BASIC PHARMACOLOGY 1 c) Enveloping agents

4TH SEMESTER (d) Antiarrhythmic agents

2021-2022 6. The reflex action of the drug is manifested by

1. What does the concept of pharmacodynamics
include?
a) mechanisms of action of drugs
(b) transformation of drugs in the body
(c) Distribution of drugs in the body
(d) elimination of drugs from the body
2. What does the concept of pharmacodynamics
include?
a) Information on methods of administration of medicines
a) Changes in the ionic composition of blood plasma
(b) effects on extero-and interoreceptors
c) Binding to plasma proteins
(d) biotransformation of hydrophilic substances
7. Choose the answer that best fits the term "receptor»
a) Ion channels of biological membranes, the permeability of
which changes the drug substance
b) Enzymes of oxidizing-reduction reactions activated by a
drug substance

(b) information on the metabolism of drugs in the body c) Active groups of macromolecules of substrates with which
the drug interacts
(c) storage Conditions for medicines
(d) drug-activated Transport systems
d) Biological effects of drugs
8. What happens when allosteric interaction with the
receptor?
3. What does the concept of pharmacodynamics
include?
A) stimulation of mediator release
(a) Information on basic suction mechanisms
(b) inhibition of mediator release
b) information about side effects
c) Modulation of the main mediator effect
(c) Information on biological barriers
(d) changes in the gene apparatus and the phenomenon of
mutation
(d) information on ways to remove the drug from the body
9. What is meant by the term "affinity"?
4. The action of the substance, developing after its entry
into the systemic circulation, is called:
a) affinity of the substance to microsomal liver enzymes
a) Reflex
b) affinity of the substance to the receptor, leading to the
formation of a complex with it " substance-receptor»
(b) collateral Damage
(c) affinity of the substance to plasma albumins
(c) Local
(d) affinity of the substance to the transport systems of the
d) Resorptive
organism

5. What substances have a local effect in therapeutic

10. What is called the internal activity of the drug?
doses?
a) the ability of a substance to inhibit the receptor when
(a) Diuretics interacting with it

(b) Hypertensive agents b ) the ability of the substance to stimulate the receptor and
cause a biological effect when interacting with the receptor
(c) the ability of a substance, when interacting with transport
systems, to produce an effect opposite to receptor excitation
(d) The ability of a substance to reduce membrane permeability
when interacting with plasma enzymes
15. What is the name of a substance acting on one
subtype of receptors as an agonist, and on the other-as
an antagonist?
a) Competitive antagonist

11. An agonist is a substance that (b) non-Competitive antagonist

a) when interacting with a specific receptor binds to it and does c) Agonist-antagonist

not cause a biological effect
(d) Incomplete agonist
b) when interacting with specific receptors causes changes in
them, leading to a biological effect 16. Irreversible action of drugs occurs, as a rule, by:

c) Interacts with non-specific receptors and causes a biological (a) Ion coupling
effect
(b) Hydrogen bonding
d) Interacts with plasma proteins and does not cause a
biological effect
c) Covalent bond

12. If the agonist, interacting with the receptor, causes the (d) van der Waals forces
maximum effect, it is called
17. What is the basis of selectivity of the drug?
a) Partial agonist
a) affinity (affinity) of the substance to the receptor
(b) Partial agonist
(b) Electrostatic interaction
c) Antagonist
c) Binding to plasma proteins
d) Full agonist
d) Antagonism with endogenous ligands
13. An antagonist is a substance that:
18. Note the secondary transmitter that binds the receptor
a) when interacting with a specific receptor binds to it and to the effector:
causes a biological effect
a) adenylate Cyclase
b) when interacting with specific receptors causes changes in
them, leading to a biological effect
(b) guanylate Cyclase
c) Interacts with non-specific receptors and causes a biological
effect C) Phospholipase C

d) Binds to the receptor but does not cause it to be stimulated d) calcium Ions

14. Competitive antagonists are substances that: 19. What is the definition corresponds to the threshold
(minimal) therapeutic dose?
a) Interact with nonspecific receptors
a) the Amount of substance causing the initial biological effect
b) Occupy the same receptors with which agonists interact
(b) the Amount of substance causing harmful effects to the
body
c) Occupy areas of the macromolecule that are not related to a
specific receptor, but are interconnected with it
c) the Amount of substance that has the necessary
pharmacotherapeutic effect in the vast majority of patients
d) Acts on one receptor subtype as an agonist and on the other
as an antagonist
(d) the Amount of substance that rapidly creates a high
concentration of the drug in the body
 20. What is the definition corresponds to the average
therapeutic dose?
(a) the Amount of substance causing the initial biological effect
(b) the Amount of substance causing harmful effects to the
body
c) the Amount of substance that has the necessary
pharmacotherapeutic effect in the vast majority of patients
(d) the Amount of substance that rapidly creates a high
concentration of the drug in the body
21. What definition corresponds to the highest
therapeutic dose?
(a) the Amount of substance causing the initial biological effect
(b) the Amount of substance causing harmful effects to the
body
c) Amount of substance exceeding which causes toxic effects
(d) the Amount of substance that rapidly creates a high
concentration of the drug in the body
22. What is the definition corresponds to the toxic dose?
(a) the Amount of substance causing the initial biological effect
b) Amount of substance causing harmful effects to the body
c) the Amount of substance that has the necessary
pharmacotherapeutic effect in the vast majority of patients
(d) the Amount of substance that rapidly creates a high
concentration of the drug in the body
23. What is the definition corresponds to the dose?
(a) the Amount of substance causing the initial biological effect
(b) the Amount of substance causing harmful effects to the
body
c) the Amount of substance that has the necessary
pharmacotherapeutic effect in the vast majority of patients
d) the Amount of substance required for the entire period of
treatment until recovery or until the onset of persistent positive
dynamics
24. What definition corresponds to the shock dose?
(a) the Amount of substance causing the initial biological effect
(b) the Amount of substance causing harmful effects to the
body
c) the Amount of substance that has the necessary
pharmacotherapeutic effect in the vast majority of patients
d) The first dose exceeding the next, if necessary, quickly
create a high concentration of the drug in the body
25. The breadth of therapeutic action is called the dose
range
(a) from the highest therapeutic to the lowest toxic
b) From the average to the minimum therapeutic and toxic
c) From the minimum to the minimum therapeutic and toxic
(d) medium therapeutic to high therapeutic
26. More convenient for use are drugs
(a) Having high activity and high toxicity
b) Having a greater breadth of therapeutic action
c) Having a small breadth of therapeutic action
(d) Affecting many organs and systems simultaneously
27. What is the accumulation of the drug in the body with
repeated injections?
(a) Functional cumulation
b) Material cumulation
(c) Sensitization
(d) Tachyphylaxis
28. What is the name of reducing the effectiveness of the
substance when reused?
a) Idiosyncrasy
(b) Addiction
(c) Cumulation
d) Tolerance
29. What does the concept of "addiction" (tolerance)
include?
a) Strengthening of action of substance at repeated reception
b) Reduction of the effect of the substance upon repeated (c) Pharmaceutical interactions
administration
d) Pharmacokinetic interaction
(c) Abstinence
35. What is the phenomenon observed in the combined
(d) hypersensitivity to the substance use of drugs?

(a) Tolerance
30. Addiction to the drug may be a consequence:
(b) Tachyphylaxis
(a) Mental dependence
(c) Cumulation
b) Increased liver metabolism
(d) Synergy
c) inhibition of excretion of the drug by the kidneys
36. In some cases, there is an additive synergy?
d) activation of the molecule in the liver
a) the Total effect exceeds the sum of the effects of each
31. Addiction to the drug may be a consequence component

a) Induction of liver microsomal enzymes b) Simple addition of the effects of each component

(b) increased receptor sensitivity c) the Total effect is less than the sum of the effects of each
component
c) inhibition of liver microsomal enzymes
d) the Total effect is equal to the effect of one of the substances
d) Decreased tubular secretion in the kidneys
37. What does the term "potentiation" mean?
32. What is the name of the phenomenon when the
withdrawal of the drug causes serious mental and a) the ability of the drug to accumulate
somatic disorders associated with the disorder of the
b) Hypersensitivity to the drug
functions of many body systems up to a fatal
outcome? c) Fast tolerance to the drug
a) Recoil Syndrome d) a Sharp increase in the effects of drugs when used together
(b) Sensitization 38. Side effects include:
c) Abstinence a) Mutagenic effect
(d) Idiosyncrasy (b) Reflex action
33. What is the type of drug interaction associated with (c) Local action
impaired absorption, biotransformation, transport,
deposition and excretion of one of the substances? (d) Central action

a) Pharmacodynamic interaction 39. Teratogenic effect is

(b) Functional interaction a) Toxic effects on the liver

(c) Pharmaceutical interactions b) Negative effect on the embryo and fetus, leading to
congenital deformities
d) Pharmacokinetic interactions
C) Toxic effect on hematopoiesis
34. What is the type of drug interaction that results from
the interaction of substances at the level of receptors, (d) toxic effects on the kidneys
cells, enzymes, organs or physiological systems?
40. The mutagenic effect of the drug is:
a) Pharmacodynamic interaction
a) effect on the cardiovascular system
(b) Functional interaction
b) Action on liver microsomal enzymes 46. Note the localization of N-cholinergic receptors:

c) action on germ cells with a change in the genetic apparatus a) Smooth muscle of the bladder

(d) effects on basal metabolism b) skeletal muscle Cells

41. The appointment of drugs to eliminate the cause of
(c) Salivary glands
the disease is called

(a) Pathogenetic therapy (d) Cardiomyocytes

(b) Symptomatic therapy 47. Note M-and N-cholinomimetic:

c) Etiotropic therapy a) Atropine

(d) Antidote therapy (b) Cititon

42. What effect of the drug does not relate to a negative c) Proserine
effect on the body?
d) Benzogeksony
a) Allergic reactions

(b) Teratogenic effects 48. Specify the substance at which M - and N-cholinergic
receptors are simultaneously excited:
c) Desired (primary) action
a) Carbacholine
d) Hepatotoxic effect
(b) Pilocarpine
43. Note the localization of M-cholinergic receptors:
c) Aceclidine
A) neurons of autonomic ganglia
(d) Lobelin
(b) carotid glomeruli
49. Note M-cholinomimetic agent:
c) effector Cells in the region of cholinergic fiber endings
a) Carbacholine
d) chromafin cells of adrenal medulla
b) Pilocarpine hydrochloride
44. Note the localization where there are no M-
cholinergic receptors: (c) Galantamine

a) Bronchi and bronchial glands (d) Cititon

(b) Gastrointestinal tract 50. Note N-cholinomimetic agent:

c) Skeletal muscles a) Aceclidine

d) Heart b) Physostigmine

45. Note the localization of N-cholinergic receptors: c) Lobeline

a) Cells of the gastric glands d) Phosphacol

(b) effector Cells at the end of adrenergic fibers 51. Specify the preparation of their group of
anticholinesterase agents:
c) neurons of autonomic ganglia
a) Proserine
d) Circular muscle of the eye
(b) Aceclidine
C) Tabex 57. What is the difference between anticholinesterase
agents from M-cholinomimetics?
(d) Lobelin
a) stimulation of cholinergic receptors of the heart
52. It is an anticholinesterase agent of reversible action:
b) Excitation of cholinergic receptors of the bronchi
a) Carbacholine
c) the Excitement of cholinergic receptors of the stomach
b) Pyrophos
d) the Excitement of cholinergic receptors of skeletal muscle
c) Physostigmine
58. Specify a remedy for the treatment of glaucoma:
(d) Cititon
a) Atropine sulfate
53. It is an anticholinesterase agent of irreversible action:
b) Phosphacol
a) Neostigmine
c) Cititon
(b) Galantamine
d) Ditilin
c) Phosphacol
59. Specify a tool that reduces intraocular pressure:
d) Physostigmine
a) Pilocarpine
54. Specify an expression that does not correspond to the
characteristic of acetylcholine: (b) Atropine

a) Synthesized from choline and acetyl coenzyme A C) Lobelin

b) Secreted by postganglionic fibers of parasympathetic nerves (d) Cititon

c) is Secreted by postganglionic fibers of sympathetic nerves 60. Specify a tool that does not affect the tone of skeletal
muscles:
d) Hydrolyzed by acetylcholinesterase
a) Carbacholine
55. To specify the correct expression relative to
karbaholina: (b) Galantamine

a) Excites only M-cholinergic receptors c) Aceclidine

b) Excites only N-cholinergic receptors d) Isoniazid

c) Excites both M-and N-cholinergic receptors 61. For what purpose are assigned to the N-
holinomimetiki:
d) Inhibits both M - and N-cholinergic receptors
a) to improve bladder tone
56. What is the main mechanism of action of
anticholinesterase agents? b) for relief of renal colic

a) decrease the permeability of membrane for chlorine ions c) for reflex stimulation of breathing

b) Depressing effect on the pain centers of the brain d) to lower blood pressure

c) Decrease the release of neurotransmitter from presynaptic 62. How do anticholinesterase agents affect the action of
vesicles acetylcholine?

d ) inhibition of the enzyme acetylcholinesterase a) Shorten

b) Weaken b) Bronchospasm

c) Destroy C) Intestinal colic

d) Strengthen (d) gastric ulcer and duodenal Ulcer

63. What effects occur when using anticholinesterase 68. Note the indication for the use of anticholinesterase
agents in therapeutic doses? agents?

a) pupil Constriction (myosis) and decreased intraocular a) Spasms of the bile ducts
pressure
(b) Diarrhea
(b) Dilation of the pupils (mydriasis) and increased intraocular
pressure (c) Convulsions

(c) Tachycardia and high blood pressure d) Glaucoma

d) Decrease in tone of smooth muscles of internal organs 69. What is characteristic of phosphacol?

64. What effects occur when using anticholinesterase
agents in therapeutic doses?
a) Decreased bronchial gland secretion
b) Inhibition of neuromuscular transmission
c) Facilitate neuromuscular transmission
a) Refers to anticholinesterase agents of reversible action
b) Apply to myasthenia gravis
c) low-Toxic drug and is used for resorptive action
d) Very toxic drug and only used topically in the treatment of
glaucoma

d) Hyposalivation 70. Common properties of proserin and phosphacol are:

65. What effects occur when using anticholinesterase a) Block the parasympathetic ganglia
agents in therapeutic doses?
b) Block of sympathetic ganglia
a) Bronchodilation
c) Both drugs are used for skeletal muscle weakness
b) Reduced secretion of gastric glands
d) Block acetylcholinesterase
c) Bradycardia and lowering blood pressure
71. Symptoms of poisoning which group of substances
(d) accommodation Paralysis are: pupil constriction, bradycardia, lacrimation,
pulmonary edema?
66. Note the indication for the use of anticholinesterase
agents? a) N-cholinoblockers

a) Renal colic b) Indirect M - and N - cholinomimetics

b) Bronchial asthma c) the Alkaloids of belladonna

c) myasthenia Gravis (d) N-cholinomimetics

d) Giperatidnyi gastritis 72. What remedies are prescribed for poisoning with
organophosphorus compounds (anticholinesterase
67. Note the indication for the use of anticholinesterase agents of indirect action)?
agents?
a) M-cholinomimetics
a) bowel and bladder Atony
(b) M - and N - cholinomimetics
(c) reversible Anticholinesterase agents d) lowering of intraocular pressure

d) cholinesterase Reactivators 78. Note the effect of m-cholinomimetics on the

gastrointestinal tract.
73. Note the agent from the group of cholinesterase
reactivators. a) Decrease of contractile activity of muscles and increase of
secretory activity of glands
a) Cititon
(b) Increased contractile activity and decreased secretory
b) Dipiroksim activity of the glands

(c) Cocaine c) Increased contractile activity and increased secretory activity

(d) Proserin
74. What action is contraindicated in the treatment of
poisoning with anticholinesterase agents?
a) gastric Lavage, appointment of adsorbing and laxatives
b) Washing of skin and mucous membranes with 3-5% sodium
bicarbonate solution
of glands
d) No effects
79. The mechanism of influence of M-cholinomimetics
on accommodation (spasm) of the eye includes:
a) Acquisition of a convex shape by the lens
b) tension of the zinc bundle

c) Application of M-cholinomimetics c) flattening of the lens

d) Application of M-cholinoblockers d) relaxation of the ciliary muscle

75. Note substance that increases the tone of skeletal 80. Note the indication for the use of pilocarpine
muscles hydrochloride:

a) Proserine a) Bronchial asthma

(b) Pilocarpine (b) myasthenia Gravis

c) Aceclidine (c) renal and hepatic colic

(d) Lobelin d) Glaucoma

76. What effect of M-cholinomimetics has

pharmacotherapeutic value?
81. Note the indication for the use of aceclidine.
(a) accommodation Paralysis
a) Spasms of smooth muscles of the intestine
b) increase the tonus of the bronchial muscles
(b) Paresis and paralysis of skeletal muscles
c) Constriction of pupils and reduction of intraocular pressure c) Postoperative bowel and bladder atony

d) Increased secretion of bronchial glands (d) as a means of discouraging Smoking

77. Note the effect arising from the action of pilocarpine 82. As a result, lower blood pressure M-cholinomimetic
on the eye. agents?

(a) accommodation Paralysis (a) large arteries becoming Obese

(b) increased intraocular pressure b) Reduction of heart function

C) Stimulation of parasympathetic ganglia

(c) Mydriasis
(d) oppression of the vasomotor centre a) Homatropin

83. Note the substance is contraindicated in bronchial b) Carbacholine

asthma:
c) Hygronium
a) Atropine
d) Ipratropium bromide
b) Pilocarpine

C) Metacin 89. Specify the drug from the atropine group:

(d) Scopolamine a) Metacin

84. Note substance that does not interact with N- b) Arfonad

cholinergic receptors:
C) Tabex
a) Galantamine
d) Ditilin
(b) Proserine
90. Note ganglioblocking agents of a short action:
c) Pilocarpine
a) Benzahexonium

b) Platyphylline
Cholinoblockers
c) Arfonad
85. Note M-and N-cholinoblocker:
(d) Pipecuronium
a) Atropine
91. Note muscle relaxant depolarizing action:
b) Cyclodol
(a) Pentamine
c) Ditilin
(b) Tubocurarine
d) Benzahexonium
c) Ditilin
86. Note M-cholinoblocking agent:
(d) Pirenzepine
a) Benzahexonium
92. To note muscle relaxant remedy antidepolorizing
b) Platyphylline hydrotartrate action:

c) Dioxane (a) Edrophonium

(d) Cititon b) Tubocurarin

87. Note M-cholinoblocker poorly penetrating the c) Ditilin

hemato-encephalic barrier:
d) Platyphylline
a) Scopolamine
93. Note curare like agent of mixed type of action:
b) Atropine sulfate
a) Dioxonium
c) Metacin
(b) Pancuronium
(d) Tubocurarine
c) Ditilin
88. Note N-choline blocking agent:
(d) Pipecuronium
94. What effects occur when using M-cholinoblocker:
a) pupil Constriction (myosis) and decreased intraocular
pressure
b) Dilation of pupils (mydriasis) and increased intraocular
pressure
c) Bradycardia
(d) Hypersalivation
95. What effects occur when using M- cholinoblocker:
a) accommodation Spasm (the eye is set to near vision)
b) accommodation Paralysis (the eye is set to long-range
vision)
c) bronchial Spasm
d) Improving skeletal muscle tone
96. What effects occur when using M- cholinoblocker:
a) Bradycardia
b) Improving the tone of smooth muscles of internal organs
c) Reduced secretion of digestive glands
d) Increased secretion of digestive glands
97. What effects occur when using M- cholinoblocker:
a) Bradycardia and low blood pressure
b) Tachycardia and improved conduction of excitation in the
myocardium
c) Improved neuromuscular transmission
(d) Deterioration of neuromuscular transmission
98. What effects occur when using M- cholinoblocker:
a) Reduction of intraocular pressure
b) Increased bronchial tone and secretion of bronchial glands
c) Bronchodilation and decreased secretion of bronchial glands
d) spasm of the gastrointestinal sphincters
99. Specify the expression corresponding to the
characteristic of atropine:
a) Synthesized from choline and acetyl coenzyme A
b) Secreted by postganglionic fibers of parasympathetic nerves
c) Blocks M-cholinoreceptors in effector organs
d) Excites M-cholinergic receptors in effector organs
100. To specify the correct expression relative to the
imposed solution metatsine:
a) Excites only M-cholinergic receptors
b) Excites only N-cholinergic receptors
c ) poorly penetrates the blood-brain barrier
d) Inhibits both M - and N-cholinergic receptors
101. What is the difference between metacine and
atropine?
a) Superior to atropine in the ability to cause mydriasis,
tachycardia
b) Has a pronounced effect on the Central nervous system
c) is Superior to atropine in the medical activity
d) Inferior to atropine in broncholytic activity
102. What is the difference between platyphylline and
atropine?
a) Superior to atropine in the ability to cause mydriasis,
tachycardia
b) Inferior to atropine in ability to cause mydriasis, tachycardia
c) Has spasmogenic properties
d) Stimulates cholinergic receptors of skeletal muscle
103. Specify the means contraindicated in glaucoma:
a) Atropine sulfate
b) Phosphacol
c) Neostigmine
(d) Pilocarpine
104. Specify a tool that increases intraocular pressure:
a) Pilocarpine C) Adrenaline

b) Homatropin (d) Tubocurarine

c) Tubocurarine 110. Specify the indications for the use of M-

cholinoblocker:
d) Ditilin
a) Bronchospasms
105. Which M- cholinoblocker is preferable in eye practice
due to its short-term effect on accommodation? (b) Paroxysmal tachycardia

a) Atropine (c) Glaucoma

(b) Pilocarpine (d) Convulsions

c) Homatropin 111. Specify the indications for the use of M-

cholinoblocker:
(d) Scopolamine
a) dryness of the oral mucosa
106. What M- cholinoblocker depresses the Central
nervous system, causes sedation, drowsiness and b) skeletal muscle Rigidity
sleep.
c) Renal and hepatic colic
a) Atropine
(d) uterine Atony
b) Pirenzepin (gastrotsepin)
112. Indicate the indications for use of atropine:
c) Ipratropium bromide (atrovent)
a) Hypertensive heart disease
d) Scopolamine
(b) Coronary heart disease
107. What M-holinoblokator is part of the tablets "Aeron"
and is used for the prevention of sea and air sickness? c) AV conduction Blockade

a) Benzahexonium (d) bladder Atony

(b) Metacin 113. Indicate the indications for use of atropine:

c) Scopolamine a) Glaucoma

(d) Pirenzepine b) Postoperative intestinal atony

108. What do atropine and scopolamine have in common? c) Premedication

a) Both increase bronchial tone (d) myasthenia Gravis

b) Both cause accommodation spasm 114. Indicate indications for the use of M- cholinoblocker
in eye practice:
c) Both block M-cholinergic receptors
a) to dilate the pupil when examining the fundus
d) Both cause bradycardia
b) for the treatment of glaucoma
109. Note cholinergic drug that causes increased heart rate.
c) atrophy of the optic nerve
a) Atropine
d) night blindness
(b) Proserine
 115. Indicate indications for the use of homatropin in eye 120. What is the remedy appropriate to apply in cases of
practice: poisoning by muscarine ?

a) to reduce intraocular pressure a) Pilocarpine

b) to pick up points (b) Proserine

(c) in the treatment of xerophthalmia c) Tubocurarine

(d) Bacterial conjunctivitis d) Platyphylline

116. Choose a drug, a substitute for atropine in renal colic: 121. What effects occur when using ganglioblocker funds
in therapeutic doses?
a) Pilocarpine
a) pupil Constriction (myosis) and decreased intraocular
b) Benzogeksony pressure

(c) Pipecuronium b) increase the tonus of skeletal muscles

d) Platyphylline (c) Tachycardia and high blood pressure

117. Choose a drug, a substitute for atropine in acute d) Reduction of smooth muscle tone and gastrointestinal
bronchospasm: secretion

(a) Pentamine 122. What effects occur when using ganglioblocking funds
in therapeutic doses?
b) Metacin
a) Increased secretion of the digestive tract glands
c) Aceclidine
b) Inhibition of neuromuscular transmission
d) Ditilin
c) peripheral vascular Dilation and decreased SAD
118. Symptoms of poisoning what drug are: dry mucous
membranes and skin, fever, pupil dilation, (d) Hypersalivation
photophobia, motor and speech arousal?
123. What is the reason for the decrease in blood pressure
a) Hygronium when using pirilene?

(b) Proserine a ) oppression of sympathetic ganglia

c) Atropine (b) inhibition of the parasympathetic ganglia

(d) Cititon c) Excitation of N-cholinergic receptors

119. What is typical for the side effects of m-cholinergic (d) Blockade of M-cholinergic receptors
blockers?
124. Note the indication for the use of gangliobloking
a) pupil Constriction, accommodation spasm, bradycardia, agents?
bronchospasm
a) Reflex respiratory arrest
b) pupil Constriction, tachycardia, respiratory distress
b) Bronchospasm
c) pupil Dilation, bradycardia, bronchospasm
c) Hypertensive crisis
d) Dry mouth, pupil dilation, tachycardia, psychosis
d) Atony of the intestine
 125. Note the indication for the use of gangliobloking (b) Hyperpolarization of the postsynaptic membrane
agents?
c) Persistent depolarization of the postsynaptic membrane
a) Spasms of the bile ducts
(d) Stabilization of the postsynaptic membrane
(b) Hypertension
131. To specify the mechanism of action of tubocurarine:
(c) Convulsions
a) Disruption of acetylcholine synthesis in motor nerve endings
d) pulmonary Edema
(b) Blocking of the parasympathetic ganglia
126. Note the choline blocker used for controlled
hypotension: c) increasing the rate of hydrolysis of acetylcholine

a) Atropine d) Stabilization of the postsynaptic membrane

b) Arfonad 132. Common properties of ditilin and tubocurarin are:

c) Platyphylline a) Block the parasympathetic ganglia

d) Ditilin b) Block of sympathetic ganglia

127. Note the side effect of ganglioblockers: c) to Cause muscle relaxation

a) Hypertension d) Block the acetylcholinesterase

b) Orthostatic collapse 133. Note the indication for the use of muscle relaxants:

(c) Diarrhea a) in surgical practice for muscle relaxation during operations

(d) Psychosis (b) myasthenia Gravis

128. Note the side effect of ganglioblockers. (c) Spasmophilia

A) increased diuresis (d) Myositis

b) Spasm of the smooth muscles of the intestine 134. Specify the side effects of ditilin:

c) Inhibition of gastrointestinal motility (obstipation) a) a Decrease in blood pressure

(d) Addiction b) Bronchospasm, tachypnea

129. Specify a tool that reduces the tone of skeletal (c) Tachycardia
muscles:
d) Cramps, postoperative muscle pain
a) Carbacholine
135. Indicate tubocurarine side effects:
(b) Scopolamine
a) Increased blood pressure
c) of Dioxane
b) Lowering blood pressure, bronchospasm
d) Ipratropium bromide
c) cardiac Arrhythmias
130. Specify the mechanism of action of ditilin:
(d) increased intraocular pressure
a) acetylcholine reuptake Disorder
Adrenomimetics
 136. Note the predominant localization of alpha1- 141. Note the predominant localization of beta2-
adrenergic receptors: adrenergic receptors:

A) neurons of autonomic ganglia a) the Capsule of the spleen

(b) carotid glomeruli b) the vessels of the intestine and liver

c) Vessels of skin, kidneys, intestines c) adiposity of adipose tissue

d) chromafin cells of adrenal medulla (d) Cardiomyocytes

137. Note the predominant localization of alpha- 142. Note the predominant localization of beta3-
adrenergic receptors: adrenergic receptors:

a) the Radial muscle of the iris a) Vessels of the liver

b) skeletal muscle Vessels b) Sphincters of the gastrointestinal tract

(c) Cardiomyocytes c) adipocytes of adipose tissue

d) Depot of glycogen d) glandular cells of the stomach

138. To note the main localization and effect of excitation 143. What effects are associated with the excitation of
of ALPHA2-adrenoreceptors: postsynaptic alpha-adrenergic receptors?

a) Are located on the presynaptic membrane and increase the a) Dilation of blood vessels
excitability of the myocardium
b) Narrowing of blood vessels
b) Are on the presynaptic membrane and reduce the release of
norepinephrine c) constriction of the pupils

c) are On the postsynaptic membrane of the parasympathetic d) relaxation of bronchial muscles

ganglia
144. What effects are associated with the excitation of
d) Excited, increase the release of norepinephrine postsynaptic alpha-adrenergic receptors?

139. Note the localization of beta1-adrenergic receptors. a) Increased contractions of the heart

a) Heart b) Weakening of heart contractions

b) effector Cells in the region of cholinergic fiber endings c) pupil Dilation (mydriasis)

C) neurons of autonomic ganglia d) relaxation of the gastrointestinal sphincters

d) the Radial muscle of the iris 145. What effects are associated with the excitation of
postsynaptic alpha-adrenergic receptors?
140. Note the predominant localization of beta2-
adrenergic receptors: a) bronchial Constriction

a) muscles of the bronchi b) bronchial Dilation

b) skeletal muscle Cells c) Glycogenolysis

c) the Sphincters of the gastrointestinal tract d) Reduction of gastrointestinal sphincters

(d) Cardiomyocytes 146. What effects are associated with the excitation of
postsynaptic beta1-adrenergic receptors?
a) Increased contraction and conduction of the heart
(b) Weakening of the fusion of the heart
c) Narrowing of blood vessels
c) Excitation of alpha-adrenoreceptors and contraction of the
radial muscle of the iris
d) Excitation of alpha-adrenergic receptors and relaxation of
radial iris muscle

(d) Mydriasis 152. To celebrate the alpha and beta adrenomimetic of

direct action:
147. What effects are associated with the excitation of
postsynaptic beta2-adrenergic receptors? a) Mezaton

a) Tachycardia (b) Ephedrine

(b) Bradycardia c) Norepinephrine

c) Dilation of intestinal vessels, liver, coronary vessels d) Izadrin

d) bronchial Constriction 153. Specify the substance at which both alpha-and beta-
adrenergic receptors are simultaneously excited:
148. What effects are associated with the excitation of
postsynaptic beta2-adrenergic receptors? a) Adrenaline

a) Mydriasis b) Naphazoline

(b) Myosis (c) Phenoterol

c) reduction in the capsule of the spleen (d) Dobutamine

d) bronchial Dilation (bronchodilation) 154. Note alpha1-adrenomimetic agent:

149. What effects are associated with the excitation of a) Norepinephrine

postsynaptic beta3-adrenergic receptors?
(b) Ephedrine
a) Lipolysis
c) Mezaton
(b) Increased platelet aggregation
d) Terbutaline
c) Reduced platelet aggregation
155. Note ALPHA2-adrenomimetic agent:
d) AV conduction Gain
a) Adrenaline
150. The impact of agonists on the eye?
b) Galazoline
a) Cause paralysis of accommodation
c) Salbutamol
b) Cause a change in pupil size-mydriasis
(d) Mezaton
c) Increase the production of intraocular fluid
156. Specify the drug from the group of indirect
d) Cause myosis and accommodation spasm adrenomimetics:

151. The main mechanism of mydriasis caused by a) Norepinephrine

adrenomimetics is due to:
b) Adrenaline
a) Excitation of beta-adrenergic receptors
c) Izadrin
b) relaxation of the zinc ligament
d) Ephedrine b) Norepinephrine

157. Note beta1-adrenomimetic agent: c) Naphazoline

(a) Dobutamine d) a Terbutaline

(b) Dopamine 163. Specify the drug that increases the excitability of the
myocardium:
(c) Phenoterol
a) Adrenaline
d) Adrenaline
b) happy with their performance.
158. Beta1-beta2-adrenomimetic agent:
(c) Mezaton
(a) Dobutamine
(d) Salbutamol
b) Terbutaline
164. Specify the expression corresponding to the
(c) Ephedrine characteristic of adrenaline:

d) Izadrin a) Synthesized from choline and acetyl coenzyme A

159. To mention a beta2-adrenomimetic remedy: b) Secreted by postganglionic fibers of parasympathetic nerves

a) Galazolin c) is Synthesized in the adrenal medulla

b) Naphazoline d) stimulates only beta-adrenergic receptors

c) Salbutamol Adrenoblockers

d) Izadrin 165. Adrenoblockers:

160. What agent selectively excites beta2-adrenoreceptors a) Interact with the mediator, inactivating it
of the bronchi?
b) Interact with adrenoreceptors, preventing the action of the
(a) Dobutamine mediator

b) Phenoterol (Berotec) c) Block the reverse neuronal capture of the mediator

c) Izadrin d) Deplete the mediator stores in the synapse

(d) Ephedrine 166. Mechanism of action of sympatholytics :

161. Specify the drug that increases the total peripheral a) Act on postsynaptic receptors
vascular resistance (OPS):
b) Block of sympathetic ganglia
a) Salbutamol
c) Block beta-adrenergic receptors
(b) Phenoterol
d) Empty norepinephrine depot
c) Mezaton
167. Beta-blockers include:
(d) Dobutamine
a) Prazosin
162. Specify the drug with broncholytic properties:
b) Anaprilin
a) Dopamine
c) Reserpine b) beta2 receptor Blockade

(d) Atropine c) Depression of the respiratory center

168. To alpha-adrenoblokatoram applies: d) beta-1 receptor Blockade

a) Metoprolol 174. Reserpine reduces blood PRESSURE due to:

b) Talinolol a) Antispasmodic action

C) Octadine b) Sympatholytic action

d) Phentolamine (c) Adrenomimetic action

169. To beta1-adrenoblokatoram applies d) choline-Blocking action

a) Labetalol 175. Ergot alkaloids include:

b) Metoprolol a) Reserpine

c) Anaprilin b) Dihydroergotamine

(d) Prazosin C) Octadine

170. Specify sympatholytic: (d) Ephedrine

a) Reserpine 176. Ergot alkaloids are:

(b) Ephedrine (a) non-Selective beta-blockers

c) Prazosin (b) Selective alpha blockers

(d) Tropafen (c) Selective beta-blockers

171. Beta-blockers are used when: d) non-Selective alpha blockers

a) Hypotension 177. Propranolol:

b) Atrioventricular block a) Causes tachycardia

c) Hypertension b) Increases blood sugar levels

d) Bronchial asthma c) Lowers blood sugar

172. Beta-blockers are contraindicated: d) Dilates the bronchi

(a) psychosis 178. Which of the following beta-blockers additionally

block alpha1-adrenergic receptors:
b) Patients with bronchial asthma
a) Atenolol
c) glaucoma
b) Labetalol
d) all answers are correct
c) Talinolol
173. Causes of bronchospasm caused by anaprilin:
d) Oxprenolol
a) Stimulation of the vagus nerve centers
 179. A complication in the application of anaprilin can be: c) does not change

a) Hypertension d) Decreases due to decreased cardiac output

b) Atony of the intestine 185. Anaprilin for bronchial asthma

c) Bradycardia a) Relieve bronchospasm

(d) Tachycardia b) will Strengthen bronchospasm

180. Beta-adrenergic receptor blockers.: c) Will not change the tone of the bronchi

a) Reduce the activity of the heart (d) Is the product of choice

b) Increase heart function 186. Blood pressure under the influence of octadine:

c) Increase peripheral vascular tone a) Decreases within a few minutes

d) Reduce peripheral vascular tone b) Decreases within a few hours

181. Octadine causes: c) Decreases within a few days

a) Stimulation of monoamine oxidase d) does not change

(b) alpha-adrenoceptor Blockade 187. Sympatholytics include:

c) Disruption of norepinephrine deposition a) Ornid

(d) Facilitating the conduction of excitation in the sympathetic (b) Octadine

ganglia
c) the First two answers are correct
182. Reserpine:
d) None of the answers are correct
a) Has a depressing effect on the Central nervous system
188. Side effects in the application of sympatholytics are:
b) Has a stimulating effect on the Central nervous system
a) Increased intestinal motility
c) Blocks alpha-adrenergic receptors
b) Increased secretion of digestive glands
d) does not affect CNS function
c) Bradycardia
183. Alpha-adrenoblocker:
d) all answers are correct
a) Octadine
Narcotic analgesics
(b) Reserpine
189. Endogenous pain mediators are the following
c) Tamsulosin substances, except:

(d) Metoprolol a) Bradykinins

184. Blood pressure with the introduction of propranolol: (b) Prostoglandins

a) Increased due to vascular spasm c) Enkephalins

(b) Reduced by direct action on vessels (d) Substance P

 190. Specify the structure of the brain responsible for the a) Acute renal failure
emotional coloring of secondary pain:
(b) inhibition of the vasomotor centre
a) Reticular formation
c) the Depression of the respiratory center
(b) Visual tubercle
d) Direct cardiodepressive effect
c) Limbic system
196. Specify the main cause of obstipation when using
(d) cerebral Cortex morphine:

191. Indicate the narcotic analgesic, a derivative of a) Increased pancreatic secretion

phenanthrene:
b) Decreased sphincter tone
a) Morphine
c) Reduced intestinal peristalsis
(b) Promedol
d) Increased bile secretion
c) Fentanyl
197. Specify narcotic analgesic that has an antispasmodic
(d) Estocin effect:

192. Indicate the narcotic analgesic, a derivative of (a) Morphine

piperidine:
(b) Codeine
(a) Morphine
C) Papaverine
b) Promedol
d) Promedol
c) Pentazocin
198. Specify narcotic analgesic, short-term action:
(d) Estocin
a) Fentanyl
193. Indicate what effect morphine has on
thermoregulation: (b) Omnopon

a) Increase in body temperature (C) Morphine

b) Decrease in body temperature (d) Promedol

c) Reduction of heat transfer 199. Specify a narcotic analgesic that does not cause
euphoria:
d) No effect
a) Promedol
194. When using morphine may develop the following
effects, except: b) Pentazocin

a) Depression of the respiratory center c) Fentanyl

(b) suppression of the emetic centre (d) Estocin

c) Mydriasis 200. Specify the antagonist of narcotic analgesics:

(d) Bradycardia a) Nalbuphine,

195. Specify the main cause of death from morphine b) Buprenorphine

poisoning:
c) Naloxone (b) Selegiline

(d) Pentazocin c) Bromocriptine

Antiparkinsonian drugs d) Trihexyphenidyl

201. Specify the brain structures that are affected in 206. Specify antiparkinsonian agent, monoamine oxidase
Parkinson's disease: inhibitor:

(a) Limbic system a) Selegiline

(b) Reticular formation (b) Levodopa

c) Extrapyramidal system c) Midantan

(d) The core of the solitary tract d) Trihexyphenidyl

202. Specify the lack of a mediator observed in 207. Specify antiparkinsonian agent inhibiting
Parkinson's disease: glutamatergic effects:

a) Acetylcholine a) Cyclodol

(b) Serotonin b) Midantan

(c) GABA c) Selegiline

d) Dopamine (d) Bromocriptine

203. Indicate the main reason why it is impossible to use 208. Specify antiparkinsonian agent, inhibiting cholinergic
dopamine as a replacement therapy for Parkinson's effects:
disease:
a) Midantan
a) Dopamine practically does not penetrate the blood-brain
barrier (b) Selegiline

b) Dopamine is intensively metabolized in the body c) Cyclodol

C) Dopamine is contraindicated for intravenous administration (d) Bromocriptine

d) Dopamine causes psychosis with long-term use 209. Specify antiparkinsonian agent used as replacement
therapy:
204. Specify antiparkinsonian agent, which is a precursor
to dopamine: a) Bromocriptine

a) Bromocriptine (b) Midantan

b) l-DOPA c) Selegiline

c) Selegiline d) l-DOPA

(d) Midantan 210. Specify the inhibitor of peripheral DOPA-

decarboxylase, the use of which in the treatment of
205. Specify antiparkinsonian agent that stimulates parkinsonism eliminates the side effects of levodopa:
dopamine receptors:
a) Benserazide
a) Levodopa
(b) Tolkapon
c) Domperidone (d) Levodopa

d) Clozapine 216. Specify antiparkinsonian agent, the use of which is

contraindicated in glaucoma:
211. Specify antiparkinsonian agent, D2 receptor agonist:
a) Bromocriptine
a) Bromocriptine
(b) Levodopa
(b) Selegiline
c) Cyclodol
c) Trihexyphenidyl
(d) Selegiline
(d) Levodopa
Neuroleptics
212. Specify antiparkinsonian agent inhibiting the
production of prolactin: 217. Specify the structure of the brain, the impact on
which provides antipsychotic effect of neuroleptics:
a) Cyclodol
(a) Extrapyramidal system
(b) Levodopa
b) the trigger zone of the bottom of the IV ventricle
c) Bromocriptine
c) Mesolimbic and mesocortical systems
(d) Midantan
(d) Hypothalamic-pituitary system
213. Specify antiparkinsonian agent inhibiting the
production of growth hormone: 218. Specify antipsychotic agent, aliphatic phenothiazine
derivative:
a) Cyclodol
a) Chlorpromazine
(b) Levodopa
(b) Triftazine
c) Bromocriptine
c) Thioridazine
(d) Selegiline
d) Clozapine
214. Specify antiparkinsonian agent with antispasmodic
effect: 219. Specify an antipsychotic agent, piperazine derivative
of phenothiazine:
a) Midantan
a) Chlorpromazine
(b) Selegiline
b) Triftazine
c) Bromocriptine
c) Thioridazine
d) Cyclodol
d) Clozapine
215. Specify antiparkinsonian agent that causes dryness of
the oral mucosa, tachycardia and accommodation 220. Specify antipsychotic agent, piperidine derivative of
disorders: phenothiazine:

a) Cyclodol a) Chlorpromazine

(b) Selegiline (b) Triftazine

c) Bromocriptine c) Thioridazine
d) Clozapine 226. Specify an antipsychotic agent for which H1-
histamine-blocking action is typical:
221. Specify an antipsychotic agent, a derivative of
butyrophenone: a) Chlorpromazine

a) Ftorfenazin (b) Reserpine

(b) Clozapine c) Haloperidol

c) Haloperidol d) Clozapine

(d) Sulpiride 227. Specify an antipsychotic that does not reduce blood
pressure and does not cause orthostatic hypotension:
222. Specify an antipsychotic agent, a derivative of
dibenzodiazepine: a) Chlorpromazine

a) Haloperidol (b) Triftazine

b) Clozapine c) Haloperidol

c) Triftazine d) Chlorprothixene

d) Chlorprothixene 228. Specify an antipsychotic agent, a derivative of short-

acting butyrophenone:
223. Specify the effect of aminazine on thermoregulation:
a) Haloperidol
a) Reduction of heat transfer
(b) Triftazine
(b) increased body temperature
c) Droperidol
c) No effect
d) Clozapine
d) Increased heat transfer
229. Specify the mechanism of hypotensive action of
224. Specify an antipsychotic agent for which m-choline aminazine:
blocking action is typical:
(a) oppression of the hypothalamic centers
a) Chlorprothixene
(b) α-adrenoblocking and antispasmodic effects
(b) Haloperidol
c) Decrease in heart rate strength
c) Clozapine
d) All right
d) Chlorpromazine
230. Specify the antipsychotic agent used in
225. Specify an antipsychotic agent for which the irritant neuroleptanalgesia:
and local anesthetic action is typical:
a) Droperidol
a) Haloperidol
(b) Haloperidol
(b) Clozapine
c) Sulpiride
c) Chlorpromazine
(d) Aminazine
(d) Sulpiride
231. Specify antipsychotic agent used in the treatment of
hypertension:
a) Reserpine d) Nozepam

(b) Haloperidol 237. Specify benzodiazepine anxiolytic, the most rapidly

absorbed in the gastrointestinal tract:
c) Clozapine
a) Diazepam
(d) Sulpiride
b) Nozepam
Anxiolytics c) Lorazepam
232. Specify benzodiazepine anxiolytic long-acting: d) Midazolam
a) Nospam 238. Specify anxiolytic, which is an agonist of serotonin
receptors:
(b) Lorazepam
a) Lorazepam
c) Phenazepam
b) Buspiron
d) Midazolam
c) Amizil
233. Specify benzodiazepine anxiolytic average duration
of action: d) Midazolam
a) Diazepam 239. Specify the receptor structures with which buspiron
interacts:
(b) Phenazepam
a) NMDA and GABA receptors
c) Midazolam
b) 5-HT2 and histamine receptors
d) Nozepam
c) 5-HT1A and dopamine receptors
234. Specify the benzodiazepine anxiolytic short-acting:
(d) M-cholinergic receptors
a) Midazolam
240. Specify anxiolytic, which has no sedative,
(b) Lorazepam
anticonvulsant and muscle-relaxing effect:
c) Nozepam
a) Phenazepam
(d) Chlordiazepoxide
(b) Lorazepam
235. For benzodiazepine drugs are characterized by the
c) Alprazolam
following effects, except:
d) Buspiron
a) muscle Relaxant
(e) Midazolam
b) Analgesic
241. Specify anxiolytic, diphenylmethane derivative:
c) Anticonvulsant
a) Phenazepam
(d) Amnesic
b) Amizil
236. Specify "day tranquilizer", a derivative of the
benzodiazepine series: c) Buspiron
a) Phenazepam (d) Chlordiazepoxide
(b) Diazepam 242. Specify anxiolytic, a Central m-holinoblokatora:
c) Medazepam a) Buspiron
b) Amizil 248. Specify an antipsychotic agent, a derivative of
butyrophenone:
C) Metacin
a) Ftorfenazin
d) Nozepam
(b) Clozapine
antipsychotic agents
c) Haloperidol
243. Specify the structure of the brain, the impact on
which provides antipsychotic effect of neuroleptics: (d) Sulpiride

(a) Extrapyramidal system 249. Specify an antipsychotic agent, a derivative of

dibenzodiazepine:
b) the trigger zone of the bottom of the IV ventricle
a) Haloperidol
c) Mesolimbic and mesocortical systems
b) Clozapine
(d) Hypothalamic-pituitary system
c) Triftazine
244. Specify antipsychotic agent, aliphatic phenothiazine
derivative: d) Chlorprothixene

a) Chlorpromazine 250. Specify the effect of aminazine on thermoregulation:

(b) Triftazine a) Reduction of heat transfer

c) Thioridazine (b) increased body temperature

d) Clozapine c) No effect

245. Specify an antipsychotic agent, piperazine derivative d) Increased heat transfer

of phenothiazine:
251. Specify an antipsychotic agent for which m-choline
a) Chlorpromazine blocking action is typical:

b) Triftazine a) Chlorprothixene

c) Thioridazine (b) Haloperidol

d) Clozapine c) Clozapine

246. Specify antipsychotic agent, piperidine derivative of d) Chlorpromazine

phenothiazine:
252. Specify an antipsychotic agent for which the irritant
a) Chlorpromazine and local anesthetic action is typical:

(b) Triftazine a) Haloperidol

c) Thioridazine (b) Clozapine

d) Clozapine c) Chlorpromazine

247. Specify an antipsychotic agent, a derivative of (d) Sulpiride

thioxanthene:
253. Specify an antipsychotic agent for which H1-
a) Ftorfenazin histamine-blocking action is typical:

(b) Haloperidol a) Chlorpromazine

c) Sulpiride (b) Reserpine

d) Chlorprothixene c) Haloperidol
d) Clozapine (b) Zopiclone

254. Specify an antipsychotic that does not reduce blood c) Phenobarbital

pressure and does not cause orthostatic hypotension:
d) chloral Hydrate
a) Chlorpromazine
260. Specify benzodiazepine receptor agonist:
(b) Triftazine
a) Zolpidem
c) Haloperidol
(b) Ethaminal sodium
d) Chlorprothixene
c) Chloral Hydrate
255. Specify an antipsychotic agent, a derivative of short-
acting butyrophenone: d) Phenobarbital

a) Haloperidol 261. Specify the brain structure, which have a predominant

influence of barbituric acid derivatives:
(b) Triftazine
(a) Limbic system
c) Droperidol
b) Reticular formation
d) Clozapine
c) the Core of the solitary tract
256. Specify the antipsychotic agent used in
neuroleptanalgesia: (d) Extrapyramidal system

a) Droperidol 262. Specify the brain structure, which have a predominant

influence of benzodiazepine derivatives series:
(b) Haloperidol
a) the Core of the solitary tract
c) Sulpiride
(b) Extrapyramidal system
(d) Aminazine
c) Limbic system
257. Specify antipsychotic agent used in the treatment of
hypertension: (d) Reticular formation

a) + Reserpine 263. Specify the characteristic sign of " REM sleep»:

(b) Haloperidol a) + Increased movement of the eyeballs

c) Clozapine b) Increased heart rate

(d) Sulpiride (c) Rapid breathing

Sedative-Hypnotics d) Increased sweating

258. Specify a sleeping aid derived from barbituric acid:
264. Specify the main requirement for the "ideal"
a) Nitrazepam hypnotic:

(b) chloral Hydrate (A) ensure a minimum of 12 hours of sleep

c) Ethaminal sodium b) No effect on sleep structure

(d) Phenazepam c) Predominant influence on the phase of "slow" sleep

259. Specify a sleeping pill, a derivative of the aliphatic d) Predominant influence on the phase of "fast" sleep
series:
265. Specify receptor structures whose activity is
a) Diazepam modulated by benzodiazepine derivatives:
a) NMDA receptors d) Flurazepam

(b) 5-HT2 receptors 271. Specify a long-acting benzodiazepine derivative:

c) GABA receptors a) Lorazepam

(d) H1 receptors (b) Nitrazepam

266. Specify the ion channels whose function is modulated c) Triazolam

by the action of benzodiazepine derivatives:
d) Diazepam
a) Sodium
272. Specify the benzodiazepine derivative which is
(b) Potassium characterized by the highest probability of aftereffect:

C) Calcium a) Triazolam

d) Chlorine b) Phenazepam

267. Indicate what happens to the chlorine ion channels, c) Nozepam

under the influence of hypnotics benzodiazepine
series: (d) Temazepam

a) Complete unit 273. Specify the benzodiazepine derivative which is

characterized by the greatest probability of the
(b) longer opening phenomenon of " returns»:

c) more frequent opening a) Phenazepam

d) Partial block b) Flurazepam

268. Indicate what happens to the chlorine ion channels, c) Diazepam

under the action of barbituric acid derivatives:
d) Triazolam
a) longer opening
274. Enter the antagonist-benzodiazepine hypnotics
(b) more frequent discovery number:

c) Partial block a) Hexenal

d) Complete unit (b) Zopiclone

269. Specify a derivative of benzodiazepine short-term c) Flumazenil

action:
d) Sodium oxybutyrate
a) Phenazepam
275. Specify receptor structures whose activity is
b) Triazolam modulated by barbituric acid derivatives:

C) Nitrazepam a) NMDA receptors

(d) Diazepam (b) 5-HT1 receptors

270. Specify the derivative of benzodiazepine of average c) GABA receptors

duration of action:
(d) H2 receptors
a) Phenazepam
276. Specify what happens to microsomal enzymes, under
b) Lorazepam the action of barbituric acid derivatives:

c) Triazolam a) Activation
(b) Inhibition (b) Fluoxetine

c) Induction (c) Moclobemide

d) No effect d) Imipramine
277. Specify the side effects not characteristic of long-
282. Specify the agent for the treatment of depression,
acting barbituric acid derivatives: non-selective monoamine oxidase inhibitor:
a) the expression aftereffect
a) Imipramine
(b) Material cumulation
b) Nialamide
(c) development of drug dependence
(c) Moclobemide
d ) inhibition of microsomal enzymes
(d) Fluoxetine
278. Specify a sleeping pill that has a pronounced irritating
effect: 283. Specify the agent for the treatment of depression,
selective monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAO-A):
a) Phenobarbital
a) Fluoxetine
(b) Zopiclone

c) Triazolam b) Amitriptyline

d) chloral Hydrate c) Moclobemide

антидепрессанты. d), Maprotiline

279. Specify a tool for the treatment of depression, 284. Specify the means for the treatment of depression,
blocking the neuronal uptake of serotonin and with well-expressed m-cholinoblocking action:
norepinephrine:
a) Azafen
a) Nialamide
b) Amitriptyline
(b) Maprotilin
c) Fluoxetine
c) Amitriptyline
(d) Nialamide
(d) Fluoxetine
285. Imizin is characterized by the following peripheral
280. Specify a tool for the treatment of depression, effects, except:
selectively blocking neuronal serotonin uptake:
a) M-anticholinergic action
a) Nialamide
b) histamine-Blocking effect
(b) Maprotilin
c) Beta-adrenoblocking action
c) Amitriptyline
d) Alpha1-adrenoblokirtee action
d) Fluoxetine
286. Specify a tool for the treatment of depression, the use
281. Specify a tool for the treatment of depression, of which is possible as psychosedative and
selectively blocking neuronal capture of psychostimulatory effects:
norepinephrine:
a) Amitriptyline
a) Maprotilin
(b) Fluoxetine
c) Nialamide c) Enkephalins

d) Imipramine (d) Substance P

287. Specify a means for the treatment of depression, a 292. Specify the structure of the brain responsible for the
derivative of phenoxypropylamine: emotional coloring of secondary pain:

a) Maprotilin a) Reticular formation

b) Fluoxetine (b) Visual tubercle

c) Amitriptyline c) Limbic system

(d) Nialamide (d) cerebral Cortex

288. Specify a tool for the treatment of depression, the use 293. Indicate the narcotic analgesic, a derivative of
of which there are no psychosedative effects: phenanthrene:

a) Imipramine a) Morphine

b) Amitriptyline (b) Promedol

c) Maprotilin c) Fentanyl

d) Fluoxetine (d) Estocin

289. Specify a remedy for depression, a derivative of 294. Indicate the narcotic analgesic, a derivative of
hydrazine: piperidine:

a) Imipramine (a) Morphine

(b) Fluoxetine b) Promedol

c) Nialamide c) Pentazocin

d), Maprotiline (d) Estocin

290. Specify a remedy for depression, a derivative of 295. When using morphine may develop the following
indole: effects, except:

a) Nialamide a) Depression of the respiratory center

(b) Moclobemide (b) suppression of the emetic centre

c) Pirazidol c) Mydriasis

d), Maprotiline (d) Bradycardia

narcotic analgesics. 296. Specify the main cause of death from morphine
poisoning:
291. Endogenous pain mediators are the following
substances, except: a) Acute renal failure

a) Bradykinins (b) inhibition of the vasomotor centre

(b) Prostoglandins c) the Depression of the respiratory center

d) Direct cardiodepressive effect a) Nalbuphine,

297. Specify the main cause of obstipation when using b) Buprenorphine

morphine:
c) Naloxone
a) Increased pancreatic secretion
(d) Pentazocin
b) Decreased sphincter tone
drugs causing drug dependence
c) Reduced intestinal peristalsis
303. Crack is a derivative:
d) Increased bile secretion
(a) Opium
298. Indicate the narcotic analgesic, novogalenovyh
preparation of opium: (b) LSD

c) Cocaine
(a) Morphine
d) Cannabis
(b) Codeine
304. Cocaine causes:
c) Omnopon
(a) Physical dependence
(d) Promedol
b) Mental dependence
299. Specify narcotic analgesic that has an antispasmodic
effect: c) Both answers are correct

d) Both answers are not correct

(a) Morphine
305. Cannabinoids include:
(b) Codeine
(a) Heroin
C) Papaverine
b) Hashish
d) Promedol
(c) Cocaine
300. Specify narcotic analgesic, short-term action:
d) Crack
a) Fentanyl

(b) Omnopon

(C) Morphine

(d) Promedol

301. Specify a narcotic analgesic that does not cause

euphoria:

a) Promedol

b) Pentazocin

c) Fentanyl

(d) Estocin

302. Specify the antagonist of narcotic analgesics: