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MODULE 3 MOCK BOARDS

Practice of Pharmacy

1. It refers to the responsible provision of drug therapy to 2. Any noxious, unintended, and undesired effect of
achieve definite outcomes that are intended to improve a a drug that occurs at doses used in humans for
patient’s quality of life: prophylaxis, diagnosis or therapy:
a) Drug therapy assessment a) Allergy
b) Therapeutic drug monitoring b) Adverse drug reaction
c) Pharmaceutical care c) Adverse drug event
d) Professional-patient relationship d) Hypersensitivity

e) Idiosyncrasy

CORRECT ANSWER:C CORRECT ANSWER:B

Terms 3.Which of the following is not an objective parameter:

Term Definition a) Bilirubin
Any AE associated with the use of drugs in
Adverse Drug b) Creatinine
humans (Professional Practice, Drug abuse
Reaction
and withdrawal)
c) Urine output
Any response to a drug that is noxious and
Adverse Drug Event
unintended occurring at normal doses d) Vertigo
e) Capillary Blood Glucose

CORRECT ANSWER:D

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4.Which of the following provides the greatest

number of calories per gram:
a) Dextrose
CALORIE GENERATION PER GRAM
b) Proteins
DEXTROSE 3.4
c) Fats
PROTEINS 4
d) Ethanol FAT 9
ETHANOL 7.1
CARBOHYDRATES 4

CORRECT ANSWER:C

5.Which is not a fundamental function of a hospital?

a) Research

b) Wellness 1.Patient Care

c) Education

d) NOTA 2. Education

3. Research

4. Public Health
CORRECT ANSWER:D

6. The most serious drug-induced blood disorder: 7. A way of summarizing the health benefits and
resources used by competing health care programs so
a) Aplastic anemia
that policy makers can choose among them:
b) Leukemia
a) Cost-of-Illness Evaluation
c) Agranulocytosis
b) Cost-Minimization Analysis
d) Thrombocytopenia
c) Cost-Utility Analysis

d) Cost-Effectiveness Analysis

e) Cost-Benefit Analysis

CORRECT ANSWER:A CORRECT ANSWER:D

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Pharmacoeconomics 8. The most practical method for sterilizing the

ophthalmic solution is:
PE Definition
a) autoclaving for 15 minutes
Cost of Illness Analysis - Direct +Indirect Cost of a Disease
Cost Benefit Analysis - All cost of providing the treatment and b) autoclaving for 30 minutes
comparing the benefits of each
c) membrane filtration through 0.2-micron filter
Cost Minimization - All outcomes are considered the same
Analysis - Select the lowest cost d) membrane filtration through 5-micron filter
Cot Effective Analysis - Compare treatment with cost and
outcomes in terms of therapeutic e) use of ethylene oxide gas
objective
Cost Utility Analysis - Measure the consequences in term of
QALYs

CORRECT ANSWER:C

9.Function of P&T Committee, except:

a) Disseminate information on its action to all healthcare staff

b) Establish program for safe and efficient drug usage • Chair: Medical Director
c) Develop a formulary of drug • Secretary: Chief Pharmacist
d) AOTA
• FUNCTIONS OF PTC
e) NOTA 1. Develop Formulary and operate formulary
2. Policy development and governance of
medication use process
3. Perform drug medication use evaluation
4. Monitor ADRs and Medication Error

CORRECT ANSWER:E

10.Potential adverse effects of Aspirin include: 11.Which of the chemotherapeutic agents is most likely
I. GI ulceration associated with pulmonary toxicity?
II. Hypersensitivity asthma a) Vincristine
III. Cardiac arrhythmias b) Doxurubicin
a) I only
c) Paclitaxel
b) II only
c) I and II d) Bleomycin
d) II and III
e) I, II, and III

CORRECT ANSWER:C CORRECT ANSWER:D

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12.Characterizes the first exposure of the fraction of the

Rescue Drugs drug metabolized in the liver:
Drugs Toxicity Rescue Drug
a) first pass effect
Cyclophosphamide Hemorrhagic Cystitis Mercapturicethene
Ifosfamide sulfonate Sodium b) drug-receptor interaction
[MESNA] c) biotransformation
Doxorubicin Cardiotoxicity Dexrazoxane
Daunorubicin d) pharmacokinetics

Irinotecan Acute diarrhea Acute: Atropine; e) clearance

Delayed diarrhea Delayed:
Loperamide
Methotrexate Hepatic toxicity Leucovorin
Bleomycin Pulmonary toxicity CORRECT ANSWER:A

13.Early sign of epinephrine decomposition is: 14.A private or public organization that provides
comprehensive healthcare services to individuals
a) Pink discoloration
enrolled to the organization:
b) Red precipitate
a) Hospital
c) Turbid discoloration
b) Health Management Organization
d) Black precipitate
c) Health Maintenance Organization

d) Health Care Organization

CORRECT ANSWER:A CORRECT ANSWER:C

15.A type of drug distribution system that makes Drug Distribution Systems
medication available at nursing units of hospitals and for
which a charge is made to the patient. • Used most often in governmental & other
Floor-Stock hospitals in which charges are not made to the
a) Charged Floor Stock System patient or when all inclusive rate is used for
charging
b) Free Floor Stock

c) Unit Dose Delivery Individual

• Generally used by the small &/or private
Prescription hospital
d) Complete Floor Stock
Order System

• Standard of practice in most hospitals today

Unit Dose
• Tablets and capsules are labeled and
Dispensing dispensed as a single dose for each patient
CORRECT ANSWER:A

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16. A patient who overdosed on neostigmine is expected 17.MAO Inhibitors + Tyramine Rich Food
to manifest with the following signs or symptoms except:
a) Headache and Vomiting
a) Diarrhea
b) Increase in BP
b) Bronchoconstriction
c) Cancer
c) Mydriasis
d) Increase risk in hypoglycaemia
d) Bradycardia

e) Lacrimation

CORRECT ANSWER:C CORRECT ANSWER:B

18.A drug induced hypersensitivity reaction caused by 19.Type F ADR can occur as a result of the following
sulphonamides except:
a) Parkinson Disease a) AMR

b) Hypertension b) Counterfeit Drugs

c) Contact Dermatitis c) Patient compliance

d) Steven’s Johnson Syndrome d) Drug instability

CORRECT ANSWER:D CORRECT ANSWER:C

20.Vital signs
I. Pulse Rate

II. Blood Pressure

 Drug-drug reactions
TYPE F  Use of counterfeit drugs III. Respiratory Volume

FAILURE OF  Drug instability IV. Temperature

EFFICACY  Patient non compliance a) I and II d) II, III and IV

 Wrong route of b) I, II and III e) All of the above
administration c) I, II and IV
 Drug resistance
CORRECT ANSWER:C

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21. Silver and sodium chloride, when mixed, can lead to 22. Acacia and Fe salts, when mixed, can lead to this
this incompatibility: incompatibility:
a) Eutexia c) Precipitation a) Evolution of gas c) Cementation

b) Explosion d) Evolution of gas b) Gelatinization d) Salting out

CORRECT ANSWER:C CORRECT ANSWER:B

23 When barbiturates is taken together with another 24. Interaction of aminoglycosides and loop diuretics
drug, this will likely result to: may result to:
a) Increased effect of the other drug a) Ototoxicity

b) Increased metabolism of the other drug b) Anemia

c) Decreased effect of the other drug c) Diarrrhea

d) Both B and C d) Neuropathy

CORRECT ANSWER:D CORRECT ANSWER:A

25. Alcohol and antihistamines, when taken together, 26. Nonselective Beta-blockers are recommended for
may result to: asthmatic patients with hypertension. Cromolyn sodium
is an example of a mast cell stabilizer.
a) Increased metabolism
a) First statement is TRUE, second statement is FALSE.
b) Decresed metabolism
b) Second statement is TRUE, first statement is FALSE
c) Increased sedation
c) BOTH statements are TRUE
d) Decreased antihistamine effect
d) BOTH statements are FALSE.

CORRECT ANSWER:C CORRECT ANSWER:B

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27. Tatay Digong’s three consecutive BP readings are

consistently around 140/110 mm Hg. Based on the JNC
LEGAL, INSTITUTIONS, GUIDELINES
8, what stage is his hypertension? Eight Joint National Committee
Classification of Blood Pressure
a)Normal c) Hypertensive stage 1

b) Prehypertensive d) Hypertensive stage 2

CORRECT ANSWER:C

• 28. It reversibly inhibits various enzymes present in the Drugs for Diabetes
brush-border of the mucosa of small intestines which are
responsible for the breakdown of complex carbohydrates
into monosaccharides: Classes Example
Meglitinides Nateglinide, Repaglinide
a) Insulin
Biguanide Metformin
b) Acarbose Alpha glucosidase Acarbose, Voglibose and Miglitol
inhibitor
c) Chlorpropamide
Thiazolidinediones Pioglitazone, Rosiglitazone
d) Glipizide Amylin Analogue Pramlinitide
GLP- 1 Agonist Exenatide, Liraglutide
DPP IV Inhibitor Sitagliptin, Liragliptin

CORRECT ANSWER:B

29. The medication requires ondansetron which is main 30. It is a rapid-acting insulin preparation that has a 4-5
indicated for the treatment of: hours duration of action.
a) Depression a) Insulin glargine

b) Schizophrenia b) NPH

c) Seizure c) Semi lente

d) Cancer-induced nausea and vomiting d) Insulin lispro

CORRECT ANSWER:D CORRECT ANSWER:D

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Drugs for Diabetes 31. The classical sign of diabetes mellitus includes the ff:
polydipsia, polyuria, ketonuria, rapid weight loss, and a
Classes Example random plasma glucose levels of:
Insulin Short Acting: Lispro, Aspart, Glulisine
a) 100 mg/dL
Regular Insulin- ROA: IV b) 200 mg/dL and up
Intermediate Acting: NPH Insulin, Protamine c) 150 mg/dL
Lispro, Protamine Aspart
d) 160 mg/dL
Long Acting: Glargine, Detemir, Insulin Zinc
Suspension

CORRECT ANSWER:B

32. It is the hypermetabolic syndrome that occurs from 33. Adverse effects of metoclopramide limit its
excessive production of thyroid hormone with classic usefulness. These adverse effects include:
symptoms of weight loss, nervousness, palpitation, heat
intolerance and insomnia:
I. Insomnia
a) Hypothyroidism
II. Depression
b) Hyperthyroidism
III. Extrapyramidal effects
c) Both A and B
a) II and III b) I and II c) I and III d) I, II, III
d) None of the above

CORRECT ANSWER:B CORRECT ANSWER:A

34. A dark pigmentation of the colonic mucosa due to

chronic use of anthraquinone laxatives:
Types of Laxatives
a)Melanosis coli c)Laxative overuse syndrome Types of Laxatives Example
Bulk Forming Laxative Methylcellulose, Psyllium
b)Cathartic colon d)Ulcerative colitis Lubricant laxatives Mineral oil (liquid petrolatum)
Stimulant laxatives Aloe, Cascara, Senna, Bisacody
and Castor Oil
Saline Laxative Magnesium Citrate and Fleet
Enema
Emollient Laxative Docusate

CORRECT ANSWER:A

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35. Among the following drugs, which is NOT used as an

anticoagulant?
a) Clexane
BRAND NAME GENERIC NAME
b) Coumadin CLEXANE ENOXAPARIN SODIUM
COUMADIN WARFARIN
c) Arixtra
ARIXTRA FONDAPARINUX
d) Jectocef JECTOCEF CEFUROXIME

CORRECT ANSWER:D

36. A keratolytic agent: 37. Caution should be exercised in compounding

potassium permanganate because it causes explosion
a) Benzoic acid with:
b) Oxalic acid a) Iodine

c) Citric acid b) Ceric sulphate

d) Acetic acid c) None

d) Glycerin

CORRECT ANSWER:D CORRECT ANSWER:D

38. A paracetamol tablet contains 1 1/5 grains. How 39. In psychosis, there is primarily:
many grams of paracetamol are needed to make 1000
tablets? a)Increased dopaminergic activity

a) 80 g b)Increased cholinergic activity

b) 78 g c)Both A and B

c) 72 g d)Decreased dopaminergic activity

d) 70 g

CORRECT ANSWER:B CORRECT ANSWER:A

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40.How many mg of isofluorophate are contained in 20 g 41. The following are manifestations of chemical
of a 1: 10,000 ophthalmic solution of isofluorophate in instabilities, except:
peanut oil?
a) Evolution of gas
a) 4.2 g
b) Immiscibility
b) 1.9 g
c) Color change
c) 2.0 g
d) Gel formation
d) 3.0 g

CORRECT ANSWER:C CORRECT ANSWER:B

42. Which of the following is not an outcome included in 43. These are propanolol’s indications, except:
the definition of pharmaceutical care:
a) Migraine
a) Cure of the disease
b) Stage fright
b) Elimination or reduction of symptoms
c) Hypertension
c) Slowing of disease processes
d) None of the above
d) Reducing healthcare costs

CORRECT ANSWER:D CORRECT ANSWER:D

44. A mathematical model for potentiating drug effect:

Addition
a) 1 + 1 = 2
Drugs Effects
b) 0 + 1= 2 Antihistamines Sedation

c) 1 + 1=0 Barbiturates Sedation

Alcohol CNS Depressants Sedation
d) 1 + 1= 3
Chloral Hydrate Sedation
Chlorpropamide Hypoglycemic Effects
Negative inotropic and chronotropic
Flecainide Verapamil
effects

CORRECT ANSWER:B

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Synergism Potentiation
Drugs Effects
Drugs Effects
Amoxicillin Clavulanic Acid Increased amoxicillin’s antibiotic effect
Trimethoprim Sulfamethoxazole Bactericidal
Ampicillin Sulbactam Increased ampicillin’s antibiotic effect

Pyrimethamine Sulfadoxine Anti-protozoal Piperacillin Tazobactam Increased piperacillin’s antibiotic effect

Carbon
Ethanol Hepatotoxicity Levodopa Carbidopa Increased levodopa’s effect
Tetrachloride
Carbon
Isopropanol Hepatotoxicity
Tetrachloride

45. An example of a subscription

Antagonism a) 2 tablets q 6 hrs

Chemical
• Protamine sulfate + Heparin b) 500 mg tablet
• Sodium sulfate + Barium chloride
c) As needed
• Acetylcholine (dec HR) + Epinephrine (inc
Functional HR)
d) M. ft. sol

Competitive • Acetylcholine (dec HR) + Atropine (inc HR)

• Papaverine (vasodilation) +
Non-competitive Norepinephrine (vasoconstriction)
CORRECT ANSWER:D

46. Which of the following is/are examples of mechanical

barriers to effective listening and communication?
I. Noise II. Harsh lighting
III. Lack of trust IV. Power failure
a) I, II,
b) I, II, III
c) I, II, IV
d) III only

CORRECT ANSWER:C

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47. The following statements about lactulose are true:
I. It is an osmotic laxative
II. It can cause flatulence and cramps
III. It is used as a sweetening agent
IV. It is taken with juice or milk to increase palatability
48. A condition characterized by a poorly functioning
colon and resembles ulcerative colitis due to chronic use
of stimulant laxatives:
a) Melanosis coli

a) I and II only b) Gastritis

b) I, II, III
c) I, II, IV c) Inflammatory bowel disease
d) I, II, III, IV
d) Cathartic colon

CORRECT ANSWER:C CORRECT ANSWER:D

49. Which of the following products is an iron 50. One advice the pharmacist may explain upon
preparation: dispensing ferrous sulfate supplement is that it may
I. Iberet II. Circulan III. Feldene discolor the stool _______.
a) I a) Orange
b) II b) Brown
c) I, II c) Black
d) I, II, III d) Green

CORRECT ANSWER:A CORRECT ANSWER:C

51. Iron supplement given to pregnant women 52. Side effect of selective beta blockers
a) Ferrous sulfate a) Hypotension

b) Ferric fumarate b) Hyperthyroidism

c) Ferrous gluconate c) Hypothyroidism

d) None of the above d) Hypertrichosis

CORRECT ANSWER:C CORRECT ANSWER:A

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53. Main site of biotransformation 54. Beta blocker also used for migraine and stage fright
a) Lungs a) Propranolol

b) Liver b) Labetalol

c) Small intestine c) Timolol

d) Kidneys d) Betaxolol

CORRECT ANSWER:B CORRECT ANSWER:A

55. Relief of pain without altering consciousness 56. Which of the following is not advertised?
a) Analgesia a) Mefenamic acid 500mg

b) Anesthesia b) Paracetamol 250mg

c) Narcoticus c) Aspirin 325mg

d) NOTA d) Ibuprofen 400mg

CORRECT ANSWER:A CORRECT ANSWER:A

57. The only insulin that can be administered by IV bolus, 58. Common names of Cannabis, except
IV infusion, or IM injection:
a) MJ
a) Regular insulin
b) Weed
b) Humalog
c) Hashish
c) Apidra
d) Green amore
d) Lantus

CORRECT ANSWER:A CORRECT ANSWER:D

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59. Blocks the action of the Parasympathetic Nervous 60. Diphenoxylate atropine was the old generic name of
System
a) Lomotil
a) Sympathomimetics
b) Diphenoxylate Atropine
b) Symphatetic NS
c) Loperamide Atropine
c) Parasympatholytics
d) Diphenoxylate
d) Parasympathetic NS

CORRECT ANSWER:C
CORRECT ANSWER:A

61. Functions of the PTC: 62. Disadvantage/s of the individual prescription order
I. Develop Formulary and operate formulary system of drug distribution:
II. Policy development and governance of medication use I. increased potential for medication errors
process II. increased drug inventory
III. Perform drug medication use evaluation III. delay in drug administration
IV. Monitor ADRs and Medication Error a) I and II c) III only e)II and III
a) I and II b)I, II, III c)II, III, IV b) I only d) I and III
d)I, II, III, IV

CORRECT ANSWER:D CORRECT ANSWER:C

63. Action of Histamine 64. Anti-Platelet

a) Raises the pain threshold a) Clonidine

b) Cutaneous Vasodilation b) Clopidogrel

c) Bronchodilation c) Nitrates

d) Hemorrhage d) None

CORRECT ANSWER:A CORRECT ANSWER:B

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65. Dose order: Drug A 15mEq po everyday Available: 66. If Drug A is a potent inhibitor of cytochrome oxidase.
Drug A 10mEq/5mL What would likely happen to Drug B if it is metabolized
How many mL of Drug A will you give? by the same enzyme?
a) 0.133mL a) Increase metabolism
b) 3.33mL b) Increase clearance
c) 7.5mL c) Increase potency
d) 10.5mL d) Increase effect

CORRECT ANSWER:C CORRECT ANSWER:C

67. Which of the following is the proper mixing of 68. The most common side effect of erythromycin
dextrose, fatty acids, and amino acids? therapy is:
a) fatty acids + dextrose then amino acids a) Hysterical laughing

b) amino acids + dextrose then amino acids + diluent b) Abdominal cramping

c) amino acids + fatty acids then dextrose c) Weight gain

d) amino acids + fatty acids + dextrose d) Drowsiness

CORRECT ANSWER:B CORRECT ANSWER:B

69. Which of the following drugs is administered solely 70. Physiological antidotes for narcotics:
by inhalation?
a) Atropine
a) Beclomethasone dipropionate
b) Ephedrine
b) Epinephrine HCl
c) Naloxone
c) Dexamethasone
d) Codeine
d) None of the above

CORRECT ANSWER:D CORRECT ANSWER:C

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71. How many milliliters of resorcinol monoacetate 72. How many milliequivalent are there in 15000 (should
should be used to prepare 1 pint of 15% (v/v) lotion? be 150mL) ml of a 50% W/V MgSO4 solution?
a) 65ml a) 62.5 mEq

b) 69ml b) 125 mEq

c) 71ml c) 372.5 mEq

d) 78ml d) 500 mEq

CORRECT ANSWER:C CORRECT ANSWER:B

73. What is the molarity of a solution that is prepared by 74. The anticoagulant action of heparin is quantified by
dissolving 10g of KCl (MW=74.50) in enough water to using the
make 500ml of solution?
a) complete blood count
a) 0.168M
b) activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT)
b) 0.258M
c) prothrombin time (PT)
c) 0.268M
d) International Normalization Ratio (INR)
d) 0.3000M

CORRECT ANSWER:C CORRECT ANSWER:B

75. A 20-year-old asthmatic patient has been treated with 76. A 250-mL infusion bottle contains 5.86 g of
zileuton (Zyflo) 600 mg QID. While the patient seems to
tolerate the drug well, she has brief episodes of potassium chloride (KCl). How many milliequivalents
bronchospasm several times a week. Which of the following (mEq) of KCl are present?
drugs would NOT be appropriate to recommend for the
treatment of acute bronchospasm in this patient? a) 12.7mEq
I. zafirlukast (Accolate)
II. triamcinolone acetonide (Azmacort) b) 20 mEq
III. salmeterol (Serevent)
a)II and III only c) III only c) 78.5 mEq

b) I and II only d) I, II, and III d) 150 mEq

CORRECT ANSWER:D CORRECT ANSWER:C

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77. How many mg of sodium chloride are needed to adjust 30
mL of a 4% cocaine HCl solution to isotonicity. The freezing
point depression of a 1% solution of cocaine Hel is.09
degrees.
a) 62
78. The USP states that 1 g of a chemical is soluble in 10 mL
of alcohol. What is the percentage strength of a saturated
solution of this chemical if alcohol has a sp. gr. of 0.80?
a) 10.0% W/V

b) 83 b) 10.0% W/W

c) 108 c) 11.1%W/V

d) 120 d) 11.1%W/W

CORRECT ANSWER:B CORRECT ANSWER:D

79. Dopamine (Intropin) 200 mg in 500 mL of normal 80. Insulin therapy is indicated in all of the following except:
saline at 5 ug/kg/min is ordered for a 155-lb patient.
a) Newly diagnosed type 1 DM
What is the final concentration of solution in ug/mL?
b) Gestational diabetes mellitus (GDM) not controlled by
a) 0.4 g/Ml
diet
b) 2.5 ug/mL
c) Newly diagnosed type 2 DM
c) 40 ug/mL d) Hyperglycemic hyperosmolar nonketotic syndrome
d) 400 ug/mL (HHNS)

CORRECT ANSWER:D CORRECT ANSWER:C

81. Caffeine + aspirin 82. A visual display technique that can be used as a
scheduling tool of the entire planning process
a) caffeine increases the bioavailability of aspirin
a) Curve fitting
b) caffeine increases the rate of absorption of aspirin b) Gant chart

c) caffeine reduces the bioavailability of aspirin c) Cyclical change

d) no interaction exist d) Regression

e) Distribution

CORRECT ANSWER:A CORRECT ANSWER:B

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83. How do you classify a drug interaction that is very 84. Which of the following NSAIDs appears to interact
likely but might not be proven clinically? least significantly with Captopril, an ACE inhibitor?
a) established a) indomethacin

b) probable b) ibuprofen

c) suspected c) aspirin

d) possible d) sulindac

CORRECT ANSWER:B CORRECT ANSWER:D

85. Two drugs are said to be ____ if the drugs do not 86. How many mL of water is needed to make 2 g of
cause responses of the same quality. Atropine Sulfate isotonic? Atropine Sulfate has an E-
value of 0.12.
a) homergic
a) 4 mL
b) homodynamic
b) 13.33 mL
c) heterergic
c) 24 mL
d) summative
d) 26.67 mL

CORRECT ANSWER:C CORRECT ANSWER:D

87. What is the amount of NaCl (in grams) needed to 88. How many millimoles are there in 2.40 grams of
make the CaCl2?
following solution isotonic? 1% Ephedrine HCl and 1%
NaCl has freezing point depressions of 0.169 and 0.58, a) 21.62 mmol
respectively.
Ephedrine HCl 0.35 g b) 31.79 mmol
Sodium Chloride q.s.
c) 43.24 mmol
Purified Water q.s. ad 70 mL
a)0.42 g b)0.64 g c)0.53 g d) 266.4 mmol
d)0.35 g

CORRECT ANSWER:C CORRECT ANSWER:A

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89. How many mEq of KCl are there in 50 ml of a 3% KCl 90. How much water (in mL) must be added to three
solution? tablespoons of 1:250 w/v peppermint spirit if it is to be
diluted to 0.05% w/v?
a) 40.27 mEq
a) 360 mL
b) 20.13 mEq
b) 5.63 mL
c) 111750 mEq
c) 5.23 mL
d) 223.5 mEq
d) 315 mL

CORRECT ANSWER:B CORRECT ANSWER:D

91. A pharmacist combines the contents of a 30-g tube of a 92. Express Absolute Zero temperature in Fahrenheit.
0.5% ointment and a 90-g tube of a 1.5% ointment of the
same active ingredient. What is the concentration of the a) – 0 °F
mixture?
a) 1% b) – 459.67 °F

b) 0.75% c) – 273.15 °F
c) 1.25% d) – 373.15 °F
d) 0.9%

CORRECT ANSWER:C CORRECT ANSWER:B

93. In what proportion should 5% and 1% hydrocortisone 94. How much tax must one pay if one is purchasing 15
ointments be mixed to prepare a 2.5% ointment? wine gallons of 35% alcohol? Tax levied is Php
a) 1.5 parts of 5% and 2.5 of parts 1% hydrocortisone 20.00/proof gallon.
ointment a) Php 210.00
b) 3 parts of 5% and 5 parts of 1% hydrocortisone
ointment b) Php 300.00
c) Both A and B c) Php 105.00
d) Neither A nor B
d) Php 420.00

CORRECT ANSWER:C CORRECT ANSWER:A

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95. What is the VAT imposed on an NSS bag with a final 96. How much is the total cost of 20 Fluimucil® effervescent
selling price of Php 105.00? tablets? The base price per tablet is Php 15.00. The
pharmacist also adds a 35% mark-up to increase revenue.
a) Php 12.60
a) Php 105.00
b) Php 18.22
b) Php 405.00
c) Php 14.52
c) Php 300.00
d) Php 11.25 d) Php 335.00

CORRECT ANSWER:D CORRECT ANSWER:B

97. How much is the final price of a 250-mL bottle of
rubbing alcohol originally priced Php 50.00 after a
customer availed a 15% Christmas discount, a 10% early
bird discount, and a 5% hidden discount all on the same
product?
98. A medication order calls for 1000 mL of dextrose
intravenous infusion to be administered over an 8-hour
period. Using an intravenous administration set that delivers
10 drops/mL, how many drops per minute should be
delivered to the patient?

a) Php 36.34 a) 2 drops per minute

b) 13 drops per minute

b) Php 35.00
c) 21 drops per minute
c) Php 38.25
d) 1 drop per minute
d) Php 38.46

CORRECT ANSWER:A CORRECT ANSWER:C

99. Ten mL of 10% calcium gluconate injection and 10 mL of
multivitamin infusion are mixed with 500 mL of a 5%
dextrose injection. The infusion is to be administered over 5
hours. If the dropper in the venoclysis set calibrates 15
drops/mL, at what ratem in drops per minute, should the
flow be adjusted to administer the infusion over the desired
time interval?
a) 26 drops per minute
b) 17 drops per minute
c) 14 drops per minute
d) 25 drops per minute
100. Treatment A costs Php 17,500.00 and extends the
patient’s life by 3 years with a Utility Value of 0.4 while
Treatment B costs Php 19,000.00 and extends the
patient’s life by 2 years with a Utility Value of 0.8. Which
is the better option?
a) Treatment A
b) Treatment B
c) Both are equally beneficial
d) Not enough information is given

CORRECT ANSWER:A CORRECT ANSWER:B

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