AH|RCT-9 [1]

01/04/2021
AH

Achiever
MM : 720 Regular Classroom Test - 9 Time : 3 Hrs.

Topics Covered :
Physics : Electrostates & Capacitance

Chemistry : Periodic table, Carbocation & Free radical reaction

Biology : Molecular basis of inheritance, Human health & diseases, Environmental issue

PHYSICS
1. Coulomb’s law is applicable for
 mgd 
(1) Point and stationary charges (1)   positive in nature
 V 
(2) Any stationary charges
(3) Point moving charges  mg 
(2)   positive in nature
(4) Any moving charges  Vd 
2. A total charge Q is broken into two parts Q1 and Q2
(3) 
placed at a distance R. The maximum repulsion mgd 
 negative in nature
occurs when  V 

Q 4Q Q 2Q (4) None of these

(1) Q2  ; Q1  (2) Q2  ; Q1 
5 5 3 3 4. Three large parallel plates of different surface charge
densities are shown in figure. At which point electric
Q 3Q Q Q field is maximum?
(3) Q2  ; Q1  (4) Q1  ; Q2 
4 4 2 2
+
3. Electric field between two parallel plates A and B is C + A B D
+
V +
in vertically downward direction. An oil drop of
d +
mass (m) remain stationary between plates. The  –2 3
charge q on the oil drop is (1) A (2) B

A (3) C (4) D
5. Angle between electric field at equatorial point of an
V m q d
electric dipole and its dipole moment is
B (1) 0° (2) 90°

(3) 180° (4) tan1 2

AH|RCT-9 [2]
6. Six identical dipoles with charges of magnitude q are 9. A negatively charged pendulum is oscillating in a
placed inside a hollow sphere. The total electric flux uniform electric field pointing upwards. Its time
coming out of the sphere is period as compared to that when it oscillates without
electric field
6q 12q
(1) 0 (2) 0 (1) Starts fluctuating (2) Remains unchanged
(3) 120q (4) Zero
(3) Is less (4) Is more
7. A soap bubble is given a negative charge, then its
radius 10. Two conducting spheres of different radii having the
(1) Decreases charges q1, q2 and potential energies U1 and U2
(2) Increases respectively. When they are joined by a conducting
wire, then
(3) Remains same
(4) First increase then decrease (1) Only charge remains conserved
(2) Only potential energy remains conserved
y + -
(3) Charge is conserved but potential energy may be
conserved
I II III
(4) Both charge and potential energy are conserved
8.
11. Potential energy of a dipole is maximum for an angle 
x
x =0 d 2d 3d of dipole moment with the electric field. The angle  is
(1) 90° (2) 60°
Two infinite sheets of charge are placed as shown in
figure. Variation of Electric field in the regions I, II (3) 180° (4) 0°
and III can be correctly shown by the graph 12. The maximum potential upto which an air capacitor
of capacity 12 F and plate separator 2 mm is
E charged is (Dielectric strength of air is 3 × 106 V/m)
(1) 3000 V (2) 1500 B

(1) (3) 4500 V (4) 6000 V

x 13. Equi-potential surfaces for infinite plane uniformly
0 d 2d 3d
charged sheet are
(1) Spherical
E
(2) Planes perpendicular to the sheet
(3) Planes parallel to the sheet
(2)
x (4) Planes not parallel to the sheet
0 d 2d 3d
14. An isolated hollow conducting sphere of radius r has
charge q. Potential at its centre is V1. Another hollow
E conducting sphere of radius 2r has same amount of
charge and potential at its centre is V2 then
d 2d 3d x (1) V1 = V2 (2) V1 = 2V2
(3) 0
(3) V2 = 2V1 (4) V1 = V2 = 0
15. Electrostatic potential at the centre of a semicircular
ring of radius R and linear charge density  is

E  2
(1) 4 (2) 4
0 0

(4) x
0 d 2d 3d  
(3) 2 R (4) 4 R
0 0
AH|RCT-9 [3]
 21. The amount of work done by electric field to
16. An electric field E  (iˆ  2 jˆ  kˆ ) N/C is existing in
displacing the charges q from A to B in the given
the region. Potential difference between two points figure is (Q = 2 C and q = 1 C)
P(0, 0, 0) and Q(1, 1, 1) is
y
(1) 1 V (2) 6 V (0, 3) q
A
(3) 3 V (4) Zero B (4, 3)
17. Electrostatic field lines are x
Q
(1) Always parallel to the equipotential surface
(2) May be parallel to the equipotential surface (1) –2.4 mJ (2) 6 mJ
(3) Always perpendicular to the equipotential surface (3) 3.4 mJ (4) 2.4 mJ
22. Charge density on positive plate of a parallel plate
(4) May be perpendicular to the equipotential surface
capacitor is  and separation between the plates is
18. A short electric dipole having dipole moment p is d. Potential difference between the plates is
placed at origin with its dipole moment directed
along +ve y-direction. Electrostatic potential due to d d
(1) 2 (2) 0
this dipole at point A(a, 0) is 0

1 p 1 2p 2d 
(1) 4  2 (2) 4  2 (3) (4) d 
0 a 0 a 0 0

23. Dielectrics are

1 p
(3) 4  3 (4) Zero (1) Conductors in the form of liquid
0 a
(2) Conductors
19. A conducting sphere of radius 2 cm is surrounded (3) Non-conductors for any value of the field
by another concentric hollow sphere of radius 5 cm
as shown. Outer sphere is given a charge 8 C. (4) Non-conductors upto certain limit of electric field
Charge on inner sphere, when switch S is closed is 24. In the shown circuit when switch S is closed,
amount of charge flown through it, is

++ 8 C S

S C C
2 cm

C
5 cm 
C
(1) C (2)
4
(1) Zero (2) –8 C
C
(3) (4) Zero
8 16 2
(3)  C (4)  C
7 5
25. Two concentric hollow spheres of radii a and 2a are
20. A conducting sphere having capacitance C is shown in the figure. Charge on them are 2q and q
charged to potential 2V and connected to another respectively. Potential difference between them is
charged conducting sphere having capacitance 2C + +
and potential V. Common potential is
2a
3 + + + +
(1) 3V (2) V
2 + a +
2q
+ + + +
2 4
(3) V (4) V q
3 3
+ +
AH|RCT-9 [4]
(1) Decreased
1 2q 1 q
(1) (2) (2) Increased
40 a 40 2a
(3) Increased or decreased depend on polarity of
battery connected
1 3q 1 q
(3) (4) (4) Remains same
40 2a 40 a
30. The two capacitors C1 and C2 are connected in
26. Two parallel plate capacitors of capacitance C and series and variation of potential between the plates
2C are connected in series with a cell of emf E as are as shown in the graph. Then
shown. Potential difference across the capacitor of
capacitance C is V 1 . Now a dielectric slab of
dielectric constant 2 is inserted between the plates
of this capacitor to completely fill the space between V
them. If new potential difference between its two 1 2 3 4
2V
plates is V2, then V1 – V2 is equal to
C2
V
C 2C
C1
x
0 1 2 3 4

(1) C1 > C2
(2) C1 < C2
E
(3) C1 = C2
(4) C1 may be greater or smaller depend on the
E 2E strength of battery
(1) (2)
3 3
31. Two identical uncharged capacitors each of 100 F
capacity are connected with a cell of emf 1 kV as
E E shown. When key is closed, total energy supplied by
(3) (4)
8 6 cell in the charging of two capacitors is

27. The conducting sphere of radius R has surface C1 = 100 F C2 = 100 F

charge density . Electrostatic potential at the centre
of the sphere is

R R
(1) (2)
20 40

K E = 1000 V
R R
(3) (4)
20 0 (1) 100 J (2) 500 J
28. Electric potential difference for a perpendicular (3) 25 J (4) 50 J
distance r from an uniform infinite sheet of charge is 32. A spherical capacitor having two concentric hollow
V. Electric potential difference for a perpendicular spheres of radii r and 2r as shown in figure has
distance 2r from same sheet is capacitance C is equal to

V
(1) (2) 2V
2
r
V
(3) V (4)
4 2r
29. If the plates of charged capacitor are dipped in a
dielectric liquid partially such that one plate is
completely inside the liquid and other is in air. Then (1) 20r (2) 40r
the level of dielectric liquid between the plates is (3) 60r (4) 80r
AH|RCT-9 [5]
33. Electrostatic energy of two point charges kept at 38. Variation of electric potential with distance along
some distance r in air is U. If they are placed at the x-axis is shown. What is electric field at a point
separation r  in a medium of dielectric constant 2, between x = 1m to x = 2 m?
and the energy remains same, then value of new
separation r  is (volt)

(1) r (2) 2r

r r 15
(3) (4)
2 2
x (m)
(0,0) 1m 2m3m
34. A piece of isolated metal of irregular shape is given
a charge q which resides on its surface. Its surface N N
will be a (1) 2.5 (2) 2
C C
(1) Uniformly charged surface
N
(2) Equipotential surface (3) Zero (4) 5
C
(3) Zero potential surface 39. A hollow conducting sphere of radius R is given a
(4) Both (1) & (2) charge q. Another point charge q is taken from
35. A dielectric slab is inserted between the plates of a centre to surface. Work done in the process is
parallel plate capacitor. Electric field due to induced + +

charge on dielectric is E and due to charge on the
 + +
plates is E , then
  q R
(1) E is parallel to E O
  + +
(2) E is antiparallel to E q
  + +
(3) E is perpendicular to E
(4) E = 0 1 q2 1 2q 2
(1) (2)
36. Space between the plates of a parallel plate 40 R 40 R
capacitor of capacitance C is filled with three
identical dielectric slabs of dielectric constants K, 2K 1 q2
(3) (4) Zero
and 3K respectively as shown net capacitance of the 4 0 2R
capacitor is
40. A dielectric slab is inserted between the plates of an
isolated charged parallel plate capacitor. Which of
K the following will not change?
2K (1) Capacitance

3K (2) Voltage across the plates

(3) Charge on the plates
(1) KC (2) 2KC
(4) Energy stored
(3) 3KC (4) 4KC
41. Capacity of given set of plates between the points a
37. A voltage V is applied across a combination of two and b is (area of each plate is A)
capacitors having capacitance C and 2C. Ratio of
charges on their positive plates is
C 2C 1.5d
a b
d

V
20 A 5 0 A
1 (1) (2)
(1) (2) 2 d 3 d
2
3 0 A 0 A
3 (3) (4)
(3) (4) 1 2 2 d
2
AH|RCT-9 [6]
42. The energy stored on the capacitor of capacity 2 F 2C 4C 4C
at steady state is A
2 F 4C
C
3 F
4C
4 F B
2C 2C
12V (1) 4C (2) 2C
(1) 32 J (2) 48 J
C
(3) C (4)
(3) 288 J (4) 16 J 2
45. Variation of potential (V) with distance (r) from centre
43. A particle of charge q and mass m is released from
of a uniform spherical volume distribution of charge
rest in a uniform electric field E. Energy of the
in air is shown by
particle after time t is
V V
qE 2
qE 2
(1) t (2) t
2m 2m (1) (2)
r r
qE 2 q 2E 2 2
(3) t (4) t
2m 2m V V

44. Net capacitance between A and B in the shown

network is (3) (4)
r r

CHEMISTRY
46. Modern periodic table is based on atomic no. 49. The correct order of atomic size of C, N, P, S
experiments which proved importance of at no. follows the order -
was
(1) N < C < S < P (2) N < C < P < S
(1) Braggs work on X-ray diffraction
(3) C < N < S < P (4) C < N < P < S
(2) Moseleys work on X-ray spectrum
50. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer
(3) Mulliken’s oil drop experiment using the codes given below -
(4) Lother meyer curve plotted between at vol. & at wt.
List-I List-II
47. From the list given below, elements which belongs to
Ion Radius (in pm)
the same group or sub-group are -
(I) Li+ (1) 216
(1) Atomic number = 12, 20, 4, 88
(II) Na+ (2) 195
(2) Atomic number = 8, 16, 34, 2
(III) Br– (3) 60
(3) Atomic number = 11, 18, 27, 5
(4) Atomic number = 24, 47, 42, 55 (IV) I– (4) 95

48. In the general electronic configuration - Codes :

(n – 2)f1–14 (n – 1)d0–1 ns2, if value of n = 7 the I II III IV

configuration will be - (1) a b d c
(1) Lanthenides (2) b c a d
(2) Actinides (3) c d b a
(3) Transition elements (4) d c b a
(4) None
AH|RCT-9 [7]
51. Correct orders of Ist I.P. are - 59. The correct values of ionization enthalpies (in kJ
(i) Li < B < Be < C (ii) O < N < F mol–1) of Si, P, Cl and S respectively are -
(iii) Be < N < Ne (1) 786, 1012, 999, 1256
(1) (i), (ii) (2) (ii), (iii) (2) 1012, 786, 999, 1256

(3) (i), (iii) (4) (i), (ii), (iii) (3) 786, 1012, 1256, 999

52. A sudden large jump between the values of 2nd (4) 786, 999, 1012, 1256
and 3rd IP of an element would be associated with 60. Consider the following changes -
the electronic configuration-
A  A+ + e– : E1 and A+  A2 + e– : E2
(1) 1s2, 2s 2 2p6, 3s 1
The energy required to pull out the two electrons
(2) 1s2, 2s 2 2p6, 3s 2 3p5 are E1 and E2 respectively. The correct relationship
(3) 1s2, 2s 2 2p6, 3s 2 3p2 between two energies would be -

(4) 1s2, 2s 2 2p6 3s 2 (1) E1 < E2 (2) E1 = E2

53. A given molecule X2 whose bond length is 1.8 Å. (3) E1 > E2 (4) E1  E2
Calculate the covalent radius of an atom X 61. Fluorine has low electron affinity than chlorine
(1) 0.7 Å (2) 0.9 Å because of -

(3) 1.8 Å (4) 1.0 Å (1) Smaller radius of fluorine, high density

54. In the formation of a chloride ion, from an isolated (2) Smaller radius of chlorine, high density
gaseous chlorine atom, 3.8 eV energy is released, (3) Bigger radius of fluorine, less density
which would be equal to -
(4) Smaller radius of chlorine, less density
(1) Electron affinity of Cl–
62. Arrange N, O and S in order of decreasing electron
(2) Ionisation potential of Cl affinity -
(3) Electronegativity of Cl (1) S > O > N (2) O > S > N
(4) Ionisation potential of Cl– (3) N > O > S (4) S > N > O
55. The correct order of electron affinity is - 63. Which of the following is wrong -
(1) Be < B < C < N (2) Be < N < B < C (1) NH3 < PH3 < AsH3  Acidic character

(3) N < Be < C < B (4) N < C < B < Be (2) Li < Be < B < C  IE1

56. Which of the following process energy is liberated (3) Al2O3 < MgO < Na2O < K2O  Basic character
(4) Li+ < Na+ < K+ < Cs+  Ionic radius
(1) Cl  Cl+ + e– (2) HCl  H+ + Cl–
64. Which of the following is correct order of increasing
(3) Cl + e–  Cl– (4) O– + e–  O –2 bond strength -
57. Electronegativity of the following elements (1) HF < HCl < HBr < HI
increases in the order -
(2) HI < HBr < HF < HCl
(1) O < N < S < P (2) P < S < N < O (3) HI < HBr < HCl < HF
(3) P < N < S < O (4) S < P < N < O (4) HCl < HBr < HF < HI
58. The first (IE1) and second (IE2) ionization energies 65. The correct order of increasing size is -
(kJ/mol) of a few elements designated by Roman
(1) Mg2+ < Na+ < F – < Al
numerals are given below. Which of these would
be an alkali metal ? (2) F– < Al < Na+ < Mg2+
IE1 IE2 (3) Al < Mg2+ < F– < Na+
(1) I 2372 5251 (4) Na+ < Al < F– < Mg2+

(2) II 520 7300 66. The pair of amphoteric hydroxides is -

(3) III 900 1760 (1) Al(OH)3, LiOH (2) Be(OH)2, Mg(OH)2

(4) IV 1680 3380 (3) B(OH)3, Be(OH)2 (4) Be(OH)2, Zn(OH)2

Call us : 7257999991/2/3/4/5
AH|RCT-9 [8]
67. Match the following lists and select the correct
answer - Br2 Na
73. (A) (B) . Product B is :
hv Dry ether
List-I List-II
(1) d-block element i. 1s2,2s22s6,3s 23p6,4s 1
(2) Halogen ii. 1s2,2s22p6,3s 23p6
(3) Alkali metal iii. 1s2,2s22p6,3s23p63d6,4s2
(4) Noble gas iv. 1s 2,2s22p5 (1) (2)
Code :
(1) (2) (3) (4)
(1) i ii iii iv
(2) iii iv i ii
(3) (4)
(3) i iii ii iv
(4) ii iv iii i 74. Which of the following reagents will be able to
68. The correct arrangement regarding size distinguish between 1-butyne and 2-butyne ?
(1) Tl > In > Al > Ga (2) Tl > In > Ga > Al (1) NaNH2 (2) HC
(3) Al > Ga > In > Tl (4) Ga > In > Tl > Al (3) O2 (4) Br2
69. Which of the following is known as the bridge element 75. Which one of the following cannot be prepared by
of 2nd group in Mendeleev’s table? Wurtz reaction ?
(1) Zn (2) Sr
(1) CH4 (2) C2H6
(3) Mg (4) Hg
(3) C3H8 (4) C4H10
70. Which of the following ionisation energy order is/are
76. Which of the following compounds will not undergo
correct.
Friedal-Craft’s reaction easily ?
(1) Be+ > B2+ (2) C3+ < B2+
(3) N4+ < O5+ (4) F6+ < C3+ (1) Toluene (2) Cumene
(3) Xylene (4) Nitrobenzene
O
 electrolysis 77. Which of the folowing species is not eectrophilic in
C–OK (A)
71. ; Major- nature ?
(Major)

(1) Cl (2) BH3
product (A) is :

(3) H3O (4) 
NO2
(1)
78. An organic compound A(C4H9Cl) on reaction with Na/
diethyl ether gives a hydrocarbon which on
monochlorination gives only one chloro derivative,
(2)
tehn A is :
(1) t-butyl chloride (2) s-buty chloride
(3) (3) iso-butyl chloride (4) n-butyl choride
79. A single compound of the structure :
C–O
(4) CH3 CH3
O
OHC C C
C C O
72.
Cl2
(X) number of monochloro products H2 H H2
hv
(including stereoisomer) is :
is obtained from ozonolysis of which of the following
(1) 2 (2) 3 cyclic compounds ?
(3) 4 (4) 5
AH|RCT-9 [9]
(1) (i) (2) (ii)
H 3C H 3C CH3
(3) (iii) (4) (iv)
(1) (2)
H 3C 84. During halogenation of alkanes the halogens and
alkane show a specific trend. Which of the following
CH3 statements is not correct ?
H 3C CH 3
(3) (4) (1) The reactivity of halogens is in the order F2 >
CH3 Cl2 > Br2 > I2
80. In the following reaction. (2) For a given halogen the reactivity of hydrocarbon
is in the order of 3° > 2° > 1°.
(i) B2 H6/THF H3 O+
(B) CH 2 (A) (3) Bromine is less reactive than chlorine towards a
(ii) H2O 2/OH –
particular alkane
(A) and (B) respectively, are : (4) On chlorination monosubstituted product is
formed whie on bromination disubstituted products
(1) CH2OH are formed
85. An alkane C6H14 gives two monochloro derivatives on
CH3 chlorination. Its possible structure is
(2)
OH (1) CH3CH2CH2CH2CH2CH3

(2) CH3 – CH – CH2CH 2CH3

CH2OH and CH3
(3) CH3
OH

(3) CH3 – CH – CH2CH3

CH3
(4) OH
and CH2OH CH2CH 3

Cl2 /hv CH3 CH3

81. Ph  CH2  CH2  C  C  CH3 
  X, (4)
CH3 – CH – CH – CH3
where X is:
86. How many geometrical isomers are possible for the
Ph – CH(Cl) – CH2 CH3
(1) C=C given compound ?
H H
CH3 – CH = CH – CH = CH – C2H5
Ph – CH(Cl) – CH2 H (1) Four (2) Three
(2) C=C
H CH3
(3) Two (4) Five
(3) Ph  CH  CH(Cl)  CH  CH  CH  CH3 87. The reaction in terms of intermediates and type of
reaction is given below. Mark the incorrect option.
(4) None of these
82. Hydrocarbon (A) reacts with bromine by substitution CH3
to form an alkyl bromide which by Wurtz reaction is (1) CH3 – C = CH 2 + HBr Carbocation
intermediate
converted to gaseous hydrocarbon cantaining less
than four carbon atoms. (A) is : CH3
(1) CH3 – CH3 (2) CH2 = CH2 (2) CH – C = CH + HBr Peroxide Free radical
3 2
intermediate
(3) CH  CH (4) CH4
83. Which step is chain propagation step in the following + X2 Electrophilic
(3) C=C substitution
mechanism ?
(4) C=C + O3 Ozonide
(i) Cl2 
hv
Cl  Cl
88. Identify the unknown compounds.
(ii) Cl  CH4   CH3  HCl
HNO3 Br2 Sn
(iii) Cl  Cl  Cl2 (A) (B) (C)
H2 SO4 FeBr3 HCl
 (50°C)
(iv) CH3  Cl  CH3 Cl
AH|RCT-9 [ 10 ]
(1) A  Nitrobenzene, B  Dinitrobenzene, C  90. Consider the following compounds :
p-Bromoaniline
(2) A  C 6H 5 SO 3H, B  m-Benzenesulphonic NO2 NHCOCH3

acid, C  m-Benzenesulphonate
(3) A  C 6H 5NO 2, B  B-Bromonitrobenzene,
C  m-Bromoaniline (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(4) A  p-Nitrobenzene, B  m-Trinitrobenzene,
C  m-bromoaniline the correct order towards electrophilic substitution
reaction is
89. Which of the following groups is o-p directing but
deactivates benzene ring for electrophilic substitution ? (1) (iv) > (iii) > (ii) > (i) (2) (i) > (ii) > (iii) > (iv)

(1) –CH3 (2) –NH2 (3) (iv) > (iii) > (i) > (ii) (4) (iii) > (iv) > (i) > (ii)

(3) –Cl (4) –NO2

BIOLOGY
91. Haploid content of human DAN has (1) A-undefinde, B-negatively, C-positively,
(1) 3.3 × 107 bp (2) 3.3 × 108 bp D-nucleoid

(3) 3.3 × 109 bp (4) 3.3 × 1010 pb (2) A-undefined, B-negatively, C-positively, D-nucleus

92. When a phosphate group is linked to ...A... group of (3) A-defined, B-negatively, C-positively, D-nucleoid
nucleoside through ...B... bond, a corresponding (4) A-defined, B-positively, C-negatively, D-nucleoid
...C... is formed
96. In the given diagram, identify a, B and C
Choose the correct option for A, B and C.
(1) A – 5 OH, B-phosphodiester bond, C-nucleotide
(2) 5 – 3 OH, B-phosphodiester bond, C-nucleotide
(3) A – 2 Oh, B-phosphodiester bond, C-nucleotide
(4) A – 5 OH, B-phosphodiester bond, C-nucleoside
93. Which additional group is present at the 3 position
of the ribose sugar in RNA ?
(1) R – H (2) CHO
(1) A-DNA, B-H1 Histone, C-Histone octamer
(3) OH (4) COOH
(2) A-RNA, B-H1 Histone, C-Histone octamer
94. In sea urchin DNA, which is double stranded 17% of
the bases were shown to be cytosin. The (3) A-DNA, B-H1 Histone, C-Histone tetramer
percentages of the other three bases expected to be (4) A-RNA, B-H1 Histone, C-Histone tetramer
present in this DNA are 97. Lightly stained part of chromatin which remains
(1) G/34%, A/24.5%, T/24.5% loosely packed and is transcriptionally active named
(2) G/17%, A/16.5%, T/32.5% as

(3) G/17%, A/33%, T/33% (1) euchromatin (2) heterochromatin

(4) G/8.5%, A/50%, T/24.5% (3) chromatosome (4) chromonemata

95. In prokaryotes (such as E. coil) ...A... nucleus is not 98. Who gave an unequivocal proof that DNA is the
present, the DNA is not scattered throughout the cell. genetic material ?
DNA is ...B... charged and holded by the ...C... (1) Griffith
charged proteins. This structure in prokaryotes is (2) Avery, MacLed and McCarty
called ...D...
(3) Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase
Choose the correct option for A, B, C and D
(4) Mendel and Watson
AH|RCT-9 [ 11 ]
99. A molecule that can act as a genetic material must 105. DNA dependent RNA polymerase catalyses
fulfill the traits given below, except transription on one strand of the DNA which is called
(1) it should be able to express itself in the form of the
‘Mendelian characters’ (1) template strand (2) coding strand
(2) it should be able to generate its replica (3) alpha strand (4) anti-strand
(3) it should be unstable structurally and chemically 106. Which one of the follwoing is wrongly matched ?
(4) it should provide the scope for slow changes (1) Transcription–Wrinting information from DNA to
that are required for evolution tRNA
100. Bacteriophage protein coat was labelled by growing (2) Translation-Using information in mRNA to make
E. coli on protein
(1) 35 S labelled sulphate (3) Repressor protein-Binds to operator to stop
(2) 32S labelled sulphate enzyme synthesis

(3) 30S labelled sulphate (4) Operon-Structural genes, operator and promoter

(4) 32P labelled sulphate 107. Which strand of DNA works as template strand ?

101. RNA is the genetic material in (1) 5 – 3 polarity strand

(1) All bacteria (2) 3 – 5 polarity strand

(2) Tobacco Mosaic Biruses (TMV) (3) Both (1) and (2)

(3) QB bacteriophage (4) None of these

(4) Both (2) and (3) 108. In bacteria, which enzyme catalyses the
transcription of all types of RNA (mRNA, tRNA and
102. Which one of the following is not applicable to RNA
rRNA) ?
?
(1) DNA dependent RNA polymerase
(1) Complementary base pairing
(2) DNA dependent DNA polymerase
(2) 5 phosphoryl and 3 hydroxyl ends
(3) RNA dependent RNA polymerase
(3) Heterocyclic nitrogenous bases
(4) RNA dependent DNA polymerase
(4) Chargaff’s rule
109. In given diagram find out
103. Name the heavy isotope used by Meselson and
stahl for proving the semiconservative mode of DNA
(1) 15NH Cl (2) 14NH Cl
4 4 2

(3) 13NH Cl (4) All of these

2 3

104. In Meselson and Stahl’s experiment, DNA extracted

from the culture one generation after the transfer from A. Promoter site B. Structural gene
15N to 14N medium had a hybrid (or intermediate
C. Terminator site D. Template strand
density). Why ?
E. Coding strand
(1) Because the genration time of E. coli (cultrue)
was about 20 minutes Codes
(2) Becuase it would take 20 minutes for RNA A B C D E
repication (1) 5 1 4 2 3
(3) Because it would take 20 minutes for replication (2) 5 1 4 3 2
of DNA to RNA (transcription)
(3) 5 4 1 2 3
(4) Because it would take 20 minutes for transation
(4) 5 4 1 3 2
RNA to protein
AH|RCT-9 [ 12 ]
110. Name the nucleotide added to 5-end of hnRNA in 118. Gene regulation governing lactose operon of E.coli
capping. that involves the lac I gene products i s

(1) Ethyl cytosine triphosphate
(2) Ethyl guanosine triphosphate
(3) Methyl guanosine triphosphate
(4) Methyl cytosine triphosphate
111. Who developed the technique of synthesising RNA
molecules with well defined combination of bases
(homopolymers and co-polymers) to develop genetic
code ?
(1) Crick et. al (2) Har gobind Khorana
(3) Matthaei (4) Nitenberg
112. How many codons codes for amino acids ?
(1) 25 (2) 50
(1) positive and inducible because it can be induced
by lactose
(2) negative and inducible because it repressor
protein prevents transcription
(3) negative and repressible because repressor
protein prevents transcription
(4) feedback inhibition because excess of
-galactosidase can switch off transcription
119. Lactose is a substrate for
(1) galactosidase (2) -galactosidase
(3) -galactosidase (4) -galactosidase
120. Repressor proteins of lac operon binds to
(1) exons (2) introns

(3) 61 (4) 60 (3) operator (4) structural genes

113. Which mutation of the genetic bases gives the proof
that codon is triplet and reads in a contagious
manner ?
(1) Frameshift mutation (2) Point mutation
(3) Both (1) and (2) (4) Inversion mutation
121. Why glucose and gaactose cannot act as an inducer
for lac operon ?
(1) Because they cannot bind with the repressor
(2) Because they can bind with the repressor
(3) Because they can bidn with the operator

114. A compex of ribosomes attached to a single strand (4) Because they can bind with the regulator
of RNA is known as 122. Human genome project was co-ordinated by
(1) poymer (2) polypeptide (1) Europian Department of Energy
(3) Ikazaki fragment (4) polysome (2) US Department of Energy
115. tRNA is a compact molecule which loosks like (3) Nationa Institue of Healt

(1) M-shaped (2) P-shaped (4) Both (2) and (3)

(3) L-shaped (4) K-shaped 123. Idntify the incorrect pair.

116. Which of the following rRNAs act as structural RNA (1) Expressed sequence tags – Genes that are
as well as ribozyme in bacteria ? express as RNA
(2) Sequence annotation – Sequencing genome with
(1) 5 srRNA (2) 18 srRNA
coding sequences
(3) 23 srRNA (4) 5.8 srRNA
(3) Automated DNA sequences – Work on the
117. Which enzymes/s wil be produced in a cel in which principle developed by Frederick Sanger
there is a non-sense mutation in the lac Y-gene ?
(4) None of the above
(1) -galactosidase 124. Avergae gene consists of ...A... bases but their size
(2) Lactose permease vary greatly, with the largest known humna gene
being ...B... with ...C.. bases
(3) Transacetylase
Complete the statement filling the correct option in
(4) Lactose permease and transacetylase the given blanks
AH|RCT-9 [ 13 ]
(1) A-3000 bases, B-dystrophin, C-2.4 million 131. A mRNA tempate is
(2) A-2000 bases, B-dystrophin, C-2.4 million I. transated to protein
(3) A-1000 bases, B-dystrophin, C-2.0 milion II. transcribed to protein
(4) A-3000 bases, B-dystrophin, C-2.0 million III. transcribed from DNA
125. Total percentage of genes, whcih codes for proteins IV. translated to DNA
is Choose the correct combination.
(1) 2% (2) 3% (1) I and II (2) II and III
(3) 4% (4) 5% (3) III and IV (4) I and III
126. Chromosome number ..... has most genes (2968) 132. In regulation of gene expression in prokaryotes
and .... has fewest genes (231).
I. lactose acts as an suppressor for the gene
Most appropriate words for filing the blanks is expression.
(1) 1 and Y (2) X and Y II. tryptophan acts as an inducer for the gene
(3) Y and X (4) Y and 1 expression.
127. SNPs can be used for III. reguatory gene is the one that produces the
(1) finding chromosome ocations for disease repressor molecule.
associated sequences Choose the correct options.
(2) tracing human history (1) Only I (2) Only II
(3) evolution (3) Only III (4) II and I
(4) All of the above 133. Match the folowing coumns.
128. The bulk of DNA (other than repetitive) forms the Coumn I Column II
major peaks during density gradient centrifugation. A. Sigma factor 1. 5 – 3
The other small peaks are referred to as B. Capping 2. Initiation
(1) satellite DNA (2) non-satellite DNA C. Tailing 3. 5 end
(3) exonic DNA (4) intronic DNA D. coding strand 4. 3 end
129. Allec Jeffreys used a satellite DNA as probe that 134. Which of the follwoing is a pair of bacterial diseases
shows very high degree of poymorphism. It was ?
called as
(1) Typhoid and pneumonia
(1) Short Number of Tandem Repeats (SNTRs)
(2) Malaria and AIDS
(2) Large Number of Tandem Repeats (LNTRs)
(3) Ringworm and AIDS
(3) Variabe Number of Tandem Repeats (VNTRs)
(4) Cold and malaria
(4) All of the above
135. Common cold differs from pneumonia in, that
130. The regulation of gene expression can be exerted
(1) pneumonia is a communicable disease, whereas
at
the common cold is a nutritional deficiency disease
I. transcriptional level
(2) pneumonia can be prevented by a live attenuated
II. processing level bacterial vaccine, whereas the common cold has no
III. transport of mRNA from nuceus to cytoplasm effective vaccine
IV. translational level (3) pneumonia is caused by a virus, while the
Choose the correct combination for given statemetns. common cold is caused by the bacterium
Haemophilus influenzea
(1) I and II (2) II and III
(4) pneumonia pathogen infects alveoli whereas the
(3) III and IV (4) All of these
common cold affects nose and respiratory passage
but not the lungs
AH|RCT-9 [ 14 ]
136. Which of the following viruses isnot transferred 143. The following table shows certain diseases, their
through semen fo an infected male ? causative organisms and symptoms.
(1) Hepatitis-B virus Diseases Causative Symptoms
(2) Human immunodeficiency virus Organisms
(3) Chikungunya virus
I. Filariasis A Inflammation
(4) Ebola virus
II. Typhoid B High fever
137. Plasmodium completes its life cycle in two hosts. stomach pain
Asexua phase in ... host and sexual phase in ...
host. III. C Rhinoviruses Nasal congestion
and discharge
The correct option with words to fill the banks is
IV. Ascariasis Ascaris D
(1) human; Culex mosquito
The correct option regarding A, B, C and D is
(2) human; femal Anopheles mosquito
(3) human; Aedes mosquito (1) A-Wuchereria, B-Salmonella typhi, C-Common
cold, D-Internal bleeding, fever, anaemia
(4) human; male Anophees mosquito
(2) A-Salmonela typhi, B-Ascaris, C-Typhoid,
138. Which of the following endoparasites of humans
D-Stomach pain headache
does show viviparty ?
(1) Ancylostoma duodenale (3) A-Ascaris, B-Entamoeba histolytica,
C-pneumonia, D-Constipation, fever
(2) Enterobius vermicularis
(4) A-Entamoeba histolytica, B-Salmonella typhi,
(3) Trichinella spiralis
C-Common cold, D-Nasal discharge, high fever
(4) Ascaris lumbricoides
144. In which one of the following options the two
139. Which of the folowing diseases is caused by a
examples are correctly matched with their particular
protozoan ?
type of immunity ?
(1) Syphilis (2) Influenza
Exampes Type of immunity
(3) Babesiosis (4) Blastomycosis
(1) Polymorphonuclear Cellular barriers
140. Ascariasis is caused by an endoparasite of human
...A... commonly called ...B... . Here A and B refers to leukocytes and

(1) A-Ascaris suum; B-tapeworm monocytes

(2) A-Ascaris lumbricoides; B-roundworm (2) Anti-tetanus and Active immunity
(3) A-Ascaris worm; B-flatworm anti-snake bite injections
(4) A-Ascaris secernentea; B-liver worm (3) Saliva in mouth and Physical barriers
141. Eephantitis, a chronic inflammation that results in
tears in eyes
gross deformities is caused by
(4) Mucus coating of Physiological barriers
(1) Trichophyton (2) Wuchereria
(3) E. coli (4) Ascaris epithelium lining the

142. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly urinogenital tract and
matched ? the HCl in stomach
(1) Filariasis – Wuchereria
145. The cell-mediated immunity inside the human body
(2) Syphilis – Trichuris trichiura is carried out by
(3) Plague – Yersinia pestis (1) T-lymphocytes (2) B-lymphocytes
(4) Dengue fever – Flavi-ribo virus
(3) thrombocytes (4) erythrocytes
AH|RCT-9 [ 15 ]
146. W hich of the following is a characteristic of III. The type of antibody present in colostrum
antibodies ? secreted by mammany glands is .....
(1) Carbohydrated structure I II III
(2) Composed of heavy and light polypetide chains (1) Passive; antigen Lactose; mammary IgM
(3) Three binding sites per antibody monomer (2) Passive; antibody Colostrum; mammary IgA
(4) All of the above (3) Antigen; binding Colostrum; mammary IgE
147. Each abntibody has ...A... polypeptide chains, ...B... site
small chains called ...C... chains and ...D... longer (4) Active; antibody Casein mammary IgG
chains called ...E... chians.
154. Vaccination protects a person from disease because
The antibody, therefore, is represented as ...F... Here it
A to F refers to
(1) helps in RBC production
(1) A-four, B-two, C-light, D-two, E-heavy, F-H2L2
(2) produces antibodies
(2) A-six, B-three, C-light, D-three, E-heavy, F-H3L2
(3) helps in digestion
(3) A-two, B-one, C-light, D-one, E-heavy, F-H1L1
(4) correct body function
(4) A-five, B-two, C-light, D-three, E-heavy, F-H2L2
155. Asthma may be attributed to
148. The type of antibody present in colostrum secreted
(1) allergic reaction of the mast cells in the lungs
by mammary gland during the initial days of lactation
is (2) inflammation of the trachea
(1) IgA (2) IgM (3) accumulation of fluid in the lungs
(3) IgG (4) IgE (4) bacterial infection of the lungs
149. Humoral immunity is mediated by 156. In higher vertebrates, the immune system can
distinguish self-cells and non-self. If this property is
(1) B-cells (2) T-cells
lost due to genetic abnormality and it attacks self-
(3) macrophages (4) monocytes cells, then it leads to
150. Grafted kidney may be rejected in a patient due to (1) graft rejection
(1) humoral immune response (2) auto-immune disease
(2) cel-mediated immune response (3) active immunity
(3) passive immune response (4) alergic response
(4) innate immune response 157. T-lymphocytes mature in the ...... while B-lymphocyte
151. Active immunity development is related to mature in the .... .

(1) natural killer cells Most appropriate combination of words to fill the
blanks is
(2) memory cels
(1) thymus; bone marrow
(3) helper T-cells
(2) bone marrow; thymus
(4) suppressor T-cells
(3) thyroid; bone marrow
152. The immunoglobulin abundant in colostrum is
(4) yellow bone marrow; red bone marrow
(1) IgG (2) IgM
158. Thymus is a lobed organ located near the ... A... and
(3) IgD (4) IgA beneath the ...B... . The most appropriate
153. Fil up the blanks combination for A and B is

I. .... immunity is achieved when a healthy body (1) A-heart; B-breast bone
receives .... from an external source, e.g. vaccines. (2) A-liver; B-ribs
II. .... is a form of mik produced by ... glands in (3) A-heart; B-ribs
late pregnancy and few days after giving birth. (4) A-intestine; B-ribs
AH|RCT-9 [ 16 ]
159. Genetic material found in Human Immuno deficiency higher by the microbes
virus (HIV) is 166. The term ‘Terror of Bengal’ is used for
(1) double-stranded RNA (1) Eichhornia crassipes
(2) two strands of single-stranded RNA (2) decreased biological oxygen demand
(3) double-stranded DNA (3) biomagnification
(4) single-stranded DNA (4) algal bloom
160. At which stage of HIV infection does one usually 167. A river with an inflow of domestic sewage rich in
show symptoms of AIDS ? organic waste may result in
(1) W ithin 15 days of sexual contact with an (1) increased population of aquatic food web
infected person organisms
(2) When the infected retro virus enters host cells (2) an increased production of fish due to
(3) When HIV damages large number of helper T- biodegradable nutrients
lymphocytes (3) death of fish due to lack of oxygen
(4) When the viral DNA is produced by reverse (4) drying of the river very soon due to algal bloom
transcriptase
168. Increase in concentration of the toxicant at
161. The flower tops, leaves and the resin of Cannabis successive tropic levels is known as
sativa are used to produce
(1) biomagnification (2) biodeterioration
(1) marijuana (2) hashish
(3) biotransformation (4) biogeochemical cycling
(3) charas (4) All of these
169. In an area where DDT has been used extensivey, the
162. Alpha-interferons population of birds declined significantly because
(1) activate the immune system (1) birds stopped laying eggs
(2) help in destroying the tumour (2) earthworms in the area got eradicted
(3) Both (1) and (2) (3) cobras were feeding exclusively on birds
(4) None of the above (4) many of the birds laid eggs that did not hatch
163. A scrubber in the exhaust of a chemical industrial 170. What steps should be taken before the disposal of
plant removes nuclear waste ?
(1) gases like suplhur dioxide (1) Nuclear waste should be pre-treated
(2) particulate matter of the size 5 micrometer or (2) It should be stored in shielded containers
above
(3) It should be buried about 500 m deep with in
(3) gases like ozone and methane rock
(4) particulalate matter of the size 2.5 micrometer or (4) All of the above
less
171. CO2, CH4, N2O and CFCs are called greenhouse
164. Sound becomes a hazarodous noise pollution if its gases because they absorb and emit
level exceeds
(1) UV - rays (2) thermal radiations heat rays
(1) 30 dB (2) 80 dB
(3) X-rays (4) gamma-rays
(3) 120 dB (4) 150 dB
172. Rise in temperature leads to deleterious changes in
165. High value of BOD (Biochemica Oxygen Demand) environment resulting in odd climatic changes called
indicates that
(1) global warming
(1) water is pure
(2) El Nino effect
(2) water is highly polluted
(3) La Nino effect
(3) water is less poluted
(4) greenhouse effect
(4) consumption of organic matter in the water is
AH|RCT-9 [ 17 ]
173. Which statement represents the harmful effect of Which of the statements given above are correct ?
depletion of earth’s ozone ayer ?
(1) I and II (2) I and III
(1) The average temperature of earth’s surface will
increase gradually (3) II and III (4) I, II and III

(2) The oxygen content of the atmosphere will 178. Consider the following statements about
decrease eutrophication.

(3) Increased amount of ultraviolet radiation wi reach I. Eutrophication is the natural ageing of a water
earth’s surface body by nutrient enrichment.
(4) Sea levels will rise as the polar ice caps will II. The accelerated ageing of lakes due to sewage
graduay melt and agricultural and industrial wastes is called
174. Which one of the following is a incorrect statement cultural or accelerated eutrophication.
?
III. The plant nutrients responsible for eutrophication
(1) Most of the forests have been lost in tropical are nitrates and phosphates.
areas
IV. Phosphates and nitrates accelerate the growth of
(2) Ozone in upper part of atmosphere is harmful to
algae which utilise oxygen and may deoxygenate the
animals
water enought to kill the fish and other aquatic
(3) Greenhouse effect is a natural phenomenon animals.
(4) Eutrophication is a natural phenomenon in
Which of the statements given above are correct ?
freshwater bodies
(1) I and II (2) I, II and III
175. Global warming can be controled by
(1) reducing deforestation, cutting down use of fossil (3) I, III and IV (4) I, II, III and IV
fue 179. Which of the folwoing material takes the longest time
(2) reducing reforestation, increasing the use of for biodegradation ?
fossil fuel
(1) Cotton (2) Paper
(3) increasing deforestation, sloweing down the
(3) Bone (4) Jute
growth of human popuation
(4) increasing deforestation, reducing efficiency of 180. Match the folowing coumns.
energy usage Column I Column II
176. Indian government recently instituted ‘Amrita Devi A. Environment Protection Act 1. 1974
Bishnoi Award’. This is awarded to indivisuals and
communities from rural areas involved in B. Air Prevention and Control 2. 1987

(1) wild life protection and conservation of Polution Act

(2) forest mangement C. Water Act 3. 1986
(3) environment protection D. Amendment of Air Act to 4. 1981
(4) biodiversity conservation
include noise
177. Electrostatic Precipitator (ESP)
Code
I. is an electrica device to remove particulate
matter present in the exhaust of thermal power A B C D
plant. (1) 3 4 1 2
II. more than 99% particuate matter can be
(2) 1 3 2 1
removed by this method
(3) 4 1 2 3
III. ESP has electrode wites and stage of collection
plates. (4) 3 4 2 1