptic ulcer disease: 1 Penetration, 2 Perforation, 3 Stenosis, 4
Bleeding, 5 Malignancy
A. 1,3.
B. 1,3,4.
C. 2,3,4.
D. 1,2,3,4.
E. * 1,2,3,4,5
1736. What examination is performed at suspicion on the perforation of peptic ulcer:

A. Colonoscopy.
B. Laparoscopy.
C. Gastroduodenoscopy.
D. Sonography.
E. * X-Ray of abdominal cavity
1738. What factors is stipulate for the state of patient with peptic ulcerous piloro-duodenal
stenosis?
A. Hypervolemia
B. Low temperature
C. Arterial hypertension
D. High temperature
E. * Hypovolemia
A. * trichopol
B. Licviroton
C. oxiferiskorbon
D. atropine
E. pirinzsipin
1740. What from the listed do not important at choice method of operative treatment at the cancer
of stomach?
A. Histological structure of tumor
B. Prevalence of tumor
C. Weight of patients
D. Age of patients
E. * Duration of disease
1741. What from the listed reasons is main in development of duodeno-gastric reflux?
A. Tumor of stomach
B. peptic ulcerous disease
C. Stenosis of pylorus
D. Inflamation of bile ducts
E. * Violation of duodenal permeability
1742. What from the methods of hemostasis at gastro-duodenal bleeding is most effective?
A. Transfusion of small doses of blood
B. Antispastic drugs
C. Antiinflammation drugs
D. Intravenous introduction of Vicasol
E. * Endoscopic coagulation of bleeding
A. trunk vagotomy
D. gastrectomy
except for
A. * ACTH
C. prostaglandin E
D. estrogens
E. STH
1746. What includes method of Teylor at treatment of perforative peptic ulcer: 1. Putting probe in
a stomach, 2 Permanent aspiration of gastric content, 3 Antibiotic terapy, 4 Desintoxication
therapy.
A. 1,3.
B. 1,3,4.
C. 2,3,4.
D. 1,2,3,4.
E. * All listed
1747. What indicated at a gastric peptic ulcer, which diagnosed during X-Ray examination of
stomach:
A. Immediate operation - resection of stomach.
B. Protracted conservative treatment,
C. Periodically X-Ray control
D. Operative treatment
E. * Gastroscopy with biopsy and treatment depending on its result
1748. What is basic methods of diagnostics at suspicion of the perforative gastric peptic ulcer: 1.
X-Ray of stomach with barium. 2. Survey X-Ray of abdominal region. 3. Gastroduodenoscopy.
4. Sonography of abdominal region. 5. Laparoscopy. Choose correct combination of answers:
A. All answers are correct.
B. 1,3,5.
C. 1,3.
D. 2,3,4.
E. * 2,5.
1749. What is characteristic for compensated pyloroduodenal stenosis :

A. Severe condition of patients
B. Permanent pain in epigastric region
C. Constipation
D. Frequent vomiting
E. Hungry” pain in epigastric region
1750. What is criteria of adequate preoperative preparation at patient with decompensated peptic
ulcerous stenosis of pylorus: 1. Level of diuresis. 2. Indexes of volume of circulatory blood. 3.
Level of hematocrit. 4. Indexes of electrolytes of blood. Choose correct combination of
answers:
A. All of answers are wrong.
B. 3 and 4.
C. 2,3,4.
D. 2,4.
E. * All of answers are correct.
1751. What is important in pathogenesis of peptic ulcerous disease of stomach: 1. Decreasing of

motility of stomach. 2. Duodeno-gastric reflux. 3. Pancreatitis. 4. Violation of protective
properties of mucous membrane. 5. Peritonitis. Choose correct combination of answers.
A. 1,2,3,4,5.
B. 1,3,4
C. 1,2,3.
D. 2,4,5.
E. * 1,2,4.
1752. What is indicated at bleeding peptic ulcer of body of stomach and small degree of operating
risk:
A. Excision of peptic ulcer
B. Sewing of bleeding peptic ulcer with a pyloroplasty and vagotomy
C. Excision of bleeding peptic ulcer with SPV
D. Excision of bleeding peptic ulcer with a pyloroplasty vagotomy
E. * Segmental resection of stomach with a bleeding peptic ulcer with omeprazole
1753. What is indicated for the patient with decompensated peptic ulcerous stenosis of pylorus
and convulsive syndrome:
A. All of answers are true.
B. Gastroduodenostomy.
C. Urgent gastrostomy.
D. Urgent resection of stomach.
E. * Resection of stomach in the planned order after the correction of general state.
1754. What is most frequent vagotomy is used:

A. Posterior trunk.
B. Anterior trunk
C. Selective
D. Trunk
E. * SPV
1755. What is normal indexes of stomach рН in a body and in the antrum part of stomach?
A. body 0,3-0,5, antrum part of stomach 1,1-1,9
B. body 0,3-0,5, antrum part of stomach 1,1-1,9
C. body 4,0-5,0, antrum part of stomach 1,0-1,5
D. body 0,8-1,0, antrum part of stomach 1,5-2,5
E. * body 1,6-2,2, antrum part of stomach from 5 and higher
1756. What is not characteristic for perforative peptic ulcer:

A. Knife-like pain
B. Disappearance of hepatic sound
C. General weakness
D. Wooden belly
E. * Spastic pain in abdomen
1757. What is not complication of peptic ulcerous disease:

A. Pyloroduodenal stenosis.
B. Gastro-duodenal bleeding.
C. Perforation of peptic ulcer.
D. Penetration of peptic ulcer.
E. * Malignancy of peptic ulcer.
1758. What is not indication to the operation at a duodenal peptic ulcer:

A. Penetration of peptic ulcer.
B. Failure of conservative therapy.
C. Stenosis of pylorus.
D. Bleeding from peptic ulcer.
E. * Localization of peptic ulcers in a bulb of duodenum.
1759. What is pain localization at peptic ulcer of small curvature of stomach?

A. In back
B. In left inguinal region
C. Near a umbilicus
D. In right inguinal region
E. * In epigastrium
1760. What is phases of perforation: 1 shock, 2 peritonitis, 3 pain phase, 4 “imaginary prosperity”,
5 recovery.
A. 2,4,5.
B. 3,1,5.
C. 3,2,5.
D. 1,2,3.
E. * 1,4,2.
1761. What is prescribed for patients with decompensated stenosis of pylorus before operation: 1.
Blood transfusion. 2. Solutions of glucose. 3. Solutions of Ringer. 4. Introduction of ions of
potassium. 5. Introduction of osmotic diuretics. Choose correct combination of answers?
A. 3,4,5.
B. 1,3,4.
C. 1,2,3.
D. 1,4,5.
E. * 2,3,4.
1762. What is prescribed for the patient with gastro-duodenal bleeding: 1. Permanent aspiration of
gastric content. 2. X-Ray of stomach. 3. Gastroduodenoscopy. 4. Laparoscopy. 5.
Determination of hemoglobin. Choose correct combination of answers:
A. 3,4,5.
B. 1,3,4,5
C. 3,4,5
D. 1,2,3,4
E. * 1,3,5
1763. What is the best method of surgical treatment of peptic ulcerous disease, complicated by
subcompensated stenosis of pylorus:
A. Subtotal resection of stomach with a large and small omentum.
B. Anterior gastroenterostomy.
C. Selective proximal vagotomy.
D. Gastroduodenoanastomosis.
E. * Selective proximal vagotomy in combination with a pyloroplasty by Finney.
1764. What is the best method of treatment of patient, 28 years, with a duodenal peptic ulcer,
complicated by subcompensated piloro-duodenal stenosis:
A. Posterior gastroenteroanastomosis.
B. Trunk vagotomy.
C. Subtotal resection of stomach.
D. Selective proximal vagotomy.
E. * Selective proximal vagotomy in combination with a draining operation.
1765. What is the most typical complication of peptic ulcer with penetration to the head of
pancreas:
A. Reflux.
B. Stenosis of cardiac part of stomach.
C. Malignancy.
D. Perforation.
E. * Acute pancreatitis.
1766. What is the reasons of formation of peptic peptic ulcers after resection of stomach:
A. Acute ileus
B. Pancreatitis
C. Syndrome of Zollinger - Ellison
D. Economy resection of stomach
E. * Is not resected antrum part of stomach
1767. What is treatment of peptic peptic ulcer disease with cicatrices and deformation of
duodenum
B. Antibiotic.
C. Antispastic
D. H-2 blockers
E. * Operative treatment.
1768. What is triad of Mondor: 1 peptic ulcerous anamnesis, 2 knife-like pain, 3 wooden belly, 4
local peritonitis, 5 the shock state of patient
A. 2,3,4.
B. 1,4,5.
C. 2,3,5.
D. 1,3,5.
E. * 1,2,3.
1769. What is used for diagnostics of perforative peptic ulcers:

A. X-Ray
B. Endoscopy
C. Laparocentesis
D. Sonography
E. * Laparoscopy
E. small curvature

C. X-ray
B. On blood volume
1773. What operation is performed after the hour after the perforation of gastric peptic ulcer:
A. Any of the listed operations
B. Vagotomy with a pyloroplasty
C. Closing of perforative peptic ulcer
D. Antrumectomy
E. * Classic resection of 2/3 stomach
1774. What operation is performed at decompensated stenosis of pylorus in old patients?

A. Subtotal resection of stomach
B. Resection of stomach
C. Pyloroplasty with vagotomy
D. Antrumectomy with vagotomy
E. * Gastroenteroanastomosis
1775. What operation is performed for patient, 43 years, with bleeding peptic ulcer of antrum part
of stomach:
A. Gastrectomy.
B. Conservative treatment.
C. Proximal vagotomy.
D. Excision of peptic ulcer with trunk vagotomy.
E. * Resection of stomach.
1776. What operation is performed in patient with the peptic ulcer, penetrated to the pancreas:
A. Pyloroplasty by Finney
B. Selective proximal vagotomy.
C. Vagotomy and draining operation.
D. Distal subtotal resection of stomach.
E. * Resection 2/3 stomach

A. * tavegil
B. obzidan
C. hystdol
D. cerucal
E. oraza
A. cymetidin
B. eglonin
C. * gastocepini
D. etimsiloli
E. vinylin
B. Almagel
C. Vinylin
D. De-nol
E. Claritromycin

B. pancakes
C. raw egg-white
D. bread rye fresh
E. acute cheeses
1781. What special methods of examination need to be applied at differentiation of acute

appendicitis with the covered perforative peptic ulcer? 1. Gastroduodenoscopy. 2. X-Ray. 3.
Sonography of abdominal region. 4. Laparoscopy. 5. Sciagraphy of stomach with the sulfate of
barium. Choose correct combination of answers:
A. Only 2 and 5.
B. Only 2 and 4.
C. 1,2,3.
D. 2,3,5.
E. * 1,2,4.
A. * ulcerous
B. hemorragic;
C. pain;

A. * 6 – 12 hours;
B. 6 – 10 hours;
C. 6 – 8 hours
D. 6 – 14 hours;
E. 6 – 20 hours
1784. What treatment of peptic ulcer, complicated by non-stopped gastro-duodenal bleeding?

A. Introduction of probe of Blekmora.
B. Embolization of gastric and gastro-duodenal arteries.
C. Operation at the relapse of bleeding.
D. Conservative treatment.
E. * Urgent operation.
1785. What treatment of the covered perforation of peptic ulcer:

A. Laparospic draining of abdominal cavity.
B. Treatment by method of Teylor.
C. Operation in the case of ineffective conservative treatment.
D. Conservative treatment.
E. * Urgent operation.
1786. What treatment of the perforative peptic ulcer after 15 hours from perforation?
A. Antrumectomy
B. Gastroenteroanastomosis.
C. Resection of stomach.
D. Vagotomy with a pyloroplasty by Finney.
E. * Sewing of perforation.
1787. What treatment of the perforative peptic ulcer of antrum part of stomach.
A. Antrumectomy.
B. Sewing of peptic ulcer and trunk vagotomy.
C. Resection 3/4 stomach with a large and small omentum.
D. Sewing of peptic ulcer.
E. * Resection of 2/3 stomach.
A. hypocalcemia
B. * hypokaliemia
C. Hyponatremia
D. Hypercalcinemia
E. hyperkaliemia

1790. When conservative treatment could be performed at perforative peptic ulcer?

A. Bleeding peptic ulcer
B. If a atypical perforation
C. At the clinical picture of general peritonitis
D. In patients with tuberculosis
E. * If patient does not want operation
1791. When could be "rotten" belch ?

A. At cholecystitis
B. At pancreatitis
C. At peptic ulcerative disease of stomach
D. At peptic ulcerative disease of duodenum
E. * At the cancer of stomach
1792. When could be symptom of fluctuation in abdominal cavity?

A. At pancreatitis
B. At peptic ulcerative disease of stomach
C. At peptic ulcerative disease of duodenum
E. * Ascitis
1793. When does a melena appear ?

A. At pancreatitis
D. At bleeding in the abdominal cavity
E. * At gastro-duodenal bleeding
1794. When is observed tension of muscles of stomach ?

A. At pancreatitis
E. * At inflammation of peritoneum
1795. When small curvature of stomach is palpated?

A. At gastritis
B. At decreasing of stomach
C. At increasing of stomach
D. In a norm
E. * At hastroptosis
1796. Where is located inferior measure of stomach?

A. Below umbilicus on 3-4 cm
B. Above umbilicus on 7-8 cm
C. At the level of umbilicus
D. Below umbilicus on 2-3 cm
E. * Above umbilicus on 2-3 cm
1797. Which clinical sign is not characteristic for dumping-syndrome:

A. A diarrhoea after eating
B. Pain in an epigastrium after food intake
C. Weakness, dizziness, hard beet filling after the food intake
D. A loss of weight, general weakness
E. * Vomiting by the eaten food
1798. Which disease is characterized by disappearance of pain in the epigastrium?

A. Pancreatitis.
B. Cholecystitis.
C. Piloroduodenal stenosis.
D. Perforation of peptic ulcer.
1799. Which disease is characterized by melena?

A. Penetration.
B. Malignancy .
C. Stenosis.
D. Perforation .
1800. Which drug is prescribed at the gastro-duodenal bleeding:

A. Vicalinum.
B. Baralgin
C. Paracetamol
D. Aspirin
E. * Dicinon.
1801. Which groups of preparations is prescribed for treatment of peptic ulcerous disease
A. Antibiotics
B. Antiacid preparations
C. Histamin blockers
D. H-2 blockers
E. * Non-steroid antiinflammation drugs.
1802. Which symptoms is absent at perforative gastric peptic ulcer:

A. Severe state of patient
B. Disappearance of hepatic sound.
C. Knife-like" pain
D. Wooden belly.
E. * Frequent vomiting.
1803. Why could be disappearance of hepatic sound at a perforative gastric peptic ulcer?
A. A presence of liquid in abdominal cavity.
B. Swelling of intestine.
C. Interposition of intestinal loops between a liver and diaphragm.
D. High location of diaphragm.
E. * A presence of free gas in an abdominal cavity.
1804. Why during the operations at peptic ulcerous disease resection of 2/3 of stomach is
performed:
A. All of answers are correct.
B. All of answers are wrong.
C. By the features of blood supply of stomach.
D. By the features of lymph supply of stomach.
E. * By the necessity to remove zones with hastrine and acid production.
1805. Wooden belly is characteristic for:

A. Acute ileus
B. Colitis
C. Pancreatitis
D. Volvulus
E. * Perforative peptic ulcer
1806. A acute cholecystitis usually begins from:

A. Paine in the left hypohondrium
B. Disorders of chair
C. High temperature
D. Vomiting
E. * Paine in the right hypohondrium
1807. A liquid in the cysts of pancreas:

A. Milk-white
B. Green
C. Hemorragic
D. Brown grey
E. * Transparent or rather yellow
B. Perforation
1809. A primary purpose of treatment of patients with fatty pancreonecrosis before operation is:
A. Improvement of microcirculation
B. Decrease of secretion of pancreas
C. Decrease of secretion of stomach
D. Analgesia
E. * Desintoxication of organism
1810. A remittent icterus is caused:

A. By the stricture of choledochus
B. Peptic ulcer disease
C. By the stone in cystic duct
D. By the tumor of choledochus
E. * By the valve stone of choledochus

E. giant ulcers

B. callous ulcers




1817. According to time of origin of complications of acute pancreatitis is divided to:

A. All true
B. All false
C. Primary and secondary
D. Urgent and non-urgent
E. * Early and late
1818. After what develops postnecrotic cysts of pancreas?

A. Acute pancreatitis, edematous form
B. Chronic indurative pancreatitis
C. Chronic pseudotumor- pancreatitis
D. Chronic pancreatitis
E. * Acute pancreatitis, pancreonecrosis
tract

B. barrel vagotomy
1821. An optimum volume of operation is at a acute biliary pancreatitis:

A. Draining of bed of pancreas.
B. Removing of exudates from abdominal cavity;
C. Pancreatectomy;
D. Encapsulation of pancreas;
E. * Draining of bilious ways;
1822. An unreal pancreatitis cyst contains:

A. Sinovial liquid
B. Gastric juice
C. Serous liquid
D. Rudiments of teeth, hairs, nails
E. * Blood, pancreatitis juice, products of necrosis of pancreas
1823. As a rule, a pseudocyst contains:

A. Water
B. Lymph
C. Pus
D. Bile
E. * Pancreatic juice
1824. At a acute and chronic cholecystitis contra-indicated drugs:

A. Baralginum
B. Atropinum sulfate
C. Nospanum
D. Omnoponum
E. * Morphinum
1825. At a pseudo-tumorous pancreatitis a basic symptom is:

A. Portal hypertension
B. Suppuration
C. Pseudocysts
D. Paine
E. * Intensive mechanical jaundice
1826. At acute pancreatitis with heavy motion a patient must be treated in:
A. True answer is absent
B. All of answers are true
C. Home
D. Surgical department
E. * Department of intensive therapy

B. pain increases
E. girdle pain

A. * to 3 hours
B. to 1,5 hour
C. to 6 hours
D. to 8 hours
E. 6 – 12 hours
1829. At gallstone disease cholecystectomy is performed:

A. At young persons
B. At old patients
C. At presence of clinical signs of disease
D. At the latent form of disease
E. * Always
1832. At lung complication of acute pancreatitis respiratory insufficiency is characterized:

A. By absence of all listed symptoms
B. By a frequent superficial breath
C. Acrocianosis
D. By the short breath
E. * By the presence of all listed symptoms
1833. At the complicated pancreatitis conservative therapy indicated for:

A. Decreasing of secretion of stomach
B. Decreasing of secretion of pancreas
C. Treatment of shock
D. Decreasing of pain
E. * All listed true
1834. At the complicated pancreatitis, bleeding could be from vessels, except:

A. Left gastric artery
B. Gastro-duodenal artery
C. Splenic vein
D. Splenic artery
E. * Hepatic artery
1835. At the destructive forms of acute pancreatitis all surgical operations are divided on:
A. Not divided
B. With complications, without complications
C. Invasive, non-invasive operations
D. Primary, secondary, repeated operations
E. * Early, late, delay operation

A. Hb below 80 g/l
B. * Hb 80-100 g/l
E. Ht below 25%
indicated
loss indicated

A. artery;
B. veins;

A. * bleeding ulcer

B. bleeding ulcer

A. Ht 48-44, Hb 120
C. Ht 31-23, Hb 80
D. * Ht 38-32, Hb 100
E. Ht 44-40, Hb 110 /?

B. Ht 31-23, Hb 80
C. Ht 44-40, Hb 110
D. Ht 48-44, Hb 120
E. Ht 48-44, Hb 120

A. * Ht 31-23, Hb 80
C. Ht 38-32, Hb 100
D. Ht 44-40, Hb 110
E. Ht 48-44, Hb 120
1847. Blood supply of body and tail of pancreas is:

A. Variously
B. A.cystica
D. A.gastroduodenalis
E. * Splenic artery
1848. By localization complications of acute pancreatitis are divided to:

A. Pancreatic
B. Ekstraabdominal
C. Intraabdominal
D. Parapancreatic
E. * All of answers are true
1849. Cells of pancreas, which are makes glucagone:

A. Z-cells
B. Y-cells
C. X-cells
D. W-cells
E. * B-cells
1850. Cells of pancreas, which are makes insulin:

A. Z-cells
B. Y-cells
C. X-cells
D. W-cells
E. * B-cells
1851. Classification of clinical passing of acute pancreatitis:

A. All true
B. Edema, necrosis
C. Easy, middle, heavy
D. Acute, chronic
E. * Abortive, progressive
1852. Clinical signs of acute pancreatitis:

A. Constipation
B. Vomiting by blood
C. Melena
D. Vomiting by „coffee-grounds”
E. * There is a pain in the epigastria
1853. Complaints of the patient with pseudo-tumorous pancreatitis:

A. Yellow color of the skin
B. Icterus
C. Dispeptic syndrome
D. Pain in the epigastric region
1854. Complication of choledocholitiasis is:

A. Perforative cholecystitis, peritonitis
B. Chronic hepatitis
C. Hydrocholecystitis
D. Empyema of gall-bladder
E. * Icterus, cholangitis
1855. Complications of acute pancreatitis is not:

A. Omentobursitis
B. Biliary hypertension
C. Fermentativ peritonitis
D. Pylephlebitis
E. * Phlegmon of retroperitoneal space

A. bleeding ulcer

A. * Meulengracht's
B. 1 by Pevznerom
C. 5 by Pevznerom
D. 15 by Pevznerom
E. 7 by Pevznerom
C. Mendel’s suing
E. Eleker’s sing

A. * 3-6 hours
B. 6-12 hours
C. 1-3 hours
D. 12-24 hours
E. 24-36 hours
1860. Early complication at acute pancreatitis is:

A. Acute ileus
B. Development of diabetes
D. Phlegmon of retroperitoneal space
E. * Peritonitis
1861. Early complication of acute pancreatitis is not:

B. Enzymes peritonitis
C. Collapse
D. Pancreatic shock
E. * Fistula of pancreas

B. bleeding ulcer
1863. Endoscopic papillosphincterotomy is indicated at such disease, as:

A. Mechanical jaundice
B. Hepatitis
C. Postcholecystectomy syndrome
D. Peptic ulcer
E. * Stenosis of supraduodenal part of choledohus
A. tumours
B. ulcers
D. erosions
1865. Ferment’s peritonitis can arise up in the case of disease of such organs of abdominal cavity:
A. Stomach
B. Gall-bladder
C. Liver
D. Spleen
E. * Pancreas
1866. Ferment’s peritonitis in patients with acute pancreatitis develops:

A. After 72 hours
B. In 5-6 days
C. In 12-15 hours
D. In 6 hours from the beginning of disease
E. * In the period of 24-48 hours
1867. Fermentativ shock at the complicated pancreatitis more frequent arises up at:
A. Chronic pancreatic fistula
B. Abscess of pancreas
C. To the edema of pancreas
D. Local necrosis of pancreas
E. * Subtotal or total necrosis of pancreas
1868. For a cholangitis the most characteristic combination of symptoms: 1) icterus 2) fever 3)
anaemia 4) leucocytosis 5) peritonitis
A. 2,3,5
B. 2,5
C. 3,4,5
D. 1,2,3
E. * 1,2,4
1869. For a mechanical icterus, with choledoholitiasis, not characteristic:

A. absence of stercobilin in stool
B. hypertermy
C. increase of alkaline phosphatase
D. Increasing of direct bilirubin of blood
E. * An acute increasing of level of amylase is in plasma
1870. For acute cholangitis not characteristic:

A. High temperature
B. Leucocytosis
C. Icterus
D. Pain in right hypochondrium
E. * Unsteady liquid stool
1871. For acute cholangitis not characteristic:

A. increase of liver
B. leucocytosis with shift of formula to the left
C. icterus
D. increase of temperature
E. * decreasing of sizes of liver

B. knife-like pain;
E. melena;

A. * melena
1874. For clarification of character of icterus and its reason of origin not used:
A. Sonography
B. ERCP
C. transcutaneus transhepatic cholangiography
D. CT
E. * intravenous cholecystocholangiography

1876. For patient with gangrenous cholecystitis it is indicated:

B. Without operation
C. Tactic depends from age
D. An operation is deferred

B. melena

A. * Zhober’s;
B. Khelatid’s;
C. Podlag’s;
D. Vigats’s;
E. Udin’s.


1881. Forming of pancreatic infiltrate is depended from:
A. Toxic influence
B. Autoimmune inflammation
C. Septic inflammation
D. Allergic reaction
E. * Aseptic inflammation
1882. Frequency of hepatic insufficiency at complicated acute pancreatitis:

A. In 95 % patients
B. In 2 % patients
C. In 75 % patients
D. In 100 % patients
E. * In 25 % patients
A. gastric fundus
B. * cardial pert;
D. from duodenal;
1884. Gallstone disease is complicated by all of listed, except:

A. Mechanical jaundice
B. Development of destructive cholecystitis
C. Secondary pancreatitis
D. Cancer of gall-bladder
E. * Development of cirrhosis of liver
1885. Gallstone disease is not complicated:

A. Cholangitis
B. Fistula
C. By acute cholecystitis
D. By mechanical icterus
E. * Intra-abdominal bleeding

A. over 4,5 cm
B. * over 3 cm
C. over 4 cm
D. over 5 cm
E. over 3,5 cm
1887. Hemobilia is
1888. Holsted symptom at acute pancreatitis is:

A. Cyanosis of hands
B. Yellow skin around umbilicus
C. Violet spots are on face and body
D. Cyanosis of lateral surfaces of abdomen and body
E. * Cyanosis of skin of abdomen
1889. Hormone of pancreas which is responsible for metabolic of fat:

A. Somatotropinum
B. Adrenalin
C. Insulin
D. Glukagon
E. * Lipocainum
1890. How often pancreatic part of common bile duct pass through the head of pancreas?
A. 40-50 %
B. 30-40 %
C. 25-35 %
D. 10-20 %
E. * 80-90 %
1891. If patient has frequent „fatty stool” with undigested meat, it could be:
A. Cirrhosis of liver
B. Ulcerous disease of duodenum
C. Chronic hepatitis
D. Chronic duodenitis
E. * Chronic pancreatitis
1892. In case of acute pancreatitis bleeding could be to:

A. Intestine (at internal fistula)
B. Abdominal cavity
C. Wound
D. External fistula
E. * At all listed variants
1893. In case of purulent inflammation of the pseudocysts of pancreas is used:

A. Cystoenteroanastomosis
B. Cystoduodenostomy
C. Cystogastrostomy
D. Cystoenterostomy
E. * External draining of cyst
1894. In relation to peritoneum pancreas is located:

A. All of answers are correct
B. All of answers are incorrect
C. Intraperitoneally
D. Mesoperitoneally
E. * Retroperitoneally
1895. In the case of gallstone disease urgent operation is indicated:

A. At a hepatic colic
B. At mechanical joundice
C. At oclusion of cystic duct
D. At Cholecysto-pancreatitis
E. * At perforative cholecystitis
1896. In the case of surgical treatment of the complicated acute pancreatitis does not used:
A. Right-side resection of gland
B. Left-side resection of gland
C. Omentopancreatopexy
D. Abdominisation of pancreas
E. * Pankreatojejunostomy
rarely?
E. pylorus.

A. * V. Portae;
B. V. odd;
C. V. pair;
E. V. lower hollow;
1899. Intraoperative cholangiography is not indicated:

A. At icterus during the operation
B. At dilatation of choledochus
C. At presence of icterus in anamnesis
D. At tumor of head of pancreas
E. * At a single large stone in the common bile duct
1900. Irradiation of pain to the back could be in case of:

A. Acute cystitis
B. Gastric ulcers
C. Acute ileus
E. * Acute pancreatitis

A. 1-4 cm
B. 1-3 cm
C. 3-5 cm
D. 2- 6 cm
E. * 2-3 cm
1902. Late complications at acute pancreatitis are:

A. Acute ileus
B. Shock
C. Renal insufficiency
D. Peritonitis
E. * Phlegmon of retroperitoneal space
1903. Late complications of acute pancreatitis are:

A. Cysts and fistula of pancreas
B. Abscesses of abdominal cavity
C. Phlegmon retroperitoneal tissue
D. Festering pancreatitis and parapancreatitis
A. * to 0,5 cm
B. 0,5-1 cm
C. to 1,0 cm
D. 3 to 1,5 cm
E. 0,5-1,5 cm
1905. Lung complications is includes:

A. Bronchial asthma
B. Pulmonary insufficiency
C. Abscess of lights
D. Right-side pleurisies and pneumonias
E. * Left-side pleurisies and pneumonias
1906. Main reason of acute pancreatitis is:

A. Achalasia
B. Chronic alcoholic pancreatitis
D. Trauma of pancreas
E. * Gallstone disease
A. gullet;
B. stomach;
C. rectum;
D. * duodenum;
E. colon
1908. Melena is

A. * bleeding ulcer
1910. Method of instrumental examination of pseudocysts is:

A. Biopsy
B. Endoscopy
C. Colonoscopy
D. Sciagraphy of organs of abdominal cavity
E. * Sonography of organs of abdominal cavity
1911. Mondor symptom at acute pancreatitis is:

C. Cyanosis of skin of abdomen
E. * Violet spots are on face and body

B. * EFGDS
D. Sonography
E. Laparoskopy
1913. Mostly a intoxication psychosis can arise up at abuse of:

A. Smoking
B. Medicines
C. Drugs
D. Fatty food
E. * Alcohol

1915. Name specific complications of acute pancreatitis in early and late postoperative periods:
A. Phlegmon of retroperitoneal space
B. Pseudocyst of pancreas
C. Fistula of pancreas
D. Bleeding
1916. Necrectomy of pancreas is mean:

B. Complete removing of pancreas
C. Removing of part of pancreas with its transversal cutting
D. Removing of necrotic area within the measures of necrotic tissue
E. * Removing of necrotic area is within the limits of healthy tissue
1917. Normal indexes of білірубіну of blood:

A. 60,6-80,5 mmol/l
B. 40,6-60,5 mmol/l
C. 20,6-40,5 mmol/l
D. 0-1,6 mmol/l
E. * 1,7-20,5 mmol/l

1919. Pancreatectomy is mean:

B. Removing of necrotic area within the measures of necrotic tissue
C. Removing of necrotic area is within the limits of healthy tissue
D. Removing of part of pancreas with its transversal cutting
E. * Complete removing of pancreas

1921. Principle of conservative treatment of fistula of pancreas:

A. Conservative treatment is non-effective
B. Improvement of outflow of bile
C. Increase of regeneration
D. Increase of pancreatic secretion
E. * Decrease of pancreatic secretion


1924. Resection of pancreas is mean:

C. Removing of necrotic area within the measures of necrotic tissue
D. Removing of necrotic area is within the limits of healthy tissue
E. * Removing of part of pancreas with its transversal cutting

1926. Result of hypersecretion of pancreas can be the spasm of sphincter:

A. Heyster
B. Vestfal
C. Mirizzi
D. Lutkins
E. * Oddi
1927. Sekvestrectomy of pancreas is mean:
C. Removing of part of pancreas with its transversal cutting
D. Removing of necrotic area is within the limits of healthy tissue
E. * Removing of necrotic area within the measures of necrotic tissue

A. palliative
B. draining
D. resection
1929. Septic complications of acute pancreatitis is indication to:

A. Analgesic treatment
B. Antibiotic treatment
D. Sonography
E. * Operation


1932. Specify indication to early operative treatment at acute pancreatitis:

A. Forming of pseudocyst
B. Acute fatty pancreatitis
C. Acute edematous pancreatitis
D. Acute pancreatolysis
E. * Acute traumatic pancreatitis
1933. Specify indication to early operative treatment at acute pancreatitis:

A. Forming of pseudocyst
B. Acute fatty pancreatitis
C. Acute oedematous pancreatitis
D. Acute pancreatolysis
E. * Acute biliary pancreatitis
1934. Specify one of symptoms, what not characteristic for hydropsy of gallbladder:
A. Absence of peritoneal symptoms
B. palpable gall-bladder
C. Increase of gall-bladder
D. Pains in right hypohondrium
E. * Icterus
1935. Specify the best therapy of parapancreatic infiltrate:

A. Operative treatment
B. Antispastic
C. Analgesic treatment
D. Desintoxication
E. * Antibiotic
1936. Specify the most dangerous complication of pancreonecrosis:

A. Pseudocyst of pancreas
B. Diabetes
C. Inflamation
D. Fibrosis of pancreas
E. * Bleeding
1937. Specify the most effective treatment of the formed non-complicated cyst:
A. Cystogastrostomy
B. External draining of cyst
C. A resection of cyst
D. Conservative treatment
E. * Cystoenteroanastomosis
1938. Specify the most effective treatment of the non-formed complicated cyst:
A. Cystogastrostomy
B. Cystoenteroanastomosis
D. Conservative treatment
E. * External draining of cyst
1939. Specify the norm of diastase:

A. Up to 10
B. Up to 30
C. Up to 20
D. Up to 50
E. * Up to 160
1940. Specify what pathology is reason of development of pseudocyst of pancreas:

A. Liver cirrhosis
B. Peptic ulcer
C. Diabetes
1941. Symptom of Bonde at acute pancreatitis is:

E. * Swelling of abdomen only in the epigastric area
1942. Symptom of Kerte at a acute pancreatitis it:

A. Hyper seniti of skin in the projection of gland
C. Absence of pulsation of abdominal aorta
D. Pain in left costal-vertebral area
E. * Pain and proof tension of muscles in the epigastria with irradiation to left
hypochondria
1943. Symptom of Kulen at acute pancreatitis is:

B. Violet spots are on face and body
E. * Yellow skin around umbilicus
1944. Symptom of Meyo-Robson at acute pancreatitis is:

A. Hyper seniti of skin in the projection of gland
C. Pain and proof tension of muscles in the epigastria with irradiation to left
hypochondria
D. Absence of pulsation of abdominal aorta
E. * Pain in left costal-vertebral area
1945. Symptom of Voskresensky at acute pancreatitis is:

A. Hyper seniti of skin is in the projection of gland
C. Pain and tension of muscles in the epigastria
D. Pain in the left costal-vertebral area
E. * Absence of pulsation of abdominal aorta
1946. The basic method ofexamination of acute cholecystitis is:

A. Gastroduodenoscopy
B. Laparoscopy
C. Cholegraphy
D. Endoscopy
E. * Sonography of gall-bladder
1947. The best time of operative treatment at acute pancreatitis after beginning of disease is:
A. 7-8 days
B. 3-4 days
C. 4-5 days
D. 1-3 days
E. * Surgical treatment is not indicated
1948. The diameter of ductus choledochus is :

A. over 2,0 cm
B. 1,6-2,0 cm
C. 1,1-1,5 cm
D. to 0,5 cm
E. * 0,6-1,0 cm
1949. The early bleeding at the complicated acute pancreatitis are more frequent:
A. In the first minute
B. During the first hour
C. During the first minute
D. At a few first hours
E. * In a few first days
1950. The early bleeding at the complicated pancreatitis is stopped by using:
A. Cold on the abdomen
B. Hot-water bottles on the abdomen
C. Rest and cold on the abdomen
D. Operative treatment
E. * Ordinary haemostatic drugs
1951. The first period of acute pancreatitis has the name:

A. A right answer is absent
C. Degenerative and festering complications
D. Functional insufficiency of parenchyma’s organs
E. * Hemodynamic violations and pancreatic shock
1952. The most frequent complication after ERCP is:

A. Chronic hepatitis
B. Reactive cholecystitis
D. Cholangitis
E. * Pancreatitis
1953. The most informing method for diagnostics of acute pancreatitis is:
A. Colonoscopy
B. Duodenodcopy
C. Endoscopy
D. ECG
E. * Sonography

1955. The period of degenerative complications has:

A. 2 hours
B. 2 weeks
C. 1-3 days
D. 3-7 days
E. * over 7 days
1956. The period of functional insufficiency of abdominal organs has:

A. 2 hours
B. 2 weeks
C. over 7 days
D. 1-3 days
E. * 3-7 days
1957. The period of hemodynamic violations and pancreatic shock has:

A. 2 hours
B. 2 weeks
C. over 7 days
D. 3-7 days
E. * 1-3 days
1958. The principle of operation at acute biliary pancreatitis:

A. Draining of parapancreatic tissue
B. Removing of fluid from abdominal cavity
C. Pancreatectomy
D. Decapsulation of pancreas
E. * Draining of bile ducts
1959. The reason of development of mechanical jaundice can be all, except

A. Stenosis of duodenal papilla
B. Stricture of the choledochus
C. Stone in proximal part of choledochus
D. Increase of head of pancreas
E. * To the stone in the area of neck of gall-bladder
1960. The second period of acute pancreatitis has the name:

C. Degenerative and festering complications
D. Hemodynamic violations and pancreatic shock
E. * Functional insufficiency of parenchyma’s organs
C. serosal
E. external layer
1962. The symptom of Curvuasie is not observed at cancer of:

A. Head of pancreas
B. Duodenal papilla
C. Retroduodenal part of common bile duct
D. Supraduodenal part of choledochus
E. * Gall-bladder
1963. The symptoms of intoxication psychosis at the complicated acute pancreatitis is:
A. Visual hallucinations
B. Aggression
C. Apathy
D. Hypodynamia
E. * Disorientation
1964. The third period of acute pancreatitis has the name:

C. Hemodynamic violations and pancreatic shock
D. Functional insufficiency of parenchyma’s organs
E. * Degenerative and festering complications
C. profuse bleeding

D. Menetrie's sing;
1967. Total pancreonecrosis is characterized by:

A. Increasing of AST
B. Decreasing of activity of diastase
C. Increasing of ALT
D. Decreasing of AST
E. * Increasing of activity of diastase
1968. Turner symptom at acute pancreatitis is:

D. Violet spots are on face and body
E. * Cyanosis of lateral surfaces of abdomen and body

1970. Vomiting by „coffee-grounds” at acute pancreatitis is predefined:

A. By presence of enzymes in blood
B. By violation of microcirculation
C. By the presence of concomitant gastric ulcer
D. By the presence of concomitant gastritis
E. * By formation of erosions in a stomach

A. * bleeding ulcer
C. * pylorus ulcers
1973. What are complications of acute pancreatitis:
A. Phlegmon of retroperitoneal space
B. Biliary hypertension
C. Omentobursitis
D. Fermentativ peritonitis
E. * All indicated complication
1974. What are cysts of pancreas ?:

A. Traumatic
B. Inflammatory
C. After echinococcus
D. Real and unreal
duodwnum?
1976. What combination of clinical symptoms does explain the syndrome of Curvuasie?
A. an icterus, enlarged liver
B. absence of stool, pain, appearance of formation in abdominal region
C. icterus, local peritoneal phenomena
D. increase of liver, hydro-peritoneum, expansion of veins of front abdominal wall
E. * A painless enlarged gall-bladder in combination with icterus
1977. What complication of acute pancreatitis?

A. Paranephritis
B. Cyst of pancreas
C. Pylephlebitis
D. Abscess of Duglas space
A. perforation
C. pylorus stenosis
E. * bleeding
1979. What components is absent in urine at a mechanical jaundice?

A. All are present
B. Bilious acids.
C. Not direct bilirubin.
D. Direct bilirubin.
E. * Urobilin.
1980. What does the pseudocyst of pancreas behave to?:

A. All of answers are true
B. Symptom of acute pancreatitis
C. Congenital pathology of pancreas
D. Early complication of acute pancreatitis
E. * Late complication of acute pancreatitis
1981. What drug is used at chronic pancreatitis with violation of the external function of pancreas?
A. Panthenol
B. Pyracetamum
C. Pantocrinum
D. Papaverin
E. * Panzinorm
1982. What drugs from cytostatic group is used in acute pancreatitis:

A. Mezimforte
B. Baralgin
C. Creon
D. Motilium
E. * 5-ftoruracyl
A. * trichopol
B. Licviroton
C. oxiferiskorbon
D. atropine
E. pirinzsipin
A. trunk vagotomy
D. gastrectomy
1987. What hormone of pancreas responsible for metabolism of glucose:

A. Tiroksin
B. Somatotropinum
C. Adrenalin
D. Vasopressinum
E. * Insulin
except for
A. * ACTH
C. prostaglandin E
D. estrogens
E. STH
1989. What indications for surgical treatment of cholecystitis?

A. Dispeptic syndrome
B. presence of pancreatitis
C. Concomitant changes in a liver
D. Anamnesis of disease
E. * Presence of stones in the gall-bladder
1990. What is complication of acute pancreatitis:

A. Hepatitis
B. Cyst of pancreas
C. Cirrhosis of liver
D. Pylephlebitis
E. * Pankreonekrosis
1991. What is conservative treatment before operation in patients with severe form of hemorragic
pancreonecrosis:
A. Improvement of microcirculation
B. Decrease of secretion of pancreas
C. Decrease of secretion of stomach
D. Analgesia
E. * Desintoxication of organism
1992. What is early complications of acute pancreatitis?

A. Shock
B. Jaundice
C. Peritonitis
D. Acute hepatic-renal insufficiency
1993. What is included in conservative treatment of acute pancreatitis?

A. Morning exercises
B. High caloric diet
C. A diet by Pevzner N15
D. A diet by Pevzner N5
E. * Hunger
1994. What is local symptoms of retroperitoneal phlegmon at complicated acute pancreatitis?

A. Hyperemia of tissue
B. Swelling of tissue
C. Tension of lumbar muscles
D. Pain during palpation on the left hypochondrium
E. * All of symptoms true
1995. What is mechanism of Voskresensky symptom at acute pancreatitis:

A. Development of peritonitis
B. Embolism of abdominal aorta
D. Reflex-paresis of colon
E. * Inflammatory edema of pancreas
1996. What is not inhibitors of protease:

A. Pantripin
B. Trasilol
C. Gordoxum
D. Kontrikal
E. * Tebris
1997. What is result of pancreatic infiltrate:

A. Development of pseudocyst
B. Distribution of process with development of peritonitis
C. Formation of capsule
D. Quick disappear
E. * Slow (during 1,5-3 month) disappear
1998. What is the basic method of treatment of acute pancreatitis:

A. Diet
B. Physical therapy
C. Homoeopathic
D. Surgical
E. * Conservative
1999. What is the basic methods of diagnostics of postnecrotic cysts:

A. Laparoscopy
B. ERCP
C. Colonoscopy
D. Endoscopy
E. * Sonography and CT
2000. What is the best method of examination of pancreatic infiltrate:

A. Sonography
B. X-Ray
C. Biochemical blood test
D. Palpation
E. * Sonography
2001. What is the best resort which is used for pathology of pancreas?
A. Nemirov
B. Truskavets
C. Kuyal'nik
D. P'yatigorsk
E. * Morshin
2002. What is the complications of pseudocyst of pancreas:

A. Fistula
B. Bleeding
C. Perforation
D. Suppuration
E. * All is true
2003. What is the inhibitors of protease:

A. Trypsinum
B. Tocopherolum
C. Loroxon
D. Tebris
E. * Trasilol
2004. What is the inhibitors of protease:

A. Gramicidine
B. Loroxon
C. Garamycine
D. Motilium
E. * Gordox
2005. What is the method of treatment of chronic calculus cholecystitis?

B. Antispastic drugs
C. Lithothripsy
D. Cholecystostomy
E. * Cholecystectomy
2006. What is the most effective treatment of the non-formed non-complicated cyst:
A. Cystogastrostomy
B. Cystoenteroanastomosis
D. External draining of cyst
E. * Conservative treatment
2007. What is the most frequent reason of development of mechanical jaundice?

A. Metastases of tumor into the liver
B. Peptic ulcer
C. Cancer of head of pancreas
D. Stricture of extrahepatic bile ducts
E. * Choledocholitiasis
2008. What is the reason of late complications of acute pancreatitis?

A. By violation of local blood flow
B. Obstruction of pancreatic ducts
C. Development of aseptic inflammation
D. Enzymes
E. * Infection
E. small curvature

C. X-ray
B. On blood volume
2012. What method of examination is most informative at the estimation of pathology of bile
ducts?
A. CT
B. Sonography
C. transcutaneus transhepatic cholangiography
D. intravenous cholangiography
E. * ERCP
2013. What method of examination is most informative for diagnostics of calculus cholecystitis?
A. ERCP
B. Endoscopy
C. X-Ray
D. Laparoscopy
E. * Sonography
2014. What operation is indicated at the edematous form of acute pancreatitis:

A. Marsupilisation
B. Abdominisation of pancreas
C. Omentopancreatopexy
D. Pancreatectomy
E. * Operation is not needed
2015. What operation is not performed at pancreatic abscesses and infected necrosis?
A. Draining of abscess
B. Pancreato-necro-sekvestrectomy with laparostomy
C. Pancreato-sekvestrectomy
D. Pancreato-necro-sekvestrectomy
E. * Total pancreatectomy
2016. What operation is performed at localization of the formed pseudocyst in the tail of pancreas:
A. Cistoenteroanastomosis
B. Cistoenterostomy
E. * Resection of tail of pancreas
2017. What operation is performed at the pseudocyst of pancreas in III stage usually:
B. Cistoduodenostomy
C. Cystogastrostomy
E. * Cistoenterostomy
2018. What pathology is characterized by presence of plenty of hemorrhagic exudates with high
ferment activity in the abdominal cavity?
A. Destructive cholecystitis
B. Perforation of ulcer
C. Hepatitis
D. Cirrhosis of liver
2019. What place does occupy an acute pancreatitis among acute surgical diseases?
A. It is most widespread
B. Second place
C. Fifth place
D. First place
E. * Third place

A. * tavegil
B. obzidan
C. hystdol
D. cerucal
E. oraza
A. cymetidin
B. eglonin
C. * gastocepini
D. etimsiloli
E. vinylin
B. Almagel
C. Vinylin
D. De-nol
E. Claritromycin
2023. What procedure is prescribed for patients with plenty of hemorrhagic exudates with high
ferment activity in the abdominal cavity?
B. Computer examination of organs of abdominal cavity
C. X-Ray of organs of abdominal cavity
D. Sonography of organs of abdominal cavity
E. * Laparotomy
2024. What procedure must be performed at the postnecrotic cysts of pancreas:

A. Omentopancreatopexy
B. Pancreatotomy
C. Necrectomy
D. Pancreatectomy
E. * Puncture and external draining of cyst

B. pancakes
C. raw egg-white
D. bread rye fresh
E. acute cheeses
2026. What symptom is typical for a acute pancreatitis?

A. Rovzing symptom
B. Lenander symptom
C. Ker symptom
D. Pasternacky symptom
E. * Kulen symptom

A. * ulcerous
B. hemorragic;
C. pain;

A. * 6 – 12 hours;
B. 6 – 10 hours;
C. 6 – 8 hours
D. 6 – 14 hours;
E. 6 – 20 hours
A. hypocalcemia
B. * hypokaliemia
C. Hyponatremia
D. Hypercalcinemia
E. hyperkaliemia

2031. When could be intoxication psychosis at acute pancreatitis?

A. In 2 weeks
B. On the 9-11 days
C. On the 6-8 days
D. On the first day
E. * On the 2-3 days
2032. When do patients have late complications of acute pancreatitis?

A. 1-2 days
B. 2-3 days
C. 5-6 days
D. 3-4 days
E. * 10-12 days
2033. Which drug is applied at chronic pancreatitis:

A. Panthenol.
B. Pyracetamum;
C. Pantocrinum;
D. Papaverin;
E. * Creon
2034. Which pathology characterized by absence of pulsation of abdominal aorta (Voskresensky

symptom):
A. Acute appendicitis
B. Acute ileus
C. Peptic ulcer
2035. Which pathology characterized by appearance of cyanosis of lateral surfaces of abdomen

(symptom of Turner):
B. Acute ileus
D. Peptic ulcer
2036. Which pathology characterized by appearance of pain in left costal-vertebral area (symptom
of Meyo-Robson):
B. Acute ileus
D. Peptic ulcer
2037. Which pathology characterized by violet spots on the skin and body:
B. Acute ileus
C. Peptic ulcer
2038. A frequent liquid stool is the first sign of:

A. haemorrhoids
B. Fissures of anus
C. Proctosigmoiditis
D. * UUC
E. All of answers are correct
2039. A method of choice at surgical treatment of unspecific ulcerative colitis

A. * proctocolectomy
B. hemicolectomy
C. resection of colon
D. colectomy
E. application of colostomy.
B. Perforation
2041. A patient after the electroscission of polypus of sigmoid bowel has bleeding. What is tactic?
A. * it is performed hemostatic therapy
B. it is performed operative treatment
C. concervative treatment
D. laparotomy
E. laparoscopy
2042. A patient after the electroscission of polypus of sigmoid bowel has stomach-aches. What
complication can be?
A. * perforation
B. bleeding
C. malignancy
D. toxic dilatation
E. penetration
2043. A patient with 10-years anamnesis of unspecific ulcerative colitis has periodic swelling of
abdomen, feeling of the incomplete emptying, worsening of the general state. On irrigography
is absent haustration with circular narrowing in sigmoid bowel. What complication patient has?
A. * A regeneration to the cancer
B. Toxic dilatation
C. Bleeding
D. Perforation
E. Nothing
is absent haustration with circular narrowing in sigmoid bowel. What operation is prescribed?
A. * Colproctectomy
B. Resection of sigmoid bowel
C. Left-side hemicolectomy
D. Sigmoidostomy
E. Right-side hemicolectomy
2045. A presence of mucus and pus in stool is characteristic for:

A. Proctosigmoiditis
B. Cancer of rectum
C. UUC
D. All of answers are wrong
E. * All of answers are correct
2046. Absolute indication for the surgical treatment of unspecific ulcerative colitis
A. * bleeding, perforation, toxic dilatation
B. absence of effect from conservative treatment
C. frequent diarrhea, loss of weight
D. a pain syndrome
E. adhesion

E. giant ulcers

B. callous ulcers




tract

B. barrel vagotomy
2055. An anal itch is a sign of:

A. Insufficiency of sphincter of anus
B. Mycotic lesion of skin of coccyx
C. The hidden diabetes
D. Intestinal worm invasion

B. pain increases
E. girdle pain

A. * to 3 hours
B. to 1,5 hour
C. to 6 hours
D. to 8 hours
E. 6 – 12 hours
2058. At colonoscopy for a patient 60 years old was remoted the polypus of sigmoid bowel in the
distance 35 cm from anus. Histologically was found a microinvasive cancer an it apex. On it
basis it is not found the cancer's cell. What is tactic of doctor?
A. * Repeated colonoscopies every 3 months
B. Radial therapy
C. The resection of sigmoid bowel
D. Chemotherapy
E. Nothing
2059. At Crohn disease is damaged

A. * all parts of gastrointestinal truct
B. only small intestine
C. only colon
D. only rectum
E. only sigmoid bowel

A. Hb below 80 g/l
B. * Hb 80-100 g/l
E. Ht below 25%
indicated
loss indicated

A. artery;
B. veins;
2067. At what degrees of unspecific ulcerative colitis is indicated hormonal preparations

A. * heavy degrees
B. easy degrees
C. middle degrees
D. to chronic
E. chronic relapse
2068. At what disease could be histologically unspecific hranuloma

A. * Crohn disease
B. unspecific ulcerative colitis
C. cancer of rectum
D. poliposis
E. diverticulosis

A. * bleeding ulcer

B. bleeding ulcer

A. Ht 48-44, Hb 120
C. Ht 31-23, Hb 80
D. * Ht 38-32, Hb 100
E. Ht 44-40, Hb 110 /?

B. Ht 31-23, Hb 80
C. Ht 44-40, Hb 110
D. Ht 48-44, Hb 120
E. Ht 48-44, Hb 120

A. * Ht 31-23, Hb 80
C. Ht 38-32, Hb 100
D. Ht 44-40, Hb 110
E. Ht 48-44, Hb 120
2075. Characteristic complications of unspecific ulcerative colitis

A. * bleeding, perforation, toxic dilatation of bowels
B. pancreatitis, cholecystitis
C. adhesion
D. perforation, penetration
E. peritonitis
2076. Classification of unspecific ulcerative colitis by its clinical management

A. * acute, fulminating, chronic continuous and relapse
B. proctitis, proctosygmoiditis
C. left-side and total colitis
D. easy, middle, heavy
E. easy, heavy
2077. Classification of unspecific ulcerative colitis by its distribution

A. * proctitis, proctosygmoiditis, left-side and total colitis
B. acute, quick
C. chronic continuous and relapse
D. left-side and total colitis
E. easy, middle, heavy
2078. Clinical symptoms of the unspecific ulcerative colitis

A. * pain, diarrhea, loss of weight
B. icterus, hydroperitoneum
C. increasing of liver and spleen
D. pain, obesity
E. pain, icterus, hydroperitoneum

A. bleeding ulcer

A. * Meulengracht's
B. 1 by Pevznerom
C. 5 by Pevznerom
D. 15 by Pevznerom
E. 7 by Pevznerom
C. Mendel’s suing
E. Eleker’s sing

A. * 3-6 hours
B. 6-12 hours
C. 1-3 hours
D. 12-24 hours
E. 24-36 hours
2083. During rectoscopy is found the endoscopic symptom of “roadway”. What disease?
A. Unspecific ulcerative colitis
B. * Crohn disease of rectum
C. Dysentery
D. Salmonellosis
E. Syndrome of irritation of colon

B. bleeding ulcer
A. tumours
B. ulcers
D. erosions
2086. Features of surgical treatment of anaerobic paraproctitis

A. * opening by wide cuts
B. ligature method
C. operation of Gabriel
D. an operation by Rizhik-Bobroviy
E. by Milligan-Morgan and Gabriel.

B. knife-like pain;
E. melena;

A. * melena


B. melena

A. * Zhober’s;
B. Khelatid’s;
C. Podlag’s;
D. Vigats’s;
E. Udin’s.


2094. For what disease characteristic symptom of "water-pipe"?

A. * Unspecific ulcerative colitis.
B. Crohn disease.
C. Psevdopoliposis.
D. Diverticulosis.
E. Spastic colitis.
2095. For what disease is characteristic symptom of "roadway"?

A. * Crohn disease.
B. Amebioz.
C. Spastic colitis.
D. Cancer of large intestine.
E. Unspecific ulcerative colitis.
2096. For which diseases of large intestine characteristic symptom of the "shot target"
A. * unspecific ulcerative colitis
B. diverticulosis
C. poliposis
D. cancer
E. Crohn disease
A. gastric fundus
B. * cardial pert;
D. from duodenal;
2098. From what part of gastrointestinal truct is bleeding when presence of cherry-colour blood in
the stool
A. * colon
B. stomach and duodenum
C. rectum
D. duodenum
E. small intestine
2099. From what part of intestine is most often begins unspecific ulcerative colitis?
A. * From the rectum.
B. From the ascending part of colon.
C. From the transverse part of colon.
D. From the descent part of colon.
E. From the terminal part of small intestine.
2100. From what tissue anal papilla are formed from?

A. From ephithelial tissue
B. * From connective tissue
C. From limphoid tissue
D. From muscular tissue
E. From mucus

A. over 4,5 cm
B. * over 3 cm
C. over 4 cm
D. over 5 cm
E. over 3,5 cm
2102. Haemorrhoid’s nodes do not fall out at

A. * I stage
B. II stage
C. III stage
D. External nodes
E. Internal nodes
2103. Haemorrhoid’s nodes fall out and not replaced

A. * III stage
B. I stage
C. II stage
D. External nodes
E. Internal nodes
2104. Haemorrhoid’s nodes fall out during defecation and replaced

A. * II stage
B. I stage
C. III stage
D. External nodes
E. Internal nodes
2105. Haemorrhoidectomy is complicated by cicatrical stricture of rectum. What next operation is

indicated?
A. * dosed sphincterotomy with sewing mucus of rectum to the perianal skin
B. anal bougienage
C. dosed sphincterotomy
D. hemorrhoidectomy
E. colostomy
2106. Haemorrhoids complicated by bleeding is indication for

B. planned operation
C. conservative therapy
D. physiotherapeutic procedure
E. therapy not performed
2107. Haemorrhoids complicated by trombosis is indication for

2108. Hemobilia is
2109. How many physiology flexures has rectum?

A. 1
B. * 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
2110. Hyperbaric oxygenation in a postoperative period is used at:

A. * Anaerobic paraproctitis
B. To the anal fissure
C. Epithelial coccygeal
D. Haemorrhoids
E. Cancer of rectum
2111. In the perianal area patient has the slight swelling, red skins, soft infiltrate. What is the
diagnosis?
A. * Acute paraproctitis
B. Anal fissure
C. Haemorrhoids
D. Cancer of rectum
E. Proctopolypus
2112. In what amount of physiologic solution does dissolve medicines for medical micro-enemas?
A. * 80 ml.
B. 200 ml.
C. 250 ml.
D. 300 ml
E. 400 ml
rarely?
E. pylorus.

A. * V. Portae;
B. V. odd;
C. V. pair;
E. V. lower hollow;
2115. Indication to the operation of haemorrhoidectomy is

A. * repeated thrombosis of haemorrhoids nodes
B. portal hypertension
C. second stage of non-complicated haemorrhoids
D. first stage of non-complicated haemorrhoids
E. itch

A. * thrombosis of haemorrhoids nodes
C. pain
D. itch
E. discomfort

A. 1-4 cm
B. 1-3 cm
C. 3-5 cm
D. 2- 6 cm
E. * 2-3 cm

A. * to 0,5 cm
B. 0,5-1 cm
C. to 1,0 cm
D. 3 to 1,5 cm
E. 0,5-1,5 cm
2119. Mark the disease of colon, which characterised by such complications as bleeding,
formation of stricture, perforation, toxic dilatation, malignancy:
A. Haemorrhoids
B. Fissure
C. Polipus
D. * Unspecific ulcerative colitis
E. Paraproctitis
A. gullet;
B. stomach;
C. rectum;
D. * duodenum;
E. colon
2121. Melena is

A. * bleeding ulcer
2123. Method of surgical treatment of acute submucous paraproctitis

A. * by Rizhik-Bobroviy
B. opening of abscess by a radial cut
C. ligature method
D. Operation of Rizhikh-1.
E. by Milligan-Morgan.
2124. Method of surgical treatment of anal fissure

A. * cutting of fissure
B. by Milligan-Morgan.
C. suturing of fissure
D. by Kyumel-Zerenin.
E. by Kenyu-Milse.
2125. Method of surgical treatment of haemorrhoids

A. * by Milligan-Morgan.
B. by Bebkok
C. by Narat
D. by Gabriel.
E. Operation of Blinnichev.

B. * EFGDS
D. Sonography
E. Laparoskopy

2128. On irrigography is found the symptoms of «water-pipe», «shot through target». What is
diagnosis?
A. * Unspecific ulcerative colitis
B. Crohn disease
C. Dysentery
D. Salmonellosis
E. Food toxicoinfection

2130. Operation which performed after the cutting of fissure of rectum

A. * by Gabriel
C. sphincterotomy
E. by Kenyu-Miles.

2132. Patient 27 years old has stomach-ache, liquid stool up to 10 times per days with mucus and
blood, weakness, weight lost. On the irrigigraphy is narrowing of transvers colon. What
diagnosis?
A. Dysentery.
B. Polypus of small intestine.
C. * Cancer of transvers colon.
D. Spastic colitis.
E. Unspecific ulcerative colitis
2133. Patient 50 years old has permanent pain in the anus, frequent defecation with blood, lost of
appetite, weight lost, weakness. What examination is prescribed?
A. * A biopsy with histological examination
B. Radio-active scan
C. Selective angiography
D. Doplerography
E. Sonography
2134. Patient 59 years old has suspicion of the tumour of ascending part of colon. What method of
examination is the best?
A. * A colonoscopy with a biopsy
B. Irrigography
C. Survey sciagraphy
D. Sonography
E. Endoscopy
2135. Patient 72 years old has acute pain in the left half of abdomeb, nausea, delay of stool and
gases. He is ill 6 hours. No mucus and blood in stool, not weight lost . Pulse 84 per 1 min.
Peristaltic noises is increased periodically. On the X-Ray of organs of abdominal region is
present the Kloyber's cup in the left half of abdomen. What diagnosis ?
A. * Invagination of sygmoid bowel
B. Crohn disease
C. Poliposis
D. Unspecific ulcerative colitis
E. Diverticulosis
2136. Patient during the act of defecation has paine in anal channel, red blood in the stool. What
disease?
A. * Anal fissure
B. Haemorrhoids
C. Acute paraproctitis
D. Cancer of rectum
E. Proctopolypus
2137. Patient has poliposis of right half of colon. What is treatment?
A. * right hemicolectomy
B. conservative treatment
C. stoma
D. by Milligan-Morgan.
E. by Gabriel.
2138. Patient has a blood in the first portions of stool. What disease is possible?
A. * Cancer of rectum.
B. Haemorrhoids.
C. Fissure.
D. Paraproctitis.
E. Fistula.
2139. Patient has a general weakness, presence of dark blood in the stool. At a rectoscopy on 11
cm from anus is found the circular narrowing of rectum. What diagnosis?
A. * Cancer of rectum
B. Proctopolypus
D. Chronic paraproctitis
E. Acute proctitis
2140. Patient has a red blood at the end of defecation. What disease is possible?
A. * Haemorrhoids and fissure of mucus of rectum.
B. Gastric and duodenal ulcers.
C. Cancer of rectum.
D. Paraproctitis.
E. Fistula.
2141. Patient has anal fissure of mucus of rectum with periodic pains. Pregnancy 16 weeks. Tactic
of surgeon?
A. * an operation - cutting of fissure after birth of child
B. an operation by Milligan-Morgan
C. an operation by Gabriel
D. cutting of fissure
E. an operation by Kenu-Miles
2142. Patient has anterior mucosal prolapse of rectum of the III stage and complete prolapse of
uterus. What operation is indicated?
A. * By Kumel-Zerenin, amputation of uterus
B. by Kenu-Miles
C. by Tartu
D. by Rizhikh-1
E. by Milligan-Morgan
2143. Patient has bleeding from a colon as a result of complication of unspecific ulcerative colitis.
What operation is indicated?
B. suturing of bleeding area of bowel
C. resection of bowel
D. colectomy
E. colostomy
2144. Patient has cicatrical narrowing of sigmoid bowel with intestinal obstruction as
complication of unspecific ulcerative colitis. What operation is indicated?
B. resection of the narrowed area of bowel
C. colectomy
D. colostomy
E. Operation by Kenyu-Miles.
2145. Patient has diarrhea up to 25-30 times per days with blood, has weight lost, general
weakness, periodic stomach-ache. He is ill during 1,5 month. What diagnosis?
B. colitis
C. Pseudopoliposis
D. Diverticulosis
E. Spastic colitis
2146. Patient has intersphincteric fistula and external haemorrhoids. What operation is performed?
A. * By Milligan-Morgan and Gabriel.
B. By Milligan-Morgan.
C. By Gabriel.
D. Operation of Blinnichev.
E. Operation of Rizhikh-1.
2147. Patient has long-term ulcer of rectum. In anamnesis white plague. What is previous
diagnosis?
A. * tuberculosis of rectum
B. haemorrhoids
C. paraproctitis
D. fistula
E. fissure of rectum
2148. Patient has melena. What is the sourse of bleeding?

A. * Stomach and duodenum.
B. Rectum.
C. Colon.
D. Small intestine.
E. Sigmoid bowel.
2149. Patient has paraproctitis and fistula in pararectal area. Also it is present fruzi of
actinomicete. What diagnosis?
A. * actinomicosis
B. haemorrhoids
C. paraproctitis
D. fistula
2150. Patient has perforation of colon as complication of unspecific ulcerative colitis. What
operation is indicated
B. suturing of the perforative hole
C. resection of area of bowel
D. colectomy
E. colostomy
2151. Patient has poliposis of left half of colon. What is treatment?
A. * left-side hemicolectomy
C. stoma
E. by Gabriel.
2152. Patient has polypus of sigmoid colon with signs of malignancy. What treatment?
A. * resection of area of bowel with polypus
B. electroscission
C. cutting of polypus
D. criodestruction
E. conservative
2153. Patient has polypus on wide leg on 15 sm from anus. What treatment?
A. * removal of polypus by laparotomy, rectotomy
B. electroscission
D. ligating
E. criodestruction
2154. Patient has proctopolypus on 15 sm from anus with the signs of маmalignancy
A. * anterior resection of rectum
B. electroscission
D. criodestruction
E. conservative
2155. Patient has small sizes proctopolypus in sygmoid bowel and pregnancy 8 weeks. Tactic of
surgeon?
A. * it is removing polypus after birth of child
D. cutting of polypus during pregnancy
E. an operation by By Kenu-Miles
2156. Patient has swelling from an anal channel during the act of defecation, without paine, with
fresh blood after defecation. Previous diagnosis?
A. Anal fissure
B. * Haemorrhoids
D. Cancer of rectum
E. Proctopolypus
2157. Patient has the combined haemorrhoids and pregnancy 8 weeks. Tactic of surgeons?
A. * it is performed operative treatment after birth of child
B. an operation by Gabriel
C. an operation by Milligan-Morgan
D. by Rizhikh-1
E. by Kenu-Miles
2158. Patient has the combined haemorrhoids with bleeding and pregnancy 9 weeks. Tactic of
surgeon?
A. * an operation by Milligan-Morgan
C. it is performed operative treatment after birth of child
D. by Rizhikh-1
E. by Kenu-Miles
2159. Patient has the III stage anterior mucosal prolapse of rectum. What operation is indicated?
A. * by Kyumel-Zerenin
B. by Kenyu-Miles
C. by Milligan-Morgan
D. by Gabriel
E. by Rizhikh-1
2160. Patient has toxic dilatation as complication of unspecific ulcerative colitis. What operation
is indicated?
B. resection of dilatated area of colon
C. colectomy
D. colostomy
2161. Patient has ulcer of rectum by duration near two months. The reaction of Wasermann is
positive. Previous diagnosis
A. * venereal lymphogranuloma
B. haemorrhoids
C. paraproctitis
D. fistula
2162. Patients with haemorrhoids has blood in the stool

A. * during defecation
B. before defecation
C. after defecation
D. constantly
E. never
2163. Presence of blood in the stool is characteristically for:

A. haemorrhoids
B. UUC
C. Cancer of colon
D. Fissures of anus

2165. Reasons of origin of fissures of rectum

A. * constipations, diarrhoea
B. cancer of rectum
C. portal hypertension
D. ulcerous disease
E. varicose disease


2168. Roentgenological signs of unspecific ulcerative colitis

A. * symptom of "water-pipe"
B. symptom of "niche"
C. defect of filling
D. symptom of «roadway»
E. bowls of Kloyber

A. palliative
B. draining
D. resection


2172. Small amount of blood in stool could has patients with:

A. * Poliposis
B. Colitis
C. Pancreatitis
D. Peptic ulcer disease
E. Appendicitis
2173. Solution of atropine sulfate is used, before operation with a purpose

A. * of block of peripheral M-cholinoreceptors
B. providing of the adequate anaesthetizing
C. increase of vagus activity
D. increasing of frequency of pulse
E. decreasing of frequency of pulse
2174. Surgical treatment by the method of cutting of fistula of rectum with cutting of skin and
subcutaneus tissue in the type of triangle
A. * for Gabriel
B. for Rizhik-Bobroviy
C. ligature method
2175. Surgical treatment of paraproctitis by the method of desection of fistula of rectum with
cutting of skin and mucus in the type of triangle
A. * by Rizhik-Bobrov
B. by Gabriel
C. ligature method
2176. The medicinal “constipation” is used at operations

A. * on a rectum
B. on a small intestine
C. on a liver
D. on a stomach
E. on a duodenum

C. serosal
E. external layer
C. profuse bleeding

D. Menetrie's sing;

A. * bleeding ulcer
C. * pylorus ulcers
duodwnum?
2185. What complication of unspecific ulcerative colitis is indication to urgent surgery?

A. Malignizaciya
B. Bleeding
C. Acute toxic dilatation
D. * Perforation
E. Diarrhea
A. perforation
C. pylorus stenosis
E. * bleeding
2187. What disease is damage the superficial layer of wall of bowel

B. Crohn disease
C. diverticulosis
D. poliposis
E. haemorrhoids
2188. What does mean a term "haemorrhoids"?

A. Varicose enlargement of haemorrhoidal veins
B. Spasm of anal sphincter
C. * Bleeding
D. Inflammation of paraperctal tissue
E. Inflamation of anal channel
2189. What does subserve to development of haemorrhoidal thrombosis?

A. Constipation
B. Diarrhea
C. * Spasm of sphincter
D. Criptitis
E. Papillitis
2190. What drug has purgative action?

A. * Fenolftalein.
B. Aspirine.
C. Ftalasol.
D. Proserin.
E. Biphicol.
2191. What drug is decreased freaquency of defecation?

A. * Immodium.
B. Kofeol.
C. Karbolen.
D. Sulfate of magnesium.
E. Prozerin.
2192. What drug is used for fistulography?

A. * Iodlipol.
B. Bilignost.
C. Verografin.
D. Sulfate of barium.
E. Methylene bluing.
2193. What drug is used for irrihography?

A. * Sulfate of barium.
B. Cardiotrast.
C. Bilignost.
D. Iodlipol.
E. Methylene.
2194. What drugs is used to decrease meteorism?

A. * Espumisan.
B. Norsulfazolum.
C. Vaseline oil.
E. Prozerin.
2195. What enema is used at intestinal obstruction?

A. * Siphon enema.
B. Cleansing.
C. Microenema.
D. Purgative.
E. Does not used.
2197. What form of unspecific ulcerative colitis is most dangerous?

A. * Fulminating.
B. Acute.
C. Chronic recurrent.
D. Chronic continuous.
E. Recurrent.
A. * trichopol
B. Licviroton
C. oxiferiskorbon
D. atropine
E. pirinzsipin
A. trunk vagotomy
D. gastrectomy
except for
A. * ACTH
C. prostaglandin E
D. estrogens
E. STH
2202. What instrumental examination is performed at jamming of haemorrhoidal nodes

A. * examination is not performed
B. rectometer
C. irrigoscopy
D. irrigography
E. colonoscopy
2203. What is from listed has hemostatic effect

A. * blood
B. red corpuscles
C. Haemodesum
D. physiologic solution
E. glucose
2204. What is indication to surgical treatment of anal fissure

A. * chronic passing
B. acute passing
C. perforation
D. bleeding
E. malignancy
2205. What is location of fistula chanal at intersphincteric paraproctitis?

A. * Between mucus and sphincter
B. Passes through sphincter
C. Located after sphincter
D. All are true
E. All are false
2206. What is location of fistula chanal at the transsphincteric paraproctitis?

A. Between mucus and sphincter
B. * Passes through sphincter
D. All is true
E. All is false
2207. What is the basic examination of patients with disease of rectosygmoid area?
A. * Rectoromanoscopy.
B. X-Ray.
C. Sonography.
D. Digital examination of rectum.
E. Irrigography.
2208. What is the complication after haemorrhoidectomy

A. * stricture of anus
B. proctosygmoiditis
C. cancer of rectum
E. peritonitis
2209. What is the complication of surgical treatment of anal fissures

A. * insufficiency of anal sphincter
B. anterior mucosal prolapse of rectum
C. cancer of rectum
D. malignancy
E. Crohn disease
2210. What is the contra-indication for the colproctectomy at a unspecific ulcerative colitis:
A. * A perforation of colon bowel
B. Acute toxic dilatation
C. Bleeding
D. Malignizaciya
E. Stenosis
2211. What is the operation of choice at a unspecific ulcerative colitis:

A. Resection of rectum
B. * proctocolectomy
D. Right-side hemicolectomy
E. Resection of sygmoid bowel
2212. What is the operation of choice at the unspecific ulcerative colitis?

A. * Proctocolonectomy with Ileostomy.
B. Bypassed loop anastomosis.
C. Subtotal colectomy.
D. Resection of colon.
E. Application of colostomy.
2213. What is the reason of origin of acute paraproctitis?

A. Trauma of rectum
B. * Micro-injury of rectum mucus with the damage of crypt
C. Proctopolypus
D. Anal fissure
E. Cancer of rectum
2214. What is the reason of relapse of paraproctitis?

A. An operation is done not enough radically
B. Infection of wound
C. * The internal opening is not removed
D. Anaerobic infection
E. Wrong conservative treatment
2215. What is the typical localization of anal fissure

A. * on 6 hr.
B. on 12 hr.
C. on 3 hr.
D. on 9 hr.
E. on 2 hr.
2216. What kind of enemas is applied at preparation a patient to the operation?

A. * Cleaning.
B. Siphon.
C. Microenema.
D. Purgative.
E. Does not used.
2217. What layers of the bowel are damaged at Crohn disease

A. * all of layers
B. mucus
C. submucous and muscle
D. submucous
E. muscle
E. small curvature
2219. What medicines is used for increasing the frequency of defecation ?
A. * Prozerin.
B. Sulfate of magnesium.
C. Immodium.
D. Karbolen.
E. Digestal.
2220. What medicines is used for treatment of unspecific ulcerative colitis?

A. * Sulfasalazinum.
B. Ampicillin.
C. Nospanum, papaverini.
D. Aspirine.
E. Furazolidonum.

C. X-ray
B. On blood volume
2223. What method of examination is used to confirm the diagnosis of Crohn disease?
A. * A biopsy is with histological examination
B. CT
C. Sciagraphy
D. Sonography
E. Rectoscoopy
2224. What method of operative treatment is used at the I - IV stage of complicated

extrasphincteric fistula?
A. * Ligature method.
B. Rizhikh-1.
C. Rizhikh-2.
D. Gabriel.
E. Cutting and suturing of fistula.
2225. What operation is performed at a acute shoe-shaped paraproctitis ?

A. Opening of abscess with suturing
B. Cutting of abscess (by Gabrial)
C. * Opening of abscess with the ligature conduction
D. Cutting of abscess with shifting of mucus to distal part of rectum
E. Conservative treatment
2226. What operation is performed at an anal fissure?

A. * Cutting of fissure with sphincterotomy.
B. Suturing of fissure.
C. Operation of Milligan-Morgan.
D. Operation of Gabriel.
E. Operation of Nobl.
2227. What operation is performed at haemorrhoids complicated by bleeding

A. * urgent
B. planned
E. not performeded
2228. What operation is performed at haemorrhoids complicated by trombosis

A. * urgent
B. planned
E. not performeded
2229. What operation is performed at haemorrhoids?

A. * Operation of Milligan-Morgan.
B. Rizhikh-1.
C. Rizhikh-2.
2230. What operation is performed at patient with fissure and polypus?

A. * Cutting of fissure with polypectomy.
B. Cutting of fissure.
C. By Milligan-Morgan.
D. By Gabriel.
2231. What operation is performed at rectocaele?

A. * by Kumel-Zerenin.
B. Kenu-Miles.
C. Milligan-Morgan.
D. Gabriel.
2232. What operation is performed at the acute subcutaneus paraproctitis?

B. * Cutting of abscess (by Gabrial)
C. Opening of abscess with the ligature conduction
2233. What operation is performed at the Crohn disease?

A. * A resection of bowel within the limits of healthy tissues.
B. Proctocolonectomy.
D. Resection of large and small intestine.
2234. What operation is performed at the extrasphincteric paraproctitis?
2235. What operation is performed at the ischiorectal paraproctitis?

2236. What operation is performed at the retrorectal paraproctitis?

2237. What operation is performed at the transsphincteric paraproctitis?

A. Cutting of fistula chanal (by Gabrial)
B. * Cutting of fistula chanal with the partial suturing of bottom of wound
C. Cutting of fistula chanal with the ligature conduction
D. Cutting of fistula with shifting of mucus to distal part of rectum
2238. What operation is radical at haemorrhoids?

A. Suturing of haemorrhoidal nodes
B. Operation by Gabriel
C. * Operation by Milligan-Morgan
D. Sclerotherapy
2239. What operation is used for pararectal fistula?

A. * Operation of Gabriel.
B. Operation of Milligan-Morgan.
C. Operation of Gagen-Torn.
D. Operation of Nobl.
E. A sphincterectomy.
2240. What part of colon is damaged by cancer most often:

A. * Sigmoid colon
B. Caecum
C. Ascending part
D. Descending part
E. Rectum
2241. What part of intestine of most often is a pathological process localized in at Crohn disease?
A. * Terminal part of small intestine.
B. Rectum.
C. Ascending part of colon bowel.
D. Lumbar part of colon bowel.
E. Sigmoid bowel.
2242. What patients with poliposis of colon could has in stool:

A. Nothing
B. * Small amount of blood
C. Undigested meal
D. Presence of part of polypuses
E. Melena

A. * tavegil
B. obzidan
C. hystdol
D. cerucal
E. oraza
A. cymetidin
B. eglonin
C. * gastocepini
D. etimsiloli
E. vinylin
B. Almagel
C. Vinylin
D. De-nol
E. Claritromycin

B. pancakes
C. raw egg-white
D. bread rye fresh
E. acute cheeses
2247. What stool has patients with poliposis of colon:

A. Not changed
B. Constipations
C. * Diarrhea
D. White
E. Melena

A. * ulcerous
B. hemorragic;
C. pain;

A. * 6 – 12 hours;
B. 6 – 10 hours;
C. 6 – 8 hours
D. 6 – 14 hours;
E. 6 – 20 hours
2250. What triad of symptoms is characteristic for an anal fissure

A. * pain during defecation, spasm of sphincter, bleeding
B. pain before defecation, constipations, bleeding
C. diarrhea, bleeding, weight loss
D. anaemia, diarrhea, pain
E. bleeding, anaemia, diarrhea
A. hypocalcemia
B. * hypokaliemia
C. Hyponatremia
D. Hypercalcinemia
E. hyperkaliemia
2252. What volume of blood lost at a unspecific ulcerative colitis does consider complications?
A. To 50 ml
B. 50-100 ml
C. 150-200 ml
D. 200-300 ml
E. * 300 ml and more

2254. Where are anal papilla usually located?

A. In any area of anal channel
B. * Only above and lower from dentata line
C. In sygmoid colon
D. In any area of rectum
E. In perianal region
2255. Which preparation is used for treatment of unspecific ulcerative colitis

A. * sulfasalasine
B. fenolftaleine
C. cerucal
D. analgin
E. ketanov
2256. With the purpose of preventing of anaerobic infection at surgical treatment of paraproctitis
is used
A. * hydrogen peroxide
B. furacilini
C. iodine solution
D. rivanol
E. alcohol
2257. A frequent liquid stool is the first sign of:

A. haemorrhoids
B. Fissures of anus
C. Proctosigmoiditis
D. * UUC
E. All of answers are correct
2258. A ligature method is used at treatment of paraproctitis

A. * extrasphincteric fistula
B. acute submucous fistula
C. intersphincteric fistula
D. ischiorectal
E. retrorectal
B. Perforation
2260. A patient after the electroscission of polypus of sigmoid bowel has bleeding. What is tactic?
A. * it is performed hemostatic therapy
B. it is performed operative treatment
C. concervative treatment
D. laparotomy
E. laparoscopy
2261. A patient after the electroscission of polypus of sigmoid bowel has stomach-aches. What
complication can be?
A. * perforation
B. bleeding
C. malignancy
D. toxic dilatation
E. penetration
2262. A presence of mucus and pus in stool is characteristic for:

A. Proctosigmoiditis
B. Cancer of rectum
C. UUC
D. All of answers are wrong

E. giant ulcers
B. callous ulcers




tract

B. barrel vagotomy
2271. An anal itch is a sign of:

A. Insufficiency of sphincter of anus
B. Mycotic lesion of skin of coccyx
C. The hidden diabetes
D. Intestinal worm invasion
2272. At a chronic paraproctitis is performed:

A. * Planned operation.
B. Urgent operation.
C. Conservative treatment.
D. Emegency operation.
E. Nothing

B. pain increases
E. girdle pain

A. * to 3 hours
B. to 1,5 hour
C. to 6 hours
D. to 8 hours
E. 6 – 12 hours

A. Hb below 80 g/l
B. * Hb 80-100 g/l
E. Ht below 25%
indicated
loss indicated

A. artery;
B. veins;
2282. At what disease could be histologically unspecific hranuloma

A. * Crohn disease
B. unspecific ulcerative colitis
C. cancer of rectum
D. poliposis
E. diverticulosis

A. * bleeding ulcer

B. bleeding ulcer

A. Ht 48-44, Hb 120
C. Ht 31-23, Hb 80
D. * Ht 38-32, Hb 100
E. Ht 44-40, Hb 110 /?

B. Ht 31-23, Hb 80
C. Ht 44-40, Hb 110
D. Ht 48-44, Hb 120
E. Ht 48-44, Hb 120

A. * Ht 31-23, Hb 80
C. Ht 38-32, Hb 100
D. Ht 44-40, Hb 110
E. Ht 48-44, Hb 120
2289. Classification of haemorrhoids by the clinical passing

A. * complicated, non-complicated
B. I, II, III stage
C. external, internal
D. I, II stage
E. all are false
2290. Classification of haemorrhoids by the degrees

A. * I, II, III of the stage
B. external, internal
C. complicated, non-complicated
D. I, II stage
E. all are false
2291. Classification of haemorrhoids by the localizations

A. * external, internal
B. I, II,III of the stage
C. complicated, non-complicated
D. I, II stage
E. all are false
2292. Classification of paraproctitis depending on activity of inflammatory process

A. * acute, chronic
B. banal, specific, posttraumatic
C. perianal, submucous, ischiorectal, pelviorectal, retrorectal
D. front, lateral, back
E. Intersphincteric, transsphincteric, extrasphincteric
2293. Classification of paraproctitis depending on etiologic sign

A. * banal, specific, posttraumatic
B. acute, chronic
C. perianal, submucos, ischiorectal, pelviorectal, retrorectal
2294. Classification of paraproctitis depending on fistula localisation

A. * Intersphincteric, transsphincteric, extrasphincteric
C. acute, chronic
E. perianal, submucous, Ischiorectal, pelviorectal, retrorectal
2295. Classification of paraproctitis depending on localizations

A. * perianal, submucos, Ischiorectal, pelviorectal, retrorectal
C. acute, chronic
2296. Clinical manifestation of acute paraproctitis

A. * pain, high temperature
B. enterorrhagia
C. diarrhea
D. constipations
E. vomiting
2297. Complication of haemorrhoids

A. * thromboses, bleeding, paraproctitis
B. Crohn disease
D. perforation
E. malignancy
2298. Complication of surgical treatment of anal fissures

B. perforation
C. cancer of rectum
D. malignancy
E. Crohn disease
2299. Contr-indication to the operation of haemorrhoidectomy is

A. * portal hypertension
B. bleeding
C. repeated thrombosis
D. pain
E. itch

A. bleeding ulcer

A. * Meulengracht's
B. 1 by Pevznerom
C. 5 by Pevznerom
D. 15 by Pevznerom
E. 7 by Pevznerom
C. Mendel’s suing
E. Eleker’s sing

A. * 3-6 hours
B. 6-12 hours
C. 1-3 hours
D. 12-24 hours
E. 24-36 hours
2304. During rectoscopy is found the endoscopic symptom of “roadway”. What disease?
A. Unspecific ulcerative colitis
B. * Crohn disease of rectum
C. Dysentery
D. Salmonellosis
E. Syndrome of irritation of colon

B. bleeding ulcer
A. tumours
B. ulcers
D. erosions
2307. Features of surgical treatment of anaerobic paraproctitis

A. * opening by wide cuts
B. ligature method
C. operation of Gabriel
D. an operation by Rizhik-Bobroviy
E. by Milligan-Morgan and Gabriel.

B. knife-like pain;
E. melena;

A. * melena

B. melena

A. * Zhober’s;
B. Khelatid’s;
C. Podlag’s;
D. Vigats’s;
E. Udin’s.


2315. For what disease characteristic symptom of "water-pipe"?

A. * Unspecific ulcerative colitis.
B. Crohn disease.
C. Psevdopoliposis.
D. Diverticulosis.
E. Spastic colitis.
2316. For what disease is characteristic symptom of "roadway"?

A. * Crohn disease.
B. Amebioz.
C. Spastic colitis.
D. Cancer of large intestine.
E. Unspecific ulcerative colitis.
2317. For which diseases of large intestine characteristic symptom of the "shot target"
B. diverticulosis
C. poliposis
D. cancer
E. Crohn disease
A. gastric fundus
B. * cardial pert;
D. from duodenal;
2319. From what part of gastrointestinal truct is bleeding when presence of cherry-colour blood in
the stool
A. * colon
B. stomach and duodenum
C. rectum
D. duodenum
E. small intestine
2320. From what part of intestine is most often begins unspecific ulcerative colitis?
A. * From the rectum.
B. From the ascending part of colon.
C. From the transverse part of colon.
D. From the descent part of colon.
E. From the terminal part of small intestine.
2321. From what tissue anal papilla are formed from?

A. From ephithelial tissue
B. * From connective tissue
C. From limphoid tissue
D. From muscular tissue
E. From mucus

A. over 4,5 cm
B. * over 3 cm
C. over 4 cm
D. over 5 cm
E. over 3,5 cm
2323. Haemorrhoid’s nodes do not fall out at

A. * I stage
B. II stage
C. III stage
D. External nodes
E. Internal nodes
2324. Haemorrhoid’s nodes fall out and not replaced

A. * III stage
B. I stage
C. II stage
D. External nodes
E. Internal nodes
2325. Haemorrhoid’s nodes fall out during defecation and replaced
A. * II stage
B. I stage
C. III stage
D. External nodes
E. Internal nodes
2326. Haemorrhoidectomy is complicated by cicatrical stricture of rectum. What next operation is

indicated?
A. * dosed sphincterotomy with sewing mucus of rectum to the perianal skin
B. anal bougienage
D. hemorrhoidectomy
E. colostomy
2327. Haemorrhoids complicated by bleeding is indication for

2328. Haemorrhoids complicated by trombosis is indication for

2329. Hemobilia is
2330. How many physiology flexures has rectum?

A. 1
B. * 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
2331. Hyperbaric oxygenation in a postoperative period is used at:

A. * Anaerobic paraproctitis
B. To the anal fissure
C. Epithelial coccygeal
D. Haemorrhoids
E. Cancer of rectum
2332. In the perianal area patient has the slight swelling, red skins, soft infiltrate. What is the
diagnosis?
A. * Acute paraproctitis
B. Anal fissure
C. Haemorrhoids
D. Cancer of rectum
E. Proctopolypus
2333. In what amount of physiologic solution does dissolve medicines for medical micro-enemas?
A. * 80 ml.
B. 200 ml.
C. 250 ml.
D. 300 ml
E. 400 ml
rarely?
E. pylorus.

A. * V. Portae;
B. V. odd;
C. V. pair;
E. V. lower hollow;

A. * thrombosis of haemorrhoids nodes
C. pain
D. itch
E. discomfort

A. * repeated thrombosis of haemorrhoids nodes
C. second stage of non-complicated haemorrhoids
D. first stage of non-complicated haemorrhoids
E. itch

A. 1-4 cm
B. 1-3 cm
C. 3-5 cm
D. 2- 6 cm
E. * 2-3 cm

A. * to 0,5 cm
B. 0,5-1 cm
C. to 1,0 cm
D. 3 to 1,5 cm
E. 0,5-1,5 cm
2340. Mark the disease of colon, which characterised by such complications as bleeding,
formation of stricture, perforation, toxic dilatation, malignancy:
A. Haemorrhoids
B. Fissure
C. Polipus
E. Paraproctitis
A. gullet;
B. stomach;
C. rectum;
D. * duodenum;
E. colon
2342. Melena is

A. * bleeding ulcer
2344. Method of surgical treatment of acute submucous paraproctitis

A. * by Rizhik-Bobroviy
B. opening of abscess by a radial cut
C. ligature method
D. Operation of Rizhikh-1.
E. by Milligan-Morgan.
2345. Method of surgical treatment of anal fissure

A. * cutting of fissure
C. suturing of fissure
E. by Kenyu-Milse.
2346. Method of surgical treatment of haemorrhoids

A. * by Milligan-Morgan.
B. by Bebkok
C. by Narat
D. by Gabriel.

B. * EFGDS
D. Sonography
E. Laparoskopy

diagnosis?
B. Crohn disease
C. Dysentery
D. Salmonellosis

2351. Operation which performed after the cutting of fissure of rectum

A. * by Gabriel
C. sphincterotomy
E. by Kenyu-Miles.

diagnosis?
A. Dysentery.
B. Polypus of small intestine.
C. * Cancer of transvers colon.
D. Spastic colitis.
D. Doplerography
E. Sonography
2355. Patient 59 years old has suspicion of the tumour of ascending part of colon. What method of
B. Irrigography
D. Sonography
E. Endoscopy
A. * Invagination of sygmoid bowel
B. Crohn disease
C. Poliposis
E. Diverticulosis
2357. Patient during the act of defecation has paine in anal channel, red blood in the stool. What
disease?
A. * Anal fissure
B. Haemorrhoids
D. Cancer of rectum
E. Proctopolypus
2358. Patient has poliposis of right half of colon. What is treatment?

A. * right hemicolectomy
C. stoma
E. by Gabriel.
2359. Patient has a blood in the first portions of stool. What disease is possible?
A. * Cancer of rectum.
B. Haemorrhoids.
C. Fissure.
D. Paraproctitis.
E. Fistula.
B. Proctopolypus
E. Acute proctitis
2361. Patient has a red blood at the end of defecation. What disease is possible?
A. * Haemorrhoids and fissure of mucus of rectum.
B. Gastric and duodenal ulcers.
C. Cancer of rectum.
D. Paraproctitis.
E. Fistula.
2362. Patient has anal fissure of mucus of rectum with periodic pains. Pregnancy 16 weeks. Tactic
of surgeon?
A. * an operation - cutting of fissure after birth of child
D. cutting of fissure
2363. Patient has anterior mucosal prolapse of rectum of the III stage and complete prolapse of
uterus. What operation is indicated?
A. * By Kumel-Zerenin, amputation of uterus
B. by Kenu-Miles
C. by Tartu
D. by Rizhikh-1
E. by Milligan-Morgan
2364. Patient has bleeding from a colon as a result of complication of unspecific ulcerative colitis.
B. suturing of bleeding area of bowel
C. resection of bowel
D. colectomy
E. colostomy
2365. Patient has cicatrical narrowing of sigmoid bowel with intestinal obstruction as
complication of unspecific ulcerative colitis. What operation is indicated?
B. resection of the narrowed area of bowel
C. colectomy
D. colostomy
E. Operation by Kenyu-Miles.
B. colitis
C. Pseudopoliposis
D. Diverticulosis
E. Spastic colitis
2367. Patient has intersphincteric fistula and external haemorrhoids. What operation is performed?
A. * By Milligan-Morgan and Gabriel.
C. By Gabriel.
D. Operation of Blinnichev.
2368. Patient has long-term ulcer of rectum. In anamnesis white plague. What is previous
diagnosis?
A. * tuberculosis of rectum
B. haemorrhoids
C. paraproctitis
D. fistula
2369. Patient has melena. What is the sourse of bleeding?

A. * Stomach and duodenum.
B. Rectum.
C. Colon.
D. Small intestine.
E. Sigmoid bowel.
2370. Patient has paraproctitis and fistula in pararectal area. Also it is present fruzi of
actinomicete. What diagnosis?
A. * actinomicosis
B. haemorrhoids
C. paraproctitis
D. fistula
2371. Patient has perforation of colon as complication of unspecific ulcerative colitis. What
operation is indicated
B. suturing of the perforative hole
C. resection of area of bowel
D. colectomy
E. colostomy
2372. Patient has poliposis of left half of colon. What is treatment?

A. * left-side hemicolectomy
C. stoma
E. by Gabriel.
2373. Patient has polypus of sigmoid colon with signs of malignancy. What treatment?
A. * resection of area of bowel with polypus
B. electroscission
D. criodestruction
E. conservative
2374. Patient has polypus on wide leg on 15 sm from anus. What treatment?
A. * removal of polypus by laparotomy, rectotomy
B. electroscission
D. ligating
E. criodestruction
2375. Patient has proctopolypus on 15 sm from anus with the signs of маmalignancy
A. * anterior resection of rectum
B. electroscission
D. criodestruction
E. conservative
2376. Patient has small sizes proctopolypus in sygmoid bowel and pregnancy 8 weeks. Tactic of
surgeon?
A. * it is removing polypus after birth of child
D. cutting of polypus during pregnancy
E. an operation by By Kenu-Miles
A. Anal fissure
B. * Haemorrhoids
D. Cancer of rectum
E. Proctopolypus
2378. Patient has the combined haemorrhoids and pregnancy 8 weeks. Tactic of surgeons?
A. * it is performed operative treatment after birth of child
C. an operation by Milligan-Morgan
D. by Rizhikh-1
E. by Kenu-Miles
2379. Patient has the combined haemorrhoids with bleeding and pregnancy 9 weeks. Tactic of
surgeon?
A. * an operation by Milligan-Morgan
C. it is performed operative treatment after birth of child
D. by Rizhikh-1
E. by Kenu-Miles
2380. Patient has the III stage anterior mucosal prolapse of rectum. What operation is indicated?
A. * by Kyumel-Zerenin
B. by Kenyu-Miles
C. by Milligan-Morgan
D. by Gabriel
E. by Rizhikh-1
2381. Patient has toxic dilatation as complication of unspecific ulcerative colitis. What operation
is indicated?
B. resection of dilatated area of colon
C. colectomy
D. colostomy
2382. Patient has ulcer of rectum by duration near two months. The reaction of Wasermann is
positive. Previous diagnosis
A. * venereal lymphogranuloma
B. haemorrhoids
C. paraproctitis
D. fistula
2383. Patients with haemorrhoids has blood in the stool
A. * during defecation
B. before defecation
C. after defecation
D. constantly
E. never
2384. Presence of blood in the stool is characteristically for:

A. haemorrhoids
B. UUC
C. Cancer of colon
D. Fissures of anus

2386. Reasons of origin of fissures of rectum

A. * constipations, diarrhoea
B. cancer of rectum
D. ulcerous disease
E. varicose disease


2389. Roentgenological signs of unspecific ulcerative colitis

A. * symptom of "water-pipe"
B. symptom of "niche"
C. defect of filling
D. symptom of «roadway»
E. bowls of Kloyber

A. palliative
B. draining
D. resection


2393. Small amount of blood in stool could has patients with:

A. * Poliposis
B. Colitis
C. Pancreatitis
D. Peptic ulcer disease
E. Appendicitis
2394. Solution of atropine sulfate is used, before operation with a purpose

A. * of block of peripheral M-cholinoreceptors
B. providing of the adequate anaesthetizing
C. increase of vagus activity
D. increasing of frequency of pulse
E. decreasing of frequency of pulse
2395. Surgical treatment by the method of cutting of fistula of rectum with cutting of skin and
subcutaneus tissue in the type of triangle
A. * for Gabriel
B. for Rizhik-Bobroviy
C. ligature method
2396. Surgical treatment of paraproctitis by the method of desection of fistula of rectum with
cutting of skin and mucus in the type of triangle
A. * by Rizhik-Bobrov
B. by Gabriel
C. ligature method
2397. The medicinal “constipation” is used at operations

A. * on a rectum
B. on a small intestine
C. on a liver
D. on a stomach
E. on a duodenum
C. serosal
E. external layer
C. profuse bleeding

D. Menetrie's sing;


A. * bleeding ulcer
C. * pylorus ulcers
duodwnum?
2406. What complication of unspecific ulcerative colitis is indication to urgent surgery?

A. Malignizaciya
B. Bleeding
C. Acute toxic dilatation
D. * Perforation
E. Diarrhea
A. perforation
C. pylorus stenosis
E. * bleeding
2408. What disease is damage the superficial layer of wall of bowel

B. Crohn disease
C. diverticulosis
D. poliposis
E. haemorrhoids
2409. What does mean a term "haemorrhoids"?

A. Varicose enlargement of haemorrhoidal veins
B. Spasm of anal sphincter
C. * Bleeding
D. Inflammation of paraperctal tissue
E. Inflamation of anal channel
2410. What does subserve to development of haemorrhoidal thrombosis?

A. Constipation
B. Diarrhea
C. * Spasm of sphincter
D. Criptitis
E. Papillitis
2411. What drug has purgative action?

A. * Fenolftalein.
B. Aspirine.
C. Ftalasol.
D. Proserin.
E. Biphicol.
2412. What drug is decreased freaquency of defecation?

A. * Immodium.
B. Kofeol.
C. Karbolen.
E. Prozerin.
2413. What drug is used for fistulography?

A. * Iodlipol.
B. Bilignost.
C. Verografin.
D. Sulfate of barium.
E. Methylene bluing.
2414. What drug is used for irrihography?

A. * Sulfate of barium.
B. Cardiotrast.
C. Bilignost.
D. Iodlipol.
E. Methylene.
2415. What drugs is used to decrease meteorism?

A. * Espumisan.
B. Norsulfazolum.
C. Vaseline oil.
E. Prozerin.
2416. What enema is used at intestinal obstruction?

A. * Siphon enema.
B. Cleansing.
C. Microenema.
D. Purgative.
E. Does not used.
2418. What form of unspecific ulcerative colitis is most dangerous?

A. * Fulminating.
B. Acute.
C. Chronic recurrent.
D. Chronic continuous.
E. Recurrent.
A. * trichopol
B. Licviroton
C. oxiferiskorbon
D. atropine
E. pirinzsipin
A. trunk vagotomy
D. gastrectomy
except for
A. * ACTH
C. prostaglandin E
D. estrogens
E. STH
2423. What instrumental examination is performed at jamming of haemorrhoidal nodes

A. * examination is not performed
B. rectometer
C. irrigoscopy
D. irrigography
E. colonoscopy
2424. What is from listed has hemostatic effect

A. * blood
B. red corpuscles
C. Haemodesum
D. physiologic solution
E. glucose
2425. What is indication to surgical treatment of anal fissure

A. * chronic passing
B. acute passing
C. perforation
D. bleeding
E. malignancy
2426. What is location of fistula chanal at intersphincteric paraproctitis?

A. * Between mucus and sphincter
B. Passes through sphincter
D. All are true
E. All are false
2427. What is location of fistula chanal at the transsphincteric paraproctitis?

A. Between mucus and sphincter
B. * Passes through sphincter
D. All is true
E. All is false
2428. What is the basic examination of patients with disease of rectosygmoid area?
A. * Rectoromanoscopy.
B. X-Ray.
C. Sonography.
D. Digital examination of rectum.
E. Irrigography.
2429. What is the complication after haemorrhoidectomy

A. * stricture of anus
B. proctosygmoiditis
C. cancer of rectum
E. peritonitis
2430. What is the complication of surgical treatment of anal fissures

B. anterior mucosal prolapse of rectum
C. cancer of rectum
D. malignancy
E. Crohn disease
2431. What is the contra-indication for the colproctectomy at a unspecific ulcerative colitis:
A. * A perforation of colon bowel
B. Acute toxic dilatation
C. Bleeding
D. Malignizaciya
E. Stenosis
2432. What is the operation of choice at a unspecific ulcerative colitis:

A. Resection of rectum
B. * proctocolectomy
D. Right-side hemicolectomy
E. Resection of sygmoid bowel
2433. What is the operation of choice at the unspecific ulcerative colitis?

A. * Proctocolonectomy with Ileostomy.
B. Bypassed loop anastomosis.
D. Resection of colon.
2434. What is the reason of origin of acute paraproctitis?

A. Trauma of rectum
B. * Micro-injury of rectum mucus with the damage of crypt
C. Proctopolypus
D. Anal fissure
E. Cancer of rectum
2435. What is the reason of relapse of paraproctitis?

A. An operation is done not enough radically
B. Infection of wound
C. * The internal opening is not removed
D. Anaerobic infection
E. Wrong conservative treatment
2436. What is the typical localization of anal fissure
A. * on 6 hr.
B. on 12 hr.
C. on 3 hr.
D. on 9 hr.
E. on 2 hr.
2437. What kind of enemas is applied at preparation a patient to the operation?

A. * Cleaning.
B. Siphon.
C. Microenema.
D. Purgative.
E. Does not used.
2438. What layers of the bowel are damaged at Crohn disease

A. * all of layers
B. mucus
C. submucous and muscle
D. submucous
E. muscle
E. small curvature
2440. What medicines is used for increasing the frequency of defecation ?

A. * Prozerin.
B. Sulfate of magnesium.
C. Immodium.
D. Karbolen.
E. Digestal.
2441. What medicines is used for treatment of unspecific ulcerative colitis?

A. * Sulfasalazinum.
B. Ampicillin.
C. Nospanum, papaverini.
D. Aspirine.
E. Furazolidonum.

C. X-ray
B. On blood volume
2444. What method of examination is used to confirm the diagnosis of Crohn disease?
A. * A biopsy is with histological examination
B. CT
C. Sciagraphy
D. Sonography
E. Rectoscoopy
2445. What method of operative treatment is used at the I - IV stage of complicated

extrasphincteric fistula?
A. * Ligature method.
B. Rizhikh-1.
C. Rizhikh-2.
D. Gabriel.
E. Cutting and suturing of fistula.
2446. What operation is performed at a acute shoe-shaped paraproctitis ?

2447. What operation is performed at an anal fissure?

A. * Cutting of fissure with sphincterotomy.
C. Operation of Milligan-Morgan.
E. Operation of Nobl.
2448. What operation is performed at haemorrhoids complicated by bleeding

A. * urgent
B. planned
E. not performeded
2449. What operation is performed at haemorrhoids complicated by trombosis

A. * urgent
B. planned
E. not performeded
2450. What operation is performed at haemorrhoids?

A. * Operation of Milligan-Morgan.
B. Rizhikh-1.
C. Rizhikh-2.
2451. What operation is performed at patient with fissure and polypus?

A. * Cutting of fissure with polypectomy.
B. Cutting of fissure.
C. By Milligan-Morgan.
D. By Gabriel.
2452. What operation is performed at rectocaele?

A. * by Kumel-Zerenin.
B. Kenu-Miles.
C. Milligan-Morgan.
D. Gabriel.
2453. What operation is performed at the acute subcutaneus paraproctitis?

B. * Cutting of abscess (by Gabrial)
C. Opening of abscess with the ligature conduction
2454. What operation is performed at the Crohn disease?

A. * A resection of bowel within the limits of healthy tissues.
B. Proctocolonectomy.
D. Resection of large and small intestine.
2455. What operation is performed at the extrasphincteric paraproctitis?

2456. What operation is performed at the ischiorectal paraproctitis?

2457. What operation is performed at the retrorectal paraproctitis?

2458. What operation is performed at the transsphincteric paraproctitis?

A. Cutting of fistula chanal (by Gabrial)
B. * Cutting of fistula chanal with the partial suturing of bottom of wound
C. Cutting of fistula chanal with the ligature conduction
D. Cutting of fistula with shifting of mucus to distal part of rectum
2459. What operation is radical at haemorrhoids?
A. Suturing of haemorrhoidal nodes
B. Operation by Gabriel
C. * Operation by Milligan-Morgan
D. Sclerotherapy
2460. What operation is used for pararectal fistula?

A. * Operation of Gabriel.
B. Operation of Milligan-Morgan.
C. Operation of Gagen-Torn.
D. Operation of Nobl.
E. A sphincterectomy.
2461. What part of colon is damaged by cancer most often:

A. * Sigmoid colon
B. Caecum
C. Ascending part
D. Descending part
E. Rectum
2462. What part of intestine of most often is a pathological process localized in at Crohn disease?
A. * Terminal part of small intestine.
B. Rectum.
C. Ascending part of colon bowel.
D. Lumbar part of colon bowel.
E. Sigmoid bowel.
2463. What patients with poliposis of colon could has in stool:

A. Nothing
B. * Small amount of blood
C. Undigested meal
D. Presence of part of polypuses
E. Melena

A. * tavegil
B. obzidan
C. hystdol
D. cerucal
E. oraza
A. cymetidin
B. eglonin
C. * gastocepini
D. etimsiloli
E. vinylin
B. Almagel
C. Vinylin
D. De-nol
E. Claritromycin

B. pancakes
C. raw egg-white
D. bread rye fresh
E. acute cheeses
2468. What stool has patients with poliposis of colon:

A. Not changed
B. Constipations
C. * Diarrhea
D. White
E. Melena

A. * ulcerous
B. hemorragic;
C. pain;

A. * 6 – 12 hours;
B. 6 – 10 hours;
C. 6 – 8 hours
D. 6 – 14 hours;
E. 6 – 20 hours
2471. What triad of symptoms is characteristic for an anal fissure

A. * pain during defecation, spasm of sphincter, bleeding
B. pain before defecation, constipations, bleeding
C. diarrhea, bleeding, weight loss
D. anaemia, diarrhea, pain
E. bleeding, anaemia, diarrhea
A. hypocalcemia
B. * hypokaliemia
C. Hyponatremia
D. Hypercalcinemia
E. hyperkaliemia
2473. What volume of blood lost at a unspecific ulcerative colitis does consider complications?
A. To 50 ml
B. 50-100 ml
C. 150-200 ml
D. 200-300 ml
E. * 300 ml and more
2475. Where are anal papilla usually located?

A. In any area of anal channel
B. * Only above and lower from dentata line
C. In sygmoid colon
D. In any area of rectum
E. In perianal region
2476. Which preparation is used for treatment of unspecific ulcerative colitis

A. * sulfasalasine
B. fenolftaleine
C. cerucal
D. analgin
E. ketanov
2477. With the purpose of preventing of anaerobic infection at surgical treatment of paraproctitis
is used
A. * hydrogen peroxide
B. furacilini
C. iodine solution
D. rivanol
E. alcohol
2478. Aberrant goiter is:

A. * The goiter of additional gland
B. Dislocation of the goiter
C. The goiter with increased function
D. The goiter with decreased function
E. The goiter with normal function
2479. Among the complication of a postoperative period for thyrotoxicosis is:

A. * Air embolism
B. Cretinism
C. Lerishe's syndrome
D. Adrenal insufficiency
E. Itsenko-Cushing syndrome
2480. Among the typical complication of a postoperative period for thyrotoxicosis is:
A. * Thyroid storm
B. Cretinism
A. * The damage of laryngeal nerve
B. Cretinism
A. * Asphyxia
B. Cretinism
A. * Parathyroid tetany
B. Cretinism
A. * Bleeding
B. Cretinism
2485. Basedow's disease is:

A. * Thyrotoxicosis
B. Wooden thyroiditis
C. Purulent thyroiditis
D. Autoimmune thyroiditis
E. Mixedema
2486. Diffuse goiter with hyperthyroidism is called:

A. * Grave's disease
B. Hashimoto disease
C. De Kerven disease
D. Riedel's disease
E. Raynaud's disease
2487. Diffuse goiter with hyperthyroidism is called:

A. * Basedow's disease
B. Hashimoto disease
C. De Kerven disease
D. Riedel's disease
E. Raynaud's disease
2488. Ectopic goiter is:

A. * Dislocation of the goiter
B. The goiter of additional gland
C. The goiter with increased function
D. The goiter with decreased function
E. The goiter with normal function
2489. For the clinical manifestation of retrosternal is typical:

A. * Dyspnea
B. Sleepiness
C. Hypomnesia
D. Excessive sweating
E. Tremor of arms

A. * Hoarseness
B. Sleepiness
C. Hypomnesia
E. Tremor of arms

A. * Distended veins of neck
B. Sleepiness,
C. Hypomnesia
E. Tremor of arms
2492. For the clinical manifestation of the damage of laryngeal nerve is typical:
A. * Hoarseness
B. Diarrhea
C. Cramps
D. Fever to 40°С
E. Anemia
2493. For the clinical manifestation of the damage of laryngeal nerve is typical:
A. * Aphonia
B. Diarrhea
C. Cramps
D. Fever to 40°С
E. Anemia
2494. For the clinical manifestation of the parathyroid tetany is typical:

A. * Cramps
B. Aphonia
C. Diarrhea
D. Fever to 40°С
E. Anemia
2495. For the clinical manifestation of thyroid storm is typical:

A. * Excitement, up to psychosis and coma
B. Hoarseness
C. Cramps
D. Aphonia
E. Anemia

A. * Tachycardia (pulse rate – 150-200 per minute)
B. Hoarseness
C. Cramps
D. Aphonia
E. Anemia
A. * Complete arrhythmia
B. Hoarseness
C. Cramps
D. Aphonia
E. Anemia

A. * Fever to 40°С
B. Hoarseness
C. Cramps
D. Aphonia
E. Anemia

A. * Hyperemia of the face, neck, limbs
B. Hoarseness
C. Cramps
D. Aphonia
E. Anemia

A. * Extremely sweating
B. Hoarseness
C. Cramps
D. Aphonia
E. Anemia

A. * Diarrhea
B. Hoarseness
C. Cramps
D. Aphonia
E. Anemia
2502. For the laboratory disturbances of Basedow's disease is typical:

A. * Increased level of triiodothyronine
B. Decreased level of triiodothyronine
C. Increased level of hlucocorticoids
D. Decreased level of hlucocorticoids
E. Decreased level of insuline
2503. For the laboratory disturbances of Basedow's disease is typical:

A. * Increased level of thyroxine
B. Decreased level of triiodothyronine
C. Increased level of hlucocorticoids
D. Decreased level of hlucocorticoids
E. Decreased level of insuline
2504. For the laboratory disturbances of thyrotoxicosis is typical:

A. * Increased level of lipid metabolism
B. Decreased level of carbohydrate metabolism
C. Decreased level of lipid metabolism
D. Decreased level of protein metabolism
E. Decreased level of all kinds of metabolism

A. * Increased level of protein metabolism

A. * Increased level of carbohydrate metabolism
2507. For the thyrotoxicosis is typical:

A. * Mebius' sign
B. Homan's sign
C. Lovenberg's sign
D. Mondor's sign
E. Murphy's sign

A. * Graefe's sign
B. Homan's sign
C. Lovenberg's sign
D. Mondor's sign
E. Murphy's sign

A. * Dalrymple's sign
B. Homan's sign
C. Lovenberg's sign
D. Mondor's sign
E. Murphy's sign

A. * Kocher's sign
B. Homan's sign
C. Lovenberg's sign
D. Mondor's sign
E. Murphy's sign
2511. For thyrotoxicosis is typical:

A. * Stellwag's sign
B. Homan's sign
C. Lovenberg's sign
D. Mondor's sign
E. Murphy's sign
2512. Goiter which localized on the back of the tongue is called:

A. * Ectopic goiter
B. Aberrant goiter
C. Typical
D. Presternal
E. Retrosternal
2513. Goiter which occurs in biogeochemical regions with iodine deficiency in environment is
called:
A. * Endemic goiter
B. Sporadic goiter
C. Thyrotoxicosis
D. Myxedema
E. Atypical goiter
2514. Goiter which occurs in unendemic regions is called:

A. * Sporadic goiter
B. Endemic goiter
C. Thyrotoxicosis
D. Myxedema
E. Atypical goiter
2515. Grave's disease is:

A. * Thyrotoxicosis
B. Wooden thyroiditis
D. Autoimmune thyroiditis
E. Mixedema
2516. How is the sign, which is characterized by a weakness of convergence named by author?
A. * Mebius' sign
B. Stellwag's sign
C. Graefe's sign
D. Dalrymple's sign
E. Kocher's sign
2517. How is the sign, which is characterized by a wide palpebral fissure named by author?
A. * Dalrymple's sign
B. Mebius' sign
C. Stellwag's sign
D. Graefe's sign
E. Kocher's sign
2518. How is the sign, which is characterized by infrequent winking named by author?
A. * Stellwag's sign
B. Graefe's sign
C. Mebius' sign
D. Dalrymple's sign
E. Kocher's sign
2519. How is the sign, which is characterized by retraction of the upper eyelid at prompt change
of view named by author?
A. * Kocher's sign
B. Dalrymple's sign
C. Mebius' sign
D. Stellwag's sign
E. Graefe's sign
2520. How is the sign, which is characterized by the upper lid lag when the patient looks
downward named by author?
A. * Graefe's sign
B. Mebius' sign
C. Stellwag's sign
D. Dalrymple's sign
E. Kocher's sign
2521. In case of euthyroid goiter the patient mainly complains of:

A. * Neck deformity
B. Sleepiness
C. Hypomnesia
E. Tremor of arms

A. * Difficult breathing
B. Sleepiness
C. Hypomnesia
E. Tremor of arms

A. * Difficult swallowing
B. Sleepiness
C. Hypomnesia
E. Tremor of arms

A. * Sudden attacks of cough
B. Sleepiness
C. Hypomnesia
E. Tremor of arms
2525. In case of hyperthyroid goiter the patient mainly complains of:

A. * Excessive sweating
B. Leg edemas
C. Hypomnesia
D. Neck deformity
E. Constipation

A. * Irritability
B. Leg edemas
C. Hypomnesia
D. Neck deformity
E. Constipation

A. * Heartbeat
B. Leg edemas
C. Hypomnesia
D. Neck deformity
E. Constipation

A. * Tremor of arms
B. Leg edemas
C. Hypomnesia
D. Neck deformity
E. Constipation

A. * Sleeplessness
B. Leg edemas
C. Hypomnesia
D. Neck deformity
E. Constipation

A. * Feeling of fever
B. Leg edemas
C. Hypomnesia
D. Neck deformity
E. Constipation

A. * Loss of weight
B. Leg edemas
C. Hypomnesia
D. Neck deformity
E. Constipation
2532. In case of hypothyroid goiter the patient mainly complains of:

A. * Sleepiness
B. Difficult breathing
C. Neck deformity
E. Tremor of arms

A. * General weakness
C. Neck deformity
E. Tremor of arms

A. * Malaise
C. Neck deformity
E. Tremor of arms

A. * Hypomnesia
C. Neck deformity
E. Tremor of arms

A. * Dry skin
C. Neck deformity
E. Tremor of arms

A. * Constipations
C. Neck deformity
E. Tremor of arms

A. * Leg edemas
C. Neck deformity
E. Tremor of arms
2539. In case of thyrotoxicosis goiter the patient mainly complains of:

A. * Excessive sweating
B. Leg edemas
C. Hypomnesia
D. Neck deformity
E. Constipation

A. * Irritability
B. Leg edemas
C. Hypomnesia
D. Neck deformity
E. Constipation

A. * Heartbeat
B. Leg edemas
C. Hypomnesia
D. Neck deformity
E. Constipation

A. * Tremor of arms
B. Leg edemas
C. Hypomnesia
D. Neck deformity
E. Constipation
A. * Sleeplessness
B. Leg edemas
C. Hypomnesia
D. Neck deformity
E. Constipation

A. * Feeling of fever
B. Leg edemas
C. Hypomnesia
D. Neck deformity
E. Constipation

A. * Loss of weight
B. Leg edemas
C. Hypomnesia
D. Neck deformity
E. Constipation

A. * Palpitation
B. Leg edemas
C. Hypomnesia
D. Neck deformity
E. Constipation

A. * Exophthalmos
B. Leg edemas
C. Hypomnesia
D. Neck deformity
E. Constipation

A. * Tremor
B. Leg edemas
C. Hypomnesia
D. Neck deformity
E. Constipation
2549. Intrathoracic localization of goiter is called:

A. * Ectopic goiter
B. Aberrant goiter
C. Typical
D. Presternal
E. Retrosternal
2550. The "woody" goiter is a:

A. * Riedel's goiter
B. Hashimoto's goiter
C. De Kerven thyroiditis
D. Grave's disease
E. Basedow's disease
2551. The autoimmune thyroiditis is a:

A. * Hashimoto's goiter
B. De Kerven thyroiditis
C. Riedel's goiter
D. Grave's disease
2552. The constipation is a clinical manifestation of the patient with:

A. * Hypothyroid goiter
B. Euthyroid goiter
C. Thyrotoxicosis
D. Gastric ulcer
E. Esophageal diverticulum
2553. The Dalrymple's sign is typical for:

A. * Thyrotoxicosis
B. Mixedema
C. Euthyroid goiter
D. Gastric ulcer
2554. The Dalrymple's sign is:

A. * Wide palpebral fissure
B. Infrequent winking
C. The upper lid lag when the patient looks downward
D. A weakness of convergence
E. Retraction of the upper eyelid at prompt change of view
2555. The De Kerven thyroiditis is a:

A. * Purulent thyroiditis
B. Autoimmune thyroiditis
C. Fibrous thyroiditis
D. Thyrotoxicosis
E. Nodular goiter
2556. The development of aphonia in early postoperative period after thyroid surgery is the
manifestation of:
B. Thyroid storm
C. Parathyroid tetany
2557. The development of complete arrhythmia in early postoperative period after thyroid surgery
is the manifestation of:
A. * Thyroid storm
B. The damage of laryngeal nerve
2558. The development of cramps in early postoperative period after thyroid surgery is the
manifestation of:
A. * Parathyroid tetany
C. Thyroid storm
2559. The development of excitement, up to psychosis and coma in early postoperative period
after thyroid surgery is the manifestation of:
A. * Thyroid storm
C. Air embolism
2560. The development of extremely sweating, diarrhea in early postoperative period after thyroid
surgery is the manifestation of:
A. * Thyroid storm
2561. The development of fever to 40°С in early postoperative period after thyroid surgery is the
manifestation of:
A. * Thyroid storm
2562. The development of hoarseness in early postoperative period after thyroid surgery is the
manifestation of:
B. Thyroid storm
2563. The development of hyperemia of the face, neck, limbs in early postoperative period after
thyroid surgery is the manifestation of:
A. * Thyroid storm
2564. The development of tachycardia (pulse rate – 150-200 per minute) in early postoperative
period after thyroid surgery is the manifestation of:
A. * Thyroid storm
2565. The difficult breathing is a clinical manifestation of the patient with:

A. * Euthyroid goiter
B. Hypothyroidism
C. Thyrotoxicosis
D. Esophageal achalasia
E. Gastric ulcer
2566. The difficult swallowing is a clinical manifestation of the patient with:

B. Hypothyroidism
C. Thyrotoxicosis
D. Gastric ulcer
E. Empyema
2567. The dry skin is a clinical manifestation of the patient with:

B. Euthyroid goiter
C. Thyrotoxicosis
D. Gastric ulcer
2568. The edemas is a clinical manifestation of the patient with:

B. Euthyroid goiter
C. Thyrotoxicosis
D. Gastric ulcer
2569. The excessive sweating is a clinical manifestation of the patient with:

A. * Thyrotoxicosis
B. Mixedema
C. Euthyroid goiter
D. Gastric ulcer
2570. The excessive sweating is a clinical manifestation of the patient with:

A. * Hyperthyroid goiter
B. Hypothyroid goiter
C. Euthyroid goiter
D. Gastric ulcer
2571. The exophthalmos is a clinical manifestation of the patient with:

A. * Thyrotoxicosis
B. Mixedema
C. Euthyroid goiter
D. Gastric ulcer
2572. The feeling of fever is a clinical manifestation of the patient with:

A. * Thyrotoxicosis
B. Mixedema
C. Euthyroid goiter
D. Gastric ulcer
2573. The feeling of fever is a clinical manifestation of the patient with:

C. Euthyroid goiter
D. Gastric ulcer
2574. The fibrous thyroiditis is a:

A. * Riedel's goiter
C. De Kerven thyroiditis
D. Grave's disease
2575. The general weakness is a clinical manifestation of the patient with:

B. Euthyroid goiter
C. Thyrotoxicosis
D. Gastric ulcer
2576. The goiter of additional gland is called:

A. * Aberrant goiter
B. Ectopic goiter
C. Typical
D. Presternal
E. Retrosternal
2577. The Graefe's sign is typical for:

A. * Thyrotoxicosis
B. Mixedema
C. Euthyroid goiter
D. Gastric ulcer
2578. The Graefe's sign is:

A. * The upper lid lag when the patient looks downward
C. A weakness of convergence
D. Wide palpebral fissure
2579. The Hashimoto's goiter is a:

A. * Autoimmune thyroiditis
B. Fibrous thyroiditis
D. Thyrotoxicosis
E. Nodular goiter
2580. The heartbeat is a clinical manifestation of the patient with:

A. * Thyrotoxicosis
B. Mixedema
C. Euthyroid goiter
D. Gastric ulcer
2581. The heartbeat is a clinical manifestation of the patient with:

C. Euthyroid goiter
D. Gastric ulcer
2582. The hypomnesia is a clinical manifestation of the patient with:

B. Euthyroid goiter
C. Thyrotoxicosis
D. Gastric ulcer
2583. The increased level of carbohydrate metabolism is typical for:

A. * Thyrotoxicosis
B. Mixedema
C. Euthyroid goiter
D. Gastric ulcer
2584. The increased level of lipid metabolism is typical for:

A. * Thyrotoxicosis
B. Mixedema
C. Euthyroid goiter
D. Gastric ulcer
2585. The increased level of protein metabolism is typical for:

A. * Thyrotoxicosis
B. Mixedema
C. Euthyroid goiter
D. Gastric ulcer
2586. The irritability is a clinical manifestation of the patient with:

C. Euthyroid goiter
D. Gastric ulcer
2587. The Kocher's sign is typical for:

A. * Thyrotoxicosis
B. Mixedema
C. Euthyroid goiter
D. Gastric ulcer
2588. The Kocher's sign is:
A. * Retraction of the upper eyelid at prompt change of view
B. Wide palpebral fissure
C. Infrequent winking
D. The upper lid lag when the patient looks downward
E. A weakness of convergence
2589. The loss of weight is a clinical manifestation of the patient with:

A. * Thyrotoxicosis
B. Mixedema
C. Euthyroid goiter
D. Gastric ulcer
2590. The loss of weight is a clinical manifestation of the patient with:

C. Euthyroid goiter
D. Gastric ulcer
2591. The malaise is a clinical manifestation of the patient with:

B. Euthyroid goiter
C. Thyrotoxicosis
D. Gastric ulcer
2592. The Mebius' sign is typical for:

A. * Thyrotoxicosis
B. Mixedema
C. Euthyroid goiter
D. Gastric ulcer
2593. The Mebius' sign is:

A. * A weakness of convergence
C. The upper lid lag when the patient looks downward
2594. The neck deformity is a clinical manifestation plaint of the patient with:
B. Hypothyroidism
C. Thyrotoxicosis
D. Esophageal achalasia
E. Empyema
2595. The palpitation is a clinical manifestation of the patient with:

A. * Thyrotoxicosis
B. Mixedema
C. Euthyroid goiter
D. Gastric ulcer
2596. The palpitation is a clinical manifestation of the patient with:

A. * Thyrotoxicosis
B. Mixedema
C. Euthyroid goiter
D. Gastric ulcer
2597. The purulent thyroiditis is a:

A. * De Kerven thyroiditis
C. Riedel's goiter
D. Grave's disease
2598. The Riedel's goiter is a:

A. Woody" goiter
D. Thyrotoxicosis
E. Nodular goiter
2599. The Riedel's goiter is a:

A. * Fibrous thyroiditis
D. Thyrotoxicosis
E. Nodular goiter
2600. The sleepiness is a clinical manifestation of the patient with:

B. Euthyroid goiter
C. Thyrotoxicosis
D. Gastric ulcer
2601. The Stellwag's sign is typical for:

A. * Thyrotoxicosis
B. Mixedema
C. Euthyroid goiter
D. Gastric ulcer
2602. The Stellwag's sign is:

A. * Infrequent winking
B. The upper lid lag when the patient looks downward
C. A weakness of convergence
2603. The subtotal subfascial resection of the thyroid gland is indicated for:
A. * Goiter of IV-V degree
B. The goiter of 0 degree
C. The goiter of I degree
D. The goiter of II degree
E. Goiter with hypothyroidism
A. * Nodular transformation of toxic goiter
A. * Thyrotoxocosis
B. Obesity
D. Paget-Shretter's syndrome
E. Achalasia
A. * Severe forms of thyrotoxicosis
2607. The treatment of de Kerven thyroiditis is a:

A. * Drainage of suppurative focus
B. Glycocorticoids
C. Radioactive iodine
D. Resection of thyroid gland
E. Mercasolil
2608. The treatment of Hashimoto's goiter is a:

A. * Glycocorticoids
B. Drainage of suppurative focus
E. Mercasolil
2609. The treatment of Hashimoto's goiter is a:

A. * Thyroidectomy
E. Mercasolil
2610. The treatment of Riedel's goiter is a:

A. * Thyroidectomy
E. Mercasolil
2611. The tremor is a clinical manifestation of the patient with:
A. * Thyrotoxicosis
B. Mixedema
C. Euthyroid goiter
D. Gastric ulcer
2612. The tremor of arms is a clinical manifestation of the patient with:

A. * Thyrotoxicosis
B. Mixedema
C. Euthyroid goiter
D. Gastric ulcer
2613. The tremor of arms is a clinical manifestation of the patient with:

C. Euthyroid goiter
D. Gastric ulcer
2614. What belongs to the I stage of thyrotoxicosis?

A. * Onset of thyrotoxicosis, slight enlargement of thyroid gland
B. Marked sings of thyrotoxicosis, the thyroid is noticeably enlarged in size
C. Thyrotoxic lesion of viscera
D. Nonreversible dystrophy of organs and systems
E. Asymptomatic course
2615. What belongs to the II stage of thyrotoxicosis?

A. * Marked sings of thyrotoxicosis, the thyroid is noticeably enlarged in size
B. Onset of thyrotoxicosis, slight enlargement of thyroid gland
C. Thyrotoxic lesion of viscera
2616. What belongs to the III stage of thyrotoxicosis?

A. * Thyrotoxic lesion of viscera
B. Marked sings of thyrotoxicosis, the thyroid is noticeably enlarged in size
C. Onset of thyrotoxicosis, slight enlargement of thyroid gland
2617. What belongs to the IV stage of thyrotoxicosis?

A. * Nonreversible dystrophy of organs and systems
B. Thyrotoxic lesion of viscera
C. Marked sings of thyrotoxicosis, the thyroid is noticeably enlarged in size
D. Onset of thyrotoxicosis, slight enlargement of thyroid gland
2618. What complication is characteristic for the goiter?

A. * Strumitis
B. Laringospasm
C. Pneumothorax
D. Mediastinal emphysema
E. Atypical goiter

A. * Hemorrhage into the gland
B. Laringospasm
C. Pneumothorax
E. Atypical goiter

A. * Malignancy
B. Laringospasm
C. Pneumothorax
E. Atypical goiter

A. * Asphyxia
B. Laringospasm
C. Pneumothorax
E. Atypical goiter
2622. What diseases should be the thyrotoxicosis differentiated with?

A. * Rheumatic disease
B. Obesity
E. Achalasia

A. * Chroniosepsis
B. Obesity
E. Achalasia

A. * Diencephalic lesions
B. Obesity
E. Achalasia

A. * Thyroid cancer
B. Obesity
E. Achalasia

A. * Encephalitis
B. Obesity
E. Achalasia
2627. What form of thyrotoxicosis is classified as a mild?

A. * Pulse rate less than 100 beat/min
B. Pulse rate 100-120 beat/min
C. Pulse rate 120-140 beat/min
D. Pulse rate 140-160 beat/min
E. Pulse rate more than 160 beat/min

A. * Loss weight less than 3-5 kg
B. Loss weight 5-8 kg
C. Loss weight 8-10 kg
D. Loss weight 10-15 kg
E. Loss weight exceeds 15 kg

A. * Increase of basal metabolism to 30 %
B. Increase of basal metabolism on 30-50 %
C. Increase of basal metabolism more than 50 %
D. Decrease of basal metabolism to 30 %
E. Decrease of basal metabolism more than 50 %
2630. What form of thyrotoxicosis is classified as a moderate?

A. * Pulse rate 100-120 beat/min
B. Pulse rate less than 100 beat/min
E. Pulse rate more than 160 beat/min

A. * Loss weight 5-10 kg
B. Exceed of weight more than 1-2 kg
C. Exceed of weight more than 3-5 kg
D. Loss weight 10-15 kg
E. Loss weight exceeds 15 kg

A. * Increase of basal metabolism on 30-50 %
B. Increase of basal metabolism to 30 %
C. Increase of basal metabolism more than 50 %
2633. What form of thyrotoxicosis is classified as severe?

A. * Pulse rate more than 120 beat/min
B. Pulse rate less than 40 beat/min
E. Pulse rate 100-120 beat/min

A. * Loss weight exceeds 10 kg
B. Loss weight less than 1-2 kg
C. Loss weight 2-3 kg
D. Exceed of weight more than 1-2 kg
E. Exceed of weight more than 3-5 kg

A. * Increase of basal metabolism more than 50 %
B. Increase of basal metabolism on 30-50 %
C. Increase of basal metabolism to 30 %
2636. What form of thyrotoxicosis is related with the increase of basal metabolism more than 50
%?
A. * Severe
B. Mild
C. Moderate
D. Subclinic
E. Asymptomatic
2637. What form of thyrotoxicosis is related with the increase of basal metabolism on 30-50 %?
A. * Moderate
B. Mild
C. Severe
D. Subclinic
E. Asymptomatic
2638. What form of thyrotoxicosis is related with the increase of basal metabolism to 30 %?
A. * Mild
B. Moderate
C. Severe
D. Subclinic
E. Asymptomatic
2639. What form of thyrotoxicosis is related with the loss weight 5-10 kg?
A. * Moderate
B. Mild
C. Severe
D. Subclinic
E. Asymptomatic
2640. What form of thyrotoxicosis is related with the loss weight less than 3-5 kg?
A. * Mild
B. Moderate
C. Severe
D. Subclinic
E. Asymptomatic
2641. What form of thyrotoxicosis is related with the loss weight more than 10 kg?
A. * Severe
B. Moderate
C. Mild
D. Subclinic
E. Asymptomatic
2642. What group of medicines does Lithium carbonate belong to?

A. * Thyrostatic agents
B. Antibiotics
C. Anticoagulants
D. Antiaggregants
E. Vitamines
2643. What group of medicines does Mercasolil belong to?

A. * Thyrostatic agents
B. Antibiotics
C. Anticoagulants
D. Antiaggregants
E. Vitamines
2644. What is the 0 degree of goiter?

A. * The thyroid gland is not palpated;
B. The isthmus of the gland is noticeable during swallowing and could be palpated;
C. Entire gland is noticeable during swallowing and could be palpated;
D. The enlargement of gland results in evident thickening of neck ("a thick neck");
E. The gland considerably enlarged, and sharply deforms neck
2645. What is the cause of thyrotoxicosis?

A. * Autoimmune disturbances
B. Atherosclerotic changes
C. Calcium metabolism disturbances
D. Renal insufficiency
E. Pulmonary emphysema
2646. What is the contributing factor which causes the lung abscess?
A. * Excessive calcium, deficiency of bromine in environment
B. Increased cholesterol, dyslipoproteinemia
C. Suprarenal insufficiency
D. Rheumatism, endocarditis
E. Lack of vitamin C
2647. What is the contributing factor which causes the lung abscess?
A. * Lack of cobalt, and zinc
2648. What is the degree of goiter when entire gland is noticeable during swallowing and could be
palpated?
A. * I
B. II
C. V
D. III
E. IV
2649. What is the degree of goiter when the enlargement of gland results in evident thickening of
neck ("a thick neck")?
A. * III
B. I
C. V
D. II
E. IV
2650. What is the degree of goiter when the enlargement reaches excessive size (goiter of major
sizes)?
A. * V
B. IV
C. III
D. I
E. II
2651. What is the degree of goiter when the gland considerably enlarged, and sharply deforms
neck?
A. * IV
B. III
C. I
D. V
E. II
2652. What is the degree of goiter when the isthmus of the gland is noticeable during swallowing
and could be palpated?
A. * I
B. V
C. II
D. III
E. IV
2653. What is the degree of goiter when the thyroid gland is not palpated?
A. * 0
B. II
C. I
D. III
E. IV
2654. What is the endemic goiter characterized by?

A. * Goiter which occurs in biogeochemical regions with iodine deficiency in
environment
B. Goiter which occurs in unendemic regions
C. Goiter lesion of both lobes
D. Goiter of atypical localization
E. Goiter with changed function
2655. What is the I degree of goiter?

A. * The isthmus of the gland is noticeable during swallowing and could be palpated;
B. The thyroid gland is not palpated;
C. Entire gland is noticeable during swallowing and could be palpated;
2656. What is the I stage of thyrotoxicosis?

A. * Neurotic
B. Neurohormonal
C. Visceropathic
D. Cachectic
E. Asymptomatic
2657. What is the II degree of goiter?

A. * Entire gland is noticeable during swallowing and could be palpated;
C. The isthmus of the gland is noticeable during swallowing and could be palpated;
2658. What is the II stage of thyrotoxicosis?

A. * Neurohormonal
B. Neurotic
C. Visceropathic
D. Cachectic
E. Asymptomatic
2659. What is the III degree of goiter?

A. * The enlargement of gland results in evident thickening of neck ("a thick neck");
D. Entire gland is noticeable during swallowing and could be palpated;
2660. What is the III stage of thyrotoxicosis?

A. * Visceropathic
B. Neurohormonal
C. Neurotic
D. Cachectic
E. Asymptomatic
2661. What is the indication for the conservative treatment of the goiter?
A. * The goiter of I degree
B. The retrosternal ectopy of thyroid gland
C. The aberrant goiter
D. The goiter of IV degree
E. The goiter with secondary hyperthyroidism
2662. What is the indication for the conservative treatment of the goiter?
A. * The goiter of II degree
B. The retrosternal ectopy of thyroid gland
C. The aberrant goiter
D. The goiter of IV degree
E. The goiter with secondary hyperthyroidism
2663. What is the indication for the operative treatment of the goiter?
A. * Nodular goiter
E. Uncomplicated hypothyroid goiter
A. * Mixed forms of goiter
A. * The sings of neck compression by goiter
A. * The goiter with secondary hyperthyroidism
A. * The goiter with suspicion on malignancy
A. * The goiter of additional thyroid glands
A. * The aberrant goiter
A. * The intrathoracic goiter
A. * The retrosternal ectopy of thyroid gland
A. * The complicated goiter
2673. What is the IV degree of goiter?

A. * The gland considerably enlarged, and sharply deforms neck;
B. The enlargement reaches excessive size (goiter of major sizes)
E. The enlargement of gland results in evident thickening of neck ("a thick neck")
2674. What is the IV degree of goiter?

A. * The enlargement reaches excessive size (goiter of major sizes)
B. The gland considerably enlarged, and sharply deforms neck;
E. The enlargement of gland results in evident thickening of neck ("a thick neck")
2675. What is the IV stage of thyrotoxicosis?

A. * Cachectic
B. Visceropathic
C. Neurohormonal
D. Neurotic
E. Asymptomatic
2676. What is the main treatment of noncomplicated goiter?

B. Segmentectomy
C. Lobectomy
D. Thyroidectomy
E. Hemithyroidectomy
2677. What is the most informative in the diagnostic of thyrotoxicosis?

A. * Thyroid hormone concentration
C. X-ray examination with barium
D. Coagulogram
E. X-ray examination of the neck

A. * Serum thyroidstimulating antibodies
D. Coagulogram

A. * Detecting of basal metabolism
D. Coagulogram

A. * Serum iodine-binding globulin concentration
D. Coagulogram

A. * Serum thyroidstimulating hormone of hypophysis
D. Coagulogram
2682. What is the predominant factor which causes the goiter?

A. * Lack of iodine
2683. What is the sporadic goiter characterized by?

A. * Goiter which occurs in unendemic regions
B. Goiter which occurs in biogeochemical regions with iodine deficiency in environment
C. Goiter lesion of both lobes
D. Goiter of atypical localization
E. Goiter with changed function
2684. What medicines are used for the treatment of goiter?

A. * Triiodothyronine
B. Heparin
C. Vasaprostan
D. Fenillin
E. Omeprasol

A. * Inorganic iodine
B. Heparin
C. Vasaprostan
D. Fenillin
E. Omeprasol

A. * Thyroidine
B. Heparin
C. Vasaprostan
D. Fenillin
E. Omeprasol

A. * Thyroxine
B. Heparin
C. Vasaprostan
D. Fenillin
E. Omeprasol
2688. What medicines belong to thyrostatic agents?

A. * Lithium carbonate
B. Euphyllin
C. Vasaprostan
D. Nicotine acid
E. Detrlex
2689. What medicines belong to thyrostatic agents?

A. * Mercasolil
B. Euphyllin
C. Vasaprostan
D. Nicotine acid
E. Detrlex
2690. What operation is performed in endemic goiter?

A. * Subfascial resection of thyroid gland
B. Segmentectomy
C. Lobectomy
D. Thyroidectomy
E. Hemithyroidectomy
2691. What stage of thyrotoxicosis correlates with the marked sings of thyrotoxicosis and
noticeably enlarged thyroid?
A. * II
B. I
C. III
D. IV
E. 0
2692. What stage of thyrotoxicosis correlates with the nonreversible dystrophy of organs and
systems?
A. * IV
B. III
C. II
D. I
E. 0
2693. What stage of thyrotoxicosis correlates with the onset of the disease, slight enlargement of
thyroid gland?
A. * I
B. II
C. III
D. IV
E. 0
2694. What stage of thyrotoxicosis correlates with the thyrotoxic lesion of viscera?
A. * III
B. II
C. I
D. IV
E. 0
SITUATIONAL TASKS
1. A diarrhea is not obligatory, but possible in acute appendicitis. In what cases diarrhea confirms
the inflammation of appendix?
A. * In pelvic appendicitis
B. On the first day of the disease
C. In fever
D. In retrocaecal appendicitis
E. In retroperitoneal appendicitis
2. A patient complains of a pain in a right iliac area. At first pain appeared in epigastrium, then
relocated in a right iliac area. During examination muscular tension of anterior abdominal wall
and symptoms of peritoneal irritation are detected in a right iliac area. Leucocytes-8x109.
General urine analysis within norm. Your diagnosis.
A. * Acute appendicitis
B. Right-side renal colic
C. Appendicular infiltrate
D. Meckel's diverticulum
E. Perforative ulcer
3. A patient complains of a pain in the lower abdomen, mostly on the right side, dizziness. The
mentioned signs appeared suddenly, at night. Last menstruation 2 weeks ago. During
examination the skin is pale, pulse 92 /min., t -36°C, AP 100/60 mm Hg. The abdomen is
slightly tense, painful in lower areas. The signs of peritoneal irritation are insignificant. Нв-98
g/l. Your diagnosis?
A. * Ovarian apoplexy
B. Renal colic
C. Acute appendicitis
E. Bleeding gastric ulcer
4. A patient was operated 9 days ago for destructive appendicitis with pelvic position. As a
complication – the abscess of Duglas space was developed. At digital rectal examination the
infiltrate was detected with softening in center. Tactic of surgeon?
A. * Punction of the abscess with draining
B. Relaparotomy, draining of the abscess
C. Presacral antibiotic-novocaine blockade
D. Warm small enemas, suppositories with antibiotics
E. Electrophoresis with antibiotics on abdomen
5. A patient was operated for acute appendicitis. The condition deteriorated. An abdominal pain
appeared, a temperature rose to 39°C. The signs of peritoneal irritation are absent. A jaundice
joined. What complication is need to think about?
A. * Pylephlebitis
B. Diffuse peritonitis
C. Subphrenic abscess
D. Cholecystitis
E. Appendicular infiltrate
6. Among the ways of penetration of infection in appendix in acute appendicitis the most frequent
is enterogenic. What microorganisms are revealed more frequent?
A. * E. Colli
B. Staphylococci
C. Streptococci
D. Bacteroids
E. Koch's mycobacterii
7. During the operation for acute appendicitis, you revealed a dense appendicular infiltrate. What
is your tactic?
A. * To close the wound of the abdominal wall and prescribe antibiotics and local cold
B. Under general anesthesia perform a median laparotomy and appendectomy
C. To mobilize the appendix from inflammatory infiltrate and perform appendectomy
D. Perform disclosure and drainage of the infiltrate
E. All the answers wrong
8. :For the acute appendicitis, complicated by appendicular infiltrate, in contrast to the tumour of
caecum, is characteristic:
A. * Tendency to diminishing of the tumour in the process of supervision
B. Long-term anamnesis
C. Excretion of blood from rectum
D. Curvuasier's sign
E. Frequent partial intestinal obstruction in anamnesis
9. For the differential diagnostics of acute appendicitis with the urology diseases is not used
A. * Irrigoscopy
B. Urography
C. Cystochromoscopy
D. X-ray of kidneys
E. Urine analysis
10. In patient during the operation for acute destructive appendicitis the appendicular infiltrate was
diagnosed. What the further tactic of surgeon?
A. * Appendectomy not performed, draining the abdominal cavity
B. Appendectomy not performed, to suit the wound
C. Performed appendectomy
D. Performed a cystostomy
E. To remove the infiltrate
11. In patient who underwent the operation of appendectomy on the 5th day at rectal examination
was found the inflammatory infiltrate in small pelvis without the signs of abscessing. Choose
the necessary medical tactic:
B. Punction of infiltrate
C. Punction of infiltrate and draining.
D. Discharging of infiltrate
E. Operative treatment.
12. :In the diagnostics of pelvic appendicitis the most valuable is:
A. * rectal and vaginal examination
B. laboratory analyses
C. laparocentesis
D. laparoscopy
E. colonoscopy
13. In the patient after appendectomy on the 5th day appeared the hectic fever, leucocytosis. In the
depths of the pelvis appeared moderate pain, disuric phenomenon, tenesmi. What additional
method of investigation you will begin with to diagnose the complication?
A. * A digital rectal examination
B. Cystochromoscopy
C. Repeat tests of blood and urine
D. Rectoromanoscopy
E. Repeat irrigoscopy
14. In the patient on the 7th day after the operation for gangrenous appendicitis, was developed a
fever, pain in the rectum, tenesmi, frequent and painful urination. During rectal examination
revealed the infiltrate in pelvis. During 3 days after the treatment, which included warm enemas
and antibiotics, the patient's condition had not improved. Repeat examination revealed a
softening of rectal infiltration. Temperature had hectic nature. What is the treatment?
A. * Drainage of pelvic abscess through the rectum
B. Antibiotics, physiotherapy, hyperbaric oxygen therapy
C. Drainage of pelvic abscess through retroperitoneal access
D. Laparotomy, opening abscess
E. Laparoscopic drainage of abscess
15. In the patient was diagnosed the retroperitoneal phlegmon as a complication of acute
appendicitis. What is the cause of the phlegmon?
A. * Retroperitoneal location of appendix
B. Subhepatic location of appendix
C. Local peritonitis in the right iliac region
D. Medial location of appendix
E. Location of appendix laterally from caecum
16. In the patient, aged 18, on the 7th day after the appendectomy developed a pelvic abscess. What
will you do?
A. * Drain the abscess through the front wall of the rectum
B. Massive antibiotic therapy
C. Drain the abscess by low-median access and drainage of small pelvis
D. Drain the abscess through the right iliac region
E. Drain the abscess by a right-side extraperitoneal access
17. In the patient, aged 40, on the 2nd day after the appendectomy for gangrenous appendicitis,
developed intestinal paresis, fever, appeared pain in the right half of abdomen, enlarged liver
and jaundice, signs of peritoneal irritation. What complications of acute appendicitis you can
think about?
A. * Pylephlebitis
B. Peritonitis
D. Intraintestinal abscess
E. Subhepatic abscess
18. In the patient, aged of 72, 14 hours ago appeared a permanent pain in a right iliac area. For last
2 hours the pain diminished. Acute appendicitis is diagnosed. What morphological form of
acute appendicitis would result in diminishing of pain intensity?
A. * Gangrenous
B. Phlegmonous
C. Catarrhal
D. Perforative
E. Empyema of appendix
19. In the patient, on the 7th day after appendectomy was developed a pelvic abscess. What is your
tactic?
A. * Abscess drainage through the front wall of the rectum
B. To prescribe a massive doses of antibiotic
C. To drain the abscess by low-median access and drain a small pelvis
D. To drain the abscess by Volkovych-Dyakonov access
E. To drain the abscess by right-side extraperitoneal access
20. In the patient, who was operated for gangrenous appendicitis, on the 2nd day after the operation
developed paresis of the intestine, jaundice, appeared fever and pain in the right side of
abdomen. No signs of peritoneal irritation. What kind of complication of the disease
developed?
A. * Pylephlebitis
B. Subphrenic abscess
C. Peritonitis
21. Is suspected for the patient's appendix. For the differential diagnosis of acute appendicitis with
a perforated ulcer, 12 duodenal ulcer you apply?
A. * The examination abdominal radiography
B. X-ray of gastrointestinal tract, irrigoscopy
C. Irrigoscopy, irrigography
D. Laparocentesis, colonoscopy
E. X-ray of the stomach with barium sulfate
22. On examination of the patient, the therapeutist suspected acute appendicitis, but is not confident
in the diagnosis. The disease began six hours ago. What to do?
A. * Urgent hospitalization of the patient in the surgical department
B. To recommend the surgeon consultation
C. Urgently send the patient to the clinic for further laboratory examination
D. As for the short time since the beginning of the disease, to recommend conservative
treatment. The calm, local cold, antibiotics
E. Dynamic observation of patient in outpatient department
23. On the 3rd day after appendectomy you made the diagnosis - the diffuse peritonitis. What is
your tactic?
A. * To perform laparotomy
B. To enhance antibacterial therapy
C. To prescribe spasmolytics, analgetics
D. To perform angiographic examination
E. To perform laparoscopy
24. Patient B. was examined by urgent surgeon, who suspected acute appendicitis. The examination
was prescribed. Which of the following investigations is the least helpful in the diagnosis of
acute appendicitis?
A. * Laparocentesis
B. Laboratory research (especially leukocytes)
C. Rectal examination
D. Axillary and rectal thermometry
E. The clinical examination to determine protective muscular tension.
25. :Patient K. has the diagnosis: diffuse purulent peritonitis of appendicular origin. For the patient
is indicated:
A. * All mentioned is correct
B. Appendectomy and sanation of the abdominal cavity
C. Correction of fluid and electrolyte disorders
D. Antibacterial therapy
E. Total parenteral nutrition for 1-2 days after operation
26. :The patient was diagnosed the diffuse peritonitis of appendicular origin. In this case used:
A. * All mentioned
B. Median laparotomy
C. Appendectomy
D. Abdominal lavage
E. Drainage of the abdominal cavity
27. The patient was operated for acute phlegmonous appendicitis and diffuses peritonitis by means
of the access to the right iliac region. On the 20th day after the operation was diagnosed right-
side subphrenic abscess. What could cause its occurrence?
A. * Was not used Fovler's position after the operation
B. Was not used Trendelenburg's position after the operation
C. Was not used Finsterer's position after the operation
D. Was not used Billroth 's position after the operation
E. Was not performed the tamponade of abdominal cavity
28. The patient, 76 years old, with myocardial infarction, is suspected for acute destructive
appendicitis. What is your tactic?
B. Monitoring and operation if the peritonitis develops
C. Prescription of massive doses of broad-spectrum antibiotics and if this therapy is
ineffective – operation
D. Operation if the diagnosis confirms by laparoscopy
E. All the answers are wrong
29. The patient, aged 76, with concomitant pneumonia, was diagnosed phlegmonous appendicitis.
What is your tactic?
30. The patient, is pregnant for 32 weeks, has stayed in the surgical department for 18 hours.
During dynamic observation it is impossible to rule out acute appendicitis. What is your tactic?
A. * Patient need to undergo the operation
B. Continue to observe the patient
C. Carry out abdominal ultrasonography
D. With gynecologist to perform abortion, and then appendectomy
E. To perform laparoscopy and to operate if the diagnosis confirms
31. The patient's T, at the ambulatory reception is suspected for acute appendicitis. What is
advisable to do?
A. * Immediately hospitalization of the patient
B. To prescribe spasmolytics and repeat examination of the patient in 4-6 hours
C. The control of the dynamics of body temperature and leucocytosis for 12-24 hours
D. To prescribe the anti-inflammatory therapy and repeat examination on the next day
E. Observed the patient ambulatory and hospitalized in case of deterioration
32. :The point through which the Volkovich-Dyakonov access is performed located on the line
between anterior-superior process of the iliac bone and umbilicus:
A. * between external and middle third
B. between external and internal third
C. in the internal third
D. in the middle
E. in external third
33. The pregnant woman (22 weeks) is delivered in urgent clinic with complaints of abdominal
pain. The onset was acute, a day ago. Pain appeared in epigastrium, then in the right half of
abdomen. There was a single vomiting. The abdomen painful above the right iliac area. Signs of
peritoneal irritation are insignificant. Leucocytosis – 21?109. What is the most probable
diagnosis?
A. * Acute appendicitis
B. Toxemia of pregnancy
C. Threatened abortion
D. Acute pancreatitis
E. Mesenteric thrombosis
34. You diagnosed and prescribed conservative treatment of appendicular infiltrate. What are the
signs of abscessing of appendicular infiltrate?
A. * All answers correct
B. Maintaining a high hectic temperature
C. Restoring or increase of pain
D. Signs of peritoneal irritation
E. Increase of leukocytosis with a shift to the left, the increase of ESR
35. You diagnosed in patient the acute appendicitis. What method of diagnostic is suitable?
B. Laparoscopy
C. Clinical analysis of blood
D. Rectal examination
E. Thermography
36. You have diagnosed the appendicular infiltrate in the patient. What is the most expedient
conservative treatment in first three days?
A. * Antibiotics
B. Analgesics
C. U.H.F.-therapy
D. The warm on right iliac region
E. Parenteral use of proteolytic enzymes
37. You have diagnosed the gangrenous acute appendicitis in the patient. What symptoms are the
basic for the diagnose?
A. * Decrease of pain
B. Increase of pain
C. A sudden increase of pain in the right iliac region
D. Bradycardia
E. Mayo-Robson's sign in the right iliac region
38. You have to operate the patient with a typical picture of acute phlegmonous appendicitis. What
access for appendectomy is the most suitable in this case?
A. * Volkovych-Diakonov's access
B. Low-median laparotomy
C. Right-side pararectal access
D. Right-side transrectal incision
E. Transverse laparotomy above navel
39. You suspect in patient the chronic appendicitis. Which of the following methods of
investigation can confirm the diagnosis?
A. * Irrigoscopy
B. Colonoscopy
C. Laparocentesis
D. Rectoromanoscopy
E. X-ray of the abdominal cavity
40. You suspect the abscess of Douglas' pouch in the patient. What investigations should be carried
out for its diagnosis?
B. Rectoromanoscopy
C. Colonoscopy
D. Laparoscopy
E. Laparocentesis
41. You suspected acute appendicitis in patient. Diagnostic program includes:

B. Thorough anamnesis
C. To exclude all diseases that can simulate acute abdominal pathology
D. Rectal examination in men and vaginal additional examination in women
E. Laboratory tests
42. You suspected acute appendicitis. For the differential diagnosis of acute appendicitis from the
righ-side renal colic you apply:
A. * Prescription of spasmolytics, excretory urography
B. Prescription of narcotic analgetics
C. Laparocentesis, laparoscopy
D. Fluoroscopy gastrointestinal, irrigoscopy
E. Angiography of renal arteries
43. Patient S., aged 56, was admitted to hospital with a diagnosis: acute catarrhal cholecystitis.
What symptoms are not typical for this diagnosis?
A. nausea
B. symptom Kera
C. * all responses venrny
D. lack of muscle tension in the right hypochondrium
E. Musso symptom
44. During surgery at cholelithiasis detected wrinkled gallbladder filled with stones and advanced
up to 2.5 cm common bile duct. Patients should
A. * make cholecystectomy
B. perform cholecystectomy, then holangiography
C. immediately make an audit of cholecystectomy and duct
D. impose cholecystitis
E. duodenotomy make the audit of the major duodenal papilla
45. Patient A., 43, was admitted to hospital with a diagnosis: chronic cholecystitis calculary. What
is the main method of research in this patient?
A. infusion holegraphy,
B. oral cholecystography,
C. * SONOGRAPHY
D. scanning of the liver,
E. computed tomography
46. Patient A., aged 45, was admitted to hospital with jaundice in the background cholelithias. The
patient is indicate:
A. emergency surgery
C. * emergency operation after the preoperative
D. catheterization of the celiac artery
E. plasmapheresis
47. Patient A., aged 45, was admitted to hospital with jaundice in the background cholelithias. The
patient is shown:
C. * there is no right answer
E. plasmapheresis
48. Patient D., 63, operated by acute calculouse cholecystitis. Intraoperatively diagnosed
gallbladder with concrements. What operation is indicated the patient?
A. cholecystostomy
B. * cholecystectomy from cervical
C. cholecystectomy from the bottom
D. cholecystitis-enterovirus anastomosis
E. cholecystectomy with drainage choledochitis by Halstead-Pikovsky
49. Patient M., aged 56, was admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis: acute gangrenous
cholecystitis. The patient is shown:
B. delayed operation
C. decision depends on the age of the patient
D. operation with no effect of conservative treatment
E. * Emergency operation
E. * there is no right answer
51. Patient S., 41, was admitted to hospital with a diagnosis: obstructive jaundice. To diagnose the
causes of jaundice is the subject of a more reliable:
A. oral cholecystography
B. intravenous cholecystocholangiography
C. * retrograde cholangiography
D. liver scintigraphy
E. direct hepatosplenography
52. Patient S., 42 years old, entered the clinic with a diagnosis: acute calculary cholecystitis. What
analgesics is contraindicated?
A. omnopon
B. * morphine hydrochloride
C. no-spa
D. spazgan
E. spazmalgon, baralgin
analgesics is contraindicated?
A. omnopon
B. * no right answer
C. no-spa
D. spazgan
method is most informativve to clarify the diagnosis in the reception-office?
C. * SONOGRAPHY
55. Patient S., aged 56, was admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis: acute catarrhal cholecystitis.
A. nausea
B. Ker’s sing
C. * Murphy’s sing
D. absence of muscle tension in the right hypochondrium
E. Musso’s sing
56. Patient V., aged 45, was admitted to hospital with a diagnosis: chronic cholecystitis. What is a
reliable radiological signs of chronic cholecystitis?
A. weak fluoroscopic shadow of the gall bladder
B. sharply increased, not reduced by giving choleretic breakfast
C. shadow of the gall bladder
D. disconnected" gallbladder
E. shadow of suspicion on concretions in the gall bladder at a reduced by 1 / 3 after the
administration of choleretic breakfast
57. Patients after cholecystectomy in the immediate postoperative period gradually increases
jaundice, these operating cholangiography not indicate the pathology of the bile ducts. The
most likely cause of jaundice
A. serum hepatitis
B. common bile duct stone
C. hemolytic jaundice
D. * operating choledochal injury (ligation)
E. all of the above
A. serum hepatitis
D. * There is no right answer
E. All of the above
59. Patients with suspected calculous cholecystitis for diagnosing stones in the gallbladder indicate:
A. * abdominal X-ray
B. angiography
C. Doppler
D. celiocentesis
E. vulvotsentez
A. * endoscopic retrograde cholangiography
B. angiography
C. doppler
D. laparocentesis
E. vulvocentesis
A. * ultrasound abdominal
B. angiography
C. doppler
D. laparocentesis
E. vulvocentesis
A. * intravenous cholecystocholangiography
B. angiography
C. doppler
D. laparocentesis
E. vulvocentesis
63. The patient admitted to hospital with suspected choledocolithiasis. What method of diagnosis is
not used in this case?
A. ultrasound
C. ERPHG
D. transhepatic holegraphy
E. * hypotonic doudenography
A. ultrasound
C. ERPHG
E. * all answer are right
A. ultrasound
C. ERPHG
E. * endoscopy
66. The patient K., 50 years old, six months after cholecystectomy performed at the calculouse
chronic cholecystitis, again began to appear in the right hypochondrium pain, occasionally
accompanied by yellowing of the sclera. Ultrasound examination of the abdominal cavity
obvious pathology of the extrahepatic bile duct could not be detected. Which of the following
methods is most informative for diagnosis in this case?
C. * endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography,
accompanied by yellowing of the sclera. Which of the following methods is most informative
for diagnosis in this case?
C. * SONOGRAPHY
68. The patient was diagnosed during surgery iatrogenic injury extrarenal bile ducts. What
operation is indicated?
A. closure of the injury duct separate atraumatic suture needle
B. suturing of the duct on the T-shaped drainage
C. closure of the duct on Г-shaped drainage
D. imposition biliodigistiv anastomosis
E. * any of the above
69. The patient with suspected narrowing of the distal common bile duct for diagnosis you must:
B. echocardioscopy
C. laparocentesis
D. certain fraction of bilirubin
E. definition level of blood flow in truncus coeliacus
70. The patient with suspected narrowing of the distal common bile duct for diagnosis you must:
A. * there is no right answer
B. echo kardioskopiyu
C. laparocentesis
71. Patient R., 67 years old, enrolled in urgent hospital with a diagnosis: acute pancreatitis. What
medications is necessary to appoint a patient?
A. * Spasmodicals
B. Venotonics
C. Prostaglandins
D. Peripheral vasodilators
E. Hypnotics
72. Patient P., aged 68, was admitted to hospital with clinical acute pancreatitis. Which
complications might arise?
A. Thyrotoxicosis
B. Pyelonephritis
C. Wrapping Sigma
D. * Enzymatic peritonitis
E. Urination disorders
73. At a frequent „fat” chair with disseminations of undigested meat and permanent thirst, it is
foremost necessary to think about:
A. * Chronic pancreatitis
B. Chronic duodenitis
C. Chronic hepatocholecystitis
D. Ulcerous diseases of duodenum
E. Hepatocirrhosis
74. How often does the pancreatitis department the general bilious channel pass through the head of
pancreas?:
A. * 80-90 %
B. 90-100 %
C. 75-85 %
D. 50-60 %
E. 40-50 %
75. In obedience to classification complications of acute pancreatitis, after etiology and pathogeny,
distinguish such complications, except for:
A. Infectiously inflammatory
B. Enzymic
C. * Allergic
D. Mixed
E. Trombogemoragic
76. In operation for acute abdomen intraoperatively revealed a hemorrhagic effusion and foci of fat
necrosis in the peritoneum. What kind of illness should think?
A. rupture of the liver
B. * acute pancreatitis
C. hollow organ injury
D. mesenteric thrombosis
E. perforated gastric ulcer
77. In operation for acute abdomen intraoperatively revealed a hemorrhagic effusion and foci of fat
necrosis in the peritoneum. What kind of illness should think?
A. rupture of the liver
B. * there is no right answer
C. hollow organ injury
D. mesenteric thrombosis
E. perforated gastric ulcer
78. Name the optimum lines the operative interference concerning a acute pancreatitis after the
beginning of disease:
A. 7-8 days
B. 1-3 days
C. 1-5 days
D. 3-5 days
E. * Surgical treatment is not indicate
79. Patient K, aged 45, entered the reception room with suspected acute pancreatitis. What kind of
research required to clarify the diagnosis?
A. * Ultrasound
B. CT
C. MRI
D. Doppler
E. Scintigraphy
80. Patient K., aged 39, admitted to hospital with clinical acute pancreatitis. Which analgesic
should not be used?
A. Analgin
B. Baralgin
C. Ketanov
D. * Can all
E. Keterolak
81. Patient K., aged 39, admitted to hospital with clinical acute pancreatitis. Which analgesic
should not be used?
A. Analgin
B. Baralgin
C. Ketanov
D. * Morphine
E. Keterolak
82. Patient K., aged 45, entered the reception room with suspected acute pancreatitis. What kind of
research required to clarify the diagnosis?
B. CT
C. MRI
D. Doppler
E. Scintigraphy
A. Thyrotoxicosis
B. Pyelonephritis
C. Wrapping Sigma
D. * Omental abscess
A. Thyrotoxicosis
B. Pyelonephritis
C. Wrapping Sigma
D. * Retroperitoneal phlegmon
A. Thyrotoxicosis
B. Pyelonephritis
C. Wrapping Sigma
D. * No right answer
86. Patient R., 67 years old, enrolled in urgent hospital with a diagnosis: acute pancreatitis. What
A. * Cytostatics
B. Venotonics
C. Prostaglandins
E. Hypnotics
87. Patient S., aged 65, went to urgent hospital with a diagnosis: acute pancreatitis. What
A. * H2 - Blockers
B. Venotonics
C. prostaglandins
E. Hypnotics
88. Patient S., aged 65, went to urgent hospital with a diagnosis: acute pancreatitis. Which disease
is necessary to differentiate this pathology?
B. Thyrotoxicosis
C. Thrombophlebitis of subcutaneous veins
D. Hernia
E. Cystitis
A. * Thrombosis of mesenteric vessels
B. Thyrotoxicosis
D. Hernia
E. Cystitis
A. * Perforated ulcer
B. Thyrotoxicosis
D. Hernia
E. Cystitis
91. Patient T., age 37, was admitted to hospital with a diagnosis: acute pancreatitis. For the
dektoksikatsii patient displayed:
A. * Plasmapheresis
B. Perirenal blockade
C. Application antisecretion drugs
D. Epidural anesthesia
E. Using antispasmodics
92. Patient T., age 37, was admitted to hospital with a diagnosis: acute pancreatitis. For the
dektoksikatsii patient displayed:
A. * Lymphsorbtion
B. Perirenal blockade
C. Application antisecretion drugs
D. Epidural anesthesia
E. Using antispasmodics
93. Patient with acute pancreatitis revealed a sharp cyanosis of the face. It is a symptom of the
author?
A. * Lagermf’s
B. Mondor’s
C. Halstead’s
D. Gray – Turner’s
E. Kulen’s
94. Patient with acute pancreatitis revealed cyanosis lateral parts of abdominal skin. It is a symptom
of the author?
A. Lagermf’s
B. Mondor’s
C. Halstead’s
D. * Gray – Turner’s
E. Kulen’s
95. Patient with acute pancreatitis revealed cyanosis of skin of the abdomen. It is a symptom of the
author?
A. Lagermf’s
B. Mondor’s
C. * Halstead’s
E. Kulen’s
96. The patient admitted to hospital with a diagnosis: biliary pancreatitis. What type of treatment is
shown to the patient.
A. Conservative treatment in hospital
B. Outpatient
C. * Surgical treatment
D. Observation of the surgeon at home
E. Treatment not indicated
97. The patient admitted to hospital with a diagnosis: biliary pancreatitis. What type of treatment is
shown to the patient.
A. Conservative treatment in hospital
B. Outpatient
C. * No right answer
D. Observation of the surgeon at home
E. Treatment not indicated
98. The patient after intake of alcohol appeared repeated vomiting, epigastric pain of herpes
character. Diagnosis
A. Mallory-Weiss syndrome
B. Gastric ulcer
C. bleeding from varices of the esophagus
D. Crohn diseases
E. * acute pancreatitis
99. The patient after intake of alcohol appeared repeated vomiting, epigastric pain of herpes
character. Diagnosis
A. Mallory-Weiss syndrome
B. Gastric ulcer
C. bleeding from varices of the esophagus
D. Crohn diseases
100. The patient with acute pancreatitis during the study revealed the absence of pulsation of the
abdominal aorta in the epigastrium. It is a symptom of the author?
A. Lagermf’s
B. Mondor’s
C. Halstead’s
E. * Voskresenky
101. The patient with acute pancreatitis revealed purple spots on the face and body. It is a
symptom of the author?
A. Lagermf’s
B. * Mondor’s
C. Halstead’s
E. Kulen’s
102. The patient with acute pancreatitis showed a yellow color of the skin near the navel. It is a
symptom of the author?
A. Lagermf’s
B. Mondor’s
C. Halstead’s
E. * Kulen’s
103. 3 hours before admission, the patient appeared "stabbing" pain in the epigastric region.
After 1 hour epigastric pain had decreased slightly, but the patient notes that there were sharp
pains in the right iliac region. What kind of complications of peptic ulcer can think of?
A. * Perforation of gastric ulcer
B. Malignancy ulcers
C. Pyloristenosis
D. Ulcer Penetration
104. A man 46 years complain for the expressed general weakness, attacks of palpitation, pain in
an epigastrium, which arise up in 10-15 minutes after the reception of meal. During 10 years is
ill ulcerative disease of stomach. 2 years ago the executed resection of stomach after Bilroth-II.
At inspected a stomach is soft. Sickly in an epigastrium and pyloro-duodenal area. What
complication most probably did arise up for a patient?
A. * Dumping is a syndrome
B. Cholecystitis
C. Peptic gastric ulcer
E. Gastritis of stump of stomach
105. A patient 76 years acted to the hospital on seventh twenty-four hours from the beginning of
disease with complaints about pain in right hypochondrium, weakness, repeated vomiting,
temperature up to 38 degrees. At a examination is a general of middle weight. Pallor. A
enlarged gall-bladder is palpated in right hypochondrium where tension is examined. What
method of treatment?
A. * Cholecystostomy under sonography control
B. Diet therapy
D. Spasmolitics
E. Analgesics
106. Choose the most frequent reason of relapse of ulcer after a organ-saving operation with
vagotomy at the adequate decline of acid production after an operation:
A. * syndrome of Zolinger-Elisson
B. incomplete vagotomy
C. duodeno-gastric reflux of bile
D. gastritis of the operated stomach
E. excessive use of alcohol
107. During an operation for a patient 68 years concerning a acute destructive cholecystitis
certain presence of festering cholangitis. At the revision of choledohus the not found
concrements and sign of stenosis duodenal to the nipple. Cholecystectomy is executed. How is
it necessary to make off an operation?
A. * To execute the external catchment of choledohus
B. To impose supraduodenal choledohoduodenostomy
C. To execute a transduodenal choledohoduodenostomy
D. To execute a choledochojejunostomy
E. To drain an abdominal cavity
108. During an operation on occasion of acute calculus cholecystitis the extended general bilious
channel is founded. After cholecystectomy through stump of cystic duct is performed
cholangiography On X-Ray of hepatic is founded general bile ducts. In the distal part of
choledohus a precipice of contrasting matter is with even edges. A contrast does not act in a
duodenum. How to estimate data of intraoperative cholangiography?
A. * Present of stones in the distal part of choledohus
B. Stenosis of duodenal papilla
C. Cicatricle narrowing of distal part of choledohus
D. Cholecystitis
E. Tumour of head of pancreas
109. For a 38-years-old patient after carried two years ago back cholecystectomy recommenced
attacks of hepatic colic with turning of skin covers yellow. A postcholecystectomy syndrome is
diagnosed. What is most frequent reason of this situation?
A. * Leave during the first operation concrements
B. Stenosis papillitis
C. Duodenostasis
D. Diskinesia of bile ducts
E. Cholestasis
110. For a patient the decompensate stenosis of pyloro-bulb area is on a background 10 years of
ulcerative anamnesis. In the state of middle weight he acted with complaints about the frequent
vomiting and belch rotten. Marks the expressed weakness. Exhausted. After stabilizing of
metabolic indexes and general a patient gave a consent to operative treatment. There are
endoscopic signs of the expressed gastritis in all parts of stomach. Choose the method of
operation :
A. * a resection of stomach by Bilroth II
B. vagotomy is with an operation which drains a stomach
C. imposition of gastrostomy by Vitsel
E. a fundoplication by Nissen
111. For a patient 45 years, in 2 years after cholecystectomy there were pains in right
hypochondrium, icteric and itch of skin, bitter taste in a company. At sonography of choledohus
a 1,2 cm, in distal part located stone. What is the diagnosis?
A. * Choledoholitiasis. Obturative icterus
B. Cholangitis. Mechanical icterus
C. Acute pancreatitis. Mechanical icterus
D. Postcholecystectomy syndrome
E. Tumour of head of pancreas. Mechanical icterus
112. For a patient 48 years with a giant gastric ulcer with recrudescent motion (has ulcerative
disease during 11 years) a histamine-reflectory an-acidity is founded. What medical tactic?
A. * Conservative treatment in hospital and further sanatorium-resort treatment
B. Stationary treatment
C. Anti-ulcerative therapy is before a planned operation
D. Urgent operation
E. Stationary conservative treatment during 8 weeks
113. For a patient 60 years icterus during 3 weeks, intensity of it began without pain grows. A
stomach at palpation is soft. Positive symptom of Kurvuasie. At sonography of bilious ways
expansion of gall-bladder is marked and choledohus. What primary cause of these changes.
A. * Cancer of head of pancreas
B. Bile-stone disease
D. Infectious hepatitis
E. Cancer of liver.
114. For a patient which carried the resection of stomach a year ago, the attacks of weakness,
which arose up on an empty stomach or in 15-20 minutes after the reception of meal, appeared.
Attacks were accompanied by a muscle weakness, headache, decline of sugar of blood, decline
of arteriotony, sometimes by dizziness. What complication did arise up for a patient?
A. * Hypoglycaemia syndrome
B. Food allergy
C. Dumping-syndrome
D. Postresection asthenia
E. Syndrome of small stomach
115. For a patient С., 58 years, increased feed, after will attack pains the icteric of skin and
conjunctiva of sclera, discoloured excrement, darkening of urine appeared in right
hypochondrium. A stomach is exaggerated, at palpation sickly in right hypochondrium, a
enlarged liver is palpated on a 2-3 cm. In blood general bilirubin 90 mmole/L, direct 60
micromole/L. What is the best examination method?
A. * Retrograde cholangiopancreatography
B. Intravenous cholegraphy
C. Transcutaneus cholegraphy
D. Transcutaneus transhepatic cholegraphy
E. Sonography of hepatic region
116. For a patient, which carried an operation, resection of stomach, concerning ulcerative
disease, there was a relapse (endoscopy data). What reason of relapse?
A. * all is transferred
B. incomplete vagotomy;
C. leave at a resection part of antrum;
D. economy resection of stomach;
E. syndrome of Zolinger-Elisson;
117. For a patient, which carried the resection of stomach for Bilroth-II concerning ulcerative
disease of duodenum is marked complaints about a acute weakness, attacks of palpitation,
waves of heat to the face and dizziness at the reception of sweet and suckling meal. Deficit of
b.w. - 15кг. On X-Ray of stump of stomach of small sizes with evacuation of barium in the
extended efferent bowel. What operatively interference does need it was to be before done to
the patient?
A. * SPV with a pyloroplasty
B. Jejunogastroplasy
C. Resection of stomach by Rou
D. Trunk vagotomy
E. Resection of stomach
118. For the exhausted man of 42, which 15 years suffers ulcerative disease of duodenum, during
the last two weeks the massive vomiting takes place every evening. At X-Ray stenosis of
goalkeeper of stomach is founded. The above-mentioned state became complicated by cramps.
what complication did arise up for a patient?
A. * Tetany
B. Bleeding
C. Perforation
D. Penetration
E. Malignancy
119. For the patient of 32 after carried cholecystectomy the attacks of hepatic colic, which are
accompanied by turning of skin canopies yellow, recommenced in 6 months. At sonography
examination the leave concrements of 2 х is founded 1см in distal part of choledohus. What
treatment for a patient will be optimal?
A. * Endoscopic duodenocholedohoscopy with papillosphincterotomy
B. Conservative therapy by spasmolitics
C. Lithotripsy
D. Choledoholithotomy
E. Choledohoduodenoanastomosis
120. For the patient of 63, in a year after cholecystectomy with choledoho-duodenal anastomosis,
there were pains in right hypohondrium, icterus, temperature, fever, dryness and bitter taste.
What is the previous diagnosis?
A. * Cholangitis
C. Duodenitis. Mechanical icterus
D. Stricture of choledohus
E. Hepatitis is with transformation in a cirrhosis
121. In the ward the patient brought in an unconscious state, with periodic bouts of clonic
seizures. According to relatives, the patient for many years suffered from a disease of the
stomach. Last month the patient had copious vomiting every day, and he lost considerable
weight. On examination, the patient exhausted, dehydrated, in the epigastric region has
pigmentation, is determined by the splashing. What method of research to clarify the diagnosis
shows the patient after stabilization of the state?
A. ECG
B. CT
C. MRI
D. * X-ray study of the abdominal cavity with the passage of barium
E. Ultrasound
122. Operative treatment with a duodenal ulcer it is indicated a patient in those cases when: 1.
often there are relapses of disease, 2. a disease becomes complicated continuous bleeding, 3.
there is pyloro-duodenal stenosis 4. there is a perforation of ulcer, 5. ulcer penetrates in the
head of pancreas, giving the frequent intensifying and phenomena of pancreatitis. Choose the
best composition:
A. * all true.
B. 1,4
C. 2,3
D. 3.4
E. 1,2
123. Patient 57 years, during the last 10 years has a chronic calculus cholecystitis. Intensifying of
disease take place 1-2 times on a year. The last attack began 8 days ago. The icteric skin and
sclera appeared in 2 days. During sonography of inspection of organs of abdominal region:
thickness of wall of gall-bladder up to 5 mm, present concrements 0,5 to 1,0 cm in a diameter.
A width of choledohus is a 1,2 cm, in it supraduodenal part a stone is founded up to 1,0 cm.
What complication of gallbladder disease did arise up for a patient?
A. * Choledoholitiasis. Mechanical icterus
B. Acute cholangitis
C. Acute calculus cholecystitis
D. Choledoho-duodenal fistula
E. Cancer of bilious ducts
124. Patient of 51, operated a year ago concerning the perforative ulcer of duodenum. Done
barrel vagotomy is with excision of ulcer. Complain for periodic appearance of liquid stool,
which arises up suddenly (for two three times on twenty-four hours within a week), whereupon
normalized independently. Define a diagnosis.
A. * Postvagotomy diarrhoea
B. Chronic pancreatitis
C. Dumping is a syndrome
D. Chronic colitis
E. Poliposis of colon
125. Patient S., 27 years old admitted to clinic with the diagnosis: perforated ulcer. What study
should be carried out in the first place?
A. ECG
B. CT
C. MRI
D. * Survey radiography of the abdominal cavity
E. Ultrasound
126. The patient 32 years, two years ago passed cholecystectomy concerning gallbladder disease.
There were many shallow concrements in a gallbladder. During six months the attacks of
hepatic colic recurred 3 times. Two days ago back after an attack, turning of skin and sclera
appeared yellow. Bilirubin of 90 mmole/L. What examination most effective in diagnose?
A. * sonography of pancreatoduodenal area
B. X-Ray of gastrointestinal tract
C. Endoscopy
D. Cholangiography
E. Angiography
127. The patient of 42 four years ago carried the resection of stomach after Hoffmaister-Finsterer
concerning the ulcer of duodenum with penetration in a pancreas. During the last year marks
pain in an epigastrium and right hypochondrium. A pain syndrome is accompanied massive
vomiting by stagnant content with plenty of bile. After vomiting pain is decreased. The repeated
treatment of improvement did not bring. A patient became thin on 12 kg. What is the diagnosis?
A. * Syndrome of afferent loop
B. Tumour of stump of stomach
D. Relapse of ulcer
E. Peptic ulcer of gastroenteroanastomosis
128. The patient of 62 complains in the presence of icterus, itch of skin, light excrement, wet
dark. Objectively: a sclera and skin is icteric. An enlarge, painless gallbladder is palpated.
Blood test: general bilirubin of 85 mmol/L. What method of examination more expedient in all
to use for clarification of diagnosis?
B. Duodenal sounding
C. Survey sciagraphy of organs of abdominal region
D. Oral cholecystography
E. Cholegraphy
129. The patient of Н., 62, acted with complaints about pain in the overhead half of stomach after
the food intake, heartburn, nausea, decline of mass of body on 15 kg for a year, constipations.
Three to the year that is why operated concerning a perforative gastric ulcer, executed resection
of stomach. In a year after an operation pain recommenced in the overhead half of stomach,
heartburn, periodically there was vomiting by a meal, the state of patient became worse in
course of time. Your previous diagnosis?
A. * Peptic ulcer of gastroenteroanastomosis
B. Syndrome of afferent loop
C. Cancer of stump of stomach
D. Gastritis of the operated stomach
130. The patient with a history of ulcerative while examining the abdomen indicated the
disappearance of liver dullness. What is the diagnosis should be suspected in a patient?
A. Perforated ulcer
C. * Ulcer bleeding
131. The patient with a history of ulcerative with X-ray determined by a deep niche, located on
the back wall near the small curvature of the antrum. What diagnoses are in the patient?
A. Perforated ulcer
C. Ulcer bleeding
D. * Penetration ulcers
132. The patient, 30 years old, was admitted to the surgical department after 2 hours from the
moment of perforation of gastric ulcer. The diagnosis beyond doubt, but the patient
categorically refused the operation. Your tactics.
A. Outpatient
B. Forced to operate on a patient
D. Transfer the patient in therapy department
E. Translate patient infectious disease clinic
133. The patient, 33 years old, with no ulcer history admitted to the surgical department with the
diagnosis: perforated gastric ulcer. In the operation revealed perforation hole 0,5 ? 0,5 cm on
the lesser curvature of the stomach, without inflammatory infiltration around. What should be
the volume of transactions?
A. Resection of gastric Billroth I
B. Resection of gastric Billroth II
D. The operation is not shown
E. Gastrostomy
134. The patient, 34 years old, 6 years ago was silent ulcer perforation duodenum. Two years
after this the patient felt well and do not appealed. Then came the pain, typical of peptic
diseases. What method of research is the most informative?
A. ECG
B. * ENDOSCOPY
C. X-ray
D. CT
E. MRI
135. The patient, 35 years old, admitted to emergency room, diagnosed a bleeding stomach ulcer.
Where the patient must treatment?
A. Therapeutic department
B. Surgery
C. * Intensive Care Unit
D. Orthopedics
E. Day hospital
136. The patient, 35 years old, was admitted to the surgical department with ulcerative gastric
hemorrhage. What medications is necessary to appoint a patient?
A. * Preparations of blood
B. Antibiotics
C. Vasodilators
D. Prostaglandins
E. Veintonics
137. The patient, 36 years old, 12 years suffer stomach ulcer Conservative treatment is not
effective. What tactics are indicating for treating a patient?
A. Continue medical treatment
B. * No right answer
C. Outpatient
D. Infusion therapy
E. Not require treatment
138. The patient, 40 years old, long-suffering with stomach ulcer, said that the last 2 days the
pain had become less intense, but at the same time it has been increasing weakness, dizziness.
In morning for a few seconds to lose consciousness. On examination, pulse 100 in 1 min. The
patient was pale. In the epigastric region is very little pain. No symptoms of irritation of the
peritoneum. Where You sent for treatment patient?
A. Therapeutic department
B. Surgery
C. * Intensive Care Unit
D. Orthopedics
E. Day hospital
139. The patient, 42 years old, gastric ulcer in existence for 10 years. After treatment in hospital
advanced remission. Three months ago, the patient appeared pain in the lumbar region,
sometimes wearing herpes character. What study should be used to refine the diagnosis?
A. * X-ray study of the digestive tract with barium
B. Total blood
C. Urinalysis
D. Rheovasography
E. Doppler
A. * No right answer
B. Total blood
C. Urinalysis
D. Rheovasography
E. Doppler
141. The patient, aged 39, suffering from stomach ulcer, recently had a feeling of heaviness in
the epigastric region, which is usually only after vomiting. The patient has lost much weight.
What method of diagnosis should be used to refine the diagnosis?
A. ECG
B. Ultrasound
C. * X-ray study of the abdominal cavity with the passage of barium
D. CT
E. MRI
142. The patient, aged 48, suffering for years with stomach ulcer, said that the pain had not
become dependent on food intake, have become permanent and less intense. Noted weakness,
malaise, fatigue. Lost 5 kg. ESR 40 mm / hour. What kind of complications the peptic ulcer can
think of?
A. Perforated ulcer
B. * Malignancy ulcers
C. Pyloristenosis
143. Woman 55 years, complains on pain in right hypochondrium, temperature up to 39С,

darkening of colour of urine. Objectively: skin and visible mucous membranes icteric, liver
enlarged, dense, sickly at palpation. In the global analysis of blood of increase of ESR,
neutrophilic leukocytosis, shift to the left, increase of level of bilirubin, ALT, AST. Sonography
are stones of gall-bladder. What complication did arise up for this patient?
A. * Cholangitis
C. Chronic cholecystitis
E. Sepsis
144. Woman of 53, three years ago back carried cholecystectomy concerning a acute calculus
cholecystitis. After operation already four times were twinges in right hypochondrium, which
lasted 6-8 hours, passed after spasmolitics. After the second attack marked turning of skin and
sclera yellow. What examination will be most informing for imputing of diagnosis?
A. * Sonography
B. X-Ray of stomach
C. Endoscopy
D. Cholangiography
E. Thermography
145. After the clinical and instrumental research you have diagnosed acute intestinal obstruction,
and during laparotomy revealed that it is caused by volvulus. The operation is performed after 3
hours of the disease onset. The incarcerated gut is of dark color, peristalsis is absent. What is
the most appropriate surgical tactics?
A. * To perform intestinal detorsion, resection of the incarcerated region with
anastomosis
B. To perform intestinal detorsion with intestinoplication
C. To perform intestinal detorsion with enterostomy
D. To perform intestinal detorsion with intubation
E. To perform intestinal detorsion
146. Female 50 years old, who had been operated for uterine fibroma (hysterectomy), entered
with complaints of abdominal pain, vomiting. On the X-ray of abdomen revealed the signs of
small bowel obstruction. What is the cause of obstruction?
A. * Adhesive disease
B. Strangulated inguinal hernia
C. Carcinoma of the colon
D. Cancer of the small intestine
E. Diverticulitis
147. In patient 18 years old, appeared cramping abdominal pain, vomiting, constipation and gas
delay. On abdominal X-ray revealed "Kloiber’s cups. What kind of acute abdominal disease can
we speak about?
A. * Intestinal obstruction
B. Flatulence
C. Bad preparation of the patient for examination
D. Enterocolitis
E. Helminthic invasion
148. In the clinic entered the patient, aged 72, complaining of severe cramping abdominal pain,
constipation and gas delay. Was a single vomiting. The disease began 5 hours ago. From
anamnesis: last year was suffering from constipation. On examination: skin is pale, pulse -
116/min, AP -110/80 mm Hg. Heart sounds are weak. The tongue is dry. The abdomen is
asymmetrical. A marked flatulence in the left iliac region. Positive Sklyarov’s, Kivul’s signs,
"the falling drop sound”. Rectal ampoule is empty, enlarged, with reduced sphincter tone. On
X-ray - high Kloiber’s cups. During the enema fluid flows back, increasing the pain. What is
the primary diagnosis?
A. * Acute obstructive large intestine obstruction
B. Acute obstructive small intestinal obstruction
C. Spastic ileus of large intestine
D. Paralytic ileus
E. Abscess of Douglas' pouch
149. In the department of surgery entered the patient who complained of cramping abdominal
pain, which appeared suddenly 3 hours ago, repeated vomiting. 6 hours ago ate a pound of
walnuts. On examination: abdomen is distended symmetrically, on auscultation - strengthening
the peristaltic tones. On X-ray of the abdominal cavity multiple horizontal air-fluid levels (the
width of the horizontal level of the fluid is greater than the height of the gas). What is your
primary diagnosis?
A. * Acute obstructive intestinal obstruction
B. Acute obstructive large intestine obstruction
C. Acute paralytic intestinal obstruction
D. Acute large intestine paralytic ileus
E. Chronic paralytic intestinal obstruction
150. In the patient A., 79 years old, was diagnosed acute intestinal obstruction and concomitant
cardiac pathology. Pulse 103/min AP - 95/60 mm. Hg. After stabilization of hemodynamic
parameters the patient was taken for operation, where. revealed a volvulus of sigmoid colon.
After detorsion the bowel is dark, peristalsis and vascular pulsation is absent. What is the
optimal operation should be done in this case?
A. * Resection of the sigmoid colon with colostomy
B. Resection of the sigmoid colon with primary anastomosis
C. Transanal intubation of the colon
D. Drainage of the abdominal cavity
E. Colectomy
151. In the patient was diagnosed the 3rd phase of acute intestinal obstruction with the signs of
multiple organ failure and lack of volume of circulating fluid to 25 %. Where does the fluid
accumulate first of all?
A. * In the lumen of the intestine
B. In the abdominal cavity
C. In the pleural cavity
D. In the tissues of the body
E. In the intercellular space
152. In the patient, who underwent the operation for peritonitis of appendicular origin, on the 4th
day appeared flatulence, constipation and gas delay. By percussion tympanitis all over the
abdomen, by auscultation - peristalsis is absent, pain is not determined. What is the cause for
this condition.
A. * Paralytic ileus
B. Strangulated ileus
C. The abscess of abdominal cavity
D. Pylephlebitis
E. Thrombosis of mesenteric vessels
153. In the surgical department entered the patient with complaints of sudden cramping pain in
the abdomen, its asymmetry, which arose suddenly after a food abuse, delay of stool and gases.
By palpation the abdomen is soft, without signs of peritoneal irritation. In the abdominal cavity
in the left half detected the movable, painful, tumor formation, by elastic consistency. What is
A. * Sigmoid volvulus
B. Obstipation syndrome
D. Stomach tumor
E. Rectal cancer
154. In the surgical department in urgent way entered the woman 25 years old with the signs of
acute intestinal obstruction. From anamnesis: the patient had operation for ovarian the right
apoplexy. The last 1,5 years after the operation flatulence and pain constantly bothered the
patient. What has caused the intestinal obstruction in the patient.
A. * Adhesions in the abdominal cavity
B. Diverticulum of ileum
C. Dolihosigma
D. Appendicular infiltrate
E. Tumor of the colon
155. In the university hospital entered the patient with a diagnosis of intestinal obstruction. From
anamnesis: weight loss (10 kg for 3 months), weakness and occasionally blood in the stool.
What is the cause of obstruction?
A. * Colon cancer
B. Adhesive disease of peritoneum
C. Helminthic invasion
D. Ulcerative colitis
E. Coprostasis
156. On abdominal X-ray of the patient is determined several sites of enlightenment of

hemispheric shape with the clear horizontal level. What causes such X-ray picture?
B. Perforated ulcer
C. Flatulence
D. Colon cancer
157. Patient 43 years old, who had been operated for acute cholecystitis, entered the clinic with
complaints of intense cramping abdominal pain, repeated vomiting and absence of stool. AP -
90/60 mm Hg. The abdomen is moderately distended, soft, slightly painful. Sklyarov’s sign is
positive Shchetkin - Blumberg sign is slightly positive. What is the primary diagnosis?
A. * Acute adhesive intestinal obstruction
B. Perforation of malignant tumor of the stomach
C. Mesenteric thrombosis
E. Perforation of colon intestine
158. Patient 55 years complains of severe cramping abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting,
constipation and gas delay. Has been ill for 6 hours. Had been operated for traumatic injury of
spleen. On examination: pulse 84/min. The tongue is moderately wet. The abdomen distended
with asymmetry due to the increase in the left half. Defined the "splashing sound". Peristaltic
sounds periodically amplified. On X-ray of the abdominal cavity - Kloiber’s cups. What is the
primary diagnosis?
B. Obstructive ileus (tumor genesis)
C. Thrombosis of mesenteric vessels
D. Ulcerative colitis
E. Sigmoid volvulus
159. Patient B, aged 68, entered the University Hospital after 2 days from the onsed of the
disease with signs of acute intestinal obstruction. On X-ray - high Kloiber’s cups. During
enema the fluid flows back, increasing the pain. Indicate the level of intestinal obstruction.
A. * Low large intestine obstruction
B. High small intestinal obstruction
C. Low small intestinal obstruction
D. Obstruction of the initial part of the colon
E. Strangulated ileus
160. Patient K., aged 23, was hospitalized with complaints of nausea, vomiting, cramping pain in
the right half of the abdomen. Appendectomy in anamnesis. Pulse - 96/min. AP - 110/70 mm
Hg. Abdomen distended, asymmetrical due to protrusion of the right half, over which is
determined "splashing sound". The peristalsis strengthened. Signs of peritoneal irritation are
absent. Rectal examination: sphincter tone maintained, ampoule dilated. Your diagnosis?
B. Acute obstructive ileus
D. Acute adnexitis
E. Food poisoning
161. Patient M, 66 years old, arrived from the district hospital at 10 o'clock with complaints of
severe abdominal pain, nausea, constipation and gas delay. The disease started suddenly, at 4
o'clock in the morning, with strong cramping abdominal pain. After one hour of the onset the
patient entered to the district hospital, and after 5 hours transferred to the regional surgical
department. After properly preparing the patient underwent the operation the acute intestinal
obstruction. After wide laparotomy, the nodulus was found out. Intestinal loops in knot of a
dark-brown color, peristalsis and vascular pulsation is absent. What kind of acute intestinal
obstruction you deal with?
A. * Strangulated
B. Obstructive
C. Spastic
D. Mixed
E. Paralytic
162. Patient M., aged 25, was hospitalized with complaints of nausea, vomiting, cramping pain in
the right half of the abdomen. In anamnesis appendectomy. Pulse 96 per minute, AP 110/70
mm Hg. The abdomen is distended, asymmetrical due to protrusion of the right half, where
determined a sign of intestinal splash. The peristalsis is strengthened. Signs of peritoneal
irritation are absent. Rectal examination: sphincter tone is lowered, ampoule dilated. What is
B. Acute obstructive ileus
D. Acute adnexitis
E. Food poisoning
163. Patient R. 38 years old, three years ago underwent appendectomy. After eating abuse 2
hours ago appeared cramping abdominal pain, flatulence, gas delay. On examination: the
patient of moderate condition, restless, changing body position, had double-pointed vomiting.
The tongue is dry. Pulse - 110/min. The abdomen distended, soft, painful. Rectal examination:
the rectum is empty, the walls are soft, not painful. On X-ray: multiple Kloiber’s cups,
pneumatization of small intestine. The patient was made a diagnosis: adhesive intestinal
obstruction. What, in your opinion, should the treatment start with?
A. * With conservative treatment (decompression of the stomach, cleansing enemas,
analgesic and antispasmodic therapy)
B. With immediate operation
C. With gastric lavage and subsequent operation
D. With enema and subsequent immediate operation
E. No measures required (expectant tactics)
164. Patient S., 30 years complains of cramping abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, delay of stool
and gases. Has been ill for 4 hours. A year ago was performed gastric resection for duodenal
ulcer. The patient’s condition is grave. Pulse -100/min. The tongue is dry. Abdomen distended,
asymmetrical, soft. By percussion - tympanitis. By auscultation - intestinal tones are absent. On
the X-ray of abdominal cavity - the Kloiber’s cups. What is the primary diagnosis?
B. Strangulated postoperative hernia
C. Malignant tumor of small intestine
D. Appendicular infiltrate
E. Colon cancer
165. The man 40 years old, entered the hospital with complaints of severe spastic abdominal
pain, nausea, vomiting by intestinal content, abdominal distention, delay of stool and gases. Has
been ill for 4 hours. Pulse 110 beats/min. The tongue is dry and furred. The abdomen distended
asymmetrically - increased upper half, soft by palpation, painful. By auscultation determined
active peristaltic sounds with a metallic tone, splashing sound, gurgling. What is the diagnosis?
B. Acute destructive pancreatitis
C. Acute destructive cholecystitis
D. Acute erosive gastritis
E. Acute non-specific colitis
166. The patient 18 years old, was hospitalized in a university hospital in urgent way with the
signs of acute intestinal obstruction. From anamnesis 1 year ago she was operated for acute
destructive appendicitis. Recently bothered abdominal distension and pain. Which of the
following etiological factors resulted in intestinal obstruction?
A. * Adhesions in the abdominal cavity
B. Dolihosigma
C. Diverticulum of ileum
D. Food disorders
E. Helminthic invasion
167. The patient 25 years old, complains of cramping abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting. The
onset was sudden, 3 hours ago. Pulse 108 beats/min. The abdomen is asymmetric - right iliac
region is hollowed. By palpation in the right iliac region dense cylindrical formation which is
moderately painful. Rectal examination determined the content, resembling a "raspberry”.
Diagnosis?
B. Acute destructive pancreatitis
C. Duodenal bleeding ulcer
D. Rectal polyp
E. Perforated ulcer
168. The patient 32 years old, who had been operated for perforated ulcer complains of intense
cramping pain in the abdomen. On examination: skin is pale. PS - 98 per 1 min. AP - 100/70
mm Hg. The abdomen is asymmetric, tense and painful in the epigastrium and the right half.
Positive Valya’s sign. By percussion tympanitis, hepatic dullness is preserved. On X-ray:
Kloiber’s cups, pneumatization of the intestine. What is your primary diagnosis?
A. * Adhesive intestinal obstruction
B. Perforated duodenal ulcer
C. Acute destructive cholecystitis
D. Acute destructive appendicitis
169. The patient 74 years old, complains of the severe cramping pain in the left side of the
abdomen, nausea, constipation and gas delay. Has been ill for 8 hours. During the last 20 years
is suffering from constipations. Refuses admixtures of mucus and blood in the stool. Pulse -
82/min. The tongue is moderately wet. Abdomen greatly distended, asymmetrical due to the
increase of the left half. Determined the splashing sound. On X-ray of the abdominal cavity
Kloiber’s cups in the left abdomen with a dilatated colon loop over them. On rectal examination
the sign Obukhovsky hospital. What is the primary diagnosis?
A. * Sigmoid volvulus
B. Obstructive ileus (tumor genesis)
C. Adhesive ileus
D. Thrombosis of mesenteric vessels
E. Ulcerative colitis
170. The patient aged 55, complains of acute pain in the epigastric region, frequent vomiting,
without any relief, a general weakness. On examination: pale skin, tongue is dry. Pulse rate –
110/min. AP - 80/40 mm Hg. The abdomen is hollowed, soft by palpation, moderately tense in
the epigastrium, signs of peritoneal irritation are absent. On X-ray - Kloiber’s cups in the left
half. Has been ill for a day. What kind of pathology should be suspected?
A. * High intestinal obstruction
B. Large intestine obstruction
C. Perforated duodenal ulcer
E. Acute cholecystitis
171. The patient complains of cramping pain in the upper abdomen, nausea, vomiting. The
tongue is wet. The abdomen is soft, moderately tense in the epigastrium. Determined dilated
intestinal loop, which peristalses by palpation. By percussion - tympanic sound with a metallic
tone. On the X-ray of abdomen - Kloiber’s cups. What is the primary diagnosis?
C. Food poisoning
E. Acute gastroenterocolitis
172. The patient entered with complaints of cramping abdominal pain, vomiting, delay of stool
and gases. The patient's condition is severe. Pulse - 105 per 1 min. The tongue is dry. Abdomen
distended, asymmetrical. By percussion - tympanitis, visible by eye peristalsis. Positive Valya’s
sign. Shchetkin-Blumberg sign is slightly positive. What is your diagnosis?
C. Mesenteric thrombosis
173. During the operation for acute appendicitis, you revealed a dense appendicular infiltrate.
What is your tactic?
A. * To close the wound of the abdominal wall and prescribe antibiotics and local cold
B. Under general anesthesia perform a median laparotomy and appendectomy
C. To mobilize the appendix from inflammatory infiltrate and perform appendectomy
D. Perform disclosure and drainage of the infiltrate
E. All the answers wrong
174. In the patient after appendectomy on the 5th day appeared the hectic fever, leucocytosis. In
the depths of the pelvis appeared moderate pain, disuric phenomenon, tenesmi. What additional
method of investigation you will begin with to diagnose the complication?
B. Cystochromoscopy
C. Repeat tests of blood and urine
D. Rectoromanoscopy
E. Repeat irrigoscopy
175. In the patient on the 7th day after the operation for gangrenous appendicitis, was developed
a fever, pain in the rectum, tenesmi, frequent and painful urination. During rectal examination
revealed the infiltrate in pelvis. During 3 days after the treatment, which included warm enemas
and antibiotics, the patient's condition had not improved. Repeat examination revealed a
softening of rectal infiltration. Temperature had hectic nature. What is the treatment?
A. * Drainage of pelvic abscess through the rectum
B. Antibiotics, physiotherapy, hyperbaric oxygen therapy
C. Drainage of pelvic abscess through retroperitoneal access
D. Laparotomy, opening abscess
E. Laparoscopic drainage of abscess
176. In the patient was diagnosed the retroperitoneal phlegmon as a complication of acute
appendicitis. What is the cause of the phlegmon?
A. * Retroperitoneal location of appendix
B. Subhepatic location of appendix
C. Local peritonitis in the right iliac region
D. Medial location of appendix
E. Location of appendix laterally from caecum
177. In the patient, aged 18, on the 7th day after the appendectomy developed a pelvic abscess.
What will you do?
A. * Drain the abscess through the front wall of the rectum
B. Massive antibiotic therapy
C. Drain the abscess by low-median access and drainage of small pelvis
D. Drain the abscess through the right iliac region
E. Drain the abscess by a right-side extraperitoneal access
178. In the patient, aged 40, on the 2nd day after the appendectomy for gangrenous appendicitis,
developed intestinal paresis, fever, appeared pain in the right half of abdomen, enlarged liver
and jaundice, signs of peritoneal irritation. What complications of acute appendicitis you can
think about?
A. * Pylephlebitis
B. Peritonitis
179. In the patient, on the 7th day after appendectomy was developed a pelvic abscess. What is
your tactic?
A. * Abscess drainage through the front wall of the rectum
B. To prescribe a massive doses of antibiotic
C. To drain the abscess by low-median access and drain a small pelvis
D. To drain the abscess by Volkovych-Dyakonov access
E. To drain the abscess by right-side extraperitoneal access
180. In the patient, who was operated for gangrenous appendicitis, on the 2nd day after the
operation developed paresis of the intestine, jaundice, appeared fever and pain in the right side
of abdomen. No signs of peritoneal irritation. What kind of complication of the disease
developed?
A. * Pylephlebitis
B. Subphrenic abscess
C. Peritonitis
181. Is suspected for the patient's appendix. For the differential diagnosis of acute appendicitis
with a perforated ulcer, 12 duodenal ulcer you apply?
A. * The examination abdominal radiography
B. X-ray of gastrointestinal tract, irrigoscopy
C. Irrigoscopy, irrigography
D. Laparocentesis, colonoscopy
E. X-ray of the stomach with barium sulfate
182. On examination of the patient, the therapeutist suspected acute appendicitis, but is not
confident in the diagnosis. The disease began six hours ago. What to do?
A. * Urgent hospitalization of the patient in the surgical department
B. To recommend the surgeon consultation
C. Urgently send the patient to the clinic for further laboratory examination
D. As for the short time since the beginning of the disease, to recommend conservative
treatment. The calm, local cold, antibiotics
E. Dynamic observation of patient in outpatient department
183. On the 3rd day after appendectomy you made the diagnosis - the diffuse peritonitis. What is
your tactic?
A. * To perform laparotomy
B. To enhance antibacterial therapy
C. To prescribe spasmolytics, analgetics
D. To perform angiographic examination
E. To perform laparoscopy
184. Patient after surgery for diffuse peritonitis antibiotics. What is the way the drug is best?
A. oral
B. subcutaneous
C. intramuscular
D. * intravenous
E. intraperitoneal
185. Patient B. was examined by urgent surgeon, who suspected acute appendicitis. The
examination was prescribed. Which of the following investigations is the least helpful in the
diagnosis of acute appendicitis?
A. * Laparocentesis
B. Laboratory research (especially leukocytes)
C. Rectal examination
D. Axillary and rectal thermometry
E. The clinical examination to determine protective muscular tension.
186. Patient D., aged 39, was admitted to the surgical department with the diagnosis: diffuse
peritonitis. What does determines the severity of peritonitis?
B. Patient weight
C. The growth of the patient
D. Body mass index
E. All true
187. Patient K. has the diagnosis: diffuse purulent peritonitis of appendicular origin. For the
patient is indicated:
B. Appendectomy and sanation of the abdominal cavity
C. Correction of fluid and electrolyte disorders
D. Antibacterial therapy
E. Total parenteral nutrition for 1-2 days after operation
188. Patient N., aged 45, was admitted to the surgical department with the diagnosis: biliary
peritonitis. Treatment.
A. * Operative treatment
C. Outpatient care
E. Fluid management
189. Patient received an abdominal trauma 3 hours ago. Fetched in emergency clinic
complaining of acute pain in stomach. Positive symptoms irritation of the peritoneum. What
method of diagnosis should be used to refine the diagnosis.
A. ECG
B. rheovasography
C. * X-ray of the abdominal cavity
D. doppler
E. thermometry
190. Patient received an abdominal trauma 3 hours ago. Fetched in emergency clinic
complaining of acute pain in stomach. Positive symptoms irritation of the peritoneum. When
the review X-ray revealed free gas under the dome of the diaphragm. Installed diagnosis:
breaking the body cavity. Treatment.
A. cold on the stomach
B. laparocentesis
C. laparoscopy
D. * operation
E. antibiotic
191. Patient S., aged 35, was admitted to the surgical department with the diagnosis:
appendicular peritonitis. Treatment.
C. Outpatient care
E. Fluid management
192. Patient S., aged 35, was admitted to the surgical department with the diagnosis: diffuse
A. * The degree of intoxication
B. Patient weight
D. Body mass index
E. All true
193. Patient transported to hospital with a diagnosis: sub-diaphragmatic abscess. What tactics of
treatment is most correct?
B. extraperitoneal incision and drainage
C. laparotomy, dissection, and backfilling the cavity
D. * thick needle puncture of an abscess under ultrasound control
E. all of the above is true
194. Patient transported to hospital with a diagnosis: subdiaphragmatic abscess. What access to
the abscess should be used?
A. thoracolaparotomy
B. lumbotomy
C. two-stage transpleural approach
D. Fedorov’s laparotomy
E. * Extrapleural extraperitoneal method
195. Patient transported to hospital with suspected sub-diaphragmatic abscess. What method of
research can clarify the diagnosis?
A. ECG
B. doppler
C. * ultrasound
D. contrast fluoroscopy GIT
E. irrigoscopy
196. Patient transported to hospital with suspected sub-diaphragmatic abscess. What method of
research can clarify the diagnosis?
A. ECG
B. doppler
C. * radiography of the abdominal cavity
E. irrigoskopiya
197. Patient transported to hospital with the diagnosis: diffuse peritonitis. Which surgical
approach should be used?
A. Adrectal access right
B. Adrectal access to the left
C. Access below the navel
D. * Median laparotomy
E. No right answer
198. Patients 2 hours ago fell from the second floor. His condition is grave. There are signs of
diffuse peritonitis. Completed radiography abdomen. Which of the radiological signs confirm
the diagnosis of rupture cavity body?
A. highstand dome of the diaphragm
B. Kloiber’s bowls
C. * free gas in the abdominal cavity
D. free fluid in the abdominal cavity
E. infiltration in the abdominal cavity
199. Patients 2 hours ago fell from the second floor. His condition is grave. There are signs of
diffuse peritonitis. What investigation method can eliminate the damage of a hollow organ?
A. ECG
B. rheovasography
C. * radiography of the abdominal cavity
D. doppler
E. thermometry
200. Patients 2 hours ago was hit in the stomach. Fetched in emergency hospital in serious
condition with a suspected rupture cavity body. What method of research will clarify the
diagnosis?
A. ECG
B. Doppler
C. * X-ray abdomen
E. irrigoscopy
condition with a suspected rupture cavity body. What method of research will clarify the
diagnosis?
A. ECG
B. doppler
C. * laparocentesis
E. irrigoscopy
condition. When radiography diagnosed gap cavity body. Your tactics.
A. cold on the stomach
B. laparocentesis
C. laparoscopy
D. * operation
E. antibiotic
203. The patient 47 years old admitted to the clinic with complaints of pain in the right
hypochondrium, nausea, vomiting, body temperature, 38.3. Pain in 3 days ago after receiving a
fatty meal. Pulse 112 in 1 min. tongue dry. Skin and sclera subikterichny. In the right
hypochondrium defined sharply painful tense rounded education 12h8h6 see positive symptoms
Ortner, Murphy, Kera. Symptom Shchetkin-Blumberg positive throughout the abdomen. Which
research method should be used?
A. * Ultrasound
B. ECG
C. Rheovasography
D. Doppler
E. Thermometry
204. The patient admitted in emergency hospital in serious condition. Pulse 112 per minute., AP
- 110 60, T - 35, 1 °C. Installed diagnosis diffuse peritonitis. Which research method should be
used to clarify the source of peritonitis?
A. ECG
B. Rheovasography
C. * Ultrasound
D. Doppler
E. Thermometry
- 110 60., T-35, 1 °C. Installed diagnosis diffuse peritonitis. What treatment is indicated the
patient?
A. laparocentesis
B. laparoscopy
C. * surgery
D. antibiotic
E. puncture
206. The patient admitted with blunt abdominal trauma. Examination - positive symptoms
irritation of the peritoneum. Suspected damage to internal organs. What method of diagnosis
should be used?
A. angiography
B. rheovasography
C. * ultrasound
D. ECG
E. EEG
207. The patient admitted with blunt abdominal trauma. Examination - positive symptoms of
irritation of the peritoneum. Suspected damage to internal organs. What method of diagnosis
should be used?
A. * laparocentesis
B. angiography
C. rheovasography
D. ECG
E. EEG
208. The patient complains of severe abdominal pain, which occurred suddenly 6 hourse ago.
Installed diagnosis of peritonitis. Which symptom is most typical for this diagnosis?
A. temperature rise
B. tachycardia
C. leukocytosis
D. tension of the muscles of the abdominal wall
E. * irritation of the peritoneum
209. The patient complains of severe abdominal pain, which occurred suddenly 6 o'clock ago.
Installed diagnosis of peritonitis. Which research method should be used to clarify the source of
peritonitis?
A. * Ultrasound
B. ECG
C. Rheovasography
D. Doppler
E. Thermometry
210. The patient during surgery revealed fibropurulent peritonitis. What activities should be
undertaken?
A. removal or delimitation source of peritonitis.
B. reorganization of the abdominal cavity.
C. decompression of the intestine.
D. drainage of the abdominal cavity.
211. The patient operated on for acute appendicitis at day 4 after surgery developed peritonitis.
Your tactics?
A. Antibiotic
B. Assign analgesics
C. Laparocentesis
D. Laparoscopy
E. * Operation
212. The patient operated on for diffuse peritonitis. In the postoperative period appointed
metranidazol. With what's aim was appointed the drug?
B. removal of fungal flora.
C. elimination of the aerobic microflora.
D. prevention of helminthic infestation.
E. prevention of disseminated candidiasis
213. The patient was admitted to the surgical department with suspected diffuse peritonitis.
Which diseases should be a differential diagnosis?
A. hepato-renal syndrome
B. * abdominal ischemic syndrome
C. adrenogenital syndrome
D. Horner's syndrome
E. diencephalic syndrome
214. The patient was diagnosed the diffuse peritonitis of appendicular origin. In this case used:
A. * All mentioned
B. Median laparotomy
C. Appendectomy
D. Abdominal lavage
E. Drainage of the abdominal cavity
215. The patient was operated for acute phlegmonous appendicitis and diffuses peritonitis by
means of the access to the right iliac region. On the 20th day after the operation was diagnosed
right-side subphrenic abscess. What could cause its occurrence?
A. * Was not used Fovler's position after the operation
B. Was not used Trendelenburg's position after the operation
C. Was not used Finsterer's position after the operation
D. Was not used Billroth 's position after the operation
E. Was not performed the tamponade of abdominal cavity
216. The patient, 76 years old, with myocardial infarction, is suspected for acute destructive
217. The patient, aged 76, with concomitant pneumonia, was diagnosed phlegmonous
218. The patient, is pregnant for 32 weeks, has stayed in the surgical department for 18 hours.
During dynamic observation it is impossible to rule out acute appendicitis. What is your tactic?
A. * Patient need to undergo the operation
B. Continue to observe the patient
C. Carry out abdominal ultrasonography
D. With gynecologist to perform abortion, and then appendectomy
E. To perform laparoscopy and to operate if the diagnosis confirms
219. The patient's T, at the ambulatory reception is suspected for acute appendicitis. What is
advisable to do?
A. * Immediately hospitalization of the patient
B. To prescribe spasmolytics and repeat examination of the patient in 4-6 hours
C. The control of the dynamics of body temperature and leucocytosis for 12-24 hours
D. To prescribe the anti-inflammatory therapy and repeat examination on the next day
E. Observed the patient ambulatory and hospitalized in case of deterioration
220. You diagnosed and prescribed conservative treatment of appendicular infiltrate. What are
the signs of abscessing of appendicular infiltrate?
B. Maintaining a high hectic temperature
C. Restoring or increase of pain
D. Signs of peritoneal irritation
E. Increase of leukocytosis with a shift to the left, the increase of ESR
221. You diagnosed in patient the acute appendicitis. What method of diagnostic is suitable?
B. Laparoscopy
C. Clinical analysis of blood
D. Rectal examination
E. Thermography
222. You have diagnosed the appendicular infiltrate in the patient. What is the most expedient
conservative treatment in first three days?
A. * Antibiotics
B. Analgesics
C. U.H.F.-therapy
D. The warm on right iliac region
E. Parenteral use of proteolytic enzymes
223. You have diagnosed the gangrenous acute appendicitis in the patient. What symptoms are
the basic for the diagnose?
A. * Decrease of pain
B. Increase of pain
C. A sudden increase of pain in the right iliac region
D. Bradycardia
E. Mayo-Robson's sign in the right iliac region
224. You have to operate the patient with a typical picture of acute phlegmonous appendicitis.
What access for appendectomy is the most suitable in this case?
A. * Volkovych-Diakonov's access
B. Low-median laparotomy
C. Right-side pararectal access
D. Right-side transrectal incision
E. Transverse laparotomy above navel
225. You suspect in patient the chronic appendicitis. Which of the following methods of
investigation can confirm the diagnosis?
A. * Irrigoscopy
B. Colonoscopy
C. Laparocentesis
D. Rectoromanoscopy
E. X-ray of the abdominal cavity
226. You suspect the abscess of Douglas' pouch in the patient. What investigations should be
carried out for its diagnosis?
B. Rectoromanoscopy
C. Colonoscopy
D. Laparoscopy
E. Laparocentesis
227. You suspected acute appendicitis in patient. Diagnostic program includes:

B. Thorough anamnesis
C. To exclude all diseases that can simulate acute abdominal pathology
D. Rectal examination in men and vaginal additional examination in women
E. Laboratory tests
228. You suspected acute appendicitis. For the differential diagnosis of acute appendicitis from
the righ-side renal colic you apply:
A. * Prescription of spasmolytics, excretory urography
B. Prescription of narcotic analgetics
C. Laparocentesis, laparoscopy
D. Fluoroscopy gastrointestinal, irrigoscopy
E. Angiography of renal arteries
229. Patient S., 27 years old admitted to clinic with the diagnosis: perforated ulcer. What study
should be carried out in the first place?
A. ECG
B. CT
C. MRI
D. * Survey radiography of the abdominal cavity
E. Ultrasound
230. Patient A., 43, was admitted to hospital with a diagnosis: chronic cholecystitis calculary.
What is the main method of research in this patient?
A. Ainfusion holegraphy,
C. * SONOGRAPHY
231. Patient A., aged 45, was admitted to hospital with jaundice in the background cholelithias.
The patient is indicate:
E. plasmapheresis
The patient is shown:
E. plasmapheresis
A. cholecystostomy
234. Patient D., aged 39, was admitted to the surgical department with the diagnosis: diffuse
B. Patient weight
D. Body mass index
E. All true
237. Patient N., aged 45, was admitted to the surgical department with the diagnosis: biliary
peritonitis. Treatment.
C. Outpatient care
E. Fluid management
238. Patient S., 42 years old, entered the clinic with a diagnosis: acute calculary cholecystitis.
What analgesics is contraindicated?
A. omnopon
C. no-spa
D. spazgan
E. spasmalgon, baralgin
239. Patient S., aged 35, was admitted to the surgical department with the diagnosis:
appendicular peritonitis. Treatment.
C. Outpatient care
E. Fluid management
240. Patient S., aged 35, was admitted to the surgical department with the diagnosis: diffuse
A. * The degree of intoxication
B. Patient weight
D. Body mass index
E. All true
241. Patient S., aged 56, was admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis: acute catarrhal
cholecystitis. What symptoms are not typical for this diagnosis?
A. nausea
B. B. Ker’s sing
E. Musso’s sing
242. The patient 47 years old admitted to the clinic with complaints of pain in the right
hypochondrium, nausea, vomiting, body temperature, 38.3. Pain in 3 days ago after receiving a
fatty meal. Pulse 112 in 1 min. tongue dry. Skin and sclera subikterichny. In the right
hypochondrium defined sharply painful tense rounded education 12h8h6 see positive symptoms
Ortner, Murphy, Kera. Symptom Shchetkin-Blumberg positive throughout the abdomen. Which
research method should be used?
A. * Ultrasound
B. ECG
C. Rheovasography
D. Doppler
E. Thermometry
- 110 60., T-35, 1 °C. Installed diagnosis diffuse peritonitis. What treatment is indicated the
patient?
A. laparocentesis
B. laparoscopy
C. * surgery
D. antibiotic
E. puncture
244. The patient admitted to hospital with suspected choledocolithiasis. What method of
diagnosis is not used in this case?
A. ultrasound
C. ERPHG
A. ultrasound
C. ERPHG
A. ultrasound
C. ERPHG
E. * endoscopy
247. The patient complains of severe abdominal pain, which occurred suddenly 6 hourse ago.
Installed diagnosis of peritonitis. Which symptom is most typical for this diagnosis?
A. temperature rise
B. tachycardia
C. leukocytosis
D. tension of the muscles of the abdominal wall
E. * irritation of the peritoneum
248. The patient complains of severe abdominal pain, which occurred suddenly 6 o'clock ago.
Installed diagnosis of peritonitis. Which research method should be used to clarify the source of
peritonitis?
A. * Ultrasound
B. ECG
C. Rheovasography
D. Doppler
E. Thermometry
249. The patient with a history of ulcerative with X-ray determined by a deep niche, located on
the back wall near the small curvature of the antrum. What diagnoses are in the patient?
A. Perforated ulcer
C. Ulcer bleeding
D. * Penetration ulcers
250. The patient, 34 years old, 6 years ago was silent ulcer perforation duodenum. Two years
after this the patient felt well and do not appealed. Then came the pain, typical of peptic
diseases. What method of research is the most informative?
A. ECG
B. * ENDOSCOPY
C. X-ray
D. CT
E. MRI
251. The patient, 36 years old, 12 years suffer stomach ulcer Conservative treatment is not
B. * No right answer
C. Outpatient
D. Infusion therapy
252. The patient, 36 years old, 12 years suffer stomach ulcer. Conservative treatment is not
B. * Surgical treatment
C. Outpatient
D. Infusion therapy
253. The patient, 36 years old, 12 years suffer stomach ulcer. It is treated routinely in the clinic.
What method of research is most informative?
A. ECG
B. * ENDOSCOPY
C. X-ray
D. CT
E. MRI
254. The patient, 40 years old, long-suffering with stomach ulcer, said that the last 2 days the
pain had become less intense, but at the same time it has been increasing weakness, dizziness.
In morning for a few seconds to lose consciousness. On examination, pulse 100 in 1 min. The
patient was pale. In the epigastric region is very little pain. No symptoms of irritation of the
peritoneum. What complication of peptic ulcer you can suspect?
A. Perforated ulcer
C. * Ulcer bleeding
A. * X-ray study of the digestive tract with barium
B. Total blood
C. Urinalysis
D. Rheovasography
E. Doppler
B. Total blood
C. Urinalysis
D. Rheovasography
E. Doppler
ill ulcerative disease of stomach. 2 years ago the executed resection of stomach after Bilroth- 2.
B. Cholecystitis
ill ulcerative disease of stomach. 2 years ago the executed resection of stomach after Bilroth-II.
B. Cholecystitis
259. A patient 76 years acted to the hospital on seventh twenty-four hours from the beginning of
disease with complaints about pain in right hypochondrium, weakness, repeated vomiting,
temperature up to 38 degrees. At a examination is a general of middle weight. Pallor. A
enlarged gall-bladder is palpated in right hypochondrium where tension is examined. What
method of treatment?
A. * Cholecystostomy under sonography control
B. Diet therapy
D. Spasmolitics
E. Analgesics
260. Choose the most frequent reason of relapse of ulcer after a organ-saving operation with
vagotomy at the adequate decline of acid production after an operation:
A. * syndrome of Zolinger-Elisson
B. incomplete vagotomy
C. duodeno-gastric reflux of bile
D. gastritis of the operated stomach
E. excessive use of alcohol
261. During an operation for a patient 68 years concerning a acute destructive cholecystitis
certain presence of festering cholangitis. At the revision of choledohus the not found
concrements and sign of stenosis duodenal to the nipple. Cholecystectomy is executed. How is
it necessary to make off an operation?
A. * To execute the external catchment of choledohus
B. To impose supraduodenal choledohoduodenostomy
C. To execute a transduodenal choledohoduodenostomy
D. To execute a choledochojejunostomy
E. To drain an abdominal cavity
262. During an operation on occasion of acute calculus cholecystitis the extended general bilious
channel is founded. After cholecystectomy through stump of cystic duct is performed
cholangiography On X-Ray of hepatic is founded general bile ducts. In the distal part of
choledohus a precipice of contrasting matter is with even edges. A contrast does not act in a
duodenum. How to estimate data of intraoperative cholangiography?
A. * Present of stones in the distal part of choledohus
B. Stenosis of duodenal papilla
C. Cicatricle narrowing of distal part of choledohus
D. Cholecystitis
E. Tumour of head of pancreas
263. For a 38-years-old patient after carried two years ago back cholecystectomy recommenced
attacks of hepatic colic with turning of skin covers yellow. A postcholecystectomy syndrome is
diagnosed. What is most frequent reason of this situation?
A. * Leave during the first operation concrements
B. Stenosis papillitis
C. Duodenostasis
D. Diskinesia of bile ducts
E. Cholestasis
264. For a patient the decompensate stenosis of pyloro-bulb area is on a background 10 years of
ulcerative anamnesis. In the state of middle weight he acted with complaints about the frequent
vomiting and belch rotten. Marks the expressed weakness. Exhausted. After stabilizing of
metabolic indexes and general a patient gave a consent to operative treatment. There are
endoscopic signs of the expressed gastritis in all parts of stomach. Choose the method of
operation :
A. * a resection of stomach by Bilroth II
B. vagotomy is with an operation which drains a stomach
C. imposition of gastrostomy by Vitsel
E. a fundoplication by Nissen
265. For a patient 45 years, in 2 years after cholecystectomy there were pains in right
hypochondrium, icteric and itch of skin, bitter taste in a company. At sonography of choledohus
a 1,2 cm, in distal part located stone. What is the diagnosis?
A. * Choledoholitiasis. Obturative icterus
B. Cholangitis. Mechanical icterus
C. Acute pancreatitis. Mechanical icterus
D. Postcholecystectomy syndrome
E. Tumour of head of pancreas. Mechanical icterus
266. For a patient 48 years with a giant gastric ulcer with recrudescent motion (has ulcerative
disease during 11 years) a histamine-reflectory an-acidity is founded. What medical tactic?
A. * Conservative treatment in hospital and further sanatorium-resort treatment
B. Stationary treatment
C. Anti-ulcerative therapy is before a planned operation
D. Urgent operation
E. Stationary conservative treatment during 8 weeks
267. For a patient 60 years icterus during 3 weeks, intensity of it began without pain grows. A
stomach at palpation is soft. Positive symptom of Kurvuasie. At sonography of bilious ways
expansion of gall-bladder is marked and choledohus. What primary cause of these changes.
A. * Cancer of head of pancreas
B. Bile-stone disease
D. Infectious hepatitis
E. Cancer of liver.
268. For a patient which carried the resection of stomach a year ago, the attacks of weakness,
which arose up on an empty stomach or in 15-20 minutes after the reception of meal, appeared.
Attacks were accompanied by a muscle weakness, headache, decline of sugar of blood, decline
of arteriotony, sometimes by dizziness. What complication did arise up for a patient?
A. * Hypoglycaemia syndrome
B. Food allergy
C. Dumping-syndrome
D. Postresection asthenia
E. Syndrome of small stomach
269. For a patient С., 58 years, increased feed, after will attack pains the icteric of skin and
conjunctiva of sclera, discoloured excrement, darkening of urine appeared in right
hypochondrium. A stomach is exaggerated, at palpation sickly in right hypochondrium, a
enlarged liver is palpated on a 2-3 cm. In blood general bilirubin 90 mmole/L, direct 60
micromole/L. What is the best examination method?
B. Intravenous cholegraphy
C. Transcutaneus cholegraphy
D. Transcutaneus transhepatic cholegraphy
E. Sonography of hepatic region
270. For a patient, which carried an operation, resection of stomach, concerning ulcerative
disease, there was a relapse (endoscopy data). What reason of relapse?
A. * all correct
B. incomplete vagotomy;
C. leave at a resection part of antrum;
D. economy resection of stomach;
E. syndrome of Zolinger-Elisson;
271. For a patient, which carried the resection of stomach for Bilroth-II concerning ulcerative
disease of duodenum is marked complaints about a acute weakness, attacks of palpitation,
waves of heat to the face and dizziness at the reception of sweet and suckling meal. Deficit of
b.w. - 15кг. On X-Ray of stump of stomach of small sizes with evacuation of barium in the
extended efferent bowel. What operatively interference does need it was to be before done to
the patient?
A. SPV with a pyloroplasty
B. * Jejunogastroplasy
C. Resection of stomach by Rou
D. Trunk vagotomy
E. Resection of stomach
272. For the exhausted man of 42, which 15 years suffers ulcerative disease of duodenum, during
the last two weeks the massive vomiting takes place every evening. At X-Ray stenosis of
goalkeeper of stomach is founded. The above-mentioned state became complicated by cramps.
what complication did arise up for a patient?
A. * Tetany
B. Bleeding
C. Perforation
D. Penetration
E. Malignancy
273. For the patient of 32 after carried cholecystectomy the attacks of hepatic colic, which are
accompanied by turning of skin canopies yellow, recommenced in 6 months. At sonography
examination the leave concrements of 2 х is founded 1см in distal part of choledohus. What
treatment for a patient will be optimal?
A. * Endoscopic duodenocholedohoscopy with papillosphincterotomy
B. Conservative therapy by spasmolitics
C. Lithotripsy
D. Choledoholithotomy
E. Choledohoduodenoanastomosis
274. For the patient of 63, in a year after cholecystectomy with choledoho-duodenal anastomosis,
there were pains in right hypohondrium, icterus, temperature, fever, dryness and bitter taste.
What is the previous diagnosis?
A. * Cholangitis
C. Duodenitis. Mechanical icterus
D. Stricture of choledohus
E. Hepatitis is with transformation in a cirrhosis
275. Operative treatment with a duodenal ulcer it is indicated a patient in those cases when: 1.
often there are relapses of disease, 2. a disease becomes complicated continuous bleeding, 3.
there is pyloro-duodenal stenosis 4. there is a perforation of ulcer, 5. ulcer penetrates in the
head of pancreas, giving the frequent intensifying and phenomena of pancreatitis. Choose the
best composition:
A. * all true.
B. 1,4
C. 2,3
D. 3.4
E. 1,2
276. Patient 57 years, during the last 10 years has a chronic calculus cholecystitis. Intensifying of
disease take place 1-2 times on a year. The last attack began 8 days ago. The icteric skin and
sclera appeared in 2 days. During sonography of inspection of organs of abdominal region:
thickness of wall of gall-bladder up to 5 mm, present concrements 0,5 to 1,0 cm in a diameter.
A width of choledohus is a 1,2 cm, in it supraduodenal part a stone is founded up to 1,0 cm.
What complication of gallbladder disease did arise up for a patient?
A. * Choledoholitiasis. Mechanical icterus
B. Acute cholangitis
C. Acute calculus cholecystitis
D. Choledoho-duodenal fistula
E. Cancer of bilious ducts
277. Patient of 51, operated a year ago concerning the perforative ulcer of duodenum. Done
barrel vagotomy is with excision of ulcer. Complain for periodic appearance of liquid stool,
which arises up suddenly (for two three times on twenty-four hours within a week), whereupon
normalized independently. Define a diagnosis.
A. * Postvagotomy diarrhoea
B. Chronic pancreatitis
C. Dumping is a syndrome
D. Chronic colitis
E. Poliposis of colon
278. The patient 32 years, two years ago passed cholecystectomy concerning gallbladder disease.
There were many shallow concrements in a gallbladder. During six months the attacks of
hepatic colic recurred 3 times. Two days ago back after an attack, turning of skin and sclera
appeared yellow. Bilirubin of 90 mmole/L. What examination most effective in diagnose?
A. * sonography of pancreatoduodenal area
B. X-Ray of gastrointestinal tract
C. Endoscopy
D. Cholangiography
E. Angiography
279. The patient of 42 four years ago carried the resection of stomach after Hoffmaister-Finsterer
concerning the ulcer of duodenum with penetration in a pancreas. During the last year marks
pain in an epigastrium and right hypochondrium. A pain syndrome is accompanied massive
vomiting by stagnant content with plenty of bile. After vomiting pain is decreased. The repeated
treatment of improvement did not bring. A patient became thin on 12 kg. What is the diagnosis?
A. * Syndrome of afferent loop
B. Tumour of stump of stomach
D. Relapse of ulcer
E. Peptic ulcer of gastroenteroanastomosis
280. The patient of 62 complains in the presence of icterus, itch of skin, light excrement, wet
dark. Objectively: a sclera and skin is icteric. An enlarge, painless gallbladder is palpated.
Blood test: general bilirubin of 85 mmol/L. What method of examination more expedient in all
to use for clarification of diagnosis?
B. Duodenal sounding
C. Survey sciagraphy of organs of abdominal region
D. Oral cholecystography
E. Cholegraphy
281. The patient of Н., 62, acted with complaints about pain in the overhead half of stomach after
the food intake, heartburn, nausea, decline of mass of body on 15 kg for a year, constipations.
Three to the year that is why operated concerning a perforative gastric ulcer, executed resection
of stomach. In a year after an operation pain recommenced in the overhead half of stomach,
heartburn, periodically there was vomiting by a meal, the state of patient became worse in
course of time. Your previous diagnosis?
A. * Peptic ulcer of gastroenteroanastomosis
B. Syndrome of afferent loop
C. Cancer of stump of stomach
D. Gastritis of the operated stomach
282. Woman 55 years, complains on pain in right hypochondrium, temperature up to 39С,

darkening of colour of urine. Objectively: skin and visible mucous membranes icteric, liver
enlarged, dense, sickly at palpation. In the global analysis of blood of increase of ESR,
neutrophilic leukocytosis, shift to the left, increase of level of bilirubin, ALT, AST. Sonography
are stones of gall-bladder. What complication did arise up for this patient?
A. * Cholangitis
C. Chronic cholecystitis
E. Sepsis
283. Woman of 53, three years ago back carried cholecystectomy concerning a acute calculus
cholecystitis. After operation already four times were twinges in right hypochondrium, which
lasted 6-8 hours, passed after spasmolitics. After the second attack marked turning of skin and
sclera yellow. What examination will be most informing for imputing of diagnosis?
A. * Sonography
B. X-Ray of stomach
C. Endoscopy
D. Cholangiography
E. Thermography
284. Patient S., aged 56, was admitted to hospital with a diagnosis: acute catarrhal cholecystitis.
A. nausea
B. symptom Kera
C. * all responses venrny
D. lack of muscle tension in the right hypochondrium
E. Musso symptom
285. During surgery at cholelithiasis detected wrinkled gallbladder filled with stones and
advanced up to 2.5 cm common bile duct. Patients should
A. * make cholecystectomy
B. perform cholecystectomy, then holangiography
C. immediately make an audit of cholecystectomy and duct
D. impose cholecystitis
E. duodenotomy make the audit of the major duodenal papilla
286. Patient A., 43, was admitted to hospital with a diagnosis: chronic cholecystitis calculary.
What is the main method of research in this patient?
C. * SONOGRAPHY
The patient is indicate:
E. plasmapheresis
The patient is shown:
E. plasmapheresis
A. cholecystostomy
292. Patient S., 41, was admitted to hospital with a diagnosis: obstructive jaundice. To diagnose
the causes of jaundice is the subject of a more reliable:
A. oral cholecystography
C. * retrograde cholangiography
D. liver scintigraphy
E. direct hepatosplenography
A. omnopon
B. * morphine hydrochloride
C. no-spa
D. spazgan
A. omnopon
C. no-spa
D. spazgan
What method is most informativve to clarify the diagnosis in the reception-office?
C. * SONOGRAPHY
296. Patient S., aged 56, was admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis: acute catarrhal
cholecystitis. What symptoms are not typical for this diagnosis?
A. nausea
B. Ker’s sing
E. Musso’s sing
297. Patient V., aged 45, was admitted to hospital with a diagnosis: chronic cholecystitis. What is
a reliable radiological signs of chronic cholecystitis?
A. weak fluoroscopic shadow of the gall bladder
B. sharply increased, not reduced by giving choleretic breakfast
C. shadow of the gall bladder
D. disconnected" gallbladder
E. shadow of suspicion on concretions in the gall bladder at a reduced by 1 / 3 after the
administration of choleretic breakfast
A. serum hepatitis
D. * operating choledochal injury (ligation)
E. all of the above
A. serum hepatitis
D. * There is no right answer
E. All of the above
300. Patients with suspected calculous cholecystitis for diagnosing stones in the gallbladder
indicate:
A. * abdominal X-ray
B. angiography
C. Doppler
D. celiocentesis
E. vulvotsentez
indicate:
B. angiography
C. doppler
D. laparocentesis
E. vulvocentesis
indicate:
A. * ultrasound abdominal
B. angiography
C. doppler
D. laparocentesis
E. vulvocentesis
indicate:
A. * intravenous cholecystocholangiography
B. angiography
C. doppler
D. laparocentesis
E. vulvocentesis
A. ultrasound
C. ERPHG
A. ultrasound
C. ERPHG
A. ultrasound
C. ERPHG
E. * endoscopy
accompanied by yellowing of the sclera. Ultrasound examination of the abdominal cavity
obvious pathology of the extrahepatic bile duct could not be detected. Which of the following
methods is most informative for diagnosis in this case?
C. * endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography,
accompanied by yellowing of the sclera. Which of the following methods is most informative
for diagnosis in this case?
C. * SONOGRAPHY
309. The patient was diagnosed during surgery iatrogenic injury extrarenal bile ducts. What
operation is indicated?
A. closure of the injury duct separate atraumatic suture needle
B. suturing of the duct on the T-shaped drainage
C. closure of the duct on Г-shaped drainage
D. imposition biliodigistiv anastomosis
E. * any of the above
310. The patient with suspected narrowing of the distal common bile duct for diagnosis you
must:
B. echocardioscopy
C. laparocentesis
311. The patient with suspected narrowing of the distal common bile duct for diagnosis you
must:
B. echo kardioskopiyu
C. laparocentesis
312. A patient 30 years complain for the unpleasant feeling in the area of rectum and periodic
bleeding at the end of act of defecation, fall off haemorrhoidal knots at defecation. He is ill a
few years. The state is satisfactory. At anoscopy enlarged haemorrhoidal knots are determined
at 11 hour. What operation is radical in this case?
A. * Operation of Milligan-Morgan
B. Ligation of haemorrhoidal knots
C. Operation of Habriel
D. Sclerosing injections
313. A patient 36 years complain for pain in a crotch, fever, high temperature. He is ill a 5 days.
A disease began acutely. State of middle weight. At a examination slight swelling of buttock on
the right, pain at palpation. At the finger inspection of rectum acutely sickly compression, that
swelling in a rectum. For a patient diagnosis?
A. * a acute ishiorectal paraproctitis
B. acute submucous paraproctitis
C. acute pelviorectal paraproctitis
D. extrasphincteric fistula
E. thrombosis
314. A patient 36 years complain for pain in a crotch, fever, high temperature. He is ill a 5 days.
A disease began acutely. State of middle weight. At a examination slight swelling of buttock on
the right, pain at palpation. At the finger inspection of rectum acutely sickly compression, that
swelling in a rectum. What treatment is indicated to the patient?
A. * opening of paraproctitis
B. operation after Habriel
C. conservative
D. operation after Ryzhykh- 1
E. an operation is after Kenu-Mailce
315. A patient 38 years complain for pain in the area of anus, fever. He is ill a 5 days. A disease
began acutely. In anamnesis an operation is concerning a acute paraproctitis 2 years ago. At a
examination on the left from anus slight swelling, turning, pain at palpation. In the area of scar
of 2cm from anus point opening with festering excretions. What treatment is indicated to the
patient?
A. * operation after Habriel
B. opening of paraproctitis
C. conservative
D. operation after Ryzhykh- 1
E. an operation is after Kenu-Mailce
316. A patient 38 years complain for pain in the area of anus, fever. He is ill a 5 days. A disease
began acutely. In anamnesis an operation is concerning a acute paraproctitis 2 years ago. At a
examination on the left from anus slight swelling, turning, pain at palpation. In the area of scar
of 2cm from anus point opening with festering excretions. What diagnosis?
A. * recrudescent paraproctitis
B. ishiorectal paraproctitis
C. pelviorectal paraproctitis
D. submucous paraproctitis
E. thrombosis
317. A patient 60 years complain for pain in an anal area, high temperature of body, diarrhoea
with constipations, periodically appearance of blood in incandescence. What sign testify in
behalf on a acute paraproctitis in this case ?
A. * pain, high temperature of body
B. enterorrhagia
C. diarrhoea
D. constipations
E. only pain
is absent haustration with circular narrowing in sigmoid bowel. What complication patient has?
A. * A regeneration to the cancer
B. Toxic dilatation
C. Bleeding
D. Perforation
E. Nothing
is absent haustration with circular narrowing in sigmoid bowel. What operation is prescribed?
A. * Colproctectomy
B. Resection of sigmoid bowel
D. Sigmoidostomy
E. Right-side hemicolectomy
320. A patient В., 35 years, complaints for a periodic pain in abdomen, frequent (up to 16 - 18 on
twenty-four hours) unexecuted stool with mucus and blood. An unspecific ulcerative colitis is
diagnosed. The sudden stopping of diarrhoea came on a background of heavy intoxication. The
indicated changes of signs of disease means:
A. efficiency of conservative therapy
B. * toxic dilatation
C. misdiagnosis
D. perforation
E. hypovolemia
321. At colonoscopy for a patient 60 years old was removed the polypus of sigmoid bowel in the
distance 35 cm from anus. Histologically was found a microinvasive cancer an it apex. On it
basis it is not found the cancer's cell. What is tactic of doctor?
A. * Repeated colonoscopies every 3 months
B. Radial therapy
C. The resection of sigmoid bowel
D. Chemotherapy
E. Nothing
322. For a patient 25 years acute horseshoe paraproctitis is diagnosed. What operation is
indicated ?
A. * Excision of abscess is with realization of ligature
B. Excision of abscess is with imposition of sutures
C. Excision of abscess (as Habriel)
D. Excision of abscess is with moving of mucous membrane of distal part of rectum
323. For a patient 25 years three month ago the ulcer of rectum is diagnosed. At a complex
examination – Wassermann test is positive. What is diagnosis
A. * venereal limphogranuloma
B. hemorroids
C. paraproctitis
D. fistula
E. crack of rectum
324. For a patient 26 years a acute ishiorectal paraproctitis is diagnosed. What operation is
indicated ?
A. * Excision of abscess is with realization of ligature
C. Excision of abscess (by Habriel)
325. For a patient 27 years a acute subcutaneus paraproctitis is diagnosed. What operation is
indicated?
A. * Excision of abscess (as Habriel)
C. Excision of abscess is with realization of ligature
326. For a patient 28 years a chronic transsphincteric paraproctitis is diagnosed. What operation
is indicated ?
A. * Excision of fistula is with the partial suturing of bottom of wound
B. Excision of fistula (as Habriel)
C. Excision of fistula is with realization of ligature
D. Excision of fistula is with moving of mucous membrane of distal part of rectum
327. For a patient 29 years a chronic extrasphincteric paraproctitis is diagnosed. What operation
is indicated ?
A. * Excision of fistula is with realization of ligature
B. Excision of fistula is with imposition of deaf sutures
C. Excision of fistula (as Habriel)
D. Excision of fistula is with moving of mucous membrane of distal part of rectum
328. For a patient a 23 combined hemorroids became complicated by bleeding. Pregnancy of 9

weeks. Tactic?
A. * operation after Milligan-Morgan
C. to conduct operative intervention of after birth of child
D. after Ryzhykh- 1
E. for Kenu-Mailce
329. For a patient an unspecific ulcerative colitis is diagnosed. Prescribed anti-recurrent

treatment. What is preparation of choice in treatment of disease?
A. NSAID
B. Lipofundinum
C. Smecta
D. * Sulfasalasin
E. Salbutamolum
330. For a patient intersphincteric fistula of i is 30 years diagnosed external hemorroids. He is ill
about 5 years. What operation is indicated?
A. * After Milligan-Morgan and Habriel
C. By Habriel.
D. Operation Blinnichev.
E. Operation Ryzhykh- 1.
331. For a patient R. 58 years diagnosed fall-out of rectum of IІI stage. A capacity and quality of
life of patient is bad. What is operation in this case?
A. * Kumel-Zerenin.
B. Milligan-Morgan.
C. Kenu-Mailce.
D. Habriel.
E. Operation Blinnichev.
332. For a patient the combined hemorroids, complicated by a thrombosis, is diagnosed. A

patient is disturbed by pain, discomfort, itch. What is the indication to the operation in this case
A. * thrombosis of haemorrhoidal nodes
B. age
C. pain
D. itch
E. discomfort
333. For a patient the unspecific ulcerative colitis of middle weight is diagnosed. It is prescribed
prednisolon. What most optimal dose can be used in treatment of disease?
A. 10-20 mg
B. 30-40 mg
C. * 60-80 mg
D. 35 mg.
E. 100 mg.
334. For a patient Е., 67р., the perforation of bowel came on a background of unspecific
ulcerative colitis. What operative treatment is indicated for the patient?
A. * Suturing of perforation and ileostomy
B. Proximal colostomy
C. Total colectomy and ileostomy
D. Resection of segment of bowel with perforation
335. For a patient К., 37 years, an unspecific ulcerative colitis is diagnosed. Prescribe
conservative treatment:
A. Diet therapy (exception of milk and dairies)
B. Vitamin therapy
C. Sulphanilamide
D. Desintoxication therapy
E. * All listed are true
336. For a patient К., 37р., an unspecific ulcerative colitis is diagnosed. What does not
prescribed at unspecific ulcerative colitis for treatment?
A. Antibiotics
B. * Purgatives
C. Vitamins
D. Desintoxication therapy
E. Hormonal preparations
337. For a patient М., 45р., a unspecific ulcerative colitis is diagnosed. It is conducted
irrigography. On a sciagram the characteristic sign of this disease is founded. It is a symptom:
A. index finger"
B. roadways"
C. water-pipe"
D. half of month"
E. niches"
338. For a patient М., 45р., it is diagnosed unspecific ulcerative colitis, phase of remission. What
is preparation of choice in treatment of disease?
A. antiagregant
B. cytostatics
C. vitamins of group In
D. * preparations of 5-aminosalicile acid
E. hormones
339. For a patient С., 44 years., erosive proctitis is diagnosed. What is preparation of choice in
treatment of disease?
A. Antibiotics
B. Hormonal preparations
C. * Sulphosalaso-drugs
D. Enzymes preparations
E. Vitamins
340. For a patient С., 45 years, poliposis of colon and rectum is diagnosed. A diagnosis is
confirmed by irrigography. What symptom is characteristic for the indicated disease?
A. water-pipe"
B. shot through target"
C. a specific symptom is absent
D. cockades"
E. roadways".
341. For a patient, 39р., an unspecific ulcerative colitis is diagnosed. In the case of development
of complications, which complication does not need operative treatment?
A. * Bleeding
B. Toxic megacolon
C. Water-electrolyte changes
D. Malignancy
E. Perforation
342. For the patient of 22 during 2 years it is diagnosed combined haemorrhoid. On this time -
pregnancy 8 weeks. Tactic?
A. * to conduct operative treatment after birth of child
C. operation after Milligan-Morgan
D. after Ryzhykh- 1
E. for Kenu-Mailce
343. For the patient of 24 years on posterior anal is founded fissure of mucous rectum. Pregnancy
of 16 weeks. Tactic of surgeon.
A. * Cut off fissure after birth of child
B. operation after Milligan-Morgan
C. operation after Habriel
D. cut off fissure
E. operation after Kenu-Mailce
344. For the patient of 60 year during last 5 years it is diagnosed fall-out of rectum. On this time
it is ІІ degree. Quality of life of patient is severe. What operation is indicated?
A. * Kumel-Zerenin.
B. Milligan-Morgan.
C. Kenu-Mailce.
D. Habriel.
diagnosis?
B. Crohn disease
C. Dysentery
D. Salmonellosis
346. Patient of Б., 30 years, a previous diagnosis is: Poliposis of colon. What most reliable
method of diagnostics of polypus’s of colon is indicated to the patient?:
A. X-Ray with sulphate of barium
B. Irrigoscopy
C. * Colonoscopy
D. Examination of excrement
E. Laparoscopy
347. Patient of К, 45 years, diagnosis: unspecific ulcerative colitis. What treatment is indicated
to the patient?
A. Complete parenterally feed
B. Total colectomy with an ileostomy
C. Subtotal colectomy with ileostomy
D. * All are true
E. All are false
diagnosis?
A. * Cancer of transvers colon.
B. Dysentery.
C. Polypus of small intestine.
D. Spastic colitis.
349. Patient 40 years complines for pain during time of defecation, spasm of sphincter, bleeding.
These symptoms are characteristic for ?
A. * anal fissure
B. proctopolypus
C. unspecific ulcerative colitis
D. shrine of rectum
E. a right answer is not
D. Doplerography
E. Sonography
351. Patient 59 years old has suspicion of the tumor of ascending part of colon. What method of
B. Irrigography
D. Sonography
E. Endoscopy
A. * Invagination of sigmoid bowel
B. Crohn disease
C. Poliposis
E. Diverticulosis
353. Patient during the act of defecation has pain in anal channel, red blood in the stool. What
disease?
A. * Anal fissure
B. Haemorrhoids
D. Cancer of rectum
E. Proctopolypus
B. Proctopolypus
E. Acute proctitis
B. colitis
C. Pseudopoliposis
D. Diverticulosis
E. Spastic colitis
A. * Haemorrhoids
B. Anal fissure
D. Cancer of rectum
E. Proctopolypus
357. Patient M., 42 years, complains for moderate pain in abdomen, frequent stool up to 15 times
on twenty-four hours. Temperature - 38С. A abdomen is mildly enlarged, painful in the colon.
Rectally: enlarged, mildly sickly haemorrhoidal knots, dark blood. Rectoscopy: mucous
membrane of colon with hyperaemia, filling out, covered by erosions. In general blood test is
anaemia, ESR- a 54 mm/hour. What is drugs is used in treatment of disease?
A. Anti-diarrhoea preparations
B. Sulphate of magnesium
C. * Sulphosalaso-drugs
D. Salbutamolum
E. Moriamin
358. Patient of B., 38 years, entered with complaints of moderate stomach-ache, diarrhoea up to
17 times on twenty-four hours with blood, pus, mucus. Temperature of body is 38 С. Stomach
is inflated, painful in the colon projection. Per rectum: dark blood is founded. It is anaemia,
ESR - a 42 mm/hour. What is diagnosis?
A. Enterocolitis
B. Crohn’s disease.
C. Diverticulosis
E. Specific ulcerative colitis
359. Patient of В. in 35, complain for periodic pain in a right inguinal area, increase of Т to 38С.,
general weakness, diarrhoea with the admixtures of blood. At a rectoscopy is a "symptom of
roadway". What is the most credible diagnosis for a patient?
A. Disease of Hirshprung
B. Dysentery
C. Unspecific ulcerative colitis
D. * Crohn’s disease
E. Enterocolitis
360. Patient of М., 66 years, became ill suddenly: pain in the left inguinal area, temperature 38
С. At examination insignificant tension of muscle and pain in the left inguinal area. Specify the
diagnosis.
A. Stenosis of sigmoid bowel
B. * Diverticulitis of sigmoid bowel
C. Poliposis of colon
D. Volvulus of sigmoid bowel
E. Crohn’s disease
361. Patient М., 45 years, passed irrigography. Clinically and on the sciagram a toxic megacolon
is founded. For what disease these changes is characteristic?
A. Crohn’s disease
B. Disease of Hirshprung
C. To the syndrome of Gardner
D. To the syndrome of Paits-Egers
E. * Unspecific ulcerative colitis
362. Patient Н. 32 years, complains for periodic pain in a right inguinal area, increase of
temperature to 38С., general weakness, diarrhoea with the admixtures of blood. At a
rectoscopy an edema, hyperaemia, plural erosions, ulcers, festering and necrotizing raid of
mucous membrane of intestine, is founded. What possible diagnosis?
A. Enterocolitis
B. * Unspecific ulcerative colitis
C. Poliposis
D. Crohn’s disease
E. Diverticulitis.
363. Patient, 70 years, during the last 3 months disturb constipation. During the last 2 weeks was
absent of stool during 3-4 days. Patient is used purgative drugs. One week ago was bleeding
from rectum – up to 200 ml of the fresh blood. Lost of weight up to 10 kg, an appetite is bad. At
examination the general state is middle weight. During palpation of abdomen tumour-like
formation is palpated in the left iliac area by size 6х8 cm. At percussion - tympanitis. It is not
founded any pathology at digital examination of rectum. What previous diagnosis?
A. Diverticulitis of sigmoid bowel
B. Megacolon
C. * Tumour of the left half of colon
D. Volvulus of sigmoid bowel
E. No right answer.
364. The patient 32 years complain for the expressed pain in the area of anus, which arises up at
the end of act of defecation, admixtures of blood in incandescence. He is ill for a year. Pains
were intensive at first, intensity diminished then. At a examination on the back commissure of
anal ring longitudinal linear wound a 21 cm, pale-grey, with the hypertrophied roller.
Operation, that indicated to the patient?
A. * Cut off the fissure with dosed sphincterotomy.
C. Operation Milligan-Morgan.
D. Operation Habriel.
E. Operation Noblja.
365. The patient 32 years complain for the expressed pain in the area of anus, which arises up at
the end of act of defecation, admixtures of blood in stool. He is ill for a year. Pains were
intensive at first, intensity diminished then. At a examination on the back commissure of anal
ring longitudinal linear wound 21 cm, pale-grey, with the hypertrophied roller. Your diagnosis?
A. * Posterior anal fissure
B. proctopolypus
C. unspecific ulcerative colitis
D. cancer of rectum
E. hemorroids
366. The patient of 28 years complain for the unpleasant feeling in the area of rectum and
periodic bleeding at the end of act of defecation. He is ill a few years. The state is satisfactory.
Palpation of stomach - without pathology. At anoscopy the haemorrhoidal knot are determined
at 11 hour, blood with the edema of mucous membrane. Haemoglobin is 100 /L, red corpuscles
2,7 * 1012.What is a diagnosis?
A. * Internal haemorrhoid, bleeding, anaemia.
B. Gastric ulcer, bleeding, anaemia.
C. Cancer of rectum, bleeding, anaemia.
D. Unspecific ulcerative colitis, bleeding, anaemia.
E. Poliposis, bleeding, anaemia.
367. The patient of 29 years complain for the unpleasant feeling in the area of rectum and
periodic bleeding at the end of act of defecation. He is ill a few years. The state is satisfactory.
Palpation of stomach - without pathology. It is not founded at the examination of anus and
finger inspection of pathological structure. At anoscopy the haemorrhoidal knot are determined
at 11 hour, blood with the edema of mucous membrane. Haemoglobin is 100 /L; red corpuscles
2,7 * 1012. Treatment?
A. * Operation Milligan-Morgan.
B. Ryzhykh- 1.
C. Ryzhykh- 2.
D. Operation Habriel.
368. The patient of 33 complain for the unpleasant feeling in the area of rectum and periodic
bleeding at the end of act of defecation, fall off haemorrhoidal knots at defecation. He is ill a
few years. The state is satisfactory. At anoscopy are enlarged haemorrhoidal knots and opening
of incomplete intersphincteric fistula determined. What operation is radical in this case?
A. * After Milligan-Morgan and Habriel.
B. For Milligan-Morgan.
C. For Habriel.
D. Operation Blinnichev.
E. Operation Ryzhykh- 1.
369. The patient of 33 years complain for the expressed pains in the area of anus, that arise up at
the end of act of defecation, admixtures of blood in incandescence. He is ill for a year. Pains
were intensive at first, intensity diminished then. At a examination on the back commissure of
anal ring longitudinal linear wound a 21 cm, pale-grey, with the hypertrophied roller. On a 2 cm
higher line of comb polypus on a narrow leg diameter by 0.5 cm. What operations at posterior
anal fissure with polypus?
A. * Cut off of fissure and removal of polypus
B. Cut off of fissure.
C. For Milligan-Morgan.
D. For Habriel.
370. The patient of 43 after the operation of haemorrhoidectomy had cicatricle stricture of anus.
A. * dosed sphincterotomy and suturing of mucous rectum to perianal skin
B. bougie of rectum from suturing of mucous rectum to perianal skin
D. hemorrhoidectomy
E. colostomy
371. The patient of B., 47 years, entered to surgical department with complaints for pain in the
left inguinal area, weight lost. Objectively: Т- 38 С. Stomach troubles, painful at palpation in
the left inguinal area. At rectoscopy hyperaemia and deep cracks of mucous membrane, ulcer,
stenosis is founded. What is preparation of choice in treatment of disease?
A. Anticoagulants
B. * 5-ASK, sulfasalasin, NSAID
C. NSAID
D. mercaptopurine
E. Smecta, Imodium.
372. The patient М., 38 years, entered to surgical department with complaints for periodic pain in
a right inguinal area, which arises up after the reception of meal, weight lost. Objectively: Т- 38
С. Stomach is subinflated, painful at palpation in the left inguinal area. At rectoscopy is
hyperaemia and deep cracks of mucous membrane, ulcer, stenosis. What is the diagnosis of
patient?
A. Dysentery
B. Disease of Hirshprung.
C. * Crohn’s disease
E. Salmonellas
373. The patient С., in 46 years, entered with complaints of pain in the left inguinal area,
diarrhoea up to 20-30 times on twenty-four hours, with the admixtures of blood and mucus. Т -
38 °С. Per rectum is a mucous with hyperaemia, swelling, covered by the ulcers of different
size, with bleeding. What disease?
A. Diverticulums
B. Polyps
C. Poliposis
D. Diverticulosis
E. * Unspecific ulcerative colitis
374. To the patient К., 62 years, roentgenologically and on colonoscopy is diagnosed unspecific
ulcerative colitis. What method of treatment of this patient?
A. * enemas with sulfasalasin
B. enemas with smecta
C. enemas with NSAID
D. enemas with cytostatics
E. enemas with a celandine
375. A man 50 years of asymptomatic mixed goiter. At the first stage, it should appoint
A. thyroid hormones to suppress the function of cancer
B. propylthiouracil
C. subtotal thyroidectomy
D. radioiodine
E. * only observation
376. In patient K, aged 26, noted a relapse of hyperthyroidism after medical treatment. Your
tactics.
B. * Surgical treatment
C. Outpatient
E. Is no right answer
377. On examination, the patient was 32 years reveal the formation of the left lobe of the thyroid
gland size 4x6 cm, painless at palpation. What additional diagnostic method to assign?
A. Radiography of the neck
B. * Thyroid gland
C. Doppler
D. Rheovasography
E. EEG
378. On examination, the patient was 32 years reveal the formation of the left lobe of the thyroid
gland size 4x6 cm, painless at palpation. What analysis should be performed in order to clarify
the diagnosis?
A. Total blood
B. Urinalysis
C. Immunogram
D. * Thyroid hormones
E. Protein fraction
379. Patient D, aged 39, admitted to the hospital with the diagnosis: diffuse toxic goiter. What
study be done.
A. ENDOSCOPY
B. Is no right answer
C. Rheovasography
D. * Investigation of iodine hormones in the blood serum
E. Doppler
380. Patient J., 57, was admitted to the surgical clinic with a diagnosis: euthyroid nodular goiter.
Choose the correct treatment option.
A. enucleation
B. medication
C. subtotal resection of the thyroid gland
D. * resection of the thyroid gland with maximal preservation of healthy tissue and
routine histological examination
E. excision of the node with the routine histological examination
381. Patient K, aged 49, was admitted to the hospital with the diagnosis: diffuse toxic goiter.
What study be done.
A. ENDOSCOPY
B. Rheovasography
C. * Scanning of the thyroid gland
D. Doppler
E. There is no correct answer
382. Patient K., aged 45, lives in the area of iodine deficiency, was admitted to the clinic with
complaints of enlarged thyroid gland. What is the most likely diagnosis in a patient?
A. * goiter
B. acute strumitis
C. sporadic goiter
D. epidemic goiter
E. mass thyrotoxicosis
383. Patient M, 39 years old, was admitted to the hospital with the diagnosis: diffuse toxic goiter.
What study be done.
A. ENDOSCOPY
B. * Thyroid gland
C. Rheovasography
D. Doppler
384. Patient M., aged 35, lives in the area of iodine deficiency, was admitted to the clinic with
complaints of enlarged thyroid gland. What is the most likely diagnosis in a patient?
A. acute strumitis
C. sporadic goiter
D. epidemic goiter
E. mass thyrotoxicosis
385. Patient O., aged 39, on the diffuse toxic goiter performed subtotal resection of the thyroid
gland. One day the patient became restless, twitching of facial muscles appeared convulsive
reduction of hands. Treatment.
A. * the introduction of calcium chloride intravenously
B. introduction Seduxen
C. introduction of iodine
D. infusion therapy
E. introduction of calcium chloride oral
386. Patient O., aged 39, on the diffuse toxic goiter performed subtotal resection of the thyroid
gland. One day the patient became restless, twitching of facial muscles appeared convulsive
reduction of hands. What mated complication of surgery?
A. Iodine deficiency
B. Lack of thyroid tissue
C. * Removal of parathyroid glands
D. Increased thyroid hormone
E. Increased parathyroid hormone
387. Patient S., 43, in the last 5 months of worry tearfulness, irritability, fatigue, progressive
weight loss. On palpation the thyroid gland increased to III class., painless. Pulse 110-120 in
minute, regular, blood pressure - 150/80. At SONOGRAPHY: tissue homogeneous, tissue
hypertrophy hyper. The most likely diagnosis
A. Hashimoto struma
B. * toxic goiter
C. Acute thyroiditis
D. nodular goiter
E. goiter De Quervain
minute, regular, blood pressure - 150/80. At SONOGRAPHY: tissue homogeneous, tissue
hypertrophy hyper. The most likely diagnosis
A. Hashimoto's thyroiditis
C. Acute thyroiditis
D. nodular goiter
E. goiter De Quervain
minute, regular, blood pressure - 150/80. What additional diagnostic method to assign?
A. Radiography of the neck
B. * Thyroid gland
C. Doppler
D. Reovazogrfiyu
E. EEG
minute, regular, blood pressure - 150/80. What analysis should be performed in order to clarify
the diagnosis?
A. Total blood
B. Urinalysis
C. * Thyroid hormones
D. Protein fraction
E. Immunogram
391. Patients after resection of the thyroid having convulsions, symptoms by Chvostek and
Trousseau. What a complication arose in a patient?
B. laryngeal nerve injury
C. residual effects of hyperthyroidism
D. thyrotoxic crisis
E. hypothyroidism
392. Patients after resection of the thyroid having convulsions, symptoms by Chvostek and
Trousseau. What a complication is arose in a patient?
A. laryngeal nerve injury
B. * hypoparathyreosis
C. residual effects of hyperthyroidism
D. thyrotoxic crisis
E. hypothyroidism
393. The patient complaints of excessive sweating, hand tremor, exophthalmos. The most likely
diagnosis.
A. Goiter
B. Tireodit
C. Thyrotoxicosis
D. * Strumil
394. The patient diagnosed with an aberrant goiter. Refine the definition of aberrant goiter.
A. metastases of thyroid cancer in the liver
B. atypical location of the thyroid gland
C. * is a cancer of the thyroid gland
D. all true
E. all wrong
395. The patient diagnosed with nodular euthyroid goiter left lobe of the thyroid gland. What is
the optimal treatment option.
A. excision of the node with the routine histological examination
B. enucleation site
C. subtotal thyroidectomy
D. * hemistrumectomy or resection of the lobe of the thyroid gland
E. conservative treatment thyroidin
396. The patient lives in the area of endemic iodine. What can be used to prevent goitre?
A. merkasalil
B. vaccination
C. iodine
D. improving the social life of the population
E. * iodination salt
397. The patient S., 546 years old, diagnosed with goiter II degree. What is characteristic of the
III degree of increase in thyroid gland?
A. giant goiter
B. determined only by palpation
C. * visible swallowing
D. visible only when swallowing
E. determined only on ultrasound
398. The patient S., 61, suffering for 2 years nodular goiter, recently noted a rapid increase in the
node. On scanning image identified a "cold node". Specify the most probable cause of this
condition
A. * node malignancy
B. cystic degeneration of the node
C. autoimmune
D. all true
E. hemorrhage site
399. The patient S., 61, suffering for 2 years nodular goiter, recently noted a rapid increase in the
node. What method of diagnosis is the most informative?
A. X-ray of the neck
B. * scanning with radioactive iodine
C. Doppler
D. Rheovasography
E. EEG
400. The patient V., age 56, diagnosed with goiter of third degree. What is characteristic of the
III degree of increase in thyroid gland?
A. giant goiter
B. determined only by palpation
C. * visible without swallowing
D. visible only when swallowing
E. determined only on ultrasound
401. The patient's 43 years revealed an increase in the left lobe of the thyroid gland. When
scanning in this region found a hot site. Diagnosis.
A. diffuse non-toxic goiter
B. toxic goiter
C. multinodular toxic goiter
D. * nodular toxic goiter
E. non-toxic nodular goiter
402. The patient's 60 years in the last 3 months has been rapidly increasing dense mass in the left
lobe of the thyroid gland. Effects of hyperthyroidism is not. At thyroid scan revealed a cold
junction. Preliminary diagnosis
A. * thyroid cancer
B. lipoma of the thyroid gland
C. cyst
D. metastasis of lung cancer
E. thyroid cyst

Module 1. Abdominal Surgery Text Test Questions

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Module 1. Abdominal Surgery Text Test Questions

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MODULE 1.

Text test questions

1. Acute appendicitis in the 1st phase is necessary to differentiate from:

2. After appendectomy the patient stands out of bed on:

3. After appendectomy to early postoperative complications belongs:

4. After appendectomy to late postoperative complications belongs:

5. Appendectomy after the treatment of appendicular infiltrate performed after:

6. Appendectomy, as a rule, is performed under such anaesthesia:

7. Appendicular infiltrate appears after:

8. Appendicular infiltrate is treated:

9. Appendicular infiltrate is treated:

10. Bartomier’s sign is typical for:

13. Blumberg’s sign in Petit triangle is:

14. Blumberg’s sign is typical for:

15. Causes of the appendicular infiltrate development:

18. Chronic residual appendicitis arises up after:

19. Chronic residual appendicitis arises up after:

20. Chronic residual appendicitis arises up after:

21. Conservative treatment of appendicular infiltrate is going on:

22. Dunphy's sign is typical for:

23. During appendectomy the most frequent complication is:

24. Dyspeptic syndrome is characteristic for acute appendicitis in:

25. Dyspeptic syndrome is characteristic for acute appendicitis in:

26. For acute appendicitis is typical:

27. For acute appendicitis is typical:

28. For acute appendicitis is typical:

29. For acute appendicitis is typical:

30. For acute appendicitis is typical:

31. For acute appendicitis is typical:

32. For acute appendicitis is typical:

33. For acute appendicitis is typical:

34. For acute appendicitis is typical:

35. For acute appendicitis is typical:

36. For acute appendicitis is typical:

37. For acute appendicitis is typical:

38. For acute appendicitis typical t° is:

40. For pelvic appendicitis is characteristic the sign:

41. For retrocecal appendicitis is characteristic the sign:

42. For retrocecal appendicitis is characteristic the sign:

43. For retroperitoneal appendicitis is characteristic the sign:

44. For the left-side appendicitis is typical:

45. For the pelvic appendicitis is typical:

46. For the pelvic appendicitis is typical:

47. For the pelvic appendicitis is typical:

48. For the perforation of appendix is not characteristic:

49. For the retrocaecal appendicitis is not typical:

50. For the retrocecal appendicitis is typical:

51. For the retrocecal appendicitis is typical:

52. For the retrocecal appendicitis is typical:

53. For the retrocecal appendicitis is typical:

54. For the retrocecal appendicitis is typical:

55. For the retroperitoneal appendicitis is typical:

56. For the simple appendicitis is typical:

57. For the simple appendicitis is typical:

58. For the simple appendicitis is typical:

59. For the simple appendicitis is typical:

60. Gabay’s sign is typical for:

61. Hyperaemia, thickening, oedema of appendix are the signs of:

64. Increased pain with coughing is:

65. Inexpressive abdominal pain in acute appendicitis is characteristic for:

66. Inexpressive abdominal pain in acute appendicitis is characteristic for:

67. Inexpressive leucocytosis in acute appendicitis is characteristic for: