Annexure-I

QUESTION BANK (EnHM)

Objective question regarding EnHM wing:

1. What is vision of Indian Railways Environment Management?

(a) To promote Green Environment and Clean energy. (b) To promote Clean Environment
and green energy. (c) To promote conservation of water and forest. (d) To maximize the use
of alternate forms of energy.
2. Which one is mission of Indian Railways Environment Management?
(a) To promote energy conservation measures. (b) To provide Clean and hygienic
environment to customers. (c) To march towards Zero work discharge from the major
Railway units. (d) All of these.
3. Which initiatives have been taken by Railway to keep Tracks & station premises clean and to
provide hygienic environment?
(a) Installation & use of bio-Toilets. (b) Plantation (c) Outsourcing (d) None of above.
4. Which article of Indian constitution ensures protection and improvement of environment?
(a) Article 48 A (b) Article 49 (c) Article 50 (d) Article 43A
5. In Bio-Toilets technology human wastes are converted into-
(a) CO2 (and H2O (b) CH4 and H2O (c) NH3 and H2O (d) SO2 and H2O
6. In Bio-Toilets techonology which bacteria converst Human waste into water and Bio gas?
(a) Anaerabic bacteria (b) Aerobic bacteria (c) Lacto bacillus (d) None of above.
7. World Environment Day is celebrated on-
(a) 5th of June (b) 5th of July (c) 7th of Sept. (d) 25th of October.
8. Swachhta Pakhwada is celebrated in Indian Railways-
(a) 16th August to 30th August (b) 16th Sept. to 30th Sept. (c) 02nd Oct. to 16th Oct. (d) 16th
January to 30 th January.
9. World Environment Day celebration have been held annually since 1974 for encouraging
awareness and protection of the Environment. What was the theme of 1st WED celebration?
(a) Only one Earth-1974 (b) Development without destruction( 1978) (c) Global
warming(1989) (d) Beat Air Pollution
10. Which are the methods of conservation of water?
(a) Rain water harvesting (b) Water Recycling Plant (c) Water Bodies (d) All of these.
11. Which one is most effective method to protect environment?
(a) Plantation of tree (b) Cutting of forest (c) Burning of leaves (d) Cultivation of grains.
12. Which is an effective process of Solid Waste Management?
(a) Installation of Dustbins (b) Disposal of waste at nominated place (c) Disposal and
conversion of Solid Waste into Energy. (d) Segregation of Bio-degradable and Non-bio
degradable waste
13. Water and Energy Audits are done to-
(a) Assess the wastage of water and Energy (b) Assess used of water and energy (c) Minimise
use of water and energy. (d) Minimize use of water and energy.
14. Water Audits and Energy Audits are done by-
(a) Mechanical Deptt. (b) Engineering Deptt. (c) Electric Deptt. (d) Third party.
15. Water Audits and Energy Audits are integral part-
(a) To analyze use of water and energy. (b) For conservation of water and energy (c) To keep
record on use of water & energy (d) None of these.
16. Plantation of Tree in most effective method to curb Air Pollution and it is done in Railway?
(a) By Engineering Deptt. (b) By Electrical Engineering Deptt. (c) By Personnel Deptt. (d) By
Administration
17. Which is not a long term effects from Air pollution which is caused by solid and liquid particles
and certain gases suspended in the air-
(a) Heart Disease (b) Lungs cancer (c) Respiratory diseases (d) Typhoid
18. Chemical waste are disposed according to Bio-Medical work Management through.-
(a) Yellow coloured non chlorinated plastic bags or container (b) Red coloured non
chlorinated plastic bags or container (c) Puncture proof, leak proof temper proof
container (d) Cardboard boxes with blue coloured marking.
19. According to solid waste management rule, waste generated. Should be stored and
segregated in------Separate bins.
(a) One (b) Two (c) Three ( Bio degradable, Non biodegradable and Hazardous waste) (d) Four
20. Consent to operate and concert to Establish is necessary for following-
(a) Railway stations (b) Good sidings (c) All of above (d) Non of above
21. Railway Board has empowered Zonal Railways towards provision of fund to Environment
related works, which is-
(a) 1% of estimate of work (b) 5% of estimate of work (c) 10% of estimate of work (d) 7% of
Estimate of work.
22. Which is a renewable source of energy-
(a) Coal (b) Petrol (c) Bio-gas (d) Solar energy
23. Which is exclusive post of EnHM wing as per Railway Board guideline?
(a) CEnHM (B) PCME (c) Sr DME (d) Dy.CEnHM
24. In EnHM “H” stands for-
(a) House Management (b) Home keeping (c) House keeping (d) None of these.
25. OBHS is a part of-
(a) Electrical Engineering (b) Commercial Deptt. (c) EnHM Wing (d) Operating Deptt.
26. Full form of OBHS is-
(a) Official Board House Service (b) On Board Housekeeping Service (c) None of these (d)------
27. Enforcement of various environmental laws and protection of environment in India. NGT play
important role. What is NGT-
(a) National Grievances Tribunal (b) National Green Tribe (c) National Green Tribunal (d)
North Green Task Force.
28. What is CSR-
(a) Common structural Reforms (b) Common School of Reforms (c) Corporate Section for
Reforms (d) Corporate Social Responsibility
29. How many stations of ECR are nominated by Railway Board for implementation of Action Plan
prescribed by NGT-
(a) 50 stations (b) 52 stations (c) 48 stations (d) 100 stations
30. In the Annual cleanliness survey 2019 of Zonal railways conducted by QCI, what was the
position of ECR.
(a) 1st (b) 3rd (c) 5th (d) 7th
31. Which station of Indian Railway has been declared 1st on IR among 720 stations in the
category of Green Scoring-
(a) Bangal ---- (b) Rajendra Nagar (c) Dhanbad (d) Chandigarh
32. How many mechanized Laundary operating in E.C.Railway?
(a) 02 (b) 10 (c) 05 (d) 04
33. What is BOOT MODEL?
(a) Build own operate Transfer (b) Blue tooth operation on train (c) Big operation on train (d)
Build operate own transfer
34. Elaborate QCI-
(a) Quantity Control by India (b) Quality Control of India (c) Quick Control by India (d) Quick
Control Inputs.
35. When EnHM wing formed in Indian Railway?
(a) 2015 (b) 2016 (c) 2017 (d) 2014
36. How many CTS stations nominated in ECR?
(a) 02 (b) 03 (c) 05 (d) 07
37. At which station clean train service has been provided-
(a) Patna Jn. (b) Muzaffarpur Jn. (c) Barauni Jn. (d) Dhanbad Jn.
38. How many coaching depots are situated in ECR-
(a) 16 (b) 17 (c) 18 (d) 20
39. Pest & Rodent Control is done to curb menance of insects and rats, which cycle is not true-
(a) Bi monthly in unreserved coaches (b) Fortnightly in Reserved coaches (c) Weekly in A.C.
Coaches (d) Daily in Rajdhani Coaches
40. How many OBHS covered trains are operating in ECR?
(a) 20 to 25 trains (b) 25 to 30 trains (c) 30 to 35 trains (d) 35 to 40 trains
41. Which one is not a A1 Category stations-
(a) Dhanbad (b) Darbhanga (c) Samastipur (d) Gaya
42. Supply of Linen in trains are monitored by-
(a) Commercial Deptt. (b) Operating Deptt. (c) Accounts Deptt. (d) Mechanical Deptt.
43. MCC in ECR done through outsourcing, what is MCC?
(a) Monthly Carriage Control (b) Money Control of Contractor (c) Mechanized contract
cleaning (d) Mechanized cleaning of coaches.
44. PBCM is installed at most all nominated stations of ECR. PBCM is-
(a) Public Bathroom for common man (b) Primary Booking Counter for Money (c) Plastic
Bottle crushing Machine (d) Primary booking counter for challans.
45. What is Bio-degradable object?
(a) Plastic (b) Metals (c) Cotton (d) Paints
46. Which one is not a type of waste?
(a) Inventory (b) Transportation (c) Talent (d) Defects.
47. For close monitoring of cleanliness and hygiene at stations-
(a) RPF team has been deployed. (b) Commercial staff has been deployed (c) CCTV has been
installed (d) None of these.
48. Which is not a method of online/real time redressal of passenger complaint?
(a) Rail Mandal (b) Coach Mitra (c) Swachh Map (d) Swachh Bharat
49. Which is not a method of Public awareness regarding cleanliness?
(a) Nukkad Natak (b) Posters & Banners (c) NGO’s (d) Mechanized Cleaning
50. Which one is not an Environment related work?
(a) Commissioning of water Recycling Plant (b) Afforestation (c) Rainwater Harvesting (d)
Installation of CCTV Cameras.
51. Area not less than-----metres around hospitals. Educational institutions and courts to be
declared as silence area for the purpose of noise pollution (Regulations and -----Rules 2000.
(a) 50 Metre (b) 100 Metre (c) 500 Metre (d) 300 Metre.
52. Match the following w.r.t. existing rules of Noise Pollution and ambient Air quality standards
in respect of ---category of Area/Zone.
(a) Industrial Area 65
(b) Commercial Area 55
(c) Silence Zone 50
(d) Residential Area 75
53. What dB(A) Leq denotes.
(a) Unit of sound (b) Unit of Ambient Air quality (c) Time weighted average of the level of
sound is decibels on scale A which is related to human hearing. (d) Air pollution index
54. When a person may complain to the authority?
(a) If the noise level exceeds the ambient noise standards by 10 dB (A).
(b) If the noise level exceeds the ambient noise standards by 5 dB (A)
(c) If the noise level exceeds the ambient noise standards by 50 dB (A)
(d) If the noise level exceeds the ambient noise standards by 25 dB (A)
55. The noise level at the boundary of public place, when loud speaker or public address system
or any other noise source is being used shall not exceed.
(a) 10 dB (A) above the ambient noise standard for the area of 75 dB (A), whichever is lower.
(b) 10 dB (A) above the ambient noise standard for the area of 100 dB (A), whichever is lower
(c) 10 dB (A) above the ambient noise standard for the area of 50 dB (A), whichever is lower
(d) 10 dB (A) above the ambient noise standard for the area of 125 dB (A), whichever is lower
56. In which case state Govt. shall take measure for abatement of noise when
(a) Noise emanates from vehicular movements (b) Use of loudspeakers (c) Bursting of sound
emitting fire crackers. (d) Use of public address system or sound producing instructions.
(e) All of these
57. Which statement is true with respect to existing sound pollution(regulation and control)
Rules-2000.
(a) No horn shall be used in silence zones or during night time in residential area except
during a public emergency. (b) Sound emitting fire crackers shall not be burst in silence
zone or during night time. (c) Sound emitting construction equipments shall not be used
or opended during night time is residential area and silence zone. (d) All of these.
58. Which type of waste shall not be disposed off on land fill and shall only be utilized for
generating energy.
(a) Non Recyclable waste (b) Bio-degradable waste (c) Non Bio-degradable waste (d)
Recyclable waste
59. The Construction and Demolition waste Management Rules,2016 shall apply to every waste
resulting from
(a) construction of any civil structure who generates construction and demolition waste such
as building material, debris, rubble
(b) re-modeling & repair of any civil structure who generates construction and demolition
waste such as building material, debris, rubble
(c) demolition of any civil structure who generates construction and demolition waste such as
building material, debris, rubble
(d) All of these
60. SPCB or PCC shall grant authorization to Construction and Demolition waste processing
facility
(a) in Form-III after examining the application received in Form I
(b) in Form-II after examining the application received in Form III
 (c) in Form-III after examining the application received in Form IV
(d) None of these
61. Construction and demolition waste shall be utilized as mentioned at Schedule I of these rule.
(a) In sanitary landfill for municipal solid waste of the city or region
(b) Should be handover to waste collector
(c) Should be kept on wet lands.
(d) Near forest area
62. Provide training to its entire health care worker and others involved in handling of waste is a
section of which notified rules
(a) The Bio- Waste Management-2016
(b) The Solid Wastes Management Rules, 2016
(c) The Hazardous and other Waste (Management & Trans-boundary Movement) Rules, 2016
(d) The E- Waste Management Rules, 2016
63. All waste generators shall pay such user fee or charge as may be specified in the bye-laws of
the local bodies for
(a) Bio- Waste Management
(b) Plastic waste management
(c) The Hazardous and other Waste
(d) The E- Waste Management
64. No producer shall on and after the expiry of a period of Six Months from the date of final
publication of these rules in the Official Gazette manufacture or use any plastic or multi-
layered packaging for packaging of commodities without registration from the concerned
State Pollution Control Board or the Pollution Control Committees
(a)The Plastic Waste Management Rules, 2016
(b) The Solid Wastes Management Rules, 2016
(c) The Hazardous and other Waste (Management & Trans-boundary Movement) Rules, 2016
(d) The E- Waste Management Rules, 2016
65. 1.The level of noise recommended in most countries is
30-40 dB
95-100 dB
85-90 dB
75-80 dB
66. 2.A safe level of noise depends on
level of noise and exposure to noise
area
pitch
frequency
67. 3-Sound is measured in
(A) Hertz
(B) Decibel
(C) ppm
(D) none of the above
68. 4-Following scale is used for loudness of sound or noise
(A) linear scale
(B) logarithmic scale
(C) exponential scale
(D) none of the above
69. 5-The level of sound during normal conversation is
(A) 20 dbA
(B) 40 dbA
(C) 60 dbA
(D) 80 dbA
70. When did the Noise Pollution Regulations and Control Rule established in India?
a) 2000
b) 2004
c) 2005
d) 2007
What timings loud speakers shouldn’t use in public areas?
a) 10:00 pm to 5:00 am
b) 1:00 am to 7:00 am
c) 11:00 pm to 6:00 am
d) 10:00 pm to 6:00 am
When can a person complaint to the police regarding noise pollution level?
a) When the ambient noise standards exceeds by 10 dB
b) When the ambient noise standards exceeds by 20 dB
c) When the ambient noise standards exceeds by 30 dB
d) When the ambient noise standards exceeds by 50 dB
What is the meaning of silence zone for noise pollution?
a) Area comprising more than 100 meters around hospitals and educational institutes
b) Area comprising not less than 100 meters around hospitals and educational institutes
c) Area comprising more than 100 meters around clubs and commercial streets
d) Area comprising not less than 100 meters around clubs and commercial streets
When did the Factories Act constitute in India?
a) 1930
b) 1947
c) 1948
d) 1956
6. The State Government shall take measures for abatement of noise.
a) True
b) False
Which Ministry published a draft of Noise Pollution Rules?
a) Ministry of Foreign Affaires
b) Ministry of Pollution Control
c) Ministry of Industries
d) Ministry of Environment and Forests
View Answer
71. In which year the Motor Vehicles Act came into force?
a) 1983
b) 1984
c) 1988
d) 1990
72. One of the efficient ways to control aircraft noise is__________________
a) Building aircrafts with old technologies
b) Maximize the passengers to 100
 c) Increase the amount of pressure it can withstand
d) Constructing aerodromes far away from the residential areas
73. 10. In which section, if a person violates the noise pollution regulations, is liable for penalty?
a) Section 12
b) Section 15
c) Section 18
d) Section 19
View Answer
74. 11. What is the db level for heavy vehicles in India?
a) 70
b) 75
c) 77
d) 80
12. What are the ambient air quality standards in industrial area during day time?
a) 75 db
b) 80 db
c) 85 db
d) 100 db
75. In which Act, noise is included as an environmental pollutant?
a) 1974
b) 1981
c) 1988
d) 1994
View Answer
76. Loud speakers cause noise.
a) True
b) False

77. On which date international day for Bio diversity is observed?

Ans. 22 May
78. In which month Railway observed Swachhta Pakhwara?
Ans. September
79. What is the period of Swachhta Pakhwara in Indian Railways ?
Ans. 15 days
80. When is World Environment Day?
Ans. 05 June
81. Which country is considered to have the world’s first sustainable bio fuels economy?
Ans. Brazil
82. The ‘thickness’ of stratospheric Ozone layer is measured in?
Ans. Donson units
83. Which layer of the atmosphere is also called Ozonosphere?
Ans. Stratosphere
84. Name the atmospheric layer closest to the ground?
Ans. Troposphere
85. The most abundant gas on the earth’s atmosphere?
Ans. Nitrogen
86. What atmospheric layer has most of the clouds?
 Ans. Troposphere
87. The study of weather is called?
Ans. Meteorology
88. Name the atmospheric layer that is completely cloudless and free of water vapor?
Ans. Thermosphere
89. What is the safe level of noise intensity for humans?
Ans. Up to 80 decibels
90. Which instrument is used to measure wind velocity?
Ans. Anemometer
91. What is the instrument used to detect earthquakes?
Ans. Seismograph
92. What is the unit in which radio activity is measured?
Ans. Roentgen
93. The region of the atmosphere above 400 KM ?
Ans. Exosphere
94. World wetlands day is observed on?
Ans. 02 February
95. What does UNEP stand for?
Ans. United Nations Environmental programme.
96. Where is the head quarter of UNEP?
Ans. Nairobi
97. The non point pollution of river water involves discharge of pollutants through?
Ans. Agricultural Fields
98. Which process unit is used for air pollution control in chemical plants?
Ans. Thermal oxidizer
99. What percentage of land area should remain covered by forest in India to maintain ecological
balance?
Ans. 33%
100. First international conference on environment held on?
Ans. June 1972
101. With respect to environment science, full form of SPM is;
Ans. Suspended particulate matter.
102. Deforestation generally decreases;
Ans. Rainfall
103. Biosphere reserve project was initiated in India during;
Ans. 1986
104. Syringes are examples of;
Ans. Biomedical waste
105. Silviculture is the management of ;
Ans. Forests
106. Ozone layer is being depleted by;
Ans. Chlorofluorocarbon
107. The environment protection act enacted on;
Ans. 1986
108. Which is the most abundant greenhouse gas present in the atmosphere?
Ans. Water vapor
109. The chairman of the intergovernmental panel on climate change (IPCC)?
 Ans. Hoesung Lee
110. Where was the united nations conference on environment and development
(UNCED)or the earth summit held at;
Ans. Rio de janeiro.
111. ISO 14000 standards are for the ;
Ans. Environmental management system
112. In which year did the ISO create the ISO 14000 family of standards?
Ans.1996
113. Which is the first environmental management system standard?
Ans. BS 7750
114. In which year did the current revision of ISO 14001 get published?
Ans. 2015
115. Which of the following pair of ISO 14000 standards fall under the category of
environmental management system?
Ans. ISO 14001 & 14004.
116. Which ISO 14000 series standard refers to the guidelines on Environmental performance
evaluation?
Ans. ISO 14031.
117. What is most land used for;
Ans. Agriculture
118. What is the main reason for increase in water contamination incidents;
Ans. Management failure
119. How many companies worldwide have certified environmental management systems;
Ans. 10,000-1,00,000
120. What is the legal principal for handling waste?
Ans. Duty of care
121. Which energy source is renewable?
Ans. Wind
122. The loss of rainforest each year is equivalent to the size of which country;
Ans. New Zealand
123. Which pollution issue are people (in UK) most concerned about;
Ans. Disposal of hazardous waste
124. The acronym CSR stands for;
Ans. Corporate social responsibility
125. Corporate social responsibility (CSR) consists of which four kinds of responsibilities;
Ans. Economic, legal, ethical & philanthropic
126. The idea of sustainable development was conceived in early;
Ans. 1980
127. Social, economic and ecological equity is the necessary condition for achieving;
Ans. Sustainable development
128. Adverse social impacts could be in the form of ;
Ans. loss of land, loss of structure & loss of livelihood
129. Under which ISO standard the guidance on Social responsibility was recognized?
Ans. ISO 26000
130. A chemical industry is not a cause of ;
Ans. Nuclear pollution
131. Electronic waste is the adverse effect of;
 Ans. Industry
132. Which kind of materials are to be collected in blue coloured bins?
Ans. Materials that can be used again
133. Which kind of materials are to be collected in green coloured bins?
Ans. Those materials that rot completely when buried soil.
134. Which kind of materials are to be collected in red coloured bins?
Ans. Contaminated waste
135. Which kind of materials are to be collected in white coloured bins?
Ans. Waste sharps including metals
136. Which kind of materials are to be collected in Yellow coloured bins?
Ans. Human anatomical waste, chemical solid waste, expired or discarded medicines.
137. Waste removal system was established in which of the following cities for the first time?
Ans. Athens
138. Which of the following solid wastes describes the term “Municipal solid waste”?
Ans. Non Hazardous
139. Which gas is produced from landfill wastes?
Ans. Biogas
140. The most serious environmental effect posed by hazardous wastes is;
Ans. Contamination of ground water.
141. What plan should we make to the disposal of solid waste?
Ans. Integrated waste management plan.
142. Which of the integrated waste management is reduced on an individual level?
Ans. Source reduction
143. Which idea behind solid waste management?
Ans. Stop waste generation.
144. Which gas produced in open dumps from the decomposition of biodegradable waste?
Ans. Methane
145. The WHO has classified the Bio medical waste;
Ans. 04 categories
146. How many types of landfills are there?
Ans. Three
147. How many ways to treat waste thermally?
Ans. Three
148. Under which rule of Govt. guidelines for solid waste management are followed today?
Ans. Solid waste rules,2016
149. The number of functional components of solid waste management is;
Ans. 06
150. The term “Municipal solid waste” is used to describe which kind of solid waste?
Ans. Hazardous.
151. What is the PH value of normal rain water?
Ans. 5.6
152. NGT tribunal has banned the use of non biodegradable plastic bags less than
……microns ;
Ans. 50 microns
153. Who organized the world conference on Environment on 25 March 2017?
Ans. NGT
154. What is the full form of NGT?
 Ans. National Green Tribunal.
155. Where is the HQ of NGT?
Ans. New Delhi
156. NGT established in which year?
Ans. 2010
157. Which observatory’s environment clearance has NGT suspended?
Ans. Neutrino observatory, Theni
158. In which pilgrimage towns national green tribunal (NGT) imposed a complete ban on
plastic bags on 02nd july 2015?
Ans. Haridwar & Rishikesh
159. The water (Prevention and control of pollution) Act was enacted in the year;
Ans. 1974
160. The air (Prevention and control of pollution) Act was enacted in the year;
Ans. 1981
161. The Forest conservation Act was enacted in the year;
Ans. 1980
162. The first of the major environmental protection act to be promulgated in India was;
Ans. Water act
163. Noise pollution has been inserted as pollution in the air act in;
Ans. 1987
164. NGOs stands for;
Ans. Non governmental organization.
165. EPA stands for;
Ans. Environmental protection Agency
166. How many chapters contains in EPA?
Ans. 04 chapters
167. How many sections contains in EPA?
Ans. 26 sections
168. How many chapters contains in Air ACT?
Ans. 07 chapters
169. How many sections contains in Air ACT?
Ans. 54 sections
170. How many chapters contains in Water ACT?
Ans. 08 chapters
171. How many sections contains in Water ACT?
Ans. 64 sections
172. The forest conservation act extends to the whole of India except;
Ans. Jammu & Kashmir
173. What is the order of waste management hierarchy, from most to least favoured
Ans. Prevention-Reuse-Recycle-Disposal
174. What is Geo-Net?
Ans. A synthetic material used for drainage of liquids
175. Which country is one of the world’s biggest digital dumping grounds?
Ans. Ghana
176. Which country produces the most E-Waste?
Ans. China
177. What is a good way to dispose of E-Waste?
 Ans. Recycle
178. When did hazardous waste management act enacted in India?
Ans.1989
179. Who is responsible for safe disposal of the generated hazardous waste?
Ans. Generator.
180. Regulations for waste management is provided under subtitle C of;
Ans. RCRA
181. Which form of shipment is common for transport of hazardous waste?
Ans. Road
182. Why is manifest system necessary?
Ans. To monitor journey of waste.
183. What is the ambient noise level in the residential one during night time?
Ans. 45 dB
184. At what decibel instantaneous rupture of membrane happens?
Ans. 150 dB
185. What is the dB of a threshold of pain?
Ans. 146 dB
186. What is the dB of a threshold of hearing?
Ans. 0 dB
187. Which pollution cause hearing loss in organisms?
Ans. Noise pollution
188. When clean train station scheme launched by Railway?
Ans. 2003
189. Which was the first station where implemented this scheme?
Ans. Ratlam station
190. What is the CTS timing?
Ans. 06:00 hrs. to 22:00 hrs.
191. When this CTS scheme implemented at Jaipur Station?
Ans. In year 2005
192. How much minimum time fixed for trains who are nominated for CTS?
Ans. 15 minutes
193. How many work station required per two coaches?
Ans. One work station
194. When OBHS scheme launched by Railway?
Ans. 2007
195. What is the OBHS timing?
Ans. 05.00 hrs. – 10.00 hrs. and 18.00 hrs. – 22.00 hrs
196. How many coach one janitor to be attended under OBHS scheme?
Ans. Every 03 reserved coaches
197. OBHS service is provided in which type of coaches?
Ans. Reserved coaches
198. In which budget year Hon’ble MR announced for OBHS scheme in Indian Railways?
Ans. 2006-07
199. EnHM wing formed in which year in Indian Railways?
Ans. 2015
200. What is the percentage of ERW in capital works program me?
Ans. 1%
201. What is the full form of ERW?
Ans. Environment related works.
202. ERW provision formed in which year in Indian Railways?
Ans. 2016
203.Who has authority in division for sanction of ERW works?
Ans. DRM