1.

The ability of the drug to dissolve is governed by several factors, including its:

a) chemical structure b) variation in particle size

c) particle surface area d) all of the above

2. Chemical modification is also used to limited extent to facilitate a drug reaching its desired target . An example is

a) Olsalazine b)p-amino benzoic acid

c) Ampicillin d) All of the above

3. To mask the intense bitter taste of Chloramphenicol is prepare in form of

a) Sodium succinate ester b) Palmitate ester

c) Phosphate easer d) Not of the above

4. Enalapril is the passage through the mucosal cells can be

a) Mutual prodrug b) Bio precursor prodrug

c) Carrier linked prodrug d) Not of the above

5. The drug’s passage through the mucosal cells can be

a) Passive b) active

c)pinocytosis d) all of the above

6. The water solubility of methylprednisolone can be increased by convert it to

a) sodium succinate b) acetate ester

c) acetenoid d) not all the above

7. Protein binding can have a profound effect on the drug’s effective

a) biodistribution b) half-life in the body

c)interaction with other drugs d) all of the above

8. Structural change in the barbiturate series that favor partitioning into the lipid tissue stores

a) decrease duration of the action but increase central b) increase duration of action but decrease

nervous system(CNS) depression central nervous system(CNS) depression

c) slowest the onset of action and longest duration d) not of the above

of action
9. The metabolism of drug some time lead to produce active metabolite such as

a) Lidocaine b) tocainide

c) sulidac d) all of the above

10. Concerning excretion

a) Polar drug excreted through kidney b) not polar drug excreted through kidney

c) Polar drug excreted through liver d) not Polar drug excreted through liver

11. One of the goals of design drug that willinteract with receptors at specific tissues, There are several ways to do this

a) alerting the molecule, which in turn, can change b) searching for structures that show increase
the bio distribution specificity for the target receptor that will
produce the desired pharmacological response
while decreasing the affinity for undesired
receptors that produce adverse responses

c) the still experimental approach of attaching the d) all of the above

drug to a monoclonal antibody that will bind to
a specific tissue antigenic for the antibody

12. The medicinal chemist is confronted with several challenges in design a bioactive molecute

a) the drug would normally be expected to un b) The non-specificity for the receptor would
dissociated from the receptor eventually minimize side effects

c) The drug would be expected to clear the body d) all of the above
within a reasonable time

13. A drug’s acid-base properties can greatly influence its

a) biodistribution and partitioning characteristics b) Receptor binding

c) Metabolism d) all of the above

14. The percentage ionization of ephedrine HCI(pKa 9.6) in an intestinal tract buffered at pH 8.0 is

a) 97.6% b) 99%
c) 50% c)90%

15) Amoxicillin has

a) 1 pKa b) 3 pKa
c) 2 pKa d) don’t contain Pka

16) The relationship between biological activity of drug and partition coefficient could be

a) Linear relationship b)bi-linear relationship

c) parabolic relationship d) all of the above
17).Most useful drugs are held to their receptor by

a) ionic or weaker bonds b) ionic or stronger bonds

c) ionic or covalent bonds d) van der Waals bonds

18. ------------ are, therefore, of primary importance in determining the nature and the efficiency of the drug-receptor interaction

a) Water solubility factors determined by the pKa b) Steric factors determined by the
of the drug molecules stereochemistry of the receptor site surface
and that of the drug molecules

c) Lipid solubility factors determined by the d) all of the above

partition coefficient of the drug molecules

19. ------------ Geometric isomers, such as the cis- and the trans-isomers

a) hold structural features at same relative b) These isomers also have significantly same
positions in space physical and chemical properties

c)their distributions in the biological medium are d) all of the above

different

20. ------------- of most open-chain neurohormones ,such as acetylcholine, and related physiologically active biomolecules,
permits multiple biological effects to be produced by each molecule.

a) Geometric isomers b) conformational

c) stereoisomer d) isoster

21. In essential pentosuria, urine contains

a)D-Ribose b)D-Xylulose
c)L-Xylulose d)D-Xylose

22. Heavy proteinuria occurs in

a) Acute glomerulonephritis b) Acute puelonephritis

c) Nephrosclerosis d) Nephrotic syndrome

23. The primaquin sensitivity type of hemolytic anemia have been found to relate to reduced RBC activity of which enzyme?

a) Pyruvic kinase deficiency b) Ghucose-6-phosphatase deficiency

c) Hexokinase deficiency d) Ghucose-6-dehydrogenase deficiency

24. Ehlers-danilos syndrome characterized by hypermobile joints and skin abnormalities is due to

a) Abnormality in gene for procollagen b) Deficiency of lysyl oxidnse

c) Deficiency of prolyl hydroxylase d) Deficiency of lysyl hydroxylase
 25. Control of urea cycle involves the enzyme:

a) Ornithine transcarbamoylase b) Carbamonyl phosphate synthetase

c) Argininosuccinase d) Arginase

26. inherited deficiency of ß- glycosidase causes

a) Tay-Sachs disease b) Metachromatic leukodystrophy

c) Gaucher’s disease d) Multiple sclerosis

27. Maple syrup urine diseases is an inborn error of metabolism of

a) Sulphur – containing amino acids b) Aromatic amino acids

c) Dicarboxylic amino acids d) Branched chain amino acids

28. All the following statements about albinism are correct except

a) It result in mental retardation b) Skin is hypopigmented

c) Tyrosine hydroxylase(tyrosinase) is absent or d) Eyes are hypopigmented
deficient in melanocytes

29. In hyperparathyroidism

a) Plasma calcium and inorganic phosphorous are b) Plasma calcium and inorganic phosphorous
low are high

c) Plasma calcium is low and inorganic phosphorous high d) Plasma calcium is high and inorganic
phosphorous low

30. Among the following the most sensitive indicator of glomerular function is

a) Serum urea b) Creatinine clearance

c) Urea clearance d) Serum creatinine

31. All the genetic disorder of cystinuria, the patient excretes large quantities of cysteine in their urine and its low solubility
causes crystalline cysteine to precipitate as stones in kidney’s. The remedy involves ingesting NA HCO3 Reaction of this
treatment is

a)NaHCO2 combines with cysteine b) NaHCO3 raises the pH above the isoelectric
point of cysteine
c) NaHO3 prevents stone formation by d) None of these
hydrolysis of cysteine to cysteine

33. Increased serum alanine during fasting is due to

a) Breakdown of muscle proteins b)Decreased utilization of non-essential amino acids

c) Leakage of amino acids to plasma d) Impaired renal function

34. In severe acidosis , the output of urea is

a) Decreased b)Slightly
c)Highly d) Moderately increased

35. Accumulation of trytophan in blood is Known as

a) Pompe’s disease b) Wilson’s disease

c)Wolman’s disease d)Hartnup’s disease

36. Clinical features od hyperthyroidism include

a) Goitre, heat intolerance, weight loss and b)Goitre, tremors, techycardia and cold
techycardia intolerance

c)Exphthalmos, goiter, tachycardia and loss of appetite d)Exophthalmos ,goiter, tremors and obesity

37. The most powerful thyroid hormone is

a) Reverse T3 b) DIT
c)T3 d) T4

38. Thyroid hormones are present is blood

a) In free form b)In association with thyroxine binding globulin

(TBG)
c)In association with thyroxine binding prealburnin d)Mainly is association with TBG,partly in free
(TBPA) form and sometimes is association with TBPA

39. Serum alkaline phosphatase is greatly increased in

a) Harmolytic jaundice b) Hepatic jaundice

c)Obstructive jaundice d) None of these

40. The active transport system for hepatic uptake of bilirubin is congenitally defective in

a) Gilbert’s disease b) Crigler-Najjar syndrome

c) Rotors syndrome d) Dubin-Johnson syndrome

41. Mechanism-based drug design is:

a)testing of large numbers of synthetic organic b)a chemical alteration of a known and
compounds or substances of natural origin previously characterized organic compound
for biologic activity

c)molecular modification to produce a molecule that d)None of the above

interferes specifically with the known or suspected
biochemical pathway or mechanism of a disease process
42. Abound drug is a drug that:

a) Cannot be eliminated b) Inactive

c) serves as a reservoir d)All of the above

43. At a H+ concentration of 0.01M, the solution is:

a) Acidic and pH is 1 b) Acidic and the pH is 2

c)Neutral and the pH is 7 d) None of the above

44. Regarding pulmonary route od administration

a) Provides delayed onset of action b)Restricted local action

c) Drugs must be in solution form d)None of the above

45. The pOH of a solution having a H_ concentration of 0.0001M is:

a)6 b)8
c)10 d)12

46. Multiply compressed tablets are prepared to :

a) Separate constituents due to chemical or b)Stage drug release

physical incompatibility
c) Have unique appearance of the layered tablet d) All of the above

47. Tablets must meet compendia specifications and quality standards confined through several pharmacopeia(official)tests

a) Dissolution b) Hardness
c)Weight variation d) Disintegration

48. preclinical studies are performed on :

I. Cell culture II. Animals III. Healthy volunteers IV.Patients

a) I and II b)II and III

c)I,II, and III d)II,III, and IV

49. According to the solubility/permeability classification, a class II drug is one with:

a) High solubility high permeability b) Low solubility low permeability

c) High solubility low permeability d) low solubility high permeability
 50. The basic technologies that derive genetic drug development are:

I. Dendrimerization
II. Recombinant DNA
III. Monoclonal antibody production
IV. Ultracentrifugation

a) I and II b) II and III

c)I,II,and III d) All of the above

51. in tableting, all are correct except:

a) Granulations increase material density ,improving powder compressibility during tablet formation

b)Lubricants inhibit the adhesion of the tablet formulation to the punches and dies during compression

c) Disintegrates are strictly added before granulation

d) Slugging is one way to prepare dry granules

52. All of the statements are correct except:

a)To classify a pharmaceutical dispersion, both size of the dispersed phase and it’s composition are considered

b) A molecular dispersion cannot scatter light

c)A colloidal dispersion may be either a one- phase or tow-phase system

d)The term phase is distinct homogenous part of a system separated by boundaries from other parts of the system

53. Molality is:

a)Moles of solute in 1 liter of solution b) Moles of solute in 1000g of solvent

c)Gram equivalent weights of solute in 1 liter of d)None of the above
solution

54. Is not a colligative property:

a) Osmotic pressure b) Freezing point depression

c)Vapor pressure lowering d) specific gravity

55. The pOH of a solution having a H+ concentration of 0.0001M is:

a)6 b)8
c)10 d)12
56. Regaling a zwitterion , which statement is NOT correct?

a) All ampholytes are zwitterions b)A zwitterions is electrically neutral

c)Amino acids are zwitterions d)At the isoelectric point the net
movement of the molecules in an electric field
is negligible

57.A solution of a salt of weak acid and strong base will exhibit:

a)A neutral pH b)A relatively low pH

c)A relatively high pH d)None of the above

58.Which statement is correct regarding supensions?

a)Suspensions are thermodynamically unstable

b)Reduction of the interfacial tension may bring about flocculation or agglomeration and a decrease in surface free
energy

c)Floccules are light conglomerates that are held loosely together by weak van der waals forces

d)All of the above

59. Which one of the following methods can be used to enhance the stability and extend the lifetime of an oral suspension

a)Lowering surface charge of particles with the help of NaCL

b)Building a gel like network among particles with the help of polymers
c)Increasing the viscosity of medium with the help of HPMC
d)All of the above

60. Which one of the following emulsion types CANNOT conduct electricity?

a)O/W/O b)W/O/W
c)O/W d)All emulsion conduet electricity

61. Bufadienolide:

a) they are C-24 containing 6-membered b) They are C-23 containing 5-membered
unsaturated lacton ring unsaturated lacton ring

c) They are C-24 containing 6-membered d) They are C-23 containing 5-membered
saturated lacton ring saturated lacton ring

62. A stimulant laxative glycoside:

a) Diosfenin b) Sennoside A&B

c) Silymarine d) Digitoxin
63. Khellin is:

a) alcohol glycoside b) phenol glycoside

c) coumarine glycoside d) sreroidal glycoside

64. Brucine is derived biosynthetically from:

a) Tryptophan b) Phenylalanine
c) Omithine d) Histidine

65. A True-alkaloid

a) Caffeine b) Theophlline
c) Atropine d) Theobromine

66. The basic structure of dieloxacillin consist of 3 ring

a) ß-loctam+ dihydrothizibe+ oxaazole b) ß-locatm+thiazolidine_oxazole

c) dihydrothizibe+ oxaazole d) thiazolidine_oxazole

67. The early step in the biosynthesis of tetracucline

a) hydroxylation at C-3 b) hydroxylation at C-6`

c) chlorination at C-7 d) methylation at C-6

68. para-hydrixy aminobenzyl penicillin

a) active against G+ve and G-ve bacteria b) stable in alkaline PH

c) Lactamase enzyme sensitive d)act by inhibition of protein synthesis

69. Palmitate ester salt of chloramphenicol is used

a) to increase water solubility A.B b) to avoid bitter test of A.B

c) to increase bioavailability of A.B d) all of them

70. In the final step of penicillin biosynthetic pathway the side chain in exchanged by:

a) phenyl acetyl side chain b) para-hydroxy phenyl side chain

c) carboxy phenyl side chain d) benzene ring

71.Carbenicilline is :

a)carboxy benzyl- penicillin b)aminobenzyl-pencillin

c) p-hydnoxy benzyl- penicillin d) epaxybenzyl-pencicillin
72. Dehydrogenation to form a double bond between C-5a & C-11 a in the tetracycline will:

a)increased activity b)decreased activity

b)minocycline d)complete losing in activity

73. All the following A.B are semisynthetic except:

a) doxycycline b)demeclocycline
c)minocycline d)rolitetracycline

74. Triterpences consist of:

a)6 isoprene units b) 3 isoprene units

c)2 isoprene units d)4 isoprene units

75. Psoralens :

a)coumarins that possess furan ring b)coumarins that possess pyron ring
c) coumarins that possess spiro-ketal side chain d) coumarins that possess steroidal nucleus

76. C-Glycosides:

a) they are hydrolyzed by heating with dilute acid b)they are hydrolyzed by heating with alkalies
c)they are hydrolyzed by oxidative hydrolysis d)they are hydrolyzed by direct heat

77.Prephenic acid can be aromatized in 2 ways to give:

a)Tyrosine+ Tryptophane b)Phenylalanin+Lysine

c)Tyrosine+Phenylalanin d)Lysine+Tryptophane

78.In the flavonoids, Ring (A) derived from:

a) shikimate pathway b)xanthin pathway

c)CHO pathway d)acetate pathway

79. In the flavonoids, Ring (A)&(C) derived from:

a) shikimate pathway b)xanthin pathway

c)CHO pathway d)acetate pathway

80.Squill plant:

a)contained bufadienolides cardio-active glycoside b)contauned cardinolides cardio-active glycoside

c)contained oleandrin as major compound d)contained dianthrone glycoside

81. TIDM patient who continue to have an erratic postprandial control despite proper insulin use benefits from the addition of:

a) Pramlintide b)Exenatide
c)Canagliflozin d)Degludec
82.Which of the following about acarbose is FALSE?

a)It reduce postprandial glucose b)Sucrose should be use to treat hypoglycemia in

patient taking acerbose

c)GIT disturbances are the most common adverse d)None of the above
effects

83.Which of the following oral anitidiabetic drugs has a delayed onset of action and may require several months to produce
maximum effect?

a)Pioglitazone b)Glimepiride
c)Repanglinide d)Dapagliflozin

84.Which of the following adverse effects of ramipril can be avoided by switching to candesartan?

a)Fetal toxicity b)Renal insuffieciency

c)Hyperkalemia d)None of the above

85.Acute decompensated heart failure patient who treated by conivaptan needs close monitoring to avoid an excessively rapid
rise in serum:

a)Potassium b)Calcium
c)Sodium d)All of the above

86.Drugs may precipitate or exacerbate HF by all of the following mechanisms Except:

a)Positive inotropic effects b)Direct cardiotoxicity

c)Increased sodium and water retention d)None of the above

87.The most important consequences of portal hypertension in patient with liver cirrhosis are:

a)Hepatic encephalopathy b)Coagulation disorders

c)Development of varices and alternative d)All of the above
roures of blood flow

88.For gastroesophageal varices, a beta-blocker should be titrated to aim for a heart of _______ beats per minutes.

a)55 to 60 b)65 to 70
c)70 to 75 d)85 to 90

89.The patient was successfully treated for an episode of spontaneous bacterial peritionitis(SBP).Which option is the most
appropriate antibiotic as indefinite therapy for secondary prophylaxis of SBP?

a)Metronidazole b)Neomycin
c)Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole d)Rifaximine
90.Mr.H has a history od calcium phosphate kidney stones and is allergic to sulfa.Which is the worst choice of antiseizeure drug
to use in the treatment of Mr.H’s seizures?

a)Topiramate b)Lacosamide
c)Zoonisamide d)Carbamazepine

91.Which of the following serum level(if obtained within 10 to 20 minutes of tonic-clonic seizure) can help differentiate seizure
activity from pseudoseizure activity?

a)Clortisol b)Prolactin
c)Melatonin d)Growth hormone

92.Teratogenic effects of antiseizure drugs(ASD) may possibly be prevented administration of:

a)Oral Vitamin K b) Parenteral Vitamin K

c) Iron d)Folate

93. You identify a 75 years old woman who has not refilled her alendronate prescription for the last 3 months. She tells you she
is concerned about osteonecrosis of the jaw(ONJ). Your response is?

a)There is no risk of ONJ with oral osteoporosis medications

b)ONJ only happens in patients with cancer

c) Due to the risk of ONJ, you call her doctor to get it switched to raloxifene

d) ONJ is very rare and she should continue alendronate since she is more likely to have a hip fracture

94. Which of the following about proper method of administration of delayed-release Risedronate is False:

a)Taken with plain b) The patient should remain ipright

c)Taken immediately after vreakfast d)None of the above

95.Measurment of lipid profile is preferred to be done fasting state because ________ may elevated in nonfasting individuals

a) Triglycerides b)HDL
c)LDL d)None of the above

96.Fish oil supplementation may be most useful in patients with:

a)High LDL- Cholesterol b)Low HDL- Cholesterol

c)Hypertriglyceridemia d)None of the above

97.All of the following patients with otitis media should receive amoxicillin- clavulanate instead of amoxicillin Except:

a)Have concurrent purulent conjunctivitisc

b)Children who have received amoxicillin in the last 30 days
c)Patient with bulging of the tympanic membrane and otorrhea
d)Have a history of recurrent infection unresponsive to amoxicillin
98. Aspirin should be avoided in treating fever in children with bronchitis because of the possible association between aspirin
use and the development of:

a) Reye syndrome b) Red man syndrome

c) Raynaud syndrome d)None of the above

99. Occluded enteral nutrition tubes may be cleared by:

a) Pancreatic enzymes in normal saline b) Pancreatic enzymes in sodium bicarbonate

c) Pancreatic enzymes in water d) Pancreatic enzymes in acidic fruit juice

100. Which of the following dosage forms can be administered by rube feeding:

a) Sustained -release tablet b) Immediate- release tablet

c) Enteric- coated tablet d) None of the above

101. Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors are contraindicated in:

a) Pregnant women b) Bilateral renal artery stenosis

c) Both d)neither

102. The following drugs exert their principal effects by enzyme inhibition:

a) Oxprenolol b) Atropine
c) Amlodipine d)Digoxin

103. Alteplase:

a) Is a prodrug that liberates streptokinase

b)Heparin must not be administered with 24 hours of alteplase infusion
c) Should only be administered if pulmonary artery pressure can be measured
d) Is indicated in the treatment of pulmonary embolism

104. Unfractionated heparin:

a) Binds to antithrombin III b) Inhibits the action of thrombin

c)Is monitored in the laboratory by measurement d) all the above
of activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT)

105. Sotalol has the following properties Except:

a) Is effective is supraventricular and ventricular dysrhthrnias

b)Is not effective when given by mouth
c) The dose should be reduced in renal impairment
d) May cause torsade de pointes

106. What significant side effect of terazosin should the doctor warn a 69-year-old patient about?

a) Bronchospasm b) Postural hypotenion

c)Heart failure d)Sedation
107. Ephedrine causes increased blood pressure by:

a)Indirect action on cholinergic receptors b) Blockade of adrenergle receptors

c) Stimulation of release of epinephrine d)Inhibition of reuptake of catecholamines

108.A drug acts at prejunctional ɑ 2- adrenoceptors and is used to treat hypertension is

a)Clonidine b)Methoxamine
c)Metaproterenol d) Dobutamine

109.The exposure to an insecticide containing an acelylcholinesterase inhibitor is best managed by administration of which one
of the following agents?

a)Physostigmine b) Bethanechol
c) Propranolol d)Atropine

110. A patient taking digoxin or his heart failure is started on lovastatin and cholestyn-ramine to lower his/her LDL-C level,The
dose of digoxin

a)should be increased b)should be decreased

c)should be taken 1 hour before or 3 to 4 hours d)should be eliminated to prevent serious drug
after a dose of cholestyramine interaction

111. A 52-years-old women with atrial fibrillation is prescribed apixaban , What is the mechanism of action of this oral
anticoagulant?

a) It indirectly inhibits thrombin by activating antthrombin

b) It directly inhibits thrombin
c) It indirectly inhibits actor Xa by activating antthrombin
d) It directly inhibits actor Xa

112.What is the mechanism of action o sotalol in preventing ventricular and atria arrhythmias?

a) It blocks Ca2+ channels in ventricular myocytes

b) It blocks K+ channels and ß adrenergic receptors in ventricular myocytes
c) b) It blocks K+ channels in ventricular myocytes
d) It blocks ß adrenergic receptors in ventricular myocytes

113. The principal process which termintes the action of norafrenaline released from adrenergic nerve ending is:

a) Aegradation by MAO b) Methylation by COMT

c) Axonal uptake d) Extraneuronal uptake
114.The “affinity of drug” means?

a) A measure of how tightly a drug binds to plasma proteins

b) A measure of how tightly a drug binds to a receptor
c) A measure of inhibiting potency of a drug
d) A measure of how drug activate the receptor

115. Patient taking calcium channel blockers and Rocuronium during surgery. What do you think will occur?

a) Rocuromium inhibit gentamicin effect b) Gentamicin inhibit rocuromium effect

c) Gentamicin prolong rocuromium effect d) Gentamicin sensitizes NMJ to the effect
of rcironium

116.Physician need to examine patient’s eye by using the shortest duration of mydriatic drug, What is the best
choice?
a) Cyclopentolate b) Tropicamide
c) Scopolamine d) Benztropine

117. Ipratropium has a unique feature over other antimuscarinic drugs in asthma treatment by:

a) Btonvhodilator with little systemic adverse effects

b) Btonvhodilator that inhibit mucociliary clearance
c) Btonvhodilator even in case where leukotrienes are the mediator of symptoms
d)None of the above
118. When digoxin is used in a patient with congestive heart failure (CHF), it cause an increases in :

a) Stroke volume b) Totla peripheral resistance

c) Heart rate d) Blood pressure

119. Because of proven beneficial effects on” cardiac remodeling”, these agents are now indicated as first line
therapy in CHF patients. Which of the following is representative of this group of drug?

a) Hydrochlorothizide b) Carvedilol
c) Furisemid d) None of the above

120.Which one of the following is the most common side effect of Bile acid- binding resins?

a)Flush b)steatorrhea
c)Neurologic d)Myopathy