نماذج مزاولة صيدلة2

‫مزاولة صيدلة‬
‫‪2021‬‬
‫اجلزء ‪2‬‬
‫نماذج اختبارات مزاولة مهنة‬

‫لسم الصيدلة‬
‫حقــوق الطبع محـفوظة لدى‪ :‬مكتبة حيكان‬
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‫من إعداد وتنسيق د‪ /‬أصيل يوس‬
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‫للمستلزمات القرطاسية واإللكترونية والتصوير‬
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Q: Choose the correct answer (only one ) :-
1. A teratogenic action is:

a) Toxic action on the liver b) Negative action on the fetus causing fetal malformation
c) Toxic action on blood system d) Toxic action on kidneys
2. Praziquantel used for:

a) shitstosoma b) ascaris
c) amebia d) giardia
3. Quinine used for

a) prophylaxis of malaria b) treatment of malaria
c) a + b d) not all the above
‫ مكتبة حيكان‬:‫حقــوق الطبع محـفوظة لدى‬
4. Which route of drug administration is most likely to lead to the first-pass

effect?
a) Sublingual b) Oral
c) Intravenous d) Intramuscular
5. Interaction between drug and receptor belong to:

a) Pharmacokinetics b) pharmacotherapeutics
c) pharmacodynamics d) none of the above
6. The term “metabolism ” includes the following:

a) Transfer of the drug from administration site to systemic circulation

b) Binding of substances with plasma proteins
c) Accumulation of substances in a tissue
d) Process of physicochemical and biochemical alteration of a drug in the body
‫ أصيل يوس‬/‫من إعداد وتنسيق د‬
7. All of the following processes proceeds in the first phase of metabolism except:
a) Acetylation b) Reduction
c) Oxidation d) Hydrolysis
8. Acidic drug usually absorbed in:

a)Stomach b) small Intestine
c)large intestine d) none of the above
9. Drugs have similar action of natural neurotransmitter called :-

a) antagonist b) agonist
c) partial agonist d) none of the above
10. Half life (t ½) defined as:

a) volume of plasma cleared from the drug per unit time
b) Time of drug absorption
c) Time neededby the body to decrease aplasma concentration of drug to its half
d) distribution of the drug into body fluid & tissues .
2
11. Pharmacodynamics involves the study of following EXCEPT:
a) Biological and therapeutic effects of drugs b) Mechanisms of drug action
c) Absorption and distribution of drugs d) Drug interactions
12. Transfer of the drug from site of administration to the systemic circulation
regard to :-
a) metabolism b) distribution
c) absorption d) excretion
13. An antagonist is a drug that:

a) Binds to the receptors and gives action similar to the natural neurotransmitter
b) Binds to the receptors and gives action opposite to the natural neurotransmitter.
c) both of them
d) none of the above
14. The main site of absorption is:-

a) liver b) stomach
c) small intestine d) large intestine
15. The main site of metabolism is:-

a) liver b) stomach
c) small intestine d) large intestine
16. Narrow therapeutic index of drugs means :

a) high safety of drug b) low safety of drugs
c) Dose not affect d ) all of the above
17. Defined as macromolecular protein present in cell surface or intracellular ... is :

a) carrier b) receptor
c) ion channels d) enzymes
18. All of the following are correct about advantages of oral route EXCEPT :
a) palatable b) economic
c) safe d) used in emergency
19. Water soluble drugs are excreted in :

a) bile b) urine
c) sweat d) b and c are correct
20. CharacteristicsPlasma protein binding of drugs are :

a) pharmacologically inactive b) do not excreted from the body
c) existing as stored form in the body d) all of the above
21. All of the following advantages of Parenteral administration except :

a) Can be used with unconsciousness patients
b) can be controlled in case of over dose .
c) Usually produces a more rapid response than oral administration
d) Is too high for emergency use
3
22. The drug used to gives locally effect should be :-
a) not irritant b) not absorbed and not distributed
c) absorbed and distribute d) none of the above
23. Which of the following factor effecting on absorption related to the patient
a) lipid solubility b) surface area
c) both of them d) none of the above
24. Which of the following indirect sympathomimetic used as decongestant ?

a) adrenaline b) Noradrenaline
c) Ephedrine d) a & b correct
25. All of the following neurotransmitter of sympathetic nervous system except :

a) serotonin b) Adrenaline
c) Dopamine d) Noradrenalin
26. Acetylcholine consider as neurotransmitter of:

a)Sympathetic nervous b)Parasympathetic nervous system
c) somatic nervous system d) b and c correct .
27. As an example of ind&irect sympathomimetic agent used for treatment obesity

, fatigue :
a) Αmphetamine b) Dobutamine
c) prazocin d) salbutamole
28. Used in hypertension managements :

a)Hyoscine b) ephedrine
c) propranolol d) all of the above
29. Salbutamol used for :-

a) cardiogenic shock b) Epistaxis .
c) bronchial asthma d) asthmabronchial.
30. Clofibrate , atorvastatin belong to :

a)Anticoagulant agents b)Antihyperlipidemia agents
c)Oral hypoglycemic d) antihypertension agents
31. adrenalin causes all of the following except :-

a) vasoconstriction b) bronchodilitation
c) miosis d) hyperglycemia
32. Given within 72 hr of thrombus formation, act as fibrinolytic agent :

a)Urokinase b)Ketanserine
c)Heparin d) none
33. Co-administration of vit.C preferred with :

a)Oral ferrous sulfate b)Oral ferric sulfate
c)Oralvit. B 12 d) all of the above
4
34. Amoebiasis,Trypanosomiasis ,Toxoplasmosis belong to :
a)Bacterial infection b)Parasite infection
c)Fungal infection d) viral infection
35. Which of the following drug contraindicated in asthmatic patient :-

a) Propranolol b) Atenolol
c) aspirin d) a and c are correct
36. all of the following are side effect of atropine except :

a) constipation b) dry mouth
c) miosis d) urine retention
37. which of the following used as antidote for paracetamol poisoning:-

a) neostigmine b) atropine
c) acetylcystiend) d) b and c only
38. which of the following can be used to treat hypertension in pregnant women :
a)clonidine b) alpha methyl dopa
c) captopril d) verapamil
39. choose the drug which act by inhibition of lipo-oxygenase enzyme :-

a) zileuton b) Na cromoglycate
c) zafirlukas d) all of the above
40. which of the following act by inhibit Na channel : -

a) nifedipine b) phenytoin
c) diazepam d) none
41. which of the following used as antidepressant :

a)fluoxetine b)clomipramine
c) chlorpromazine d) a& b correct
42. which of the following D2 agonist used for parkinsonism :-

a)imipramine b) bromocriptine
c)l-dopa d) none
43. which of the following H1 blocker used in bronchial asthma : -

a)chlorpheniramine b) ketotifen
c) meclizine d)cyproheptadine
44. which of the following used for schistosomiasis : -

a)praziquantel b)albendazol
c)mebendazol d) b and c only
45. which of the following can be used as pre- anesthetic medication:-

a) Diazepam b) atropine
c)morphine d) all the above.
5
46. which of the following used as sedative and hypnotic :-
a)diazepam b)bromocriptin
c) zaleplon d) a and c only
47. indicate the drug belonging to proton pump inhibitor :-

a)ranitidine b)sucralfate
c) pantoprazole d) bismuth
48. which of the following is mixed vasodilator :

a) nitroglycerin b)hydralazine
c) Na nitropurssied d) minoxidile
49. which of the following can be used to treat diarrhea caused by giardia and
amoebia :
a) omeprazole b)metronidazole
c) loperamid d) a& b are correct
50. which of the following drugs central antitussive :

a)bromohexine b) guaifensine
c) codeine d) ipecac
51. which of the following can be used to treat acute attack of migraine
a)sumatriptan b)methysergide
c)ergotamine d) all except b
52. which of the following oral hypoglycemic agent belong to biguanides

a) insulin b) metformin
c) gliclazid d) acarbose
53. pernicious anemia deficiency in :

a) iron b) folic acid
c) vit .b12 d) b&c are correct
54. which of the following is oral anticoagulant:

a) heparin b) aspirin
c) warfarin d) streptokinase
55. which of the following are anti - epilepsy :

a)phenytoin b) imipramine
c)bromocriptine d)all
56. which of the following is long acting benzodiazepines :

a) oxazepam b) lorazepam
c) diazepam d) all
57. which of the following anti -malaria used for treatment and prophylaxis : -
a)chloroquine b)mefloquin
c) quinine c) non
6
58. which of the following can be used to treat anorexia(bulimia) nervosa :
a)insulin b) pizotifen
c)fluoxetine d) a & c are correct
59. which of the following an example of loop diuretic :

a)Hydrochlorothiazide b)Torsemide
c)Spironolactone d) none
60. an example of potassium sparing diuretic :-

a)Torsemide b) spironolactone
c)indapamide d) b& c are correct
61. an example of calcium channel blocker is :

a) mannitol b) diltiazem
c)verapamil d) all except a
62. which of the following used in post partum bleeding(haemorrhage) :

a) ergotamine b) clonidine
c) ergometrin d) none
63. Which of the following drug used to treat status epileptics:-

a) valoproic acid b) clonazepam
c) diazepam d) all except a
64. Which of the following drugs used as first choice in first line to treat T.B:
a) rifampicin b) streptomycin
c) Isoniazid d) a and c
65. Which of the following mode of action of doxycycline :

a) inhibit cell wall synthesis b) inhibit DNA synthesis
c) inhibit folic acid synthesis d) inhibit protein synthesis
66. Which of the following used for hyperthyroidism in pregnant women

a)radioactive iodine b)carbimazole
c)KI CAP d)propylthiouracil
67. patient suffer from chronic arthritis &used NSAID for long period of life the
drug can be used to avoid the peptic ulcer occur is :-
a) sucralfate b) bismuth salt
c) Misoprostol d) none
68. an example of antacids cause constipation as side effects :-

a) Mg(OH2) b) CaCO3
c) AL(OH)3 d) b& c are correct
69. Anti-hyperlipidemia act by inhibit HMG-COA enzyme :

a)nicotinic acid b)fenofibrate
c)atorvastatin d )none of the above
7
70. which of the following can be used as first choice to treat N.V induced by
chemotherapy and radiation :
a)Hyoscine b) metoclopramid
c) ondansetron d) all
71. an example of long acting corticosteroids :-

a)hydrocortisone b) prednisolone
c)dexamethasone d) a&c are correct
72. Hormones are :

a-products of endocrine gland secretion
b- mediators of inflammatory process
c-byproducts of tissue metabolism
d- all of the above
73. Which of the following agent used for hypothyroidism :-

a)insulin b) levothyroxine
c)hydrocortisone d) none of the above
74. which of the following organs is atarget for prolactin : -

a) liver b) adrenal cortex
c) thyroid d) mammary gland
75. antiviral agent increase release of dopamine from its neurons and so can be
used foe parkinsonism is )
a)acyclovir b)ganicyclovir
c)oseltamvire d) amantadine
76. The anteriorpituitary gland does not secret :-

a)vasopressin b)prolactin
c)growth hormone d)FSH&LH
77. Chlorodiazepoxide + clinidium bromide used for :-

a) convulsion b) psychosis
c) parkinsonism d) spastic colon
78. Rational anti-microbial combination is used to:

a) Provide synergism when microorganisms are not effectively eradicated with a
single agent .
b) Provide broad coverage
c) Prevent the emergence of resistance
d) All of the above
79. Antibiotic inhibiting bacterial DNA synthesis is:

a) Erythromycin b) Rifampin
c) Chloramphenicol d) ciprofloxacin
8
80. Which of the following drugs is used for systemic mycosis (candidiasis )
infections treatment:
a) Co-trimoxazol b) Nystatine
c) Amphotericin B d) none of the above
81. Which of the following drugs is used for dermatomycosis treatment:

a) Nystatin b) Griseofulvin
c) Amphotericin B d) all
82. Which of the following used to treat toxoplasmosis in pregnant women :

a) pyrimethamine +sulfadiazine b) Azithromycin
c) spiramycin d) b and c are correct
83. Mechanism of action isoniazid is:

a) Inhibition of protein synthesis b) Inhibition of mycolic acids synthesis
c) Inhibition of folic acid synthesis d) a and b are correct
84. Tick the drug of choice used for clostridium difficile as first choic:
a) Metronidazole b) tinidazole c) vancomycin
85. All of the following antimalarial drugs influence blood schizonts, EXCEPT:
a) Mefloquine b) Chloroquine
c) Primaquine d) none of the above
86. All of the following agents inhibit protein synthesis except :

a) streptomycin b) doxycycline
c) chloramphenicol d) amoxicillin
87. Tick the beta-lactamase ( penicillin's) inhibitor:-

a) Clavulanic acid b) Sulbactam
c) Tazobactam d) All of the above
88. All of the following antibiotics regard to macrolides, EXCEPT:

a) Erythromycin b) Clarithromycin
c) kanamycin d) Roxythromycin
89. Tetracycline have the following side effects:

a) Irritation of gastrointestinal mucosa, phototoxicity
b) Hepatotoxicity, anti-anabolic effect
c) Dental hypoplasia, bone deformities
d) All of the above
90. Tick the drug belonging to antibiotics-aminoglycosides:

a) Erythromycin b) Gentamycin
c) Vancomycin d) Polymyxin
91. indicate the competitive antagonist of BZreceptor ( antidote of BZ):

a-flumazenile b-zolpidem c- buspiron
9
92. Which of the following main side effect of Lincosamide:-
a) Nephrotoxicity b) Pseudomembranous colitis
c) ototoxicity d)none of the above
93. Tick the side effects of Metronidazole:

a) Nausea, vomiting, diarrhea. b) disulfiram like reaction
c) metallic and better test d) All of the above
94. Gray baby syndrome side effect related to :-

a) Erythromycin b) chloramphenicol
c) Vancomycin d) INH
95. Which of the following main side effects related to aminoglycosides

a) Hypersensitivity reaction b) Nephrotoxicity

c) Ototoxicity d) b and c are correct
96. Sulfasalazine&olsalazine used for :-

a) meningitis b) UTI
c) Ulcerative colitis d) RTI
97. an example of 3rd generation cephalosporin's :-

a) cefadroxil b) cefotaxime
c) cefpdoxime d) b& c are correct
98. Tick the drugs used for typhoid and paratyphoid fever as first choice( has
beneficial effect) :-
a) ciprofloxacin b) chloramphenicol
c) amoxicillin d) all
99. Bisacodyl an example for :-

a) Antimotility agent . b) saline laxative
c) stimulant laxative d) bulk laxative
100. which of the following an example for mucolytic agent :-

a) Guaifensine b)Ipecac
c) ambroxol d) all of the above
101) Thiopental is more effective than Methohexital due to :

a. Methyl group
b. Sulfur atom
c. Oxygen atom
d. Ethyl group
102) Valporicacid is used for …………….. epilepsy :

a. Grand- mal
b. petit-mal
c. a+b
d. none of them
11
103) MOA of Opioid analgesics:
a. open of Na+channle
b. alter pain sensation
c. stimulation of GABA
d. inhibition of GABA
104) Adrenaline is biosynthesis in :

a. Neurons
b. Adrenal Modula
c. c) CNS
d. d) Spleen
105) The receptors that located in autonomic ganglia are :

a. Muscarinic
b. Nicotinic "Nm"
c. Nicotinic "Ng"
d. α receptors
106) α - carbon substitution in mixed sympathomimetics :

a. decrease activity
b. increase activity
c. is not essential
d. none of them
107) Theophylline is converted into caffeine by :

a. Methylation
b. Demethylation
c. Reduction
d. Oxidation
108) The tow aromatic groups of TCA are

a. not essential
b. essential
c. decrease activity
d. None of them
109) Adrenaline and Noradrenaline are metabolized by :

a. MAO
b. COMT
c. Both of them
d. none of them
110) The antidote for atropine poisoning :

a. Adrenaline
b. physostigmine
c. Pilocarpine
d. Dopamine
11
O
111) O N O is the general structure of

a. Barbiturates
b. Hydantoins
c. OXazolidindione
d. Succinamides
112) The antidote of insecticides (organ-phosphorus ) is:

a. Atropine
b. Neostigmine
c. Pilocarpine
d. Adrenaline
113) Myasthenia gravis is treated by:

a. Ephedrine
b. phenopharbital
c. Neostigmine
d. Caffeine
114) An Opioid analgesic that is used as antitissuve is :

a. Pentazocine
b. codeine
c. Methadone
d. Morphine
115) In cholinergic blocking agent a cationic head:

a. increase activity
b. decrease activity
c. essential
d. No effect
116) Levodopo is used for :

a. Epilepsy
b. Parkinsonian’s
c. Depression
d. none of them
O O
117) N is the general structure of:
a. Barbiturates
b. Hydantoins
c. Oxazolidindione
d. Succinamides
12
N
O
N
118) O is the general structure:
a. Barbiturates
b. Hydantoins
c. Oxazolidindione
d. Succinamides
119) One of the following disease characterizes by involuntary tremulous motion:

a. Epilepsy
b. Parkinsonian’s
c. Depression
d. none of them
120) Dimethyl amino on "N" is specific for Antihistaminic agents

a. H1 1st generation
b. H12 ndgeneration
c. H2 antagonist
d. All of them
121) One of the following is COX-2 selective inhibitor

a. Aspirin
b. Diclofenac
c. Mefenamic acid
d. Celecoxib
122) The MOA of Sulphonamides inhibition of:

a. folate biosynthesis
b. DNA gyrase
c. FPP IX complex
d. None of them
123) Amiloride is K- sparing diuretics act as

a. ↓ aldosteron
b. ↓ Na+/ K+
c. a + b
d. none of them
124) one of the following used in parkanison

a. levo-dopa
b. meprobamate
c. cabiodopa
d. a + b
13
125) The most potent NSAIDs is
a. Aspirin
b. Diclofenac
c. Mefenamic acid
d. Ibuprofen
126)In patients with HTN history we recommended ………….. diclofenac.

a. sodium
b. potassium
c. calcium
d. non of them
127) Essential ring in phenytoin is

a. tetrahydro-azepine
b. Imidazolin ring
c. Sulphonamides
d. None of them
128)In patients with oedema we recommended……………..

a. aspirin
b. metformin
c. furosemide
d. non of them
129)In thiazide diuretics loss of double bond(3=4) cause………… of potency.

a. increase
b. Decrease
c. Maintained
d. Loss
130)Sulphamoyl moiety in diuretics cause

a. hyperkalemia
b. hypotension
c. HTN
d. Hypersensitivity
131)A loop diuretic with 3-amino benzoic acid is

a. a)Acetazolamide
b. b) Furosemide
c. c) Bumetanide
d. d) Spironolactone
132)All the following are NSAIDs except

a. Mefanemic acid
b. Ibuprofen
c. Primaquine
d. Aspirin
14
133) One of the following is used for leprosy
a. Chloroquine
b. Isoniazid
c. Dapsone
d. Primaquine
134) One of the following is not antimalarial agent

a. Propthiuracil
b. Primaquine
c. Trimethoprim
d. Chloroquine
135) An oral hypoglycemic that increase insulin production

a. Metformin
b. Tolbutamide
c. Rosiglitazone
d. Propylthiuracil
136) To treat symptoms of thyrotoxicosis we use

a. Thyroxine
b. Propanolol
c. Propylthiouracil
d. Carbimazol
137) Systemic or deep mycosis are caused by

a. Saportic
b. Dimorphic fungi
c. Tinea infection
d. Candida
138) In sulphonylureas sulphonyl group is

a. Increase activity
b. Decrease activity
c. Essential
d. no effect
139) One of the following inhibits the 14-x-demethylase

a. Miconazol
b. Nystatin
c. Dithiocarbamate
d. Griseofluvin
140) A hormone that increase glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis

a. Insulin
b. Glucagon
c. Somatostatin
d. Thyronine
15
141) An anthelmintic that blocks the response of the ascaris muscle to acetycholine.
a. Niclosamide
b. Albendazole
c. Piprazine
d. Mebendazole
142) One of the following is used for treatment giardiasis and trichomoniasis
a. Diloxanide
b. Tinidazole
c. Iodoquinol
d. Albendazole
143) is the chemical structure of local anesthetic

a. Benzocaine
b. Lidocaine
c. Procaine
d. Thiopental
H
N
144) is the general structure of

a. Morphine
b. Furosemide
c. Benzodiazepine
d. Thiazide diuretics
145)
a. Aspirine
b. Paracetamol
c. Adrenaline
d. Acetylcholine
16
146)
a. Aspirine
b. Paracetamol
c. Adrenaline
d. Acetylcholine
147)
a. Aspirine
b. Paracetamol
c. Adrenaline
d. Acetylcholine
148)
a. Aspirine
b. Paracetamol
c. Adrenaline
d. Acetylcholine
149)
a. Morphine
b. Furosemide
c. Benzodiazepine
d. Thiazide diuretics
17
150)
a. Acetazolamide
b. Histamine
c. Diphenhydramine
d. Piprazine
151)
a. Acetazolamide
b. Histamine
c. Diphenhydramine
d. Piprazine
152)
a. Quinoline
b. Sulphacetamide
c. Dapsone
d. Fluoroquinolones
153)
a. Acetazolamide
b. Histamine
c. Diphenhydramine
d. Piprazine
18
154)
a. Quinoline
b. Sulphacetamide
c. Dapsone
d. Fluoroquinolones
155)
a. Quinoline
b. Sulphacetamide
c. Dapsone
d. Fluoroquinolones
156)
a. Acetazolamide
b. Histamine
c. Diphenhydramine
d. Piprazine
157)
a. Metformin
b. Captopril
c. Nitroglycerine
d. Steroidal nucleus
19
158)
a. Metformin
b. Captopril
c. Nitroglycerine
O
C N
S CH3
N CH3
159) O
a. Penicillin
b. Cephalosporin
c. Tetracycline
d. Metrindazole
O
F
N
160) H
a. Quinoline
b. Sulphacetamide
c. Dapsone
d. Fluoroquinolones
O H
R C N S
N O C O C H3
O
161) CO OH
a. Penicillin
b. Cephalosporin
c. Tetracycline
d. Metrindazole
21
162)
a. Penicillin
b. Cephalosporin
c. Tetracycline
d. Metrindazole
163) An example of proton pump inhibitor is

a. Ranitidine
b. Omeprazole
c. Bismuth salt
d. Metronidazole
164) Most CNS depressants

a. stimulate GABA receptors
b. open Na+ channel.

c. Close Na+ channel
d. a+c
165) Large substituted group (5-9) at c-5 in barbiturates will

a. decrease activity.
b. increase activity
c. increase metabolism
d. no effect
166) 3ry amine of local anesthetic is ::::::::::::::::: for tissue .

a. less irritant
b. more irritant
c. not absorbed
d. none of them
167) Atropine is direct

a. a)Parasympathomemitics.
b. Parasympatholytic
c. Sympatholytic
d. Sympathomimetic
21
168) The regulation of Neurotransmitters (ACH , 5HT , D , NE ) is done by
a. α2 receptors
b. α1 receptors
c. M1 receptors
d. Nm receptors
169) Codeine is derivatives of

a. phenyl propylamine.
b. morphine
c. tyrosine
d. cocaine
170) The life cycle of plasmodium in human is

a. Sexual
b. Asexual
c. both
d. none of them
171) The first drug of T.B. therapy is

a. Ethambutol
b. Ethionamide
c. Isoniazid
d. Cycloserine
172) ………is recommended for acute and chronic intestinal amebeiasis.

a. Diloxianide
b. Niclosamide
c. Metronidazole
d. Iodoquinol
173) ……………. inhibits glucose and oxygen uptake by the parasite.

a. Piprazine
b. Niclosamide
c. Metronidazole
d. Albendazole
174) ……. is a prodrug antiviral agent analogs of Guanosin.

a. Amantadine
b. Acyclovir
c. Interferon
d. Zidovudine
175) ……….. is a class of oral hypoglycemic that decrease intestinal absorption of

glucose.
a. Biguanides
b. Sulfonylurea
c. Glitazones
d. non-sulfonylurea
22
176) ……. is an anti-amebiasis acts on external and intestinal amoeba.
a. Piprazine
b. Niclosamide
c. Metronidazole
d. Albendazole
177) An antiviral that Binds to M2 protein of virus to inhibit uncoating is

a. Amantadine
b. Acyclovir
c. Interferon
d. Zidovudine
178) The microorganism that causes T.B is called

a. M. leprea
b. M. tuberclosae
c. N. gonorrhea
d. H. pylori
CH2 ONO 2
CH ONO 2
CH2 ONO 2
179)
a. Metformin
b. Captopril
c. Nitroglycerine
180) Amiodarone is antiarrhythmic agent from

a. class 1
b. class 2
c. class 3
d. class 4
181)
a. Metformin
b. Captopril
c. Nitroglycerine
23
182) Enalopril is
a. ACE inhibitor
b. CA inhibitor
c. Ca+2 blocker
d. Na+ blocker
183) Clofibrateis an
a. anticoagulant
b. antihypertensive
c. antiangaina
d. antihyperlipidemic
184) Warfarin has ……….. action than Dicumarol.

a. slower
b. faster
c. more
d. less
185) An example of second generation antihistamine is

a. Loratadidine
b. Promethazine
c. Diphenhydramine
d. Ranitidine
186) A cephalosporin antibiotics that is used orally and parenterally is

a. Cefaclor
b. Cephradine
c. Cefuroxime
d. b+c
187) Macrolides antibiotics inhibit protein biosynthesis by binding to

a. 50s subunit
b. 30s subunit
c. ribosome
d. none of them
NO 2 CH3
N
CH2CH2OH
188)
a. Penicillin
b. Cephalosporin
c. Tetracycline
d. Metrindazole
24
189) Amphotericin B is less toxicity than Nystatin because it has
a. more double bonds
b. less double bonds
c. more memberaned ring
d. less memberaned ring
190)One of the following is a 4-aminoquinoline :

a. Quinine
b. Quinidine
c. Chloroquine
d. Primaquine
191)Ciprofloxacin is a derived from

a. Quinolones
b. Quinolines
c. Sulphonamides
d. None of them
192)Tetracyclin antibiotics inhibit protein biosynthesis by binding to

a. 50s subunit
b. 30s subunit
c. ribosome
d. none of them
193) one of the following is example of anti cholinstrase

a. physostigmin
b. neostigmine
c. a and b
d. Aldosterone
194) One of the following is used in Addison syndrome

a. Progesterone
b. Estrogen
c. Testosterone
d. Aldosterone
195) Thyroid hormones are derived from

a. phenyl propylamine.
b. morphine
c. L- tyrosine
d. Cocaine
196) One of the following inhibit Na+\ Cl- reabsorption at distal convoluted tubules
a. Furosemide
b. Chlorothiazide
c. Mannitol
d. Spironolactone
25
197) One of the following diuretics cause Gynaecomastia and hyperkalemia
a. Furosemide
b. Chlorothiazide
c. Mannitol
d. Spironolactone
198)Amino amides local anesthetics like

a. Lidocain
b. benzocaine
c. procain
d. a+b
199)first generation antihistamine agents cause

a. CNS stimulation
b. CNS depression
c. Cholinergic stimulation
d. none of them
200) pilocarpin Hcl is

a. parasympathomimtic effect
b. miosis drug
c. using in glucome
d. all the above
201) The type of dosage from are:

a) Liquid dosage from.
b) Solid dosage from
c) Semisolid dosage from.
d) All the above
202) The routs of administration of drugs are:

a) Oral rout
b) Parantral route.
c) Topical route.
d) All the above.
203) Parantral route of administration :

a) Intra-venous.
b) Intra-muscular.
c) Subcutaneous.
d) All the above.
204) B.i.d mean use :

a) Once daily.
b) Twic time daily.
c) Four time daily.
d) Three time daily.
26
205) T.i.d mean use :
a) Once daily.
b) Twic time daily.
c) Four time daily.
206) Q.i.d mean use :

a) Once daily.
b) Twic time daily.
c) Four time daily.
207) S.o.s mean use :

a) When necessary.
b) At night
c) In morning.
d) Not all the above.
208) V mean :
a) Three
b) Five.
c) One.
d) Ten.
209) X mean :
a) Three
b) Five.
c) One.
d) Ten.
210) Deodorants , antipersipiration are cosmetic preparation for :

a) Control sweat secretion.
b) Hair care.
c) Skin care.
d) Nail care.
211) General type of powder:

a) Divided power.
b) Bnlk.
c) A+b.
212) Advantage of tablet dosage from:

a) Accuracy of dose.
b) Easy of administration.
c) Stable
d) All the above.
27
213) Type of coating of tablet:
a) Sugar coat.
b) Film coat.
c) Enteric coat.
d) All the above.
214) One of the following is not excipient :

a) Active contitnet.
b) Diluent.
c) Flavonring agent.
d) Binder agent.
215) Type of capsule:

a) Hard gelative capsule.

b) Soft
c) Compressed caps.
d) A+b.
216) One of the following classified as cosmetic prepation :

a) Capsule.
b) Toothpast.
c) Syrup
d) Elixir.
217) Bioavailability mean:

a) Concentration of drug in tissue.
b) Concentration of drug in liver.
c) The drug that reach to blood.
d) Concentration of drug in bone.
218) Pharmacokinetic mean :

a) Effect of drug on the body.
b) Effect of body on the drug.
c) A+b.
219) Pharmacodynamics:
a) Effect of drug on the body.
b) Effect of body on the drug.
c) A+b.
220) Befor tablet absorption should be:

a) Dissolution – disentgation - absorption.
b) Disentgation- absorption- Dissolution.
c) Dissolution- absorption.
d) Disintegration- absorption.
28
221) The most important site of drug absorption :
a) Kidney
b) Stomach
c) Large intestine.
d) Small intestine.
222) Mechanism of GIT absorption of drug:

a) Passive diffusion.
b) Active diffusion
c) Ion-pair absorption.
d) All the above.
223) Type of container used for pharmacentical product are:

a) Glasses.
b) Plastic.
c) Metal.
d) All the above.
224) Type of water:

a) Tape water.
b) Distal water.
c) Purified water.
d) All the above.
225) Which one used for oral pharmacentical solution:

a) Elixirs
b) Ear drops
c) Lotions
d) Enemas
226) Which one used as external solution:

a) Elixirs
b) Ear drops
c) Lotions
d) Enemas
227) Type of suspension

a) Flocculation
b) Deflocculation
c) A+b.
228) Factor effecting sedimentation rate of suspension:

a) Molecular weight of drug.
b) Viscosity of vehical.
c) A+b
29
229) Type of emulision:
a) Oil in water o\w
b) Water in oil w\o
c) Oil in water in oil o\w\o
d) All the above.
230) Ocuserts mean:

a) Eye drops
b) Eye ointment
c) Eye derice for chronic disease
231) First pass effect mean:

a) Metabolism the drug befor reach the systemic circulation.

b) Metabolism the drug after reach the systemic circulation.
c) A+b
232) The absorption of drug increase when:

a) ↑lipid solubility
b) ↑water solubility.
c) ↑molecular weight.
d) A+c.
233) Prodrug mean:

a) Active drug
b) Inactive drug
c) Metabolic drug.
234) Salt of drug :

a) More stable
b) More soluble less stable
c) A+b.
235) Methods of manufacturmicrocapsulation techniques are :

a) Air suspension method.
b) Pan coating method.
c) Spray drying method.
d) All the above.
236) One of the following form is more soluble:

a) Amorphous form.
b) Crystalline form.
c) A+b.
31
237) Which route of administration expose to first pass effect:
a) Oral route.
b) Parantral route.
c) Topical route.
d) Opthalamic route.
238) Transdermal route is:

a) Systemic effect.
b) Topical effect.
c) A+b
239) Metabolism mean :

a) The time taken for plasma drug concentration to be half.

b) Chemical alteration of the drug in the body.
c) Excreted metabolite drug out the body.
d) Maximum concentration in blood.
240) Elimination mean:

241) Half life mean:

242) One of the following is not advantages of parenteral products:

a) Useful for emergency situation.
b) Accurate dose .
c) Rapid onset.
d) More expensive.
243) One of the following is not sterial preparation:

a) Tablet.
b) Parantral.
c) Ophthalmic.
d) B+c.
244) Which one is the method of sterilization:

a) Steam sterilization.
b) Filtration.
c) Dry heat.
d) All the above.
31
245) One of the following is advantages of aerosols:
a) Ease of use.
b) Rapid onset action.
c) Avoidance of metabolism by rirst pass effect:
d) All the above.
246) Classification of ointment base is:

a) Hydrocarbon base.
b) Absorpation base.
c) Water soluble base.
d) All the above.
247) Ointment are:

a) Semisolid preparation intended for external upplication.

b) Dispersion of two immiscible.
c) Delivery of medication to the human eye.
248) Emulsion :
249) Ophthalmic preparation:

250) The drug has high distribution when is :

a) High lipid solubility & high molecular weight.
b) High lipid solubility &low molecular weight.
c) low lipid solubility &low molecular weight.
251) The drug can be excreted by:

a) Renal.
b) Biliary.
c) Saliva.
d) All the above.
252) Which from follow used for weights:

a) Beaker.
b) Balance.
c) Cylinder.
d) A+c.
32
253) Which from following used for measure volume:
a) Beaker.
b) Balance.
c) Cylinder.
d) A+c.
254) Type of powders:

a) Divided powder.
b) Bulk powder.
c) Dusting powder.
d) A+b.
255) Powder can be administration as :

a) Oral powder.
b) Inhalation powder.
c) Powder for ingection.
d) All the above.
256) Amp mean:

a) Drop.
b) Ampule.
c) Infusion.
d) Intravenous.
257) I.V mean:

a) Drop.
b) Ampule.
c) Infusion.
d) Intravenous.
258) N\S mean:

a) Normal salin.
b) Ringer.
c) Dextrose.
d) Infusion.
259) Granulation method are :

a) Wet granulation.
b) Dry.
c) All the above.
260) 0ne of the following is advantage of tablets:

a) Accurate dose.
b) Difficult to swallow.
c) Slow onset of action.
d) B+c.
33
261) One of the following is disadvantage of tablets:
a) Accurate dose.
b) Difficult to swallow.
c) Slow onset of action.
d) B+c.
262) Major excipients of tablet are:

a) Diluents.
b) Binding agent.
c) Coloring agent.
d) A+b.
263) Official tests for evaluation test of tablet are:

a) Weight variation.
b) Disintegration.
c) Dissolution.
d) All the above.
264) Non Official tests for evaluation test of tablet are:

a) Hardness.
b) Friability.
c) A+b
d) Dissolution.
265) Classification of solution according to vehicle:

a) Aqueous sdution.
b) Non Aqueous sdution.
c) Oil in water,
d) A+b.
266) Douche is an aqueous solution :

a) Used into a cavity of the body.
b) Used as rectal injection.
c) Used for treating the pharynx.
d) Used to the nasal passages in drops or sprays.
267) Enema is an aqueous sol. :

268) Garyles is an aqueous sol. :

34
269) Nasal sol. :
270) Otic solution applied in:

a) Eye.
b) Ear.
c) Nose.
d) Mouth.
271) Type of tablets:

a) Compressed tablets.
b) Sublingnal tablets.
c) Vaginal tablets.
d) All the above.
272) ORS used as :

a) Rehydratin in treatment of diarrhea.
b) Antiseptic.
c) Antiulcer.
273) SL mean:
a) Subcutaneious.
b) Sublingnal.
c) Solution
d) Syrup.
274) A.C mean:

a) After meal.
b) Between meal.
c) Befor meal.
d) Twice a day.
275) Advantage of capsules:

a) Mask unpleasant tast & odor.
b) Control release.
c) Hygroscopic drug can not encapsulated into gelatin shells.
d) A+b.
276) Disadvantage of capsules:

a) Mask unpleasant tast & odor.
b) Control release.
c) Hygroscopic drug can not encapsulated into gelatin shells.
d) A+b.
35
277) Mechanism of passive diffusion is across :
a) From high concentration in the lumen to low concentration in the blood.
b) From low concentration in the lumen to high concentration in the blood.
c) All the above.
278) Properties of active transport:

a) Across from low concentration to high concentration.
b) Need energy.
c) Need carrier.
d) All the above.
279) ionic drug absorpation by :

a) Ion-pair absorpation.
b) Convective absorpation.
c) Vesicular transport.
d) Facilitated transport.
280) Water sugar absorbtion by:

281) Fat soluble vitamin absorption by:

282) …………………………are solid dosage forms in which drug substance is

enclosed within hard or soft soluble shell .
a) Tablets.
b) Capsule.
c) Powder.
d) Granules.
283) …………………………are a solid dosage from containing a unit dose of
one or more medicamants&preparct by compression.
a) Tablets.
b) Capsule.
c) Powder.
d) Granules.
284) Capsule can be administrated by:

a) Oral.
b) Rectum.
c) Vaginal.
d) All the above.
36
285) One of the following is not rout of administration.
a) Oral rout.
b) Inhalation .
c) Spray.
d) Nasal rout.
286) Semisolid dosage from are:

a) Cream & ointment.
b) Lotion.
c) Suspension.
d) A+b.
287) Liquid dosage from are:

a) Syrup & suspension.

b) Elixir & solution.
c) Subpositories.
d) A+b.
288) Solids dosage form are:

a) Tablet , powder , capsules.
b) Solution , suspension , syrup.
c) Ointment , cream , lotion.
289) Ocular route is:

a) Systemic application.
b) Topical application for systemic effect.
c) Topical application for topical effect.
290) 1 teaspoonful equal:

a) 15 ml.
b) 5ml.
c) 30ml.
d) All the above.
291) Factors effect on drug :

a) Temperature.
b) Light.
c) Moisture.
d) All the above.
292) Half life mean :

a) Concentration of drug in blood to fall 25% .
b) Concentration of drug in blood to fall 50% .
c) Concentration of drug in blood to fall 70% .
37
293) ……………………….are dosage froms prepared by dissolving the active
ingredients in an aqueous or non aqueous soluent.
a) Suspension.
b) Syrup.
c) Solution.
d) Cream.
294) Advantages of solution.

a) Easier to swallow.
b) Difficult to transport.
c) More quickly effective then tablets.
d) A+c.
295) Disadvantage of solutions :

a) Easier to swallow.
b) Difficult to transport.
c) More quickly effective then tablets.
d) A+c.
296) ……………are concentration solution of sugar i n water or other aqueous liquid:

a) Solution.
b) Syrup.
c) Lotion.
d) Suspension.
297) …………………a susbstance for external application that produces redness of skin :
a) Rubefacient.
b) Liniments.
c) Spirit.
d) All the above.
298) The dosag form associated with pain is:

a) IV administration
b) oral administration administration
c) inhalation administration
d) all true
299) SC mean:
a) Subcutaneious.
b) Sublingual.
c) Solution
d) Syrup.
300) Which from following used for weighing :

a) Beaker.
b) Balance.
c) Cylinder.
d) A+c
38
301) One of the following is the objective of crude drug drying :
a) To decrease bulk weight.
b) To prevent the grow of M.O.
c) To decrease decomposition of crude drug
d) All the later.
302) The type of sugar in honey is :

a) Sucrose.
b) Glucose.
c) Fructose.
d) Lactose.
303) The color of bees wax are:

a) Yellow.
b) White .
c) Brown.
d) A +b.
304) Bees wax used in preparation of :

a) Capsule.
b) Tablet.
c) Ointment.
d) Suspension.
305) Cod liver oil consist of:

a) Vit A & Vit C.
b) Vit A & Vit D.
c) Vit D & Vit C.
d) Vit D only .
306) Cod liver oil used in:

a) Rickets
b) Rheumatic pain.
c) Joint & muscle stiffness
d) All the above.
307) Gelatin used in prepration of

a) Capsule.
b) Tablet.
c) Ointment.
d) Suspension.
308) Glycoside consist of :

a) Sugar part only.
b) Aglycone part only.
c) Sugar & non sugar (aglycone).
39
309) A.C of digitalis is :
a) Senoside A.
b) Emodine.
c) Aloe emodine.
d) Digoxine.
310) The type of glycoside in digitalis is :

a) Cardic glycoside.
b) Anthraquinom glycoside .
c) Saponin glycoside.
d) Flavonoide glycoside.
311) The active part in digitalis is:

a) Leaf part.
b) Flower.
c) Root
d) Fruit.
312) Digitalis use in treatment of :

a) Angina
b) Heart failure.
c) Arrhythmia.
d) Constipation.
313) The general use of anthraquinone glycoside is:

a) Purgative.
b) Laxative.
c) Anti constipation.
d) All the above.
314) The type of glycoside in senna is:

a) Cardic glycoside.
b) Anthraquinom glycoside .
c) Saponin glycoside.
d) Flavonoide glycoside.
315) The active part in senna is:

a) Leaf part.
b) Flower.
c) Root
d) Fruit.
316) The active consistent of senna is:

a) Senoside A+B .
b) Tannins.
c) Cascaroside.
d) Emodine.
41
317) The active part of liqurice is :
a) Leaf part.
b) Flower.
c) Root
d) Fruit.
318) The use in liqurice is:

a) Peptic ulcer.
b) Heart failure.
c) Hypertension.
d) Constipation.
319) The uses of genseng are :

a) Tonic
b) CNS stimulation
c) Antiulcer .
d) A+ b.
320) The black mustared use in :

a) Cardiovascular disease .
b) Rheumatic disease.
c) GIT disease .
d) Respiratory disease.
321) One of the following is evaporate when exposed to air at or ordinary

temperature :
a) Volatile oil.
b) Fixed oil.
c) A+b.
322) Active constituent of peppermint :

a) Eugenol.
b) Camphor.
c) Menthol.
d) Limonene.
323) The use of peppermint is :

a) Carminative..
b) Antiseptic.
c) Ant diarrhea.
d) All the above.
324) The active part in cinnamon is :

a) Leaf.
b) Bark.
c) Root.
d) Rhizome.
41
325) The active part in thyme:
a) Leaf.
b) Bark.
c) Root.
d) Rhizome.
326) The A. C of thyme is:

a) Eugenol,
b) Vanillin.
c) Thymol.
d) Menthol.
327) Thyme use in treatment of:

a) Cough.
b) Peptic ulcer.
c) Teeth pain.
d) Constipation.
328) The active part of clove is:

a) Bark
b) Flower
c) Leaf
d) Seed
329) Eugenol is the active constituent of :

a) Thyme.
b) Peppermint.
c) Anise.
d) Clove.
330) Clove used as:

a) Anti cough.
b) Tonic.
c) Analgesic of tooth pain.
d) All the above.
331) Which of the following used as flavoring agent :

a) Anise.
b) Cinnamon.
c) Peppermint.
d) All the above.
332) The active part of Nutmeg as

a) Bark
b) Flower
c) Leaf
d) Seed
42
333) The active part of rosemary:
a) Bark
b) Flower
c) Leaf
d) Seed
334) Chamomile flower used as :

a) Carminative.
b) Spasmolytic.
c) A+b .
d) All the above.
335) The general use of Tannins is:

a) Astringent agent
b) Laxative
c) Flavoring agent
d) Carminative
336) The active part of atropa belladone :

a) Bark
b) Flower
c) Leaf
d) Seed
337) Hyoscyamine of Atropa belladone is :

a) Tannins
b) glycoside
c) saponin
d) alkaloid
338) hyscyamine used as:

a) carminative
b) antispasmodic
c) expectorant
d) diaphoretic
339) hyoscine used in :

a) motion sickness
b) migraine
c) heart failure
d) hypertension
340) the active constituent of Ephedra:

a) pseudoephedrine
b) hyoscine
c) ephedrine
d) a+c
43
341) Ephedra use in:
a) Motion sickness
b) Hypertension
c) Nasal congestant
d) Migraine
342) The action part of tobacco is:

a) Bark
b) Flower
c) Leaf
d) Seed
343) The active part of tea:

a) Bark
b) Flower
c) Leaf
d) Seed
344) The active constituent of tea is :

a) Cathin.
b) Cathinone.
c) Caffeine.
d) A+b
345) The main action of caffeine:

a) CNS depressant.
b) CNS stimulation.
c) Anti allergy.
d) Anti hypertension
346) The action part of khat is:

a) Flower.
b) Bark.
c) Seed.
d) Leaf.
347) The active constituent of khat is:

a. Cathin.
b. Cathinone.
c. Caffeine.
d. A+b
348) The active part of cinchona:

a) Bark
b) Flower
c) Leaf
d) Seed
44
349) Qninine of cinchona use in:
a) Migraine
b) Malaria
c) Tape worm
d) Hypertension
350) Pomegranate use in treatment of:

a) Migraine
b) Malaria
c) Tape worm
d) Hypertension
351) Ipecacuanha use as:

a) Expectorant
b) Carminative
c) Flavoring agent
d) All is true
352) Morphine extract from:

a) Tobacco
b) Cinchona
c) Opium
d) Clove
353) The nature of morphine is:

a) Volatile
b) Tannins
c) C.glycoside
d) Alkaloid
354) The general use of codein in medicine is :

a) Appetizer
b) Cough sedatine
c) Anti flatulent
d) Expectorant
355) The action part of capsaicin is:

a) Fruit
b) Flower
c) Leaf
d) Seed
356) Capsaicin use in plaster as:

a) Analgesic
b) Healing wound
c) Counter irritant
d) Cosmetic
45
357) The A.C of ergot is:
a) Ergotamine
b) Ergometrine
c) Ergotoxine
d) All the later
358) Ergotamine used as:

a) Antimigraine
b) Anti hypertension
c) Oxytocic effect
d) All the above
359) Ergotamine used as:

a) Anti migraine
c) Oxytocic effect
d) All the above
360) Ergotoxine used as:

a) Anti migraine
c) Oxytocic effect
d) All the above
361) The active part 0f Nux vomica is:

a) Fruit
b) Flower
c) Leaf
d) Seed
362) The active constituent of Nux vomica is :

a) Strychinin.
b) Colchicin.
c) Diosgenin.
d) Ricinine.
363) Colchicine use in treatment of :

a) Peptic ulcer.
b) Gout.
c) Hypertension.
d) Migraine.
364) The active part of fenugreek is:

a) Peptic ulcer.
b) Gout.
c) Hypertension.
d) Migraine.
46
365) One of the following is use of fenugreek:
a) Astringent.
b) Anti hypertension.
c) Anti diabetic.
d) flavoring agent.
366) Castor oil used as:

a) Laxative.
b) Astringent.
c) Anti diabetic.
d) Preservative.
367) Fixed oil is:

a) Volatile compound.
b) Non Volatile compound.
c) A +b.
d) All the above.
368) Chromatography is:

a) Separation method .
b) Isolation method.
c) Purification method.
d) All the above is true.
369) The mechanism of separation TLC is:

a) Adsorption chromatography.
b) Partiation .
c) Ion exchange.
d) A+b .
370) The statiany phase in TLC is:

a) Silica gel.
b) Alumina .
c) Calcium sulphate.
d) A+b
371) RF value in TLC is:

a) Refractive factor.
b) Retention factor.
c) Reabsorption factor.
d) A+c.
372) Detection of sample in chromatography by :

a) Physical (U.V lamp)
b) Chemical (chemical spray)
c) a+b.
d) not all the above.
47
373) Application of Ion exchange chromatography is :
a) Deionization of water.
b) Preparation of alcohol .
c) Preparation of aldehyde.
d) All the above is false.
374) HPLC mean :

a) High pressure liquid chromatography .
b) High performance liquid chromatography.
c) A+b
375) Mode of separation in HPLC:

a) Adsorption.
b) Partition.
c) Ion exchange.
d) All the above.
376) One of the following is technique of chromatography,:

a) Gas chromatography.
b) HPLC
c) TLC.
d) All the above.
377) The types of drying are :

a) Natural drying.
b) artificial drying.
c) A +b
d) Not All the above.
378) The types of artificial drying:

a) Direct fire.
b) Vacuum drying.
c) Freeze drying
d) All the above.
379) Which one of the following is glycoside :

a) Saponins.
b) Anthraquinines.
c) Flavonoide.
d) All the above.
380) The factors responsible for deterioration of crnde drug:

a) Moisture.
b) Temperature.
c) Light.
d) All the above.
48
381) The use of cannabis is:
a) Narcotic analgesic.
b) Antidiarrhoea.
c) Counter irritant.
d) Mouth wash.
382) The active constituent juice in aloe is concentrated in:

a) Leaf.
b) Seed.
c) Fruit.
d) All the above.
383) Peel of orange has:

a) Saponin.
b) Alkaloid.
c) Flavoniod.
d) Tannins.
384) The use of anise is:

a) Antihypertension.
b) Hypoglycemia.
c) Antispasmodic.
385) Which one of the following is the properties of alkaloid:

a) Volatile.
b) Bitter test.
c) Liquid.
d) All the above.
386) Method of packaging column chromatography:

a) Wet packaging.
b) Dry packaging.
c) A+b.
387) Pilocarpine in jaborandi leaf used in:

a) Glaucoma.
b) Malaria.
c) Nasal congestant.
d) GIT spasm.
388) Extract of resin from :

a) Plants.
b) Animal.
c) A+b.
49
389) Cotton oil use in manufacturing of :
a) Soap.
b) InK.
c) Perfume.
d) Paint.
390) The general uses of volatile oil are:

a) Antiseptic.
b) Carminative.
c) Flavonring agent.
d) All the above.
391) The nature of active constituent in funnel ,anis ,clove is:

a) Saponin.
b) Anthraqninone.
c) Volatile oil.
d) Tannins.
392) The nature of active constituent in senege , ginseng , liqurice :

a) Saponin.
b) Anthraqninone.
c) Volatile oil.
d) Tannins.
393) The nature of active constituent in senna , aloe , cascara is:

a) Saponin.
b) Anthraqninone.
c) Volatile oil.
d) Tannins.
394) The nature of active constituent in tea , pomegranate , oatura is :

a) Dolatil oil.
b) Tannins.
c) Alkaloid.
d) Fixed oil.
395) The nature of active constituent in olive oil , sesame oil, corn oil is:
a) Oieo-gnm-resin.
b) Oleo-resin.
c) Fixed oil.
d) volatil oil.
396) The nature of active constituent in galls & hamamelis is:

a) Saponin.
b) Anthraqninone.
c) Volatile oil.
d) Tannins.
51
397) TLC mean:
a) Thin layer chromatography.
b) Thick layer chromatography.
c) A+b.
398) The types of tannins are :

a) Condensed tannins .
b) Hydrosable tannins.
c) Pseudo tannins.
d) All the above.
399) Advantage of HPLC:

a) Fast analysis time.

b) Excellent resoluation.
c) High sensitive.
d) All the above
400) Type of gas chromatography:

a) Gas-liquid chromatography .
b) Gas-solid chromatography .
c) Gas-gas chromatography .
d) A+b.
401. Which of the following is the antidote for the toxin Benzodiazepines?
A. Flumazenil
B. Methylene blue
C. Deferoxamine
D. Alkalinize urine
402. Which of the following is the antidote for the toxin Lead?
A. Naloxone
B. Nitrite
C. CaEDTA
D. Dialysis
403. Which of the following is the primary site of activity for the drug Warfarin?
A. Kidney
B. Liver
C. Blood
D. Heart
404. Lansoprazole is not used in which of the following cases?

A. Gastritis
B. Peptic Ulcers
C. Zollinger-Ellison syndrome
D. Thalamus hypertrophy
51
405. Which of the following drugs is associated with the reaction of Cinchonism?
A. Valproic acid
B. Quinidine
C. Isoniazid
D. Ethosuximide
406. Which of the following drugs is associated with the reaction of hepatitis?
A. Valproic acid
B. Quinidine
C. Isoniazid
D. Ethosuximide
407. Which of the following drugs is associated with the reaction of Stevens -
Johnson syndrome?
A. Valproic acid
B. Quinidine
C. Isoniazid
D. Ethosuximide
408. Which of the following drugs is associated with the reaction of Tendon dyfunction?
A. Digitalis
B. Niacin
C. Tetracycline
D. Fluoroquinolones
409. A drug ending in the suffix (pril) is considered a ______.

A. H
B. ACE inhibitor
C. Antifungal
D. Beta agonist
410. A drug ending in the suffix (azole) is considered a ______.

A. H
B. ACE inhibitor
C. Antifungal
D. Beta agonist
411. A drug ending in the suffix (tidine) is considered a ______.

A. Antidepressant
B. Protease inhibitor
C. Beta antagonist
D. H2 antagonist
412. A drug ending in the suffix (navir) is considered a ______.

A. Antidepressant
B. Protease inhibitor
C. Beta antagonist
D. H2 antagonist
52
413. Which of the following drugs is associated with the reaction of extreme
photosensitivity?
A. Digitalis
B. Niacin
C. Tetracycline
D. Fluoroquinolones
414. Which of the following is not related to a drug toxicity of Prednisone?

A. Cataracts
B. Hypotension
C. Psychosis
D. Acne
415. Plasma concentration of drug at time 0 is 96(g/ml).f t Vi is 2 hours

concentration in plasma at 10 hours will :
a) 48
b)24
c)12
d)3
416. Which of the following is considered a class IA Sodium Channel blocker?

A. Mexiletine
B. Aminodarone
C. Quinidine
D. Procainamide
417. Which of the following is considered a class IA Sodium Channel blocker?

A. Propafenone
B. Disopyramide
C. Aminodarone
D. Quinidine
418. Which of the following is not directly related to a drug toxicity of

Nitroglycerin?
A. Headaches
B. Tachycardia
C. Dizziness
D. Projectile vomiting
419. Potassium sparing diuretics have the primary effect upon the _____ found in the
kidney.
A. Proximal convoluted tubule
B. Loop of Henle
C. Collecting duct
D. Distal convoluted tubule
53
420. Which of the following is not directly related to a drug toxicity of Ibuprofen?
A. Nausea
B. Renal dysfunction
C. Anemia
D. Muscle wasting
421.Acetyl salicylate & phenobarbitone are better absorbed from stomach because they are
a) Weak acids remain non-ionic in gastric pH
b) Weak acids remain ionic in gastric pH
c) Strong acids fully ionized in gastric pH
d) Weak bases which are ionized at gastric pH
422.Chlorpropamide metabolism is enhanced by

a) Ethyl alcohol
b) Diazepam
c) Lorazepam
d) Chloridazepoxide
423.The factors contributing to the unequal distribution of drugs are all except:
a) Heterogenesity of the drug
b) Binding to plasma proteins
c) Cellular binding
d) Concentration in body fat
e) Blood-brain barrier
424.Protein binding of a drug helps in

a) Distribution
b) Prolonging half life
c) Limiting metabolism
d) All of the above
425.All of following are examples of prodrugs except

a) Levodopa
b) Enlapril
c) Omeprazole
d) Indomethacin
426.Drug levels should be monitored in the treatment of

a) Diabetes
b) Epilepsy
c) Status Asthmatics
d) Hypertension
427 be Which of the following is not related to a drug toxicity of Ateno lol?
A. CHF
B. Tachycardia
C. AV block
D. Sedative appearance
54
428.AH are prodrugs except
a)Enalapril
b) Paracetamol
c) Sulphamethoxazole
d) Trimethoprim
429.Which drug has a high first pass effect

a) Amiodarone
b) Phenytoin
c) Verapamil
d) Disopyramide
430.AH of the following do not cross the blood brain barrier except
a) Pyridostigmine
b) Neostigmine
c) Physostigmine
d) Ambenonium
431.Secobarbital and ethanol when given together show :

a) Additive sedative action
b) Reduced sedative action
c) Competitive antagonism
d) Chemical antagonism
e) None of the above
432.Administration of sulfonamide may intensify the action of tolbutamide, through:

a) Activation of the islets of pancreas
b) Direct action on the utilization of glucose
c) Synergistic action
d) Competing with tolbutamide in plasma protein binding
433.The major factor in terminating the action of ethanol is

a) Biotransformation
b) Excretion through lungs
c) Excretion unchanged in urine
d)Excretion in feces
e) None of the above
434. All are true except

a)Acidic drugs bind to albumin & basic to acid glucoprotein
b)All drugs have the same binding sites and mev compete for them
c)Increased dosage will cause decrease in free drug in plasma throughout the
therapeutic range
435.Which of the following i s seen in first order kinetics

a) Rate depends upon plasma cone.
b) Rate does not depend on plasma cone.
c) Rate depends upon plasma protein binding
d) Elimination depends upon amount of drug
55
436.All of the following pairs of drug compete for the same rece ptors except
a) Ranitidine and histamine
b) Metoclopramide and dopamine
c) Dicyclomine and adrenaline
d) Benzhexol and acetylcholine
437.The study of dose, distribution, metabolism & excretion of drugs in the body
is known as
a) Pharmacognosia
b) Pharmacodynamics
c) Dose effective study
d) Pharmacotherapy
438. Idiosyncrasy is:

a)A genetically determined abnormal reaction to drugs
b)A characteristic toxic effect at therapeutic doses
c)An altered physiological state produced by repeated drug use
d)An immunologically mediated reaction
439.Not metabolized in liver

a)Cimetidine
b) Phenytoin
c) Diazepam
d) Penicillin G
440.The following drug is not secreted in bile

a) Penicillin
b) Phenolphthalein
c) Novobiocin
d) Erythromycin
441.Alcohol should not be given with

a) Sulphonamides
b) Clonidine
c) Reserpine
d) Metronidazole
442.Methanol causes blindness due to its

a) Hypersensitivity reactions
b) Conjugated products
c) Idiosyncratic reaction
d) Oxidative products
443. Which cytochrome is responsible for drug metabolism?

a)P-450
b)C-3b
c)C-3a
d)C-2a
56
444. The combination of propranolol & nifedipine in essential hypertension is
used because
a) CNS effects of propanolol are prevented
b) Pedal edema of nifedipine is prevented
c)Alteration of serum lipids by propranolol is prevented
d)Reflex sympathetic activity of nifedipine is prevented
445. Drugs significantly affected by enzyme induction include the following

except:
a) Barbiturate
b) Chlorpromazine
c) Diphenyl hydantoin
d) Warfarin
446.What is a prodrug
a) Drag which increases efficiency of another drug
b) Metabolic end product
c) Inactive drag which gets activated in the body
d) Drag which competes with another for metabolism
447. The Alkaline Drug (Amidopyrine) is absorbed from

a) Stomach
b) Proximal small intestine
c) Distal small intestine

d) Colon
448.Which of the following statements is correct?

a) Most drags are absorbed in ionized form
b) Basic drags are generally bound to plasma albumin

c)Microsomal enzymes are located in the mitochondria of hepatic cells
d)Blood brain barrier is deficient at the chemo receptor trigger-zone
449.Substrate concentration & velocity curve indicates

a) Michelis-Mentons equation
b) Inverse relation
c) Zero order kinetics
d) All of the above
450. Drugs mostly cross biological membranes by

a) Passive diffusion
b) Active diffusion
c) Active transport
d) Carrier mediated transport
e) All of the above
57
451. All the following cross placenta except
a) Warfarin
b) Heparin
c) Phenindione
d) Morphine
452. The drug, which interferes with metabolism of theophylline

a) Gentamicin
b) Penicillin
c) Erythromycin
d) Sulfonamide
453. Km value indicates

a) Purity of enzyme
b) Physiological role
c) Half life enzyme drug complex
d) Affinity
454.All of following drugs are metabolized in body by acetylation except:

a) INH
b) Hydralazine
c) Procainamide
d) Dilantin
455.All are explained on pharmacogenetic conditions except

a) G6PD deficiency
b) Warfarin insensitivity
c) Adenosine deaminase deficiency
d) Malignant hyperthermia
456.Most common indication for therapeutic monitoring of plasma levels of a drug is

a) Hit & run drugs
b) Drugs with irreversible action
c) Narrow therapeutic range
d) Failure of response
457. Which of the following drugs do not cross the placenta

a) Dilantin
b) Diazepam
c) Acinocoumarin
d) Heparin
458.TVi of a drug can determine all the following

a) Closing interval
b) Elimination time
c) Steady Plasma Concentration
d) Therapeutic dosage
58
459.Zero order kinetics is seen with
a) Phenytoin
b) Phenobarbital
c) Erythromycin
d) Digoxin
460.Drug which crosses the placental barrier is:

a) Phenytoin
b) Diazepam
c) Corticosterioids
d) All of the above
461.The following drugs are excreted in the bile except:

a) Erythromycin
b) Novobiocin
c) Chloramphenicol
d) Rifampicin
462.The Combination of amoxycillin + clavulanic acid is used because

a) It broadens the spectrum of amoxycillin
b) It decreases the side effect of amoxycillin
c) It decreases the toxicity of clavulanic acid
d) It increases the oral bio availability of amoxycillin
463. Flushing occurs when alcohol is taken along with

a) Phenformin
b) Chlorpropamide
c) Glibenclamide
d) Tolbutamide
464. Which of the following avoids first pass effect of drugs

a) Oral ingestion
b) Rectal Suppository
c) Intra venous injection
d) Intra-arterial injection
465. All are pro drugs except

a) Sulindac
b) Codeine
c) Talampicillin
d) Chlorpromazine
466.The elimination of following drugs is dose dependant except

a) Phenytoin
b) Salicylate
c) Theophylline
d) Chlorpromazine
59
467.Drug which interferes with metabolism of theophylline is:
a) Erythromycin
b)Gentamicin
c) Penicillin
d) Furazolidone
468.What is the interaction of pheno barbiton and warfarin

a) Displacement of warfarin from binding site
b) Decreased absorption of warfarin
c)Increased metabolism of warfarin
d) Decreased metabolism of warfarin
469.Therapeutic index of a drug is an indicator of

a) Potency
b) Safety
c) Toxicity
d) Efficacy
470.Zero order kinetics are seen in all except

a) Salicylate
b) Atenolol
c) Barbiturates
d) Ethanol
471.All of the following are protein bound except:

a) Propranolol
b) Atenolol
c) Phenylbutazone
d) Warfarin
472.Pick the true statement:

a)Amox- Clavulanic, Clavulanic increases amox activity
b)Sublactum is used in treatment of Leprosy
c) Aztreonam is a metabolite of clarithromycin
d)Cilastatin imipenam- cilastatin prevents hydrolysis of imipenam
473.Drug absorbed by active transport is

a) Propranolol
b) Ergotamine
c) Levodopa
d) Amantidine
474.Following are the true receptors, except one

a) Beta adrenergic receptors
b) Na-K-ATP ase
c) Phosphodiesterase
d)Plasma proteins
61
475.Which of the following is not a dose related reaction:
a) Myocardial Irritation of Quinidine
b) Hypoglycemia of tolbutamide
c)Digitalis induced arrythmia
d) Drug fever of sulpha
476.Theophylline levels in blood are increased by:

a) Erythromycin
b) Ciprofloxacin
c) Smoking
d) Digitalis
477.What is the advantage of sublingual route of administration of drugs

a) Prevents first pass effect

b) Easy to administer
c) Lipid soluble
d) Can be spitted out with signs of toxicity
478.Ciprofloxacin increases the toxicity of theophylline by

a) Inhibiting metabolism
b) Decreasing excretion
c) Decrease seizure threshold
d) Promote absorption
479.Elimination after 4 half lives in first order kinetics is

a) 84%
b)93%
c)80.5%
d)4.75%
480.All the following induce hepatic enzymes except

a) Rifampicin
b) Phenytoin
c) Barbiturates
d) Tolbutamide
481.Which of the following shows high first pass metabolism:

a) Propranolol
b) Phenobarbitone
c) Phenylbutazone
d) Phenytoin
e)Reflex esophagitis
482.Enterohepatic circulation is seen in

a) Ampicillin
b) Benzylpenicillin
c) Norfloxacin
d) Streptomycin
61
483.Least half life is for which hormone
a) Nor adrenaline
b) Renin
c) Aldosterone
d) Thyroxine
484.Not a prodrug
a) Lisinopril
b) Enalapril
c) Ramipril
d) Famotidine
485.No physical dependence is seen in:

a) Dextropropoxyphene
b) Fortwin
c) Fluoxetine
d) Alprax
486.Slow channel syndrome is due to

a) Accumulation of Na + ions in channels
c) Accumulation of Mg++ ions in channels
b) Accumulation of K+ ions in channels
d) Accumulation of Ca++ ions in channels
487. First dose phenomenon is a characteristic side effect on initiation of

antihypertensive therapy with
a) Minoxidil
b)Clonidine
c) Metroprolol
d) Prazosin
488. Serum level of drug is monitored when the patient is on

a) Lithium
b) Haloperidol
c) Diazepam
d) Acetazolamide
489.L-Dopa is
a) Converted to methyl dopa in the body
b) Antagonised by riboflavine
c) Antagonized by nicotinic acid
d) Combined with carbidopa for enhanced effect
490.All the following statements regarding treatment of parkinson’s disese are correct except
a)Levodopa is usually administered alone (KAR93)
b)Amantadine is effective in the treatment of early disease
c)Bromocryptine is a useful dopamine receptor agonist
d)Patient may require medication every 2 hours
62
491.Which statement about clonidine is false
a)Useful in the management of opiate withdrawal syndrome
b)Claimed to have prophylactic value in migraine
c) It is alpha-2 receptor stimulant
d) It is safe on abrupt termination of treatment
492.Ipratropium bromide is
a) Bronchoselective anticholinergic
b) Used as mydriatic
c)A selective MI anticholinergic useful in peptic ulcer
d) An antiparkinsonism drug
493.Beta blocker which has less first pass metabolism and more excretion through kidney is
a) Propranolol
b)Sotalol
c)Bisprolol
d) Nadolol
494. Which statement is false of Domperidone

a) Chemically related to haloperidol
b) Pharmacologically related to metoclopramide
c)Extra pyramidal symptoms are common
d)It counteracts the emetic action but not the therapeutic effect in parkinsonism
495.Which of the following causes rise in systolic as well as diastolic BP for prolonged
period:
a) Ephedrine
b) Epinephrine
c) Dopamine
d) Norepinephrine
496. Amphetamine is used in

a) Narcolepsy
b) Psychosis
c) Anxiety disorders
d) Obsessive compulsive neurosis
497.Drug of choice in phenothiazine induced parkinsonism is

a) Levodopa
b) Haloperidol
c) Metoclopramide
d) None of the above
498.All of the following are adverse effects of phenothiazines except

a) Rigidity and tremor
b) Menstrual irregularities
c) Cholestatic jaundice
d) Systolic hypertension
63
499. Which antiepileptic drug does not act as GABA agonist?
a) Phenytoin
b) Sodium valproate
c) Diazepam
d) Phenbarbitone
500. Which phenothiazine has the least extra pyramidal effect

a) Thioridazine
b) Chlorpromazine
c) Triflupromazine
d) Fluphenazine
501. Dopamine is:

a) Alpha and beta agonist

b) Beta agonist
c) A beta blocking agent
d) Alpha blocking agent
502. I.V. fluphenzine decanoate is drug of choice in:

a) Simple Schizophrenia
b) Hebephrenic Schizophrenia
c) Catatonic Schizophrenia
d) Paranoid Schizophrenia
503. Bromocriptine is
a) A partial agonist of dopamine
b) A partial antagonist of dopamine
c) Used in the treatment of parkinsonism
d) Used to reduce GH secretion in acromegaly

e) All except b are correct
504.In an acute attack of migraine, the drug of choice is

a) Ergotamine tartrate
b) Methysergide
c) Propranolol
d) Caffeine
505.The ganglion blocking drugs act by

a)Competing with acetylcholine at neuromuscular junctions
b)Preventing release of acetylcholine
c) Preventing nerve conduction in post ganglionic segment
d)Preventing catecholamine release or inactivating it
506.Not an antidepressant
a) Amitryptilline
b) Fluoxetin
c) Trazodone
d) Pimozide
64
507.Beta blocker are used in all, except
a) Variant angina
b) Mild hypertension
c) Glaucoma
d) Thyrotoxicosis
508.Which of the following is the longest acting newer antihistamine:

a) Mequitazine
b) Loratidine
c) Astemizole
d) Terfenadine
509. Phenylephrine is useful for all of the following except

a) Anaphylactic shock
b) Mydriasis
c) Nasal decongestant
d) Artial tachycardia
510. B-Blockers are contra indicated in

a) Hypertension
b) Congestive cardiac failure
c) Anxiety states
d) Hyperthyroidism
511.Drug of choice in motion sickness is

a) Metoclopramide
b) Transdermal scopalamine
c) Diphenhydramine
d) Chlorpromazine
512.All increase dopaminergic transmission except

a) Bromocriptine
b) Metoclopramide
c) Chlorpromazine
d) Reserpine
513. Which antiepileptic drug in therapeutic doses causes least sedation?

a) Primidone
b) Clonazepam
c) Phenytoin
d) Phenobarbitone
514.Tianeptin is
a) 5-HT antagonist
b) Nor adrenaline uptake inhibitor
c) 5-HT reuptake enhancer
d) Dopamine antagonist
65
515.The following are recognized effects of propranolol except
a) Increases microcoronary blood flow
b) Decrease in heart rate
c) Decrease in cardiac output
d) Reduction in ventricular systolic pressure
516.Nicotinic receptors are seen in

a) Skeletal muscle
b) Visceral smooth muscle
c) Cardiac muscle
d) Salivary glands
517.Antiemitic used to prevent aspiration in emergency surgery

a) Ondansetrone
b) Promethazine
c) Metoclopromide
d)Ranitidine
518.Drugs which increase GABA levels in brain

a) Diazepam
b) Phenobarbitone
c) Sodium valproate
d) Carbamazepine
519.Midazolam as compared to diazepam is:

a) Less cerebroprotective
b) More cerebroprotective
c) Same as diazepam
d) No cerebroprotective effect
520. Which is a 5HT-receptor agonist?

a) Ondansetron
b) Ketanserine
c) Sumatriptan
d) Risperidone
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‫تنسيك وإعداد ‪:‬‬

‫حموق الطبع محفوظة لدى‪:‬‬

1. A teratogenic action is:

2. Praziquantel used for:

3. Quinine used for

4. Which route of drug administration is most likely to lead to the first-pass

5. Interaction between drug and receptor belong to:

6. The term “metabolism ” includes the following:

a) Transfer of the drug from administration site to systemic circulation

8. Acidic drug usually absorbed in:

9. Drugs have similar action of natural neurotransmitter called :-

10. Half life (t ½) defined as:

13. An antagonist is a drug that:

d) none of the above

14. The main site of absorption is:-

15. The main site of metabolism is:-

16. Narrow therapeutic index of drugs means :

17. Defined as macromolecular protein present in cell surface or intracellular ... is :

19. Water soluble drugs are excreted in :

20. CharacteristicsPlasma protein binding of drugs are :

21. All of the following advantages of Parenteral administration except :

24. Which of the following indirect sympathomimetic used as decongestant ?

25. All of the following neurotransmitter of sympathetic nervous system except :

26. Acetylcholine consider as neurotransmitter of:

27. As an example of ind&irect sympathomimetic agent used for treatment obesity

28. Used in hypertension managements :

29. Salbutamol used for :-

30. Clofibrate , atorvastatin belong to :

31. adrenalin causes all of the following except :-

32. Given within 72 hr of thrombus formation, act as fibrinolytic agent :

33. Co-administration of vit.C preferred with :

35. Which of the following drug contraindicated in asthmatic patient :-

36. all of the following are side effect of atropine except :

37. which of the following used as antidote for paracetamol poisoning:-

39. choose the drug which act by inhibition of lipo-oxygenase enzyme :-

c) zafirlukas d) all of the above

40. which of the following act by inhibit Na channel : -

41. which of the following used as antidepressant :

42. which of the following D2 agonist used for parkinsonism :-

43. which of the following H1 blocker used in bronchial asthma : -

44. which of the following used for schistosomiasis : -

45. which of the following can be used as pre- anesthetic medication:-

47. indicate the drug belonging to proton pump inhibitor :-

48. which of the following is mixed vasodilator :

50. which of the following drugs central antitussive :

c)ergotamine d) all except b

52. which of the following oral hypoglycemic agent belong to biguanides

53. pernicious anemia deficiency in :

54. which of the following is oral anticoagulant:

55. which of the following are anti - epilepsy :

56. which of the following is long acting benzodiazepines :

59. which of the following an example of loop diuretic :

60. an example of potassium sparing diuretic :-

61. an example of calcium channel blocker is :

62. which of the following used in post partum bleeding(haemorrhage) :

63. Which of the following drug used to treat status epileptics:-

65. Which of the following mode of action of doxycycline :

66. Which of the following used for hyperthyroidism in pregnant women

68. an example of antacids cause constipation as side effects :-

69. Anti-hyperlipidemia act by inhibit HMG-COA enzyme :

71. an example of long acting corticosteroids :-