LAW

Test Code - ALP2101

Common Law Admission Test (CLAT)

MOCK TEST 01

Name : .………………………………. Time : 2 hours

Abhyaas ID : ……………………....….. Total Marks : 150

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES

1. Before using the test booklet and OMR answer sheet, check them for any defect like misprint, fudging
of print, missing pages/questions/circles etc. and ask for a replacement.
2. No second test booklet or OMR answer sheet shall be provided except in a situation mentioned under
instruction 1 above.
3. Enter your Name and ID number in the space provided on OMR answer sheet with Black Ball Point
Pen only and shade the relevant circles with Black Ball Point Pen only.
4. There are 150 multiple-choice type questions. Each question carries one mark. Each question has four
choices of answer. Select the most appropriate answer and shade the corresponding circle in the
OMR sheet with Black Ball Point Pen only. If more than one circle is shaded, the answer shall be
deemed as wrong. There is 0.25 negative marking for wrong answers. Find below the right and
wrong ways of filling ovals.

5. Specific instructions are given at the beginning of each question or a set of questions. Read them
carefully before answering.
6. Possession of any kind of electronic gadget in the examination hall is strictly prohibited. Possession
and/or use of any such gadget shall disqualify the candidate.
7. In case of any malpractice or attempt to resort to any malpractice, which includes talking to neighbours,
copying or using unfair means etc., the invigilator shall seize the material, if any, and expel the candidate.
8. Total number of pages in the test booklet is 31 including blank pages for rough work.

All the best

Law Prep Team
Abhyaas Edu Corp
Abhyaas/Law Prep/Mock-01 1
 LAW
Test Code - ALP2101

MARKS SHEET

Section Max. Marks

I- English Language 32

II - Current Affairs including GK 40

III - Legal Reasoning 35

IV - Logical Reasoning 29

V - Quantitative Techniques 14

Total 150

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Test Code - ALP2101
Section I
English Language
Passage for Questions 1 to 5:
With containment strategies in place even before the
first case of novel coronavirus was detected on
January 30, Kerala appears to have finally hammered
the curve flat. On May 1, for the first time, the State
reported zero new cases, and again on two
consecutive days — May 3 and May 4. Zero fresh
cases on three days in May appear to be more than a
blip. If in April there were early signs of Kerala gaining
an upper hand over the virus, its control became clear
from the fourth week of April. Since April 22, except
on four days, the number of new cases reported has
remained either the same or fewer than the number
of recoveries. The small number of cases reported
so far — 499 — demonstrates how excellent its
containment efforts have been. What is more
remarkable is that 462 of those infected have fully
recovered, including an elderly couple, aged 93 and
88 years, and there have been just three deaths — a
case fatality rate of 0.6% against the national average
of 3.3%. The containment success can be traced
back to how Kerala did not wait for directions from
the Centre but instead led from the front. When the
number of cases increased to 12 on March 10, a day
before WHO declared the coronavirus a pandemic,
Kerala shut down all educational institutions and
entertainment centres, banned large gatherings and
appealed to people to avoid visiting religious places.
If it realised the merits of containing virus transmission
by quickly tracing all the contacts during the 2018
Nipah outbreak, it repeated that to perfection this
time. Little wonder that on May 2, the ICMR lauded
the State for the “unparalleled” containment and
testing strategies and referred to it as the “Kerala
model”. But under no circumstances can the State
lower its guard as the outbreak can resurge by
exploiting the weakest link, as was seen in the sharp
spike in Singapore, in dormitories.
Kerala has very good health-care infrastructure in
place, down to the primary health-care centres. But
what sets it apart from the other States is the manner
in which it followed textbook epidemiology protocols
to the tee, and beyond, and well before the ICMR
advocated them, as well as the entire health-care
infrastructure working in tandem despite being
decentralised. Political leadership, and the close and
complete involvement of the government at all levels
with the bureaucracy and local community have been
a huge advantage. The very different health-seeking
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behaviour and high literacy too have played a pivotal
role in the war against the virus. While active
involvement of all the stakeholders who complement
each other especially during the crisis has worked in
Kerala’s favour.
[Extracted, with edits and revisions, from article
written and published in The Hindu Editorial in May
2020]
1. What is the above passage about?
A. health-care infrastructure
B. On containment of COVID-19 cases in
Kerala
C. health care centres
D. Government
2. What did Kerala learn during the 2018 Nipah
outbreak?
A. merits of containing virus transmission by
quickly tracing all the contacts.
B. shutting down all educational institutions and
entertainment centres.
C. banning large gatherings.
D. avoid visiting religious places.
3. Why does the author think that the state cannot
lower its guard?
A. Central government will disagree.
B. WHO declared the coronavirus a pandemic.
C. Outbreak can resurge by exploiting the
weakest link.
D. Involvement of Stake holders.
4. What sets Kerala apart from the other States?
A. Implementation of epidemiology protocols
B. Educational Institutions
C. Health-care infrastructure
D. Political Leadership
5. The term “Kerala Model” as described in the
passage refers to which of the following?
A. Health-care centers
B. High literacy
C. Involvement of Government
D. Containment and testing Strategies
Passage for Questions 6 to 11:
By July 1947, the Cold War was in full swing. The
United States and the Soviet Union, once allies
during World War II, now faced off as ideological
enemies. In the preceding months, the administration
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Test Code - ALP2101
of President Truman had secured military and
economic aid to Greece and Turkey to assist in their
struggles against communist insurgents. The Marshall
Plan took shape to help rebuild war-torn Western
Europe and strengthen it against possible communist
aggression. As the magnitude of the Cold War
increased, however, so too did the need for a more
efficient and manageable foreign policymaking
bureaucracy in the US. The National Security Act
was the solution.
The National Security Act(NSA) had three main
parts. First, it streamlined and unified the nation’s
military establishment by bringing together the Navy
and War Departments under a new Department of
Defense. This department would facilitate control and
utilization of the nation’s growing military. Second,
the act established the National Security Council
(NSC). Based in the White House, the NSC was
supposed to serve as a coordinating agency, sifting
through the increasing flow of diplomatic and
intelligence information to provide the President with
brief but detailed reports. Finally, the act set up the
Central Intelligence Agency (CIA) that replaced the
Central Intelligence Group, which had been
established in 1946 to coordinate the intelligence-
gathering activities of the various military branches
and the Department of State. The CIA, however, was
to be a separate agency, designed not only to gather
intelligence but also to carry out covert operations in
foreign nations. President Harry S. Truman signed
the NSA, which became one of the most important
pieces of Cold War legislation. The act established
much of the bureaucratic framework for foreign
policymaking for the next 40-plus years of the Cold
War. The NSA formally took effect in September
1947. Since that time, the Department of Defense,
NSC, and CIA have grown steadily in terms of size,
budgets, and power. The Department of Defense,
housed in the Pentagon, controls a budget that many
Third World nations would envy. The NSC rapidly
became not simply an information organizing agency,
but one that was active in the formation of foreign
policy. The CIA also grew in power over the course
of the Cold War, becoming involved in numerous
covert operations. Most notable of these was the failed
Bay of Pigs operation of 1961, in which Cuban
refugees, trained and armed by the CIA, were
unleashed against the communist regime of Fidel
Castro. The mission was a disaster, with most of the
attackers either killed or captured in a short time.
Though it had both successes and failures, the NSA
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indicated just how seriously the U.S. government took
the Cold War threat.
6. Which of the following points about National
Security Act of 1947 is true?
A. The National Security Act is an outcome of
World War II.
B. The act is a brain child of President Truman.
C. The bill was formed to aid the nation’s
bureaucratic framework in different
departments.
D. A department is established to run secret
operations in foreign country
7. According to the passage, the situations during
cold war were characterized by
A. A transformation of power in Eurasia.
B. Shrinking economy because of the war
expenses involved.
C. Incompetent policy making leading to
political unrest.
D. The US providing military and financial
assistance to control spread of communism.
8. The author would most likely say which of the
following about National Security Act, 1947?
A. The Act undermined United States military
capability by bringing them under one roof.
B. Military budget has drastically increased
becoming a burden to economy.
C. The NSA received both accolades and
brickbats, however, it goes to show how
significant the Cold War threat was perceived
by America.
D. Although the act was not entirely
successful, it had helped America to spread
the importance of Democratic form of
government.
9. According to the passage, the act resulted in
unification of
A. Air force and Army
B. Army and Navy
C. Intelligence agency and Army
D. Secret service agency, Army and Navy
10. What is the meaning of the expression “faced
off” as used in the context of the passage?
A. interacted with each other
B. opposed each other
C. met each other
D. introduced each other
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Test Code - ALP2101
11. Which set of words below contains the correct
set of synonyms for all of the following words:
facilitate, covert, numerous, unleash
A. expedite, overt, plentiful, free
B. ease, secret, abundant, release
C. promote, clandestine, limited, loosen
D. prevent, hidden, several, tighten
Passage for Questions 12 to 16:
Andromeda, the massive sister spiral galaxy to the
Milky Way, is orbited by a swarm of around 20 small
galaxies. They have been named Andromeda I, II…
Researchers have analysed measurements of the stars
in the dwarf galaxy Andromeda II and made a
surprising discovery. Stars in a dwarf galaxy often
move around at random, but this is not exactly the
case for Andromeda II. We could see that a stream
of stars is moving around differently than the rest in a
very coherent manner. These stars are situated in an
almost complete ring and are rotating around the
centre of the galaxy. The dwarf galaxy Andromeda
II is very small – less than one percent of the Milky
Way.
The rotating stream of stars in the galaxy is entirely
made up of old stars and from their properties,
researchers can draw conclusions about this dramatic
cosmic event. “What we are seeing is the remains of
a collision between two dwarf galaxies, which had
a dramatic effect on the dynamics of the remnant,”
says Nicola C. Amorisco. He explains that mergers
between such small galaxies are expected during
the galaxy formation process, but are rare at present
times. **Andromeda II is least massive known
example of merging of galaxies so far and illustrates
scale-free character of formation of galaxies down
to lowest galactic mass scales.** This discovery
suggests that conventional ideas regarding the
formation of galaxies are missing something
fundamental. They are spread across a flat plane
more than one million light years wide and only 30,000
light years thick, moving in synchronicity with one
another. The dwarfs are spread across a distance so
vast that they have yet to complete a single orbit.
The behavior of Andromeda’s dwarfs is so extreme
from the usual chaotic orbits of galaxies around each
other that the researchers believe they have revealed
a huge hole in science’s understanding of galaxy
formation. Computer models show that the dwarf
galaxies should orbit independently, almost randomly.
But the structure of the synchronous galaxies
orbiting Andromeda is like a mature solar system.
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An international team of astronomers described the
discovery that almost half of the 30 dwarf galaxies
orbiting Andromeda do so in an enormous plane more
than a million light years in diameter, but only 30,000
light years thick. The findings defied scientists’
expectation—based on two decades of computer
modeling—that satellite galaxies would orbit in
independent, seemingly random patterns. Instead,
many of these dwarf galaxies seem to share a
common orbit, an observation that currently has no
explanation. Understanding how and why the dwarf
galaxies form the ring around Andromeda is expected
to offer new information on the formation of all
galaxies.
Adapted from works of Alan McConnachie,
Nicola C. Amorisco
12. The primary purpose of the passage is to
A. illustrate a hypothesis about the origin of
galaxies
B. report new discovery that challenges the
general conventions about galaxy formation
C. summarize the state of and prospects for
research in intergalactic astronomy
D. reconcile opposing views on the formation
of galaxies
13. The author uses the phrase “blew a hole in
science” to convey which of the following?
A. Andromeda has many dwarf galaxies.
B. The space between the stars of the galaxy is
vast.
C. Dwarf galaxies were not observed earlier.
D. The movement of the stars in the galaxy is
contradicting the general assumption about
it.
14. Which of the following about the dwarf galaxies
sharing a common orbit is true?
A. An observation is made that needs to be
studied further.
B. It disproves the theoretical scientific beliefs
behind the origins of Milky way.
C. It proves the astronomical science is a puzzle.
D. It corroborates previous observations about
galaxies.
15. Which of the following phrases best represents
the status of the mergers between galaxies ?
A. documented earlier B. undetectable
C. rare D. unpredictable
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Test Code - ALP2101
16. In how many instances should the definite ar-
ticle (‘the’) be used in the Sentence enclosed
within ** to make it grammatically correct with-
out altering it in any other way?
A. 1 B. 2
C. 3 D. 4
Passage for Questions 17 to 22:
The Vienna Convention that governs conduct of
diplomats and the immunities they enjoy when serving
in foreign countries does not offer blanket protection
for violation of local laws.
What is more, officials engaged in consular duties
(that is those duties relating to grant of visas, etc)
enjoy a lower degree of immunity than embassy staff.
In other words, merely having a diplomatic passport
is not enough grounds to seek diplomatic immunity.
The Vienna Convention on Diplomatic Relations of
1961, and Vienna Convention on Consular Relations
of 1963 are the two rules that govern diplomatic
immunity. These were framed after World War II to
formalize the customary rules and make their
application uniform. The US State Department guide
to diplomatic immunity, issued to US law enforcement
staff, says even at its highest level, diplomatic
immunity does not exempt diplomatic officers from
the obligation of conforming with national and local
laws and regulations. Diplomatic immunity is not
intended to serve as a license for persons to flout the
law and purposely avoid liability for their actions. The
purpose of these privileges and immunities is not to
benefit individuals but to ensure the efficient and
effective performance of their official missions on
behalf of their governments.
Diplomatic agents enjoy the highest degree of
privileges and immunities. They enjoy complete
personal inviolability, which means that they may not
be handcuffed, arrested, or detained; and neither their
property nor residences may be entered or searched.
Diplomatic agents also enjoy complete immunity from
the criminal jurisdiction of the host country’s courts
and thus cannot be prosecuted no matter how serious
the offense unless their immunity is waived by the
sending state. However, the Vienna Conventions rules
make a distinction in the case of consular staff. They
have only official acts or functional immunity in
respect of both criminal and civil matters and their
personal inviolability is quite limited. Consular officers
may be arrested or detained pending trial only if the
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offense is a felony and that the arrest is made
pursuant to a decision by a competent judicial
authority. [1]They can be prosecuted # misdemeanors
# remain # liberty pending trial or other disposition #
charges. Property of consular officers # not
inviolable.[1] Official acts immunity pertains in
numerous different circumstances. No law
enforcement officer, State Department officer,
diplomatic mission, or consulate is authorized to
determine whether a given set of circumstances
constitutes an official act. Thus, a person enjoying
official acts immunity from criminal jurisdiction may
be charged with a crime and may, in this connection,
always be required to appear in court. At this point,
however, such person may assert as an affirmative
defense that the actions complained of arose in
connection with the performance of official acts. If,
upon examination of the circumstances complained
of, the court agrees, then the case must be dismissed.
17. According to the passage, which of the following
is true with respect to diplomatic immunity?
A. Diplomatic immunity has been misused by
officers earlier and used as a means to
disregard the laws.
B. Officers other than diplomatic agents and
consular staff enjoy no diplomatic immunity.
C. Diplomatic immunity does not excuse an
officer from abiding by the local laws.
D. All the above.
18. What can you infer is the main objective of
diplomatic immunity?
A. To formalize rules and make their
application uniform.
B. To make certain that official duties by
diplomats are performed competently.
C. To ensure that all diplomatic officers follow
the rules of a particular state they are
deployed in.
D. All the above.
19. In which of these respects does the immunity
enjoyed by diplomatic agent differ from that
enjoyed by a consular officer?
A. Personal inviolability
B. Prosecution
C. Arrest and detainment
D. All the above.
20. Under what circumstances can a diplomatic
agent be prosecuted?
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Test Code - ALP2101
A. When his immunity is intentionally
relinquished by the country that sent them.
B. When his crime is a very serious one, like
felony.
C. When he has flouted the local laws and
regulations the country he is working in.
D. All the above.
21. Which set of words below contains the correct
set of antonyms for all of the following words:
exempt, flout, waive, detain.
A. immune, respect, pursue, liberate
B. liable, regard, demand, release
C. accountable, defy, forsake, dismiss
D. responsible, regard, relinquish, liberate
22. Which of the following contains the correct
sequence of missing words in the sentences
enclosed within [1]? (Missing words indicated
by ‘#’.)
A. of, but, at, of, are
B. for, since, at, for, are
C. of, hence, at, of, is
D. for, but, at, of, is
Passage for Questions 23 to 27:
Historians are often asked: what is the use or
relevance of studying History? Why on earth does it
matter what happened long ago? The answer is that
History is inescapable. It studies the past and the
legacies of the past in the present. Far from being a
‘dead’ subject, it connects things through time and
encourages its students to take a long view of such
connections.
All people and peoples are living histories. To take a
few obvious examples: communities speak languages
that are inherited from the past. They live in societies
with complex cultures, traditions and religions that
have not been created on the spur of the moment.
People use technologies that they have not themselves
invented. And each individual is born with a personal
variant of an inherited genetic template, known as
the genome, which has evolved during the entire
life-span of the human species. So, understanding the
linkages between past and present is absolutely basic
for a good understanding of the condition of being
human. That, in a nutshell, is why History matters. It
is not just ‘useful’, it is essential.
The study of the past is essential for ‘rooting’ people
in time. And why should that matter? The answer is
that people who feel themselves to be rootless live
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rootless lives, often causing a lot of damage to
themselves and others in the process. Indeed, at the
most extreme end of the out-of-history spectrum,
those individuals with the distressing experience of
complete memory loss cannot manage on their own
at all. In fact, all people have a full historical context.
But some, generally for reasons that are no fault of
their own, grow up with a weak or troubled sense of
their own placing, whether within their families or
within the wider world. They lack a sense of roots.
For others, by contrast, the inherited legacy may even
be too powerful and outright oppressive.
In all cases, understanding History is integral to a
good understanding of the condition of being human.
That allows people to build, and, as may well be
necessary, also to change, upon a secure foundation.
Neither of these options can be undertaken well
without understanding the context and starting points.
All living people live in the here-and-now but it took
a long unfolding history to get everything to now. And
that history is located in time-space, which holds this
cosmos together, and which frames both the past and
the present. (Picked from an article by Penelope J.
Corfield, professor of history at Royal Holloway,
University of London)
23. Suggest a suitable title to the passage?
A. Why History matters?
B. Re-thinking History
C. The pursuit of History
D. History in Practice
24. Which of these cannot be an example of the
importance of history as explained by the author
in the second paragraph?
A. A newly formed political party uses the
ideologies of eminent people of the past.
B. A sportsperson hires the coach of his more
famous and successful contemporary.
C. ‘Kurshak’, a new dance form has improvised
on the folk dance of aboriginals.
D. None of the above.
25. Which of these would best describe the
organization of the passage?
A. A question is asked and new discoveries are
stated to answer it.
B. A question is asked and different reasons are
given to answer it.
C. An assertion is made and a specific
supporting example is given.
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Test Code - ALP2101
D. A question is asked and two opposing points
of view are presented and evaluated.
26. Which of the following is not true as per the
ideas expressed in the passage?
A. Study of History gets a person closer to his
origins when compared to a person who
doesn’t.
B. The knowledge of History provides a strong
base to build upon for the future.
C. Study of History turns us into more
empathetic human beings.
D. The study of History is not only useful, but
also necessary.
27. Which of these would best describe the tone of
the passage?
A. Cautious B. Enthusiastic
C. Questioning D. Objective
Passage for Questions 28 to 32:
Curiosity can refer to an ‘insatiable desire for
knowing the actions and circumstances of neighbors’,
as David Hume put it. However, there is also a
different kind of curiosity that refers to the hunger
for knowledge; a tendency to engage in and to enjoy
thinking; and a desire to solve and to be absorbed in
intellectual problems. This so-called intellectual
curiosity is related to both intelligence and effort. For
one, more able individuals find it easier to seek novel
information and engage in cognitively challenging
matters. For the other, pursuing one’s intellectual
curiosity is also not without effort because the
adaptation to new information and mastery of
unfamiliar areas of knowledge requires a certain
degree of zeal and hard work.
A recently re-evaluated data from over 200 previous
studies on ability, personality and academic
performance, summarizing data from more than
50,000 students revealed that intellectual curiosity
was a driving force in academic achievement. The
study showed that intellectual curiosity affected
academic performance to the same extent as the
personality trait Conscientiousness , which is a
well-established predictor of scholastic success.
Moreover, the impact of the two personality trait
Intellectual curiosity and Conscientiousness - on
academic performance rivaled that of intelligence.
That is personality traits are core determinants of
intellectual development and performance.
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From this, we can learn three things: Firstly, curiosity
must be stimulated and encouraged throughout
education. Children are naturally curious but few
people have insatiable curiosity that cannot be dulled
and blunted by dogmatism. Educational settings that
don’t give space to free exploration and ‘why’
questions, but solely dictate facts, easily suffocate a
child’s spirit of wonder. Because curiosity is not only
a trait but also a state, it is particularly important for
schools and teachers to exploit their plentiful
opportunities to induce and inspire curiosity in pupils
and students. For one, curious students will perform
better and for the other, students, who are intellectually
stimulated, will be more satisfied with their
educational experience.
Secondly, curiosity might be considered not only in
school and university admissions but also in
professional recruitment. Curiosity is a marker of
potential, and for more - for the development of
potential. While an intelligent person will surely
perform at a high level, the curious one will also strive
to augment that level. Because intellectual curiosity
incorporates intelligence, zeal, and the hunger for
knowledge, it affects not only academic and
professional performance, but also has an impact on
individual development across the lifespan.
And finally, curiosity doesn’t kill the cat. The hunger
for knowledge is what differentiates good students
form excellent ones; diligent performers from
innovative developers; and it drives the development
of our mind, even though it comes at a cost
sometimes.(Adapted from psychology magazine)
28. The passage suggests that the author would be
most likely to agree with which of the following
statements about intellectual curiosity?
A. Intellectual curiosity is most concerned with
the exploration of the internal lives of
ordinary human beings.
B. Intellectual curiosity may lead to an interest
in the occult and the strange.
C. Curiosity should not be nullified by the
doctrinaire education system.
D. Intellectual curiosity is the term most often
used by researchers in describing the
psychology of children.
29. Which of the following could be understood from
the study conducted?
A. The effect of the intellectual curiosity on
academics has been positively reported.
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B. Shows little variation in the abilities of the
students on whom it was conducted.
C. Corresponds with prior notion that curiosity
has detrimental influence on the scores of
students, already made by the doctrinaires
of the field.
D. Provides data that can be used by the
predecessors to set better educational
standards and extensive curriculum.
30. What is the meaning of the word “insatiable”
used in the passage?
A. easily satisfied
B. impossible to satisfy
C. needs little effort to satisfy
D. hungry for food
31. According to the passage, in what facet of a
person’s life is curiosity essential?
A. During education
B. During education and profession
C. Personal life
D. All facets of one’s life
32. What does the author mean by stating that
hunger for knowledge differentiates diligent
workers from innovative developers?
A. Diligent workers put in more efforts that
result in inventions.
B. Innovation cannot happen without diligent
work.
C. Diligent workers focus only on hard work,
but innovation comes from hunger for
knowledge coupled with diligence.
D. Innovation requires curiosity and not hard
work or diligence.
Section II
Current Affairs
Passage for Questions 33 to 37:
The [X] Cabinet approved the commissionerate
system of policing for its two cities. The system gives
more responsibilities, including magisterial powers, to
IPS officers of Inspector General of Police (IG) rank
posted as commissioners. Depending on its success
here, the policing system may gradually be
implemented in other districts as well
Under the [Y] of the Constitution, ‘Police’ is under
the State list, meaning individual states typically
legislate and exercise control over this subject. In
the arrangement in force at the district level, a ‘dual
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system’ of control exists, in which the Superintendent
of Police (SP) has to work with the District Magistrate
(DM) for supervising police administration. At the
metropolitan level, many states have replaced the dual
system with the commissionerate system, as it is
supposed to allow for faster decision-making to solve
complex urb an-centric issues.
In the commissionerate system, the Commissioner
of Police (CP) is the head of a unified police
command structure, is responsible for the force in
the city, and is accountable to the state government.
The office also has magisterial powers, including those
related to regulation, control, and licensing.
33. Which of the following Indian state is mentioned
in [X]?
A. Uttar Pradesh B. Madhya Pradesh
C. Telangana D. Maharashtra
34. Which schedule of the Constitution, ‘Police’ is
under the State list as mentioned in [Y]?
A. 3rd Schedule B. 5th Schedule
C. 7th Schedule D. None of these
35. Which of the following cities brought under
commissionerate system for the first time by
the British?
A. Kolkata B. Mumbai
C. Chennai D. Delhi
36. Policing in India is based on the Police act 1861.
under it what should be the population of a city
for it to be eligible for a commissionerate
system?
A. 1 lakh B. 5 lakh
C. 10 lakh D. 15 lakh
37. Which of the following states has not yet opted
for the commissionerate system?
A. MadhyaPradesh B. Tamilanadu
C. Punjab D. Gujarat
Passage for Questions 38 to 43:
Almost everyone agrees that the recent global
climate summit, the annual Conference of the
Parties (COP25), held in [X] in December 2019, was
a failure and that the multilateral process to address
the climate crisis is broken. At several discussions
on finance, ambition, transparency of support and
pre-2020 action, wealthy countries were
recalcitrant. Although responsible for using the bulk
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Test Code - ALP2101
of the carbon space in the atmosphere, they now A. Berlin B. Glasgow
disavow their obligations, with some even denying C. Geneva D. Budapest
anthropogenic climate change. At this stage, there
is a complete severance of climate science from 43. Commitment period of Kyoto Protocal was
the negotiations and agreements at the global level. increased from 2012 to 2020 through the
The question is, what can we do now? __________.
A. Zero Corban Amendment
The next COP will be held at Glasgow, U.K. (in late B. Montreal Protocal
2020) and there may be little change in the outcomes, C. Doha Amendment
as the global political order may not alter much. The D. Kigali Amendment
fact that we live in an unequal and unjust world is not
going to change either. Passage for Questions 44 to 48:
Giant planets – like Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus or Neptune
But the right political leaders could nudge action in a in our own solar system – have been found orbiting
new direction. For example, younger members could many distant stars, including sunlike stars and red
be elected to the U.S. Congress and the Green New dwarfs. But no giant exoplanet had been detected
Deal could pass sometime in 2021. In the meantime, around a white dwarf star, until now. Astronomers
climate activism is increasing awareness and having say they discovered this giant exoplanet, which orbits
some success in removing insurance and financial sup- the white dwarf WDJ0914+1914, using the [X]
port for fossil fuel companies. But these kinds of Telescope in Chile. What’s more, they say, this giant
changes will occur slowly. planet is evaporating.

38. Which city hosted the 25th session of the The new peer-reviewed results were published on
Conference of the Parties (COP 25) as December 4, 2019, in the journal Nature.
mentioned in [X]?
A. Tokyo, Japan B. Beijing, China Astronomers have found smaller rocky worlds
C. Madrid, Spain D. Washington orbiting white dwarfs before, but this is the
first-ever discovery of a giant exoplanet orbiting a
39. What is the rank of India in the Climate Change white dwarf star. White dwarfs are, as the name
Performance Index (CCPI) 2020, released by implies, small, typically only [Y] than Earth. This
Germanwatch and NewClimate Institute report planet is thought to be at least twice as big as its
with the Climate Action Network (CAN) ? star! It orbits its star in only about 10 Earth-days.
A. 13 B. 12 Astronomers knew something strange was happening
C. 9 D. 10 with the star when they noticed it dimming a bit, as
though something were passing in front of it. Boris
40. What is the name of the ship, which is set out Gänsicke of the University of Warwick led the study.
for Arctic Mission to study the impact of climate
change in which researchers from 17 nations 44. Which of the following Telescope is mentioned
participated ? in [X]?
A. RV Polarstern A. Paranal Observatory
B. RV Yamal B. Hubble Telescope
C. RV Sikuliaq C. European Southern Observatory
D. RV Kronprins Haakon D. Mauna kea Observatory

41. Which of the following is the last country to 45. Which one will fill in [Y]?
ratify the Paris Agreement? A. Only slightly larger
A. Iraq B. Saudi Arabia B. Only slightly smaller
C. Chili D. Syria C. massively larger
D. None of these
42. Which European city set to host United Nations’
climate summit 26th Conference of Parties 46. Which planet was the brightest object in the sky
‘COP26’ in November 2020? in June 2019, besides the sun and the moon?

Abhyaas/Law Prep/Mock-01 10

Test Code - ALP2101
A. Venus B. Jupiter
C. Saturn D. Mercury
47. The Chandrashekar limit is associated with the
_________.
A. Energy of a Red dwarf star
B. Mass of a Red dwarf star
C. Mass of a white dwarf star
D. Energy of a White dwarf star
48. A team of scientist of Astronomy Department
of University of Geneva along with team of
scientist of other countries detected liquid iron
rain on the highly heated exoplanet named
__________.
A. WASP-76b B. WASP-56b
C. WASP-62d D. WASP-52d
Passage for Questions 49 to 53:
The national sports federation has announced that it
will host the Asian Boxing Championships for men
and women in November-December this year. The
federation remains positive that the coronavirus
pandemic will be wiped out by then, as per the
Hindustan Times report. The event is usually a biennial
competition but was held in consecutive years in the
past.“
We were awarded the hosting rights in February after
a meeting of the Asian Boxing Confederation. The
tournament will be held in November-December and
the host city will be finalized after things normalize,”
Boxing Federation of India’s (BFI) Executive Director
[X] told media. He added that it is an extraordinary
situation no doubt but the sports federation is hoping
for this to be brought under control by June. Another
three-four months will be taken for the complete
resumption.
49. Which of the following is the Executive
Director of Boxing Federation of India (BFI)?
A. R K Sacheti B. Ajay Singh
C. Anil Kumar Bohidar D. None of these
50. Name the boxer who has won the bronze medal
in the 51kg event of World Women’s Boxing
Championships held in Ulan-Ude, Russia.
A. Busenaz Cakiroglu B. Manju Rani
C. Chuthamat Raksat D. M C Mary Kom
51. Who among the following created history by
winning a silver medal in the World Boxing
Championship 2019?
Abhyaas/Law Prep/Mock-01
LAW
A. Amit Pangha B. Vijay Sardana
C. Anuj Chugh D. Sarvesh Dayal
52. Wher e was the 2019 AIBA(Association
Internationale de Boxe Amateur or International
Boxing Association) World Boxing
Championships held ?
A. Yekaterinburg, Russia
B.Nur-Sultan, Kazakhstan
C. Jiangsu, China
D. Ottawa, Canada
53. Which Indian boxer has been elected as a
member of the first-ever international boxing
body (AIBA) athletes’ commission?
A. Mary Kom
B. Laishram Sarita Devi
C. Vijender Singh
D. Shiva Thapa
Passage for Questions 54 to 57:
The [x] Cabinet has approved the nomination of at
least one differently abled member to each
panchayat, if not elected, making it the only State to
have such members in all panchayats.
“Differently abled people constitute 6% of the
population of state [x]. As promised in the jan ghoshna
patra [manifesto], we have taken the landmark step
of strengthening their voices at the grassroots level,”
said T.S. Singh Deo, State Panchayati Raj
Minister.“Every panchayat will now have differently
abled members, either elected or nominated,” he said.
If differently abled members are not elected through
the electoral process, then one member, either male
or female, would be nominated as a panch. And as
for janpads and zilla panchayats, the State government
would nominate two such members, one male and
one female, to them.
During a meeting at the house of Chief Minister [y],
the Cabinet approved the amendment to the State
Panchayat Raj Act, 1993. The proposals will be tabled
in the Vidhan Sabha, where the Congress holds 68 of
the 90 seats.
54. Which state cabinet has approved the
nomination of at least one differently abled
member to each panchayat?
A. Maharashtra B. Chhattisgarh
C. Madhya Pradesh D. Jharkhand
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Test Code - ALP2101
55. Who is the Chief Minister ‘y’ mentioned in the
passage?
A. Bhupesh Baghel B. Udhav Thackeray
C. Naveen Patnaik D. Kamal Nath
56. Which of the following statute prohibits
discrimination against Persons with disability?
A. The Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act,
2016
B. The Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act,
2012
C. The Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act,
2009
D. The Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act,
2019
57. Which of these states does not share a border
with state ‘x’?
A. Bihar B. Uttar Pradesh
C. Odisha D. Madhya Pradesh
Passage for Questions 58 to 62:
A total of 299 women dressed up in traditional [X]
wedding attire danced together to mark the last day
of the [Y] festival and also created a Guinness World
Record in the process.
The women, aged between 18 and 60, wore heavy
coat-like ‘gongchas’ with ‘perak’ headgear as they
danced on Thursday at an altitude of over 4,500
metres above sea level at Hemis, a Buddhist
monastery situated 45 km from place [A].
Swapnil Dangarikar, Official Adjudicator, Guinness
World Records declared the dance performance as
the ‘Largest [X] Dance’ by Live to Love, Pel Drupka
Charitable Trust and Young Drukpa Association [X]
at Hemis.
”They have broken the record with 299 successful
participants. This is a new Guinness World Record
title... With this I declare that all of you are officially
amazing,” Dangarikar, who looks after records
happening in India and Southeast Asia, said on
Thursday.
Thousands of people from across the Himalayas
gathered at Hemis to celebrate the life of Buddhist
philosopher and scholar [Y], who lived between 1016
to 1100 CE, in their tradition ways with singing and
cultural events.
Abhyaas/Law Prep/Mock-01
LAW
The five-day festival, started on Sunday to celebrate
1,000 plus years of the life of [Y], also witnessed
unfurling of 85-feet thangka — Buddhist painting on
cloth — which the monastery claimed to be “the
largest silk-embroidered brocade of Buddha” in
India.Situated on a hill-top, Hemis is a calm place
which only witnesses crowds during the festival
season.Famous as the Himalayan Kumbh, the [Y]
Festival is celebrated after every [C] years of the
Tibetan calendar.
The festival, however, took place this time after two
years as many of the devotees could not attend it in
2016. The monastery is also planning to make it an
annual event from this year onwards.
Speaking at the closing ceremony, one of the members
of the organising committee said that the festival is a
platform to “showcase the rich and divine heritage
of the Himalayan region”.
”It is a platform for all to come together and to
encourage our people and artists.
”It is a platform to meet and interact with the followers
of the Drupka Lineage from India, Tibet, and other
parts of the world. It is also a platform to exchange
the teachings of the Buddha dharama. It is also a
platform to learn the culture of [x],” he added.The
celebration included teaching lessons of [Y], prayers
and religious performances by monks and nuns.
A traditional archery competition, fashion show and
performances by local and Bollywood artists,
including singers Kailash Kher, Papon and Sonu
Nigam also took place during the festival.
The holy relics of [Y]— whose life is celebrated during
the festival — were brought in a grand procession to
the Naro Photang, situated three kilometers from the
monastery.
The followers of Drupka Lineage from India, Tibet,
and other parts of the world queued for hours to see
the relics put on display.
The holy relics are the six bone ornaments of [Y]
and are one of the most revered relics of Buddhism
and historic symbols of the great Himalayan odyssey.
[Y] wore the ornaments upon achieving
enlightenment. Prime Minister [B] attended the first
[Y] festival in June 1980. At that time, 50,000
devotees had attended the festival.
12
 LAW
Test Code - ALP2101
58. What is ‘[X]’ mentioned in the passage? 66. The three capita model was adopted from which
A. Ladakhi B. Kashmiri of the following countries model?
C. Sikkimi D. Dharmis A. Australia B. South Africa
C. Japan D. France
59. What is the name of the festival and as well as
the scholar mentioned in [Y] in the passage? 67. Which of the following committees were not
A.Hornbill B. Naropa invloved in the process of suggesting three
C. Dosmoche D. Losar capitals to the state of Andhra Pradesh?
A. B N Srikrishna Committee
60. Which of these places is mentioned in [A] in B. K Sivaramakrishnan Committee
the passage? C. G N Rao Committee
A. Ladakh B. Kashmir D. Raghu Krishna Committee
C. Leh D. Kargil
Passage for Questions 68 to 72:
61. Who is the Prime Minister mentioned in [B] in The first conference on military medicine for
the passage? [X](SCO) member states will be held here from
A. Lal Bahadur Shastri B. Indira Gandhi September 12 to September 13, 2019.
C. Charan Singh D. P V Narshimanan
The conference will be the first military co-operation
62. What is ‘C’ mentioned in the passage? event hosted by India, under the SCO Defence
A. 6 years B. 4 years Co-operation Plan 2019-2020, after it became an
C. 8 years D. 12 years SCO member-state in 2017.
”The conference will be conducted by the Indian
Passage for Questions 63 to 67: Armed Forces under the aegis of Headquarters
In Jan 2020, the Andhra Pradesh (AP) government, Integrated Defence Staff (HQ IDS), with the aim to
based on the recommendations of a High-Power share best practices in the field of military medicine,
Committee (HPC), approved a proposal to create build capacities and overcome common challenges,”
three capitals for the state. The physical locations of an official release said.
the three state capitals are spread over the elongated
shape of the state. According to the state government, During the conference, the Indian Armed Forces will
the purported objective of the Bill is decentralisation also demonstrate the Rapid Action Medical Team and
and inclusive development of all regions in the state. organize a visit for the delegates to the Army
The Bill also provided for dividing the state into various Research and Referral Hospital, the release added.
zones and establishing zonal planning and
development boards. The AP Legislative Assembly ”Deliberations will take place between military
passed this Bill on 20 January 2020. medicine experts of SCO member-states on rendering
of combat medical support, humanitarian assistance
63. Which of the following is not proposed to be a during disasters and measures to improve patient
capital of Andhra Pradesh? safety. The SCO member-states will be represented
A. Hyderabad B. Visakhapatnam by senior military medical practitioners. Dialogue
C. Kurnool D. Amravati partners Nepal and Sri Lanka will also be sending
their delegations to participate in the conference,”
64. Which year marks the date when Andhra the statement also said.
Pradesh and Telangana was separated?
A. 2014 B. 2013 The conference will be preceded by a meeting of the
C. 2015 D. 2016 heads of delegations to discuss areas of co-operation
in the field of military medicine between SCO
65. Which Party does the current CM of AP belong member-states.
to?
A. YSR Congress Party The first conference on military medicine for
B. Telugu Desam Party [X](SCO) member states will be held here from
C. Bhartiya Janata Party September 12 to September 13, 2019.
D. Telangana Rashtra Samithi
Abhyaas/Law Prep/Mock-01 13

Test Code - ALP2101
The conference will be the first military co-operation
event hosted by India, under the SCO Defence Co-
operation Plan 2019-2020, after it became an SCO
member-state in 2017.
”The conference will be conducted by the Indian
Armed Forces under the aegis of Headquarters
Integrated Defence Staff (HQ IDS), with the aim to
share best practices in the field of military medicine,
build capacities and overcome common challenges,”
an official release said.
During the conference, the Indian Armed Forces will
also demonstrate the Rapid Action Medical Team and
organize a visit for the delegates to the Army
Research and Referral Hospital, the release added.
”Deliberations will take place between military
medicine experts of SCO member-states on rendering
of combat medical support, humanitarian assistance
during disasters and measures to improve patient
safety. The SCO member-states will be represented
by senior military medical practitioners. Dialogue
partners Nepal and Sri Lanka will also be sending
their delegations to participate in the conference,”
the statement also said.
The conference will be preceded by a meeting of the
heads of delegations to discuss areas of co-operation
in the field of military medicine between SCO
member-states.
68. What is [X] as mentioned in the passage /
Expand SCO?
A. Shanghai Cooperation Organisation
B. Southern Countries Organisation
C. South China Order
D. Shanghai Convention Ordinance
69. Where is the headquarters of SCO?
A. New Delhi B. Dhaka
C. Beijing D. Shnaghai
70. Which of the following is not a founding member
of SCO?
A. Uzbekistan B. Kyrgyztan
C. China D. India
71. SCO has how many Dialogue Partners?
A. 4 B. 5
C. 3 D. 6
Abhyaas/Law Prep/Mock-01
LAW
72. Who is the Defence minister of India?
A. Manohar Parrikar
B. Rajnath Singh
C. Arun Jaitley
D. Nirmala Sitharaman
Section III
Legal Reasoning
Passage for Questions 73 to 77:
Offences in India are distinguished as being bailable
or non-bailable. A person accused of the former has
a right to be released on bail, while no such right
exists where one is accused of the latter and it
becomes a matter of discretion. Section 437 of the
Cr.P.C. 1973 explains how this discretion is to be
exercised, and 437(1) mandates no person “shall not
be admitted to bail, if there appear reasonable grounds
for believing that he has been guilty of an offence
punishable with death or imprisonment for life”. I
recognise that bail is a reflection of the legislature
taking away one’s personal rights for the communal
benefit but I was surprised to find how similar clauses
have existed for more than a century in the various
Codes of India.
Section 156 of the Cr.P.C. 1861 stated that any person
accused of a non-bailable offence “shall not be
admitted to bail, if there appear reasonable grounds
for believing that he has been guilty of the offence
imputed to him.” This Code was replaced in 1898,
and Section 497 therein stated that one accused of a
non-bailable offence “shall not be so released if there
appear reasonable grounds for believing that he has
been guilty of the offence of which he is accused.”
Section 497 of the 1898 Code was amended in 1923
to restrict the class of cases where bail was to be
denied: from all non-bailable cases it was limited to
those punishable with “death or imprisonment for life.”
Context is key here. When the 1861 and 1898 Codes
were drafted, the presumption of innocence did not
carry any great importance. In fact, Section 212 of
the 1861 Code, concerning bail in offences, required
Magistrates to consider whether the evidence
adduced at that stage either strengthened or
weakened the “presumption of the guilt” of the
accused. Though the presumption of innocence was
rightfully identified as the golden thread running
through English criminal law, eminent commentators
have shown how this was more rhetoric rather than
a statement of fact.
14

Test Code - ALP2101
Between that time and the drafting of our current
Code, the presumption of innocence certainly became
one of the hallmarks of common law criminal justice
systems. But the retention of this clause seems to
have ruffled no feathers at any time, considering the
lack of any discussion on the point in the Law
Commission’s 36th and 41st Report and no
constitutional challenges thereafter. This silent
acceptance was used by the Supreme Court in Kartar
Singh v. State of Punjab to justify the constitutional
validity of Section 20(8) of the TADAP Act which
carried the identical clause restricting grant of bail.
https://theproofofguilt.blogspot.com/2015/04/
reversing-presumption-of-innocence-part.html
73. If Bharat, an Indian citizen, was charged for
murder and approaches the police station for a
bail his application gets rejected. Which of the
following arguments, if true, would justify their
denial of bail?
A. Despite there being no valid evidence, the
offence is a non-bailable offence.
B. Since the police is an executive branch it has
certain prerogatives that allow them to grant
a bail and the judiciary can’t tamper with the
executive.
C. The police reasonably apprehended the guilt
of the accused.
D. The offence Bharat is charged with is not
punishable with death or imprisonment for
life.
74. In 1917, someone charged with a non-bailable
offence which was punishable with fine and/or
upto 7 years in prison was denied bail despite
there being no apparent reason to believe that
the accused committed the offence. If the
accused moves to a higher court on the validity
of the police decision, which of the following
are the possibilities of the outcome?
A. Granting bail to the accused because there
are no apparent reasons.
B. Rejecting the bail because it is a non-bailable
offence.
C. Granting bail to the accused because not
doing so is violation of his fundamental rights.
D. Rejecting the bail because it was limited to
punishments that are punishable with death
or imprisonment for life.
75. While dealing with the constitutional validity of
section 20(8) of the TADAP Act which carried
Abhyaas/Law Prep/Mock-01
LAW
an identical clause restricting grant of bail, which
of the following was most probably the rationale
of the bench of Kartar Singh v. State of Punjab?
A. The legislature relied on the 1923 amendment
that changed the requirement to death or
imprisonment for life.
B. The legislature was taking away personal
liberty in the name of social good.
C. The bench relied on the hallmark of the
common law criminal justice systems of
presumption of guilt.
D. The implicit rejection of presumption of
innocence, which is a hallmark of common
law criminal justice systems.
76. The legislature passed Prevention of illegal
Activities Act, which gave the executive the
power to detain criminals that pose immense
threat to the national security provided that the
police have air-tight evidence of the person’s
inclusion in the commission of the act and then
assigned the burden of proof on the one that is
charged by the police to prove that he is
innocent. Would the author concur with the
jurisprudence underlying the Act?
A. Yes since abundant evidence is required to
accuse someone under this Act.
B. No because some eminent commentators
have shown how this was more rhetoric
rather than a statement of fact.
C. Yes because the author believes that bail is a
reflection of legislature taking away one’s
personal rights for the communal benefit.
D. No because the author does not agree with
the presumption of guilt of the accused.
77. Which of the following is the author of the given
passage most likely to agree with?
A. The presumption of innocence has been and
will be an impediment to a just criminal
system.
B. The court pre-judges the guilt of an accused
at the initial stage itself.
C. Despite the fact that the codes were drafted
in 19th century, their authors foresaw the
future and included provisions that are
compatible with the evolution of time.
D. The concept of bail echoes with the
tyrannical power of the state to take away
one’s personal rights for either just or unjust
reasons.
15

Test Code - ALP2101
Passage for Questions 78 to 82:
The word “decency” in Article 19(2) is often run
together with “morality”, forming the compendious
term, “decency or morality”. Since judicial discussion
tends to focus on the meaning of “morality”, the word
“decency” tends to get unnecessarily subsumed
within the meaning of “morality”. The Bal Thackeray
case is, however, a notable exception, and deserves
close scrutiny. S. 123(3) of the Representation of
Peoples Act prohibited a person from appealing for
votes on the basis of “his religion, race, caste,
community or language.” In the Bal Thackeray Case,
it was argued that S. 123(3) violated Article 19(1)(a),
and was constitutional only if the said appeal was
directly prejudicial to public order, as envisaged by
Article 19(2). The Court rejected this contention on
the premise of decency.
These observations are crucial. In Ranjit Udeshi case,
we had found that much turns upon what, precisely,
“morality” means in Article 19(2). I argue that the
Court was mistaken in equating “morality” with either
“public morality” or “individual morality”; and that, in
the alternative, the best interpretation was reading it
to mean “constitutional morality“, that is, the moral
principles espoused by the Constitution as a whole,
and not those of a shifting, transient majority. In Bal
Thackeray, the Court accepted such a reading of the
word “decency”. Because obviously, if decency
means “public decency”, or the standards of decency
maintained by a present majority, then it makes no
sense to curtail election speeches on the grounds of
decency, because – and this much, at least, is
uncontroversial – the ballot box is, at present, one of
the – if not the – most effective way of gauging public
opinion.
In Goswami case, the Court, dealing with an obscenity
case, after citing a bewildering array of tests, finally
affirmed both a harm standard and a violation of
morality standard within the same paragraph! And
most recently, in S. Khushboo v. Kanniammal the
question arose whether criminal proceedings against
an actress who called for social acceptance for
pre-marital sex in live-in relationships, could be
sustained. It was argued that public morality was
strongly supportive of limiting sexual intercourse to
the marital relationship, and that such statements
would lead to “deviant behaviour which would
adversely affect public notions of morality.” While
the Court reviewed the present state of the law on
obscenity and observed: “Notions of social morality
Abhyaas/Law Prep/Mock-01
LAW
are inherently subjective and the criminal law cannot
be used as a means to unduly interfere with the
domain of personal autonomy.” The Court noted that
those who viewed her remarks as an attack upon the
centrality of the institution of marriage had every
freedom to contest their merit through the existing
channels of free speech, such as the media. This was
precisely how dialogue and discussion took place in
a democracy, “wherein people can choose to either
defend or question the existing social morals.”
https://indconlawphil.wordpress.com/2013/08/16/
what-is-decency-article-192-and-the-bal-thackeray-
case/
78. Which of the following was the likely decision
of the court in the S. Kushboo v. Kanniammal
case?
A. The Supreme court would rule in favour of
the actress because such deviant behaviour
which would adversely affect the public
notions of morality.
B. The Supreme court would rule against the
actress because the petitioners can contest
their freedom through various channels in the
society.
C. The Supreme court would rule against the
actress because she is blatantly promoting
immoral and indecent acts that are
antithetical to our cultural norms.
D. The Supreme court would rule in favour of
the actress because criminal law cannot
interfere with personal subjectivity.
79. Uday while campaigning for the elections,
requests his followers to vote since he is of a
community which was on the verge of extinction
and has been apparently oppressed despite it
being one of the biggest clans in the olden days.
If one of the opposition parties move to the court
alleging that the statements made by Uday
violated section 123 of the Representation of
Peoples Act which of the following would likely
be the outcome of the judgment?
A. Uday will not be held for violating section
123 because asking someone to vote for him
since he belongs to a community is not
illegal.
B. Uday will not be held because asking what
he did does not fall under requesting to vote
on the basis of religion, race, caste,
community or language.
16

Test Code - ALP2101
C. Uday will be held for violating section 123
because one cannot request to vote on the
basis of religion, race, caste, community or
language.
D. Uday will be held for violating section 123
because asking someone to vote on the basis
of their community is indecent and immoral.
80. Diksha, a popular social influencer protested for
the lawful establishment of social institution for
homosexuals in one of the social media platforms
which was challenged by a few conservatives
and as a result, a lot of protests sprouted up
across the country after the statement made by
the influencer on homosexuality. The center
passed a law making homosexuality an offence
since it is against public morality. Would such a
law be constitutional by applying the principles
laid down in the above passage?
A. Yes, because the judges in S. Khushboo held
that deviant behaviour would adversely
affect public notions of morality.
B. No, because the Act fails to espouse the
perpetual constitutional morality and instead
it gives in to the demand of the majority.
C. Yes, because the court in Bal Thackeray case
accepted the widely accepted definition of
public decency.
D. No, because the public morality in itself is
biased and such laws only appear cogent on
the face value.
81. In one of the judgements, the court noted that
the morality as espoused in Article 19 is one
that is set by the society and not satisfied
with the decision, the respondent appeals to
the higher court. Which of the following would
pose a strong counter to the judgment
awarded by the lower court?
A. Since a society is formed of citizens, the law
must favour the opinion of the majority.
B. Public morality is the basis of the society and
to avoid any insurgencies among the public,
the law must uphold the popular notion of
public morality as set by the public.
C. Since public morality is contingent on the
opinions of the majority of the society, it is
not stable.
D. Since constitutional morality is traced back
to constitution and since the constitution is
prepared by the citizens, public morality must
be contingent on popular opinion.
Abhyaas/Law Prep/Mock-01
LAW
82. Which of the following is the author of the given
passage most likely to agree with?
A. The decision of the court in Bal Thackeray
case is inherently flawed and can be declared
unconstitutional.
B. Since judicial discussion tends to focus on the
meaning of “decency”, the word “morality”
is assumed to be understood.
C. The courts must interpret morality and
decency independently from each other.
D. The individual morality must be given
overriding importance when it comes to law.
Passage for Questions 83 to 87:
Section 85 of The Indian Penal Code (IPC) deals
with offences committed under the influence of drug/
alcohol. Such intoxication should be caused by fraud
or coercion and such intoxication should limit his ability
to decide what is right and what is wrong. Section 86
of the IPC deals with intoxication which is
self- induced.
In the case of A-G for Northern Ireland v. Gallagher
Lord Denning stated two examples. The first related
to a nurse who got so drunk at a christening ceremony
that she put the baby on the fire thinking it was a log
of wood. The second related to an intoxicated person
who thought that his friend lying on the bed was a
‘dummy’ and stabbed him to death. So in the second
one the stabbing indicates that there was a mens rea
and in the first case it was a mistake of fact.
Under section 86, where an act done is not an offence
unless done with a particular knowledge or intent, a
person who does the act in a state of intoxication
shall be liable to be dealt with as if he had the same
knowledge as he would have had if he had not been
intoxicated, unless the thing which intoxicated him
was administered to him without his knowledge or
against his will.
The prosecution has to prove that in spite of
drunkenness the accused had intention to commit the
act forbidden by law.
The question, as to whether drunkenness is a defence
while determining sentence, came up for
consideration in Bablu alias Mubarik Hussain v. State
of Rajasthan wherein it was held that the defence of
drunkenness can be availed of only when intoxication
produces such a condition as the accused loses the
requisite intention for the offence and onus of proof
about reason of intoxication, due to which the accused
17

Test Code - ALP2101
had become incapable of having particular knowledge
in forming the particular intention, is on the accused.
Examining Section 85 IPC, this Court held that the
evidence of drunkenness which renders the accused
incapable of forming the specific intent essential to
constitute the crime should be taken into account with
the other facts proved in order to determine whether
or not he had the intention. Court held that merely
establishing that his mind was affected by drink so
that he more readily gave way to some violent
passion, does not rebut the presumption that a man
intends the natural consequences of his acts. This
Court, in that case, rejected the plea of drunkenness
after noticing that the crime committed was a brutal
and diabolic act.
[Extracted, with edits and revisions, Intoxication as a
Defence under Criminal Law, http://www. legal
service sindia .com/article/205/Intoxication-as-a-
Defence.html]
83. Based on the above passage, if you are given
alcohol without your knowledge and against
your will, can you be held liable for intending to
kill someone?
A. No, as the alcohol was not self-induced and
an act done in consonance of the same will
not make you liable for the same.
B. No, as it is still not proven if the murder had
an intention behind it or not.
C. Yes, as alcohol whether self-induced or
without knowledge, you will still be held
liable for an act of murder.
D. Both (A) and (B)
84. In the case Bablu alias Mubarik Hussain v. State
of Rajasthan was the plea of drunkenness as
defence considered?
A. No, as it was brought to light that the act
committed was very gruesome and hence
intention can be perceived from the same.
B. No, since intention could be inferred from the
diabolical act thus it doesn’t matter whether
the accused was drunk or not.
C. Yes, as the accused was involuntarily drunk.
D. Both (A) and (B)
85. A case was mentioned in the passage regarding
a nurse who got so drunk at a christening
ceremony that she put the baby on the fire
thinking it was a log of wood. This example was
used in the passage to prove which of the
following?
Abhyaas/Law Prep/Mock-01
LAW
A. Drunkness caused the act but there was no
intention to do the same.
B. In the state of drunkenness it was a mistake
of fact to consider the baby as a log of wood.
C. Drunkenness in such a situation can be used
as a defence.
D. All the above.
86. A case was mentioned in the passage regarding
an intoxicated person who thought that his friend
lying on the bed was a ‘dummy’ and stabbed
him to death. This example was used in the
passage to prove which of the following?
A. Drunkness caused the act but there was no
intention to do the same.
B. In the state of drunkenness it was a mistake
of fact to consider the friend as a dummy.
C. Drunkenness in such a situation can be used
as a defence.
D. None of the above
87. As per section 85 of the IPC which of the
following is false?
A. Involuntary drunkenness can be used as a
defense until and unless mens rea is not
proven.
B. Involuntary drunkenness can be used as a
defense irrespective of the intention being
proved or not.
C. Self-Induced drunkenness cannot be used as
a defense irrespective of the intention being
proved or not.
D. All the above.
Passage for Questions 88 to 92:
Hindustan Times Media Limited (“HT”) is a news
broadcasting agency known for its newspaper
Hindustan Times, in India since 1924. HT also has
an immense global reputation. It is the registered
proprietor of, inter alia, the marks “Hindustan Times”,
“Hindustan” (bearing TM Nos. 1350439, 1508548
respectively) in class 16 and owner of
www.hindustantimes.com, www.hindustan.in, etc..
HT found that Brainlink International, Inc., based in
New York, owned the domain name
www.hindustan.com which was deceptively similar
to HT’s registered trademarks and domain names. A
mark shall be deemed to be deceptively similar to
another mark if it so nearly resembles that other mark
as to be likely to deceive or cause confusion for similar
products. HT filed a suit at the Delhi High Court, HT
Media Limited & Anr. v. Brainlink International, Inc.
CS(COMM) 119/2020 IAs 3767-3771/2020.
18

Test Code - ALP2101
In December 2019, HT sent a notice to Brainlink for
ceasing trademark infringement and asking it to sell
the domain name to HT. However, Brainlink asked
for 3 Million USD as consideration to give up the
domain name. Brainlink also filed a suit against HT
in the United States District Court for the Eastern
District of New York (“US EDNY”) for declaration
of non-infringement.
HT stated that as per Section 134 (2) of the Indian
Trade Marks Act, 1999, a registered proprietor can
file a suit for infringement in the jurisdiction where it
is carrying on business. Also, users in Delhi searching
for “Hindustan” were being directed to the infringing
domain giving rise to the cause of action in Delhi.
Thus, the Delhi High Court has jurisdiction over the
matter. HT further contended that Brainlink had
obtained the domain name in 1997, mala fide, to use
it for news broadcasting by riding upon HT’s goodwill.
It alleged that Brainlink was clearly ‘cyber-squatting’
by demanding an exorbitant amount for selling the
domain to HT. HT prayed not only for injunction
against infringement of its trademarks and domains,
but also to restrain Brainlink from proceeding with
its suit filed at the US EDNY. The Court, in its order
dated April 28, 2020, agreed with HT’s contentions.
It noted that Brainlink had not legitimately used the
domain since 2000 and was squatting upon it only to
earn profits from HT. The case filed in the US was
also considered oppressive by the Court, since there
was no assertion of trademark rights by HT in the
US. The Court thus held that a prima facie case was
made out against Brainlink and granted a temporary
ex-parte injunction from infringing the trademarks and
for proceeding against HT in the US EDNY.
[Extracted, with edits and revisions, Indian court
exercised extra territorial jurisdiction on a US based
trademark infringer and squatter, RK Dewan and
C o , h t t p s : / / w w w. l e x o l o g y. c o m / l i b r a r y /
det a il. a s p x ?g=1 edc9 d9 0 - 38 a d- 4 0 b 3 -a 7 b c-
eb2c42065ce6]
88. Which of the following gives power to HT to
file a claim for infringement in New Delhi?
A. The fact that Brainlink was running a website
similar to the name of HT in the USA.
B. The fact that Brainlink’s website was
deceptively similar to that of HT.
C. The fact that the Trademarks Act gives the
proprietor “HT” the right to file a suit for
infringment where their business is ongoing.
D. Both (A) and (B)
Abhyaas/Law Prep/Mock-01
LAW
89. Which of the following was not a contention
raised by the “HT” in their argument above?
A. Users in Delhi searching for “Hindustan”
were being directed to the infringing domain
of Brainlink which was hindustan.com.
B. Brainlink had obtained the domain name in
1997, mala fide, to use it for news
broadcasting by riding upon HT’s goodwill.
C. HT did not pray for the injunction whereas
filed the suit over the jurisdiction matter to
be decided in the Delhi High Court.
D. Brainlink was clearly ‘cyber-squatting’ by
demanding an exorbitant amount for selling
the domain to HT.
90. Which of the following was not decided by the
Delhi High Court as laid down in the above
passage?
A. It noted that Brainlink had not legitimately
used the domain since 2000 and was
squatting upon it only to earn profits from HT.
B. The case filed in the US was also
considered oppressive by the Court, since
there was no assertion of trademark rights
by HT in the US.
C. The Court held that a prima facie case was
made out against Brainlink and granted a
temporary ex-parte injunction from
infringing the trademarks and for proceeding
against HT in the US EDNY.
D. None of the above.
91. Which of the following cannot be the best
example for a deceptively similar mark as per
the paragraph above?
A. Starbucks is a globally recognized trademark
registered across borders compared to
trademark Sardarbuksh dealing in similar
products, it would be unfair on Starbucks if
such trademarks are allowed.
B. Trademarks NANDINI and NANDHINI
dealing with different types of products can
be said to be deceptively similar.
C. Burger King is a globally recognized
trademark registered across borders
compared to trademark Burger Singh
dealing in similar products and are similar
phonetically and visually.
D. All the above.
92. Brainlink filed a suit against HT in the US Court
on the basis of which of the reasons
mentioned below?
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Test Code - ALP2101
A. The mark used by HT was deceptively
similar.
B. HT cannot invoke the jurisdiction of India for
filing a case against Brainlink.
C. To obtain a declaration of Non-infringement
from the US.
D. All the above.
Passage for Questions 93 to 97:
Section 138 of the Negotiable Instruments Act is
designed to safeguard the faith of the creditor in the
drawer of the cheque. Its purpose would be defeated
if in the prosecution of an offence under section 138
of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881, the accused
is permitted to raise the defence that he had no reason
to believe when he issued the cheque that the cheque
may be dishonoured on presentment.
If by legal fiction, introduced by section 138 the
dishonour of the cheque drawn by a person on an
account maintained by him with a banker for payment
of any amount of money to another person from out
of that account for the discharge in whole or in part
of any debt or liability either because the amount of
money standing to the credit of that account is
insufficient or that it exceeds the amount arranged to
be paid from the account by an agreement with that
bank, is to be deemed as an offence, it is obvious that
for that absolute liability full effect must be given to
the legal fiction.
Mere dishonour of a cheque for the reasons stated in
section 138 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881,
is sufficient for commission of crime under that section
and it is not material whether he had reason to believe
when he issued the cheque that the cheque may not
be dishonoured on presentment.
For an offence under section 138 of the Negotiable
Instruments Act, 1881, ‘mens rea’ is not essential.
The rigour of section 138 which creates dishonour of
cheque for insufficiency, etc., of funds in the account
as an absolute offence by legal fiction, is further
maintained by making the provision in section 140
that it shall not be a defence in a prosecution for an
offence under section 138 that the drawer had no
reason to believe when he issued the cheque that the
cheque may be dishonoured on presentment for the
reasons stated in that section and, therefore, cannot
be said to be unreasonable or arbitrary. The state of
mind of the accused person, his knowledge or
reasonable belief are not the necessary ingredients
Abhyaas/Law Prep/Mock-01
LAW
of an offence under section 138 of the Negotiable
Instruments Act, 1881, and, therefore, the provision
contained in section 140 of the Act that it shall not be
a defence in a prosecution for an offence under
section 138 that the drawer had no reason to believe
when he issued the cheque that the cheque may be
dishonoured on presentment, cannot be said to be
unreasonable and violative of article 14 of the
Constitution.
[Extracted, with edits and revisions in, Dishonour of
Cheques under Section 138 of Negotiable Instruments
and Acts, Umang Raj, http://www. legal
servicesindia.com/article/1651/Legally-Enforceable-
Debt-u/s.-138-of-the-Negotiable-Instruments-Act,-
1881.html]
93. When can section 138 of Negotiable Instrument
Act be invoked?
A. When there are insufficient funds in the bank
account of the person issuing the cheque.
B. When there are insufficient funds in the bank
account of the person who has been issued
the cheque.
C. When there are insufficient funds in the bank
itself where the creditor and drawer go.
D. Both (A) and (B)
94. As per the given passage, the accused cannot
claim which of the following defences?
A. He had no reason to believe that the cheque
will bounce.
B. He had no mens rea to lay down a cheque
without sufficient funds in his bank account.
C. Section 140 is violative of Article 14 of the
Constitution of India.
D. All the above.
95. Which of the following is not a necessary
ingredient to establish offence under Section
138?
A. Insufficient funds in the bank account of the
drawer.
B. Cheque bounces when the payee goes to the
bank to encash the same.
C. Mens rea of the drawer is necessary to
establish the criminal offence.
D. None of the above.
96. Reason to believe cannot be a defence as per
which of the sections as laid down in the above
passage?
20

Test Code - ALP2101
A. Section 138 of the Negotiable Instruments
Act, 1881.
B. Section 140 of the Negotiable Instruments
Act, 1881.
C. Both (A) and (B)
D. Cannot be determined
97. The author is focussing on which of the important
points below regarding dishonour of cheques
under Negotiable Instruments Act?
A. That the defence cannot claim that he had
no reason to believe at the presentment of
the cheque that it will bounce due to
insufficient funds.
B. For dishonour of cheque section 138 of the
Negotiable Instrument Act can be invoked.
C. That Section 140 cannot be held as violative
of Article 14 of the Constitution of India.
D. None of the above.
Passage for Questions 98 to 102:
Under Criminal Law in India, the stages of a Crime
can be described as follows -
The intention is the first stage of any offence. In this
stage, the offender decides the motive and his course
or direction towards the offence. Intention denotes
conceiving the idea of performing a legally defined
harm or Mens Rea. Intention is the mental condition
of a person about the act to be done. It is the direction
of conduct towards the object chosen. Intention is a
necessary element and a pre-stage of crime. Without
intention no act can be committed. But mere intention
is not in itself a crime. If there is intention and in
furtherance of intention act has been done, then the
act is punishable as crime. Preparation is the second
stage. It means to arrange the necessary resources
for the execution of the intentional criminal act.
Intention and preparation alone are not enough to
constitute a crime. Preparation is not punishable
because in many cases the prosecution fails to prove
that the preparations in the question are for the
execution of this crime. Preparation consists of
arranging or building things that are needed to commit
the crime. At this stage, the intention to cause harm
starts manifesting itself in the form of physical actions,
it is however possible for the person to abandon his
course of action without causing any harm to anyone.
An attempt is a direct movement towards the
execution of a crime after the preparation of the plan.
According to law, a person is guilty of an attempt to
Abhyaas/Law Prep/Mock-01
LAW
commit an offence if he/she does an act which is
more than simply preparatory to the commission of
the offence. Moreover, a person is guilty of attempting
to commit an offence even though the facts are such
that the execution of the offence seems to be
impossible. Legal definition of attempt is the
penultimate act towards the commission of crime. If
the act does not achieve its objective because of the
existence of some circumstances independent to the
will of the accused, then it can be said that actual
crime or intended crime has not been committed. In
such cases only an attempt can be said to be
committed. The last stage accomplishment i.e.
commission of an offense is successful completion.
If the accused becomes successful in his attempt to
commit the crime, he will be guilty of the complete
offence. Moreover, if his attempt is unsuccessful, he
will be guilty of his attempt. In each of the following
questions, identify the stage of the crime, if any.
98. Ram buys a gun and keeps the same in his pocket
fully loaded in order to kill his enemy Rahim but
does nothing more.
A. Intention B. Preparation
C. Attempt D. Accomplishment
99. A fires at B with the intention to kill him, and B
dies.
A. Intention B. Preparation
C. Attempt D. Accomplishment
100. In the illustration mentioned in the previous
question, B is only injured.
A. Intention B. Preparation
C. Attempt D. Accomplishment
101. “A”, with the intention to kill B, purchases poison
from the market. He comes home and mixes
the poison in milk. But he has not served the
milk to B.
A. Intention B. Preparation
C. Attempt D. Accomplishment
102. A jeweler in order to make a false claim to an
insurance company pretended that his shop had
been burgled and informed the police
accordingly. The investigation was held by the
police in which the truth had come out that the
jeweler had wrongly claimed burglary.
A. Intention B. Preparation
C. Attempt D. Accomplishment
21

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Passage for Questions 103 to 107:
There are many constitutional issues with the ongoing
lockdown. The effect it has on the rights of people to
work to earn their daily wages might tantamount to a
violation of Article 21. Shutting off virtually all
businesses, in the absence of showing that this was
the least coercive method to achieving the goal of
stopping the spread of a virus, might violate Article
19(1)(g). Restrictions on people moving between
States would possibly be contrary to Article 19(1)(d).
It is, of course, certainly arguable that the measures
are justified in the face of the looming healthcare
emergency. Each of these Constitutional issues would
require greater examination by the Courts, which they
unfortunately may not receive. But this article intends
to examine only the validity of the legal tools used to
impose the lockdown.
The lockdown has been implemented using two pieces
of legislation – the Epidemic Diseases Act, 1897
(‘Epidemics Act’) and the Disaster Management Act,
2005 (‘Disaster Act’). Section 2 of the Epidemics
Act empowers the state government to “suggest such
temporary regulations to be observed by the
public…to prevent the outbreak of such disease or
the spread thereof”.
Various state governments have issued lockdown
orders using the powers conferred by the Epidemics
Act and also relied upon the Central Government’s
guidelines. However, a closer examination of the
actual notifications issued by the Centre does not
seem to support such a view.
The Prime Minister declared the lockdown on March
24, which was backed up by a notification issued under
the Disaster Act. T he notification by itself,
interestingly, does not explicitly restrict any movement
of persons and restricts itself to the closure of shops,
business and industrial establishments, schools, etc.
The guidelines have been issued by the National
Executive constituted Disaster Act under Section 10
(2)(l) of that Act. The provision empowers the
National Executive Committee to “lay down guidelines
for, or give directions to, the concerned Ministries or
Departments of the Government of India, the State
Governments and the State Authorities regarding
measures to be taken by them in response to any
threatening disaster situation or disaster”.
But perhaps the most worrying feature of the
guidelines is that that they seem to have been issued
Abhyaas/Law Prep/Mock-01
LAW
as though the framers consider themselves to have
untrammeled powers, which is an undesirable thing
to confer on anyone since it is antithetical to a
democracy. The Disaster Act has been applied as
though it gives the government emergency powers
of unimaginable amplitude.
Even when an Emergency is declared under Article
352 of the Constitution, there is parliamentary
supervision. In the case of the guidelines and orders
issued under the Disaster Management Act, there is
virtually no control or supervision by any authority. It
is, in effect, the imposition of an Emergency without
complying with the process provided for in the
Constitution.
https://www.barandbench.com/columns/does-the-
current-legal-framework-support-the-orders-passed-
during-coronavirus-lockdown
103. If a person sues the government for infringing
her fundamental rights during the state imposition
of a lockdown, following a surge in the number
of cases affected by a lethal virus, which of the
following would strengthen her case based on
the mentioned legal principles? The lockdown
has been imposed on the lines of the above
passage.
A. Since the center is the ultimate law making
authority, every law it makes has a just
reason.
B. Due to the lockdown, the government directly
curbed the right to movement as prescribed
in the constitution.
C. The procedure in which the state has
enforced the lockdown is legally hollow.
D. It is the right of each person to get infected
or not to get infected, so the orders blatantly
violate the rights of the citizens.
104. In the above-mentioned scenario, which of the
following arguments would strengthen the state’s
case?
A. The government has untrammeled powers on
the public safety and hence it can issue any
orders.
B. The above measures are shown to be
justified in the face of the looming healthcare
emergency.
C. The imposition of lockdown of the
government is valid because the center took
the cue from the international community.
22

Test Code - ALP2101
D. The Central Government can advise the State
Authorities regarding measures need to be
taken by them in response to any threatening
disaster situation or disaster.
105. In the wake of a major gas leak that claimed
thousands of lives, the government of India
passed a law that that granted absolute
discr etionary powers with minimum
accountability to DCPs of the respective zones
to contain the chaos. Solely based on the
arguments put forth by the author, would such a
law be just in the view of the author?
A. Yes, because in looming healthcare-like
emergency, the executive must be given
absolute powers to ameliorate the situation.
B. No, because even during the gravest
situations such as Emergency, the bodies have
parliamentary supervision.
C. Yes, because during such hazardous
situations, the police need full discretionary
powers to control the situation.
D. No, because the parliament lacks the power
for doing and it would be violative of the
constitution.
106. If in the eve of the coronavirus outbreak, the
state of Telangana invoked section 2 of the
Epidemics Act and prescribed to close all the
businesses and stop moving out of their state,
would it amount to violation of anyone’s
fundamental rights?
A. Yes, because restrictions on people moving
between States would possibly be contrary
to Article 19(1)(d).
B. Yes, because no government has the right to
take away one’s fundamental rights even
during a pandemic.
C. No, because it is the government that has to
be vigilant of any virus outbreak so it can’t
request the citizens to participate for its
termination.
D. No, because mere flaunting of suggestions
doesn’t amount to violation of the
fundamental rights.
107. Which of the following is the author of the given
passage most likely to agree with?
A. The author equates the powers conferred to
the national executive with the emergency
provisions.
B. Though the center has not issued any explicit
guidelines relating to free movement of
Abhyaas/Law Prep/Mock-01
LAW
persons, states have imposed such
restrictions.
C. Various government rightly issued lockdown
orders that relied upon the Central
Governments guidelines.
D. Section 2 of the Epidemics Act confers full
power on the state to impose a lockdown or
any measures to stifle the spread of the
pandemic.
Section IV
Logical Reasoning
Passage for Questions 108 to 112:
It is human nature to lie to yourself and almost
everyone does it. Most people lie to themselves
because it’s easier to judge other people’s faults than
their own. So, people lying to themselves seems to
be widespread and acceptable in our society. What
comes from telling the truth to yourself then? Starting
from the premise that truthfulness means that your
thoughts and reality are the same, would mean that
lying is contrary to reality.
Another way you may be regularly lying to yourself
is through rationalization. Rationalization is a defence
mechanism in which controversial behaviours or
feelings are justified and explained in a seemingly
rational or logical manner to avoid the true
explanation. We rationalize our thoughts based on
such things as personal biases, fear, or even
upbringing. Think about the way you react to
situations. Be ready to change! Change is the most
important way to begin telling the truth to yourself.One
very important thing that comes from telling the truth
to yourself is accepting responsibility. Are you
sometimes allowed to take a step back from the truth
and not want to be responsible? Of course! In your
loneliness, you might even consider the possibility of
getting back together with your abusive partner. What
comes of telling the truth to yourself in this situation
is that in assessing the situation honestly, you will
realize that although it is difficult, moving forward is
the only option. Being honest requires deliberate effort
on a daily basis and tolerating some potentially painful
realizations. However, it’s actually less painful than
lying to yourself because when you lie you must hide
from at least a small part of yourself. The part that
knows you’re lying.
[Source (edited): What Comes from Telling the Truth
to Yourself? Fine to Fab]
23

Test Code - ALP2101
108. Which of the following logically explains the
author ’s answer to ‘why do people lie to
themselves’?
A. Lying to one’s own selves helps people in
ignoring their own faults and finding a
comfortable scapegoat
. B. Because, lying to themselves brings people
close to the reality of the life they are living
in.
C. Since no one can listen to their inner voices
when people lie, they prefer to lie to
themselves.
D. Because when everyone is lying, you will be
fooled if you don’t lie to others.
109. Which of the following examples fits well in the
author ’s schematic explanation of
‘rationalisation’?
A. “Yeah, I agree I shouldn’t have delayed my
work, it was my fault I agree.”
B. “What is the rationale behind lying, the
better thing is to accept my fault and learn
from it.”
C. “No, I am not angry otherwise, it’s just my
zodiac sign Leo that makes me lose my
temper sometimes.”
D. “I could not visit the gym yesterday because
it was raining heavily”.
110. What could be inferred from the author ’s
definition of the ‘truthfulness’?
A. To accept only what you fervently believe
in.
B. To accept what is happening in reality.
C. To accept what fits well with our beliefs and
biases.
D. To accept things which are contrary to
reality, if one has determination to change
what is written in their faith.
111. Which of the following statements is one of the
logical assumptions made in the passage, by the
author?
A. People do not like to be acceptable in
society, if they have to lie for it.
B. No one has a justification when they are
lying for something.
C. People want to find their faults and correct
them, instead of playing blame games.
D. Whenever people lie, they somewhere have
this realisation that they have a choice to
speak the truth.
Abhyaas/Law Prep/Mock-01
LAW
112. Which of the following, if true, most weakens
the author’s arguments about moving forward?
A. Sometimes telling the truth to yourself is more
devastating than living in a lie.
B. It takes a minimal amount of efforts to be
truthful to yourself.
C. There is always a sense of realisation in the
person who is lying, about their lies.
D. All the above
Passage for Questions 113 to 117:
When we make decisions, we make mistakes. The
mathematician John von Neumann, helped jump-start
research into decision making with his notion of
“expected utility.” Expected utility is what results from
combining imagined events with probabilities. Multiply
the likelihood of a result against the gains that would
accrue, and you get a number, expected utility, to guide
your decisions. Von Neumann built his analysis around
the game of poker, in which potential gains are easily
quantifiable. In lots of life decisions, it’s much harder.
So, what is the right way to think about making
decisions? For big, expensive projects for which
reasonably reliable data is available—deciding
whether to build an oil refinery, or whether to go to
an expensive graduate school, or whether to undergo
a medical procedure—the techniques of decision
analysis are invaluable. They are also useful in
negotiations and group decisions. Those who have
used decision analysis for years say they find
themselves putting it to work even for fast judgments.
A firefighter running into a burning building doesn’t
have time for even a quick decision tree, yet if he is
experienced enough his intuition will often lead him
to excellent decisions. Many other fields are similarly
conducive to intuition built through years of practice.
The fields where this rule best applies tend to be
stable. The behaviour of tennis balls or violins or even
fire won’t suddenly change and render experience
invalid.
Management is a mix of situations that repeat
themselves, in which experience-based intuitions are
invaluable, and new situations, in which such intuitions
are worthless. It involves projects whose risks and
potential returns lend themselves to calculations but
also includes groundbreaking endeavors for which
calculations are likely to mislead. At the very cutting
edge of business, it may be that good decision making
looks a little like the dynamic between Star Trek’s
Captain Kirk and Mr. Spock, with Spock reciting the
24

Test Code - ALP2101
preposterously long odds of success and Kirk
confidently barging ahead, Spock still at his side.
113. According to the passage, what can you infer
as the challenge in calculating the expected
utility?
A. The gains cannot always be quantified
B. The likelihood of the result cannot be
predicted all the time
C. Both (A) and (B)
D. None of the above
114. According to the passage, heuristics-and-biases
based decision analysis is very useful in all the
situations except
A. The decision to go ahead with a surgery or
not
B. Negotiating with a vendor
C. How much money to put in a parking meter
D. How long will a marriage last
115. Which of the following statements would the
author be least likely to agree with?
A. Management decision to start a new venture
in a hitherto unexplored field cannot be made
using intuition.
B. Management decisions in situations that
occur frequently can be made using intuition.
C. Fields where the behaviour of the variables
is stable are best suited for using intuition.
D. When extensive experience leads to
expertise, intuition leads to fast
decision- making.
116. What is the author trying to convey in the
example from Star Trek?
A. Overconfidence in one’s judgment based on
intuition is the hallmark of successful leaders
as Captain Kirk proceeds in spite of a
different opinion by Spock based on
heuristics.
B. A successful leader follows a heuristic
approach to decision-making as Captain Kirk
bases his decision on the inputs provided by
Spock.
C. One should have confidence in the leader’s
judgment as Spock follows Captain Kirk even
though he did not follow the advice given by
him.
D. Spock is a very dynamic person endowed with
the capabilities of meticulous calculations and
heuristics
Abhyaas/Law Prep/Mock-01
LAW
117. Which of the following is not mentioned as one
of the various types of situations in
management to justify multiple decision
strategies?
A. Situations in which the risks and returns can
be quantified
B. Familiar situations where experience helps
in leading to intuitive decisions
C. Innovative ventures where the statistics could
be misleading.
D. Tricky situations which demand out of the
box solutions.
Passage for Questions 118 to 121:
Archaeology as a profession faces two major
problems. First, only paltry sums are available for
excavating and even less is available for publishing
the results and preserving the sites once excavated.
Second, there is the problem of illegal excavation,
resulting in museum-quality pieces being sold to the
highest bidder.
I have a suggestion that would provide funds for
archaeology and reduce the amount of illegal digging.
Scientific archaeological expeditions and
governmental authorities should sell excavated
artifacts on the open market. Such sales would
provide substantial funds. At the same time, they
would break the illegal excavator’s grip on the market,
thereby decreasing the inducement to engage in illegal
activities.
Professionals excavate to acquire knowledge, not
money. Moreover, ancient artifacts are part of our
global cultural heritage, which should be available for
all to appreciate, not sold to the highest bidder. So
sell nothing that has unique artistic merit or scientific
value. There are thousands of pottery vessels and
ancient lamps that are essentially duplicates of one
another. In one small excavation in Cyprus,
archaeologists recently uncovered 2,000 virtually
indistinguishable small jugs in a single courtyard. The
basements of museums are not large enough to store
the artifacts that are likely to be discovered in the
future. Sold artifacts could be more accessible than
are the pieces stored in bulging museum basements.
Prior to sale, each could be photographed and the list
of the purchasers could be maintained on a computer.
A purchaser could even be required to agree to return
the piece if it should become needed for scientific
purposes.
25

Test Code - ALP2101
Illegal digging may not stop if artifacts were sold on
the open market. But the demand for the clandestine
product would be substantially reduced. Who would
want an unmarked pot when another was available
whose provenance was known, and that was dated
stratigraphically by the professional archaeologist
who excavated it?
118. Which of the following is mentioned in the
passage as a disadvantage of storing artifacts
in museum basements?
A. Museum officials rarely allow scholars
access to such artifacts.
B. Space that could be better used for display is
taken up for storage.
C. Such artifacts are often damaged by
variations in temperature and humidity.
D. Such artifacts often remain uncatalogued and
thus cannot be located once they are put in
storage.
119. The author mentions the excavation in Cyprus
to emphasize which of the following points?
A. Ancient lamps and pottery vessels are less
valuable, although more rare, than royal seal
impressions.
B. Artifacts that are not uniquely valuable, and
therefore could be sold, are available in large
quantities.
C. Cyprus is the most important location for
unearthing large quantities of salable artifacts.
D. Illegal sales of duplicate artifacts are
wide-spread, particularly on the island of
Cyprus.
120. The authors argument concerning the effect of
the official sale of duplicate artifacts on illegal
excavation is based on which of the following
assumptions?
A. Prospective purchasers would prefer to buy
authenticated artifacts.
B. The price of illegally excavated artifacts
would rise.
C. Computers could be used to trace sold
artifacts.
D. Money gained from selling authenticated
artifacts could be used to investigate and
prosecute illegal excavators.
121. The author implies that all of the following
statements about duplicate artifacts are true
EXCEPT:
A. A market for such artifacts already exists.
Abhyaas/Law Prep/Mock-01
LAW
B. Such artifacts seldom have scientific value.
C. Museums are well supplied with examples
of such artifacts.
D. Such artifacts frequently exceed in quality
those already catalogued in museum
collections.
Passage for Questions 122 to 126:
The stock market crash signalled the beginning of
the Great Depression, but it was only one factor
among many root causes of the Depression. A weak
banking system, further collapse in already-low farm
prices, and industrial overproduction each contributed
to the economic downturn. As the effects of the
Depression cascaded across the US economy,
millions of people lost their jobs. By 1930 there were
4.3 million unemployed; by 1931, 8 million; and in 1932
the number had risen to 12 million. Out of work
Americans filled long breadlines, begged for food, or
sold apples on street corners. More than a third of
the nation’s banks failed in the three years following
1929. Long lines of desperate and despairing people
outside banks hoping to retrieve their savings were
common. Many ordinary citizens lost their life savings
when banks failed. Farmers were hit particularly hard
by the crisis. On top of falling prices for crops, a
devastating drought in Oklahoma, Texas, and Kansas
brought on a series of dust storms known as the Dust
Bowl. African Americans suffered significantly higher
levels of unemployment than whites due to pervasive
racism.
President Hoover initially held his belief in minimal
government interference in the economy, as well as
a conviction that direct public relief to individuals
would turn people away from the work-ethic, and
lead them to develop a dependency on government
handouts. By 1931, Hoover reversed his earlier
approach and embraced government intervention in
the economy. The 1932 Reconstruction Finance
Corporation (RFC) authorized the lending of $2 billion
to banks, railroads, and other privately held
companies, and in July 1932 the federal government
appropriated $300 million for the nation’s first relief
and public works projects.
For many, however, these actions were too little, too
late. Shantytowns of makeshift hovels—disparagingly
labelled “Hoovervilles” in disgust with the president’s
inaction in the face of crisis—grew up across the
country in public parks and in vacant lots, as the out-
of-work, unable to pay mortgages or rent, were
evicted from their homes.
26

Test Code - ALP2101
In November 1932, Franklin D. Roosevelt was
elected president in a landslide, winning 57.4% of
the vote to Hoover’s 39.7%.
[Source (edited): The Great Depression, Khan
Academy]
122. Which of the following facts, if true, most
weakens the statement “these actions were too
little, too late”?
A. The Reconstruction Finance Corporation
(RFC) in its first few months, helped revive
45% of the defunct banks, which reduced
the burden on the substantial population of
low wagers.
B. By 1931, the foreign market had pegged the
American markets for a drowning ship, in
which any investment would only result in
further losses.
C. Both (A) and (B).
D. Neither (A) nor (B)
123. Which of the following can be inferred from
the statement “African Americans suffered
significantly higher levels of unemployment than
whites due to pervasive racism”?
A. Africans American, being the lowest in the
rung of civil society, find it hardest to get
employment.
B. Since White people are more productive than
Africans, it was very easy for them to find
jobs.
C. It was very easy for the White people to get
the jobs.
D. The economic crunch was so bad, that both
Whites and African Americans felt the exact
same effect of it, in terms of unemployment.
124. Which of the following cannot be reasonably
inferred from the election result of
November 1932?
A. The majority of the middle-class, suffering
from the Economic Depression, had lost the
confidence in Hoover.
B. By the time Hoover’s policy could come into
action, the Stock Markets had already
recovered substantially.
C. The construction of RFCs was received by
public as a measure which came at a time
when the harm had already been done.
D. Roosevelt had become a popular choice,
because of inactions of Hoover.
Abhyaas/Law Prep/Mock-01
LAW
125. What role does the statement “Long lines of
desperate and despairing people outside banks
hoping to retrieve their savings were common”
play for the statement “Many ordinary citizens
lost their life savings when banks failed”?
A Inference B Assumption
C Premise D Conclusion
126. Which of the following examples are similar to
the problem reflected in the statement “On top
of falling prices for crops, a devastating drought
in Oklahoma, Texas, and Kansas brought on a
series of dust storms known as the Dust Bowl”?
A. The already creaky economy took a strong
blow when the novel CoronaVirus hit the
masses to worsen the situation.
B. Mr. X had been seeing huge losses in his
food-truck business, and the rumour that his
truck was contaminated damaged the
business ever further.
C. Both (A) and (B).
D. Neither (A) nor (B).
Direction for Questions 127 to 131:
Eight friends L, M, N, O, P, Q, R and S are sitting in
a straight line. Some of them face North while some
of them face South.
A. M sits third to the right of L who sits at one of
the extreme ends of the row.
B. Only two persons sit between M and P.
C. S sits third to the right of N who sits second to
the left of R.
D. P is facing the same direction as M, but oppo-
site as O who sits to the immediate right of Q.
E. R is facing South and is not an immediate
neighbour of M.
F. O sits third to the left of S.
G. Q is facing the opposite direction as that of M.
127. Who amongst the following is sitting exactly
between Q and P?
A. L B. N
C. S D. M
128. Who amongst the following sits third to the left
of Q?
A. P B. O
C. L D. R
129. Three of the following are alike in a certain way
so form a group, which among the following
does not belong to that group?
27
 LAW
Test Code - ALP2101
A. L B. M Direction for Questions 135 to 136:
C. S D. R The question consists of one statement and two
assumptions I and II. Examine them carefullly and
130. How many people sit between L and R? choose the correct option. Mark your answer as
A. Four B. Three A. If only Assumption I is implicit
C. None D. Two B. If only Assumption II is implicit
C. If both Assumption I and II are implicit
131. Who among the following sits fourth to the right D. If neither Assumption I nor II is implicit
of N?
A. L B. M 135. Statement: If water pollution continues at its
C. O D. Q present rate, it will eventually make oxygen
molecules unavailable to water plants.
Direction for Questions 132 to 134: Assumption:
Each of the following questions contains six I. Water pollution affects the growth of water
statements followed by four sets of options plants.
containing three statements each. Choose that set as II. Water pollution reduces the availability of
your answer in which the third statement can be oxygen in water.
logically deducted from the previous two.
136. Statement: Detergents should be used to clean
132. A. All students are smart clothes.
B. Few students are wise. Assumption:
C. Some wise are students. I: Detergents form more lather.
D. All smart are wise. II: Detergents help to dislodge grease and dirt.
E. No wise is a student.
F. No smart is a student.
A. AEF B. AFC
C. ADC D. BEF

133. A. Races are faces.

B. All faces are paces.
C. No faces are races.
D. No faces are paces.
E. All races are paces.
F. All paces are races.
A. ABE B. FAB
C. AFE D. DBE

134. A. All Pills are capsules.

B. No capsules are pills.
C. Some medicines are capsules.
D. Some pills are medicines.
E. All pills are medicines.
F. Some medicines are not capsules.
A. ADF B. BEF
C. ACD D. CDB

Abhyaas/Law Prep/Mock-01 28
 LAW
Test Code - ALP2101
Section V
Quantitative Techniques

Passage for Questions 137 to 141:

Study the following table chart carefully and answer the questions given beside.The following table given
below gives the information about the number of cars (in ‘00s) of different models and colours sold in Delhi,
Mumbai, and Kolkata.

137. What is the difference between the cars of model A sold in all the cities together and the cars of model
E sold in all the citites together?
A. 8300 B. 8700 C. 8500 D. 8900

138. The number of white coloured cars sold in the city Delhi of the models C and D together is equal to the
number of Silver cars sold of which two models together in the city Kolkata?
A. A and E B. B and D C. A and D D. C and B

139. What is the difference between the number of black coloured cars sold of model B,C and E together in
Mumbai and the number of white coloured cars of model A and D together in Kolkata?
A. 1500 B. 500 C. 900 D. 1200

140. The number of white cars sold in Mumbai and Kolkata together is how much more than the the number
of white cars sold in Delhi?
A. 12300 B. 12700 C. 11900 D. 12100

141. What is the ratio of silver coloured cars sold of model B and C together in Delhi to the white coloured
cars sold of model D and E together in Kolkata?
A. 25 : 81 B. 25 : 83 C. 25 : 82 D. 25 : 84

Abhyaas/Law Prep/Mock-01 29
 LAW
Test Code - ALP2101
Passage for Questions 142 to 145:
Study the following pie chart carefully and answer the questions given beside.
Given pie chart shows the part of iron ore mined by 6 different machines in a day.
Total amount of iron ore that is mined in a day by 6 machines is 200 kg.

Given pie chart shows the wasted per cent of iron ore which is mined by 6 different machines in a day while
extracting Iron from them.
Total amount of wasted iron ore in a day which is mined by 6 machines together is 25 kg.

Amount of mined Iron ore = Extracted amount of Iron + Wasted amount of Iron ore.

142. What is total amount of Iron extracted from the Iron ore which is mined by the machine C and E
together?
A. 59 kg B. 25 kg C. 66 kg D. 54 kg

143. What is the difference between the total amount of Iron extracted from Iron ore mined by machine D
and total amount of Iron ore wasted by machine B and F together?
A. 17 kg B. 10 kg C. 8 kg D. 9 kg

144. Find that total wasted amount of Iron ore mined by machine A and C together is what per cent of total
amount of Iron ore mined by machine F alone?
A.22% B. 28% C. 24% D. 20%

145. Cost of Iron ore after mining is Rs.200 per kg and cost of Iron after extracting from Iron ore is Rs.250
per kg, then find the per cent profit of a person if he sold the Iron extracted from Iron ore mined by
machine B instead of Iron ore mined by machine B itself.
A. 8% B. 12.50% C. 18.50% D. 15%
Abhyaas/Law Prep/Mock-01 30
 LAW
Test Code - ALP2101
Passage for Questions 146 to 150:
Answer the questions based on the given line graph.Ratio of Exports to Imports (in terms of money in Rs.
crores) of Two Companies Over the Years

146. In how many of the given years were the exports more than the imports for Company A?
A.2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5

147. If the imports of Company A in 1997 were increased by 40 percent, what would be the ratio of exports
to the increased imports?
A.1.2 B.1.25 C. 1.3 D. cannot be determined

148. If the exports of Company A in 1998 were Rs. 237 crores, what was the amount of imports in that
year?
A. Rs. 189.6 crores B. Rs. 243 crores C. Rs. 281 crores D. Rs. 316 crores

149. In 1995, the export of Company A was double that of Company B. If the imports of Company A during
the year was Rs. 180 crores, what was the approximate amount of imports pf Company B during that
year?
A. Rs. 190 crores B. Rs. 210 crores
C. Rs. 225 crores D. Cannot be determined

150. In which year(s) was the difference between impors and exports of Company B the maximum?
A. 2000 B. 1996 C. 1998 and 2000 D. Cannot be determined

***

Abhyaas/Law Prep/Mock-01 31