Namma Kalvi

10th STANDARD

SCIENCE
SMALL TEST
(ALL UNITS)

Prepared by

A. AROKIASURESH, M.Sc.B.Ed.,
BT ASST. (SCIENCE)
GHSS, KALAMARUDUR
KALLAKURICHI (DT).
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Science 1. Laws of Motion a) 4M b) 2M c) M/4 d) M

Class: 10 Small Test Marks: 30 9. If the Earth shrinks to 50% of its real radius its mass
remaining the same, the weight of the body on the Earth will
I Choose the correct answer 10 × 1 = 10
a) decrease by 50% b) increase by 50%
1. Inertia of a body depends on c) decrease by 25% d) increase by 300%

a) weight of the object b) acceleration due to gravity of the planet 10. To project the rockets which of the following principle(s)
c) mass of the object d) Both a & b is/(are) required?
a) Newton’s third law of motion
2. Impulse is equal to b) Newton’s law of gravitation
a) rate of change of momentum b) rate of force and time c) law of conservation and linear momentum
c) change of momentum d) rate of change of mass d) both a & c
3. Newton’s III law is applicable II Answer briefly 6 × 2 = 12
a) for a body at a rest b) for a body in motion 11. Define inertia. Give its classification
c) both a & b d) only for bodies with equal mass
12. If 5 N and a 15 N forces are acting opposite to one another.
4. Plotting a graph for momentum on the X-axis and time Y-axis, Find the resultant force and direction of action of the resultant
slope of momentum – time graph gives force.
a) Impulsive force b) Acceleration 13. Differentiate mass and weight
c) Force d) rate of force
14. State Newton’s second law
5. In which of the following sport the turning of effect of force
used 15. While catching a cricket ball the fielder lowers his hands
a) swimming b) tennis backwards. Why?
c) cycling d) hockey
16. Hoe does an astronaut float in a space shuttle?
6. The unit of ‘g’ is ms-2. It can be also expressed as
III Answer in detail. 2×4=8
a) cm s -1
b) N kg -1
c) N m kg
2 -1
d) cm s
2 -2
17. State and prove the law of conservation of linear momentum.
7. One-kilogram force is equal to
18. State the universal law of gravitation and derive its
a) 9.8 dyne b) 9.8×104 N
mathematical expression.
c) 98×104 dyne d) 980 dyne
-------------------------------×------------------------------
8. The mass of the body is measured on planet Earth as M kg,
when it is taken to a planet of radius half that of the Earth then A. AROKIASURESH, M.Sc.B.Ed., BT ASST. (SCIENCE), GHSS, KALAMARUDUR, KALLAKURICHI (DT).
its value will be ______ kg
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Science 2. Optics 9. Which of the following lens would you prefer to use while
reading small letters found in a dictionary?
Class: 10 Small Test Marks: 30
a) A convex lens of focal length 5 cm
I Choose the correct answer 10 × 1 = 10
b) A concave lens of focal length 5 cm
1. The refractive index of four substances A, B, C and D are 1.31, c) A convex lens of focal length 10 cm
1.43, 1.33, 2.4 respectively. The speed of light is maximum in d) A concave lens of focal length 10 cm

a) A b) B c) C d) D 10. If VB, VG, VR be the velocity of blue, green and red light
respectively in a glass prism, then which of the following
2. Where should an object be placed so that a real and inverted statement gives the correct relation.
image of same size is obtained by a convex lens
a) VB = VG =VR b) VB > VG > VR
a) f b) 2f c) infinity d) between f and 2f c) VB < VG < VR d) VB < VG > VR
3. A small bulb is placed at the principal focus of a convex lens. II Answer briefly 6 × 2 = 12
When the bulb is switched on, the lens will produce
11. State Snell’s law.
a) a convergent beam of light b) a divergent beam of light
c) a parallel beam of light d) a coloured beam of light 12. Draw a ray diagram to show the image formed by a convex
lens when the object is placed between F and 2F.
4. Magnification of a convex lens is
13. Differentiate convex lens and concave lens.
a) positive b) negative c) either positive or negative d) zero
14. What is power of accommodation of eye?
5. A convex lens form as real, diminished point sized image at
focus. Then the position of the object is at 15. Why are traffic signals red in colour?

a) focus b) infinity c) at 2f d) between f and 2f 16. State Rayleigh’s law of scattering.

6. Power of a lens is -4D, then its focal length III Answer in detail. 2×4=8

a) 4m b) -40m c) -0.25m d) -2.5m 17. List any five properties of light.

7. In myopic eye, the image of the object is formed 18. Explain the construction and working of a ‘Compound
microscope’.
a) behind the retina b) in front of the retina
c) on the retina d) on the blind spot -------------------------------×------------------------------

8. The eye defect ‘presbyopia’ can be corrected by A. AROKIASURESH, M.Sc.B.Ed., BT ASST. (SCIENCE), GHSS, KALAMARUDUR, KALLAKURICHI (DT).

a) convex lens b) concave lens

c) convex mirror d) bi focal lens
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Science 3. Thermal Physics II Answer briefly 8 × 2 = 16

Class: 10 Small Test Marks: 30 7. Define one calorie.

I Choose the correct answer 6×1=6 8. Distinguish between linear and superficial expansion.

1. The value of universal gas constant 9. State Boyle’s law.

a) 3.81 J mol-1 K-1 b) 8.03 J mol -1 K-1 10. Distinguish between ideal gas and real gas.
c) 1.38 J mol -1 K-1 d) 8.31 J mol -1 K-1 11. Calculate the coefficient of cubical expansion of a zinc bar.
Whose volume is increased from 0.25 m3 to 0.3 m3 due to the
2. If the substance is heated or cooled, the change in mass of the
substance is change in its temperature of 50 K.

a) positive b) negative c) zero d) none of the above 12. What is coefficient of real expansion.

3. If the substance is heated or cooled, the linear expansion 13. State the law of volume.
occurs along the axis of
14. match the following
a) X or -X b) Y or -Y c) both a and b d) a or b
1. Linear expansion - 1.381 x 10-23 JK-1
4. Temperature is the average _______ of the molecules of a 2. Superficial expansion - change in volume
substance 3. Cubical expansion - change in area
a) difference in K.E and P.E b) sum of P.E and K.E 4. Boltzmann constant - change in length
c) difference in T.E and P.E d) difference in K.E and T.E III Answer in detail. 2×4=8
5. In the given diagram, the possible direction of heat energy 15. Drive the ideal gas equation.
transformation is
16. Explain the experiment of measuring the real and apparent
expansion of a liquid with a neat diagram.
303 K (A) a) A B, A C, B C
-------------------------------×------------------------------
304 K (B) 305 K (C) b) A B, A C, B C

c) A B, A C, B C

d) A B, A C, B C A. AROKIASURESH, M.Sc.B.Ed., BT ASST. (SCIENCE), GHSS, KALAMARUDUR, KALLAKURICHI (DT).

6. The value of Avogadro number.

a) 6023 x 1023 b) 6.023 x 1023

c) 6.023 x 1024 d) 6023 x 1024
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Science 4. Electricity 8. Distinguish between the resistivity and conductivity of a

conductor.
Class: 10 Small Test Marks: 30
9. Define electric potential.
I Choose the correct answer 4×1=4
10. Calculate the current and the resistance of a 100 W, 200 V
1. Which of the following is correct?
electric bulb in a electric circuit.
a) Rate of change of charge is electrical power.
11. Match the following.
b) Rate of change of charge is current.
c) Rate of change of energy is current. 1. Electric current - volt
d) Rate of change of current is charge. 2. Potential difference - watt
3. Electrical power - joule
2. SI unit of resistance is
4. Electrical energy - ampere
a) mho b) joule c) ohm d) ohm meter
III Answer in detail. 3 × 4 = 12
3. In a simple circuit, why does the bulb glow when you close the
12. With the help of the circuit diagram derive the formula for the
switch?
resultant resistance of three resistances connected in series.
a) The switch produces electricity
13. a) What is meant by electric current?
b) Closing the switch completes the circuit
c) Closing the switch breaks the circuit b) Name and define its unit.
d) The bulb is getting charged
c) Which instrument is used to measure the electric current?
4. Kilowatt hour is the unit of How should it be connected in a circuit?

a) resistivity
c) electrical energy
II Answer briefly
5. Define the unit of current.
b) conductivity 14. a) What is the advantages of LED TV over the normal TV?
d) electrical power
b) List the merits of LED bulb.
7 × 2 = 14
-------------------------------×------------------------------

6. Calculate the resistance of a conductor through which a

A. AROKIASURESH, M.Sc.B.Ed., BT ASST. (SCIENCE), GHSS, KALAMARUDUR, KALLAKURICHI (DT).
current of 2 A passes, when the potential difference between its
ends is 30 V.

7. State Ohm’s law.

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Science 5. Acoustics a) 17 m b) 20 m c) 25 m d) 50 m

Class: 10 Small Test Marks: 30 8. Speed of sound in Aluminium is

I Choose the correct answer 8×1=8 a) 5010 ms-1 b) 5950 ms-1 c) 6420 ms-1 d) 331 ms-1

1. When a sound wave travels through air, the air particles II Answer briefly 7 × 2 = 14
a) vibrate along the direction of the wave motion
9. What is a longitudinal wave?
b) vibrate but not in any fixed direction
c) vibrate perpendicular to the direction of the wave motion 10. What will be the frequency sound having 0.20 m as its wave
d) do not vibrate length, when it travels with a speed of 331 ms-1?
2. Velocity of sound in a gaseous medium is 330 ms-1. If the 11. Why does sound travel faster on a rainy day than on a dry
pressure is increased by 4 times without causing a change in the day?
temperature, the velocity of sound in the gas is
12. Air temperature in the Rajasthan desert can reach 46o C.
a) 330 ms -1
b) 660 ms -1
c) 156 ms -1
d) 990 ms -1
What is the velocity of sound in air at the temperature? (Vo = 331
ms-1)
3. The frequency, which is audible to the human ear
13. Explain why, the ceilings of concert halls are curved?
a) 50 kHz b) 20 kHz c) 15000 kHz d) 10000 kHz
14. Mention two cases in which there is no Doppler effect in
4. The velocity of sound in air at the particular temperature is
sound.
330 ms-1. What will be its value when temperature is doubled and
pressure is halved? 15. Two observers are stationed in two boats 4.5 km apart. A
sound signal sent by one, under water, reaches the other after 3
a) 330 ms-1 b) 165 ms-1 c) 330 × √2 ms-1 d) 320/ √2 ms-1
seconds. What is the speed of sound in the water?
5. If the sound wave travels with a frequency of 1.25 x 104 Hz at
III Answer in detail. 2×4=8
344 ms-1, the wave length will be
16. What are the factors that affect the speed of sound in gases?
a) 27.52 m b) 275.2 m c) 0.02752 m d) 2.752 m
17. What is mean by reflection of sound? Explain:
6. The sound waves are reflected from an obstacle into the same
medium from which they were incident. Which of the following a) Reflection at the boundary of rarer medium.
changes? b) Reflection at the boundary of denser medium.
a) speed b) frequency c) Reflection at curved surfaces.
c) wave length d) none of these
-------------------------------×------------------------------
7. Velocity of sound in the atmosphere of a planet is 500 ms-1.
The minimum distance between the sources of sound and the
A. AROKIASURESH, M.Sc.B.Ed., BT ASST. (SCIENCE), GHSS, KALAMARUDUR, KALLAKURICHI (DT).
obstacle to hear the echo, should be
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Science 6. Nuclear Physics c) Nuclear fusion d) β decay

Class: 10 Small Test Marks: 30 9. In the nuclear reaction 6X12 α decay ZYA, the value of A & Z.
I Choose the correct answer 10 × 1 = 10 a) 8,6 b) 8,4 c) 4,8
1. Man-made radioactivity is also known as ________. d) cannot be determined with the given data

a) Induced radioactivity b) Spontaneous radioactivity 10. Kamini reactor is located at _______.

c) Artificial radioactivity d) a & b a) Kalpakkam b) Koodankulam
2. Unit of radioactivity is _______. c) Mumbai d) Rajasthan

a) roentgen b) curie c) becquerel d) all the above II Answer briefly 6 × 2 = 12

3. Artificial radioactivity was discovered by _____. 11. Define critical mass.

a) Becquerel b) Irene Curie c) Roentgen d) Neil’s Bohr 12. State Soddy and Fajan’s displacement law.

4. In which of the following, no change in mass number of the 13. In Japan, some of the new born children are having a
daughter nuclei takes place congenital disease. Why?
i) α decay ii) β decay iii) γ decay iv) neutron decay 14. What is stellar energy?

a) (i) is correct b) (ii) & (iii) are correct 15. Give any uses of radio isotopes in the field of agriculture?
c) (i) & (iv) are correct d) (ii) & (iv) are correct
16. Calculate the amount of energy released when a radioactive
5. ______ isotope is used for the treatment of cancer. substance undergoes fusion and results in a mass defect of 2 kg.

a) Radio Iodine b) Radio Cobalt III Answer in detail. 2×4=8

c) Radio Carbon d) Radio Nickel
17. Compare the properties of alpha, beta and gamma radiations.
6. Gamma radiations are dangerous because
18. What is a nuclear reactor? Explain its essential parts with
a) it affects eyes & bones b) it produces genetic disorder their functions.
c) it affects tissues d) it produces enormous amount of heat
-------------------------------×------------------------------
7. ______ aprons are used to protect us from gamma radiations
A. AROKIASURESH, M.Sc.B.Ed., BT ASST. (SCIENCE), GHSS, KALAMARUDUR, KALLAKURICHI (DT).
a) Lead oxide b) Iron c) Lead d) Aluminium

8. Proton – Proton chain reactions is an example of _______.

a) Nuclear fission b) α – decay

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Science 7. Atoms and Molecules 8. In the nucleus of 20Ca ,

40
there are

Class: 10 Small Test Marks: 30 a) 20 protons and 40 neutrons b) 20 protons and 20 neutrons
c) 20 protons and 40 electrons d) 40 protons and 20 electrons
I Choose the correct answer 10 × 1 = 10
9. The gram molecular mass of oxygen molecule is
1. Which of the following has the smallest mass?
a) 16 g b) 18 g c) 32 g d) 17 g
a) 6.023 x 1023 atoms of He b) 1 atom of He
c) 2 g of He d) 1 mole atoms of He 10. 1 mole of any substance contains ______ molecules.

2. Which of the is a triatomic molecule? a) 6.023 x 1023 b) 6.023 x 10-23

c) 3.0115 x 1023 d) 12.046 x 1023
a) Glucose b) Helium c) Carbon dioxide d) Hydrogen
II Answer briefly 6 × 2 = 12
3. The volume occupied by 4.4 g of CO2 at S.T.P
11. Define – Atomicity.
a) 22.4 litre b) 2.24 litre c) 0.24 litre d) 0.1 litre
12. What is molar volume of gas?
4. Mass of 1 mole of Nitrogen atom is
13. Write the different types of isotopes of oxygen and its
a) 28 amu b) 14 amu c) 28 g d) 14 g
percentage abundance.
5. Which of the following represents 1 amu?
14. Find the percentage of nitrogen in ammonia.
a) Mass of a C–12 atom b) Mass of a Hydrogen atom
15. Calculate the number of moles in 27 g of Al.
c) 1/12 of the mass of a C–12 atom
th
d) Mass of O–16 atom
16. Calculate the gram molar mass of H2O.
6. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
III Answer in detail. 2×4=8
a) One gram of C-12 contains Avogadro’s number of atoms.
b) One mole of oxygen gas contains Avogadro’s number of 17. Give the salient features of “Modern Atomic Theory”.
molecules.
18. Derive the relationship between Relative molecular mass and
c) One mole of hydrogen gas contains Avogadro’s number of
Vapour density.
atoms.
d) One mole of electrons stands for 6.023 x 1023 electrons. -------------------------------×------------------------------

7. The volume occupied by 1 mole of a diatomic gas at S.T.P is A. AROKIASURESH, M.Sc.B.Ed., BT ASST. (SCIENCE), GHSS, KALAMARUDUR, KALLAKURICHI (DT).
a) 11.2 litre b) 5.6 litre c) 22.4 litre d) 44.8 litre
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Science 8. Periodic Classification of Elements 9. Neon shows zero electron affinity due to ____.

Class: 10 Small Test Marks: 30 a) stable arrangement of neutrons b) reduced size

c) stable configuration of electrons d) increased density
I Choose the correct answer 10 × 1 = 10
10. ____ is an important metal to form amalgam.
1. The number of periods and groups in the periodic table are __.
a) Ag b) Hg c) Mg d) Al
a) 6,16 b) 7,17 c) 8,18 d) 7,18
II Answer briefly 6 × 2 = 12
2. The basis of modern periodic law is _____.
11. A is a reddish-brown metal, which combines with O2 at <1370
a) atomic number b) atomic mass
K gives B, a black coloured compound. At a temperature >1370
c) isotopic mass d) number of neutrons
K, A gives C which is red in colour. Find A, B and C with reaction.
3. ____ group contains the member of halogen family.
12. What is rust? Give the equation for formation of rust.
a) 17 th
b) 15 th
c) 18 th
d) 16 th
13. Name the acid that renders Aluminium passive. Why?
4. ____ is the relative periodic property.
14. State two conditions of necessary for rusting of iron.
a) atomic radii b) ionic radii
15. Explain smelting process.
c) electron affinity d) electronegativity
16. A is a silvery white metal. A combine with O2 to form B at
5. Chemical formula of rust is ____.
800OC, the alloy of A is used in making the aircraft. Find A and B.
a) FeO.xH2O b) FeO4.xH2O c) Fe2O3.xH2O d) FeO
III Answer in detail. 2×4=8
6. In the alumina thermic process the roll of Al is __.
17. The electronic configuration of metal A is 2,8,18,1. The metal
a) oxidizing agent b) reducing agent A when exposed to air and moisture forms B a green layered
c) hydrogenating agent d) sulphuring agent compound. A with con. H2SO4 forms C and D along with water. D
is gaseous compound. Find A, B, C and D.
7. The process of coating the surface of metal with a thin layer of
zinc is called _____. 18. i) Define – Ionisation energy.

a) painting b) thinning ii) Predict the nature of the bond in the following molecules.
c) galvanisation d) electroplating
a) NaCl b) NaBr c) NaI d) NaH
8. Which of the following have inert gases 2 electron in the
-------------------------------×------------------------------
outermost shell.
A. AROKIASURESH, M.Sc.B.Ed., BT ASST. (SCIENCE), GHSS, KALAMARUDUR, KALLAKURICHI (DT).
a) He b) Ne c) Ar d) Kr
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Science 9. Solutions 8. A 25% alcohol solution means

Class: 10 Small Test Marks: 30 a) 25 ml alcohol in 100 ml water

b) 25 ml alcohol in 25 ml water
I Choose the correct answer 10 × 1 = 10
c) 25 ml alcohol in 75 ml water
1. A solution is a __________ mixture. d) 75 ml alcohol in 25 ml water

a) homogenous b) heterogenous 9. Deliquescence is due to _________.

c) homogenous and heterogenous d) non homogenous
a) strong affinity to water b) less affinity to water
2. The number of components in a binary solution is _____. c) strong hatred to water d) inertness to water

a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 5 10. Which of the following is hygroscopic in nature?

3. Which of the following is the universal solvent? a) ferric chloride b) copper sulphate Penta hydrate
c) silica gel d) none of the above
a) Acetone b) Benzene c) Water d) Alcohol
II Answer briefly 6 × 2 = 12
4. A solution in which no more solute can be dissolved in a
definite amount of solvent at the given temperature is called __. 11. Define – Solution.

a) saturated solution b) unsaturated solution 12. Define volume percentage.

c) super saturated solution d) dilute solution
13. Define Hydrated salt.
5. Identify the non-aqueous solution
14. Write notes on saturated solution.
a) sodium chloride in water b) glucose in water
15. Define solubility.
c) copper sulphate in water d) sulphur in carbon-di-sulphide
16. A solution was prepared by dissolving 25 g of sugar in 100 g
6. When pressure is increased at constant temperature the
of water. Calculate the mass percentage of solute.
solubility of gases in liquid.
III Answer in detail. 2×4=8
a) no change b) increases
c) decreases d) no reaction 17. Write notes on various factors affecting solubility.

7. solubility of NaCl in 100 ml water is 36 g If 25 g of salt is 18. a) What happens when MgSO4∙7H2O is heated? Write the
dissolved in 100 ml of water how much more salt is required for appropriate equation.
saturation.
b) Differentiate hygroscopic substance and deliquescence.
a) 12 g b) 11 g c) 16 g d) 20 g
-------------------------------×------------------------------

A. AROKIASURESH, M.Sc.B.Ed., BT ASST. (SCIENCE), GHSS, KALAMARUDUR, KALLAKURICHI (DT).

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Science 10. Types of Chemical Reactions a) i and ii b) ii and iii c) iii and iv d) I and iv

Class: 10 Small Test Marks: 30 7. Which of the following is not an “element + element
compound” reaction.
I Choose the correct answer 10 × 1 = 10
a) C(s) + O2(g) CO2(g) b) 2K(s) + Br2(l) 2KBr(s)
1. H2(g) + Cl2(g) 2HCl(g) is a
c) 2CO2(g) + O2(g) 2CO2(g) d) 4Fe(s) + 3O2 2Fe2O3(s)
a) decomposition reaction b) combination reaction
c) single displacement reaction d) double displacement reaction 8. Which of the following represents a precipitation reaction?

2. Photosynthesis is a decomposition reaction caused by _____. a) A(s) + B(s) C(s) + D(s) b) A(s) + B(aq) C(aq) + D(l)
a) heat b) electricity c) light d) mechanical energy c) A(aq) + B(aq) C(s) + D(aq) d) A(aq) + B(s) C(aq) + D(l)

3. A reaction between carbon and oxygen is represented by 9. The pH of the solution is 3. Its [OH-] concentration is __.
C(s) +O2(g) CO2(g) + Heat. In which of the type(s), the a) 1x10-3 M b) 3 M c) 1x10-11 M d) 11 M
above reaction can be classified? 10. Powdered CaCO3 reacts more rapidly than flaky CaCO3
i) Combination Reaction ii) Combustion Reaction because of ___.
a) large surface area b) high pressure
iii) Decomposition Reaction iv) Irreversible Reaction
c) high concentration d) high temperature
a) i and ii b) I and iv c) I, ii and iii d) I, ii and iv
II Answer briefly 6 × 2 = 12
4. The chemical equation
Na2SO4(aq) + BaCl2(aq) BaSO4(s) + 2NaCl(aq) represents 11. Why does the reaction rate of reaction increase on raising the
which of the following types of reaction? temperature?
a) Neutralisation b) Combustion
12. Define combination reaction. Give an example.
c) Precipitation d) Single Displacement
13. Differentiate reversible and irreversible reactions.
5. Which of the following statements are correct above a chemical
equilibrium? 14. Differentiate combination and decomposition reactions.
(i) It is adynamic in nature
(ii) The rate of the forward and backward 15. Calculate the pH of 1.0 × 10-4 molar solution of HNO3.
(iii) Irreversible reactions do not attain chemical equilibrium 16. What is the pH of 1.0 × 10-5 molar solution of KOH.
(iv) The concentration of reactants and products may be different
III Answer in detail. 2×4=8
a) i, ii and iii b) i, ii and iv c) ii, iii and iv d) i, iii and iv
17. Explain the factors influencing the rate of reaction.
6. A single displacement reaction is represented by
X(s) + 2HCl(aq) XCl2(aq) + H2(g). 18. How does pH play an important role in everyday life?
Which of the following(s) could be X. -------------------------------×------------------------------
(i) Zn (ii) Ag (ii) Cu (iv) Mg. Choose the best pair. A. AROKIASURESH, M.Sc.B.Ed., BT ASST. (SCIENCE), GHSS, KALAMARUDUR, KALLAKURICHI (DT).
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Science 11. Carbon and its Compound 9. Which of the following statements is wrong about detergents?

Class: 10 Small Test Marks: 30 a) It is a sodium salt of long chain fatty acids
b) It is sodium salts of sulphonic acids
I Choose the correct answer 10 × 1 = 10 c) The ionic part in a detergent is -SO3-Na+
d) It is effective even in hard water
1. The molecular formula of an open chain organic compound is
C3H6. The class of the compound is 10. 100 % pure ethanol is called
a) rectified spirit b) methylated spirit
a) alkane b) alkene c) alkyne d) alcohol c) absolute alcohol d) power alcohol
2. The IUPAC name of an organic compound is 3- Methyl butane II Answer briefly 6 × 2 = 12
1- ol. What type compound it is?
11. Name the simplest Ketone and give its structural formula.
a) Aldehyde b) Carbolic acid c) Ketone d) alcohol
12. How is ethanoic acid prepared from ethanol? Give the
3. The secondary suffix used in IUPAC nomenclature of an chemical equation.
aldehyde is _____.
13. How do detergents cause water pollution? Suggest remedial
a) – ol b) – oic acid c) – al d) – one measures to prevent this pollution?
4. Which of the following pairs can be the successive members of 14. Differentiate soaps and detergents.
a homologous serious?
15. Give the balanced chemical equation of the following
a) C3H8 and C4H10 b) C2H2 and C2H4 reactions.
c) CH4 and C3H6 d) C2H5OH and C4H6OH
i) Neutralization of NaOH with ethanoic acid
5. C2H5OH + 3O2 2CO2 + 3H2O is a
ii) Combustion of ethanol
a) reduction of ethanol b) combustion of ethanol
16. The molecular formula of an alcohol is C4H10O. the locant
c) oxidation of ethanoic acid d0 oxidation of ethanol
number of its -OH group is 2.
6. Rectified spirit is an aqueous solution which contains about
____ of ethanol. i) Draw its structural formula. ii) Give its IUPAC name.

a) 95.5 % b) 75.5 % c) 55.5 % d) 45.5 % III Answer in detail. 2×4=8

7. Which of the following are used as anaesthetics? 17. How is ethanol manufactured from sugarcane?

a) Carboxylic acids b) Ethers c) Esters d) Aldehydes 18. Arrive at, systematically, the IUPAC name of the compound:
CH3-CH2-CH2-OH.
8. TFM in soaps represents ______ content in soap.
-------------------------------×------------------------------
a) mineral b) vitamin
c) fatty acid d) carbohydrate A. AROKIASURESH, M.Sc.B.Ed., BT ASST. (SCIENCE), GHSS, KALAMARUDUR, KALLAKURICHI (DT).
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Science 12. Plant Anatomy and Plant Physiology 9. Name the three basic tissues system in flowering plants.

Class: 10 Small Test Marks: 30 10. What is respiratory quotient.

I Choose the correct answer 6×1=6 11. Write the reaction for photosynthesis.

1. Casparian strips are present in the ___ of the root. 12. Why should the light dependent reaction occur before the
light independent reaction.
a) cortex b) pith c) pericycle d) endodermis
III Answer in detail. 3 × 4 = 12
2. The endarch condition is the characteristic feature of ____.
13. Differentiate the following
a) root b) stem c) leaves d) flower
a) Monocot root and Dicot root
3. The xylem and phloem arranged side by side on the same
radius is called ___. b) Aerobic and Anaerobic respiration.

a) radial b) amphivasal c) conjoint d) None of these 14. Describe and name three stages of cellular respiration that
aerobic organisms use to obtain energy from glucose.
4. Which is formed during anaerobic respiration.
15. Match the following:
a) carbohydrate b) Ethyl alcohol
c) Acetyl Co. A d) Pyruvate a) Amphicribal - Translocation of food

5. Kreb’s cycle takes place in b) Cambium - Fern

a) chloroplast b) mitochondrial matrix c) Xylem - Secondary growth

c) stomata d) inner mitochondrial membrane
d) Phloem - Conduction of water
6. Oxygen is produced at what point during photosynthesis

a) when ATP is converted to ADP b) when CO2 is fixed -------------------------------×------------------------------

c) when H2O is splitted d) All of these
A. AROKIASURESH, M.Sc.B.Ed., BT ASST. (SCIENCE), GHSS, KALAMARUDUR, KALLAKURICHI (DT).
II Answer briefly 6 × 2 = 12

7. Write a short note on mesophyll.

8. Draw and label the structure of oxysomes.

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Science 13. Structural Organisation of Animals 8. ______ spinal nerves are present in rabbit

Class: 10 Small Test Marks: 30 a) 12 pairs b) 10 pairs

c) 37 pairs d) 47 pairs
I Choose the correct answer 8×1=8
II Answer briefly 7 × 2 = 14
1. In leech locomotion is performed by
9. Why are the rings of cartilages found in trachea in rabbit?
a) Anterior sucker b) Posterior sucker
c) Setae d) None of these 10. List out the parasitic adaptations in leech.

2. The segments of leech are known as 11. How does locomotion take place in leech?

a) Metameres (somites)
c) Strobila
3. Pharyngeal ganglion in leech is a part of
a) Excretory system
c) Reproductive system
4. The brain of leech lies above the
a) Mouth b) Buccal Cavity
5. The body of leech has
a) 23 segments
c) 38 segments
6. Mammals are ______ animals.
b) Proglottids 12. How does leech suck blood from the host?
d) All of the above
13. Why is the teeth of rabbit called heterodont?
14. How is diastema formed in rabbit?
b) Nervous system
15. (i) Write the dental formula of the rabbit?
d) Respiratory system
(ii) What does CNS stand for?
III Answer in detail. 2×4=8
c) Pharynx d) Crop
16. How is the circulatory system designed in leech to
compensate the heart structure?
b) 33 segments
17. Explain the male reproductive system of rabbit with a labelled
d) 30 segments
diagram.

a) cold blooded b) warm blooded

-------------------------------×------------------------------
c) poikilothermic d) All the above
A. AROKIASURESH, M.Sc.B.Ed., BT ASST. (SCIENCE), GHSS, KALAMARUDUR, KALLAKURICHI (DT).
7. The animals which give birth to young ones are

a) Oviparous b) Viviparous
c) Ovoviviparous d) All the above
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Science 14. Transportation in Plants & 8. A patient with blood group O was injured in accident and has
Circulations in Animals blood loss. Which blood group the doctor should effectively use
for transfusion in this condition?
Class: 10 Small Test Marks: 30
a) O group b) AB group c) A or B group d) all blood group
I Choose the correct answer 10 × 1 = 10
9. ‘Heart of heart’ is called
1. Active transports involves
a) SA node b) AV node c) Purkinje fibres d) Bundle of His
a) movement of molecules from lower to higher concentration
b) expenditure of energy 10. Which one of the following regarding blood composition is
c) it is an uphill task d) all of the above correct.

2. Water which is absorbed by roots is transported to aerial parts a) Plasma – Blood + Lymphocyte
of the plant through. b) Serum – Blood + Fibrinogen
c) Lymph – Plasma + RBC + WBC
a) cortex b) epidermis c) phloem d) xylem
d) Blood – Plasma + RBC + WBC + Platelets
3. During transpiration there is loss of
II Answer briefly 6 × 2 = 12
a) carbon di oxide b) oxygen c) water d) none of the above
11. What is cohesion?
4. Root hairs are
12. Why is the circulation in man referred to as double
a) cortical cell b) projection of epidermal cell circulation?
c) unicellular d) both b and c
13. Who discovered Rh factor? Why was is named so?
5. Which of the following process requires energy.
14. Differentiate between systemic circulation and pulmonary
a) active transport b) diffusion c) osmosis d) all of them circulation?

6. The wall of human heart is made of 15. Why is the Sinoatrial node called the pacemaker of heart?

a) Endocardium b) Epicardium 16. Differentiate between systole and diastole?

c) Myocardium d) All of the above
III Answer in detail. 2×4=8
7. Which is sequence of correct blood below
17. What is transpiration? Give the importance of transpiration?
a) ventricle – atrium – vein – arteries
18. Enumerate the functions of blood.
b) atrium – ventricle – veins – arteries
c) atrium – ventricle – arteries – vein -------------------------------×------------------------------
d) ventricles – vein – atrium – arteries
A. AROKIASURESH, M.Sc.B.Ed., BT ASST. (SCIENCE), GHSS, KALAMARUDUR, KALLAKURICHI (DT).
 www.nammakalvi.in

Science 15. Nervous System 8. Node of Ranvier is found in

Class: 10 Small Test Marks: 30 a) muscles b) axons c) dendrites d) cyton

I Choose the correct answer 10 × 1 = 10 9. Vomiting centre is located in

1. Bipolar neurons are found in a) medulla oblongata b) stomach

c) cerebrum d) hypothalamus
a) retina of eye b) cerebral cortex
c) embryo d) respiratory epithelium 10. Nerve cells do not possess

2. Site for processing of vision, hearing, memory, speech, a) neurilemma b) sarcolemma c) axon d) dendrites
intelligence and thought is
II Answer briefly 6 × 2 = 12
a) kidney b) ear c) brain d) lungs
11. Define stimulus.
3. Dendrites transmit impulse _____ cell body and axon transmit
12. Define reflex arc.
impulse _____ cell body.
13. Differentiate between voluntary and involuntary actions.
a) away from, away from b) towards, away from
c) towards, towards d) away from, towards 14. Differentiate between medullated and non- medullated nerve
fibre.
4. The outer most of the three cranial meninges is
15. What are the structures involved in the protection of brain?
a) arachnoid membrane b) piamater
c) duramater d) myelin sheath 16. Give an example for conditioned reflexes.
5. There are ____ pairs of cranial nerves and ___ pairs of spinal III Answer in detail. 2×4=8
nerves.
17. With the neat labelled diagram explain the structure of a
a) 12,31 b) 31, 12 c) 12, 13 d) 12, 21 neuron.
6. The neurons which carries impulse from the central nervous 18. Illustrate the structure and functions of brain.
system to the muscle fibre.

a) afferent neurons b) association neuron

-------------------------------×------------------------------
c) efferent neuron d) unipolar neuron
A. AROKIASURESH, M.Sc.B.Ed., BT ASST. (SCIENCE), GHSS, KALAMARUDUR, KALLAKURICHI (DT).
7. Which nervous band connects the two cerebral hemispheres of
brain?

a) thalamus b) hypothalamus
c) corpus callosum d) pons
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Science 16. Plant and Animal Hormones 8. Which organ acts as both exocrine gland as well as endocrine
gland
Class: 10 Small Test Marks: 30
a) Pancreas b) Kidney c) Liver d) Lungs
I Choose the correct answer 10 × 1 = 10
9. Which one is referred as “Master Gland”.
1. Gibberellins cause
a) Pineal gland b) Pituitary gland
a) Shortening of genetically tall plants
c) Thyroid gland d) Adrenal gland
b) Elongation of dwarf plants
c) Promotion of rooting 10. _______ causes stomatal closure
d) Yellowing of young flowers
a) Auxin b) Abscisic Acid c) Gibberellins d) Ethylene
2. The hormone which has positive effect on apical dominance is
II Answer briefly 6 × 2 = 12
a) Cytokinin b) Auxin c) Gibberellin d) Ethylene
11. What are synthetic auxins? Give examples.
3. Which one of the following hormones is naturally not found in
12. What is bolting? How can it be induced artificially?
plants
13. Bring out any two physiological activities of abscisic acid.
a) 2, 4-D b) GA3 c) Gibberellin d) IAA
14. What are chemical messengers.
4. Avena coleoptile test was conducted by
15. Write the differences between endocrine and exocrine gland.
a) Darwin b) N. Smith c) Paal d) F.W. Went
16. Why are thyroid hormones referred as personality hormone?
5. To increase the sugar production in sugarcanes they are
sprayed with III Answer in detail. 2×4=8
a) Auxin b) Cytokinin c) Gibberellins d) Ethylene 17. Write the physiological effects of Gibberellins.
6. LH is secreted by 18. Where are oestrogens produced? What is the role of
oestrogens in the human body?
a) Adrenal gland b) Thyroid gland
c) Anterior gland d) Hypothalamus

7. Identify the exocrine gland -------------------------------×------------------------------

a) Pituitary gland b) Adrenal gland A. AROKIASURESH, M.Sc.B.Ed., BT ASST. (SCIENCE), GHSS, KALAMARUDUR, KALLAKURICHI (DT).
c) Salivary gland d) Thyroid gland
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Science 17. Reproduction in Plants and Animals 9. Oestrogen is secreted by

Class: 10 Small Test Marks: 30 a) Anterior pituitary b) Primary follicle

c) Graafian follicle d) Corpus luteum
I Choose the correct answer 10 × 1 = 10
10. Which one of the following is an IUCD?
1. The plant which propagates with the help of its leaves is ___.
a) Copper – T b) Oral pills
a) Onion b) Neem c) Ginger d) Bryophyllum
c) Diaphragm d) Tubectomy
2. Asexual reproduction takes place through budding in ___.
II Answer briefly 6 × 2 = 12
a) Amoeba b) Yeast c) Plasmodium d) Bacteria
11. What is the need for contraception?
3. Syngamy results in the formation of ____.
12. Why is vegetative propagation practiced for growing some
a) Zoospores b) Conidia c) Zygote d) Chlamydospores types of plants?

4. The essential parts of a flower are 13. Define triple fusion?

a) Calyx and Corolla b) Calyx and Androecium 14. Write the characteristics of insect pollinated flowers?
c) Corolla and Gynoecium d) Androecium and Gynoecium
15. Name the secondary sex organs in male.
5. Anemophilous flowers have ___.
16. How does developing embryo gets its nourishment inside the
a) Sessile stigma b) Small smooth stigma mother’s body?
c) Coloured flower d) Large feathery stigma
III Answer in detail. 2×4=8
6. Male gametes in angiosperms are formed by the division of __.
17. With a neat labelled diagram describe the parts of a typical
a) Generative cell b) Vegetative cell angiosperm ovule?
c) Microspore mother cell d) Microspore
18. What are the phase of menstrual cycle? Indicate the changes
7. A single highly coiled tube where sperms are stored, get in the ovary and uterus
concentrated and mature is known as

a) Epididymis b) Vasa efferentia -------------------------------×------------------------------

c) Vas deferens d) Seminiferous tubules
A. AROKIASURESH, M.Sc.B.Ed., BT ASST. (SCIENCE), GHSS, KALAMARUDUR, KALLAKURICHI (DT).
8. The large elongated cell that provide nutrition to developing
sperms are

a) Primary germ cells b) Sertoli cells

c) Leydig cells d) Spermatogonia
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Science 18. Heredity 8. The loss of one or more chromosome in a ploidy is called __.

Class: 10 Small Test Marks: 30 a) Tetra ploidy b) Aneuploidy

I Choose the correct answer
1. According to Mendel alleles have the following character
a) pair of genes
c) production of gametes
2. 9: 3: 3: 1 ratio is due to
a) Segregation
c) Independent assortment
8×1=8
b) responsible for character
d) recessive factors
b) Crossing over
d) Recessiveness
c) Euploidy d) Polyploidy
II Answer briefly 5 × 2 = 10
9. Why did Mende select pea plant for his experiment?
10. What do you understand by the term phenotype and
genotype.
11. What are allosomes.
12. What are Okasaki fragments?

3. The region of chromosome where the spindle fibres get 13. Why is euploidy considered to be advantageous to both plants
attached during cell division and animals.

a) Chromosome b) Centrosome III Answer in detail. 3 × 4 = 12

d) Centromere d) Chromonema
14. Explain the structure of a chromosome.
4. The centromere is found at the centre of the __ chromosome
15. Explain with an example the inheritance of dihybrid cross.
a) Telocentric b) metacentric How is it different from monohybrid cross?
c) Sub-metacentric d) Acrocentric
16. How is the structure of DNA organised? What is the biological
5. The ___ units from the backbone of the DNA significance of DNA?

a) 5 carbon sugar b) Phosphate

c) Nitrogenous bases d) Sugar phosphate
-------------------------------×------------------------------
6. Okasaki fragments are joined together by ____.
A. AROKIASURESH, M.Sc.B.Ed., BT ASST. (SCIENCE), GHSS, KALAMARUDUR, KALLAKURICHI (DT).
a) Helicase b) DNA polymers
c) RNA primer d) DNA ligase

7. The number of chromosomes found in human beings are __.

a) 22 pairs of autosomes and 1 pair of allosomes

b) 22 autosomes and 1 allosome
c) 46 autosomes
d) 46 pairs autosomes and 1 pair of allosomes
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Science 19. Origin and Evolution of Life 8. Why is Archaeopteryx considered to be a connecting link?

Class: 10 Small Test Marks: 30 9. Define Ethnobotany and write its importance.

I Choose the correct answer 5×1=5 10. How can you determine the age of fossils.

1. Biogenetic law states that _______. 11. Differentiate between Homologous organs and Analogous
organs.
a) Ontogeny and phylogeny go together
b) Ontogeny recapitulates phylogeny III Answer in detail. 2×4=8
c) Phylogeny recapitulates ontogeny
12. Natural selection is a driving force for evolution – How?
d) There is no relationship between phylogeny and ontogeny
13. How does fossilization occur in plants?
2. The ‘use and disuse theory’ was proposed by ___.
IV Match the following 5x1=5
a) Charles Darwin b) Ernst Haeckel
c) Jean Baptiste Lamarck d) Gregor Mendel 14. Atavism - caudal vertebrae and vermiform
3. Palaeontologists deal with appendix
a) Embryological evidences b) Fossil evidences 15. Vestigial organs - a forelimb of a cat and a bat’s wing
c) Vestigial organ evidences d) All the above
16. Analogous organs - rudimentary tail and thick hair on the
4. The best way of direct dating fossils of recent origin is by
body
a) Radio-carbon method b) Uranium lead method
c) Potassium-argon method d) both (a) and (b) 17. Homologous organs - Thiruvakkarai

5. The term Ethnobotany was coined by 18. Wood park - a wing of a bat and a wing of an

a) Khorana b) J. W. Herzberger insect

c) Ronald Ross d) Hugo de Vries

II Answer briefly 6 × 2 = 12 -------------------------------×------------------------------

6. What is the study of fossils called? A. AROKIASURESH, M.Sc.B.Ed., BT ASST. (SCIENCE), GHSS, KALAMARUDUR, KALLAKURICHI (DT).
7. The degenerated wing of a kiwi is an acquired character. Why
is it an acquired character?
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Science 20. Breeding and Biotechnology 8. DNA fingerprinting is based on the principle of identifying ____
sequences of DNA
Class: 10 Small Test Marks: 30
a) single stranded b) mutated
I Choose the correct answer 10 × 1 = 10
c) polymorphic d) repetitive
1. Which method of crop improvement can be practised by a
9. Organisms with modified endogenous gene or a foreign gene
farmer if he is inexperienced.
are also known as
a) clonal selection b) mass selection
a) transgenic organism b) genetically modified
c) pure line selection d) hybridisation
c) mutated d) both (a) and (b)
2. Pusa komal is a disease resistant variety of ___.
10. In a hexaploidy wheat (2n = 6x = 42) the haploid (n) and the
a) sugarcane b) rice c) cow pea d) maize basic (x) number of chromosomes respectively are

3. Himgiri developed by hybridisation and selection for disease a) n = 7 and x = 21 b) n = 21 and x = 21

resistance against rust pathogens is a variety of _____. c) n = 7 and x= 7 d) n = 21 and x = 7

a) chilli b) maize c) sugarcane d) wheat II Answer briefly 6 × 2 = 12

4. The miracle rice which saved millions of lives and celebrated its 11. Define genetic engineering.
50th birthday is ___.
12. Name the types of stem cells.
a) IR 8 b) IR 24 c) Atomita d) Ponni
13. Discuss the method of breeding for disease resistance.
5. Which of the following is used to produce products useful to
14. Distinguish between somatic gene therapy and germ line
human by biotechnology techniques.
gene therapy.
a) enzyme from organism b) live organism
15. State the applications of DNA fingerprinting technique.
c) vitamins d) both (a) and (b)
16. Differentiate between outbreeding and inbreeding.
6. We can cut the DNA with the help of
III Answer in detail. 2×4=8
a) scissors b) restriction endonucleases
c) knife d) RNAase 17. What are the effects of hybrid vigour in animals.

7. rDNA is a 18. Discuss the importance of biotechnology in the field of

medicine.
a) vector DNA b) circular DNA
c) recombinant of vector DNA and desired DNA -------------------------------×------------------------------
d) satellite DNA
A. AROKIASURESH, M.Sc.B.Ed., BT ASST. (SCIENCE), GHSS, KALAMARUDUR, KALLAKURICHI (DT).
 www.nammakalvi.in

Science 21. Health and Diseases 9. Polyphagia is a condition seen in

Class: 10 Small Test Marks: 30 a) Obesity b) Diabetes mellitus

c) Diabetes insipidus d) AIDS
I Choose the correct answer 10 × 1 = 10
10. Where does alcohol effect immediately after drinking?
1. Tobacco consumption is known to stimulate secretion of
adrenalin. The component causing this could be a) Eyes b) Auditory region
c) Liver d) Central Nervous System
a) Nicotine b) Tannic acid c) Curcumin d) Leptin
II Answer briefly 6 × 2 = 12
2. World ‘No Tobacco Day’ is observed on
11. What are psychotropic drugs?
a) May 31 b) June 6 c) April 22 d) October 2
12. What is metastasis?
3. Cancer cells are more easily damaged by radiations than
normal cells because they are 13. What are the various routs by transmission of human immuno
deficiency virus takes place?
a) different in structure b) non-dividing
c) mutated cells d) undergoing rapid division 14. How is a cancer cell different from a normal cell?

4. Which types of cancer affects lymph nodes and spleen. 15. Differentiate between Type-1 and Type-2 diabetes mellitus.

a) Carcinoma b) Sarcoma c) Leukaemia d) Lymphoma 16. What precautions can be taken for preventing heart diseases.

5. Excessive consumption of alcohol leads to III Answer in detail. 2×4=8

a) loss of memory b) cirrhosis of liver 17. Suggest measures to overcome the problems of an alcoholic.
c) state of hallucination d) suppression of brain function
18. Changes in life style is a risk factor for occurrence of
6. Coronary heart disease is due to cardiovascular diseases. Can it be modified? If yes, suggest
measures for prevention.
a) Streptococci bacteria b) Inflammation of pericardium
c) Weakening of heart valves
d) Insufficient blood supply to heart muscles
-------------------------------×------------------------------
7. Cancer of epithelial cells is called
A. AROKIASURESH, M.Sc.B.Ed., BT ASST. (SCIENCE), GHSS, KALAMARUDUR, KALLAKURICHI (DT).
a) Leukaemia b) Sarcoma c) Carcinoma d) Lymphoma

8. Metastasis is associated with

a) malignant tumour b) benign tumour

c) both (a) and (b) d) crown gall tumour
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Science 22. Environmental Management c) cultivation of plants d) warming of earth

Class: 10 Small Test Marks: 30 9. A cheap, conventional, commercial and inexhaustible source of
energy is
I Choose the correct answer 10 × 1 = 10
a) hydropower b) solar energy
1. Which of the following is/are a fossil fuel?
c) wind energy d) thermal energy
(i) Tar (ii) Coal (iii) Petroleum
10. Global warming will cause
a) i only b) i and ii c) ii and iii d) i, ii and iii
a) raise in level of oceans b) melting of glaciers
2. What are steps will you adopt for better waste management? c) sinking of islands d) all of these

a) reduce the amount of waste formed b) reuse the waste II Answer briefly 6 × 2 = 12
c) recycle the waste d) all of the above
11. What will happen if trees are cut down?
3. Soil erosion can be prevented by
12. How are e-wastes generated?
a) deforestation b) afforestation
13. What is the importance of rainwater harvesting?
c) over growing d) removal of vegetation
14. What are the advantages of using biogas?
4. A renewable source of energy is
15. What are the environmental effect caused by sewage?
a) petroleum b) coal c) nuclear fuel d) trees
16. What are the consequences of deforestation?
5. Soil erosion is more where there is
III Answer in detail. 2×4=8
a) no rainfall b) low rainfall
c) rainfall is high d) none of these 17. How does rainwater harvesting structures recharge ground
water?
6. An inexhaustible resource is
18. Enumerate the importance of the forest?
a) wind power b) soil fertility
c) wild life d) all of the above

7. Common energy source in village is -------------------------------×------------------------------

a) electricity b) coal A. AROKIASURESH, M.Sc.B.Ed., BT ASST. (SCIENCE), GHSS, KALAMARUDUR, KALLAKURICHI (DT).
c) biogas d) wood and animal dung

8. Greenhouse effect refers to

a) cooling of earth b) trapping of uv rays

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Science 23. Visual Communication Science 23. Visual Communication

Class: 10 Small Test Marks: 15 Class: 10 Small Test Marks: 15
I Choose the correct answer 5×1=5 I Choose the correct answer 5×1=5
1. Which software is used to create animation? 1. Which software is used to create animation?
a) Paint b) PDF c) MS Word d) Scratch a) Paint b) PDF c) MS Word d) Scratch
2. All files are stored in 2. All files are stored in
a) Folder b) Box c) Pai d) Scanner a) Folder b) Box c) Pai d) Scanner
3. Which is used to build scripts? 3. Which is used to build scripts?
a) Inkscape b) script editor c) stage d) sprite a) Inkscape b) script editor c) stage d) sprite
5. Where you will create category of blocks? 5. Where you will create category of blocks?
a) Block palette b) Block menu a) Block palette b) Block menu
c) Script area d) sprite c) Script area d) sprite
II Answer briefly 5 × 2 = 10 II Answer briefly 5 × 2 = 10
6. What is scratch? 6. What is scratch?
7. Write a short note on editor and its type? 7. Write a short note on editor and its type?
8. What is stage? 8. What is stage?
9. What is sprite? 9. What is sprite?
10.What is file? 10.What is file?

-------------------------------×------------------------------ -------------------------------×------------------------------

A. AROKIASURESH, M.Sc.B.Ed., BT ASST. (SCIENCE), GHSS, KALAMARUDUR, KALLAKURICHI (DT). A. AROKIASURESH, M.Sc.B.Ed., BT ASST. (SCIENCE), GHSS, KALAMARUDUR, KALLAKURICHI (DT).