FIITJEE PHASE TEST

NSEJS QP CODE

Time: 2 Hours Maximum Marks: 240

A. Question Paper Format

1. The question paper consists of 4 parts (Physics -Section-I, Chemistry - Section-II, Biology - Section-III
and Mathematics- Section-IV) and each part consists of four sections.

2. Each Section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for
its answer, out of which only one is correct.

B. Marking scheme:

1. For each question in Section I, II, III & IV, you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken only the
bubble corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubbles are darkened. In all other
cases, minus one (-1) marks will be award.

Enrolment No. :

Name : . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .

Batch : . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . Date:. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
 CFY_PHASE-2_NSEJS-2

SECTION – I : PHYSICS
Straight objective type
This section contains 20 multiple-choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
1. Choose the correct option (T - true; F - False):
(i) Unbalanced forces cannot set a stationary body in motion.
(ii) A Balanced force acts on a body moving with constant velocity.
(iii) If net force on a body is zero, its acceleration is zero.
(A) TFT (B) FFT
(C) FTT (D) FTF
1. C
Sol.: If Fnet  0 then forces are unbalanced and object must accelerate.
If Fnet = 0 , then forces are balanced and object remains at rest or moves with uniform
velocity.

2. Which diagram represents a box in equilibrium?

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

2. B
Sol.: All forces are balanced for a net force of zero.

3. In doubling the mass and acceleration of the mass, the force acting on the mass with respect to
the previous value
(A) Decreases to half (B) Remains unchanged
(C) Increases two times (D) Increases four times
3. D
Sol.: Force = Mass  Acceleration. If mass and acceleration both are doubled then force will
become four times.

4. When we jump out of a boat standing in water it moves

(A) Forward (B) Backward
(C) Sideways (D) None of the above
4. B
Sol.: Because for every action there is an equal and opposite reaction takes place.

5. The gravitational force between two objects does not depend on

(a) Sum of the masses (b) Product of the masses
(c) Gravitational constant (d) Distance between the masses
5. (a)
Gravitatio nal constant  product of the masses
Sol.: F= .
(Distance between the masses) 2

6. The mass of the moon is about 1.2% of the mass of the earth. Compared to the gravitational
force the earth exerts on the moon, the gravitational force the moon exerts on earth
(a) Is the same (b) Is smaller
(c) Is greater (d) Varies with its phase

FIITJEE Ltd., Plot No. 47, Sector – 12B, Opposite Bal Bhawan International School, Dwarka, New Delhi – 110 075,
Ph. : 011-28035963/64/65 website : www.fiitjee.com
 CFY_PHASE-2_NSEJS-3

6. (a)
Sol.: Earth and moon both exerts same force on each other.

7. A spherical planet far out in space has a mass M 0 and diameter D0. A particle of mass m
falling freely near the surface of this planet will experience an acceleration due to gravity
which is equal to
(a) GM 0 / D02 (b) 4 mGM 0 / D02
(c) 4 GM 0 / D02 (d) GmM 0 / D02
7. (c)
GM GM 4 GM
Sol.: We know g = 2 = 2
=
R (D / 2) D2
If mass of the planet = M 0 and diameter of the planet = D0 .
4 GM 0
Then g = .
D 02

8. Where will it be profitable to purchase 1 kg sugar (by spring balance)

(a) At poles (b) At equator
(c) depend on mass (d) none
8. (b)
Sol.: At equator the value of g is minimum so it is profitable to purchase sugar at this position.

9. Force of gravity is least at

(a) The equator (b)The poles
(c) A point in between equator and any pole (d) None of these
9. (a)
Sol.: Conceptual

10. The gravitational force between two stones of mass 1 kg each separated by a distance of 1
metre is
(a) Zero (b) 6 .675  10 −5 newton
(c) 6 .675  10 −11 newton (d) 6 .675  10 −8 newton
10. (c)
m1m 2 11
Sol.: F=G 2
= 6 . 675   10 −11 = 6 . 675  10 −11 N
r 12

11. The gravitational force between two point masses m 1 and m 2 at separation r is given by
m 1m 2
F=k
r2
The constant k
(a) Zero (b) 9.8
−11
(c) 6.675  10 (d) 6.675
11. (c)
Sol.: k represents gravitational constant which depends only on the system of units.

12. The force of gravitation is

(a) Repulsive (b) attractive
(c) (a)&(b) both correct (d) none of these
12. (b)
Sol.: Conceptual

13. Which of the following statements about the gravitational constant is true
(a) 9.8
(b) It has no unit
(c) It does not depend on the nature of the medium in which the bodies are kept.
(d) It depends on the value of the masses
13. (c)
Sol.: Conceptual

FIITJEE Ltd., Plot No. 47, Sector – 12B, Opposite Bal Bhawan International School, Dwarka, New Delhi – 110 075,
Ph. : 011-28035963/64/65 website : www.fiitjee.com
 CFY_PHASE-2_NSEJS-4

14. Which of the following statements is true

(a) Acceleration due to gravity in vacuum is same irrespective of size and mass of the body
(b) Acceleration due to gravity in vacuum depends on the mass of the body
(c) There is no acceleration due to gravity in vacuum
(d) None of these
14. (a)
Sol.: Conceptual

15. Which graph shown in the following ones represents a state of rest for an object?

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

15. D
Sol.: Conceptual

16. Find the limiting force of friction between an iron block and surface, if coefficient of friction
between block and surface is 0.08 and the mass of block is 60 kg (if g = 10 m/s2)
(A) 480 N (B) 48 N
(C) 600 N (D) 60 N
16. B
Sol. limiting friction = N
= 0.08 × 60 × 10
= 60 × 0.8
= 48 N

17. A body of mass 5 kg is moving with a uniform velocity of 10 m/s. It is acted upon by a force of
20 N. What will be its velocity after 1 s?
(A) 5 m/s (B) 14 m/s
(C) 22 m/s (D) 30 m/s
17. B
20
Sol. a= = 4 m/s2
5
v = u + at = 10 + 4  1 = 14 m/s

18. A 2 N force is applied to a mass M that is adjacent to a wall,

as shown. If the mass is 2kg the force that the wall exerts on
the mass is equal to
(A) 0 N (B) 2 N 2N
(C) 15 N (D) 19.6 N M

18. B
Sol. F1 = F2

19. A force F1 acts on a particle so as acclerate it from rest to a velocity v. The force F 1 is then
replaced by F2 which decelerates it to rest
(A) F1 must be equal to F2 (B) F1 may be equal to F2
(C) F1 must be unequal to F2 (D) none of these
19. B
Sol. F1 may be equal to F2.

FIITJEE Ltd., Plot No. 47, Sector – 12B, Opposite Bal Bhawan International School, Dwarka, New Delhi – 110 075,
Ph. : 011-28035963/64/65 website : www.fiitjee.com
 CFY_PHASE-2_NSEJS-5

20. When the normal force is doubled the coefficient of friction is N

(A) doubled (B) halved
(C) not changed (D) tripled rest
M

20. C
Sol.  doesn’t depend on normal reaction.

Space For Rough Work

FIITJEE Ltd., Plot No. 47, Sector – 12B, Opposite Bal Bhawan International School, Dwarka, New Delhi – 110 075,
Ph. : 011-28035963/64/65 website : www.fiitjee.com
 CFY_PHASE-2_NSEJS-6

SECTION – II : CHEMISTRY
Straight objective type
This section contains 20 multiple-choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
1. 5g of ice at 0oC and 20g of water at 45oC are mixed. The temperature of the mixture will be
(A) 10°C (B) 20°C
(C) 30°C (D) 40°C
1. B
Sol. Ice = water
mL + mC = mC
(5  80) + (5  1 x) = 20  1 (45 − x)
400 + 5x = 900 − 20x
−500 = −25x
x = 20o C

2. A mixture of sulphur and carbon disulphide is

(A) heterogeneous and shows Tyndall effect
(B) homogeneous and shows Tyndall effect
(C) heterogeneous and does not show Tyndall effect
(D) homogeneous and does not show Tyndall effect
2. A
Sol. Factual

3. Which of the following has highest kinetic energy?

(A) Particles of ice at 0oC (B) particle of water at 0oC
o
(C) particle of water at 100 C (D) Particles of steam at 100oC
3. D
Sol. Steam has latent heat of vaporization.

4. Whipped cream is an example of:

Dispersion Medium Dispersed Phase
(I) Liquid Gas
(II) Liquid Liquid
(III) Liquid Solid
(IV) Gas Liquid
(A) I (B) II
(C) III (D) (IV)
4. A
Sol. Whipped cream is an example of gas in liquid.

5. Separating funnel is useful in separating the following

(A) miscible liquids with same density (B) miscible liquids with same colour
(C) miscible liquids with variable density (D) immiscible liquids with variable density
5. D
Sol. Factual

6. Milk is a _______ solution but vinegar is ______________ solution.

(A) colloidal, suspension (B) suspension, colloidal
(C) colloidal, true (D) suspension, true
6. C
Sol. Factual

7. The element which is a liquid above 30oC is

(A) Cesium (B) Lithium
(C) Sodium (D) Magnesium
7. A
Sol. Factual

FIITJEE Ltd., Plot No. 47, Sector – 12B, Opposite Bal Bhawan International School, Dwarka, New Delhi – 110 075,
Ph. : 011-28035963/64/65 website : www.fiitjee.com
 CFY_PHASE-2_NSEJS-7

8. Water loving colloids are called:

(A) hydrophobic colloids (B) hydrophilic colloids
(C) reversible colloids (D) irreversible coloids
8. B
Sol. Factual

9. Association of molecules in water is due to

(A) covalent bonding (B) hydrogen bonding
(C) ionic bonding (D) van der Waals’ forces
9. B
Sol. Factual

10. Which of the following gases require minimum cooling for liquefaction
(A) Argon (B) Oxygen
(C) Nitrogen (D) Water vapour
10. D
Sol. Factual

11. What type of solution are formed by following mixtures in water respectively?
Egg albumin, Common salt, Starch, Chalk powder
(A) Opaque, Translucent, Transparent, Opaque
(B) Opaque, Transparent, Translucent, Translucent
(C) Translucent, Transparent, Translucent, Opaque
(D) Translucent, Transparent, Translucent, Translucent
11. C
Sol. Egg albumin in water → Translucent solution
Common salt in water → Transparent solution
Starch in water → Translucent solution
Chalk powder in water → Opaque

12. Principle of chromatography is :

(A) Rate of absorption (B) Rate of adsorption
(C) Rate of diffusion (D) None of these
12. B
Sol. Factual

13. The colour of vapours formed on sublimation of iodine solid is

(A) Purple (violet) (B) Colourless
(C) Yellow (D) Orange
13. A
Sol. Iodine vapours are violet in colour.

14. The correct order which describes the true solution, colloidal solution and suspension in the
order of their increasing stability is
(A) Suspension < colloidal solution < true solution
(B) Colloidal solution < true solution < suspension
(C) True solution < colloidal solution < suspension
(D) Colloidal solution < suspension < true solution
14. A
Sol. Factual

15. What mass of sulphuric acid present in 100 mL of 15% mass by mass solution of sulphuric
acid(density = 1.10 g/mL)?
(A) 16.5 g (B) 15.5 g
(C) 15 g (D) 10 g

FIITJEE Ltd., Plot No. 47, Sector – 12B, Opposite Bal Bhawan International School, Dwarka, New Delhi – 110 075,
Ph. : 011-28035963/64/65 website : www.fiitjee.com
 CFY_PHASE-2_NSEJS-8

15. A
g of solute
Sol. Mass% =  100
g of solution
m
d=
V
G of solution = d × V
= 100 × 10
x  100
15 =
100  110
x = 16.5

16. Which of the following process takes place at low temperature and high pressure?
(A) Evaporation (B) Condensation
(C) Melting (D) Vaporization
16. B
Sol. Condensation process takes place at low temperature & high pressure.

17. For a certain reaction PV = 2 dm3 atm and volume is 4 dm3 then the corresponding pressure
is
(A) 1 atm (B) 4 atm
(C) 0.5 atm (D) 2 atm
17. C
2
Sol. P1V1 = P2 V2  2 = P  4  P = = 0.5atm
4

18. A curve drawn at constant temperature is called an isotherm. This shows the relationship
between
1
(A) P and (B) PV and V
V
1
(C) V and (D) P and V
P
18. D
Sol. Factual

19. 12 g of K2SO4 dissolves in 75 g of water at 60°C. What is its solubility in water at that
temperature?
(A) 16 g (B) 18 g
(C) 12 g (D) 25 g
19. A
Sol. Solubility of K2SO4 in water is 16 g.

20. Which of the following statements are correct?

(a) Foam is a colloidal solution of gas in liquid.
(b) Aerosol is a colloidal solution of liquid in gas
(c) Gel is a colloidal solution of liquid in liquid
(d) Emulsion is a colloidal solution of liquid in liquid
(A) a, b, c (B) a, c, d
(C) a, b, d (D) b, c, d
20. C
Sol. Factual

FIITJEE Ltd., Plot No. 47, Sector – 12B, Opposite Bal Bhawan International School, Dwarka, New Delhi – 110 075,
Ph. : 011-28035963/64/65 website : www.fiitjee.com
 CFY_PHASE-2_NSEJS-9

SECTION – III : BIOLOGY

Straight objective type
This section contains 20 multiple-choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
1. The disease, elephantiasis is caused by a parasite called _________ .
(A) Taenia sodium (B) Ascariasis lumbricoides
(C) Wuchereria bancrofti (D) Salmonella typhi
1. C
Sol.: Elephantiasis is caused by a parasite Wachereria Bancrofti.

2. The patient should be administered a vaccine named ________ for the prevention of a
bacterial disease caused by Salmonella typhi.
(A) diacyl carbamazine (B) BCG
(C) TAB (D) Hepatitis B
2. C
Sol.: TAB is used to prevent typhoid.

3. Anopheles spreads _____________ .

(A) malaria (B) filariasis
(C) dysentery (D) HIV
3. A
Sol.: Anopheles spread Malaria.

4. Our body produces _____________ to provide immunity against the poisonous substance
present in the microorganisms.
(A) toxins (B) pathogens
(C) antibodies (D) antigens
4. C
Sol.: Antibodies are produced against foreign microorganisms.

5. An insect which transmit a diseases is known as

(A) intermediate host (B) parasite
(C) vector (D) prey
5. C
Sol.: Vector is an insect transmitting disease.

6. Rabies is also called as

(A) diphtheria (B) ricket
(C) hydrophobia (D) marasmus
6. C
Sol.: Hydrophobia is another name for Rabies.

7. The disease caused by the deficiency of vitamin A is

(A) ricket (B) xerophthalmia
(C) beri-beri (D) anaemia
7. B
Sol.: Vitamin A deficiency causes xerophathalmia.

8. Making anti-viral drugs is more difficult than making antibacterial medicines because
(A) Viruses are on the border line of living and non-living
(B) Viruses have very few biochemical mechanisms of their own
(C) Viruses have a protein coat
(D) All of these
8. B
Sol.: Anti viral drugs are difficult to make as they do not have their own metabolism.

9. Which of these organs, when infected shows symptoms of cough and breathlessness?
(A) Heart (B) Lungs
(C) Stomach (D) Kidney

FIITJEE Ltd., Plot No. 47, Sector – 12B, Opposite Bal Bhawan International School, Dwarka, New Delhi – 110 075,
Ph. : 011-28035963/64/65 website : www.fiitjee.com
 CFY_PHASE-2_NSEJS-10

9. B
Sol.: Lungs when infected shows the symptoms of cough and breathlessness.

10. Which of the following microorganisms causes peptic ulcers?

(A) Staphylococcus aureus (B) Streptococcus pneumonia
(C) Helicobacter pylori (D) Nisseria
10. C
Sol.: Helicobacter pylori causes peptic ulcer.

11. Which of the following organisms causes malaria?

(A) Paramoecium (B) Plasmodium
(C) Flavi-virus (D) Taxoplasma
11. B
Sol.: Plasmodium causes malaria.

12. The interval between infection and appearance of a disease is known as:
(A) Inoculation (B) Penetration
(C) Infection (D) Incubation period
12. D
Sol.: Incubation period is a time interval between infection and appearance of symptoms.

13. Disease-causing factors existing within the body itself are called:
(A) Extrinsic factors (B) Hereditary factors
(C) Congenital factors (D) Intrinsic factors
13. D
Sol.: Intrinsic factors are found within the body.

14. Breathing polluted air causes diseases of the

(A) Nervous system (B) Circulatory system
(C) Respiratory system (D) Digestive system
14. C
Sol.: Breathing polluted air causes respiratory disease.

15. BCG stands for

(A) Bacterio chemical Gangrene (B) Bacteria culture growth
(C) Bacille calmette Guerin (D) Bacterial cell growth
15. C
Sol.: BCG stands for Bacille Calmette Guerin.

16. The first motile infective form of malarial parasite is

(A) Merozoite (B) Ookinete
(C) Sporozoite (D) Oocyst
16. C
Sol.: Sporozoite is first infective stage of Plasmodium.

17. Common cold, Pneumonia and Tuberculosis are

(A) Air borne diseases (B) Water borne diseases
(C) soil borne diseases (D) vector borne diseases
17. A
Sol.: Common cold, Pneumonia and tuberculosis are air borne disease.

18. Rhabdovirus affects

(a) Liver (b) Spinal Cord
(c) Brain (d) Both (b) and (c)
18. D
Sol.: Rhabdovirus affects both brain and spinal cord.

19. Faecal oral route method of transmission of disease is found in

(a) Polio (b) AIDS
(c) Malaria (d) syphilis
19. A
Sol.: Faecal oral route method of transmission of disease is found in polio.

FIITJEE Ltd., Plot No. 47, Sector – 12B, Opposite Bal Bhawan International School, Dwarka, New Delhi – 110 075,
Ph. : 011-28035963/64/65 website : www.fiitjee.com
 CFY_PHASE-2_NSEJS-11

20. Weak Bones and teeth are due to deficiency of

(A) Vitamin E (B) Calcium
(C) Proteins (D) Iron
20. B
Sol.: Weak Bones and teeth are due to deficiency of calcium.

FIITJEE Ltd., Plot No. 47, Sector – 12B, Opposite Bal Bhawan International School, Dwarka, New Delhi – 110 075,
Ph. : 011-28035963/64/65 website : www.fiitjee.com
 CFY_PHASE-2_NSEJS-12

SECTION – IV : MATHEMATICS
Straight objective type
This section contains 20 multiple-choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

1. The mean of 121 numbers is 59. If each number is multipled by 4, what will be the new mean ?
(A) 234 (B) 235 (C) 236 (D) 237
1. C
New mean = orginal mean  4

2. The mean weight of students of a class is 46 kg. The mean weight of boys is 50 kg and that of
girls is 40 kg. Find the ratio of the number of boys to the number of girls
(A) 1 : 2 (B) 2 : 3 (C) 3 : 2 (D) 2 : 1
2. C
sum of observations
Mean =
number of observations

3. In PQR, QR produced to a point S such that PRS = 125º. If PQ = PR. Then P =

(A) 62º (B) 70º (C) 65.2º (D) 65º
3 B
Using exterior angle property and angle sum property

4. Area of the shaded region is A

10cm 10cm
D

8 cm
B 10cm C

(A) 25 3 cm2 (B) 19.3 cm2 (C) 24 cm2 (D) none of these
4. B
Using pythoagors theorma DC = 6 cm
Area of shaded region
= area of ABC – area of DBC

5. If O is the intersecting point of internal bisectors of base angles of  ABC and O´ is the
intersecting point of external bisectors of base angles of  ABC. Then  O +  O´ is :
(A) 90° (B) 180° (C) 270° (D) 360°
5. B
Angles formed between external bisectors & internal bisectors of base angles are
supplementary
O + O’ = 180º

6. If the sides of triangle are in the ratio 3 : 4 : 5 are area of triangle is 72 cm 2, then its semi
perimeter is
(A) 3 cm (B) 8 3 cm
(C) 12 3 cm (D) 10 3 cm
6. C
Let sides be 3x, 4x, 5x
1
 3x + 4x = 72  x = 2 3
2

FIITJEE Ltd., Plot No. 47, Sector – 12B, Opposite Bal Bhawan International School, Dwarka, New Delhi – 110 075,
Ph. : 011-28035963/64/65 website : www.fiitjee.com
 CFY_PHASE-2_NSEJS-13

16 25 81
7. The value of 7log + 5log + 3log is
15 24 80
(A) log2 (B) log 3
(C) 0 (D) None of
7. A
7 5 3
 16   25   81 
log   .     = log2
 15   24   80 

8. In the given figure, equilateral triangle EDC surmounts square ABCD. Find mBED E

represented by x where mEBC =  0 x

0

(A) 450 (B) 60 0

D C
(C) 300 (D) none of these


A B
8. A
BED = 60º −15º = 45º

9. An isosceles right triangle has an area 200 cm2. What is the length of its hypotenuse?
(A) 10 2 cm (B) 20 2 cm (C) 30 2 cm (D) none of these
9. B
1 2
x = 200 ( let each equal side = x )
2
x = 20
 Hypotenuse = 20 2 cm

10. In an isosceles triangle ABC with AB = AC, If BD and CE are its altitudes, then
(A) BD = CE (B) BD > CE (C) BD < CE (D) None of these
10. A
IF bases are equal then altitudes equal BD = CE

11. The perimeter of a triangular field is 240 m and its sides are in the ratio 3 : 4: 5. Then the area
of the triangle is
(A) 2000 m2 (B) 2200 m2 (C) 2400 m2 (D) 2600 m2
11. C
Perimeter of  = 240 m
Ratio of sides = 3 : 4 : 5
 Sides are 60, 80 and 100
1
Area =  60  80 = 2400 m2
2

12. If three sides a, b and c of the triangle are 10 cm, 20 cm and 20 cm respectively. If the sides a
and b are increased by 50% on keeping side c remains same, then what would be % change
in the semi perimeter of the triangle
(A) 20 % increase (B) 30 % increase (C) 75 % increase (D) no change
12. B
Original semi perimeter of  = 25 cm
New Original semi perimeter of  = 32.5 cm
% change = 30

13. The number log27 is

(A) an integer (B) a rational number (C) irrational number (D) a prime number
13. C
irrational number

FIITJEE Ltd., Plot No. 47, Sector – 12B, Opposite Bal Bhawan International School, Dwarka, New Delhi – 110 075,
Ph. : 011-28035963/64/65 website : www.fiitjee.com
 CFY_PHASE-2_NSEJS-14

14. The value of x in the figure given below is

A

5 cm x

x
B C
12 cm

(A) 1 cm (B) 2 cm (C) 2.5 cm (D) 3 cm

14. B
In radius x = 2cm

15. The value of log34  log54  log56  log76  log87  log98 is equal to
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
15. B
log4 log5 log6 log7 log8 log9
    
log3 log4 log5 log6 log7 log8
= log3 9 = 2
16. If AO and BO are the angle bisectors of A and B of ABC . Find the measure of
AOB if C = 70 0

(A) 1050 (B) 1150 (C) 1250 (D) 1350

16. C
1
AOB = 90º + C
2
= 125º
17. In the given figure, if AB = AC and DB = DC, then the ratio of ABD to ACD is
A

B C
(A) 1 : 2 (B) 2 : 1
(C) 1 : 1 (D) 1 :3
17. C
 ABD = ACD
 ratio = 1: 1

18. In ABC, if A = 45º and C = 60º, then the shortest side of the triangle is :
(A) AB (B) AC (C) BC (D) None of these
18. C
 A is shortest
 BC is shortest side

19. In a ABC, if A = 95º, and AB = AC, then C is

1 1 1
(A) 85º (B) 35 º (C) 82 º (D) 42 º
2 2 2
19. D
By angle sum property
1
C = 42 º
2
20. If D is the mid-point of the hypotenuse AC of a right angled triangle ABC, then 2BD is equal to
1
(A) AB (B) BC (C) AC (D) AC
2

FIITJEE Ltd., Plot No. 47, Sector – 12B, Opposite Bal Bhawan International School, Dwarka, New Delhi – 110 075,
Ph. : 011-28035963/64/65 website : www.fiitjee.com
 CFY_PHASE-2_NSEJS-15

20. C
 Hypotenuse = diameter of circumcircle
 AC = 2BD

FIITJEE Ltd., Plot No. 47, Sector – 12B, Opposite Bal Bhawan International School, Dwarka, New Delhi – 110 075,
Ph. : 011-28035963/64/65 website : www.fiitjee.com