ASP Self Study Guide

Score Report - SPAN ASP Exam Prep Software Version 4.
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SPAN ASP Exam Prep Software Version 4.0
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Required Score:75
Scores By Category
BUSINESS PRINCIPLES, PRACTICES & METRICS IN SAFETY, HEALTH & E (0

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of 56 correct)
CONVERSION REVIEW (0 of 15 correct) 0%
MATH REVIEW (0 of 12 correct) 0%
MEASURING, EVALUATING & CONTROLLING SAFETY, HEALTH &

0%
ENVIRONME (0 of 141 correct)
PHYSICS REVIEW (0 of 28 correct) 0%
RECOGNIZING SAFETY, HEALTH & ENVIRONMENTAL HAZARDS (0 of 215

0%
correct)
SAFETY, HEALTH & ENVIRONMENTAL TRAINING & MANAGEMENT (0 of 169

0%
correct)
STATISTICS REVIEW (0 of 14 correct) 0%
TRIGONOMETRY REVIEW (0 of 11 correct) 0%
Questions Missed or Answered Incorrectly
You answered the following question Incorrectly
Question 1: ID# 000001 Category: BUSINESS PRINCIPLES, PRACTICES & METRICS IN SAFETY, HEALTH & E
The company fire brigade is preparing to attack a large hydrocarbon fuel based fire at your plant. The approach involves several hose lines and a
combination of foam and dry chemical suppression agents. All water fed lines are supplied from two pumpers arranged in parallel for reliability.
The only two fire pumps available have individual probabilities of success of .9 and .82 respectively. Based on this information, what is your
estimate of the overall probability of water supply failure during this operation?
A. 18%
B. 26.2%
C. 17.2%
D. 1.8%
You Chose:
Correct Answer(s): [D]
Three rules in every probability problem, 1 - always work in probability of failure (rather then reliability) 2 - draw a tree (to determine type of
gate involved) 3 - apply boolean logic (add for OR gate, multiply for AND gate).
Step 1: Determine pump failure rates
Step 2: Draw tree to determine type of gate. In this case, both pumps must fail to lose water supply (parallel operation = AND gate).
file://C:\Users\Shehzad\AppData\Roaming\SPAN\SPAN ASP Exam Prep 4.0\play\se... 20-03-2013

Score Report - SPAN ASP Exam Prep Software Version 4.0 Page 2 of 179
Step 3: Calculate the total probability of failure for this representation.
That is, the bottom event probabilities are multiplied.
Your organization is regulated by a Federal government entity that categorizes accidents according to a rigid set of directives. Accidents are
classified according to severity and cost. Class A mishaps involve death or 5 or more serious injuries, Class B mishaps involve serious injury,
Class C mishaps involve recordable injury, Class D mishaps involve property damage only. The accident data shown here lists the mishap
experience of the various departments at one of your plants. Determine the average number of injury accidents for all departments without
regard to the class.
A. 13.34
B. 10.67
C. 3.33
D. 4.36
You Chose:
Correct Answer(s): [B]
Based on the Exhibit

Sum the number of accidents for Classes A, B and C and divide by the number of departments. Do not include data for Class D mishaps, since
they do not include injuries.
The brake system on an experimental motorcycle has three components the master cylinder, brake cylinder and the brake line. The failure
probability on the master cylinder is 1 X 10(-3) , the probability of failure on the brake cylinder is 1 X 10(-2); and the probability of failure on
the line is 1 X 10(-4). What is the overall reliability of the brake system?
A. 99.9%
B. 50%
C. 88.9%
D. 98.9%
You Chose:
(1 X 10(-3)) + (1 X 10(-2))+(1 X 10(-4)) = 10(-2)

1-1.11 X 10(-2); = 98.89%

Given the sample distribution shown here, compute the standard deviation:
A. 6.98
B. 3.03
C. 3.2
D. 10.7
You Chose:
Correct Answer(s): [C]
On the TI 30X-IIS: Set to Stat mode, then select 1-VAR and enter: Press DATA X1 = 8 down arrow FRQ = 5 down arrow X2 = 11 down arrow FRQ
= 2 down arrow X3 = 15 down arrow FRQ = 3, then press STATVAR select sx = 3.2.
The average income from a $1,000 investment has been $500 each year for three years. That is, the original $1,000 is now $2,500. What is the
average annual interest earned on this investment?
A. 50%
B. 35.7%
C. 42.2%
D. 22.9%
You Chose:
Express the relationship, rearrange and solve

Your company has an outstanding loan of $500,000. What annual payment is required to payoff the loan in 10 years if the interest rate holds
steady at 19%?
A. $59,500
B. $95,000
C. $115,250
D. $721,750
You Chose:
On the TI-30X IIS calculator: 500000 X (.19 X 1.19 ^ 10) / (1.19 ^ 10 - 1) = $115,236
If you invest $165 per month in your company's 401k plan that yields 10% APR compounded monthly, how much will you accumulate after 10
years?
A. $7,974
B. $16,625
C. $31,878
D. $33,792
You Chose:

Your business has two payment options for its new company car. First, you can lease the vehicle for 5 years at $6,000 per year. Or, you can buy
the vehicle for $25,000 and trade it in 5 years later for $5,000. If you buy the car, you will purchase the maintenance agreement at $1,200 a
year. Assuming the value of money will be 8.9%, is buying or leasing the better option and what are the approximate savings?
A. Lease and save $3,000

B. Buy and save $4,000
C. Buy and save $5,000
D. Lease and save $6,000
You Chose:
Correct Answer(s): [A]
To solve this problem, we must compare the costs related to each option based on "common ground". That is, we must convert everything to
either present or future values. We chose to compare as present values.
Step 1: Calculate the present expense of leasing the vehicle for 5 years.
On the TI-30X IIS calculator: 6000 X (1.089 ^ 5 - 1) / (.089 X 1.089 ^ 5) = $23,399
When defining the hidden costs of an accident, which of the following is considered a direct cost?
A. time lost from work by injured

B. time lost by fellow workers
C. pay and benefits for lost time
D. loss of production
You Chose:
The direct costs are medical and compensation. The indirect or hidden costs are: time lost from work by the injured, loss in earning power,
economic loss to the injured family, lost time by fellow workers, loss of efficiency due to break-up of crew, lost time by supervision, cost of
breaking in a new worker, damage to tools and equipment, time damaged equipment is out of service, spoiled work, loss of production,
spoilage, failure to fill orders, overhead costs and miscellaneous.
Your company has an aggressive safety awards program for your over-the-road transport drivers. Twenty drivers are semi-finalists for three
monetary awards each $1,500 in value. How many ways can the awards be given?
A. 1140
B. 6840
C. 60
D. 6.6
You Chose:
Recall formula and solve. That is, the number of combinations of n things taken r at a time.
Note: This is accomplished very easily on most scientific calculators that follow the standard notation. Enter n first, then keystroke nCr, enter r,
then =.
(on the TI 30X-IIS, the nCr function is on the PRB key)

monetary awards. The awards are valued at $2,000 for first place, $1,500 for second place and $1,000 for third place, how may ways could the
awards be given?
A. 1140
B. 6840
C. 60
D. 6.6
You Chose:
the order matters in this question since one person will get $2,000, another will get $1,500 and the last one will get $1,000. So, for this
question, we will use the equation for permutations.
Note: This is accomplished very easily on most scientific calculators that follow the standard notation. Enter n first, then keystroke nPr, enter r,
then =. (on the TI 30X-IIS, the nPr function is on the PRB key)
How many different ways can you sit the five members of your safety committee at a large round table.
A. 1,200
B. 120
C. 12
D. 12(12)
You Chose:
Recall formula and solve. That is, the number of permutations of n things taken r at a time.
A process enclosure design retrofit is being evaluated at one of the plants over which you as the Health & Safety Manager have responsibility.
The following formula has been devised to determine the cost effectiveness of several options. Using the formula below determine which
reduction offers the greatest cost benefit ratio per dB. Where: CX = Total cost of retrofit AX = Cost per dB
A. 5 dB reduction
B. 15 dB reduction
C. 25 dB reduction
D. 35 dB reduction
You Chose:
The formula given includes a constant design start-up cost of $1,000,000 dollars and a cost per dB reduction of $75,000 combined with a cost
per dB2 of $1,500.

A random sample of employees is interviewed to collect accident information concerning near-misses, difficulties in operations, and conditions
that could have resulted in death, injury, or property loss describes:
A. Behavior Sampling
B. Critical Incident Technique
C. Program Quality Verification Inspection
D. Unprogrammed Process Safety Management
You Chose:
The critical incident technique asks those participating to describe any incidents that come to their attention. This technique can be useful in
investigating worker-equipment relationships in past or existing systems, evaluating modifications to existing systems, or developing new
systems. The behavior sampling or activity sampling technique involves the observation of worker behaviors at random intervals and classifying
these behaviors to whether they are safe or unsafe.Safety sampling can be a successful method to verify the effectiveness of a safety training
program provided that the technique is adapted to the program, a sound basic accident prevention program is in place and the management is
familiar with the technique and it's potential.

While doing "behavior" sampling you have made 110 observations with 21 unsafe conditions. If your standards require a 10% or less error rate,
how many observations do you need to make?
A. 73
B. 988
C. 1695
D. 1995
You Chose:
Apply formula and solve
The observation of worker behaviors at random intervals and the classification of these behaviors according to whether they are safe or unsafe
defines:
A. Critical Incident Technique

B. Life Safety Code
C. Behavior sampling
D. Safety orientation
You Chose:
Behavior sampling or activity sampling technique involves the observation of worker behaviors at random intervals by organizational experts
and the classification of these natural risk behaviors according to whether they are safe or unsafe. Using this technique, management can apply
various components of a safety program (such as safety lectures, posters, brief safety talks, safety inspections, motion picture films,
supervisory training) and immediately note their influence on workers' unsafe behavior.
One type of accident precursor, are conditions, events or measures that precede an undesirable event, and that have some value in predicting
the arrival of the event, whether it is an accident, incident, near miss, or undesirable safety state id called:
A. Leading indicators
B. Lagging indicators
C. Loss time frequencies
D. Worker compensation losses
You Chose:
This defines leading indicators, they are associated with proactive activities that identify hazards and assess, eliminate, minimize and control
risk. A leading indicator can help predict safety performance. Corrective actions that have been resolved from incident reports are a predictive
(leading) measure of safety performance.
__________ are measures of a system that are taken after events and assess outcomes and occurrences.
A. Leading indicators
B. Lagging indicators
C. Measures of behavior
D. Measures of activities
You Chose:
Lagging indicators measure outcomes which includes the history and overall performance. It is untrue that lagging indicators are poor measures
of safety performance, but they are poor predictive measures of safety performance.

current equipment is $25,000 per year and the cost associate with the purchase of the new equipment is $100,000. The maintenance on the new
equipment will cost about $500 more than the old equipment. Consider cost of capital is 5% and a 10 year service life with no salvage value,
what is the best estimate of the annual benefit of purchasing the new equipment?
A. $10,550
B. $11,550
C. $12,950
D. $24,500
You Chose:
The cost benefit will be the total annual savings. To calculate the yearly savings, subtract the new maintenance cost from the safety-related
losses to get the annual savings (25,000 - 500 = 24,500) and then calculate the annual cost of the equipment. Finally subtract the yearly
savings from the annual cost to yield the answer.
A company is considering purchasing a new piece of equipment to replace an older model that is now in use. The safety-related losses with the
what is the maximum amount that is justified for the initial purchase and installation, assuming all other factors remain the same?
A. $90,550
B. $100,000
C. $189,200
D. $240,500
You Chose:
The maximum acceptable investment is calculated by taking the annual savings ($24,500) and converting it to a present value.
A safety professional has been assigned to the same project for the last five years and has made a site wide safety inspection each week.
Assuming a normal distribution, what is the best estimate of the number of inspections that had safety scores within + or - 2 standard
deviations of the mean?
A. 177
B. 248
C. 259
D. 260
You Chose:
There were a total of 260 inspections (52 x 5 = 260) and plus or minus 2 standard deviations equal 95.5% of the area under the curve or: 260
x .955 = 248
A company decides to reflect the worker's compensation losses against the profit function and to determine how many units must be sold to
offset these costs. Indirect costs are five times direct costs and there is a profit margin of 15% on each unit sold and the worker's compensation
for the last year were $90,000. What is the volume in sales needed to offset the worker's compensation losses, when the losses are treated as
production costs?
A. $ 600,000
B. $ 3,000,000
C. $ 3,600,000

D. $30,000,000
You Chose:
The profit margin is 15% and the indirect cost is 5 parts of the total and the direct cost is 1 part of the total. Production costs are direct costs.
Since the profit on the production on the direct cost is 2.5%, we must have a volume of $3,600,000 to cover the workman's compensation
losses.
A common and devastating result of some volcanic eruptions resulting in fast moving currents of hot gases and rock at speeds greater than 50
mph/80 kmh, gas temperatures of 1000oC/1800oF, hug the ground and travel downhill defines?
A. Cyclonic event
B. Pyroclastic flow
C. Magma
D. Lava
You Chose:
This defines a pyroclastic flow which is a hazard that can engulf an entire town with little warning.
What type of lightning is the most common natural cause of wildfires?
A. cloud-to-cloud
B. dry lightning
C. rocket lightning
D. ribbon lightning
You Chose:
Dry lightning is a term in the United States for lightning that occurs with no precipitation at the surface. This type of lightning is the most
common natural cause of wildfires. Cloud-to-cloud lightning discharges may occur between areas of cloud having different potentials without
contacting the ground. These are most common between the anvil and lower reaches of a given thunderstorm. This lightning can sometimes be
observed at great distances at night as so-called "heat lightning". In such instances, the observer may see only a flash of light without thunder.
The "heat" portion of the term is a folk association between locally experienced warmth and the distant lightning flashes. Cloud-to-ground
lightning is a great lightning discharge between a cumulonimbus cloud and the ground initiated by the downward-moving leader stroke. This is
the second most common type of lightning, and poses the greatest threat to life and property of all known types.
Which of the following correctly evaluates the Boolean expression shown below?
A. A and not-A or A and B equals A and B

B. A plus not-A and A plus B equals A plus B
C. A plus A BAR and A plus B equals A plus B
D. A or not-A and A or B equals A or B
You Chose:
When evaluating Boolean Logic and applications, the sign + is read "or" ie; A + B becomes A or B. The sign "\'d7" is read "and" thus, A \'d7 B is
stated A and B. The "A-bar" symbol is read "not-A". The expression
is read: A or not-AandA or B equals A or B.

The expression
is also described as a union of one subset with two others can also be expressed as the union of their intersections.
A component in a computer system has a MTBF rate of 300,000 hours. What is the probability of the component performing flawlessly for at
least 100,000 hours?
A. 66%
B. 50%
C. 88%
D. 72%
You Chose:

Insurance rates are based on modifying the manual rate to reflect the insured's safety record. Two ways to modify the rate are the prospective
experience rating and the retrospective rating. Which of the following identifies the retrospective rating?
A. past experience
B. experience during the policy period
C. projected losses
D. manual premiums are not modified
You Chose:
Because past experience modifies future rates, this plan is known as prospective experience rating to distinguish it from retrospective
experience rating, which further modifies the manual rate to reflect experience during the policy period.
Which of the following is not true concerning the electrical Ground Fault Circuit Interrupter?
A. It requires an equipment ground to function

B. It is a very fast acting device
C. It will not detect line-to-line faults
D. It is designed for personnel protection
You Chose:
The Ground-Fault Circuit Interrupter is a fast-action device that senses a small current leakage to ground and, in a fraction of a second, shuts off
the electricity and interrupts the faulty flow to ground. Placed between the electrical service and the tool or appliance it serves, the GFCI
continually matches the amount of current going to and from the tool along the normal path of the circuit conductors. Whenever the amount
going differs from the amount returning by a set trip level the GFCI interrupts the electric power within 1/40th (2.5 hundredths) of a second.
This difference in current is called leakage current to ground and the path it takes to ground could be through a person - in which case, the rapid
response of the GFCI is fast enough to prevent electrocution. This protection provided by the GFCI is independent of the condition of the
equipment grounding conductor, thus, the GFCI can provide protection even if the equipment grounding conductor becomes inoperative.
To identify hazardous conditions, assess their risk and establish effective risk control measures is the primary function of a?
A. risk control system

B. risk management system
C. loss control system
D. loss management system
You Chose:
This is the definition of a loss control system. Risk is defined as the combination of the severity of a defined exposure with its frequency of
occurrence. The technique that effectively decreases a project's schedule risk without increasing the overall risk is to incorporate slack time into
the project's critical path schedule early in the project planning.
The t-distribution is not unlike the normal distribution. However, for the same area under the curve and the same standard deviation, the peak
is _____________ and the tails are _________________.
A. lower, higher
B. higher, lower
C. the same, higher
D. higher, higher
You Chose:
A t-distribution has a lower peak and higher tails and is commonly used to examine for differences between groups.
A computer dealer obtains materials from three suppliers, assembles them and then sells the machines under his brand name. Supplier A
delivers 25% of the components and has a defect rate of 5%, supplier B delivers 35% with a 4% defect rate, and supplier C provides 40% with
a 2% defect rate. What is the probability that a recently returned product was configured with stock from supplier B?
A. 58%
B. 36%
C. 23%
D. 41%
You Chose:

When presenting statistical data for comparison at a presentation, which of the following would be the best choice of visual aids.
A. table
B. organizational chart
C. bar graph
D. pie charts
You Chose:
Bar charts are one of the simplest and most effective way to display data to an audience.
Using the logic illustrated in this fault tree calculate the Top Event probability of failure.
A. 1 x 15-8
B. 1.5%
C. 8.998%
D. 0.00001
You Chose:
The symbol shown in the fault tree is that of the "OR" logic gate. This means that failure of any of the components in the tree will cause the
overall system to fail; that is, component 1 can fail, or component 2 can fail, or component 3 can fail etc. This arrangement is often called series
construction. The + shown in the gate represents the engineering symbol for the "OR" function. The rare event approximation can not be used
in this problem.
A. 1 x 15-8
B. 1.5%
C. .9%

D. 0.00001
You Chose:
The symbol shown in the fault tree is that of the "AND" logic gate. The * shown in the gate represents the engineering symbol for the "AND"
function. This means that failure of all the devices in the system must occur before the entire system will fail. This arrangement is often called
parallel construction. To determine the total probability of failure for this representation the bottom event probabilities would be multiplied;
Note that if any of the minimal cut set event probabilities were higher than about 1 x 10^-2, using the rare event approximation would be
inappropriate.
A company is considering purchasing a new piece of equipment to replace an older model that is now in use. The safety-related losses with the
what is the best estimate of the annual benefit of purchasing the new equipment?
A. $10,550
B. $11,550
C. $12,950
D. $24,500
You Chose:
An excellent method of measuring variance in statistical analysis is:
A. Inverse square law

B. Mode
C. Mean deviation
D. Standard deviation
You Chose:
The standard deviation is the root square deviation about the mean. Standard deviation is often used in measuring variance. The standard
deviation places great emphasis on extreme values because all individual deviations are squared
Which of the following truth tables is correct?

A. 0 or 0 = 0
B. 1 or 1 = 0
C. 0 or 1 = 0
D. 1 or 0 = 0
You Chose:
The OR gate is used to indicate when one or more of the inputs is present the gate will output (be positive or true). A positive is indicated by the
number 1 and negative (no input or output) is indicated by a 0. The first condition indicates that neither A or B input is present and the gate will
not output, which is correct. The second condition indicates that both A and B inputs are present which means the gate should output. The third
condition indicates that A input is not present but that B input is present which means the gate should output. The fourth condition indicated
that A input is present and that B is not present, this also should allow the gate to output. The truth table indicates that the gate never output,
therefore A is the only correct statement.
Which of the symbols in the exhibit illustrates the "AND" gate used in system safety analysis?
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
You Chose:
This is the correct symbol for an "AND" gate. Selection D is the symbol for an "OR" gate.
The technique of safety sampling is usually done when?
A. There is federal money available

B. The safety program needs new direction
C. Mandated by NIOSH
D. A mature program has a low incident rate
You Chose:
Safety sampling or searching for increased factors of safety is usually only done after a safety program is well established and has proven to be
effective. When undertaking observational human research, legal and ethical requirements emphasize the importance of informed consent.
Safety program audits should be designed to accomplish which of the following objectives?
A. Measurement of the safety plans effectiveness

B. Measurement of cost reduction
C. Determine if accidents are being reported
D. Determine if the plan is being followed
You Chose:
Audits are performed to determine if the plan is being followed. Audits can be performed by sub-professional safety personnel, such as Quality
Control or Assurance personnel, who know little about the rationale behind the requirements since they are tasked only with seeing if the rules
are being followed. Program evaluation is properly described as the measurement of results against accepted criteria. An appropriate parameter
for evaluating the status of a safety program is the experience modifier.
The steps for the continuous improvement safety process are the same as in the continuous quality improvement process. These include all of
the following except:
A. specify standards
B. measure compliance
C. follow procedures
D. provide feedback on improvement

Most of the Behavior Based Safety experts define the "continuous improvement safety process as consisting of: specifying standards; measuring
compliance ; providing feedback on improvements. Injuries and property damage caused by unsafe actions are best reduced by systematically
reinforcing positive behavior.
The attendance at safety meetings at a particular plant has a coefficient of correlation of -0.7 to -0.9, this would indicate?
A. A strong positive correlation

B. A strong negative correlation
C. No correlation
D. Spurious correlation
You Chose:
A result near 1 indicates that the values have a strong linear relationship. A result near 0 indicates the values are only slightly related. A value
near -1 indicates that the values are very closely related but in a negative way (increase in one is related to a decrease in the other). In safety
work, a correlation of less then + or - .6 is discounted. A coefficient of correlation of -0.7 to -0.9 would indicate a strong negative correlation.
A. 1 x 15-8
B. 1.5%
C. 8.998%
D. 0.00001
You Chose:
The symbol shown in the fault tree is that of the "OR" logic gate. This means that failure of any of the components in the tree will cause the
overall system to fail; that is, component 1 can fail, or component 2 can fail, or component 3 can fail etc. This arrangement is often called series
construction. The + shown in the gate represents the engineering symbol for the "OR" function. The rare event approximation can not be used
in this problem, see next question.
If $1,000 is invested in an investment account paying 8% interest. How much will be accumulated in the account at the end of 10 years?
A. $2159
B. $1875
C. $1968
D. $2234
You Chose:

In three years, $400,000 will be required for EPA modifications to your plant. How much money should you invest at 10% to have the required
amount when needed?
A. $424,287
B. $297,498
C. $300,526
D. $327,276
You Chose:
It is anticipated that in 5 years from now you will need a new piece of instrumentation. Assuming that the device can be purchased for $30,000
and that money is worth 15%, how much must be deposited yearly in an investment account to have the required amount?
A. $5693
B. $4449
C. $4246
D. $3000
You Chose:
Keystrokes on the TI-30X IIS: 30,000 X .15/(1.15^5-1) = 4449
What is the uniform annual payment that will amortize a loan of $400,000 in 8 years with a 14% interest rate?
A. $91,264
B. $88,945
C. $83,983
D. $86,228
You Chose:
What is the lump sum of money required now to avoid an annual end-of-year expense of $2,000 for 7 years with interest at 11.25%?

B. $9349
C. $8922
D. $9212
You Chose:
On the TI-30X IIS: 2 000/(1.1125^7-1) / (.1125 x 1.1125^7) = 9,349
You are a safety professional in an industrial facility. During your inspections you have determined some improvements are required that will
cost $100,000. You decide to put this in a five year strategic plan and know that the cost of the project will be $150,000 in five years. How much
money would you need to invest on a quarterly basis into an account that receives 10% annual interest compounded on a quarterly basis to
cover the cost of the project in five years?
A. $4962
B. $5567
C. $5872
D. $5432
You Chose:
On the TI-30X IIS: 150000 X .025/(1.025^20-1)=5872
Your company needs a shimshot machine. After searching you find two options. First, you can lease the machine for 10 years at $1,500 per year.
Second, you can buy the machine for $10,000 with a maintenance agreement that costs $500 per year. After 10 years, you can sell the machine
as scrap for $5,000. Assuming the value of money will be 15% for the ten years, calculate whether is buying or leasing the better option and at
what cost?
A. Buy for $11,273

B. Lease for $10,673
C. Buy for $10,525
D. Lease for $11,709
You Chose:
To solve this problem, we must compare the costs related to each option based on "common ground".Calculate the cost of leasing the machine
by adding the present value of maintenance costs to the present value of leasing the machine.
We chose to relate everything to a present value. We need to calculate all expenses and profits as present values:

As can be seen from the caculations, it would be cheaper to lease the machine.
Your company needs a shimshot machine. After searching you find two options. First, you can lease the machine for 10 years at $1,500 per year.
Second, you can buy the machine for $10,000 with a maintenance agreement that costs $500 per year. If the $500 per year maintenance
agreement was required for leasing, as well as buying the shimshot machine and assuming the value of money will be 15% for the ten years,
which would be the better option (buying or leasing) and what would be the percentage saved?
A. Buy for $11,273 with an 11.45% savings

B. Lease for $10,673 with a 12.31% savings
C. By for $10,525 with a 14.55% savings
D. Lease for $11,709 with a 13.24% savings
You Chose:
Calculate the cost of leasing the machine by adding the present value of maintenance costs to the present value of leasing the machine.
We chose to relate everything to a present value. We need to calculate all expenses and profits as present values:

As can be seen from the caculations, it would be cheaper to lease the machine.
Calculate percentage saved by leasing
Influencing organizational line managment to accept accountability for safety performance best describes the role of a?
A. Supervisor
B. Site engineer
C. Facility manager
D. Staff safety professional
You Chose:
The role of a staff safety professional is one of a consultant and influencer. Since safety should be in built into line performance, a key role of a
safety professional is to influence line management to accept accountability for safety performance.
The Z10 is a management system standard compatible and harmonized with quality (ISO 9000 series) and environmental management systems
(ISO 14000 series). Which of the following best describes these standards?
A. Specification standards
B. Compliance standards
C. Performance standards
D. Regulatory standards
You Chose:

The drafters of these standards set out to ensure that it could be easily integrated into any management systems an organization has in place.
This flexibility is characteristic of a Performance Oriented Standard. Z10 adopts from and is in harmony with the International Labor
Organization's Guidelines on Occupational health and Safety Management Systems, ILO-OSH 2001.
Pareto charts are used to answer all of the following questions except?
A. What are the largest issues facing our team or business?

B. What 20% of sources are causing 80% of the problems (80/20 Rule)?
C. Where should we focus our efforts to achieve the greatest improvements?
D. Where are the indirect costs of incidents?
You Chose:
A Pareto chart is used to graphically summarize and display the relative importance of the differences between groups of data. The left-side
vertical axis of the pareto chart is labeled Frequency (the number of counts for each category), the right-side vertical axis of the pareto chart is
the cumulative percentage, and the horizontal axis of the pareto chart is labeled with the group names of your response variables. Then
determine the number of data points that reside within each group and construct the pareto chart, but unlike the bar chart, the pareto chart is
ordered in descending frequency magnitude. The groups are defined by the user. The Pareto Chart Answers the following questions:
What are the largest issues facing our team or business?
What 20% of sources are causing 80% of the problems (80/20 Rule)?
Where should we focus our efforts to achieve the greatest improvements?
Which of the following are examples of indirect costs of an incident?
A. Drug testing and ambulance service

B. Incident review and process delays
C. Medical treatment supplies and medical related treatment
D. Job accommodations and new equipment
You Chose:
The term incident encompasses first-aid cases, recordable cases, restricted workday cases, lost-workday cases, permanent disability cases,
nearmisses and property damage cases. One must understand the two basic categories of cost: Direct incident costs represent actual cash
outlays attributable to the incident; such outlays would not have been necessary had the incident not occurred. Examples of Direct Costs
include: Workers' Compensation; Medical-Related Treatment; Medical Treatment Supplies; Ambulance Service; Drug Testing; Job
Accommodations; and New Equipment. Indirect incident costs represent costs in terms of time and resources (other than cash) incurred as a
result of the incident. Examples of Indirect Costs include: Healthcare Professional; Injured Worker; Supervisor; Return to Work; Incident
Review; Lost Production/Productivity; Human Resources; Cost to Hire; Manager; Process Delays/Interruptions; Security; Training; and Legal.
Thus, total incident costs are the sum of t
When a project has been proposed, it must first go through a preliminary analysis in order to determine whether or not it has a positive net
present value using the MARR as the discount rate. The MARR is the target rate for evaluation of the project investment. This is accomplished by
creating a cash flow diagram for the project, and moving all of the transactions on that diagram to the same point, using the MARR as the
interest rate. If the resulting value at that point is zero or higher, then the project will move on to the next stage of analysis. Otherwise, it is
discarded. The MARR generally increases with increased risk. What is the definition of MARR?
A. Maximum Attractive Rate of Return

B. Minimum Attractive Rate of Return
C. Maximum Alternate Return Rate
D. Minimum Alternate Return Rate
You Chose:
The net present worth (NPW) is the difference between the present worth of all cash inflows and outflows of a project. Since all cash flows are
discounted to the present the NPW method is also known as the discounted cash flow technique. This method not only allows the selection of a
single project based on the NPW value but also a selection of the most economical project from a list of more than one alternative projects. To
find the NPW of a project an interest rate is needed to discount future cash flows.The most appropriate value to use for this interest rate is the
rate of return that one can obtain from investing the money somewhere. Alternatively, it can also be the rate that you will be charged if you had
to borrow the money. The selection of this rate is a policy decision. In engineering economy this interest rate is known as the minimum
attractive rate of return (MARR). \lang9 In business and engineering, MARR, or hurdle rate is the Minimum Rate of Return \lang1033
Question 57: ID# 000031 Category: MEASURING, EVALUATING & CONTROLLING SAFETY, HEALTH & ENVIRONME
The safe working load for wire rope used in two leg bridle slings is sometimes indicated by a capacity reduction factor that is computed based
on the angle of the sling leg from vertical. When the sling leg is vertical (zero degrees) it is carrying half the load and the reduction factor is one
(no reduction). However, as the angle increases the capacity reduction factor also increases, thereby reducing the capacity (safe working load)
of the sling. Which of the following statements concerning the reduction in capacity is most accurate?
A. When sling angle is 15° there is almost no reduction

B. When sling angle is 30° there is a 13% reduction in capacity
C. When sling angle is 45° there is a 50% reduction in capacity
D. When sling angle approaches 90° no reduction is necessary
You Chose:

Various sling manufacturers' publish safe working load tables for use when selecting a sling. Normally sling leg angles are measured from the
horizontal. However, sometimes (as in this question) measurements are from the vertical. Be careful! Some reduction factors for various sling
angles are shown below. Hint: The capacity reduction factor from vertical is a cosine function ie; cosine 30 = 0.866, cosine 15 = 0.966, etc.
What distance is required, with a system that has a 100 fpm capture velocity and 469 CFM generated from a 6 inch by 6 inch duct?
A. 0.67 inches
B. 1 inches
C. 1 feet
D. 8 inches
You Chose:
Select formula and solve.
On the TI 30X-IIS:
Using current company standards, if a worker's noise exposure is 89% after 4 hours and 50 minutes of noise exposure and assuming conditions
remain constant, what would the exposure be after 8 hours?
A. 147 dB
B. 92.8 dB
C. 89.75 dB
D. 96.56 dB
You Chose:

Step 2: Compute TWA
General guidelines for cleaning up a minor spill of flammable or combustible material, includes all of the following except:
A. immediately notify OSHA of the spill

B. Isolate the spill site from non-required personnel
C. Block off the spill are to prevent access
D. Remove electric hazards, incompatible chemicals or wastes, physical hazards and sources of ignition
You Chose:
You are not required to notify OSHA for a minor spill, however you need to isolate the area for clean up and remove all hazards, including
ignition sources, especially if the spill is flammable.
Which of the following is not a characteristic of a cyclone air cleaner?
A. Low cost
B. Low maintenance
C. Low pressure drop
D. Remove all dusts of health importance
You Chose:
One of the limitations of the cyclone centrifugal collector is that they may be inadequate for control of dusts of health importance.
Given a molecular weight of 112, convert 1.6 pounds of a material fully evaporated in a 3,000 ft3 confined space to parts per million. Note: The
space occupied by a mole of gas at STP (Industrial Hygiene) is 24.45 liters.
A. 2,465 ppm
B. 1,865 ppm
C. 1,650 ppm
D. 1,112 ppm
You Chose:
Step 1: Convert lbs to mg
Step 2: Convert ft3 to m3
Step 3: Apply formula and solve

Alternate Solution:
Step 1: Using the relationship that 1 lb-mole (112 pounds) of our commodity will expand to 392 ft3, determine how many ft3 1.6 pounds will
occupy.
Step 2: Determine concentration within the confined space.
Step 3: Multiply by 1,000,000 to get ppm.
A laboratory fume and vapor hood is equipped with a movable sash. The front of the hood measures 5 feet and the sash can be opened to 36
inches. Assuming the VP of 0.3 inches during acceptance checks is still valid for the 8 inch duct connected to this hood, how far must the sash be
opened to provide a face velocity of 100 fpm?
A. 12 inches
B. 6 inches
C. 21 inches
D. 18 inches
You Chose:
Discussion: The principle involved here is that the quantity of air entering the flanged opening must remain constant. So if we can determine a
quantity entering, we can solve for velocity down stream.

Step 1: Determine velocity in duct from VP
Step 2: Compute area of duct
Step 3: Compute quantity of air flowing in duct

Step 4: With established quantity, determine area required for face velocity of 100 fpm
Step 5: Determine height required from total area
Your supervisor has given you the notes from a ventilation technician (who is on vacation this week) for a proposed fan modification project.
The handwritten notes show the flow in a 6 inch diameter fan inlet at 710 cfm. Static pressure readings are labeled at 2.25 inches of water at
the fan inlet and 0.55 inches of water at the outlet. The supervisor would like you to calculate the fan static pressure prior to a meeting he is
going to attend in half an hour. Which of the following correctly indicates the SPfan?
A. 1.99 inches of water

B. 0.55 inches of water
C. 5 inches of water
D. 2.25 inches of water
You Chose:
Step 1: Determine area of duct
Step 2: Calculate the Velocity

Step 3: Calculate the VP
Step 4: Calculate SPfan
Using the information provided in the illustration below, calculate the flow in the duct at point "C".
A. 2003 cfm
B. 3500 cfm
C. 1750 cfm
D. 2250 cfm
You Chose:
The flows in each branch of the duct are additive.
Step 1: Determine the Velocity of air flowing in branch "A".

Step 2: Determine the area of the duct in branch "A".
Step 3: Determine quantity of air flowing in duct "A".
Step 4: Determine the Velocity of air flowing in branch "B".
Step 5: Determine the area of the duct in branch "B".
Step 6: Determine quantity of air flowing in duct "B".
Step 7: Determine the sum of the two branch flows.

When using the formula S = 6 CiEf for gamma emitters, depicted on the BCSP formula sheet as S =6CE, ensure that you understand the
differences between the formulas. What radiation reading would result from a unshielded 5 millicurie source of cesium-137 at a distance of one
foot, given an MEV of .662 and a .9 gamma-radiation per second disintegration?
A. 8 R/hr/1ft
B. .047 R/hr/1ft
C. .018 R/hr/1ft
D. 46.8 mR/hr/1ft
You Chose:
The formula depicted on the BCSP of S = 6CE is a "shortcut" formula for cobalt-60, since the "f" value for cobalt-60 is one. See the formula
information in Volume II for the exact definition of the formula.
What is the combined Sound Pressure Level from two identical machines located adjacent to each other, if each machine is producing 85 dBA?
What would the combined SPL be if there were four machines, 7 machines and 11 machines?
A. 88, 91, 93.5, & 95.4 dBA

B. 91, 97, 101, & 105.5 dBA
C. 88, 91, 95, & 97 dBA
D. 88, 91, 93, & 96 dBA
You Chose:
The simplified formula for calculation of equal Sound Pressure Levels is:
Two Machines
Four Machines
Seven Machines
Eleven Machines

A calibrated hot wire gas detector type combustible-gas indicator reads 10% for methane which has a 5.3% LEL. How many parts per million
does this represent?
A. 3500 ppm
B. 7000 ppm
C. 5300 ppm
D. 9200 ppm
You Chose:
Convert to ppm
A production area has a conveyor belt running parallel to and next to a walkway. The conveyor belt has smooth rods rotating beneath the belt
and these rods stick out 3/4 inch past the edge of the belt. What is the best course of action to protect workers from the potential hazard?
A. Do nothing, 3/4 inch isn't enough to worry about

B. Place caps over the ends of each rod
C. Paint the ends of the rods yellow to warn of the possible hazard
D. Attach a guard the full length of the conveyor belt that covers the ends of the rods
You Chose:
Answers A and C do not provide sufficient protection from the hazard. Answer B is a possible solution, but not enough information is given as to
the size/coverage of the caps and whether they are spinning or not. Answer D may be overkill, but is the best choice available.
What is the capacity of a fuel tank that is 30 foot in diameter and 20 foot high?
A. 9,765 gallons
B. 22,560 gallons
C. 14,137 gallons
D. 105,750 gallons
You Chose:
Using the exhibited table of distances, determine the distance an above ground fuel tank can be located from your plant property line. The tank
is upright, aboveground with a diameter of 32 feet 9 inches. It is 10 feet tall and will be filled to capacity.

A. 20 feet
B. 30 feet
C. 50 feet
D. 80 feet
You Chose:
What is the distance a 63,000 gallon tank can be placed from an inhabited building within the boundaries of your plant?
A. 5 feet
B. 10 feet
C. 15 feet
D. 20 feet
You Chose:
According to the table provided Answer C is the best choice
According to the local city fire codes with which your plant must comply, if a tank is required to be more than 50 feet from the property line it
must be equipped with a fire protection system. Will this 63,000 gallon tank require a fire protection system?
A. Yes
B. No
C. Only if taller than 50 feet
D. This tank can be located exactly 50 feet from the property line
You Chose:
It is not required to be "more than" 50 feet from the property line.
A tank farm is completely diked and contains four fuel storage tanks. Tank number one is 100 feet in diameter and 35 feet high. Tank 2 and 3
are 50 feet in diameter and 15 feet high. Tank number four is 40 feet in diameter and 15 feet high. The area enclosed by the diking is 220 feet
by 330 feet. What is the required height for the dike enclosing tank farm? Assume no slope on dike walls.
A. 3.9 feet
B. 4 feet
C. 4.1 feet
D. 5.1 feet
You Chose:

Step 1: Determine Total footage of diked area.
Step 2: Determine the footage occupied by tank 2, 3 and 4
Step 3: Determine total area not occupied by smaller tanks
Step 4: Determine volume in the largest tank
Step 5: Divide volume in largest tank (cu ft) by total area available (sq ft) to determine required height of diking
Note: The difference between answer B and C is about 35,000 gallons of product that would not be contained.
Which of the following instruments could be used for flow testing an industrial fire hydrant?
A. Pitot tube with gauge

B. Aneroid with gauge
C. Magnehelic
D. Burdon gauge with pickup tube
You Chose:
A pitot tube equipped with a gauge could be used for flow testing water.

Find the velocity pressure in a 1.5 inch (actual diameter) open ended pipe with 250 gallons per minute of water flowing?
A. 114 psi
B. 14 psi
C. 44 psi
D. 254 psi
You Chose:
A hoisting chain with a minimum breaking strength of 25 tons has been proof tested to 33,000 pounds. At what value would you assign the
working load limit?
A. 16,500 lbs
B. 25,000 lbs
C. 33,000 lbs
D. 50,000 lbs
You Chose:
According to the American Society for Testing and Materials, A391-1975, chain proof test limits should be reduced by 50% in establishing the
working load limit. Therefore, this 50,000 pound chain that was proof tested at 33,000 pounds should have a working load limit of 16,500
pounds.
American National Standard Z89.1-1997 establishes specifications for helmets (hardhats) to protect the heads of industrial workers from impact
and penetration by falling objects and from high-voltage electrical shock. Which of the following classes offers low voltage protection?
A. A
B. C
C. E
D. G
You Chose:

The primary benefit of using a data logger attached to your industrial hygiene measuring devices is to?
A. automatically record data

B. does not need to be monitored
C. digitize data for future use and analysis
D. code the data so it can’t be read without the code
You Chose:
A data logger is an electronic instrument used to take measurements from sensors and store those measurements for future use. Some common
measurements include temperature, pressure, current, velocity, strain, displacement and other physical phenomena. A data logger works with
sensors to convert physical phenomena and stimuli into electronic signals such as voltage or current. These electronic signals are then
converted or digitized into binary data. The binary data is then easily analyzed by software and stored on a PC hard drive or on other storage
media such as memory cards and CDs. The ability to take sensor measurements and store the data for future use is, by definition, a
characteristic of a data logger. However, a data-logging application rarely requires only data acquisition and storage. Inevitably, you need the
ability to analyze and present the data to determine results and make decisions based on the logged data.
According to the National Safety Council, which of the following is not included in good accident investigation procedures?
A. identify basic causal factors

B. determining who is to blame for the accident
C. identify deficiencies in the management system
D. suggest corrective action alternatives for the management system
You Chose:
If the noise of an industrial motor vehicle is 77 dBA at a distance of 60 feet, what is the sound pressure level at 15 feet?
A. 80
B. 89
C. 98
D. 85
You Chose:
As the distance from the source doubles the noise decreases 6 dB. Since the distance from the source has halved twice, the net change is 12 dB.
77 + 12 = 89 dBA.
At 7.5 ft the level is 89 + 6 = 95 dBA and at 3.75 feet the noise level is 95 + 6 = 101 dBA and so on.

All ventilation systems should be tested at the time of installation to verify the volumetric flow rate(s) and to obtain other information that can
be compared with the original design data. Flow rates can be calculated (Q=VA) by first measuring the air velocity or air pressure in the ducts.
There are a number of direct reading air velocity instruments or air pressure measuring instruments available for field use. Which of the
following instruments does not require calibration or adjustment?
A. Inclined manometer
B. Pitot tube
C. Magnehelic gauge
D. Swinging vane anemometer
You Chose:
A standard Pitot tube needs no calibration if readings are carefully made. The velocity pressure readings obtained are considered to be +/-
1.0% at velocities above 2000 fpm. Use of the Pitot tube in the field is limited at velocities lower than 600-800 fpm. The accuracy of the inclined
manometer is dependent on the slope of the tube, and the base of the gauge must be leveled carefully. The Magnehelic gauge, which is the best
known type of aneroid gauge, is used to measure static, velocity, or total pressure with a Pitot tube or for single tube static pressure
measurements. It is easy to read, very portable and can be used in any position, but is subject to mechanical failure, requires periodic
calibration checks and occasional recalibration. The Swinging Vane Anemometer (velometer) is used extensively in field measurements because
of its portability, wide scale range and instantaneous reading features. However, it usually requires special fittings and/or filters
A 40 ton gantry crane has been out of service for more than 6 months for structural repair. It is required to be proof tested at _____ before
being used.
A. 10 tons
B. 20 tons
C. 40 tons
D. 50 tons
You Chose:
OSHA 1910.179 requires proof testing at 125% of capacity. 40 tons X 125% = 50 tons
A light duty scaffold not be loaded in excess of __________ pounds per square foot; a medium duty scaffold not be loaded in excess of
__________ pounds per square foot and a heavy duty scaffold not be loaded in excess of __________ pounds per square foot:
A. 15, 30, 60 psf

B. 25, 50, 75 psf
C. 30, 60, 90 psf
D. 35, 70, 100 psf
You Chose:
Per OSHA 1910.28 light duty scaffolds should not exceed 25 psf, medium duty should not exceed 50 psf and heavy duty should not exceed 75
psf.
In a zero energy state for the control of hazardous energy (lockout/tagout), who must be trained on the methods and means necessary for
energy isolation and control?
A. The supervisor of the area or process involved

B. Each authorized employee
C. Each affected employee
D. All employees whose work operations are or may be in an area where energy control procedures may be used
You Chose:
In the OSHA lockout/tagout standard (29 CFR 1910.147) an authorized employee is one who locks out or tags out the machine or equipment in
order to perform servicing or maintenance. An affected employee is one whose job requires him/her to operate or use a machine or equipment
on which servicing or maintenance is being performed under lockout/tagout, or whose job requires him/her to work in an area in which such
servicing or maintenance is being performed. Authorized employees must receive training in the recognition of hazardous energy sources, the
type and magnitude of the energy available in the workplace, and the methods and means necessary for energy isolation and control. Affected
employees need training in the purpose and use of energy control devices. The most significant item in safe operating procedures for equipment

maintenance is making sure that energy at the machine is zero and will remain that way during the repair.
When transferring an extremely flammable liquid from a 55 gallon drum via a hand pump to a small metal safety can, which of the following
provides the best protection?
A. Ground both containers

B. Bond containers together
C. Bond containers together and ground each to a separate low resistance ground
D. Ground each container to a single low resistance ground and then bond them to each other
You Chose:
Bonding is the process of connecting two or more conductive objects together by means of a conductor to minimize the potential electrical
difference between them. Grounding is the process of connecting the conductive object to the ground, and is a specific type of bonding. A
conductive object may also be grounded by bonding it to another conductive object that is already connected to the ground. Bonding minimizes
potential differences between conductive objects.
Grounding minimizes potential differences between conductive objects and the ground. The purpose of grounding or bonding in this question is
to insure that there is no potential differences between the containers and earth ground, therefore all objects must be connected to the same
grounding point and bonded together. Alternatively, you could accomplish the same objective by insulating the drum and can from earth ground
and then bonding the drum to the can.
A small mobile crane with rubber tires has struck a power line. The line, which is now believed to be dead, is laying across the crane boom.
Which of the following best describes the proper course of action for the crane operator?
A. Jump from the crane and run away

B. Stay in the crane until the emergency crew arrives
C. Have the oiler knock the line from the boom with a wood pole
D. Swing the boom back and forth until the line breaks or falls off
You Chose:
Each power line contact situation poses different problems. However, the generally accepted guidance is for the crane operator to stay in the
cab until emergency crews from the power company arrive. Often power lines are equipped with fault clearing re-closers, which will reapply
power to a faulted line after a few minutes. The re-closer can cycle three or four times before the line is really disconnected and then it is still
not safe because of cross feed situations. Departing the cab should only be considered if a fire or other situation requires it. Jumping from the
cab with feet together is the only safe departure method. One must avoid contact with the energized crane and the earth and keep step
potential at a minimum.
Which of the following lists the three distinct parts of a "means of egress"?
A. exit access, exit, and exit discharge

B. door, passageway, and ramps
C. door opening device, door, and exit light
D. horizontal exits, stairs, and ramps
You Chose:
NFPA 101, Life Safety Code, states, "A means of egress is a continuous and unobstructed way of exit travel from any point in a building or
structure to a public way and consists of three separate and distinct parts: (a) the exit access, (b) the exit, and (c) the exit discharge. A means
of egress comprises the vertical and horizontal travel and shall include intervening room spaces, doorways, hallways, corridors, passageways,
balconies, ramps, stairs, enclosures, lobbies, escalators, horizontal exits, courts, and yards.
While performing an industrial safety inspection you observe an electrical conduit that is very warm to the touch. Which of the following
descriptions best fits this condition?
A. The conduit is hot with electric energy due to a ground fault

B. Conduit is always warm to the touch
C. Conduit is probably absorbing radiant heat from the furnace
D. The conduit probably contains overloaded electrical wiring
You Chose:
One of the most common causes of electrically created fires is overheated wiring because of overloading. Many factors contribute to a safe
installation. The wire must be sized (correct gauge) properly to handle the current. Overcurrent protection (fuses or circuit breakers) must also
be correctly sized and function properly. Additionally, electrical raceways must not be overloaded with electrical wiring. The sizing of wiring and
the amount of wiring allowed for a given size of raceway is strictly regulated in the National Electrical Code. Generally conduit will not feel hot
to the touch even under severe circuit loading if installed according to code.
Which of the following would make the best earth ground for an electrical installation as required by the National Electrical Code?
A. A metal underground water pipe and connection to a driven electrode

B. A single connection to the structural building support steel on a slab mounted building
C. A made electrode consisting of a single 7 foot copper electrode installed at the transformer
D. Connection to another service on the same property that has a Ufer grounding system installed
You Chose:

The National Electric Code (NEC) allows several types of grounding electrode systems in Section 250-81. Metal underground water pipes are
discussed at NEC 250-81(a). The Code requires the water pipe system to be in contact with the earth for 10 feet or more. However, it must be
supplemented by an additional system, usually a driven electrode, to ensure that the path to ground is continuous in case the pipe is removed or
replaced with plastic pipe. Building steel may be used as a ground according to NEC 250-81(b) if it is connected to a ground grid or the
reinforcing steel in the concrete footing. The path must be continuous and connect to the complete outer supporting structure. Concrete encased
electrodes are permitted under NEC 250-81(c). These grounding systems are commonly referred to as "Ufer" grounds after the Arizona engineer
of the same name who did extensive research in grounds in dry, poorly conducting soil.
Which of the following most correctly defines the purpose of electrical circuit breakers?
A. To prevent excessive fault current and to be used as a method of disconnect when labeled SWD
B. To serve as a safety system that will disconnect circuits from a source of electrical energy that proves to be hazardous
C. To prevent overheating of conductors or insulation
D. To immediately interrupt the flow of electrical current whenever the current rating of the circuit breaker is exceeded
You Chose:
The purpose of electrical circuit breakers is to prevent the overheating of circuit conductors or insulation. The reference is the National Electrical
Code Article 240-1 which states in the fine print that: "overcurrent protection for conductors and equipment is provided to open the circuit if the
current reaches a value that will cause an excessive or dangerous temperature in conductors or conductor insulation". Circuit breakers offer no
primary protection from electrical shock or fires started from overheated equipment, they are simply too slow. Shown below are some
approximate action times for a typical 20 Amp circuit breaker.
A 20 Amp breaker overloaded 600% equals 120 Amps for 5 seconds. Most of us can imagine industrial situations in which 120 amps of heating
for 5 seconds could cause serious problems.
Which of the following statements is not correct concerning electrical wiring and equipment in hazardous (classified) locations according to the
National Electric Code?
A. Class I, Division 1 locations require threaded rigid metal conduit wrench tight with a minimum of five threads engaged
B. Areas adjacent to Class II, Division 1 locations are considered Class II, Division 2
C. Standard open type, squirrel cage motors are allowed in Class I, Division 2 locations as long as they do not have arcing or sliding contacts
D. Spray paint booths are Class I, Division 1, group G locations
You Chose:
Spray paint booths are normally considered Class I, Division 1. However, Group G locations are approved for Class II locations and provide
ratings for flour, starch and grain dust.
Historically, the Safety Fundamentals examination has evaluated the examinees knowledge of the provisions of the NEC concerning hazardous
(classified) locations. A thorough review is certainly in order prior to the examination.
Commercial Motor Vehicle transporting hazardous materials is required to display placards in which of the following locations?
A. front, rear and both sides of vehicle

B. front, rear and both sides of hazmat container
C. front, rear, top and both sides of vehicle
D. front, rear, top and both sides of hazmat container
You Chose:

According to 49 CFR 172.504, placards should be attached as you load and before you drive the vehicle. The placards must appear on both sides
and ends of the vehicle. Each placard must be :
1) easily seen from the direction it faces;
2) placed so the words or numbers are level and read from left to right;
3) at least three inches from other markings
The ASME Code requires that the minimum pressure for a standard hydrostatic test of a compressed air bottle be 150 percent of which of the
following pressures?
A. Burst pressure
B. Normal operating pressure
C. The required pressure relief valve setting
D. Maximum operating pressure
You Chose:
The ASME Code calls for 150% of the maximum operating pressure.
As a general rule, power presses are best protected by fixed guards that enclose the danger areas. When guards are not possible or practical,
safeguarding devices may be used to protect workers from point-of-operation hazards where moving parts actually perform work on stock.
Which type of safeguarding device requires adjustment for each individual operator?
A. Movable-barrier device
B. Two-hand control device
C. Pullback device
D. Presence-sensing device
You Chose:
Movable-barrier devices protect the operator by enclosing the point-of-operation before a press stroke begins. Two-hand tripping devices or
two-hand control devices require concurrent application of both operator control buttons to activate the machine, thus keeping the operator's
hands a safe distance from the danger area while the machine completes its closing cycle. Presence-sensing devices create a sensing field or
area that deactivates the press when an operator's hand or any other body part is within the field or area. These devices can be photoelectric
(optical), radio frequency (capacitance), or electromechanical. Pullback devices utilize a series of cables attached to the operator's hands,
wrists and/or arms. When the slide/ram is up between cycles, the operator can access the point-of-operation. When the slide/ram begins to
cycle by starting its descent, a mechanical linkage automatically withdraws the operator's hands from the point-of-operation.
A paint spray robot, scheduled to paint the inside of a large pump housing, malfunctioned and sprayed paint on the floor in the robot secondary
control zone. Maintenance has fixed the somewhat complicated error, which was caused; 1) by fugitive dust particles entering the computer
numeric control (CNC) panel and 2) by a failure of the abnormal-deviation detector, which senses when the robot is out-of-position. The robot is
now ready for restart in the high-speed repeat mode. Which of the following statements is correct concerning the startup operation?
A. This robot should be restarted by another robot

B. The robot should be started from a position outside the 6 foot high safety fence
C. The robot should be started loaded with water instead of paint
D. The fire department should stand-by on scene
You Chose:
Generally, after any multiple or complicated failure involving more than one component the initial checkout will be at a low or reduced speed.
Further, "fully operational" restarts would comply with normal safety requirements, which dictate that the robot can only be started in the high-
speed mode from outside the safety fence.
The ASME Boiler and Pressure Vessel Code requires most pressure vessels to have safety devices (i.e. relief valves, fusible plugs, etc.) to
adequately protect against overpressure, chemical reaction, or other abnormal conditions. When discharge lines are provided to carry discharge
away from safety valves, the area of the discharge pipe should be ________ the area of the valve outlet(s)?
A. greater than
B. less than
C. equal to
D. equal to or greater than
You Chose:
According to ASME B31 series, Pressure Piping, sectional areas of a discharge pipe shall not be less than the full area of the valve outlets
discharging there into and the discharge pipe shall be as short as possible and so arranged as to avoid undue stresses on the valve or valves. It
is recommended that individual discharge lines be used for each valve, but if two or more valves are combined, the discharge piping shall be
designed with sufficient flow area to prevent blowout of steam or other fluids.
Material Safety Data Sheets shall be readily accessible during each work shift to employees when they are in their work area. The most effective
way to handle this tasking is to?
A. Maintain copies of the MSDSs in each work area

B. Maintain a central data base of MSDSs
C. Provide a copy of MSDSs by CDRom
D. Post the MSDSs on the company local area network
You Chose:

The most effective way to post all Material Safety Data Sheets is by use of the company local area network (LAN) and a data base program. This
allows updates to be posted when they are received and are available to all work areas as soon as they are posted.
Your company has hired a new worker who was qualified as a powered truck operator at her previous company. What is the training required to
get this person qualified as a power truck operator in your company?
A. Send to a formal school

B. Accept the other company’s qualification
C. Have the employee attend your company’s initial training program
D. Ensure the operator has the knowledge and skills required to operate the power trucks, including your company’s procedures
You Chose:
CFR1910.178, Powered Industrial Trucks, requires anyone changing equipment or workplace location to meet the requirements outlined in the
Refresher Training requirements (para 1910.178 (l)(4)).
Who is in the best position to provide effective safety training of industrial work groups?
A. Supervisors
B. Senior Management
C. OHSTs
D. Training Professionals
You Chose:
Supervisors are in the best position to provide realistic and effective training for industrial workers. They have detailed knowledge of work
processes and control workflow. Work group members are attached to it and are loyal to the members, including the leader, members and the
leader have a high degree of confidence and trust in each other and the more important a value seems to the group, the greater likelihood that
an individual will accept it.
According to the principles of hazard control, to minimize hazards, you must be able to do all the following except?
A. recognize them
B. define and select preventive actions
C. write a detail plan for implementing preventive actions
D. provide a means for measuring effectiveness
You Chose:
The principles of hazard control consist of the following four steps:

1) recognize them;
2) define and select preventive actions;
3) assign responsibility for implementing preventive actions;
4) provide a means for measuring effectiveness The possibility of a welder being engulfed by grain while welding inside of a grain hopper would
be considered part of the hazardous energy control program because you should consider all energy hazards, including kinetic energy.
Which class of employees would you expect to have the greatest potential for accidents?
A. New employees
B. Experienced employees
C. Administrative employees
D. Disabled employees
You Chose:
According to the NSC, although statistical data differ, it is generally agreed that new employees are significantly more prone to work-related
accidents.
During a Industrial Hygiene class demonstrating sampling techniques the following statement is made, "colorimetric tubes are often used in
routine measurements in the Safety & Health field". Which of the following explanations best describes the wide use of these tubes?
A. One tube can be used for a large number of samples

B. One tube can be used for a large number of contaminates
C. Tubes are cheap and easy to read
D. Tubes are expensive but provide very precise results
You Chose:
Colorimetric tubes are relatively cheap, have a fairly long shelf life and are easy to read. Colorimetric or Draeger\'ae Tubes are the most often
used measuring device when taking Industrial Hygiene measurements. They do not however provide very precise results, even certified tubes
have a plus or minus 25% tolerance. Colorimetric tubes are used for grab samples.

A. a sign stating “Wear Your Eye Protection”

B. turn off all machines when you are finished
C. complementing an employee for wearing their eye protection
D. a free meal for a safe month on the plant floor
You Chose:
Most experts agree that there are two primary actions that influence behavior change the most, positive reinforcement and reinforcing the
behavior as close to the time of the action as possible. The first step in improving behavior in an organization is to establish an ethics program
to address the organization culture issues. Safety incentive programs should be designed to influence and change behaviors.
What type of respirator should be used for entry into a confined space?
A. Supplied air
B. Chemical cartridge
C. Charcoal filter
D. Airline with supplied escape bottle
You Chose:
This is a very poor question! The question does not tell us anything about the atmosphere in the confined space, respirators may not even be
required. Without any other detail one must assume that the conditions within the confined space are IDLH and oxygen deficient, in which case
the best and safest choice is the airline with an escape supply. The two type of fit testing for respirators are the qualitative fit test or the
quantitative fit test. The qualitative fit test has the individual respond to the testing agents while the quantitative fit test uses instrumentation
to measure for leakage.
Influencing organizational line management to accept accountability for safety performance best describes the role of a?
A. Supervisor
B. Staff safety professional
C. Facility manager
D. Site engineer
You Chose:
The role of a staff safety professional is one of a consultant and influence. Since safety should be in built into line performance, a key role of a
safety professional is to influence line management to accept accountability for safety performance.
When every individual in a universe has an equal and independent chance of selection, the technique is known as?
A. Stratified sample
B. Random sample
C. Systematic sample
D. Cluster sample
You Chose:
The random sample, as the name implies, allows every one in a universe to have an equal chance of selection. The term universe in statistical
work implies ALL of the data. Stratified samples are separated by layers. Systematic samples are patterned response (every third car accident,
person etc.). Cluster samples are confined to a particular location and assume the location will be representative.
If 3500 cfm of air is drawn through an 8 inch diameter duct, what is the velocity in feet per minute?
A. 1023 fpm
B. 10,230 fpm
C. 800 fpm
D. 1000 fpm
You Chose:

An empty handcart weighs 55 pounds, and its coefficient of friction is .034. What weight can be carried in the cart with an 18 pound pushing
force?
A. 440 lbs
B. 475 lbs
C. 134 lbs
D. 1115 lbs
You Chose:
Force = Coefficient of Friction times Weight
A truck carrying chemicals has been involved in an accident. The only information about the materials on board is that the pH is 4.0. What does
this tell you about the toxicity of the cargo?
A. Cargo has a flash point below 100 degrees F.

B. Cargo has a flash point above 100 degrees F.
C. Cargo is an acid.
D. Cargo is a base.
You Chose:
A pH of less than 7.0 indicates that the contents are acidic. A pH of more than 7.0 would indicate an alkaline cargo. A pH of 7 is considered
neutral.
A 4 part block and tackle is used to lift a load of 2,400 pounds. Ignoring the sheave friction, what is the force required?
A. 100 pounds
B. 200 pounds
C. 300 pounds
D. 600 pounds
You Chose:
A 600 pound force is required. 2,400 pounds divided by 4 = 600 pounds
Why does water pressure increase with depth?
A. Water becomes denser linearly with depth

B. H2O exerts more force/unit area
C. The force of gravity increases with depth
D. Water pressure does not increase with depth
You Chose:
Pressure is defined as a force per unit area. As the weight of water increases with the increasing depth the pressure or force per unit area also
increases.
Which of the following would be considered an aromatic hydrocarbon?
A. Methane
B. Butane
C. Toluene

D. Propane
You Chose:
Toluene is an aromatic hydrocarbon, that is, a derivative of benzene in which one of the six hydrogen atoms in the benzene ring has been
replaced with a methyl (-CH3) group. Acetylene (ethyne) belongs to the Alkyne (alphatic, triple carbon-carbon bond) class of hydrocarbons.
Which of the following properties of activated carbon make it a good sample collecting or filtering medium?
A. Small surface area

B. Is self cleaning over short period of time
C. High adsorbency for gases, vapors
D. High absorbency of the carrier gas only
You Chose:
Activated carbon is extremely porous and has a non-polar surface. It adsorbs molecules to its surface readily. When bathed in a non-polar
solvent such as carbon disulfide the adsorbed molecules are easily removed and dissolved into the solvent.
Which of the following is not a characteristic of a centrifugal fan?
A. High volume with a low pressure drop

B. Low space requirement
C. Often used with particle laden air
D. Low to medium noise
You Chose:
High volume and low pressure drop are characteristics of axial flow fans which are most commonly used for general ventilation or dilution
ventilation work. Centrifugal fans are used against low to moderate static pressures such as encountered in heating and air conditioning work.
These fans have low space requirements and are quiet. The paddle wheel or long shaving wheel is used with a medium tip speed for buffing
exhaust, woodworking exhaust or when a heavy dust must pass through the fan.
What is the volume in gallons of 400 pounds of gasoline with a specific gravity of 0.68? One gallon of water weighs about 8.34 pounds.
A. 170 gallons
B. 1700 gallons
C. 70 gallons
D. 700 gallons
You Chose:
The gasoline weighs .68 times as much as water. 400 pounds of water is about 48 gallons divided by .68 equals 70.5 gallons of gasoline.
A school bus is moving at 45 MPH and is acted on by a decelerating force of 16.4 feet per second per second. How many feet will it take the bus
to stop?
A. 144 ft
B. 133 ft
C. 222 ft
D. 233 ft
You Chose:
Step 1: Convert MPH to ft per sec
Step 2: Solve for s when V2 = 0

Determine from the drawing shown below how much downward force (discounting friction) is required on the rope attached to the large pulley
to cause upward movement of the 50 pound weight.
A. 25 lbs
B. 50 lbs
C. 12.5 lbs
D. 16.6 lbs
You Chose:
Concept: The machine illustrated shows the principle of mechanical advantage. One can readily see from the drawing that the ratio of
mechanical advantage is 4 to 16 or 1 to 4. Therefore it is obvious that the force to lift the bucket will be 1/4 the weight of the bucket, 50/4 =
12.5 lbs. However, lets apply the correct formulas and see what happens:
Step 1: Determine the radius for each pulley.
Note: This question discounts friction, which in a real application would add a small amount of additional force to the hoisting line.
Step 2: Apply the formula - forcetimes distance.

How much movement of the rope attached to the large pulley in the illustration is required to cause the 50 pound weight to be raised 4 feet?
A. 12 feet
B. 1 feet
C. 16 feet
D. 26 feet
You Chose:
Apply the formula - force times distance.

Concept: The machine illustrated shows the principle of mechanical advantage. One can readily see from the drawing that the ratio of
mechanical advantage is 4 to 16 or 1 to 4. Therefore it is obvious that the force to lift the bucket will be 1/4 the weight of the bucket, 50/4 =
12.5 lbs. However, lets apply the correct formulas and see what happens:
Step 1: Determine the radius for each pulley.
Note: This question discounts friction, which in a real application would add a small amount of additional force to the hoisting line.
Step 2: Apply the formula - forcetimes distance.

The machine shown in the question allows one to lift a weight with only 1/4 the force of the weight, but you must lift it 4 times the distance.
The machine described in the illustration has been modified to change the amount of force required to cause movement of the bucket. After the
modification shown below, how much downward force (discount friction) is required on the bar to cause upward movement of the 50 pound
weight?
A. 2.8 lbs
B. 2.1 lbs
C. 4.2 lbs
D. 8.33 lbs
You Chose:
Concept: The mechanical advantage of the machine has been changed. Useing the radius of the shaft, the ratio is 2 inches to 24 inches or 1:12.
Therefore it is obvious that the force to cause movement of the weight will be 1/12th the weight, 50/12 = 4.2 pounds. Using the radius for the
small pulley and the length of the lever, apply the formula - force times distance.
Note: It is important to understand that this question discounts friction, which in a real application would add some additional force to the
hoisting line.
A 6 inch diameter grinding wheel rotating at 500 rpm has a surface speed of?
A. 2,000 ft/min
B. 835 ft/min
C. 785 ft/min

D. 670 ft/min
You Chose:
Step 1: Determine Circumference of the wheel.

Step 2: Determine Surface Feet per Minute.
Convert 600 ppm of cyclohexane to mg/m3 given the following information; MW = 82.2, VP = 98mm, LEL = 1.3%, Sp.G = 0.78.
A. 2017 mg/m3
B. 1600 mg/m3
C. 910 mg/m3
D. 440 mg/m3
You Chose:
Determine the total area of the bracket shown in the illustration below.

A. 30,225 mm2
B. 10,275 mm2
C. 29,600 mm2
D. 20,125 mm2
You Chose:
Step 1: Redraw the shape separating the individual circles, triangles and rectangles
Step 2: Determine areas of the individual rectangles and circles. First the larger half circle
Next the smaller half circle
Subtract the area of the smaller half circle from the area of the larger half circle.
We have now determined the area of the top part of the bracket
Now we must determine the area of the rectangle.
Subtract the area of the small half circle (which we determined in the last calculation).

We have now determined the area of the middle part of the bracket.
At 10 degrees Celsius and 58.8 psi a sample of gas occupies 1000 liters. If the gas is reduced in volume to 300 liters and the temperature
remains constant, what is the new pressure?
A. 10 atm
B. 13 atm
C. 14 atm
D. 23 atm
You Chose:
Boyle's law states that at constant temperature, pressure and volume are inversely related, i.e.; as the pressure increases the volume
decreases, etc.
A construction worker is laying stone on an exterior veneer wall. According to the information in the exhibit, what is the WBGT in degrees F?
Assume outdoor location with solar heat load.
A. 88 ° F
B. 94 ° F
C. 102 ° F
D. 92 ° F
You Chose:

pressure level of each individual machine.
A. 70.7 dB
B. 69.6 dB
C. 70.5 dB
D. 70.0 dB
You Chose:
Note: The formula given in the formula sheet for addition of sound levels is shown here.
It is often simplified to the field formula, which will be easier for us to use in solving this problem.
Apply simplified formula and solve.
What is the maximum travel distance allowed for a fire extinguisher protecting a Light Hazard occupancy?
A. 75 feet
B. 25 feet
C. 35 feet
D. 50 feet
You Chose:
The maximum travel distance to a fire extinguisher regardless of the rating for Class A hazards is 75 feet.
In some industrial occupancies, fire doors are provided to allow compartmentalization of the facility and prevent the spread of fire and smoke. If
these doors are equipped with self-closing devices they must be inspected regularly to assure operation. All of the following are valid inspection
items except:
A. Check lubrication on guides and bearings

B. Check to insure fusible links are painted to prevent rust
C. Check binders are not bent, thus obstructing the door
D. Check to insure chains or wire ropes have not stretched
You Chose:
Fusible lead links should not be painted because the paint affects the temperature at which the links will melt.
Which of the following correctly indicates the main cause of fire sprinkler system failure?
A. Closed water supply shut-off valves

B. Improper maintenance of the sprinkler system
C. Sprinkler heads clogged with rust and residue
D. Lack of water pressure
You Chose:
Sprinkler systems are very reliable and function flawlessly about 95% of the time. When failures do occur, about 35% of the time the main
cause of failure is closed water-supply valves. The main cause of leaking sprinkler heads is overheating caused by placement of sprinkler heads
too close to heat generating processes or utilities.
Calculate the WBGT index from the following information. Indoor globe temperature of 92 degrees F, wet-bulb temperature of 87 degrees F.
A. 112.2 Deg F
B. 92 Deg F
C. 88.2 Deg F
D. 34 Deg C

You Chose:
Apply indoor formula and solve
A water well pump lifts water from a well 30 foot below grade to the inlet of a storage reservoir that is 15 foot above grade. The water pressure
at the pump is 102 psig. What is the pressure of the water entering the storage tank?
A. 82.5 psig
B. 27.8 psia
C. 45 psig
D. 4.8 psia
You Chose:
Step 1: Calculate loss in psig by multiplying rise by 0.433
Step 2: Subtract from original pressure to determine residual pressure
Note: The Weight density of water is 62.4 lbs/ft3. To convert to psi per foot of rise, you must divide by 144 (square inches in a square foot); this
equals about 0.433 psi per foot of water.
If you measure 2000 cfm in a duct opening measuring 2 foot by 2 foot, what is the velocity of the air?
A. 500 fpm
B. 8000 fpm
C. 200 fpm
D. 1600 fpm
You Chose:
What is the RWL for the following conditions: Weight to be lifted = 15 pounds, Distance between body and handgrip on object to be lifted = 18
inches, Vertical position at the beginning of the lift = 18 inches, vertical position at the end of the lift = 36 inches, frequency of lift = 5 lifts every
10 minutes for 2 hours. Note: Hand coupling is fair and this job requires a twist of 45?.
A. 5.2 lbs
B. 16.8 lbs
C. 17.8 lbs
D. 18.6 lbs
You Chose:

How often is calibration of sound level meters required?
A. Monthly
B. Quarterly
C. Before each survey
D. before and after each survey
You Chose:
In accordance with most manufacturers' recommendations and in keeping with good practice, calibrations should be done at the start of
measurements and after completions to insure that all readings are accurate.
Which of the following solid airborne contaminants is likely to have the smallest average particle size?
A. Zinc fumes
B. Silica dust
C. Zinc Chromate mist
D. Asbestos fibers
You Chose:
Zinc fumes have the smallest size of the materials listed.
An instrument that can be used to read an electrical current in a circuit without tapping the circuit is?
A. A megger
B. Glavometer
C. Split core ammeter
D. Standard volt ohm meter
You Chose:
A split core ammeter has fingers that enclose the conductor under test without opening or tapping the circuit. This is much safer than other
methods.
The proper first aid treatment for exposure to liquid oxygen is:
A. Immerse affected body part in ice water

B. Immerse affected body part in warm water
C. Immerse affected body part in hot water
D. Apply dry heat until feeling returns
You Chose:
Immersion of the affected body part in warm water is the correct procedure. Dry heat should never be applied to cryogen burns.
The Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) must contain all of the following except:
A. Fire and explosion data

B. Health Hazard data
C. Protective equipment requirements
D. Manufacturer's part number
You Chose:
The MSDS is designed to provide in a concise manner the identification information of a potentially harmful substance together with its
hazardous ingredients, physical and chemical characteristics, fire and explosion hazard data, reactivity data, health hazard data, precaution for
safe handling/use and control measures. The specific part number of the manufacturer is not required.
Warning signs, hazardous material labels and other forms of warnings must be in:
A. English
B. English and Spanish
C. All the languages spoken in a workplace
D. The standard does not specify the language
You Chose:

OSHA 29 CFR 1910.1200 requires that all information be presented in English (other languages can be used in addition to English). DANGER is a
signal word intended for immediate hazards that will result in severe personal injury or death. WARNING is a signal word intended for
immediate hazards that could result in severe personal injury or death.CAUTION is a signal word intended for minor personal injury or property
damage.
A temporary increase in the threshold of hearing is called a:
A. Occupational Noise Correction Factor (ONCF)

B. Temporary Threshold Shift (TTS)
C. Permanent Threshold Shift (PTS)
D. Reduction Hearing Index (RHI)
You Chose:
A temporary depression of the hearing is called a Temporary Threshold Shift or TTS. When people are exposed to a high level of noise, they
almost always exhibit a transient attenuation in their ability to hear. This temporary threshold shift (TTS) usually vanishes a few hours after the
exposure. One theory has held that a permanent threshold shift (PTS) is simply the result of a large number of TTSs, each superimposed on the
last. According to that theory, avoidance of any demonstrable TTS should result in no PTS.
Selecting gloves for material handling can present many challenges such as, permeation, degradation and even allergies, which glove material is
best for handling containers contaminated with hydrochloric acid?
A. Polyvinyl alcohol or butyl rubber

B. Polyvinyl alcohol or neoprene
C. Butyl rubber or neoprene
D. Polyvinyl acetate or polyvinyl alcohol
You Chose:
Glove materials such as butyl rubber or neoprene are generally best for handling acids like hydrochloric acid. Latex allergies are common and
need to be considered when selecting gloves for your employees.
Which of the following comprises the three component parts of every noise problem?
A. Sound level, transmission path, attenuation source

B. Noise source, path and receiver
C. Noise source, road and reduction technique
D. Impact, intermittent and steady state
You Chose:
Every noise problem is comprised of three components:

Source of sound energy
Path of sound energy
Receiver of sound energy
Which of the following fails to describe a requirement of the owners of a hazardous waste site cleanup project, under the provisions of the OSHA
1910.120, site safety and health training program?
A. Training for all site workers and supervisors

B. Training for spill response
C. Training for specialists responding to the scene of a spill
D. Training on personal protective equipment
You Chose:
OSHA 1910.120 requires an extensive safety and health plan that includes a safety and health training plan. There are extensive requirements
outlined in the HAZWOPER standard on the various levels and complexity of training. Training for responding specialists, such as Hazmat teams,
is required but generally the responsibility for this training would fall upon their employer, rather than the owner of the clean-up contract.
When doing training for welders on the fire characteristics of liquid hazardous chemicals which of the following would not be discussed?
A. TLV
B. Autoignition temperature
C. Lower Explosive Limit
D. Upper Flammable Limit
You Chose:
The Threshold Limit Value (TLV) as defined by (ACGIH) refer to "airborne concentrations of substances and represent conditions under which it
is believed that nearly all workers may be repeatedly exposed day after day without adverse health effects". Certainly information about TLVs
should be included in welder training, however this question asked about the fire characteristics of hazardous chemicals. TLVs mainly concern
health effects and are not indicators of flammability. Selection "B" autoignition temperature is defined by the National Fire Protection
Association (NFPA) as "The lowest temperature at which a flammable gas or vapor-air-mixture will ignite from its own heat source or a

contacted heat source without the necessity of spark or flame". Selection "C" the Lower Explosive Limit is defined as "The minimum
concentration of combustible gas or vapor in air below which propagation of flame does not occur on contact with an ignition source
Arrange the following hazard control steps in the proper sequence: (1) guard the hazard (2) engineer the hazard out if possible (3) educate
personnel.
A. 2,1,3
B. 3,1,2
C. 1,2,3
D. 3,2,1
You Chose:
Engineering is always the first and most successful method of dealing with a problem. Second choice would be to guard the hazard, and last to
educate the human element. Some safety texts break down "guarding the hazard" into (1) incorporation of safety devices and (2) providing
warning devices. Guarding the hazard is also classified as administrative controls. "Educating personnel" may also be sub-divided into (1)
developing and implementing operating procedures and employee training programs and (2) using personal protective equipment. Lock-out
Tag-out is considered an administrative control. Another example of an administrative control is to require employees to rest for 10 minutes
after working for a set period of time in a high temperature environment. Remember that although engineering is the first choice to fix a
problem, you may have to use interim measures such a PPE until the engineering fix is completed.
A 50 Watt, 115 Volt Direct Current (DC) electric motor is operating. The current is about _____?
A. There is no current in DC circuits

B. 400 microamp
C. 450 milliamp
D. one half an amp
You Chose:
What is the speed of a projectile departing the rim of a 28 inch saw blade rotating at 1250 RPM? Assume projectile is traveling at blade tip
speed.
A. 2915 meters per minute

B. 6280 meters per minute
C. 9163 meters per minute
D. 2790 meters per minute
You Chose:
What is the predominant frequency to be expected from a fan which is direct driven at 4800 rpm, and delivers 2400 cfm @ 1/4 in. The fan has
60 backward curved blades.

B. 3600 Hz
C. 2400 Hz
D. 4800 Hz
You Chose:
The predominant frequency is calculated by determining the number of times per second the blades pass a fixed point. So, 4800 rpm = 80
revolutions per second or 80 rps \'b4 60 blades = 4800.
A ten foot scaffold plank is supported by braces located one foot from each end of the plank. A 2000 pound pallet is placed at midpoint on the
scaffold. What is the moment?
A. 20,000 ft-lbs
B. 16,000 ft-lbs
C. 8000 ft-lbs
D. 10,000 ft-lbs
You Chose:
Moment must be measured from one of the support braces to the center of the load. So, four feet times 2,000 lbs is equal to 8,000 ft-lbs.
A 900 foot building casts a shadow at an angle of 36 degrees with the ground. The length of the shadow is?
A. 1500 feet
B. 1239 feet
C. 653 feet
D. 669 feet
You Chose:
A car weighing 5,000 pounds slides while braking on a wet road with a coefficient of friction of 0.25 and takes 9 seconds to stop. Approximately
how fast was the car going?
A. 30 MPH
B. 60 MPH
C. 25 MPH
D. 50 MPH
You Chose:
Step 1: Determine the force generated by the car.
Step 2: Combine equations and solve for acceleration.

Step 3: Calculate initial velocity.
Step 4: Convert ft/sec to MPH using the 1.47 conversion factor.
How much oxygen does it take to burn 20 liters of ethane and how much carbon dioxide is produced?
A. 70 O2 and 40 CO2
B. 7 O2 and 400 CO2
C. 0.70 O2 and 4 CO2
D. 7 O2 and 4C O2
You Chose:
The balanced chemical equation given in the question shows that two molecules of ethane require seven molecules of oxygen for complete
combustion to give four molecules of carbon dioxide and six molecules of water. So the ratio of ethane to oxygen is 2:7, therefore 20 liters of
ethane would require 70 liters of oxygen. Likewise, 20 liters of ethane and 70 liters of water would produce 40 liters of carbon dioxide and 60
liters of water.
The determination of how much speech level interference is going to occur as a result of a new process could best be determined by?
A. Sound level meters

B. An impact noise analysis
C. An octave band analyzers
D. The use of noise dosimeters
You Chose:
Speech occurs in the 500-2000 Hz range. To identify the noise levels in this frequency range requires an octave band analyzer. Octave-band
analyzers are used to determine where the noise energy lies in the frequency spectrum.
How many moles of sulfur are there in 22 grams of the element? Note: The atomic weight of sulfur is 32.
A. 6.8 moles
B. 0.68 moles
C. 0 moles
D. 68 moles
You Chose:
The atomic weight of sulfur is 32, which means that one mole of sulfur weighs 32 grams. So 22 grams divided by 32 = 0.68 moles of sulfur.

Noise measurements produce readings of 84.1 dBC and 84.8 dBA. In which of the following frequency ranges would you most suspect high noise
levels?
A. 50 - 1000
B. 50 - 500
C. 500 - 900
D. 1000 – 3000
You Chose:
Most of the energy is present above 1,000 cps. If there was a substantially lower reading on the "A" scale compared to the "C" scale, an
assumption could be made that most of the noise frequency was below 1,000 cps (due to the severe weighting of the "A" scale). However, in
this case the readings are approximately the same, which indicates the noise must be in a range where the two scales are not weighted
significantly different.
What quantity of air, in CFM, is needed to obtain 100 fpm capture velocity 8 inches from a 6 inch by 6 inch duct?
A. 4,976 CFM
B. 2,456 CFM
C. 880 CFM
D. 470 CFM
You Chose:

The LEL of a substance used in one of your plants is 2.5% and is being maintained at that level with 5,000 ft3 of ventilation. You are trying to
determine if it is feasible or even possible to control this process within company standards. How much total dilution ventilation airflow is
required to reduce the level to 20% of the LEL? Assume a mixing factor of 5.
A. 230,200 cfm
B. 125,000 cfm
C. 12,500 ft3/min
D. 1,700 ft3/min
You Chose:
Step 1: Calculate 20% of the LEL
Step 2: Calculate 20% of the LEL
Step 3: Calculate airflow needed to maintain adjusted LEL
Step 4. Adjust for incomplete mixing
The ASME Code requires that the minimum pressure for a standard hydrostatic test be __________ percent of the maximum allowable working
pressure of the vessel?
A. 100 %
B. 110 %
C. 150 %
D. 1,000 %
You Chose:
The ASME Code calls for 150% of the maximum operating pressure.
The maximum angle for a ramp is __ degrees.
A. 15 degrees
B. 20 degrees
C. 30 degrees
D. No maximum angle
You Chose:
The suggested maximum angle for a ramp is 20 degrees.
The minimum amount of electric current passing through the body to produce a fatality is:
A. 7 amps
B. 2 amps
C. 500- 750 mA
D. 70- 100 mA
You Chose:
The range of 70-100 mA is widely accepted as enough current to produce a fatality.

When using AWG #14 jacketed wire for a branch circuit, the maximum allowable current is:
A. 40 amps
B. 30 amps
C. 20 amps
D. 15 amps
You Chose:
Number 14 gauge wire is the smallest presently allowed by the NEC for branch circuits rated at 20 amps.
Safety lanyards and lifelines are required to have a minimum breaking strength of ___________pounds?
A. 6,300
B. 5,000
C. 4,000
D. 6,000
You Chose:
OSHA 1910.66, App. C requires lifelines and lanyards to be capable of supporting a minimum dead weight of 5,000 pounds.
One of the serious hazards during crane operation is contact with overhead electrical power distribution lines. OSHA requires _______ foot
separation between any part of a crane and power lines rated at less than 50 kV.
A. 5
B. 10
C. 12
D. 15
You Chose:
OSHA 1926.550 requires a 10-foot separation between crane and all power lines rated at 50 kV or less. Above 50 kV the requirement is 10 foot
plus 0.4 in. for each 1 kV over 50, or twice the length of the line insulator (but never less than 10 feet).
A vessel exhibits a vacuum pressure of -7 psig at sea level and STP, what is the pressure expressed in psia?
A. 9.7 psia
B. 14.7 psia
C. 7.7 psia
D. 19.7 psia
You Chose:
Add 14.7 to psig to obtain psia
Three electrical appliances are connected to a 120 Volt AC electrical branch circuit. Appliance A is consuming 1000 watts and runs
intermittently, appliance B is consuming 500 watts and runs intermittently and appliance C is consuming 500 watts and runs continuously.
Which of the following protective devices is the most appropriate for this circuit?
A. 15 ampere breaker
B. 20 ampere breaker
C. 10 ampere fuse
D. 30 ampere slow-blow fuse
You Chose:
Computation of branch circuit loads is fairly complex. However, in the past, the questions on the exam have been straight forward and can
usually be solved by this simple rule. Continuous loads are multiplied by a factor of 1.25 and added to the total of the non-continuous loads to
determine total load. So in this case:

Information on branch circuit calculations is contained in National Electrical Code Article 220.
A large water storage tank is located on plant property. The tank is 9.76 meters in diameter and 6.7 meters high. How much will this tank hold
when filled to two-thirds capacity?
A. 19,700 barrels
B. 87,350 gallons
C. 132,350 gallons
D. 12,970 cubic feet
You Chose:
Step 1: Convert meters to ft
Step 2: Determining capacity in cubic feet.

Step 3: Convert to gallons
Step 4: Adjust for the tank only being 2/3 full.
According to the Fire Protection Handbook, although increasing storage height increases fire intensity, storage heights up to ____ in piled
storage and up to ____ in rack storage need not be adjusted.
A. 10, 12
B. 12, 14
C. 12, 15
D. 15, 20
You Chose:
According to the Fire Protection Handbook, 12 feet for piled and 15 feet for rack storage does not need to be adjusted.
During a field inspection you observe an operation involving a mechanical power press that requires guarding in accordance with the provisions
of OSHA 1910.217. The press is equipped with an electrical main power disconnect switch that has provisions for locking-out in the OFF

position. However, the point of operation enclosure does not meet the OSHA standard. The plant has instead chosen to use an allowed "point of
operation device" that requires the operator to use both hands to operate the controls. Using this method requires that the controls be placed at
a safe distance from the point of operation so that the slide completes the downward travel or stops before the operator can reach into the point
of operation with his or her hands. What is the safe distance if the total press cycle is 1 second in duration?
A. 3.25 feet
B. 5.25 feet
C. 7.25 feet
D. 9.25 feet
You Chose:
OSHA 1910.217 "Mechanical Power Press", requires 63 inches (5.25 feet) per second of stopping time from "point of operation devices" to
ensure the safety of the operator.
The NIOSH technical report "Work Practices Guide for Manual Lifting - 1981" has been a very useful information source when attempting to find
solutions to lifting problems. The report was intended to assist in identifying those jobs that create hazardous situations for which injuries may
result. A new NIOSH lifting formula was developed in 1991 by NIOSH, that provides an even more useful risk assessment tool. It has been
designed to meet selected lifting related criteria and encompasses biomechanical, work physiology and psychophysical elements in a practical
application framework that, if followed, will result in a reduced number of work place mishaps. Based on the 1991 NIOSH lifting formula, what is
the Recommended Weight Limit (RWL) for the following conditions: Weight to be lifted = 15 lbs, Distance between body and hand grip on the
object to be lifted = 24 inches, Vertical position at the beginning of the lift = 20 inches, Vertical position at end of lift = 30 inches. The coupling
multiplier (CM) is assumed to be 1, this lift does not require any twisting from the "eyes front" position and the assigned FM will be 0.88.
A. 17.8 lbs
B. 13.7 lbs
C. 21.15 lbs
D. 15.2 lbs
You Chose:
A review of the NIOSH lifting equation is in order prior to attempting the Safety Fundamental examination. The National Safety Council,
Fundamentals of Industrial Hygiene, Fifth Edition provides an adequate reference.
In general, personal protective equipment tends to increase worker efficiency and decrease personnel injury.
A. True for all industries

B. False
C. Only true for construction
D. Only false for fall protection because it hinders movement
You Chose:
Personal protective equipment does decrease injuries however, efficiency is almost always affected. The employer is responsible and
accountable for ensuring that the employee wears the proper PPE while on the job.
Exposure to ionizing radiation in the United Stated is controlled by the Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC), which limits occupational
exposure to____________________ per year?
A. 0.05 rem
B. 0.5 rem
C. 5 rem
D. 4000 millirem
You Chose:
The limit, for ionizing radiation in the United States, is established by the Nuclear Regulatory Commission as 5 rem per year.
Traditional open frame safety glasses would be least effective in protecting an employee's eyes in which of the following situations?
A. Chipping rock
B. Pouring molten metals
C. Working in a high concentration of acid
D. Sharpening tools at a stand grinder
You Chose:

Open frame safety glasses would offer little protection against the toxic effects of a high concentration of acid.
Which floor surface would provide the most resistance to a slip or fall accident?
A. Steel diamond plate

B. Terrazzo tile
C. Polished wood
D. Creosote wood
You Chose:
Creosote wood offers the highest coefficient of friction and thus provides the most resistance to slips.
Which of the following would be the most effective control measure in combating dermatitis in an industrial environment?
A. Protective creams
B. Substitution of solvents
C. A published "Safety Plan"
D. Improved procedures for use of solvents
You Chose:
Of the choices listed, we feel that substitution of solvents for less hazardous materials has the best chance of reducing dermatitis.
Aisles in warehouse operations that are utilized by both forktrucks and pedestrians must be how wide?
A. 4 feet wide
B. 3 feet wider than the widest forklift
C. 5 feet wider than the widest forklift
D. 1 foot wider than the widest forklift
You Chose:
Aisle ways must be three feet wider than the forklift.
When a two hand control is used to guard the point of operation on a part revolution clutch press, the controls (buttons) must be located a safe
distance from the point of operation hazard to prevent operator injury. The minimum safe distances are based on hand movement speed and
which of the following?
A. Stroke time and speed

B. Stopping time of the slide/ram mechanism
C. Stroke speed and stroke stopping time
D. Stroke and brake speed
You Chose:
When a two hand control is used to guard the point of operation on a part revolution clutch press, the controls (buttons) must be located a safe
distance from the point of operation hazard. This is to prevent the operator from placing his or her hand under the slide (ram) while it is in
motion. Therefore, the calculation of the safe distance takes into account the maximum possible hand movement speed and the stopping time of
the slide or ram measured from the time the operator's hand is removed from one of the two hand controls. The stopping time includes the
operating time of the control mechanism (switch), air exhaust from the clutch/brake (if necessary) and braking time of the ram.
The chance of a dust cloud igniting is governed by what?
A. Oxygen content and dust accumulation

B. Size of dust particles and impurities present
C. Strength of the source of ignition
D. All of the above
You Chose:
All of these factors govern the possibility of a dust explosion. Dust explosions usually occur as a series, the initial deflagration being rather
small in volume but intense enough to jar dust from beams, ledges, etc. This causes larger concentrations to form and a second more
destructive cycle will begin.
What factors influence the destructiveness of dust explosions?
A. Size of dust
B. Amount of dust
C. Pressure rise, pressure developed, duration etc.
D. Confinement and mixture
You Chose:

While the destructiveness of a dust explosion depends primarily on the rate of pressure rise, other factors are maximum pressure developed,
the duration of the excess pressure, the degree of confinement of the explosion volume and the oxygen concentration.
Th
e reaction of oxidizers and organic compounds in combination to form an explosion is known as?
A. Pyrophoric
B. Hypergolic
C. Isotropic
D. Toxicologic
You Chose:
Hypergolic refers to a fuel that will ignite with an oxidizer but does not require an outside ignition source. Hypergolic is the explosive reaction of
constituents usually associated with rocket propellants. A common hypergol, hydrazine, is used in combination with liquid oxidizers extensively
in the space program.
Flash point is defined as the ____________temperature that will produce a vapor concentration high enough to propagate a flame when a
source of ignition is present.
A. Lowest
B. Highest
C. Normal
D. Absolute
You Chose:
The flash point of a liquid corresponds roughly to the lowest temperature at which the vapor pressure of the liquid is just sufficient to produce a
flammable mixture at the lower limit of flammability. An excellent reference is the National Fire Protection Association Fire Protection
Handbook, Sixteenth or later Edition.
Which of the following is true concerning the training of personnel who erect and dismantle scaffolding?
A. Training must be done under the supervision of a certified training instructor

B. A competent person must perform the training
C. Training is not, and never was required
D. Training is a good idea and would ensure safety, but is not required by OSHA
You Chose:
OSHA requires a competent person to provide training on the nature of fall hazards, the correct procedures for erection, maintenance and
disassembly, the proper use, placement and care in handling, etc. Additionally, all erection and disassembly must be done under the supervision
of a competent person.
The Mine Safety and Health Administration (MSHA) requires certain training for each new underground miner. Which of the following best
describes that training?
A. Performance based training

B. Specification based training
C. 180 hours of on-the-job training
D. 10 hours of classroom education
You Chose:
Throughout the history of The Mine Safety and Health Administration (MSHA) the organization has stressed the importance of training for
miners. The training is expressly prescribed, "Every new underground miner shall receive no less than 40 hours of prescribed training". MSHA
then lists the prescribed training complete with format. This is in contrast to the performance based training required by recent legislation, eg:
the OSHA Hazard Communication Standard.
Which class of employees would you expect to have the greatest potential for accidents?
A. New employees
B. Experienced employees
C. Administrative employees
D. Disabled employees
You Chose:
According to the NSC, although statistical data differ, it is generally agreed that new employees are significantly more prone to work-related
accidents.
Who is responsible for completing the shipping documents when shipping hazardous materials?

A. Carrier
B. Customer
C. Shipper
D. Material Manufacturer
You Chose:
It is the shipper's responsibility to properly complete the appropriate shipping documents, including the classification of the material.
You are transiting the production and spot a safety hazard that presents imminent danger to the workers in the area. Your first action should be
to:
A. shut down the production line

B. fix the hazard
C. post a lock-out/tag-out sign until the hazard is corrected
D. notify the area supervisor to get the hazard corrected
You Chose:
The person to correct the hazard should be the individual with the most knowledge of the area, that is the area supervisor.
What type of accident precursor, are conditions, events or measures that precede an undesirable event, and that have some value in predicting
events, whether it is an accident, incident, near miss, or undesirable safety state?
A. Worker compensation losses

B. Leading indicators
C. Lost time rate
D. Lagging indicators
You Chose:
This defines leading indicators, they are associated with proactive activitites that identify hazards and assess, eliminate, minimize and control
risk. A leading indicator can help predict safety performance. Corrective actions resolved from incident reports is a predictive (leading) measure
of safety performance.
Which of the following is the most often recommended fundamental safety training for plant workers?
A. First Aid, Supervisors Safety, and Welding

B. Welding, Fork truck Training, and Back-Care
C. Fire Extinguisher Training, First Aid, and Contingency
D. Contingency, First Aid and Vehicle Operations
You Chose:
The three most often recommended fundamental training courses for general industrial workers are: First Aid, Fire Extinguisher, and
Contingency. Contingency meaning emergency procedures.
The integration of hazard analysis and risk assessment methods early in the design and redesign processes and taking the actions necessary so
that the risks of injury or damage are at an acceptable level is termed:
A. Severity
B. Prevention through design
C. Safety through design
D. Hierarchy of controls
You Chose:
Safety through design is defined as the integration of hazard analysis and risk assessment methods early in the design and redesign processes
and taking the actions necessary so that the risks of injury or damage are at an acceptable level. This concept encompasses facilities, hardware,
equipment, tools, materials, layout and configuration, energy controls, environmental concerns and products.
Severity. The extent of harm or damage that could result from. Prevention through design. Addressing occupational safety and health needs in
the design and redesign processes to prevent or minimize the work-related hazards and risks associated with the construction, manufacture,
use, maintenance, and disposal of facilities, materials, equipment and processes. Hierarchy of controls is a systematic way of thinking and
acting, considering steps in a ranked and sequential order, to choose the most effective means of eliminating or reducing hazards and the risks
that derive from them.
Which of the following emissions control devices are highly efficient filtration devices that minimally impede the flow of gases through the
device, and can easily remove fine particulate matter such as dust and smoke from the air stream?
A. Electrostatic precipitators
B. Wet Scrubbers
C. Bag houses
D. Stack scrubbers
You Chose:

An electrostatic precipitator (ESP), or electrostatic air cleaner is a particulate collection device that removes particles from a flowing gas (such
as air) using the force of an induced electrostatic charge. Electrostatic precipitators are highly efficient filtration devices that minimally impede
the flow of gases through the device, and can easily remove fine particulate matter such as dust and smoke from the air stream. In contrast to
wet scrubbers which apply energy directly to the flowing fluid medium, an ESP applies energy only to the particulate matter being collected and
therefore is very efficient in its consumption of energy (in the form of electricity)
The safest way to discharge a capacitor is through the use of:
A. A screw driver to short circuit the terminals

B. An approved leakage meter
C. A properly rated bleeder resistor or capacitor discharge tool
D. A properly rated test light or light bulb
You Chose:
Discharging a capacitor simply means giving the stored electrical currents a path out of the apparatus. To discharge a small capacitor, touching
the two lead terminals with the tip of screwdrivers with insulated handles should discharge, however, this is not recommended. Attach a
properly rated resistor or capacitor discharge tool onto the capacitor's terminals to safely dissipate the stored electrical currents. To verify the
capacitor is completely discharged, use a volt meter or test light.
What characterizes a Class II, Division 2 location according to the National Electrical Code?
A. A location where flammable or combustible vapors may be present in sufficient quantities to be hazardous
B. A location where combustible dust is normally present in sufficient quantities to be hazardous
C. A location where flammable or combustible vapors are not normally present, but might be due to abnormal or periodic operations
D. A location where combustible dust is not normally present but might be due to abnormal or periodic operations
You Chose:
Class II, Division 2 locations are those in which combustible dust is not normally present but might be due to abnormal or periodic operations.
During those times, sufficient dust may be present in the air to produce explosive or ignitable mixtures. A Class II, Division 2 location is an area
normally free of dust, but due to some incident, dust may be introduced. Mechanical breakdown of a valve or a break in a pipe are examples of
conditions that would require an area to be classified as Division 2.
What instrument would one use to understand the noise exposure experienced by all employees in a particular workplace with highly variable
noise levels?
A. Personal noise dosimeter

B. Pressure level meter
C. Sound Level Meter
D. Integrating meter
You Chose:
The simplest measuring device is the handheld sound level meter. If noise levels are fairly constant throughout the day. Sound level meters are
acceptable for assessing a workshop where employees spend most of their time in a fixed location next to a changing noise source(s). But for
workers who are mobile, a personal noise dosimeter. that can follow workers where they go is preferred. If the noise is too variable to follow
with a sound level meter, one could use an integrating meter. This meter can integrate, or average, the changing noise levels over a period of
time to produce a time average noise level. Time averaging is the way the instrument makes its eyeball average reading except that it does so
scientifically using a set of rules defined in the standards so that it is repeatable under many different circumstances.
Which of the following by product is important to monitor for air quality in a grain bin as part of a fire prevention program and grain fire
investigation?
A. Hydrogen Sulfide
B. Carbon Monoxide
C. Carbon Dioxide
D. Methane
You Chose:
A CO2 monitor would be important to monitor the air quality if the grain was enclosed in a grain bin. If the grain is "hot" or on fire from being
stored to wet then the heat source for the grain is from accelerated chemical respiration. The fungi on the corn are breaking down the glucose in
the corn and releasing water, CO2 and heat. The heat inside of the grain bin is confined and it continues to heat until it ultimately catches fire.
The fire is rather minor because there is limited O2 but once the corn is moved it starts the process all over again. In some instances, they
actually monitor CO2 production in a grain bin to determine the amount of fungal activity since all fungal activity produces CO2. If the CO2 level
reaches a high point then the corn should be moved or dryed to reduce the fungal activity
Lift trucks and manufacturing and information technology equipment are potential ignition sources that could cause a dust explosion or
deflagration. What should SH&E professionals consider when evaluating ignition sources?
A. Electrical machines
B. Dust producing processes
C. Class IV forklifts
D. Several ignition sources
You Chose:

Several ignition sources can cause a dust explosion or deflagration. Primary sources of ignition include electrical; sparking from tramp metals or
broken equipment pieces; heat from bearings, belts and misaligned buckets; improperly prepared maintenance and hot work operations;
forklifts and vehicles; and natural causes, such as lightning. One of the first considerations is to identify the electrical classification of the area
or room volume. NFPA70, the National Electrical Code (NEC), Chapter 5, Special Occupancies, addresses hazardous locations. It defines the
classification of several special occupancies, such as flammable liquids, gases and vapors; combustible dusts; and other materials. It is meant to
integrate with other NFPA standards that more fully address the particular occupancy. For electrical issues, the NEC defines what electrical
devices are permitted in a given area. The definitions located in section 500.2 are important to know when addressing special occupancies. This
What is the term for chemicals or substances that cause damage or death to a developing fetus but the damage cannot be passed on to further
generations, as it does not affect the genetic code?
A. Irritants
B. Sensitizers
C. Mutagens
D. Teratogens
You Chose:
Irritants are chemicals that will irritate various tissues causing redness, rashes, swelling, coughing, or even hemorrhaging. Chlorine and
ammonia are two examples of irritants. Another name for sensitizers is allergens. These chemicals cause an allergic type of reaction due to
sensitivity from prior exposure. An acute response may be swelling of the breathing tubes, which causes breathing difficulty. Sensitizers can
cause chronic lung disease. Some common examples are epoxies, aromatic amines, formaldehyde, nickel metal, and maleic anhydride.
Mutagens cause alterations in the genes of a person exposed. The result may be malfunction of a specific organ or tissue, depending upon the
type of cell the mutation took place in. Gene damage can be passed on to children if the mutation occurred in either the sperm or the egg of the
parents. Examples of mutagens are ethylene oxide, benzene, and hydrazine. Teratogens cause damage or death to a developing fetus. This
damage cannot be p
Using a combination combustible gas indicator (CGI and Oxygen monitor) calibrated for normal oxygen content at sea level, you observe the
following readings: Oxygen= 13.5%, the percent LEL = 9. Which of the following statements is true regarding the CGI readings?
A. Due to the oxygen deficient atmosphere, the actual concentration of flammable gas is higher than indicated by the meter.
B. The 9% LEL reading is low enough that there is no real concern.
C. The oxygen deficient atmosphere doesn’t matter and the % of LEL readings are accurate
D. None of the above.
You Chose:
Combustible gas indicators (CGI) measure the concentration of a flammable vapor or gas in air. A CGI read-out shows the concentration as a
percentage of the lower explosive limit (LEL) of the calibration gas. The LEL (or LFL - lower flammable limit) of a combustible gas or vapor is the
lowest concentration in air that will explode, ignite, or burn when there is an ignition source. The upper explosive limit (UEL) is the maximum
concentration. Above the UEL, there is insufficient oxygen to support combustion, so ignition is unlikely. Below the LEL, there is insufficient fuel
to support combustion. CGIs are intended for use only in normal oxygen atmospheres. Oxygen deficient atmospheres will produce lowered
readings. Also, the safe guards that prevent the combustion source from igniting a flammable atmosphere are NOT designed to operate in an
oxygen-enriched atmosphere.
Which of the following would be the hardest to remove during decontamination?
A. Chemical permeated into PPE material.

B. Dried solid materials caked onto PPE.
C. Liquid material spread into crevices and pleats of the PPE.
D. Sludges splattered onto the PPE.
You Chose:
Chemical permeated into PPE material is the most difficult to remove. Most PPE manufacturers recommend disposal of permeated PPE.
Question 198: ID# 000181 Category: SAFETY, HEALTH & ENVIRONMENTAL TRAINING & MANAGEMENT
During a Preliminary Hazard Analysis (PHA) of a new process, a potential toxic hazard release is identified. What is the best procedure to
determine how to protect against the hazard in case of a release or to see if the hazard is present in the work area?
A. Conduct a site analysis and take air samples

B. Determine the effects of local meteorological conditions
C. Review the design with the engineering department
D. Use a computerized Process Flow Sheet for initial evaluation of hazard releases
You Chose:
According to the NSC "Fundamentals of Industrial Hygiene", a simple Process Flow Sheet should be drawn to show how and where each toxic
material is introduced and how it can be introduced into the work area. This could include evaluating the meteorological conditions and
reviewing the process with your engineering staff. After the process is online, then you would need to sample the area to identify any actual
releases.
There are numerous things to consider when developing an emergency preparedness plan, which of the following would be considered the first
step?
A. identify and evaluate the potential disasters

B. assess and prioritize the potential harm to people, environment and property
C. probable warning times
D. how much company operations must be changed to meet the emergency
You Chose:

According to the NSC, all of the answers are things to be considered, however answer A is the first step in the process.
A company has adopted OHSAS 18001 to maintain continuous improvement in their safety and health management system. Based on the OHSAS
18001 guidelines that the management system should be suitable, adequate and effective, which of the following should indicate that a
management evaluation should be performed?
A. profits are down from the preceding year

B. the ES&H Director has been held by three individuals during the last 18 months
C. the companies environmental performance has been questioned by the local “green” group
D. the safety performance of the company is 40% lower than last year
You Chose:
The purpose of adopting OHSAS 18001 health and safety management system is to maintain continuous improvement. If the management
system finds a significant reduction in the company's safety performance, it should indicate that a comprehensive management review of the
items causing the reduction.
A system safety technique that selects an undesired event whose possibility or probability is to be determined and then reviews system
requirements, functions and designs to determine how the top or initial event could occur is called?
A. Fault Tree Analysis

B. Boolean algebra
C. Preliminary Hazard Analysis (PHA)
D. Failure Mode and Effect Analysis (FMEA)
You Chose:
This is a description of Fault Tree Analysis, which use deductive analysis involving reasoning from the general to the specific. Most other safety
analyses use inductive reasoning and go from a specific item to the general overall failure.
How long should a manufacturer keep records relating to product safety?
A. As long as possible
B. Life of the product guarantee
C. Well beyond life of the product
D. Thirty years
You Chose:
Due to product liability claims, a manufacturer should keep product safety records as long as possible. Some states may have limits on the time
period, but some states do not and that is where they tend to bring the lawsuits.
Which of the following is the most correct concerning the Failure Mode Effects and Criticality Analysis (FMECA)?
A. FMECA is a extension of the FMEA

B. FMECA is a tool of the nuclear industry
C. FMECA is a quality tool not a system safety tool
D. FMECA is reliability not hazard based
You Chose:
The Failure Mode and Effects Analysis (FMEA) is generally considered to be a reliability based analysis. The process provides an exhaustive
search for component failure that will affect the operations of the system. The search may uncover failures that will cause hazards or damage,
but its main objective is to determine the reliability of the system. The enlargement of the method to include the "Criticality" or critical ranking
of components results in the Failure Mode and Effects Criticality Analysis (FMECA). The FMECA searches for parts or components that will
contribute to the failure of a system and ranks them by their probability to cause a hazard or the ability to affect the safety of the system. The
nuclear industry discourages use of the term FMECA in favor of FMEA because of the nuclear specific use of the term "Criticality", which refers to
the amount of radioactive material necessary to sustain a chain reaction (Critical Mass).
The diagram shown below illustrates a parallel component arrangement where the failure of one, two, or three components would not result in
output failure (all four components must fail to produce output failure). Assuming the failure rate is the same for all components, which of the
following formulas would you use to compute the probability of failure for this system?

A. C2 - F4
B. C1 + C2 + C3 + C4
C. F(e-t/m)
D. F1 x F2 x F3 x F4
You Chose:
Since the components are in parallel, the configuration indicates an "AND" gate situation, that is C1 and C2 and C3 and C4 must fail before the
output fails. The symbol for an "AND" gate is "*" which indicates multiplication, this leads us to the correct answer. Multiply the failure rates of
each component. F1 x F2 x F3 x F4, or since the failure rates are all the same, F4.
Note: When dealing in probability of failure the general rules are: parallel construction indicates "AND" = multiply: series construction indicates
"OR" = addition
Which ISO standard covers environmental management?
A. 9000
B. 10000
C. 12000
D. 14000
You Chose:
The ISO 9000 ("quality management") and ISO 14000 ("environmental management") families are among ISO's most widely known standards
ever. ISO 9000 has become an international reference for quality requirements in business to business dealings, and ISO 14000 looks set to
achieve at least as much, if not more, in helping organizations to meet their environmental challenges. There are similarities between
environmental, health and safety programs and quality assurance programs. These are that they serve common underlying objectives, share
common success and failure measures and use common approaches to achieve objectives. The ISO 9000 family addresses "quality
management". This means what the organization does to fulfill: the customer's quality requirements, and ; applicable regulatory requirements,
while aiming to enhance customer satisfaction, and; achieve continual improvement of its performance in pursuit of these objectives.The ISO
14000 addresses "environmental management
Your company Chief Executive Officer and General Manager feels he has too many personnel reporting directly to him, including you (Safety
Director). He has asked your opinion about where in the organizational structure to best place the safety function. The company has three
senior executives: Personnel, Support and Operations. Where would you suggest placement of the safety function?
A. Personnel
B. Support
C. Operations
D. Remain staff of General Manager
You Chose:
This is a very difficult question! Like many management questions there could be several different answers. According to the NSC, in general the
safety professional advises and guides management, supervisors, foreman employees and such departments as purchasing, engineering and
personnel on all matters pertaining to safety. Formulating, administering, monitoring, evaluating and improving the incident prevention
program are additional responsibilities. The general feeling of safety and health professionals is the safety and health effort should report to a
function with power and the ability to control and correct problems, that is the General Manager. Root causes of mishaps can exist in any of the
elements in a company, as can the interrelated causes of accidents. We personally feel the best place for the safety expertise is in a staff
function reporting to the senior executive.
The Management Grid by Robert Blake and Jane Mouton, illustrates management styles by drawing a grid which has on the "Y" axis Concern for
People and the "X" axis Concern for Production. Thus, a 9,1 supervisor could be called a:
A. Country Club Manager

B. Dictator
C. Workaholic
D. Company Man
You Chose:
The 9,1 supervisor would be one who is interested more in production than in the interests of their employees and thus would be labeled a

Dictator or Authority-Obedience manager. A 9,9 would be considered a Team Manager and a 5,5 would be considered a Middle-of-Road Manager.
The "Fellow Servant Rule" involved which of the following principles:
A. Employer must establish a "two-man" rule

B. Employees were not responsible for each other
C. Rules were established for more than one worker
D. Employer was not responsible for injuries caused by another worker
You Chose:
The Fellow Servant Rule was a defense which, prior to the enactment of workers' compensation laws, could be used by an employer to protect
himself when sued by an employee for damages on account of injury caused by one or more fellow employees. Assumption of Risk (the worker
knew they were involved in a risky or hazardous occupation) and Contributory Negligence (the worker contributed to his injury) were two other
pre-workers' compensation defenses for the employers. The principle of foreseeability deals with liability for actions that result in injury or
damage when the hazards were foreseeable. Foreseeability is a fundamental legal principle used in product liability cases.
A manager who utilizes an external reward and punishment system to affect performance is a_________ manager.
A. Theory X
B. Theory Y
C. MBO
D. TQM
You Chose:
The Theory X manager (according to Douglas McGregor's Theory) holds that people must be motivated to work by external reward and
punishment because they are unmotivated toward work. A Theory Y manager assumes all workers are basically interested and motivated to
work and therefore have a reduced need for an external reward system. Management by objectives (MBO) is a process of joint objective setting
between a superior and subordinate. It is also known as management by results. The managers meet the following performance objectives:
Targets a key result to be accomplished; Identifies a date for achieving results; Offers a realistic (measurable) and attainable challenge; Is
specific and as quantitative as possible. A TQM manager manages with an organization-wide commitment to continuous work improvement,
product quality and totally meeting customer needs, by applying them to all aspects of the operation.
Which of the following factors is a hygiene factor as opposed to motivation factors according to the work of Frederick Herzberg?
A. Money
B. Recognition
C. Responsibility
D. Achievement
You Chose:
Frederick Herzberg in his book "Work and the Nature of Man" develops a motivation-hygiene theory. The theory attempts to explain how
persons are satisfied by certain intrinsic job factors while being motivated by other intrinsic factors that are quite peripheral to the job being
performed. As is shown in the chart money is a hygiene or satisfaction factor as opposed to a motivation factor.
Which of the following is not part of developing an effective safety culture?
A. Safety is a function of management

B. Front-line supervisors need to correct unsafe behaviors
C. Workers need to want to be safe and work as a team

D. The Union needs to make safety part of its role in protecting members
You Chose:
According to the National Safety Council, some of the elements of an effective culture are: 1) the CEO has to express support for safety and
show it by their actions and decisions. 2) the management team has to consistently support safe work conditions and obtain safer
materials/machines. 3) the front-line supervisors need to correct behaviors as well as obtain the right equipment. 4) the workers must want to
be safe and work as a team. 5) the union must make safety part of its role in protecting the members.
safety culture is defined as the common and generally accepted way people behave in the workplace. Which of the following does not affect how
individuals will behave pertaining workplace safety?
A. attitude towards safety

B. how they view the team effort
C. how they are recognized for their efforts
D. their moral standards
You Chose:
The safety culture is a group's attitude that everyone in the group will try to behave in a way that protects the safety of each other. Recognition
will reinforce their trust in the culture. An important factor in developing a safety program is to incorporate the concepts of job enrichment,
participation and employee-centered leadership. Management will most likely support a proactive safety effort when the prevention of losses
relates to the achievement of company objectives.
If someone is identified with a group or category and then oversimplified attributes associated with the group or category are linked to the
individual, this is called?
A. selective perception
B. stereotype
C. halo effect
D. projection
You Chose:
According to "Management" by John R. Schermerhorn, Jr., this is the definition of stereotype.
An audit of safety and health program management has revealed that the program has failed to accomplish the stated objective of accident
prevention. Accident rates are very poor, as is morale and discipline. Supervisors openly defy management authority and varying standards
exist through the company. Which of the following offers the best explanation for the failure of safety program management?
A. Failure of the safety director to establish an effective program

B. Failure of top management to support the accident prevention effort
C. Failure of management at all levels to manage, lead and direct the workforce
D. Failure of procedures to identify the correct and safe methods for job accomplishment
You Chose:
Safety and the responsibility for achieving it rests with management, primarily with the organization's chief executive officer, but in a shared
manner with all other managers. There has always been disagreement in management circles about just how to accomplish safety, but there has
always been agreement that management of safety, like all other functions has to start at the top, and be supported by subordinate executives
and managers. Supervisors, foremen and workers develop their attitude about the importance of safety & health from both formal and informal
clues. A divided position by management sends a clue that management is really not all that interested in safety and its just another one of
those things they have to say. Management of the safety and health effort is both an art and a science and the Director of Safety & Health is
merely the steward of the function. When safety is effective the entire management team deserves the credit, same if it fails
Acting as a Safety & Health consultant, you have been asked to select a system design from among three candidates. Failure of the system will
result in a loss, the severity of which will be the same no matter which system is selected. The elementary design for each system showing the
probability of failure is shown below using standard "fault tree" symbols. Which system has the lowest overall probability of failure?
A. System A has lower probability, and offers redundancy

B. System B has lower probability, but has two potential single point failures
C. System C is the simplest and has lowest probability
D. The probability is the same for all three systems.
You Chose:

System "A" is a parallel system, that is both the first AND the second components must fail to produce a system failure. To determine the
probability for a parallel system the individual probabilities are multiplied. (2 x 10^-3) X (5 x 10^-4) = 1 x 10^-6 System "B" is a series system,
that is, if either the first OR the second components fail a system failure will occur. For components in series the total failure rate is the sum of
the individual components' failure rates. (7 x 10^-7) + (3 x 10^-7) = 1 x 10^-6 System "C" has only one component, thus the probability of
system failure is the same as the single component probability of failure. 1 x 10^-6 Since the severity and probability for each system is the
same, the loss risk is the same. Given this situation the selection process would now consider overall system cost, deliverability, quality,
longevity, human factors, etc.
All of the following are potential disadvantages of matrix management except?
A. Power struggles
B. Increased costs
C. Groupitis
D. Meeting attendance
You Chose:
Matrix management has the potential to include power struggles, which may result from the two-boss system. Team members may become too
focused on themselves and develop groupitis, losing sight of important program goals. The matrix often creates increased cost as overhead
rises.
According to OHSAS 18001, a successful management system should be based on all the following except?
A. A generic occupational health and safety policy

B. Identification of occupational health and safety risks and legal requirements.
C. Objectives, targets, and programs that ensure continual improvements.
D. Management activities that control the occupational health and safety risks.
You Chose:
OHSAS 18001 is an Occupation Health and Safety Assessment Series for health and safety management systems. It is intended to help an
organization to control occupational health and safety risks. It was developed in response to widespread demand for a recognized standard
against which to be certified and assessed. OHSAS 18001 will measure your managements system with regards to several dimensions. The
extent of application will depend on such factors as the occupational health and safety policy of the organization, the nature of its activities, and
conditions under which it operates. A successful management system should be based on: An occupational health and safety policy appropriate
for the company.; Identification of occupational health and safety risks and legal requirements.; Objectives, targets, and programs that ensure
continual improvements.; Management activities that control the occupational health and safety risks.; Monitoring of the health and safety
system
According to many management systems, the basic approach includes four steps that are followed in sequence. The steps are?
A. Plan, organize, develop, evaluate

B. Plan, organize, implement, control
C. Analyze, design, develop, implement
D. Analyze, design, implement, evaluate
You Chose:
Many management experts will use such terms as "planning, organizing, leading and controlling the use of resources" or "planning, organizing,
activating and controlling".
Which of the following is generally considered to be a disadvantage of Safety Committees.
A. Serves as a channel to workers

B. Deals with trivial issues thus freeing others time
C. Fosters understanding and cooperation among workers
D. Allows multi-craft solution to problems
You Chose:
According to the NSC, a safety and health committee is a group that aids and advises both management and employees on matters of safety and
health pertaining to plant or company operations. In addition, it performs essential monitoring, educational, investigative and evaluation tasks.
The committee should evaluate its performance against its established goals. No other facet of safety program management is as controversial
as the "Safety Committee". Depending of the support afforded the committee it can become a do nothing, gossip club or it can be can be an
extremely valuable and effective medium for communication and problem solving. The committee is ideally suited for gaining widespread
support for special projects or for "getting the word out". A committee is not especially suited to providing quick decisions; however they do
provide an excellent coordination vehicle. One disadvantage is that these committees can become a "dumping ground" for trivial issues.
Which of the following is not a reason for performing pre-employment physicals?
A. To determine physical/emotional capacity

B. To determine general health
C. To establish a baseline record of physical condition
D. To exclude unsuitable employees
You Chose:

Pre-employment examination should not be undertaken with the intent to exclude any member of the work force; rather the primary purpose is
to aid in selection and appropriate placement of all workers. Preplacement examinations also provide baseline data for future evaluations.
Who provides the required placards when shipping hazardous material?
A. The driver
B. The carrier
C. The shipper
D. The manufacturer
You Chose:
According to DOT regulations in 49 CFR Part 397, the shipper must: 1) transport the products by truck, railroad, ship or airplane; 2) determine
the product's proper shipping name, hazard class, identification number, correct packaging, correct placard, and correct tables and markings; 3)
package the materials, label and mark the packages, prepare the shipping paper and supply the placards; and 4) certify on the shipping paper
that he properly complied with the rules for shipment.
Evaluating critical behaviors in the workplace can assist in changing safety related behaviors. The following are all basic steps in the process
except:
A. identify critical behaviors

B. establish a behavior based safety program
C. conduct measurement through observation
D. give performance feedback
You Chose:
According to the NSC, the three basic steps of the behavior based safety process are: Identify Critical Behaviors: This means to write, in
observable terms, what employees should do to properly perform their jobs. The safety and health professional can list a few critical behaviors
or a complete inventory, depending on the scope and results desired. Conduct Measurement through Observations: Trained observers watch the
workplace to determine if the listed behaviors are performed safely or unsafely. The total number of observed behaviors is divided into the
number of safe behaviors to obtain a percentage figure for safe behaviors. Give Performance Feedback: The percentage figure for safe behaviors
is shown on a graph displayed in the workplace. At regular intervals, behaviors are again observed and the new safe behavior figures are added
to the graph. Studies show this critical feedback will improve safety behaviors. Praise and recognition from managers or peer pressure
One of your drivers was involved in an accident that included a company vehicle that impacted a overpass support structure. The NTSB has
asked for all your company records that apply to the vehicle involved in the crash. What must you provide according to 49CFR?
A. Only the records you deem necessary

B. You are not required to furnish anything
C. All information requested by the NTSB
D. Only the records your insurance company deems necessary
You Chose:
According to 49CFR831, "The Safety Board may issue a subpoena, enforceable in Federal district court, to obtain testimony or other evidence.
Authorized representatives of the Board may question any person having knowledge relevant to an accident/incident, study, or special
investigation. Authorized representatives of the Board also have exclusive authority, on behalf of the Board, to decide the way in which any
testing will be conducted, including decisions on the person that will conduct the test, the type of test that will be conducted, and any individual
who will witness the test."
Which of the following would best relate to the term "privity"?
A. Group Negligence
B. Term Insurance
C. A direct relationship
D. Failure to exercise care
You Chose:
In product safety work Privity is defined as "A direct relationship between the injured party and the party whose negligence caused an
accident". Early English law held that there could be no negligence without privity. However, this rule was broken in the U.S. in the early 1900s
when Judge Benjamin Cardozo ruled that an automobile manufacturer was liable for a injury accident involving a failed wheel. The automobile
manufacture based its defense on the privity rule. The company had sold the car to a dealer, had no contract with the injured party, and was
therefore not liable to the plaintiff. The dealer was not liable since he had not built the car. The ruling however indicated that the car
manufacturer had a duty to inspect the product sold for defects, anything less was negligence.
With the growing concern over litigation involving improper use of products, warning labels are becoming an integral part of the manufacturing
process. The labels are intended to warn users about the potential hazards of the product and may warn against improper use. Which of the
following fundamental legal principles is involved in not labeling a large blade, hunting knife?
A. Res ipsa loquitur

B. Obvious peril
C. Foreseeability
D. Tort
You Chose:

A manufacturer or distributor would not have to label a large blade hunting knife because the product involves an obvious peril, sometimes
called an obvious hazard that is well known to the public. The term Res ipsa loquitur (the thing speaks for itself) is involved in accidents where
the damage producing agent was under the sole control of the defendant and the accident would not have happened if the defendant would
have exercised proper control. Foreseeability involves the liability for actions that a normal person would have known to exist and would have
taken precautions to prevent.Tort is a wrongful act or a failure to exercise due care that results in damage or injury in the broadest sense. Strict
liability is the concept that a manufacturer of a product is liable for injury due to a defect, without necessity for a plaintiff to show fault or
negligence.
The term express warranty implies or states that a product will do all of the following except:
A. Remain safe for the life of the product

B. Will perform in a specific manner
C. Contains specific safety provisions
D. Is suitable for a specific use
You Chose:
An express warranty is a written or oral statement by a manufacturer or dealer that a product will perform in a specific manner; a specific way;
is suitable for a specific purpose; or contains specific safeguards.
What are the three basic legal principles that can be used by plaintiffs in product liability cases?
A. Negligence, strict liability, Res Ipsa Ioquitar

B. Strict liability, express warranty, implied warranty
C. Negligence, strict liability, breach of warranty
D. Negligence, strict liability, tort
You Chose:
The three basic legal principles that can be used in most states are: Negligence, which tests the conduct of the defendant; Strict liability and
implied warranty, which test the quality of the product; Express warranty and misrepresentation, which test the performance of the product
against the manufacturer/seller's representations. Where legal liability is established, typical product liability insurance covers damage awards.
What are the DOT requirements for drug testing of a company's over the road transport drivers?
A. 10% annually
B. 25% annually
C. 50% annually
D. 100% annually
You Chose:
DOT regulations (Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration (FMCSA)) contained in 49 CFR Part 382.305 require annual random testing of at
least 50% of the company's entire fleet for random controlled substances. Additionally, drivers should be randomly tested prior to the start of
safety sensitive tasks. The minimum annual percentage rate for random alcohol testing is 10%. Other organizations, such as FTA, PHMSA and
FAA only require 25% of the subject population to be tested for random controlled substances.
The most effective way to fix accountability for environmental, safety and health losses is to?
A. Charge associated cost to work center

B. Compare incident rates with like companies
C. Have each supervisor make weekly presentations on their status
D. Compare each work center and make an example out of the bottom 10%
You Chose:
According to Dr. Roger Brauer in Safety and Health for Engineers, "Making safety part of a supervisor's appraisal is one means of achieving in an
organization. Companies that use cost accounting to encourage safety have the lower accident rates."
Integrated performance assurance programs, safety and health programs and quality assurance programs embody management system
standards which have all of the following characteristics except.
A. require common non tangible asset control

B. serve common underlying objectives
C. share common success and failure measures
D. use common approach to achieve objectives
You Chose:
Although industry generally separates, the compliance, SH&E and quality programs, these functions have many similarities, including: they
serve common underlying objectives such as performance assurance or risk management; they use a common approach to achieve objectives
such as activity-specific evaluation or planning and oversight; the share common success and failure measures such as cost, schedule, violations
or liabilities. The first step in establishing a good corporate quality plan is to determine customer requirements.

A. Always out source as many responsibilities as possible

B. Be recognized as the bosses right hand man
C. Have the ability for continuous and flexible learning
D. Always sticks strictly within company policy guidelines
You Chose:
Managers that deliver under the high performance expectations of the current dynamic times must be well educated and continue that
education during their career. They must be unrelenting in their efforts to develop, refine and maintain their skills and competencies, which may
not agree with their previous training.
Your CIH has found that part of your workforce is being exposed to Chromium (VI) and you have begun testing these employees at the end of
the work shift on Fridays. Where should you file the test results?
A. on your computer
B. in your file cabinet
C. in the employees personnel file
D. in the employees medical record
You Chose:
According to 1910, employee exposure records are part of medical records. 1910.1020(c)(5): "Employee exposure record" means a record
containing any of the following kinds of information: 1910.1020(c)(5)(i): Environmental (workplace) monitoring or measuring of a toxic
substance or harmful physical agent, including personal, area, grab, wipe, or other form of sampling, as well as related collection and analytical
methodologies, calculations, and other background data relevant to interpretation of the results obtained; 1910.1020(c)(5)(ii): Biological
monitoring results which directly assess the absorption of a toxic substance or harmful physical agent by body systems (e.g., the level of a
chemical in the blood, urine, breath, hair, fingernails, etc.) but not including results which assess the biological effect of a substance or agent or
which assess an employee's use of alcohol or drugs;
Which of the following is the common language of client/server database management?
A. SQL
B. URL
C. HTML
D. HTTP
You Chose:
SQL is the abbreviation for Structured Query Language. It is a standardized application language for relational databases that is used to enter
data into a database, modify data, delete date and retrieve data. URL is the abbreviation of Uniform Resource Locator, the global address of
documents and other resources on the World Wide Web .HTML stands for Hyper Text Markup Language and is used for web publishing. HTTP
stands for Hyper Text Transfer Protocol and is a file transfer protocol.
Which of the following Internet connections will provide you with the greatest bandwidth?
A. ISP
B. T-1
C. DSL
D. Telephone Service
You Chose:
ISP is the abbreviation for Internet Service Provider and refers to organizations that offer Internet access and data storage services. T-1 is a
dedicated phone connection supporting data rates of 1.544Mbits per second. A T-1 line actually consists of 24 individual channels, each of which
supports 64Kbits per second. DSL refers collectively to all types of digital subscriber lines, the two main categories being ADSL and SDSL. Two
other types of DSL technologies are High-data-rate DSL (HDSL) and Symmetric DSL (SDSL).DSL technologies use sophisticated modulation
schemes to pack data onto copper wires. They are sometimes referred to as last-mile technologies because they are used only for connections
from a telephone switching station to a home or office, not between switching stations. POTS is short for plain old telephone service, which
refers to the standard telephone service that most homes use. In contrast, telephone services based on high-speed, digital
If you are going to select a software program to track and monitor your accidents and rates, the best option would be:
A. Data base
B. Spread sheet
C. Word processing
D. Financial management
You Chose:
A spreadsheet is a computer program that enables you to develop and perform all sorts of calculations between the text and values stored in the
document. Most spreadsheets include charting and limited database capabilities. In the development of an accident data collection system, the
most important first step is to define the subsequent use of the data.
Which of the following "Laws of Learning" is characterized by the ability of student's to remember the task they learned last?

B. Law of Recency
C. Law of Effect
D. Law of Readiness
You Chose:
The "Laws of Learning" are as follows: Law of Recency: People tend to recall and use that which they learned last or most recently. It is easier
to remember a subject after a recent seminar, or how to solve a complex technical problem on the job, than to recall a simple trigonometry
problem from high school. Law of Frequency: The more often a mental connection is made, the stronger it becomes. Repetition is helpful in skill
and attitude development and habit formation. Law of Effect: People like to do things, which bring pleasure and enjoyment. They learn easily
and quickly those things that are pleasant experiences and they remember these things longer. Law of Readiness: People must be in a receptive
frame of mind if the learning is to be effective... that is, ready to see the value of learning a particular thing as a benefit to them. We all learn
more easily if we see the value and desire to learn. Law of Disuse: When knowledge or a skill is not used it becomes fuzzy
Which of the following is not a communication barrier?
A. Bias
B. Mood
C. Negative reinforcement
D. Non verbal actions that conflict with the training subject
You Chose:
Communication barriers consist of: Knowledge - the trainee already thinks that he knows all that is needed; Bias - people's attitude may cause
them to tune out the information; Mood - does something keep the individual from hearing the information; Nonverbal actions - do you say one
thing while doing something counter
During the planning stage of a Occupational Health & Safety Training Program which of the following is the most important consideration?
A. Training Objectives
B. Training Methods
C. Instructor Qualifications
D. Training Program Content
You Chose:
The establishment of Training Objectives is the key to good planning. No other single element has the ability to allow the training program to
succeed. The primary purpose of the training objective is to describe the intended outcome of the instruction.
When performing instructor duties for a Health and Safety Training session, it is most important to?
A. Dress for the occasion

B. Know what you are talking about
C. Use plenty of visual aids
D. Use a well prepared lesson plan
You Chose:
The use of a lesson plan will provide standardization to a presentation and avoid omission of essential material. The lesson plan also helps the
instructor conduct the class according to a timetable and should provide for student participation or involvement.
Successful adult training can be measured by all of the following except?
A. Demonstrate the application

B. Show a tape of a previous experience
C. Let the trainee practice the new skill
D. Discuss how the new skills can be applied
You Chose:
Adults want satisfactory answers to the following questions to accept and apply learning. Why is it important? How can I apply it? How does it
work? What do I need to know?
Which of the following training methods is primarily used to find new, innovative approaches to issues?
A. Meeting
B. Brainstorming
C. Case Study
D. Role Playing
You Chose:
Brainstorming is a technique of group interactions that encourages each participant to present ideas on a specific issue. The method is normally
used to find new, innovative approaches to issues. There are four ground rules: Ideas presented are not criticized.; Freewheeling creative
thinking and building on ideas are positively reinforced.; As many ideas as possible should be presented quickly.; Combining several ideas or
improving suggestions is encouraged.

Which of the following would most likely not be included in a lesson plan developed for a Health and Safety Training Session?
A. Introduction
B. Objectives
C. Training Aids
D. Student Survey
You Chose:
There are many formats for lesson plans. However, the most widely used format includes the following areas:
Title: Indicates subject matter being taught. Should be clear and concise.
Objectives: Should indicate the purpose of the session or goals. Specifically, it should indicate what the students are expected to know or be
able to do at the end of the session or lesson.
Aids: A list of all training aids such as videos, equipment, charts, etc. to be used to develop important points in the lesson.
Introduction: Every lesson should be introduced to the class in a manner that will develop the interest of the group. It should give the students
the scope and importance of the subject.
Presentation: This is the plan of action. It is the guide for putting across the ideas, information or skills the student should learn. It should
indicate the method of presentation ie; lecture, demonstration, guided discussion, etc.
Application: Relevance
All of the following are considered to be benefits of safety training. Which is considered to be the primary benefit?
A. reduced costs
B. improved performance
C. fewer incidents/accidents
D. reinforcement of the operational goals of the organization
You Chose:
According to the NSC, the goal of effective training is learning that leads to improved on-the-job performance.
The primary purpose for using On-the-Job training is:
A. it is cost effective
B. more than one person can be trained at a time
C. requires the minimum amount of time for total training
D. allows the worker to produce during the training period
You Chose:
According to the NSC, OJT is widely used because it allows the worker to produce during the training period.
The most effective way to present Safety, Environmental and Health performance to upper management is to present it in the terms of?
A. Lost Workday Incident Rate

B. Total fatalities
C. Total lost time
D. Cost relationships
You Chose:
Most experts agree that by depicting the cost on the bottom line will have the greatest impact on upper level management. You may do this by
comparing losses to budgets or future estimated cost impacts and how they will impact unit costs.
During Health and Safety communications with workers, the main objective is to?
A. Teach workers to understand what is being said

B. Provide a vehicle for suggestions
C. Teach workers to write and read well
D. Provide a safety message that will be understood and accepted by the workers
You Chose:
The bottom line in any training or education effort is to provide a message that will be understood and acted on by the workers.
The part of psychology that deals with getting someone to perform desired behaviors or actions is called?
A. Attitude
B. Judgment
C. Motivation
D. Discipline
You Chose:

According to Dr. Roger Brauer in "Safety and Health for Engineers", this is the definition of motivation. This includes such areas as overcoming
personal deficiencies, increasing safety awareness, etc..
Safety and health training can involve many different delivery systems and training techniques. Often group methods are used to increase the
effectiveness of training and the active participation by students. Which of the following would be the best use of the role playing technique?
A. In human relations training

B. For job instruction training in a one-on-one situation
C. To illustrate the complexities of a step-by-step detailed industrial task
D. For in-depth technical subjects
You Chose:
Role playing is ideally suited for human relations education or training. It allows the students to become participants in a "drama" or "play" that
depicts the interaction of humans during stressful or error provocative situations. The technique is not suited for problem solving or technical
training.
Which of the following is not considered to be an effective training method?
A. Demonstration
B. Technical speech
C. Guided discussion
D. Individualized instruction
You Chose:
The strategies listed below are the standard type of instructional strategies: Lecture; Demonstration; Guided Discussion; Individualized
Instruction; Role Play; Learner Discovery Method
The simplest and most effective way to display data to get an instant picture is the use of the?
A. Line chart
B. Bar chart
C. Pie chart
D. Area chart
You Chose:
The recommended use of the bar chart is to illustrate comparisons of volume over time.
Communication is defined as?
A. Sharing information and/or ideas with others and being understood

B. Sharing information and/or ideas with others and gaining approval
C. Sharing opinions and/or ideas with others and being understood
D. Sharing opinions and/or ideas with others and gaining approval
You Chose:
According to the NSC, communications is defined as "sharing information and/or ideas with others and being understood".
Which of the following is a primary desirable attribute of a safety training instructor?
A. Always uses an overhead projector

B. Covers the course content and adds many war stories
C. Enhances the presentation with many scientific and technical terms
D. Covers the quantity of material as outlined by the course objectives
You Chose:
The instructor should follow the lesson plan and ensure that the trainees meet the objective of the course. The training must meet the trainees
expectation, without an overkill.
If you desire to work with people effectively, the most important characteristic of people you must understand is that:
A. the behavior of one person is not the same as another person

B. the physical characteristics of one person is not the same as another person
C. everyone is average
D. all behaviors fit a standard pattern
You Chose:

known fact that people differ has been referred to as the "personal equation" or as "individual differences". The behavior of one person will
always vary somewhat from the next person.
One technique often used in safety and health training in the industrial environment is the conference method. Which of the following is the
most correct concerning this important training tool?
A. Individual knowledge is not particularly important during a conference session

B. The conference technique is not particularly suited to problem solving
C. The success of the conference technique depends on the ability of the main presenter
D. The success of the conference depends almost entirely on the ability of the facilitator
You Chose:
One of the most valuable group techniques is the conference method. The strength of the conference method is in the individual knowledge and
experience of the participants. The number of members should be kept small to allow maximum exchange of ideas. The establishment of goals
and objectives is crucial to the success of this method. But more than anything else, this teaching method hinges on the capability of the
facilitator or instructor. The facilitator logs the objectives and keeps the information and opinions flowing during sessions. After the conference,
the facilitator distributes recommendations and informs members of actions taken as a result. Shortfalls associated with this method is the
facilitator ensuring that the conference does not become a bull session and if management does not follow up on the recommendations, then the
group will not support future efforts.
During a training session, often you will attempt to change the way your audience views their procedures or actions. A primary way to help
facilitate change is to:
A. allow everyone to express their point of view

B. follow the lesson plan without interruptions
C. allow limited questions at the end of the presentation
D. point out how the change will affect the workplace
You Chose:
During any training situation where you are attempting to change habits or procedures, the trainee will have questions as to why it is necessary
and why is your recommended way the best way. When you allow the trainee to share ideas, evaluate the material and become involved, it will
increase their acceptance of the material.
One training technique especially useful when dealing with craft employees during safety and health training is the case study. Which of the
following is the most correct concerning a case study?
A. Case studies must always involve fictitious situations or accidents so that no one group or person will have hurt feelings
B. Case studies should be written and passed out as handouts to be most effective
C. Case studies are good problem solving tools
D. Case studies involving real situations should only be used if they can be presented by the actual participants/victims
You Chose:
The case study is an especially effective technique for safety and health training, since it often illustrates the multi-causal aspects of accidents
as well as the tragic consequences. The case study is an excellent problem solving technique. Normally case studies are presented to a group
that has the goal of evaluating the mistakes made in the situation and providing real world solutions. The technique is particularly effective
when the group is allowed to come to the conclusion that they can benefit from the mistakes of other construction contractors and thus prevent
accidents. Real mishaps are effective case studies and should be used as often as possible to add credibility to the technique, but one must be
aware of the sensitivities involved in tragic accidents.
According to most adult training experts, adults have four basic training needs. Which of the following is not included in those needs?
A. Need to be in control of their learning

B. Need to know why they are learning a topic
C. Need to change the material to fit their understanding of the requirement
D. Want to learn things that will make them more effective and successful
You Chose:
According Clay Carr in Smart Training, The Manager's Guide to Training for Improved Performance, adults have four basic training needs. Adults
need to know why they are learning a particular topic or skill, because the need to apply learning to immediate, real-life challenges. Adults have
experience that they apply to all new learning. Adults need to be in control of their learning. Adults want to learn things that will make them
more effective and successful.
What defines successful communications?
A. sender and message

B. sender and receiver
C. message and receiver
D. sender, message and receiver
You Chose:
Communications consists of three basic elements: the sender, the message and the receiver. When you are communicating, whether orally or in
writing, always provide for feedback. This is the only way to ensure that the message got through.

A primary method of an organization behavior model approach to employee motivation or change, does not include which of the following?
A. specifying objectives and goals

B. having the ES&H department write procedures
C. giving reinforcement and feedback
D. gaining commitment from employees and management
You Chose:
The Organization Behavior Model (OBM) approach to employee motivation or change includes specifying objectives and goals, giving
reinforcement and feedback and gaining commitment from employees and management. Goals are frequently incorrectly developed, which
makes them likely to fail. They must be attainable and the employees must believe in them as being relevant and worthwhile.
During behavior-based safety, coaching is a recommended technique used for training purposes. Which of the following defines the attributes of
coaching?
A. Achievement-orientated, reactive, fault-finding process

B. Achievement-orientated, proactive, fact-finding process
C. Achievement-orientated, reactive, fact-finding process
D. Achievement-orientated, proactive, fault-finding process
You Chose:
A behavior based approach treats safety as an achievement oriented process and not outcome based. It also uses fact-finding versus fault-
finding and is proactive and not reactive.
When developing an emergency plan, the first step should be to ?
A. Identify and evaluate the potential disasters

B. Assess the potential harm that may be caused
C. Evaluate how many company assets are required
D. Decide on the chain of command
You Chose:
Although all the answers need to be addressed during the planning process, according to the NSC, "before an organization initiates an
emergency plan, it should identify and evaluate the potential disasters that might occur".
Which of the following is the definition of the management term "span of control"?
A. The breadth of a manager’s expertise

B. The number of subordinates a manager can supervise
C. The number of projects a manager can supervise
D. The number of organizations a manager can supervise
You Chose:
The well-known principle of "span of control" is defined as that a manager cannot effectively supervise more than half a dozen subordinate
managers.
Cohesiveness is defined as a member's desire to remain in a group. Which of the following is not an advantage to building and maintaining
group cohesiveness?
A. The group develops a “we” concept

B. Each feels that they are part of the group
C. Acts as a bonding agent
D. Starts with and maintains a standardized structure
You Chose:
Cohesiveness is defined as a member's desire to remain in a group. The advantages to building and maintaining group cohesiveness are; the
group develops a "we" concept, each feels that they are part of the group and cohesiveness acts as a bonding agent. It does not start with or
maintain a standardized structure. In team training, consensus is reached when everyone agrees to support the conclusion.
Communications has many forms, which is the most effective in the workplace?
A. face to face group lecture

B. face to face group two-way communications
C. face to face individual two-way communications
D. written individual two-way communications
You Chose:

In the basic study of behavioral science the theory of human needs by Abraham Maslow is often cited. In Maslow's theory a need is a deficiency
a person feels the compulsion to satisfy. Central to this theory is the progressive principle, that is, the needs are arranged in a hierarchy, only
after a lower level need is satisfied can the next highest level become active. Which of the following needs are at the lowest level in Maslow's
hierarchy?
A. Individual needs
B. Group needs
C. Rational needs
D. Developmental needs
You Chose:
At the bottom of Maslow's "Hierarchy of human needs" are the physiological or survival needs of food, water and physical well-being. According
to the progression principle, as soon as these survival needs are met, one attempts to satisfy the next level of needs; those of, security,
protection and stability in day-to-day life activities. If these are met, one moves on to social needs, etc. The first three needs in the model are
called lower order needs and are concerns for a persons desire for social and physical well being. The top two needs in the pyramid are the high
order needs that satisfy psychological development and growth. Maslow's needs are often used as the most elementary model in the complex
study of mans needs and desires. The chart shows how needs are satisfied in life and in business. In today's society, organizations have
discovered that many of the physiological needs have to be satisfied by methods other than by the pay check.
The outside consultant and trainer can be a particular value as a change agent in an environment of low trust in all the following except where:
A. First line supervisors have marginally low skills

B. There are pockets of turf that prevent departments from cooperating
C. There is poor alignment across levels of management concerning values that support good safety training
D. The trainee has questions that are pertinent to the subject matter
You Chose:
The outside consultant and trainer can be a particular value as a change agent in an environment of low trust when first line supervisors have
marginally low skills, there are pockets of turf that prevent departments from cooperating there is poor alignment across levels of management
concerning values that support good safety training. The trainee should always have questions pertinent to the subject matter regardless of the
trainer.
Which of the following are used to adjust Worker's Compensation Insurance Rates?
A. Experience Modification Rate

B. Incident Rate
C. Worker’s Compensation Mod Rate
D. Accident Rate
You Chose:
The insurance industry uses EMR for workers' compensation insurance as a means of determining equitable premiums. These rating systems
consider the average incident losses for a given firm's type of work and amount of payroll and predict the dollar amount of expected losses due
to work-related injures and illnesses. Modification rates charged by private carriers are usually affected by risks beyond the control of the
insured, products produced or services provided and potential for catastrophic accidents.
Which of the following is a device, frequently used during driver's training, that gives the driver of a vehicle an audible signal to begin braking
and then provides visual indication of stopping distance at a known speed.
A. Air Brake "Wig Wag"

B. Radar Detector
C. Tachograph
D. Detonation device
You Chose:

During driver's safety training a detonation device can be used to demonstrate the total distance it takes to stop a moving vehicle. The device
contains a small explosive charge that propels a paint ball onto the pavement. It is often attached to the test vehicle's bumper and controlled by
a driver's training instructor riding in the passenger seat. While driving at a predetermined speed the instructor triggers the device that makes a
loud "bang". When the driver hears the detonation he or she applies braking and stops the vehicle as quickly as possible. The distance from the
paint mark to the skid mark provides reaction distance from which reaction time can be calculated. The distance from the paint mark to point of
rest provides overall stopping distance.
One-way communications has several short falls. Which of the following is not a short fall?
A. the information will be transmitted correctly

B. information flows in only one direction
C. lack of feedback
D. receiver may not understand the message
You Chose:
This type of communications has several problems: Information only flows in one direction.; The lack of feedback means the sender will not
know if the message has been received and/or understood. This is the major draw back to one-way communications.; The receiver may not
understand the message.
What is the leading cause of accidents in the Wholesale and Retail Trade Industry?
A. Fall to lower level

B. Highway accidents
C. Struck by object
D. Assaults and violent acts by persons
You Chose:
According to the NSC Injury Facts booklet, although Highway traffic incidents are the leading cause of all work-related fatal injuries, Assaults
and violent acts by persons (homicide) is the leading cause in the Wholesale and Retail Trade industry. An example would be an armed robbery.
When making an environmental audit, it is best to follow a defined set of procedures, sometimes called a protocol. The protocol has three basic
areas. Which of the following is not considered part of an environmental protocol?
A. Previsit Activities
B. Visit Activities
C. Determination of liability
D. Postvisit Activities
You Chose:
According to the NSC Environmental Management Accident Prevention Manual, the Environmental Audit Protocol consists of three parts, the
previsit, where you establish contact, prepare the questionnaire and establish reporting relationships. During the visit phase, conduct the
entrance briefing, tour the facility, record, interview, review records, inspect, record findings and have an exit briefing. During the post activity,
follow up to resolve outstanding issues and provide audit reports. Determining liability is not part of the audit protocol. The purpose of an audit
is to measure and verify actual performance against established objectives for the purpose of process improvement. Comprehensive audits are
conducted by multidisciplinary teams that are knowledgeable of the work and processes and independent of line management.
When considering environmental problems, which of the following will have the least concern with controlling releases or spills?
A. The local population

B. Company shareholders
C. Local suppliers
D. Local governmental officials
You Chose:
Generally concern is higher among individuals and organizations that may be directly affected by the spill or release. The term NIMBY (not in my
backyard) has been applied to the local population that has the most concern.
A trainee asks a question and gets very vocal when he disagrees with your answer, how is the best way to handle this situation?
A. Ignore the situation and keep talking

B. Ask the trainee to maintain silence
C. Defer the question until the end of the class
D. Repeat the question, reinforce the answer and do not react to the interruption
You Chose:
The rules for answering questions include always repeat the question back so that everyone knows the question, answer the question, avoid
debating or arguing, never ignore a question and if you can't answer a question, obtain the answer later and always "get back" to the trainee.

After a training session to introduce a set of employees to a new process, you pass out an evaluation sheet to obtain feedback from the
employees on the training session. Which of the following would be an inappropriate question?
A. was the content accurate

B. did the instructor display enthusiasm
C. did the instructor maintain your interest
D. was the presentation organized/easy to follow
You Chose:
When presenting material that is new to a trainee, refrain from asking them to validate the content of the training program. Questions
concerning the training environment, the instructor's skill and presentation are valid questions.
When you develop the tests and evaluations for your training program, you should use all of the following guidelines except?
A. Test items must be reliable

B. Evaluations are norm-referenced
C. Each test item must have criterion-related validity
D. The evaluation tool should be developed before the training begins
You Chose:
Reliability is a measure of how well a test item discriminates the knowledge level of the participants. Evaluations for training purposes are NOT
norm-referenced. Norm-referencing means that how well a trainee scores depends on how well or how poorly other trainees perform.
Evaluations for training purposes should always be criterion-referenced. This means performance is measured against a pre-set standard. The
test must measure what it is suppose to measure. The evaluation tool should always be developed before training begins. Evaluations are used
to determine how well the trainee learns the material. The difficulty index is simply a measure of how many trainees answered the question
correctly, a test can be reliable, but not valid and test scores from a test will follow a normal bell curve.
A trainer needs to check the effectiveness of her training program by evaluating the average test scores of two different groups. The best
statistical tool to test the differences of means of the two groups is:
A. standard deviation
B. Spearman Rank Coefficient of Correlation
C. Chi Square
D. T-Distribution
You Chose:
The Chi-square test can be use to determine how well theoretical distributions (such as the normal and binomial distributions) fit empirical
distributions (such as those obtained from sample data).
Workplace violence has jumped to the front of workplace injuries and deaths in recent years. Which of the following is not a legal basis for
providing workplace security?
A. company policy
B. city ordinance
C. state statute
D. federal code
You Chose:
Legal requirements are based on laws, including 29 CFR
What is the primary consideration when preparing for a potential disaster?
A. Selecting the emergency committee

B. Identifying a person to be the on-scene commander
C. Doing advanced emergency planning
D. Having a list of State and Federal directives that you may need
You Chose:
According to the NSC, "advanced emergency management planning is the best way to minimize potential loss from natural or human caused
disasters or accidents."
Which of the following training methods allows for the least amount of student-instructor interaction?
A. Lecture
B. Role playing
C. Case study
D. Facilitated discussion
You Chose:

opportunity for interaction between the trainee and the instructor.
According to Willie Hammer, when a new product is being developed, there are six phases of the process. They consist of the concept phase,
development go-ahead evaluation, product development, production go-ahead evaluation, production and operations and support. During which
phase will the distributors, dealers and field service personnel be brought into the process?
A. concept phase
B. development go-ahead evaluation
C. product development
D. production go-ahead evaluation
You Chose:
During the production "go-ahead" evaluation, distributors, dealers and field representatives should be asked to review the prototype for
familiarization and comment. Personnel who may have to maintain or repair the product must be instructed in any potential hazards, safeguards
and precautionary measures. Service manuals and test equipment must be made available.
When you measure training program effectiveness, which of the following is the least valuable?
A. Behavior – what behaviors were changed as a result of the training

B. Knowledge – what skills were learned and demonstrated
C. Reaction – how the students liked the training
D. Interaction – how the students interacted and exchanged ideas in class
You Chose:
Reaction is the least valuable at the end of the training, since the student does not know the actual use of the skills or knowledge gained until
they put it into action. That is why most training experts recommend a second critique after six months to obtain a valid reaction from the
students.
Which of the following is not a valuable attribute of interactive computer-assisted training, sometimes called distance learning?
A. works well for organizations with small workforces

B. works well for organizations that cannot remove large groups from their jobs at one time
C. allows instructors to interact with each other without restrictions
D. trainees can work at their own pace
You Chose:
According to the NSC, the valuable attributes of interactive computer-assisted training, sometimes called distance learning are: Workers can
work at their own pace.; Records can be automatically kept of all training.; Correct answers are required before the student can proceed.;
Workers receive training as time is available.; Instructors can guide workers step by step thru the lesson plan.; Works extremely well for
organizations with a small workforce or that cannot remove large groups from their jobs at any one time. When someone completes coursework
away from an actual training facility, it is generally called distance learning. This is an umbrella term for many types of learning, including online
training and training available through the mail.
When selecting a communications medium for a training presentation, which aspects are listed in increasing order?
A. experience, auditory, words

B. words, auditory, visual pictures
C. displays, auditory, words
D. demonstrations, auditory, words
You Chose:
Media used for any purpose takes advantage of the two senses people use most when learning, sight and hearing. The scale in increasing order
is:
Words, spoken or written
Auditory aids
Still pictures
Motion pictures
Live television
Displays
Familiarization
Demonstration
Simulations
Actual experience
The analysis technique where individuals are interviewed about accidents, near misses and hazardous conditions is known as:
A. Failure Mode and Effects Analysis

B. Operational Hazard Analysis
C. Critical Incident Technique
D. Sneak Circuit Analysis
You Chose:

practical problems and to develop broad psychological principles. The theory is that a randomly selected sample of critical incidents should
permit a deduction to be made concerning the existence of similar incidents.
The prime or initial event in event tree analysis is termed the:
A. The Main Failure event

B. The Primal event
C. The Top event
D. The Initiating event
You Chose:
The initial event in any event tree as the name implies is the initiating event.
Which of the following methods can be used to increase the reliability of a system or process?
A. Design parallel components

B. Design series components
C. Design redundancy into the system
D. All of the above
You Chose:
Parallel and series design as well as redundancy are all appropriate methods for increasing the reliability of a system.
Which analysis system is a technique to determine human error?
A. THERP
B. PERT
C. MORT
D. FMEA
You Chose:
The Technique for Human Error Rate Prediction (THERP) is a detailed procedure for analyzing a task and applying tables of human reliability
estimates
Which of the following best describes a single point failure?
A. A failure at a selected point in the system

B. A failure assigned one point on a scale of 10 when performing system safety analysis
C. A single failure that will seriously affect the safety of the system
D. A failure that is singular in nature and affects the overall reliability of the system
You Chose:
A single point failure is generally defined as "a single failure that will seriously affect the safety of the system". An example would be the failure
of the brake line on an automobile not equipped with redundant braking components. Another example might be the failure of the engine on a
single engine aircraft or failure of the only fuel pump on the engine. Single point failures are almost always considered weak links in the system
or process. However, this may not be the case when high reliability components are used. The tree below shows a few of the many single point
failures present in the average automobile.
All of the following statements are true concerning the Failure Modes and Effects Analysis (FMEA) except?
A. FMEA is a reliability tool

B. FMEA identifies single point failures
C. FMEA identifies multiple failures, human factors and interfaces
D. FMEA is normally considered to be inductive
You Chose:

effects of that failure on the overall system or process. It is generally considered a reliability tool. It does an excellent job of identifying single
point failures and is an inductive analysis. The FMEA does not do a good job of identifying failures in complex systems requiring multiple
operational interfaces, or multiple failures and it does not address human factors.Note: If the FMEA is done on a higher level than individual
components, that is at a functional level to include groups of components, it can be deductive. This "Functional FMEA" asks what the cause of
the subsystem or assembly level failure might be. It does not assign probability or reliability calculations and is gaining popularity as a
deductive system safety tool.
Which of the following were included in Heinrich's 1930's famous domino theory of accidents?
A. Safety, Security, Belonging, and Self-esteem

B. The three E's
C. Social, fault, unsafe act, accident, injury
D. Man, machine, money, injury, accident
You Chose:
The correct answer is social, fault, unsafe act, accident, injury.
Which of the following illustrates Heinrich's ratio of no injury accidents, to minor injuries, to major injuries?
A. 100-20- 1
B. 200 -30 -10
C. 300 -29-1
D. 600-58-1
You Chose:
According to Heinrich's research, for every 300 no injury accidents, there are 29 minor and 1 major injury accidents. This theory has been
contested in recent years for various reasons. More recent, progressive theory includes multiple accident causation and an enlarged data base
which adds the extra dimension of 600 near-misses to the pyramid.
Several methods of securing line accountability for safety are widely accepted within the safety community. Which of the following techniques
will have long lasting influence on the line manager or supervisor?
A. Charge accidents to departments

B. Put safety in supervisor's appraisal
C. Have safety affect supervisor's income
D. All of the above
You Chose:
We feel that all of the actions listed will make line supervision take notice. However, a combination of efforts is required to maintain
accountability.
In the early 1930s, Heinrich made some significant changes in the way safety professionals viewed the cause of certain mishaps. One of his
principles:
A. Shifted emphasis from conditions to actions

B. Was the beginning of the JSA technique
C. Applied FTA to accident analysis
D. Charges managers for the cost of accidents
You Chose:
Heinrich's research led to an increased emphasis on the unsafe actions of employees rather than unsafe conditions caused by the workplace.
Which of the following is not true concerning the establishment of Management Goals for the Occupational Safety and Health Program?
A. Management goals should be measurable

B. Management goals should be obtainable
C. Management goals should be reviewed frequently
D. Management goals should be published
You Chose:
This is a hard question because the selections all provide reasonable characteristics of Safety Program Management goals. However, the least
desirable is selection "D". Safety program management goals should probably be written, but they do not have to be published. Other
descriptions include specific, realistic and time bounded. Setting goals is a key component to the behavioral approach to safety.
Fault tree analysis is a deductive method of determining the events leading to a specified outcome. The analysis makes use of boolean logic to
develop an accident causation model. This mishap prevention tool was first implemented by which of the following?
A. IBM for computer software analysis in 1952

B. USN for shipbuilding in 1946

C. Mobile Chemical in 1961
D. Bell Laboratories for the USAF in 1962
You Chose:
The Fault Tree Analysis technique had its beginning in 1962. Bell Telephone Laboratories was convinced by the United States Air Force to adapt
its experience with boolean logic (gained through many years in the communication industry) to the Minuteman ICBM system. At that time the
Boeing Company fully embraced the effort and further refined and developed the technique. H.A. Watson (Bell Laboratories) is normally credited
with development of FTA.
An implied warranty is an implication by a dealer that the product is suitable for a specific purpose. The statement of warranty can be made in
many ways and could include all of the following except:
A. Placing it on sale for that purpose

B. Advertising that it will satisfy that purpose
C. Indicating in the operating instruction that it will accomplish that purpose
D. Making it look like a product that will accomplish the purpose
You Chose:
Implied warranty is the implication by a dealer that the product will serve a specific purpose. The implication must be made by:
Placing it on sale for that purpose
Advertising it for that purpose
Indicating it will operate for that purpose in books or manuals
What rights do employees have concerning the abatement date of an OSHA violation?
A. Appeal abatement date

B. Ignore abatement date
C. Speed up abatement date
D. Employees have no rights concerning abatement dates
You Chose:
The employees have the rights under 29 CFR 1903.17 to appeal the abatement date of an OSHA violation.
How many days does an employer have to contest an OSHA issued citation?
A. 3 days from receipt

B. 15 working days from receipt
C. 3 working days from receipt
D. 15 days from receipt
You Chose:
OSHA allows an employer 15 working days from the date of receipt to contest an OSHA citation
There are several factors that are often used to determine when an organization should have the services of a full time Safety Professional.
Which of the following is generally acknowledged to be the primary determining factor in assigning safety personnel?
A. The accident rate of the organization

B. The seriousness of accidents suffered by the organization
C. The potential for mishaps in the organization
D. The type of industry the organization is involved in
You Chose:
All of the reasons cited here, and a long list of others, have been used at one time or another to justify the assignment of safety professionals.
The prime factor in assignment of safety and health professionals to an organization should be the potential for harm within that organization.
Although a supervisor has the primary responsibility for safety in their department, the safety professional can help by acting in most situations
in an advisory capacity.
Which of the following best describes the two classes of epidemiological studies?
A. Remote and widespread

B. Differential or inferential
C. Toxicological or geometric
D. Descriptive or analytic
You Chose:
Epidemiological studies may be classified as descriptive or analytic. In descriptive epidemiology, surveys are conducted to uncover the nature of
population affected by a particular disease, e.g.; sex, age, ethnic origin, occupation, etc. Any conclusions made from descriptive studies are then
evaluated using analytical techniques, usually mathematical statistics.

Which of the following best describes the term "Stoichiometry"?
A. Compound with a low hydrogen to carbon ratio

B. A process of determining the Avogadro's number of a compound
C. Calculations relating the amounts of reactants and products in chemical reactions
D. Hydrocarbons with only single bonds between the carbons
You Chose:
Stoichiometry, pronounced "stoy-key-ah'-meh-tree", is derived from the Greek stoicheion, meaning element. Literally, stoichiometry means to
measure the elements. However, the term is generally used more broadly in chemistry to include a wide variety of measurements and
relationships involving substances and mixtures of chemicals. So, the definition in answer C, "calculations relating the amounts of reactants and
products in chemical reactions", most closely describes stoichiometry. To do stoichiometry, one must interpret the coefficients of balanced
chemical equations as the numbers of moles of reactants and products. A mole ratio is then developed to determine the amount of reactant
reacted or product produced given an amount of another reactant or product. This allows the limiting or excess reactants to be determined and
theoretical yields determined. The following model illustrates the process. Most elementary chemistry texts will have a more detailed
explanation.
Which of the following best describes the effect of leukemia on the blood?
A. Over production of red blood cells

B. Over production of white blood cells
C. Platelet metastasis
D. Coherence of bagasse
You Chose:
Leukemia is the name given a wide range of diseases that result in widespread and uncontrolled creation of white blood cells. Most of these cells
will never reach maturity and there will be a severe over accumulation of diseased cells.
All of the following are common redundant design philosophies except:
A. Series
B. Parallel
C. Standby
D. Derating
You Chose:
Series redundancy is employed as a redundant design in many systems as blocking devices. Many devices in series, each operated from a
different source and involving a different parameter, must be activated before an accident can occur. The more items in series the lower the
probability of failure. Parallel redundant components perform the same function at the same time. This type of redundancy is often applied to
equipment that is in continuous operation. Standby systems increase system reliability by having an inoperative or idling standby unit that can
take over if an operational unit fails. Emergency electrical generators fall in this category.
An insurance company, which is in business to establish a profit, is best described by which of the following:
A. Captive
B. Stock
C. Mutual Company
D. Paternal
You Chose:
Any insurance company may be in business to turn a profit or it may be a non-profit organization. However, the stock insurance company is
always profit motivated and it is generally believed that this motivation is evident in the organization's internal policies.
NIOSH employees do not have right of entry like the OSHA compliance officer.
A. True
B. False
C. True. NIOSH employees must have a Federal warrant.
D. True. NIOSH employees must have an OSHA escort.
You Chose:
The OSHAct provides NIOSH with the same right of entry as OSHA representatives if they are undertaking health studies of alleged hazardous
conditions and to develop criteria for new standards.
All of the following are basic elements of a contract except?
A. Competent parties
B. Legal Consideration
C. Mutuality of agreement

D. Monetary duty
You Chose:
The elements of a contract include: competent parties, subject matter, legal consideration, mutuality of agreement and mutuality of obligation.
As a product moves along the production line from manufacturer to consumer, who has responsibility for defects?
A. The manufacturer
B. The distributor and the manufacturer
C. The wholesaler and retailer
D. Everyone in the chain from raw material to finished product
You Chose:
The entire production chain from raw material to finished product can be held liable for a defective product.
With the current trend in product safety lawsuits, one possible defensive technique would be to maintain all design, manufacturing and
engineering records for a period of:
A. As long as possible
B. 30 years
C. 10 years as required by OSHA
D. Until the plant closes
You Chose:
To protect against product liability claims a company should retain product records as long as possible. Of particular importance are all records
pertaining to the consideration of product safety during production phases.
The U.S. Supreme Court case Marshall vs. Barlow involved a legal issue that has affected OSHA operational procedures. The issue concerns?
A. The Right of Probable Cause

B. The Right to Enforce
C. The Right to Sample
D. The Right of Entry
You Chose:
The Supreme Court case Marshall vs. Barlow dealt with OSHA's Right of Entry and resulted in the removal of the Right of Entry statement from
the compliance officers credentials. As a result of this case, some employers began to require OSHA to obtain a warrant to enter their
workplace.
Department of Labor standards deal with all of the following industries except?
A. Maritime
B. Hospital
C. Construction
D. General Industry
You Chose:
Department of Labor standards do not apply to Hospitals.
During the evaluation of a complete computer system, which of the following would you expect to cause the most errors causing down time?
A. Computer hardware
B. Power supply
C. Inadequate grounding
D. Computer software
You Chose:
Computer software causes many times more errors than any other single item listed. Some estimates run as high as 100 to 1. Although recent
development techniques have reduced the amount of computer software errors, the ratio still remains high. This does not mean the overall error
rate is high, simply that the ratio of software to hardware is high. Most computer down time is actually for preventive maintenance, updating
equipment or software, and housekeeping functions.
CSHO has just completed a inspection of your worksite and has two non-compliance items that she will to write citations on. The most correct
way to reference the item not in compliance is:
A. 1910.120

B. OSHA 1910.120
C. 29 CFR 1910.120
D. A reference is not required
You Chose:
Citation references should refer to the official document and paragraph, which is out of compliance
Which of the following is not a guideline for teaching adults?
A. Explain the purpose to the training session

B. Do not allow questions
C. Acknowledge the learners’ experience and expertise
D. Do not talk down to learners
You Chose:
The generally accepted testing methods for cognitive-knowledge level training is, true-false, fill-in-blank, oral testing or multiple choice. Which
of the following statements correctly identifies the characteristics of the associated testing format?
A. True-false: Easy to grade, a problem with objectivity, a creative format

B. Fill-in-blank: Hard to grade, no problem with objectivity, a creative format
C. Oral testing: Easy to grade, no problem with objectivity, a creative format
D. Multiple Choice: Easy to grade, no problem with subjectivity, difficult to measure ability to recall unprompted Information
You Chose:
Multiple choice answers are easy to grade and statistically analyze, can be objectively graded, but do prompt an answers. True-false questions
are not creative, fill-in-blank can have objectivity problems and oral testing is subjective.
Which of the following is not a purpose for displaying safety posters?
A. As a substitute for management support

B. To remind of specific hazards
C. Maintain a high level of safety awareness
D. To provide instructions on safety equipment
You Chose:
Obviously, no safety poster can substitute for the active and sincere interest of the company management.
Often in safety and health training programmed or instructional learning is used instead of more traditional methods. Which of the following is
most correct concerning the technique of programmed learning?
A. Programmed learning is very controversial because it attempts to control the actions of workers
B. Programmed learning is confined to computer use only
C. Programmed learning is not suitable for complex, complicated endeavors
D. Programmed learning is an effective tool for very short study sessions
You Chose:
Programmed or instructional learning is an excellent tool for learning just about anything. However, the development of programmed or
instructional learning textbooks or computer programs is very expensive in both time and money. The newer programmed or instructional
learning techniques involve interactive computer products. These products combine the features of video and small computers to produce a
product that leads the student step-by-step through the learning process. The older instructional learning methods use the textbook approach
that is presented in a series of numbered pages called frames, each frame consists of three parts:
1 explanation of a concept

2 questions based on the concept

3 a "book" answer to the concept. Should the student answer the question incorrectly, some programmed lessons lead the student to another
more detailed explanation of the concept.
During emergency response planning, you would coordinate with all of the following except?
A. Local Fire Departments

B. Local Police Departments
C. FEMA
D. Local Public Library
You Chose:
Disaster plans should be drawn up in advance a include, neighboring companies, community agencies, including police and fire departments,
industry and medical agencies and governmental agencies.
One of the major thrusts in the art and science of Human Factors Engineering is to design and install things in a manner that prevents errors
and increases performance. Generally, people make four types of errors or mistakes. Which of the following best describes the four types of
errors?
A. Omission, Potential, Transaction, Reaction

B. Omission, Commission, Sequence, Timing
C. Transaction, Reaction, Series, Duration
D. Inappropriate, Undesirable, Potential, Response
You Chose:
The field of ergonomics deals with subjects and applications that are much broader than the field of safety and health. The term ergonomics
grew out of the 1950 era wartime effort and comes from the Greek root ergo (work) and nomos (rules). So applied literally the term becomes
work-rules, however the application is extremely diverse and generally encompasses a large spectrum of disciplines. Which one of the following
disciplines is not included in the broader definition of ergonomics?
A. Anthropometry
B. Psychology
C. Physiology
D. Spectrophotometry
You Chose:
The field of ergonomics is extremely broad and encompasses many disciplines including Bio-Engineering, Industrial Engineering, Anatomy,
Anthropometry, Biomechanics, Physiology, Psychology, Sociology, Systems Engineering, etc. However, Spectrophotometry is the science of
making photometric comparisons between parts of the spectrum. It is generally used in the determination of various gases and compounds
(contaminants) in the field of safety and health and is not considered a part of the art and science of ergonomics.
Which of the following is not a communication barrier?
A. Bias
B. Mood
C. Negative reinforcement
D. Non verbal actions that conflict with the training subject
You Chose:

Communication barriers consist of: 1) Knowledge - the trainee already thinks that he knows all that is needed; 2) Bias - people's attitude may
cause them to tune out the information; 3) Mood - does something keep the individual from hearing the information; 4) Nonverbal actions - do
you say one thing while doing something counter
Which of the following training methods is primarily used to find new, innovative approaches to issues?
A. Meeting
B. Brainstorming
C. Case Study
D. Role Playing
You Chose:
Brainstorming is a technique of group interactions that encourages each participant to present ideas on a specific issue. The method is normally
used to find new, innovative approaches to issues. There are four ground rules: Ideas presented are not criticized.; Freewheeling creative
thinking and building on ideas are positively reinforced.; As many ideas as possible should be presented quickly.; Combining several ideas or
improving suggestions is encouraged.
A needs assessment does all the following except:
A. Identifies the type of training required

B. Identifies the problem or need before designing a solution
C. Saves time and money by ensuring that solutions effectively address the problems they are intended to solve
D. Identifies factors that will impact the training before its development
You Chose:
The needs assessment is considered the first step in the training process. After the needs assessment, training goals are developed and during
that process you will determine what knowledge the trainee needs to know to eliminate the problem. Remember, if you want them to tell time,
then teach them how to tell time, not how to build a watch. Another use for a needs analysis, is anytime a safety professional identifies a
problem area and has to recommend a solution, he should perform a need analysis to confirm the recommendation.
The purpose of epidemiological studies is to describe the symptoms of a disease and to uncover the relationship with the etiological (causative)
agent. Which of the following statements best describes retrospective studies?
A. Retrospective studies are the most expensive

B. Retrospective studies look back in time on populations exposed to the agent under investigation
C. Retrospective studies are also called cohort or incident studies
D. Retrospective studies are considered the most scientifically useful
You Chose:
Epidemiological studies are divided into three separate types: ullet\tab Cross-sectional or prevalence studies ullet Retrospective or case control
studies ullet Prospective studies or cohort or incident studies. Retrospective studies look back in time on populations exposed to the agent
under investigation. They are the most inexpensive. However, these studies suffer from lack of data: what dose was received, for how long,
what other agents were present, etc. These questions cannot be answered since the exposure occurred in the distant past. They rely heavily on
estimated data and experimental statistical methods that affect the validity.It is generally accepted that the most scientifically useful study is
the prospective study, which is initiated before commencement of exposure to the agent under study and is continued until the appearance of
disease. Recently some of the more progressive major companies have initiated epidemiological studies for all new chemical
Which type of system safety analysis would be used in the early stages of a project to determine the gross hazards that might be involved?
A. FMEA
B. FTA
C. PHA
D. MORT
You Chose:
PHA (Preliminary Hazard Analysis) is used to identify apparent hazards very early in the pre-design stages. It is a gross hazard search to
identify potential problems that may determine the depth of future hazard analysis techniques.
Which of the following concepts is not widely accepted in today's safety community?

B. Behavior modification
C. Motivation training
D. Accident proneness
You Chose:
The concept of accident proneness is rejected today by most progressive safety professionals.
To be considered for approval by OSHA, a state occupational safety and health standard must:
A. Contain the same fine structure as OSHA

B. Be written at no higher than the 11 grade reading level
C. Be as effective as the federal standard
D. Be more stringent than the federal standard
You Chose:
To be considered for approval by the federal OSHA, a state occupational safety and health standard must be as effective as the federal standard.
The Hawthorne study concluded that plant employees would respond to:
A. Discipline first, education second

B. Both positive and negative forms of attention
C. Supervisors who had job knowledge
D. Safety professionals before supervisors
You Chose:
The Hawthorne studies proved only that people, including workers, respond to attention.
One of the most important functions of management is to set goals and objectives. Which of the following methods is used as a tool to
accomplish this task?
A. Performance review
B. MBO system
C. Zero based budgeting
D. None of the above
You Chose:
The Management by Objective System (MBO) is an excellent method for the employee and supervision to set goals and rate performance. A key
component of an objective is that it must be obtainable.
The procedure used to make a job safe by identifying hazards in each step of the job and developing measures to counteract those hazards is
called:
A. MORT analysis
B. Fault Tree
C. Job Safety Analysis
D. Probabilistic Risk Assessment
You Chose:
The process of Job Safety Analysis examines job hazards during each step of the job and results in improved procedures that almost always
increase accident prevention.
Senior Management Officials can best support the Health and Safety training effort by?
A. Hiring professional educators

B. Signing policy letters about H&S training importance
C. Showing active and sincere interest in the program
D. Talking about S&H at staff meetings
You Chose:
Management can best support any Health and Safety effort by showing active and sincere interest in the program. This support can take many
forms, but it is vitally important that the message that reaches the company floor be consistent and sincere. If the boss really wants safety, so
will the workers. Management is most likely to give support to the safety effort when they understand how the prevention of losses relates to
the achievement of company objectives.
Safety sampling measures the effectiveness of the line manager's safety activities. The four steps of safety sampling include all the following
except?

B. take the sample

C. validate the sample
D. develop corrective measures
You Chose:
The four steps in safety sampling are: 1) Prepare a code; 2) Take the sample; 3) Validate the sample; 4) Prepare the report. Safety sampling can
be a successful method to verify the effectiveness of a safety strategy provided that the technique is adapted to the operation, a sound basic
incident prevention program is in place and the management is familiar with the technique.
The technique of system safety analysis can be applied to which of the following?
A. Generally only on the most complex of processes or systems

B. Very simple systems with only a single component
C. Any system that has interacting components
D. Any system only after some loss has occurred
You Chose:
The discipline of system safety can be applied to almost any system that has interacting components. It is an application of systematic and
forward looking techniques to identify and control hazards. The discipline is most effective if it begins within the conceptual phases of project
development should continue throughout the entire life of the project or product.
According to some safety experts, there are ten basic principles of safety. These include all the following except?
A. Safety management should be treated separately and different from other company management.
B. An unsafe act, an unsafe condition and an accident are all symptoms of faulty management.
C. A certain set of circumstances will prevent severe injuries.
D. The key to effective line safety performance is management procedures that affix accountability.
You Chose:
The term "incident rate" is used quite often in the expanding field of safety and health. In industrial safety work the term is most commonly
associated with minor mishaps or the frequency of all mishaps. In epidemiology, the term incidence rate is often used to indicate the number of
_____________ that occurred in a given period of time.
A. New cases
B. Prevalent cases
C. All cases
D. Specific cases
You Chose:
Incidence rate is the rate of development of "new cases" of a specific disease over a given time period.

Which of the following fails to correctly describe a worker's right under the OSHAct?
A. Workers have the right to have a representative accompany the compliance officer on an inspection of the workplace
B. Workers have the right to change the abatement date of OSHA citations
C. Workers have the right to attend a contested case being heard by the OSHRC
D. Workers have the right to watch any IH monitoring of hazardous materials required by standard
You Chose:
Workers only have the right to contest the abatement date of an OSHA citation, they cannot change the abatement date or negotiate the
corrective actions. There are many other "rights" of workers under the OSHAct including, but not limited to, the right to request an inspection
and have inspections made by a compliance officer - Section 8 (f). Employees have the right to have the employer maintain an accurate record
of exposures to toxic or harmful materials - Section 8 (c)(3). Employees have the right to examine records of their exposure to harmful agents -
Section 8 (c)(3). Employees have the right to be notified if he or she has been exposed to harmful agents at or above the PEL-Section 8 (c)(3).
In developing a safety training program, the most essential consideration is:
A. Training staff
B. Training methods
C. Content of training program
D. Training Objectives
You Chose:
The training objective must be firmly established before a training program is undertaken. The primary purpose of the objectives are to describe
the intended outcome of the training.
Of the following, which is the most important feature of a maintenance department's safety program?
A. Safety training of workers and supervisors

B. Knowledge of job requirements
C. A written and enforced lockout procedure
D. Safe scheduling of maintenance tasks
You Chose:
Although all of the functions listed are very important, the best answer is a written and enforced lockout procedure.
Who within the company structure is most responsible for implementing response actions required by the emergency action plan?
A. Security Director
B. Operations Manager
C. Safety Professional
D. Supervisor
You Chose:
The person responsible for performing most of the actions required by the emergency action plan is the line supervisor.
Which of the following tests is associated with the Otis-Lennon Mental Ability Test?
A. Personnel Classification Tests

B. Personality Inventory Tests
C. Multiple Aptitude Tests
D. IQ tests
You Chose:
The Otis-Lennon mental ability tests, often referred to as the Otis test, is used extensively in IQ testing. There is, and has been, huge
controversy within the educational community concerning the use of this type of testing. The controversy is multi-faceted and involves the test
content, methods used in administering the test, methods used in scoring the test, etc. The generally accepted premise in industrial safety work
is that the cognitive ability tests such as the Otis test are not reliable indicators of the ability to do well in industrial or safety training efforts.
Who must take the actions listed in the plant emergency plan?
A. Security
B. Corporate Manager
C. Operations Manager
D. Supervisors
You Chose:
Although everyone has some response actions during an emergency, the best answer is the first line supervisor. The supervisor has most of the
immediate actions and many of the amelioration actions.

The three leading causes of fire in the United States according to the Factory Mutual Engineering Corporation are:
A. Static Sparks, Lightning, and Cutting and Welding

B. Electrical, Smoking, and Hot Surfaces
C. Smoking, Hot Surfaces, and Spontaneous Ignition
D. Friction, Cutting and Welding, and Smoking
You Chose:
The leading cause of fires in the U.S. is electrical (22%), generally in wiring and motors. Smoking accounts for 9% of all industrial fires and Hot
Surfaces 9%. Some sources also list fires maliciously set by intruders, juveniles, unhappy employees, etc. These fires account for 10% of all the
industrial fires in the U.S. The CSP examinations have historically not included this category.
Section 1910.1000 (Air Contaminants) of the General Industry Standard would be classified as what kind of standard?
A. Vertical
B. Performance
C. Specification
D. Optional
You Chose:
OSHA standard 1910.1000 is a performance standard that deals with more than one industry, which also makes it a horizontal standard.
When both parties involved in a disagreement agree to accept the determination of a third party the process is known as:
A. Negotiation
B. Concession
C. Obfuscation
D. Arbitration
You Chose:
The definition of arbitration is "the settlement of a dispute by a person or persons chosen to hear both sides and come to a decision".
In a comparison of the capabilities of a computer and humans, all of the following are true, except?
A. Computers are better at voluminous searches of data

B. Humans are better at abstract judgment situations, such as emergency management
C. Computers are better at following random and variable strategy
D. Humans are better at exercising inductive reasoning, making judgments based on experience and reasoning
You Chose:
Computers must follow programmed strategy. They have no inductive capability and cannot perform complex tasks that require subjective
decision making. They are very good at routine, repetitive tasking and mathematical calculations.
In order for Health and Safety Training to provide maximum effectiveness, firm training objectives should be established and used. Which of the
following requirements of training objectives is the least important?
A. Training objectives should be Reasonable

B. Training objectives should be Measurable
C. Training objectives should be Obtainable
D. Training objectives should be Written
You Chose:
Training objectives should above all be reasonable, measurable and obtainable. It is very desirable, but not imperative that the objectives and
goals for any program be written so as not to be misplaced or relegated to a low priority.
Which of the following is of least importance when considering an instructor for a Health & Safety Training project in an industrial setting?
A. Knowledge of subject
B. Presentation style
C. Desire to instruct
D. Appearance
You Chose:

Some of these attributes are more important than others. The motivation of the students and their level of sophistication will determine to a
great extent which attribute is the most important. In an industrial setting appearance is generally considered to be of lesser importance than
the desire to instruct, knowledge of subject and presentation style. This is not to say appearance is not important, just that it is of lesser impact
on the learning process.
Which of the following is the best indicator of training effectiveness?
A. Favorable Student Critiques

B. Correct Student Response to Questions
C. Increase in effectiveness of Job Performance
D. Testing meets expected norms
You Chose:
Job performance is the most effective and final measure of any training program.
In order to make valid decisions, which of the following is required?
A. Directing
B. Evaluating
C. Listening
D. Responding
You Chose:
No oral communications take place unless someone listens. To be an effective leader and make valid decisions, you must be a skillful listener.
What is the minimum number of people required for a group?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
You Chose:
The interaction between two people is different than what takes place between three or more. The larger the group, the more relationships
there are to maintain.
The following are advantages of the Lecture presentation except:
A. instructor has control of material presented

B. presents large amounts of information in a short time
C. allows maximum audience participation
D. most efficient way to teach knowledge-level objectives
You Chose:
One of the major disadvantages of the lecture is that there is limited audience participation. The major advantage is that it is the most efficient
way to teach knowledge-level objectives or you can train a large group in one setting.
Calculate the incidence rate for a company if the recordable accidents are 40 and the total man-hours are 1,500,000:
A. 5.3
B. 8.7
C. 10.2
D. 11.5
You Chose:
The formula to calculate incident rate is recordable accidents times 200,000 divided by the total man hours worked. This formula yields the rate

of injuries per hundred full time workers.
The plant at which you work has experienced 22 recordable mishaps involving days away from work. The plant has 900 full time employees.
What is the accident rate for this plant?
A. 40.9
B. 0.0245
C. 20.45
D. 2.45
You Chose:
Select formula and solve
An assembly line worker burned the tip of his finger with a soldering iron while installing a circuit board component. He went to see the on-site
Registered Nurse (RN) who treated the burn and applied a dressing. The RN said he would not need additional treatment; however she
requested he return the next day for observation. Which of the following is the best OSHA classification for the incident?
A. First-aid injury
B. Recordable lost time injury
C. Medical treatment, greater than first-aid
D. Not recordable, less than first aid
You Chose:
First aid treatment is defined by OSHA as "any one-time treatment, and any follow-up visit for the purpose of observation of minor scratches,
cuts, burns, splinters, and so forth, which do not ordinarily require medical care. Such one-time treatment, and follow-up visit for the purpose of
observation, is considered first-aid even though provided by a physician or registered professional personnel."
The American Industrial Hygiene Association (AIHA) publishes a set of Emergency Response Guidelines (EPRGs) that provides values intended
as estimates of concentration ranges where one might reasonably anticipate observing adverse effects as a consequence of exposure to a
specific substance. There are how many levels of EPRGs?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
You Chose:
The ERPG-3 is the maximum airborne concentration below which it is believed nearly all individuals could be exposed for up to one hour without
experiencing or developing life-threatening health effects. The ERPG-2 is the maximum airborne concentration below which it is believed nearly
all individuals could be exposed for up to one hour without experiencing or developing irreversible or other serious health effects or symptoms
that could impair their abilities to take protective action. The ERPG-1 is the maximum airborne concentration below which it is believed nearly
all individuals could be exposed up to one hour without experiencing other than mild transient adverse health effects or perceiving a clearly
defined objectionable odor. Because human responses do not occur at precise exposure levels, they can extend over a wide range of
concentrations
During a training presentation, the instructor will use both verbal and nonverbal communications. Nonverbal refers to how you use voice
inflection, body movements and even how you dress for the presentation. Which of the following indicates a power image?
A. Open collared shirt, many hand motions

B. Dark suit, relaxed body motions, closed arm stance
C. Light colored suit, high rate of speech, rigid posture
D. Memorized presentation, rigorous time schedule
You Chose:
Making quality presentations requires the attitude and appearance of being in control of the situation and having a high level knowledge of the
material being presented. A dark conservative business is accepted as the highest and most powerful dress code for a presentation. Being
nervous and having excess hand and body motions show lack of control. Generally, memorized material is presented in a boring manner and a
high pitched voice indicates the instructor is stressed

Which of the following is the common language of client/server database management?
A. SQL
B. URL
C. HTML
D. HTTP
You Chose:
SQL is the abbreviation for Structured Query Language. It is a standardized application language for relational databases that is used to enter
data into a database, modify data, delete date and retrieve data. URL is the abbreviation of Uniform Resource Locator, the global address of
documents and other resources on the World Wide Web.HTML stands for Hyper Text Markup Language and is used for web publishing. HTTP
stands for Hyper Text Transfer Protocol and is a file transfer protocol.
When is the least effective time to present a safety training session?
A. after an accident
B. after the company announces it is downsizing
C. after the monthly accident data shows an increase in the incident rate
D. after a plant explosion
You Chose:
There are three thing that will keep a person from listening: Word barriers - e.g. death, liar, layoff, IRS, etc.; Emotional barriers - e.g. bias,
boredom, envy, fatigue, etc.; and distractions.
Which of the following is not an expected out come of group training?
A. gain skills
B. share ideas
C. evaluate information
D. become actively involved in the planning and implementation of company policy
You Chose:
Group techniques encourage participation from a selected audience. These methods allow trainees to share ideas, evaluate information and
become actively involved in the planning and implementation of company policy.
Instructor's actions have a major impact on how a student reacts to the instruction being presented. Which of the follow is false concerning how
a student will react to an instructor's actions or reactions?
A. observers learn by watching and imitating others; they tend to behave as the have seen others to behave
B. observers will more likely imitate a model that has prestige in their eyes
C. observers will more likely imitate a model, when they see the model being rewarded for their actions
D. observers will more likely imitate a model, when they see the model being punished for their actions
You Chose:
According to Robert F. Mager "Making Instruction Work", answer D is incorrect.
Which of the following industries is generally credited with early development of system safety techniques?
A. Aerospace industry
B. Chemical manufacturing industry
C. Auto manufacturing industry
D. Nuclear Power industry
You Chose:
The aerospace industry is generally credited with development of several basic elements of system safety in use today. This was caused by the
fact that government contract regulations required that systems safety methods be developed. The famous System Safety Criteria Document is a
Military Specification (MIL-STD-882).
Communication is defined as?
A. Sharing information and/or ideas with others and being understood

B. Sharing information and/or ideas with others and gaining approval
C. Sharing opinions and/or ideas with others and being understood
D. Sharing opinions and/or ideas with others and gaining approval
You Chose:
According to the NSC, communications is defined as "sharing information and/or ideas with others and being understood".

A major construction project management team implemented a series of toolbox safety meetings held at the beginning of each shift;
housekeeping initiatives; barricade performance for elevated areas; and management walk thru audits to demonstrate leadership and
commitment. These activities are most generally categorized as:
A. Union organizing inhibitors

B. Leading indicators
C. Lagging indicators
D. Cost indicators
You Chose:
According to authors Marlowe and Skrabak (2007), the selection of leading indicators is largely judgmental and only time will tell whether the
indicators selected are the right ones. It seems logical to suggest that the leading indicators selected should relate directly to opportunities to
reduce risk by improving those safety management processes that analysis indicates need improvement, on a prioritized basis. In safety-related
literature, the most commonly identified lagging indicators are accidents and cost trends, and sometimes near misses. Toolbox safety meetings
held at the beginning of each shift; housekeeping; barricade performance for elevated areas; and management walking around to show
leadership and commitment are generally considered examples of leading indicators.
The Z-10 committee of SH&E professionals and stakeholders authored a consensus standard incorporating lessons learned and best practices in
Occupational Safety and Health Management. Which of the following is not one of the major provisions of the standard?
A. applying a prescribed hierarchy of controls to achieve acceptable levels of risk levels

B. design reviews
C. regulatory compliance
D. management of change systems
You Chose:
In 2005 ANZI approved the ANZI/AIHA Z10-2005, Occupational Health & Safety Management Systems (OHSMS) consensus standard applicable
to organizations of all sizes. The standard provides safety professionals and senior management with a well conceived, state of the art concept
and action outline to improve safety & health management systems.In crafting Z10, the intent was not only to achieve significant safety and
health benefits through ist application, but also to impact favorably on productivity, financial performance, quality and other business goals.
There is no provision specifically dedicated to regulatory compliance. The key provisions pertain to risk assessment and prioritization; applying
a prescribed hierarchy of controls to achieve acceptable levels of risk levels; design reviews, management of change systems; having safety
specifications in procurement systems; and safety audits.
Safety and Health Management Systems such as BSI 18001 series and ANZI/AIHA Z10-2005 are built on the principles and process developed
by quality pioneer Edward Deming. Which of the following accurately describes the systems process?
A. Act-Do-Plan-Check
B. Plan-Do-Check-Act
C. Plan-Act-Do-Check
D. Check-Plan-Do-Act
You Chose:
Both Quality and EHS management systems are built on the well known Plan-Do-Check-Act process. Briefly stated, the purpose of the standards
is to provide organizations with an effective tool for continuous improvement in their occupational health and safety management systems to
reduce the risk of occupational injuries, illnesses and fatalities.
The risk remaining after preventive measures have been taken is called:
A. Acceptable risk
B. Tolerable risk
C. Unacceptable risk
D. Residual risk
You Chose:
Residual risk is defined as the risk remaining after preventive measures have been taken. No matter how effective the preventive actions,
residual risk will always be present if a facility or operation continues to exist.
Investigation of a dust explosion involves determining the actual hazard as well as the manufacturing process that led to high dust
concentration levels. What should SH&E professionals look for when evaluating a workplace?
A. A documented process hazard analysis and operator training

B. The physical and chemical properties that establish the hazardous characteristics of the materials used in a facility.
C. Housekeeping and predictive/preventative maintenance programs
D. All of these are important to an evaluation
You Chose:
SH&E professionals should be thoroughly familiar with the processes and facilities that handle combustible particulate solids in a facility. They
also should be familiar with the physical and chemical properties that establish the hazardous characteristics of the materials used in a facility.
The facility should have a documented process hazard analysis, and SH&E professionals should be familiar with the hazards identified in the
study. A management of change program should be implemented. Also, SH&E professionals should be familiar with the requirements of the
NFPA standards that apply to a facility. One obvious item to assess is housekeeping. Poor housekeeping may lead to accumulations of dust on

machinery and building structural members.
Question 367: ID# 000093 Category: RECOGNIZING SAFETY, HEALTH & ENVIRONMENTAL HAZARDS
Which of the following best describes a characteristic of the pH scale?
A. The pH scale is logarithmic

B. The pH scale runs from 0 to 20
C. The pH scale indicates the positive ion concentration of a compound
D. The pH scale indicates the number of negative nitrogen ions shown as N3O+1
You Chose:
The pH scale is indeed logarithmic and is an indicator of the negative ion concentration or, to be more specific, the concentration of hydrogen
ion (H+). The "p" scale indicates a -1 times the logarithm of the quantity following the letter, thus:
For example; the concentration of hydrogen ion in a solution is 3 X 10-4 mole/liter. What is the pH of the solution?
Determine the pH of a solution in which [H+] = 4.9 X 10-5 moles per liter.
A. -4.3 mild acid

B. 4.3 mild acid
C. 4.9 strong base
D. -4.9 strong base
You Chose:
pH = -log [H+] pH equals minus the logarithm of the hydrogen ion concentration in moles per liter. Using the calculator -log 4.9 Exp -5 = 4.3.
The pH scale extends from 0 to 14, with values less than 7 acids and greater than 7 bases.
Which of the following has the shortest wave length?
A. ultraviolet
B. visible
C. infrared
D. microwave
You Chose:
The visible spectrum (or sometimes called the optical spectrum) is the portion of the electromagnetic spectrum that is visible to (can be
detected by) the human eye. Electromagnetic radiation in this range of wavelengths is called visible light or simply light. A typical human eye
will respond to wavelengths in air from about 380 to 750 nm (some references use 400 to 780 nm). Infrared (IR) radiation and micro wave are
electromagnetic radiation whose wavelengths are longer than that of visible light and Ultraviolet (UV) light is electromagnetic radiation with a
wavelength shorter than that of visible light.
A design that tries to ensure that a failure will leave the product unaffected or will convert it to a state in which no injury or damage will occur is
the definition of ?
A. Fail-safe
B. Fail-secure
C. Fail-operations
D. Fail-proof
You Chose:
According to Willie Hammer, Product Safety Management and Engineering, this is the definition of fail-safe. There are three fail-safe designs. 1)
Fail-passive arrangements reduce the system to its lowest energy level. 2) Fail-active design maintains an energized condition that keeps the
system in a safe mode until a corrective or overriding action occurs or a alternate system is activated. 3) Fail-operational arrangements allow
functions to continue safely until corrective action is possible. An example of a fail-active device would be a battery operated smoke detector
that chirps when it is time to replace the battery.
Which of the following fan laws is false?
A. CFM varies indirectly as fan speed

B. SP varies as the square of fan speed
C. HP varies as the cube of the fan speed
D. TP varies as the square of fan speed
You Chose:

change in capacity is required. The fan laws are: 1) CFM varies directly as Fan Speed. 2) TP and SP varies as the square of the fan speed. 3) HP
varies as the cube of the fan speed
Pressure is sometimes measured in inches of water column. One psi is equal to _________ inches of water column?
A. 29.92
B. 28
C. 26
D. 22
You Chose:
Water columns are often used for measuring small pressures above and below atmospheric pressure ie.; air ducts, gas lines, etc.. A water
column 2.3 feet high (about 28 in.) equals 1 psi. One atmosphere equals both 14.7 psi and 407 inches of water.
OR
Which of the following is not an occupational illness caused by a virus?
A. HIV/AIDS
B. Tuberculosis
C. Hepatitis B
D. West Nile
You Chose:
Answers A, C and D are caused by a virus and tuberculosis is caused by a bacteria.
A fire protection standpipe 33.5 meters high is filled with water. What is the pressure at the bottom of the pipe?
A. 48 psi
B. 62.4 psi
C. 43.30 psi
D. 42.7 psi
You Chose:
Which of the following statements is not true about the static pressure in a ventilation system?
A. Static Pressure is measured parallel to the direction of flow

B. Static Pressure tends to collapse the duct in an exhaust system
C. Static Pressure acts in all directions
D. Static Pressure is a part of Total Pressure
You Chose:

The balanced equation below shows the complete oxidation of acetylene. If 10 moles of oxygen were consumed in the oxidation process, how
many grams of CO2 (MW = 44) would be produced? 2C2H2 + 5O2-----> 4CO2 + 2H2O
A. 35.2 grams
B. 352 grams
C. 442 grams
D. 221 grams
You Chose:
Step 1: Rebalance the formula using 10 moles of oxygen 2C2H2 + 5O2 -----> 4CO2 + 2H2O becomes 4C2H2 + 10O2 ---> 8CO2 + 4H2O
Step 2: Multiply 8 moles x 44 g/mol = 352 g of CO2. Note: Common molecular weights may not be given on the exam!
What is the recommended capture velocity for spray booths, welding, plating, intermittent container filling, etc.?
A. 100 - 200 fpm

B. 200 - 300 fpm
C. 300 - 400 fpm
D. 400 - 500 fpm
You Chose:
From 100 to 200 fpm is range recommended by the ACGIH in the Industrial Ventilation Handbook.
Using the information presented here, compute the total circuit resistance of this simple series circuit.
A. 2.15 ohm
B. 0 ohm
C. 20 ohm
D. 40 ohm
You Chose:
Resistors in a series circuit are added to determine total circuit resistance.
Using the information presented here, compute the total power consumed for this simple parallel circuit.

A. 13.8 W
B. 57 W
C. 414 W
D. 571 W
You Chose:
Select R Parallel formula and solve
Solve for the current
Solve for Power. Reference the formula, V=IR, it can be said that as the total resistance in a circuit increases, the current flowing through the
circuit decreases when voltage is held constant.
Which type of forklift truck is primarily recommended for use in an area that contains a flammable vapor?
A. Electric
B. Diesel
C. LP-Gas
D. Gasoline
You Chose:
According to 29CFR1910.178, the electric is the only forklift truck authorized in certain flammable atmospheres.
If a storage facility is used to store flammable products, where the possibility of explosion if involved in a fire was high, what would be the
maximum travel distance to exits, with and without a fire sprinkler system installed, allowed by NFPA 101, Life Safety Code?
A. 75 feet without and 150 feet with an approved fire sprinkler system
B. 100 feet without and 150 feet with an approved fire sprinkler system
C. 200 feet without and 200 feet with an approved fire sprinkler system
D. 75 feet without and 100 feet with an approved fire sprinkler system
You Chose:
Section 29 of the NFPA 101, Life Safety Code, provides guidance on the maximum travel distance to exits. In the preceding question the hazard
of the contents was classified as ordinary hazard and the distance to an exit could not exceed 200 feet, or 400 feet if equipped with an approved
automatic fire sprinkler system. However, any area used for the storage of high hazard materials shall have an exit within 75 feet of the point
where persons might be present. This distance can be extended to 100 feet when fire sprinkler protection is provided. Travel distances vary with
different occupancies, again a review of the Life Safety Code is certainly in order prior to the examination.
Which of the following is the most accurate concerning radioactive alpha emitters?
A. All types of Alpha radiation deposit in the spleen

B. Alpha emitters are like calcium and accumulate in the bones
C. Alpha emitters attach themselves to all the blood forming organs
D. Alpha particles have a broad distribution of energies
You Chose:

Radioactive alpha particles are generally considered to be an internal radiation hazard. They have a range of only about 4 inches in air and are
stopped by a film of water, a sheet of paper, or thin metal shielding. When detecting alpha particles with a survey instrument, the instrument
probe must be held very close to the source and a very thin probe window is used to insure adequate detection. When allowed to enter the body,
Alpha emitters react with a chemical similarity to that of calcium. They become part of the bone structure and have been known to remain for
long periods of time. Some Alpha emitters are not attracted to the bones and accumulate in body organs ie; kidney, liver, lungs and spleen.
Given 12 volts and 1.2 kohms for 20 minutes, compute the circuit energy.
A. 144 joules
B. 144 millijoules
C. .144 KWH
D. 400 KWH
You Chose:
Joules Law: W (power in joules) = I2 (amps) x R (ohms) x t (time in seconds). Step 1: Calculate the current draw
Step 2: Calculate the power
Based on the Fletcher-Munson Contours chart above, which of the following will produce the same sound level as 70dB at 1000 hz?
A. 40 db, 1000 hz
B. 60 db, 5000 hz
C. 70 db, 5000 hz
D. 80 db, 100 hz
You Chose:
Both 70 db at 1000 hz and 70 db at 5000 hz intersect on the 70 phone line.
Regulatory changes have recently required the installation of a Fire Protection water tank to supply a booster pump on a high rise hotel. The
water tank will hold 5000 gallons of water. The load capacity of the reinforced top floor (roof) of this building is 3,750 pounds per square foot.
Applying a safety factor of 10, what is the minimum diameter of the tank to avoid overloading the roof?
A. 10 feet
B. 12 feet
C. 14 feet
D. 16 feet
You Chose:

Step 1: Determine total weight to be carried by roof
Step 2: Apply safety factor
Step 3: Determine minimum floor area that will support this weight
Step 4: Determine minimum diameter tank to create this area
Regulatory changes have recently required the installation of a Fire Protection water tank to supply a booster pump on a high rise hotel. The
water tank will hold 5000 gallons of water. The load capacity of the reinforced top floor (roof) of this building is 3,750 pounds per square foot.
Tank diameter is 12 feet. The building is located in close proximity to an active airport, and FAA regulations limit the height of towers, tanks,
antennas, etc., placed on the roof. How much additional height will the fire protection tank add to the building?
A. 4 feet
B. 5 feet
C. 6 feet
D. 8 feet
You Chose:
Step 1: Determine total volume of the required tank
Step 2: Determine height of tank specified
Compute the TWA concentration for the following measurements:

0800-0900 @ 400ppm
0900-1100 @ 600ppm
1100-1300 @10ppm
1300-1400 @100 ppm
1400-1600 @300 ppm
A. 200 ppm
B. 133 ppm
C. 113 ppm
D. 290 ppm
You Chose:

Which of the following field instruments would be the best choice to measure air velocity in the opening of a paint spray booth?
A. Rotating Vane Anemometer

B. Thermal Anemometer
C. Smoke tube
D. Pitot tube
You Chose:
The Thermal Anemometer would be the instrument of choice where the exhaust opening is large and the air velocities are low as in spray booths
or chemical hoods. The Thermal Anemometer is a fairly recent addition to the air measuring instrument inventory. The device has a heated
probe (usually 150 Degrees F) and senses velocity by the amount of heat removed from the probe. It is direct reading, very accurate and can be
used in low airflow conditions. It is also mildly resistant to particulate matter in the air stream. The rotating vane anemometer is useful for
measuring the airflow through large supply and exhaust openings where the air velocities are relatively high.
Ruthenium (Ru) has a half-life of 1 year. How long will it take for a 1600 milliCurie source to be reduced to 100 milliCurie?
A. 1 year
B. 2 years
C. 3 years
D. 4 years
You Chose:
Strength Time
1600 now
800 1 year
400 2 years
200 3 years
100 4 years
The half-value thickness of 147 pounds per cubic foot concrete is 2.7 inches for a cobalt-60 source. How thick does the shielding need to be to
reduce an 800 mR source to 200 mR exposure?
A. 2.7 inches
B. 5.4 inches
C. 10.8 inches
D. 1.85 inches
You Chose:
An employee that works in a manufacturing area where presumed asbestos containing material (PACM) or asbestos containing material (ACM)
is being used, requests information on PACM. The employee is entitled to:
A. MSDSs
B. Information is provided only for employees using ACM/PACM
C. Exposed employees and housekeeping staff who work in the area, must be provided training
D. Exposed employees who work in the area, must be provided training
You Chose:
According to 29 CFR 1910.1001: 1910.1001(j)(7)(i): The employer shall institute a training program for all employees who are exposed to
airborne concentrations of asbestos at or above the PEL and/or excursion limit and ensure their participation in the program. 1910.1001(j)(7)
(ii): Training shall be provided prior to or at the time of initial assignment and at least annually thereafter. 1910.1001(j)(7)(iv): The employer
shall also provide, at no cost to employees who perform housekeeping operations in an area which contains ACM or PACM, an asbestos
awareness training course, which shall at a minimum contain the following elements: health effects of asbestos, locations of ACM and PACM in
the building/facility, recognition of ACM and PACM damage and deterioration, requirements in this standard relating to housekeeping, and
proper response to fiber release episodes, to all employees who perform housekeeping work in areas where ACM and/or PACM is present.
Which of the following would be classified a Class "A" fire?

B. A Fire involving flammable liquids

C. A Fire involving combustible metals
D. A Fire involving live electrical equipment
You Chose:
Class A fires involve ordinary combustibles. Class B fires involve flammable or combustible liquids. Class C fires involve live electrical equipment.
Class D fires involve combustible metals. Examples of a class A extinguishing agent are monoammonium phosphate and ammonium phosphate.
A paint storage area with flammable paints in closed containers that is located adjacent to and communicates with a spray booth requires which
of the following types of electrical fixtures?
A. Class I, Div 1
B. Class I, Div 2
C. Class I, Div 3
D. Class II, Div 1
You Chose:
This area would require Class I, Div 2 electrical equipment in accordance with OSHA 1910.107. ALSO SEE NFPA 70, ART. 500. The following table
illustrates the classes and divisions of the NEC.
Which of the following statements best describes the term "multiplexing"?
A. the synthesis of signals for increased bandwidth

B. the transmission of small compressed packets of information
C. a method of decreasing bandwidth and signal to noise ratio
D. the transmission of multiple signals on a single path
You Chose:
Multiplexing is defined as the transmission of multiple signals over a single transmission path (eg: data and voice at the same time).
In a wet pipe fire sprinkler protection system, water is immediately available in the sprinkler piping in the event of fire. The sprinkler head fuse
is melted by heat from the fire and water is delivered to control or extinguish the ensuing fire. In a pre-action fire sprinkler system,
A. air under pressure is maintained in the system piping.

B. contains piping with open sprinklers.
C. the building occupant manually opens a deluge valve thereby taking the pre-action.
D. the sprinkler heads are connected to a rate of rise detector which assures a dual fault tolerance.
You Chose:
In a pre-action fire sprinkler system, the system piping is pressurized. The piping is charged through the activation of supplemental detection
systems located in the same area as the sprinklers. Water is then free to flow through the piping to the sprinkler heads. If a sprinkler head has
fused (through heat from a fire) water will be delivered to the fire. Pre-action systems are used when there is a danger of serious water damage
to the protected area. Calcium carbide combines with water to create the corrosive calcium hydroxide and liberates acetylene (ethyne).
Therefore it is not recommended that you use a water system with calcium carbide.
A combustible liquid is correctly identified by NFPA as one having a flash point___________?
A. at or above 140 Degrees F

B. at or above 100 Degrees F

C. at or above 200 Degrees F

D. at or below 70 Degrees F
You Chose:
Which of the following temperature ranges concerning fire sprinkler heads color coding is correct?
A. 100 Degrees Ceiling Temperature - Green

B. 150 Degrees Ceiling Temperature - White
C. 225 Degrees Ceiling Temperature - Orange
D. 300 Degrees Ceiling Temperature - Blue
You Chose:
NFPA 13 requires the use of the Hazen-Williams empirical formula for determining friction loss in hydraulic calculations that involve fire
sprinkler systems. Which of the following factors has the greatest impact in determining friction loss when using the Hazen-Williams formula?
A. Coefficient of roughness of the pipe

B. Quantity of fluid flowing
C. Internal pipe diameter
D. Hydraulic gradient
You Chose:
Discussion: One can readily determine from the formula that factor D is raised almost to the fifth power and would therefore have the greatest
impact on friction loss. That is, with steady state conditions, should the diameter double the friction loss will be reduced to about 1/32nd of the
original value.

According to the Hazen-Williams empirical formula, what result would doubling the diameter of sprinkler system piping have on the pressure
lost due to friction?
A. Pressure loss would increase 30 times

B. Pressure loss would be reduced about 97%
C. Pressure loss would be cut in half
D. Pressure loss would double
You Chose:
Step 1: Recall the basic Hazen-Williams formula
Step 2: Set all the variables equal to some value. In this case we chose 1.
Step 3: Cancel like quantities.

Step 4: Solve
Step 5: Double variable (d) and solve again.

Step 6: Express the reduction as a percentage.
A combustible gas meter reading of 30% for a methane concentration indicates the air to methane mixture is:
A. Ready to explode
B. Not explosive or toxic
C. Not explosive but toxic
D. Not toxic, but explosive
You Chose:
Methane is an odorless, colorless and tasteless gas that is nontoxic. When inhaled it acts as an asphyxiant, excluding oxygen from the lungs.
Concentrations of methane are a threat to life only by suffocation or by explosions. Methane is also the principal constituent of firedamp, the gas
found naturally in coal mines. The reading of 30% on the Combustible Gas Meter indicates that the concentration is below the Lower Explosive
Limit and not toxic.
During the inspection of a dry-pipe fire sprinkler system, the checklist calls for you to open the inspector test valve and time how long it takes
before water discharges. This item is based on an NFPA 13 requirement that dry systems must deliver water to the inspector's test pipe outlet in
not more than ________?
A. 3 minutes
B. 15 seconds
C. 1 minute
D. 30 seconds
You Chose:
NFPA 13 establishes the maximum size for dry-pipe systems at 500 gallons for gridded systems and 750 gallons for non-gridded systems.
However, these maximums can be exceeded if delivery of water to inspectors test pipe does not exceed 60 seconds. Many times to ensure rapid

delivery of water, "quick opening" devices are installed. These devices generally consist of accelerators, which cause the deluge or dry pipe
valve to cycle more rapidly or exhausters, which dump air more rapidly.
Class B fires involve flammable liquids or gases that could be under pressure. What would give you most concern when selecting a Class B fire
extinguisher?
A. Exposure to electrical equipment

B. Depth of flammable liquid
C. Location of fire exits
D. Type of fire detectors present
You Chose:
There are three general types of Class B liquid fires: (1)in liquids deeper than 1/4 inch (2)in liquids 1/4 inch or less deep, and (3) pressurized
flammable liquid or gas fires
The NFPA recognizes all of the following as methods of smoke management, except:
A. Airflow
B. Buoyancy
C. Compartmentation
D. Dispersion
You Chose:
Smoke management refers to the methods employed to modify smoke movement to the benefit of the evacuating occupants or the firefighters,
or to reduce property losses and damage. Airflow, buoyancy, compartmentation, dilution and pressurization are mechanisms of smoke
management that are utilized individually or in combination to reduce the harmful effects of a fire. Dispersion is related to the distribution of
water from a fire sprinkler head or of the agent from a fire extinguisher.
NFPA 101, Life Safety Code, requires emergency lighting to illuminate the means of egress in some occupancies (places of assembly, educational
buildings, health care facilities, etc). When required, these lights must provide not less than 1 footcandle for a period of 1 1/2 hours if the
normal lighting fails. What are the periodic testing requirements for these lights?
A. 30 second functional test every 30 days and 1½ hour test each year
B. 30 second functional test each month
C. 5 minute functional test every 30 days and 1½ hour test each year
D. 1½ hour functional test each year
You Chose:
NFPA 101, Chapter 31, states that a functional test shall be conducted on every required emergency lighting system at 30-day intervals for a
minimum of 30 seconds. An annual test shall be conducted for the 1 1/2 hour duration. Equipment shall be fully operational for the duration of
the test. Written records of visual inspections and tests shall be kept by the owner for inspection by the authority having jurisdiction. Exception:
Self-testing/self-diagnostic, battery-operated emergency lighting equipment that automatically performs a minimum 30-second test and
diagnostic routine at least once every 30 days and indicates failure by a status indicator shall be exempt from the 30-day functional test,
provided a visual inspection is performed at 30-day intervals.
During inspections of building sprinklers systems, often the system does not pass the inspections criteria. The leading cause of failure is?
A. Broken water pipes

B. Closed PIV
C. Electrical failure
D. Lack of pressure
You Chose:
The most common cause of building sprinkler system failure is that someone has closed the post-indicator valve (PIV) and failed to reopen it.
Which are single cellular organisms that can cause occupational illnesses?
A. Viruses
B. RNA
C. Protozoa
D. Bacteria
You Chose:
Bacteria are single-celled. Viruses do not have all the components of a cell, RNA (rubonucleic acid) is composed of organic compounds but are
not composed of cells, and protozoa are multi-cellular organisms and many are parasitic.
Compressed gas cylinders in storage must be separated from other combustible material by a barrier that is non-combustible, has a 30 minute
fire rating and is at least ____ feet high?

B. 5
C. 7
D. 10
You Chose:
According to 1910, the barrier must be 5 feet in height.
The effect of a neutral or irrelevant event in an experiment that is intended to produce the same reaction in a participant as if the event were of
importance is called?
A. side Effect
B. Placebo Effect
C. Hawthorne Effect
D. Theory of negative reward
You Chose:
An unplanned change in persons taking part in an experiment who know they are taking part in an experiment is called the Hawthorne Effect.
First recognized in a study of worker productivity in the Hawthorne plant of Western Electric Company.A physical change was made to the work
area, however the factor that caused the change, was the perception that management was trying to improve the work area.
Which of the following responsibilities is not assigned to the National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH)?
A. Research and identification of occupational safety/health hazards

B. Recommending changes to safety/health regulations
C. Training of safety/health personnel
D. Enforcement of occupational safety/public health standards within the regulated community
You Chose:
The National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH) is administratively located within the Center for Disease Control (CDC) that
reports to the Department of Health and Human Services (HHS). NIOSH was originally founded within the Department of Health, Education, and
Welfare that is now HHS, under the provisions of the OSHAct (1970). It has prime responsibility for research on the occupational health and
safety hazards and to develop criteria for dealing with toxic materials. NIOSH has the responsibility to identify hazards and recommend changes
in the regulations. It performs testing and certification of workers' personal protective equipment, mainly respirators. NIOSH has a very active
training grant program that supports university training throughout the country and conducts excellent courses at regional centers. NIOSH also
does workplace investigations under 42 CFR Part 85, largely to conduct epidemiological methods research and studies.
While preparing for a comprehensive survey you would like to acquire some structural details including the floor loading at a particular building
at one of your sites. You should?
A. Ask the plant superintendent to relay the information from the posted floor loading signs in the facility
B. Have your OHST evaluate the conditions when he visits the plant next week
C. Consult the published building plans or have a structural engineer conduct a structural analysis
D. Obtain a floor load handbook and evaluate any suspicious conditions when you visit the plant
You Chose:
Accurate data is a must when evaluating the floor loading in an industrial environment. If the data is not readily available from reliable sources
the best choice is to have a competent engineer perform a structural analysis. OSHA at 1910.22 states "In every building or other structure, or
part thereof, used for mercantile, business, industrial, or storage purposes, the loads approved by the building official shall be marked on plates
of approved design which shall be supplied and securely affixed by the owner of the building, or his duly authorized agent, in a conspicuous
place in each space to which they relate." "It shall be unlawful to place, or cause, or permit to be placed, on any floor or roof of a building or
other structure a load greater than that for which such floor or roof is approved by the building official".
SH&E professionals can work to ensure that the site of a new process facility meets all building codes. They can also help determine -
A. where to locate future facilities

B. the building design in size and type
C. the availability of local labor
D. the hazard to the local community
You Chose:
The safety, health and environmental professional duties are generally considered to include: safety; loss control; industrial hygiene;
environment. And their inputs should always be limited to their areas of expertise. As a part of the staff, the safety professional should work to
keep safety at the management level and can best perform their function if they work in an advisory capacity to assist the staff and
management personnel.
Your plant has a storm front approaching that has tornadic clouds. What actions do you take?
A. issue a severe weather alert

B. issue a severe weather watch
C. issue a severe weather notice
D. issue a severe weather warning

You Chose:
According to the National Weather Service, a tornado watch is when conditions are conducive to the development of tornadoes in and close to
the watch area. A tornado warning is when a tornado has actually been sighted by spotters or indicated on radar and is occurring or imminent in
the warning area. A severe thunderstorm watch is when conditions are conducive to the development of severe thunderstorms in and close to
the watch area. A severe thunderstorm warning is when a severe thunderstorm has actually been observed by spotters or indicated on radar,
and is occurring or imminent in the warning area. While tornadoes can still occur without a watch or warning being in effect, advances in the
science and technology have greatly increased the ability of meteorologists to provide advance notice of them. In an emergency resulting from
natural causes, the first consideration is to safeguard personnel and the system.
The pneumoconiosis that is caused by inhalation of iron oxide is called?
A. Anthracosis
B. Siderosis
C. Silicosis
D. Silicosiderosis
You Chose:
Which of the following best describes the effects of neutron radiation on the human body?
A. Neutrons cause the secondary release of protons

B. Neutrons change the structure of the body atoms
C. Neutron radiation ionizes the water in the body
D. Neutron radiation causes the release of secondary radiation in the body
You Chose:
Most of the damage in the human body from exposure to neutron radiation is due to the secondary release of gamma, beta, or alpha radiation
within the body. This secondary radiation causes damage in tissue. Determining the dose within the human body is difficult and depends on the
amount of neutrons absorbed and the energy distribution.
Which of the following best describes Carpal tunnel syndrome?
A. Elbow and shoulder swelling and inflammation

B. Inflammation of the channel in the wrist
C. Raynaud's syndrome of the hand and wrist
D. White finger
You Chose:
Carpal tunnel syndrome is defined as an injury or inflammation of the carpal tunnel located in the wrist. This injury is common among repetitive
motion workers. The median nerve is compressed resulting in numbness, tingling and sometimes pain in the fingers and wrist.
As one ages, there is a vascular and neural degeneration of the inner ear. This results in a decrease in hearing ability. This condition is called:
A. Sensorineural
B. Sociocusis
C. Presbycusis
D. Tinnitus
You Chose:
Presbycusis is hearing loss due to the normal process of aging.Sociocusis refers to hearing loss due to non-occupational noise sources such as:
household noise, tv, radio, traffic, etc. Tinnitus is ringing in the ears. Sensorineural is loss of hearing due to occupational exposure.
Which of the following factors will have the greatest impact on whether an employee will or will not work safely?
A. strength and endurance

B. recognition, attitude and team spirit
C. emotional, moral and physical factors
D. past experience and workplace design
You Chose:

discontent are company policy, interpersonal relationships and supervision. The best way to reduce injuries and property damage in the future
is to systematically reinforce positive employee actions and behavior.
The Behavior Based Safety Process is often displayed as a closed loop system that includes identifying critical behaviors, problem solving to
develop an Action Plan, measuring performance and evaluating for acceptable progress. What is the final step required to finish the loop?
A. nothing more is required, the loop is complete

B. management must now become involved in the process
C. development of employee committees to define the penalties for non-improvement
D. collection of accident and injury data for inclusion into performance reports
You Chose:
According to "The Behavior-Based Safety Process" by Krause, Hidley and Hodson, the process is as shown below. If you have improvement at an
acceptable rate, then the process is working, if your rate is unacceptable, then you need to modify your Action Plan.
The behavioral approach uses operational definitions, measurements and feedback on safety related issues and the key component to improve
safety is to set goals.
Motivation to perform the job safely is a primary concern to the Safety and Health Professional. Which of the following is the highest priority for
the typical employee?
A. dictated safety standards

B. generic safety statement “BE SAFE”
C. perceived control over the risk
D. make examples of individuals that violate the safety standards
You Chose:
Motivation in safety is highly situational specific, which means that situational or behavior-specific campaigns (e.g. "don't drink and drive") are
more likely to have an impact than general campaigns (e.g. "BE SAFE"). However, behavior change is likely to be short lived if it is unsupported
or sustained by intrinsic beliefs. People are motivated to take risks as well as avoid risk so long as they perceive that they have some control
over the risk.
Most motor vehicle collisions are caused by using improper driving procedures; only a small percentage are the result of mechanical failure. How
can a company best control driver error?
A. Monthly safety meetings

B. Substance abuse testing of all drivers
C. Hiring only drivers under 40 years of age
D. Implementing a program of driver selection, training and supervision
You Chose:
According to the NSC, "Companies can control driver error by introducing a program of driver selection, training and supervision, while vehicle
failure can be reduced by implementing a preventive maintenance program."
A direct reading instrument indicates a concentration of 2.5% for a hazardous material that has a Permissible Exposure Limit (PEL) of 250 ppm
and an Immediately Dangerous to Life and Health (IDLH) of 2500 ppm and a Lower Explosive Limit (LEL) of 25,000 ppm. You have been
assigned the task of respirator selection for entry into this atmosphere. Which of the following statements is the most correct?
A. The instrument shows a reading in excess of the PEL and IDLH

B. The instrument shows a reading below the PEL, IDLH and LEL

C. The direct reading instrument indicates a concentration below the LEL but above the IDLH and PEL
D. The instrument shows a reading equal to the LEL, which is above the IDLH and PEL
You Chose:
Convert percent to ppm and compare to LEL. From the comparison it is obvious that the concentration is above both the PEL and the IDLH but
equal to the LEL.
Which of the following statements is most correct concerning the affliction of frostbite?
A. Causes uncontrolled shivering

B. Frostbitten skin is soft and puffy and darker than normal
C. The first symptoms are a "pins and needles" sensation followed by numbness
D. Characteristics by irregular heartbeat and respiration
You Chose:
The symptoms of frostbite are a "pins and needles" sensation followed by numbness. Frostbitten skin is hard, pale, cold and has no feeling.
When the skin is thawed out, it becomes red and very painful. Severe cases may blister and gangrene and results in hard frozen skin, sometimes
all the way to bone. Answer selections A, B and D are all symptoms of hypothermia.
White fingers and numbness could be associated with which of the following diseases?
A. Siderosis
B. Raynaud's Syndrome
C. Lead Poisoning
D. Tetanus
You Chose:
A combination of cold and vibration often causes Raynaud's phenomenon or traumatic vasospastic disease. This is a condition, usually of the
fingers and hands, characterized by pallor caused by a greatly diminished blood supply resulting from spasm of the blood vessel walls. In
addition to white fingers, the victim may also experience numbness of the affected area. The disease is most prevalent among those who work
with vibrating machinery in the cold. Typical occupations are chain saw operators, jackhammer operators, tamping tool operators, etc.
When an oxidizer is released it turns into a:
A. reduction reaction
B. reoxidation reaction
C. rate of reaction
D. oxidation-reduction or redox reaction
You Chose:

oxygen. What actually occurs is the loss of electrons from the fuel. Oxidation is a chemical process in which one or more electrons are lost.
Oxidation is always accompanied by another process called reduction. Therefore, the reactions are called oxidation-reduction or redox reactions.
In 1985, the National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH) convened an ad hoc committee of experts who reviewed the current
literature on lifting, recommended criteria for defining lifting capacity and in 1991 developed a revised lifting equation. The NIOSH 1991 lifting
equation contains all of the following except?
A. A coupling multiplier
B. A frequency multiplier
C. A distance multiplier
D. A speed multiplier
You Chose:
Based on the 1991 NIOSH lifting formula, what is the Recommended Weight Limit (RWL) for the following conditions: Weight to be lifted = 4
pounds, Distance between body and hand grip on object to be lifted = 16 inches, Vertical position at the beginning of the lift = 42 inches,
Vertical position at end of the lift = 28 inches, Frequency of lift = 10 times a minute for eight hours. Note: Hand coupling is fair and the job
requires a twist from the "eyes front" position of 52?.
A. 0.23 lbs
B. 2.98 lbs
C. 4.01 lbs
D. 30.81 lbs
You Chose:
What is the RWL given the following conditions: Weight to be lifted = 12 kg, Distance between body and hand grip on object to be lifted = 36
cm, Vertical position at the beginning of the lift = 64 cm, Vertical position at end of the lift = 20 cm, Frequency of lift = once every 5 minutes for
3 hours. Note: Hand coupling is good and this job does not require any twisting movement.
A. 6.3 kg
B. 7.7 kg
C. 10.4 kg
D. 12.1 kg
You Chose:

Calculator entry: 23 x (25 / 36) x (1 - .003 x 11) (.82 + 4.5 / 44) x (1 - .0032 x 0) x .85 x 1
Weight to be lifted = 12 kg, Distance between body and hand grip on object to be lifted = 36 cm, Vertical position at the beginning of the lift =
64 cm, Vertical position at end of the lift = 20 cm, Frequency of lift = once every 5 minutes for 3 hours. Note: Hand coupling is good and this job
does not require any twisting movement. If the recommended weight limit is 12.1 kg, what is the Lifting Index for the conditions cited above?
A. 0.526
B. 0.992
C. 1.008
D. 1.901
You Chose:
Which of the following defines the term CLI as used in the professional practice of ergonomics?
A. Composite Lifting Index

B. Controlled Lifting Indices
C. Coordinated Lifting Indicator
D. Coupling Lifting Index
You Chose:
The Composite Lifting Index (CLI) is the term used in the revised NIOSH Lifting Equation to denote the overall lifting index for a multi-task
manual lifting job. The multi-task procedure is quite complicated and involves calculation of the Frequency-Independent Recommended Weight
Limit (FIRWL), the Single-Task Recommended Weight Limit \tab (STRWL), the Frequency-Independent Lifting Index (FILI) and the Single-Task
Lifting Index (STLI) for each task.
The NFPA standard dealing with "Flammable and Combustible Liquids" is?
A. NFPA 10
B. NFPA 13
C. NFPA 30
D. NFPA 70
You Chose:
NFPA 10, is the Standard for Portable Fire Extinguishers. NFPA 13 deals with the installation of sprinklers, NFPA 30 is the Flammable and
Combustible Liquids Code and NFPA 70 is the National Electrical Code.
All of the following concerning flammable inside storage areas are true except? Inside storage locations must be provided with:
A. A clear aisle at least 22 inches wide

B. A raised 4 inch sill
C. Self-closing fire doors
D. Either gravity or mechanical exhaust system
You Chose:
Storage using inside storage rooms must normally comply with NFPA 30 which requires that every inside storage room be equipped with one
clear aisle at least three feet wide, not 22 inches as specified in answer selection "A". The standard also requires a raised 4 inch sill to prevent
run off of any spilled material, self-closing fire doors and some type of exhaust system. The minimum width of an exit access in most cases in
new business construction is 36 inches.

Fires in residential households usually generate large amounts of heat and smoke. Given this fact, which of the following is the most effective
fire detector for a residential occupancy?
A. UV
B. Flame
C. IR
D. Photoelectric
You Chose:
The most common elements of a fire that can be detected are heat, smoke and light radiation. Fire detectors are grouped into four categories:
Heat, Smoke, Gas-sensing and Flame. The table below lists the types of detectors in each category.
Actual fire tests in residential households have shown measurable amounts of smoke precede measurable amounts of heat in almost all cases.
In the other cases, the smoke and heat appeared almost simultaneously. Therefore, a smoke detector would be the most effective choice. Of the
choices given, only the photoelectric device is a smoke detector. Smoke detectors have a faster response time than heat detectors. They are
better suited than heat detectors to protect large open spaces because smoke does not dissipate as rapidly as heat. Smoke detectors are
sensitive to the products of combustion from the fire.
Which of the following would be thought of as an over-current device?
A. Electrical capacitor, with discharge resistor

B. Step-up transformer
C. Pendant push button control station, with metal messenger
D. Expulsion fuse
You Chose:
The basic overcurrent devices are the fuse and circuit breaker. They should be installed in every circuit to interrupt the current flow when it
exceeds the safe capacity of the conductors. An expulsion fuse is intended for use in central distribution stations, in generation plants, or on
overhead lines. They are designed such that when they blow, the gases generated aid in quenching the arc.
What is the maximum temperature, which steel chain and fiber core wire rope slings can be exposed to before OSHA requires them to be taken
out of service?
A. 1,000 Deg F for chains and 200 Deg F for wire rope
B. 600 Deg F for chains and 120 Deg F for wire rope
C. 800 Deg F for chains and 200 Deg F for wire rope
D. 600 Deg F for chains and 180 Deg F for wire rope
You Chose:
OSHA 1910.184 requires alloy steel chain slings be permanently removed from service if they are heated above 1000 degrees F. The standard
also requires fiber core wire rope slings to be permanently removed from service if they have been exposed to temperatures in excess of 200
degrees F.
A fixed ladder on a retail mercantile store is equipped with a cage. To be in full compliance with the law, the cage must extend to within
_________ feet of the ground.
A. 6 feet
B. 8 feet
C. 10 feet
D. 12 feet
You Chose:
Cages on fixed ladders should extend down to within 8 feet of the ground to prevent any fall from a distance above 8 feet.

The best way to inspect chains during a semi-annual inspection is to:
A. Check links with a caliper and compare at least 10 links

B. Check for cracks in end links
C. Compare twist on end sections
D. Perform a detailed link-by-link inspection of entire chain
You Chose:
Chain inspections should be done visually in an attempt to detect any elongation or other defect. This is best accomplished with a link-by-link
inspection. Overall measurements or caliper readings of a section are often misleading because not all links will be affected or damaged.
How many clips are required to construct an eye in a one-half inch wire rope?
A. 3 clips with the U-bolts on the live end

B. 4 clips with the U-bolts on the live end
C. 3 clips with the U-bolts on the dead end
D. 4 clips with the U-bolts on the dead end
You Chose:
Three clips are required and the U-bolt or U-clip always goes on the dead end. The most common method of making a loop or eye in a wire rope
involves the use of cable or "Crosby" clips. The Crosby clip consists of a U-bolt and saddle and if used correctly produces an excellent
connection. However, even one loose or incorrectly applied clip reduces the efficiency of the connection by as much as 50%. The U-bolt should
always be installed bearing on the dead end of the rope with the saddle bearing on the long or live end of the rope. This is because the U-bolt
when tightened, dents and damages the wire rope. All clips should be installed in the same manner. Additionally, the ridges or corrugation in the
saddles must match the lay of the rope ie; right lay or left lay. Otherwise the live end of the rope will also be damaged resulting in broken and
cut strands. The number of clips required usually ranges from 3 to 7 depending on material and size of the wire rope.
Which of the following provides the best protection when dealing with hoisting and rigging equipment?
A. Chains, slings and ropes should be inspected before each job

B. Hoisting and lifting equipment should be inspected daily
C. A thorough inspection of all chains in use shall be made every 18 months
D. The use of wire rope that has been bird caged is permitted for lifting if provided with crosby clamps every six inches
You Chose:
Inspection of hoisting and rigging equipment before each job provides the greatest protection from use of defective equipment. Selection "B" is
a good practice, however not as protective as choice "A". The frequency on selection "C" should be dependent on use, however in no case more
than 12 months. Selection "D" is incorrect, birdcaged wire rope should be removed from service.
You are the safety director overseeing a large construction site where an excavation is made in Type A soil using a simple slope for protection.
The excavation will be open less than 24 hours and is 10 feet in depth. Which of the following best describes the requirements of OSHA
concerning the horizontal to vertical ratio of the slope?
A. Maximum allowable slope is ½:1

B. Maximum allowable slope is ¾:1
C. Maximum allowable slope is 1½:1
D. Maximum allowable slope is 3:1
You Chose:

A trench is being cut by a subcontractor at one of your plants, the excavation will be made in cohesive soil with less than 0.5 tsf unconfined
compressive strength and will use a simple slope for protection of workers. The excavation will be open for greater than 36 hours and is 14 feet
in depth. Which of the following best describes the requirements of OSHA concerning the horizontal to vertical ratio of the slope?
A. Maximum allowable slope is 63 Deg

B. Maximum allowable slope is 53 Deg
C. Maximum allowable slope is 34 Deg
D. Maximum allowable slope is 18 Deg
You Chose:
OSHA 1926, Subpart P, Appendix B requires an excavation in Type C soil that is 20 feet or less in depth to have a maximum allowable slope of 1
1/2:1.
Which of the following is the most correct concerning playground injuries to children? Most playground injuries are caused by:
A. Unsafe equipment and pinch points

B. Caught under or in-between
C. Falls to ground level
D. Wear and tear equipment failure
You Chose:
Unfortunately, it is estimated that 140,000 children nationwide will be injured from playground equipment this year. In fact, of all serious
playground injuries, 9 out of 10 are the result of falls - causing head and/or internal injuries, fractures, and in some cases, even death. A
Consumer Product Safety Commission study of playground equipment-related injuries treated in U.S. hospital emergency rooms indicated that
the majority resulted from falls from equipment. These were primarily falls to the ground surface below the equipment rather than from one
part of the equipment to another part. Since the primary cause of injuries is falls to the surface, the properties of the surface will impact the
extent of the injuries.
Which of the following protective signaling (fire alarm) systems does not notify the local Fire Department in the event of an alarm condition?
A. Auxiliary
B. Remote
C. Local
D. Proprietary
You Chose:
The Local fire alarm system is intended to warn the local residents and usually only sounds an evacuation alarm. It does not normally ring in the
fire protection service. The Auxiliary system is a local alarm with the added feature of a circuit to the municipal fire alarm system (usually
through a local master alarm box). The Remote alarm system sends a signal to a remote location (usually manned 24 hrs a day) who in turn
notifies the local fire protection agency. The Proprietary system is widely used in commercial occupancies. The term proprietary indicates that
the alarm is received by someone with proprietary interest in the property as well as the fire department. This system coupled with a central
alarm can allow on-site activation of protective devices ie; the closing of doors, vents for smoke control, the control of elevators, startup of
ventilators, etc.

explosive limit?
A. 10%
B. 15%
C. 20%
D. 25%
You Chose:
OSHA at 1910.94(c)(6)(ii) states "the total air volume exhausted through a spray booth shall be such as to dilute solvent vapor to at least 25
percent of the lower explosive limit of the solvent being sprayed." The standard then gives an example of the calculation for a typical solvent.
What color pairs are most predominant in color blindness?
A. red-green
B. red-blue
C. green-blue
D. red-yellow
You Chose:
People with normal cones and light sensitive pigment (trichromasy) are able to see all the different colors and subtle mixtures of them by using
cones sensitive to one of three wavelength of light - red, green, and blue. A mild color deficiency is present when one or more of the three cones
light sensitive pigments are not quite right and their peak sensitivity is shifted. Approximately 5% to 8% of the men and 0.5% of the women of
the world are born colorblind. That's as high as one out of twelve men and one out of two hundred women. People who are protans (red weak)
and deutans (green weak) comprise 99% of this group.
What principle is employed to identify the "vital few", whether customers, customer needs, product features, or inputs to help assure that
resources and attention is concentrated where they will do the most good?
A. Hystograph Principle
B. Juran Principle
C. Pareto Principle
D. Smith Principle
You Chose:
This is the definition of the Pareto Principle, sometimes referred to as the 80-20 rule that indicates that 80% of the problems come from 20% of
the operations. It is also true that 20% of the corrective actions and risk reduction actions can mitigate 80% of the risk, when the risk are
understood.
Your plant medical staff has diagnosed a worker within your plant with mesothelioma, which of the following agents would you suspect of
causing this condition?
A. Carbon Monoxide
B. Nitrous Oxide
C. Toluene
D. Chrysotile
You Chose:
Some people exposed in the industrial environment to asbestos have developed a cancer called mesothelioma. Mesothelioma affects the
mesothelial tissue used by the body for linings or sacs. These linings/sacs are found in the body's pulmonary and abdominal cavities. Persons
known to develop these types of cancers include insulation workers who inhale gross amounts of asbestos, especially chrysotile.
Untrained personnel who are unfamiliar with the product or the hazards involved but who want to help in an emergency is a reason why the
latches on the outside of aircraft to release cockpit canopies are marked. Which of the following is not true about such devices?
A. Such devices must be foolproof in an emergency

B. They require little physical effort to operate
C. They can be easy to operate when only a few words of instruction are provided
D. They must be labeled in multiple languages
You Chose:
In any emergency there is a possibility that the person (or persons) involved may not be able to escape under his/her own resources. Provisions
must be made for rescue by other personnel, if the need should arise. Rescues may be attempted by: 1) Persons familiar with the product and
its operation, hazards, and emergency devices. 2) Personnel familiar with the hazards in general but not the specific equipment. 3) Untrained
personnel who are unfamiliar with the product or the hazards involved but want to help.
_________ are gamma globulin proteins that are found in blood and are used by the immune system to identify and neutralize foreign objects,
such as bacteria and viruses.
A. Antibodies
B. White blood cells
C. Pathogens
D. Chromosomes

You Chose:
Antibodies are the plasma proteins that are capable of combining chemically with the specific antigens that introduced their formation. An
antibody is any of the body globulins that combine specifically with antigens to neutralize toxins, agglutinate bacteria or cells, and precipitate
soluble antigens.
When placarding a vehicle carrying hazardous materials, in addition to the primary hazard class, the material may have a subsidiary hazard
classification. If posting a subsidiary placard, which of the following is true?
A. placards are identical in design

B. subsidiary placards are not used
C. the subsidiary placard must be smaller than the primary
D. the subsidiary placard must display the hazard class or the division number
You Chose:
172.519 (4)General specifications for placards.

For a placard corresponding to the primary or subsidiary hazard class of a material, the hazard class or division number must be displayed in the
lower corner of the placard. However, a permanently affixed subsidiary placard meeting the specifications of this section which were in effect on
October 1, 2001, (such as, a placard without the hazard class or division number displayed in the lower corner of the placard) and which was
installed prior to September 30, 2001, may continue to be used as a subsidiary placard in domestic transportation by rail or highway, provided
the color tolerances are maintained and are in accordance with the display requirements in this subchapter. Stocks of non-permanently affixed
subsidiary placards in compliance with the requirements in effect on September 30, 2001, may continue to be used in domestic transportation
by rail or highway until October 1, 2005, or until current stocks
Which of the following correctly identifies an oxidizer placard?
A. Background yellow, information black

B. Lower half black, upper half white
C. Lower part white, upper triangle yellow
D. Background red, information white/black
You Chose:
Answer B is the color for a corrosive sign or placard. Answer C is the color for a radioactive sign or placard. Answer D is the color for a
combustible sign or placard.
Which of the following is incorrect when posting a Danger tag?
A. The signal word shall be readable at a minimum distance of 7 feet or greater.

B. The message shall be presented in text or pictographs or both.
C. The tags shall be affixed as close as possible to the hazard.
D. Employees must be informed as to the meaning of the signs.
You Chose:
The required difference for readability is "5" feet. The use of both written text and pictographs will ensure understanding in a culturally diverse
work force. Additionally, signs should be in positive terms, should be in concise easy to read terms, warn against potential hazards and signs for
the same type of situation should not vary in design at the same location.
Generally industrial effluents are monitored for:
A. Chlorine, PH, metals, temperature

B. BOD, TSS, PH, LANL
C. Enzymes, PH, TSS
D. BOD, TSS, metals, temperature
You Chose:
Most effluents are monitored for Biochemical Oxygen Demand, Total Suspended Solids, the amount of metal content and temperature.
In ventilation hood design, the function of the slot in a slot hood is to:
A. Increase capture velocity

B. Provide greater static pressure per horsepower
C. Obtain proper air distribution
D. Decrease capture velocity
You Chose:
Slot hoods are commonly used to provide uniform exhaust airflow, such as over the surface of a tank. Points to remember:
A.) The function of the slot is solely to obtain proper air distribution.
B.) Slot velocity does not contribute to capture velocity.
C.) The calculation of capture velocity involves exhaust volume and slot length, not slot velocity.

The pressure exerted by a volatile liquid at any given temperature under any equilibrium condition is the definition of which of the following?
A. Vapor Pressure
B. Partial Pressure
C. Universal Fluid Pressure (UFP)
D. Pressure of equilibrium
You Chose:
Vapor pressure is defined as the pressure exerted by the vapor that is in equilibrium with the liquid at a given temperature. It is the ability of
the liquid to evaporate or give off vapors.
Which of the following statements is most correct?
A. There is no difference between static friction force and kinetic friction force
B. Surface area is used in the determination of friction forces
C. Kinetic friction does not depend on speed
D. Normal force is used in the calculation of static friction
You Chose:
Consider a box being pushed by a force as shown here. At first, the block does not move; it stays in equilibrium. It is being opposed by another
force, that of static friction. Static friction is the result of the contact of the block and the surface on which it rests. As you continue to apply
more force, the block starts to move; the block is now "not in equilibrium". When we apply just enough force to break out of the static condition,
we will have reached the limit of static friction. Once the block is in motion, it can be kept in motion by a smaller force than was required to
start movement; this is known as kinetic friction. Static friction is the force parallel to the surface of contact when there is no motion between
the two surfaces; kinetic friction is the force parallel to the surface of contact when there is motion between the two surfaces. Both static and
kinetic friction depend heavily on the surface of the two materials, ie; a rough surface would have a higher coefficient
If a substance has an explosive range of 2.5 to 25% what does this tell you about the LEL?
A. 25,000 PPM is the LEL

B. 250,000 PPM is the LEL
C. 2,500 PPM is the LEL
D. LEL has nothing to do with explosive range
You Chose:
Which of the following fails to correctly identify a characteristic of carbon disulfide CS2?
A. A systemic poison
B. Can be absorbed through the skin
C. Used as a solvent, disinfectant and insecticide
D. Non-flammable
You Chose:
Carbon disulfide is an extremely flammable liquid. It has a flash point of -22o F, an autoignition temperature of 120 degrees F. The flammable
range of CS2 extends from 1% to 44% by volume. It is a major fire and explosion hazard that has been ignited by hot light bulbs, steam lines,
static electricity, etc. It is widely used as a solvent for waxes, resins and rubbers. It is used for desorbing contaminants from sorbent tubes and
in the manufacture of rayon, cellophane and carbon tetrachloride. The health hazards are widely known and as of this writing the NIOSH
exposure limit is 1 ppm with STEL of 10 ppm and an IDLH of 500 ppm.
In some combustible gas meters, an electrical circuit consisting of a series of resistors is used to measure the mixture of combustible gas to air.
The resistors are balanced and one leg of the circuit, called a hot wire, is exposed to the suspect atmosphere. If a combustible mixture is
present, a catalytic combustion increases the resistance of the wire and causes an imbalance. The circuit is called:
A. Combustible Resistor Circuit (CRC)

B. Wheatstone Bridge
C. Combustible Balancing Circuit
D. Hot Wire Detector (HWT)
You Chose:
The question describes a Wheatstone Bridge electrical circuit.
If one drop of solution contains 200 billion silver atoms, how many drops of solution are needed to make a pound of silver? Note: The molecular

weight of silver is 108.
A. 1.27 x 10(13th)
B. 2.27 x 10(23rd)
C. 6.024 x 10(23rd)
D. 1.27 x 10(11th)
You Chose:
Using Avogadro's number of 6.024 x 1023 atoms per gr-mole. The GMW or GAW (Gram Atomic Weight) of silver is 108 grams, then:
Which of the following equations is balanced?
A. N2H4 + 2H2O2 -------> 4H2O + N2

B. N2H4 + 2H2O2 -------> 6H2O + N2
C. N2H4 + 2H2O2 -------> 4H2O + 2N2
D. N2H4 + 2H2O2 -------> 4H2O + 4N2
You Chose:
Only the first equation is balanced and represents the mixture of two substances, which explode on contact. The hypergolic reaction shown is
that of Hydrazine and Hydrogen Peroxide.
The NFPA defines a means of Egress as a continuous path of travel from within a building to the outside. This continuous path consists of all of
the following parts except?
A. The Exit access

B. The Exit
C. The Exit discharge
D. The Exit doorway
You Chose:
The "Life Safety Code" includes the term exit in an overall definition of means of egress. A means of egress is a continuous path of travel from
any point in a building or structure to the open air outside at ground level and consists of three separate and distinct parts: (1) the way of exit
access; (2) the exit; and (3) the means of discharge from the exit.
Organic Peroxides are an important group of chemicals widely used in the plastics industry, in the milling industry and the chemical and drug
industry. Which of the following classes of organic chemicals form potentially explosive peroxides?
A. Ethers
B. Anhydrides
C. Alkyds
D. Aniline
You Chose:
During storage, practically all ethers form ether peroxides. When the ether peroxide mixture is heated or concentrated, the peroxide may
detonate. Isopropyl ether is believed to be considerably more susceptible to peroxide formation than other ethers. These peroxides can
sometimes be seen as crystal growth in the ether solution.
According to the Life Safety Code, all of the following are true concerning exit doors except?
A. Doors should be properly marked

B. Doors should swing in the direction of exit
C. Doors can be held open if equipped by fusible links
D. Doors cannot be locked
You Chose:
The Life Safety Code requires that exit doors be kept normally closed to serve their function of stopping the spread of smoke, or if open, must be
closed immediately in case of fire. Ordinary fusible link-operated devices to close doors in case of fire are designed to close in time to stop the
spread of fire, but do not operate in time to stop the spread of smoke. At relatively low temperatures, the smoke accumulation could continue
with fatal effects.

three main classes of occupancy in the Sprinkler Standard. Which of the following correctly lists these three classes?
A. Low hazard, Ordinary Hazard and High Hazard

B. Low hazard, High Hazard and Ultra High Hazard
C. Low hazard, Ordinary Hazard and Extra Hazard
D. Class A, Class B and Class C
You Chose:
The NFPA has three main classifications for occupancy.
The 1947 Texas City disaster that took over 460 lives and injured over 600 was caused by:
A. Nitrate mixing with water

B. Ammonium nitrate mixing with oil
C. Ionizing radiation
D. Fuel oil mixing with wet wheat
You Chose:
One of the worst industrial accidents of all time occurred at Texas City when ammonium nitrate mixed with oil and caused a series of explosions
and fires.
Which of the following concerning dilution ventilation is correct? Dilution ventilation is used to:
A. Control a contaminant at its source

B. Control fumes from lead fusing
C. Control low toxicity vapors
D. Control asbestos fibers
You Chose:
Dilution ventilation lowers the concentration of a contaminant by adding air to the general work area. Since the air is added to the general work
area it will not effectively control exposure to a toxic or highly toxic substance used in a specific location. Dilution ventilation cost more than
local exhaust ventilation and is less efficient because it has to handle more air.
Which of the following classes of firefighting standpipe systems is designed to be used only by fire departments?
A. Class I
B. Class II
C. Class III
D. Combined
You Chose:
There are generally considered to be four classes of standpipe and hose systems.
Class I systems utilizing 2 1/2 inch hose with 65 psi residual pressure (at the hydraulically most remote connection) are designed to be used by
trained fire departments.
Class II systems utilizing 1 1/2 inch hose are designed to be used by the building occupants for "first-aid" firefighting.
Class III systems have the features of both Class I & II and are equipped with both 2 1/2 and 1 1/2 inch hose or fittings for both.
Combined systems are Class I or III systems designed in connection with a sprinkler system.

There is a great deal of controversy within the fire service and within the safety community concerning standpipe systems. The advent of fog
nozzles for firefighting has caused the pressure ratings to increase in most cases to 100 psi or greater.
Which of the following is true concerning explosive equipment? Explosive proof equipment is allowed to operate in a flammable or explosive
atmosphere because it is capable of:
A. Containing internal explosions

B. Not producing sparks under any condition
C. Operating below the auto ignition temperature
D. Shutting down the equipment serviced in an emergency
You Chose:
Most experts agree that Not producing Sparks under any condition is the best option.
NFPA 20 details performance criteria for the installation of fire fighting booster pumps. Any new industrial fire pump with the U.L. or FM label
will comply with this standard. Which of the following statements is most correct concerning flow rates and pressures?
A. The pump must develop 150% of rated pressure at churn without cavitating
B. The pump must deliver 150% flow at 65% pressure
C. The pump must deliver 150% pressure at 100% flow
D. The pump must deliver 150% pressure at rated flow
You Chose:
A new industrial fire pump must be capable of performing to three test criteria.
the pump cannot develop more than 140% of its rated pressure at shutoff or churn (working against a closed system)
the pump must deliver rated flow at rated pressure
the pump must deliver 150% of rated flow at 65% of rated pressure. NFPA 20 requires an annual flow test of all fire fighting booster pumps.
A flammable liquid with a flash point of 50?F and a boiling point of 110?F would be classified by the NFPA as a:
A. Class I liquid
B. Class IA liquid
C. Class IB liquid
D. Class II liquid
You Chose:
Flammable and combustible liquids are subdivided into classes as shown below (taken from NFPA 30 and 321, Basic Classification of Flammable
and Combustible Liquids).
The hoods on grinders and cutting wheels establish the platform for a tongue guard that must be placed within 1/4 inch of the periphery of the
wheel at all times. The hood also serves several other purposes including:
A. Removal of dust and dirt generated by the operation

B. Covering at least 85% of the wheel
C. Providing protection from falling into the wheel
D. Removal of particles and shielding operator from hazard if wheel should break
You Chose:
Hoods on grinding and cutting operations serve a dual function; they protect the worker from the hazards of a bursting wheel, and provide for
removal of the dirt, dust and material generated during grinding or cutting operations.

A. Average quality level

B. Acceptable quality level
C. Abnormal quality level
D. Acceptable quantity level
You Chose:
Acceptable Quality Level (AQL). When a continuous series of lots is considered, the AQL is the quality level, which, for the purposes of sampling
inspection, is the limit of a satisfactory process average. Reference MIL-STD-105.
Which of the following is the most correct concerning the comparison of morbidity and mortality data in epidemiological study reporting?
A. Data is compared to World Mortality Data Bank figures

B. Morbidity data is sometimes linked with etiological data
C. The variable of age is adjusted with a SMR (Standard Mortality Ratio)
D. Cross-sectional studies are allowed to use (WDR) World Death Rates for comparison
You Chose:
Each of the epidemiological studies provides a comparison with a control group, which is most often standardized data that is collected
throughout the region or country. The SMR (Standardized Mortality Ratio) provides an adjustment for age in the data. The concept is often
contested due to the different exposures experienced by the various age groups.
Employees have experienced several slips and falls in a newly constructed area in your plant. This has been occurring for several weeks and you
have finally corrected the problem by installing skid resistant material on the walkways. This problem should have been discovered and
corrected;
A. After the first employee slipped

B. By the insurance "Safety Expert"
C. By maintenance
D. During review of the building design plans
You Chose:
Many accident producing situations can be discovered during the design review stages of construction thus reducing the time required to
prevent mishaps.
The acronym LTPD stands for:
A. Lab Tested Permissible Defect

B. Lot Total Percent Defective
C. Lot Total Permissible Defect
D. Lab Total Percent Defective
You Chose:
Lot Total Percent Defective or the preferred term Lot Tolerance Percent Defective is a term used in conjunction with sampling strategies. More
information on strategies and terms relating to quality procedures for inspection may be obtained from MIL-STD-105 or the civilian version
ANSI/ASQC Z1.4.
Which of the following would not be required in an OSHA mandated hearing conservation program?
A. Workers must be provided with hearing protection

B. Workers must be trained and retrained annually
C. Given an audiogram within 6 months
D. Workers must be given time off to protect hearing
You Chose:
The OSHA requirements include provisions for insuring that the employees are provided hearing protection and given a baseline hearing test
(audiogram), in most cases the audiogram is required within 6 months. However, the requirement for removal of personnel from the industrial
environment in order to protect hearing, is only after a hearing threshold shift is detected. When issuing hearing protection for the first time to
an employee, you should ensure the employee knows when to use it and how to wear it.
If variations in noise levels are occurring at a rate more often than once per second, the noise is considered ________ under OSHA's noise
standard.
A. Impulse
B. Impact
C. Continuous
D. A and B above
You Chose:

sound. Ref. OSHA 29 CFR 1910.95.
Are excursions above the Threshold Limit Value (TLV) permitted?
A. Only if below TLV-C

B. Yes if not by more than 15%
C. Yes if not by more than 10%
D. NO
You Chose:
Excursions above the TLV are permitted provided that they are compensated by equivalent excursions below the TLV-TWA during the workday.
The relationship between the TLV and the permissible excursion is not a hard and fast rule and in certain cases may not apply. The amount by
which the TLVs may be exceeded for short periods without injury to health depends upon a number of factors such as the nature of the
contaminant, whether very high concentrations, even for short periods, produce acute poisoning, whether the effects are cumulative, the
frequency with which high concentrations occur and the duration of such periods. The TLV-C (ceiling) should not be exceeded at any time during
the work exposure.
Which of the following noise control barriers represents the most effective design?
A. Baffles
B. Partial enclosure
C. Airtight enclosure
D. Absorbent material
You Chose:
Airtight enclosures are the best choice for the noise protection. It is important to note that any small leak can cause significant noise
penetration thru the barrier. Therefore, it is advisable to design enclosures to keep leaks to the lowest level possible.
In the design of a ventilation system, which of the following operations would require the greatest capture velocity?
A. Evaporation from open surface tanks

B. Spray booths
C. Welding
D. Grinding
You Chose:
Grinding operations create large amounts of contaminants at very high initial velocities, thus demanding higher capture velocities to secure the
contaminates. All of the other operations listed generate contaminants with low velocities.
Which of the following is a characteristic of heat stroke?
A. Lowered body temperature

B. Elevated body temperature
C. Normal body temperature
D. Profuse sweating
You Chose:
The symptoms of heat stroke include an elevated temperature and dry skin (not sweaty). Syncope is synonymous with partial or full loss of
consciousness due to overexposure to heat.
Numbness of the fingers could be associated with which of the following diseases?
A. Siderosis
B. Raynaud's Syndrome
C. Lead Poisoning
D. Tetanus
You Chose:
A combination of cold and vibration often causes Raynaud's phenomenon or traumatic vasospastic disease. This is a condition, usually of the
fingers and hands, characterized by pallor caused by a greatly diminished blood supply resulting from spasm of the blood vessel walls. In
addition to white fingers, the victim may also experience numbness of the affected area. The disease is most prevalent among those who work
with vibrating machinery in the cold, typical occupations are chain saw operators, jack-hammer operators, tamping tool operators, etc.
Which of the following is considered to be the most frequent cause of the skin cancer Melanoma?
A. Asphalt tar
B. Sunlight
C. Black lights

D. Welders flash
You Chose:
Sunlight is the most common occupational cause of melanoma skin cancer.
Which of the following terms would you expect to not be associated with the pulmonary function testing conducted during the normal industrial
physical?
A. Maximal Voluntary Ventilation (MVV)

B. Forced Vital Capacity (FVC)
C. Tidal Volume (TV)
D. One-second Forced Vital Capacity (FEV1)
You Chose:
Tidal Volume (TV) is the volume of air or gases inspired or expired during each respiratory cycle and is normally not considered during standard
Pulmonary Function evaluation. Generally, the ventilation tests conducted are those dealing with forced expiration and inspiration to determine
airway obstruction and general efficiency of the ventilation function. The Maximal Voluntary Ventilation (MVV) determines the volume of air,
which a person can breathe with voluntary max effort for 10-15 seconds. This indicator is used to determine the suitability for respirator use.
The Forced Vital Capacity (FVC) is a test of expiration as forceful and rapid as possible. The FEV1 measures the forced vital capacity during the
first second. We strongly recommend a thorough review of this area prior to sitting for the Safety Fundamentals examination.
The greatest danger from current Xray equipment is from:
A. Alpha
B. Beta
C. RF
D. High voltage
You Chose:
Today's X-ray machines have several levels of safety incorporated into the design process. The highest risk is not from radiation but from the
high voltages required to generate X-rays.
Which of the following definitions is correct? Specific gravity of a liquid is __________________.
A. Equal to the density

B. Mass per unit volume of substance
C. Ratio of wt. of volume to wt. of equal volume of water
D. Ratio of wt. of volume to wt. of an equal volume of hydrogen
You Chose:
Specific gravity is the ratio of the weight of one volume of a substance to that of a similar volume of water. Therefore if a liquid has a specific
gravity of 1.2 it is 1.2 times heavier than water.
At what level do the effects of CO2 inhalation result in loss of consciousness?
A. 9%
B. 7%
C. 3%
D. 1500 ppm
You Chose:
It is generally accepted that inhalation for prolonged periods of Carbon Dioxide above 9% will result in loss of consciousness and death. Several
deaths from CO2 have occurred. The loss of life has occurred mainly in silos during harvest, in aircraft following vaporization of dry ice, in ship
holds carrying vegetables, sugar or fish, etc.
Which of the following safety precautions is infrequently used to eliminate or lessen the probability of large amounts of static electricity when
filling above ground flammable storage tanks?
A. Electron flow detection systems

B. Grounding & bonding
C. Fill pipe extensions
D. Minimum relaxation time
You Chose:
Electron flow detection systems are not in wide spread use to prevent the accumulation of static electricity when transferring flammable liquids.
However, bonding & grounding is widely used, as is the prevention of free fall of liquid through the vapor space by use of bottom fill devices or
fill pipes that extend to the bottom of the tank. Another common static prevention device is the use of a relaxation time (usually 30 seconds)
downstream of a high static producing device, such as a filter. Relaxation allows dispersion and dissipation of the static charge. Try NFPA 77,
Static Electricity for more discussion. Additional interesting information can be obtained from API Standard 2003, Protection Against Ignition
Arising Out of Static, Lightning and Stray Currents.

Which of the following statements is most correct concerning the affliction of frostbite?
A. Causes uncontrolled shivering

B. Frostbitten skin is soft and puffy and darker than normal
C. The first symptoms are a "pins and needles" sensation followed by numbness
D. Characteristics by irregular heartbeat and respiration
You Chose:
The symptoms of frostbite are a "pins and needles" sensation followed by numbness. Frostbitten skin is hard, pale, cold and has no feeling.
When the skin is thawed out, it becomes red and very painful. Severe cases may blister and gangrene and results in hard frozen skin, sometimes
all the way to bone. Answer selections A, B and D are all symptoms of hypothermia.
What is the maximum burst pressure required for LPG hoses?
A. 250 psig
B. 500 psig
C. 750 psig
D. 1250 psig
You Chose:
The maximum burst pressure rating specified is 1250 psig. Working pressure is 250 psig, which provides a safety factor of 5.
Which of the following are not considered a major type of machine guards within general industry?
A. Fixed
B. Interlocked
C. Automatic
D. Swing away
You Chose:
The major types of machine guards include fixed, interlocked and automatic. There is a wide use for swing-away guards but they are generally
considered to be a sub-division of fixed guards and would not be a major type of guard.
The minimum riser height and maximum tread width, in inches, for fixed industrial steps recommended by OSHA and ANSI are:
A. 6 1/2 inches; 11 inches

B. 7 inches; 11 inches
C. 8 inches; 12 inches
D. 5 inches; 14 inches
You Chose:
The minimum riser and maximum tread width specified by OSHA for fixed industrial stairs are 6 1/2 and 11 inches respectively.
One of the problems associated with arc welding of stainless steel is the production of aerosols containing:
A. Nickel and Chromium

B. Carbon and Nickel
C. Fluorides, Nickel and Chromium
D. Copper, Nickel and Acid gases
You Chose:
Stainless steel welding results in fumes containing nickel and chromium. The electrodes used in this process often contain a large amount of
fluorides, which are released into the air in large quantities.
Pressure testing is generally considered to be a potentially ___________ test?
A. Destructive
B. Hypergolic
C. Fundamental
D. Reverberant
You Chose:
Pressure testing must always be considered destructive testing and stringent safety precautions should be implemented.

Static electricity is characterized by extremely high current flow and very low voltages.
A. True
B. False
C. False. Voltage and current flow are high.
D. False. Static electricity involves no current flow.
You Chose:
Static electricity in most instances is characterized by high voltages and very low current values.
The secondary side of the typical power distribution transformer used inside a plant has voltages _______than the primary side?
A. Lower
B. Higher
C. Same
D. Variable
You Chose:
The secondary transformer side features the step-down voltages, therefore the secondary side is of lower voltage. This is generally true in
distribution transformers, however many step-up transformers exist in equipment where the secondary side will contain very high voltage
potential.
What is the most economical way to protect an elevated water tank from the damaging effects of corrosion?
A. Line the tank with plastic liner

B. Install a glass lined system
C. Ground and bond all components
D. Cathodic protection
You Chose:
Internal corrosion of unenclosed water (and to a lesser extent fuel) tanks caused by the electrolytic action of water on the tanks has been a
major problem. Cathodic protection is the preferred protection for preventing corrosion. A charged sacrificial anode is used quite effectively to
prevent the electrolytic action. The only maintenance required is infrequent replacement of the anode.
Inspection of wire rope used for lifting or hoisting includes all of the following except?
A. Wear of crown wires

B. Interlay of chock wires
C. Lubrication
D. Kinking
You Chose:
Normally inspection of wire rope used for hoisting or lifting includes:

lubrication;
kinking;
corrosion;
loose or broken wires;
wear of crown wires;
high strands;
nicks.
Additionally, cross section measurements are usually made at some prescribed interval.
The Fire Protection Handbook is published by which of the following organizations?
A. OSHA
B. NIOSH
C. NSC
D. NFPA
You Chose:
The National Fire Protection Association publishes the Fire Protection Handbook
The 3 in the diagram indicates:

A. Health
B. Fire
C. Reactivity
D. Storage
You Chose:
The NFPA 704 System Hazard Diamond is a symbol system intended for use of fixed installations, such as chemical processing equipment,
storage and warehousing rooms and laboratory entrances. It tells a fire fighter what he must do to protect himself from injury while fighting a
fire in the area. In this diamond, the three is the fire diamond.
Which of the following effects is the most correct concerning a combustible solvent that is sprayed into a fine mist during an industrial parts
cleaning operation?
A. The toxicity of the material is raised exponentially

B. The UEL is lowered considerably
C. The flash point of the material is lowered
D. The LEL of the material will not change
You Chose:
The rapid vaporization of sprays and mists will lower ignition temperature well below the free standing liquid's flash point. The reduction in
droplet size that occurs when a material is sprayed will also reduce the LEL. If the droplet or particle size is really small, below about 10
microns, the material will act like a pure gas mixture.
Private Fire Brigades most appropriately fall under which of the following NFPA standards?
A. NFPA 1500
B. NFPA 101
C. NFPA 600
D. NFPA 10
You Chose:
NFPA 600 Private Fire Brigades and NFPA 1500 Fire Department Occupational Safety and Health both may be used as information sources for
the establishment and maintenance of an active fire brigade, however NFPA 600 is the best answer to this question. NFPA 101 is the Life Safety
Code and NFPA 10 is the Standard for Portable Fire Extinguishers.
Which of the following is not correct concerning the reverse jet baghouse fabric filtration devices?
A. Baghouses have high cost and require a large area

B. Baghouses have very low efficiency
C. Baghouses require the control of moisture in the dust
D. Baghouses require costly preventive maintenance
You Chose:
One of the large advantages of a baghouse is the 99% collection efficiency of all but the smallest particle sizes. However, the disadvantages as
stated in the question affect their use in smaller operations.

Which of the following does not require an equipment grounding conductor?
A. A double reverse delta electrical system

B. A double insulated hand tool
C. A circuit that is protected with circuit breakers
D. A system with a wye connected transformer
You Chose:
Double insulated equipment does not require a grounding conductor because of the extra protection provided by the additional insulation.
Double insulation does not provide absolute protection (eg; a double insulated tool could still cause severe electrical shock if dropped in water).
Which of the following is the standard material used in chain slings used for lifting and moving material in industry?
A. Proof coil chain

B. Alloy steel chain
C. Steel and bronze alloy chain
D. Annealed, high strength, pure steel chain
You Chose:
Alloy steel is the standard material for chain used to hoist, lift, or support loads. The alloy material includes bronze, stainless steel and monel
metals. Chain made from alloy material is cold worked resulting in high resistance to abrasion and failure. On the other hand, common hardware
chain, also called proof coil chain, can never be used for lifting or for any purpose where failure would result in human injury.
According to the Commercial Motor Vehicle Safety Act of 1986, a commercial motor vehicle driver's license (CDL) is required for which of the
following operations?
A. Transportation of passengers
B. A single vehicle with a GVW of 26,000 lbs
C. A total vehicle length of 31 feet
D. A towed trailer weight of 8,000 lbs
You Chose:
According to the Commercial Motor Vehicle Safety Act of 1986, a commercial motor vehicle driver's license (CDL) is required for operation of any
single vehicle with a GVWR of 26,000 pounds or more. The following table lists some of the more common sub-divisions adopted by individual
States.
Within general industry, Lockout/Tagout programs only apply to electrical or high pressure utility systems.
A. True
B. False
C. False, it only applies to electrical systems.
D. True, unless OSHA-approved audits are performed annually.
You Chose:
At one time, Lockout/Tagout was only widely applied to electrical systems. However, for some time it has also applied to any mechanical
system, which possesses potential energy, which could be released accidentally thus causing injury. When evaluating the operating-shut down
procedures, the most critical is to ensure that the machine energies are reduced to zero and remain at zero during the maintenance cycle.
Powered Industrial Truck drivers must renew their license once every:

B. 6 Months
C. 2 Years
D. 3 Years
You Chose:
Although there is no timeframe for federally mandated training for powered industrial truck operators, good practice would indicate that
refresher training is required at least every three years.
The definition of ergonomics is very broad and involves many disciplines. Which of the following simple phrases provides the best description of
ergonomics?
A. The measurement of the human body in the work environment

B. Modification of the work task to obtain optimum production from the 95 percentile male and 5 percentile female
C. Design the job to fit the person
D. Explore the physical tolerance level for effective work production
You Chose:
Ergonomics is an extremely complicated subject made up of many disciplines. One formal definition "the study of human characteristics for the
appropriate design of the work environment" certainly approaches the simple phrase "Design the Job to fit the person". A good review of the
basics principles involved in the field of ergonomics is in order prior to taking the safety fundamentals examination.
A solution contains 10-2 Hydrogen ions per liter. This solution would be considered?
A. A strong base
B. A strong acid
C. A weak base
D. A weak acid
You Chose:
10-2 H+ ions is equal to a pH of 2. This is a strong acid solution.
Under what conditions would the use of a 5000 fpm exhaust duct velocity be justified for extended periods in a ventilation system?
A. Reduce settling
B. Reduce abrasion
C. Reduce noise
D. Increase efficiency
You Chose:
This high velocity would normally only be used if dust or heavy contaminants were involved. For example, lead dust with small chips, moist
cement dust asbestos chunks from transite pipe cutting machines, quick lime dust, etc. High velocities do not always increase efficiency but
they do always increase abrasion and noise.
Having an R number below 2000 implies what about flow characteristics in a ventilation system?
A. Laminar flow
B. Turbulent flow
C. Too fast for round ducts
D. 2000 is the breaking point for square ducts
You Chose:
The Reynolds number is a dimensionless ratio used to predict if flow is turbulent or laminar. If the Reynolds number is less than 2000, the flow
is laminar, if greater than 2100, the flow is turbulent.
What do all organic materials contain?
A. Hydrogen
B. Oxygen
C. Carbon
D. Nitrogen
You Chose:
Organic is defined as compounds that contain carbon.
Critical pressure is defined as the:

B. Point where temperature is 473 K

C. Point where no liquid vapor phase transition occurs
D. Point of vapor pressure release
You Chose:
The critical pressure of a substance is that pressure at which no liquid-vapor phase transition occurs at any temperature
Which of the following has the highest vapor pressure?
A. Benzene
B. Toluene
C. Xylene
D. Acetone
You Chose:
Acetone has the highest vapor pressure. This is easily recognized by its rapid evaporation rate.
Btu is the measure of energy and is the amount of heat required to raise the temperature of one pound of water __________?
A. 1 degree C.
B. 5 degrees K.
C. 1 degree F.
D. 5 degrees R.
You Chose:
The British Thermal Unit (Btu) is the amount of heat required to raise the temperature of one pound of water one degree Fahrenheit.
In the art and science of Human Factors, presentation of information is extremely important and follows certain rules. In which situation
presented below would the presentation of an audio signal be more appropriate than a visual display?
A. The message is very complex

B. The message is long
C. When the message requires immediate attention
D. When the message does not require a verbal response
You Chose:
The inverse square law as applied to illumination states:
A. The light source as perceived varies inversely as the square of the power
B. The light intensity of the source varies inversely as the distance in lumens
C. Light intensity on a surface varies inversely with the square of the distance between the source and the surface
D. Surface illumination varies directly with the inverse square of the distance
You Chose:

Light intensity on a surface does vary inversely with the square of the distance between the source and the surface. A way to show this
relationship as an equation is:
Where RI = radiation intensity, I0 = initial intensity and X = distance.
Respirators are generally divided into which of the following categories?
A. Particulate and Supplied Air

B. Self-cleaning and Non self-cleaning
C. Air-purifying and air-supplied
D. Gas Masks and Air Hoods
You Chose:
All respirators can be placed in two categories: air-purifying and air-supplying
Which of the following measurements does the inverse square law not apply to?
A. Heat
B. Illumination
C. Noise
D. Radiation
You Chose:
You can use the inverse square law for measurements concerning noise, illumination and radiation, but not heat.
Damage to the eyes of an unprotected observer from the flash of an electric welders arc could be caused by the exposure to:
A. Infrared light
B. Invisible radiation
C. Ultraviolet radiation
D. Sensible light
You Chose:
Damage to the eyes from ultraviolet radiation is much more violent than those of the visible or infrared, a severe burn can be produced with
little or no warning and significant damage to the lens of the eye can occur.
Which of the following is not a characteristic of local exhaust ventilation, when compared to dilution ventilation:
A. Is more suitable for highly toxic substances

B. Is very good for ventilating point source emissions
C. Costs less than dilution ventilation
D. Uses less air than dilution ventilation
You Chose:
Local exhaust ventilation almost always costs more than dilution ventilation. Dilution ventilation is defined as the removing or adding of air to
keep the concentration of a contaminant below hazardous levels. The process can use natural or forced air movement through open doors,
windows, etc. or, exhaust fans can be mounted on roofs, walls, or windows. Local exhaust systems trap the air contaminant near its source
which usually makes this method much more effective, but more expensive than dilution.
Which of the following best describes the term tidal volume when used in conjunction with human lung volumes and capacities?
A. The max volume of air that can be forcibly inspired following a normal inspiration
B. The max volume of air that can be forcibly expired following a normal expiration
C. The volume of air inspired or expired during each normal respiratory cycle
D. The sum of all four of the primary lung capacities
You Chose:
Tidal Volume (TV) is normally considered to be the volume of air or gases inspired or expired during each respiratory cycle. Selection "A" is the
definition of Inspiratory Reserve Volume (IRV). Selection "B" is the definition of Expiratory Reserve Volume (ERV). Selection "D" is the
definition of Total Lung Capacity (TLC).
Which of the following is the most correct response to a person suffering heat stroke?

B. Immediately treat for shock

C. Place victim in shade and provide liquids
D. Fan victim, place in cool area, replenish body fluids
You Chose:
Heat stroke is the most serious heat illness. It occurs when the temperature is so high that sweating stops. This allows the body temperature to
rise to levels where tissue damage and even death can occur. The proper emergency measures are all important and involve reducing the body
temperature by whatever means available. Wet sheets, ice baths, water spray and fans, have all been used to successfully lower body
temperature.
Which of the following is considered to be a chemical asphyxiant?
A. Carbon monoxide
B. Nitrogen
C. Methane
D. Hydrogen
You Chose:
Asphyxiants cause harm by reducing the amount of oxygen in the blood. Simple asphyxiants displace oxygen, chemical asphyxiants (through
direct chemical action) prevent oxygen from reaching the blood. Carbon monoxide is a chemical asphyxiant.
In a large percentage of industrial applications, round ducts are preferred to square ducts because round ducts:
A. Can be sealed much easier

B. Use less material for same size
C. Are much stronger
D. Offer less friction to air flow
You Chose:
In industrial applications, high velocities and therefore high SP's are normally used. This condition results in duct collapses. Circular ducts are
better able to withstand this stress.
The National Electrical Code utilizes a Class, Division and Group hazard identification system. Class II hazards involve:
A. Flammable liquids
B. Dusts
C. Fibers
D. Powders
You Chose:
The NEC Class II hazard classification includes combustible dusts. REF. NFPA 70 ARTICLE 500
There are six major classifications of automatic sprinkler systems. Wet-pipe, regular dry-pipe, pre-action, combined Dry-pipe and Pre-action
and:
A. Special and Deluge

B. Fast-acting and AFFF
C. Foam and Deluge
D. Water Cannon and Foam

You Chose:
The NFPA lists six major classification of automatic sprinkler systems:

1.) Wet-pipe systems
2.) Regular Dry-pipe systems
3.) Pre-action Systems
4.) Deluge Systems
5.) Combined Dry-pipe and Pre-action Systems
6.) Special Types
A combustible gas analyzer operates by sensing some characteristic of a sample drawn into the instrument and translating these characteristics
into usable data. They usually work on the principle of?
A. Thermal expansion in a confined chamber

B. Rapid ionization of the sample gas
C. Measurement of the weight of the sampled gas
D. Wheatstone bridge
You Chose:
Most combustible gas analyzers use a Wheatstone bridge circuit, which includes an active element of platinum. Catalytic combustion takes place
when the atmosphere tested comes in contact with this active element and the change in resistance is indicated on an electric meter.
When water damage is a major concern what sprinkler design offers the best protection?
A. Deluge Systems
B. Pre action Systems
C. Dry pipe Systems
D. Wet pipe Systems
You Chose:
Preaction systems are dry-pipe. When a fire occurs, a supplementary fire detecting device in the protected area is actuated. This opens a valve,
which permits water to flow into the piping system before a sprinkler is activated thus allowing redundant protection from inadvertent
activation and water damage.
Which of the following best describes the system safety term "Common Cause Failure"?
A. Failure of common components from the same cause

B. Failure of different components at the same time from a common cause
C. Failure of components of similar design and specifications from the same cause
D. Failure of any number of components in a system from a common cause
You Chose:
The search for common causes of component failure, sometimes called common killers is a prime system safety responsibility. Often, a common
environmental cause can cripple otherwise redundant sub-systems to the point where the entire system is adversely affected. A short list of
common causes might include:
An often cited common cause in system safety texts concerns a mishap involving a four engine aircraft that suffered complete engine failure due
to moisture in a large electrical connector. The connector (a multi-pin cannon plug) provided a single point where all the electrical control for
certain fuel feed valves could be affected by a combination of moisture and cold. When the fuel panel was configured for cruise and the aircraft
encountered the cold of altitude after flying through a rain shower, all the engines quit. The engines were able to be restarted only because the
emergency checklist selected a different fuel feed
Which building has the least ability to resist structural damage from a fire?
A. Ordinary
B. Non-combustible
C. Heavy timber
D. Fire Resistive
You Chose:
Ordinary construction has all the inherent hazards attributed to construction where wood or other combustible material is used and is the least
protected of the choices offered in the answers.

In states that have a Right to Know law, the federal OSHA Hazard Communication Standard:
A. Is preempted
B. Preempts the state law in all cases
C. Preempts the state law in occupational settings
D. Preempts the state law in settings covered by OSHA
You Chose:
The Federal Hazard Communication Standard preempts the state law where the two laws conflict.
Which of the following is not the most efficient time to eliminate hazards?
A. Prior to construction
B. While the product is being designed
C. When employees are being trained
D. Before a change is put into effect
You Chose:
If during the training period hazards have not been eliminated, reinforcement of improper actions will occur.
The ANSI standard that covers construction Hard Hats is:
A. ANSI Z 87.1
B. ANSI B 16.4
C. ANSI A 12.1
D. ANSI Z 89.1
You Chose:
ANSI Z 87.1 deals with Occupational and Educational Eye and Face Protection. ANSI Z 16.4 concerns Uniform Recordkeeping for Occupational
Injuries and Illnesses. ANSI A 12.1 is the standard for Floor and Wall Openings, Railing, and Toeboards. ANSI Z 89.1 is the authority on
Protective Headgear for Industrial Workers.
You have just finished reading the OSHA regulations concerning occupational noise exposure, your first action should be?
A. Have the plant engineer determine noisy areas

B. Conduct a sound pressure survey
C. Conduct immediate audiometric testing of all employees
D. Contact a hearing protection supplier for advice
You Chose:
The OSHA occupational noise exposure standard 1910.95 requires employers to determine the noise exposure at the workplace and establish a
hearing conservation program if noise exposure exceeds an 8-hour Time Weighted Average of 85 dBA. Audiograms may be required if a hearing
conservation program is required.
Which of the following is the most common of all occupational diseases occurring in industry?
A. Lead poisoning
B. Silicosis
C. Fibrosis
D. Dermatitis
You Chose:
Dermatitis is by far the most frequently reported disease occurring in industry and accounts for almost 50% of the occupational diseases
reported to OSHA.

The "rate" of a chemical reaction can be defined as the quantity of matter that is being used up or produced per unit of time. If the total volume
of the reacting system is doubled, then, all other conditions being constant, the amount of matter produced per second is doubled, that is, the
"rate" is doubled. Which of the following best describes the effect heat has on the rate of reaction?
A. If heat is added the reaction rate will increase

B. If heat is added the reaction rate will decrease
C. If heat is added the reaction will decrease as the square of the energy added
D. If heat is removed the reaction will slow inversely proportional to the activation energy squared
You Chose:
In general, it is found that a small increase in temperature will increase the rates of simple reactions by a large amount. The magnitude of this
effect on increasing temperature depends on the activation energy of the reaction. Those reactions, having large activation energy, will be more
sensitive to temperature changes than reactions having low activation energy. This principle is explained via Arrhenius' Equation in most
advanced chemistry texts
Self contained breathing apparatus (SCBA) used as emergency or rescue equipment must be inspected with what frequency?
A. Annually
B. Semiannually
C. Monthly
D. Weekly
You Chose:
OSHA requires monthly inspections for self-contained breathing apparatus. Non-disposable respirators should be cleaned and inspected before
and after each use.
If a person is suffering from heatstroke, which symptom would they not experience?
A. Severe headache
B. Profuse sweating and cool moist skin
C. Loss of consciousness
D. Rapid temperature rise and hot dry skin
You Chose:
During heatstroke (sunstroke), the body temperature rises and reaches a point where the heat-regulating mechanism breaks down completely.
The body temperature then rises rapidly. The symptoms are hot dry skin, severe headache, visual disturbances, rapid temperature rise and loss
of consciousness.
In the industrial environment, female workers do many jobs that were designed for males. Which of the following activities would provide the
greatest compatibility between males and females in manual operations?
A. Lowering
B. Pushing
C. Lifting
D. Carrying
You Chose:
Females generally have the capacity to perform 80% of those jobs designed for male workers when tasks require pushing. Only 50% for
carrying, 65% for lifting and 65% for lowering.
Which of the following does not affect the quality of light?
A. Color
B. Diffusion
C. Direction
D. Footcandles
You Chose:
Quality of illumination refers to the distribution of brightness in the visual environment. It includes glare, diffusion, direction, uniformity, color
and brightness. It does not include quantity.
Which of the following is a characteristic of an endemic disease?
A. Localized
B. Very widespread
C. Uncontrollable
D. Affects entire population
You Chose:
Endemic simply means that the problem is localized to a particular population, eg: in the southwest, in the islands, in the desert.

Which of the following occupations is most likely to contract tenosynovitis?
A. Administrative assistant
B. Assembly line worker
C. Grocery store stock clerk
D. Construction worker
You Chose:
Tenosynovitis is an inflammation of the connective tissue sheath of a tendon. It is a repetitive motion affliction common to assembly line
workers or others that perform repetitive actions without adequate rest periods.
Which of the following buildings are most likely to receive structural damage in an earthquake?
A. Wood
B. Steel
C. Masonry
D. Brick veneer
You Chose:
Because of its lack of elasticity, masonry is heavily damaged in earthquakes.
Which of the following metals is generally considered to be the MOST pyrophoric?
A. Strontium
B. Calcium
C. Magnesium
D. Sodium Potassium
You Chose:
Pyrophoric metals are those, usually in fine powder form, which ignite spontaneously when exposed to air! All the metals listed burn and require
special firefighting tactics. Water used on all of these materials except for magnesium can lead to explosion, even at room temperatures.
Magnesium is considered the most pyrophoric.
All of the following are considered acceptable methods for the control of static discharge in industrial occupancies except for:
A. Humidification
B. High Voltage Electrical Neutralization
C. Ionization
D. Radioactive Material
You Chose:
Dissipation of static electricity can involve the ionization of the air by radioactive material. Engineering problems may be encountered when
eliminating health hazards, control of dust, determination of the amount of radiation required, etc. These problems always require the services
of a radiation protection specialist.
A flammable storage cabinet is allowed to hold how many gallons of flammables or how many gallons of combustible liquids?
A. 20 Gallons of Flammables or 40 Gallons of Combustibles

B. 40 Gallons of Flammables or 80 Gallons of Combustibles
C. 60 Gallons of Flammables or 120 Gallons of Combustibles
D. 80 Gallons of Flammables or 140 Gallons of Combustibles
You Chose:
OSHA 1926.152 requires that a flammable storage cabinet hold no more than 60 gallons of flammable or 120 gallons of combustible liquids in
any one cabinet. Additionally, no more than 3 storage cabinets may be located in a single fire area.
All of the following are alternatives to the use of explosion proof electrical equipment in Class I locations except?
A. Totally enclose equipment in inert atmosphere

B. Use intrinsically safe equipment
C. Use Class II, Division 1 equipment
D. Provide equipment with supplied air to prevent explosive mixtures from entering enclosure
You Chose:
As an alternative to "explosive proof" equipment and wiring it is permissible to totally enclose equipment and provide supplied air to create
positive pressure ventilation or totally enclosed inert-gas-filled equipment may be used. Lastly, intrinsically safe equipment may be used. The

use of equipment approved for use in Class II or III locations is not permitted because this equipment was designed for a different purpose.
Equipment for use in Class II and III locations is designed to be dust-ignition-proof and will not resist internal explosions.
Which of the following fire fighting agents could be effectively used on a Class "A" fire?
A. Purple K
B. Halon 1301
C. Dry Chemical (Potassium Chloride)
D. Dry Chemical (Ammonium Phosphate)
You Chose:
The only agent listed that is rated for Class A fire fighting is selection "D" Ammonium Phosphate, which is rated as an A:B:C extinguisher. Purple
K is Potassium Bicarbonate and is well known as an effective agent for flammable liquid fires, it is often used in combination with AFFF. Halon
1301, a halogenated agent, and the dry chemical potassium chloride is rated only B:C. Of the multi-purpose dry chemicals, monoammonium-
phosphate-base is by far the most common and although considered non-toxic will cause irritation if breathed for extended periods. Another
problem with ammonium phosphate is corrosion. The agent is acidic and when mixed with even minuscule amounts of water will corrode most
metals, so immediate cleanup is very important.
Which of the following is an example of potentially destructive testing?
A. Dye Penetrant
B. Eddy Current
C. Radioscopic examination
D. Pressure testing
You Chose:
Pressure testing can result in violent failure and adequate safeguards must be established.
The assured grounding program requires:
A. Installation of GFCI devices in construction areas

B. Periodic testing of circuits and tools
C. An on duty electrical worker at all times
D. Specialized and very expensive equipment
You Chose:
An assured grounding program is sometimes used in lieu of Ground Fault Circuit Interrupters on construction sites. The program requires
extensive testing of all equipment and circuits to insure the integrity of the equipment grounding conductors.
In the design of VDT workstations, a generally accepted practice is for the video display terminal to be located slightly below the operator's
horizontal line of sight (HLOS). What is the recommended angle?
A. 5 Degrees below horizontal line of sight

B. 5 Degrees to 35 Degrees below horizontal line of sight
C. 15 Degrees to 35 Degrees below horizontal line of sight
D. 15 Degrees to 25 Degrees below horizontal line of sight
You Chose:
Although there is not complete agreement on this design principle, most references, including the NSC Accident Prevention Manual, suggest that
15\'b0 to 25\'b0 below horizontal line of sight is the proper placement for video display terminals. This allows the operator to assume a normal
head position that develops a slightly lowered sight or viewing angle. This means the top of the video monitor is placed at eye level to allow
proper head and neck position.
Which of the following provides the best shielding for neutrons?
A. Cardboard
B. Wood
C. Water
D. Lead
You Chose:
Shielding for neutrons is best accomplished by materials with light nuclei such as hydrogen atoms. Accordingly, water or other media rich in
hydrogen content are frequently used. Graphite (carbon atoms) can also be used effectively.
The safety of design, fabrication and inspection of boilers and pressure vessels is governed by the American Society of Mechanical Engineers'
Boiler and Pressure Vessel Code, commonly referred to as the ASME boiler code. The ASME boiler code exempts several categories of unfired
pressure vessels including which of the following?

B. small vessels of less than 120 gallons of water under pressure

C. vessels with a pressure of less than 15 psig or greater than 3000 psig
D. hot water storage tanks
You Chose:
The American Society of Mechanical Engineers' Boiler and Pressure Vessel Code, commonly referred to as the ASME boiler code, covers the
safety of design, fabrication and inspection of boilers and pressure vessels in the United States. The current code contains 11 sections and
occupies 2.5 feet of shelf space. The ASME boiler code exempts several categories of unfired pressure vessels including:
-any vessel that is covered by a U.S. governmental entity
-small pressure vessels with a capacity of 120 gallons of water under pressure\tab
-hot water storage tanks heated by steam or indirect means with a water temperature of 200 Deg F\tab
-vessels with an inside diameter not exceeding 6 inches (pipes)
-vessels having an operating pressure of 15 psig or less. Because of the extra hazards involved in pressures over 3,000 psi the ASME code
requires the design of these pressure vessels to be based on an extremely detailed stress design that is certified by a PE
Which of the following agencies publishes TLVs and PELs?
A. ACGIH and OSHA

B. OSHA and MSHA
C. ACGIH and MSHA
D. NIOSH and OSHA
You Chose:
The American Conference of Governmental Industrial Hygienists publishes the Threshold Limit Values (TLVs) in wide use in industry. OSHA
publishes the Permissible Exposure Limits (PELs).
Which of the following are currently known carcinogens?
A. Benzene and Vinyl Chloride

B. Benzene and Methyl Iodide
C. Formaldehyde and Methyl Iodine
D. Vinyl choloride and Formaldehyde
You Chose:
Vinyl chloride has been associated with tumors of the liver, brain, lung, and hematolymphopoietic system. There is also sufficient evidence for
the carcinogenicity of benzene in humans. Many case reports and case series have described the association of leukemia with exposure to
benzene, either alone or in combination with other chemicals. Methyl Iodide has been re-evaluated and is now considered "equivocal".
Formaldehyde is a potential carcinogen.
The principles of "TIME - DISTANCE - SHIELDING" are most closely associated with which of the following disciplines?
A. Fire Protection Engineering

B. Industrial Hygiene
C. Ergonomics
D. Health Physics
You Chose:
The principles of "TIME - DISTANCE - SHIELDING" are basic principles of protection closely associated with the discipline of health physics:
Dose or exposure is directly related to "TIME", so if you reduce the time you will reduce exposure
"DISTANCE" is a function of the inverse square law (assuming free field conditions), so doubling the distance from a point source will result in a
four fold reduction in exposure
Providing a barrier or "SHIELD" between the energy and employees is widely used for protection ie; lead aprons for dental X-rays.
Which of the following statements associated with heat stress measurement is not correct?
A. twb is normally measured with a psychrometer

B. ta is generally referred to as Dry Bulb or DB
C. tg temperature globe is also called radiant temperature
D. WGT index is not used in the US because it has no correlation with the WBGT index
You Chose:
The Wet Globe Temperature Index (WGT) has been accepted and does have a high correlation with the WBGT, however the correlation is not
constant for all environmental conditions. The accepted relationship is: WGT + 3.6 deg F = WBGT. Selection "A" is correct, twb is usually
obtained with a psychrometer either motor driven or manually with a sling psychrometer. Selection "B" is also correct, in most Industrial
Hygiene texts ta and DB are synonymous. Answer "C" is true, tg is radiant temperature, one such globe thermometer is a thin wall black, six
inch sphere with thermometer attached. This device depends on the transfer of radiant heat to the indicating thermometer and one must wait at
least 20 minutes for the transfer to take place before accurate readings can be obtained. See the ACGIH "Industrial Ventilation Manual" for a
short but excellent review on heat stress.
Which of the following mishaps would not require reporting under the current DOT reporting guidelines?
A. Vehicle accident with five or more fatalities

B. Vehicle accident with HAZMAT spill

C. Operator is provided with on-scene first aid
D. Operator must be transported for medical attention
You Chose:
Under current DOT reporting guidelines, only the mishap involving on-scene medical attention is not reportable. This assumes that the operator
does not later seek medical attention for the same injuries.
The color used to identify physical tripping hazards is:
A. Red
B. Blue
C. Green
D. Yellow
You Chose:
Yellow is normally used to identify physical tripping hazards.
The color utilized to denote information is:
A. Blue
B. Red
C. Yellow
D. Orange
You Chose:
Blue is the color utilized to denote information.
Which of the following organizations deals with compressed gas cylinder safety?
A. ANSI
B. CGA
C. ASTM
D. OSHA
You Chose:
The CGA (Compressed Gas Association) as the name indicates is the primary organization dealing with compressed gas safety in the U. S.
What does the term REM stand for?
A. Relative Equivalent Mammal

B. Radiation Excess Manual
C. Radiation Equivalent Man
D. Roentgen Equivalent Man
You Chose:
Rem is the expression used to indicate Roentgen equivalent man, which is the quantity of radiation, which produces a physiological effect
equivalent to that produced by the absorption of one roentgen of gamma or x-radiation.
Standardization of signal words for product warning labels in the United States is largely a result of ANSI Std Z535.4-1991, "Product Safety
Signs and Labels". However, in addition to these signal words each warning label must contain all of the following except?
A. The action to be taken to avoid injury

B. The action to be taken to avoid damage
C. The consequence that may result if proper actions are not followed
D. How to obtain additional safety precautions concerning this class of product
You Chose:
According to ANSI Z535.4-1991, in addition to the signal word DANGER, WARNING, or CAUTION, warning labels should be understandable to all
potential users. This means they may have to be multilingual. They must include instruction about action to be taken to avoid damage or injury
and the severity of consequence that might result if the indicated action is not taken. Additionally, depending on the product and user,
additional information might be required. For example, if the product is designed for the blind, Braille symbols might be needed; if the product
may be ingested, an antidote might be included; specific colors or symbols may be required by international standards, etc.
The main source of heat gain for an individual is the body's own internal heat. This is called?

B. metabolic heat
C. work produced heat
D. total work heat
You Chose:
The main source of heat gain is the body's own internal heat. Called metabolic heat, it is generated within the body by the biochemical
processes that keep us alive and by the energy we use in physical activity. The body exchanges heat with its surroundings mainly through
radiation, convection, and evaporation of sweat.
The organization established and operated by the American Chemistry Council to provide emergency response information is the:
A. Chemical Manufactures Association

B. Chemical Emergency Center for Transportation
C. Chemical Center for Accident Response Information
D. Chemical Transportation Emergency Center
You Chose:
CHEMTREC, the acronym for Chemical Transportation Emergency Center, is a 24-hour telephone center operated by the American Chemistry
Council that provides assistance in response to HAZMAT incidents in transportation.
Which of the following is not a occupational illiness caused by a virus?
A. Hepatitis B
B. West Nile
C. Tuberculosis
D. HIV/AIDS
You Chose:
Tuberculosis is caused by bacteria
Which of the followinig are single celled organisms that can cause occupational illnesses?
A. Protozoa
B. Viruses
C. Bacteria
D. DNA
You Chose:
Bacteria are single-celled. Viruses do not have all the components of a cell, DNA, or deoxyribonucleic acid, is the hereditary material in humans
and almost all other organisms is composed of organic compounds but are not composed of cells, and protozoa are mult-cellular organisms and
many are parasitic
A _____________ is a toxic agent or substance that inhibits, damages or destroys the cells and/or tissues of the kidneys
A. Neurotoxin
B. Hemotoxin
C. Nephrotoxin
D. Hepatoxin
You Chose:
Nephrotoxins target kidneys. Neurotoxins target nerve cells. Hemotoxins target red blood cells. Hepatoxins target the liver.
Some volcanic eruptions result in fast moving clouds of hot gases and rock traveling at speeds greater than 50 mph/80 kmh, gas temperatures
of 1000 C/1800 F, along the ground and travel downhill defines?
A. Magma
B. Cyclonic event
C. Lava
D. Pyroclastic flow
You Chose:
This defines a pyroclasic flow which is a hazard that can engulf a large area with little warning.
Which Class of lasers have an output power up to 500 mW, sufficient to cause eye injury?
A. 1

B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
You Chose:
A Class 3B laser. Laser eyewear must be selected with the specific laser wavelenght in mind.The International Electrotechnical Commission
(IEC) publishes standards on laser safety. The IEC also sets out five classes of laser: 1, 2, 3A, 3B and 4. This classification gives the user an
indication of the degree of laser hazard. Class 1 lasers have an output power that is below the level at which eye injury can occur.
Class 2 lasers emit visible light and are limited to a maximum output power of 1-milliwatt (mW). A person receiving an eye exposure from a
Class 2 laser will be protected from injury by their natural blink reflex, an involuntary response which causes the person to blink and turn their
head, thereby avoiding eye exposure.
Class 3A lasers may have a maximum output power of 5 mW. This limit restricts the power entering a fully dilated human eye (taken as a 7 mm
aperture) to 1 mW. Thus, accidental exposure to a Class 3A laser should be no more hazardous than exposure to a C
Glove selection for material handling presents challenges such as, permeation, degradation and sensitization, which of the following glove
material is best for handling drums of hydrochloric acid?
A. Butyl rubber or neoprene

B. Polyvinyl alcohol or neoprene
C. Polyvinyl acetate or polyvinyl alcohol
D. Polyvinyl alcohol or butyl rubber
You Chose:
Glove materials such as butyl rubber or neoprene are generally best for handling acids like hydrochloric acid. Latex allergies are relatively
common
During fire fighting on a residential structure, heating of an adjacent building would probably be caused by?
A. Conduction
B. Radiation
C. Convection
D. Irradiance
You Chose:
Since there is no connection between the two structures, heating is probably caused by radiant heat transfer. Conduction occurs when there is a
direct contact between two materials (eg: coffee heats the outside of a cup). Convection heat transfer depends on mixing (eg: warm air currents
in a convection oven). Radiant heat transfer is the transmission of thermal energy between objects, as between the sun and the earth and no
physical contact needs to take place.
Asbestos fibers and silica dust may cause a what effect in the lung tissue?
A. Cystosis
B. Fibrosis
C. Necrosis
D. Scoliosis
You Chose:
Fibrosis is a condition in which the lung becomes scarred and inflexible, making the lung unable to expand and contract.
Substances that are capable of damaging the liver such as carbon tetrachloride, chloroform, tannic acid, and trichloroethylene are called?
A. nephrotoxins
B. hematoxins
C. hepatotoxins
D. lacrimators
You Chose:
Substances that are capable of damaging the liver are called hepatotoxins. Because the waste gets concentrated in the process, toxins can be at
much higher levels in the kidneys. Toxins that damage this organ are known as nephrotoxins. Substances capable of producing blood disorders
are called hematoxins. Lacrimators are chemicals that can cause instant tearing at low concentrations.
In testing chemicals in the laboratory, toxicologists have learned that many chemicals act together in certain ways on biological systems. When
the exposure to two different toxic chemicals produce a more severe effect than simply doubling the dose of either one alone, such as isopropyl
alcohol and chloroform, is called?
A. Additive Effect
B. Synergistic Effect
C. Potentiation
D. Antagonism
You Chose:

being exposed to double the dose of either chemical alone. Example: acetaminophen and ibuprofen.
Synergistic Effect (2 + 2 = 6) Synergism is the exposure to two different toxic chemicals that produce a more severe effect than simply doubling
the dose of either one alone. An example is isopropyl alcohol and chloroform. The alcohol ties up the enzymes that would normally break down
chloroform.
Potentiation (0 + 2 = 10) In some cases a chemical without any known toxic effect may act together with a known toxic substance to make the
toxic substance even more potent and thus more dangerous. Ethanol (ethyl alcohol) and chloroform together affect the liver in just such a
manner.
Antagonism (4 + 6 = 8) The interaction of two toxic chemicals may be such that the effect produced is actually less than would be expected.
Phenobarbital a
The hepatitis B virus infects the liver. In some individuals, it develops into serious or fatal problems, such as cirrhosis, liver cancer, or chronic
liver disease. Some people have no problems or symptoms yet become carriers of the virus. Which of the following represents the proper
acronym for hepatitis B virus?
A. HIV
B. HCV
C. HBV
D. HAV
You Chose:
Hepatitis B Virus (HBV). The hepatitis B virus infects the liver. In some individuals, HBV develops into serious or fatal problems, such as
cirrhosis, liver cancer, or chronic liver disease. Some people have no problems or symptoms yet become carriers of the virus. HBV is more
common and is a much hardier virus than HIV; it can exist on a surface outside the body for up to thirty days. For this reason, it poses a greater
hazard to an exposed individual. Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV). Hepatitis A Virus (HAV). Hepatitis C Virus (HCV).
Which of the following terms is synonymous with oncogenesis?
A. Homeostasis
B. Carcinogenesis
C. Myogenesis
D. Glycogenesis
You Chose:
Carcinogenesis or oncogenesis is literally the creation of cancer. It is a process by which normal cells are transformed into cancer cells. It is
characterized by a progression of changes on cellular and genetic level that ultimately reprogram a cell to undergo uncontrolled cell division,
thus forming a malignant mass.
Cotton worker's lung, Cotton bract disease, Mill fever, and Brown lung all refer to which of the following terms?
A. Osteoporosis
B. Byssinosis
C. Pneumoconiosis
D. Occupational bronchitis
You Chose:
Byssinosis, also called "brown lung disease" or "Monday fever", is an occupational lung disease caused by exposure to cotton dust in
inadequately ventilated working environments. Byssinosis commonly occurs in workers who are employed in yarn and fabric manufacture
industries. It is not thought that the cotton dust directly causes the disease and some believe that the causative agents are endotoxins that
come from the cell walls of gram negative bacteria that grow on the cotton. Although bacterial endotoxin is a likely cause, the absence of similar
symptoms in workers in other industries exposed to endotoxins makes this uncertain.
Respirable dust exposure has long been known to be a serious health threat to workers in many industries. In coal mining, overexposure to
respirable coal mine dust can lead to coal workers' pneumoconiosis (CWP). CWP is a lung disease that can be disabling and fatal in its most
severe form.Which of the following is the best method to control respirable coal dust during longwall mining shearer operations?
A. Face ventilation
B. Drum-mounted water sprays
C. Cutting drum bit maintenance
D. Directional water spray systems
You Chose:
Historically, longwall operations have had difficulty in maintaining consistent compliance with the federal dust standard of 2.0 mg/m3. On most
longwall faces, the cutting action of the shearer is the primary dust source and the largest contributor to the respirable dust exposure of face
personnel. Face ventilation, as with all mining methods, ventilation is the primary means to dilute liberated methane to safe levels. It is also the
principal method of controlling respirable dust on the longwall face. Providing adequate amounts of air to dilute and carry airborne dust down
the face and prevent it from migrating into the walkway has been and continues to be a goal for longwall operators.
Question 582: ID# 000560 Category: CONVERSION REVIEW
A decimeter is equal to ____________ of a meter.
A. 1/100th
B. 1/10th
C. 1/10000th
D. 1/1000th

You Chose:
In metric measure, the prefix indicates the multiple of ten. In this case, deci indicates 1/10 or 0.1, thus decimeter means 1/10 of a meter. In
scientific notation this would be 1 x 10-1 meter. The abbreviation for deci is d and for meter is m, the abbreviation for decimeter is dm. 1 dm
= .1 meter. NOTE: Historically, there have been no true or false questions on the Safety Fundamentals examination. All questions will have four
selections, of which only one is correct. You must pick the most correct from among the selections offered.
kilometer is equal to?
A. 1,000 meters
B. 3,935 feet
C. 3,935 meters
D. 2.2 lbs
You Chose:
In metric measure, the prefix indicates the multiple of ten. In this case, kilo indicates 1,000, thus kilometer means 1,000 meters. The
abbreviation for kilo is k and for meter is m, the abbreviation for kilometer is km. 1km = 1,000 meters
Convert 0 degrees centigrade to degrees Kelvin.
A. 32 K
B. 100 K
C. 273 K
D. 460 K
You Chose:
Ideal Gas law equations must have temperature converted to either degrees Kelvin "K" or degrees Rankin "R". The conversion is: degrees K =
degrees C + 273 or degrees R = degrees F + 460.
Convert 1,000 microvolts.
A. 1 millivolt
B. 1,000,000 millivolts
C. 0.1 millivolt
D. 1000 millivolts
You Chose:
In metric measure, the prefix indicates the multiple of ten. Milli = 1/1000 or 0.001 which is 1 x 10^-3; micro = 1/1,000,000 or 0.000001 which
is 1 x 10^-6; 1,000/1,000,000 = 1/1000 volts or 1 millivolt.
Convert 950 millimeters to meters.
A. 95 meters
B. 9.5 meters
C. .00095 meters
D. .95 meters
You Chose:
In metric measure, the prefix indicates the multiple of ten. In this case, milli indicates 1/1000 or 0.001, thus millimeter means 1/1000 of a
meter. In scientific notation this would be 1 x 10-3 meter. The abbreviation for milli is m and for meter is m, the abbreviation for millimeter is
mm. 1mm = .001 meter; 950mm = .95 meters.
How many milligrams are there in 0.33 kg?
A. 3,300,000 mmg
B. 3.3 g
C. 33,000 mg
D. 330,000 mg
You Chose:

Within the Safety and Health community Standard Temperature and Pressure (STP) has differing values. Which of the following values would be
considered by the BCSP as STP-Ventilation?
A. 0 degrees C. and 29.92 inches of mercury

B. 68 degrees F. and 29.92 psi
C. 70 degrees F. and 14.7 psi
D. 25 degrees C. and 760 mm Hg
You Chose:
According to the BCSP Examination Reference Handout, STP-Ventilation is considered to be 70 degrees F and one atmosphere, STP-Physical
Science is 0 degrees C and STP-Industrial Hygiene is 25 degrees C.
The number 3,920,000,000,000 written in scientific notation is written as?
A. 3.92 x 10 ^12
B. 3.9 x 100 ^(10th)
C. 3.92E13
D. 39.2E8
You Chose:
When writing numbers in scientific notation an ordinary number is expressed as a decimal number between 1 and 10 multiplied by some power
of 10. HINT: Use the EE key on your calculator. There are three rules for converting ordinary numbers to scientific notation. RULE 1. If the
number is equal to or greater than 10: A. Move the decimal point to the left, counting the number of places you must move it until you have a
decimal number between 1 and 10. B.Multiply this decimal number by 10 raised to a positive power equal to the number of places you moved
the decimal point. RULE 2. If the number is less than 1. A. Move the decimal point to the right, counting the number of places you must move it
until you have a decimal number between 1 and 10. B. Multiply this decimal number by 10 raised to a negative power equal to the number of
places you moved the decimal point.
Which of the following answers shows 500,000 in a proper notation?
A. 5 x 10(6th)
B. 5E6
C. .5 x 10(6th)
D. 500 x 10^3
You Chose:
The number 500,000 can be expressed in scientific notation as 5 x 10^5 or in engineering notation as 500 x 10^3. The SI (System
International) or metric measurement system functions to a great extent by moving in units of three decimal places. The prefix milli is equal to
10^-3, micro is equal to 10^-6. Likewise, the prefix kilo is equal to 10^3 and mega is equal to 106. Engineering notation is very similar to
scientific notation except that the exponent is moved in units of three to take advantage of the metric notations. For example, 100,000 in
engineering notation is 100 x 10^3. This would not be permitted in scientific notation since the "100" is a number greater than 10. Stated
another way, engineering notation is expressed as a decimal number between 1 and 1000 multiplied by a power of 10 in multiples of 3. So, if
you see numbers that don't follow the rules for scientific notation, they may be expressed in engineering notation. They are still the same value
Convert 12 micrograms per cubic meter of phosgene gas to ppm. Phosgene = COCl2, atomic wts: Cl=35.5, O=16, C=12.
A. 0.003 ppm
B. 3 ppm
C. 30 ppm
D. 0.05 ppm
You Chose:
Note: Don't forget the microgram to milligram conversion!
Using the formula in the provided, which of the following correctly converts the ceiling concentration of 5 ppm hydrogen chloride (HCl) to
mg/m3?
A. 7.5 mg/m3
B. 0.5 mg/m3

C. 6.5 mg/m3
D. 17.5 mg/m3
You Chose:
A mixture is prepared by diluting 15 ml of sulfur dioxide with clean air. The final volume is 250 liters. What is the concentration of sulfur dioxide
in the mixture?
A. 300 ppm
B. 60 ppm
C. 600 ppm
D. 3000 ppm
You Chose:
Step 1: Determine concentration
Step 2: Multiply by 1,000,000
How many gallons are occupied by 25 pounds of a material with a density of 67.5 lbs per ft3?
A. 2.99 gallons
B. 2.77 gallons
C. 3.33 gallons
D. 2.22 gallons
You Chose:
Note: 7.48 gal/1 ft3 is a volume-to-volume ratio you will need for the exam.
A laboratory report shows a concentration of 3.5 grams of dust particles per liter of air. Which of the following correctly converts the 3.5 grams
per liter to the more familiar ounces per cubic feet for explosive concentration calculations?
A. 3.5 g/l = 3.5 oz/ft3

B. 3.5 g/l = 7.5 oz/ft3
C. 3.5 g/l = 4.5 oz/ft3
D. 3.5 g/l = 11.5 oz/ft3
You Chose:
A process requires 400 pounds per minute of air to cool the system to room temperature. How many cubic feet per second of air does it require?
A. 30 ft3/min
B. 89 ft3/sec
C. 533 ft3/min
D. 32000 ft3/sec
You Chose:

Note: 0.075 lb/ft3 is the conversion found on page 1 of the formula sheet.
Question 597: ID# 000575 Category: MATH REVIEW
Solve -3a + 4 = 22.
A. a = 6
B. a = 8
C. a = -6
D. a = -8
You Chose:
Subtract 4 from both sides then Divide both sides by -3
Solve 19 = 2n + 4
A. n = 9.5
B. n = -9.5
C. n = 7.5
D. n = - 7.5
You Chose:
Subtract 4 from both sides then Divide both sides by 2
Solve 6x2 = 20x - 6
A. 1 and 3 1/3
B. 2 and 3 1/3
C. 3 and 1/3
D. 3 and 3 1/3
You Chose:
Combine terms on left side, then Substitute for a, b, and c

If a bus is going 60 miles per hour, how many feet per second does this equal?
A. 66 feet/second
B. 77 feet/second
C. 88 feet/second
D. 99 feet/second
You Chose:
HINT: 5280/3600 = 1.47 (a constant that is often used in these types of problems) MPH times 1.47 = feet per second; 60 X 1.47 = 88
A vehicle is traveling at 60 mph. The operator's reaction time is 0.6 seconds. How many feet will the vehicle travel during the reaction time?
A. 40 feet
B. 53 feet
C. 68 feet
D. 72 feet
You Chose:
Distance = Speed times Time.
A motorcycle is traveling at 45 mph. If the driver's reaction time is .75 seconds, how many meters will the vehicle travel between the time the
driver sees a problem and actually applies the brakes?
A. 15 meters
B. 25 meters
C. 18 meters
D. 50 meters
You Chose:
Distance = Speed x Time
Based on the allowable limits in the table below, if the noise in a work area was 95 dBA for 3 hours, 90 dBA for 4 hours and 85 dBA for 2 hours,
is the allowable limit exceeded?
A. Yes
B. No
C. Yes, exceeds by > 50%
D. No, it is well within limits
You Chose:

If a vessel contains 80% air and 20% hydrocarbons what is the oxygen content of the vessel?
A. 21%
B. 16.8%
C. 19%
D. 19.5%
You Chose:
Normal air contains 21% oxygen by volume. The vessel only contains 80% normal air. Therefore: 0.8 x 0.21 = 0.168 or 16.8%.
Compute the TWA concentration from the following measurement data: 7:00 AM to 10:00 AM @ 100 ppm --- 10:00 AM to 12:00 Noon @ 200 ppm
--- 1:00 PM to 2:00 PM @ 0 ppm --- 2:00 PM to 4:00 PM @ 100 ppm
A. 100 ppm
B. 133.3 ppm
C. 112.5 ppm
D. 122 ppm
You Chose:
A radioisotope has a half-life of 1 year. How many years will it take to reduce the initial activity to less than 10%?
A. 1 year
B. 2 years
C. 3 years
D. 4 years
You Chose:
The activity after three years will be 12.5% of the initial activity. After 4 years the activity will be 6.25% of the initial activity.
A rock weighs 250 pounds on land. In water it weighs 150 pounds submerged. What is the specific gravity of the rock?
A. .78
B. .90
C. 1.75
D. 2.5
You Chose:

Specific gravity is the ratio of the rock's weight to an equal volume of water. Since the difference in weight on land and in the water is 100
pounds, then an amount of water the same volume as the rock must weigh 100 pounds. But the rock weighs 250 pounds - so 250/100 = 2.5
times heavier than water. SG = 2.5.
Determine the total area of a flat piece of metal that has been cut into the shape illustrated below.
A. 105 ft2
B. 55 ft2
C. 70 ft2
D. 90 ft2
You Chose:
Step 1: Redraw the shape separating the individual rectangles & circles
Step 2: Determine areas of the individual rectangles and circles. First the rectangle
Then the circle:
Step 3: Total the individual areas
Question 609: ID# 000589 Category: PHYSICS REVIEW
If you assume scientific STP, what is the mass of chlorine contained in a cylinder that has a volume of 1000 cubic feet at 84 psi?
A. 656 lbs
B. 1,130 lbs
C. 454 lbs
D. 565 lbs
You Chose:
Step 1: Using the combined gas law, determine how many ft3 at scientific STP are in the container. Assume pressures are in psia

Step 2: Convert ft3 to lbs
Alternate
Step 2: The above conversion becomes much easier if we use the lb-mole method and remember that a lb-mole at 0 degrees C expands to 359
ft3. Therefore, 71 pounds occupies 359 cubic feet.
What is the maximum moment on a 12 inch cantilever beam with 200 pounds placed on the end of the beam?
A. 1200 inch-lbs
B. 3600 inch-lbs
C. 100 ft-lbs
D. 200 ft-lbs
You Chose:
In the physics of mechanics, "Moment" = Force X Distance. 200 pounds acting through one foot = 200 foot-lbs.
A ton overhead crane is reeved with a block and 10 part line and is being used to lift a load of 10 tons. Discounting the block friction what is the
force required for this pick?
A. 10 tons
B. 20,000 pounds
C. 2 tons
D. 2,000 pounds
You Chose:
The ten-part line on the crane referred to in this question provides a mechanical advantage of 10-to-1. That is, only a 2,000 pound force is
required. 10 tons \'b4 2000 pounds/ton = 20,000 pounds. Then: 20,000 pounds divided by 10 = 2,000 pounds. The term reeved refers to the
method of routing the wire ropes through the blocks used to develop the mechanical advantage. As can be seen in the previous illustration, the
method and sequence of winding the wire rope through the pulleys in the blocks (reeving) is very important. There are several methods of
reeving including simple lacing, square reeving and skip reeving. All the methods require care to prevent undue loading of the block and wear
due to the rope not running true. If you are not familiar with basic rigging principles, a good review is in order prior to the Safety Fundamentals
examination.

If the voltage in a DC circuit is 120 volts and the resistance is 10 ohms, what is the current?
A. 0.01 amps
B. 10 amps
C. 12 amps
D. 1200 amps
You Chose:
A 12 foot pole is used to pry 500 pounds. The fulcrum is located 3 feet from the weight. The force required is_____? If the fulcrum is moved one
foot closer to the weight the force required is now ______?
A. 17 lbs and 10 lbs

B. 144 lbs and 90 lbs
C. 170 lbs and 100 lbs
D. 14.4 lbs and 9 lbs
You Chose:
Apply the formula and solve for the unknown.

For Condition #1:
For Condition #2:
A 500 pound load is lifted with a 2 leg sling whose legs are at a 35 degree angle with the load. How much crushing pressure is transferred to the
top of the box?
A. 872 lbs
B. 357 lbs
C. 436 lbs
D. 714 lbs
You Chose:

Total compression force = 2 x b = 714 lbs
A six foot, 180 pound man is pushing an overhead beam while standing on a 450 pound wheeled scaffold which is 6 feet wide and 18 feet high.
The coefficient of friction for the scaffold with the wheels locked is 0.88. How much force must he exert to tip the scaffold?
A. 55 lbs
B. 105 lbs
C. 60 lbs
D. 80 lbs
You Chose:
Determine the force required to tip the scaffold discounting the wheel's coefficient of friction. Note: Use nominal distance of 3 feet for d1 since
the weight is evenly distributed.

The pressure in a gas cylinder is 5 psig at 32 degrees F. The cylinder is allowed to heat to 140 degrees F in a commercial transportation van
exposed to the sun. What is the new pressure in the gas cylinder?
A. 20 psig
B. 5 psig
C. 24 psia
D. 6 psig
You Chose:
As shown below, the answer remains the same if you convert Fahrenheit to Celsius and then go to absolute temperature (Kelvin):
Your plant manufactures electronic parts. These parts are moved throughout the plant using two types of four wheel handcarts, type "A" which
weigh 65 pounds and type "B" which weigh 105 pounds. The coefficient of friction for both carts is 0.12. The handles (push bars) on the "A"
handcarts are 36 inches from the floor and 40 inches from the floor on the "B" handcarts. What weight can be carried in the "A" cart with a 10
kg pushing force (assume a push of 90 foot once per 8 hour work shift)?

A. 167 lbs
B. 118 lbs
C. 135 lbs
D. 15 lbs
You Chose:
Force to move the cart = the force of friction times the weight of the cart plus the load.
weigh 65 pounds and type "B" which weigh 105 pounds. The carts used in your plant were designed to accommodate both male and female
employees. The coefficient of friction for both carts is 0.12. The thinking at time of design was that the heavier constructed carts, the "B" carts
would only be used by male employees, and the "A" carts would be used by the female work force. However, the required weight to be carried
by the carts is significantly above the current weights allowed by the self-imposed 10 kg pushing limit. Determine the weight that could be
carried by 90% of the male work force. (Male employees cannot use the "A" carts due to the lower handle height).
A. 153 lbs
B. 53 lbs
C. 173 lbs
D. 133 lbs
You Chose:

weigh 65 pounds and type "B" which weigh 105 pounds. Modifications to the production schedule would allow (after medical screening) 50% of
the work force to push the maximum weight in the carts, while the others would move a lower weight. Consider an additional 10% of the rolling
friction is required for starting. What weight could be carried in the carts when pushed by male employees? (The modification now requires a
heavy push every 30 minutes). The coefficient of friction for both carts is 0.12.
A. 144 lbs
B. 158 lbs
C. 213 lbs
D. 245 lbs
You Chose:

Why is it preferable in some instances to use mass rather than weight?
A. Weight varies with location

B. Mass varies with location
C. Mass has smaller units
D. Weight has smaller units
You Chose:
Scientists prefer to measure mass, the fixed amount of matter in an object, rather than weight, the amount of gravitational attraction pulling on
an object, because mass is always the same no matter where it is measured, whereas weight varies. A rock weighs less on top of Mount Everest
than on the floor of Death Valley.
A rock weighs 205 kilograms on land. In water it weighs 114 kilograms submerged. What is the specific gravity of the rock?
A. 1.8
B. 2.5
C. 1.75
D. 2.25
You Chose:
Specific gravity is the ratio of the rock's weight to an equal volume of water. Since the difference in weight on land and in the water is 91
kilograms, then an amount of water the same volume as the rock must weigh 91 kilograms. But, the rock weighs 205 kilograms, so 205 / 91 =
2.25 times heavier than water. SG = 2.25.
A 20-foot-wide, 40-foot-long small barge, weighing 12,000 pounds is transporting three stacks of cargo, each weighing 3,000 pounds. To what
depth will the barge sink in the water with this loading?
A. .5 feet
B. 5 inches
C. 9 inches
D. 2.3 feet
You Chose:
Step 1: Determine the square footage of the barge
Step 2: Determine total weight to be supported by the water
Step 3: Determine the volume of water to be displaced by the weight.
Step 4: Determine the amount of depth (in inches) required by the barge to displace this much water

A standpipe 75 feet high, radius of 3 inches, filled with water creates _______ psi?
A. 155 psi
B. 320 psi
C. 32.5 psi
D. 15.5 psi
You Chose:
The constant for water pressure is .433 psi per foot of elevation. 0.433 x 75 = 32.475. Water has a weight density of 62.4 lbs/ft3 (from the
BCSP handout issued at the test). 62.4 / (12 x 12) = 0.433 psi/ft of elevation.
An eight foot beam is supported on each end and loaded with a uniform load of 25 pounds per foot (200 pounds, total weight). That is, the load
is distributed over the entire length of the beam. What is the moment?
A. 1900 foot-lbs
B. 1800 foot-lbs
C. 800 foot-lbs
D. 400 foot-lbs
You Chose:
An equally loaded beam represents the same loading as a single load located in the middle of the beam. The moment must be measured from
one of the support points. M = Weight x DistanceM = 200 lbs x 4 ft= 800 ft-lbs
An object dropped from a tall platform falling freely achieves a speed of 32.2 feet per second by the end of the first second and 64.4 f/s by the
end of the next second. How far will the object travel between the fourth and fifth seconds of its fall?
A. 144 feet
B. 256 feet
C. 328 feet
D. 400 feet
You Chose:
Step 1: Calculate distance object will fall in 5 seconds.
Step 2: Calculate distance object will fall in 4 seconds.

Step 3: Determine distance fallen by subtracting the distance traveled in four seconds from the total distance traveled in five seconds.
Safety requirements for the general public require a use zone of 6 feet to surround stationary playground equipment. What are the minimum
measurements for the placement of monkey bars that are 7 feet tall and have an 8 foot ? 6 foot footprint?
A. 8 feet X 6 feet
B. 14 feet X 12 feet
C. 19 feet X 18 feet
D. 20 feet X 18 feet
You Chose:
The six foot "use zone" is a requirement from the American Society for Testing and Materials (ASTM) standard F1487, Playground Equipment for
Public Use. A portion of this standard is reprinted below: 9.2 Stationary Play Equipment -- Stationary play equipment may be free-standing
structures, may be in combination with other play equipment, or may be part(s) of a composite play structure. 9.2.1 The use zone for stationary
play equipment shall extend no less than 72 in. (1830 mm) from all sides of the play structure. 9.2.2 The use zones for two or more stationary
play structures that are not physically attached but are play-functionally linked shall be determined as if the separate equipment were parts of a
composite play structure. 9.2.3 The use zones of two stationary pieces of equipment that are positioned adjacent to one another may overlap if
the adjacent designated play surfaces of each structure are no more than 30 in. (760 mm) above the protective surface
If a second set of monkey bars were to be placed with the 8 foot sides facing each other, the minimum area needed would be _________.
A. 8 feet X 18 feet
B. 20 feet X 18 feet
C. 20 feet X 33 feet
D. 20 feet X 36 feet
You Chose:
From ASTM F1487, 9.2.3, two play structures exceeding 30 inches in height must be separated by a use zone of 9 feet (108 in.). As can be seen
in the figure, if the structures are separated by 9 feet and surrounded by a 6 foot safety zone, it would add 12 feet to the length and 21 feet to
the width (20' x 33').

Atmospheric pressure (14.7 psi) will support a column of mercury approximately 29.92 inches high. If the column of mercury is replaced with a
column of Ethanol (Specific Gravity 0.90), how high would the column be? Note: The Molecular Weight of Ethanol is 118.2.
A. 407 inches
B. 37.7 feet
C. 43.43 feet
D. 29.92 feet
You Chose:
Step 1: Convert 14.7 psi to feet of water column
Step 2: Convert water column to Ethanol column (divide by Specific Gravity).
Using the vent line illustration in the exhibit, complete the following statement. In this example the pressure in the vent line is ___________

atmospheric pressure and the Velocity Pressure is equal to _____ in water gauge.
A. below, +1.0"
B. above, -1.0"
C. above, -0.25"
D. below, -0.25"
You Chose:
The illustration depicts an open end vent line with a fan that is exhausting air. The line is in suction, therefore the pressure is below atmospheric
pressure. The pressure is computed using the following formula: Total Pressure (TP) = Static Pressure (SP) + Velocity Pressure (VP)
If you are not familiar with this type of vent line illustration, or the theory does not make sense, you should review basic ventilation principles
prior to the examination. The ACGIH "Industrial Ventilation Manual", 18th edition or later, is excellent.
Lighting, radiation and sound are energy sources that follow the inverse square rule, which states: "The propagation of energy through space is
inversely proportional to the square of the distance it must travel". Accordingly, if a radiation source has a reading of 50 at 4 feet, what will the
radiation be at 40 feet?
A. 200
B. 5
C. 0.5
D. 25
You Chose:
The inverse square law, although found in the formula book under radiation, can be used for light, radiation, or noise (noise must be in absolute
units, not dB). The inverse square formula will work on almost any omni directional energy source. However, it cannot be used for heat
calculations.
A crane accident occurred when the load line (wire rope) broke. The crane was being used to lower a load of 16 tons at a uniform speed. Due to
a malfunction in the deadman switch circuit the load and hoisting rope was subjected to a sudden deceleration of 100 fps2. What was the tensile
force on the load line that caused it to break?
A. about 65½ tons

B. about 130 tons
C. about 35¼ tons
D. about 42¾ tons
You Chose:
Step 1: Calculate inertia force placed on the load.

Step 2: Add weight of load to inertia force to determine total force on load line.
The balloon shown in the exhibit illustration is filled with 0.12 m3 of helium. If the balloon and string have a combined weight of 15 grams, what
is the minimum force needed to keep the balloon from flying away? (The molecular weight of helium is 2)
A. 125 grams
B. 130 grams
C. 132 grams
D. 140 grams
You Chose:
Step 1: Calculate weight of air displaced. (Hint: The molecular weight of air is 30 g/mole and 1 mole occupies 24.45 L.)
Step 2: Subtract weight of balloon and string from the weight of air displaced to determine upward force.
A passenger bus was required to make an emergency stop on a straight, level section of interstate highway. The area was posted at 50 MPH.
The investigating officer measured the skid marks to be 180 feet. Assuming a coefficient of friction of 0.67, what was the approximate speed of
the bus prior to applying the brakes?
A. 40 MPH
B. 50 MPH
C. 60 MPH
D. 70 MPH
You Chose:

Apply the formula and solve.
DERIVATION OF FORMULA
Step 1: Combine basic formulas
Step 2: Substitute velocity squared \'b8 2 times distance for acceleration.
Step 3: Substitute for F - note that N = W on a level surface which allows W to cancel out of the equation.
Step 4: v2 in feet per second is replaced with (vFPS = vMPH x 1.47)2 Both sides of the equation are squared to solve for v2.
Step 5: Multiply the givens and simplify Note: Acceleration of gravity is 32.2 ft/sec2
Step 6: Rearrange & solve for velocity in miles per hour.
Step 7: This is the locked wheel skid mark formula and can be shown in either format.
A passenger bus was required to make an emergency stop on a straight, level section of interstate highway. The area was posted at 50 MPH.
Assuming a coefficient of friction of 0.67, what was the approximate speed of the bus prior to applying the brakes? If the driver had been
observing the 50 MPH speed limit, about how many feet of locked wheel skid marks would you expect?
A. 115 feet
B. 125 feet

C. 145 feet
D. 160 feet
You Chose:
What was the speed of a 4000 pound pickup truck leaving measured locked wheel skid marks of 90 feet on an asphalt roadway (coeficient of
friction (u) = 0.7) before skidding 230 feet on a grassy shoulder (coeficient of friction (u) = 0.3)?
A. 44.5 MPH
B. 54 MPH
C. 63 MPH
D. 72.5 MPH
You Chose:
Step 1: Solve for speed on asphalt.
Step 2: Solve for speed on grass.
Step 3: Calculate resultant speed
The following details were obtained during your investigation of a vehicular accident at the Little League complex: Early Saturday morning, a
coach arrived at the fields with 5 players in the bed of his pickup truck. The vehicle and its passengers weighed approximately 5000 pounds. The
road surface was unpaved, dry and exhibited a 0.57 coefficient of friction. While approaching one of the fields, the coach turned around to talk
with one of the players and inadvertently hit a portable shed. The shed was on skids and was moved 11 feet by the impact. The shed and its
contents weighed 13,000 pounds (? was calculated to be 0.73). The speed limit at the complex is posted at 10 MPH. What is your estimated
speed of the vehicle at impact?
A. 7 MPH
B. 10 MPH
C. 18 MPH
D. 25 MPH
You Chose:

To solve this problem, we must rely on the physical law of conservation of energy. That is, the energy required to move the shed is equal to the
energy developed by the speed of the truck. If we can determine the amount of energy required to move the shed, we can easily solve for the
speed of the pickup truck at impact.
Step 1: Determine the kinetic energy required to move the shed.
Step 2: Determine the minimum speed of the truck to develop the kinetic energy needed.
NOTE: The above formula is another accident investigation skid mark analysis equation. It will not be given on the BCSP formula sheet given out
during the exam. The equation can be derived from a series of formulas that are given on the BCSP Examination Reference Handout, as follows:
Step 1: Combine basic formulas for kinetic energy given weight.
Step 2: v2 in feet per secon
Question 637: ID# 000617 Category: STATISTICS REVIEW
Your plant has had 50 serious vehicle accidents in the past 10 years, three involving forktrucks. What is the probability that the next serious
accident will involve a forktruck?
A. 10%
B. no way to tell
C. 9%
D. 6%
You Chose:
Probability is the number of fork truck accidents divided by the number of total accidents.
In a normal distribution, the mean plus or minus two standard deviations estimates what percentile of the distribution.
A. 97.5
B. 95.5
C. Bottom half
D. Top half
You Chose:
The mean plus or minus two standard deviations will estimate the point at which 95.5% of the observations will be within the observation
window.
In a normal distribution, 99% of the observations will fall within + or - ___ standard deviations of the mean.
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
You Chose:

In a normal distribution, 99% of the observations will fall within + or - 3 standard deviations of the mean, 95% within + or - 2 standard
deviations and 68% within + or - one standard deviation.
Solve the problem in the exhibit.
A. 86.4
B. 4320
C. 43200
D. 172800
You Chose:
The factorial (!) notation indicates that you multiply all factors, ie; 6! = 6 x 5 x 4 x 3 x 2 x 1 = 720 The problem then becomes: On the TI: (6! x
6!) / (3! x 2!) = 43,200
Two items with a coefficient of correlation of 0.2 to 0.4 would have?

C. No correlation
You Chose:
near -1 indicates that the values are very closely related, but in a negative way (increase in one is related to a decrease in the other). In safety
work, a correlation between + or - .6 is not considered reliable enough to make a reliable decision.
Your Safety Committee is made up of 10 men and two women. What is the probability if you make a random selection of two individuals, that
both individuals will be female?
A. .007
B. .028
C. .015
D. .167
You Chose:
During the first random selection you have two chances in 12 of selecting, but in the second selection you only have one chance in 11 in
selecting a female.
Given the following sample distribution: 10, 15, 15, 25, 30. Compute the standard deviation.
A. 8.2
B. 7.3
C. 19
D. 11.9
You Chose:

Note: Most modern scientific calculators perform statistical functions. We recommend you learn to do standard deviation calculations on your
calculator prior to the exam. You will save yourself some time and avoid the possibility of errors. On the TI 30X IIS: Set to STAT Mode then
select 1-VAR and enter: Press DATA X1=10 down arrow FRQ=1 down arrow X2=15 down arrow FRQ=2 down arrow X4=25 down arrow FRQ=1
down arrow X5=30 down arrow FRQ=1 down arrow, then press STATVAT select Sx = 8.216
One entire class of safety professionals passed the ASP examination with the following scores: 153, 176, 188, 198, 201, 211, 217. What is the
standard deviation?
A. 19.34
B. 20.34
C. 21.97
D. 90.78
You Chose:
Do not forget to use the population formula for this question. Since the
entire population is involved, we do not need to subtract 1 from the number of data points. On the TI 30X IIS: Set to STAT Mode then select 1-
VAR and enter: Press DATA X1=153 down arrow FRQ=1 down arrow X2=176 down arrow FRQ=1 down arrow X3=188 down arrow FRQ=1 down
arrow X4=198 down arrow FRQ=1 down arrow X5=201 down arrow FRQ=1 down arrow X6=211 down arrow FRQ=1 down arrow X7=217 down
arrow FRQ=1 down arrow, then press STATVAT select ?x = 20.34
Calculate the population standard deviation of the following: 3.8, 0.8, -0.2, -1.2, -3.2
A. 1.04
B. 2.32
C. 2.59
D. 5.18
You Chose:

A single pump is used to supply hydraulic pressure to a door closer in a regulated biohazard area. The door is closed remotely if an accident
should occur. The facility maintenance/engineering staff was concerned about the high probability of failure. The old pump (1 x 10^-8) was
replaced with a new dual pump arrangement. With the new dual pump arrangement, either pump can supply enough hydraulic pressure to close
the door. Additionally, each pump is a different type and has different probabilities of failure. Pump "A" has a probability of failure of 1 x 10^-4
and pump "B" has a failure rate of 1 x 10^-3. Which of the following statements best describes this situation?
A. Maintenance/engineering should be commended for a good job

B. The success of this important safety system has been improved considerably
C. The failure rate has increased by a factor of 10
D. The failure rate has decreased by a factor of 20
You Chose:
Since the components are in parallel, the configuration indicates an "AND" gate situation, that is pump 1 and pump 2 must fail before hydraulic
pump failure occurs. However, the calculation reveals that (1 x 10^-4) x (1 x 10^-3) = 1 x 10^-7 which is 10 times greater than the original
pump failure rate. You use to have a failure once every 100 million operations, now you have a failure every 10 million operations.
The attendance at safety meetings at a particular plant has a coefficient of correlation of -0.7 to -0.9. This would indicate:

C. No correlation
You Chose:
near -1 indicates the values are very closely related but in a negative way (increase in one is related to a decrease in the other). In safety work
a correlation between + to - 0.6 is discounted. A coefficient of correlation of -0.7 to -0.9 would indicate a strong negative correlation.
A bolt has a shear strength of 1,000 pounds, accurate to within 200 pounds. What is the chance that the bolt will break with a 1,500 pound load
applied?
A. 0.4938%
B. 49.4%
C. 0.994%
D. 99.4%
You Chose:

FINDING THE AREA UNDER THE CURVEThe process of finding the desired area under the curve often involves several steps. In this instance we
are looking for the entire area under the curve from the beginning of the curve on the extreme left side to 2.5 standard deviations on the other
side of the mean. Z = standard deviation and X-bar = mean.
Step 1: From the table in the BCSP formula sheet or candidate handbook, determine the area under the curve from the X-bar to a Z of 2.50 -- a Z
of 2.50 would be 0.4938; Z of 2.51 would be 0.4940; 2.52 would be 0.4941, etc.
Step 2: Since we are looking for the area of the curve, measured from the extreme left side, we must add in the left half of the curve, which is of
course, 50% or half the curve.
0.5 + 0.4938 = 0.9938
A selected set of supervisors have been trained and tested. The test scores have been plotted and are distributed as shown in this diagram.
What can we say about the results of the training?
A. the curve has a negative slope

B. the training was effective
C. more training is required
D. no additional information is made available by plotting the scores
You Chose:
Not all test results will provide a frequency distribution represented by a standard curve. A standard distribution is called mesokurtic. This curve
shows that most of the supervisors were below the mean and did not score well on the test.

Using the following epidemiological matrix for reference n the exhibit, determine which of the following two expressions would be used to
evaluate the effects of formalin (formaldehyde) use on workers who contract cancer?
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
You Chose:
This is just another probability problem. In epidemiological studies, there are two study groups: the control group and the test group. The
control group is not exposed to the substance under study while the test group is exposed. The task of the epidemiologist is basically to see if
exposure to the substance has an effect on the probability of contracting or experiencing adverse symptoms. In our question, the substance
under study is formalin and the adverse symptom is cancer. So, for our control group, the probability of contracting cancer is the number of non-
exposed workers who contracted cancer (C) divided by the total number of non-exposed workers (C+D)To decide if formalin exposure has an
effect, we need to compare the above probability to the probability of our test group contracting cancer. For the test group, our expression
would the number of exposed workers who contracted cancer (A) divided by the total number of exposed workers (A+B).
Question 651: ID# 000631 Category: TRIGONOMETRY REVIEW
A 1000 pound load is lifted with a 2 leg sling whose legs are at a 30 degree angle with the load. The stress on each leg of the sling is:
A. 500 lbs
B. 1000 lbs
C. 2000 lbs
D. 3000 lbs
You Chose:
HINT: Double divided SLINGS are SIN full. Divide the load by the number of sling legs and then divide again by the SIN of the angle. 1000 / 2 /
sin 30 = 1000 lbs
A 20,000 pound load is lifted with a 2 leg sling whose legs are at a 60 degree angle with the load. The stress on each leg of the sling is:
A. 8754 pounds
B. 9967 pounds
C. 11547 pounds
D. 12333 pounds
You Chose:

HINT: Double divided SLINGS are SIN full. 20000 / 2 / sin 60 = 11,547 lbs
An 8 foot steel ladder is placed against a building. The base of the ladder is 2.5 feet from the building. The top of the ladder slips one foot down.
How far did the bottom of the ladder move?
A. 2 feet
B. 4.5 feet
C. 3 feet
D. 1 foot
You Chose:
Using the triangle relationship (a2 + b2 = c2) you solve for the first situation and find that the ladder is 7.6 feet up on the house. After the
ladder slips 1 foot it is 6.6 feet up on the house and you use the same relationship to solve for the new base 82 - (6.6)2 = (Base)2 Base = 4.5 ft
- 2.5 ft = 2 ft
The cantilever beam illustrated below is supported by a guy wire and is holding a 60 pound weight. What is the tension on the guy wire?

A. 100 lbs
B. 120 lbs
C. 60 lbs
D. 85 lbs
You Chose:
Step 1: Draw a adjoining triangle that shares the hypotenuse to aid in labeling
Step 2: Re-orient and label the right triangle. Then solve for the desired unknown value - which in this case is the guy wire tension.
HINT: Double divided SLINGS are SIN full. 60 / 1 / sin 30 = 120 lbs
A 11,400 kilogram weight is suspended by two equal length cables, as shown in the diagram below. What is the stress in each of the cables?
A. 5,700 kg
B. 11,400 kg
C. 8,868 kg
D. 10,000 kg
You Chose:
Step 1: Separate into a single right triangle carrying half of the load.

Step 2: Reorient and label. (the 40 deg angle is complementary)
Step 3: Solve for the unknown
What is the angle of a ramp that rises 4 feet in a 10 foot run?
A. 20 degrees
B. 22 degrees
C. 24 degrees
D. 32 degrees
You Chose:

Discounting friction what is the force required to keep the block from sliding down the ramp in the illustration shown below?
A. 20 lbs
B. 22 lbs
C. 18 lbs
D. 80 lbs
You Chose:
Step 2: Cut the box again to determine the unknown force. This line will be perpendicular to the slope.
Step 3: Draw the remaining line to complete a right triangle. This line will always be parallel to the angle of the ramp and gives us another
unknown force.

Step 4: Re-orient and label the right triangle. Then solve for the desired unknown value - which in this case is the force required to keep the 40
pound block from sliding down the ramp. There is no need to solve for the other unknown since the force of friction is discounted in this
problem.
Hint: Force down the ramp is always a sin function. So, weight x sin of the angle = force down. In this case, 40 x sin 30 = 20 pounds.
In the following illustration, what is the force of the member labeled "b"?
A. 80 lbs
B. 160 lbs
C. 120 lbs
D. 180 lbs
You Chose:
Step 1: Since the relationships of force must follow the relationships of length in the right triangle, solution can be as simple as a ratio and
proportion problem. That is, 6 feet is to 120 lbs as 8 feet is to "F2".

Alternate Method:
Step 1: Determine the angle for this triangle given the dimension information provided.
Step 2: Given the angle and the force for one side determine the force for the member in question, in this case "b".
Using the illustration shown here, determine the height of the antenna tower at radio station XYZ if a shadow strikes the ground 10 feet from
the transmitter wall. Note: The building wall is 12 feet tall.
A. 45 feet
B. 50 feet
C. 60 feet
D. 75 feet
You Chose:
Using ratio and proportion, 10 feet is to 12 feet as 50 feet is to "D2a".

Alternate Method:
Step 1: Label diagram.

Step 2: Determine angle of building shadow.
Step 3: Use calculated angle to determine antenna height.
Note: The altitude to base ratio must stay the same between the two triangles.
In the triangle shown here, if the dimension c = 144, what is the product of the sides labeled "b" and "a"?
A. 10,650
B. 9,662
C. 4,970
D. 141
You Chose:
Step 1: This is a simple right triangle, however, it is not labeled or oriented according to convention. Therefore the first step is to redraw and
relabel the triangle correctly. The angle "A" is determined from 90 deg - 65 deg = 25 deg.

Step 2: Select a formula and solve for one of the unknown sides. In this case we choose side "a".
Step 3: Select a formula and solve for side "c".
Step 4: Multiply "a" times "c" to determine product.
A river flows from due north to due south at 2 miles an hour (176 feet/min). A swimmer capable of sustained movement at 5 miles per hour
(441 feet/min) in still water wants to cross the river in a due west direction. In what direction must the swimmer be headed in order to move
due west? What is the swimmers speed in the due west direction?
A. 23.5 Deg North of East and 404 feet/min

B. 23.5 Deg South of East and 474 feet/min
C. 23.5 Deg North of West and 404 feet/min
D. 23.5 Deg South of West and 474 feet/min
You Chose:
Step 1: Diagram a right triangle
Step 2: Label
Step 3: Solve for the two unknowns


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Score Report - SPAN ASP Exam Prep Software Version 4.

SPAN ASP Exam Prep Software Version 4.0

BUSINESS PRINCIPLES, PRACTICES & METRICS IN SAFETY, HEALTH & E (0

CONVERSION REVIEW (0 of 15 correct) 0%

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MEASURING, EVALUATING & CONTROLLING SAFETY, HEALTH &

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RECOGNIZING SAFETY, HEALTH & ENVIRONMENTAL HAZARDS (0 of 215

SAFETY, HEALTH & ENVIRONMENTAL TRAINING & MANAGEMENT (0 of 169

STATISTICS REVIEW (0 of 14 correct) 0%

TRIGONOMETRY REVIEW (0 of 11 correct) 0%

Questions Missed or Answered Incorrectly

You answered the following question Incorrectly

Correct Answer(s): [D]

Step 1: Determine pump failure rates

file://C:\Users\Shehzad\AppData\Roaming\SPAN\SPAN ASP Exam Prep 4.0\play\se... 20-03-2013

Step 3: Calculate the total probability of failure for this representation.

That is, the bottom event probabilities are multiplied.

You answered the following question Incorrectly

Correct Answer(s): [B]

Based on the Exhibit

You answered the following question Incorrectly

Correct Answer(s): [D]

(1 X 10(-3)) + (1 X 10(-2))+(1 X 10(-4)) = 10(-2)

You answered the following question Incorrectly

file://C:\Users\Shehzad\AppData\Roaming\SPAN\SPAN ASP Exam Prep 4.0\play\se... 20-03-2013

Correct Answer(s): [C]

You answered the following question Incorrectly

Correct Answer(s): [B]

Express the relationship, rearrange and solve

file://C:\Users\Shehzad\AppData\Roaming\SPAN\SPAN ASP Exam Prep 4.0\play\se... 20-03-2013

You answered the following question Incorrectly

Correct Answer(s): [C]

You answered the following question Incorrectly

Correct Answer(s): [D]

file://C:\Users\Shehzad\AppData\Roaming\SPAN\SPAN ASP Exam Prep 4.0\play\se... 20-03-2013

You answered the following question Incorrectly

A. Lease and save $3,000

Correct Answer(s): [A]

On the TI-30X IIS calculator: 6000 X (1.089 ^ 5 - 1) / (.089 X 1.089 ^ 5) = $23,399

You answered the following question Incorrectly

A. time lost from work by injured

Correct Answer(s): [C]

You answered the following question Incorrectly

Correct Answer(s): [A]

You answered the following question Incorrectly

file://C:\Users\Shehzad\AppData\Roaming\SPAN\SPAN ASP Exam Prep 4.0\play\se... 20-03-2013

Correct Answer(s): [B]

You answered the following question Incorrectly

Correct Answer(s): [B]

You answered the following question Incorrectly

Correct Answer(s): [C]

file://C:\Users\Shehzad\AppData\Roaming\SPAN\SPAN ASP Exam Prep 4.0\play\se... 20-03-2013

You answered the following question Incorrectly

Correct Answer(s): [B]

file://C:\Users\Shehzad\AppData\Roaming\SPAN\SPAN ASP Exam Prep 4.0\play\se... 20-03-2013

Correct Answer(s): [C]

Apply formula and solve

You answered the following question Incorrectly

A. Critical Incident Technique

Correct Answer(s): [C]

You answered the following question Incorrectly

Correct Answer(s): [A]

You answered the following question Incorrectly