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1. Capital markets and private equity are two fundamentals business for
investment banks. Illustrate and compare briefly the role played by the
investment bank in both cases, giving a specific attention to the source
of profit (i.e., revenues and regulatory capital).
2. Illustrate for each capital market deal: i) what is the source of profit and
ii) the impact on regulatory capital.
3. Illustrate for private equity business: i) what is the source of profit and
ii) the impact on regulatory capital.
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b. 100 million Euros 10 years mortgage, whereas there’s a delay of
payments for 7 million Euros at the year 6 for more than 90 days
c. 100 million Euros open credit line, whereas the customer uses 110
million Euros for 60 days
d. 100 million Euros open credit line, whereas the customer uses 110
million Euros for 90 days
For each of them you have to clarify and explain which is the weight in
Basel I and in Basel II standard approach.
You have to clarify and explain which of them can be considered for
regulatory capital impact in a) standard approach, b) foundation
approach, c) advanced approach.
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unrated corporation; d) what’s the impact of a claim on a plant whereas
RR = 0,55.
18. What are the main differences between standard, foundation and
advanced approaches within Basle II framework?
19. ENI Group would like to raise from the banking system 100 million
euro to finance investment. BNP Paribas starts calculating the pricing
for the loan using a PD of 0,07%. BNP Paribas evaluates the following
collaterals:
MVC RR
Collateral 1 85 millions 0,80
Collateral 2 100 millions 0,50
Collateral 3 80 millions 0,75
If you know risk free rate is 2,05% and risk premium rate for ENI is
0,75%, you have to illustrate:
a. which of the three collaterals is better to use and for what reason;
b. what’s the pricing to apply to ENI, using the collateral you have
chosen following a foundation approach;
c. what’s the pricing to apply to ENI, using the collateral you have
chosen following an advanced approach;
d. what benefit can generate the usage of PD substitution through an
insurance contract sold by Lloyds whereas Lloyds’s PD is 0,03%;
e. what’s the meaning of applying a mark-down of 0,35% to the risk
premium rate.
20. Air France Group would like to raise from the banking system 500
million euro to finance investment. Santander starts calculating the
pricing for the loan using a PD of 0,11%. Santander evaluates the
following collaterals:
MVC RR
Collateral 1 485 millions 0,70
Collateral 2 500 millions 0,65
Collateral 3 550 millions 0,75
Collateral 4 490 millions 0,60
If you know risk free rate is 1,85%, risk premium rate for Air France is
0,95% and mark down is 0,20%, you have to illustrate:
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a. which of the four collaterals is better to use and for what reason in an
advanced approach;
b. what’s the pricing to apply to Air France, using the collateral you
have chosen following an advanced approach;
c. what’s change in the formula if Santander uses a foundation
approach;
d. what benefit can generate the usage of PD substitution through an
insurance contract sold by Lloyds whereas Lloyds’s PD is 0,03%;
e. what’s the meaning of applying a mark-down of 0,20% to the risk
premium rate.
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Admin Unrated loans 400 5,5%
Loans to supranational 100 2,5%
TOTAL ASSET
TOTAL LIABILITIES
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Defaulted assets 200 2,5%
Consumer credit 0 8,5%
Retail
23. Let’s consider the capital market business within the CIB
offer. You have to:
a. give the definition of primary capital market and of secondary
capital market;
b. fill the following table whereas: i) for the “Profit Model” you have
to write ALWAYS, ONLY IF (adding when) and NEVER; ii) for the
“Regulatory Capital Impact” you have to write ALWAYS, ONLY IF
(adding when) and NEVER; iii) for the Basel II classification you
have to write which cluster can be involved (please, write simply
the acronym C, SME, R, FI, G, SL, E or NONE if there’s not a
regulatory capital impact).
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Brokerage
Dealing
Prop
Trading
Brokerage 8% 5% 3% 14% 5 5
Dealing 8% 5% 3% 14% 8 5 13
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