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The machine can be acquired through lease. Lease rent is Rs. 60,000. Profit before depreciation and tax is expected to be
1,00,000 every year and rate of depreciatio
n is 15% (ignore add depreciation). The present value of annuity of Re.1 at the rate of 10%. Advise X ltd whether machinery
can be acquired from own funds, borrowed funds and lease rentals.
solution
Case 1: Own Funds
Computation of Cash Inflow ( Tax Shield depreciation + Present value of Scrap Value)
NET CASH OUTFLOW= TOTAL CASH OUT FLOW - TOTAL CASH INFLOW
1,50,000-45160 = 1,04,840
Computation of Cash Inflow ( Tax Shield depreciation + Present value of Scrap Value)
(Depreciation+Inter
Year Depreciation Interest est) Tax Pv @10% Present Value
1 22,500 22,500 45,000 14,040 0.909 12,762
2 19,125 15,000 34,125 10,647 0.826 8,794
3 16,256 7,500 23,756 7,412 0.751 5,566
3 (SV) 40,000 - - - 0.751 30,040
TOTAL 57,162
Depreciation Calculation:
1st Year: 1,50,000*15% = 22,500
2nd Year: (1,50,000-22,500) 1,27,500*15% = 19125
3rd Year: (1,27,500-19125) 1,08,375*15% = 16,256
Interest Calculation:
1st Year: 1,50,000*15% = 22,500
2nd Year: (1,50,000- 50,000) *15% = 15,000
3rd Year: (1,00,000 - 50,000) 50,000*15% = 7,500
NET CASH OUTFLOW= TOTAL CASH OUT FLOW - TOTAL CASH INFLOW
1,62,776 - 57162 = 1,05,614
Conclusion: It is recommended that company should acquire capital asset through lease rentals which is causing less
expenditure than other 2 alternatives
solution
Case 1: Borrowed Funds
Computation of Cash Outflow
Year Repayable Interest Total cash outflow PV @10% Present Value
1 20,000 14,000 34,000 0.909 30,906
2 20,000 11,200 31,200 0.826 25,771
3 20,000 8,400 28,400 0.751 21,328
4 20,000 5,600 25,600 0.683 17,485
5 20,000 2,800 22,800 0.621 14,159
TOTAL 1,09,649
Computation of Cash Inflow ( Tax Shield depreciation + Present value of Scrap Value)
(Depreciation+Interest
Year Depreciation Interest ) Tax Pv @10% Present Value
1 15,000 14,000 29,000 9,048 0.909 8,225
2 12,750 11,200 23,950 7,472 0.826 6,172
3 10,838 8,400 19,238 6,002 0.751 4,508
4 9,212 5,600 14,812 4,621 0.683 3,156
5 7,830 2,800 10,630 3,317 0.621 2,060
TOTAL 24,121
Depreciation Calculation:
1st Year: 1,00,000*15% = 15,000
2nd Year: (1,00,000-15,000) 85,000*15% = 12,750
3rd Year: (85,000-12750) 72,250*15% = 10,838
4th Year: (72,250-10,838) 61,412*15% = 9,212
5th Year: (61,412-9,212) 52,200*15% = 7,830
Interest Calculation:
1st Year: 1,00,000*14% = 14,000
2nd Year: (1,00,000- 20,000) 80,00*14% = 11,200
3rd Year: (80,000 - 20,000) 60,000*14% = 8,400
4th Year: (60,000 - 20,000) 40,000*14% = 5,600
5th Year: (40,000 - 20,000) 20,000*14% = 2,800
NET CASH OUTFLOW= TOTAL CASH OUT FLOW - TOTAL CASH INFLOW
1,09,649 - 24,121 = 85,528
Case 2: Lease Rentals
Present
Present value value of
Year Cash Flow Tax Pv @10% ( Cash Flow) (Tax)
1 31,000 9,672 0.909 28,179 8,792
2 30,000 9,360 0.826 24,780 7,731
3 30,000 9,360 0.751 22,530 7,029
4 30,000 9,360 0.683 20,490 6,393
5 30,000 9,360 0.621 18,630 5,813
TOTAL 1,14,609 35,758
Processing Charge for lease rent in 1st year : 1,00,000*1% = 1,000
Conclusion: It is recommended that company should acquire capital asset through lease rentals which is causing less
expenditure than borrowed capital
3. The ABC Ltd., is in tax bracket of 35%. In the acquisition of an asset worth Rs 10,00,000; it’s given two offers: either to
acquire the asset by taking a bank loan @15% p.a. repayable in 5 yearly installments of Rs. 200,000. Each plus interest or to
lease in the asset at an yearly rentals of Rs. 3,24,000 for 5 years. In both the cases, the installments is payable at the end of the
year. Applicable rate of depreciation is 15% using WDV method.
You are required to suggest the better alternative:
Years 1 2 3 4 5
PV factor 0.862 0.743 0.641 0.552 0.476
solution
Case 1: Borrowed Funds
Computation of Cash Inflow ( Tax Shield depreciation + Present value of Scrap Value)
(Depreciation+Int PV
Year Depreciation Interest erest) Tax@ 35% Factor Present Value
1 1,50,000 1,50,000 3,00,000 1,05,000 0.826 86,730
2 1,27,500 1,20,000 2,47,500 86,625 0.743 64,362
3 1,08,375 90,000 1,98,375 69,431 0.641 44,505
4 92,119 60,000 1,52,119 53,242 0.552 29,390
5 78,301 30,000 1,08,301 37,905 0.476 18,043
TOTAL 2,43,030
Depreciation
Calculation:
1st Year: 10,00,000*15% = 1,50,000
2nd Year: (10,00,000-1,50,000) 8,50,000*15% = 1,27,500
3rd Year: (8,50,000-1,27,500) 7,22,500*15% = 1,08,375
4th Year: (7,22,500-1,08,375) 6,14,125*15% = 92,119
5th Year: (6,14,125-92,119) 5,22006*15% = 78,301
Interest Calculation:
1st Year: 10,00,000*15% = 1,50,000
2nd Year: (10,00,000- 2,00,000) 8,00,00*15% = 1,20,000
3rd Year: (8,00,000 - 2,00,000) 6,00,000*15% = 90,000
4th Year: (6,00,000 - 2,00,000) 4,00,000*15% = 60,000
5th Year: (4,00,000 - 2,00,000) 2,00,000*15% = 30,000
NET CASH OUTFLOW= TOTAL CASH OUT FLOW - TOTAL CASH INFLOW
9,78,350 - 2,43,030 = 7,29,320
Present value of
Year Cash Flow Tax Pv Factor Pv ( Cash Flow) (Tax)
1 3,24,000 1,13,400 0.826 2,67,624 93,668
2 3,24,000 1,13,400 0.743 2,40,732 84,257
3 3,24,000 1,13,400 0.641 2,07,684 72,690
4 3,24,000 1,13,400 0.552 1,78,848 62,597
5 3,24,000 1,13,400 0.476 1,54,224 53,978
TOTAL 10,49,112 3,67,190
Net Cash Out Flow: 10,49,112 - 3,67,190 = 6,81,922
Conclusion: It is recommended that company should acquire capital asset through lease rentals which is causing less
expenditure than borrowed capital
Alternatively a company can buy new machine of Rs. 49,000 with an expected life of 10 years without any salvage value
after providing for depreciation under straight line method. In this case, the running and maintenance expense will reduce to
Rs. 14,000 each year and are not expected to increase much in real terms for few years at least.
Assume tax rate @ 31.2%, COC @10%. Suggest the company either to repair or replace above asset.
Solution
Case 1: Repair Decision
Computation of Cash Outflow
Particulars Amount
Cashflow (Immediate) 19,000
1 2 3 4 5 Total
0.909 0.826 0.751 0.683 0.621 3.79
Year 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
PV 0.909 0.826 0.751 0.683 0.621 0.564 0.513 0.466 0.424 0.385
Computation of Tax shield on Replace asset
Depreciation Calculation: (49,000-0)/10 = 4,900
Particulars Amount
Depreciation (4,900* 31.2%*6.142) 9,390
1. A company is a domestic company has two businesses A & B. For the last 2 years business A has been running at loss
wiping out the entire profit of business B. At the end of financial year 2020-2021 there are brought forward loss of Rs.
8,00,000 and Unabsorbed depreciation of Rs. 5,00,000.
In the financial year 2021-2022 onwards, it is expected that business B will earn profit of Rs. 5,00,000 and if business A is
continued at a minimum level, there will be an annual loss of Rs. 1,00,000. Assume a tax rate of 31.2%.
Suggest the management: Whether business A should be continued or shut down? If, continued, for how many years?
Solution
Case 1: Continue Business Activity
If Business "A" is continued
Particulars 1 2 3 4
Profits from business "B" 5,00,000 5,00,000 5,00,000 5,00,000
(-) Loss from business "A" 1,00,000 1,00,000 1,00,000 1,00,000
Total 4,00,000 4,00,000 4,00,000 4,00,000
(-) Brought forword Business Loss 4,00,000 4,00,000
(-) Brought forword Unabsorbed Depreciation 4,00,000 1,00,000
Profits Before Tax - - - 3,00,000
(-) Tax @31.2% - - - 93,600
Profits After Tax - - - 2.06,400
Cash Flow (Profits after tax + Non Cash Expenses) 5,00,000 5,00,000 4,37,600 3,44,000
Conclusion: Suspend the business activity of "A" and continue with business "B".
Make or Buy:
1. A company produces most of its own components for that it spends the following:
Standard wages rate Rs. 12/hour; Variable manufacturing overheads Rs. 9/hour; Fixed manufacturing overheads Rs.
10.50/hour
A company can require a new part which can be made at its own department without any expenses that it will increases cost
of product. Product testing by Rs. 15,000/month. Estimated labor time for a new part in half an hour/unit. Raw materials
cost is Rs.24/unit.
The company has alternative choice to purchase this part from outside for Rs.36/unit. The company is estimated to produce
2,00,000 new parts for its requirement advice the company to make or buy the components?
Solution
Output: 2,00,000 Units
Direct Labor
1 hour - Rs. 12
1/2 hour - Rs. ? 6 12,00,000
Direct Expenses
Variable overheads
1 hour - Rs. 9
1/2 hour - Rs.? 4.5 9,00,000
Marginal Cost 34.5 69,00,000
Conclusion: It is advisible to make the component as it works out to be cheaper than buying it from outside. It can save
0.6*2,00,000 = 1,20,000 p.a.