1. The termination of action of a drug is determined by: b. thickness d.

taste
a. excretion of intact active molecule c. tissue redistribution 14. A rate limiting factor in the dissolution of drugs is:
b. excretion of inactive molecule d. a & c a. disintegration of the tablet c. content uniformity
2. Pharmaceutical equivalents are drug products that contain: b. thickness d. local effect
a. identical amounts of active drugs 15. To generally increase the solubility of a poorly soluble drug in an aqueous medium, the process is:
b. identical amounts of inactive ingredients a. complexation c. prepare into a derivative
c. identical amounts of excipients b. adsorption d. a&c
d. AOTA 16. The ionization constant of a drug is important in bioavailability since it determines the ff. except;
3. The purpose of biotransformation reaction is: a. its aqueous solubility c. pH of the medium
a. deactivate the drug c. promote the elimination of the b. dissolution rate d. its rate of transport across lipoidal layers
inactive drug 17. Which of the crystal forms give the best dissolution rate?
b. preserve the drug from destruction d. a &c a. meta-stable polymorph c. stable polymorph
4. The advantage of sublingual/buccal administration is b. amorphous d. a & c
a. no occurrence of gastrointestinal degradation 18. For faster absorption, what type of diluent or filler is needed if the drug is hydrophobic?
b. drug directly in the circulation a. hydrophilic c. ampiphilic
c. does not pass to the liver b. water repellant d. b & c
d. a & c 19. The route of administration which will by-pass the GIT degradation and hepatic metabolism is:
5. In LADMER system, L stands for liberation as the first step which determines the ff. aspects, a. intravenous injection c. buccal
EXCEPT: b. sublingual d. b & c
a. onset of action c. rate of absorption 20. A branch of science which deals with the changes of drug concentration and its metabolites in the
b. type of preparation d. bioavailability human or animal body after administration is:
6. Factor that contribute to patient’s difference in drug concentration in the body except; a. bioavailability c. biopharmaceutics
a. body weight c. age b. pharmacokinetics d. a & b
b. obesity d. climate 21. The first step which determines the onset of action, rate of absorption, availability is:
7. The effect of reduced particle size of a drug s: a. liberation c. excretion
a. increase absorption c. increased hardness b. distribution d. absorption
b. increased disintegration d. all of them 22. The integral of drug level over time from zero to infinity is:
8. A cause of patient to patient variability of time course of the drug in the plasma is: a. biologic half life c. bioavailability
a. disease c. genetic origin b. AUC d. biopharmaceutics
b. concomitant dug therapy d. all 23. A site in the biophase to which drug molecules can be bound is:
9. Dissolution rate tests can be used to predict bioavailability if: a. fluid compartment c. receptor
a. dissolved drug remains free in the GIT b. unit membrane d. none of the above
b. dissolved drug is decomposed in the GIT 24. A branch of science which deals with physical and chemical properties of the drug substance,the
c. drug is hydrolyzed in the GIT dosage form, and the biological effectiveness of a drug or drug product upon administration is:
d. all of them a. pharmacology c. biopharmaceutics
10. Elimination half-life of a drug is the time in hours needed to reduce drug concentration to: b. pharmacokinetics d. pharmacy
a. half of the parent drug c. all or taken dose 25. The ability of a substance to exist in different crystalline forms is:
b. one fourth of the initial dose d. a & b a. amphoterism c. polymorphism
11. Tmax means: b. salting in d. precipitation
a. time of great solubility of the drug c. time of peak concentration 26. Differences in bioavailability are most frequently observed with drugs administered by which of the
b. peak height concentration d. AUC values following route?
12. The difference in bioavailability of a drug product of the same therapeutic agent is due to: a. subcutaneous c. oral
a. difference in formulative ingredients c. difference in methods of manufacture b. intravenous d. sublingual
b. difference in packaging d. all of the above 27. Which of the ff. factors delays transmit time?
13. The ultimate evaluation of dosage forms or delivery system is on: a. increasing viscosity c. water
a. disintegration time c. clinical effectiveness b. liquid diet d. b & c
28. S drug can exert its pharmacologic effect only when it is: a. pH c. lipid/water partition coefficient
a. protein bound c. free drug b. pKa d. all of the above
b. protein unbound d. b & c 42. The prerequisites of the binding of a drug to a receptor are as follows, EXCEPT
29. The principal site of drug metabolism is: a. chemical reactivity c. absence of functional group
a. kidney c. gut wall b. electronic distribution d. none of the above
b. muscle tissue d. liver 43. The following mechanism of absorption required the presence of drug in aqueous solution, EXCEPT:
30. The mechanism for drug excretion via the kidney is: a. passive diffusion c. facilitated transport
a. active transport c. pinocytosis b. convective transport d. pinocytosis
b. glomerular filtration d. passive diffusion 44. A type of transport whereby drug molecules dissolved in aqueous medium at the absorption site move
31. The major plasma protein involved in the distribution of weak acid is: along with the liquid through the pore.
a. albumin c. glycine a. active transport c. convective transport
b. glycoprotein d. gelatin b. ion pair transport d. facilitated transport
32. The rate at which the drug appears in the bloodstream is known as:
a. biopharmaceutics c. bioavailability 45. The ff. compounds are absorbed via convective transport EXCEPT:
b. AUC d. biologic half life a. ions of opposite charge of pore lining
33. The dose size required to maintain effectiveness or therapeutic concentration according to the dosage b. ionized sulfonamides
regimen is: c. weak organic acids
a. priming dose c. loading dose d. NOTA
b. maintenance d. any of the above 46. When a substance is half ionized at a certain pH, its pKa is
34. An inactive or much less active substance which is transformed to active drug in the body is: a. greater than pH c. equal to pH
a. dosage form c. aspirin b. less than the pH d. negligible as compared to the pH
b. drug product d. prodrug 47. The Noyes-Whitney Equation determines
35. Studies of bioavailability are generally not required when: a. particle size measurement c. dissolution constant
a. drug is intended solely for IV use b. actual drug solubility d. dissolution rate
b. the drug is for local therapeutic use 48. Differences in bioavailability are most frequently observed with drugs administered by which of the
c. the drug is an oral product not required to be absorbed ff routes?
d. all of the above a. SQ c. oral
36. Gastric emptying is showed by the ff. except: b. IV d. SL
a. a vigorous exercise c. hot meals 49. When considering drug transport, a “passive transport process” implies that:
b. fatty foods d. hunger a. all of the drug will pass from one compartment to another
37. The ratio of the concentration of a drug in two immiscible phases is known as the b. the drug is highly soluble
a. concentration ratio c. partial miscibility c. the net transfer of drug is from an area of higher concentration to an area of low
b. miscibility ratio d. lipid/ water partition coefficient concentration
38. The metabolism of drugs generally results in: d. the net transfer of drug is from an area of lower concentration to an area of higher
a. less acidic compounds concentration
b. more acidic compounds 50. The rate of diffusion of drugs across biological membranes is most commonly:
c. more polar compounds a. independent on the concentration gradient
d. compounds having a higher oil/water partition coefficient b. directly proportional to the concentration gradient
39. Liberation is a process controlled by: c. dependent on the availability of carrier substance
a. age of the patient c. both a and b d. dependent on the route of administration
b. characteristics of the drug C 51. In general, various oal dosage forms can be ranked in which of the ff expected order of
40. Reabsorption of drugs and its metabolites occurs in the: availability (fastest to slowest)
a. kidney c. both a and b a. aqueous solution, capsule, tablet, powder, coated tablet, suspension
b. intestines d. none of the above b. capsule, tablet, coated tablet, powder, suspension, aqueous solution
41. Which of the ff factors affect the dissolution in the lipid membrane of the lipid soluble unionized c. aqueous solution, suspension, powder, capsule, tablet, coated tablet
fluid compartment: d. suspension, aqueous solution, powder, capsule, coated tablet, tablet
C 52. The rectal route of administration may be preferred over the oral route for some drug because: D 62. A relative bioavailability study is necessary when there is:
a. the drug does not have to be absorbed a. a change in galenic of the drug
b. absorption is predictable and complete b. a change in the method of manufacture
c. a portion of the absorbed drug does not pass through the liver before entering the c. a change in the means of preservation
systemic solution d. AOTA
d. the dissolution process is involved B 63. In organs and tissues that are well perfused:
A 53. Drugs that are poorly lipid soluble or extensively ionized at the pH of the blood generally a. distribution is lower c. distribution rate is negligible
a. penetrate the CNS very slowly and may essentially be eliminated from the body b. distribution is faster d. NOTA
before a significant concentration in CNS is reached D 64. The ff pathological states influence the volume of distribution, EXCEPT
b. achieve adequate CNS concentration only if given IV a. renal disease c. cardiac insufficiency
c. must be metabolized to a more polar form before they can gain access to the CNS b. hepatic disease d. vertigo
d. can gain access to the CNS if other drugs are used to modify the blood pH A 65. Renal clearance depends on:
D 54. The ff statements are true, EXCEPT a. urinary pH c. absorption
a. amorphous form is more soluble than that of the crystalline form b. glomerular filtration d. distribution
b. the amorphous form has a higher dissolution rate than that of crystalline form A 66. The breakdown of ingested foreign compounds to simpler structures:
c. the crystalline form requires a higher amount of energy to free molecule of the drug a. catabolism c. homeostasis
from it than does the amorphous form b. anabolism d. NOTA
d. the amorphous form requires a higher amount of energy to free molecule of the drug A 67. The magnitude of bile production depends on
from it than does the crystalline form a. type of food c. enzyme activity
B 55. These are addition compounds of drug and organic solvents: b. the amount of bile emptied d. AOTA
a. hydrates c. polymorphs A 68. Biliary excretion principle
b. solvates d. NOTA a. through the bile duct into the duodenum
C 56. The displacement of drug from protein binding site causes: b. major portion of the bile is excreted
a. decrease in the intensity of the pharmacological response c. as metabolite
b. decrease in the intensity of side effects d. any of the above
c. toxicity B 69. Biotransformation of a drug takes place in the liver in the presence of:
d. all of the above a. energy from the body c. substance is destroyed in the liver
B 57. The major pathway of excretion b. enzymes which acts as catalysts d. a and c
a. via the liver c. via the circulation system C 70. Due to their anatomical structure, the organ which is the most important site of drug absorption is
b. via the kidney d. via the large intestines a. large intestine c. small intestine
C 58. Which of the ff factors tend to alter the rate of absorption? b. stomach d. mucous membrane of the mouth
a. age c. both a and b D 71. A factor determining the activity of a drug:
b. disease d. NOTA a. formulation of a dosage form c. dose
A 59. Which of the ff properties of surfactants tend to increase the rate of dissolution? b. individual d. a&b
a. surface tension lowering effect A 72. Factor affecting difference between loading and maintenance doses
b. production of micelles with the parent drug a. half life of the drug c. adverse effect
c. absence of peptizing action b. effectiveness of the dose d. b & c
d. AOTA C 73. Factor affecting gastric emptying time of a drug
D 60. Which of the ff events modify drug absorption? a. age of a person c. body posture
a. physiological constituents of digestion b. time of the day d. all of them
b. Drug interaction D 74. Application of clinical pharmaceutics as to management of individual patient is the:
c. certain physiologic state a. safety c. therapeutic
d. AOTA b. overdosage d. a and c
A 61. The process that determines absolute bioavailability are the first pass effect and: A 75. If the extent and rate of absorption is similar to the standard drug, it has achieved the:
a. absorption c. distribution a. bioequivalence of the drug product c. pharmaceutical alternative
b. liberation d. metabolism b. pharmaceutical equivalence d. a and b
A 76. The time in hours necessary to reduce the drug concentration in the blood, the plasma, or serum, d. NOTA
to half its original concentration after equilibrium is reached: D 87. Possible approaches to measure the bioavailability
a. biological half life c. bioavailability a. blood level data c. clinical data
b. AUC d. a & b b. urinary excretion data d. AOTA
B 77. The hypothetical plasma volume in ml of the unmetabolized drug which is cleared in one minute A 88. Drugs that are usually released much more slowly from fat because
via the kidney: a. fat has relatively limited blood supply
a. volume of distribution c. total clearance b. drugs are more fat bound than plasma bound
b. renal clearance d. AUC c. fat bound drugs to itself more
A 78. An entity which can be described by a definite volume and a concentration of drug contained in d. AOTA
that volume: D 89. Cumulative urinary excretion is often used in pharmacokinetic and clinical studies in man and
a. compartment c. receptor animals to learn about the disposition of the drugs and to determine the ff.:
b. serum level d. bloodstream a. Ka c. % of drug absorbed
B 79. A cell or cell compartment where the final interaction between drug and receptor takes place b. fraction of drug absorbed d. AOTA
a. receptor c. unit membrane A 90. The theory which states that the cell membrane is made up of a bi-lipid layer and fluid protein
b. biophase d. muscle molecules interspersed in between the 2 layers of lipid
A 80. Drugs that are absorbed in the GIT are generally: a. fluid-mosaic d. Nicholson
a. absorbed into the portal of circulation and pass through the liver before entering the b. Monsanto e. NOTA
general circulation c. Davidson
b. filtered from the blood by the kidney, then reabsorbed into the general circulation B 91. It is the loss of the drug from the central compartment due to transfer into other compartments
c. not affected by the liver enzymes and or elimination or metabolism
d. stored in the liver a. dosage regimen d. creatinine clearance
A 81. The volume of distribution of a drug is b. disposition e. circadian rhythm
a. mathematical relationship between the total amount of drug in the body and the c. depot phase
concentration of drug in the blood B 92. Obtained when the drug product is administered at the site where the pharmacological response is
b. a measure of an individual’s blood volume desired and when the drug released from the product acts by the adsorption to the skin or
c. an expression of total body volume mucosa or penetrates into the skin or mucosa, but does not enter the systemic circulation or
d. a measure of the individual fluid volume lymphatic system.
D 82. The biologic half life of many drugs is often prolonged in new born infants because of: a. systemic effect c. mean transit time
a. a higher decrease of protein binding b. local effect d. micro constants
b. microsomal enzyme induction C 93. Maintenance of a steady state which characterize the internal environment of the healthy
c. more complete absorption of drugs organism.
d. incompletely developed enzyme system a. steady state c. homeostasis
D 83. Which of the ff factors increase the rate of gastric emptying? b. depot phase d. maintenance dose
a. fats c. anticholinergic agents C 94. The speed of blood perfusion in an organ, usually expressed in ml/100g organ weight/min
b. increasing d. NOTA a. accumulation c. blood flow rate
D 84. The force of attraction which binds drugs to albumin: b. bioavailability d. absorption
a. Van der Waals c. hydrogen bond A 95. Those drugs which the pharmacological actions depend directly on the chemical structure of the
b. hydrophobic bond d. AOTA drug.
A 85. The metabolism and/or the elimination of a drug by gastrointestinal and hepatic drug a. structure specific drugs c. drug agonist
metabolizing enzyme which can occur after oral administration of adrug: b. structure non specific d. NOTA
a. first pass metabolism c. hepatic clearance A 96. If drug A is more lipophilic than drug B, then;
b. biliary recycling d. BUN a. drug A will be better distributed than drug B
B 86. The administration of the same dose of active ingredient in different galenic forms: b. drug B will be better distributed than drug A
a. always leads to the same therapeutic effect c. drug agonist
b. does not necessarily lead to the same therapeutic effect d. NOTA
c. always lead to different therapeutic effect C 97. Drugs of low solubility may be brought into solution by the use of:
 a. solvent c. surfactants c. both a & b
b. vehicle d. AOTA d. pH of the medium
C 98. A type of antagonism whereby the agonist and antagonist bind to different receptor and have D 110. Refers to change of one or more of the pharmacokinetic parameters during absorption,
opposite pharmacologic actions: distribution, metabolism, and excretion by overloading of processes due to increased dose
a. partial antagonism c. non-competitive antagonism sizes:
b. non-equilibrium antagonism d. competitive antagonism a. nonlinear kinetics d. both a & c
D 100. The LADME system is employed in: b. linear kinetics e. both b & c
a. the development of new active compounds c. saturation kinetics
b. the determination of effective dose size B 111. The concentration of the ionic moiety of weak acids increases with:
c. the adjustment of dosage regimen a. decreasing pH of aqueous solution c. increasing pOH of aqueous solution
d. AOTA b. increasing pH of aqueous solution d. all of the above
C 101. A type of antagonism whereby the antagonist forms irreversible receptor binding: D 112. The ff. are the mechanisms by which drugs containing sorption promoters penetrate the skin:
a. partial antagonism c. non-competitive antagonism a. decrease viscosity of the medium
b. non-equilibrium antagonism d. competitive antagonism b. chelation of intracellular groups
A 102. Tissue distribution of drugs is highly dependent on c. widening of either lipid or aqueous phase or both phases found in the intracellular
a. organ perfusion c. both a and b matrix
b. type of dosage form d. NOTA D 113. The cell membrane is capable of forming vesicles which may engulf drug substances outside the
A 103. Phosphorus poison reacting with cupric sulfate in the intestines (so as to prevent the absorption cell membrane of transport the drug (via the engulfed drug) into the compartment:
of the poison) is an example of _________ antagonism a. ion pair d. pinocytosis
a. chemical d. non equilibrium b. passive diffusion e. active transport
b. competitive e. none of the above c. convective transport
c. non competitive D 114. In the diffusion controlled system, the initial rate of dissolution is directly proportional to the:
C 104. The ratio of creatinine excreted in urine to the concentration of creatinine in plasma: a. pKa c. quantity of the free acid present
a. creatinine concentration c. creatinine clearance b. pH d. solubility of the drug in the
b. creatinine excretion d. renal clearance dissolution
C 105. Is the hypothetical volume of distribution in mL of the unmetabolized drug which is cleared per medium
unit time by any pathway of drug removal: B 115. A type of transport whereby drug molecules dissolved in aqueous medium at the absorption site
a. diffusion layer d. clinical pharmacokinetics move along with solvent through the pore:
b. diurnal variation e. none of the above a. active transport c. ion-pair transport
c. clearance b. convective transport d. facilitated transport
C 106. The physical barrier to transport in the body: B 116. Type of antagonism which is dependent on concentration (of either agonist, antagonist or both)
a. carrier molecule d. any of the above choices and this antagonism is reversible:
b. inactive complex e. none of the above a. chemical d. non-equilibrium
c. unit membrane b. competitive e. partial
A 107. That portion of a prolonged release dosage form which liberates the drug from the form at a c. non-competitive
slower rate that its unrestricted absorption rate: A 117. Structural nonspecific drug act by:
a. depot phase d. all of the above a. physicochemical processes c. biochemical processes
b. release phase e. none of the above b. physical processes d. none of the above
c. dissolve phase D 118. The following are characterizing transport of a drug in solution across a membrane by passive
A 108. The determination and recording of drug concentrations during the course of therapy in order to diffusion, except:
adjust, if necessary, the dosage regimen: a. membrane thickness c. partition coefficient
a. monitoring c. metabolizing b. volume of outside compartment d. membrane length
b. patient charting d. all of the above D 119. An inactive (or much less active) substance which is biotransformed to active drug in the body:
B 109. Membrane potential is due to the: a. dosage form c. drug product
a. adsorption of protein to the outside of the lipid layer b. modified release d. prodrug
b. different distribution of ions in the extracellular and intracellular fluid C 120. A term defined as the combination of a drug molecule with a receptor
 a. antagonism c. affinity b. lock & key hypothesis d. hypothesis of Clark
b. intrinsic activity d. none of the above D 133. The systematized dosage schedule of therapy
B 121. Antagonist forms irreversible receptor binding: a. dose size c. dosage form
a. partial d. chemical b. loading dose d. dosage regimen
b. non-equilibrium e. competitive D 134. Examples of sorption promoters:
c. non-competitive a. surfactants c. viscosity decreasing agents/thinners
C 122. These are formed when a substance is capable of forming channels or cages which can take up b. chelating agents d. all of the above
another substance into the intraspace of the structure: D 135. Factors affecting pharmacokinetic variability:
a. salting in d. solid-in-solid solution complex a. dosage form c. particle size
b. salting out e. none of the above b. viscosity d. all of the above
c. clathrate C 136. Lipid/water coefficient permits:
E 123. The ff. are the characteristics of active transport, except: a. convective transport c. passive transport
a. against a concentration gradient d. all of the above b. active transport d. ion-pair transport
b. follows saturation kinetics e. none of the above D 137. Biliary recycling is influenced by:
c. carrier mediated a. rate of excretion of drug into the bottle
C 124. Addition compounds of drug and organic solvent: b. rate of loss of drug with feces
a. hydrates d. polymorphs c. disintegration
b. anhydrous drug e. none of the above d. all of the above
c. solvates
D 125. A type of absorption mechanism which requires expenditure of ATP:
a. convective transport c. ion-pair transport D 138. The final elimination from the body’s systemic circulation via the kidney into the urine, via bile,
b. pinocytosis d. active transport and saliva into intestines and into feces, via sweat, via skin, via milk:
B 126. The biosynthesis of more complex compounds: a. metabolism c. absorption
a. catabolism c. homeostasis b. distribution d. excretion
b. anabolism d. none of the above C 139. Salts of electrolyte
B 127. The value of the particle size reduction to enhance drug absorption is limited to the situation in a. higher solubility c. both
which the: b. more rapid dissolution rate d. none of the above
a. absorption process occurs by active transport D 140. The distribution law of true partition coefficient is exact only for ideal solutions under the
b. absorption process is rate limited by the dissolution of the drug in the GI following conditions:
c. drug is very soluble a. when the two liquid phases are completely immiscible
d. drug is very potent b. when the solute neither associates nor dissociates in either phase
B 128. A drug which possesses little or does not possess intrinsic activity: c. when the solute concentration is relatively low
a. agonist d. toxins d. all of the above
b. antagonist e. none of the above B 141. Is the phenomenon observed if the rate of absorption is slower than the rate of elimination, or if
c. nonspecific drugs one of the distribution rate is slower than the rate of elimination:
A 129. Plasma protein binding is of significant influence in the distribution equilibrium a. feathering c. dose dumping
a. the drug is polar c. the drug is oil-soluble b. flip-flop model d. none of the above
b. the drug is nonpolar d. all of the above B 142. Sodium pump is a special type of:
A 130. The breakdown of ingested foreign compounds to simpler structures a. convective transport c. passive transport
a. catabolism c. homeostasis b. active transport d. ion-pair transport
b. anabolism d. none of the above B 143. Mechanism of absorption of drugs are in order of their importance such as:
D 131. Membranes are responsible for which of the following processes: a. active transport-passive diffusion-convective transport
a. uptake of liquid material c. extrusion of waste materials b. passive diffusion-convective transport-active transport
b. uptake of solid material d. all of the above c. convective transport-active transport-passive diffusion
C 132. A theory which states that effectiveness lasts as long as the receptor is occupied C 144. Reasons for chemical variation
a. hypothesis of Paton c. hypothesis of Ariens & Stephenson
 a. change the structure of the active compound in order to increase pharmacologic A 155. Facilitated transport is similar to active transport in that it:
response a. is carrier-mediated d. none of the above
b. maintain the basic structure but change solubility by the formation of either salts, b. utilizes ATP e. all of the above
esters, c. is against concentration gradient
ethers, or complexes A 156. Highly lipid soluble drugs are predominantly distributed in:
c. both a & b a. nervous tissues c. fluid compartments
d. none of the above b. blood d. all of the above
E 145. Enumerated are factors affecting biological performance of drugs: D 157. The lipid phase which is usually employed in the determination of partition coefficient
a. viscosity d. adsorption a. water c. cottonseed oil
b. polymorphism e. all of the above b. corn oil d. octanol
c. solubilizing agents B 158. A property of drug which has an affinity and generates an impulse with a receptor:
B 146. A change of pH in the aqueous phase alters the __________________ of electrolytes a. antagonism c. affinity
a. degree of ionization c. degree of acidification b. intrinsic activity d. none of the above
b. degree of dissociation d. degree of purification C 159. Agonist and antagonist to bind to different receptors and have opposite pharmacologic actions:
A 147. The capacity of the body to eliminate the drug after it has reached the general circulation is a. partial c. noncompetitive
reflected by the: b. competitive d. chemical
a. total clearance c. AUC B 160. The relative amount of drug from an administered dosage form which enters the systemic
b. biliary recycling d. volume of distribution circulation and the rate at which the drug appears in the blood streams
A 148. A dosage form for which the drug release characteristics of time course and/or drug release a. accumulation c. blood flow rate
location are chosen to accomplish therapeutic or convenience objectives: b. bioavailability d. adsorption
a. modified release dosage forms c. conventional dosage forms D 161. The sum of all the chemical reactions for biotransformation of endogenous and exogenous
b. sustained release dosage forms d. all of the above substances which take place in the living cell:
D 149. A pre-requisite of drug absorption is that the drug be in aqueous solution except in the a. excretion c. elimination
absorption mechanism of: b. absorption d. metabolism
a. passive diffusion c. facilitated transport C 162. If the drug permeates through the capillary walls and enter the blood stream:
b. ion-pair transport d. pinocytosis a. adsorption d. sorption
A 150. A theory which states the effectiveness does not depend on the actual occupation of receptor by b. permeation e. all of the above
the drug, but upon obtaining the proper stimulus: c. absorption
a. hypothesis of Paton c. hypothesis of Clark B 163. These are compounds whose pharmacological action results primarily from their chemical
b. hypothesis of Ariens & Stephenson d. lock & key hypothesis reaction:
C 151. Equation followed by passive diffusion:l a. structural nonspecific drugs c. both a & b
a. Noyes-Whitney d. Henderson-Hasselbalch b. structural specific drugs d. none of the above
b. Van Slyke e. none of the above B 164. The following are the common drug metabolism reactions, except:
c. Fick’s Law a. oxidation c. reduction
C 152. To produce its characteristic pharmacologic action(s), a drug must always: b. carboxylation d. conjugation
a. reach high blood levels A 165. A drug which possesses affinity and intrinsic activity:
b. be absorbed from the GIT a. agonist c. antagonist
c. achieve adequate concentration as its site(s) of action b. toxins d. none of the above
d. be excreted unchanged in the urine C 166. The application of pharmacokinetic principles in the safe and effective treatment of individual
C 153. What is the specific organ of the animal used for in vivo test of active transport mechanism? patients, and in the optimization of drug therapy:
a. duodenum c. ileum a. clinical pharmacy c. clinical pharmacokinetics
b. ascending colon d. transverse colon b. clinical pharmacology d. clinical biopharmaceutics
B 154. The ratio of the drug concentration in the lipid phase over the concentration of the drug in the C 167. A term defined as the combination of a drug molecule with a receptor:
aqueous phase is equal to the: a. antagonism c. affinity
a. APC c. partition coefficient b. intrinsic activity d. none of the above
b. TPC d. none of the above B 168. Dose dumping is defined as:
 a. an intended sudden release of large amounts of drugs into systemic circulation b. intra-arterial d. all of the above
b. an unintended sudden release of large amounts of drugs into systemic circulation B 180. In organs and tissues that are well perfused:
c. slow release of the drug into the systemic circulation a. distribution is slower c. distribution rate is negligible
d. slow absorption of the drug into the systemic circulation b. distribution is faster
A 169. Which of the following properties of surfactants tend to increase the rate of dissolution: A 181. If drug A is more lipophilic than drug B, then:
a. surface tension lowering effect a. drug A will be better distributed than drug B
b. production of micelles with the parent drug b. drug B will be better distributed than drug A
c. absence of peptizing action c. distribution of drug B is equal to that of drug A
d. all of the above d. b & c
C 170. Cholekinesis is a process which involves the: A 182. A phenomenon that occurs when drugs filtered through the glomeruli are reabsorbed from the
a. formation of bile in the liver tubuli into the systemic circulation:
b. formation of bile in the gall bladder a. urinary recycling c. reabsorption
c. emptying of bile from the gall bladder b. biliary recycling d. a & b
d. emptying of bile from the liver A 183. Drugs that are absorbed in the GIT are generally:
A 171. It deals with physical and chemical properties of the drug substance, the dosage form and drug a. absorbed into the portal circulation
product upon administration: b. filtered from the blood by the kidney, then reabsorbed into the general circulation
a. biopharmaceutics c. both a & b c. not affected by the liver enzymes
b. pharmacokinetics d. none of the above d. stored in the liver
A 172. A transport of absorption that does not proceed against a concentration gradient: A 184. The volume of distribution of a drug is:
a. facilitated transport c. ion-pair transport a. a mathematical relationship between the total amount of drug in the body and the
b. active transport d. none of the above concentration of drug in the blood
B 173. Antagonist has high affinity but low intrinsic activity; b. a measure of an individual’s blood volume
a. chemical antagonism c. competitive antagonism c. an expression of total body volume
b. partial antagonism d. all of the above d. a measure of the individual’s fluid volume
D 174. The pharmacologic action of structurally nonspecific drugs depend directly on: D 185. In ophthalmic administration, the permeability of the drug onto the cornea depends on:
a. chemical structure c. presence of a functional group a. aqueous solubility of the drug c. rate of permeability
b. physical properties of the drug d. a & c b. Lipid solubility d. a and b
D 175. A theory which advances the idea that maximum pharmacologic effect can be obtained if all the A 186. C max is the peak drug concentration in the:
receptors are occupied: a. plasma c. muscle
a. hypothesis of Paton c. lock & key hypothesis b. urine d. bile
b. hypothesis of Ariens & Stephenson d. hypothesis of Clark D 187. Compartments of body water include:
D 176. The following mechanisms of absorption require the presence of drug in aqueous solution a. vascular fluid c. salivary fluid
except: b. extracellular fluid d. a and b
a. passive diffusion c. facilitated transport D 188. Types of carrier mediated transport
b. convective transport d. pinocytosis a. active mechanism c. passive mechanism
b. facilitated diffusion d. a and b
D 177. Gastric emptying is slowed by all of the following except, D 189. Characteristic of aerosol particles to absorbed is:
a. vigorous exercise c. hot meals a. impact on the alveolar sac c. dissolves in the stomach fluid
b. fatty foods d. hunger b. dissolve sin the lung fields d. a and b
D 178. A relative bioavailability study is necessary when there is: A 190. Which body muscle causes more rapid absorption when given as intramuscular injection?
a. change in the ionic form of the drug a. adeltoid c. intravenous
b. change in the method of manufacture b. gluteal d. a and b
c. change in the means of preservation A 191. In percutaneous administration, absorption of the drug is delayed due to:
d. all of them a. presence of horny layer in the skin c. presence of oil in the skin
D 179. Absorption is not involved when a drug is administered by which of the following routes: b. thickness of the skin d. a and b
a. intravenous c. intraspinal B 192. In general, the form of the dryg that can be absorbed faster is
 a. ionized c. bound form D 202. Which of the ff refers to the intensity of pharmacologic response?
b., unionized d. a and c a. C max c. AUC
D 193. When can absorption of a drug be slower than its elimination? b. T max d. MEC
a. when drugs are rapidly metabolized and excreted D 203. A disadvantage of inert diluents for powders as a s dosage form is:
b. when drugs are poorly soluble in water a. adsorbs onto the active drug substance
c. when drugs are soluble in fats and oils b. high cost
d. a and b c. drugs may not be released immediately
A 195. The peak of the serum concentration vs time curve approximates the : d. a and c
a. point when the maximum pharmacologic effect occurs D 204. A test to evaluate dosage forms:
b. point when absorption and elimination of the drug equalize a. chemical content c. moisture content
c. maximum concentration of the drug in the urine b. content uniformity d. a and b
d. point when the drug begins to be metabolized A 205. The advantage of solid dosage form for administration is:
A 196. The primary proof of the drugs’ availability is the: a. most stable c. faster disintegration
a. production of its pharmacologic effect b. faster dissolution d. faster absorption than other forms
b. production of high levels in the blood B 206. An important characteristic of a dosage form being manufactured is;
c. production of high urine levels a. aesthetic value c. fast selling
d. appearance of metabolite in the blood b. acceptable to the patient d. b and c
C 197. Drug products can also be evaluated by comparing curves of serum concentration vs time (blood D 207. The difference in bioavailability of a drug product of the same therapeutic agent is due to:
level curve). The most important parameters for comparing that can be obtained from such a. difference in formulative ingredients
curves are: b. difference in packaging
a. peak concentration, biologic concn, t1/2, elimination rate constant c. difference in methods of manufacture
b. biologic half time, peak concentration, total AUC d. AOTA
c. peak concn, peak time, total AUC D 208. A factor affecting dissolution rate to correlate to bioavailability is:
d. average serum concn, AUC, absorption rate constant a. particle size of the drug c. patient acceptance
B 198. Two diff oral formulations of the same drug having equal areas under their respective serum b. presence of surfactant d. a and b
concn time curve: C 209. A route of admin giving a fast action:
a. deliver the same total amount of drug to the body and are therefore bioequivalent a. rectal c. IV
b. deliver the same total amount of drug to the body but are not necessarily b. oral d. IM
bioequivalent B 210. Suspensions provide better absorption of drugs than:
c. are bioequivalent by definition a. solutions c. IV injections
d. are bioequivalent if they meet USP standards b. tablets d. IM preparations
D 199. The area under the serum concentration time curve represents: C 211. The ionization constant of a drug is important in bioavailability since it determines the ff,
a. biologic half life of the drug EXCEPT:
b. amt of drug that is cleared by the kidney a. its aqueous solubility c. pH of the medium
c. amt of drug in the orig form b. dissolution rate d. its rate of transport across lipoidal layer
d. amt of drug absorbed A 212. One of the current major problems in drug therapy is:
B 200. The intensity of the pharmacologic action of the drug is most dependent upon the: a. patients non compliance with prescribed regimen
a. concentration of the drug at the receptor area b. wrong environment
b. onset time of the drug at the receptor area c. lack of info
c. minimum toxic drug concentration (MTC) in the plasma d. high incidence of diseases
B 201. Drug concentration in systemic circulation rises to a peak followed by a steep fall: D 213. The purpose of enteric coating of tablets may be:
a. open one compartment IV a. protect the gastric mucosa from irritant drug
b. open one compartment EV b. protect the drug from action of gastric fluid
c. open two compartment IV c. protect the patient from sensitization
d. open two compartment EV d. a and b
B 214. The function of the bile and bile salts is/are:
 a. solubilize the drug molecules after a meal c. dissolves inorganic salts a. blood plasma c. gastric fluid
b. solubilize fatty/oily substances d. a and b b. urine d. a and b
B 227. As to the nature of the drug for IV injection, the best form of dosage form is:
C 215. In coated tablets, the portion that may interfere with the disintegration and dissolution is: a. suspension form c. emulsion form
a. drug substance c. coating b. solution form d. a and c
b. inactive substance d. a and b D 229. As to factors determining the activity of drugs, excretion includes:
D 216. The purpose of biotransformation is a. glomerular filtration c. perspiration
a. deactivate the drug c. promote elimination of the inactivated b. protein binding d. a and c
drug A 230. From the graph below, which of the ff statements is correct:
b. preserve the drug from destruction d. a and c
B 217. Contaminants in formulation may be the ff, EXCEPT:
a. dust c. microorganisms
b. drug substance d. heavy metals from the machine
D 218. A condition that may increase the rate of gastric emptying:
a. depression c. lying on the left side Drug A
b. trauma d. a and b
C 219. Factors that may influence the bioavailabilities of drugs from the GIT, EXCEPT:
a. age of the patient c. healthy individual Drug B
b. stress being felt d. if the patient is bed ridden
D 220. Bioavailability of the drug through dissolution rate tests can be predicted if:
a. dissolved drug remains free in GIT Drug C
b. dissolved drugs remain intact in GIT
c. the drug decomposes in GIT
d. a and b
D 221. The form of the drug excreted after administration is:
a. free drug c. complex
b. metabolite d. a and b
D 222. The controlled release dosage form is sometimes necessary for action of some drugs for the a. Drug A is more potent than Drug B
purpose of: b. Drug A is less effective than Drug C
a. prolonging absorption of the drug itself c. Drug C is more potent than Drug A
b. delay the absorption of the drug d. Drug B is more potent than C
c. for immediate action
d. a and b
D 223. The term systemic circulation refers primarily to For nos. 231-235, choose from the following:
a. veins c. hepatic portal vein a. Bioequivalent Drug Products
b. arteries d. a and b b. Pharmaceutic Equivalents
B 224. Comparative bioavailability involves the determination of the relative bioavailability of an active c. Pharmaceutic Alternatives
drug in: d. Therapeutic Equivalents
a. one formulation c. one inactive drug present C 231. Different active ingredients, same use.
b. two formulations d. two excipients present A 232. Pharmaceutic Equivalents having similar rate and extent of absorption
B 225. The problem in content uniformity of a drug in a dosage form is: B 233. Chemical Equivalents
a. insufficient disintegration D 234. Same active drug, same effect and have equal potential for adverse effects
b. insufficient mixing of small amount of drug in large batches B 235. Same therapeutic moiety but diff salts, esters or complexes
c. insufficient amount of the drug in the formulation D 236. The ff are high risk potential drugs
d. a and c a. warfarin c. aminophylline and warfarin
D 226. In all quantitative works for bioavailability, the concentration of the drug is measured in the: b. digoxin and prednisolone d. all of the above
C 237. Process of transferring chemical substances from the GI tract through its wall into the blood and c. 3.667 days
lymphatic stream C 249. A receptor theory that states that the effectiveness of the drug lasts long provided that the
a. diffusion c. absorption receptor is occupied by that particular drug molecule
b. adsorption d. convective transport a. Paton c. Ariens and Stephenson
B 238. The equilibrium between free and bound drug acts as: b. Lock and Key d. Clark
a. an equilibrium system c. a transport system D 250. Which of the ff relationships is not correct?
b. a buffer system d. a way for releasing the bound drug a. increase disintegrant: increased rate of bioavailability
A 239. Arterial blood is: b. increase retention time in GIT: increase amount of drug absorbed
a. non-oxygenated blood c. both c. retard drug dissolution: reduced drug absorption
b. oxygenated blood d. NOTA d. increased solubility: decreased rate of absorption
D 240. Instability which could lead to rejection of a drug product B 251. The resulting solid when a drug and polymer like PVP or PEG are dissolved in a solvent with the
a. extensive chemical degradation of the active drug drug, then the solvent is evaporated
b. problem of bioavailability a. hydrates c. complex
c. a, b, and c b. co-precipitates d. crystals
d. a and c only
B 241. The rate of the metabolic processes the drug undergoes depends on: A 252. An interaction that occurs through receptor mediated events, as in Atropine blocking the effects
a. absorption in gastric juice c. presence of another drug of Ach at muscarinic receptor sites
b. drug concentration at a given time d. food interaction a. Pharmacologic antagonism d. Physiologic
B 242. The ratio of the concentration at equilibrium between a lipid phase (usually n-octanol) and on b. Dispositional e. Chemical
aqueous phase (usually buffer pH 7.4) c. Functional
a. bioavailability c. bioequivalence D 253. It is the phenomenon when organic substituted ammonium salts or salts of various inorganic
b. apparent partition coefficient d. half life acids are added to mixtures of organic non electrolytes causing the dissolution of the
B 243. In the oral administration of drug for aged people, the possible consequence/s when the gastric undissolved solutes
emptying time is increased is/ are: a. chelation c. solvation
a. reduced mixing of intestinal content d. a and c b. clathrate formation d. salting in
b. delayed transfer to small intestine e. a and b
c. change in epithelial transfer D 254. Studies of bioavailability are generally not required for the ff
B 244. Anesthetics are drugs which are stored in which body tissues? a. when the drug is intended solely for IV use
a. albumin d. muscle b. when the drug is destined for local therapeutic use
b adipose e. neurons c. when the drug is an oral product which is not required to be absorbed
c. globulin d. all of the above
C 245. The least significant organ for excretion is the _______. e. b & c only
a. kidneys c. mammary gland B 255. The ratio of the amount of the drug present in the body over the plasma concentration
b. rectum d. saliva a. intrinsic clearance c. renal clearance
B 246. Measured from the product’s data of manufacturer until its chemical or biological activity is not b. volume of distribution d. metabolic clearance
less than usually accepted USP 90% of the labeled potency, provided physical, B 256. The ions of added electrolyte require water for hydration reducing amount of water available for
microbiological, therapeutic and toxicological characteristics have not deleteriously changed the solution of the nonelectrolyte is the phenomenon of:
within this period. a. salting in c. clathrate formation
a. stability c. bioavailability b. salting out d. chelation
b. acceptable stability d. bioequivalence B 257. Which of the ff. is considered as structurally specific drug?
A 247. The rate of the metabolic processes the drug undergoes depends on a. halothane c. nitrous oxide
a. drug concentration at a given time c. absorption in gastric juice b. sulfonamides d. phenol
b. presence of another drug d. food interaction C 258. As soon as drug has passed, the epithelium of the GI mucosa, it can reach the systemic
A 248. The half life of a pharmaceutical product, with a K value at 30ºC of 3.667213374 x 10 -5 hours is circulation by:
a. 18897.18329 hours d. 18997.18439 hrs. a. entering thru villi c. both
b. 2863.209454 hrs e. None of the choices b. entering thru lacteals d. none
A 259. Drug products that contain the identical therapeutic moiety or its precursor but not necessarily in B 270. Drugs used in very critical therapeutic situations and which have documented evidenced of
the same amount or dosage forms or as the same salt or ester; inequivalency:
a. pharmaceutical alternative c. bioequivalent drug products a. moderate risk potential c. low risk potential
b. pharmaceutical equivalents d. none of the above b. high risk potential d. bioequivalence
C 260. If the particle size decreases, B 271. In what part of the GIT, no absorption of food takes place but large amounts of water are
a. dissolution rate increases c. both absorbed?
b surface area increases d. none a. rectum c. small intestines
C 261. Drug emptied via bile into the small intestine can be reabsorbed from the intestinal lumen into b. large intestines d. stomach
the systemic circulation is the phenomenon of: C 272. A second substance tends to accumulate to the surface of a first substance due to intermolecular
a. enterohepatic circulation c. both forces of attraction is a phenomenon of:
b. biliary recycling d. none of the choices a. chemisorption c. adsorption
A 262. Inactive enzymes: b. absorption d. all of the above
a. zymogens c. apoenzymes C 273. The ff. are factors affecting GIT absorption, except:
b. haloenzymes d. all a. pKa value of the drug c. none of the choices
D 263. Which of the ff. pairs is not correct? b. pH of drug product d. a & B
a. Na CMC- suspending agent B 274. The protein binding has the ff. characteristics, except:
b. Xanthan Gum- thixotropic suspending agent a. selective c. reversible
c. Alcohol- preservative b. pharmacologically active d. specific
d. Sesame oil- vehicle for suspension D 275. These are formed if a substance is capable of forming channels, or cages which can take up
D 264. The drug metabolism may take place in: another substance into the interspace of the structure:
a. liver c. lungs & kidneys a. metal complexation d. clathrate
b. GI content d. all of the above b. coordination e. chelate
A 265. Biliary recycling is influenced by: c. ligand field
a. rate of excretion of the drug into the bile D 276. The drug molecule must fit the receptor like a key to a lock:
b. rate of absorption of the drug a. Occupation theory c. both
c. any of the choices b. Rate theory d. none
d. none B 277. If the 2 liquid phases are completely immiscible is an assumption for:>
C 266. In drug metabolism, the ff. is true: a. true system c. real system
a. drug metabolism is often termed detoxification or detoxication b. ideal system d. all of the above
b. it refers solely to the chemical biotransformation of the drug by the biological D 278. If the drug appears in the feces after oral administration:
environment a. the drug was not completely absorbed in the GIT
c. both b. the drug was not completely dissolved in the GI fluids
d. none c. the drug formed complex with other materials in the GIT
C 267. Characterizes the clearing of the hypothetical plasma volume of a drug per unit time d. metabolites are excreted therefore, it will not produce toxic effects on the individual
a. hepatic clearance d. intrinsic clearance D 279. Used in calculating dose size for children based on age
b. renal clearance e. genital clearance a. Young’s Rule d. a & b
c. total clearance b. Cowling’s Rule e. b & c
C 268. The term that is used to tell the maximum capacity of the kidneys for active secretion: c. Clark’s Rule
a. minimum transport c. transport maximum D 280. The pharmacokinetic characteristics of a drug are primarily determined by considering the
b. minimal transport d. maximal transport changes in the blood or plasma concentrations as a function of time. The analysis of
D 269. Drug dosing problems in obese patients are often due to: experimental data is done by:
a. large deviation of body composition from that of a normal adult a. feathering c. method of residuals
b, lipid solubility b. exponential stripping d. all of the above
c. distribution of drug between fat tissue and body water D 281. The partition coefficient can be considered as:
d. all of the above a. an index of the relative affinity of a drug for 2 immiscible solvents
b. an index of comparative solubilities in solvents
 c. a parameter of the relative rate of partitioning from one phase into another b. substantial changes in the appearance of the dosage forms
d. all of the above c. extensive chemical degradation of the active drug
e. a & b only d. all of the above
B 282. Venous blood is: A 292. All phenomenon characteristics are associated with the process of facilitated diffusion of drugs
a. non-oxygenated blood c. all of the choices except:
b. oxygenated blood d. none a. the drug crosses the membrane against a concentration
E 283. Factor(s) influencing renal clearance of a drug is/are: b. the process is selective for certain ionic or structural configurations of the drug
a. age d. a & b c. if 2 compounds are transported by the same mechanism
b. sex e. a, b & c d. the transport mechanism becomes saturated at high drug concentration
c. disease B 293. “A group of iron-containing isoenzymes that activate molecular oxygen to a form capable of
A 284. Double blind study would mean that interacting with organic substrates”. The component of microsomal mixed-function oxidase
a. both subject & proctor do not know the controlled population system which this description is most closely associated is:
b. the sample is taken from the population by the proctor a. cyclooxygenase c. ATP
c. both b. cytochrome d. NADPH
d. none C 294. Alpha-1-glycoprotein binds with:
B 285. Chemical variation: a. acidic, highly lipophilic drugs c. basic, highly lipophilic drugs
a. change the structure of the pharmaceutic ingredient to increase the pharmacologic b. acidic, highly lipophobic drugs d. basic, highly lipophobic drugs
response E 295. To be able for the Dost method to be precise, the ff. pharmacokinetic parameter(s) must be
b. change the structures of the active ingredient to increase pharmacologic activity known:
c. both a. concentration after single dose d. a & b
d. none b time to reach the plateau e. all of the above
E 286. Factors affecting membrane transport except: c. Ka & Ke
a. pKa d. presence or absence of a charge E 296. Which of the ff. can be considered as less perfused organ:
b. diffusivity e. surfactants a. skin d. b & c
c. partition coefficient b. fat tissue e. a & b
C 287. Formation of pairs (for highly ionized compounds) with endogenous substrate present at the GIT c. kidney
to form neutral complexes that are absorbed by passive diffusion: E 297. The bioavailability or bioequivalence may depend on the ff., except:
a. pinocytosis c. ion-pair a. manufacturing method employed d. complex
b. convective transport d. facilitated transport b. change in manufacturing practice e. blood flow
c. environment
C 298. Phase I drug study possesses a problem which should be considered from the ff., except:
D 288. Which of the ff. is correct? a. safety c. pharmacodynamics
a. reduced binding to protein by the drug molecule will decrease the therapeutic effect b. analytic sensitivity d. pharmacokinetics
of the E 299. Chief cells is to pepsin, while parietal cells is to:
drug a. mucous d. zymogen
b. saturation of binding produces linear pharmacokinetics b. serous secretion e. HCl
c. bound drugs can diffuse into the tissues c. cholecystokinin
d. only the unbound drug may be available for metabolism A 300. As the polarity of drug increases due to the presence of hydrophilic functional groups, water
B 289. Metabolites can have the ff. properties, except: solubility:
a. produce therapeutic activity c. can be reactivated a. increases c. no change
b. can not produce toxicity d. can be in its inactive form b. decreases d. polarity is not related to solubility
A 290. The lesser the gastric emptying time, the faster the gastric emptying rate:
a. true c. erroneous
b. false d. not valid
D 291. The instability which could lead to the rejection of a drug product
a. problem of bioavailability