Bo 11 de Thi Hoc Ki 2 Mon Tieng Anh Lop 11 Nam 2020 2021 Co Dap An 6421

BỘ 11 ĐỀ THI HỌC KÌ 2
MÔN TIẾNG ANH – LỚP 11

NĂM 2020-2021 (CÓ ĐÁP ÁN)
1. Đề thi học kì 2 môn Tiếng Anh lớp 11 năm 2020-2021 có đáp án - Sở
GD&ĐT Quảng Nam (Hệ 7 năm)
2. Đề thi học kì 2 môn Tiếng Anh lớp 11 năm 2020-2021 có đáp án - Trường
THCS&THPT Trưng Vương
THPT Đoàn Thượng
THPT Lạc Long Quân (7 năm)
THPT Lạc Long Quân (10 năm)
THPT Lương Ngọc Quyến (7 năm)
THPT Lương Ngọc Quyến (10 năm)
THPT Lương Thế Vinh (Hệ 7 năm)
THPT Phan Ngọc Hiển
10.Đề thi học kì 2 môn Tiếng Anh lớp 11 năm 2020-2021 có đáp án - Trường
THPT Tân Túc
11.Đề thi học kì 2 môn Tiếng Anh lớp 11 năm 2020-2021 có đáp án - Trường
THPT Yên Lạc 2
SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KIỂM TRA CUỐI HỌC KỲ II NĂM HỌC 2020-2021
QUẢNG NAM Môn: TIẾNG ANH – Lớp 11 (7 năm)
Thời gian: 45 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề)
ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC
(Đề gồm có 03 trang) MÃ ĐỀ 501
MULTIPLE CHOICE TEST (7.2 points)

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part
differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A schooling B. schappe C. skim D. skull
Question 2: A. slave B. island C. slim D. sleeping
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined word in the following question.
Question 3: Solar energy is not only plentiful and infinite but also clean and safe.
A. sufficient B. unlimited C. countable D. inflexible
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 4: The football match was so dull that most of the___________ left at half-time.
A. attendants B. audiences C. participants D. spectators
Question 5: Mr Dan, __________ is now teaching us English, has written several books.
A. who B. which C. that D. whom
Question 6: How to ___________ use of alternative sources of energy is a question for researchers
all over the world.
A. have B. do C. make D. take
Question 7: The last person ____________ the room must turn off the light.
A. leave B. leaves C. leaving D. to leave
Question 8: The band was playing rather well, but one of the guitars sounded a little out of _____ .
A. tune B. song C. way D. work
Question 9: Is this the article about _____________ you are talking ?
A. which B. that C. whose D. who
Question 10: Only one of the people _____________ was qualified for the job.
A. interviewed B. interviewing C. to interview D. to be interviewed
Question 11: We offer a very _____________ rate for parcels of under 15 kg.
A. competitively B. compete C. competitive D. competition
Question 12: That’s the house _____________ .
A. I used to live in it B. who I used to live in it
C. whom I used to live in it D. I used to live in
Question 13: Human beings are adding more and more pollutants ___________ the environment.
A. from B. for C. on D. to
Question 14: It was Mr. Harding ___________ was sent the bill by my secretary yesterday.
A. that B. whom C. which D. whose
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response or
question to complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 15: Lucy is talking to Peter about the measures to protect the nature:
-Lucy: “I think zoos and national parks should be established to save animals and plants.”
-Peter: “_________________.”
Trang 1/3 – Mã đề 501

A. I couldn’t agree with you more B. I don’t like zoos or national parks
C. It’s my pleasure to save animals D. You are right. Zoos are like national parks
Question 16: John and Mary are talking about their hobbies.
- John: “Which do you prefer, collecting stamps or keeping fish?”
- Mary: “ ___________________________ .”
A. Neither. I like reading books B. Both. They are useless
C. Yes. Collecting stamps is popular D. Yes, I like them
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer to each of the questions.
Today, wild animals and the wild places where they live are seriously threatened almost
everywhere. One species has become extinct in each year of this century. But many hundreds are
now in danger. The speed of the extinction of species has been faster than ever before. Hunting is
no longer the major cause of mass extinction, although rare birds and animals continue to be
butchered for their skin, feathers, tusks, and internal organs, or taken as savage pets. The main
reason of the extinction comes from the destruction of the natural habitat where wild plants,
animals, and insects need to survive. As a result, many species of animals, birds and even insects
are at risk of disappearing from the Earth. The draining and damming of wetland and river courses
threatens the aquatic food chain and our own seafood industry. Overfishing and the destruction of
fragile coral reefs destroy ocean biodiversity. Deforestation has caused serious damage of natural
habitat which animals rely on to survive, particularly in the tropics which the most global
biodiversity is at stake in. The immense tropical forests that are known as the lungs of the earth are
being destroyed by human activities such as building hydroelectric dams across rivers, agricultural
cultivation, ... ect, such species disappear forever.
Question 17: Which is no longer considered a major cause of the mass extinction ?
A. The building of dams across rivers B. The destruction of habitats of species
C. The destruction of tropical rainforests D. The killing of animals for their body parts
Question 18: The word butchered in line 5 is closest in meaning to _____.
A. killed B. fed C. cooked D. raised
Question 19: All of the following are mentioned as a form of habitat destruction EXCEPT _____ .
A. destroying coral reefs B. cutting down forests
C. damming wetlands and rivers D. hunting rare birds and animals
Question 20: The passage mainly discusses ________.
A. human activities and their impact on species of animals
B. the ways in which species disappear
C. the mass extinction of species today
D. deforestation as a major cause of mass extinctions of species
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
The Asian Games take place every four years. The spirit of the Asian Games has been built
up over a long period of time, spreading the messages of unity, (21) _________, and friendship
through competitive sports. It helps to establish the relationships among individual (22)_______,
coaches, trainers, officials, volunteers and spectators who come together from many different
backgrounds and cultures. Just 11 countries and regions with 489 athletes participated in the 1st
Asian Games in New Delhi in 1951, with only six sports. The 15th Asian Games took place
(23)_________ December 1st to December 15th,2006, in Doha, the capital of Qatar. More than
10,000 athletes, who (24) _______ 45 countries and regions, took part in 39 sports and 424 events
of the games. Some new events such as chess and triathlon were also included in the Games.
Question 21: A. warmth B. warm C. warmly D. warmer
Question 22: A. viewers B. audiences C. partners D. athletes
Question 23: A. in B. on C. from D. at
Question 24: A. consisted B. represented C. played D. attended
WRITING TEST (2.8 points)

Combine the two sentences as directed in brackets. Write your answers on your answer sheet.
Question 25: The Town Hall was spacious and modern. I first met my wife in it. (use: where)
____________________________________________________________________________
Question 26: The experiment was successful. He conducted it at Da Nang University.
(begin with: The experiment he ___________ )
____________________________________________________________________________
Question 27: I got the present from the woman. She was very hospitable. (use: from whom)
____________________________________________________________________________
Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the one printed
before it. Write your answers on your answer sheet.
Question 28: My sister was the only person that was invited to the party.
The only person to _____________________________________________________________
Question 29: The 14th Asian Games took place in Busan, Korea.
It was in Busan, Korea ________________________________________________________
Question 30: The apartment overlooking the park is more expensive than this one.
The apartment which _________________________________________________________
Question 31: She has just marked the day when she is going to visit the temple.
The day on which ____________________________________________________________
--------The end--------

SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO QUẢNG NAM
HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM MÔN TIẾNG ANH LỚP 11 (7 NĂM)

HỌC KỲ 2-NĂM HỌC 2020-2021
II. Multiple choice : 7.2 điểm. Mỗi câu đúng: 0.3 điểm
Mã đề 501 Mã đề 502 Mã đề 503 Mã đề 504 Mã đề 505 Mã đề 506 Mã đề 507 Mã đề 508
Câu Đáp án Câu Đáp án Câu Đáp án Câu Đáp án Câu Đáp án Câu Đáp án Câu Đáp án Câu Đáp án
1 B 1 D 1 D 1 B 1 C 1 A 1 C 1 B
2 B 2 C 2 D 2 A 2 C 2 D 2 A 2 D
3 B 3 D 3 D 3 B 3 C 3 A 3 D 3 B
4 D 4 A 4 B 4 C 4 A 4 B 4 B 4 A
5 A 5 A 5 C 5 C 5 B 5 B 5 A 5 A
6 C 6 D 6 A 6 B 6 D 6 A 6 D 6 B
7 D 7 D 7 B 7 B 7 A 7 A 7 B 7 C
8 A 8 C 8 C 8 A 8 B 8 D 8 A 8 D
9 A 9 D 9 C 9 B 9 B 9 A 9 A 9 B
10 A 10 A 10 C 10 C 10 B 10 B 10 B 10 C
11 C 11 C 11 A 11 A 11 D 11 D 11 D 11 D
12 D 12 A 12 B 12 C 12 A 12 B 12 B 12 A
13 D 13 A 13 B 13 C 13 A 13 B 13 B 13 A
14 A 14 A 14 C 14 C 14 B 14 B 14 A 14 B
15 A 15 A 15 C 15 C 15 B 15 B 15 A 15 C
16 A 16 A 16 C 16 C 16 B 16 B 16 B 16 A
17 D 17 B 17 B 17 D 17 A 17 B 17 B 17 B
18 A 18 B 18 B 18 B 18 A 18 A 18 B 18 A
19 D 19 D 19 A 19 A 19 B 19 B 19 C 19 C
20 B 20 A 20 D 20 B 20 C 20 D 20 C 20 C
21 A 21 A 21 D 21 D 21 B 21 A 21 A 21 C
22 D 22 D 22 C 22 B 22 A 22 B 22 B 22 B
23 C 23 C 23 B 23 C 23 D 23 C 23 D 23 A
24 B 24 A 24 A 24 A 24 C 24 D 24 C 24 D
II. WRITING TEST: 2.8 điểm. Mỗi câu viết đúng: 0.4 điểm
Mã đề: 501, 503, 505, 507
Question 25: The Town Hall, where I first met my wife, was spacious and modern.
Question 26: The experiment he conducted at Da Nang University was successful.
Question 27: The woman from whom I got the present was very hospitable.
Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the one printed before it. Write your answers on your
answer sheet.
Question 28: The only person to be invited to the party was my sister.
Question 29: It was in Busan, Korea that the 14th Asian Games took place.
Question 30: The apartment which overlooks the park is more expensive than this one.
Question 31: The day on which she is going to visit the temple has just been marked
Mã đề: 502, 504, 506, 508

Question 25: The Riverside Restaurant, where I have lunch with Tom, is very beautiful.
Question 26: The professor we are interviewing at the moment is quite excellent.
Question 27: The chair on which he was sitting was uncomfortable.
Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the one printed before it. Write your answers on your
answer sheet.
Question 28: The only boy to be awarded a big prize was John.
Question 29: It was in India that the first Asian Games were held.
Question 30: The wall which surrounds our house is made of bricks.
Question 31: The time at which he first met her has never been forgotten.
SỞ GD&ĐT VĨNH LONG ĐỀ KIỂM TRA HỌC KỲ II NĂM HỌC 2020 -2021
TRƯỜNG THCS-THPT MÔN: TIẾNG ANH KHỐI 11
TRƯNG VƯƠNG Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút (bao gồm trắc nghiệm và tự luận)
Đề thi gồm có: 04 trang
ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC
Họ và tên thí sinh:……………………………………………. Lớp : ...............SBD:…………
GIÁM THỊ GIÁM KHẢO

ĐIỂM MÃ ĐỀ
(Họ tên, chữ ký) (Họ tên, chữ ký)
123
Lưu ý: Đáp án True (T) tô A, đáp án False (F) tô D
A. LISTENING: ( 2 points)
Part 1. Listen to the passage and decide whether the statements are True (T) or False (F):
1. ______ All colleges have their own impressive sports facilities.
2. ______ The most popular outdoor sports are football and tennis.
3. ______Motor racing is one of the popular sports in Britain.
4. ______ “ To play the game” means “ That’s not fair”.
5. ______ The most popular sport in Britain is football.
Page 1/4 - code 123
Part 2. Listen to Amanda talking to a friend about a birthday party. For each question,
circle the best answer (A, B, C). You will hear the conversation twice:
6. Ecology is the study of______
A. human beings and animals B. the environment and solar energy
C. natural and alternative resources D. human beings and their environment
7. The natural environment consists of______
A. the oceans and the land B. the sun and the air
C. all natural resources D. the air and the oceans
8. If the resource can be______, it is called renewable.
A. burnt quickly B. used easily
C. divided properly D. replaced quickly
9. Grass for animals is a______ resource.
A. renewable B. nonrenewable
C. limited D. clean
10. According to the passage, coal is nonrenewable because it takes ______to make it.
A. billions of years B. millions of years
C. three million years D. three billion years
B. LANGUAGE FOCUS: ( 2 points)
@ Pick out the word with the underlined part pronounced differently from the others:
11. A. promoted B. ranked C. situated D. proceeded
12. A. chamber B. belongings C. tomb D. block
@ Pick out the word that has the stress pattern differently from that of the others:
13. A. structure B. transport C. surpass D. involve
@ Choose the best option of words to complete the sentences:
14. A visit to the Great wall will certainly bring tourists great ______ in each step of the wall.
A. excite B. exciting C. excitement D. excited
15. After a lot of difficulty, he ______ open the door
A. can B. was able to C. could D. had to
16. The Great Pyramid of Gaza is one of the famous man-made wonders of the world.
A. artificial B. natural C. modern D. eternal
17. She will be flying to New York this time tomorrow, ______ ?
A. will she B. won’t she C. is she D. isn’t she
18. In a ______ in Japan ,people of all ages wanted to travel into space.
A. discovery B. election C. interview D. survey
19. Prisoner …………… to have escaped by climbing over a wall.
A. thinks B. thought C. is thinking D. is thought
20. The man showed us the cage ______ he kept a fierce lion.
A. which B. that C. in which D. in that
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C. READING: (2 points)
I. Choose the word or phrase- a, b, c or d - that best fits the blank space in the following
passage.
Astronauts must be tied to something to prevent them floating around and bumping into
equipment (21)__________ they sleep . They may sleep in their seats or in upright lockers or
(22)__________ tie themselves to the wall in a sleeping bag. Sometimes they forget to strap
down and end up floating around inside the ship, much to the amusement of their fellow
crewmembers. On some missions all the crew sleep (23)__________ the same time but during
others, they may work round the clock in two shifts. As their ship is traveling (24)__________
fast, they see a sunrise every 90 minutes. Many astronauts find it a difficult way to keep their
body clock running smoothly and do not get a lot of sleep. Besides that some of them complain
of flashes across their eyelids as they are (25)__________ to sleep caused by cosmic rays
zipping through the ship. So although it might seem nice to have a weightless night's sleep it is
not always possible in reality.
21. A.as B.because C.since D.so
22. A.simply B.approximately C.precisely D.attentively
23. A.on B.at C.in D.for
24. A.such B.much C.so D.too
25. A.wanting B.needing C.liking D.trying
II. Read the passage carefully, then choose the correct answers.
The scarcity of tigers and African elephants is more and more serious. They are endangered
because poachers hunt them in order to sell tiger pelts and elephant ivory.
At least 4,000 elephants are killed each year in order to meet the global demand for ivory,
which is used to make carvings, jewelry and other products although it is illegal to sell ivory
since 1989 anywhere.
“Americans should be aware that there is still a problem with elephant poaching and loss
to the illegal ivory trade,” Ginette Hemley, Fund’s vice president for species conservation, told
The Washington Post in September. And so our message is “Don’t buy it, and don’t take that
chance”.
A Wildlife Fund report states that the United States seized 8,300 illegal ivory items
between 1995 and 2002. Each week there are about 1,000 ivory auctions, the report said.
As for tigers, their parts are used in traditional Chinese medicine. Tiger bones are used as
a pain reliever in traditional medicine. Even tiger’s whiskers are sold because some people in
Asia think they are a good-luck charm – like a rabbit’s foot in the United States. “ Part of our
job is education,” said Professor Dillon. “ The other part is law enforcement. So we have more
than one strategy.”
26. Hunters poach tigers for their _______
A. ivory B. pelts C. carving D. jewelry
27. Which sentence is NOT true?
A. Elephants are hunted for their ivory.
B. It is legal to sell ivory everywhere.
C. There are about 4,000 elephants killed each year.
D. Elephant ivory is used to made jewelry.
28. The word it in line 8 referred to _______
A. an elephant B. a tiger C. tiger pelts D. elephant ivory
29. The Chinese use parts of the tiger as_______
A. carving B. jewelry C. decoration D. medicine
30. According to Professor Dillon, _______
A. there is only one strategy to solve the problem
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B. it is education that can help to solve the problem
C. we need both education and law enforcement to solve the problem
D. only law enforcement can help to solve the problem
D. WRITING: (2 points)
I. Rewrite these sentences without changing their original meanings:
31. I enjoyed the music. We listened to it after dinner.
 I__________________________________________________________________
32. John, who was taken by surprise, hardly knew what to say.
 John ____________________________________________________________________
33. Her father gave her a nice present on her birthday.

 It was her father ______________________________________________
34. I haven’t been to the dentist’s for two years.
 It’s __________________________________________________________________
35. It is reported that many people are homeless after the floods.
Many people___________________________________________________________
II. Write a paragraph (about 80 words) about your collection, real or imaginary, following
these guidelines.
 Name of your collection
 When you started your collection
 How you collect them
 How you keep them
 How you classify them
 Why you collect them
 Your plan in the future
…………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………….…………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………….………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………
….………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………….……………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………
…….……………………………………………………………………………
THE END
GOOD LUCK
Page 4/4 - code 123

ANSWER KEY – HKII. AV 11 (2020-2021)
MÃ ĐỀ 123
A. LISTENING: ( 0,2 x 10 = 2 points)

Part 1. Listen to the passage and decide whether the statements are True (T) or False (F):
1. F 2. F 3.T 4. F 5. T
Part 2. Listen to Amanda talking to a friend about a birthday party. For each question,
circle the best answer (A, B, C). You will hear the conversation twice:
6. D 7. C 8. D 9.A 10. B
TAPESCRIPT
PART 1
PART 2
The natural environment includes all natural resources that are necessary for life: the air,
the oceans, the sun and the land. Because they are vital for life these resources must be
protected from pollution and conserved. Ecologists study their importance and how to use them
carefully.
According to ecologists, resources are divided into 2 groups: renewable and non-
renewable. When a resource can be replaced quickly, it is called renewable. If it cannot be
replaced quickly and easily, it is non-renewable. For example grass for animals is a renewable
resource. When cows eat the grass, the resource is used. If the soil is fertilized and protected,
more grass will grow. Coal, however, is nonrenewable because it takes millions of years to
make coal. All fossil fuels are nonrenewable resources.
B. LANGUAGE FOCUS: ( 0,2 x 10 = 2 points) Choose the best option of words:
11. B. ranked
12C
13A
14C
15B
Page 5/4 - code 123
16A
17B
18D
19D
20C
C. READING: ( 0,2 x 10 = 2 points)
21A
22A
23B
24C
25D
26B
27B
28D
29D
30C
D. WRITING: ( 2 points)
I. Rewrite these sentences without changing their original meanings: (0,2 x 5 = 1 point)
31. I enjoyed the music to which we listened after dinner.
32. John, taken by surprise, hardly knew what to say.
33. It was her father that gave her a nice present on her birthday.
34. It’s two years since I last went to the dentist’s.
35. Many people are reported to be homeless after the floods
II. Write a paragraph (about 80 words)

Mỗi ý đúng được 0,1 x 7 = 0.7 đ
Đúng chính tả: 0.1đ
Đúng ngữ pháp, cấu trúc câu: 0.1đ
Đủ số lượng từ 0.1đ
Page 6/4 - code 123

SỞ GD VÀ ĐT HẢI DƯƠNG ĐỀ KIỂM TRA HỌC KỲ II, NĂM HỌC 2020-2021
TRƯỜNG THPT ĐOÀN THƯỢNG Môn: TIẾNG ANH 11 – CƠ BẢN
Thời gian làm bài: 45 phút (không tính thời gian giao đề)
MÃ ĐỀ THI: 132 Số câu của đề thi: 29 câu – Số trang: 03 trang
- Họ và tên thí sinh: .................................................... – Số báo danh : ........................
A. PHẦN TRẮC NGHIỆM (TÔ VÀO MẶT TRƯỚC)
Choose the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the followings
1. The Vietnamese participants always take part ______________ sport events with great enthusiasm
A. at B. in C. on D. to
2. Your mother likes cooking,______________ ?
A. isn't she B. doesn't she C. didn't she D. doesn't your mother
3. A snail's shell is ______________in form.
A. theory B. pyramid C. spiral D. mysterious
4. It was his bicycle______________I borrowed yesterday.
A. whom B. that C. who D. whose
5. The fire was so big but the firemen______________to stop it.
A. couldn't B. weren't able to C. were able to D. could
6. Mickey: "______________?" Pluto: "I like collecting stamps."
A. What do you plan to do next B. How do you collect stamps
C. Where do you keep stamps D. What is your hobby
Read the following passage and choose A, B, C, and D to answer the following questions
Many people like to keep pets. Dogs and cats are very popular pets. Some people, however, keep birds
or goldfish. They need less space and are easier to look after.
If you want to have a pet, you can buy one from a pet shop but you must be careful not to buy a sick
animal. It is best if you know something about the pet you want. This helps you choose a healthy pet. However,
if you do not have much money and know very little about animals, you can visit the Royal Society for the
Prevention of Cruelty to Animals (RSPCA).
The first society for the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals was founded in England in 1821. It was set
up to make sure that all animals are treated with kindness. The RSPCA in Hong Kong carries out this aim. The
RSPCA officers collect animals which have no homes and are left in the street. They look after them until they
are healthy again. People visiting the RSPCA may choose their pets from these animals and you can be sure
that you will get a healthy pet. If later your pet becomes ill, you can take it to the doctors at the RSPCA for
treatment.
When you have a pet, it is very important that you look after it properly. You must remember to feed
it at suitable times. You should also give it a clean and comfortable place to rest. Your pet will be happy and
healthy if you love it and care for it properly.
7. According to the passage, what kind of pet needs less space?

A. A dog B. A mouse C. A cat D. A goldfish
8. What can help you choose a healthy pet?
A. Learning about a pet you want B. Being careful with your money
C. Having a lot of money D. Visiting many pet shops
9. In which was the first society for the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals founded?
A. in England B. more than 1000 years ago
C. in 1842 D. in 1924
10. What does the RSPCA do with sick and homeless animals?
A. Give them to people who cure sick pets B. Sell them to pet shops
C. Make them healthy again D. Leave them in the streets
Choose the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the others
11. A. chamber B. tomb C. bank D. belongings
12. A. precise B. flight C. orbit D. desire
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Read the following passage and choose the correct option A, B, C, or D that best fits each of the
numbered blanks.
Forty - two years ago, two Americans landed on the moon, taking the human race to (13)_______ planet
for the first time. On July 16, 1969 Armstrong, Aldrin and Collins climed into Apollo 11. The unit's Saturn V
rocket, equipped (14)_______ the most powerful engines ever built, blasted them into space. Their trajectory
took them around the Earth and toward the moon when a third-stage rocket fired. Two modules-the Eagle, for
landing, and the Columbia, a command and service center- entered the moon's (15)_______ on July 19. Neil
Armstrong, Buzz Aldrin, piloting the Eagle landing module, stepped down on the moon on July 20,1969.The
third US astronaut ,Michael Collins ,was in the orbiting command module overhead. "That's one small step
for a man, one giant leap for mankind", said Armstrong. The words were seared into the memories of the 600
million some people- about 1/5 of our planet's population at that time (16)_______ watched the broadcast
transmitted from the lunar surface. And for a time it seemed the impossible was just the beginning.
13. A. other B. many C. all D. another

14. A. about B. with C. in D. of
15. A. orbit B. gravity C. conquest D. space
16. A. whose B. when C. who D. where
Choose the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction. ( 0.5 points )
17. (A) Many species have become (B) extinction because of the (C) interferences (D) of human beings.
18. (A) Thank you for you letter, (B) in that you invited me (C) to your (D) birthday party.
LISTENING
Listen to the recording and answer the questions.
19. The man only needs to take ______ more classes to graduate from college.
A. three B. five C. two D. four
20. The man lives _______.
A. with his friends B. with his parents C. in hostels D. on campus
21. He is graduating in the ______.
A. autumn B. summer C. winter D. spring
22. He is going to _______ if he doesn't work for his father.
A. travel overseas B. apply for another company
C. make computer software D. go back to school
Listen to the recording and decide whether the statement are True or False.
23. Sarah's first question is about what type of books Charlie likes reading.
A. False B. True
24. Sarah asks Charlie to name three types of books that he likes.
A. True B. False
25. Charlie spends about $50 a month on books.
A. True B. False
26. Charlie buys books from the internet.
A. False B. True
B. PHẦN TỰ LUẬN (VIẾT VÀO MẶT SAU)

WRITING
Rewrite the following sentences, beginning as shown, without changing their meaning. (0.25 point)
27. It is said that Atlantis was a prosperous city in ancient time.
Atlantis is said ________________________________________________________.
Rewrite the sentences using Cleft sentence focus on the underlined part. (0.25 point)
28. John broke my glasses last night.
 It __________________________________________________________________.
II. In about 130 words, write a biography of Pham Tuan, the first Vietnamese cosmonaut in space.
Your writing should include the information given. (1.0 point)

. Date of birth: February 14, 1947
. Place of birth: Thai Binh province, Vietnam
. Known as: the first Vietnamese cosmonaut, first
person from a third world country, and first Asian
( excluding Russia) in space.
. Career:
+ 1965: join the Vietnam People’s Air Force.
+ December 12, 1972: become the first and the
only pilot to shot down a United States B-52
bomber over Hanoi.
+ receive Ho Chi Minh Order, Order of Lenin, “
Hero of the Soviet Union.
+ July 23, 1980: be launched into space, together
with Soviet cosmonaut Viktor Gorbatko.
+ be in space for 7 days, 20 hours and 42
minutes.
Pham Tuan
Vietnamese cosmonaut
*** THE END ***

SỞ GD VÀ ĐT HẢI DƯƠNG ĐỀ KIỂM TRA HỌC KỲ II, NĂM HỌC 2020-2021
TRƯỜNG THPT ĐOÀN THƯỢNG Môn: TIẾNG ANH 11 – CƠ BẢN
Thời gian làm bài: 45 phút (không tính thời gian giao đề)
ĐÁP ÁN Số câu của đề thi: 29 câu – Số trang: 03 trang
Đáp án mã đề: 132

01. B 02. B 03. C 04. B 05. C
06. D 07. D 08. A 09. A 10. C
11. B 12. C 13. D 14. B 15. A
16. C 17. B 18. B 19. A 20. B
21. B 22. D 23. A 24. A 25. B 26. B

01. A 02. A 03. D 04. D 05. B
06. B 07. C 08. C 09. C 10. B
11. C 12. B 13. B 14. A 15. D
16. C 17. B 18. A 19. B 20. B
21. B 22. D 23. B 24. A 25. B 26. A

01. B 02. A 03. C 04. D 05. A
06. A 07. B 08. D 09. A 10. B
11. C 12. C 13. B 14. B 15. D
16. C 17. B 18. C 19. B 20. D
21. D 22. D 23. B 24. A 25. A 26. B

01. B 02. B 03. A 04. B 05. D
06. A 07. C 08. A 09. B 10. C
11. B 12. C 13. D 14. C 15. B
16. C 17. B 18. A 19. D 20. A
21. A 22. B 23. A 24. B 25. A 26. B
WRITING
Rewrite the following sentences, beginning as shown, without changing their meaning. (0.25 point)
27. It is said that Atlantis was a prosperous city in ancient time.
Atlantis is said to have been a prosperous city in ancient time.
Rewrite the sentences using Cleft sentence focus on the underlined part. (0.25 point)
28. John broke my glasses last night.
 It was John who/that broke my glasses last night.
SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO BẾN TRE ĐỀ KIỂM TRA CUỐI KỲ II NĂM HỌC 2020 - 2021
TRƯỜNG THPT LẠC LONG QUÂN Môn: TIẾNG ANH - Lớp: 11 (CT 7 năm)
(Đề có 02 trang) Thời gian làm bài: 45 phút, không tính thời gian giao đề
Mã đề: 01 Học sinh làm bài trực tiếp trên đề thi
- Họ và tên:..................................................................
- Lớp: ......................... SBD: ................................. Phần nói ……........... Phần viết ……........... Điểm TC ................
I. LISTENING
Task 1: Listen and decide whether the statements are true (T) or false (F) (1m) T/F
1. The writer started his hobby when he was young _______
2. His parents were bored with reading fairy tales and other stories to him _______
3. According to the writer, by reading he does not have to study hard. _______
4. Books might help him in his daily life. _______
Task 2: Listen again and write the missing words (1m)
(5)
The _______ thing about reading is that I do not have to learn things the very hard way. For example, I do not have to catch
a ______ to (6)know that it can kill me. I know the danger so I can ovoid it. Also I do not have to go deep into the jungle to find
out about tigers. I can real all about it in a book.
Books provide the reader with do many facts and so much ______.(7) They have ______ helped
(8) me in may daily life.
I am better equipped to cope with thing.
=> 5. ______ 6. ______ 7. _________ 8. __________
II. MULTIPLE CHOICE (5ms)
Choose the word that has the underlined part pronounced differently from the others
9. A. begins B. keeps C. tells D. plays
10. A. laughed B. loved C. pressed D. kissed
Choose the word that has the stressed part pronounced differently from the others (0,5m)
11. A. practise B. collection C. organize D. envelope
12. A. biology B. chemistry C. history D. mystery
Choose the best answer (A, B, C or C) for each sentences
13. If you want to send a document and do not want to lose its original shape, send it by _________.
A. mail B. fax C. telephone D. transportation
14. You didn’t remember the name of the story, ___________?
A. did you B. did not you C. are you D. do you
15. In 1961, Yuri Gagarin lifted __________ into space aboard the Vostok 1.
A. for B. in C. up D. off
16. The waste from the chemical factory is extremely __________.
A. harm B. unharmed C. harmless D. harmful
17. It was at the shop __________ he first met her and fell in love with her.
A. where B. that C. which D. 
18. Solar energy is not only plentiful and infinite but also clean and safe.
A. uncountable B. boundless C. inflexible D. unlimited
19. Let’s go for a walk, _________?
A. shall we B. shan’t we C. won’t we D. will we
20. It ________ my mother that gave me a present on my birthday.
A. has been B. is being C. is D. was
21. When travelling into space, astronauts must wear __________.
A. uniforms B. air suits C. space suits D. head wear
Choose the underlined part A, B, C or D that need correcting
22. After Diego finished his lunch, he listened to some music for a while.
A B C D
23. Tom Hanks, who with Gelson had previously worked, contacted him about the role.
A B C D
Choose the word that best fits the blank space in the following passage.
There are so many things you have to do when you (24) ________. Always make sure your luggage has a (n)
(25) _________ on it. If you’re traveling by train, the first thing you have to do is buy yourself a ticket. You usually
have to stand in a (26) _________ and it’s easy to miss your train and then (27) ________ hours waiting for the next
one! You buy a single or (28) ________ticket, and then look for a car where you hope you will find a free seat. At
last, you can get into the train and sat down to enjoy the journey.
Đề kiểm tra cuối kỳ II - Môn TIẾNG ANH 11 (CT 7 năm) - Mã đề 01 1

24. A. travel B. journey C. go D. voyage
25. A. a card B. etiquette C. ticket D. label
26. A. a line B. row C. queue D. stand
27. A. a lose B. waste C. miss D. worth
28. A. return B. express C. double D. two
Read the passage carefully and choose the correct answer (1m)
When you get stuck in traffic, you roll up all windows of your car and open the air recirculation system. You may
think those measures can protect your nose from the nasty smelling fumes going up from the cars around you.
Actually, recent researches have shown that on the road exposure to pollutants can damage the heart.
Over the past several years, it has been proved that air pollution worsens heart disease and even causes heart
attacks. Unfortunately, up to now there has not been any effective way to keep all the heart damaging particles form
entering your car. Experts suggest that those who have heart disease should not travel during rush hours.
The researchers from the National Research Center for Environment and Health in Germany asked 691 people
who suffered heart attacks to write down in detail their activities in the hours preceding the attacks. The researchers
found that the risk of a heart attack rose by nearly 30% when people were stuck in traffic, and it did not matter
whether the person was driving or simply a passenger on a bus, or another kind of public transportation.
29. The passage is about _______.
A. traffic jams
B. heart disease patients
C. the relation between air pollution and heart disease
D. means of transport for heart disease patients
30. Polluted air ________.
A. has no smell B. is pleasant to breathe
C. is unpleasant to breathe D. makes heart disease better
31. According to the writer, _______.
A. you may got a heart attack whenever you are traveling due to pollutants from cars
B. traffic jams cannot cause heart damage
C. traveling during rush hours is good for heart disease patients
D. heart attacks never happen during rush hours
32. Experts advise heart disease patients ____________.
A. not to go out B. not to go out during rush hours
C. not to use any means of transport D. not to use any public transportatior
33. Which sentence is true?
A. We can prevent heart attacks on road.
B. Traffic jams no longer happen.
C. We do not need to use the air recirculation system in our cars.
D. We have not got any way to prevent the heart damaging particles fron entering our cars.
09. A B C D 14. A B C D 19. A B C D 24. A B C D 29. A B C D
III. WRITING: (1m) Rewrite these sentences, using:
A. Defining / Non – defining relative clauses.
1. I met Jane’s father. He works at the university
-> I met _____________________________________________________________________
2. There are lots of interesting places. I’d like to visit them
-> There are _________________________________________________________________
B. Use: Present participle (V-ing); Past participle (V3/V-ed) or to infinitive to replace Relative clauses
3. The last person who leaves the room must turn off the lights.
-> The last person ____________________________________________________________
4. The people who are waiting for the bus in the rain are getting wet.
-> The people ________________________________________________________________
5. They live in a house that was built in 1890
-> They live in a house _________________________________________________________
--THE END---

ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ KIỂM TRA CUỐI KỲ II NĂM HỌC 2020-2021
Môn: TIẾNG ANH - Lớp: 11 (CT 7 năm)
Mã đề: 01
I- LISTENING (2ms) - 0,25/s
Task 1: 1.T 2. T 3. T 4. F
Task 2: 5. wonderful 6. disease 7. information 8. certainly
II- MULTIPLE CHOICE (5ms) - 0,2/s
9. B 14. A 19. B 24. A 29. C
10. B 15. D 20. D 25. D 30. C
11. B 16. D 21. C 26. C 31. A
12. A 17. B 22. A 27. B 32. B
13. B 18. D 23. A 28. A 33. D
II- WRITING (1m) - 0,2/s
A- 1. I met Jane’s father, who works at the university.
2. There are lots of interesting places which I’d like to visit.
B- 3. The last person to leave the room must turn off the light.
4. The people waiting for the bus in the rain are getting wet.
5. They live in a house built in 1980.

SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO BẾN TRE ĐỀ KIỂM TRA CUỐI KỲ II NĂM HỌC 2020 - 2021
TRƯỜNG THPT LẠC LONG QUÂN Môn: TIẾNG ANH - Lớp: 11 (CT 10 năm)
(Đề có 03 trang) Thời gian làm bài: 45 phút, không tính thời gian giao đề
Mã đề: 01 Học sinh làm bài trực tiếp trên đề thi
- Họ và tên:..................................................................
- Lớp: ......................... SBD: ................................. Phần nói ……........... Phần viết ……........... Điểm TC ............
SECTION I: LISTENING (2 marks)
* Bài nghe gồm 02 phần, mỗi phần nghe được 2 lần

* Học sinh đọc kỹ hướng dẫn câu hỏi trước khi nghe
Part 1: Listen to the recording twice and circle the correct answers (1mark)
1. The conversation is about_______.

A. how to cut down trees B. how to water the plants
C. how to save the environment D. how to wash the dishes
2. Alex says we should save water when_______.
A. planting trees B. washing cars
C. washing clothes D. taking a bath
3. The girl’s second suggestion is about_______.
A. separating different types of garbage B. disposing of trash properly
C. having a family clean-up party D. keeping the garbage at home
4. By recycling paper, we can_______.
A. save the energy B. protect the forests
C. cut down on waste D. avoid pollution
5. Once a month the children in her neighborhood________.
A. visit a recycling center B. clean a neighborhood park
C. collect newspapers D. take part in a campaign
Part 2: Listen to the recording , put a cross (x) to decide the following statements whether they are
True (T) or False (F). (1 mark)
STATEMENTS T F
6. The reading rooms are only open for group visit on Sundays
7. The library was officially opened in 1978
8. All the library rooms together cover 100,000 m2
9. The library is financed by the United Kingdom
10. The main function of the library is to provide resources for people doing research
SECTION II: USE OF LANGUAGE (4.0 marks)
Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently and circle the correct answers
1. A. decreased B. influenced C. endangered D. established
2. A. suppose B. surpass C. statue D. illustrate
Choose the word whose main stress is put differently and circle the correct answers
3. A. college B. degree C. language D. Subject
4. A. bachelor B. diploma C. internship D. scholarship
Đề kiểm tra cuối kỳ II- Môn TIẾNG ANH 11 (CT 10 năm) – Mã đề 01 1

Choose the word, phrase or sentence A, B,C or D that best completes each unfinished sentence, and
circle the correct answers
5. Nam never drinks beer, _________?
A. doesn’t he B. does he C. hasn’t he D. won’t he
6. If people’s ……… with the environment decreases, more species will survive.
A. interfere B. interfering C. interfered D. interference
7. Global warming leads _______ climate change.
A. in B. to C. on D. from
8. My friend _______ in Australia for a year. His course will end in June.
A. has been studying B. have been studying C. has studied D have studied
9. “Would you like to go to the cinema with me tonight?” he said.
A. He invited me to go to the cinema with him that night.
B. He offered me to go to the cinema with him tonight.
C. He asked me if I'd like to go to the cinema with him tonight.
D. He would like me to go to the cinema with him this night.
Choose A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of
the following questions and circle the correct answers
10. If People have solar panels on their roofs, theycan generate their own electricity.
A. purchase B. produce C. light D. separate
11. In addition to exploring the caves and grottos, and seeing its flora and fauna, visitors can also enjoy
mountain climbing.
A. flowers and plants B. plants and animals C. plants and vegetation D. flowers and grass
Choose A, B, C, or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of
the following questions and circle the correct answers
12. Although the pagoda was built almost a century ago, it remained practically intact.
A. in perfection B. in chaos C. in ruins D. in completion
13. Visitors with more abundant travel budgets can enjoy the comfort of five-star hotels and luxury cruise
ships.
A. huge B. plentiful C. mean D. tight
Error identification:
14. When we were in grade 9, we have known each other.
A BC D
15. Having met UNESCO criteria for outstanding universal value to humanity, Trang An Scenic Landscape
A B C
Complex is added to the World Heritage List in 2014.
D
READING COMPREHENSION
Read the following passage and circle the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the answer to each of the
question.
In addition to providing energy, fats have several other functions in the body. The fat soluble
vitamins, A, D, E and K, are dissolved in fats, as their name implies. Good sources of these vitamins have
high oil or fat content, and the vitamins are stored in the body's fatty tissues. In the diet, fats cause food
to remain longer in the stomach, this increasing the feeling of fullness for some time after a meal is eaten.
Fats add variety, taste, and texture to foods, which accounts for the popularity of fried foods. Fatty
deposits in the body have an insulating and protective value. The curves of the human female body are due
mostly to strategically located fat deposits.
Whether a certain amount of fat in the diet is essential to human health is not definitely known.
When rats are fed a fat-free diet, their growth eventually ceases, their skin becomes inflamed and scaly,
and their reproductive systems are damaged. Two fatty acids, linoleic and arachidonic acids, prevent these
abnormalities and hence are called essential fatty acids. They also are required by a number of other

animals but their roles in human beings are debatable. Most nutritionists consider linoleic fatty acid an
essential nutrient for humans.
16. This passage probably appeared in which of the following?
A. A diet book B. A book on basic nutrition
C. A cookbook D. A popular women's magazine
17. The phrase ‘stored in’ in line 3 is closest in meaning to
A. manufactured in B. attached to C. measured by D. accumulated
18.The author states that fats serve all the following body functions EXCEPT to
A. promote a feeling of fullness B. insulate and protect the body
C. provide energy D. control weight gain
19. Linoleic fatty acid is mentioned in the passage as

A. an essential nutrient for humans B. more useful than arachidonic acid
C. preventing weight gain in rats D. a nutrient found in most food
20. The phrase ‘these abnormalities’ in line 10 and 11 refers to
A. a condition caused by fried food B. strategically located fat deposits
C.curves on the human female body
D.cessation of growth, bad skin, and damaged reproductive systems
SECTION III: WRITING (2 marks)
Part 1: Give the correct form of the words in brackets (1 mark)

1. My parents often (courage) _________ me to study.
2. People need water, food, and even money for (survive)_________.
3. Air pollution is a (solve) _________problem in this city.
4. The government needs to solve the pollution problems to make the city (live)_________.
1. _________ 2. _________ 3. _________ 4. _________
Part 2: Rewrite the following sentences using the words given (1 mark)
5. Hoi An, which was formed about 400 million years ago, is the oldest and largest tropical limestone
region (Using participle to reduce relative clause )
 _________
6. After he had missed the last train, he began to walk. (Using perfect participle to rewrite the sentence)
 _________
7.They started building their house 5 days ago.
They have _________

8. “Kevin, remember to go to the class on time” said Kevin’s teacher
Kevin’s teacher reminded _________

ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ KIỂM TRA CUỐI KỲ II NĂM HỌC 2020-2021
Môn: TIẾNG ANH - Lớp: 11 (CT 10 năm)
Mã đề: 01
Section No Answer Mark Note

1 C 0.2
2 D 0.2
I. 3 B 0.2
LISTENING
2 marks 4 B 0.2
5 C 0.2
6 T 0.2
7 F (1998) 0.2
8 T 0.2
9 F (government) 0.2
10 T 0.2
1 C 0.2
2 C 0.2
II. USE OF 3 B 0.2
LANGUAGE
4 marks 4 B 0.2
5 B 0.2
6 D 0.2
7 B 0.2
8 A 0.2
9 A 0.2
10 B 0.2
11 B 0.2
12 C 0.2
13 D 0.2
14 A 0.2
15 D 0.2
16 B 0.2
17 D 0.2
18 D 0.2
19 A 0.2
20 D 0.2
III. 1 encourage 0.25
WRITING 2 survival 0.25
2 marks 3 insoluble 0.25
4 liveable 0.25
5 Hoi An, formed about 400 million years ago, is the 0.25
oldest and largest tropical limestone region.
6 Having missed the last train, he began to walk. 0.25
7 They have built their house for 5 days. 0.25
8 Kevin’s teacher reminded him to go to the class on time. 0.25

SỞ GIÁO DỤC- ĐÀO TẠO THÁI NGUYÊN ĐÊ KIỂM TRA HỌC KÌ II
TRƯỜNG THPT LƯƠNG NGỌC QUYẾN TIẾNG ANH LỚP 11 HỆ 7 NĂM
(Đề kiểm tra có 04 trang) Năm học: 2020- 2021
Thời gian làm bài: 45 phút (không kể thời gian phát đề)
MÃ ĐỀ 001 ĐIỂM
Họ và tên học sinh:....................................................
Số báo danh: ......................................
PHẦN TRẮC NGHIỆM

LISTENING: You will hear the recordings twice.
RECORDING 1: Listen to a sports instructor talking about five ASEAN Schools Games and decide
whether the statements are true (T) or false (F) or not given (NG).
Question 1. ASG stands for ASEAN Schools Games, an event that is organized every two years in one of
the ASEAN member states.
A. True B. False C. not given
Question 2. The ASG aims to establish and promote friendship among ASEAN students.
Question 3. The ASG offers the ASEAN youth a chance to discuss current issues in the region.
Question 4. Some of the teams went home empty-handed.
RECORDING 2: Listen to the passage and choose the best answer.
Question 5. People in ___________ areas have to gather wood to use as fuel.
A. rural B. mountainous C. urban D. highland
Question 6. Biogas is mainly used for __________.
A. transport B. cooking C. heating D. both B and C
Question 7. The use of renewable energy sources in developing countries is__________
A. on the increase B. on the decrease C. change rapidly D. not improved
Question 8. In the future, ________ will be used as the main environmentally friendly sources.
A. the wind B. the water C. the sun D. both A and C
PRONUNCIATION
Choose the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three
in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 9. A. small B. supply C. sure D. species
Question 10. A. swimmer B. sword C. swallow D. swam
GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s)
in each of the following questions.
Question 11. I just collect stamps from discarded envelopes.
A. thrown away B. given up C. got away D. done up
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s)
Question 12. The staff of the hotel are always sociable and courteous.
A. efficient B. rude C. helpful D. hard-working
Choose the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 13. The Garment company was fined for _______ chemicals into the river.
A. discharging B. dumping C. producing D. exposing.
Question 14. This is a picture in the newspaper of a high jumper _______ leg was seriously hurt.
A. who B. that C. whose D. whom
Question 15. Water is one of the most precious resources _____________ for our life.
A. we depend on which B. which we depend
C. on which we depend D. on that we depend
Question 16. “You're late again, Peter.” – “____”
A. It's none of your business. B. Only 5 minutes left.
C. I'm sorry. My car was broken this morning. D. I expect not to be fired.
Mark the letter A, B, G, or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the
Question 17. The 14th Asian games, holding in Korea in 2002, attracted many participants.
A B C D
Question 18. It was the girl which visited her grandparents last Sunday.
A B C D
READING
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word or
phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
Becoming a collector of something is very interesting. The most interesting is_______(19) stamps because
there are so many to choose from. Stamps - collecting _______(20) a hobby of millions of people all over
the world for more than some hundred years. Nobody_______(21) how many stamps there are in the
world. The _______(22) problem of all for the beginner is just which stamps to collect, as there are so
many and nobody could collect them all. Many people collect stamps of one country, perhaps the one they
live_______(23) or small group of countries, or a theme. "Thematic collection" means gather all stamps
in connection with an idea.
Question 19. A. collect B. collection C. collects D. collecting
Question 20. A. is being B. has been C. was D. is
Question 21. A. have known B. are knowing C. knows D. know
Question 22. A. big B. bigger C. most big D. biggest
Question 23. A. in B. of C. on D. at
Read the passage and choose the best option to answer the question.
We are all slowly destroying the earth. The seas and rivers are too dirty to swim in. There is so much
smoke in the air that it is unhealthy to live in many of the world’s cities. In one well-known city, for
example, poisonous gases from cars pollute the air so much that traffic policemen have to wear oxygen
masks. We have cut down so many trees that there are now vast areas of waste-land all over the world. As
a result, farmers in parts of Africa cannot grow enough to eat. In certain countries in Asia there is too little
rice. Moreover, we do not take enough care of the countryside. Wild animals are quickly disappearing.
For instant, tigers are rare in India now because we have killed too many for them to survive. However, it
isn’t enough simply to talk about the problem. We must act now before it is too late to do anything about
it. Join us now. Save the Earth. This is too important to ignore.
Question 24. The seas and rivers nowadays _____.
A. cannot be swum in B. are less dirty than they used to be
C. are dirty enough to swim in D. are contaminated
Question 25. Smoke _____.
A. is harmful to health B. is full of the big cities
C. leads to a healthy life D. makes life in big cities difficult
Question 26. In one well-known city, traffic policemen have to wear oxygen masks _____.
A. in order to protect themselves from being injured
B. because there are so many cars on the streets
C. in spite of poisonous gases
D. because of air pollution
Question 27. Why do farmers in parts of Africa and Asia not grow enough to eat ?
A. Because many trees have been planted B. Because people cut down many trees
C. Because there is too little rice D. Because there are large areas of land that cannot be used
Question 28. Wild animals are _____.
A. in danger of extinction B. being protected from natural environment
C. killed so many that they cannot live in the forests D. so rare that they cannot survive
PHẦN TỰ LUẬN
Give the correct form of the words in the brackets
Question 29. The orchestra is very important for the...............................life of the city. (CULTURE)
Question 30. Gas and oil.....................................always increases in cold weather. (CONSUME)
Question 31. A back injury prevented active.....................................in any sports for a while.
(PARTICIPATE)
Question 32. The Lake District offers...................................attractive areas in England. (SCENE)
Rewrite the following sentences without changing their meanings
Question 33. The woman who was seating behind me was eating popcorn. (Reduced relative clause)
-> The woman _____________________________________________________________
Question 34. Lan’ s mother got angry with her. (using Cleft sentence )
-> ______________________________________________________________
Question 35. Brad was the only person who discovered her secret. (Reduced relative clause)
-> Brad was _________________________________________________________________
Question 36. The teacher is Mr. Pike. We studied with him last year.
(Relative pronoun preceded by a preposition)
-> The teacher _______________________________________________________________.
Questions 37- 40: Write a description (about 130 words) of Dream National Park, using the facts
and figures below.
DREAM NATIONAL PARK

SOME FACTS AND FIGURES
Location: Heaven Island
175 km west of Sunshine
Special features: tropical forests and coastal waters
white sand beach, abundant natural resources,
beautiful landscapes, rare animals and plants.
Total area: 29,150 ha
species of birds: 160
Animals and plants: species of animals: 35
species of fish: 170
species of plants: 320
Historic features: Human bones
7000 year old stone tools
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- THE END –
Họ và tên học sinh:....................................................
Số báo danh: ......................................

B. True B. False C. not given
PRONUNCIATION
Question 9. A. pesticide B. city C. centre D. campaign
Question 10. A. rugby B. nearby C. cycling D. apply
Question 11. . Many organizations have been set up and funds have been raised.
A. established B. collapsed C. delayed D. decreased
Question 12. The pollution problem is very complicated to solve.
A. quick B. easy C. complex D. prompt
Question 13. Nearly 500 ____ from 11 nations took part in the first Asian Games in New Delhi, Indian.
A. viewers B. spectators C. athletes D. passers-by
Question 14. There were many scientists at the meeting, several of ____ were very young.
A. That B. whom C. who D. which
Question 15. Linda was the last student________ at the oral exam.
A. to be asked B. asking C. asks D. to ask
Question 16. - Hung: "Thank you very much for a lovely party" - Hoa: “___________”
A. You are welcome B. Thanks C. Cheers D. Have a good day
Question 17. Natural resources provide the saw material are needed to produce finished goods.
A B C D
Question 18. They work in a hospital sponsoring by the government.
A B C D
READING
Read the passage and choose the correct option A, B, C or D that best fits each of numbered
blanks.
Every ten minutes, one kind of animal, plant or insect dies (19)........ forever. If nothing is done about it,
one million species that are alive today will have become (20)........ twenty years from now. The seas are
in (21)....... They are being filled with poison: industrial and nuclear (22)........, chemical fertilizers and
pesticides, sewage. The Mediterranean is already nearly dead; the North Sea is following. If nothing is
done about it, one day soon nothing will be able to live in the seas.
The tropical rain forests, which are the (23)........ of half the earth's living things (including many rare
animals and plants), are being destroyed. If nothing is done about it, they will have disappeared in twenty
years.
Question 19. A. off B. on C. out D. over
Question 20. A. extinguished B. extinct C. distinct D. invalid
Question 21. A. danger B. death C. debt D. despair
Question 22. A. waste B. rubbish C. essence D. mixture
Question 23. A. container B. origin C. house D. home
Scientists often divide resources into two groups: renewable and non– renewable. When a resource is
used, it takes some times to replace it. If the resource can be replaced quickly and easily, it is called
renewable. If it cannot be replaced quickly and easily, it is non-renewable. All fossil fuels are non-
renewable resources. Solar energy, air, and water are usually called renewable because there is an
unlimited supply. However, this definition may change if people are not careful with these resources. The
amount of solar energy that reaches the earth depends on the atmosphere. If the atmosphere is polluted,
the solar energy that reaches the earth may be dangerous. If humans continue to pollute the air, it will not
contain the correct amounts of these gases. Many resources are limited and nonrenewable, and many are
in danger of pollution. As a consequence, resources must be conserved and the environment protected.
Conservation must become an important part of everyone’s life.
Question 24. How many kinds of resources are mentioned in the passage?
A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5
Question 25. Non-renewable resources are those which _______
A. are unlimited B. can be replaced quickly and easily
C. take millions of the years to replace D. are used every day such as solar energy and water
Question 26. What will happen if the atmosphere is polluted?
A. The air won’t contain the correct amounts of natural gases B. Life won’t continue as it does
C. Renewable resources will soon become nonrenewable D. All are correct
Question 27. The word conservation in the passage is opposite to
A. prevention B. Destruction C. protection D. preservation
Question 28. Why do we have to conserve resources?
A. Because many resources are limited and non-renewable
B. Because conservation plays an important part in everyone’s life
C. To keep the air from being polluted
D. To make natural resources renewable
PHẦN TỰ LUẬN
Question 29. The club provides a...........................of activities including swimming, tennis, and squash.
(VARY)
Question 30. An............................disaster will alter the whole balance of ecology in that area.
(ECOLOGY)
Question 31. Demonstrations were held as a gesture of……...............with the hunger strikers. (SOLID)
Question 32. Nature is in danger because people discharge rubbish into the environment ………….
(REGULAR)
Question 33. Your son was the 2nd child who was kidnapped in this way. (Reduced relative clause)
Your son _____________________________________________________________
Question 34. Fan gave Christina lots of flowers. (using Cleft sentence )
It ______________________________________________________________
Question 35. The couple who lives next to us have 6 children. (Reduced relative clause)
The couple _________________________________________________________________
Question 36. Many diseases are no longer dangerous. People died of them years ago.
Many diseases _______________________________________________________________.
Questions 37- 40. Write a description (about 130 words) of Cuc Phuong National Park, using the
facts and figures below.
CUC PHUONG NATIONAL PARK

Location: Ninh Binh, 160 kilometers south west of Ha Noi
Special features: beautiful mountains and caves,
hundreds of rare animals and plants.
different orchids: 50
species of other plants: 1944
first of Vietnam’s nine national parks to be established,
Other features:
the 1,000- year- old tree.
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- THE END -
Họ và tên học sinh:....................................................
Số báo danh: ......................................

C. True B. False C. not given
READING
A. Because many trees have been planted
B. Because people cut down many trees
C. Because there is too little rice
D. Because there are large areas of land that cannot be used
PRONUNCIATION
A B C D
A B C D
PHẦN TỰ LUẬN
-> The woman _____________________________________________________________
-> _______________________________________________________________________
-> Brad was _________________________________________________________________
-> The teacher _______________________________________________________________.
(PARTICIPATE)
and figures below.
DREAM NATIONAL PARK

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- THE END –
Họ và tên học sinh:....................................................
Số báo danh: ......................................

D. True B. False C. not given
READING
blanks.
years.
A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5
A. are unlimited
B. can be replaced quickly and easily
C. take millions of the years to replace
D. are used every day such as solar energy and water
A. The air won’t contain the correct amounts of natural gases
B. Life won’t continue as it does
C. Renewable resources will soon become nonrenewable
D. All are correct
PRONUNCIATION
A B C D
A B C D
PHẦN TỰ LUẬN
Your son _____________________________________________________________
It ______________________________________________________________
The couple _________________________________________________________________
Many diseases _______________________________________________________________.
(VARY)
(ECOLOGY)
(REGULAR)

Other features:
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- THE END –
Họ và tên học sinh:....................................................
Số báo danh: ......................................

E. True B. False C. not given
E. True B. False C. not given
A B C D
A B C D
READING
PRONUNCIATION
PHẦN TỰ LUẬN
(PARTICIPATE)
-> The woman _____________________________________________________________
-> ______________________________________________________________
-> Brad was _________________________________________________________________
-> The teacher _______________________________________________________________.
and figures below.
DREAM NATIONAL PARK

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- THE END -
Họ và tên học sinh:....................................................
Số báo danh: ......................................


A.True B. False C. not given
READING
blanks.
years.
A B C D
A B C D
A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5
PRONUNCIATION
PHẦN TỰ LUẬN
(VARY)
(ECOLOGY)
(REGULAR)
Your son _____________________________________________________________
It ______________________________________________________________
The couple _________________________________________________________________
Many diseases _______________________________________________________________.

Other features:
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- THE END -
Họ và tên học sinh:....................................................
Số báo danh: ......................................

READING

A B C D
A B C D
PRONUNCIATION
PHẦN TỰ LUẬN
-> The woman _____________________________________________________________
-> _______________________________________________________________________
-> Brad was _________________________________________________________________
-> The teacher _______________________________________________________________.
(PARTICIPATE)
and figures below.
DREAM NATIONAL PARK

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- THE END -
Họ và tên học sinh:....................................................
Số báo danh: ......................................

READING
A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5
PRONUNCIATION
blanks.
years.
A B C D
A B C D
PHẦN TỰ LUẬN
Your son _____________________________________________________________
It ______________________________________________________________
The couple _________________________________________________________________
Many diseases _______________________________________________________________.
(VARY)
(ECOLOGY)
(REGULAR)

Other features:
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- THE END -
SỞ GIÁO DỤC- ĐÀO TẠO THÁI NGUYÊN ĐÁP ÁN ĐÊ KIỂM TRA HỌC KÌ II
MÃ ĐỀ 001
1.B 4.B 7.A 10.B 13.A 16.C 19.D 22.D

2.B 5.B 8.D 11.A 14.C 17.B 20.B 23.A
3.B 6.D 9.C 12.B 15.C 18.C 21.C 24.D
25.A 26.D 27.D 28.A
PHẦN TỰ LUẬN
Question 29. CULTURAL
Question 30. CONSUMPTION
Question 31. PARTICIPATION
Question 32. SCENICALLY
Question 33. The woman seating behind me was eating popcorn.
Question 34. It was Lan’ s mother who/ that got angry with her.
Question 35. Brad was the only person to discover her secret.
Question 36. The teacher is Mr. Pike with whom we studied last year.
MÃ ĐỀ 002
1.B 4.B 7.A 10.A 13.C 16.A 19.C 22.A
2.A 5.B 8.D 11.A 14.B 17.B 20.B 23.D
3.B 6.D 9.D 12.B 15.A 18.C 21.A 24.A
25.C 26.D 27.B 28.A
PHẦN TỰ LUẬN
Question 29. VARIETY
Question 30. ECOLOGICAL
Question 31. SOLIDARITY

Question 32. REGULARLY
Question 33. Your son was the 2nd child to be kidnapped in this way.
Question 34. It was Christina that/ who Fan gave lots of flowers.
Question 35. The couple living next to us have 6 children.
Question 36. Many diseases of which people died years ago are no longer dangerous.
MÃ ĐỀ 003
1.B 4.B 7.A 10.B 13.A 16.D 19.C 22.C
2.A 5.B 8.D 11.C 14.D 17.D 20.B 23.A
3.B 6.D 9.D 12.D 15.A 18.A 21.B 24.B
25.A 26.C 27.C 28.C
PHẦN TỰ LUẬN
MÃ ĐỀ 004
1.B 4.B 7.A 10.B 13.D 16.D 19.D 22.B
2.A 5.B 8.D 11.A 14.A 17.B 20.A 23.C
3.B 6.D 9.C 12.A 15.C 18.A 21.A 24.B
25.A 26.A 27.B 28.C
PHẦN TỰ LUẬN
MÃ ĐỀ 005
1.B 4.B 7.A 10.B 13.C 16.C 19.D 22.D
2.A 5.B 8.D 11.A 14.C 17.D 20.D 23.B
3.B 6.D 9.A 12.C 15.B 18.A 21.A 24.C
25.D 26.A 27.C 28.B
PHẦN TỰ LUẬN
MÃ ĐỀ 006
1.B 4.B 7.A 10.B 13.D 16.A 19.B 22.A
2.A 5.B 8.D 11.A 14.B 17.B 20.A 23.C
3.B 6.D 9.C 12.A 15.C 18.C 21.A 24.D
25.B 26.A 27.D 28.A
PHẦN TỰ LUẬN

MÃ ĐỀ 007
1.B 4.B 7.A 10.A 13.A 16.A 19.C 22.D
2.A 5.B 8.D 11.D 14.A 17.C 20.B 23.B
3.B 6.D 9.D 12.D 15.B 18.C 21.C 24.C
25.D 26.A 27.C 28.B
PHẦN TỰ LUẬN
PHẦN TỰ LUẬN
MÃ ĐỀ 008
1.B 4.B 7.A 10.C 13.A 16.C 19.A 22.C

2.A 5.B 8.D 11.D 14.D 17.B 20.D 23.A
3.B 6.D 9.A 12.B 15.A 18.A 21.B 24.B
25.C 26.B 27.A 28.A
PHẦN TỰ LUẬN
TRƯỜNG THPT ĐỀ KIỂM TRA HỌC KÌ II- NĂM HỌC 2020-2021
LƯƠNG NGỌC QUYẾN Môn: TIẾNG ANH LỚP 11 HỆ 10 NĂM
(Đề kiểm tra có 04 trang) Thời gian làm bài: 45 phút (không kể thời gian phát đề)
Họ và tên học sinh:....................................................

Lớp: ......................................
MÃ ĐỀ 008
I. PHẦN TRẮC NGHIỆM. (Làm vào phiếu trả lời trắc nghiệm)
LISTENING
Task 1: What issues are these people talking about? Listen and circle the correct answer.
Question 1. Speaker 1.
A. air pollution B. water pollution C. overpopulation D. poverty
A. global warming B. water pollution C. war D. unemployment
A. overpopulation B. poverty C. war D. air pollution
A. crime B. garbage C. traffic D. air pollution
Task 2. Listen to the recording about Trang An Scenic Landscape Complex. Choose the correct
answer to complete the statements.
Question 5. "Ha Long Bay on land" is famous for its ______________ .
A. grottos and caves B. authentic food and cuisine
C. mountains, caves and relics D. limestone mountains and geological sites
Question 6. Visitors coming to Trang An admire its variety of ___
A. unique pagodas B. beautiful caves.
C. flora and fauna D. all are correct
Question 7. Hoa Lu Ancient Citadel set up ______________________ remained known as the
ancient capital of Viet Nam.
A. in 1010 B. 10,000 - 20.000 years ago.
C. from 968 to 1009 D. by King Ly Thai To
Question 8. Trang An scenic Landscape Complex deserves its place on the UNESCO's World
Heritage List thanks to its unique _______________.
A. natural values B. cultural values
C. natural and cultural values D. caves and pagodas
READING
Read the passage and choose the correct option A, B, C, or D that best fits each of the numbered
blanks.
Recognized as a World Heritage Site in Vietnam, Ha Long Bay attracts thousands of visitors every
year, who come to enjoy its magnificent natural (9) ______. However, the bay is also facing a number
of threats that may lead to serious damage to the site. Wildlife in Ha Long Bay is being (10) ______by
overfishing as this is the only job to support most of the inhabitants here. As a (11) ______, rare sea
creatures may become extinct soon.
Other problem is deforestation of mangrove forests. The mangroves, known as the plants native to
Ha Long Bay, provide protection during storms, preserve the shoreline, and act as a natural filter that
Trang 1-Mã đề 008
keeps the sea environment clean and healthy. Numerous wildlife species (12) ______ plants and fish
also depend on the mangroves. What is more, some markets in Ha long Bay sell unusual relicts and
natural objects, such as coral pieces, sea shells, or unique stones, probably illegally removed from the
(13) ______areas. Many of these items, converted into rings, key chains, and other souvenirs, are
purchased by unsuspecting tourists. Buying these items creates a black market leading to further
destruction of Ha Long Bay.
Question 9. A. middle B. main C. landscape D. point
Question 10. A. destruction B. destroyed C. destructing D. destroy
Question 11. A. instant B. example C. accident D. result
Question 12. A. making B. including C. getting D. creating
Question 13. A. protective B. protection C. protecting D. protected
Read the passage and choose the correct answer A, B, C, or D to each question.
A rather surprising geographical feature of Antarctica is that a huge freshwater lake, one of
the world's largest and deepest, lies hidden there under four kilometers of ice. Now known as Lake
Vostok, this huge body of water is located under the ice block that comprises Antarctica. The lake is
able to exist in its unfrozen state beneath this block of ice because its waters are warmed by
geothermal heat from the earth's core. The thick glacier above Lake Vostok actually insulates it from
the frigid temperatures on the surface.
The lake was first discovered in the 1970s while a research team was conducting an aerial
survey of the area. Radio waves from the survey equipment penetrated the ice and revealed a body of
water of indeterminate size. It was not until much more recently that data collected by satellite made
scientists aware of the tremendous size of the lake; the satellite-borne radar detected an extremely flat
region where the ice remains level because it is floating on the water of the lake. The discovery of
such a huge freshwater lake trapped under Antarctica is of interest to the scientific community
because of the potential that the lake contains ancient microbes that have survived for thousands of
years, unaffected by factors such as nuclear fallout and elevated ultraviolet light that have affected
organisms in more exposed areas. The downside of the discovery, however, lies in the difficulty of
conducting research on the lake in such a harsh climate and in the problems associated with obtaining
contamination. Scientist are looking for possible ways to accomplish this.
Question 14: The word"hidden" in paragraph 1 closest in meaning to__________.

A. undrinkable B. untouched C. unexploitable D. undiscovered
Question 15: What is true of Lake Vostok?
A. It is completely frozen
B. It is saltwater lake
C. It is beneath a thick slab of ice
D. many firefighters died in the earthquake
Question 16: Which of the following is closest in meaning to" frigid" in paragraph 1?
A. extremely cold B. easily broken
C. quite harsh D. lukewarm
Question 17: All of the following are true about the 1970 survey of Antarctica EXCEPT that
is__________.
A. was conducted by air
B. made use of radio waves
C. could not determine the lake's exact size
D. was controlled by a satellite
Question 18: It can be inferred from the passage that ice would not be flat if__________.
A. there were no lake underneath B. the lake were not so big
C. Antarctica were not so cold D. radio waves were not used

LANGUAGE
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in the following question.
Question 19: A. sensor B. predict C. dweller D. function

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part
differs from the other three in pronunciation in the following question.
Question 20: A. earthquake B. northern C. thorough D. thoughtful
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined part in the following question.
Question 21: Taj Mahal is a giant mausoleum of white marble in Arga, India. It is considered to be
an outstanding work of art.
A. noticeable B. attractive C. brilliant D. significant
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to the following
question.
Question 22. The waste ___ system here is also innovative. There are no rubbish trucks or waste
bins in the street
A. dump B. disposal C. landfill D. throwaway
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is
OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in the following question)
Question 23: When you walk, don't look at your feet. This will slow you down and cause back
pain.
A. result in B. result from C. lead to D. activate
question.
Question 24. Jean should seriously consider ________ an actress. She is a very talented performer.
A. to become B. become C. becoming D. will become
question.
Question 25. If it rains, the boys ______________ hockey.
A. will play B. won't play C. plays D. didn’t play
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in the following question.
Question 26: Amy seems like a bright student. She's always the first to be finished her work.
A. seems like B. bright C. the first D. to be finished
Question 27: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the most suitable response to complete the
following exchange.
“My back feels sore. Does it look a bit red?” – “____”
A. Yes, it does. I think you'll get a lovely suntan.
B. Yes, it does. Probably you should go for a swim.
C. Yes, it does. It's important to go for a paddle.
D. Yes, it does. Perhaps you should keep out of the sun for the rest of the day.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in the following question.
Question 28: The Great Wall of China is considered one of the greatest wonders in the world
thanks to its magnificence and significant.
A. is considered B. the greatest wonders C. thanks to D. significant
II. PHẦN TỰ LUẬN. (Làm vào giấy thi)
1. Give the correct form of the word in brackets to complete each of the following sentences.
Question 29. Cuc Phuong National Park is also a(an)___________ zone of fauna. (ABUNDANCE)
Question 30. Most of these students are interested in pursuing ___________ studies for bachelor’s
degrees. (GRADUATE)
Question 31. Some universities in the Unites States offer different ___________ to international
students to help to cover tuition fees and living costs. (SCHOOL)
Question 32. Be ___________ for overcrowded streets and shopping malls when you visit big cities
like Hong Kong and Beijing. (PREPARE)
2. Rewrite the following sentence in a similar way to the original sentence.
Question 33. Trang An Scenic Landscape Complex is the eighth World Heritage Site in Vietnam that
has been recognised by UNESCO. (reduce relative clause)
 _________________________________________________________________________
Question 34. He's likely to lose his job if he keeps disagreeing with his boss.( DANGER)
 _________________________________________________________________________
Question 35. I started discussing my research proposal with my professor at the beginning of my
course. We’re still discussing it. (BEEN)

 _________________________________________________________________________
Question 36. Thanks to the security officer, the robbery did not succeed. (HADN’T)
 _________________________________________________________________________
3. Write a paragraph of 100-120 words to describe a World Heritage Site in Vietnam you
know. (From 37 to 40)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
The end

TRƯỜNG THPT ĐỀ KIỂM TRA HỌC KÌ II- NĂM HỌC 2020-2021
LƯƠNG NGỌC QUYẾN Môn: TIẾNG ANH LỚP 11 HỆ 10 NĂM
(Đề kiểm tra có 04 trang) Thời gian làm bài: 45 phút (không kể thời gian phát đề)
Họ và tên học sinh:....................................................

Lớp: ......................................
MÃ ĐỀ 008
I. PHẦN TRẮC NGHIỆM. (Làm vào phiếu trả lời trắc nghiệm)
1.B 4.C 7.C 10.B 13.D 16.A 19.B 22.B 25.B 28.D
2.A 5.C 8.C 11.D 14.B 17.D 20.B 23.B 26. D
3.C 6.D 9.C 12.B 15.C 18.A 21.C 24.C 27.D
II. PHẦN TỰ LUẬN. (Làm vào giấy thi)

1. Give the correct form of the word in brackets to complete each of the following sentences.
(1 point)
Question 29. Cuc Phuong National Park is also a(an) ABUNDANT zone of fauna. (ABUNDANCE)
Question 30. Most of these students are interested in pursuing UNDERGRADUATE studies for
bachelor’s degrees. (GRADUATE)
Question 31. Some universities in the Unites States offer different SCHOLARSHIPS to
international students to help to cover tuition fees and living costs. (SCHOOL)
Question 32. Be PREPARED for overcrowded streets and shopping malls when you visit big cities
like Hong Kong and Beijing. (PREPARE)
2. Rewrite the following sentence in a similar way to the original sentence. (1 point)
Question 33. Trang An Scenic Landscape Complex is the eighth World Heritage Site in Vietnam that
has been recognised by UNESCO. (Reduce relative clause)
 Trang An Scenic Landscape Complex is the eighth World Heritage Site in Vietnam TO HAVE
BEEN recognised by UNESCO. (Reduce relative clause)
Question 34. He's likely to lose his job if he keeps disagreeing with his boss. DANGER
If he keeps disagreeing with his boss, he's in danger of losing his job.
Question 35. I started discussing my research proposal with my professor at the beginning of my
course. We’re still discussing it. (BEEN)
I’ve been discussing my research proposal with my professor since the beginning of my
course.
Question 36. Thanks to the security officer, the robbery did not succeed. HADN’T
If it hadn’t been for the security officer, the robbery would have succeeded.
3. Write a paragraph of 100-120 words to describe a World Heritage Site in Vietnam you
know. (From 37 to 40) (1.0 point)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
The end

SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO QUẢNG NAM KIỂM TRA HỌC KỲ II - NĂM HỌC 2020-2021
TRƯỜNG THPT LƯƠNG THẾ VINH TIẾNG ANH 11 - Hệ: 7 năm - Thời gian: 45 phút
Họ và tên:…………………………................…….. Lớp: …………SBD: ..........................Phòng: …………
Code: 801
I. MULTIPLE CHOICE: (7.2pts)
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word in the following question.
Question 1. If some endangered species were kept in zoos, it would help to ensure their future survival.
A. disappeared B. threatened C. increased D. reduced
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
Wind is a clean source of renewable energy (2)_______ produces no air or water pollution. And since the wind
is free, operational costs are nearly zero once a turbine is erected. Mass production and technology advances are
making turbines cheaper, and (3)_______ governments offer tax incentives to spur wind-energy development.
Drawbacks (4)_______ complaints from locals that wind turbines are ugly and noisy. The slowly rotating
blades can also kill birds and bats, but not nearly as many as cars, power lines, and high-rise buildings do. The
wind is also variable: If it's not blowing, there's no (5)_______ generated.
(Adapted from <https://www.nationalgeographic.com/>)
Question 2. A. who B. that C. why D. when
Question 3. A. many B. much C. a little D. little
Question 4. A. lead B. consist C. compose D. include
Question 5. A. electrician B. electricity C. electric D. electrical
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete
each of the following questions.
Question 6. A student is asking the librarian to help her to fax a report.
- Student: “Could you help me to fax this report?” - Librarian: “________”
A. It’s very kind of you to say so. B. Sorry, I have no idea.
C. Certainly, what’s the fax number? D. What rubbish! I don’t think it’s helpful.
Question 7. Anna and Jack are talking about the measures to protect the environment.
Anna: I think decreasing the use of fertilizers for farming should be encouraged.
Jack: "__________"
A. It’s my pleasure to protect the environment. B. I can't agree with you more.
C. I don’t like fertilizers. D. Well, that's very surprising.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions.
WORTH COLLECTING
Would you be worried if your classmate told you that he was a philatelist? Would you call a doctor or call the
police? Actually, there is no reason to be concerned. A philatelist is just a person who collects stamps!
Stamp collecting has been around for well over 150 years. People began collecting stamps soon after adhesive
postage stamps (stamps with glue on the back) were introduced in London in 1840. Today, according to Boy’s
Life magazine, stamp collecting is the most practiced hobby in the world.
Some people collect stamps just for fun. These people may just want to collect stamps with animals or famous
people on them. Or maybe they want to collect all the stamps issued by one particular country. Other people
collect stamps that they think will be valuable down the road. Such collectors ask three questions to determine if
a stamp is worth collecting and what its value might be.
First, how many of a particular stamp were made? Next, how popular is the stamp? Finally, what is the
condition of the stamp? If a stamp has a low print run, a popular picture or design, and is in excellent
Code 801 - Page 1
condition, this stamp may be worth a lot of money. In 1980, a one-cent British Guinea stamp issued in 1856
went for $935,000! (Source: Reading Challenge 1)
Question 8. What does a philatelist enjoy?
A. Collecting stamps B. Writing letters
C. Determining the value of things D. Introducing new stamps
Question 9. According to the reading, which of the following is TRUE?
A. People in the 1800s collected stamps. B. The first stamps were made in America.
C. Most people collect stamps with people on them. D. Boys’ Life is a magazine for philatelists.
Question 10. What determines a stamp’s value?
A. Quantity B. Quantity, popularity and condition
C. Popularity and condition D. Quantity and condition
Question 11. What does it mean if a stamp has a low print run?
A. It was made by Boys’ Life magazine. B. Not many were made.
C. It is in excellent condition. D. It has a picture of an animal on it.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in the following questions.
Question 12. A. sword B. swallow C. swear D. swing
Question 13. A. enthusiasm B. smooth C. smart D. small
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 14. I was the last person __________ to the party last night.
A. who come B. coming C. come D. to come
Question 15. Many people believe that fossil fuels will be __________ within a relatively short time.
A. worn on B. exhausted C. damaged D. used out
Question 16. The singer was __________ on the piano by her sister.
A. accomplished B. played C. accompanied D. occupied
Question 17. Dane, __________ lives next door, is having a party tonight.
A. that B. who C. whose D. whom
Question 18. I usually give __________ the common stamps to my friends.
A. away B. off C. on D. up
Question 19. It was the Red Cross __________ was established in 1864.
A. whom B. in which C. that D. whose
Question 20. The film __________ on television last night wasn’t very interesting.
A. I saw it B. that I saw it C. which I saw it D. I saw
Question 21. If we do not take steps to protect the world’s wild life, many species of birds and animals are likely
to __________ completely.
A. die from B. die out C. die away D. die down
Question 22. I must thank the man from __________I got the present.
A. whose B. that C. who D. whom
Question 23. They work in a hospital __________ by the government.
A. to sponsor B. sponsored C. sponsor D. sponsoring
Question 24. How many __________ took part in the race?
A. competitive B. compete C. competitors D. competition
II. WRITING. (2.8 pts)

For questions from 25 to 27, combine each pair of sentences into one as directed.
Question 25: Albert has decided to buy a motorbike. His car was stolen last week. (use whose)
→___________________________________________________________________________.
Code 801 - Page 2

Question 26: The headmistress has had to retire because of her old age. We all admire her. (begin with: The
headmistress we …)
→___________________________________________________________________________.
Question 27: I talked to the man last night. He was very kind. (use to whom)
→___________________________________________________________________________.
For questions from 28 to 31, finish each sentence as instructed in such a way that it means the same as the
sentence printed before it.
Question 28: Peter was the only student that was chosen to get the scholarship to study abroad.
The only student to ____________________________________________________________ .
Question 29: My brother started working for that company in 2006.
It was in 2006_________________________________________________________________.
Question 30: The fence surrounding our house is made of wood.
The fence which _______________________________________________________________.
Question 31: We suggested a lot of things, which were all rejected.
Everything we ________________________________________________________________.
--------The end--------
Code 801 - Page 3

SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO QUẢNG NAM HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM
TRƯỜNG THPT LƯƠNG THẾ VINH KIỂM TRA HỌC KÌ II NĂM HỌC 2020 – 2021
Môn: TIẾNG ANH - LỚP 11
I. Multiple choice : 7.2 điểm. Mỗi câu đúng: 0.3 điểm
Mã đề 801 Mã đề 802 Mã đề 803 Mã đề 804 Mã đề 805 Mã đề 806 Mã đề 807 Mã đề 808

Câu Đ.án Câu Đ.án Câu Đ.án Câu Đ.án Câu Đ.án Câu Đ.án Câu Đ.án Câu Đ.án
1 B 1 A 1 D 1 D 1 D 1 A 1 C 1 C
2 B 2 B 2 B 2 C 2 D 2 B 2 B 2 B
3 A 3 C 3 B 3 A 3 B 3 A 3 D 3 C
4 D 4 D 4 B 4 C 4 C 4 C 4 B 4 B
5 B 5 B 5 A 5 C 5 A 5 D 5 D 5 D
6 C 6 A 6 B 6 A 6 B 6 D 6 C 6 A
7 B 7 C 7 B 7 D 7 D 7 B 7 D 7 A
8 A 8 C 8 A 8 B 8 D 8 D 8 D 8 D
9 A 9 D 9 C 9 C 9 A 9 A 9 C 9 C
10 B 10 A 10 D 10 D 10 B 10 C 10 D 10 C
11 B 11 D 11 B 11 B 11 B 11 D 11 D 11 B
12 A 12 A 12 C 12 A 12 B 12 A 12 C 12 C
13 A 13 A 13 C 13 A 13 A 13 C 13 A 13 B
14 D 14 C 14 A 14 A 14 D 14 D 14 C 14 C
15 B 15 D 15 C 15 B 15 B 15 C 15 D 15 B
16 C 16 A 16 A 16 A 16 A 16 C 16 B 16 D
17 B 17 D 17 D 17 A 17 A 17 A 17 D 17 A
18 A 18 D 18 C 18 A 18 C 18 C 18 B 18 C
19 C 19 C 19 B 19 D 19 D 19 D 19 D 19 B
20 D 20 B 20 A 20 B 20 A 20 A 20 C 20 B
21 B 21 A 21 A 21 B 21 D 21 C 21 A 21 D
22 D 22 C 22 B 22 D 22 A 22 C 22 C 22 D
23 B 23 D 23 C 23 A 23 A 23 D 23 B 23 A
24 C 24 B 24 C 24 A 24 D 24 B 24 D 24 A
II. WRITING TEST: 2.8 điểm. Mỗi câu viết đúng: 0.4 điểm
Mã đề: 801, 803, 805, 807
Combine each pair of sentences into one as directed.

Question 25: Albert, whose car was stolen last week, has decided to buy a motorbike.
Question 26: The headmistress we all admire has had to retire because of her old age.
Question 27: The man to whom I talked last night was very kind.
Finish each sentence as instructed in such a way that it means the same as the sentence printed before it.
Question 28: The only student to be chosen to get the scholarship to study abroad was Peter.
Question 29: It was in 2006 that my brother started working for that company.
Question 30: The fence which surrounds our house is made of wood.
Question 31: Everything we suggested was rejected.
Mã đề: 802, 804, 806, 808
Combine each pair of sentences into one as directed.

Question 25: Vicky, whose name was missed off the list, wasn’t very pleased.
Question 26: The champion we all admire has had to retire because of his old age.
Question 27: The movie about which they are talking is fantastic.
Finish each sentence as instructed in such a way that it means the same as the sentence printed before it.
Question 28: The only student to be awarded a big prize in the Art competition was John.
Question 29: It is in the United States that horse racing attracts millions of fans.
Question 30: I have an apartment which overlooks the park.
Question 31: Everything we suggested was rejected.
SỞ GD & ĐT CÀ MAU KIỂM TRA HỌC KỲ II – NĂM HỌC 2020 - 2021
TRƯỜNG THPT PHAN NGỌC HIỂN MÔN TIẾNG ANH 11
Thời gian làm bài : 45 phút;
(Đề có 2 trang)
Mã đề 001
A. MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (20 sentences / 5.0 marks)
Circle the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from
the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. geology B. decorate C. emerge D. demolish
Question 2: A. complex B. culture C. comprise D. citadel
Circle the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the
position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. dynasty B. breathtaking C. authentic D. heritage
Question 4: A. catastrophic B. ecosystem C. contribution D. conservation
Circle the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word/phrase that has the CLOSEST
meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.
Question 5: We may help if we cut down on energy use by using led light bulbs.
A. reuse B. reproduce C. recycle D. reduce
Question 6: As visitors explore this magnificent place, there are always new surprises for
them.
A. interesting B. strange C. extremely beautiful D. unusual
Circle the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the answer that best completes sentence in each
of the following questions.
Question 7: The scientists ________ the medicine to cure AIDS say there is now hope for
patients.
A. who makes B. making C. make D. having making
Question 8: We admired the Japanese ________ the city of Fukushima after the disaster.
A. to being rebuilt B. for having rebuilt C. to rebuild D. of having
rebuilt
Question 9: Global warming results ________ melting of polar ice caps and rising of sea
levels.
A. to B. about C. in D. with
Question 10: The old houses were pulled ______ to make room for a new block of flats.
A. off B. up C. down D. for
Trang 1/10 - Mã đề 001

Question 11: The alarming rate of ________ results in damage to the habitat of many
species in the local area.
A. water vapor B. natural gas C. weather forecast D. deforestation
Question 12: During the different ___, the Thang Long Imperial Citadel was expanded.
A. experiences B. dynasties C. monuments D. residences
Question 13: The International ________ Diploma Programme is a globally recognised
qualification that prepares students for admissions into higher education.
A. Examination B. Graduation C. Baccalaureate D. Secondary
Question 14: A lot of ancient houses in Hoi An remain ________ even after several
hundred years.
A. intact B. available C. alternative D. universal
Question 15: People who hold optimistic view believe that cities of the future will increase
the general ________ of individuals and societies.
A. health state B. quality of life C. level of development D. growth rate
Question 16: Pollution and heavy traffic are common problems in ____ cities.
A cosmopolitan B. modern C. metropolitan D. overcrowded
Question 17: Global warming has been one of the biggest ___ problems in recent years.
A. environmentally B. environmentalist C. environmental D. environment
Question 18: Peter ________ at Midfield Secondary School since 2006, but he has only
played music in his lessons twice.
A. has been teaching B. has been taught
C. have taught D. is teaching
Circle the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in
each of the following questions.
Question 19: With clear evidence, his company couldn’t deny having dump a large
quantity of toxins into the sea.
A. clear B. deny C. dump D. into the sea
Question 20: None of your friends really enjoyed themselves at the party, didn’t they?
A. your friends B. enjoyed C. themselve D. didn’t they
B. RESPONSE QUESTIONS (12 sentences / 5.0 marks)
I. Put the verbs in brackets in the correct forms. (1.0 mark)
Question 21: If you buy stolen relics, you (help) ________________ to create a black
market, (lead) ________________ to further destruction of the heritage site.

Question 22: Trang An Scenic Landscape Complex is the first site in
Vietnam (recognise) ________________ as a mixed cultural and natural World Heritage
Site.
Question 23: She was praised for (donate) ________________ a lot of money to the
wildlife protection organization.
Question 24: I (wait) ________________ for the university's reply about entry
requirements for a whole week I hope to receive it soon.
II. Read the text below and answer the following questions. (2.0 marks)
All of us are concerned with the environment we live in. The recent haze caused by
forest fires and land clearing in Indonesia affected our health and our work. Our country’s
economy was also affected. The number of tourists to our island declined during this
period; for who would want to take the risk of endangering their health?
The release of carbon dioxide and other toxic chemicals into the air by any one
country harms the earth we live on. Such gases are blamed for damaging the ozone layer
in the atmosphere and creating global warming – a term used to describe the increased
temperature of the earth. Global warming occurs when certain greenhouse gases like
carbon dioxide form a blanket in the atmosphere and trap the Earth’s heat.
It is predicted that global warming would cause a rise in sea levels. The change in
climate would have considerable effect on human civilization. Land could be completely
submerged by rising oceans, deserts could spread, malaria could be carried to Europe and
Africa could suffer even more from severe drought.
Question 25: According to the text, what affected our health and our country’s economy?
→ _________________________________________________________________
Question 26: Is the term “global warming” used to describe the decreased temperature of
the earth?
→ ________________________________
Question 27: When does global warming happen?
→ ___________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________
Question 28: What would the climate change have considerable effect on?
→ ___________________________________________________________________
III. Complete the second sentence so that it has the same meaning as the first one. (2.0
marks)
Question 29: Unless Dora goes to work before seven tomorrow, she can’t give you a ride.
→ If ______________________________________________________________
Question 30: Paul had not worked hard enough in his previous job. He regretted it.
→ Paul regretted ________________________________________________________
Question 31: I started discussing my research proposal with my professor at the beginning
of my course. We're still discussing it. (since)
→ I _________________________________________________________________
Question 32: The Citadel gate was damaged in the storm. It has now been
repaired. (Relative Clause Omission)
→ The Citadel gate _______________________________________________________
THE END

ĐỀ THI HỌC KỲ II, NĂM HỌC 2020-2021
MÔN TIẾNG ANH, KHỐI 11
ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ 01
Circle the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in
pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Circle the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of
primary stress in each of the following questions.
Circle the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word/phrase that has the CLOSEST meaning to the
underlined part in each of the following questions.
A. reuse B. reduce C. recycle D. reproduce
Question 6: As visitors explore this magnificent place, there are always new surprises for them.
Circle the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the answer that best completes sentence in each of the
Question 7: The scientists ________ the medicine to cure AIDS say there is now hope for patients.
A. to being rebuilt B. for having rebuilt C. to rebuild D. of having rebuilt
Question 9: Global warming results ________ melting of polar ice caps and rising of sea levels.
Question 10: The old houses were pulled ________ to make room for a new block of flats.
Question 11: The alarming rate of ________ results in damage to the habitat of many species in the local
area.
Question 12: During the different ________, the Thang Long Imperial Citadel was expanded.
Question 13: The International ________ Diploma Programme is a globally recognised qualification that
prepares students for admissions into higher education.
Question 14: A lot of ancient houses in Hoi An remain ________ even after several hundred years.
Question 15: People who hold optimistic view believe that cities of the future will increase the general
________ of individuals and societies.
Question 17: Global warming has been one of the biggest ________ problems in recent years
Question 18: Peter ________ at Midfield Secondary School since 2006, but he has only played music in
his lessons twice.
Circle the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the
Question 19: With clear evidence, his company couldn’t deny having dump a large quantity of
toxins into the sea.
A. clear B. deny C. dump D. into the
sea
Question 21: If you buy stolen relics, you (help) will help to create a black market, (lead) leading to
further destruction of the heritage site.
Question 22: Trang An Scenic Landscape Complex is the first site in Vietnam (recognise) to be
recognized as a mixed cultural and natural World Heritage Site.
Question 23: She was praised for (donate) having donated a lot of money to the wildlife protection
organization.
Question 24: I (wait) have been waiting for the university's reply about entry requirements for a whole
week I hope to receive it soon.
All of us are concerned with the environment we live in. The recent haze caused by forest fires
and land clearing in Indonesia affected our health and our work. Our country’s economy was also
affected. The number of tourists to our island declined during this period; for who would want to take the
risk of endangering their health?
The release of carbon dioxide and other toxic chemicals into the air by any one country harms the
earth we live on. Such gases are blamed for damaging the ozone layer in the atmosphere and creating
global warming – a term used to describe the increased temperature of the earth. Global warming occurs
when certain greenhouse gases like carbon dioxide form a blanket in the atmosphere and trap the Earth’s
heat.

It is predicted that global warming would cause a rise in sea levels. The change in climate would
have considerable effect on human civilization. Land could be completely submerged by rising oceans,
deserts could spread, malaria could be carried to Europe and Africa could suffer even more from severe
drought.
Question 25: According to the text, what affected our health and our country’s economy ?
→ The recent haze caused by forest fires and land clearing in Indonesia.
Question 26: Is the term “global warming” used to describe the increased temperature of the earth?
→ Yes, it is.
→ When certain greenhouse gases like carbon dioxide form a blanket in the atmosphere and trap the
Earth’s heat.
Or: → It happens when certain…………………….heat.
→ The climate change would have considerable effect on human civilization.
Or: Human civilization.
III. Complete the second sentence so that it has the same meaning as the first one. (2.0 marks)
Question 29: If he doesn’t work hard, he’ll lose the job.
→ Unless he works hard, he’ll lose the job.
→ Paul regretted not having worked hard enough in his previous job.
Question 31: I started discussing my research proposal with my professor at the beginning of my course.
We're still discussing it. (since)
→ I have been discussing my research proposal with my professor since the beginning of my course.
Question 32: The tour guide is taking us to Ha Long Bay. He can speak three languages. (Relative Clause
Omission)
→ The tour guide taking us to Ha Long Bay can speak three languages.
THE END

ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ 02
Circle the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in
pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Circle the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of
primary stress in each of the following questions.
Circle the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word/phrase that has the CLOSEST meaning to the
underlined part in each of the following questions.
A. reuse B. reproduce C. recycle D. reduce
Question 6: As visitors explore this magnificent place, there are always new surprises for them.
Circle the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the answer that best completes sentence in each of the
Question 7: The scientists ________ the medicine to cure AIDS say there is now hope for patients.
A. to being rebuilt B. for having rebuilt C. to rebuild D. of having rebuilt
Question 9: Global warming results ________ melting of polar ice caps and rising of sea levels.
Question 10: The old houses were pulled ________ to make room for a new block of flats.
Question 11: The alarming rate of ________ results in damage to the habitat of many species in the local
area.
Question 12: During the different ________, the Thang Long Imperial Citadel was expanded.
Question 13: The International ________ Diploma Programme is a globally recognised qualification that
prepares students for admissions into higher education.
Question 14: A lot of ancient houses in Hoi An remain ________ even after several hundred years.

Question 15: People who hold optimistic view believe that cities of the future will increase the general
________ of individuals and societies.
Question 17: Global warming has been one of the biggest ________ problems in recent years
Question 18: Peter ________ at Midfield Secondary School since 2006, but he has only played music in
his lessons twice.
Circle the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the
Question 19: With clear evidence, his company couldn’t deny having dump a large quantity of
toxins into the sea.
A. clear B. deny C. dump D. into the
sea
Question 21: If you buy stolen relics, you (help) will help to create a black market, (lead) leading to
further destruction of the heritage site.
Question 22: Trang An Scenic Landscape Complex is the first site in Vietnam (recognise) to be
recognized as a mixed cultural and natural World Heritage Site.
Question 23: She was praised for (donate) having donated a lot of money to the wildlife protection
organization.
Question 24: I (wait) have been waiting for the university's reply about entry requirements for a whole
week I hope to receive it soon.
All of us are concerned with the environment we live in. The recent haze caused by forest fires
and land clearing in Indonesia affected our health and our work. Our country’s economy was also
affected. The number of tourists to our island declined during this period; for who would want to take the
risk of endangering their health?
The release of carbon dioxide and other toxic chemicals into the air by any one country harms the
earth we live on. Such gases are blamed for damaging the ozone layer in the atmosphere and creating
global warming – a term used to describe the increased temperature of the earth. Global warming occurs
when certain greenhouse gases like carbon dioxide form a blanket in the atmosphere and trap the Earth’s
heat.

It is predicted that global warming would cause a rise in sea levels. The change in climate would
have considerable effect on human civilization. Land could be completely submerged by rising oceans,
deserts could spread, malaria could be carried to Europe and Africa could suffer even more from severe
drought.
Question 25: According to the text, what affected our health and our country’s economy ?
→ The recent haze caused by forest fires and land clearing in Indonesia.
Question 26: Is the term “global warming” used to describe the decreased temperature of the earth?
→ No, it isn’t.
→ When certain greenhouse gases like carbon dioxide form a blanket in the atmosphere and trap the
Earth’s heat.
Or: → It happens when certain…………………….heat.
→ The climate change would have considerable effect on human civilization.
Or: Human civilization.
III. Complete the second sentence so that it has the same meaning as the first one. (2.0 marks)
Question 29: Unless Dora goes to work before seven tomorrow, she can’t give you a ride.
→ If Dora doesn’t go to work before seven tomorrow, she can’t give you a ride.
→ Paul regretted not having worked hard enough in his previous job.
Question 31: I started discussing my research proposal with my professor at the beginning of my course.
We're still discussing it. (since)
→ I have been discussing my research proposal with my professor since the beginning of my course.
Question 32: The Citadel gate was damaged in the storm. It has now been repaired. (Relative Clause
Omission)
→ The Citadel gate damaged in the storm has now been repaired.
THE END
Trang 10/10 - Mã đề 001

HCMC DEPARTMENT OF EDUCATION AND
TRAINING
THE FINAL TEST – SEMESTER 2 - ENGLISH 11
TAN TUC HIGH SCHOOL Date of testing: Thursday, May 6th, 2021
Time limits: 60 minutes
Student’s full name: __________________ Class: ______ ID number: ___________ Code: 333
A. MULTIPLE CHOICE: (4pts)
Choose the word which has the underlined part pronounced differently from the rest
1. A. astronaut B. congress C. psychological D. cosmonaut
2. A. hoped B. attracted C. added D. participated
Choose the word which is stressed differently from the rest
3. A. venture B. astronaut C. reminder D. tragic
4. A. facility B. variety C. participant D. culturally
Choose from the four options given (marked A, B, C, and D) one best answer
5. No one knew precisely what would happen to a human being in space.(closest meaning)
A. nicely B. exactly C. rigidly D. roughly
6. The success of Gagarin’s flight attracted worldwide attention and made him a hero. (opposite
meaning)
A. failure B. adventure C. luckiness D. participation
7. The football match was so dull that most of the__________left at half-time.
A. attendants B. audiences C. participants D. spectators
8. "Do you think you will win your tennis match today?" - "It will be a piece of _________."
A. cake B. sweet C. candy D. bitcuit
9. This is ______ second time I have paid a visit to Nha Trang.
A. a B. the C. an D. 
10. There are other hobbies that I indulge ______ for a while.
A. on B. of C. in D. about
11. No one is better cook than his mother, __________ ?
A. is she B. isn’t she C. are they D. aren’t they
12. The footballer ____ play again in spite of his injury.
A. could B. could not C. was able to D. was not able to
13. Minh: “How did you get there?” Nam: “_____________.”
A. Sorry, I was late B. Tomorrow C. No, I didn’t get anything D. By bus
Find the underlined part in each sentence that should be corrected
14. A number (A) of people still wants (B) to apply the position (C) of accountant in (D) that company.
15. To prepare (A) for the coming Games, all athletes are training hard (B) and strict (C) so that (D) they
will get the highest achievements.
Read the passage carefully and choose the correct answers
Just two months after the flight of Apollo 10, the Apollo 11 astronauts made their historic landing on
the surface of the Moon. This momentous trip for humanity also provided scientists with an abundance of
material for study; from rock and soil samples brought back from the Moon, scientists have been able to
determine much about the composition of the Moon (as well as to draw) inferences about the
development of the Moon from its composition.
The Moon soil that came back on Apollo 11 contains small bits of rock and glass which were probably
ground from larger rocks when meteors impacted with the surface of the Moon. The bits of glass are
spherical in shape and constitute approximately half of the Moon soil. Scientists found no trace of animal
or plant life in this soil.
In addition to the Moon soil, astronauts gathered two basic types of rocks from the surface of the
Moon: Basalt and breccia. Basalt is a cooled and hardened volcanic lava common to the Earth. Since
basalt is formed under extremely high temperatures, the presence of this type of rock is an indication that
the temperature of the Moon was once extremely hot. Breccia, the other kind of rock brought back by the
astronauts, was formed during the impact of falling objects on the surface of the Moon. It consists of
small pieces of rock compressed together by the force of impact. Gases such as hydrogen and helium
were found in some of the rocks, and scientists believe that these gases were carried to the Moon by the
solar wind, the streams of gases that are constantly emitted by the Sun.
16. The author's purpose in this passage is to ____________________.
A. demonstrate the difference between basalt and breccia
B. explain some of the things learned from space flights
C. describe some rock and soil samples
D. propose a new theory about the creation of the Moon
17. According to the passage, what does Moon soil consist of?
A. Hydrogen and helium. B. Large chunks of volcanic lava.
C. Tiny pieces of stones and glass. D. Streams of gases
18. It is implied in the passage that scientists believe that the gases found in the Moon rocks
______________.
A. were not originally from the Moon B. caused the Moon's temperature to rise
C. traveled from the Moon to the Sun D. were created inside the rocks
19. What does the word “It” refers to?
A. the impact B. the surface C. breccia D. the Moon
20. The word 'emitted' in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to ________________.
A. vaporized B. sent out C. separated D. set off
B. WRITING (6pts)
LISTEN and complete the questions: You will hear André telling a friend about his tennis lessons.
André’s tennis lessons
Teacher’s name: Paul
Day: (1) __________________________________________________
Cost: (2) £ __________________________________________ per hour
At tennis courts in: (3) _____________________________________________ Street
Starting time: (4) _______________________________________________ pm
Wear: (5) _________________________________________ and T-shirt
Fill in each numbered blank with one of the words given:

someone boring example everyone interesting other professionally another
Hobbies are activities in which one participates strictly for amusement. They help one to maintain a
mental and emotional balance. A hobby can be almost anything. Music is most popular. For (6) _______,
many people all over the world play pianos simply for relaxing and fun in their free hours, and they do not
play (7) ________. Sports provide other favourite hobbies. Bicycling, running, tennis, ping-pong, and
countless (8) ________ sports are enjoyed by millions of people during their leisure time. Some people
collect things as a hobby. Stamps, coins, and fine art are all popular collections, and valuable, too. There
are still hundreds of others, not necessarily valuable but still (9) _________, such as doll collections,
bottle collections, seashell collections, butterfly collections, and so on. As you can see, hobbies can be
relaxing, challenging, interesting, enjoyable or educational. So (10) ________ should have one or two
hobbies.
Give the correct VERB TENSE in the brackets in each sentence

11. We will go out when the rain _______________ (stop).
12. My mother _______________ (come) to stay with us next weekend.
13. The bell rang while Tom ________________ (take) a bath.
14. He _________ (read) a book two days ago.
15. They ______________ (not, be) here since Christmas.
Give the correct VERB FORM in the brackets in each sentence

16. I’m afraid my parents do not allow me _________________ on a long journey. (go)
17. As beginners, we can’t help __________________ mistakes. (make)
18. She was the third woman ________________ in this way. (kill)
19. You should have the job _______________ professionally. (do)
20. They didn’t let us ______________ photographs inside the theatre. (take)
Give the correct WORD FORM in the brackets in each sentence

21. Your luggage must be _________________before it is put on the airplane. (weight)
22. The new regulations will not make an _____________ difference to most students.(appreciate)
23. I’m planing to train as a _____________ when I grow up.(psychological)
24. She had already _____________ completed her final projects with flying colours.(succeed)
25. They have a wonderful ___________ of old toys at the museum in town. (collect)
REWRITE the following sentences as directed

26. The earthquake destroyed everything two years ago. (active cleft sentence)
 _______________________________________________________________________________
27. Increasing cost of fuel can save fuel, it can also protect environment. (not only)
 _______________________________________________________________________________
28. Kindness is needed to train domestic animals, and firmness is needed, too. (both)
 _______________________________________________________________________________
29. People believe that the Great Pyramid of Giza was built over a 20 – year period. (passive)
 The Great Pyramid of Giza __________________________________________________________
30. It was rumoured that the men died in an expedition. (passive)
 The men ________________________________________________________________________
----------- THE END ----------
TAN TUC HIGH SCHOOL
ANSWER KEY_ The Final English Test – SENESTER 2- GRADE 11

Date of Testing: Thursday 06/05/2021
MULTIPLE CHOICE (4pts) WRITING (6pts)

Listening (1pt):
333 555 777 999 1. Wed(nesday)(s)
2. 12/ twelve (pounds)
1 B A B C
3. G E R A L D (Gerald)
2 A B C B 4. 6.15/ 18.15/ quarter past six/ six fifteen
3 C C A A 5. short(s)
Close test (1pt):
4 D D C C 6. example
5 B D B A 7. professionally
6 A B B B 8. other
9. interesting
7 D C A C 10. everyone
8 A A C D Verb tenses (1pt):
11. stops
9 B B D A
12. will come
10 C C B A 13. was taking
11 C D C D 14. read
15. haven’t been
12 C A B B Verb form (1pt):
13 D A A B 16. to go
14 B D D B 17. making
18. to be killed
15 C B A C 19. done
16 B B B A 20. take
Word form (1pt):
17 C C C B
21. weighed
18 A B C C 22. appreciable
19 C A C D 23. psychologist
24. successfully
20 B C D D
25. collection
Rewrite (1pt):
26. It was the earthquake that destroyed everything two years ago.
27. Increasing cost of fuel can not only save fuel but also protect environment.
28. Both kindness and firmness are needed to train domestic animals.
29. The Great Pyramid of Giza is believed to have been built over a 20 – year period
30. The men were rumoured to die in an expedition.
THE END
SỞ GD&ĐT VĨNH PHÚC KỲ KSCL KHỐI 11 LẦN 2 NĂM HỌC 2020-2021
TRƯỜNG THPT YÊN LẠC 2 Đề thi môn: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề.
Đề thi gồm 05 trang.
Mã đề: 601
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction
Question 1. Speech sounds are produced as a continuous sound signal rather than discreet units.
A. Speech B. signal C. discreet D. are produced
Question 2. I feel both excited and nervously because I have an interview tomorrow.
A. nervously B. excited C. feel D. have
Question 3. What happened in that city were a reaction from city workers including firemen and
policemen who had been laid off from their jobs.
A. their B. What happened C. were D. including
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each
of the following exchanges.
Question 4. Mary. "Would you mind if I use your computer for an hour?" Tony." __ "
A. Of course not. I still need it now B. Not at all. I've finished my job.
C. Yes, you can use it D. Yes. It's all right.
Question 5. - Kathy. "Make yourself at home" - Jim. " _______"
A. That's very kind. Thank you. B. Thanks! Same to you.
C. Yes. Can I help you? D. Not at all. Don't mention it.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of
the primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 6. A. effect B. destroy C. mistake D. butcher
Question 7. A. ordinary B. endangerment C. rhinoceros D. priority
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 8. A. sponsored B. completed C. answered D. enjoyed
Question 9. A. twofold B. twin C. twinkle D. twelve
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s)
Question 10. A chronic lack of sleep may make us irritable and reduces our motivation to work.
A. responsive B. calm C. miserable D. uncomfortable
Question 11. "What I've got to say to you now is strictly off the record and most certainly not for
publication" said the government official to the reporter.
A. beside the point B. not recorded C. already official D. not popular
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning
to each of the following questions.
Question 12. "If I were you, I would not choose to write about such a sensitive topic" the teacher said.
A. I was ordered by the teacher not to write about such a sensitive topic.
Page 1 of 5 – Mã đề 601
B. The teacher advised me on writing about such a sensitive topic.
C. The teacher advised me against writing about such a sensitive topic.
D. I was blamed for writing about such a sensitive topic by the teacher.
Question 13. No matter how hard Fried tried to start the car, he didn't succeed.
A. Fried tried hard to start the car, and with success.
B. It's hard for Fried to start the car because he never succeeded.
C. Fried tried very hard to start the car, and succeeded.
D. However hard he tried, Fried couldn't start the car.
Question 14. Martin missed his flight because he had not been informed of the change in flight schedule.
A. Not having missed his flight, Martin was informed of the change in flight schedule.
B. Not having been informed of the change in flight schedule, Martin missed his flight.
C. Martin had been informed of his flight delay, which was due to the change in flight schedule.
D. Martin missed his flight, though he had been informed of the change in flight schedule.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s)
Question 15. Global warming occurs when the greenhouse gases in the atmosphere trap the heat from
the sun.
A. dispose B. catch C. release D. discharge
Question 16. "It's no use talking to me about metaphysics. It's a closed book to me."
A. a book that is never opened B. a subject that I don't understand
C. a theme that I don't like to discuss D. an object that I don't really love
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 17. I do my homework and schoolwork in separate books. I don't get muddled up.
A. I do not get muddled up due to the separation between homework and schoolwork.
B. I would get muddled up if I did not separate homework from schoolwork.
C. I do my homework and schoolwork in separate books so that I don't get muddled up.
D. Having two separate books at home and at work helps me avoid getting muddled up.
Question 18. Most scientists know him well. However, very few ordinary people have heard of him.
A. Many ordinary people know him better than most scientists do.
B. He is the only scientist that is not known to the public.
C. Not only scientists but also the public know him as a big name.
D. Well known to scientists as he is, he is little known to the public.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
Question 19. We should read different kinds of books ________ our general knowledge.
A. widened B. widen C. to widen D. widening
Question 20. Your store needs a bold sign that will catch the _______ of anyone walking down the
street. That may help to sell more products.
A. eye B. flash C. glimpse D. sight
Question 21. ________his homework, he started to surf the social networks.
A. After he has finished B. By the time he finishes
C. At the time he finished D. After he had finished
Question 22. Human activities are also blamed _______ having contributed to global warming.
A. for B. with C. on D. at
Question 23. Before the man could say anything more, Peter________ off towards the station.
A. was rushing B. had rushed C. had been rushed D. Rushed
Question 24. _____ people who live in Scotland are called _____ Scots.
A. The/a B. The/the C. x / x D. The / x
Question 25. The pointless war between the two countries left thousands of people dead and seriously
_______
A. injured B. wounded C. damaged D. spoilt
Question 26. High intelligent machines can be automated to operate without human_______
A. intervene B. intervention C. intervening D. interventionist
Question 27. Mike has no difficulty in ____ into use the perfect plans his friends have prepared for him.
A. taking B. heading C. putting D. ending
Question 28. ______ interested in Curling, I would try to learn more about this sport.
A. If I was B. If I am C. Should I D. If I were
Question 29. We were expecting beautiful weather at the beach, but it was so cold and rainy that,
________ getting a suntan, I caught a cold.
A. instead of B. just as C. compared to D. in case of
Question 30. The book ________last week is her first novel about a World Heritage Site in Viet Nam.
A. to be published B. publishing C. published D. to publish
Question 31. At school, people always used to take the ________ out of him for having red hair.
A. rat B. mickey C. dog D. cat
Question 32. It seems that he won't go to the party tonight, ________?
A. does it B. won't he C. will he D. doesn't it
Question 33. The United States, China and India are now competing for political influence in ASEAN,
and France, a leading European country, does not want to be________.
A. gone after B. followed in C. left out D. put off
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
PARENTAL INFLUENCES ON CHILDREN
Our parents play an important role in what we're today and in what we'll be in future. It's our
parents who make us (34)_____ in all sphere of life, they guide us, support us, teach us, and propel
us in all phases of your life. The biggest role is of our mother, most cherished and admired relation in
the world. She is special for everyone and should be. She is one (35)_____ teaches us everything from
how to speak to what to speak, from how to eat to what to eat, from how to (36)____ up for school to
college. She is with us from happiness to sorrow. She teaches us from what is right to what is wrong.
Definitely she is one who brings smiles on our faces when we take a walk down memory
(37)______ from our childhood till now. But when I recall my childhood, what I have is her faint
memory; unfortunately, probably when I was about 5 years old she left this world. When I look
around, I realize how lucky they are who have someone under whose feet lies the paradise. So realize
importance of her presence in your life and love her (38)______ the way she loves you
unconditionally; dedicate every day of your life to her and don't wait for mother day; celebrate
everyday a mother day.
(Source: <https://goo.gl/eoHRFN>)
Question 34. A. success B. succeed C. successfully D. successful
Question 35. A. whom B. who C. which D. whose
Question 36. A. take B. get C. cheer D. dress
Question 37. A. pavement B. road C. way D. lane
Question 38. A. like B. similar C. alike D. as
correct answer to each of the questions below.
WHAT IS YOUR LEARNING STYLE?
Everyone is different - but for many years, students have been asking questions about their learning
styles. If you find yourself learn better by making notes during the lecture, or when the teacher uses a
new word, you want to see it written immediately, then you are very likely to be a more visual learner.
You prefer to see the written words. You learn by reading and writing. Visual learners often think in
pictures. If you find a particular task or text difficult, look for sources that will suit your learning style,
for example sources with illustrations, charts, tables, or videos.
If you prefer recording the lecture and listening again to taking notes, or you memorize something by
repeating it aloud instead of writing it out several times, you are probably a more auditory learner. You
prefer to learn by listening and speaking. Auditory learners often learn best from lectures, discussions,
by reading aloud, and by listening to audio material.
However, it is probably that you, like most people, learn through a mixture of styles. Sometimes you
may prefer to learn by reading, at other time by listening. Ask yourself which is the best style for the
particular task you are doing.
Question 39. Which of the following best serves as the title for the passage?
A. Different learning styles
B. Auditory learners prefer to learn by listening and speaking
C. Visual learners often think in pictures.
D. The best style for the particular task
Question 40. What does the word "it" in paragraph 1 refer to?
A. the written word B. the note C. the new word D. the lecture
Question 41. The word "auditory" in paragraph 2 can be best replaced by ____.
A. recordable B. discussive C. noisy D. audible
Question 42. Which of the following statement is TRUE?
A. Most people are auditory learners.
B. Auditory learners prefer listening to speaking.
C. When learning something by heart, an auditory learner prefers reading it out loud.
D. Auditory learners hate taking notes.
Question 43. The word "visual" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ____.
A. seeable B. picturesque C. written D. illustrative
correct answer to each of the questions below.
GLOBAL WARMING
The temperature of the Earth is rising at nearly twice the rate it was 50 years ago. This rapid rate and
pattern of warming, scientists have concluded, cannot be explained by natural cycles alone. The only
way to explain the pattern is to include the effect of greenhouse gases (GHGs) emitted by humans.
To come to a conclusion on climate change, the United Nations formed a group of scientists called
the Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change, or IPCC. The IPCC meets every few years to review
the latest scientific findings and write a report summarizing all that is known about global warming. Each
report represents a consensus, or agreement, among hundreds of leading scientists.
One of the first things the IPCC learned is that there are several greenhouse gases responsible for
warming, and humans emit them in a variety of ways. Most come from the combustion of fossil fuels in
cars, factories and electricity production. The gas responsible for the most warming is carbon dioxide,
also called CO2. Other contributors include methane released from landfills and agriculture, especially
from the digestive systems of grazing animals, nitrous oxide from fertilizers, gases used for refrigeration
and industrial processes, and the loss of forests that would otherwise store CO2.
Different greenhouse gases have very different heat-trapping abilities. Some of them can even trap
more heat than CO2. A molecule of methane produces more than 20 times the warming of a molecule of
CO2. Nitrous oxide is 300 times more powerful than CO2.
Other gases, such as chlorofluorocarbons, or CFCs, which have been banned in much of the world
because they also degrade the ozone layer, have heat-trapping potential thousands of times greater than
CO2. But because their concentrations are much lower than CO2, none of these gases adds as much
warmth to the atmosphere as CO2 does.
In order to understand the effects of all the gases together, scientists tend to talk about all
greenhouse gases in terms of the equivalent amount of CO2. Since 1990, yearly emissions have gone up
by about 6 billion metric tons of "carbon dioxide equivalent" worldwide, more than a 20 percent increase
Source: <https://www>. nationalgeographic. com
Question 44. Which of the following best serves as the title for the passage?
A. Causes of global warming B. Greenhouse gases and global warming
C. Fossil fuels and global warming D. Effects of global warming
Question 45. The word "consensus" in paragraph 2 probably means ______
A. A conversation or discussion in which two or more people disagree
B. A situation where people have different opinions
C. An opinion that all members of a group agree with
D. A lack of agreement between facts, opinions, actions.
Question 46. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in paragraph 3 as a reason for warming?
A. Carbon dioxide B. Methane C. Nitrous oxide D. Carbon monoxide
Question 47. The word "contributors" in paragraph 3 mostly means_______.
A. Fossil fuels B. Humans
C. Cars and factories D. Gases responsible for global warming
Question 48. It can be inferred from paragraph 5 that CO2 ________.
A. Adds the most warmth to the atmosphere B. Degrades the ozone layer
C. Traps less heat than other gases D. Has lower concentration than other gases
Question 49. According to paragraph 2, what is the main work of IPCC every few years?
A. Forming a group of scientists B. Reviewing the latest scientific findings
C. Meeting every few years D. Concluding on climate change
Question 50. The word "which" in paragraph 5 refers to which of the following?
A. Chlorofluorocarbons B. Ozone layer C. Other gases D. CO2
---------- THE END ----------
MÃ ĐỀ 601 602 603 604 605 606
1 C A B B D B
2 A C A A B B
3 C A D C D D
4 B A A B B C
5 A D A C D D
6 D A D A C A
7 A A D A C C
8 B B D D B B
9 A B D B C D
10 B A B A B C
11 C A C B A A
12 C D C D A A
13 D B C B D D
14 B C A C A C
15 B C A B D D
16 C B B C C A
17 C C C A A D
18 D A C B A C
19 C B B C B C
20 A D C C A B
21 D D D C C A
22 A D B A C B
23 B A A A A D
24 B D D C D A
25 B D B D C B
26 B A D C B D
27 C C A B C A
28 D C A D B A
29 A C C B C C
30 C B C D C A
31 B B C B C D
32 C D B B A D
33 C C C D B C
34 D B D B D B
35 B A B C A B
36 D D A D A C
37 D B D C D B
38 D C A A B A
39 A B B A B D
40 C A A D A B
41 D D C D D A
42 C C D A D C
43 A C B D C B
44 A C B B B A
45 C D D A D C
46 D B A C B C
47 D D B C A B
48 A B C D D D
49 B C C D B C
50 A B B A C B

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BỘ 11 ĐỀ THI HỌC KÌ 2

MÔN TIẾNG ANH – LỚP 11

(Đề gồm có 03 trang) MÃ ĐỀ 501

MULTIPLE CHOICE TEST (7.2 points)

Trang 1/3 – Mã đề 501

WRITING TEST (2.8 points)

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HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM MÔN TIẾNG ANH LỚP 11 (7 NĂM)

Mã đề: 502, 504, 506, 508

Họ và tên thí sinh:……………………………………………. Lớp : ...............SBD:…………

GIÁM THỊ GIÁM KHẢO

Lưu ý: Đáp án True (T) tô A, đáp án False (F) tô D

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33. Her father gave her a nice present on her birthday.

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A. LISTENING: ( 0,2 x 10 = 2 points)

II. Write a paragraph (about 80 words)

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- Họ và tên thí sinh: .................................................... – Số báo danh : ........................

A. PHẦN TRẮC NGHIỆM (TÔ VÀO MẶT TRƯỚC)

7. According to the passage, what kind of pet needs less space?

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13. A. other B. many C. all D. another

B. PHẦN TỰ LUẬN (VIẾT VÀO MẶT SAU)

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*** THE END ***

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Đáp án mã đề: 132

Đáp án mã đề: 209

Đáp án mã đề: 357

Đáp án mã đề: 485

Đề kiểm tra cuối kỳ II - Môn TIẾNG ANH 11 (CT 7 năm) - Mã đề 01 1

Đề kiểm tra cuối kỳ II - Môn TIẾNG ANH 11 (CT 7 năm) - Mã đề 01 2

Đề kiểm tra cuối kỳ II - Môn TIẾNG ANH 11 (CT 7 năm) - Mã đề 01 3

Mã đề: 01 Học sinh làm bài trực tiếp trên đề thi

SECTION I: LISTENING (2 marks)

* Bài nghe gồm 02 phần, mỗi phần nghe được 2 lần

1. The conversation is about_______.

SECTION II: USE OF LANGUAGE (4.0 marks)

Đề kiểm tra cuối kỳ II- Môn TIẾNG ANH 11 (CT 10 năm) – Mã đề 01 1

Đề kiểm tra cuối kỳ II- Môn TIẾNG ANH 11 (CT 10 năm) – Mã đề 01 2

19. Linoleic fatty acid is mentioned in the passage as

SECTION III: WRITING (2 marks)

Part 1: Give the correct form of the words in brackets (1 mark)

1. _________ 2. _________ 3. _________ 4. _________

They have _________

Kevin’s teacher reminded _________

Đề kiểm tra cuối kỳ II- Môn TIẾNG ANH 11 (CT 10 năm) – Mã đề 01 3

Section No Answer Mark Note

Đề kiểm tra cuối kỳ II- Môn TIẾNG ANH 11 (CT 10 năm) – Mã đề 01 4

PHẦN TRẮC NGHIỆM

DREAM NATIONAL PARK

PHẦN TRẮC NGHIỆM

CUC PHUONG NATIONAL PARK

PHẦN TRẮC NGHIỆM

DREAM NATIONAL PARK

PHẦN TRẮC NGHIỆM

CUC PHUONG NATIONAL PARK

PHẦN TRẮC NGHIỆM

DREAM NATIONAL PARK

PHẦN TRẮC NGHIỆM

Question 4. Some of the teams went home empty-handed.

* THE END *

1. _____ 2. _ 3. _ 4. _____