Professional Documents
Culture Documents
Subject Wise
Polity
• Other Dimensions • Constitutional Bodies
➢ Official Language ➢ Election Commission
➢ Public Services ➢ Union Public Service Commission (UPSC)
➢ Tribunals ➢ State Public Service Commission (SPSC)
➢ Special provisions for SCs, STs, BCs, Minorities ➢ Finance Commission
& Anglo-Indians ➢ CAG
➢ Rights and liabilities of the Government ➢ Attorney general of India
➢ Authoritative text in Hindi Language ➢ Advocate general of India
➢ Anti-defection law ➢ Special officer for Linguistic Minorities
• Political dimensions ➢ National Commission for Scheduled Castes(NCSC)
➢ Ministries and Departments of the Government ➢ National Commission for Scheduled Tribes(NCST)
➢ Pressure groups ➢ National Commission for Backward Castes (NCBC)
➢ Elections & political parties etc.
➢ Representation of People's Act • Non-Constitutional Bodies
➢ Election Process NITI Aayog, NHRC, SHRC, CIC, SIC, CVC, CBI, Lokpal,
➢ Governance Lokayukta, NCPCR etc.
➢ Transparency & Accountability
Current Affairs:
➢ RTI (1/6/2021-5/10/2021) from the below sources.
➢ Citizen’s Charter • INSIGHTSIAS Current Affairs Quiz.
➢ e-Governance
• INSIGHTSIAS Current Affairs.
• INSIGHTS REVISION THROUGH MCQs
Subject Wise Test – 9 (Questions) 2022
1. Exercise PEACEFUL MISSION, a Multilateral Counter Terrorism Exercise conducted biennially, is conducted
under the aegis of
A. North Atlantic Treaty Organization B. QUAD
C. Shanghai Cooperation Organization D. Indian Ocean Naval Symposium
2. Consider the following statements regarding Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI)
1. FSSAI has been established under Food Safety and Standards, 2006.
2. One of the mandates of FSSAI is to lay down mechanisms and guidelines for accreditation of certification
bodies engaged in certification of food safety management system.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2
4. Consider the following statements regarding Universal Service Obligation Fund (USOF)
1. The aim of USOF is to provide a balance between the provision of Universal Service to all uncovered areas,
including the rural areas.
2. USOF was created under the Finance Act 2003, which authorizes government to levy Universal Access Levy
(UAL).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2
7. Consider the following statements regarding Marine Environment Protection Committee (MEPC)
1. It was established by United Nations Environment Programme, to provide a solution for the problem of air
pollution caused by the ships.
2. The committee also seeks to provide required revisions to the existing MARPOL stipulations and guidelines.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2
9. Consider the following statements regarding National Health Protection Mission (AB-PMJAY)
1. Under AB-PMJAY, entitlements are decided on the basis of deprivation criteria in the SECC database.
2. AB-PMJAY provides a defined benefit cover of Rs. 5 lakh per family per year.
3. The benefit will cover the post-hospitalization expenses only.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 3 only D. 2 and 3 only
12. Consider the following statements regarding Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act
1. Under UAPA, only Indian nationals can be charged.
2. The Act assigns absolute power to the central government, by way of which if the Centre deems an activity
as unlawful then it may, by way of an Official Gazette, declare it so.
3. It will be applicable to the offenders in the same manner, even if crime is committed on a foreign land, outside
India.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3
14. Consider the following statements regarding Minority Educational Institutions (MEI)
1. Under Art 30, MEI enjoys the right to education as a Fundamental Right.
2. Under Article 15, MEIs are not considered for reservation.
3. Under Right to Education Act, MEI are required to provide admission to children in the age group of 6-14
years upto 25% of enrolment reserved for economically backward section of society.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3
16. Consider the following statements regarding Pradhan Mantri Kisan Urja Suraksha evem Utthan Mahabhiyan
(PM KUSUM)
1. The scheme aims to add solar and other renewable capacity of 25,750 MW by 2022.
2. The scheme will open a stable and continuous source of income to the rural land owners for a period of 25
years by utilization of their dry/uncultivable land.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2
17. Which of the following statements regarding Rabies is Incorrect?
A. Rabies is a fatal but preventable bacterial disease.
B. It can spread to people and pets if they are bitten or scratched by a rabid animal.
C. Rabies is mostly found in wild animals like bats, raccoons, skunks, dogs and foxes.
D. Rabies virus is transmitted through direct contact with saliva or brain/nervous system tissue from an infected
animal.
18. Consider the following statements regarding Production-Linked Incentive (PLI) scheme for the textiles
sector
1. The PLI scheme for textiles aims to promote the production of high value Man-Made Fibre (MMF) fabrics,
garments and technical textiles.
2. Companies investing over Rs 300 crore in plant, machinery, equipment and civil works to produce the
identified products will get an incentive of 15 percent of their turnover.
3. The companies investing between Rs 100 crore and Rs 300 crore will also be eligible to receive duty refunds
and incentives.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3
20. Article 324 of the Constitution provides that the power of superintendence, direction and control of elections
to which of the following will be vested in the election commission of India?
1. Parliament 2. State legislatures
3. Office of president of India 4. Office of vice-president of India
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 1, 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
22. Which of the following provisions were provided for the independent and impartial functioning of the Union
Public Service Commission?
1. The chairman or a member of the UPSC can be removed from office by the president only in the manner and
on the grounds similar to those of judges of the Supreme Court.
2. The entire expenses including the salaries, allowances and pensions of the chairman and members of the
UPSC are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India.
3. The chairman of UPSC (on ceasing to hold office) is not eligible for further employment in the Government of
India or a state.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3
25. Consider the following statements regarding State Public Service Commission
1. The Constitution visualizes the SPSC to be the ‘watchdog of merit system’ in the state.
2. The recommendations made by SPSC are only of advisory nature and not binding on the government.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2
26. Which of the following are qualification for members of Finance Commission specified under The Finance
Commission (Miscellaneous Provisions) Act, 1951?
1. A judge of high court or one qualified to be appointed as one.
2. A person who has specialised knowledge of finance and accounts of the government.
3. A person who has wide experience in financial matters and in administration.
4. A person who has special knowledge of economics.
5. A person having experience in public affairs
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. 1, 2 and 4 only B. 2, 3 and 4 only C. 1, 2, 3 and 4 only D. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
27. Consider the following statements regarding Emergency Credit Line Guarantee Scheme
1. The Emergency Credit Line Guarantee Scheme provides 100% guarantee coverage by National Credit
Guarantee Trustee Company (NCGTC) loans of up to Rs. 3 lakh crores to eligible MSMEs.
2. Financial Institutions for the purpose of this Scheme will be as defined under Section 45-I of Banking
Regulation Act, 1949.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2
28. Consider the following statements regarding National Export Insurance Account (NEIA)
1. National Export Insurance Account (NEIA) has been set up by the Government of India to facilitate medium
and long-term exports, which are commercially unviable.
2. Medium and long- term project exports involving civil constructions, turnkey projects, supply of equipment’s
and services would come under this.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2
32. Sonitpur Model, often seen in news is a community led model related to
A. Water Conservation B. Prevention of Child marriage
C. Community Policing D. Man Animal conflicts
37. Consider the following statements regarding Goods and Services Tax Council
1. Article 269-A of the Constitution empowered the President to constitute a GST Council by an order.
2. The Union Secretary for economic affairs acts as the ex-officio Secretary to the Council.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2
38. Consider the following statements regarding National Commission for SCs and STs
1. Originally, Article 338 of the Constitution provided for the appointment of a Special Officer for Scheduled
Castes (SCs) and Scheduled Tribes (STs).
2. The 65th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1990 provided for the bifurcated the combined National
Commission for SCs and STsinto two separate bodies.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2
39. Consider the following statements regarding National Commission for STs
1. It consists of a chairperson, a vice-chairperson and three other members.
2. The Commission presents an annual report to the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment.
3. The Commission is vested with the power to regulate its own procedure.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3
40. Which of the following statement regarding Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities is Incorrect?
A. Originally, the Constitution of India did not make any provision with respect to the Special Officer for
Linguistic Minorities.
B. The office was established based on the recommendations of States Reorganization Commission (1953–55).
C. Constitution does not specify the qualifications, tenure, salaries and allowances, service conditions and
procedure for removal of the Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities.
D. The Commissioner has his headquarters at New Delhi.
41. Consider the following statements regarding Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG)
1. He is the head of the Indian Audit and Accounts Department.
2. He is the head of the Institute of Chartered Accountants of India.
3. He is the guardian of the public purse and controls the entire financial system of the country at both the
levels–the Centre and the state.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3
42. Which of the following statement regarding the Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG) is Incorrect?
A. The Constitution (Article 149) authorizes the President to prescribe the duties and powers of the CAG in
relation to the accounts of the Union and of the states and of any other authority or body.
B. The CAG submits three audit reports to the President–audit report on appropriation accounts, audit report on
finance accounts, and audit report on public undertakings.
C. The CAG is an agent of the Parliament and is responsible only to the Parliament.
D. The role of CAG is to uphold the Constitution of India and the laws of Parliament in the field of financial
administration.
43. Which of the following statement regarding the Attorney General (AG) is incorrect?
A. He must be a person who is qualified to be appointed a judge of the High Court.
B. The term of office of the AG is not fixed by the Constitution.
C. Attorney General (AG) does not fall in the category of government servants and is not debarred from private
legal practice.
D. Attorney General (AG) has the right to speak and to take part in the proceedings of both the Houses of
Parliament and any committee of the Parliament.
44. Consider the following statements regarding National Human Rights Commission
1. It was established as a statutory body under the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993.
2. The chairperson should be a retired chief justice of India.
3. The chairperson and members are not eligible for further employment under the Central or a state
government after their tenure ends.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3
45. Which of the following are provisions of Protection of Human Rights (Amendment) Act, 2019?
1. It increased the number of members of the National Human Rights Commission (who are to be appointed
from amongst persons having knowledge or practical experience with respect to human rights) from two to five
out of which at least three has to be a woman.
2. It made the chairpersons of the National Commission for BCs and the National Commission for Protection of
Child Rights as well as the Chief Commissioner for Persons with Disabilities as the ex-officio members of the
National Human Rights Commission.
3. It provided that the Secretary-General of the National Human Rights Commission shall exercise all
administrative, judicial functions and financial powers subject to control of the chairperson.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 only D. 1 and 3 only
46. Who among the following are the members of the selection committee to select Commissioners for Central
Information Commission?
1. Prime Minister as Chairperson
2. Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha
3. Union Home Minister
4. Union Cabinet Minister nominated by the Prime Minister
5. Chief Justice of India
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. 1, 2 and 3 only B. 1, 2 and 4 only C. 1, 3 and 5 only D. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
47. Which of the following is/are provisions of the Right to Information (Amendment) Act, 2019?
1. It provided that the State Chief Information Commissioner and a State Information Commissioner shall hold
office for such term as prescribed by the Central government.
2. It provided that the salary, allowances and other service conditions of the Chief Information Commissioner
were similar to those of the Chief Election Commissioner.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2
48. Consider the following statements regarding Central Vigilance Commission (CVC)
1. CVC is neither a constitutional body nor a statutory body.
2. The CVC advises various authorities in Central Government organizations in planning, executing, reviewing
and reforming their vigilance work.
3. Central Vigilance Commissioner hold office for a term of six years or until they attain the age of sixty-five
years, whichever is earlier.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 only D. 1 and 3 only
49. Which of the following are provisions of whistle blowers’ protection act (2014)?
1. The Act provides a mechanism for protecting the identity of whistle blowers.
2. The Act provides for a system to encourage people to disclose information about corruption or the wilful
misuse of power by public servants, including ministers.
3. The Act is not applicable to the Special Protection Group.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3
50. Which of the following statement regarding Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act (2013) is incorrect?
A. It seeks to establish the institution of the Lokpal at the Centre and the Lokayukta at the level of the State.
B. The jurisdiction of Lokpal includes the Prime Minister, Ministers, Members of Parliament and Groups A, B, C
and D officers and officials of the Central Government.
C. The Lokpal will have the power of superintendence and direction over any investigating agency, including the
CBI.
D. Lokpal can suo motu proceed against any public servant.
54. The Appointments Committee of the Cabinet (ACC) decides appointments of which of the following posts?
1. Director-General of Defence Estates
2. Governor of the Reserve Bank of India
3. Chief Justice of India
Select the correct answer using the code given below
A. 2 only B. 1 and 3 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1 and 2 only
55. The President can remove the chairman or any other member of UPSC from the office under the following
circumstances:
1. If he is adjudged an insolvent
2. If he engages, during his term of office, in any paid employment outside the duties of his office
3. If he is, in the opinion of the president, unfit to continue in office by reason of infirmity of mind or body
Select the correct answer using the code given below
A. 2 only B. 1 and 3 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3
56. With reference to administrative reforms commissions, consider the following statements:
1. The recommendations given by ARC are binding on the government.
2. The first Administrative Reforms Commission was initially chaired by Shri Morarji R Desai.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2
58. With reference to Representation of Peoples Act 1951, consider the following statements
1. All the seats in the House of the People allotted to the States shall be filled by the persons chosen by direct
election from parliamentary constituencies in the States.
2. Every State to which only one seat is allotted shall form one parliamentary constituency.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2
59. With reference to Central Council of Local Government, consider the following statements
1. It was constituted under Article 263 of the Constitution of India.
2. It deals with matters of urban local government only.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2
60. Which of the following is/are the functions of National Human Rights Commission (NHRC):
1. To intervene in any proceeding involving allegations of violation of human rights pending before a court.
2. To visit jails and detention places to study the living conditions of inmates and make recommendations
thereon.
3. To encourage the efforts of non-governmental organisations (NGOs) working in the field of human rights.
4. To review the constitutional and other legal safeguards for the protection of human rights and recommend
measures for their effective implementation.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
A. 1, 2 and 3 only B. 1, 3 and 4 only C. 1, 2 and 4 only D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
61. Which of the following statements is/are correct about the Inter-State Water Disputes Act, 1956?
1. It has been enacted by the provision under Article 262 of the Indian Constitution.
2. It empowers the Central government to set up an ad hoc tribunal for the adjudication of a dispute between
two or more states in relation to the waters of an inter-state river or river valley.
3. The decision of the tribunal can be appealed only on the Supreme Court of India.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
A. 1 and 2 only B. 3 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3
62. With reference to the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP), consider the following
statements:
1. It is an attached office under Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare.
2. It does not recommend minimum support price for any commercial crop.
Which of the following statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2
64. Consider the following statements regarding the State Council of Ministers
1. The other Ministers shall be appointed by the Governor on the advice of the Chief Minister.
2. The total number of ministers, including the chief minister, in the councilof ministers in a state shall not
exceed 25 per cent of the total strength ofthe legislative assembly of that state.
Which of the following statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2
67. Consider the following statements regarding Manner of Election to Legislative Council
1. 1/3 are elected by the members of local bodies in the state like municipalities, district boards.
2. 1/3 are elected by graduates of three years standing and residing within the state.
3. 1/3 are elected by teachers of three years standing in the state, not lowerin standard than secondary school.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 2 only B. 1 and 3 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1 only
69. With reference to the Cabinet Secretariat, consider the following statements:
1. It functions directly under the Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs.
2. The Cabinet Secretary is the ex-officio Chairman of the Civil Services Board.
3. It is responsible for facilitating smooth transaction of business in Ministries/ Departments.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 3 only
70. With reference to the National Sports Development Fund (NSDF), consider the following statements:
1. It was established under the Charitable Endowments Act 1890.
2. Donor can suggest execution of specific projects while making donations to the Fund.
3. Contribution to the Fund is exempt from Income Tax.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3
72. Consider the following statements regarding 4th National Tiger Estimation
1. Chhattisgarh and Mizoram saw a decline in tiger population and all other States saw a positive increase.
2. Bandipur Tiger Reserve in Karnataka recorded the highest number of tigers.
3. Madhya Pradesh has highest number of tigers at 996.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
A. 2 and 3 only B. 1 and 3 only C. 1 only D. 1 and 2 only
73. Who issues a notification for prorogation of the session in legislative Assembly?
A. Speaker B. Governor C. Official Whip of ruling party D. None of the above
75. Which of the following Constitutional Amendment Act bifurcated the National Commission for SCs and STs
and created a separate National Commission for Scheduled Tribes?
A. 65th Constitutional Amendment Act B. 85th Constitutional Amendment Act
C. 69th Constitutional Amendment Act D. 89th Constitutional Amendment Act
78. Consider the following statements regarding Indian Councils Act, 1861
1. It initiated the process of decentralization by restoring the legislative powers to the Bombay and Madras
Presidencies.
2. It provided for the establishment of new legislative councils for Bengal, North-WesternFrontier Province
(NWFP) and Mysore.
3. It empowered the Viceroy to issue ordinances, without the concurrence of the legislative council during an
emergency.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 3 only B. 2 only C. 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3 only
81. The Constitution has made which of the following provisions to safeguard and ensure the independent and
impartial functioning of a high court?
1. Security of Tenure 2. Fixed Service Conditions
3. Expenses Charged on Consolidated Fund 4. Freedom to Appoint its Staff
Select the correct answer using the code given below
A. 2 and 3 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 1, 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
82. Which of the following directive principles of state policy was/were included by 42nd Amendment Act of
1976?
1. To promote equal justice and to provide free legal aid to the poor
2. To protect and improve the environment and to safeguard forests and wild life
3. To protect monuments, places and objects of artistic or historic interest which are declared tobe of national
importance
Select the correct answer using the code given below
A. 1 and 3 only B. 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1 and 2 only
84. Which of the following functional items placed within the purview of panchayats?
1. Fisheries 2. Major Irrigation 3. Non-conventional energy sources
Select the correct answer using the code given below
A. 2 only B. 1 and 3 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 3 only
85. Which of the following is/are the objectives of the PESA Act?
1. To provide self-rule for the bulk of the tribal population
2. To have village governance with participatory democracy and to make thegram sabha a nucleus of all
activities
3. To prevent panchayats at the higher level from assuming the powers and authority of panchayats at the lower
level of the gram sabha.
Select the correct answer using the code given below
A. 1 and 3 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 1 and 2 only D. 1, 2 and 3
87. Which of the following rights is/are declared by the Supreme Court as a part of Article 21?
1. Right to privacy. 2. Right against handcuffing
3. Right against public hanging. 4. Right to marry
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only B. 1 and 3 only C. 4 only D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
89. Consider the following statements regarding State Public Service Commission
1. All the members of the commission should be such persons who have held office for at least ten years either
under the government of India or under the Government of a state.
2. The chairman and members of the Commission hold office for a term of six years or until they attain the age
of 62 years.
3. The chairman or any other member can be removed by the president on same grounds and in the same
manner as a judge of the Supreme Court.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 2 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3
90. Which of the following are functions of the National Commission for Scheduled Tribes (STs)?
1. To investigate and monitor all matters relating to the constitutional and other legal safeguards for the STs and
to evaluate their working.
2. To inquire into specific complaints with respect to the deprivation of rights and safeguards of the STs.
3. To make recommendations as to the measures that should be taken by the Union or a state for the effective
implementation of safeguards of the STs.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3
93. Which of the following departments comes under the direct control Prime Minister’s Office (PMO)?
1. Department of Defence
2. Department of Space
3. Department of Atomic Energy
Select the correct answer using the code given below
A. 3 only B. 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3
95. With reference of the office of the Lok Sabha Speaker, consider the following statements:
1. He/ She hold the office during the pleasure of the President.
2. He/ She need not be a member of the House at the time of his/her election but has to become a member of
the House within six months from the date of his/her election.
3. If he/she intends to resign, the letter of his/her resignation has to be addressed to the Deputy Speaker.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 3 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. None
96. Consider the following statements regarding Turtle Survival Alliance (TSA)
1. It is an action-oriented global partnership committed in achieving zero turtle extinctions in the 21st century.
2. It is an initiative of United Nations.
3. TSA arose in response to the rampant and unsustainable harvest of Asian turtle populations, a situation
known as the Asian Turtle Crisis.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 3 only B. 2 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3
99. Which of the following is/are possible applications of RNA interference (RNAi)?
1. It can be used in personalized medicines and targeted-gene therapy.
2. Development of novel plant traits and disease-resistant species of plants.
3. It can be used against viral infections, cancer and neurological diseases.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. 1 and 2 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3