Arihant NTA CUET UG 2022 Section 2 Domain (Science)

CUET (UG)
Common University Entrance Test 2022
Under Graduate Tests

for DU, JNU, Jamia Millia, BHU, AMU
and All other Central Universities (CUs)
Section II
Domain (Science)
CUET (UG)
Common University Entrance Test 2022
Under Graduate Tests

for DU, JNU, Jamia Millia, BHU, AMU
and All other Central Universities (CUs)
Section II
Domain (Science)
Compiled and Edited by

Arihant 'Expert Team'
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Contents
PHYSICS 1-100
1. Electric Charges and Fields 3-8
2. Electrostatic Potential and Capacitance 9-15
3. Current Electricity 16-24
4. Moving Charges and Magnetism 25-33
5. Magnetism and Matter 34-39
6. Electromagnetic Induction 40-44
7. Alternating Current 45-50
8. Electromagnetic Waves 51-54
9. Ray Optics and Optical Instruments 55-61
10. Wave Optics 62-66
11. Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 67-71
12. Atoms 72-76
13. Nuclei 77-81
14. Semiconductor and Electronics Devices 82-89
15. Communication Systems 90-92
l Practice Sets (1-2) 93-100
CHEMISTRY 1-100
1. Solid State 3-9
2. Solutions 10-16
3. Electrochemistry 17-22
4. Chemical Kinetics 23-28
5. Surface Chemistry 29-33
6. General Principles and Processes of
Isolation of Elements 34-38
7. p-block Elements 39-43
8. The d-and f-block Elements 44-48
9. Coordination Compounds 49-53
10. Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 54-59
11. Alcohols, Phenols and Ethers 60-65
12. Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 66-71
13. Organic Compounds Containing Nitrogen 72-77
14. Biomolecules 78-83
15. Polymers 84-88
16. Chemistry in Everyday Life 89-92
MATHEMATICS 1-118
1. Relations and Functions 3-9
2. Inverse Trigonometric Functions 10-17
3. Matrices 18-24
4. Determinants 25-33
5. Continuity and Differentiability 34-41
6. Application of Derivatives 42-50
7. Integrals 51-62
8. Application of Integrals 63-69
9. Differential Equations 70-75
10. Vector Algebra 76-82
11. Three-Dimensional Geometry 83-91
12. Linear Programming 92-101
13. Probability 102-110
BIOLOGY 1-114
1. Reproduction in Organisms 3-7
2. Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants 8-13
3. Human Reproduction 14-19
4. Reproductive Health 20-24
5. Heredity and Variation 25-32
6. Molecular Basis of Inheritance 33-39
7. Evolution 40-46
8. Human Health and Diseases 47-54
9. Strategies for Enhancement in
Food Production 55-60
10. Microbes in Human Welfare 61-65
11. Biotechnology : Principles and Processes 66-71
12. Biotechnology and its Applications 72-76
13. Organisms and Environment 77-84
14. Ecosystem 85-91
15. Biodiversity and its Conservation 92-98
16. Environmental Issues 99-105

CUET (UG)
All About
Exam
Common University Entrance Test (CUET (UG) – 2022) will be conducted in 13 mediums across India
for admission into the Undergraduate Programmes in Computer Based Test (CBT) mode for all the
Central Universities (CUs) like DU, JNU, JMI, BHU, AMU, etc. in India for the academic year 2022-23.
EVENTS DETAILS
Online submission of Application Form 06 April to 06 May, 2022 (up to 5:00 pm)
Last date of successful transaction of 06 May, 2022 (up to 11:50 pm)

Examination Fee
Correction in the particulars of Application

To be announced later on the website
Form on Website only
Downloading of Admit Card from To be announced later on the website

NTA Website
Date(s) of Examination First and second week of July, 2022
Duration of Examination Slot 1: 195 minutes (3:15 hours)

Slot 2: 225 minutes (3:45 hours)
Timing of Examination Slot 1: 09.00 AM to 12.15 PM (IST)

Slot 2: 03.00 PM to 06.45 PM (IST)
TESTS DESIGN There are three Sections in the design of the test:
Section IA 13 Languages (As a medium and “Language”) Section IB 20 Languages
Section II 27 Domain Speci c Subjects Section III General Test
MERIT LIST
Merit list will be prepared by participating Universities/ organisations. Universities may conduct their individual
counselling on the basis of the score card of CUET (UG) 2022 provided by NTA.
Broad features of CUET (UG) - 2022 are as follows:

Questions to
Section Subjects/Tests Question Type Duration
be Attempted
Section IA- There are 13* different 40 questions to Language to be tested through 45 minutes
Languages languages. Any of these be attempted out Reading Comprehension (based on for each
languages may be chosen. of 50 in each different types of passages – Factual, language
language Literary and Narrative, [Literary Aptitude
Section IB- There are 19** languages. and Vocabulary]
Languages Any other language apart
from those offered in Section
IA may be chosen.
Section II- There are 20*** Domains 40 questions to Ÿ Input text can be used for MCQ 45 minutes
Domain specific subjects being be attempted out based questions for each
offered under this Section. A of 50 Domain
Ÿ MCQs based on NCERT Class XII Specific
candidate may choose a
maximum of Six (06) Domains syllabus only Subjects
as desired by the applicable
University/Universities.
Section III- For any such undergraduate 60 questions to Ÿ Input text can be used for MCQ 60 minutes
General programme/programmes be attempted out based questions
Test being offered by Universities of 75
Ÿ General Knowledge, Current
where a General Test is being
used for admission. Affairs, General Mental Ability,
Numerical Ability, Quantitative
Reasoning (Simple application of
basic mathematical concepts
arithmetic/algebra geometry/
mensuration/stat taught till Grade
8) Logical and Analytical Reasoning
* Languages (13): Tamil, Telugu, Kannada, Malayalam, Marathi, Gujarati, Odiya, Bengali, Assamese,
Punjabi, English, Hindi and Urdu
** Languages (20): French, Spanish, German, Nepali, Persian, Italian, Arabic, Sanskrit, Sindhi,
Kashmiri, Konkani, Bodo, Dogri, Maithili, Manipuri, Santhali, Tibetan, Japanese, Russian, Chinese.
*** Domain Specific Subjects (27): 1. Accountancy/ Book Keeping, 2. Biology/ Biological
Studies/Biotechnology /Biochemistry, 3. Business Studies, 4. Chemistry 5. Computer Science/
Informatics Practices 6. Economics/ Business Economics 7. Engineering Graphics 8.
Entrepreneurship 9. Geography/Geology 10. History 11. Home Science 12. Knowledge Tradition and
Practices of India 13. Legal Studies 14. Environmental Science 15. Mathematics 16. Physical
Education/ NCC /Yoga 17. Physics 18. Political Science 19. Psychology 20. Sociology 21. Teaching
Aptitude 22. Agriculture 23. Mass Media/ Mass Communication 24. Anthropology 25. Fine
Arts/Visual Arts (Sculpture/ Painting)/Commercial Arts, 26. Performing Arts – (i) Dance (Kathak/
Bharatnatyam/Oddisi/ Kathakali/Kuchipudi/ Manipuri (ii) Drama- Theatre (iii) Music General
(Hindustani/ Carnatic/ Rabindra Sangeet/ Percussion/ Non-Percussion).
27. Sanskrit/For all Shastri (Shastri 3 years/ 4 years Honours) Equivalent to B.A./B.A. Honours courses
i.e. Shastri in Veda, Paurohitva (Karmakand), Dharamshastra, Prachin Vyakarana, Navya Vyakarana,
Phalit Jyotish, Siddhant Jyotish, Vastushastra, Sahitya,Puranetihas, Prakrit Bhasha,Prachin Nyaya
Vaisheshik, Sankhya Yoga, Jain Darshan,Mimansa,Advaita Vedanta, Vishihstadvaita Vedanta, Sarva
Darshan, a candidate may choose Sanskrit as the Domain.]
Ÿ A candidate can choose a maximum of any 3 languages from Section IA and Section IB taken
together. However, the (one of the langueges chosen needs to be in lieu of 6th domain specific
Subjects).
Ÿ Section II offers 27 Subjects, out of which a candidate may choose a maximum of 6 Subjects.
Ÿ Section III comprises General Test.
Ÿ For choosing Languages (upto 3) from Section IA and IB and a maximum of 6 Subjects from
Section II and General Test under Section III, the candidate must refer to the requirements of
his/her intended University.
Broad features of CUET (UG) - 2022 are as follows:
Mode of the Test Computer Based Test-CBT
Test Pattern Objective type with Multiple Choice Questions
Medium 13 languages ( Tamil, Telugu, Kannada, Malayalam, Marathi, Gujarati,

Odiya, Bengali, Assamese, Punjabi, English, Hindi and Urdu)
Section IA & IB: Language to be tested through Reading Comprehension

(based on different types of passages– Factual, Literary and Narrative
[Literary Aptitude & Vocabulary]
Section II : As per NCERT model syllabus as applicable to Class XII only

Syllabus
Section III : General Knowledge, Current Affairs, General Mental Ability,
Numerical Ability, Quantitative Reasoning (Simple application of basic
mathematical concepts arithmetic/algebra geometry/mensuration/stat
taught till Grade 8), Logical and Analytical Reasoning
Registration Registration will be online at https://cuet.samarth.ac.in/. (available

from 06.04.2022)
Level of questions for CUET (UG) -2022:

All questions in various testing areas will be benchmarked at the level of Class XII only. Students
having studied Class XII Board syllabus would be able to do well in CUET (UG) – 2022.
Number of attempts : If any University permits students of previous years of class XII to take
admission in the current year also, such students would also be eligible to appear in CUET
(UG) – 2022.
Choice of Languages and Subjects : Generally the languages/subjects chosen should be the
ones that a student has opted in his latest Class XII Board examination. However, if any University
permits any flexibility in this regards, the same can be exercised under CUET (UG) -2022 also.
Candidates must carefully refer to the eligibility requirements of various Central Universities in this
regard. Moreover, if the subject to be studied in the Undergraduate course is not available in the list
of 27 Domain Specific Subject being offered, the candidate may choose the Subject closest to
his/her choice for e.g. For Biochemistry the candidate may choose Biology.
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Physics 3
CHAPTER 01
Electric Charges
and Fields
1. Charge It is the property associated with matter due to where e r is called relative permittivity of the medium with
which it produces/experiences electric and magnetic respect to vacuum. It is also denoted by K called
effects. There are two types of charges namely positive dielectric constant of the medium. It has no units being a
charge and negative charge. ratio.
Charge is a scalar quantity, it can be added and e Fvacuum
\ K (or e r ) = = and e = K e 0
subtracted as a number. Its SI unit is coulomb. Its e 0 Fmedium
dimensional formula is [M 0 L0 T A ].
1 |q1q 2|
2. Conservation of Electric Charge During any process, Fmedium =
4p e 0 Kr 2
the net electric charge of an isolated system remains
constant (i.e. conserved). In simple words, charge can 6. Principle of Superposition of Electrostatic Forces It
neither be created nor destroyed. states that the net force experienced by a given charge
3. Quantisation of Charge Charge exists in discrete particle q 0 due to a system of charged particles is equal
amount rather than continuous value and hence to the vector sum of the forces exerted on it due to all the
quantised. Mathematically, charge on an objects, other charged particles of the system i.e.
q = ± ne , where n is an integer and e is the electronic F0 = F01 + F02 + F03 + K + F0 n
charge.
1 éq q q q q q ù
4. Coulomb’s Law It states that the electrostatic force of F0 = ê 1 03 r10 + 2 03 r 20 + ...+ n 30 rn0 ú
attraction or repulsion acting between two stationary 4pe 0 êë| r10 | | r 20| | rn 0| ûú
point charges is given by
where, r10 = r0 - r1; F01 = force on q 0 due to q1
1 q1 q 2
F= Similarly, rn 0 = r0 - r n ; F0n = force on q 0 due to q n
4p e 0 r 2
r q0 é n q ù
F \ F0 = êS i
ri0 ú
4pe 0 i = 1| r |3
+ q1 +q2 êë i0 úû
7. Electrostatic Force due to Continuous Charge
where, q1 and q 2 are the magnitudes of charge on
Distribution
stationary point charges and r is the distance of
separation between them in air or vacuum. The region in which charges are closely spaced is said to
1 have continuous distribution of charge.
Also, = 9 ´ 10 9 N -m 2 / C 2 (i) Electric force at a point due to a linear charge
4pe 0
q ldl
where, e 0 = permittivity of free space distribution is given by F = 0 ò 2 r$0
4pe 0 L r0
= 8.85419 ´ 10 -12 C 2 /N-m 2
In vector form, (ii) Electric force at a point due to a surface charge
1 q1 q 2 1 q1 q 2 q sdS
F= × r or F = r$ distribution is given by F = 0 ò 2 r$0
4pe 0 | r |3 4pe 0 | r |2 4pe 0 S r0
5. Relative Permittivity It is given by the ratio (iii) Electric force at a point due to volume charge
e (absolute permittivity of the medium) q rdV
er = distribution is given by F = 0 ò 2 r$0
e0 4pe 0 V r0
4 CUET (UG) Section II : Domain
8. Electric Field The electric field due to a charge Q at a 1 2p

When l << r, Eaxial =
point in space may be defined as the force that a unit 4pe 0 r 3
positive charge would experience if placed at that point. Direction of electric field at any point on axial line is along
The charge which is producing the field is called source the direction of electric dipole moment.
charge and the charge which experiences the effect of
14. Electric field at any point on equatorial line/broad side on
source charge is called test charge.
position/perpendicular bisector of electric dipole is given
9. Electric Field Intensity A charge q 0 experiences an 1 p
by Eequatorial =
electric force F, then electric field intensity at that point is 4pe 0 (r 2 + l 2 )3 / 2
F
given by, E = lim 1 p
q 0 ® 0 q0 If l << r, Eequatorial =
4pe 0 r 3
where, q 0 ® 0 means the test charge q 0 must be small.
It is a vector quantity and its SI unit is NC -1. Direction of electric field intensity (E ) due to a dipole at
(i) Electric Field Intensity (EFI) due to a Point Charge any point on equatorial line is parallel to dipole and
opposite to the direction of dipole moment.
q P Eaxial
E 15. When l << r, =2
r Eequatorial
1 q 16. Torque on an electric dipole placed in uniform electric
Electric field intensity at P, E = r$ …(i)
4pe 0 r 2 field
The mangitude of the electric field at a point P is given In vector notation, torque, t = p ´ E as t = pE sin q
1 q 17. Minimum torque experienced by electric dipole in electric
by, E = ×
4pe 0 r 2 field when q = 0° or p; t = tmin = 0
If q > 0, i.e. positive charge, E is directed away from 18. Maximum torque, when sin q = 1
source charge. On the other hand, if q < 0, i.e. negative Þ q = p /2
charge, E is directed towards the source charge.
t = tmax = pE
(ii) Electric Field due to System of Charges
19. Dipole is in stable equilibrium in uniform electric field
If E is electric field at point P due to the system of
when angle between p and E is 0° and unstable
charges, then by principle of superposition of electric
equilibrium when angle q = 180° .
fields, we get
n 20. Net force on electric dipole placed in uniform electric field
E = E1+ E2 + E3 + L + En = S Ei is zero.
i =1
Using Eq. (i), we obtain 21. Work done in rotating the electric dipole from q1 to q2 is
n 1 qi 1 n qi W = pE (cos q1 - cos q2 ).
E= S × 2 r$i or E = S r$i …(ii)
i = 1 4pe 0 r
i 4pe 0 i = 1 ri 2 22. Potential energy of electric dipole when it makes an angle
q with the direction of electric field is
10. Electric Lines of Force Imaginary curves drawn in
U = - pE cos q = - p × E
electric field along which an unit positive test charge
tends to move. The tangent to a electric line of force at 23. Work done in rotating the dipole from the position of
any point gives the direction of electric field at that point. stable equilibrium to unstable equilibrium, i.e. when q1 = 0
and q2 = p , W = 2 pE
11. Electric Dipole Two point charges of equal magnitude
and opposite nature separated by a small distance
24. Work done in rotating the dipole from the position of
stable equilibrium to the position in which dipole
altogether forms an electric dipole.
experiences maximum torque,
12. Electric Dipole Moment
i.e. when q1 = 0° and q2 = 90°, W = pE
p = q (2 l) 25. The electric flux linked with a surface when
2l (i) surface is held normal to the direction of uniform electric
field E, is Df E = EDS
–q p +q
(ii) area vector of surface makes an angle q with the
Magnitude The product of magnitude of any charge q direction of uniform electric field E,
and separation between two charges (2l ). Df E = EDS cos q
Direction From negative charge (- q ) to positive charge In vector form, Df E = E × DS
(+ q ). SI unit C-m, it’s a vector quantity. 26. Gauss’s Law The total electric flux linked with closed
q
13. Electric field at any point on the axial line/end-on position surface S is f E = oò E × d S =
of electric dipole is given by e0
1 2 pr where, q is the total charge enclosed by the closed
Eaxial = Gaussian (imaginary) surface.
4pe 0 (r 2 - l 2 )2
Physics 5
27. SI unit of electric flux is N-m 2 / C. 1 q

(ii) on the sphere is E = for r = R
2
CGS unit of electric flux is dyne-cm /stat-C. 4pe 0 R2
rR
28. Electric field due to a thin conducting charged spherical or E=
shell of radius R at a distance r from its centre 3e 0
(i) E = 0 for r < R [points lie inside the shell] (iii) outside the sphere is
1 q
1 q E= for r > R
(ii) E = for r = R 4pe 0 r2
4pe 0 R 2
rR 3
[points lie on the surface of the shell] or E=
s 3e 0 r 2
or E= where, s = surface charge density
e0 1
Þ Eµ
1 q r2
(iii) E = for r > R
4pe 0 r 2 (iv) at centre, E=0 (as r = 0)
[points lie outside the surface of the shell] 30. Electric field due to a thin infinite plane sheet of charge
sR 2 with uniform surface charge density s at any nearby
or E= s
e0 r 2 point E = [for thin non-conducting plate]
2e0
q
where, surface charge density, s = s
4pR 2 and E= [for conducting plate]
29. Electric field due to a solid non-conducting uniformly e0
charged sphere of volume charge density r and radius R Note E doesn’t depend on distance from the sheet (r).
at any point lying 31. Electric field due to two equally and oppositely charged
1 qr
(i) inside the sphere is E = for r < R parallel plane sheets of charge at any point
4pe 0 R 3 s
rr E= [between the two plates]
or E= Þ E µr e0
3e 0
and E=0 [outside the plates]
where, r = volume charge density
Practice Questions
1 An electric shock is experienced on opening the door of a 5 The Coulomb’s law is based on the assumption that
car due to charges are treated as
(a) heating of car engine (a) positive charges (b) negative charges
(b) discharge of electric charge (c) neutral charges (d) point charges
(c) motion of car 6 Force between two charges varies with distance between
(d) None of the above them as
2 A soap bubble is given a negative charge, then its radius F F
(a) decreases (b) increases
(c) remains unchanged (a) (b)
(d) nothing can be predicted as information is insufficient
r r
3 If two bodies are rubbed and one of them acquires F F
q1 charge and another acquires q2 charge, then ratio of
q1 : q2 is (c) (d)
(a) 1 : 2 (b) 2 : 1
(c) - 1 : 1 (d) 1 : 4 r r
-7 -7
4 In charging by induction, 7 If point charges Q1 = 2 ´ 10 C and Q2 = 3 ´ 10 C are at
(a) body to be charged must be an insulator 30 cm separation, then find electrostatic force between
(b) body to be charged must be a semiconductor them.
(c) body to be charged must be a conductor (a) 2 ´ 10 -3 N (b) 6 ´ 10 -3 N
(d) any type of body can be charged by induction (c) 5 ´ 10 -3 N (d) 1 ´ 10 -3 N
8 For two charges q1 and q2 , if force between them for some (c) the number of flux lines entering the surface must be
separation in air is F , then force between them in a equal to the number of flux lines leaving it
medium of permittivity e will be (d) None of the above
e e F
(a) 0 F (b) F (c) ee 0F (d) 17 Total electric flux coming out of a unit positive charge put
e e0 e0e in air is
9 The electric field at a point is (a) e 0 (b) e -0 1 (c) (4 pe 0 )-1 (d) 4 pe 0
(a) always continuous 18 If same charge q is placed inside a sphere and cube having
(b) continuous, if there is no charge at that point radius 1m and side 2m, respectively. What will be the ratio
(c) continuous, if there is a charge at that point of flux passing through them?
(d) None of the above (a) 1 : 1 (b) 1 : 8 (c) 8 : 1 (d) 1 : 2
10 When the charge of a body becomes half, the electric field 19 A hollow metal sphere of radius R is uniformly charged.
becomes The electric field due to the sphere at a distance r from the
(a) half (b) twice centre
(c) thrice (d) No change (a) zero as r increases for r < R, decreases as
11 A charged particle is free to move in an electric field. It r increases for r > R
will travel (b) zero as r increases for r < R, increases as
(a) always along a line of force r increases for r > R
(b) along a line of force, if its initial velocity is zero (c) decreases as r increases for r < R and for
r >R
(c) along a line of force, if it has some initial
velocity in the direction of an acute angle with the (d) increases as r increases for r < R and for r > R
line of force 20 What is the force between two small charged spheres
(d) None of the above having charges of 2 ´ 10 - 7 C and 3 ´ 10 - 7 C placed 30 cm
12 Two field lines can never cross each other because apart in air?
(a) field lines are closed curves (a) 5 ´ 10 -2 N (b) 6 ´ 10 -3 N
(b) field lines repels each other (c) 7 ´ 10 -4 N (d) 8 ´ 10 -4 N
(c) field lines crowded only near the charge 21 Two point charges q A = 3 mC and q B = - 3 mC are located 20
(d) field has a unique direction at each point cm apart in vacuum. What is the electric field at the
13 The ratio of electric fields on the axis and at equator of an mid-point O of the line AB joining the two charges?
electric dipole will be (a) 0 (b) 2 . 7 ´ 10 6 (N/C)
(a) 1 : 1 (b) 2 : 1 (c) 5 . 4 ´ 10 6 (N/C) (d) 10 . 2 ´ 10 6 (N/C)
(c) 4 : 1 (d) None of these 22 A point charge of 2.0 m C is at the centre of a cubic Gaussian
14 The surface charge density s of an area element ignores surface 9.0 cm on edge. What is the net electric flux
(a) the quantisation of charge through the surface?
(b) discontinuity in charge distribution at macroscopic level (a) 0 (b) 2 ´ 10 2 Nm2 /C
(c) discontinuity in charge distribution at microscopic level (c) 2 ´ 10 4 Nm2 /C (d) 2 ´ 10 5 Nm2 /C
(d) Both (a) and (c) 23 A conducting sphere of radius 10 cm has an unknown
15 A uniformly charged conducting sphere of 2 . 4 m diameter charge. If the electric field 20 cm from the centre of the
has a surface charge density of 80 mCm-2. sphere is 1.5 ´ 103 N/C and points radially inwards, what is
What is the charge on the sphere? the net charge on the sphere?
(a) 0 .7 ´ 10 -1 C (b) 1 .4 ´ 10 -2 C (a) 0 (b) 5 ´ 10 -5 C
(c) 1 .4 ´ 10 -3 C (d) 1 .7 ´ 10 4 C (c) 6 ´ 10 -9 C (d) 8 ´ 10 -10 C
16 If ò E × d S = 0 over a surface, then 24 An infinite line charge produces a field of 9 ´ 10 4 NC -1 at
s
a distance of 2 cm. Calculate the linear charge density.
(a) the electric field inside the surface and on it is zero
(b) the electric field inside the surface is necessarily (a) 10 -5 C m-1 (b) 10 -6 Cm-1
uniform (c) 10 -7 Cm-1 (d) 10 -8 Cm-1
ANSWERS
1 (b) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (c) 5 (d) 6 (c) 7 (b) 8 (a) 9 (b) 10 (a)
11 (b) 12 (d) 13 (b) 14 (d) 15 (c) 16 (c) 17 (b) 18 (a) 19 (a) 20 (b)
21 (c) 22 (d) 23 (c) 24 (c)
Physics 7
Hints & Solutions

2 (b) When a soap bubble is given a negative charge, then the If charged particle has some initial velocity at any angle
charges at diametrically opposite ends like at the end AB or from the direction of electric field, then charged particle
CD as shown in figure alongside repel. Hence, its radius moves on parabolic path. Hence, charged particle will not
increases. move along electric line of force.
13 (b) As we know,
C Eaxis 2 p / 4 pe 0 r3 2
= =
A B Eequator p / 4 pe 0 r3 1
The ratio of electric fields on the axis and at equator is 2 : 1.
D
d 2.4
15 (c) Given, radius of sphere, r = = = 1.2 m
2 2
3 (c) Due to friction, one body loses some electrons and other
gains them. As, charges appearing on both will be equal and Surface charge density, s = 80 mCm -2 = 80 ´ 10-6 Cm-2
opposite, so ratio of q1 : q2 = -1 : 1. Charge
Q Surface charge density =
4 (c) Induction requires shifting of free charge carrier which Surface area
are present only in conductors. q
Hence, in charging by induction, body to be charged must s=
4 p r2
be a conductor
\ Charge, q = s ´ 4 pr2 = 80 ´ 10-6 ´ 4 ´ 3.14 ´ 1.2 ´ 1.2
6 (c) According to Coulomb’s law, force between two point
1 q = 1.4 ´ 10-3 C
charges, varies with distance as F µ 2 . Therefore, the
r
graph between F and r will be as shown in Fig.(c).
16 (c) òS E × dS = f E represents electric flux over the closed
surface.
7 (b) Given, point charges, Q1 = 2 ´ 10-7 C,
In general, ò E × dS means the algebraic sum of number of
Q2 = 3 ´ 10-7 C and r = 30 cm = 30 ´ 10-2 m
S
flux lines entering the surface and number of flux lines
Q1Q2 leaving the surface.
Q Electrostatic force, F = k
r2 When ò E × dS = 0, it means that the number of flux lines
S
9 2 -2
where, k = 9 ´ 10 Nm C . entering the surface must be equal to the number of flux
2 ´ 10-7 ´ 3 ´ 10-7 lines leaving it.
Þ F = 9 ´ 109 ´ = 6 ´ 10-3 N
( 30 ´ 10-2 )2 17 (b) By Gauss’s law,
q
1 q1 q2 electric flux through closed surface area, f = enclosed .
8 (a) Force in air, F = × e0
4 pe 0 r2
If qenclosed = 1 unit, then
where, e 0 is the permittivity of free space 1
f= = e -0 1
and force in medium, Fm =
1 q q
× 122 e0
4 pe 0 e r r 18 (a) According to Gauss’s law, electric flux passing through
where, e r is relative permittivity. 1
a closed surface is equal to times the charge q enclosed
e 1 q1 q2 æ e ö e0
F medium = 0 × çQ = er ÷
e 4 pe 0 r2 è e0 ø by the surface,
e q
Þ F medium = 0 F i.e. f=
e e0
9 (b) The electric field due to a charge Q at a point in space Since, cube and sphere both enclose same charge, therefore
may be defined as the force that a unit positive charge would flux passing through cube and sphere is same, i.e.
experience if placed at that point. f sphere = f cube
Thus, electric field due to the charge Q will be continuous, if \ f sphere : f cube = 1:1
there is no charge at that point. 19 (a) As the hollow sphere is uniformly charged, so the net
It will be discontinuous if there is a charge at that point. charge will appear on the surface of the sphere.
11 (b) Force on a charged particle (positive or negative) acts (i) The electric field at a point outside the hollow sphere
along a electric line of force, if its initial velocity is zero. ( r > R ) is
Therefore, charged particle will travel along electric lines of Q
force. f = ò E × dS = enclosed [from Gauss’s law]
S
e0
E 9 ´ 109 ´ 3 ´ 10- 6 27 ´ 103

EA = =
dS (0.1) 2
0.1 ´ 0.1
++ +
+
+
= 2.7 ´ 10-6 (N/C)
+
+ The direction of E A is A to O or towards OB as the electric
+
R + field is always directed away from positive charge.
+ O
r Electric field due to qB at O is
+ +
1 q
+ Q EB = × B 2
+ + + 4 pe 0 (OB )
9 ´ 109 ´ 3 ´ 10- 6 27 ´ 103
Q EB = =
Þ 2
E ( 4 pr ) = (0.1) 2
0.1 ´ 0.1
e0
= 2.7 ´ 106 (N/C)
Q 1
Þ E= Þ Eµ 2 The direction of EB is O to B or towards OB as the electric
4 pe 0 r2 r field is always directed towards the negative charge.
(ii) The electric field inside hollow sphere (r < R) is Now, we see that both E A and EB are in same direction. So,
Q the resultant electric field at O is E.
E = inside2 = 0 [QQinside = 0]
4 pe 0 r Hence, E = E A + EB = 2.7 ´ 106 + 2.7 ´ 106
Thus, the electric field due to the sphere at distance r is zero = 5.4 ´ 106 (N/C)
as r increases for r < R and decreases as r increases for The direction of E (resultant electric field) will be from O to
r > R. B or towards B.
20 (b) Given, charges, q1 = 2 ´ 10-7 ; q2 = 3 ´ 10-7 C 22 (d) Given, charge, q = 2.0mC = 2.0 ´ 10-6 C
and distance, d = 30 cm = 0.3 m According to Gauss’ theorem, the net electric flux
Using Coulomb’s law, the force between two charges is (f) through the surface is
given by
1 q1 q2 q 2 ´ 10-6
F = × f= =
4 pe 0 d 2 e 0 8.854 ´ 10-12
9 ´ 109 ´ 2 ´ 10- 7 ´ 3 ´ 10- 7 = 2.26 ´ 105 Nm 2 /C
F =
0.3 ´ 0.3
~ 2 ´ 105 Nm 2 /C
-
9 ´ 2 ´ 3 ´ 10- 5 -3
= = 6 ´ 10 N (repulsion) Thus, the net electric flux through the surface is
3 ´ 3 ´ 10- 2
2 ´ 105 Nm 2 /C.
21 (c) Given, AB = 20 cm, AO = OB = 10 cm = 0.1m
1 q
23 (c) Electric field, E = × 2
A 20 cm B 4 pe 0 r
qA = 3 µC O EA EB qB = –3 µC 9 ´ 109 ´ q
1.5 ´ 103 =
q A = 3 mC = 3 ´ 10- 6 C ( 20 ´ 10- 2 )2
qB = - 3 mC = - 3 ´ 10- 6 C . ´ 103 N / Cù
égiven, electric field , E = 15
ê -2
ú
The electric field at a point due to a charge q is êëdistance, r = 20 cm = 20 ´ 10 m úû
1 q
E= × 2 1.5 ´ 103 ´ 20 ´ 20 ´ 10-4
4 pe 0 r q=
9 ´ 109
where, r is the distance between charge and the point.
Electric field due to q A at O is = 6.67 ´ 10- 9 C
1 qA
EA = × ~ -9
- 6 ´ 10 C
4 pe 0 ( AO )2
Physics 9
CHAPTER 02
Electrostatic Potential
and Capacitance
1. Electric Potential The electric potential or electrostatic 1 p cos q 1 p × r$
V= or V =
potential at any point in the region of electric field is equal 4pe 0 r2 4pe 0 | r|2
to the amount of work done in bringing the unit positive where, q is the angle between r$ and p.
test charge from infinity to that point, against electrostatic 8. Relationship between electric field and potential gradient
forces without acceleration. Electric potential dV
Work done (W) E=-
(V ) = . dr
Charge (q) or E = Ex $i + Ey $j + Ezk$
Its SI unit is volt (V) and 1V = 1 J/C ¶V ¶V ¶V
i.e. Ex = - , Ey = - , Ez = -
2. Electric Potential Difference The difference of potential ¶x ¶y ¶z
between two points in an electric field is defined as the where, negative sign indicates that the direction of
amount of work done in moving an unit positive test electric field is from high potential to low potential.
charge from one point to the other against electrostatic 9. Electric potential at any point P due to a system of n point
force without any acceleration. (i.e. the difference of charges q1, q 2 , ¼, q n whose position vectors are
electric potentials of the two points in the electric field.) r1, r 2 , K , r n , respectively is given by
W
VB - VA = AB 1 n qi
q0 V= S
4pe 0 i = 1 |r - ri|
where, WAB is work done in taking charge q 0 from point A
where, r is the position vector of point P w.r.t. the origin.
to point B against electrostatic force i.e. work done by
external force. 10. Electric potential due to a thin charged spherical shell
carrying charge q and radius R, respectively at any point
3. Electric potential due to a point charge q at any point P lying
lying at a distance r from it, is given by 1 q
(i) inside the shell is, V = for r < R
1 q 4pe 0 R
V=
4pe 0 r 1 q
(ii) On the surface of shell is, V = for r = R
4. The potential at a point due to a positive charge is 4pe 0 R
positive while due to negative charge is negative. 1 q
(iii) Outside the shell is, V = for r > R
4pe 0 r
5. When a positive charge is placed in an electric field, it
experiences a force which drives it from points of higher where, r is the distance of the point from the centre of
the shell.
potential to points of lower potential.
11. Electrostatic potential energy of a system of two point
On the other hand, a negative charge experiences a force charges
driving it from lower to higher potential. 1 q1 q 2
U=
6. The electric potential on the perpendicular bisector i.e. in 4pe 0 r
equatorial plane due to an electric dipole is zero. [putting the values of charges with their signs]
7. Electric potential due to an electric dipole at any point P Electrostatic potential of a system of n point charges,
n n q j qi
whose position vector is r with respect to mid-point of 1
dipole is given by
U= å å
4pe 0 j = 1 i = 1 r ji
j ¹ i and ij = ji
12. Equipotential Surface A surface which has same Þ q1 : q 2 : q 3 = C1 : C2 : C3

electrostatic potential at every point on it, is known as (v) The equivalent capacitance of n identical
equipotential surface. capacitors connected in parallel combination is
13. Capacitor A capacitor is a device which is used to store Cp = nC.
electrostatic potential energy or charge. It comprises of
two conductors separated by an insulating medium. 19. The most common among all capacitors is parallel plate
capacitor. It comprises of two metal plates of area A and
14. Capacitance of a Conductor If charge q is given to a
separated by distance d. The capacitance of air filled
pair of insulated conductors, then it leads to increase its
parallel plate capacitor is given by
electric potential by V, then e A
q µ V Þ q = CV C0 = 0
d
where, C is known as capacitance of conductor. It is the
When a dielectric medium of dielectric constant K is filled
ability of capacitor to store the charge and energy. The
fully between the plates of capacitor then capacitance
capacitance depends on shape, size and geometry of
KA e 0
conductor, nature of surrounding medium and presence C=
of other conductor in the neighbourhood of it. d
Its SI unit is farad (F). Farad is very large unit of 20. The capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor partially
capacitance. So, mF is usually taken, 1mF = 10 - 6 F, filled with a dielectric medium of dielectric constant K is
e0 A
1nF = 10 - 9 ,1pF = 10 - 12 F given by C =
(d - t + t / K )
15. Principle of Capacitor The capacitance of an insulated where, A = area of each plate,
conductor is increased significantly when an earthed
uncharged conductor is placed near it. d = separation between two plates,
t = thickness of dielectric medium and
16. Capacitance of an isolated spherical conductor of radius
K = dielectric constant of dielectric medium.
r is given by C = 4pe 0 r .
21. Electrostatic energy stored in capacitor (parallel plate) is
17. Series Combination of Capacitors given by,
(i) Charge on each capacitor is same for any value of 1
capacitance and equal to the charge across the U = CV 2
2
combination.
1 q2
(ii) The potential difference across the combination is equal = qV =
to the algebraic sum of potential difference across each 2 2C
capacitor,
A
i.e. V = V1 + V2 + V3
(iii) The potential divides across capacitors in inverse ratio K
of their capacitances, i.e.
1 1 1
V1 : V2 : V3 = : :
C1 C2 C3
(iv) The equivalent capacitance is given by t
1 1 1 1 d
= + +
C C1 C2 C3 where, q = charge on capacitor,
(v) If n identical capacitors are connected in parallel C = capacitance and
C V = potential difference across capacitor.
combination then equivalent capacitance is CS =
n
22. Energy Density The energy stored per unit volume of
18. Parallel Combination of Capacitors
space in a capacitor is known as energy density. It is
(i) The potential difference across each capacitor 1
is same for any value of capacitance and equal to the given by, U E = e 0 E 2 where, E is the electric field
2
potential difference across the combination. intensity between two plates of capacitor.
(ii) The total charge on the combination is equal to the
23. Dielectric Constant If Cvacuum be the capacity of a
algebraic sum of charges on each capacitor, i.e.
q = q1 + q 2 + q 3 condensor (capacitor) with vacuum or air between its
plates and Cdielectric be the capacity with dielectric
(iii) The equivalent capacitance (C ) is given by
between the plates, the dielectric constant K is defined as
C = C1 + C2 + C3 C
K = dielectric
(iv) The total charge on the capacitors is divided in the ratio Cvacuum
of their capacitances, i.e.
Dielectric constant is also known as specific inductive
q µC capacity of the dielectric or relative permittivity.
Physics 11
Practice Questions
1 Work done by external forces in moving a charge q from R 9 What is the work done in moving a 2 mC point charge from
to P as shown in figure is corner A to corner B of a square ABCD in figure, when a
10 mC charge exists at the centre of the square?
R
A B
q 2 µC
P
Q
P P 10 µC
(a) - òR FE × dr (b) òR FE × dr
P P F
òR 2 FE × dr òR 2 × dr
E
(c) (d) D C
2 While bringing the unit positive charge as shown in the (a) Zero (b) 5
figure below, potential energy difference between points R (c) 2 (d) 20
and P is equal to 10 Two charges of equal magnitude q are placed in air at a
(a) DU = - WRP R distance 2a apart and third charge - 2q is placed at
(b) DU = WRP mid-point. The potential energy of the system is
(c) DU = 2WRP Unit charge (1 C) (e 0 = permittivity of free space)
P
(d) DU = 4 WRP q2 3q 2
Q (a) - (b) -
3 To find the value of potential at a point, the external force 8pe 0a 8 pe 0a
at every point of the path is to be equal and opposite to the 5q 2 7q 2
(c) - (d) -
(a) work done 8 pe 0a 8 pe 0a
(b) electrostatic force on the test charge at that point 11 Three point charges + q1, - 2q and - 2q are placed at the
(c) potential energy vertices of an equilateral triangle of side a. The work done
(d) None of the above by some external force to increase their separation to 2a
4 The variation of electric potential of an electric dipole will be
with distance r is 1 2q 2 1 q2
1 1 1 (a) (b)
(a) E µ 3 (b) E µ 2 (c) E µ (d) E µ r 4 pe 0 a 4 pe 0 2a
r r r 1 dq
(c) (d) zero
5 The potential in the equatorial plane of a dipole of a dipole 4 pe 0 a 2
moment p is
12 The potential difference between a cloud and the earth is
(a) infinite (b) zero
107 V. Calculate the amount of energy dissipated when the
(c) maximum (d) equal to p
charge of 100 C is transferred from the cloud to the ground
6 Two charges 3 ´ 10 -8 C and - 2 ´ 10 -8 C located 15 cm due to lightning bolt.
apart. At what point on the line joining the two charges is (a) zero (b) 10 9 J (c) 60 J (d) 10 7 J
the electric potential zero?
13 What happens when a conductor is placed in an external
(a) 9 cm (b) 42 cm (c) 18 cm (d) 20 cm
electric field?
7 A charge 2 Q is placed at each corner of a cube of (a) The electric field due to induced charge opposes the
side a. The potential at the centre of the cube is external field within the conductor
8Q 4Q (b) In the static situation, the two fields cancel each
(a) (b)
pe 0a 4 pe 0a other and the electrostatic field in the conductor is
8Q 2Q zero
(c) (d)
3 pe 0a pe 0a (c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Neither (a) nor (b)
8 For a uniform electric field E, along the X-axis, the
equipotential surfaces are plane 14 If a conductor is given an excess of charge, then it
(a) perpendicular to Z-axis (a) resides on its surface
(b) parallel to the yz-plane (b) move to its centre
(c) perpendicular to yz-plane (c) escape from its surface
(d) perpendicular to Y-axis (d) distributes equally inside it
15 Two metal spheres, one of radius R and the other of radius 22 van de graaff generator is based on the
2R respectively have the same surface charge density s. phenomenon of corona discharge, which is used for
They are brought in contact and separated. What will be developing
the new surface charge densities on them? (a) electric current of order of 10 ´ 10 6 A
5 5
(a) s P = s , s Q = s (b) electric potential of order of 10 ´ 10 6 V
6 2
5 5 (c) electric power of order of 10 ´ 10 6 W
(b) s P = s , s Q = s (d) electric charge of order of 10 ´ 10 6 C
2 6
5 5 23 In van de graaff generator, charge is moved
(c) s P = s , s Q = s
2 3 from one place to other, which creates a potential
5 5 difference between two points. The potential produces
(d) s P = s , s Q = s
3 6
(a) accelerated charged particles
16 The total dipole moment of dielectric with polar (b) heating in generator
molecules in absence of an external electric field is (c) decelerated charged particles
(a) zero (b) negative (d) None of the above
(c) infinite (d) None of these 24 Two charges 5 × 10 -8 C and –3 × 10 -8 C are
17 If dielectric constant and dielectric strength be denoted by located 16 cm apart. At what point from positive charge on
K and X respectively, then a material suitable for using it as the line joining the two charges is the electric potential
a dielectric in a capacitor must have zero? (Take, the potential at infinity to be zero).
(a) high K and high X (b) high K and low X (a) 6 cm (b) 8 cm (c) 10 cm (d) 30 cm
(c) low K and high X (d) low K and low X 25 A regular hexagon of side 10 cm has a charge 5 mC at each
18 The extent of polarisation depends on of its vertices. Calculate the potential at the centre of the
hexagon.
(a) the dipole potential energy in the external field
tending to align the dipoles with the field (a) 3.7 ´ 10 - 6 V (b) 2.7 ´ 10 6 V
(b) thermal energy tending to disrupt the alignment (c) 2.7 ´ 10 - 4 V (d) 3.7 ´ 10 4 V
(c) Both (a) and (b) 26 A parallel plate capacitor with air between the plates has a
(d) Neither (a) nor (b) capacitance of 8 pF (1 pF = 10 - 12 F). What
will be the capacitance, if the distance between the plates
19 The maximum electric field that a dielectric medium of a
is reduced by half and the space between
capacitor can withstand without breakdown
them is filled with a substance of dielectric constant 6?
(of its insulating property) is called its
(a) 24 pF (b) 96 pF (c) 8 pF (d) 12 pF
(a) polarisation (b) capacitance
(c) dielectric strength (d) None of these
27 Three capacitors each of capacitance 9 pF are connected
in series. What is the potential difference across each
20 Find the capacitance of the parallel plate capacitor as capacitor, if the combination is connected to a 120 V
shown in the figure below. supply?
d/2 (a) 40 V (b) 60 V (c) 80 V (d) 50 V
28 In a parallel plate capacitor with air between the plates,
each plate has an area of 6 × 10 - 3 m2 and the distance
between the plates is 3 mm. If this capacitor is connected
to a 100 V supply, what is the charge on each plate of the
capacitor?
(a) 1.77 ´ 10 - 9 C (b) 2.77 ´ 10 - 9 C
-8
d (c) 1 ´ 10 C (d) 4.7 ´ 10 - 6 C
2KAe 0 2KAe 0 (K + 1)Ae 0 2 KA e 0 29 A 600 pF capacitor is charged by a 200 V supply, then it is
(a) (b) (c) (d) disconnected from the supply and is connected to another
(K + 1) d d 2d (K 2 + 1) d
uncharged 600 pF capacitor. How much electrostatic
21 A parallel plate capacitor is connected to a 5V battery and energy is lost in the process?
charged. The battery is then disconnected and a glass slab (a) 12 ´ 10 - 6 J (b) 8 ´ 10 - 6 J
is introduced between the plates, then the quantities that (c) 6 ´ 10 - 6 J (d) 4 ´ 10 - 6 J
decrease are
30 A charge of 8 mC is located at the origin. Calculate the work
(a) charge and potential difference done in taking a small charge of – 2 × 10 - 9 C from a point
(b) charge and capacitance P(0, 0, 3) (in cm) to a point Q (0, 4, 0) (in cm), via a point R
(c) capacitance and potential difference (0, 6, 9) (in cm).
(d) energy stored and potential difference (a) 2.4 J (b) 1.2 J (c) 2 J (d) 3.6 J
Physics 13
ANSWERS
1 (a) 2 (b) 3 (b) 4 (b) 5 (b) 6 (a) 7 (c) 8 (b) 9 (a) 10 (d)
11 (d) 12 (b) 13 (c) 14 (a) 15 (d) 16 (a) 17 (a) 18 (c) 19 (c) 20 (a)
21 (d) 22 (b) 23 (a) 24 (c) 25 (b) 26 (b) 27 (a) 28 (a) 29 (c) 30 (b)
Hints & Solutions

1 (a) According to the question, a charge q is brought from a
x
point R to a point P against the repulsive force on it due to
O 15 cm A P
charge Q. In bringing the charge q from R to P, an external
3×10–8 C –2×10–8 C
force Fext is applied just to counter the repulsive electric
force FE (i.e. Fext = - FE ). In this situation, work done by which gives x = 45 cm
the external force is negative of the work done by the Thus, electric potential is zero at 9 cm and 45 cm away from
electric force. Thus, the work done by external force in the positive charge on the side of the negative charge.
moving the charge q from R to P is 8 (b) For a uniform electric field E say, along the X -axis, the
P P equipotential surfaces are planes perpendicular to the X-axis,
WRP = ò Fext × dr = - ò FE × dr i.e. planes parallel to the yz-plane.
R R
9 (a) As charges at A and B are at equal distance from 10 mC at
2 (b) Here, the potential energy difference between two points
the centre. So, potential at A and B due to 10 mC charge are
is defined as the work required to be done by an external equal.
force in moving (without accelerated) charge of + 1C from
point R to P for electric field of any arbitrary charge \ Potential difference,
configuration. (V A - VB ) = 0
i.e. DU = U final - U initial = U P - U R = WRP Thus, work done, W AB = q (VB - V A ) = 0.
10 (d) Here, potential energy of the system,
Hence, option (b) is correct.
q –2q q
5 (b) The potential due to an electric dipole is
1 p× r 1 prcosq a a
V = = ×
4 pe 0 r2 4 pe 0 r2 1 é q1 q2 q1 q3 q2 q3 ù
U= + +
æpö 4 pe 0 êë r12 r13 r23 úû
prcos ç ÷
1 è 2ø é pù 1 é qq q ( -2q ) q ( -2q ) ù
= × êë\ q = 2 úû = + +
4 pe 0 r 2
4 pe 0 êë 2a a a úû
=0 1 é q 2 -2q 2 2q 2 ù
Thus, the potential in the equatorial plane of a dipole of = ê + - ú
4 pe 0 ë 2a a a û
dipole moment p is zero.
1 é -4 q 2 q 2 ù -7q 2
6 (a) Let P be the point on line joining two charges at a = +
ê ú=
distance x from positive charge 4 pe 0 ë a 2a û 8pe 0 a
O x P A 11 (d) Work done in increasing the separation from a to 2a is

3×10–8 C –2×10–8 C W = U f - Ui …(i)
15 cm +q +q
According to question,
a a ⇒ 2a 2a
1 é 3 ´ 10-8 2 ´ 10-8 ù
ê -2
- -2 ú
=0
4 pe 0 ë x ´ 10 (15 - x ) ´ 10 û
3 2 –2q a –2q –2q 2a –2q
Þ - =0
x 15 - x Here,
which gives x = 9 cm 1 é q ( - 2q ) q ( - 2q ) ( - 2q ) ( - 2q ) ù
Ui = + +
If x lies on the extended line OA, the required condition is 4 pe 0 êë a a a úû
=
1
[ - 2q 2 - 2q 2 + 4 q 2 ] = 0 2 20psR 2
= ´
4 pe 0 a 3 4 p ( 2R )2
1
Similarly,U f = ( -2q 2 - 2q 2 + 4 q 2 ) = 0 2 5 5
4 pe 0 ( 2a ) = ´ s= s
3 4 6
Hence, from Eq. (i)
20 (a) This combination is same as the two capacitors are
W = U f -Ui = 0
connected in series and distance between plates of each
12 (b) Given, q = 100 C capacitor is d/2.
and potential difference between the cloud and the earth, Ke A e A
So, C1 = 0 and C 2 = 0
V = 107 V d/2 d/2
Thus, energy dissipated, W = qV = 100C ´ 107 V = 109 J æ 2 Ke 0 A ö æ 2 e 0 A ö
ç ÷ç ÷
15 (d) The surface charge density of a closed surface area C1C 2 è d øè d ø 2 KAe 0
Hence, C net = = =
having charge Q is given by C1 + C 2 æ 2 Ke 0 A 2 e 0 A ö ( K + 1)d
ç + ÷
Charge Q è d d ø
s= = or Q = sA
Area A 21 (d) The quantities, energy stored and potential difference
Thus, the charges on spheres P and Q having same charge 1 q2 q
density as shown in the figure below is given by decreases, becauseU = andV = decreases.
2 KC KC
σ Because on inserting a dielectric, the capacitance will
σ
increase ( KC 0 ), where C 0 is the capacitance when no
glass slab is present and K is dielectric constant, q is
R 2R constant here.
23 (a) A van de graaff generator consists of a large spherical
P
Q conducting shell. By mean of a moving belt and suitable
brushes, charge is continuously transferred to the shell and
QP = s ´ 4 pR 2 = 4 psR 2 …(i) potential difference of the order of several million volt is
and 2
QQ = s ´ 4 p ( 2R ) = 16psR 2
…(ii) built up, which can be used for accelerating charged
particles.
When they are brought in contact with each other, the total
charge will be 24 (c) Let C be the point at which potential is zero.
Q t = QP + QQ 16 cm B
A
= 4 psR 2 + 16psR 2 [from Eqs. (i) and (ii)] q1 C x q2
(16 – x)
= 20psR 2 …(iii)
In connection of two charged conducting bodies, the Given, q1 = 5 ´ 10-8 C, q2 = -3 ´ 10-8 C and
potential will become same on both, i.e. distance, AB = 16 cm
QP QQ The potential at point C due to charge q1 ,
=
4 p e 0 R 4 p e 0 2R 1 q 9 ´ 109 ´ 5 ´ 10- 8
VA = × 1 = …(i)
QP QQ Q 1 4 pe 0 AC (16 - x ) ´ 10- 2
Þ = Þ P =
R 2R QQ 2 The potential at point C due to charge q2 ,
So, the charges on the sphere P and Q after separation will 1 q - 9 ´ 109 ´ 3 ´ 10- 8
be distributed as VB = × 2 = …(ii)
4 pe 0 BC x ´ 10- 2
QP 1
Þ QP¢ = ´ Qt = Qt As, V A + VB = 0
QP + QQ 3
9 ´ 109 ´ 5 ´ 10- 8 æ - 9 ´ 109 ´ 3 ´ 10- 8 ö
QQ 2 Þ +ç ÷=0
and QQ¢ = ´ Qt = Qt (16 - x ) ´ 10- 2 è x ´ 10- 2 ø
QP + QQ 3
5 3
After separation, the new surface charge densities on P and Þ - =0
Q will be 16 - x x
Þ x = 6 cm
Q¢ 1 Qt 1 20psR 2 5
sP = P = = = s 25 (b) Given, q = 5mC = 5 ´ 10-6 C
Area 3 Area 3 4 pR 2 3
QQ¢ 2 Qt and r = 10 cm = 10 ´ 10-2 m
and s Q = =
Area 3 Area
Physics 15
The regular hexagon is shown as follows 28 (a) Given, A = 6 ´ 10-3 m2 , d = 3 mm andV = 100 V
E D e 0 A 8.854 ´ 10- 12 ´ 6 ´ 10- 3
q q C= =
d 3 ´ 10- 3
F O C . ´ 10- 11 F
C = 177
q q
When the capacitor is connected to a 100 V supply, charge
on each plate of the capacitor
q
A 10 cm B
q q = CV = 177. ´ 10-11 ´ 100
i.e. OA = OB = OC = OD = OE = OF = 10 cm Thus, . ´ 10- 9 C

q = 177
Potential at point O = Sum of potential at centre O due to 29 (c) Given, capacitance of capacitor, C1 = 600 pF
individual point charges = 600 ´ 10- 12 F, supply voltage, V1 = 200 V,
\ VO = V A + VB + VC + VD + VE + VF C 2 = 600 pF = 600 ´ 10- 12 F andV2 = 0
æ 1 qö
çQ V = × ÷ C1C 2 (V1 - V2 )2
è 4 pe 0 r ø Loss in energy, E =
2 (C1 + C 2 )
As charge is same, so
600 ´ 10- 12 ´ 600 ´ 10- 12 ( 200 - 0 )2
9 ´ 109 ´ 5 ´ 10-6 ´ 6 Þ E=
VO = V A ´ 6 = 2 ( 600 + 600 ) ´ 10- 12
10 ´ 10-2
= 6 ´ 10- 6 J
= 2.7 ´106 V
26 (b) It is given that, capacitor with air between the plates has Thus, the 6 ´ 10- 6 J amount of electrostatic energy is lost in
a capacitance of 8 pF, i.e. initially, the sharing of charges.
e0 A 30 (b) According to question, charge at origin O is
C0 = = 8 pF
d qO = 8 mC = 8 ´ 10- 3 C
When dielectric is inserted and the distance between the Charge qP at point P = - 2 ´ 10 - 9 C
plates is reduced by half (d = d / 2),then
Ke A
C= 0 Z R (0, 6, 9)
d¢ qP
6e 0 A ´ 2 æe Aö P
= = 6ç 0 ÷´2
d è d ø (0, 0, 3)
= 6( 8 ) ´ 2 = 96 pF qQ
O Y
1 1 1 1 qO Q
27 (a) In series, = + +
C s C1 C 2 C 3 (0, 4, 0)
X
1 1 1
=
+ +
9 9 9 Distance OP = rP = 3 cm = 0.03 m
1 3 Distance OQ = rQ = 4 cm = 0.04 m
= Þ C s = 3 pF
Cs 9 Work done in bringing the charge qP from P to Q
Charge, q = C sV = 3 ´ 120 = 360 pC = qP ´ Potential difference between P and Q
C1 C2 C3 WPQ = qP (VQ - VP )
æ 1 q 1 q ö
= - 2 ´ 10- 9 ç × O - × O÷
è 4 pe 0 OQ 4 pe 0 OP ø
q
æ 9 ´ 109 ´ 8 ´ 10- 3 ö
120 V ç ÷
WPQ = - 2 ´ 10- 9 ç 0.04 ÷
Potential difference across C1 , ç 9 ´ 109 ´ 8 ´ 10- 3 ÷
ç - ÷
è 0.03 ø
q 360
V1 = =
C1 9 = 1.2 J
Thus, the work done is 1.2 J.
= 40 V =V2 = V3
CHAPTER 03
Current Electricity
1. Electric Current The directed rate of flow of charge is 8. If conductor is stretched to n times of original length, i.e.
known as electric current. If DQ charge flows in time Dt, l ¢ = nl then
then current at any time t is Þ R¢ = n 2R
DQ dQ
I = lim = where, R ¢ is the new resistance and R is the original
Dt ® 0 D t dt resistance.
Also, it can be expressed as, 9. Relationship between resistivity (r) and relaxation time,
q ne m
I= = [Q q = ne ] r=
t t ne 2 t
The current I is in the direction of flow of positive charge where, t = relaxation time
and opposite to the direction of flow of negative charge. and m = mass of the electron
Specific resistance or resistivity depends on the
2. Electric current in terms of drift velocity material of conductor, and temperature of conductor not
I = neA vd on the length (l ) and cross-sectional area (A), i.e. geometry
of conductor.
where, n = number density of free electrons;
e = charge of an electron 10. Relationship between current density (J ) , electric field
(E ) and conductivity (s ) is J = s E.
A = cross-sectional area of conductor and
11. Temperature coefficient of resistance is given by
vd = drift velocity of an electron
R2 - R1
3. Current density at any point of conductor a=
R1 (T2 - T1 )
J = I / A = ne vd
where T1 = initial temperature and
It is a vector quantity. T2 = final temperature.
4. Mobility of a charge carrier It is drift velocity (vd ) per unit 12. Superconductivity The resistivity of certain metals or
electric field (E ), i.e. alloy drops to zero when they are cooled below a certain
Drift velocity vd temperature is called superconductivity.
m= =
Electric field E 13. Colour Code of Resistance The colour code on carbon
5. Ohm’s Law At constant temperature, the potential resistor given in the form of co-axial rings. The first band
difference V across the ends of a given metallic wire represents the first significant figure, second band
(conductor) in a circuit (electric) is directly represents second significant figure and third band
proportional to the current flowing through it. represents multiplier, (i.e. power of ten). The fourth band
represents tolerance.
V µ I or V = IR
Black Brown Red Orange Yellow Green Blue Violet Grey White
where, R = resistance of conductor.
6. Resistance It opposes the flow of current and it is given
of had
l
as R = r B B R O Y Great Britain Very Good Wife
A
It depends on the geometry as well as nature of material
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
and temperature of conductor.
7. Resistivity (r) of a given conductor, depends on the
material property but it remains constant under given
physical conditions. Resistor
Physics 17
Tolerance Unit 21. During the charging of the cell, V = E + Ir

Gold 5%
Silver 10% I
No colour 20% E r
14. The equivalent resistance in
(i) Series Combination of Resistance So, if V < E, then current is drawn from the cell.
(i.e. discharging)
R eq = R1 + R2 + ... + Rn
and V > E, then charging of cell takes place.
(ii) Parallel Combination of Resistance
22. Combination of Cells
1 1 1 1
= + + ... + (i) Series Combination
R eq R1 R2 Rn The equivalent emf of battery
15. If n identical resistors each of resistance r are connected E = E1 + E2
in Equivalent resistance, r = r1 + r2
(i) series combination then R eq = nr If polarity of one of the batteries is reversed, then
r equivalent emf| E1 - E2 | and net internal resistance
(ii) parallel combination then R eq =
n continue to be the same
16. Electrical Energy It is defined as the total work done by i.e req = r1 + r2
the source of emf (E) in maintaining the electric current (I)
(ii) Parallel Combination The equivalent emf of parallel
in the given circuit for a specified time t.
combination is given by
V 2t E r + E2 r1
E = VI t = I 2 R t = Eeq = 1 2
R r1 + r2
SI unit of electrical energy is joule (J).
and internal resistance of combination
17. Electrical Power It is defined as the rate of electrical
r r
energy supplied per unit time to maintain flow of electric req = 1 2
current through a conductor. r1 + r2
V2 (iii) Mixed Grouping It consists of m rows in parallel

P = VI = I 2 R = combination such that each row contains n cells each of
R
emf E and internal resistance r then current in the circuit
SI unit of power is watt.
is given by
18. Electromotive Force (EMF) of cell mn E
The maximum potential difference between the two poles I =
mR + nr
or terminals of the cell in an open circuit is called the
electromotive force (emf) of the cell. It is denoted by E. Its and maximum current is drawn from the battery, when
SI unit is volt (V ). external resistance matches with net internal resistance,
nr
W i.e. R =
emf E = m
q
nE m nE
19. Internal Resistance It is the resistance offered by the and Imax = =
æ nr ö 2 nr
electrolyte of the cell due to the motion of charge through 2ç ÷
è mø
it and is denoted by r.
mE
20. The relationship between r, R, E and V is Þ Imax =
æE ö 2r
r = R ç - 1÷ …(i) 23. Kirchhoff’s First Law or Junction Law The algebraic
èV ø
sum of electric currents at any junction of electric circuit is
where, r = internal resistance, equal to zero, i.e. the sum of current entering into a
R = external resistance, junction (O) is equal to the sum of current leaving the
E = emf of cell and junction.
V = terminal voltage of cell. I4
æ Vö
Also, V = E - Ir çQ I = ÷
è Rø I1 O I3
æ E ö E
and V =ç ÷R=
èR + rø æ rö I2
ç1 + ÷
è Rø
i.e. SI = 0 R S
I1 + I 2 + (– I 3 ) + (– I 4 ) = 0
I1 + I 2 = I 3 + I 4
G
Junction law supports the law of conservation of charge A B
because this is a point in a circuit that cannot act as a l
E K 100 – l
source or sink of charge.
+ –
24. Kirchhoff’s Second Law or
Voltage Rule or Loop Rule In any closed mesh of
electrical circuit, the algebraic sum of emfs of cell and the Meter bridge
product of currents and resistance is always equal to At balanced situation of bridge,
zero, i.e. R l æ 100 - l ö
= ÞS = ç ÷´R
SE+ SIR=0 S (100 - l ) è l ø
Kirchhoff’s second law supports the law of conservation where, l is the balancing length.
of energy because the net change in the energy of a
charge after the charge completes a closed path must be 27. Potentiometer It is an electrical device which can
zero. (i)
measure the potential difference with greater accuracy,
(ii)
compare the emfs of two cells,
25. Wheatstone Bridge It is an arrangement of four
(iii)
measure the emf of cell and
resistances connected to form the arms of quadrilateral
(iv)be used to determine the internal resistance of a
ABCD. A battery with a key and galvanometer are
primary cell.
connected along its two diagonals as shown in figure.
The potentiometer works on the principle that potential
B difference across any two points of uniform current
P Q
carrying conductor is directly proportional to the length
between the two points. i.e. V µ l
A C 28. The emf’s of two primary cells can be compared using
G
E l
potentiometer as 1 = 1
R S E2 l2
D V K
E
l
The bridge is said to be balanced, when l
A B
(i) VB = VD
E1 K1 G
(ii) There is no flow of current through galvanometer.
P R
i.e. = SRB
Q S E2 K2
where, P, Q = ratio arms,
R = known resistance and
S = unknown resistance. where, l1 and l2 are the balancing lengths corresponding
The Wheatstone bridge is said to be sensitive, if it gives to cells of emfs E1 and E2 , respectively.
ample deflection in the galvanometer even on slight If l1, l2 are the balancing lengths when key K1 is open
change of resistance. and closed, respectively and resistance R is applied in
Safety Resistance Box (SRB), then internal resistance of
For sensitivity of galvanometer, the magnitude of four
primary cell of emfs is given by
resistances P, Q, R, S should be of same order.
æl ö
r = R ç 1 - 1÷
26. Meter Bridge It is an electrical device used to determine è l2 ø
the resistance and hence, specific resistance of material
of given wire/conductor. It is based on the principle of 29. Potential Gradient It is the potential drop per unit
V
balanced Wheatstone bridge. length of wire of potentiometer, i.e. K = where, V is
l
\ For uniform wire,
potential difference applied by driving cell and l is length
resistance of wire µ length of conductor
of wire of potentiometer.
Physics 19
Practice Questions
1 An electric current in a conductor is due to the motion of 12 If resistivity of copper is 1.72 ´ 10 -8W-m and number of
(a) charges (b) atoms free electrons in copper is 8 . 5 ´ 1028 / m3 . Find the
(c) molecules (d) conductor itself mobility.
(a) 4. 27 ´ 10 -3 m2 / C-W
2 In a hydrogen atom, an electron moves in an orbit of
(b) 6.8 ´ 10 -3 m2 / C-W
radius 5.0 ´ 10-11 m with a speed of 2.2 ´ 106 ms-1. The
(c) 8.5 ´ 10 -3 m2 / C-W
equivalent current is
. ´ 10 -3 m2 / C-W
(d) 34
(a) 11.2 ´ 10 -3 A (b) 1.9 ´ 10 -3 A
(c) 1.12 ´ 10 -3 A (d) 11.2 ´ 10 4 A 13 A 200 W resistor has a certain colour code. If one replaces
the red colour by green in the code, the new resistance will
3 The current in a wire varies with time according to the be
equation i = 4 + 2 t , where i is in ampere and t is in second.
(a) 100 W (b) 400 W
The quantity of charge which passes through a
(c) 300 W (d) 500 W
cross-section of the wire during the time t = 2 s to t = 6s is
(a) 40 C (b) 48 C (c) 38 C (d) 43 C 14 A carbon resistor of (47 ± 4.7) kW is to be marked with
4 In which conductors, both positive and negative charges rings of different colours for its identification. The colour
can move? code sequence will be
(a) Non-electrolytic solution (b) Electrolytic solution (a) Yellow - Green - Violet - Gold
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Neither (a) nor (b) (b) Yellow - Violet - Orange - Silver
5 A wire of resistance 4 W is stretched to twice its original (c) Violet - Yellow - Orange - Silver
(d) Green - Orange - Violet - Gold
length. The resistance of stretched wire would be
(a) 2 W (b) 4 W (c) 8 W (d) 16 W 15 If charges move without collisions through the conductor,
their kinetic energy would also change, so that the total
6 A wire is stretched so as to change its diameter by 0.25%. energy is
The percentage change in resistance is
(a) changed (b) unchanged
(a) 4.0% (b) 2.0% (c) 1.0% (d) 0.5% (c) doubled (d) halved
7 A copper wire of cross-sectional area 2.0 mm 2, resistivity 16 A current of 2 mA was passed through an unknown
= 1.7 ´ 10-8 W-m, carries a current of 1 A. The electric field resistor which dissipated a power of 4.4 W. Dissipated
in the copper wire is power when an ideal power supply of 11 V is connected
(a) 8.5 ´ 10 -5 Vm-1 (b) 8.5 ´ 10 -4 Vm-1 across it is
-3 -1
(c) 8.5 ´ 10 Vm (d) 8.5 ´ 10 -2 Vm-1 (a) 11 ´ 10 -4 W
8 In cosmic rays, 0.15 protons cm -2 s-1 are entering the (b) 11 ´ 10 -5 W
earth’s atmosphere. If the radius of the earth is 6400 km, (c) 11 ´ 10 5 W
the current received by the earth in the form of cosmic (d) 11 ´ 10 -3 W
rays is nearly
17 When two or more resistors are connected in series, then
(a) 0.12 A (b) 1.2 A (c) 12 A (d) 120 A
(a) same current flows through each resistor
9 A potential difference V is applied to a copper wire of (b) same voltage is applied across each resistor
length l and diameter d. If V is doubled, then the drift
(c) different current flows through each resistor
velocity
(d) both current and voltage are different in each resistor
(a) is doubled (b) is halved
18 A circuit contain two resistances R1 and R2 are in series.
(c) remains same (d) becomes zero
Find the ratio of input voltage to voltage of R2 .
10 A current i is flowing through the wire of diameter d
having drift velocity of electrons vd in it. What will be new R2 R + R2
(a) (b) 1
drift velocity when diameter of wire is made d/4? R1 + R2 R2
v v R1 + R2 R1
(a) 4vd (b) d (c) 16 vd (d) d (c) (d)
4 16 R1 R1 + R2
11 If temperature of a metallic wire increases keeping 19 Two resistances 400 W and 800 W are connected in series
constant electric field, then current density through wire with 6 V battery. The potential difference measured by
will be voltmeter of 10 k W across 400 W resistor is
(a) increases (b) decreases (a) 2 V (b) 1.95 V
(c) remains same (d) None of these (c) 3.8 V (d) 4 V
20 Five resistors are connected as shown in figure. Find the 25 Kirchhoff’s junction rule is a reflection of
equivalent resistance between the points B and C. (a) conservation of current density vector
9Ω (b) conservation of charge
A B
(c) the fact that the momentum with which a charged
10 particle approaches a junction is unchanged (as a
Ω
3Ω 5Ω vector) as the charged particle leaves the junction
7Ω (d) the fact that there is a net accumulation of charges at
D C a junction
70 19 16 15
(a) W (b) W (c) W (d) W 26 A potentiometer is an accurate and versatile device to
19 70 5 8 make electrical measurement of emf because the method
21 The resistance across P and Q in the figure is involves
A (a) cells
(b) potential gradients
(c) a condition of no current flow through the
galvanometer
r r
r r (d) a combination of cells, galvanometer and
resistances
r
27 A cell can be balanced against 110 cm and 100 cm of
potentiometer wire respectively, with and without being
P B r C Q
short circuited through a resistance of 10 W. Its internal
(a) r /3 (b) r /2 (c) 2r (d) 6r resistance is
(a) 1.0 W (b) 0.5 W
22 The reading of an ideal voltmeter in the circuit shown is
(c) 2.0 W (d) zero
20 Ω 30 Ω
28 A silver wire has a resistance of 2.1 W at 27.5 °C and a
resistance of 2.7 W at 100 °C. Determine the temperature
V
coefficient of resistance of silver.
(a) 0.0039/°C (b) 0.02/°C
30 Ω 20 Ω (c) 0.05/°C (d) 0.06/°C
29 A heating element using nichrome connected to a 230 V
supply draws an initial current of 3.2 A which settles after
2V
a few seconds to a steady value of 2.8 A. What is the steady
(a) 0.6 V (b) 0 V (c) 0.5 V (d) 0.4 V temperature of the heating element, if the room
23 When two electrodes (positive and negative) of a cell are temperature is 27.0°C? Temperature coefficient of
immersed in an electrolytic solution, the charges are resistance of nichrome averaged over the temperature
exchanged between range involved is 1.70 ´ 10 - 4 °C -1 .
(a) positive electrode and electrolyte only (a) 676°C (b) 876°C (c) 867°C (d) 500°C
(b) negative electrode and electrolyte only
30 Determine the current drawn from source for the network
(c) Both electrodes and electrolyte
shown below.
(d) directly between two electrodes
B
24 A battery consists of a variable number n of identical cells
10 Ω 5Ω
(having internal resistance r each) which are connected in
series. The terminals of the battery are short-circuited and
A C
the current I is measured. Which of the graphs shows the 5Ω
correct relationship between I and n?
I I 5Ω
10 Ω
(a) (b) D
O O
n n 10 Ω 10 V
I I 4 10
(a) A (b) A
(c) (d)
17 17
6 5
(c) A (d) A
O O 17 17
n n
Physics 21
31 In a meter bridge, the balance point is found to be at 39.5 33 In a potentiometer arrangement, a cell of emf 1.25 V gives a
cm from the end A, when the resistor Y is of 12.5 W. balance point at 35.0 cm length of the wire. If the cell is
Determine the balance point of the bridge above, if X and Y replaced by another cell and the balance point shifts to 63.0
are interchanged. cm, what is the emf of the second cell?
(a) 39.5 cm (a) 2.25 V (b) 3.25 V (c) 4.5 V (d) 6 V
(b) 12.5 cm
34 The number density of free electrons in a copper
(c) 60.5 cm conductor estimated is 8.5 ´ 1028 m -3 . How long does an
(d) None of the above
electron take to drift from one end of a wire 3.0 m long to
32 A storage battery of emf 8 V and internal resistance 0.5 W its other end? The area of cross-section of the wire is
is being charged by a 120 V DC supply using a series 2.0 ´ 10 - 6 m2 and it is carrying a current of 3.0 A.
resistor of 15.5 W. What is the terminal voltage of the (a) 6 h 33 min (b) 7 h 33 min
battery during charging? (c) 6 h (d) 5 h 20 min
(a) 10 V (b) 11.5 V (c) 7 V (d) 16 V
ANSWERS
1 (a) 2 (c) 3 (b) 4 (b) 5 (d) 6 (c) 7 (c) 8 (a) 9 (a) 10 (c)
11 (b) 12 (a) 13 (d) 14 (b) 15 (b) 16 (b) 17 (a) 18 (b) 19 (b) 20 (a)
21 (a) 22 (d) 23 (c) 24 (c) 25 (b) 26 (c) 27 (a) 28 (a) 29 (c) 30 (b)
31 (c) 32 (b) 33 (a) 34 (b)
Hints & Solutions

2 (c) Given, r = 5.0 ´ 10-11 m rl rV rV 16rV
Now, R= = 2 = 2 4 = 2 4
and v = 2.2 ´ 10 ms 6 -1 A A p D / 16 p D
Q Time period of revolution, Taking logarithm of both sides and differentiating it,
2pr 2 ´ 3.14 ´ (5.0 ´ 10-11 ) we get
T= =
v 2.2 ´ 106 DR DD
= -4
= 14.27 ´ 10-17 s R D
Charge e DR
\Equivalent current = = or = - 4 ´ ( - 0.25% ) = 1.0%
Time T R
1.6 ´ 10-19 \Resistance will increase and percentage change in it is 1%.
= = 0.112 ´ 10-2 A V IR
14.27 ´ 10-17 7 (c) Electric field, E = = [QV = IR]
l l
= 1.12 ´ 10-3 A Ir l Ir
= = [Q R = rl / A]
3 (b) The instantaneous charge, dq = i dt = ( 4 + 2t ) dt Al A
6 Given, I = 1A, A = 2.0 mm 2 = 2 ´ 10-6 m2
ò 2 ( 4 + 2 t ) dt = [ 4 t + t
2 6
Þ q= ]2
. ´ 10-8 W-m
r = 17
= ( 4 ´ 6 + 62 ) - ( 4 ´ 2 + 22 ) 1 ´ 1.7 ´ 10-8
Þ E= = 8.5 ´ 10-3 Vm-1
= 60 - 12 = 48C 2 ´ 10 -6
rl 8 (a) Surface area of earth, A = 4 pr2
5 (d) Initially, R = = 4W …(i)
A where, r = 6400 km= 6.4 ´ 106 m.
As the length of wire becomes twice, its area becomes half As charge is entering the earth per second per unit area, so
at its previous value. So, the new resistance, current density is given by
r ( 2l ) æ rl ö ne ì n ü
R= = 4ç ÷ = 4 ´ R [from Eq. (i)] J = = 0.15 ´ 1.6 ´ 10-19 cm-2 s -1 íQ = 015
. ý
( A / 2) è Aø tA î tA þ
= 4 ´ 4 = 16W = 0.15 ´ 1.6 ´ 10-19 ´ 104 m-2 s -1
6 (c) On stretching, diameter of wire decreases but volume V \ Current, i = JA = J ´ 4 pr2
remains constant. = 0.15 ´ 1.6 ´ 10-19 ´104 ´ 4 ´ 3.14 ´ (6.4 ´ 106 )2
So, V = Al or l =V/ A = 0.12 A
eE e æV ö P = I 2R … (i)
9 (a) Drift velocity, vd = t= tç ÷ [Q E = V / l ]
m m èlø Given I = 2 mA = 2 ´ 10 -3
A and P = 4.4 W
or vd µ V Using Eq. (i), we get
Above relation states that, if V is doubled, so drift velocity 4.4 = ( 2 ´ 10- 3 )2 ´ R
vd will also be doubled.
10 (c) Current flowing in the wire, i = nAevd
4.4
or R= ×W …(ii)
1 4 ´ 10- 6
or vd µ
A When this resistance R is connected with 11 V
d A supply then power dissipated is
If diameter of wire is , then area will be , so new drift
4 16 V2
velocity = 16 vd . P=
R
11 (b) We know that, current density, J = nevd …(i) (11)2
eEt or P= ´ 4 ´ 10- 6 [Q Using Eq. (ii)]
But drift velocity, vd = …(ii) 4.4
m
11 ´ 11 ´ 4 ´ 10- 6
From Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get Þ P= W
eEt 44 ´ 10- 1
J = ne ×
m or P = 11 ´ 10- 5 W
n e2 E t 18 (b) The situation is shown in the circuit diagram below
J = Þ J µt
m R1 R2
Since, on increasing temperature, relaxation time (t)
decreases, therefore current density through wire decreases. V1 V2
12 (a) Given, resistivity of copper,
. ´ 10-8 W-m
r = 172
Electrons density, n = 8.5 ´ 1028 / m 3 i
Vi
v i J 1
\ Mobility, m = d = = = Current flowing through the circuit,
E neAE neE r ne Vi
é i Eù i=
R1 + R2
êQ J = A = r ú
ë û where,Vi = input voltage.
1 Voltage across R2 , V2 = iR2
=
. ´ 10-8 ´ 8.5 ´ 1028 ´ 16
172 . ´ 10-19 Vi R2
Þ V2 =
= 4.27 ´ 10-3 m 2 /C-W R1 + R2
13 (d) Given, resistance is 200 W = 20 ´ 101 W Vi R1 + R2
\ =
R B Br V2 R2
19 (b) Given, the resistance of 400 W and (10 kW) 10000 W are
in parallel, their effective resistance R p will be
400 ´ 10000 5000
So, colour scheme will be red, black and brown. Rp = = W
Significant figure of red band is 2 and for green is 5. When 400 + 10000 13
red (2) is replaced with green (5), new resistance will be 5000 15400
200 ohm ¾¾® 500 ohm. Total resistance of circuit, R = + 800 = W
13 13
14 (b) Given, R = ( 47 ± 4.7 ) kW = 47 ´ 103 W ± 10% W V 6 39
Current in the circuit, i = = = A
As per the colour code for carbon resistors, the colour R 15400/ 13 7700
assigned to numbers are as [QV = 6V]
4 ® Yellow Potential difference across voltmeter,
7 ® Violet 39 5000
V = iR p = ´ = 1.95 V
103 ® Orange 7700 13
10% ® Silver 20 (a) Resistance in the branch ADC,
Hence, the bands of colour on carbon resistor in sequence R1 = 3 W + 7 W = 10 W
are; yellow violet, orange and silver.
Since, arms ADC (10 W ) and AC (10 W ) are in parallel their
16 (b) Power dissipated by any resistor R, 10 ´ 10
equivalent resistance, R2 = W =5 W
when I current flows through it is, 10 + 10
Physics 23
Since, R2 is in series with 9W in arm AB, equivalent Equivalent internal resistance, req = nr
resistance, R3 = 5 W + 9 W = 14 W. Eeq nE E
\ Current, I = = or I = = constant
As R3 is in parallel with 5 W in arm BC, equivalent req nr r
resistance between B and C,
Thus, current I is independent of the number of cells n
14 ´ 5 70
i.e. RBC = = W present in the circuit.
14 + 5 19 Therefore, the graph showing the relationship between I and
21 (a) Two resistances of each side of triangle are connected in n would be as shown below
parallel, therefore the effective resistance of each arm of the
r´r
triangle would be = r / 2. I
r+ r
The two arms AB and AC are in series,
R ¢ = ( r/ 2 ) + ( r/ 2 ) = r
1 1 2 3
\ Total resistance, = + =
R r r r O n
Þ R = r/ 3 This is correctly shown in option (c).
22 (d) The given circuit diagram can be drawn as shown below
26 (c) When a cell is balanced against potential drop across a
i1 20 Ω B 30 Ω certain length of potentiometer wire, no current flows
A E through the cell.
V \emf of cell = potential drop across balance length of
30 Ω 20 Ω potentiometer wire.
D F
i2 C So, potentiometer is a more accurate device for measuring
i
emf of a cell as no current flows through the galvanometer
during measurement of emf.
2V 27 (a) In potentiometer experiment, we find internal resistance
of a cell.
The equivalent resistance of circuit is given by Let E be the emf of the cell and V the terminal potential
1 1 1
= + difference, then
Req R AE RDF E l1
=
1 1 V l2
= +
( 20 + 30 ) ( 30 + 20 ) where, l1 and l2 are lengths of potentiometer wire with and
1 1 2 without short circuited through a resistance.
= + =
50 50 50 Given, l1 = 110 cm and l2 = 100 cm, R = 10 W
Þ Req = 25 W E R+r
So, = [Q E = I ( R + r ) andV = IR]
V 2 V R
The current in circuit, i = = A R + r l1
R 25 Þ =
As the resistance of two branches is same, i.e. 50 W. R l2
So, the current, i1 = i2 or 1+ =
r 110
or
r
=
10
=
1
Þ i = i1 + i2 R 100 R 100 10
2 1 R 1
= 2i1 Þ i1 = A or r= = ´ 10 = 10
. W
25 25 10 10
1 28 (a) Let the temperature coefficient of silver be a, then
Þ i2 = i1 = A
25 Rt 2 - Rt 1
\The voltage across AB, a=
Rt 1 ( t 2 - t1 )
1
V1 = i1 R1 = ´ 20 R100 - R27. 5
25 Þ a=
and voltage across CD, R27. 5 (100 - 27.5)
1 2.7 – 2.1
V2 = i2 R2 = ´ 30 =
25 2.1 ´ 72.5
\Voltmeter reading = V2 - V1 =
30 20 10
- = = 0.4 V Þ a = 0.0039/ °C
25 25 25 29 (c) Resistance at 27 °C,
24 (c) If n identical cells are connected in series, then V 230 2300
equivalent emf of the combination, Eeq = nE R27 °C = = = W
I 27 °C 3.2 32
V 230 2300 31 (c) In a meter bridge, the balance point is found to be at 39.5
Resistance at t°C, Rt °C = = = W
I t °C 2.8 28 cm from end A when the resistor Y is of 12.5 W. Since, we
know that in balancing condition,
Temperature coefficient of resistance,
Rt - R27 X l
a= =
R27 ( t - 27 ) Y 100 - l
l
2300 2300
- Þ X = Y
-4
100 - l
Þ 1.7 ´ 10 = 28 32
2300 39.5 ´ 12.5
( t - 32 ) Þ X=
32 100 – 39.5
82.143 – 71.875 = 8.16 W
or t - 27 =
71.875 ´ 1.7 ´ 10- 4 The resistance of resistor X is 8.16 W.
= 840.347 If X and Y are interchanged, then the balance length will also
or t = 840.3 + 27 interchanged. Thus, the balance length becomes
= 867.3 ° C 100 – 39.5 = 60.5 cm.
» 867° C 32 (b) Effective emf in the circuit,
30 (b) In the given circuit, distribution of current is as shown E = 120 - 8 = 112 V
B Effective emf E
(I1 – I2) Current in circuit, I = =
5Ω
Total resistance r + R
10 Ω
I2 Given, r = 0.5 W and R = 15.5W
I1
A 5Ω C 112
Þ I= = 7A
I–
(I – I1+I2) 0.5 + 15.5

l1
5Ω The battery of 8 V is being charged by 120 V, so the

10 Ω terminal potential across of 8 V will be greater than its emf
I D or terminal potential difference, i.e. V = E + Ir = 8 + 7( 0.5 ) =
11.5 V
F E
10 Ω 10 V 33 (a) As we know that in case of potentiometer, the potential
gradient remains constant.
In loop ABDA, applying KVL, i.e. E µl
10I1 + 5I 2 - 5( I - I1 ) = 0 E1 l1
\ =
Þ 2I1 + I 2 - I + I1 = 0 E2 l2
Þ 3I1 + I 2 = I ...(i) Given, E1 = 125
. V, l1 = 35 cm and l2 = 63 cm
In loop BCDB, applying KVL,
1.25 35
5 ( I1 - I 2 ) - 10 ( I - I1 + I 2 ) - 5I 2 = 0 Þ =
E 63
Þ I1 - I 2 - 2I + 2I1 - 2I 2 - I 2 = 0 1.25 ´ 63
Þ 3I1 - 4 I 2 = 2I ...(ii) Þ E= = 2.25 V
35
By solving the Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get 34 (b) Time taken by electron to drift from one end to another
2I I of the wire,
and I 2 = -
I1 = ...(iii) Length of the wire l
5 5 t= = …(i)
In loop ABCEFA, applying KVL, Drift velocity vd
10 = 10I + 10I1 + 5 ( I1 - I 2 ) Current in wire, I = ne A vd
I
Þ 2 = 2I + 3I1 - I 2 ...(iv) Þ vd = …(ii)
ne A
Putting the values of I1 and I 2 from Eq. (iii) in Eq. (iv), we l ne A
get Þ t=
I
æ 2I ö æ I ö
2 = 2I + 3 ç ÷ - ç - ÷ Given, n = 8.5 ´ 1028 m -3 , l = 3 m, A = 2 ´ 10-6 m 2
è 5 ø è 5ø
and I = 3A
17 10
or 2 = I or I = A 3.0 ´ 8.5 ´ 1028 ´ 1.6 ´ 10- 19 ´ 2.0 ´ 10- 6
5 17 =
3
10
\ Current drawn from source, I = A or t = 2.72 ´ 104 s = 7 h 33 min
17
Physics 25
CHAPTER 04
Moving Charge and

Magnetism
1. Oersted experimentally demonstrated that the current 6. Ampere’s Circuital Law The line integral of the magnetic
carrying conductor produces magnetic field around it. field B around any closed loop in vacuum is equal to m 0
times the total current threading through the loop or
E
K enclosed by the curve.
I i.e. oò B × dl = m 0 I
A B
7. Magnetic field due to straight solenoid,
Compass (i) at any point inside the solenoid B = m 0 nI
where, n = number of turns per unit length and
When key K is closed, deflection occurs in compass
(ii) at the ends of air closed solenoid
needle and vice-versa.
1
2. Biot-Savart’s Law According to this law, the magnetic B = m 0 nI
field due to small current carrying element at any nearby 2
point P is given by 8. Magnetic field due to toroidal solenoid,
m I d l ´ r$ m Idl sin q
dB = 0 or dB = 0 If a toroid has core of relative permeability m r , then
4p | r|2 4p r2 magnetic field
and direction is given by Ampere’s swimming rule or right
(i) inside the toroidal solenoid
hand thumb rule.
B = m 0m r nI
SI unit of magnetic field is tesla.
m0 (ii) in the open space, interior or exterior of toroidal
= 10 -7 T -m / A (or Wb/A-m) solenoid, B=0
4p
and m 0 = permeability of free space. 9. Magnetic Lorentz force is experienced by a single charge
3. The relationship between m 0 , e 0 and c is particle q moving with speed v in uniform magnetic field at
an angle q with it, is given by
1
= c2 F = q (v ´ B) [Vector form]
m 0e 0
where, c is speed of light. Magnitude of (F) = F = qvB sin q and direction of force is
4. Magnetic field due to straight current carrying conductor given by right hand palm rule or Fleming’s left hand rule.
at any point P at a distance r from the wire is given by 10. SI Unit of Magnetic Field
m 2I m 0I 1
B= 0 = Þ Bµ Q F = qvB sin q
4p r 2 pr r F
Þ B=
5. Magnetic field at the centre of a circular current carrying qv sin q
m0 I
conductor/coil. B = F = 1 N, q = 1 C
2r
v = 1 m / s, sin q = 1 Þ q = 90°
m 0 NI 1N
For N turns of coil, B = \ SI unit of B = = 1 NA -1 m -1 =1T
2r (1 C) (1 m /s)
The direction of magnetic field at the centre of circular SI unit of B = 1Tesla (T)
loop is given by right hand thumb rule.
11. Work done by magnetic Lorentz force on charge particle F = I (l ´ B ) [Vector form]
is zero as F ^ v. where, l is a vector whose magnitude is equal to length of
12. Magnetic force cannot increase the kinetic energy of the conductor and direction is in the flow of electric
charged particle. current I and B = magnetic field.
13. The trajectory/path traversed by the charged particle in Magnetic force, F = IBl sin q
magnetic field is where, q is the angle between current and magnetic field.
The direction of force is given by Fleming’s left hand rule,
(i) straight line when angle between v and B is 0° or 180°.
If q = 0° or 180°, then F = IBl sin 0° = 0 conductors placed
(ii) circle when angle between v and B is 90°. parallel to direction of magnetic field, experiences no
(iii) helix when angle between v and B is an acute angle. force due to magnetic field.
14. When charged particle enters in magnetic field If q = 90°, then force is maximum,
perpendicularly, then fcentripetal = fmagnetic Fmax = IBl sin 90° = IBl
mv 2 qBr 20. Magnetic force per unit length between two straight parallel
(i) Hence = qvB Þ v = F m 2I I
r m current carrying conductors is given by = 0 1 2 .
mv L 4p r
(ii) Radius, r =
qB Force will be of attractive nature, if direction of flow of
1 2pr 2pm currents are in the same direction. The force of repulsion
(iii) Time period, T = = =
f v qB will act, when direction of flow of currents are in opposite
(independent of v) directions.
qB
(iv) Frequency, f = 21. Torque experienced by a current carrying loop placed in
2p m
uniform magnetic field B is given by
q 2 B2 r 2 t = NIAB sin q
(v) KE =
2m where, q is the angle between area vector of area of coil
15. When angle between v and B is q < 90°, then and the direction of magnetic field.
mv sin q
or t = M´ B
(i) radius of helical path, r = where, M = NIA
qB
and M is known as magnetic dipole moment of coil.
Helixes 22. Moving Coil Galvanometer It is a device used to detect
the small electrical current in the circuit. It’s working is
2p m qB based on the principle that a current carrying loop placed
(ii) T = (iii) f = in uniform magnetic field experiences torque.
qB 2p m
2p m v cos q 23. The current sensitivity and voltage sensitivity of
(iv) Pitch = galvanometer depends on number of turns of coil,
qB
magnetic field B, area A of the coil and torsion constant k of
16. If a charge particle q accelerated by potential difference V the spring or suspension wire, where q = twist produced
and speed changes from 0 to v, then due to rotation of the coil.
work done = change in KE q NBA
Current sensitivity, I s = =
1 2qV I k
Þ qV = mv 2 Þ v = Its unit is rad/A or div/A,
2 m
k = restoring torque per unit twist
17. Cyclotron It is a compact device used to accelerate the q q I s NBA
positively charged particles or ions upto very high speed, Voltage sensitivity, Vs = = = =
V IR R kR
by yielding high energies. Its unit is rad/V or div/V
It is based on the principle of magnetic resonance. A
charged particle can be accelerated to high speed by 24. Torque or moment of galvanometer, in equilibrium
passing it again and again through small region of position is expressed as,
oscillating electrical field by making use of strong normal Deflecting torque = Restoring torque
magnetic field. Electrons are not usually accelerated due k
NIBA = kq Þ I = q = Gq
to relative mass effect. NBA
18. KEmax of charged particle accelerated by cyclotron is k
G= = restoring torque
q 2 B2 R2 NBA
KEmax =
2m 25. A galvanometer can be converted into an ammeter by
where, R = radius of circular track of charged particle. connecting a very low resistance (Shunt S) in parallel with
19. The magnetic force experienced by a current carrying Ig G
galvanometer whose value is given by S =
conductor placed in a uniform magnetic field is given by I - Ig
Physics 27
where, G = resistance of galvanometer where, Ig = current through the galvanometer

Ig = current through the galvanometer (full scale deflection current)
I = total current in the circuit. G = resistance of galvanometer
26. A galvanometer can be converted into voltmeter by V = potential difference across the terminals.
connecting a very high resistance R in series with 27. The resistance of an ideal ammeter is zero and an ideal
galvanometer which is given by voltmeter is infinite.
V 28. Ammeter is always connected in series with
R= -G
Ig electrical circuit, whereas voltmeter connected in parallel
with the circuit.
Practice Questions
1 When a magnetic needle is placed near the current 7 Two particles of masses ma and mb with same charge are
carrying conductor, then deflection in magnetic needle projected in a perpendicular magnetic field. They travel
(a) increases on increasing the current in the conductor along circular path of radii ra and rb such that ra > rb . Then,
(b) increases on bringing the needle closer to the current which of the following option is correct?
carrying conductor (a) m a va > m b vb (b) m a > m b and va > vb
(c) increases on bringing the needle away from the (c) m a = m b and va > vb (d) m b vb > m a va
current carrying conductor
8 A deuteron of kinetic energy 50 keV is describing a
(d) Both (a) and (b)
circular orbit of radius 0.5 m in a plane perpendicular to
2 When an electron is kept in a strong magnetic field, then magnetic field B. The kinetic energy of the proton that
(a) electron moves in opposite direction of applied describes a circular orbit of radius 0.5 m in the same plane
magnetic field with the same magnetic field B is
(b) electron moves in the direction of applied magnetic (a) 25 keV (b) 50 keV (c) 200 keV (d) 100 keV
field 9 A proton, a deuteron and an a-particle enter a region of
(c) electron moves in the perpendicular direction of perpendicular magnetic field (to their velocities) with
magnetic field same kinetic energy. If rp, rd and ra are the radii of circular
(d) electron remains stationary at same position paths of these particles, then
3 Magnetic field in a region is produced by (a) ra = rd < rp (b) ra = rd = rp
(a) only static charges (c) ra < rd < rp (d) ra > rd > rp
(b) only moving charges
10 An electron enters a region of magnetic field
(c) Both static and moving charges perpendicularly with a speed of 3 ´ 107 ms-1 . Strength of
(d) Neither static charges nor moving charges
magnetic field is 6 ´ 10 -4 T. Frequency is
4 The Lorentz force on a charged particle of charge q moving
(a) 2 MHz (b) 17 MHz (c) 20 MHz (d) 2 MHz
with velocity v in presence of both the electric field E(r)
and the magnetic field B(r) is given by 11 Vector form of Biot-Savart’s law is
é 1 ù m0 I ´ dl Idl ´ r
(a) q ê E(r) + v ´ B(r)ú (b) q[ E(r) + v ´ B(r)] (a) dB = × (b) dB =
ë 2 û 4p r2 r3
m Idl ´ r m Idl ´ r
(c) q[ E(r) - v ´ B(r)] (d) q[ v ´ B(r) - E(r)] (c) dB = 0 × (d) dB = 0 ×
4p r3 4p r2
5 A proton is projected with velocity v = 2$i in a region,
12 An element DI = Dx $i is placed at the origin and carries a
where magnetic field B = (i$ + 3 $j + 4k$ ) mT and electric field
current I = 10 A.
E = 10 $imV/m, then find out the net force on proton. Y
(a) 22.6 ´ 10 -25 N (b) 14.14 ´ 10 -25 N P
(c) 1.6 ´ 10 -25 N (d) 10.5 ´ 10 -25 N
6 An electron moves in a circular orbit with a uniform speed 0.5 m
v. It produces a magnetic field B at the centre of the circle.
The radius of the circle is proportional to X
B v v B ∆x
(a) (b) (c) (d) If Dx = 1 cm, magnetic field at point P is
v B B v
(a) 4 ´ 10 - 8 k$ T (b) 4 ´ 10 - 8 $i T 21 Two very long, straight and parallel wires carry same
(c) 4 ´ 10 - 8 $j T (d) - 4 ´ 10 - 8 $j T steady current I flowing in same direction. The distance
between the wires is d. At a certain instant of time, a
13 A long, straight wire of radius a carries a current
point charge q is at a point equidistant from the two wires
distributed uniformly over its cross-section. The ratio of
a in the plane of the wires. Its instantaneous velocity v is
the magnetic fields due to the wire at distance and 2a perpendicular to this plane.
3
The magnitude of the force due to the magnetic field
respectively, from the axis of the wire is
3 2 1 acting on the charge at this instant is
(a) (b) 2 (c) (d)
2 3 2 m 0 Iqv m 0 Iqv
(a) (b)
2pd pd
14 A tightly wound coil of 100 turns with radius 10 cm, 2 m 0 Iqv
magnitude of carrying-current in coil is 1 A, what will (c) (d) 0
pd
be the magnitude of magnetic field at centre of coil?
(a) 6.28 ´ 10 - 6 T (b) 6.28 ´ 10 - 7 T 22 A moving coil galvanometer is an instrument which
(c) 6.28 ´ 10 - 5 T (d) 6.28 ´ 10 - 4 T (a) is used to measure emf of cell
(b) is used to measure potential difference
15 A straight wire carrying a current of 12 A is bent into a
semi-circular loop of radius 2.0 cm. What will be magnetic (c) is used to measure resistance
field at the centre of the semi-circular loop? (d) is a deflection type instrument that gives a deflection
when a current flows through its coil
23 The moving coil galvanometer consists of a coil with many
I I
turns, free to rotate about a fixed axis in a radial magnetic
field. There is a cylindrical soft iron core which not only
(a) B = 1.9 ´ 10- 4 T u (b) B = 1.9 ´ 104 T u makes the field radial but also
-4 4
(c) B = 1.9 ´ 10 T, Ä (d) B = 1.9 ´ 10 T, Ä (a) decreases the strength of the magnetic field
16 A long solenoid has 20 turns cm-1 . The current necessary (b) increases the strength of the magnetic field
to produce a magnetic field of 20 mT inside the solenoid is (c) provide constant magnetic field
approximately (d) None of the above
(a) 1A (b) 2 A 24 A galvanometer of resistance 70 W is converted into an
(c) 4 A (d) 8 A ammeter by a shunt resistance rs = 0.03 W. The value of its
17 A solenoid of length 0.5 m has a radius of 1 cm and is made resistance will become
up of 500 turns. It carries a current of 5A. What is the (a) 0.025 W (b) 0.022 W
magnetic field inside the solenoid? (c) 0.035 W (d) 0.030 W
(a) 6.28 ´ 10 -3 T (b) 6.28 ´ 10 3 T 25 The resistance of a galvanometer is
- 5
(c) 6.28 ´ 10 T (d) 6.28 ´ 10 5 T 50 ohm and the maximum current which can be passed
18 A toroid of core of inner radius 0.25 m and outer radius through it is 0.002 A. What resistance must be connected to
0.26 m around which 3500 turns of a wire are wound. If it in order to convert it into an ammeter of range 0-0.5 A?
the current in the wire is 11 A, then magnetic field inside
the core of the toroid is (a) 0.2 ohm (b) 0.5 ohm
(c) 0.002 ohm (d) 0.02 ohm
(a) 3 ´ 10 2 T (b) 3 ´ 10 -2 T
(c) 3 ´ 10 -7 T (d) 3 ´ 10 7 T 26 The horizontal component of the earth’s magnetic field at
a certain place is 3.0 ´ 10 -5 T and the direction of the field
19 If two parallel current carrying conductors placed 1 m
apart in vacuum are placed such that each carries 1 A is from the geographic south to the north pole. A very long
current, then there is a force of straight conductor is carrying a steady current of 1 A.
(a) 2 ´ 10 - 7 Nm -1 (b) 2 ´ 10 7 Nm -1 What is the force per unit length on it when it is placed
-1 on a horizontal table and the direction of current is east
9
(c) 9 ´ 10 Nm (d) 9 ´ 10 - 9 Nm -1
to west?
20 Two long parallel straight wires A and B carrying currents
of 4.0 A and 5.0 A in same direction separated by a (a) 3 ´ 10 -5 Nm-1 (b) 5 ´ 10 -2 Nm-1
distance of 4 ´ 10 - 2 m. (c) 6 ´ 10 -1 Nm-1 (d) 8 ´ 10 -3 Nm-1
The force on a 0.20 m section of wire A is 27 A circular coil of wire consisting of 100 turns, each of radius
(a) 2 ´ 10 - 5
N (towards B ) 8.0 cm carries a current of 0.40 A. What is the magnitude of
the magnetic field B at the centre of the coil?
(b) 2 ´ 10 - 5 N (away from B)
(c) 2 ´ 10 - 5 N (perpendicular to B) (a) 4 T . ´ 10 -4 T
(b) 31
(d) 2 ´ 10 - 5 N (parallel to B) (c) 2 ´ 10 -3 T (d) 10 -4 T
Physics 29
28 A long straight wire in the horizontal plane carries a 33 A closely wound solenoid 80 cm long has 5 layers of
current of 50 A in north to south direction. Give the windings of 400 turns each. The diameter of the solenoid is
magnitude and direction of B at a point 2.5 m east of the 1.8 cm. If the current carried is 8.0 A, estimate the
wire. magnitude of B inside the solenoid near its centre.
(a) 2 ´ 10 - 6 T, south (a) 2.5 ´ 10- 2 T (b) 3.5 ´ 10- 2 T
(b) 3 ´ 10 -6 T, downward (c) 4.5 ´ 10- 2 T (d) 5 ´ 10 - 2 T
(c) 4 ´ 10 - 6 T, upward 34 A square coil of side 10 cm consists of 20 turns and carries
(d) 6 T North a current of 12 A. The coil is suspended vertically and the
29 A horizontal overhead power line carries a current of 90 A normal to the plane of the coil makes an angle of 30° with
in east to west direction. What are the magnitude and the direction of a uniform horizontal magnetic field of
direction of the magnetic field due to the current 1.5 m magnitude 0.80 T. What is the magnitude of torque
below the line? experienced by the coil?
(a) 1.2 ´ 10 - 5 T, vertically down (a) 1.96 N-m (b) 0.96 N-m
(b) 1.2 ´ 10 - 5 T, vertically up (c) 2.0 N-m (d) 4 N-m
(c) 4 T vertically up 35 Two moving coil meters M1 and M2 having the following
(d) 4 T, vertically down particulars :
30 What is the magnitude of magnetic force per unit length R1 = 10 W, N1 = 30, A1 = 3.6 ´ 10 - 3 m2 ,
on a wire carrying a current of 8 A and making an angle of B1 = 0.25 T
30° with the direction of a uniform magnetic field of 0.15 R2 = 14 W, N2 = 42, A2 = 1.8 ´ 10 - 3 m2 , B2 = 0.50 T
T? (The spring constants are identical for the two meters).
Determine the ratio of voltage sensitivity of M2 and M1 .
(a) 0.4 Nm -1 (b) 0.6 Nm -1
(c) 4 Nm -1 (d) 6 Nm -1 (a) 4 (b) 5 (c) 6 (d) 1
31 A 3.0 cm wire carrying a current of 10 A is placed inside a 36 In a chamber, a uniform magnetic field of 6.5 G
solenoid perpendicular to its axis. The magnetic field (1G = 10 - 4 T) is maintained. An electron is shot into the
inside the solenoid is given to be 0.27 T. field with a speed of 4.8 ´ 106 ms -1 normal to the field.
What is the magnetic force on the wire? Determine the radius of the circular orbit.
(a) 7 ´ 10 - 2 N (b) 8.1 ´ 10- 2 N (Take, e = 1.6 ´ 10 -19 C and me = 9.1 ´ 10-31 kg)
(c) 6.4 ´ 10 - 2 N (d) 4 ´ 10 2 N (a) 2 cm (b) 8 cm (c) 6 cm (d) 4.2 cm
32 Two long and parallel straight wires A and B carrying 37 A circular coil of 30 turns and radius 8.0 cm carrying a
currents of 8.0 A and 5.0 A in the same direction are current of 6.0 A is suspended vertically in a uniform
separated by a distance of 4.0 cm. Estimate the force on a horizontal magnetic field of magnitude 1.0 T. The field
10 cm section of wire A. lines make an angle of 60° with the normal of the coil.
(a) 5 ´ 10 -5 N, repulsive Calculate the magnitude of the counter torque that must
(b) 5 ´ 10 -5 N, attractive be applied to prevent the coil from turning.
(c) 2 ´ 10 -5 N, repulsive (a) 4 N-m (b) 6 N-m
(d) 2 ´ 10 -5 N, attractive (c) 3.133 N-m (d) 2.8 N-m
ANSWERS
1 (d) 2 (d) 3 (b) 4 (b) 5 (a) 6 (b) 7 (a) 8 (d) 9 (a) 10 (b)
11 (c) 12 (a) 13 (c) 14 (d) 15 (c) 16 (d) 17 (a) 18 (b) 19 (a) 20 (a)
21 (d) 22 (d) 23 (b) 24 (d) 25 (a) 26 (a) 27 (b) 28 (c) 29 (b) 30 (b)
31 (b) 32 (d) 33 (a) 34 (b) 35 (d) 36 (d) 37 (c)
Hints & Solutions

2 (d) When a charged particle is kept stationary ( v = 0 ) in the rproton mp K p
strong magnetic field, then no force acts on the charged Þ =
rdeuteron md K d
particle.
i.e. F = Bqv = Bq ´ 0 0.5 mp K p
Þ = [Q rp = rd = 0.5 m]
F =0 0.5 2mp K p
Hence, when an electron is kept in a strong magnetic field, [Q mass of deuteron = 2 ´ mass of proton]
then electron remains stationary at same position. mp K p
3 (b) Static charges produce only electric field, whereas 1=
2mp K d
moving charges produce electric and magnetic fields both.
K p = 2K d [Q Given, K d = 50 keV]
4 (b) When a point charge q is moving with velocity v and
located at r at a given time t in presence of both the electric Þ K p = 2 ´ 50
field E ( r ) and the magnetic field B ( r ), then it experiences a = 100 keV
force called Lorentz force and given by 9 (a) As we know that, radius of circle,
F = Felectric + Fmagnetic 1 2
mv
mv
F = q[ E( r ) + v ´ B ( r )] r= = 2× 2
Bq Bqv
5 (a) Given, velocity of proton, v = 2$i
2E é 1 2ù
Magnetic field, B = ( i$ + 3$j + 4 k$ ) mT Þ r= êëQ E = 2 mv úû
Bqv
Electric field, E = 10$im V/m As, energy E is same, then r µ 1/ q.
Charge on proton, q = 16 . ´ 10-19 C Since, charge of deuteron, qd = 2q p ,
Applied Lorentz force on the proton, and charge of a-particle, qa = 2q p
F = qE + q( v ´ B ) = q[E + ( v ´ B )] where, q p is charge of proton.
. ´ 10-19 [10 ´ 10-6 $i + 2$i ´ ( $i + 3$j + 4 k$ ) ´ 10-6 ]
= 16 Þ rp > rd = ra
or ra = rd < rp
. ´ 10-19 ´ 10-6 [10$i + 6k$ - 8$j]
= 16
10 (b) Given, speed, v = 3 ´ 107 ms -1
. ´ 10-25 [10$i - 8$j + 6k$ ] N
F = 16
and magnetic field, B = 6 ´ 10-4 T.
. ´ 10-25 ´ (10 )2 + ( -8 )2 + ( 6 )2
| F | = 16
mv 9 ´ 10-31 kg ´ 3 ´ 107 ms -1
. ´ 10-25 ´ 14.14 = 22.6 ´ 10-25 N
= 16 Radius, r = =
qB 1.6 ´ 10-19 C ´ 6 ´ 10-4 T
6 (b)Q The radius of circular path,
= 28 ´ 10-2 m
mv v
r= Þ rµ Frequency of an electron,
qB B
v 3 ´ 107
v n= =
The radius of the circle is directly proportional to . 2pr 2 ´ 22 ´ 28 ´ 10-2
B
7
mv 300 ´ 10 7
7 (a) Radius of path, r =
qB = . ´ 107 = 17 MHz
= 17
176
Given, ra > rb 12 (a) The magnitude of magnetic field,
ma va mb vb m 0 I dl sin q
Þ > [Q qa = qb (given)] | dB | = ×
qB qB 4p r2
Þ ma va > mb vb -2
Given, dl = Dx = 10 m, I = 10 A, r = 0.5 m,
8 (d) Radius of the circular orbit that a charged particle m0
traverses is given as = 10-7 Tm/ A, q = 90° Þ sin 90° = 1
4p
mv 2mK 10-7 ´ 10 ´ 10-2
Q r= = Þ |dB | = = 4 ´ 10-8 T
Bq Bq 25 ´ 10-2
where, K is kinetic energy. Since, dl ´ r = Dx$i ´ y$j = y Dx ( $i ´ $j ) = y Dxk$
2mK So, the direction of the field is in the + z-direction.
When B is same,we can write r µ
q Therefore, dB = 4 ´ 10-8 kT
Physics 31
13 (c) By Ampere’s circuital rule, magnetic field inside and 16 (d) Given, n = 20 turns cm -1 = 20 ´ 100 turns m -1
outside a wire carrying a uniformly distributed current is,
= 2000 turns m -1
Bout = µ0 i ...(i) and magnetic field, B = 20 m T = 20 ´ 10-3 T
r 2πr
R
By the formula, magnetic field, B = m 0 nI
or 20 ´ 10-3 = 4 p ´ 10-7 ´ 2000 ´ I
µ0 ir 20 ´ 10-3
r Bin = ...(ii) or I= Þ I ~
- 8A
2π R2 4 p ´ 10-7 ´ 2000
17 (a) Given, length, l = 0.5 m, radius, r = 1cm = 0.01 m and
current, I = 5 A.
The number of turns per unit length is
In given case, radius of wire is a. So, magnetic field due to 500
a n= = 1000 turns m -1
wire at a distance from centre, 0.5
3
Q l/ r = 50, i.e. l >> r.
æaö
iç ÷ Hence, we can use the long solenoid formula,
m0 è 3 ø m0i
B1 = = [from Eq. (ii)] Magnetic field, B = m 0 nI
2p a 2 6pa
= 4 p ´ 10-7 ´ 103 ´ 5 = 6.28 ´ 10-3 T
and magnetic field at a distance 2a from centre,
m0i m i 18 (b) Given, inner radius of toroid = 0.25 m,
B2 = = 0 [from Eq. (i)]
2p( 2a ) 4 pa Outer radius of toroid = 0.26 m
Ratio of fields will be Number of turns = 3500
æ m0i ö and current = 11 A.
ç ÷
B1 è 6pa ø 2 0.25 + 0.26
= = \ Mean radius, rm = = 25.5 ´ 10-2 m
B2 æ m 0 i ö 3 2
ç ÷
è 4 pa ø Number of turns in unit length,
N 3500
14 (d) Since, the coil is tightly wound, we may take each n= =
circular element to have the same radius R = 10 cm 2p rm 2p ´ 25.5 ´ 10-2
= 10-1 m, number of turns, N = 100 and current, I = 1 A. Magnetic field of a toroid,
3500
The magnitude of the magnetic field at centre of coil is B = m 0 nI = 4 p ´ 10-7 ´ ´ 11
2p ´ 25.5 ´ 10-2
m 0 NI 4 p ´ 10-7 ´ 102 ´ 1 = 3 ´ 10-2 T
B= =
2R 2 ´ 10-1
19 (a) The force acting per unit length of a current carrying
= 2p ´ 10-4 = 6.28 ´ 10-4 T conductor,
15 (c) Given, current, I = 12 A, F m 0 2I1 I 2
=
radius, R = 2 cm = 2 ´ 10-2 m l 4p d
Magnetic field at the centre of current carrying circular loop, When d = 1m, l = 1m and I1 = I 2 = 1 A
2 ´ 1´ 1
m 0 I m 0 pI F = 10-7 ´
Bc = = × 12
2R 2p R Then, F = 2 ´ 10 Nm-1
-7
Magnetic field at the centre of semi-circular loop,
B m pI 20 (a) Given, I1 = 4.0 A , I 2 = 5.0 A , d = 4 ´ 10-2 m
B= c = 0
2 4p R
and l = 0.20 m
. ´ 12
314
= 10-7 ´ Force on a current carrying wire,
2 ´ 10-2
m I I l 4 p ´ 10-7 ´ 4.0 ´ 5.0 ´ 0.20
= 1.9 ´ 10-4 T F = 0 1 2 =
2pd . ´ 4 ´ 10-2
2 ´ 314
Thus, B is 1.9 ´ 10-4 T normal to the plane of the paper
going into it, i.e. q. = 2 ´ 10-5 N (towards B)
21 (d) The given situation can be drawn as below 27 (b) Given, n = 100, r = 8 cm = 8 ´ 10- 2 m
1 2 and I = 0.40 A
The magnetic field B at the centre,
I I m 2pIn 10- 7 ´ 2 ´ 3.14 ´ 0.40 ´ 100
P B= 0× =
q 4p r 8 ´ 10- 2
d = 3.1 ´ 10- 4 T
d/2 d/2
28 (c) Given, I = 50 A and r = 2.5 m
The magnetic field B1 at mid-point P due to first wire is in N
downward direction, according to right-hand rule. Similarly,
magnetic field B 2 due to second wire is in upward direction. 2.5 m E
Let the charge q is moving with instantaneous velocity v in r P
upward direction, then magnitude of force on q, due to first 50 A
wire is
F1 = q ( v ´ B1 ) = qvB1 sin q = qvB1 sin 180° S
Similarly, magnitude of force on q, due to second wire is The magnitude of magnetic field,
F2 = q ( v ´ B 2 ) = qvB2 sin q m 2I
B= 0×
= qvB2 sin 0° = 0 4p r
2 ´ 50
Thus, net magnitude of force on q, = 10- 7 ×
F net = F1 + F2 = 0 2.5
= 4 ´ 10- 6 T, in upward direction
24 (d) To convert a galvanometer into an ammeter resistance is
connected in parallel, 29 (b) Given, I = 90 A and r = 1.5 m
RG rs Overhead line
Resistance, R = 90 A
RG + rs
W E
Given, RG = 70 W and rs = 0.03 W
1.5 m
70 ´ 0.03
\ R= = 0.02998 = 0.030 W
70 + 0.03 P
25 (a) An ammeter is a type of galvanometer with a shunt The magnitude of magnetic field,
connected in parallel to the galvanometer. m 2I 10- 7 ´ 2 ´ 90
Ammeter circuit is shown in the figure below B= 0× = = 1.2 ´ 10- 5 T
4p r .
15
S The direction of B will be vertically upward.
I – Ig 30 (b) Given, I = 8 A, q = 30°,
and B = 0.15 T
G
I Ig
I
So, I gG = ( I - I g ) S
30°
Here, I g = 0.002 A, B
I = 0.5 A,
G = 50 W
The magnitude of magnetic force,
So, shunt resistance required is
|F | = I ( l ´ B ) = I l B sin q
I gG 0.002 ´ 50 Þ F = 8 ´ l ´ 0.15 ´ sin 30°
S = = » 0.2 W
I - I g ( 0.5 - 0.002 ) The magnitude force per unit length,
F 8 ´ 0.15
26 (a) Given, B = 3.0 ´ 10-5 T and I = 1 A f = = = 0.6 Nm -1
l 2
Force acting on a horizontal table, F = IlB sin q
F 31 (b) Given, l = 3.0 cm = 3.0 ´ 10- 2 m, I = 10 A
So, the force per unit length is, f = = IB sin q
l and B = 0.27 T.
When the current is flowing from east to west, then
I
q = 90°,
Þ f = IB sin 90° B
= 1 ´ 3.0 ´ 10- 5 ´ 1
From the figure, the angle between the magnetic field and
= 3 ´ 10-5 Nm -1 the direction of flow of current is 90°.
Physics 33
The magnitude of magnetic force on the wire, NAB

35 (d) Using the formula of voltage sensitivity, V =
F = IlB sin 90° kR
= 10 ´ 3.0 ´ 10- 2 ´ 0.27 ´ sin 90° Vs 2 N 2 B2 A2 k1 R1
\ =
= 8.1 ´ 10- 2 N Vs 1 k2 . R2 N 1 B1 A1
32 (d) Given, I1 = 8.0 A, I 2 = 5.0 A Given, R1 = 10 W, N 1 = 30, A1 = 3.6 ´ 10-3 m2 ,
and r = 4.0 cm = 0.04 m . ´ 10-3 m2 , B2 =
B1 = 0.25 T, R2 = 14 W, N 2 = 42, A2 = 18
A B 0.50 T and k2 = k1 = k
Vs2 42 ´ 0.50 ´ 1.8 ´ 10- 3 ´ k ´ 10
8.0 A 5.0 A Þ = =1
Vs1 k ´ 14 ´ 30 ´ 0.25 ´ 3.6 ´ 10- 3
B
4.0 cm
F 36 (d) Here, F = q ( v ´ B ) = e ( v ´ B ) = ev B sin 90°
As this force provides the centripetal force, i.e.
mv2
Force per unit length on two parallel wire carrying current, evB sin 90° =
m 2I × I r
F = 0× 1 2 mv
4p r Þ r=
eB ´ 1
10- 7 ´ 2 ´ 8.0 ´ 5.0
=
0.04 Given, B = 6.5 G = 6.5 ´ 10-4 T, v = 4.8 ´ 106 ms -1
= 2 ´ 10- 4 N . ´ 10-19 C
e = 16
The force on a 10 cm section of wire A is and . ´ 10-31 kg
me = 91
F ¢ = F ´ 0.1 (Q 10 cm = 0.1 m)
Þ F ¢ = 2 ´ 10- 4 ´ 0.1 9.1 ´ 10-31 ´ 4.8 ´ 106
Þ r=
1.6 ´ 10-19 ´ 6.5 10-4
= 2 ´ 10- 5 N
This force is attractive as currents are in same direction. = 4.2 ´ 10- 2 m = 4.2 cm
33 (a) Given, l = 80 cm = 0.8 m and I = 8.0 A. 37 (c) Given, N = 30, r = 8 cm = 0.08 m, I = 6 A,
The total number of turns, N = 400 ´ 5 = 2000 B = 1.0 T and q = 60°.
2000 Magnitude of torque acting on the current carrying coil due
and number of turns/length, n = = 2500
0.8 to the magnetic field,
The magnitude of magnetic field inside the solenoid,
B = m 0 nI = 4 p ´ 10-7 ´ nI
= 4 ´ 3.14 ´ 10- 7 ´ 2500 ´ 8 60°
= 2.5 ´ 10- 2 T B
The direction of magnetic field is along the axis of solenoid.
34 (b) Given, a = 10 cm, A = a 2 = (10 ´ 10-2 )2 m2 ,
N = 20, I = 12 A, q = 30° and B = 0.80 T
t = NIAB sin q
The magnitude of torque experienced by the coil,
t = NI AB sin q = 30 ´ 6 ´ p (0.08) 2 ´ 1 ´ sin 60°
= 20 ´ 12 ´ (10 ´ 10- 2 )2 ´ 0.80 ´ sin 30° = 30 ´ 6 ´ 3.14 ´ 0.08 ´ 0.08 ´
3
2.4 ´ 0.80 2
t = 2.4 ´ 0.80 ´sin 30° = = 0.96 N-m = 3.133 N-m
2
CHAPTER 05
Magnetism and Matter

1. The magnetic dipole moment of a magnetic dipole It is The direction of dipole moment can be obtained by right
given by, M = m 2 I where, m is pole strength and 2l is hand thumb rule.
dipole length (magnetic length). 9. Magnetic dipole moment of a revolving electron
SI unit of magnetic dipole moment is A-m 2 or J/T. M=
evr
It is a vector quantity and its direction is from South pole 2
towards North pole. where, v = speed of electron on a circular path of radius r
e
2. Coulomb’s Law in Magnetism or M= L
2 me
Magnitude of force acting between two magnetic poles where, L is angular momentum, me = mass of electron
of pole strength m1 and m2 and separated by distance r is and given as L = mvr
given by
m m m 10. Force of interaction between two magnetic dipoles is
F = 0 12 2 m 0 6 m1 m2
4p r F =
4p r4
3. Direction of net magnetic field at any point in the field
region is along the tangent on the magnetic field lines at 11. Earth behaves like a magnet whose magnetic North pole
that point. is somewhere close to geographical South pole and
magnetic South pole is closed to geographical North
4. Magnetic field due to a bar magnet at pole.
(i) an axial point (end-on-position) is
m 2M 12. There are three elements of earth’s magnetic field namely
B= 0 3 [Q r >> l ]
4p r (i) Angle of declination (a )
The direction of magnetic field is along the direction of (ii) Angle of dip (d)
magnetic dipole moment ( M). (iii) Horizontal component of Earth’s magnetic field (He ).
m M 13. (i) The angle between geographical meridian
(ii) on equatorial point, B = 0 3 . The direction of and magnetic meridian is known as angle of
4p r
magnetic field is parallel to the magnetic dipole and declination (a ).
opposite to the direction of dipole moment. (ii) In magnetic meridian, the angle made by resultant
5. Torque on a bar magnet in a uniform magnetic field is Earth’s magnetic field (Be ) with the horizontal is known
t = MB sin q = M ´ B as angle of dip (d).
(iii) Horizontal component of the Earth’s magnetic field
where, q is the angle between M and B.
The direction of t is perpendicular to the plane having M He = Be cos d
and B and is given by right hand screw rule. 14. Relationship between horizontal and vertical components
6. Potential energy of a magnetic dipole in a magnetic field is of the Earth’s magnetic field and angle of dip is given by
U = - MB cos q = - M × B He = Be cos d and Ve = Be sin d
where, q is the angle between M and B. Þ
Ve
= tan d
7. Work done in rotating the dipole in uniform magnetic field He
from q1 to q2 is given by
B = Ve2 + He2
W = MB (cos q1 - cos q2 )
15. Neutral Points The points where net magnetic field due
8. Current loop behaves like a magnetic dipole, whose to the magnet and magnetic field of the Earth is zero, are
dipole moment is given by M = I A called neutral points.
Physics 35
16. Terms related to magnetic properties of material : Relation between m r and c m is m r = 1 + c m

(i) Magnetising Field (H) or Magnetic Intensity The 17. On the basis of their behaviours, the magnetic materials
magnetic field which induces magnetic property in placed in a uniform magnetic field, are classified into
magnetic material is known as magnetising field. three categories
B (i) paramagnetic substance
H= 0
m0 (ii) diamagnetic substance
(iii) ferromagnetic substance
Its SI unit is Am -1.
(ii) Magnetic Inducton (B) The resultant magnetic field 18. Soft iron possesses high permeability, susceptibility,
produced inside the specimen of magnetic material retentivity and low coercivity, a small hysterisis loss,
after magnetisation is known as magnetic inducton. therefore it is fit for making electromagnet.
B = m 0 (H + I ) 19. Steel possesses high coercivity, large hysterisis loss,
(iii) Intensity of Magnetisation (I) The magnetic dipole moderate permeability, susceptibility and retentivity,
therefore it is fit for making permanent magnet.
moment produced per unit volume, when a specimen of
magnetic material in magnetising field is known as 20. Vibration Magnetometer It is used to compare
intensity of magnetisation. the magnetic moments of two bar magnets or to
M m determine the horizontal component of Earth’s magnetic
I= or I = field.
V A
where, M = magnetic dipole moment, I
T = 2p
m = pole strength, V = volume of specimen and MH
A = cross-sectional area. where,T = time period,
Its SI unit is Am -1. I = moment of inertia of suspended bar magnet,
(iv) Magnetic Permeability It is equal to the ratio of M = magnetic dipole moment and
magnetic induction and magnetising field or magnetic H = horizontal component of Earth magnetic field.
intensity. 21. Curie Law It states that the magnetic susceptibility of
B paramagnetic substances is inversely proportional to
m= 1
H absolute temperature, i.e. c µ .
Its SI unit is Tm A . -1 T
22. Curie Temperature With rise of temperature,
(v) Magnetic Susceptibility It is equal to the ratio of susceptibility of ferromagnetic materials decreases. At a
intensity of magnetisation and magnetising certain temperature, ferromagnetic materials becomes
I paramagnetic. This transition temperature from
field cm = ferromagnetic to paramagnetism is called curie
H
temperature (Tc ).
It has no unit, as units of H and I are same (Am -1 ).
Susceptibility in paramagnetic phase is described by
B c
Relative magnetic permeability m r = cm = [Q T > Tc ]
B0 T - Tc
Practice Questions
1 A natural bar magnet 3 Which of the following point lies in the region of highest
(a) is always suspended in north-south direction magnetic field strength ?
(b) always has two poles
(c) is made of iron and its alloys P S
(d) All of the above
Q
2 The patterns of iron fillings permits us
(a) to plot the north-south poles R
(b) to plot the geographic north-south poles
(c) to plot the magnetic field lines
(a) P (b) Q
(d) to plot the electric dipole
(c) R (d) S
4 Many of the diagrams given in figure below, show 10 The length of a magnetised steel wire is l and the magnetic
magnetic field lines (thick lines in the figure). Which of moment is m. It is bent into the shape of L with two equal
them correctly show this? sides. The magnetic moment now will be
(a) m /2 (b) 2m (c) 2 m (d) m / 2
11 When a magnetic dipole is placed in a uniform magnetic
field in unstable condition, then it experiences a/an
(i) (ii)
(a) impulse (b) moment of pole strength
(c) torque (d) None of these
12 A bar magnet is oscillating in the earth’s magnetic field
with a period T. What happens to its period of motion, if its
mass is quadrupled?
T
(a) Motion remains simple harmonic with new period =
(iii) (iv) 2
(b) Motion remains simple harmonic with new period = 2T
(c) Motion remains simple harmonic with new period = 4T
(d) Motion remains simple harmonic and the period stays
(a) Both (i) and (iv) (b) Both (ii) and (iv) nearly constant
(c) Both (iii) and (iv) (d) Only (iii)
13 Rate of change of torque t with deflection q is maximum
5 Two identical bar magnets are fixed with their centres at a for a magnet suspended freely in a uniform magnetic field
distance x apart. A stationary charge + q is placed at a of induction B, when
point A as shown in the figure between two magnets. The
(a) q = 0° (b) q = 45°
force on the charge is
(c) q = 60° (d) q = 90°
+q
N S A S N 14 A magnet of dipole moment m is aligned in equilibrium
position in a magnetic field of intensity B. The work done
x to rotate it through an angle q in the magnetic field is
(a) towards left (a) mB sin q
(b) towards right (b) mB cos q
(c) perpendicular to the common axis of both magnets (c) mB (1 - cos q)
(d) zero (d) mB (1 - sin q)
6 If the bar magnet of magnetic moment 0.40 A-m2 is 15 A thin bar magnet is placed in a uniform magnetic field
replaced by a solenoid of cross-sectional area 2 ´ 10 -4 m2 and is aligned with the field. The needle is now rotated by
and 1000 turns but of the same magnetic moment, the an angle of 45° and the work done is W . The torque on the
current flowing through the solenoid is magnetic needle at this position is
(a) - 2 A (b) 2 A (a) zero (b)
W
(c) 20 A (d) 1 A 2 -1
W
7 A large magnet is broken into two pieces, so that their (c) (d) 2W
lengths are in the ratio 2 : 1. The pole strengths of the two 2
pieces will have ratio 16 The strength of the earth’s magnetic field varies from place
(a) 2 : 1 (b) 1 : 2 to place on the earth’s surface, its value being of the order
(c) 4 : 1 (d) 1 : 1 of
8 Two magnets have the same length and the same pole (a) 10 5 T (b) 10 -6 T (c) 10 -5 T (d) 10 8 T
strength. But one of the magnets has a small hole at its 17 The relations amongst the three elements of earth’s
centre, then magnetic field, namely horizontal component H, vertical
(a) both have equal magnetic moment component V and dip d are (BE = total magnetic field)
(b) one with hole has small magnetic moment (a) V = BE tan d, H = BE
(c) one with hole has large magnetic moment (b) V = BE sin d, H = BE cos d
(d) one with hole loses magnetism through the hole (c) V = BE cos d, H = BE sin d
9 The areas of cross-section of three magnets of same (d) V = BE , H = BE tan d
lengths are A, 2 A and 6 A, respectively. The ratio of their 18 At a certain place, horizontal component is 3 times the
magnetic moments will be
vertical component. The angle of dip at this place is
(a) 6 : 2 : 1 (b) 1 : 2 : 6
(a) zero (b) p /3
(c) 2 : 6 : 1 (d) 1 : 1 : 1 (c) p /6 (d) None of these
Physics 37
19 The horizontal component of the earth’s magnetic field at (a) Ferromagnetic substance
any place is 0.36 ´ 10 -4 Wb/m2 . If the angle of dip at that (b) Paramagnetic substance
place is 60°, then the value of vertical component of the (c) Diamagnetic substance
earth’s magnetic field will be (in Wb/m2 ) (d) All of these
(a) 0.12 ´ 10 -4 (b) 0.24 ´ 10 -4 27 If a diamagnetic substance is brought near the north or the
(c) 0.40 ´ 10 -4 (d) 0.622 ´ 10 -4 south pole of a bar magnet, then it is
20 The angle of dip at a certain place where the horizontal (a) attracted by the both poles
and vertical components of the earth’s magnetic field are (b) repelled by both the poles
equal is (c) repelled by the north pole and attracted by the
(a) 30° (b) 90° (c) 60° (d) 45° south pole
21 The value of angle of dip is zero at the magnetic equator (d) attracted by the north pole and repelled by the
because on it south pole
(a) BE and HE are equal 28 The variation of magnetic susceptibility c with
(b) the values of BE and HE are zero temperature for a diamagnetic substance is best
(c) the value of BE is zero represented by figure
(d) the value of HE is zero
22 Property of a bulk material called intensity of χ χ
magnetisation is (a) (b)
(a) magnetic moment per unit area
(b) magnetic moment per unit volume O O
T
(c) a vector quantity and having unit of Am -1 T
(d) Both (b) and (c) χ χ
23 Obtain the earth’s magnetisation assuming that the earth’s (c) O (d) O T
field can be approximated by a giant bar magnet of T
magnetic moment 8.0 ´ 1022 A-m2 . The earth’s radius is
6400 km.
(a) 7.9 ´ 10 5 Am-1 (b) 73 Am -1 29 If a diamagnetic solution is poured into a U-tube and one
(c) 1.8 ´ 10 - 5 Am-1 (d) 1.0 Am -1 arm of this U-tube is placed between poles of a strong
magnet, with the meniscus in line with the field, then the
24 The horizontal component of flux density of earth’s level of solution will
magnetic field is 1.7 ´ 10 - 6 T. The value of horizontal
(a) rise (b) fall
component of intensity of earth’s magnetic field will be
(c) oscillate slowly (d) remain as such
(a) 2.45 Am-1 (b) 1.35 Am-1
30 A thin diamagnetic rod is placed vertically between the
(c) 1.53 Am-1 (d) 0.35 Am-1
poles of an electromagnet. When the current in the
25 A paramagnetic substance in the form of a cube with sides electromagnet is switched ON, then the diamagnetic rod is
1 cm has a magnetic dipole moment of 20 ´ 10 - 6 J / T pushed up, out of the horizontal magnetic field. Hence,
when a magnetic intensity of 60 ´ 103 A /m is applied. Its the rod gains gravitational potential energy. The work
magnetic susceptibility is required to do this comes from
. ´ 10 - 4
(a) 33 . ´ 10 - 2
(b) 33 (a) the lattice structure of the material of the rod
(c) 4.3 ´ 10 - 2 . ´ 10 - 2
(d) 23 (b) the magnetic field
(c) the current source
26 Which of the following substance have tendency to move
(d) the induced electric field due to the changing
from stronger to the weaker part of the external magnetic
magnetic field
field?
ANSWERS
1 (d) 2 (c) 3 (a) 4 (d) 5 (d) 6 (b) 7 (d) 8 (b) 9 (b) 10 (d)
11 (c) 12 (b) 13 (a) 14 (c) 15 (b) 16 (c) 17 (b) 18 (c) 19 (d) 20 (d)
21 (a) 22 (d) 23 (b) 24 (b) 25 (a) 26 (c) 27 (b) 28 (d) 29 (b) 30 (c)
Hints & Solutions

3 (a) The larger the number of field lines crossing per unit i.e. qm µ A … (ii)
area, the stronger is the magnitude of the magnetic field From Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get
strength. Since, here point P among the given point lies in mµ A
the region which has maximum number of field lines Given, A1 = A , A2 = 2 A and A3 = 6 A
crossing per unit area. Hence, point P lies in the region of
highest magnetic field strength. Hence, the ratio of magnetic moments
m1 : m2 : m3 = 1 : 2 : 6
4 (d)
(i) Wrong Magnetic field lines can never emanate from a 10 (d) If qm is strength of each pole and l is the length of steel
point, as shown in figure (i). Over any closed surface, wire, then m = qm ´ l.
the net flux must always be zero, i.e. pictorially as many When the wire is bent into L-shape, effective distance
field lines should seem to enter the surface, while as the between the poles
number of lines leaving it. The correct magnetic field
= ( l / 2 )2 + ( l / 2 )2 = l / 2
lines should be encircling the straight conductor.
(ii) Wrong Magnetic field line (like electric field lines) can l m
\ m¢ = qm ´ = (m will remain unchanged)
never cross each other, otherwise the direction of field at 2 2
the point of intersection is ambiguous.
12 (b) The time period of a bar magnet in a magnetic field is
(iii) Right Magnetic lines are completely confined within a given by
toroid. Nothing wrong here in field lines forming closed
loops, since each loop encloses a region across which a æ I ö
T = 2p ç ÷
current passes. The entire region enclosed by the windings è mB ø
of a toroid contains magnetic field lines. where, I is moment of inertia of bar magnet, m is magnetic
(iv) Wrong Field lines due to a solenoid at its ends and moment and B is magnetic induction.
outside cannot be so straight and confined; such a When mass is made 4 times, moment of inertia I becomes
pattern violates Ampere’s law. The lines should curve 4 times (as I = Mr2 , then I µ M ). From the above equation
out at both ends and meet eventually to form closed of time period, T µ I , so T becomes twice, as mass M is
loops.
quadrupled.
5 (d) A moving charge in a uniform magnetic field B
experiences a force. It is given by 13 (a) As we know, torque, t = mB sin q
F = Bqvsin q …(i) Hence, rate of change of torque with deflection,
When charge particle is stationary, then v = 0. dt
= mB cos q . It will be maximum when cosq = 1, i.e.
\ From Eq. (i), we get F = 0 dq
Hence, no force will acts on the charge. q = 0°.
14 (c) Work done to rotate a magnet of magnetic dipole
6 (b) Given, magnetic moment of bar magnet,
moment m in uniform magnetic field B from equilibrium
m = 0.40 A-m 2 position to angle q,
Number of turns, N = 1000 q q
W = ò dW = ò0 td q = ò0 mB sin q dq = mB (1 - cos q )
and area, A = 2 ´ 10-4 m2
Magnetic moment of solenoid, m = NIA 15 (b) Given, work done = W and q = 45°
Þ 0.40 = 1000 ´ I ´ 2 ´ 10-4 We know that, W = mB (cos 0°- cos q )
Þ 4
I = 0.40 ´ 10 / (1000 ´ 2 ) = 2 A = mB(1 - cos 45° )
Hence, the current flowing, I = 2 A. æ 1 ö æ 2 - 1ö
= mB ç1 - ÷=ç ÷ mB
è 2ø è 2 ø
7 (d) Pole strength does not depend on length it depends upon
cross-section area of magnet. 2W
So, strength of the two pieces will remain same. Þ mB = …(i)
2 -1
8 (b) As, we know, magnetic dipole moment m = qm ( 2l ), so Hence, torque, t = mBsin q
hole reduces the effective length of the magnet, W´ 2 1
hence magnetic moment of magnet with hole, is small. t = mB sin 45° = ´ [from Eq. (i)]
2 -1 2
9 (b) As, magnetic moment, m = qm ×2l W
=
where, qm = pole strength and 2l = length of bar magnet 2 -1
\ m µ qm …(i) 17 (b) Let BE be the net magnetic field at some point and H &
Since, pole strength of magnet is directly proportional to the V be the horizontal & vertical components of BE . Let d be
area of cross-section of a bar magnet (A)
Physics 39
the angle of dip, which is the angle between direction of 8.0 ´ 1022
earth’s magnetic field BE and horizontal line in the magnetic = = 73 Am -1
(4 / 3) (3.14) (6.4 ´ 106 )3
meridian.
H Hence, the earth’s magnetisation is 73 Am -1 .
δ
24 (b) Given, B = 1.7 ´ 10-6 T
Horizontal component of intensity of earth is magnetic field,
V B 1.7 ´ 10-6
H= = = 1.35 Am-1
m 0 4 p ´ 10-7
BE 25 (a) Given, side of cube = 1cm = 10-2 m
Thus, from figure, we can see that \Volume,V = 10-6 m3

H = BE cos d and V = BE sin d Dipole moment, M = 20 ´ 10-6 J/T
18 (c) Given that, H E = 3VE , where H E = horizontal Applied magnetic intensity, H = 60 ´ 103 A/m
component of earth’s magnetic field andVE = vertical Intensity of magnetisation
component of earth’s magnetic field. M 20 ´ 10-6
V I= = = 20 A/m
Angle of dip, tan d = E V 10–6
HE Now, magnetic susceptibility c is
V VE 1 Intensity of magnetisation I
tan d = E = = c= =
HE 3VE 3 Applied magnetic intensity H
\ Angle of dip, d = 30° = ( p / 6 ) rad =
20
19 (d) Given, H E = 0.36 ´ 10-4 Wb/m2 and d = 60° 60 ´ 103
1
Vertical component of earth’s magnetic field, Þ c = ´ 10-3 = 3.33 ´ 10-4
VE = H E tan d = 0.36 ´ 10-4 ´ tan 60° 3
27 (b) When a diamagnetic substance is brought near the north
= 0.36 ´ 10-4 ´ 3 or south pole of a bar magnet, it is feebly repelled by both
\ VE = 0.622 ´ 10-4 Wb/m 2 the poles of magnet such as antimony, copper, gold, silver,
20 (d) Given that, VE = H E
etc.
VE H 28 (d) For diamagnetic substances, the magnetic susceptibility
Angle of dip, tan d = = E = 1 = tan 45° is negative and it is independent of temperature. Therefore,
HE HE choice (d) is correct in figure.
Angle of dip, d = 45°
21 (a) If VE and H E are vertical and horizontal components of
earth’s magnetic field. χ T
O
At magnetic equator,VE = 0
V
\ tan d = E = 0 Þ d = 0°
HE
Since, value of angle of dip is zero at equator. 29 (b) A diamagnetic liquid moves from stronger part of
So, H E = BE cos d = BE cos 0° = BH magnetic field to weaker part. Therefore, the meniscus of
Hence, H E = BE the level of solution will fall.
22 (d) Intensity of magnetisation of a bulk material is given by 30 (c) When the source of current is switched ON, a magnetic
magnetic dipole moment developed per unit volume when it field sets up in between the poles of the electromagnet.
is placed in magnetic field, i.e. As we know that, a diamagnetic substance when placed in a
m magnetic field acquires a feeble magnetism opposite to the
I = net direction of magnetic field. Also, in the presence of the field
V
(non-uniform), these substances are attracted towards the
where, mnet = magnetic moment andV = volume. weaker field, i.e. they move from stronger to weaker
Unit of I = Am-1 and it is a vector quantity. magnetic field.
23 (b) Given, m = 8.0 ´ 1022 A-m 2 and R = 6400 km. Due to these reasons, the rod is repelled or pushed up by the
field produced due to the current source. Hence, the work
mnet 8.0 ´ 1022 é 4 3ù required to do this comes from current source.
Magnetisation, M = = êëQV = 3 pR úû
V (4 / 3) p R 3
CHAPTER 06
Electromagnetic
Induction
1. Magnetic Flux The magnetic flux linked with any (ii) changing the area A of the coil inside the magnetic field.
surface is equal to total number of magnetic lines of force (iii) changing the angle (q) between B and A.
passing through it. It is a scalar quantity. 7. Eddy Currents These are loops of electric current
SI unit of magnetic flux is weber (Wb). CGS unit of induced within bulk pieces of conductors by a changing
magnetic flux is maxwell (Mx). magnetic field in the conductor, according to Faraday’s
1 Wb = 10 8 Mx law of induction. It causes the heating of conductor.
8. Self-Induction The phenomenon of production of induced
2. Faraday’s Law of Electromagnetic Induction emf in a coil itself when a current passes through it
First Law Whenever magnetic flux linked with the Q Total flux linked with coil Nf µ I
closed loop or circuit changes, an emf is induced in the \ Nf = LI
loop or circuit which lasts so long as change in flux
where, f = flux linked with each turn and
continues.
L = coefficient of self induction.
Second Law The induced emf in a closed loop or
circuit, is directly proportional to the rate of change of dI
Also, induced emf, e = - L
magnetic flux linked with the closed loop or circuit. dt
df df SI unit of self-induction is henry (H).
i.e. eµ Þ e =-N
dt dt 1 henry (H) = 1V-s/A = 1WbA -1
where, N = number of turns in loop. Negative sign 9. Mutual Induction The phenomenon of generation of
indicates the Lenz’s law. induced emf in secondary coil when current linked with
3. Lenz’s Law The direction of induced emf or induced primary coil changes
current is such that it always opposes the cause that N2 f 2 = MI1
produced it i.e. change in magnetic flux linked with the
where, N2 f 2 = flux linked with secondary coil
circuit.
I1 = current in primary coil,
Lenz’s law is a consequence of the law of conservation of
M = constant = mutual inductance or
energy.
coefficient of mutual induction
e N df dI1
Induced current, I = = - × B Also, e2 = - M
R R dt dI2
4. Motional Emf The emf e induced in a conductor of SI unit of mutual inductance is henry (H).
length l moving with velocity v in a direction
1 henry (H) = 1V-s/A = 1WbA -1 2
perpendicular to magnetic field B is given by mN A
10. Self-inductance of a long solenoid, L =
e = vBl l
5. The induced emf developed between two ends of where, m = magnetic permeability of the medium
inside the solenoid,
conductor of length l rotating with angular velocity w N = number of turns,
about one end in a direction perpendicular to magnetic A = area of solenoid and
field B is given by
l = length of solenoid.
Bwl 2 11. Mutual inductance (M ) of closely wound solenoids,
e=
2 m 0 N1N2 A
6. Emf can be induced in a coil by M=
l
(i) putting the coil/loop/circuit in varying magnetic field.
Physics 41
where, N1 and N2 = number of turns in primary and 13. Two inductors are in series combination L = L1 + L2
secondary solenoids, A = area of solenoid and l = length
of solenoid. 1 2
14. Magnetic energy stored in an inductor U = LI
2
12. Two inductors are in parallel combination, then equivalent
1 1 1 where, I is the current in inductor.
inductance is given by = + u 1 B2
L L1 L2 15. Energy density in magnetic field = = .
v 2 m0
Practice Questions
1 The phenomenon in which electric current is generated magnetic flux through the area of the circular coil area is
by varying magnetic field is appropriately known as given by fo . Which of the following option is correct ?
electromagnetic (a) f i > f o (b) f i < f o
(a) conduction (b) induction (c) f i = fo (d) f i = - fo
(c) pressure (d) radiation 6 A circular disc of radius 0.2 m is placed in a uniform
2 The direction of deflection of pointer of galvanometer magnetic field of induction (1/p) Wbm-2 in such a way
when the bar magnet is pulled away from the coil as that its axis makes an angle of 60° with B . The magnetic
shown in figure, is flux linked with the disc is
(a) 0.02 Wb (b) 0.06 Wb
N S (c) 0.08 Wb (d) 0.01 Wb
7 At time t = 0 magnetic field of 1000 G is passing
a perpendicularly through the area defined by the closed
b G loop shown in the figure. If the magnetic field reduces
linearly to 500 gauss, in the next 5 s, then induced emf in
(a) towards a (b) no deflection
the loop is
(c) towards b
(d) indicator oscillates between a and b 16 cm
3 Current in the coil is larger, when the magnet is

4 cm 2 cm
N S
(a) 48 mV (b) 28 mV (c) 56 mV (d) 36 mV

G 8 According to Faraday’s law of electromagnetic induction,
the magnitude of the induced emf in a circuit is equal to
(a) pushed towards the coil faster the time rate of change of
(b) pulled away from the coil faster
(a) magnetic field induction (b) magnetising field intensity
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(c) magnetic flux (d) electric flux
9 As shown in the figure, it is observed that the
4 A circular loop of radius R carrying current I lies in
galvanometer shows a momentary deflection when the
xy-plane with its centre at origin. The total magnetic flux
tapping key K is pressed.
through xy-plane is
When the key is released, the current in coil C2 and the
(a) directly proportional to R resulting magnetic field is
(b) directly proportional to I C1
(a) increase from zero to
(c) inversely proportional to I C2
maximum value
(d) zero
(b) first increase, then
5 Consider a circular coil of wire carrying constant current decrease
I, forming a magnetic dipole. The magnetic flux through (c) remains same
an infinite plane that contains the circular coil and (d) decreases from the G
K
excluding the circular coil area is given by fi . The maximum value to zero
10 The magnetic flux linked with the coil varies with time as 17 The north pole of a bar magnet is moved towards a coil
f B = 3 t 2 + 4t + 9. The magnitude of the induced emf at 2s along the axis passing through the centre of the coil and
is perpendicular to the plane of the coil.
The direction of the induced current in the coil
(a) 9 V (b) 16 V
when viewed in the direction of the motion of the magnet is
(c) 3 V (d) 4 V
(a) clockwise (b) anti-clockwise
11 A varying magnetic flux linking a coil is given by f B = xt 2 .
(c) no current in the coil
If at time t = 3 s, the emf induced is 9 V, then the (d) Either clockwise or anti-clockwise
magnitude of x is
18 A conducting rod of length l is moving in a transverse
(a) 0.66 Wbs -2 (b) 1.5 Wbs -2 magnetic field of strength B with velocity v. The induced
(c) – 0.66 Wbs -2 (d) None of the above voltage across the conducting rod is
12 The polarity of induced emf is such that it tends to Bvl Bvl
(a) (b) 2Bvl (c) Bvl (d)
produce a current which opposes the change in magnetic 2 2
flux that produce it, is the statement of
19 A horizontal straight wire 20 m long extending from east
(a) Faraday’s law to west is falling with a speed of 5.0 ms-1 at right angles to
(b) Lenz’s law the horizontal component of the earth’s magnetic field
(c) Biot-Savart’s law
0.30 ´ 10-4 Wbm -2. The instantaneous value of the emf
(d) Fleming’s left hand rule
induced in the wire will be
13 An infinitely long cylinder is kept parallel to an uniform
(a) 6.0 mV (b) 3 mV (c) 4.5 mV (d) 1.5 mV
magnetic field B directed along positive Z-axis. This
direction of induced current as seen from the Z-axis will be 20 A conducting rod of length L is moving in a transverse
magnetic field of strength B with velocity v. The resistance
(a) clockwise of the positive Z-axis
of the rod is R. The current in the rod is
(b) anti-clockwise of the positive Z-axis
(c) zero, no current is induced BLv B 2 v 2L2
(a) (b) BLv (c) zero (d)
(d) along the magnetic field R R
14 Near a circular loop of conducting wire as shown in the 21 In which of the following devices, the eddy current effect
figure an electron moves along a straight line. The is not used?
direction of the induced current, if any in the loop is (a) Magnetic braking in train(b) Electromagnet
(c) Electric heater (d) Induction furnace
22 In induction furnace, heat is produced due to
(a) eddy current (b) resistance
(c) capacitor (d) None of these
23 The shiny metal disc in the electric power meter rotates
e
due to
(a) variable (b) clockwise
(a) continuously decreasing current
(c) anti-clockwise (d) zero (b) motor fitted inside
15 A closed loop moves normal to the constant electric field (c) continuously increasing current
between the plates of a large capacitor. Is the current (d) eddy current
induced in the loop when it is wholly inside the region 24 Which of the following is equivalent to self-induction?
between the capacitor plates? (a) Inertia of mass (b) Inertia of energy
(a) Yes (b) No (c) Inertia of moment (d) Inertia of current
(c) May be possible (d) May not be possible 25 An electric current can be induced in a coil by flux change
16 A rectangular loop and a circular loop are moving produced by another coil in its vicinity or flux change
out of a uniform magnetic field region in the given figure, produced by the same coil. In both cases, the flux through
to a field free region with a constant velocity v. In which a coil is
loop do you expect the induced emf to (a) proportional to the square of current
be constant during the passage out of the field region? (b) inversely proportional to the square of current
× × × × × (c) proportional to the current
× × × × × × × × × × (d) inversely proportional to the current
× × × × × v × × × × × v 26 The mutual inductance M12 of coil 1 with respect to coil 2
× × × × × × × × × × (a) increases when they are brought nearer
× × × × × (b) depends on the current passing through the coils
(a) Rectangular loop (b) Circular loop (c) increases when one of them is rotated about an axis
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Neither (a) nor (b) (d) is different from M 21 of coil 2 with respect to coil 1
Physics 43
ANSWERS
1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5 (d) 6 (a) 7 (c) 8 (c) 9 (d) 10 (b)
11 (b) 12 (b) 13 (c) 14 (a) 15 (b) 16 (a) 17 (b) 18 (c) 19 (b) 20 (c)
21 (c) 22 (a) 23 (d) 24 (a) 25 (c) 26 (a)
Hints & Solutions

2 (c) When the magnet is pulled away from the coil, then Given, q = 60°, B = (1/ p ) Wbm-2 , A = p (0.2)2
according to Lenz’s law, a current in induced in the coil 1 1
such that it opposes the motion of the magnet. Therefore, \ fB = ´ p( 0.2 )2 ´ cos 60° = (0.2)2 ´ = 0.02 Wb
p 2
direction of induced current in the coil will be in clockwise
direction. Hence, deflection in the galvanometer will be 7 (c) Induced emf in the loop,
towards b. Df æ DB ö
E=- = -ç ÷ (A) [Q f = BA ]
3 (c) Current will be larger, when the magnet is pushed Dt è Dt ø
towards or pulled away from the coil faster, because rate of
æ B - B1 ö
change of magnetic flux increases and hence induced emf =-ç 2 ÷A …(i)
è Dt ø
across the coil increases.
4 (d) As the circular loop lies in xy-plane, so the magnetic Here, B2 = 500 G = 500 ´ 10-4 T,
field or flux is perpendicular to its plane, i.e. in z-direction. B1 = 1000 G = 1000 ´ 10-4 T,
Therefore, the total magnetic flux through xy-plane is
Dt = 5s
f = BAcos q = BA cos 90° [Q B ^ A ] \ A = area of loop
=0 = Area of rectangle - Area of two triangles
5 (d) We are given with following situation, æ 1 ö
= ç16 ´ 4 - 2 ´ ´ 4 ´ 2÷ cm 2
Infinite plane è 2 ø
containing coil
= 56 ´ 10-4 m 2
Coil carrying Using Eq. (i), we get
current (1000 - 500 ) ´ 10-4 ´ 56 ´ 10-4
E=
Field lines 5
= 56 ´ 10-6 V
= 56 mV
9 (d) When the tapping key K is pressed, the current in the
coil C 2 and the resulting magnetic field rises from zero to a
maximum value in a short time. So, the galvanometer shows
From the diagram of field lines, we can observe that a momentary deflection due to the change in flux along C1 .
whatever be the number of field lines emitted from coil, all If the key is held pressed continuously, there is no deflection
of them goes back into the infinite plane only. in the galvanometer as the current is constant. So, no change
So, magnetic flux emanating from coil is equal and opposite in flux occur across C1 .
to the flux linked with infinite plane. When the key is released, a momentary deflection is
So, f i = - fo observed again, but in opposite direction due to change in
6 (a) The magnetic flux f B passing through a plane surface the direction of field or flux across C1 .
of area A placed in a uniform magnetic field B is given by It is due to the fact that the current in coil C 2 and the
f B = BA cos q resulting magnetic field decreases from the maximum value
where, q is the angle between the direction of B and the to zero in a short time.
normal (axis) to the plane. 10 (b) Magnitude of induced emf,
df d
|e|= B = (3t 2 + 4 t + 9) = 6t + 4 + 0
dt dt
At t = 2s, | e | = 6 ´ 2 + 4 = 16 V
B 11 (b) From Faraday’s law, induced emf,
60° df
e=- B
A dt
Given, fB = x t 2 17 (b) When the north pole of the magnet is brought towards
- d (x t 2 ) one end of the coil, the induced current flows in the coil in
\ e= = - 2 tx such a direction, so as to oppose the motion of the north pole
dt of the magnet towards the coil. Thus, direction of induced
Given, t = 3s and e = 9 V
|e| 9 current is anti-clockwise as shown below.
\ Magnitude of x = = = 1.5 Wbs -2
2t 2 ´ 3 S N
13 (c) In uniform magnetic field, change in magnetic flux is
N S
zero. Therefore, induced current will be zero.
C D
14 (a) Since, electron is moving from right to left, the flux
G
linked with loop will first increase and then decrease as the
electron passes. Therefore, induced current I in the loop will 19 (b) Given, BH = 0.30 ´ 10-4 Wbm -2 ,
be first clockwise and then will move in anti-clockwise l = 20 m
direction. Hence, direction of induced current is variable.
and v = 5.0 ms -1
Induced emf across the ends of wire,
15 (b) According to question, there can be two cases as follows
e = B H lv
Case I Closed coil is moving inside constant electric field.
= 0.30 ´ 10-4 ´ 20 ´ 5.0 = 3 mV
Case II Closed coil is wholly inside constant electric field.
However, no current is induced in either case because 20 (c) Emf across rod is induced and charges get accumulated
current cannot be induced by changing the electric flux. across its ends. But current flowing in it is zero, because
circuit is open.
16 (a) The induced emf is expected to be constant only in the
case of the rectangular loop. 21 (c) Electric heaters are not based on the eddy current effect.
In the case of circular loop, the rate of change of area of the Rather their working is based on Joule’s heating effect of
loop during its passage out of the field region is not constant, current. According to this effect, the passage of an electric
hence induced emf will vary accordingly. current through a resistor produces heat.
Physics 45
CHAPTER 07
Alternating Current
1. Alternating Current (AC) It is the current, which varies V

(ii) Maximum current, I0 = 0
in both magnitude as well as direction alternatively and R
V
periodically. The instantaneous alternating current is (iii) Irms = rms
given by I = I0 sin wt R
(iv) If V = V0 sin wt then, I = I0 sin wt .
where, I0 = peak value or maximum value of AC.
(v) Average power in R is maximum Pav = Vrms Irms
2. Effective Value or rms Value of AC
9. In an AC circuit containing capacitor only,
I
Irms = 0 = 0.707 I0 1 1
2 (i) Capacitive reactance, X C = = ×
wC 2 pfC
The 70.7% value of peak value of current gives effective
(ii) Capacitor offers infinite reactance in DC circuit if f = 0 or
or rms value of AC. acts as open circuit.
3. Average or Mean Value of AC V V0
(iii) I0 = 0 = = V0 wC
2 I0 X C (1 / wC )
Iav = = 0.637 I0 p
p (iv) Voltage lags behind the current by phase .
The 63.7% of peak value of AC gives average or mean 2
æ pö
value of AC in interval 0 to p rad. (v) If V = V0 sin wt , then I = I0 sin ç wt + ÷ .
è 2ø
4. Alternating emf or Voltage It is the emf, which varies in
both magnitude as well as in direction alternatively and (vi) Power factor is equal to zero.
periodically. The instantaneous alternating emf is given (vii) Average power consumption (during a complete cycle),
by é pù
Pav = Vrms Irms cos f = 0 êëQ f = 2 úû
V = V0 sin (wt )
V 10. In an AC circuit containing inductor only,
Hence, Vrms = 0 = 0.707 V0 ;
2 (i) Indutive reactance, XL = wL = 2 pfL
V0 V
2V (ii) Peak current, I0 = = 0
Vav = 0 = 0.637 V0 XL wL
p
V V
5. Inductive Reactance XL = wL = 2 pfL (iii) rms current, Irms = rms = rms
XL wL
Also for given inductor, XL = (2pL) f p
(iv) Voltage leads the current by phase .
Þ XL µ f 2
æ pö
Q 2pL = constant (v) If V = V0 sin wt then, I = I0 sin ç wt - ÷
è 2ø
1 1
6. Capacitive Reactance X C = = p
wC 2 pfC (vi) Power factor, cos f = cos = 0
2
æ 1 ö1 1
For given capacitor, X C = ç ÷ Þ XC µ (vii) Average power consumption,
è 2 pC ø f f é pù
Pav = Vrms Irms cos f = 0 êëQ f = 2 úû
1
Q = constant
2pC 11. In L-R series AC circuit,
7. Power in an AC Circuit Pav = Vrms Irms cos f (i) Impedance, Z = R 2 + XL2 =
Vrms
Irms
where, cos f = power factor = R / Z
X wL
(ii) For the phase angle, tan f = L = , voltage leads
8. In an AC circuit containing resistance only. R R
current by phase f.
(i) Voltage and current are in same phase
(iii) If V = V0 sin wt then, I = I0 sin (wt - f )
12. In C-R series AC circuit, 1 1 L

= =
V w0CR R C
(i) Impedance, Z = rms = R 2 + X C2
Irms VL , VC and VR are the voltages across inductor, capacitor
X 1 and resistor, respectively and V is the net voltage.
(ii) For the phase angle, tan f = C =
R wCR 17. AC Generator AC generator produces electrical energy
(iii) If V = V0 sin wt , then I = I0 sin (wt + f )
from mechanical work, just the opposite of what a motor
R R
(iv) Power factor, cos f = = does.
Z R2 + X 2
C Principle An AC generator is based on the phenomenon
13. In an L-C series AC circuit, of electromagnetic induction which states that whenever
Vrms magnetic flux linked with a conductor (or coil) changes,
(i) Impedance, Z = = XL - XC . an emf is induced in the coil.
Irms
p Let, magnetic flux linked with a coil,
(ii) Phase difference between voltage and current is .
2 f = BA cos wt (Q f 0 = BA)
(iii) Power factor, cos f = 0. then emf induced in the coil,
df
14. In an L- C- R series AC circuit, e =-N = NBAw sin wt
dt
Vrms
(i) Impedance, Z = R 2 + ( XL - X C )2 = where, N = number of turns in the coil,
Irms
B = strength of magnetic field
(ii) If XL > X C then, V leads the current by phase angle f A = area of each turn of the coil and
and if XL < X C then, V lags behind I by phase angle f, w = angular velocity of rotation
X - XC = 2p f [e 0 = NBA w]
where tan f = L . Hence, e = e 0 sin 2 p ft
R
18. Transformer It is an electrical device which converts low
AC circuit’s inductance dominated. If XL > XC and
alternating voltage to high alternating voltage and
capacitance dominated circuit if XC > XL .
vice-versa. Its working is based on the principle of mutual
15. In resonant L- C- R series AC circuit, induction.
(i) XL = X C 19. Types of Transformer There are two types of
(ii) Impedance, Z = Z minimum = R transformers
(iii) The phase difference between V and I is 0°. (i) Step-up Transformer It converts low alternating
1 voltage into high alternating voltage.
(iv) Resonant angular frequency, w0 = . (ii) Step-down Transformer It converts high alternating
LC
voltage into low alternating voltage.
(v) Average power consumption, Pav becomes maximum.
Vrms 20. For an ideal transformer,
(vi) Current becomes maximum and Imax = . Input power = Output power
R
16. Quality Factor It indicates the sharpness of resonance V1 I1 = V2 I2
in L-C-R series AC circuit. V1 I2 N1
Þ = =
Voltage across L or (C ) V2 I1 N2
Q-factor =
Voltage across R where, N1 = number of turns in primary coil of the
VL VC w0 L transformer and
Q= = = N2 = number of turns in secondary coil of the transformer.
VR VR R
Physics 47
Practice Questions
1 Which of the following current changes continuously in 10 A pure inductor of inductance 25.0 mH is connected to a
magnitude and periodically in direction? source of 220 V. Find the inductive reactance, if the
(a) Direct current (b) Induced current frequency of the source is 50 Hz.
(c) Alternating current (d) Displacement current (a) 785 W (b) 6.50 W (c) 7.85 W (d) 8.75 W
2 The frequency of an alternating voltage is 50 cycles/s and 11 The rms current in the circuit containing a pure inductor
its amplitude is 120 V. Then, the rms value of voltage is of 40 mH, connected to a source 200 V, 50 Hz is
(a) 101.3 V (b) 84.8 V (c) 70.7 V (d) 56.5 V (a) 25 A (b) 16 A (c) 11 A (d) 28 A
3 A generator produces a voltage that is given by 12 An inductance of negligible resistance, whose reactance is
V = 240 sin 120 t ,where t is in seconds. The frequency and 120 W at 200 Hz is connected to a
rms voltage are 240 V, 60 Hz, power line. The current in the
inductor is
(a) 60 Hz and 240 V (b) 19 Hz and 120 V
(c) 19 Hz and 170 V (d) 754 Hz and 70 V (a) 6.66 A (b) 6.60 A (c) 5.45 A (d) 54.5 A
4 The electric mains in the house is marked 220 V, 50 Hz. 13 When a capacitor is connected to an AC source, then
Write down the equation for instantaneous voltage. (a) it limits or regulates the current by complete
(a) 3.1 sin (100p ) t (b) 31.1 cos (100p ) t prevention of flow of charge
(c) 311.1 sin (100p ) t (d) 311.1 cos (100p ) t (b) it limits or regulates the current, but does not
completely prevent the flow of charge
5 In an AC circuit, I = 100 sin 200 pt . The time required for (c) It is alternately charged and discharged as the current
the current to achieve its peak value will be reverses in each half cycle
1 1 (d) Both (b) and (c)
(a) s (b) s
100 200
1 1 14 A 15.0 mF capacitor is connected to a 220 V, 50 Hz source.
(c) s (d) s
300 400 The capacitive reactance is
6 A resistance of 20 W is connected to a source of an (a) 220 W (b) 215 W (c) 212 W (d) 204 W
alternating potential, V = 220 sin (100 p t ). The time taken 15 If the frequency is doubled, what happen to the capacitive
by current to change from its peak value to rms value is reactance and the current?
(a) 0.2 s (b) 0.25 s (a) Capacitive reactance is halved, the current is doubled
(c) 25 ´ 10 - 3 s (d) 2.5 ´ 10- 3 s (b) Capacitive reactance is doubled, the current is halved
7 An alternating current is given by the equation (c) Capacitive reactance and the current are halved
i = i1 cos wt + i2 sin wt . The rms current is given by (d) Capacitive reactance and the current are doubled
1 1
(a) (i1 + i 2 ) (b) (i1 + i 2 )2 16 For series L-C-R circuit,
2 2
(a) applied emf and current across resistance are in same
1 1
(c) (i12 + i 22 )1 /2 (d) (i12 + i 22 )1 /2 phase
2 2
(b) applied emf and current across inductor coil have
8 If an AC main supply is given to be 220 V. What would be phase difference of p.
the average emf during a positive half-cycle? (c) potential difference at capacitor and inductor have
(a) 198 V (b) 386 V phase difference of p /2
(c) 256 V (d) None of these (d) potential difference across resistance and capacitor
9 When an alternating voltage is applied to an inductor as have phase difference of p.
shown in the figure, then 17 In a series L-C-R circuit, the potential difference between
the terminals of the inductor is 60 V, between the
I terminals of the capacitor is 30 V and that across the
resistor is 40 V. Then, supply voltage will be equal to
L
V = Vm sin wt
(a) 50 V (b) 70 V
(c) 130 V (d) 10 V
dI dI
18 A resistor and a capacitor are connected in series with an
(a) v + L =0 (b) V - L =0 AC source. If the potential drop across the capacitor is 5V
dt dt
dI dI and that across the resistor is 12 V, then applied voltage is
(c) L + v =0 (d) L - v =0 (a) 13 V (b) 17 V (c) 5 V (d) 12 V
dt dt
19 At resonant frequency, the amplitude of current in R-L-C 23 The line that draws power supply to your house from
circuit is street has
(a) maximum (b) minimum (a) zero average current
(c) zero (d) infinity (b) 220 V average voltage
20 In series R-L-C circuit, L = 1.00 mH, (c) voltage and current out of phase by 90°
(d) voltage and current possibly differing in phase f such
C = 1.00 nF and R = 200 W. For the source applied with
that f > p /2
Vm = 100 V, the resonant frequency is
(a) 1 ´ 10 3 rad/s 24 A charged 40 mF capacitor is connected to a 16 mH
(b) 1 ´ 10 6 rad /s inductor. What is the angular frequency of free
(c) 1.56 ´ 10 6 rad/s oscillations of the circuit?
(d) 1.75 ´ 10 3 rad/s (a) 1.1 s (b) 1.25 ´ 10 3 s -1
(c) 2 ´ 10 3 s -1 (d) 2.5 ´ 10 3 s -1
21 In an AC circuit, the instantaneous values of emf and
current are e = 200 sin 314t V and 25 A transformer is used to light 140 W, 24 V lamp from 240 V
I = sin (314t + p / 3) A. The average power consumed is AC mains. The current in the mains is 0.7 A. The
(a) 200 W (b) 100 W (c) 50 W (d) 25 W efficiency of transformer is nearer to
(a) 90% (b) 80% (c) 70% (d) 60%
22 The potential difference V and the current i flowing
through an instruments in an AC circuit of frequency f are 26 A power transmission line feeds input power at 2300 V to
given by V = 5 cos wt volts and a step-down transformer with its primary windings having
i = 2 sin wt amperes (where, w = 2 pf ). 4000 turns. The output power is delivered at 230 V by the
transformer. If the current in the primary of the
The power dissipated in the instrument is
transformer is 5A and its efficiency is 90%, the output
(a) zero (b) 10 W current would be
(c) 5 W (d) 2.5 W
(a) 45 A (b) 50 A (c) 25 A (d) 35 A
ANSWERS
1 (c) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (c) 5 (d) 6 (d) 7 (c) 8 (a) 9 (b) 10 (c)
11 (b) 12 (a) 13 (d) 14 (c) 15 (a) 16 (a) 17 (a) 18 (a) 19 (a) 20 (b)
21 (c) 22 (a) 23 (a) 24 (b) 25 (b) 26 (a)
Hints & Solutions

2 (b) Amplitude of alternating voltage = Peak voltage Thus, the equation for the instantaneous voltage is given as
(Vm ) = 120 V, hence rms value of voltage, i.e. V = Vm sin wt = 311.1 sin (100 p ) t
V 120 T
V rms = m = = 84.8 V 5 (d) The current takes seconds to reach the peak value,
2 1.414 4
3 (c) The voltage produced by generator, V = 240 sin 120t where T is the time period.
Comparing it with standard equation,V = Vm sin wt , we get Comparing it with standard equation I = I 0 sin wt , we get
2p 1
Vm = 240 V and w = 120 rad/s w= = 200 p Þ T = s
Frequency of a generator T 100
1
w 120 ´ 7 ~ 19 Hz \ Time required to reach the peak value = T / 4 = s.
i.e. n= = = 19.09 - 400
2p 2 ´ 22
6 (d) Since, alternating voltage, V = 220 sin (100 pt ) is
V 240
Þ V rms = m = = 120 2 » 170 V connected with 20 W resistor only, hence equation of
2 2 alternating current is
4 (c) Given, V rms = 220 V, n = 50 Hz i = im sin(100pt )
V Peak value to rms value means current becomes
As, V rms = m
2 1/ 2 times.
ÞVm = V rms 2 = (220 V) (1.414) = 311.1 V If t be the time taken by current to change from its peak
-1 value to rms value, then from equation of current,
Further, w = 2pn = 2p ´ 50 = 100 p rads
i = im sin (100 pt )
Physics 49
im 12 (a) The reactance X L of the inductance at 200 Hz is 120 W .

= im sin(100pt )
2 As, X L = wL = 2pn ´ L
1 X 120 W 3
Þ = sin(100pt ) Þ L= L = = H
2 2pn 2p ´ 200 s - 1 10p
Þ sin ( p / 4 ) = sin(100pt ) If X L¢ denotes the reactance of the same inductance at 60 Hz,
p
Þ = 100pt then
4 X L¢ = w¢ L = 2pn ¢ L
1 æ 3 ö
Þ t= s = 2.5 ´ 10- 3 s Þ X L¢ = (2p ´ 60 ) ç ÷ = 36 W
400 è 10p ø
7 (c) Equation of alternating current is given as If i rms is the current that flows through the inductance, when
i = i1 cos wt + i2 sin wt …(i) connected to 240 V and 60 Hz power line, then
Let, i1 = A sin f …(ii) V 240 V
i rms = rms = = 6.66 A
and i2 = A cos f …(iii) X L¢ 36 W
\ From Eq. (i), we have
14 (c) Given, C = 15mF = 15 ´ 10- 6 F, V = 200 V
i = A sin f cos wt + A cos f sin wt
= A[cos wt sin f + sin wt cos f ] and n = 50 Hz
i = A sin ( wt + f ) …(iv) Capacitive reactance,
1 1
Squaring and adding Eqs. (ii) and (iii), we get XC = = = 212 W
i.e. i12 + i22 = A 2 sin 2 f + A 2 cos 2 f 2pnC 2p (50 Hz) (15.0 ´ 10- 6 F)
= A 2 (sin 2 f + cos 2 f ) = A 2 1 1
15 (a) Capacitive reactance, X C = =
wC 2pnC
Þ A= ( i12 + i22 )1 / 2
1
\ From Eq. (iv), we have XC µ …(i)
n
i = ( i12 + i22 )1 / 2 sin ( wt + f ) …(v) V
Current, I = rms = V rms × wC = V rms × 2pnC
\ Comparing Eq. (v) with equation, i = im sin ( wt + f ), we XC
get Þ I µn …(ii)
im = ( i12 + i22 )1 / 2 From Eqs. (i) and (ii), we conclude that, if the frequency is
im ( i12 + i22 )1 / 2 doubled, the capacitive reactance is halved and the current is
\ i rms = = doubled.
2 2 16 (a) For series L-C -R circuit, applied emf and current across
8 (a) Given, V rms = 220 V resistance are in same phase and across inductor coil have
2 2 2 2 p
Vav = Vm = ´ (V rms ´ 2 ) = V rms phase difference of .
p p p 2
2 2 The potential difference at capacitor and inductor has phase
= ´ 220 = 198 V difference of p and across resistance and capacitor is of p / 2.
p
17 (a) In series L-C-R circuit, supply voltage will be
9 (b) Using Kirchhoff’s rule in given figure,
dI V rms = VR2 + (VL - VC )2
V -L =0
dt = ( 40 )2 + ( 60 - 30 )2
where, the second term is the self induced emf in the
inductor and L is the self-inductance of coil. = 1600 + 900 = 2500 = 50 V
10 (c) Given, L = 25 mH = 25 ´ 10-3 H and n = 50 Hz 18 (a) Given, VR = 12 V,VC = 5 V
The inductive reactance, Let the applied voltage be V volt in given R- C circuit, then
X L = 2pnL = 2 ´ 3.14 ´ 50 ´ 25 ´ 10- 3 = 7.85 W V rms = VR2 + VC2 = (12 )2 + ( 5 )2
11 (b) Given,L = 40 mH = 40 ´ 10-3 H,V = 200 V and n = 50 = 144 + 25 = 169 = 13 V
Hz 20 (b) Given, L = 1mH = 1 ´ 10-3 H
The rms current in the circuit is and C = 1nF = 1 ´ 10-9 F
V V
i rms = = Resonant frequency of R-L- C series circuit,
X L 2pnL 1 1
w0 = =
200
= » 16 A LC 1 ´ 10 ´ 1 ´ 10-9
-3
. ´ 50 ´ 40 ´ 10-3
2 ´ 314
= 1 ´ 106 rad / s
21 (c) Given, e = 200 sin 314 t and I = sin ( 314 t + p / 3 ) 104

p = = 1.25 ´ 103 s -1
\ f = ,Vm = 200 V, I m = 1A 8
3 25 (b) Given, Po = 140 W, V0 = 24 V,Vi = 240 V
Vm 200 and iL = 0.7 A
V rms = =
2 2 Input power of transformer,
Im 1 Pi = Vi ´ iL = 240 ´ 0.7 = 168 W
i rms = =
2 2 Efficiency of transformer,
\ Average power consumed is, i.e.
P
h = o ´ 100 =
140
´ 100 » 80%
200 1 Pi 168
P = V rms i rms cos f = cos p / 3
2 2 26 (a) For a transformer, there are two circuits which have N p
200 1 and N s (number of coil turns), I p and I S (currents)
= ´ = 50 W
2 2 respectively as shown below.
æ pö
22 (a) Given,V = 5 cos wt = 5 sin ç wt + ÷ and i = 2 sin wt +
NP IS VS
è 2ø VP RV
Power dissipated in the instrument is, –
IP NS
P = V rms ´ i rms ´ cos f = 0
Primary Secondary
p p
(since, f = , therefore cos f = cos = 0)
2 2 Here, input voltage, V p = 2300 V
23 (a) For house hold supplies, the line that draws supply Number of turns in primary coil, N P = 4000
power has zero average current over a cycle. Output voltage, VS = 230 volt
The line is having some resistance, so power factor Output power, PS = VS × I S
cos f = R / Z ¹ 0 Input power, PP = VP I P
so f ¹ p/2 Þ f < p/2 \ The efficiency of the transformer is
i.e. phase between voltage and current lies between 0 and Output (secondary) power
p / 2. h=
Input (primary) power
24 (b) Given, C = 40 mF = 40 ´ 10- 6 F,
VS × I S ( 230 ) ( I S )
and L = 16 mH = 16 ´ 10- 3 H Þ h= ´ 100 Þ h = ´ 100
VP × I P ( 2300 ) ( 5 )
Angular frequency of oscillating circuit, 230 I S
1 1 90 = ´ 100 Þ I S = 45 A
w= = ( 2300 ) ´ 5
LC (16 ´ 10 ) ( 40 ´ 10- 6 )
- 3
Physics 51
CHAPTER 08
Electromagnetic Waves
1. Maxwell’s equations of electromagnetic waves magnetic field (B ) is the source of electric field (E) and
q varying electric field is the source of magnetic field. Thus,
(i) Gauss’s law in electrostatics, ò E×d S =
e0 two fields become source of each other and the wave
propagates in a direction perpendicular to both the fields.
(ii) Gauss’s law in magnetism, ò B ×d S = 0
4. In electromagnetic waves, E and B are in same phase.
(iii) Faraday’s law of electromagnetic induction,
df B
ò E × dI = - dt 5. Speed of EM waves (light) in vacuum,
(iv) Modified Ampere’s circuital law, E0 1
c= = = 3 ´ 10 8 m/s
ò B × dI = m 0(Ic + Id ) U
B0 m 0e 0
where, Id is displacement current and given by 6. p = where, p = linear momentum delivered to the
c
df E surface and U = total energy transmitted by
Id = e 0
dt electromagnetic waves
2. The displacement current is produced in spaces due to 7. Electromagnetic Spectrum The systematic sequential
distribution of electromagnetic waves in ascending or
change of electric flux linked with a surface. This reveals
descending order of frequency or wavelength is known as
that varying electric field is the source of magnetic field.
electromagnetic wave spectrum. The range of wavelength
3. Electromagnetic Wave It is a wave radiated by an varies from 10 -12 m to 10 4 m, i.e.
accelerated or oscillatory charge in which varying from g-rays to radio waves.
8. Different types of electromagnetic waves

Type Wavelength range Production Detection Uses
Rapid acceleration and
Radio wave > 0.1 m Receiver’s aerials in TV and cellphones
decelerations of electrons in aerials
Microwave 0.1 m to 1 mm Klystron valve or magnetron valve Point contact diodes RADAR and cooking purpose
Thermopiles Bolometer,
Infrared wave 1 mm to 700 nm Vibration of atoms and molecules heat therapy, TV remote
Infrared photographic film
Electrons in atoms emit light when
The eye
Visible light 700 nm to 400 nm they move from higher energy level To see things
Photocells Photographic film
to a lower energy level
Inner shell electrons in atoms
Ultraviolet
400 nm to 1 nm moving from one energy level to a Photocells Photographic film burglar alarm, kill germs
rays
lower level
Photographic film Geiger to detect fracture, crack on
X-rays 1 nm to 10-3 nm X-ray tubes or inner shell electrons
tubes Ionisation chamber bridge
< 10-3 nm Compton Scattering Radio therapy for tumour and

Gamma rays Radioactive decay of the nucleus
gamma-ray spectrum cancer
Practice Questions
1 Maxwell’s work led to the conclusion that light is an 7 In an electromagnetic wave in free space, the root mean
electromagnetic wave. His work thus unified square value of the electric field is
(a) electricity and magnetism E rms = 6 V/m. The peak value of the magnetic field is
(b) magnetism and light (a) 1.41 ´ 10 -8 T (b) 2.83 ´ 10 -8 T
(c) electricity and light (c) 0.70 ´ 10 -8 T (d) 4.23 ´ 10 -8 T
(d) electricity, magnetism and light 8 A plane electromagnetic wave of frequency 25 GHz is
2 In the given figure, for which configuration the magnetic propagating in vacuum along the z-direction. At a
field (say at point P) outside the plates of the capacitor is to particular point in space and time, the magnetic field is
be same everywhere? given by B = 5 ´ 10 - 8 $j T. The corresponding electric field
P E E is (speed of light, c = 3 ´ 10 8ms - 1 )
+ –
+ – (a) - 1 .66 ´ 10 - 16 $i V / m (b) 1 .66 ´ 10 - 16 $i V / m
+ – $
(c) - 15 i V / m (d) 15 $i V / m
i (t)
+ –
+ – 9 Which waves can propagate in a solid, which is rigid and
+ – that resists shear?
(a) Electromagnetic waves
(a) Plane circular loop perpendicular to wire
(b) Sound waves
(b) Plane circular loop parallel to wire
(c) Pot like surface with bottom between the plates (c) Transverse waves of water
(d) Tiffin box like shape (without the lid) (d) Transverse elastic sound waves
3 The charge on a parallel-plate capacitor varies as 10 The wave which had wavelength ten million times that of
q = q 0 cos 2 pnt . The plates are very large and close the light waves, could be diffracted, refracted and
together (area = A, separation = d ). Neglecting the edge polarised. This established that the radiation possesses
effects, find the displacement current through the (a) particle nature
capacitor. (b) wave nature
(a) - sin 2pnt (2pn) (c) Both particle and wave nature
(b) q 0 cos 2pnt (d) electromagnetic nature
(c) 2p q 0 n sin (2pnt) 11 In free space, the energy of electromagnetic wave in
(d) - 2p q 0 n sin (2pnt) electric field is UE and in magnetic field is U B .
4 What is an instantaneous rate of change of voltage for Then
displacement current of 10A , in the space between the UB
(a) UE = U B (b) UE > U B (c) UE < U B (d) UE =
parallel plate capacitor of 1 mF ? 2
(a) 10 5 Vs -1 (b) 10 6 Vs -1 12 The electric field produced by the radiation coming from a
(c) 10 -6 Vs -1 (d) 10 7 Vs -1 100 W bulb at a distance of 3m is (assume that the
5 Out of the following options, which one can be used to efficiency of the bulb is 2.5% and it is a point source.)
produce a propagating electromagnetic wave? (a) 4.5 V/m (b) 2.8 V/m
(a) A stationary charge (c) 5 V/m (d) 4.07 V/m
(b) A chargeless particle 13 At the time Maxwell predicted the existence of
(c) An accelerating charge electromagnetic waves, which were the more familiar
(d) A charge moving at constant velocity electromagnetic waves at that time?
6 A charged particle oscillates about its mean position with (a) X-rays (b) g-rays
a frequency of 10 9 Hz. The electromagnetic waves (c) Visible light waves (d) Radio waves
produced 14 Which of the following are electromagnetic waves?
(a) will have frequency of 10 9 Hz (a) Visible light waves and X-rays
(b) will have frequency of 2 ´ 10 9 Hz (b) Gamma rays and radio waves
(c) will have wavelength of 0.2 m (c) Microwaves and ultraviolet rays
(d) will have wavelength of 0.5 m (d) All of the above
Physics 53
15 The condition under which a microwave oven heats up a 17 Gamma rays can be detected by
food item, containing water molecules, most efficiently is (a) Photocells
(a) the frequency of the microwave must match the (b) Geiger tubes
resonant frequency of the water molecules
(c) Thermopiles
(b) the frequency of the microwave has no relation with
natural frequency of water molecules (d) Diodes
(c) microwave are heat waves, so always produce heating 18 The frequencies of X-rays, g-rays and UV-rays are
(d) infrared waves produce heating in a microwave oven
respectively n1 , n2 ,n3 , then
16 Wavelength of gamma rays are
(a) n1 > n 2, n 2 < n 3
(a) 10 -10 m to less than 10 -14 m (b) n1 < n 2, n 2 < n 3
(b) 10 -14 m to less than 10 -10 m (c) n1 < n 2, n 2 > n 3
(c) 10 -11 m to less than 10 -14 m (d) n1 > n 2, n 2 > n 3
(d) 10 -14 nm to less than 10 -10 nm
ANSWERS
1 (d) 2 (a) 3 (d) 4 (d) 5 (c) 6 (a) 7 (b) 8 (d) 9 (d) 10 (b)
11 (a) 12 (d) 13 (c) 14 (d) 15 (a) 16 (a) 17 (b) 18 (c)
Hints & Solutions

2 (a) To find the magnetic field at a point such as P, in a e 0 A dV dV æ e0 A ö
Þ id = ´ =C çQC = ÷
region outside the parallel plate capacitor, we consider a d dt dt è d ø
plane circular loop of radius r, whose plane is perpendicular
to the direction of the current carrying wire and which is Given, id = 10 A and C = 10-6 F
centred symmetrically with respect to the wire. dV id 10
Þ = = -6 = 107 Vs -1
+ –
dt C 10
P + M – Thus, an instantaneous rate of voltage is 107 Vs -1 .
+ –
i (t) r 7 (b) Given, root mean square value of electric field,
+ –
+ – E rms = 6 V/ m
+ C – We know that, peak value of electric field,
E0 = 2 E rms ⇒ E0 = 2 ´ 6 V/ m
From symmetry, the magnetic field is directing along the
E
circumference of the circular loop and it is same in Also, we know that, c = 0
magnitude at all the points on the loop. B0
For other shapes, the magnetic field is zero at P. where, c = speed of light in vacuum
3 (d) Displacement current id is equal to charging current and B0 = peak value of magnetic field.
( id = dq / dt ). E0 2 ´ 6 8.48
Given, q = q0 cos 2pnt ⇒ B0 = = = ´ 10-8 = 2.83 ´ 10-8 T
c 3 ´ 108 3
dq d d
\ id = = (q ) = ( q0 cos 2pnt ) Thus, peak value of magnetic field B0 is 2.83 ´ 10-8 T.
dt dt dt
11 (a) Energy density of an electomagnetic wave in electric
= q0 ( - sin 2pnt ) ( 2pn )
field,
= - 2p q0 n sin ( 2pnt )
1
Thus, displacement current is -2pq0 n sin ( 2pnt ). UE =e0 × E 2 …(i)
2
4 (d) As, displacement current,
Energy density of an electromagnetic wave in magnetic
df
\ id = e 0 E field,
dt
B2
d æV ö æ AV ö UB = …(ii)
= e0 A ç ÷ çQf E = EA = ÷ 2m 0
dt è d ø è d ø
where, E = electric field, 100 ´ 2.5

= = 0.022 W/m 2
B = magnetic field, 100 ´ 4 ´ 314. ´ ( 3 )2
e 0 = permittivity of medium and As intensity is equally distributed between electric and
m 0 = magnetic permeability of medium. magnetic fields, so
From the theory of electro-magnetic waves, the relation 1 1
between m 0 and e 0 is I E = I B = I = ´ e 0 E 2rms c
2 2
1
c= …(iii) E rms =
I
=
0.022
V/m
m 0 e0 e0 c ( 8.85 ´ 10-12 )( 3 ´ 108 )
where, c = velocity of light = 3 ´ 108 m/s = 2.88 V/m
E Therefore, peak electric field,
and =c …(iv)
B E0 = 2E rms = 2 ´ 2.88 = 4.07 V/m
Dividing Eq. (i) by Eq. (ii), we get 15 (a) A microwave oven uses microwaves,which are basically
1 radio waves, to cook food items, containing water
e0 E 2
UE 2 m e E2 molecules. In it, the frequency used by microwave oven,
= = 0 02 …(v)
UB 1 2 1 B matches the resonant frequency of water molecule, which
B ´ causes water molecules in the food to vibrate and produce
2 m0
thermal energy in a process known as dielectric heating.
Using Eqs. (iii), (iv) and (v), we get Thereby facilitating in the heating up the food items. Thus,
U E c2 option (a) is correct.
= =1
U B c2 18 (c) As, we know the increasing order of wavelength is
Therefore, UE = UB g-rays < X-rays < UV-rays
So, frequency order with be
12 (d) Given, P = 100 W , R = 3 m and efficiency = 2.5% g-rays > X-rays > UV-rays
As, bulb is a point source, so it radiates light uniformly in all Given, frequency of X-ray = n1 ,
directions. frequency of g-ray = n2 and frequency of UV-ray = n3 .
The intensity I at a distance R is Q n2 > n1 > n3
power 100 ´ 2.5% Therefore, n1 < n2 and n2 > n3 .
I= =
area 4 pR 2
Physics 55
CHAPTER 09
Ray Optics and

Optical Instruments
1 1 1 where, n = refractive index of denser medium with respect
1. Mirror Formula, + =
v u f to rarer medium.
where, f = focal length of spherical mirror, 9. Total internal reflection occurs only when angle of
u = distance of the object and incidence in denser medium is greater (not equal) than
v = distance of the image. critical angle i.e. i > ic .
2. Focal length of mirror 10. Optical fibre, mirage, sparkling of diamond, totally
Radius of curvature (R ) R reflecting prism, etc. works on the principle of total
f = =
2 2 internal reflection.
3. Magnification produced by spherical mirrors, 11. (i) Refraction formula for refraction by convex or concave
I v f f -v spherical refracting surface is given by
m= =- = =
O u f -u f n2 n1 n2 - n1
- =
where, I = height of image, v u R
O = height of object where n1, n2 are refractive indices of rarer and denser
4. Magnification (m) is negative corresponding to real image medium and u , v and R are to be taken with their proper
and positive for virtual image. signs.
5. For a real object, u is negative whereas v is negative for real (ii) When refraction takes place from denser to rarer
image and positive for virtual image. medium, then
6. Laws of Reflection n1 n2 n1 - n2
(i) Ði = Ðr, - =
v u R
i.e. angle of incidence = angle of reflection
(ii) The incident ray, reflected ray and normal to the 12. Refractive index of medium 2 w.r.t. medium 1 is denoted
reflecting surface at the point of incidence all lie in same as 1 n2 and defined as
plane. n2 v1 l1
1 n2 = = =
7. Laws of Refraction of Light n1 v2 l 2
First Law The incident ray, reflected ray and normal at 13. Principle of reversibility states that
the point of incidence, all lie in the same plane. 1
1 n2 ´ 2 n1 = 1 Þ 2 n1 =
Second Law Refractive index, n
1 2
sin i
n= (Snell’s law) 14. Refractive index of medium glass w.r.t. medium water
sin r
a ng
where, i = angle of incidence in air, w ng =
r = angle of refraction in a medium and a nw
n = refractive index of the medium. 15. Lens maker’s formula

8. Critical angle (ic ) is the angle of incidence in denser 1 æ 1 1ö
= (m - 1 ) ç - ÷
medium for which angle of refraction in rarer medium is f è R1 R2 ø
90°,
1 m = refractive index of material of lens w.r.t.
i.e. n= surrounding media
sin ic
R1, R2 = radii of curvatures of two surfaces.
16. When a lens of refractive index m is immersed in a Rayleigh’s law of scattering Amount of intensity of light
medium of refractive index m ¢, then 1
scattered µ
(wavelength)4 (l4 )
(i) focal length fa of the lens is given by, if m ¢ = 1, i.e.
medium is air 22. Compound Microscope It consists of two convex
1 æ 1 1ö lenses; one objective of very small focal length f0 with
= (m - 1 ) ç - ÷ …(i)
fa è R1 R2 ø short aperture and one eye piece, E of moderate focal
length fe and large aperture
(ii) when the lens is taken in another medium, then focal
Magnifying power, M = me ´ mo
length changes to fm, which is given by
where, me and mo are the individual magnifying powers of
1 æm öæ 1 1ö objective and eye lens
= ç - 1÷ ç - ÷ …(ii)
fm è m ¢ ø è R1 R2 ø v æ Dö
M = o ç1 + ÷
fm (m - 1 ) uo è fe ø
(iii) = [Dividing Eq. (i) by Eq. (ii)]
fa æ m ö
ç - 1÷ 23. Refracting Astronomical Telescope
èm¢ ø
(i) It consists of an objective lens of large focal length (fo )
(iv) If, m = m ¢ Þ fm = ¥ and large aperture, also an eye lens of small aperture
Hence, lens behaves like a glass slab. and small focal length.
(v) If, m < m ¢ Þ fm > fa and nature reversed. (ii) Magnification when final image is formed at D,
(vi) If, m > m ¢ Þ fm < fa and nature remains same. f æ f ö
m = o ç1 + e ÷
17. Power of lens, P =
1
. fe è Dø
f (in m) and length of telescope, L = | fo | + |ue |
SI unit of power of lens is dioptre (D). (iii) Magnification when final image is formed at infinity
18. Power of lens combination in contact, (normal adjustment)
P = P1 + P2 + ¼ + Pn m = fo / fe where, L = (fo ) + (fe )
1 1 1 1
Þ = + + ¼+ 24. Reflecting Telescope These telescope forms image
f f1 f2 fn free from chromatic aberration and spherical aberration.
1 1 1 (i) Newtonian reflecting telescope.
19. (i) Lens formula, = - (ii) Cassegrain reflecting telescope.
f v u
(ii) Lateral or transverse magnification fo æ f ö
Magnification, m = ç1 + e ÷
m= = =
I v f
=
f -v fe è Dø
O u f +u f (where, fo = R /2, where R is radius of curvature of
20. (i) A prism has the property of bending of incident light objective mirror.)
towards its base. 1 2 m sin q
(ii) When the prism is adjusted at angle of minimum
25. Resolving power of microscope = =
d 1.22 l
deviation, then
where, m sin q = numerical aperture, q is the semi-vertical
(a) angle of incidence is equal to the angle of angle of the cone formed by object at objective,
emergence. m = refractive index of the medium between object and
(b) i1 = i2, r1 = r2, d = d m ,A + d m = 2 i and 2r = A. lens and d = minimum distance between two objects
whose image can be seen through microscope vivid and
æ A + dm ö
sin æç ö÷
A
(c) m = sin ç ÷ clear.
è 2 ø è2 ø
1 D
21. Scattering of light It is the process by which small 26. Resolving power of a telescope = =
Dq 1.22 l
particles like dust, smoke, water droplets causes optical
phenomena such as blue colour of sky and reddish D is the diameter/aperture of objective lens and l is the
appearance of the sun at sunrise and sunset. wavelength of light used.
Physics 57
Practice Questions
1 Which of the following phenomenon are explained by 10 As you can seen from Fig. (i) and (ii) shows refraction of
using the ray picture of light? light from air to glass and from air to water. Find out the
(a) Reflection (b) Refraction value of the angle q in the case of refraction as shown in
(c) Dispersion (d) All of these Fig. (iii).
2 The laws of reflection are valid at each point on any

reflecting surface, which is 40° 50°
(a) plane (b) curved Glass Air
(c) Either plane or curved (d) None of these
(i) (ii)
Air Water
50°
3 A ray of light gets reflected from the plane mirror. The 45°
incident ray and the reflected ray are perpendicular to each
other. The angle of incidence is
(a) 60° (b) 30° (c) 45° (d) 0°
1 θ
4 A ray of light travelling in the direction ($i + 3 $j ) is Glass
2 (iii)
incident on a plane mirror. After reflection, it travels along Water
1 45°
the direction ($i - 3 $j ). The angle of incidence is
2
(a) 30° (b) 45° (c) 60° (d) 75°
(a) 30° (b) 50°
5 The rays that are incident at points close to the pole of the
(c) 40° (d) 45°
mirror and make small angles with the principal axis are
known as 11 A ray of light strikes a material’s slab at an angle of
incidence 60°. If the reflected and refracted rays are
(a) paraxial rays (b) perpendicular rays
perpendicular to each other, then which of the given
(c) principal rays (d) beam of rays
option(s) is/are correct?
6 An object 2 cm high is placed at a distance of 16 cm from a (a) The angle of refraction is 45°
concave mirror, which produces a real image 3 cm high.
(b) The angle of refraction is 30°
What is the focal length of the mirror?
(c) The refractive index of the material is 3
(a) - 96
. cm (b) - 36
. cm (d) Both (b) and (c)
(c) - 6.3 cm (d) - 8.3 cm
12 When an object lying in a denser medium is observed from a
7 Rear view mirror of a car is of radius of curvature R = 2 m. rarer medium, then the real depth of the object is
A jogger approaches car (from behind) at a speed of 5
(a) more than that of observed depth
ms -1 . The speed of image, when jogger is 39 m from the
(b) less than that of observed depth
mirror, is
(c) equals to observed depth
(a) 0.3 ´ 10 -2 ms -1 (b) 0.1 ´ 10 -2 ms -1
(d) depends on angle of vision
(c) 0.5 ´ 10 -2 ms -1 (d) 0.5 cms -1
13 When a light ray enters from oil to glass, then on oil-glass
8 When a ray of light falls obliquely on a transparent interface, the velocity of light changes by a factor of [given,
medium, it enters the other medium, then at the interface noil = 2, nglass = 3 / 2]
of two media 4 3
(a) (b)
(a) its direction changes 3 4
(b) its direction does not change (c) 3 (d) 1
(c) it is completely refracted 14 In total internal reflection, when the angle of incidence is
(d) it is completely reflected equal to the critical angle for the pair of media in contact,
9 A ray of light strikes on an air-glass interface at an angle of what will be angle of refraction?
incidence (i = 60° ) and gets refracted at an angle of (a) 0º
refraction r. On increasing the angle of incidence (i > 60° ), (b) Equal to angle of incidence
the angle of refraction r (c) 90º
(a) decreases (b) remains same (d) 180º
(c) is equal to 60° (d) increases
15 Find the value of q in the given figure 22 The refractive index of the material of a prism is 2 and
the angle of the prism is 30°. One of the two refracting
surfaces of the prism is made a mirror inwards, by silver
θ coating. A beam of monochromatic light entering the
n=2/√3
prism from the other face will retrace its path (after
reflection from the silvered surface), if its angle of
æ 2 ö æ 1 ö
(a) sin -1 ç ÷ (b) sin -1 ç ÷ incidence on the prism is
è 3ø è 3ø
(a) 30° (b) 45°
æ 1ö æ 1 ö
(c) sin -1 ç ÷ (d) sin -1 ç ÷ (c) 60° (d) zero
è 2ø è 2ø
23 Which colour of the light has the longest wavelength?
16 While moving in a bus or a car during a hot summer day, a (a) Blue (b) Green
distant patch of road appears to be wet. This is due to (c) Violet (d) Red
(a) sweating (b) road material
24 In chromatic aberration, when white light passes through
(c) mirage (d) sunlight thick lenses
17 Using the principle of total internal reflection, the prisms (a) red and blue colours focus at different points
can bend light by (b) red and blue colour focus at same points
(a) 90° (b) 180° (c) red and yellow colours focus at different points
(c) 60° (d) Both 90° or 180° (d) yellow and green colour focus at same points
18 The optical fibres are used for long distance transmission of 25 The order of colour in primary and secondary rainbows
signal, the main requirement for this is from top to bottom are respectively
(a) optical fibre material should be cheap (a) violet-red and red-violet (b) red-violet and violet-red
(b) it should be made of glass (c) red-violet for both (d) violet-red for both
(c) there should be little absorption of light inside it
26 What focal length should the reading spectacles have for a
(d) it is light in weight
person for whom the least distance of distinct vision is 50
19 Photometry a is measurement of physiological cm?
phenomenon. The main physical quantities in (a) + 50 cm (b) - 75 cm
photometry is/are (c) - 50 cm (d) + 75 cm
(a) luminous intensity (b) luminous flux
27 The far point of a myopic person is 80 cm infront of the
(c) illuminance (d) All of these eye. What is the power of the lens required to enable him
20 A double convex lens has focal length 25 cm. The radius of to see very distant objects clearly?
curvature of one of the surfaces is double of the other. (a) 2 D (b) 1.50 D (c) 2.75 D (d) – 1.25 D
Find the radii, if the refractive index of the material of the
lens is 1.5. 28 The nearer point of hypermetropic eye is 20 cm. Find the
power of lens which can be used for its correction.
(a) 100 cm, 50 cm (b) 25 cm, 50 cm
(a) + 2.5 D (b) + 5.0 D (c) – 1.5 D (d) + 1.5 D
(c) 18.75 cm, 37.5 cm (d) 50 cm, 100 cm
29 An astronomical telescope has objective and eyepiece of
21 The graph shows how the magnification m produced by a
focal lengths 40 cm and 4 cm respectively. To view an
thin lens varies with image distance v. What is the focal
object 200 cm away from the objective, the lenses must be
length of the lens used?
separated by a distance
m
(a) 46.0 cm (b) 50.0 cm
(c) 54.0 cm (d) 37.3 cm
c 30 To remove the chromatic aberration and distortions, due
to lens of large size, the objective of telescope is replaced
by
v
a b (a) convex mirror (b) plane mirror
2
b c b2
a b (c) concave mirror (d) plano-concave lens
(a) (b) (c) (d)
a ac c c
ANSWERS
1 (d) 2 (c) 3 (c) 4 (c) 5 (a) 6 (a) 7 (a) 8 (a) 9 (d) 10 (c)
11 (d) 12 (a) 13 (a) 14 (c) 15 (b) 16 (c) 17 (d) 18 (c) 19 (d) 20 (c)
21 (d) 22 (b) 23 (d) 24 (a) 25 (b) 26 (a) 27 (d) 28 (b) 29 (c) 30 (c)
Physics 59
Hints & Solutions

3 (c) Let the angle of incidence be q. From the law of ( -39 ) ´ 1 39
v= = m
reflection, -39 - 1 40
Angle of incidence = Angle of reflection = q Since, the jogger moves at a constant speed of 5 ms -1 , after 1s
So, the given situation can be depicted as follows the position of the jogger will be
Normal u = - 39 + ( 5 ´ 1)
= - 39 + 5 = - 34 m
y
In
ra
ci
So, now the image position of the jogger will

de
ed
θ θ
nt
ct
( -34 ) ´ 1 34
f le
r
v= =
ay
m.
Re
-34 - 1 35
O
The shift in the position of image in 1s is
39 34 1365 - 1360 5 1
- = = = m
Given, incident ray is perpendicular to reflected ray 40 35 1400 1400 280
Þ q + q = 2q = 90° (from figure) Þ q = 45° Therefore, the average speed of the image when the jogger
So, angle of incidence = 45°. is between 39 m and 34 m from the mirror, is (1/280) ms -1 or
4 (c) The given situation can shown as 0.3 ´ 10-2 ms -1 .
√3/2 A 9 (d) From Snell’s law of refraction,
r ay a sin i
nt ng = = constant …(i)
ide sin r
Inc
i 1/2 Since, angle of incidence increases, the angle of refraction has
O Normal æ sin i ö
r C to increase, so that the ratio ç
Re ÷ remains a constant.
fle è sin r ø
ted
ra 10 (c) From Snell’s law of refraction refractive index of
y
√3/2 air-glass interface,
B
If i be the angle of incidence, then from D AOC , a sin i sin 50°
ng = = …(i)
sin r sin 40°
AC æ 3 / 2 ö
tan i = =ç ÷ = 3 = tan 60° Þ i = 60° Similarly, refractive index of air-water interface,
OC è 1 / 2 ø
a sin 50°
6 (a) Given, size (height) of the object, h1 = 2 cm, nw = …(ii)
sin 45°
object distance, u = - 16 cm
Refractive index of water-glass interface,
and size (height) of the image, h2 = - 3 cm
w sin 45°
(since the image is real and inverted) ng = …(iii)
- h2 v sin q
As, linear magnification, m = = a
h1 u As, nw ´ w n g = a n g
where, v is image distance. sin 50° sin 45° sin 50°
- h2 ( -3 ) Þ ´ =
Þ v= ú= - ´ ( - 16 ) = - 24 cm sin 45° sin q sin 40°
h1 2
[using Eqs. (i), (ii) and (iii)]
Now, using mirror formula, sin q = sin 40° or q = 40°
1 1 1 1 1 - 2- 3 - 5
= + =- - = = 11 (d) Given, situation is shown in the figure below
f v u 24 16 48 48
A B
- 48 Inc
Þ f = = - 9.6 cm id
en ra y
5 t ra i=60° 60° ted
y eflec
Air R
7 (a) Since, rear view mirror of a car is convex in nature, so
the radius of curvature of convex mirror, R = 2 m (given).
Re r a y
Slab M
r
fra
R 2
cte
Focal length of the mirror, f = = = 1m

d
2 2 C
R
Also, image distance, u = - 39 m where, angle of incidence, i = 60° and ÐBMC = 90°
fu From the given figure, ÐCMR = angle of refraction,
From the mirror equation, we get v = …(i)
u- f r = 180° - ( 60° + 90° )
Substituting the given values in Eq. (i), we get Þ r = 30°
sin i nslab 1 æ 1 ö
From Snell’s law, = Þ sin q = Þ q = sin -1 ç ÷
sin r nair 3 è 3ø
sin 60° nslab 20 (c) Using the lens Maker’s formula,
Þ = [Q nair = 1]
sin 30° 1.0 1 æ n2 - n1 ö æ 1 1ö
æ 3ö =ç ÷ç - ÷ …(i)
\ nslab = ç ÷ ´ 2 = 3 f è n1 ø è R1 R2 ø
è 2 ø
Given, f = 25 cm
13 (a) Given, noil = 2, nglass = 3 / 2 n2 = 15
. , n1 = 1 (for air)
Velocity of light in oil is given by Let R1 = R and R2 = - 2R
Velocity of light c c
voil = = Substituting the given values in Eq. (i), we get
noil noil
1 . - 1ö é 1 æ 1 ö ù
æ 15
c Þ = ç ÷ - ç- ÷
Similarly, vglass = 25 è 1 ø êë R è 2R ø úû
nglass
vglass c / nglass n 2 4 1 1 1 3
\ = = oil = = = + Þ R = ´ 25 ´ 0.5 = 18.75 cm
voil c / noil nglass 3 / 2 3 25 ´ 0.5 R 2R 2
14 (c) The total internal reflection is the phenomenon of
\ R1 = 18.75 cm and R2 = 2 ´ 18.75 = 37.5 cm
reflection of light in the denser medium when it travels from 21 (d) First we find relation of magnification m and focal length
denser to rarer medium, for the angle of incidence is greater f . By lens equation,
than the critical angle. The critical angle for a pair of given 1 1 1
- =
media in contact is the angle of incidence in denser medium v u f
for which the angle of refraction in rarer medium is 90°as v v
shown in figure. Þ 1- =
u f
Normal
v é v ù
Þ 1- m = êQ = mú
f ë u û
ic v
Denser Þ m = 1- …(i)
f
r=90° Now, from given graph and from Eq. (i),
Rarer
At v = a , magnification is
a
m1 = 1 - …(ii)
f
15 (b) The given figure can be drawn as follows,
B C At v = a + b, magnification is
(90°–θ1) a+b
Air θ1 m2 = 1 - …(iii)
θ A n=2/√3
f
m
As, the angle of incidence in a denser medium for which the m2
angle of refraction in rarer medium becomes 90° is known
c
as critical angle. Mathematically,
1 m1
iC = sin –1 …(i)
n
where, n = refractive index of denser to rarer medium. v
a b
So, rayBC travels along surface, i.e. angle of refraction is
90° . From graph, we can also say that
Þ angle ( 90° - q 1 ) = critical angle iC m2 - m1 = c ...(iv)
3 So, from Eqs. (ii), (iii) and (iv), we have
sin ( 90° - q 1 ) = (using Eq. (i)) æ (a + b )ö æ aö
2 ç1 - ÷ - ç1 - ÷ = c
3 è f ø è fø
Þ cosq 1 = Þ q 1 = 30°
2 a - (a + b )
Þ =c
Now, using Snell’s law on 1st interface, f
n1 sin q = n 2 sin q 1 b b
2 2 1 Þ f = - or | f | =
Þ 1 sin q = sin 30° = × c c
3 3 2
Physics 61
22 (b) According to the question, the figure of mentioned prism 26 (a) The least distance of distinct vision for a normal person
is given as is 25 cm. Now, if the least distance of distinct vision for the
A person has been changed to 50 cm. So, if a book is at
u = - 25 cm, its image should be formed at v = - 50 cm.
30° Therefore, the desired focal length is given by
1 1 1 1 1 1 1
O = - Þ = - =
i r1 R f v u f - 50 - 25 50
n=√2
O¢ \ f = + 50cm (convex lens)
P
27 (d) For myopic eye, the person should use a concave lens of
B C
focal length = - (defected far point)
(since, there is no refraction at the face AC)
- 80
Given, refractive index of the material of prism, n = 2 = - 80 cm = m
100
and angle of prism, A = 30° 1 - 100
If the ray OR has to retrace its path after reflection (as per i.e. Power = = = - 1.25D
focal length 80
the given condition), then the ray has to fall normally on the
surface AC. 28 (b) Hypermetropia is corrected by using convex lens.
This means, ÐARO = ÐORC = 90° Focal length of lens used, f = + (defected near point)
In DAOR, ÐAOR + ÐARO + ÐOAR = 180° f = + d = + 20 cm
Þ ÐAOR + 90° + 30° = 180° 100 100
\ Power of lens = = =5 D
Þ ÐAOR = 180° - 120° = 60° …(i) f (cm) + 20
From figure, ÐAOR + Ðr1 = 90° 29 (c) According to question,
Þ Ðr1 = 90° - 60° = 30° [from Eq. (i)] Focal length of objective lens, fo = 40 cm
Applying Snell’s law at the face AB, we get Focal length of eyepiece lens, fe = 4 cm
sin i
n= Objective lens Eyepiece lens
sin r1
Substituting the given values, we get
sin i 4 cm
2=
sin 30°
200 cm v
Þ sin i = sin 30° ´ 2
1 æ 1ö
= ´ 2 çQsin 30° = ÷
2 è 2ø Object distance for objective lens, u o = - 200 cm
1 æ 1 ö
= or i = sin -1 ç ÷ Applying lens formula for objective lens
2 è 2ø 1 1 1 1 1 1
- = Þ - =
æ 1 ö v u f v -200 40
= 45° çQsin 45° = ÷
è 2ø 1 1 1 5-1 4
Þ = - = =
The angle of incidence of the ray on the prism is 45°. v 40 200 200 200
23 (d) Different colours of white light have different Þ v = 50 cm
wavelengths. The descending order of the wavelength of the Image will be formed at first focus of eyepiece lens.
component of white light is So, for normal adjustment distance between objective and
l Red > l Green > l Blue > l Violet eyepiece lens (length of tube) will be
\ Red colour light has the longest wavelength. v + fe = 50 + 4 = 54 cm
CHAPTER 10
Wave Optics
1. Wavefront The locus of all those particles which are l
(ii) path difference = (2 n - 1 ) ; n = 1, 2, 3,...
vibrating in the same phase at any instant is called 2
wavefront. Thus, wavefront is a surface having same 11. Two waves of amplitudes A1 and A 2 interfere at a point
phase of vibrating particles at any instant at every point where phase difference is f, then resultant amplitude is
on it. given by A2 = A12 + A22 + 2 A1 A 2 cos f
2. Phase Speed Phase speed is the speed with which 2
For constructive interference, Amax = ( A1 + A 2 )2
wavefront moves and it is equal to wave speed.
For destructive interference, Amin = ( A1 - A 2 )2
2
3. The shape of wavefront due to a
Also, resultant intensity, I = I1 + I2 + 2 I1 I2 cos f
(i) point source is spherical
(ii) line source is cylindrical 12. Coherent sources of light are the sources which emit light
waves of same frequency, same wavelength and have a
(iii) source at infinity is plane.
constant initial phase difference.
4. The direction of rays are always perpendicular to
the wavefront along the direction of propagation of wave.
13. Coherent source of light can be obtained by deriving two
sources from a primary (or initial) source by
5. Huygens’ Wave Theory (i) division of wavefront (young’s Double slit experiment)
(i) Every point on a wavefront again behaves like a light
(ii) division of amplitude (refraction in thin films)
source and emits secondary wavelets.
(ii) The secondary wavelets spread in all directions in
14. When, I1 = I2 = I0
space with the velocity of light in given medium. Then, resultant intensity
(iii) The envelope of wavefront of secondary wavelets, after I = I0 + I0 + 2 I0 cos f
æ fö
a given time, along forward direction gives the new = 2 I0 (1 + cos f) = 4I0 cos 2 ç ÷
position of wavefront. è2ø
6. The laws of reflection and refraction can be verified using 15. In Young’s double slit experiment,
Huygens’ wave theory. (i) fringe width of bright and dark-fringes
7. Huygens’ wave theory successfully explains the Dl b l
b= and angular fringe-width, q = =
phenomenon of interference, diffraction and polarisation. d D d
(ii) Separation of nth order bright fringe from central fringe
8. The phenomenon of redistribution of energy in the region Dnl
of superposition of waves is called interference. The yn = ; n = 1, 2, 3,...
d
points of maximum intensity in the regions of
superposition of waves are said to be in constructive where, D = distance of screen from slit
interference whereas the points of minimum intensity are d = distance between two slits
said to be in destructive interference. (iii) Separation of nth order dark fringe from central fringe
Dl
9. Conditions for Constructive Interference yn = (2 n - 1 ) ; n = 1, 2, 3,...
2d
If initial phase difference is zero, then the interference (iv) Angular position of nth order
waves must have yn nl
(i) phase difference = (2n ) p; n = 0, 1, 2, 3,.... (a) bright fringe q 1 = =
D d
(ii) path difference = nl; n = 0, 1, 2, 3… yn l
10. Conditions for Destructive Interference (b) dark fringe q 2 = = (2 n - 1) , where n = 1, 2, 3,...
D d
Assuming initial phase difference = 0 Dl
Necessary conditions for interference of waves (v) Fringe width b = , decreases when whole apparatus
d
(i) phase difference = (2 n - 1 ) p ; n = 1, 2, 3,... is taken from air to a denser medium.
Physics 63
16. Intensity of light is proportional to the width (d) of slit and 2Dl
(vii) Linear width of central maxima =
d I a2 d
ratio of slit-widths, 1 = 1 = 12
d 2 I2 a2 l
(viii) Angular width of secondary maxima or minima =
17. Ratio of intensities d
Imax æ a1 + a2 ö
2
æ r + 1ö
2 Dl
=ç (ix) Linear width of secondary maxima or minima =
÷ =ç ÷ d
Imin è a1 - a2 ø è r - 1ø
(x) Intensity of central maxima increases and intensity of
a1 I1
where, r = = secondary maxima decreases with the increase of their
a2 I2 order.
18. A coloured fringe pattern is obtained with central white 22. Polarisation ensures the transverse nature of light.
fringe when monochromatic light is replaced by white
23. Malus Law, I = I0 cos 2 q
light.
19. If refracting slab of thickness t and refractive index m is where, I0 = intensity of incident light
placed in front of one of the two slits of YDSE, then fringe I = intensity of transmitted light from the
pattern gets shifted by n fringes and is given by analyser
(m - 1 ) t = nl q = angle between pass axis of the polariser
20. If both the slits are covered by refracting surfaces of and the analyser.
thicknesses t1 and t 2 and refractive indices m1 and m 2 , then 24. Brewster’s Law
fringe pattern gets shifted by n fringes, is given by (i) m = tan i p , where, i p = polarising angle and
(m 2 - m1 )t = nl m = refractive index of refracting denser medium.
21. Diffraction due to a single slit of width d (ii) When reflected wave is perpendicular to the refracted
(i) nth order secondary minima is obtained when wave, the reflected wave is a totally polarized wave. The
d sin q = nl, where n = 0, 1, 2, 3,...
angle of incidence in this case is called Brewster’s angle i p .
(ii) nth order secondary maxima is obtained when
l i p + r = 90° i.e. reflected plane polarised light is at right
d sin q = (2 n + 1 ) , where n = 0, 1, 2, 3,...
2 angle from refracted light.
(iii) Angular separation for nth minima 25. Polaroides are the commercial devices to produce plane
nl
qn = , where n = 1, 2, 3,... polarised light. Polaroides are used in sunglasses, wind
d screen, window panes of aeroplane and to make the 3D
(iv) Linear separation of nth secondary minima movies, images vivid and clear.
Dnl
yn =
d 26. Modes of production of plane polarised light
(v) Angular position of nth order secondary maxima (i) Reflection(Brewster’s law)
l (ii) Scattering
qn = (2 n + 1)
2d (iii) Double refraction (calcite)
2l
(vi) Angular width of central maxima = (iv) Selective absorption (dichroism)
d
Practice Questions
1 Light propagates rectilinearly, due to 4 According to Huygens’ principle, each point of the
(a) wave nature (b) large wavelength wavefront is the source of
(c) high velocity (d) high frequency (a) secondary disturbance
2 The direction of wavefront of a wave with the wave (b) primary disturbance
motion is (c) third disturbance
(d) fourth disturbance
(a) parallel (b) perpendicular
(c) opposite (d) at an angle of q 5 Huygens’ principle of secondary wavelets may be used to
3 If a source is at infinity, then wavefronts reaching to (a) find the velocity of light in vacuum
observer are (b) explain the particle’s behaviour of light
(a) cylindrical (b) spherical (c) find the new position of a wavefront
(c) plane (d) conical (d) explain photoelectric effect
6 In the context of doppler effect in light, the term red shift (c) 5th order of 1st source and 3rd order of 2nd source
signifies (d) 5th order of 1st source and 7th order of 2nd source
(a) decrease in frequency (b) increase in frequency 15 Two slits are separated by a distance of
(c) decrease in intensity (d) increase in intensity 0.5 mm and illuminated with light of l = 6000 Å. If the
7 The source of light is moving towards observer with screen is placed 2.5 m from the slits, the distance of the
relative velocity of 3 kms -1 . The fractional change in third bright image from the centre will be
frequency of light observed is (a) 1.5 mm (b) 3 mm
(a) 3 ´ 10 -3
(b) 3 ´ 10 -5 (c) 6 mm (d) 9 mm
(c) 10 -5 (d) None of these 16 In a double-slit experiment, green light (5303 Å) falls on a
double slit having a separation of 19.44 m-m and a width of
8 A planet moves with respect to us, so that light of 475 nm is
. m-m. The number of bright fringes between the first
405
observed at 475.6 nm. The speed of the planet is
-1 and the second diffraction
(a) 206 kms -1 (b) 378 kms -1 minima is
-1 -1
(c) 108 kms (d) 100 kms -1 (a) 5 (b) 10 (c) 9 (d) 4
9 Two coherent sources of light can be obtained by 17 A parallel beam of light of wavelength 6000 Å
(a) two different lamps gets diffracted by a single slit width 0.3 mm. The angular
(b) two different lamps but of the same power position of the first minima of diffracted
light is
(c) two different lamps of same power and having the
same colours (a) 6 ´ 10 -3 rad (b) 1.8 ´ 10 -3 rad
(d) None of the above . ´ 10 -3 rad
(c) 32 (d) 2 ´ 10 -3 rad
10 Suppose displacement produced at some point P by a 18 In a diffraction pattern due to a single slit of width a, the
wave is y1 = a cos wt and by another wave is y2 = a cos wt . first minimum is observed at an angle 30° when light of
wavelength 5000 Å is incident on the slit. The first
Let I 0 represents intensity produced by each one of
secondary maximum is observed at an angle of
individual wave, then resultant intensity due to
æ 2ö æ 1ö
overlapping of both waves is (a) sin -1 ç ÷ (b) sin -1 ç ÷
è 3ø è 2ø
I æ 3 ö æ1ö
(a) I 0 (b) 2I 0 (c) 0 (d) 4I 0 (c) sin -1 ç ÷ (d) sin -1 ç ÷
2 è4 ø è4 ø
11 If the amplitude ratio of two sources producing 19 The waves produced by a vibrating string in a plane are
interference is 3 : 5, then the ratio of intensities produced
by each is (a) unpolarised wave (b) plane polarised wave
(c) linearly polarised wave (d) circularly polarised wave
(a) 3 : 5 (b) 5 : 3 (c) 9 : 25 (d) 25 : 9
20 An unpolarised beam of light of intensity I 0 falls on a
12 Two waves are emanating from sources S1 and S2 and
polaroid. The intensity of the emergent beam is
their displacements are given by I I
(a) 0 (b) I 0 (c) 0 (d) zero
y1 = a cos wt & y2 = a cos(wt - 4p ). 2 4
Then, on superimposing they will give rise to 21 Which of the following can be used to control the
(a) constructive interference (b) destructive interference intensity, in sunglasses, window-panes, etc?
(c) diffraction (d) polarisation (a) Transverse wave (b) Polaroids
13 In Young’s double slit experiment, the phase of two waves (c) Plane polarised wave (d) Polarised wave
were locked by 22 Unpolarised light is incident from air on a plane surface of
(a) making two pinholes very close to each a material of refractive index m. At a particular angle of
other incidence i, it is found that the reflected and refracted rays
(b) making two pinholes very far from each other are perpendicular to each other. Which of the following
(c) making one pinhole only option is correct for this situation?
æ1ö
(d) making three pinholes very close to each (a) i = sin -1 ç ÷
other èm ø
14 Two sources of light of wavelengths 1500Å and 2500Å are (b) Reflected light is polarised with its electric vector
used in Young’s double slit experiment simultaneously. perpendicular to the plane of incidence
Which orders of fringes of two wavelength patterns (c) Reflected light is polarised with its electric vector
coincide? parallel to the plane of incidence
æ1ö
(a) 3rd order of 1st source and 5th order of 2nd source (d) i = tan -1 ç ÷
èm ø
(b) 7th order of 1st source and 5th order of 2nd source
Physics 65
ANSWERS
1 (a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (a) 5 (c) 6 (a) 7 (c) 8 (b) 9 (d) 10 (d)
11 (c) 12 (a) 13 (a) 14 (c) 15 (d) 16 (a) 17 (d) 18 (c) 19 (b) 20 (a)
21 (b) 22 (b)
Hints & Solutions

3 (c) Rays reaching from a source which is at infinity are 10 (d) The displacement produced by the source S 1 at the point
parallel and when we draw a surface perpendicular to each P is given by y1 = a cos wt
ray, we get a plane wavefront as shown. The displacement produced by the sources S 2 (at the point
P) is given by y2 = a cos wt
Thus, the resultant of displacement at point P would be
given by
y = y1 + y2 = 2a cos wt
where, 2a is amplitude of wave.
Rays Since, the intensity is proportional to the square of the
Wavefronts
amplitude,
5 (c) Every point on a given wavefront act as a secondary i.e. intensity, I µ ( 2a )2
source of light and emits secondary wavelets which travels I = 4 ka 2
in all directions with the speed of light in the medium. A where, I 0 = ka 2
surface touching all these secondary wavelets tangentially in
the forward direction, gives new wavefront (new position of I = 4I0
wavefront) at that instant of time. where, I 0 represents the intensity produced by each one of
the individual waves.
6 (a) In doppler effect when source moves away from the
observer, frequency observed is smaller than that emitted a 3
11 (c) Given, ratio of amplitudes, 1 =
from the source. a2 5
The increase in wavelength (decrease in frequency) due to Since, the intensity is proportional to the square of
this effect is known as red shift. Therefore, red shift amplitude.
signifies decrease in frequency. i.e. I µ a2
7 (c) Given, relative velocity, Dv = 3 kms -1 = 3 ´ 103 ms -1 2 2
I1 æ a1 ö æ 3ö 9
\ =ç ÷ =ç ÷ = or 9 : 25
Doppler’s shift is given by I 2 è a2 ø è 5 ø 25
Dn v radial Dn 3 ´ 103
= Þ = = 10-5 12 (a) Given, the displacement produced by source S 1 ,
n c n 3 ´ 108
y1 = a cos wt
[Q v = 3 ´ 108 ms -1 ] The displacement produced by source S 2 ,
8 (b) Given, wavelengths of light are 475nm and 475.6nm. y2 = a cos( wt - 4 p ) = a cos wt
Now, the relation between v, c and l is v l = c As two displacements are in phase, so on superimposing
For small changes in v and l, they will give rise to constructive interference.
Dv - Dl - v radial 14 (c) Let nth fringe of 1500 Å coincide with ( n - 2 ) th fringe
= = of 2500 Å.
v l c
é Dv - v radial ù \ 1500 ´ n = 2500 ´ ( n - 2 )
êQ Doppler shift, v = c úû
3n = 5( n - 2 )
ë 3n = 5n - 10
As, Dl = 475.6 - 475 = + 0.6 nm 2n = 10
æ Dl ö æ 0.6 ö 0.6 Þ n=5
Þ v radial = c ç ÷=cç ÷= ´ 3 ´ 108 (n - 2) = 3
è l ø è 475 ø 475
\ 5th order of 1st source and 3rd order of 2nd source will
= 3.78 ´ 105 ms -1 = 378 kms -1 coincide.
9 (d) Two sources are said to be coherent, if they have exactly 15 (d) Given, wavelength, l = 6000 Å
same frequency and have zero or constant phase difference. Distance of screen, D = 2.5 m
Two coherent source cannot be obtained from two different Distance between two slits, d = 0.5 mm
lamps (light source).
nDl Substitute value of a from Eq. (i) to Eq. (ii), we get

Distance of nth bright fringe from the centre, yn =
d 3l 3
sin q 1 = Þ sin q 1 =
3 ´ 2.5 ´6000 ´10-10 4l 4
\ y3 = [Q n = 3]
0.5 ´ 10-3 q 1 = sin -1 3
= 9 ´ 10-3 m = 9 mm 4
20 (a) In unpolarised beam, vibrations are probable in all
16 (a) Here, wavelength of light used ( l ) = 5303Å.
directions in a plane perpendicular to the direction of
Distance between two slit ( d ) = 19.44 m-m propagation. Therefore, q can have any value from
Width of single slit (a)= 4.05 mm 0 to 2p.
Here, angular width between first and second diffraction 1 2p
[cos 2 q ] av = cos 2 q dq
minima 2p ò 0
q-~l 1 2 p æ 1 + cos 2q ö
2p ò 0 è
= ç ÷ dq
a 2 ø
2p
and angular width of a fringe due to double slit is 1 æ 2 p é sin 2q ù ö 1 1
= ç[q ]0 + ÷
q¢ =
l
4 p çè êë 2 úû ÷ = 4 p ´ 2p = 2
0 ø
d
2 1 I
\Number of fringes between first and second diffraction So, using law of Malus, I = I 0 cos q Þ I = I 0 ´ = 0
l 2 2
q d 19.44 21 (b) Polaroids can be used to control the intensity in
minima, n = = a = = = 4.81
q¢ l a 4.05 sunglasses, window-panes, etc. The intensity can be further
d controlled from 50% to zero of the incident intensity by
or n-~5 adjusting the angle between the pass-axes of two polaroids.
\5 interfering bright fringes lie between first and second 22 (b) The figure shown below represents the course of path an
diffraction minima. unpolarised light follows when it is incident from air on
17 (d) Given, l = 6000 Å = 6000 ´ 10-10 m, d = 0.3 mm plane surface of material of refractive
= 0.3 ´ 10-3 m index m.
(Normal) Plane polarised
For minima, d sin q = ml Incident
l unpolarised light reflected light
First minima means ( m = 1) Þ sin q =
d
Angular position of 1st minima,
l 6000 ´ 10-10 Medium
sin q = q = = = 2 ´ 10-3 rad (m)
d 0.3 ´ 10-3
So, angular position of first minima is 2 ´ 10-3 rad. Partially polarised
18 (c) For minima, a sin q = nl refracted light
Þ a sin 30° = (1) l ( n = 1) When the beam of unpolarised light is reflected from a
æ 1ö medium (refractive index = m) and if reflected and refracted
Þ a = 2l çQsin 30° = ÷ …(i) light are perpendicular to each other. Then, the reflected
è 2ø
light is completely plane polarised at a certain angle of
For 1st secondary maxima
incidence. This means, the reflected light has electric vector
3l 3l
Þ a sin q 1 = Þ sin q 1 = …(ii) perpendicular to incidence plane.
2 2a
Physics 67
CHAPTER 11
Dual Nature of
Radiation and Matter
1. Photoelectric emission The phenomenon of or V0 =
h
(n - n 0 )
emission of electrons from the metal surface when light e
radiations of suitable frequency fall on it. Q n=
c
and n 0 =
c
2. Electron volt (eV). It is a unit of energy and l l0
1 eV = 1.6 ´ 10 -19 J æ hc ö é 1 1ù
\ V0 = ç ÷ ê -
and 1 MeV = 1.6 ´ 10 -13 J è e ø ë l l 0 úû
3. Work Function The minimum amount of For photoelectric emission, l < l 0 and n > n 0 .
energy required to just eject an electron from the surface 8. Rest mass of photon is zero.
of metal is known as work function of the metal. hc
9. Energy of a photon, E = hn =
hc l
Also, work function (f 0 ) = hn 0 = ,
l0 If l is in nm and energy of photon is in eV, then
where, h = Planck’s constant and 1242 eV -nm
E=
l (in nm)
n 0 and l 0 are the threshold frequency and
E h
threshold wavelength, respectively. 10. Momentum of photon, p = = .
c l
4. Photoelectric Effect The phenomenon of emission of
11. de-Broglie matter wave equation is given by
photoelectrons from the surface of metal when a light
h h
beam of suitable frequency is incident on it, is called l= =
p mv
photoelectric effect.
where, p = momentum (particle nature),
5. Cut-off potential (V0 ) or stopping potential
m and v = mass and velocity of moving particle
KE max = eV0
2
1 mvmax and l = wavelength associated with the light.
Þ V0 = 12. If a charge q of mass m is accelerated by potential
2 e
1
6. Laws of Photoelectric Emission difference V, then mv 2 = qV ;
2
(i) The photoelectric current is directly proportional to the 2qV
intensity of light till saturation value for a given Þ v=
m
photosensitive material and suitable frequency.
Þ Momentum, p = mv = 2qVm
(ii) No photoelectric emission is possible for the incident
The wavelength associated with moving charge is given
radiations having frequency less than threshold h h
frequency (n < n 0 ). by l= =
p 2qVm
(iii) The cut-off potential is directly proportional to the
frequency of incident radiation for all n > n 0 . If accelerated charge is electron,
(iv) There is no time delay between incidence of light and then l=
h
,
photoelectric emission. i.e. less than 10 -9 s. 2eVm e
7. Einstein’s equation for photoelectric effect where, m e = mass of electron
hn = KEmax + f 0
12.27
or eV0 = h(n - n 0 ) (Q f 0 = hn 0 ) or l= Å, for electron beam.
V
1.227 The maximum intensity of electron beam is obtained

= nm
V corresponding to accelerating potential difference 54 V
13. Davisson-Germer Experiment It is an attempt for and scattering angle 50°.
experimental proof of wave nature of material particle. In Graph obtained between incident beam and intensity of
the experiment, the fine collimated beam of electrons scattered beam at 54 V for Davisson and Germer
from the electron gun is directed towards the Ni crystal experiment is shown in adjacent figure.
and the intensity of scattered electrons is measured using For scattering angle, q
movable electron detector. q + 50°+ q = 180° Þ q = 65°
For interatomic separation,
l
d = 0.914 Å
Bragg’s law for 1st diffraction (maximum intensity),
2d sin q = l Þ l = 1.65 Å
Intensity
But by de-Broglie matter wave equation,

h 12.27
l= =
p A
12.27
= = 1.66 Å
50° θ 54
Scattering angle This verifies theoretical value of l = 1.66 Å with
experimental value.
Practice Questions
1 At sufficiently low pressure of about 0.001mm of Hg (c) electric charge is quantised
column in a discharge tube, a fluorescent glow appears (d) charge on an oil droplet was always an odd multiple
which was attributed due to of e
(a) positive rays
5 Free electrons cannot normally escape out of metal
(b) cathode rays
surface because
(c) g-rays
(a) free electrons are bounded to one or other ionic core
(d) discharge tube gases only
(b) free electrons lie deep inside atom
2 Value of e/m (specific charge) of the cathode ray particles (c) free electrons are held in metal lattice by attraction
(a) depends on potential difference of cathode and force of protons
anode (d) if an electron attempts to come out of metal, the
(b) depends on nature of gas in the discharge tube metal surface acquires a positive charge and pulls the
(c) is independent of material of cathode or gas in electron back to metal
tube 6 Work-function is
(d) depends on nature of metal used for cathode
(a) maximum possible energy acquired by an electron
3 The specific charge of a proton is 9.6 ´ 107 C kg - 1 . (b) energy of electrons in valence shell
The specific charge of an a-particle will be (c) minimum energy required by an electron to move out
(a) . ´ 10 7 C kg-1
96 of metal surface
(b) 192. ´ 10 7 C kg-1 (d) maximum energy which is given to electron to move
(c) 4.8 ´ 10 7 C kg-1 it out of metal surface
(d) . ´ 10 7 C kg-1
24 7 Lenard observed that no free electrons are emitted when
4 R.A Millikan during his oil-drop experiment on the frequency of light is less than a certain minimum
precise measurement of the charge on electron found that frequency. This minimum frequency depends on
(a) elementary charge, e on an oil droplet is (a) potential difference of emitter and collector plates
1.76 ´ 10 -19 C (b) distance between collector and the emitter plate
(b) charge on an oil droplet was always an even multiple (c) size (area) of the emitter plate
of e (d) material of the emitter plate
Physics 69
8 When yellow light is incident over a metal surface, no 14 The work function of platinum is 6.35 eV. The threshold
electrons are emitted while green light can emit electrons. frequency of platinum is
If red light is incident over the surface, then (a) 15.32 ´ 1014 Hz (b) 15.32 ´ 1016 Hz
(a) no electrons are emitted (c) 15.32 ´ 1019 Hz (d) 15.32 ´ 1018 Hz
(b) more electrons are emitted 15 The work function of a photosensitive material is 4.0 eV.
(c) electrons of higher energy are emitted This longest wavelength of light that can cause photon
(c) electrons of lower energy are emitted emission from the substance is (approximately)
9 Photoemission with visible light is possible in (a) 3100 nm (b) 966 nm
(a) rubidium (b) cesium (c) 31 nm (d) 310 nm
(c) zinc (d) Both (a) and (b) 16 Photoelectric effect gave evidence that light in interaction
10 Photoelectric effect involves conversion of with matter,
(a) nuclear energy into electrical energy (a)is converted into particles of same size
(b) atomic energy into electrical energy (b)is converted into particles of same energy
(c) electronic energy into electrical energy (c)is converted into mass following E = mc 2
(d) light energy into electrical energy (d)behaves as if it was made of packets of energy, each
11 Variation of photoelectric current with intensity of light is of energy hn
correctly depicted in 17 All photons present in a light beam of single frequency
have
(a) same frequency but different momentum
Photoelectric
Photoelectric
(b) same momentum but different frequency

current
current
(a) (b) (c) different frequency and momentum

(d) same frequency and momentum
18 When intensity of a light beam is increased,
Intensity of light Intensity of light (a) energy of photons present increases
(b) momentum of photons present increases
(c) wavelength of photons present increases
Photoelectric
Photoelectric
current
(d) number of photons crossing a unit area per second

current
(c) (d)
increases
19 The linear momentum of a 6 MeV photon is
Intensity of light Intensity of light (a) 0.01 eV sm-1
(b) 0.02 eV s m-1
12 The value of stopping potential V0 from the given graph is (c) 0.03 eV s m-1
(d) 0.04 eV s m-1
Photoelectric
20 The de-Broglie wavelength associated with an electron

current
moving with a speed of 5.4 ´ 106 ms -1 is

(a) 0.135 nm (b) 0.125 nm
(c) 0.150 nm (d) 0.145 nm
21 Which of the following figures represent the variation of
0.2 V Collector plate particle’s momentum p and the associated de-Broglie
– 0.54 V O
potential wavelength l?
(a) - 0.54 V (b) 0.54 V p p
(c) 0.2 V (d) - 0.2 V
(a) (b)
13 According to Einstein’s photoelectric equation, K max µ n
because an electron is emitted
(a) after absorption of few photons when absorbed λ λ
energies exceeds certain value p p
(b) after number of photons falling over surface exceeds
of critical volume (c) (d)
(c) only, if it is present on the surface
(d) after absorption of a single photon of sufficient energy
λ λ
22 Wavelength of an electromagnetic wave is electron, then the product Dx and Dp is of the order of h
(a) more than de-Broglie wavelength of its photon such that h
(b) less than de-Broglie wavelength of its photon (a) h /2p (b) 2h / p
(c) there is no relation between wavelength of a radiation (c) 10 -19 (d) 10 -31
and de-Broglie wavelength of its photon 25 In the Davisson and Germer experiment, the velocity of
(d) is equal to de-Broglie wavelength of its photon electrons emitted from the electron gun can be increased
23 The de-Broglie wavelength of a neutron in thermal by
equilibrium with heavy water at a temperature T (Kelvin) (a) increasing the potential difference between the anode
and mass m, is and the filament
h h 2h 2h (b) increasing the filament current
(a) (b) (c) (d)
mkT 3mkT 3mkT mkT (c) decreasing the filament current
24 If Dx is uncertainty in the specification of position and Dp (d) decreasing the potential difference between the anode
and filament
is the uncertainty in specification of momentum of an
ANSWERS
1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (c) 4 (c) 5 (d) 6 (c) 7 (d) 8 (a) 9 (d) 10 (d)
11 (d) 12 (a) 13 (d) 14 (a) 15 (d) 16 (d) 17 (d) 18 (d) 19 (b) 20 (a)
21 (b) 22 (d) 23 (b) 24 (a) 25 (a)
Hints & Solutions

1 (b) At sufficiently low pressure of about 0.001 mm of Hg 8 (a) For photoemission to takes place, incident light should
column in a discharge tube, a discharge took place between the have frequency greater than a minimum frequency called
two electrodes on applying electric field to the gas in the tube. threshold frequency. As it is given that, green light can emit
A fluorescent glow appeared on the glass opposite to cathode. electrons but yellow light cannot, so no electrons will be
The cause of this fluorescence was attributed to the radiations emitted by red light also because the frequency of red light is
which appeared to be coming from cathode. These radiations least amongst the three colours.
were known as to cathode rays. 9 (d) It has been observed that certain metals like zinc,
3 (c) Given, for proton, cadmium, magnesium, etc. responded only to ultraviolet
e light, having short wavelength to cause electron emission
Specific charge = = 9.6 ´ 107 C kg - 1 … (i) from the surface.
m
4
As, a-particle ( 2 He ) have 2 electrons and its mass number is 4. However, some alkali metals such as lithium, sodium,
potassium, cesium and rubidium were even sensitive to
2e 1 e
\ Specific charge of a- particle = = visible light.
4m 2 m 10 (d) Photoelectric effect involves emission of electrons
1 known as photoelectrons from the metal surface when light
= ´ 9.6 ´ 107 [using Eq. (i)]
2 of suitable frequency illuminates this metal’s surface. These
= 4.8 ´ 10 7 C kg - 1 emitted photoelectrons, when ejected from an emitter plate
inside a glass tube by UV-radiations which are then attracted
4 (c) In 1913, R.A Millikan during his oil-drop experiment for towards the collector plate by the electric field.
the precise measurement of charge on an electron found that Thus, this electron flow through the glass tube results in
electric charge is quantised. Charge is always an integral flow of current.
multiple of an elementary charge = 1.602 ´ 10-19 C
This means, this effect involves conversion of light energy
5 (d) If an electron attempts to come out of the metal, the into electrical energy.
metal surface acquires a positive charge and pulls the 12 (a) For a particular frequency of incident radiation, the
electron back to the metal. The free electron is thus held minimum negative (retarding) potentialV0 given to the
inside the metal surface by the attractive forces of the ions. collector plate for which the photoelectric current stops or
7 (d) Hallwachs and Lenard observed that when ultraviolet light becomes zero is called the cut-off or stopping potential.
fall on the emitter plate, no electrons were emitted at all when From given the graph,
the frequency of the incident light was smaller than a certain The value of stopping potential, V0 = - 0.54 V.
minimum value, called the threshold frequency. This 13 (d) According to Einstein’s photoelectric equation, basic
minimum frequency depends on the nature of the material of elementary process involved in photoelectric effect is the
the emitter plate.
Physics 71
absorption of a single light quantum (photon) of sufficient h 6.63 ´ 10-34 J -s

energy by a single electron. de-Broglie wavelength, l = =
p 4.92 ´ 10-24 kg ms -1
Thus, K max depends linearly on the frequency n of incident
radiation (photon). . ´ 10-10 m
= 135
= 0.135 nm
K max µ n
21 (b) The de-Broglie wavelength of a particle is given by
14 (a) Given, work-function of platinum,
l = h / p Þ pl = h
. ´ 10-19 J
f 0 = hn 0 = 6.35 eV = 6.35 ´ 16
This equation is in the form of yx = c, which is the equation
where, n 0 is threshold frequency of platinum and h is of a rectangular hyperbola. Hence, the graph given in
Planck’s constant. option (b) is the correct one.
f 0 6.35 ´ 1.6 ´ 10-19 22 (d) Momentum of a photon of an electromagnetic radiation
Þ n0 = = of energy hn,
h 6.63 ´ 10- 34 hn
= 15.32 ´ 1014 Hz p=
15 (d) The work function of material is given by c
h n
f = hn Therefore, = =l …(i)
p c
hc hc é cù
f= or l = …(i) êQ n = ú Also, by de-Broglie wavelength associated with a radiation
l f ë l û h
formula, l = …(ii)
where, h = Planck’s constant = 6.63 ´ 10-34 J-s, p
c = speed of light = 3 ´ 108 ms -1 Thus, from Eqs. (i) and (ii), it was concluded that de-Broglie
and l = threshold wavelength of light. wavelength of a photon equals the wavelength of an
Given, f = 4 eV = 4 ´ 16. ´ 10-19 J. electromagnetic radiation of which the photon is a quantum
of energy and momentum.
Substituting the given values in Eq. (i), we get
23 (b) de-Broglie wavelength associated with a moving particle
6.63 ´ 10-34 ´ 3 ´ 108 can be given as
l=
. ´ 10-19
4 ´ 16 h h
l= =
p 2m(( KE )
= 3108
. ´ 10-7 m -~ 310 nm
At thermal equilibrium, temperature of neutron and heavy
18 (d) All photons of light of a particular frequency n or
water will be same.
æ hc ö
wavelength l, have the same energy E ç = hn = ÷ and This common temperature is given as T.
è lø 3
æ h n h ö As we know, kinetic energy of the neutron KE = kT
momentum ç = = ÷, whatever the intensity of radiation 2
è c lø \ de-Broglie wavelength of the neutron,
may be. So, by increasing the intensity of light of given h h h h
l= = = =
wavelength, there is only an increase in the number of p 2m( KE ) 3 3mkT
photons per second crossing a given area, with each photon 2m ´ kT
2
having the same energy and momentum.
24 (a) There is always some uncertainty Dx in the specification
19 (b) Given, energy of a photon, E = 6 MeV = 6 ´ 106 eV
of position and some uncertainty Dp in the specification of
E momentum. The product of Dx and Dp is of the order of h
Linear momentum of the photon, p =
c (with h = h/ 2p), i.e. Dx × D p » h
6 ´ 106 eV 25 (a) The experimental arrangement used by Davisson and
Þ p= = 2 ´ 10- 2 eVs m- 1
3 ´ 108 ms - 1 Germer consists of an electron gun which comprises of a
tungsten filament F, coated with barium oxide and heated by
= 0.02 eVsm- 1
a low voltage power supply. Electrons emitted by the
20 (a) For an electron, filament are accelerated to a desired velocity by applying
. ´ 10-31 kg and speed, v = 5.4 ´ 10-6 ms -1
Mass, m = 911 suitable potential/voltage from a high voltage power supply.
. ´ 10-31 ´ 5.4 ´ 106
Momentum, p = mv = 911 Thus, the velocity of the electron gun can be increased by
increasing the potential difference between the anode and
= 4.92 ´ 10-24 kg ms -1 the filament.
CHAPTER 12
Atoms
1. Rutherford’s Nuclear Model of Atom Rhc 13.6
(viii) Total energy = En = - = - 2 eV
1 Ze 2 cot q/ 2 n 2
n
(i) Impact parameter (b) =
4pe 0 K (ix) En = Kinetic energy of electron in nth orbit
where, K is kinetic energy of a-particle and (x) Potential energy = - 2 (Kinetic energy)
q = scattering angle. 1 é 1 1ù
(xi) Wave number = = R ê 2 - 2 ú
1 4Ze 2 l
(ii) Distance of closest approach, r0 = ë n1 n2 û
4pe 0 mv 2 13.6
1 2 Ze 2 (xii) Ionisation potential = - 2 V
(iii) KE of a-particle, K = n
4pe 0 r0
4. The atomic hydrogen emits a line spectrum consisting of
nh
2. Bohr’s quantum condition, mvr = ; n = 1, 2, 3 ¼ various series. The frequency of any line in a series can
2p be expressed as a difference of two terms
3. Bohr’s theory of hydrogen atom
(i) Lyman series,
ke 2
mv 2
nh æ1 1ö
(i) = (ii) L = mvr = n = Rc ç 2 - 2 ÷ ; n = 2, 3, 4 ...
r2 r 2p è1 n ø
(iii) hn = E2 - E1, where E2 and E1 are energies of initial and (ii) Balmer series,
æ 1 1ö
final states E2 > E1 n = Rc ç 2 - 2 ÷ ; n = 3, 4, 5 ...
è2 n ø
(iv) Radius of orbit of electron in nth orbit,
(iii) Paschen series,
n2h2 æ 1 1ö
rn = n = Rc ç 2 - 2 ÷ ; n = 4, 5, 6 ...
4p mZke 2
2
è3 n ø
2 pke 2 æc ö (iv) Brackett series,
(v) Velocity of electron in nth orbit, vn = =aç ÷
nh è nø æ 1 1ö
n = Rc ç 2 - 2 ÷ ; n = 5, 6, 7 ...
è4 n ø
ke 2
(vi) Kinetic energy = (v) Pfund series,
2r
æ 1 1ö
ke 2 n = Rc ç 2 - 2 ÷ ; n = 6, 7, 8 ...
(vii) Potential energy = - è5 n ø
r
Practice Questions
1 In Geiger-Marsden experiment, detection of scattered (c) using a galvanometer detector
a-particles at a particular angle is done by (d) using a Geiger-counter
(a) counting flashes produced by a-particles on a ZnS
2 A beam of fast moving a-particles was directed towards a
coated screen
thin gold foil. The parts A ¢ , B ¢ and C¢ of the transmitted
(b) counting spots produced on a photographic and reflected beams corresponding to incident parts A, B
film and C of the beam are as shown in the figure below.
Physics 73
6 If the orbital radius of the electron in a hydrogen atom is

. ´ 10 -11 m. Compute the kinetic energy of the electron
47
in hydrogen atom.
B¢
(a) 15.3 eV (b) - 15.3 eV (c) 13.6 eV (d) -13.6 eV
B A¢
C 7 The orbital radius of an electron in H-atom is increased by
factor of 2, then the total energy of the electron will be
A C¢
(a) decreased by 4 (b) increased by 2
(c) decreased by 2 (d) remain same
Then, the number of a-particles in part 8 It is found experimentally that 13.6 eV energy is required
(a) B ¢ will be minimum and C ¢ is maximum to separate a hydrogen atom into a proton and an electron.
(b) A¢ will be minimum and B ¢ is maximum Then, the velocity of the electron in a hydrogen atom is
(c) C ¢ will be minimum and A¢ is maximum (a) 1015 m/s . ´ 10 6 m/s
(b) 22
(d) A¢ will be maximum and B ¢ will be minimum (c) 4.2 ´ 10 8 m/s (d) 3 ´ 10 8 m/s
3 Atoms consists of a positively charged nucleus is a 9 An emission line spectrum is observed when
consequence from the following observation of (a) a gas is excited by heating or by passing a electric
Geiger-Marsden experiment that discharge through it
(a) most of a-particles do not pass straight through the (b) a gas is excited by applying pressure
gold foil (c) a gas under low pressure condition is excited by
(b) very few a-particles scattered through an angle more heating or by passing a electric discharge through it
than 90° (d) a gas under high pressure condition is excited by
(c) very large number of a-particles are deflected by large heating or by passing a electric discharge through it
angles 10 When white light is passed through an unexcited gas, then
(d) None of the above transmitted light consists of
4 Graph of total number of a-particles scattered at different (a) few bright lines in dark background
angles is (b) few dark lines in bright background
(c) alternate dark and bright lines
α-particles
α-particles
Number of
Number of
scattered
scattered
(d) alternate dark and bright bands

(a) (b) 11 Which of the following correctly shows the Balmer series
in the emission spectrum of hydrogen?
20° 160° θ 20° 160° θ
Scattering angle Scattering angle (a)
α-particles
α-particles
Number of
Number of
H∞ Hδ Hγ Hβ Hα
scattered
scattered
(c) (d)
(b)
20° 160° θ 20° 160° θ H∞ Hδ Hγ Hβ Hα

Scattering angle Scattering angle
(c)
5 Trajectory of an a-particle is shown in the figure below,
then impact parameter is H∞ Hδ Hγ Hβ Hα
(d)
d
c
α-particle H∞ Hδ H γ Hβ Hα
a
b 12 If the series limit frequency of the Lyman series is vL , then
the series limit frequency of the Pfund series is
Central line of nucleus Gold nucleus
(a) 25 vL (b) 16 vL
(a) a (b) b v v
(c) L (d) L
(c) c (d) d 16 25
13 If wavelength of the first line of the Balmer series of 20 The total energy of an electron in an atom in an orbit is
hydrogen is 6561Å, the wavelength of the second line of -3.4 eV. Its kinetic and potential energies are, respectively
the series should be (a) -34
. eV, -6.8 eV
(a) 13122Å (b) 3280Å (c) 4860Å (d) 2187Å (b) 3.4 eV, -6.8 eV
14 The ratio of wavelengths of the last line of Balmer series (c) 3.4 eV, 3.4 eV
and the last line of Lyman series is (d) - 34
. eV, -34. eV
(a) 2 (b) 1 (c) 4 (d) 0.5 21 An atom makes a transition from higher energy state ni to
15 Rutherford’s atomic model could account for the lower energy state, nf , then the difference of energy of
I. concept of stationary orbits. a photon is (where, n stands for principal quantum
II. the positively charged central core of an atom. number)
III. origin of spectra. (a) h = - E n i - E n f (b) hn if = E n i + E n f
IV. stability of atoms. (c) hn if = E n f - E n i (d) hn if = E n i - E n f
Choose the correct option from the codes given below. 22 A 12.75 eV electron beam is used to bombard gaseous
(a) Only I (b) Only II hydrogen at room temperature, then wavelengths emitted
(c) I, III and IV (d) I, II, III and IV are in
16 If radius of first Bohr orbit is r,then the radius of second (a) either Paschen, Lyman or Balmer series
Bohr’s orbit will be (b) either Brackett, Pfund or Lyman series
(c) either Paschen, Brackett or Balmer series
(a) 2r (b) 8 r (c) 4r (d) 2 2r
(d) either Lyman, Balmer or Brackett series
17 The ratio of speed of an electron in ground state in Bohr’s
first orbit of hydrogen atom to the velocity of light in air is 23 An electron of a hydrogen like atom is in excited state. If
total energy of the electron is - 4.6 eV, then de-Broglie
e2 2ep e3 2 pe 2 k
(a) (b) (c) (d) wavelength of the electron is
2 phc hc 2 phck hc
(a) 6.27 nm (b) 2.48 mm
18 The speed of an electron in ground state energy level is (c) 0.57 nm (d) 8 nm
2.6 ´ 10 6 ms-1, then its speed in third excited state will be 24 The Bohr model for the spectra of a H-atom
(a) 5.6 ´ 10 6 ms-1 (b) 6.5 ´10 5 ms-1 (a) will not be applicable to hydrogen in the molecular
(c) 5.5 ´ 10 5 ms-1 (d) 4.3 ´ 10 6 ms-1 form
19 The ratio of kinetic energy to the total energy of an (b) is applicable for multi-electron atom
electron in a Bohr orbit of the hydrogen atom, is (c) explain continuous as well as discrete spectral lines
(a) 2 : - 1 (b) 1 : - 1 (c) 1 : 1 (d) 1 : - 2 (d) Both (a) and (b)
ANSWERS
1 (a) 2 (d) 3 (b) 4 (d) 5 (b) 6 (a) 7 (c) 8 (b) 9 (c) 10 (b)
11 (a) 12 (d) 13 (c) 14 (c) 15 (b) 16 (c) 17 (d) 18 (b) 19 (b) 20 (b)
21 (d) 22 (a) 23 (c) 24 (a)
Hints & Solutions

1 (a) In Geiger-Marsden experiment, the scattered a-particles (ii) only 0.14% are scatter by more than 1°, which can
were observed through a rotatable detector consisting of zinc corresponds to CC ¢ part in the figure.
sulphide (ZnS) coated screen and a microscope. These (iii) 1 out of 8000 is deflect by more than 90°, which can
a-particles on striking the screen produce brief light flashes or corresponds to BB¢ part in the figure.
scintillations. Thus, deflection of scattered a-particles at a Thus, in the given figure, the number of a-particles in A¢
particular angle is done by counting these flashes using will be maximum and B¢ will be minimum.
microscope. 3 (b) In Geiger-Marsden experiment, most of the a-particles
2 (d) In a-scattering experiment, pass straight through the gold foil, a few scattered through
(i) most of the a-particles pass through the foil, which can small angles and a very few about (1 in 8000) were scattered
corresponds to AA¢ part in the figure. through an angle more than 90° (or large angles).
Physics 75
These observations gave the conclusion that the atom 10 (b) When white light is passed through an unexcited state gas
consists of a positively charged nucleus at the centre, which and the transmitted light is analysed using a spectrometer, then
provide repulsive force to a-particles. it is found that transmitted light consists of few dark lines in
5 (b) The impact parameter is the perpendicular distance of bright background. These dark lines correspond precisely to
the initial velocity vector of the a-particle from the central those wavelengths which were found in the emission line
line of the nucleus of atom, when the a-particle is far away spectrum of the gas. This is called the absorption spectrum of
from the nucleus. the material of the gas.
Thus, in given figure impact parameter is represented by 11 (a) In Balmer series, the line with longest wavelength. is
distance b. called Ha -line, the next line is called Hb ; the third line is
6 (a) Kinetic energy of the electron in hydrogen atom, called Hg and so on.
e2 As the wavelength decreases, the lines appear closer
KE = together and weaker in intensity. Thus, the emission
8pe 0 r spectrum of hydrogen is correctly depicted in option (a).
1 12 (d) Series limit occurs in the transition n2 = ¥ to n1 = 1 in
where, e = 16 . ´ 10-19 C, = 9 ´ 109 N-m 2 C -2
4 pe 0 Lyman series and n2 = ¥ to n1 = 5 in pfund series. For
and r = 4.7 ´ 10-11 m. Lyman series,
( 9 ´ 109 Nm2 C-2 ) (1.6 ´ 10-19 C )2 n 2 =∞
=
( 2 ) ( 4.7 ´ 10-11 m ) hνL = Eg= E0 12 1
-18 1 ∞
2.45 ´ 10
= 2.45 ´ 10-18 J = eV = 15.3 eV = 13.6 eV
. ´ 10-19
16 n1=1
7 (c) Total energy of the electron in H-atom is given as hn L = 13.6 …(i)
- e2 1 In pfund series
E= Þ Eµ n 2= ∞
8pe 0 r r
13.6
\If r is increased by 2, then E is decreased by 2. hνp = E0 12 1
= 2
5 ∞ 5
8 (b) Total energy of the electron in hydrogen atom is -13.6
eV. n2 = 5
Þ . ´ 10-19 J = - 2.2 ´ 10-18 J
E = - 13.6 ´ 16 hn p =
13.6
…(ii)
As we know, total energy E of the electron in a hydrogen 52
atom is From Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get
- e2 - e2 25hn p = hn L
E= Þ r=
8pe o r 8pe 0 E n
\ np = L
-19 1 25
where, e = 16
. ´ 10 C, = 9 ´ 109 N-m 2 C -2
4 pe 0 13 (c) Wavelength of spectral line in Balmer series is given by
1 æ 1 1ö
. ´ 10- 19 )2
( 9 ´ 109 ) ´ (16 = R ç 2 - 2÷
Þ r= - = 5.3 ´ 10-11 m l è2 n ø
2 ´ ( -2.2 ´ 10-18 )
For first line of Balmer series, n = 3
As, electron revolves around the nucleus, by centripetal
force, so the electrostatic force required to separate electron 1 æ 1 1 ö 5R
Þ = R ç 2 - 2÷ = …(i)
from atom should be equal to this centripetal force. l1 è2 3 ø 36
i.e. Fc = Fe For second line, n = 4
mv2 1 e2 e 1 æ 1 1 ö 3R
Þ = Þ v= Þ = R ç 2 - 2÷ = …(ii)
r 4 pe 0 r2 4 pe 0 mr l2 è2 4 ø 16
where, e 0 = 8.85 ´ 10-12 C 2 /N-m 2 , m = 91
. ´ 10-31 kg Dividing Eq. (i) by Eq. (ii), we get
and r = 5.3 ´ 10-11 m. l 2 20 20
. ´ 10-19
16
\ = Þ l2 = ´ l1
Þv = l1 27 27
. ´ 8.85 ´ 10-12 ´ 91
4 ´ 314 . ´ 10-31 ´ 5.3 ´ 10-11 20
Þ l2 = ´ 6561 = 4860 Å
= 2.2 ´ 106 m/s 27
9 (c) When an atomic gas or vapour under low pressure is excited 14 (c) Wavelength of spectral lines are given by
usually by heating or passing an electric current through it, the 1 æ 1 1ö
emitted radiation has a spectrum which contains certain = Rç 2 - 2 ÷
l è n1 n2 ø
specific wavelengths only. A spectrum of this kind is termed as
emission line spectrum. For last line of Balmer series, n1 = 2 and n2 = ¥
Þ
1 æ 1 1 ö R
= R ç 2 - 2÷ = … (i) n 2 h 2 4 pe 0 n 2 h 2 e0
where, rn = =
lB è2 ¥ ø 4 m4 p e 2 2
pme2
Similarly, for last line of Lyman series, e2 pme2 -me4
Þ TEn = - ´ 2 2 = 2 2 2 …(ii)
n1 = 1 and n2 = ¥ 8pe 0 n h e 0 8n e 0 h
1 æ1 1 ö From Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get
Þ = R ç 2 - 2÷ = R … (ii)
lL è1 ¥ ø me4 -8e 20 n 2 h 2
KEn : TEn = 2 2 2 : = 1 :- 1
From Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get 8e 0 n h me4
1
The ratio of kinetic energy tothe total energy in a Bohr orbit
lB R/4 lL 1 l of the hydrogen atom is 1 : - 1.
= Þ = Þ B =4
1 R lB 4 lL 20 (b) According to Bohr’s model, the kinetic energy of
lL electron is given by
me4
15 (b) The model of atom proposed by Rutherford, assumes KE = 2 2 2 … (i)
that the atom consisting of a central nucleus, i.e. positively 8e 0 n h
charged central core and revolving electron is stable much where, h = Planck’s constant
like sun planet system. and n = principal quantum number.
But it was not able to explain the concept of stationary orbit, Similarly, potential energy is given by
origin of spectra or stability of atoms.
me4
So, option (b) is correct. PE = - 2 2 2 … (ii)
4e 0 n h
2
16 (c) According to Bohr atomic radius, rn µ n
me4
where, n is principal quantum number. \Total energy, E = PE + KE = -
8e 20 n 2 h 2
rn n 2
\ = Þ rn = n 2 r [Q r1 = r] [from Eqs. (i) and (ii)]
r1 12 Þ KE = - E and PE = 2E
So, for n = 2 , r2 = 22 r = 4 r Given, E = - 3.4 eV
\ KE = - ( - 3.4 ) = 3.4 eV
2pZe2 k
17 (d) Speed of an electron in nth orbit, vn = and PE = 2 ( - 3.4 ) = - 6.8 eV
nh
22 (a) When electron beam of 12.75 eV is incident over H-gas,
For hydrogen atom in ground state, (n = 1, Z = 1)
Energy of H-atoms will be = - 13.6 + 12.75 = - 0.85 eV
2pe2 k v 2pe2 k 13.6
v= Þ = This corresponds to n = = 4 excited state.
h c hc 0.85
18 (b) According to Bohr’s model, velocity of electron, Various transitions, for n = 4 are shown below
2pke2 Z 1 n=4
v= or v µ F
nh n n=3
vA nB n D E
\ = \ vB = v A ´ A n=2
vB nA nB
Given, n A = 1, nB = 4 and v A = 2.6 ´ 106 ms -1 A B C
1
vB = 2.6 ´ 106 ´ = 6.5 ´ 105 ms -1 n=1
4 Clearly, emitted radiation lies in Lyman series (A , B and C).
19 (b) The velocity of an electron in nth orbit of Bohr’s atom is Few emissions are in Balmer series (D and E).
e2 ´ 2p e2 One of them (n = 4 to n = 3 ) lies in Paschen series ( F ).
vn = =
4 pe 0 nh 2e 0 nh 23 (c) Given, E = - 4.6 eV
2 K = - E = - ( - 4.6 ) = 4.6 eV
1 1 æ e2 ö
\Kinetic energy, KEn = mvn2 = m ç ÷ de-Broglie wavelength,
2 2 è 2e 0 nh ø
h 6.6 ´ 10-34
me4 l= =
= …(i) 2mK 2 ´ 91. ´ 10-31 ´ 4.6 ´ 16
. ´ 10-19
8e 20 n 2 h 2
= 0.57 ´ 10-9 m = 0.57 nm
Total energy of electron in hydrogen atom is
24 (a) The Bohr model for the spectra of a H-atom will not be
e2 applicable to hydrogen in the molecular form.
TEn = -
8pe 0 rn Also, it will not be applicable for multi-electron atom.
Physics 77
CHAPTER 13
Nuclei
A
1. Radioactivity Many unstable nuclei can decay Z X ¾® AZ X + g
spontaneously to a nucleus of lower mass number but 8. SI unit of radioactivity is Becquerel (Bq), where.
different combinations of nucleons. This process of 1 Bq = 1 disintegration/second
spontaneous emission of radiations from radioactive Other units
substance is called radioactivity.
(i) Curie The activity of a radioactive sample is said to be
2. Radioactivity Decay Law one curie.
dN dN 1 curie (1Ci) = 37. ´ 1010 decays/second
(i) µ N, = - lN
dt dt = 3.7 ´ 10 10Bq
where, l = decay constant and
(ii) Rutherford The activity of a radioactive sample is said
N = number of undisintegrated nucleus to be one Rutherford.
present in the sample at any instant t.
- lt 1 Rd = 10 6 decays/second
(ii) N = N0 e , where N0 = original amount
n 9. Nuclear Forces Short ranged (d » 2 to 3 fm) strong
æ 1ö
(iii) N = N0 ç ÷ attractive forces which holds nucleons together in against
è2ø
where, n = number of half-lives or of Coulombian repulsive forces between positively
charged particle.
Total time (t )
n= 10. Mass Defect Difference in masses of entities on left and
Half -life period
right side of nuclear reaction
ln 2 loge 2 0.693 Dm = Zmp + ( A - Z ) mn - M
3. Half-life, T1/ 2 = = =
l l l where, Z = atomic number,
1
4. Mean life, t= A = mass number,
l
mp = mass of one proton,
or t = 1.44T1/ 2 mn = mass of one neutron
Þ T1/ 2 = 0.693 t
and M = mass of nucleus.
5. Time required to decay from N0 to N
11. Binding Energy Using Einstein’s mass energy relation,
2 .303 æN ö D E = ( D m) × c 2
t =
log10 ç 0 ÷
l è Nø Þ DE = [Zmp + ( A - Z ) mn - M ] c 2
2.303 æN ö
6. Decay constant, l = log10 ç 0 ÷ 1 amu @ 9315
t è Nø Q . MeV
7. Radioactive displacement laws 12. Binding Energy per Nucleon

(i) a-decay BE
A A -4 4
BE/Nucleon =
Z X ¾® Z - 2Y + 2He Mass number
(ii) b-decay In the mass number range A = 30 to A = 170, BE/nucleon
A A 0
Z X ¾® Z + 1Y + -1 e + is nearly constant and its value is around 8 MeV.
(conversion of proton to neutron) Dm
13. Packing Fraction =
(iii) b + -decay A
z X ¾® A
z - 1Y + 0
+ 1e +n A
(conversion of proton to neutron) where, Dm = mass defect,
(iv) g-decay A = mass number.
14. Nuclear Size (1fm = 10 - 15 m)

1/ 3
R = R0 A So, r does not depend on A (mass number).
where, R0 = 1.2 fm 16. Nuclear fission is the phenomenon of splitting of a heavy
and A = mass number. nucleus (usually A > 230) into two or more lighter nuclei.
3m e.g. 235 1 141 92 1
92 U + 0 n ¾® 56 Ba + 36Kr + 3 0 n + Q
15. Nuclear Density, r =
4pR03 17. The process of combining two lighter nuclei to form one
where, m = average mass of one nucleon heavy nucleus, is called nuclear fusion.
Practice Questions
1 Isotopes of an atom 9 If a nucleon can have a maximum of p-neighbours within
(a) have different electronic structure the range of nuclear force, then on increasing A by adding
(b) does not occupy same place in periodic table nucleons, the binding energy per nucleon
(c) contains same number of protons (a) increases abruptly
(d) have same number of neutrons (b) decreases gradually
2 Chlorine has two isotopes having masses 34.98 u and (c) remains constant
36.98 u with relative abundance of 75.4% and 24.6 %, (d) first increases sharply and then decreases gradually
respectively. The average atomic mass of chlorine is 10 A nuclear phenomenon in which an unstable nucleus
(a) 34.98 u (b) 36.98 u undergoes a decay is called
(c) 35.47 u (d) 35 u (a) Rutherford’s scattering
3 Masses of the nuclei of hydrogen, deuterium and tritium (b) radioactive decay
are in ratio (c) Geiger-Marsden scattering
(a) 1 : 2 : 3 (b) 1 : 1 : 1 (d) Nuclear energy
(c) 1 : 1 : 2 (d) 1 : 2 : 4 11 Radioactive material A has decay constant 8l and material
4 The ratio of the nuclear radii of the gold isotope 197
and B has decay constant l. Initially, they have same number
79 Au
107 of nuclei. After what time, the ratio of number of nuclei of
silver isotope 47 Ag, is 1
material B to that A will be ?
(a) 1.23 (b) 0.216 e
(c) 2.13 (d) 3.46 1 1 1 1
(a) (b) (c) (d)
27 l 7l 8l 9l
5 If the nuclear radius of Al is 3.6 fm, the approximate
nuclear radius of 64
Cu in fm is 12 The activity of a radioactive sample falls from 700s -1 to
(a) 2.4 (b) 1.2 500s -1 in 30 min. Its half-life is close to
(c) 4.8 (d) 3.6 (a) 62 min (b) 66 min (c) 72 min (d) 52 min
6 Energy equivalent of 2 g of a substance is 13 The counting rate observed from a radioactive source at
(a) 18 ´ 1013 mJ (b) 18 ´ 1013 J t = 0 s, was 1600 count/s and at t = 8 s, it was 100 count/s.
The counting rate observed at t = 6 s was
(c) 9 ´ 1013 mJ (d) 9 ´ 1013 J
(a) 400 (b) 300 (c) 200 (d) 150
7 How much mass has to be converted into energy
to produce electric power of 200 MW for one 14 For a radioactive material, half-life is 10 min. If initially,
hour? there are 600 number of nuclei, the time taken (in min) for
-6 -6 the disintegration of 450 nuclei is
(a) 2 ´ 10 kg (b) 8 ´ 10 kg
(a) 30 (b) 10 (c) 20 (d) 15
(c) 1 ´ 10 - 6 kg (d) 3 ´ 10 - 6 kg
15 A radioactive nucleus A with a half-life T, decays into a
8 Mass defect of helium (2 He4) is [use, mass of proton,
nucleus B. At t = 0, there is no nucleus B. After sometime t ,
m p = 1.0072676 u, mass of neutrons, mn = 1.008665 u and the ratio of the number of B to that of A is 0.3. Then, t is
mass of 2 He4 = 4001506
. u] given by
(a) 0.016767 u log 13
.
(a) t = T (b) t = T log 13 .
(b) 1.00726 u loge 2
(c) 2.00686 u T T loge 2
(c) t = (d) t =
(d) 0.0303592 u log 13
. 2 log 13
.
Physics 79
16 When a nucleus is in an excited state, 19 Pick out the unmatched pair for a nuclear reactor.
(a) it can stay in excited state (a) Moderator ® Heavy water
(b) it gives excess energy to surrounding electrons and (b) Nuclear fuel ®92 U235
comes to a lower energy state (c) Control rods ® Carbon
(c) it can make a transition to a lower energy state by (d) At critical condition, k ® 1
emission of a photon
(d) it can emit a proton or neutron with excess kinetic 20 Nuclear fusion is common to the pair
energy and so achieves a lower energy state I. uranium based reactor
II. hydrogen bomb
17 If the energy released in a nuclear reaction is E N and III. energy production in sun
energy released from a chemical source is EC , then IV. atom bomb
(a) E ~-E (b) E > E (a) Both I and II (b) Both II and III
N C N C
(c) Both III and IV (d) Both II and IV
(c) EN < EC (d) EN = EC
21 In the fusion reaction,
18 If a nucleus with mass number A = 240 with E bn = 7.6 MeV 2
1H + 21H ¾® 32 He + 10n
breaks into two fragments of A = 120 and E bn = 8.5 MeV,
then released energy is around the masses of deuteron, helium and neutron expressed in
amu are 2.015, 3.017 and 1.009, respectively. If 1 kg of
(a) 216 MeV
deuterium undergoes complete fusion, find the amount of
(b) 200 MeV
total energy released. (1 amu = 931.5 MeV.)
(c) 100 MeV
(a) 9.0 ´ 1013 J (b) 20 ´ 10 5 J
(d) Cannot be estimated from given data
(c) 5 ´ 1016 J (d) 8 ´ 10 5 J
ANSWERS
1 (c) 2 (c) 3 (a) 4 (a) 5 (c) 6 (b) 7 (b) 8 (d) 9 (c) 10 (b)
11 (b) 12 (a) 13 (c) 14 (c) 15 (a) 16 (c) 17 (b) 18 (a) 19 (c) 20 (b)
21 (a)
Hints & Solutions

2 (c) The average atomic mass of a chlorine atom is obtained 5 (c) Nuclear radius, R µ A1 / 3 , where A is mass number.
by the weighted average of the masses of the two isotopes, 27
For Al,
which is
Average atomic mass R = R0 A1 / 3 = R0 ( 27 )1 / 3 = 3R0
75.4 ´ 34.98 + 24.6 ´ 36.98 3.6
= R0 = = 1.2 fm [Q R = 3.6 fm, for Al]
100 3
= 35.47u For 64 Cu , R = R0 A1 / 3 = 12. ( 64 )1 / 3 = 4.8 fm
3 (a) Since, the nuclei of deuterium (1 H2 ) and tritium 1 H3 are 6 (b) According to mass-energy equivalence relation,
isotopes of hydrogen 1 H1 , they must contain only one proton Energy, E = mc2
each. By substituting,
But the masses of the nuclei of hydrogen, deuterium and m = 2g = 2 ´ 10-3 kg, c = 3 ´ 108 ms -1
tritium are in the ratio of 1 : 2 : 3, because of presence of We have, E = 2 ´ 10-3 ´ ( 3 ´ 108 )2
neutral matter in deuterium and tritium nuclei.
4 (a) Given, atomic mass of gold isotopes, A1 = 197 Þ E = 2 ´ 10-3 ´ 9 ´ 1016 = 18 ´ 1013 J
and atomic mass of silver isotope, A2 = 107 7 (b) We have, P = 200 MW = 200 ´ 106 W = 2 ´ 108 W ,
As, radius of nucleus, R = R0 A1 / 3 t = 1h = 3600 s
R1 æ A1 ö
1/ 3
æ 197 ö
1/ 3 As, energy, E = P ´ t = 2 ´ 108 ´ 3600
\ =ç ÷ =ç ÷
R2 è A2 ø è 107 ø Also, E = mc2
~ 123
= 1.225 - . E 2 ´ 108 ´ 3600
Þ m= 2 =
The ratio of nuclear radii of the gold isotope 197
97 Au and
c ( 3 ´ 108 )2
silver isotope istope 107
47 Ag is 1.23. = 8 ´ 10-6 kg
8 (d) Mass defect, Dm t 1

= Þ T1 / 2 = 2 ´ t = 60 min
= Mass of nucleons - Mass of nucleus T1 / 2 2
= [ Zmp + ( A - Z ) mn ] - M n which is close to 62 min.
Here, mass number, A = 4 13 (c) Given, N 0 = 1600 count/s
Atomic number, Z = 2 N = 100 count/s, at t = 8s
Number of protons = 2 Number of nuclei left undecayed
Number of neutrons = A - Z = 4 - 2 = 2 n
æ 1ö
mp = 10072676
. u after n half-lives, N = N 0 ç ÷
è 2ø
mn = 1008665
. u and M n = 4.001506 u
n
Mass of nucleon in 2 He4 = æ 1ö
Þ 100 = 1600ç ÷
Mass of 2 protons + Mass of 2 neutrons è 2ø
So, mass of nucleons = 2 ´ 10072676
. + 2 ´ 1008665
. æ 1ö 1
n
\ Dm = 2 ´ 10072676
. + 2 ´ 1008665
. - 4.001506 Þ ç ÷ =
è 2ø 16
= 0.0303592 u n 4
11 (b) Let initial number of nuclei in A and B is N 0 . æ 1ö æ 1ö
Þ ç ÷ =ç ÷
Number of nuclei of A after time t is è 2ø è 2ø
NA = N 0 e-8lt ...(i) n = 4 half-lives
Similarly, number of nuclei of B after time t is Four half-lives equivalent to 8s, so 6 s is equals to three
half-lives.
NB = N 0 e - l t ...(ii)
Counting rate observed after 6 s will be,
It is given that 3
æ 1ö 1600
NB 1 = N0ç ÷ = = 200
= …(iii) è 2ø 8
NA e
14 (c) After n half-life, the number of nuclei left undecayed is
Now, from Eqs. (i), (ii) and (iii), we get n
N A e-8lt æ 1ö
= - lt = e given as N = N0ç ÷
è 2ø
NB e
t
Rearranging this, we get where, n =
T1 / 2
⇒ e1 = e-7 lt
Given, initially number of nuclei, N 0 = 600
Þ 7lt = - 1
Number of disintegrated or decayed nuclei, N ¢ = 450
As, time cannot be negative, so \ Number of nuclei left undecayed,
1 N = N0 - N ¢
Time, t =
7l = 600 - 450 = 150
12 (a) Activity of a sample after time t is related to initial Half-life, T1 / 2 = 10 min
activity as t / T1 / 2
N æ 1ö
æ 1ö
n As, =ç ÷
A = A0 ç ÷ … (i) N 0 è 2ø
è 2ø
Substituting the given values, we get
where, A = present activity t / 10 t / 10
150 æ 1ö 1 æ 1ö
and A0 = initial activity. = ç ÷ or =ç ÷
600 è 2ø 4 è 2ø
Also, n = t / T1 / 2 … (ii)
2 t / 10
where, t = time interval æ 1ö æ 1ö t
and T1 / 2 = half-life time.
or ç ÷ =ç ÷ or =2
è 2ø è 2ø 10
Here, A = 500 s-1 , A0 = 700 s-1 , Þ t = 20 min
t = 30 min 15 (a) Decay scheme is ,
So, from Eq. (i), we get N atoms
n of B
æ 1ö
500 = 700 ç ÷
è 2ø
A A, B
Þ 2n = 14. » 2 Let N atoms decays
into B in time t
1 No No – N
So, n= at t=0 atoms of A
2
NB 3 NB 30
Now, from Eq. (ii), we get Given, = 0.3 = Þ =
NA 10 N A 100
Physics 81
So, N 0 = 100 + 30 = 130 atoms present in the reactor to absorb neutrons and are usually
By using N = N 0 e - lt made up of cadmium or boron.
20 (b) Energy produced in sun and hydrogen bomb is due to
We have, 100 = 130 e- lt nuclear fusion.
1 However, energy released in uranium based nuclear reactor
Þ = e - lt and atom bomb is due to nuclear fission.
13
.
21 (a) Given, fusion reaction is,
Þ . = lt
log 13 2 2 3 1
log e 2 1 H + 1 H ¾® 2 He + 0 n
If T is half-life, then l = Mass of deuteron (12 H ) = 2.015 amu
T
log e 2 Mass of helium ( 32 He ) = 3.017 amu
Þ . =
log 13 ×t
T and mass of neutron (10 n ) = 1009
. amu
T × log (13. ) Mass defect, Dm = Mass of 2(12 H ) - Mass of ( 32 He + 10 n )
\ t=
log e 2 Dm = 2( 2.015 ) - ( 3.017 + 1009
. )
17 (b) In chemical reaction, the energy released is in the range = 0.004 amu
of eV. However, in nuclear reaction the energy release is of \ Energy released = ( 0.004 ´ 9315 . ) MeV
the order of MeV. Thus, for the same quantity of matter, = 3.726 MeV
nuclear source produce a million times more energy than a 3.726
chemical source. Energy released per deuteron = = 1863
. MeV
2
\ E N > EC
6.02 ´ 1026
18 (a) Given, Number of deuterons in 1 kg =
2
E bn for A = 240 nucleus is about 7.6 MeV.
E bn for the two A = 120 fragment nuclei is about 8.5 MeV. = 3.01 ´ 1026
So, gain in binding energy of nucleon is about \Energy released per kg of deuterium fusion
(8.5-7.6 =) 0.9 MeV. = ( 3.01 ´ 1026 ´ 1863
. )
Hence, the total gain in binding energy is = 5.6 ´ 1026 MeV
240 ´ 0.9 = 216 MeV.
19 (c) The options (a), (b) and (d) are correctly matched pair, . ´ 10-19 J
= 5.6 ´ 1026 ´ 106 ´ 16
13
while option (c) is unmatched pair. As control rods are » 9.0 ´ 10 J
CHAPTER 14
Semiconductor and
Electronic Devices
1. Intrinsic Semiconductor Pure semiconductors in which characteristic is used as principle in junction diode as half
ne = nh = ni and full wave rectifier.
where, ne and nh are number densities of electrons and 11. The DC resistance of a junction diode
holes, respectively and ni is called intrinsic carrier V
r DC =
concentration. I
2. Extrinsic Semiconductor Pure semiconductor when 12. The dynamic resistance of junction diode
DV
doped with the impurity, is known as extrinsic rAC =
DI
semiconductor. It is of the two types: p-type and n-type.
13. Rectification The process of converting AC into DC is
Note Both the types of semiconductors are called rectification and the devices used for this process
electrically neutral. At equilibrium condition, ne nh = ni2 are known as rectifier.
3. In n-type semiconductor, ne > nh p-n junction diodes are used as the rectifiers.
4. In p-type semiconductor, ne < nh 14. The average value of DC obtained from a half wave
rectifier
5. Minimum energy required to create a hole-electron pair, I
I DC = 0
hn ³ Eg p
where, Eg is band gap. 15. The average value of DC obtained from a full wave
rectifier
For insulator Eg > 3 eV, for semiconductor Eg is 0.2eV to 2I
3eV and for metals Eg = 0. I DC = 0
p
6. Electric current, I = eA (ne ve + nh vh ) 16. The pulse frequency of a half wave rectifier is equal to
vd frequency of AC.
7. Mobility of charge carriers, m =
E 17. The pulse frequency of a full wave rectifier is double to
that of AC.
where, vd = drift velocity and E = electric field.
1 18. Zener diode is used as voltage regulator.
8. Electrical conductivity, s = = e (me ne + nh m h )
r 19. LED converts biasing electric energy into light energy. It
is forward-biased p-n junction-diode.
9. Junction diode is said to be in forward bias when positive
20. A reverse biased p-n junction diode made from light (or
terminal of a battery is connected to p-type
semiconductor and negative terminal with n-type photo) sensitive semiconductor is called a photodiode.
semiconductor. 21. Solar Cell A device that directly converts the energy of
10. Junction diode offers very small resistance in forward light into electrical energy through photovoltaic effect.
bias and very high resistance in reverse bias. This The materials used for solar cell are Si and GaAs.
Physics 83
Practice Questions
1 For the flow of electrons in a vacuum tube like vacuum Empty 4 N-states
diode, vacuum is required in the inter-electrode space Ec
otherwise, (c) Eg
(a) electrons will not be ejected from cathode
Ev
(b) extraction of electrons from remaining Filled 4 N-states
gas molecules or atoms will increase
abruptly Partially 4 N-states
(c) work function of cathode will be Filled Ec
reduced (d) Eg
(d) electrons may lose their energy on collision
with air molecules in their path Partially Ev
4 N-states
Filled
2 In solid state semiconductors, the number and the
direction of the flow of charge carriers can be altered by 6 In the energy band diagram of material A, conduction
band is partially filled and valence band is partially empty
(a) illuminating light
and for material B, both conduction and valence band
(b) supplying heat
overlaps each other. Then, material A and B respectively
(c) varying applied voltage are
(a) insulator and semiconductor
3 Correct order of relative values of electrical conductivity s (b) semiconductor and conductor
for different types of solid is (c) Both are semiconductors
(a) s semiconductor > s insulator > s metal (d) Both are conductors
(b) s metal > s semiconductor > s insulator 7 A piece of semiconductor (say Si) is connected in series
(c) s semiconductor > s metal > s insulator with a battery. On increasing the temperature of Si piece,
the current in the circuit
(d) s insulator > s semiconductor > s metal
(a) decreases
4 Energy band gap of a certain material is (b) increases
neither very large nor zero. However, (c) remains unchanged
with the help of some external energy conduction takes (d) first increases and then decreases
place due to (i.e. at room temperature) 8 At an elevated temperature (T > 0 K), few of covalent
(a) vacancies in conduction band bonds of Si or Ge are broken and a vacancy in the bond is
(b) electrons in valence band created. Effective charge of the vacancy or hole is
(c) electrons in conduction band (a) positive
(d) all electrons are bound to valence band (b) negative
5 Which amongst the following diagram shows energy band (c) neutral
positions in a semiconductor (silicon) at 0 K correctly? (d) either positive or negative depending upon the
material
Filled 2 N-states
Ec 9 At equilibrium condition, the rate of generation of
electron-hole pairs in Ge crystal
(a) Eg
(a) is more than rate of recombination of electron and
Ev hole pairs
Empty 6 N-states
(b) is less than rate of recombination of electron and hole
pairs
2 N-states
(c) equals to rate of recombination of electron and hole
Ev
pairs
(b) Filled
Ec (d) is always zero
Empty 2 N-states
10 The lattice structure of carbon (C), silicon (Si) and 17 If no external voltage is applied across p-n junction, there
germanium (Ge) is same, then would be
(a) Si is an insulator (a) no electric field across the junction
(b) C and Si are intrinsic semiconductors (b) an electric field pointing from n-type to p-type side
(c) Si and Ge are intrinsic semiconductors across the junction
(d) only C is intrinsic semiconductor (c) an electric field pointing from p-type to n-type side
across the junction
11 In extrinsic p- and n-type semiconductor materials, the
ratio of the impurity atoms to the pure semiconductor (d) a temporary electric field during formation of p-n
atoms is about junction that would subsequently disappear
(a) 1 (b) 10 -1 18 A diode is a
(c) 10 -4 (d) 10 -7 (a) three-terminal device
12 Number of electrons available for conduction due to (b) piece of a semiconductor crystal with metallic
doping atom in an extrinsic semiconductor contacts provided at two ends
(c) p-n junction with metallic contacts provided at two
(a) increases with increase of temperature
ends
(b) decreases with increase of temperature
(d) piece of a metal which is sprayed over by a
(c) is independent of change in ambient temperature
semiconductor
(d) reduces to zero at temperature above room
temperature 19 The V -I characteristic curve of a silicon diode is
13 A Ge specimen is doped with Al. The concentration of I (mA) I (mA)
acceptor atom is ~1021 atoms per m 3. Given that the
intrinsic concentration of electron-hole pairs is (a) (b)
~1019 per m3, the concentration of electrons in the V (volts) V (volts)
specimen is
I (µA) I (µA)
(a) 1017 per m3 (b) 1015 per m3
(c) 10 4 per m3 (d) 10 2 per m3
I (mA) I (mA)
14 Three semiconductors are arranged in the decreasing
order of their energy gap as follows. The correct
arrangement is (c) (d)
V (volts) V (volts)
(a) tin, germanium, silicon
(b) tin, silicon, germanium I (µA) I (µA)
(c) silicon, germanium, tin
(d) silicon, tin, germanium 20 Consider the junction diode as ideal. The value of current
15 The electrical resistance to the diffusion current in a p-n flowing through AB is
junction because of depletion layer, is large due to the A 1 kΩ B
presence of +4 V –6V
(a) strong electric field
(b) large number of charge carriers (a) 10 -2 A (b) 10 -1 A
(c) electrons as charge carriers (c) 10 -3 A (d) 0 A
(d) holes as charge carriers 21 Diodes are most commonly used for rectification of
16 Which of these graphs shows potential difference between alternating voltages. Then, which amongst the following
property of diode is responsible for this?
p-side and n-side of a p-n junction in equilibrium?
(a) Current flow in one direction
(b) Forward bias resistance is low compared to reverse bias
(a) p-side n-side (b) p-side (c) Reverse current is independent of voltage applied
n-side
Junction Junction
plane plane 22 If an alternating voltage is applied across a diode in series
with a load, then
(a) a continuous DC voltage appears across load
(c) p-side (d) p-side (b) an AC voltage appears across load
n-side n-side
(c) a pulsating AC voltage appears across load
Junction Junction (d) no voltage appears across load
plane plane
Physics 85
23 Amongst the following circuits, which correctly Then, it is said to be in a

represents the circuit used for half-wave rectification? (a) solid state
A A (b) active state
RL
(a) B (b) AC RL (c) saturation state
B (d) cut-off state
input
AC input A
28 In a common emitter amplifier circuit using an n-p-n
A transistor, the phase difference between the input and the
(c) AC RL (d) AC RL output voltages will be
input input B
B (a) 90° (b) 135°
(c) 180° (d) 45°
24 LED’s are not used for room lighting (although they are 29 Amongst the following, which correctly represents
used for automobile bulbs and in industrial lighting) voltage amplitude (V ) versus time (t ) waveform for an
because analog signal.
(a) our eyes are not comfortable with very intense V V
light +5 +5
(b) our eyes are not comfortable with monochromatic (a) 0 t (b) t
0
light
V
(c) LED’s are much costlier than bulbs tubelights and
CFL’s
(c) t (d) Both (b) and (c)
(d) LED manufacture in mass production will be a very
polluting process
25 A typical p -n junction solar cell is as shown in the figure 30 To get output 1 for the following circuit, the correct choice
for the input is
below
IL A
B Y
C
p n
(a) A = 1, B = 0, C =0
(b) A = 1, B = 1, C =0
(c) A = 1, B = 0, C =1
Depletion region (d) A = 0, B = 1, C =0
The generation of emf by it, is due to 31 A hole is
(a) generation of electrons and holes due to light
(a) an anti-particle of electron
(b) separation of electrons and holes due E electric field of
(b) a vacancy created when an electron leaves a covalent
depletion region
bond
(c) collection of electrons e - at n -side and holes at p-side
(c) absence of free electrons
(d) an artificially created (particle)
26 For an n-p-n transistor shown below
32 Conductivity of a semiconductor increases with increase
n p n in temperature, because
I II III (a) number density of free charge carriers increases
(b) relaxation time increases
(c) both number density of free charge carriers and
relaxation time increases
Regions marked I, II and III are respectively,
(d) number density of free charge carriers increases and
(a) emitter,collector, base relaxation time decreases but effect of decrease in
(b) base, collector, emitter relaxation time is much less than increase in number
(c) emitter, base, collector density
(d) collector, emitter, base
33 Assuming diodes to be ideal,
27 A transistor is biased as follows
A
n p n –10 V R D1 D2 B
(a) D1 is forward biased and D2 is reverse biased, so

– + – + current flows from A to B
(b) D2 is in forward bias and D1 is in reverse bias 37 For given circuit, truth table is
and hence no current flows from B to A and
vice-versa A
(c) D1 and D2 both are in forward bias, so current flows
from A to B Y
(d) D1 and D2 both are in reverse bias, so no current
flows from A to B B
34 A 220 V AC supply is connected between points A and B.
(a) A B Y (b) A B Y
A
0 0 1 0 0 1
~220 V AC C 0 1 0 0 1 0
B 1 0 1 1 0 0
1 1 0 1 1 1
What will be potential difference across capacitor C? (c) A B Y (d) A B Y
(a) 220 V (b) 110 V (c) 0 V (d) 220 2 V 0 0 0 0 0 0
35 Output of the circuit shown below will be 0 1 1 0 1 1
1 0 0 1 0 1
1 1 1 1 1 0
Vm sin ωt
38 In figure given below Vo is the potential barrier across a p-n

junction. When no battery is connected across the
junction, then
(a) zero all the times
(b) like half wave rectifier with positive cycles in 1
output 2
(c) like half wave rectifier with negative cycles in 3
Vo
output
(d) like that of a full wave rectifier
36 In the circuit shown, the voltage difference between A and
B, if the diode forward voltage drop is 0.3V is
(a) 1 and 3 both correspond to forward bias of
junction
(b) 3 corresponds to forward bias of junction and
1 corresponds to reverse bias of junction
0.2 mA 5k Ω 5k Ω
(c) 1 corresponds to forward bias and 3 corresponds to
A B reverse bias of junction
(a) 1.3 V (b) 2.3 V (c) 0 (d) 0.5 V (d) 3 and 1 both correspond to reverse bias of junction
ANSWERS
1 (d) 2 (d) 3 (b) 4 (c) 5 (c) 6 (d) 7 (b) 8 (a) 9 (c) 10 (c)
11 (d) 12 (c) 13 (a) 14 (c) 15 (a) 16 (c) 17 (b) 18 (c) 19 (a) 20 (a)
21 (d) 22 (c) 23 (b) 24 (b) 25 (d) 26 (c) 27 (b) 28 (c) 29 (d) 30 (c)
31 (b) 32 (d) 33 (b) 34 (d) 35 (b) 36 (b) 37 (c) 38 (b)
Physics 87
Hints & Solutions

1 (d) In a vacuum tube like the vacuum diode, the electrons
are supplied by a heated cathode and the controlled flow of Empty 4 N-states
these electrons in vacuum is obtained by varying the voltage Ec
between its different electrodes. Vacuum is required in the
inter-electrode space; otherwise the moving electrons may Eg
lose their energy on collision with the air molecules in their
path. Ev
Filled 4 N-states
3 (b) The values of conductivity and resistivity for different
types of solids are as follows
Infinitely large number of
(i) Metal states each occupied by
r ~ 10-2 -10-8 W-m two electrons at 0 K
s ~ 102 -108 Sm-1 6 (d) In the energy band diagram for a conductor, either the
conduction band is partially filled and valence band is
(ii) Semiconductor
partially empty or conduction band and valence band
r ~ 10-5 -106 W-m
overlap.
s ~ 105 - 10-6 Sm-1 However, in the case of insulators, there are no electrons in
(iii) Insulator the conduction band.
r ~ 1011 - 1019 W-m In the case of semiconductors, very few electrons are in the
conduction band, after gaining sufficient energy.
s ~ 10-11 - 10-19 Sm-1
Therefore, both the materials A and B are conductors.
As 108 > 10-6 > 10-19 , so s metal > s semiconductor > σ insulator . 7 (b) At low temperatures, semiconductors like Si and Ge
4 (c) If there is some gap between the conduction band and the behaves like insulators. However, as the temperature increases
valence band which is neither very large nor zero. Then, more thermal energy becomes available to the electrons,
some of the electrons from the valence band may gain which may break away their covalent band. Thereby increase
external energy to cross the gap between the conduction in the free electrons gradually contributes to increase in
band and valence band. Thus, these electrons will move into conduction. Hence, in the given case, with the increase in the
the conduction band. At the same time, they will create temperature, the current in the circuit increases.
vacant energy levels in the valence band where other 8 (a) In semiconductor as the temperature increases, more
valence electrons can move. thermal energy becomes available to electrons and some of
Thus, the process creates the possibility of conduction due these electrons may break away their covalent bond
to electrons in conduction band as well as due to vacancies (becoming free electrons contributing to conduction).
in the valence band. Thus, the thermal energy effectively ionises only a few
5 (c) For Si, the outermost orbit is, in which the number of atoms in the crystalline lattice and creates a vacancy in the
electrons is 4. If N is the total number of atoms in Si crystal, bond . These holes behaves as an apparent free particle with
then the total number of outer electrons in the crystal is 4N . effective positive charge.
The maximum possible number of electrons in the outer 10 (c) The 4 bonding electrons of C, Si or Ge are, respectively,
orbit is 8. So, for the 4N valence electrons there are 8N in the second, third and fourth orbits. Hence, energy
available energy states. required to take out an electron from these atoms (i.e.
These 8N discrete energy levels can either form a ionisation energy Eg ) will be least for Ge, followed by Si
continuous band or they may be grouped in different bands and highest for C. Hence, number of free electrons for
depending upon the distance between the atoms in the conduction in Ge and Si are significant but negligibly small
crystal. As per the distance between the atoms in the crystal for C.
lattice of Si. The energy band of these 8N states is split apart Thus, C is an insulator while Si and Ge are intrinsic
into two which are separated by an energy gap Eg . semiconductors.
The lower band will be completely occupied by the 4N 11 (d) Dopant concentration in extrinsic semiconductor is
valence electrons at temperature of absolute zero, which is usually 1 to 10 ppm (parts per million).
the valence band. The other band consisting 4N energy So, the ratio of impurity atoms to the pure semiconductor
states which is the conduction band, is completely empty at atom is
absolute zero. Thus, the energy band position in Si at 0K is 1
» 10-7
as follows 107
12 (c) The number of electrons made available for conduction 24 (b) Light from an LED lies in the bandwidth 100Å to 500Å
by dopant atoms depends strongly upon the doping level and or in other words, it is nearly monochromatic light. Since,
is independent of any increase in ambient temperature. our eyes are not very comfortable with these types of light.
However, number of free electrons generated in Thus, they are not used for room lighting.
semiconductor atom increases weakly with temperature. 25 (d) The generation of emf by a solar cell, when light falls
13 (a) For extrinsic semiconductor, on, is due to the following three basic processes :
ni2 = ne nh generation, separation and collection.
(i) generation of electron-hole pairs due to light
Here, number of intrinsic electron hole pairs,
(with hv > Eg ) close to the junction.
ni = 1019 per m3
(ii) separation of electrons and holes due to electric field E
Number acceptor atom of Al of the depletion region. Electrons are swept to n-side and
» Number of holes, nh = 1021 per m3 holes to p-side.
Þ (1019 )2 = ne (10 )21 (iii) the electrons reaching the n-side are collected by the
front contact and holes reaching p-side are collected by
1038 the back contact.
Þ ne = 21
= 1017 per m3
10 Thus p-side becomes positive and n-side becomes negative
14 (c) Energy gap Eg for silicon, germanium and tin giving rise to photovoltage.
respectively is as follows ( Eg )Si = 1.1 eV Hence, all the given options are correct.
( Eg )Ge = 0.74 eV and ( Eg )Sn » 0 eV 26 (c) For an n- p-n transistor, two segments of n-type
Thus, ( Eg )Si > ( Eg )Ge > ( Eg )Sn semiconductor (emitter E and collector C) are separated by a
15 (a) Depletion region is the space-charge region on the either segment of p-type semiconductor (base B) as shown below.
side of the junction together. One to the positive space Emitter Base Collector
charge region on n-side and negative space charge region on E I II III C
p-side, due to which an electric field directed from the n p n
positive charge towards negative charge develops.
This field give rise to drift current which is opposite to B
diffusion current. So, region marked I represents emitter and region II
Due to this only, the resistance to the diffusion current by represents base while region III represents collector.
this region is large because of the presence of strong electric 27 (b) The transistor is said to be in active state, if its
field. emitter-base junction is forward biased and base-collector
16 (c) In a p-n junction, the loss of electrons from the n-region junction is reversed biased.
and the gain of electrons by the p-region causes a difference Since, in the given transistor, emitter-base junction is
of potential across the junction of the two regions. The forward biased and base-collector junction is reversed
polarity of this potential is such as to oppose further flow of biased. So, it said to be in active state.
carriers, so that a condition of equilibrium exists. Since, the 28 (c) vi vo
n-side has lost electrons and p-side has acquired electrons.
So, the potential of n-side is thus positive to that p-side. t t
So, the potential across the junction is correctly depicted in
(Input) (Output)
option (c).
18 (c) A semiconductor diode is basically a p-n junction with In a CE n-p-n transistor amplifier output is 180° out of phase
metallic contacts provided at the ends for the application of an with input.
external voltage. It is a two terminal device.
29 (d) The signal (current or voltage) in the form of continuous,
20 (a) Let us assume that current through the diode is I.
time-varying voltage or current are called continuous or
From the given condition, analog signals.
V - VB 4 - ( -6 ) 10
I= A = = = 10-2 A However, a pulse waveform in which only discrete values of
R 1 kW 1 ´ 103 voltages are possible are called digital signals.
Thus, value of current I flowing through diode is 10-2 A. So, option (a) represents digital signal, whereas option (b)
21 (d) p-n junction diode primarily allows the flow of current
and (c) represents analog signal.
only in one direction, i.e. only in forward bias condition. 30 (c) The resultant Boolean expression for the given logic
circuit will be
Also, the forward bias resistance is low as compared to
reverse bias resistance. Y = ( A + B )×C
So, if an alternating voltage is applied across a diode, the So, we can see that amongst the given options, only option
current flows only in that part of the cycle when diode is (c) is the correct choice for input, i.e.
forward biased. This property is thus used to rectify Output Y = 1only, when inputs
alternating voltages. A = 1, B = 0 and C = 1.
Physics 89
33 (b) In the given circuit, p-side of p-n junction, diode D1 is

A Y2
connected to lower voltage and n-side of D1 to higher AND
voltage. Thus, D1 is reverse biased. Similarly, the p-side of
p-n junction diode D2 is at higher potential and n-side of D2 NOT
OR Y
is at lower potential. Thus, D2 is forward biased.
Hence, no current flows through the junction B to A. Y1
AND
34 (d) As p-n junction conducts during positive half cycle B Y3
only, the diode connected here will work in positive half
cycle. Thus, the potential difference across C = peak voltage Thus, the truth table is
of the given AC voltage V0 = V rms 2 = 220 2 V.
A B Y1 Y2 Y3 Y
35 (b) For each positive half cycle of the input voltage, the
diode will be forward biased but for each negative half 0 0 1 0 0 0
cycle, it will be reverse biased. So, the output of the given 0 1 1 0 1 1
circuit will only contains positive halves of voltage like a
1 0 0 0 0 0
half-wave rectifier.
1 1 0 1 0 1
36 (b) Since, diode is forward biased, so no current goes
through side branch after capacitor is charged.
38 (b) When p-n junction is forward biased, it opposes the
\ V AB = I AB ´ R AB
potential barrier junction resulting in decrease in barrier.
= 0.2 ´ 10-3 ´ 10 ´ 103 When p-n junction is reverse biased, it supports the potential
= 2V barrier junction, resulting increase in potential barrier across
Option (b) is most appropriate, extra 0.3 V occurs due to the junction.
voltage drop of diode. So, the curve 3 in given graph (question) represents the
37 (c) The given circuit is a combination of AND, OR and forward bias of junction and curve 1 represents reverse bias
NOT gates as shown below. of junction.
CHAPTER 15
Communication Systems
1. Communication System A system comprises of 10. Range of line of sight distance between two antennas.
transmitter, communication channel and receiver. d M = dT + d R
2. Transmitter It consists of transducer/signal generators, d M = 2 h T R + 2 hR R
modulators and transmitting antenna.
where, h T and hR are heights of transmitting and
3. Receiver Its main function is to decode the original
receiving antenna.
signals. The main function involves picking up the
signals, demodulating and displaces the original 11. Satellite Communication Satellites such as a repeater. In
message signal. this communication, frequency band 5.9 GHz to 6.4 GHz is
4. Communication Channel The physical path between used for uplinking and 3.7 GHz to 4.2 GHz is used for
the transmitter and receiver is known as communication downlinking.
channel. They are of two types namely
12. Modulation The phenomenon of superposition of low
(i) Guided (point to point) (ii) Unguided.
frequency modulating signal on high frequency carrier
5. Bandwidth of Communication Channel The range of wave in accordance to the same characteristic of
frequencies used to pass through channel is known as
modulating signal.
bandwidth.
Types of modulations
Number of channels
(i) Amplitude modulation
Total bandwidth of channel
= (ii) Frequency modulation
Bandwidth needed per channel
(iii) Phase modulation
6. A coaxial cable offers a bandwidth of 750 MHz (approx) (iv) Pulse modulation.
and an optical fibre can offer a transmission bandwidth of
more than 100 GHz. 13. Need for Modulation It is due to the fact that low
frequency signal
7. Modes of Communication
(i) needs antenna of very large length.
(i) AM band communication
(ii) mixed up of signal transmitted from different station.
(a) Ground wave or medium wave. (iii) get attenuated significantly.
(b) Sky wave or short wave in range of frequency up 14. Modulation Index
to 30 to 40 MHz. Change in amplitude of carrier wave
(ii) Space wave communication Space wave m=
Amplitude of carrier wave
communication uses repeaters.
Am
220 MHz > f > 100 MHz m=
1/ 2
Ac
8. Critical frequency (fC ), fC = 9 (Nmax )
A max - A min
where, =
Nmax = maximum electron density. A max + A min
9. Range of TV transmission, d = 2 hR 15. Upper side band frequency = fc + fm

Lower side band frequency = fc - fm
where, h = height of antenna,
R = radius of the earth where, fc and fm are frequencies of carrier wave and
d = maximum distance/range of transmission. modulating wave.
Physics 91
16. Length of dipole antenna, 18. Bandwidth = USB - LSB

l l = (fc + fm ) - (fc - fm ) = 2fm
l= =
2 2v
19. Detection is the process of recovering the modulating
17. Condition for satisfactory identification by a diode, signal from modulated carrier wave. For AM detection, a
1 1 rectifier and an envelop detector are used.
< Rc <
fc fm
Practice Questions
1 A modern communication system acts as a (a) 4 : 1 (b) 1 : 4
(a) transmitter (b) receiver (c) 1 : 2 (d) 2 : 1
(c) messenger (d) None of these 8 The modulated signal consists of the carrier wave of
2 In a point-to-point communication mode, communication frequency wc plus two sinusoidal waves each with a
takes place over a link between frequency slightly different, known as
(a) transmitter and channel (a) sidebands (b) baseband
(b) channel and transmitter (c) width band (d) All of these
(c) transmitter and receiver 9 A carrier is simultaneously modulated by two sine waves
(d) channel and receiver having modulation index of 0.3 and 0.4. The total
3 A singal spreads over a range of frequencies called modulation index will be
(a) signal bandwidth (a) 0.1 (b) 0.5

(c) 0.7 (d) 0.35
(b) signal baseband
(c) signal audio frequency 10 The modulator is to be followed by a
(d) signal video frequency (a) baseband (b) bandwidth
4 A ground receiver in line-of-sight communication cannot (c) signal (d) power amplifier
receive direct waves due to 11 Point-to-point communication requires the use of
(a) its low frequency (b) curvature of earth (a) only a guided medium
(c) its high intensity (d) smaller antenna (b) only unguided medium
5 The fundamental radio antenna is a metal rod which has a (c) any medium
length equal to (d) None of the above
(a) l in free space at the frequency of operation 12 Which of the following is not a transducer?
(b) l/2 in free space at the frequency of operation (a) Loudspeaker (b) Amplifier
(c) l/4 in free space at the frequency of operation (c) Microphone (d) All of these
(d) 3 l/4 in free space at the frequency of operation
13 Large bandwidth for higher data rate is achieved by using
6 Choose the correct statements.
(a) high frequency carrier wave
(a) In amplitude modulation, the amplitude of the high
(b) low frequency carrier wave
frequency carrier wave is made to vary in proportion
(c) high frequency audio wave
to the amplitude of the audio signal.
(d) low frequency audio wave
(b) In amplitude modulation, the frequency of the high
frequency carrier wave is made to vary in proportion 14 Radio waves are propagated through
to the amplitude of the audio signal. (a) ground wave (b) sky wave
(c) In frequency modulation, the amplitude of the high (c) space wave (d) All of these
frequency carrier wave is made to vary in proportion
to the frequency of the audio signal. 15 In the communication system, AM is used for
broadcasting, because
(d) In frequency modulation, the amplitude of the high
frequency carrier wave is made to vary in proportion (a) it avoids receiver complexity
to the frequency of the audio signal. (b) it is more noise immune than other modulation system
7 In an amplitude modulation with modulation index 0.5, (c) it requires less transmitting power
the ratio of the amplitude of the carrier wave to that of the (d) no other modulation system can give the necessary
sideband in the modulated wave is bandwidth for faithful transmission
ANSWERS
1 (c) 2 (c) 3 (a) 4 (b) 5 (b) 6 (b) 7 (a) 8 (a) 9 (b) 10 (d)
11 (a) 12 (b) 13 (a) 14 (d) 15 (a)
Hints & Solutions

1 (c) A modern communication system acts as a messenger. It 2 2 4
Ratio = = =
sends as a input signal in the form of message through m 0.5 1
communication channel to receive an output signal at the
8 (a) The modulated signal consists of the carrier wave of
end of receiver.
frequency w c plus two sinusoidal waves each with a
Input signal Communication frequency slightly different known as sidebands.
(Message) Transmitter
channel 9 (b) Here, m1 = 0.3 and m2 = 0.4
Output Total modulation index, i.e.
Receiver
signal
m = m12 + m22
2 (c) In a point-to-point communication mode, = 0.32 + 0.4 2
communication takes place over a link between a transmitter
= 0.09 + 0.16 = 0.25 = 0.5
and a receiver.It is also known as peer-to-peer
communication. 10 (d) The modulator is to be followed by a power amplifier
3 (a) A range of frequencies between two bands, i.e. upper which provides the necessary power and the modulated
and lower limit is called the signal bandwidth. signal is fed to an antenna of appropriate size for radiation.
4 (b) A ground receiver in line-of-sight communication
11 (a) A guided medium can provide point to point
cannot receive direct waves due to curvature of earth. communication.
12 (b) A transducer is a device that converts a signal in one
5 (b) The fundamental radio antenna is a metal rod which has
form of energy to another form of energy. So, amplifier is
a length equal to l / 2 in free space at the frequency of
not a transducer.
operation.
13 (a) High frequency carrier wave provides a larger bandwidth
6 (b) As we know, an amplitude modulated wave, the for higher date rate transmission from sender to receiver or
bandwidth is twice the frequency of modulating signal.
vice-versa.
Therefore, amplitude modulation (AM), the frequency of the
high frequency carrier wave is made to vary in proportion to 14 (d) Radio waves are propagated through ground, sky and
the amplitude of the audio signal. space waves. It has frequency from 300 Hz to as low as 3
kHz and corresponding wavelength ranging from 1 mm to
7 (a) Here, modulation index, m = 0.5 100 km.
Amplitude of the carrier wave = Ac 15 (a) In the communication system, AM is used for
A broadcasting because it avoids receiver complexity level to
Amplitude of the sideband = m c
2 maintain high strength of a modulating signal.
PRACTICE SET 01 93
CUET (UG) Section II : Domain (Physics)
Practice Set 01
Instructions 40 questions to be attempted out of 50. Time : 45 Min
1. The number of electrons that must What is the direction of electric 9. The temperature dependence of
be removed from an electrically field E at P and R? resistances of Cu and undoped Si in
neutral silver dollar to give it a (a) At P , E is to the left and at R, E is the temperature range 300-400 K,
charge of + 2.4 C is upward is best described by
(a) 2.5 × 1019 (b) 1.5 × 1019 (b) At P , E is to the right and at R, E (a) linear increase for Cu, linear
(c) 1.5 × 10−19 (d) 2.5 × 10−19 is downward increase for Si
(c) At P , E is to downward and at (b) linear increase for Cu, exponential
2. Three charges + Q, q, + Q are placed R, E is to the left increase for Si
d (d) At P , E is to upward and at R, E is (c) linear increase for Cu, exponential
respectively at distance 0, and d
2 to the right decrease for Si
from the origin on the X-axis. If the 6. An electric dipole, made up of (d) linear decrease for Cu, linear
net force experienced by +Q placed positive and negative charges each decrease for Si
at x = 0 is zero, then value of q is of 3.5 µC and placed at a distance 10. An electric motor operating on a 50
+Q +Q 4.2 cm apart is placed in an electric
(a) (b) V DC supply draws a current of 12
2 4 field of 5.87 × 105 NC−1. What will A. If the efficiency of the motor is
−Q −Q be the maximum torque which the
(c) (d) 30%, then estimate the resistance
2 4 field can exert on the dipole? Also, of the windings of the motor.
3. Two field lines can never cross each obtain the work that must be done (a) 1.5 Ω (b) 2 Ω
other because to turn the dipole from 0° to 180°. (c) 2.9 Ω (d) 1 Ω
−3 −1 −1
(a) field lines are closed curves (a) 86.289 × 10 Nm , 1.70 × 10 J
(b) field lines repels each other (b) 75.26 × 10−3 Nm−1 , 1.70 × 10−1 J 11. Find VP − VQ in the circuit shown
(c) field lines crowded only near the (c) 86.289 ×10−3 Nm−1 , 3.70 × 10−3 J in figure.
charge (d) 55.26 × 10−3 Nm−1 , 1.70 × 10−3 J 10Ω
(d) field has a unique direction at
each point 7. When P is normal to the surface, P
10Ω Q
R
4. When an electric dipole p is placed the polarisation is numerically 18Ω
equal to the
in a uniform electric field E, then at 8Ω 25Ω
(a) surface density of the induced
what angle between p and E the
charge
value of torque will be maximum? + –
(b) dipole moment
(a) 90° (b) 0°
(c) Both (a) and (b) 10 V
(c) 180° (d) 45°
(a) 6.68 V (b) 8 V
5. The figure given below shows 8. van de graaff generator is based on (c) 4.65 V (d) 7 V
various equipotential surfaces. the phenomenon of corona discharge,
R –30 V which is used for developing 12. The maximum power dissipated in
–25 V
(a) electric current of order of an external resistance R when
–20 V connected to a cell of emf E and
–15 V 10 × 106 A
–10 V (b) electric potential of order of internal resistance r will be
10 × 106 V E2 E2
(a) (b)
(c) electric power of order of r 2r
10 × 106 W
P E2 E2
(d) electric charge of order of (c) (d)
10 × 106 C 3r 4r
94 CUET (UG) Section II : Domain (Physics)
13. A straight wire of mass 200 g and 20. The core of a toroid having 3000 25. An inductance of negligible
length 1.5 m carries a current of 2 turns has inner and outer radii 11 resistance, whose reactance is
A. It is held in mid-air by a uniform cm and 12 cm, respectively. The 120 Ω at 200 Hz is connected to a
horizontal magnetic field. What is magnetic field in the core for a 240 V, 60 Hz, power line. The
the magnitude of magnetic field? current of 0.70 A is 2.5 T. The current in the
(a) 1 T (b) 0.65 T relative permeability of the core is inductor is
(c) 0.35 T (d) 0.85 T (a) 685 (b) 880 (a) 6.66 A (b) 6.60 A
(c) 448 (d) 790 (c) 5.45 A (d) 54.5 A
14. Cyclotron frequency of an electron
circulating in a magnetic field of 1T 21. A square of side a metre lies in the 26. A 15µF capacitor is connected to a
is yz-plane in a region, where the 220 V, 50 Hz source. The rms value
(a) 28 MHz magnetic field is given of the current flowing the capacitor
(b) 280 MHz B = B0 (3 i$ + 3 $j − 4k$ ) T, where B0 is is
(c) 2.8 GHz constant. The magnitude of flux (a) 2.56 A (b) 1.53 A
(d) 28 GHz passing through the square in Wb (c) 1.04 A (d) 1.96 A
is
15. A toroid of core of inner radius 0.25 27. There may be large regions of
(a) 2B0 a 2 (b) 5 B0 a 2
m and outer radius 0.26 m around space, where there is no conduction
(c) 3B0 a 2 (d) 4 B0 a 2
which 3500 turns of a wire are current, but there is only
wound. If the current in the wire is 22. A square loop of side 10 cm and (a) displacement current due to time
11 A, then magnetic field inside the resistance 0.5 Ω is varying electric fields
core of the toroid is placed vertically in the east-west (b) induced current due to time
(a) 3 × 102 T (b) 3 × 10−2 T plane. A uniform varying electric fields
(c) 3 × 10−7 T (d) 3 × 107 T magnetic field of 0.10 T is set-up (c) displacement current due to time
across the plane in the north-east varying magnetic field
16. The magnetic moment of an (d) None of the above
direction. The magnetic field is
electron orbiting in a circular orbit
decreased to zero in 0.70 s at a 28. A 27 mW laser beam has a
of radius r with a speed v is equal
steady rate. The magnitudes of cross-sectional area of 10 mm2. The
to
induced emf and current during magnitude of the maximum electric
(a) evr/2 (b) evr this time interval are
(c) er/2v (d) None of these field in this electromagnetic wave
(a) 0.1 mV, 2A (b) 1 mV, 2 mA is given by
17. The length of a magnetised steel (c) 1 V, 2 A (d) 1 mV, 0.2 A [Take, permittivity of space,
wire is l and the magnetic moment ε 0 = 9 × 10− 12 SI units and speed of
23. When the north-pole of a bar
is m. It is bent into the shape of L light, c = 3 × 108 m /s]
magnet is being pushed towards
with two equal sides. The magnetic (a) 1 kV/m
the closed coil, current is induced
moment now will be (b) 0.7 kV/m
in the coil in counter-clockwise
(a) m/2 (b) 2m direction. (c) 2 kV/m
(c) 2 m (d) m/ 2 (d) 1.4 kV/m
What will happen, if an open circuit
18. What is the magnitude of the is used in place of the closed loop (in 29. The frequencies of X-rays, γ-rays
equatorial and axial fields due to a figure below CD is an open circuit)? and UV-rays are respectively n1, n2,
bar magnet of length 5.0 cm at a
C D n3, then
distance of 50 cm from its
(a) n1 > n2, n2 < n3
mid-point ? The magnetic moment
(a) Induced current flows form (b) n1 < n2, n2 < n3
of the bar magnet is 0.40 A-m 2. C to D (c) n1 < n2, n2 > n3
(a) 3.2 × 10− 6 T, 6.4 × 10− 7 T (b) Induced current flows form D (d) n1 > n2, n2 > n3
(b) 4.2 × 105 T, 6 × 10− 7 T to C
(c) 5 × 10− 6 T, 3.2 × 10− 7 T (c) No induced current flow 30. A concave mirror for face viewing
(d) 3.2 × 10− 7 T, 6.4 × 10− 7 T (d) None of the above has focal length of 0.4 m. The
distance at which you hold the
19. If θ1 and θ 2 be the apparent angles 24. The average value of AC voltage mirror from your face in order to
of dip observed in two vertical given by, see your image upright with a
planes at right angles to each V = Vm sin ωt magnification of 5 is
other, then the true angle of dip θ is π (a) 0.16 m (b) 1.60 m
over time interval t = 0 to t = is
given by ω (c) 0.32 m (d) 0.24 m
2Vm
(a) cot 2 θ = cot 2 θ1 + cot 2 θ2 (a) 0 (b)
π 31. A vessel is filled with water to a
(b) tan 2 θ = tan 2 θ1 + tan 2 θ2
V height of 13 cm. The apparent
(c) cot 2 θ = cot 2 θ1 − cot 2 θ2 (c) m (d) Vm
π depth of a screw lying at the
(d) tan 2 θ = tan 2 θ1 − tan 2 θ2
bottom of the vessel is measured by
PRACTICE SET 01 95
a microscope to be 8.5 cm. If water is 38. In a photoelectric experiment, the (c) 2.29 × 1017 kg m −3
replaced by a liquid of refractive relation between applied (d) 9 × 1010 kg m −3
index 1.70 upto the same height. potential difference V between 43. Consider the binding energy of
Find the distance at which cathode and anode and the
17 Cl and 15 P are 287.67 MeV
35 31
microscope have to be moved to focus photoelectric current I to be as and 262.48 MeV, respectively.
on the screw again? shown in the graph below. If Then,
(a) 0.85 cm (b) 0.52 cm Planck’s constant h = 6.6 × 10−34 (a) 17 Cl 35 is more stable than 15 P 31
(c) 0.65 cm (d) 1.02 cm J-s, the frequency of incident (b) 15 P 31 is more stable than 17 Cl 35
radiation would be nearly (in s −1 ) (c) Stability of both the elements is
32. Using the principle of total internal
( use, φ = 1 eV) equivalent
reflection, the prisms can bend light
by I (d) cannot be estimated from the
(a) 90° given data
(b) 180° 44. When a nucleus is in an excited
(c) 60° state,
(d) Both 90° or 180° (a) it can stay in excited state
–2.2 O V (volt) (b) it gives excess energy to
33. According to Huygens’ principle, each
surrounding electrons and comes
point of the wavefront is the source of
(a) 0.436 × 1018 (b) 0.436 × 1017 to a lower energy state
(a) secondary disturbance (c) it can make a transition to a
(c) 0.775 × 1015 (d) 0.775 × 1016
(b) primary disturbance lower energy state by emission of
(c) third disturbance 39. In Pfund series, ratio of a photon
(d) fourth disturbance maximum to minimum (d) it can emit a proton or neutron
wavelength of emitted spectral with excess kinetic energy and so
34. The earth is moving towards a fixed lines is achieves a lower energy state
star with a velocity of 50 km s −1. An λ max 4
observer on the earth observes a shift (a) = 45. In the energy band diagram of
λ min 3
of 0.50Å in the wavelength of light material A, conduction band is
λ max 9 partially filled and valence band is
coming from the star. The actual (b) =
wavelength of light emitted by the λ min 5 partially empty and for material B,
star is λ max 16 both conduction and valence band
(c) =
(a) 3000 Å (b) 2400 Å λ min 7 overlaps each other. Then, material
(c) 6000 Å (d) 5800 Å λ max 36 A and B respectively are
(d) =
λ min 11 (a) insulator and semiconductor
35. Two identical light waves,
(b) semiconductor and conductor
propagating in the same direction, 40. An energy of 15 eV is given to an (c) Both are semiconductors
have a phase difference φ. Then, after electron in 4th orbit of H-atom. (d) Both are conductors
superposing, the intensity of the Then, find its final energy when
resultant wave will be proportional it comes out of H-atom. 46. The number of silicon atoms per
to (a) 14.15 eV (b) 13.6 eV m 3 is 5 × 1028 . This is doped
(a) cosφ (c) 12.08 eV (d) 15.85 eV simultaneously with 5 × 1022 atoms
(b) cos φ / 2 per m 3 of arsenic and 5 × 1020 per
41. An electron of a hydrogen like m3 atoms of indium. Given that,
(c) cos2 φ / 2
atom is in excited state. If total ni = 1.5 × 1016 m −3.
(d) cos2 φ
energy of the electron is − 4.6 eV,
36. Work-function φ 0 for a metal will Number of electrons and holes (in
then de-Broglie wavelength of the
per metre cube of sample) are
change, if it is electron is
respectively,
(a) heated (a) 6.27 nm
(a) 4.95 × 1022 , 4.54 × 109
(b) cooled (b) 2.48 mm
(c) coated with some other metal (c) 0.57 nm (b) 4.54 × 109 , 4.54 × 109
(d) All of the above (d) 8 nm (c) 4.54 × 109 , 4.95 × 1022
(d) 4.95 × 1022 , 4.95 × 1022
37. Phenomena of interference, 42. Mass of iron nucleus is 55.85 u
diffraction and polarisation are and A = 56. Its nuclear density 47. In the given figure, a diode D is
explained by considering light as will be (take, R0 = 1.2 × 10−15 m) connected to an external resistance
(a) wave (b) particle (a) 4.28 × 1017 kg m −3 R = 100 Ω and an emf of 3.5 V. If
(c) corpuscles (d) quarks (b) 2 × 1010 kg m −3 the barrier potential developed
across the diode is 0.5 V, the (a) 30 mA (b) 40 mA (b) channel and transmitter
current in the circuit will be (c) 20 mA (d) 35 m (c) transmitter and receiver
(d) channel and receiver
D 100 Ω
48. A modern communication system acts as a
(a) transmitter (b) receiver 50. A singal spreads over a range of
R
(c) messenger (d) None of these frequencies called
(a) signal bandwidth
49. In a point-to-point communication mode,
(b) signal baseband
communication takes place over a link
(c) signal audio frequency
between
3.5 V (d) signal video frequency
(a) transmitter and channel
ANSWERS
1. (b) 2. (d) 3. (d) 4. (a) 5. (a) 6. (a) 7. (a) 8. (b) 9. (c) 10. (c)
11. (c) 12. (d) 13. (b) 14. (d) 15. (b) 16. (a) 17. (d) 18. (d) 19. (a) 20. (a)
21. (c) 22. (b) 23. (b) 24. (b) 25. (a) 26. (c) 27. (a) 28. (d) 29. (c) 30. (c)
31. (a) 32. (d) 33. (a) 34. (a) 35. (c) 36. (d) 37. (a) 38. (c) 39. (d) 40. (a)
41. (c) 42. (c) 43. (b) 44. (c) 45. (d) 46. (a) 47. (a) 48. (c) 49. (c) 50. (a)
PRACTICE SET 02 97
CUET (UG) Section II : Domain (Physics)
Practice Set 02
1. An object of mass 1 kg contains angular frequency of its oscillations (a) accelerated charged particles
4 × 1020 atoms. If one electron is is (b) heating in generator
1/ 2 3/ 2
removed from every atom of the
(a) 
pE 
(b) 
pE  (c) decelerated charged particles
 
solid, the charge gained by the solid  I   I  (d) None of the above
of 1 g is 1/ 2 1/ 2
 I 
(d)  
p
(a) 2.8 C (b) 6.4 × 10−2 C (c)   9. The relaxation time of electrons in
 pE   IE  copper at room temperature is
(c) 3.6 × 10−3 C (d) 9.2 × 10−4 C
(take, resistivity of copper
2. Four charges equal to − Q are 5. The electric potential at a certain
distance from a point charge is 600 = 1.7 × 10−8 Ω-m, density of electron
placed at the four corners of a
V and the electric field is 200 NC −1. in copper = 8.5 × 1028 m −3, mass of
square and a charge q is at its
The distance of the point charge electrons = 9.1 × 10−31 kg and drift
centre. If the system is in velocity of electrons
(in metres) is
equilibrium, the value of q is
(a) 2 (b) 3 = 1.6 × 10−4 ms −1)
Q
(a) − (1 + 2 2 ) (c) 1 (d) 0 (a) 3.2 × 10−12 s (b) 2.5 × 10−14 s
4 . × 10−10 s
(c) 15 (d) 6.2 × 10−11 s
Q 6. A molecule of a substance has a
(b) (1 + 2 2 )
4 permanent electric dipole moment 10. Which of the following acts as a
(c) −
Q
(1 + 2 2 ) of magnitude 10−29C-m. A mole of circuit protection device?
2 this substance is polarised (at low (a) Inductor (b) Switch
Q temperature) by applying a strong (c) Fuse (d) Conductor
(d) (1 + 2 2 )
2 electrostatic field of magnitude 11. In the circuits shown below, the
3. In the diagram shown below, 106 Vm −1. The direction of the field readings of voltmeters and the
is suddenly changed from an angle ammeters will be
of 60° to 0°. Estimate the heat
P
released from the substance in 10 Ω i1
aligning its dipoles along the new
Q
direction of the field. V1
(a) − 3 J (b) 3 J (c) − 6 J (d) 6 J A1
7. The dielectric constant of helium at

(a) field strength at P is less than 0° C and 1 atmospheric pressure is
field strength at Q 10 V
1.00074. Find the dipole moment
(b) field strength at P and Q are induced in each helium atom when 10 Ω i2
equal the gas is in an electric field of
(c) field is more strong at P and less intensity 10 Vm −1. 10 Ω
strong at Q V2
(a) 2.4 × 1040 C-m A2
(d) Cannot be determined from the
−39
figure (b) 2.4 × 10 C-m
(c) 2.6 × 10−39 C-m
4. An electric dipole is situated in an
(d) 1.5 × 1040 C-m 10 V
electric field of uniform intensity E
whose dipole moment is p and 8. In van de graaff generator, charge (a) V1 = V 2 and i1 > i2
moment of inertia is I. If the dipole is moved from one place to other, (b) V1 = V 2 and ii = i2
is displaced slightly from the which creates a potential difference (c) V 2 > V1 and i1 > i2
equilibrium position, then the between two points. The potential (d) V 2 > V1 and i1 = i2
produces
12. To get a maximum current through 19. The time of vibration of a magnetic (a) 5 ms (b) 2.2 ms
a resistance of 2.5 Ω, one can use m needle vibrating in the vertical (c) 7.2 ms (d) 3.3 ms
rows of cells each row having n plane is 3 s. When magnetic needle 25. An arc lamp requires a direct
cells. The internal resistance of is made to vibrate in the horizontal current of 10 A at 80 V to function.
each cell is 0.5 Ω. What are the plane, the time of vibration is 3 2 If it is connected to a 220 V (rms),
values of m and n, if the total s. Then, the angle of dip is 50 Hz AC supply, the series
number of cells are 20? (a) 30° (b) 45° (c) 60° (d) 90° inductor needed for it to work is
(a) m = 2, n = 10 (b) m = 4, n = 5 2 close to
20. An iron rod of 0.2 cm cross-
(c) m = 5, n = 4 (d) n = 2, m = 10 (a) 80 H (b) 0.08 H
sectional area is subjected to a
13. When a charged particle moves in magnetising field of 1200 Am −1. (c) 0.044 H (d) 0.065 H
the region of magnetic field, then The susceptibility of iron is 599. 26. Same current is flowing in two
(a) magnitude of its velocity keeps on The permeability will be alternating circuits. The first circuit
changing (a) 7.9 × 105 TmA −1 contains only inductance and the
(b) velocity of particle remains (b) 8.0 × 1022 TmA −1 second contains only a capacitance.
constant (c) 7.5 × 10− 4 TmA −1 If the frequency of the emf of AC is
(c) direction of motion keeps on (d) 1.8 × 10− 5 TmA −1 increased, the value of current will
changing
(d) kinetic energy of particle keeps 21. Consider the following figure, a (a) increase in the first circuit and
on changing uniform magnetic field of 0.2 T is decrease in the second circuit
directed along the positive X-axis. (b) increase in both the circuits
14. A proton and an α-particle both (c) decrease in both the circuits
The magnetic flux through top
enter a region of uniform magnetic (d) decrease in the first circuit and
surface of the figure is
field B, moving at right angles to increase in the second circuit
the field B. If the radius of circular Y
27. ‘‘Time-dependent electric and
orbits for both the particles is equal
30° magnetic fields give rise to each
and the kinetic energy acquired by 10 cm other’’. Which laws give a
proton is 1 MeV, the energy 10 cm
quantitative expression of this
acquired by the α-particle will be 4 cm
60° statement?
(a) 4 MeV (b) 0.5 MeV
9 cm X (a) Faraday’s law of electromagnetic
(c) 1.5 MeV (d) 1 MeV
induction
15. Two toroids 1 and 2 have total Z
(b) Ampere-Maxwell law
number of turns 200 and 100 (a) zero (b) 0.8 m-Wb (c) Faraday’s left hand rule
respectively with average radii of electromagnetic induction
(c) 1.0 m-Wb (d) −18
. m-Wb
40 cm and 20 cm, respectively. If (d) Both (a) and (b)
they carry same current i, the ratio 22. If a coil of 40 turns and area 4.0
28. The electric field produced by the
of the magnetic fields along the two cm 2 is suddenly removed from a
radiation coming from a 100 W
loops is magnetic field, it is observed that a
bulb at a distance of 3m is (assume
(a) 1 : 1 (b) 4 : 1 (c) 2 : 1 (d) 1 : 2 charge of 2.0 × 10−4 C flows into the
that the efficiency of the bulb is
coil. If the resistance of the coil is
16. The value of Bohr magneton is 80 Ω, then magnetic flux density 2.5% and it is a point source.)
(a) 9.27 × 10−24 A-m 2 (in Wbm −2) is (a) 4.5 V/m (b) 2.8 V/m
−27 (c) 5 V/m (d) 4.07 V/m
(b) 9.27 × 10 A-m 2
(a) 0.5 (b) 1.0 (c) 1.5 (d) 2.0
(c) 8.8 × 10−10 A-m 2 23. A magnet N-S is suspended from a 29. Arrange the following
(d) 6.25 × 10−12 A-m 2 spring and when it oscillates, the electromagnetic radiations in the
magnet moves in and out of the coil order of increasing wavelength.
17. A magnet with moment m is given.
If it is bent into a semi-circular C. Then, as magnet oscillates I. Blue light
form, its new magnetic moment (a) G shows no deflection but the II. Yellow light
will be amplitude steadily decreases
III. X-ray
m m 2m (b) G shows deflection to the left and
(a) (b) (c) m (d) right with decreasing amplitude IV. Radio wave
π 2 π
(c) G shows deflection to the left and (a) IV, II, I, III
18. The net magnetic flux passing right with constant amplitude (b) I, II, IV, III
through a hypothetical closed (d) G shows deflection on one side (c) III, I, II, IV
surface enclosing a bar magnet is
24. An alternating voltage (d) II, I, IV, III
(in magnitude only)
V ( t ) = 220 sin 100πt volt is applied
(a) 1 30. Rear view mirror of a car is of
to a purely resistive load of 50 Ω.
(b) less than 1 radius of curvature R = 2 m. A
The time taken for the current to
(c) greater than 1 jogger approaches car (from
rise from half of the peak value to
(d) zero behind) at a speed of 5 ms −1.
the peak value is
PRACTICE SET 02 99
The speed of image, when jogger is (a) Only I (b) I, II and IV (b) is applicable for multi-electron
39 m from the mirror, is (c) II, III and IV (d) Both II and III atom
(a) 0.3 × 10−2 ms −1 (c) explain continuous as well as
37. Experimental observation of discrete spectral lines
(b) 0.1 × 10−2 ms −1 photoelectric effect, if explained in (d) Both (a) and (b)
(c) 0.5 × 10−2 ms −1 terms of wave picture of light, then
(d) 0.5 cms −1 (a) maximum kinetic energy first 42. The ratio of mass densities of
increases then decreases with nuclei of 40Ca and 16 O is close to
31. When a light ray enters from oil to
frequency (a) 5 (b) 2 (c) 0.1 (d) 1
glass, then on oil-glass interface,
the velocity of light changes by a (b) a sufficiently intense beam of 43. If a nucleon can have a maximum
radiation is enough for
factor of [given, noil = 2, nglass = 3 / 2] of p-neighbours within the range of
4 3 photoemission
(a) (b) nuclear force, then on increasing A
(c) time required for photoemission is
3 4
around 10−9 s
by adding nucleons, the binding
(c) 3 (d) 1 (d) maximum kinetic energy of photo energy per nucleon
electrons decreases with intensity (a) increases abruptly
32. The optical fibres are used for long
(b) decreases gradually
distance transmission of signal, the 38. In a photoelectric experiment, the (c) remains constant
main requirement for this is relation between applied potential (d) first increases sharply and then
(a) optical fibre material should be difference V between cathode and decreases gradually
cheap anode and the photoelectric current
(b) it should be made of glass I to be as shown in the graph 44. Consider the following reaction
A− 4 A− 4
(c) there should be little absorption of below. If Planck’s constant Z XA → Z+1Y
A
→ Z −1 K → Z −1 K
light inside it h = 6.6 × 10−34 J-s, the frequency of Radioactive particles emitted
(d) it is light in weight incident radiation would be nearly is/are
33. Huygens’ principle of secondary (in s −1 )( use, φ = 1 eV) (a) α and β only (b) α and γ only
wavelets may be used to (c) α , β and γ (d) Only α and β
I
(a) find the velocity of light in
45. If the energy of a photon of sodium
vacuum
light ( λ = 580 nm ) equals the band
(b) explain the particle’s behaviour of
light gap of semiconductor, the
(c) find the new position of a minimum energy required to create
wavefront –2.2 O V (volt) hole-electron pair is
(d) explain photoelectric effect (a) 1.5 eV (b) 3.2 eV
(a) 0.436 × 1018 (b) 0.436 × 1017 (c) 2.1 eV (d) 4.1 eV
34. The wavelength of spectral line (c) 0.775 × 1015 (d) 0.775 × 1016
coming from a distant star shift 46. Three semiconductors are arranged
from 400 nm to 400.1 nm. The 39. In the spectrum of hydrogen, the in the decreasing order of their
velocity of the star relative to earth ratio of the largest wavelength in energy gap as follows. The correct
is the Lyman series to the largest arrangement is
(a) 75 km s−1 (b) 100 km s−1 wavelength in the Balmer series is (a) tin, germanium, silicon
(c) 50 km s−1 (d) 200 km s−1 4 9 27 5 (b) tin, silicon, germanium
(a) (b) (c) (d)
9 4 5 27 (c) silicon, germanium, tin
35. If two incoherent sources each of
40. Ionisation potential of hydrogen (d) silicon, tin, germanium
intensity I0 produce wave, which
overlaps at some common points, atom is 13.6 eV. 47. The diode used in the circuit shown
then resultant intensity obtained is If a hydrogen atom in ground state in the figure has a constant voltage
(a) 4I 0 is excited by monochromatic drop of 0.5 V at all currents and a
(b) 2 I 0 radiation of photon energy 12.1 eV. maximum power rating of 100
I The spectral lines emitted by milliwatt. The value of maximum
(c) 0 hydrogen atom will be
2 current in the circuit is I when
(d) dependent on phase difference (a) only one voltage across resistance R is VR ,
(b) two in number then
36. Energy required by an electron for (c) three in number
electron emission can be supplied D R
(d) four in number I
to it by
41. The Bohr model for the spectra of a
I. hammering the metal surface.
H-atom
II. heating the metal surface. (a) will not be applicable to hydrogen
III. applying electric field. in the molecular
form 1.5 V
IV. applying magnetic field.
(a) I = 200 mA, VR = 1 V (a) λ in free space at the frequency (b) In amplitude modulation, the
(b) I = 200 mA, R = 10 Ω of operation frequency of the high frequency
(c) I = 100 mA, VR = 2 V (b) λ/2 in free space at the frequency carrier wave is made to vary in
(d) I = 100 mA, R = 10 Ω of operation proportion to the amplitude of the
(c) λ/4 in free space at the frequency audio signal.
48. A ground receiver in line-of-sight of operation (c) In frequency modulation, the
communication cannot receive direct (d) 3 λ/4 in free space at the amplitude of the high frequency
waves due to frequency of operation carrier wave is made to vary in
(a) its low frequenc proportion to the frequency of the
50. Choose the correct statements. audio signal.
(b) curvature of earth
(a) In amplitude modulation, the (d) In frequency modulation, the
(c) its high intensity
(d) smaller antenna amplitude of the high frequency amplitude of the high frequency
carrier wave is made to vary in carrier wave is made to vary in
49. The fundamental radio antenna is a proportion to the amplitude of the proportion to the frequency of the
metal rod which has a length equal audio signal. audio signal.
to
ANSWERS
1. (b) 2. (b) 3. (c) 4. (a) 5. (b) 6. (b) 7. (b) 8. (a) 9. (b) 10. (c)
11. (b) 12. (a) 13. (c) 14. (d) 15. (a) 16. (a) 17. (d) 18. (d) 19. (c) 20. (c)
21. (c) 22. (b) 23. (b) 24. (d) 25. (d) 26. (d) 27. (d) 28. (d) 29. (c) 30. (a)
31. (a) 32. (c) 33. (c) 34. (a) 35. (b) 36. (d) 37. (b) 38. (c) 39. (d) 40. (c)
41. (a) 42. (d) 43. (c) 44. (c) 45. (c) 46. (c) 47. (a) 48. (b) 49. (b) 50. (b)
CHAPTER 01
Solid State
1. Existence of matter as solid, liquid or gas depends electrostatic or coloumbic forces. e.g. NaCl, MgO,
upon the net effect of intermolecular forces and thermal ZnS etc.
energy. Solid state have definite mass, volume and 4. Amorphous solids or pseudo solids (also called
shape. They are incompressible, rigid and intermolecular supercooled liquids) have short range order of
forces are strong. arrangement of constituent particles and are isotropic in
2. Solids can be classified into two categories, viz. nature, e.g. glass, rubber, plastic.
crystalline and amorphous depending upon the They have a tendency to flow, though very slowly. Glass
arrangement of constituent particles. panes fixed to windows or doors of buildings are found
3. Crystalline solids (or true solids) have long range order to become thicker at the bottom because the glass
of arrangement of constituent particles and are flows down slowly and makes the bottom portion
anisotropic in nature, i.e. Cu, Ag etc. They melt at a thicker.
sharp and have characteristic temperature. They have a 5. Crystal lattice The geometrical form consisting only of a
definite and characteristic enthalpy of fusion. regular array of points in space is called a lattice or
On the basis of nature of intermolecular forces space lattice.
operating in them the crystalline solids have been l
The scaffolding is a space lattice on which two
classified into following four types : dimensional pattern has been developed by placing
structural units on its set of points. The structural unit
(i) Molecular solids Constituent particles are molecules
which are bonded through dipole-dipole interaction/ is called basis or motif.
van der Waals’ forces. e.g. solid NH 3, CO 2 etc. l
A crystal lattice (space lattice) is the pattern of points
(ii) Metallic solids Constituent particles are positively representing the locations of these motifs.
charged metal ions (kernels) surrounded by sea of 6. Unit cell is the smallest portion of a crystal lattice which
free electrons. The oppositely charge kernels repeated in different directions, generates the entire
and electrons hold ions together and is called lattice.
metallic-bond. e.g. Fe, Cu, Ag etc. 7. Types of unit cells Based upon the parameters of the
(iii) Covalent or network solids Constituent particles are unit cells (i.e. lengths a, b and c and the angles α, β and
non-metal atoms bonded with each other through γ), there are seven types of unit cells. These are called
covalent bonds. e.g. diamond, silicon carbide (SiC), crystal systems because any crystalline solid must
graphite etc. belong to any one of these unit cells.
(iv) Ionic solids Constituent particles are positively and 8. There are fourteen lattices corresponding to seven
negatively charged ions bonded through strong crystal systems, known as Bravais lattices.
9. Seven primitive unit cells and their possible variations as centred unit cell
Axial distance or
Crystal system Possible variations Axial angles Examples
edge lengths
Cubic Primitive, face-centred, a= b=c α = β = γ = 90° NaCl, zinc blende (ZnS) and Cu
body-centred
Tetragonal Primitive, body-centred a= b≠c α = β = γ = 90° White tin, SnO 2, TiO 2 and CaSO 4
Orthorhombic Primative, face-centred, a≠ b≠c α = β = γ = 90° Rhombic sulphur, KNO 3 and BaSO 4
body-centred, end-centred
Monoclinic Primitive, end-centred a≠ b≠c α = γ = 90° , β ≠ 90° Monoclinic sulphur and
Na 2SO 4 ⋅ 10H 2O
Hexagonal Primitive a= b≠c α = β = 90° , γ = 120° Graphite, ZnO and CdS
Axial distance or
Crystal system Possible variations Axial angles Examples
edge lengths
Rhombohedral or Trigonal Primitive a= b=c α = β = γ ≠ 90° Calcite (CaCO 3 ) and HgS (Cinnabar)
Triclinic Primitive a≠ b≠c α ≠ β ≠ γ ≠ 90° CuSO 4 ⋅ 5 H 2O, H 3BO 3 and K 2Cr2O7
10. Types of cubic unit cells and number of atoms per unit cell are tabulated below :
Total number
Number of atoms at Number of atoms Number of atoms in the
Type of cell of atoms present in the
corners on faces body of cube
unit cell
Simple or Primitive cubic unit cell 1 0 0 1
× 8=1
8
Body centred cubic unit cell 1
× 8=1 0 1× 1= 1 2
8
Face centred cubic unit cell 1 1 0 4
× 8=1 ×6=3
8 2
11. Constituent particles in a crystal lattice can be packed in following three steps :
(i) One dimension Simple close packing (or linear) (C.N. 2)
(ii) Two dimension Square close packing (scp) (C.N. 4) and hexagonal close packing (hcp) (C.N. 6)
(iii) Three dimension From 3D scp layers or from 3 hcp layers. (C.N. = 12)
12. Number of voids In close packed structure, there are two main type of voids present in lattice, i.e. tetrahedral and
octahedral voids. It is found that.
(i) Number of octahedral voids = Number of particles present in close packing (N)
(ii) Number of tetrahedral voids = 2 × Number of particles present in close packing (N)
or, Tetrahedral voids = 2 × octahedral voids
13. Packing efficiency It is the fraction or percentage of total space filled by the particles, i.e.
Volume occupied by spheres in the unit cell
Packing efficiency = × 100
Total volume of unit cell
Number of atoms Radius (r )
Type of unit cell Coordination number Packing efficiency
per unit cell
Simple cubic unit cell 1
1 a 6 52.4%
2
Body centred cubic unit cell 3
2 a 8 68%
4
Face centred cubic unit cell 1
4 a 12 74%
2 2
(a = edge length)
14. Density (d ) of the unit cell is calculated by using the given expression,
d = ZM / a3 NA (for cubic crystal)
where, Z = Number of atoms per unit cell, M = Molar mass or atomic mass
a = Edge length, a3 = Volume of the unit cell and N A = Avogadro’s constant
15. Imperfections in solids A solid consist of an aggregate of large number of small crystals. These crystals have defect in
them. These defects are of two types: Point defect and line defect.
16. Line defects are the irregularities from ideal arrangement in entire rows of lattice points. Where as point defects are the
irregularities or deviation from ideal arrangement around a point in a crystalline solid.
These are further classified as stoichiometric defects, impurity defects and non-stoichiometric defects.
(i) Stoichiometric defects Point defect that do not disturb the stoichiometry of the solid are called stoichiometric defects
(Intrinsic or thermodynamic defect) e.g.
(ii) Non-stoichiometric defects Those imperfections in the crystals, which lead to change in the composition of solids are
called non-stoichiometric defects.
(iii) Impurity defects Arise when foreign atoms are present in the lattice site or in the interstitial site. e.g. solid solution of
CdCl 2 , AgCl.
Chemistry 5
17. Schottky defect A stoichiometric or vacancy defect, jump from valence band to the conduction band. Pure
arises due to missing of equal number of cations and substances like silicon and germanium exhibit this
anions from the lattice and is shown by crystals having type of conducting behaviour and are called intrinsic
cation and anion of comparable size. e.g. CsCl, NaCl, semiconductors. The conductivity of the intrinsic
AgBr etc. It decreases density of a substance. semiconductors is very low at room temperature.
l
The process by which impurity is introduced in
18. Frenkel defect A stoichiometric or interstitial defect,
semiconductors to enhance their conductivity is called
arises when the smaller ion (usually cation) is dislocated
doping.
from its normal site to an interstitial site. It results
increase in conductivity but density of the crystal 23. n-type Semiconductor
remains the same. l
Silicon and germanium of group 14 doped with
19. Metal excess defect can be due to anionic vacancies, electron rich impurity like phosphorus or arsenic of
e.g. on heating crystals of NaCl in presence of Na vapour, group 15 is called n-type semiconductors.
some anions leave lattice sites which are occupied by l
Increase in conductivity is due to negatively charged
electrons called F-centres giving colour to crystals. electron.
These defects can also be generated due to presence 24. p-type Semiconductor Silicon or germanium of group
of extra cations at interstitial sites, e.g. on heating, white 14 doped with electron deficit impurities like B, Al or Ga
ZnO it turns yellow as it loses oxygen and Zn 2+ ions. of group 13 is called p-type semiconductor.
20. Electrical Properties Solids are classified into three 25. Applications of n-type and p-type Semiconductors
groups on the basis of conduction power. These are as l
Various combinations of n-type and p-type
follows : semiconductors are used for making electronic
components.
Reason of
Types of solid Conductivity Examples l
Diode is a combination of n-type and p-type
conductivity
semiconductors and used as a rectifier.
Conductors 104 -107 Motion of Metals like
electrons Ag, Al
l
n-p-n and p-n-p type of transistors are used to detect
(very high)
or amplify radio or audio signals.
Insulators 10−20- 10−10 Do not permit Wood, l
A large variety of solid state materials have been
(Very low) electricity to rubber,
pass bakelite prepared by combination of groups 13 and 15 or 12
and 16 to stimulate average valence of four as in Ge
Semiconductors 10−6 -104 Motion of Si, Ge, etc.
or Si.
(Moderate) interstitial
electrons or l
Typical compounds of group 13-15 are InSb, AlP and
holes or both GaAs. The examples of group 12-16 compounds are
CdS, CdSe and HgTe.
21. Conduction of Electricity in Metallic Conductors
26. Magnetic Properties Motions of electron generates
l
Metals conduct electricity in solid as well as in fusion
magnetic field. It behaves like a tiny bar magnet and
(molten) state. The conductivity of metals depend
possess magnetic moment. Magnitude of this magnetic
upon the number of valence electrons available per
moment is very small and its unit is Bohr magneton µB ,
atom. The atomic orbitals of metal atoms form
molecular orbitals which are too close in terms of which is equal to 9.27 × 10 −24 A m2.
energy to each other such that it forms a band. On the basis of magnetic properties, substances can be
l
The distinction between conductors (metals), classified into five categories :
semiconductor and insulator is shown below : 27. Paramagnetic Substances Paramagnetic substances
are weakly attracted by the external magnetic field and
Empty Conduction band
this property is called paramagnetism. These are
band (Empty band)
magnetised in a magnetic field in the same direction
Small
energy and they lose their magnetism in the absence of
Forbidden zone
magnetic field. They have one or more unpaired
Energy
gap (Large energy gap)

Valence band electrons, e.g. O 2, Fe 3+ , Cr 3+ , Cu 2+ , etc.
Filled band
(Filled band)
Partially filled Overlapped 28. Diamagnetic Substances Diamagnetic substances are
band bands
weakly repelled by an external magnetic field and this
(i) Metal (ii) Semiconductor (iii) Insulator
property is called diamagnetism. These are weakly
Distinction among (i) metals (ii) semiconductors
magnetised in a magnetic field in opposite direction.
and (iii) insulators
Such substances possesses all the paired electrons.
22. Conduction of Electricity by Semiconductors e.g. NaCl, H 2O, TiO 2 , C 6H 6, etc.
l
Electrical conductivity of semiconductors increases 29. Ferromagnetic Substances Ferromagnetic substances
with rise in temperature because more electrons can are strongly attracted by the external magnetic field and
this property is called ferromagnetism. These 31. Ferrimagnetic Substances In ferrimagnetic substances,
substances can be permanently magnetised. When the magnetic moments of the domains are aligned in
such a substance is placed in a magnetic field all the parallel and antiparallel directions in unequal number,
domains get oriented in the direction of the magnetic the net magnetic moment is small. Thus, ferrimagnetic
field and a strong magnetic effect is produced.
substances are weakly attracted by magnetic field than
e.g. Fe, Co, Ni, Gd, CrO 2, etc.
ferromagnetic substances and this property is called
30. Anti-ferromagnetic These substances have domain ferrimagnetism. They also lose ferrimagnetism on
structure similar to ferromagnetic substances but almost heating and become paramagnetic. e.g. Fe 3 O 4 and
half number of domains is oppositely oriented and thus
ferrites like ZnFe 2O 4 and MgFe 2O 4.
cancel out each others magnetic moment. e.g. MnO.
Practice Questions
1. All the metallic elements like iron, copper; 6. Which primitive unit cell has unequal edge lengths
non-metallic elements like sulphur, iodine and ( a ≠ b ≠ c) and all axial angles different from 90°?
compounds like NaCl, ZnS form (a) Hexagonal (b) Monoclinic
(a) amorphous solids (b) crystalline solids (c) Tetragonal (d) Triclinic
(c) polycrystalline solis (d) Both (b) and (c) 7. In a face centred cubic lattice, atom A occupies the
2. Some of the physical properties of crystalline solids corner positions and atom B occupies the face centre
like refractive index show different values on positions. If one atom of B is missing from one of the
measuring along different directions in the same face centred points, the formula of the compound is
crystals. This property is called (a) A 2 B (b) AB2
(a) isotropy (b) cleavage property (c) A 2 B2 (d) A 2 B 5
(c) anisotropy (d) None of these 8. The number of octahedral void(s) per atom present at
3. The lattice points of a crystal of hydrogen iodide are a cubic close packed structure is
occupied by (a) 1 (b) 3 (c) 2 (d) 4
(a) HI molecules 9. A compound is formed by cation C and anion A. The
(b) H atoms and I atoms anions form hexagonal close packed (hcp) lattice and
(c) H + cations and I − anions the cations occupy 75% of octahedral voids.
(d) H2 molecules and I2 molecules The formula of the compound is
4. Identify the type of crystal system of the following (a) C 3 A2 (b) C 3 A4
( A ) KNO 3 ; ( B ) CaCO 3 ; (C ) CaSO 4 ; (c) C 4 A3 (d) C 2 A3
( D ) CuSO 4 ⋅ 5H 2O 10. In a crystalline solid, having formula XY 2O 4 , oxide
(a) A-Cubic; B-Triclinic; C-Hexagonal; D-Rhombohedral ions are arranged in cubic close packed lattice, while
(b) A-Tetragonal; B-Monoclinic; C-Triclinic; D-Hexagonal
cations X are present in tetrahedral voids and cations
(c) A-Orthorhombic; B-Trigonal; C-Tetragonal; D-Triclinic
Y are present in octahedral voids. The percentage of
(d) A-Rhombohedral; B-Hexagonal; C-Trigonal;
D-Orthorhombic
tetrahedral voids occupied by X is
(a) 12.5% (b) 25% (c) 50% (d) 75%
5. In which of the following structure unit cell shows the
triclinic structure? 11. Element ‘B ’ forms ccp structure and ‘A ’ occupies
half of the octahedral voids, while oxygen atoms
γ c
occupy all the tetrahedral voids. The structure of
bimetallic oxide is
(a) α (b) (a) A2BO4 (b) AB2O4
β
b (c) A2B2O (d) A4B2O
a 12. Sodium metal crystallises in a body centred cubic
°
lattice with a unit cell edge of 4.29 A. The radius of
sodium atom is approximately
(c) (d) (a) 1.86 Å (b) 3.22 Å
(c) 5.72 Å (d) 0.93 Å
Chemistry 7
13. Which of the following is correct order of packing Cs  Cs internuclear distance is equal to length of the
efficiency? side of the cube corresponding to volume of one CsCl
(a) hcp = fcc > bcc > sc (b) sc > bcc > hcp = fcc ion pair. The smallest Cs to Cs internuclear distance
(c) bcc > sc > hcp < fcc (d) fcc = hcp > sc > bcc is nearly
(a) 4.4 Å (b) 4.3 Å (c) 4 Å (d) 4.5 Å
14. Which of the following is the ratio of packing density
of fcc, bcc and simple cubic structures ? 20. Which kind of defect is shown by the given crystal?
(a) 0.92 : 0.70 : 1 (b) 0.70 : 0.92 : 1
(c) 1 : 0.92 : 0.70 (d) 1 : 0.70 : 0.92
15. A metal has bcc structure and the edge length of its
unit cell is 3.04 Å. The volume of the unit cell in cm 3
will be
(a) Schottky defect
(a) 1.6 × 10−21 cm3 (b) 2.81 × 10−23 cm3
(b) Frenkel defect
(c) 6.02 × 10−23 cm3 (d) 6.6 × 10−24 cm3 (c) Both Schottky and Frenkel defects
(d) Substitution disorder
16. An atom forms face centred cubic crystal with density
d = 892 . × 10 −8 cm. The
. g / mL and edge length a = 36 21. Which of the following compounds is likely to show
molecular mass of atom in amu is both Frenkel and Schottky defects in its crystalline
form?
(a) 98 amu (b) 63 amu
(a) AgBr (b) CsCl (c) KBr (d) ZnS
(c) 32 amu (d) 93 amu
22. Electrical conductivity of semiconductors increases
17. Iron exhibits bcc structure at room temperature.
with increase in
Above 900°C , it transforms to fcc structure. The ratio
(a) temperature (b) pressure
of density of iron at room temperature to that at
(c) volume (d) None of these
900°C (assuming molar mass and atomic radii of iron
remains constant with temperature) is 23. Which of the following has the highest value of
3 3 4 3 3 1 energy gap?
(a) (b) (c) (d) (a) Aluminium (b) Silver
4 2 3 2 2 2
(c) Germanium (d) Diamond
18. The cubic unit cell of Al (molar mass 27 g mol −1 ) has 24. Which type of magnetic behaviour is exhibited by
an edge length of 405 pm. Its density is 2.7 g cm –3 . MgFe 2O 4 is ?
The cubic unit cell is (a) Diamagnetic (b) Paramagnetic
(a) face centred (b) body centred (c) Ferromagnetic (d) Ferrimagnetic
(c) primitive (d) edge centred
25. Which one is not a ferroelectric compound?
19. Volume occupied by single CsCl ion pair in a crystal
(a) KH2PO4 (b) K 4[Fe(CN)6 ]
is 7.014 × 10 −23 cm 3 . The smallest Cs  Cs
(c) Rochelle salt (d) BaTiO3
ANSWERS
1. (b) 2. (c) 3. (a) 4. (c) 5. (a) 6. (d) 7. (d) 8. (a) 9. (b) 10. (a)
11. (b) 12. (a) 13. (a) 14. (c) 15. (b) 16. (b) 17. (a) 18. (a) 19. (c) 20. (a)
21. (a) 22. (a) 23. (d) 24. (d) 25. (b)
Hints & Solutions

1. (b) Most of the solid substances are crystalline in nature. For Since, the formula shows the presence of 4 oxide ions, the
example, all the metallic elements like iron, copper and silver, number of tetrahedral voids is eight and that of octahedral voids
non-metallic elements like sulphur, phosphorus and iodine and is four. Out of the eight tetrahedral voids, one is occupied by X .
compounds like sodium chloride, zinc sulphide and naphthalene ∴ Percentage of tetrahedral voids occupied
form crystalline solids. 1
= × 100 = 12.5%
8
3. (a) Since, HI is a covalent molecule, so HI molecules are
present at the lattice points of the crystal. 11. (b) The number of element ‘B ’ in the crystal structure = 4N
4. (c) (A) KNO3 — Orthorhombic Number of tetrahedral voids = 2N
(B) CaCO3 — Trigonal Number of octahedral voids = N
(C) CaSO4 — Tetragonal N 4
∴Number of ‘A’ in the crystal = = =2
(D) CuSO4 ⋅ 5H2O — Triclinic 2 2
5. (a) Fig. (a) represents structure of triclinic crystal system as, a Number of oxygen (O) atoms = 2N = 2 × 4 = 8
≠ b ≠ c and α ≠ β ≠ γ ≠ 90 °. ∴The structure of bimetallic oxide = A2 B4 O8
Whereas, the structures in option (b), (c) and (d) represents = AB2 O4
end-centred body centred and face-centred cubic.
12. (a) Given, Na metal crystallises in bcc unit cell with unit cell
6. (d) Triclinic primitive unit cell has dimensions as, a ≠ b ≠ c and edge, a = 4.29Å
α ≠ β ≠ γ ≠ 90° .
3
Among the seven basic or primitive crystalline systems, the We have the formula for radius, r = ×a
4
triclinic system is most unsymmetrical. In other cases, edge
3
length and axial angles are given as follows : = × 4.29 Å = 1.86 Å
4
Hexagonal : a = b ≠ c and α = β = 90°, γ = 120°
13. (a) Packing efficiency for :
Monoclinic : a ≠ b ≠ c and α = γ = 90°, β ≠ 90°
Hexagonal close packing (hcp) = 74%
Tetragonal : a ≠ b ≠ c and α = β = γ = 90°
Face-centered cubic close packing (fcc) = 74%
7. (d) Number of effective A atoms Body centered cubic close packing (bcc) = 68%
= 8 corners × 1/ 8 per corner atom share and simple cubic (sc) = 52%
= 1atoms/unit cell Thus, correct order of packing efficiency is :
Number of atoms on faces of a cube = 6 atoms hcp = fcc > bcc > sc
If one B atom is missing from one face, Hence, option (a) is the correct.
number of B atoms left = 5
14. (c) Packing fraction in fcc, bcc and sc are 0.74, 0.68, and 0.52
∴Number of effective B atoms respectively.
5
= 5 faces × 1/ 2 per face atom share = per unit cell 0.74 0.68 0.52
2 Ratio = : : = 1 : 0.92 : 0.70
0.74 0.74 0.74
The formula of the compound is A2 B 5.
15. (b) Edge length, a = 3.04 Å = 3.04 × 10−8 cm
8. (a) Number of octahedral voids = Number of atoms in the
close packed structure Volume of bcc unit cell = a3
Since, number of atom = 1; Therefore, number of octahedral = (3.04 × 10−8 )3 = 2.81 × 10−23 cm 3
void = 1
16. (b) Given,
9. (b) Anions ( A ) form hexagonal close packed (hcp) lattice, so Density (d ) = 8.92 g/ mL
Number of anions ( A ) = 6
Edge length (a) = 3.6 × 10−8 cm ⇒ Z = 4 (fcc)
Number of octahedral voids
The molecular mass of atom in a lattice can be calculated by
= Number of atoms in the close packed structure = 6.
using the formula,
Cations (C ) occupy 75% of octahedral voids, Z ×M
75 d=
so number of cations (C ) = 6 × = 6 × 3/ 4 = 9/ 2 N 0 a3
100
∴ The formula of compound = C 9/ 2 A6 = C 9 A12 = C 3 A4 dN 0 a3
∴ M =
10. (a) In a cubic close packed lattice of oxide ions, there would be Z
two tetrahedral and one octahedral void per oxide ion.
Chemistry 9
8.92 × 6.023 × 1023 × (3.6)3 × (10−8 )3 Z × 27

M = 2.7 = −10 3
4 (405 × 10 ) × 6.022 × 1023
M = 62.6 ≈ 63 amu 2.7 × (405) × 10−30 × 6.022 × 1023
3
Z×M Z= =4
17. (a) Density of unit cell, d = 27
N A × a3 For face centred cubic unit cell, number of atoms are 4.
where, Z = number of atoms per unit cell 19. (c) Volume, V = 7.014 × 10−23 cm 3
M = Molar mass As smallest Cs to Cs internuclear distance is equal to length of
a3 = Volume of unit cell [a = edge length] the side of the cube, i.e. a, therefore,
N A = Avogadro’s number = 6.022 × 1023 a3 = 7.014 × 10−23 cm 3

a = 7.014 × 10−23 cm 3
3
3a 4r or
For bcc, Z = 2, radius (r) = ⇒ a=
4 3 = 4.125 × 10−8 = 4.12Å ≈ 4Å
a
For fcc, Z = 4 , r = ⇒ a = 2 2r 20. (a) In the given crystal structure, equal number of cations and
2 2
anions are missing (two K+ and two Cl − ) from their normal
 ZM 
  lattice sites and the crystal maintains its electrical neutrality.
 N a3 
d room temp.  A  bcc Hence, this is Schottky defect..
According to question, =
d900° C  ZM  21. (a) AgBr shows both Schottky and Frenkel defects. Because
 
 N a3  r
 A  fcc the + (radius of cation and radius of anion) ratio in AgBr is not
r−
On substituting the given values, we get
very large or not very small.
d room temp. 2×M 4×M r+
= 3 (AgCl shows only Schottky defect due to greater value of ,
d900° C  4r  N A × (2 2r)3 r−
NA × 
 3 whereas AgI shows only Frenkel defect due to smaller value of
[Q Given, M and r of iron remains r+
).
constant with temperature] r−
2×3 3 16 2r3
= 3
× 22. (a) Electrical conductivity of semiconductors increases with
64 r 4 increase in temperature since electrons can jump to the
d bcc 3 3 conduction band by absorbing energy.
=
d fcc 4 2 23. (d) Diamond has the highest value of energy gap as it is an
insulator.
Z×M
18. (a) Density (d ) = 25. (b) K4[Fe(CN) 6 ] is not a ferroelectric compound.
a3 × N A
It is a diamagnetic substance.
CHAPTER 02
Solutions
1. A solution is a homogeneous mixture of two or more Normality × equivalent weight
substances whose composition can be varied within = Molarity × molecular weight
certain limits. l
Molality (m) is defined as the number of moles of the
2. Expression of concentration Composition of a solution solute per kilogram of the solvent.
can be described by expressing its concentration. Moles of solute
Molality =
Several ways to describe the concentration of the Mass of solvent (in kg)
solution quantitatively are as follows :
(Molality, mole fraction, mass fraction, etc. are preferred
l
Percentage by mass (w / w ) over molarity, normality, etc. because they are
Mass of component in the solution
= × 100 temperature independent).
Total mass of the solution
3. Solubility of a substance is its maximum amount that
l
Percentage by volume (V / V ) can be dissolved (in a specified amount of solvent) at a
Volume of the component specified temperature. It depends upon the nature of
= × 100
Total volume of solution solute and solvent at a specified temperature and
l
Parts per million (ppm) pressure.
Number of parts of the component 4. Henry’s law states that, the partial pressure of the gas (
= × 10 6
Total number of parts of all components p) is proportional to the mole fraction of the gas (χ) in
of the solution the solution.
l
Mole fraction (χ ) is the ratio of number of moles of Mathematically, it is expressed as
one component to the total number of moles of all the p ∝ χ or p = KH χ
components present in the solution. where, KH is called Henry’s law constant.
Mole fraction of solute, Higher the value of KH at a particular temperature, lower
n(solute) is the solubility of the gas in the liquid.
χ (solute) =
n(solute) + n(solvent) Solubility of gas decreases with increase in temperature.
It is independent of temperature. This is the reason that aquatic species are more
For a given solution, sum of mole fractions of all the comfortable in cold water rather than in warm water.
components of a solution is unity, i.e. 5. The pressure exerted by the vapours above the liquid
surface in equilibrium with the liquid at a given
χ 1 + χ 2 + ... + χ i = 1
temperature is called vapour pressure.
l
Molarity (M) is defined as the number of moles of 6. Raoult’s law states that at a given temperature, for a
solute dissolved in one litre or one cubic decimetre of solution of volatile liquids, the partial vapour pressure of
the solution. each component of the solution is directly proportional
Moles of solute
Molarity = to its mole fraction present in solution, i.e. p1 ∝ χ 1 and
Volume of solution (in L)
p1 = p1°χ 1.
l
Normality (N )
Number of gram − equivalent of solute For a solution of two miscible components, 1 and 2,
= p total = p1 + p2 = p°1 χ 1 + p°2 χ 2
Volume of solution (in L)
As we know, χ 1 + χ 2 = 1 or χ 1 = 1 − χ 2,
where,
mass of solute ( W ) ptotal = p°1 + ( p°2 − p°1 ) χ 2
g-equivalents =
equivalent weight of solute (E )
Chemistry 11
7. Solutions obeying Raoult’s law over a entire range of from pure solvent to the solution and osmotic
concentration are called ideal solutions and those do pressure of the solution (π ) is the pressure that just
stops the flow of solvent.
not obey this law are called non-ideal solutions.
W RT
For positive deviation, π = CRT ⇒ π = 2 (C = Molarity)
VM2
A B interaction< A  A or B B interactions
e.g. CS 2 + acetone, acetone +benzene. 10. Isotonic solutions are the solutions having same osmotic
For negative deviation, pressure at a given temperature. In case of two solutions
A B interaction > A A or B  B interactions of different osmotic pressures, the solution with higher
e.g. chloroform + acetone, chloroform + benzene. osmotic pressure is called hypertonic solution and that
with lower osmotic pressure is called hypotonic solution.
8. Azeotropes are binary mixtures having same composition
in liquid and vapour phase and boil at constant 11. Phenomena on the basis of osmosis People taking a lot
temperature. There are two types of azeotropes which are: of salt or salty food experience
water retention in tissue cells and intercellular
l
Minimum boiling azeotropes These solutions show
spaces because of osmosis. This resulting
positive deviation from Raoult’s law, e.g. ethanol-water
puffiness or swelling is called edema.
mixture.
12. In reverse osmosis, the solvent flows from solution side
l
Maximum boiling azeotropes These solutions show
towards pure solvent, if external pressure is higher than
large negative deviation from Raoult’s law, e.g. nitric
osmotic pressure applied on solution side. It is used for
acid-water mixture.
desalination of sea water. Solvent moves from solution
9. The properties of solutions which depend only on the to pure solvent side.
number of solute particles, not on the nature of the
13. Molar masses that are either lower or higher than the
solute particles are known as colligative properties. calculated (expected) or normal value are called
These properties are as follows: abnormal molar masses.
l
Relative lowering of vapour pressure in an ideal 14. van’t Hoff factor (i ) is defined as the ratio of the
solution containing the non-volatile solute is equal to experimental or observed value of the colligative property
the mole fraction of the solute at a given temperature. to the calculated value of the colligative property.
Observed colligative property
∆p1 p1° − p1 p1° − p1 W2M1 or i=
χ2 = = or = Calculated colligative property
p1° p1° p1° W1M2
Normal molar mass
i=
Here, component number (1) is solvent and Abnormal molar mass
component number (2) is solute, W1 and W2 are the In case of association/dissociation, i is also introduced
masses and M1 and M2 are the molar masses of the in the formula of colligative properties. These are as
solvent and solute, respectively. follows :
l
Elevation of boiling point (∆Tb ) (Ebullioscopy) is the i.e. ∆Tb = iK b ⋅ m; ∆Tf = iK f ⋅ m
difference in the boiling points of the solution (Tb ) and p°1 − p1
pure solvent (T b° ). It depends on the number of solute π = iCRT and = i χ solute
p°1
particles rather than on their nature.
∆Tb = Tb − T b° 15. Degree of Dissociation/Association (α) and van’t Hoff
Experimentally, ∆Tb ∝ m or ∆Tb = K b ⋅ m Factor (i)
W × 1000 α = degree of dissociation/association
∴ ∆Tb = K b × 2
M2 × W1 i −1
l
Degree of dissociation α =
K b = molal boiling point elevation constant or n −1
ebullioscopic constant (in K kg mol −1). n = number of particles per molecules.
i −1
l
Depression in freezing point (∆Tf ) (Cryoscopy) is the l
Degree of association α =
1 
decrease in the freezing point of solution when  − 1
non-volatile solute is dissolve in it. n 
Thus, ∆Tf = Tf° −Tf i = 1, for non electrolytes; i > 1, for dissociation; i < 1,
W × 1000 for association.
or ∆Tf = K f × m = K f × 2
M2 × W1 16. Some Important Facts
l
Intramolecular H-bonding lowers boiling point.
where, m = molality and K f = freezing point depression
constant or cryoscopic constant (K kg mol −1). Benzoic acid and acetic acid dimerises in benzene.
l
l
When egg is kept in saturated salt solution after
l
Osmosis is a process which involves the flow of
removing the hard shell using dil. HCl, egg will shrink
solvent molecules through a semipermeable membrane
due to osmosis.
l
CaCl 2 acts as a non-volatile solute and results l
Camphor is used for molecular mass determination
depression in freezing point. Thus, snow is reduced due to its volatile nature.
(as it melts) and prevents blocking of roads in cold l
To increase the solubility of CO 2 in soft drinks, the
region. bottle is sealed under high pressure.
l
Ethylene glycol is mixed with radiator water to l
Helium-oxygen mixture is used by deep sea divers
decrease the freezing point of water in cold region. because of its low solubility in blood.
Practice Questions
1. If two bottles A and B contain 1 M and 1 m aqueous pressure is 1 atm and mole fraction of nitrogen is
solution of sulphuric acid respectively, 0.78. [K H for nitrogen = 8.42 × 10 −7 M/mm Hg]
(a) A is more concentrated than B (a) 4.99 M (b) 4.99 × 10−2 M
(b) B is more concentrated than A (c) 4.99 × 10−4 M (d) None of these
(c) concentration of A is equal to concentration of B
(d) it is not possible to compare the concentration 7. The solubility of N 2 in water at 300 K and 500 torr
2. What is the percentage of solute in the resultant partial pressure is 0.01g L−1 . The solubility in
solution, if it is obtained by mixing 300g of 30% and (g L−1 ) at 750 torr partial pressure is
200g of 20% solution by weight? (a) 0.02 (b) 0.015 (c) 0.0075 (d) 0.005
(a) 50% (b) 26%
(c) 62% (d) 32% 8. When a binary solution of two volatile liquids is
taken in a closed vessel, then
3. What is the molarity of K + in aqueous solution that (a) Both the components would evaporate and an
contains 17.4 ppm of K 2SO 4 equilibrium would be established between vapour phase
(Molar mass =174 g mol −1 ) ? and liquid phase
(a) 2 × 10−2 M (b) 2 × 10−3 M (b) Both the components would evaporate but equilibrium
(c) 4 × 10−4M (d) 2 × 10−4M would not be established between vapour phase and
liquid phase
4. A 5.2 molal aqueous solution of methyl alcohol, (c) None of components would evaporate and no
CH 3OH is supplied. What is the mole fraction of equilibrium would be established between vapour phase and
methyl alcohol in the solution? liquid phase
(a) 1.100 (b) 0.090 (d) None of the above
(c) 0.086 (d) 0.050 9. The following diagram shows the vapour pressure
5. For a solution of gases in a solvent, consider a system curves for CH 3 F, CH 3OH, CH 3COOH and HCHO
as shown below : I
Vapour pressure
W1 II
W1 W2 W3 III
IV
Piston
T
Beaker A Beaker B
Curves I, II, III and IV respectively are
Which of the following beaker will have the greater
(a) CH3F; HCHO; CH3OH; CH3COOH
solubility of a gas?
(b) CH3COOH; CH3OH; CH3F; HCHO
(a) Beaker B
(c) HCHO; CH3F; CH 3OH; CH3COOH
(b) Beaker A (d) CH3OH; CH3COOH; HCHO; CH3F
(c) Both will have same solubility
(d) Solubility remains unaffected by change in weights. 10. Raoult’s law becomes a special case of Henry’s law,
when
6. Calculate the concentration of nitrogen present in the
(a) K H = pi° (b) K H > pi°
water. Assuming that, the temperature is 25°C, total
(c) K H < pi° (d) K H ≥ pi°
Chemistry 13
11. At 300 K two pure liquids A and B have 150 mm Hg (b) it depends on number of particles of electrolytic solute
and 100 mm Hg vapour pressures, respectively. In an in solution as well as on the nature of the solute
particles
equimolar liquid mixture of A and B, the mole
(c) it depends on the concentration of a non-electrolyte
fraction of B in the vapour mixture at this temperature
solute in solution as well as on the nature of the solute
is molecules
(a) 0.6 (b) 0.5 (d) it depends on the concentration of an electrolyte or
(c) 0.8 (d) 0.4 non-electrolyte solute in solution as well as on the
12. The vapour pressure of pure CHCl 3 and CH 2 Cl 2 are nature of solute molecules
19. At room temperature, a dilute solution of urea is
200 and 41.5 atm respectively. The weight of CHCl 3 prepared by dissolving 0.60 g of urea in 360 g of
and CH 2Cl 2 are respectively 11.9 g and 17 g. water. If the vapour pressure of pure water at this
The vapour pressure of solution will be temperature is 35 mm Hg, lowering of vapour
(a) 80.5 atm (b) 79.5 atm (c) 94.3 atm (d) 105.5 atm pressure will be (Molar mass of urea = 60 g mol −1 )
13. For an ideal solution, the correct option is (a) 0.027 mm Hg (b) 0.031 mm Hg
(a) ∆ mix V ≠ 0 at constant T and p (c) 0.017 mm Hg (d) 0.028 mm Hg
(b) ∆ mix H = 0 at constant T and p 20. Vapour pressure of pure benzene is 119 torr and that
(c) ∆ mix G = 0 at constant T and p of toluene is 37.0 torr at the same temperature.
(d) ∆ mix S = 0 at constant T and p Mole fraction of toluene in vapour phase which is
14. For a binary ideal liquid solution, the variation in in equilibrium with solution of benzene and toluene
total vapour pressure versus composition of solution having a mole fraction of toluene 0.50, will be
is given by which of the curves? (a) 0.137 (b) 0.237
(c) 0.435 (d) 0.205
21. Ethylene glycol is used as an antifreeze in a cold
(a) p (b) p climate. Mass of ethylene glycol which should be
added to 4 kg of water to prevent it from freezing at
χ2
χ1
χ2
χ1 . K kg mol −1 and
−6° C will be (K f for water =186
molar mass of ethylene glycol = 62 g mol −1 )
(a) 804.32 g (b) 204.30 g
(c) p (d) Both (a) and (b)
(c) 400.00 g (d) 304.60 g
χ1 22. Osmotic pressure method is used to determine

χ2 molar mass of protein, macromolecules like polymers,
15. The solution which show large positive deviation biomolecules etc., because
from Raoult’s law form (a) osmotic pressure is measured at room temperature
(a) maximum boiling azeotrope at a specific composition. (b) osmotic pressure depends upon molality
(b) maximum freezing azeotrope at a specific composition. (c) these are not stable at higher temperature and have poor
solubility
(c) minimum boiling azeotrope at a specific composition.
(d) minimum freezing azeotrope at a specific composition.
23. The van’t Hoff factor (i) for a compound which
16. The examples of minimum boiling azeotropes are
undergoes dissociation in one solvent and association
(a) aniline + acetone (b) acetic acid + pyridine
in other solvent is respectively
(c) HCl + water (d) cyclohexane + ethanol
(a) greater than one and greater than one
17. The solution that forms maximum boiling azeotrope is (b) less than one and greater than one
(a) carbon disulphide − acetone (c) less than one and less than one
(b) benzene − toluene (d) greater than one and less than one
(c) acetone − chloroform
24. If boiling point of water is 100°C. How much gram of
(d) n-hexane − n-heptane
NaCl is added in 500 g of water to increase its boiling
18. Relative lowering of vapour pressure is a colligative point by approx 1°C? [( K b ) H O = 0.52 K kg mol −1 ]
2
property because
(a) 2.812 g (b) 28.12 g
(a) it depends on the concentration of a non-electrolyte
solute in solution and does not depend on the nature of (c) 14.06 g (d) 7.03 g
the solute molecules
25. The osmotic pressure of a dilute solution of an ionic (a) 4 × 10−2

compound XY in water is four times that of a solution (b) 16 × 10−4
of 0.01 M BaCl 2 in water. Assuming complete
(c) 4 × 10−4
dissociation of the given ionic compounds in water,
the concentration of XY (in mol L −1 ) in solution is (d) 6 × 10−2
ANSWERS
1. (b) 2. (b) 3. (d) 4. (c) 5. (a) 6. (c) 7. (b) 8. (a) 9. (a) 10. (a)
11. (d) 12. (c) 13. (b) 14. (d) 15. (c) 16. (d) 17. (c) 18. (a) 19. (c) 20. (b)
21. (a) 22. (c) 23. (d) 24. (b) 25. (d)
Hints & Solutions

1. (b) 1 M H2SO4 means 1 mole of H2SO4 dissolved in 1000 cc of n1 5.2
∴ χ CH = = = 0.086
solution, whereas 1 m H2SO4 means 1 mole of
3OH n1 + n2 60.76
H2SO4 dissolved in 1000 g of water. 5. (a) Beaker B will have greater solubility of a gas in liquid than
Total volume of 1 m solution will be greater than 1000 cc due to Beaker A. This is because, solubility of a gas in liquid directly
extra mole of H2SO4. Hence, number of moles per 1000 ccwill be proportional to the pressure of a gas.
less than 1 mole. On increasing the weight over the piston, the pressure over the
Thus, bottle B containing 1 m aqueous solution is more solution phase increases.
concentrated than bottle A containing 1 M aqueous solution.
6. (c) pN = χ N × p total [Q 1 atm = 760 mmHg]
2. (b) Solute in 300 g of 30% solution = 90 g
2 2
pN = 0.78 × 1 atm
Solute in 200 g of 20% solution = 40 g 2
= 0.78 × 760 mm = 592.8 mm
Total grams of solute = 130 g
Concentration in solution
Total grams of solution = 300 + 200 = 500 g
= K H × pN
130 2
% of solute in the final solution = × 100 = 26%
500 = 8.42 × 10−7 M (mm )−1 × 592.8 mm
3. (d) K2SO4 is 17.4 ppm, i.e. 106 mL has 17.4 g K2SO4 = 4.99 × 10−4 M
p1 S1
17.4 × 103 7. (b) According to Henry’s law, =
1 L (103 mL) has K2SO4 = = 0.0174 g/L p2 S 2
106
0.0174 [p1 and p2 are partial pressures and S1 and S 2 are solubilities]
= mol/L 500 0.01
174 ⇒ =
750 S 2
∴ [ K2SO4 ] = 1 × 10−4 M
750 × 0.01
⇒ S2 = = 0.015g L−1
K2SO4 q 2K+ + SO42− 500
∴ [ K+ ] = 2 × 10−4 M 8. (a) When a binary solution of two volatile liquids is taken in a
closed vessel, then both the components get evaporated and
4. (c) Given, molality = 5.2 m finally a state of equilibrium is established between the vapour
Number of moles of solute and liquid phase.
∴ Molality =
Mass of solvent (in kg) The total pressure in this case is the sum of the partial pressure
∴ Number of moles of methyl alcohol of each component.
= 5.2 m × 1 kg [Q 1kg = 1000 g] 9. (a) The vapour pressure increases with decrease in
n1 (CH3OH) = 5.2, intermolecular interactions. Moreover, lesser the intermolecular
1000 forces, more is the volatility and, hence higher vapour pressure
n2 (H2O) = = 55.56 at a given temperature. Therefore, CH3F has highest vapour
18
∴ n1 + n2 = 5.20 + 55.56 = 60.76 mol pressure, while CH3COOH has lowest vapour pressure. Thus,
option (a) is correct.
Chemistry 15
10. (a) According to Raoult’s law, the vapour pressure of a volatile 16. (d) In cyclohexane and ethanol, the intermolecular interactions
component in a given solution is are weaker than those between cyclohexane-cyclohexane and
pi = pi° χ i ethanol-ethanol. Therefore, shows positive deviation from
Raoult’s law and hence forms minimum boiling azeotropes.
If in the solution of a gas in liquid, the volatile component exists
as a gas, then according to Henry’s law, 17. (c) Solution which show negative deviation from Raoult’s law
are called maximum boiling azeotrope. Hence, acetone and
p = KHχ
chloroform forms maximum boiling azeotrope.
Therefore, Raoult’s law becomes a special case of Henry’s law
18. (a) Relative lowering of vapour pressure is a colligative
when K H becomes equal to pi° .
property because
11. (d) In equimolar liquid mixture, (i) it does not depend upon nature of solute.
χ A = 0.5, χB = 0.5 (ii) it depends upon number of solute particles.
p= (iii) it depends upon concentration of non-electrolyte solution.
Q Aχ A
p° + pB° χ B
19. (c) Given,
So, p = 0.5 × 150 + 0.5 × 100 = 125
p° = vapour pressure of pure water of 25°C
Now, let YB be the mole fraction of vapour B then
= 35 mm Hg
χ B p°B 0.5 × 100 χ B = mole fraction of solute (urea)
YB = = = 0.4
p 125 0.60
nB 60
12. (c) Given, = =
Vapour pressure of pure CHCl 3[ p1 ] and CH2Cl 2[ p2 ] = 200 atm nA + nB 360 0.60
+
and 41.5 atm respectively. Weight (w1 ) of CHCl 3 and 18 60
0.01
CH2Cl 2(w2) =11.9 g and 17g respectively. Molar mass of =
CHCl 3(M1) and CH2Cl 2(M 2) =119 g mol −1 and 85 g mol −1 20 + 0.01
0.01
119
. = = 0.0005
respectively. Thus, number of moles (n) of CHCl 3 = = 01
. 20.01
119 i = van’t Hoff factor = 1(for urea)
mol
Now, according to Raoult’s law
17 ∆p = χ B × i × p°
Number of moles of CH2Cl 2 = = 0.2 mol
85 On substituting the above given values, we get
∴ ptotal = p1χ 1 + p2χ 2 ∆p = 0.0005 × 1 × 35 = 0.0175 mm Hg
20. (b) Given : pB° = 119 torr
n 01
.
χ1 = 1 = = 0.33
nT 0.3
pT° = 37 torr
n2 0.2
χ2 = = = 0.66
nT 0.3 χ T = 0.50
From Raoult’s law, for ideal solution
pTotal = 200 × 0.33 + 415
. × 0.66
= 94.33 atm p = p°B χ B + p°T χ T [ B = benzene, T = toluene]
13. (b) Ideal solutions are those which obey Raoult’s law over all = 119 × 0.5 + 37 × 0.5 [Q χ B = 1 − χ T ]
concentration ranges at a given temperature, = 59.5 + 18.5
e.g. benzene-toluene, n-hexane-n-heptane, etc. = 78 torr
For an ideal solution, ∴ Mole fraction of toluene in vapour phase
∆V mix = 0, ∆H mix = 0, p° χ 18.5
( yT )V = T T = = 0.237
∆G mix < 0, ∆S mix > 0. p 78
14. (d) Depending on the vapour pressures of the pure components 1 21. (a) Given, w2 = 4 kg = 4000 g
and 2, total vapour pressure over the solution decreases or
increases with the increase of the mole fraction of component 1. . K kg mol −1
K f = 186
Thus, the variation in total vapour pressure versus composition
M 2 = 62 g/mol
of solution is given by then curves given in option (a) and (b).
∆T f = 0° − (−6° C) = 6° C
15. (c) The solution which shows large positive deviation from
Raoult’s law forms minimum boiling azeotrope at a specific As we know that,
composition. 1000 × K f × w1
∆T f =
e.g. ether-acetone, ethanol-water etc. M 2 × w1
1000 × 1.86 × w1 25. (d) Concentration of BaCl 2 = 0.01 M (Given)

6=
62 × 4000
π XY = 4 π BaCl (Given)
6 × 62 × 4000
w1 =
2
1000 × 1.86 i × CRT = 4 × i × CRT

For the calculation of i,
⇒ w1 = 800 g ≈ 804.32 g
XY → X + + Y − (Here, i = 2)
23. (d) In case of dissociation, van’t Hoff factor i > 1and
in case of association, van’t Hoff factor i < 1. −
BaCl 2 → Ba 2+
+ 2Cl (Here, i = 3)
24. (b) Given, ∆Tb = 1° C and M (NaCl) = 58.5 g/mol Putting the values of i in (i)
K b(H2O) = 0.52 K kg mol −1 2 × [ XY ] = 4 × 3 × [ BaCl 2 ]
For NaCl, n = 2 and wsolvent = 500 g 2 × [ XY ] = 12 × 0.01
w (solute) 12 × 0.01
1000 [ XY ] =
Thus, ∆Tb = i × K b × × 2
M (solute) w(solvent)
So, the concentration of XY = 0.06 mol L −1
w 1000
1 = 2 × 0.52 × × = 6 × 10−2 mol L −1
58.5 500
58.5 × 500
w= = 28125
. g
2 × 0.52 × 1000
CHAPTER 03
Electrochemistry
1. Cells are the devices in which interconversion of M n+ (aq ) + ne − → M(s) is:
RT [M ]
electrical energy and chemical energy takes place. It is E n+ = E° n+ − ln
of two basic types:
( M /M ) ( M / M) nF [ M n+ ]
For a general electrochemical reaction of the type
(i) Electrochemical cell
ne −
(ii) Electrolytic cell aA + bB → cC + dD
2. An electrochemical cell is a device in which chemical The Nernst equation can be written as
energy of the redox reaction is converted into electrical
RT
energy. e.g. Daniell cell E(cell) = E(cell)
s
− ln Q
nF
3. While writing a cell, the anode is written on the left and
the cathode on the right. A vertical line separates the RT [C ]c [D ]d
E(cell) = E(cell)
s
− ln
metal from the metal ion (electrolyte solution) and a nF [ A]a[B]b
double vertical line indicates a salt-bridge which is
In general, at equilibrium,
written between the two half-cells (two electrolytes).
Ecell = 0
The Daniell cell is represented as :
Zn (s) | Zn 2 +(aq ) || Cu 2 +(aq ) | Cu (s) 2.303 RT
s
E(cell) = log KC
4. The electrode potential under the conditions of unit nF
concentration at 25°C of all the species in the half-cell is
called the standard electrode potential and the 8. Gibb’s energy of the reaction The emf of a cell is
electrodes of known potential is known as reference related to the Gibb’s free energy ∆ rG s as
electrode, e.g. standard hydrogen electrode (potential ∆ rG = − nFEcell
of which is arbitraily taken as zero) and calomel
If the concentration of all the reacting species is unity,
electrode. °
then Ecell = Ecell and we have
5. The potential difference between the electrode potentials
of the cathode and anode is called the cell potential. ∆ rG ° = − nFE °cell
Electromotive force (emf) is the potential given as Relation between Gibb’s energy and equilibrium
° = E° °
cathode − E anode
Ecell constant (K )
∆ rG ° = − RT ln K
6. The arrangement of various standard half-cells in order
of their decreasing values of standard reduction 9. Resistance (R) of any object is directly proportional to
potentials is called electrochemical series. If the its length (l) and inversely proportional to its area of
standard electrode potential of an electrode is greater cross-section (A).
than zero (positive value) then its reduced form is more ρl
Its unit is ohm (Ω). R =
stable as compared to hydrogen gas. A
Similarly, in case of standard electrode potential being The constant of proportionality, ρ is called resistivity
less than zero (negative value), hydrogen gas is more (specific resistance). Its units are Ωm or Ω cm.
stable than the reduced form of the species. 10. Conductance (G) of electrolytic solutions is the inverse
7. Nernst equation is the equation which gives the relation of resistance (R). Its unit is Ω −1.
between electrode potential and concentration of metal 1 A
G= =
ions at given temperature Nernst equation for the R ρl
electrode reaction (half cell reaction) is as follows :
11. The inverse of resistivity is called the conductivity or where, W is the mass of substance and E is its
specific conductance (κ). equivalent weight.
Its units are Ω −1 m −1 or S m −1. 17. A battery contains one or more than one
Cell constant (G* )  l electrochemical cells connected in series. It may be a
κ= where,G* =
R  a  primary battery (non-chargeable battery, like dry cell or a
12. Molar conductivity (Λ m ) of a solution is the Leclanche cell) or secondary battery (rechargeable), like
conductance of the volume of solution containing one lead storage battery.
mole of electrolyte, kept between two electrodes having l
Reactions involved in dry cell
unit length between them and sufficient cross-sectional At anode
area to contain the electrolyte. The unit of Λ m will be Zn(s) → Zn 2+ + 2e −
Ω − 1m 2 mol − 1 or Sm 2 mol −1. At cathode
κ × 1000 MnO 2 + NH+4 + e − → MnO(OH) + NH 3
Λm =
M
l
Reactions involved in mercury cell
13. Variation of conductivity and molar conductivity with
concentration The conductivity of an electrolyte At anode
increases with the decrease in concentration, i.e. Zn(Hg) + 2OH − → ZnO(s) + H 2O + 2e −
increase in dilution. Although, at infinite dilution, the At cathode
conductivity of weak as well as strong electrolyte are HgO + H 2O + 2e − → Hg(l ) + 2OH −
nearly same, i.e. equal to one (as weak electrolyte is l
When the lead storage battery is in use (discharging),
assumed to be completely ionised at infinite dilution) but
the cell reactions are:
their variation is not same with the increase in dilution.
Upon dilution, equivalent and molar conductivities At anode Pb (s) + SO 24− (aq ) →
increases, while specific conductivity decreases. It is PbSO 4(s) + 2 e −
At cathode
because concentration of ions per cubic centimetre PbO 2(s) + SO 24− (aq ) + 4H + (aq ) + 2e − →
decreases upon dilution. Lead dioxide PbSO 4 (s) + 2H 2O ( l )
14. Kohlrausch’s law of independent migration of ions Lead sulphate
states that limiting molar conductivity of strong The overall reaction of the cell is written as :
electrolyte is the sum of the individual contributions of Pb(s) + PbO 2(s) + 2H 2SO 4 (aq ) →
the cation and the anion of the strong electrolyte. In Sulphuric acid
general, if an electrolyte produces ν + cations and ν − 2PbSO 4 (s) + 2H 2O( l )
anions, then its limiting molar conductivity is given by On charging the battery, the reaction is reversed.
Λ°m = ν + λ°+ + ν − λ°− Actually, it forces the electrons to flow in opposite
15. Electrolytic cells are those cells in which electrical direction resulting PbSO 4(s) on the anode as Pb and
energy is used to carry out non-spontaneous chemical PbO 2 on the cathode. In this case, batteries behave,
reactions and the reaction takes place in an electrolytic like electrochemical batteries.
cell is called electrolysis. 18. A fuel cell is a galvanic cell in which chemical energy is
16. Faraday’s Laws of Electrolysis converted into electrical energy by combustion of fuels.
One of the most successful fuel cell is H 2 -O 2 fuel cell. It
l
Faraday’s first law states that, the amount of
substance deposited at an electrode by passing was used for providing electrical power in Apollo space
programme.
current is proportional to the quantity of electricity
passed through the electrolyte (in solution or in The electrode reactions are :
molten state). At cathode O 2(g ) + 2H 2O( l ) + 4 e − → 4OH − (aq )
W = Zit At anode 2H 2(g ) + 4OH − (aq ) → 4H 2O( l ) + 4 e −
where, Z = electrochemical equivalent
The overall reaction of the cell is written as
equivalent weight of substances
Z= 2H 2(g ) + O 2(g ) → 2H 2O ( l )
96500
Fuel cells are pollution free, produce electricity with an
l
Faraday’s second law states that, when the same
efficiency of about 70% and never become dead due to
quantity of electricity is passed through different
continuous supply of fuel.
electrolytes, the amount of different substances
deposited at respective electrodes are proportional to 19. Corrosion is an electrochemical process in which a
their chemical equivalent weights. metal oxide or other salt of the metal forms a coating
over the metal surface. e.g. the rusting of iron,
W1 W2 W3 tarnishing of silver surface, turning of surface of copper
= = = ....
E1 E2 E3 and bronze into green colour.
Chemistry 19
l
The anodic and cathodic reactions occurring in the l
Ferrous ions produced are further oxidised by
process of rusting are : atmospheric oxygen.
At anode 2Fe(s) → 2Fe 2+ + 4 e − ; 1
2Fe 2+ (aq ) + 2H 2O (l ) + O 2(g ) →
(Oxidation) Es 2+ = − 0.44 V 2
Fe 2O 3(s) + 4H + (aq )
(Fe /Fe)
At cathode O 2(g ) + 4H (aq ) + 4e − →

+
 xH O
2H 2O(l ); ↓ 2
(Reduction) E s+ = 1.23 V Fe 2O 3 ⋅ xH 2O
H | O 2| H 2 O
Rust
l
The overall reaction of the cell is written as: Hydrated ferric oxided (Fe 2O 3 ⋅ xH 2O) is called rust.
2Fe(s) + O 2(g ) + 4H + (aq ) → l
The methods used for prevention of corrosion are
2Fe 2+
(aq ) + 2H 2O(l); covering the surface with paint or by some chemical
(bisphenol) to provide a sacrificial electrode of
s
E(cell) = 1.67 V another metal (Mg, Zn, etc).
Practice Questions
1. Zn ( s) + Cu 2+ ( aq ) → Zn 2+ ( aq ) + Cu ( s) 6. If E ° ( Zn 2+ / Zn ) = − 0.763 V and
The above redox reaction is used in E ° ( Fe 2+ / Fe ) = − 0.44 V, then the emf of the cell
(a) Galvanic cell (b) Daniell cell Zn| Zn 2+ ( a = 0.001)|| Fe 2+ ( a = 0.005)| Fe is
(c) Voltaic cell (d) All of these (a) equal to 0.323 V (b) less than 0.323 V
2. Electrolytic cell is a device (c) greater than 0.323 V (d) equal to 1.103 V
(a) in which a non-spontaneous chemical reaction is carried 7. A hydrogen gas electrode is made by dipping
out at the expense of electrical energy platinum wire in a solution of HCl at pH =10 and by
(b) in which a spontaneous chemical reaction is carried out passing hydrogen gas around the platinum wire at 1
to generate electrical energy atm pressure. The oxidation potential of electrode
(c) in which applied opposite potential is less than the cell would be
potential
(a) 0.059 V (b) 0.59 V
(d) Both (a) and (c)
(c) 0.118 V (d) 0.18 V
3. For the electrochemical cell,
8. In the electrochemical cell,
Ag − | AgCl| KCl || AgNO 3 | Ag + , the overall cell
Zn | ZnSO 4 (0.01 M)|| CuSO 4 (1.0M)| Cu, the emf of
reaction is this Daniell cell is E1 . When the concentration of
(a) Ag + + KCl → AgCl( s ) + K+ ZnSO 4 is changed to 1.0 M and that of CuSO 4
1 changed to 0.01 M, the emf changes to E 2 . From the
(b) Ag + AgCl → 2Ag + Cl 2
2 following, which one is the correct relationship
(c) AgCl( s ) → Ag + + Cl − between E1 and E 2 ? ( Given,
RT
= 0059
. )
(d) Ag + + Cl – → AgCl( s ) F
(a) E1 = E2 (b) E1 < E2
4. Calculate the standard cell potential for the following (c) E1 > E2 (d) E2 = 0 ≠ E1
Galvanic cell, Cr|Cr 3+ ||Cd 2+ |Cd
9. In the given reaction,
[Given, ECr° 3 + /Cr = −0.74V and ECd
° 2+
/Cd
= −0.40V] 2Cu + (aq ) 3 Cu 2+ (aq ) + Cu(s)
(a) 0.74 V (b) −0.34 V (c) + 0.34 V (d) 114
. V ° +
ECu ° 2+
= 0.6 V and ECu = 0.41 V
4+ 2+ /Cu /Cu
5. Standard electrode potential for Sn / Sn couple is
The equilibrium constant for this reaction will be
+0.15V and that for the Cr 3+ / Cr couple is −0.74V.
(a) 2.76 × 102 (b) 2.76 × 104
These two couples in their standard state are
connected to make a cell. The cell potential will be (c) 2.76 × 106 (d) 2.76 × 108
(a) + 1.83 V (b) +1.19 V
(c) + 0.89 V (d) + 0.18 V
10. The standard Gibbs free energy of (Given the conductivity of 1 mol L−1 KCl solution is
Zn (s) + Cu 2+ (aq ) → Zn 2+ (aq ) + Cu(s) is 1.29 S/m.)
(a) −91 FEcell (b) −2FEcell (a) 0.248 S cm −1 (b) 0.248 S m −1
(c) −3 FEcell (d) −4 FEcell (c) 2.48 S cm −1 (d) 2.48 S m −1
11. KCl solution is generally used to determine the cell 16. “Limiting molar conductivity of an electrolyte can be
constant because represented as sum of the individual contributions of
(a) it is highly ionic in nature anion and cation of the electrolyte”.
(b) its conductivity is known accurately at various Which law states the above statement?
concentration and different temperatures (a) Henry’s law
(c) size of cations and anions are comparable (b) Debye Onsager’s law
(d) All of the above (c) Kohlrausch’s law of independent migration of ions
12. Which of the following information is false for the (d) All of the above
below given figure? 17. Molar conductivities (Λ°m) at infinite dilution of
NaCl, HCl and CH 3COONa are 126.4,425.9 and
R2 R1
91.0 S cm 2 mol −1 respectively. Λ°m for CH 3COOH
P will be
(a) 425.5 S cm2 mol −1 (b) 180.5 S cm2 mol −1
R4 R3
(c) 290.85 S cm2 mol −1 (d) 390.5 S cm2 mol −1
18. 1.5 A current is flowing through a metallic wire. If it
O flows for 3 hrs, how many electrons would flow
(a) This assembly is used for measuring conductivity of through the wire?
solution (a) 2.05 × 1022 electrons (b) 1.0 × 1023 electrons
(b) O is an oscillator, i.e. a source of AC power (c) 1024 electrons (d) 4 . 5 × 1023 electrons
(c) P is the conductivity cell
19. A 4.0 M aqueous solution of NaCl is prepared and
(d) Unknown resistance is measured by using the formula,
R R 500 mL of this solution is electrolysed. This leads to
R2 = 1 4 evolution of chlorine gas at one of the electrodes. The
R3
total charge required for the complete electrolysis will
13. The conductance of electrolytic solution kept be
between the electrodes of conductivity cell at unit (a) 96500 C (b) 24125 C
distance but having area of cross-section large enough (c) 48250 C (d) 193000 C
to accommodate sufficient volume of solution is 20. The anodic half-cell of lead-acid battery is recharged
called using electricity of 0.05 Faraday. The amount of
(a) limiting molar conductivity PbSO 4 electrolysed in g during the process is
(b) molar conductivity (Molar mass of PbSO 4 = 303g mol −1 )
(c) conductivity
(d) All of the above (a) 11.4 (b) 7.6 (c) 15.2 (d) 22.8
14. The resistance of the cell containing KCl solution at 21. When aqueous sodium chloride solution is electrolysed
23°C was found to be 55 Ω. Its cell constant is (a) at cathode H+ is reduced into H2 instead of Na +
0.616 cm −1 . The conductivity of KCl solution (b) at cathode Na + is reduced to Na
(Ω −1 cm −1 ) is (c) Cl − is oxidised into Cl 2 at cathode
(a) 1.21 × 10−3 (b) 1.12 × 10−2 (d) Both (b) and (c)
(c) 1.12 × 10−3 (d) 1.21 × 10−2
22. What will happen during the electrolysis of aqueous
15. If resistance of a conductivity cell filled with solution of CuSO 4 in the presence of copper
2 mol L−1 KCl solution is 100 Ω. The resistance of the electrodes?
same cell when filled with 0.2 mol L −1 KCl solution (a) Copper will deposit at cathode
is 520 Ω. Then the conductivity of 0.2 mol L −1 KCl (b) Copper will dissolve at anode
(c) Oxygen will be released at anode
solution will be
Chemistry 21
23. In the given mercury cell, (c) Zn + 2OH– → ZnO( s ) + H2O + 2e−
Anode (d) Zn(Hg) + HgO( s ) → ZnO( s ) + Hg ( l )
Anode
cap 24. A device that converts energy of combustion of fuels
like hydrogen and methane, directly into electrical
energy is known as
(a) fuel cell (b) electrolytic cell
(c) dynamo (d) Ni-Cd cell
Gasket Separator Cathode Cell can 25. Galvanisation is
(a) zinc plating on aluminium sheet
The reaction occuring at cathode will be
(b) zinc plating on iron sheet
(a) Zn(Hg) + 2OH− → ZnO(s) + H2O + 2e− (c) iron plating on zinc sheet
(b) HgO + H2O + 2e− → Hg ( l ) + 2OH− (d) aluminium plating on zinc sheet
ANSWERS
1. (d) 2. (a) 3. (c) 4. (c) 5. (c) 6. (c) 7. (b) 8. (c) 9. (c) 10. (b)
11. (b) 12. (c) 13. (b) 14. (b) 15. (b) 16. (c) 17. (d) 18. (b) 19. (d) 20. (b)
21. (a) 22. (d) 23. (b) 24. (a) 25. (b)
Hints & Solutions

2. (a) When Eext > E generated, the cell behaves like an 0.0591 a 2+
= (−0.44 + 0.763) − log Zn
electrolytic cell. In this cell, a non-spontaneous reaction is n a 2+
Fe
carried out at the expense of electrical energy. 0.0591 0.001
= (0.763 − 0.44 ) − log = 0.364 V
3. (c) For the electrochemical cell, 1 0.005
Ag | AgCl | KCl || AgNO3 | Ag+ 7. (b) For hydrogen electrode, oxidation half-reaction is
The cell reaction is H2 → 2H+ + 2e−
AgCl (s)+ e− → Ag + Cl – (aq) (1 atm) (at pH 10)
Ag → Ag (aq) + e If pH = 10, H = 1 × 10− pH = 1 × 10−10

+
+ –
Overall cell reaction, 0.0591 [ H+ ]2

From Nernst equation, E = E °− log
AgCl(s) → Ag+ + Cl – 2 pH
2
4. (c) Standard cell potential for the given cell, For hydrogen electrode, E°= 0
E° = E° − E° 3 + 0.0591 (10−10 )2 0.0591 × 2
cell Cd 2 + / Cd Cr / Cr E=− log =− log(10)−10
2 1 2
= − 0.40 − (−0.74 ) = + 0 .34 V
= 0.0591 × 10 × log10 = 0.59 V
5. (c) The cell potential is given as,
8. (c) For the electrochemical cell,
E° = E°
cell − E°
cathode(RP) anode(RP) Zn|ZnSO4 (0.01M)||CuSO4 (1M)|Cu
∴ ° = 015
Ecell . − (−0.74 ) = +0.89 V Cell reaction is
Zn + Cu 2+ → Zn 2+ + Cu; n = 2
6. (c) The cell reaction is,
0.059 [Zn 2+ ] 0.059 0.01
Zn + Fe2+ → Zn 2+ + Fe E1 = E ° − log = E° − log
2 [Cu 2+ ] 2 1
From Nernst equation,
0.059 1
a
° − 0.0591 log Zn 2 + E1 = E ° − log = (E ° + 0.059)
Ecell = Ecell 2 100
n a 2+
Fe For the electrochemical cell,
° ° 0.0591 a 2+ Zn|ZnSO4 (1M)||CuSO4 (0.01M)|Cu
= (Ecathode − Eanode )− log Zn
n a 2+ 0.059 1
Fe E2 = E ° − log
2 0.01
0.059 represented as the sum of the individual contributions of the

E2 = E ° − log 100 = (E °− 0.059)
2 anion and cation of the electrolyte”.
− +
∴ E1 > E2 17. (d) CH3CO O Na + HCl → NaCl + CH3COOH
9. (c) Right hand cell reaction, Λ°m (CH = Λ°m (CH − +
+ Λ°m (HCl) − Λ°m (NaCl)
3COOH) 3COO Na)
−
Cu + e+
→ Cu
Left hand cell reaction, Λ°m (CH = (91.0 + 425.9 − 126.4) S cm 2 mol −1
3COOH)
Cu + → Cu 2+ + e− Λ°m (CH COOH) = 390. 5 S cm 2 mol −1

3
Overall cell reaction,
18. (b) We know that
2Cu + (aq) → Cu + (s) + Cu 2+ (aq)
Charge, q = It = 1.5 × 3 × 60 × 60 = 16200C
° ) = E°
∴ Cell potential (Ecell − E°
Cu + / Cu Cu 2+ /Cu + . × 10−19 C
Q Charge on one electron = 16
= 0.60 − 0.41 = 0.19 V 1 × 16200
∴ 16200 C charge is on −19
= 1. 0 × 1023 electrons
As we know that, . × 10
16
− nFE ° = − RT ln K eq
19. (d) Na + + e− → Na(Hg)
Hg
nE ° 2 × 0.19 V 2Cl − → Cl 2 + 2e−

⇒ log K eq = = = 6.44
(2.303RT / F ) 0.059 V 500
Moles of NaCl electrolysed = 4 × = 2.0
K eq = 106.44 = 2.76 × 106 1000
Two Faraday of electric charge is required for electrolysis of
10. (b) As we know that, 2 moles of NaCl.
∆ r G = − nFEcell
Total coulombs = 2 × 96500 = 193000 C.
Q n = 2 , for the given reaction.
20. (b) During charging:
So, ∆ r G = − 2FEcell
Pb + SO24 − → PbSO4 + 2e−
11. (b) Conductivity of KCl solution is known accurately
at various concentrations and different temperatures, so ⇒ 1 F ≡ 1g-equiv. of PbSO4
it is generally used in conductivity cell to measure cell constant. 1 303
= mol of PbSO4 ⇒ g PbSO4
12. (c) Wheatstone bridge consists of two resistance, R3 and R4 2 2
303
and a variable resistance R1 and conductivity cell having ∴ 0.05 F ≡ × 0.05 g of PbSO4 = 7.575 g of PbSO4
unknown resistance R2. O is the source of AC power called 2
oscillator. Under no current condition, minimum or no sound 21. (a) When aqueous solution of NaCl is electrolysed, there is a
can be heard from the earphone, P (a detector). competition between the following reduction reactions at cathode.
The unknown resistance, R2 is calculated as Na + + e− → Na ; E °cell = − 2.71 V
RR 1
R2 = 1 4 . H+ + e− → H ; E °cell = 0.00 V
R3 2 2
Hence, the option (c) is false. The reaction with higher value of E ° is preferred and therefore,
13. (b) Molar conductivity (Λ m ) is defined as the conductance of the second reaction occurs at cathode,
the electrolytic solution kept between the electrodes of a i.e. H+ is reduced instead of Na + .
conductivity cell at unit distance but having area of 22. (d) Electrolysis of CuSO4 can be represented by following two
cross-section large enough to accomodate sufficient volume of
half-cell reactions :
solution that contains one mole of the electrolyte.
−1 At cathode Cu 2+ + 2e− → Cu(s)
Cell constant 0.616 cm
14. (b) Conductivity, (κ ) = = At anode Cu(s) → Cu 2+ + 2e−
Resistance 55 Ω
Here, Cu will deposit at cathode while copper will dissolved at
= 1.12 × 10−2 Ω −1 cm −1 anode.
15. (b) The cell constant is given by the equation: 23. (b) The reaction takes place in the given cell are as follows :
Cell constant, G * = conductivity × resistance Anode Zn(Hg) + 2OH – (aq) → ZnO(s) + H 2O + 2e−
= 1.29 S / m × 100 Ω = 129 m −1 = 1.29 cm −1
Cathode HgO(s) + H2O + 2e− → Hg(l ) + 2OH−
Conductivity of 0.2 mol L −1 KCl solution
= cell constant/ resistance The overall reaction is
G * 129 m −1 Zn(Hg) + HgO(s) → ZnO(s) + Hg(l )
= = = 0.248 S m −1
R 520 Ω 24. (a) Galvanic cell that are used to convert the energy of
16. (c) According to Kohlrausch’s law of independent migration, combustion of fuels like hydrogen, methane, methanol, etc.,
“the limiting molar conductivity of an electrolyte can be directly into electrical energy is called fuel cells.
Chemistry 23
CHAPTER 04
Chemical Kinetics
1. Chemical kinetics is the branch of Chemistry which be same as the stoichiometric coefficient of the
reacting species in a balanced chemical equation. It
deals with the study of reaction rates and their
cannot be decided from the balanced chemical
mechanisms.
equation, i.e. theoretically. It has to be determined
2. The speed or the rate of a chemical reaction can be experimentally.
defined as the change in concentration of reactants or 7. The sum of the powers of the concentration of the
products in unit time. reactants in the rate law expression is called the order
3. The average rate of reaction is the appearance of of that chemical reaction.
product or disappearance of reactants over a period of It can be zero or have fractional value but molecularity
time interval. of a reaction cannot be zero or a non-integer.
∆[R ] ∆[P ] It is always an integer and cannot be more than three.
rav = − =+
∆t ∆t 8. The number of reacting species (atoms, ions or
4. Reaction rate, at a particular moment of time is called molecules) taking part in an elementary reaction which
instantaneous rate of the reaction. must collide simultaneously in order to bring about a
−d [R ] d [P ] chemical reaction is called molecularity of a reaction.
∴ rinst = =+ 9. Rate constant (k) is the rate of chemical reaction
dt dt
As, ∆t → 0 when concentration of each reactant is unity.
Average rate approaches to instantaneous rate. The rate constant is also called the specific reaction
Unit of the rate of reaction rate.
dx mol L−1 For nth order of reaction,
Rate of reaction = =
dt s Units of k = (mol L−1)1− n (time )−1 , where, n = order of
5. Rate of a chemical reaction depends upon the reaction.
experimental conditions, like concentration of one or more 10. Half-life ( t 1/2 ) is the time in which the concentration of a
reactants (pressure in case of gases), temperature,
catalyst and surface area of the reactants. reactant is reduced to one half of its initial
concentration. For first order reaction, t 1/ 2 = 0.693/ k.
6. Rate law is the expression in which the reaction rate is
given in terms of molar concentration of reactants with 11. Given table summarises the mathematical features of
each term raised to some power, which may or may not integrated laws of zero and first order reactions.
Integrated Rate Laws for the Reactions of Zero and First Order
Differential Integrated
Order Reaction type rate law
Straight line plot Half-life Units of k
rate law
0 R→ P d [R ]/dt = − k kt = [R ]0 − [R ] [R ] vs t [R ]0 / 2 k Conc. time −1
−1
or mol L −1s
1 R→ P d [R ]/dt = − k[R ] [R ] = [R ]0 e − kt or In [R ] vs t (with negative slope) In 2/k =
0.693 time −1 or s −1
[R ] k
kt = In {[R ]0 / [R ]} log 0 vs t (with positive slope)
[R ]
12. The reactions which are not actually of first order but behave, so due to changed conditions are called pseudo first order
reactions. For example, hydrolysis of ethyl acetate, as in this case concentration of water is not considered in calculation
because its concentration does not get changed much with time.
13. For a chemical reaction with rise in temperature by 10°, l

Rate constants k1 and k2 at two different temperatures
the rate constant is nearly doubled. T1 and T2 repectively can written as,
Temperature coefficient is the ratio of rate constant at Ea T2 − T1 
k2
log  = 
temperature (T + 10) K to the rate constant at 2 .303 R  T1 ⋅ T2 
k1
temperature T (K).
15. Activation energy (Ea) is the extra energy required by
Rate constant (k ) at (T +10) K
Temperature coefficient = the reactant molecules that results into effective collision
Rate constant (k ) at T K between them to form the products.
14. The temperature dependence of rate for a chemical 16. Threshold energy is the minimum energy which the
reaction is expressed by Arrhenius equation. colliding molecules must have for effective collisions.
− Ea / RT
k = Ae (Collisions which lead to the formation of product
Where, A is the Arrhenius factor or the frequency factor, molecules).
also called pre-exponential factor. 17. According to collision theory, rate collisions which lead
−E to the formation of product molecules
In k = a + ln A − Ea / RT
RT = Z AB e where, Z AB = collision frequency of the
l
The plot of ln k vs 1/T gives a straight line with slope reactants A and B.
E
= − a and intercept = ln A e a
− E / RT
= fraction of molecules with energies equal to or
R
greater than Ea.
Practice Questions
1. Rate of which of the following reactions can be 5. Rate law cannot be determined from balanced chemical
determined easily? equation, if ......... .
(a) Rusting of iron in the presence of air and moisture (a) reverse reaction is involved
(b) Hydrolysis of starch (b) it is an elementary reaction
(c) Reaction of silver nitrate with sodium chloride (c) it is a sequence of elementary reactions
(d) All of the above (d) Both (a) and (c)
2. For the reaction, 6. On mixing 1 dm 3 of 3M ethanol with 1 dm 3 of 2 M
2 X + Y → X 2Y ethanoic acid, an ester is formed.
What will be the expression for instantaneous rate of
the reaction? C 2 H 5OH + CH 3COOH → CH 3COOC 2 H 5 + H 2O
−d [ X ] 1 d [Y ] If each solution is diluted with an equal volume of
(a) (b) +
2dt 2 dt water, the decrease in the initial rate would be
1 d [ X 2Y ] (a) 0.5 times (b) 3 times
(c) − (d) None of these (c) 0.25 times (d) 2 times
2 dt
d[NH 3 ] 7. Which of the following rate expression is correct
3. Choose the correct value of for the reaction, against its reaction?
dt
N 2 + 3H 2 → 2NH 3 (a) 2NO( g ) + O2 ( g ) → 2NO 2 ( g ) ; Rate = k[NO]2 [O2 ]
2 d[ H2 ] 2 d [ H2 ] (b) CHCl 3 + Cl 2 → CCl 4 + HCl;

(a) − (b) Rate = k[CHCl 3 ] [Cl 2 ]1/ 2
3 dt 3 dt
3 d[ N2 ] 3 d[ N2 ] (c) CH3COOC2H5 + H2O → CH3COOH + C2H5OH;
(c) (d) −
2 dt 2 dt Rate = k[CH3COOC2H5 ]1 [H2O]0.
4. In a reaction, 2x → y, the concentration of x decreases (d) All of the above
from 3.0 M to 1.5 M in 4 min. 8. Consider the following reactions,
The rate of the reaction is O 3 r O 2 + O (fast) …(i)
(a) 0.187 M min −1 (b) 1.87 M min −1 O + O 3 → 2O 2 (slow) …(ii)
(c) 3.75 × 10−1 M min −1 (d) 0.75 M min −1
Chemistry 25
The rate law expression should be
Concentration
(a) r = k [O3 ]2 [O2 ]–1 (b) r = k [O3 ][O2 ]
Reaction rate
of reactant
(c) r = k [O3 ] 2
(d) r = k [O2 ]−1 (c) (d) Slope = – k
9. Reaction of chloroform with chlorine is an example

of fraction order reaction. Time Time
Its rate law expression is rate = k[CHCl 3 ][Cl 2 ]1/ 2 . If 15. For a zero order reaction, a graph of concentration
both are assumed in gaseous state and pressure is (along y-axis) and time (along x-axis) is linear with
measured in bar, then units of rate and rate constant (a) a zero intercept and a +ve slope
respectively are (b) a zero intercept and a –ve slope
(a) bar min −1, bar 2 min −1 (c) a non-zero intercept and a –ve slope
(b) bar min −1, bar −1/ 2 , min −1 (d) a non-zero intercept and a +ve slope
(c) bar −1/ 2 , min −1, bar 2 min −1 . × 10 −3
16. The rate constant of the reaction, A → B is 06
(d) bar min −1, bar −1/ 2 min −1 mole per litre per second. If the concentration of A is
10. The rate constant is numerically equal for three 5 M then, concentration of B after 20 min is
reactions of first, second and third order respectively. (a) 1.08 M (b) 3.60 M
Which of the following is true? (c) 0.36 M (d) 0.72 M
(a) If [ A ] > 1; r3 > r2 > r1 (b) If [ A ] = 1; r1 = r2 = r3 17. A first order reaction has a rate constant of
(c) If [ A ] < 1; r1 > r2 > r3 (d) All of the above .
2303 × 10 −3 s −1 . The time required for 40 g of this
11. For the reaction, I − + OCl − → IO − + Cl − reactant to reduce to 10 g will be
in aqueous medium, the rate of a reaction is given by [Given that log 10 2 = 03010
. ]
d[IO − ] [I − ][OCl − ] (a) 230.3 s (b) 301 s
=k the overall order of the (c) 2000 s (d) 602 s
dt [OH − ]
reaction is 18. For a first order reaction,
k
(a) −1 (b) 1 (c) 0 (d) 2 (a) t1/ 2 = (b) t 3/ 4 = 2t1/ 2
a
12. The reaction, 2N 2O 5 º 2N O + O 2 is 0.693
2 4
(c) t1/ 2 = (d) t1/ 2 = k × 0.693
(a) bimolecular and first order 2k
(b) unimolecular and second order 19. If half-life of a substance is 36 minutes. The amount
(c) bimolecular and second order left after 2 hrs will be [Given ( A0 ) =10 g ]
(d) unimolecular and first order
(a) 1 g (b) 2 g
13. Four reactions are given below. Which one of them is (c) 3 g (d) 4 g
of zero order? 20. 99% completion of a first order reaction takes place
(a) PCl 5 → PCl 3 + Cl 2 in 32 min. The time taken in 99.9% completion of the
(b) 2FeCl 3 + SnCl 2 → 2FeCl 2 + SnCl 4 reaction will be
hν
(c) H2 + Cl 2 → 2HCl (a) 48 min (b) 52 min
1 (c) 56 min (d) 44 min
(d) N2O5 → 2NO2 + O
2 2 21. The temperature coefficient of a reaction is
(a) the ratio of rate constant at two temperatures
14. Which of the following graph is correct for a zero
(b) the ratio of rate constant differing by 10° preferably
order reaction? 25°C and 35°C
(c) the rate constant at a fixed temperature
Concentration
Reaction rate
of reactant
(a) (b) 22. A chemical reaction was carried out at 300 K and
280 K. The rate constant were found to be k1 and k 2
respectively, then
Time Time (a) k2 = 4 k1 (b) k2 = 0. 25 k1
(c) k2 = 2 k1 (d) k1 = 0. 5 k1
23. What is the activation energy (kJ/mol) for a reaction (c) Both threshold energy and proper orientation
if its rate constant doubles when the temperature is (d) energy equal to or greater than threshold energy
raised from 300 K to 400 K ? 25 Higher order (>3) reactions are rare due to
( R = 8.314 Jmol −1 K −1 ). (a) low probability of simultaneous collision of all the
reacting species
(a) 69.1 (b) 6.91
(b) increase in entropy and activation energy as more
(c) 34.4 (d) 3.44
molecules are involved
24. In order to produce the effective collisions, the (c) shifting of equilibrium towards reactants due to elastic
colliding molecules must have collisions
(a) a certain minimum amount of energy (d) loss of active species on collision
(b) proper orientation
ANSWERS
1. (b) 2. (a) 3. (a) 4. (a) 5. (b) 6. (c) 7. (d) 8. (a) 9. (d) 10. (d)
11. (b) 12. (a) 13. (c) 14. (d) 15. (c) 16. (d) 17. (d) 18. (b) 19. (a) 20. (a)
21. (b) 22. (b) 23. (b) 24. (d) 25. (a)
Hints & Solutions

1. (b) Rate of only those chemical reactions can be determined [O2 ][O]
From Eq. (i) K eq =
easily which occurs at moderate speed, e.g. hydrolysis of [O3 ]
starch, inversion of cane sugar etc. K eq [ O3 ]
2. (a) For the reaction, or [O ] =
[ O2 ]
2 X + Y → X 2Y
From Eq. (ii)
The instantaneous rate of the reaction is given as, rate law = k[O3 ][O]
d[ X ] − d[Y ] d[ X 2Y ] k [O3 ][O3 ]
− = =+ or r= K eq
2 dt dt dt [O2 ]
3. (a) For the reaction, or r = k ′ [ O3 ]2 [ O2 ]−1 [ k ' = k × K eq ]
N2 + 3H2 → 2NH3
9. (d) Given, rate = k[CHCl 3 ] [Cl 2 ]1/ 2
The instantaneous rate of reaction is given as
1 3
−
d [N2 ]
=−
d [H2 ]
=+
d [NH3 ] Q Order = 1 + =
dt 3 dt 2 dt 2 2
Units of rate
d[NH3 ] 2 d[H2 ] ∴Units of rate constant =
∴ =− [CHCl 3 ] [Cl 2 ]1/ 2
dt 3 dt
1 d[ x ] 1 [1.5 − 3.0] bar min −1
4. (a) Rate of reaction = − =− = = bar −1/ 2min −1
2 dt 2 4 bar 3/ 2
1.5 and units of rate is bar min −1.
= = 0.187 M min −1
8 10. (d) Consider a reaction A → Products
6. (c) For the given reaction, Let r1 , r2 and r3 are the rate for first, second and third order
C2H5 OH + CH3COOH → CH3COOC2H5 + H2O respectively.
n n ∴ r1 = k [ A ]1 for 1st order …(i)
r = k [CH3COOH][C2H5OH] or r = k
V  V  r2 = k [ A ]2 for 2nd order …(ii)
Increasing volume (V) by twice (due to dilution) will reduce the r3 = k [ A ] for 3rd order
3
…(iii)
rate by 4 times.
Q k is same in all the three cases.
i.e. r = 0.25 k [CH3COOH][C2H5OH]
Therefore, If [ A ] = 1, r1 = r2 = r3
8. (a) Given, O3 r O2 + O (fast ) …(i)
If [ A ] < 1, r1 > r2 > r3
O + O3 → 2O2 (Slow) …(ii) If [ A ] > 1, r3 > r2 > r1
Chemistry 27
11. (b)Q The rate of reaction is given by, 17. (d) For first order reaction,
d[ IO− ] k [ I− ][ OCl − ] t=
2.303 a
= ⋅ log …(i)
dt [ OH− ] k a−x
Therefore, overall order of reaction = 1 + 1 − 1= 1 Given : k = 2. 303 × 10−3 s −1,
12. (a) The given reaction, a = 40 g, a − x = 10 g
i.e. 2N2O5 r 2N2O4 + O2 On substituting the given values in Eq. (i), we get
occurs in two steps and, hence biomolecular reaction and the 2. 303 40
t= log
rate determining step is the slowest step which is of first order. 2. 303 × 10−3 10
13. (c) Among the given reactions, reaction between hydrogen and = 103 log 22 = 2 × 103 × log 2
chlorine under influence of UV-light is an example of zero
order reaction, = 2 × 103 × 0.3010 = 602 s
Alternative method
i.e. H2 + Cl 2 →
hν
2HCl
For first order reaction,
14. (d) For a zero order reaction, 0.693 0.693
t1/ 2 = ⇒ t1/ 2 (t50% ) = = 301s
[ R ] = (− k ) t + [ R ]0 …(i) k 2.303 × 10−3
On comparing with equation of straight line; Also, t75% = 2 t50%
y = mx + c
∴ t75% = 2 × 301 = 602 s
y = [ R ]concentration
x = t (time) 18. (b) Decomposition of benzene diazonium chloride occur the
following manner.
Slope (m) = − k (rate constant) + −
Intercept (c) = [ R ]0 (initial concentration) C6H5 N ≡≡ NC l → C6H5Cl + N2 ↑
Thus, the graph between conc. of reactant and time is given as, The volume of nitrogen obtained shows the extent of
decomposition of benzene diazonium chloride, so
[R]0 a ∝ V∞ = 162 mL
(a − x ) ∝ (V∞ − Vt ) mL
Concentration
Slope = – k
of reactant

2.303 V − V0
k= log10 ∞
t V∞ − Vt
Time 2.303 V∞
or k= log10 (QV0 = 0)
Moreover, on rearranging Eq. (i) t V∞ − Vt
[ R ] − [ R ]0 At 20 min,
= −k
t 2.303 162 2.303 162
k= log10 = log10
[ R ] − [ R ]0 20 162 − 10 20 152
= − kt 0
t = 3.18 × 10− 3 min −1 ≈ 3.2 × 10−3 min −1
Rate ∝ t 0
19. (a) Given,
Therefore, the graph between reaction rate and time is given as, t1/ 2 = 36 min, t = 2 hrs = 120 min, [ A ]0 = 10 g
0.693
k=
Reaction rate
t1/ 2
0.693
∴ k= = 0.01925
36
Time 2.303 [ A ]0
As, we know that, t = log
15. (c) For a zero order reaction, a graph of concentration and time is k [A]
linear with a non-zero intercept, [ R ]0 and a (−)ve slope, −k. where, [ A ]0 = initial amount
16. (d) For a zero order reaction, unit of rate constant is [ A ] = final amount
(mol L−1 s−1 ). ∴ 120 =
2. 303
log
[ A ]0
Hence, we can easily calculate the concentration of B after 20 0.019 [A]
min by the following formula, log 10 − log[ A ] = 1 ⇒ 1 − log[ A ] = 1
X = kt = 0.6 × 10−3 × 20 × 60 = 0.72 M log[ A ] = 0
Thus, [ A ] = 1g
20. (a) For first order reaction, 23. (b) Given, T1 = 300 K, T2 = 400 K
2. 303 a
k= log R = 8.314 J mol −1 K−1
t a−x
k2 2 k Ea 1 1
∴k =
2.303
log
a
= 0.1439 min −1 ⇒ = ⇒ log 2 =  − 
32 min a − 0.99 a k1 1 k1 2.303 × R T
 1 T2
2.303 a 2 Ea  1 1 
⇒ t= log = 48 min Thus, log = −
0.1439 a − 0.999 a 1 2 .303 × 8.314  300 400 
21. (b) The temperature coefficient of a reaction is the ratio of rate Ea = 0.3010 × 2 .303 × 8.314 × 3 × 400
constant differing by 10° preferably 25°C and 35°C. Ea = 6.91 kJ mol −1
22. (b) For every 10°C rise, rate constant gets doubled. Hence, for 24. (d) Energy ≥ threshold energy and proper orientation both
every 20° C rise, rate constant will be 4 times.
results in effective collisions.
Therefore, according to the given statement,
25. (a) The main conditions for the occurrence of a reaction are
Temperature 280K 300K
proper orientation and effective collision of the reactants.
Rate constant k2 k1 (4 k 2 )
Since, the chances of simultaneous collision with proper
Thus, k1 = 4 k 2 orientation between two species in high order reactions are very
⇒ k 2 = 0.25 k1 rare, so reaction with order greater than 3 are rare.
Chemistry 29
CHAPTER 05
Surface Chemistry
1. The process in which molecular species are 6. Adsorption from Solution Phase
accumulated at the surface rather than in the bulk of a Following observation has been made in this case :
solid or liquid is termed as adsorption. e.g. water l
Extent of adsorption decreases with increase in
vapours on silica gel; H 2, O 2, NH 3 on activated charcoal. temperature and increases with an increase of surface
2. Solids, particularly in finely divided state have large area of the adsorbent.
surface area, therefore metals in finely divided state acts l
Extent of adsorption depends on the concentration of
as good adsorbents. solute in the solution and on nature of the adsorbent
3. Adsorption is an exothermic process i.e. ∆H of and adsorbate.
adsorption is always negative. Since, the molecules of 7. A substance that changes the rate of a chemical
the gas are held on the surface of the solid adsorbent reaction without itself undergoing any chemical change,
hence, entropy decreases (because their freedom of is known as catalyst and the process is known as
movement become restricted), i.e. ∆S is negative. catalysis.
4. Types of adsorption The two types of adsorption of Catalysis can be divided into two groups. These are as
gases on solids are as follows: follows :
l
The adsorption in which accumulation of gas on the l
The phenomenon in which reactants and catalysts are
surface of a solid occurs on account of weak present in the same phase (i.e. liquid or gas ) is
van der Waals’ forces is called physical adsorption known as homogeneous catalysis.
or physisorption. It is also called van der Waals’ l
The phenomenon in which the reactants and catalysts
adsorption. These types of adsorption show lack of are in the different phases, is known as
specificity, depends on nature of adsorbate and are heterogeneous catalysis.
reversible in nature.
l
The adsorption in which gas molecules or atoms are 8. Adsorption Theory of Heterogeneous Catalysis This
held to solid surface by chemical bonds is called theory explains the mechanism of heterogeneous
chemical adsorption or chemisorption. It is highly catalysis.
specific in nature and results in the formation of only The steps involved are as follows :
monomolecular layer. This type of adsorption is l
Diffusion of reactants to the surface of the catalyst.
irreversible and has more (–)ve value for ∆H. l
Adsorption of reactant molecules on the surface of
5. Adsorption isotherm is the curve that shows the the catalyst.
variation in the amount of gas adsorbed by the l
Occurrence of chemical reaction on the catalyst’s
adsorbent with pressure at constant temperature. surface through formation of an intermediate.
l
Freundlich gave the following relationship between l
Desorption of reaction products from catalyst surface.
x/m and p at particular temperature.
x
l
Diffusion of reaction products away from catalyst
= k p1/ n (n > 1) surface.
m
where, m = mass of adsorbent, 9. When the catalytic reaction depends upon the porous
x = mass of gas adsorbed on mass m, structure of catalyst, the size and shape of the reactant
p = pressure, k and n = constant, n = integer and of the product molecules, the reaction is known as
x 1 shape-selective catalysis.
or log = log k + log p
m n Zeolites are microporous aluminosilicates. General
l
When log x/m is plotted (at y-axis) with log p formula is M x / n [(AlO 2 ) x (SiO 2 )y ]⋅ zH 2O. e.g. ZSM-5
(at x-axis), a straight line is obtained with slope 1/n converts alcohols directly into gasoline (or petrol a
and intercept on y-axis is equal to log k. (Q y = mx + c ) mixture of hydrocarbons) by dehydrating them.
10. Enzymes are biochemical catalysts that catalyse the These colloids are quite stable and resemble with
reactions occurring in living beings. These are highly true solutions in many respects, e.g. naturally
specific in nature and work well only at a specific pH. occurring macromolecules such as starch, cellulose,
polymers, proteins and enzymes.
11. A colloid is a heterogeneous system in which one
(c) Some substances which at low concentrations
substance is dispersed (dispersed phase) as very fine
behave as normal strong electrolytes, but at higher
particles in another substance called dispersion
concentrations exhibit colloidal behaviour due to the
medium. formation of aggregates. The aggregated particles
Colloids are classified on the basis of following criteria. thus formed are called micelles. These are also
On the basis of physical state of dispersed phase and known as associated colloids.
dispersion medium. l
The formation of micelles takes place only above a
particular temperature, called
Dispersed Dispersion Type of
Examples
Kraft’s temperature (TK ) and above a particular
phase medium colloid concentration, called Critical Micelle Concentration
Solid Solid Solid Sol Gemstone and coloured (CMC).
glasses 12. Preparation of Colloid
Solid Liquid Sol Paints, cell fluids l
By chemical method
Solid Gas Aerosol Dust, smoke 2H 2S + SO 2 Oxidation
→ 3S + 2H 2O
(Sol)
Liquid Solid Gel Jellies, butter, cheese Reduction
2AuCl 3 + 3HCHO + 3H 2O →
Liquid Liquid Emulsion Milk, hair cream 2Au + 3HCOOH + 6HCl
(Sol)
Liquid Gas Aerosol Fog, mist, colud, insecticide
spray l
Bredig’s Arc method involves dispersion as well as
Gas Solid Soild sol Charcoal, pumice stone condensation. In this method, electric arc is struck
Gas Liquid Foam Whipped cream, froth, soap between electrodes of the metal immersed in the
lather dispersion medium. The intense heat produced
vapourises the metal, which then condenses to form
l
On the basis of nature of interaction between particles of colloidal size.
dispersed phase and dispersion medium. l
Peptisation is the process of converting freshly
(a) Colloidal sols directly formed by mixing substances prepared precipitate into colloidal sol by shaking it
like gum, gelatin, starch, rubber, etc. with a suitable with the dispersion medium in the presence of small
liquid (the dispersion medium) are called lyophilic amount of electrolyte. The electrolyte added is called
sols. These sols are also called reversible sols or the peptising agent.
protective colloids (as they protect lyophobic sols) 13. Purification of Colloidal Solutions by diffusion
from coagulation. These sols are quite stable and through a suitable membrane is called dialysis. The
cannot be coagulated. apparatus used for this purpose is called dialyser.
(b) Substances like metals, their sulphides etc., when 14. Properties of Colloidal Solutions :
simply mixed with the dispersion medium do not form l
Colligative properties The value of colligative
the colloidal sol. Their colloidal sols can be prepared properties of colloids are of small order as compared
only by special methods. Such sols are called to the true solutions.
lyophobic sols. These sols are also called l
When light falls on sol, it absorbs the light and scatter
irreversible sols. Lyophobic sols need stabilising
it. This phenomenon of scattering of light is called
agents for their preservation.
Tyndall effect. The illuminated path of light passing
l
On the basis of type of particles of the dispersed through the colloids is called Tyndall cone.
phase. l
Brownian movement The colloidal particles appear to
(a) Multimolecular colloids are formed by the be in a state of continuous zig-zag motion. This
aggregation of a large number of atoms or small motion is called Brownian movement.
molecules of a substance, when they aggregate
15. The process of settling of colloidal particles is called
together to form a species having size in the colloidal
range, e.g. sulphur sol consists of particles coagulation or precipitation of the sol. It is done by
containing a thousand or more of S 8 sulphur electrophoresis, boiling, mixing two oppositely charged
molecules. sols or by addition of electrolytes.
(b) Macromolecules, in suitable solvents form solutions 16. Hardy-Schulze rule According to this rule, ‘‘greater the
in which the size of the macromolecules may be in valence of the flocculating ion added, greater is its
the colloidal range, i.e. they are molecules of larger power to cause precipitation’’.
size of colloidal range. Such colloids are called 1
Flocculation value ∝
macromolecular colloids. Coagulating power
Chemistry 31
For example The order of coagulating power of the 18. It is possible to cause artificial rain by throwing electrified
cations is sand or spraying a sol carrying charge opposite to that
Al 3 + > Ba 2 + > Na + . one on clouds from an aeroplane.
The order of coagulating power of the anions is 19. Blood is an albuminoid suspended in water, which
[Fe(CN) 6 ] 4 − > PO 34− > SO 24− > Cl − . implies that blood is a colloid. Alum and FeCl 3 solution
stop bleeding due to coagulation.
17. Emulsions are formed when both the dispersed phase
and dispersion medium are liquids in a colloidal system.
20. Colloidal sol adsorbs one of its own ion from the
solution preferentially and gets charged. This charge
Two types of emulsions are:
attracts ions of opposite charge from the solution and
l
Oil dispersed in water type - Milk, vanishing cream. forms an electrical double layer. This is called
l
Water dispersed in oil type - Butter and cream. Helmholtz electrical double layer.
Practice Questions
1. In case of adsorption, 7. Which of the following are the examples of
(a) a particle present in the bulk experience an unbalanced heterogeneous catalysis?
force (a) Haber’s process
(b) unbalanced forces are responsible for the interaction (b) Ostwald’s process
between adsorbate and adsorbent (c) Oxidation of SO2 into SO3 in presence of Pt
(c) extent of adsorption increases with increase of surface (d) All of the above
area per unit mass of adsorbent at a given temperature
and pressure 8. The activity of a catalyst depends upon the strength of
(d) All of the above (a) chemisorption
(b) physisorption
2. Which of the following activity does not take place at
(c) solution
the time of adsorption?
(a) Residual attractive forces decreases
(b) Surface energy decreases 9. The enzyme invertase converts the cane sugar into
(c) Heat releases (a) glucose
(d) Heat is absorbed (b) fructose
1 (c) glucose + fructose
3. In Freundlich adsorption isotherm, the value of is (d) None of the above
n
(a) between 0 and 1 in all cases 10 Activators promoting catalytic actions are generally
(b) between 2 and 4 in all cases (a) metal ions
(c) 1 in case of physical adsorption (b) non-metal ions
(d) 1 in case of chemisorption (c) metalloids ions
4. When pressure is low, the fraction of the surface (d) All of the above
covered during adsorption follows: 11. Lyophobic colloids are not stable because
(a) Zero order kinetics (b) First order kinetics (a) they coagulate by heating them or with the addition of
(c) Second order kinetics (d) Fractional order kinetics electrolytes
(b) they coagulate by freezing them or with the addition of
5. Which of the following is/are generally used for electrolytes
the removal of the coloured impurities from the (c) they do not coagulate by freezing them with the electrolytes
solutions? (d) they do not coagulate by heating them with the electrolytes
(a) Charcoal (b) Silica gel
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Anhyd. CaCl 2 12. Gold sols and sulphur sols are the examples of
(a) multimolecular colloids
6. Which of the following substance acts as a catalyst (b) macromolecular colloids
for the following reaction? (c) associated colloids
2KClO 3 → 2KCl + 3O 2 (d) All of the above
(a) MnO2 (b) O2 (c) HCl (d) All of these
13. In the cleansing action of soaps represented by the 19. Which of the following is the most acceptable reason
given figures, to explain the charge on sol particles?
s s (a) Electron capture by sol particles during
s
electrodispersion
(b) Preferential adsorption of ions from solution
(A) (B)
(c) Formulation of electrical double layer
(C)
Figure ‘C’ show the structure of 20. The potential difference between the fixed layer and
(a) aggregated colloids diffused layer of opposite charges in the colloidal
(b) macromolecular colloids system is known as
(c) Both (a) and (b) (a) Zeta potential
(d) multimolecular colloids (b) gravitational potential
(c) standard potential
14. Which of the following processes is involved in (d) ionic potential
Bredig’s arc method?
(a) Only dispersion 21. Lyophilic sols are more stable than lyophobic sols
(b) Only condensation because
(c) Dispersion as well as condensation (a) lyophobic sols are extensively solvated
(d) Diffusion (b) lyophilic sols are extensively solvated
(c) lyophilic sols are negatively charged
15. Purification of the colloidal solution is carried
(d) lyophilic sols are reversible in nature
out by
(a) dialysis (b) electrodialysis 22. Butter and cream are the examples of
(c) ultrafiltration (d) All of thesee (a) w/o type emulsion (b) o/w type emulsion
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these
16. Tyndall effect is observed only, when
(a) the diameter of the dispersed particles is not much 23. An emulsions cannot be broken by
smaller than the wavelength of light used. (a) adding more amount of dispersion medium
(b) there is high difference between the refractive indices (b) freezing
(µ ) of the dispersion medium and dispersed phase. (c) adding emulsifying agent
(c) refractive indices (µ ) of both dispersed medium and (d) Both (a) and (c)
dispersed phase are equal to each other. 24. Smoke is precipitated by the
(d) Both (a) and (b) (a) Cottrell precipitator
17. Which property of colloidal solutions is independent (b) colloidal precipitator
of charge on the colloidal particles? (c) natural precipitator
(a) Coagulation (b) Electrophoresis (d) Planck’s precipitator
(c) Electroosmosis (d) Tyndall effect
25. Medicines are more effective in their colloidal form
18. Which of the following is an example of the because
negatively charged sols? (a) in such condition, these gets easily precipitated in the blood
(a) FeCl 3 + NaOH (b) in this state, these are more stable
(b) FeCl 3 + hot water (c) in this state, they have large surface area and hence, get
(c) When Ag + is absorbed by AgI in solution of AgNO3 and KI easily assimilated
(d) All of the above (d) All of the above
ANSWERS
1. (d) 2. (d) 3. (a) 4. (b) 5. (a) 6. (a) 7. (d) 8. (a) 9. (c) 10. (a)
11. (a) 12. (a) 13. (a) 14. (c) 15. (d) 16. (d) 17. (d) 18. (a) 19. (b) 20. (a)
21. (b) 22. (a) 23. (d) 24. (a) 25. (c)
Chemistry 33
Hints & Solutions

2. (d) During adsorption, there is always a decrease in the 12. (a) Sulphur sol (consists of particles containing a thousands
residual forces of the surface, i.e. there is decrease in or more of S8 sulphur molecules) and gold sol (containing
surface energy which appears as heat and, thus heat is particles of various sizes having many atoms) are the
released. examples of multimolecular colloids.
Therefore, adsorption is an exothermic process. 13. (a) In the given figures, Fig. C shows the structure of
i.e. ∆H = −ve (always). aggregated colloids or micelles.
3. (a) In Freundlich adsorption isotherm, 14. (c) Bredig’s arc method involves the process of both
x dispersion as well as condensation. Colloidal sols of
= kp1/ n
m metals such as gold, silver, platinum etc., can be prepared
where, x = amount of adsorbate by this method.
m = amount of adsorbent 16. (d) Tyndall effect is the scatttering of light by sol particles,
which cannot be affected by charge on them.
The value of n is always greater than 1.
Other given options such as coagulation, electrophoresis and
So, the value of 1/n lies between 0 and 1 in all cases.
electroomosis depend on charge particles.
4. (b) At low pressure, curve is almost straight line, i.e.
x x
Thus, option (d) is correct.
∝ p or = kp 18. (a) Mixture of FeCl 3 and NaOH form the negatively
m m
Hence, it follows first order kinetics. charged sol, while other given forms are positively charged
5. (a) Animal charcoal removes coloured impurities of sols.
solutions by adsorbing. 19. (b) The sol particles acquire positive or negative
6. (a) In the given reaction, charge by preferential adsorption of the positive or
negative from solution.
2KClO3 → 2KCl + 3O2;
20. (a) The potential difference between fixed layer and
When little amount of MnO2 is added, the decomposition diffused layer of opposite charges of a colloidal sol is
takes place at lower temperature and rate of reaction also termed as electrokinetic or Zeta potential.
increases. Moreover, amount of MnO2 remains unchanged
during the reaction. 22. (a) Butter and cream are the examples of w/o type
emulsions in which water acts as dispersed phase and oil as
9. (c) The enzyme invertase converts the cane sugar into a dispersion medium.
glucose and fructose. i.e.
Invertase
23. (d) Emulsions are liquid-liquid colloidal system. They
Cane sugar → Glucose + fructose cannot be broken by adding more amount of dispersion
10. (a) Activators promoting catalytic actions are generally medium and adding emulsifying agent as on adding more
metal ions (Na + , Mn 2 + , Co 2 + , Cu 2 + ). These get weakly amount of dispersion medium they become dilute and on
adding emulsifying agent they get stabilised.
bonded to enzyme molecules and therefore promote
catalytic action. 24. (a) Smoke is precipitated by the cottrell precipitator.
11. (a) Lyophobic colloids are readily precipitated (or The smoke particles on coming in contact with Cottrell
coagulated) on addition of small amounts of electrolytes or precipitator plates, lose their charge and get precipitated.
by heating, hence they are not stable.
CHAPTER 06
General Principles and

Processes of Isolation
of Elements
1. Naturally occurring chemical substances in the earth’s Al 2O 3(s) + 2NaOH(aq ) + 3 H 2O(l ) →
crust obtainable by mining are called minerals. 2Na [Al(OH )4 ](aq )
2. The minerals from which a metal can be extracted l
Gold or silver ore is leached with dil. NaCN solution in
conveniently and profitably are called ores. e.g. bauxite the presence of air to give a metal complex, from
is an ore of aluminium. which metal is displaced by zinc. This process is
called cyanide process.
3. The substance which is added in the ore to convert
non-fusible gangue to fusible compound, (called slag) is 4M(s) + 8CN − (aq ) + 2H 2O(aq ) + O 2(g ) →
called flux. The flux may be acidic (like SiO 2) or basic 4[M(CN)2 ]− (aq ) + 4OH − (aq )
(like CaO, MgO etc). 2[M CN)2 ]− (aq ) + Zn(s) →
4. Concentration of Ores [Zn(CN)4 ]2− (aq ) + 2 M(s) [M = Ag or F]
Metal
Various methods are as follows:
5. Extraction of metal from concentrated ore involves
l
Gravity separation or hydraulic washing or
two major steps, i.e. conversion to oxide and reduction
levigations : This method is based on the difference
of oxide to metal.
in the specific gravities or densities of the ore
and gangue and usually employed for oxides l
The process of heating of metal ore in the absence of
and carbonate ores. Cassiterite or tin stone, chromite air is called calcination. By calcination, ore is
and haematite are concentrated by this method. converted into oxide.
l
Magnetic separation : This method is based on the e.g. CaCO 3 ⋅ MgCO 3(s) → CaO(s) + MgO(s)
difference in magnetic properties of minerals. If either + 2CO 2(g )
the ore or the gangue is attracted by a magnetic field, l
The process of heating of metal ore below its melting
it can be concentrated to yield a sample which is rich point in the presence of air is called roasting. By
in metal iron, e.g. magnetite (Fe 3O 4 ), haematite sulphide roasting, ore is converted to oxide.
(Fe 2O 3 ), wolframite (FeWO 4 ), chromite (FeO ⋅ Cr2O 4 ) and 2ZnS + 3O 2 → 2ZnO + 2SO 2 ↑
illmenite (FeO ⋅ TiO 2 ) are separated from non-magnetic l
The process of reduction of metal oxide into crude
impurities by this method. metal by C or CO is called smelting.
l
Froth-flotation process is used to concentrate 6 Ellingham diagram helps in predicting the feasibility of
sulphide ores because of the preferential wetting of thermal reduction of an ore.
ore with pine oil. Here, collectors (like pine oil,
According to this, the sum of ∆G° of the two reactions
xanthates etc.) enhance the non-wettability of mineral
(oxidation of reducing agent and reduction of metal
particles, while froth stabilisers like cresols, aniline etc.
stabilise the froth. oxide) should be negative.
l
Leaching is used when ore is soluble in some
l
At lower temperature, CO is a better reducing agent
suitable solvent, while impurities remain insoluble e.g. than C but at higher temperature (983 K or above), C
leaching of alumina from bauxite by Baeyer’s process. is the better reducing agent.
Al 2O 3 is leached out as sodium aluminate when l
For the reduction of a molten metal salt, electrolysis is
treated with NaOH. done that should follow the equation ∆G ° = − nFE °.
Chemistry 35
7. Refining Metal extracted by any method is usually (b) van-Arkel process is used to refine
contaminated by some impurities. To obtain metal of high zirconium and titanium.
purity, several techniques are used such as distillation, 1800 K
Zr + 2I2(g ) → ZrI4 (g ) → Zr(s) + 2I2
liquation, electrolytic refining etc. Some important Impure Metal iodide Tungsten filament Pure
techniques are as follows :

l
Low boiling metals are refined by distillation. l
Chromatography is the most advanced technique
For e.g. Zn and Hg. Liquation is used to refine low used for separation or metallurgical purposes. It is
melting metals that are separated from higher melting based on the principle that different components of
impurities by allowing them to flow on a sloping a mixture are adsorbed differently on an adsorbent.
surface, e.g: Sn. l
Copper and zinc are refined by electrolytic method,
l
Zone refining is based on the principle that the where impure metal is made to act as anode and a
impurities are more soluble in the molten metal than strip of pure metal acts as cathode. Here, the salt
in the solid state of the metal. Metals like, Si, Ge, Ga, solution of the metal to be extracted is generally used
B etc., are refined by this process. as electrolyte.
l
Vapour phase refining is based on the principle 8. Bauxite (Al 2O 3 ⋅ 2H 2O) is an important ore of aluminium,
that the impure metal is first converted into its volatile haematite (Fe 2O 3 ) and magnetite (Fe 3O 4 ) are the
compound and collected elsewhere. The volatile important ores of iron. Copper pyrites (CuFeS 2) is an
compound on decomposition gives pure metal. important ore of copper.
e.g. Ni. 9. Copper is extracted from low grade ores by leaching
(a) Mond’s process is used to refine nickel. through acid or bacteria or by treating the ore with
Ni + 4CO  → Ni(CO)4
330- 350 K scrap Fe or H 2.
Impure Volatile
compound 10. Cast iron, wrought iron, steel, alloy steel, nickel steel are
 → Ni + 4CO some useful alloys.
450- 470 K
Pure
Practice Questions
1. What percentage of carbon is found in wootz steel? 7. Froth floatation process for the concentration of ores
(a) 2-2.5% (b) 1.0-1.9% is an illustration of the practical application of
(c) 3-4.5% (d) 0.5-1% (a) absorption (b) adsorption
2. Which of the following elements occurs in free state? (c) sedimentation (d) coagulation
(a) Iodine (b) Sulphur 8. The ore which is concentrated by leaching process is
(c) Phosphorus (d) Magnesium (a) cuprite (b) argentite
(c) sphalerite (d) haematite
3. The ore that contains both iron and copper is
(a) malachite (b) azurite 9. Extraction of gold and silver involves leaching with
(c) dolomite (d) copper pyrites CN − ion. Silver is later recovered by
4. Which one of the following is a mineral of iron? (a) liquation (b) distillation
(c) zone refining (d) displacement with Zn
(a) Malachite (b) Cassiterite (c) Pyrolusite (d) Magnetite
10. Which of the following is not true in the context of
5. The froth stabilisers among the following are
roasting process?
(a) pine oil (b) cresol
(a) The ore is heated in a regular supply of air
(c) aniline (d) Both (b) and (c)
(b) The sulphide ores of copper are heated in reverberatory
6. An ore contains lead sulphide and zinc sulphide. furnace
If froth floatation process is used, these can be (c) 2ZnS + 3O2 → 2ZnO + 2SO2 is a reaction that
separated involves roasting process
(a) by using excess of pine oil (d) Mg, Al and Zn oxides can be reduced by roasting process
(b) by using collection and froth stabilisers 11. If the sulphide ores of copper contains iron, then
(c) by adjusting proportion of oil to water or using before heating, it is mixed with
depressants
(a) silica (b) coke
(d) by using some suitable solvent in which either lead
(c) carbon (d) coal
sulphide or zinc sulphide is soluble.
12. Sulphide ores are common for which of the following 19. Which of the following elements is present as
metals. the impurity to the maximum extent in the pig iron?
(a) Ag, Cu and Pb (a) Carbon (b) Silicon
(b) Ag, Cu and Sn (c) Phosphorus (d) Manganese
(c) Ag, Mg and Pb 20. Silica is added to the copper pyrites ore, when taken
(d) Al, Cu and Pb in reverberatory furnace for extraction of Cu.
13. Roasting of sulphides gives the gas X as a This is because
by-product. This is a colourless gas with choking (a) it removes the impurity of iron oxide as slag
smell of burnt sulphur and causes great damage to (b) it reacts with Cu 2O to form slag
respiratory organs as a result of acid rain. (c) it reduces Cu 2O to Cu
Its aqueous solution is acidic acts as a reducing (d) it helps in separation of Cu from Fe
agent and its acid has never been isolated. 21. In the extraction of copper from its sulphide ore, the
The gas X is metal finally obtained by the reduction of cuprous
(a) H2S (b) SO2 oxide with
(c) CO2 (d) SO3 (a) copper (I) sulphide ( Cu 2S )
14. Auto-reduction is not involved in the extraction of (b) sulphur dioxide ( SO2 )
(a) copper (b) mercury (c) lead (d) aluminium (c) iron sulphide (FeS)
(d) carbon monoxide (CO)
15. Given, ∆G °f (CuO) = −129.7 kJ mol −1 ,
22. In electrolytic refining method,
∆G °f (H 2O) = − 237.2 kJ mol −1 and (a) the impure metal is made to act as anode
∆G °f (CO) = −137.2 kJ mol −1 (b) a strip of the pure metal is used as cathode
(c) anode and cathode are kept in a suitable electrolytic
The better reducing agent for the reduction of CuO is bath containing soluble salt of the same metal
(a) H2 (b) CO (d) All the above are true
(c) C (d) Any of these 23. The Mond process is used for the
°
16. In the graph of ∆ r G vs T for the formation of oxides, (a) purification of Ni (b) extraction of Mo
(c) purification of Zr & Ti (d) extraction of Zn
(a) Cu 2O line is almost at the top
(b) lines (C, CO) and (C, CO2 ) are at much higher positions 24. Chromatographic method is based on the principle that
in the graph (a) different components of a mixture are differently
(c) Both (a) and (b) adsorbed on an adsorbent
(d) Neither (a) nor (b) (b) same components of a mixture are differently adsorbed
on an adsorbent
17. Considering Ellingham diagram, which of the
following metals can be used to reduce alumina? (c) different components of a mixture are differently
absorbed on an absorbent
(a) Mg (b) Zn
(c) Fe (d) Cu
25. Stainless steel is rust proof because
18. The reducing agent used to reduce iron oxide in
(a) an oxide layer of chromium protects it.
blast furnace is
(b) a stoichiometric compound is formed.
(a) silica (b) CO (c) interstitial compound is formed between Cr and Fe.
(c) C (d) lime (d) galvanisation of iron takes place.
ANSWERS
1. (b) 2. (b) 3. (d) 4. (d) 5. (d) 6. (c) 7. (b) 8. (b) 9. (d) 10. (d)
11. (a) 12. (a) 13. (b) 14. (d) 15. (a) 16. (a) 17. (a) 18. (b) 19. (a) 20. (a)
21. (a) 22. (d) 23. (a) 24. (a) 25. (b)
Chemistry 37
Hints & Solutions

1. (b) Wootz steel contains high proportion of carbon that ranges 13. (b) Roasting of sulphides give SO 2 gas as a by-product.
between 1.0% and 1.9%. The reaction is given as follows :
∆
2. (b) A few elements like carbon, sulphur, gold and noble gases 2M 2 S + 3 O2 
 → 2M 2 O + 2 SO2
occur in free state. Iodine, phosphorus and magnesium are This gas exhibits all the characteristics given in the question.
reactive and found in combined state.
14. (d) Less electropositive metals like copper, mercury and lead
3. (d) Zincite (ZnO) and cuprite (Cu 2 O) are the examples of oxide involve auto-reduction in their extraction process.
ores while copper glance (Cu 2 S) is an example of sulphide ores. Auto-reduction is not involved in the extraction of aluminium
4. (d) The chemical formulas of the minerals given in the options as it is more electropositive.
are as follows : 16. (a) In the graph of ∆ rG ° vs T for the formation of oxides, Cu 2 O
Malachite-CuCO3 ⋅ Cu (OH)2 , Cassiterite-SnO2 line is almost at the top. So, it is quite easy to reduce oxide ores
Pyrolusite-MnO2 , Magnetite-Fe3 O4 of copper directly to the metal by heating with cake. The lines
Thus, magnetite is a mineral of iron. (C, CO) and (C, CO2 ) are at much lower positions in the graph
particularly after 500-600 K.
6. (c) The given ore contains lead sulphide and zinc sulphide. It is
possible to separate two sulphide ores by adjusting proportion
2CO
2
of oil to water or by using depressants. The depressant used in →
–300 + O2
the case of given ore is NaCN. 2CO
–400 C+O
8. (b) Argentite and bauxite are the ores of less reactive and 2 → CO
–500 2
highly reactive metals and are soluble in some suitable reagent,
that’s why these are concentrated by leaching. Thus, among the –600
given ores, the one which is concentrated by leaching process. –700
9. (d) Extraction of gold and silver involves leaching with –800

CN− ion. Silver is later recovered by displacement of zinc (Zn). –900
In the metallurgy of silver or gold, the respective metal is –1000
leached with a dilute solution of NaCN or KCN in the presence –1100
of air to obtain the metal complex in solution. From the
complex, metal is obtained through the displacement reaction. –1200
In general, 0°C 400°C 800°C 1200°C 1600°C 2000°C
Temperature
4 M (s) + 8CN− (aq) + 2H2 O(aq) + O2 (g ) →
−
4[ M (CN)2 ] (aq) + 4 OH (aq)− 17. (a)
0
2[ M (CN)2 ] (aq)+ Zn (s) → [ Zn (CN)4 ]2 − (aq) + 2M (s)
−
–100 uO
M = Ag or Au → 2C 2
O2  FeO
–200 4Cu + → 2
This method is known as MacArthur-Forrest cyanide process.
+ O2 
–300 2Fe C + O2 → CO2
10. (d) Due to comparatively higher reactivity, oxides of Mg, Al
–400
∆G°/kJ mol–1 of O2
and Zn can not be reduced by roasting process. In case of such → 2C

O2
–500 O2  2ZnO
2C
+O
oxides electrolytic process is used. 2CO + O2  → 2 →
–600 2Zn + 2CO
11. (a) If the sulphide ores of copper ore contains iron, it is mixed
–700
with silica before heating. Iron oxide ‘slags off’ as iron silicate
–800 A
and copper is produced in the form of copper matte which 2/ 3 Al 2O
3
contains Cu 2 S and FeS. →

–900 l + O2
4 /3 A
2MgO
O 2 →
12. (a) –1000
Element Ores Name 2Mg +
–1100
Ag Ag2 S Argentite
Cu CuFeS2 Copper pyrites –1200
Pb PbS Galena 0°C 400°C 800°C 1200°C 1600°C 2000°C
Sn SnO2 Cassiterite 273K 673K 1073K 1473K 1873K 2273K
Mg MgCO3 ⋅ CaCO3 Dolomite Temperature
Al Al 2 O3 ⋅ xH2 O Bauxite From the Ellingham diagram the plot for the formation of MgO
intersects the plot for the formation of Al 2 O3 at around 1500°C.
Thus, sulphide ores are common for the metals Ag, Cu and Pb.
Thus, Mg can be use to reduce alumina at that temperature.
18. (b) Carbon monoxide is the reducing agent which reduces iron They are kept in a suitable electrolytic bath containing soluble
oxide (Fe2 O3 ) to iron in the blast furnace. salt of the same metal. The more basic metal remains in the
solution and the less basic ones go to the anode mud.
Fe2 O3 + 3CO → 2Fe + 3O2 ↑
Anode M → M n + + ne–
19. (a) Pig iron contains about 4% carbon (major impurity) and
other impurities (S, P, Si, Mn) in trace amounts. Cathode M n+ + ne– → M
20. (a) Silica is added to the copper pyrites ore when taken in 23 (a) Mond process is used in the purification of Ni.
reverberatory furnace for extraction of copper because silica It is a vapour phase refining process.
removes the impurity of FeO present in the copper pyrites as It is based on the principle that Ni is heated in the presence of
slag (FeSiO3 ). carbon monoxide to form nickel tetracarbonyl, which is a
volatile complex. This complex is then decomposed by
21. (a) In the extraction of copper from its sulphide ore, the metal
subjecting it to a higher temperature (450-470 K) to obtain pure
finally obtained with Cu 2 S. Because when ore is subjected to
nickel metal.
roasting, some of it oxidised to Cu 2 O which reacts with the
remaining Cu 2 S (sulphide ore) to give copper metal. Crude nickel (s) + 4 CO (g)
(Impure)
Recycled
Cu 2 S + 2Cu 2 O → 6 Cu + SO2 ↑
330-350 K
22. (d) In electrolytic refining method, the impure metal is made to
act as anode. Ni (s)
[Ni (CO)4] (g) 450-470 K Pure + 4 CO (g)
A strip of the same metal in pure form is used as cathode. (Volatile compound)
Chemistry 39
CHAPTER 07
p-Block Elements
Group 15 Elements (The Nitrogen Family) The optimum conditions for the production of ammonia are
1. Molecular nitrogen comprises about 78% by volume of high pressure of 200 × 105 Pa (about 200 atm) and
Earth’s atmosphere. It exhibits anomalous properties due to temperature ≈ 700 K and use of a catalyst such as iron
its smaller size, has high ionisation enthalpy, high oxide with small amount of K 2O and Al 2O 3 to increase the
electronegativity and absence of d-orbitals. rate of attainment of equilibrium. Earlier iron was used as a
catalyst with molybdenum as a promoter.
2. The valence shell electronic configuration of group 15
elements is ns 2 np3 . 10. Nitric acid is manufactured by Ostwald’s process and
involves the following steps :
3. Physical properties All the elements are polyatomic.
4NH 3(g ) + 5O 2(g )  
→ 4NO(g ) +6H 2O( l )
Pt /Rh gauge
Dinitrogen is a diatomic gas while all others are solids. The
500K, 9 bar
boiling point increase from top to bottom but the melting
point increases upto arsenic and then decreases upto 2NO(g ) + O 2(g ) s 2NO 2(g )
bismuth. 3NO 2(g ) + H 2O(l ) → 2HNO 3(aq ) + NO(g )
4. Oxidation states The common oxidation states of these It is being a strong oxidising agent oxidises most of the
elements are −3, + 3 and +5. The tendency to exhibit −3 metals (except gold and platinum) and non-metals. Its
oxidation state decreases down the group due to increase in oxidises Cu to Cu2 + , iodine to iodic acid, C to CO 2 , S to
size and metallic character. H2SO 4 and P to phosphoric acid ( H3PO 4 ).
5. Nitrogen differs from the rest of the members due to its Group 16 Elements (The Oxygen Family)
small size, high electronegativity, high ionisation enthalpy
and non-availability of d-orbitals. It has a unique ability to 11. The general electronic configuration of group 16 elements
form pπ- pπ multiple bonds with itself and with other atoms is ns 2 np4 .
like C and O. That’s why it exists as N2 molecule with a triple 12. Electron gain enthalpy of oxygen is less negative than
bond and has high bond enthalpy. that of sulphur due to compact size of oxygen atom i.e.
6. Heavier members of nitrogen family form pπ- dπ bond and (inter-electronic repulsion is more in O). From sulphur
show catenation due to their high sigma bond energy. onwards, enthalpy again becomes less negative upto Po.
7. Reducing character of hydrides of nitrogen family 13. Properties of oxygen are different from other elements of
increases down the group due to decrease in bond the group due to its small size, high electronegativity and
dissociation enthalpy. absence of d-orbital.
Basic character and bond angle in the hydrides of Due to the absence of d-orbital, oxygen shows covalency
nitrogen family decreases down the group, i.e. of 4 and in practice it rarely exceeds the covalency by two,
NH3 > PH3 > AsH3 > SbH3 ≥ BiH3 while other members of the group can exceed their
covalency beyond four. Oxygen atom can only form p π - p π
8. Dinitrogen It is produced commercially by the liquifaction
bond (if required) due to small size.
and fractional distillation of air. In the laboratory, N2 is
prepared by the following process: H2O undergoes extensive H-bonding due to high
electronegativity of O-atom and hence, exists as liquid. On
NH4 Cl(aq ) + NaNO 2 (aq ) → N2 (g ) + 2H2O(l ) + NaCl(aq )
the other hand, H2S does not undergo H-bonding and
l
It can also be obtained by thermal decomposition of hence, exists as a discrete molecule and is a gas.
(NH4 )2 Cr2O 7 and Ba(N3 )2 .
14. Reducing property and acidic strength increase from H2O
l
It is colourless, tasteless, odourless and non-toxic gas.
l
Following chemical reactions are shown by nitrogen : to H2 Te due to decrease in bond dissociation enthalpy.
However, their thermal stability decreases from H2O to H2 Te.
6Li + N2 →
Heat
2Li 3N, 3Mg + N2 →
Heat
Mg 3N2
15. Dioxygen is a colourless and odourless gas. It is prepared
9. Ammonia is manufactured by Haber’s process. by heating oxygen containing salts or by thermal
N2 (g ) + 3H2 (g )q 2NH3 (g ); ∆ f H° = −46.1kJ / mol decomposition of the oxides of metals. It directly reacts
with nearly all metals and non-metals.
Some reactions are as follows : Peroxomonosulphuric acid (H2SO 5 ) and peroxodisulphuric

2Ca + O 2 → 2CaO acid or Marshall’s acid (H2 S2 O 8 ) contain peroxide linkages
P4 + 5O 2 → P4O10 in their structure.
CH4 + 2O 2 → CO 2 + 2H2O 21. Sulphuric acid (H2SO 4 ), the king of chemicals or oil of
16. Oxides are binary compounds of oxygen with another vitriol, is manufactured by contact process, reactions
element. These may be simple (e.g MgO, Al 2O 3 ) or mixed involved are as follows :
(Pb 3O 4 , Fe 3O 4 ). These can be acidic oxide S8 + 8O 2 → 8SO 2
V 2O 5
(SO 2 , Cl 2O 7 ) basic oxide
2SO 2 (g ) + O 2 (g ) s 2SO 3 (g ) ;
(Na 2O, CaO) or amphoteric oxide (Al 2O 3 ), etc.
∆ H° = − ve
17. Ozone is thermodynamically less stable than oxygen
because its decomposition into oxygen results with the SO 3 + H2SO 4 → H2S2O 7 →
H 2O
2H2SO 4
Dilution
liberation of heat (∆ H is negative) and increase in entropy Oleum
(∆S is positive). These two effects result in a large negative The favourable conditions for the maximum yield of SO 3 are
Gibbs energy change (∆G ) for its conversion into oxygen. pressure of about 2 bar and optimum temperature of 720 K.
l
Ozone oxidises iodide ions to iodine and lead sulphide 22. In SF6 , S is sterically protected by six F-atoms which do not
to lead sulphate. allow H2O molecules to attack at S-atoms. As a result of
2I− (aq ) + H 2O(l ) + O 3(g ) → 2OH − (aq ) this, SF6 does not undergo hydrolysis.
+ I2(s) + O 2(g )
Group 17 Elements : (The Halogen Family)
PbS(s) + 4O 3(g ) → PbSO 4 (s) + 4O 2(g )
23. All elements have seven electrons in their outermost shell
l
In quantitative method for estimating O 3 gas, ozone is
(ns 2 np5 ). They have little tendency to lose electrons.
treated with an excess of KI solution buffered with a
borate buffer (pH = 9.2). Iodine is liberated which can be 24. Halogens have maximum negative electron gain enthalpy in
titrated against a standard solution of sodium thiosulphate. the corresponding periods. The electronegativity decreases
18. Sulphur forms numerous allotropes of which yellow down the group.
rhombic (α-sulphur) and monoclinic (β-sulphur) are the 25. Ionisation enthalpy, electronegativity, and electrode potential
most important. are higher for fluorine than expected from other halogens,
l
The S8 ring in both the monoclinic and rhombic form is whereas ionic and covalent radii, melting and boiling points
puckered and has a crown shape. and electron gain enthalpy are quite low than expected.
This is due to the small size, highest electronegativity, low
S 20 4 S S F  F bond dissociation enthalpy and non-availability of
pm
107° d-orbital.
S S
S 26. Fluorine has smaller bond dissociation enthalpy than
S S chlorine, while X  X bond dissociation enthalpies from Cl
onwards show the expected trend
l
At elevated temperatures (~1000 K) sulphur exists as S 2 Cl  Cl >Br Br >F F > I I. Due to small size and large
and is paramagnetic in nature. electron- electron repulsion among the lone pairs of
19. Moist sulphur dioxide behaves as a reducing agent. It fluorine, FF bond length is more than Cl — Cl and Br 
converts Fe 3 + ions to Fe 2+ ions. It also decolourises acidified Br bond lengths.
potassium permanganate solution (a confirmative test for l
Fluorine reacts with water to produce oxygen or ozone.
SO 2 gas).
2F2 + 2H 2O → 4HF + O 2
SO 2 molecule is angular and is a resonance hybrid of the
3F2 + 3H 2O → 6HF + O 3
following two structures :
27. Chlorine can be prepared by heating
S S manganese dioxide with conc. HCl.
O O O O (i) MnO 2 + 4HCl → MnCl 2 + Cl 2 + 2H2O
CuCl
The two S  O bonds are equal. (ii) 4HCl + O 2 →
2
2Cl 2 + 2H2O
( Deacon’s
20. The structure of some oxoacids of sulphur are as follows : process)
O O O l
Chlorine reacts with sodium hydroxide solution in the
following manner :
S S S S (i) 2NaOH + Cl 2 → NaCl + NaOCl + H2O
HO O HO O O O O O (Cold, dilute) Sodium
hypochlorite
HO HO OH OH
Sulphurous acid Sulphuric and Peroxodisulphuric acid (ii) 6NaOH+ 3Cl 2 → 5NaCl + NaClO 3 + 3H2O
H2SO3 H2SO4 (H2S2O8) (Marshall's acid)
( Hot, conc. ) Sodium
chlorat e
Chemistry 41
l
It has great affinity for hydrogen. It reacts with linear, T-shaped, square pyramidal and pentagonal
compounds containing hydrogen to form hydrogen bipyramidal.
chloride. In all interhalogen compounds, X  X ′ bond is weaker than
H2 + Cl 2 → 2HCl X  X bond (except F—F bond). So, these compounds are
l
On standing, chlorine water loses its yellow colour due to more reactive than individual halogens.
the formation of HCl and HOCl. Group 18 Element : (The Noble Gases)
Cl 2 + H 2O → HCl + HOCl
31. General electronic configuration of noble gases is ns 2 np6 .
HOCl → HCl + [O]
Nascent Due to the completely filled shell, these gases exhibit very
oxygen high ionisation enthalpies.
Nascent oxygen formed by HOCl is responsible for 32. The first compound of Xe was Xe + PtF6 − which was
oxidising and bleaching properties of chlorine. discovered by Neil Bartlett.
28. Hydrogen chloride is a colourless and pungent smelling gas. 33. Xenon fluorides are readily hydrolysed even by traces of
It is easily liquefied to a colourless liquid and freezes to a white
water.
crystalline solid. It can be prepared by heating sodium chloride
with conc. H2SO 4 . 2XeF2(s) + 2H 2O(l ) → 2Xe (g ) + 4HF (aq ) + O 2(g )
29. Various oxoacids of halogens are HOF, HOCl, HOBr, HOI etc. XeF6 + H 2O → XeOF4 + 2HF
The structures of some important oxo acids are : XeF6 + 2H 2O → XeO 2F2 + 4HF
O O O XeF6 + 3H 2O → XeO 3 + 6HF
H Cl H Cl
Hypochlorous acid Chlorous acid
6XeF4 + 12H 2O → 4Xe + 2XeO 3 + 24HF+ 3O 2
O H The geometry of XeF2 , XeF4 , XeF6 , XeOF4 and XeO 3 are
linear, square planar, distorted octahedral, square pyramidal
O O H Cl
Cl and pyramidal, respectively.
O O
O O 34. Helium is used in gas-cooled nuclear reactors and as
Chloric acid Perchloric acid diluent for oxygen in modern diving apparatus because of
30. Interhalogen compounds Two different halogens may react to its very low solubility in blood.
form interhalogen compounds of the type XX’, XX 3′ , XX 5 ’, XX 7 ’,
where, X = higher molecular mass halogen, X’ is lower
molecular mass halogen. Their geometry is respectively
Practice Questions
1. Chile saltpetre is the common name of (a) NH3 with CuO (b) NH4NO3
(a) AgNO3 (b) NaNO3 (c) (NH4 ) 2 Cr2O7 (d) Ba(N3)2
(c) NaSO4 (d) AgCl
6. Which of the following are the applications of
2. The common oxidation states of group 15 elements dinitrogen gas?
are (a) Preservation of biological materials and food items
(a) + 3 and + 5 (b) − 3 and − 5 (b) Production of inert atmosphere in copper and steel
(c) − 5 and + 5 (d) − 3, + 3 and + 5 industry
(c) In the preparation of explosives
3. Nitrogen lacks d-orbital in its valence shell and (d) Etching of metals
hence, it cannot
(a) exhibit orbital hybridisation 7. On heating HNO 3 with P4O 10 , the oxide of nitrogen
(b) exhibit the oxidation state of + 5 produced is
(c) forms oxides with oxidation state greater than +3 (a) NO2 (b) N2O5 (c) N2O4 (d) N2O3
(d) have covalency greater than three
8. Red phosphorus is less reactive, less volatile and less
4. Which of the following hydrides has the lowest soluble in non-polar solvent than white/yellow
boiling point? phosphorus because
(a) PH3 (b) AsH3 (a) it has high molecular energy
(c) SbH3 (d) NH3 (b) it has low molecular energy
5. Extra pure N 2 can be obtained by thermal (c) it forms condensation products
decomposition of (d) it possesses highly polymerised structures
9. PH 3 produces smoky rings when it comes in contact 17. Angular shape of ozone molecule consists of
with air because (a) 1σ-bond and 1π-bond (b) 2σ-bond and 2π-bonds
(a) PH3 reacts with water vapours (c) 1σ-bond and 2π-bonds (d) 2σ-bond and 1π-bond
(b) PH3 reacts with N2 18. The industrial preparation of SO 2 is
(c) PH3 burns in air
(a) S( s ) + O2 ( g ) → SO2 ( g )
(d) PH3 contains impurities of P2H4
(b) SO23− ( aq ) + 2H+( aq ) → H2O( l ) + SO2( g )
10. Among the following, the number of compounds that
(c) 4FeS2 ( s ) + 11O2 ( g ) → 2Fe2O3 ( s ) + 8SO2 ( g )
can react with PCl 5 to give POCl 3 is
I. O 2 II. CO 2 III. CH 3 COOH IV. H 2 O
19. Peroxoacids of sulphur are
V. C 2 H 5 OH VI. P 4 O 10
(a) H2S2O8 and H2SO5
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
(b) H2S2O8 and H2S2O7
11. The compound that cannot act both as oxidising and (c) H2S2O7 and H2S2O6
reducing agent is (d) H2SO5 and H2S2O7
(a) H2SO3 (b) H3PO4
(c) HNO2 (d) H2O2 20. H 2SO 4 is used in
(a) petroleum refining
12. Sulphur exhibits valencies of 2, 4 and 6, whereas
(b) manufacture of paints, pigments and dyestuff
oxygen has a valency of 2 due to
intermediates
(a) being less electronegative than S
(c) detergent industry
(b) presence of d-orbitals in S
(c) S is bigger atom
(d) S has higher ionisation potential 21. The anomalous behaviour of fluorine is due to
13. All the hydrides (of group 16 elements) except one (a) its small size
(b) its highest electronegativity
possess reducing property. Identity the hydride
(c) low F—F bond dissociation enthalpy and
(a) H2Se (b) H2O non-availability of d-orbitals in valence shell
(c) H2S (d) H2Te (d) All of the above
14. Tetrafluorides of elements of group-16 have 22. Correct order of bond dissociation energy is
hybridisation and structure respectively are (a) Br2 > Cl 2 (b) F2 > Cl 2 (c) I2 > F2 (d) F2 > I2
(a) sp 3 and trigonal pyramidal
23. HCl gas can be dried by passing through
(b) sp 3d and tetrahedral
(a) conc. H2SO4 (b) dil. H2SO4
(c) sp 3d and trigonal bipyramidal
(c) conc. HNO3 (d) dil. HNO3
(d) sp 3d and tetrahedral
24. The first noble gas compound obtained was
15. Water is much less volatile than H 2S because (a) Xe+PtF6− (b) XeF4
(a) H2O has a bond angle of nearly 150° (c) XeF2 (d) XeOF4
(b) hydrogen is loosely bonded with the sulphur
(c) S-atom is less electronegative than O-atom 25. Among XeO 3 , XeO 4 and XeF6 , the molecules having
(d) S-atom is more electronegative than O-atom same number of lone pairs on Xe are
16. Which of the following oxides is amphoteric in (a) XeO3 and XeO4
nature? (b) XeO3 and XeF6
(a) Cl 2O7 (b) Na 2O (c) XeO4 and XeF6
(c) N2O (d) Al 2O3 (d) XeO3 , XeOF4 and XeF6
ANSWERS
1. (b) 2. (d) 3. (b) 4. (a) 5. (d) 6. (a) 7. (b) 8. (d) 9. (d) 10. (d)
11. (b) 12. (b) 13. (b) 14. (c) 15. (c) 16. (d) 17. (d) 18. (c) 19. (a) 20. (d)
21. (d) 22. (d) 23. (a) 24. (a) 25. (d)
Chemistry 43
Hints & Solutions

4. (a) PH3 has the lowest boiling point because boiling point 15. (c) Water (H 2 O) is much less volatile than H2 S because
increases with increase in size of central atom and NH3 has sulphur atom is less electronegative than O-atom and, hence
more boiling point than that of PH3 due to hydrogen bonding. does not form H-bonding like water.
5. (d) Extra pure N2 can be obtained by thermal decomposition of 16. (d) Some metallic oxides exhibit a dual behaviour. They show
barium azide as follows : characteristics of both acidic as well as basic oxides. Such
Ba(N3 )2 → Ba(s) + 3N2 (g )
Heat oxides are known as amphoteric oxides. Al 2 O3 is such an
example.
As the decomposed product of Ba (N3 )2 contain solid Ba as
by-product alongwith gaseous nitrogen, hence no additional 17. (d) Angular shape of ozone molecule consists of 2σ and 1
step of separation is required. π-bond.
6. (a) Liquid N 2 is used as refrigerant to preserve biological 18. (c) Industrially, SO2 is produced as a by-product of the roasting
materials, food items and in cryosurgery. of sulphide ores.
It also finds use where an inert atmosphere is required (e.g. 4FeS2 (s) + 11O2 (g ) → 2Fe2 O3 (s) + 8SO2 (g )
in iron and steel industry, inert diluent for reactive chemicals). 19. (a) H2 S2 O8 (peroxodisulphuric acid) and H2 SO5
7 (b) On heating HNO3 with P4 O10 , the oxide of nitrogen (peroxomonosulphuric acid) are peroxoacids of sulphur.
produced is N2 O5 . 20. (d) H2SO 4 is used in petroleum refining, manufacture of
The reaction is given below : pigments, paints and dyestuff intermediates, detergent industry,
2HNO3 + P2 O5 → N2 O5 + 2HPO3 etc.
(Dinitrogen (Metaphosphoric
pentaoxide) acid) 21. (d) The anomalous behaviour of fluorine is due to its small size,
highest electronegativity, low F — F bond dissociation
9. (d) PH3 produces smoky rings when it comes in contact with enthalpy and non-availability of d-orbitals in its valence shell.
air because PH3 contains impurities of P2 H4 which undergoes 22. (d) In general, bond enthalpy or bond dissociation energy of
spontaneous combustion. halogen molecules (X 2 ) decreases down the group from Cl 2 to
10. (d) Among the given compounds, the four compounds, i.e. I2 .
CH3 COOH, H2 O, C2 H5 OH and P4 O10 can react with PCl 5 to
Cl 2 > Br2 > F2 > I2
give POCl 3 . The reactions are given as below :
The decrease in bond enthalpy from Cl 2 to I 2 is due to increase
PCl 5 + CH3 COOH → CH3 COCl + POCl 3 + HCl
in atomic size that increases the distance between two atoms.
PCl 5 + H2 O → POCl 3 +2HCl Hence, it becomes easier to break them apart. The exceptionally
PCl 5 + C2 H5 OH → POCl 3 + C2 H5 Cl + HCl low bond dissociation energy of fluorine molecule is due to
6PCl 5 + P4 O 10 → 10POCl 3 very small size of fluorine atom. This brings the non-bonding
electrons of fluorine nearer to each other, resulting in a much
11. (b) In H3 PO4 , P is in its highest oxidation state (+5), it can only greater lone pair-lone pair repulsion, which weakens the
act as oxidising agent but not as reducing agents, because it can covalent bond and lowers its dissociation energy.
be reduced but not oxidised. Hence, option (d) is the only correct option.
H2 SO3 : S = + 4 can get oxidised or reduced. 23. (a) HCl gas can be dried by passing through concentrated
HNO2 : N = + 3 can get oxidised or reduced. sulphuric acid (H2 SO4 ).
H2 O2 : O = − 1can get oxidised or reduced. 24. (a) The first noble gas compound obtained by mixing PtF6 and
12. (b) Due to presence of d-orbitals, sulphur can expand its xenon, Xe + PtF6− .
valencies from 2 to 6, while oxygen has only one valency (2)
25. (d) Among XeO3 , XeOF4 and XeF6 , all the molecules have one
due to the absence of d-orbital.
lone pair of electrons on Xe.
13. (b) All the hydrides of group 16 elements except H2 O possess
reducing property and this character increases from H2 S to
H2 Te.
CHAPTER 08
The d-and
f-Block Elements
1. Transition elements having partially or fully filled than Cu + . This is more than that required to
d-orbitals in ground or most common oxidation state are compensate high IE 2 of Cu.
called d-block elements. These are also called l
The values of E s across the series are less negative
transition elements (having incomplete d-orbitals in because of general increase in the sum of the first
ground or most common oxidation state), because their and second ionisation enthalpies.
properties are intermediate of s- and p-block elements. l
E s value for any metal depends on three factors;
General electronic configuration of this block is hydration enthalpy, ionisation enthalpy, enthalpy of
(n − 1)d 1−10 ns1− 2. atomisation.
Zn, Cd, Hg of group 12 have full Copper has high value of enthalpy of atomisation and
d 10 configuration in their ground state as well as in their low value of hydration enthalpy and also then high
common oxidation states, thus, they are not regarded energy to transform Cu(s) to Cu 2 + (aq ) is not balanced
as transition metals. by its hydration enthalpy, therefore it has positive E s .
2. General Properties
l
Transition elements exhibit colour due to d- d transition,
structure defects and charge transfer. Electrons of lower
The transition metals have high enthalpy of
l
energy level of d-orbital absorb energy from visible

atomisation. It first increases, reaches to the
region for excitation to higher level.
maximum in the middle of each series and then
decreases. It can be explained on the basis of strong
l
Many transition metals and their compounds are used
interatomic interaction due to unpaired electrons. as catalyst because of their ability to adopt multiple
Greater is the number of unpaired electrons, stronger oxidation states and to form complexes.
is the resultant bonding. l
Both oxygen and fluorine being highly
Metals of second (4d ) and third (5d ) series have high
l electronegative can increase the oxidation state of a
enthalpy of atomisation than the corresponding particular transition metal. In certain oxides, the
elements of 3d-series because of stronger element oxygen is involved in multiple bonding with
metal-metal bond. the metal and this is responsible for the higher
oxidation state of the metal.
Ionisation enthalpy increases from left to right in a
l
series, but irregularities are observed due

l
Magnetic properties The magnetic moment is
to irregular trends in electronic configuration. determined by the number of unpaired electrons and
Members show little difference in values and is calculated by using the ‘spin-only’ formula, i.e.
are fairly close. Zn shows quite high value due to µ = n(n + 2 ) BM.
extra stability of completely filled orbital. l
The compounds in which small atoms like H, C, N etc.,
There is a fall in IE 2 from Cr to Mn and from Cu to Zn
l occupy interstitial sites in the crystal lattice are called
because after the removal of first electron, Cr and Cu interstitial compounds. These compounds are well
acquire a stable configuration, i.e. d 5 and d 10. The high known for transition metals because small atoms can
values of IE 3 for Cu, Ni and Zn explains, why they easily occupy the positions in the interstitial sites present
show a maximum oxidation state of +2. in the crystal lattices of transition metals.
Cu + is unstable in aqueous solution and undergoes
l
l
Acidic strength of oxides of transition elements
disproportionation. increases with the increase in oxidation state of the
element, e.g. MnO (Mn 2 + ) is basic, whereas
2Cu + → Cu 2 + + Cu; Cu 2 + is more stable than Cu +
Mn 2O 7 (Mn 7 + ) is acidic in nature.
due to much more (–)ve ∆ H (hydration) of Cu 2+ (aq)
Chemistry 45
3. Important Compounds of Transition Elements l

In acidic medium, KMnO 4 oxidises Fe 2 + to Fe 3 + ,
l
Potassium dichromate is obtained from chromite ore as: SO −2 −2 −
3 to SO 4 , I to I2 whereas in neutral medium,
−
4FeCr2O 4 + 8Na 2CO 3 + 7O 2 → 2Fe 2O 3 it converts I to IO 3 and S 2O 23− to SO 24− .
−
Iron chromate
+ 8 Na 2CrO 4 + 8CO 2 4. Inner-transition Elements
Sodium l
The f-block consists of the two series,
chromate
+
2Na 2CrO 4+2H → Na 2Cr2O 7 + 2Na + H 2O + lanthanoids and actinoids.
Sodium
chromate
Sodium
dichromate
l
The electronic configuration of all the tripositive
ions (the most stable
Na 2Cr2O 7 + 2KCl → K 2Cr2O 7 + 2NaCl
Sodium Potassium oxidation state of all the lanthanoids) are of the
dichromate dichromate form 4f n.
2– 2– Due to the poor shielding effect of 4 f-electrons,
O l
O O O effective nuclear charge increases and radius

Cr Cr Cr decreases from lanthanum to lutetium. Ionic radii
O O O O decreases in regular pattern but atomic radii
O O O
follow irregular pattern because configuration is
Chromate ion Dichromate ion
irregular. The gradual and steady decrease in
l
Potassium dichromate is used as a primary standard radii across the period is known as lanthanoid
solution in volumetric analysis. In acidic medium,
contraction.
Cr2O 72− + 14 H+ + 6 e − → 2Cr 3+ + 7H 2O
Dicromate
(E s = 1.33 V)
l
Due to lanthanoid contraction, the basic
Thus, acidified potassium dichromate oxidises, iodides to character of oxides and hydroxides decreases
iodine, sulphides to sulphur, iron (II) salts to iron (III) and tin from La(OH)3 to Lu(OH)3. Zr/Hf; Nb/Ta and Mo/W
(II) to tin (IV). are almost identical in size.
OH − l
Misch metal is an alloy of rare earth elements
Effect of pH on Cr2O72 − , Cr2O 72− d CrO 24− (94%), iron (5%) and traces of C, S, Ca and Al. It
H+
l
When pyrolusite ore is fused with alkali in the presence of is used in making bullets, shells and lighter flint.
air or an oxidising agent like KNO 3, potassium Pyrophoric alloys contain Ce (40.5%), La + Nd
permanganate is formed. (44%) Al, Ca and S.
2MnO 2 + 4KOH + O 2 → 2K 2MnO 4 + 2H 2O
l
.Actinoids ions are generally coloured due to
Potassium f- f transition. It depends upon the number of
manganate electrons in 5 f-orbitals.
3MnO 24− + 4H+ → 2MnO 4− + MnO 2 + 2H 2O l
The decrease in atomic (or ionic) radii in actinoid
Permanganate elements (actinoid contraction) is greater than
ion
Electrolytic oxidation lanthanoid contraction because 5 f-electrons
MnO 24−  → MnO −4 have poor shielding effect as compared to
in alkaline solution
Permanganate ion 4 f-electrons. Therefore, the effect of
Fused with KOH, oxidised increased nuclear charge leading to contraction
MnO 2  → MnO 2−
with air or KNO 3
4
in size is more in case of actinoid elements.
Manganate ion
O– O
l
Actinoids exhibit more number of oxidation states
than lanthanoids. This is due to the fact that 5f,
Mn Mn 6d and 7s levels are of comparable energies.
O O– O O– l
Actinoids have stronger tendency towards
O O complex formation as compared to lanthanoids.
Manganate ion Permanganate ion
(Green) (Purple)
Practice Questions
1. Which of the following element does not have 12. Name the gas that can readily decolourise acidified
( n −1) d 10 ns 2 electronic configuration? KMnO 4 solution.
(a) Zn (b) Cd (a) CO2 (b) SO2
(c) Hg (d) Cu (c) NO2 (d) P2O5
2. The ground state electronic configuration of neutral 13. The product of following reaction is
titanium atom is K 2CrO4 + dil. HNO3 (excess) →
2 2 2 2 3+ 2−
(a) [Ar] 4 s 4 p (b) [Ar] 3d 4 s (a) Cr and Cr2O7
(c) [Ar] 4 s2 p1x p1y (d) [Ar] 3d 5 (b) Cr2O72− , NO3− and H2O
3. The third ionisation enthalpy is minimum form (c) Only Cr 3 +
(d) Only Cr 7 +
(a) Mn (b) Ni
(c) Co (d) Fe 14. The green manganate and purple permanganate are
respectively
4. Which element can have oxidation state from 4 to 6?
(a) Fe (b) Mg (a) paramagnetic, diamagnetic
(c) Co (d) Cr (b) diamagnetic, paramagnetic
(c) paramagnetic, paramagnetic
5. Magnetic moment of a transition metal ion is found to (d) diamagnetic, diamagnetic
be 3.87 BM. The number of unpaired electrons
present in it is 15. The most common lanthanoid among the following is
(a) 2 (b) 3 (a) lanthanum (b) cerium
(c) 4 (d) 5 (c) promethium (d) plutonium
6. Which of the following aqueous solutions will be 16. Which of the following pairs has the same size?
coloured? (a) Zn 2 + , Hf 4 + (b) Fe2 + , Ni 2 +
(a) Zn(NO3 )2 (b) LiNO3 (c) Zr 4 + , Ti 4 + (d) Zr 4 + , Hf 4 +
(c) CoNO3 (d) HgCl 2
17. The correct order of ionic radii of Ce, Pm, Gd and Dy
7. Which of the following alloys contain Cu and Zn? in +3 oxidation state is
(a) Brass (b) Bronze (a) Ce3+ < Gd 3+ < Pm3+ < Dy 3+
(c) Bell metal (d) All of these (b) Ce3+ < Pm3+ < Gd 3+ < Dy 3+
8. Acidified potassium dichromate oxidises (c) Dy 3+ < Gd 3+`< Pm3+ < Ce3+
(a) iodides to iodine (b) sulphides to sulphur
(d) Pm3+ < Ce3+ < Dy 3+ < Gd 3+
(c) tin (IV) to tin (II) (d) Both (a) and (b)
9. Which of the following can react with K 2Cr 2O 7 ? 18. A man made white silvery metal, radioactive in
−2 −2
nature, has strong tendency to form oxocations and
(a) SO (b) CO
3 3 complexes. It is used as a nuclear fuel in atomic
−2 −
(c) SO 4 (d) NO 3 reactor. This metal is a
10. Dichromates are generally prepared by the fusion of (a) actinide
chromite ore with (b) lanthanide
(a) sodium carbonate (b) potassium carbonate (c) representative element
(d) transition metal
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Neither (a) nor (b)
− 19. All the actinoids are believed to have the electronic
11. Permanganate ion (MnO 4 ) is dark purple coloured
configuration of
though Mn is in + 7 oxidation state with d 0 (a) 6s2 (b) 7s2
configuration. This is due to (c) 5 f 14 (d) 6d 10
(a) d-d transition
(b) charge transfer from metal to ligand 20. What will be the most common oxidation state shown
(c) charge transfer from ligand to metal by the actinoids?
(d) All of the above (a) −3 (b) +3
(c) −4 (d) +4
Chemistry 47
21. Which of the following elements shows maximum 24. Catalyst used in the oxidation of SO 2 in the
number of different oxidation states in its compounds? manufacture of H 2SO 4 is
(a) Eu (b) La (a) CuCl 2
(c) Gd (d) Am (b) V2O5
22. The actinoids resemble the lanthanoids in having (c) MnO2
more compounds in (d) None of thesee
(a) +3 state (b) +4 state 25. Which of the following compounds form the basis, if
(c) +5 state (d) +2 state Ziegler-Natta catalysts is used to manufacture of
23. Compound(s) useful in the battery industries is/are polythene?
(a) MnO2 (b) Zn (a) TiCl 4 (b) Al(CH3 )3
(c) Ni/Cd (d) All of these (c) TiCl 4 with Al(CH3 )3 (d) None of these
ANSWERS
1. (d) 2. (b) 3. (d) 4. (d) 5. (b) 6. (c) 7. (a) 8. (d) 9. (a) 10. (c)
11. (c) 12. (b) 13. (b) 14. (a) 15. (b) 16. (d) 17. (c) 18. (a) 19. (b) 20. (b)
21. (d) 22. (a) 23. (d) 24. (b) 25. (c)
Hints & Solutions

1. (d) The electronic configurations of Zn, Cd and Hg are Oxidation state of Co = (+) 2 to (+) 4 and oxidation state of Fe
represented by the general formula (n − 1) d10 ns2 . The orbitals in = (+) 2 to (+) 6, but (+) 6 is less stable.
these elements are completely filled in the ground state as well Oxidation state of Cr = (+) 2 to (+) 6, where (+) 6 state is more
as in their common oxidation states. stable.
Cu has electronic configuration 3d10 4 s1. Thus, Cu does not have 5. (b) Magnetic moment of a transition metal ion
(n − 1)d10 ns2 electronic configuration.
(µ ) = n(n + 2)
3. (d) Fe has minimum value of third ionisation enthalpy. Ground
state electronic configuration of Fe is [Ar]3d 6 4 s2 . ∴ 3.87 = n(n + 2) (Given, µ = 3.87)
2+ 6 3+
Fe has [Ar ]3d configuration, whereas Fe has [Ar ]3d . The 5
On solving, n = 3
latter is a stable configuration and easier to ionise Fe2 + to Fe3 + Thus, number of unpaired electrons are 3.
than expected.
6. (c) Only Co + , because of the presence of unpaired electrons in
Hence possess least value. d-orbitals show d-d transition and, hence it is coloured.
Ni has highest value of third ionisation enthalpy due to its
8. (d) Acidified potassium dichromate oxidises iodides to iodine,
greater nuclear charge and smaller size.
sulphides to sulphur, tin(II) to tin(IV), iron(II) salts to iron (III).
Due to the same reason, Co > Fe > Mn should be the order for
the remaining elements, but the anomalous order is due to greater 9. (a) Oxidation state of central atoms are as follows :
stability of Mn 2 + having [Ar ]3d 5 configuration than Mn 3 + Sulphur in SO−3 2 =+ 4
with [Ar ]3d 4 .
Carbon in CO−3 2 = + 4
Whereas for Co + , the electronic configuration is [Ar ]3d 7 ,
Thus, ionisation enthalpy needed to remove third electron is Sulphur in SO−4 2 = + 6
less as compared to that of Mn 2+. Nitrogen in NO−3 = + 5
4. (d) Oxidation state of alkaline earth metal (i.e. Mg) is fixed and Since, K2 Cr2 O7 is a strong oxidising agent it can oxidise the
equal to (+)2. species, which is not in its most possible positiveoxidising state .
Oxidation state of d-block elements can vary, Thus, SO−3 2 can react with K2 Cr2 O7 as follows :
i.e. for Fe and Co it is as follows : Cr2 O72 − (aq)+ 3SO23 − (aq)+ 8H+ (aq) → 2Cr 3+(aq)
+ 3SO24 − (aq)+ 4H2 O()
l
10. (c) Dichromates are generally prepared from chromate which in 13. (b) The product of given reaction is Cr2 O72 − , NO−3 and H2 O,
turn are obtained by the fusion of chromite ore
2CrO24 − + 2HNO3 → Cr2 O27 − + 2NO−3 + H2 O
(FeCr2 O4 ) with sodium or potassium carbonate in free access of Chromate ( Dil. ) Dichromate
air. (yellow) (orange)
4FeCr2 O4 + 8Na 2 CO3 + 7O2 → 14. (a) The manganate and permanganate ions are tetrahedral.
Here, the π-bonding takes place by overlap of p-orbitals of
8Na 2 CrO4 + 2Fe2 O3 + 8CO2
oxygen with d-orbitals of manganese. The green manganate is
2Na 2 CrO4 + 2H +
→ Na 2 Cr2 O7 + 2Na+ H2 O paramagnetic because of one unpaired electron but the purple
− permanganate is diamagnetic due to charge transfer.
11 (c) In MnO4 ,
x + (−2)4 = −1 15. (b) Lanthanum is a d-block element, whereas plutonium is an
⇒ x = +7 actinoid. Both cerium and promethium are lanthanoids. But
cerium is a common lanthanoid because it occurs naturally,
25 Mn +7 = [Ar], no unpaired electrons.
whereas Pm does not occur naturally and is radioactive.
Thus, it will not show d-d transition. It is dark purple coloured
due to charge transfer from ligand to metal. 16. (d) Zr 4 + and HF4 + have same size due to lanthanoid
contraction.
12. (b) SO2 gas can readily decolourise acidified KMnO4 solution
18. (a) Actinide is a man-made white silvery metal, radioactive in
because KMnO4 is an oxidising agent that easily oxidises SO2 ,
nature has a strong tendency to form oxocations and complexes.
2MnO−4 + 5SO2 + 2H2 O
19. (b) All the actinoids are believed to have the electronic
→ 2Mn 2+ + 5SO24 − + 4H + configuration of 7s2 and variable occupancy of 5 f and
while other options such as NO2 (strong oxidising agent), CO2 6d-subshell.
(neither oxidising agent nor reducing agent) cannot decolourise
25 (c) TiCl 4 with Al(CH3 )3 forms the basis of Ziegler-Natta
acidified KMnO4 solution.
catalysts that is used to manufacture polythene.
Chemistry 49
CHAPTER 09
Coordination Compounds
1. Double salts are the addition compounds that lose their l
The formula for the entire coordination entity, whether
identity in solution. They exist only in solid state and charged or not, is enclosed in square brackets. When
have properties same as those of constituent ligands are polyatomic, their formulae are enclosed in
compounds, e.g. Mohr’s salt parentheses. Ligand abbreviations are also enclosed
FeSO 4 ⋅ (NH 4 )2SO 4 ⋅ 6 H 2O, Potash alum in parentheses.
K 2SO 4. Al 2 (SO 4 )3. 24 H 2O l
There should be no space between the ligands and
the metal within a coordination sphere.
2. Coordination compounds or complexes do not
completely lose their identity in solution. They exist in
l
When the formula of a charged coordination entity is
solid state as well as in solution. Their properties are to be written without that of the counter ion, the
charge is indicated outside the square brackets as a
different from their constituents.
right superscript with the number before the sign.
3. According to Werner’s theory, primary valency is l
The charge of the cation(s) is balanced by the charge
ionisable (i.e. species present outside the coordination of the anion (s).
sphere is ionisable) whereas secondary valencies are
6. Naming of Mononuclear Coordination Compounds
not.
The following rules are used while naming coordination
4. Some Important Terms Pertaining to Coordination compounds :
Compounds l
The cation is named first in both positively and
l
Molecules or ions which donate a lone pair of negatively charged coordination entities. (if present
electrons to the central atom or ion are called outside the coordination sphere)
ligands. The number of donor sites present in a l
The ligands are named in an alphabetical order
ligand is called its denticity. e.g. en (ethylene
before the name of the central atom/ion. (This
diamine) is a bidentate (didentate) ligand and EDTA is
procedure is reversed from writing formula).
a hexadentate ligand.
l
Names of the anionic ligands end in -‘o’, those of
l
When a ligand can ligate through any of its two
neutral and cationic ligands are the same except
different atoms, it is called ambidentate ligand.
aqua for H 2O, ammine for NH 3, carbonyl for CO and
e.g. NO −2 , SCN − , ONO.
nitrosyl for NO. These are placed within small
l
The total number of ligands to which the metal is brackets ( ).
directly attached is called coordination number (C.N). l
Prefixes mono, di, tri, etc. are used to indicate the
e.g. [Co(NH 3 )6 ]3+, C.N. = 6 number of the individual ligands in the coordination
entity. When the names of the ligands include a
[Co(en)3 ]3+ , C.N. = 3 × 2 = 6 numerical prefix, then the terms, bis, tris, tetrakis are
(Q en is bidentate ligand) used, for the ligand to which they refer being placed in
5. Formulae of Mononuclear Coordination Entities parenthesis.
Following rules are applied while writing the formulae :
l
Oxidation state of the metal in cation, anion or neutral
coordination entity is indicated by Roman numeral in
l
The central atom is listed first.
parenthesis.
l
The ligands are then listed in alphabetical order. The l
If the complex ion is a cation, the metal is named the
placement of a ligand, in the list does not depend on
same as the element, e.g. Co in a complex cation is
its charge.
called cobalt and Pt is called platinum. If the complex
l
Polydentate ligands are also listed alphabetically. In ion is an anion, the name of the metal ends with the
case of abbreviated ligand, the first letter of the suffix—‘ate’, e.g. Co in a complex anion, [Co(SCN)4 ]2−
abbreviation is used to determine the position of the
ligand in the alphabetical order. is called cobaltate. For some metals, the Latin names
are used in the complex anions, e.g. ferrate for Fe.
l
The neutral complex molecule is named similar to that l
Find hybridisation and shape from the orbitals
of the complex cation. occupied by ligand, e.g. If there are 4 ligands
7. Compounds having the same molecular formula but (unidentate), hybridisation may be sp3 (tetrahedral
different arrangement of atoms are called isomers and geometry) or dsp2 (square planar geometry). If there
the phenomenon is called isomerism. Isomerism are of are 6 ligands, hybridisation may be d 2sp3 or sp3d 2
two types : (octahedral geometry).
l
Structural isomerism l
If weak field ligands are present then electrons will not
(i) Complexes exhibit linkage isomerism when pair-up and the complex is coloured due to d-d
ambidentate ligands, like NO 2, SCN, etc are transition,
present. Note: Colour of KMnO 4 is due to charge transfer.
(ii) Complexes exhibit coordination isomerism when
9. Crystal Field Theory
cationic and anionic entities are interchangable
between two complexes of two different metals. According to CFT, degenerate d-orbitals in the presence
(iii) Hydration isomerism arises due to difference in of ligands, split up into two sets of energy viz t 2g and
the number of water molecules inside and e g set. The splitting of degenerate levels due to the
outside the coordination sphere. presence of ligand in a definite geometry is termed as
(iv) Ionisation isomerism arises due to interchange crystal field splitting.
between ligand and counter ion. l
The difference of energy between the two sets of
e.g. [Co(NH 3 )5. SO 4 ]Br and [Co(NH 3 )5Br ]SO 4. degenerate orbitals (as a result of crystal field
l
Stereoisomerism, splitting) is known as Crystal Field Stabilisation
(i) Geometrical isomerism is shown by complexes Energy (CFSE). It is denoted by ∆ o (for octahedral
of the type [MA2B2 ], [MABXL], [MA3B3 ], [MA2 XY ], complex).
[MA4 X2 ], [M(AA)2 X2 ] where M = metal, A,B,X,L,Y l
Ligands are arranged in a series in order of
are unidentate ligands and A A = bidentate ligand. increasing field strength. This series is known as
Here, if same group occupies adjacent positions, spectrochemical series as shown below :
the isomer is called cis and if the same group I− < Br − < SCN − < Cl − < S 2− < F− < OH − < C 2O 24−
occupies opposite positions, the isomer is called
< H 2O < NCS − < EDTA 4− < NH 3 < en < CN − < CO
trans.
If three donor ligands occupy adjacent position, l
Depending on the relative magnitude of the CFSE (∆o )
the isomer is called facial and if they are present and pairing energy (P),
around meridian then the isomer is called the two possibilities are:
meridional isomer. (i) If ∆ o < P, the fourth electron enters in one of the eg
Tetrahedral complex does not show orbitals giving the configuration t 23g e g1 . Ligands for
geometrical isomerism because the relative
which ∆ o < P are known as weak field ligands
positions of unidentate ligands attached with
and form high spin complexes.
central metal atom are same with respect to each
(ii) If ∆ o > P, it becomes more energetically favourable
other.
for the fourth electron to occupy a t 2g orbital with
(ii) Optical isomerism is shown by the compounds configuration t 24g e g0 . Ligands which produce this
lack a plane of symmetry. Complexes of the type
[M(AA)3 ], [M(AA)2 X2 ], [M(AA)X2Y2 ] exhibit optical effect are known as strong field ligands and form
isomerism. low spin complexes.
where, M = metal, 10. cis-platin [PtCl 2(NH 3 )2 ] is used for the treatment of
X,Y = unidentate ligand cancer. EDTA complex of Ca is used for treating lead
and A A = bidentate ligand. poisoning.
8. Valence bond theory From VBT, the hybridisation, 11. Metal carbonyls are the compounds in which CO
magnetic behaviour and geometry of complexes are (carbon monoxide) is present as a ligand. The M C σ
derived follows : bond is formed by the donation of lone pair of electrons
Find the oxidation state of central atom and write the
l of carbonyl carbon to vacant orbital of metal, whereas
electronic configuration of the metal ion. the M C
Pair up the d-electrons, if ligands are CO, CN − , NH 3,
l π bond is formed by the donation of a d-electron pair of
etc. (strong field ligand); (if required). metal to the vacant antibonding π * orbital of CO.
Now find whether unpaired electrons are present or
l
not. If present, the complex is paramagnetic and if

not, it is diamagnetic.
Chemistry 51
Practice Questions
1. Which one of the following complexes will 10. According to IUPAC nomenclature sodium
consume more equivalents of aqueous solution of nitroprusside is named as
AgNO 3 ? (a) sodium pentacyanonitrosyl ferrate (II)
(a) Na 2[CrCl 6 ] (b) [Cr(H2O)5 Cl]Cl 2 (b) sodium pentacyanonitrosyl ferrate (III)
(c) [Cr(H2O)6 ]Cl 3 (d) Na 2[CrCl 5 (H2O)] (c) sodium nitroferricyanide
(d) sodium nitroferrocyanide
2. How many ions obtain after dissociation of this
complex [Co(NH 3 ) 6 ]Cl 3 ? 11. Write the formula for the coordination compund
(a) 3 (b) 2 (c) 5 (d) 4 dichloridobis (ethane-1, 2-diamine) platinum (IV) nitrate
(a) [PtCl 2 (en)2 ](NO3 )2 (b) [PtCl 2 (NO3 )2 ](en)2
3. The primary and secondary valencies of chromium in (c) [Pt(en)2 (NO3 )]Cl 2 (d) None of these
the complex ion, dichlorodioxalato chromium (III)
respectively are 12. Which type of ligand is contained in linkage
(a) 3 and 4 (b) 4 and 3 isomerism?
(c) 6 and 3 (d) 3 and 6 (a) Unidentate (b) Bidentate
(c) Polydentate (d) Ambidentate
4. Coordination complex X gives white ppt. with
13. [Co(NH 3 ) 5 SO 4 ]Br and [Co(NH 3 ) 5 Br]SO 4 are
AgNO 3 solution while its isomer Y gives white ppt
but with BaCl 2 . Two compounds are isomer of (a) linkage isomers (b) coordination isomers
(c) ionisation isomers (d) solvate isomers
CuClSO 4⋅5NH 3 . The possible formula of X and Y are
X Y 14. The complex, [Pt(py)(NH 3 )BrCl] will have how many
(a) [Cu(NH3 )5 SO4 ]Cl [Cu(NH3 )5 Cl]SO4 geometrical isomers?
(b) [Cu(NH3 )5 Cl]SO4 [Cu(NH3 )5 SO4 ]Cl (a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 0
(c) [Cu(NH3 )4 ClSO4 ]NH3 [Cu(NH3 )5 Cl]SO4 15. Which one of the following has an optical isomer ?
(d) [Cu(Br)5 NH3 ]SO4 [Cu(Br)4 (NH3 )SO4 ]Br (en = ethylenediamine)
5. The most stable system for a chelate is (a) [Zn(en)(NH3 )2 ]2+ (b) [Co(en)3 ]3+
(a) five fused cyclic system (c) [Co(H2O)4 (en)]3+ (d) [Zn(en)2 ]2+
(b) four fused cyclic system
(c) three fused cyclic system 16. Which of the following complex ions is diamagnetic
(d) two fused cyclic system in nature?
6. Coordination number of Pt and Ni in [PtCl 6 ] 2–
and (a) [CoF6 ]3– (b) [NiCl 4 ]2− (c) [Ni(CN)4 ]2− (d) [CuCl 2 ]2−
[Ni(NH 3 ) 4 ]2+ are respectively. 17. Which of the following has square planar geometry?
(a) 4 and 6 (b) 6 and 4 (a) [CoCl 4 ]2 (b) [FeCl 4 ]2− (c) [NiCl 4 ]2− (d) [PtCl 4 ]2−
c) 4 and 4 (d) 6 and 6
18. The magnetic moment of Ni 2+ ion (atomic number of
7. The oxidation state of Fe in the brown ring complex Ni = 28) in BM unit is
[Fe(H 2O) 5 NO]SO 4 is (a) 1.73 (b) 4.81 (c) 5.96 (d) 2.84
(a) +3 (b) 0
(c) +2 (d) +1 19. In tetrahedral complexes, low spin complexes are not
formed.
8. The pair of compounds having metals in their highest
(a) ∆ o > P (b) ∆ o < P
oxidation states is
(c) ∆ o = P (d) None of these
(a) [MnO4 ]– , CrO2Cl 2 (b) [NiCl 4 ]2– , [CoCl 4 ]–
20. Which of the following complex ions has electrons that
(c) MnO2 , FeCl 3 (d) [Fe(CN)6 ]3– , [Co(CN)6 ]−3 are symmetrically filled in both t 2g and eg orbitals?
9. Which among the following will be named as (a) [FeF6 ]3− (b) [Mn(CN)6 ]4−
dibromidobis (ethylenediammine) chromium (III) (c) [CoF6 ]3− (d) [Co(NH3 )6 ]2+
bromide ?
(a) [ Cr(en)3 ] Br3 (b) [Cr(en)2 Br2 ]Br 21. Iron carbonyl, Fe(CO) 5 is
(c) [ Cr(en)Br4 ]− (d) [ Cr(en)Br2 ]Br
(a) trinuclear (b) mononuclear
(c) tetranuclear (d) dinuclear
22. An example of a sigma bonded organometallic 24. Gold combines with cyanide in the presence of
compound is oxygen and water to form coordination entity in
(a) ruthenocene (b) Grignard’s reagent aqueous solution. The coordination entity is
(c) ferrocene (d) cobaltocene
(a) [Au(CN)2 ]− (b) [Au(CN)2 ]2−
23. In which compound, synergic effect is present? (c) [Au(CN)2 ] 3−
(d) [Au(CN)2 ]4−
2–
(a) [Ni(CO)4 ] (b) [NiCl 4 ]
(c) [CuCl 4 ]2− (d) [Mn(H2O)6 ]2+
25. For lead-poisoning, the antidote used is
(a) white of an egg (b) cis-platin
(c) nickel (d) EDTA
ANSWERS
1. (c) 2. (d) 3. (d) 4. (a) 5. (a) 6. (b) 7. (d) 8. (a) 9. (b) 10. (b)
11. (a) 12. (d) 13. (c) 14. (b) 15. (b) 16. (c) 17. (d) 18. (d) 19. (b) 20. (a)
21. (b) 22. (b) 23. (a) 24. (a) 25. (d)
Hints & Solutions

1. (c) 7. (d) Let the oxidation state of Fe in brown ring complex
[Fe(H2O)5 NO]SO4 be x.
Complex Dissociation in aqueous
solution of AgNO 3 [Fe(H2O)5 NO]2+
(a) Na[CrCl 6 ] 3Na + + [CrCl 6 ] 3 − ∴ x + 0+ 1= 2 ⇒ x = + 1
Here, NO exists as a nitrosyl ion (NO+ ).
(b) [Cr(H2 O) 5 Cl] Cl 2 [Cr(H2 O) 5 Cl] 2+ + 2Cl −
8. (a) The oxidation states of metals in given pairs are follows :
(c) [Cr(H2 O) 6 ]Cl 3 [Cr(H2 O) 6 ] 3+ + 3Cl −
(a) In [MnO4 ]− and CrO2Cl 2 oxidation states of Mn
(d) Na 2[CrCl 5( H2 O)] 2Na + + [CrCl 5 (H2 O)] 2 −
and Cr are +7 and +6 respectively.
[Cr(H2O)6 ]Cl 3 contains maximum number of ionisable anion (b) In [NiCl 4 ]2− and [CoCl 4 ] − , oxidation states of Ni and Co
(3Cl − ). are +2 and +3 respectively.
Hence, it will consume more equivalents of aqueous solution of (c) In MnO2 and FeCl 3 oxidation states of Mn and Fe are +4
AgNO3 and forms three moles of AgCl (white ppt.). and +3 respectively.
2. (d) Primary valency of coordination compounds are ionisable. (d) In [Fe(CN)6 ]3− and [Co(CN)6 ]−3 oxidation states of Fe and
Thus, dissociation of the complex, [Co(NH3 )6 ] Cl 3 takes place
Co are +3 and +3 respectively.
as follows.
Thus, option (a), Mn and Cr are in their highest oxidation
[Co(NH3 )6 ] Cl 3 → [Co(NH3 )6 ]2+ + 3 Cl − states.
Therefore, total number of ions obtained after dissociation are 4. 9. (b) Two Br, two (en) and one Cr are parts of the complex.
3. (d) The primary and secondary valencies of chromium in the Charge on the complex is +1.
complex ion, dichlorodioxalato chromium (III) [ CrCl 2 (Ox )2 ]3− 2 (Br) = − 2 

are 3 and 6 respectively. 2 (en) = 0  = + 1
4. (a) As, isomer X gives white ppt. with AgNO3 solution this shows 1 (Cr) = + 3 
that it contains Cl − as counter ion
while isomer Y gives white ppt. with BaCl 2 this suggest that SO2− Thus, complex ion is [Cr(en)2 Br2 ] +
4
is present as counter ion. Thus, so possible formula of X and Y are Since, anion is bromide, thus complex dibromido bis
X = [Cu(NH3 )5 SO4 ]Cl (ethylenediamine) chromium (III) bromide is written as
Y = [Cu(NH5 )5 Cl]SO4 [Cr(en)2 Br2 ] Br.
5. (a) Greater is the number of chelate rings, greater is the 12. (d) Linkage isomerism arises in a coordination compound
stability of the chelate. containing ambidentate ligand.
Hence, five fused cyclic system is most stable for a chelate. 13. (c) [Co(NH3 )5 SO4 ] Br and [Co(NH3 )5 Br]SO4 are ionisation
isomers, because there is exchange of Br − and SO2−
4 ions.
Chemistry 53
14. (b) M ( ABCD ) type complex have three geometrical isomers as Hence, [FeF3 ]3− produces more symmetrical field.
py NH3 py Br py NH3 (b) [Mn(CN)6 ]4− oxidation state of Mn = +2
Pt Pt Pt
So, Mn 2+ = [Ar]3d 5 where, CN− is strong field ligand, so , it
Cl Br ; Cl NH3 ; Br Cl ;
produce unsymmetrical field i.e. t2g 5 e 0
g
15. (b) Complex [Co(en)3 ]3+ is of type [ M ( AA )3 ] has no plane of 3d 5 eg
symmetry and centre of symmetry, so it is an optical isomer.
en 3+ en 3+ t2g
(c) [CoF6 ]3− oxidation state of Co = +3

en Co Co en
So, Co3+ = [Ar]3d 6
en en 3d 6 eg
Mirror
16. (c) Ni in [Ni(CN)4 ]2− has dsp2 hybridisation, where CN− is a
t2g
strong field ligand.
dsp 2 hybridisation Due to weak field ligand of F− , it produces
unsymmetrical field
i.e. t 42g , e 2g
(d) [Co(NH3 )6 ]2+ oxidation state of Co= +2
CN – CN – CN – CN – So, Co2+ = [Ar]3d 7
Since, all the electrons are paired, it is diamagnetic in nature. where, NH3 is strong field ligand,
17. (d) Among the given complexes, only PtCl 4 has square planar
3d 7 eg
geometry, rest have tetrahedral geometry.
This can be explained as:
Cl − is a weak field ligand but Cl − causes the pairing of electron t2g
with large Pt 2+ and consequently give dsp2 hybridisation with
square planar geometry. t 62g , e 1g (unsymmetrical field).
The electronic configuration of Pt 2+ is 4 d 8 5s0. 21. (b) Fe(CO)5 is a stable complex/ion. Since, there is only one
4d 5s 5p central metal atom present in iron carbonyl, Fe(CO)5, thus it is
Pt2+ mononuclear.
5p
The structure of Fe(CO)5 is shown below :
4d 5s
[PtCl4]2– ×× ×× ×× ×× CO
CO
Fe CO
dsp2
CO
18. (d) Ni 28 = [Ar]18 3d 8 4 s2 , Ni 2+ = [ Ar ]18 3d 8 CO
The examples of dinuclear, trinuclear complexes are
3d 8 Co2 (CO)18, Fe3 (CO)12 respectively.
22. (b) The organometallic compounds having sigma bond
between carbon and metal are called sigma bonded
Number of unpaired electrons = 2 organometallic. An example of a sigma bonded organometallic
Magnetic moment, compound is Grignard’s reagent.
µ = n (n + 2 ) = 2 (2 + 2 ) = 8 = 2.84 BM R  Mg  X
12
4 4 3
19. (b) In tetrahedral complex, low spin complexes are not formed σ-bond
because, the crystal field splitting ∆ o is not large enought to 23 (a) The M—C π-bond in metal carbonyl which is formed by the
overcome pairing energy i.e ∆ o < P. donation of an electron pair from a filled d-orbital of metal into
20. (a) (a) [FeF6 ]3− oxidation state of Fe = +3 the vacant antibonding π-orbital of CO, strengthens the M—C
σ-bond.
So, Fe3+ = [Ar]3d 5 where, F− is weak field ligand.
This is called synergic effect and is usually observed in metal
3d5 eg (Symmetrical field) [t 2g3 e. g 2] carbonyls. Thus, [Ni(CO)4 ] being metal exhibits synergic
effect.
t2g
CHAPTER 10
Haloalkanes and
Haloarenes
1. Haloalkanes and haloarenes are obtained by the l
Finkelstein reaction (For preparation of alkyl lodides)
replacement of a hydrogen atom of an alkane and arene Acetone
CH 3CH 2Br + NaI → CH 3CH 2 I+ NaBr
respectively by a halogen atom (F, Cl, Br, I). Ethyl Sodium ∆ Sodium
iodide Ethyl bromide
2. Haloalkanes are named as X-haloalkanes where, bromide iodide
X represents the position of halogen atom. 4 Physical properties
e.g. CH 3CH 2CH 2 I (1-iodopropane). l
For same alkyl group, the boiling point of alkyl halides
3. Methods of preparation These are as follows : decreases in the order,
l
Haloalkanes are obtained from alcohols by treating RI > RBr > RCl > RF
them with This is because with the increase in size and mass of
HX (+ anhy. ZnCl 2 ),/ PCl 5, / PCl 3, / SOCl 2 etc. the halogen atom, the magnitude of van der Waals’
HX (anhy. ZnCl ) forces of attraction increases.
R  OH  
2
→ R  Cl As the size of alkyl group decreases, boiling point
PCl 5 / PCl 3 / SOCl 2
decreases for the same halogen.
SOCl 2 is the best reagent as by products are gases
CH 3CH 2CH 2 X > CH 3CH 2 X > CH 3 X
(SO 2 and HCl).
For isomers of RX having same number of C-atoms,
l
Haloalkanes are also prepared by the action of
more be the branching, lesser would be the boiling
halogen acid (HX) on alkene. The reaction follows
point.
Markownikoff’s rule, which states that the negative
part of the reagent goes to the carbon bearing less l
Density : Fluoro and chloroalkanes are lighter than
number of hydrogen atoms. water while bromo, iodo and polychloro derivatives
are heavier than water.
l
Fluoroalkanes are prepared by treating alkyl
chloride/bromide in the presence of a metallic fluoride
l
From F to I, the electronegativity of halogen
decreases, therefore, polarity in the C  X bond and
such as AgF, Hg 2F2, CoF2 or SbF3. This reaction is
thus, dipole moment also decreases accordingly.
known as Swarts reaction.
However, fluorides have lower dipole moment than
CH 3Br + AgF → CH 3F + AgBr chlorides because of very small size of F. (Strong
Bromo Silver fluoride Fluoro Silver electron ... electron-repulsion).
methane methane bromide
l
Generally, bromoalkanes are prepared by the reaction CH 3Cl > CH 3F > CH 3 Br > CH 3I
known as Borodine-Hunsdiecker reaction. l
Alkyl halides are slightly soluble in water, because
−+ CCl 4 , 350 K they do not form H-bonds with water.
CH 3COOAg + Br2  
→ CH 3Br + CO 2 + AgBr l
Due to better symmetry of para isomers as compared
Reflux
to ortho and meta isomers, para isomers have high
l
Sandmeyer’s reaction
+ – melting points as compared to their ortho and meta
NH2 N2X isomers.
NaNO2 + HX
273-278 K
5. Chemical properties : With the increase in size of
halogen atom, carbon-halogen bond length increases,
X
(X = Cl, Br) Cu2X2 hence, reactivity increases. Thus, R  I is most reactive
+ N2↑ towards SN1 and SN 2 reactions.
These are as follows:
Aryl halide
Chemistry 55
(i) SN1 mechanism involves formation of carbocation as 10. Wurtz reaction : Alkyl halides react with sodium metal in
intermediate. The reactant that gives more stable the presence of dry ether to give hydrocarbon containing
carbocation, is more reactive towards SN1 reactions. double the number of carbon atoms present in the alkyl
The order of reactivity of alkyl halides towards these halide.
reactions is 3°>2°>1°. Dry ether
These reactions give racemisation product, i.e. 2 RX + 2Na → R  R + 2 NaX
retention as well as inversion of configurations. 11. When aryl halide is heated with alkyl halide in the presence
(ii) SN2 mechanism involves formation of transition state. of sodium and dry ether, halogen atom is replaced by alkyl
Less hindered alkyl halides readily undergo these group and alkylarene is formed. This is called Wurtz-Fittig
reactions. These reactions result in the inversion of reaction.
configuration.
The order of reactivity of alkyl halide will be Dry ether
1° > 2 ° > 3°. Cl + 2Na + Cl—CH3
Methyl
l
In the presence of polar solvent, KCN readily ionises Chlorobenzene
chloride
to furnish CN − ions. As, C C bond is more stable CH3
than C N bond, so cyanide is predominantly formed.
R  Br + CN − → RCN + Br −
+2NaCl
However, AgCN does not ionise, so it attacks through Sodium
N and results in the formation of isocyanide. chloride
Toluene
R  Br + AgCN → RNC + AgBr
Silver Silver 12. When haloarenes react with sodium in the presence of dry
cyanate bromide ether, two aryl groups are joined together and diphenyl
l
Reaction of KNO 3 with RBr results in the formation of is formed. This reaction is called Fittig reaction.
RONO 2 (nitrite) whereas, reaction of RBr with AgNO 3
results in the formation of RNO 3 (nitrate) Dry ether
X + 2Na + X
predominantly.
6. Stereochemical Principles and Notation Iodobenzene
+ 2NaX
l
An object or molecule which is
non-superimposable on its mirror image is called
Diphenyl
chiral and the property is called chirality.
l
A chiral or asymmetric carbon is that, in which all the
13. Carbon compounds having more than one halogen
four valencies are satisfied by four different groups. atom are usually referred to as polyhalogen
Such a carbon bearing molecule is generally optically compounds e.g. CH 2Cl 2, CHCl 3, CHI3, CCl 4, freons, DDT.
active. Some polyhalogen compounds are as follows :
l
An equimolar mixture of two enantiomers (d and l
Chloroform : In the presence of sunlight, chloroform
l-forms) is called racemic mixture. It is represented is slowly oxidised by air to produce a highly
as dl or ± forms and will be optically inactive. poisonous gas, carbonyl chloride or phosgene,
The process of converting the d or l-form of an COCl 2. That’s why, it is stored in dark coloured bottles
optically active compound into racemic mixture (dl ) is filled up to the brim.
called racemisation. l
Freons Chlorofluorocarbon compounds of methane
7. Grignard reagents are highly reactive species and react and ethane are collectively known as freons.
with water (a good source of proton) to give l
In stratosphere, freon is able to initiate chain reactions
hydrocarbons. (alkanes) that can result in depletion of ozone layer. Since, freon
RMgX + H2O → RH + Mg(OH) X has been found to be one of the factors responsible
Hence, traces of moisture must be avoided during for the depletion of ozone layer, they are being replaced
formation of a Grignard reagent. by other harmless compounds in many countries.
8. In electrophilic substitution reactions of benzene ring, Cl, l
DDT : (p, p′ dichlorodiphenyltrichloro ethane) is an
Br, etc. are ortho/para directing groups and direct the insecticide, highly toxic and chemically stable. It is not
incoming group at ortho and para positions of benzene metabolised rapidly by animals. In many countries
ring. DDT is used as an insecticide.
9. Haloarenes are less reactive than haloalkanes towards Cl
nucleophilic substitution reactions, due to resonance
effect (double bond character between C Cl bond),
sp2-hydridisation of C bearing halogen atom and
Cl
instability of phenyl cation. Cl Cl
Cl
H
Practice Questions
1. Which of the following is not an allylic halide? 9. An alkene ‘A’ on reaction with O 3 and Zn-H 2 O gives
(a) 5-bromo pent-1-ene propanone and ethanal in equimolar ratio. Addition of
(b) 4-bromopent-2-ene HCl to alkene ‘A’ gives ‘B’ as the major product.
(c) 3-bromo-2-methylbut-1-ene
The structure of product ‘B’ is
(d) 1-bromobut-2-ene
CH2Cl
2. Which of the following is benzyl halogen compound? 
(a) Br — C6H4CH(CH3 )CH2CH3 (a) H3C — CH2  CH  CH3
(b) (CH3 )3 CCH2CH(Br)C6H5
CH3
(c) (CH3 )2 CHCH(Cl)CH3

(d) None of the above (b) H3C  CH2  C  CH3
3. Which of the following is an example of 
Cl
vic-dihalide?
(a) Dichloromethane (b) 1,2-dichloroethane CH3
(c) Ethylidine chloride (d) Allyl chloride 
(c) H3C  CH  CH
4. What is the IUPAC name of the fillowing compound?  
CH3 CH3 Cl CH3
H
H CH3
Br 
CH3
(d) Cl  CH2  CH2  CH
(a) 3-bromo-3-methyl-1,2-dimethylprop-1-ene 
(b) 3-bromo-1,2-dimethybut-1-ene CH3
(c) 2-bromo-3-methylpent-3-ene
10. When a primary aromatic amine dissolved in cold
(d) 4-bromo-3-methylpent-2-ene
aqueous mineral acid (HCl) is treated with sodium
5. Which of the following is best for preparation of nitrite, the product formed is
alkyl halides? (a) aryl halide (b) diazonium salt
(a) Alcohol (b) Alkene (c) 2° aromatic amine (d) None of these
(c) Alkane (d) Alkyne
11. Which of the following has no dipole moment?
6. Which of the following is used to prepare alkyl (a) CH3Cl (b) CHCl 3
chloride in presence of alcohol? (c) CH2Cl 2 (d) CCl 4
(a) H2SO4 (b) HCl solution (dilute)
12. Which of the following alkyl halides has maximum
(c) dry HCl gas (d) None of these
density?
7. The alkane that gives only one monochloro product (a) C3H7I (b) C2H5I
on chlorination with Cl 2 in presence of diffused (c) CH3Br (d) CH3I
sunlight is
(a) 2, 2-dimethylbutane (b) neo-pentane
13. Which of the following has the highest melting point
(c) n-pentane (d) isopentane but least solubility in a given solvent?
(a) o-dichlorobenzene
8. Identify the compound Z in the reaction, (b) p-dichlorobenzene
(c) m-dichlorobenzene
+ HX Z (d) chlorobenzene
14. Which of the following reaction(s) is not given by
(a) (b) haloalkanes?
H X H H (a) Nucleophilic substitution reactions
(b) Elimination reaction
(c) (d) All of these (c) Reaction with metals
X X (d) Addition reactions
Chemistry 57
15. What is the nature of KCN and AgCN compounds? 21. Among the following, the suitable reagent for Wurtz
(a) Ionic and covalent (b) Ionic and ionic reaction is
(c) Covalent and ionic (d) Covalent and covalent (a) Na/alcohol (b) Na/ether
16. The correct order of reactivity of alkyl halides toward (c) Zn/ether (d) Zn/alcohol
S N 1 is as follows. 22. Which of the following represents Wurtz-Fittig
(a) 2° halide > 3° halide > 1° halide > CH3 X reaction?
(b) 3° halide > 1° halide > 2° halide > CH3 X (a) C6H5I + 2Na + CH3I → C6H5CH3 + 2NaI
(c) 3° halide > 2° halide > 1° halide > CH3 X (b) 2C6H5I + 2Na → C6H5C6H5 + 2NaI
(d) CH3 X > 1° halide > 2° halide > 3° halide (c) 2CH3CH2I + 2Na → CH3CH2CH2CH3 + 2NaI
17. The allylic and benzylic halides follow (d) CH3Br + AgF → CH3F + AgBr
(a) SN 1 mechanism 23. Consider the following reaction,
(b) SN 2 mechanism
2CHCl 3 + O 2 → A + B
(c) Both SN 1 and SN 2 mechanism
The products A and B of above reaction respectively
are
18. Which of the following is not correct? (a) CO2 and HCl (b) COCl 2 and HCl
(a) PhCH 2Br > PhCHBrCH 3 > PhCBr(CH 3) 2(S N 1) (c) CO and HCl (d) None of these
(b) R—I > R—Br > R—Cl (S N 2) 24. When freon is manufactured by tetrachloromethane,
(c) CH 2 ==CH—Cl < CH 2 ==CH—CH 2—Cl the reaction involved in this process is called
< PhCH 2—Cl (S N 1) (a) Sandmeyer reaction
(d) R—Cl < R—Br < R—I (S N 1) (b) Swarts reaction
Alc. KOH (c) Finkelstein reaction
19. CH 3  CH 2  CH 2  Br  →.
(d) All of these
Final product is
25. Which of the following compound is used as an
(a) propene (b) propanol
organic insecticide?
(c) cyclopropane (d) propan-1, 2-diol
(a) Chloroform
20. Which of the following is correct order for the ease of (b) Freon-12
dehydrohalogenation of alkyl halide with alc. KOH? (c) Carbon tetrachloride
(a) 3° < 2° < 1° (b) 3° > 2° < 1° (d) DDT
(c) 3° > 2° > 1° (d) 3° < 2° > 1°
ANSWERS
1. (a) 2. (b) 3. (b) 4. (d) 5. (a) 6. (c) 7. (b) 8. (a) 9. (b) 10. (b)
11. (d) 12. (d) 13. (b) 14. (d) 15. (a) 16. (c) 17. (a) 18. (a) 19. (a) 20. (c)
21. (b) 22. (a) 23. (b) 24. (b) 25. (d)
Hints & Solutions

1. (a) 5-bromopent-1-ene is not an allylic halide, whereas option Complete reaction is as follows :
(b), (c) and (d) are allylic halide, because in these compounds, + HX
the halogen atom is bonded to an
sp3 hybridised carbon atom adjacent to C  C double bond. H X
(Z )
H2C  CH2  CH2  C == CH2
 9. (b) The sequence of reactions is as follows :

Br H H3C
O3
( not allylic) Alkene (A) → C == O + O == CH  CH3
Zn / H 2O
H3C Ethanal
2. (b) Compound (b) represent the benzyl halogen compound. It
Propanone
is the one in which halogen atom is bonded to sp3-hybridised
HCl Addition reaction
carbon atom next to an aromatic ring. ↓
Structural formula of compound (b) is as follows : B
( Major product )
Br
The products of first reaction, i.e. ozonolysis can give an idea

about the probable alkene as C == O group is obtained from

the π-bonds of alkene.
Thus, most probable alkene will be
3. (b) 1, 2-dichloroethane is an example of 1, 2-dichloro ethane. H3C H3C
H H
In vic-dihalide, the halogen atoms are present at adjacent C-atoms. C == O O == C → C == C

e.g. CH2 CH2 H3C CH3 H3C CH3
Alkene
Cl Cl The complete sequence of reaction taking place will be :
1,2-dichloroethane H
4. (d) While naming the compound, alkene gets priority over H3C O3 H3C 
functional group (—Br) and numbering starts from alkene side. C == CHCH3 → C == O + O == C CH3
Zn / H 2O
Hence, IUPAC name: 4-bromo-3methyl pent-2-ene. H3C H3C Ethanal
2-methylbut -2-ene Propanone
1 ( A)
CH3 CH3
HCl Addition reaction
2 ↓
3 H Cl
H
4 H3C H3C 
Br C  CH2  CH3 + CH  CH  CH3
5CH3
H3C  H3C
6. (c) Dry HCl (hydrogen chloride) gas is used to prepare alkyl Cl 2-chloro-3-methylbutane
2-chloro-2-methylbutane ( B ) (Minor product)
chloride in presence of alcohol. In this method, dry HCl gas is (Major product)
passed through a solution of alcohol.
Therefore, A is 2-methylbut-2-ene and B is
CH3
2-chloro-2-methylbutane.

7. (b) neo-pentane, H3C  C  CH3 contains all 10. (b) When a primary aromatic amine, dissolved or suspended in
 cold aqueous mineral acid (HCl) is treated with sodium nitrite,
CH3 a diazonium salt is formed.
equivalent hydrogen atoms. So, it will give only one Complete reaction is as follows :
monochloro derivative on chlorination with Cl 2 in the presence + –
NH2 N 2X
of diffused sunlight. NaNO2 + HX
273-278 K
8. (a) The compound (Z) is alkyl halide given in option (a). An
alkene is converted to corresponding alkyl halide by reacting Aniline Benzene
with hydrogen chloride, hydrogen bromide or hydrogen iodide. diazonium salt
Chemistry 59
11. (d) CCl 4 being symmetrical has no dipole moment. Reaction involved is as follows :
Alc. KOH
Cl Cl CH3CH2CH2Br → CH3CH == CH2
C 1-bromopropane Propene
Cl Cl
µ=0 In this reaction, hydrogen is eliminated from β-carbon and the
halogen is lost from α-carbon atom.
12. (d) CH 3I has maximum density because of smallest hydrocarbon As a result, propene is formed as a product.
part (i.e. CH 3) and contian heaviest halogen (i.e. I).
20. (c) The correct order for the ease of dehydrohalogenation of
13. (b) Due to symmetry, the molecule of p-dichlorobenzene fit alkyl halide with conc. KOH is 3° > 2° > 1°,
closely in the lattice. As a result, intermolecular forces are because 3° carbocation is more stable.
strongest in p-dichlorobenzene and, hence it has highest
melting point and least solubility. 21. (b) The suitable reagent for Wurtz reaction is Na/ether. An
ethereal solution of an alkyl halide is treated with sodium to
14. (d) Addition reactions are not given by haloalkanes, whereas produce higher alkanes. This reaction involves the formation of
nucleophilic substitution, elimination reactions and reaction new C—C bond.
with metals are given by haloalkanes.
22. (a) The Wurtz-Fittig reaction is the reaction of an aryl halide
17. (a) Allylic and benzylic halides show high reactivity with alkyl halide and sodium metal to give substituted aromatic
towards SN 1 mechanism because carbocation formed are compound.
stable. It get stabilised through resonance. Thus, correct representation of Wurtz-Fittig reaction is option
+ r (a).
H2C  C  CH2 H2C  CH  CH2 C6H5I + 2Na + CH3I → C6H5CH3 + 2NaI
H
+ Ether
CH2
+
CH2 e.g. CH3CH2Br + 2Na + CH3Br → CH3CH2CH3
Ethyl bromide Propane
23. (b) The products A and B in the given reaction are COCl 2 and
CH2 CH2 HCl. Chloroform is slowly oxidised by air in the presence of
light to an extremely poisonous gas, carbonyl chloride
r r (phosgene).
Light
19. (a) When haloalkane containing β-hydrogen atom is heated 2CHCl 3 + O2 → 2COCl 2 + 2HCl
Chloroform Phosgene Hydrogen
with alc. KOH solution, then alkene is formed as a result of chloride
elimination.
CHAPTER 11
Alcohols, Phenols
and Ethers
1. Alcohols and phenols are formed when a hydrogen atom CH3 CH3
in a hydrocarbon, (aliphatic and aromatic respectively) is
replaced by —OH group. Alcohols are named by CH3—CH CH3—C—O—O—H OH
replacing ‘e’ of parent alkane with suffix ‘ol’.
2. Preparation methods of alcohols are by hydration of
O2 H+
alkenes, by hydroboration-oxidation, by reduction of
H2O
aldehydes and ketones or reaction of Grignard reagent
with aldehydes or ketones. Cumene Cumene Phenol
hydroperoxide
Aldehydes gives 1° alcohol and 2° alcohol on reduction
+ CH3COCH3
while ketone gives 3° alcohol with Grignard reagent. Acetone
3. Lucas test Tertiary alcohol gives turbidity, immediately, (propanone)
secondary alcohol show turbidity in about 5 minutes l
From diazonium salts
while primary alcohol does give turbidity very slowly at + –
room temperature. NH2 N2Cl OH
4. Preparation Methods of Phenol

NaNO2 H 2O
These are as follows : + N2 + HCl
+HCl Warm
Hydrogen
l
Chlorobenzene on fusion with NaOH at 623 K and Aniline Benzene Phenol
chloride
320 atm pressure gives sodium phenoxide which on diazonium
acidification yield phenol. chloride
Cl 5. Physical Properties
l
The boiling points of alcohols and phenols increase
623 K with the increase in number of C-atoms (increase in
+ NaOH van der Waals’ forces). Amongst isomeric alcohols,
Sodium 300 atm
– the boiling points decreases with increase in
hydroxide ONa+ OH
Chlorobenzene branching in the carbon chain because of decrease in
surface area (decrease in van der Waals’ forces).
HCl
l
Solubility of alcohols and phenols in water is due to
–NaCl their ability to form H-bonds with water molecules.
Solubility decreases with increase in size of alkyl/aryl
Sodium phenoxide Phenol
groups (due to steric hindrance).
l
From benzene sulphonic acid 6. Chemical Properties
SO3H OH l
Phenols are more acidic than alcohols, due to
more stabilisation of phenoxide ion formed by
Oleum (i) NaOH delocalisation of negative charge.
(ii) H+ Presence of electron withdrawing groups such as
Benzene Phenol NO 2,  CHO, etc. increases acidic strength of
phenol by stabilising phenoxide ion whereas, electron
l
Cumene (isopropyl benzene) on aerial oxidation, form releasing group, like  CH 3 reduces the acidic
cumene hydroperoxide, which on subsequent strength of phenol.
hydrolysis with dilute acid gives phenol and
propanone.
Chemistry 61
l
Alcohols and phenols react with carboxylic acids, acid –+
chlorides or acid anhydrides to form esters. OH ONa
l
Alcohols undergo dehydration when treated with CHCl2
conc. H 2SO 4 or H 3PO 4. CHCl3 + NaOH
The steps involved in this process are: aq.NaOH
Step I Protonation of alcohol
Phenol
H Intermediate
•• Fast | –+
CH 3CH 2 O  H + H + s CH 3 CH 2  O +  H ONa OH
••
Protonated alcohol
CHO CHO
Step II Formation of carbocation [slowest H+
step, hence is a rate determining step]
H H H H H Salicylaldehyde
+ Slow +
H—C—C—O—H H H—C—C + H2O l
Phenol can be converted to benzene on heating with
zinc dust.
H H H H
OH
Step III Formation of ethene by elimination of
a proton
H H + Zn + ZnO
H H (dust) Zinc oxide
H—C——C
+
H C == C + H+ Phenol Benzene
H H
H H
Ethene 7. Alcohols are made unfit for drinking by mixing some
copper sulphate (CuSO 4 ) and pyridine in it. The process
l
Phenol gives 2,4,6-trinitrophenol (or picric acid) when is known as denaturation of alcohol.
treated with conc. HNO 3 and 2,4,6-tribromophenol
when treated with Br2 / H 2O. However, when phenol is 8. Ethers are named as alkoxyalkane where alkoxy is
treated with Br2 in CS 2, it gives o- and generally the smaller group attached with O-atom.
p-bromophenol. 9. Preparation of ethers Ethanol is dehydrated to
HO ethoxyethane at 413 K in the presence of sulphuric acid.
OH
Conc.
O2N NO2 Conc. H SO
OH OH HNO3 2C 2H 5OH →
2 4
C 2H 5  O  C 2H 5 + H 2O
413 K
Ethanol Ethoxyethane
Br (Excess)
Br2 in CS2
+ Mechanism
273 K NO2
o-bromo 3Br2 H2O Picric Step I Protonation of alcohol
phenol acid •• Fast
Br
p-bromo
or CH 3  CH 2  O H + H + →
phenol OH 2, 4, 6 trinitrophenol ••
H
Br Br
+

CH 3  CH 2  O  H
••
Br Step II Nucleophilic attack by unprotonated

2,4,6-tribromophenol alcohol molecule on protonated alcohol molecule.
l
On treating phenol with CHCl 3 (chloroform) in the • • + H
presence of sodium hydroxide, a  CHO group is CH 3CH 2  O •• + CH 3  CH 2  O →
introduced at ortho position of benzene ring. This  H
H
reaction is called Reimer-Tiemann reaction. In this
reaction, electrophile is dichlorocarbene (•• CCl 2 ). +
CH 3CH 2  O  CH 2CH 3 + H 2O

H
Step III Loss of proton to form ethoxy ethane.

+ O R OH
CH 3CH 2  O  CH 2CH 3 → CH 3 CH 2OCH 2CH 3 +H +
 Ethoxy ethane
+H X +
H R X
l
In Williamson’s synthesis, a primary alkyl halide is
allowed to react with sodium alkoxide, to form ether. Alkyl/aryl ethers are cleaved at alkyl-oxygen bond due to
•• − ••
+ more stable aryl oxygen bond.
R  X + R′  O Na → R′  O  R′ + NaX
•• •• The reaction gives phenol and alkyl halide.
Alkyl Sodium Ether
halide alkoxide l
Alkoxy group (  OR ) activates the aromatic ring
In case of secondary or tertiary halides, elimination towards electrophilic substitution and directs the
product is the major product. incoming electrophile at o-and p-positions (because
of the negative charges at o- and p-positions which
l
Chemical reactions of Ethers The cleavage of C — O
indicates the more electron density at these
bond in ethers take place under drastic conditions
positions).
with HX.
l
Anisole undergoes Friedel-Craft’s reaction, i.e. the
373 K
(i) R  O  R + HX → R OH + RX alkyl and acyl groups are introduced at o-and
Ether Alcohol Alkyl halide p-positions by reaction with alkyl halide and acyl
(ii) R  OH + HX → RX + H 2O halide in the presence of anhydrous aluminium
(Excess) chloride (a Lewis acid) as catalyst.
Practice Questions
1. Which of the following alcohol contains C — OH 5. The reagent(s) used for the reduction of aldehydes
sp 3
and ketone into alcohols is/are
bond?
(a) finely divided metals such as Pt/Pd/Ni
(a) Allylic alcohol (b) Vinylic alcohol
(b) sodium borohydride
(c) Phenols (d) None of these (c) lithium aluminium hydride
2. Vinylic alcohol contains (d) All of the above
(a) OH group attached to an sp 3-hybridised carbon atom 6. Which of the following reagent is used to reduce
(b) OH group attached to sp -hybridised carbon atom
3 carboxylic acids to primary alcohols?
(c) OH group bonded to a carbon-carbon double bond (a) Pd (b) R OH
(c) LiAlH 4 (d) Ni
(d) OH group attached to sp 3-hybridised carbon atom
next to an aromatic ring 7. The reaction of Grignard reagent with carbonyl
compound is a nucleophilic addition reaction.
3. The IUPAC name of following structure is
This reaction on hydrolysis produces
OH (a) ester (b) alcohol
(c) carboxylic acid (d) ether
CH3
OH

8. CH 3CH 2  C  CH 3 cannot be prepared by
(a) 2-methyl hydroxy cyclopentane.
(b) 2-hydroxy 2-methyl cyclopentane 
(c) 2-methylcyclopentanol Ph
(d) cyclopentylmethane (a) CH3CH2COCH3 + PhMgX
(b) PhCOCH3 + CH3CH2MgX
4. In ethers, the two bond pairs and two lone pairs of
(c) PhCOCH2CH3 + CH3MgX
electrons on oxygen are arranged in a
(d) HCHO + PhCH(CH3 ) CH2MgX
(a) planar arrangement
(b) tetrahedral arrangement 9. Which of the following hydrocarbon is used for the
(c) trigonal bipyramidal arrangement world wide production of phenol?
(d) linear arrangement (a) Iso-butylbenzene (b) Iso-propylbenzene
(c) Iso-pentylbenzene (d) None of these
Chemistry 63
10. Alcohols and phenols react with active metals to yield 18. Which of the following is also known as wood spirit?
(a) alkoxides/phenoxides (b) hydrogen gas (a) Ethanol (b) Propanol
(c) nitrogen (d) Both (a) and (b) (c) Methanol (d) Butanol
11. Arrange the following compounds in the decreasing Y
order of acidity. 19. X + H 2 → CH 3OH
200 -300 atm
(a) H2O > HC ≡≡ CH > ROH 573 -673 K
(b) H2O > ROH > HC ≡≡ CH What is X and Y in the given reaction?
(c) HC ≡≡ CH > ROH > H2O X Y
(d) HC≡≡ CH > H2O > ROH (a) CO2, ZnO — CrO3
12. Which one is the most acidic compound? (b) CO, ZnO — Cr2O3
OH OH (c) CO2, ZnO — Cr2O3
(d) CO, ZnO — CrO3
(a) (b)
20. The action of zymase is inhibited during fermentation
if the percentage of alcohol formed exceeds
CH3 (a) 5% (b) 7%
OH OH (c) 10% (d) 14%
O 2N NO2 21. Williamson’s synthesis involves which of the
(c) (d) following type of mechanism when attack of an
alkoxide ion on primary alkyl halide takes place?
NO2 NO2 (a) SN 1 (b) SN 2
13. Phenols show the cleavage of C— O bond with (c) E1 (d) E2
(a) Na (b) K 22. Among the following sets of reactants which one
(c) Zn (d) Ca produces anisole?
14. A primary alcohol with molecular formula C 3 H 8O on (a) CH3CHO , RMgX
(b) C6H5OH, NaOH, CH3I
reaction with ( X ) forms C 3 H 7 Br. The halide formed
on reaction with (Y ) gives alkane (C 6 H14 ). Here, X (c) C6H5OH , neutral FeCl 3
and Y respectively are (d) C6H5  CH3 , CH3COCl , AlCl 3
(a) HBr and HCN (b) HBr and Na, ether 23. Select the correct increasing order of boiling point.
(c) Br2 and CH3CN (d) Br2 and KMnO4 (a) n-pentane, ethoxyethane, butan-1-ol
15. Identify an appropriate reagent for the conversion of (b) ethoxyethane, n-pentane, butan-1-ol
alcohol to carboxylic acid. (c) butan-1-ol, n-pentane, ethoxyethane
(a) PCC (b) Anhydrous CrO3 (d) ethoxyethane, butan-1-ol, n-pentane
(c) Cu/573 K (d) KMnO4 / H⊕ 24. The order of reactivity of hydrogen halides with ether
is as follows :
16. Phenol on reaction with conc. HNO 3 produces (a) HBr > HI > HCl (b) HCl > HBr > HI
(a) o-nitrophenol (b) p-nitrophenol (c) HI > HBr > HCl (d) HCl > HI > HBr
(c) 2, 4, 6-trinitrophenol (d) m-nitrophenol
25. Ethers are treated with an aqueous solution of I in
17. Phenol on reaction with Zn followed by distillation order to remove peroxides from it. Identify the ‘I’
gives ‘ X ’. Which on reaction with CH 3COCl, AlCl 3 from the following options.
gives Y . Final product Y is (a) KI (b) Br2
(a) acetophenone (b) benzophenone (c) KCNS (d) Na 2S2O3
(c) diphenyl (d) methyl salicylate
ANSWERS
1. (a) 2. (c) 3. (c) 4. (b) 5. (d) 6. (c) 7. (b) 8. (d) 9. (b) 10. (d)
11. (b) 12. (d) 13. (c) 14. (b) 15. (d) 16. (c) 17. (a) 18. (c) 19. (b) 20. (d)
21. (b) 22. (b) 23. (a) 24. (c) 25. (a)
Hints & Solutions

1. (a) Allylic alcohol contains C  OH bond. 7. (b) The first step of the reaction is the nucleophilic addition of
sp 3
Grignard reagent to the carbonyl group to form an adduct.
Structure is as follows : Hydrolysis of this adduct yields an alcohol.
CH2 == CH  CH2OH  – +
↓ C O+R Mg X →  C  O Mg X
sp 3 Ketone Grignard 
R Adduct
Other given alcohols contain C 2  OH bond. reagent
→
sp H3O+
(b) Vinylic alcohol CH2 == CH  OH 
↑  C  OH + Mg(OH) X
sp2 
(c) Phenol OH
sp2 R
Alcohol
OH

2. (c) Vinylic alcohols contain OH group bonded to a 8. (d) CH 3 CH2  C  CH 3 cannot be prepared by HCHO and
carbon-carbon double bond, i.e. to a vinylic carbon or to an aryl 
carbon. It is as follows : Ph
PhCH(CH3 )CH2MgX . This can be easily illustrated by
H2C == CH  OH
following reaction.
Vinylic alcohol O
d– d+ d – d+
3. (c) The IUPAC name of the given structure is 2-methyl H C H + PhCH CH2 MgX Ph CHCH2 CH2 O MgX
cyclopentanol
CH3 CH3
OH
H3O+
1
CH3
5 Ph CH (CH2)2 OH
2
4 3 CH3
Cyclic alcohols are named using the prefix cyclo and The obtained product is not the required substance. While
considering the OH group attached to C-1. option (a), (b) and (c) can readily prepare the required
4. (b) In ethers, the four electron pairs, i.e. the two bond pairs and substance.
two lone pairs of electrons on oxygen are arranged The reactions are as follows :
approximately in a tetrahedral arrangement. d – d+
e.g. O O MgX
d– d+
141 pm Ph C CH2 CH3 + CH3MgX Ph C CH2CH3
O
H3C CH3 CH3
111.7°
OH
H3 O+
5. (d) Aldehydes and ketones are reduced to the corresponding Ph C CH2CH3
alcohols by the addition of hydrogen in the presence of
catalysts (catalytic hydrogenation). CH3
The usual catalyst is finely divided metals such as platinum, d – d+
O O MgX
palladium or nickel. Alcohols are also prepared by treating
d– d+
aldehydes and ketones with sodium borohydride (NaBH4) or Ph C CH3 + CH3CH2MgX Ph C CH3
lithium aluminium hydride (LiAlH4 ).
CH2CH3
6. (c) Carboxylic acids are reduced to primary alcohols in
OH
excellent yields by lithium aluminium hydride (LiAlH4 ), a
H3O+
strong reducing agent. Ph C CH3
The reaction is as follows :
CH2CH3
(i) LiAlH
RCOOH →
4
RCH2OH
(ii) H 2O
Chemistry 65
d – d+ Reaction is as follows :
O O MgX
d – d+
OH OH
CH3CH2 C CH3 + PhMgX CH3CH2 C CH3 O2N NO2
Conc.HNO3
Ph
OH
H3O+ Phenol
CH3CH2 C CH3 NO2
2, 4, 6 trinitrophenol
Ph (Picric acid)
11. (b) A stronger acid displaces a weaker acid from its salt. Since, 17. (a) Phenol on reaction with zinc form benzene ( X ) which on
− + further reaction with CH3COCl , AlCl 3 gives acetophenone (Y ).
H2O displaces ROH from R O N a and both H2O and alcohol
Complete reaction is as follows :
displace acetylene from sodium acetylide.
Therefore, water is the strongest acid followed by alcohol, OH
while acetylene is the weakest acid as shown below : COCH3
CH3COCl,
H2O > ROH > HC ≡≡ CH + Zn Anhyd. AlCl3
12. (d) Picric acid (2, 4, 6-trinitrophenol), i.e. option (d) is more
(X) (Y)
acidic than given compounds due to the presence of three
strong electron withdrawing groups (—NO 2 group) at ortho 18. (c) Methanol, (CH3OH), is known as ‘wood spirit’ as it is
and para-positions. produced by destructive distillation of wood.
It is due to the effective delocalisation of negative charge in
19. (b) ‘X ’ is CO and ‘Y’ is ZnO-Cr2O3. Given reaction involves
phenoxide ion.
the production of methanol by catalytic hydrogenation of
OH
carbon monoxide at high pressure and temperature in the
O2N NO2
presence of ZnO- Cr2O3 catalyst. Reaction is as follows :
ZnO-Cr2 O
3
CO( X ) + 2H2 →
(Y )
NO2 CH3OH
(A) Water gas 200-300 atm Methyl alcohol
573-673 K
13. (c) The reactions involving cleavage of C—O bond take place 21. (b) Williamson’s synthesis involves SN 2 mechanism when
only in alcohols. Phenols show the cleavage of C  O reaction
attack of an alkoxide ion on primary alkyl halide takes place. In
only with zinc. Reaction involved is as follows :
this mechanism, the incoming nucleophile interacts with alkyl
OH
halide causing the carbon halide bond to break while forming a
new carbon —OH bond. Reaction is as follows :
Zn + ZnO
→ + – – + S 2
R  X + RONa →
N
ROR + NaX
Phenol Benzene
23. (a) The weak polarity of ethers do not appreciably affect their
14. (b) According to the reaction conditions given in the question,
boiling points which are comparable to those of the alkanes of
X is HBr and Y is Na, ether.
comparable molecular masses but are much lower than the
The complete reaction sequence is as follows : boiling point of alcohols. Therefore, the correct increasing order
HBr( X ) Na, ether (Y ) of boiling point is :
CH3CH2CH2OH → CH3CH2CH2Br →
Propanol Propyl bromide Wurtz reaction n-pentane Ethoxyethane Butan-1-ol
CH3 (CH2 )4 CH3 Boiling point 309.1 < 307.6 < 390
Hexane 24. (c) The order of reactivity of hydrogen halides with ether is as
15. (d) Strong oxidising agent such as acidified KMnO4 is used for follows. HI > HBr > HCl. The cleavage of ethers take place
conversion of alcohol to carboxylic acid. with concentrated HI or HBr at high temperature.
The reaction is as follows : 25. (a) Ethers are treated with an aqueous solution of KI (I) in
Oxidation order to remove peroxides from it. Ether peroxide oxidises KI
RCH2OH → RCHO → RCOOH into I2 and itself gets reduced to ether.
Alcohol [O] Aldehyde Carboxylic acid
2I– → I2 + 2e −
16. (c) With conc.HNO3, phenol is converted to 2,4,6-trinitrophenol
Ether peroxide + 2e− → Ether + O2
(picric acid). The product is commonly known as picric acid.
CHAPTER 12
Aldehydes, Ketones
and Carboxylic Acids
1. The C == O group is known as the carbonyl group and l
Gattermann-Koch reaction
the compounds containing C == O group are known as CHO
carbonyl compounds. In aldehydes, the carbonyl group
is bonded with a carbon and a hydrogen, while in Co, HCl
ketones, it is bonded with two carbon atoms. Aldehydes Anhy. AlCl3/CuCl
are named by adding suffix ‘al’ and ketones by adding Benzene Benzaldehyde
suffix ‘one’.
4. Preparation of Ketones
2. Preparation of aldehydes and ketones are obtained by
the oxidation of 1° and 2° alcohols respectively by using
l
Treatment of acyl chlorides with dialkyl cadmium give
ketones.
PCC (Pyridine Chloro Chromate) or K 2Cr2O7 / H 2SO 4 as
reagents. 2 R′ C Cl + R2Cd → 2 R′ C  R + CdCl 2
 
[O] O O
R  CH 2OH → R  CHO + H 2O l
Treating a nitrile with Grignard reagent followed by
OH hydrolysis yields a ketone.
 [O] O
R  C  R′ → R — C — R′ + H 2O Ether 
|| CH 3CH 2C ≡≡ N + C 6H 5MgBr → C 2H 5 C C 6H 5
 H O+
H O 3
l
Treatment of benzene or substituted benzene with
These are also obtained by dehydrogenation of acid chloride in presence of anhyd. AlCl 3 gives
alcohols, ozonolysis of alkenes, hydration of alkynes. ketone. This reaction is called Friedel Craft’s acylation.
3. Preparation of Aldehydes O
O
l
Aldehydes are obtained by the reduction of
carbonyl chloride with Pd / BaSO 4, S. (Rosenmund Anhy. AlCl3 —C—Ar/R
+Ar/R—C—Cl
reduction).
Pd /BaSO , S 5. Physical Properties
RCOCl + H 2 →
4
RCHO + HCl l
Boiling points of aldehydes and ketones are higher
or by the reduction of  CN with SnCl 2 + HCl (Stephen than hydrocarbons and ethers of comparable
reduction) followed by hydrolysis. molecular masses.
l
The solubility of aldehydes and ketones decreases
(i) SnCl 2 +HCl
RCN + H 2 → RCHO rapidly on increasing the length of alkyl chain.
(ii) H 3O + 6. Chemical Properties
( i ) AlH ( i -Bu ) 2 i.e. DIBAL-H The order of reactivity of aldehydes and ketones for
or R — CN → RCHO nucleophilic addition reactions are
(ii ) H 2O
HCHO > CH 3CHO > C 6H 5CHO > CH 3COCH 3
l
Etard reaction is also used to synthesise > C 6H 5COCH 3
benzaldehyde from toluene by treating it with l
Carbonyl compound form cyanohydrin when treated
CrO 2Cl 2 / CS 2 followed by hydrolysis. with HCN in the presence of a base.
CS 2
C 6H 5CH 3 + CrO 2Cl 2 → C 6 H 5CHO OH
+ C == O + HCN → C
Toluene H 3O CN
Benzaldehyde
(Cyanohydrin)
Chemistry 67
l
Aldehydes form hemiacetal and acetal when treated l
From primary alcohols,
with one or two equivalents of alcohol respectively in 1. Alk. KMnO 4
the presence of dry HCl gas. RCH 2OH →
+
RCOOH
2. H 3O
R HCl R OR′
C == O + ROH s C l
From Grignard reagent,
H H OH O
Hemiacetal Dry H3O+
RMgX +O == C == O R— C RCOOH
R′OH, HCl R OR′ ether +
→ C OMgX
−H 2O H OR′
Acetal
l
From acyl halide and anhydrides,
Ketones in this reaction form ketals. H2 O
l
Carbonyl compounds form 2,4-DNP derivatives RCOOH + HCl
(orange or yellow or red ppt.) with 2,4-DNP RCOCl –
OH/H2O – – H3O+
(2,4-dinitrophenyl hydrazine), Brady’s reagent. RCOO + Cl RCOOH
l
Aldehydes reduce Tollen’s reagent (ammoniacal silver H 2O
nitrate ) into silver mirror, Fehling’s solution into red (C 6H 5CO)2O → 2C 6H 5COOH
ppt. of Cu 2O and Benedict’s solution into red ppt. l
From esters,
These reactions are not given by ketones.
COOC2H5 COOH
l
C == O group is reduced to CH group by using H3O+
2 + C2H5OH
Zn-Hg/conc. HCl (Clemmensen reduction) or by using
NH 2 NH 2 + KOH (Wolff-Kishner reduction).
9. Physical Properties
l
Aldehydes and ketones containing α-H atoms
undergo aldol condensation in the presence of dilute
l
Carboxylic acids have higher boiling points as
alkali as catalyst, e.g. compared to hydrocarbons, aldehydes and ketones,
because they have high extent of hydrogen bonding
Dil. NaOH
2CH3—CHO CH3—CH—CH2—CHO with water due to which they exist as associated
Ethanal molecules.
OH l
Melting point of an acid containing even number of
3-hydroxybutanal (aldol)
∆ carbon atoms is higher than the adjacent members
–H2O CH3—CH CH—CHO containing odd number of carbon atoms.
But-2-enal
(Aldol condensation product) 10. Chemical Properties
β-hydroxy aldehydes or ketones are collectively called
l
Carboxylic acids are stronger acids than phenols
aldols and the reaction is called aldol condensation. because carboxylate ion is much more resonance
stabilised than phenoxide ion. Electron withdrawing
l
When aldehydes having lack of α-H atoms are treated groups (EWG) increase the stability of the carboxylate
with 50% alkali, it disproportionates to give reduction ion by dispersing the negative charge, while electron
product, alcohol and oxidised product, salt of acid. donating group decreases the stability of the
This reaction is called Cannizzaro reaction. carboxylate ion by intensifying the negative charge.
2HCHO + KOH → H  CH 2OH + H  COO –K+ l
Carboxylic acids on heating with mineral acids such
( 50%) Potassium as H 2SO 4 or P2O 5 give anhydride.
Methanol
formate
H+ , ∆
7. Carbon compounds containing a carboxyl functional 2CH 3COOH → (CH 3CO)2O
or P2O 5 , ∆
group (—COOH) are known as carboxylic acids. Their
names are derived by replacing the terminal ‘e’ from the l
Carboxylic acids are esterified with alcohols or
name of corresponding straight chain alkane with suffix phenols in presence of a mineral acids such conc.
‘oic acid’. H 2SO 4 or HCl gas.
8. Preparation of Carboxylic Acids H+
RCOOH + R′ OH - RCOOR′ + H O 2
l
Nitriles are first hydrolysed to amides
−
and then to
acids in the presence of H + or OH as catalyst. Mild Carboxylic acids react with PCl 3, PCl 5 and SOCl 2 to
l
reaction conditions are used to stop the reaction at give acyl chloride.
the amide stage.
l
Carboxylic acid react with ammonia to form amides.
− + ∆
O CH 3COOH + NH 3 - CH CO O N H 3 4 → CH 3CONH 2
+ − || + −
H or O H
R  CN → R  C  NH 2 → RCOOH
H or O H l
Carboxylic acids having an α-hydrogen are
H 2O ∆ halogenated at the α-position on treatment with
l
Aromatic acids are obtained by vigorous oxidation of chlorine or bromine in the presence of small amount of
alkyl benzene with chromic acid or acidic or alkaline red phosphorus to give α-halocarboxylic acids.
KMnO 4.
The reaction is known as Hell-Volhard-Zelinsky reaction. 11. Aromatic carboxylic acids undergo electrophilic
(i) X2 /Red phosphorus substitution reactions in which the carboxyl group acts
R  CH 2  COOH →
(ii) H 2O as a deactivating and meta-directing group. However,
R  CH  COOH they do not undergo Friedel-Crafts reaction because
| the carboxyl group is deactivating and the catalyst
X aluminium chloride (Lewis acid) gets bonded to the
α - halocarboxylic acid
carboxyl group.
{where, X = Cl, Br,I}
Practice Questions
1. Carbonyl compounds are the constituents of is known as
(a) fabrics (b) flavouring (a) Etard reaction
(c) plastics and drugs (d) All of these (b) Haloform reaction
(c) Gattermann-Koch reaction
2. The name of simplest aromatic aldehyde carrying the (d) Stephen reaction
aldehyde group on a benzene ring is/are
(a) carbaldehyde 8. The major product of following reaction is
(b) benzene carbaldehyde (i ) AIH (i⋅ Bu ) 2
R  C ≡≡ N → ?
(c) benzaldehyde (ii ) H 2O
(d) Both (b) and (c)
(a) RCHO (b) RCONH2
3. Write IUPAC name of the following : (c) RCOOH (d) RCH2NH2
1CHO 9. Which of the following substrates give the same
2 4 6 product on the reduction with DIBAL-H?
3 5
(a) CH3 — (CH2 )9 — CN and CH3 (CH2 )9 — COOH
Br (b) CH3 — (CH2 ) — CN and
9
CH3 (CH2 )9 — COOC2H 5
(a) 2-bromo-2-ethyl hexanal (c) CH3 — (CH2 )9 — COOH and CH3 (CH2 )9 — CHO
(b) 3-bromo-2-methyl hexanal (d) CH3 (CH2 )9 — COOH and CH3 (CH2 )9 COOC2H 5
(c) 2-methyl-3-bromo hexanal
10. Reaction by which benzaldehyde cannot be
(d) 3-bromo-2-formyl hexane
prepared is
4. The bond angle and structure of carbonyl compounds CH3
respectively are (a) + CrO2Cl2 in CS2 followed by H3O+
(a) 120° and trigonal planar
(b) 109° 28′ and tetrahedral
(c) 120° and tetrahedral
(c) + CO + HCl in the presence of anhyd. AlCl3
(d) 109° 28′ and trigonal planar
5. The most suitable reagent for the conversion of
R  CH 2  OH → R  CHO is COCl
(a) KMnO4 (b)
(b) K 2Cr2O7
(c) H2SO4 + H2 in the presence of Pd-BaSO4
COCH3
(d) PCC (pyridinium chlorochromate)
(d) + Zn/Hg and conc. HCl
6. Alcohol vapours are passed over which of the following
catalysts to give aldehydes and ketones?
(a) S or Pd (b) Ag or Cu 11. The compounds methanal, ethanal and propanone
(c) F or Cl (d) Li or K are miscible with water because they form
7. The reaction, (a) van der Waals’ forces with water
(b) ‘H’-bonding with water
H O+ (c) dipole-dipole bond with water
RCN + SnCl 2 + HCl → RCH == NH →
3
RCHO (d) ion-dipole bond with water
Chemistry 69
12. Identify the example in which nucleophilic 17. Some higher members of aliphatic carboxylic acids
addition followed by elimination reaction occur known as fatty acids occur in natural fats as esters of
respectively in the carbonyl compound. glycerol. How many C-atoms do they contain?
(a) Addition of Grignard reagent (a) C12 - C18 (b) C10 - C15
(b) Addition of sodium sulphide (c) C5 - C10 (d) C20 - C30
(c) Addition of HCN 18. What is the common name of 2-methylpropanoic acid?
(d) Addition of NH 3 (a) Adipic acid
13. Consider the reaction given below. (b) Crotonic acid
(c) Isobutyric acid
CH 2 ==CH  CHO 
→ CH 2 == CH  CH 2  OH
?
(d) Acrylic acid
Which of the following is the suitable reagent for the 19. Select the acid(s) which cannot be prepared by
conversion of following reaction? Grignard reagent?
(a) NaBH4 (b) Ni / H2 (a) Acetic acid (b) Succinic acid
(c) Zn / Hg / HCl (d) Red P + Hi (c) Formic acid (d) All of these
14. On heating an aldehyde with Fehling’s reagent, a 20. Carboxylic acids have higher boiling points than
reddish brown precipitate is obtained due to the aldehydes, ketones and even alcohols of comparable
formation of molecular mass. It is due to
(a) CuO (b) Cu 2O
(a) more extensive association of carboxylic acid via
−
(c) CuSO4 (d) Cu 2+ + OH van der Waals’ force of attraction
(b) formation of carboxylate ion
15. Which of the following compounds produces an (c) formation of intramolecular H-bonding
orange-red precipitate with 2, 4-DNP reagent? (d) formation of intermolecular H-bonding
(a) Acetamide (b) Dimethyl ether 21. Which of the following reagents is/are used for the
(c) Butanone (d) Propylbutanoate conversion of ethanoic acid to ethanoic anhydride?
16. Predict the products in the given reaction. (a) SOCl 2 , ∆ (b) PCl 3 , ∆
(c) P2O5 , ∆ (d) All of these
CHO
22. Diborane easily reduce the functional group such as
50%KOH (a) acid (b) ester
(c) nitro (d) halo
Cl 23. Name the product formed during the decarboxylation
CH2OH CH2COO
– of malonic acid.
(a) + (a) Acetic acid (b) Ethanone
(c) Propanone (d) Formic acid
24. Aromatic carboxylic acids do not undergo
OH Cl
Friedel-Crafts reaction because
CH2OH OH (a) carboxyl group acts as an activating and meta-directing
(b) + group
(b) carboxyl group act as a deactivating and ortho and para
directing group
OH OH (c) carboxyl group act as an activating and ortho-directing
– + group
CH2OH COO K (d) carboxyl group acts as deactivating and the catalyst
25. Which of the following acid is used in rubber, textile,
(c) + dyeing, leather and electroplating industries?
(a) Hexanedioic acid
Cl Cl (b) Ethanoic acid
–
CH2OH COO (c) Methanoic acid
(d) + (d) Sodium benzoate
OH OH
ANSWERS
1. (d) 2. (d) 3. (b) 4. (a) 5. (d) 6. (b) 7. (d) 8. (a) 9. (b) 10. (d)
11. (b) 12. (d) 13. (a) 14. (b) 15. (c) 16. (c) 17. (a) 18. (c) 19. (a) 20. (d)
21. (c) 22. (a) 23. (a) 24. (b) 25. (c)
Hints & Solutions

1. (d) Carbonyl compounds are of almost importance to organic 8. (a) The mechanism of the reaction is as follows :
chemistry.They are the constituents of fabrics, flavourings, H
plastics and drugs.
(sp2)
3. (b) The priority order of functional group is  CHO > Br. Al (DIBAL-H) Al
(Anelectrophile)
Therefore, IUPAC name of the given compound is as follows :
1CHO R— C N H
R— C N Hydridedonor
2 4 6 (A nucleophile)
3 5
[Nitrile] (Reducing agent)
Br
3-bromo-2 methyl hexanal Al
4. (a) The bond angles are approximately 120° as expected of a N

trigonal planar structure in the carbonyl compounds. H2O
O R— CH O CH (Animine)
– NH3
[Aldehyde]
–DIBAL-H
12 0
C R
°
So, R  C H is the correct answer.

Trigonal planar 
O
5. (d) The most suitable reagent for the conversion of alcohol 9. (b) Nitrile are selectively reduced by DIBAL-H to imines
(RCH2  OH) to aldehyde (R—CHO) is PCC : followed by hydrolysis to aldehyde. Esters are also reduced to
aldehydes with DIBAL-H.
PCC
R  CH2OH → R  CHO (i) DIBAL-H
CH3  ( CH2 )9  CN  
→ CH3 (CH2 )9 CHO
Pyridinium chlorochromate is a mild oxidising agent which (ii) H 2O
causes the conversion of alcohol to aldehyde and not carboxylic
acid. (i) DIBAL-H
CH3 (CH2 )9 — C — OC2H5 → CH3 (CH2 )9 — CHO
Whereas, K2Cr2O7 and KMnO4 are strong oxidising agents  (ii) H 2O
which causes conversion of alcohol directly to acid and H2SO4 O
is a dehydrating agent. 10. (d) Reaction (d) will not give benzaldehyde.
Thus, they cannot be used for the conversion.
COCH3 CH2CH3


6. (b) Alcohol vapours are passed over heavy metal catalysts

(Ag or Cu) to give aldehydes and ketones. Primary and + Zn/Hg → Conc. HCl + H 2O
secondary alcohols give aldehydes and ketones respectively. Ethyl benzene
H3O+ This reaction is known as Clemmensen reduction.
7. (d) RCN + SnCl 2 + HCl → RCH == NH → RCHO
Rest of the reactions will give benzaldehyde.
This reaction is called Stephen reaction, where nitriles are
CH3 CH(OCrOHCl2)2
reduced to corresponding imine with stannous chloride in the (a)
CrO Cl
→
2 2
presence of HCl, which on hydrolysis gives corresponding CS CHO
2 H O+
aldehyde. Brown →
3
(Addition
product) Benzaldehyde
This reaction is known as Etard reaction.

Chemistry 71
COCl CHO 17. (a) Some higher members of aliphatic carboxylic acids
Pd/BaSO4/H2
(b) → containing C12 - C18 are known as fatty acids and they occur in
(Boiling xylene)
Benzaldehyde natural fats as esters of glycerol.
This reaction is known as Rosenmund reduction. Therefore, the correct option is (a).
CHO 18. (c) The structure of compound 2-methyl propanoic acid is
Anhyd. AlCl3
(c) + CO + HCl shown below :
CH3
Benzaldehyde

This reaction is known as Gattermann-Koch aldehyde H3 C — CH — COOH
3 2 1
synthesis.
11. (b) The lower members of aldehydes and ketones such as The common name of the given compound is isobutyric acid or
methanal, ethanal and propanone are miscible with water in all α-methyl propanoic acid.
proportions because they form hydrogen bonding with water. 19 (a) The major product of the given reaction is benzoic acid
δ– (C6H5COOH). On vigorous oxidation of alkyl benzene with
δ+ O δ– δ+
δ+ δ
–
R δ+ R/ H acidic or alkaline KMnO4, aromatic acids are obtained. During
C O H H O C oxidation of alkyl benzene. the aromatic nucleus remains intact
H /R R′
and the entire chain is oxidised to —COOH group irrespective
12. (d) The addition of NH3 to carbonyl compound is an example of the length of carbon chain.
in which nucleophilic addition is followed by elimination – +
reaction occur respectively. CH2CH3 COOK COOH
(i ) NH 3
C == O → C == NH + H2O (i) Alk. KMnO4 (ii) H3O+
(ii ) ∆
Here, ammonia is added to carbonyl group and water molecules
gets eliminated. Ethyl benzene Potassium Benzoic acid
benzoate
Another example in which the nucleophilic addition is followed
by elimination is the addition of alcohols. 20. (d) Carboxylic acids have higher boiling points than aldehydes,
13. (a) The suitable reagent for the given conversion is NaBH4. ketones and even alcohols of comparable molecular mass
because of the formation of intermolecular hydrogen bonding
NaBH with water due to which they exist as associated molecules.
CH2 == CH  CHO →
4
CH2 == CH  CH2  OH
It is a selective reagent and does not reduce carbon-carbon O
double bond. Thus, unsaturated alcohols can be prepared by H O
C d+
this reagent. R O H C R
14. (b) On heating an aldehyde with Fehling’s reagent, a reddish H d–
O d– d+ O O d–
brown precipitate is obtained due to the formation of Cu 2O .
C O H H
Aldehydes are oxidised to corresponding carboxylate anion. R d+
The reaction involved is as follows :
21. (c) Reagents that are used for the conversion of ethanoic acid to
RCHO + 2Cu 2+ + 5OH → RCOO− + Cu 2O ↓ + 3H2O
ethanoic anhydride are mineral acids such as H2SO4 or with
Red brown
ppt. P2O5.
15. (c) 2, 4-DNP reagent reacts with carbonyl compounds Reaction is as follows :
(aldehydes and ketones) to produce orange-red precipitate. Among H+,∆
the given compounds, butanone is a carbonyl compound and, 2CH3COOH → (CH3CO)2 O
or P2O5 , ∆
thus can react with 2, 4-DNP reagent.
16. (c) When m-chlorobenzaldehyde is treated with 50% alkali, it 22. (a) Diborane does not easily reduce functional groups such
undergoes oxidation to give an acid salt as well as reduction to as ester, nitro, halo etc. Carboxylic acids are reduced to
give an alcohol. This reaction is called Cannizzaro’s reaction primary alcohols by lithium aluminium hydride or
and the products formed as shown below : with diborane.
–+ 23. (a) The decarboxylation of malonic acid is shown below :
CHO CH2OH COOK
β α ∆
HO — C — CH2 — COOH → H3C— COOH + CO2 ↑
50% KOH
+  Acetic acid
O
Cl Cl Cl Malonic acid
m-chlorobenzyl m-chlorobenzoate Therefore, acetic acid is formed by the decarboxylation of
alcohol malonic acid.
CHAPTER 13
Organic Compounds
Containing Nitrogen
1. Amines are derivatives of ammonia, obtained by by alkaline hydrolysis forms corresponding primary
replacement of one, two or three hydrogen atoms by amines.
alkyl/aryl groups. e.g. CO CO
– +
CH3 NH + KOH (alc.) NK
– H2 O
CH3 — NH2, CH3 —NH — CH3,CH3 —N CO CO
1° amine 2° amine 3° amine CH3 Phthalimide Potassium phthalimide
2. Nitrogen orbitals in amines are sp3 -hybridised and the O

R—X
– +
geometry of amines is pyramidal. CONa
NaOH(aq) CO
3. Amines are classified as primary (1°), secondary (2°) + R NH2 N—R
– + 1° amine CO
and tertiary (3°) depending upon the number of CONa
N-alkyl phthalimide
hydrogen atoms replaced by alkyl or aryl group in NH 3 . O
4. In IUPAC system, amines are named as alkanamines,
This method produces only primary amines, without traces
derived by replacement of ‘e’ of alkane by word ‘amine’.
of secondary or tertiary amines. So, this method is preferred
5. Preparation of Amines for the synthesis of primary amines.
l
Both aliphatic and aromatic primary amines can be l
Ammonolysis of alkyl halides involves the process of
prepared by the reduction of nitro compounds either cleavage of C—X bond by ammonia molecule .
catalytically with H 2 in the presence of Raney Ni, Pt or
+ –
Pd or with active metal in acidic medium. NH3 + R—X R—NH3X
+ Sn HCl +–
C 6H 5NO 2 +3H 2 ¾ ¾¾¾® C 6H 5NH 2 + H 2O RNH2
RX
R2NH
RX
R3N
RX
R4NX
Nitrobenzene or Fe + HCl (1°) (2°) (3°) Quaternary
Aniline
ammonium
salt
l
In Hofmann bromamide reaction, amides on
treatment with Br2 /NaOH gives an amine (primary) l
Reduction of nitriles
H / Ni
having one carbon less than the parent amide. R ¾ C ºº N ¾¾¾
2
¾¾® R ¾ CH 2 ¾ NH 2
O Na( Hg )/ C 2H5OH
½½ l
Reduction of amide
R ¾ C ¾ NH 2 + Br2 + 4NaOH ¾® O
R ¾ NH 2 + Na 2CO 3 + 2 NaBr + 2 H 2O || ( i ) LiAlH4
R ¾ C ¾ NH 2 ¾¾¾¾¾® RCH 2 ¾ NH 2
( ii ) H2O
l
In Gabriel phthalimide synthesis, a phthalimide is
treated with ethanolic KOH and forms potassium salt of 6. Physical Properties
phthalimide which on heating with alkyl halide followed l
1° amines have two, 2° amines have one while
by alkaline hydrolysis forms corresponding primary 3° amines have no hydrogen linked to nitrogen.
amines. l
1° and 2° amines are engaged in intermolecular
O association due to H-bonding between nitrogen of
½½ one and hydrogen of another molecule. Therefore, the
R ¾ C ¾ NH 2 + Br2 + 4NaOH ¾® order of boiling point of amines is
R ¾ NH 2 + Na 2CO 3 + 2 NaBr + 2 H 2O 1° amines > 2° amines > 3° amines.
l
In Gabriel phthalimide synthesis, a phthalimide is 7. Basic character of amines are stronger bases than
treated with ethanolic KOH and forms potassium salt of ammonia due to + I-effect (electron donating power) of
phthalimide which on heating with alkyl halide followed alkyl groups, due to which electron density on nitrogen
atom increases and hence, they can easily donate their
Chemistry 73
electrons as compared to ammonia. aromatic amines in this reaction give diazonium salt
Aromatic amines are weaker bases than ammonia due (C 6H 5N +2 Cl - ) .
to electron withdrawing nature of aryl group. l
Hinsberg’s reagent reacts with 1° and 2° amines to form
l
Larger the value of K b or smaller the value of pKb , sulphonamides, whereas 3° amines does not react.
stronger is the base. l
In aniline, electron density at ortho- and para- positions
l
Order of basicity of amines in gaseous phase follows (due to ¾ NH 2 ) is high. Therefore, ¾ NH 2 group is
the expected order. ortho or para directing and powerful activating. To
Tertiary amine > Secondary amine> Primary amine > control its activity, aniline is subjected to acetylation
Ammonia before subjecting to electrophilic substitution reactions
l
Combined effect of + I-group, steric effect and to get mono-substituted product.
solvation effect decides the basic character of amines + -
9. Diazonium salts have general formula R N 2 X. It can be
in aqueous phase. If the alkyl group is small, i.e. —
CH 3 , then there is no steric hindrance to H-bonding prepared by the reaction of aniline with nitrous acid at
and hence, H-bonding predominates over + I-effect. 273-278 K.
Since, all these effects are favourables for 2° amine, l
Chemical reactions Reactions involving displacement
therefore, order of basicity is 2° amine > 1° amine > 3° of nitrogen.
amine (in aqueous phase). CuCl /HCl
+ – ¾¾¾¾¾¾¾® C 6 H 5Cl + N 2
l
If the alkyl group is bigger than —CH 3 group, there is N NCl (Sandmeyer reaction)
steric hindrance to H-bonding and hence + I-effect
predominates over H-bonding. Therefore, the order is 2° Cu/HBr
¾¾¾¾¾¾¾¾® C 6 H 5 Br + N 2 + Cu X
amine > 3° amine > 1° amine (in aqueous phase). (Gattermann reaction)
l
In anilinium ion, there is only two resonating HBF4
Benzene ¾¾¾¾® C 6 H 5 F + BF3 + N 2 + HX
structures, therefore, it is less stable than aniline (five D
diazonium
resonating structures). chloride H3PO 2 + H2O
¾¾¾¾¾® C 6 H 6 + N 2 + H 3 PO 3 + HCl
l
In case of substituted aniline, electron releasing
groups like ¾ CH 3 , ¾ OCH 3 , ¾ NH 2 increase basic HO
¾¾®
2
C 6 H 5 OH + N 2 + HX
strength and electron withdrawing groups like ¾ NO 2 ,
¾ X, ¾ COOH decrease the basic strength.
l
Benzene diazonium chloride coupled with phenol
molecule having ¾ OH group at para-position to give
8. Chemical properties
p-hydroxyazobenzene, hence, the reaction is known as
l
Aliphatic and aromatic amines reacts with acid coupling reaction.
chlorides, anhydrides and esters by nucleophilic The azo products obtained, are coloured and used as
substitution reaction. dyes.
l
Primary amines on heating with chloroform and
ethanolic potassium hydroxide form isocyanides or + –
carbylamines which have foul smell. This reaction is N NCl + H OH
called carbylamine reaction or isocyanide test. This
–
reaction is used to test primary amines. OH
D
e.g. R ¾ NH 2 + CHCl 3 + 3KOH ¾®
1° amine Chloroform Potassium N N OH+Cl– +H2O
hydroxide
R ¾ NC + 3KCl + 3H 2O
( Isocyanide) p-hydroxyazobenzene
(Orange dye)
l
Primary aliphatic amines when treated with HNO 2
(NaNO 2 + HCl) gives alcohol whereas, primary,
Practice Questions
1. The hybridisation and geometry of amines are sp 3 10. Which of the following reactions is appropriate for
and pyramidal respectively due to the presence of converting acetamide to methanamine?
(a) divalent N-atom (b) trivalent N-atom (a) Carbylamine reaction
(c) monovalent N-aom (d) tetravalent N-atom (b) Hofmann bromamide reaction
(c) Stephen’s reaction
2. What is the bond angle of C — N—E (E = C or H) in
(d) Gabriel’s phthalimide synthesis
case of trimethylamine?
(a) 109.5° (b) More than 109.5°
11. Which of the following can form H-bond?
(c) 108° (d) 90° (a) NH 3 (b) R—CH 3
(c) R—O—R (d) R—Br
3. If one H-atom of ammonia is replaced by alkyl group,
12. Amines behave as a nucleophile because of
the amine, thus obtained is known as (a) the presence of unshared pair of electrons on N-atom
(a) secondary amine (b) primary amine (b) the absence of unshared pair of electrons on N-atom
(c) tertiary amine (d) quaternary amine (c) the vacant p-orbital of N-atom
4. Which of the following is an aromatic amine? (d) All of the above
(a) Aniline 13. Amines on treatment with acids yield salt because
(b) N-methyl aniline they are
(c) 2-phenyl ethanamine (a) basic in nature (b) acidic in nature
(d) None of the above (c) amphoteric in nature (d) None of these
5. The IUPAC name of C 2 H 5 ¾ N ¾ (CH 2 ) 3 ¾ CH 3 is 14. The correct order of the basic strength of methyl
½ substituted amines in aqueous solution is
C2 H 5 (a) (CH3 )3 N > CH3 NH2 > (CH3 )2 NH
(a) N-ethylbutan-2-amine (b) ( CH3 )3 N > ( CH3 )2 NH > CH3 NH2
(b) N-diethylbutan-1-amine (c) CH3 NH2 > ( CH3 )2 NH > ( CH3 )3 N
(c) N, N-diethylbutan-1-amine (d) ( CH3 )2 NH > CH3 NH2 > ( CH3 )3 N
(d) N, N-diethylbutan-2-amine
15. Aniline is more stable than anilinium ion because
6. Which of the following reagents is/are used in the (a) it has more resonating structures.
given reaction? (b) it has less resonating structures.
(c) it has more p-bonding.
NO2 NH2 (d) it has less p-bonding
?
16. The carbylamine reaction is given by
(a) (C2 H5 )3 N (b) (C2 H5 )2 NH
(a) H2 / Pd, ethanol (b) Sn + HCl (c) C2 H5 NH2 (d) C3 H7 NHC2 H5
(c) Fe + HCl (d) All of these 17. Name the product(s) formed during the reaction of
7. What is the correct order of reactivity of halides with primary aliphatic amines with nitrous acid at room
amines? temperature?
(a) RCl > RBr > RI (b) RI > RBr > RCl (a) R NO2 (b) ROH
(c) RCl > RI > RBr (d) RI > RCl > RBr (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these
8. Which of the following can be prepared using Gabriel 18. The chemical formula of Hinsberg’s reagent is
phthalimide synthesis? (a) HNO2 (b) NaOH + CaO
(a) Primary aromatic amines (c) C6 H5 SO2 Cl (d) CH3 CONH2
(b) Secondary amines 19. —NH 2 group in aniline is activating group and,
(c) Primary aliphatic amines hence reaction occurs at
(d) Tertiary amines (a) para position (b) ortho position
9. Ethylamine (C 2 H 5 HN 2 ) can be obtained from (c) meta position (d) Both (a) and (b)
N -ethylphthalimide on treatment with 20. Aniline does not undergo Friedel-Crafts reaction due to
(a) NaBH4 (b) NH2 NH2 (a) less reactivity of aniline
(c) H2 O (d) CaH2 (b) salt formation with AlCl 3
Chemistry 75
(c) electron accepting effect of —NH 2 group present in aniline 24. Coupling reaction is an example of
(d) None of the above (a) nucleophilic addition reaction.
21. Which of the following amine will form stable (b) nucleophilic substitution reaction.
diazonium salt at 273-278 K? (c) electrophilic substitution reaction.
(a) C2 H5 NH2 (b) C6 H5 NH2 (d) electrophilic addition reaction.
(c) C6 H5 CH2 NH2 (d) C6 H5 N(CH3 )2
22. Which of the following compound is water insoluble 25. The compounds H3C— —NH2 and
and stable at room temperature?
(a) Benzene diazonium chloride —CH2NH2 are distinguished by
(b) Benzene diazonium fluoroborate
(c) Both (a) and (b) (a) C6 H5 SO2 Cl and OH- in H2 O
(b) AgNO3 in H2 O
23. The reagent used to form aryl fluoride from arene (c) dilute HCl
diazonium chloride is
(d) HNO2 and b-naphthol
(a) HF (b) KF
(c) HBF 4 (d) None of these
ANSWERS
1. (b) 2. (c) 3. (b) 4. (a) 5. (c) 6. (d) 7. (b) 8. (c) 9. (b) 10. (b)
11. (a) 12. (a) 13. (a) 14. (d) 15. (a) 16. (c) 17. (b) 18. (c) 19. (d) 20. (b)
21. (b) 22. (b) 23. (c) 24. (c) 25. (d)
Hints & Solutions

1. (b) Due to the presence of trivalent N-atom and unshared reduction with metals in acidic medium. The reactions are as
pair of electrons in amines, hybridisation and geometry follows :
become sp 3 and pyramidal respectively. NO2 NH2
H2/Pd
2. (c) The C—N—E angle is 108° in case of trimethylamine Ethanol
due to the presence of unshared pair of electrons in it.
3. (b) If one H-atom of NH3 is replaced by alkyl or aryl group, NO2 NH2
Sn + HCl or
the primary (1°) amine is obtained. Fe + HCl
+ R / Ar
NH3 ¾¾®
-H
R / ArNH2
8. (c) Primary aliphatic amines can be prepared by Gabriel
Ammonia 1° amine
phthalimide synthesis. Secondary and tertiary amines cannot
4. (a) Aromatic amine is aniline and its IUPAC name is be prepared by this method due to steric hindrance.
benzamine. The structure of aniline is Aromatic primary amines cannot be prepared because aryl
NH2 halides do not undergo nucleophilic substitution with the
anion formed by phthalimide.
9. (b) The reaction for the production of ethylamine from
N -ethylphthalimide can be takes place as follows :
O H HN
5. (c) The IUPAC name of the given compound is
N, N-diethylbutan-1-amine. Hydrazinolysis
1 2 3 4
N — C2H5
NH2—NH2
C2 H 5 N CH2CH2CH2CH3 Parent chain (Hydrazine)
O H HN O
Substituents C 2H 5
(N-ethylphthalimide)
6. (d) The reagents used to reduce nitro compounds to NH
corresponding amines are hydrogen gas in the presence of + C2H5—NH2
finely divided nickel, palladium or platinum and also by NH Ethylamine
(An aliphatic
O 1°-amine)
This reaction is the second step of Gabriel phthalimide Solvation effect

synthesis for the preparation of aliphatic 1°-amines and
amino acid. In this step, concentrated alkali can also be used H
H 3C H OH2
+ +
in place of hydrazine. H3C—N—H OH2 > N
10. (b) The conversion of acetamide to methanamine can be H3C H OH2
H (2°)
achieved by Hofmann bromamide reaction. It involves the
H3C
migration of alkyl or aryl with its electron pair to electron OH2 >
+
N— H OH2
deficient N from adjacent carbon. The reaction involves the (1°)
H3C
intermediate isocyanate. Complete reaction is shown below : CH3
(3°)
O
½½ Strong + I-effect and hydrogen bonding favours higher
D
CH3 ¾ C ¾ NH2 + Br2 + 4 NaOH ¾® CH3 NH2 + 2NaBr basic strength of 2° amine. Thus, the correct order of basic
Acetamide Methanamine strength in aqueous medium will be
+ 2Na 2 CO3 + H2 O ( CH3 )2 NH( 2° ) > CH3 NH2 (1° ) > ( CH3 )3 N( 3° )
11. (a) The attractive electrostatic force between a hydrogen 15. (a) Aniline is a resonance hybrid of five resonating
atom and an electronegative atom (F, O, N) is known as structures and anilinium ion is obtained when aniline accept
hydrogen bond. a proton and has only two resonating structures. Greater the
Thus, ammonia (NH 3 ) forms hydrogen bond as shown number of resonating structures, greater is the stability.
below : Therefore, aniline is more stable than anilinium ion.
H H H 16. (c) The carbylamine reaction is given by C2 H5 NH2 .
½ d- d+ ½ d- d+ ½ d- Only primary aliphatic and aromatic primary amine on
H ¾ N ·· ××××××× H ¾ N ·· ××××××× H ¾ N ··××××××× heating with CHCl 3 and ethanolic KOH gives isocyanides.
½ ½ ½ 2° and 3° amines do not show this reaction.
H H H
Intermolecular H-bonding in NH3 17. (b) Primary aliphatic amines react with nitrous acid to form
aliphatic diazonium salts which being unstable, form alcohol
12. (a) Amines behave as a nucleophile because of the presence and liberate nitrogen gas quantitatively .
of unshared pair of electrons on N-atom. So, the product formed is R ¾ OH.
13. (a) Amines being basic in nature form salt on treatment with
acids. NaNO + HCl
R — NH2 + HNO2 ¾¾¾¾¾®
2
[ RN+2 Cl - ]
The reaction is as follows : H2 O
¾¾® ROH + N2 + HCl
+ –
RNH2 + HX a RNH X (salt) 3 18. (c) The chemical formula of Hinsberg’s reagent is
Base Acid C6 H5 SO2 Cl, i.e. benzene sulphonyl chloride.
14. (d) Basic strength of methyl substituted amines in aqueous 19. (d) ortho and para-positions to the NH2 group becomes
solution depends upon the ease of formation of cation by centre of high electron density. Thus, NH2 group is ortho and
accepting a proton from the acid. para-directing and act as powerful activating group.
H H
20. (b) Aniline does not undergo Friedel-Craft’s reaction
½ ½
R ¾ N ·· + H+ s R ¾ N+ ¾ H (alkylation and acetylation) due to salt formation with
½ ½ AlCl 3 , the Lewis acid, which is used as a catalyst.
H H Due to this, nitrogen of aniline acquires positive charge and,
hence acts as a strong deactivating group.
The basic strength can be decided by both inductive effect
and solvation effect of alkyl group. 21. (b) Primary aromatic amines ( C6 H5 NH2 ) form arene
+
In aqueous phase, the substituted NH4 cations get stabilised diazonium salts which are stable for a short time in solution
at low temperatures (273-278 K).
not only by electron releasing effect of alkyl group ( + I ) but
also by solvation with water molecules. Greater the size of 22. (b) Benzene diazonium fluoroborate is water insoluble and
ion, lesser will be solvation and less stabilised is the ion. stable at room temperature, whereas benzene diazonium
The order is as follows : chloride is soluble in water and is stable in cold but reacts
with water, when warmed.
Inductive effect ( CH3 )3 N > ( CH3 )2 ( NH ) > CH3 NH2
Chemistry 77
23. (c) The reagent used to form aryl fluoride from arene diazonium chloride is HBF4 .
Here, arene diazonium chloride on treatment with fluoroboric acid ( HBF4 ) give arene diazonium fluoroborate which on heating
decomposes to yield aryl fluoride.
+ - + - D
ArN2 Cl + HBF4 ¾® Ar N2 BF4 ¾® Ar - F + BF3 + N2
24. (c) Coupling reaction is an example of electrophilic substitution reaction. In this reaction, benzene diazonium chloride reacts with
phenol/aniline in which the phenol/aniline molecule at its para position is coupled with the diazonium salt to form p-hydroxy
azobenzene/ p-amino azobenzene.
25. (d) Given compounds can be distinguish by using HNO 2 and b-naphthol as shown in following reaction :
HNO2 + –
H3C— —NH2 H3C— —N2Cl
(NaNO2/
HCl)
4-methyl aniline
+
OH
—
(β-naphthol)
OH
H3C— —N N—
(Coupled product)
HNO2
—CH2NH2 —CH3OH + N2 + H2O
HCl
Benzylamine (β-naphthol)
No reaction
CHAPTER 14
Biomolecules
1. Carbohydrates may be defined as optically active
l
When oxidised with bromine water, glucose
polyhydroxy aldehydes or ketones or the compounds gives gluconic acid and with HNO 3 , it gives saccharic
which produce such units on hydrolysis. acid.
COOH CHO COOH
2. Classification of Carbohydrates
½ Br 2 water ½ HNO 3
½
l
Simple carbohydrates which cannot be hydrolysed (CHOH)4 ¬¾¾¾ (CHOH)4 ¾¾® (CHOH)4
further to simpler carbohydrates are called ½ ½ ½
monosaccharides. e.g. glucose, fructose, ribose, etc. CH2 OH CH2OH COOH
Gluconic acid Saccharic acid
l
Carbohydrates which give 2-10 monosaccharide units
on hydrolysis are called oligosaccharides (e.g. Acetylation of glucose with acetic anhydride gives glucose
maltose, lactose) and that give a large penta-acetate which confirms the presence of five ¾ OH
number of monosaccharide units are called groups. Since, it exists as a stable compound, five ¾ OH
polysaccharides e.g. starch, cellulose, etc. groups should be attached to different carbon atoms.
l
Carbohydrates in which ketonic or aldehydic groups CHO CHO O
are free and are capable of reducing Fehling’s (Acetic anhydride)
solution or Tollen’s reagent are known as reducing (CHOH)4 (CH—O—C—CH3)4
(Acetylation)
sugars. e.g. all monosaccharides and disaccharides
except sucrose. CH2OH CH2—O—C—CH3
l
Carbohydrates in which aldehydic or ketonic group O
are bonded and do not reduce Fehling’s solution or Glucose penta-acetate
(Stable compound)
Tollen’s reagent are called non-reducing sugars,
e.g. sucrose. 5. Open chain structure of D-glucose could not explain the
3. Glucose It occurs freely in nature as well as in the following reactions.
combined form. It can be prepared as follows : (i) Despite having the aldehyde group, glucose does not
l
From sucrose, give Schiff’s test and 2,4-DNP test.
(ii) It does not form the hydrogen sulphite addition
H+
C12H 22O11 + H 2O ¾® C 6H12O 6 + C 6H12O 6 product with NaHSO 4 .
Glucose Fructose
(iii) The penta-acetate of glucose does not react with
l
From starch, hydroxyl amine showing the absence of free ¾ CHO
H+ group.
(C 6H10O 5 )n + nH 2O ¾¾¾¾® n C 6H12O 6
393 K, 2 - 3 atm Glucose 6. The two monosaccharides are joined together by
4. Structures of Glucose [—O— ] linkage formed by loss of a water molecule.
Such a linkage is known as glycosidic linkage.
On the basis of following evidences, the structure of
glucose is assigned : 7. Mutarotation is the spontaneous change in the specific
l
On prolonged heating with HI, glucose gives n-hexane rotation of an optically active compound towards an
which suggest that all the six carbon atoms in equilibrium value.
glucose are linked linearly. 8. When two cyclic forms of a carbohydrate differ in
D configuration of hydroxyl groups at C-1, they are
HOCH 2 (CHOH)4 CHO + HI ¾® CH 3 (CH 2 )4 CH 3
n -hexane called anomers and represented as a and b-form.
Chemistry 79
l
Amino acids in which carboxyl group in aqueous solution
9. The six membered cyclic structure of glucose is known
loses a proton while, amino group accepts a proton
as pyranose structure (a or b).
results formation of Zwitter ion.
6 6
CH2OH CH2OH H 2N ¾ CH ¾ COOH r H +3 N ¾ CH ¾ COO -
O | |
5 5
O
H H H OH R R
H H Zwitter ion
4 1 4 1
OH H OH H
HO 3 2
OH HO
3 2
H l
In Zwitter ionic form, a-amino acids show
amphoteric behaviour, as they react with acids and
H OH H OH bases both.
α-D-(+)-glucopyranose β-D-(+)-glucopyranose
15. The word protein is derived from Greek word, ‘proteios’
10. Although, sucrose is dextro-rotatory but after hydrolysis meaning ‘primary’ or of prime importance. Chemically,
it gives dextro-rotatory glucose and laevo-rotatory protiens are the polymers in which the monomeric units
fructose (the mixture is laevo-rotatory because are the a-amino acids.
laevo-rotation is more than dextro-rotation). Since,
They are connected to each other by —CO — NH —
hydrolysis of sucrose brings about a change in the sign
bond which is called the peptide bond or peptide
of rotation i.e. from dextro (+ ) to laevo (- ) hence, the
linkage.
product is known as invert sugar.
l
On the basis of molecular shape, proteins are classified
11. Maltose is composed of two a-D-glucose units in which
into following two types :
C-1 of one glucose unit (I) is linked to C-4 of another
glucose unit (II). The free aldehyde group can be (a) Fibrous proteins have thread or fibre, like structures
produced at C-1 of second glucose solution and it shows in which polypeptide chains run parallel and held
reducing properties. together by hydrogen and disulphide bonds e.g.
keratin, myosin etc.
12. Lactose is composed of b-D-galactose and
(b) Globular proteins have spherical shape in which the
b -D-glucose.
chains of polypeptide coil around, e.g. insulin,
13. Starch consists of two components namely amylose albumins etc.
and amylopectin. l
On the basis of structure and shape, proteins can be
l
Amylose is soluble in water and constitutes 15-20% of studied on the following four different levels.
starch while, amylopectin is insoluble in water and
(a) Primary structure is the specific sequence in
constitutes about 80-85% of starch. In both amylose
which various amino acids are linked with each
and amylopectin, the D-glucose units are linked
other to form a polypeptide.
through a-glycosidic linkages.
(b) Secondary structure is the conformation which
l
Chemically, amylose is a long unbranched chain with the polypeptide chains assume as a result of
200-1000 a-D(+)-glucose units that are held together hydrogen bonding between
by C1 ¾C 4 glycosidic linkage. While amylopectin is a O
highly branched chain polymer of a-D-glucose units in ||
which glycosidic linkage is present between C1 ¾C 4 —C— and —NH— groups of the peptide bond.
atoms, whereas branching occurs through C1 ¾C 6 They exist in two different
glycosidic linkage. structures which are as follows:
14. The compounds containing both amino ( ¾ NH 2 ) and (i) In a-helix, polypeptide chain forms all possible
hydrogen bonds between ¾ NH group of each
carboxyl ( ¾ COOH) functional groups in the same
molecule are called amino acids, amino acid and C == O of an adjacent turn
e.g. R ¾ CH ¾ NH 2 .
leading to twisting of polypeptide chain into a
½
COOH right handed helix.
l
Amino acids which are synthesised by the body are (ii) In b-structure or b- pleated sheet all peptide
called non-essential. On the other hand, those which chains are stretched out to maximum extension
cannot be synthesised in the human body and are and they laid side by side which are held
supplied in the form of diet because they are required together by intermolecular hydrogen bonds.
for proper health and growth are called essential (c) Tertiary structure is the further folding of the
amino acids. secondary structure of proteins :
(d) Quaternary structure some proteins are l

Because vitamin B and C are soluble in water, they are
composed of two or more polypeptide chains excreted readily in urine and hence, cannot be stored in
called subunits. The spactial arrangement the body.
arrangement of these subunits with respect to 19. Nucleic acids are of two types: deoxyribonucleic acid
each other is known as quaternary structure. (DNA) and ribonucleic acid (RNA).
16. When there is a physical change (like change in l
DNA is composed of deoxyribose sugar; adenine and
temperature) or chemical change (like change in pH) in
guanine (i.e purine base) thymine and cytosine (i.e
the native form of protein, the hydrogen bond gets
pyrimidine base) and phosphoric acid. Its structural
disturbed. As a result, globules unfold and helices get
unit is called nucleotide.
uncoiled and protein loses its biological activity, known Nucleoside = sugar + base
as denaturation of protein. Nucleotide = phosphate + sugar + base
During denaturation 2° and 3° structures destroyed but 1° \ Nucleotide = nucleoside + phosphate
structure remains intact,
l
James Watson and Francis Crick proposed a double
e.g. coagulation of egg white on boiling and curdling of
stranded helical structure of DNA.
milk.
l
The process by which a DNA molecule produces two
17. Biological catalysts are known as enzymes. They are
identical molecules of itself in the nucleus of the cell
made up of proteins. Enzymes are highly specific for a
is called replication.
particular reaction and for a particular substrate, e.g.
invertase, zymase etc.
l
RNA is composed of ribose sugar, adenine and
guanine (purine base) uracil and cytosine (pyrimidine
18. Vitamins are organic compounds required in the diet in
base) and phosphoric acid. There are three types of RNA.
small amounts to perform specific biological functions
(i) Ribosomal RNA ( r-RNA)
for normal maintenance of growth and health.
(ii) Messenger RNA ( m-RNA)
l
These are classified as fat soluble (A, D, E and K) and (iii) Transfer RNA (t-RNA).
water soluble (B and C).
20. Hormones are the chemical substances, produced by
l
Deficiency diseases of vitamin A, B 6 , B12 , C, D and E the endocrine glands in the body and are release
are xerophthalmia, convulsion, pernicious anaemia, directly in blood stream. On the basis of constitution,
scurvy, rickets and infertility, respectively. they are of two types (steroid and non-steroid).
Practice Questions
1. Carbohydrate that cannot be hydrolysed further to give 4. Name the product which is formed by the oxidation
simpler unit of polyhydroxy aldehyde or ketone is called of glucose and gluconic acid with nitric acid.
(a) monosaccharide (b) oligosaccharide (a) Rhamnose
(c) polysaccharide (d) sucrose (b) Saccharic acid
(c) Citric acid
2. Which of the following is not an example of
(d) Oxalic acid
polysaccharide?
(a) Starch (b) Cellulose 5. Which of the following act as epimeric pair?
(c) Glycogen (d) Maltose (a) Glucose and fructose
(b) Fructose and mannose
3. Name the reagent and condition required for carrying (c) Glucose and mannose
out the following reaction. (d) Glucose and sucrose
CHO
½ 6. In sucrose, the two monosaccharides are held together
(CHOH)4 ¾® CH3—( CH— 2 )4CH 3 by a glycosidic linkage. The linkage is between
½ n -hexane
CH2OH (a) C1 of a-D-glucose and C 2 of b-D-fructose
(b) C 2 of a-D-glucose and C1 of b-D-fructose
(a) HF, D (b) HCl, D
(c) C1 of b-D-glucose and C 2 of b-D-fructose
(c) HBr, D (d) HI, D
(d) C1 of b-D-glucose and C 2 of a-D-fructose
Chemistry 81
7. Invert sugar is a mixture of (c) Curdling of milk

(a) D-glucose + D-fructose (d) Both (a) and (c)
(b) L-glucose + D-fructose 15. What is the common name given to the
(c) L-glucose + D-glucose enzyme which catalyse the oxidation of one
(d) L-glucose + L-glucose substrate with simultaneous reduction of another
substrate?
8. CH2OH CH2OH (a) Reductioxidase
HO 5 O H 5 O OH (b) Oxidonductase
H H
4
OH H
1 O 4
OH H
1 (c) Oxidoreductase
H 3 2 H 3 2 H (d) Reductoxides
H OH H OH 16. Which of the following is a fat soluble vitamin?
Study the structure carefully and then mark the (a) Vitamin A (b) Vitamin B6
correct option of followed question. (c) Vitamin C (d) Vitamin B2
What is the name of above disaccharide? 17. Water soluble vitamin is
(a) Sucrose (b) Maltose (a) vitamin C (b) vitamin D
(c) Lactose (d) Talose (c) vitamin E (d) vitamin K
9. Which of the following is known as animal starch? 18. Pyridoxine is also known as
(a) Amylose (b) Amylopectin (a) vitamin B2 (b) vitamin B6
(c) Glycogen (d) Cellulose (c) vitamin B12 (d) vitamin B1
10. The total number of amino acids to form protein in 19. Which of the following disease is caused by the
human body is deficiency of vitamin E?
(a) 25 (b) 100 (a) Beri-beri (b) Rickets
(c) 20 (d) 10 (c) Scurvy (d) Muscular weakness
11. Which of the following amino acids can be 20. Which of the following combination is correct
synthesised in the body? between nucleic acid and its respective sugar base?
(a) Valine (b) Leucine (a) DNA ® b-D-3-deoxyribose
(c) Lysine (d) Glycine (b) DNA ® b-D-1-deoxyribose
(c) RNA ® b-D-ribose
12. Which of the following structure of protein is formed (d) RNA ® b-D-3-deoxyribose
when polypeptide in a protein has amino acids linked
with each other in a specific sequence? 21. Consider the following structures.
(a) primary structure 5
O 5
O
(b) secondary structure HOH2C OH HOH2C OH
(c) tertiary structure 4 1 4 1
H H H H
(d) quaternary structure H 3 2 H H 3 2 H
13. The spatial arrangement of the two or more OH OH OH H
polypeptide chains with respect to each other is β-D-ribose β-D-2-deoxyribose
I II
known as
(a) primary structure Identify structure I and II and choose the correct
(b) secondary structure option.
(c) tertiary structure I II
(d) quaternary structure (a) b-D-ribose b-D-2-deoxyribose
(b) a-D-ribose b-D-3-deoxyribose
14. Which of the following is/are example(s) of
(c) b-D-deoxyribose b-D-ribose
denaturation of protein?
(d) b-D-deoxyribose a-D-ribose
(a) Coagulation of egg white
(b) Clotting of blood
22. Which one of the following does not constitute the 24. Which of the following is not a hormone?
nucleic acid? (a) Insulin
(a) Uracil (b) Endorphins
(b) Ribose sugar (c) Norepinephrine
(c) Phosphoric acid (d) Thymine
(d) Guanidine
25. The major role of insulin is
23. Which of the following is a type of RNA? (a) to decrease the glucose level in human body
(a) m-RNA (b) t-RNA (b) to keep the blood glucose level within the narrow limit
(c) r-RNA (d) All of these (c) to regulate growth
(d) to transport minerals
ANSWERS
1. (a) 2. (d) 3. (d) 4. (b) 5. (c) 6. (a) 7. (a) 8. (c) 9. (c) 10. (c)
11. (d) 12. (a) 13. (d) 14. (d) 15. (c) 16. (a) 17. (a) 18. (b) 19. (d) 20. (c)
21. (a) 22. (d) 23. (d) 24. (d) 25. (b)
Hints & Solutions

2. (d) Maltose is not an example of polysaccharide. Starch,
cellulose and glycogen are examples of polysaccharide as H—C O H—C O
they yield a large number of monosaccharides on hydrolysis. H—C—OH HO—C—H
3. (d) The reagent for the given reaction is HI. On prolonged
heating with HI, glucose forms hexane, suggesting that all HO—C—H HO—C—H
6C-atoms are linked in a straight chain. H—C—OH H—C—OH
CHO
½ HI
H—C—OH H—C—OH
(CHOH)4 ¾¾® CH3 CH2 CH2 CH2 CH2 CH3
D CH2OH CH2OH
½ n -hexane
CH2 OH D - (+) - glucose D - (+) - mannose
Glucose 6. (a) In sucrose, the two monosaccharides are held together
4. (b) Glucose and gluconic acid, both on oxidation by a glycosidic linkage.
yields a dicarboxylic acid, saccharic acid. This indicates the The linkage is between C1 of a-D-glucose and C 2 of
presence of primary alcohol (OH) group in glucose. b-D-fructose.
Reaction involved is as follows :
6
CHO COOH CH2OH
½ Oxidation ½ O 1
O
(CHOH)4 ¾¾¾® (CHOH)4 H 5
H
H HOH2C H
½ ½ 4
OH H
1
O
2
H HO 5
CH2 OH COOH HO 3 2 3 4 CH2OH
Saccharic acid Glycosidic 6
Glucose
H OH linkage OH H
COOH α-D-glucose β-D-fructose
Oxidation ½ Sucrose
¬¾¾¾ (CHOH)4
7. (a) Invert sugar is a mixture of D-glucose and D-fructose.
½
CH2 OH Sucrose is also known as invert sugar. Solution of sucrose is
Gluconic acid
dextrorotatory. When sucrose is hydrolysed it forms
equimolar quantity of D-glucose and D-fructose. The
5. (c) Glucose and mannose are epimers because they differ in solution of formed products is found to be
configuration at only one chiral carbon. laevorotatory. This change in optical properties of sucrose is
called inversion of cane sugar. The equimolar product is
formed, i.e. D-glucose and D-fructose is called invert sugar.
Chemistry 83
8. (c) The given disaccharide is lactose. In this structure, the 16. (a) Vitamin A is a fat soluble vitamin because it is soluble
linkage is between C1 of galactose and C4 of glucose. in fat and oils but insoluble in water.
9. (c) Glycogen is also known as animal starch because its 17. (a) Vitamin C is water soluble, while vitamin A,D,E and K
structure is similar to amylopectin and is rather more highly are fat soluble.
branched. The carbohydrates get stored in animal body as
19. (d) Muscular weakness is caused by the deficiency of vitamin
glycogen.
E. To remove deficiency, vegetable oil like wheat germ oil,
10. (c) The total number of amino acids to form protein in sunflower oil etc. should be included in the diet.
human body is 20. These amino acids are necessary to build
protein in body. 20. (c) Option (c) is the correct combination. In DNA molecule,
the sugar moiety is b-D-2-deoxyribose whereas in RNA
11. (d) Valine, leucine and lysine are among the amino acids
molecule, it is b-D-ribose.
that cannot be synthesised in body, whereas glycine can be
synthesised in the body. 22. (d) Guanidine does not constitute the nucleic acid. Uracil is
12. (a) In primary structure of protein, each polypeptide in a a base present in RNA. Ribose sugar and phosphoric acid
protein has amino acids linked with each other in a specific are a part of DNA or RNA.
sequence. 23. (d) RNA molecules are of three types and they perform
14. (d) Coagulation of egg white and curdling of different functions. They are named as messenger
milk are examples of denaturation of protein. RNA(m-RNA), ribosomal RNA (r-RNA) and transfer RNA
During denaturation, secondary and tertiary structures are (t-RNA).
destroyed but primary structure remain intact. Clotting of 24. (d) Thymine is not a hormone. It is a nitrogenous base. All
blood is not a kind of denaturation of protein. other three options are hormone. Insulin and endorphins are
15. (c) Enzyme which catalyse the oxidation of one substrate polypeptides, whereas norepinephrine is an amino acid
with simultaneous reduction of another substrate are named derivatives.
as oxidoreductase enzyme.
The ending of the name of an enzyme is -ase.
CHAPTER 15
Polymers
1. Polymers can be defined as compounds of high C 6H5
molecular mass (10 3 -10 7u) formed by ½
—CH
( 2 — CH == CH—CH2 — CH2 ¾ C H )¾
n
combination of large number of small molecules. These
Buna -S
small molecules which constitute the (ii) Condensation polymers are formed by repeated
repeating units in a polymer are called monomer units, condensation reaction between two different bifunctional
e.g. polythene, nylon-6, 6. or trifunctional monomeric units. e.g. nylon-6,6.
2. Classification of polymers l
Classification based on molecular forces
l
Classification based on source (i) Elastomers are rubber-like solids with elastic
(i) Natural polymers are found in plants and properties. These polymers have the weakest
animals e.g. proteins. intermolecular forces, which permit the polymer to be
(ii) Semi-synthetic polymers like cellulose derivative stretched. A few ‘cross-links’ are introduced in
as cellulose acetate (rayon) and cellulose nitrate, between the chains, through which the polymer
regain its original position after the force is released,
etc.
e.g. vulcanised rubber, buna-S, buna-N, neoprene, etc.
(iii) Synthetic polymers like plastic, synthetic rubber
(Buna-S). ¾(¾ CH 2 ¾ C == CH ¾ CH 2 ¾¾ )n
½
l
Classification based on structure Cl
Neoprene
(i) Linear polymers are long and straight chain, e.g.
high density polythene. (ii) Fibres have strong intermolecular forces
(ii) Branched chain polymers contain chain having like hydrogen bonding or dipole-dipole interactions.
some branches e.g. low density polythene. They are useful in making fibres as their molecules
(iii) Cross-linked polymers are formed by are long and thread-like. They possess high tensile
bi-functional and trifunctional monomers, contain strength, high modulus and less elasticity. These
covalent bonds between linear polymeric chains. strong forces also lead to close packing of chains
l
Classification based on mode of polymerisation and imparts crystalline nature. e.g. nylon-6,6,
(i) Addition polymers formed by repeated addition of (polyamides), terylene (polyester), etc.
monomer molecules possessing double or triple (iii) Thermoplastic polymers are those polymers in
bonds e.g. polythene. which intermolecular forces are intermediate between
Addition polymer are of two types. These are as those of elastomers and fibres. They are linear or
follows : slightly branched long molecules which are capable
(a) Homopolymers are those addition polymers in of repeatedly softening on heating and hardens on
which single monomeric species is involved in cooling. e.g. polystyrene, polythene, PVC, etc.
their formation. e.g. polythene. Cl
nCH 2 ==CH 2 ¾® ¾(CH 2 ¾ CH 2 ¾ )n |
Ethene Polythene ¾(CH 2 ¾CH ¾
)n
(PVC)
(b) Copolymers are those addition polymers in
which two different monomeric species are l
Thermosetting polymers are cross-linked or heavily
involved in their formation. The process is called branched molecules, which on heating undergo
copolymerisation e.g. Buna-S. extensive cross-linking and become infusible. Once
nCH 2 == CH ¾CH ==CH 2 + nC 6H 5CH == CH 2 ¾® they get set, they cannot be reshaped and reused.
1,3-butadiene Styrene
e.g. bakelite, urea-formaldehyde resins, etc.
Chemistry 85
3. Types of Polymerisation Reactions (vi) Polymer — Nylon-6,6

The two types of polymerisation reactions are as follows : Monomers— Adipic acid [HOOC(CH 2 )4 COOH] and
hexamethylene diamine [H 2N(CH 2 )6 NH 2 ]
Addition polymerisation Here, the molecules of the same
monomer or different monomers add together on a large (vii) Polymer — Bakelite
scale to form a polymer. The most common mode of Monomer — Formaldehyde (HCHO) and
addition polymerisation is free radical mechanism. phenol (C 6H 5OH)
Steps involved in free radical polymerisation of ethene are (viii) Polymer — PMMA [Polymethyl methacrylate]
Step I Chain initiation step Monomer — Methyl methacrylate
· ·
(C 6H 5COO)2 ¾® 2(C 6H 5COO) ¾¾® 2 C 6 H 5 COOCH 3
- CO 2 ½
· · (CH 2 == C ¾ CH 3 )
C 6 H 5 + C H 2 == CH 2 ¾® C 6H 5CH 2 ¾ C H 2
Step II Chain propagating step (ix) Polymer — Cellulose
· Monomer — b-D-glucose.
C 6 H 5 ¾ CH 2 ¾ C H 2 + CH 2 == CH 2 ¾® (x) Polymer — Neoprene or synthetic rubber
(n-1)CH2==CH2 Monomer — Chloroprene
·
C 6 H 5 ¾CH 2 ¾ CH 2 ¾ CH 2 ¾C H 2 Cl
½
·
C 6H 5 ¾ (CH 2 ¾ CH 2 )n ¾ CH 2 ¾ C H 2 CH 2 == C ¾ CH == CH 2
Step III Chain terminating step
·
2C 6 H 5 (CH 2 ¾ CH 2 )n CH 2 ¾ CH 2 ¾® (xi) Polymer — Buna-S
C 6 H 5 (CH 2 ¾ CH 2 ) nCH 2 CH 2 CH 2 CH 2 Monomer — Buta-1,3-diene
(CH 2 ¾ CH 2 ) n C 6H 5 (CH 2 == CH ¾ CH == CH 2 ),
l
Condensation polymerisation involves a repetitive styrene (C 6 H 5 ¾ CH == CH 2 )
condensation reaction between two bi-functional (xii) Polymer — Buna-N
monomers. Monomer — Buta-1,3-diene
4. Copolymerisation involves the polymerisation reaction
(CH 2 == CH ¾CH == CH 2 ) ,
in which a mixture of more than one monomeric species
acrylonitrile (CH 2 == CH ¾ CN)
is allowed to polymerise and form a copolymer.
5. Some important polymers and their monomers 6. Natural rubber is cis polyisoprene, a polymer of isoprene
(i) Polymer — Polythene (2-methylbuta-1,3-diene).
Monomer— Ethene (CH 2 == CH 2 ) 7. Vulcanisation is the heating of natural rubber with
(ii) Polymer — Teflon sulphur and an appropriate additive at a temperature
Monomer— Tetrafluoroethylene (CF2 == CF2 ) range between 373 K to 415 K. Sulphur forms cross-links
(iii) Polymer — Orlon or acrilan, polyacrylonitrile at the reactive sites of the double bond and thus, rubber
(PAN) gets stiffened, i.e. becomes less sticky and plastic, more
resistant to swelling in organic liquids and has enhanced
Monomer — Acrylonitrile [CH 2 == CH(CN)]
elasticity. Physical properties of rubber can be improved
(iv) Polymer — Terylene or dacron.
by vulcanisation.
Monomers — Ethylene glycol
(CH 2OH ¾ CH 2OH), 8. Rubber made with 1-3% sulphur is soft and stretchy and
is used in making rubber bands and rubber made with 5%
(HOOC COOH) sulphur is more rigid and is used in the manufacture of
tyres for automobiles etc.
Terephthalic acid
It is also used in making footwears, battery boxes, foam
(v) Polymer — Nylon-6 or perlon mattresses, balloons, toys, etc.
Monomer — Caprolactam Main constituent of bubble gum is styrene-butadiene
H (Buna-S) copolymer.
N 9. Biodegradable polymers are those polymers which get
H2 C C O
decomposed by themselves over a period of time due
H2 C
to environmental degradation by bacteria.
CH2
e.g. PHBV(Poly b -hydroxy butyrate-co-b-hydroxy valerate)
H2C CH2
Practice Questions
1. The molecular mass of polymer is in the range of 13. LDP is used in the insulation of electricity wires and
10 15 3 7 manufacture of flexible pipes because
(a) 10 - 10 u (b) 10 - 10 u
(c) 106 - 1018 u (d) 101 - 103 u (a) it is chemically inert
(b) it is tough and flexible
2. To which category of polymers, cellulose derivatives
(c) it is poor conductor of electricity
belong to?
(a) Synthetic polymers (b) Semi-synthetic polymers (d) All of the above
(c) Natural polymers (d) Branched polymers 14. The type of polythene which is chemically inert and
3. Buna-S is a more tough and hard is
(a) natural polymer (b) synthetic polymer (a) HDP (b) LDP
(c) semi-synthetic polymer (d) None of these (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these
4. PVC is a 15. The commercial name of polyacrylonitrile is

(a) linear polymer (b) branched polymer (a) orlon (acrilan) (b) dacron
(c) cross-linked polymer (d) None of these (c) bakelite (d) melamine
5. What is full form of HDP? 16. Nylon is an example of

(a) polyester (b) polysaccharide
(a) High density polythelene
(b) High density polythene (c) polyamide (d) polythene
(c) High density polypropene 17. ¾
[ NH(CH 2 ) 6 NHCO(CH 2 ) 4 CO ¾
]n is a
(d) High density polypropylene (a) homopolymer (b) condensation polymers
6. Polymers containing linear chains having some (c) addition polymer (d) thermosetting polymer
branches are known as 18. The monomers of dacron, a polyester is/are
(a) network polymers (b) branched polymers (a) ethylene glycol (b) terephthalic acid
(c) linear polymers (d) cross-linked polymers (c) caprolactam (d) Both (a) and (b)
7. Which one of the following is a network polymer? 19. Preparation of bakelite proceeds via reactions
(a) HDP (b) Bakelite (a) electrophilic addition and dehydration
(c) LDP (d) Polyvinyl chloride (b) condensation and elimination
8. Buna-S is a copolymer of (c) nucleophilic addition and dehydration
(a) ethene and styrene (b) 1, 3-butadiene and ethene (d) electrophilic substitution and dehydration
(c) 1, 3-butadiene and styrene (d) ethene and propene 20. Among the following polymers, the phenol
9. Rubber like solids with elastic properties are called formaldehyde resin is
(a) elastomers (a) teflon (b) bakelite
(b) fibres (c) melamine (d) buna-N
(c) thermosetting polymers 21. In natural rubber, few cross-links are introduced in
(d) thermoplastic polymers between the chains. These chains help to
10. Polymer which contains strong intermolecular forces, (a) make the rubber soft
e.g. hydrogen bonding is (b) retract the original position after the force is released
(a) polystyrene (b) nylon-6,6 (c) make the rubber hard
(c) teflon (d) natural rubber (d) None of the above
11. The repeated addition of same monomer molecules 22. Which is the monomer of neoprene in the following?
having double or triple bonds is known as (a) CH2== CH ¾ C ºº CH
(a) copolymer (b) elastomer (b) CH2 == C ¾ CH == CH
(c) homopolymer (d) fibre ½
CH3
12. Low density polythene is obtained through
(c) CH2 == C ¾ CH == CH2
(a) electrophilic addition
½
(b) free radical addition Cl
(c) nucleophilic addition
(d) CH2 == CH ¾ CH ==CH2
(d) nucleophilic substitution
Chemistry 87
23. Which polymer has ‘chiral’ monomer(s)? 25. Among the following, which polymer is used for
(a) PHBV (b) Buna-N making combs, electrical switches, handles of utensils
(c) Nylon-6, 6 (d) Neoprene and computer discs?
24. Biodegradable polymer which can be produced (a) Bakelite
from glycine and amino caproic acid is (b) Glyptal
(c) Polystyrene
(a) nylon-2-nylon-6 (b) PHBV
(d) PVC
(c) buna-N (d) nylon-6, 6
ANSWERS
1. (b) 2. (b) 3. (b) 4. (a) 5. (b) 6. (b) 7. (b) 8. (c) 9. (a) 10. (b)
11. (c) 12. (b) 13. (c) 14. (a) 15. (a) 16. (c) 17. (b) 18. (d) 19. (d) 20. (b)
21. (b) 22. (c) 23. (a) 24. (a) 25. (a)
Hints & Solutions

1. (b) The molecular mass of polymer is in the range of 9. (a) Elastomers are rubber like-solids with elastic properties
103 -107 u. These are very large molecules having high like-neoprene, buna-S, buna-N, etc.
molecular mass. Hence, these are also referred as 10. (b) Nylon-6,6 contains strong intermolecular forces like
macromolecules. H-bonding. These strong forces lead to close packing of
2. (b) Cellulose derivatives such as cellulose acetate and chains and impart crystalline nature.
cellulose nitrate are semi-synthetic polymers. 11. (c) The repeated addition of same monomer molecules
3. (b) Buna-S is a synthetic polymer, also known as man-made having double or triple bonds is known as homopolymer.
polymer. 13. (c) Low density polythene (LDP) is used in the insulation of
4. (a) PVC (Polyvinyl chloride) is linear polymer as it electricity wires and manufacture of flexible pipes and
contains long and straight chains. squeeze bottles because it is chemically inert, tough, flexible
and poor conductor of electricity.
5. (b) HDP stands for high density polythene. It is a linear
polymer. 14. (a) The type of polythene which is chemically inert and
more tough and hard is HDP (High Density Polythene). It
6. (b) Polymers containing linear chains having some branches consist of linear molecules and have high density.
are known as branched polymers.
16. (c) Nylon is an example polyamide containing amide
It is represented as,
linkages –(–CONH–)–. It is prepared by condensation
copolymerisation of diamines with dicarboxylic acids or by
Branched polymer condensation polymerisation of lactam.
7. (b) Bakelite is a network or cross-linked polymer as it O
contains several covalent bonds between various linear


polymer.  R  C  N  R n
H
Amide linkage
8. (c) Buna-S is a copolymer of 1, 3-butadiene and styrene.
The reaction involved is as follows : 17. (b) ¾
( NH(CH2 )6 NHCO(CH2 )4 CO ¾)n is obtained by the
nCH2 == CH ¾ CH == CH2 + nC6 H5 CH == CH2 condensation of hexamethylene diamine and adipic acid. It
1, 3 - butadiene Styrene
is a copolymer.
C6 H5 18. (d) The monomers of dacron are ethylene glycol and
½ terephthalic acid. It is manufactured by heating a mixture of
¾® ¾( CH2 ¾ CH == CH ¾ CH2 ¾ CH ¾ CH2 ¾
)n glycol and terephthalic acid at 420 to 460 K in the presence
Buna -S
of zinc acetate-antimony trioxide catalyst.
19. (d) Preparation of bakelite proceeds via electrophilic 23. (a) PHBV, (Poly 3- hydroxybutyrate -co-3-
substitution and dehydration reactions. It is shown below: hydroxyvalerate) is a copolymer of
OH OH OH OH
Chiral Chiral
CH2OH carbon COOH carbon COOH
+ (H+ , polymerisation) and
H 3-hydroxy butanoic acid 3-hydroxy pentanoic acid
+ HCHO (or b-hydroxybutyric acid) (b-hydroxyvaleric acid)
Phenol (electrophilic In both monomers, there is one chiral centre (shown by dark
substitution)
OH OH spot).
H2C
∆ (–H2O)
CH2 CH2 \ Polymer contains chiral monomers.
(dehydration) 24. (a) Nylon-2- nylon-6 is the biodegradable polymer that can
Novolac be produced from glycine (containing two carbon atoms)
20. (b) Bakelite is the phenol-formaldehyde resin. and aminocaproic acid or 6-aminohexanoic acid (containing
six carbon atoms). Reaction involved is as follows :
It is obtained by heating novolac with formaldehyde.
n H2 N ¾ CH2 ¾ COOH + nH2 N ¾ (CH2 )5 ¾ COOH
21. (b) In natural rubber, few cross-links are introduced in Glycine Amino caproic acid
between the chains, which help the polymers to retract the
original position after the force is released. é ù
22. (c) Option (c) is a monomer of neoprene, i.e chloroprene. ê ú
ê NH ¾ CH2 ¾ C ¾ NH ¾ ( CH2 )5 ¾ C ¾
¾® ¾ ú
Chemically, it is 2-chlorobutane-1, 3-diene. It is obtained by
ê ½½ ½½ ú
free radical polymerisation of chloroprene. Complete êë O O úû n
reaction is as follows : Nylon-2-nylon-6
nCH2  C  CH  CH2
Polymerisation It is a biodegradable polyamide copolymer.

25. (a) Bakelite polymer is used for making combs, electrical

Cl switches, handles of utensils and computer discs.
(2-chloro-1, 3-butadiene)
 CH2  C  CH  CH2 
Chloroprene

Cl n
Neoprene
Chemistry 89
CHAPTER 16
Chemistry in
Everyday Life
1. Drugs are chemicals of low molecular masses (N 100-500 l
Tranquilizers are a class of chemical compounds
u). These interact with macromolecular targets and used for the treatment of stress and mild or severe
produce a biological response. mental diseases. These are an essential component
of sleeping pills chlorodiazepoxide, meprobamate are
2. Chemotherapy means treatment of a disease with the mild tranquilizers and are used in relieving pain.
help of chemicals in the form of medicines. Equanil is used in controlling depression and
3. Classification of Drugs : hypertension.
These are classified as follows l
Barbiturates (Derivatives of barbituric acid), like
(a) On the basis of pharmacological effects. veronal, amytal, nembutal, luminal, seconal, valium,
serotonin, etc. are used as hypnotic, i.e. sleep
(b) On the basis of drug action.
producing agents.
(c) On the basis of chemical structure. l
Analgesics abolish or reduce pain without causing
(d) On the basis of molecular targets. impairment of consciousness, mental confusion,
4. Drug-target interaction can take place with the help of incoordination or paralysis or some other disturbances
enzymes and receptors. of nervous system. Aspirin and paracetamol belong
l
A drug travels through the human system in order to to the class of (non-narcotic or sedative or non-habit
reach the target. So, the drug should be designed in forming) analgesics. Morphine and many of its
such a way that it reaches the target without getting homologues are narcotic or habit forming analgesics.
metabolised in between. l
Chemical substance used to bring down body
l
Enzyme perform two major functions : temperature at the time of high fever are called
antipyretics, e.g. aspirin, paracetamol, etc.
(a) Hold the substrate for a chemical reaction.
l
Antibiotics are the substances produced wholly or
(b) Provide functional groups that will attack the
partially by chemical synthesis, which in low
substrate.
concentrations inhibit the growth or destroy
l
Competitive inhibitors compete with the natural microorganisms by intervening in their metabolic
substrate for their attachment on the active site of processes. Arsphenamine (salvarsan) was the first
enzymes. effective antibiotic for syphilis.
l
Some drugs, instead of binding to the enzyme’s The two types of antibiotics are :
active site, bind to a different site of enzyme, which is (a) Antibiotics which kill or inhibit a wide range of
called allosteric site. Due to this action, the shape of gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria are
the active site is changed to the extent that substrate called broad spectrum antibiotics.
does not recognise it.
(b) Antibiotics that are effective against a narrow
l
The message between two neurons and that between range of bacteria (either gram-positive or
neurons to muscles is communicated through certain gram-negative bacteria) are called narrow
chemicals in the body, known as chemical spectrum antibiotics. Penicillin G is a narrow
messengers. spectrum antibiotics while, ampicillin and
5. Therapeutic Action of Different Classes of Drugs amoxycillin are synthetic penicillins and are broad
l
Antacids some chemical substances which remove spectrum antibiotics. Chloramphenicol is one of
the excess acid in the stomach and raise the pH at the broad spectrum antibiotics and can be given
appropriate level are called antacids. orally to treat typhoid, dysentery, acute fever and
e.g. sodium hydrogen carbonate, a mixture of pneumonia. Other example is ofloxacin.
aluminium and magnesium hydroxide, etc.
l
Antiseptics are chemicals which check the growth of most familiar antioxidants are BHT (butylated hydroxy
microorganisms or kill them but are not harmful to the toluene) and BHA (butylated hydroxy anisole).
living human tissues. Some important examples are : 8. Cleansing Agents
(a) Dettol, a mixture of chloroxylenol (also known as Two types of cleansing agents are:
parachlorometaxylenol) and terpineol, is a l
Soaps are sodium or potassium salts of long chain
commonly used antiseptic for wounds, cuts, fatty acids. Toilet soap, medicated soaps, soap chips,
diseased skin surfaces, etc. etc.
(b) Bithionol is added to soaps to impart them l
Synthetic detergents some cleansing agents have all
antiseptic properties. Such soaps are used to the properties of soaps, but actually do not contain
reduce odour due to bacterial action on skin any soap, they are synthetic detergents. They can
surface. be used both in soft and hard water as they give
(c) Iodine is also used as an antiseptic in the form foam even in hard water. These are classified as
of tincture of iodine, i.e. a 2-3% solution of follows :
iodine in alcohol-water. (a) Anionic detergents are sodium salts of
l
Disinfectants are the chemicals which prevent the sulphonated long chain alcohol or hydrocarbon.
growth of microorganisms or kill them but they are e.g. sodium lauryl sulphate, sodium dodecyl
harmful for the living tissues, thus these are applied benzene sulphonate.
on inanimate objects. 0.2% solution of phenol can be (b) Cationic detergents are quarternary ammonium
used as an antiseptic while 1% solution of phenol salts of amines with acetates, chlorides or
acts as a disinfectant. bromides as anions.
l
Anti-fertility Drugs Birth control pills contain a e.g. cetyltrimethyl ammonium bromide used as
mixture of synthetic estrogen and progesterone hair conditioner.
derivatives. Norethindrone is an example of synthetic
(c) Non-ionic detergents do not contain any ion in
progesterone derivative. The estrogen derivative which
their constitution. These are esters of high
is used in combination while progesterone derivative
molecular mass alcohols. One such detergent is
is ethynylestradiol.
formed by the reaction of stearic acid with
6. Artificial sweetening agents are artificial sweeteners polyethylene glycol.
that has a great value to diabetic persons and people (d) Biodegradable detergents are those
who need to control intake of calories. Some commonly detergents which can be degraded or
used artificial sweeteners are decomposed by microorganisms present in
l
Aspartame (an artificial sweetener) is methyl ester of water. Such detergents have straight chains of
dipeptide formed from aspartic acid and hydrocarbons in the molecule. e.g. sodium lauryl
phenylalanine. It is unstable at cooking temperature sulphate, sodium dodecyl benzene sulphate.
so it is only used in cold foods and soft drinks. (e) Non-biodegradable detergents are not
l
Alitame (an artificial sweetener) is high potent degraded by microorganism. It is observed that
sweetener therefore, control of sweetness of food is bacteria cannot degrade detergents having
difficult while using it. It is more stable than aspartame. highly branched hydrocarbon chain. e.g. sodium
7. Antioxidants retard the action of oxygen on food thus, 4-(1,3,5,7-tetramethyloctyl) benzene sulphonate.
reducing the speed of decomposition by oxidation. The
Practice Questions
1. A biological response is produced by drugs when it 4. Which of the following is a function of enzyme?
interacts with (a) It holds the substrate for a chemical reaction
(a) micromolecular targets (b) It provides functional groups
(b) macromolecular targets (c) Both (a) and (b)
(c) any type of molecules (d) None of the above
(d) micromolecules as well as macromolecules 5. The site, apart from active site, at which the binding
2. Use of chemicals for therapeutic effect is known as of drug to the enzyme takes place is called
(a) physiotherapy (b) radiotherapy (a) activator site (b) regular site
(c) chemotherapy (d) endotherapy (c) allosteric site (d) All of these
3. Drugs can be classified on the basis of 6. The receptor proteins are embedded in the
(a) pharmacological effect (b) molecular target (a) DNA (b) cell membrane
(c) chemical structure (d) All of the above (c) cytoplasm (d) RNA
Chemistry 91
7. Receptors are selective in nature because it binds to 17. Which of the following is an arsenic containing
(a) all type of chemical messengers. drug?
(b) a particular type of chemical messenger (a) Penicillin (b) Equanil
(c) cell membrane (c) Salvarsan (d) Chloramphenicol
(d) All of the above 18. Among the following, the narrow spectrum antibiotic
8. Which of the following is a function of antagonist? is
(a) Mimic the natural messenger (a) ampicillin (b) amoxycillin
(b) It mimics the receptor (c) chloramphenicol (d) penicillin G
(c) It binds to receptor site and inhibits its function
19. Which of the following antibiotics is supposed to be
toxic towards certain strains of cancer cells?
9. In the stomach, histamine stimulates the secretion of (a) Vancomycin (b) Dysidazirine
pepsin and (c) Ofloxacin (d) Penicillin G
(a) sulphuric acid and hydrochloric acid 20. Which of the following is an example of synthetic
(b) sulphuric acid progesterone derivative?
(c) hydrochloric acid (a) Novestrol (b) Chloroxylenol
(d) sodium hydroxide (c) Norethindrone (d) Terpineol
10. Noradrenaline is a/an 21. Artificial sweetener which is stable under cold
(a) antidepressant (b) antihistamine conditions only is
(c) neurotransmitter (d) antacid (a) saccharin (b) sucralose
11. Drugs, iproniazid and phenelzine belong to class of (c) aspartame (d) alitame
(a) depressant drugs (b) antidepressant drugs 22. Food preservatives prevent spoilage of food due to
(c) antibiotics (d) antiseptic microbial growth. The most commonly used
12. Drug which is used in controlling depression as well preservative is
as hypertension is (a) C6 H5 COONa (b) table salt
(a) penicillin (b) tetracycline (c) vegetable oils (d) All of the above
(c) salvarsan (d) equanil 23. The product formed in the reaction given below is
13. Which of the following are the derivatives of 2C17 H 35COONa + CaCl 2 ¾® 2NaCl + ……
barbituric acid? (a) (C17 H35 COO)2 Ca; insoluble calcium stearate
(a) Veronal and amytal (b) (C17 H35 COO)2 Ca; soluble calcium stearate
(b) Nembutal and luminal (c) (C16 H34 COO)2 Ca; soluble calcium stearate
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) (C16 H34 COO)2 Ca; insoluble calcium stearate
24. Which of the following is an anionic detergent?
14. The IUPAC name of aspirin is (a) Sodium lauryl sulphate
(a) o-acetyl salicylic acid (b) phenyl salicylate (b) Cetyltrimethyl ammonium bromide
(c) acetyl salicylate (d) methyl salicylic acid (c) Glyceryl oleate
15. Which of the following drug inhibits the synthesis of (d) Sodium stearate
prostaglandins? 25. Which type of detergent is formed when stearic acid
(a) Paracetamol (b) Aspirin reacts with polyethylene glycol?
(c) Codeine (d) Valium (a) cationic detergents
16. Which of the following analgesics are called opiates? (b) non-ionic detergents
(a) Morphine (b) Codeine (c) anionic detergents
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Aspirin (d) None of the above
ANSWERS
1. (b) 2. (c) 3. (d) 4. (c) 5. (c) 6. (b) 7. (b) 8. (c) 9. (c) 10. (c)
11. (b) 12. (d) 13. (c) 14. (a) 15. (b) 16. (a) 17. (c) 18. (d) 19. (b) 20. (c)
21. (c) 22. (d) 23. (a) 24. (a) 25. (b)
Hints & Solutions

1. (b) Drugs interact with macromolecular targets to produce a 17. (c) Salvarsan is an arsenic containing drug which was first
biological response. When the biological response is used for curing syphilis.
therapeutic and useful, these chemicals are called medicines. 18. (d) Penicillin G has a narrow spectrum. Ampicillin and
4. (c) The first function of enzyme is to hold the substrate amoxycillin are synthetic modifications of penicillin. These
molecule for chemical reaction and the second function is to have broad spectrum, also chloramphenicol is a broad
provide functional groups that will attack the substrate and spectrum antibiotic.
carry out the reaction.
20. (c) Norethindrone is an example of synthetic progesterone
Thus, the correct option is (c). derivative most widely used as a antifertility drug.
7. (b) Receptors are selective in nature as they bind to a 21. (c) Aspartame is the only artificial sweetener which is stable
particular type of chemical messenger. This is because, their at lower temperature and decomposes at higher temperature.
binding sites have different shape, structure and amino acid
Therefore, its use is limited to cold foods and soft drinks.
composition.
24. (a) Sodium lauryl sulphate [(CH3 (CH2 )10 CH2 OSO3- Na + )] =
10. (c) Noradrenaline is one of the example of
neurotransmitters. It plays a major role in mood changes. If Anionic detergent
the level of noradrenaline is low for some reason, then Cetyltrimethyl ammonium bromide
+
signal-sending activity becomes low and the person suffers é CH3 ù
from depression. ê ½ ú
11. (b) Iproniazid and phenelzine are antidepressant drugs. ê CH (CH ) ¾ N ¾ CH ú Br - = Cationic detergent
ê 3 2 15
½
3
ú
These drugs inhibit the enzymes which catalyse the ê ú
CH3
degradation of noradrenaline. If the enzyme is inhibited, this ë û
important neurotransmitter is slowly metabolised and can
Glyceryl oleate [(C17 H32 COO)3 C3 H5 ]
activate its receptor for longer periods of time, thus
= Non-ionic detergent
counteracting the effect of depression.
Sodium stearate [C17 H35 COO- Na + ] = Anionic soap
PRACTICE SET 01 93
CUET (UG) Section II : Domain (Chemistry)
Practice Set 01
1. Which of the following is an example of network 8. Liquids A and B form an ideal solution in the entire
solid? composition range. At 350 K, the vapour pressures of
(a) SO2 (solid) (b) I2 pure A and pure B are 7 × 103 Pa and 12 × 103 Pa,
(c) Diamond (d) H2O (ice) respectively. The composition of the vapour in
2. How many number of atoms are present in the unit equilibrium with a solution containing 40 mole
cell shown in the figure? percent of A at this temperature is
(a) xA = 0.76; xB = 0.24 (b) xA = 0.28; xB = 0.72
(c) xA = 0.4; xB = 0.6 (d) xA = 0.37; xB = 0.63
9. 6 g of a compound exerts the same osmotic pressure
as that of 0.05 M glucose solution. Find out the
molecular formula of the compound if empirical
formula of non-electrolyte is CH2O.
(a) C2H4O2 (b) C3 H6O3
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 1 (c) C5 H10O5 (d) C4H8O4
3. Formula of nickel oxide with metal deficiency defect 10. If boiling point of water is 100°C. How much gram of
in its crystal is Ni 0.98O. The crystal contains Ni 2+ and NaCl is added in 500 g of water to increase its
Ni 3+ ions. The fraction of nickel existing as Ni 2+ ions boiling point by approx 1°C? [( K b) H O = 0.52 K kg
in the crystal is mol −1]
2
(a) 0.96 (b) 0.04

(a) 2.812 g (b) 28.12 g
(c) 0.50 (d) 0.31
(c) 14.06 g (d) 7.03 g
4. Which of the following is the ratio of packing density 11. For the electrochemical cell,
of fcc, bcc and simple cubic structures ?
Ag − | AgCl| KCl | | AgNO3 | Ag + , the overall cell reaction
(a) 0.92 : 0.70 : 1 (b) 0.70 : 0.92 : 1
is
(c) 1 : 0.92 : 0.70 (d) 1 : 0.70 : 0.92
(a) Ag+ + KCl → AgCl(s) + K+
5. Which of the following has the highest value of 1
(b) Ag + AgCl → 2Ag + Cl 2
energy gap? 2
(a) Aluminium (b) Silver (c) AgCl(s) → Ag+ + Cl −
(c) Germanium (d) Diamond (d) Ag+ + Cl – → AgCl(s)
6. Which of the following is dependent of temperature? 12. If the standard electrode potential for a cell is 2V at
(a) Molality (b) Molarity 300 K, the equilibrium constant (K) for the reaction,
(c) Mole fraction (d) Weight percentage Zn ( s) + Cu 2 + ( aq) r Zn 2+ ( aq) + Cu ( s)
7. Raoult’s law becomes a special case of Henry’s law, at 300 K is approximately
when (R = 8 JK −1 mol −1 , F = 96000 C mol −1 )
(a) K H = pi° (b) K H > pi° (a) e−160 (b) e160
(c) K H < pi° (d) K H ≥ pi° (c) e−80 (d) e320
94 CUET (UG) Section II : Domain (Chemistry)
13. KCl solution is generally used to determine the cell 21. When pressure is low, the fraction of the surface
constant because covered during adsorption follows:
(a) it is highly ionic in nature (a) Zero order kinetics (b) First order kinetics
(b) its conductivity is known accurately at various (c) Second order kinetics (d) Fractional order kinetics
concentration and different temperatures
(c) size of cations and anions are comparable 22. Activators promoting catalytic actions are generally
(d) All of the above (a) metal ions (b) non-metal ions
(c) metalloids ions (d) All of the above
14. Molar conductivities (Λ°m) at infinite dilution of
23. Which of the following factors is/are responsible for
NaCl, HCl and CH3 COONa are 126.4,425.9 and 91.0 S
the stability of lyophilic sols?
cm2 mol −1 respectively. Λ°m for CH3 COOH will be
(a) Charge of colloidal particles
(a) 425.5 S cm 2 mol −1 (b) 180.5 S cm 2 mol −1 (b) Solvation of colloidal particles
(c) 290.85 S cm 2 mol −1 (d) 390.5 S cm 2 mol −1 (c) Both (a) and (b)
d[NH3 ] (d) Activation of colloidal particles
15. Choose the correct value of for the reaction,
dt 24. An ore contains lead sulphide and zinc sulphide. If
N2 + 3H2 → 2NH3 froth floatation process is used, these can be separated
2 d[ H2] 2 d [H2] (a) by using excess of pine oil
(a) − (b)
3 dt 3 dt (b) by using collection and froth stabilisers
3 d[ N2] 3 d[ N2] (c) by adjusting proportion of oil to water or using
(c) (d) −
2 dt 2 dt depressants
(d) by using some suitable solvent in which either lead
16. When CH3 COOC2 H5 was hydrolysed in presence
sulphide or zinc sulphide is soluble.
of 0.1 M HCl, the rate constant obtained as
5.40 × 10−5 s −1 . But when 0.1 M H2 SO4 was fused for 25. Among the reactions (a) - (d), the reaction(s) that
hydrolysis, the rate constant obtained as 6.20 × 10−5 s −1 . does/do not occur in the blast furnace during the
extraction of iron is/are
From these, it can be said that
(a) H2SO4 is stronger than HCl (A) CaO + SiO2 → CaSiO3
(b) H2SO4 is weaker than HCl (B) 3Fe2O3 + CO → 2Fe3 O4 + CO2
(c) Both HCl and H2SO4 are of same strength (C) FeO + SiO2 → FeSiO3
1
(d) insufficient data to compare the strength of H2SO4 (D) FeO → Fe + O2
and HCl 2
(a) (C) and (D) (b) (A)
17. The reaction, 2N2 O5 q 2N2 O4 + O2 is (c) (A) and (D) (d) (D)
(a) bimolecular and first order
(b) unimolecular and second order 26. The correct order of melting point hydrides of group
(c) bimolecular and second order 15 elements is
(d) unimolecular and first order (a) NH3 > PH3 < AsH3 < SbH3
(b) NH3 > PH3 > AsH3 > SbH3
18. A chemical reaction was carried out at 300 K and
(c) NH3 < PH3 < AsH3 < SbH3
280 K. The rate constant were found to be k1 and k2
(d) NH3 < PH3 > AsH3 > SbH3
respectively, then
(a) k2 = 4 k1 (b) k2 = 0 . 25 k1 27. In the reaction,
(c) k2 = 2 k1 (d) k1 = 0 . 5 k1 4NH3( g ) + 5O2 ( g ) → 4NO( g ) + 6H2O( g )
19. During decomposition of an activated complex (from air)
(a) energy is always released The reaction conditions for the above reaction are
(b) energy is always absorbed (a) Pt gauge catalyst, 200 K, 4 bar
(c) energy does not change (b) Pt/Rh gauge catalyst, 500 K, 9 bar
(d) All of the above (c) Pt/Rh gauge catalyst, 500 K, 4 bar
(d) Rh gauge catalyst, 200 K, 9 bar
20. The activation energies for forward and backward
reactions of a chemical reaction are 30.5 and 28. Starch paper moistened with solution of KI turns
45.4 kJ mol −1 respectively. The reaction is blue in ozone because
(a) exothermic (a) alkali is formed
(b) endothermic (b) iodine is liberated
(c) neither exothermic nor endothermic (c) ozone reacts with litmus paper
(d) independent of temperature (d) oxygen is liberated
PRACTICE SET 01 95
29. Four successive members of the first row transition 38. Which of the following hydrocarbon is used for the
elements are listed below with their atomic world wide production of phenol?
numbers. Which one of them is expected to have the (a) Iso-butylbenzene (b) Iso-propylbenzene
highest third ionisation enthalpy? (c) Iso-pentylbenzene (d) None of these
(a) Vanadium (Z = 23)
39. PCC is the
(b) Chromium (Z = 24)
(a) complex of chromium trioxide with pyridine and HCl
(c) Iron (Z = 26)
(b) complex of chromium trioxide with ammonia and
(d) Manganese (Z = 25)
HCl
30. Dichromates are generally prepared by the fusion of (c) complex of chromium dioxide with pyridine and HCl
chromite ore with (d) complex of chromium dioxide with ammonia and
(a) sodium carbonate HCl
(b) potassium carbonate 40. Identify the example in which nucleophilic
(c) Both (a) and (b) addition followed by elimination reaction occur
(d) Neither (a) nor (b) respectively in the carbonyl compound.
31. Which lanthanoid does not occur naturally? (a) Addition of Grignard reagent
(a) Eu (b) Pm (b) Addition of sodium sulphide
(c) Gd (d) Lu (c) Addition of HCN
(d) Addition of NH3
32. In the complex ions, [Fe(C2 O4 )3 ]3– and [Co(en)3 ]3+ the
coordination number of Fe and Co is 6. Why? 41. Select the acid(s) which cannot be prepared by
(a) Because C2O42– and ethane-1,2-diamine are bidentate Grignard reagent?
ligands (a) Acetic acid
(b) Because C2O42– and ethane-1,2-diamine are (b) Succinic acid
ambidentate ligands (c) Formic acid
(c) Because C2O42– and ethane-1,2-diamine are (d) All of these
polydentate ligands
42. Ethylamine (C2H5HN2 ) can be obtained from
N-ethylphthalimide on treatment with
33. In a coordination entity of the type [PtCl2 (en)2 ]2 + , (a) NaBH4 (b) NH2NH2
optical activity is shown by (c) H2O (d) CaH2
(a) only cis-isomer
43. Which of the following is correct preparation of
(b) only trans-isomer
nitrous acid?
(c) both cis- and trans-isomers
(a) Reaction of conc. HNO3 and conc. H2SO4
(b) Reaction of conc. HCl and conc. H2SO4
34. Among the following metal carbonyls, the C—O bond (c) Reaction of sodium nitrite with hydrochloric acid
order is lowest in (d) Reaction with hydrochloric acid and nitric acid
(a) [Mn(CO)6 ]+ (b) [Fe(CO)6 ]
44. Consider the following reaction
(c) [Cr(CO)6 ] (d) [V(CO)6 ]−
+ –
35. Select the product formed when ethyl alcohol is N2Cl
treated with sodium or potassium iodide in the
presence of 95% phosphoric acid. NaNO2
+ HBF4 Cu, ∆ 'X' + N2 + NaBF4
(a) Methyl iodide (b) Ethyl iodide
(c) Ethane (d) Propyl bromide
Here, ‘X’ is
36. The allylic and benzylic halides follow NO2
(a) SN 1 mechanism
(b) SN 2 mechanism
(a) (b)
(c) Both SN 1 and SN 2 mechanism
(d) None of the above +
NH2 N2BF4–
37. Among the following, the suitable reagent for Wurtz
reaction is
(a) Na/alcohol (b) Na/ether (c) (d)
(c) Zn/ether (d) Zn/alcohol
45. Which of the following act as epimeric pair? 48. NOH

O
==
(a) Glucose and fructose
H2SO4 540K
(b) Fructose and mannose X — HN—(CH2)5 — C—
(c) Glucose and mannose n
(d) Glucose and sucrose
In the above reaction sequence, X is
46. Which one of the following is the correct representation (a) cyclohexanone
of tripeptide, i.e. (alanine-glycine- alanine)? (b) caprolactam
H (c) hexamethylene di-isocyanate
N (d) HO(CH2 )6 NH2
(a) H2N N
H 49. Which of the following compounds is not an antacid?
O CH3
(a) Aluminium hydroxide (b) Cimetidine
O (c) Phenelzine (d) Ranitidine
H
N
(b) H2N N COOH 50 Which of the following structures are the
H components of an antiseptic?
O CH3
OH CH3
CH3 O
H
N
(c) H2N N COOH
H
O CH3 H3C CH3
O O Cl H3C OH
H CH3
(d) H2N N
N OH I II
H
CH3 O CH3 SO2 NH2
NHNH2
47. The repeated reaction between two different
bi-functional or tri-functional monomeric units
results in the formation of
(a) addition polymers IV
(b) copolymers
NH2
III
(c) homopolymers
(d) condensation polymers (a) I and III (b) I and II
(c) II and IV (d) II and III
ANSWERS
1. (c) 2. (c) 3. (a) 4. (c) 5. (d) 6. (b) 7. (a) 8. (b) 9. (d) 10. (b)
11. (c) 12. (b) 13. (b) 14. (d) 15. (a) 16. (d) 17. (a) 18. (b) 19. (a) 20. (a)
21. (b) 22. (a) 23. (c) 24. (c) 25. (a) 26. (a) 27. (b) 28. (d) 29. (d) 30. (c)
31. (b) 32. (a) 33. (a) 34. (b) 35. (b) 36. (a) 37. (b) 38. (b) 39. (a) 40. (d)
41. (c) 42. (b) 43. (c) 44. (b) 45. (c) 46. (d) 47. (d) 48. (b) 49. (c) 50. (b)
PRACTICE SET 02 97
CUET (UG) Section II : Domain (Chemistry)
Practice Set 02
1. Which primitive unit cell has unequal edge lengths 9. The electrode potentials for
( a ≠ b ≠ c) and all axial angles different from 90°? Cu 2 + ( aq) + e− → Cu + ( aq) and
(a) Hexagonal (b) Monoclinic Cu + ( aq) + e− → Cu ( s) are +0. 15V and +0.50V
(c) Tetragonal (d) Triclinic respectively. The value of E° 2 + will be
Cu / Cu
2. What will come in place of ‘x ’ if the total number of (a) 0.150 V (b) 0.500 (c) 0.325 V (d) 0. 650 V
atoms present in an unit cell is 4?
x 10. Following limiting molar conductivities are given as :
d= 3
a NA λ °m (H 2 SO 4 ) = x S cm 2mol −1
(a) M (b) 4M (c) Z /M (d) Z + M
λ °m (K = y S cm 2mol −1
2 SO 4 )
3. Which one is not a ferroelectric compound?
λ °m (CH = z S cm 2mol −1
(a) KH2PO4 (b) K4[Fe(CN)6 ] 2 COOK)
(c) Rochelle salt (d) BaTiO3 λ °m (in S cm2 mol −1 ) for CH3 COOH will be
4. What is the composition of gases in the tanks used (a) x − y + 2 z (b) x + y − z
(x − y)
by the scuba divers? (c) x − y + z (d) +z
2
(a) 11.7% helium, 32.1% nitrogen, 56.2% oxygen
(b) 11.7% helium, 56.2% nitrogen, 32.1% oxygen 11. Galvanisation is
(c) 56.2% helium, 11.7% nitrogen, 32.1% oxygen (a) zinc plating on aluminium sheet
(d) 56.2% helium, 32.1% nitrogen, 11.7% oxygen (b) zinc plating on iron sheet
(c) iron plating on zinc sheet
5. Among the following, the azeotropic mixture is
(d) aluminium plating on zinc sheet
(a) CCl4 + CHCl3
(b) C6H14 + C7H16 12. In acidic medium, the rate of reaction between
(c) C2H5 Br + C2H5Cl [BrO3 ]− and Br − ions is given as
(d) chlorobenzene + bromobenzene d[BrO3 ]–
− = k[BrO−3 ][Br − ][H+ ]2
6. How many grams of methyl alcohol should be added
dt
It means that,
to 10 L tank of water to prevent its freezing at 268 K? (a) the change in pH of the solution will not affect the
(a) 880.07 g (b) 899.04 g rate of reaction
(c) 886.02 g (d) 868.06 g (b) rate constant of the reaction is 2s −1
7. 1.2% NaCl solution is isotonic with 7.2% glucose (c) the reaction rate increases by 4 times on doubling
solution. What will be the van’t Hoff factor ‘i’ for the concentration of H+ ions
NaCl? (d) All of the above
(a) 0.5 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 6 13. N2 is obtained by the decomposition of benzene
8. For the cell, Cu | Cu 2+ +
| | Ag | Ag , °
Ecell = +0.46 V diazonium chloride at constant temperature. It is a
° first-order reaction and the various volumes
If concentration of Cu 2+ ions is doubled, then Ecell obtained at different time intervals are as,
will be
(a) halved (b) doubled Time (min) 0 20 50 70 ∞
(c) four times (d) remains the same
N2 (mL) 0 10 25 32 162
The rate constant of the reaction is 19. Sulphide ores are common for which of the following
−2
(a) 3. 54 × 10 min −1
(b) 3. 2 × 10 −3
min −1 metals.
−3 −1 −5 −1 (a) Ag, Cu and Pb
(c) 3. 89 × 10 min (d) 3. 1 × 10 min
(b) Ag, Cu and Sn
14. For a reaction, activation energy Ea = 0 and the rate (c) Ag, Mg and Pb
constant at 200K is 1 . 6 × 106 s −1. The rate constant (d) Al, Cu and Pb
at 400 K will be
20. The main requirements for vapour phase refining are
NEET (Odisha) 2019
(a) metal should form volatile compound with the
[Given that, gas constant R = 8.314 JK −1 mol −1] suitable reagent
(a) 3.2 × 104 s −1 (b) 1.6 × 106 s −1 (b) metal should be highly reactive
(c) 1.6 × 103 s −1 (d) 3.2 × 106 s −1 (c) metal should form stable compound with suitable
reagent
15. Which of the following oxide of nitrogen acts as
(d) volatile compound should not be easily decomposable
catalyst in the lead chamber process?
to give back pure metal
(a) N 2O5 (b) NO
(c) NO 2 (d) N 2O 4 21. Ionic radii (Å) of Sb 3+ , Bi 3+ and As 3+ follow the order
(a) Sb3 + > Bi3 + > As3 +
16. The figure given below shows the structure of ionic (b) Bi3 + > As3 + > Sb3 +
micelle, in this (c) Bi3 + > Sb3 + > As3 +
(d) As3 + > Sb3 + > Bi3 +
COO
–
CO –
O
–
OO
C – 22. In cyclo trimetaphosphate ion, the number of
COO O-atoms, P—O—P bonds and unit negative charges
–
OOC – respectively are
COO
(a) 3, 6, 3 (b) 9, 6, 3
(c) 6, 6, 3 (d) 9, 3, 3
– OC
CO
O
–
23. When conc. H2 SO4 comes in contact with sugar, it

O
– C
C
OO
OO
becomes black due to

–
(a) hydration (b) decolourisation

(a) centre core of micelle is hydrophilic in nature
(c) dehydration (d) hydrolysis
(b) surface of micelle is hydrophobic in nature
(c) surface of micelle is hydrophilic in nature 24. A gas X is used in filling balloons for meteorological
(d) All of the above observations. It is also used in gas-cooled nuclear
reactors. Identify X.
17. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
(a) Helium (b) Neon
(a) Adsorption always led to a decrease in enthalpy of
(c) Argon (d) Krypton
the system
(b) Adsorption arises due to unbalanced or residual 25. Which one of the following ions exhibits d-d
attractive force of atoms or molecule or the surface transition and paramagnetism as well?
(c) Adsorption increases with rises in temperature (a) MnO −4 (b) Cr 2O72−
(d) Adsorption decreases with increase of surface area (c) CrO 2−
4 (d) MnO 2−4
18. The extraction and isolation of metals from ores 26. Which of the following is isostructural with KMnO4 ?
involve the following steps: (a) K 2SO4 (b) K 2MnO4
I. Concentration of the ore. (c) KClO4 (d) None of these
II. Refining of metals. 27. Catalyst used in the oxidation of SO2 in the
III. Reduction of concentrated ore. manufacture of H2 SO4 is
IV. Grinding of ore. (a) CuCl 2 (b) V2O5
The option with correct sequence from the above (c) MnO2 (d) None of these
steps will be 28. According to IUPAC nomenclature sodium
(a) I → II → III → IV nitroprusside is named as
(b) IV → II → III → I (a) sodium pentacyanonitrosyl ferrate (II)
(c) IV→ III → II → I (b) sodium pentacyanonitrosyl ferrate (III)
(d) IV → I → III → II (c) sodium nitroferricyanide
(d) sodium nitroferrocyanide
PRACTICE SET 02 99
29. Correct increasing order for the wavelengths of 35. The reaction,
absorption in the visible region for the complexes of CH 3
CO3+ is  − +
(a) [Co(en)3 ]3 + , [Co(NH3 )6 ]3 + , [Co(H2O)6 ]3 + CH 3  C  ONa + CH 3CH2Cl →
− NaCl
(b) [Co(H2O)6 ]3 + , [Co(en)3 ]3 + , [Co(NH3 )6 ]3 + 
(c) [Co(H2O)6 ]3 + , [Co(NH3 )6 ]3 + , [Co(en)3 ]3 + CH 3
(d) [Co(NH3 )6 ]3 + , [Co(en)3 ]3 + , [Co(H2O)6 ]3 + CH 3

30. The major product in the following conversion is
CH 3  C  O  CH2  CH 3
HBr (excess) 
CH3O CH CH CH3 Heat ? is called CH 3
(a) Williamson synthesis
(b) Williamson continuous etsterification process
(a) CH3O CH CH2 CH3 (c) Etard reaction
(d) Gattermann-Koch reaction
Br
36. Consider the following :
(b) HO CH2 CH CH3 HgSO
Ethyne + H2 O →
4
H 2SO 4
Br
Product formed in the given reaction is
(a) benzaldehyde (b) acetaldehyde
(c) CH3O CH2 CH CH3
(c) ethanoic acid (d) ethanoyl chloride
Br 37. Which of the following compounds do not undergo
(d) HO CH CH2 CH3 aldol condensation?
CH3

Br (a) CH3 C CHO (b) CH3 CHO

31. Correct reactivity order of the given compounds for CH3
reaction with alcoholic KOH is
O
Cl

(c) CH3  C CH3 (d) CH3 CH2CHO
Br
Br 38. Which of the following reagents is/are used for the
Br conversion of ethanoic acid to ethanoic anhydride?
(A) (B) (C) (D) (a) SOCl 2 , ∆ (b) PCl 3 , ∆
(a) A > B > C > D (b) A > C > B > D (c) P2O5 , ∆ (d) All of these
(c) D > B > C > A (d) A > D > B > C
39. Amines are reactive due to
32. Which of the following compound is used as an (a) difference in electronegativity between nitrogen and
organic insecticide? hydrogen atoms.
(a) Chloroform (b) Freon-12 (b) the presence of unshared pair of electrons over the ‘N’
(c) Carbon tetrachloride (d) DDT atom.
OH (c) Both (a) and (b)
 (d) None of the above
33. CH3 CH2  C  CH3 cannot be prepared by
40. An amine ( X ) react with nitrous acid at low
 temperatures to form stable diazonium salts.
Ph
The structure of amine ( X ) is
(a) CH3CH2COCH3 + PhMgX
(a) CH3 NH 2 (b) CH3CH2NH2
(b) PhCOCH3 + CH3CH2MgX
(c) CH3 (CH2)NH2 (d) C6H5  NH2
(c) PhCOCH2CH3 + CH3MgX
(d) HCHO + PhCH(CH3 ) CH2MgX 41. Coupling reaction is an example of
(a) nucleophilic addition reaction.
34. Alcohol that will give most stable carbocation during
(b) nucleophilic substitution reaction.
dehydration is
(c) electrophilic substitution reaction.
(a) butan-1-ol (b) 2-methylpropan-1-ol
(d) electrophilic addition reaction.
(c) 2-methylpropan-2-ol (d) butan-2-ol
42. What does ‘D’ and (+) signifies in D-(+)-glucose? 45. The hormone responsible for preparing the uterus
(a) D represents conformation and (+) represents the for implantation of fertilised egg is
laevorotatory nature of molecule (a) estroadiol (b) testosterone
(b) D represents configuration and (+) represents the (c) glucocorticoid (d) progesterone
dextrorotatory nature of molecule
46. Preparation of bakelite proceeds via reactions
(c) D represents conformation and (+) represents the
dextrorotatory nature of molecule (a) electrophilic addition and dehydration
(d) D represents configuration and (+) represents the (b) condensation and elimination
laevorotatory nature of molecule (c) nucleophilic addition and dehydration
(d) electrophilic substitution and dehydration
43. Identify the α -D -( − ) - fructofuranose and
β -D - ( − ) - fructofuranose from the following structure. 47. Poly-β-hydroxybutyrate-Co-β-hydroxyvalerate
(PHBV) is a copolymer of ........
1 2 2 1
HOH2C—C—OH HO—C—CH2OH (a) 3-hydroxybutanoic acid and 2-hydroxypentanoic acid
(b) 2-hydroxybutanoic acid and 3-hydroxypentanoic acid
HO 3 H O HO 3 H O (c) 3-hydroxybutanoic acid and 4-hydroxypentanoic acid
H 4 OH H 4 OH (d) 3-hydroxybutanoic acid and 3-hydroxypentanoic acid
H 5 H 5
6 6
48. Which of the following polymer can be formed by
CH2OH CH2OH using the following monomer unit?
I II H
6 1 6
HOH2C O CH2OH O O
HOH2C OH N
H 2C C
5 2 5 2
H HO H HO
H 4 3 OH H 4 3 CH2OH H 2C CH2
1
OH H OH H H 2C CH2
III IV
(a) Nylon-6, 6 (b) Nylon-2-nylon-6
Choose the correct option. (c) Melamine polymer (d) Nylon-6
α-D-(–)-fructofuranose β-D-(–)-fructofuranose
49. Food preservatives prevent spoilage of food due to
(a) I and II III and IV
microbial growth. The most commonly used
(b) I and III II and IV
preservative is
(c) II and III I and IV
(a) C6H5 COONa (b) table salt
(d) II and IV I and III
(c) vegetable oils (d) All of these
44. Which structure(s) of proteins remain intact during
50. Which of the following is an anionic detergent?
denaturation process?
(a) Sodium lauryl sulphate
(a) Both secondary and tertiary structures
(b) Primary structure only (b) Cetyltrimethyl ammonium bromide
(c) Secondary structure only (c) Glyceryl oleate
(d) Tertiary structure only (d) Sodium stearate
ANSWERS
1. (d) 2. (b) 3. (b) 4. (b) 5. (a) 6. (c) 7. (c) 8. (d) 9. (c) 10. (d)
11. (b) 12. (c) 13. (b) 14. (b) 15. (b) 16. (c) 17. (d) 18. (d) 19. (a) 20. (a)
21. (c) 22. (d) 23. (c) 24. (a) 25. (d) 26. (c) 27. (b) 28. (b) 29. (a) 30. (d)
31. (b) 32. (d) 33. (d) 34. (c) 35. (a) 36. (b) 37. (a) 38. (c) 39. (c) 40. (d)
41. (c) 42. (b) 43. (b) 44. (b) 45. (d) 46. (d) 47. (a) 48. (d) 49. (d) 50. (a)
Mathematics 3
CHAPTER 01
Relations
and Functions
1. Relation 5. Equivalence Classes
Let A be a non-empty set and R Í A ´ A. Then, R is called a Consider an arbitrary equivalence relation R on an arbitrary
relation on A. If (a, b) Î R, then we say that a is related to b set X, R divides X into mutually disjoint subsets A i, called
and we write aRb and if (a, b) Ï R, then we write a R b. partitions or subdivisions of X, satisfying
2. Domain, Range and Codomain (i) For each i all elements of A i are related to each other
of a Relation i.e. A i È A j = X , i ¹ j .
Let R be a relation from set A to set B, such that (ii) no element of A i is related to any element of A j ,
R = {(a, b): a Î A and b Î R}. The set of all first and second i.e. A i Ç A j = f, for i ¹ j .
elements of the ordered pairs in R is called the domain and
range respectively, i.e. Domain (R ) = { a :(a, b) Î R} and (iii) È A i = X and Ai Ç A j = f, i ¹ j .
Range (R ) = { b :(a, b) Î R}. The set B is called the codomain Here, subset A i are also called equivalence classes.
of relation R.
6. Function
3. Types of Relations Let A and B be two non-empty sets. Then, a rule f from A to
(i) Empty (void) Relation A relation R on a set A is called B which associates each element x Î A, to a unique element
empty relation, if no element of A is related to any element of f (x ) Î B is called a function or mapping from A to B and
of A, i.e. R = f Ì A ´ A . we write f : A ® B. Here, element of A is called the domain
(ii) Universal Relation A relation R on a set A is called of f i.e. dom (f ) = A and element of B is called the codomain
universal relation, if each element of A is related to every of f. Also, { f (x ) : x Î A} Í B is called the range of f.
element of A, i.e. R = A ´ A. Note Every function is a relation but every relation is not a
(iii) Identity Relation A relation R on a set A is called an identity function.
relation, if each element of A is related to itself only. It is
denoted by IA . 7. Types of Functions
i.e. IA = R = {(a, a): a Î A} (i) One-one (Injective) Function A function f : A ® B is said
(iv) Reflexive Relation A relation R defined on set A is said to be one-one, if distinct element of A have distinct images
to be reflexive, if (x, x ) Î R, " x Î A i.e. x Rx," x Î A . in B, i.e. f (x1 ) = f (x 2 ) Þ x1 = x 2 or x1 ¹ x 2 Þ f (x1 ) ¹ f (x 2 )
(v) Symmetric Relation A relation R defined on set A is said to where, x1, x 2 Î A.
be symmetric, if (x, y ) Î R Þ( y, x ) Î R, " x, y Î A i.e. x R y Þ (ii) Many-one Function A function f : A ® B is said to be
yRx, " x, y Î A . many-one, if two or more than two elements in A have the
(vi) Transitive Relation A relation R defined on set A is said to same image in B.
be transitive, if (x, y ) Î R and ( y, z ) Î R Þ (x, z ) Î R, (iii) Onto (Surjective) Function A function f : A ® B is said to
" x, y, z Î A be onto or surjective, if every element in B have atleast one
i.e. x R y and yR z Þ x R z," x, y, z Î A. pre-image in A,
i.e. if for each y Î B, there exists an element x Î A, such that
4. Equivalence Relation
f (x ) = y.
A relation R on a set A is called an equivalence relation, if it
(iv) Into Function A function f : A ® B is said to be into, if
is reflexive, symmetric and transitive.
atleast one element of B do not have a pre-image in A .
(v) One-one and Onto (Bijective) Function A function Then, function g is called the inverse of f and it is denoted
f : X ® Y is said to be bijective, if f is both one-one and by f -1. Also, if f is invertible, then f must be one-one and
onto. onto and vice-versa.
8. Composition of Functions Note ■ If f : X ® Y , g : Y ® Z and h : Z ® S are three

functions, then ho(gof ) = (hog)of.
Let f : A ® B and g : B ® C be any two functions, then the
■ Let f : X ® Y and g : Y ® Z be two invertible
composition of f and g denoted by the function gof and
defined as gof : A ® C, such that functions. Then, gof is also invertible with
(gof ) (x ) = g { f (x )}, " x Î A. (gof ) -1 = f -1og - 1.
f B g
A
f(x)
C 9. Binary Operations
x g [f(x)]
A binary operation * on a set X is a function * : X ´ X ® X.
gof We denote * (a, b) by a * b,
where a, b Î X.
Note ■ In general, gof ¹ fog .
■ In general, if gof is one-one, then f is one-one and if go Commutative Binary Operation
f is onto, then g is onto. A binary operation * on a set X is said to be commutative, if
a * b = b * a, " a, b Î X.
9. Invertible Function Associative Binary Operation
A function f : X ® Y is defined to be invertible, if there exists A binary operation * on set X is said to be associative,
a function g : Y ® X, such that gof = IX and fog = IY . if a * (b * c ) = (a * b)* c , " a, b, c Î X.
Practice Questions
1. A relation R from A to B is an arbitrary subset of 7. The relation R in the set of natural numbers N defined as
(a) A ´ B (b) B ´ A (c) A ´ A (d) B ´ B R = {(x, y) : y = x + 5and x < 4} is
(a) not reflexive (b) symmetric
2. If (a, b) ÎR, where R is a relation, then (c) transitive (d) an equivalence relation
(a) (a, b) is not an ordered pair
(b) a = b only 8. Let R be the relation in the set Z of all integers defined by
(c) ab = 1 only R = {( x, y ) : x - y is an integer}. Then R is
(d) a is related to b under the relation R (a) reflexive (b) symmetric
(c) transitive (d) an equivalence relation
3. A relation R in a set A is said to be an equivalence relation, if R
is 9. If R is the relation defined in the set {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6} as
(a) symmetric only (b) reflexive only R = {(a, b ) : b = a + 1}, then R is
(c) transitive only (d) All of these (a) reflexive (b) symmetric
(c) transitive (d) None of these
4. A1 coincides with the set of all integers in Z which are related
to ...A..., A2 coincides with the set of all integers which are 10. The relation R in the set {1, 2, 3} given by R = {(1, 2), (2, 1)} is
related to ...B... and A3 coincides with the set of all integers in (a) reflexive (b) symmetric
Z which are related to ...C... . Here, A, B and C are respectively (c) transitive (d) reflexive and symmetric
(a) one, zero, two (b) zero, one, two
(c) two, one, zero (d) one, two, zero 11. If A = {x Î Z : 0 £ x £ 12} and R is the relation in A given by
R = {(a, b): a - b is a multiple of 4}. Then, the set of all
5. The relation R defined in the set A = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7} by R = elements related to 1 is
{(a, b) : both a and b are either odd or even}. Then, R is (a) {1, 4, 6} (b) {1, 5, 9}
(a) symmetric (b) transitive (c) {2, 4, 6} (d) {1, 3, 9}
(c) an equivalence relation (d) reflexive
12. If A = {x Î Z : 0 £ x £ 12} and R is the relation in A given by R =
6. The relation R in the set {1, 2, 3, ..., 13, 14} defined as
{(a, b ) : a = b}. Then, the set of all elements related to 1 is
R = {(x, y) : 3 x - y = 0} is
(a) reflexive (b) transitive (a) {1, 2} (b) {2, 3}
(c) symmetric (d) None of these (c) {1} (d) {2}
Mathematics 5
13. Let R be the relation in the set {1, 2, 3, 4} given by R = {(1, 2), 23. The function f : R ® R defined by f ( x) = x2 + x is
(2, 2), (1, 1), (4, 4), (1, 3), (3, 3), (3, 2)}. Choose the correct
(a) one-one (b) onto
answer.
(c) many-one (d) None of these
(a) R is reflexive and symmetric but not transitive
(b) R is reflexive and transitive but not symmetric 24. The number of all one-one functions from set A = {1, 2, 3} to
(c) R is symmetric and transitive but not reflexive itself is
(d) R is an equivalence relation (a) 2 (b) 6 (c) 3 (d) 1
14. Let R be the relation in the set N given by 25. The domain of the function f :R ®R defined by
R = {(a, b ) : a = b - 2, b > 6}. Choose the correct answer.
f ( x) = x2 - 3 x + 2 is
(a) (2, 4) Î R (b) (3, 8) Î R
(c) (6, 8) Î R (d) (8, 7) Î R (a) (- ¥ ,1] (b) [2, ¥)
(c) (- ¥, 1] È [2, ¥) (d) [1, 2]
15. Let R be the relation on the set R of real numbers defined by R
= {(a, b ) / 1 + ab > 0}. Then, R is 26. Let A = {1, 2, 3, 4} and B = = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6} are two sets and
(a) reflexive, symmetric but not transitive function f : A ® B is defined by f ( x ) = x + 2 " x Î A. Then,
(b) reflexive, transitive but not symmetric the function f is
(c) transitive but not symmetric and reflexive (a) bijective (b) onto
(d) an equivalence relation (c) one-one (d) many-one
16. Let A = {1, 2, 3}. Then, number of relations containing (1, 2) 27. Let n( A ) = 4 and n(B ) = 6. Then, the number of one-one
and (1, 3), which are reflexive and symmetric but not functions from A to B is
transitive, is (a) 24 (b) 60 (c) 120 (d) 360
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
28. If f , g : R ® R defined as
17. The function f : R ® R given by f ( x) = 2 x is
ì x, if x is rational ì 0, if x is rational
(a) injective (b) surjective (c) many-one (d) bijective f ( x) = í and g ( x ) = í .
î 0, if x is irrational î x, if x is irrational
18. The function f : N ® N given by Then, f - g is
ì x + 1, if x is odd (a) one-one (b) neither one-one nor onto
f ( x) = í is
î x - 1, if x is even (c) many-one (d) one-one and onto
(a) injective (b) surjective 29. The function f : X ® Y defined by f ( x) = sin x is one-one but
(c) bijective (d) many-one not onto, if X and Y respectively equal to
19. Let f : R ® R be defined as f ( x) = x . 4 (a) R and R (b) [ 0, p ] and [ 0, 1]
é pù é p pù
Choose the correct option. (c) ê 0, ú and [ -1 ,1] (d) ê - , ú and [ -1 , 1]
ë 2û ë 2 2û
(a) f is one-one onto
(b) f is many-one onto 30. Let A = {1, 2, 3, L, n} and B = {a, b}. Then, the number of
(c) f is one-one but not onto surjections from A into B isA into B is
(d) f is neither one-one nor onto (a) n P2 (b) 2n - 2
20. Let A = {1, 2, 3} and B = {4, 5, 6, 7} and let (c) 2n - 1 (d) None of these
f = {(1, 4), (2, 5), (3, 6)} be a function from A to B. Then, f is 31. Which of the following functions from Z into Z are bijective?
(a) one-one (b) onto (c) many-one (d) bijective (a) f (x ) = x 3 (b) f (x ) = x + 2
21. The greatest integer function f : R ® R, given by f ( x) = [ x] is (c) f (x ) = 2x + 1 (d) f (x ) = x 2 + 1
(a) one-one (b) onto 32. The function f : R ® R defined by f ( x) = 2 x + sin x, x Î R is

(c) both one-one and onto (d) neither one-one nor onto (a) one-one (b) onto
22. Let A = R - {3} and B = R - {1}. Consider the function (c) many-one (d) bijective
æ x - 2ö 33. If f : A ® B and g : B ® C be two functions, then the
f : A ® B defined by f ( x ) = ç ÷. Then, f is
è x - 3ø composition of functions f and g is given by
(a) injective (b) bijective (a) gof (x ) = g (f (x )) (b) gof (x ) = g (x )f (x )
(c) surjective (d) many-one (c) fog (x ) = g (f (x )) (d) None of these
3x + 4
34. If f : B ® A is defined by f ( x) = and g : A ® B is 37. A function f : X ® Y is said to be invertible, if there exists a
5x - 7
function g : Y ® X such that
7x + 4 ì3 ì7
defined by g ( x ) = , where A = R - í üý and B = R - í üý
5x - 3 î 5þ î 5þ (a) gof = I X and fog = I X (b) gof = IY and fog = IY
and I A is an identity function on A and I B is identity function (c) gof = IY and fog = I X (d) gof = I X and fog = IY
on B, then
38. If Y = {n2 : n Î N } Ì N and f : N ® Y is a function defined by
(a) fog = I A and gof = IA
f (n) = n2 , then the inverse of f is
(b) fog = I A and gof = IB
(c) fog = I B and gof = IB (a) f -1 (y ) = y (b) f -1 (y ) = - y
y
(d) fog = I B and gof = IA (c) f -1 (y ) = y (d) f -1 (y ) =
2
35. If the function gof is defined and is one-one, then
39. Let f : R - ìí- üý ® R be a function defined as f ( x) =
4 4x
.
(a) neither f nor g is one-one î 3þ 3x + 4
The inverse of f is the map g : range f ® R - ìí- üý given by
(b) f and g both are necessarily one-one 4
(c) g must be one-one î 3þ
(d) None of the above 3y 4y
(a) g (y ) = (b) g (y ) =
3 - 4y 4 - 3y
36. Let X = {1, 2, 3} and Y = {a, b, c } and f : X ® Y be one-one
and onto function given by f (1) = a, f (2) = b, f (3) = c . Then, the 4y 3y
(c) g (y ) = (d) g (y ) =
function g : Y ® X such that fog = I Y and gof = I X is given by 3 - 4y 4 - 3y
(a) g (a) = 2, g (b ) = 1, g (c ) =3 40. If f ( x) = 8 x3 and g ( x) = x1 /3 , then
(b) g (a) = 1, g (b ) = 2, g (c ) =3
(c) g (a) = 1, g (b ) = 3, g (c ) =2 (a) fog (x ) = 2x (b) fog = 8x
1 /3
(d) g (a) = 3, g (b ) = 2, g (c ) =1 (c) gof (x ) = 2x (d) gof (x ) = x 1 /3
Solutions
1. (a) Mathematically a relation R from A 6. (d) Let A = {1, 2 , 3, 4 ,……,12 , 13, 14} 7. (a) Here,
to B is an arbitrary subset of A ´ B. Then, we have R = {( x, y) : y = x + 5, x < 4 and x ÎN}
2. (d) If ( a, b) ÎR, we say that a is related R = {( x,y): 3x - y = 0, x, y Î A} = {( x, x + 5), x < 4 and x ÎN}
to b under the relation R and we write as For reflexive relation ( x, x) ÎR, " x Î A = {(1, 6),(2 , 7), (3, 8)}
a R b. In general, ( a, b) ÎR, we do not
\ If y = x, 3x - y = 0 For reflexive ( x, x) ÎR, " x ÎN.
bother whether there is a recognisable
connection or link between a and b. Þ 2 x = 0, Now, if y = x, x ¹ x + 5
which is not possible for any x Î A. Þ( x, x) ÏR for example (1, 1) ÏR.
3. (d) A relation R in a set A is said to be an
equivalence relation, if R is reflexive, Þ ( x, x) ÏR, R is not reflexive. So, R is not reflexive.
symmetric and transitive. Given, R = {( x,y) : 3x - y = 0} For symmetrical ( x,y) ÎR
4. (b) A 1 coincides with the set of all For symmetric relation ( x, y) ÎR Þ (y , x) ÎR.
integers in Z which are related to zero, Þ (y , x) ÎR Now, if y = x + 5, then x ¹ y + 5
A2 coincides with the set of all integers If ( x, y) ÎR For example (1, 6) ÎR but (6 , 1) ÏR.
which are related to 1 and A3 coincides
Þ 3x - y = 0, then 3y - x ¹ 0 So, R is not symmetric.
with the set of all integers in Z which are
related to 2. Þ (y , x) ÏR, so R is not symmetric. For transitivity, ( x,y) ÎR, (y , z) ÎR
For example, Þ( x, z) ÎR.
5. (c) Given, any element a in A, both a If x = 1, y = 3, 3 ´ 1 - 3 = 0 Since, here (1, 6) ÎR and there is no
and a must be either odd or even, so that
but 3 ´ 3 - 1 = 9 - 1 = 8 ¹ 0 order pair in R which has 6 as the first
( a, a) ÎR. Further, ( a, b) ÎR Þboth a and element same in the case for (2 , 7) and
b must be either odd or even For transitive, if ( x,y) ÎR
(3, 8). So, R is transitive.
Þ 3x - y = 0, (y , z) ÎR
Þ( b , a) ÎR. 8. (d) Here, R = {( x, y) : x - y is an
Þ 3y - z = 0, then 3x - z ¹ 0.
Similarly, ( a, b) ÎR and ( b , c) ÎR Þ all integer} is a relation in the set of
So, R is not transitive. integers.
elements a, b , c must be either even or
odd simultaneously Þ( a, c) ÎR. For example, when x = 1,y = 3, z = 9, For reflexivity, put y = x, x - x = 0
then which is an integer for all x Î Z.
Hence, R is an equivalence relation. 3 ´ 1 - 3 = 0,3 ´ 3 - 9 = 0, 3 ´ 1 - 9 ¹ 0
Mathematics 7
So, R is reflexive in Z. Þ ( a - b) and ( b - c) are multiples Now, consider (6 , 8). We have, 8 > 6
For symmetry, let ( x,y) ÎR, then ( x - y) of 4. and also 6 = 8 - 2
is an integer l (say) Now, since a - c = ( a - b) + ( b - c) Therefore, (6 , 8) ÎR.
and also y - x = -l.(Q l Î Z Þ - l Î Z) \ a - c is also a multiple of 4.
15. (a) Let a ÎR be any element. Then,
\ y - x is an integer Þ|a - c| is a multiple of 4.
Þ (y , x) ÎR. Þ( a, c) ÎR 1 + a × a = 1 + a2 > 0
So, R is symmetric. Therefore, R is transitive. (Q a 2 ³ 0, " a ÎR)
For transitivity, let ( x,y) ÎR and Hence, R is an equivalence relation Þ ( a, a) ÎR
(y , z) ÎR, so x - y = integer and (which is already given). Hence, R is reflexive.
y - z = integers, then x - z is also an Þ The set of elements related to 1 is Let ( a, b) ÎR. Then,
integer. {1, 5, 9}, 1 + ab > 0
\ ( x, z) ÎR. since |1 - 1|= 0 is multiple of 4 Þ 1 + ba > 0
So, R is transitive. |5 - 1|= 4 is a multiple of 4 Þ ( b , a) ÎR
9. (d) Let A = {1, 2 , 3, 4 , 5, 6} and |9 - 1|= 8 is a multiple of 4 . Q ( a, b) ÎR

A relation R is defined on set A is Þ ( b , a) ÎR
12. (c) R = {( a, b): a = b}
R = {( a, b) : b = a + 1}. Hence, R is symmetric.
For any element a Î A, we have
Now, æç1, ö÷ ÎR and æç , - 1ö÷ ÎR
Therefore, 1 1
R = {(1, 2), (2 , 3) (3, 4), ( 4 , 5), ( 5, 6)} ( a, a) ÎR, as a = a. è 2ø è2 ø
Now, 6 ÎA but (6 , 6) ÏR. Therefore, R is reflexive. 1 3 1 1
As, 1 + = > 0 and 1 - = > 0
Therefore, R is not reflexive. Now, let ( a, b) ÎR 2 2 2 2
It can be observed that (1, 2) ÎR Þ a=b Þ b=a but (1, - 1) ÏR, as
but (2, 1) ÏR. Þ ( b , a) ÎR 1 + (1)( -1) = 1 - 1 = 0 >
| 0
Therefore, R is not symmetric. Therefore, R is symmetric. Hence, R is not transitive.

Now, (1, 2), (2 , 3) ÎR but (1, 3) ÏR. Now, let ( a, b) ÎR and ( b , c) ÎR
16. (a) Let R be a relation containing (1, 2)
Therefore, R is not transitive. Þ a = b and b = c Þ a = c
and (1, 3),R is reflexive, if
Hence, R is neither reflexive nor Þ ( a, c) ÎR. (1, 1), (2 , 2), (3, 3) ÎR.
symmetric nor transitive. Therefore, R is transitive.
Relation R is symmetric, if (2 , 1) ÎR and
Hence, R is an equivalence relation (3, 1) ÎR.
10. (b) Given that, A = {1, 2 , 3} (which is already given).
But relation R is not transitive as
A relation R on A is defined as The elements that are related to 1 will (3, 1), (1, 2) ÎR but (3, 2) ÏR.
R = {(1, 2),(2 , 1)} be those elements from set A which are
Now, if we add the pair (3, 2) and (2 , 3)
It is seen that (1, 1), (2 , 2), (3, 3) ÏR . equal to 1.
to relation R, then relation R will
Therefore, R is not reflexive. Hence, the set of elements related to 1 become transitive.
is {1}.
Since, (1,2) ÎR and (2 , 1) ÎR. Hence, the total number of desired
So, R is symmetric. relations is one.
13. (b) Here, R = {(1, 2), (2 , 2), (1, 1),
Now, (1, 2) and (2 , 1) ÎR but (1, 1) ÏR. So, ( 4 , 4), (1, 3), (3, 3), (3, 2)} 17. (d) f is one-one, as f ( x1) = f ( x2)
R is not transitive.
Since, ( a, a) ÎR., for every Þ 2 x1 = 2 x2
Hence, R is symmetric but neither
a Î{1, 2 , 3, 4}. Therefore, R is reflexive. Þ x1 = x2.
reflexive nor transitive.
Now, since (1, 2) ÎR but (2 , 1) Î
/ R. Also, given any real number y in R,
11. (b) R = {( a, b) :|a - b|is a multiple of 4} Therefore, R is not symmetric. y
there exists in R such that
For any element a Î A , we have Also, it is observed that ( a, b), ( b , c) ÎR 2
( a, a) ÎR as|a - a|= 0 is a multiple of 4. Þ( a, c) ÎR. For all a, b , c Î{1, 2, 3, 4} æ yö æ yö
fç ÷ = 2 ç ÷ = y
Therefore, R is reflexive. è2 ø è2 ø
Therefore, R is transitive. Hence, R is
Now , let ( a, b) ÎR reflexive and transitive but not Hence, f is onto.
Þ |a - b | is a multiple of 4. symmetric.
Y
y = f(x) = 2x
|b - a | = |-( a - b)|= |a - b | is multiple 14. (c) Given,
of 4.
R = {( a, b) : a = b - 2 , b > 6}
Þ ( b , a) ÎR.
Therefore, R is symmetric. Now, since, b > 6 so (2 , 4) ÏR. X′ X
Now, let ( a, b), ( b , c) ÎR Also, as 3 ¹ 8 - 2 , so (3, 8) ÏR and as

8 ¹7 -2
So, |a - b | and |b - c| are multiples
of 4. Therefore, (8 , 7) ÏR Y′
Therefore, f is not one-one. We have, f( 0) = 0 and f( -1) = 0

18. (c) Suppose f ( x1) = f ( x2).
Now, consider 07 . ÎR. It is known that Hence, f ( 0) = f ( -1) but 0 ¹ -1
Note that, if x1 is odd and x2 is even, f ( x) = [ x] is always an integer. Þ f is not one-one.
then we will have x1 + 1 = x2 - 1,
Thus, there does not exist any element Þ f is many-one.
i.e. x2 - x1 = 2 which is impossible. x ÎR such that f ( x) = 07.
.
Similarly, the possibility of x1 being Therefore, f is not onto. 24. (b) One-one function from {1, 2, 3} to
even and x2 being odd can also be itself is simply a permutation on three
Hence, the greatest integer function is
ruled out, using the similar argument. symbols 1, 2, 3.
neither one-one nor onto.
Therefore, both x1 and x2 must be either Therefore, total number of one-one
odd or even. 22. (b) Here, A = R - {3}, B = R - {1} maps from {1, 2, 3} to itself is same as
Suppose both x1 and x2 are odd. total number of permutations on
and f : A ® B is defined as
Then, f ( x1) = f ( x2) Þ x1 + 1 = x2 + 1 symbols 1, 2, 3, which is 3! = 6.
æx - 2ö
f ( x) = ç ÷
Þ x1 = x2. è x - 3ø 25. (c) Qf : R ® R defined by
Similarly, if both x1 and x2 are even,
Let x, y Î A such that f ( x) = f (y) f ( x) = x2 - 3x + 2
then also f ( x1) = f ( x2) Þ x1 - 1 = x2 - 1
x-2 y -2
Þ x1 = x2. Þ = Here, x2 - 3x + 2 ³ 0
x-3 y -3
Thus, f is one-one. Also, any odd Þ ( x - 1)( x - 2) ³ 0
number 2r + 1 in the codomain N is the Þ ( x - 2) (y - 3) = (y - 2) ( x - 3)
Þ x £ 1 or x ³ 2
image of 2r + 2 in the domain N and Þ xy - 3x - 2y + 6 = xy - 3y - 2 x + 6
Hence, the domain of
any even number 2r in the codomain N Þ -3x - 2y = - 3y - 2 x f = ( - ¥, 1] È [2 , ¥).
is the image of 2r - 1 in the domain N.
Thus, f is onto. Þ 3x - 2 x = 3y - 2y
Þ x=y 26. (c) Given that, A = {1, 2 , 3, 4} and
19. (d) Function f : R ® R is defined as Therefore, f is one- one. B = {1, 2 , 3, 4 , 5, 6}.
4
f ( x) = x Let y ÎB = R - {1}. Then, f : A ® B is a function defined by
Let x, y ÎR such that f ( x) = f (y) Then, y ¹ 1 f ( x) = x + 2, "x Î A
Þ x4 = y 4 The function f is onto, if there exists Now, for x1 , x2 Î A ,
Þ x=±y x Î A such that Consider f ( x1) = f ( x2)
(considering only real values) f ( x) = y Þ x1 + 2 = x2 + 2
Therefore, f ( x1) = f ( x2) does not imply Now, f ( x) = y Þ x1 = x2
that x1 = x2 x-2 Þ f is one-one.
Þ =y
For instance, f (1) = f ( -1) = 1 x-3 Let y ÎB such that y = f ( x)
Therefore, f is not one-one. Þ x - 2 = xy - 3y Þ y =x+2
Consider an element –2 in codomain Þ x(1 - y) = - 3y + 2 Þ x=y -2
R. It is clear that there does not exist 2 - 3y Now, for 1 ÎB, x = 1 - 2 = - 1 Ï A
Þ x= ÎA
any x in domain R such that f ( x) = – 2. 1- y Þ x = y - 2 Ï A for y = 1
Therefore, f is not onto. Hence, æ 2 - 3y ö Þ f is not onto.
function f is neither one-one nor onto. çQy ¹ 1 and ¹ 3÷
è 1 - y ø
27. (d) Given, n( A) = 4 and n(B) = 6
20. (a) Given that,
Thus, for any y ÎB, there exists Here, n(B) > n( A)
A = {1, 2 , 3} and B = {4 , 5, 6 , 7}
2 - 3y
Now, f : A ® B is defined as Î A such that Then, the number of one-one functions
1- y 6!
f = {(1, 4), (2 , 5), (3, 6)} = 6P4 = = 360
Therefore, f (1) = 4 , f (2) = 5, f (3) = 6 æ 2 - 3y ö 2!
ç ÷ -2
It can be seen that the images of æ 2 - 3y ö è 1 - y ø
fç ÷= 28. (d) Let f( x) = f ( x) - g( x)
distinct elements of A under f are è 1 - y ø æ 2 - 3y ö
ç ÷ -3 ì x, x ÎQ
distinct. è 1- y ø =í
Hence, function f is one-one. But, f is 2 - 3y - 2 + 2y -y î- x, x Î
/Q
not onto, as 7 ÎB does not have a = = =y
2 - 3y - 3 + 3y -1 Then, any straight line parallel to X-axis
pre-image in A. will cut f( x) only at one point.
Therefore, f is onto. Hence, function f
\ f( x) is one-one.
21. (d) Here, f : R ® R is given by f ( x) = [ x] is one-one and onto.
f( x) = x for rational values
It is seen that
23. (c) The given function f : R ® R f( x) = - x for irrational values
f (1.2) = [1.2] = 1, f (1.9) = [1.9 ] = 1
defined by f ( x) = x2 + x Þ f( x) Îreal numbers
Therefore, f (1.2) = f (1.9), but 1.2 ¹ 1.9
Now, for x = 0 and - 1
Mathematics 9
\ Range = Codomain Þ -¥ < x < ¥ Þ -¥ < 2x < ¥ 38. (a) An arbitrary element y in Y is of the
Þ f( x) is onto. Also, since -1 £ sinx £ 1 form n2, for some n ÎN. This implies
Þ -¥ < 2x + sin x < ¥ that n = y . This gives a function
Þ f - g is one-one and onto.
Þ -¥ < f ( x) < ¥ g : Y ® N, defined by g(y) = y .
29. (c) Since, f : X ® Y and f ( x) = sin x Þ Range of f = R = Codomain of f Now, gof (n) = g(n2) = n2 = n and
Þ f is an onto function.Þ f is bijective. fog(y) = f ( y ) = ( y ) 2 = y , which
Now, take option (c).
shows that gof = lN and fog = lY .
p
Domain = é 0, ù, Range = [ -1, 1] 33. (a) We have f : A ® B and g : B ® C
Hence, f is invertible with f -1 = g .
êë 2 úû
be two functions. Then, the
composition of f and g, denoted by gof,
39. (b) Given that, f :R - ìí- üý ® R is
For every value of x, we get unique 4
is defined as the function gof : A ® C
value of y. But the value of y in [ -1, 0) given by î 3þ
4x
does not have any pre-image. defined as f ( x) =
gof ( x) = g( f ( x)), " x Î A 3x + 4
\ Function is one-one but not onto.
B Let y be an arbitrary element of range
A f g C
of f. Then, there exists x ÎR - ìí- üý
30. (b) Here, A = {1, 2 , 3, L , n} and f(x) 4
B = {a, b} x
g(f(x))
î 3þ
Since, every element of domain A has such that y = f ( x)
gof
two choices i.e. a or b. 4x
Þ y= Þ 3xy + 4y = 4 x
\ Number of functions will be 2 . n
34. (b) We have, 3x + 4
Also, there will be a case when all the æ (3x + 4) ö 4y
7ç ÷+ 4 Þ x( 4 - 3y) = 4y Þ x =
elements of A will map to a only then, æ 3x + 4 ö è ( 5x - 7) ø 4 - 3y
since b is left which do not have pre gof ( x) = g ç ÷=
Let us define g : range f ®R - ìí- üý as
è 5x - 7 ø æ (3x + 4) ö 4
image in A. 5ç ÷ -3
è ( 5x - 7) ø î 3þ
\ In such a case, the function from A to 4y
g(y) = .
B is not onto. 21x + 28 + 20x - 28 41 x 4 - 3y
= = =x
Similarly, when all elements of A will 15x + 20 - 15x + 21 41 æ 4x ö
Now, ( gof )( x) = g( f ( x)) = g ç ÷
map to b only, then also the function æ7 x + 4 ö è 3x + 4 ø
from A to B is not onto. Similarly, fog ( x) = f ç ÷
è 5x - 3 ø æ 4x ö
\ Total number of onto functions is æ (7 x + 4) ö 4ç ÷
2 n - 2. 3ç ÷+ 4 è 3x + 4 ø 16 x
= =
è ( 5x - 3) ø æ 4 x ö 12 x + 16 - 12 x
= 4 -3ç ÷
31. (b) The function f ( x) = x + 2 is one-one æ (7 x + 4) ö
5ç ÷ -7 è 3x + 4 ø
as for x1 , x2 Î Z. è ( 5x - 3) ø 16 x
= =x
Consider, f ( x1) = f ( x2) 21x + 12 + 20x - 12 41x 16
= = =x
Þ x1 + 2 = x2 + 2 Þ x1 = x2 35 x + 20 - 35x + 21 41 æ 4y ö
and ( fog)(y) = f ( g(y)) = f ç ÷
Also, let y Îcodomain of f = Z such Thus, gof ( x) = x, " x ÎB and fog( x) = x, è 4 - 3y ø
that æ 4y ö
" x Î A, which implies that gof = IB 4ç ÷
y = f ( x) Þ y = x + 2 and fog = IA . è 4 - 3y ø 16y
= =
Þ x = y - 2 Î Z for all y Î Z æ 4y ö 12y + 16 - 12y
3ç ÷+ 4
\ f is onto. 35. (d) Consider, è 4 - 3y ø
f : {1, 2 , 3, 4} ® {1, 2 , 3, 4 , 5, 6 } 16y
Hence, f ( x) = x + 2 is bijective. = =y
defined as f ( x) = x,"x and 16
g : {1, 2 , 3, 4 , 5, 6} ® {1, 2 , 3, 4 , 5, 6 } as
32. (d) The given function is f : R ® R Therefore, gof = I
g( x) = x, for x = 1, 2 , 3, 4 and R - ìí - üý
4
defined by f ( x) = 2 x + sin x, " x ÎR. g( 5) = g(6) = 5. Then, gof ( x) = x, " x and fog = IRange î 3þ
f
Now, f ¢( x) = 2 + cos x which shows that gof is one-one. But g Thus, g is the inverse of f i.e. f -1 = g .
Þ f ¢( x) > 0 is clearly not one-one. Hence, the inverse of f is the map
g : range f ®R - ìí- üý, which is given
{Q2 > 0 and cos x Î[ -1, 1] } 36. (b) Consider, g : {a, b , c} ® {1, 2 , 3} as 4
f ( x) is strictly increasing function g( a) = 1, g( b) = 2 and g( c) = 3. It is easy to î 3þ
4y
verify that the composite gof = lX is the by g(y) = .
[Q if f ¢( x) > 0, then the function is 4 - 3y
strictly increasing] identify function on X and the composite
fog = lY is the identity function on Y. 40. (b) f ( x) = 8 x3 and g( x) = x1/3
Also, when the function is strictly
increasing or decreasing, then f is 37. (d) A function f : X ® Y is defined to be \ ( gof )( x) = g( f ( x)) = g(8 x3 )
one-one. invertible, if there exists a function = (8 x3 )1/3 = 2 x
Þ f ( x) = 2 x + sin x is one-one. g : Y ® X such that gof = lX and and fog ( x) = f ( g( x)) = f ( x1/3 )
fog = lY . The function g is called the
Now, x ÎR = 8 ( x1/3 )3 = 8 x
inverse of f and is denoted by f -1.
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CHAPTER 02
Inverse Trigonometric
Functions
Trigonometric functions are not one-one on their natural Elementary Properties of
domains, so their inverse does not exist in all values but Inverse Trigonometric Functions
their inverse may exists in some interval of their restricted
domains. Thus, we can say that, inverse of trigonometric
Property I
functions are defined within restricted domains of
é p pù
corresponding trigonometric functions. (i) sin-1 (sin q ) = q, q Î - ,
Inverse of f is denoted by f -1. êë 2 2 úû
Note ■ sin-1 x ¹ (sin x ) -1 (ii) cos -1 (cos q ) = q, q Î[ 0, p ]
sin-1 x ¹ sin-1 æç ö÷
1 æ p pö
■
èx ø
(iii) tan-1 (tan q ) = q, q Î ç - , ÷
è 2 2ø
■ sin-1 x ¹
1 (iv) cot -1(cot q ) = q , q Î ( 0, p )
sin x
é p pù
(v) cosec -1 (cosec q ) = q, q Î - , - { 0}
Domain and Principle Value Branch (Range) of Inverse êë 2 2 úû
Trigonometric Functions
p
(vi) sec -1 (sec q ) = q, q Î[ 0, p ] - ìí üý
î2 þ
Principle value branch
Function Domain
(Range) (vii) sin (sin-1 x ) = x, x Î [- 1, 1]
(viii) cos (cos -1 x ) = x, x Î [- 1, 1]
-1
sin x [–1, 1] é- p , p ù
ëê 2 2 úû (ix) tan (tan-1 x ) = x, x Î R
(x) cot (cot -1 x ) = x, x Î R
cos -1 x [–1, 1] [0, p ]
(xi) cosec (cosec -1 x ) = x, x Î ( - ¥, - 1] È [1, ¥ )
tan-1 x R æ- p , p ö (xii) sec (sec -1 x ) = x, x Î ( - ¥, - 1] È [1, ¥ )
ç ÷
è 2 2ø
Property II
cosec -1 x ( -¥, - 1 ] È [1, ¥) é - p , p ù - { 0}
êë 2 2 úû
(i) sin-1 (1 / x ) = cosec -1 x , x ³ 1 or x £ - 1
-1 -1 -1
sec x ( -¥, - 1 ] È [1, ¥) p
[0, p ] - ìí üý
(ii) cos (1 / x ) = sec x, x ³ 1 or x £ - 1
î2 þ -1
1 ìï cot x , x>0
-1
(iii) tan-1 =í - 1
cot x R ( 0, p ) x ïî - p + cot x , x < 0
Mathematics 11
Property III Property VI

æ 2x ö
(i) sin-1 ( - x ) = - sin-1 x , x Î[ - 1, 1] (i) 2 tan-1 x = sin-1 ç 2
÷, | x | £ 1 or -1 £ x £ 1
è1+ x ø
(ii) cos -1 ( - x ) = p - cos -1 x, x Î[ - 1, 1]
æ1- x 2 ö
-1 -1
(iii) tan ( - x ) = - tan x, x Î R (ii) 2 tan-1 x = cos -1 ç 2
÷, x ³ 0
è1+ x ø
(iv) cot -1 ( - x ) = p - cot -1 x , x Î R
æ 2x ö
(v) cosec -1 ( - x ) = - cosec -1x,| x | ³ 1 (iii) 2 tan-1 x = tan-1 ç 2
÷,- 1< x £ 1
è1- x ø
or x Î ( -¥ ,1] È [1, ¥ )
Some Useful Trigonometric Formulae
(vi) sec -1 ( -x ) = p - sec -1 x,| x | ³ 1
(i) sin 2 x = 2 sin x cos x
or x Î ( -¥, - 1] È [1, ¥ )
(ii) cos 2 x = cos 2 x - sin2 x
= 1 - 2 sin2 x = 2 cos 2 x - 1
Property IV
2 tan x
p (iii) tan 2 x =
(i) sin-1 x + cos -1 x = , x Î[ - 1, 1] 1 - tan2 x
2
p (iv) 1 + cos 2 x = 2 cos 2 x ; 1 - cos 2 x = 2 sin2 x
(ii) tan-1 x + cot -1 x = , x Î R
2 2 tan x 1 - tan2 x
(v) sin 2 x = ; cos 2 x =
p 1 + tan2 x 1 + tan2 x
(iii) cosec -1 x + sec -1 x = , x Î ( -¥, - 1] È [1, ¥ )
2
(vi) sin 3x = 3 sin x - 4 sin3 x
Property V (vii) cos 3x = 4 cos 3 x - 3 cos x
æ x + yö 3 tan x - tan3 x
(i) tan-1 x + tan-1 y = tan-1ç ÷, xy < 1 (viii) tan 3x =
è 1 - xy ø 1 - 3 tan2 x
æ x - yö (ix) sin2 q + cos 2 q = 1
(ii) tan-1 x - tan-1 y = tan-1ç ÷, xy > -1
è 1 + xy ø (x) 1 + tan2 q = sec 2 q (xi) 1 + cot 2 q = cosec 2 q
Practice Questions
1. If f : X ® Y such that f ( x) = y is one-one and onto, then we -p p ù
4. If sin-1 : [-1, 1] ® éê , is a function, then
can define a unique function g : Y ® X such that g ( y ) = x, ë 2 2 úû
where x Î X and y Î Y . Then, which of the following is/are
(a) sin (sin -1 x ) = p - x , -1 £ x £ 1
true?
(b) sin -1 (sin x ) = x, -1 £ x £ 1
(a) Domain of g = Range of f -p p
(b) Range of g = Domain of f (c) sin -1 (sin x ) = x, £x £
2 2
(c) g = f -1 (d) None of the above
2. The domain in which sine function will be one-one, is 5. The graph of sin-1 x is the mirror image of the graph of sin x
along the line
é -p p ù é p 3p ù
(a) ê , (b) ê , (a) y = x (b) y = - x
ë 2 2 úû ë 2 2 úû
(c) y = x - 1 (d) None of these
(c) [ 0, p ] (d) Both (a) and (b)
3. The principal value branch of sin-1 is 6. The inverse of cosine function is defined in the intervals
é -p ù
é -3p - p ù é -p p ù (a) [-p, 0] (b) ê , 0ú
(a) ê , ú (b) ê , ë 2 û
ë 2 2 û ë 2 2 úû
é pù ép ù
é p 3p ù (c) ê 0, ú (d) ê , p ú
(c) ê , (d) None of these ë 2û ë2 û
ë 2 2 úû
7. cos -1 denotes the inverse of 17. If sin-1 x = y, then

(a) sine function -p p
(a) 0 £ y £ p (b) £y £
(b) cosine function 2 2
(c) cotangent function -p p
(c) 0 < y < p (d) <y <
(d) cosecant function 2 2
8. cosec x is not defined for 18. tan-1 3 - sec -1 (-2) is equal to

p p -p 2p
(a) all integral multiples of (a) p (b) (c) (d)
2 3 3 3
(b) all integral multiples of p -p
19. The value of tan-1 éêsin æç ö÷ ùú is
3p ë è 2 øû
(c) all integral multiples of
4 p -p
(a) (b)
(d) None of the above 4 4
9. The principal value branch of cosec –1 is ...A... Here, A refers 3p
(c) (d) None of these
to 4
æ -p p ö é -p p ù 2p
(a) ç , ÷
è 2 2ø
(b) ê ,
ë 2 2 úû 20. The principal value of sin-1 éêsin æç ö÷ ùú is
ë è 3 øû
é -p p ù æ -p p ö
(c) ê , - { 0} (d) ç , ÷ - { 0} -2p 2p
ë 2 2 úû è 2 2ø (a) (b)
3 3
4p
10. Secant function is bijective when its domain and range are (c) (d) None of these
..A.. and R - ( -1, 1) respectively. Here A refers to 3
é pù 21. The principal value of cos -1 æç ö÷ - 2sin-1 æç - ö÷ is
1 1
(a) [0, p ] (b) ê 0, ú è2 ø è 2ø
ë 2û
ì pü p -p 2p p
(c) [0, p ] - í ý (d) None of these (a) (b) (c) (d)
î 2þ 3 3 3 6
é æ 3 öù
11. tan function (tangent function) is not defined for ...A... Here, 22. The value of tan-1 ê2sin ç2cos -1 ÷ ú is
A refers to êë è 2 ø úû
p p p 2p -p p
(a) odd multiple of (b) even multiple of (a) (b) (c) (d)
2 2 3 3 3 6
(c) an integral multiple of p (d) None of these
23. The value of 2 tan-1 x is
-1 æ 1 ö is
12. The principal value of sin ç ÷ 2x 1 - x2
è 2ø (a) sin -1 2
, |x | £ 1 (b) cos -1 ,x ³0
p -p 1+x 1 + x2
(a) (b) 2x
4 4 (c) tan -1 , - 1 < x < 1 (d) All of these
3p 1 - x2
4 1 2
24. The value of tan-1 + tan-1 is
13. The principal value of cot-1 æ -1 ö is ..A.. Here, A refers to 2 11
ç ÷
è 3ø 3 1
(a) tan -1 (b) tan -1
p -p 2p 4p 4 4
(a) (b) (c) (d) 1
3 3 3 3 (c) tan -1 (d) None of these
-1 æ - 1 ö is 2
14. The principal value of sin ç ÷
è 2ø æ 1 ö
-p p p -p 25. Which of the following is the simplest form of cot-1 ç ÷,
(a) (b) (c) (d) ç x2 - 1 ÷
6 6 3 3 è ø
x > 1?
2
15. The principal value of sec -1 is ..A.. Here, A refers to (a) cos -1 x (b) sec -1 x
3
p p -p 2p (c) tan x (d) cot x
(a) (b) (c) (d)
3 6 3 3 1 + x2 - 1
26. The simplest form of tan-1 , x ¹ 0 is
16. The value of tan-1 (1) + cos -1 æç - ö÷ + sin-1 æç - ö÷ is
1 1 x
è 2ø è 2ø 1
(a) tan -1 x (b) tan -1 x
p p 3p 2p 2
(a) (b) (c) (d)
2 4 4 3 (c) 2 tan -1 x (d) None of these
Mathematics 13
1
27. tan-1 ,|x| > 1 can be written as 34. The value of
2
x -1
-1 æ p ö
tan-1 æç ö÷ + cot-1 æç ö÷ + tan-1 çsin æç - ö÷ ÷ is
1
(a) sec -1 x (b) cos -1 x è 3ø è 3ø è è 2 øø
p p
(c) - sec -1x (d) - cos -1 x (a)
p
(b)
p
2 2 6 12
æ cos x - sin x ö p p
28. The function tan-1 ç ÷, 0 < x < p can be written as (c) - (d)
è cos x + sin x ø 12 3
33p ö ö
...B... Here, B refers to
35. The value of sin-1 æçcos æç ÷ ÷ is
p p è è 5 øø
(a) - x (b) - x
2 4 3p -7 p
(a) (b)
(c) p - x (d) -x 5 5
p p
29. The value of tan-1 éê2cos æç2sin-1 ö÷ ùú is
1 (c) (d) -
ë è 2øû 10 10
p p
(a) p (b) 36. If tan-1 3 + cot-1 x = , then the value of x is
2 2
p p 1
(c) (d) (a) (b) - 3
4 3 3
é -1 2 x 1
1 1 - y2 ù (c) 3 (d) -
30. The value of the function tan êsin 2
+ cos -1 ú, 3
2 ë 1+ x 1 + y2 û
|x| < 1, y > 0 and xy < 1 is 37. The greatest and least value of (sin-1 x)2 + (cos -1 x)2 are
x -y respectively
(a) x - y (b)
1 + xy 5p 2 p2 p p
x +y (a) and (b) and -
(c) x + y (d) 4 8 2 2
1 - xy
p2 p2 p2
(c) and - (d) and 0
31. The value of x for which sinæçsin-1 + cos -1 xö÷ = 1, is
1
4 4 4
è 5 ø
38. The value of tan æçcos -1 + tan-1 ö÷ is
3 1
2 1
(a) (b) è 5 4ø
5 5
1 19 8 19 3
(c) - (d) -1 (a) (b) (c) (d)
5 8 19 12 4
2p ö æ 1 + x ö 1 -1 æ 1 ö
32. The value of sin-1 æçsin ÷ is ...X... . Here, X refers to
39. If cot-1 ç ÷ = cot ç ÷ , x > 0, then the value of x is
è 3ø è1 - x ø 2 è xø
p p 1
(a) (b) (a) 3 (b)
2 6 3
p 1
(c) (d) 0 (c) - (d) None of these
3 3
33. The value of tanæçsin-1

3
+ cot-1 ö÷ is ...Y... . Here, Y refers to
3 æ 2a ö æ 1 - a2 ö 2x
è 40. If sin-1 çç ÷ + cos -1 çç
2÷ 2÷
÷ = tan-1 , where
5 2ø è1 + a ø è1 + a ø 1 - x2
6 17
(a) (b) a, x Î] 0, 1 [ , then the value of x is
17 6
17 5 a 2a
(c) (d) (a) 0 (b) (c) a (d)
24 7 2 1 - a2
Solutions
We know that the range of the
1. (d) As, we know that when a function 6. (a) Cosine function restricted to any of
principal value branch of sin-1 is
‘f’ i.e. f : X ® Y f ( x) = y is one-one and the intervals [ -p , 0], [0, p], [p, 2p] etc., is
onto, then we can define a unique bijective with range as [-1, 1]. é - p , p ù and sin æ p ö = 1 .
êë 2 2 úû ç ÷
function g : Y ® X such that g(y) = x, è4ø 2
We can, therefore, define the inverse
where x Î X and y = f ( x), y ÎY . Therefore, principal value of
of cosine function in each of these
p
Here, the domain of g = range of f and sin-1 æç ö÷ is .
intervals. 1
the range of g = domain of f. è 2ø 4
The function g is called the inverse of f 7. (b) We denote the inverse of the cosine
-1
and is denoted by f -1. function by cos-1 (arc cosine function). 13. (c) Let cot -1 æç ö÷ = y.
è 3ø
1
2. (d) Since, the domain of sine function 8. (b) Since, cosec x = , the domain Then,
is the set of all real numbers and range is sin x
the closed interval [-1, 1]. of the cosec function is the set {x : x ÎR
-1 p p
-p p ù
and x ¹ np, n Î Z} and the range is the cot y = = - cot æç ö÷ = cot æç p - ö÷
If we restrict its domain to é , , set {y : y ÎR, y ³ 1or y £ -1} i.e. the set 3 è3ø è 3ø
ëê 2 2 ûú R - ( -1, 1.
) It means that y = cosec x 2p
then it becomes one-one and onto with = cot æç ö÷
assumes all real values except -1 < y < 1 è3ø
range [-1, 1].
and is not defined for integral multiple
Actually, sine function restricted to any We know that the range of principal
of p.
-3p p -p p ù value branch of cot -1 is (0, p) and
of the intervals é , - ù, é , , 2p -1
êë 2 2 úû êë 2 2 úû 9. (c) cosec-1 is a function whose domain cot æç ö÷ = .
è3ø 3
é p , 3p ù etc., is one-one and its range is is R - ( -1, 1) and range could be any of
êë 2 2 úû the intervals [ - p /2 , p /2 ] - {0}, Hence, principal value branch of
[ -3p /2 , - p /2 ] - {- p}, [ p /2 , 3p /2 ] - ( p) -1 2p
[-1, 1]. cot -1 æç ö÷ is .
etc., corresponding to each such è 3ø 3
-p p
3. (b) The branch with range é , ù is interval, we get a branch of the function
êë 2 2 úû
cosec-1. 14. (a) Let sin-1 æç - ö÷ = q Þ sinq = -
1 1
called the principal value branch, è 2ø
p p 2
whereas other intervals as range give The branch with range é - , ù - {0}
êë 2 2 úû
different branches of sin-1. We know that the range of principal
p p
is called the principal value branch of value branch of sin-1 q is é - , ù.
-p p
4. (c) sin-1 : [-1, 1] ® éê , ùú. From the cosec-1. êë 2 2 úû
ë 2 2û p p
Q sin q = - = - sin = sin æç - ö÷
1
definition of the inverse functions, it 10. (c) If we restrict the domain of secant
p 2 6 è 6ø
follows that sin(sin-1 x) = x, if -1 £ x £ 1 function to [ 0, p ] - ìí üý, then it is
p p î2 þ [Qsin( - q) = - sin q]
and sin-1(sin x) = x, if - £ x £ .
2 2 one-one and onto with its range as the p
Þ q=-
In other words, if y = sin-1 x, then set R - ( -1, 1.
) 6
p p
siny = x. Actually, secant function restricted to where, q Î é - , ù
-p êë 2 2 úû
any of the intervals [ - p , 0] - ìí üý,
5. (a) The graph of sin-1 x is the mirror î2 þ
p
Þ sin-1 æç - ö÷ = -
p 3p 1
[ 0, p ] - ìí üý, [ p , 2 p ] - ìí üý etc., is
image of the graph of sinx along the line
y = x as shown in the figure given below è 2ø 6
î þ
2 î2 þ
Y
bijective and its range is R - ( -1, 1. ) Hence, the principal value of branch
5π
p
sin-1 æç - ö÷ is - .
1
x
y=
2
11. (a) We know that the domain of the tan è 2ø 6
3π function (tangent function) is the set
p
15. (b) Let sec-1 æç ö÷ = q Þ sec q =
2 2 2
{x : x ÎR and x ¹ (2n + 1) , n Î Z} and
π
2 è 3ø 3
π 3π the range is R. It means that tan function
– 2
– 2π 2 π We know that the range of principal
X′
3π – π O π
2 X p
2π is not defined for odd multiples of . p
value branch of sec-1 q is [ 0, p ] - ìí üý.
–
2 –π 2 2
2
–π
î2 þ
12. (a) Let sin-1 æç ö÷ = y.
1 2 p p
–3π Q sec q = = sec Þ q = ,
2 è 2ø
3 6 6
p
where q Î[ 0, p ] - ìí üý
1
–5π Then, siny = .
2 2 î2 þ
Y′
y = sinx and y = sin–1 x
Mathematics 15
Þ sec-1 æç ö÷ =
2 p Let sec-1 ( -2) = y =
p -p
- 2 æç ö÷
è 3ø 6 Þ secy = - 2 3 è6 ø
p ì
Hence, the principal value of Þ secy = - sec -1
p 3 í Qcos (cos x) = x, x Î[ 0, p ],
sec-1 æç ö÷ is .
2
î
è 3ø 6 p
Þ secy = sec æç p - ö÷ é p p ùü
è 3ø and sin-1(sin x) = x, x Î ê - úý
16. (c) Let tan-1(1 ) = x ë 2, 2 ûþ
[Qsec ( p - q) = - sec q]
p p 2p
p p 2p = + =
Þ tan x = 1 = tan Þ x = , Þ sec y = sec æç ö÷ 3 3 3
4 4 è3ø
p p é æ æ 3 ööù
æ
where principal value x Îç - , ö÷ Þ y=
2p
Î[ 0, p] - æpö 22. (a) Given, tan-1 ê2 sin çç2 cos-1 ç ÷÷ú
è 2 2ø 3
ç ÷
è2 ø êë è è 2 ø ÷ø úû
p
\ tan-1 (1) = (principal value branch) é p ù
= tan-1 ê2 sin æç2 ´ ö÷ ú
4 è 6 øû
\ tan-1 3 - sec-1( -2) = x - y ë
Let cos-1 æç - ö÷ = y Þ cosy = -
1 1
p 2p p é p ù
è 2ø 2 = - =- = tan-1 ê2 sin æç ö÷ ú
p p 2p
3 3 3 ë è 3 øû
= - cos æç ö÷ = cos æç p - ö÷ = cos æç ö÷
p
è3ø è 3ø è3ø 19. (b) Let q = tan-1 éê sin æç - ö÷ ùú é
= tan-1 ê2 ´
3ù -1 p
ë è 2 øû ú = tan 3 =
[Qcos ( p - q) = - cos q] ë 2 û 3
p
Þ y=
2p
, = tan-1 é - sin ù 2x
3 ëê 2 ûú 23. (d) (a) 2 tan-1 x = sin-1 ,|x| £ 1
1 + x2
where principal value y Î[ 0, p ] [Qsin( - x) = - sin x]
1 - x2
\ cos-1 æç - ö÷ =
1 2p -1
= tan [ -1] æQ sin p = 1ö (b) 2 tan-1 x = cos-1 ,x³0
ç ÷ 1 + x2
è 2ø 3 è 2 ø
p æQ tan p = 1ö 2x
Let sin-1 æç - ö÷ = z
1
= tan-1 é - tan ù (c) 2 tan-1 x = tan-1 , -1 < x < 1
êë ç ÷ 1 - x2
è 2ø 4 úû è 4 ø
p p é -p ù Let tan-1 x = y, then x = tany .
= - sin æç ö÷ = sin æç - ö÷
1
Þ sin z = - = tan-1 ê tan æç ö÷ ú
2 è6 ø è 6ø ë è 4 øû Now,
p [Qtan( - x) = - tan x] sin-1
2x
= sin-1
2 tany
Þ z=-
6 -1 1 + x2 1 + tan2 y
We know that, range of tan x is
p p
where, principal value z Î é - , ù æ - p , p ö.
ç ÷ = sin-1(sin2y) = 2y = 2 tan-1 x
êë 2 2 úû è 2 2ø 1 - x2 2
-1 1 - tan y
p Also, cos-1 = cos
p
\ sin-1 æç - ö÷ = -
1 1 + x2 1 + tan2 y
\ q=-
è 2ø 6 4
= cos-1(cos2y)
-1 æ
\ tan (1) + cos ç - ö÷ + sin-1 æç - ö÷
-1 1 1 é æ2 p ö ù
è 2ø è 2ø 20. (d) We have, sin-1 ê sin çè 3 ÷ø ú
= 2y
ë û = 2 tan-1 x
=x+y + z é p ù
p 2p p = sin-1 ê sin æç p - ö÷ ú \ Option (c) can be worked out
= + - ë è 3 øû similarly.
4 3 6
é p ù
3p + 8 p - 2 p = sin-1 ê sin æç ö÷ ú 24. (a) tan-1
1
+ tan-1
2
= ë è 3 øû
12 2 11
9 p 3p [Qsin( p - q) = sin q ] 1 2
+
= =
12 4 p = tan-1 2 11 = tan-1 15
= 1 2
3 1- ´ 20
p p
17. (b) As range of sin-1 x is é - , ù, ì é p p ùü
2 11
êë 2 2 úû -1
í Qsin (sin x) = x, x Î ê - úý 3
p p î ë 2, 2 ûþ = tan-1
therefore - £ y £ . 4
2 2
-1
21. (c) Given, cos-1 æç ö÷ - 2 sin-1 æç ö÷
1
-1 è2 ø è2 ø 25. (b) Let x = secq, then
18. (c) Let tan 3=x
p p x2 - 1 = sec2 q - 1 = tan q
p = cos-1 æç cos ö÷ - 2 sin-1 æç - sin ö÷
Þ tanx = 3 Þ tan x = tan è 3ø è 6ø 1
3 Therefore, cot -1 = cot -1(cot q)
p æ p pö = cos -1 æ cos p ö - 2 sin-1 æ æ -p öö 2
x -1
Þ x= Î ç- , ÷ ç ÷ ç sin ç ÷ ÷
3 è 2 2ø è 3ø è è 6 øø
= q = sec-1 x,
(principal value branch) [Qsin( - x) = - sin x]
which is the simplest form.
[Qsec2 q - tan2 q = 1]
26. (b) Let x = tanq, then 30. (d) We have,
= tan-1 æç
1 ö
q = tan x -1
…(i) ÷ 1é 2x 1- y2 ù
è tan q ø tan ê sin-1 2
+ cos-1 ú
1 + x2 - 1 æ p ö 2ë 1+ x 1+ y2û
\ tan-1 = tan-1(cot q) = tan-1 ç tan æç - qö÷ ÷
x è è2 øø é ù
-1 -1 æ 2 x ö
êQ2 tan x = sin ç ÷ ú
1 + tan2 q - 1 é æp ö ù ê è1 + x2
ø ú
êQ tan çè 2 - q÷ø = cot qú
-1
= tan
tan q ë û ê 2 öú
ê and 2 tan y = cos ç æ1 - y
÷ú
- 1 - 1
p
sec2 q - 1 = -q ê è1 + y ø úû
2
= tan-1 2 ë
tan q
p = tan æç (2 tan-1 x + 2 tan-1 y) ö÷
1
(Q1 + tan2 q = sec 2 q) = - sec-1 x
2 è2 ø
é sec q - 1ù
= tan-1 ê æ cos x - sin x ö = tan é ´ 2 (tan-1 x + tan-1 y) ù
ú 1
ë tan q û 28. (b) We have, tan-1 ç ÷ êë 2 úû
è cos x + sin x ø
é 1 - 1ù
ê cos q ú æ cos x - sin x ö = tan (tan-1 x + tan-1 y)
= tan-1 ê ú ç ÷
sin q -1 cos x
= tan ç cos x ÷ é æ x + y öù x + y
ê ú = tan ê tan-1 ç ÷ú =
êë cos q úû ç cos x + sin x ÷
êë è1 - xy ø úû 1 - xy
è cos x cos x ø
é1 - cos q ù (inside the bracket divide numerator æ -1 -1 -1 x + y ö
ê ú çQ tan x + tan y = tan ÷
= tan-1 ê cos q ú and denominator by cosx) è 1 - xy ø
sin q
ê ú æ1 - tan x ö
ë cos q û = tan-1 ç ÷
31. (b) Given, sin æç sin-1 + cos-1 xö÷ = 1
1
1 - cos q cos q ù è1 + tan x ø
= tan-1 é ´ è 5 ø
êë cos q sin q úû é p ù
= tan-1 ê tanæç - xö÷ ú 1
Þ sin-1 + cos-1 x = sin-11
-1 é1 - cos q ù ë è4 øû
5
= tan
êë sin q úû é p ù
tan - tan x (Qsinq = x Þ q = sin-1 x)
ê æ p ö ú
é 2 sin2 q ù êQ tan çè - x ÷ø =
4 p
Þ sin-1 + cos-1 x = sin-1 æç sin ö÷
ú 1
ê p
= tan-1 2 ú ê 4 1 + tan × tan x ú 5 è 2ø
ê q qú ê 4 ú
ê 2 sin cos ú ê 1 - tan x ú é æpö ù
ë 2 2û ê = ú êQ sinçè 2 ÷ø = 1ú
ë 1 + tan x û ë û
æ Q1 - cos q = 2 sin2 q ö
ç ÷ p 1 p
ç 2 ÷ = -x Þ sin-1 + cos-1 x =
q q 5 2
ç and sin q = 2 sin cos ÷ 4
è 2 2ø 1 p
Þ sin-1 = - cos-1 x
é 2 sin q ù 29. (c) We have, 5 2
ê 2ú é 1 ù -1 1
tan-1 ê2 cosæç2 sin-1 ö÷ ú = sin-1 x
-1
= tan ê Þ sin
qú è 2 øû 5
ê 2 cos ú ë
ë 2û æQ sin-1 x + cos-1 x = p ö
é ì p üù
é tan q ù = tan-1 ê2 cos í2 sin-1 æç sin ö÷ ýú ç
è 2ø
÷
= tan-1 ë î è 6 ø þû
êë 2 úû 1
æQ sin p = 1 ö Þ x=
-1
q tan x ç ÷ 5
= = [from Eq. (i)] è 6 2ø
2 2 2p p
é p ù 32. (c) sin-1 æç sin ö÷ = sin-1 éê sin æç p - ö÷ ùú
1 + x2 - 1 1 = tan-1 ê2 cosæç2 ´ ö÷ ú è 3ø ë è 3 øû
\ tan-1 = tan-1 x ë è 6 øû
x 2 p
p
= tan-1 é2 cos ù = sin-1 æç sin ö÷
êë è 3ø
27. (c) Let x = secq, then 3 úû
[Q sin ( p - q) = sin q]
= tan-1 é2 ´ ù = tan-1(1)
1
q = sec-1 x …(i) êë 2 úû p
1 =
\ tan-1
2 æQ cos p = 1 ö 3
x -1 ç ÷
è 3 2ø p p
which lies in the range é - , ù.
æ
ç 1 ö
÷ æ tan p ö = p ëê 2 2 ûú
= tan-1 = tan-1 ç ÷
ç sec2 q - 1 ÷ è 4ø 4 Note sin-1(sin q) = q when
è ø
æQ tan p = 1ö p p
æ 1 ö ç ÷ q Î é- , ù .
= tan-1 ç ÷ è 4 ø êë 2 2 úû
è tan2 q ø
Mathematics 17
æ p ö p = tan æç tan-1 ö÷ =
19 19
33. (b) tan æç sin-1
3
+ cot -1 ö÷
3 = sin-1 ç sin æç - ö÷ ÷ = -
è 5 2ø è è 10 ø ø 10 è 8ø 8
é ù ì -1 é p p ùü
ê 3 ú íQ sin (sin x) = x, if x Î ê - úý 39. (b) We have,
î ë 2, 2 ûþ
= tan ê tan-1 + tan-1 ú
5 2
æ1 + xö 1 æ1ö
ê 2 3ú cot -1 ç ÷ = cot
-1
ç ÷
1 - æç ö÷
ê 3 ú p è1 - xø 2 è xø
êë è 5ø úû 36. (c) Given, tan-1 3 + cot -1 x =
2 æ1 - xö 1
æQ sin-1 x = tan-1 x ö p Þ tan-1 ç -1
÷ = tan x
ç ÷ Þ tan-1 3 = - cot -1 x è1 + xø 2
ç 1 - x2 ÷ 2
ç æ1 - x ö
x y÷ Þ 2 tan-1 ç -1
÷ = tan x
ç and cot -1 = tan-1 ÷ Þ tan-1 3 = tan-1 x è1 + x ø
è y xø
æQ tan-1 x + cot -1 x = p ö
ç ÷ Þ 2 [tan-1 1- tan-1 x] = tan-1 x
= tan é tan-1 + tan-1 ù
3 2 è
êë 2ø
3 úû p
2 æç - tan-1 xö÷ = tan-1 x
4
Þ x= 3 Þ
é 3 2 ù è4 ø
+
ê -1 4 3 ú
= tan ê tan 37. (a) We have, (sin-1 x) 2 + (cos-1 x) 2 p
- 2 tan-1 x = tan-1 x
3 2ú Þ
ê 1- ´ ú 2
ë 4 3û = (sin-1x + cos-1x) 2 - 2 sin-1 x cos-1 x
p
p2 p Þ 3 tan-1 x =
é 17 ù = - 2 sin-1 x æç - sin-1 xö÷ 2
ê ú 4 è2 ø
= tanê tan-1 12 ú p
ê
1
ú p2 Þ tan-1 x =
ë 2 û = - p sin-1 x + 2(sin-1 x) 2 6
4
é p
-1 -1 -1 æ x + y ö ù é p p2 ù Þ x = tan
êQ tan x + tan y = tan ç ÷ú = 2 ê(sin-1 x) 2 - sin-1 x + ú 6
êë è1 - xy ø úû 2 8û
ë 1
Þ x=
= tan é tan-1 ù =
17 17 é p2 ù
2
p 3
êë 6 úû 6 = 2 ê æç sin-1 x - ö÷ + ú
êë è 4ø 16 ûú
40. (d) Given,
34. (c) Given, tan-1 æç -
1 ö -1 æ 1 ö
÷ + cot ç ÷ æ p2 ö p2 æ 2a ö æ1 - a 2 ö
è 3ø è 3ø Thus, the least value is 2 ç ÷ i.e. sin-1 ç ÷ + cos
-1
ç ÷
è16 ø 8 2
è1 + a ø
2
è1 + a ø
é -p ù
+ tan-1 ê sinæç ö÷ ú and the greatest value is
ë è 2 øû é -p p ö2 p2 ù 5p 2 æ 2x ö
2 ê æç - ÷ + = tan-1 ç ÷
æ - 1 ö + cot -1 æ 1 ö ú, i.e. . 2
è1 - x ø
êë è 2 4ø
-1
= tan ç ÷ ç ÷ 16 úû 4
è 3ø è 3ø
æ 2x ö
æ - sin p ö 3 Þ 2 tan-1 a + 2 tan-1 a = tan-1 ç ÷
+ tan -1
ç ÷ 38. (a) Let x = cos-1 2
è1 - x ø
è 2ø 5
3 é -1 æ 2 x ö -1 -1
[Q sin ( - q) = - sin q] Þ cosx = êQ sin ç ÷ = 2 tan x and cos
2
-p p æ sin p ö
5 êë è1 + x ø
= + - tan-1 ç ÷ 9
6 3 è 2ø Þ sinx = 1 - æ1 - x2 ö -1 ù
25 ç 2
÷ = 2 tan xú
-1
[Qtan ( - x) = - tan x] -1 è1 + x ø úû
p -1 p p p [Qsin x = 1 - cos2 x]
= - tan (1) = - = - æ 2x ö
6 6 4 12 4 Þ 4 tan-1 a = tan-1 ç 2
÷
Þ sinx = è1 - x ø
33p ö ö 5
35. (d) Given, sin-1 æç cosæç ÷÷ æ 2a ö -1 æ 2 x ö
è è 5 øø 4 æQ tan x = sin x ö Þ 2 tan-1 ç ÷ = tan ç ÷
Þ tanx = ç ÷ 2 2
3 è cos x ø è1 - a ø è1 - x ø
æ 3p ö ö
= sin-1 ç cosæç6 p + ÷÷
è è 5 øø æ -1 2 x ö
Now, tan æç cos-1 + tan-1 ö÷
3 1 -1
çQ2 tan x = tan ÷
è 5 4ø è 1 - x2 ø
3p
= sin-1 æç cos ö÷
è 5ø = tan æç tan-1 + tan-1 ö÷
4 1 æ 2a ö
è 3 4ø Þ 2 tan-1 ç -1
÷ = 2 tan x
[Qcos(6p + x) = cos x] 2
è1 - a ø
æ æ p 3p ö ö æ 4 1 ö
+
= sin-1 ç sinç - ÷÷ ç ÷ On comparing, we get
è è2 5 øø = tan ç tan-1 3 4 ÷
4 1 2a
p ç 1- ´ ÷ x=
[Qsinæç - xö÷ = cos x] è 3 4ø 1 - a2
è2 ø
CHAPTER 03
Matrices
1. Matrix 4. Equality of Matrices
A matrix is an ordered rectangular array of numbers or Two matrices are said to be equal, if their order are same
functions. The number or functions are called the elements and their corresponding elements are also equal i.e.
or the entries of the matrix. aij = bij, " i , j .
2. Order of Matrix 5. Addition of Matrices

A matrix of order m ´ n is of the form Let A and B be two matrices each of same order m ´ n.
Then, the sum of matrices A + B is a matrix whose elements
é a11 a12 a13 K a1n ù
êa are obtained by adding the corresponding elements of A
a22 a23 K a2n ú
A = ê 21 ú and B.
ê M M M M M ú i.e. if A = [aij ]m ´ n and B = [bij ]m ´ n
ê ú
ë am1 am2 am3 K amn û Then, A + B = [aij + bij ] m ´ n
where, m represents number of rows and n represents
number of columns. 6. Properties of Matrix Addition
In notation form, it can be rewritten as Let A, B and C are three matrices of same order m ´ n, then
A = [aij] m ´ n (i) Matrix addition is commutative
where, 1 £ i £ m, 1 £ j £ n and i , j Î N. i.e. A+ B=B+ A
Here, aij is an element lying in the ith row and jth column. (ii) Matrix addition is associative
i.e. ( A + B) + C = A + (B + C )
3. Types of Matrices
(iii) Existence of additive identity Zero matrix (O) of order
(i) Row matrix A matrix having only one row, is called a row m ´ n (same as of A) is called additive identity as
matrix. A + O = A = O + A.
(ii) Column matrix A matrix having only one column, is (iv) Existence of additive inverse For the square matrix, the
called a column matrix. matrix (- A) is called additive inverse if
(iii) Zero or Null matrix If all the elements of a matrix are A + ( - A) = O = ( - A) + A .
zero, then it is called a zero matrix or null matrix. It is
Note If A and B are not of same order, then A + B is not
denoted by symbol O. defined.
(iv) Square matrix A matrix in which number of rows and
number of columns are equal, is called a square matrix. 7. Multiplication of a Matrix by a Scalar
(v) Diagonal matrix A square matrix is said to be a diagonal Let A = [aij ]m ´ n be a matrix and k be any scalar. Then, kA is
matrix, if all the elements lying outside the diagonal another matrix which is obtained by multiplying each
element of A by k
elements are zero.
i.e. kA = k[aij ] m ´ n = [k(aij )] m´ n .
(vi) Scalar matrix A diagonal matrix in which all diagonal
elements are equal, is called a scalar matrix. 8. Negative of a Matrix
(vii) Unit or Identity matrix A diagonal matrix in which all the If we multiply a matrix A by a scalar quantity (-1), then the
diagonal elements are equal to unity (one), is called an negative of a matrix (i.e. - A) is obtained.
identity matrix. It is denoted by I. In negative of A, each element is multiplied by (-1).
Mathematics 19
9. Properties of Scalar Multiplication 16. Properties of Symmetric and

Let A and B be the two matrices of same order, then Skew-symmetric Matrices
(i) For a square matrix A with real number entries, A + A¢ is a
(i) k( A + B) = kA + kB, where k is scalar.
symmetric matrix and A - A¢ is a skew-symmetric matrix.
(ii) (k1 + k2 )A = k1 A + k2 A, where k1 and k2 are scalars.
(iii) (kI ) A = k(lA) = l (kA), where l and k are scalars. (ii) Any square matrix A can be expressed as the sum of a
symmetric and a skew-symmetric matrices.
10. Difference (or Subtraction) of Matrices 1 1
i.e. A = ( A + A¢ ) + ( A - A¢ )
If A = [aij ] and B = [bij ] are two matrices of the same order 2 2
m ´ n, then difference of these matrices A - B is defined as
a matrix D = [ d ij ], where d ij = aij - bij, " i , j . 17. Elementary Operations of a Matrix
There are six operations (transformations) on a matrix, three
11. Multiplication of Matrices of which are due to rows and three are due to columns.
Let A = [aij ] m ´ n and B = [bjk ] n ´ p be two matrices such that These operations are known as elementary operations or
the number of columns of A is equal to the number of rows transformations.
of B, then multiplication of A and B is denoted by AB and it (i) The interchange of any two rows or two columns
n Symbolically, the interchange of ith and jth rows is denoted
is given by c ik = å aijbjk , where c ik is the (i, k ) th element of by Ri « R j and interchange of ith and jth columns is
k =1 denoted by Ci « C j.
matrix C, where C = AB. (ii) The multiplication of the elements of any row or column
by a non-zero number Symbolically, the multiplication of
Note Generally, multiplication of matrices is not commutative each element of the i th row by k, where k ¹ 0, is denoted by
i.e. AB ¹ BA. Ri ® kRi. The corresponding column operation is denoted
by Ci ® kCi.
12. Properties of Multiplication of Matrices (iii) The addition to the elements of any row or column, the
(i) Let A,B and C be three matrices of same order. Then, matrix corresponding elements of any other row or column
multiplication is associative i.e. ( AB) C = A(BC ). multiplied by any non-zero number Symbolically, the
(ii) Existence of multiplicative identity For every square addition to the elements of ith row, the corresponding
matrix A, there exists an identity matrix I of same order such elements of jth row multiplied by k is denoted by
that A × I = A = I × A. Ri ® Ri + kR j. The corresponding column operation is
(iii) Matrix multiplication is distributive over addition. i.e. denoted by Ci ® Ci + kC j.
A(B + C ) = AB + AC
(iv) Non-commutativity Generally, matrix multiplication is not
18. Invertible Matrix
commutative i.e. if A and B are two matrices and AB, BA A square matrix A of order m is said to be invertible, if there
both exist, then it is not necessary that AB = BA. exists another square matrix B of the same order m such that
AB = BA = I, where I is a unit matrix of same order m. The
(v) If the product of two matrices is a zero matrices, then it is not
matrix B is called the inverse matrix of A and it is denoted
necessary that one of the matrices is zero matrix.
by A-1.
13. Transpose of a Matrix Note ■ A rectangular matrix does not possess inverse matrix.
The matrix obtained by interchanging the rows and columns ■ If B is an inverse of A , then A is also the inverse of B.
of a given matrix A, is called transpose of a matrix A. It is 19. Properties of Invertible Matrices
denoted by A¢ or AT or Ac .
Let A and B be two non-zero invertible matrices of same
14. Properties of Transpose of Matrices order.
(i) Uniqueness of inverse If inverse of a square matrix exists,
(i) ( A¢ ) ¢ = A
then it is unique.
(ii) ( A ± B ) ¢ = A¢ ± B ¢
(ii) AA-1 = A-1 A = I
(iii) (kA) ¢ = kA¢, where k is any constant.
(iii) ( AB)-1 = B -1 A-1
(iv) ( AB) ¢ = B¢ A¢ [reversal law]
(iv) ( A-1 )- 1 = A
15. Symmetric and Skew-symmetric Matrices (v) ( A¢ )-1 = ( A-1 ) ¢or ( AT )-1 = ( A-1 )T
A square matrix A is called symmetric matrix, if A¢ = A and a
where, A¢ or AT is transpose of a matrix A.
square matrix A is called skew-symmetric, if A¢ = - A.
Practice Questions
é 3 -1 0ù
1. If A is a matrix having m rows and n columns, then the matrix
10. The matrix A = ê3/2 3 2 1ú is a
A is called a matrix of order ê ú
êë 4 3 - 1úû
(a) m ´ n (b) n ´ m (c) m n (d) n m
(a) column matrix of order 3 ´ 1
2. If A is a 3 ´ 2 matrix, B is a 3 ´ 3 matrix and C is a 2 ´ 3 matrix,
(b) rectangular matrix of order 3
then the elements in A, B and C are respectively
(c) row matrix of order 1 ´ 3
(a) 6, 9, 8 (b) 6, 9, 6 (c) 9, 6, 6 (d) 6, 6, 9 (d) square matrix of order 3
3. If A is an m ´ n matrix with entries aij , then the matrix A can 11. If A is a square matrix of order m with elements aij , then
be represented as
(a) A = [aij ]n ´ n (b) A = [aji ]m ´ n
(a) A = [aij ]m ´ n (b) A = [aji ]m ´ n
(c) A = [aij ]m ´ m (d) A = [aji ]n ´ n
(c) A = [aij ]n ´ m (d) A = [aji ]n ´ m
12. A square matrix B = [b ij ]m ´ m is said to be a diagonal matrix, if
4. If any point ( x, y ) in a plane is represented by a matrix
éxù (a) all its non-diagonal elements are non-zero
(column or row) as ê ú or [x, y], then the matrix i.e. b ji ¹ 0; i ¹ j
ëyû
representation of a point P (0, 1) as column is given by (b) all its diagonal elements are zero i.e. b ii = 0, i = j
(c) all its non-diagonal elements are zero
é 0ù é1 ù i.e. b ij = 0 when i ¹ j
(a) [0 1] (b) ê ú (c) [0, 1] (d) ê ú
ë1 û ë 0û (d) None of the above
i
5. A 2 ´ 2 matrix A = [aij ], whose elements are given by aij = , is 13. Two matrices A = [aij ] and B = [b ij ] are said to be equal, if they
j
are of same order and for all i and j
é1 1/2ù é 1 2ù
(a) ê ú (b) ê (a) aij = b ji (b) aij = b ij
ë2 1 û ë1/2 1úû
(c) aij = - b ij (d) aij + b ij = 0
é1/2 1ù é1/2 1ù
(c) ê ú (d) ê
ë 2 1û ë 1 2úû 14. The values of a, b, c and d from the following equation are
é2a + b a - 2b ù é 4 - 3ù
6. The number of all possible matrices of order 3 ´ 3 with each ê 5c - d 4c + 3d ú = ê11 24ú
ë û ë û
entry 0 or 1 is
(a) a = 1, b = 2, c = 3 and d = 4
(a) 27 (b) 18
(b) a = 2, b = 1, c = 3 and d = 4
(c) 81 (d) 512
(c) a = 1, b = 2, c = 4 and d = 3
é 4 -2 1 3ù
(d) a = 4, b = 2, c = 1 and d = 3
7. If A = [aij ]3 ´ 4 is matrix given by A = ê 5 7 9 6ú.
ê ú é 0 0 5ù
êë21 15 18 - 25úû
15. The matrix A = ê 0 5 0ú is a
ê ú
Then, a23 + a24 will be equal to the element êë 5 0 0úû
(a) a 14 (b) a 44 (a) scalar matrix (b) diagonal matrix
(c) a 13 (d) a 32
(c) unit matrix (d) square matrix
8. How many matrices are possible of order 2 ´ 2 with the
16. From the following matrix equation, the value of x is
numbers 0, 1 and 2 such that each element of the matrix is
é x + y 4 ù é3 4ù
non-zero? ê 5 =
4 4 ë 3 y úû êë 5 6úû
(a) 3 (b) 2
(c) 4 2 (d) 4 3 (a) 2 (b) 1 (c) 3 (d) - 1
9. A matrix is said to be a row matrix, if it has only é x - y - zù é 0ù
17. If ê - y + z ú = ê 5ú, then the values of x, y and z are
(a) three rows ê ú ê ú
êë z úû êë3 úû
(b) two rows
(c) one row respectively
(d) None of the above (a) 5, 2, 2 (b) 1, - 2, 3 (c) 0, - 3 , 3 (d) 11, 8, 3
Mathematics 21
é7 0ù é3 0ù
18. If A = [aij ] and B = [b ij ] are two matrices of the same order, say 26. If X + Y = ê ú and X - Y = ê 0 3ú, then X and Y are
ë2 5û ë û
m ´ n, then the sum of the two matrices A and B is defined as a
respectively
matrix C = [c ij ]m ´ n, where for all possible values of i and j.
(a) c ij = aij + b ji (b) c ij = aji + b ij
é2 0ù é5 0 ù é5 0ù é2 0 ù
(c) c ji = aij + b ij (d) c ij = aij + b ij (a) ê ú and ê ú (b) ê ú and ê ú
ë1 1û ë1 4 û ë1 4û ë1 1 û
é2 4ù é 1 3ù
19. Let A = ê ú and B = ê - 2 5ú, then A + B is equal to é5 1ù é 2 1ù é2 1ù é 5 1ù
ë3 2û ë û (c) ê and ê (d) ê and ê
ë0 4 úû ú
ë 0 1û ë0 1úû ú
ë 0 4û
é3 7 ù é2 7 ù é3 4 ù é3 3 ù
(a) ê ú (b) ê ú (c) ê ú (d) ê ú é3 - 1ù
ë1 7 û ë3 7 û ë1 2 û ë1 5 û 27. The additive inverse of the matrix A = ê is
2 ë 5úû
é - 1 4 - 6ù é12 7 6ù
é - 3 0ù é-3 1ù
20. Compute ê 8 5 16ú + ê 8 0 5ú. (a) ê ú (b) ê ú
ê ú ê ú
êë 2 8 5úû êë 3 2 4úû ë - 2 0û ë - 2 - 5û
é 3 1ù é-3 1ù
é 11 3 0ù é 11 11 0 ù (c) ê ú (d) ê ú
ë5 2û ë 2 - 5 û
(a) ê16 5 11ú (b) ê16 5 11ú
ê ú ê ú
êë 5 6 9 úû êë 5 10 1 úû é cos q sin q ù é sin q - cos qù
28. cos q ê ú + sin êcos q is equal to
é 11 11 0 ù é 11 11 12ù ë - sin q cos qû ë sin qúû
(c) ê16 5 21ú (d) ê16 5 11ú
ê ú ê ú
êë 5 10 9 úû êë 5 10 1 úû é 0 1ù é 1 0ù é1 0 ù é 0 1ù
(a) ê ú (b) ê ú (c) ê ú (d) ê ú
ë 1 0û ë 0 1û ë1 0 û ë 0 1û
é2 3ù é1 3 2ù é1ù é 4 6 8ù
21. If A = ê ú, B = ê 4 3 1ú, C = ê2ú and D = ê 5 7 9ú, then
ë1 2û ë û ë û ë û é2ù é - 1ù é10ù
29. If x ê ú + y ê ú = ê ú, then x and y are
which of the options is defined? ë3û ë 1û ë 5 û
(a) A + B (b) B + C (c) C + D (d) B + D (a) x = 3 and y = 4 (b) x = 3 and y = - 4
é2 4ù é - 2 5ù (c) x = 4 and y = 3 (d) x = - 4 and y = 3
22. If A = ê ú and C = ê 3 4ú , then 3A - C is
ë3 2û ë û é2ù é3ù é - 8ù
30. The value of x and y such that x ê ú + y ê ú + ê ú = 0 are
é 8 2ù é8 5ù ë1û ë 5û ë - 11û
(a) ê ú (b) ê
ë 6 7û ë6 4 úû (a) x = 1 and y = 2 (b) x = 2 and y = 1
é 8 7ù é2 7ù (c) x = - 2 and y = - 1 (d) x = - 1 and y = - 1
(c) ê ú (d) ê
ë 6 2û ë3 2úû
31. The matrix C = [c ik ]m ´ p is the product of A = [aij ]m ´ n and
é2 5ù é2 3 1 ù
ê3 1 B = [b jk ]n ´ p , where c ik is
3ú ê5 5 ú
ê1 2 4ú ê1 2 4 ú n p
23. If A = ê
ê3 3 3ú
ú and B = ê
ê 5 5 5ú
ú, then (a) c ik = å bjk aij (b) c ik = å aij bjk
j =1 k =1
ê7 2
2ú ê7 6 2 ú n n
êë 3 3 úû êë 5 5 5úû (c) c ik = å aijbjk (d) c ik = å aijbjk
j =1 j =1
3 A - 5B is
é 6 9ù é2 6 0ù
32. If A = ê ú and B = ê7 9 8ú, then AB is
é1 0 0ù é0 0 0ù é0 1 0ù é0 0 1ù ë 2 3û ë û
(a) ê 0 0 0 ú (b) ê 0 0 0 ú (c) ê1 0 0 ú (d) ê0 0 1ú é 75 25 117 ù é 75 117 72ù
ê ú ê ú ê ú ê ú (a) ê (b) ê
êë 0 1 0 úû êë 0 0 0 úû êë 0 0 0 úû êë 1 0 0 úû ë 72 39 24 úû ú
ë 25 39 24 û
é 72 29 24 ù
(c) ê (d) not defined
24. If A and B are two matrices of the order 3 ´ m and 3 ´ n ,
ë 75 25 117 úû
respectively and m = n, then the order of the matrix (5A - 2B )
is 33. If AB is defined, then BA need not be defined.
(a) m ´ 3 (b) 3 ´ 3 é 6 9ù é2 6 0ù
(c) m ´ n (d) 3 ´ n Now, let A = ê ú and B = ê7 9 8ú , then BA is
ë 2 3 û ë û
25. If the matrices A = [aij ] and B = [b ij ] are of same order, say é12 25 ù é 72 29 24 ù
(a) ê ú (b) ê ú
m ´ n, satisfy the commutative law, then ë39 72û ë 75 25 117 û
(a) A + B = B - A (b) A + B = B + A é 75 117 72ù
(c) ê ú (d) not defined
(c) A + B = A - B (d) None of these ë 25 39 24 û
é 2 3ù é 4 1ù
é 1 - 2 3ù ê 4 5ú, then é2 1 2ù ê ú
34. If A = ê and B = 37. If A = ê ú and B = ê 2 3ú, then
ë- 4 2 5úû ê ú
ë1 2 4û
êë 2 1úû êë 1 2úû
(a) AB is not defined (a) AB is not defined

(b) BA is not defined (b) BA is not defined
(c) AB = BA (c) AB and BA both are defined
(d) AB ¹ BA (d) None of the above
é 0 - 1ù é 3 5ù
35. If A = ê and B = ê ú, then 38. If three matrices A, B and C satisfy associative law, then
ë0 2úû ë 0 0û
(a) A (BC ) = (AB )C
é 0 0ù é1 1ù
(a) AB = ê ú (b) AB = ê (b) A + BC = AB + C
ë 0 0û ë1 1úû
(c) A - BC = AC - B
é 1 0ù é0 1ù
(d) A (BC ) = (AC ) B
(c) AB = ê ú (d) AB = ê
ë 0 1û ë0 1úû
é 3 - 2ù é 1 0ù
39. If A = ê ú and I = ê 0 1ú, then the value of k such that
é a bù éa - b ù ë 4 - 2û ë û
36. The product ê ú êb is equal to
ë - b aû ë aúû A2 = kA - 2I, is
éa 2 + b 2 0 ù é(a + b )2 0ù (a) - 1 (b) 2 (c) - 2 (d) 1
(a) ê ú (b) ê ú
ë 0 a + b2û
2
ë(a + b )
2
0û
40. If A = [aij ]m ´ n, then A ¢ is equal to
éa 2 + b 2 0ù é a 0ù
(c) ê 2 2 ú (d) ê ú (a) [aji ]n ´ m (b) [aij ]m ´ n (c) [aji ]m ´ n (d) [aij ]n ´ m
ëa + b 0û ë0 bû
Solutions
1 Since, the matrix of order 2 ´ 2 has 4
1. (a) A matrix having m rows and n \ a11 = 1, a12 = , a21 = 2 and a22 = 1
2 elements and each element has 2
columns is called a matrix of order m ´ n
é 1 1/2 ù choices i.e. 1 or 2.
or simply m ´ n matrix. Thus, matrix A is ê ú. \ The possible number of matrices
ë2 1û
2. (b) If A is a 3 ´ 2 matrix, then A has is 2 4 .
3 ´ 2 = 6 elements 6. (d) In a 3 ´ 3 matrix, there are 9
9. (c) A matrix is said to be a row matrix if
Similarly, if B is a 3 ´ 3 matrix, then B has elements and it is given that each it has only one row.
3 ´ 3 = 9 elements element can take two values. So, the
total number of matrices having 0 and 1 é 3 - 1 0ù
and C has 2 ´ 3 = 6 elements. ê3 ú
as their elements is 2 9 = 512. 10. (d) A = ê 3 2 1ú is a square
ê42
3. (a) Since, A is an m ´ n matrix with ë 3 - 1úû
7. (d) The given matrix is
entries aij . matrix of order 3.
é 4 -2 1 3ù
\ A can be represented as
A=ê 5 7 9 6ú 11. (c) In general, A = [ aij ]m ´ m is a square
ê ú
A = [ aij ]m ´ n êë21 15 18 - 25úû matrix of order m.
4. (b) The matrix representation of a point Here, a23 = 9
é 0ù 12. (c) A square matrix B = [ bij ]m ´ m is said
P [ 0, 1] is given as P = ê ú or [0, 1]. and a24 = 6
ë1 û to be a diagonal matrix if all its
\ a23 + a24 = 15 non-diagonal elements are zero, i.e. a
é 0ù matrix B = [ bij ]m ´ m is said to be a
Thus, its column representation is ê ú. Also, 15 lies in 3rd row and 2nd
ë1 û column. diagonal matrix if bij = 0, when i ¹ j.
\ 15 = a32 13. (b) Two matrices A = [ aij ] and B = [ bij ]

5. (a) In general, the matrix A of order
2 ´ 2 is given by are said to be equal if
8. (b) Since, we need the matrices of
éa a ù order 2 ´ 2 such that none of the (i) they are of the same order.
A = ê 11 12ú
ë a 21 a 22û element is zero. (ii) each element of A is equal to the
i So, the required matrices will have corresponding element of B,
Now, aij = ; i = 1, 2 and j = 1, 2
j either 1 or 2 or both as their elements. i.e. aij = bij " i and j.
Mathematics 23
é2 + 1 4 + 3ù same order, say m ´ n, then

14. (a) By equality of two matrices, =ê ú
ë3 - 2 2 + 5û A+ B=B+ A
equating the corresponding elements,
we get Now, A + B = [ aij ] + [ bij ] = [ aij + bij ]
é3 7 ù
2a + b = 4 =ê ú
ë1 7 û = [ bij + aij ]
5 c - d = 11
[Qaddition of numbers is
a - 2 b = -3
20. (c) Consider, commutative]
4 c + 3d = 24
é -1 4 -6 ù é12 7 6 ù = ([ bij ] + [ aij ]) = B + A
On solving these equations, we get ê 8 5 16 ú + ê 8 0 5ú
a = 1, b = 2 , c = 3 and d = 4 ê ú ê ú é7 0ù
êë 2 8 5úû êë 3 2 4 úû 26. (b) Given, X + Y = ê ú ...(i)
ë2 5û
é 0 0 5ù
é -1 + 12 4 + 7 -6 + 6 ù
15. (d) Consider the matrix A = ê 0 5 0ú é3 0ù
ê ú = ê 8 + 8 5 + 0 16 + 5ú and X -Y = ê ú ...(ii)
êë 5 0 0úû ê ú ë 0 3û
êë 2 + 3 8 + 2 5 + 4 úû
This matrix is not a diagonal matrix On adding Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get
and hence cannot be a scalar and unit é11 11 0 ù
é7 0ù é3 0ù é10 0ù
matrix, because its non-diagonal = ê16 5 21ú 2X = ê ú+ ê ú=ê ú
ê ú
elements are non-zero. êë 5 10 9 úû ë2 5û ë 0 3û ë 2 8 û
\ It is just a square matrix. 1 é10 0ù é 5 0ù
Þ X= ê ú=ê ú
21. (d) Only B + D is defined, since the 2 ë 2 8 û ë1 4 û
16. (b) The given matrix equation is matrices B and D are of same order.
éx + y 4ù é3 4ù On subtracting Eq. (ii) from Eq. (i) ,we
ê5 = é2 4 ù é -2 5ù
ë 3y úû êë 5 6 úû 22. (c) 3A - C = 3 ê ú-ê ú get
ë3 2 û ë 3 4 û
On equating the corresponding é7 0ù é3 0ù é 4 0ù
elements, we get é6 12 ù é -2 5ù 2Y = ê ú-ê ú=ê ú
=ê ú-ê ú ë2 5û ë 0 3û ë2 2 û
x + y = 3 and 3y = 6 ë9 6 û ë 3 4 û
Þ y = 2 and x + 2 = 3
é6 - ( -2) 12 - 5ù 1 é 4 0ù é2 0ù
x = 1 and y = 2 =ê Þ Y = ê2 2 ú = ê1 1 ú
ë 9 -3 6 - 4 úû 2 ë û ë û
17. (b) The given matrix equation is é3 -1ù
é8 7 ù 27. (b) The given matrix is A = ê .
=ê
éx - y - z ù é 0ù ú
ë6 2 û 2 ë 5 úû
ê -y + z ú = ê 5ú
ê ú ê ú Then, its additive inverse is -A.
é2 /3 1 5/3ù
êë z úû êë3úû
23. (b) 3A – 5B = 3 êê1/3 2 /3 4 /3úú Þ - A = ( -1) A
On equating the corresponding ê7 /3 2 2 /3ú é3 -1ù é -3 1ù
elements, we get ë û = ( -1) ê ú= ê ú
ë2 5 û ë -2 -5û
x - y - z = 0, - y + z = 5 and z = 3 é2 / 5 3/ 5 1 ù
Þ -y + 3= 5 ê ú
- 5 ê1/ 5 2 / 5 4 / 5ú 28. (b) Consider,
Þ y = -2 ê7 / 5 6 / 5 2 / 5ú
ë û é cos q sin q ù
Þ x - ( - 2) - 3 = 0 cos q ê ú
Þ x =1 é2 3 5ù é2 3 5ù ë - sin q cos qû
\ x = 1, y = - 2 and z = 3 =ê1 2 4 ú - ê1 2 4 ú é sin q - cos qù
ê ú ê ú + sin q ê ú
êë7 6 2 úû êë7 6 2 úû ë cos q sin q û
18. (d) In general, if A = [ aij ] and B = [ bij ]
é 0 0 0ù é cos2 q sin q cos qù
are two matrices of the same order, say =ê ú
m ´ n, then the sum of the two matrices = ê 0 0 0ú ë - sin q cos q cos2 q û
ê ú
A and B is defined as a matrix êë 0 0 0úû é sin2 q - cos q sin qù
C = [ cij ]m ´ n , where cij = aij + bij , for all + ê ú
possible values of i and j. ë cos q sin q sin2 q û
24. (d) Given that A and B are two matrices
é2 4 ù of order 3 ´ m and 3 ´ n and m = n. é cos2 q + sin2 q
19. (a) The given matrices are A = ê ú =ê
ë3 2 û Þ The order of 5A is 3 ´ m and 2B is ë - sin q cos q + cos q sin q
é 1 3ù 3 ´ n, where m = n.
and B = ê ú sin q cos q - cos q sin qù
Þ The order of 5A - 2B is 3´ m or 3 ´ n
ë -2 5û cos2 q + sin2 q ú
[Q m = n] û
é2 4 ù é 1 3ù
Then, A + B = ê ú+ ê ú é1 0ù
=ê [Qsin2 q + cos2 q = 1]
ë3 2 û ë -2 5û 25. (b) Commutative law If ú
A = [ aij ] and B = [ bij ] are matrices of the ë 0 1û
é2 ù é -1ù é10ù é a bù é a - bù
29. (b) If x ê ú + y ê ú = ê ú 32. (b) The matrix A has 2 columns which 36. (a) ê ú ê ú
ë3 û ë 1 û ë 5û is equal to the number of rows of B. ë- b aû ëb aû
é2 x + y ( -1) ù é10ù Hence, AB is defined. é aá+ b´b a ´ ( - b) + b ´ aù

Þ ê ú=ê ú =ê ú
ë 3x + y û ë 5 û é6 (2) + 9 (7) 6 (6) + 9 (9) ë( - b) ´ a + a ´ b ( - b) ´ ( - b) + a ´ aû
Now, AB = ê
By definition of equality of matrices as ë2 (2) + 3(7) 2 (6) + 3 (9) é a 2 + b 2 - ab + ab ù
the given matrices are equal, their 6 ( 0) + 9 (8) ù =ê ú
ë - ab + ab b 2+ a 2 û
corresponding elements are equal. 2 ( 0) + 3 (8) úû
Comparing the corresponding é a 2+ b 2 0 ù
é12 + 63 36 + 81 0 + 72 ù =ê ú
elements, we get =ê 0 b 2
+ a2 û
ú ë
2 x - y = 10 …(i) ë 4 + 21 12 + 27 0 + 24 û
é2 1 2ù
and 3x + y = 5 …(ii) é75 117 72 ù 37. (c) Given that A = ê ú and
=ê ú ë 1 2 4û
On adding Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get ë25 39 24 û é 4 1ù
5x = 15 é6 9 ù é2 6 0ù B = ê 2 3ú
33. (d) Here, A = ê ê ú
ú and B = ê7 9 8 ú êë 1 2 úû
Þ x= 3 ë2 3û ë û
On substituting x = 3 in Eq. (i), we get Now, the order of A = 2 ´ 3
If AB is defined, then BA need not be
2 ´ 3 - y = 10 defined. In the above example, AB is and the order of B = 3 ´ 2
Þ y = 6 - 10 = - 4 defined but BA is not defined because B QThe number of columns in A is equal
has 3 columns, while A has only 2 (and to the number of rows in B.
30. (a) Consider, not 3) rows. \ AB is well-defined.
é2 ù é3 ù é - 8 ù Also, the number of columns in B is
xê ú+y ê ú+ ê ú = O, 34. (d) Since, A is a 2 ´ 3 matrix and B is
ë1 û ë 5û ë -11û equal to the number of rows in A.
3 ´ 2 matrix. Hence, AB and BA are both
defined and are matrices of order 2 ´ 2 \ BA is also well-defined.
where O is a null matrix.
and 3 ´ 3, respectively.
38. (a) The associative law For any three
é2 xù é3y ù é -8 ù
Þ ê ú+ ê ú+ ê ú =O
Note that matrices A , B and C , we have
ë x û ë 5y û ë -11û é 2 3ù ( AB) C = A (BC ), whenever both sides of
é 1 - 2 3ù ê 4 5ú the equalities are defined.
é2 x + 3y - 8 ù é 0ù AB = ê
Þ ê x + 5y - 11ú = ê 0ú ë- 4 2 5úû ê ú
ë û ë û êë 2 1úû 39. (d) Given, A 2 = kA - 2I
On equating the corresponding é 2 -8 + 6 3 - 10 + 3ù
Þ AA = kA - 2I
=ê
elements, we get
ë - 8 + 8 + 10 - 12 + 10 + 5úû -
é 3 2 ù é 3 - 2ù
2 x + 3y - 8 = 0 Þê úê ú
é 0 - 4ù ë4 - 2û ë4 - 2û
=ê
Þ 2 x + 3y = 8 …(i)
ë10 3úû é 3 - 2ù é 1 0ù
x + 5y - 11 = 0 =kê ú - 2 ê 0 1ú
é 2 3ù ë 4 - 2 û ë û
é 1 - 2 3ù
Þ x + 5y = 11 …(ii) and BA = ê 4 5ú ê é 9 - 8 - 6 + 4ù
ê ú -4 2 5úû Þ ê ú
On solving Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get êë 2 1úû ë ë12 - 8 - 8 + 4 û
x = 1 and y = 2 é 2 - 12 - 4 + 6 6 + 15ù é 3k - 2kù é2 0ù
=ê ú-ê ú
= ê 4 - 20 - 8 + 10 12 + 25ú ë 4k - 2kû ë 0 2 û
31. (c) If A = [ aij ]m ´ n and B = [ bjk ]n ´ p , ê ú
êë 2 - 4 - 4 + 2 6 + 5úû é 1 - 2 ù é3k - 2 - 2kù
Þ ê ú=ê ú
then the ith row of A is [ ai1 ai 2 × × × ain ] and ë 4 - 4 û ë 4k - 2 k - 2û
é - 10 2 21ù
= ê - 16 2 37 ú
é b1k ù By definition of equality of matrix as
ê ú ê ú the given matrices are equal, their
b êë - 2 - 2 11úû
the kth column of B is ê 2k ú , then corresponding elements are equal.
ê M ú Comparing the corresponding
ê ú Clearly, AB ¹ BA elements, we get
ë bnk û
Note that here AB and BA are of 3k - 2 = 1 Þ k = 1
cik = ai1 b1k + ai 2 b2k + ai3 b3 k different orders. - 2k = - 2 Þ k = 1
n 4k = 4 Þ k = 1
+ × × × + ain bnk = S aij bjk. 35. (a) Zero matrix as the product of two
j =1 - 4 = - 2k - 2 Þ k = 1
non-zero matrices
The matrix C = [ cik ]m ´ p is the product of Hence, k = 1
é 0 - 1ù é 3 5ù é 0 0ù
A and B. AB = ê úê ú=ê ú 40. (a) If A = [ aij ]m ´ n , then A ¢ = [ aji ]n ´ m .
ë 0 2 û ë 0 0û ë 0 0û
Mathematics 25
CHAPTER 04
Determinants
1. Determinant (v) If the element of any row (column) of a determinant is
Every square matrix A of order n is associated with a added k times, the corresponding element of any other row
(column) of the determinant, then the value of the
number, called its determinant and it is denoted by det(A)
determinant remains same.
or A .
(vi) If some or all elements of a row (column) of a determinant
2. Determinant of Matrix of Order 1 are expressed as sum of two (more) terms, then such
Let A = [a] be a square matrix of order 1, then | A| = | a| = a, determinant can be expressed as sum of two (more)
i.e. element itself is determinant. determinants of the same order.
(vii) If all elements of any two rows (column) of a determinant
3. Determinant of Matrix of Order 2 are proportional, then the value of such determinant
a11 a12 becomes zero.
det( A) or |A| = = a11 a22 - a12 a21
a21 a22
(viii) If all the elements of any row (column) of a determinant are
zero, then the value of such determinant becomes zero.
4. Determinant of Matrix of Order 3
a11 a12 a13 6. Area of Triangle
det( A) = | A| = a21 a22 a23 Let A(x1, y1 ), B(x 2 , y2 ) and C(x 3 , y3 ) be the vertices of a DABC.
a31 a32 a33 Then, its area is given by
= a11 (a22 a33 - a32 a23 ) - a12 (a21a33 - a31a23 ) x1 y1 1
1
+ a13 (a21a32 - a31a22 ) D= x2 y 2 1
2
[expanding along R1] x3 y3 1
1
Note We can expand the above determinant corresponding to = × |[ x1(y 2 - y3 ) + x2(y3 - y1) + x3 (y1 - y 2) ]|
2
any row or column. If A is n ´ n matrix, then | kA | = k n | A |.
Note ■ Area is positive quantity. So, we always take the
5. Properties of Determinants absolute value of the determinant.
■ If area is given, then use both positive and negative
(i) If the rows and columns of a determinant are interchanged, values of the determinant for calculation.
then the value of the determinant remains unchanged.
(ii) If any two rows (columns) of a determinant are 7. Condition of Collinearity for Three Points
interchanged, then sign of such determinant becomes Three points A(x1, y1 ), B(x 2 , y2 ) and C(x 3 , y3 ) are collinear if
change. and only if the area of triangle formed by these three points
(iii) If any two rows (columns) of a determinant are identical, is zero.
then the value of such determinant is zero. x1 y1 1
(iv) If each element of a row (column) is multiplied by a i.e. x2 y2 1 = 0
constant k, then the value of the determinant is multiplied
x3 y3 1
by constant k.
8. Minors such matrix B is called an inverse of matrix A. It is denoted

1
Minor of an element aij of a determinant is the determinant by A-1 and is given by A-1 = [adj ( A)] .
| A|
obtained by deleting i th row and jth column in which
element aij lies. It is denoted by Mij.
14. Properties of Inverse of a Matrix
a11 a12 a13
e.g. If A = a21 a22 a23 , then (i) ( A -1)-1 = A
a31 a32 a33 (ii) ( AB)-1 = B-1A -1
Minors of elements of A are (iii) ( AT )-1 = ( A -1)T
a22 a23 a a
M11 = , M12 = 21 23
a32 a33 a31 a33 (iv) | A -1| =| A|-1
a21 a22 (v) AA -1 = A -1A = I
and M13 = , etc.
a31 a32
1 -1
(vi) ( kA )-1 = A , where k ¹ O
Note The minor of an element of a determinant of order k
n (n ³ 2) is a determinant of order n - 1.
15. Consistent and Inconsistent System
9. Cofactors A system of equations is consistent or inconsistent
If M ij is the minor of an element aij, then the cofactor of aij is according as its solution exist or not.
denoted by Cij or A ij and defined as follows
Aij or Cij = (- 1)i + j Mij 16. Solution of System of Linear Equations
Let the system of linear equations be
Note If elements of a row (column) are multiplied with
cofactors of any other row (column), then their sum a1x + b1 y + c1 z = d1,
is zero. a2 x + b2 y + c 2 z = d 2
10. Singular and Non-singular Matrices and a3 x + b3 y + c 3 z = d 3 .

A square matrix A is said to be a singular matrix, if A = 0 Then, in matrix form, this system of equations can be written
and if A ¹ 0, then matrix A is said to be non-singular matrix. as AX = B.
é a1 b1 c1 ù é xù é d1 ù
11. Adjoint of a Matrix where, A = a2 b2 c 2 , X = y and B = êd 2 ú
ê ú ê ú
ê ú ê ú ê ú
The adjoint of a square matrix A is defined as the transpose êë a3 b3 c 3 úû êë z úû êëd 3 úû
of the matrix formed by cofactors of elements of A.
Let A = [ aij ] n ´ n be a square matrix, then adjoint of A, 17. Solution of System of Linear Equations
i.e. adj ( A) = CT , where C = [c i j ] is the cofactor matrix of A .
(i) When B ¹ O
(a) If| A| ¹ 0, then system of equations is consistent and
12. Properties of Adjoint of Square Matrix
has unique solution given by X = A-1B.
If A and B are two square matrices of order n, then
(b) If | A| = 0 and (adj A) B ¹ O, then there exists no
(i) adj ( AT ) = (adj A )T solution, i.e. system of equations is inconsistent.
(ii) adj ( kA ) = k n- 1(adj A ), k Î R (c) If| A| = 0 and (adj A) B = O, then system may be either
(iii) (adj AB) = (adj B) (adj A ) consistent or inconsistent according as the system
have either infinitely many solution or no solution.
(iv) | adj A| = | A |n - 1, if| A | ¹ 0
2 é 0ù
(v) |adj [adj ( A )]| = | A|( n- 1) , if| A | ¹ 0
(ii) When B = ê 0ú in such cases, we have
ê ú
(vi) adj (adj A ) = | A|n - 2 × A êë 0úû
13. Inverse of a Matrix (a)| A| ¹ 0 Þ System has only trivial solution
Suppose A is a non-zero square matrix of order n and there i.e. x = 0, y = 0 and z = 0
exists matrix B of same order n such thatAB = BA = In , then (b) | A| = 0 Þ System has infinitely many solutions.
Mathematics 27
Practice Questions
2 3 -2
1. The nature of solution of the system of linear equations
10. Evaluate D = 1 2 3.
a1x + b1y = c1
-2 1 -3
a2x + b2y = c2
(a) -37 (b) 37
is determined by the number
(c) 26 (d) -26
(a) a 1b 2 - a 2b 1 (b) a 1 b 1 - a 2b 2
sin10° - cos 10°
(c) a 1 a 2 - b 2b 1 (d) a 1 b 2 - b 2 a 1 + 1 11. The value of is
sin 80° cos 80°
éa b ù
2. If A = ê ú, then determinant of A is written as (a) -1 (b) 1
ëc d û (c) 2 (d) 0
a b a c
(a) | A | = (b) | A | = a + ib c + id
c d d b 12. If D = , then D is equal to
-c + id a - ib
a c a b
(c) | A | = (d) | A | = (a) a 2 + b 2 + c 2 + d 2 (b) a 2 - b 2 - c 2 - d 2
b d d c
(c) a 2 - b 2 + c 2 - d 2 (d) a 2 - b 2 - c 2 + d 2
éa a ù
3. If A = ê 11 12 ú is a matrix of order 2 ´ 2, then| A |is equal to 13. If A is a square matrix, then
ë a21 a22 û
(a) det(A) = - det(A ¢) (b) det(A) = 2 det(A ¢)
(a) a 11 a 22 - a 12 a 21 (b) a 11 a 12 - a 21 a 22
(c) det(A) = det(A ¢) (d) det(A) = 3 det(A ¢)
(c) a 11 a 21 - a 12 a 22 (d) a 11 a 22 + a 12 a 21
2 4 14. If each element of a row (or a column) of a determinant is
4. The value of the determinant is
-1 2 multiplied by a constant k, then its value gets …A… by k.
Here, A refers to
(a) -8 (b) 8
(a) added (b) subtracted
(c) 2 (d) 0
(c) divided (d) multiplied
5. While expanding the determinant, instead of multiplying by
15. If some or all elements of a row or column of a determinant
(-1)i + j , we can multiply by +1 or -1 according as i + j is
are expressed as sum of two (or more) terms, then the
(a) odd or even (b) even or odd determinant can be expressed as …A… of two (or more)
(c) even (d) odd determinants.
0 sin a - cos a Here, A refers to
6. If D = - sin a 0 sinb , then D is equal to (a) sum (b) product
cos a - sinb 0 (c) difference (d) None of these
(a) -1 (b) 1 16. If D1 is the determinant obtained by applying Ri ® kRi or
(c) 0 (d) -2 C i ® kC i , to the determinant D, then
é1 0 1 ù (a) D1 = kD (b) D1 = - D
7. If A = ê 0 1 2ú , then|3A |is equal to 1
ê ú (c) D1 = - kD (d) D1 = D
êë 0 0 4úû k
(a) 6 | A | (b) 3 | A | 17. The value of the determinant
(c) 9 | A | (d) 27 | A | b+c q+ r y+ z
é1 1 -2ù c + a r + p z + x is
8. If A = ê2 1 -3ú , then| A |is equal to
ê ú a+ b p + q x+ y
êë 5 4 -9úû
a p x a p x
(a) 0 (b) 6 (c) 3 (d) -3 (a) 2 b q y (b) b q y
é 1 2 3ù c r z c r z
9. If A = ê ú, then | A | is
ë -4 -5 6û a p x
(a) 2 (b) 0 (c) - b q y (d) 0
(c) -2 (d) Does not exist c r z
18. Which of the following is/are correct? 26. If area of triangle is 4 sq units with vertices
x a x+a 2 7 65 (k, 0), (4, 0) and (0, 2), then values of k are
(a) y b y + b = 0 (b) 3 8 75 = 0 (a) 0, 8 (b) 0, -8
z c z +c 5 9 86 (c) 0, 6 (d) 0, -6
0 a -b 27. If the points (a1 , b1 ), (a2 , b2 ) and (a1 + a2 , b1 + b2 ) are collinear,
(c) -a 0 -c = 0 (d) All are correct then
b c 0 (a) a1b1 = a2b 2 (b) a1b 2 = a2b1
1 + a2 - b2 2ab -2b (c) a1a2 = b1b 2 (d) a1 - b 2 = a2 - b1
19. If D = 2ab 1 - a2 + b2 2a , then D is equal 28. If the points (2, - 3), (l, - 1) and (0, 4) are collinear, then the
2b -2a 1 - a2 - b2 value of l is
to -10 10 2 7
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(a) (1 + a + b ) 3
(b) (1 - a - b ) 3 7 7 7 2
(c) (1 + a 2 + b 2 )2 (d) (1 + a 2 + b 2 )3 1 2 3
2 2 29. The minor of element 6 in the determinant D = 4 5 6 is
a bc ac + c
7 8 9
20. The value of D = a2 + ab b2 ac is
ab b2 + bc c2 (a) - 6 (b) 6 (c) 22 (d) - 22
2 2 2 a11 a12 a13
(a) 0 (b) - 4a b c
30. For D = a21 a22 a23 , if D = a11 A21 + a12 A22 + a13 A23 , then D
2 2 2
(c) 4a b c (d) a 2b 2c 2 a31 a32 a33
b2c 2 bc b + c is equal to
21. If D = c 2 a2 ca c + a , then D is equal to (a) 1 (b) - 1 (c) 0 (d) 2
a2b2 ab a + b 1 0 0
(a) abc (b) a 2b 2 31. If D = 0 1 0 , then
(c) 0 (d) - ab 0 0 1
22. If A is a skew-symmetric matrix of odd order n, then (a) M 23 = 0, A13 = 0, A 33 = 1

(b) M 21 = 0, M 22 = - 1, A 31 = 0
(a) | A | = 0 (b) | A | = - 1
(c) M11 = - 1, A12 = 0, A 32 = 0
(c) | A | = | A ¢ | (d) None of these
a 1 1 (d) M 22 = - 1, A11 = - 1, A 31 = 1
23. If the value of the determinant 1 b 1 is positive, then a11 a12 a13
1 1 c 32. If D = a21 a22 a23 and Aij is cofactor of aij , then value of D
a31 a32 a33
(a) abc > 1 (b) abc > - 8
(c) abc < - 8 (d) abc > - 2 is
(a) a 11 A 31 + a 12 A 32 + a 13 A33
24. The area of triangle with vertices ( x1 , y1 ), ( x2 , y2 ) and ( x3 , y3 ) (b) a11 A11 + a12 A 21 + a13 A 31
in the form of a determinant is (c) a 21 A11 + a 22 A12 + a 23 A13
x1 y 1 1 x1 y 1 1 (d) a 11A11 + a 21 A 21 + a31A 31
1 1
(a) D = x2 y 2 1 (b) D = y1 y 2 1
2 2 33. If M11 = - 40, M12 = - 10 and M13 = 35 of the determinant
x3 y 3 1 x3 y 3 1
1 3 -2
x1 y1 1 D = 4 - 5 6 , then the value of D is
(c) D = x 2 y 2 1 (d) None of these 3 5 2
x3 y 3 1
(a) - 80 (b) 60 (c) 70 (d) 100
25. The area of the triangle, whose vertices are (3, 8), (-4, 2) and a h g
(5, 1), is 34. If D = h b f , then the cofactor A21 is
g f c
(a) 60 (b) 61
61 (a) - (hc + fg ) (b) fg - hc
(c) (d) 30
2 (c) fg + hc (d) hc - fg
Mathematics 29
1 a bc
38. A square matrix A is said to be singular, if
35. If D = 1 b ca , then the minor M31 is
(a) | A | = 0 (b) | A | ¹ 0 (c) | A | = 1 (d) | A | = - 1
1 c ab
é1 2ù
(a) - c (a 2 - b 2 ) (b) c (b 2 - a 2 ) 39. If A = ê ú, then A is
ë3 4û
(c) c (a 2 + b 2 ) (d) c (a 2 - b 2 )
(a) non-singular (b) singular
é2 3ù
36. If A = ê ú, then adj A is (c) diagonal matrix (d) scalar matrix
ë1 4û
é 1 -1 2ù
é 2 1ù é4 3ù 40. The adjoint of the matrix A = ê 2 3 5ú is
(a) ê ú (b) ê ú ê ú
ë4 3û ë 2 1û êë -2 0 1úû
é4 - 3ù é 4 - 3ù
(c) ê (d) ê é 3 1 - 11ù é 3 - 12 6 ù
ë1 2úû ë-1 2úû
(a) ê - 12 5 - 1ú (b) ê 1 5 2ú
ê ú ê ú
37. If A is any square matrix of order n, then êë 6 2 5 úû êë - 11 -1 5 ûú
(a) A (adj A) = | A | I only é 3 1 11ù é 3 1 - 11ù
(b) (adj A) A = | A | I only (c) ê12 5 1ú (d) ê12 5 - 1ú
ê ú ê ú
(c) A (adj A) = (adj A) A = | A | I êë 6 2 5 úû êë 6 2 5 úû
(d) (adj A) A = - | A | I
Solutions
It can be observed that in the first
1. (a) The system of linear equations 6. (c) By expanding along R1, we get
column, two entries are zero.
a1x + b1y = c1 0 sinb Therefore, we expand the determinant
D=0
a2x + b2y = c2 - sinb 0 along the first column(C1) for easier
has a unique solution or not, is calculation.
- sin a sinb 3 6 0 3
determined by the number a1b2 - a2b1. - sin a | 3A | = 3 -0
cos a 0 0 12 0 12
a b
(recall that, if 1 ¹ 1 or
a2 b2 - sin a 0 0 3
- cos a + 0
a1 b2 - a2 b1 ¹ 0, then the system of cos a - sinb 3 6
linear equations has a unique solution)
= 0 - sin a ( 0 - sinb cos a) = 3 (3 ´ 12 - 0 ´ 6)
éa bù - cos a (sin a sinb - 0)
2. (a) If A = ê ú, then determinant of Þ| 3A | = 3(36) = 108 …(ii)
ëc d û
= sin a sinb cos a - cos a sin a sin b = 0 From Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get
a b
A is written as | A | = = det( A) é1 0 1 ù | 3A | = 27 | A |
c d
7. (d) Given, A = ê 0 1 2 ú
ê ú 8. (a) The given matrix is
éa a ù êë 0 0 4 úû
3. (a) Let A = ê 11 12 ú be a matrix of
ë a21 a22 û é 1 1 -2 ù
It can be observed that in the first
order 2 ´ 2, then the determinant of A is A = ê2 1 -3ú,
column, two entries are zero. ê ú
defined as êë 5 4 -9 úû
Therefore, we expand the determinant
a11 a12 1 1 -2
det ( A) = | A | = D = of matrix A along the first column (C1).
a21 a22 Then, | A | = 2 1 -3
1 2 0 1 0 1
\| A | = 1 -0 + 0
= a11a22 - a21a12 0 4 0 4 1 2 5 4 -9
= 1 (1 ´ 4 - 0 ´ 2) = 4 By expanding along R1 (first row), we

4. (b) We have, get
\ 27 | A | = 27 ´ 4 = 108 …(i)
2 4 1 -3 2 -3
= 2 (2) - 4 ( -1) = 4 + 4 = 8 é1 0 1 ù é3 0 3 ù |A|= 1 -1
-1 2 4 -9 5 -9
Now, 3A = 3 ê 0 1 2 ú = ê0 3 6 ú
ê ú ê ú 2 1
êë 0 0 4 úû êë 0 0 12 úû + ( -2)
5. (b) While expanding the determinant 5 4
instead of multiplying by ( -1)1 + j , we 3 0 3
\ | 3A | = 0 = 1 ( -9 + 12) - 1 ( - 18 + 15) - 2 (8 - 5)
can multiply by + 1 or - 1 according as 3 6
(i + j) is even or odd. 0 0 12 = 13
( ) - 1 ( -3) - 2(3) = 3 + 3 - 6 = 0
By expanding along first row, we get b+ c q+r y+ z

9. (d) The given matrix is
D1 = k a1 ( b2 c3 - b3 c2) 17. (a) Here, c + a r + p z+ x
é 1 2 3ù
A=ê ú - k b1 ( a2 c3 - c2 a3 ) a+ b p+q x+y
ë -4 -5 6 û
+ k c1 ( a2 b3 - b2 a3 ) b + c c+ a a + b
Since, this matrix is not a square
matrix. = k [ a1 ( b2 c3 - b3 c2) = q + r r+ p p + q
- b1 ( a2 c3 - c2 a3 ) y + z z + x x+y
Therefore, its determinant does not
exist. + c1 ( a2 b3 - b2 a3 )]
(interchange row and column)
Hence,
10. (a) The given determinant is b+ c c+ a -2 c
k a1 k b1 k c1 a1 b1 c1
2 3 -2 = q+r r + p -2r
a2 b2 c2 = k a2 b2 c2
D= 1 2 3 y+ z z + x -2 z
a3 b3 c3 a3 b3 c3
-2 1 -3 [using C3 ® C3 - (C1 + C 2)]
By this property, we can take out any b+ c c+ a c
By expanding along second row,
common factor from anyone row or
we get =-2 q + r r+ p r
anyone column of a given determinant.
3 -2 2 -2 y+ z z+ x z
D = -1 +2
1 -3 -2 -3 15. (a) If some or all elements of a row or
(taking -2 common from C3 )
2 3 column of a determinant are expressed
-3 as sum of two (or more) terms, then the b a c
-2 1
determinant can be expressed as sum of = -2 q p r
= - ( -9 + 2) + 2 ( -6 - 4) - 3 (2 + 6) two (or more) determinants. y x z
= 7 - 20 - 24 = - 37 For example,
(using C1 ® C1 - C3 and
a1 + l1 a2 + l 2 a3 + l3
sin10° - cos10° C 2 ® C 2 - C3 )
11. (b) Consider, b1 b2 b3
sin80° cos80° a b c
c1 c2 c3
=2 p q r
= sin10° cos80° + sin80° cos10°
a1 a2 a3 l1 l 2 l3 x y z
= sin (10° + 80° )
= b1 b2 b3 + b1 b2 b3
[Q sin ( A + B) = sin A cosB + cos A sinB] (using C1 « C 2)
c1 c2 c3 c1 c2 c3
= sin (90° ) = 1 (Q sin90° = 1) a p x
Verification =2 b q y
a + ib c + id a1 + l1 a2 + l 2 a3 + l3
12. (a) Consider, D = c r z
- c + id a - ib LHS = b1 b2 b3
(interchange column and row)
= ( a + ib) ( a - ib) - ( c + id )( - c + id ) c1 c2 c3
x a x+ a
= a 2 - iab + iab + b 2 By expanding the determinants along
2 2 the first row, we get 18. (d) Let |A| = y b y+ b
- [ - c + icd - icd - d ]
D = (a1 + l1) ( b2 c3 - c2 b3 ) z c z+ c
(Qi 2 = - 1)
= a2 + b 2 + c 2 + d 2 - ( a2 + l 2) ( b1 c3 - b3 c1) Applying C3 ® C3 - C1 , we get
+ ( a3 + l3 ) (b1 c2 - b2 c1) x a a
13. (c) If A is a square matrix, then
det( A) = det( A ¢), = a1 ( b2 c3 - c2 b3 ) - a2 ( b1 c3 - b3 c1) |A| = y b b = 0
where A ¢ = transpose of A. + a3 ( b1 c2 - b2 c1) z c c
+ l1 ( b2 c3 - c2 b3 ) [since, the two columns
14. (d) If each element of a row (or a
- l 2 (b1 c3 - b3 c1) (C 2 and C3 ) of the
column) of determinant is multiplied by
a constant k, then its value gets + l3 ( b1 c2 - b2 c1) determinant are identical]
multiplied by k. (by rearranging terms) 2 7 65 2 7 65 - 63
a1 b1 c1 a1 a2 a3 l1 l 2 l3 Let |B| = 3 8 75 = 3 8 75 - 72
Verification Let D = a2 b2 c2 = b1 b2 b3 + b1 b2 b3 5 9 86 5 9 86 - 81
a3 b3 c3 c1 c2 c3 c1 c2 c3 (using C3 ® C3 - 9 C 2)
2 7 2
and D1 be the determinant obtained by = RHS
multiplying the elements of the first 3 8 3 =0
row by k. 16. (a) If D1 is the determinant obtained by 5 9 5
k a1 k b1 k c1 applying Ri ® kRi or Ci ® kCi to the (since, the columns C3 and C1 are
Then, D1 = a2 b2 c2 determinant D, then
identical)
a3 b3 c3 D 1 = kD .
Mathematics 31
0 a -b 0 ac - bc 0 c a+ c a 1 1
1 = abc 0 -c a-c 23. (b) 1 b 1 = abc - ( a + b + c) + 2
Let |C |= - a 0 - c = - a 0 - c
c
b c 0 b c 0 2b b + c c 1 1 c
(using R1 ® cR1) (using R2 ® R2 - R3 ) Q D > 0 Þ abc + 2 > a + b + c

ab ac 0 By expanding along C1, we get Þ abc + 2 > 3( abc)1/3
1
= -a 0 - c = ( abc) [(2 b) {c ( a - c) + c ( a + c)}] éQ AM >GM Þ > ( abc)1/3 ùú
a+b+c
c êë
b c 0 2 2 2 2
= 2 ( ab c)(2 ac) = 4 a b c 3 û
(using R1 ® R1 - bR2) Þ x3 + 2 > 3x,
b c 0 21. (c) We have, where x = ( abc)1/3
a b 2c 2 bc b + c Þ x3 - 3x + 2 > 0
= -a 0 - c = 0
c D = c 2a 2 ca c+ a Þ ( x - 1) 2 ( x + 2) > 0
b c 0
a 2b 2 ab a + b Þ x+2>0
(since, the two rows R1 and R3 are
Applying R1 ® a R1, R2 ® b R2 and Þ x > -2
identical)
R3 ® cR3 , we get Þ ( abc)1/3 > - 2
19. (d) Þ abc > - 8
a b 2c 2 abc ab + ac
1+ a - b2 2
2 ab -2 b 1
D= b c 2a 2 abc bc + ba 24. (a) We know that, the area of triangle
D= 2 ab 1 - a2 + b 2 2a abc
c a 2b 2 abc ac + bc with vertices ( x1 , y1), ( x2 , y 2) and ( x3 , y3 )
2b -2 a 1 - a2 - b 2 is
(QR1 , R2 and R3 are multiplied by
1
1+ a + b 2 2
0 a, b and c |x1(y 2 - y3 ) + x2(y3 - y1)
2
= 0 1 + a2 + b 2 respectively, so we divide by abc) + x3 (y1 - y 2) |
2 2
b (1 + a + b ) - a (1 + a + b ) 2 2 bc 1 ab + ac
( abc) 2 and this expression can be written in the
D= ca 1 bc + ba form of determinant as
-2 b abc
ab 1 ac + bc
x1 y1 1
2a 1
(taking out abc common D= x2 y 2 1
1 - a2 - b 2 2
from C1 and C 2) x3 y3 1
(using C1 ® C1 - bC3 and Applying C3 ® C3 + C1, we get
C 2 ® C 2 + aC3 ) bc 1 ab + bc + ac 25. (c) The area of triangle is given by
1 0 -2 b Þ D = abc ca 1 ab + bc + ac 3 8 1
= (1 + a 2 + b 2) 2 0 1 2a ab 1 ab + bc + ac D=
1
-4 2 1
0 0 1 + a2 + b 2 2
5 1 1
bc 1 1
(using R3 ® R3 - bR1 + aR2) = ( abc) ( ab + bc + ac) ca 1 1 1
= [3 (2 - 1) - 8 ( - 4 - 5)
By expanding along C1, we get ab 1 1 2 + 1 ( - 4 - 10)]
= (1 + a 2 + b 2) 2 [1 (1 + a 2 + b 2)] (taking out ab + bc + ac 1 61
= (3 + 72 - 14) = sq units
2
= (1 + a + b ) 23 common from C3 ) 2 2
D = ( abc) ( ab + bc + ac) × 0 x1 y1 1
a2 bc ac + c 2
(QC 2 and C3 are identical) 1
2
20. (c) D = a + ab b2 ac 26. (a) Area of triangle = x2 y 2 1
\ D=0 2
ab b 2 + bc c2 x3 y3 1
a c a+ c 22. (a) Since, A is a skew-symmetric k 0 1

matrix. 1
= abc a + b b a Given, 4 0 1 =4
2
\ A¢ = - A 0 2 1
b b+ c c
Þ |A ¢| = |- A|
Þ | k( 0 - 2) + 1(8 - 0)| = 8
(taking out a from C1, b from C 2 Þ |A ¢| = ( -1) n |A|
and c from C3 ) Þ k( 0 - 2) + 1(8 - 0) = ± 8
0 c a+ c (Q|kA| = k n |A|, if A is order n ) Taking positive sign,
= abc 2 b b a Þ |A| = ( -1) n |A| (Q|A| = |A ¢| ) Þ - 2k = 0 Þ k = 0
2b b + c c Þ |A| = - |A| (Qn is odd) Taking negative sign,
(using C1 ® C1 + C 2 - C3 ) Þ 2 |A | = 0 Þ - 2k = - 16 Þ k = 8
Þ |A | = 0 \ k = 0, 8
\ D = a11 A21 + a12 A22 + a13 A23 Cofactors of elements of third row are
27. (b) Given that, the three points are
a a A31 = ( - 1)3 + 1 M31 = 1 ´ 0 = 0,
collinear. = a11 ( - 1) 2 + 1 12 13
a1 b1 1 a32 a33 A32 = ( - 1)3 + 2M32 = - 1 ´ 0 = 0
1 a11 a13 and A33 = ( - 1)3 + 3 M33 = 1 ´ 1 = 1
\ a2 b2 1 =0 + a12 ( - 1) 2 + 2
2 a31 a33
a1 + a2 b1 + b2 1
32. (d) D is equal to the sum of the products
a11 a12
a1 b1 1 + a13 ( - 1) 2 + 3 of the elements of a row (or a column)
a31 a32 with their corresponding cofactors.
Þ a2 b2 1 =0
a1 + a2 b1 + b2 1 a11 a12 a13 \ D = a11A11 + a12A12 + a13 A13
= a11 a12 a13 = 0 or a21A21 + a22A22 + a23 A23
Applying R2 ® R2 - R1 and
a31 a32 a33 or a31A31 + a32A32 + a33 A33
R3 ® R3 - R1, we get
a1 b1 1 (since, R1 and R2 are identical) or a11A11 + a21A21 + a31A31
a2 - a1 b2 - b1 0 = 0 Similarly, we can try for other rows and or a12A12 + a22A22 + a32A32
a2 b2 0 columns.
or a13 A13 + a23 A23 + a33 A33
a2 - a1 b2 - b1 1 0 0
Þ =0 Sum of the products of the elements of
a2 b2 31. (a) Here, D = 0 1 0
first column with their corresponding
0 0 1 cofactors is
(expanding along C3 )
Þ b2 ( a2 - a1) - a2 ( b2 - b1) = 0 Minors of elements of first row are D = a11A11 + a21A21 + a31A31
Þ a2b2 - a1b2 - a2b2 + a2b1 = 0 1 0 1 3 -2
M11 = =1- 0 =1
0 1 33. (a) Given that, D = 4 - 5 6
\ a1b2 = a2b1
0 0 3 5 2
M12 = = 0- 0= 0
28. (b) Given that, the points 0 1
(2 ,-3), ( l ,-1) and ( 0, 4) are collinear. Also, M11 = - 40, M12 = - 10
0 1
2 -3 1 and M13 = and M13 = 35
1 0 0
\ l -1 1 = 0 \ A11 = ( -1)1 + 1M11 = - 40
2 = 0- 0= 0
0 4 1 A12 = ( - 1)1 + 2 M12 = 10
Minors of elements of second row are
2 -3 1 and A13 = ( - 1)1 + 3 M13 = 35
0 0
Þ l -1 1 = 0 M21 = = 0- 0 = 0
0 1 \ D = a11A11 + a12A12 + a13 A13
0 4 1
1 0 = 1 ´ ( - 40) + 3 (10) + ( - 2) (35)
Applying R2 ® R2 - R1 and M22 = = 1- 0 = 1
0 1 = - 40 + 30 - 70
R3 ® R3 - R1, we get
1 0
2 -3 1 and M23 = = 0- 0= 0 = - 80
0 0
l -2 2 0 = 0 a h g
Minors of elements of third row are 34. (b) We have, D = h b f
-2 7 0
0 0
M31 = = 0- 0= 0 g f c
l -2 2 1 0
Þ =0
-2 7 Now, minor of a21 is
1 0
M32 = = 0- 0= 0 h g
Þ 7 l -14 + 4 = 0 0 0 M21 = = hc - fg
f c
Þ 7 l - 10 = 0 1 0
10 and M33 = =1- 0 =1 \ A21 = ( - 1) 2+ 1 M21 = - (hc - fg)
Þ l= 0 1
7 = fg - hc
Hence, cofactors of elements of first
row are 1 a bc
29. (a) Since, 6 lies in the second row and
third column, therefore its minor M23 is A11 = ( - 1)1 + 1 M11 = 1 ´ 1 = 1 35. (d) We have, D = 1 b ca
given by A12 = ( - 1)1 + 2 M12 = -1 ´ 0 = 0 1 c ab
1 2 and A13 = ( - 1) 1+ 3
M13 = 1 ´ 0 = 0
M23 = = 8 - 14 = - 6 Then, minor M31 is given by
7 8 Cofactors of elements of second row a bc
(obtained by deleting R2 and C3 in D) are M31 =
b ca
A21 = ( - 1) 2 + 1 M21 = - 1 ´ 0 = 0
30. (c) If elements of a row (or column) are
A22 = ( -1) 2 + 2 M22 = 1 ´ 1 = 1 = a 2c - b 2c = c( a 2 - b 2)
multiplied with cofactors of any other
2+ 3
row (or column), then their sum is zero. and A23 = ( - 1) M23 = -1 ´ 0 = 0
Mathematics 33
é|A | 0 0ù 2 5
36. (d) We have, A12 = - = - (2 + 10) = - 12 ,
A (adj A) = ê 0 |A | 0ú -2 1
A11 = 4 , A12 = - 1, ê ú
êë 0 0 |A |úû 2 3
A21 = - 3, A22 = 2 and A13 = = 0 - ( - 6) = 6
-2 0
éA A21 ù é1 0 0ù
Hence, adj A = ê 11
ë 12 A22 û
A ú = |A| ê 0 1 0ú = |A|I Cofactors of elements of second row
ê ú
êë 0 0 1úû are
é 4 - 3ù -1 2
=ê
ë- 1 2 úû Similarly, we can show A21 = - = - ( - 1 - 0) = 1,
0 1
(adj A) A = | A | I.
1 2
37. (c) If A be any given square matrix of A22 = =1+ 4 = 5
Hence, A(adj A) = (adj A) A = | A | I -2 1
order n, then
A(adj A) = (adj A) A 1 -1
38. (a) A square matrix A is said to be and A23 = - = - ( 0 - 2) = 2
-2 0
= | A |I singular, if| A | = 0.
where, I is the identity matrix of Cofactors of elements of third row are
é1 2 ù -1 2
order n. 39. (a) If A = ê ú, then A31 = = ( - 5 - 6) = - 11,
ë3 4 û 3 5
Verification Let
é a11 a12 a13 ù 1 2 1 2
|A|= A32 = - = - ( 5 - 4) = -1
A = ê a21 a22 a23 ú 3 4 2 5
ê ú
1 -1
ëê a31 a32 a33 úû = 4 - 6 = -2 ¹ 0 and A33 = =3+2 = 5
2 3
é A11 A21 A31 ù Hence, A is non-singular matrix.
Then, adj A = ê A12 A22 A32 ú é 3 - 12 6 ù ¢
ê ú é 1 - 1 2ù
êë A13 A33 úû Hence, adj ( A) = ê 1 5 2ú
A23
40. (a) Let A = ê 2 3 5ú ê ú
ê ú êë - 11 - 1 5úû
Since, sum of products of elements of êë - 2 0 1úû
a row (or a column) with é 3 1 - 11ù
Cofactors of elements of first row are
corresponding cofactors is equal to | A| = ê - 12 5 - 1ú
and otherwise zero. 3 5 ê ú
A11 = = 3 - 0 = 3, êë 6 2 5úû
\ We have, 0 1
CHAPTER 05
Continuity and
Differentiability
(iii) fg is continuous at x = c .
1. Continuous Function f
(iv) is continuous at x = c provided that, g(x ) ¹ 0.
A real valued function f is said to be continuous, if it is g
continuous at every point in the domain of f.
Theorem 2
2. Continuity of a Function at a Point Composition of f and g is continuous, i.e. fog and gof are
continuous.
Suppose, f is a real valued function on a subset of the real
numbers and let c be a point in the domain of f. 5. Differentiability or Derivability
Then, f is continuous at x = c , if lim f (x ) = f (c ) . A real valued function f is said to be derivable or
x® c
differentiable at x = c in its domain, if its left hand and right
i.e. if f (c ) = lim f (x ) = lim f (x ), then f (x ) is continuous
x® c+ x® c- hand derivatives at x = c exist and are equal.
at x = c .
At x = a,
f (a + h ) - f (a)
Otherwise, f (x ) is discontinuous at x = c . Right hand derivative, Rf ¢ (a) = lim
h®0 h
Note Graphically, a function f (x ) is said to be continuous at f (a - h ) - f (a)
a point, if the graph of the function has no break point. and left hand derivative, Lf ¢ (a) = lim
h®0 -h
3. Some Basic Continuous Function Thus, f (x ) is differentiable at x = a, if Rf ¢(a) = Lf ¢(a).
(i) Every constant function is continuous. Otherwise, f (x ) is not differentiable at x = a.
(ii) Every identity function is continuous.
(iii) Every rational function are always continuous. 6. Differentiation
(iv) Every polynomial function is continuous. The process of finding derivative of a function is called the
(v) Modulus function f (x ) =| x | is continuous. differentiation.
(vi) All trigonometric functions are continuous in their 7. Derivatives of Some Standard Functions
domain. d
(i) (constant) = 0
4. Algebra of Continuous Function dx
d
Theorem 1 (ii) (x n ) = nx n -1
dx
Let f and g be two real functions continuous at
d
a real number c, then (iii) (cx n ) = cn x n -1, where c is a constant.
dx
(i) (f + g ) is continuous at x = c .
d
(ii) (f - g ) is continuous at x = c . (iv) (sin x ) = cos x
dx
Mathematics 35
d d d -1
(v) (cos x ) = - sin x (vi) (tan x ) = sec 2 x (vi) (cosec -1x ) = , | x| > 1
dx dx dx x x2 - 1
d
(vii) (cosec x ) = - cosec x cot x
dx 12. Derivative of a Function with Respect
d
(viii) (sec x ) = sec x tan x to Another Function
dx
d Let y = f (x ) and z = g(x ) be two given functions, we firstly
(ix) (cot x ) = - cosec 2 x differentiate both functions with respect to x separately and
dx
then put these values in the following formulae
d
(x) (e x ) = e x dy dy / dx dz dz / dx
dx = or = .
dz dz / dx dy dy / dx
d
(xi) (ax ) = ax loge a, a > 0
dx 13. Differentiation of Logarithmic Function
d 1
(xii) (loge x ) = , x > 0 Suppose, given function is of the form u (x )v ( x ). In such
dx x
cases, we take logarithm on both sides and use properties
d 1
(xiii) (log a x ) = , a > 0, a ¹ 1 of logarithm to simplify it and then differentiate it.
dx x loge a
14. Differentiation of Parametric Functions
8. Algebra of Derivatives dy dy / dt
d du dv If x = f(t ) and y = y(t ), then =
(i) (u ± v ) = ± [sum and difference rule] dx dx / dt
dx dx dx
(ii)
d
(u × v ) = u
d
(v ) + v
d
(u ) [product rule]
15. Differentiation of Infinite Series
dx dx dx When the value of y is given as an infinite series, then the
d d process to find the derivatives of such infinite series is called
v (u ) - u (v )
d æu ö
(iii) ç ÷ = dx dx [quotient rule] differentiation of infinite series. In this case, we use the fact
dx è v ø v 2
that if one term is deleted from an infinite series, it remains
where, u and v are functions of x. unaffected to replace all terms except first form by y. Thus,
we convert it into a finite series or function. Then, we
9. Derivative of Composite Functions differentiate it to find the required value.
Let y be a real valued function which is a composite of two
functions, say y = f (u ) and u = g(x ). 16. Second Order Derivative
dy dy du dy
Then, = × = f ¢(u )× g ¢ (x ) Let y = f (x ) be a given function, then = f ¢(x ) is called the
dx du dx dx
d d æ dy ö
i.e. [f { g(x )}] = f ¢ [g(x )]× g ¢ (x ) first derivative of y or f (x ) and ç ÷ is called the second
dx dx è dx ø
d 2y
10. Derivatives of Implicit Functions order derivative of y w.r.t. x and it is denoted by 2 or y ¢¢
dy dx
Let f (x, y ) = 0 be an implicit function of x. Then, to find we or y2 .
dx
first differentiate both sides of equation w.r.t. x and then take 17. Rolle’s Theorem
dy
all terms involving on LHS and remaining terms on RHS If a function y = f (x ) is defined on [a, b] and
dx
to get required value. (i) function f is continuous in [a, b].
(ii) function f is differentiable in (a, b).
11. Derivatives of Inverse Trigonometric Functions
(iii) f (a) = f (b)
d 1
(i) (sin -1 x ) = , -1 < x < 1 Then, there exists atleast one value c Î(a, b) such that
dx 1 - x2
f ¢ (c ) = 0.
d -1
(ii) (cos -1 x ) = , -1 < x < 1
dx 1 - x2 18. Lagrange’s Mean Value Theorem
d 1 If a function y = f (x ) is defined on [a, b] and
(iii) (tan -1 x ) =
dx 1 + x2 (i) function f is continuous in [a, b] .
d -1 (ii) function f is differentiable in (a, b).
(iv) (cot -1 x ) =
dx 1 + x2 Then, there exists atleast one value c Î(a, b) such that
d 1 f (b) - f (a)
(v) (sec -1 x ) = , | x| > 1 f ¢ (c ) = .
dx x x2 - 1 b-a
Practice Questions
ì1, if x £ 0
1. If f ( x) = í 10. The point of discontinuity of the function
î2, if x > 0 ì2 x + 3, if x £ 2
f ( x) = í is
Then, the values of the function at points –0.001 and 0.01 are î2 x - 3, if x > 2
(a) 0, 1 (b) 2, 1 (a) x = 0 (b) x = 1
(c) 1, 2 (d) None of these (c) x = 2 (d) None of these
ì1, if x ¹ 0
2. The function f ( x) = í is not continuous at 11. All the points of discontinuity of the function f defined by
î2, if x = 0
ì3, if 0 £ x £ 1
(a) x = 0 (b) x = 1 ï
f ( x ) = í4, if 1 < x < 3 are
(c) x = - 1 (d) None of these ï5, if 3 £ x £ 10
î
3. If f ( x) = 2 x + 3, then
(a) 1, 3 (b) 3, 10
(a) f is not continuous at x = 1 (c) 1, 3, 10 (d) 0, 1, 3
(b) f is not defined at x = 1
12. The relationship between a and b, so that the function
(c) f is continuous at x = 1
ìax + 1, if x £ 3
(d) None of the above f defined by f ( x ) = í is continuous at x = 3, is
îbx + 3, if x > 3
4. If f ( x) = x2 , then 2 3
(a) a = b + (b) a - b =
(a) f is continuous at x = 0 3 2
2
(b) f is discontinuous at x = 0 (c) a + b = (d) a + b = 2
3
(c) f is not defined at x = 0
ìl ( x2 - 2 x ), if x £ 0
(d) None of the above 13. If f ( x) = í , then which one of the following
î4 x + 1, if x > 0
5. If the domain of f is singleton (f is defined only at one point),
is correct
then f is
(a) f (x ) is continuous at x = 0 for any value of l
(a) continuous at the point (b) f (x ) is discontinuous at x = 0 for any value of l
(b) discontinuous at the point (c) f (x ) is discontinuous at x = 1 for any value of l
(c) defined on R (d) None of the above
14. The function defined by g ( x) = x - [ x] is discontinuous at
6. Continuity of a function at a point is entirely dictated by the
...A... of the function at that point. Here, A refers to (a) all rational points (b) all irrational points
(c) all integral points (d) None of these
(a) limit (b) value
ì , x<0
sin x
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these 15. The given function f ( x) = ïí x is/has
7. Suppose f and g are real valued functions such that (fog) is îï x + 1, x ³ 0
defined at c. If g is continuous at c and f is continuous at (a) discontinuous at x = 0
...A..., then (fog) is ...B... c. Here, A and B refer to (b) discontinuous at x = 1
(a) c, continuous (b) f (c ), continuous (c) no points of discontinuity
(c) g (c ), discontinuous (d) g (c ), continuous (d) None of the above
8. The function f ( x) = 5x - 3 is discontinuous at 16. All the points of discontinuity of f defined by

f ( x ) = |x| - | x + 1 | is/are
(a) x = 0 (b) x = - 3
(c) x = 5 (d) None of these (a) 0, 1 (b) 1, 0, 2
(c) no point of discontinuity (d) None of these
9. The function f ( x) = x n, where n is a positive integer, is ì
| x |cos æç ö÷, if x ¹ 0
1
(a) continuous at x = n 17. f ( x) = ïí è xø is
limit of f at x = n does not exist ï 0, if x = 0
(b) î
(c) limit of f at x = n exists and not equal to f (x ) (a) discontinuous at x = 0 (b) continuous at x = 0
(d) None of the above (c) Does not exist (d) None of these
Mathematics 37
ì sin3 ( x )log(1 + 3 x ) 2
ï , x¹0 26. The differential coefficient of sin(cos( x )) with respect to x is.
18. If f ( x) = í(tan-1 x )2 (e 5 x - 1)x
ï (a) -2x sin x 2 cos (cos x 2 ) (b) 2x sin (x 2 ) cos (x 2 )
î , a x=0 2 2
(c) 2x sin (x ) cos (x ) cos x (d) None of these
is continuous in [ 0, 1 ], then æ 2x ö
3 5 27. If y = sin-1 çç ÷ , then dy is equal to
2÷
(a) a = 0 (b) a = (c) a = 2 (d) a = è1 + x ø dx
5 3
1 2
(a) (b)
19. If f : R ® R is defined by 1 + x2 1 + x2
2 -2
ì x+2 (c) (d)
ïï x2 + 3 x + 2 , if x Î R - { - 1, - 2} 1 - x2 1 + x2
f ( x) = í
-1 , if x = -2, æ 3 x - x3 ö 1 1 dy
ï 28. If y = tan-1 çç ÷,- < x< ,then is
ïî 0 , if x = -1 2 ÷
è 1 - 3x ø 3 3 dx
then f is continuous on the set 3 1
(a) 2
(b)
(a) R (b) R - {-2 } 1+x 1 + x2
-3 3
(c) R - {-1 } (d) R - {-1, - 2 } (c) 2
(d)
1+x 1 - x2
ì1 - 2 sin x p
ïï ,if x ¹
20. If f ( x) = í p - 4 x 4 is continuous at p , then a is 29. If f ( x) = ae|x| + b|x|2 , a b Î R and f ( x)is differentiable at x = 0.
ï p 4
a ,if x = Then, a and b are
ïî 4
equal to (a) a = 0, b Î R (b) a = 1, b = 2
1 (c) b = 0, a Î R (d) a = 4, b = 5
(a) 4 (b) 2 (c) 1 (d)
4 dy
30. If y = tan-1 x + cot-1 x + sec -1 x + cosec -1 x, then is equal
dx
21. Suppose f is a real function and c is a point in its domain. The to
derivative of f at c is defined by (if limit exists) x2 - 1
f (c - h ) - f (c ) f (c + h ) - f (c ) (a) (b) p
(a) lim (b) lim x2 + 1
h ®0 h h ®0 h
f (c + h ) + f (c ) f (c - h ) + f (c ) (c) 0 (d) 1
(c) lim (d) lim
h ®0 h h ®0 h dy
31. If y = sin-1 1 - x , then is equal to
f ( x + h) - f ( x ) dx
22. The function defined by f ¢( x) = lim 1 -1
h® 0 h (a) (b)
(wherever the limit exists) is defined to be 1-x 2 1-x
(a) the derivative of f (b) limit of f 1 -1
(c) (d)
(c) value of f (d) None of these x 2 x 1-x
f (c + h) - f (c )
23. If lim does not exist, then 32. The correct order of getting steeper of the curves
h® 0 h f1 ( x ) = x , f2 ( x ) = x2 , f3 ( x ) = x3 and f 4 ( x ) = x 4 when x > 1, is
(a) f is differentiable at a point c
(a) f1 (x ) > f2 (x ) > f3 (x ) > f4 (x )
(b) f is not differentiable at a point c
(c) f must be continuous at a point c (b) f4 (x ) > f3 (x ) > f2 (x ) > f1 (x )
(d) None of the above (c) f2 (x ) > f1 (x ) > f3 (x ) > f4 (x )
24. A function is said to be differentiable in an interval [a, b ], if it (d) f4 (x ) < f3 (x ) < f2 (x ) < f1 (x )
is differentiable at every point of [a, b ]
33. Let b > 1 be a real number. Then, logarithm of a to the base b is
(a) including a and b (b) excluding a and b
x, if
(c) including a but not b (d) including b but not a
(a) b a = x (b) a b = x
25. Let f be a real valued function such that f = vou and t = u( x). If (c) b x = a (d) None of these
dt du
× exists, then
dx dt 34. log a p is shifted to the base b is equal to
df dt dt df du dx loga p logb p
(a) = × (b) = × (a) (b)
du dv du du dt dt logb a loga b
df du dt logb p
(c) = × (d) None of these (c) (d) None of these
dx dt dx logb a
é u (x ) ù
35. e log x , where x > 0 is equal to (b) y ê u ¢ (x ) - v ¢ (x ) log[ v (x )]ú
ë v (x ) û
(a) e x (b) x
é v (x ) ù
(c) loge x (d) None of these (c) y ê u ¢ (x ) + v ¢ (x ) log[u (x )]ú
ë u (x ) û
36. The derivative of cos -1 (e x ) is
2e x ex
(a) (b) dy
1 - e 2x 1 - e 2x 39. If y x = x y , then is equal to
dx
-e x y æy + x log y ö y æ y - x log y ö
(c) (d) None of these (a) ç ÷ (b) ç ÷
1 - e 2x x èx - y log x ø x è x - y log x ø
dy p x æy + x log y ö
37. If y = log sin x (tan x), then at x = is
dx 4 (c) ç ÷ (d) None of these
y èx + y log x ø
4 -4
(a) (b)
log 2 log 2 dy
40. If x = f (t ) and y = g (t ), then is equal to
1 dx
(c) (d) None of these f ¢ (t) g ¢ (t)
log 2 (a) , g ¢ (t) ¹ 0 (b) , f ¢ (t) ¹ 0
g ¢ (t) f ¢ (t)
38. The derivative of y = f ( x) = [u( x)]v( x ) is
g ¢ (t)
é v (x ) ù (c) (d) None of these
(a) y ê u ¢ (x ) - v ¢ (x ) log[u (x )]ú f ¢ (t)
ë u (x ) û
Solutions
ì1, if x £ 0 Because if f and g be two real valued
1. (c) f ( x) = í 3. (c) First note that the function is
î2 ,if x > 0 defined at the given point x = 1 and its functions such that fog exist, then
This function is of course defined at value is 5. Range ( g) Í domain ( f )
every point of the real line. Graph of this Then, find the limit of the function at Let c be an arbitrary point in the
function is shown in figure. One can x = 1. Clearly, domain of g.
deduce from the graph that the value of Then, c Îdomain g Þ g( c) Îrange( g)
lim f ( x) = lim(2 x + 3) = 2(1) + 3 = 5
the function at nearby points on X-axis x ®1 x ®1
Þ g( c) Îdomain ( f )
remain close to each other except at Thus, lim f ( x) = 5 = f (1)
x ®1 Q f and g are continuous in their
x = 0. At the points near and to the left of
Hence, f is continuous at x = 1. domains.
0, i.e.,at points like -01. , -0.01, -0.001,
the value of the function is 1. At the \ c Îdomain g and g( c) Îdomain ( f )
4. (a) First note that the function is
points near and to the right of 0, i.e., at g is continuous at x = c and f is
defined at the given point x = 0 and its
points like 0.1, 0.01, 0.001, the value of continuous at g( c).
value is 0.
the function is 2. Þ lim g( x) = g( c)
Then, find the limit of the function at x® c
Y
x = 0. Clearly, and lim f (y) = f [ g( c)]
y ®g( c )
lim f ( x) = lim x2 = 02 = 0
y=1 x® 0 x® 0 Þ lim g( x) = g( c)
(0, 2) x® c
Thus, lim f ( x) = 0 = f ( 0)
x® 0 and lim f [ g( x)] = f [ g( c)]
g( x )®g( c )
(0, 1) Hence, f is continuous at x = 0.
X′ X where, y = g( x)
O 5. (a) If f is defined only at one point, it is Þ lim f [ g( x) = f [ g( c)]
Y′ continuous there i.e., if the domain of f x® c
is a singleton set, f is a continuous [Qx ® c Þ g( x) ® g( c)]
2. (a) This function is also defined at function.
every point. Left and the right hand Þ lim fog( x) = fog( c)
x® c
limits at x = 0are both equal to 1. But the 6. (c) Continuity of a function at a point is
Þ fog is continuous at x = c.
value of the function at x = 0 equals 2 dictated by the limit and value of the
function at that point. Qc is an arbitrary point in its domain
which does not coincide with the
common value of the left and right hand Hence, fog is continuous.
7. (d) Suppose f and g are real valued
limits. Again, we note that we cannot functions such that ( f o g) is defined at c.
draw the graph of the function without 8. (d) Here, f ( x) = 5x - 3
If g is continuous at c and if f is
lifting the pen. This is yet another continuous at g( c), then ( f o g) is At x = 0, lim f ( x) = lim ( 5x - 3)
x® 0 x® 0
instance of a function being not continuous at c. = 5´ 0-3= 0-3= -3
continuous at x = 0.
Mathematics 39
f( 0) = 5 ´ 0 - 3 = - 3 Thus, f ( x) is discontinuous at x = 1. RHL = lim f ( x) = lim ( 4 x + 1)

x ®1+ x ®1+
\ lim f ( x) = f ( 0). At x = 3,
x® 0 Putting x = 1 + h as x ® 1+ when h ® 0
Thus, f ( x) is continuous at x = 0. LHL = lim f ( x) = lim ( 4) = 4,
x ®3 - x ®3 - \ lim [ 4(1 + h) + 1] = lim ( 5 + 4h)
h® 0 h® 0
At x = - 3, RHL = lim f ( x) = lim ( 5) = 5
x ®3 + x ®3 + = 5+ 0= 5
lim f ( x) = lim ( 5x - 3) = 5 ´ ( -3) - 3
x® - 3 x® - 3
\ LHL ¹ RHL. Also, f(1) = 4 ´ 1 + 1 = 5
= - 15 - 3 = - 18 [Q f ( x) = 4 x + 1]
Thus, f ( x) is continuous everywhere
and f( -3) = 5 ´ - 3 - 3 = - 18 except at x = 1,3 Thus, f ( x) is continuous at x = 1 for all
\ lim f ( x) = f ( -3) . ì ax + 1, if x £ 3 values of l.
x® - 3 12. (a) Here, f ( x) = í
Thus, f ( x) is continuous at x = - 3. îbx + 3,if x > 3 14. (c) Here, g( x) = x - [ x]
At x = 5, LHL = lim f ( x) = lim ( ax + 1) Let a be an integer, then [ a - h] = a - 1,
lim f ( x) = lim ( 5x - 3) = 5 ´ 5 - 3 x ®3 - x ®3 -
x ®5 x ®5 Putting x = 3 - h as x ® 3- , h ® 0 [ a + h] = a and [ a] = a
= 25 - 3 = 22
\lim [ a(3 - h) + 1] = lim (3a - ah + 1) At x = a,
and f( 5) = 5 ´ 5 - 3 = 25 - 3 = 22 h® 0 h® 0
\ lim f ( x) = f ( 5). = 3a + 1 LHL = lim g( x) = lim ( x - [ x])

x ®5 x ® a- x ® a-
RHL = lim f ( x) = lim ( bx + 3) Putting x = a - h, as x ® a - , h ® 0
+ +
Thus, f ( x) is continuous at x = 5. x ®3 x ®3
Putting x = 3 + h as x ® 3+ , h ® 0 \ lim ( a - h - [ a - h])

h® 0
9. (a) Here, f ( x) = x n
\ lim [ b(3 + h ) + 3] = lim ( a - h - ( a - 1))
h® 0
\ lim f ( x) = lim x n = n n h® 0
x® n x® n = lim (3b + bh + 3) = 3b + 3 = lim ( -h + 1) =1
n
and f (n) = n [Qf ( x) = xn ] h® 0 h® 0
{Q [ a - h] = a -1}
\ lim f ( x) = f (n) = nn Also, f (3) = 3a + 1 [Qf ( x) = ax + 1]
x® n
Since, f ( x) is continuous at x = 3. RHL= lim g( x) = lim ( x - [ x])
x ® a+ x ® a+
Thus, f ( x) is continuous at x = n, where n is \ LHL = RHL = f(3) Putting x = a + h as x ® a + when h ® 0
a positive integer. Þ 3a + 1 = 3b + 3
2 lim ( a + h - [ a + h]) = lim ( a + h - a)
Þ 3a = 3b + 2 Þ a = b + h® 0 h® 0
ì2 x + 3,if x £ 2 3
10. (c) Here, f ( x) = í = lim h = 0
î2 x - 3, if x > 2 ìl( x2 - 2 x),if x £ 0
h® 0
13. (b) Here , f ( x) = í {Q[ a + h] = a}

LHL = lim f ( x) = lim (2 x + 3)
x ® 2- x ® 2- î 4 x + 1, if x > 0 \ LHL ¹ RHL
-
Putting x = 2 - h as x ® 2 when h ® 0 At x = 0, Thus, g( x) is discontinuous at all
\ lim [2(2 - h) + 3] = lim (7 - 2h) LHL = lim f ( x) = lim l ( x2 - 2 x) integral points. {Q[ a - h] = a - 1}
h® 0 h® 0 x® 0- x® 0-
=7 -2 ´ 0=7 Putting x = 0 - h as x ® 0- ì sin x
, if x < 0
RHL = lim f ( x) = lim (2 x - 3) 15. (c) Here, f ( x) = ïí x
when h ® 0
x ® 2+ x ® 2+ ïî x + 1, if x ³ 0
+
Putting x = 2 + h as x ® 2 when h ® 0 \lim l [( 0 - h) 2 - 2( 0 - h)] sin x
h® 0 LHL = lim f ( x) = lim .
\ lim [2(2 + h) - 3] = lim (1 + 2h) = lim [ l(h2 + 2h)] = 0 x ® 0- x ® 0- x
h® 0 h® 0 h® 0
=1+ 2 ´ 0 =1 RHL = lim f ( x) = lim ( 4 x + 1) Putting x = 0 - h as x ® 0- when h ® 0
\ LHL ¹ RHL x® 0 +
x® 0 + sin ( 0 - h) - sinh
\ lim = lim
Putting x = 0 + h as x ® 0+ h ® 0 ( 0 - h) h® 0 -h
Thus, f ( x) is discontinuous at x = 2.
ì3, if 0 £ x £ 1 when h ® 0 sinh
= lim =1
11. (a) Here, f ( x) = ïí4 ,if 1 < x < 3
h® 0
h
\ lim [ 4 ( 0 + h) + 1] = lim [ 4h + 1]
ï 5, if 3 £ x £ 10 h® 0 h® 0 RHL = lim f ( x) = lim ( x + 1)
î = 0+1=1 x ® 0+ x ® 0+
For 0 £ x £ 1, f ( x) = 3;1 < x < 3 ; f ( x) = 4 Putting x = 0 + h as x ® 0+ when h ® 0

\ LHL ¹ RHL
and 3 £ x £ 10 , f ( x) = 5 are constant \ lim ( 0 + h + 1) = 0 + 1 = 1,
functions, so it is continuous in the Thus, f ( x) is not continuous at x = 0 for h® 0
above interval, so we have to check any value of l. f( 0) = 0 + 1 = 1 [Q f ( x) = x + 1]

the continuity at x = 13 ,. \ LHL = RHL = f( 0)
At x = 1, LHL = lim f ( x) = lim ( 4 x + 1)
At x = 1, x ®1- x ®1- Thus, f ( x) is continuous at x = 0. When
-
LHL = lim f ( x) = lim (3) = 3, Putting x = 1 - h as x ® 1 when h ® 0 x < 0, sin x and x both are continuous.
x ®1- x ®1-
\ lim [ 4(1 - h) + 1] = lim [ 5 - 4h] sinx
RHL = lim f ( x) = lim ( 4) = 4 h® 0 h® 0 Therefore, is also continuous.
x ®1+ x ®1+ x
= 5- 0= 5
\ LHL ¹ RHL
When x > 0, f ( x) = x + 1is a f ( c + h) - f ( c)

19. (c) Since, f ( x) is continuous for every 23. (b) If lim does not exist,
polynomial. Therefore, f is continuous. h® 0 h
value of R except {-1, - 2}. Now, we
Hence, there is no point of discontinuity we say that f is not differentiable at c.
have to check that points
for this function f ( x).
At x = - 2 24. (a) A function is said to be
16. (c) Let g( x) = |x| and h( x) = |x + 1| ( -2 - h) + 2 differentiable in an interval [ a, b ] if it is
LHL = lim
h ® 0 ( -2 - h) 2 + 3( -2 - h) + 2 differentiable at every point of [ a, b ]. As
Now, g( x) = |x| is the absolute value
-h in case of continuity, at the end point a
function, so it is a continuous function = lim = -1 and b, we take the right hand limit and
for all x ÎR. h ® 0 h2 +h
h( x) = |x + 1| is the absolute value left hand limit which are nothing but left
( -2 + h) + 2 hand derivative and right hand
function, so it is a continuous function RHL = lim
for all x ÎR. h ® 0 ( -2 + h) 2 + 3( -2 + h) + 2 derivative of the function at a and b
Since, g( x) and h( x) are both continuous respectively.
h
functions for all x ÎR, so difference of = lim = -1
h ® 0 h2 -h
two continuous function is a 25. (c) Let f be a real valued function
continuous function for all x ÎR. ÞLHL = RHL = f( -2) which is a composite of two functions u
Thus, f ( x) = |x| - |x + 1| is a continuous and v i.e., f = v o u. Suppose t = u( x) and
\ It is continuous at x = - 2. dt dv
function at all points. if both and exist, we have
Hence, there is no point at which f ( x) is Now, check for x = -1 dx dt
discontinuous. ( -1 - h) + 2 df dv dt
LHL = lim = ×
17. (b) To check the continuity at x = 0 h ® 0 ( -1 - h) 2 + 3( -1 - h) + 2 dx dt dx
LHL = lim f ( x) = lim f ( 0 - h) 1- h 26. (a) The function f ( x) = sin[cos( x2)] is a
x® 0- x® 0 = lim = -¥
h ® 0 h2-h composition f ( x) = (w o v o u)( x) of the
= lim| - h |cosæç ö÷
1
h® 0 è -h ø ( -1 + h) + 2 three functions u, v and w. where
RHL = lim u( x) = x2, v(t ) = cost and w( s) = sin s.
h ® 0 ( -1 + h) 2 + 3( -1 + h) + 2
= lim h cos æç ö÷
1
h® 0 èhø Put t = u( x) = x2 and s = v(t ) = cost .
1+ h
(Q-1 £ cosx £ 1 " x ÎR) = lim 2 =¥ Observe that
dw
= cos s,
ds
= - sint
h® 0 h + h
ds dt
= 0 (an oscillating value
f( -1) = 0 dt
between -1and 1) and = 2 x exist for all real x. Hence,
dx
=0 ÞLHL ¹ RHL ¹ f( -1)
by a generalisation of chain rule, we
RHL = lim f ( x) = lim ( 0 + h) \ It is not continuous at x = -1
x® 0+ h® 0 have
1 The required function is continuous in
= lim (h) lim h cos df dw ds dt
h® 0 h® 0 h R - {-1}. = × × = (cos s) ( - sint ) 2 x
dx ds dt dx
= 0 (an oscillating number 1 - 2 sin x
between -1and 1) 20. (d) lim f ( x) = lim = - 2 x sin x2 cos(cos x2)
p p p - 4x
=0 x® x®
4 4 æ 2x ö
and f( 0) = 0 - 2 cos x 1 27. (b) Given, y = sin-1 ç 2
÷
Thus, LHL = RHL = f( 0) = 0. lim = è1 + x ø
p -4 4
x®
Hence, function is continuous at x = 0. 4
(by L¢ Hospital’s rule) Putting q = tan-1 x i.e., x = tanq
18. (b) We have, p Then,
Since, f ( x) is continuous at x =
4 æ 2 tan q ö
ì sin ( x)log(1 + 3x)
3 y = sin-1 ç ÷ = sin-1 (sin2 q)
ï ,x¹ 0 æ pö 1 2
è1 + tan q ø
f ( x) = í(tan-1 x) 2( e5 x - 1) x \ lim f ( x) = f ç ÷ Þ = a
p è4ø 4
ï x® = 2 q = 2 tan-1 x
îa ,x= 0 4
For continuity in [0, 1], f ( 0) = f ( 0+ ) æ 2 tan q ö

21. (b) Suppose f is a real function and c is çQ sin2 q = ÷
è 1 + tan2 q ø
sin3 x log(1 + 3x) a point in its domain. The derivative of f
\ lim =a On differentiating both sides w.r.t. x,
x® 0 +
x(tan-1 x) 2( e5 x
- 1) at c is defined by
we get
f ( c + h) - f ( c)
é 3 sin3 x ù lim dy d
( x) 2 h® 0 h = (2 tan-1 x)
ê 3
× -1 2 ú dx dx
5 ( x) (tan x)
Þ lim ê ú=a Provided this limit exist.
dy 1 2
x® 0+ ê log(1 + 3x) 5 x ú =2× =
ê´ × ú 22. (a) The function defined by dx 1 + x2 1 + x2
êë 3x ( e5 x - 1) úû
f ( x + h) - f ( x)
f ¢( x) = lim wherever the æ d 1 ö
3 h® 0 h çQ tan-1 x = ÷
Þ a= è dx 1 + x2 ø
5 limit exist is defined to be derivative of f.
Mathematics 41
-2 ´ 2 -4
28. (a) Put x = tan q 33. (c) Let b > 1be a real number. Then, we = =
log 2 log 2
æ 3x - x3 ö say logarithm of a to base b is x, if
\ y = tan-1 ç 2
÷ b x = a.
è 1 - 3x ø 38. (c) y = f ( x) = [u( x)]y( x ) By taking
æ 3 tan q - tan3 q ö Logarithm of a to base b is denoted by logarithm (to base e) the above may be
= tan-1 ç 2
÷ log b a. Thus, log b a = x, if b x = a. Let us rewritten as log y = v( x)log[u( x)]
è 1 - 3 tan q ø work with a few explicit examples to get Using chain rule, we may differentiate
æ 3 tan q - tan3 q ö a feel for this. We know, 23 = 8. In terms this to get
çQ tan3 q = ÷
è 1 - 3 tan2 q ø of logarithms, we may rewrite this as
1 dy 1
log 2 8 = 3. Similarly, 104 = 10000 is × = v ( x) × × u ¢( x) + v ¢( x) × log[u( x)]
Þ y = tan-1 (tan 3 q) = 3 q = 3 tan-1 x equivalent to saying log10 10000 = 4. y dx u( x)
On differentiating both sides w.r.t. x, Also, 625 = 54 = 252 is equivalent to which implies that
we get saying log5 625 = 4 or log 25 625 = 2.
dy d 3 dy é v( x) ù
Þ = 3 (tan-1 x) = =y ê × u ¢( x) + v ¢( x) × log[u( x)]ú
dx dx 1 + x2 34. (c) There is a standard change of base dx ë u( x) û
æ d 1 ö
çQ tan-1 x = ÷ rule to obtain log a P in terms of lobb P.
è dx 1 + x2 ø Let log a P = a, log a P = b and log b a = g. 39. (b) Given, y x = xy
This means a a = p, bb = p and b g = a.
Taking log on both sides, we get
29. (a) Given, f ( x) = ae|x| + b|x|2 Substituting the third equation in the log y x = log xy
We know, e|x| is not differentiable at first one, we have ( b g ) a = b ga = p
x = 0 and |x|2 is differentiable at x = 0 Þ xlog y = y log x
Using this in the second equation , we
\ f ( x) is differentiable at x = 0, if a = 0 On differentiating both sides w.r.t. x,
get bb = p = b ga
and b ÎR. we get
b
which implies b = ag or a = .
30. (c) y = tan-1 x + cot -1 x + sec -1x g d
( xlog y) =
d
(y log x)
-1 log b p dx dx
+ cosec x But then log a p =
log b a æ 1 ö dy 1 dy
æQ tan-1 x + cot -1 x = p ö
p p Þx ç ÷ + (log y) = y + (log x)
ç = + ÷
è 2 2 2ø è y ø dx x dx
35. (b) First, observe that the domain of log
æ sec-1 x + cosec -1x = p ö function is set of all positive real (using product rule)
ç ÷
è 2ø numbers. So, the above equation is not x dy dy y
dy true for non-positive real numbers. Þ - (log x) = - log y
\ y=p Þ =0 y dx dx x
dx Now, let y = e log x . If y > 0, we may take
logarithm which gives us æx ö dy y
Þ ç - log x÷ = - log y
31. (d) y = sin-1 1 - x log y = log( e log x ) = log x × log e = log x. èy ø dx x
Thus, y = x. Hence, x = e log x is true only
dy 1 1 æ x - y log x ö dy y - xlog y
Þ = × ( -1) for positive values of x. Þ ç ÷ =
dx 1 - (1 - x) 2 1 - x è y ø dx x
-1 36. (c) Let y = cos-1( ex ). Using chain rule,
=
2 x 1- x dy y æ y - xlog y ö
we have Þ = ç ÷
dx x è x - y log x ø
dy -1 d - ex
32. (b) The figure gives a sketch of = × ( ex) =
y = f1( x) = x, y = f2( x) = x2, y = f3 ( x) = x3 dx 1 - ( e ) dx
x 2
1 - e 2x 40. (b) Given, x = f (t ) and y = g(t )
and y = f4 ( x) = x4 . Observe that the
By chain rule, we have
curves get steeper as the power of x 37. (b) We have,
increases. Steeper the curve, faster is the log tan x dy
y = log sin x (tan x) = dy dy dx dy dt
rate of growth. What this means is that for log sin x = × or =
a fixed increment in the value of x ( > 1). dt dx dt dx dx
1
The increment in the value of y = fn ( x) log sin x × × sec2 x - log tan x dt
tan x
increases as n increases forn = 1, 2, 3, 4. It 1 dx
´ cos x (whenever ¹ 0)
is dy sin x dt
\ = 2
Y dx (log sin x) dy g ¢(t )
Thus, =
y=1 x
0
y = x4
p dx f ¢(t )
y = x3
x2
At x =
y=
x
y=
4 é dy dx ù
êas dt = g ¢( t ) and dt = f ¢( t ) ú
ælog 1 ö ( 2 ) 2 ë û
ç ÷
(0, 1) æ dy ö è 2ø ( 2) 2
(1, 1) ç ÷ = =
è dx ø x =
log æç ö÷
p 2 1
X′ X é æ 1 öù [provided f ¢(t ) ¹ 0]
O 4 êlog çè 2 ÷ø ú è 2ø
Y′ ë û
CHAPTER 06
Application of
Derivatives
4 3
(v) Volume of sphere = pr
1. Rate of Change of Quantities 3
If y = f (x ) is a function, where y is dependent variable and x and surface area of sphere = 4pr 2
is independent variable. where r is the radius of sphere.
dy (vi) Total surface area of a right circular cylinder
Then, [or f ¢(x )] represents the rate of change of y w.r.t. x
dx = 2 prh + 2 pr 2
æ dy ö Curved surface area of right circular cylinder
and ç ÷ [or f ¢(x 0 )] represents the rate of change of y
è dx ø x = x = 2prh
0
w.r.t. x at x = x 0 . and volume = pr 2 h
dy dy where r is the radius and h is the height of the cylinder.

Note Here, is positive if y increases as x increases and
dx dx 1 2
is negative if y decreases as x increases. (vii) Volume of a right circular cone = pr h
3
2. Rate of Change of Two Variables Curved surface area = prl
Suppose two variables are varying with respect to another and total surface area = pr 2 + prl
variable t i.e. y = f (t ) and x = g (t ). Then, rate of change of y where r is the radius, h is the height and l is the slant
w.r.t. x is given by height of the cone.
dy dy / dt dx
= , provided that =/ 0 (viii) Volume of a parallelopiped = xyz
dx dx / dt dt
and surface area = 2(xy + yz + zx )
dy dy dt
or = × . [by chain rule of derivative] where x, y and z are the dimensions of parallelopiped.
dx dt dx
3. Some Useful Results (ix) Volume of a cube = x 3 and surface area = 6x 2
(i) Area of a square = x 2 and perimeter = 4x where, x is the side of the cube.
where x is the side of the square. 3
(x) Area of an equilateral triangle = (side) 2
(ii) Area of a rectangle = xy 4
and perimeter = 2(x + y )
4. Marginal Cost
where x and y are the length and breadth of rectangle.
1 Marginal cost represents the instantaneous rate of change
(iii) Area of a trapezium = (sum of parallel sides)
2 of the total cost with respect to the number of items
×(perpendicular distance between them) produced at an instant. If C(x ) represents the cost function
(iv) Area of a circle = pr 2 for x units produced, then marginal cost denoted by MC, is
and circumference of a circle = 2pr d
given by MC = {C(x )}.
where r is the radius of circle. dx
Mathematics 43
5. Marginal Revenue 9. Equations of Tangent and Normal

Marginal revenue represents the rate of change of total Let y = f (x ) be a curve and P (x1, y1 ) be a point on it. Then,
revenue with respect to the number of items sold at an
(a) equation of tangent at P(x1, y1 ) is
instant. If R(x ) represents the revenue function for x units
sold, then marginal revenue denoted by MR, is given by é dy ù
( y - y1 ) = ê ú (x - x1 )
d ë dx û ( x1, y1 )
MR = { R(x )}.
dx (b) equation of normal at P (x1, y1 ) is
Note Total cost = Fixed cost + Variable cost
-1
i.e. C (x ) = f (c) + v (x ) ( y - y1 ) = (x - x1 )
é dy ù
êë dx úû
6. Increasing and Decreasing Functions ( x1, y1 )
(i) Increasing functions Let I be an open interval 10. Angle between Intersection of Two Curves
contained in the domain of a real valued function f.
Let y = f1(x ) and y = f2 (x ) be the two curves and f be the
Then, f is said to be
angle between their tangents at the point of their intersection
(a) increasing on I, if x1 < x 2 P (x1, y1 ).
Þ f (x1 ) £ f (x 2 ), " x1, x 2 Î I m1 - m2
Then, tan f =
(b) strictly increasing on I, if x1 < x 2 1 + m1m2
Þ f (x1 ) < f (x 2 ), "x1, x 2 Î I é dy ù
where m1 = ê ú for y = f1(x )
(ii) Decreasing functions Let I be an open interval ë dx û ( x1, y1 )
contained in the domain of a real valued function f.
é dy ù
Then, f is said to be and m2 = ê ú for y = f2 (x )
ë dx û ( x1, y1 )
(a) decreasing on I, if x1 < x 2
(i) If m1m2 = - 1, then tangents are perpendicular to each
Þ f (x1 ) ³ f (x 2 ), " x1, x 2 Î I
other. In this case, we say that the curves intersect each
(b) strictly decreasing on I, if x1 < x 2
other orthogonally. This also happens, when m1 = 0 and
Þ f (x1 ) > f (x 2 ), "x1, x 2 Î I m2 = ¥.
Theorem Let f be continuous on [a, b] and
(ii) If m1 = m2 , then tangents are parallel to each other.
differentiable on (a, b).
If f ¢ (x ) > 0 for each x Î(a, b), then f (x ) is said to be 11. Approximations
increasing in [a, b] and strictly increasing in (a, b). Let y = f (x ) be a function such that f : D ® R, D Ì R. Here, x
If f ¢ (x ) < 0 for each x Î(a, b), then f (x ) is said to be is an independent variable and y is the dependent variable.
decreasing in [a, b] and strictly decreasing in (a, b). Let Dx be a small change in x and Dy be the corresponding
If f ¢ (x ) = 0 for each x Î(a, b), then f is said to be a constant change in y and given by Dy = f (x + Dx ) - f (x ). Then,
function in [a, b].
(i) the differential of x denoted by dx, is defined
Note A monotonic function f in an interval I, we mean that f is by dx = Dx.
either increasing in I or decreasing in I.
(ii) the differential of y, denoted by dy, is defined by
7. Tangents and Normals æ dy ö
dy = f ¢(x )dx or dy = ç ÷ Dx.
è dx ø
A tangent is a straight line, which touches the curve y = f (x )
at a point. (iii) If dx = Dx is relatively small, when compared with x, dy
is a good approximation of Dy and we denote it by
A normal is a straight line perpendicular to a tangent to the
curve y = f (x ) intersecting at the point of contact. dy ~– Dy.
12. Some Important Terms Related
8. Slope of Tangent and Normal to Approximation
dy
represents the gradient or slope of a curve y = f (x ). (i) Absolute error The error Dx in x is called the absolute
dx error in x.
If a tangent line to the curve y = f (x ) makes an angle q with Dx
(ii) Relative error If Dx is an error in x, then is called the
X-axis in the positive direction, then x
dy relative error in x.
Slope of tangent = tan q Dx
dx (iii) Percentage error If Dx is an error in x, then ´ 100 is
-1 -1 x
Slope of normal = = called percentage error in x.
Slope of tangent dy/ dx
13. Maxima and Minima (ii) if f ¢(x ) change sign from negative to positive as
x increases through point c, then c is a point of local
Let f be a real valued function and c be an interior point in minima.
the domain of f. Then,
(iii) if f ¢(x ) does not change sign as x increases through c,
(i) point c is called a local maxima, if there is a h > 0 such then c is neither a point of local maxima nor a point of
that f (c ) ³ f (x ), " x in (c - h, c + h ). local minima. Infact, such a point is called point of
Here, value f (c ) is called the local maximum value of f. inflection.
(ii) point c is called a point of local minima, if there is a
h > 0 such that f (c ) < f (x ), " x in (c - h, c + h ). Here, 16. Second Derivative Test
value f (c ) is called the local minimum value of f. Let f be a function defined on an interval I and c Î I. Let f be
twice differentiable at c, then
14. Critical Point (i) x = c is a point of local maxima, if f ¢ (c ) = 0 and f ¢¢(c ) < 0.
A point c in the domain of a function f at which either The value f (c ) is local maximum value of f.
f ¢ (c ) = 0 or f is not differentiable, is called a critical point of f. (ii) x = c is a point of local minima, if f ¢ (c ) = 0 and f ¢¢(c ) > 0.
If f is continuous at c and f ¢(c) = 0, then there exists h > 0 Then, the value f (c ) is local minimum value of f.
such that f is differentiable in the interval (c - h, c + h). (iii) if f ¢ (c ) = 0 and f ¢¢(c ) = 0, then the test fails.
15. First Derivative Test 17. Absolute Maxima and Absolute Minima
Let f be a differentiable function on [a, b] and c be a point in
Let f be a function defined on an open interval I and let f be
[a, b] such that f ¢ (c ) = 0. Then, find f (a) , f (b) and f (c ) . The
continuous at a critical point c in I. Then,
maximum of these values gives a maxima or absolute
(i) if f ¢(x ) change sign from positive to negative as x maxima and minimum of these values gives a minima or
increases through point c, then c is a point of local absolute minima.
maxima.
Practice Questions
1. The volume of a cube is increasing at the rate of 8 cm3 / s. If the 5. The total cost C ( x) (in `) associated with the production of
length of an edge is 12 cm, then the surface area is increasing x units of an item is given by
at the rate of C ( x ) = 0.007 x 3 - 0.003 x2 + 15x + 4000
4 8
(a) cm2 / s (b) cm2 / s The marginal cost when 17 units are produced, is
3 3 (a) ` 20.967
2 (b) ` 21.967
(c) cm2 / s (d) None of these
3 (c) ` 81.968
(d) ` 11.967
2. The radius of a circle is increasing uniformly at the rate of
3 cm/s. At radius of 10 cm, the area of the circle is increasing 6. The total revenue(in `) received from the sales of x units of a
at the rate of
product is given by R ( x ) = 13 x2 + 26 x + 15 . The marginal
(a) 40p cm2 / s (b) 45p cm2 / s
revenue when x = 7, is
(c) 35p cm2 / s (d) 60p cm2 / s
(a) ` 200 (b) ` 350
3. A stone is dropped into a quiet lake and waves move in circles (c) ` 208 (d) None of these
at the speed of 5 cm/s. If at a instant, the radius of the circular
wave is 8 cm, then the rate at which enclosed area is 7. Water is dripping out from a conical funnel of semi-vertical
p
increasing, is angle at the uniform rate of 2 cm2 / s in the surface area
(a) 20p cm2 /s (b) 40p cm2 /s 4
(c) 60p cm2 /s (d) 80p cm2 /s through a tiny hole at the vertex of the bottom. When the slant
height of cone is 4cm, then rate of decrease of the slant height
4. A ladder 5m long is leaning against a wall. The bottom of the of water is
ladder is pulled along the ground, away from the wall at the 2 2
rate of 2 cm/s. If the foot of the ladder is 4 m away from the (a) cm/s (b) cm/s
3p p
wall, then its height on the wall is decreasing at the rate of
2
3 3 8 8 (c) cm/s (d) None of these
(a) cm/s (b) m/s (c) cm/s (d) m/s 4p
8 8 3 3
Mathematics 45
4sin q
8. Water is dripping out at a steady rate of 1 cm3 /s through a tiny 16. The function y = - q is increasing on q in the
hole at the vertex of the conical vessel, whose axis is vertical. (2 + cos q)
If the slant height of water in the vessel is 4 cm, then the rate interval
of decrease of slant height, where the vertical angle of the é pù
p (a) [ 0, p ] (b) ê 0, ú
conical vessel is , is ë 2û
3
æ pö
1 (c) ç 0, ÷ (d) None of these
(a) cm/s (b) 2 3 p cm/s è 2ø
2 3 p
(c) 3 p cm/s (d) None of these 17. On which of the following intervals, is the function
p f given by f ( x ) = x100 + sin x - 1 strictly decreasing?
9. For 0 < q < , the value of q, if it increases twice as fast as its
2 æp ö
(a) (0, 1) (b) ç , p ÷
sine, is è2 ø
p p æ pö
(a) (b) (c) ç 0, ÷ (d) None of these
2 3 è 2ø
p
6 18. The least value of a, such that the function f given by
f ( x ) = x2 + ax + 1 is strictly increasing on (1, 2) , is
10. The distance covered by a particle in time t is given by
x = 3 + 8t - 4t 2 . After 1s, its velocity will be (a) - 1 (b) - 2 (c) 0 (d) 1
3 2
(a) 0 unit/s (b) 3 units/s 19. The function given by f ( x) = x - 3 x + 3 x - 100 is
(c) 4 units/s (d) 7 units/s
(a) increasing on R (b) decreasing on R
11. To find out whether a function is increasing or decreasing, we (c) strictly decreasing on R (d) None of these
can use
20. The interval in which y = x2 e - x is increasing, is
(a) statistics (b) differentiation
(c) determinants (d) matrix (a) (- ¥, ¥) (b) (- 2, 0) (c) (2, ¥) (d) (0, 2)
12. Which of the following can be said true for a function f to be 21. The function f ( x) = tan x - 4 x is strictly decreasing on
increasing at x0 , in an interval æ p pö æp pö æ p pö æp ö
(a) ç - , ÷ (b) ç , ÷ (c) ç - , ÷ (d) ç , p ÷
I = ( x0 - h, x0 + h), h > 0 such that x1 , x2 ÎR? è 3 3ø è3 2ø è 3 2ø è2 ø
(a) x1 < x 2 in I Þ f (x1 ) £ f (x 2 ) æ e2x - 1 ö

22. f ( x) = çç 2x
÷÷ is
(b) x1 > x 2 in I Þ f (x1 ) £ f (x 2 ) èe + 1 ø
(c) x1 < x 2 in I Þ f (x1 ) ³ f (x 2 ) (a) a decreasing function
(d) None of the above (b) an increasing function
13. Which of the following is true for the function f ( x) = 7 x - 3? (c) Both (a) and (b) are true
(a) f (x ) is strictly increasing on R
(b) f (x ) is strictly decreasing on R 23. The function f ( x) = tan-1 (sin x + cos x) is an increasing
(c) Both (a) and (b) are false function in
(d) f (x ) is decreasing on R æp pö æ p pö æ pö æ p pö
(a) ç , ÷ (b) ç - , ÷ (c) ç 0, ÷ (d) ç - , ÷
è4 2ø è 2 4ø è 2ø è 2 2ø
14. The function given f ( x)=e 2 x is …A… on R. Here, A refers to
p
(a) strictly increasing 24. Which of the following functions is decreasing on æç 0, ö÷ ?
è 2ø
(b) strictly decreasing
(a) sin 2x (b) tan x
(c) neither increasing nor decreasing
(c) cos x (d) cos 3x
(d) decreasing
15. If y = log (1 + x) -
2x
is an increasing function of x
25. The equation of a straight line passing through a given point
2+ x ( x0 , y 0 ) having finite slope m is given by
throughout 1
(a) y - y 0 = (x - x 0 )
(a) x < - 1 as its domain m
(b) x > - 1 as its domain (b) y - y 0 = m (x - x 0 )
(c) x = - 1 (c) y - y 0 = - m (x - x 0 )
(d) x > 2 as its domain m
(d) y - y 0 = (x - x 0 )
2
26. The slope of the tangent to the curve y = x3 - x at x = 2 is 34. The distance between the origin and the normal to the curve
y = e 2 x + x2 at x = 0 is
(a) 5 (b) 6 (c) 7 (d) 11
3 5 2
27. The point at which the tangent to the curve y = 4 x - 3 - 1 (a) 2 (b) (c) (d)
2 2 5
2
has its slope , is
3 35. Differentials are used to ...A... of certain quantities. Here, A
(a) (2, 3) (b) (3 , 2) refers to
(c) (3 , 1) (d) (1, 3) (a) definite values (b) constant values
(c) rational values (d) approximate values
28. The points at which the tangent to the curve
y = x3 - 3 x2 - 9 x + 7 is parallel to the X-axis, are 36. The approximate value of f (2.01), if f ( x) = 4 x2 + 5x + 2, is
(a) (3, - 20) and (1, 12) (b) (3, - 20) and (- 1, 12) (a) 28.21 (b) 18.24 (c) 21.28 (d) 29.30
(c) (3, - 10) and (1, 10) (d) (3, - 10) and (- 1, 10) 37. If the radius of a sphere is measured as 7m with an error of
2
29. The point on the curve y = ( x - 2) at which the tangent is 0.02 m, then the approximate error in calculating its volume
parallel to the chord joining the point (2, 0) and (4, 4), is is
(a) (1, 3) (b) (3, 1) (c) (1, 0) (d) (0, 1) (a) 1.92 p m3 (b) 3.92 p m3 (c) 0.285 p m3 (d) 2.98 p m3
30. The points on the curve y = x3 at which the slope of the 38. The graphs of certain particular function help us to find ..A..
tangent is equal to the y-coordinate of the point, are at a point. Here, A refers to
(a) maximum value
(a) (0, 0) and (27, 3) (b) (0, 0) and (3, 27)
(b) minimum value
(c) (2, 3) and (27, 14) (d) (3 , 2) and (14, 27)
(c) maximum value/ minimum value
31. The points at which the tangent passes through the origin for (d) None of the above
the curve y = 4 x3 - 2 x 5 are
39. If the function f is given by f ( x) = x2 , x Î R, then
(a) (0, 0), (2, 1) and (- 1, - 2) (b) (0, 0), (2, 1) and (- 2, - 1)
(a) minimum value of f is 0
(c) (2, 0), (2, 1) and (- 3 , 1) (d) (0, 0), (1, 2) and (- 1, - 2)
(b) the point of minimum value of f is x = 0
32. The slope of the normal to the curve y = 2 x2 + 3 sin x at x = 0 (c) f has no maximum value and hence no point of
is maximum value of f in R
1 1 (d) All the above are true
(a) 3 (b) (c) - 3 (d) -
3 3
40. If the function f be given by f ( x) = |x|, x Î R, then
33. The equation of the tangent to the curve y = 3 x - 2, which is (a) point of minimum value of f is x = 1
parallel to the line 4 x - 2 y + 5 = 0, is (b) f has no point of maximum value in R
(a) 48x - 2y = 23 (b) 48x + 2y = 24 (c) Both (a) and (b) are true
(c) 48x + 23y = 24 (d) 48x - 24y = 23 (d) Both (a) and (b) are not true
Solutions
Now, Now, the rate of change of area (A)
1. (b) Let x be the length of a side (edge), V
= 12 x æç 2 ö÷ =
dS d dx 8 32 with respect to time (t) is given by
be the volume and S be the surface area = (6 x2) = 12 x
dt dt dt è 3x ø x dA d dr
of the cube. = ( pr 2) = 2 pr
[from Eq. (i)] dt dt dt
V = x3 and S = 6 x2
[Qcube has six square faces, each of Thus, when x = 12 cm, [by Chain rule]
side x ] dS 32 8 It is given that radius of circle is
= cm2 / s = cm2 / s
dt 12 3 increasing at the rate of 3 cm / s, so
where x is a function of time t.
dr
It is given that
dV
= 8 cm3 /s. Hence, if the length of the edge of a = 3 cm / s
dt cube is 12 cm, then the surface area is dt
Then, by using the chain rule, we have 8 dA
increasing at the rate of cm2 / s. \ = 2 pr (3) = 6 pr cm2 / s
dV d 3 dx dx 8 3 dt
8= = ( x ) = 3x2 . Þ = Thus, when
dt dt dt dt 3x2 2. (d) Let r be the radius of circle and A be dA
... (i) the area of circle at any time t. r = 10 cm, = 6 p(10) = 60p cm2 / s
dt
Area of circle, A = pr 2
Mathematics 47
Hence, the rate at which the area of the Þ The rate of fall of height on the Therefore,
circle is increasing, when the radius is dy 8 2
wall = - cm/s 1 2 1× p æ l ö æ 3 ö 3 3
10 cm, is 60p cm2 / s. dt 3 V= pr h = ç ÷ × ç l÷ = / p
3 3 è 2 ø è 2 ø 24
[negative sign shows that height of
3. (d) Let r be the radius of the circular ladder on the wall is decreasing at the dV 3p 2 dl
8 = l
wave and A be the area, then A = pr 2 rate of cm/s] dt 8 dt
Therefore, the rate of change of area 3
(A) with respect to time (t) is given by dC
5. (a) Marginal Cost (MC) =
dA d dx
= ( pr 2) r
dt dt = 0.007(3x2) - 0.003(2 x) + 15
dA dr 2
= 0.021x - 0.006 x + 15 h
Þ = 2pr [by Chain rule]
π/6
dt dt
l
When x = 17,
It is given that waves move in circles at ( ) 2 - 0.006 (17) + 15
MC = 0.02117
the speed of 5 cm/s.
= 0.021(289) - 0.006 (17) + 15 3p dl
So, dr /dt = 5 cm/s Therefore, -1 = 16 .
= 6.069 - 0102
. + 15 = 20.967 8 dt
dA -1
\ = 2 pr ´ 5 = 10pr cm2/s Þ
dl
= cm/s.
dt Hence, when 17 units are produced, the
dt 2 3p
marginal cost is ` 20.967.
Thus, when r = 8 cm,
dA Therefore, the rate of decrease of slant
= 10p(8) = 80p cm 2/s 6. (c) Marginal Revenue (MR) 1
dt height = cm / s.
dR d 2 3p
= = (13x2 + 26 x + 15)
Hence, when the radius of the circular dx dx
wave is 8 cm, the enclosed area is 9. (b) Since, q increases twice as fast as its
= 13 ´ 2 x + 26 = 26 x + 26
increasing at the rate of 80p cm 2/s. sine.
When x = 7,
4. (c) Let AB = 5 m be the ladder and y be \ q = 2 sin q
MR = 26 (7) + 26 = 182 + 26 = 208
the height of the wall at which the On differentiating both sides w.r.t. t,
ladder touches. Also, let the foot of the Hence, the required marginal revenue we have
ladder be at B whose distance from the is ` 208.
dq dq é d ù
= 2 cos q Q (sin q) = cos qú
dt êë dq
wall is x. 7. (c) If s represents the surface area, then dt û
Given, that the bottom of ladder is ds
= 2 cm2 /s Þ 1 = 2 cos q
pulled along the ground at 2 cm/s, dt
p
Þ cos q = = cos æç ö÷ [Q 0 < q < p /2]
dx 1
so = 2 cm/s r
dt 2 è3ø
As we know that DABC is right angled, p
Þ q=
so by Pythagoras theorem, we have h l 3
p
\ Required angle is .
π/4
2 2 2
x +y =5 …(i)
3
When x = 4, then
p p 2 10. (a) Since, x = 3 + 8 t - 4 t 2
A s = pr.l = pl . sin l= l dx
4 2 \ =8 -8t
5m dt
Wall y éQ r = l sin p ù [on differentiating w.r.t. t]
êë 4 úû Þ v =8 -8t
x ds 2 p dl dl \ At t = 1s, v = 8 - 8 = 0 unit /s
B C Therefore, = l× = 2 pl ×
dt 2 dt dt
y = 5 - 42
2 2
11. (b) We can use differentiation to find
ds
Þ y = 25 - 16 When = 2 cm2 / s , l = 4 cm, out whether a function is increasing or
dt
Þ y = 3m dl 1 1 2 decreasing or none.
= ×2 = = cm/s
Differentiating Eq. (i) w.r.t. t on both dt 2p × 4 2 2p 4p
12. (a) For a function to be increasing or
sides, we get dV
8. (a) Given that = -1 cm3 / s, where V decreasing at a point, we follow the
dx dy
2 x + 2y =0 dt definition given below.
dt dt is the volume of water in the conical If x0 be a point in the domain of
dx dy vessel. definition of a real valued function f.
Þ x +y =0
dt dt Then, f is said to be increasing, strictly
From the figure, increasing, decreasing or strictly
dy
Þ4 ´ 2 + 3 ´ =0 p 3 decreasing at x0 if there exists an open
dt l = 4 cm, h = l cos = l
6 2 interval I containing x0 such that f is
é dx ù p l increasing, strictly increasing, decreasing
êQ x = 4 , y = 3 and dt = 2 ú and r = l sin =
ë û 6 2 or strictly decreasing, respectively, in I.
d é 4 sin q ù p
Let us clarify this definition for the case dy
= - qú (b) In interval æç , p ö÷, cosx < 0 and
of increasing function. ê è2 ø
dq dq ë 2 + cos q û
A function f is said to be increasing at d d 100x99 > 0.
x0 if there exists an interval (2 + cos q) ( 4 sin q) - 4 sin q
dq dq Also,100x99 > cos x
I = ( x0 - h, x0 + h), h > 0 such that for (2 + cos q) p
x1 , x2 ÎI = -1 \ f ¢( x) > 0 in æç , p ö÷
(2 + cos q) 2 è2 ø
x1 < x2 in I Þ f ( x1) £ f ( x2)
4 cos q(2 + cos q) - 4 sin q( - sin q) Thus, function f is strictly increasing in
= -1 p
interval æç , p ö÷.
Similarly, the other cases can be (2 + cos q) 2
clarified. è2 ø
8 cos q + 4 cos2 q + 4 sin2 q
= -1 p
13. (a) Let x1 and x2 be any two numbers (2 + cos q) 2 (c) In interval æç 0, ö÷, cosx > 0 and
è 2ø
in R. Then, 8 cos q + 4(cos2 q + sin2 q)
= -1 100x99 > 0.
x1 < x2 Þ 7 x1 < 7 x2 Þ 7 x1 - 3 < 7 x2 - 3 (2 + cos q) 2
8 cos q + 4 \ 100x99 + cos x > 0
Þ f ( x1) < f ( x2) = -1 p
(2 + cos q) 2 Þ f ¢( x) > 0 in æç 0, ö÷
Thus, f is strictly increasing on R. è 2ø
8 cos q + 4 - (2 + cos q) 2
= Thus, f is strictly increasing in interval
14. (a) Let x1 and x2 be any two numbers in (2 + cos q) 2
æ 0, p ö.
R, where x1 < x2. 8 cos q + 4 - 4 - cos2 q - 4 cos q ç ÷
= è 2ø
Given, f ( x) = e 2x (2 + cos q) 2
Hence, function f is not strictly
Then, we have x1 < x2 Þ 2 x1 < 2 x2 4 cos q - cos2 q decreasing in the given intervals.
=
(2 + cos q) 2
Þ e 2x1 < e 2x 2
dy cos q( 4 - cos q) 18. (b) We find f ¢( x), then for 1 < x < 2, put
[Q x1 < x2 then a x1 < a x 2 , when a > 1] = f ¢( x) > 0 and find the required least
dq (2 + cos q) 2
Þ f ( x1) < f ( x2). value of a.
Q -1 £ - cos q £ 1
Given, f ( x) = x2 + ax + 1
Hence, f is strictly increasing on R. 3 £ 4 - cos q £ 5
Þ f ¢( x) = 2 x + a
2x Þ 4 - cos q > 0
15. (b) Given, y = log (1 + x) - In interval (1, 2),1 < x < 2
(2 + x) 4 - cos q
Hence, >0 Þ 2 < 2x < 4
(2 + cos q) 2
On differentiating w.r.t. x, we get Þ (2 + a) < (2 x + a) < ( 4 + a)
dy d é 2x ù Q y is increasing. Since, f(x) is strictly increasing function,
= êlog(1 + x) - ú dy then
dx dx ë 2 + xû \ ³0
d d dq (2 + a) > 0
( 2 + x) (2 x) - 2 x ( 2 + x) cos q( 4 - cos q)
=
1
- dx dx Þ > 0 Þ cos q > 0 [for this f ¢( x) > 0 and (2 x + a) > (2 + a)]
1+ x (2 + x) 2 (2 + cos q) 2 \ (2 + a ) > 0
1 4 + 2x - 2x 1 4 é 4 - cos q ù Þ a> -2
= - = - êQ > 0ú
1+ x (2 + x) 2 1 + x (2 + x) 2 (2 + cos q) 2 Hence, the least value of a = - 2.
ë û
(2 + x) 2 - 4 (1 + x) We know that cos q is positive when it
= 19. (a) Given, f ( x) = x3 - 3x2 + 3x - 100
(1 + x)(2 + x) 2 lies on first quadrant.
p Þ f ¢ ( x) = 3x2 - 6 x + 3
4 + x2 + 4 x - 4 - 4 x \ q Î éê 0, ùú [differentiating w.r.t. x]
= ë 2û
(1 + x)(2 + x) 2
Hence, given function is increasing in = 3( x2 - 2 x + 1)
x2 = 3( x - 1) 2
= p
(1 + x)(2 + x) 2 interval éê 0, ùú.
ë 2û For any x ÎR, ( x - 1) 2 ³ 0, since a
2
x perfect square cannot be negative.
When, x Î( -1, ¥), then >0 17. (d) Given, f ( x) = x100 + sin x - 1
(2 + x) 2
Then, f ¢ ( x) ³ 0.
and( 1 + x) > 0 Þ f ¢( x) = 100x99 + cos x
Hence, the given function f is an
\ y ¢ > 0 when x > - 1. (a) In interval (0, 1), cosx > 0 and
100x99 > 0 increasing function on R.
Hence, y is an increasing function
throughout ( x > - 1) as its domain. \ f ¢( x) > 0
20. (d) Given, y = x2 e- x
p
4 sin q [QInæç 0, ö÷ , cosx > 0 i.e. In ( 0, 157
. ),
16. (b) We have, y = -q è 2ø dy
Þ = x2 e - x ( -1) + e - x (2 x)
(2 + cos q) cosx > 0\ ( 0, 1), cosx > 0] dx
On differentiating w.r.t. q, we get Thus, function f is strictly increasing in = x e - x ( - x + 2) = x (2 - x) e - x
interval (0, 1).
Mathematics 49
dy
For increasing function, >0 26. (d) The slope of the tangent at x = 2 is 30. (b) The equation of the given curve is
dx
dy ù y = x3 …(i)
Þ -x
(2 - x) > 0 given by = 3x 2 - 1]x = 2 = 11
dx úû x = 2
xe
dy
Case I \ = 3x2
dx
Þ x > 0 and 2 - x > 0 27. (b) Slope of tangent to the given curve
Þ x > 0 and x < 2 -1 The slope of the tangent at the point
dy 1 æ dy ö
Þ 0< x<2 at ( x, y) is = ( 4 x - 3) 2 4 (x, y) is given by ç ÷ = 3x2
dx 2 è dx ø( x , y )
Case II
Þ x < 0 and 2 - x < 0 2
= When, the slope of the tangent is equal
Þ x < 0 and x > 2 4x - 3
to the y-coordinate of the point, then
Hence, there is no value of x exist. 2 y = 3x2
The slope is given to be .
3
Clearly, it is increasing in (0, 2). 2 2 Þ 3x2 = x3 [Q y = x3 , given]
So, = Þ 4x - 3 = 9 Þ x2(3 - x) = 0 Þ x = 0 or x = 3
4x - 3 3
21. (a) f ( x) = tan x - 4 x Þ f '( x) = sec 2x - 4 When, x = 0, then from Eq. (i), we get
Þ x=3
-p p y = 03 = 0
When < x < ,1 < sec x < 2 When, x = 3, then from Eq. (i), we get
3 3 Now, y = 4 x - 3 - 1. So, when y = 33 = 27
Therefore, 1 < sec 2x < 4 x = 3, y = 4(3) - 3 - 1 = 2
Hence, the required points are (0, 0) and
Þ - 3 < (sec 2x - 4) < 0 Therefore, the required point is (3,2).
(3, 27).
-p p
Thus, for , x < , f ¢( x) < 0
3 3 28. (b) The equation of the curve is 31. (d) The equation of the given curve is
Hence, f is strictly decreasing on y = x3 - 3x2 - 9 x + 7 …(i) y = 4 x3 - 2 x5
æ - p , p ö. dy dy
= 12 x2 - 10x4
ç ÷ \ = 3x2 - 6 x - 9
è 3 3ø dx dx
Therefore, the slope of the tangent at
e 2x - 1 Now, the tangent is parallel to X-axis ,
22. (b) Given, f ( x) = point (x, y) is12 x2 - 10x4 .
then slope of the tangent is zero or we
e 2x + 1 dy The equation of the tangent at (x, y) is
can say =0
e -2x - 1 dx given by
\ f ( - x) = -2x = - f ( x) Y - y = (12 x2 - 10x4 ) ( X - x) …(i)
e +1 Þ 3x2 - 6 x - 9 = 0
Þ 3( x2 - 2 x - 3) = 0 When, the tangent passes through the
\ f ( x) is an odd function. origin (0, 0), then X = Y = 0
2x Þ ( x - 3) ( x + 1) = 0 Þ x = 3, - 1
4e
Now, f ¢( x) = > 0, " x ÎR When, x = 3, then from Eq.(i), we get Therefore, Eq.(i) reduces to
(1 + e 2x ) 2
y = 33 - (3) × (3) 2 - 9 × 3 + 7 -y = (12 x2 - 10x4 )( - x)
Þ f ( x) is an increasing function. = 27 - 27 - 27 + 7 = - 20 Þ y = 12 x3 - 10x5
When, x = - 1, then from Eq. (i), we get Also, we have y = 4 x3 - 2 x5
23. (b) Since, f ( x) = tan-1(sin x + cos x)
y = ( - 1)3 - 3( - 1) 2 - 9 ( - 1) + 7 \ 12 x3 - 10x5 = 4 x3 - 2 x5
1 Þ 8 x5 - 8 x3 = 0 Þ x5 - x3 = 0
Þ f ¢( x) = (cos x - sin x)
1 + (sin x + cos x) 2 = - 1 - 3 + 9 + 7 = 12
Þ x3 ( x2 - 1) = 0 Þ x = 0, ± 1
p
2 cosæç x + ö÷ Hence, the points at which the tangent is When, x = 0, y = 4( 0)3 - 2( 0)5 = 0
è 4ø parallel to X-axis are (3, - 20) and When, x = 1, y = 4(1)3 - 2(1)5 = 2
=
1 + (sin x + cos x) 2 ( -1, 12). When, x = - 1,
For f ( x) to be increasing, y = 4( -1)3 - 2( -1)5 = - 2
29. (b) Slope of chord joining (2, 0) and
p p p Hence, the required points are (0, 0),
- <x+ < (4, 4) is
2 4 2 (1, 2) and (–1, –2).
y 2 - y1 4 - 0 4
3p p = = =2 …(i)
Þ - <x< x2 - x1 4 - 2 2 32. (d) The equation of the given curve is
4 4 y = 2 x2 + 3 sin x
2
Equation of given curve is y = ( x - 2)
24. (c) Qf ( x) = cos x On differentiating w.r.t. x, we get
Now, the slope of the tangent to the dy
p given curve at a point ( x, y) is given by = 4 x + 3cos x
Þ f ¢( x) = - sin x < 0" x Î æç 0, ö÷ dx
è 2ø dy
= 2( x - 2) Slope of the tangent to the given curve
p dx
So, f ( x) = cos x is decreasing in æç 0, ö÷. at x = 0 is given by
è 2ø Now, from Eq. (i), we get dy
= 4 ´ 0 + 3 cos 0 = 3
2( x - 2) = 2 Þ x - 2 = 1Þ x = 3 dx
25. (b) The equation of a straight line When, x = 3, then y = (3 - 2) 2 = 1 Slope of the normal to the given curve
passing through a given point ( x0 , y 0 ) at x = 0 is
[Qequation of curve is y = ( x - 2) 2] -1 1
having finite slope m is given by =- .
Hence, the required point is (3, 1). Slope of tangent 3
y - y 0 = m ( x - x0 ).
. p m3
= 4 p ´ 7 2 ´ 0.02 = 392
33. (d) The equation of the given curve is 34. (d) Given curve is y = e2x + x2
y = 3x - 2. Hence, the approximate error in
At x = 0, y = 1
The slope of the tangent at any point calculating the volume is 3.92 pm3 .
dy
( x, y) is given by, Now, = 2 e 2x + 2 x
1
dx 38. (c) The graphs of certain particular
dy 1 -1 3 functions help us to find maximum
= (3x - 2) 2 × 3 = Slope of normal at
dx 2 2 3x - 2 1 1 value or minimum value at a point.
( 0, 1) = - =-
The equation of the given line is 2+ 0 2
39. (d) From the graph of the given
4 x - 2y + 5 = 0 function, we have f ( x) = 0 if x = 0.
5 \ Equation of normal is
Þ y = 2x + Also, f ( x) ³ 0, " x ÎR
2 1
y - 1 = - ( x - 0) Y
[which is of the form y = mx + c ] 2
\ Slope of this line is 2.
Þ 2y - 2 = - x
Now, the tangent to the curve is
parallel to the line 4 x - 2y + 5 = 0 Þ x + 2y - 2 = 0
i.e. the slope of the tangent is equal to 0+ 0-2
\ Required distance =
the slope of the line. 1+ 4
3
Þ =2 X′ X
2 3x - 2 2 –3 –2 –1 O
= 1 2 3
Þ 3 = 4 3x - 2 5 Y′
2
3x - 2 = æç ö÷
Þ
3 35. (d) Differentials are used to Therefore, the minimum value of f is 0
è4ø approximate values of certain and the point of minimum value of f is
9 quantities. x = 0. Further, it may be observed from
Þ 3x = 2 + the graph of the function that f has no
16
36. (a) Qf ( x) = 4 x2 + 5x + 2 maximum value and hence no point of
41
Þ x= maximum value of f in R.
48 Þ f '( x) = 8 x + 5
41 Let x = 2 and Dx = 0.01 40. (b) From the graph of the given
Now, putting x = , in y = 3x - 2,
48 Also, f ( x + Dx) » f ( x) + Dx f '( x) function, note that
we get ~- ( 4 x2 + 5x + 2) + (8 x + 5) Dx f ( x) ³ 0, " x ÎR and f ( x) = 0, if x = 0.
y = 3æç ö÷ - 2 =
41 41 Þ f(2 + 0.01) » ( 4 ´ 2 2 + 5 ´ 2 + 2)
-2 Y
è 48 ø 16 + (8 ´ 2 + 5) ( 0.01)
41 - 32 9 3 [as x =2, Dx = 0.01]
= = =
16 16 4 » 28 + 21 ´ 0.01 3
\ Equation of the tangent passing Þ f(2.01) » 28.21 2
through the point æç , ö÷ having

41 3 1
37. (b) Let r be the radius of the sphere and
è 48 4 ø X′ X
Dr be the error in measuring radius. –3 –2 –1 O 1 2 3
slope 2 is given by
Then, r = 7 m and Dr = 0.02 m.
y - = 2 æç x -
3 41 ö Now, volume of a sphere is given by Y′
÷
4 è 48 ø 4
V = pr 3 Therefore, the function f has a minimum
3 41 3 value 0 and the point of minimum value
Þ y - = 2x -
4 24 On differentiate w.r.t. r, we get of f is x = 0. Also, the graph clearly
Þ 48 x - 24y = 23 dV æ 4 ö 2 shows that f has no maximum value in R
= ç p ÷ (3r ) = 4 pr 2
dr è 3 ø and hence no point of maximum value
Hence, the equation of the required
æ dV ö in R.
tangent is 48 x - 24y = 23. \ DV = ç ÷ Dr = ( 4 pr 2) Dr
è dr ø
Mathematics 51
CHAPTER 07
Integrals
1
(xvi) ò dx = sin- 1 x + C
1. Indefinite Integral 1- x 2
Let F(x ) and f (x ) be two functions connected together, such
1
that
d
[F(x )] = f (x ), then F(x ) is called integral of f ( x ) or (xvii) ò dx = - cos -1 x + C
dx 1- x 2
indefinite integral or anti-derivative.
dx
(xviii) ò = tan- 1 x + C
Thus, ò f (x )dx = F(x ) + C
1+ x 2
where, C is an arbitrary constant.
1
(xix) ò dx = - cot - 1 x + C
2. Some Standard Formulae 1+ x 2
x n+ 1 dx
(i) òx
n
dx = + C, n ¹ - 1(ii) ò dx = x + C (xx) òx = sec - 1 x + C
n+1 2
x -1
1
(iii) ò dx = log| x | + C, x ¹ 0 (xxi) ò
1
dx = - cosec -1 x + C
x
x x2 - 1
òe
x
(iv) dx = e x + C
3. Properties of Indefinite Integral
ax
ò a dx =
x
(v) + C, a > 0, a ¹ 1 (i) The process of differentiation and integration are
loge a
inverse of each other.
(vi) ò sin x dx = - cos x + C d
dx ò
i.e. f ( x ) dx = f ( x ) and ò f ¢( x ) dx = f ( x ) + C
(vii) ò cos x dx = sin x + C
where, C is any arbitrary constant.
(viii) ò tan x dx = log|sec x | + C (ii) ò { f ( x ) ± g ( x )} dx = ò f ( x ) dx ± ò g ( x ) dx
(ix) ò cot x dx = log|sin x | + C (iii) ò k f ( x ) dx = k ò f ( x ) dx
(x) ò sec x dx = log|sec x + tan x | + C (iv) In general, if f1, f2, ..., fn are functions and k1, k2, ..., kn
are numbers, then
= log|tan ( p / 4 + x / 2 )| + C
(xi) ò cosec x dx = log|cosec x - cot x | + C
ò [ k1 f1 ( x ) + k2 f2( x ) + ... + kn fn( x )]dx
= k1 ò f1(x )dx + k2 ò f2 (x ) dx + ... + kn ò fn (x )dx + C
= log|tan( x / 2 )| + C
where, C is the constant of integration.
(xii) ò sec 2x dx = tan x + C
4. Integration by Substitution
(xiii) ò cosec 2 x dx = - cot x + C The method of reducing a given integral into one of the
standard integrals by a proper substitution is called method
(xiv) ò sec x × tan x dx = sec x + C
of substitution. To evaluate an integral of the type
(xv) ò cosec x × cot x dx = - cosec x + C ò f { g(x )} × g ¢ (x )dx, we substitute g(x ) = t , so that g ¢ (x ) dx = dt
Some Standard Substitutions Integral Substitution

x
2 tan
Expression Substitution 2
Put sin x = , then put
x = a sin q or a cos q dx x
1. a 2 - x 2 or a 2 - x 2 1 + tan2
ò a ± b sin x 2
2. a 2 + x 2 or a 2 + x 2 x = a tan q or a cot q x
tan = t
2
3. x 2 - a 2 or x 2 - a 2 x = a sec q or a cosec q
Put a = r cos q and b = r sin q
a+ x a-x dx
or x = a cos 2 q where, r = a 2 + b 2
4.
a-x a+ x ò a sin x + b cos x
and q = tan-1 æç ö÷
a
x -a èb ø
5. or (x - a) (b - x ) x = a cos 2 q + b sin2 q, b > a
b-x dx dx
ò a + b sin2 x , ò a + b cos 2 x ,
x a-x (a) Divide numerator and
6. or x = a sin2 q or x = a cos 2 q dx
a-x x
ò a cos 2 x + b sin 2 x , denominator by cos 2 x
x a+ x (b) Reduce sec2 x in
7. or x = a tan2 q or x = a cot 2 q dx
a+ x x denominator as 1 + tan2 x
ò (a sin x + b cos x ) 2
and
(c) Put tan x = t and proceed
5. Integrals of Some Particular Functions dx for perfect square
ò a + b sin2 x + c cos 2 x
dx 1 x-a
(i) ò ( x 2 - a2 ) = 2 a log x + a + C f (x ) dx
ò (ax + b) px + q
dx 1 a+x Put px + q = t
(ii) ò 2 = log +C or ò
f (x ) dx
(a - x 2 ) 2a a-x (ax 2 + bx + c) px + q
dx 1 -1 x
(iii) ò ( a2 + x 2 ) = a tan a
+C
ò
f (x ) dx
Put px + q =
1
(px + q)( ax 2 + bx + c ) t
dx x
(iv) ò = sin-1 +C f (x ) dx 1
a -x 2 2 a ò (px + q) ax 2 + b
2
Put x =
t
and then put a 2 + bt 2 = u
dx
(v) ò ( x 2 - a2 )
= log| x + x 2 - a 2| + C
dx 7. Integration by Partial Fractions

(vi) ò = log x + x 2 + a 2 + C p(x )
x 2 + a2 Suppose, given integral is of the form ò q(x ) dx, where p(x )
2
x a x and q(x ) are polynomials in x and q(x ) ¹ 0.
(vii) ò a 2 - x 2dx = a2 - x 2 + sin-1 + C
2 2 a Then, to solve such integrals by partial fraction, we firstly
x p(x )
(viii) ò x 2 - a2 dx = x 2 - a2 take the given integrand and decompose it into
2 q( x )
a2 suitable partial fraction form and then integrate each term
- log x + x 2 - a 2 + C
2 by using suitable method.
x
(ix) ò x 2 + a 2dx =
2
x 2 + a2
S.No.
Form of the rational
Form of the partial fraction
a 2 function
+ log x + x 2 + a2 + C px ± q
2 ,a ¹ b A B
1. +
(x ± a) (x ± b) x ±a x ±b
òe
x x
(x) [ f ( x ) + f ¢ ( x )]dx = e f ( x ) + C
px ± q A B
+
6. Some Standard Integrals and 2.
(x ± a) 2 (x ± a) (x ± a) 2
Substitutions for Them px 2 ± qx ± r A B C
3. + +
Integral Substitution (x ± a) (x ± b) (x ± c) (x ± a) (x ± b) (x ± c)
x
1 - tan2 px 2 ± qx ± r A B C
Put cos x = 2 , then put 4. + +
dx x (x ± a) (x ± b) 2 (x ± a) (x ± b) (x ± b) 2
ò a ± b cos x 1 + tan2
2
x px 2 ± qx ± r A B C
tan =t 5. + +
2 (x ± a) 2 (x ± b) (x ± a) (x ± a) 2 (x ± b)
Mathematics 53
b
S.No.
Form of the rational
function
Form of the partial fraction Then, ò a f (x )dx = hlim
®0
h [f (a) + f (a + h ) + f (a + 2 h )
px 2 ± qx ± r A B C + ¼ + f { a + (n - 1 ) h}]
6. + + b-a
(x ± a) 3
(x ± a) (x ± a) 2 (x ± a) 3 where, h =
n
A Bx + C
px 2 ± qx ± r (x ± a)
+ 2 where, 11. Fundamental Theorem of Calculus
7. x ± bx ± c
(x ± a) (x 2
± bx ± c) x 2 ± bx ± c cannot be factorised (i) Let f be a continuous function defined on the closed
further. interval [ a, b ] and A( x ) be the area of function,
x
i.e. A( x ) = ò f ( x ) dx .
8. Integration by Parts a
Let u and v be two differentiable functions of a single Then, A ¢( x ) = f ( x )," x Î[ a, b ]

variable x, then the integral of the product of two functions is (ii) Let f be a continuous function defined on the closed
æd ö interval [ a, b ] and F be an anti-derivative of f.
ò uI vII dx = u ò v dx - ò çè dx u ò v dx ÷ø dx b
ò a f ( x ) dx = [ F( x )]a = F( b ) - F( a)
b
Then,
If two functions are of different types, then consider the 1st
function (i.e. u) which comes first in word ILATE, where
12. Properties of Definite Integrals
I : Inverse trigonometric function e.g. sin -1 x b b
L : Logarithmic function e.g. log x (i) ò a f ( x ) dx = ò a f (t ) dt
A : Algebraic function e.g. 1, x, x 2 b a
T : Trigonometric function e.g. sin x, cos x (ii) ò a f ( x ) dx = - ò b f ( x ) dx
E : Exponential function e.g. e x b c b
9. Definite Integral
(iii) ò a f ( x ) dx = ò a f ( x ) dx + òc f ( x ) dx , where a < c < b.
b b b
An integral of the form ò a f (x )dx is known as definite (iv) ò a f ( x ) dx = ò a f ( a + b - x ) dx
b
integral and is given by ò f (x )dx = g(b) - g(a), a a
a (v) ò 0 f ( x ) dx = ò 0 f ( a - x ) dx
where f (x ) is derivative of g(x ), a and b are lower and upper
2a a a
limits of a definite integral. (vi) ò0 f ( x ) dx = ò 0 f ( x ) dx + ò 0 f (2 a - x ) dx
10. Definite Integral as a Limit of Sum ìï2 a f ( x ) dx ,
f ( x ) dx = í ò 0
2a if f (2 a - x ) = f ( x )
Let us define a continuous function f (x ) in [a, b]. (vii) ò0 if f (2 a - x ) = - f ( x )
îï 0,
Divide interval [a, b] into n equal sub-intervals, each of length
ì a
ò -a f (x )dx = íï ò 0 0,
b-a
a ï2 f (x )dx, if f (- x ) = f (x ), i.e. even
h, so that h = (viii)
n î if f (- x ) = - f (x ), i.e. odd
Practice Questions
d x3 + 3 x + 4
1. If (sec x ) = sec x tan x, then ò sec x tan x dx is 8. Integral of is
dx x
(a) sec x (b) log| sec x | + C 2 5 /2 2 3 /2
(a) x + x + 8x 1 /2 + C
(c) sec x + C (d) None of these 7 3
2
1 (b) x 7 /2 + 2x 3 /2 + 8x 1 /2 + C
2. If the derivative of a function sec -1 x is , then the 7
x x2 - 1 1
1 (c) x 7 /2 + 2x 3 /2 + 8x 1 /2 + C
anti-derivative of is 7
x x2 - 1 (d) x 7 /2 + 3x 3 /2 + 4x 1 /2 + C
(a) sec -1 x (b) sec -1 x + C
9. The anti-derivative of [ secx (secx + tan x)] is
(c) 2 sec -1x (d) None of these
(a) 2sec x + C (b) tan x + sec x + C
3. Which of the following is/are correct? (c) sec 2x + secx tanx + C (d) None of these
dx
10. The anti-derivative of æç x +
(i) ò = cosec -1 x + C 1 ö
÷ equals
x x2 - 1 è xø
1 1 2
(ii) ò e x dx = log e x + C 1 3 2 3 1
(a) x + 2x 2 + C (b) x + x2 + C
3 3 2
1 3 1 3 1
(iii) ò dx = log |x | + C 2 3 1
x (c) x 2 + 2x 2 + C (d) x 2 + x 2 + C
3 2 2
(iv) ò ax dx = ax + C d 3
11. If f ( x ) = 4 x3 - 4 such that f (2) = 0. Then, f ( x ) is
dx x
(a) (i) and (iii) is correct (b) All are correct
(c) Only (iii) is correct (d) All are incorrect 1 129 1 129
(a) x 4 + - (b) x 3 + +
x3 8 x4 8
4. For a finite number of functions f1 , f2 ..... , f n and the real 1 129 1 129
(c) x + 3 +
4
(d) x + 4 -
3
numbers k1, k2 ....... k n ò [k1 f1 ( x ) + k2 f2 ( x ) + ...... + x 8 x 8
k n f n ( x )]dx can be generalised as æ 2a - b + 3c x2 ö÷ dx is equal to
ò çè
3
12.
(a) (k1 + k 2 + ...... + k n ) ò [ f1 (x ) + f2 (x ) + ...... + fn (x ) ] dx x x2 ø
b 9 b 9
(b) (k1 , k 2 ...... k n ) ò [ f1 (x1 ) + f2 (x ) + ...... + fn (x ) ] dx (a) 4a x - + Cx 5 /3 + C (b) 2a x + + Cx 5 /3 + C
x 5 x 5
(c) k1 ò f (x ) dx + k 2 ò f2 (x ) dx + .......+ k n ò fn (x) dx b 9 5 /3
(c) 4a x + + cx + C (d) None of these
(d) None of the above x 5
y5 x3
5. The integral formula used in the integral ò y 4 dy = + C is
5
13. ò x + 1 dx is equal to
xn xn + 1 x2 x3
òx dx = +C òx dx = +C
n n
(a) (b) (a) x + + - log|1 - x | + C
n n +1 2 3
yn + 1 x2 x3
òy dx = +C
n
(c) (d) None of these (b) x + - - log|1 - x | + C
n 2 3
x2 x3
6. The anti-derivative of sin2 x - 4e 3 x is (c) x - - - log|1 + x | + C
2 3
1 4 1 4 x2 x3
(a) cos 2x - e 3 x + C (b) - cos 2x + e 3 x + C (d) x -
2 3 2 3 + - log|1 + x | + C
1 4 3x 2 3
(c) - cos 2x - e + C (d) None of these d 1 d
2 3 14. If {f ( x )} = , then {f ( x3 )} = ...............
dx 1 + x2 dx
x + 5x - 4
3 2
7. The value of ò dx is
x2 3x 3 x2
(a) (b)
4 x2 4 1 + x3 1 + x6
(a) x 2 + 5x - +C (b) - 5x + + C - 6x 5 - 6x 5
x 2 x (c) (d)
x 2
4 (1 + x 6 )2 1 + x6
(c) + 5x + + C (d) None of these
2 x
Mathematics 55
sec 2 x - 7 x9
15. The anti-derivative of 7
sin x
is 23. ò (4 x2 + 1)6 dx is equal to
tan x cos x -5 -5
(a) +C (b) +C 1 æ 1ö 1 æ 1ö
sin 7 x sin 7 x (a) ç4 + 2 ÷ + C (b) ç4 + 2 ÷ + C
5x è x ø 5 è x ø
sin x sin x -5
(c) +C (d) +C 1 1 æ 1 ö
cos 7 x tan 7 x (c) (1 + 4)-5 + C (d) ç 2 + 4÷ + C
10x 10 è x ø
-1 (1 + x + x2 )
16. The value of ò e tan x
dx is
x3
1 + x2 24. If ò dx = a (1 + x2 )3 /2 + b 1 + x2 + C, then
-1 1+ x 2
(a) tan -1 x + C (b) x tan -1 x + e tan x
+C
-1 -1 1 -1
(c) x e tan x
+C (d) e tan x
-x +C (a) a = , b =1 (b) a = ,b =1
3 3
1 -1 1
17. If f ¢( x) = x + , then the value of f ( x ) is (c) a = ,b = -1 (d) a = , b = - 1
x 3 3
x2
(a) x 2 + log x + C (b) + log| x | + C 25. The integral of the function tan4 x is
2
tan 3 x tan 3 x
(c)
x
+ log x + C (d) None of these (a) - tan x - x + C (b) + tan x - x + C
2 3 3
3 3
tan x tan x
(c) - tan x + x + C (d) + tan x + x + C
18. Which of the following integrals are correctly evaluated? 3 3
1 1
(i) ò ( x3 - 1)1 /3 x 5dx = ( x3 -1)7 /3 + ( x3 -1)4 /3 + C 26. Which of the following integrals are evaluated correctly?
3 4
1
x2 1 (i) ò dx = log|tan x|+ tan2 x + C
(ii) ò (2 + 3 x3 )3 dx = -
18(2 + 3 x3 )
2
+C sin x cos3 x
cos 2 x
(ii) ò dx = log|cos x + sin x|+ C
1 (log x ) 1-m (cos x + sin x )2
(iii) ò dx = +C
x(log x )m 1- m p x2
(iii) ò sin-1 (cos x )dx = x+ +C
x 1 ½ 1 ½ 2 2
(iv) ò dx = log ½ ½+ C
9 - 4 x2 8 ½9 - 4 x ½
2 1 1 cos( x - b )
(iv) ò dx = log +C
cos( x - a)cos( x - b ) sin(b - a) cos( x - a)
(a) Only (i) (b) (ii) , (iii) and (iv)
(c) (iii) and (iv) (d) All of these (a) Only (iii) (b) (ii) and (iv)
-2 x (c) (i) (iii) and (iv) (d) All of these
e 2x
-e
19. The value of ò dx is sin2 x - cos2 x
e 2 x + e -2 x 27. ò dx is equal to
sin2 x cos2 x
1
(a) log | e x + e - x | + C (b) 2 log | e 2 x + e -2 x | + C
2 (a) tan x + cot x + C (b) tan x + cosec x + C
1 (c) - tan x + cot x + C (d) tan x + sec x + C
(c) log | e 2 x + e -2 x | + C (d) None of these
2 e x (1 + x )
[10 x + 10 loge 10] dx
9 x
28. ò cos2 (e x x)dx equals
20. ò x10 + 10x
equals
(a) - cot(ex x ) + C (b) tan(xe x ) + C
(a) 10 - x + C
x 10
(b) 10 + x + C
x 10 (c) tan(e x ) + C (d) cot(e x ) + C
-1
(c) (10 x - x 10) + C (d) log |10 x + x 10 | + C dx
29. ò 2 sin2 xcos2 x is equal to
dx
21. ò sin2 x cos2 x equals (a) tan x + cot x + C (b) (tan x + cot x )2 + C
tan x cot x
(a) tanx + cot x + C (b) tanx - cot x + C (c) - +C (d) (tan x - cot x )2 + C
2 2
(c) tan x cot x + C (d) tanx - cot 2x + C
sin6 x
22. If ò
3e x - 5e - x
dx = ax + b log|4e x + 5e - x | + C, then
30. ò cos 8 x dx = ............
4e x + 5e - x
tan 6 x tan 7 x
-1 -7 1 7 (a) +C (b) +C
(a) a = ,b= (b) a = , b = 6 7
8 8 8 8 tan 8 x
-1 7 1 -7 (c) +C (d) None of these
(c) a = , b= (d) a = , b = 8
8 8 8 8
sin8 x - cos 8 x 1
31. If ò dx = A sin2 x + B, then 36. The value of ò dx is equal to
1 - 2sin x cos x
2 2
8 + 3 x - x2
1 1 æ 2x - 3 ö 1 æ 2x - 3 ö
(a) A = - (b) A = (a) sin -1 ç ÷ +C (b) sin -1 ç ÷ +C
2 2 è 41 ø 41 è 41 ø
(c) A = -1 (d) A = 1 æ 2x - 3 ö 1 æ 2x - 3 ö
(c) tan -1 ç ÷ +C (d) tan -1 ç ÷ +C
è 41 ø 41 è 41 ø
sin2 px
32. Let f ( x) = . Then ò [ f ( x ) + f (- x )] dx is equal to
1 + px 1
(a) 0 (b) x + C
37. ò x2 + 2 x + 2 dx is equal to
x sin 2px x cos px (a) x tan -1 (x + 1) + C (b) tan -1 (x + 1) + C
(c) - +C (d) - +C
2 4p 2 2p (c) (x + 1) tan -1 x + C (d) tan -1 x + C
33. Which of the following integrals are evaluated correctly? 1
38. If ò dx
(sin x + 4)(sin x - 1)
x -1
(i) ò dx = x2 - 1 + log |x + x2 + 1 | + c 1
x -12 = A + B tan-1 [ f ( x )] + C1, then
æ tan x - 1ö
ç ÷
x2 è 2 ø
(ii) ò dx = log|x3 + x 6 + a6|+ c
x 6 + a6 1 -2 4 tan x + 3
(a) A = - , B = , f (x ) =
5 5 15 15
sec2 x
(iii) ò dx = log|tan x + tan x2 + 4|+ C æx ö
tan x + 4
2 4 tan ç ÷ + 1
1 1 è2ø
(b) A = - , B = , f (x ) =
1 5 15 15
(iv) ò dx = log|( x + 1) + x2 + 2 x + 2|+ C
x + 2x+ 2
2 2 2 4 tan x + 1
(c) A = , B = - , f (x ) =
5 5 5
(a) Only (iii) (b) (iii) and (iv)
æx ö
(c) (i), (ii) and (iii) (d) All of these 4 tan ç ÷ + 1
2 -2 è2ø
1 (d) A = , B = , f (x ) =
34. ò 9 x2 + 6 x + 5 dx is equal to 5 5 15 15
ex e -x
1
tan -1 ç
æ 3 x + 1ö æ 3 x + 1ö
(b) sin -1 ç
39. Let I = ò e 4x + e2x + 1
dx, J = ò e -4 x + e -2 x + 1
dx.
(a) ÷ +C ÷ +C
6 è 3 ø è 2 ø
Then, for an arbitrary constanat C, the value of J - I equals
æ 3 x + 1ö 1 æ 3 x + 1ö
(c) sin -1 ç ÷ +C (d) tan -1 ç ÷ +C 1 e 4x - e 2x + 1 1 e 2x - e x + 1
è 3 ø 6 è 2 ø (a) log 4 x +C (b) log 2 x +C
2 e + e 2x + 1 2 e - ex + 1
1
35. The value of is 1 e 2x - e x + 1 1 e 4x + e 2x + 1
7 - 6 x - x2 (c) log 2 x +C (d) log 4 x +C
2 e + ex + 1 2 e - e 2x + 1
(a) log é2x + 7 - 6x - x 2 ùú + C
ëê û x dx
40. ò ( x - 1) ( x - 2) equals
1 x+3
(b) log +C ½(x - 1)2½ ½(x - 2)2½
2 x -3 (a) log ½ ½+ C (b) log ½ ½+ C
æ x + 3ö ½ x -2 ½ ½ x -1 ½
(c) sin -1 ç ÷ +C
è 4 ø ½æ x - 1 ö 2½
(c) log ½ç ÷ ½+ C (d) log | (x - 1) (x - 2) | + C
è x - 2ø
(d) None of the above ½ ½
Mathematics 57
Solutions
d - cos2 x e3 x
1. (c) If (sec x) = sec x tan x, then = -4 +C 9. (b) We have, ò sec x (sec x + tan x) dx.
dx 2 3
1 4
= - cos2 x - e3 x + C \ ò sec x (sec x + tan x) dx
ò sec x tan xdx = sec x + C 2 3
é d æ 1 ù = ò (sec2 x + sec x × tan x) dx
d 1 ö 1
2. (b) Given, (sec -1 x) = êQ dx çè - 2 cos 2 x÷ø = - 2 ( - sin2 x) 2 = sin 2 xú
dx x x2 - 1 ê ú = ò sec2 x dx + ò sec x × tan x dx
ê d æ 4 3x ö 4 3x ú
ê and ç e ÷ = ( e 3) = 4 e 3x
ú = tan x + sec x + C
Therefore, ë dx è 3 ø 3 û
dx -1 x + 5x - 4
3 2
æ x + 1 ö dx = 1
òx x2 - 1
= sec x+C 7. (c) ò
x2
dx. 10. (c) ò ç
è
÷
xø ò x dx + ò x
dx
Here, the integrand cannot be = ò x1/ 2dx + - 1/ 2

3. (c) (i)
d
( - cosec -1 x) =
1
; integrated directly, so we will break òx dx
dx x x2 - 1 the integrand into three terms by
x3 / 2 x1/ 2
dx taking x2 as denominator of each term = + +C
-1
òx x2 - 1
= - cosec x+C of numerator and then integrate each 3 / 2 1/ 2
term separately. 2 3/ 2
= x + 2 x1/ 2 + C
d x
( e ) = e x ; ò e x dx = e x + C x3 + 5x2 - 4
(ii)
dx ò x2
dx 3
d 3
d 1 1 x3 x2 1 11. (a) Given, f ( x) = 4 x3 - 4
(iii)
dx
(log|x|) = ;
x ò x dx = log|x| + C = ò x2 dx + 5 ò x2 dx - 4 ò x2 dx dx x
Þ Anti-derivative of æç 4 x3 - 4 ö÷ = f ( x)
3
d æ ax ö ax = ò x dx + 5 ò 1× dx - 4 ò x- 2 dx
è x ø
ç ÷ = ax ; ò a dx = +C
x
(iv)
dx è log a ø log a æ x-2+ 1 ö
x2
\ f ( x) = ò æç 4 x3 - 4 ö÷ dx
= + 5x - 4 ç ÷ 3
2 è -2 + 1ø è x ø
4. (c) We know that,
x2 æ x-1 ö = 4 ò x3dx - 3 ò x- 4dx
ò [ f ( x) + g ( x)] dx = ò f ( x) dx + ò g ( x) dx =
2
+ 5x - 4 ç ÷
è -1 ø
and ò k f ( x) dx = kò f ( x) dx æ x4 ö æ x- 3 ö
x2 4 Þ f ( x) = 4 ç ÷ - 3 ç ÷+C
= + 5x + + C è4ø è -3 ø
Therefore, this be generalised to a 2 x
finite number of functions f1 , f2,.........,fn 1
x3 + 3x + 4 = x4 + +C
and the real number, k1 k2....,kn giving 8. (b) ò x
dx. x3
ò [k1 f1 ( x) + k2 f2 ( x) + K + kn fn ( x) ] dx It is not directly integrable. We split the Also, f(2) = 0.
integrand into three terms and then 1
= k1 ò f1 ( x) dx + k2 ò f2 ( x) dx + ..... \ f (2) = (2) 4 + +C
integrate each term separately. (2)3
x3 + 3x + 4
+ kn ò fn ( x) dx.
ò x
dx
Þ 16 +
1
+C=0
8
x3 x 1
5. (b) When the variable of integration is =ò dx + 3ò dx + 4 ò dx
C = - æç16 + ö÷
1
denoted by a variable other than x, the
x x x Þ
3 è 8ø
integral formulae are modified = ò x × x- 1/ 2dx + 3 ò x1/ 2 dx + 4 ò x- 1/ 2 dx
accordingly. For given integral y, 129
= ò x( 6 -1)/ 2 dx + 3 ò x1/ 2 dx + 4 ò x- 1/ 2 dx Þ C=-
4+1 8
y 1
òy dy = + C = y5 + C
4
4 +1 5 = ò x5 / 2 dx + 3 ò x1/ 2 dx + 4 ò x- 1/ 2 dx 1 129
\ f ( x) = x4 + -
We use the integral formula x (5 / 2) + 1
3x (1/ 2)+ 1
4x ( -1/ 2) + 1 x3 8
= + + +C
xn + 1 ( 5 / 2) + 1 (1 / 2) + 1 ( -1 / 2) + 1 æ 2a b ö
ò x dx = n + 1 + C 12. (c) ò ç - + 3 c3 x2 ÷ dx
n
æ xn + 1 ö è x x2 ø
ç\ ò xn dx = ÷
è n + 1ø -1 2
6. (c) We have, = ò 2 a ( x) 2 dx - ò bx-2 dx + ò 3 c x3 dx
x7 / 2 3x3 / 2 4 x1/ 2
sin 2 x - 4 e3 x . ò ( sin 2 x - 4 e3 x ) dx = + + +C 5
7 /2 3/2 1/ 2 b 9 cx3
= 4a x + + +C
= ò sin 2 x dx - 4 ò e3 x dx 2
= x7 / 2 + 2 × x3 / 2 + 8 x1/ 2 + C x 5
7
-1
x3 tan-1 x x 1
= ò e tan x
dx + òe (iii) ò
13. (d) We have, I = ò x + 1 dx (1 + x2)
dx
x(log x) m
dx
Since, power of x in numerator is éd -1 ù -1 1 dt

= ò ê ( x e tan x ) ú dx = xe tan x + C Let log x = t Þ =
greater than denominator. So, we x dx
ë dx û
divide numerator by the denominator. Þ dx = x dt
1
x + 1) x3 ( x2 - x + 1 17. (b) Given that, f ' ( x) = x + 1 1
x \ ò dx = ò xdt
x3 + x2 x(log x) m x(t ) m
- -
On integrating both sides, we get
-x2 -m t-m+1
1
f ( x) = ò x dx + ò dx
= òt dt =
-m + 1
+C
-x - x 2
x
+ + (log x)1- m
x2 = +C
f ( x) = + log x + C
x
2 1- m
x+1
- - (iv) ò
x
dx
18. (b) (i) ò ( x3 - 1)1/3 x5dx 9 - 4 x2
-1
é 1 ù = ò( x3 - 1)1/3 x3 × x2dx Let 9 - 4 x2 = t
\ I = ò ê( x2 - x + 1) - ú dx
ë x + 1û Þ - 8x =
dt
Let x3 - 1 = t dx
x3 x2 Þ x3 = t + 1
= - + x - log x + 1 + C dt
3 2 Þ dx =
Differentiating w.r.t. x, we get -8 x
d 1 dt x x dt
14. (b) We have, {f ( x)} = 3x2 = \ ò dx = ò
dx 1 + x2 dx 9 - 4 x2 t -8x
dt 1 1 1
On integrating both sides, we get Þ dx = 2
-8 ò t
= dt = log|t | + C
-1
f ( x) = tan x + C 3x -8
æ 1 ö \ ò( x3 - 1)1/3 x3 × x2dx 1
çQ ò dx = tan- 1 x÷ = - log|9 - 4 x2| + C
è 1+ x
2
ø dt 8
= ò t 1/3 (t + 1) x2
d d 3x2 =
1
log
1
+C
\ f ( x3 ) = (tan-1 x3 + C ) 1 8 9 - 4 x2
3ò
dx dx = (t 4 /3 + t 1/3 ) dt
1 æQ - a log b = a log b - 1 = a log 1 ö
= × 3x2 + 0 ç ÷
1 + ( x3 ) 2 é ù è bø
1 ê t 7 /3 t 4 /3 ú
= ê + +C
æ d
çQ tan-1 x =
1 ö
÷ 3ê 7 4 ú e 2x - e - 2x
ú
è dx 1 + x2 ø ë 3 3 û
19. (c) ò e2x + e- 2x dx
3x2 1 é 3 7 /3 3 4 /3 ù
= = t + t ú+C Let e 2x + e - 2x = t
1 + x6 3 êë 7 4 û dt
1 7 /3 1 4 /3 Þ 2 e 2x - 2 e - 2x =
= t + t +C dx
sec2 x - 7 7 4
15. (a) Let I = ò sin7 x
dx
1 3 1 Þ dx =
dt
= ( x - 1) 7 /3 + ( x3 - 1) 4 /3 + C 2( e 2x - e -2x )
sin7 x sec2 x - 7 sin7 x 7 4
=ò dx e 2x - e - 2x
(sin7 x) 2 (ii) ò
x2
dx
\ ò e2x + e- 2x dx
(2 + 3x3 )3
[ multiply sin7 x in numerator and
e 2x - e - 2x dt
denominator ] Let 2 + 3x3 = t = ò t 2[ e 2x - e - 2x ]
dt dt
d æ tan x ö Þ 9 x2 = Þdx = 2
= ò dx çè sin7 x ÷ø dx dx 9x =
1 1
2 òt
1
dt = log|t| + C
2
2 2
x x dt 1 1
(using inspection method)
\ ò (2 + 3x3)3 dx = ò t 3 9 x2 9 ò t 3
= dt 1
= log |e 2x + e -2x| + C
tan x 2
= +C 1 -3 1 æ t -3 + 1 ö
sin7 x =
9 ò t dt = ç
9 è - 3 + 1ø
÷+C
20. (d) ò ç
æ10x9 + 10x log e10 ö
÷ dx
è x10 + 10x ø
16. (c) We have, 1 1 -2 -1
= ´ t +C= +C Let x10 + 10x = t
-1 (1 + x + x ) 2 9 -2 18 t 2
I = ò e tan x
dx Þ (10x + 10x log e10) dx = dt
9
1 + x2 -1
= +C dt
18 (2 + 3x3 ) 2 Þ dx =
-1
xé x ù 10x9 + 10x log e10
= ò e tan ê + 1ú dx
ë1 + x2
û
Mathematics 59
æ10x9 + 10x log e10 ö 1 dt \ Putting the values of I1 and I2 in

2 ò t6
\ I=-
\ ò çè x10 + 10x
÷dx
ø Eq. (i), we get
10x9 + 10x log e10 1 t -5 tan3 x

=ò I=- ´ +C I= + C1 - (tan x - x + C 2)
t 2 -5 3
1 -5 tan3 x
´
dt I= t +C Þ I= - tan x + x + C
10x9 + 10x log e10 10 3
-5 (QC1 – C 2 = C )
dt 1 æ1 ö
I= ç + 4÷ +C
= ò t = log|t | + C 10 è x2 ø
26. (b) (i) Let I = ò
1
dx
= log|10 + x |+ C
x 10 sin x cos3 x
x3
24. (d) Here, I = ò 1 + x2
dx
cos x
So, (d) is the correct option. = ò sin x sec
4
x dx
dx sin2 x + cos2 x x ×x
2
21. (b) ò 2 = ò sin2 x × cos2 x dx
sin x cos2 x
= ò dx sec 2x sec 2x
1 + x2 ò tan x
dx
(Qsin2 x + cos2 x =1)
Put 1 + x2 = t 2
sin x 2
cos2 x (1+ tan2 x) sec2 x
=ò 2 dx + ò 2 dx Þ 2 x dx = 2 t dt =ò dx
sin x × cos x
2
sin x × cos2 x tan x
Þ x dx = t dt
=ò
1 1
dx + ò 2 dx (Qsec 2x = 1 + tan2 x)
cos2 x (t 2 - 1) t
sin x \ I=ò dt Putting tan x = t
= ò sec2 x dx + ò cosec2x dx t2 dt
(t 2 - 1) t Þ sec2 x =
= tan x - cot x + C =ò dt dx
t dt
Hence, (b) is the correct option. Þ dx =
= ò ( t 2 - 1) dt sec2 x
3 ex - 5 e- x
22. (c) We have, ò dx
4 ex + 5 e- x t3 é1 + t 2 ù dt
= -t + C \ I = òê 2
ú sec x
3 ë t û sec2 x
= ax + b log|4 e x + 5 e - x | + C
(1 + x2)3 / 2
= - 1 + x2 + C 1+ t 2
dt = ò éê + t ùú dt
On differentiating both sides, we get 1
3 ex - 5 e- x ( 4 ex - 5 e- x)
3 = ò t ët û
=a+ b (1 + x2)3 / 2
4 e + 5e
x -x
4 ex + 5 e- x Thus, - 1 + x2 + C t2
3 = log |t| + + C Þ log |tan x|
\ 3 ex - 5 e- x = a( 4 ex + 5 e- x) = a (1 + x2)
3/ 2
+ b 1 + x2 + C
2
+ b( 4 e - 5 e )
x -x tan2 x
+ +C
On comparing both sides, we get 2
On comparing coefficients both sides, 1
we get a= and b = -1 cos 2 x
3 (ii) Let I = ò dx
3 = 4a + 4b …(i) (cos x + sin x) 2
-5 = 5 a - 5 b …(ii) 25. (c) Let I = ò tan4 x dx = ò (tan2 x) 2 dx cos2 x - sin2 x
On solving Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get
= ò (cos x + sin x) 2 dx
Þ I = ò (tan2 x) (tan2 x) dx
a=-
1
and b =
7 (Q cos2 x = cos2 x - sin2 x)
= ò (sec2 x - 1) (tan2 x) dx
8 8 (cos x - sin x) (cos x + sin x)
=ò dx
x9 = ò sec2 x tan2 x dx - ò tan2 x dx (cos x + sin x) 2
23. (d) Let I = ò 2 dx
( 4 x + 1) 6 = ò sec2 x tan2 x dx - ò [sec2 x - 1] dx cos x - sin x
= ò sec2 x tan2 xdx - [ ò sec2 x dx - ò 1 dx]
= ò cos x + sin x dx
x9
= ò 6
dx
[Q( a 2 - b 2) = ( a - b) ( a + b)]
x12 æç 4 + 2 ö÷
1 Now, let I1 = ò sec2 x tan2 x dx and
è x ø Putting cos x + sin x = t
I2 = ò sec2 xdx - ò 1dx
1
= ò 6
dx
Then, I = I1 - I2 …(i) Þ - sin x + cos x =
dt
x3 æç 4 + 2 ö÷
1 dx
è x ø Putting tanx = t dt
dt dt Þ dx =
1
Put 4 + 2 = t Þ sec2 x = Þdx = cos x - sin x
dx sec2 x
x cos x - sin x dt
2
Þ - 3 dx = dt
\ I1 = ò sec2 x t 2.
dt \ l= ò t
.
cos x - sin x
sec2 x
x 1
t3 tan3 x
Þ
dx 1
= - dt
Þ I1 = ò t 2 dt =
3
+ C1 =
3
+ C1 = ò t dt = log |t | + C
x3 2
I2 = ò sec2 x dx - ò 1 dx = tan x - x + C 2 = log|cos x + sin x| + C
(iii) ò sin-1(cos x) dx e x (1+ x) e x (1 + x) dt 1 - cos 2 px

\ò = sin2 px =
cos2( e x x)
dx = ò cos t2
´ x
e (1 + x) 2
ì p - cos-1 (cos x) ü dx 1 - cos2 px ù
= ò í ý 1 \ ò [ f ( x) + f ( - x)] dx = ò éê úû dx
î2 þ = ò dt = ò sec t dt
2
ë 2
æQ sin-1 t + cos-1 t = p for |t| £ 1ö cos2 t 1 sin2 px
ç ÷ = x- +C
è 2 ø = tant + C = tan ( xe x ) + C 2 4p
æ p - xö dx = p x - x + C
2
Hence, option (b) is correct. x -1
= ò
ç
è2
÷
ø 2 2
33. (b) (i) Let I = ò dx
29. (c) We have, x2 - 1
1
(iv) ò dx dx x 1
cos( x - a) cos( x - b) I= ò 2 sin2 x cos2 x = ò x2 - 1
dx - ò x2 - 1
dx = I1 - I2 ...(i)
1 sin{( x - a) - ( x - b)}
=
sin ( b - a) ò cos( x - a) cos( x - b) dx (sin2 x + cos2 x) I1 = ò
x
= ò 2 sin2 x cos2 x
dx Now,
x -12
dx,
émultiply by sin ( b - a) in numerator ù
ê ú 1 1 Let x2 - 1 = t Þ 2x =
dt
êand denominator ú =
2 ò sec 2x dx + ò cosec 2x dx
2 dx
êand put sin( b - a) = sin[( x - a) ú
ê ú tan x cot x Þ dx =
dt
êë - ( x - b) in numerator úû = - +C
2 2 2x
sin( x - a) cos( x - b) x dt 1 dt
sin6 x \ I1 = ò = ò
=
1 - cos( x - a) sin( x - b)
ò cos( x - a) cos( x - b) dx
30. (b) We have, I = ò cos8 x dx t 2x 2 t
sin( b - a) 6 1 é 1 ù
1 -2 1 ê t2 ú
I = ò æç
sin x ö æ 1 ö
[Qsin(C - D) = sinC cosD - cosC sinD] ÷ ç ÷ dx = ò t dt = ê + C1
è cos x ø è cos2 x ø 2 2 ê1 / 2 úú
1
= ë û
sin( b - a) I = ò tan6 x sec 2x dx
= t + C1 = x2 - 1 + C1
é sin( x - a) cos( x - b) ù Put, tanx = t Þ sec 2x dx = dt
ê cos( x - a) cos( x - b) ú (Qt = x2 - 1)
\ I = ò t 6 dt
ò êê cos( x - a) sin( x - b) úú dx Now, I2 = ò
1
dx
ê- ú I=
t7
+C x2 -1
ë cos( x - a) cos( x - b) û 7
1 = log|x + x2 -1|+ C 2
=
sin( b - a) ò {tan( x - a) - tan( x - b)} dx I=
tan7 x
+C
7 æ dx ö
çQ x2 - a 2 |÷
ç ò x2 - a 2
1 = log |x +
= . {- log |cos( x - a)| ÷
sin( b - a) sin8 x - cos8 x è ø
31. (a) Let I = ò 1 - 2 sin2 x cos2 x dx
+ log |cos( x - b)|} + C On putting the values of I1 and I2 in
(sin4 x - cos4 x) (sin4 x + cos4 x) Eq. (i), we get
(Qò tan xdx = - log|cos x| ) I=ò dx
(1 - 2 sin2 x cos2 x) x -1
ò x2 -1dx = x -1 - log|x + x -1|+ C
2 2
1 cos ( x - b)
= log +C
sin( b - a) cos ( x - a) (sin2 x - cos2 x) (sin2 x + cos2 x)
I= ò 1 - 2 sin2 x cos2 x (where, C = C1 - C 2)
sin2 x - cos2 x x2 x2
27. (a) ò dx ´ [(sin2 x + cos2 x) 2 - 2 sin2 x cos2 x] dx (ii) ò dx = ò dx
sin2 x cos2 x x6 + a 6 ( x3 ) 2 + a 6
cos2 x (1 - 2 sin x cos x)
2 2
æ 1
= òç -
1 ö
÷ dx
I=- ò 1 - 2 sin2 x cos2 x
dx
dt
2 2 Let x3 = t Þ 3x2 =
è cos x sin x ø dx
I = - ò cos 2 x dx
= ò (sec2 x - cosec 2x) dx dt
I=-
1
sin 2 x + C … (i) Þ dx =
3x2
= tan x + cot x + C 2
Given that, I = A sin2 x + B …(ii) x2 x2 dt
Hence, option (a) is correct. \ò dx = ò 2
From Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get (x ) + a
3 2 6
t + a 6 3x
2
e x (1 + x)
28. (b) Given, ò dx 1
cos2 ( e x x) A=- 1 dt 1
3 ò t 2 + a6 3
2 = = log |t
Let xe = t
x
sin2 px sin2( - px)
dt 32. (c) f ( x) + f ( - x) = + + t 2 + a6 | + C
Þ ( xe + e x ) =
x
1 + px 1 + p -x
dx
sin2 px (sin2 px) p x æ dx ö
dt = + çQ x2 + a 2 |÷
ç ò x2 + a 2
Þ dx = = log |x +
e x ( x + 1) 1 + px px + 1 ÷
è ø
Mathematics 61
1 1 1 3
=
3
log |x3 + x6 + a 6 | + C (Qt = x3 ) =
9 ò 2
æ x + 1ö + æ2 ö
2
dx Let x-
2
= t Þdx = dt
ç ÷ ç ÷
sec2 x è 3ø è3ø 1
(iii) ò
tan2 x + 4
dx
æ ö æx + 1ö
\I = ò 2
dt
æ 41 ö
1ç1÷ ç ÷
ç ÷ -t
2
= ç ÷ tan-1 ç 3÷ + C
è 2 ø
Let tanx = t 9 ç2 ÷ ç 2 ÷
dt è3ø è 3 ø öæ
Þ sec2 x = ÷ç
é x ù
= tan- 1 æç ö÷ ú
dx dx 1 t ÷
êQ ò 2
- 1ç
= sin +C
dt ë a + x 2
a è a øû ç 41 ÷
Þ dx = ç ÷
sec2 x 1 - 1 æ 3x + 1ö è 2 ø
= tan ç ÷+C
sec2 x sec2 x è 2 ø é x ù
dt
\ò dx = ò 6
= sin- 1 æç ö÷ ú
dx
tan x + 4
2
t + 4
2 sec2
x êQ ò
1 êë a 2 - x2 è a øú
35. (c) Let I = ò dx û
dt 7 - 6 x - x2
= ò t 2 + 22
æ
çx - ÷
3ö
1 - 1ç 2 ÷+C
= log |t + t 2 + 4| + C
= ò 7 - ( x2 + 6 x)
dx = sin
ç 41 ÷
ç ÷
1 è 2 ø
æ ö
çQ dx
x2 + a 2 |÷
= ò dx
2x - 3ö
ç ò x2 + a 2 = sin- 1 æç
= log |x + 7 - [ x + 2 ´ 3x + (3) 2 - (3) 2 ]
2 æQt = x - 3 ö
÷ ÷+C ç ÷
è ø è 41 ø è 2ø
1
= log |tan x + tan2 x + 4 | + C
= ò 7 - [ x + 6 x + 32 - 9 ]
2
dx
1
37. (b) Let I = ò x2 + 2 x + 2
dx
(Qt = tan x) 1
1
= ò 7 - [( x + 3) 2 - 9 ]
dx
1
(iv) Let I = ò x2 + 2 x + 2
dx = ò ( x + 1) 2 + 12
dx
1
1
= ò 4 - ( x + 3) 2
2
dx
Let x + 1 = t Þ dx = dt
= ò dx
( x2 + 2 x + 1) + 1 dt = tan- 1 æç ö÷ + C
1 1 t
Let x + 3 = t Þ dx = dt \I= ò 2
1 t + 12 1 è1ø
= ò dt = sin- 1 æç ö÷ + C
dx 1 t
\I = ò é x ù
= tan- 1 æç ö÷ ú
( x + 1) 2 + 1 è4ø dx 1
42 - t 2 êQ ò 2 è øû
ë a + x2
a a
Let x + 1= t
é x ù
= sin- 1 æç ö÷ ú = tan- 1 æç
x + 1ö
dx
Þ dx = dt êQ ò ÷+C
êë a -x
2 2 è a øú è 1 ø
1 û
\ I= ò t2 + 1
dt
= tan- 1( x + 1) + C
x + 3ö
= sin- 1 æç ÷+C (Q t = x + 3)
= log |t + t 2 + 1| + C è 4 ø Hence, the option (b) is correct.
æ dx ö 38. (d) We have,
çQ x2 + a 2 |÷
ç ò x2 + a 2
= log |x + 36. (a) Let
÷
è ø 1 1
I=ò dx I= ò (sin x + 4) (sin x - 1) dx
= log |( x + 1) + ( x + 1) + 1| + C
2 8 + 3x - x 2
1 1 (sin x + 4) - (sin x - 1)
5 ò (sin x + 4) (sin x - 1)
=
= log |( x + 1) + x2 + 2 x + 2 | + C = ò é 2 2ù
dx dx
8 - ê x2 - 3x + æ3ö - æ3ö
(Qt = x + 1) ç ÷ ç ÷ ú 1 1 1 1
è2 ø è2 ø ú
5 ò sin x - 1
êë û = dx - ò dx
5 sin x + 4
1
34. (d) ò dx 1
9 x2 + 6 x + 5
= ò é
dx sec 2
x
9ù
2 1
8 - ê æç x - ö÷ - ú
3 = ò 2 dx
1 1 5 2 tan x - 1 - tan2 x
êë è 2ø
9 ò x2 + 2 x + 5
= dx 4 ûú
2 2
3 9 1 x
1
= ò
1 = ò dx
1
sec 2
- ò
dx 2 2
9 æ
- ç x - ö÷
3 dx
9 1 æ1ö
2
5 æ1ö
2
8+ 5 2 tan x + 4 + 4 tan2 x
x2 + 2 × × x + ç ÷ + - ç ÷ 4 è 2ø
3 è3 ø 9 è3 ø 2 2
1 x
1
= ò
1
= ò 2
dx Put tan = t
2
dx æ 41 ö æ 3ö
2
2
ç ÷ - çx - ÷
x + æç ö÷ + -
9 2 1 5 1 2x
x2 + è 2 ø è 2ø Þ sec dx = 2 dt
3 è3ø 9 9 2
1 2 dt x 1 ½ t - 1½
+1
5ò 2 t -1- t2
\I= 4 tan = log ½ ½+ C
2 -2 2
A= , B= , f ( x) = 2 ½ t + 1½
5 5 15 15
1 2 dt
5 ò [2 t + 4 (1 + t 2)]
- 1 ½ u2 - u + 1 ½
e3 x = log ½ 2 ½+ C
39. (c) We have, J = ò dx
1 + e 2x + e 4 x 2 ½ u + u + 1½
2 dt 1 dt
5 ò t 2 - 2t + 1 10 ò t 2 + 1 t + 1
\I=- - 1 ½ e 2x - e x + 1 ½
(Qby dividing numerator and = log ½ 2x ½+ C
2 denominator with e -4 x ) 2 ½ e + e + 1½
x
-2 e3 x - e x
1 \ J -I = ò 1 + e2x + e4x dx
5 ò (t - 1) 2
= dt 40. (b) Let
x
=
A
+
B
( x - 1) ( x - 2) ( x - 1) ( x - 2)
u -1
2
1 dt = ò 1 + u 2 + u 4 du
10 ò æ
- 2
Þ x = A( x - 2) + B( x - 1) …(i)
1ö
2
æ 15 ö On substituting x = 1and 2 in Eq. (i),
çt + ÷ + ç ÷ (Q put u = e x )
è 4ø è 4 ø we get A = - 1and B = 2
4 t + 1ö 1 x 1 2
tan-1 æç 1- \ =- +
2 1 2
= × - ÷+C u2 ( x - 1) ( x - 2) ( x - 1) ( x - 2)
5 t - 1 5 15 è 15 ø = ò 1
du
1+
+ u 2
x ( -1)
=
2 1 u2 \ò dx = ò x - 1dx
5 tan x - 1 ( x - 1) ( x - 2)
1
2 1- 2 2
æ 4 tan x + 1ö
=ò u
2
du + ò x - 2 dx
ç ÷ æu + 1 ö - 1
2 -1 ç ÷
- tan ç 2 ÷ + C ...(i) è uø = - log |x - 1| + 2 log |x - 2| + C
5 15 ç 15 ÷
= - log|x -1| + log|x - 2|2 + C
è ø 1
Put, u+ =t
u ( x - 2) 2
But, given that = log +C
æ1 - 1 ö du = dt x -1
1 Þ
I=A + B tan-1[ f ( x)] + C …(ii) ç ÷
æ tan x - 1ö è u2 ø æ bö
ç ÷ çQlog b - log a = log ÷
è 2 ø dt è aø
\ J -I = ò 2
From Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get t -1 So, the option (b) is correct.
Mathematics 63
CHAPTER 08
Application of
Integrals
X-axis and the lines at x = a and x = b, is given by
(i) If the curve y = f (x ) lies above X-axis, then the area
A = | A2| + A1.
bounded by the curve y = f (x ), the X-axis and the lines at Y
b
x = a and x = b, is given by ò y dx. A1
a
x=b
Y x=a
X¢ X
O
f (x) B
y=
A Y¢ A2
y x=b
x=a (v) Suppose, two curves are given by y = f (x )and y = g (x )and
X′ X their points of intersections are given by x = a and x = b.
O L dx M b
(a) If f (x ) ³ g(x ) in [a, b], then A = ò [f (x ) - g(x )]dx.
Y′ a
(b) If f (x ) ³ g(x ) in [a, c ] and f (x ) £ g(x ) in [c , b],

(ii) If the curve x = f ( y ) lies to right of Y-axis, then the area c b
bounded by the curve x = f ( y ), the Y-axis and the lines at then A = ò [f (x ) - g (x )]dx + ò [g(x ) - f (x )]dx
d a c
y = c and y = d , is given by ò x dy. Y
c
Y y = f(x)
y=dC
B
x y = g(x)
dy x = f(y)
A y=c D X′ X
O x=a x=b
X′ X
O
Y′ Y′
(iii) If the curve y = f (x )lies below the X-axis, then area bounded (vi) Area bounded by the two curves, y = f (x ) and y = g(x )
by the curve y = f (x ), X-axis and the lines at x = a and x = b, between the lines at x = a and x = b, is given by
b c b
is given by òa y dx . ò f (x )dx + ò g(x ) dx, where c is the intersection point
a c
Y between x = a and x = b.
Y
x=a x=b
)
y=
X¢ X g (x
y=
f(
O
x)
y = f (x)
Y¢
(iv) Generally, it may happen that some position of the curve is
above X-axis and some is below the X-axis which is shown X¢ x=a X
O x=c x=b
in the figure. The area A bounded by the curve y = f (x ), Y¢
Practice Questions
x2 y2
1. The area (in sq units) bounded by the ellipse += 1 and 9. If we draw a rough sketch of the curve y = x - 1 in the
a2 b2
2 2 2 interval [1, 5], then the area under the curve and between the
the ordinates x = 0 and x = ae , where b = a (1 - e )and e < 1,
lines x = 1 and x = 5is
is 16 8
(a) sq units (b) sq units
(a) ab [e 1 - e 2 - sin -1 e ] (b) ab [e 1 + e 2 + sin -1 e ] 9 3
16
(c) ab [e 1 - e 2 + sin -1 e ] (d) ab [sin -1 e - e 1 - e 2 ] (c) sq units (d) None of these
3
2. If the area between x = y 2 and x = 4 is divided into two equal 10. The area of the region bounded by the curves y = |x - 2|,
parts by the line x = a, then the value of a is x = 1, x = 3 and X-axis is
(a) 1 sq unit (b) 2 sq units
(a) (4)1 /3 (b) (4)4 /3 (c) 3 sq units (d) 4 sq units
(c) (4)2 /3 (d) None of these
11. The area bounded by y = - x2 + 2 x + 3 and y = 0 is
3. The area of the region bounded by the parabola y = x2 and 32
(a) 32 sq units (b) sq units
y = |x|is 3
2 4 1 1
(a) sq unit (b) sq units (c) sq unit (d) sq unit
3 3 32 3
5 1
(c) sq units (d) sq unit 12. The area (in sq units) bounded by the curves y = x,
3 3
2 y - x + 3 = 0 and X-axis lying in the first quadrant is
4. Area lying in the first quadrant and bounded by the circle
27
x2 + y 2 = 4 and the lines x = 0 and x = 2 is (a) 9 (b) 36 (c) 18 (d)
4
p 13. The area of the region enclosed by the curves y = x, x = e ,
(a) p sq units (b) sq units
2 1
y= and the positive X-axis is
p p x
(c) sq units (d) sq units
3 4 3
(a) 1 sq unit (b) sq units
2
5. Area of the region bounded by the curve y 2 = 4 x, Y-axis and 5 1
the line y = 3 is (c) sq units (d) sq unit
2 2
9 14. If f ( x) ³ g ( x) in [a, c ] and f ( x) £ g ( x) in [c , b], where a < c < b,

(a) 2 sq units (b) sq units
4 then the area of the region bounded by the curves in [a, b] is
9 9 c b
(c) sq units
3
(d) sq units
2
(a) A = òa [ g (x ) - f (x )] dx + òc [ g(x) + f (x)] dx
c b
(b) A = ò [ g (x ) - f (x )] dx + ò [ f (x ) - g (x )] dx
6. Area of the region bounded by the curve y = cos x between a c
c b
x = 0 and x = p is (c) A = ò [ g (x ) + f (x )] dx + ò [ f (x ) + g (x )] dx
a c
(a) 2 sq units (b) 4 sq units c b
(d) A = ò [ f (x ) - g (x )] dx + ò [ g (x ) - f (x )] dx
(c) 3 sq units (d) 1 sq unit a c
7. The area of the region bounded by the parabola y 2 = 2 x and 15. Smaller area enclosed (in sq units) by the circle x2 + y 2 = 4
the straight line x - y = 4 is and the line x + y = 2 is
(a) 18 sq units (b) 9 sq units (a) 2(p - 2) (b) p - 2
(c) 27 sq units (d) 6 sq units (c) 2p - 1 (d) 2(p + 2)
8. The area (in sq units) of the region bounded by the curve 16. Area (in sq units) lying between the curves y 2 = 4 x and y = 2 x
2
y = x and the line y = 16 is is
2 1
32 256 (a) (b)
(a) sq units (b) sq units 3 3
3 3 1 3
(c) (d)
64 128 4 4
(c) sq units (d) sq units
3 3
Mathematics 65
17. The area bounded by the lines y = 4 x + 5, y = 5 - x and 22. Area bounded by the curve y = x3 , the X-axis and the
4 y = x + 5 is coordinates x = - 2 and x = 1 is
15 9 -15
(a) sq units (b) sq units (a) -9 sq units (b) sq units
2 2 4
13 15 17
(c) sq units (d) None of these (c) sq units (d) sq units
2 4 4
p
18. The line x = divides the area of the region bounded by 23. The area of the circle x2 + y 2 = 16 exterior to the parabola
4
p y 2 = 6 x is
y = sin x, y = cos x and X-axis æç 0 £ x £ ö÷ into two regions of
è 2ø 4
(a) (4 p - 3) sq units
areas A1 and A2 . Then, A1 : A2 is equal to 3
4
(a) 4 : 1 (b) 3 : 1 (b) (4 p + 3) sq units
(c) 2 : 1 (d) 1 : 1 3
4
(c) (8 p - 3) sq units
19. Area of the region enclosed by the curves y = x2 and y = x3 is 3
4
1 1 (d) (8 p + 3) sq units
(a) sq unit (b) sq unit 3
12 6
1
(c) sq unit (d) 1 sq unit 24. If A is the area of the region bounded by the curve
3 y = 3 x + 4, X-axis and the lines x = - 1, x = 4 and B is that
20. The area (in sq units) in the first quadrant between area bounded by the curve y 2 = 3 x + 4, X-axis and the lines
x2 + y 2 = p2 and y = sin x is x = - 1, x = 4, then A : B is equal to
3 3
p -8 p (a) 1 : 1 (b) 2 : 1
(a) (b)
4 4 (c) 1 : 2 (d) None of these
p 3 - 16 p3 - 8
(c) (d) 25. If the area above the X-axis bounded by the curves y = 2kx and
4 2
3
x = 0 and x = 2 is , then the value of k is
21. The parabola y 2 = 2 x divides the circle x2 + y 2 = 8 in two log 2
parts. Then, the ratio of the areas of these parts is 1
(a) (b) -1
3p - 2 3p + 2 6p - 3 2p - 9 2
(a) (b) (c) (d)
10 p + 2 9p - 2 11p - 5 9p + 2 (c) 1 (d) 2
Solutions
=
2b é
ae a 2 - a 2e 2 + a 2 sin-1 eù Area (OAD) = Area ( ABCD)
1. (c) The required area of the region
2 a êë úû \ Area (OED) = Area (EFCD)
BOB ¢ RFSB is enclosed by the ellipse
= ab é e 1 - e 2 + sin-1 eù
a a
and the lines x = 0 and x = ae.
ëê ûú
Þ Area (OED) = ò0 y dx = ò0 x dx
Y 4
x = ae 2. (c) Given curve x = y 2 is a parabola Area of EFCD = ò x dx
B a
S
symmetrical about X-axis and passing [Qy 2 = x Þ |y | = x]
through the origin. a 4
F(ae,0)
The line x = a divides the area
Þ ò0 x dx = òa x dx
X' O X bounded by the parabola and x = 4 a 4
é x3 / 2 ù é x3 / 2 ù
into two equal parts. Þ ê ú =ê ú
R y2 = x ë3 / 2 û 0 ë3 / 2 û a
B' Y C 2 3/ 2 2
Y'
D Þ [ a - 0] = [ 43 / 2 - a3 / 2 ]
3 3
Note that the area of the region BOB ¢ Þ a3 / 2 = 43 / 2 - a3 / 2
RFSB X' X
ae b ae 2 O E F Þ 2 a3 / 2 = 8
= 2 ò ydx = 2 ò a - x2dx
0 a 0 Þ a3 / 2 = 4
ae A
2b é x 2 2 a 2 -1 x ù Y' B \ a = ( 4) 2/3
= ê a -x + sin ú
a ë2 2 a û0 x=a x=4 Therefore, the value of a is ( 4) 2/3 .
2
4 - x2 dx We have, y 2 = 8 + 2y
3. (d) Given, parabola y = x2 which is = ò0
i.e. (y - 4)(y + 2) = 0
symmetrical about Y-axis and passes 2
éx x ù
sin- 1 æç ö÷ ú
4 which gives y = 4, -2 and x = 8 , 2
through ( 0, 0) and the curve y = |x|. =ê 4 - x2 +
ë2 2 è2 ø û 0 Y
On putting x = - x, we get
-1
= 0 + 2 sin (1) - 0
y = |- x| = |x| B(8, 4) (8, 4)
p
Y = 2 ´ = p sq units
2
y = x2
5. (b) The area bounded by the curve X' X
B A y= x y 2 = 4 x, Y-axis and y = 3 is represented O
(–1, 1 ) (1, 1) in the figure by shaded region.
D C A (2
X' X Y , –2
O (0, 0) M )
y=3 Y'
Y' 3 Thus, the points of intersection are
X' X (8 , 4) and (2 , - 2).
\ Curve y =|x|is symmetrical about O
\ Area = ò æç 4 + y - y 2 ö÷ dy
Y-axis and passes through origin.
4 1
-2 è 2 ø
The area bounded by the parabola
y2 = 4x 4
y = x2 and the line y = |x|or y = ± x can Y' y2 1 3
be represented in the figure. = 4y + - y
3 2 6 -2
The point of intersection of parabola Required area = ò0 |x|dy
x2 = y and line y = x in first quadrant is 3
= 18 sq units
A (1, 1). 3 y2 1 éy3 ù
The given area is symmetrical about
= ò0 4
dy = ê ú
4 ë 3 û0 8. (b) Area of region = 2 ò
16
y dy
0
Y-axis. 1 3
= (3 - 0) Putting y = 16 in y = x2, we get x = ± 4
\ Area (OACO) = Area (ODBO) 12
Y
Required area = 2 (area of shaded =
1
(27)
region in the first quadrant only) 12 y = 16
1 1
= 2 ò (y 2 - y1) dx = 2 ( x - x2) dx 9
0 ò0 = sq units
4
(– 4, 16) (4, 16)
[Qthe curve y = |x|lies above the X' X

curve y = x2 in [0, 1], so we take y 2 = x 6. (a) We have, y = cos x and lines x = 0, O
and y1 = x2] x=p
= 2 é ò x dx - ò x2 dxù
1 1
êë 0 0 úû Draw the rough sketch of the function
cosx. Y'
æ é x2 ù1 é x3 ù1 ö
= 2 çê ú - ê ú ÷ Y 16
çë 2 û é y3 / 2 ù
è 0 ë 3 û 0 ÷ø =2 ê
2 3/ 2
ú = ´ 2 [16 - 0]
ì 1 ü ë 3 / 2 û0 3
= 2 íæç - 0ö÷ - æç - 0ö÷ ý
1
îè 2 ø è3 øþ 4 ´ 64 256
X' π 3π/2 X = = sq units
1 π/2 3 3
= sq unit O
3
1 9. (c) We have,
Therefore, required area is sq unit.
3 Equation of the curve
Y'
4. (a) The area bounded by the circle and \ Required area y= x -1
the lines x = 0 and x= 2 in the first p
p On squaring both sides, we get
quadrant is represented in the figure by = ò0
2 cos xdx +
òp cos xdx y2 = x - 1
shaded region. 2
Now, sketch the graph of given curve.
Y = [sin x]p0 / 2 + |[sin x]pp / 2|
Y x=5
x2 + y2 = 4
p p
B = éê sin - sin 0ùú + éê sin p - sin ùú (5, 2)
y = √x – 1
ë 2 û ë 2û
X' X
O (2,0) = [1 - 0] + |0 - 1| = 1 + 1= 2 sq units
X' X
O (1, 0) (5, 0)
x=2 7. (a) The intersecting points of the given
Y' curves are obtained by solving the
2 equations x - y = 4 and y 2 = 2 x for x
Required area = ò0 |y|dx and y. Y′
Mathematics 67
\ Area of the shaded region Y Total Area = Area of the region ACBDA
5 + Area of the region BPRQB
= ò1 x - 1dx y = √x c b
é ( x - 1)3 / 2 ù
5
2y – x + 3 = 0
= òa [ f ( x) - g( x)]dx + òc [ g( x) - f ( x)]dx
2 3/ 2 5
=ê ú = [( x - 1) ]1 X' X Y
êë 3 / 2 úû1 3 O 3
y = f (x) y = g (x)
2 –3/2 P
= [( 4)3 / 2 - 0] C
B
3 A R
2 Y'
= ´8 D y = g (x)
Q
3 On solving Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get x=a y = f (x)
16 x=c x=b
= sq units 2 x - ( x) 2 + 3 = 0
3 X¢ X
Þ ( x) 2 - 2 x - 3 = 0 O
3 Y¢
10. (a) Required area = ò1 |x - 2|dx Þ ( x - 3) ( x + 1) = 0
Þ x =3 15. (b) The smaller area enclosed by the
Y circle x2 + y 2 = 4 and the line x + y = 2
[Q x = -1is not possible]
\ y =3 is represented by the shaded area
ACBA.
\ Required area
B C 3 The intersection points of circle and
= ò0 ( x2 - x1) dy line are A(2 , 0) and B( 0,2).
X' X 3 Y
A O D 2
x=1 x=3
= ò0 {(2y + 3) - y }dy
x2 + y 2 = 4 B(0, 2)
3
Y' é y3 ù C
= êy 2 + 3y - ú A(2, 0)
2 3 ë 3 û0 X' X
O
= ò1 (2 - x) dx + ò2( x - 2) dx =9 + 9 -9 =9 x+y=2
2 3
é x2 ù é x2 ù 1
= ê2 x - ú + ê - 2 xú 13. (b) Given, y = x, x = e and y = , x ³ 0 Y'
ë 2 û1 ë 2 û2 x
3 3 Y \ Required area (shown in shaded
=2 - - + 2 region)
2 2 y=x
= Area (OACBO) - Area ( DOAB)
= 1sq unit 2 2
1) = ò 4 - x2 dx - ò (2 - x) dx
, 0 0
11. (b) Intersection points of given curves (1
A [Qx2 + y 2 = 4 Þy = 4 - x2 and
with X-axis are ( -1, 0) and (3, 0).
3 B y = 1/x x + y = 2 Þy = 2 - x]
2
\ Required area = ò-1( - x + 2 x + 3) dx O 2
é x2 ù
2
= éê sin- 1 ùú - ê2 x - ú
X' X x 4 x
Y' D (1, 0) C (e, 0) 4 - x2 +
Y x=e ë2 2 2 û0 ë 2 û0
(0, 3) C Since, y = x and x ³ 0 Þy ³ 0
é 2 4 - 4 + 4 sin-1 (1) ù
\ Area to be calculated in first ê ú
quadrant shown in figure. = ê2 2
ú - [4 - 2]
X' X
4
ê - 0 - sin ( 0)
- 1 ú
O \ Area = Area of DODA êë úû
(–1, 0) A 2
B (3, 0) + Area of DABCD
éQ 2 2 x
a 2 - x2 ùú
1 e1
= (1 ´ 1) + ò dx ê ò a - x dx =
2
Y' 2 1 x ê ú
ê a2 x ú
3 1 êë + sin-1 úû
é x3 2 x2 ù = + [log|x|]1e 2 a
= ê- + + 3xú 2
3 2 p
ë û -1
1 = éê2 × ùú - [ 4 - 2 ]
é ù = + [log|x|]1e ë 2û
= ê - 9 + 9 + 9 - æç + 1 - 3ö÷ ú
1 2
ë è3 øû = ( p - 2) sq units
1 3
32 = + 1 = sq units
= sq units 2 2 16. (b) The given curve is
3
y 2 = 4x …(i)
14. (d) If f ( x) ³ g( x) in [ a, c ] and f ( x) £ g( x)
12. (a) Given curves are and the given line is
in [ c , b ], where a < c < b as shown in y = 2x …(ii)
y= x …(i) the figure, then the area of the regions
The two curves meet, where
and 2y - x + 3 = 0 …(ii) bounded by curves can be written as
(2 x) 2 = 4 x
0 3
Þ 4 x ( x - 1) = 0 Þ x = 0, 1 = ò-1( 4 x + 5)dx + ò0 ( 5 - x)dx Y y = x3
Y
1 3
y = x2
2
(1, 2) y = 4x -
4 ò-1( x + 5)dx B
C
3 A X
X' é x2 ù X'
O
O x=1
X = [2 x2 + 5x]-01 + ê 5x - ú
ë 2 û0
3
1 é x2 ù
Y' - ê + 5xú Y'
4ë2 û -1
When x = 0,y = 2 ´ 0 = 0 and when Intersection points of given curves are
= [ 0 - (2 - 5)] + éê15 - ùú
9
x = 1,y = 2 ´ 1 = 2 (1, 1) and (0, 0).
ë 2û
\ Eqs. (i) and (ii) meet at the points Now, sketch the graph of the given
1 é æ9 ö æ1 öù
ç + 15÷ - ç - 5÷ ú
- curves and shade the common region.
4 êë è 2
( 0, 0) and (1, 2). ø è2 øû
1 Area of shaded region
Required area = ò0 (2 x - 2 x) dx
=3+
21 1 æ 39 9 ö
- ç + ÷ = Area (OCBAO) - Area (OBAO)
2 4è 2 2ø
[Qy 2 = 4 x Þ|y |= 2 x ] 1 2
- x3 ) dx
1 =
27 1 48 27
- ´ = -6 =
15
sq units
\ Area = ò0 ( x
é x 3/ 2 ù
= ê2 - x2 ú 2 4 2 2 2 1
3 / 2 é x3 x4 ù 1
ë û0 =ê - ú = sq unit
4 3/ 2 2 1 18. (d) Let us draw or sketch the graph of ë3 4 û 0 12
= ×1 - 1 - 0 = sq unit function sinx and cosx. Also, shade the
3 3
required region bounded between two 20. (a) Area of the circle in first quadrant is
p
17. (a) We have, y = 4 x + 5, y = 5 - x and curves from 0 to . p(p 2) p3
2 =
4y = x + 5 4 4
Y
On solving y = 4 x + 5 and y = 5 - x, Also, area of curve y = sin x and X-axis
y = cos x p
we get = ò sin x dx
4x + 5 = 5 - x 0
Þ 5x = 0 = ò ( - cos x)dx
y=
Þ x = 0 and y = 5
sin
= - [cos p - cos 0]
x
On solving y = 4 x + 5 and 4y = x + 5,
we get X' π π X = - [ -1 - 1] = 2
O
4( 4 x + 5) = x + 5 4 2 Y
Þ 16 x + 20 = x + 5 Y'
Þ 15x = - 15 p/4
Þ x = -1 and y = 1 \ Area, A 1 = ò0 sin xdx
On solving y = 5 - x and 4y = x + 5,
= - [cos x]p0 / 4 X′
π X
we get O
4 ( 5 - x) = x + 5 1 2 -1
=1- =
Þ 20 - 4 x = x + 5 2 2
Þ -5x = - 15 p/2
Þ x = 3 and y = 2 Area, A 2 = òp / 4 cos xdx Y′
Let us draw a rough sketch of the lines
2 -1 p3 p3 - 8
= [sin x]pp //42 = éê1 -
on the graph. 1 ù
ú = Required area, A = -2 =
Y ë 2 û 2 4 4
2 -1 2 -1
\ A1 : A 2 = : = 1:1 21. (b) Let the area of the smaller part of
A (0, 5) 4y = x + 5 2 2
circle be A 1 and that of the bigger part
, 2) A
C (3 19. (a) We have, be A 2. We have to find 1 .
(–1, 1) B A2
Equation of the given curves as
X' X Y
O D (3, 0) y = x2 …(i)
)
,0
–1
3
y=x …(ii) x2 + y2 = 8 B y2 = 2 x
y=
+5
E(
4x
5–
On equating Eqs.(i) and (ii), we get

A(2√2, 0)
y=
Y' x3 = x2 X'
O C
X
Þ x3 - x2 = 0
\ Area of shaded region
Þ x2( x - 1) = 0
= Area (EBAOE) + Area (ACDOA)
Þ x = 0 or 1
- Area (EBCDOE) Y'
Mathematics 69
The point B is a point of intersection Y -2 é 0 + 8 sin- 1 (1) - 16 - 4

(lying in the first quadrant) of the given êë
1 ù
parabola and the circle, whose
y = x3
- 8 sin- 1 æç ö÷ ú
coordinates can be obtained by solving B è2 ø û
the two equations (–2, 0)C O 4 6 ´2 2
X' X = 16 p -
2
y = 2 x and x +y = 8 2 2 A(1, 0) 3
p p
Þ x2 + 2 x = 8 -2 éê8 ´ - 12 - 8 ´ ùú
Þ ( x - 2) ( x + 4) = 0 ë 2 6û
16 3 16 p
Þ x = 2, - 4 D Y' = 16 p – - +4 3
3 3
x = - 4 is not possible as both the \ Required area
32 p 4 3 4
points of intersection have the same 1 3 0 3 1 3 = - = (8 p - 3) sq units
positive x-coordinate.
= ò- 2 |x |dx = ò- 2 |x |dx + ò0 |x |dx 3 3 3
0 1 3
Thus, C º (2 , 0) 3
= ò- 2 ( - x ) dx + ò0 x dx 24. (c) Objective Approach
Now, A1 = 2 [Area (OBCO) Let area bounded by the curve y
é ì x3 , if x ³ 0ù
+ Area (CBAC)] 3
êQ| x | = í 3 ú = 3x + 4 , X-axis and the lines x = -1
é 2 2 2 ù êë î- x , if x < 0úû and x = 4 be A and area bounded by
= 2 ê ò y1dx + ò y 2 dxú
ë 0 2
û é x4 ù é x4 ù
0 1
the curve y 2 = 3x + 4
=-ê ú + ê ú
where, y1 and y 2 are respectively the i.e., y = ± (3x + 4)1/ 2, X-axis and the
ë 4 û- 2 ë 4 û0
values of y from the equations of the lines x = -1and x = 4 is B.
é ( -2) 4 ù é 1
- 0ùú
parabola and that of the circle.
= - ê0 - ú+ \ B = 2A
é 2 2 2 ù ë 4 û êë 4 û
or A 1 = 2 ê ò 2 xdx + ò2 8 - x2dxú [since, it is the area of both sides
ë 0 û
= - ( -4) + æç ö÷ =
1 17 about X-axis]
sq units
é 3ù
2 è4ø 4
2 Now, A : B = A : 2 A = 1 : 2
Þ A1 = 2 ê 2 × × x 2 ú
êë 3 úû 23. (c) The circle x + y = 16 and the 2 2 For subjective (Board) approach first
0
2
calculate
2 2 parabola y = 6 x meet, where
+ 2 éê
x 8 -1 x ù A=ò
4
8 - x2 + sin 3x+ 4 dx
ë 2 2 2 2 úû 2 Y y2 = 6x –1
x=2 4
é p ù and then B = 2 ò
2 ê2 p - æç2 + 4 ´ ö÷ ú 3x + 4 dx
16
= + –1
3 ë è 4 ø û y2 = 16 – x2
X' X Thus, show A : B = 1 : 2
= æç + 2p ö÷ sq units
4 (4, 0)
O
è3 ø 2 kx 3
2
25. (c) Given, area = ò0 2 dx =
log 2
Area of the circle = p(2 2 ) Y'
Y
= 8p sq units 2 2kx (k >0)
x + 6 x = 16
4 [eliminating y]
Hence, A 2 = 8 p - A 1 = 6 p -
3 Þ 2
x + 6 x - 16 = 0
Then, the required ratio is Þ ( x + 8) ( x - 2) = 0
4 Þ x = - 8, 2
+ 2p (0, 1)
A1 3
= \ Required area = Area of the circle
A 2 6p - 4 2
X
3 – 2 ´ Area shown in the
shaded region
2 + 3p
= é
= p ( 4) - 2 ò 6 x + ò 16 - x2 dxù
2 2 4
2
9p - 2 êë 0 2 úû 1 é 2 kx ù 3
2 Þ ê ú =
é x3 / 2 ù k ë log e 2 û0 log 2
22. (d) Given curve is y = x3 = 16 p - 2 6 ê ú
ë3 / 2 û 0 1 é 2 2k 1 ù 3
On putting x = - x and y = - y , we get Þ ê - ú=
4
éx x ù
sin- 1 æç ö÷ ú
y = x3 16 k log
ë e 2 log 2
e û log 2
- 2 ê 16 - x2 +
ë2 2 è 4 øû2
Therefore, the curve is symmetrical in Þ 2 2k - 1 = 3k
opposite quadrant and passes through 4 6 3/ 2
= 16 p - (2 - 0)
( 0, 0). 3 \ k =1
CHAPTER 09
Differential
Equations
1. Differential Equation 7. General Solution of a Differential Equation
An equation containing independent variable(s) dependent A solution of a differential equation which contains arbitrary
variable and derivative(s) of dependent variable with respect constants, is called the general solution or primitive solution
to independent variable(s), is called a differential equation. of the differential equation.
2. Ordinary Differential Equation 8. Particular Solution of

A differential equation involving derivative or derivatives of a Differential Equation
the dependent variable with respect to only one independent The solution obtained by giving particular values to the
variable is called an ordinary differential equation. arbitrary constants in general solution, is called a particular
3. Order of a Differential Equation solution of the differential equation.
The order of the highest order derivative of dependent In other words, the solution free from arbitrary constants is
variable with respect to independent variable occurring in called particular solution.
the differential equation, is called the order of differential
equation. 9. Differential Equation in Variable
Separable Form
4. Degree of a Differential Equation
Suppose a first order and first degree differential equation,
The highest power (positive integral index) of the highest dy
order derivative involved in a differential equation in terms of = f (x, y ), is such that f (x, y ) can be written as
dx
polynomial form, is called degree of a differential equation.
g(x )× h( y ) ...(i)
5. Formation of a Differential Equation Then, expressed the given differential equation as
If an equation involving independent variable, dependent dy
= h( y )× g(x ) ...(ii)
variable and some arbitrary constants is given, then the dx
differential equation representing given equation, is obtained If h( y ) ¹ 0, then separating the variables, Eq. (ii) can be
as follows: 1
written as dy = g (x )dx
(i) Differentiate the given equation with respect to the h( y )
independent variable (say x) as many times as the number On integrating both sides, we get the required solution of
of arbitrary constants in it. given differential equation.
(ii) Eliminate the arbitrary constants by using given equation
and obtained equations, to get required differential 10. Homogeneous Differential Equation
equation. A function F(x, y ) is said to be homogeneous function of
Note The order of a differential equation representing a family degree n, if
of curves is same as the number of arbitrary constants æ yö æxö
F(x, y ) = x n g ç ÷ or y n h ç ÷ .
present in the equations. èxø è yø
6. Solution of a Differential Equation dy
A differential equation of the form = F(x, y )
A solution of a differential equation is a relation between the dx
variables, not involving the differential coefficients, such that is called a homogeneous differential equation if F(x, y ) is a
this relation and the derivative obtained from it satisfy the homogeneous function of degree zero.
given differential equation.
Mathematics 71
11. Solution of Homogeneous There are two types of linear differential equations.
Differential Equation dy
Type I If differential equation is of the form + Py = Q,
æ yö dy dv dx
If F(x, y ) = g ç ÷ , then firstly put y = vx and =v+x in
èxø dx dx where P and Q are constants or functions of x.
given differential equation and then use variable separable Then, its solution is y × (IF) = ò Q ´ (IF) dx + C
method to get the required solution.
where IF = e ò P dx .
æxö dx dv
Similarly, if F(x, y ) = h ç ÷ , then put x = vy and =v+ y dx
è yø dy dy Type II If differential equation is of the form + Px = Q,
dy
in the given differential equation.
where P and Q are constants or functions of y,
12. Linear Differential Equation then its solution is
A first order and first degree differential equation in which
x × (IF) = ò [ Q × (IF)] dy + C
the degree of dependent variable and its derivative is one
and they do not get multiplied together, is called a linear where IF = e ò P dy
differential equation.
Practice Questions
3
d2 y
+ æç ö÷ = 0 is a /an
dy 6. The function xy = log y + C is the solution of the differential
1. The equation of the form 2
dx2 è dx ø equation
(a) cubic equation y2 -y 2
(a) y ¢ = (xy ¹ 1) (b) y ¢ = (x , y ¹ 1)
(b) quadratic equation 1 - xy 1 - xy
(c) ordinary differential equation y2
(d) None of the above (c) y ¢ = (xy ¹ - 1) (d) None of these
1 + xy
2. The degree of the differential equation
3 7. y = cx - c 2 is the general solution of the differential equation
æd 2 y ö 3
çç 2 ÷÷ + æç ö÷ + sin æç ö÷ + 1 = 0 is
dy dy
(a) (y ¢ )2 - xy ¢ + y = 0 (b) y ¢ ¢ = 0
è dx ø è dx ø è dx ø
(c) y ¢ = c (d) (y ¢ )2 + xy ¢ + y = 0
(a) 3 (b) 2
8. If y = e - x ( A cos x + B sin x), then y is a solution of
(c) 1 (d) not defined
d 2y dy d 2y dy
d2 y dy (a) +2 =0 (b) -2 + 2y = 0
3. The order of the differential equation 2 x2 -3 + y=0 dx 2 dx dx 2 dx
dx2 dx 2 2
d y dy d y
is (c) 2 + 2 + 2y = 0 (d) 2 + 2y = 0
dx dx dx
(a) 2 (b) 1
(c) 0 (d) not defined 9. If C1 , C2 , C3 , C 4 , C 5 and C 6 are constants, then the order of the
differential equation whose general solution is given by
4. The order and degree of the differential equation
4
y = C1 cos ( x + C2 ) + C3 sin ( x + C 4 ) - C 5e x + C 6, is
d y
+ sin ( y ¢ ¢ ¢ ) = 0 are respectively (a) 6 (b) 5 (c) 4 (d) 3
dx 4
(a) 4 and 1 (b) 1 and 2 10. The equation y = mx + c , where m and c are parameters,
(c) 4 and 4 (d) 4 and not defined represents family of
2
d y (a) straight lines (b) circles
5. For the differential equation + y = 0, if there is a function
dx2 (c) parabola (d) hyperbola
y = f ( x ) that will satisfy it, then the function y = f ( x ) is
11. Which of the following differential equations has y = x as one
called
of its particular solution?
(a) solution curve only
d 2y dy d 2y dy
(b) integral curve only (a) 2
- x2 + xy = x (b) 2
+x + xy = x
dx dx dx dx
(c) solution curve or integral curve 2 2
d y dy d y dy
(d) None of the above (c) 2 - x 2 + xy = 0 (d) 2 + x + xy = 0
dx dx dx dx
12. The equation of the curve passing through the point (1, 1), 19. The solution of the differential equation
whose differential equation is x dy = (2 x2 + 1) dx ( x ¹ 0) is x x
æ xö
(1 + e y ) dx + e y ç1 - ÷ dy = 0 is
(a) x 2 = y + log | x | (b) y = x 2 + log | x | è yø
(c) y 2 = x + log | x | (d) y = x + log | x |
(a) ye x + x = C (b) xe y + y = C
dy 5 y x
13. The general solution of the differential equation x = - y5 y
dx (c) ye x + y =C (d) ye + x =C
is
(a) x -4 + y -4 = C (b) x 4 + y -4 = C 20. The particular solution of the differential equation
dy
(c) x -4 + y 4 = C (d) x 4 + y 4 = C 2 xy + y 2 - 2 x2 = 0; y = 2 , when x = 1, is
dx
dy + y 2x
14. The general solution of the differential equation = ex is (a) y = ; (x ¹ 0, x ¹ e )
dx 1 - log | x |
(a) e x + e - y = C (b) e x + e y = C 2y
(b) x = ; (y ¹ 0, y ¹ e )
(c) e - x + e y = C (d) e - x + e - y = C 1 - log | y |
2x
15. The equation of a curve whose tangent at any point on it (c) y = ; (x ¹ e )
1 + log | x |
y
different from origin has slope y + , is (d) None of the above
x
(a) y = e x (b) y = kx × e x 21. The general solution of the differential equation
(c) y = kx (d) y = x × e x
2
y dx + ( x - y 2 ) dy = 0 is
x2 C
16. The equation of curve through the point (1, 0), if the slope of (a) y = + (b) y = cos x - 2 cos 2 x
3 x
y -1 y 2
C y3 C
the tangent to the curve at any point ( x, y ) is 2
, is (c) x = + (d) x = -
x + x 3 y 3 y
(a) (y + 1) (x - 1) + 2x =0
22. The particular solution of the differential equation
(b) (y + 1) (x - 1) - 2x =0 dy
+ y cot x = 4 x cosec x, ( x ¹ 0) given that y = 0, when
(c) (y - 1) (x - 1) + 2x =0 dx
(d) (y - 1) (x + 1) + 2x =0 p
x = , is
dy 2
17. A differential equation of the form = F ( x, y ) is said to be
dx p2 p2
(a) y sin x = 2x 2 + (b) y sin x = 2x 2 -
homogeneous, if F ( x, y )is a homogeneous function of degree 2 2
(a) 0 (b) 1 2 2 p2
(c) y sin x = 2x - (d) None of these
(c) 2 (d) 3 2
18. The family of curves for which the slope of the tangent at any 23. The equation of the curve satisfying the equation
x2 + y 2 ( xy - x2 )
dy
= y 2 and passing through the point (-1, 1), is
point ( x, y ) is , is given by
2 xy dx
(a) y = (log y - 1) x (b) y = (log y + 1) x
(a) x 2 + y 2 = CX (b) x 2 - y 2 = CX
(c) x = (log x - 1) y (d) x = (log x + 1) y
(c) x 2 + y 2 = CY (d) x 2 - y 2 = CY
Mathematics 73
Solutions
3
d 2y æ dy ö Hence, xy = log y + C is a solution of C = C5 and D = C 6
1. (c) 2 + ç ÷ = 0 is an ordinary 2
dx2 è dx ø the differential equation y ¢ =
y
, Hence, order is 4.
differential equation. 1 - xy [Qnumber of arbitrary constants is 4]
xy ¹ 1.
2. (d) The given differential equation is 10. (a) Let us consider the equation
dy
not a polynomial equation in .
7. (a) We have, y = cx - c 2 ...(i) y = mx + c ...(i)
dx On differentiating w.r.t. x, we get By giving different values to the
Therefore, its degree is not defined. y¢ = c parameters m and c, we get different
On putting this value in Eq. (i), we get members of the family e.g.
3. (a) The highest order derivative present
y = x(y ¢) - (y ¢) 2 Y
d 2y
1
in the given differential equation is . ⇒ (y ¢) 2 - xy ¢ + y = 0
+
dx2
x
y
x
√3
=
=
Therefore, its order is 2.
y
y=x
–x
=
8. (c) Given that
y
=
4
d y
x
4. (d) + sin (y ¢ ¢ ¢) = 0 y = e - x ( A cos x + B sin x) ...(i)
–
1
dx4
On differentiating both sides w.r.t. x, X' X
⇒ y ¢ ¢ ¢ ¢ + sin (y ¢ ¢ ¢) = 0 we get
O
The highest order derivative which dy

= e - x ( - A sin x + B cos x)
occurs in the given differential dx
equation is y ¢ ¢ ¢ ¢, therefore its order - e - x ( A cos x + B sin x)
is 4. -x
= e [ - A sin x + B cos x] - y ...(ii)
Y'
As the given differential equation is not [using Eq. (i)]
a polynomial equation in derivatives of y = x ( m = 1, c = 0)
Again, differentiating both sides w.r.t.
y w.r.t. x (i.e. y ¢ ¢ ¢), therefore its degree y = 3 x ( m = 3 , c = 0)
x, we get
is not defined.
d 2y y = x + 1( m = 1, c = 1)
= e - x [ - A cos x - B sin x]
5. (c) Consider the differential equation dx2 y = - x ( m = - 1, c = 0)
2 dy y = - x - 1( m = - 1, c = - 1) etc.
d y
+y=0 - e - x [ - A sin x + B cos x] -
dx2 dx Thus, Eq. (i) represents the family of
The solution of this differential d 2y æ dy ö dy straight lines, where m and c are
⇒ = ( -y) - ç + y÷ -
equation is a function f that will satisfy dx2 è dx ø dx parameters.
it i.e. when the function f is substituted [using Eqs. (i) and (ii)]
for the unknown y (dependent 11. (c) Given solution is
d 2y dy dy
variable)in the given differential ⇒ = -y - -y -
dx2 dx dx y=x …(i)
equation, LHS becomes equal to RHS.
The curve y = f ( x) is called the d 2y dy On differentiating w.r.t. x, we get
⇒ + 2y + 2 =0
solution curve (integral curve) of the dx2 dx dy
=1 …(ii)
given differential equation d 2y dy dx
⇒ 2
+2 + 2y = 0
dx dx Again, differentiating w.r.t. x, we get
6. (a) Given, xy = logy + C …(i)
d 2y
On differentiating both sides w.r.t. x, 9. (c) Given, =0 …(iii)
we get dx2
y = C1 cos ( x + C 2)
d d Now, on substituting the values from
( xy) = (log y + C ) + C3 sin ( x + C 4 ) + C5 e x + C 6
dx dx Eqs.(i), (ii) and (iii) in each of the given
d 1 y = C1 [cos x cos C 2 - sin x sin C 2 ] option, we find that only the
Þ y x + xy ¢ = y ¢
dx y + C3 [sin x cos C 4 + cos x sin C 4 ] differential equation given in option (c)
[using product rule of differentiation + C5 e x + C 6 is satisfied by the values of y ,
dy
in LHS] = cos x (C1 cos C 2 + C3 sin C 4 ) dx
Þ
1
xy ¢ + y = y ¢ d 2y
+ sin x ( -C1 sin C 2 + C3 cos C 4 ) and .
y dx2
Þ xy ¢y + y 2 = y ¢ + C5 e x + C 6
d 2y dy
Þ y 2 = y ¢(1 - xy) = A cos x + B sin x + Ce x + D - x2 + xy = 0 - x2 ×1 + x × x
dx dx
y2 where A = C1 cos C 2 + C3 sin C 4 ,
Þ y¢ = = - x2 + x2 = 0
1 - xy B = - C1 sin C 2 + C3 cos C 4 ,
12. (b) The given differential equation can 15. (b) According to the question, 18. (b) We know that the slope of the
dy
= y + = y æç1 + ö÷
be expressed as dy y 1 tangent at any point on a curve is .
2x + 1 2 dx x è xø dx
dy = dx
dy æ dy x2 + y 2
= ç1 + ö÷ dx
x 1 Therefore, =
⇒
è xø dx 2 xy
dy = æç2 x + ö÷ dx
1 y
or ...(i)
è xø y2
On integrating both sides, we get 1+
On integrating both sides of Eq. (i), we dy x2
dy æ 1ö or = ...(i)
get ò y = ò çè1 + x ÷ø dx dx 2y
æ 1ö x
ò dy = ò çè2 x + x ÷ø dx ⇒ log y = x + log x + C
Clearly,Eq. (i) is a homogeneous
log æç ö÷ = x + C
2 y differential equation. To solve it we
Þ y = x + log | x | + C ...(ii) ⇒
è xø make substitution
Eq. (ii) represents the family of solution
y y = vx
curves of the given differential ⇒ = e x + C = e x × eC
equation but we are interested in x On differentiating y = vx w.r.t. x,
finding the equation of a particular y we get
⇒ = ke x dy dv
member of the family which passes x =v + x
through the point (1, 1). dx dx
⇒ y = kx × e x dv 1 + v 2
Therefore, substituting x = 1 and y = 1 in Þ v+ x =
Eq. (ii), we get C = 0. dx 2v
16. (d) Here, the slope of the tangent to the dv 1 - v 2
Now, substituting the value of C in Eq. y -1 Þ x =
(ii), we get the equation of the required curve at any point ( x, y) is . dx 2v
x2 + x 2v dx
curve as y = x2 + log | x |. Þ dv =
dy y -1 1- v2 x
dy \ =
13. (a) Given, x5 = - y5 dx x2 + x 2v dx
dx Þ dv = -
dy dx v2 - 1 x
On separating the variables, we get ⇒ =
y - 1 x2 + x Therefore, ò 2
2v 1
dv = ò - dx
dy dx
=- 5 v -1 x
y 5
x On integrating both sides, we get
dy dx Þlog | v 2 - 1| = - log | x | + log | C1 |
On integrating both sides, we get
ò y - 1 = ò x( x + 1)
dy dx Þ log |(v 2 - 1) ( x) | = log | C1 |
ò y5 = -ò
x5 ⇒
æ1
log (y - 1) = ò ç -
1 ö
÷ dx
Þ (v 2 - 1) x = ± C1
-5 è x x + 1ø y
Þ òy dy = - ò x-5dx On replacing v by , we get
⇒log (y - 1) = log x - log ( x + 1) + log C x
y -5 + 1 x-5 + 1 æy 2 ö
Þ =- + C1 æ x ö ç 2 - 1÷ x = ± C1
( -5 + 1) ( -5 + 1) ⇒ log (y - 1) = log ç ÷ + log C
è x + 1ø èx ø
é n xn + 1 ù æ xC ö Þ (y 2 - x2) = ± C1x
êQò x dx = ú ⇒ log (y - 1) = log ç ÷
ë n + 1û è x + 1ø or x2 - y 2 = Cx
-4 -4 xC
y x ⇒ (y - 1) =
Þ =- + C1 19. (d) The given differential equation is
-4 ( -4) x+1
x x
Þ x-4 + y -4 = - 4C1 ⇒ (y - 1) ( x + 1) = xC æ xö
(1 + e y ) dx + e y ç1 - ÷ dy = 0
Þ x-4 + y -4 = C [where, C = - 4 C1] è yø
Since, the above curve passes through
x
which is the required general solution. (1, 0) æx ö
e y ç - 1÷
dy dy ⇒ ( -1) (2) = 1× C ⇒ C = - 2 dx èy ø
14. (a) Given, = ex + y Þ = ex ey = ...(i)
dx dx \ Required equation of the curve is dy ( e x / y + 1)
Now, separating the variables, we get (y - 1) ( x + 1) = - 2 x æ xö
=gç ÷
e - ydy = e xdx ⇒ (y - 1) ( x + 1) + 2 x = 0 èy ø
On integrating both sides, we get dx æ xö
-y
Q =gç ÷
x 17. (a) A differential equation of the form èy ø
òe dy = ò e dx
dy
dy
e- y = F( x, y) is said to be homogeneous if \ Eq. (i) is the homogeneous
Þ = ex + A dx
-1 differential equation
F( x, y) is a homogeneous function of
Þ ex + e- y = - A So, putting
x
=v
degree zero.
Þ e + e- y = C
x
[where, C = - A] y
Mathematics 75
dx dv dv 1 2 On comparing with the form of

i.e. x = vy Þ =v + y Þ x = v
dy dy dx 2 dy
+ Py = Q, we get
2 1 dx
Then, Eq. (i) becomes Þ dv = dx
v2 x P = cot x and Q = 4 x cosec x
dv ev (v - 1)
v+y = v
dy e +1 On integrating both sides, we get
dx \ IF = e ò P dx
dv ev (v - 1) 2 ò v -2dv = ò
Þ y = v -v x
dy e +1 Þ IF = e ò cot x dx
æv- 2+ 1 ö
dv vev - ev - vev - v Þ 2ç ÷ = log|x | + C Þ IF = e log|sin x| = sin x
Þ y = è - 2 + 1ø
dy ev + 1 The general solution of the given
æ v -1 ö
e +1v
1 Þ 2ç ÷ = log |x| + C differential equation is given by
Þ dv = - dy è -1 ø
ev + v y y × IF = ò (Q ´ IF ) dx + C
2
On integrating both sides, we get Þ - = log |x| + C
v Þ y sin x = ò ( 4 x cosec x) (sin x) dx + C
ev + 1 1 2x
ò ev + v dv = - ò y dy Þ -
y
= log |x | + C …(ii) Þ y sin x = ò 4 x dx + C
x2
Putting ev + v = t éQv = y ù Þ y sin x = 4 × +C
êë 2
dt dt x úû 2
Þ ev + 1 = Þdv = v Þ y sin x = 2 x + C …(ii)
dv e +1 When x = 1, then y = 2 , therefore p
Now, at x = , y = 0
v - 2 ´1 2
e + 1 dt = log 1 + C p p
2
\ ò = - log |y | + log C 2 \ 0 ´ sin = 2 æç ö÷ + C
t ev + 1 2 è 2 ø
Þ-1= 0 + C
Þ log |t | + log |y | = log C p2
On putting the value of C in Eq. (ii), Þ C=-
Þlog | ev + v | + log |y | = log C we get 2
2x 2x On putting the value of C in Eq. (ii),
[Qt = ev + v ] - = log |x | - 1 Þ y =
y 1 - log |x | we get
v
Þ log |( e + v) y | = log C
p2
Þ |( ev + v)y | = C 2 y sin x = 2 x2 -
21. (c) Given, y dx + ( x - y ) dy = 0 2
Þ ( ev + v) y = C
Þ y dx = (y 2 - x) dy 23. (a) We have, ( xy - x2)
dy
= y2
x
So, putting v = , we get dx
y dx x
Þ + =y dx
æ x/ y xö dy y ⇒ y2 = xy - x2
çe + ÷y = C Þ ye x / y + x = C On comparing with the form dy
è yø dx
+ Px = Q, we get 1 dx 1 1 1
⇒ - × =- 2
This is the required solution of the given dy x2 dy x y y
1
differential equation. P = and Q = y 1 1 dx dv
y Putting =v ⇒ - 2 =
1 x x dy dy
20. (a) The given differential equation is ò dy
\ IF = e y
Þ IF = e log|y| = y …(i) dv v 1
2 dy 2 \ + = , which is linear
2 xy + y - 2 x =0 dy y y 2
dx The general solution of the given
differential equation is given by differential equation.
dy 2 xy + y 2
⇒ = ...(i) x × IF = ò (Q ´ IF) dy + C 1
dx 2 x2 ò dy
\ IF = e y
= e log y = y
y Þ xy = ò (y ´ y) dy + C
So, put = v i.e. y = vx \ The solution is
x
Þ xy = ò y 2 dy + C 1
Þ
dy
=v + x
dv vy = ò y2
× y dy + C
dx dx y3
Þ xy = +C y
Then, Eq. (i) becomes 3 ⇒ = log y + C Þy = x(log y + C )
x
dv 2 x2 v + x2v 2 y2 C
v+ x = Þ x= + This passes through the point ( -1, 1.
)
dx 2 x2 3 y
2 2 \ 1 = - 1 (log 1 + C )
dv x (2v + v )
Þ v+ x =
dx 2 x2 22. (b) Given differential equation is i.e. C = -1
dv 1 dy Thus, the equation of the curve is
Þ v+ x = v + v2 + y cot x = 4 x cosec x …(i)
dx 2 dx
y = x(log y - 1)
CHAPTER 10
Vector Algebra
5. Position Vector
1. Scalars
Let O be any point called the origin of reference or say
A quantity which have magnitude but no direction, is called simply origin and a point P in space, having coordinates
scalars. (x, y, z ) w.r.t. origin O(0, 0, 0 ) then vector OP(= r ) having O and
P as its initial points respectively, is called the position vector
2. Vectors of the point P w.r.t. O.
A quantity which have magnitude as well as direction, is Z
called a vector.
3. Magnitude of a Vector P(x, y, z)

r
The length of the vector AB or a is called the magnitude of
AB or a and it is represented by | AB | or |a |.
Y
If a = x $i + y $j + z k$ , then |a | = x 2 + y 2 + z 2 . O(0, 0, 0)
X
Note Since, the length is never negative, so the notation

The magnitude of OP or r is given by
| a | < 0 has no meaning. |OP| =|r| = x 2 + y 2 + z 2
4. Types of Vectors 6. Addition of Vectors

(i) Zero or Null Vector A vector whose magnitude is zero or (i) Triangle Law of Vector Addition If two vectors are
whose initial and terminal points coincide, is called a null represented along two sides of a triangle taken in order,
vector or zero vector. then their resultant is represented by the third side taken in
(ii) Unit Vector A vector whose magnitude is one unit. The opposite direction i.e. in D ABC, by triangle law of vector
$ The unit
unit vector in the direction of a is represented by a. addition, we have AB + BC = AC
vectors along X-axis, Y-axis and Z-axis are represented by C
$ respectively.
$i , $j and k,
(iii) Coinitial Vectors Two or more vectors having the same
initial point are called coinitial vectors.
B A
(iv) Collinear or Parallel Vectors The vectors which have
(ii) Parallelogram Law of Vector Addition If two vectors are
same or parallel support are called collinear vectors.
represented along the two adjacent sides of a
(v) Equal Vectors Two vectors are equal, if they have same parallelogram, then their resultant is represented by the
magnitude and direction. diagonal of the parallelogram, which is coinitial with the
(vi) Negative of a Vector A vector whose magnitude is same given vector. If the sides OA and OC of parallelogram
as that of given vector but the direction is opposite, is OABC represents OA and OC, respectively, then we get
called negative vector of the given vector. e.g. Let AB be a OA + OC = OB or OA + AB = OB [Q AB=OC]
vector, then -AB or BA is a negative vector.
C B
(vii) Coplanar Vectors A system of vectors is said to be
coplanar, if their supports are parallel to same plane.
Note If the initial point of a vector is not specified, then it is
called a free vector. O A
Mathematics 77
7. Properties of Vector Addition 12. Vector Joining Two Points

(i) For any two vectors a and b, If P1 (x1, y1, z1 ) and P2 (x 2 , y2 , z2 ) are any two points on the
a +b =b+a [commutative law] plane, then vector joining of P1 and P2 is
(ii) For any three vectors a, b and c,
a + (b + c ) = (a + b ) + c [associative law] P1 P2 = OP2 - OP1
(iii) For any vector a, we have = ( x 2 $i +y 2 $j + z 2 k$ ) - ( x 1 $i +y 1 $j + z 1 k$ )
a +0 = 0 + a = a .
The zero vector 0 is called the additive identity for the
= ( x 2 - x 1) $i + ( y2 - y1) $j +( z2 - z1) k$
vector addition.
13. Section Formulae
® ®
8. Multiplication of a Vector by Scalar Let A and B be two points with position vectors a and b,
Let a be a given vector and l be a scalar. Then, the product respectively and P be a point which divides AB internally in
of the vector a by the scalar l, denoted by la, is called the the ratio m : n.
mb + na
multiplication of vector a by the scalar l. Then, position vector of P = .
m+ n
9. Properties of Multiplication of a Vector by If P divides AB externally in the ratio m : n. Then, position
a Scalar m b - na
vector of P = .
Let a and b be any two vectors and k and m be any scalars. m-n
Then, a+b
Note If R is the mid-point of AB, then OR = .
(i) ka + ma = (k + m)a 2
(ii) k (a + b ) = ka + kb 14. Scalar or Dot Product
(iii) k (ma ) = (km)a Let a and b be the two non-zero vectors inclined at an angle
q. Then, the scalar product or dot product of a and b is
10. Components of a Vector represented by a × b and it is defined as a × b =|a ||b |cos q,
If a = a1 $i + a 2 $j + a 3 k$ , then we can say that the scalar where 0 £ q £ p.
components of a along X-axis, Y-axis and Z-axis are a1, a 2
and a 3 , respectively.
15. Important Results Based on Scalar Product
(i) a ^ b Û a × b = 0
11. Important Results in Component Form ®
If a and b are any two vectors given in the component form (ii) $i × $i = $j × $j = k$ × k$ = 1and $i × $j = $j × k$ = k$ × $i = 0
as a = a1 $i + a 2 $j + a 3 k$ and b = b1 $i + b 2 $j + b 3 k$ . (iii) If q = 0, then a ×b =|a ||b |
If q = p , then a × b = -|a ||b |
Then, (a1 , a 2 , a 3 ) and ( b1 , b 2 , b 3 ) are called direction
(iv) The angle between two non-zero vectors a and b is
ratios of a and b, respectively. given by
(i) The sum (or resultant) of the vectors a and b is given by a ×b æ a ×b ö
cos q = or q = cos -1 ç ÷
a + b = (a + b ) $i + (a + b ) $j + (a + b )k$
1 1 2 2 3 3 |a ||b | è|a ||b |ø
(ii) The difference of the vectors a and b is given by æ a ×b ö
(v) Projection of a on b = ç ÷
a - b = (a - b ) $i + (a - b ) $j + (a - b )k$
1 1 2 2 3 3 è |b | ø
(iii) The vectors a and b are equal iff (vi) If a force F displaces a particle from a point A to a point B,
a1 = b1, a 2 = b 2 and a 3 = b 3 then work done by the force = F .AB.
(iv) The multiplication of vector a by any scalar l is given by
la = (la ) $i + (la ) $j + (la )k$
16. Properties of Scalar Product
1 2 3
(i) a × b = b × a [commutative]
b1 b2 b3
(v) If = = = k (constant). (ii) a × (b + c ) = a × b + a × c
a1 a2 a3
(iii) a × a =|a |2 = a2
Then, vectors a and b will be collinear. where, a represents magnitude of vector a.
(vi) If it is given that l, m and n are direction cosines of a (iv) (a + b )× (a -b ) = a2 - b2 , where a and b represent the
vector, then magnitude of vectors a and b.
(v) (la )× b = l(a × b )
l $i + m $j + n k$ = (cos a ) $i + (cos b ) $j + (cos g )k$
Note If a, b and g are the direction angles of vector
is the unit vector in the direction of that vector, where a, b $ then its DC’s is given as
a = a 1 $i + a 2 $j + a 3 k,
and g are the angles which the vector makes with X, Y and a a a
cos a = 1 , cos b = 2 , cos g = 3
Z-axes, respectively. ® ® ®
| a| | a| | a|
17. Projection of a Vector (vii) Area of a parallelogram with sides a and b

= |a ´ b|
Let a and b be two vectors represented by OA and OB
respectively and let q be the angle made by a with directed line (viii) Area of a parallelogram with diagonals
l in the anti-clockwise direction. 1
d1 and d2 = |d1 ´ d2|
A 2
1
(ix) Area of a D ABC = | AB ´ AC|
2
1
= |BC ´ BA|
a 2
1
= |CB ´ CA |
θ 2
O l
b B
21. Scalar Triple Product
Then, the projection of OA on the line l is OB, which is given by
|OA|cos q and the direction of b, called projection vector, Let a, b and c be any three vectors. The scalar product
being the same (or opposite) to that of the line l, depending of a and (b ´ c ), i.e. a × ( b ´ c ) is called the scalar triple
upon whether cos q is positive or negative. product of a, b and c and it is denoted by [a b c ]
or [a, b, c ].
Note b = | OA | cos q × b$ = | a | cos q × b$ Thus, [a b c ] = a × (b ´ c )
a ×b a ×b
\ Projection of a on b = and projection of b on a = .
22. Important Results Based
| b| |a |
on Scalar Triple Product
18. Cross or Vector Product (i) The volume of a parallelopiped formed by adjacent
Let q be the angle between two non-zero vectors a and b, then sides given by the three vectors a, b and c is|a × (b ´ c )|.
the vector or cross product of a and b is represented by a ´ b (ii) If a = a $i + a $j + a k$ , b = b $i + b $j + b k$
1 2 3 1 2 3
and defined as a ´ b =|a||b |sin q n$ ,
and c = c 1 $i + c 2 $j + c 3 k$ , then
where, n$ is a unit vector perpendicular to the plane of a and b.
a1 a2 a3
19. Properties of Cross Product [a b c ] = b1 b2 b3
(i) (a ´ b ) = - (b ´ a ) [not commutative] c1 c 2 c 3
(ii) a ´ (b + c ) = a ´ b + a ´ c [distributive property]
(iii) l(a ´ b ) = (la ) ´ b = a ´ (lb ) (iii) If a, b and c be any three vectors, then
[a b c ] = [b c a ] = [c a b ]
20. Important Results Based (iv) In scalar triple product, a × (b ´ c ), then dot and cross
on Cross Product can be interchanged,
(i) A unit vector perpendicular to both a and b is given by i.e. a × (b ´ c ) = (a ´ b )× c .
(a ´ b )
n$ = . (v) The scalar triple product of three vectors changes in
|a ´ b | sign but not in magnitude when the cyclic order of
(ii) a || b Û a ´ b = 0 vector is changed.
(iii) a ´ a = 0 i.e. [a b c ] = -[b a c ] = -[c b a ] = -[a c b ]
(iv) $i ´ $i = 0, $j ´ $j = 0, k$ ´ k$ = 0 (vi) If any two of three vectors a, b and c are same, then
[a a b ] = [a b a ] = [b a a ] = 0.
(v) $i ´ $j = k$ , $j ´ k$ = $i ,k$ ´ $i = $j; $j ´ $i = - k$ , k$ ´ $j = - $i , $i ´ k$ = - $j
(vi) If a = a $i + a $j + a k$ 23. Coplanarity of Three Vectors
1 2 3
Three non-zero, non-collinear vectors a, b and c are
$i $j k$ coplanar, if and only if
$ $ $
and b = b1 i + b 2 j + b 3 k, then a ´ b = a1 a2 a3 a × (b ´ c ) = 0.
Note The four points A, B, C and D are coplanar, if the
b1 b2 b3
vectors AB, AC and AD are coplanar.
Mathematics 79
Practice Questions
2 2 2
1. If two or more vectors are parallel to the same line then they 1 2 = (x 2 - x1 ) + (y 2 - y 1) + (z 2 - z 1 )
(c) PP
are called (d) All of the above
(a) collinear vectors (b) coinitial vectors 1 $ 1 $ 1 $
9. If a = $i + $j + k$ , b = 2i$ - 7$j - 3k$ and c = i+ j- k.
(c) equal vectors (d) zero vectors 3 3 3
Then, magnitude of vectors a, b, c are respectively
2. The sum of the vectors a = $i - 2$j + k$ , b = - 2i$ + 4$j + 5k$ and
(a) 1, 3, 62 (b) 3, 1, 62
c = i$ - 6$j - 7k$ is
(c) 3, 62, 1 (d) None of these
(a) -3$j + k$ (b) -4 $j + k$
(c) - 4 $j - k$ (d) None of these 10. Which of the following is an example of two different vectors
having same direction?
3. In D ABC (fig), which of the following is not true? (a) (i$ + $j + k$ ) and (2i$ + 2$j + 3 k$ )
C
(b) (2i$ + $j + k$ ) and (4 i$ + 5 $j + 7 k$ )
(c) (i$ + $j + k$ ) and (2i$ + 2$j + 2 k$ )
A B
11. If the position vectors of A, B and C are respectively
2$i - $j + k$ , $i - 3$j - 5k$ and 3$i - 4$j - 4k$ , then the value of
cos2 A is equal to
(a) AB + BC + CA = O (b) AB + BC - AC = O
6
(c) AB + BC - CA = O (d) AB - CB + CA = O (a) 0 (b)
41
4. Which of the following statements is true? 35
(c) (d) 1
$ $j and k$ are unit vectors along the axis OX, OY
(a) i, 41
and OZ respectively 12. If 4$i + 7$j + 8k$ , 2$i + 3$j + 4k$ and 2$i + 5$j + 7k$ are the position
$ $j and k$ is 1 unit
(b) Magnitude of each of the vectors i, vectors of the vertices A, B and C respectively of DABC, then
(c) Both (a) and (b) are true the position vector of the point, where the bisector of ÐA
(d) Both (a) and (b) are false meets BC is
2 $ 1 $
5. If a and b are any two vectors given in the component form (a) (6 i + 2$j - 8 k$ ) (b) (6 i + 13$j + 18 k$ )
3 3
a1 $i + a2 $j + a3 k$ and b1 $i + b2 $j + b3 k$ respectively, then which of 1 2
the following is correct? (c) (-6 i$ - 8 $j - 9k$ ) (d) (-6 i$ - 12$j + 8 k$ )
3 3
(a) The sum (or resultant) of the vectors a and b is given
by a + b = (a1 + a2 )i$ + (b1 + b 2 )$j + (a3 + b 3 )k$ 13. The scalar product of two non-zero vectors a and b, denoted
by a × b is defined as a × b is equal to
(b) a - b = (a1 - b1 )i$ + (a2 - b 2 )$j + (a3 - b 3 )k$
(c) Both (a) and (b) are correct (a) | a | | b | sin q (b) | a | | b | cos q
(d) Both (a) and (b) are incorrect (c) | a | | b | (d) None of these
6. If a and b are any two vectors, and k and m be any scalars, 14. Representation of a unit vector a, in terms of its direction
then which of the following is correct? cosines are
(a) ka + ma = (k + m )a (b) k (ma) = (km )a (a) a = sin a i$ + sin b$j + sin g k$

(c) k (a + b) = ka + kb (d) All of these (b) a = cos q i$ + cos b$j + cos g k$
(c) Both (a) and (b) are true
7. If a = a1 i$ + a2 $j + a3 k$ , then direction ratios of a are (d) Both (a) and (b) are false
a 2a a
(a) a1 , a2 , a3 (b) 1 , 2 , 3 15. The angle between the vectors $i - 2$j + 3k$ and 3i$ - 2j$ + k$ is
3 3 3
æ7ö æ7ö
a1 a2 a3 (a) cos -1 ç ÷ (b) sin -1 ç ÷
(c) , , (d) None of these è5 ø è5 ø
2 3 4
æ ö
5 æ5 ö
(c) cos -1 ç ÷ (d) sin -1 ç ÷
8. If P1 ( x1 , y1 , z1 ) and P2 ( x2 , y2 , z2 ) are any two points, and the è7ø è7ø
vector joining P1 and P2 is the vector P1P2 , then
16. The value of l, for which the two vectors 2$i - $j + 2k$ and
1 2 = OP2 - OP1
(a) PP 3$i + l$j + k$ are perpendicular, is
$ $ $
1 2 = (x 2 - x1 )i + (y 2 - y 1 ) j + (z 2 - z 1 ) k
(b) PP
(a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 6 (d) 8
17. A unit vector in XY-plane makes an angle of 45° with the 20. If four points A(3, 2, 1) , B(4, x, 5) , C (4, 2, - 2) and D (6, 5, - 1) are
vector i$ + $j and an angle of 60° with the vector 3i$ - 4$j is coplanar, then the value of x is
13 $ 1 $ 7 $ 7 $ (a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 5 (d) 0
(a) i+ j (b) i + j
7 7 13 15
13 $ 1 $ 21. a × [(b + c) ´ (a + b + c )] is equal to
(c) i + j (d) None of these
14 14 (a) 0 (b) a + b + c
18. The area of the parallelogram whose adjacent sides are (c) a (d) a × (b + c)
determined by the vectors
22. If a = i$ + 4$j + 2k$ , b = 3$i - 2$j + 7k$ and c = 2i$ - $j + 4k,
$ then a
a = $i - $j + 3k$ and b = 2i$ - 7$j + k$ is vector d which is perpendicular to both a and b and c × d = 15,
(a) 15 3 (b) 15 2 (c) 31 2 (d) 34 3 is
1 2 $ $
19. If a = 2$i + $j + 3k$ , b = - i$ + 2$j + k$ and c = 3i$ + $j + 2k$ , then (a) [160 i$ + 5 $j + 70 k$ ] (b) [32i - j - 14 k$ ]
3 3
a × (b ´ c ) is equal to 1
(c) [160 i$ - 5 $j - 70 k$ ] (d) None of these
(a) -15 (b) 15 (c) -10 (d) -5 3
Solutions
1. (a) Two or more vectors are said to be 4. (c) If we take the points A (1, 0, 0), B (0, 6. (d) The addition of vectors and the
collinear vectors if they are parallel to 1, 0) and C (0, 0, 1) on the X-axis, Y-axis multiplication of a vector by a scalar
the same line, irrespective of their and Z-axis, respectively. Then, clearly together give the following distributive
magnitudes and directions. Z laws.
Let a and b be any two vectors, and k
2. (c) To find the sum of different vectors, and m be any scalars. Then,
components ($i , $j and k) $ are added
C (0,0,1)
k (i) ka + ma = (k + m) a
separately.
(ii) k( ma ) = (km) a
Here, given a = $i - 2j$ + k$ , j
O Y (iii) k(a + b) = ka + kb
b = -2 $i + 4j$ + 5k$ , B (0,1,0)
i So, option (d) is correct.
A (1,0,0)
c = $i - 6j$ - 7k$
X
Sum of these vectors can be calculated
7. (a) If a = a 1$i + a 2 $j + a 3 k$ , then
by adding their $i , $j and k$ components. |OA| = 1,|OB| = 1and |OC| = 1 a 1, a 2 , a 3 are also called direction
The vectors OA, OB and OC, each ratios of a.
\ a + b + c = ( $i - 2j$ + k$ )
having magnitude 1, are called unit So, option (a) is correct.
+ (-2 $i + 4j$ + 5k) $ + ( $i - 6j$ - 7k)
$ vectors along the axes OX, OY and
OZ, respectively, and denoted by $i , $j
= ( $i - 2 $i + $i ) + (-2j$ + 4j$ - 6j)$
$ respectively.
8. (d) If P1( x1, y1, z1) and P2( x2, y 2, z 2) are
and k,
+ (k$ + 5k$ - 7k$ ) any two points, the the vector joining P1
So, both (a) and (b) are true. and P2 is the vector P1 P2.
= 0 $i - 4j$ - k$ = -4j$ - k$
5. (b) If a and b are any two vectors given Z
3. (c) By triangle law of vector addition, in the component form a1$i + a2$j + a3k$ P2 (x2, y2, z2)
AB + BC = AC and b $i + b $j + b k$ , respectively, then
1 2 3
or AB +BC = - CA A. The sum (or resultant) of the vectors ^
k
Þ AB +BC +CA = 0 a and b is given by
C P1 (x1, y1, z1)
a + b = (a 1 + b1 ) $i + (a 2 + b2 )j$ î Y
O ^j
+ (a 3 + b3 )k$
X
B. The difference of the vector a and b
is given by Joining the points P1 and P2 with the
a - b = (a 1 - b1 ) $i + (a 2 - b2 )j$ origin O and applying triangle law,
A B from the triangle OPP1 2 we have
+ (a 3 - b3 )k$
So, option (c) is incorrect. OP1 + P1P2 = OP2
So, only (b) is correct.
Mathematics 81
Using the properties of vector addition, 1 1 Where, q is the angle between a and b,
m= =
the above equation becomes 12 + 12 + 12 3 0£ q£ p
P1P2 = OP2 - OP1 1 1
and n= = b
i.e. P1P2 = ( x2$i + y 2$j + z 2k$ ) 12 + 12 + 12 3
θ
- ( x1$i + y1$j + z1k$ ) Similarly, the direction cosines of b are a
= ( x - x )$i + (y - y )$j
2 1 2 1
given by
14. (b) As we know that |a|cos a , |a|cosb
2 2 1
+ ( z 2 - z1 )k$ l= = = , and |a|cos g are respectively the
22 + 22 + 22 2 3 3
projections of a along OX, OY and OZ.
The magnitude of vector P1P2 is given
2 2 1 i.e. the scalar components a1, a2 and a3
by m= = =
2 2 2 22 + 22 + 22 2 3 3 of the vector a, are precisely the
P1P2 = ( x2 - x1) + (y 2 - y1) + ( z 2 - z1) projections of a along X-axis, Y-axis and
2 2 1
So, option (d) is correct. and n = = = Z-axis, respectively. If a is a unit vector,
22 + 22 + 22 2 3 3 then it may be expressed in terms of its
9. (c) Given, vector a = $i + $j + k$ . direction cosines as
Here, we see that both have same
Comparing with direction cosines. a = cos a $i + cos b$j + cos g k$
a = x $i + y$j + zk,
$ we get
x=1, y =1, z =1. 11. (c) Let OA = 2 $i - $j + k$ , 15. (c) The angle between the two vectors
a ×b
OB = $i - 3$j - 5k$ a and b is given by cos q = . Here,
The magnitude of given vector is |a ||b|
| a | =|x $i + y $j + zk|
$ = x2 + y 2 + z 2 and OC = 3$i - 4 $j - 4 k$ we are not given a × b (dot product) and
\ a = |OA| = 6 , b = |OB| = 35 magnitude |a | and |b|, so first of all we
= 12 + 12 + 12 = 3 have to find these required factors.
and c = |OC| = 41
Similarly, magnitude of Let a = $i - 2 $j + 3k$
b 2 + c 2 - a2
b =|b| = |2 $i - 7 $j - 3k$| \ cosA =
2 bc and b = 3$i - 2 $j + k$
= 2 2 + ( -7) 2 + ( -3) 2 ( 35) 2 + ( 41) 2 - ( 6 ) 2 Magnitude of a
=
=
4 + 49 + 9 = 62 2 35 ´ 41
|a| = 12 + ( -2) 2 + 32
1 $ 1 $ 1 $ 35 35
and |c| = i + j- k Þ cosA = Þ cos2 A = = 1 + 4 + 9 = 14
3 3 3 41 41
Magnitude of b,
2 2 2
= æ 1 ö + æ 1 ö + æ- 1 ö 12. (b) AB = 2 $i + 3$j + 4 k$ - 4 $i - 7 $j - 8 k$ |b| = 32 + ( -2) 2 + 12
ç ÷ ç ÷ ç ÷
è 3ø è 3ø è 3ø
= - 2 $i - 4 $j - 4 k$ = 9 + 4 + 1 = 14
1 1 1
= + + =1 and AC = 2 $i + 5$j + 7 k$ - 4 $i - 7 $j - 8 k$ Now,
3 3 3
= - 2 $i - 2 $j - k$ a ×b = ( $i - 2 $j + 3k$ ) × (3$i - 2 $j + k$ )
10. (c) Two vectors can have the same \ |AB| = 6 and |AC| = 3 = 1× 3 + ( - 2) × ( -2) + 3×1
directions, if their direction cosines
A = 3 + 4 + 3 = 10
(l, m, n) are same. Direction cosines for a
vector A=x $i + y$j + zk$ are given by (Dot product of two vectors is equal to
the sum of the products of
x y their corresponding components.)
l= , m= ,
2 2 2
x +y + z x + y2+ z2
2
Let q be the required angle between a
z and b, then
n= B C
M a ×b
x2 + y 2 + z 2 cosq =
BM |AB| 6 |a| |b|
Let a = ( $i + $j + k$ ) We know, = =
MC |AC| 3 10 10 5
and b = (2 $i + 2 $j + 2k$ ). = = =
\ Position vector of required bisector 14 14 14 7
For Ist vector a = $i + $j + k$ 6 (2 $i + 5$j + 7k$ ) + 3(2 $i + 3$j + 4 k$ )
q = cos-1 æç ö÷
= 5
Þ
Comparing with A = x $i + y $j + z k$ , 6+3 è7 ø
we get 1
= (6 $i + 13$j + 18 k$ )
3 16. (d) For being perpendicular,
x =1,y =1, z =1
(2 $i - $j + 2k$ ) × (3$i + l$j + k$ ) = 0
The direction cosines of a are given by 13. (b) The scalar product of two non zero
1 1 vectors a and b, denoted by a× b, is Þ 6-l+2=0
l= = ,
2 2
1 +1 +1 2 3 defined as a × b = |a||b|cos q. Þ l =8
On comparing with Now,

17. (c) Let the required unit vector be
X = x $i + y$j + zk$ , we get [ AB AC AD ] = 0
r = a $i + b$j.
x = 20, y = 5, z = - 5 Þ 35 - 7 x = 0
Then, |r| = 1
2 2 \ Area of the parallelogram =|a ´ b| Þ x=5
Þ a + b =1 …(i)
Þ |a ´ b| = x2 + y 2 + z 2
Since, r makes an angle of 45° with 21. (a) a × [(b + c) ´ (a + b + c)]
$i + $j and an angle of 60° with 3$i - 4 $j,
= (20) 2 + 52 + ( -5) 2
therefore, = a × [(b ´ a + b ´ c + c ´ a + c ´ b)]
= 450 = 225 ´ 2 = a × (b ´ c) + a × (c ´ b)
p r × ( $i + $j)
cos = = 15 2 sq units (Qb ´ b = c ´ c = 0)
4 |r||$i + $j|
Hence, the area of the given = [a b c ] + [a c b)] = 0
p r × (3$i - 4 $j)
and cos = parallelogram is15 2 sq units. [Q[a c b] = - [a b c)]
3 |r||3$i - 4 $j|
1 a+ b 19. (c) We have, 22. (c) The vector which is perpendicular
Þ =
2 2 2 1 3 to both a and b must be parallel to a ´ b.
1 3a - 4 b a × (b ´ c) = –1 2 1 $i $j k$
and =
2 5 3 1 2 Now, a ´b= 1 4 2
Þ a + b =1
5 = 2 ( 4 – 1) + 1 (3 + 2) + 3 (– 1 – 6) 3 -2 7
and a - 4 b =
2 = 6 + 5 – 21
13 1 = $i (28 + 4) - $j (7 - 6) + k$ ( - 2 - 12)
Þ a= , b= = 11 – 21
14 14 = 32 $i - $j - 14 k$
= –10
13 $ 1 $ Let d = l (a ´ b) = l (32 $i - $j - 14 k$ )
\ r= i + j
14 14 20. (c) Since, we know that four points Also, c × d = 15
A , B, C and D are coplanar, if the vectors
18. (b) The area of the parallelogram
AB, AC and AD are coplanar. Þ(2 $i - $j + 4 k$ ) × l (32 $i - $j - 14 k$ ) = 15
whose adjacent sides are a and b, is
\ AB = $i + ( x - 2) $j + 4 k$ Þ 2 ´ (32 l) + ( - 1) ´ ( - l)
|a ´ b|.
AC = $i + 0$j - 3k$ + 4 ´ ( - 14 l) = 15
Adjacent sides are given as
64 l + l - 56 l = 15
a = $i - $j + 3k$ AD = 3$i + 3$j - 2 k$
Þ 9 l = 15
and b = 2 $i - 7 $j + k$ 15 5
Þ l= =
$i $j k$ 1 x - 2 04 9 3
\a ´ b = 1 -1 3 [ AB AC AD ] = 1 0 -3
\ Required vector,
2 -7 1 3 3 02
5
d= (32 $i - $j - 14 k$ ).
= 19
( ) - ( x - 2)(7) + 4(3) 3
= $i ( -1 + 21) - $j (1 - 6) + k$ ( -7 + 2)
= 9 - 7 x + 14 + 12 1
= 20$i + 5$j - 5k$ = (160$i - 5$j - 70k$ )
= 35 - 7x 3
Mathematics 83
CHAPTER 11
Three Dimensional
Geometry
Cartesian Equation The equation of a line passing through
1. Direction Cosines and Direction a point A(x1, y1, z1 ) and having direction ratios a, b and c is
Ratios of a Line x - x1 y - y1 z - z1
If a line makes angles a, b and g with X-axis, Y-axis and = =
a b c
Z-axis, respectively, then l = cos a, m = cos b and n = cos g
If l, m and n are the direction cosines of the line, then
are called the direction cosines of the line. x - x1 y - y1 z - z1
The relation between direction cosines of a line is, equation of the line is = =
l m n
l 2 + m2 + n 2 = 1.
(ii) Equation of a line passing through two given points
Numbers proportional to the direction cosines of a line are
called the direction ratios of the line. If a, b and c are the Vector Equation The vector equation of a line passing
direction ratios of a line, then through two points with position vectors a and b is given by
±a ±b ±c r = a + l (b - a ),
l= ,m= and n =
2 2
a +b +c 2 2 2
a + b +c 2
a + b2 + c 2
2 where l is a scalar.
Cartesian Equation The equation of a line passing through
Note For any line, direction cosines are unique but direction
ratios are not unique.
two points A(x1, y1, z1 ) and B(x 2 , y2 , z2 ) is
x - x1 y - y1 z - z1
= =
2. Direction Cosines and Direction Ratios of a x 2 - x1 y2 - y1 z2 - z1
Line Passing Through Two Points
5. Angle between Two Lines
The direction cosines and direction ratios of the
In vector form If q is the angle between two lines
line passing through the points P(x1, y1, z1 ) and Q(x 2 , y2 , z2 )
r = a 1 + lb1 and r = a2 + mb2 ,
are respectively given by
b ×b
x 2 - x1 y2 - y1 z2 - z1 then, cos q = 1 2 .
, , |b1||b 2 |
PQ PQ PQ
If two lines are perpendicular, then b1 × b 2 = 0 and if two
and (x 2 - x1, y2 - y1, z2 - z1 )
lines are parallel, then b1 = l b 2 .
where, PQ = (x 2 - x1 )2 + ( y2 - y1 )2 + ( z2 - z1 )2 In cartesian form If a1, b1, c1 and a2 , b2 , c 2 are direction
ratios of two lines respectively, then the angle q between
3. Line the lines is given by
A line or straight line is a curve such that all points on the line a1 a2 + b1 b2 + c1 c 2
segment joining two points of it lies on it. cos q =
A line in space can be determined uniquely, if a12 + b12 + c12 × a22 + b22 + c 22
(i) its direction and the coordinates of a point on it are known.
6. Some Important Results
(ii) it passes through two given points.
(i) If q is the angle between two lines with direction cosines
4. Equation of a Line l1, m1, n1 and l2 , m2 , n2 , then
cos q = l1l2 + m1m2 + n1n2 .
(i) Equation of a line passes through a given point and
parallel to a given vector (ii) If lines are perpendicular, then
a1a2 + b1b2 + c1 c 2 = 0,
Vector Equation The equation of a line through a given
(iii) If lines are parallel, then
point A with position vector a and parallel to a given vector b
a1 b1 c1
is given by r = a + l b, where l is a scalar. = = .
a2 b2 c 2
7. Skew-lines (iii) Equation of a plane passing through three

non-collinear points
If two lines do not meet and not parallel, then they are
Vector Equation The equation of plane passing through
known as skew-lines.
three non-collinear points a, b and c is
(r - a )× [(b - a ) ´ (c - a )] = 0.
8. Shortest Distance between Two Skew-Lines
Cartesian Equation The equation of a plane passing
The shortest distance between two skew-lines is the length through three non-collinear points A(x1, y1, z1 ), B(x 2 , y2 , z2 )
of line-segment perpendicular to both the lines. and C(x 3 , y3 , z3 ) is given by
In vector form Shortest distance between the
skew-lines r = a 1 + l b 1 and r = a 2 + l b 2 is given by x - x1 y - y1 z - z1
x 2 - x1 y2 - y1 z2 - z1 = 0
|(a 2 - a 1 ) × (b1 ´ b 2 )|
SD = x 3 - x1 y3 - y1 z3 - z1
|b1 ´ b 2 |
x1 y1 z1
The shortest distance between the parallel lines If above points are collinear, then x 2 y2 z2 = 0
r = a 1 + l b and r = a 2 + m b is given by
x3 y3 z3
b ´ (a 2 - a 1 )
SD = (iv) Intercept form of the equation of a plane If a plane cuts
|b|
(intercepts) a, b and c with the coordinate axes X, Y and Z,
In cartesian form The shortest distance between the lines x y z
then the equation of the plane is + + = 1.
x - x 1 y - y1 z - z1 a b c
= =
a1 b1 c1 (v) Equation of a plane passing through the intersection
x - x 2 y - y 2 z - z2 of two planes
and = = is In vector formThe equation of plane passing through the
a2 b2 c2
x 2 - x1 y2 - y1 z2 - z1 intersection of two planes r × n1 = d1 and r × n 2 = d 2 is
a1 b1 c1 r × (n1 + ln 2 ) = d1 + ld 2 , where l is a real number.
a2 b2 c2 In cartesian form The equation of a plane passing through
the intersection of the planes a1x + b1 y + c1 z + d1 = 0
(b1 c 2 - b2 c1 )2 + (c1 a2 - c 2 a1 )2 + (a1 b2 - a2 b1 )2
and a2 x + b2 y + c 2 z + d 2 = 0 is (a1x + b1 y + c1 z + d1 )
+ l (a2 x + b2 y + c 2 z + d 2 ) = 0
(vi) Equation of a plane parallel to a given plane
9. Plane In vector form The vector equation of a plane parallel to the
A plane is a surface such that a line segment joining any two given plane r × n = d1 is r × n = d 2 , where d 2 is a constant
points on it lies wholly on it. A straight line which is determined by the given condition.
perpendicular to every line lying on a plane is called a In cartesian form The cartesian equation of a plane
normal to the plane. parallel to the given plane ax + by + cz + d1 = 0 is
ax + by + cz + d 2 = 0.
10. Equation of Plane
(i) Equation of a plane in normal form 11. Coplanarity of Two Lines
Vector Equation Let O be the origin and n$ be a unit vector in In vector form Two lines r = a 1 + l b 1 and r = a 2 + l b 2 are
the direction of the normal ON to the plane and let ON = d . coplanar, iff (a 2 - a 1 ) × (b 1 ´ b 2 ) = 0.
Then, the equation of the plane is r × n$ = d. In cartesian form Suppose, cartesian equations of two
Cartesian Equation The equation of a lines are
plane is ax + by + cz + d = 0, where a, b and c x - x1 y - y1 z - z1 x - x 2 y - y 2 z - z2
= = and = = .
are the direction ratios of the normal to this plane. a1 b1 c1 a2 b2 c2
(ii) Equation of a plane perpendicular to a given vector and Then, these lines are coplanar iff
passing through a given point x 2 - x1 y2 - y1 z2 - z1
Vector Equation The equation of a plane passing through a1 b1 c1 = 0.
the point a and perpendicular to the given vector n is a2 b2 c2
(r - a ) × n = 0
Note The equation of plane containing the above lines is
Cartesian Equation The equation of a plane passing
x - x1 y - y1 z - z1
through a point (x1, y1, z1 ) is
a1 b1 c1 = 0.
a (x - x1 ) + b( y - y1 ) + c ( z - z1 ) = 0
a2 b2 c2
where, a, b and c are direction ratios of perpendicular
vector.
Mathematics 85
12. Angle between Two Planes 13. Distance of a Point from a Plane
In vector form The angle between two planes is the angle In vector form The perpendicular distance of a point a from
between their normals. the plane r × n = d, where n is normal to the plane, is
Angle between the planes |a × n - d |
r × n1 = d1 |n|
and r × n2 = d 2 is given by Note The length of the perpendicular from origin
n ×n d
cos q = 1 2 . O to the plane r × n = d is .
|n1||n2| |n |
In cartesian form If q is the angle between the planes In cartesian form Distance of a point P(x1, y1, z1 ) from a
a1x + b1 y + c1 z + d1 = 0 plane ax + by + cz + d = 0 is given by
and a2 x + b2 y + c 2 z + d 2 = 0,
| ax 1 + by1 + cz1 + d|
a1 a2 + b1 b2 + c1 c 2 p=
then, cos q = a2 + b 2 + c 2
a12 + b 12 + c 12 a 22 + b 22 + c 22
14. Angle between a Line and a Plane
Note If two planes are perpendicular, then n 1 × n 2 = 0 or
The angle f between the line r = a + l b and plane r × n = d is
a1a2 + b1b 2 + c1c2 = 0 and if they are parallel, then
a b c
given by
n 1 ´ n 2 = 0 or 1 = 1 = 1 . b ×n
a2 b 2 c2 sin f = .
|b|×|n|
Practice Questions
x -2 y +1 z -4
1. If A(3, 5, -4), B(-1, 1, 2) and C(-5, -5, -2) are the vertices of a (c) r = (i$ + 2$j - k$ ) + l(2$i - $j + 4 k$ ); = =
1 2 -1
DABC, then x -2 y +1 z -4
-2 -2 3 (d) r = (2$i - $j + 4 k$ ) + l(i$ + 2$j - k$ ); = =
(a) direction cosines of AB are , , 1 2 -1
17 17 17
4 5 -1 5. The vector and cartesian equations of the line that passes
(b) direction cosines of AC are , ,
42 42 42 through the points (3, -2, -5) and (3, -2, 6) are
-2 -3 -2 z +5
(c) direction cosines of BC are , , (a) r = 3$i - 2$j - 5 k$ ; x - 3 = y + 2 =
17 17 17 11
$ $ $ x -3 y +2 z +5
(d) All of the above (b) r = 3i - 2 j - 5 k; = =
0 0 11
14 z +5
2. If a, b, g be the direction angles of a vector and cos a = , $ $ $ $
(c) r = 3i - 2 j - 5 k + l(11 k ); x - 3 = y + 2 =
15 11
1 x -3 y +2 z +5
cosb = , then cos g = ...K... . Here, K refers to
3 (d) r = 3$i - 2$j - 5 k$ + l(11 k$ ); = =
0 0 11
2 1
(a) ± (b)
15 5 6. The symmetric equation of the lines 3 x + 2 y + z - 5 = 0 and
1 x + y - 2z - 3 = 0 is
(c) ± (d) None of these
15 x -1 y -4 z -0 x +1 y +4 z -0
(a) = = (b) = =
5 7 1 5 7 1
3. If a line makes the angles a, b and g with three dimensional x +1 y -4 z -0 x -1 y -4 z -0
coordinate axes respectively, then the value of (c) = = (d) = =
-5 7 1 -5 7 1
cos 2a + cos 2b + cos 2 g is
x+ 2 y + 1 z-3
(a) -2 (b) -1 (c) 3 (d) 2 7. The coordinates of a point on the line = = at
3 2 2
4. The equation of the line in vector and cartesian form that 6
a distance of from the point (1, 2, 3) is
passes through the point with position vector 2$i - $j + 4k$ and 2
is in the direction $i + 2$j - k$ are (a) (56, 43, 111)
x -1 y -2 z +1 æ 56 43 111 ö
(b) ç , . ÷
(a) r = (2$i - $j + 4 k) + l(i$ + 2$j - k$ );
^
= = è 17 17 17 ø
2 -1 -4
x -1 y -2 z +1 (c) (2, 1, 3)
(b) r = (i$ + 2$j - k) + l(2i$ - $j + 4 k$ ); = =
2 -1 4 (d) (-2, -1, -3 )
86 CUET (UG) Section III : Domain
1 - x 7 y - 14 z - 3
8. The value of p, so that the lines = = and 17. The equation of the plane which is at a distance 3 3 units
3 2p 2 from origin and the normal to which is equally inclined to
7 - 7x y - 5 6 - z
= = are at right angle, is coordinate axes is
3p 1 5
(a) r × ($i + $j + k$ ) = 3 3
10 70 10 70
(a) (b) (c) (d) (b) r × ($i + $j + k$ ) = 3
11 11 7 9 æ 1 $ 1 $ 1 $ö
(c) r × ç i + j + k÷ = 3 3
è 3 3 3 ø
9. The angle between the lines whose direction cosines are
connected by the relations l + m+ n=0 and (d) None of the above
2lm + 2nl - mn = 0, is
18. The length of foot of perpendicular from the point æç1, , 2ö÷ to
3
p 2p è 2 ø
(a) (b)
6 3 the plane 2 x -2 y + 4z + 5 = 0 is
(c) p (d) None of these
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 5 (d) 6
10. The lines x = py + q, z = ry + s and x = p ¢ y + q ¢, z = r ¢ y + s¢
19. The equation of the plane passing through the line of
are perpendicular, if intersection of the planes x+ y + z=1 and
(a) pr + p ¢ r ¢ + 1 = 0 (b) pp ¢ + rr ¢ + 1 = 0 2 x + 3 y - z + 4 = 0 and parallel to X-axis is
(c) pr + p ¢ r ¢ = 0 (d) pp ¢ + rr ¢ = 0
(a) y - 3z - 6 = 0 (b) y - 3z + 6 = 0
x-1 y -2 z-3 x-1 y - 5 z- 6 (c) y - z - 1 = 0 (d) y - z + 1 = 0
11. If the lines = = and = = are
-3 2k 2 3k 1 -5
20. The distance of the plane r × æç $i + $j - k$ ö÷ = 1 from the
2 3 6
at right angle, then k is equal to
è7 7 7 ø
10 -10 -7
(a) -10 (b) (c) (d) origin is
7 7 10
(a) 1 (b) 7
12. The distance of a point (-2, 4, -5) from the line 1
x+3 y-4 z+ 8 (c) (d) None of these
= = is 7
3 5 6
x+ 3 y -1 z- 5 x+ 1 y -2 z-5
37 37 37 21. The lines = = and = = are
(a) 37 (b) (c) (d) -3 1 5 -1 2 5
10 5 2 5
(a) coplanar (b) non-coplanar
13. The shortest distance between the lines given by (c) skew (d) None of these
r = (8 + 3l ) i$ - (9 + 16l ) $j + (10 + 7l )k$ and
r = 15$i + 29$j + 5k$ + m (3$i + 8$j - 5k)
$ is 22. The angle between two planes whose vector equations are
$ = 5and r × (3$i - 3$j + 5k$ ) = 3, is cos -1 KCK .
r × (2$i + 2$j - 3k)
(a) 84 (b) 14 (c) 21 (d) 16
Here, C refers to
14. The distance between the lines given by 15 15 15 27
(a) (b) (c) (d)
r = $i + $j + l (i$ - 2$j + 3 k$ ) and r = (2$i - 3 k$ ) + m ($i - 2$j + 3 k$ ) 17 731 43 731
is
59 59 118 59 23. Distance of a point with position vector a from a plane
(a) (b) (c) (d) r × n$ = d is
14 7 7 7
(a) | d + a × n$ | (b) | d - a × n$ |
15. The equation of the plane passing through the points (1, 1, 0), (c) | d + a ´ n$ | (d) d + | a ´ n$ |
(1, 2, 1) and (- 2, 2, - 1) is
24. The angle between line r = a + lb and plane r × n = d is given
(a) 2x + 3y -z =5
(b) 2x + 3y - 3z = 0 by
+ -z =0 b ×n b ń
(c) 2x 3y (a) cos -1 (b) sin -1
(d) 2x + 3y - 3z = 5 |b |× |n| | b || n |
b ×n b ń
16. The vector equation of the plane passing through the (c) sin -1 (d) cos -1
|b | |n| | b || n |
intersection of the planes r × (2i$ + 5$j + 3k$ ) = 9and through the
point (2, 1, 3) is 25. The plane 2 x - 3 y + 6z - 11 = 0 makes an angle sin-1 (a) with
(a) r × (38 $i + 68 $j + 3 k$ ) + 153 = 0 X-axis. The value of a is
(b) r × (38 $i + 68 $j + 3 k$ ) = 153 3 2 2 3
(c) r × (- 2i$ - 32$j - 57 k$ ) + 27 = 0 (a) (b) (c) (d)
2 3 7 7
(d) r × (2i$ + 32$j + 57 k$ ) + 27 = 0
Mathematics 87
x - a+ d y - a z - a-d
26. If the lines = = and 28. If the points (1, 1, p) and (- 3, 0, 1) be equidistant from the
a- d a a+ d
x-b + c y -b z-b -c plane r × (3i$ + 4$j - 12k$ ) + 13 = 0, then the value of p is
= = are coplanar, then equation of 3 7
b-g b b+ g (a) (b)
7 3
plane in which they lie, is 4 3
(a) x + y + z = 0 (b) x - y + z = 0 (c) (d)
3 4
(c) x - 2y + z = 0 (d) x + y - 2z = 0
29. The angle between the lines whose direction cosines are given
27. The equation of the plane that contains the point (1, – 1, 2) and by the equations 3l + m + 5n = 0 and 6mn - 2nl + 5lm = 0, is
is perpendicular to each of the planes 2 x + 3 y – 2z = 5 and æ 1 ö æ 1ö
x + 2 y – 3z = 8, is (a) cos -1 ç ÷ (b) cos -1 ç ÷
è 6ø è 3ø
(a) 5x – 4y = 7 (b) 5x – 4y – z = 0 æ -1 ö æ -2 ö
(c) 5x – 4y – z = 7 (d) 5x + 4y + z = 7 (c) cos -1 ç ÷ (d) cos -1 ç ÷
è6 ø è 3ø
Solutions
Therefore, the direction cosines of BC
1. (d) Let the vertices of the triangle be 4. (d) It is given that the line passes
are
A(3, 5, - 4) , B( -1, 1, 2) and through the point with position vector
-4 -6 -4 -2 -3 -2
C( -5, - 5, - 2), respectively. , , Þ , , a = 2 $i - $j + 4 k$ and b = $i + 2 $j - k$ .
2 17 2 17 2 17 17 17 17
A (3, 5, –4) It is known that a line through a point
The direction ratios of side CA are
with position vector a and parallel to b
( -5 - 3), ( -5 - 5) and ( -2 + 4) i.e.
i.e. in direction of b is given by the
( -8 , - 10, 2) or (8 , 10, - 2).
equation, r = a + lb.
| CA | = ( -8) 2 + ( -10) 2 + (2) 2
\ r = 2 $i - $j + 4 k$ + l( $i + 2 $j - k$ )
B (–1, 1, 2) C (–5, –5, –2) = 64 + 100 + 4
This is the required equation of the line
= 168 = 2 42
The direction ratios of side AB are in vector form.
Therefore, the direction cosines of Let r = x $i + y $j + z k$
( -1 - 3, 1 - 5, 2 - ( -4)) AC are
Þ ( -4 , - 4 , 2 + 4) Þ( -4 , - 4 , 6). 8 10 -2 4 5 -1 \ x $i + y $j + z k$ = ( l + 2) $i
, , Þ , ,
éQif A( x1 , y1 , z1) and B( x2 , y 2 , z 2) then ù 2 42 2 42 2 42 42 42 42 + (2 l - 1) $j + ( -l + 4) k$
ê ú
ëDR’ s of AB = ( x2 - x1 , y 2 - y1 , z 2 - z1) û Eliminating l, we obtain the cartesian
2. (a) We know that,
Then, magnitude of AB,
l + m + n =1
2 2 2 form equation as
| AB | = ( -4) 2 + ( -4) 2 + (6) 2 x-2 y +1 z - 4
Þ cos a + cos2 b + cos2 g = 1
2
= =
= 16 + 16 + 36 = 68 = 2 17 2 2 1 2 -1
Þ æ14 ö + æ 1 ö + cos2 g = 1
Therefore, the direction cosines of AB ç ÷ ç ÷ This is the required equation of the
è15 ø è3ø
are given line in cartesian form.
196 1
-4 -4 6 -2 -2 3 Þ + + cos2 g = 1
, , Þ , , 225 9 5. (d) Let a and b be the position vectors of
2 17 2 17 2 17 17 17 17
196 1 points (3, - 2 , - 5) and (3, - 2 , 6),
æQif a, b , c are direction ratios, ö Þ cos2 g = 1 - -
ç ÷ 225 9 respectively.
ç then direction cosines are ÷ 225 - 196 - 25 \ a = 3$i - 2 $j - 5 k$
ç ÷ Þ cos2 g =
ç a b 225
, ,÷ and b = 3$i - 2 $j + 6 k$
ç a + b + c
2 2 2
a + b + c ÷
2 2 2
Þ cos2 g =
4
ç ÷ 225 We know that, the vector equation of
ç c ÷ 2 a line passing through the points
ç ÷ Þ cosg = ± having position vectors a and b is
è a + b + c
2 2 2
ø 15
r = a + l(b - a )
Similarly, the direction ratios of side
3. (b) cos2 a + cos2b + cos2 g \ r = 3 i - 2 $j - 5k$ + l [(3$i - 2 $j + 6 k$ )
$
BC are ( -5 - ( -1)). ( -5 - 1) and ( -2 - 2)
i.e. ( -4 , - 6 , - 4). = (2 cos2 a - 1) + (2 cos2 b - 1) - (3$i - 2 $j - 5k$ )]
Magnitude of BC, + (2 cos2 g - 1)
Þ r = 3$i - 2 $j - 5k$ + l [ 3$i - 2 $j
| BC | = ( -4) 2 + ( -6) 2 + ( -4) 2 = 2(cos2 a + cos2 b + cos2 g) - 3
+ 6 k$ - 3$i + 2 $j + 5k$ ]
=2 -3 (Qcos2 a + cos2 b + cos2 g = 1)
= 68 = 2 17
= -1 Þ r = 3$i - 2 $j - 5k$ + l (11 k$ ) …(i)
(which is vector equation) (squaring both sides) Now,

Putting r = x i + y$j + zk$ , in Eq. (i),
$ Þ 9 l + 9 - 18 l + 4 l
2 2 a1a2 + b1b2 + c1c2
cosq =
we have + 9 - 12 l + 4 l = 18
2
a12 + b12 + c12 a22 + b22 + c22
x $i + y$j + zk$ = 3$i - 2 $j + (11l - 5) k$ Þ 17 l - 30l = 0
2 1- 2 - 2
=
Comparing coefficients of $i, $j and k$ on Þ l(17 l - 30) = 0 Þ l = 0,
30 12 + 12 + ( -2) 2 12 + ( -2) 2 + 12
both sides, we have 17 -3 -3 -1
= = =
Substituting the values of l in Eq. (i)
x = 3, y = - 2 and z = 11 l - 5 6 6 6 2
we get the required point
x-3 y + 2 z + 5
\ q = cos-1 æç - ö÷
\ = = 1
( -2 , - 1, 3) or æç
56 43 111ö
0 0 11 , , ÷. è 2ø
è 17 17 17 ø
æQhere, x - 3 ¹ ¥ö p 2p
= p - cos-1 æç ö÷ = p - =
1
ç ÷
ç 0 ÷ 8. (b) Equation of the given lines can be è2 ø 3 3
ç and y + 2 ¹ ¥ ÷ written as standard form
ç ÷
è 0 ø 10. (b) Given lines are
x -1 y - 2 z - 3
= =
which is the cartesian form of required -3 2p 2 x = py + q, z = ry + s
line. 7 x-q z-s
Þ =y =
x -1 y - 5 z - 6 p r
6. (c) Let a, b, c be the DR’s of required and = =
-
3p 1 -5 and x = p ¢y + q ¢, z = r ¢y + s ¢
line
7 x - q¢ z - s¢
\ 3a + 2 b + c = 0 and a + b - 2 c = 0 Þ =y =
Direction ratios of these lines are p¢ r¢
a b c -3p
Þ = = respectively - 3,
2p
,2 and , 1, - 5. x - x1 y - y1 z - z1
½2 1 ½ ½ 1 3½ ½3 2½ Two lines = =
½ ½ ½ ½ ½ ½ 7 7 a1 b1 c1
½1 -2½ ½-2 1½ ½1 1½ Two lines with direction ratios a1 , b1 , c1
x - x2 y - y 2 z - z 2
a b c and a2 , b2 , c2 are perpendicular to each and = = are
Þ = = a2 b2 c2
-4 - 1 1 - ( -6) 3 - 2 other, if a1a2 + b1b2 + c1c2 = 0.
-3p ö æ 2 p ö perpendicular, if a1a2 + b1b2 + c1c2 = 0
Þ
a b c
= = \ ( -3) æç ÷ + ç ÷ (1) + (2) ( -5) = 0
è 7 ø è7 ø \ Given lines are perpendicular, if
-5 7 1
9p 2p pp ¢ + 1 + rr ¢ = 0
Now, we have to find a point on the Þ + - 10 = 0
line for this put z = 0 in given 7 7
equations, we get 11p 70 11. (c) Given, a1 = - 3, b1 = 2k, c1 = 2
Þ = 10 Þ p = .
3x + 2y = 5 7 11 a2 = 3k, b2 = 1, c2 = - 5
70
and x+ y =3 Thus, the value of p is . Since, given line is perpendicular, then
11 a1a2 + b1b2 + c1c2 = 0
Solving these two equations, we get
Note For making a line in standard Þ -3(3k) + 2k(1) + 2( -5) = 0
x = -1, y = 4
form, we ensure that coefficient of
\ Coordinate of point on the line are variable should be non-negative and Þ -9k + 2k - 10 = 0
( -1, 4 , 0) coefficient of variable should be 1. Þ -7k = 10
Hence, the required equation of line is -10
\ k=
x+1 y - 4 z - 0 9. (b) Given, l + m + n = 0 …(i) 7
= =
-5 7 1 2lm + 2nl - mn = 0 …(ii)
12. (b) Here, P (–2, 4, –5) is the given
m = -l - n [from Eq.(i)] point.
7. (b) Given equation of line is
x+ 2 y +1 z -3 On substituting the value of m in Eq.
= = = l (let) Any point Q on the line is given by
(ii), we get
3 2 2 (3l - 3 , 5l + 4 , 6 l - 8),
2l ( -l - n) + 2nl - ( -l - n)n = 0
Þ x = 3l - 2, y = 2 l - 1, z = 2 l + 3 ...(i) PQ = (3l - 1) $i + 5l $j + (6 l - 3) k$
Þ -2l 2 - 2ln + 2nl + ln + n2 = 0
\ Coordinates of any point on the line Since, PQ ^ (3 $i + 5 $j + 6 k$ ), we have
are Þ n2 + ln - 2l 2 = 0
Þ 3(3l - 1) + 5( 5l) + 6(6 l - 3) = 0
(3l - 2 , 2 l - 1, 2 l + 3) Þ n2 + 2ln - ln - 2l 2 = 0
Þ 9 l + 25l + 36 l = 21,
Þ n(n + 2l) - l (n + 2l) = 0 3
The distance between this point and i.e. l=
6 Þ (n + 2l) (n - l) Þn = l, n = - 2l 10
(1, 2, 3) is
2 When n = l, m = - 2l P (–2, 4, –5)
(3l - 2 - 1) + (2 l - 1 - 2)
2 2
6 When, n = - 2l, m = l
\ =
+ (2 l + 3 - 3) 2 2 Therefore, direction ratios of two lines
are
36
Þ (3l - 3) 2 + (2 l - 3) 2 + (2 l) 2 = 1, 1, -2 and 1, -2, 1
2 Q
Mathematics 89
x+3 y -4 z +8 = 9 $i + 6 $j + k$ [r × (2 $i + 2 $j - 3 k$ ) - 7]
= =
3 5 6
1 15 $ 12 $ |b| = 12 + ( -2) 2 + 32 + l[r × (2 $i + 5$j + 3 k$ ) - 9] = 0
Thus, PQ = - $i + j- k
10 10 10 Þ r × [(2 i + 2 $j - 3 k$ )
$
= 1+ 4 + 9
1
Hence, |PQ| = 1 + 225 + 144 = 14 + l (2 $i + 5$j + 3 k$ )] = 9l + 7
10
9 $i + 6 $j + k$ Þ r × [(2 + 2 l )$i + (2 + 5l ) $j
=
37 \ Distance d =
10 14 + (3l - 3) k$ ] = 9l + 7 …(iii)
1 The plane passes through the point
13. (b) Given equations of lines = (9) 2 + (6) 2 + (1) 2
14 (2, 1, 3).
r = (8 + 3l) $i - (9 + 16 l) $j + (10 + 7 l)k$ 1 Therefore, its position vector is given
= 81 + 36 + 1
i.e. r = 8 $i - 9 $j + 10k$ + l(3$i - 16 $j + 7 k$ ) 14 by r = 2 $i + $j + 3 k$
and r = 15 $i + 29 $j + 5k$ + m(3 $i + 8 $j - 5k$ ) 118
= Substituting this value in Eq.(iii),
14 we obtain
Here, a 1 = 8 $i - 9 $j + 10k$ ,
=
59 (2 $i + $j + 3 k$ ) × [(2 + 2 l) $i + (2 + 5l) $j
b = 3$i - 16 $j + 7 k$
1 7 + (3l - 3)k$ ] = 9 l + 7
a 2 = 15 $i + 29 $j + 5k$ ,
15. (d) The given points are A (1, 1, 0), Þ 2(2 + 2 l) + (2 + 5l) + 3(3l - 3)
b = 3 $i + 8 $j - 5k$ = 9l + 7
2 B(1, 2, 1) and C( -2 , 2 , - 1.
)
a 2 - a 1 = (15 $i + 29 $j + 5k$ ) Check the condition of collinear point Þ ( 4 + 4 l) + (2 + 5l)
x1 y1 z1 1 1 0 + (9 l - 9) = 9 l + 7
- (8 $i - 9 $j + 10k$ )
i.e. x2 y 2 z 2 = 1 2 1 Þ -3 + 18 l = 9 l + 7
= 7 $i + 38 $j - 5k$ 10
x3 y3 z3 -2 2 -1 Þ 9 l = 10 Þ l =
$i $j k$ 9
= 1 ( - 2 - 2) - 1 ( - 1 + 2) + 0 (2 + 4)
b1 ´ b2 = 3 -16 7 Substituting this value of l in Eq. (iii),
= - 5¹ 0 we obtain the required plane as
3 8 -5
Therefore, a plane will pass through [r × (2 $i + 2 $j - 3 k$ ) - 7 ]
= $i (80 - 56) - $j(-15 - 21) the points A, B and C.
10
It is known that the equation of the + [r × (2 $i + 5$j + 3 k$ ) - 9] = 0
+ k$ (24 + 48) 9
plane through the points
Þ [r × (18$i + 18$j - 27 k$ ) - 63]
= (24 i + 36 j + 72 k$ )
$ $ ( x1 , y1 , z1), ( x2 , y 2 , z 2) and ( x3 , y3 , z3 ) is
x - x1 y - y1 z - z1 + [r × (20$i + 50$j + 30 k$ ) -90] = 0
\ Shortest distance
x2 - x1 y 2 - y1 z 2 - z1 = 0 Þ r × [38$i + 68$j + 3 k$ ] - 153 = 0
(a 2 - a 1) × (b1 ´ b2)
d = x3 - x2 y3 - y 2 z3 - z 2
|b1 ´ b2| Þ r × (38$i + 68$j + 3 k$ ) = 153
x -1 y -1 z This is the vector equation of the
(7 $i + 38 $j - 5k$ ) × (24 $i + 36 $j + 72 k$ ) Þ =0
= 0 1 1 required plane.
(24) 2 + (36) 2 + (72) 2 -3 0 -2
17. (c) If l , m and n are the direction
168 + 1368 - 360 Þ -2( x - 1) - 3(y - 1) + 3z = 0
= cosines of normal, then
576 + 1296 + 5184 Þ -2 x + 2 - 3y + 3 + 3z = 0
l = m=n
1176 1176 Þ 2 x + 3y - 3z - 5 = 0
= = = 14 Q l 2 + m2 + n2 = 1
7056 84 Þ 2 x + 3y - 3z = 5
Þ 3l 2 = 1
This is the cartesian equation of the 1
14. (b) Here, a 1 = $i + $j, a 2 = 2 $i - 3k$ Þ l2 =
required plane. 3
b = $i - 2 $j + 3k$ 1
16. (b) Given planes are Þ l=±
b ´ (a 2 - a 1) 3
Distance d = r × (2 $i + 2 $j - 3 k$ ) = 7
|b| \ n$ = l $i + m$j + nk$
and r × (2 $i + 5$j + 3 k$ ) = 9
Now, a 2 - a 1 = (2 $i - 3k$ ) - ( $i + $j) =
1 $
i +
1 $
j+
1 $
k.
These equation can be written as 3 3 3
= $i - $j - 3k$
r × (2 $i + 2 $j - 3 k$ ) - 7 = 0 …(i) Equation of plane is given by
$i $j k$
and r × (2 $i + 5$j + 3 k$ ) - 9 = 0 …(ii) r × n$ = d
b ´ (a 2 - a 1) = 1 -2 3
Þ r × æç $i +
1 1 $ 1 $ö
1 -1 -3 The equation of any plane through the j+ k÷ = 3 3
intersection of the planes given in è 3 3 3 ø
= $i (6 + 3) - $j( -3 - 3) + k$ ( -1 + 2) Eqs.(i) and (ii) can be written as
Substituting the value of l in Eq. (i), = 9 + 9 + 25 = 43

18. (d) Given equation of plane is
we get Substituting the value of n1 × n 2,
2 x - 2y + 4 z + 5 = 0 …(i)
( 0) x + æç1 - ö÷y + æç1 + ö÷ z
3 1 |n1| and |n 2 | in Eq. (i), we obtain
\ N = 2 $i - 2 $j + 4 k$ è 2ø è 2ø -15
cosq =
The equation of a line passing through + ( -1 - 2) = 0 17 43
æ1 , 3 , 2 ö and parallel to N is Þ
1 3
- y + z -3= 0 15
ç ÷ Þ cosq =
è 2 ø 2 2 731
3 Þ y - 3z + 6 = 0
q = cos-1 æç
y- 15 ö
x -1 2 = z - 2 = l (let) Þ ÷
= which is the required equation of è 731 ø
2 -2 4 plane.
3
Þ x = 2 l + 1, y = - 2 l + , z = 4 l + 2 23. (b) Consider a point P with position
2 20. (a) The distance of the plane vector a and a plane p1 whose equation
r × æç $i + $j – k$ ö÷ = 1 is r × n$ = d.
2 3 6
(1, 3 , 2)
2 è7 7 7 ø Z
p2 p1
N from the origin
1
= Q
2 2 2 P
æ ö + æ ö + æ -6 ö
2 3
ç ÷ ç ÷ ç ÷
è7 ø è7 ø è7 ø N
a N¢
1 1 O
= = =1 d Y
4 9 36 1
The general coordinates of foot of + + X
perpendicular are 49 49 49
(a)
æ2 l + 1, - 2 l + 3 , 4 l + 2 ö.
ç ÷ 21. (a) Here, x1 = - 3, y1 = 1, z1 = 5,
è 2 ø Z
a1 = - 3, b1 = 1, c1 = 5 p1 p2
Since, it lies on the plane (i), then x2 = - 1, y 2 = 2, z 2 = 5, a2 = - 1,
2(2 l + 1) - 2 æç -2 l + ö÷
3 b2 = 2, c2 = 5
è 2ø P
Now, consider the determinant
+ 4( 4 l + 2) + 5 = 0 d a N¢
x2 - x1 y 2 - y1 z 2 - z1 2 1 0
Þ 4 l + 2 + 4 l - 3 + 16 l + 8 + 5 = 0 O Y
a1 b1 c1 = -3 1 5 N
Þ 24 l + 12 = 0 a2 b2 c2 -1 2 5
1 X
Þ l=- (b)
2 = 2( 5 - 10) - 1( -15 + 5) + 0
\ Required foot of perpendicular is = - 10 + 10 = 0 Consider a plane p 2 through P parallel
é æ 1ö æ 1ö 3 æ 1ö ù Therefore, lines are coplanar. to the plane p1. The unit vector normal
ê2 çè - 2 ÷ø + 1, - 2 çè - 2 ÷ø + 2 ,4 çè - 2 ÷ø + 2 ú to p 2 is n.$ Hence, its equation is
ë û
22. (b) Given planes are (r - a ) × n$ = 0 i.e. r × n$ = a × n$
i.e. æç 0, , 0ö÷
5
è 2 ø r × (2 $i + 2 $j - 3 k$ ) = 5 Thus, the distance ON ’ of this plane
from the origin is |a × n$|. Therefore,
\ Length of perpendicular is given by and r × (3$i - 3$j + 5 k$ ) = 3 the distance PQ from the plane p1 is
( x2 - x1) 2 + (y 2 - y1) 2 + ( z 2 - z1) 2 It is known that if n1 and n 2 are normal [Fig. (a)]
to the plane, r × n1 = d1 and r × n 2 = d 2,
2
ON - ON' = |d - a × n$ |
= ( 0 - 1) 2 + æç - ö÷ + ( 0 - 2) 2
5 3 then the angle between them is given i.e.
è2 2 ø n ×n which is the length of the
by cos q = 1 2 …(i)
= 1+ 1+ 4 = 6 |n1||n 2| perpendicular from a point to the given
plane.
Here, n 1 = 2$i + 2$j - 3k$
19. (b) Equation of the planes passing We may establish the similar results for
through line of intersection of the planes and n = 3$i -
2 3$j + 5 k$ Fig. (b).
x + y + z = 1and 2 x + 3y - z + 4 = 0 is
\ n 1 × n 2 = (2$i + 2$j - 3k$ ) 24. (c) If the equation of the line is
( x + y + z - 1) + l(2 x + 3y - z + 4) = 0
× (3$i - 3$j + 5k$ ) r = a + lb and the equation of the plane
(1 + 2 l) x + (1 + 3l)y is r × n = d. Then, the angle q between the
+ (1 - l) z + ( -1 + 4 l) = 0 …(i) = 2 × 3 + 2 × ( -3) + ( -3) × 5 line and the normal to the plane is
= 6 - 6 - 15 = - 15
Since, Eq. (i) is parallel to X-axis, then ½b × n ½
cos q = ½ ½
(1 + 2 l) = 0 |n1 | = (2) 2 + (2) 2 + ( -3) 2
½|b||n|½
-1 = 4 + 4 + 9 = 17
\ l= and so the angle f between the line
2
|n 2| = (3) 2 + ( -3) 2 + ( 5) 2 and the plane is given by 90 - q, i.e.
Mathematics 91
sin(90° - q) = cos q 20 - 12 p 8
27. (c) The equation of the plane Þ =±
½b × n ½ 13 13
i.e. sin f = ½ ½ containing the given point is
Taking +ve sign, we get
½|b||n|½ A( x - 1) + B(y + 1) + C ( z - 2) = 0 …(i)
20 - 12 p 8
½b × n ½ Applying the condition of =
or f = sin-1½ ½ 13 13
perpendicularly to the plane given in
½|b||n|½ Þ 20 - 12 p = 8 Þ12 p = 12
Eq. (i) with the planes
2 x + 3y - 2 z = 5 and x + 2y - 3z = 8, Þ p =1
25. (c) Since, the plane
2 x - 3y + 6 z - 11 = 0 makes an angle we have Taking –ve sign, we get
sin-1( a) with X-axis. 2 A + 3B - 2C = 0 and A + 2B - 3C = 0 20 - 12 p -8
=
½ $i × (2 $i - 3$i + 6k$ ) ½ Solving these equations, we find 13 13
\ sin(sin-1 a) = ½
½ 2 2 ½ A = - 5C and B = 4 C . Hence, the Þ 20 - 12 p = - 8 Þ12 p = 28
2½
½ 1 2 + ( -3) + 6 ½
2
required equation is 28 7
Þ p= =
2 2 12 3
Þ a= Þa = -5C ( x - 1) + 4C (y + 1) + C ( z - 2) = 0
1 49 7
i.e. 5x - 4y - z = 7 29. (c) Eliminating m from the given
26. (c) The equation of given lines can be equations, we get
28. (b) The distance of point (1, 1, p) from
written as 2n2 + 3ln + l 2 = 0
the plane r × (3$i + 4 $j - 12 k$ ) + 13 = 0 or
x - (a - d) y - a z - (a + d) Þ (n + l)(2n + l) = 0
= = …(i) (in cartesian form)
a- d a a+ d Þ Either n = - l or l = - 2n
3x + 4y - 12 z + 13 = 0, is
x - ( b - c) y - b z - ( b + c) l = - n, then m = - 2n
and = = …(ii) 3 ´ 1 + 4 ´ 1 - 12 ´ p + 13
Now, if
b-g b b+ g d1 = and if l = - 2n, then m = n.
32 + 4 2 + ( -12) 2
The equation of the plane containing Thus, the direction ratios of two lines
Eqs. (i) and (ii) is 3 + 4 - 12 p + 13 20 - 12 p are proportional to
= =
½x - ( a - d ) y - a z - ( a + d )½ 169 13 -n, - 2n, n and -2n, n, n
½ a- d a a + d ½= 0 …(i)
½ ½ i.e. 1, 2, -1and -2, 1, 1.
b - g b b + g ½ The distance of the point (–3, 0, 1)
½ from the plane 3x + 4y - 12 z + 13 = 0
So, vectors parallel to these lines are
Applying C1 ® C1 - 2C 2 + C3 is a = $i + 2 $j - k$ and b = - 2 $i + $j + k$ ,
½( x - 2y + z) y - a z - ( a + d )½ 3 ´ ( -3) + 4 ´ 0 - 12 ´ 1 + 13
respectively.
½ 0 a a + d ½= 0 d2 = If q is the angle between the lines, then
½ ½ 32 + 4 2 + ( -12) 2 a ×b
½ 0 b b+ g ½ cosq =
-9 + 0 - 12 + 13 -8 8 |a||b|
= = =
Expanding along C1 169 13 13 ( $i + 2 $j - k$ ) × ( -2 $i + $j + k$ )
( x - 2y + z){a(b + g) - b( a + d)} = 0 =
According to the given condition, 1 + 2 2 + ( -1) 2 ( -2) 2 + 12 + 12
2
Þ x - 2y + z = 0 20 - 12 p 8
d1 = d 2 Þ = =-
1
13 13 6
Hence, q = cos-1 æç - ö÷.
1
è 6ø
CHAPTER 12
Linear Programming
1. Linear Programming Problem (LPP) (vii) Feasible and Infeasible Solutions Any solution to the
given linear programming problem which also satisfies the
A linear programming problem is one that is concerned with non-negative restrictions of the problem is called a
finding the optimal value (maximum or minimum value) of a feasible solution. Any point outside the feasible region is
linear function (called objective function) of several variables called an infeasible solution.
(say x and y called decision variable), subject to the (viii) Optimal Solution A feasible solution at which the
constraints that the variables are non-negative and satisfy a objective function has optimal value is called the optimal
solution of the linear programming problem.
set of linear inequalities (called linear constraints).
(ix) Optimisation Technique The process of obtaining the
2. Mathematical Form of LPP optimal solution is called optimisation technique.
The general mathematical form of a linear programming 4. Important Theorems
problem may be written as Maximise or Minimise (i) Theorem 1 Let R be the feasible region (convex polygon)
Z = c1x + c 2 y for a linear programming problem and Z = ax + by be the
subject to constraints are a1x + b1 y £ d1, a2 x + b2 y £ d 2 , etc. objective function. When Z has an optimal value
and non-negative restrictions are x ³ 0, y ³ 0. (maximum or minimum), where the variables x and y are
subject to constraints described by linear inequalities, this
3. Some Terms Related to LPP optimal value must occur at a corner point (vertex) of the
(i) Constraints The linear inequations or inequalities or
feasible region. (A corner point of a feasible region is a
restrictions on the variables of a linear programming problem
point of intersection of two boundary lines in the region).
are called constraints. The conditions x ³ 0, y ³ 0 are called
non-negative restrictions. (ii) Theorem 2 Let R be the feasible region for a linear
programming problem and Z = ax + by be the objective
(ii) Optimisation Problem A problem which seeks to
function. If R is bounded, then the objective function Z has
maximise or minimise a linear function subject to certain
both a maximum and a minimum value on R and each of
constraints determined by a set of linear inequalities is
these occurs at a corner point (vertex) of R.
called an optimisation problem. Linear programming
problems are special type of optimisation problems. 5. Graphical Method of Solving LPP
(iii) Objective Function A linear function of two or more The following steps are given below:
variables which has to be maximised or minimised under Step I Find the feasible region of the linear programming
the given restrictions in the form of linear inequations or problem and determine its corner points (vertices) either by
inspection or by solving the two equations of the lines
linear constraints is called the objective function.The
intersecting at that point.
variables used in the objective function are called decision
Step II Evaluate the objective function Z = ax + by at each
variables.
corner point. Let M and m respectively denote the largest
(iv) Optimal Values The maximum or minimum value of an and smallest values of these points.
objective function is known as its optimal value. Step III When the feasible region is bounded, M and m are
(v) Feasible and Infeasible Regions The common region the maximum and minimum values of Z.
determined by all the constraints including non-negative Step IV When, the feasible region is unbounded, then
constraints x, y ³ 0 of a linear programming problem is (a) M is the maximum value of Z, if the open half plane
called the feasible region or solution region. Each point in determined by ax + by > M has no point in common with
this region represents a feasible choice. The region other the feasible region. Otherwise, Z has no maximum value.
than feasible region is called an infeasible region. (b) Similarly, m is the minimum value of Z, if the open half
(vi) Bounded and Unbounded Regions A feasible region of a plane determined by ax + by < m has no point in
system of linear inequalities is said to be bounded, if it can common with the feasible region. Otherwise, Z has no
be enclosed within a circle. Otherwise, it is said to be minimum value.
unbounded region.
Mathematics 93
Practice Questions
Then, the maximum profit to the dealer results from buying
1. Which of the following is a linear objective function ?
(a) 10 tables and 50 chairs (b) 50 tables and 10 chairs
(a) Z = ax + by (b) Z < ax + by
(c) 0 table and 60 chairs (d) 20 tables and 40 chairs
(c) Z > ax + by (d) Z ¹ ax + by
2. If a furniture dealer estimates that from the sale of one table 7. The minimum and maximum values of Z for the problem,
he can make a profit of ` 250 and from the sale of one chair of minimise and maximise Z = 3 x + 9 y ...(i)
a profit of ` 75 and if x is the number of chairs and y is the subject to the constraints
number of tables, then its linear objective function is x + 3 y £ 60 ...(ii)
(a) Z = 75x + 250y (b) Z = 75x + 25y x + y ³ 10 ...(iii)
(c) Z = 250x + 75y (d) Z = 25x + 75y x£ y ...(iv)
x ³ 0, y ³ 0 ...(v)
3. The conditions x ³ 0, y ³ 0 are called
are respectively
(a) restrictions only (b) negative restrictions
(c) non-negative restrictions (d) None of these (a) 60 and 180 (b) 180 and 60
(c) 50 and 190 (d) 190 and 50
4. A furniture dealer deals in only two items–tables and chairs.
He has ` 50000 to invest and has storage space of at most 60 8. The maximum and minimum values of the objective function
pieces. A table costs ` 2500 and a chair ` 500. Then, the Z = 3x - 4y
constraints of the above problem are (where, x is number of Subject to the constraints
tables and y is number of chairs) x - 2 y £ 0, - 3 x + y £ 4, x - y £ 6, x, y ³ 0
(a) x ³ 0, y ³ 0 (b) 5x + y £ 100 are respectively
(c) x + y £ 60 (d) All of the above (a) 12, 10 (b) 10, 12
5. A problem which seeks to maximise or minimise a linear (c) 12, does not exist (d) 5, 12
function (say to two variables x and y) subject to certain 9. The linear programming problem minimise Z = 3 x + 2 y
constraints as determined by a set of linear inequalities is
subject to the constraints
called a/an
x+ y³8
(a) optimisation problem (b) functional problem 3 x + 5y £ 15
(c) numerical problem (d) computer problem x ³ 0, y ³ 0 has
6. Let x and y are the number of tables and chairs respectively, (a) one solution (b) no feasible solution
on which a furniture dealer wants to make profit for the (c) two solutions (d) infinitely many solutions
constraints
Maximise Z = 250 x + 75y 10. The minimum and maximum values of the objective function
Z = 5x + 10 y
Subject to constraints,
subject to x + 2 y £ 120
5x + y £ 100, x + y £ 60
x + y ³ 60
x ³ 0, y ³ 0
x - 2y ³ 0
Consider the following graph x, y ³ 0
Y are respectively
100 (a) 300 and 500 (b) 300 and 600
90 (c) 600 and 700 (d) 300 and 400
80
70 (0, 60) 11. The maximum and minimum values of the objective function
C Z = x + 2y
60
B (10, 50) subject to the constraints
50
40 x + 2 y ³ 100, 2 x - y £ 0
30 2 x + y £ 200, x, y ³ 0
20 occurs respectively at
10 A (20,0) (a) one point and three points
X' X
O (b) two points and one point
10 20 30 40 50 60 70
Y' (c) one point and infinitely points
5x + y = 100 x + y = 60 (d) one point and one point
12. The corner points of the feasible region determined by the 17. A manufacturer produces nuts and bolts. It takes 1 h of work
stystem of linear constraints are (0, 0), (0, 40), (20, 40), on machine A and 3 h on machine B to produce a package of
(60, 20), (60, 0). The objective function isZ = 4 x + 3 y . nuts. It takes 3 h on machine A and 1 h on machin B to
Compare the quantities in column A and column B. produce a package of bolts. He earns a profit of `17.50 per
package on nuts and `7.0 per package on bolts.
Column A Column B
Maximum of Z 325 If he operates his machines for atmost 12 h a day, then the
number of packages of each produced each day so as to
(a) The quantity in column A is greater maximise his profit is
(b) The quantity in column B is greater
(a) 3 packages of nuts and 2 packages of bolts
(c) The two quantities are equal
(b) 3 packages of nuts and bolts each
(d) The relationship cannot be determined on the basis of
(c) 2 packages of nuts and 3 packages of bolts
the given information
13. The corner points of the feasible region determined by the
18. A company manufactures two types of novelty souvenirs
system of linear constraints are (0, 10), (5, 5) (15, 15), (0, 20).
Let Z = px + qy , where p, q > 0. Then, the condition on p and made of plywood. Souvenirs of type A require 5 min each for
q so that the maximum of Z occurs at both the points (15, 15) cutting and 10 min each for assembling. Souvenirs of type B
and (0, 20), is require 8 min each for cutting and 8 min each for assembling.
(a) p = q (b) p = 2q (c) q = 2p (d) q = 3 p There are 3 h 20 min available for cutting and 4 h for
assembling. The profit is ` 5 each for type A and ` 6 each for
14. A cooperative society of farmers has 50 hectare of land to grow type B souvenirs. How many souvenirs of each type should
two crops X and Y. The profit from crops X and Y per hectare the company manufacture in order to maximise the profit?
are estimated as ` 10500 and ` 9000, respectively. To control
weeds, a liquid herbicide has to be used for crops X and Y at (a) 8 souvenirs of type A and 20 souvenirs of type B
rates of 20L and10L per hectare. Further no more than 800L of (b) 8 souvenirs of type A and 10 souvenirs of type B
herbicide should be used in order to protect fish and wildlife (c) 20 souvenirs of type A and 8 souvenirs of type B
using a pond which collects drainage from his land. (d) None of the above
To maximise the total profit of the society, the land should be
allocated to each crop is 19. A diet is to contain atleast 80 units of vitamin A and 100 units
of minerals. Two foods F1 and F2 are available. Food F1 costs
(a) 20 hec for crop X and 30 hec for crop Y
` 4 per unit and food F2 costs ` 6 per unit. One unit of food F1
(b) 20 hec each for both crop X and crop Y contains 3 units of vitamin A and 4 units of minerals. One unit
(c) 30 hec for crop X and 20 hec for crop Y of food F2 contains 6 units of vitamin A and 3 units of minerals.
(d) 30 hec each for both crop X and crop Y Then, the minimum cost for diet that consists of mixture of
these two foods and also meets the minimal nutritional
15. Reshma wishes to mix two types of food P and Q in such a requirements, is
way that the vitamin contents of the mixture contain atleast
(a) ` 100 (b) ` 105
8 units of vitamin A and 11 units of vitamin B. Food P costs
(c) ` 103 (d) ` 104
`60/kg and food Q costs `80/kg. Food P contains 3 units/kg of
vitamin A and 5 units/kg of vitamin B, while food Q contains 20. A manufacturing company makes two types of television sets;
4 units/kg of vitamin A and 2 units/kg of vitamin B. Then, the one is black and white and the other is colour. The company
minimum cost of the mixture is has resources to make atmost 300 sets per week. It takes
(a) `160 (b) ` 150 ` 1800 to make a black and white set and ` 2700 to make a
(c) `130 (d) ` 140 coloured set. The company can spend not more than
` 648000 per week to make television sets. If it makes a profit
16. One kind of cake requires 200g of flour and 25g of fat and of ` 510 per black and white set and ` 675 per coloured set,
another kind of cake requires 100g of flour and 50g of fat. how many sets of each type should be produced, so that the
Then, the maximum number of cakes which can be made company has maximum profit?
from 5kg of flour and 1kg of fat assuming that there is no (a) 120 black and white and 180 colour television sets
storage of the other ingredients used in making the cakes, is (b) 300 black and white television sets
(a) 20 (b) 10 (c) 240 colour television sets
(c) 30 (d) 40 (d) 180 black and white and 120 colour television sets
Mathematics 95
Solutions
1. (a) Objective function Z = ax + by, where a and b are constants, 7. (a) Given that
which has to be maximised or minimised, is called a linear Minimise and maximise Z = 3x + 9y …(i)
objective function. Subject to the constraints are
2. (c) Z = 250x + 75y is the linear objective function for the given x + 3y £ 60 …(ii)
problem. x + y ³ 10 …(iii)
x£y …(iv)
3. (c) The conditions x ³ 0 and y ³ 0 are called non-negative
x ³ 0, y ³ 0 …(v)
restrictions.
First of all, let us graph the feasible region of the system of
4. (d) The constraints in the given problem are linear inequalities (ii) to (v). The feasible region ABCD is shown
in the figure. Note that the region is bounded. The coordinates
x ³ 0, y ³ 0,
of the corner points A, B, C and D are ( 0, 10), (5, 5), (15, 15) and
2500x + 500y £ 50000 (0, 20), respectively.
or 5x + y £ 100
Corresponding
x + y £ 60 Corner point value of Z = 3 x + 9 y
5. (a) Optimisation problem A problem which seeks to maximise A (0, 10) 90
or minimise a linear function (say of two variables x and y) subject B (5, 5) 60 ¬ Minimum
to certain constraints as determined by a set of linear inequalities C (15, 15) 180 ü Maximum (multiple
is called an optimisation problem. Linear programming problems ý ¬
are special types of optimisation problems. D (0, 20) 180 þ optimal solutions)
Y
6. (a) The graph of the given constraints is
y
Y
=
x
100
90 25
D (0, 20)
80 C (15, 15)
70 (0, 60) 15 A
C (0, 10)
60 (60, 0)
B (10, 50) 5 B (5, 5)
50
X' X
40 O
30 5 20 35 50
20 x + 3y = 60
Y' (10, 0)
10 A(20, 0) x + y = 10
X' X
O We, now find the minimum and maximum value of Z. From the
10 20 30 40 50 60 70
Y' table, we find that the minimum value of Z is 60 at the point B
5x + y = 100 x + y = 60
(5, 5) of the feasible region. The maximum value of Z on the
The corner points (vertices) of the bounded (feasible) region are feasible region occurs at the two corner points C (15, 15) and
O, A, B and C and it is easy to find their coordinates as (0, 0), D (0, 20) and it is 180 in each case.
(20, 0), (10, 50) and (0, 60),. respectively. Let us now compute Remark Observe that in the above example, the problem has
the values of Z at these points. We have, multiple optimal solutions at the corner points C and D, i.e. the
Vertex of the Corresponding both points produce same maximum value 180. In such cases,
feasible region value of Z (in `) you can see that every point on the line segment CD joining the
two corner points C and D also give the same maximum value.
O (0, 0) 0
Same is also true in the case, if the two points produce same
C (0, 60) 4500 minimum value.
B (10, 50) 6250 ¬¾ Maximum
A (20, 0) 5000 8. (c) The given LPP is
We observe that the maximum profit to the dealer results Maximise and minimise Z = 3x - 4y
from the investment strategy (10, 50), i.e. buying 10 tables and Subject to the constraints are
50 chairs. x - 2y £ 0
This method of solving linear programming problem is referred as -3x + y £ 4
corner point method. x - y £ 6 and x, y ³ 0
Y x + y ³ 60 …(iii)
16
4
–
y=
y= x - 2y ³ 0 …(iv)
–4
x+
3x x,y ³ 0 …(v)
–3 B (12, 6)
Draw the graph of the line x + 2y = 120.
(0, 4) A x 0 120
y 60 0
O
X' X
=0 6 Y
2y Y' y=
x– x–
60
The shaded region is the feasible region which is unbounded.
The feasible unbounded region is AOB and the corner points 50
(60,30)
are O(0,0), A (0,4), B (12, 6). The values of Z at these corner 40 C
points are given by 30
Corner point (40,20)
Corresponding value of Z 20 D
O( 0, 0) 0 10 B (120,0)
A(60,0)
A( 0, 4) -16 X' X
B(12, 6 ) 12 (0,0)O 20 40 60 80 100 120 140 160
Y'
x – 2y = 0 x + 2y = 120
\ The maximum value of Z is 12 at (12, 6). Also, to check for x + y = 60
the minimum value of Z, we draw the graph of 3x - 4y = - 16.
Putting (0, 0) in the inequality x + 2y £ 120, we have
Since, the open half plane 3x - 4y < - 16 cuts the feasible
0 + 2 ´ 0 £ 120 Þ 0 £ 120 (which is true)
region at the point (0, 4) and has common area with feasible
region. So, the half plane is towards the origin.
\ The given LPP has no minimum solution. Draw the graph of the line x + y = 60.
x 0 60
9. (b) Given that
y 60 0
Minimise Z = 3x + 2y
Subject to the constraints are Putting (0, 0) in the inequality x + y ³ 60, we have
x+ y ³8 …(i) 0 + 0 ³ 60 Þ 0 ³ 60 (which is false)
3x + 5y £ 15 …(ii) So, the half plane is away from the origin.
x ³ 0, y ³ 0 …(iii)
Draw the graph of the line x - 2y = 0.
Let us graph the inequalities (i) to (iii).
x 0 10
Y
y 0 5
(0,8) x+y=8 Putting (5, 0) in the inequality x - 2y ³ 0, we have
7 5-2 ´ 0³ 0 Þ 5³ 0 (which is true)
6 So, the half plane is towards the X-axis. Since, x, y ³ 0.
5 So, the feasible region lies in the first quadrant.
4 \ Feasible region is ABCDA.
3x + 5y = 15
(0,3) On solving equations x - 2y = 0 and x + y = 60, we get
2 D (40, 20) and on solving equations x - 2y = 0 and
x + 2y = 120, we get C(60, 30).
1
(5,0) The corner points of the feasible region are A(60, 0), B(120, 0),
X' X C(60, 30) and D(40, 20). The values of Z at these points are as
O
1 2 3 4 5 6 7(8,0) follows
Y'
Corner point Z = 5 x + 10 y
From figure, you can see that there is no point satisfying all the
constraints simultaneously. Thus, the problem is having no A(60, 0) 300 ® Minimum
feasible region and hence no feasible solution. B(120, 0) 600 ® Maximum
C(60, 30) 600 ® Maximum
10. (b) Our problem is to minimise and maximise
D(40, 20) 400
Z = 5x + 10y …(i)
Subject to the constraints are The minimum value of Z is 300 at (60, 0) and the maximum value
of Z is 600 at all the points on the line segment joining the points
x + 2y £ 120 …(ii)
(120, 0) and (60, 30).
Mathematics 97
The corner points of the feasible region are A(0, 50), B(20, 40),
11. (c) Our problem is to minimise and maximise
C(50, 100) and D(0, 200). The values of Z at these points are as
Z = x + 2y …(i) follows
Subject to the constraints are
Corner point Z = x + 2y
x + 2y ³ 100 …(ii)
A(0, 50) 100 ® Minimum
2x - y £ 0 …(iii) B(20, 40) 100 ® Minimum
2 x + y £ 200 …(iv) C(50,100) 250
x ³ 0, y ³ 0 …(v) D(0, 200) 400 ® Maximum
Draw the graph of the line x + 2y = 100.
The maximum value of Z is 400 at D(0, 200) and the minimum
x 0 100 value of Z is 100 at all the points on the line segment joining
y 50 0 A(0, 50) and B(20, 40) i.e. at infinite point.
Putting (0, 0) in the inequality x + 2y ³ 100, we have 12. (b) The corner points of the feasible region determined by the
0 + 2 ´ 0 ³ 100 system of linear constraints are (0, 0), (0, 40), (20, 40) (60, 20), (60,
0).
Þ 0 ³ 100 (which is false)
The objective function is Z = 4 x + 3y . The values of Z at these
So, the half plane is away from the origin.
corner points is given by
Draw the graph of line 2 x - y = 0.
Corner point Corresponding value
x 0 10 of Z
y 0 20 (0, 0) 0
(0, 40) 120
Putting (5, 0) in the inequality 2 x - y £ 0, we have
(20, 40) 300
2 ´ 5 - 0 £ 0 Þ 10 £ 0 (which is false) (60, 20) 300
Y (60, 0) 240
200 D(0,200)
The maximum value of Z is 300 < 325.
\ The quantity of column B is greater.
13. (d) The corner points of the feasible region are (0, 10),
( 5, 5), (15, 15), (0, 20).
100 C (50, 100) The given objective function is Z = px + qy , p , q > 0
80 It is given that the maximum value of Z occurs at the points
60 (15, 15) and (0, 20).
(0,50) A \ We have,
40 B (20, 40)
p ×15 + q ×15 = p × 0 + q ×20
20
Þ ( p + q) 15 = q ×20
X' X
O Þ 3( p + q) = 4 q
(0,0) 20 40 60 80 100 120 140 160
Y' \ 3p = q
2x – y = 0 2x + y = 200 x + 2y = 100
So, the half plane is away from origin. 14. (c) Let x hec of land be allocated to crop X and y hec to crop Y.
Draw the graph of line 2 x + y = 200. Obviously, x ³ 0, y ³ 0.
Profit per hectare on crop X = ` 10500
x 0 100
Profit per hectare on crop Y = ` 9000
y 200 0
Therefore, total profit = ` (10500x + 9000y)
Putting (0, 0) in the inequality 2 x + y £ 200, we have The mathematical formulation of the problem is as follows
2 ´ 0 + 0 £ 200 Þ 0 £ 200 (which is true) Maximise Z = 10500x + 9000y
So, the half plane is towards the origin. Since, x, y ³ 0 Subject to the constraints are
So, the feasible region lies in the first quadrant.
x + y £ 50 (constraint related to land) …(i)
On solving equations 2 x - y = 0 and x + 2y = 100, we get
20x + 10y £ 800 (constraint related to use of herbicide)
B(20, 40) and on solving the equations 2 x - y = 0 and
2 x + y = 200, we get C(50, 100). i.e. 2 x + y £ 80 …(ii)
\ Feasible region is ABCDA. x ³ 0, y ³ 0 (non-negative constraint) …(iii)
Let us draw the graph of the system of inequalities (i) to (iii). The 0³8 (which is false)
feasible region OABC is shown (shaded) in the figure. Observe So, the half plane is away from the origin.
that the feasible region is bounded. Since, x, y ³ 0
The coordinates of the corner points O, A, B and C are So, the feasible region lies in the first quadrant.
( 0, 0), (40, 0), (30, 20) and (0, 50), respectively. Let us evaluate Draw the graph of the line 5x + 2y = 11.
the objective function Z = 10500x + 9000y at these vertices to
x 0 11/5
find which one gives the maximum profit.
y 11/2 0
Corner point Z = 10500 x + 9000 y
Putting (0, 0) in the inequality 5x + 2y ³ 11, we have
O (0, 0) 0
5 ´ 0 + 2 ´ 0 ³ 11
A (40, 0) 420000
Þ 0 ³ 11 (which is false)
B (30, 20) 495000 ¬ Maximum
So, the half plane is away from the origin.
C (0, 50) 450000
It can be seen that the feasible region is unbounded.
Y (0,50) Y
50 C 6 C(0, 11/2)
40 2x + y = 80
5
30
4
B (30,20)
20
3
10 A (40,0)
2
X' X B(2, 1/2)
O 1
10 20 30 50 60
A(8/3, 0)
Y' x + y = 50 X' X
–1 O 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
Hence, the society will get the maximum profit of ` 495000 by 3x + 4 y = 8
allocating 30 hec for crop X and 20 hec for crop Y. Y' 5x + 2y = 11
15. (a) Let Reshma mixes x kg of food P and y kg of food Q. Construct On solving equations 3x + 4y = 8 and 5x + 2y = 11, we get
B æç2 , ö÷.
the following table 1
è 2ø
Cost
Food Quantity Vitamin A Vitamin B
The corner points of the feasible region are A æç , 0ö÷, B æç2 , ö÷
(` per kg) 8 1
è3 ø è 2 ø
P x kg 3x 5x 60x
and C æç 0, ö÷.
11
Q y kg 4y 2y 80 y è 2ø
Total 3x + 4 y 5x + 2 y 60x + 80 y The values of Z at these points are as follows
Requirement Atleast 8 Atleast 11 Corner point Z = 60 x + 80 y
A æç , 0ö÷
8
The mixture must contain atleast 8 units of vitamin A and 160 ® Minimum
è3 ø
11 units of vitamin B. Total cost Z of purchasing food is
Z = 60x + 80y B æç2, ö÷
1
160 ® Minimum
The mathematical formulation of the given problem is è 2ø
Minimise Z = 60x + 80y
C æç 0, ö÷
…(i) 11
440
Subject to the constraints 3x + 4 x ³ 8 …(ii) è 2ø
5x + 2y ³ 11 …(iii) As the feasible region is unbounded, therefore 160 may or may
x ³ 0, y ³ 0 …(iv) not be the minimum value of Z. For this, we graph the
Draw the graph of the line 3x + 4y = 8. inequality 60x + 80y < 160 or 3x + 4y < 8 and check whether
the resulting half plane has points in common with the feasible
x 0 8/3 region or not. It can be seen that the feasible region has no
y 2 0 common point with 3x + 4y < 8, therefore the minimum cost of
the mixture will be ` 160 at line segment joining the points
A æç , 0ö÷ and B æç2 , ö÷.
Putting (0, 0) in the inequality 3x + 4y ³ 8, we have 8 1
3´ 0 + 4 ´ 0 ³ 8 è3 ø è 2ø
Mathematics 99
16. (c) Let x be the number of cakes of one kind and y be the number Corner point Z = x+ y
of cakes of other kind. Construct the following table O(0, 0) 0
Number of Flour required Fat required A(25, 0) 25

Kind
cakes (in g) (in g)
B(20, 10) 30 ® Maximum
I x 200x 25x
C( 0, 20) 20
II y 100 y 50 y
Thus, the maximum number of cakes that can be made is 30 i.e.
Total x + y 200x + 100 y 25x + 50 y 20 of one kind and 10 of the other kind.
Requirement 5000 1000
17. (b) Let the manufacturer produces x nuts and y bolts.
Our problem is to maximise Z = x + y …(i)
We construct the following table
Subject to constraints are
200x + 100y £ 5000 Item Number of Machine A Machine B Profit
Û 2 x + y £ 50 …(ii) packages (in h) (in h) (in `)
25x + 50y £ 1000 Û x + 2y £ 40 …(iii) Nuts x 1x 3x 17.50x
and x, y ³ 0 …(iv) Bolts y 3y 1y 7y
Firstly, draw the graph of the line 2 x + y = 50
Total x + y x + 3y 3x + y 17.50x + 7 y
x 0 25 Availa 12 12
y 50 0 bility
Putting (0, 0) in the inequality 2 x + y £ 50, we have \ Total profit, Z = 17.5x + 7y

2 ´ 0 + 0 £ 50 Þ 0 £ 50 (which is true) i.e. maximise Z = 17.5x + 7y …(i)
So, the half plane is towards the origin. Subject to constraints are
Secondly, draw the graph of the line x + 2y = 40 x + 3y £ 12 …(ii)
3x + y £ 12 …(iii)
x 0 40 x ³ 0, y ³ 0 …(iv)
y 20 0
Firstly, draw the graph of the lines x + 3y = 12
Y x 0 12
y 4 0
60
Putting (0, 0) in the inequality x + 3y £ 12, we have
50 0 + 3 ´ 0 £ 12 Þ 0 £ 12 (which is true)
40 So, the half plane is towards the origin.
Since, x, y ³ 0
30
So, the feasible region lies in first quadrant.
20 C(0, 20) Y
B(20, 10) 14
10
(25, 0)A (0, 12)
X' X 12
O 10 20 30 40 50 60 70 80
(0, 0) 10
2x + y = 50 x + 2y = 40
Y' 8
Putting (0, 0) in the inequality x + 2y £ 40, we have 6
0 + 2 ´ 0 £ 40
4 B(3, 3)
Þ 0 £ 40 (which is true) C(0, 4)
So, the half plane is towards the origin. 2
A(4, 0) (12, 0)
Since, x, y ³ 0 X' X
O 2 4 6 8 10 12 14 16
So, the feasible region lies in the first quadrant. (0, 0)
x + 3y = 12
On solving equations 2 x + y = 50
Y' 3x + y = 12
and x + 2y = 40, we get B (20, 10)
Secondary, draw the graph of the line 3x + y = 12
\ Feasible region is OABCO.
x 4 0
The corner points of the feasible region are O ( 0, 0), A(25, 0),
B(20, 10) and C( 0, 20). The values of Z at these points are as y 0 12
follows
Putting (0, 0) in the inequality 3x + y £ 12, we have Y

3 ´ 0 + 0 £ 12
50
Þ 0 £ 12 (which is true)
So, the half plane is towards the origin. 40
On solving equations x + 3y = 12 and 3x + y = 12, weget B(3, 3). 30
\ Feasible region is OABCO. (0, 25)C
20 B(8, 20)
The corner points of the feasible region are O( 0, 0) A( 4 , 0), B(3, 3)
and C( 0, 4). The values of Z at these points are as follows 10
A(24, 0)
Corner point Z = 17.5 x + 7 y X' X
O 10 20 30 40 50 60 70 80
(0, 0)
O( 0, 0) 0
Y' 5x + 4y = 120
A( 4, 0) 70 5x + 8y = 200
B( 3, 3) 73.50 ® Maximum Putting (0, 0) in the inequality 5x + 4y £ 120, we have
C( 0, 4) 28 5 ´ 0 + 4 ´ 0 £ 120
Þ 0 £ 120 (which is true)
The maximum value of Z is ` 73.50 at (3, 3).
So, the half plane is towards the origin.
Thus, 3 packages of nuts and 3 packages of bolts should be
On solving equations 5x + 8y = 200 and 5x + 4y = 120, we get
produced each day to get the maximum profit ` 73.50.
B(8 , 20).
18. (a) Let the company manufactures x souvenirs of type A and y \ Feasible region is OABCO
souvenirs of type B. We construct the following table The corner points of the feasible region are O( 0, 0), A(24 , 0),
Time for cutting Time for B(8 , 20) and C( 0, 25). The values of Z at these points are as
Profit follows
Type Number machine assembling
(in `)
(in min) (in min)
A x 5x 10x 5x Corner point Z = 5 x + 6y
B y 8y 8y 6y O( 0, 0) 0
Total x + y 5x + 8 y 10x + 8 y 5x + 6 y A(24, 0) 120
Availability 3 ´ 60 + 20 4 ´ 60 = 240 B( 8, 20) 160 ® Maximum
= 200
C( 0, 25) 150
The profit on type A souvenirs is ` 5 and on type B souvenirs is `
6.
The maximum value of Z is ` 160 at B(8 , 20).
Our problem is to maximise Z = 5x + 6y …(i)
Thus, 8 souvenirs of type A and 20 souvenirs of type B should
Subject to the constraints are be produced each day to get the maximum profit of ` 160.
5x + 8y £ 200 …(ii)
10x + 8y £ 240 Û 5x + 4y £ 120 …(iii) 19. (d) Let the diet contains x units of food F1 and y units of food F2. We
x ³ 0, y ³ 0 …(iv) construct the following table
Firstly, draw the graph of the line Vitamin A Minerals per Cost
Type Number
5x + 8y = 200 per unit unit (in `)
F1 x 3x 4x 4x
x 0 40
F2 y 6y 3y 6y
y 25 0
Total x + y 3x + 6 y 4x + 3 y 4x + 6 y
Putting (0, 0) in the inequality 5x + 8y £ 200, we have
The cost of food F1 is ` 4 per unit and of food F2 is ` 6 per unit.
5 ´ 0 + 8 ´ 0 £ 200 Þ 0 £ 200 (which is true) So, our problem is to minimise Z = 4 x + 6y …(i)
So, the half plane is towards the origin. Subject to constraints are 3x + 6y ³ 80 …(ii)
Since, x, y ³ 0 4 x + 3y ³ 100 …(iii)
So, the feasible region lies in the first quadrant. x ³ 0, y ³ 0 …(iv)
Secondary, draw the graph of the line 5x + 4y = 120 Firstly, draw the graph of the line 3x + 6y = 80
x 0 24 x 0 80/3
y 30 0 y 40/3 0
Mathematics 101
Y It can be seen that the feasible region has no common point

with 2 x + 3y < 52
35
C(0, 100/3) Therefore, the minimum cost of the mixture will be ` 104.
30
25 20. (d) Let x and y denote respectively, the number of black and
white sets and coloured sets made each week. Thus,
20 x ³ 0, y ³ 0
15 Since, the company can make atmost 300 sets a week,
therefore,
x + y £ 300
(24
10
,4
5 Weekly cost (in `) of manufacturing the set is

/3)
1800x + 2700y
B
A(80/3, 0)
X' X
O 5 10 15 20 25 30 35 40 45 and the company can spend upto ` 648000. Therefore,
(0, 0) 1800x + 2700y £ 648000 i.e. or 2 x + 3y £ 720
3x + 6y = 80
Y' The total profit on x black and white sets and y colour sets is
4x + 3y = 100 2x + 3y = 52
` ( 510x + 675y).
Putting (0, 0) in the inequality 3x + 6y ³ 80, we have Let Z = 510x + 675y . This is the objective function.
3 ´ 0 + 6 ´ 0 ³ 80 Þ 0 ³ 80 (which is false) Thus, the mathematical formulation of the problem is
So, the half plane is away from the origin. Maximise Z = 510x + 675y
Since, x, y ³ 0 x + y £ 300 ü
ï
So, the feasible region lies in the first quadrant. Subject to the constraints are 2 x + 3y £ 720ý
Secondary, draw the graph of the line 4 x + 3y = 100 x ³ 0, y ³ 0 ïþ
x 0 25 Y
y 100/3 0
Putting (0, 0) in the inequality 4 x + 3y ³ 100, we have

4 ´ 0 + 3 ´ 0 ³ 100 Þ 0 ³ 100 (which is false) C
So, the half plane is away from the origin. (0,240)
On solving the equations 3x + 6y = 80 and 4 x + 3y = 100, we
B(180,120)
get B æç24 , ö÷. It can be seen that the feasible region is
4
è 3ø 2x + 3y = 720
unbounded.
X' X
The corner points of the feasible region are A æç , 0ö÷, B æç24 , ö÷
80 4 O
è3 ø è A
3ø Y' (300,0) x + y = 300
æ
and C ç 0,
100 ö
÷. The values of Z at these points are as follows
è 3 ø The feasible region OABC is shown in the figure.
Since, the feasible region is bounded, therefore maximum of Z
Corner point Z = 4 x + 6y must occur at the corner point of OABC.
A æç , 0ö÷
80 320
= 106.67 Corner point Value of Z
è 3 ø 3
O( 0, 0) 510( 0) + 675 ( 0) = 0
B æç24, ö÷
4
104 ® Maximum
è 3ø A( 300, 0) 510 ( 300) + 675 ( 0) = 153000
C æç 0,
100 ö
÷ 200 B(180, 120) 510 (180) + 675 (120) = 172800 ¬ Maximum
è 3 ø
C( 0, 240) 510 ( 0) + 675 (240) = 162000
As the feasible is unbounded, therefore 104 may or may not be
the minimum value of Z. Thus, maximum Z is 172800 at the point (180, 120) i.e. the
For this, we draw a graph of the inequality, 4 x + 6y < 104 or company should produce 180 black and white television sets and
2 x + 3y < 52 and check, whether the resulting half plane has 120 coloured television sets to get maximum profit.
points in common with the feasible region or not.
CHAPTER 13
Probability
(vi) Exhaustive Event A set of events is said to be exhaustive,
1. Some Basic Definitions if the performance of the experiment always results in the
(i) Experiment An operation which can produce some occurrence of atleast one of them. If E1, E2 , ¼, En are
well-defined outcomes, is called an experiment. exhaustive events, then E1 È E2 È¼È En = S .
(ii) Random Experiment An experiment in which total (vii) Complement of an Event Let A be an event in a sample
outcomes are known in advance but occurrence of specific space S, then complement of A is the set of all sample
outcome can be told only after completion of the points of the space other than the sample point in A and it is
experiment, is known as a random experiment. denoted by A¢ or A,
(iii) Outcomes A possible result of a random experiment is i.e. A¢ = { n : n Î S , n Ï A}
called its outcomes.
(iv) Sample Space The set of all possible outcomes of a
4. Probability of an Event
random experiment is called its sample space. It is usually In a random experiment, let S be the sample space and E be
denoted by S. the event. Then,
(v) Trial When a random experiment is repeated under Number of outcomes favourable to E n( E )
P(E ) = =
identical conditions and it does not give the same result Number of all possible outcomes n(S )
each time but may result in anyone of the several possible (i) If E is an event and S is the sample space, then
outcomes, then such experiment is called a trial and
outcomes are called cases. (a) 0 £ P( E ) £ 1
(b) P( f ) = 0
2. Event
A subset of the sample space associated with (c) P(S ) = 1
a random experiment is called an event. (ii) P ( E ) = 1 - P ( E )
3. Types of Events 5. Coin
(i) Impossible and Sure Events The empty set f and the A coin has two sides, head and tail. If an event consists of
sample space S describe events (as S and f are also more than one coin, then coins are considered as distinct, if
subset of S ). The empty set f is called an impossible event not otherwise stated.
and whole sample space S is called the sure event.
(i) Sample space of one coin= { H, T}
(ii) Simple Event If an event has only one sample point of a
(ii) Sample space of two coins
sample space, then it is called a simple or elementary
event. = {( H, T ), (T , H ), ( H, H ), (T , T )}
(iii) Compound Event If an event has more than one sample (iii) Sample space of three coins
point, then it is called a compound event. = {( H, H, H ), ( H, H, T ), ( H, T , H ), ( T , H, H ),
(iv) Equally Likely Event The given events are said to be ( H, T , T ), ( T , H, T ), (T , T , H ), (T, T, T )}
equally likely, if none of them is expected to occur in 6. Die
preference to the other.
A die has six faces marked 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6. If we have
(v) Mutually Exclusive Event A set of events is said to be more than one die, then all dice are considered as distinct, if
mutually exclusive, if the happening of one excludes the not otherwise stated.
happening of the other, i.e. if A and B are mutually
(i) Sample space of a die = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 }
exclusive, then ( A Ç B) = f.
Mathematics 103
(ii) Sample space of two dice (iii) (a) P (exactly one of A, B occurs)
= P( A) + P(B) - 2 P( A Ç B)
ì(1, 1), (1, 2 ), (1, 3), (1, 4), (1, 5), (1, 6 ) ü
ï(2, 1), (2, 2 ), (2, 3), (2, 4), (2, 5), (2, 6 )ï = P ( A È B) - P ( A Ç B)
ï ï (b) P (neither A nor B ) = P (A Ç B ) = 1- P(A È B)
ï( 3, 1), ( 3, 2 ), ( 3, 3), ( 3, 4), ( 3, 5), ( 3, 6 )ï
=í ý (iv) If A, B and C are three events, then
( 4, 1), ( 4, 2 ), ( 4, 3), ( 4, 4), ( 4, 5), ( 4, 6 )
ï ï P (exactly one of A, B, C occurs)
ï( 5, 1), ( 5, 2 ), ( 5, 3), ( 5, 4), ( 5, 5), ( 5, 6 )ï = P( A) + P(B) + P(C ) - 2 P ( A Ç B) - 2 P (B Ç C )
ï(6, 1), (6, 2 ), (6, 3), (6, 4), (6, 5), (6, 6 )ï
î þ - 2P ( A Ç C ) + 3 P ( A Ç B Ç C )
(v) (a) P( A ) = 1 - P( A) (b) P ( A È A ) = P(S ), P (f ) = 0
7. Playing Cards
A pack of playing cards has 52 cards. There are 4 suits 9. Conditional Probability
namely spade, heart, diamond and club, each having 13 Let E and F be two events associated with a random
cards. There are two colours, red (heart and diamond) and experiment. Then, probability of occurrence of event E, when
black (spade and club), each having 26 cards. the event F has already occurred, is called conditional
In 13 cards of each suit, there are 3 face cards namely king, probability of event E over F and is denoted by P(E / F ).
queen and jack, so there are in all 12 face cards. Also, there P(E Ç F )
P(E / F ) = , where P(F ) ¹ 0.
are 16 honour cards, 4 of each suit namely ace, king, queen P(F )
and jack.
Cards
10. Properties of Conditional Probability
52 Let A,B and C be the events of a sample space S. Then,
(i) P(S / A) = P( A / A) = 1
Colours (ii) P{( A ÈB)/ C} = P( A / C ) + P(B / C ) - P{( A ÇB)/ C}; P(C ) ¹ 0
Red Black (iii) P( A¢ / B) = 1 - P( A / B), where A¢ is complement of A.
26 26
11. Multiplication Theorem of Probability
Let A and B are two events associated with a random
Heart Diamond Club Spade ì P( A)× P(B / A), where P( A) ¹ 0
13 13 13 13 experiment, then P( A ÇB) = í
î P(B)× P( A / B), where P(B) ¹ 0
8. Important Results on Probability 12. Multiplication Theorem for More
(i) Addition Theorem of Probability
than Two Events
(a) For two events A and B,
Let E, F and G be three events of sample space S, then
P ( A È B) = P( A) + P(B) - P ( A Ç B) æFö æ G ö
P(E Ç F Ç G ) = P(E )× P ç ÷ × P ç ÷
If A and B are mutually exclusive events, then è Eø è E ÇFø
P ( A È B) = P( A) + P(B)
[for mutually exclusive, P ( A Ç B) = 0 ] 13. Independent Events
(b) For three events A, B and C, Two events A and B are said to be independent, if the
P ( A È B È C ) = P( A) + P(B) + P(C ) - P ( A Ç B) occurrence or non-occurrence of one event does not affect
the occurrence or non-occurrence of another event.
- P (B Ç C ) - P ( A Ç C ) + P ( A Ç B Ç C )
If A, B and C are mutually exclusive events, then Two events E and F are said to be independent, if
P ( A È B È C ) = P( A) + P(B) + P(C ) P(F / E ) = P(F ), P(E ) ¹ 0,
é ù and P(E / F ) = P(E ), P(F ) ¹ 0.
ê for mutually exclusive events, ú
ê P( A Ç B) = P(B Ç C ) = P(C Ç A) ú Note If E and F are independent events, then
ê ú P (E ÇF ) = P (E ) × P (F ) .
ê = P ( A Ç B Ç C) = 0 ú
ë û 14. Theorem of Total Probability
(ii) If A and B are two events associated to Let S be the sample space and E1, E2 , E3 ,..., En be n
a random experiment, then mutually exclusive and exhaustive events associated with a
(a) P ( A Ç B) = P(B) - P ( A Ç B) random experiment.
(b) P ( A Ç B ) = P( A) - P ( A Ç B) If E is any event which occurs with E1, E2 , E3 ,..., En .
(c) P[( A Ç B ) È ( A Ç B)] = P( A) + P(B) - 2P ( A Ç B) Then, P(E ) = P(E1 )× P(E / E1 ) + P(E2 )× P(E / E2 )
(d) P ( A Ç B ) = 1 - P ( A È B) + P(E3 )× P(E / E3 ) + ... + P(En )× P(E / En )
(e) P( A È B ) = 1 - P ( A Ç B) n
æEö
(f) P( A) = P ( A Ç B) + P ( A Ç B ) or P(E ) = å P (Ei )× P ç ÷
i =1 è Ei ø
(g) P(B) = P ( A Ç B) + P (B Ç A )
15. Baye’s Theorem Note If xi is one of the possible values of a random variable X,
the statement X = x i is true only at some point(s) of the
Let S be the sample space and E1, E2 ,..., En be n mutually sample space. Hence, the probability that X takes value
exclusive and exhaustive events associated with a random x i is always non-zero, i.e. P (X = x i ) ¹ 0.
experiment.
If A is any event which occurs with E1, E2 ,..., En , then
18. Mean and Variance of a Random Variable
n
probability of occurrence of Ei, when A occurred, Mean of a random variable is å xi × pi. It is also called
P(E ) P( A / Ei ) i =1
P(Ei / A) = n i ; i = 1, 2,..., n n
å i
P ( E ) P( A / E i ) expectation of X, i.e. E( X ) = å x i × pi.
i =1 i =1
2
n æ n ö
16. Random Variable Variance is given by V ( X ) = å x i2 × pi - çç å x i × pi ÷÷
A random variable is a real valued function, whose domain is i =1 è i =1 ø
the sample space of a random experiment. Generally, it is or V ( X ) = E( X 2 ) - [E( X )]2
denoted by capital letter X. n
where, E( X 2 ) = å x i2 × p(x i )
17. Probability Distribution of a Random Variable i =1
The system in which the value of a random variable are

given along with their corresponding probability is called
19. Standard Deviation
probability distribution. Standard deviation of the probability distribution is the
If X is a random variable and takes the value square root of variance, which is represented by s and it
x1, x 2 , x 3 ,..., x n with respective probabilities p1, p2 , p3 ,..., pn . is given by
Then, the probability distribution of X is represented by n
X x1 x2 x3 ... xn
s = Variance = å (xi - m )2 p (xi )
i =1
P (X ) p1 p2 p3 ... pn
2
or E ( X - m)
where, pi > 0 such that Spi = 1; i = 1, 2, 3, ¼, n
Practice Questions
1. Let E and F be events associated with a sample space S of an 5. Let A and B be two events. If P ( A ) = 0.2, P (B ) = 0.4 and
E¢ P ( A È B ) = 0.6, then P ( A / B ) is equal to
experiment, such that P æç ö÷ = 1. Then, P æç ö÷ is equal to
S
èF ø èF ø (a) 0.8 (b) 0.5
æE ö æE ö (c) 0.3 (d) 0
(a) 1 - P ç ÷ (b) P ç ÷
èF ø èF ø 3 2 3
æF ö 6. If P ( A ) = , P (B ) = and P ( A È B ) = , then P (B / A ) + P ( A / B )
(c) 1 - P ç ÷ (d) None of these 10 5 5
èE ø is equal to
1 1 5 7
7 9 4 (a) (b) (c) (d)
2. If P ( A ) = , P (B ) = and P ( A Ç B ) = , then P ( A / B )is equal 4 3 12 12
13 13 13
to 3
7. Given that A and B are two events such that P (B ) = ,
2 4 5 1 5
(a) (b) (c) (d)
and P ( A È B ) = , then P æç ö÷ is equal to
9 9 9 9 1 4 B
P( A / B ) =
2 5 è A¢ ø
3. If P (B ) = 0.5 and P ( A Ç B ) = 0.32, then P ( A / B ) is equal to 1 2 3 2
15 16 16 16 (a) (b) (c) (d)
(a) (b) (c) (d) 5 5 5 3
23 25 27 23
8. Two dice are thrown. If it is known that the sum of numbers
4. 10% of the bulbs produced in a factory are of red colour and on the dice was less than 6, the probability of getting a sum 3,
2% are red and defective. If one bulb is picked up at random, is
the probability of its being defective, if it is red, is 1 5 1 2
1 1 1 1 (a) (b) (c) (d)
(a) (b) (c) (d) 18 18 5 5
5 3 7 2
Mathematics 105
9. In a college, 30% students fail in Physics, 25% fail in 16. The probability that A speaks truth is 4/5 while this
Mathematics and 10% fail in both. One student is chosen at probability for B is 3/4. The probability that they contradict
random. The probability that she fails in Physics, if she has each other when asked to speak on a fact, is
failed in Mathematics, is 3 1 7 4
(a) (b) (c) (d)
1 2 9 1 20 5 20 5
(a) (b) (c) (d)
10 5 20 3
17. If E1 , E2 , …, E n are n non empty events which constitute a
10. A signal which can be green or red with probability 4/ 5 and partition of sample space S, i.e. E1 , E2 , …, E n are pairwise
1/5 respectively, is received by station A and then transmitted disjoint and E1 È E2 È K È E n = S and A is any event of
to station B. The probability of each station receiving the non-zero probability, then P (E i / A ) is equal to …K… . Here, K
signal correctly is 3/4. If the signal received at station B is refers to
given, then the probability that the original signal is green, is P (E i )P (A /E i )
(a) for any i = 1, 2, 3, …, n
3 6 20 9 n
(a)
5
(b)
7
(c)
23
(d)
20 å P (E j )P (A /E j )
j =1
11. If three mutually independent events are A, B and C, then P (E i )P (E i /A)
(b) n
for any i = 1, 2, 3, …, n
P (A Ç B ) = P (A) × P (B ), P (A Ç C ) = P (A) × P (C )
(a)
å P (E j )P (A /E j )
(b) P (B Ç C ) = P (B ) × P (C ) j =1
(c) P (A Ç B Ç C ) = P (A) × P (B ) × P (C ) P (E i )P (E i /A)
(c)
(d) All of the above P (A)
12. A box of oranges is inspected by examining three randomly (d) None of the above
selected oranges drawn without replacement. If all the three
18. In a factory which manufactures bolts, machines A, B and C
oranges are good, the box is approved for sale, otherwise, it is
manufacture respectively, 25%, 35% and 40% of the bolts. Of
rejected. Then, the probability that a box containing
their outputs, 5, 4 and 2 per cent are respectively defective
15 oranges out of which 12 are good and 3 are bad ones will be
bolts. A bolt is drawn at random from the product and is
approved for sale, is
found to be defective. Then, the probability that it is
44 40 41 42
(a) (b) (c) (d) manufactured by the machine B is …K… . Here, K refers to
91 49 91 91 28 27 28 27
(a) (b) (c) (d)
13. Probability of solving specific problem independently by A 69 68 71 64
1 1
and B are and , respectively. If both try to solve the problem
2 3 19. Of the students in a college, it is known that 60% reside in
independently, then the probabilities that hostel and 40% are day scholars (not residing in hostel).
Previous year results report that 30% of all students who
(i) the problem is solved reside in hostel attain A grade and 20% of day scholars attain
(ii) exactly one of them solve the problem are respectively A grade in their annual examination. At the end of the year,
1 2 2 1 1 1 1 2 one student is chosen at random from the college and he has
(a) , (b) , (c) , (d) ,
3 3 3 2 5 3 2 3 an A grade. Then, the probability that the student is a hostlier
is
14. One card is drawn at random from a well-shuffled deck of 52 9 1 3 2
cards. (a) (b) (c) (d)
13 13 13 13
(i) E : ‘the card drawn is a spade’
F : ‘the card drawn is an ace’ 20. Suppose that 6% of the people with blood group O are left
handed and 10% of those with other blood groups are left
(ii) E : ‘the card drawn is black’
handed. 30% of the people have blood group O. If a left
F : ‘the card drawn is a king’
handed person is selected at random, then the probability
(iii) E : ‘the card drawn is a king or queen’ that he/she will have blood group O is
F : ‘the card drawn is a queen or jack’ 9 5 3 1
(a) (b) (c) (d)
Which of the following option is correct? 44 44 44 44
(a) In (i) E and F are independent 21. An urn contains m white and n black balls. A ball is drawn at
(b) In (ii) E and F are independent random and is put back into the urn along with k additional
(c) In (iii) E and F are not independent balls of the same colour as that of the ball drawn. A ball is
(d) All of the above again drawn at random. Then, the probability of drawing a
white ball now, is
15. Three persons A, B and C fire at a target in turn, starting with km (m - n )
A. Their probability of hitting the target are 0.4, 0.3 and 0.2 (a) (b)
n k (m + 1)
respectively. The probability of two hits is km
(a) 0.024 (b) 0.188 (c) 0.336 (d) 0.452 (c) (d) independent of k
m + n
22. By examining the chest X-ray, the probability that TB is Column I Column II
detected when a person is actually suffering is 0.99. The A. The value of k 1. 14
probability of an healthy person diagnosed to have TB is 15
0.001. In a certain city, 1 in 1000 people suffers from TB. A B. P( X £ 2 ) 2. 1
person is selected at random and is diagnosed to have TB.
Then, the probability that he actually has TB is …K… . Here, K C. P( X £ 2 ) + P( X > 2 ) 3. 8
refers to 15
110 2
(a) (b) Codes
221 223
110 1 ABC ABC
(c) (d)
223 221 (a) 3 1 2 (b) 1 2 3
(c) 3 2 1 (d) 2 1 3
23. A description giving the values of the random variable along
with the corresponding probabilities is called …K… of the 26. For the following probability distribution, the standard
random variable X. Here, K refers to deviation of the random variable X is
(a) conditional probability X 2 3 4
(b) probability distribution
P( X ) 0.2 0.5 0.3
(c) mean
(d) None of the above (a) 0.5 (b) 0.6 (c) 0.61 (d) 0.7
24. In a meeting, 70% of the members favour and 30% oppose a 27. The sample space for three Bernoulli trial getting success and
certain proposal. A member is selected at random and we take failure respectively in each trial
X = 0if he opposed and X = 1if he is in favour. Then, E( X )and (a) {SSS , FFF, SSF}
Var( X ) are respectively (b) {FFF, FSS , FFF}
3 5 13 2
(a) , (b) , (c) {SSS , SSF, SFS , FSS , SFF, FSF, FFS , FFF}
7 17 15 15
7 21 7 23 (d) None of the above
(c) , (d) ,
10 100 10 100 28. Ten eggs are drawn successively with replacement from a lot
containing 10% defective eggs. Then, the probability that
25. The probability distribution of a random variable X is given there is atleast one defective egg, is
below. 710 710 910 910
(a) 1 - (b) 1 + (c) 1 + (d) 1 -
X 0 1 2 3 1010 1010 1010 1010
P( X ) k k k k
29. In a game, a man wins a rupee for a six and loses a rupee for
2 4 8
any other number when a fair die is thrown. The man decided
to throw a die thrice but to quit as and when he gets a six.
Then, match the terms column I with their respective values
Then, the expected value of the amount he wins/loses, is
in column II and choose the correct option from the codes 11 5 3 7
given below. (a) (b) (c) (d)
216 216 216 216
Solutions
P( A Ç B)
P æç ö÷ =
B
1. (a) We know, 3. (b) It is given that P (B) = 0.5 and \
èAø P( A)
P æç ö÷ = 1
S P ( A Ç B) = 0.32
èF ø 1
P ( A Ç B)
\ P æç ö÷ =
A 50 10 1
(E È E ¢) = = =
Þ P =1 [QS = E È E¢] èB ø P (B) 1 50 5
F
10
E¢ 0.32 32 16
Þ P æç ö÷ + P æç ö÷ = 1
E = = =
èF ø èF ø 0.5 50 25 5. (d) From the given data,
[Q E and E ¢ are disjoint events] 4. (a) Let A and B be the events that the P ( A) + P (B) = P( A È B)
E¢
P æç ö÷ = 1 - P æç ö÷
E bulb is red and defective, respectively. This shows that P( A Ç B) = 0
Thus,
èF ø èF ø
10 1 [QP( A Ç B) = P( A È B) - P( A) - P(B)]
Then, P( A) = =
2. (b) We have, 100 10 P( A Ç B)
P( A Ç B) 4 / 13 4 2 1 Thus, P( A / B) = =0
P æç ö÷ =
A and P ( A Ç B) = = P(B)
= =
èB ø P(B) 9 / 13 9 100 50
Mathematics 107
3 5 4 1
6. (d) Given that, P( A) = 8. (c) When two dice are thrown, then the \ P(BG Ç G ) = ´ =
10 8 5 2
number of events in the sample space
2 =36 éQ P(BG Ç G ) ù
P(B) = ê ú
5 Let A : sum of the numbers on the dice æ B ö
ê = P ç G ÷ ´ P(G ) ú
3 was less than 6 êë èG ø úû
and P ( A ÈB) =
5 and B : getting a sum equals to 3. P(BG Ç G )
Now, P(G /BG ) =
Now, P( A È B) = P( A) + P(B) - P( A Ç B) Then, A = {(1, 1,
) (1, 2), (1, 3), (1, 4), (2,1) P(BG )
3 3 2 1 80 20
Þ = + - P( A ÇB) (2 , 2), (2 , 3), (3, 1,
) (3, 2), ( 4 , 1}
) = ´ =
5 10 5 2 46 23
B = {(1, 2), (2 , 1}
)
3 2 3
Þ P( A ÇB) = + - and A Ç B = {(1, 2), (2 , 1}
)
10 5 5 11. (d) Three events A, B and C are said to
3+ 4 -6 7 -6 1 2 1
= = = \ P( A Ç B) = = be mutually independent, if
10 10 10 36 18
P( A Ç B) = P( A) P(B)
10 5
æ B ö P( A Ç B) P( A) = = P( A Ç C ) = P( A) P(C )
\ Pç ÷ = 36 18
èAø P( A)
1 P(B Ç C ) = P(B) P(C )
1 B ö P( A Ç B) 18 1
æ
Now, P ç ÷ = = = and P( A Ç B Ç C ) = P( A) P(B) P(C )
10 1
= 10 = = èAø P( A) 5 5
3 3 ´ 10 3 If atleast one of the above is not true for
18 three given events, we say that the
10
1 events are not independent.
9. (b) Let A : the student fails in Physics
æ A ö P( A Ç B) 10 1
Pç ÷ = = = and B : the student fails in 12. (a) Let A, B and C be the respective
èB ø P(B) 2 4
Mathematics. events that the first, second and third
5
30 drawn orange is good.
æ Bö æ Aö 1 1 \ P( A) =
Þ Pç ÷ + Pç ÷ = + 100 Therefore, probability that first drawn
èAø èB ø 3 4
25 orange is good,
4+3 7 P(B) =
= = 100 12
12 12 P ( A) =
10 15
and P( A Ç B) =
100 Therefore,probability of getting second
7. (c) Given that
P( A Ç B)
Now, P æç ö÷ =
A orange is good,
P(B) = , P æç ö÷ =
3 A 1
èB ø P(B) 11
5 èB ø 2 P (B) =
10 14
4
and P( A È B) =
5 = 100 [Qthe oranges are
25 not replaced so number of good
æ A ö P( A Ç B) oranges left is 11]
Q Pç ÷= 100
èB ø P(B)
10 100 10 2 Similarly, probability of getting third
1 P( A Ç B) = ´ = = orange is good,
\ = 100 25 25 5
2 3 10
P (C ) =
5 13
10. (c) From the tree diagram, it follows
3
Þ P( A Ç B) = that [Qthe oranges are not replaced so
10 number of good oranges left is 10]
S
Q P( A È B) = P( A) + P(B) - P( A Ç B) 4 1 The box is approved for sale if all the
4 3 3 5 5 three oranges are good.
\ = P( A) + -
5 5 10 G R Thus, probability of getting all the three
1 3 1 3 1 12 11 10
Þ P( A) = 4 4 4 4 oranges good = ´ ´
2 15 14 13
æ B ö P(B Ç A ¢) AG AR AR AG
Now, P ç ÷ = Therefore, the probability that the box
è A¢ ø P( A ¢) 3 1 3 1 1 3 1 3 44
4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 is approved for sale =
P(B) - P( A Ç B) 91
= BG BR BG BR BG
1 - P( A)
13. (b) Probability of solving the problem
46 4
3 3
-
3 P(BG ) = , P(G ) = 1
by A i.e. P ( A) =
3 80 5
= 5 10 = 10 = 2
1 1 5 10 5
1- P(BG / G ) = = Probability of solving the problem by B,
2 2 16 8 1
i.e. P (B) =
3
Probability of not solving the problem and P (F) = P (card drawn is a king)
1 1 16. (c) Given probabilities of speaking
by A = P ( A ¢) =1 - P ( A) = 1 - = n(F) 4 1
= = = truth are
2 2 n( S) 52 13 4
and probability of not solving the P( A) =
Also, E Ç F : card drawn is a black king 5
problem by B = P (B ¢) = 1 - P(B)
n(E ÇF ) 3
1 2 ÞP (E Ç F) = and P(B) =
=1- = n( S) 4
3 3
2 1 and their corresponding probabilities
I. P (the problem is solved) = 1 - P = =
(none of them solve the problem) 52 26 of not speaking truth are
1
= 1 - P ( A ¢ Ç B ¢) = 1 - P ( A ¢) P (B ¢) Now, P( A) =
1 1 1 5
[QA and B are independent Þ A ¢ P(E) ´ P(F) = ´ = = P (E Ç F) 1
and B ¢are independent] 2 13 26 and P(B) =
4
æ 1 2ö 1 2 Þ P(E Ç F) = P(E)P(F)
=1- ç ´ ÷ =1- = \ Required probability
è2 3 ø 3 3 Therefore, the events E and F are
independent. = P( A) ´ P(B ) + P( A) ´ P(B)
II. P (exactly one of them solve the
4 1 1 3
problem) (iii) In a deck of 52 cards, 4 cards are = ´ + ´
kings, 4 cards are queens and 4 cards 5 4 5 4
= P ( A) P(B ¢) + P ( A ¢) P(B)
are jacks. 1 3 7
1 2 1 1 1 1 = + =
= ´ + ´ = + P(E) = P (card drawn is a king or a 5 20 20
2 3 2 3 3 6
queen)
2 +1 3 1
= = = 4 4 17. (a) By formula of conditional
6 6 2 = P (king) + P (queen) = +
52 52 probability, we know that
8 2 P( A Ç Ei )
14. (d) (i) In a deck of 52 cards, 13 cards are = = P(Ei / A) =
spades and 4 cards are aces. 52 13 P( A)
Given, E:the card drawn is a spade and P (F) = P (cards drawn is a queen P(Ei )P( A /Ei )
=
Þ n(E) =13 or a jack) P( A)
4 4 [by multiplication rule of probability]
and F:the card drawn is an ace = P (queen) + P (jack) = +
52 52 P(E )P( A /Ei )
Þ n(F) = 4 and n( S) = 52 8 2 = n i
= =
Here, P (E) = P (card drawn is spade) 52 13 åP(Ej )P( A /Ej )
n(E) 13 1 j =1
= = = Also, E Ç F : card drawn is a queen
n( S) 52 4 4 1 [by the result of theorem of total
Þ P(E Ç F) = = probability]
P (F) = P (card drawn is an ace) 52 13
n(F) 4 1 2 2 Note The following terminology is
= = = Now, P (E) ´ P (F) = ´
n( S) 52 13 13 13 generally used when Bayes’ theorem is
applied.
Also, E Ç F : the deck of cards, only 4
= ¹ P (E Ç F) The events E1, E2, …, En are called
1 card is an ace ofspades. 169
hypothesis.
n(E ÇF) 1 Þ P (E Ç F) ¹ P(E) P(F)
Þ P (E Ç F) = = The probability P(Ei ) is called the priori
n( S) 52
Therefore, the events E and F are not probability of the hypothesis Ei .
Now, independent.
The conditional probability P(Ei / A) is
1 1 1
P (E) ´ P (F) = ´ = = P (E Ç F) called a posteriori probability of the
4 13 52 15. (b) Given that
hypothesis Ei .
Therefore, the events E and F are P( A) = 0.4 , P(B) = 03
. , and P(C ) = 0.2
independent. \ P( A) = 1 - P( A) = 1 - 0.4 = 06
. 18. (a) Let events B1, B2 and B3 be the
(ii) In a deck of 52 cards, 26 cards are P(B ) = 1 - P(B) = 1 - 03
. = 07
. following
black and 4 cardsare kings. P(C ) = 1 - P(C ) = 1 - 0.2 = 08
. B1 : the bolt is manufactured by
Given, E : the card drawn is black machine A
Now, P (two hits)
Þ n(E) =26 B2 : the bolt is manufactured by
F : the card drawn is king = P( A) P(B) P(C ) + P( A) P(B ) P(C ) machine B
Þ n(F) = 4 + P( A) P(B) P(C ) B3 : the bolt is manufactured by
Also, n( S) = 52 = 0.4 ´ 03
. ´ 08
. + 0.4 ´ 07
. ´ 0.2 machine C
P (E) = P (card drawn is black) + 06
. ´ 03
. ´ 0.2 Clearly, B1, B2 and B3 are mutually
n(E) 26 1 exclusive and exhaustive events and
= = = = 0.096 + 0.056 + 0.036 hence, they represent a partition of the
n( S) 52 2 = 0188
. sample space.
Mathematics 109
Let the event E be ‘the bolt is Let E : the people is left handed. The required probability is given by
defective’. 30
P( A) ´ P æç ö÷
P( A) = E
The event E occurs with B1 or with B2 or 100 æ Aö èAø
Pç ÷=
with B3 . 70 6 10 èE ø
P( A) ´ P æç ö÷ + P(B) ´ P æç ö÷
P(B) = , P(E / A) = , P(E /B) = E E
Given that P(B1) = 25% = 0. 25, 100 100 100 èAø èB ø
P(B2) = 035
. Now, using Bayes’ theorem 1
´ 099
.
and P(B3 ) = 0.40 P( A) ´ P(E / A) = 1000
P( A /E) = 1 999
Again, P(E /B1) = Probability that the bolt P( A) ´ P(E / A) + P(B) ´ P(E /E) ´ 099
. + ´ 0.001
1000 1000
drawn is defective given that it is 30 6
´ 099
.
manufactured by machine A = 100 100 =
30 6 70 10 . + 0.001 ´ .999
099
= 5% = 0.05 ´ + ´
100 100 100 100 099
.
=
Similarly, P(E /B2) = 0.04, P(E /B3 ) = 0.02 180 . + 0999
099 .
Hence, by Bayes’ theorem, we have 10000 180 9 990 990 110
= = = = = =
P(B2) P(E /B2) 180 700 880 44 990 + 999 1989 221
P(B2 /E) = +
P(B1) P(E /B1) + P(B2) 10000 10000
P(E /B2) + P(B3 ) P(E /B3 ) 23. (b) Let us look at the experiment of
21. (d) Let A : the first ball drawn is white. selecting one family out of ten families
0.35 ´ 0.04
= Let B : the first ball drawn is black. f1, f2, …, f10 in such a manner that each
0.25 ´ 0.05 + 0.35
Let E : the second ball drawn is white. family is equally likely to be selected.
´ 0.04 + 0.40 ´ 0.02 Let the families f1, f2, …, f10 have 3, 4, 3,
Number of white ball = m, number of
0.0140 28 black balls = n 2, 5, 4, 3, 6, 4, 5 members,
= =
0.0345 69 Total number of balls = m + n respectively.
m Let us select a family and note down
19. (a) Let E1 : the event that the student is \ P( A) =
m+ n the number of members in the family
residing in hostel denoting X. Clearly, X is random
n
and E2 : the event that the student is P(B) = variable defined as below
not residing in the hostel m+ n
X( f1) = 3, X( f2) = 4,
m+ k
Let E : a student attains A grade, P(E / A ) = X( f3 ) = 3, X( f4 ) = 2, X( f5 ) = 5,
m+ n+ k
Then, E1 and E2 are mutually exclusive X( f6 ) = 4, X( f7 ) = 3, X( f8 ) = 6,
and exhaustive. Moreover, m
P(E /B) = X( f9 ) = 4, X( f10 ) = 5
60 3 m+ n+ k
P (E1) = 60% = = Thus, X can take any value 2, 3, 4, 5 or
100 5 Now, P(E) = P( A) ´ P(E / A) + P(B) ´ P(E /B) 6 depending upon which family is
40 2 m m+ k selected.
and P (E2) = 40% = = = ´
100 5 m+ n m+ n+ k Now, X will take the value 2 when the
æE ö 30 3 n m family f4 is selected. X can take the
Then, P ç ÷ = 30% = = + ´
è E1 ø 100 10 value 3 when anyone of the families f1,
m+ n m+ n+ k
f3 , f7 is selected.
æEö 20 2 m( m + k) + mn
and P ç ÷ = 20% = = = Similarly, X = 4, when family f2, f6 or f9
è E2 ø 100 10 ( m + n)( m + n + k) is selected.
By using Bayes’ theorem, we get m( m + k + n) m X = 5, when family f5 or f10 is selected.
= =
( m + n)( m + n + k) m + n and X = 6, when family f8 is selected.
æE ö
P ç ÷ P(E1)
æ E1 ö è E1 ø which is independent of k. Since, we had assumed that each
Pç ÷= family is equally likely to be selected.
èE ø æE ö æEö \ The probability of drawing a white
P ç ÷ P(E1) + P ç ÷ P(E2) ball now does not depend on k. The probability that family f4 is
è E1 ø è E2 ø 1
selected is .
3 3 22. (a) Let A denote the event that the 10
´
= 10 5 person has TB. Thus, the probability that X can take
3 3 2 2 1
´ + ´ Let B denote the event that the person the value 2, is . We write
10 5 10 5 has not TB. 10
9 9 1
= = Let E denote the event that the person P( X = 2) =
9 + 4 13 is diagonsed to have TB. 10
20. (a) Let A : the people has blood 1 999 Also, the probability that any one of
\ P( A) = , P(B) =
group O. 1000 1000 the families f1, f3 or f7 is selected, is
3
P æç ö÷ = 099
. , P æç ö÷ = 0.001
Let B : the people has blood group E E P({f1 , f3 , f7 }) =
other than O èAø èB ø 10
Thus, the probability that X can take 8

\ k= 28. (d) Let X denote the number of
3 15
the value 3 = defective eggs in the 10 eggs drawn.
10 Now, Since, the drawing is done with
3 P( X £ 2) = P( X = 0) + P( X = 1) + P( X = 2) replacement, the trials are Bernoulli
We write P( X = 3) =
10 k k trials.Clearly, X has the binomial
=k+ +
Similarly, we get 2 4 distribution with n = 10 and
3 4k + 2k + k 10 1
P( X = 4) = P({f2 , f6 , f9 }) = = p= =
10 4 100 10
2 7k 7 8 14 9
P( X = 5) = P({f5 , f10 }) = = = ´ = Therefore, q = 1 - p =
10 4 4 15 15 10
1
and P( X = 6) = P({f8 }) = P( X > 2) = P( X = 3) Now, P(atleast one defective egg)
10 k 8 1
= = = = P ( X ³ 1) = 1 - P( X = 0)
Such a description giving the values of 8 8 ´ 15 15 10
C 0 æç ö÷
10 9
the random variable alongwith the 14 1 15 =1-
corresponding probabilities is called the P( X £ 2) + P( X > 2) =
\ + = =1 è10 ø
15 15 15
probability distribution of the random 910
variable X. =1-
A.
8
k= 1010
24. (c) It is given that 15
14 29. (a) In a throw of a die, the probability of
30 3 B. P( X £ 2) = 1
P( X = 0) = 30% = = 15 getting a six is and the probability of
100 10 6
70 7 C. P( X < 2) + P( X > 2) = 1 5
P( X = 1) = 70% = = not getting a 6 is .
100 10 6
26. (d) Given that
Therefore, the probability distribution Three cases can occur.
is as follows X Case I If he gets a six in the first throw,
2 3 4
0 1
1
X then the required probability is .
P( X ) 6
P( X ) 3 7 0.2 0.5 0.3
10 10 Amount he will receive = ` 1
X P( X ) XP( X ) X 2 P( X ) Case II If he does not get a six in the
\ Mean of X = E( X) = SXP( X)
2 0.2 0.4 0.8 first throw and gets a six in the second
3 7 7
= 0´ + 1´ = throw, then probability
10 10 10 3 0.5 1.5 4.5
= æç ´ ö÷ =
5 1 5
Variance of X = S X 2 P( X) – (Mean) 2 4 0.3 1.2 4.8 è 6 6 ø 36
2
3 7 æ7 ö Amount he will receive = - ` 1 + `1 = 0
= 0 ´ + 12 ´
2
-ç ÷ SXP( X ) = 31
. 2
SX P( X ) = 101
.
10 10 è10 ø
Case III If he does not get a six in the
7 49 21 first two throws and gets a six in the
= - =
10 100 100 m = S ´ P( X) = 31
. third throw, then probability
var X = SX 2P( X) - m 2 = æç ´ ´ ö÷ =
5 5 1 25
25. (a) Given that = 101 . )2
. - (31 è 6 6 6 ø 216
X = 101
. - 9.61 = 0.49 Amount he will receive
0 1 2 3
= - ` 1 – `1 + `1 = - `1
P( X ) k k k k \ Standard deviation = V( X) Expected value he can win
2 4 8 = 0.49 = 07
. é 5 2 1ù
= (1) + æç ´ ö÷ ( 0) + ê æç ö÷ ´ ú ( -1)
1 5 1
SP( X) = 1 6 è6 6 ø êë è 6 ø 6 úû
Q 27. (c) Let us take the experiment made up
k k k of three Bernoulli trials with 1 25
Þ k + + + =1 = -
2 4 8 probabilities p and q = 1 - p for success 6 216
8k + 4k + 2k + k and failure respectively in each trial. The 36 - 25
Þ =1 sample space of the experiment is the =
8 216
set
15k 11
Þ =1 S = {SSS, SSF, SFS, FSS,SFF FSF, FFS, FFF} =
8 216
PRACTICE SET 01 111
CUET (UG) Section II : Domain (Mathematics)
Practice Set 01
1. The two objects or quantities are 8. Which of the following is/are true? 13. Determinant of a matrix of order 3
related, if there is a recognisable −1 1 can be determined by expressing it
(a) sin = cosec−1 x, x ≥ 1 or x ≤ − 1
connection or link between the two x in terms of …A… order
objects or quantities. Such concept 1 determinants. This is known as
is known as (b) cos−1 = sec−1 x, x ≥ 1 or x ≤ − 1 expansion of a determinant along a
x
(a) function (b) relation 1 row (or column). Here, A refers to
(c) sets (d) None of these (c) tan −1 = cot −1 x, x > 0 (a) first (b) second
x
(c) third (d) None of these
2. A relation in a set A is a subset of (d) All of the above
(a) A × A (b) A 2 2 1 1
9. A matrix is said to be a column 14. If A =   and B = 2 0, then
(c) A ⋅ A (d) None of these 4 0   
matrix, if it has only
3. The set E of even integers and O of (a) two columns (a) | A | = | B | (b) | A | = 2| B |
odd integers are called equivalence (c) | A | = 22 | B | (d) | A | = − | B |
(b) one column
classes containing respectively (c) three columns 15. If any two rows (or columns) of a
(a) one and zero (b) zero and one (d) None of the above determinant are identical (all
(c) zero (d) one corresponding elements are same),
10. A matrix in which the number of
4. If R = {( x, y) : x is exactly 7cm taller then the value of determinant is
rows are ...A... the number of (a)1 (b) −1 (c) 0 (d) 2
than y}, then R is columns, is said to be a square
matrix. Thus, an m × n matrix is 16. If x, y ∈ R, then the determinant
(a) not symmetric
(b) reflexive said to be a square matrix if ...B... cos x − sin x 1
(c) symmetric but not transitive and is known as a matrix of order sin x cos x 1 lies in
(d) an equivalence relation n. Here, A and B are respectively cos( x + y) − sin( x + y) 0
−1 (a) greater than and m > n
5. The principal value branch of cos the interval
(b) less than and m < n (a) [− 2 , 2 ] (b) [−1, 1]
function is
−π π π (c) equal to and m > n (c) [− 2 , 1] (d) [−1, − 2 ]
(a)  , (b)  0,  (d) equal to and m = n
 2 2   2 
17. The function
(c) [− π , π ] (d) [0, π] 11. The identity matrix of order n is
| x | + 3, if x ≤ − 3
denoted by 
6. sec function (secant function) is not f ( x ) = − 2 x , if − 3 < x < 3 is
(a) I n (b) nI
defined for 6x + 2, if x ≥ 3
(a) even multiple of
π (c) I n (d) n I 
2 12. The sum of two matrices is a continuous at x = ...A... and
π matrix obtained by ... A... the discontinuous at x = ...B... . Here, A
(b) odd multiple of
2 corresponding elements of the and B refer to
(c) even multiple of π given matrices. Furthermore, the (a) −3 , 3 (b) 3 , −3 (c) 3 , 0 (d) 0 , 3
(d) odd multiple of π two matrices have to be of the ... B... 18. The function f ( x ) = x 2 − sin x + 5,
14π 
−1  order. Here, A and B are
7. The value of cos cos  is ..A.. then
 3  respectively
(a) f (x) is continuous at all points
Here, A refers to (a) subtracting, different
(b) f (x) is discontinuous at x = π
2π −π (b) adding, different π
(a) (b) (c) It is discontinuous x =
3 3 (c) subtracting, same
2
π (d) adding, same
(c) (d) None of these (d) None of the above
6
112 CUET (UG) Section III : Domain (Mathematics)
sin 2x + A sin x + B cos x (a) 20 y − x + 7 = 0 3 a2 8 a2

19. If f ( x ) = is (a) sq units (b) sq units
x 3 (b) 20 y + x − 7 = 0 8m 2
3 m2
continuous at x = 0, then the value (c) 10 y − x + 14 = 0 8 a2 3 a2
of A, B and f (0) are (d) 15 y + x − 14 = 0 (c) 3
sq units (d) sq units
3m 8 m3
(a) A = − 2, B = 0, and f (0) = − 1 26. The approximate change in the
(b) A = 0, B = − 2, and f (0) = 1 volume V of a cube of side x m 33. Area bounded by the curve y = x 3,
(c) A = 1, B = − 1, and f (0) = 1 caused by increasing the side by 1% the X-axis and the coordinates
(d) None of the above is x = − 2 and x = 1 is
(a) 10.03 x3 m3 (b) 0.03 x3 m3 −15
20. If a function f is differentiable at c, (a) −9 sq units (b) sq units
then it is (c) 2.03 x3 m3 (d) None of these 4
15 17
(a) discontinuous at c (c) sq units (d) sq units
27. When a polynomial function P is 4 4
(b) continuous at c differentiated and integrated the
(c) not defined at c result is a polynomial whose degree 34. Area enclosed by the curve
(d) None of the above is one ...x... and one ... y... than the π[4( x − 2 )2 + y2 ] = 8 is
21. The differential coefficient of the degree of P respectively. Here, x (a) π sq units (b) 2 sq units
implicit function ax + by2 = cos y is and y are respectively (c) 3π sq units (d) 4 sq units
...A... and of xy + y2 = tan x + y is (a) more; less (b) more; more
35. The degree of the equation
...B... . Here, A and B refer to (c) less; more (d) less; less
d2 y  dy 
  sec 2x − y ex + sin   = 3 is
(a) 
−a
,
28. ∫ sin( ax + b)cos( ax + b) equal to dx 2  dx 
 2by + sin y  x + 2 y − 1 sin(ax + b) (a) 2 (b) 0
(a) +C
2a (c) not defined (d) 1
sec2x − y  −a  [sin (ax + b)]2
(b) ,  (b) +C 36. The order and degree of the
x + 2 y + 1  2by + sin y  2a differential equation
sec2 x − y a [sin (ax + b)]2
sin x ⋅ ( dx + dy) = cos x ⋅ ( dx − dy)
(c) , (c) +C
x + 2 y + 1 2by + sin y 2 are respectively
(d) None of the above (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 2
x (c) 1 and 1 (d) 2 and 1
22. The set of points, where the 29. ∫ a3 − x3
dx equal to
37. The function y = a 2 − x 2 ,
function f given by
f ( x ) = |2x − 1|sin x is differentiable, (a)
1
sin −1
3
x
+C
x ∈ ( − a, a ) is the solution of the
is 3 a3 differential equation
(b) R −  
1 dy
(a) R 2 x3 (a) x + y = 0 ( y ≠ 0)
 2 (b) sin −1 +C dx
3 a3 dy
(c) (0 , ∞ ) (d) None of these (b) y + x = 0 (x ≠ 0)
2 x
(c) sin −1 +C dx
23. The total revenue in ` received from 3 a dy
(c) x − y = 0 ( y ≠ 0)
the sale of x units of a product is (d) None of the above dx
given by dy
30. Integral value of the type (d) y − x = 0 (x ≠ 0)
R( x ) = 3 x 2 + 36x + 5 dx
∫e [ f ( x ) + f ' ( x )] dx can be
x
The marginal revenue when x = 15, 38. The differential equation of a circle
written as
is x 2 + y 2 + 2x − 4y + 4 = 0 is
(a) ` 116 (b) ` 96 (a) e f ' (x ) + C
x
dy x + 1
(b) ex [f (x) + f ' (x)] + C (a) = , ( y ≠ − 2)
(c) ` 90 (d) ` 126 dx y + 2
(c) ex [f (x) f ' (x)] + C
dy x − 1
24. The radius of a cylinder is (d) ex f (x) + C (b) = , ( y ≠ 2)
increasing at the rate of 3m/s and dx 2 − y
its altitude is decreasing at the rate 31. The area of the region bounded by dy x + 1
(c) = , ( y ≠ 2)
of 4m/s. The rate of change of the Y-axis, y = cos x and y = sin x, dx 2 − y
π
volume when radius is 4m and 0 ≤ x ≤ is (d) None of the above
altitude is 6m, is 2
39. Which among the following is
(a) 20π m3 /s (b) 40π m3 /s (a) 2 sq units
(b) ( 2 + 1) sq units scalar quantity?
(c) 60π m3 /s (d) None of these
(c) ( 2 − 1) sq units (a) Force (b) Resistance
25. The equation of the tangent to the (c) Momentum (d) Weight
(d) (2 2 − 1) sq units
x−7
curve y = at the point, 32. The area enclosed between the 40. If two vectors a and b represented
( x − 2) ( x − 3 )
parabola y2 = 4ax and the line by two adjacent sides of a
where it cuts the x-axis, is parallelogram in magnitude and
y = mx is
PRACTICE SET 01 113
direction then a + b is represented 44. The angle between the lines in bond A is 8% per annum and on
as through the points bond B is 10% per annum, then to
a maximise the interest, the
(4, 7, 8), (2, 3, 4) and (−1, −2, 1), (1,
2, 5) is investment in bond A and B are
2
π respectively
b 1 b (a) 0 (b)
2 (a) ` 10000 and ` 2000
π π (b) ` 2000 and ` 10000
(c) (d)
a 4 6 (c) ` 6000 and ` 6000
(a) diagonal 1 (as shown) 45. The coordinate of the foot of (d) None of the above
(b) diagonal 2 (as shown) perpendicular drawn from origin to
49. Three cards drawn successively,
(c) sides opposite to either of the side the plane 2x − 3 y + 4 z − 6 = 0 is
without replacement from a pack of
−3
(a) 
(d) None of the above 2 4 
, ,  52 well shuffled cards, then the
 29 29 29 
41. The unit vector in the direction of probability that first two cards are
12 − 18 24 
the sum of the vectors, (b)  , ,  kings and the third card drawn is
a = 2i$ + 2$j − 5k$ and b = 2i$ + $j + 3 k$  29 29 29 
an ace, is
is (c) (12, − 18, 24) 2 1
12 − 18 24  (a) (b)
(a)
4 $
i+
3 $
j−
2 $
k (d)  , ,  5525 5525
29 29 29  29 29 29  2 1
(c) (d)
4 $ 3 $ 2 $ 5527 5527
(b) i− j+ k 46. The vector equation of a plane
29 29 29
which is at a distance of 7 units 50. Suppose that the reliability of a
3 $ 4 $ 2 $
(c) i+ j− k from the origin and normal to the HIV test is specified as follows
29 29 29
vector 3 $i + 5$j − 6k$ is Of people having HIV, 90% of the
(a) r ⋅ (3$i + 5$j − 6k$ ) = 7 test detect the disease but 10% go
42. The values of x and y, so that the 7 undetected. Of people free of HIV,
(b) r ⋅ (3$i + 5$j − 6k$ ) =
vectors 2$i + 3 $j and x $i + y $j are 70 99% of the test are judged HIV−ive
equal, are respectively
(c) r ⋅ 
3 $ 5 $ 6 $ but 1% are diagnosed as showing
i+ j − k  = 7 70
(a) 3, 2 (b) 4, 2  70 70 70  HIV+ive. From a large population
(c) 2, 3 (d) 2, 2  3$i 5$j 6k$  of which only 0.1% have HIV, one
(d) r ⋅  + −  =7
43. The vector and the cartesian  70 70 70  person is selected at random, given
equations of the line that passes the HIV test, and the pathologist
through the origin and (5, −2, 3) are 47. Minimum of Z occurs at reports him/her as HIV+ive. Then
…A… and …B… . Here, A and B (a) (0, 0) (b) (0, 8) the probability that the person
refer to (c) (5, 0) (d) (4, 10) actually has HIV is
(a) r = 5i$ − 2$j + 3 k$ ; 5x = − 2 y = 3z (a) 0.081
48. Anil wants to invest atmost ` 12000
(b) r = λ (5i$ − 2$j + 3k$ ); 5x = − 2 y = 3z in bonds A and B. According to the (b) 0.082
x y z rules, he has to invest atleast (c) 0.084
(c) r = λ (5i$ − 2$j + 3k$ ); = =
5 −2 3 ` 2000 in bond A and atleast ` 4000 (d) 0.083
(d) None of the above in bond B. If the rate of interest
ANSWERS
1. (b) 2. (a) 3. (b) 4. (a) 5. (d) 6. (b) 7. (a) 8. (d) 9. (b) 10. (d)
11. (c) 12. (d) 13. (b) 14. (c) 15. (c) 16. (a) 17. (a) 18. (a) 19. (a) 20. (b)
21. (b) 22. (b) 23. (d) 24. (d) 25. (a) 26. (b) 27. (c) 28. (b) 29. (b) 30. (d)
31. (c) 32. (c) 33. (d) 34. (d) 35. (c) 36. (c) 37. (a) 38. (c) 39. (b) 40. (a)
41. (a) 42. (c) 43. (c) 44. (a) 45. (b) 46. (d) 47. (b) 48. (b) 49. (a) 50. (d)
CUET (UG) Section II : Domain (Mathematics)
Practice Set 02
1. If f : B → A is defined by  1 4
6. The value of cos sin −1 + sec −1 11. The product of two matrices A and
3x + 4  4 3  B is defined, if the number of
f (x) = and g : A → B is
5x − 7 is columns of A is
7x + 4 3 5− 7 (a) greater than the number of rows
defined by g( x ) = , where (a)
5x − 3 16 of B
3  7 3 15 − 7
(b) (b) equal to the number of rows of B
A = R −   and B = R −   and I A 16
 
5 5  3 15 + 7
(c) less than the number of rows of B
is an identity function on A and I B (c) (d) None of the above
16
is identity function on B, then
(d) None of the above 12. The matrix X such that
(a) fog = I A and gof = IA
−1 −1 π 1 2 3  − 7 − 8 − 9
(b) fog = I A and gof = IB 7. If sin x + sin y = , then the
(c) fog = IB and gof = IB 2 X = 6
is
value of cos −1 x + cos −1 y is 4 5 6  2 4
(d) fog = IB and gof = IA
π  1 2  1 − 2
(a) (b) π (a)  (b) 
2. If the function gof is defined and 2  0 
 2 0 2
2π
onto, then (c) 0 (d)  1 2 1 2
(c)   (d) 
2
3
(a) neither f nor g is onto  − 2 0  0 −
(b) f and g both are necessarily onto 8. The value of cos[tan −1{sin(cot−1 x )}]
1 0 4
(c) f must be onto is
13. If ∆ = 3 5 − 1 , then
(d) None of the above 1 x2 + 2
(a) (b) 0 1 2
3. If f : R → R is defined by x2 + 2 x2 + 1
(a) A11 = − 11, A 22 = 2, A31 = 20
f ( x ) = x 2 − 3 x + 2, then f { f ( x )} is x2 + 1 1
(a) x − 6x
4 3
− 10x + 3x
2 (c) (d) (b) M21 = 6, M12 = 6, M31 = 20
x2 + 2 x2 + 1
(b) x4 − 6x3 − 10x2 − 3x (c) A33 = 5, A 21 = 4, A13 = 3
(c) x4 + 6x3 + 10x2 − 3x 9. If the matrices A = [ a ij ], B = [ bij ] (d) M11 = − 11, M22 = 2, M32 = 13
(d) x4 − 6x3 + 10x2 − 3x
and C = [ cij ] are of the same order,
 2 −1 1
4. If * is defined on the set R of all say m × n, satisfy associative law,
then 14. If A = − 1 2 − 1 satisfies the
real numbers by a * b = a 2 + b2 ,  
(a) (A + B ) + C = A + (B + C )  1 − 1 2
then the identity element in R with (b) A+ B=B+C
respect to * is equation A 3 − 6 A 2 + 9 A − 4I = 0,
(c) A+C=B+C then A −1 is
(a) 0 (b) 1 (d) A + B + C = A − B− C
(c) 2 (d) − 1
0 2  0 3a  3 1 − 1  3 1 − 1
5. The value of cos(tan −1 x ) is 10. If A =   and kA =  , 1
3 − 4 2b 24  (a) 1 3 1 (b)  1 3 1
(a) 1 + x2 4   
then the values of k, a, b are  − 1 1 3  − 1 1 3
1 respectively
(b)  3 1 1  3 1 − 1
(a) − 6, − 12, − 18 1
1 3 1
1
1 + x2 (c) (d) −1 3 1
(b) − 6, 4, 9 4  4 
(c) 1 + x2 (c) − 6, − 4, − 9  1 1 3  1 1 3
(d) None of the above (d) − 6, 12, 18
PRACTICE SET 02 115
 3 −1 1 (b)
1 (x − 1) (x − 2) (a) 13, 47 (b) 28, 32
−1
15. If A = − 15 6 − 5 and 2 (x − 3) (x − 4) (x − 5) (c) 12, 48 (d) 15, 45
 
 5 − 2 2  1
−
1
+
1
+
1
+
1  26. If a point on the hypotenuse of a
 
 1 2 − 2  x − 1 x − 2 x − 3 x − 4 x − 5 triangle is at distance a and b from
the sides of triangle, then the
B = − 1 3 0, then ( AB)−1 is (c) −
(x − 1) (x − 2)
  minimum length of the hypotenuse
(x − 3) (x − 4) (x − 5)
 0 − 2 1 is
 1 1 1 1 1   2 2
 9 − 3 5  − + − +  (a)  a3 + b3 
 x − 1 x − 2 x − 3 x − 4 x − 5  
(a)  − 2 1 0  
  (d) None of the above
 1 0 2 3
dy  2 2 2
 9 − 2 1 20. is expressed in terms of ...A... (b)  a3 + b3 
dx  
(b)  − 3 1 0  
  only without directly involving the 3
 5 0 2 main variable ...B... .Here, A and B  1 12
 9 3 5 refer to (c)  a3 + b3 
 
(c)  − 2 1 0 (a) parameter, f (t ) , g (t )  
  (b) f (t ) , g (t ), parameter
 1 0 2 (d) None of the above
(c) parameter, x and y
(d) Does not exist (d) None of the above 27. The value of the integral
−1
cos t t 1 21. If x = log(1 + t 2 ) and y = t − tan −1 t, ∫ x sin x dx is equal to
16. If f ( t ) = 2 sin t t 2 t , then dy (a)
1 2 1
x sin −1 x + x 1 − x2
then is equal to
sin t t t dx 2 4
1
f ( t) (a) e x − 1 (b) t 2 − 1 − sin −1 x + C
lim is equal to x 4
t → 0 t2 e −1 x
(c) (d) e − y 1 2 −1 1
(b) x sin x − x 1 − x 2
(a) 0 (b) − 1 2 2 4
(c) 2 (d) 3 1
 x  − sin −1 x +
x
d2y C
−1 22. If y = log   , then x 3 is 4
17. Let f ( x ) = e , g ( x ) = sin x and
x
 a + bx  dx 2 1 1
h' ( x ) (c) x2 sin −1 x + x 1 − x2
h ( x ) = f [ g ( x )], then is equal equal to 2 4
h (x) 2 2 1
(a)  + x (b)  − y + sin −1 x +
dy dy C
to  dx   dx  4
−1 1 1 2 −1 1
(a) esin x 2 2 (d) x sin x + 1− x 2
(c)  x + y (d)  x − y
(b) dy dy
1 − x2 2 4
 dx   dx  1
1 − sin −1 x + C
(c) sin −1 x (d) 23. x = c is a point of local minima and 4
1 − x2
x+3
∫ ( x + 4 )2 e dx = ..........
the value f ( c ) is local minimum x
dy 28.
18. If y = log 2 [log 2 ( x )], then is value of f , if
dx (a) f ′ (c) = 0 ex ex
equal to (b) f ″ (c) < 0 (a) +C (b) +C
log 2 e log 2 e x+ 3 (x + 4)
(a) (b) (c) f ″ (c) > 0 x
log e x x log x 2 e
(d) Only (a) and (c) are true (c) +C (d) e x
(x + 3) + C
log 2 x log e 2 (x + 4)2
(c) (d) 24. If f be given by f ( x ) = x + 2, 2
log e 2 log 2 x
x ∈(0, 1), then 29. The value of ∫ ( x 2 + 2x + 1) dx is
0
log 2 e
(e) (a) the function f has not a local 26 25
x log e x (a) (b)
maximum value
3 3
( x − 1) ( x − 2) (b) the function f has not a local
19. If y = , then (c)
13
(d)
14
( x − 3 ) ( x − 4) ( x − 5) minimum value
3 3
dy (c) Both (a) and (b) are true 1/ 2
is equal to (d) Both (a) and (b) are false 30. If ∫ cos x
dx − 1/ 2
1 (x − 1) (x − 2) 25. If two positive numbers x and y are  1 + x

(a) log   dx = k log 2, then k is
2 (x − 3) (x − 4) (x − 5) such that x + y = 60 and xy3 is 1 − x
 1 1 1 1 1  maximum, then the numbers x and equal to
 + − − −  y are respectively 1
 x − 1 x − 2 x − 3 x − 4 x − 5 (a) − 2 (b) − 1 (c) 0 (d)
2
31. If the ordinate x = a divides the 38. If y( t ) is a solution of 45. The equation of the line passing
area bounded by the curve dy through (1, 2, 3) and parallel to the
(1 + t ) − ty = 1 and y(0) = − 1,
 8 dt planes r ⋅ ( $i − $j + 2k$ ) = 5 and
y = 1 + 2  , X-axis and the
 x  then y(1) is equal to r ⋅ (3 $i + $j + k$ ) = 6 is
ordinates x = 2, x = 4 into two equal 1 1 (a) r = (i$ + 2$j + 3k$ ) + λ (2i$ + 3$j + 4k$ )
(a) − (b) e +
parts, then the value of a is 2 2 (b) r = (− 3$i + 5$j + 4k$ ) + λ (i$ + 2$j + 3k$ )
(a) 2a (b) 2 2
a (c) e −
1
(d)
1 (c) r = ($i + 2$j + 3 k$ ) + λ (− 3 i$ + 5$j + 4k$ )
(c) (d) None of these 2 2
2 (d) r = λ (− 3 i$ + 5$j + 4k$ )
39. If P$ is the unit vector along the line
32. Area of the region bounded by the 46. The equation of the plane which is
curve y = |x + 1| + 1, x = − 3, x = 3 l, then the projection of a vector a
perpendicular to the plane
and y = 0 is on the line l is given by 5x + 3 y + 6 z + 8 = 0 and which
a $ $
(a) 8 sq units (b) 16 sq units (a) ⋅P (b) a ⋅ P contains the line of intersection of
(c) 32 sq units (d) None of these |a| the planes x + 2 y + 3 z − 4 = 0 and
(c)
1 $
P (d) None of these 2x + y − z + 5 = 0, is
33. Area bounded by the curve y2 = 16x |a|
2 (a) 67x + 23 y − 58z − 213 = 0
and the line y = mx is , then m is 40. If the vertices A, B, C of a ∆ABC (b) 51x + 15 y − 50z + 173 = 0
3
equal to are (1, 2, 3), ( −1, 0, 0), (0, 1, 2) (c) 67x + 23 y − 58z + 213 = 0
(a) 3 (b) 4 respectively, then ∠ABC is equal to (d) 51x − 15 y − 50z − 173 = 0
(c) 1 (d) 2 (∠ABC is the angle between the 47. A manufacturer makes two types of
vectors BA and BC) toys; A and B. Three machines are
34. The area of the region bounded by
(a) cos−1 
10 
(b) cos−1 
10  needed for this purpose and the
the curves y = |x − 1|and = 3 − |x|  
 114   102  time (in minutes) required for each
is
(c) cos−1  
(a) 2 sq units (b) 3 sq units 10 toy on the machines is given below.
(d) None of these
(c) 4 sq units (d) 6 sq units  7
Machines
35. The differential equation 41. If a = $i − $j, b = $j − k$ , c = k$ − i$ and d Types of toys
I II III
representing the family of is a unit vector such that a ⋅ d = 0 =
parabolas having vertex at origin [ b c d ], then d is/are A 12 18 6
and axis along positive direction of $i + $j − k$ $i + $j − 2k$ B 6 0 9
X-axis is (a) ± (b) ±
dy 3 6
(a) y2 + 2 y =0 $i + $j + k$ Each machine is available for a
dx
dy (c) ± (d) ± k$ maximum of 6 h per day. If the
(b) y2 + 2xy =0 3
profit on each toy of type A is ` 7.50
dx
dy 42. If (a + b) ⋅ ( a + b) =|a |2 +|b|2 given and that on each toy of type B is `
(c) y2 − 2xy =0
dx a ≠ 0, b ≠ 0, then 5, then to maximise the profit, the
dy
(d) y2 + 2x =0 (a) a, b are perpendicular number of toys of type A and type
dx (b) a, b are parallel B are respectively
36. The differential equation of all (c) a and b are either parallel or
(a) 15, 13 (b) 30, 15
straight lines touching the circle perpendicular
(c) 15, 30 (d) 13, 15
x 2 + y2 = a 2 is (d) a = 2b
 48. An aeroplane can carry a maximum
 dy  
2 2
(a)  y −
dy  43. The sine of the angle between the
 = a  1 +   
2
of 200 passengers. A profit of `
 dx    
dx  straight line
1000 is made on each executive
 x −2 y−3 z −4
 dy  
2 2
(b)  y − x
dy  = = and the plane class ticket and a profit of ` 600 is
 = a  1 +   
2
 dx   dx   3 4 5 made on each economy class ticket.

2x − 2 y + z = 5 is The airline reserves atleast 20
(c)  y − x  = a2 1 + 
dy dy
   10 4 seats for executive class. However,
 dx   dx  (a) (b)
6 5 5 2 atleast 4 times as many passengers
(d)  y −
dy  2  dy 
 = a 1 −  2 3 2
 dx   dx  (c) (d) prefer to travel by economy class
5 10 than by the executive class. Then,
37. The general solution of the to maximise the profit, number of
44. The angle between the lines whose
differential equation tickets of executive class and
direction ratios are a, b, c and
y dx − ( x + 2 y ) dy = 0 is
2
b – c, c – a, a – b, is economy class are respectively
(a) x = 2 y2 + C (b) y = 2x2 + Cx π π π (a) 40 and 160 (b) 160 and 40
(a) (b) (c) 0 (d)
(c) y = 2x2 + C (d) x = 2 y2 + Cy 4 2 3 (c) 140 and 60 (d) 60 and 140
PRACTICE SET 02 117
49. Suppose 10000 tickets are sold in 50. Assume that the chances of a random suffers a heart attack.
a lottery each for ` 1. First prize is patient having a heart attack is Then, the probability that the
of ` 3000 and the second prize is of 40%. It is also assumed that a patient followed a course of
` 2000. There are three third prizes meditation and yoga course reduce meditation and yoga, is
the risk of heart attack by 30% and 11
of ` 500 each. If you buy one ticket, (a)
prescription of certain drug reduces 29
then your expectation is 2
its changes by 25%. At a time a (b)
(a) ` 0.61
patient can choose any one of the 29
(b) ` 0.60 14
two options with equal (c)
(c) ` 0.65 29
probabilities. It is given that after
(d) ` 0.64 1
going through one of the two (d)
options the patient selected at 29
ANSWERS
1. (b) 2. (d) 3. (d) 4. (a) 5. (b) 6. (b) 7. (a) 8. (c) 9. (a) 10. (c)
11. (b) 12. (b) 13. (c) 14. (a) 15. (a) 16. (a) 17. (b) 18. (c) 19. (a) 20. (c)
21. (c) 22. (d) 23. (d) 24. (c) 25. (d) 26. (b) 27. (a) 28. (b) 29. (a) 30. (c)
31. (b) 32. (b) 33. (b) 34. (c) 35. (c) 36. (b) 37. (d) 38. (a) 39. (b) 40. (b)
41. (b) 42. (a) 43. (d) 44. (b) 45. (c) 46. (b) 47. (c) 48. (a) 49. (c) 50. (c)
Biology 3
CHAPTER 01
Reproduction in Organisms
1. Life Cycle known as internal (endogenous) budding or

The life cycle of an animal or plant is the series of gemmule formation, e.g. sponges, Marchantia.
changes or developments that it passes through from (iii) Sporogenesis/Sporulation Spores are the
the beginning of its life until its death. reproductive cells of many multicellular organisms.
Spores are capable of producing daughter cells by their
2. Lifespan growth.
It is the time period from the birth to the natural death of an
organism. It is not necessary that the lifespan of an Algae and fungi have different types of spores like
organism is related to their body size. (a) Zoospores (motile and flagellated
endogenous spores, e.g. Chlamydomonas).
3. Reproduction
It is a biological process in which an organism gives (b) Conidia (non-motile exogenous spores are
rise to young ones or offspring similar to itself. formed, e.g. Penicillium).
Reproduction is essential for organisms because it (iv) Fragmentation is the breaking of parent body into
(i) maintains life on earth. several fragments. Each of these fragments develop into
mature individuals, e.g. Spirogyra, sea star, etc.
(ii) enables continuity of a species.
(v) Regeneration is the formation of a whole new body
(iii) creates variations among populations.
of an organism from a cut or broken part of the
It can be categorised as asexual and sexual parent’s body, e.g. Hydra, Planaria, etc.
reproduction.
B. Asexual Reproduction in Plants In some plants,
4. Asexual Reproduction vegetative units possess the capability of producing
It is the phenomenon of production of an offspring by a new plant, e.g. roots, stems, leaves and meristematic
single parent without the formation and fusion of tissues which grow to form new plants. This method is
gametes. It involves only mitotic cell division. Thus, the called as vegetative propagation or vegetative
offspring produced by this method are identical and reproduction.
exact copies of their parents. They are called as (i) Natural Vegetative Propagation It is the natural
clones. method of propagation. The vegetative propagules
A. Asexual Reproduction in Animals It is the primary of plants develop into new plants under suitable
means of reproduction among the protists, cnidarians conditions. It is done by roots (sweet potato),
and tunicates. It occurs through following methods underground stems include rhizomes, e.g.
(i) Binary fission is the division of parent body into two banana, ginger; bulbs, e.g. garlic, onion; tubers,
equal halves, e.g. Amoeba, Paramecium, etc. e.g. potato; corms, e.g. Colocasia; creeping stems
include suckers, e.g. Chrysanthemum; runners, e.g.
(ii) Budding is the process in which an outgrowth is
lawn grass or Cynodon; stolons, e.g. Vallisneria;
produced from parent’s body that separates to give
offsets, e.g. Pistia, aerial stems, e.g. Opuntia,
rise to a new individual, e.g. yeast, Hydra, etc.
leaves e.g. Bryophyllum, Kalanchoe, Begonia, etc,
If bud grows externally on the surface of the body, it bulbils e.g. Agave, Oxalis, Allium sativum, lily, etc.
is known as external (exogenous) budding, e.g.
(ii) Artificial Vegetative Propagation It is of four types,
yeast. If bud grows within the parental body, it is
i.e. cutting, layering, grafting and micropropagation.
Plant Parts for Artificial Propagation In flowering plants, male gamete reaches the
female gamete, through the process of pollination
Artificial Examples (transfer of pollen grain to stigma).
Method (Plant Name/Plant Part)
(ii) Fertilisation The complete and permanent fusion
Cutting Leaves (Bryophyllum), roots (tamarind), of male and female gametes is known as
stem (grapes, sugarcane and rose), etc.
fertilisation or syngamy or amphimixis. It results
Layering Jasmine, grapes, litchi, orange, etc. in the formation of a diploid structure called
zygote.
Grafting Rose, apple, pear, mango, etc.
l
The process of fertilisation may occur outside
Micropropagation Banana, orchid and ornamental plants.
the body of organisms, i.e. external
fertilisation (e.g. algae, amphibians, fishes,
5. Sexual Reproduction etc.) or inside the body of organisms, i.e.
The mode of reproduction which involves the formation of internal fertilisation (e.g. fungi, reptiles, birds,
male and female gametes either by the same individual or higher animals and plants).
by different individuals of opposite sex is known as sexual
l
Parthenogenesis is the development of an
reproduction.
embryo from an unfertilised egg. In
6. Phases in Life Cycle organisms like rotifers, honeybees, lizards and
All organisms grow and mature in their life, to be able to some birds, the female gametes form new
reproduce sexually. On this basis, their life cycle can be organisms without fertilisation.
divided into three phases, i.e. juvenile phase, reproductive (iii) Post-fertilisation Events These are the events
phase and senescent phase. which take place after the formation of zygote in
Note • Some animals remain reproductively active throughout their all sexually reproducing organisms. These events
reproductive phase; such animals are called continuous include the development of zygote and embryo
breeders, e.g. human. On the other hand, some animals after fertilisation.
become reproductively active only during the favourable Further, the development of zygote depends
seasons; such animals are called seasonal breeders, upon the type of life cycle and the environment of
e.g. dog, birds, frog, lizard, etc.
organism. The process of development of
• During the reproductive phase in non-primate animals, embryo from this zygote is called embryogenesis
oestrous cycle occurs, while in the primates menstrual which involves cell division, cell enlargement or
cycle occurs.
growth and cell differentiation.
7. Events in Sexual Reproduction Embryogenesis in animals and plants occurs
The sequential events in sexual reproduction are grouped differently as follows
under three main events. These are pre-fertilisation, (a) Embryogenesis in Animals It occurs on the basis
fertilisation and post-fertilisation events. of whether the development of zygote is taking place
(i) Pre-fertilisation Events The events taking place before outside or inside the body of female parent.
fertilisation are called Animals are divided into two types
pre-fertilisation events. These include l
Oviparous Animals laying eggs, e.g. reptiles.
gametogenesis and gamete transfer.
Gametogenesis is the process of formation of
l
Viviparous Animals giving birth to young
haploid gametes. ones, e.g. mammals.
When two gametes (i.e. male and female) are (b) Embryogenesis in Plants In flowering plants, the
morphologically similar, they are called isogametes or zygote is formed inside the ovule. Afterwards the
homogametes, while sepals, petals and stamens of flower wither and
morphologically dissimilar gametes are called fall off.
heterogametes. After fertilisation, the zygote develops into
To facilitate fusion of gametes, they should come in embryo, ovules into seed and ovary into the fruit.
physical association with each other. This phenomenon The seed after dispersal in favourable condition
is called gamete transfer. germinates to produce new plants.
Biology 5
Practice Questions
1. Single-celled animals are said to be immortal because 9. Sexual reproduction involves formation of male and female
(a) they grow indefinitely in size gametes by
(b) they can tolerate any degree of change in (a) same individual
temperature (b) different individual of opposite sex
(c) they can reproduce throughout their lifespan (c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) they continue to live as their daughter cells (d) All of the above
2. Reproduction can be considered as 10. Select the correct sequence from the following.
(a) a biological process I. Juvenile phase ® Senescent phase ® Reproductive phase
(b) a cycle of birth, growth and death II. Juvenile phase ® Reproductive phase ® Senescent phase
(c) a process that enables continuity of species III. Reproductive phase ® Juvenile phase ® Senescent phase
IV. Pre-reproductive phase ® Reproductive phase ® Senescent
phase
3. Asexual reproduction is a method of reproduction in (a) I and II (b) I and IV (c) III and IV (d) II and IV
which participation of ……… takes place.
(a) one individual 11. Strobilanthes kunthiana is also called
(b) two individuals (same species) (a) Neelakurinji (b) Peela kuranji
(c) multi-individuals (c) Hara kuranji (d) Kala kuranji
(d) two individuals (different species)
12. Oestrus cycle is cyclic change in the activities of ovaries and
4. Cell division is the mode of reproduction in accessory duct in non-primates during
(a) monerans (b) protists (a) reproductive (seasonal) period
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these (b) maturation period
(c) ageing period
5. Zoospores are
(d) juvenile period
(a) motile gametes of Chlamydomonas
(b) non-motile gametes of sponges 13. Organisms reproducing throughout the year are called ……
breeders, e.g. … and those who show recurring sexual
(c) motile gametes of Hydra
activity are called …… breeders, e.g. … .
(d) non-motile gametes of Penicillium
(a) continuous, sparrow, seasonal, hen
6. Gemmule formation is a common mode of reproduction in (b) seasonal, lizard, continuous, hen
(a) Hydra (b) sponge (c) continuous, man, seasonal, tiger
(c) Penicillium (d) Amoeba (d) seasonal, hen, continuous, tiger
7. The site of origin of the new plantlets in potato, Dahlia, 14. Identify the events (A, B, D and E) of sexual reproduction
ginger and banana is given below.
(a) floral buds present on stem n
(b) internodes of modified stem A E
Pre-fertilisation event Post-fertilisation event
(c) nodes of modified stem B CD
(d) adventitious buds present on root
Fertilisation 2n
8. Some organisms are capable of asexual or sexual
Choose the correct option.
reproduction. Under favourable conditions, reproduction
proceeds asexually. When conditions become more (a) A–Gamete transfer, B–Gametogeneis, D–Zygote
stressful reproduction switches to a sexual mode. Why? formation, E–Embryogenesis
(a) Sexual reproduction is simple and more rapid (b) A–Gametogeneis, B–Gamete transfer, D–Zygote
allowing larger numbers of offspring to be produced formation, E–Embryogenesis
(b) Sexual reproduction requires two separate (c) A–Gametogeneis, B–Zygote formation, D–Gamete
individuals, who can mutually provide nutrient transfer, E–Embryogenesis
support during stress (d) A–Gametogeneis, B–Gamete transfer,
(c) Sexual reproduction produces individuals with new D–Embryogenesis, E–Zygote formation
combinations of recombined chromosomes increasing 15. What is male gamete called in heterogametic condition?
diversity (a) Antherozoid (b) Sperm
(d) Asexual reproduction requires more energy (c) Egg (d) Both (a) and (b)
16. The condition, in which, both male and female reproductive 23. Essential and most critical event in sexual reproduction is
organs are found on the same plant, is called (a) fertilisation
(a) unisexual (b) bisexual (b) division in male and female gametes
(c) monoecious (d) Both (b) and (c) (c) Both (a) and (b)
17. Figure P represents the reproductive organs of a plant,
Chara and figure Q represents the reproductive organs of an 24. Syngamy may occur in ………… .
animal, earthworm. Select the option which correctly (a) external medium (b) internal medium
identifies male reproductive organs of the two organisms.
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these
25. Internal fertilisation is the one in which syngamy
(a) occur outside the body
C (b) occur inside the body
(c) is followed by meiosis
A
D
26. Diploid zygote is universal in
B (a) All sexually reproducing organisms
P Q (b) All asexually reproducing organisms
(a) A and D (b) B and C (c) A and C (d) B and D (c) All sexually and asexually reproducing organisms
18. In flowering plants, the unisexual male flower is called (d) Only plants and animals
…A… while the female is called …B… . Flowering plants 27. Life begins in all sexually reproducing organism from a
may be monoecious, e.g. …C… or dioecious, e.g. …D… .
(a) single-celled zygote (b) double-celled zygote
Complete the paragraph by filling up the blanks.
(c) thick-walled zygote (d) All of these
(a) A–staminate, B–pistillate, C–date palm, D–coconut
28. Choose the incorrect pair.
(b) A–pistillate, B–staminate, C–date palm, D–papaya
(c) A–pistillate, B–staminate, C–Cucurbita, D–coconut (a) Cell division in embryo – Increase the number of cells
(d) A–staminate, B–pistillate, C–Cucurbita, D–papaya (b) Cell differentiation – Form specialised tissues and
organs
19. If the parent body is haploid then the gametes are (c) Eggs covered by hard calcareous shell – Oviparous
(a) haploid (b) diploid animals
(c) triploid (d) None of these (d) Zygote develops outside the body –Viviparous animals
20. In diploid organism the gamete producing cells are called 29. Chances of survival of young ones are more in the case
of............. individuals.
(a) gamete mother cell (b) meiocytes
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these (a) oviparous (b) viviparous
(c) ovoviviparous (d) None of these
21. Identify the sequence of events shown in the diagram
below. 30. Offsprings of oviparous animals have less chances of
survival as compared to those of viviparous animals because
(a) proper embryonic care and protection is absent
(b) embryo does not develop completely
(c) progenies are of smaller size
(d) genetic variations do not occur
(a) Fission of gametes ® New individual ® Zygote 31. The male gametes of rice plant have 12 chromosomes in
(b) Fusion of gametes ® Zygote ® New individual their nucleus. The chromosome number in the female
(cell 2n) gamete, zygote and the cells of the seedling will be,
respectively
(c) Fission of gametes ® Zygote ® New individual
(cell 2n) (a) 12, 24, 12 (b) 24, 12, 12
(d) Stages in the gametogenesis (c) 12, 24, 24 (d) 24, 12, 24
22. Which of the following options is/are correct about 32. Amoeba and yeast reproduce asexually by fission and
pollination? budding, respectively because they are
(a) Occurs in almost all flowering plants (a) microscopic organisms
(b) Facilitates pollen transfer to stigma (b) heterotrophic organisms
(c) Both (a) and (b) (c) unicellular organisms
(d) None of the above (d) uninucleate organisms
Biology 7
ANSWERS
1. (d) 2. (d) 3. (a) 4. (c) 5. (a) 6. (b) 7. (c) 8. (c) 9. (c) 10. (d)
11. (a) 12. (a) 13. (c) 14. (b) 15. (d) 16. (d) 17. (b) 18. (d) 19. (a) 20. (c)
21. (b) 22. (c) 23. (c) 24. (c) 25. (b) 26. (a) 27. (a) 28. (d) 29. (b) 30. (a)
31. (c) 32. (c)
Hints & Explanations

1. (d) No individual is immortal except 12. (a) Generally, oestrus cycle takes place in 26. (a) The presence of diploid zygote is
some single-celled organisms (e.g. the seasonal breeders, e.g. non-primates. It universal in all sexually reproducing
Amoeba). It is due to the fact that is the cyclic change in the activity of organisms irrespective of the fact that,
they divide and continue to live as ovaries and accessory duct during the the parents are haploid or diploid.
their daughter cells. reproductive (seasonal) period. In haploid parent condition, the
diploid zygote undergoes meiosis and
4. (c) Cell division is the common mode 15. (d) Male gametes are called antherozoids
becomes haploid body again, while in
of reproduction in Monera and in case of lower organisms like fungi and
diploid organisms, the diploid zygote
Protista as these contain single-celled algae, and in higher organisms like
changes to diploid individual after
organisms. In this process, the cell mammals, reptiles, etc., these are called
undergoing mitosis.
divides by mitosis into two parts and sperms.
each part continues to live on as a 27. (a) During fertilisation two haploid
16. (d) Hermaphrodite/bisexual/
daughter cell. cells, a female and a male gamete
monoecious/homothallic are terms used
combine to form a single diploid cell
5. (a) Zoospores are motile gametes. when both the male and female
(2n) called zygote, from where every
These are commonly found in the reproductive organs are present in same
sexually reproducing organism begin
fungi and plant kingdom, e.g. organism. Hermaphrodite is used for
its life.
Chlamydomonas. animals. Bisexual and monoecious are
used for both animal and plant. 28. (d) Option (d) contains the incorrect
6. (b) Gemmule formation is a common
Homothallic is used for fungi. match. It can be corrected as
mode of asexual reproduction in
sponges. In this, the buds are formed 17. (b) In figure P, B–represents the In viviparous animals, zygote
within the parent body and later get antheridium (male sex organ) of Chara. In develops inside the body of female.
released into the environment to figure Q, C–represents the testis sac with Rest of the pairs are correct.
form a new organism. testis of earthworm. 29. (b) In viviparous animals, the zygote
8. (c) Sexual reproduction produces 19. (a) Irrespective of the fact, whether the develops into a young one inside the
individuals with new combinations organism is haploid or diploid, it has body of female organism. Thus, the
of recombined chromosomes. This haploid gametes. chances of survival of young ones are
produces variations among offspring. In haploid parents, mitosis produces greater in these animals because these
When conditions become more haploid gametes. In diploid parents, young ones are provided with proper
stressful, an organism switches to meiosis produces haploid gametes. embryo care and protection.
sexual mode of reproduction so as to 20. (c) Gamete mother cells are called gamete 31. (c) In female gamete of rice plant the
produce offspring with variations. producing cells. In these, meiotic cell chromosome number will be same as
These enable the offspring to adapt to division takes place for the production of that of the male gamete (12).
the stressful conditions and haploid gametes. These are also called Zygote is formed by fertilisation of
successfully survive and reproduce. meiocytes (diploid). male and female gametes thus, the
9. (c) Sexual reproduction involves chromosome number will be 24 (2n).
21. (b) In the given diagram, three figures are
formation of the male and female shown. First figure indicates the fusion of A seedling is young plant sporophyte
gametes, either by the same male and female gametes. developing out of embryo. So,
individual or by different individuals chromosome number will be 24 (2n).
Second figure indicates the formed zygote
of the opposite sex. because there are two nuclei visible in Thus, option (c) is correct.
10. (d) Before reproducing sexually, completely fused condition. 32. (c) Unicellular organisms (like
organisms reach a stage of growth Third figure indicates a complete new cell Amoeba and yeast) have a relatively
and maturity in their life which is after fusion is completed. Now, it can be simple body organisation. So, asexual
known as juvenile phase or called as a new individual. mode of reproduction is common in
pre-reproductive phase. The end of 25. (b) In internal fertilisation, fusion of them because by asexual
this phase, marks the beginning of gametes (syngamy) takes place inside the reproduction unicellular organisms
the reproductive phase and this female reproductive tract. This process can multiply very fast. In Amoeba, it
phase finally leads to old age or provides direct protection from the occurs by binary fission and in yeast
senescent phase. environment to the developing progeny. by budding.
CHAPTER 02
Sexual Reproduction in
Flowering Plants
1. Sexual Reproduction generally surrounded by four layers, i.e. the
It is a process of development of new organisms due epidermis, endothecium, middle layer and tapetum
to the fusion of male and female gametes. (nourishing tissue).
It occurs through flowers in plants. Such plants are (iii) Pollen grains are known as male gametophytes.
called angiospermic or flowering plants. Each pollen grain has a two-layered wall, i.e.
sporoderm. The outer layer is hard and known as
2. Flower exine. It is made up of sporopollenin. The inner
It is the site of sexual reproduction in flowering plants. layer is thin, called as intine. It is composed of
A typical flower consists of four whorls of floral
cellulose and pectin.
appendages, attached on the receptacle, i.e.
n
Microsporogenesis The formation of
A. Calyx is the outermost protective whorl of flower,
which is usually green in colour. microspores from a pollen mother cell through
the meiosis is called microsporogenesis.
B. Corolla is the second whorl of flower. It contains
Pollen grains are released by dehiscence of
petals which are brightly coloured and are fragrant.
This makes flowers attractive which helps in an anther.
pollination. n
These microspores later develop into
C. Androecium is the male whorl which consists of microgametophytes or matured pollen grains.
stamens. Each stamen consists of anther, filament This process is known as
and a connective. microgametogenesis. Each pollen grain has
two cells, i.e. generative cell and vegetative
D. Gynoecium is the female whorl which consists of cell. The vegetative cell is large and irregular
carpel or pistil. It contains three parts, i.e. stigma, in shape. It has abundant reserve food. The
style and ovary. generative cell is small, spindle-shaped and
3. Pre-Fertilisation Events floats in cytoplasm of the vegetative cell.
These include the development of male and female B. Female Reproductive Part It consists of pistil,
gametophyte. megasporangium (ovule) and embryo sac.
A. Male Reproductive Part It consists of a stamen, (i) Pistil is the female reproductive unit of a flower. The
microsporangium and a pollen grain. main parts of a pistil are stigma, style and ovary.
(i) A typical stamen has two main parts, i.e. an anther Stigma is meant to receive pollen grains, style is
and a long slender structure called filament. Anther the slender part below the stigma and the basal
is a bilobed structure with each lobe having two swollen part of style is called ovary.
theca. Thus, it has four microsporangia which (ii) Ovule (megasporangium) is attached to the
develop and become pollen sacs that contain placenta by a stalk called funicle. Hilum is the
pollen grains. Ploidy level of pollen mother cell is junction between ovule and funicle. Each ovule
diploid. contains two protective envelops, called
(ii) Structure of Microsporangium Transversely, a integuments.
microsporangium appears circular in outline. It is
Biology 9
Micropyle is present at the tip while chalaza lies These agencies are grouped as follows
opposite to the micropylar end representing the Agents of Pollination
basal part of the nucellus. Nucellus has food
reserves.
Abiotic agents Biotic agents
(iii) Megasporogenesis It is the process of formation
of megaspores (4) from megaspore mother cell by Wind (Anemophily)
e.g. maize, bamboo, etc. Animals
meiotic division.
(Zoophily)
n
Only one of the 4 megaspores is functional Water (Hydrophily)
which develops into female gametophyte or e.g. Vallisneria, Hydrilla, etc.
embryo sac. This is called monosporic
development, while the other three Reptiles Insects Birds Mammals
degenerate in most of the angiosperms. e.g. gecko (Entomophily) (Ornithophily) e.g. lemur,
n
Embryo sac or female gametophyte is lizard, e.g.bees, e.g. humming arboreal
garden moths,wasps, birds, sunbird, rodent,
formed when the nucleus of functional
lizard, beetles, etc. etc.
megaspore divides mitotically to form two etc. butterflies, ants, etc.
nuclei, which move to the opposite poles and
form 2-nucleate embryo sac, which then 5. Pollen-Pistil Interaction
results into the formation of 4-nucleate and It is an essential step in fertilisation of angiosperms
later 8-nucleate stage. This event is known as because it determines the compatability and
megagametogenesis. incompatability of pollen and pistil. It generally includes
n
The mature embryo sac contains 7- cells and the events from the deposition of pollen on the stigma till
8-nuclei (polygonum type). The 6 out of 8- the pollen tube enters ovule. This pollen-pistil interaction
nuclei get surrounded by cell wall and are comprises of three stages
organised into cells. Three cells present (i) Recognition of compatible pollen
towards the micropylar end, grouped together (ii) Growth of a pollen tube
constitute the egg apparatus, i.e. two (iii) Entry of pollen tube into the ovule.
synergids and one egg cell. The 3-cells of
the chalazal end are called antipodals. 6. Artificial Hybridisation
It is the crossing of different species to generate a
4. Pollination progeny by combining desirable characters which are
Transfer of pollen grains from anther to stigma is present in commercially superior varieties. It is used for
called pollination. Stamen and other whorls fall down crop improvement programmes. This process involves
after pollination. Pollination is of two types (i) Emasculation It refers to anther removal before its
A. Self-Pollination When pollen grains reach to the dehiscence.
stigma of the same flower (autogamy) or to the (ii) Bagging and covering emasculated flower in a bag
stigma of the another flower of the same plant, to prevent its contamination by unwanted pollen
(geitonogamy), it is known as self-pollination. It is grains.
found in both unisexual and bisexual flowers.
Adaptations for self-pollination are homogamy and 7. Fertilisation
cleistogamy. It occurs just after pollination. Fusion of male and female
B. Cross-Pollination or Allogamy (Xenogamy) In this gametes is called fertilisation. Pollen tube enters in ovary
pollination, pollen grains of one plant reach to the and after fertilisation embryo is formed.
stigma of flower of another plant of the same
species. It involves two plants of the same species
8. Double-Fertilisation
It was discovered by SG Nawaschin in Fritillaria and
to produce seeds. Unisexuality, dichogamy,
Lilium plants in 1898. In this, one of the male gametes
self-sterility, heterostyly, dioecy and herkogamy
fuses with egg cell and forms diploid zygote.
are the specific adaptations in flowering parts to
prevent self-pollination. These are also known as This is called syngamy. The other male gamete fuses
outbreeding devices. Pollen grains require some with polar nuclei and forms 3n (triploid) Primary
agencies to reach to the stigma. Endosperm Nucleus (PEN), so this is called triple fusion.
This is the specific feature of angiosperms.
9. Post-Fertilisation Events Types of fruits are as follows

The major post-fertilisation events include development A. False fruits are derived from ovary along with
of endosperm and embryo, maturation of ovules into thalamus or other accessory floral parts, e.g. apple,
seeds and ovary into fruit. These events take place soon cashewnut, strawberry, etc.
after double- fertilisation. B. True fruits are derived from ovary of flower, e.g.
Endosperm development is of three types, i.e. nuclear mango and tomato.
type, cellular type and helobial type. Out of these, C. Parthenocarpic Fruit When development of fruit in
nuclear type is the most common one in which the PEN plants occurs without pollination and fertilisation, it
undergoes repeated mitotic divisions without cytokinesis. is called parthenocarpy. As a result of this process,
At this stage, endosperm is called free endosperm seedless fruits are developed like grapes, banana,
nucleus. pineapple, papaya, lemon, etc.
Development of an embryo takes place at the
micropylar end of the embryo sac. The zygote 11. Significance of Seed and
development gives rise to proembryo and later globular, Fruit Formation
heart-shaped and mature embryo. Seeds are basis of agriculture and can be stored for
Embryos are of two types, i.e. dicot embryo which long period of time. Fruits protect seed from
consists of two cotyledons and monocot embryo which mechanical injury. They provide food to animals who
consists of only one cotyledon (called scutellum) e.g. act as pollinating agents.
rice, maize, etc.
12. Methods of Specific Types of
10. Development of Seed and Fruit Seed Development
Formation A. Apomixis Sometimes embryo and sporophyte
After fertilisation, ovary converts into fruit. The wall of develop without fusion of male and female gametes
ovary develops into pericarp, a fleshy part of fruits. It or without gametophyte. This is called apomixis.
has three layers, i.e. epicarp, mesocarp and endocarp. B. Polyembryony The process of developing more
Ovule converts into seed which consists of seed coat, than one embryo in one seed is called
cotyledon and embryonal axis. The seed coat contains polyembryony. It occurs as a result of presence of
two layers, i.e. outer called testa (hard) and inner called more than one embryo sac in the ovule or due to
tegmen. fusion with cell other than egg cell.
Biology 11
Practice Questions
1. Identify A to D in the following diagram. D 12. Intine is made up of
(a) A – Filament (stalk) , B – Pollen sac, C (a) cellulose
C – Pollen grain, D – Line of dehiscence (b) pectin
B
(b) A – Filament (stalk), B – Pollen sac, (c) Both (a) and (b)
C – Line of dehiscence, D – Pollen grain (d) protein
(c) A – Line of dehiscence, B – Filament 13. Exine of pollen is made up of
(stalk) , C – Pollen sac, D – Pollen
(a) sporopollenin
grains
(b) sporogenous tissue
(d) A – Filament (stalk), B – Line of A
dehiscence, C – Pollen sac, D – Pollen (c) spongiform tissue
grains (d) inorganic material
2. The lengthwise running groove on anther which separate 14. The sporopollenin is non-degradable because
theca is called (a) it can withstand strong acids
(a) rupture line (b) line of dehiscence (b) it is resistant at very high temperature
(c) suture of anther (d) None of the above (c) no enzyme degrade it
3. Number of microsporangia in an angiospermic anther is
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4 15. The functions of germ pore is/are
4. Microsporangium develops into (a) emergence of radicle
(b) absorption of water for seed germination
(a) pollens (b) microgametes
(c) megagametes (d) pollen sac (c) initiation of pollen tube
5. The innermost layer of microsporangium is
16. When the pollen grain is mature, it contains two cells, the
(a) tapetum (b) endothecium
… A … and … B ….
(c) middle layer (d) epidermis
(a) A–generative cell, B–spore mother cell
6. Centre of each microsporangium is occupied by (b) A–vegetative cell, B–spore mother cell
(a) sporogenous tissue (b) tapetum (c) A–spore mother cell, B–male gamete
(c) central tissue (d) microspore mother cell (d) A–vegetative cell, B–generative cell
7. The outermost wall layer of microsporangium in anther is 17. 60% of the angiosperms shed their pollens at the
(a) endothecium (b) tapetum (a) 2-celled stage (b) 3-celled stage
(c) middle layer (d) epidermis (c) 4-celled stage (d) 1-celled stage
8. Which of the following perform microsporogenesis? 18. Identify the type of pistil in the diagram. Stigma
(a) Microspore mother cell (b) Pollen mother cell (a) Multicarpellary, apocarpous
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these (b) Multicarpellary, syncarpous
(c) Multicarpellary, pistillate
9. Microspore tetrad (pollen grains) is the result of
(d) Monocarpellary, apocarpous
(a) mitotic cell division (b) meiotic cell division
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these 19. Identify the type of pistil in the diagram alongside.
(a) Monocarpellary, syncarpous
10. Dehiscence of anther in mesophytes is caused by Carpels
(b) Monocarpellary, apocarpous
(a) hydration of anthers (b) dehydration of anthers
(c) Multicarpellary, syncarpous
(c) mechanical injury (d) None of these
(d) Multicarpellary, apocarpous
11. Pollens have two prominant walls which are …A… and
…B… . Here A and B refers to 20. An ovule is a
(a) A–intine, B–protein coat (a) differentiated megasporangium
(b) A–exine, B–intine (b) dedifferentiated megasporangium
(c) A–sporopollenin, B–intine (c) integumented megasporangium
(d) A–sporopollenin, B–exine (d) redifferentiated megasporangium
21. Chalazal pole is present 29. Filiform apparatus are

(a) opposite to micropyle (a) special cellular thickenings at antipodal cell
(b) at the origin of integuments (b) special cellular thickenings at the micropylar end
(c) opposite to nucellus (c) special cellular thickenings at synergid cells
(d) near the embryo sac (d) special cellular thickenings at nuclear end
22. Mass of cells enclosed by integuments is called 30. Autogamy stands for
(a) nucellus (b) embryo (a) pollination in same flower
(c) ova (d) pollen (b) pollination between different plants
(c) pollination in two flowers of same plant
23. Embryo sac is also called (d) division in embryo
(a) female gamete
(b) synergids 31. Cleistogamous flowers are strictly autogamous because they
(c) female gametophyte remain
(d) egg of angiosperm (a) always open (b) always close
(c) always fragrance (d) are brighty coloured
24. Megasporogenesis is
(a) formation of fruits 32. In chasmogamy pollination takes place in
(b) formation of seeds (a) open flower (b) closed flower
(c) formation of megaspores (c) large flower (d) geitonogamy flower
(d) Both (b) and (c) 33. The most common abiotic pollinating agency in flowering
25. Megaspore mother cell is found near the region of plant is/ are
(a) micropyle (b) chalaza (a) water (b) wind

(c) nucellus (d) integuments (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these
26. Single megasporic development is called 34. Characteristic of wind pollinated pollens is, they are
(a) non-sticky
(a) single sporic (b) unisporic
(b) light
(c) monosporic (d) disporic
(c) produced in large number
27. In embryo sac, the number of synergid ® egg cell ® central (d) All of the above
cell ® antipodal cell follows the order
35. Diagram showing discharge of gametes in the egg apparatus.
(a) 1–1–2–3 (b) 2–1–3–2 Identify A, B and C.
(c) 2–1–1–3 (d) 3–2–1–2
A
28. Identify A to F in the diagram given below.
F B
E
D
C
B
(a) A–Polar nuclei, B–Female gametes, C–Synergid cell
A (b) A–Male gametes, B–Synergid cell, C–Polar nuclei
(a) A–Egg, B–Filiform apparatus, C–Synergid, (c) A–Synergid cell, B–Male gametes, C–Polar nuclei
D–Antipodals, E–Polar nuclei, F–Central cell (d) A–Polar nuclei, B–Male gametes, C–Synergid cell
(b) A–Egg, B–Synergid, C–Filiform apparatus, 36. Double fertilisation is
D–Antipodals, E–Central cell, F–Polar nuclei
(a) fusion of two male gametes with one egg
(c) A–Central cell, B–Egg, C–Synergid, D–Antipodals, (b) fusion of one male gamete with two polar nuclei
E–Filiform apparatus, F–Polar nuclei
(c) fusion of two male gametes of pollen tube with two
(d) A–Filiform apparatus, B–Synergid, C–Egg, different eggs
D–Central cell, E–Polar nuclei, F–Antipodals (d) syngamy and triple fusion
Biology 13
ANSWERS
1. (d) 2. (b) 3. (d) 4. (d) 5. (a) 6. (a) 7. (d) 8. (c) 9. (b) 10. (b)
11. (b) 12. (c) 13. (a) 14. (d) 15. (c) 16. (d) 17. (a) 18. (b) 19. (d) 20. (c)
21. (a) 22. (a) 23. (c) 24. (c) 25. (a) 26. (c) 27. (c) 28. (d) 29. (c) 30. (a)
31. (b) 32. (a) 33. (b) 34. (d) 35. (d) 36. (d)

2. (b) The dehiscence (release of pollen 12. (c) The inner layer of pollen grain is 21. (a) Chalazal pole is present just opposite
grain) of anther occurs through the called intine. It is a continuous and to the micropylar end and represents the
line of dehiscence which is the thin layer made up of cellulose and basal part of the ovule.
running groove on anther pectin.
22. (a) Integuments enclose a mass of cells
longitudinally. It separates the theca of
15. (c) The germ pores are apertures in called the nucellus. Cells of the nucellus
anther.
the exine layer of a pollen grain have abundant reserve food materials.
3. (d) A typical angiosperm anther is which help in the initiation of pollen
23. (c) Embryo sac is also called the female
bilobed with each lobe having two tube and the release of the male
gametophyte. In flowering plants, it is
theca. The anther is a four-sided gametes during fertilisation. There are
formed by the division of the haploid
(tetragonal) structure consisting of four usually three germ pores in dicots
megaspore nucleus and acts as the site of
microsporangia located at the corner (tricolpate) and one in monocots
fertilisation and development of the
with two in each theca. (monocolpate).
embryo.
4. (d) Microsporangium develops further 16. (d) When a pollen grain is mature it
25. (a) Megaspore Mother Cell (MMC) is
and becomes pollen sac. It is like a sac contains two cells, a vegetative cell
found in the micropylar region of the
in which pollen develops. It is called and generative cell. The vegetative
nucellus. It is a large cell containing
pollen sac at the time of maturity. cell is bigger, has abundant food
dense cytoplasm and prominent nucleus.
reserve and a large irregularly shaped
6. (a) Sporogenous tissue occupies the
nucleus. The generative cell is small 27. (c) The functional megaspore develops
centre of each microsporangium. Each
and floats in the cytoplasm of the into the embryo sac containing 2
cell of this tissue is a potential pollen
vegetative cell. It is spindle-shaped synergids, l egg cell, 1 central cell and
mother cell and can give rise to
with dense cytoplasm and a nucleus. 3 antipodal cells. Thus, option (c) gives
microspore tetrad.
the correct number of different cells in an
17. (a) 60% of angiosperms shed their
7. (d) Microsporangium is surrounded embryo sac.
pollens at 2-celled stage and in rest
by four wall layers. The outermost
40%, the pollens are shed at 3-celled 31. (b) Cleistogamous flowers are strictly
layer is epidermis which is followed
stage. autogamous because they always remain
by endothecium, the middle layer and
close for ensuring self-pollination. In
the innermost layer called tapetum. 18. (b) The diagram represents the
these flowers, there is no chance of
The three outer layers of multicarpellary, syncarpous pistil of
cross-pollination.
microsporangium perform the function Papaver. The gynoecium of this plant
of protection and help in dehiscence consists of more than one pistil, 34 (d) Wind pollinated pollens are
of anther to release pollen. showing multicarpellary condition. non-sticky and light so that they can go
These pistils are fused together and far away in wind currents. These are
8. (c) Microspore mother cell and pollen
hence are called syncarpous. produced in large numbers, because there
mother cell are the same terms and
is a lot of wastage of pollens.
form male gametes (pollens) by the 19. (d) The diagram shows the
process called microsporogenesis. multicarpellary, apocarpous pistil of 36. (d) Double fertilisation is the fusion of
Michelia. The gynoecium of this two male gametes to two different cells of
10. (b) As the anthers of angiospermic
ovary consists of more than one pistil the same female gametophyte.
mesophytic plants mature and
(multicarpellary) which are free It consists of the following two events
dehydrate, the line of dehiscence
(apocarpous). l
Syngamy is the fusion of the egg
ruptures releasing the microspores in
atmosphere. These microspores 20. (c) An ovule is an integumented nucleus with one male gamete.
dissociate from each other and megasporangium found in l
Triple fusion is the fusion of second
develop into pollen grains. angiosperms, which develops into male gamete and polar nuclei of central
seeds after fertilisation. cell.
CHAPTER 03
Human Reproduction
Humans are sexually reproducing viviparous organisms, B. Secondary sex organs consist of the following organs
i.e. give birth to young ones. They are unisexual (i) The tubuli recti are straight tubules which join at
organisms, i.e. male and female sexes are separate. the end of seminiferous tubules. These open into a
network of wider irregular tubules called rete testis
1. Human Reproductive Organs
which opens in vasa efferentia. It opens into
These organs are divided into primary sex organs and
epididymis and carry sperms outside the body.
secondary sex organs. Primary sex organs produce
gametes and sex hormones while secondary sex organs (ii) Epididymis is a mass of long narrow closely coiled
play an important role in reproduction. tubules lying along the innerside of each testis.
It temporarily stores immature sperms. It helps the
2. Male Reproductive System sperms in attaining maturity, acquiring increased
It is located in the pelvis region. It consists of following motility and fertilising capacity.
organs
(iii) Vasa deferentia emerges from cauda epididymis
A. Primary Sex Organs Testes are the primary sex organs on each side, leaves the scrotal sac and enters the
in men. abdominal cavity through inguinal canal.
(i) Testes are the site where formation of male gametes (iv) Ejaculatory ducts are two short tubes each formed
or sperms takes place. These are suspended in the by the union of the duct from a seminal vesicle and
scrotum by spermatic cords. Each testis is divided a vas deferens.
into 200-300 compartments called testicular
(v) Urethra provides a common pathway for the flow of
lobules. Each lobule contains 1-3 convoluted
urine and semen.
seminiferous tubules, blood vessels and nerves.
C. Male accessory glands are of two types. These are
(ii) Scrotum is a pouch of deeply pigmented skin
described below
arising from the lower abdominal wall present
between legs. It keeps the temperature of testes (i) Prostate gland is a single large gland that
about 2-2.5°C lower than the internal body surrounds the urethra. It secretes a slightly acidic,
temperature, which is essential for sperm production, milky secretion with pH 6.5 which forms 20-30% of
i.e. spermatogenesis. It remains connected with semen volume. The secretion contains lipids,
abdomen or pelvic cavity by inguinal canals. enzymes, citric acid, etc.
(iii) Seminiferous tubule is the structural and (ii) Seminal vesicles are paired tubular glands,
functional unit of testis consisting of two specialised secreting mucus and a watery alkaline fluid that
cells. They are as follows contain fructose (acts as an energy source for
sperms). It accounts for 60% of semen volume.
(a) Sertoli cells (nurse cells) are pyramidal cells which
Prostaglandins in secretion stimulate uterine
provide nutrition to germinal cells.
contractions for sperm movement.
(b) Male germ cells produce spermatogonia by mitotic
(iii) Bulbourethral or Cowper’s gland secretes mucus
division which grow into primary spermatocytes.
and alkaline fluid into urethra. The mucus helps in
Region outside the seminiferous tubules called lubrication of penis and neutralises urinary acids
interstitial spaces contain blood vessels and present in urethra.
Leydig cells (Interstitial cells). These cells secrete
D. External genitalia consists of penis. It is the male
hormones called androgens.
copulatory organ.
Biology 15
3. Female Reproductive System 4. Gametogenesis

It is located in the pelvic cavity. It consists of following It is the process of formation of haploid gametes from
organs the undifferentiated diploid germ cells in the gonads for
A. Primary sex organs Ovaries are primary sex organs in sexual reproduction. It is of two types, i.e.
women. spermatogenesis in males and oogenesis in females.
(i) Ovaries produce female gametes (ovum) and A. Spermatogenesis is formation of spermatozoa
several female hormones, i.e. ovarian hormones. (sperms) in testes which originate from Primordial
The broad ligament of uterus attaches ovaries by Germ Cells (PGCs). It includes following stages
double-layered fold of peritoneum called (i) Multiplication Phase In this phase, the
mesovarium. undifferentiated germ cells present on the inner wall
(ii) These are covered by cubical epithelium, of seminiferous tubules of the testes increase in
i.e. germinal epithelium. These cubical number by repeated mitotic divisions.
epithelium enclose ovarian stroma and it is (ii) Growth Phase In this phase, some of the
divided into two zones, i.e. peripheral cortex and spermatogonia differentiate into primary
inner medulla. spermatocytes.
B. Secondary sex organs constitute following organs
(iii) Maturation Phase Each of these primary
(i) Fallopian tubes (oviducts) are 10-12 cm long and spermatocytes undergoes first meiotic division
consist of and produces two secondary spermatocytes
(a) Infundibulum is broad and funnel-shaped with its (23 chromosomes) each. They further undergo second
motile and finger-like projections called fimbriae. meiotic division to produce haploid spermatids. The
(b) Ampulla the widest and longest part of Fallopian spermatids transform into spermatozoa (sperms) by the
tube. process of spermiogenesis.
(c) Isthmus a short , narrow and thick-walled portion (iv) Differentiation Phase After spermiogenesis, sperms
that follows ampulla. get embedded in Sertoli cells and are finally
(d) Uterine part passes through uterine wall and released from the seminiferous tubules by
communicates with uterine cavity. spermiation.
(ii) Uterus is 7.5 cm long and 5 cm wide. It is like an Note • Structure of Sperm A mature spermatozoa (sperm) is
inverted pear in shape. It lies between urinary microscopic and tadpole-shaped, about 2-5 µm in
bladder and rectum. It receives ovum from the diameter and 6 µm long. It consists of head, neck, middle
piece and a tail.
Fallopian tube and forms placenta for the
development of foetus. The cervix is a narrow • A cap-like structure called acrosome is present over the
opening of uterus into vagina. head of sperm. It contains hydrolytic enzymes that help in
sperm penetration during fertilisation.
(iii) Vagina is about 10 cm long. It is adapted for
B. Oogenesis is the process of formation of a mature
receiving male’s penis during copulation, for
female gamete. The production of eggs in females
allowing menstrual flow and for serving as a birth
begins before birth, i.e. during embryonic development
canal during parturition.
stage but is completed only after fertilisation. The
C. Accessory glands contain a pair of Bartholin’s gland. following phases complete the process
It occurs on each side of vaginal orifice. These
(i) Multiplication Phase Cells of germinal epithelium
correspond to Cowper’s gland of the male and secrete
undergo mitotic division producing undifferentiated
a clear and viscous fluid under sexual excitement. It
germ cells called oogonia or egg mother cells. They
serves as a lubrication during copulation.
get temporarily arrested at prophase-I of meiotic
D. Mammary glands are paired structures, i.e. breast in division. These cells (at this stage) are called primary
females. Breasts are rounded paired structures oocytes.
located over the pectoral muscles on the front wall of
(ii) Growth Phase Each primary oocyte when gets
thorax.
surrounded by a single layer of granulosa cells is
l
The glandular tissue of each breast is divided into called primary follicle. At puberty stage,
15-20 mammary lobes containing clusters of mammary 60,000-80,000 primary follicles are left in each ovary.
alveoli, which open into mammary tubules.
The primary follicles get surrounded by more layers
l
Each breast contains a nipple in its middle, which is of granulosa cells and new theca to form secondary
surrounded by circular and pigmented area called follicles.
areola.
(iii) Maturation Phase During this phase, the secondary
E. External genitalia are collectively known as vulva follicle transforms to tertiary follicle. These are
which consists of Mons pubis, clitoris and hymen. characterised by a fluid cavity called antrum.
The primary oocyte within tertiary follicle grows in 7. Implantation

size and completes its meiotic division to produce After fertilisation, meiotic division starts as zygote moves
two daughter nuclei, i.e. secondary oocyte (larger through the isthmus of the oviduct towards the uterus,
haploid cell) and first polar body (tiny cell). forming 2, 4, 8, 16 daughter cells called blastomeres.
The tertiary follicle further changes into a mature This process is called cleavage. The embryo with 8-16
follicle or Graafian follicle. The secondary oocyte blastomeres forms morula (32 cells) which at later stage
forms a new membrane called zona pellucida around transforms into blastocyst. This process is known as
it and starts its second meiotic division but remains in blastulation. The outer layer arrangement of blastomeres
metaphase-II till it enters into sperm. The release of in blastocyst is called trophoblast and inner group of
the secondary oocyte from the ovary is called cells is called inner cell mass. The blastocyst (64 cells)
ovulation. becomes embedded in endometrium of uterus. This is
Structure of Ovum Human female produces called implantation which leads to pregnancy.
non-motile and rounded cell called ovum. It is
yolk-free, i.e. alecithal. It contains abundant 8. Placenta
cytoplasm called ooplasm with large nucleus It is the structural and functional unit formed between
called germinal vesicle. mother and foetus. Its functions are as follows
l
Provides nutrients and oxygen to the developing
5. Menstrual Cycle embryo.
It is the reproductive cycle in female primates, e.g. l
Removes CO 2 and waste material from the embryo.
monkeys, apes and human beings. At puberty, the first l
Acts as an endocrine tissue and produces several
menstruation begins and it is called menarche. In
hormones like hCG, hPL, oestrogen, progesterone, etc.
females, menstruation is repeated at an average interval
of about 28/29 days. 9. Embryonic Development
The cycle stops at 50 years of age and the stage is Following changes take place in embryo after
called menopause. implantation. Inner cell mass of blastula differentiates
The cycle consists of the following four phases into an outer layer called ectoderm and inner layer
(i) Menstrual (Bleeding) Phase It lasts for 3-5 days. called endoderm. Mesoderm develops between these
The unfertilised egg undergoes autolysis which two layers.
reduces LH level and causes regression of corpus Note • Kidney, heart, gonads and blood originate from
luteum. The endometrial lining of uterus breaks down mesodermal layer.
due to the deficiency of progesterone. The blood • These three layers give rise to tissues and organs. By the
vessels rupture causing bleeding through vagina. end of 9 months of pregnancy, the foetus becomes fully
(ii) Proliferative (Follicular) Phase It lasts for 14 days. developed and is ready for delivery.
The primary follicles in ovary grow to become 10. Extraembryonic Membrane
fully mature Graafian follicles. The endometrium These are the thin protective layers enclosing the
regenerates through proliferation. The changes in embryo inside the uterus. There are four layers–the
the ovary and uterus induce changes in FSH and amnion, yolk sac, allantois and chorion. The chorion is
oestrogen. outermost layer that helps in formation of placenta. It also
The secretion of LH and FSH increases gradually helps in attachment of embryonic blastula to the uterine
during follicular phase. wall.
(iii) Ovulatory Phase Both LH and FSH attain a peak
in the middle of cycle (about 14th day). Rapid 11. Parturition
secretion of LH induces rupture of Graafian follicle It is the process of delivery of the foetus. It is induced by
and thereby release of ovum, i.e. ovulation. complex neuroendocrine mechanism and the oxytocin
hormone, produced due to foetal-ejection reflexes.
(iv) Luteal (Secretory) Phase It lasts for about 10 days.
The remaining parts of Graafian follicle 12. Lactation
transform into corpus luteum. It secretes large The production and release of milk by the mammary
amounts of progesterone essential to maintain the glands of female after birth of a young one is called
endometrium. lactation.
6. Fertilisation 13. Colostrum
It takes place in the ampullary-isthmic junction of the It is the first milk, produced by mammary gland after
Fallopian tube. The process of fusion of sperm with an delivery, under influence of prolactin hormones. It is rich
ovum resulting in formation of zygote (2n) is called in proteins, energy and antibodies like Ig A.
fertilisation. Thus, it provides passive immunity to the newborn.
Biology 17
Practice Questions
1. Pouch in which testes are suspended outside the abdominal 11. The given diagram refers to TS of testis showing sectional
cavity, is view of a few seminiferous tubules. Identify the parts
(a) tunica albuginea (b) inguinal canal labelled A-D and select the correct option.
(c) epididymis (d) scrotum
2. Function of scrotum is to maintain the

(a) temperature of testes D
(b) body temperature A
B
(c) level of growth hormone
(d) level of male hormone C
3. Approximate length and width of testis are

(a) 4-5 cm and 2-3 cm (b) 5-6 cm and 3-4 cm (a) A–Sertoli cells, B–Spermatozoa, C–Interstitial cells,
(c) 6-7 cm and 4-5 cm (d) 7-8 cm and 8-9 cm D–Sperms
(b) A–Sertoli cells, B–Secondary spermatocyte,
4. Compartments in mammalian testes are called C–Interstitial cells, D–Spermatozoa
(a) testicular lobules (b) seminiferous tubules (c) A–Interstitial cells, B–Spermatogonia, C–Sertoli cells,
(c) Sertoli cells (d) interstitial cells D–Sperms
(d) A–Sertoli cells, B–Spermatogonia, C–Interstitial cells,
5. Testicular lobules contain D–Spermatozoa
(a) 3-5 seminiferous tubules
(b) 2-6 seminiferous tubules 12. Human Fallopian tube is about
(c) 5-7 seminiferous tubules (a) 8-9 cm long (b) 9-10 cm long
(d) 1-3 seminiferous tubules (c) 10-12 cm long (d) 12-17 cm long
6. The seminiferous tubules of the testis is lined on its inside 13. Funnel-shaped part of oviduct closer to the ovary is called
by (a) fimbriae (b) infundibulum
(a) spermatocytes (b) spermatogonia (c) ampulla (d) isthmus
(c) cells of Sertoli (d) Both (b) and (c)
14. The main function of fimbriae of Fallopian tube is
7. ……… provide nutrition to the male germ cells. (a) help in development of ovary
(a) Interstitial cells (b) help in collection of the ovum after ovulation
(b) Leydig cells (c) help in development of ova
(c) Sertoli cells (d) help in fertilisation
(d) Both (a) and (b) 15. Choose the incorrect pair.
8. Which of the following cells present in the mammalian (a) Finger-like projections – Fimbriae
testes forms the sperms? (b) Narrow part of oviduct – Ampulla
(a) Leydig cells (b) Spermatogonia (c) Part of oviduct joining the uterus – Isthmus
(c) Interstitial cells (d) Sertoli cells (d) None of the above
9. Region outside the seminiferous tubules is called 16. Choose the incorrect pair.
(a) interdigital space (a) Cushion of fatty tissue covered by pubic hair
(b) interferous space –Mons pubis
(c) interstitial space (b) Membrane covering opening of vagina–Hymen
(d) blind space (c) Finger-like structure above the urethral opening
–Clitoris
10. Identify the accessory glands found in males. (d) Uterine layer exhibiting strong contraction during
(a) Seminal vesicles delivery–Endometrium
(b) Prostate gland
17. The main tissue present in breast is ……… tissue.
(c) Bulbourethral gland
(a) glandular (b) squamous
(c) ciliated (d) epithelium
18. Several mammary ducts join to form a wider mammary 28. In an ideal menstrual cycle, the menstrual phase last for
ampulla, which is connected to (a) 3-5 days (b) 5-6 days
(a) lactiferous duct (b) seminiferous duct (c) 1-3 days (d) 2-3 days
(c) seminiferous tubules (d) nipple
29. A regular cycling woman is not menstruating, which one of
19. A sectional view of mammary gland shows the following is the most likely to be the root cause?
I. nipple and areola. (a) Maintenance of the hypertrophical endometrial lining
II. mammary lobes (alveolus) and duct. (b) Maintenance of high concentration of sex-hormones in
the bloodstream
III. ribs.
(c) Regression of well-developed corpus luteum
IV. ampulla and lactiferous duct.
(d) Fertilisation of the ovum
Choose the correct option from the above.
(a) I, II, III and IV (b) I, II and III 30. What happens during the follicular phase of menstrual
(c) III, IV and II (d) I, IV and III cycle?
(a) Proliferation of endometrium
20. Which cells come earliest in the sequence of sperm (b) Reduction in blood supply to endometrium
production?
(c) Regression of endometrium
(a) Spermatozoa (b) Spermatocyte (d) No effect on endometrium
(c) Spermatid (d) Spermatogonia
31. When does ovulation occur in a healthy menstruating
21. Which of the following undergoes meiosis-I division during female ?
spermatogenesis?
(a) 9-14 days (b) 14-16 days
(a) Primary spermatocytes (c) 16-28 days (d) 20-26 days
(b) Secondary spermatocytes
(c) Sertoli cell 32. Rapid secretion of LH in ovulatory phase causes
(d) Leydig cell (a) rupturing of Graafian follicle
(b) release of ova
22. Which one of the following cells have haploid number of (c) ovulation
chromosome?
(a) Primary spermatocytes
(b) Secondary spermatocytes 33. Everytime copulation does not lead to fertilisation and
pregnancy because of failure of sperm to reach the
(c) Spermatid
(d) Both (b) and (c) (a) ampulla (b) cervix
(c) endometrium (d) myometrium
23. During spermatogenesis, which cells are the first to contain
haploid number of chromosomes? 34. During fertilisation, a sperm comes in contact with the zona
(a) Spermatogonium (b) Primary spermatocyte pellucida layer of the ovum and induces changes in the
(c) Secondary spermatocyte (d) Spermatid membrane that block the entry of …A… . The secretions of
the …B… help the sperm enter into the cytoplasm of the
24. Spermatogenesis starts at puberty due to significant increase ovum.
in the secretion of A B
(a) GnRH (b) prolactin (a) eggs zona pellucida
(c) testosterone (d) oestrogen (b) eggs acrosome
25. Sperms of mammals depend for movement on (c) additional sperms acrosome
(d) additional sperms zona pellucida
(a) only tail (b) tail and middle piece
(c) middle piece (d) Only head 35. Trophoblast of blastocyst attaches to the
26. The reproductive cycle in the female primates such as (a) endometrium (b) myometrium
monkeys, apes and human beings is called (c) perimetrium (d) mesoderm
(a) menstrual cycle (b) oestrus cycle 36. Inner cell mass or embryoblast gives rise to
(c) circadian cycle (d) ovulatory cycle (a) foetal part
(b) embryo
27. The first menstruation that begins at puberty is called
(c) notochord
(a) menopause (b) ovulation
(d) nourishment cell
(c) gametogenesis (d) menarch
Biology 19
ANSWERS
1. (d) 2. (a) 3. (a) 4. (a) 5. (d) 6. (d) 7. (c) 8. (b) 9. (c) 10. (d)
11. (d) 12. (c) 13. (b) 14. (b) 15. (b) 16. (d) 17. (a) 18. (a) 19. (a) 20. (d)
21. (a) 22. (d) 23. (c) 24. (a) 25. (b) 26. (a) 27. (d) 28. (a) 29. (d) 30. (a)
31. (b) 32. (d) 33. (a) 34. (c) 35. (a) 36. (b)

unpaired prostate gland and the paired
2. (a) The testes are suspended outside 21. (a) Primary spermatocytes (2n) undergo
bulbourethral glands.
the abdominal cavity within a pouch meiosis-I to give rise to haploid
called scrotum. Scrotum maintains the 15. (b) Option (b) contains the incorrect secondary spermatocyes. The secondary
temperature of testes, i.e. 2-2.5°C pair. It can be corrected as spermatocytes undergo meiosis-II to
below the body temperature, Ampulla is the wider part of oviduct. produce spermatids which are then
necessary for spermatogenesis. Rest all the pairs are correct. released as spermatids.
3. (a) Each human testis is oval in 16. (d) Option (d) contains the incorrect 23. (c) Secondary spermatocytes are the first
shape, with a length of about 4-5 cm pair and can be corrected as cells in spermatogenesis in which the
and a width of about 2-3 cm. Myometrium is the muscular layer of chromosome number becomes half.
6. (d) Each seminiferous tubule is lined uterus which exhibits strong Thus, they contain haploid number of
on its inside by two types of cells contractions during delivery. chromosomes.
called male germ cells Endometrium is the glandular layer,
24. (a) Spermatogenesis is initiated at
(spermatogonia) and Sertoli cells. which undergoes cyclic changes
puberty due to the increase in
during menstrual cycle.
9. (c) Region outside the seminiferous Gonadotropin Releasing Hormone
Rest all the pairs are correct.
tubules is called interstitial space, (GnRH) by hypothalamus.
contains small blood vessels and 18. (a) Several mammary ducts join to
30. (a) During the follicular phase of
interstitial cells or Leydig cells. form a wider mammary ampulla which
menstrual cycle, the endometrium of the
is connected to the lactiferous duct
10. (d) The accessory glands found in uterus regenerates through proliferation.
through which milk is sucked out.
males are paired seminal vesicles, the
CHAPTER 04
Reproductive Health
1. Reproductive Health Methods of Birth Control
It refers to the state of healthy reproductive organs (i) Natural/Traditional Methods These are based on the
with normal functions. According to WHO, reproductive principle of avoiding the chances of meeting of
health can be defined as the total well-being in all sperms and ovum, e.g.
aspects of reproduction, i.e. physical, emotional, (a) Period abstinence (10-17th days of menstrual phase)
social and behavioural.
(b) Coitus interruptus or withdrawal before ejaculation
2. Reproductive and Child Healthcare (c) Lactational amenorrhoea (absence of
Programmes (RCH) menstruation during lactation).
These programmes are for creating awareness among (ii) Barrier Methods These prevent sperms and
people about various aspects of reproduction. It ovum from physically meeting with each other in
provides facilities and support the buildup of a order to prevent fertilisation, e.g. condoms, cervical
reproductively healthy society. caps, diaphragms and vaults.
Some measures taken for RCH are (iii) Chemical Methods Spermicides available in the form
(i) Use of audio-visual and print media of cream, jellies and foams are usually used along
(ii) Introduction of sex education in schools with the above stated barriers to increase
contraceptive efficiency. The spermicides include
(iii) Awareness about sexually transmitted diseases
lactic acid, citric acid, boric acid, zinc sulphate and
(iv) Instruct people about pre and post-natal care. potassium permanganate.
3. Population Explosion (iv) Intrauterine Devices (IUDs) are a form of long
The rapid increase in population over a relatively short reversible contraceptive methods. These are
period is called population explosion. Expected reasons categorised as
for the population explosion may be (a) Copper releasing IUDs, e.g. Cu-T, Cu-7,
(i) A rapid decline in death rate (mortality). Multiload-375 and Paragard.
(ii) A reduction in Maternal Mortality Rate (MMR). Note Copper ions released from IUDs, suppress the motility and
(iii) Decline in Infant Mortality Rate (IMR). fertilisation capacity of sperms.
(iv) Increase in number of people of reproducible age. (b) Hormone releasing IUDs, e.g. Progestasert,
Consequences of Overpopulation Some direct LNG-20 and Mirena. These make uterus unsuitable
consequences of overpopulation are reduced food for implantation and the cervrix hostile to sperms.
supply, unemployment, lack of education and poverty. (c) Non-medicated IUDs, e.g. Lippes loop.
4. Birth Control (Contraception) (v) Oral contraceptives are preparations of
hormones either progestogen or progestogen-
The regulation of conception by preventive methods or
oestrogen combinations in the form of pills, e.g.
devices that limit the number of offspring is called
Saheli. These pills inhibit ovulation and fertilisation.
birth control or contraception. An ideal contraceptive
They also modify the quality of cervical mucus to
should be user-friendly, easily available, effective,
prevent or retard the entry of sperms. The emergency
reversible with no or least side effects and
contraceptives are taken within 3 days of intercourse
non-interfering with the sexual drive/desire and/or the
to prevent unwanted pregnancy, e.g. i-pill, etc.
sexual act of the user.
Biology 21
(vi) Implants These are surgically placed under skin. Some common causes of infertility in males are
They act similar to oral contraceptives by blocking Low semen quality
l
ovulation, e.g. nor plant is (synthetic progesterone.) Oligospermia (low sperm count)
l
(vii) Injection Contraceptives These are injections Azospermia (absence of sperms)

l
which is given at every 3 months interval. It slowly Sexual dysfunction and cryptochoridism
l
releases hormone which prevents ovulation, e.g. Some common causes of infertility in females are
Depo-Provera injections. Polycystic ovarian syndrome
l
(viii) Surgical methods are irreversible methods used Damage or blockage of Fallopian tube
l
by male and female partner to prevent any more Age-related factors

l
pregnancies. It is available in the form of

Uterine problems
l
tubectomy in women and vasectomy in men.

Previous tubal ligation.
l
5. Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) 8. Assisted Reproductive Technologies (ARTs)

MTP is intentional or voluntary termination or abortion
ARTs include IVF, ICSI, ZIFT, etc., which now provide
of pregnancy before full term or before foetus
hope to many infertile couples.
becomes viable. Government of India legalised MTP in
(i) In Vitro Fertilisation (IVF) or Test Tube Baby
1971 with some strict conditions to prevent misuse.
Programme It is a technique of initiating the
6. Sexually Transmitted Diseases (STDs) fertilisation process outside the female body. It is
These are the diseases that are mainly passed from followed by embryo transfer in which the embryo is
one person to another during sexual activities. These placed inside the uterus with the intention to
are called as Venereal Diseases (VDs) or establish pregnancy.
Reproductive Tract Infections (RTIs). These can be (ii) ZIFT and IUT When the 8-celled blastomere stage
prevented by avoiding unprotected sexual intercourse. embryo obtained by in vitro fertilisation is transferred
Some common STDs are genital herpes, syphilis, into the Fallopian tube, the process is termed as
gonorrhoea, chlamydiasis, genital wart, hepatitis-B and Zygote Intra Fallopian Transfer (ZIFT).
AIDS. Early symptoms of STDs are swelling in genital If more than 8-celled blastomere stage is placed
regions, itching, fluid discharge, etc. STDs like directly into the lining of uterus for further
Hepatitis-B and HIV can also be transmitted by the development is called Intrauterine Transfer (IUT).
following ways (iii) In Vivo Fertilisation In this, embryos are formed
(i) Sharing of contaminated injection needles, surgical when the fusion of the gametes takes place within
instruments, etc., with infected persons. the female body or surrogates. This method is used
(ii) Transfusion of blood. to assist those females who cannot conceive or
maintain pregnancy to full term.
(iii) From infected mother to foetus.
(iv) Gamete Intra Fallopian Transfer (GIFT) The ovum
Preventive Measures for STDs collected from donor is transferred to the Fallopian
Prevention from STDs is possible and one could be tube of another female, who cannot produce ova, but
free of these infections by following these simple can provide a suitable environment for fertilisation
principles. and further development. This is termed as Gamete
(i) Avoid sex with unknown/multiple partners. Intra Fallopian Transfer (GIFT).
(ii) Always use condoms during coitus. (v) Intra Cytoplasmic Sperm Injection (ICSI) In this, a
single sperm is carefully injected into an egg using a
(iii) Use sterilised needles and syringes.
microneedle. It is beneficial in case of male infertility,
(iv) Awareness about STDs. where sperm count is low.
(v) In case of doubt, consult a doctor as early as (vi) Artificial Insemination (AI) It is a technique in which
possible for early detection and get completely semen is collected from husband or healthy donor
treated if diagnosed with disease. and then artificially introduced into vagina or uterus
7. Infertility (IUI-Intrauterine Insemination) of the female.
It is also one of the major aspects of reproductive Note • Amniocentesis is a medical procedure used in
health. It is mainly of two types pre-natal diagnosis of chromosomal
(i) Primary infertility refers to those who never had abnormalities and foetal infection.
children. • Unfortunately this technique is being misused for
sex-determination. If the sex determined comes out to be
(ii) Secondary infertility refers to a situation, when a a girl, people undertake actions that lead to female
couple had children or achieved pregnancy foeticide. Thus, this procedure has certain legal
previously but are unable to conceive the next time. restrictions in gender based countries.
Practice Questions
1. Reproductive health is the well-being of 11. Spermicidal creams are used in addition to condoms,
(a) physical aspects diaphragms, cervical cap and vaults for
(b) emotional and behavioural aspects (a) lubrication
(c) social aspects (b) killing germs
(d) All of the above (c) increasing contraceptive effectiveness
2. Family planning programme was initiated in
(a) 1951 (b) 1920 (c) 1930 (d) 1950 12. Example of the non-medicated IUD is
(a) Cu-T (b) Cu-7
3. Indicators of improved reproductive health of the society are (c) Multiload-375 (d) Lippes loop
(a) better detection and cure of STDs
(b) improved medical facilities 13. Copper releasing IUDs are used for suppressing the
(c) decreased maternal and infant mortality rates (a) activity of ova
(d) All of the above (b) activity of the uterus
(c) motility of the sperms
4. Population explosion is (d) motility of ova
(a) increased frequency of diseases in population
(b) rapid increase in population number 14. Lippes loop prevent contraception by
(c) rapid decrease in population number (a) preventing ovulation
(d) None of the above (b) phagocytosis of sperms
(c) suppressing sperm motility
5. Which of the following are the consequences of over
population?
(a) It increases the poverty of a country 15. Oral contraceptives have hormonal preparation of
(b) It leads to shortage of food supply (a) progesterone (b) oestrogen
(c) It results in unemployment (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these
16. Pills have to be taken daily for period of …A… days starting
6. Natural methods of contraception are the natural ways to preferably within first five days of menstrual cycle. After a
(a) increase spermicidal activity gap of …B… days, it has to be repeated in the same pattern.
(b) prevent fertilisation (a) A–27, B–1 (b) A–21, B–7
(c) decrease mortality (c) A–22, B–5 (d) A–24, B–4
(d) increase mortality
17. Implants (the progesterone or progesterone-oestrogen
7. Periodic abstinence is avoiding sex during combination) are used by the females usually under the
(a) follicular phase (b) ovulatory phase (a) skin of the inner arm above elbow
(c) menstrual phase (d) None of the above (b) vagina
(c) upper skin of stomach
8. The lifespan of a sperm in female body is
(d) cervix
(a) 1-2 days (b) 3 days (c) 4 days (d) Only 1 day
18. Choose the correct option from A, B and C.
9. Coitus interruptus is the withdrawl method of natural
contraception involving
(a) withdrawl of penis from vagina before ejaculation
(b) withdrawl of penis from vagina after ejaculation
(c) sex during ovulation
(d) no sex during ovulation
A B C
10. Lactational amenorrhea is the
(a) A–Condoms, B–Copper-T, C–Implants
(a) absence of menses in adult age
(b) A–Tubectomy, B–Implants, C–Copper-T
(b) absence of menses in elderly age
(c) A–Vasectomy, B–Condoms, C–Copper-T
(c) absence of menses during lactation
(d) A–Copper-T, B–Condoms, C–Implants
(d) no menses during pregnancy
Biology 23
19. Administration of progesterone, progesterone- oestrogen 25. Hepatitis-B and HIV spread through
combination or IUDs are effective within …… hours of (a) sharing needles (b) transfusion of blood
coitus.
(c) infected mother to child (d) All of these
(a) 72 (b) 48 (c) 24 (d) 96
26. A couple can be infertile because of
20. What is the difference in oral contraceptives and hormonal
(a) physical defect (b) congenital defect
implants?
(c) psychological defect (d) All of these
(a) They differ in their sites of implantation
(b) They differ in their duration of action 27. IVF in which the early zygote with up to 8 blastomeres is
(c) Both (a) and (b) transferred to the Fallopian tube is called
(d) None of the above (a) ZIFT (b) GIFT (c) ICSI (d) IUI
21. MTP helps to overcome pregnancy that result due to 28. IUT Stands for
(a) rapes (a) Inter Uterine Transfer (b) Intra Uterine Transfer
(b) unsafe sex (c) In-Uterus Transfer (d) None of these
(c) failure of contraceptives 29. IVF in which embryo with more than 8 blastomeres is
(d) All of the above transferred into female body is called
22. During which phase of the pregnancy MTP is safe? (a) IUT (b) GIFT
(c) ZIFT (d) ICSI
(a) 1st trimester
(b) 2nd trimester 30. Specialised health care units help in diagnosis and
(c) 3rd trimester corrective treatment of disorders which result in fertility.
However, when such connections are not possible, couples
(d) 4th trimester
are advised
23. MTP is being …A… to abort even normal foetus. Specially (a) in vitro fertilisation
when sex of the foetus is …B… . (b) Artificial insemination
Choose the correct option for A and B. (c) in vivo fertilisation
(a) A–used, B–male (b) A–misused, B–female (d) All of the above
(c) A–used, B–abnormal (d) A–misused, B–male 31 GIFT can be advised to couples where female partner is
24. The other names for STIs or STDs are (a) unable to produce eggs
(a) venereal diseases (b) unable to support a foetus
(c) unable to provide suitable environment for fertilisation
(b) reproductive tract infections
and maturation of foetus
(d) None of these
ANSWERS
1. (d) 2. (a) 3. (d) 4. (b) 5. (d) 6. (b) 7. (b) 8. (b) 9. (a) 10. (c)
11. (c) 12. (d) 13. (c) 14. (b) 15. (c) 16. (b) 17. (a) 18. (a) 19. (a) 20. (c)
21. (d) 22. (a) 23. (b) 24. (c) 25. (d) 26. (d) 27. (a) 28. (b) 29. (a) 30. (d)
31. (d)

contraceptive methods, then these Reproductive Tract Infections (RTIs).
1. (d) The term ‘reproductive health’
increases contraceptive efficiency. These diseases or infections are
simply refers to healthy reproductive
transmitted through sexual intercourse
organs with normal functions. However, 13. (c) The copper releasing IUDs, release
with infected persons.
in broader perspectives it includes a Cu+ ions which suppress the sperm
total well-being in all aspects of motility and the fertilising capacity of 25. (d) Mode of infection of AIDS and
reproduction, i.e. emotional, sperms. hepatitis-B are same. These diseases
behavioural, physical and social. spread from an infected person to
15. (c) Oral contraceptives have hormonal
healthy person through sharing of
3. (d) There are some indicators of preparation of small doses of either
needles, transfusion of blood and from
improved reproductive health of the progesterone or
infected mother to child. Both diseases
society. These include better awareness progesterone-oestrogen combination in
are also incurable.
about sex related problems, pre-natal the form of tablets. These are used by
care of the mother, medically assisted females. 26. (d) A large number of couples are
deliveries, post-natal care of the mother unable to produce children inspite of
and infant, decrease maternal and infant 16. (b) Pills have to be taken daily for 21
unprotected sex, i.e. are infertile. The
mortality, small families, better days starting within the first 5 days of
reasons for this could be physical,
detection and cure of Sexually menstrual cycle. After a gap of 7 days
congenital diseases, drugs,
Transmitted Diseases (STDs), increased (during which menstruation occurs)
immunological or even psychological
medical facilities for sex related these has to be repeated in the same
defect.
problems, etc. pattern till the female desires to prevent
conception. 27. (a) In ZIFT (Zygote Intra Fallopian
7. (b) Periodic abstinence is avoiding sex Transfer), the zygote up to 8-celled
during ovulatory phase, i.e. from day 17. (a) Implants, i.e. six matchstick-sized
stage is transferred to Fallopian tube,
10th-17th of the menstrual cycle. It is capsules containing steroids are
rest of the development takes place as
also known rhythm method. It is done inserted under the skin of the inner arm
that of the natural zygote in the uterus.
as a contraceptive method because above the elbow. These steroid
chances of fertilisation are very high capsules slowly 29. (a) If an embryo containing more than
during this period. release the synthetic progesterone or 8 blastomeres (cells) is transferred into
progesterone-oestrogen combination uterus of female’s body then, it is
10. (c) Lactational amenorrhea is the for about 5 years. called as IUT (Intra Uterine Transfer).
absence of menstruation during It is also a method of IVF.
lactation. It is a natural contraception 22. (a) MTP (Medical Termination of
method in which the chances of Pregnancy) is considered as safe until 30. (d) IVF (In Vitro Fertilisation), AI
conception are almost nil in a Ist trimester (12 weeks) of the (Artificial Insemination) and in vivo
breastfeeding mother due to the pregnancy. It becomes more risky after fertilisation are all procedures of ART
absence of ovulation. This method is the Ist trimester period of pregnancy, as (Assisted Reproductive Technologies).
effective only up to a maximum period the foetus becomes intimately When the correction of infertility
of six months after childbirth. associated with the maternal tissue. related disorders is not possible
couples are advised to have children
11. (c) Spermicidal creams contain 24. (c) The other name for Sexually
through these processes.
chemicals, which kill the sperms. If they Transmitted Diseases (STDs) are
are used along with the barrier Venereal Diseases (VDs) or
Biology 25
CHAPTER 05
Heredity and Variation

‘Like begets like’ is an important and universal 2. Mendel’s Experiments
phenomenon of life. It means that living beings produce Mendel conducted his experiments on garden pea for
offsprings of their own kind. The branch of science seven years to investigate inheritance pattern. He had
which deals with the study of hereditary traits and applied statistical analysis and mathematical logic to
variations is termed as genetics. his experiments.
Inheritance is the process by which characters of traits The following contrasting traits were studied by Mendel
are passed from parent to their progeny, i.e. from one in pea.
generation to the next. It is the basis of heredity. Gene
is the unit of inheritance. Character Dominant Recessive
Variation is the degree by which progeny differs from Stem height Tall Dwarf
their parents.
Flower position Axial Terminal
1. Genetic Terminology
A. Gene or Factor is a structure located on chromosomes Pod colour Green Yellow
which transfers a hereditary character from one Pod shape Inflated Constricted
generation to another generation. It is the unit of DNA.
B. The alternative forms of genes for a single trait or Seed shape Round Wrinkled
character are called alleles, e.g. colour of flower (red Flower colour Purple White
and white),stem height (tall and dwarf).
Seed coat colour Yellow Green
C. Homozygous A diploid condition, in which both alleles
are same, e.g. TT, tt.
3. Laws of Mendel
D. Heterozygous A diploid condition, in which both alleles
On the basis of his observations, Mendel proposed
are different, e.g. Tt.
three general rules to consolidate his understanding of
E. Monohybrid Cross A cross in which only one pair of inheritance in monohybrid cross.
character is taken.
These laws are given below
F. Dihybrid Cross A cross in which two pairs of
A. Law of Dominance It states following rules
characters are taken.
(i) Characters are controlled by discrete units called
G. Reciprocal Cross A cross where sexes of parents are
factors.
reversed.
(ii) Factors occur in pairs.
H. Back Cross A cross between homozygous dominant
parent and heterozygous F1-hybrid is known as back (iii) In a pair of dissimilar factors, one member of the pair
cross. is dominant while the other is recessive.
I. Test Cross A cross between homozygous recessive B. Law of Segregation It states that the parents contain
parent and heterozygous F1-hybrid is known as test two alleles during gamete formation. The factors or
cross. By this cross, it can be identified that a plant is alleles of a pair segregate from each other, such that a
homozygous or heterozygous. gamete receives only one of the two factors. The
following table shows the phenotypic and genotypic
ratio(s) of a monohybrid cross for better understanding contributes a little to the phenotype, e.g. human
of the above two laws skin colour.
Generations/Ratio F1 F2 (v) Pleiotropy It is the phenomenon in which a single
gene may produce multiple or more than one
Phenotypic 1 3:1
phenotypic effects, e.g. sickle-cell anaemia, white
Genotypic 1 1:2:1 eye in Drosophila, Phenylketonuria (PKU).
C. Law of Independent Assortment It states that when 5. Chromosomal Theory of Inheritance
two pairs of traits are combined in a hybrid, It was proposed by Boveri and Sutton in 1902. It is
segregation of one pair of characters is independent of the fundamental unifying theory of genetics which
the other pair of characters at the time of gamete identifies chromosomes as the carriers of genetic
formation. It also gets randomly rearranged in the material.
offspring producing both parental and new
combinations of characters. The following table explains 6. Crossing Over
the law of independent assortment on the basis of The exchange of genetic material between non-sister
ratio(s) obtained through dihybrid cross. chromatids of homologous chromosomes is known as
crossing over.
Generations/Ratio F1 F2
Linkage and Recombination The physical association
Phenotypic 1 9:3:3:1 of two genes is called linkage while the generation of
Genotypic 1 1:2:2:4:1:2:1:2:1 non-parental gene combinations is called
recombination.
4. Deviations from Mendel’s Laws
All patterns of inheritance could not be explained on the
7. Sex-Determination
The establishment of sex through differential
basis of Mendel’s principles which are as follows
development in an individual at the time of zygote
(i) Incomplete Dominance It is a phenomenon in formation, is called sex-determination. There are
which phenotype of the F 1-hybrid offspring does not following types of sex-determination mechanisms
resemble any of the parent but is an intermediate observed in various organisms
between the expression of two alleles in their Male Heterogamety
homozygous state. Both phenotypic and genotypic n
XX-XO type is seen in insects like grasshopper, etc.
ratios is 1 : 2 : 1, e.g. flower colour in Mirabilis
It is an example of male heterogamety where males
jalapa.
have only one X-chromosome (called XO), whereas
(ii) Codominance It is a phenomenon in which two females have two X-chromosomes (XX).
alleles express themselves independently when n
XX-XY type is seen in insects like Drosophila
present together in an organism, e.g. ABO blood melanogaster and humans. Males have XY type
group in humans. chromosomes while females have XX type
(iii) Multiple Alleles More than two alternative forms (homomorphic) chromosomes.
(allele) of a gene occupying the same locus on a Female Heterogamety
chromosome in a population are known as multiple n
ZZ-ZW type is seen in birds, fowls and fishes. It is
alleles, e.g. ABO blood grouping. an example of female heterogamety because female
Human Blood Groups, their Genotype and Transfusion produces two different types of gametes.
Blood Antigen Antibody Can give Can take Gene type
n
ZZ-ZO type female is heterogametic (ZO) and male
groups in RBC in plasma blood to blood from is homogametic (ZZ), e.g. in butterflies and moths.
O (universal None a,b O, A, B, O I° I° Haplo-Diploidy is a sex-determination mechanism in
donor) AB which males develop from unfertilised eggs and are
A A b A, AB O, A IA I A or IA I° haploid. Females develop from fertilised eggs and are
diploid. It is common in insects like honeybee, wasps,
B B a B, AB O, B IB IB or IB I°
etc.
AB A or B None AB O, A, B, AB IA IB
(universal Note • On the basis of type of allosomes present in the
receiver) gamete, the parents can be of two types
(i) Homogametic produces similar gametes.
(iv) Polygenic Inheritance The inheritance of trait
(ii) Heterogametic produces different gametes.
controlled by multiple genes where each gene
Biology 27
8. Sex-Determination in Human chromosomes of a person are called autosomal

Males have two types of gametes, i.e. X and Y, while disorders and sex-linked disorders, respectively. It
females have only one type of gamete, i.e. XX. If an can be divided into the following
ovum gets fertilised with a sperm carrying X-chromosome, A. Mendelian Disorders These are determined by
the zygote develops into a female (XX). alteration or mutation in a single gene. These disorders
If an ovum fertilises with a sperm carrying can be recessive or dominant.
Y-chromosome then it will develop into a male (XY). Some diseases are described below
Hence, the type of sperm, which fertilises the ovum (i) Colour Blindness Person suffering from this
determines the sex of a child. disorder is not able to distinguish between red and
green colour. Gene controlling colour blindness is
9. Mutation located on X-chromosome and is recessive.
It is a sudden, stable and inheritable change in genetic
(ii) Haemophilia (bleeder's disease) Person suffering
material or DNA sequences of an organism. The
from this disorder is not able to form blood clots
organism which undergoes mutation is called mutant.
when hurt or wounded. The continuous bleeding
The factors, i.e. chemical and physical which induce
causes death of the person. This disorder is caused
mutations are called mutagens, e.g. UV-radiations, etc.
due to X-linked recessive gene.
The mutations are of following types
(iii) Sickle-cell Anaemia It is an autosomal linked
Mutation
recessive trait that can be transmitted from parents
Gene mutations Chromosomal mutations
to the offsprings, when both the partners are carrier
for the gene (heterozygous). In this, the substitution
Point mutation Frameshift Structural Numerical of valine by glutamic acid changes the shape of the
mutation variation aberrations variations RBCs to a sickle like structure.
(iv) Phenylketonuria (PKU) is an inborn error
Aneuploidy Polyploidy metabolism, which is inherited as an autosomal
Monosomy Trisomy recessive trait. The affected individual lacks the
Autoploidy Allopolyploidy
enzyme that converts phenylalanine to tyrosine. Its
gene is associated with the 12th chromosome.
l
Point mutation arises due to change in single base pair of
(v) Thalassemia is an autosomal recessive disease,
DNA.
which occurs due to either mutation or deletion of
l
Frameshift mutation refers to deletions and genes. It results in reduced rate of synthesis of one
insertions of base pairs in DNA. of the globin chains ( α or β) of haemoglobin.
l
The loss or gain of a segment of DNA, results B. Chromosomal Disorders These are caused by the
in structural alteration in chromosomes absence, excess or abnormal arrangement of one or
because genes are located on the chromosomes. more chromosomes. Some of the disorders are
l
When the members of a homologous pair of described below
chromosomes fail to segregate during meiosis, (i) Down’s Syndrome or Mongolism It is caused by
aneuploidy occurs, i.e. loss or gain of one or more the presence of an extra copy of chromosome
chromosomes. Due to this, there may be monosomy, number 21 in autosomes, i.e. trisomy. An individual
i.e. lack of one chromosome of normal complement suffering from Down's syndrome is short statured,
or trisomy, i.e. three instead of the normal two have furrowed tongue, slow motor and mental
chromosomes. development.
l
Polyploidy occurs when there is failure of cytokinesis (ii) Turner's Syndrome It is caused by the absence of
after telophase stage of cell division. It results in an one X-chromosome in females. The females have 45
increase in a whole set of chromosomes in an (44+X) chromosomes. Females are sterile with less
organism. developed uterus, short height and webbed neck
are the symptoms.
10. Pedigree Analysis (iii) Klinefelter's Syndrome It is due to the presence of an
The analysis of traits in several generations of a human extra copy of X-chromosome in males like 44+XXY,
family in the form of a family tree or a diagram is 44+XXXY, etc. The affected individuals are
known as pedigree analysis. phenotypically males. The symptoms include
11. Genetic Disorders underdeveloped testes, presence of breast-like
structures, little growth of hair on face and body,
The disorders or illness which are caused by one
sterility (no sperm formation), mental retardedness,
or more abnormalities in autosomes or sex
etc.
Practice Questions
1. Genetics is the branch of biology which deals with 10. How did Mendel obtained recessive (dwarf) character in
(a) variation (b) inheritance F2 -generation?
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) study of characters (a) By self-pollinating F1 (b) By self-pollinating F2
(c) By cross-pollinating F1 (d) By cross-pollinating F2
2. The tendency of offspring to differ from their parents is
called 11. Mendel crossed tall and dwarf plants. In F2 -generation both
(a) variation (b) heredity the tall and dwarf plants were produced. This shows
(c) inheritance (d) resemblance (a) blending of characters
(b) atavism
3. Mendel investigated characters in garden pea plant
manifested in two traits which were (c) non-blending of characters
(d) intermediate characters
(a) similar (b) non-zygote
(c) identical (d) opposite 12. During his experiments, Mendel used the term factor for
4. A true breeding line is characterised by the presence of (a) genes (b) traits (c) characters (d) qualities
(a) stable trait inheritance due to the continuous self- 13. Choose the incorrect match.
pollination (a) Phenotype – Physical appearance of an organism
(b) varying traits in different generations due to the cross
(b) Genotype – Expressed genes
pollination
(c) Homozygous – Identical alleles of a gene present at
(c) single trait in all generations due to allogamy
the same locus
(d) varying trait inheritance in a single generation due to
(d) Heterozygous – Genes of an allelic pair are not same
geitonogamy
14. The phenotypic ratio of a monohybrid cross in F2 -generation
5. Out of 7 contrasting trait pairs selected by Mendel, how
many traits were dominant and recessive? is
(a) 7 and 7 (b) 8 and 6 (a) 3 : 1 (b) 1 : 2 : 1
(c) 6 and 8 (d) 5 and 9 (c) 2 : 1 : 1 (d) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1
6. Which is correct about traits choosen by Mendel for his 15. The genotypic ratio of a monohybrid cross in F2 -generation
experiment on pea plant? is
(a) Terminal pod was dominant (a) 3 : 1 (b) 1 : 2 : 1
(b) Constricted pod was dominant (c) 2 : 1 : 1 (d) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1
(c) Green coloured pod was dominant
16. Graphical representation to calculate the probability of all
(d) Tall plants were recessive
possible genotype of an offspring in genetic cross is called
7. The first hybrid progeny obtained by Mendel were called (a) Bunett square (b) Morgan square
(a) F1 -progeny (b) F 0 -progeny (c) Punnett square (d) Mendel square
(c) F 2 -progeny (d) F 3 -progeny
17. When alleles of two contrasting characters are present
8. F1 -progeny of a cross between pure tall and dwarf plant is together and one of the character expresses itself during the
always cross while the other remains hidden gives the
(a) tall (a) law of purity of gametes
(b) short (b) law of segregation
(c) intermediate (c) law of dominance
(d) None of these (d) law of independent assortment
9. The Mendel crossed true breeding tall and dwarf plant 18. 3:1 ratio in F2 -generation is explained by
varieties in his experiment. Tallness was the dominant
character and dwarfness was recessive. The recessive (a) law of partial dominance
character appeared in (b) law of dominance
(a) F1 (b) F 2 (c) law of incomplete dominance
(c) F3 (d) F2 and F 3 (d) law of purity of gametes
Biology 29
19. The law of dominance is applicable in inheritance of 26. Which of the following option (s) is/are correct for starch
(a) seed colour in pea synthesis in pea seeds controlled by single gene which has
two allelic forms B and b?
(b) flower colour in Mirabilis jalapa
(c) starch grain size in pea (a) BB is round seed with large starch synthesis
(d) roan coat colour in cattles (b) bb is wrinkled seed with large starch synthesis
(c) Bb is round seed with less starch synthesis
20. The law based on fact that the characters do not show any (d) All of the above
blending and both the characters are recovered as such in
F2 -generation although one character was absent in 27. The types of gametes formed by the genotype RrYy are
F1 -progeny, is (a) RY, Ry, rY, ry (b) RY, Ry, ry, ry
(a) law of purity of gametes (c) Ry, Ry, Yy, ry (d) Rr, RR, Yy, YY
(b) law of independent assortment
(c) law of incomplete dominance 28. In Mendel’s experiments with garden pea, round seed shape
(RR) was dominant over wrinkled seeds (rr) and yellow
(d) law of dominance
colour (YY) was dominant over green colour (yy). What are
21. Theoretically in incomplete dominance one allele the expected phenotypes in the F1 -generation of the cross
functions as normal, while another allele may function as RRYY ´ rryy?
(a) normal allele (a) Only round seeds with yellow cotyledons
(b) non-functional allele (b) Only wrinkled seeds with yellow cotyledons
(c) normal but less efficient allele (c) Only wrinkled seeds with green cotyledons
(d) All of the above (d) Round seeds with yellow cotyledons and wrinkled seeds
with yellow cotyledons
22. Incomplete dominance is similar to codominance in having
identical 29. In cross between pure breeding pea plants having yellow
(a) phenotypic ratio round (YYRR) and green wrinkled (yyrr) seeds, find out the
(b) genotypic ratio total seeds (plants) having yellow colour in F2 -generation.
(c) Both (a) and (b) (a) 12 (b) 10 (c) 14 (d) 11
(d) None of the above 30. In a cross between plants having yellow round (YYRR) and
23. The recessive trait in case of incomplete dominance is seen green wrinkled (yyrr) seeds, what will be the ratio between
due to the seeds having yellow and green seed colour?
(a) non-functional enzyme produced by modified gene (a) 3 : 2 (b) 3 : 1 (c) 9 : 7 (d) 7 : 9
(b) absence of any enzyme that may otherwise be 31. Mendel’s result on inheritance of characters were
produced by modified gene rediscovered by
(c) normal or less efficient enzyme produced by recessive (a) de Vries (b) Correns
allele
(c) von Tschermak (d) All of these
32. The chromosomes as well as genes occur in pair and the two
24. In human blood group inheritance alleles of a gene pair are located on
(a) I A and I B are codominant (a) homologous chromosomes
(b) I A and I B are dominant over i (b) non-homologous chromosomes
(c) I A is dominant over I B (c) single chromosome
(d) Both (a) and (b) (d) All of the above
25. If two persons with ‘AB’ blood group marry and have 33. Who proposed the chromosomal theory of inheritance?
sufficiently large number of children, these children could (a) Sutton and Mendel (b) Boveri and Morgan
be classified as ‘A’ blood group : ‘AB’ blood group : ‘B’ (c) Morgan and Mendel (d) Sutton and Boveri
blood group in 1 : 2 : 1 ratio. Modern technique of protein
electrophoresis reveals presence of both ‘A’ and ‘B’ type 34. In Morgan’s experiment, white and yellow genes were linked
proteins in ‘AB’ blood group individuals. This is an tightly, while white and miniature wing were loosely linked.
example of The per cent recombination shown by these genes were
(a) codominance (a) 50% each
(b) incomplete dominance (b) 72% and 8.3%, respectively
(c) partial dominance (c) 0.3% and 53%, respectively
(d) complete dominance (d) 1.3% and 37.2%, respectively
35. Polygenic traits are controlled by 41. Sickle-cell anaemia is a classical example of
(a) one gene (b) two genes (a) frame-shift mutation
(c) three or more genes (d) mutant genes (b) point mutation
36. Phenylketonuria in human (d) None of the above
(a) manifests through phenotypic expressions
(b) is characterised by mental retardation 42. Colour blindness in humans
(c) leads to hair reduction and skin pigmentation (a) results in defect in either red or green cone of eyes
(d) All of the above (b) is caused due to the mutation in gene found on
X-chromosome
37. Which one of the following pairs is wrongly matched?
(c) affects males more frequently than females
(a) XO type of sex-determination – Grasshopper
(b) ABO blood grouping – Codominance
(c) Starch synthesis in pea – Multiple allele 43. In haemophilia, the affected protein is a part of a cascade
(d) TH Morgan – Linkage of protein which is involved in the
(a) formation of RBCs
38. Choose the incorrect pair with respect to sex determination
(b) formation of WBCs and platelets
in different organisms.
(c) coagulation of blood
(a) Grasshopper = XO type
(d) anticoagulation
(b) Birds = ZZ-ZW type
(c) Drosophila = XX-XO type 44. In sickle-cell anaemia,
(d) Human = XX-XY type (a) Both parents are heterozygous carriers, but are
unaffected
39. A human male contains the karyotype of … A… and a human
female has …B… chromosomes. (b) Single pair of allele controls the disease
(c) Only HbsHbs show diseased phenotype
A B A B
(a) 44 + XX 44 + XY (b) 44 + XY 44 + XX
(c) 44 + XO 44 + XX (d) 44 + XX 44 + XO 45. Thalassemia in humans
40. If there are four different types of nitrogenous bases (A, T, G (a) is an autosome linked recessive blood disorder
and C) then how many different types of transitions and (b) can transmit from parents to offspring when both
transversion are possible? parents are unaffected carriers (heterozygous)
(a) Transition = 8, Transversion = 4 (c) caused due to the mutation or deletion of one of the
(b) Transition = 4, Transversion = 4 a or b-globin chain
(c) Transition = 8, Transversion = 4 (d) All of the above
(d) Transition = 4, Transversion = 8
ANSWERS
1. (c) 2. (a) 3. (d) 4. (a) 5. (a) 6. (b) 7. (a) 8. (a) 9. (b) 10. (a)
11. (c) 12. (a) 13. (b) 14. (a) 15. (b) 16. (c) 17. (c) 18. (b) 19. (a) 20. (a)
21. (d) 22. (c) 23. (d) 24. (d) 25. (a) 26. (a) 27. (a) 28. (a) 29. (a) 30. (a)
31. (d) 32. (a) 33. (d) 34. (d) 35. (c) 36. (d) 37. (c) 38. (c) 39. (b) 40. (d)
41. (b) 42. (d) 43. (c) 44. (d) 45. (d)
Biology 31

11. (c) In Mendel’s experiment dominant and recessive 27. (a) The formula to determine the number of gametes is
traits were expressed or appeared separately. This shows that 2 n = 2( 2) = 4
there was no mixing of characters, thus Thus, RrYy would produce 4 gametes of the types RY, Ry, rY,
non-blending of character in F2-generations is observed. ry.
13. (b) Option (b) is incorrect and can be corrected as 28. (a) When plants bearing round yellow (RRYY) seeds are
The genetic composition of an organism, with respect to one or crossed with plants bearing and wrinkled green (rryy) seeds, all
more characters whether the gene is expressed or not is called the plants in F1-generation will have yellow round seeds. It can
genotype. be depicted by the cross given below
18. (b) 3:1 ratio in F2-generation can be explained by the law of % &
RRYY rryy
dominance. It states that only dominant allele shows its effect Parents x
(Round, yellow) (Wrinkled, green)
even in the heterozygous condition and masks the effect of
recessive allele. In the given ratio, 3 represents the dominant
phenotype, while 1 represents the recessive phenotype. Gametes RY ry
20. (a) Law of purity of gametes states that the characters which
were hidden or masked in F1 progeny get recovered in the F1-generation RrYy
progeny of F2-generation. (Round, Yellow)
21. (d) In incomplete dominance, the two genes of an 29. (a) A cross between pure yellow round seeded plants and pure
allelomorphic pair are not related as dominant or recessive but green wrinkled seeded plants is shown below
each of them express themselves partially. In this phenomenon, Parents
one allele may function normally and the other may either
(Round yellow) (Wrinkled green)
function normally, may be non-functional or may perform rryy
RRYY
normally, but with less efficiency. This occurs due to some
changes in the allele which modifies the information present in
Gametes RY ry
×
it. Thus, option (d) is correct.
22. (c) Both codominance and incomplete dominance give an
identical genotypic and phenotypic ratio of 1 : 2 : 1. F1-generation (Round yellow)
RrYy
Codominance and incomplete dominance differ in the fact that
in codominance both the alleles are dominant and express Selfing
themselves at the same time. But in incomplete dominance, the
two alleles are neither dominant nor recessive to each other. RY RY
25. (a) AB blood group is characterised by the presence of both Gametes Gametes
A B rY RRYY rY
antigen A and B, i.e. I and I over the surface of RBCs.
Phenotype AB Ry Ry
RrYY RrYY
¯
Genotype IAIB ry
RRYy RRYy
ry
rrYY
¯
Antigen A + Antigen B RrYy RrYy RrYy RrYy
Here, both alleles are able to express themselves forming
F2-generation
antigens A and B. This is called as codominance, a rrYy RRyy rrYy
phenomenon in which both the alleles in a heterozygote are
expressed. Rryy Rryy
26. (a) Option (a) is correct. This can be explained as occasionally a rryy
single gene product may produce more than one effect. Like in
Phenotypic ratio
starch synthesis in pea seeds controlled by one gene having two Round yellow : Round green : Wrinkled yellow : Wrinkled green
alleles (B and b). Thus, the phenotype and genotype expressed 9 : 3 : 3 : 1
are
l
BB–round seed, large starch synthesis. Genotypic 1 (RRYY) : 2 (RRYy) : 2 (RrYY) : 4 (RrYy) : 1 (RRyy)
ratio 2 (Rryy) : 1 (rrYY) : 2 (rrYy) : 1(rryy)
l
bb–wrinkled seed, less starch synthesis.
l
Bb–round seed, intermediate starch synthesis. 31. (d) In 1900, three scientists (de Vries, Correns and von
Thus, if we take size as a phenotype, allele B shows complete Tschermak) independently rediscovered Mendel’s results on the
dominance over ‘b’, but if we take starch synthesis as a inheritance of characters. Also, by this time due to
phenotype, allele B and b shows incomplete dominance. advancements in microscopy that were taking place, scientists
were able to carefully observe cell In Drosophila, XX-XY type of

43. (c) Haemophilia is a sex-linked
division. sex-determination is seen, i.e. same as
recessive disease, which shows its
This led to the discovery of structures in humans.
transmission from unaffected carrier
the nucleus that appeared to double Rest of the pairs are correct. female to some of the male progeny
and divide just before each cell has been widely studied. In this
40. (d) Transition occurs when a purine
division. disease, a single protein that is a part
base (A or G) is replaced by another
33. (d) Sutton and Boveri proposed the purine base. Transversion occurs when of the cascade of proteins involved in
chromosomal theory of inheritance. In a purine base is substituted by a the clotting of blood is affected. Due
1902, the chromosomal movement pyrimidine base or vice-versa. to this, in an affected individual, a
during meiosis was worked out. Walter Thus, the number of possible transitions simple cut will result in non-stop
Sutton and Theodore Boveri stated that and transversions among the four bases bleeding.
pairing and separation of a pair of (A, T, G, C) are 4 and 8, respectivley 45. (d) Thalassemia is also an autosome
chromosomes would lead to the and can be represented by the figure linked recessive blood disease
segregation of a pair of factors they given below transmitted from parents to the
carried. They united the knowledge of offspring when both the partners are
T
chromosomal segregation with unaffected carrier for the gene (or
1 3
Mendelian principles and called it heterozygous). The defect could be
chromosomal theory of inheritance. 2 1 2 4 due to either mutation or deletion
37. (c) In the given pairs, option (c) is 4 which ultimately results in reduced
A G rate of synthesis of one of the globin
wrongly matched. It can be corrected as 3
Starch synthesis in pea is an example of chains (a and b-chains) that make up
8
pleiotropy. 6
7
haemoglobin. This causes the
5 formation of abnormal haemoglobin
Rest of the pairs are correctly matched.
C molecules resulting into anaemia
38. (c) Option (c) contains the incorrect (Transition → and Transversion ) which is characteristic of the disease.
pair. It can be corrected as
Biology 33
CHAPTER 06
Molecular Basis of
Inheritance
1. Nucleic Acids n
Although both RNA and DNA can act as genetic
These are long polymers of nucleotides. Two types of material, but DNA being chemically and structurally
nucleic acids are found in living systems, i.e. RNA and more stable is a better choice.
DNA. n
RNA was the first to evolve and DNA was derived
from RNA.
2. Search for Genetic Material
In DNA, adenine pairs with thymine through two
Frederick Griffith, carried out a series of experiments with
H-bonds, while the guanine pairs with cytosine through
Streptococcus pneumoniae and discovered the genetic
three H-bonds. This makes one strand complementary
material as the transforming principle.
to the other.
Avery, Macleod and McCarty worked to determine the
biochemical nature of Griffith’s transforming principle. S A T S
They proved that DNA is the hereditary P P
material. Hershey-Chase experiment with bacteriophage S G S
C
porved that DNA is the genetic material that is passed
from one generation to the next. Polynucleotide chain
(i) DNA acts as the genetic material in most organisms.
It is a long polymer of deoxyribonucleotides. It codes
3. Central Dogma of Molecular Biology
Francis Crick proposed the ‘Central dogma’ in
for all the metabolic processes of life.
molecular biology which states that genetic information
(ii) RNA helps in the transfer and expression of flows in the following manner.
information. It functions as messenger RNA (mRNA)
for the translation of proteins. Transcription
Replication DNA mRNA
(iii) Nucleoside and nucleotide A nucleoside is formed Translation
when a nitrogenous base is linked to a pentose
Protein
sugar through N-glycosidic linkage. A nucleotide is
the basic unit of DNA and RNA, composed of a 4. Genetic Material in Prokaryotic
nitrogenous base, a pentose sugar and a phosphate and Eukaryotic Cells
group. (i) In prokaryotic cells, DNA (negatively charged) is
(iv) Nitrogenous bases are of two types, i.e. purines held together with some proteins (positively
(adenine, guanine) and pyrimidines (cytosine, uracil, charged) in a region known as nucleoid.
thymine). (ii) In eukaryotic cells, there is a set of positively
RNA contains uracil in place of thymine. charged proteins called histones which are
Two types of sugars are present in RNA and DNA, i.e. ribose organised to form a unit of eight molecules called
and deoxyribose, respectively. histone octamer. The negatively charged DNA is
n
RNA functions as an adapter, structural and a wrapped around the positively charged histone
catalytic molecule. octamer to form a structure called nucleosome
which is the unit of compaction.
n
RNA also acts as a genetic material in some viruses.
5. Packaging of Chromatin (ii) In eukaryotes, the genes are split. The coding
The packaging of chromatin at higher level requires sequences, i.e. exons are interrupted by non-coding
additional set of proteins that are collectively called as sequences, i.e. introns. Introns are removed and
Non-Histone Chromosomal (NHC) proteins. exons are joined together to produce functional
RNA. This is called splicing. A transcription unit in
6. Euchromatin and Heterochromatin DNA has three regions, i.e. a promoter, the structural
Some regions of chromatin which are loosely packed gene and a terminator.
(stain light) are called euchromatin (active chromatin).
In some regions, chromatin is densely packed (stain 9. Post Transcriptional Modifications
dark), it is called heterochromatin (inactive chromatin). Heteronuclear RNA (hnRNA) The hnRNA undergoes
two additional processes
7. Replication of DNA (i) Capping, where methyl guanosine triphosphate, is
The DNA replicates semiconservatively. According to added to the 5 ′ end of hnRNA.
this scheme, the two strands of double-helix would
(ii) Tailing, where adenylate residues (200-300) are
separate and act as a template for the synthesis of
added at 3 ′ end in a template independent manner.
new complementary strands. The process is guided by
complementary H-bonding. The process is catalysed by 10. Genetic Code
various sets of enzymes which are as follows It is the relationship between the sequence of
(i) DNA dependent DNA polymerase, uses DNA nucleotides on mRNA and the sequence of amino acids
template to catalyse the polymerisation of in the polypeptide.
deoxynucleotides. (i) Artificial synthesis of genetic code Dr. Har Gobind
(ii) DNA helicase, unwinds DNA strand for Khorana, developed a chemical method for the
the formation of a replication fork. synthesis of RNA molecule with defined base
(iii) DNA ligase, facilitates the joining of DNA strands combination to develop a genetic code.
together by catalysing the formation of (ii) Important features of genetic code It has following
phosphodiester bond. features
On 3′ → 5′ strand, replication is continuous and on 5′ → 3′ l
Genetic code is unambiguous and specific, i.e. one
strand, it is discontinuous. DNA replication begins at a codon codes for only one amino acid.
specific and fixed position of DNA molecule known as l
Codon is triplet and degenerate.
origin of replication. l
The genetic code is universal, i.e. one
8. Types of RNA codon codes for the same amino acid in all
There are following three types of RNA, i.e. messenger organisms.
RNA ( mRNA) which provides the template for transcription, l
AUG codon has dual function, i.e. it codes for the
transfer RNA (tRNA), which brings amino acids and reads amino acid methionine (met) and also acts as an
the genetic code and ribosomal RNA ( rRNA), which plays initiation codon.
structural and catalytic role during translation. l
Three codons do not code for any amino acid, hence
they function as stop codon, e.g. UAA, UGA, UAG.
Note tRNA is an adapter molecule which can read the code on
one end and on the other end could bind to the specific 11. Translation
amino acid. tRNA has five loops, i.e. anticodon loop, amino
The process of polymerisation of amino acids to form a
acid acceptor end, T-loop, D-loop and variable loop. It is a
clover leaf-shaped molecule.
polypeptide is known as translation. In this process,
proteins are synthesised from mRNA with the help of
Transcription in Eukaryotes and Prokaryotes ribosomes.
Transcription is the process of copying genetic (i) Ribosome exists as two subunits in inactive state,
information from one strand of the DNA into RNA. In i.e. small subunit and large subunit.
this only a segment of DNA or only one out of the two (ii) Different phases of translation are
strands is copied into RNA. l
Initiation of polypeptide synthesis
(i) In prokaryotes, like bacteria, the transcribed mRNA l
Elongation of polypeptide chain
is functional, so it can be directly translated.
l
Termination of polypeptide synthesis
Biology 35
12. Gene Expression in Prokaryotes l

The operon is regulated by the amount of
and Eukaryotes lactose in the medium, where the bacteria
Regulation of gene expression occurs at various levels. are grown. Therefore, this regulation can also
Gene expression results in the formation of a polypeptide. be viewed as regulation of enzyme synthesis
by its substrate.
(i) In prokaryotes, it is regulated by the rate of initiation of
transcription and in eukaryotes, regulation is achieved at 13. Human Genome Project
the following four levels It was a mega project of 13 years. It was aimed to
l
Transcriptional level (formation of primary transcript). sequence every base in human genome. This
l
Processing level (regulation of splicing). project has yielded a lot of new information. Many
l
Transport of mRNA from nucleus to the cytoplasm. new areas and avenues have opened up as a
l
Translational level. consequence of this project.
(ii) Operon is a transcriptionally regulated system, where a 14. Rice Genome Project
polycistronic structural gene is regulated by a common Rice was the first crop whose genome was
promoter and regulatory genes, e.g. lac (lactose) sequenced. It was a project of 10 years. It provided
operon, ara (arabinose) operon, his (histidine) operon, an excellent opportunity to illustrate the impact on
val (valine) operon, etc. plant biology and breeding. The knowledge of
Lac operon was proposed by Francois Jacob and genetic code of rice helps breeders to develop
Jacque Monod. strains of the crop with specific characteristics (e.g.
(iii) Lac operon is the prototype (inducible) operon in stress tolerance, disease resistance or high yield).
bacteria, which codes for genes responsible for the
metabolism of lactose. 15. DNA Fingerprinting
In the absence of inducer
It is a technique used to find out variations in
individuals of a population at DNA level. It works on
p i p o z y a the principle of polymorphism in DNA sequences. It
has immense applications in the field of forensic
Repressor binds to the operator region science, genetic biodiversity, evolutionary biology
Repressor mRNA (o) and prevents RNA polymerase from and kinship relationships.
transcribing the operon. (The technique has the following steps)
Repressor In the presence of inducer (i) DNA isolation
p i p o z y a (ii) Amplification
Transcription (iii) Separation of DNA fragments by electrophoresis
Repressor mRNA lac mRNA
Translation (iv) Blotting (transfer of the separated DNA
β -galactosidase Permease Transacetylase fragments to synthetic membranes like
Inducer nylon or nitrocellulose)
(v) Hybridisation
(Inactive repressor) (vi) Autoradiography.
The lac Operon
Practice Questions
1. The length of DNA usually depends on (c) Adenine forms three hydrogen bonds with thymine and
(a) position of nucleotides (b) number of nucleotides guanine forms two hydrogen bonds with cytosine
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of the above (d) The plane of one base pair stacks over the other in
double helix in addition to H-bond to confer extra
2. Find the incorrect match. statbility to helical structure
(a) A bacteriophage (f ´ 174) –5386 nucleotides 9. In prokaryotes (such as E. coli) ...A... nucleus is not present,
(b) Bacteriophage lamda – 48502 base pairs the DNA is not scattered throughout the cell. DNA is ...B...
(c) E. coli – 4.6 ´ 10 6 bp charged and holded by the ...C... charged proteins. This
(d) Haploid content of human DNA – 3.3 ´ 106 bp structure in prokaryotes is called ...D... .
3. Nitrogenous bases are linked to sugar by Choose the correct option for A, B, C and D.
(a) hydrogen bond (b) phosphodiester bond (a) A–undefined, B–negatively, C–positively, D–nucleoid
(c) N-glycosidic bond (d) O-glycosidic bond (b) A–undefined, B–negatively, C–positively, D–nucleus
(c) A–defined, B–negatively, C–positively, D–nucleoid
4. When a phosphate group is linked to ...A... group of (d) A–defined, B–positively, C–negatively, D–nucleoid
nucleoside through ...B... bond, a corresponding ...C... is
formed. 10. In the given diagram, identify A, B and C.
Choose the correct option for A, B and C.
A B
(a) A–5¢ OH, B–phosphodiester bond, C–nucleotide
(b) A–3¢ OH, B–phosphodiester bond, C–nucleotide
(c) A–2¢ OH, B–phosphodiester bond, C–nucleotide
(d) A–5¢ OH, B–phosphodiester bond, C–nucleoside C
5. Choose the correct option.

(a) Pyrimidines include adenine and guanine
(b) Pyrimidines include cytosine, uracil and thymine Core of histone molecules
(c) Purines include adenine and thymine
(d) Purines include guanine and cytosine (a) A–DNA, B–H1 histone, C–Histone octamer
(b) A–RNA, B–H1 histone, C–Histone octamer
6. A polymer or a polynucleotide chain has at one end a free (c) A–DNA, B–H1 histone, C–Histone tetramer
........A....... at 5¢ end of sugar, similarly at the other end of
(d) A–RNA, B–H1 histone, C–Histone tetramer
the polymer the sugar has a free .....B..... of 3¢ group.
(a) A – Phosphate moiety, B – OH 11. Lightly stained part of chromatin which remains loosely
(b) A – OH, B – Phosphate moiety packed and is transcriptionally active named as
(c) A – COOH, B – Phosphate moiety (a) euchromatin (b) heterochromatin
(d) A – Phosphate moiety, B–COOH (c) chromatosome (d) chromonemata
7. Choose the incorrect option. 12. What was unique in Griffith’s experiments?
(a) Friedrich Miescher in 1869 identified DNA as an acidic (a) DNA was found to be the genetic material
substance and named it nuclein (b) RNA was found to be the genetic material
(b) Erwin Chargaff said, the ratio between A and T and (c) Something from dead organisms could change the
G and C of dsDNA are constant and equals one living cells
(c) The two strands of dsDNA are complementary to each (d) Viruses can live in bacteria
other
(d) None of the above 13. Isotopes used by Hershey and Chase were
32
(a) P and 35S (b) 35
P and 32S
8. Which of the following is not the correct salient feature of (c) 34
P and 31S (d) 30
P and 32S
double-helix structure of DNA?
(a) Two polynucleotide chains have backbone of sugar and 14. Hershey and Chase concluded that viral infecting agent in
phosphate and bases project inside their experiment was
(b) Two chains have antiparallel polarity, i.e. one is (a) Protein (b) DNA
5¢ ® 3¢ and other is 3¢ ® 5¢ (c) RNA (d) Both (b) and (c)
Biology 37
15. RNA is the genetic material in 22. Deoxyribonucleoside triphosphate serve dual purposes. The
(a) All bacteria purposes are
(b) Tobacco Mosaic Viruses (TMV) (a) act as substrate and decrease reaction rate
(c) QB bacteriophage (b) provide energy for polymerisation and act as substrate
(d) Both (b) and (c) (c) decrease reaction rate and provide energy for
polymerisation
16. Who experimentally proved the semiconservative mode of (d) Synthesise RNA primer and decrease reaction rate
DNA replication?
(a) Mathew Meselson (b) Franklin Stahl 23. Why both the strands of DNA are not copied during
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Watson and Crick transcription?
(a) Because RNA molecule with different sequences will be
17. In Meselson and Stahl’s experiment (1958), DNA extracted formed
from the culture one generation after the transfer from 15 N (b) Because RNA molecule with same sequences will be
to 14 N medium had a hybrid (or intermediate) density. formed
Why? (c) Because RNA molecule with identical sequences will
be formed
(a) Because the generation time of E. coli (culture) was
(d) Because DNA molecule with different sequences will be
about 20 minutes
formed
(b) Because it would take 20 minutes for RNA replication
(c) Because it would take 20 minutes for replication of 24. In given diagram find out
DNA to RNA (transcription) Transcription start site
(d) Because it would take 20 minutes for translation RNA
5 1
to protein 4 2
3′ 5′
18. Similar experiments like Meselson and Stahl was performed
by Taylor in 1958. The experimental organism of Taylor 5′ 3′
3
was
A. Promoter site B. Structural gene
(a) Vicia faba (b) Fungi (c) E. coli (d) Protista
C. Terminator site D. Template strand
19. For long DNA molecules, the two strands of DNA cannot be E. Coding strand
separated in its entire length due to the requirement of Codes
(a) enzymes A B C D E
(b) high energy (a) 5 1 4 2 3
(c) RNA (b) 5 1 4 3 2
(d) phosphate and nucleotide (c) 5 4 1 2 3
(d) 5 4 1 3 2
20. DNA-dependent DNA polymerases catalyses polymerisation
in which direction? 25. In bacteria, which enzyme catalyses the transcription of all
(a) 3¢ ® 5¢ (b) 5¢ ® 2¢ (c) 5¢ ® 3¢ (d) 2¢ ® 5¢ types of RNA (mRNA, tRNA and rRNA)?
(a) DNA-dependent RNA polymerase
21. Identify A, B and C strands.
(b) DNA-dependent DNA polymerase
5′ 3′ (c) RNA-dependent RNA polymerase
(d) RNA-dependent DNA polymerase
C
26. Name the nucleotide added to 5¢ end of hnRNA in capping.
5′ (a) Ethyl cytosine triphosphate
3′
A B (b) Ethyl guanosine triphosphate
Newly (c) Methyl guanosine triphosphate
3′5′ synthesised 5′
strands 3′ (d) Methyl cytosine triphosphate
(a) A–Continuous strand, B–Discontinuous strand, 27. Choose the correct option.
C–Template strand (a) Splicing represent the dominance of RNA world
(b) A–Leading strand, B–Lagging strand, C–Parental (b) The presence of introns is reminiscent of antiquity
strand (c) Split gene arrangements represent an ancient feature
(c) A– 5 ¢-3¢ strand, B– 3¢-5 ¢ strand, C–Parental strand of the genome
(d) All of the above (d) All of the above
28. Codons are non-ambiguous, which means that one codon (c) A–translational initiation, B–RNA polymerase,
codes for C–accessory
(a) more than one amino acid (d) A–DNA replication, B–RNA polymerase, C–accessory
(b) two amino acids 36. Positively regulatory proteins are called
(c) Only one amino acid (a) activator (b) repressors
(d) non-sense amino acid (c) necessary proteins (d) accessory proteins
29. Degeneracy refers to 37. Lactose is a substrate for
(a) one amino acid has more than one code triplet (a) galactosidase (b) a-galactosidase
(b) one amino acid has only one code triplet (c) b-galactosidase (d) g-galactosidase
(c) codons which specify the same amino acids differ only
in the third base of the triplet 38. Lactose is transported into cells through
(d) Both (a) and (c) (a) b-galactosidase (b) permease
(c) transacetylase (d) transferase
30. Choose the incorrect option for tRNA molecule.
(a) It has an anticodon loop that has bases 39. Why glucose and galactose cannot act as an inducer for lac
complementary to the code operon?
(b) It has an amino acid acceptor end to which it binds to (a) Because they cannot bind with the repressor
amino acids (b) Because they can bind with the repressor
(c) tRNA are not specific for each amino acid (c) Because they can bind with the operator
(d) tRNA looks like a clover leaf (d) Because they can bind with the regulator
31. The process of polymerisation of amino acids to form a 40. Which of the following option is true for Human Genome
polypeptide is Project (HGP)?
(a) transcription (b) replication (a) It was launched in the year 1990 and was called mega
(c) translation (d) polymerisation project
(b) Total estimated cost of the project would be 9 billion
32. Which among the following process occur(s) during US dollars
charging or aminoacylation of tRNA?
(c) It aims to identify all 20000-25000 genes in human
(a) Activation of amino acids in the presence of ATP DNA
(b) Linking of amino acids to their cognate tRNA (d) All of the above
(d) None of the above 41. Identify the incorrect pair.
(a) Expressed sequence tags — Genes that are express as
33. UTRs present on mRNA refer to RNA
(a) Untranscribed regions at both 5¢ end and 3¢ end (b) Sequence annotation — Sequencing genome with
(b) Untranslated regions at 5¢ end coding sequences
(c) Untranslated regions at both 5¢ end and 3¢ end (c) Automated DNA sequences — Work on the principle
(d) Untranslated regions at 3¢ end developed by Frederick
34. Termination of protein synthesis or translation requires Sanger
(a) Both stop signal and starting codon
(b) Both starting codon and release factor 42. DNA fingerprinting involves identifying the differences in
(c) Both release factor and stop codon some specific regions in DNA sequence called
(d) GUG and AUG codon (a) non-repetitive DNA
(b) coding DNA
35. In prokaryotes, control of the rate of ...A... is the (c) non-coding DNA
pre-dominant site for the control of gene expression. In a
(d) repetitive DNA
transcription unit, the activity of ...B... at a given promoter is
in turn regulated by interaction with ...C... proteins, which 43. Alec Jeffreys used a satellite DNA as probe that shows very
affects its ability to recognise the start sites. high degree of polymorphism. It was called as
Complete the statement filling the correct options in given
(a) Short Number of Tandem Repeats (SNTRs)
blanks.
(b) Large Number of Tandem Repeats (LNTRs)
(a) A–RNA replication, B–DNA polymerase, C–accessory
(c) Variable Number of Tandem Repeats (VNTRs)
(b) A–transcriptional initiation, B–RNA polymerase,
C–accessory
Biology 39
ANSWERS
1. (b) 2. (d) 3. (c) 4. (a) 5. (b) 6. (a) 7. (d) 8. (c) 9. (c) 10. (a)
11. (a) 12. (c) 13. (a) 14. (b) 15. (d) 16. (c) 17. (a) 18. (a) 19. (b) 20. (c)
21. (a) 22. (b) 23. (a) 24. (c) 25. (a) 26. (c) 27. (d) 28. (c) 29. (d) 30. (c)
31. (c) 32. (c) 33. (c) 34. (c) 35. (b) 36. (a) 37. (c) 38. (b) 39. (a) 40. (d)
41. (b) 42. (d) 43. (c)

15
N incorporated in its genetic
1. (b) Length of DNA is directly 33. (c) UTRs present on mRNA refer to
material and had a hybrid density.
proportional to the number of Untranslated Regions present at both
nucleotides. As the number of 18. (a) An experiment similar to Meselson 5¢–end (before start codon) and 3¢–end
nucleotides increases, the length of and Stahl experiment was performed (after stop codon). These are the
DNA also increases. on Vicia faba (faba beans) by Taylor additional sequences that are not
and colleagues in 1958. The translated. These are required for
2. (d) Option (d) is the incorrect match
experiments proved that the DNA in efficient translation process.
and can be corrected as
chromosomes also replicate
Haploid content of human DNA is 36. (a) Positively regulatory proteins are
semiconservatively.
. ´ 109 bp.
33 called activators. These activator
Rest of the matches are correct. 19. (b) Separation of the entire length of proteins bind to regulatory sites on
DNA helix needs a large amount of DNA near to the promoter regions
8. (c) Option (c) is incorrect and can be energy. Hence, only up to certain which act as on / off switches. This
corrected as extent separation of DNA helix can binding facilitates RNA polymerase
Adenine forms two hydrogen bonds take place. activity and transcription of nearby
with thymine of the opposite strand genes.
and vice-versa. On the other hand, 22. (b) Option (b) is correct. The
guanine is bounded with cytosine with phosphorylated nucleotides are deATP 37. (c) Lactose is the substrate for the
three H-bonds. (deoxy Adenosine Triphosphate), enzyme beta (b) galactosidase and it
Rest of the options are correct. deCTP (deoxy Cytidine Triphosphate), regulates the switching on and off of
deTTP (deoxy Thymidine the lac operon. Hence, it is termed as
12. (c) In Griffith’s experiment, he found Triphosphate). These triphosphates inducer.
out that something from dead organism serve dual purpose. These act as
could change the living cells. From his 39. (a) An inducer binds with the
substrate as well as provide energy for
experiment he showed that dead repressor protein and prevents the
polymerisation of nucleotides by
S-bacteria (virulent) are changing repressor protein from binding to the
releasing energy after dissociating the
(transforming) the R-bacteria operator.
phosphate group.
(non-virulant) into S-type, i.e. the Glucose and galactose cannot act as an
virulent strain. 23. (a) The strands in the DNA are inducer because these do not have the
complementary to each other, not binding sites for attaching the repressor
13. (a) Hershey and Chase grew cultures identical. If the two RNAs are formed protein.
of Escherichia coli. One culture was from both strands then RNAs with
supplied with radioactive sulphur (35 S) 41. (b) Option (b) is the incorrect match
different sequences would be formed.
and can be corrected as
and the another with radioactive
29. (d) Degeneracy refers to the fact that Sequence annotation is simply
phosphorus (32 P).
one amino acid has more than one sequencing the whole set of genome
17. (a) In Meselson and Stahl’s code triplet and the codons which that contained all the coding and
experiment, the generation time specify the same amino acids differ non-coding sequence and later
(replication time) of E. coli culture is only in the third base of the triplet, e.g. assigning different regions in the
about 20 minutes. Therefore, the DNA both CAC and CAU code for the amino sequence with functions.
extracted after the interval of 20 acid histidine. Rest of the matches are correct.
minutes in the experiment had heavy
CHAPTER 07
Evolution
1. Evolution The amino acids such as glycine, alanine, etc., were
It is the sequence of gradual changes from simple life formed in their experiment. This experiment, proved that
forms to complex forms, i.e. from primitive organisms C, H, O and N in various forms can give rise to
that lived over million of years ago to new organisms complex compounds.
that exist today.
5. Evidences for Evolution
2. Origin of Life A. Palaeontological evidences come from the study of
Our earth originated about 4.6 billion years ago, fossils. The fossils are the remains of past organisms
whereas the origin of life on earth occurred 4 billion preserved in sedimentary rocks.
years after its formation. The Big-Bang theory (given (i) Fossil Records/Inscriptions are the remains or
by Abbe Lemaitre in 1931) explains about the origin of impressions of the hard parts of ancient plants and
earth as a terrible explosion resulting in the formation of animals on rocks and mountains. The process by
universe or cosmos. which animals or plants become a fossil is called
fossilisation.
3. Ancient Theories for Origin of Life
‘Study of fossils’ is called palaeontology.
n
Special Creation It states that God has created life.
(ii) Age Determination of Fossils Fossils’ age can be
n
Cosmozoic Theory It states that life arose from the
calculated by methods like uranium lead method
spores or panspermia which came from outer space.
and radioactive carbon dating methods, etc.
n
Spontaneous Generation Theory According to this,
B. Comparative anatomy and morphological evidences
life originated from abiotic substances
These show the similarities and differences among the
spontaneously.
organisms of today and those that existed many years
Therefore, this theory is also called as theory of
ago. This can be the achieved by the study of following
abiogenesis or autobiogenesis.
(i) Homologous organs are those having same structural
n
Louis Pasteur rejected the theory of spontaneous design and origin but different functions, e.g. forelimbs
generation. He demonstrated that life evolved from of some animals like whales, bats and cheetah,
pre-existing life by his swan-neck flask experiment. mouth parts of various insects, etc.
n
Theory of Chemical Evolution It was given by (ii) Analogous organs are those which are
Oparin and Haldane. According to them, first form anatomically different but functionally similar, e.g.
of life came from pre-existing, non-living organic wings of butterfly and birds. Analogy is based on
molecules (e.g. RNA, protein, etc.). convergent evolution.
4. Miller and Urey’s Experiment Note • Divergent Evolution It refers to the development of
(Evidence of Chemical Evolution) different functional structures from a common ancestral
Stanley Miller (1953) performed a simple experiment stock (homology) in order to adapt to different
environmental conditions.
under the guidance of Harold Urey. They collected
water vapour, hydrogen, methane and ammonia (2 : 2 : • Convergent Evolution Development of similar
1 ratio) in a flask and provided an electric discharge by morphological characters (analogy) in the organisms of
different lineages at same geographical regions is
tungsten electrode.
called convergent evolution.
Biology 41
C. Biochemical evidences (Molecular evidences) suggest Darwin along with Alfred Wallace jointly propounded
that the similarities in proteins and genes performing a the ‘Theory of natural selection’ in 1958. It was based
common function among diverse organisms indicates a on following factual observations
common ancestry. (a) Limited natural resources, stable population
D. Embryological evidences suggest that some organisms (except for seasonal fluctuations).
that show common descent in embryological patterns, (b) Variations (in sexually reproductive animals).
This was first observed by von Baer and later (c) Reproductive isolation, etc.
reinterpreted by Haeckel in the form of recapitulation or
biogenetic law stating that ‘‘ontogeny repeats
l
Industrial Melanism An example of evolution
phylogeny’’. by natural selection was observed in peppered
E. Biogeographical evidences suggest that the species moths (Biston betularia) in 1859 in England.
restricted to a region develop unique features. Also, Before industrialisation, white-winged moths
species present in separated regions show similarity of were more in number compared to
ancestry. This can be explained with the help of adaptive dark-winged moths. After industrialisation,
radiation. It is an evolutionary process in which an dark-winged moths increased in number, as
ancestral stock gives rise to new species adapted to they were able to camouflage themselves from
new habitats and new ways of life, e.g. Darwin’s finches, predators on tree trunks turned darker due to
marsupials of Australia and placental animals in air pollution (soot and dust particles). The
Australia. white-winged moth population declined due to
easy detection by predators. Thus, in a mixed
6. Biological Evolution population, better adaptable species are
It refers to the origin of first living cell from non-living selected by nature to grow while others are
chemical complexes. eliminated.
Mechanism of Evolution Various theories were put l
Chemical Resistance The excessive use of
forward by scientists to explain the evolutionary chemicals leads to development of resistance
mechanism. in microbes to such chemicals. These
7. Theories of Evolution microbes are selected naturally due to
favourable variation.
(i) Lamarckism or Theory of Inheritance of Acquired
Characters Lamarck published a book named (iv) Mutation Theory of Hugo de Vries He studied and
‘Philosophie Zoologique’ in 1809 to propose this carried out experiments on a plant, evening primrose
theory. It states that each organism acquires many (Oenothera lamarckiana). He proposed the
characters in his lifetime from the environment he lives mutation theory of evolution on the basis of his
in. These acquired characters are inherited by the observations. de Vries proposed that evolution can
offspring to form a new species gradually. also occur due to sudden large changes occurring in
a population which caused speciation and called it
Any organ which is used more, slowly enlarges in size
saltation (single step large mutation).
and the organ which is not used, degenerates,
e.g. degeneration of legs of snake, elongation of neck in (v) Modern Synthetic Theory of Evolution
giraffe. This theory was highly criticised. Modern synthetic theory is actually a form of
(ii) Modern Lamarckism August Weismann in 1892 modern Darwinism. It states that the origin of
proved using genetics and theories of inheritance that species is based on the interaction of genetic
acquired characters, present in genotype of an variation in a population, natural selection and
individual are transmitted to next generation by reproductive isolation.
inheritance. This theory was named as Theory of 8. Hardy-Weinberg Principle
Continuity of Germplasm. According to it, the allele frequencies in a population
(iii) Darwinism or Theory of Natural Selection Darwin are stable and remain constant from generation to
concluded that the fitness of individual ultimately generation. This is called genetic equilibrium.
refers to its reproductive fitness. Thus, those It is expressed as p2 + q 2 + 2 pq = 1
organisms which are better or adapt well will survive
[binomial expansion, i.e. (p + q )2]
more in nature. This is called natural selection. He
also explained that different species descending from 9. Agents of Evolutionary Change
common ancestor get adapted into different habitats. There are following basic mechanisms through which
This is called branching descent. Therefore, natural biological evolution takes place
selection and branching descent are two important
(i) Genetic drift (Random drift) is a change that
concepts of Darwinism.
occurs in allelic frequencies by chance.
Sometimes due to changes in allele frequency in 11. Human Evolution

new population, some different species are formed. The fossil evidences indicate that origin of man occurred
This is called founder effect and the original drifted in Central Asia, China, Java and India (Shivalik hills).
population is called founder. The human evolution took place as follows
(ii) Gene Flow It is the movement of alleles from one
Human
population to another. Time of Origin General Feature
Ancestors
(iii) Natural Selection It occurs due to the inheritance of
variations. It leads to the survival of those who best Dryopithecus 20-25 mya Ape-like, hairy, ate soft fruits
and leaves. Arms and legs
fit in an environment. It can be of three types, i.e. of same length, large brain.
stabilisation, directional and disruptive.
(iv) Genetic Recombination During gametogenesis, Ramapithecus 14-15 mya More man-like, walked more
crossing over in meiosis leads to new combination of erect, teeth like modern
man.
genes.
Australopithecus 3-4 mya Probably lived in East
10. Account of Evolution African grasslands and
(The first ape
The cellular forms of life first appeared on earth around man) ate fruits, hunted with
2000 million years ago (mya). stones, weapons, brain
capacity was 400-600 cc.
A. Evolution of Plants
l
Plants appeared first on lands before animals. Homo habilis 2 mya Fossils found in East Africa ,
first hominid, i.e. human
l
Bryophytes were the first plants to colonise land (Handy man)
being- like, brain capacity
followed by vascular plants. 650-800 cc, did not eat meat.
l
Vascular plants (pteridophytes and gymnosperms)
first originated in Silurian period.. Homo erectus 1.5 mya Fossils found in Java in
(Java man) 1891, brain capacity 900 cc,
l
Herbaceous lycopods and arborescent lycopods probably ate meat.
evolved from Zosterophyllum of Palaeozoic era.
l
Psilophyton is the common ancestor for horsetails, Homo sapiens 1,00,000- Known as Neanderthal man.
neanderthalensi 40,000 years ago Fossils found in East and
ferns and gymnosperms.
s (Primitive Central Asia, brain size 1400
B. Evolution of Animals man) cc, used hides to protect body,
buried their dead. They
l
Animals evolved around 500 mya and the first
became extinct 25,000 years
animals were invertebrates. ago.
l
Jawless fish and amphibious fish with stout and
Homo sapiens 75,000- Arose in Africa, developed
strong fins were found on earth around 350 mya.
(Modern man) 10,000 years ago cave art around 18,000
l
The Jurassic period is called age of reptiles, i.e. (ice age) years ago, agriculture started
around 200 mya. around 10,000 years back
l
Mammals appeared in Triassic period and the first and thus, human settlement
mammals were like shrews. and civilisation started.
Biology 43
Practice Questions
1. According to one of the most widely accepted theories, 8. Embryological support for evolution given by Ernst Haeckel
earth’s atmosphere before origin of life consisted of a includes the
mixture of (a) presence of hair all over the body in adult human
(a) O 3 , CH4 , O 2 and H2O (b) absence of tail bone and presence of wisdom tooth
(b) O 3 , NH3 , CH4 and H2O (c) absence of vestigial gill slits in human’s embryo
(c) H2 , CO 2 , NH3 and CH4 (d) presence of row of vestigial gill slits in embryo of all
(d) CH4 , NH3 , H2 and H2O vapours vertebrates
2. For a long time, it was believed that life came out of 9. What does presence of homologous organs in different
decaying and rotting matter like straw, mud, etc. This was animals indicate?
the theory of (a) Different ancestry
(a) catastrophism (b) spontaneous generation (b) Common ancestry
(c) panspermia (d) chemogeny (c) Independent development
(d) Dependent development
3. Who proposed that the first form of life could have come
from pre-existing non-living organic molecules and it 10. Tendrils of Cucurbita and thorns of Bougainvillea are
precedes chemical evolution? examples of
(a) SL Miller (a) vestigial organs (b) analogous organs
(b) Oparin and Haldane (c) homologous organs (d) homoplasy
(c) Charles Darwin
(d) Alfred Wallace 11 Diagram given below indicates
4. The sequence of origin of life may be

(a) Inorganic materials ® Organic materials ® Colloidal
aggregate ® Eobiont ® Cell
(b) Organic materials ® Inorganic materials ® Colloidal
aggregate ® Eobiont ® Cell Man Cheetah Whale Bat
(c) Inorganic materials ® Organic materials ® Eobiont
® Cell ® Colloidal aggregate
(d) Organic materials ® Inorganic materials ® Eobiont
® Cell ® Colloidal aggregate
5. According to Charles Darwin’s observations

(a) existing life forms share similarities to the life forms
that existed million of years ago
(b) life forms evolve gradually
(c) any population has built in variations which enable
them to survive in natural conditions (a) analogous organs (b) homologous organs
(d) All of the above (c) convergent evolution (d) All of these
6. Evidence that evolution of life forms has indeed taken place 12. Change of lighter coloured variety of peppered moths
on earth has come from (Biston betularia) to darker variety in the industrial era
occurred due to
(a) fossil studies (palaeontological evidences)
(a) selection of darker variety for survival
(b) morphological and comparative anatomical studies
(b) deletion of gene
(c) biochemical studies
(c) industrial carbon deposited on the wings
(d) translocation of gene
7. Fossils are useful in
13. Example of anthropogenic evolution is
(a) studying extinct organisms
(a) selection of resistant microbes to pesticides
(b) studying history of organisms (b) antibiotic resistant eukaryotic cells
(c) Both (a) and (b) (c) Industrial melanism is Biston betularia
(d) None of the above (d) All of the above
14. Development of different functional structures from a 22. Which of the following are the two key concepts of
common ancestral form is called Darwinian theory of evolution?
(a) differential evolution (b) adaptive radiation (a) Genetic drift and mutation
(c) non-adaptive radiation (d) regressive evolution (b) Adaptive radiation and homology
15. The process by which different type of finches were evolved (c) Mutation and natural selection
in Galapagos islands is a consequence of (d) Branching descent and natural selection
(a) adaptive radiation (b) geographic similarity 23. Which of the following situations would most likely result
(c) geographic dissimilarity (d) adaptive convergence in the highest rate of natural selection?
16. The diversity in the type of finches and adaptation to (a) Reproduction by asexual method
different feeding habits on the Galapagos islands, as (b) Low mutation is an stable environment
observed by Darwin, provides an evidence of (c) Little competition
(a) origin of species by natural selection (d) Reproduction by sexual method
(b) intraspecific variation
24. Which of the following factors was not taken into account
(c) intraspecific competition
by Darwin in his theory of natural selection?
(d) interspecific competition
(a) Struggle for existence
17. Australian marsupials are the example of (b) Discontinuous variations
(a) homologous radiation (c) Parasites and predators as natural enemies
(b) analogous radiation (d) Survival of the fittest
(c) adaptive radiation
(d) convergent radiation 25. What was the Lamarck’s explanation for long necked
giraffes?
18. Identify what the given diagram indicates? (a) Stretching of necks over many generations
Tasmanian wolf (b) Short neck suddenly changed into long one
(c) Natural selection
Australian (d) Mutation
Koala bear Marsupials Marsupial rat
26. Hugo de Vries put forth his idea of mutation by his work on
(a) pea plant (b) Drosophila
Kangaroo
(c) evening primrose (d) maize plant
(a) Convergent evolution (b) Divergent evolution
(c) Recapitulation (d) Parallel evolution 27. Genetic equilibrium refers to the phenomenon in which
(a) the trait remains constant in a population
19. Which of the following is not an examples of adaptive
radiation? (b) the total genes remain constant in a population
(a) Wombat, numbat, flying phalanger (c) the total genes keeps on varying in a population
(b) Darwin’s finches (d) traits keeps on varying in a population
(c) Different mammals in other parts of world 28. Hardy-Weinberg principle can be expressed as
(d) Lemur and spotted cuscus
(a) p2 - 2pq - q2 = 1
20. Survival of the fittest is possible due to the (b) p2 + 2pq + q2 ³ 1
(a) overproduction (c) p2 + 2pq + q2 £ 1
(b) favourable variations (d) p2 + 2pq + q2 = 1
(c) environmental changes
29. Which of the following conditions represents the extent of
(d) inheritance of acquired characters evolutionary change in Hardy-Weinberg principle?
21. Darwinian fitness can be estimated by (a) Value of (p + q )2
(a) how long different individual in a population survive (b) Difference between measured value and expected
(b) number of offspring produced by different individuals value
in population (c) Sum of measured value and expected value
(c) individual have a large size in population (d) This principle cannot predict the extent of
(d) species recover after mass extinction evolutionary change
Biology 45
30. ‘XX’ is a type of selection process in evolution that promotes 37. Brain (cranial) capacity of Homo habilis was
population changes in one particular direction. ‘XX’ favours (a) 750-850 cc (b) 750-800 cc
small or large sized individuals mean size of population
(c) 650-800 cc (d) 550-700 cc
changes. Identify ‘XX’.
(a) Stabilising selection (b) Directional selection 38. The difference between Homo sapiens and Homo erectus
(c) Disruptive selection (d) None of the above was
(a) Homo sapiens originated in Africa, while Homo erectus
31. Artificial selection to obtain cows yielding high milk output originated in Asia
represents (b) Homo erectus were much smaller in size than Homo
(a) stabilising selection as it stabilises this character in the sapiens
population (c) Homo erectus stayed in Africa, while Homo sapiens
(b) directional as it pushes the mean of the character in did not
one direction (d) the size of the brain of Homo erectus was smaller than
(c) disruptive as it splits the population into two, one that of Homo sapiens
yielding higher output and the other lower output
(d) stabilising followed by disruptive as stabilises the 39. Homo sapiens arose during
population of produce higher yielding cows (a) ice age between 75000-10000 years ago
(b) continental drift between 75000-10000 years ago
32. Choose the incorrect pair. (c) continental drift between 75000-5000 years ago
(a) Invertebrates were formed and active – By 500 mya (d) ice age between 50000-10000 years ago
(b) Seaweeds existed – Around 320 mya
40. The chronological order of human evolution from early to
(c) First organisms that invaded land – Single-celled
the recent stages is
animals
(d) Fish with stout and strong fins – Around 350 mya (a) Ramapithecus ® Australopithecus ® Homo habilis ®
Homo erectus
33. Giant dinosaurs and reptiles predominated during the (b) Australopithecus ® Ramapithecus ® Homo habilis ®
Jurassic period. This period was also marked for the Homo erectus
evolution of higher insects and angiosperms, conifers, (c) Pithecanthropus pekinensis ® Homo habilis ® Homo
cycads, etc. Jurassic period belongs to which era? erectus
(a) Cenozoic (b) Palaeozoic (d) Australopithecus ® Ramapithecus ® Pithecanthropus
(c) Mesozoic (d) Proterozoic pekinensis ® Homo erectus
41. The diagram given here shows the skull of two different
34. In which era Protozoa, sponge and algae originate?
mammals. Choose the most appropriate difference between
(a) Cenozoic era (b) Azoic era A and B.
(c) Proterozoic era (d) Mesozoic era
35. The correct order of evolutionary scale is

(a) Palaeozoic ® Archaeozoic ® Cenozoic
(b) Archaeozoic ® Palaeozoic ® Proterozoic A B
(c) Palaeozoic ® Mesozoic ® Cenozoic
(d) Mesozoic ® Archaeozoic ® Proterozoic (a) Skull A has more teeth than skull B
(b) Skull A has more brain capacity than skull B
36. First human like hominid is known as (c) Skull A is of a human and skull B is of an ape
(a) Neanderthal man (b) Homo habilis (d) Skull A is of an ape and skull B is of human
(c) Dryopithecus (d) Homo erectus
ANSWERS
1. (d) 2. (b) 3. (b) 4. (a) 5. (d) 6. (d) 7. (c) 8. (d) 9. (b) 10. (c)
11. (b) 12. (a) 13. (d) 14. (b) 15. (a) 16. (a) 17. (c) 18. (b) 19. (d) 20. (b)
21. (b) 22. (d) 23. (d) 24. (b) 25. (a) 26. (c) 27. (b) 28. (d) 29. (b) 30. (b)
31. (b) 32. (c) 33. (c) 34. (c) 35. (c) 36. (b) 37. (c) 38. (d) 39. (a) 40. (a)
41. (d)

thorns and tendrils of Bougainvillea
2. (b) For a long time, it was believed 23. (d) Reproduction by sexual methods
and Cucurbita, respectively represent
that life came out of decaying and brings about changes in genes of progeny.
homology.
rotting matter like straw mud, etc. In genes of sexually reproduced
This was the theory of spontaneous 12. (a) Change of lighter coloured organisms, independent assortment of
generation. variety of peppered moths (Biston genes and genetic recombination takes
Theory of spontaneous generation betularia) to darker variety in the place. Due to these events, the progeny
(abiogenesis or autogenesis) states that, industrial area occurred due to the have high rate of natural selection than
life originated from non-living things in selection of darker variety for the asexually repoducing organisms.
a spontaneous manner. survival. It is an excellent example
24. (b) Natural selection theory of Darwin
which supports the theory of natural
3. (b) Oparin and Haldane proposed that did not believe in any role of
selection by Charles Darwin.
the first form of life could have come discontinuous variation. Darwin called
from pre-existing non-living organic 14. (b) Development of different these variations as sports, while Hugo de
molecules (e.g. RNA, protein, etc.) and functional structures from a common Vries used the term mutation for these
that formation of life was preceded by ancestral form is called adaptive variations. These variations are sudden
chemical evolution, i.e. formation of radiation. The concept of adaptive heritable changes, which can occur in
diverse organic molecules from radiation in evolution was developed any stage of development.
inorganic constituents. by HF Osborn in 1902. Homologous
27. (b) Hardy-Weinberg principle states that
organs show adaptive radiation.
5. (d) Based on observations made allele frequencies remains constant from
during a sea voyage in a sail ship 16. (a) The diversity in the type of generation to generation. This is called
called HMS Beagle round the world, finches and adaptation to different as genetic equilibrium.
Charles Darwin concluded that feeding habits on the Galapagos
32. (c) The pair in option (c) is incorrect and
existing living forms share similarities islands was observed by Darwin. He
can be corrected as follows.
to varying degrees not only among provides an evidence of origin of
First organisms that invaded land were
themselves but also with life forms that species by natural selection.
supposed to be plants and not
existed millions of years ago. There
17. (c) Darwin explained that adaptive single-celled animals.
has been gradual evolution of life
radiation gave rise to the varieties of Rest of the pairs are correct.
forms. A population has been built on
marsupials (pouched mammals) in
variations, in characteristics. Those 39. (a) Homo sapiens arose in Africa and
Australia by the same process of
characteristics which enable some to moved across continents and developed
adaptive radiation as found in the
survive better in natural conditions into distinct races. During the ice age
finches of Galapagos Islands.
(climate, food, physical factors, etc.) between 75,000-10,000 years ago
would outbreed others that are 19. (d) Lemur and spotted cuscus are not modern Homo sapiens arose.
less-endowed to survive under such examples of adaptive radiation. These Pre-historic cave art developed about
natural conditions. are examples of convergent 18,000 years ago. One such cave
evolution. paintings by Pre-historic humans can be
8. (d) Embryological support for
Rest of the pairs are examples of seen at Bhimbetka rock shelter in Raisen
evolution given by Ernst Haeckel
adaptive radiation. district of Madhya Pradesh. Agriculture
includes the presence of row of
came around 10,000 years back and
vestigial gill slits in embryo of all 20. (b) The organisms, which acquire or
human settlements started.
vertebrates. This proposal was develop favourable variations would
disapproved by Karl Ernst von Baer survive because they are fittest to face 40. (a) The chronological order of human
who noted that embryos never pass their surrounding, while unfit evolution is as follows
these gill slits to their the adult stages. organisms are eliminated. Ramapithecus (earliest hominid fossil about
He proposed that embryos start from 14-15 mya)
few basic forms similarly in different 21. (b) Darwinian fitness can be
animals and then develop into estimated by the number of offspring ¯
branching patterns. produced by different individuals in a Australopithecus (first ape man about 2 mya)
population. The organisms which ¯
11. (b) The given diagram indicates bear favourable variations in Homo habilis (tool maker handyman about
homologous organs. Whales, bats, accordance to the environment have 1.2-1.5 mya)
cheetah and human (all mammals) more offspring than the others which
¯
share similarities in the pattern of do not have variations in accordance
bones of forelimbs. In plants, the Homo erectus (Erect man about 1.5 mya)
with environment.
Biology 47
CHAPTER 08
Human Health and Diseases
1. Health 3. Some Common Infectious

According to the World Health Organisation (WHO), Diseases in Humans
health is a state of complete physical, mental and The infectious diseases are classified on the basis of
social well-being and not merely an absence of disease pathogens involved, i.e. causative agents. Some
or infirmity. common diseases are given below
Disease is defined as any disorder or hindrance that A. Bacterial Diseases
arises in normal functioning of the body and brain. (i) Enteric fever or Typhoid is caused by bacterium
Factors causing disease are called causative agents or Salmonella typhi. It enters the small intestine through
pathogens or germs. contaminated food and water.
2. Diseases Symptoms include fever (39-40°C), weakness,
These are caused by microorganisms like bacteria, stomach pain, constipation, headache and loss of
virus, fungi, protozoans, etc., These can be classified as appetite.
given below Widal test is used to diagnose typhoid fever.
A. Congenital or Inherited Diseases These are the (ii) Pneumonia The causative agents of pneumonia are
diseases which are inherited from birth (from one Streptococcus pneumoniae and Haemophilus
generation to next), e.g. haemophilia, colour blindness, influenzae. Pneumonia infects the alveoli of the lungs
sickle-cell anaemia, etc. due to which the alveoli get filled with fluid leading
B. Acquired Diseases These diseases develop after birth to breathing problems.
due to many factors like causative agent, deficiency of Symptoms include fever, chills, cough with mucus
nutrients or hormones, etc., e.g. kwashiorkor, and headache.
marasmus, night blindness, scurvy, cancer, addiction, B. Viral Diseases
arthritis, allergy, etc. (i) Common cold is caused by rhinoviruses. These
Acquired diseases are further classifed as viruses majorly affect nose and respiratory tract but
(i) Infectious Diseases (Communicable Diseases) These not the lungs. The infection is transmitted through
diseases can be transmitted from infected person to droplets resulting from coughing or sneezing of an
a healthy person, e.g. malaria, typhoid, cold, infected person.
amoebiasis, AIDS, gonorrhoea, syphilis, hepatitis, Symptoms include nasal congestion and discharge,
etc. sore throat, hoarseness, cough, headache, tiredness,
(ii) Non-Infectious Diseases (Non-communicable etc.
Diseases) These diseases cannot be transmitted (ii) Chikungunya is caused by chikungunya virus. It is
from person to person and are not caused by transmitted by the bite of Aedes aegypti mosquito.
pathogens. They are caused by nutritional Symptoms include sudden onset of fever, crippling
deficiency, malfunctioning of organs, etc., e.g. joint pains, lymphodenopathy, etc. The fever is
cancer, scurvy, etc. typically biphasic.
(iii) Dengue is caused by Flaviribo virus and transmitted trophozoid. It is transmitted by housefly. It transmits
by the bite of female Aedes and Culex mosquito. through the faecal-oral route.
There is no proper treatment for dengue fever but Symptoms include constipation, abdominal pain,
analgesics are provided to reduce the effect of cramps, stools with excess mucus and blood clots.
fever. D. Helminthic Diseases
Symptoms including high fever, headache, nausea, (i) Ascariasis This disease spreads by helminth
pain in joints and vomiting. parasite – Ascaris lumbricoides (unhostile), which is
(iv) AIDS (Acquired Immuno Deficiency Syndrome) is a an intestinal parasite. It is transmitted through
fatal disorder. It is caused by HIV (Human contaminated water, vegetables, fruits, etc.
Immunodeficiency Virus) which is a member of group Symptoms include internal bleeding, muscular pain,
of viruses called retrovirus. fever, anaemia and blockage of intestinal passage.
It spreads from one person to other via body fluids. (ii) Filariasis (Elephantiasis) This disease is caused by
l
The patient becomes immunodeficient and cannot Wuchereria bancrofti and W. malayi. This is a
protect himself/herself from very common digenetic parasite. Primary host is human and
infections. secondary host is female Culex fatigans mosquito.
l
HIV can be transmitted through sexual contact, Symptoms include chronic inflammation that
sharing infected needles, transfusion of develops slowly when worms live for many years
contaminated blood and from infected mother to mostly in lymphatic vessels of the lower limbs.
foetus through placenta. Genital organs are also affected.
l
HIV infection can be diagnosed by Enzyme E. Fungal Diseases
Linked Immuno Sorbent Assay (ELISA), PCR Ringworms are caused by fungi like Microsporum,
(Polymerase Chain Reaction) and Western Blot. Trichophyton and Epidermophyton. They are generally
l
There is no treatment of HIV, use of antiviral drugs acquired by soil or by direct contact with contaminated
can only prolong the life of patient but cannot articles used by infected person.
prevent death. Symptoms include dry scaly lesions on various parts
Prevention and Control of body such as skin, nails and scalp with intense
Some of the methods to prevent and control AIDS itching.
are as follows
Blood banks should be screened for HIV, use of 4. Preventive Measures for Infectious Diseases
disposable needles and syringes, use condoms (i) Personal Hygiene Regular bathing, clean drinking
during coitus and promote regular checkup for HIV. water, clean food, etc.
C. Protozoan Diseases (ii) Public Hygiene Proper disposal of waste and
(i) Malaria is caused by a protozoan, i.e. Plasmodium excreta, periodic cleaning and disinfection of water
in the form of sporozoites. It has two hosts reservoirs, pools, etc.
(a) Primary host (for asexual cycle) is female (iii) For vector borne diseases such as malaria
Anopheles mosquito. includes eradication of vectors and destroying their
breeding sites by using mosquito nets and repellents,
(b) Secondary host (for sexual cycle) is human.
avoiding stagnation of water, introducing fishes like
Different species of Plasmodium are P. ovale, Gambusia in ponds that feeds on mosquito larvae
P. falciparum, P. vivax and P. malariae. and spraying of insecticides in open water bodies.
l
Haemozoin is released into blood during the (iv) For air-borne diseases avoid direct contact with
infection of Plasmodium vivax at every 24 infected persons or their belongings.
hours. (v) Vaccination and immunisation utilise the property
l
Symptoms include shaking chills, headache, of ‘memory’ of immune system. During vaccination,
muscle pain, nausea, vomiting, diarrhoea and antigenic proteins or weakened pathogens are
in severe cases anaemia and jaundice. injected in the body, where they neutralise the
(ii) Amoebiasis (Amoebic Dysentery or Enteritis) This causal agent.
disease is caused by protozoan Entamoeba When immunisation is achieved by injecting
histolytica found in large intestine of human. This is preformed antibodies (e.g. snake bite), it is called
a hostile parasite, whose infectious stage is passive immunisation.
Biology 49
5. Non-Infectious Diseases Note • Interferon Small protein molecules synthesised in

the body during viral infection are called interferons.
(i) Cancer Cells show a property called contact inhibition
They provide semi-specific protection to the body.
by virtue of which contact with other cells stops its
uncontrolled growth. Cancerous cells do not have this (i) Innate immunity refers to all defence elements
property due to which they continue to divide forming with which an individual is born. It is non-specific.
tumours or neoplasm. (ii) Acquired immunity is pathogen specific immunity.
(a) Tumour is a mass of cells formed due to the It is not present from birth but develops during an
uncontrolled division of cells. These are of two types individual’s lifetime. It is further classified as
l
Benign tumour remain confined to its original (a) Active Immunity It is the immunity developed
location and does not spread in the entire body. by the body when exposed to the antigens
which may be living or dead microbes or other
l
Malignant tumour is the mass of proliferating
proteins.
cells, called neoplastic or tumour cells. These
Antibodies are produced by the body in this
grow rapidly, invade and damage the surrounding
case. It may be artificial or natural.
normal cells.
(b) Passive Immunity It is the immunity bestowed
(b) Causes of Cancer It is caused due to some agents
by antibodies that are directly given to the body.
called as carcinogens. These are as given below
It is fast but lasts only for few days. For
l
Physical agents include X-rays, γ-rays, UV-rays example, antibodies (IgG) received by foetus
l
Chemical agents include tobacco smoke, from mother through placenta.
benzene fumes, etc.
l
Biological agents are cancer causing viruses 7. Immune Responses
called oncogenic viruses. These have genes Following are two major types of immune responses
called viral oncogenes. Other genes are called (i) Primary Response It occurs when a body
cellular oncogenes (c-onc) or proto-oncogenes. encounters a pathogen for the first time. It is of
(c) Cancer Detection It can be detected by low intensity.
following methods After every primary response, cell memory stores
l
Blood and bone marrow tests the details of the encounter.
l
Biopsy (ii) Secondary/Anamnestic Response Subsequent
encounters with the same pathogen elicit
l
Radiography
secondary response.
l
Computed Tomography (CT) scan
It is highly intense and aided by the memory of
l
Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI) the primary encounter. The primary and
l
Monoclonal antibodies secondary responses are carried out with the
(d) Treatment of Cancer The various methods involved in help of T-lymphocytes and B-lymphocytes.
the treatment of cancer are given as The immune response mediated by
l
Surgery B-lymphocytes is called humoral immune
l
Radiotherapy response, while the immune response mediated
l
Chemotherapy by T-lymphocytes is called Cell-Mediated
Immunity (CMI).
6. Immunity
It is the ability of the host to fight against the disease
8. Antigens and Antibodies
causing agents. It is of two types Antigens (immunogens) are substances which enter
the body and stimulate the production of antibodies.
Immunity These bind to antibody with the help of covalent
bond.
Antibodies are immunoglobulins (class of proteins)
Innate Immunity Acquired Immunity produced in response to antigenic stimulation.
(inborn immunity) (adaptive immunity) Different types of antibodies are IgG, IgA, IgM, IgE,
Physical barriers
IgD.
Physiological barriers Note A vaccine is either a cell suspension or a byproduct

excreted by the cell. The vaccines, when introduced into
Cellular barriers Active Passive
immunity immunity the body, stimulate the production of antibodies.
Cytokine barriers
9. Allergies (ii) Cannabinoids affect the cannabinoid receptors in

The exaggerated or hypersensitive response of brain, e.g. hemp, hashish, charas and ganja.
the immune system to certain agents present in (iii) Coca alkaloid or cocaine (coke or crake) is
the environment is called allergy and its causative obtained from Erythroxylum coca. It interferes with
agents are called allergens, e.g. dust, mites, pollens, the transport of dopamine and produces a sense of
animal dander (old skin scales which are constantly euphoria and increased energy.
shed), etc. The antibodies produced in response to (iv) Hallucinogens are obtained from Atropa
allergens are of IgE type. belladonna and Datura stramonium, e.g. Lysergic
Acid Diethylamide (LSD) is obtained from Claviceps
10. Autoimmunity purpurea (fungus). They affect cerebrum and sense
It is the state where body loses the ability to distinguish
organs hence, also called psychedelic drugs.
between self and non-self cells. The body’s immune
system goes off the track and starts destroying self (v) Tobacco is obtained from tobacco plant
cells and molecules. (Tabacum nicotiana) and has nicotine which
stimulates adrenal gland.
This results in autoimmune diseases, e.g. rheumatoid
arthritis, Addison’s disease, Hashimoto’s disease, etc. B. Effects of Drugs and Alcohol Abuse The effects are
as follows
11. Immune System in the Human Body (i) Behavioural changes unsocial attitude, lack of
It consists of lymphoid organs, tissues, cells and interest, insocial activities, violent, depression,
antibodies. withdrawal and isolation.
(i) Primary lymphoid organs are bone marrow and (ii) Lack of hygiene, appetite, weight loss, loss of
thymus where immature lymphocytes differentiate interest in hobbies.
and proliferate. (iii) Drop in academic performance and absence from
(ii) Secondary lymphoid organs are the sites for the school and college.
interaction of lymphocytes with antigen, which then (iv) Mental and financial crisis which leads to habit of
proliferate to become effector cells. These organs are stealing.
spleen, lymph nodes and Mucosal Associated
(v) Chronic damage to nervous system causes liver
Lymphoid Tissue (MALT).
cirrhosis, cardiac problems and respiratory issues.
12. Adolescence C. Prevention and Control
It refers to the period of rapid growth, physical (i) Parents should understand their children.
and mental development from childhood to adulthood. (ii) Parents and teachers both should educate and
A. Some drugs which are commonly abused are counsel the child about the effects of drug abuses.
(i) Opioids are psychotropic drugs which can affect (iii) Affected person should seek professional help of
central nervous system and gastrointestinal tract, psychologist, doctors and also go rehabilitation to
e.g. heroin, morphine. get rid of problems.
Biology 51
Practice Questions
1. Which of the following adversely affects human health? 9. Which of the following toxic substances is responsible for
(a) Change in lifestyle (b) Genetic disorders the high malarial fever?
(c) Rest and exercise (d) Both (a) and (b) (a) Haemoglobin (b) Haemocyanin
(c) Haemozoin (d) Haemoriden
2. Human health cannot be maintained by
(a) maintaining personal hygiene 10. Plasmodium completes its life cycle in two hosts. Asexual
(b) consuming a diet rich in carbohydrate only phase in …… host and sexual phase in
(c) regular physical exercise …… host.
(d) None of the above The correct option with words to fill the blanks is
(a) human; Culex mosquito
3. Measures for personal hygiene include. (b) human; female Anopheles mosquito
(a) Intake of clean drinking water (c) human; Aedes mosquito
(b) Keeping the body clean (d) human; male Anopheles mosquito
(c) Disinfection of water resources
(d) Both (a) and (b) 11. Entamoeba histolytica is a parasite of
(a) large intestine (b) liver
4. Salmonella typhi generally enters the small intestine (c) lungs (d) kidney
through .......A......... and migrates to other body parts
through ........B........ . 12. Give the name of two helminths, which cause ascariasis and
The most appropriate combination to fill the blanks is filariasis, respectively.
(a) A–contaminated food and water; B–blood (a) Ascaris and Wuchereria
(b) A–contaminated food; B–blood (b) Wuchereria and Ascaris
(c) A–skin; B–blood (c) Roundworm and flatworm
(d) A–air; B–blood (d) Plasmodium and Wuchereria
5. Common symptoms of typhoid are 13. Elephantiasis, a chronic inflammation that results in gross
(a) high fever 39°C to 40°C and weakness deformities is caused by
(b) stomach pain and constipation (a) Trichophyton (b) Wuchereria
(c) headache and loss of appetite (c) E. coli (d) Ascaris
14. Elephantiasis causing organism belongs to
6. Which of the following health disorder includes symptoms (a) Aschelminthes (b) Platyhelminthes
of fever, chills, cough, headache, grey to bluish lips and (c) Cnidaria (d) Porifera
fingers nails?
(a) Filariasis (b) Typhoid (c) Pneumonia (d) Malaria 15. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
(a) Filariasis — Wuchereria
7. Infection of pneumonia occurs due to (b) Syphilis — Trichuris trichiura
(a) droplets released from an infected person (c) Plague — Yersinia pestis
(b) released droplets/aerosols inhaled by healthy person (d) Dengue fever — Flavi-ribo virus
(c) sharing contaminated objects such as glasses and
utensils with an infected person 16. The group of diseases carried (transmitted) by insects are
(d) All of the above (a) typhoid, jaundice, tuberculosis
(b) mumps, measles, smallpox
8. Where will you look for the sporozoites of the malarial (c) scabies, ringworm, swine flu
parasite?
(d) malaria, filaria, yellow fever
(a) RBCs of humans suffering from malaria
(b) Spleen of infected person 17. Fungi belonging to genera–Microsporum, Trichophyton and
(c) Salivary glands of freshly moulted female Anopheles Epidermophyton are responsible for
mosquito (a) ringworm infection (b) skin allergy
(d) Saliva of infected female Anopheles mosquito (c) amoebiasis (d) measles
18. Gambusia is a fish which can control the mosquito borne 28. Colostrum, the yellowish fluid, secreted by mother during
disease like the initial days of lactation is very essential to impart
(a) dengue (b) malaria immunity to the new born infants because it contains
(c) chikungunya (d) All of these (a) monocytes (b) macrophages
(c) immunoglobulin-A (d) natural killer cells
19. Ability of the body to fight against the disease causing
organisms is called 29. What is injected into the patient’s body for determining the
(a) vulnerability (b) susceptibility cause of allergy?
(c) irritability (d) immunity (a) Allergen to which the patient is allergic
(b) IgG
20. Non-specific host defence that exists prior to the exposure (c) IgE
to an antigen is called
(d) Steroids
(a) acquired immunity (b) passive immunity
(c) innate immunity (d) active immunity 30. Which of the given sets include the primary lymphoid
organs?
21. Full form of PMNL is (a) Thymus, lymph nodes and spleen
(a) Poly Morpho-Nuclear Leucocytes (b) Bone marrow and thymus
(b) Para Morpho-Nuclear Lymphocytes (c) Bone marrow, Peyer’s patches and thymus
(c) Penta Morpho-Nuclear Leucocytes (d) Thymus, liver and tonsils
(d) Poly Morpho-Nuclear Lymphocytes
31. Thymus is a lobed organ located near the...... A ..... and
22. A person has developed interferons in his body. He seems to beneath the ....B.... . The most appropriate combination for A
carry an infection of and B is
(a) typhoid (b) filariasis (c) malaria (d) measles (a) A–heart; B–breast bone (b) A–liver; B–ribs
(c) A–heart; B–ribs (d) A–intestine; B–ribs
23. Each antibody has ...A... polypeptide chains, ..B.. small
chains called ...C... chains and ....D... longer chains called 32. T-lymphocytes mature in the ........... while B-lymphocyte
...E... chains. mature in the ........ .
The antibody, therefore, is represented as ... F.. Most appropriate combination of words to fill the blanks is
Here A to F refers to (a) thymus; bone marrow
(a) A–four, B–two, C–light, D–two, E–heavy, F–H 2 L 2 (b) bone marrow; thymus
(b) A–six, B–three, C–light, D–three, E–heavy, F–H 3 L 2 (c) thyroid; bone marrow
(c) A–two, B–one, C–light, D–one, E–heavy, F–H1 L1 (d) yellow bone marrow; red bone marrow
(d) A–five, B–two, C–light, D–three, E–heavy, F–H 2 L 2
33. Full form of MALT is
24. Antigen binding site of immunoglobulin (antibody) is (a) Mucosal Associated Lymphoid Tissue
(a) variable region of heavy chain (b) Memory Associated Lymphoid Tissue
(b) variable region of light chain (c) Memory Associated Lymphocyte Tissue
(c) constant region of light chain (d) Mucosa Associated Lymphocyte Tissue
(d) variable region of both heavy and light chain
34. Genetic material found in Human Immunodeficiency Virus
25. Humoral immunity is also called as (HIV) is
(a) antibody mediated immunity (a) double-stranded RNA (b) single-stranded RNA
(b) non-specific immune response (c) double-stranded DNA (d) single-stranded DNA
(c) antigen mediated immunity
35. Transmission of HIV infection from infected mother to her
(d) None of the above child occurs through
26. Humoral immunity is mediated by (a) liver (b) placenta
(a) B-cells (b) T-cells (c) skin (d) None of these
(c) macrophages (d) monocytes 36. A patient is suspected to be suffering from Acquired
Immuno Deficiency Syndrome (AIDS). Which diagnostic
27. Active immunity development is related to
technique will you recommend for its detection?
(a) natural killer cells (b) memory cells
(a) ELISA (b) MRT
(c) helper T-cells (d) suppressor T-cells
(c) Ultrasound (d) WIDAL
Biology 53
37. The word NACO stands for 44. Cannabinoid are the group of chemicals, which interact
(a) National AIDS Control Organisation with cannabinoid receptors present principally in
(b) Non-governmental AIDS Control Organisation (a) brain (b) neuron
(c) National Agrochemical Organistation (c) nephron (d) dendron
(d) Both (b) and (c)
45. Cannabinoids are obtained from
38. The property of normal cells by virtue of which contact (a) inflorescence of the plant Cannabis sativa
with other cells inhibits their uncontrolled growth is called (b) fruits of the plant Papaver somniferum
(a) contact inhibition (b) metastasis (c) latex of the plant Cannabis sativa
(c) benign tumour (d) metagenesis (d) plant Papaver somniferum inflorescence
39. The uncontrolled proliferation of cancerous cells produces 46. The flower tops, leaves and the resin of Cannabis sativa are
masses of cells, called used to produce
(a) tumours (b) neoplastic cells (a) marijuana (b) hashish
(c) protooncomass (d) Both (a) and (b) (c) charas (d) All of these
40. Physical carcinogens, e.g. UV-ray, X-ray and g-rays cause 47. Identify the pictures A, B and C.
(a) DNA damage (b) RNA damage
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Protein damage
41. Normal cell have genes called ........A..... which are present
in inactivated state but under certain conditions like .....B...
they get transformed to ...C.... Here A, B and C refers to
(a) A–cellular oncogenes, B–mutation, C–cancer causing
oncogenes A B C
(b) A–viral oncogenes, B–mutation, C–disease causing .
genes (a) A–Opium poppy, B–Cannabis sativa, C–Datura

(c) A–viral oncogenes, B–mutation, C–tumour causing (b) A–Cannabis sativa, B–Opium poppy, C–Datura
genes (c) A–Datura, B–Opium poppy, C–Cannabis sativa
(d) None of the above (d) A–Opium poppy, B–Datura, C–Cannabis sativa
42. Cancer cells are more easily damaged by radiation than 48. Drugs, that are normally used as medicines to help the
normal cells because they are patients cope with mental illness are
(a) starved of mutation (b) undergoing rapid division (a) barbiturates (b) amphetamines
(c) different in structure (d) non-dividing (c) benzodiazepines (d) All of these
43. Alpha-interferons 49. LSD is derived from
(a) activate the immune system (a) Claviceps purpurea
(b) help in destroying the tumour (b) Pseudomonas putida
(c) Both (a) and (b) (c) Cannabis indica
(d) None of the above (d) Cannabis sativa
ANSWERS
1. (d) 2. (b) 3. (d) 4. (a) 5. (d) 6. (c) 7. (d) 8. (d) 9. (c) 10. (b)
11. (a) 12. (a) 13. (b) 14. (c) 15. (b) 16. (d) 17. (a) 18. (d) 19. (d) 20. (c)
21. (a) 22. (d) 23. (a) 24. (d) 25. (a) 26. (a) 27. (b) 28. (c) 29. (a) 30. (b)
31. (a) 32. (a) 33. (a) 34. (b) 35. (b) 36. (a) 37. (a) 38. (a) 39. (d) 40. (a)
41. (a) 42. (b) 43. (c) 44. (a) 45. (a) 46. (d) 47. (a) 48. (d) 49. (a)

patches of small intestine and
8 (d) When an infected female 18. (d) Gambusia is a fish which can
appendix.
Anopheles bites a healthy person, control mosquito borne diseases like
Plasmodium in the form of dengue, chikungunya, malaria, etc. 31. (a) The thymus is a lobed gland located
‘sporozoites’ are transmitted from These fishes feeds on larvae and pupae near the heart and beneath the breast
saliva of mosquito into the human of certain mosquitoes and help in bone, consisting mainly of lymphatic
body. Thus, one can look for the eradication of various insect borne tissues and serving as the site of T-cell
sporozoites of the malarial parasite in diseases. differentiation.
the saliva of the infected female
22. (d) Interferons block viral reproduction 40. (a) Physical carcinogens include a
Anopheles mosquito.
in healthy cells and measles is caused wide range of agents, e.g. ionising
9. (c) Haemozoin is the toxic substance by the measles virus.Thus, a person radiations like X-rays and g-rays and
which is responsible for the high will develop interferons in his body, for non-ionising radiations like UV rays.
malarial fever. It is released due to the the infection of measles. These cause DNA damage leading to
rupture of RBCs in the liver of human neoplastic transformation.
25. (a) Humoral immunity is also called as
by the malarial parasite.
antibody mediated immunity. It refers 42. (b) Cancer is caused by loss of control
11. (a) Entamoeba histolytica causes to immunity provided by substances in over cell's reproductive capacity.
amoebiasis. It is a the body fluid. Since, antibodies are They undergo rapid division and
parasite of the large intestine of found in the blood, therefore antibody therefore, they are more easily
humans and is commonly mediated immunity is also referred to damaged by radiations than normal
contracted by ingesting contaminated as humoral immunity. cells.
water or food.
26. (a) Humoral immunity consists of 43. (c) Tumour cells have been shown to
12. (a) Ascariasis is caused by an intestinal antibodies in the blood and lymph. avoid detection and destruction by
endoparasite of human, ‘Ascaris B-lymphocytes secrete antibodies. immune system.
lumbricoides,’ commonly called Thus, humoral immunity is mediated Therefore, the patients are given
roundworm. by B-cells or B-lymphocytes. substances called biological response
Filariasis is caused by filarial worms, modifiers such as a-interferon, which
27. (b) Active immunity development is
Wuchereria bancrofti and Wuchereria activates their immune system and
related to memory cells formed when
malayi. helps in destroying the tumours.
B-cells and T-cells are activated by a
Both of these causative agents are pathogen. These cells recognise the
helminths. 45. (a) Natural cannabinoids are btained
pathogen quickly on subsequent from the leaves, resin and inflorescence
15. (b) Pair in option (b) is not correctly exposure and overwhelm the invaders of Cannabis sativa.
matched and can be corrected as with a massive production of
Syphilis is caused by bacteria antibodies. 48. (d) Drugs like barbiturates,
Trypanosoma pallidum. amphetamines, benzodiazepines,
28 (c) Colostrum, the yellowish fluid, Lysergic Acid Diethylamide (LSD) and
Rest of the other pairs show correct secreted by mother during the initial other similar drugs, are normally used
match. days of lactation is very essential to as medicines to help patients cope
impart immunity to the newborn
16. (d) The group of diseases carried with mental illnesses like depression
infants because it contains and insomnia.
(transmitted) by insects are
immunoglobulin-A. As IgA is secreted
Malaria transmitted by by Anopheles
in mother’s milk, it is also called 49. (a) Lysergic Acid Diethylamide (LSD) is
mosquito (female).
secretory immunoglobulin. an extremely potent psychedelic ergot
Filariasis transmitted by by Culex alkaloid derived from the fungus,
(female). 29. (a) For determining the cause of Claviceps purpurea.
Yellow fever transmitted by Aedes allergy, the patient is exposed to or
LSD is one of the most powerful
(female). injected with very small doses of
hallucinogenic drugs known. It was
possible allergens and the reactions
17. (a) Fungi parasitic on the skin, usually invented in 1938 by the Swiss chemist,
displayed or observed.
belong to the genera of Microsporum, Albert Hoffman, who was interested in
Epidermophyton or Trichophyton. 30. (b) The primary lymphoid organs are developing medicines from
Such fungi are responsible for bone marrow and thymus. compounds in ergot, a fungus that
ringworm infection and are also called The secondary lymphoid organs are attacks rye.
cutaneous fungus. spleen, lymph nodes, tonsils, Peyer’s
Biology 55
CHAPTER 09
Strategies for Enhancement

in Food Production
The world population is increasing at a rapid rate and To obtain the desired characters in livestock,
thus, the increase in demand for food. Therefore, it is following breeding methods can be used
necessary to increase food production from animal and (i) Inbreeding It refers to mating of closely related
plant sources to meet the increasing demand. individuals for 4-6 generations. It increases
The various biological principles like animal husbandry, homozygosity, which degrades the reproductivity
plant breeding, etc., are applied on animals and plants and productivity. This condition is called
to increase food production. inbreeding depression. It is done to develop
homozygous purelines.
1. Animal Husbandry
The rearing of economically important livestock, feeding (ii) Outbreeding It is the breeding of unrelated
them, providing them shelter, working for their animals. The offspring (result of such mating) is
disease control and breeding is called animal known as outcross. The single outcross may help
husbandry. It includes dairy, industry, poultry, fish to overcome inbreeding depression. It can be
rearing, etc. further classified as
A. Dairy Farm Management It is the management of l
Outcrossing The practice of mating of animals,
animals for milk and its products for human within the same breed but not having common
consumption. ancestors on either side of their pedigree up to
It mainly deals with the processes and systems to 4-6 generations is called outcrossing.
improve quality and quantity of milk. Milk yield mainly l
Cross-breeding The mating of superior male of
depends on the quality of breeds. one breed with the superior female of another
The management of dairy farm includes selection of breed is called cross-breeding. This is done to
good breed, keeping animals in disease-free combine the desirable qualities of two breeds
conditions, regular inspection by a veterinary doctor, into a single individual.
feeding good quality and quantity of fodder, stringent l
Interspecific Hybridisation The mating
cleanliness and hygiene of cattle and their handler. between male and female animals of two
B. Poultry Farm Management It is the management of different species is called interspecific
birds like chicken, ducks, turkey, pigeons in which hybridisation, e.g. interspecific hybridisation
they are reared for their meat and eggs, prevented between female horse and male donkey species
from diseases and are looked after. results in the formation of a ‘mule’.
The poultry farm management must include selection D. Controlled Breeding Techniques The breeding of
of disease-free breeds, proper food and water, animals using controlled techniques is
maintenance of health and hygiene of birds. another major approach to animal breeding. It
C. Animal Breeding It is an important aspect of animal includes
husbandry, which aims to increase the yield of (i) Artificial Insemination (AI) It is a method in which
animals and improve the desirable qualities of the the semen collected from a superior male parent
produce. is injected into the reproductive tract of the
Breed is a group of animals related by descent and selected female parent by the breeder. It helps to
similar in most characters like general appearance, overcome several problems of natural mating and
features, size, configuration, etc. cows at distant places can also be fertilised.
(ii) Multiple Ovulation Embryo Transfer (MOET) Dr. Norman E Borlaug is regarded as Father of
Technique It is the technique through which more Green Revolution worldwide for obtaining wheat
number of offspring are produced from the milk variety possessing Norin-10 dwarfing gene.
producing cattle (cow and buffalo). In this technique, Dr. MS Swaminathan is regarded as the Father of
hormones having FSH-like activity are injected in Indian Green Revolution.
milk producing animals so that they produce more Indian hybrid crops of high yielding varieties
than one egg. produced during green revolution are wheat
Thereafter, these eggs are fertilised by the sperms (Sonalika, Kalyan Sona), rice (Jaya, Ratna, IR-8),
carrying desirable genes from an elite bull. sugarcane (a hybrid of Saccharum barberi and
When the artificial fertilisation is done successfully, Saccharum officinarum), etc.
the fertilised eggs at 8-32 celled stage is inserted/ B. Plant Breeding for Disease Resistance
implanted into the uterus of a surrogate mother. Resistance of the host plant is the ability to prevent
E. Bee-keeping (Apiculture or Beeculture) It includes the the pathogen from causing disease and is
maintenance of hives of honeybees for the production determined by the genetic constitution of the host
of honey and beeswax. It has been an old age cottage plant. It is carried out by either of the following two
industry. Large places called apiaries or beehives are breeding methods
used for bee culture. (i) Conventional Breeding It is the traditional
The most common species reared by bee-keepers technique used to produce hybrid varieties.
are Apis indica and Apis dorsata in India. Some important varieties developed by
F. Fisheries It is the rearing of fishes, molluscs conventional breeding are Himgiri (wheat), Pusa
(shell-fish), crustaceans (crabs, prawns, etc.) to meet Swarnim (mustard), Pusa Shubhra (cauliflower),
the increasing demand of fish products. For this Pusa Komal (Cowpea) and Pusa Sadabahar
different techniques like aquaculture and pisciculture (chilli).
are used. These techniques help to increase the (ii) Mutation Breeding Mutation is a process by
production of aquatic plants and animals in both fresh which genetic variation is achieved through the
and marine water. changes in base sequences within genes. The
The common Indian freshwater fishes are catla, rohu mutation process is also used for the
and common carp. The marine fishes include hilsa, improvement of crops by changing their
sardines, mackerel and pomfret. genotype through induced mutation.
The fishes are used as natural source of vitamin-A Certain examples of mutation breeding are mung
and a good source of protein and iodine. bean (resistance to yellow mosaic virus and
powdery mildew).
Note • Blue Revolution It is related to increased fish rearing.
C. Plant Breeding for Developing Resistance
2. Plant Breeding to Insect Pests The insect resistance in host crop
It is a technique of manipulation of plant species, in order plants may be due to the morphological,
to create desired plant types that are better suited for biochemical or physiological characteristics.
cultivation, give better yields and are disease-resistant. Some crop varieties developed by hybridisation
The following characters or traits are incorporated into and selection for insect pest resistance like for
crop plants aphids include Pusa Gaurav (rapeseed mustard),
n
Increased tolerance to environmental stresses, such as Pusa Sem 2 (flat bean), etc.
salinity, extreme temperature, drought, etc. D. Plant Breeding for Improved Food Quality
n
Resistance to pathogens like viruses, fungi, bacteria Breeding of crops for improvement in quality of
and increased tolerance to insect pests. the food produced is an important aspect due to
n
High yielding and improved quality of crop plants like the following reasons
grain size, colour, shape, flavours, protein content, etc. (i) Lack of adequate food with nutritional
A. Steps of Plant Breeding These include collection of requirements.
variability, evaluation and selection of parents, cross (ii) People suffer from hidden hunger.
hybridisation among the selected parents, selection (iii) Absence of essential micronutrients in diet.
and testing of superior recombinants and their testing,
Due to the above reasons, the following two
release and commercialisation of new cultivars. By
different methods are used for meeting the
using this method, scientists brought about green
requirement of food.
revolution specially by enhancing the yield of cereal
produce.
Biology 57
(a) Biofortification It is the process of breeding of growing it in an artificial culture medium. This ability
crops containing high levels of vitamins, fibre, of a plant cell to produce a whole plant is called
protein and carbohydrates, etc. totipotency.
(b) Single Cell Protein (SCP) It refers to edible Micropropagation is the application of tissue
unicellular microorganisms. The biomass or protein culture for growing new large number of plantlets. It
extract from pure or mixed cultures of algae, yeasts, is a fast method to multiply plants vegetatively.
fungi or bacteria may be used as an ingredient or (ii) Somatic Hybridisation The process of fusion [with
as a substitute for protein-rich foods. the help of Polyethylene Glycol (PEG)] of protoplast
It is suitable for human consumption or also as of somatic cells obtained from different varieties or
animal foods, e.g. Spirulina, Chlorella, etc. species of a plant on a suitable nutrient medium in
vitro to develop a hybrid is known as somatic
3. Some Other Techniques hybridisation. The hybrids so, produced are called
Other techniques like tissue culture (other than plant somatic hybrids
breeding) and somatic hybridisation are used for food
Pomato is a somatic hybrid produced by the fusion
production.
of tomato and potato protoplasts. Unfortunately, this
(i) Tissue Culture It is a technique which produces the plant does not have all the desired characteristics
whole plant from a plant tissue (i.e. explant) by for its commercial utilisation.
Practice Questions
1. …… is the agricultural practice of feeding, breeding and 6. Which of the following points should be kept into
raising livestock. Choose the most appropriate word to fill consideration for management of poultry farm?
in the blank. A. Selection of disease free and suitable breeds
(a) Animal husbandry B. Proper and safe farm conditions
(b) Cattle improvement C. Proper feed and water
(c) Both (a) and (b) D. Hygiene and healthcare
(d) Cattle farming
(a) A,B,C (b) A,C,D
2. Crustacean fishery is connected with exploitation of (c) A,B,C,D (d) None of these
(a) oysters and crabs (b) mussels and squids 7. Which of the following is an aim of animal breeding?
(c) shell and cuttle fish (d) crabs and prawn
(a) Increasing the yield of animals
3. The practices concerned with the improvement in animal (b) Improving the desirable qualities of the produce
husbandry include
(c) Producing better looking animals
(a) management of farm and farm animals
(b) management of animals and plants at a same place
(c) genetic engineering 8. The term ‘inbreeding’ refers to
(d) None of the above (a) mating of more closely related individuals within the
same breed for 4-6 generations
4. Choose the correct option.
(b) mating of unrelated animals of the same breed
(a) More than 70% of the world livestock population is in
(c) mating of animals within the same breed, but having
India and China
no common ancestors up to 4-6 generations
(b) The contribution of India and china to the world farm
(d) superior males of one breed are mated with superior
produce is about 25%
females of another breed
(c) Important livestock of India are cattle and buffaloes
(d) All of the above 9. A superior female, in the case of cattle is the …A… that
produces more milk per lactation. On the other hand, a
5. What measures should be taken for cattles, to realise the superior male is the …B…, which gives rise to …C… as
yield potential? compared to those of other males. Here, A to C refers to
(a) They have to be housed well (a) A–cow, B–bull, C–superior progeny
(b) Feeding should be in scientific manner (b) A–buffalo, B–bull, C–inferior progeny
(c) Hygienic milking, storage and transport of milk (c) A–cow, B–bull, C–inferior progeny
(d) All of the above (d) A–cow, B–bull, C–normal progeny
10. Suggest a way to overcome inbreeding depression. 18. Following are the steps to produce a new genetic variety
(a) Selected animals should be mated with related superior of crop.
animals of different breed Collection of germplasm.
(b) Selected animals should be mated with unrelated superior
¯
animals of same breed
(c) Selected animals should be mated with related superior A
animals of same breed ¯
(d) Selected animals should be mated with unrelated superior
animals of different breed Cross-breeding /Hybridisation
11. When breeding is between the unrelated animals, including ¯

individuals of the same breed but having no common ancestors B
for 4-6 generations or between different breeds or different
¯
species, is called
(a) outbreeding (b) inbreeding Testing, release and commercialisation
(c) controlled breeding (d) hybridisation of the new cultivars
Choose appropriate option for A and B.
12. Controlled breeding experiments are carried out using
(a) A–Selection of parents; B–Testing of superior
(a) interspecific hybridisation
recombinants
(b) artificial insemination
(b) A–Evaluation of parents; B–Selection of superior
(c) outcrossing recombinants
(d) intraspecific hybridisation (c) A–Testing of parents; B–Selection of superior
13. During MOET at which of the following stages, embryo is recombinants
transferred to surrogate mothers (d) A–Evaluation and selection of parents; B–Selection
(a) Unfertilised ovules (b) 2-celled stage and testing of superior recombinants
(c) Fertilised egg (d) 8-32 celled stage 19. In case of plant breeding, cross hybridisation is a time
consuming and tedious process because
14. In which of the following techniques high milk giving breeds of
females and high quality meat giving bulls have been bred (a) pre-existing genetic variability is collected from
successfully to increase herd size short time? wild varieties, species and relatives of the
(a) MOET (b) Artificial insemination cultivated crop species
(c) Interspecific hybridisation (d) Induced mutation (b) it involves the selection of plants among the
progeny of the hybrids with desired combination of
15. Which of the following given point is important for successful characters
bee-keeping?
(c) it involves emasculation and bagging techniques to
(a) Knowledge of the nature and habits of bees transfer desired pollen grains to the stigma of
(b) Selection of suitable location for keeping the beehives desired plant
(c) Catching and hiving of swarms (group of bees) and their (d) None of the above
management during different seasons
(d) All of the above 20. During selection and testing of superior recombinants,
selected superior plants are self-pollinated for several
16. Which of the following is not a freshwater fishes? generation. Why?
(a) catla (b) rohu (a) So that they reach a state of uniformity
(c) common carp (d) mackerel (homozygosity)
(b) So that the characters will not segregate in the
17. Green revolution in India was possible due to
progeny
(a) exploitation of high yielding varieties (c) Both (a) and (b)
(b) intensive cultivation (d) Selected superior plants are not self-pollinated but
(c) better irrigation, fertilisers and pesticide facilities cross-pollinated
Biology 59
21. Semidwarf variety of wheat was developed at 28. Hidden hunger is best indicated as
(a) International Centre for Wheat and Maize (a) inability of majority of people to buy enough fruits,
Improvement Brazil vegetables, legumes, fish and meat and thus suffer
(b) International Centre for Wheat and Maize from deficiency of vitamin, protein, etc.
Improvement Mexico (b) people are unable to buy healthy drink item and thus
(c) International Centre for Wheat and Rice suffer from deficiency
Improvement Japan (c) people are unable to buy junk food thus suffer from
(d) International Centre for Wheat and Gram deficiency
Improvement Mexico (d) All of the above
22. Where Taichung Native-1 was developed? 29. Single cell protein is an alternative protein source for animal
(a) Taraiva (b) Tokyo (c) Tallinn (d) Taiwan and human nutrition formed from certain beneficial
microorganisms like
23. Saccharum barberi and Saccharum officinarum are varieties
of (a) Spirulina
(b) Methylophilus methylotrophus
(a) sugarcane (b) maize (c) wheat (d) rice
24. Method(s) of breeding plants for acquiring disease resistance (d) None of the above
is/are
30. The technique of regeneration of whole plant from any part
(a) conventional breeding techniques of a plant by allowing it to grow on a suitable culture under
(b) mutation breeding aseptic sterile conditions in vitro is called
(c) tissue culture
(a) tissue culture (b) plant culture
(c) micropropagation (d) somatic hybridisation
25. Himgiri developed by hybridisation and selection for
31. To meet the demands of the society, in vitro production of a
disease resistance against rust pathogens is a variety of
large number of plantlets in a short duration is practiced in
(a) chilli (b) maize (c) sugarcane (d) wheat floriculture and horticulture industry today. It is called
26. The process by which genetic variations are created through (a) somatic hybridisation (b) micropropagation
changes in the base sequences within genes is (c) hybridoma technology (d) somaclonal variation
(a) plant breeding (b) interspecific hybridisation 32. Somatic hybrids are produced by the fusion of …… .
(c) outcrossing (d) mutation
(a) protoplasts of two cells (b) cytoplasm of two cells
27. Some released crop varieties bred by hybridisation and (c) nucleus of two cells (d) DNA of two cells
selection, for insect pest resistance are given in the table.
Fill up the blanks.
33. The process of fusion of protoplast of somatic cells obtained
from different varieties or species of plant on a suitable
Crops Varieties Insect pests nutrient medium in vitro to develop a somatic hybrid is
called
Brassica A Aphids
(a) somatic hybridisation
B Pusa Sem 2, Pusa Sem-3 Jassids, aphids and fruit
borer
(b) cross hybridisation
(c) intravarietal hybridisation
C Pusa Sawani, Pusa A-4 Shoot and fruit borer
(d) interspecific hybridisation
(a) A–Pusa Karan, B–Flat bean, C–Bhindi
(b) A–Pusa Gaurav, B–Flat bean, C–Okra 34. Pomato is a somatic hybrid of
(c) A–Pusa Shubhra, B–Wrinkled bean, C–Pea (a) potato and onion (b) potato and tomato
(d) A–Pusa Komal, B–Smooth bean, C–Bhindi (c) potato and brinjal (d) brinjal and tomato
ANSWERS
1. (a) 2. (d) 3. (a) 4. (d) 5. (d) 6. (c) 7. (d) 8. (a) 9. (a) 10. (b)
11. (a) 12. (b) 13. (d) 14. (a) 15. (d) 16. (d) 17. (d) 18. (d) 19. (c) 20. (c)
21. (b) 22. (d) 23. (a) 24. (d) 25. (d) 26. (d) 27. (b) 28. (a) 29. (c) 30. (a)
31. (b) 32. (a) 33. (a) 34. (b)

character or trait not found in the
11. (a) Outbreeding refers to the mating of 17. (d) During the mid 1960s, Green
parental type.
unrelated animals belonging to revolution in India was witnessed, i.e. a
Individuals of the same breed but rapid increase in the production of 28. (a) Hidden hunger is indicated as the
having no common ancestors on either agricultural products (particularly lack of protein, vitamins and
side for at least wheat). It was possible due to the micronutrients deficiencies in the
4-6 generations (outcrossing). introduction of high yielding varieties, food. This is because not all people
Individuals of the different breeds increased irrigation facilities, application can afford to buy adequate vegetable,
(cross-breeding). of fertilisers and pesticides, multiple fruits, legumes, fish and meat. Thus,
Individuals of different species cropping and better agricultural more than 840 million people in the
(interspecific hybridisation). management. world suffering from hidden hunger.
12. (b) Controlled breeding experiments 24. (d) Plant breeding is carried out by the 29. (c) Single cell proteins are formed
are carried out using artificial conventional breeding techniques or by from certain beneficial
insemination (and MOET). In this mutation breeding. The conventional microorganisms like
process semen from chosen male is method of breeding for disease Bacteria — Methylophilus
injected into reproductive tract of resistance is that of hybridisation and methylotrophus
chosen females. By this desirable selection. Mutation breeding is defined Cyanobacteria — Spirulina.
matings are performed. as the process of breeding by artificially
inducing mutations using chemicals (like 32. (a) Somatic hybrids are produced by
13. (d) During MOET fertilised eggs at 8-32 aniline) or radiations like (gamma the fusion of protoplasts of two cells,
cells stages, are recovered radiation). each having a desirable character.
non-surgically and transferred to
26. (d) Mutation is the process by which 34. (b) Pomato is a somatic hybrid
surrogate mothers. The genetic mother
genetic variations are created through obtained by a mating between potato
is available for another round of
changes in the base sequence within and tomato whereas bomato is a
superovulation. This technology has
genes. It results in the creation of a new somatic hybrid between brinjal and
been demonstrated for cattle, sheep,
tomato.
rabbits, buffaloes, mares, etc.
Biology 61
CHAPTER 10
Microbes in Human Welfare
1. Microbes used for producing food, drinks and bakery

These are the major components of biological systems products, e.g. in the production of, alcohol drinks
on the Earth. These are microscopic, single-celled, tiny and bread.
creatures that are very small and can only be seen (ii) Antibiotics Production Microorganisms are used in
under the microscope. the production of antibiotics. Antibiotics
Microbes are diverse protozoans, viruses, bacteria, (Anti–against, bio–life) suppress the growth of other
algae (small plant groups) and fungi. Study of disease causing microbes, e.g. penicillin. It was the
microorganisms is called Microbiology. Although, first discovered antibiotic by Alexander Fleming,
microbes are causal agents of most infectious when he was working on Staphylococci bacteria.
diseases, they also have been in use by humans for It is obtained from a mould called Penicillium
their own benefits. notatum. Some other antibiotics were also purified
2. Microbes in Household Products like streptomycin, terramycin, fumagillin (from
Aspergillus fumigatus), etc.
Microbes are used in household products in day-to-day
life, e.g. curd is made by Lactobacillus, commonly called Note • Judicious use of antibiotics is an approach to maximise
Lactic Acid Bacteria (LAB). It grows in milk and converts the therapeutic efficiency and minimise the appearance
it into curd. of resistant microorganisms.
The dough which is used for making food items such as (iii) Chemicals, Enzymes and other Bioactive
dosa, idli, cakes and bread are also fermented by Molecules Microbes are being used for commercial
bacteria or yeast (Saccharomyces cerevisiae). and industrial production of certain chemicals like
l
Cheese is made by partial digestion of milk using alcohols, organic acids, enzymes and other
different microbes. Different varieties of cheese are bioactive molecules. Some of them are given below
known by texture, flavour and taste. These Organic Acids Produced by Microbes
specifications come from Propionibacterium
shermanii in Swiss cheese and Penicillium roquefortii Acid Microbe
in roquefort cheese. Citric acid Aspergillus niger (fungus)
l
Toddy is a traditional drink of Southern India. It is
Acetic acid Acetobacter aceti (bacterium)
made by fermenting sap from palm trees, coconut,
etc. Butyric acid Clostridium butylicum (bacterium)
Note • The amount of curd added as raw material to convert Lactic acid Lactobacillus (bacterium)
milk into curd is known as inoculum. Ethanol Saccharomyces cerevisiae (yeast)
3. Microbes in Industrial Products
Enzymes and their Functions
A variety of microbes is used to synthesise a number of
products valuable to human beings, e.g. beverages and
n
Lipase is used in laundry detergents.
antibiotics. For industrial production, microbes are n
Pectinase and protease are used to clarify the
grown in large vessels called fermentors or bottled juices.
bioreactors. n
Streptokinase (Streptococcus bacterium) is used as
(i) Fermented Beverages Saccharomyces clot buster to remove clots from the blood vessels of
cerevisiae (commonly called as brewer’s yeast) is patients who have undergone myocardial infarction.
Bioactive Molecules and their Uses CO 2 (30-40%), small amount of hydrogen, nitrogen,
Cyclosporin-A (Trichoderma polysporum fungi) is used as ethylene, acetylene, ethane, propane and a very little
an immunosuppressive agent in organ transplant amount of hydrogen sulphide (H2S).
patients. The excreta of cattle, i.e. cattle dung (commonly
Statins (Monascus purpureus yeast) are used as blood known as gobar) is rich in methanogenic bacteria
cholesterol lowering agents. which is used in the generation of biogas or gobar
gas.
4. Microbes in Sewage Treatment Biogas plant optimises the utilisation of manure,
In sewage treatment, several heterotrophic microbes like
waste and other organic feed stock by converting
bacteria, fungi, protozoans, etc., which are naturally present
these biomasses into energy and valuable bio
in the sewage are utilised.
fertilisers.
The treatment of waste water containing all discarded
Biogas production technology was developed in India
materials, domestic wastes, agriculture wastes, human
by Khadi and Village Industries Commission (KVIC)
excreta, etc., is done in Sewage Treatment Plants
and Indian Agricultural Research Institute (IARI).
(STPs).
This treatment is carried out in following two stages 6. Microbes as Biocontrol Agents
(i) Primary Treatment It is the physical removal of large It is the useful biological method for controlling plant
and small particles from the sewage. It is done diseases and pests. There are few examples of
through filtration and sedimentation. All grit (soil and biological control agents given as
small pebbles) is removed by sedimentation in settling (i) Bacillus thuringiensis is a soil bacterium,
tanks. which produces crystals of a protein (Bt toxin) in
All solids that are settled down at the bottom are its endospore form. This protein kills insects like
known as primary sludge.It traps lots of microbes cotton bollworm and other termites, butterflies,
and debris. The supernatant forms the effluent which ants, etc.
is taken for secondary treatment. (ii) Ladybird and dragonflies are useful to get rid of
(ii) Secondary Treatment or Biological Treatment The aphids and mosquitoes, respectively.
primary effluent is passed into large aeration tanks (iii) Trichoderma are free-living fungi that are very
where it is constantly agitated mechanically. common in the root ecosystems. They also act as
This allows the growth of the aerobic microbes into biocontrol agents in control of plant pathogens.
flocs (masses of bacteria associated with fungal (iv) Baculoviruses belonging to the genus
filaments to form mesh-like structures) which consume Nucleopolyhedrovirus are also biological control
the major part of the organic matter present in the agents aganist insect pests.
effluent. It significantly reduces the BOD (Biochemical
Oxygen Demand) of the effluent. 7. Microbes as Biofertilisers
Different types of microbes increase the nutrient
As the BOD of the waste matter is reduced to 10-15% content of soil via their biological processes. These
of raw sewage, it is passed into settling tank. The
are known as biofertilisers. These are responsible for
sediment of settling tank is called activated sludge
increasing plant growth.
which is sent to anaerobic sludge digesters.
Here, anaerobic microbes like methanogens digest Some organisms such as bacteria, fungi and
organic mass and aerobic microbes (bacteria and cyanobacteria enrich the nutrient quality of the soil.
fungi) and produce gases like methane (CH4), The main sources of biofertilisers are as follows
hydrogen sulphide (H2S), carbon dioxide (CO 2 ), etc. (i) Symbiotic bacteria , e.g. Rhizobium, Free-living
These gases form biogas. bacteria in the soil, e.g. Azotobacter and
Azospirillum.
5. Microbes in Biogas Production
(ii) Symbiotic fungi, e.g. Mycorrhiza.
Microbes like methanogens and Methanobacterium are
used for the production of ‘biogas’ which is used as an (iii) Symbiotic cyanobacteria, e.g. Anabaena and
energy source. The major part of biogas, consists of Azolla, etc. Free-living Cyanobacteria, e.g.
methane (50-70%). Other constituents of biogas are CO 2 Nostoc, Oscillatoria and blue-green algae.
Biology 63
Practice Questions
1. Microorganisms or microbes are found in 11. Which one of these microbes is used in the commercial
(a) soil, air, water and inside the bodies of living production of butyric acid?
organisms (a) Clostridium butylicum
(b) thermal vents deep in soil (b) Streptococcus butylicum
(c) under snow and in highly acidic environments (c) Trichoderma polysporum
(d) All of the above (d) Saccharomyces cerevisiae
2. The microscopic proteinaceous infectious agents are 12. Choose the incorrect pair.
(a) viroids (b) prions (c) protozoans (d) bacteria (a) Lipases – Used in detergents for removing oil stains
(b) Pectinases and proteases – Used in clarifying
3. Which of the following bacteria convert milk into curd? bottled juices
(a) Propionibacterium shermanii (c) Statins – Competitively inhibit the enzyme
(b) Saccharomyces cerevisiae responsible for cholesterol synthesis
(c) Lactobacillus (d) None of the above
(d) Thermophilic bacteria
13. Which of the following is used as ‘clot buster’ for removing
4. The starter or inoculum is added to the fresh milk in order clots from blood vessels of patient who have undergone
to convert milk into curd and improves its nutritional myocardial infarction?
quality by increasing (a) Ethanol (b) Statins
(a) vitamin-B12 (b) protein (c) Cyclosporin-A (d) Streptokinase
(c) calcium (d) All of these
14. Sewage contains large amounts of …A… and …B… . Here A
5. Which gas is released during the process of fermentation and B refer to
that gives the puffy appearance to dough for making bread? (a) A–inorganic matter, B–bacteria
(a) CO2 (b) CO (b) A–organic matter, B–pathogenic microbes
(c) O2 (d) H2 (c) A–organic matter, B–virus
(d) A–inorganic matter, B–pathogenic microbes
6. Swiss cheese is formed by the bacterium
15. In the primary treatment of sewage, the soil and small
(a) Aspergillus niger pebbles are removed by
(b) Lactobacillus
(a) filtration (b) sedimentation
(c) Propionibacterium shemanii
(c) condensation (d) evaporation
(d) Penicillium roqueforti
16. In the biological treatment of sewage, the masses of bacteria
7. The alcoholic beverages produced by the distillation of the held together by fungal filament to form mesh-like
fermented broth are structures called as
(a) wine and beer (b) wine, whisky and brandy (a) activated sludge (b) aerobic process
(c) whisky, brandy and rum (d) whisky, beer and brandy (c) flocs (d) anaerobic sludge
8. Which of the following organisms is used in the production 17. In the sewage treatment, bacterial flocs are allowed to
of beverages like wine, beer, whisky brandy or rum? sediment in a settling tank. This sediment is called as
(a) Clostridium butylicum (b) Aspergillus niger (a) activated sludge (b) primary sludge
(c) Saccharomyces cerevisiae (d) Penicillium notatum (c) anaerobic sludge (d) secondary sludge
9. Which one of the following antibiotics was extensively used 18. Microbes are used in
to treat American soldiers wounded in World War-II?
I. primary treatment of sewage.
(a) Streptokinase (b) Penicillin II. secondary treatment of sewage.
(c) Statins (d) Neomycin
III. anaerobic sludge digesters.
10. Antibiotics are used to treat diseases like IV. production of biogas.
(a) diphtheria, whooping cough Choose the correct option.
(b) plague (a) I, II and III (b) I, III and IV
(c) leprosy (c) II, III and IV (d) All of the above
19. The BOD test measures the rate of uptake of oxygen by 26. Trichoderma species, free-living fungi, are present in root
microbes in water bodies. The greater BOD of sample water, ecosystems are potentially useful as
indicates that (a) biopesticides
(a) it is highly polluted (b) biofertilisers
(b) it is not polluted (c) methanogens
(c) it is moderately polluted (d) vectors for genetic engineering
(d) pollution level cannot be determined 27. Baculoviruses (Nucleopolyhedrovirus) do not show
20. Which of the following plans has been initiated by the (a) host specificity
Ministry of Environment and Forests to protect rivers from (b) narrow spectrum applications
water pollution? (c) effects on non-target insects
(a) Ganga action plan (b) Yamuna action plan (d) utility in IPM programme
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of the above
28. A biocontrol agent to be a part of an integrated pest
21. The most flammable gaseous component of biogas is management should be
(a) methane, CO2, H2 and H2 S (a) species-specific and symbiotic
(b) methane (b) free-living and broad spectrum
(c) CO2, H2 and H2S (c) narrow spectrum and symbiotic
(d) CO, methane and N2 (d) species-specific and inactive on non-target organisms
22. Which of the following bacteria is present in the rumen of 29. Organic farming includes
cattle? (a) use of fertilisers and pesticides of biological origin
(a) Rhizobium (b) Azotobacter (b) IPM (Integrated Pest Management)
(c) Methanobacterium (d) Clostridium (c) locally developed pest resistant varieties
23. Gobar gas generation technology in India was developed by
the collaboration of ...A... and ...B... . Here, A and B refer to 30. Which of the following are the part or example of symbiotic
(a) A–Rural Bank of India, B–Khadi and Village mutualistic association?
Industries Commission
(a) Rhizobium (b) Mycorrhiza
(b) A–Indian Agricultural Research Institute, B–Khadi
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Oscillatoria
and Village Industries Commission
(c) A–National Bank for Agriculture and Development, 31. Which of the following is common to Azospirillum,
B–Indian Agricultural Research Institute Anabaena, Nostoc and Oscillatoria?
(d) A–National Bank for Agriculture and Development, (a) N2-fixer microbes
B–Khadi and Village Industries Commission (b) Prokaryotic organism
24. Bacillus thuringiensis is used as
(d) Eukaryotic organism
(a) biofungicide (b) biopesticide
(c) biocontrol agent (d) bioweapon 32. A biocontrol agent used for pest butterfly caterpillars is
(a) Trichoderma
25. Cultivation of Bt cotton has been much in the news. The (b) Bacillus thuringiensis
prefix Bt means
(c) Pseudomonas
(a) ‘Barium-treated’ cotton seeds (d) Rhizobium
(b) ‘Bigger thread’ variety of cotton with better tensile
33. Select the group of organisms that are used as biofertilisers
strength
in organic farming.
(c) produced by ‘biotechnology’ using restriction enzymes
(a) Clostridium, Beijerinckia, Glomus and Anabaena
and ligases
(b) Trichoderma, Baculovirus and B. thuringiensis
(d) carrying an endotoxin gene from Bacillus
(c) Nostoc, Azolla pinnata and Tobacco mosaic virus
thuringiensis
(d) Penicillium, Streptococcus and Aspergillus
ANSWERS
1. (d) 2. (b) 3. (c) 4. (a) 5. (a) 6. (c) 7. (c) 8. (c) 9. (b) 10. (d)
11. (a) 12. (d) 13. (d) 14. (b) 15. (b) 16. (c) 17. (a) 18. (c) 19. (a) 20. (c)
21. (b) 22. (c) 23. (b) 24. (c) 25. (d) 26. (a) 27. (c) 28. (d) 29. (d) 30. (c)
31. (c) 32. (b) 33. (a)
Biology 65

buster for removing clots from the Plan (YAP), Satluj Action Plan and
2 (b) Prions are the microscopic protein
blood vessels of patients who have Gomti Action Plan.
particles similar to a virus, but lack
undergone myocardial infarction
nucleic acid. These are assumed to be 21 (b) The major component of biogas is
leading to heart attack.
the infectious agent, responsible for methane (about 50-68%), and it is
scrapie and certain other degenerative 16 (c) In the biological treatment of highly inflammable. The other
diseases of the nervous system. sewage, flocs are formed. These are gaseous components of biogas are
masses of bacteria associated with carbon dioxide (25-35%), hydrogen
3 (c) Lactobacillus is added to milk which
fungal filaments to form a mesh-like (1-7%) and rarely hydrogen sulphide.
converts lactose (sugar of milk) into
structure. The growing microbes
lactic acid. Lactic acid causes 24 (c) Bacillus thuringiensis is a soil
consume organic matter and thus
coagulation and partial conversion of bacterium used as biocontrol agent
reduce the Biochemical Oxygen
milk protein casein to calcium that can control infestations by insect
Demand (BOD) and lowers the level of
paracaseinate. These chemical changes pests such as butterfly, caterpillars,
pollutants.
in milk help in its conversion into curd, ants, moths, etc. Some strains of these
yoghurt and cheese. 17 (a) In the sewage treatment, when bacteria can kill animal and plant
Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD) parasitic nematodes, snails,
5 (a) The dough, which is used for
of sewage has reduced, the effluent is protozoans, etc.
making foods such as dosa, bread and
passed into settling tank. Here, the
idli are also fermented by bacteria. The 27 (c) Baculoviruses
bacterial flocs settle and the sediment
puffed up appearance of dough is due (Nucleopolyhedrovirus) do not show
thus formed is called activated sludge.
to the production of CO2 gas by these effect on non-target insects. These
bacteria. 18 (c) Primary treatment does not involve viruses are excellent candidates for
microbes. It is the physical removal of species-specific, narrow spectrum
6 (c) Swiss cheese is formed with the help
large and small particles from sewage. insecticidal applications. These have
of single strain of Propionibacterium
However, secondary treatment of the been known to shown no negative
shermanii. Its characteristic feature is
effluent from the primary settling tank is impacts on plants, mammals, birds,
the formation of large holes due to the
purely a biological treatment involving fish or even on non-target insects.
production of a large amount of CO2.
microbial activity. Further, in the
28 (d) For a biocontrol agent to be a part
7 (c) Distilled spritis are alcoholic anaerobic sludge digesters,
of an Integrated Pest Management
beverages in which the concentration heterotrophic microbes anaerobically
(IPM) programme, it should be
of ethyl alcohol is more than the digest bacteria and fungi in the sludge
species-specific and inactive or have
original fermented mixture which is producing mixture of gases such as
no negative impacts on non-target
obtained by distillation. These methane, hydrogen sulphide and CO2,
organisms like plants, mammals, birds,
beverages are whisky, brandy and rum. which form biogas.
fish and even another non-target
Other beverages like wine and beer are Thus, microbes are used in secondary insects. It should kill only targeted
produced without distillation. treatment, anaerobic sludge digesters insects/pests (organisms).
and biogas production.
8 (c) An yeast, Saccharomyces cerevisiae,
29. (d) Organic farming includes several
is used in the production of alcoholic 19 (a) BOD is a measure of the organic methods to enhance soil fertility. In
beverages like wine, beer, whisky, matter present in water. Thus, greater such farming, methods of biological
brandy or rum. Beverages are generally the value of BOD in a sample of water, origin are used, e.g. biopesticide,
formed by fermenting malted cereals more will be its polluting potential. biofertilisers, IPM (Integrated Pest
and fruit juices with this yeast to This indicates that the water body will Management), locally developed pest
produce ethanol or alcohol. be highly polluted. resistant varieties, green manure, etc.
10 (d) Antibiotics have greatly improved 20 (c) In order to protect the major rivers 32. (b) Bacillus thuringiensis is the most
our capacity to treat deadly diseases of India from water pollution, the effective biocontrol agent for insect
such as diphtheria (gal ghotu), Ministry of Environment and Forests, pests such as butterfly caterpillars.
whooping cough (kali khansi), plague, has initiated development of the Spores of this bacterium produce a
leprosy (kusht rog), which is used to kill sewage treatment plants under the toxic insecticidal protein called Cry.
millions of people all over the world. National River Conservation Authority, These proteins enter the host’s body
so that only treated sewage may be and reach gut where on activation
13 (d) Streptokinase produced by the
discharged in the rivers, e.g. Ganga they kill the host by lysis.
bacterium Streptococcus and modified
Action Plan (GAP), Yamuna Action
by genetic engineering is used as a clot
CHAPTER 11
Biotechnology :
Principle and Processes
1. Biotechnology enzymes. These are enzymes which are used for
It is an integrated branch of biology which deals with cutting of DNA at specific locations during DNA
the techniques of using live organisms or enzymes technology.
from organisms in order to produce different products Restriction enzymes belong to a larger class of
and processes useful to humans. The term enzymes called nucleases, which are of two
‘biotechnology’ was coined by Karl Ereky in 1917. It types, i.e. (a) exonucleases that
encompasses both traditional and modern remove nucleotides from the ends of the DNA
biotechnology. (either 5 ′ or 3 ′) in one strand of duplex and
(b) endonucleases make cuts at specific position
2. Principles of Biotechnology within the DNA.
Two core techniques that enabled birth of modern
biotechnology are (ii) DNA Ligases (Molecular glue) These enzymes
repair broken DNA fragments by joining two
A. Genetic Engineering It refers to the techniques
nucleotides.
used for modification of chemical nature of genetic
material (DNA/RNA) and their introduction into (iii) Alkaline Phosphatase (AP) This enzyme removes
another organism (host) to change the phenotypic the phosphate group from the 5 ′ end of a DNA
characters of that organism. Paul Berg is known as molecule, leaving a free 5 ′ hydroxyl group, which
the Father of Genetic Engineering. prevents unwanted self-ligation of vector DNA
molecules during the formation of recombinant
B. Sterilisation Methods These methods are used to
DNA.
maintain microbial contamination-free conditions in
chemical engineering processes to enable the (iv) DNA Polymerases This enzyme helps in in vitro
growth and manipulation of only the desired synthesis of complementary DNA (cDNA) strand on
microbes or cells. It is used to get large quantities DNA templates.
of products like vaccines, enzymes, antibiotics, etc. B. Cloning Vectors The DNA molecule that can carry a
foreign DNA segment and replicate inside the host
3. Recombinant DNA Technology (RDT) cell is called as a vector. These vectors have the
It is a technique of genetic engineering which ability to replicate within bacterial cells independent
combines two genes from two different sources to of the control of chromosomal DNA.
create a new recombinant gene. Recombinant DNA
Following vectors are commonly used in recombinant
was first created by Stanley Cohen and Herbert Boyer
DNA technology
in 1972.
(i) Plasmids These are small, autonomously replicating
Tools of Recombinant DNA Technology The key tools
usually circular, extrachromosomal double-stranded
involved in RDT are
DNA molecule that occurs in many bacteria and
A. Enzymes are involved in genetic engineering which some yeasts, e.g. E. coli containing vector pBR322.
simplify this complex process.
(ii) Bacteriophages These are viruses infecting
The various enzymes involved are bacteria. They are used as the vector because of
(i) Restriction Enzymes (Molecular scissors) Arber, very high copy number of their genome within the
Smith and Nathan discovered the restriction bacterial cells.
Biology 67
Following features are required to facilitate cloning restriction enzyme. This is done at the optimal
into a vector conditions for that specific enzyme.
(a) Origin of replication (Ori) is a sequence from (iii) Separation and Isolation of DNA Fragments
where replication begins. The cutting of DNA by restriction endonucleases
(b) Selectable markers help in identifying or results in the formation of fragments of DNA which
selecting transformants and eliminating the are separated by a technique known as
non-transformants. Transformation is a gel electrophoresis.
procedure through which piece of DNA is The separated DNA fragments can be visualised
introduced into the host bacterium. only after staining the DNA with Ethidium Bromide
(c) Cloning sites (recognition sites) are generally (EtBr) followed by exposure to UV radiation.
required to link foreign or alien DNA with vector. The bright orange coloured bands of DNA are seen
Ligation of foreign DNA is carried at restriction when exposed to UV light.
site present in one of the two antibiotic resistance (iv) Amplification of Gene Interest using PCR
genes. This process results in inactivation of
In this stage, several replicas of useful genes are
antibiotic resistance gene and called as insertional
synthesised by using two sets of primers, a DNA
inactivation.
polymerase enzyme and dNTPs by an in vitro
(iii) Vectors for Cloning Genes in Plants and method known as Polymerase Chain Reaction
Animals In plants, the Tumour inducing (Ti) plasmid (PCR). It was developed by Kary Mullis in 1985.
of Agrobacterium tumefaciens (a pathogen of
several dicot plants) is used as a cloning vector. This method involves three processes, which are as
The proper vector for cloning in animal cells is follows
SV40. l
Denaturation at 95°C for 15 minutes which
Similarly, retrovirus, adenovirus, papilloma virus are separates the two stands of dsDNA.
also used as a cloning vector in animals because l
Annealing at 40-60°C with two sets of
of their ability to transform normal cells into oligonucleotide primers to each separated strand.
cancerous cells. l
Extension where DNA Taq polymerase adds
C. Competent Host Organism complementary dNTPs to extend the primers by
(For Transformation with Recombinant DNA) adding nucleotides complementary to the
DNA is a hydrophilic molecule, so it cannot pass template.
through cell membranes. In order to force bacterial (v) Ligation of DNA Fragment into a Vector
cell to take up the plasmid, they must first be made This process requires a vector DNA and a source
competent. DNA. In order to obtain sticky ends, both of these
The competency is the ability of a cell to take up should be cut with the same endonuclease, after
foreign DNA. The cells can be made competent by which, both are ligated by mixing vector DNA, gene
following methods of interest and enzyme DNA ligase to form the
(i) Heat shock (ii) Microinjection recombinant DNA/ hybrid DNA.
(iii) Biolistic/gene gun (vi) Insertion of Recombinant DNA into Host
Cell/Organisms
4. Processes of Recombinant DNA Technology It can be achieved by several methods, before
It involves various steps in a specific sequence. which the recipient cells are made competent to
Stages of recombinant DNA technology are receive DNA.
described as below A recombinant DNA containing gene for resistance
(i) Isolation of Genetic Material (DNA) to an antibiotic is transferred to host cells to
In majority of organisms, DNA is the genetic produce ampicillin resistant cells which contain
material. ampicillin resistant gene and are called as
selectable markers.
The isolation of DNA can be achieved by treating
bacterial cells/plant or animal tissues with enzymes (vii) Obtaining or Culturing the Foreign Gene Product
such as lysozyme (bacteria), cellulase (plant cells) The desired protein encoded gene is expressed in
and chitinase (fungus). RNA and proteins can be the heterologous host, it is called recombinant
removed by ribonuclease and protease. protein. The cells harbouring cloned genes of
interest are grown on a small scale in the laboratory.
(ii) Cutting of DNA at Specific Locations
These cell cultures are used for extracting the
Restriction enzyme digestions are performed by desired protein using various separation techniques.
incubating purified DNA molecules with the
5. Bioreactors n
The most commonly used bioreactors are stirring
These are the large volume vessels (approximately type bioreactor, simple stirred-tank bioreactor and
100-1000 L), which provide the optimal conditions for sparged stirred-tank bioreactor.
achieving the desired product by providing optimum
growth conditions like temperature, pH, substrate,
6. Downstream Processing
After completion of the biosynthetic phase, the product
salts, vitamins and oxygen.
has to be subjected through a series of processes
n
The components of a bioreactor include an agitator before it is ready for marketing as a finished product.
system, an oxygen delivery system, a foam control
The processes include, separation and purification of
system, a temperature control system and pH
products, which are collectively called the downstream
control system and a sampling part to withdraw
processing.
culture periodically.
Practice Questions
1. The controlled use of biological agents, such as live 6. The enzymes, commonly used in genetic engineering are
organisms or enzymes from organisms to produce products (a) restriction endonuclease and polymerase
and processes useful to humans is called as
(b) endonuclease and ligase
(a) biochemistry (b) molecular biology (c) restriction endonuclease and ligase
(c) biotechnology (d) microbiology (d) ligase and polymerase
2. EFB stands for 7. In the naming of restriction enzymes, the first letter of the
(a) European Federation of Biotechnology name is derived from ..... A .... and next two letters from the
(b) Eurasian Federation of Biotechnology ..... B ..... and fourth letters from the name of ..... C .... of ....
(c) East Asia Federation of Biotechnology D .... from which the enzymes are extracted.
A to D in the statement can be
(d) Ethiopian Federation of Biotechnology
A B C D
3. Genetic engineering techniques include
(a) genus species strain bacteria
(a) altering genetic material
(b) sequencing genetic material (b) species genus strain bacteria
(c) studying genetic material (c) genus species variety eukaryote
(d) None of the above (d) species genus variety eukaryote
4. The specific sequence of DNA that initiate replication of
8. Restriction endonuclease binds to DNA and cuts two
alien DNA in rDNA technology is called as
strands of double helix at specific points in their
(a) initiation sequence
(a) sugar-phosphate backbone
(b) origin of replication
(b) hydrogen bond
(c) origin of DNA
(c) glycosidic bonds
(d) initiation of DNA
5. The different basic steps of genetically modifying an
9. Restriction enzyme cuts the DNA strand a little away from
organism are given below randomly.
the centre of palindrome site between
I. Identification of DNA with desirable genes.
(a) same two bases on same strand
II. Transfer of the DNA to its progeny.
(b) same two bases on opposite strand
III. Maintenance of introduced DNA in the host.
(c) opposite bases on same strand
IV. Introduction of identified DNA into the host. (d) opposite bases on opposite strand
Which of the following represents the correct sequence
of steps? 10. How many fragments will be generated, if a closed circular
DNA molecule is digested using a restriction enzyme having
(a) I, II, III and IV (b) I, IV, III and II
six recognition sites on the DNA?
(c) III, IV, II and I (d) I, III, IV and II
(a) 4 (b) 6 (c) 7 (d) 5
Biology 69
11. Which of the following option (s) is not correct regarding 19. Identify A, B, C and D in the given diagram of E. coli cloning
Eco RI enzyme? vector pBR322.
(a) Restriction endonuclease enzyme A Cla I Hind III
(b) Isolated from Escherichia coli RY13 Pvu I
(c) Cuts at specific position within the DNA Pst I B
(d) None of the above D tetR
pBR322 Sal I
12. The cutting of DNA by ……… results in the fragments of
DNA. Choose the appropriate option. C
rop
(a) restriction endonucleases
(b) exonuclease
Pvu II
(c) endonuclease
(a) A–Eco RI, B–Bam HI, C–ori, D–ampR
(d) anhydro L-galactose
(b) A–ampR, B–ori, C–Bam HI, D–Eco RI
13. Which of the following techniques is most commonly used (c) A–ori, B–Bam HI, C–Eco RI, D–ampR
to separate DNA molecules by size?
(d) A–Bam HI, B–Eco RI, C–ampR, D–ori
(a) Chromatography (b) PCR
(c) RFLP (d) Gel electrophoresis 20. The function of ori in a vector is
14. Having become an expert on gel electrophoresis, you are (a) help in replication of linked DNA
asked to examine a gel for a colleague. Where would you (b) control copy number of the linked DNA
find the smallest fragments of DNA? (c) help in selecting recombinants
(a) Near the positive electrode, farthest away from the (d) Both (a) and (b)
wells
21. If recombinant DNA carrying antibiotic resistance gene (e.g.
(b) Near the negative electrode, close to the wells ampicillin) is transferred into E. coli cell, the host cell is
(c) Near the top, near the negative pole transformed into ampicillin resistant cells. The ampicillin
(d) Near the middle they tend to slow-down after the first resistant gene in this case is called a
few minutes (a) vectors (b) plasmid
15. In gel electrophoresis, the separated bands of DNA are cut (c) selectable marker (d) cloning sites
out and extracted from the gel piece. This step is called
22. The method(s) that is/are used to differentiate recombinants
(a) elution (b) origin of replication and non-recombinants is/are
(c) competency (d) transformation (a) antibiotic affected gene (b) insertional inactivation
16. In recombinant DNA technique, the term vector refers to a (c) gene cloning (d) Both (a) and (b)
(a) donor DNA, it is identified and picked up through 23. In insertional inactivation, the recombinant DNA is inserted
electrophoresis within the coding sequence of
(b) plasmid transfers DNA into host cell (a) b-galactosidase (b) tetracycline resistant gene
(c) collection of entire genome in the form of plasmid
(c) restriction enzyme (d) ampicillin resistant gene
(d) enzyme, cuts the DNA at specific sites
24. Agrobacterium tumefaciens delivers a piece of DNA into
17. Which of the following is used in recombinant DNA dicot plant. The piece of DNA is called as
technique?
(a) rDNA (b) T-DNA
(a) Cell wall of virus
(c) mDNA (d) cDNA
(b) Gene which produces capsid of virus
(c) Bacteriophage 25. The treatment of host cell with divalent cation leads to the
(d) Capsid of virus (a) change in permeability of DNA
18. The DNA used as a carrier for transferring a fragment of (b) increased efficiency with which DNA enters the
foreign DNA into a suitable host is called bacterium
(a) cloning vector (b) vehicle DNA (c) decreased efficiency with which DNA enters the
(c) gene carrier (d) All of these bacterium
(d) change in permeability of host
26. Which of the following methods(s) is used to introduce 31. Protein encoding gene which is expressed in heterologous
foreign DNA into plant host cells? host is
(a) Gene gun method (a) foreign protein (b) heterologous protein
(b) Gel electrophoresis (c) recombinant protein (d) alien protein
(c) Elution
(d) Extension 32. Stirred-tank bioreactors have been designed for the
(a) purification of the product
27. The different steps involved in the process of recombinant
DNA technology are given below randomly? Arrange these in (b) addition of preservatives to the product
correct order. (c) availability of oxygen throughout the biorector
I. Extraction of the desired gene product. (d) ensuring anaerobic conditions in the culture vessel
II. Amplification of the gene of interest. 33. Stirred-tank bioreactors are advantageous over shake flasks
III. Isolation of a desired DNA fragment. because they
IV. Ligation of the DNA fragment into a vector. (a) provide high temperature and pH
V. Insertion of recombinant DNA into the host. (b) provide better aeration and mixing properties
Correct order is (c) do not allow the entry of CO 2
(a) I, II, III, IV and V (d) are easy to operate
(b) III, II, IV, V and I
(c) II, IV, V, III and I 34. The components of a bioreactor are
(d) I, IV, V, III and II I. an agitator system.
28. RNA is removed by the treatment with II. an oxygen delivery system.
III. foam control system.
(a) ribonuclease (b) protease
IV. temperature control system.
(c) chitinase (d) cellulase
V. pH control system.
29. Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) needs VI. sampling ports to withdraw cultures periodically.
(a) DNA template (b) Primers Choose the correct option.
(c) Taq polymerase (d) All of these (a) I, II, III, IV and V
30. A single PCR amplification cycle involves (b) II, IV, V and VI
(a) denaturation (b) extension (c) I, II, III, IV and VI
(c) annealing (d) All of these (d) All of these
ANSWERS
1. (c) 2. (a) 3. (a) 4. (b) 5. (b) 6. (c) 7. (a) 8. (a) 9. (b) 10. (b)
11. (d) 12. (a) 13. (d) 14. (a) 15. (a) 16. (b) 17. (c) 18. (d) 19. (a) 20. (d)
21. (c) 22. (b) 23. (a) 24. (b) 25. (b) 26. (a) 27. (b) 28. (a) 29. (d) 30. (d)
31. (c) 32. (c) 33. (b) 34. (d)
Biology 71

endonucleases. These fragments of carry resistance against any of these
5 (b) The correct sequence of step of
DNA can be separated on the basis of antibiotics.
genetic engineering are as follows
size by a technique of gel
l
The first step involves the 22 (b) Insertional inactivation is used to
electrophoresis. It is the most common
identification of DNA with desirable differentiate recombinants and non-
genes. method used to separate DNA
recombinants, on the basis of the
These genes are introduced into the
molecules on the basis of their size.
l
inability of the recombinants to
host and are maintained in the host. 14 (a) The smallest fragments of DNA are produce colour in the presence of a
l
Finally, the transfer of this DNA to the found near the positive electrodes as chromogenic substrate.
host progeny takes place. DNA is negatively charged. These
23 (a) In insertional inactivation, the
6 (c) The enzymes, commonly used in fragments travel towards anode
recombinant DNA is inserted within
genetic engineering are restriction (farthest away from the leading wells).
the coding sequence of the enzyme
endonuclease and ligase. Restriction
16 (b) In recombinant DNA technology, b-galactosidase. This results into
endonuclease make cuts at specific
vector refers to a plasmid used to inactivation of the gene synthesising
positions within the DNA and these
transfer foreign DNA into a host cell, this enzyme..
DNA fragments can be joined together
where the genes may be amplified
end-to-end by using ligase enzyme. 24 (b) Agrobacterium tumefaciens, a
(gene cloning) or otherwise
pathogen of several dicot plants is
7 (a) The convention for naming manipulated.
able to deliver a piece of DNA
restriction enzymes is as follows
17 (c) Bacteriophage are used in known as T-DNA to transform normal
The first letter of the name comes from recombinant DNA technique. These plant cells into tumour cells.
the genus (A), the second two letters are used as vectors due to their high
come from the species (B) and the 25 (b) Host is made competent by
number per cell and high copy
fourth letter comes from the strain (C) treating them with specific
numbers of their genome within the
of bacteria (D), e.g. Eco RI comes from concentration of a divalent cation
bacterial cells.
Escherichia coli RY13. such as calcium, which increases the
20 (d) Origin of replication is the efficiency with which DNA enters the
8 (a) Restriction endonucleases sequence from where replication starts bacterium through the creation of
recognise their specific sequence and and any piece of DNA when linked to pores in its cell wall or cell
bind to the DNA and cut each of the this sequence can be made to replicate membrane.
two strands of the double helix at within host cells.
specific points in their sugar-phosphate 29. (d) PCR is a technique of synthesising
This sequence is also responsible for
backbone. multiple copies of the desired gene (or
controlling the copy number of the
DNA) of interest in vitro. The basic
9 (b) Restriction enzymes cut DNA linked DNA. Thus, the function of ori
requirements of PCR are DNA
strands a little away from the centre of in a vector is to help in replication of
template, two sets of primers and the
the palindrome site between the same linked DNA and control the copy
number of the linked DNA. enzyme (Taq polymerase).
two bases on the opposite strands.
21 (c) Gene encoding resistance to 33. (b) A stirred-tank bioreactor is more
10 (b) When a closed circular DNA
antibiotics like ampicillin, advantageous than shake flasks as these
molecule is digested with a restriction
chloramphenicol, tetracycline or provide better aeration and mixing
enzyme having six recognition sites, it
kanamycin, useful for cloning are properties. It has an agitator system to
will produce 6 DNA fragments.
called selectable markers. These are mix the contents properly and also an
13 (d) A molecule of DNA can be cut into suitable selectable markers for E. coli oxygen delivery and also system to
fragments by the enzyme restriction as the normal E. coli cells do not ensure better availability of oxygen.
CHAPTER 12
Biotechnology and
Its Applications
1. Biotechnology GM plants have developed various changes as given
It deals with the production of biopharma ceuticals below
and other biological products using microbes, plants, (i) More tolerant to various abiotic conditions.
animals and their metabolic machinery. (ii) Use of chemical pesticides and fertilisers has been
This became possible due to Recombinant DNA reduced.
Technology (RDT), in which valuable and useful (iii) Reduces post-harvest losses.
manipulation of genes in various living species is done
(iv) Enhances nutritional value of food.
to obtain desirable products at a large scale.
Some examples of GM crops are
The critical research areas of biotechnology are
I. Bt Crops Such type of crops are being produced by
(i) To provide the best catalyst in the form of
biotechnological methods. These plant species are
improved organisms, usually a microbe or a pure
pest resistant. Bt is a type of antitoxin which is
enzyme.
produced by Bacillus thuringiensis or Bt bacteria. It is
(ii) To create optimal conditions through engineering a soil bacterium, which was discovered by Japanese
for a catalyst to act. scientist Ishiwata in 1902.
(iii) Downstream processing technologies to purify the Gene of Bt toxin is transferred into plants by
organic compounds. extracting it from the bacterium. The plants so
2. Biotechnological Applications produced are pest resistant. Bacillus thuringiensis
forms protein crystals (Cry) during a particular phase
in Agriculture
of their growth. These crystals contain a toxic
Green revolution succeeded in increasing the food
insecticidal protein.
supply however, it was not sufficient to feed the
increasing population of the world. It managed to This leads to the formation of antitoxin in the plants
enhance our food production with the help of (crops) and pesticides are no longer required. Such
improved crop varieties, agrochemicals and better types of crops are called Bt crops
techniques. A. Bt Cotton Bt toxin gene is isolated from the bacteria
However, most of the agrochemicals are harmful to the and is transferred to the cotton/crops. In this way, Bt
environment and organic farming is expensive for cotton plants are formed, Bt cotton being resistant
farmers. The best solution to overcome these issues is from bollworms increases its production. The gene
to develop Genetically Modified (GM) foods or crops. forming. Bt toxin is called cry gene. It is of various
types
The plants, bacteria, fungi and animals whose genes
have been altered by manipulation are called (i) cry IAc and cry IIAb control cotton bollworms.
Genetically Modified Organisms (GMO). These are (ii) cry IAb controls corn borer.
also called transgenic organisms, as they contain B. Bt Brinjal In this brinjal, cry gene present in soil
and express one or more foreign genes called bacterium Bacillus thuringiensis is inserted. Protein
transgenes. A cell which contains and expresses a synthesised by this gene, prevents Fruit and Shoot
transgene is known as transgenic cell. Borer (FSB) insect attacking on brinjal.
Biology 73
II. Pest Resistant Plants A nematode Meloidogyne l

Lymphocytes are isolated from the blood or
incognita infects the roots of tobacco plants which bone marrow of the patient and grown in a
reduces the production of tobacco. culture outside the body.
The strategy adopted to prevent this infection l
A normal ADA gene is isolated from normal
is based on the process of RNA interference cells.
(RNA i), which occurs in all eukaryotic organisms as l
This normal functional ADA gene is then
a method of cellular defence. introduced into the cultured lymphocytes,
This method involves silencing of specific mRNA which are subsequently returned to the patient.
due to complementary dsRNA that binds and l
These cells have a limited life, so the patient
prevents the process of mRNA translation. requires repeated infusion of such genetically
III. Nutrition Rich Crops engineered lymphocytes.
(i) Golden Rice is a transgenic variety of rice which l
Gene therapy is also used to prevent cystic
contains good quantities of β-carotene fibrosis, haemophilia, etc.
(provitamin-A inactive state of vitamin-A. (iv) Stem cell technology is known to be the most
(ii) Flavr Savr In tomato, enzyme polygalacturonase is rapidly developing field that combines the efforts of
responsible for softening of fruit by degrading cell biologists and geneticists for treatment of
pectin of cell wall. In the transgenic tomato variety malignant and non-malignant cells by using stem
‘Flavr savr’, production of polygalacturonase is cells.
blocked. Hence, fruits remain fresh for long time. The potential applications of stem cell include
organ and tissue regeneration, bone marrow
3. Biotechnological Applications
transplantation, brain disease treatment, etc.
in Medicines
The recombinant DNA technological processes have (v) Molecular Diagnosis For effective
made immense impact in the area of healthcare by treatment of diseases, early diagnosis and
enabling the mass production of safe and more understanding their pathophysiology is very
effective therapeutic drugs. Some examples are given important.
below l
By using conventional methods of diagnosis
(i) Genetically Engineered Insulin This has lead to the (serum and urine analysis), early detection of
sufficient availability of insulin for the management diseases is not possible.
of adult onset of diabetes. l
Recombinant DNA technology, PCR
Human insulin is not easily available and animal (Polymerase Chain Reaction) and
insulin if used in human, can cause allergic Enzyme-Linked Immuno-Sorbent Assay (ELISA)
reactions. In humans, insulin synthesised needs to are some of the techniques that serve the
be processed by removal of c-peptide, which is an purpose of early diagnosis.
extra stretch of polypeptide present in inactive 4. Transgenic Animals
insulin. Those animals whose genome have been modified by
Eli Lilly, an American company, prepared two DNA genes obtained from other species are called
sequences corresponding to A and B chains of transgenic animals or Genetically Modified (GM)
human insulin and introduced them in plasmids of animals.
E. coli to produce insulin chains.
Benefits of Transgenic Animals
Chains A and B were produced separately, extracted
(i) Study of normal physiology and development.
and combined by creating disulphide bonds to form
human insulin, i.e. humulin. (ii) Study of diseases like cancer, cystic fibrosis, etc.
(ii) Production of Vaccines through Genetic (iii) To obtain biologically improved products, e.g.
Engineering Such vaccines are called recombinant α-1-antitrypsin used to treat emphysema, Rosie, the
vaccines. These are also called as ‘subunit first transgenic cow to produce protein (lactalbumin)
vaccines’ or ‘second generation vaccines, e.g. enriched milk.
vaccines for hepatitis-B, vaccine for polio virus. (iv) To ensure vaccine safety.
(iii) Gene therapy is the replacement of a defective or faulty (v) For chemical safety testing.
gene with normal healthy ones to correct a genetic Mice are the most commonly used organisms for
disorder. It is used to correct ADA (Adenosine transgenic experiments.
Deaminase) deficiency as follows
5. Ethical Issues in Applications n

The patents granted for biological entities and
of Biotechnology products derived from them are called as
n
Genetic modification of organisms can have biopatents.
unpredictable results when such organisms are n
The modification/usage of living organisms for
introduced into an ecosystem. public services, e.g. food (medicine) has also
n
The GM crops may lead to the change in the evolutionary created problems with patents granted for the
patterns. same.
n
Accidentally, new infectious agents can be formed. 7. Biopiracy
n
In order to control the issues related with ethical It refers to the use of bioresources by multinational
concerns, validity of GM research, safety issues patents, companies and other organisations without proper
etc., the Indian government has setup organisations such as authorisation from the countries and people
Genetic Engineering Approval Committee (GEAC). concerned, without compensatory payment.
Some nations are developing laws to prevent such
6. Biopatent unauthorised exploitation of their bioresources and
n
A patent is the right granted by a government to an traditional knowledge.
inventor to prevent others from making commercial use of
his/her invention.
Practice Questions
1. Biotechnology mainly deals with 6. Which bacterium was the first to be used as
(a) industrial scale production of biopharmaceutical biopesticide on the commercial scale in the world?
(b) biological use of genetically modified microbes, fungi, plants (a) Bacillus thuringiensis
and animals (b) Escherichia coli
(c) Both (a) and (b) (c) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
(d) None of the above (d) Agrobacterium tumefaciens
7. GM crops are designed to develop natural resistance
2. Applications like bioremediation, processed food, therapeutics
from insects and pests. Which of the following crops
and diagnostics are related to
are modified using Bacillus thuringiensis?
(a) biochemistry
(a) Corn and cotton (b) Tomato and rice
(b) microbiology
(c) Patato and soybean (d) All of the above
(c) biotechnology
(d) medical science 8. Bt toxin is
(a) intracellular crystalline protein
3. Organic agriculture is a technique of raising crops for
(b) extracellular crystalline protein
(a) increased food production (c) intracellular monosaccharide
(b) reduction in required labour (d) extracellular polysaccharide
(c) increasing the use of agrochemicals
(d) None of the above 9. Bt toxin protein crystals present in bacterium Bacillus
thuringiensis, do not kill the bacteria because
4. Plants, bacteria, fungi and animals whose genes have been (a) bacteria are resistant to the toxin
altered by manipulation are called (b) bacteria enclose toxins in a special sac
(a) genetically modified organisms (c) toxins occur as inactive protoxins in bacteria
(b) hybrid organisms (d) None of the above
(c) pest resistant organisms
(d) insect resistant organisms 10. Which of the following nematodes infects the root of
the tobacco plants which reduces the production of
5. The bacterium, Bacillus thuringiensis is widely used in tobacco?
contemporary biology as an alternative of (a) Wuchereria (b) Ascaris
(a) insecticides (c) Meloidegyne incognita (d) Enterobius
(b) agent for the production of dairy products
11. RNAi stands for
(c) source of industrial enzyme
(a) RNA interference (b) RNA interferon
(d) indicator of water pollution
(c) RNA inactivation (d) RNA initiation
Biology 75
12. What is the demerit of using bovine insulin (from cow) and 20. In which of the following methods, a probe is allowed to
porcine insulin (from pig) in diabetic patients? hybridise to its complementary DNA in the clone of cells?
(a) It leads to hypercalcemia (a) Gene therapy
(b) It is expensive (b) Autoradiography
(c) It may cause allergic reactions
(c) Polymerase chain reaction
(d) It may lead to mutations in human genome
(d) Enzyme-Linked Immuno Sorbent Assay (ELISA)
13. Which polypeptide chain is removed during the maturation
of proinsulin into insulin? 21. Technique used to detect mutated genes is called
(a) A-chain ( 21 amino acids) (a) gel electrophoresis (b) polymerase chain reaction
(b) B-chain ( 30 amino acids) (c) gene therapy (d) autoradiography
(c) C-chain ( 33 amino acids)
(d) A and B-chains 22. Animals whose DNA is manipulated to possess and express
an extra (foreign) gene are known as
14. Which step was proved to be the main challenge in the (a) transgenic animals (b) hybrid animals
production of human insulin by recombinant DNA (c) transversion animals (d) All of the above
technology?
(a) Splitting A and B–peptide chain 23. Transgenic animals are those which have foreign
(b) Addition of C-peptide to proinsulin (a) DNA in all of their cells
(c) Getting insulin assembled into mature form (b) Proteins in all of their cells
(d) Removal of C-peptide from active insulin (c) RNA in all of their cells
(d) RNA in some of their cells
15. Second generation vaccines are prepared by recombinant
DNA technology. Which of the following is/are examples of 24. Transgenic animals that serve as model to study many
such vaccines? human diseases such as …… .
(a) Herpes virus vaccine (b) Hepatitis-B virus vaccine (a) Alzheimer’s disease (b) cancer
(c) Solk’s polio vaccine (d) Both (a) and (b) (c) night blindness (d) Both (a) and (b)
16. For the first time, gene therapy was tried on a 4 year old girl 25. Which of the following transgenic animals are used in
in 1990 to treat which of the following enzyme deficiency? testing safety of polio vaccine before they are used on
(a) Cytosine Deaminase (CDA) human?
(b) Adenosine Deaminase (ADA) (a) Transgenic cow (b) Transgenic monkey
(c) Tyrosine oxidase (c) Transgenic mice (d) Transgenic sheep
(d) Glutamate trihydrogenase
26. What is the term used for animals that made to carry genes,
17. A patient has a defective gene for the enzyme Adenosine which make them more sensitive to the toxic substances
Deaminase (ADA). He/She lacks functional cells and than other normal animals?
therefore, fails to fight the infecting pathogens. The cells are
(a) Transgenic (b) Transversion
(a) B-lymphocytes (b) Phagocytes (c) Transition (d) Transformant
(c) T-lymphocytes (d) Both (a) and (c)
27. A monopoly granted to a person who has either invented a
18. Adenosine Deaminase (ADA) deficiency can be cured by new and useful article, made improvement in an existing
…A… and …B… but it is not fully curative. Here, A and B article or invented a new process of making an article is called
can be
(a) bioethics (b) patent
(a) A–gene therapy, B–radiation therapy (c) biopiracy (d) genetic recombination
(b) A–bone marrow transplantation, B–enzyme
replacement therapy 28. Biopatent means
(c) A–organ transplantation, B–hormone replacement (a) right to use an invention
therapy (b) right to use biological resources
(d) A–radiation therapy, B–enzyme replacement therapy (c) right to use applications are processes
19. Which one of the following molecular diagnostic techniques (d) All of the above
is used to detect the presence of a pathogen in its early stage
29. Basmati is unique for its aroma and flavour, whose A…
of infection?
documented varieties are cultivated in B… .
(a) Angiography Here, A and B refer to
(b) Radiography (a) A–27, B–America (b) A–30, B–America
(c) Enzyme replacement technique (c) A–27, B–India (d) A–30, B–India
(d) Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR)
30. Which of the following option is related to bioethics? (c) Stealing of bioresources
(a) Process of discovery and commercialisation of new products (d) All of the above
(b) Use of bioresources without proper authorisation 32. Which step has been taken by Indian Parliament to meet
(c) Both (a) and (b) and fulfil the requirements of patent terms and other
(d) Standards used to regulate human activities in relation emergency provisions in this regard?
to the biological world (a) Biopiracy act
(b) Indian Patents Bill
31. Biopiracy is related to which of the following?
(c) Biowar act
(a) Traditional knowledge exploitation
(d) Bioethics act
(b) Biomolecules and regarding bioresources exploitation
ANSWERS
1. (c) 2. (c) 3. (d) 4. (a) 5. (a) 6. (a) 7. (d) 8. (a) 9. (c) 10. (c)
11. (a) 12. (c) 13. (c) 14. (c) 15. (d) 16. (b) 17. (d) 18. (b) 19. (d) 20. (b)
21. (d) 22. (a) 23. (a) 24. (d) 25. (c) 26. (a) 27. (b) 28. (d) 29. (c) 30. (d)
31. (d) 32. (b)

It contains an extra stretch called functional lymphocytes and therefore,
4 (a) Genes of plants, bacteria, fungi and
C-peptide. This C-peptide is absent in fails to fight the infecting pathogens.
animals have been altered by genetic
mature insulin and as such is removed
manipulations. Therefore, these 19 (d) PCR helps in early detection of
during the maturation of proinsulin into
organisms are called Genetically pathogens by amplification of their
insulin.
Modified Organisms (GMOs). These nucleic acids. Thus, very low
are used in research, medicine, food 14 (c) The main challenge for the concentration of bacteria or virus can
production, etc. production of insulin using rDNA be detected by this technique.
technique was getting insulin
5 (a) Bacillus thuringiensis forms protein 24 (d) Transgenic animals are specially
assembled into a mature form, which
crystals during a particular phase of made to serve as models for human
does not contain any extra stretch
their growth. These crystals contain a diseases, so that investigation of new
called C-peptide.
toxic insecticidal protein called Bt treatment for diseases can be
toxin. Due to this, it is widely used as 15 (d) The second generation vaccines are conducted.
an alternative of insecticides. produced with the help of genetic Currently transgenic models exist for
engineering techniques. Two examples many human diseases such as
6 (a) Bacillus thuringiensis, spores were
of such vaccines are hepatitis-B vaccine Alzheimer’s, cancer, cystic fibrosis,
first used as biopesticides on a
and herpes virus vaccine. rheumatoid, arthritis.
commercial scale in the world. Bt toxin
gene has been cloned from the bacteria These are more uniform in quality and
27 (b) A monopoly granted to a person
and has been expressed in plants to produce less side effects as compared
who has either invented a new and
provide resistance to insects without to first generation vaccines produced
useful article, made improvement in an
the need of insecticides. by conventional methods.
existing article or invented a new
9 (c) Bt toxin protein crystals present in 16 (b) For the first time in 1990, M Blease process of making an article is called
bacterium, Bacillus thuringiensis, do and WF Andresco of National Institute patent.
not kill the bacterium itself. This is of Health, attempted gene therapy on a
28 (d) A biopatent is a government
because the toxin occurs as inactive 4 year old girl with Adenosine
protection granted for biological
protoxin in bacterium. Deaminase (ADA) deficiency. ADA
entities and their products. It gives
deficiency is caused due to the deletion
13 (c) Insulin contains two short protection to inventions, processes or
of gene for adenosine deaminase.
polypeptide chains, chain-A and products obtained along with the right
chain-B, linked by disulphide bridges. 17 (d) The patient has a defective gene for to the inventor to make and sell or use
In mammals, insulin is synthesised as the enzyme Adenosine Deaminase the product or processes for limited
prohormone (that needs to be (ADA). This enzyme is involved in period of time.
processed to become mature and maturation of B and T-lymphocytes and Thus, it is the right to use an invention,
functional hormone). is crucial for the functioning of immune biological resources, applications and
system due to this, he/she lacks processes of the product.
Biology 77
CHAPTER 13
Organisms and Environment
1. Ecology eurythermal, e.g. most mammals and birds, while

It is the branch of biology which studies the interactions organisms which are restricted to a narrow range of
among organisms and between organisms and its temperature are called stenothermal, e.g. polar
physical, i.e. abiotic environment. The term ‘ecology’ bear, amphibians.
was first described by Ernst Haeckel. (ii) Water The productivity and distribution of plants
2. Organisational Levels of Ecology are dependent on the availability of water. Aquatic
organisms survive in water and they are affected by
Ecology is basically concerned with four levels of
pH, chemical composition and temperature of
organisation
water.
(i) Organisms Living and basic unit of ecology at
Organisms which can tolerate a wide range of
individual level is called an organism.
salinity are called euryhaline, while organisms
(ii) Population It refers to the sum total of all organisms which are restricted to a narrow range of salinity
having similar features and potential to interbreed are called stenohaline.
among themselves and produce fertile offspring.
(iii) Light It is the source of energy used to prepare food
(iii) Communities These refer to the assemblage of all
by photosynthesis in plants which releases oxygen.
the populations of different species in a specific
The availability of light on land is closely linked with
geographical area.
that of temperature of the Sun.
(iv) Biome It is a large unit which consists of a major
(iv) Soil The nature and properties of soil is affected by
vegetation type and associated fauna in a particular
climate, weathering process, whether soil is
climatic zone. e.g. tropical rainforest, deciduous forest,
transported or sedimentary and by soil
etc.
development process.
l
Habitat It is a place, where an organism lives Water holding capacity and percolation of the soil
and represents a particular set of environmental is determined by various characteristics, such as
conditions suitable for its successful growth. soil composition, particle size and aggregation.
l
Ecological Niche It is the place occupied by an
organism, the resources utilised by it and 5. Responses to Abiotic Factors
functional role played by it in ecosystem. The abiotic factors are highly variable. An organism
can achieve the constancy by regulating optimum
3. Environment temperature and osmotic concentration of body fluids,
It is termed as the sum total of all external conditions i.e. homeostasis, in accordance to external
(biotic and abiotic) which influences the organisms in environmental conditions.
terms of their survival and reproduction. The following methods help organisms to cope up with
4. Major Abiotic Factors stressful conditions
These are non-living conditional factors of the (i) Regulate Homeostasis is maintained by ensuring
environment that influences the survival and reproductive constant body temperature and constant osmotic
functions of an organism. Some important factors are concentration, etc., by physiological and
behavioural means. All birds, mammals and few
(i) Temperature It is the most ecologically significant
lower vertebrates and invertebrates are
environmental factor. Organisms which can tolerate
endotherms as they have mechanisms of
and thrive in wide range of temperature are called
thermoregulation and osmoregulation for maintaining Mansarovar (in China occupied Tibet) people
their homeostasis. suffer from altitude sickness. The body copes up
(ii) Conform About 99% of animals and almost all plants with the low oxygen stress by
cannot maintain a constant internal environment. Their (a) increasing red blood cells production.
body temperature changes with the ambient (b) decreasing the binding affinity of haemoglobin.
temperature, i.e. they are ectotherms. (c) increasing the breathing rate.
Some species are partial regulators, which have the
ability to regulate body functions to a limited extent. 7. Population
Beyond that limit, they become conformers. A group of organisms living in the same area at the
(iii) Migrate If an organism moves away temporarily from same time and can interbreed is called a population.
a stressful habitat to a more hospitable area and Population Attributes
return, when the stressful period is over. The Main attributes of the population are as follows
phenomenon is called migration. (i) Density Total number of individuals present in a
(iv) Suspend Some bacteria, fungi and lower plants form unit area or volume at a specific time, is called
thick-walled spores to overcome stressful conditions. density.
N
During unfavourable conditions, plants reduce their Its formula is D =
metabolic activity and enter into state of dormancy. S
where,
Organisms like bear sleep in winters which is called D = Density,
as hibernation and some snails and fish sleep in N = Total number of individuals in a region and S
summers which is called as aestivation. Many = size of unit area in the region
zooplanktons enter diapause as a stage of (ii) Birth Rate or Natality It is the production of new
suspended development. individuals in a population over fixed time period.
6. Adaptation (iii) Death Rate or Mortality Number of individual
Any attribute of an organism (morphological, dying in a population over fixed time period is
physiological or behavioural) that enables it to survive called death rate.
and reproduce in its habitat can be referred to as (iv) Sex Ratio An individual is either male or female.
adaptation. The number of females and males per 1000
It is of following types individuals in a given time is called as sex ratio.
A. Adaptations in Plants Few examples are given below
8. Age Pyramid
(i) Xerophytic plants are found in water deficient regions Population at any given time is composed of
like the desert and rocks. Leaves are small and individuals of different ages. When the age distribution
modified, and stems are flat, fleshy and green called (per cent individuals of a given age or age group) is
phylloclades (Opuntia). plotted for the population, this is called age pyramid.
Roots are highly modified and grow very deep in The age pyramids of human population generally
search for the availability of underground water. show the age distribution of males and females.
Cuticle is very thick in xerophytes. These are of three types
(ii) Hydrophytic plants are present in aquatic (i) Expanding (triangular)
environment, either submerged or floating. Root
(ii) Stable (bell-shaped)
system is absent. Leaves are thin and ribbon-shaped,
e.g. Vallisneria. (iii) Declining (urn- shaped)
B. Adaptations in Animals Few examples are given below 9. Population Growth
(i) Kangaroo Rat It is found in North America and The size of a population for any species is not a static
capable of meeting its water requirement by internal parameter, it keeps changing with time. It depends on
oxidation of its body fat. factors such as food availability, predation pressure
(ii) Mammals from colder climates generally have shorter and adverse weather.
ears and limbs to minimise heat loss. This is called The population growth can fluctuate due to the following
Allen’s rule. In polar regions, aquatic mammals like four reasons
seals have a thick layer of fat (blubber) below their (i) Natality refers to number of births during given
skin that acts as an insulator and reduces the loss of period.
body heat. (ii) Mortality defines the number of deaths during a
(iii) Humans at High Altitudes At high altitude places like given period.
Rohtang Pass near Manali (> 3500 m) and
Biology 79
(iii) Immigration is the number of individuals of the 11. Population Interactions

same species that have come in to the habitat from In nature, living organisms such as animals, plants and
elsewhere. microbes, cannot live in isolation and therefore, interact
(iv) Emigration is the number of individuals of the in various ways to form a biological community.
population who left the habitat and moved Interspecific interactions occur between the
somewhere else. populations of two different species living together
So, if N is the population density at time t, then its within a community.
density at time t + 1 is
A. Predation It is an interspecific interaction, where an
Nt + 1 = Nt + [( B + I ) − ( D + E )] animal (predator) kills and consumes the other
where, N = Population density, t = Time, weaker animal (prey). It is a biological control
B = Birth rate method, e.g. tiger (predator) and deer (prey). Roles
I = Immigration, of predators are
D = Death rate (i) Providing population stability.
E = Emigration. (ii) Maintaining species diversity in a community.
From the above equation we can see that population Defences developed in prey species to avoid
density will increase, if (B + I ) is more than (D + E ) . predation are as follows
10. Growth Curves (i) Preys are cryptically coloured, i.e.
To study the behaviour and pattern of different human camouflaged, e.g. insects and frogs.
population, there are following two models of population (ii) They produce poisonous toxins, e.g. monarch
growth. butterfly secretes chemical during caterpillar stage
(i) Exponential growth is calculated as and Calotropis secretes cardiac glycosides.
dN/dt = ( b − d )N (iii) 25% of insects are phytophagous, i.e. feed on
plant sap. Therefore, plants evolved by developing
Let, (b − d) = r, then, dN / dt = rN
thorns,e.g. Acacia and cactus.
where, N is population size, b is birth per capita, d is
B. Competition It occurs when closely related species
death per capita, t is time period and r is intrinsic rate
compete for the same resources that are limited.
of natural increase.
Gause’s competitive exclusion principle states
r is an important parameter that assesses the effects
that two closely related species competing for the
of biotic and abiotic factors on the population
same resources cannot co-exist indefinitely and the
growth.
competitively inferior one will be eliminated
Exponential growth curve is J-shaped and occurs eventually. This may hold true in case of limited
when resources like food and space are unlimited. resources. Resource partitioning is a mechanism
(ii) Logistic Growth A given habitat has enough evolved by competing species for their coexistence.
resources to support a maximum possible number. C. Parasitism It is the mode of interaction between
This is called carrying capacity (K) for that two species in which one species (parasite)
particular species. depends on the other species (host) for food and
The logistic growth shows sigmoid (S-shaped) curve shelter and damages the host. In this process, one
and this type of growth is called Verhulst-Pearl organism is benefitted (parasite), while the other is
Logistic Growth. It is calculated as being harmed (host).
K − N
dN/dt = rN 
Types of Parasites Parasites are broadly divided

 K  into following main types
(i) Ectoparasites present on the external surface of
where, N is population density at time t, K is carrying
the host organism for food and shelter, e.g. lice on
capacity and r is intrinsic rate of natural increase.
humans, ticks on dogs, copepods in marine
Life History Variations fishes, etc.
Populations evolve to maximise their reproductive fitness or (ii) Endoparasites live inside the host’s body at
Darwinian fitness (high r value) in the habitat where they live. different sites like liver, kidney, lungs, etc., for food
Under a particular set of selection pressures, organisms and shelter, e.g. tapeworm, liver fluke, Plasmodium,
evolve towards the most efficient reproductive strategy. The etc. The life cycles of endoparasites are more
rate of breeding varies from species to species.
complex because of their extreme specialisation.
D. Commensalism It is the interaction between two (i) Lichens represent an intimate mutualistic relationship
species, where one species is benefitted and the between a fungus and photosynthesising algae or
other is neither harmed nor benefitted. cyanobacteria.
Some examples of commensalism are (ii) Mycorrhizae show close mutual association between
(i) An orchid growing as an epiphyte on a mango fungi Glomus genus and the roots of higher plants.
tree gets shelter and nutrition from mango tree. (iii) Mediterranean orchid Ophrys employs ‘sexual deceit’
(ii) Barnacles growing on the back of whale are to get pollinated by a species of bee.
benefitted by getting to move to different locations F. Amensalism It is an interaction between different
for food as well as shelter. species, in which one species is harmed and the
E. Mutualism It is an interaction that confers benefits other is neither benefitted nor harmed, e.g.
to both the interacting species. Some examples of Penicillium, a mould secretes penicillin which kills
mutualism are bacteria, but the mould remains unaffected.
Practice Questions
1. The correct sequence of levels of biological organisation is 5. Environmental factor(s) that characterise the habitat of an
(a) Macromolecules → Cells → Tissues → Organs → organism is/are
Individual organism → Population → Communities → (a) abiotic components
Ecosystem → Biomes (b) biotic components
(b) Macromolecules → Tissues → Cells → Organs → (c) Both (a) and (b)
Population → Ecosystem → Communities → Biomes (d) temperature only
(c) Micromolecules → Cells → Tissues → Organs →
6. The key elements that lead to large variations in the physical
Individual organism → Communities → Population →
and chemical conditions of different habitats are
Biomes → Ecosystem
(a) the physico-chemical (abiotic) components
(d) Macromolecules → Cells → Tissues → Organs →
(b) the biotic components like pathogens, parasites,
Individual organism → Biomes → Ecosystem →
predators and competitors
Population → Communities
2. Identify the basic levels of ecology. (d) None of the above
I. Organisms II. Populations
7. Temperature is very significant to the living beings because
III. Communities IV. Biomes
(a) kinetics of locomotion depend on temperature
V. Human VI. Vertebrates
(b) kinetics of enzymes depend on temperature
Choose the correct option.
(c) high temperature facilitates digestion
(a) I, II and III (d) low temperature facilitates digestion
(b) II, III and VI
(c) I, II, III and IV 8. The organism which tolerates wide range of salinity called
…A… .
(d) I, II, III and V
The organism which tolerates narrow range of salinity called
3. Different organisms are adapted to their environment in …B… .
terms of not only survival but also reproduction. This Choose the correct option for A and B.
statement belongs to
(a) A–stenohaline, B–euryhaline
(a) physiological ecology (b) species ecology (b) A–euryhaline, B–stenohaline
(c) population ecology (d) All of these (c) A–isohaline, B–euryhaline
(d) A–heterohaline, B–isohaline
4. Formation of major biomes such as desert, rainforest takes
place by 9. Many fishes of freshwater cannot live in sea water and
(a) rotation of our planet around the sun vice-versa because of
(b) tilting of our planet to its axis (a) nutrient (b) osmotic problems
(c) Both (a) and (b) (c) breathing problems (d) excretion problems
(d) seasonal periodicity
Biology 81
10. Sunlight is available as a source of energy and is important (c) small body volume makes internal heat production
in very difficult
(a) chemosynthesis (d) None of the above
(b) photosynthesis
17. Diapause is a
(c) heterotrophic mode of nutrition
(a) stage of development
(b) stage of suspended development
11. In aquatic environment, the types of benthic animals are (c) stage of delayed morphology
determined by (d) rapid developmental stage
(a) type of water
18. In the absence of an external source of water, Kangaroo rat
(b) type of sediment characteristics
in North American desert is capable of meeting all its water
(c) light availability requirements through
(d) nutrient availability
(a) internal fat oxidation (b) taking liquid food
12. Identify the lines present in the given graph A, B and C. (c) reducing his activities (d) hibernation
19. An adaptation in Opuntia is that, it performs

C photosynthesis by
Internal level
B (a) flower (b) stem

(c) roots (d) shoot
A
20. At high altitude, we feel sick and nauseated. The reason for
this sickness may be
External level (a) low atmospheric pressure
(a) A–Partial regulators, B–Regulators, C–Endotherms (b) high atmospheric pressure
(b) A–Partial regulators, B–Ectotherms, C–Endotherms (c) high temperature
(c) A–Partial regulators, B–Regulators, C–Conformers (d) low temperature
(d) A–Conformers, B–Ectotherms, C–Partial regulators 21. Which of the following problems does the frequent deep sea
diving organisms like whales may face?
13. Regulators are also called
(a) Compression of tissues surrounding air-filled cavities
(a) endotherms (b) exotherms
(b) High blood nitrogen levels
(c) ectotherms (d) Either (b) or (c)
(c) Lack of oxygen
14. Partial regulators are the organisms which (d) All of the above
(a) can regulate body temperature to larger extent of
22. Population is the total number of
environmental condition
(b) can regulate body temperature to limited extent of (a) interbreeding individuals of a species found in a
environmental condition geographical area
(c) can regulate body temperature only over a wide range (b) interbreeding individuals of a species found in
of environmental condition different geographical area
(d) None of the above (c) Both (a) and (b)
15. Conformers are inactive in adverse conditions due to
23. If birth rate is 100, death rate is 10 and number of
(a) inability to move individuals in population group is 1000, then what will be
(b) inability to digest properly the percentage of natural growth rate?
(c) inability to maintain homeostasis
(a) 0.09% (b) 9.0%
(d) ability to maintain homeostasis
(c) 0.9% (d) 90%
16. Very small animals are rarely found in polar region because
24. Bell-shaped age pyramid indicates that
(a) small animals have a larger surface area relative to (a) number of pre-reproductive and reproductive
their volume, so they lose body heat very fast when it individual is almost equal
is cold outside
(b) post-reproductive individuals are comparatively fewer
(b) small animals have a smaller surface area relative to (c) the population size remains stable
their volume, so they lose body heat very fast when it
is cold outside
25. Zero growth of population is indicated by 30. Which of the following is true regarding exponential
(a) less number of childbirth growth?
(b) less number of reproductive females (a) No population can grow exponentially for long
(c) reproductive individuals are equal to pre-reproductive (b) Exponential growth slows down as the population
individuals nears its log phase
(d) less number of males than females (c) Bacterial colonies have been observed to maintain
exponential growth always
26. Which of the following is not an example of using relative (d) Exponential growth is a commonly observed in large,
density to measure population density in a certain area? slow-growing species such as humans and elephants
(a) Counting pugmarks of tigers to find population
density of tigers in a forest 31. Given population growth curve represents the logistic
(b) Counting the number of fishes caught in a trap to find growth curve. In this curve, find out what do A, B and C
indicate.
population density of fishes in a lake
(c) Measuring biomass of bacterial culture to find out
population density of bacteria in a petri dish
Population density (N)

(d) Both (a) and (c)
K A
27. Study the figure and identify A to D.
B
Immigration
B
C
A Time (t)
Natality Population Mortality
Density C (a) A–Lag phase, B–Log phase, C–Stationary phase
(b) A–Log phase, B–Lag phase, C–Stationary phase
D
Emigration
(c) A–Stationary phase, B–Log phase, C–Lag phase
(d) A–Stationary phase, B–Lag phase, C–Log phase
(a) A–Increase, B–Decrease, C–Increase, D–Decrease 32. Interspecific interactions arise from the interaction of
(b) A–Decrease, B–Increase, C–Decrease, D–Increase
(a) population of two different species
(c) A–Increase, B–Increase, C–Decrease, D–Decrease
(b) population of same species
(d) A–Decrease, B–Decrease, C–Increase, D–Increase
(c) two individuals of same species
28. If natality is represented by –B (d) two individuals of different area
If mortality is represented by –D
33. Interspecific interaction could be
If immigration is represented by –I
(a) beneficial (b) detrimental
If emigration is represented by –E
(c) neutral (d) All of these
If population density is represented by –N
Then, population density at time t+1 is represented by 34. The population interaction in which free-living organism
that catches, kills and devours individuals of other species
(a) Nt + 1 = Nt – [(B + I) – (D + E)]
called prey is called
(b) Nt + 1 = Nt + [(B + I) – (D + E)]
(a) parasitism (b) predation
(c) Nt + 1 = Nt + [(B + I) + (D + E)]
(c) amensalism (d) commensalism
(d) Nt + 1 = Nt – [(B + I) + (D + E)]
35. Exotic species sometimes become invasive and starts
29. Logistic growth is represented by which equation?
spreading fast because of
dN æK - N ö dN æK - N ö
(a) = rN ç ÷ (b) = rN ç ÷ (a) natural predators
dt è K ø dt è N ø
(b) abundant natural competitor
dN æK + N ö dN æ K ö
(c) = rN ç ÷ (d) = rN ç ÷ (c) invaded land not having its natural predators
dt è K ø dt èK + N ø
(d) mutation in their genome
Biology 83
36. Which of the following is not an example of prey-predator 38. Mycorrhiza represents an intimate mutualistic relationship
relationship? between
(a) Tiger eating deer (a) fungi and stem of higher plants
(b) Plant Nepenthes trapping an insect (b) fungi and roots of higher plants
(c) Bacteria decomposing organic matter (c) fungi and leaves of higher plants
(d) Crocodile killing a man (d) fungi and leaflets of higher plants
37. Species facing competition might evolve mechanism that 39. The interdependent evolution of the flowering plants and
promotes coexistence rather than exclusion. One such pollinating insects together is known as
mechanism is (a) mutualism (b) coevolution
(a) competitive release (b) resource partitioning (c) commensalism (d) cooperation
(c) coevolution (d) None of the above
ANSWERS
1. (a) 2. (c) 3. (a) 4. (c) 5. (c) 6. (c) 7. (b) 8. (b) 9. (b) 10. (b)
11. (b) 12. (c) 13. (a) 14. (b) 15. (c) 16. (a) 17. (b) 18. (a) 19. (b) 20. (a)
21. (d) 22. (a) 23. (b) 24. (d) 25. (c) 26. (d) 27. (c) 28. (b) 29. (a) 30. (a)
31. (c) 32. (a) 33. (d) 34. (b) 35. (c) 36. (c) 37. (b) 38. (b) 39. (b)

the organisms of an ecosystem interact Photosynthetic yield is maximum on
2 (c) Option (c) represents the group of
and influence their habitat. equator and tropical areas as these
basic levels of ecology. Ecology is
regions have high light intensity.
mainly concerned with four levels of 7 (b) Temperature is very significant to
biological organisation, which are the living beings because the kinetics 11 (b) Benthic animals are those animals
l organisms (basic living unit) of enzymes depends on it. Enzymes are which live at the bottom of water.
l populations (individuals of a species) very sensitive towards the temperature. Their diversity and distribution are
l communities (different sets of A slight decrease or increase in determined by the type of sediment
population) temperature can cause their characteristics like rocky or soil
l biomes (several biological inactivation or denaturation of surface.
communities with their associated
enzymes and consequently alter the
vegetation or flora). 14 (b) Some organisms are partial
metabolic activity and physiological
regulators as they have the ability to
3 (a) Ecology at the organism level is functions of an organism.
regulate their body temperature up to a
essentially called physiological
8 (b) The organisms which are tolerant to certain limit.
ecology, which tries to understand how
wide range of salt concentration in
different organisms are adapted to their 16 (a) Small animals have a larger surface
their aquatic habitats called euryhaline.
environments in terms of both survival area relative to their volume, so they
On the other hand, the organisms
and reproduction. tend to lose body heat very fast when it
which tolerates a narrow range of
is cold outside. Then they have to
4 (c) Rotation of our planet around the salinity are called stenohalines.
expended much energy to generate
sun and tilt of its axis cause annual
9 (b) Many freshwater animals cannot body heat through metabolism. This is
variations in the intensity and duration
live for long in sea water and vice-versa the main reason why very small
of temperature, resulting in distinct
because of the osmotic problems, they animals are rarely found in polar
seasons. These variations along with
would face. Freshwater fishes will regions.
annual variation in precipitation lead to
loose water because of the high salt
the formation of major biomes like 17 (b) Diapause is the stage of suspended
concentration in water, because of
deserts, rainforests and tundra. development in certain animals under
hypertonic environment. Salt water
unfavourable or adverse conditions of
5 (c) Both biotic and abiotic components fishes would swell up and die through
the environment such as harsh climate
of an environment characterise the bursting of cells due to water uptake in
changes, reduced food supply, etc.
habitat of an organism. The most hypotonic environment.
important abiotic components which During this phase, an organism is
10 (b) Sunlight is essential for considered as physiologically dormant.
influence the habitat of organisms are
photosynthesis. The amount of
temperature, water, light and soil. Also, 18 (a) In the absence of an external
photosynthesis depends upon the
biotic components like pathogens, source of water, the kangaroo rat in
quality, intensity and duration of light.
parasites, predators and competitors of North America deserts meets all its
water requirements through internal fat Rest of the options are incorrect and
25. (c) Zero growth of population is
oxidation (in which water is a can be corrected as
indicated when reproductive
byproduct). It also has the ability to l Exponential growth starts to increase
individuals are not reproducing and are
concentrate its urine, so that minimal as it nears its log phase.
present in equal number to
volume of water is used to remove l Bacterial colonies have not been
pre-reproductive individuals. observed to maintain exponential
excretory products.
26. (d) Both options (a) and (c) are not growth always.
19 (b) In Opuntia, a desert plant an Algal populations have been observed
examples of using relative density to
adaptation undertaken during the to show exponential growth.
measure population density in a certain
course of evolution is that leaves get
area. 33. (d) The interspecific interactions arise
modified into spines in order to reduce
Sometimes, for certain ecological from the interaction between population
the rate of transpiration. Thus, they
investigations there is no need to know of two different species. These could be
have no leaves and the photosynthetic
the absolute population densities. beneficial, detrimental or neutral to one
function is performed by flattened
Relative densities serve the purpose of the species or both.
green stems.
equally well. In this case, population
20 (a) The low atmospheric pressure at size is indirectly estimated without 35. (c) When certain exotic species are
high altitude makes us feel sick and actually counting them. For example, introduced into a geographical area,
nauseated. This occurs due to low the number of fishes caught per trap is they become invasive and start
oxygen availability at high altitudes. good enough measure of its total spreading fast because the invaded
Sometimes people also experience population density in the lake. The land does not have its natural
fatigue and heart palpitations. tiger census in our national parks and predators.
tiger reserves is often based on pug 36. (c)Bacteria decompose the organic
22 (a) Population is the total number of
marks is an example of indirect count matter which is not really living.
interbreeding individuals of a species
method. Also, measuring the biomass Hence, it cannot be considered as a
found in a geographical area who
of bacterial culture to find out the prey- predator relationship.
share and compete for similar
population density of bacteria in a petri
resources. Both sexually reproducing
dish is an example of biomass or per
and asexually reproducing individuals 37. (b) Some time species facing
cent cover method.
are included in a population. interspecific competition might evolve
28. (b) Option (b) gives the correct mechanisms that promote coexistence
23 (b) The natural growth rate
representation for population density at rather than exclusion. One such
percentage would be 9%. It can be
time t + 1. ‘N’ is the population mechanism is resource partitioning. In
calculated as
density at time t then its density at time this mechanism, two species
Birth rate = 100 t + 1 is competing for the same resource, avoid
Death rate = 10 Nt + 1 = Nt + [(B + I) - (D + E)] competition by choosing different
Number of individuals in population = We can see from the above equation times for feeding or different foraging
1000 that population density increases if the patterns.
é ù
Natural growth rate = êBirth - Deathú number of birth plus number of
rate rate 38. (b) Mycorrhiza represent association
ë û immigrants (B+I) is more than the
number of death plus the number of between fungi and roots of higher
= 100 - 10 = 90
emigrants (D+E). plants. The fungi help the plant in the
So, percentage of growth rate absorption of essential nutrients from
90
= ´ 100 = 9% 30. (a) Option (a) is true for exponential soil, while the plant in return provides
1000 growth. carbohydrates and shelter to the fungi.
Biology 85
CHAPTER 14
Ecosystem
1. Ecosystem organic matter for obtaining their food, e.g.
It is a functional unit of nature, where living organisms vultures, earthworm.
interact among themselves and also with their l
Decomposers These obtain their food by
surrounding physical environment. The concept of decaying dead organic matter, e.g. bacteria and
ecological system was put forward by Karl Mobius fungi. These are also called saprobes or
(1877). The term ecosystem was coined by A G Tansley mineralisers.
(1935). (ii) Abiotic Components These include
According to him, the ecosystem is a system which is temperature, water, light and soil.
exhibited by the inter-relationships between abiotic and
biotic components of its environment. 3. Structure and Functions of Ecosystem
It is considered as an interactive system, which can be Two important structural features of an ecosystem are
either natural or artificial. (i) Species composition is calculated by the
(i) Natural Ecosystems These are capable of characteristic identification and enumeration of
maintaining and operating themselves, without the plants and animals of an ecosystem.
interference of man. They are further classified into (ii) Stratification is the vertical distribution of different
terrestrial and aquatic types. species occupying different levels in an ecosystem,
(ii) Artificial Ecosystems These are maintained and e.g. trees occupy top vertical strata or layer of a forest,
manipulated by man for different purposes, e.g. shrubs at the second and herbs and grasses occupy
cropland, aquarium, etc. the bottom (third) layer.
The important functional aspects of an ecosystem are
2. Components of an Ecosystem productivity, decomposition, energy flow and nutrient
The ecosystem consists of the following components cycling.
(i) Biotic Components These are composed of
animals, plants and microorganisms and have the
4. Productivity of an Ecosystem
The rate of synthesis of biomass by any trophic level
following main parts
per unit area in unit time is called its productivity. It is
Producers The green plants which make their own expressed in terms of g –2 yr −1 or (kcal m −2) yr –1.
l
food by photosynthesis are called producers, e.g. Productivity of an ecosystem can be categorised as
all green plants and green algae. primary and secondary productivity.
l
Consumers All heterotrophic animals obtain their (i) Primary Productivity It is the amount of biomass
food from green plants directly or indirectly. These or organic matter produced per unit area over a
are divided into two categories, i.e. herbivores and time period by plants during photosynthesis. It is
carnivores. Rabbit, rat, squirrel, goat, cattle, etc., expressed in terms of weight (g −2) or energy
are examples of herbivores and birds, hawk, (kcal m −2).
snake, fox, etc., are examples of carnivore animals.
The total sum of organic matter synthesised by
Consumers are of three types–primary, secondary
primary producers via photosynthesis is called
and tertiary.
gross primary productivity.
Omnivores These eat both producers and
consumers, e.g. pig, bear, etc. The organic matter/energy stored by the primary
Detritivores These depend on dead and decaying producers after utilisation of some energy for
respiration is called net primary productivity. It is a 7. Food Chain

part of gross primary productivity. It is a sequence of population of an ecosystem through
Net primary productivity = which the food and its contained energy passes
Gross primary productivity through levels, with each member becoming the food of
− Respiratory loss by plants. a later member in the sequence.
(ii) Secondary Productivity It is the rate of new organic The food chain present in nature is of two types
matter synthesised by the consumers. It is less than (i) Grazing Food Chain (GFC) begins with producers
primary productivity and tends to decrease with an which capture solar energy and pass on energy into
increase in trophic level. food chain through photosynthesis, e.g.
Ecological efficiency is the amount of energy Grass → Goat → Man
received by one trophic level from the other in an (Producer) (Primary consumer) (Secondary consumer)
ecosystem. (ii) Detritus Food Chain (DFC) begins with dead

organic matter and consists of decomposers mainly
5. Decomposition fungi and bacteria., e.g.
It is the process of breaking down of complex organic Dead leaves → Wood louse → Black bird
matter into inorganic substances like water, carbon (Producer) (Primary consumer) (Secondary consumer)
dioxide and nutrients by decomposers. Detritus is the
raw material needed for the decomposition. 8. Food Web
It involves following steps A network of cross connecting food chains involving
producers, consumers and decomposers is termed as
(i) Fragmentation It is a process of breakdown of
a food web. It maintains a kind of homeostasis in an
detritus into small particles by detritivores, e.g.
ecosystem to make it stable.
earthworm.
(ii) Leaching It is the process by which water soluble 9. Trophic Level
inorganic nutrients reach into soil horizon and get All organisms occupy a particular place in their natural
precipitated as unavailable salts. surrounding or in a community according to their
(iii) Catabolism It is the process of degradation of feeding relationship among organisms. The particular
detritus into simple organic material by the action of place of an organism in food chain is called trophic
bacterial and fungal enzymes and then their further level.
conversion into simpler inorganic compounds. The following diagram shows the various trophic levels
(iv) Humification It is a process that leads to in an ecosystem
Examples
accumulation of a dark coloured amorphous and
Tertiary Consumer Fourth trophic Man and lion
colloidal substance called humus, which is highly level (Top carnivore)
resistant to microbial action and undergoes
decomposition at a very slow rate. Secondary Consumer Third trophic Bird, fish and
level (Carnivore) wolf
(v) Mineralisation It is the process of degradation of
Primary Consumer Second trophic Zooplankton,
humus by microbial action and releases of inorganic level (Herbivore) grasshopper
nutrients. and cow
Primary Producer First trophic Phytoplankton,
Factors affecting decomposition are as follows level (Plants) grass and trees
(a) Chemical Decomposition of Detritus
Note (i) Standing crop is the mass of living material at a
Decomposition will slow, if detritus is rich in lignin
particular level at a specific time. It is measured as the
and chitin, but it will quicker if detritus is composed mass of living organisms (or biomass) in a unit area.
of nitrogen and sugar.
(ii) Ten per cent law was given by Lindemann in 1942. It
(b) Climatic Factors Warm and moist environment states that at each step of food chain, 10% of energy is
favour decomposition, while low temperature and transferred to next level while remaining is lost as heat.
anaerobic conditions inhibit it.
10. Ecological Pyramids
6. Energy Flow It is a graphical representation of ecological parameters
The Sun is the only source of energy in all ecosystems like biomass, energy or number of individuals present
on the Earth, except for deep hydrothermal vents. Out at various trophic levels of food chain. The concept of
of the incident solar radiation, less than 50% of it is ecological pyramid was given by Charles Elton (1927).
Photosynthetically Active Radiation (PAR). The ecological pyramids are of three types
Plants and photosynthetic bacteria (autotrophs) use (i) Pyramid of number represents the total number of
only 2% of the Sun’s radiant energy to produce food organisms at each trophic level. It is always upright,
from simple inorganic materials. but inverted in tree ecosystem.
Biology 87
(ii) Pyramid of biomass refers to the total weight of the 12. Nutrient Cycling
organisms in each trophic level. It can be upright or Organisms need a constant supply of nutrients for
inverted. various body functions. The amount of nutrients
(iii) Pyramid of energy expresses the total energy of the present in the soil at any given time is called
organisms in each trophic level. It is always upright and standing state. The movement of nutrient elements
unidirectional. through various components of an ecosystem is
called nutrient cycling or biogeochemical cycles.
11. Ecological Succession
Nutrient cycles are of two types
It is a sequential, gradual and predictable change in the
species composition of an area over a period of time. (i) Gaseous cycle includes nitrogen, carbon, etc.
The entire sequence of communities change in a given (ii) Sedimentary cycle includes sulphur,
area is/are called sere (s). The individual communities are phosphorus, etc.
called seral stages or seral communities. Carbon Cycling It occurs through atmosphere,
The changes during ecological succession lead ocean and through living and dead organisms.
towards equilibrium with the environment which is called as A large amount of carbon returns to the
climax community. atmosphere as CO 2 through
The species that invade barren area are called pioneer (i) Respiratory activities of the producers and
species. consumers.
Ecological succession is of two types, i.e. primary and (ii) Breakdown activities of decomposers.
secondary succession (iii) Forest fire and combustion of organic matter, etc.
(i) Primary Succession It occurs on the barren land, newly Phosphorus Cycle
formed pond or reservoir and newly cooled lava, where Phosphorus is a major constituent of biological
no living organisms have existed before. membranes, nucleic acids , cellular energy transfer
(ii) Secondary Succession It is relatively a faster process systems (ATP) and also of shells, bones and teeth.
as it occurs on the land, where natural biotic The natural reservoir of phosphorus is rock which
communities were present in past but have been contains phosphorus in the form of
destroyed. phosphates.
Succession of Plants Based on the nature of habitat, it is The waste products and the dead organisms are
of two types decomposed by phosphate-solubilising bacteria
(i) Hydrarch succession takes place in wetter areas and releasing phosphorus in the soil.
successional series progress from hydric to mesic
conditions.
13. Ecosystem Services
The products of an ecosystem processes are
(ii) Xerarch succession takes place in dry areas and series termed as ecosystem services, e.g. pollination of
progress from xeric to mesic conditions, e.g. xerarch crops, CO2 fixation, purification of air and water by
succession of an ecological community originates in forests, etc.
extremely dry conditions such as sand deserts and rock
deserts.
Practice Questions
1. A functional unit of nature, where living organisms interact 10. The process of mineralisation by microorganisms helps in
among themselves and also with the surrounding physical the release of
environment is (a) inorganic nutrients from humus
(a) biosphere (b) ecosystem (b) both organic and inorganic nutrients from detritus
(c) environment (d) None of these (c) organic nutrients from humus
(d) inorganic nutrients from detritus and the formation of
2. Abiotic components refer to
humus
(a) non-living physico-chemical factors
(b) living physico-chemical factors 11. PAR stands for
(c) gases produced by industries (a) Photosynthesis Active Reaction
(d) living organisms (b) Photosynthesis Absorb Radiation
(c) Photosynthetically Active Radiation
3. Biotic components refer to
(d) Photosynthetically Active Reaction
(a) gases produced by industries
(b) nutrient-deficient soil 12. The green plants in an ecosystem which can trap solar
(c) living organisms energy to convert it into chemical bond energy are called
(d) fossil fuels (a) producer (b) decomposer
(c) consumer (d) predators
4. Stratification is more pronounced in
13. Ecosystems need a constant supply of energy
(a) tropical rainforest (b) deciduous forest
(c) temperate forest (d) tropical savannah (a) to counteract increasing disorderliness
(b) to counteract decreasing disorderliness
5. Primary production is (c) to synthesise molecules
(a) expressed in terms of weight (gm-2 ) or energy (d) Both (a) and (c)
(kcal m-2 )
14. Fill up the blanks.
(b) the amount of biomass or organic matter produced
per unit area over a time period by plants during I. Herbivores are also called …A…
photosynthesis II. Secondary consumers are eaten by larger …B… .
III. …C… consumer eat the secondary consumers.
IV. A network of many food chains is called a …D… .
Choose the correct option for A, B, C and D.
6. Primary productivity depends upon
(a) A–secondary consumers, B–top predator,
(a) availability of nutrients C–Quaternary, D–food web
(b) photosynthetic capacity of plants (b) A–primary consumer, B–predators, C–Tertiary
(c) Both (a) and (b) consumer, D–food web
(d) None of the above (c) A–tertiary consumers, B–natural enemies, C–Primary
consumer, D–food web
7. Which of the following is/are example(s) of detritivore? (d) A–quaternary consumers, B–alligator, C–Top
(a) Millipedes (b) Earthworm consumer, D–food web
(c) Fiddler crabs (d) All of these
15. Which of the following two organisms are producers?
8. The organisms which physically and chemically break the (a) Plants and phytoplanktons
complex dead organic remains are known as (b) Plants and consumers
(a) scavangers (b) decomposers (c) Zooplanktons and phytoplanktons
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) parasites (d) Phytoplanktons and chlorophylls
9. The process by which water soluble inorganic nutrients go 16. Food chain refers to
down into the soil horizon and get precipitated as (a) number of humans forming a chain for food
unavailable salts is called as
(b) animals gathered near a source of food
(a) fragmentation (b) leaching (c) transfer of energy from producers to consumers
(c) catabolism (d) mineralisation (d) None of the above
Biology 89
17. In what order do a hawk, grass and rabbit form a food chain 25. Peacock eats a snake and snake eats frog and frog eats
in a meadow? insects, while insects eat green plants. The position of
(a) Hawk ® grass ® rabbit (b) Grass ® hawk ® rabbit peacock is
(c) Rabbit ® grass ® hawk (d) Grass ® rabbit ® hawk (a) primary producer
(b) secondary producer
18. How many food chains are there in the food web shown (c) decomposer
below?
(d) at the apex of food ecological pyramid
Lion
26. An inverted pyramid of …A… may occasionally be observed
Deer Plant Goat in …B… communities.
(a) A–energy, B–grassland
(b) A–energy, B–forest
(c) A–biomass, B–marine
Grasshopper Python
(d) A–biomass, B–grassland
Frog 27. Given below is the diagram of the ecological pyramids.
(a) 2 (b) 3 TC 10 J
(c) 5 (d) 7
SC 100 J
19. …… begins with dead organic matter and saprophytes make
the first trophic level. Most appropriate word for filling PC 1000 J
blank space is PP 10000 J
(a) Detritus food chain (b) Grazing food chain
This type represents
(c) Complex food chain (d) Normal food chain
(a) pyramid of number in a grassland
20. In an ecosystem, organism occupies a specific place in a (b) pyramid of biomass in a lake
food chain is called (c) pyramid of biomass in a land
(a) Branching lines (b) Progressive straight line (d) pyramid of energy
(c) Trophic level (d) Standing crop
28. Ecological succession is a sequence of series leading from
21. The organisms, which attack dead animals are baren land to the ……… .
(a) first link of the food chain and are known as primary (a) seral community (b) climax community
producers (c) pioneer species (d) benthos
(b) second link the food chain and are herbivorous
(c) third link of the food chain and are tertiary consumers 29. The nature of climax community in ecological succession is
most dependent upon
(d) present at the starting of food chain and are
detritivores (a) climate (b) water
(c) soil fertility (d) None of these
22. The 10% law for energy transfer in food chains was given by
(a) Stanley (b) Tansley 30. In secondary succession, the species that invade depend on
(c) Lindemann (d) Weismann (a) the condition of soil (b) availability of water
(c) seeds or other propagules (d) All of the above
23. The relation between producers and consumers in an
ecosystem can be graphically represented in the form of a 31. The total amount of nutrients like carbon, phosphorus,
pyramid called calcium, etc., present in soil at any time is called
(a) ecological pyramid (b) trophic level (a) standing crop (b) standing state
(c) Pi chart (d) pyramid of biomass (c) nutrient crops (d) sediment
24. To show how many organisms are present at each level of a 32. Which of the following pair is a gaseous type of
food chain, ecologists use a model called biogeochemical cycle?
(a) an energy flow pyramid (a) Nitrogen and carbon cycle
(b) pyramid of numbers (b) Phosphorus and carbon cycle
(c) pyramid of energy (c) Nitrogen and sulphur cycle
(d) food chain/food web pyramid (d) Sulphur and carbon cycle
33. In a ……… cycle, the elements returns and is withdrawn 36. What is the medium by which carbon cycle takes place?
from the atmosphere. Most appropriate word to fill the (a) Through atmosphere
blank is (b) Through ocean
(a) gaseous (b) sedimentary (c) Through living and dead organisms
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these (d) All of the above
34. In sedimentary nutrient cycling, 37. Which of the following factor is contributing to an overload
(a) the reservoir pool is lithosphere of the carbon cycle?
(b) the sedimentary cycles are less perfect (a) Photosynthesis
(c) the withdrawl from reservoir pool is large (b) Cellular respiration
(d) All of the above (c) Deforestation
(d) Afforestation
35. What is the reason behind deficit rising in nutrient
reservoir? 38. Phosphorus is needed for the production of
(a) Due to imbalance in the rate of influx (a) DNA and RNA
(b) Due to imbalance in the rate of efflux (b) cellular membranes
(c) Due to imbalance in the rate of influx and efflux (c) bones and teeth
(d) None of the above (d) All of these
ANSWERS
1. (b) 2. (a) 3. (c) 4. (a) 5. (c) 6. (c) 7. (d) 8. (b) 9. (b) 10. (a)
11. (c) 12. (a) 13. (d) 14. (b) 15. (a) 16. (c) 17. (d) 18. (c) 19. (a) 20. (c)
21. (d) 22. (c) 23. (a) 24. (b) 25. (d) 26. (c) 27. (d) 28. (b) 29. (a) 30. (d)
31. (b) 32. (a) 33. (a) 34. (d) 35. (c) 36. (d) 37. (c) 38. (d)
Biology 91

2 (a) Abiotic components refer to the 13 (d) Ecosystems also follow second law 21 (d) The organisms, which attack dead
non-living physico-chemical factors of of thermodynamics. animals are present at the starting of
the environment. These components They need a constant supply of energy food chain, e.g. detritus food chain
not only affect the distribution and to synthesise the molecules they and are known as decomposers
structure of organisms but also their require, to counteract the universal (detritivores).
behaviour and inter-relationships. tendency toward increasing
22 (c) The 10% law for enegy transfer in
Abiotic factors also include inorganic disorderliness.
food chain was given by Lindemann
substances, organic compounds,
15 (a) Plants and phytoplanktons are in 1942. At each step of food chain
climatic factors and edaphic factors.
producers. In a terrestrial ecosystem, when food enegry is transferred from
3 (c) The biotic components of an plant grows by manufacturing food one trophic level to the next higher
ecosystem refer to all living organisms from carbon dioxide of air, water and trophic level only about 10% of
like plants, animals and microbes, etc. minerals of soil with the help of energy is passed on to the next level.
chlorophyll and sunlight.
4 (a) As stratification pattern change with 25 (d) Green plants ® Insects ® Frog ®
latitude, it becomes more pronounced Plants, thus act as the producer on
Snakes ® Peacock
in tropical rainforest than temperate land.
From the given food chain, it is clear
forests, deciduous forest or a savannah. In a pond, phytoplankton (rooted and
that the peacock stands at the apex of
This is probably due to the higher floating plants) synthesise food
this food ecological pyramid.
complexity of the vertical structure of materials from dissolved nutrients by
tropical rainforests. photosynthesis. They, thus act as the 28 (b) Ecological succession is a
producers. sequence of series leading from baren
6 (c) Primary productivity depends upon land to the climax. In ecological terms,
availability of nutrients and 16 (c) The transfer of energy from
the developmental stages of a
photosynthetic capability of plants. producers to top consumers through a
community are known as seral stages
Other factors which affect primary series of organisms is called food
and the final stage as the climax
productivity are temperature, water, chain. It is always straight and proceed
community. The change is orderly and
moisture, etc. in a progressive straight line. In a food
sequential. It is a long term process.
chain, the maximum population is of
8 (b) Decomposers (saprotrophs) are the producers. 31 (b) The total amount of nutrients like
organisms that breakdown degrading carbon, phosphorus, calcium, etc.,
dead organic matter or detritus into 18 (c) In the given food web, there are
present in soil at any given time is
inorganic substances and in doing, so following five food chains
called standing state. Standing state
they carry out the natural process of l
Plant ® Deer ® Python varies with the kind of ecosystem and
decomposition. l
Plant ® Grasshopper ® Frog season (time).
l
Plant ® Goat ® Lion
11 (c) PAR stands for Photosynthetically l
Plant ® Goat ® Python 33 (a) In a gaseous cycle, the element
Active Radiation. The sun is the only return to and is withdrawn from the
l
Plant ® Deer ® Lion
source of energy for all ecosystems on atmosphere as a gas. The four most
earth. Out of the total incident solar 20 (c) In an ecosystem, organism abundant elements in the living
radiation, only 50% of it is occupies a specific place in food systems –H, C, O, N have
Photosynthetically Active Radiation chain is called trophic level. Every predominantly gaseous cycles.
(PAR). organism occupies a place in the
Plants capture only 2-10% of the PAR natural surrounding or in a 37. (c) Anthropogenic activities mainly
and this small amount of energy community according to their feeding deforestation is contributing a lot in
sustains the entire living world. relationship with other organisms. disturbing the balance of carbon
cycling in nature.
CHAPTER 15
Biodiversity and
Its Conservation
1. Biodiversity 3. Magnitude of Biodiversity
It refers to the variety and variability of living organisms According to International Union of Conservation of
on the planet Earth. It can also be defined as the variety Nature (IUCN) 2004, the total number of plant and
of life forms, gene pools and habitats found in an area. animal species described so far is more than 1.5
The term ‘biodiversity’ was popularised by million.
socio-biologist Edward Wilson (1992) to describe the More than 70% of all the species recorded are
combined diversity at all the levels of biological animals, while plants comprise not more than 22% of
organisations. the total.
2. Levels of Biodiversity Insects are the most species rich taxonomic
The biodiversity can be described by the following three group in animal kingdom, making more than 70%
interrelated components or hierarchical levels of of the total animals. It means that out of every 10
biological organisation animals, 7 are insects on the Earth.
A. Genetic Diversity A single species shows high 4. Patterns of Biodiversity
diversity at the genetic level. Greater the genetic Biodiversity is not uniform throughout the world. It
diversity among organisms of a species, more varies with change in latitudes and altitudes. Following
sustenance it has against the environmental are the patterns of biodiversity
disturbances. Genetic diversity within the species
A. Latitudinal Gradients Species diversity decreases
creates different sub-species, variety, breed,
as we move away from the equator towards the
forms, etc.
poles. It means biodiversity is more at lower
B. Species Diversity It is the diversity at the species latitude (equator) than the higher latitude (poles).
level or the measure of the variety of species and
their relative abundance within a region, e.g. Western Thus, the tropics (latitudinal range 23.5°N to 23.5°S)
Ghats have more amphibian species diversity than have more species diversity than temperate or
Eastern Ghats. polar areas.
The two important measures of species diversity are The various hypothesis for greater biodiversity in
(i) Species richness (the number of species per unit tropics are given below
area) (i) Unlike temperate regions subjected to frequent
(ii) Species evenness (the relative abundance of galaciations in the past, tropics have remained
species in an area) undisturbed.
C. Ecological Diversity It refers to the diversity at the (ii) Tropical environment is less seasonal than
ecological level. Due to the presence of more temperate regions and have relatively constant
varieties of ecosystems and habitats, i.e. rainforest, environmental conditions.
desert, wetlands, mangroves, coral reefs, alpine
(iii) Due to more solar energy in tropics, there is
meadows, etc, India has a greater ecological diversity
higher productivity which leads to species diversity.
than Scandinavian countries (e.g. Norway).
Biology 93
B. Species-Area Relationships Alexander von Humboldt, A. Effects of Loss of Biodiversity Loss of biodiversity
observed that within a region, species richness had may lead to
increased with increasing explored area, but only up (i) Decline in plant production.
to a limit. The relationship between species richness (ii) Lower resistance and resilience to
and an area turns out to be a rectangular hyperbola environment perturbations such as drought.
for wide taxonomic variety (e.g. birds, bats, fishes in
(iii) Increased variability in ecosystem processes
freshwater).
such as plant productivity, water use, pest and
On a logarithmic scale, the relationship is a straight disease cycles, etc.
line and described by the following equation,
B. Causes of Loss of Biodiversity Human activities
log S = log C + Z log A have accelerated the rate of extinction of species
where, S = Species richness, A = Area from the Earth. The four major causes also called
Z = Slope of the line (regression the Evil Quartet are responsible for the loss of
coefficient) biodiversity.
C = Y -intercept (i) Habitat Loss and Fragmentation
The value of Z lies between 0.1-0.2, regardless of the
(ii) Overexploitation
taxonomic group or the region.
(iii) Alien (exotic) Species Invasions
5. Importance of Species Diversity (iv) Coextinctions
to the Ecosystem
A stable community shows following characteristics 7. Reasons for Conserving Biodiversity
(i) It does not show too much of variations in the The reasons for conservation of biodiversity can be
year-to-year productivity. grouped into three categories
(ii) It must be either resistant or resilient to occasional (i) Narrowly Utilitarian Humans derive countless
disturbance (man-made or natural). direct economic benefits from nature therefore, it
must be conserved.
(iii) It must be resistant to invasion by alien species.
(ii) Broadly Utilitarian Biodiversity plays a major role
David Tilman through his long-term ecosystem
in ecosystem services. Thus, conservation is
experiments using outdoor plots provided some concrete
necessary.
evidences of link between species richness and stable
community. (iii) Ethical Argument Every species has an intrinsic
value even if it is not of any economic value to us.
According to him, more species diverse communities
It is our duty to pass this biological legacy in good
show almost constant productivity in total biomass and
order to future generations.
also contribute to higher productivity.
Paul Ehrlich gave rivet popper hypothesis to help 8. Biodversity Conservation
understand the contribution of diversity for ecosystem It can be briefed into two plans– In situ conservation
balance. He compared each species with rivet in the and Ex situ conservation.
body of an aeroplane (ecosystem). A. Ex situ conservation In this type of
He explained that rivets (species), if removed from the conservation, the animals and plants are kept
aeroplane (ecosystem will seriously damage it. outside their natural home in a special care unit.
Hence, it is known as ex situ conservation. Ex situ
6. Loss of Biodiversity
conservation includes offsite collections and gene
The International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN)
banks. These are as follows
was founded in 1948. Its headquarter is at Switzerland. It
works in the field of nature conservation and sustainable (i) Gene Bank The genes of the rare,
use of natural resources. endangered and desired quality of plants and
IUCN Red List of threatened species is an inventory of animals are conserved at a safe place. This is
global conservation status of biological species, which is known as gene bank.
compiled in Red Data Book. It was initiated in 1963. (ii) Cryopreservation In this technique, the
IUCN Red List (2004) enlists the extinction of 784 germplasm of threatened and endangered
species (including 338 vertebrates, 359 invertebrates and species is kept at very low temperature (−196°C)
87 plants) in the last 500 years. in liquid nitrogen. In this process, the biological
Some examples are Dodo (Mauritius), Quagga (Africa), activities, mitosis and the genetic changes stop. It is
Thylacine (Australia), Steller's sea cow (Russia) and three known as cryopreservation.
sub-species of tiger (Bali, Javan and Caspian). Zoos, botanical gardens, wildlife safari park, etc.,
are other methods of ex situ conservation.
B. In situ Conservation In this process, the species are (iv) Biosphere Reserves These are special category
kept in their natural homes for conservation. of protected areas of land and/or coastal
It includes following procedures environments, wherein people are an integral
component of the system. They represent a
(i) National Parks To provide safe homes for wildlife,
specified area zonated for particular activity.
central government has established National Parks.
In these parks any type of human interference is These consist of core zone (no human activity),
prohibited. The property available in these parks buffer zone (limited human activity), manipulation
cannot be used for commercial purpose. zone (several human activities are allowed).
First Indian National Park is Jim Corbett National Park (v) Sacred Groves These are small group of forests
which is situated in Uttarakhand. with special religious importance in a particular
culture and are also of mythological importance,
(ii) Wildlife Sanctuaries To provide safety to fauna e.g. Aravalli Hills of Rajasthan, etc.
wildlife, sanctuaries are setup. In these sanctuaries,
residing communities are allowed for the limited Note A Ramsar site is a wetland site designated as
cutting of trees, collection of forest products, etc. internationally important under the Ramsar convention (i.e.
a convention on wetlands). It is the intergovernmental treaty
(iii) Biodiversity Hotspots These are regions with very that provides the framework for the conservation and wise
high levels of species richness and high degree of use of wetlands and their resources established in 1971 in
endemism and also regions of accelerated habitat Iran. Currently, India has 26 Ramsar sites like Kolleru Lake
loss. There are 34 international biodiversity hotspots (Andhra Pradesh), Deepor Beel (Asom), Pong Dam Lake
in the world from which three are located in India. (Himachal Pradesh), etc.
(a) Eastern Himalayan Region This is situated in 9. People Participation for Biodiversity
the Northern and Eastern parts. This includes Conservation
Asom, Nepal, Sikkim and Bhutan. Temperate These activities are seen since past. These include
forests are found in it. various movements like Chipko Movement, Appiko
(b) Western Ghats This includes regions of Movement, etc.
Karnataka, Maharashtra, Kerala and Tamil Nadu. Biodiversity rich countries expect to reap more benefits
Evergreen forests are found near the sea from the increasing resources have put into
coasts. bioprospecting, i.e. exploration of molecular, genetic
(c) Indo-Burma It extends from Bhutan to Myanmar and species-level diversity for obtaining products of
covering most of the North-Eastern India. economic importance.
Biology 95
Practice Questions
1. Three levels of biodiversity are 7. The great German naturalist and geographer Alexander von
(a) genetic diversity, species diversity and ecological Humboldt observed that within a region species richness
diversity increased with increasing explored area, but only up to a
limit. In fact, relation between species richness and area for
(b) species diversity, ecological diversity and habitat
a wide variety of taxa (angiosperm plants, birds, bats,
diversity
freshwater fishes) turns out to be rectangular hyperbola.
(c) geographical diversity, genetic diversity and habitat Now find out correct equations shown in the graph.
diversity
(d) ecological diversity, species diversity and community Eq-I
diversity
Eq-II
2. The medicinal plant, Rauwolfia vomitoria, growing in
Species richness
Himalayan ranges shows variation in terms of the potency
and concentration of the chemical (reserpine), that it
produces. It is an example of
(a) species diversity
(b) ecological diversity
(c) genetic diversity
Area
Species-area relationship
3. Ecological diversity exists at community level and is of
three types. Select the correctly matched option for (a) I - S = CA Z ; II- log S = log C + Z log A
ecological diversity. (b) I - log S = log C + Z log A; II - S- CA Z
(a) Alpha diversity – Diversity between communities (c) I-S = CA Z + log C; II- log S = log C + Z log A
(b) Beta diversity – Diversity of organisms within (d) I - S = CA Z + log A; II - log S = log C + Z log A
same community
(c) Gamma diversity – Diversity of organisms over the 8. The relationship between the species richness and the area
entire geographical area for a wide variety of taxa appears as
(d) None of the above (a) straight line (b) sigmoid curve
(c) rectangular hyperbola (d) None of these
4. Biodiversity is affected by
(a) latitudinal gradients and species-area relationship 9. The value of ‘Z’ lies in the range of ...... regardless of the
(b) species-area relationship and longitudinal gradients taxonomic group or the region. The most appropriate value
(c) Both (a) and (b) to fill the blank is
(d) latitudinal and longitudinal gradients (a) 0.5 to 0.7 (b) 0.3 to 0.7
(c) 0.2 to 0.3 (d) 0.1 to 0.2
5. Tropics (23.5°N to 23.5°S) have ....... species as compared to
temperate or polar regions. The most appropriate word to 10. Communities with more species tend to be more stable than
fill the blank is those with less species. This was confirmed by
(a) less (b) equal (a) Alexander von Humboldt
(c) more (d) None of these (b) David Tilman
(c) Paul Ehrlich
6. Alexander von Humboldt observed that, within a region
(d) Edward Wilson
species richness……… with increasing explored area. The
most appropriate word to fill the blank is 11. Anthropogenic extinction is called
(a) increased (a) fifth mass extinction
(b) decreased (b) fourth mass extinction
(c) increased up to a limit (c) sixth mass extinction
(d) decreased up to a limit (d) seventh mass extinction
12. The term ‘The Evil Quartet’ is related with 20. Conservation of hotspots are best described as
(a) Four major causes of forest loss (a) conserving islands that are experiencing high rates of
(b) Four major causes of population explosion extinction
(c) Four major causes of air pollution (b) conserving areas where native species are being
(d) Four major causes of biodiversity losses replaced with introduced species
(c) conserving areas where the people are active
13. Which of the following is responsible for biodiversity loss? supporters of the biological diversity
(a) Habitat loss and fragmentation (d) conserving areas with the large members of endemic
(b) Alien species invasions species that are disappearing rapidly
(c) Coextinctions
21. What is the approximate percentage of the earth covered by
terrestrial hotspots?
14. Many species like Steller’s sea cow and passenger pigeon (a) 1.5% (less than 2%) (b) 2.5%
have been driven to the brink of extinction. Which of the (c) 3.5% (d) 4.5%
following describes this situation?
(a) Overexploitation by humans 22. Which one of the following is not a method of in situ
conservation of biodiversity?
(b) Pollution
(a) Wildlife sanctuary (b) Botanical garden
(c) Habitat loss
(c) Sacred grove (d) Biosphere reserve
(d) Competition from introduced species
23. Biosphere reserves differ from the national parks and
15. Water hyacinth (Eichhornia crassipes) was introduced in
wildlife sanctuaries because in the former
Indian water to reduce pollution. It is an example of
(a) human beings are not allowed to enter
(a) disturbance and degradation
(b) people are an integral part of the ecosystem
(b) coextinctions
(c) plants are paid greater attention than the animals
(c) alien species invasions
(d) living organisms are brought from all over the world
(d) overexploitation
and preserved for posterity
16. More than 25% of the drugs are derive from the plants. 24. In your opinion, which is the most effective way to conserve
What benefit does this describe? genetic diversity of the plant of an area?
(a) Aesthetic value (a) By tissue culture method
(b) Ethical value (b) By creating biosphere reserve
(c) Indirect economic value (c) By creating botanical garden
(d) Direct economic value (d) By developing seed bank
17. What is the sustainable use of resources? 25. Sacred groves in India are related with
(a) Protected strips of the land that allows organisms to (a) aesthetic pleasure
migrate from one wilderness area to another (b) the place where threatened species are protected
(b) A law that makes it illegal to do harm to the species (c) the place where only artificial plant breeding is
that are listed as endangered or threatened allowed
(c) The ability to use natural resources in a way that (d) forest patches around the places of worship
helps people to protect the ecosystem
(d) The study of the methods which help to protect 26. Sacred groves in India are found in
biodiversity (a) Jaintia hills of Karnataka
(b) Western Ghat regions of Tamil Nadu
18. Conservation in the natural habitat is
(c) Aravalli hills of Meghalaya
(a) in situ (b) ex situ (d) Bastar areas of Madhya Pradesh
(c) zoo (d) botanical garden
27. Which one of the following is not used for ex situ plant
19. Which one of the following areas in India, is a hotspot of conservation?
biodiversity?
(a) Field gene banks
(a) Eastern Ghats
(b) Seed banks
(b) Gangetic plain
(c) Shifting cultivation
(c) Sunderbans
(d) Botanical gardens
(d) Western Ghats
Biology 97
28. One of the most important function of botanical gardens is that (c) In situ conservation/Seed bank
Ex situ conservation/National park
(a) one can observe tropical plants there
(d) In situ conservation/Tissue culture
(b) they allow ex situ conservation of the germplasm
Ex situ conservation/Sacred groves
(c) they provide the natural habitat for wildlife
(d) they provide a beautiful area for recreation 30. Where was the World Summit on Sustainable
development held ?
29. In which one of the following, both pairs have correct
combination? (a) South Africa
(b) USA
(a) In situ conservation/National park
Ex situ conservation/Botanical garden (c) South Korea
(b) In situ conservation/Cryopreservation (d) UK
Ex situ conservation/Wildlife sanctuary
ANSWERS
1. (a) 2. (c) 3. (c) 4. (a) 5. (c) 6. (a) 7. (a) 8. (c) 9. (d) 10. (b)
11. (c) 12. (d) 13. (d) 14. (a) 15. (c) 16. (c) 17. (c) 18. (a) 19. (d) 20. (d)
21. (a) 22. (b) 23. (b) 24. (b) 25. (d) 26. (d) 27. (c) 28. (b) 29. (a) 30. (a)

ecosystem. These resources are for
3 (c) Option (c) contains the correctly 25 (d) Sacred groves are forest patches
future generations.
matched pair for ecological diversity. around the places of worship, which
Rest of the options are incorrectly 19 (d) Western Ghats is a hotspot of are held in high esteem by tribal
matched and can be corrected as biodiversity in India. Hotspots are areas communities.
l
Alpha diversity occurs within the that are extremely rich in species These are found in several parts of
same community. diversity in its natural habitat, have high India, e.g. Karnataka, Maharashtra,
l
Beta diversity exists between endemism and are under constant Rajasthan (Aravalli), Madhya Pradesh
different communities. threat. In India, three hotspots are found (Sarguja, Chanda and Bastar), Kerala,
extending into neighbouring countries. Meghalaya. In Meghalaya, sacred
6 (a) Alexander von Humboldt was a The Western Ghats/Sri Lanka, the groves are found in Jaintia and Khasi
German naturalist and geographer who Indo-Burma region and the Himalayas. hills.
described species-area relationship for
the first time. He did extensive 20 (d) Conservation of hotspots are best 27 (c) Shifting cultivation is not used for
explorations in the wilderness of South defined as conserving areas with the ex situ plant conservation. It results
American forests and observed that large members of endemic species into deforestation.
within a region, species richness which are disappearing rapidly. On the other hand, botanical gardnes,
increases with increasing explored Eminent conservationists identified seed banks and field gene banks are
area, but up to a certain limit. these areas (regions) with very high used as ex situ methods for
levels of species richness and high conservation of plants.
8 (c) The relationship between the degree of endemism (i.e. species
species richness and the area for a confined to that region and not found 28 (b) A botanical garden is the collection
wide variety of taxa (angiosperm anywhere else) for maximum of various types of living plants. Ex situ
plants, birds, bats, freshwater fishes) protection. Initially, the number of conservation means the conservation
appears as a rectangular hyperbola. biodiversity hotspots were 25, but now of plants or animals in the artificial
9 (d) Ecologists have discovered that the it has increased up to 34. habitats, which are quite similar to the
value of Z lies in the range of 0.1 to normal habitats of these organisms. In
22 (b) Botonical garden is not a method of this way, botanical gardens provide ex
0.2, regardless of the taxonomic group in situ conservation of biodiversity. It is
or the region whether it is the plants in situ conservation of the germplasm.
a type of ex situ or off site conservation
Britain, birds in California or molluscs in which rare plants are conserved in 29 (a) The option with correct
in New York state, the slopes of the places outside their natural habitat. combination is (a)
regression line are amazingly similar. Rest all are methods of in situ In situ conservation–National park
14 (a) Many species like Steller’s sea cow conservation of biodiversity. Ex situ conservation–Botanical garden
and passenger pigeon have been Rest of the options are incorrect and
23 (b) Biosphere reserves differ from the
driven to the brink of extinction. This is can be corrected as
national parks and wildlife sanctuaries
due to overexploitation of a species by in that people are an integral part. But it
l
Wildlife sanctuary, national park
humans, which reduces the size of its is not the case in national parks and and sacred groves are in situ
population and it becomes vulnerable wildlife sanctuaries, where flora and method of biodiversity
to extinction. Many marine fishes like fauna are separately conserved. conservation.
whales population is also declining l
Cryopreservation, seed bank and
around the world because of 24 (b) Biosphere reserve comes under
in situ conservation method. Hence, it tissue culture are ex situ methods
overharvesting.
is the most effective way among the of biodiversity conservation.
17 (c) Sustainable use of resources is the four, for preserving genetic diversity of 30 (a) The world summit on sustainable
ability to use natural resources such as the plants by protecting wild development was held in 2002 in
forests and wildlife, water, soil, etc., in population, traditional and Johannesburg, South Africa.
a way that helps people to protect the domesticated plant genetic resources.
Biology 99
CHAPTER 16
Environmental Issues
The enormously growing human population leads to an A. Air Pollution
increase in demand for various resources. To fulfil these Undesirable physical, biological, chemical changes
demands, natural resources are being exploited. occurring in air which adversely affect the
Thus, leading to various environmental issues like environment and the living organisms living in it, is
pollution which is making survival of man as well as other called air pollution. It is caused by
organisms difficult on the Earth. The Government of India (i) Particulate Pollutants These constitute metallic
has passed the Environment Protection Act in 1986 to particles, dust particles, soot, aerosol and smoke.
protect and improve the quality of the environment.
(ii) Gaseous Pollutants These constitute CO 2, NO 2,
1. Pollution H2S and SO 2.
Any undesirable change in the surroundings of living Effects of Air Pollution
beings in nature which is harmful to them is called n
It causes respiratory ailments like asthma, cancer,
pollution. The agents which bring about such changes etc. It also increases the transpiration rate in
are called pollutants. plants. PAN inhibits photosynthesis by inhibiting
On the basis of the occurrence of pollutants, these can process of water splitting in Hill reaction that
be of following types occurs in the presence of light.
Primary pollutants (enter air directly from a source), e.g. n
Carbon monoxide is the main pollutant of air
SO 2, NO 2, Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs), etc., and pollution. It reduces the oxygen binding capacity of
secondary pollutants (are not directly emitted but are haemoglobin in the blood which leads to death of
formed when primary pollutants react in atmosphere), organism.
e.g. ozone (O 3 ) and Peroxy Acetyl Nitrate (PAN). n
Acid Rain Burning of fossil fuels releases oxides of
On the basis of the degradation, the pollutants can be nitrogen and sulphur along with carbon dioxide
categorised as and carbon monoxide. These oxides along with
(a) Biodegradable Pollutants Sewage, clothes, paper, water forms sulphuric acid (H2SO 4 ). Similarly, NO 2
wood, etc., are the substances which can be when reacts with water, forms HNO 3. These two
degraded by microbial activities. gases present in air as pollutants combine with
Such materials are called biodegradable pollutants. rainwater and precipitate as acid water. This is
called acid rain. SO 2 damages the membrane
(b) Non-biodegradable Pollutants Aluminium
system of plants, increases the acidity of soil and
utensils, DDT, glass, plastic materials, etc., are
water bodies which ultimately affects the living
substances which cannot be decomposed by the
beings. It also causes skin diseases.
activity of microorganisms. Such materials are called
non-biodegradable pollutants.
n
Lichens are sensitive to SO 2, so they are used as
To bring awareness, regarding the environment, 5th June an indicator of pollution.
is celebrated as World Environment Day and 22nd April Note The fossil fuels used in Mathura oil refinery and other
as Earth Day every year globally. industries release high SO 2 . It mixes with rainwater and
Based on the part of environment that is polluted, the resultant acid rain damages the marble stone of Taj
Mahal.
pollution is of following types
Control Measures of Air Pollution These are following various trophic levels which is toxic to organisms.
ways of controlling the air pollution This is called biological magnification. The
(i) Electrostatic precipitator is a device to remove presence of large amount of nutrients in water
particulate matter from exhaust of thermal power causes excessive growth of free-floating algae, i.e.
plants. phytoplankton called an algal bloom. Natural
(ii) Scrubber is used to remove harmful gases like SO 2 ageing of a lake is accelerated by nutrient
from industrial exhausts. enrichment of its water which is called as
eutrophication.
(iii) Catalytic converter is fitted into automobiles for
reducing emissions of poisonous gases like CO and
n
Industrial Waste It causes pollution of rivers,
NO 2. where this waste is disposed off.
Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD)
Case Study
It is used to measure the pollution level of water.
(a) Controlling Vehicular Air Pollution : Delhi
BOD test gives an idea about the biological activity
To reduce air pollution, Supreme Court of India of microbes in the water bodies. Higher level of BOD
announced to convert entire fleet of public transport indicates the high level of water pollution. The
(buses, autorikshaws, etc., to run on Compressed drinking water has BOD less than 1 ppm.
Natural Gas (CNG) in Delhi in 2002. Effects of Water Pollution
(b) Auto Fuel Policy The Government of India has n
High concentration of mercury (Hg) causes
enforced to cut down vehicular pollution in cities minamata disease and cadmium (Cd) causes
through application of Euro III in vehicles. itai-itai disease in human beings.
B. Noise Pollution n
Excess of nitrate in water causes blue-baby
The noise of high intensity or loud noise results noise syndrome or methanoglobenemia in humans.
pollution. The level of sound is measured by unit called n
Excess arsenic causes black foot diseases.
decibel or dB. Noise level at 80 dB is tolerable in human n
Disposal of sewage without proper treatment may
beings. Sound level higher than 150 dB may cause cause outbreak of serious diseases, such as
permanent hearing impairment. jaundice, cholera, etc.
Control Measures of Noise Pollution Control Measures of Water Pollution
(i) Use of sound absorbent material in buildings. n
Decreased use of agricultural chemicals.
(ii) By muffling noise, i.e. suppressing noise. It can be n
Proper treatment of sewage before discharging it
done by planting more trees. in water bodies.
(iii) Creating horn-free zones around hospitals and schools. D. Solid Wastes
(iv) Sticking to the permissible sound level of crackers and It is commonly referred to everything that goes out in
loudspeakers, etc. trash. The various sources are
A. Municipal solid wastes (paper, leather)
Note Air Prevention and Control of Pollution Act, 1981 was amended
in 1987 to include noise as an air pollutant. B. Industrial wastes (scraps, fly ash)
C. Hospital wastes (disinfectants, needles)
C. Water Pollution
D. Electronic wastes (mobiles, chips)
Any undesirable change in the physical, chemical and
biological properties of water due to the presence of E. Defunct ships (containers, machinery parts)
some factors which ultimately adversely affect the Methods of Solid Waste Disposal
environment and the living organism is called water n
Open burning of waste to reduce volume.
pollution. n
Sanitary landfills where waste is dumped in
The main sources of water pollution are as follows trenches and covered with dirt.
n
Household detergents, e.g. phosphate, nitrate, alkane, n
Rag pickers (Kabadiwallas) who separate wastes into
benzene, sulphonate compounds. reusable and for recyclable categories.
n
Sewage It is the waste effluent from houses. It causes n
Recycling of e-wastes in an eco-freindly manner.
increase in Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD) of water n
Incineration (of hospital waste) prevents spread of
because of presence of organic matter. This causes infections.
death of aquatic organisms, e.g. fishes, submerged E. Agrochemcals and their Effects
plants, etc. After Green Revolution, the use of inorganic
n
Pesticides These chemicals are used in agricultural fertilisers, etc., has increased to enhance the crop
land which get collected in water bodies, e.g. DDT. It productivity. These chemical substances are toxic to
enters the food chain and increases in concentration at non-target organisms and also pollute the soil and
Biology 101
water bodies. It causes problems like eutrophication, depletion of ozone layer allows harmful radiation to
biomagnification and soil pollution. reach the earth’s surface.
F. Radioactive Pollution Harmful Effects of UV Rays In the absence of ozone,
It can be caused by unsafe disposal of radioactive DNA and proteins of living organisms preferentially
wastes and leakage of radioactive material from power absorb UV-B rays and its high energy breaks the
plants. Harmful effects are as follows chemical bonds within these molecules. This causes
(i) Radiation emitted by nuclear waste causes (i) Damage to DNA and leads to mutation.
mutations to occur at a very high rate, resulting in (ii) Damage to the skin cells and ageing.
various disorders like cancer. (iii) Various types of cancers.
(ii) At high doses, nuclear radiation is lethal. (iv) Inflammation of the cornea, i.e. snow blindness and
Radioactive Waste Management cataract.
Safe disposal is the pre-treatment of nuclear waste which Control of Ozone Depletion
should be done in suitable shielded containers buried Montreal Protocol An international treaty was signed in
within the rocks, about 500 m deep below the earth’s 1987 at Montreal, Canada to control the emissions of
surface. ozone depleting substances. After Montreal, many other
protocols have been made to control the emission of
2. Greenhouse Effect
CFCs and other ozone depleting chemicals.
It is a naturally occurring phenomenon responsible for
heating of earth’s surface and atmosphere. 5. Degradation by Improper Resource
Greenhouse gases are CO 2, CH4, H2O and water Utilisation and Maintenance
vapours. Degradation of natural resources can occur, not just by
3. Global Warming the action of pollutants, but also by improper resource
utilisation practices.
The increase in the average temperature of earth’s
atmosphere due to greenhouse gases, increased (i) Soil Erosion and Desertification Top soil is the
deforestation, etc., is called global warming. most fertile layer and it takes centuries to build. Soil
erosion is caused by human activities like
Effects of Global Warming
overcultivation, unrestricted grazing, deforestation and
n
There has been 0.6°C increase in the average poor irrigation practices. Desertification is also a
temperature of earth’s atmosphere during last three major problem these days that occurs mainly due to
decades. It changes the earth’s climate. increased urbanisation.
n
Melting of polar ice caps which has resulted in the rise (ii) Waterlogging and Soil Salinity Irrigation without
of sea levels. proper drainage of water leads to waterlogging in
n
Thinning of O 3 layer in the atmosphere due to the the soil. It draws salt to the surface of the soil apart
air pollution. from affecting the crops. Deposited salts start
Control of Global Warming collecting at the roots of the plants or forms a thin
(i) Reduced use of fossil fuels. crust on land surface. This affects the plant growth
(ii) Improving energy usage efficiency. and its productivity.
(iii) Reducing deforestation. (iii) Deforestation It is the conversion of forested areas
to non-forested areas. Almost 40% forests have been
(iv) International initiatives are also being taken to curb the
lost in the tropics, compared to only 1% in the
emission of greenhouse gases, mostly CFCs.
temperate region.
4. Ozone Depletion Reasons for deforestation include urbanisation,
Ozone layer is found in the stratosphere of atmosphere. overgrazing by animals, forest fires, demand of
It protects earth specially its life forms from harmful wood and other forest products and Jhum
effect of UV-rays of solar radiations. Since 1980, the Cultivation (Slash and Burn agriculture is known as
thickness of the layer is decreasing, so ozone hole is Jhum Cultivation in North-Eastern States of India.)
formed in the stratosphere. n
Reforestation It is the process of restoring a forest
The major cause of formation of ozone hole is that once existed but was removed at some point
chlorofluorocarbon gases. Freon is the most harmful of time in the past. It is the important component of
chlorofluorocarbon gas. It is used in refrigerator, air the cycle of growing, harvesting and regenerating
conditioner, aerosol spray, etc. forests. Reforestation may occur naturally on a
The substances which react with O 3 and cause its deforested area, but we can speed it up by
depletion are called ozone depleting substances. The planting more trees.
Practice Questions
1. Fine organic or inorganic particles suspended in air is called (a) A–Particulate matter, B–Clean air, C–Dirty air,
(a) gaseous pollutant (b) particulate pollutant D–Dust particle
(c) aerosols (d) None of these (b) A–Dirty air, B–Clean air, C–Water/lime spray,
D–Particulate matter
2. In plants, air pollution causes (c) A–Clean air, B–Dirty air, C–Particulate matter,
(a) reduce growth and yield D–Water/lime spray
(b) leads to premature death (d) A–Dust particle, B–Clean air, C–Particulate matter,
(c) Both (a) and (b) D–Collection plate grounded
7. Which of the following health problems originate due to the
3. Which method is used to remove particulate matter present inhalation of fine particulate matter?
in exhaust of thermal power plant? (a) Irritation
(a) Wet scrubbers (b) Absorption (b) Inflammation of respiratory tract
(c) Electrostatic precipitator (d) Gravitational method (c) Damage of lungs and premature deaths
4. The diagram given below shows electrostatic precipitator.
Identify A, B, C, D and select the correct option. 8. In catalytic converters, hydrocarbons which are unburnt
A and carbon monoxide and nitric oxide are changed into
B
(a) CO 2 and N 2 ; respectively
(b) CO2 and H2 O ; CO2 and N2 , respectively
Dirty air Clean air
(c) O2 and CO2 ; N2 , respectively
(d) H2 O ; CO2 and N 2 , respectively
C D
9. Which of the following problem(s) is/are created by a brief
(a) A–Dust particle, B–Negatively charged wire, exposure to extremely high sound level, 150 dB or more
C–Discharge corona, D–Collection plate grounded generated by take off of a jet plane or rocket?
(b) A–Discharge corona, B–Collection plate grounded, (a) Deafness (b) Damage eardrums
C–Dust particle, D–Negatively charged wire (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of the above
(c) A–Discharge corona, B–Negatively charged wire,
C–Dust particle, D–Collection plate grounded 10. Euro III norms were stipulated to control
(d) A–Discharge corona, B–Dust particle, C–Negatively (a) carbon content
charged wire, D–Collection plate grounded (b) sulphur content
(c) nitrogen content
5. In electrostatic precipitator, electrode wires are provided
with an electric current of several thousand volts, to (d) phosphorus content
produce a corona that release ...A... .
11. Water pollution due to faecal matter is indicated by
These particles attaches to dust particle and given them a
...B... charge within a very small fraction of a second. Here, A (a) Escherichia coli
and B refer to (b) Rhizobium
(a) A–electron, B–positive (b) A–neutron, B–negative (c) Bacillus
(c) A–electron, B–negative (d) A–proton, B–positive (d) Streptococcus
6. The below diagram shows a scrubber. Identify A, B, C and 12. The amount of biodegradable organic matter in sewage
water can be estimated by measuring
D.
B (a) biological oxygen demand
(b) biochemical oxygen demand
(c) the growth of microorganism in water
C (d) the growth of bacteria in water
13. Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD) may not be a good

index for pollution in water bodies receiving effluents from
A (a) domestic sewage (b) dairy industry
D (c) petroleum industry (d) sugar industry
Biology 103
14. Given below is a flow chart showing the effect of sewage 19. Ecological sanitation is a sustainable system for handling
discharge on some important characteristics of a river. Read human excreta, using dry composting toilets. Such ‘EcoSan’
carefully and identify A, B, C and D. toilets are working in
Fish kill and disappearance Reappearance of clean (a) Asom and West Bengal
of clean water organisms water organisms (b) Andhra Pradesh and Maharashtra
(c) Kerala and Sri Lanka
A
(d) Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh
D 20. Sanitary landfills were adopted as the substitute for

open-burning dumps, but it is not really much of a
solution to manage solid waste in metro cities. Why?
B
(a) The sites are getting filled due to increased garbage
C generation
Sewage discharge (b) There is a danger of seepage of chemicals, polluting
(a) A–BOD, B–Dissolved oxygen, C–Concentration, the underground water
D–Direction of flow (c) Both (a) and (b)
(b) A–Dissolved oxygen, B–BOD, C–Direction of flow, (d) None of the above
D–Concentration
21. A feature of integrated organic farming is that
(c) A–Dissolved oxygen, B–BOD, C–Concentration,
D–Direction of flow (a) in this process, waste products from one process are
recycled and used as nutrients for other processes
(d) A–BOD, B–Dissolved oxygen, C–Direction of flow,
D–Concentration (b) industrial wastes are utilised for manufacturing
products like polyblend
15. Which of the following options is/are incorrect about algal (c) chemical fertilisers are used to increase yield
bloom? (d) Both (a) and (c)
(a) Formed by blue-green algae 22. What steps should be taken for the disposal of nuclear
(b) Causes deterioration of water quality and fish waste?
mortality
(a) Nuclear waste should be pre-treated
(c) Causes depletion of O 2 in water
(b) It should be stored in shielded containers
(d) Growth of Eichhornia causes discolouration of water
(c) It should be buried about 500 m deep with in rock
16. Hyacinth is termed as the terror of Bengal, how it causes (d) All of the above
death of fishes?
(a) Covers the surface of the water that inhibits sunlight to 23. Why do you think burying radioactive waste deep is not
pass through agreeable to many people?
(b) Drains oxygen from the water that causes oxygen (a) Because it takes several decades to decay
deficiency (b) Because it still have radioactive properties and can
(c) Absorbs nutrients from the water that causes pose threat
malnutrition (c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Releases carbon dioxide in a huge amount which is
lethal to fishes
24. A naturally occurring phenomenon that is responsible for
17. Which of the following options pertain to eutrophication?
heating of earth’s surface and atmosphere due to the
(a) Occurs due to addition of artificial or natural nutrients presence of certain gases in the atmosphere is
(b) Results in algal bloom (a) greenhouse effect
(c) More precisely called hypertrophication (b) solar effect
(d) All of the above (c) ozone layer effect
18. Choose the incorrect pair. (d) None ot the above
(a) Eutrophication – Natural ageing of lake 25. What is the result of greenhouse effect?
(b) Phosphorus – Decreases the growth of aquatic (a) Melting of polar ice-caps
organisms (b) CO 2 fertilisation effect
(c) Eichhornia crassipes – Grow abundantly in eutrophic (c) Rising of sea level and global warming
water bodies (d) All of the above
(d) Nitrates – Overstimulate the growth of algae
26. Carbon dioxide is called greenhouse gas because it is 31. Slash and burn agriculture in North-Eastern states of India
(a) used in greenhouse to increase plant growth is also called
(b) transparent to heat but traps sunlight (a) ley farming
(c) transparent to sunlight but traps heat (b) commercial agriculture
(d) transparent to both sunlight and heat (c) Jhum cultivation
27. A balance should exist between production and degradation (d) All of these
of ozone. By which factor this balance is being disrupted and
32. Jhum cultivation refers to
causes reduction of ozone content of atmosphere? Choose the
correct option. (a) cultivation of neem tress
(a) Greenhouse gases (b) Chlorofluorocarbons (b) cultivation of medicinal plants
(c) tribal method of shifting cultivation
(c) Nitrous oxide (d) Aromatic compounds
(d) cultivation of timber plants
28. Identify the incorrect match.
(a) UV-B — Damages DNA and causes mutation 33. Indian government recently instituted ‘Amrita Devi
Bishnoi Award’. This is awarded to individuals and
(b) UV-A — Passes through the ozone and reaches the
communities from rural areas involved in
earth’s surface
(a) wildlife protection and conservation
(c) Ozone hole —A large area of thinned ozone layer
(b) forest mangement
(c) environment protection
29 The fertile top soil is removed by human activities like (d) tree plantation
(a) over-cultivation
34. Increased soil fertility, decreased soil erosion and
(b) unrestricted grazing
desertification, restore biodiversity, etc. All these can be
(c) deforestation and poor irrigation practices achieved by
(a) joint forest management
30. Desertification has become a major problem due to (b) reforestation
(a) decreased natural resources (b) increased urbanisation (c) silviculture
(c) increased population (d) All of these (d) All of the above
ANSWERS
1. (b) 2. (c) 3. (c) 4. (c) 5. (c) 6. (b) 7. (d) 8. (b) 9. (c) 10. (b)
11. (a) 12. (b) 13. (c) 14. (b) 15. (d) 16. (b) 17. (d) 18. (b) 19. (c) 20. (c)
21. (a) 22. (d) 23. (c) 24. (a) 25. (d) 26. (c) 27. (b) 28. (d) 29. (d) 30. (d)
31. (c) 32. (c) 33. (a) 34. (d)
Biology 105

Phosphorus encourages the growth of
3 (c) Electrostatic precipitator is used to 13 (c) Biochemical Oxygen Demand
aquatic organisms. Rest other options
remove particulate matter present in (BOD) is not a good index for checking
are correctly matched.
the exhaust of thermal power plant. the pollution levels of waterbodies
These are very efficient devices, which receiving effluents from petroleum 26 (c) The excess amount of CO2 forms a
remove 99% of particulates of 5-20 mm industry. This is because petroleum thick ‘blanket’in the atmosphere, which
size, present in the industrial and industries release non-biodegradable is transparent to sunlight, but absorbs
thermal plant exhausts. waste, which cannot be degraded by infrared radiations trapping heat near
microbes. the earth's surface. In this way, due to
9 (c) A brief exposure to extremely high
sound level, 150 dB or more generated 15 (d) Option (d) is incorrect for algal the CO 2 blanket, the earth's
by a jet plane or rocket takes of, may bloom and can be corrected as atmosphere works very much like a
damage eardrums thus, permanently Growth of planktonic algae not greenhouse, which causes warming up
impairing hearing ability (deafness). Eichhornia causes water discolouration. of the interiors. So, carbon dioxide is
Rest all are correct. called a greenhouse gas.
10 (b) Euro-III norms were stipulated to
control sulphur content at 350 ppm in 16 (b) Water hyacinth (Eichhornia) causes 31 (c) In tribal North-Eastern states of
diesel and 150 ppm in petrol. death of fishes as it reduces the O2 India, farmers perform Jhum
level in water. cultivation in which trees of the forest
12 (b) The amount of biodegradable are cut down and burned. The ash
organic matter in sewage water can be It is termed as the terror of Bengal
produced is used as a fertiliser and the
estimated by measuring biochemical because it drains dissolved oxygen of
land is then used for farming or cattle
oxygen demand. Biochemical Oxygen the water, i.e. increases BOD
grazing. After cultivation, the area is
Demand (BOD) is the amount of (Biochemical Oxygen Demand). It
left for several years so as to allow its
oxygen used for biochemical oxidation grows abundantly in eutrophic water
recovery and repeat this process in
by microorganisms in a unit volume of body and imbalances water ecosystem,
another area. Thus, this shifting
water. Polluted water has high BOD. leading to the death of fishes.
cultivation method also contributes in
Thus, when sewage gets mixed with 18 (b)Option (b) represents the incorrect deforestation.
river water, its BOD will increase. pair and can be corrected as
106 CUET (UG) Section II : Domain (Biology)
CUET (UG) Section II : Domain (Biology)
Practice Set 01
1. Which of the following refer to 4. The plant part which consists of 9. In water hyacinth and water lily,
correct example(s) of organisms two generations, one within the pollination takes place by
which have evolved due to changes other (a) water currents only
in environment brought about by I. Pollen grains inside the anther. (b) wind and water
anthropogenic action? II. Germinated pollen grain with (c) insects and water
I. Darwin’s Finches of Galapagos two male gametes. (d) insects or wind
islands. III. Seed inside the fruit. 10. Which of the following is put into
II. Herbicide resistant weeds. IV. Embryo sac inside the ovule. anaerobic sludge digester for
III. Drug resistant eukaryotes. (a) I, II and III (b) III and IV further sewage treatment?
IV. Man-created breeds of (c) I and IV (d) Only I (a) Floating debris
domesticated animals like (b) Effluents of primary treatment
dogs. 5. The infectious stage of Plasmodium (c) Activated sludge
(a) I and III (b) II, III and IV that enters the human body is (d) Primary sludge
(c) Only IV (d) Only I (a) sporozoites
(b) female gametocytes 11. Identify the basic amino acid from
2. Match the following diseases with the following.
(c) male gametocytes
the causative organism and select (a) Glutamic acid (b) Lysine
(d) trophozoites
the correct option. (c) Valine (d) Tyrosine
6. Flippers of penguins and dolphins
Column I Column II are examples of 12. In which of the following
(a) convergent evolution techniques, the embryos are
A. Typhoid 1. Wuchereria
(b) industrial melanism
transferred to assist those females
B. Pneumonia 2. Plasmodium who cannot conceive?
(c) natural selection
C. Filariasis 3. Salmonella (d) adaptive radiation (a) GIFT and ZIFT
(b) ICSI and ZIFT
D. Malaria 4. Haemophilus
7. Identify the wrong statement with (c) GIFT and ICSI
reference to the gene ‘I’ that (d) ZIFT and IUT
A B C D
(a) 3 4 1 2 controls ABO blood groups.
13. Experimental verification of the
(b) 2 1 3 4 (a) A person will have only two of the
chromosomal theory of inheritance
(c) 4 1 2 3 three alleles was done by
(d) 1 3 2 4 (b) When IA and IB are present
(a) Sutton (b) Boveri
together, they express same type
3. In gel electrophoresis, separated of sugar (c) Morgan (d) Mendel
DNA fragments can be visualised (c) Allele ‘i’ does not produce any sugar 14. Select the option including all
with the help of (d) The gene (I) has three alleles sexually transmitted diseases.
(a) ethidium bromide in UV radiation (a) Gonorrhoea, Malaria, Genital herpes
8. The first phase of translation is (b) AIDS, Malaria, Filaria
(b) acetocarmine in UV radiation
(a) recognition of DNA molecule (c) Cancer, AIDS, Syphilis
(c) ethidium bromide in infrared
radiation (b) aminoacylation of tRNA (d) Gonorrhoea, Syphilis, Genital
(d) acetocarmine in bright blue light (c) recognition of an anti-codon herpes
(d) binding of mRNA to ribosome
PRACTICE SET 01 107
15. Which of the following statements 20. Montreal protocol was signed in 26. Identify the wrong statement with
is not correct? 1987 for control of reference to immunity.
(a) The proinsulin has an extra (a) emission of ozone depleting (a) When readymade antibodies are
peptide called C-peptide substances directly given, it is called ‘passive
(b) The functional insulin has A and (b) release of green house immunity’
B chains linked together by gases (b) Active immunity is quick and
hydrogen bonds (c) disposal of e-wastes gives full response
(c) Genetically engineered insulin is (d) transport of genetically modified (c) Foetus receives some antibodies
produced in E-coli organisms from one country to from mother, it is an example for
(d) In man, insulin is synthesised as a another passive immunity
proinsulin (d) When exposed to antigen (living or
21. Which of the following hormone
16. Match the following columns and levels will cause release of ovum dead) antibodies are produced in
the host’s body. It is called ‘active
select the correct option. (ovulation) from the Graafian
immunity’
follicle?
Column I Column II 27. The specific palindromic sequence
(a) High concentration of
A. Clostridium 1. Cyclosporin-A progesterone which is recognised by EcoRI is
butylicum (b) Low concentration of LH (a) 5'- GGAACC- 3'
(c) Low concentration of FSH (b) 5' - CTTAAG - 3'
B. Trichoderma 2. Butyric acid
(d) High concentration of oestrogen 3' - CCTTGG - 5'
polysporum
3' - GAATTC - 5'
C. Monascus 3. Citric acid 22. Select the correct match. (c) 5' - GGATCC - 3'
purpureus (a) Phenylketonuria – Autosomal (d) 5' - GAATTC - 3'
D. Aspergillus 4. Blood dominant trait 3'- CCTAGG - 5'
niger cholesterol (b) Sickle-cell – Autosomal 3' - CTTAAG - 5'
lowering agent anaemia recessive trait, 28. If the distance between two
chromosome-11 consecutive base pairs is 0.34 nm
A B C D
(a) 2 1 4 3 (c) Thalassemia – X-linked and the total number of base pairs
(b) 1 2 4 3 (d) Haemophilia – Y-linked of a DNA double helix in a typical
(c) 4 3 2 1 mammalian cell is 6.6 × 109 bp ,
(d) 3 4 2 1 23. Snow blindness in Antarctic region then the length of the DNA is
is due to approximately
17. Embryological support for
(a) inflammation of cornea due to (a) 2.5 meters
evolution was disapproved
by high dose of UV-B radiation (b) 2.2 meters
(b) high reflection of light from snow (c) 2.7 meters
(a) Alfred Wallace
(c) damage to retina caused by (d) 2.0 meters
(b) Charles Darwin
infrared rays
(c) Oparin 29. Match the trophic levels with their
(d) freezing of fluids in the eye by low
(d) Karl Ernst von Baer correct species examples in
temperature
grassland ecosystem.
18. The sequence that controls the copy 24. How many true breeding pea plant
number of the linked DNA in the varieties did Mendel select as pairs, Column I Column II
vector, is termed which were similar except in one A. Fourth trophic level 1. Crow
(a) Ori site character with contrasting traits?
(b) palindromic sequence B. Second trophic level 2. Vulture
(a) 2 (b) 14
(c) recognition site (c) 8 (d) 4 C. First trophic level 3. Rabbit
(d) selectable marker
25. By which method was a new breed D. Third trophic level 4. Grass
19. Which of the following is correct
‘Hisardale’ of sheep formed by
about viroids? Select the correct option.
using Bikaneri ewes and Marino
(a) They have free RNA without A B C D
rams?
protein coat (a) 3 2 1 4
(a) Mutational breeding
(b) They have DNA with protein coat (b) 4 3 2 1
(b) Cross breeding
(c) They have free DNA without (c) 1 2 3 4
protein coat (c) Inbreeding (d) 2 3 4 1
(d) They have RNA with protein coat (d) Outcrossing
30. Identify the wrong statement 36. Match the following columns and (a) fungal diseases
with regard to restriction select the correct option. (b) plant nematodes
enzymes. (c) insect predators
Column I Column II
(a) They cut the strand of DNA at (d) insect pests
palindromic sites A. Bt cotton 1. Gene therapy
40. Choose the correct pair from the
(b) They are useful in genetic B. Adenosine 2. Cellular defence
following.
engineering deaminase
(c) Sticky ends can be joined by deficiency (a) Polymerases Break the DNA into
using DNA ligases C. RNAi 3. Detection of HIV fragments
(d) Each restriction enzyme infection (b) Nucleases Separate the two
functions by inspecting the D. PCR 4. Bacillus strands of DNA
length of a DNA sequence thuringiensis (c) Exonucleases Make cuts at
specific positions
31. Name the enzyme that facilitates A B C D
within DNA
opening of DNA helix during (a) 3 2 1 4
transcription. (b) 2 3 4 1 (d) Ligases Join the two DNA
(c) 1 2 3 4 molecules
(a) DNA helicase
(d) 4 1 2 3
(b) DNA polymerase
37. From his experiments, SL Miller 41. The body of the ovule is fused
(c) RNA polymerase
produced amino acids by mixing the within the funicle at
(d) DNA ligase
following in a closed flask. (a) micropyle (b) nucellus
32. Which of the following (c) chalaza (d) hilum
(a) CH3 ,H2 ,NH4 and water vapour at
statements is correct? 800°C 42. In relation to gross primary
(a) Adenine pairs with thymine (b) CH4 ,H2 ,NH3 and water vapour at productivity and net primary
through one H-bond 600°C productivity of an ecosystem, which
(b) Adenine pairs with thymine (c) CH3 ,H2 ,NH3 and water vapour at one of the following statements is
through three H-bonds 600°C correct?
(c) Adenine does not pair with (d) CH4 ,H2 ,NH3 and water vapour at (a) Gross primary productivity is
thymine 800°C always more than net primary
(d) Adenine pairs with thymine productivity
38. Match the organism with its use in
through two H-bonds (b) Gross primary productivity and
biotechnology.
33. Which of the following regions of net primary productivity are one
Column I Column II
the globe exhibits highest species and same
A. Bacillus 1. Cloning vector
diversity? (c) There is no relationship between
thuringiensis
(a) Madagascar gross primary productivity and
B. Thermus 2. Construction of net primary productivity
(b) Himalayas
aquaticus first rDNA (d) Gross primary productivity is
(c) Amazon forests
molecule always less than net primary
(d) Western Ghats of India
C. Agrobacterium 3. DNA productivity
34. Meiotic division of the secondary tumefaciens polymerase
oocyte completed 43. Match the following columns and
D. Salmonella 4. Cry proteins
(a) at the time of copulation select the correct option.
typhimurium
(b) after zygote formation
Select the correct option. Column I Column II
(c) at the time of fusion of a sperm
with an ovum A B C D A. Placenta 1. Androgens
(d) prior to ovulation (a) 4 3 1 2 B. Zona 2. Human
(b) 3 2 4 1 pellucida Chorinoic
35. Secondary metabolites such as
(c) 3 4 1 2 Gonadotropin
nicotine, strychnine and caffeine (d) 2 4 3 1 (hCG)
are produced by plants for their
(a) growth response 39. Bt cotton variety that was developed C. Bulbourethral 3. Layer of the
(b) defence action glands ovum
by the introduction of toxin gene of
(c) effect on reproduction Bacillus thuringiensis( Bt ) is resistant D. Leydig cells 4. Lubrication of
(d) nutritive value to the penis
PRACTICE SET 01 109
A B C D (a) base (c) the structural gene and the

(a) 1 4 2 3 (b) sugar terminator regions
(b) 3 2 4 1 (c) phosphate group (d) the structural gene only
(c) 2 3 4 1 (d) hydroxyl group 49. Which one of the following is true
(d) 4 3 1 2 with respect to AUG?
47. Discontinuous synthesis of DNA
44. Which of the following is not an occurs in one strand, because (a) It codes for methionine
attribute of a population? (a) DNA molecule being only
(a) Natality synthesised is very long (b) It is also an initiation
(b) DNA-dependent DNA codon
(b) Mortality
polymerase catalyses (c) It codes for methionine in both
(c) Species interaction prokaryotes and eukaryotes
polymerisation only in one
(d) Sex ratio
direction (5′ → 3′) (d) All of the above
45. According to Robert May, the global (c) it is a more efficient process 50. To initiate translation, the mRNA
species diversity is about (d) DNA ligase has to have a role first binds to
(a) 20 million 48. The RNA polymerase (a) the smaller ribosomal
(b) 50 million holoenzyme transcribes subunit
(c) 7 million (a) the promoter, structural gene (b) the larger ribosomal
(d) 1.5 million and the terminator region subunit
46. A nucleoside differs from a (b) the promoter and the (c) the whole ribosome
nucleotide. It lacks the terminator region (d) No such specificity exists
ANSWERS
1. (b) 2. (a) 3. (a) 4. (c) 5. (a) 6. (a) 7. (b) 8. (b) 9. (d) 10. (c)
11. (b) 12. (d) 13. (c) 14. (d) 15. (b) 16. (a) 17. (d) 18. (a) 19. (a) 20. (a)
21. (d) 22. (b) 23. (a) 24. (b) 25. (b) 26. (b) 27. (d) 28. (b) 29. (d) 30. (c)
31. (c) 32. (d) 33. (c) 34. (c) 35. (b) 36. (d) 37. (d) 38. (a) 39. (d) 40. (d)
41. (d) 42. (a) 43. (c) 44. (c) 45. (c) 46. (c) 47. (b) 48. (c) 49. (d) 50. (a)
CUET (UG) Section II : Domain (Biology)
Practice Set 02
1. Inspite of interspecific competition understood from a diagram an individual’s tissue to treat

in nature, which mechanism the called disease, it is known as
competing species might have (a) Bullet square (a) biopiracy
evolved for their survival? (b) Punch square (b) gene therapy
(a) Resource partitioning (c) Punnett square (c) molecular diagnosis
(b) Competitive release (d) Net square (d) safety testing
(c) Mutualism
6. The factor that leads to Founder 10. Which of the following plant is
(d) Predation
effect in a population is monoecious?
2. During the purification process for (a) natural selection (a) Carica papaya
recombinant DNA technology, (b) genetic recombination (b) Chara
addition of chilled ethanol (c) mutation (c) Marchantia polymorpha
precipitates out (d) genetic drift (d) Cycas circinalis
(a) RNA
7. Complete the flow chart on central 11. Which of the following is not an
(b) DNA
dogma application of PCR (Polymerase
(c) histones
(b) (c) Chain Reaction)?
(d) polysaccharides (a) DNA mRNA (d)
(a) Molecular diagnosis
3. The term used for transfer of (a) (a)-Replication: (b) Gene amplification
pollen grains from anthers of one (b)-Transcription; (c) Purification of isolated protein
plant to stigma of a different plant (c)-Transduction: (d) Detection of gene mutation
which, during pollination, brings (d)-Protein
genetically different types of 12. Match the List -I with List - II.
(b) (a)-Translation:
pollen grains to stigma is (b)-Replication; List-I List-II
(a) xenogamy (c)-Transcription: A. Protoplast fusion 1. Totipotency
(b) geitonogamy (d)-Transduction
(c) (a)-Replication: B. Plant tissue culture 2. Pomato
(c) chasmogamy
(b)-Transcription; C. Meristem culture 3. Somaclones
(d) cleistogamy
(c)-Translation
D. Micropropagation 4. Virus free plants
4. Which of the íollowing is a correct (d)-Protein
sequence of steps in a PCR (d) (a)-Transduction; Choose tho correct answer from
(b)-Translation
(Polymerase Chain Reaction)? the options given below.
(c)-Replication; (d)-Protein
(a) Denaturation, Annealing, A B C D
Extension 8. DNA strands on a gel stained with (a) 3 4 2 1
(b) Denaturation, Extension, Annealing ethidium bromide when viewed (b) 2 1 4 3
(c) Extension, Denaturation, under UV radiation, appear as (c) 3 4 1 2
Annealing (a) yellow bands (d) 4 3 2 1
(d) Annealing, Denaturation, (b) bright orange bands
Extension 13. Amensalism can be represented as
(c) dark red bands
(a) species A (− ) : species B (0)
5. The production of gametes by the (d) bright blue bands
(b) species A (+) : species B (+)
parents, formation of zygote, the (c) species A (−) : species B (−)
9. When gene targetting involving
F1 and F2 plants, can be (d) species A (+) : species B (0)
gene amplification is attempted in
PRACTICE SET 02 111
14. A typical angiosperm embryo sac 20. Identify the correct statement. 25. A specific recognition sequence
at maturity is (a) In capping, methyl guanosine identified by endonucleases to
(a) 8-nucleate and 7-celled triphosphate is added to the 3 make cuts at specific positions
(b) 7-nucleate and 8-celled end of hnRNA within the DNA is
(c) 7-nucleate and 7-celled (b) RNA polymerase binds with Rho (a) degenerate primer sequence
(d) 8-nucleate and 8-celled factor to terminate the process of (b) Okazaki sequences
transcription in bacteria
(c) palindromic nucleotide sequence
15. The amount of nutrients, such as (c) The coding strand in a
(d) poly(A) tail sequence
carbon, nitrogen, phosphorus and transcription unit is copied to
calcium present in the soil at any an mRNA 26. The fruit fly has 8 chromosomes
given time, is referred as (d) Split gene arrangement is (2n) in each cell. During
characteristic of prokaryotes interphase of mitosis, if the
(a) climax
(b) climax community 21. Now-a-days, it is possible to detect number of chromosomes at
(c) standing state the mutated gene causing cancer G1-phase is 8, what would be the
(d) standing crop by allowing radioactive probe to number of chromosomes after
S-phase ?
16. Mutations in plant cells can be hybridise its complimentary DNA
(a) 8 (b) 16
induced by in a clone of cells, followed by its
(c) 4 (d) 32
(a) kinetin detection using autoradiography
(b) infrared rays because 27. With regard to insulin choose the
(c) gamma rays (a) mutated gene partially appears correct options.
(d) zeatin on a photographic film I. C-peptide is not present in
(b) mutated gene completely and mature insulin.
17. Which of the following statement clearly appears on a II. The insulin produced by rDNA
is not correct? photographic film technology has C-peptide.
(a) Pyramid of biomass in sea is (c) mutated gene does not appear III. The pro-insulin has C-peptide.
generally inverted on a photographic film as the
IV. A-peptide and B-peptide of
(b) Pyramid of biomass in sea is probe has no complementarity
insulin are interconnected by
generally upright with it
disulphide bridges.
(c) Pyramid of energy is always (d) mutated gene does not appear
upright on photographic film as the Choose the correct answer from the
(d) Pyramid of numbers in a probe has complementarity options given below.
grassland ecosystem is upright with it (a) II and IV (b) II and III
18. In the equation GPP − R = NPP, 22. In the exponential growth (c) I, III and IV (d) I and IV
R represents equation Nt = N0 e rt , e 28. Persons with ‘AB’ blood group are
(a) radiant energy represents called as "universal recipients".
(b) retardation factor (a) the base of number logarithms This is due to
(c) environment factor (b) the base of exponential logarithms (a) absence of antigens-A and B on
(d) respiration losses (c) the base of natural logarithms the surface of RBCs
(d) the base of geometric logarithms (b) absence of antigens-A and B in
19. Plasmid pBR322 has Pst I plasma
restriction enzyme site within 23. What is the role of RNA (c) presence of antibodies, anti-A and
gene ampR that confers ampicillin polymerase-III in the process of anti-B on RBCs
resistance. If this enzyme is used transcription in eukaryotes? (d) absence of antibodies, anti-A and
for inserting a gene for anti-B in plasma
(a) Transcribes rRNAs (28S, 18S
β-galactoside production and the and 5.8S) 29. In a cross between a male and
recombinant plasmid is inserted in (b) Transcribes tRNA (5s rRNA and female, both heterozygous for
an E.coli strain snRNA) sickle-cell anaemia gene, what
(a) it will not be able to confer (c) Transcribes precursor of mRNA percentage of the progeny will be
ampicillin resistance to the host (d) Transcribes only snRNAs
diseased?
cell
24. DNA fingerprinting involves (a) 50% (b) 75%
(b) the transformed cells will
have the ability to resist identifying differences in some (c) 25% (d) 100%
ampicillin as well as produce specific regions in DNA sequence,
30. Which is the ‘‘only enzyme’’ that
β-galactoside called as has “capability” to catalyse
(c) it will lead to lysis of host (a) satellite DNA
cell initiation, elongation and
(b) repetitive DNA termination in the process of
(d) it will be able to produce a novel
(c) single nucleotides transcription in prokaryotes?
protein with dual ability
(d) polymorphic DNA
(a) DNA-dependent DNA polymerase 37. Which of the following is not an 42. Match the List - I with List-II.
(b) DNA-dependent RNA polymerase objective of biofortification in
List-I List-II
(c) DNA ligase crops?
(d) DNase (a) Improve protein content A. Allen’s rule 1. Kangaroo rat
(b) Improve resistance to diseases B. Physiological 2. Desert lizard
31. Which of the following RNAs is (c) Improve vitamin content adaptation
not required for the synthesis of (d) Improve micronutrient and
protein ? C. Behavioural 3. Marine fish at
mineral content adaptation depth
(a) mRNA (b) tRNA
(c) rRNA (d) siRNA 38. Dobson units are used to measure D. Biochemical 4. Polar seal
thickness of adaptation
32. Which one of the following is an (a) CFCs (b) stratosphere
example of hormone releasing (c) ozone (d) troposphere Choose the correct answer from
IUD? the options given below
(a) Cu-T 39. For effective treatment of the A B C D
(b) LNG-20
disease, early diagnosis and (a) 4 2 3 1
understanding its pathophysiology (b) 4 1 3 2
(c) Cu-7
is very important. Which of the (c) 4 1 2 3
(d) Multiload-375
following molecular diagnostic (d) 4 3 2 1
33. lf adenine makes 30% of the DNA technique is very useful for early
43. Assertion (A) A person goes to
molecule, what will be the detection?
high altitude and experiences
percentage of thymine, guanine (a) Western Blotting Technique ‘altitude sickness’ with symptoms
and cytosine in it? (b) Southern Blotting Technique like breathing difficulty and heart
(a) T : 20, G : 30, C : 20 (c) ELISA Technique palpitations.
(b) T : 20, G : 20, C : 30 (d) Hybridisation Technique
(c) T : 30, G : 20, C : 20 Reason (R) Due to low
40. Match the List-I with List-II. atmospheric pressure at high
(d) T : 20, G : 25, C : 25
List-I List-II altitude, the body does not get
34. Receptors for sperm binding in A. Vaults 1. Entry of sperm sufficient oxygen.
mammals are present on through cervix is In the light of the above
(a) corona radiata blocked statements, choose the correct
(b) vitelline membrane B. IUDs 2. Removal of vas answer from the options given
(c) perivitelline space deferens below.
(d) zona pellucida C. Vasectomy 3. Phagocytosis of (a) Both A and R are true and
sperms within the R is the correct explanation
35. Veneral diseases can spread
uterus of A
through
D. Tubectomy 4. Removal of (b) Both A and R are true, but R is
I. Using sterile needles. Fallopian tube not the correct explanation of A
II. Transfusion of blood from (c) A is true, but R is false
infected person. Choose the correct answer from (d) A is false, but R is true
III. Infected mother to foetus. the options given below.
A B C D 44. Statement I The condon ‘AUG’
IV. Kissing.
(a) 4 2 1 3 codes for methionine and
V. Inheritance. (b) 1 3 2 4 phenylalanine.
Choose the correct answer from (c) 2 4 3 1
Statement II ‘AAA’ and ‘AAG’
the options given below (d) 3 1 4 2
both codons code for the amino
(a) I, II and III 41. Which of the following is not a acid lysine.
(b) II, III and IV step in Multiple Ovulation In the light of the above
(c) II and III Embryo Transfer Technology statements, choose the correct
(d) I and III (MOET)? answer from the options given
36. During the process of gene (a) Cow is administered hormone below.
having LH like activity for super
amplification using PCR, if very (a) Both statement I and statement II
ovulation
high temperature is not are true
(b) Cow yields about 6-8 eggs at a
maintained in the beginning, then (b) Both statement I and statement II
time
which of the following steps of are false
(c) Cow is fertilised by artificial
PCR will be affected first? (c) Statement I is true, but statement
insemination
II is false
(a) Annealing (b) Extension (d) Fertilised eggs are transferred to
(d) Statement I is false, but
(c) Denaturation (d) Ligation surrogate mothers at 8-32 cell
statement II is true
stage
PRACTICE SET 02 113
45. Which of the following secretes the 48. Match the List-I with List-II. 49. Match the List-I with List -II.
hormone, relaxin, during the later List-I List-II List-I List-II
phase of pregnancy? A. Filariasis 1. Haemophilus
A. Adaptive 1. Selection of
(a) Graafian follicle radiation resistant radiation influenzae
(b) Corpus luteum varieties due to B. Amoebiasis 2. Trichophyton
(c) Foetus excessive use of C. Pneumonia 3. Wuchereria
(d) Uterus herbicides and bancrofti
pesticides
46. Which one of the following D. Ringworm 4. Entamoeba
B. Convergent 2. Bones of histolytica
statements about histones is wrong? evolution forelimbs in man
(a) Histones are organised to form a and whale Choose the correct answer from
unit of 8 molecules. the options given below.
C. Divergent 3. Wings of butterfly
(b) The pH of histones is slightly evolution and bird A B C D
acidic (a) 4 1 3 2
(c) Histones are rich in amino acids D. Evolution by 4. Darwin Finches
anthropogenic (b) 3 4 1 2
lysine and arginine (c) 1 2 4 3
action
(d) Histones carry positive charge in (d) 2 3 1 4
the side chain
Choose the correct answer from 50. Which was the last human
47. The Adenosine deaminase the options given below. chromosome to be completely
deficiency results into A B C D sequenced?
(a) dysfunction of immune system (a) 4 3 2 1 (a) Chromosome 1
(b) Parkinson’s disease (b) 3 2 1 4
(b) Chromosome 11
(c) digestive disorder (c) 2 1 4 3
(c) Chromosome 21
(d) 1 4 3 2
(d) Addison’s disease (d) Chromosome-X
ANSWERS
1. (a) 2. (b) 3. (a) 4. (a) 5. (c) 6. (d) 7. (c) 8. (b) 9. (b) 10. (b)
11. (c) 12. (b) 13. (a) 14. (a) 15. (c) 16. (c) 17. (b) 18. (d) 19. (a) 20. (b)
21. (c) 22. (c) 23. (b) 24. (b) 25. (c) 26. (a) 27. (c) 28. (d) 29. (c) 30. (b)
31. (d) 32. (b) 33. (c) 34. (d) 35. (c) 36. (c) 37. (b) 38. (c) 39. (c) 40. (b)
41. (c) 42. (c) 43. (b) 44. (b) 45. (c) 46. (a) 47. (c) 48. (d) 49. (c) 50. (a)
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CUET (UG)

Common University Entrance Test 2022

Under Graduate Tests

Under Graduate Tests

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Arihant Publications (India) Limited

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l Practice Sets (1-2) 93-100

l Practice Sets (1-2) 93-100

l Practice Sets (1-2) 111-118

l Practice Sets (1-2) 106-114

Last date of successful transaction of 06 May, 2022 (up to 11:50 pm)

Correction in the particulars of Application

Downloading of Admit Card from To be announced later on the website

Date(s) of Examination First and second week of July, 2022

Duration of Examination Slot 1: 195 minutes (3:15 hours)

Timing of Examination Slot 1: 09.00 AM to 12.15 PM (IST)

Section IA 13 Languages (As a medium and “Language”) Section IB 20 Languages

Section II 27 Domain Speci c Subjects Section III General Test

Broad features of CUET (UG) - 2022 are as follows:

Mode of the Test Computer Based Test-CBT

Test Pattern Objective type with Multiple Choice Questions

Medium 13 languages ( Tamil, Telugu, Kannada, Malayalam, Marathi, Gujarati,

Section IA & IB: Language to be tested through Reading Comprehension

Section II : As per NCERT model syllabus as applicable to Class XII only

Registration Registration will be online at https://cuet.samarth.ac.in/. (available

Level of questions for CUET (UG) -2022:

Visit www.exambites.in for

8. Electric Field The electric field due to a charge Q at a 1 2p

27. SI unit of electric flux is N-m 2 / C. 1 q

Hints & Solutions

E 9 ´ 109 ´ 3 ´ 10- 6 27 ´ 103

12. Equipotential Surface A surface which has same Þ q1 : q 2 : q 3 = C1 : C2 : C3

Hints & Solutions

O x P A 11 (d) Work done in increasing the separation from a to 2a is

i.e. OA = OB = OC = OD = OE = OF = 10 cm Thus, . ´ 10- 9 C

Tolerance Unit 21. During the charging of the cell, V = E + Ir

V2 (iii) Mixed Grouping It consists of m rows in parallel

Hints & Solutions

(I – I1+I2) 0.5 + 15.5

5Ω The battery of 8 V is being charged by 120 V, so the

Moving Charge and

where, G = resistance of galvanometer where, Ig = current through the galvanometer

Hints & Solutions

The magnitude of magnetic force on the wire, NAB

Magnetism and Matter

16. Terms related to magnetic properties of material : Relation between m r and c m is m r = 1 + c m

Hints & Solutions

BE 25 (a) Given, side of cube = 1cm = 10-2 m

Thus, from figure, we can see that \Volume,V = 10-6 m3

3 Current in the coil is larger, when the magnet is

(a) 48 mV (b) 28 mV (c) 56 mV (d) 36 mV

Hints & Solutions

1. Alternating Current (AC) It is the current, which varies V

12. In C-R series AC circuit, 1 1 L

Hints & Solutions

im 12 (a) The reactance X L of the inductance at 200 Hz is 120 W .

21 (c) Given, e = 200 sin 314 t and I = sin ( 314 t + p / 3 ) 104

8. Different types of electromagnetic waves

< 10-3 nm Compton Scattering Radio therapy for tumour and

Hints & Solutions

where, E = electric field, 100 ´ 2.5

Ray Optics and