Namma Kalvi 10th Science Important Study Material EM 221604

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One Marks 1
ONE MARKS
I. Choose the correct answer

1. Inertia of a body depends on
a) weight of the object b) acceleration due to gravity of the planet
c) mass of the object d) both a & b
2. Impulse is equals to (or) Impulse is the [PTA – 1]
a) rate of change of momentum b) rate of force and time
c) change of momentum d) rate of change of mass
3. Newton’s III law is applicable
a) for a body is at rest b) for a body in motion
c) both a & b d) only for bodies with equal masses
4. Plotting a graph for momentum on the Y-axis and time on X-axis. Slope of momentum-time
graph gives
a) Impulsive force b) Acceleration c) Force d) Rate of force
5. In which of the following sport the turning of effect of force used
a) swimming b) tennis c) cycling d) hockey
6. The unit of ‘g’ is m s-2. It can be also expressed as
a) cm s-1 b) N kg-1 c) N m2 kg-1 d) cm2 s-2
7. One kilogram force equals to
a) 9.8 dyne b) 9.8 × 104 N c) 98 × 𝟏𝟎𝟒 dyne d) 980 dyne
8. The mass of a body is measured on planet Earth as M kg. When it is taken to a planet of radius
half that of the Earth then its value will be _________ kg.
M
a) 4 M b) 2M c) d) M
4
9. If the Earth shrinks to 50% of its real radius its mass remaining the same, the weight of a body
on the Earth will
a) decrease by 50% b) increase by 50%
c) decrease by 25% d) increase by 300%
10. To project the rockets which of the following principle(s) is/are required? [SEP – 2021, MDL – 19]
a) Newton’s third law of motion b) Newton’s law of gravitation [AUG-22]
c) law of conservation of linear momentum d) Both a and c
Additional Questions
11. F be the force between the two bodies placed at a certain distance. If the distance between them
is doubled then the gravitational force F will be _________. [PTA – 5]
F 𝐅
a) 2F b) c) d) 4F
2 𝟒
12. The force required to produce an acceleration of 1 cm s −2 on a body of mass 1 g is [PTA – 6]
a) 1 N b) 10 N c) 102 dyne d) 1 dyne
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II. Fill in the blanks

1. To produce a displacement force is required.
2. Passengers lean forward when sudden brake is applied in a moving vehicle. This can be
explained by inertia of motion.
3. By convention, the clockwise moments are taken as negative and the anticlockwise moments
are taken as positive.
4. Gears is used to change the speed of car.
5. A man of mass 100 kg has a weight of 980 N at the surface of the Earth.
6. Opening a door : Moment of force, Opening a water tap : Moment of a couple [PTA – 4]
7. Pushing a bus by a group of people : Like parallel forces, Tug of war : Unlike parallel forces [PTA – 4]
III. True or False. If false correct it.
1. The linear momentum of a system of particles is always conserved. [False]
*The linear momentum of a system of particles is conserved, when no external force is applied.
2. Apparent weight of a person is always equal to his actual weight. [False]
*Apparent weight of a person is equal to his actual weight when he is at rest.
3. Weight of a body is greater at the equator and less at the polar region. [False]
*Weight of a body is less at the equator and greater at the polar region.
4. Turning a nut with a spanner having a short handle is so easy than one with a long handle. [False]
*Turning a nut with a spanner having a long handle is so easy than one with a short handle.
5. There is no gravity in the orbiting space station around the Earth. So, the astronauts
[False]
feel weightlessness.
*Astronauts and orbiting space station are under free fall with same acceleration. So the
astronauts feel weightlessness.
IV. Match the following

[PTA – 1]
Column I Column II Answer
a) Newton’s I law Propulsion of a rocket a) Stable equilibrium of a body
b) Newton’s II law Stable equilibrium of a body b) Law of force
c) Newton’s III law Law of force c) Flying nature of bird
d) Law of conservation of Linear momentum Flying nature of bird d) Propulsion of a rocket
V. Assertion & Reasoning

Mark the correct choice as
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) Assertion is true, but the reason is false. (d) Assertion is false, but the reason is true.
1. Assertion: The sum of the clockwise moments is equal to the sum of the anticlockwise moments.
Reason : The principle of conservation of momentum is valid if the external force on the
system is zero.
Ans. (b) Both the assertion and the reason are true, but the reason is not the correct
explanation of the assertion.
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2. Assertion: The value of ‘g’ decreases as height and depth increases from the surface of the Earth.
Reason : ‘g’ depends on the mass of the object and the Earth.
Ans. (c) Assertion is true, but the reason is false.
Additional Question
3. Assertion : When a person swims he pushes the water using the hands backwards and the water
pushes the person in the forward direction [PTA – 3]
Reason : For every action there is an equal and opposite reaction.
Ans. (a) Both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct
1. The refractive index of four substances A, B, C and D are 1.31, 1.43, 1.33, 2.4 respectively. The
speed of light is maximum in
a) A b) B c) C d) D
2. Where should an object be placed so that a real and inverted image of same size is obtained by
a convex lens [MAY - 2022]
a) f b) 2f c) infinity d) between f and 2f
3. A small bulb is placed at the principal focus of a convex lens. When the bulb is switched on,
the lens will produce [PTA – 3]
a) a convergent beam of light b) a divergent beam of light
c) a parallel beam of light d) a coloured beam of light
4. Magnification of a convex lens is
a) positive b) negative c) either positive or negative d) zero
5. A convex lens forms a real, diminished point sized image at focus. Then the position of the object is at
a) focus b) infinity c) at 2f d) between f and 2f
6. Power of a lens is –4D, then its focal length is
a) 4m b) – 40m c) – 0.25 m d) – 2.5 m
7. In a myopic eye, the image of the object is formed
a) behind the retina b) on the retina c) in front of the retina d) on the blind spot
8. The eye defect ‘presbyopia’ can be corrected by [PTA – 2, SEP - 2020]
a) convex lens b) concave lens c) convex mirror d) Bifocal lenses
9. Which of the following lens would you prefer to use while reading small letters found in a dictionary?
a) A convex lens of focal length 5 cm b) A concave lens of focal length 5 cm
c) A convex lens of focal length 10 cm d) A concave lens of focal length 10 cm
10. If VB, VG, VR be the velocity of blue, green and red light respectively in a glass prism, then
which of the following statement gives the correct relation?
a) VB = VG = VR b) VB > VG >VR c) VB < VG < VR d) VB < VG > VR
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11. The scattered light in Raman scattering contains _________ lines. [PTA – 5]
a) stokes lines b) antistokes lines c) Rayleigh line d) all the above
12. The near point of eye is (or) In common what is the value of least distance of distinct vision of a human?
a) 25 m b) 25 mm c) 25 cm d) 250 m [PTA - 6]

1. The path of the light is called as ray of light.
2. The refractive index of a transparent medium is always greater than one.
3. If the energy of incident beam and the scattered beam are same, then the scattering of light is
called as elastic scattering.
4. According to Rayleigh’s scattering law, the amount of scattering of light is inversely
proportional to the fourth power of its wavelength.
5. Amount of light entering into the eye is controlled by iris.
1. Velocity of light is greater in denser medium than in rarer medium. [False]

*Velocity of light is lesser in denser medium than in rarer medium.
2. The power of lens depends on the focal length of the lens. [True]
3. Increase in the converging power of eye lens cause ‘Hypermetropia’. [False]
*Increase in the converging power of eye lens cause ‘myopia’.
4. The convex lens always gives small virtual image. [False]
*The concave lens always gives small virtual image.
IV. Match the following.
Column - I Column - II Answer

1. Retina a) Path way of light 1- d) Screen of the eye
2- a) Path way of light
2. Pupil b) Far point comes closer
3- f) Power of accommodation
3. Ciliary muscles c) Near point moves away
4- b) Far point comes closer
4. Myopia d) Screen of the eye 5- c) near point moves away
5. Hypermetropia f) Power of accommodation
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One Marks 5
V. Assertion & Reasoning type

(c) Assertion is true, but the reason is false.
(d) Assertion is false, but the reason is true.
1. Assertion : If the refractive index of the medium is high (denser medium) the velocity of the
light in that medium will be small.
Reason : Refractive index of the medium is inversely proportional to the velocity of the light.
Ans. (a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
2. Assertion : Myopia is due to the increase in the converging power of eye lens.
Reason : Myopia can be corrected with the help of concave lens.
Ans. (a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

3
1. The value of universal gas constant

a) 3.81 J mol–1 K–1 b) 8.03 J mol–1 K–1 c)1.38 J mol–1 K–1 d) 8.31 J mol–1 K–1
2. If a substance is heated or cooled, the change in mass of that substance is [PTA – 1]
a) positive b) negative c) zero d) none of the above
3. If a substance is heated or cooled, the linear expansion occurs along the axis of
a) X or –X b) Y or –Y c) both (a) and (b) d) (a) or (b)
4. Temperature is the average ___________of the molecules of a substance.
a) difference in K.E and P.E b) sum of P.E and K.E
c) difference in T.E and P.E d) difference in K.E and T.E
5. In the Given diagram, the possible direction of heat energy transformation is
a) A←B, A←C, B ← 𝑪 b) A → B, A → 𝐶, 𝐵 → 𝐶
c) A → 𝐵, 𝐴 ← 𝐶, 𝐵 → 𝐶 d) A← 𝐵, 𝐴 → 𝐶, 𝐵 ← 𝐶
6. The co-efficient of linear expansion depends on _____________. [PTA – 4]
a) original length b) increasing temperature c) nature of material d) (a) and (b)
7. Variation in dimensions of any object due to rise in temperature is called as _____. [PTA – 5]
a) thermal expansion b) thermal variation c) thermal convection d) evaporation
8. If the atoms or molecules of a gas do not interact with each other, then the gas is known as ____.[PTA – 6]
a) a real gas b) an ideal gas c) a noble gas d) a rare gas
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1. The value of Avogadro’s number 6.023× 𝟏𝟎𝟐𝟑 /𝒎𝒐𝒍𝒆. [SEP – 2020]
2. The temperature and heat are scalar quantities. [PTA – 2]
3. One calorie is the amount of heat energy required to raise the temperature of 1 g of water through 1℃.
4. According to Boyle’s law, the shape of the graph between pressure and reciprocal of volume is straight line.
Additional Question
5. Temperature is the average kinetic energy of the molecules of a substance. [PTA – 2]
1. For a given heat in liquid, the apparent expansion is more than that of real expansion. [False]
*For a given heat in liquid, the apparent expansion is less than that of real expansion.
2. Thermal energy always flows from a system at higher temperature to a system at [True]
lower temperature.
3. According to Charles’s law, at constant pressure, the temperature is inversely [False]
proportional to volume. [PTA – 2]
*According to Charles’s law, at constant pressure, temperature of gas is directly proportional to volume.
Additional Question
4. During the process of transferring heat energy, the body at lower temperature is
[False]
cooled while the body at higher temperature is heated. [PTA – 4]
*During the process of transferring heat energy, the body at lower temperature is heated
while the body at higher temperature is cooled.
IV. Match the items in Column-I to the items in Column-II

1. Linear expansion (a) change in volume 1-d) change in length
2. Superficial expansion (b) hot body to cold body 2-e) change in area
3. Cubical expansion (c) 1.381× 10−23 JK −1 3-a) change in volume
4. Heat transformation (d) change in length 4-b) hot body to cold body
5. Boltzmann constant (e) change in area 5-c) 1.381× 𝟏𝟎−𝟐𝟑 𝐉𝐊 −𝟏
V. Assertion & Reason type questions

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One Marks 7
1. Assertion : There is no effects on other end when one end of the rod is only heated.
Reason : Heat always flows from a region of lower temperature to higher temperature of the rod.
Ans. Both Assertion and Reason are false.
2. Assertion : Gas is highly compressible than solid and liquid. [PTA – 2]

Reason : Interatomic or intermolecular distance in the gas is comparably high.
Both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct
Ans. (a)
explanation of assertion.
Additional Question
3. Assertion : Heat always flows from the body of higher temperature to the body of lower temperature.
Reason : The mass of the body is not altered when it is heated or cooled. [PTA – 5]
Both the assertion and the reason are true, but the reason is not the correct
Ans. (b)
4. ELECTRICITY
I. Choose the best answer
1. Which of the following is correct?

a) Rate of change of charge is electrical power. b) Rate of change of charge is current.
c) Rate of change of energy is current. d) Rate of change of current is charge.
2. SI unit of resistance is [SEP – 2021]
a) mho b) joule c) ohm d) ohm meter
3. In a simple circuit, why does the bulb glow when you close the switch?
a) The switch produces electricity b) Closing the switch completes the circuit
c) Closing the switch breaks the circuit d) The bulb is getting charged
4. Kilowatt hour is the unit of [AUG – 2022, MDL – 19]
a) resistivity b) conductivity c) electrical energy d) electrical power
5. The effective resistance of three resistors of resistances 5 Ω, 3 Ω and 2 Ω are connected in series
is _________. a) 1.03 Ω b) 10 Ω c) 0.97 Ω d) 2.5 Ω [PTA – 2]
6. Nichrome is used as heating element in electric heater, because it has [PTA – 3]
a) high resistivity b) high melting point c) not easily oxidised d) all the above
7. SI unit of specific resistance is ___________. [PTA – 4]
a) mho b) ohm/ metre c) ohm d) ohm metre
1. When a circuit is open, current cannot pass through it.
2. The ratio of the potential difference to the current is known as resistance.
3. The wiring in a house consists of parallel circuits.
4. The power of an electric device is a product of current and potential difference.
5. LED stands for Light Emitting Diode.
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1. Ohm’s law states the relationship between power and voltage. [False]
*Ohm’s law states the relationship between current and potential difference.
2. MCB is used to protect household electrical appliances. [True]
3. The SI unit for electric current is coulomb. [False]
*The SI unit for electric current is ampere.
4. One unit of electrical energy consumed is equal to 1000 kilowatt hour. [False]
*One unit of electrical energy consumed is equal to 1 kilowatt hour.
5. The effective resistance of three resistors connected in series is lesser than the lowest
[False]
of the individual resistances.
*Effective resistance of three resistors in series is greater than highest of individual resistances.
IV. Match the items in Column-I to the items in Column-II

[PTA – 5]
(i) Electric current (a) volt i - (e) ampere
(ii) Potential difference (b) ohm metre ii - (a) volt
(iii) Specific resistance (c) watt iii - (b) ohm metre
(iv) Electrical power (d) joule iv - (c) watt
(v) Electrical energy (e) ampere v - (d) joule
Additional Question [PTA – 2]

(a) Ammeter (i) a - (iii)
(b) Diode (ii) b - (i)
(c) Galvanometer (iii) c - (iv)

d - (ii)
(d) Resistor (iv)
V. Assertion and Reason type questions

a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
b) If both the assertion and the reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation of
the assertion.
c) If the assertion is true, but the reason is false.
d) If the assertion is false, but the reason is true.
1. Assertion: Electric appliances with a metallic body have three wire connections.
Reason : Three pin connections reduce heating of the connecting wires.
Ans. (c) The assertion is true, but the reason is false.
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One Marks 9
2. Assertion: In a simple battery circuit the point of highest potential is the positive terminal of
the battery.
Reason : The current flows towards the point of the highest potential.
Ans. (c) The assertion is true, but the reason is false.
3. Assertion: LED bulbs are far better than incandescent bulbs.

Reason : LED bulbs consume less power than incandescent bulbs.
Ans. (a)
VI. Very short answer questions
1. Define the unit of current.

 SI unit of current is ampere (A). Current through a conductor is one ampere, when a charge
of one coulomb flows across its cross-section, in one second.
𝟏 𝐜𝐨𝐮𝐥𝐨𝐦𝐛
1 ampere =
𝟏 𝐬𝐞𝐜𝐨𝐧𝐝
2. What happens to the resistance, as the conductor is made thicker?

 Resistance decreases. Because resistance is inversely proportional to area of cross section.
3. Why is tungsten metal used in bulbs, but not in fuse wires?
 Tungsten having high melting point won’t melt easily. Hence, it is not used in fuse wire.
 But it is used in bulbs where it has to bear high heat.
4. Name any two devices, which are working on the heating effect of the electric current.
 Fuse wire, electric iron, toaster, oven, etc,.
5. Electric power lines in electrical post, hang very low in hot summer, why? [PTA – 4]
The power lines expands on heating during hot summer, this makes the lines to hang
low.
6. Which instrument is used to measure the potential difference? How will you connect it in a circuit?
Voltmeter. It is connected in parallel.
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5. ACOUSTICS
1. When a sound wave travels through air, the air particles [SEP – 2021]
a) Vibrate along the direction of the wave motion b) Vibrate but not in any fixed direction
c) Vibrate perpendicular to the direction of the wave motion d) Do not vibrate
-1
2. Velocity of sound in a gaseous medium is 330 ms . If the pressure is increased by 4 times without
causing a change in the temperature, the velocity of sound in the gas is
a) 330 m s-1 b) 660 m s-1 c) 156 m s-1 d) 990 m s-1
3. The frequency, which is audible to the human ear is [PTA – 6]
a) 50 kHz b) 20 kHz c) 15000 kHz d) 10000 kHz
-1
4. The velocity of sound in air at a particular temperature is 330 ms . What will be its value when
temperature is doubled and the pressure is halved?
a) 330 m s-1 b) 165 m s-1 c) 330 × √𝟐 m s-1 d) 320 / √2 m s-1
5. If a sound wave travels with a frequency of 1.25×104 Hz at 344 m s-1, the wavelength will be
a) 27.52 m b) 275.2 m c) 0.02752 m d) 2.752 m
6. The sound waves are reflected from an obstacle into the same medium from which they were
incident. Which of the following changes?
a) speed b) frequency c) wavelength d) none of these
-1
7. Velocity of sound in the atmosphere of a planet is 500 ms . The minimum distance between the
sources of sound and the obstacle to hear the echo, should be
a) 17 m b) 20 m c) 25 m d) 50 m
8. Sound waves travel in air with a speed of about ______ at NTP. [SEP – 2021]
8 8 −8
a) 340 × 10 𝑚/𝑠 b) 𝟑𝟒𝟎 𝒎/𝒔 c) 3 × 10 𝑚/𝑠 d) 3 × 10 𝑚/𝑠
9. Arrange the following media in descending order on the basis of speed of sound [PTA – 1]
a) air > glass > water b) water > air > glass c) glass < water < air d) glass > water > air
II. Fill up the blanks
1. Rapid back and forth motion of a particle about its mean position is called vibration.
2. If the energy in a longitudinal wave travels from south to north, the particles of the medium
would be vibrating in both south and north.
3. A whistle giving out a sound of frequency 450 Hz, Approaches a stationary observer at a speed
of 33 m s-1 . The frequency heard by the observer is (speed of sound = 330 m s -1) 500 Hz.
4. A source of sound is travelling with a velocity 40 km/h towards an observer and emits a sound
of frequency 2000 Hz. If the velocity of sound is 1220 km/h, then the apparent frequency heard
by the observer is 2067.8 Hz.
5. Bats : Ultrasonic, Earth quake : Infrasonic. [PTA – 3]
6. Whispering Gallery: Application of echo, Tracking a satellite: Application of Doppler effect.[PTA – 3]
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One Marks 11
III. True or false : (If false give the reason)
1. Sound can travel through solids, gases, liquids and even vacuum. [False]
*Sound can travel through solids, gases, liquids and cannot travel through vacuum.
2. Waves created by Earth Quake are Infrasonic. [True]
3. The velocity of sound is independent of temperature. [False]

*The velocity of sound is directly proportional to the square root of temperature.
4. The velocity of sound is high in gases than liquids. [False]

*The velocity of sound is low in gases than liquids.
1) Infrasonic a) Compressions 1-c) 10 Hz

2) Echo b) 22 kHz 2-d) Ultrasonography
3) Ultrasonic c) 10 Hz 3-b) 22 kHz
4) High pressure region d) Ultrasonography 4-a) Compressions
V. Assertion and Reason Questions

(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation
of assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation
of the Assertion.
1. Assertion : The change in air pressure affects the speed of sound.
Reason : The speed of sound in a gas is proportional to the square of the pressure.
Ans. Both assertion and reason are False.
2. Assertion : Sound travels faster in solids than in gases.

Reason : Solid possess a greater density than that of gases.
Ans. (b) Both the assertion and the reason are true, but the reason is not the correct
explanation of the Assertion.
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VI. Answer very briefly
1. What is a longitudinal wave?

It is the wave in which particles vibrate along the direction of propagation of wave.
2. What is the audible range of frequency? [SEP – 2021]
20 Hz and 20,000 Hz (Or) 20 kHz.
3. What is the minimum distance needed for an echo? [SEP – 2021, MDL – 19]
17.2 m.
4. What will be the frequency of sound having 0.20 m as its wavelength, when it travels with a
speed of 331 m s-1?
V 331 3310
n= = = = 1655 Hz
λ 0.20 2
5. Name three animals, which can hear ultrasonic vibrations.
1) Mosquito 2) Dogs 3) Bats
6. NUCLEAR PHYSICS
1. Man-made radioactivity is also known as_____________.

a) Induced radioactivity b) Spontaneous radioactivity
c) Artificial radioactivity d) a & c
2. Unit of radioactivity is _____________. [SEP – 2021]
a) roentgen b) curie c) becquerel d) all the above
3. Artificial radioactivity was discovered by____________.
a) Becquerel b) Irene Curie c) Roentgen d) Neils Bohr
4. In which of the following, no change in mass number of the daughter nuclei takes place
i) α decay ii) β decay iii) γ decay iv) neutron decay
a) (i) is correct b) (ii) and (iii) are correct
c) (i) & ( iv) are correct d) (ii) & (iv) are correct
5. ____________ isotope is used for the treatment of cancer.
a) Radio Iodine b) Radio Cobalt c) Radio Carbon d) Radio Nickel
6. Gamma radiations are dangerous because
a) it affects eyes & bones b) it affects tissues
c) it produces genetic disorder d) it produces enormous amount of heat
7. _____________ aprons are used to protect us from gamma radiations. [PTA – 3]
a) Lead oxide b) Iron c) Lead d) Aluminium
8. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
i) α particles are photons ii) Penetrating power of γ radiation is very low
iii) Ionization power is maximum for α ray iv) Penetrating power of γ radiation is very high
a) (i) & (ii) are correct b) (ii) & (iii) are correct
c) (iv) only correct d) (iii) & (iv) are correct
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One Marks 13
9. Proton - Proton chain reaction is an example of__________________.

a) Nuclear fission b) α - decay c) Nuclear fusion d) β - decay
10. In the nuclear reaction 6X12 A

ZY , the value of A & Z.
a) 8, 6 b) 8, 4 c) 4, 8 d) cannot be determined with the given data

11. Kamini reactor is located at __________.
a) Kalpakkam b) Koodankulam c) Mumbai d) Rajasthan
12. Which of the following is/are correct?
i) Chain reaction takes place in a nuclear reactor and an atomic bomb.
ii) The chain reaction in a nuclear reactor is controlled.
iii) The chain reaction in a nuclear reactor is not controlled.
iv) No chain reaction takes place in an atom bomb.
a) (i) only correct b) (i) & (ii) are correct
c) (iv) only correct d) (iii) & (iv) are correct
13. In Beta decay [PTA – 2]
a) mass number increases by one b) atomic number decrease by one
c) number of proton increases by one d) number of neutron increases by one
14. The elements having atomic number ______ undergo spontaneous radioactivity. [PTA – 4]
a) more than 83 b) less than 83 c) less than 73 d) equal to 83
15. ________ element emits its radiation spontaneously. [MDL – 19]
a) Ni b) Pd c) Pt d) U

1. One roentgen is equal to 2.58× 𝟏𝟎−𝟒 C / Kg disintegrations per second.
2. Positron is an elementary particle (or) anti electron.
3. Anaemia can be cured by Radio-iron (𝐅𝐞𝟓𝟗 ) isotope.
4. Abbreviation of ICRP - International Commission on Radiological Protection.
5. Dosimeter is used to measure exposure rate of radiation in humans.
6. Gamma ray has the greatest penetration power.
7. ZY → Z+1Y + X; Then, X
A A
is Beta ray (−𝟏 𝒆𝟎 ).
8. ZX → ZY This reaction is
A A
possible in gamma decay.
9. The average energy released in each fusion reaction is about 𝟑. 𝟖𝟒 × 𝟏𝟎−𝟏𝟐 J.
10. Nuclear fusion is possible only at an extremely high temperature of the order of 𝟏𝟎𝟕 𝐊 𝒕𝒐 𝟏𝟎𝟗 𝑲.
11. The radio isotope of phosphorous (P-32) helps to increase the productivity of crops.
12. If the radiation exposure is 100 R, it may cause leukemia (or) cancer.
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III. True or False (If false, correct the statement)

:
1. Plutonium -239 is a fissionable material. [True]
2. Elements having atomic number greater than 83 can undergo nuclear fusion. [False]
*Elements having atomic number greater than 83 can undergo natural radioactivity.
3. Nuclear fusion is more dangerous than nuclear fission. [True]
4. Natural uranium U-238 is the core fuel used in a nuclear reactor. [False]
*Uranium U-235 is the core fuel used in a nuclear reactor.
5. If a moderator is not present, then a nuclear reactor will behave as an atom bomb. [False]
*If a control rod is not present, then a nuclear reactor will behave as an atom bomb.
6. During one nuclear fission on an average, 2 to 3 neutrons are produced. [True]
7. Einstein’s theory of mass energy equivalence is used in nuclear fission and fusion. [True]
IV. Match the following:
Match : I
1. BARC Kalpakkam 1. Mumbai
2. India's first atomic power station Apsara 2. Tarapur
3. IGCAR Mumbai 3. Kalpakkam
4. First nuclear reactor in India Tarapur 4. Apsara
Match: II [PTA – 6]
1. Fuel Lead 1. Uranium
2. Moderator Heavy water 2. Heavy water
3. Control rods Cadmium rods 3. Cadmium rods
4. Shield uranium 4. Lead
Match: III
1. Soddy & Fajan Natural radioactivity 1. Displacement law
2. Irene Curie Displacement law 2. Artificial Radioactivity
3. Henry Bequerel Mass energy equivalence 3. Natural radioactivity
4. Albert Einstein Artificial Radioactivity 4. Mass energy equivalence
Match: IV
1. Uncontrolled fission reaction Hydrogen Bomb 1. Atom bomb
2. Fertile material Nuclear Reactor 2. Breeder reactor
3. Controlled fission reaction Breeder reactor 3. Nuclear reactor
4. Fusion reaction Atom bomb 4. Hydrogen bomb
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One Marks 15
Match: V
1. Co - 60 Age of fossil 1. Leukemia
2. I - 131 Function of Heart 2. Thyroid disease
3. Na - 24 Leukemia 3. Function of heart
4. C - 14 Thyroid disease 4. Age of fossil
V. Arrange the following in the correct sequence

1. Arrange in descending order, on the basis of their penetration power.
Alpha rays, beta rays, gamma rays, cosmic rays
Gamma rays > Beta rays > Alpha rays > Cosmic rays
2. Arrange the following in the chronological order of discovery.

Nuclear reactor, radioactivity, artificial radioactivity, discovery of radium.
Radioactivity > Discovery of radium > Artificial radioactivity > Nuclear reactor
1896 > 1898 > 1934 > 1942
VI. Use the analogy to fill in the blanks

1. Spontaneous process : Natural Radioactivity, Induced process : Artificial radioactivity
2. Nuclear Fusion : Extreme temperature, Nuclear Fission : Room temperature
3. Increasing crops : Radio phosphorous, Effective functioning of heart : Radio sodium
4. Deflected by electric field : α ray, Null Deflection : 𝜸 ray (Gamma)
5. Nuclear fission : Atom bomb, Nuclear fusion : Hydrogen bomb [PTA – 6]
6. Radio Iodine : Goitre, Radio Sodium : Effective functioning of heart [PTA – 6]
VIII. Assertion and reason type questions

(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
1. Assertion: A neutron impinging on U235, splits it to produce Barium and Krypton.
Reason : U - 235 is a fissile material.
2. Assertion : In a β - decay, the neutron number decreases by one.
Reason : In β - decay atomic number increases by one.
Ans. (a)
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3. Assertion : Extreme temperature is necessary to execute nuclear fusion.
Reason : In a nuclear fusion, the nuclei of the reactants combine releasing high energy.
4. Assertion : Control rods are known as 'neutron seeking rods'.
Reason : Control rods are used to perform sustained nuclear fission reaction.
Ans. (a)
IX. Answer in one or two word (VSA)
1. Who discovered natural radioactivity? [MAY - 2022] Henri Becquerel

2. Which radioactive material is present in the ore of pitchblende? Radium, Uranium
3. Write any two elements, which are used for inducing radioactivity? Boron, Aluminium
4. Write the name of the electromagnetic radiation, which is emitted
Gamma
during a natural radioactivity.
5. If A is a radioactive element which emits an α - particle & produces
259 Mass number = 259 + 4 = 263
104Rf . Write the atomic number & mass number of the element
Atomic number = 104 + 2 = 106
A. (Solution : α – decay : 104+2A259+4 → 104Rf259 + 2He4)
6. What is the average energy released from a single fission process? 3.2 × 10-11 J (or) 200Mev
7. Which hazardous radiation is the cause for the genetic disease? Gamma radiation
8. What is the amount of radiation that may cause death of a person
600 R
when exposed to it?
9. When and where was the first nuclear reactor built? 1942 at Chicago, U.S.A
10. Give the SI unit of radioactivity. Becquerel (Bq)
11. Which material protects us from radiation? Lead
7. ATOMS AND MOLECULES

1. Which of the following has the smallest mass?
a) 6.023 × 1023 atoms of He b) 1 atom of He c) 2 g of He d) 1 mole atoms of He
2. Which of the following is a triatomic molecule? [MDL – 19, PTA – 1]
a) Glucose b) Helium c) Carbon dioxide d) Hydrogen
3. The volume occupied by 4.4 g of CO2 at S.T.P
a) 22.4 litre b) 2.24 litre c) 0.24 litre d) 0.1 litre
4. Mass of 1 mole of Nitrogen atom is
a) 28 amu b) 14 amu c) 28 g d) 14 g
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One Marks 17
5. Which of the following represents 1 amu?

a) Mass of a C – 12 atom b) Mass of a hydrogen atom
𝟏
c) th of the mass of a C – 12 atom d) Mass of O – 16 atom
𝟏𝟐
6. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
a) One gram of C – 12 contains Avogadro’s number of atoms.
b) One mole of oxygen gas contains Avogadro’s number of molecules.
c) One mole of hydrogen gas contains Avogadro’s number of atoms.
d) One mole of electrons stands for 6.023 × 1023 electrons.
7. The volume occupied by 1 mole of a diatomic gas at S.T.P is
a) 11.2 litre b) 5.6 litre c) 22.4 litre d) 44.8 litre
8. In the nucleus of 20Ca40, there are
a) 20 protons and 40 neutrons b) 20 protons and 20 neutrons
c) 20 protons and 40 electrons d) 40 protons and 20 electrons
9. The gram molecular mass of oxygen molecule is [AUG - 2022]
a) 16 g b) 18 g c) 32 g d) 17 g
10. 1 mole of any substance contains ____molecules.
a) 6.023 × 1023 b) 6.023 × 10-23 c) 3.0115 × 1023 d) 12.046 × 1023
11. Analyse the following and choose the correct statement(s) [PTA – 4]
i) An electron has considerable mass
ii) A hetero atomic molecule is formed from different kinds of atoms.
iii) Mass number and atomic mass of an element are same
a) i, ii and iii are correct b) i and iii are correct
c) only (ii) is correct d) only (iii) is correct
12. If a molecule is made of similar kind of atoms, then it is called __________. [MAY -22, PTA-6]
a) mono atomic molecule b) hetero atomic molecule
c) homo atomic molecule d) poly atomic molecule
1. Atoms of different elements having same mass number, but different atomic numbers are called isobars.
2. Atoms of different elements having same number of neutrons are called isotones. [PTA – 4]
3. Atoms of one element can be transmuted into atoms of other element by artificial transmutation.
4. The sum of the numbers of protons and neutrons of an atom is called its mass number.
5. Relative atomic mass is otherwise known as standard atomic weight.
6. The average atomic mass of hydrogen is 1.008 amu.
7. If a molecule is made of similar kind of atoms, then it is called homo atomic molecule.
8. The number of atoms present in a molecule is called its atomicity. [PTA – 4]
9. One mole of any gas occupies 22400 ml at S.T.P.
10. Atomicity of phosphorous is 4.
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III. Match the following

𝐌𝐚𝐬𝐬
Column I Column II Answer Hint : No. of moles = 𝐀𝐭𝐨𝐦𝐢𝐜/𝐦𝐨𝐥𝐞𝐜𝐮𝐥𝐚𝐫 𝐦𝐚𝐬𝐬
1) 0.25 moles 𝟖
1. 8g of O2 4 moles 1) 8g of O2 = 𝟑𝟐 = 𝟎. 𝟐𝟓 moles
2) 2 moles 𝟒
2. 4g of H2 0.25 moles 2) 4g of H2 = 𝟐 = 𝟐 moles
3) 13 moles
𝟓𝟐
3. 52 g of He 2 moles 4) 4 moles 3) 52 g of He = = 𝟏𝟑 moles
𝟒
5) 0.5 mole 𝟏𝟏𝟐
4. 112 g of N2 0.5 moles 4) 112 g of N2 = 𝟐𝟖
= 𝟒 moles
𝟑𝟓.𝟓
5. 35.5 g of Cl2 13 moles 5) 35.5 g of Cl2= 𝟕𝟏
= 𝟎. 𝟓 moles
IV. True or False: (if false give the correct statement)
1. Two elements sometimes can form more than one compound. [True]
2. Noble gases are diatomic. [False]
*Noble gases are monoatomic.
3. The gram atomic mass of an element has no unit. [False]
* The relative atomic mass of an element has no unit.
4. 1 mole of Gold and Silver contain same number of atoms. [True]
5. Molar mass of CO2 is 42g. [False]
* Molar mass of C𝑂2 = 12+(16 × 2) = 44 g.
V. Assertion & Reason

Answer the following questions using the data given below:
i) A and R are correct, R explains the A. ii) A is correct, R is wrong.
iii) A is wrong, R is correct. iv) A and R are correct, R does not explains A.
1. Assertion: The Relative Atomic mass of aluminium is 27.

1
Reason : An atom of aluminium is 27 times heavier than th of the mass of the C – 12 atom.
12
Ans. (iv)
A and R are correct, R does not explains A.
2. Assertion: The Relative Molecular Mass of Chlorine is 35.5 a.m.u. [PTA – 3]

Reason : The natural abundance of Chlorine isotopes are not equal.
Ans. (iii)
A is wrong, R is correct.
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One Marks 19
8. PERIODIC CLASSIFICATION OF
ELEMENTS
1. The number of periods and groups in the periodic table are______. [AUG - 2022]
a) 6, 16 b) 7, 17 c) 8, 18 d) 7, 18
2. The basis of modern periodic law is______.
a) atomic number b) atomic mass c) isotopic mass d) number of neutrons
3. _____ group contains the member of halogen family. [PTA – 1]
a) 17th b) 15th c) 18th d) 16 th
4. _____ is a relative periodic property

a) atomic radii b) ionic radii c) electron affinity d) electronegativity
5. Chemical formula of rust is ________.
a) FeO.xH2O b) FeO4.xH2O c) Fe2O3.xH2O d) FeO
6. In the aluminothermic process the role of Al is _____.
a) oxidizing agent b) reducing agent c) hydrogenating agent d) sulphurising agent
7. The process of coating the surface of metal with a thin layer of zinc is called______.
a) Painting b) thinning c) galvanization d) electroplating
8. Which of the following inert gases have 2 electrons in the outermost shell.
a) He b) Ne c) Ar d) Kr
9. Neon shows zero electron affinity due to_____.
a) stable arrangement of neutrons b) stable configuration of electrons
c) reduced size d) increased density
10. ______ is an important metal to form amalgam. [AUG – 2022, MDL – 19]
a) Ag b) Hg c) Mg d) Al
11. Alloy used in the manufacturing of pressure cooker is _________. [SEP – 2021]
a) Brass b) Bronze c) Magnalium d) Duralumin
12. When a sodium atom loses an electron it forms Na+ ion. The radius of Na+ ion is lesser than
Na atom. This is because, [PTA – 3]
a) The attractive force of nucleus is more in Na + ion than Na atom
b) The attractive force of nucleus is more in Na atom than Na+ ion
c) Number of protons present in Na atom is less than Na+ ion
d) Number of electrons present in Na+ ion is more than Na atom
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1. If the electronegativity difference between two bonded atoms in a molecule is greater than
1.7, the nature of bonding is ionic. [PTA – 5]
2. Sixth period is the longest period in the periodical table.
3. Atomic number forms the basis of modern periodic table.
4. If the distance between two Cl atoms in Cl2 molecule is 1.98Å, then the radius of Cl atom is 0.99 Å
5. Among the given species A–, A+, and A, the smallest one in size is A+.
6. The scientist who propounded the modern periodic law is Henry Moseley.
7. Across the period, ionic radii decreases. (increases, decreases).
8. Lanthanides and actinides are called inner transition elements.
9. The chief ore of Aluminium is bauxite.
10. The chemical name of rust is hydrated ferric oxide (Fe2O3.xH2O).

[PTA – 6]
1. Galvanisation Noble gas elements 1. Coating with Zn
2. Calcination Coating with Zn 2. Heating in the absence of air

3. Aluminothermic process
3. Redox reaction Silver - tin amalgam
4. Silver - tin amalgam
4. Dental filling Aluminothermic process
5. Noble gas elements
5. Group 18 elements Heating in the absence of air

1. Moseley’s periodic table is based on atomic mass. [False]
*Moseley’s periodic table is based on Atomic number.
2. Ionic radius increases across the period from left to right. [False]
*Ionic radius decreases across the period from left to right.
3. All ores are minerals; but all minerals cannot be called as ores. [True]
4. Al wires are used as electric cables due to their silvery white colour. [False]
*Al wires are used as electric cables due to their electrical conductivity.
5. An alloy is a heterogenous mixture of metals.

[False]
*An alloy is a homogeneous mixture of metals.
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One Marks 21
V. Assertion & Reason

Answer the following questions using the data given below:
i) A and R are correct, R explains the A. ii) A is correct, R is wrong.
iii) A is wrong, R is correct. iv) A and R are correct, R doesn’t explains A.
1. Assertion (A) : The nature of bond in HF molecule is ionic. [PTA – 2]
Reason (R) : The electronegativity difference between H and F is 1.9.
Ans. (i) A and R are correct, R explains the A.
2. Assertion (A) : Magnesium is used to protect steel from rusting.

Reason (R) : Magnesium is more reactive than iron.
Ans. (i)
A and R are correct, R explains the A.
3. Assertion (A) : An uncleaned copper vessel is covered with greenish layer. [PTA – 5]
Reason (R) : copper is not attacked by alkali.
Ans. (iv) A and R are correct, R doesn’t explains A.

1. A solution is a __________ mixture.
a) homogeneous b) heterogeneous c) homogeneous & heterogeneous d) non homogeneous
2. The number of components in a binary solution is __________. [MAY - 2022]
a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 5
3. Which of the following is the universal solvent?
a) Acetone b) Benzene c) Water d) Alcohol
4. A solution in which no more solute can be dissolved in a definite amount of solvent at a given
temperature is called _______.
a) Saturated solution b) Unsaturated solution
c) Super saturated solution d) Dilute solution
5. Identify the non aqueous solution. [SEP – 2020]
a) sodium chloride in water b) glucose in water
c) copper sulphate in water d) sulphur in carbon-di-sulphide
6. When pressure is increased at constant temperature, the solubility of gases in liquid _______.
a) No change b) increases c) decreases d) no reaction
7. Solubility of NaCl in 100 ml water is 36 g. If 25 g of salt is dissolved in 100 ml of water how
much more salt is required for saturation ___________.
a) 12 g b) 11 g c) 16 g d) 20 g
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8. A 25% alcohol solution means [PTA – 4]
a) 25 ml alcohol in 100 ml of water b) 25 ml alcohol in 25 ml of water
c) 25 ml alcohol in 75 ml of water d) 75 ml alcohol in 25 ml of water
9. Deliquescence is due to _________. [PTA – 5]
a) Strong affinity to water b) Less affinity to water
c) Strong hatred to water d) Inertness to water
10. Which of the following is hygroscopic in nature?
a) ferric chloride b) copper sulphate penta hydrate
c) silica gel d) none of the above
11. While doing a science practical experiment, a student left a bottle opened after usage, which contained
solid sodium hydroxide. When the student visited the laboratory again after few days, he found only
liquid sodium hydroxide in the bottle. This is due to ________ property of sodium hydroxide.
a) hygroscopic b) deliquescence c) dehydration d) dissociation [PTA – 1]
12. Volume percentage of solutions decreases with the increase in temperature due to [PTA – 2]
a) thermal expansion of liquids b) cooling effect of liquids
c) increase in concentration of solution d) decrease in concentration of solution
1. The component present in lesser amount, in a solution is called solute. [MDL – 19]
2. Example for liquid in solid type solution is mercury with sodium (amalgam).
3. Solubility is the amount of solute dissolved in 100 g of solvent.
4. Polar compounds are soluble in polar solvents.
5. Volume percentage decreases with increase in temperature because of thermal expansion of liquid.

1. Blue vitriol CaSO4.2H2O 1) CuSO4.5H2O
2. Gypsum CaO 2) CaSO4.2H2O
3. Deliquescence CuSO4.5H2O 3) NaOH
4. Hygroscopic NaOH 4) CaO
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One Marks 23

1. Solutions which contain three components are called binary solution. [False]
*Solutions which contain two components are called binary solution.
2. In a solution, the component which is present in lesser amount is called solvent. [False]
*In a solution, the component which is present in lesser amount is called solute. [PTA-4]
3. Sodium chloride dissolved in water forms a non - aqueous solution. [PTA – 4] [False]
*Sodium chloride dissolved in water forms an aqueous solution.
4. The molecular formula of green vitriol is MgSO4.7H2O [False]
*The molecular formula of green vitriol is FeSO4.7H2O (or) The molecular formula of
epsom salt is MgSO4.7H2O.
5. When Silica gel is kept open, it absorbs moisture from the air, because it is [True]
hygroscopic in nature. [PTA – 4]
6. In our daily life such as a solution of syrups, mouth wash, antiseptic solution, [False]
household disinfectants etc., the concentration of the ingredients is expressed as w/w.
*In our daily life such as a solution of syrups, mouth wash, antiseptic solution, household
disinfectants etc., the concentration of the ingredients is expressed as v/v. [SEP- 2020]
7. In ointments, antacids, soaps, etc., the concentration of solution is expressed as v/v. [False]
*In ointments, antacid, soaps, etc., concentration of solution is expressed as w/w.
[SEP- 2020]
10. TYPES OF CHEMICAL REACTIONS

1. H2(g) + Cl2(g) → 2HCl(g) is a
a) Decomposition Reaction b) Combination Reaction
c) Single Displacement Reaction d) Double Displacement Reaction
2. Photolysis is a decomposition reaction caused by ___________
a) heat b) electricity c) light d) mechanical energy
3. A reaction between carbon and oxygen is represented by C(s) + O2(g) → CO2(g) + Heat. In which
of the type(s), the above reaction can be classified?
(i) Combination Reaction (ii) Combustion Reaction
(iii) Decomposition Reaction (iv) Irreversible Reaction
a) i and ii b) i and iv c) i, ii and iii d) i, ii and iv
4. The chemical equation Na2SO4(aq) + BaCl2(aq) → BaSO4(s)↓ + 2NaCl(aq) represents which of the
following types of reaction?
a) Neutralisation b) Combustion c) Precipitation d) Single displacement
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5. Which of the following statements are correct about a chemical equilibrium?
(i) It is dynamic in nature.
(ii) The rate of the forward and backward reactions are equal at equilibrium.
(iii) Irreversible reactions do not attain chemical equilibrium.
(iv) The concentration of reactants and products may be different.
a) i, ii and iii b) i, ii and iv c) ii, iii and iv d) i, iii and iv
6. A single displacement reaction is represented by X(s) + 2HCl(aq) → XCl2(aq) + H2(g).Which of the
following(s) could be X. (i) Zn (ii) Ag (iii) Cu (iv) Mg
Choose the best pair.
a) i and ii b) ii and iii c) iii and iv d) i and iv
7. Which of the following is not an “element + element → compound” type reaction? [PTA – 3]
a) C(s) + O2(g) → CO2(g) b) 2K(s) + Br2(l) → 2KBr(s)
c) 2CO(g) + O2(g) → 2CO2(g) d) 4Fe(s) + 3O2(g) → 2Fe2O3(s)
8. Which of the following represents a precipitation reaction?
a) A(s) + B(s) → C(s) + D(s) b) A(s) + B(aq) → C(aq) + D(l)
c) A(aq) + B(aq) → C(s) + D(aq) d) A(aq) + B(s) → C(aq) + D(l)
–
9. The pH of a solution is 3. Its [OH ]concentration is
a) 1 × 10–3 M b) 3 M c) 1 × 10–11 M d) 11 M
10. Powdered CaCO3 reacts more rapidly than flaky CaCO3 because of ___________.
a) large surface area b) high pressure c) high concentration d) high temperature
11. In a combustion reaction, [PTA – 2]
a) oxygen gas is released b) nitrogen gas is released
c) oxygen gas is utilised d) nitrogen gas is utilised
12. The amount of product formation in a reversible reaction ________ when the periodic removal
of the product takes place. [PTA – 4]
a) increases b) decreases c) first decreases then increases d) first increases and then decreases
13. In a chemical equilibrium, the concentrations of reactants and products are _____. [PTA – 5]
a) remain different b) remain same c) cannot be predicted d) are not equal
1. A reaction between an acid and a base is called neutralization reaction.
2. When lithium metal is placed in hydrochloric acid, hydrogen gas is evolved.
3. The equilibrium attained during the melting of ice is known as physical equilibrium.
4. The pH of a fruit juice is 5.6. If you add slaked lime to this juice, its pH increases (increase/decrease).
5. The value of ionic product of water at 25℃ is 1.00× 𝟏𝟎−𝟏𝟒mol2 dm-6.
6. The normal pH of human blood is 7.4.
7. Electrolysis is a type of decomposition reaction.
8. The number of products formed in a synthesis reaction is one.
9. Chemical volcano is an example for decomposition type of reaction.
10. The ion formed by dissolution of H+ in water is called hydronium ion (or) H3O+ ion.
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One Marks 25

1. Identify the types of reaction : [PTA –2]
REACTION TYPE Answer
1) NH4OH(aq) + CH3COOH(aq) → CH3COONH4(aq) + H2O(l) a) Single Displacement 1-c
2) Zn(s) + CuSO4(aq) → ZnSO4(aq) + Cu(s) b) Combustion 2-a
𝐻𝑒𝑎𝑡
3) ZnCO3(s) → ZnO(s) + CO2(g) c) Neutralisation 3-d
4) C2H4(g) + 4O2(g) → 2CO2(g) + 2H2O(g) + Heat d) Thermal decomposition 4-b
1. Silver metal can displace hydrogen gas from nitric acid. [False]
* Silver metal does not displace hydrogen from nitric acid.
2. The pH of rain water containing dissolved gases like SO3, CO2, NO2 will be less than 7. [True]
3. At the equilibrium of a reversible reaction, the concentration of the reactants and the
[True]
products will be equal.
4. Periodical removal of one of the products of a reversible reaction increases the yield. [True]
5. On dipping a pH paper in a solution, it turns into yellow. Then the solution is basic. [False]
*On dipping a pH paper in a solution, it turns into yellow. Then the solution is acidic. (or)
On dipping a pH paper in a solution, it turns into violet. Then the solution is basic.
11. CARBON AND ITS COMPOUNDS

1. The molecular formula of an open chain organic compound is C3H6. The class of the compound is
a) alkane b) alkene c) alkyne d) alcohol
2. The IUPAC name of an organic compound is 3-Methyl butan-1-ol. What type compound it is?
a) Aldehyde b) Carboxylic acid c) Ketone d) Alcohol [SEP – 2021]
3. The secondary suffix used in IUPAC nomenclature of an aldehyde is _______.
a) - ol b) – oic acid c) - al d) - one
4. Which of the following pairs can be the successive members of a homologous series?
a) C3H8 and C4H10 b) C2H2 and C2H4 c) CH4 and C3H6 d) C2H5OH and C4H8OH
5. C2H5OH + 3O2 → 2CO2 + 3H2O is a [SEP – 2020]
a) Reduction of ethanol b) Combustion of ethanol
c) Oxidation of ethanoic acid d) Oxidation of ethanol
6. Rectified spirit is an aqueous solution which contains about _______ of ethanol. [MAY - 2022]
a) 95.5 % b) 75.5 % c) 55.5 % d) 45.5 %
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7. Which of the following are used as anaesthetics?
a) Carboxylic acids b) Ethers c) Esters d) Aldehydes
8. TFM in soaps represents ___________content in soap.
a) mineral b) vitamin c) fatty acid d) carbohydrate
9. Which of the following statement is wrong about detergents?
a) It is a sodium salt of long chain fatty acids b) It is sodium salts of sulphonic acids
– +
c) The ionic part in a detergent is –SO3 Na d) It is effective even in hard water
10. Biodegradable detergents are made of ________. [PTA – 3]
a) branched chain hydrocarbons b) linear chain hydrocarbons
c) both branched and linear chain hydrocarbons d) cyclic hydrocarbons
11. Which of the following shows the right increasing order of reactivity? [PTA – 6]
a) CH ≡ CH < CH4 < CH2 = CH2 b) CH ≡ CH < CH2 = CH2 < CH4
c) 𝐂𝐇𝟒 < 𝐂𝐇𝟐 = 𝐂𝐇𝟐 < 𝐂𝐇 ≡ 𝐂𝐇 d) CH4 < CH ≡ CH < CH2 = CH2
1. An atom or a group of atoms, which is responsible for chemical characteristics of an organic

compound is called functional group.
2. The general molecular formula of alkynes is CnH2n-2.
3. In IUPAC name, the carbon skeleton of a compound is represented by root word(root word/prefix/suffix)
4. (Saturated / Unsaturated) Unsaturated compounds decolourize bromine water.
5. Dehydration of ethanol by conc. sulphuric acid forms ethene. (ethene/ ethane)
6. 100 % pure ethanol is called absoulte alcohol.
7. Ethanoic acid turns blue litmus to red.
8. The alkaline hydrolysis of fatty acids is termed as saponification.
9. Biodegradable detergents are made of straight (branched / straight) chain hydrocarbons.

[PTA – 2]
1. Functional group –OH Benzene 1. Alcohol
2. Heterocyclic Potassium stearate 2. Furan
3. Unsaturated Alcohol 3. Ethene
4. Soap Furan 4. Potassium stearate
5. Carbocyclic Ethene 5. Benzene
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One Marks 27
IV. Assertion and Reason

Answer the following questions using the data given below.
i) A and R are correct, R explains the A ii) A is correct, R is wrong.
iii) A is wrong, R is correct. iv) A and R are correct, R doesn’t explains A.
1. Assertion (A): Detergents are more effective cleansing agents than soaps in hard water. [PTA – 4]
Reason (R) : Calcium and magnesium salts of detergents are water soluble.
Ans. (i) A and R are correct, R explains the A.
2. Assertion (A) : Alkanes are saturated hydrocarbons.

Reason (R) : Hydrocarbons consist of covalent bonds.
Ans. (iv) A and R are correct, R doesn’t explains A.
12. PLANT ANATOMY AND PLANT

PHYSIOLOGY
1. Casparian strips are present in the __________ of the root. [MDL – 19]
a) Cortex b) Pith c) Pericycle d) endodermis
2. The endarch condition is the characteristic feature of [AUG – 2022, MAY - 2022]
a) root b) stem c) leaves d) flower
3. The xylem and phloem arranged side-by-side on same radius is called
a) radial b) amphivasal c) conjoint d) None of these
4. Which is formed during anaerobic respiration [SEP – 2020, MDL – 19]
a) Carbohydrate b) Ethyl alcohol c) Acetyl CoA d) Pyruvate
5. Krebs cycle takes place in [PTA – 3]
a) chloroplast b) mitochondrial matrix c) stomata d) inner mitochondrial membrane
6. Oxygen is produced at what point during photosynthesis (or) During photosynthesis at which
of the following state, oxygen is produced. [PTA – 4]
a) when ATP is converted to ADP b) when CO2 is fixed
c) when H2O is splitted d) all of these

1. The innermost layer of cortex in root is called endodermis.
2. Xylem and phloem are arranged in an alternate radii constitute a vascular bundle called radial bundles.
3. Glycolysis takes place in cytoplasm.
4. The source of O2 liberated in photosynthesis is water.
5. Mitochondria is ATP factory of the cells.
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III. True or false. Correct the statement if it is false.

\
1. Phloem tissue is involved in the transport of water in plant. [False]

* Xylem tissue is involved in the transport of water in plant.
2. The waxy protective covering of a plant is called as cuticle. [True]

3. In monocot stem, cambium is present in between xylem and phloem. [False]
* In dicot stem, cambium is present in between xylem and phloem.
4. Palisade parenchyma cells occur below upper epidermis in dicot root. [False]
*Palisade parenchyma cells occur below upper epidermis in dicot leaf.
5. Mesophyll contains chlorophyll. [True]

6. Anaerobic respiration produces more ATP than aerobic respiration. [False]
* Anaerobic respiration produces less ATP than aerobic respiration.

1. Amphicribal Dracaena 1. Fern
2. Cambium Translocation of food 2. Secondary growth

3. Dracaena
3. Amphivasal Fern
4. Conduction of water
4. Xylem Secondary growth
5. Translocation of food
5. Phloem Conduction of water
V. Answer in a sentence
1. What is collateral vascular bundle?

In collateral vascular bundle, xylem lies towards centre, phloem lies towards periphery.
2. Where does the carbon that is used in photosynthesis come from?
Carbon come from atmosphere in the form of CO2.
3. What is the common step in aerobic and anaerobic pathway and where is it occur in a cell?
Common Step - Glycolysis. It takes place in cytoplasm of the cell. [PTA – 5]
4. Name the phenomenon by which carbohydrates are oxidized to release ethyl alcohol.
Fermentation (Anaerobic respiration).
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One Marks 29
13. STRUCTURAL ORGANISATION OF

ANIMALS
1. In leech locomotion is performed by

a) Anterior sucker b) Parapodia c) Setae d) Contraction and relaxation of muscles
2. The segments of leech are known as
a) Metameres (somites) b) Proglottids c) Strobila d) All the above
3. Pharyngeal ganglion in leech is a part of
a) Excretory system b) Nervous system c) Reproductive system d) Respiratory system
4. The brain of leech lies above the
a) Mouth b) Buccal Cavity c) Pharynx d) Crop
5. The body of leech has
a) 23 segments b) 33 segments c) 38 segments d) 30 segments
6. Mammals are _______________ animals.
a) cold blooded b) warm blooded c) poikilothermic d) all the above
7. The animals, which give birth to young ones, are
a) Oviparous b) Viviparous c) Ovoviviparous d) All the above
Additional Question
8. According to the dental formula ________ kind of teeth is absent in rabbit. [PTA – 1]
a) molar b) per-molar c) incisor d) canine
1. The posterior sucker is formed by the fusion of the last seven segments.
2. The existence of two sets of teeth in the life of an animal is called diphyodont dentition.
3. The anterior end of leech has a lobe-like structure called anterior sucker.
4. The blood sucking habit of leech is known as sanguivorous. [PTA – 5]
5. Kidney separate nitrogenous waste from the blood in rabbit.
6. 37 pairs spinal nerves are present in rabbit.
III. True or False. (If false give the correct statement)
1. An anticoagulant present in saliva of leech is called heparin. [False]

* An anticoagulant present in saliva of leech is called hirudin.
2. The vas deferens serves to transport the ovum. [PTA – 6] [False]
* The vas deferens serves to transport the sperm.
3. Diastema is a gap between premolar and molar teeth in rabbit. [False]
* Diastema is a gap between incisors and premolar teeth in rabbit.
4. The cerebral hemispheres of rabbit are connected by band of nerve tissue called
[False]
corpora quandrigemina. [PTA – 6]
* The cerebral hemispheres of rabbit are connected by band of nerve tissue called corpus callosum.
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IV. Match columns I, II and III correctly [PTA – 2]
Answer : Organs Membranous Covering Location
1. Brain meninges cranial cavity
2. Kidney capsule abdominal cavity
3. Heart pericardium mediastinum
4. Lungs pleura enclosed in thoracic cavity
1. Give the common name of the Hirudinaria granulosa. Leech
2. How does leech respire? [PTA – 1] Through skin
3. Write the dental formula of rabbit. [MDL – 19] (I 2, C 0 , PM 3, M 3)
1 0 2 3
4. How many pairs of testes are present in leech? 11 pairs
5. How is diastema formed in rabbit? [PTA – 6] Canines are absent. This gap forms diastema.
6. What organs are attached to the two bronchi? Two lungs
7. Which organ acts as suction pump in leech? Pharynx
8. What does CNS stand for? Central Nervous System.
9. Why is the teeth of rabbit called heterodont? Because of its four types of teeth.
[PTA – 4]
10. How does leech suck blood from the host? Leech makes Y shaped incision and sucks
[PTA – 2] blood by muscular pharynx.
14. TRANSPORTATION IN PLANTS AND

CIRCULATION IN ANIMALS
1. Active transport involves
a) movement of molecules from lower to higher concentration b) expenditure of energy
c) it is an uphill task d) all of the above
2. Water which is absorbed by roots is transported to aerial parts of the plant through
a) cortex b) epidermis c) Phloem d) xylem
3. During transpiration there is loss of [AUG – 2022]
a) carbon dioxide b) oxygen c) water d) none of the above
4. Root hairs are [PTA – 4]
a) cortical cell b) projection of epidermal cell c) unicellular d) both b and c
5. Which of the following process requires energy? [PTA – 3]
a) active transport b) diffusion c) osmosis d) all of them
6. The wall of human heart is made of
a) Endocardium b) Epicardium c) Myocardium d) All of the above
7. Which is the correct sequence of blood flow
a) ventricle → atrium → vein → arteries b) atrium → ventricle → veins → arteries
c) atrium → ventricle → arteries → vein d) ventricles → vein → atrium → arteries
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One Marks 31
8. A patient with blood group O was injured in an accident and has blood loss. Which group of
blood should be used by doctor for transfusion? [MDL – 19]
a) O group b) AB group c) A or B group d) all blood group
9. 'Heart of heart ' is called
a) SA node b) AV node c) Purkinje fibres d) Bundle of His
10. Which one of the following shows correct composition of blood
a) Plasma - Blood + Lymphocyte b) Serum - Blood + Fibrinogen
c) Lymph - Plasma + RBC + WBC d) Blood - Plasma + RBC + WBC + Platelets
11. The heart of fishes possess ______ chambers. [AUG - 2022, MAY-2022]
a) 3 b) 4 c) 2 d) 5
12. The concept of blood group is derived by ____. [SEP - 2021]
a) Wiener b) Karl Landsteiner c) William Harvey d) His
13. Identify the conducting tissues by using the arrow marks, [PTA – 2]
a) A is phloem, B is xylem
b) A is xylem, B is phloem
c) Both A and B are xylem
d) Both A and B are phloem

1. Transpiration involves evaporative loss of water from aerial parts.
2. Water enters into the root hair cell through plasma (or) semi permeable membrane.
3. Parts of the root (or) structures in root that absorbs water from the soil is root hair. [PTA – 6]
4. Normal blood pressure is 120 mm Hg / 80 mm Hg.
5. The normal human heartbeat rate is about 72 – 75 times per minute.
Additional Question
6. William Harvey is the father of modern physiology. [SEP – 2020]
Section - I Column I Column II Answer

1. Symplastic pathway Leaf 1. Plasmodesmata
2. Transpiration Plasmodesmata 2. Leaf
3. Osmosis Pressure in xylem 3. Pressure gradient
4. Root Pressure Pressure gradient 4. Pressure in xylem
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Section - II Column I Column II Answer

1. Leukemia Thrombocytes 1. Blood Cancer
2. Platelets Phagocyte 2. Thrombocytes
3. Monocytes Decrease in leucocytes 3. Phagocyte
4. Leucopenia Blood Cancer 4. Decrease in leucocytes

5. Absence of antibody
5. AB blood group Allergic condition
6. Absence of antigen
6. O blood group Inflammation
7. Allergic condition
7. Eosinophil Absence of antigen
8. Inflammation
8. Neutrophils Absence of antibody
IV. State whether True or False. If false write the correct statement
1. The phloem is responsible for the translocation of food. [True]
2. Plants lose water by the process of transpiration. [True]
3. The form of sugar transported through the phloem is glucose. [False]
*The form of sugar transported through the phloem is sucrose.
4. In apoplastic movement the water travels through the cell membrane and enter the cell. [False]
*In symplastic movement the water travels through the cell membrane and enter the cell.
5. When guard cells lose water the stoma opens. [False]
* When guard cells lose water the stoma closes.
6. Initiation and stimulation of heart beat take place by nerves. [False]
*Initiation and stimulation of heartbeat take place by heart muscles(i.e) sino-atrial node.
7. All veins carry deoxygenated blood. [False]
* All veins except pulmonary vein carry deoxygenated blood.
8. WBC defend the body from bacterial and viral infections. [True]
9. The closure of the mitral and tricuspid valves at the start of the ventricular systole
produces the first sound ‘LUBB’. [True]
V. Answer in a word or sentence

1. Name two layered protective covering of human heart. Pericardium.
2. What is the shape of RBC in human blood? Biconcave and disc shaped.
3. Why is the colour of the blood red? [AUG – 2022] Due to respiratory pigment haemoglobin.
4. Which kind of cells are found in the lymph? WBC especially Lymphocytes.
5. Name the heart valve associated with the major arteries leaving the ventricles. Semilunar valves.
6. Mention the artery, which supplies blood to the heart muscle. Coronary arteries.
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One Marks 33
IX. Assertion and Reasoning

Direction: In each of the following questions, a statement of assertion (A) is given and a
corresponding statement of reason (R) is given just below it. Mark the correct statement as.
a) If both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A.
b) If both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true but R is false.
d) Both A and R are false.
1. Assertion (A): RBC plays an important role in the transport of respiratory gases.
Reason (R) : RBC do not have cell organelles and nucleus.
Ans. (a) Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A.
2. Assertion (A) : Persons with AB blood group are called an universal recipients, because
they can receive blood from all groups.
Reason (R) : Antibodies are absent in persons with AB blood group.
15. NERVOUS SYSTEM

1. Bipolar neurons are found in
a) retina of eye b) cerebral cortex c) embryo d) respiratory epithelium
2. Site for processing of vision, hearing, memory, speech, intelligence and thought is
a) kidney b) ear c) brain d) lungs
3. In reflex action, the reflex arc is formed by
a) brain, spinal cord, muscle b) receptor, muscle, spinal cord
c) muscle, receptor, brain d) receptor, spinal cord, muscle
4. Dendrites transmit impulse_______ cell body and axon transmit impulse _______cell body.
a) away from, away from b) towards, away from c) towards, towards d) away from, towards
5. The outer most of the three cranial meninges is
a) arachnoid membrane b) piamater c) duramater d) myelin sheath
6. There are ________ pairs of cranial nerves and ________pairs of spinal nerves.
a) 12, 31 b) 31, 12 c) 12, 13 d) 12, 21
7. The neurons which carries impulse from the central nervous system to the muscle fibre.
a) afferent neurons b) association neuron c) efferent neuron d) unipolar neuron
8. Which nervous band connects the two cerebral hemispheres of brain? [PTA – 5]
a) thalamus b) hypothalamus c) corpus callosum d) pons
9. Node of Ranvier is found in [SEP – 2020]
a) muscles b) axons c) dendrites d) cyton
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10. Vomiting centre is located in

a) medulla oblongata b) stomach c) cerebrum d) hypothalamus
11. Nerve cells do not possess a) neurilemma b) sarcolemma c) axon d) dendrites
12. A person who met with an accident lost control of body temperature, water balance, and hunger.
Which of the following part of brain is supposed to be damaged?
a) Medulla oblongata b) cerebrum c) pons d) hypothalamus
1. Neurons is the longest cell in our body.

2. Impulses travels rapidly in myelinated multipolar neurons.
3. A change in the environment that causes an animal to react is called stimulus.
4. Dendrites carries the impulse towards the cell body.
5. The two antagonistic component of autonomic nervous system are sympathetic and parasympathetic.
6. A neuron contains all cell organelles except centrioles.
7. Cerebrospinal fluid maintains the constant pressure inside the cranium.
8. Gyri and sulci increases the surface area of cerebrum.
9. The part of human brain, which acts as relay centre, is thalamus. [PTA – 1]
III. State whether true or false, if false write the correct statement
1. Dendrons are the longest fibres that conducts impulses away from the cell body. [False]
*Axons are the longest fibres that conducts impulses away from the cell body.
2. Sympathetic nervous system is a part of central nervous system. [PTA -3] [False]
*Sympathetic nervous system is a part of autonomic nervous system.
3. Hypothalamus is the thermoregulatory centre of human body. [True]
4. Cerebrum controls the voluntary actions of our body. [False]
*Cerebellum controls the voluntary actions of our body.
5. In the central nervous system, myelinated fibres form the white matter. [True]
6. All the nerves in the body are covered and protected by meninges. [PTA –3] [False]
*Brain and Spinal cord is covered and protected by meninges.
7. Cerebrospinal fluid provides nutrition to brain. [True]
8. Reflex arc allows the rapid response of the body to a stimulus. [True]
Note: Reflex Action allows the rapid response of the body to a stimulus.
9. Pons helps in regulating respiration. [True]
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One Marks 35

A) Nissil’s granules Forebrain A) Cyton
B) Hypothalamus Peripheral Nervous system B) Forebrain
C) Cerebellum Cyton C) Hindbrain
D) Schwann cell Hindbrain D) Peripheral Nervous system
V. Assertion and
Reason
Understand the assertion statement. Justify the reason given and choose the correct choice.
(a) Assertion is correct and reason is wrong (b) Reason is correct and the assertion is wrong
(c) Both assertion and reason are correct (d) Both assertion and reason are wrong.
1. Assertion : Cerebrospinal fluid is present throughout the central nervous system.
Reason : Cerebrospinal fluid has no such functions.
Ans. (a) Assertion is correct and reason is wrong.
2. Assertion : Corpus callosum is present in space between the duramater and piamater.
Reason : It serves to maintain the constant intracranial pressure.
Ans. (d) Both assertion and reason are wrong.
16. PLANT AND ANIMAL HORMONES

1. Gibberellins cause: a) Shortening of genetically tall plants b) Elongation of dwarf plants
c) Promotion of rooting d) Yellowing of young leaves
2. The hormone which has positive effect on apical dominance is:
a) Cytokinin b) Auxin c) Gibberellin d) Ethylene
3. Which one of the following hormones is naturally not found in plants: [AUG – 2022]
a) 2, 4-D b) GA 3 c) Gibberellin d) IAA
4. Avena coleoptile test was conducted by
a) Darwin b) N. Smit c) Paal d) F.W. Went
5. To increase the sugar production in sugarcanes they are sprayed with _______
a) Auxin b) Cytokinin c) Gibberellins d) Ethylene
Hint : Ethylene is concerned with maturation of fruits and increases the sucrose content.
Gibberellin elongates the stem increasing the yield. But, ethylene is more
appropriate as it is the gaseous hormone that has to be sprayed.
6. LH is secreted by
a) Adrenal gland b) Thyroid gland c) Anterior pituitary d) Hypothalamus
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7. Identify the exocrine gland [AUG – 2022]
a) Pituitary gland b) Adrenal gland c) Salivary gland d) Thyroid gland
8. Which organ acts as both exocrine gland as well as endocrine gland
a) Pancreas b) Kidney c) Liver d) Lungs
9. Which one is referred as “Master Gland”? [MAY - 2022, PTA – 2 ]
a) Pineal gland b) Pituitary gland c) Thyroid gland d) Adrenal gland
10. Pancreas acts as ________ gland. [PTA – 3]
a) exocrine b) endocrine c) both a and b d) flying
11. _________ is found abundantly in liquid endosperm of coconut. [SEP – 2020]
a) Auxin b) Cytokinin c) Gibberellins d) Ethylene
1. Auxins causes cell elongation, apical dominance and prevents abscission.
2. Ethylene is a gaseous hormone involved in abscission of organs and acceleration of fruit ripening.
3. Abscisic acid causes stomatal closure.
4. Gibberellins induce stem elongation in rosette plants.
5. The hormone which has negative effect on apical dominance is cytokinin.
6. Calcium metabolism of the body is controlled by parathormone.
7. In the islets of Langerhans, beta cells secrete insulin. [PTA – 6]
8. The growth and functions of thyroid gland is controlled by thyroid stimulating hormone.
9. Decreased secretion of thyroid hormones in the children leads to cretinism.
III. a) Match Column I with columns II and III
Answer: Column I Column II Column III
1. Auxin Coleoptile tip Apical dominance
2. Ethylene Fruits Ripening
3. Abscisic acid Chloroplast Abscission
4. Cytokinin Coconut milk Cell division
5. Gibberellins Gibberella fujikuroi Internodal elongation
III. b) Match the following hormones with their deficiency states
Hormones Disorders Answer

1. Thyroxine Acromegaly 1. Simple goitre
2. Insulin Tetany 2. Diabetes mellitus
3. Parathormone Simple goitre 3. Tetany
4. Growth hormone Diabetes insipidus 4. Acromegaly
5. ADH Diabetes mellitus 5. Diabetes insipidus
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One Marks 37

1. A plant hormone concerned with stimulation of cell division and promotion of
[True]
nutrient mobilization is cytokinin.
2. Gibberellins cause parthenocarpy in tomato. [True]
3. Ethylene retards senescence of leaves, flowers and fruits. [False]
*Ethylene hastens senescence of leaves, flowers and fruits.
4. Exophthalmic goitre is due to the over secretion of thyroxine. [True]
5. Pituitary gland is divided into four lobes. [False]
*Pituitary gland is divided into two lobes.
6. Estrogen is secreted by corpus luteum. [False]
*Estrogen is secreted by graffian follicle (OR) Progesterone is secreted by corpus luteum.
V. Assertion and Reasoning
Direction: In each of the following questions, a statement of assertion (A) is given and a
corresponding statement of reason (R) is given just below it. Mark the correct statement as.
a) If both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A c) A is true but R is false
b) If both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A d) Both A and R are false
1. Assertion (A): Application of cytokinin to marketed vegetables can keep them fresh for several days.
Reason (R): Cytokinins delay senescence of leaves and other organs by mobilisation of nutrients.
Ans. (a) Both A and R are true but R is correct explanation of A.
2. Assertion (A): Pituitary gland is referred as “Master gland”.
Reason (R): It controls the functioning of other endocrine glands.
3. Assertion (A): Diabetes mellitus increases the blood sugar levels.
Reason (R): Insulin decreases the blood sugar levels.
Ans. (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
VI. Answer in a word or sentence

1. Which hormone promotes the production of male flowers in cucurbits? Gibberellin
2. Write the name of a synthetic auxin. 2,4 D (2,4 Dichlorophenoxy acetic acid)
3. Which hormone induces parthenocarpy in tomatoes? Gibberellin
4. What is the hormone responsible for the secretion of milk in
Prolactin
female after childbirth?
5. Name the hormones, which regulates water and mineral Vasopressin, Aldosterone &
metabolism in man. [PTA – 5] Parathyroid
6. Which hormone is secreted during emergency situation in man? Adrenaline & Noradrenaline
7. Which gland secretes digestive enzymes and hormones? Pancreas
8. Name the endocrine glands associated with kidneys. Adrenal gland
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17. REPRODUCTION IN PLANTS AND

ANIMALS
1. The plant which propagates with the help of its leaves is ___________.
a) onion b) neem c) ginger d) bryophyllum
2. Asexual reproduction takes place through budding in ___________.
a) amoeba b) yeast c) plasmodium d) bacteria
3. Syngamy results in the formation of _________. [SEP – 2021]
a) zoospores b) conidia c) zygote d) chlamydospores
4. The essential parts of a flower are ___________.
a) calyx and corolla b) calyx and androecium
c) corolla and gynoecium d) androecium and gynoecium
5. Anemophilous flowers have __________.
a) sessile stigma b) small smooth stigma
c) colored flower d) large feathery stigma
6. Male gametes in angiosperms are formed by the division of ___________. [MAY - 2022]
a) generative cell b) vegetative cell c) microspore mother cell d) microspore
7. What is true of gametes?
a) They are diploid b) They give rise to gonads
c) They produce hormones d) They are formed from gonads
8. A single highly coiled tube where sperms are stored, get concentrated and mature is known as
a) Epididymis b) Vasa efferentia
c) Vas deferens d) Seminiferous tubules
9. The large elongated cells that provide nutrition to developing sperms are [SEP – 2021]
a) Primary germ cells b) Sertoli cells
c) Leydig cells d) Spermatogonia
10. Estrogen is secreted by
a) Anterior pituitary b) Primary follicle
c) Graffian follicle d) Corpus luteum
11. Which one of the following is an IUCD?
a) Copper – T b) Oral pills c) Diaphragm d) Tubectomy
12. _______ type of cell division occurs in generative cell of mature pollen grain [PTA – 1]
a) Mitosis b) Meiosis c) Amitosis d) both b and c
13. In humans, a male and a female gamete fuse and form the zygote. The condition of zygote is
________. [PTA – 4]
a) haploid b) diploid c) triploid d) tetraploid
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One Marks 39

1. The embryo sac in a typical dicot at the time of fertilization is seven cells and eighth nuclei.
2. After fertilization the ovary develops into fruit.
3. Planaria reproduces asexually by regeneration.
4. Fertilization is internal in humans.
5. The implantation of the embryo occurs at about 6th and 7th day of fertilization.
6. Colostrum is the first secretion from the mammary gland after childbirth.
7. Prolactin is a hormone produced by anterior pituitary gland.
III. (a) Match the following
Column 1 Column 2 Answer

1. Fission Spirogyra 1. Amoeba
2. Budding Amoeba 2. Yeast
3. Fragmentation Yeast 3. Spirogyra
III. (b)Match the following terms with their respective meanings

Column 1 Column 2 Answer
a) Parturition Duration between pregnancy and birth. a) Delivery of baby from uterus
b) Gestation Attachment of zygote to endometrium. b) Duration between pregnancy and birth
c) Release of egg from Graafian follicle
c) Ovulation Delivery of baby from uterus.
d) Attachment of zygote to endometrium
d) Implantation Release of egg from Graafian follicle.
IV. True or False. (If false give the correct statement)

1. Stalk of the ovule is called pedicle. [False]
*Stalk of the ovule is called funiculus.
2. Seeds are the product of asexual reproduction. [False]
*Seeds are the product of sexual reproduction.
3. Yeast reproduces asexually by means of multiple fission. [False]
*Yeast reproduces vegetatively by means of budding.
4. The part of the pistil which serves as a receptive structure for the pollen is called as style. [False]
*The part of the pistil which serves as a receptive structure for the pollen is called as stigma.
5. Insect pollinated flowers are characterized by dry and smooth pollen. [False]
*Wind pollinated flowers are characterized by dry and smooth pollen.
6. Sex organs produce gametes which are diploid. [False]
*Sex organs produce gametes which are haploid.
7. LH is secreted by the posterior pituitary. [False]
*LH is secreted by the anterior pituitary.
8. Menstrual cycle ceases during pregnancy. [True]
9. Surgical methods of contraception prevent gamete formation. [False]
*Surgical methods of contraception prevent the release of gamete.
10. The increased level of estrogen and progesterone is responsible for menstruation. [False]
*The decreased level of estrogen and progesterone is responsible for menstruation.
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1. If one pollen grain produces two male gametes, how many pollen
10 pollen grains
grains are needed to fertilize 10 ovules?
2. In which part of the flower germination of pollen grains takes place? Stigma
3. Name two organisms which reproduces through budding. Yeast, Hydra
4. Mention the function of endosperm. It provides food to embryos.
5. Name the hormone responsible for the vigorous contractions of the
Oxytocin
uterine muscles.
6. What is the enzyme present in acrosome of sperm? Hyaluronidase
7. When is World Menstrual Hygiene Day observed? May 28th
8. What is the need for contraception? It reduces population explosion.
9. Name the part of the human female reproductive system where the following occurs.
a) Fertilization : Fallopian tube or ampulla b) Implantation : Uterine wall
18. GENETICS
1. According to Mendel alleles have the following character
a) Pair of genes b) Responsible for character
c) Production of gametes d) Recessive factors
2. 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 ratio is due to
a) Segregation b) Crossing over
c) Independent assortment d) Recessiveness
3. The region of the chromosome where the spindle fibres get attached during cell division
a) Chromomere b) Centrosome c) Centromere d) Chromonema
4. The centromere is found at the centre of the_____________ chromosome.
a) Telocentric b) Metacentric c) Sub-metacentric d) Acrocentric
5. The __________ units form the backbone of the DNA.
a) 5 carbon sugar b) Phosphate c) Nitrogenous bases d) Sugar phosphate
6. Okasaki fragments are joined together by______________.
a) Helicase b) DNA polymerase c) RNA primer d) DNA ligase
7. The number of chromosomes found in human beings are ______________.
a) 22 pairs of autosomes and 1 pair of allosomes b) 22 autosomes and 1 allosome
c) 46 autosomes d) 46 pairs autosomes and 1 pair of allosomes
8. The loss of one or more chromosome in a ploidy is called ___________.
a) Tetraploidy b) Aneuploidy c) Euploidy d) polyploidy
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One Marks 41
9. The term chromosome was first coined by [MAY-2022]

a) Mendel b) Waldeyer c) Reginald punnet d) T.H.Morgan
10. The formation of nucleolus in the nucleus is by [PTA – 2]
a) secondary constriction b) primary constriction
c) telomere d) locus
11. Identify Dihybrid Phenotypic ratio [PTA – 3]
a) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 b) 9 : 1 : 3 : 1 c) 9 : 1 : 3 : 3 d) 1 : 2 : 1
12. In metacentric chromosome, the position of centromere is [PTA – 5]
a) the proximal end b) distal end c) the centre d) near the end
13. Find the correct pair. [SEP – 2020]
a) Acrocentric - The centromere is found near the centre of the chromosome with
two unequal arms.
b) Submetacentric - The centromere is found on the proximal end.
c) Metacentric - The centromere occurs in the centre of the chromosome and forms
two equal arms.
d) Telocentric - The centromere is found at one end with a short arm and a long arm.
1. The pairs of contrasting character (traits) of Mendel are called alleles (or) allelomorphs.
2. Physical expression of a gene is called phenotype.
3. The thin thread like structures found in the nucleus of each cell are called chromosomes.
4. DNA consists of two polynucleotide chains.
5. An inheritable change in the amount or the structure of a gene or a chromosome is called
mutation.
6. In DNA replication, the enzyme that separates the two strands of DNA is helicase. [PTA – 1]
7. Enzyme that removes the twists formed during the unwinding process of DNA is
topoisomerase. [PTA – 1]
8. Nucleotides are added with the help of an enzyme called DNA Polymerase. [PTA – 1]
9. The DNA fragments are joined together by the enzyme DNA ligases. [PTA – 1]
10. The replication stops when the replication fork of the two sides meet at a site called terminus.
[PTA – 1
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III. True or False: (if false give the correct statement)

1. A typical Mendelian dihybrid ratio of F2 generation is 3:1. [False]
*A typical Mendelian monohybrid ratio of F2 generation is 3:1.
2. A recessive factor is altered by the presence of a dominant factor. [False]

*A recessive factor is masked by the presence of a dominant factor.
3. Each gamete has only one allele of a gene. [True]

4. Hybrid is an offspring from a cross between genetically different parent. [True]
5. Some of the chromosomes have an elongated knob-like appendages known as telomere. [False]
*Some of the chromosomes have an elongated knob-like appendages known as satellite.
6. New nucleotides are added and new complementary strand of DNA is formed with the
[True]
help of enzyme DNA polymerase.
7. Down’s syndrome is the genetic condition with 45 chromosomes. [False]
*Down’s syndrome is the genetic condition with 47 chromosomes (23 pairs(46) +1 extra chromosome).

1. Autosomes Trisomy 21 1. 22 pair of chromosome
2. Diploid condition 9:3:3:1 2. 2n
3. Allosome 22 pair of chromosome 3. 23rd pair of chromosome

4. Trisomy 21
4. Down's syndrome 2n
5. 9:3:3:1
5. Dihybrid ratio 23rd pair of chromosome
1. What is a cross in which inheritance of two pairs of contrasting

Dihybrid cross
characters are studied?
2. Name the condition when both the alleles are identical? Homozygous condition.
3. A garden pea plant produces axial white flowers. Another of
the same species produced terminal violet flowers. Identify the axial white flowers
dominant trait.
4. What is the name given to the segments of DNA, which are
Genes
responsible for the inheritance of a particular character?
5. Name the bond which binds the nucleotides in a DNA. Phosphodiester bonds
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One Marks 43
19.ORIGIN AND EVOLUTION OF LIFE

1. Biogenetic law states that ______________. [QR]
a) Ontogeny and phylogeny go together b) Ontogeny recapitulates phylogeny
c) Phylogeny recapitulates ontogeny d) There is no relationship between phylogeny & ontogeny
2. The ‘use and disuse theory’ was proposed by ______________.
a) Charles Darwin b) Ernst Haeckel c) Jean Baptiste Lamarck d) Gregor Mendel
3. Paleontologists deal with
a) Embryological evidences b) Fossil evidences
c) Vestigial organ evidences d) All the above
4. The best way of direct dating fossils of recent origin is by [PTA – 1]
a) Radio-carbon method b) Uranium lead method
c) Potassium-argon method d) Both (a) and (c)
5. The term Ethnobotany was coined by [MAY-2022]
a) Khorana b) J.W. Harshberger c) Ronald Ross d) Hugo de Vries
6. Life originates from pre-existing life was showed by: [SEP – 2021]
a) Louis Pasteur b) Oparin c) Haldane d) Lamarck
7. The organism considered to be the fossil bird is _______. [PTA – 4]
a) Ginko biloba b) Archaeopteryx c) Paleozoic fern d) Indian Gondwana

1. The characters developed by the animals during their life time, in response to the environmental
changes are called acquired characters (adaptations).
2. The degenerated and non-functional organs found in an organism are called vestigial organs.
3. The forelimbs of bat and human are examples of homologous organs. [QR]
4. The theory of natural selection for evolution was proposed by Charles Darwin. [PTA – 6]
III. State True or False. Correct the false statements

1. The use and disuse theory of organs was postulated by Charles Darwin. [PTA – 5] [False]
*The use and disuse theory of organs was postulated by Jean Baptiste Lamarck.
2. The homologous organs look similar and perform similar functions but they have
[False]
different origin and developmental pattern.
* The analogous organs look similar and perform similar functions but they have different
origin and developmental pattern.
3. Birds have evolved from reptiles. [PTA – 5] [True]
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[PTA – 5]
Column A Column B Answer

1. Atavism Caudal vertebrae and vermiform appendix 1. Rudimentary tail and thick hair on the body
2. Vestigial organs A forelimb of a cat and a bat's wing 2. Caudal vertebrae and vermiform appendix
3. A wing of a bat and awing of an insect
3. Analogous organs Rudimentary tail and thick hair on the body
4. A forelimb of a cat and a bat's wing
4. Homologous organs A wing of a bat and awing of an insect
5. Thiruvakkarai
5. Wood park Radiocarbon dating 6. Radiocarbon dating
6. W.F. Libby Thiruvakkarai
1. A human hand, a front leg of a cat, a front flipper of a whale and a

bat’s wing look dissimilar and adapted for different functions. What Homologous organs
is the name given to these organs?
2. Which organism is considered to be the fossil bird? Archaeopteryx
3. What is the study of fossils called? Palaeontology
20.BREEDING AND BIOTECHNOLOGY

1. Which method of crop improvement can be practiced by a farmer if he is inexperienced?
a) clonal selection b) mass selection c) pureline selection d) hybridisation
2. Pusa Komal is a disease resistant variety of_________. [SEP – 2021]
a) sugarcane b) rice c) cowpea d) maize
3. Himgiri developed by hybridisation and selection for disease resistance against rust pathogens
is a variety of __________. [MAY - 2022]
a) chilli b) maize c) sugarcane d) wheat
4. The miracle rice which saved millions of lives and celebrated its 50th birthday is_______.
a) IR 8 b) IR 24 c) atomita 2 d) ponni
5. Which of the following is used to produce products useful to humans by biotechnology techniques?
a) enzyme from organism b) live organism c) Vitamins d) both (a) and (b)
6. We can cut the DNA with the help of [SEP – 2020, PTA – 2]
a) scissors b) restriction endonucleases c) knife d) RNAase
7. rDNA is a a) vector DNA b) circular DNA
c) recombinant of vector DNA and desired DNA d) satellite DNA
8. DNA fingerprinting is based on the principle of identifying ______sequences of DNA. [PTA – 5]
a) single stranded b) mutated c) polymorphic d) repetitive
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One Marks 45
9. Organisms with modified endogenous gene or a foreign gene are also known as
a) transgenic organisms b) genetically modified c) mutated d) both a and b
10. In a hexaploid wheat (2n = 6x = 42) the haploid (n) and the basic (x) number of chromosomes
respectively are
a) n = 7 and x = 21 b) n = 21 and x = 21 c) n = 7 and x = 7 d) n = 21 and x = 7

1. Economically important crop plants with superior quality are raised by plant breeding.
2. A protein rich wheat variety is atlas 66.
3. Colchicine is the chemical used for doubling the chromosomes.
4. The scientific process which, produces crop plants enriched with desirable nutrients is called biofortification.
5. Rice normally grows well in alluvial soil, but atomita 2 is a rice variety produced by mutation
breeding that grows well in saline soil. [SEP – 2021]
6. Genetic engineering/rDNA technique made it possible to genetically engineer living organism.
7. Restriction endonucleases cut the DNA molecule at specific positions known as restriction sites.
8. Similar DNA fingerprinting is obtained for identical twins.
9. Stem cells are undifferentiated mass of cells.
10. In gene cloning the DNA of interest is integrated in a suitable vector (Plasmid).
III. True or False: (if false give the correct statement)
1. Raphano brassica is a man-made tetraploid produced by colchicine treatment. [True]

2. The process of producing an organism with more than two sets of chromosome is
[False]
called mutation.
*Process of producing an organism with more than two sets of chromosome is called
polyploidy breeding.
3. A group of plants produced from a single plant through vegetative or asexual
[False]
reproduction are called a pureline.
*Group of plants from single plant through vegetative/asexual reproduction are called clones.
4. Iron fortified rice variety determines the protein quality of the cultivated plant. [False]
*Iron fortified rice variety determines the iron quality of the cultivated plant.
5. Golden rice is a hybrid. [False]
*Golden rice is a genetically modified rice.
6. Bt gene from bacteria can kill insects. [True]
7. In vitro fertilisation means the fertilisation done inside the body. [False]
*In vitro fertilisation means the fertilisation done outside the body.
8. DNA fingerprinting technique was developed by Alec Jeffrey. [True]
9. Molecular scissors refers to DNA ligases. [False]
*Molecular scissors refers to restriction enzymes.
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Column A Column B Answer
1. Sonalika Phaseolus mungo 1. Semi - dwarf wheat
2. IR 8 Sugarcane 2. Semi - dwarf Rice
3. Saccharum Semi - dwarf wheat 3. Sugarcane
4. Phaseolus mungo
4. Mung No. 1 Ground nut
5. Ground nut
5. TMV - 2 Semi - dwarf Rice 6. First hormone produced
6. Insulin Bacillus thuringienesis using rDNA technique
7. Bt toxin Beta carotene 7. Bacillus thuringienesis
First hormone produced 8. Beta carotene
8. Golden rice
using rDNA technique
V. Assertion and Reason
a) Assertion is correct and reason is wrong. b) Reason is correct and the assertion is wrong.
c) Both assertion and reason is correct. d) Both assertion and reason is wrong.
1. Assertion : Hybrid is superior than either of its parents.
Reason : Hybrid vigour is lost upon inbreeding.
Ans. (a) Assertion is correct and reason is wrong.
2. Assertion : Colchicine reduces the chromosome number. [PTA – 3]
Reason : It promotes the movement of sister chromatids to the opposite poles.
Ans. (d) Both assertion and reason is wrong.
3. Assertion : rDNA is superior over hybridisation techniques. [PTA – 4]
Reason : Desired genes are inserted without introducing the undesirable genes in target organisms.
Ans. (c) Both assertion and reason is correct.
VI. Answer in a sentence

1. Give the name of wheat variety having higher dietary fibre and protein.
Triticale.
2. Semi - dwarf varieties were introduced in rice. This was made possible by the presence of
dwarfing gene in rice. Name this dwarfing gene.
Dee-geo-woo-gene (DGWG)
3. Define genetic engineering.
Genetic engineering is the manipulation and transfer of genes from one organism to another
organism to create a new DNA called recombinant DNA (rDNA).
4. Name the types of stem cells. [PTA – 2]
i) Embryonic stem cells ii) Adult / somatic stem cell
5. What are transgenic organisms? [PTA – 6]
Plants/animals expressing modified endogenous gene / foreign gene is called transgenic organism.
6. State the importance of biofertiliser.
 High yield, Cheaper and ecofriendly.
 Reduce soil pollution.
 Increase soil fertility.
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One Marks 47
21. HEALTH AND DISEASES

1. Tobacco consumption is known to stimulate secretion of adrenaline. The component causing

this could be
a) Nicotine b) Tannic acid c) Curcumin d) Leptin
2. World 'No Tobacco Day' is observed on [AUG – 2022, PTA – 1]
a) May 31 b) June 6 c) April 22 d) October 2
3. Cancer cells are more easily damaged by radiations than normal cells because they are
a) Different in structure b) Non-dividing c) Mutated Cells d) Undergoing rapid division
4. Which type of cancer affects lymph nodes and spleen?
a) Carcinoma b) Sarcoma c) Leukemia d) Lymphoma
5. Excessive consumption of alcohol leads to [MDL – 19]
a) Loss of memory b) Cirrhosis of liver c) State of hallucination d) Suppression of brain function
6. Coronary heart disease is due to
a) Streptococci bacteria b) Inflammation of pericardium
c) Weakening of heart valves d) Insufficient blood supply to heart muscles
7. Cancer of the epithelial cells is called [PTA - 6]
a) Leukemia b) Sarcoma c) Carcinoma d) Lipoma
8. Metastasis is associated with
a) Malignant tumour b) Benign tumour c) Both (a) and (b) d) Crown gall tumour
9. Polyphagia is a condition seen in
a) Obesity b) Diabetes mellitus c) Diabetes insipidus d) AIDs
10. Where does alcohol effect immediately after drinking?
a) Eyes b) Auditory region c) Liver d) Central Nervous System
Additional Question
11. Select the odd one from the following about Diabetes mellitus. [PTA – 3]
a) Prevalence 10% - 20% b) Juvenile onset c) Underweight d) Obese
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II. State whether true or false, if false write the correct statement
1. AIDS is an epidemic disease. [False]

*AIDS is an pandemic disease.
2. Cancer causing genes are called Oncogenes. [True]
3. Obesity is characterized by tumour formation. [False]
*Cancer is characterized by tumour formation.
4. In leukemia both WBCs and RBCs increase in number. [False]
*In leukemia, only WBCs increase in number.
5. Study of cause of disease is called etiology. [True]
6. AIDS is not transmitted by contact with a patient’s clothes. [True]
7. Type 2 diabetes mellitus results due to insulin deficiency. [False]
*Type 1 diabetes mellitus results due to insulin deficiency.
8. Carcinogens are cancer causing agents. [True]
9. Nicotine is a narcotic drug. [False]
*Nicotine is a stimulant (or) addictive drug.
10. Cirrhosis is associated with brain disorder. [False]
*Cirrhosis is associated with liver damage.
III. Expand the following abbreviations
1. IDDM → Insulin Dependent Diabetes Mellitus 4. AIDS → Acquired Immuno Deficiency Syndrome
2. HIV → Human Immuno deficiency Virus 5. CHD → Coronary Heart Disease
3. BMI → Body Mass Index 6. NIDDM→ Non-InsulinDependentDiabetesMellitus

1. Sarcoma Stomach cancer 1. Connective tissue cancer
2. Carcinoma Excessive thirst 2. Stomach cancer
3. Polydipsia Excessive hunger 3. Excessive thirst
4. Polyphagia Lack of blood flow to heart muscle 4. Excessive hunger
5. Lack of blood flow to
5. Myocardial Infarction Connective tissue cancer heart muscle
V. Fill in the blanks

1. Cirrhosis is caused in liver due to excessive use of alcohol.
2. A highly poisonous chemicals derived from tobacco is nicotine.
3. Blood cancer is called leukaemia. [PTA – 4]
4. Less response of a drug to a specific dose with repeated use is called drug tolerance.
5. Insulin resistance is a condition in non – insulin dependent (or) Type – 2 diabetes mellitus.
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One Marks 49
VI. Analogy type questions

Identify the first words and their relationship and suggest a suitable word for the fourth blank.
1. Communicable : AIDS ∷ Non communicable : Cancer
2. Chemotherapy : Chemicals ∷ Radiation therapy : Radiations
3. Hypertension : Hypercholesterolomia ∷ Glycosuria : Hyperglycemia
VII. Answer in a sentence

1. What are psychotropic drugs? [PTA – 2]
Psychotropic drugs acts on brain and alter behaviour, consciousness, thinking power, perception.
2. Mention the diseases caused by tobacco smoke.
 Lung and Oral cancer  Heart diseases  Hypoxia
 Bronchitis & tuberculosis  Emphysema  Ulcers
3. What are the contributing factors for Obesity? [AUG – 2022, SEP – 2021, PTA – 5]
 Genetic factors  Physical inactivity  Eating habits  Endocrine factors
4. What is adult onset diabetes?
Insulin production is normal but target cells do not respond to insulin. This type of diabetes
is called adult onset diabetes (or) Type - 2 Non-Insulin dependent diabetes Mellitus.
5. What is metastasis?
Metastasis is the process of migration of cancerous cells to distant parts and affect new tissues.
6. How does insulin deficiency occur?
Insulin deficiency occurs by the destruction of 𝛽 cells of pancreas.
XII. Assertion and Reasoning
In each of the following questions, a statement of Assertion is given and a corresponding statement
of Reason is given just below it. Of statements given below mark the correct answer as
a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion
b) If both Assertion and Reason are true that Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion
c) Assertion is true but Reason is false. d) Both Assertion and Reason are false.
1. Assertion : All drugs act on the brain.
Reason : Drugs disturb the functioning of the body and mind.
Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of
Ans (a)
Assertion.
2. Assertion : Excretion of excess glucose in urine is observed in a person with diabetes mellitus.
Reason : Pancreas is unable to produce sufficient quantity of insulin.
Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of
Ans (a)
Assertion.
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22. ENVIRONMENTAL MANAGEMENT

I. Fill in the blanks
1. Deforestation leads to decrease in rainfall.
2. Removal of soil particles from the land is called soil erosion.
3. Chipko movement is initiated against the cutting down of trees (deforestation).
4. The Nilgiris is a biosphere reserve in Tamilnadu.
5. Tidal energy is non-conventional (or) renewable type of energy.
6. Coal, petroleum and natural gas are called fossil fuels.
7. Coal is the most commonly used fuel for the production of electricity.
II. True or False. (If false write the correct statements)
1. Biogas is a fossil fuel. [False]

* Biogas is not a fossil fuel.
2. Planting trees increases the groundwater level. [True]
3. Habitat destruction cause loss of wild life. [True]
4. Nuclear energy is a renewable energy. [False]
*Nuclear energy is a non renewable energy.
5. Overgrazing prevents soil erosion. [False]
*Soil erosion occurs due to overgrazing.
6. Poaching of wild animals is a legal act. [False]
*Poaching of wild animals is illegal.
7. National park is a protected park. [True]
8. Wild life protection act was established in 1972. [True]

1. Soil erosion Energy saving 1. Removal of vegetation
2. Bio gas Acid rain 2. CO2
3. Natural gas Removal of vegetation 3. Non - renewable energy
4. Acid rain
4. Green house gas Renewable energy
5. Energy saving
5. CFL bulbs CO2
6. Renewable energy
6. Wind Non - renewable energy 7. Lead and heavy metals
7. Solid waste Lead and heavy metals
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One Marks 51
IV. Choose the correct answer

1. Which of the following is / are a fossil fuel? i. Tar ii. Coal iii. Petroleum
a) i only b) i and ii c) ii and iii d) i, ii and iii [AUG – 2022, PTA – 5]
2. What are the steps will you adopt for better waste management?
a) reduce the amount of waste formed b) reuse the waste c) recycle the waste d) all of the above
3. The gas released from vehicles exhaust are
i. Carbon monoxide ii. Sulphur dioxide iii. Oxides of nitrogen
a) i and ii b) i and iii c) ii and iii d) i, ii and iii
4. Soil erosion can be prevented by
a) deforestation b) afforestation c) over growing d) removal of vegetation
5. A renewable source of energy is
a) petroleum b) coal c) nuclear fuel d) trees
6. Soil erosion is more where there is
a) no rain fall b) low rainfall c) rain fall is high d) none of these
7. An inexhaustible resources is
a) wind power b) soil fertility c) wild life d) all of the above
8. Common energy source in village is
a) electricity b) coal c) bio gas d) wood and animal dung
9. Green house effect refers to a) cooling of Earth b) trapping of UV rays
c) cultivation of plants d) warming of Earth
10. A cheap, conventional, commercial and inexhaustible source of energy is [PTA – 2]
a) hydropower b) solar energy c) wind energy d) thermal energy
Note: hydropower and solar energy can also be the answer
11. Global warming will cause a) raise in level of oceans b) melting of glaciers
c) sinking of islands d) all of these
12. Which of the following statement is wrong with respect to wind energy
a) Wind energy is a renewable energy
b) The blades of wind mill are operated with the help of electric motor
c) Production of wind energy is pollution free
d) Usage of wind energy can reduce the consumption of fossil fuels
13. Match the following. 1. Solar Energy - (i) Flowing water [MAY – 2022]
2. Petroleum - (ii) Mobile phone
3. Hydropower - (iii) Inexhaustible energy
4. Electric device - (iv) Exhaustible energy
a) 1-iv, 2-iii, 3-ii, 4-I b) 1-iii, 2-iv, 3-i, 4-ii c) 1-iii, 2-i, 3-iv, 4-ii d) 1-i, 2-iv, 3-ii, 4-iii
14. Match the following. 1. Polyvinyl chloride - (i) Affects brain development in children
2. Cadmium - (ii) Affects the growth of reproductive system
3. Lead - (iii) Brain and respiratory system
4. Chromium - (iv) Neural damage [SEP – 2020]
5. Mercury - (v) Asthmatic bronchitis
a) 1-v, 2-iii, 3-iv, 4-ii, 5-i b) 1-ii, 2-i, 3-v, 4-iv, 5-iii
c) 1-iii, 2-ii, 3-iv, 4-i, 5-v d) 1-ii, 2–iv, 3-i, 4-v, 5-iii
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15. Soft finely stratified sedimentary rock refers to [MDL – 19]
a) shale b) petroleum c) methane d) coal
16. The energy obtained from the movement of water due to ocean tides is ______. [PTA – 6]
a) tidal energy b) wind energy c) solar energy d) water energy
1. What will happen if trees are cut down?
Ecological problems like floods, drought, soil erosion, etc., will arise if trees are cut down.
2. What would happen if the habitat of wild animals is disturbed?
If habitat of wild animals is disturbed, they move to other places in search of food & shelter.
During this, they get killed by other animals and become extinct. They also attack human.
3. What are the agents of soil erosion? [PTA – 2]
 Air currents  Landslide  Flowing water
 High velocity of wind  Overgrazing  Human activities like deforestation, etc,.
4. Why fossil fuels are to be conserved? [AUG – 2022, PTA – 4]
Formation of fossil fuels is a very slow process. It takes very long time for renewal. They
can get exhausted if we continue using them at a rapid rate.
5. Solar energy is a renewable energy. How?
Solar energy is a renewable energy because it is available in unlimited amount in nature.
6. How are e-wastes generated? [SEP – 2021, PTA – 6]
E-wastes/electronic wastes are spoiled, outdated, non-repairable electrical & electronic devices.
VIII. Assertion and Reasoning
In each of the following question a statement of assertion (A) is given and a

corresponding statement of reason (R). Of the four statements given below mark,
the correct answer.
a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is correct explanation of assertion.
b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
d) Both assertion and reason are false.
1. Assertion : Rainwater harvesting is to collect and store rainwater.
Reason : Rainwater can be directed to recharge the underground water source.
Ans. (a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is correct explanation of assertion.
2. Assertion : Energy efficient bulbs like CFL must be used to save electric energy.
Reason : CFL bulbs are costlier than ordinary bulbs, hence using ordinary bulbs can save
our money.
Ans. (c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
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One Marks 53
23. VISUAL COMMUNICATION

1. Which software is used to create animation? a) Paint b) PDF c) MS Word d) Scratch [PTA – 3]
2. All files are stored in the __________. a) Folder b) box c) Pai d) scanner [MDL – 19]
3. Which is used to build scripts? a) Script area b) Block palette c) stage d) sprite [PTA – 1]
4. Which is used to edit programs? a) Inkscape b) script editor c) stage d) sprite [PTA – 2]
5. Where you will create category of blocks? a) Block palette b) Block menu c) Script area d) Sprite
6. In computer, ________ is used to collect the notes. [PTA – 4]
a) notepad b) paint c) scanner d) scratch
7. More people are using _____ and ________ operating systems in their computers. [PTA – 5]
a) Mac, Amiga b) Solaris, iOS c) Windows, LINUX d) Android, Minix 3
8. The application in a computer created any output is generally referred as _______. [PTA – 6]
a) command b) folder c) file d) paint
II. Match the

following
Column - I Column - II Answer
1. Script Area Type notes 8. Build scripts
2. Folder Animation software 9. Store files
3. Scratch Edit programs 10. Animation
4. Costume editor Store files software
11. Edit programs
5. Notepad Build Scripts
12. Type notes
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Two Marks 1
Two MARKS
1. Define inertia. Give its classification. [AUG - 2022]
The inherent property of a body to resist any change in its state (rest or motion), unless it
is influenced by an external unbalanced force is called inertia.
Classification of Inertia :
 Inertia of rest  Inertia of motion  Inertia of direction
2. Classify the types of force based on their application. [AUG - 2022]
Types of Forces:
(i) Like parallel force (ii) Unlike parallel force
3. If a 5 N and a 15 N forces are acting opposite to one another. Find the resultant force and
the direction of action of the resultant force.
Given , 𝐹1 = 5𝑁 𝐹2 = 15 𝑁
𝐹𝑛𝑒𝑡 = 𝐹2 − 𝐹1 = 15 − 5 = 10 𝑁.
∴ Magnitude is 10 N and direction is along 15 N force.
4. Differentiate mass and weight. [MAY - 2022]
Mass Weight
1. It measures the quantity of matter. 1. It measures the gravitational force on a body.
2. SI unit is Kilogram (Kg). 2. SI unit is Newton (N).
3. Fundamental quantity. 3. Derived quantity.
4. Scalar quantity. 4. Vector quantity.
5. Define moment of a couple.
It is the product of any one of the forces and the perpendicular distance between the line of
action of two forces. Its SI unit is Nm.
𝐌= 𝐅 × 𝐒
6. State the principle of moments.
At equilibrium, the algebraic sum of the moments of all the individual forces about any point
is equal to zero.
Moment of clockwise direction = Moment of anticlockwise direction
7. State Newton’s second law. [MDL – 19, MAY - 2022]
The force acting on a body is directly proportional to the rate of change of linear momentum
of the body and the change in momentum takes place in the direction of the force.
𝐅 = 𝒎𝒂
8. Why a spanner with a long handle is preferred to tighten screws in heavy vehicles?
 The turning effect is more when the distance between line of action and axis of rotation is more.
 Hence, the spanner has a long handle is preferred to tighten screws in heavy vehicles.
9. While catching a cricket ball the fielder lowers his hands backwards. Why?
 To increase the time of contact.
 To reduce the impulse and the pain.
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10. How does an astronaut float in a space shuttle?
 Astronauts are not floating but falling freely around the Earth due to their huge orbital velocity.
 Since space station and astronauts have equal acceleration, they are under free fall condition.
11. Shock absorbers are used in luxury buses. Why? [PTA – 2]
Shock absorbers are used in luxury buses for the comfort purpose. Because, they absorb or
damp the shocks or unwanted oscillations of the bus due to damaged roads.
12. Illustrate some examples of Newton's third law of motion. [PTA – 2]
i) Action : When birds fly, they push the air downwards with their wings.
Reaction : The air pushes the birds upwards.
ii) Action : When a person swims, he pushes the water using the hands backwards.
Reaction : The water pushes the swimmer in the forward direction.
iii) Action : When we fire a bullet, the gun recoils backward and the bullet is moving forward.
Reaction : The gun equalizes this forward action by moving backward.
13. Why the apples weigh more at poles than at equator? [PTA – 3]
 Weight depends on the acceleration due to gravity of the Earth(g). The acceleration due to
gravity is more at poles than at equator.
 So, the apples weigh more at poles than at equator.
1. What is refractive index? 2. State Snell’s law (or) State Second law of refraction.
The ratio of speed of light in The ratio of the sine of the angle of incidence and
vacuum to the speed of light in a sine of the angle of refraction is equal to the ratio of
medium is refractive index.
refractive indices of the two media. [AUG - 2022]
𝐜
𝛍= 𝐬𝐢𝐧 𝐢 𝛍𝟐
𝐯 =
𝐬𝐢𝐧 𝐫 𝛍𝟏
3. Draw a ray diagram to show the 4. Define dispersion of light.
image formed by a convex lens
Refraction of white light or composite light into
when the object is placed between
F and 2F. [MDL – 19] its component colours when passed through any
transparent media is called dispersion of light.
5. State Rayleigh’s law of scattering. [PTA-3]
The amount of scattering of light is inversely
proportional to the fourth power of its wavelength.
𝟏
S∝ 𝛌𝟒
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Two Marks 3
6. Differentiate convex lens and concave lens. [PTA-3]
Convex lens Concave lens

1. Thicker in the middle. 1. Thinner in the middle.
2. Converging lens. 2. Diverging lens.
3. Produces real images mostly. 3. Produces only virtual images.
4. Used to treat Hypermetropia. 4. Used to treat myopia.
7. What is power of accommodation of eye?

It is the ability of the eye lens to focus nearby as well as the distant objects by changing the
focal length of eye lens with the help of ciliary muscles.
8. What are the causes of ‘Myopia’? [MDL – 19]
 It occurs due to the lengthening of eye ball.
 The focal length of eye lens is reduced or the distance between eye lens and retina increases.
 The image of distant objects are formed before retina.
9. Why does the sky appear in blue colour? [PTA – 1]
By Reyleigh’s law of scattering blue colour of sunlight scatters the most by the atmosphere.
Thus, the sky appears blue in colour.
10. Why are traffic signals red in colour? [PTA – 4]

Red light has longest wavelength and scatters less. Thus it travels longer and hence it is used
in traffic signals to stop the vehicle.
11. Write any two applications or uses of concave lens. [SEP – 2021]
 Used as eye lens of ‘Galilean Telescope’
 Used to correct myopia.
12. Complete the ray diagram of a concave lens. [PTA – 6]
Question Answer
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IX. Higher order thinking (HOT) questions
1. While doing an experiment for the determination of focal length of a convex lens, Raja suddenly
dropped the lens. It got broken into two halves along the axis. If he continues his experiment with
the same lens, (a) can he get the image? (b) Is there any change in the focal length?
a) Yes. He got the image. But, with less intensity.
b) No. There is no change in the focal length, because it is cut along the axis.
2. The eyes of the nocturnal birds like owl are having a large cornea and a large pupil. How
does it help them? (or) How owls could see at night?
 Nocturnal birds are the birds that are active at night. Ex : Owl
 Large cornea and large pupil, increases the amount of light entering into its eyes.
 Thus, it helps them to see clearly in dim light.
Additional Question
3. A Student in a classroom can read textbook but he/ she cannot see the letters on the black board
distinctly. What is his/ her eye defect? Mention its cause and suggest a remedy. [PTA–1]
 His / Her eye defect is Myopia or short sightedness.
 It occurs due to the lengthening of eyeball.
 It can be corrected using a concave lens.
1. Define one calorie. [AUG – 2022, MDL – 19]

One calories is the amount of heat energy required to rise the temperature of 1 gram of water
through 1℃.
2. Distinguish between linear, areal (or) superficial expansion.
Linear Expansion Areal / Superficial Expansion

1) When a body is heated or cooled, the 1) When a body is heated or cooled, the area
length of the body changes. of the body changes.
∆𝐿 ∆𝐴
2) Coefficient of linear expansion, 𝛼𝐿 = 2) Coefficient of Areal expansion,𝛼𝐴 =
𝐿ₒ ∆𝑇 𝐴ₒ ∆𝑇
3. What is co-efficient of cubical expansion? [PTA – 6]

It is the ratio of increase in volume of the body per degree rise in temperature to its unit volume.
∆𝑉
𝛼v =
𝑉ₒ ∆𝑇
Its SI unit is K −1 .
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Two Marks 5
4. State Boyle’s law. [MDL – 19, MAY - 2022]

When temperature is kept constant, the volume of a gas is inversely proportional to its pressure.
1
P∝ V (i.e.) PV = constant.
5. State the law of volume. (or) State Charles’s law.

When pressure is kept constant, the volume of a gas is directly proportional to its temperature.
V
V ∝ T (or) T = constant
6. Distinguish between ideal gas and real gas.
Ideal gas Real gas
1. Atoms/molecules do not interact with each other. 1. Atoms/molecules interact with each other.
2. It has low intermolecular/interatomic force 2. It has definite intermolecular/
of attraction. interatomic force of attraction.
7. What is co-efficient of real expansion? [SEP – 2020]

It is the ratio of the true rise in the volume of the liquid per degree rise in temperature to its
unit volume. Its SI unit is K −1 .
8. What is co-efficient of apparent expansion?
It is the ratio of the apparent rise in the volume of the liquid per degree rise in temperature
to its unit volume. Its SI unit is K −1 .
9. State Avogadro’s Law. [SEP – 2021]
Avogadro’s law states that at constant pressure and temperature, the volume of a gas is directly
proportional to number of atoms or molecules present in it.
𝐕
V∝ 𝐧 (or) = Constant
𝐧
10. Define Co-efficient of linear expansion. [PTA – 1]

It is the ratio of increase in length of the body per degree rise in temperature to its unit length.
IX. HOT Question
1. If you keep ice at 0°C and water at 0°C in either of your hands, in which hand you will
feel more chillness? Why?
We feel more chillness in the hand in which ice is placed at 0℃
Reason: When water and ice are kept in our hand at 0℃, ice requires additional latent heat
energy to melt down. ∴ Ice absorbs more heat energy when compared to water.
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4. ELECTRICITY
1. Define electric potential and potential difference.
Electric potential: It is the amount of work done in moving a unit positive charge from infinity
to that point against the electric force.
Potential difference: It is the amount of work done in moving a unit positive charge from one
point to another point against the electric force.
𝐖𝐨𝐫𝐤 𝐝𝐨𝐧𝐞 (𝐖)
Potential Difference (V) =
𝐂𝐡𝐚𝐫𝐠𝐞 (𝐐)
2. What is the role of the earth wire in domestic circuits?

 Earth wire act as protective conductor and saves us from electric shocks.
 When a live wire accidentally touches the metallic body of the appliance, earth wire
provides a low resistance path to the current and sends it from the body to the earth.
3. State Ohm’s law.
At a constant temperature, the steady current ‘I’ flowing through a conductor is directly
proportional to the potential difference ‘V’ between the two ends of the conductor.
I ∝ V ⇒ V = IR
Where R → Resistance of the material.
4. Distinguish between the resistivity and conductivity of a conductor.
Resistivity (𝝆) Conductivity (𝝈)

i) It is the resistance of a conductor of unit i) It is the reciprocal of electrical resistivity.
length and unit area of cross section.
ii) Its unit is ohm metre (Ωm). ii) Its unit is mho metre-1.
iii) It is the measure of resisting power. iii)It is the measure of ability to pass the current.
5. What connection is used in domestic appliances and why?

Domestic appliances are connected in parallel.
Reason:  Disconnection of one circuit does not affect other circuit
 Each appliance gets an equal voltage.
6. Define the unit of electrical energy 7. Draw the picture of seven segment display
consumption. [PTA – 5] for any one alpha numeric number.[PTA–3]
 Unit of electrical energy consumption is
watt second or kilowatt hour.
 It is the product of electric power and
time of usage.
 One kilowatt hour is known as one unit
of electrical energy.
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Two Marks 7
5. ACOUSTICS
1. Why does sound travel faster on a rainy day than on a dry day? (or) Why does sound
propagate faster on a rainy season than on summer season? [PTA – 6]
 Presence of moisture in air decreases the density and increases velocity.
 Hence, with high moisture, sound travel faster on a rainy day than on a dry day.
2. Why does an empty vessel produce more sound than a filled one? [PTA – 2]
 Amplitude of vibration of air is greater than liquid.
 Also amplitude is more due to the free space in empty vessel.
 Intensity is also increased by multiple reflections in empty vessel.
3. Air temperature in the Rajasthan desert can reach 46°𝑪. What is the velocity of sound in
air at that temperature? (V0 = 331 m s-1)
V0 = 331 m s-1 T = 46℃
VT = V0 + 0.61 T = 331 + 0.61 × 46 = 359.06 ms-1
4. Explain why, the ceilings of concert halls are curved. [MAY-2022, PTA-6]
 Ceilings of concert halls are curved because sound intensity is maximized after multiple
reflections and reaches every corner. Audience can listen the sound clearly.
5. Mention two cases in which there is no Doppler effect in sound. [MDL – 19, SEP - 2020]
 When source (S) and listener (L) both are at rest.
 When source (S) and listener (L) move with constant distance between them.
6. Write any two application of echo? [MAY-2022]
 Used by some animals to locate objects.
 Echo is used to determine the velocity of sound waves in any medium.
 It is used in obstetric ultrasonography, to capture images of fetus in mother’s uterus.
7. Difference between the Sound and Light waves. [PTA – 3]
S.No SOUND LIGHT
1. Medium is required for propagation. Medium is not required for propagation.
2. Longitudinal waves. Transverse waves.
3. Wavelength from 1.65 cm to 1.65 m Wavelength from 4 × 10–7 m to 7 × 10–7 m
4. Speed = 340ms–1 at NTP. Speed = 3 × 108 ms–1.
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X. HOT Questions
1. Suppose that a sound wave and a light wave have the same frequency, then which one has a
longer wavelength?
a) Sound b) Light c) both a and b d) data not sufficient
𝛌 ∝ 𝐕 ∴ Light has longer wavelength.
2. When sound is reflected from a distant object, an echo is produced. Let the distance between
the reflecting surface and the source of sound remain the same. Do you hear an echo sound
on a hotter day? Justify your answer.
 As temperature increases, speed of sound increases. ∴ Speed of sound is more on hotter day.
 The distance is same. Hence, time taken by the sound would be less on hotter day.
 Echo occurs when time difference is atleast 0.1 s.
 Thus, if the new time is less than 0.1 s, echo won’t be heard. If it is greater than 0.1 s, echo
can be heard even on a hotter day.
6. NUCLEAR PHYSICS
1. Write any three features of natural and artificial radioactivity. [AUG-22, MAY-22, PTA-1]
Natural radioactivity Artificial radioactivity
1. Spontaneous process. Induced process.

2. Cannot be controlled. Can be controlled.
3. Alpha, beta and gamma are emitted. Elementary particles like neutron, positron, etc., are emitted.
2. Define Critical mass.
 Minimum mass of fissile material necessary to sustain the chain reaction is called critical mass(mc).
 Sub critical: Mass is less than critical mass.  Super critical: Mass is more than critical mass.
3. Define one Roentgen.
One roentgen is the quantity of radioactive substance that produces a charge of 2.58 ×10-4 coulomb
in 1 kg of air under standard conditions of pressure, temperature and humidity.
4. State Soddy and Fajan’s displacement law.
i) When a radioactive element emits an alpha particle, a daughter nucleus is formed whose
mass number is less by 4 units and atomic number is less by 2 units, than the parent nucleus.
ii) When a radioactive element emits a beta particle, a daughter nucleus is formed whose mass
number is the same and atomic number is more by 1 unit, than the parent nucleus.
5. Give the function of control rods in a nuclear reactor. (or) What are control rods? [PTA – 3]
 Control rods are used to control the number of neutrons by absorbing them to maintain the
chain reaction. Ex: Boron, Cadmium rods.
6. In Japan, some of the new born children are having congenital diseases. Why?
 The atom bombs exploded in Japan emitted hazardous radiations causing genetic diseases.
 Thus, exposed mothers give birth to children with congenital diseases.
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Two Marks 9
7. Mr. Ramu is working as an X - ray technician in a hospital. But, he does not wear the lead
aprons. What suggestion will you give to Mr. Ramu?
 Though it do not have any impact initially, in future he may suffer from many diseases.
 Thus, I will suggest Ramu to wear Lead coated aprons and gloves to safeguard himself.
8. What is stellar energy?
Fusion reaction in the cores of Sun and other stars results in enormous energy called stellar energy.
9. Give any two uses of radio isotopes in the field of agriculture.
Phosphorous isotopes (P-32):  Increases the productivity of crops.
 Used to kill insects and parasites.
10. Nuclear fission of a uranium nucleus (𝑼𝟐𝟑𝟓) as follows 92U235 + 0n1→ X + Y + 3 0n1+ Q (energy)
Find the daughter nuclei X and Y emitted from the above reaction. [PTA – 4]
Nuclear Fission reaction is
∴ X – 56Ba141, Y – 36Kr92
XII. Higher Order Thinking Questions
1. 'X – rays should not be taken often'. Give the reason. [PTA – 5]
 Exposure to X-rays can cause cell mutations and cancer.
 Exposure to X-rays can cause vomiting, bleeding, fainting, hair loss and skin damage.
2. Cell phone towers should be placed far away from the residential area – Why?
 Cell phone towers emit high frequency radio waves, which are dangerous and cause
health risks like cancer, birth defects, memory loss, etc.,
 Thus, it is better to place cell phone towers far away from residential areas.

1. Define: Relative Atomic Mass (or) Define Standard atomic weight. [AUG - 22, PTA – 3]
Relative Atomic mass of an element is the ratio between average mass of its isotope
1
to th part of the mass of a carbon-12 atom.
12
Average mass of the isotopes of the element
Relative Atomic Mass, 𝐀 𝐫 = 1
th of the mass of one carbon−12 atom
12
2. Write the different types of isotopes of oxygen and its percentage abundance.
Isotope Atomic Mass (amu) % abundance

16
8O 15.9949 99.757
17
8O 16.9991 0.038
18
8O 17.9992 0.205
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3. Define: Atomicity. Give an example. [AUG – 2022, MAY-2022, SEP – 2021]
 Number of atoms present in molecule is called its atomicity.
 Ex : Atomicity of Phosphorous(P4) is 4.
4. Give any two examples for hetero diatomic molecules. [AUG - 2022]
Hydrogen Chloride (HCl), Hydrogen Fluoride (HF)
5. What is Molar volume of a gas?
It is the volume occupied by one mole of a gas at STP. Its value is 22.4 litre / 22400 ml
6. Find the percentage of nitrogen in ammonia. [PTA – 1]
14
% of Nitrogen in NH3 = Mass of element
Molecular mass
× 100 = 17 × 100 = 82.35 %
VIII. HOT Question

1. Calcium carbonate is decomposed on heating in the following reaction.
CaCO3 → CaO + CO2
i) How many moles of Calcium carbonate are involved in this reaction?
One mole of CaCO3.
ii) Calculate the gram molecular mass of calcium carbonate involved in this reaction.
Gram Molecular Mass of CaCO3 = (40 × 1) + (12 × 1) + (16 × 3)
= 40 + 12 + 48 = 100 g
iii) How many moles of CO2 are there in this equation?
One mole of CO2.
ELEMENTS
1. A is a reddish brown metal, which combines with O2 at < 1370 K gives B, a black coloured
compound. At a temperature > 1370 K, A gives C which is red in colour. Find A, B and C
with the reaction. [PTA – 4]
< 1370 K
2 Cu + O2 → 2 CuO
(B) Copper II oxide (black)
> 1370 K
4 Cu + O2 → 2 Cu2O
(C) Copper I oxide (red )
A → Copper (Cu);
B → Copper II oxide (CuO)
C → Copper I oxide (Cu2O)
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Two Marks 11
2. A is a silvery white metal. A combines with O2 to form B at 800oC, the alloy of A is used in
making the aircraft. Find A and B. [PTA – 1]
4 Al + 3O2 800℃ 2 Al2O3

(A) Aluminium oxide (B)
A → Aluminium (Al)
B → Aluminium oxide (Al2O3)
3. What is rust? Give the (chemical) equation for formation of rust. [SEP – 2021, PTA – 4]
When iron is exposed to moist air, it forms a layer of brown hydrated ferric oxide on its
surface. This compound is known as rust.
4Fe + 3O2 + x H2O → 2 Fe2 O3 . 𝑥 H2 O (Rust)

Iron Hydrated ferric oxide
4. State two conditions necessary for rusting of iron.

Presence of air and water vapour (in air) are the two necessary conditions for rusting of iron.
5. From the following clues identify the group number in the periodic table and write the
names of any two elements of that group. [PTA – 1]
a) The atoms of this group have very stable electronic configuration.
b) These elements are mostly unreactive.
Group : 18th (or) Noble gas Ex : Helium(He), Neon(Ne), Argon(Ar).
6. Copper pyrites is the prime ore of copper. It is concentrated by froth floatation method.
(OR) Lighter / sulphide ores can be concentrated by froth floatation method. Give reason.
Reason: Froth floatation depends on preferential wettability of ore with oil. Only if impurity
is heavier than ore, can be concentrated by froth floatation. Thus, lighter ore like Copper
pyrites (CuFeS2) are concentrated by froth floatation method. [PTA – 4]
7. ‘X’ is an element that belongs to 1st group of the modern periodic table. ‘X’ is a gas and its covalent
radius value is 0.37 A°. Identify and write the chemical symbol of ‘X’. [PTA – 6]
 Element X is Hydrogen, Chemical symbol is H / H2.
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VIII. Hot Questions
1. Name the acid that renders aluminium passive. Why? [PTA – 3]
 Dilute or Concentrated nitric acid renders aluminium passive.
 It is due to formation of oxide film on its surface.
2. a) Identify the bond between H and F in HF molecule.
Electronegativity of H = 2.1 and F = 4.0
Difference in electronegativity = 4.0 − 2.1 = 1.9 which is >1.7
∴ The bond between H and F in HF molecule is ionic.
b) What property forms the basis of identification?
Electronegativity
c) How does the property vary in periods and in groups?
 Across the period, from left to right, electronegativity increases.
 Down a group, from top to bottom, electronegativity decreases.
3. A is the second most abundant metal available next to aluminium on the earth. A forms its
magnetic oxide B, when steam is passed over metal A in red hot condition. A forms an alloy
C with carbon and nickel. C is used to make aircraft parts and propeller. Identify and write
names of B and C. Write the balanced chemical equation for the formation of magnetic oxide.
3 Fe + 4 H2O (steam) → Fe3O4 + 4H2 ↑ [PTA – 2]

Iron Magnetic oxide
A → Iron (Fe)
B → Magnetic oxide (Fe3O4)
C → Nickel steel (Fe, C, Ni)
4. A is a metal and belongs to Boron family in modern periodic table acts as a good reducing
agent. It reduces iron oxide into iron. It is used to make household utensils. Write the
balanced chemical equation for the reduction of iron oxide by ‘A’. [PTA – 6]
A → Aluminium. This process is aluminothermic process.
𝐅𝐞𝟐 𝐎𝟑 + 𝟐𝐀𝒍 → 𝟐 𝐅𝐞 + 𝐀𝒍𝟐 𝐎𝟑 + 𝐇𝐞𝐚𝐭

Iron oxide Iron
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Two Marks 13
1. Define the term - Solution.

 It is a homogeneous mixture of two or more substances. Ex : Sea water
 Components: Solute (lesser amount) and Solvent (larger amount)
2. What is mean by binary solution?
Binary solution consists of two components one solute and one solvent. Ex: NaCl in water
3. Give an example each i) gas in liquid ii) solid in liquid iii) solid in solid iv) gas in gas
i) Gas in liquid - Soda water ii) Solid in liquid - NaCl in water [PTA – 1]
iii) Solid in solid - Copper in gold iv) Gas in gas - Mixture of Helium and oxygen
4. What is aqueous and non-aqueous solution? Give an example.
Aqueous solution : It is the solution in which water acts as a solvent. Ex: Sugar in water.
Non - Aqueous solution : It is the solution in which any liquid other than water acts as solvent.
Ex: Sulphur dissolved in carbon - disulphide.
5. Define Volume percentage.
It is the percentage by volume of solute (in ml) present in the given volume of the solution.
Volume of the solute
Volume percentage = × 100
Volume of the solute + Volume of the solvent
6. The aquatic animals live more in cold region. Why? [PTA – 5]

 In cold regions, solubility of gas in liquid is more at lower temperature.
 Thus, more oxygen is dissolved in water. Hence, aquatic animals live more in cold regions.
7. Define Hydrated salt.
It is the ionic substances, which contain water of crystallization. Ex : Blue vitriol (CuSO4 . 5H2O)
8. A hot saturated solution of copper sulphate forms crystals as it cools. Why?
 When hot saturated solution of copper sulphate is cooled, excess copper sulphate in the
solution will be crystallized.
 Solubility decreases with decrease in temperature.
9. Classify the following substances into deliquescent, hygroscopic. [AUG - 2022]
(Conc. Sulphuric acid, Copper sulphate penta hydrate, Silica gel, Calcium chloride, and Gypsum salt)
 Deliquescent substances : Calcium chloride
 Hygroscopic substances : Conc. Sulphuric acid, Silica gel, Gypsum salt, Copper sulphate penta hydrate
10. Analyse the following statement about the formation of solutions and explain with an
example. “Like solvents dissolve Like solutes” [PTA – 1]
This statement means dissolving occurs when similarities exist between solvent and solute.
 Polar Compounds are soluble in polar solvents. Ex: Common salt dissolves in water.
11. What will be the impact of temperature & pressure while dissolving carbon dioxide in water? [PTA–5]
 Impact of Temperature : Solubility of CO2 in water decreases with the increase in temperature.
 Impact of Pressure : Solubility of CO2 in water increases with the increase in pressure.
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VII. HOT Questions

1. Vinu dissolves 50 g of sugar in 250 ml of hot water, Sarath dissolves 50 g of same sugar in
250 ml of cold water. Who will get faster dissolution of sugar? and Why? [PTA – 6]
Vinu readily dissolves sugar than Sarath because solubility increases with increase in temperature.
2. 'A' is a blue coloured crystalline salt. On heating it loses blue colour and to give 'B'. When
water is added, 'B' gives back to 'A'. Identify A and B, write the equation. [MAY - 2022]
 When blue vitriol (A) is heated, it loses its five water molecules and becomes colourless
CuSO4 (Anhydrous copper sulphate) ‘B’. If water is added, it returns back to blue vitriol (A).
A → blue vitriol, Copper sulphate pentahydrate (CuSO4. 5H2O)

B → Anhydrous copper sulphate (CuSO4)
3. Will the cool drinks give more fizz at top of the hills or at the foot? Explain.
 Pressure is reduced when we move from foot to top of the hill.
 When pressure is decreased, solubility is decreased.
 Thus, cool drinks fizzes lesser at top than at the foot of hills.
Additional Question
4. Compound A is a colourless, crystalline, hydrated salt of magnesium. On heating it

becomes an anhydrous salt. The number of water molecules lost by compound A is equal
to number of water molecules present in green vitriol on heating. [PTA – 2]
i) Identify compound A.
A → Magnesium sulphate heptahydrate (MgSO4. 7H2O)

Colourless, crystalline, hydrated salt of magnesium
ii) Give the Chemical equation for this heating reaction.

When Magnesium sulphate heptahydrate(A) is heated, anhydrous magnesium sulphate (MgSO4) is
formed losing seven water molecules(as in Green vitriol - FeSO4.7H2O)
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Two Marks 15

1. When an aqueous solution of potassium chloride is added to an aqueous solution of silver
nitrate, a white precipitate is formed. Give the chemical equation of this reaction. [PTA – 6]
Double Displacement Reaction
KCl(aq) + AgNO3(aq) → KNO3(aq) + AgCl(s) ↓
Potassium nitrate silver nitrate
White precipitate
2. Why does the reaction rate of a reaction increase on raising the temperature? (or) Why
food kept at room temperature spoil faster than at refrigerator? [PTA –6, MDL – 19]
 Raising temperature provides more energy to break more bonds (i.e) Reaction rate is increased.
 Thus, Food kept at room temperature spoil faster than at refrigerator, as the temperature
in fridge is lower which makes the reaction rate slower.
3. Define combination reaction. Give one example for an exothermic combination reaction.
A reaction in which two or more reactants combine to form a compound is known as
Combination (or) Synthesis (or) Composition reaction.
General schematic representation: A+ B → AB [MAY - 2022]
Example for Exothermic combination reaction: SiO2(s) + CaO(s) → CaSiO3(s)
4. Differentiate reversible and irreversible reactions. [AUG-22, MAY-22, SEP-2021, PTA-1]
Reversible reaction Irreversible reaction

1. It can be reversed under suitable condition. 1. It cannot be reversed.
2. Both forward and backward reactions take 2. It proceeds only in forward direction.
place simultaneously.
3. It attains equilibrium. 3. Equilibrium is not attained.
4. It is relatively slow. 4. It is fast.
5. Define Single displacement reaction with example. [SEP – 2020]
Single displacement reaction: It is the reaction between an element and a compound, where one
element of the compound-reactant is replaced by the element-reactant to
form a new compound and an element.
Ex: 𝐙𝐧(𝐬) + 𝟐𝐇𝐂𝒍(𝒂𝒒) → 𝒁𝒏𝑪𝒍𝟐(𝒂𝒒) + 𝐇𝟐 (𝐠)
6. If the pH value of solution is zero then what will be the nature of the solution? Give reason.
 pH of a solution is zero means, −log [H+ ] = 0; [H+ ] = 1 [PTA – 3]
 Concentration of hydrogen ion is 1. So it is highly acidic in nature.
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7. Which one of the following reactions is feasible? Give support to your answer. [PTA – 3]
i) 𝟐𝐍𝐚𝐂𝐥 + 𝐅𝟐 → 𝟐𝐍𝐚𝐅 + 𝐂𝐥𝟐 ii) 𝐍𝐚𝐅 + 𝐂𝐥𝟐 → 𝐍𝐚𝐂𝐥 + 𝐅𝟐
 1st reaction: is feasible whereas 2nd reaction is not feasible

 Because, fluorine is more reactive than chlorine. So Fluorine displaces Chlorine.
8. 𝐂𝐚𝐂𝐎𝟑(𝐬) + 𝐇𝐞𝐚𝐭 → 𝐂𝐚𝐎(𝐬) + 𝐂𝐎𝟐 (𝐠) 𝐂𝐚𝐂𝐎𝟑 (𝐬) + 𝐇𝐞𝐚𝐭 ⇄ 𝐂𝐚𝐎(𝐬) + 𝐂𝐎𝟐(𝐠)
Analyse the above chemical reactions. At what condition(s) these reactions are feasible? [PTA – 4]
 The first reaction is thermal decomposition reaction. Heat is required to break the bonds.
 If the first reaction is carried out in a closed vessel, it reaches a chemical equilibrium. Thus,
second reaction is feasible.
9. Write one example each for chemical reactions to be faster and chemical reactions to be
slower in your daily life activities. [PTA – 3]
 Faster Reaction - Digestion of food  Slower Reaction - Rusting of iron
10. Which of the following chemical reactions is a neutralization reaction? Reason out.
𝐍𝐚𝐎𝐇(𝐚𝐪) + 𝐇𝐂𝐈(𝐚𝐪) → 𝐍𝐚𝐂𝐥(𝐚𝐪) + 𝐇𝟐 𝐎(𝐈) [PTA – 4]
𝐂𝟑 𝐇𝟖 (𝐠) + 𝟓𝐎𝟐 (𝐠) → 𝟑𝐂𝐎𝟐 (𝐠) + 𝟒𝐇𝟐 𝐎(𝐠) + 𝐇𝐞𝐚𝐭
 The first reaction is neutralization reaction.

 Reason: Sodium replaces hydrogen from hydrochloric acid forming sodium chloride, a salt.
11. Does pure water conduct electricity? Justify you answer. [PTA – 5]
Pure water does not conduct electricity, because of the absence of ions in pure water.
12. What is the role of manganese dioxide in the heating reaction of potassium chlorate for the
production of oxygen gas? [PTA – 6]
Manganese dioxide acts as a catalyst and increases the reaction rate.
VII. HOT Questions
1. Can a nickel spatula be used to stir copper sulphate solution? Justify your answer. [PTA – 6]
 Nickel spatula cannot be used to stir copper sulphate solution.
 Nickel is more reactive than copper. Hence, nickel displaces copper from its solution.
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Two Marks 17

1. Name the simplest ketone and give its structural (or) molecular formula. [PTA –2]
Simplest ketone : Acetone
Structural formula : CH3−CO−CH3
IUPAC Name : Propanone
2. Classify the following compounds based on the pattern of carbon chain and give their
structural formula: (i) Propane (ii) Benzene (iii) Cyclobutane (iv) Furan [PTA – 1, MAY-2022]
Name Classification Molecular formula Structural formula

i) Propane Acyclic (or) open chain compounds C3H8
ii) Benzene Aromatic compound C6H6
iii) Cyclobutane Alicyclic compound C4H8
iv) Furan Heterocyclic compound C4H4O
3. How is ethanoic acid prepared from ethanol? Give the chemical equation.
Ethanoic acid is prepared from oxidation of ethanol in the presence of alkaline potassium
permanganate or acidified potassium dichromate.
𝐊𝐌𝐧𝐎𝟒 /𝐎𝐇−
CH3CH2OH → CH3COOH + H2O
2[𝐎]
Ethanol Ethanoic acid
4. How do detergents cause water pollution? Suggest remedial measures to prevent this pollution.
Detergents having branched hydrocarbon chain are not fully biodegradable by micro-
organisms in water. So, they cause water pollution. [PTA – 3]
Remedy: We can use straight hydrocarbon chains, which can be easily degraded by bacteria.
5. Differentiate soaps and detergents. [SEP – 2020, PTA – 3, MDL – 19]
Soaps Detergents
1. Sodium salt of long chain fatty acid 1. Sodium salts of sulphonic acids.
2. Ionic part is –COO− Na+ 2. Ionic part is – SO3 − Na+
3. It is less effective in hard water. 3. 4. It is effective even in hard water.
4. It forms a scum in hard water. 5. It does not form a scum in hard water.
5. Poor foaming capacity. 6. Rich foaming capacity.
6. Biodegradable. 7. Mostly non-biodegradable.
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6. Write any 2 uses of Ethanol. [SEP – 2021]
 Ethanol is used in medical wipes, as an antiseptic.
 It is used as solvent for drugs, oils, fats, perfumes. Dyes, etc,.
7. Why ethene is more reactive than ethane? [PTA – 1]

 Ethane is a saturated hydrocarbon with a strong Single bond.
 Ethene is an unsaturated hydrocarbon with a weak double bond
 Thus, ethene is unstable and more reactive than ethane which is stable.
8. Applying IUPAC rules, derive the structural formula of the following compounds. [PTA – 2]
a) Pentanoic acid b) 2-methyl-butan-2-ol
𝐂𝐇𝟑 −𝐂𝐇𝟐 − 𝐂𝐇𝟐 − 𝐂𝐇𝟐 − 𝐂𝐎𝐎𝐇
9. Read & categorize the following statements that are suitable for ethanol & ethanoic acid[PTA–4]
a) 95.5% of this compound’s water solution is called rectified sprit - Ethanol
b) Pure form of this compound change into ice like crystals on freezing - Ethanoic acid
c) This compound undergoes decarboxylation on heating with soda lime. - Sodium salt of ethanoic acid
10. Compound A is a colourless liquid having burning taste. When the vapour of compound A
is passed over heated copper at 573 K, it is dehydrogenated to acetaldehyde. What is
compound ‘A’? What is the role of copper in this chemical reaction? Write the balanced
chemical equation of this reaction. [PTA – 6]
 Compound A is Ethanol , CH3CH2-OH
 Copper is used as catalyst.
𝐂𝐮
CH3CH2OH →573 K CH3CHO + H2↑
ethanol acetaldehyde
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Two Marks 19

PHYSIOLOGY
1. Give an account on vascular bundle of dicot stem.
 Vascular bundles of dicot stem are conjoint collateral, endarch and open.
 They are arranged as ring around the pith.
2. Write a short note on mesophyll. 3. Draw and label
Tissue between upper and lower epidermis of leaf is called mesophyll. the structure of
 Palisade parenchyma: Elongated cells with more chloroplasts. oxysomes.
Helps in photosynthesis.
 Spongy parenchyma: Spherical cells with intercellular spaces.
Helps in gaseous exchange.
4. Name the three basic tissue system in flowering plants.
 Dermal/Epidermal tissue system  Ground tissue system  Vascular tissue system
5. What is photosynthesis and where in a cell does it occur? [SEP – 2021, PTA – 3]
It is a process by which organisms utilize energy from sunlight to synthesize their own food.
𝐋𝐢𝐠𝐡𝐭
𝟔𝐂𝐎𝟐 + 𝟏𝟐𝐇𝟐 𝐎 → 𝐂𝟔 𝐇𝟏𝟐 𝐎𝟔 + 𝟔𝐇𝟐 𝑶 + 𝟔𝐎𝟐 ↑
Chlorophyll
 It occurs in the chloroplast.

6. What is Respiratory quotient? [AUG – 2022, MAY - 2022,SEP – 2021, PTA – 1]
Respiratory Quotient (R.Q.) is the ratio of volume of carbon dioxide liberated and volume
𝐯𝐨𝐥𝐮𝐦𝐞 𝐨𝐟 𝐂𝐎𝟐 𝐥𝐢𝐛𝐞𝐫𝐚𝐭𝐞𝐝
of oxygen consumed during respiration. 𝐑. 𝐐 =
𝐯𝐨𝐥𝐮𝐦𝐞 𝐨𝐟 𝐎 𝐜𝐨𝐧𝐬𝐮𝐦𝐞𝐝
𝟐
7. Why should the light dependent reaction occur before the light independent reaction?
 During light independent reactions, CO2 is reduced into carbohydrates with the help of
ATP and NADPH2 which is generated during light dependent reaction.
 So, light dependent reaction should occur before the light independent reaction.
8. Write the reaction for photosynthesis. [MAY - 2022]
𝐋𝐢𝐠𝐡𝐭
𝟔𝐂𝐎𝟐 + 𝟏𝟐𝐇𝟐 𝐎 → 𝐂𝟔 𝐇𝟏𝟐 𝐎𝟔 + 𝟔𝐇𝟐 𝑶 + 𝟔𝐎𝟐 ↑
Carbon di oxide Water Chlorophyll Glucose Water Oxygen
9. What are the factors affecting photosynthesis? [AUG – 2022]
 External factors → Light, Carbon dioxide, temperature, water and mineral elements.
 Internal factors → Pigments, leaf age, accumulation of carbohydrates and hormones.
10. What is vascular bundle? [PTA – 1]
 Xylem and phloem tissues are present in the form of bundles called vascular bundles.
 Xylem conducts water and minerals. Phloem conducts food materials.
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11. Draw and label the different types of vascular bundles. 12. Draw and label the internal
(Conjoint vascular bundles) [PTA – 4] structure of a Dicot/Bean root
[PTA–6]
VIII. Higher Order Thinking Skills (HOTS)

1. Where do the light dependent reaction and the Calvin cycle occur in the chloroplast?
 Light dependent reaction takes place in thylakoid membrane of chloroplast.
Calvin cycle takes place in stroma of chloroplast

ANIMALS
1. Why are the rings of cartilages found in trachea of rabbit? [PTA – 4, SEP – 2020]
The rings of cartilages are found in trachea of rabbit to help in free passage of air.
2. List out the parasitic adaptations in leech. [MDL – 19]

 Blood is sucked by pharynx.
 Anterior and posterior suckers helps to attach to the host.
 Three jaws, causes painless Y-shaped wound in the host.
 For continuous blood supply, Hirudin is produced to prevent blood to coagulate.
 Parapodia and setae are absent.
 Blood is stored in crop and gives nourishment for several months.
Additional Question
3. What are the glands embedded in the Rabbit skin to regulate the body temperature?
Sweat glands and sebaceous glands. [PTA – 3]
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Two Marks 21

1. Arjun is studying in tenth standard. He was down with fever and went to meet the doctor.
As he went to the clinic, he saw a patient undergoing treatment for severe leech bite. Being
curious, Arjun asked the doctor why leech bite was not felt as soon as it attaches to the
skin? What would have been the reply given by the doctor? (or) Why do the host doesn’t
feel bite of a leech.
When leeches bite they inject an anesthetic substance that prevent the host from feeling its
bite. Thus, the host doesn’t feel the bite of a leech.
2. Shylesh has some pet animals at his home. He has few rabbits too, one day while feeding
them he observed something different with the teeth. He asked his grandfather, why is it
so? What would have been the explanation of his grandfather?
Rabbit has diphyodont and heterodont dentition. Rabbit has diphyodont and heterodont
dentition.
IX. Value based questions
1. Leeches do not have an elaborate secretion of digestive juices and enzymes - Why?
In leeches, blood is stored in crop. It gives nourishment for several months. Thus, they do not
have an elaborate secretion of digestive juices and enzymes.
2. How is the digestive system of rabbit suited for herbivorous mode of feeding? [PTA –3]
 Teeth helps to cut, tear and grind food.
 Diastema helps in mastication and chewing of food.
 Secretions of digestive glands helps in digestion of food.
 Bacteria in small and large intestine helps in digestion of cellulose.

1. What causes the opening and closing of guard cells of stomata during transpiration?
Change in turgidity of guard cells causes opening and closing of stomata.
2. What is cohesion? [PTA – 1]
The force of attraction between water molecules is called cohesion.
3. Trace the pathway followed by water molecules from the time it enters
a plant root to the time it escapes into the atmosphere from a leaf.
 Root hair absorbs water by osmosis.
 Root pressure conducts water to stem through xylem.
 Stem conducts water to leaf.
 Excess water is evaporated through stomata by transpiration.
Root hair → Root → Stem → Leaf → Stomata → Water is evaporated
4. What would happen to leaves of a plant that transpires more water than its absorption in roots?
 Plant dehydrates and losses moisture resulting in wilting or drying of leaves.
 It affects plant growth, photosynthesis and may lead to death.
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5. Describe the structure and working of the human heart.
Heart is a muscular pumping organ that pumps blood into blood vessels.
Structure:
 Heart is enclosed by pericardium.
 It is four chambered and is situated between lungs.
Auricle - Two upper thin walled chambers
Ventricle - Two lower thick walled chambers
 These chambers are separated by septum.
Working of human heart :
 Right atrium receives deoxygenated blood from body parts through main veins.
 Left atrium receives oxygenated blood from lungs through pulmonary veins.
 Right and left auricles pump blood into right and left ventricles respectively.
 Right ventricle supplies deoxygenated blood to lungs by pulmonary arteries.
 Left ventricle supplies oxygenated blood to body parts by aorta.
 Coronary arteries supply blood to heart.
6. Why is the circulation in man referred to as double circulation? [PTA – 1]
In man, blood circulates twice through heart in one complete cycle. So, it is called double circulation.
7. What are heart sounds? How are they produced?
 Rhythmic closure and opening of heart valves is called heart sounds.
 LUBB sound is produced by closure of tricuspid & bicuspid valves.
 DUPP sound is produced by closure of semilunar valves.
8. What is the importance of valves in the heart? [MAY - 2022, PTA – 2]
 Valves regulate blood flow in single direction.
 It prevents backward flow of blood into ventricles.
9. Who discovered Rh factor? Why was it named so? [PTA – 6]
 Landsteiner and Wiener discovered Rh factor.
 It was discovered in the blood of Rhesus monkey. So, it was named as Rh factor.
10. How are arteries and veins structurally different from one another? [PTA – 5]
S.No Artery Vein

1. It have a strong, thick and elastic wall. It have a weak, thin and non-elastic wall.
2. Internal valves are absent. Internal valves are present.
3. Deep in location Superficial in location
11. Why the sinoatrial node is called as the pacemaker of heart? [MDL – 19, PTA – 5]
Sinoatrial node initiates an impulse, which simulates heart muscles to contract. SA node
plays an important role in the initiation of heartbeat. Hence, it is called as pacemaker of heart.
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Two Marks 23
12. Differentiate between systemic circulation and pulmonary circulation. [PTA – 2]

Systemic circulation Pulmonary circulation
1. Oxygenated blood is pumped from heart 1. Deoxygenated blood is pumped from heart
to body. to lungs.
2. Deoxygenated blood is returned to heart. 2. Oxygenated blood is returned to heart.
3. Occurs between heart and body via 3. Occurs between heart and lungs via
arteries and veins. pulmonary arteries and pulmonary veins.
13. The complete events of cardiac cycle last for 0.8 sec. What is the timing for each event?
Each Event of cardiac cycle involves:
 Atrial systole: 0.1 sec
 Ventricular systole: 0.3 seconds
 Ventricular diastole: 0.4 seconds
14. Draw and label the parts of process of 15. Draw pictures of Granulocytes.
transpiration. [MAY-2022] [AUG – 2022, MAY-2022]
VII. Give reasons for the following statements

1. Minerals cannot be passively absorbed by the roots.
 Minerals in soil are ions. It cannot move across cell membrane.
 Concentration of minerals in soil is lower than the concentration of minerals in root.
 Thus, minerals cannot be passively absorbed by roots.
2. Guard cells are responsible for opening and closing of stomata. [SEP – 2021]
 Change in turgidity of guard cells causes opening and closing of stomata.
 When water enters, guard cells become turgid and stoma open.
 When guard cells lose water, it shrinks and stoma closes.
3. The movement of substances in the phloem can be in any (or) all direction. [PTA – 4]
 Function of Phloem is to transport food from source to sink.
 Normally, Phloem transports food in downward direction (i.e) from leaves to root, stem etc.,
 Based on plant’s need, Phloem transports in upward direction from root to all parts.
 Thus, movement of substances in phloem can be in any direction.
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4. Minerals in the plants are not lost when the leaf falls. [PTA – 2]
Reason: Minerals are remobilised from older dying leaves to younger leaves.
So, minerals in plants are not lost, when leaf falls.
5. The walls of the right ventricle are thicker than the right auricle.
Reason: Right ventricle have to pump out blood with force away from heart.
Thus, the walls of ventricles are thicker than auricles.
6. Mature RBC in mammals do not have cell organelles. [PTA – 4]

Reasons:
 Lack of nucleus makes the cells biconcave and increases the surface area for oxygen binding.
 Lack of mitochondria allows RBC to transport all the oxygen to tissues.
 Lack of endoplasmic reticulum gives flexibility for RBC to move through narrow capillaries.
X. Higher Order Thinking Skills (HOTS)
1. When any dry plant material is kept in water, they swell up. Name and define the
phenomenon involved in this change.
 Phenomenon is Imbibition.
 Definition: It is a type of diffusion in which a solid absorbs water and gets swelled up.
 Ex: Absorption of water by seeds and dry grapes.
2. Why are the walls of the left ventricle thicker than the other chambers of the heart?
Left ventricle pumps blood with great pressure into aorta, to the whole body. Whereas the
other chambers pump the blood with comparatively lesser pressure. Thus it is thicker.
3. Doctors use stethoscope to hear the sound of the heart. Why?
Stethoscope is a diagnostic tool to identify and localize health problems and diagnose disease.
4. How does the pulmonary artery and pulmonary vein differ in their function when
compared to a normal artery and vein?
 All arteries carry oxygenated blood except pulmonary arteries, which carry deoxygenated blood.
 All veins carry deoxygenated blood except pulmonary veins, which carry oxygenated blood.
5. Transpiration is a necessary evil in plants. Explain. [PTA – 3]

 During transpiration 95% of water is evaporated. It is an inevitable process.
 Therefore, it is a necessary evil in plants.
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Two Marks 25
15. NERVOUS SYSTEM

1. Define stimulus.
Stimulus is the changes in environmental condition, detected by receptors present in the body.
2. Name the parts of the hind brain. [PTA – 2]
 Cerebellum  Pons  Medulla oblongata
3. What are the structures involved in the protection of brain? [PTA – 4]
 Brain is covered by duramater, arachnoid membrane and piamater that protect from injury.
 Cerebrospinal fluid acts as shock absorbing fluid and protect brain from sudden shock.
4. Give an example for conditioned reflexes.
Playing harmonium by striking a particular key on seeing a music note
5. Which acts as a link between the nervous system and endocrine system?
Hypothalamus acts as a link between the nervous system and endocrine system.
6. Define reflex arc. [PTA – 4]
Reflex arc is the pathway taken by nerve impulse to accomplish reflex action.
7. Classify neurons based on its function. [PTA – 3]
Sensory / Afferent neurons: They carry impulses from sense organ to central nervous system.
Motor / Efferent neurons: They carry impulses from central nervous system to effector organ.
Association neurons: They conduct impulses between sensory and motor neurons.
8. Write the functions of cerebellum. [PTA – 6]
Cerebellum coordinates voluntary movements and maintains body balance.
VII. Differentiate between

1. Voluntary and involuntary actions. [PTA – 5]
S.No Voluntary action Involuntary action
1. Controlled by brain. Ex : eating Controlled by spinal cord. Ex : sneezing
2. With our conscience. Without our conscience.
3. Under the control of will. Not under the control of will.
4. It results in muscular action. It results in muscular action or secretions.
2. Medullated and non-medullated nerve fibre (or) Myelinated & non-myelinated nerve fibre.
Medullated (Myelinated) Non-medullated (Nonmyelinated) [PTA – 3]
S.No
Nerve Fibres Nerve Fibres
1. It has myelin sheath. It do not have myelin sheath.
2. It is the white matter. It is the grey matter.
3. It has Nodes of Ranvier. It do not have Nodes of Ranvier.
4. It carry impulses faster. It carry impulses slower.
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IX. Higher Order Thinking Skills (HOTS)

1. ‘A’ is a cylindrical structure that begins from the lower end of medulla and extend
downwards. It is enclosed in bony cage ‘B’ and covered by membranes ‘C’. As many as
‘D’ pairs of nerves arise from the structure ‘A’. (i) What is A?
(ii) Name (a) bony cage ‘B’ and (b) membranes ‘C’ (iii) How much is D?
A → Spinal cord
𝐁 → Vertebrae (or) Vertebral column [PTA – 6]
𝐂 → Meninges
𝐃 → 31 Pairs
2. Our body contains a large number of cells ‘L’, which are the longest cells in the body. L has
long and short branch called as ‘M’ and ‘N’ respectively. There is a gap ‘O’ between two ‘L’
cells, through which nerve impulse transfer by release of chemical substance ‘P’.
(i) Name the cells L. (ii) What are M and N?
(iii) What is the gap O? (iv) Name the chemical substance P.
L → Neuron
𝐌→ Axon
𝐍 → Dendron
𝐎 → Synaptic junction (or) Synapse
𝐏 → Neurotransmitter

1. What are synthetic auxins? Give examples. [MAY - 2022, PTA – 4]
These are artificially synthesized auxins that have properties like auxins.
Example: 2,4 D (2,4 Dichlorophenoxy acetic acid), Indole 3 Butyric Acid (IBA).
2. What is bolting? How can it be induced artificially? [MDL – 19]
 Bolting is the sudden shoot elongation followed by flowering.
 It can be induced artificially by treatment of gibberellin.
3. Bring out any two physiological activities of abscisic acid.
 It promotes abscission process.  It promotes senescence in leaves.
4. What will you do to prevent leaf fall and fruit drop in plants? Support your answer with reason.
 Spraying auxins can prevent leaf fall and fruit drop.
 Because auxin prevents the formation of abscission layer.
5. What are chemical messengers?
 Hormones produced by Endocrine Glands are called Chemical Messengers.
 Ex: Growth hormone.
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Two Marks 27
6. Write the differences between endocrine and exocrine gland.

S.No Endocrine glands Exocrine glands
They do not have ducts. They have ducts to carry secretions.
1.
Secretions diffuse directly into blood.
2. Secrete hormones. Secrete enzymes.
3. Ex : Thyroid gland Ex : Salivary gland
7. What is the role of parathormone?
 Parathormone regulates calcium and phosphorus metabolism.
 They maintain blood calcium levels.
8. What are the hormones secreted by posterior lobe of the pituitary gland? Mention the
tissues on which they exert their effect. [PTA – 2]
Hormone Tissues on which they exert their effect
Vasopressin or Antidiuretic hormone(ADH) Kidney tubules
Oxytocin Smooth muscles of uterus and mammary gland.
9. Why are thyroid hormones referred as personality hormones? [AUG – 2022, MDL – 19]
Thyroid hormones are essential for normal physical, mental and personality development.
Hence, it is also known as personality hormone.
10. Which hormone requires iodine for its formation? What will happen if intake of iodine in
our diet is low?
 Thyroid hormone requires iodine for its formation.
 If intake of iodine is low, it causes goiter.
11. Identify the parts A, B, C, D in the given 12. Identify the parts of A, B, C and D in the
figure. [MAY-2022] given figure. [SEP – 2020]
A- Capsule B- Cortex
C- Medulla D- Blood vessels A – Thyroid Cartilage C – Trachea
B – Thyroid gland D – Nodule
13. Explain the disorder with which the person shown in the figure is suffering. [PTA – 1]
 The person is suffering from goitre.
 It is caused due to inadequate supply of iodine in our diet.
14. How is Corpus luteum formed? Name the hormones secreted by corpus luteum. [PTA –2]
Progesterone from Corpus Luteum is formed in ovary from ruptured follicle during ovulation.
15. What is parthenocarpic fruit? Give an example. [PTA – 6]
These are Seedless fruits developed without fertilization. Induced by external application of auxins.
Ex : Watermelon, Tomato.
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1. What would be expected to happen if,
a) Gibberellin is applied to rice seedlings. Internodal elongation and increase in height.
b) A rotten fruit gets mixed with unripe fruits. Ethylene from ripe fruits will hasten the ripening.
c) When cytokinin is not added to culture medium? Culture tissue will not show any growth.
2. A plant hormone was first discovered in Japan when rice plants were suffering from Bakanae
disease caused by Gibberella fujikoroi. Based on this information answer the following questions:
a) Identify the hormone involved in this process. Gibberellin.
b) Which property of this hormone causes the disease? Internodal elongation.
c) Give two functions of this hormone.
 Gibberellin stimulates extraordinary elongation of internode.
 Bolting is achieved by gibberellin.
3. Senthil has high blood pressure, protruded eyeball and an increased body temperature.
Name the endocrine gland involved and hormone secretion responsible for this condition.
 Thyroid gland and thyroid hormones are responsible for this condition.
4. Sanjay is sitting in the exam hall. Before the start of the exam, he sweats a lot, with
increased rate of heartbeat. Why does this condition occur?
 It is due to the secretion of emergency hormones during stress and emotion.
5. Susan’s father feels very tired and frequently urinates. After clinical diagnosis, he was
advised to take an injection daily to maintain his blood glucose level. What would be the
possible cause for this? Suggest preventive measures.
It is due to deficiency of insulin, which leads to Diabetes mellitus.
Preventive measures:
 Eat healthy foods  Exercise regularly  Avoid smoking

ANIMALS
1. What will happen if you cut planaria into small fragments?
Each fragments of the cut planaria will give rise to new individual.
2. Why is vegetative propagation practiced for growing some type of plants? [PTA – 1]
Vegetative propagation is practiced, because
 Some plants have lost their capacity to produce seeds.
 Some higher plants retain their characters.
3. How does binary fission differ from multiple fission?
S.No. Binary Fission Multiple Fission
1. Two new organisms are formed. Many new organisms are formed.
Occurs during favourable Occurs during unfavourable
2.
environmental conditions. environmental conditions.
3. Ex : Amoeba Ex : Algae
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Two Marks 29
4. Define triple fusion. [MAY - 2022, MDL – 19]

 One sperm fuses with egg and forms a diploid Zygote.
 Other sperm fuses with secondary nucleus and forms triploid primary endosperm nucleus.
5. Write the characteristics of insect pollinated flowers. [PTA – 6]
 Insect pollinated flowers are brightly coloured, have smell and nectar.
 Its pollen grains are larger, exine is pitted, spiny, etc., and firmly adhere to stigma.
6. Name the secondary sex organs in male. [MAY - 2022]
Vas deferens, epididymis, seminal vesicle, prostate gland and penis.
7. What is colostrum? How is milk production hormonally regulated? [PTA – 2]
Colostrum is the milk produced during the first 2 to 3 days after child birth.
 Milk production is stimulated by prolactin.
 Ejection of milk is stimulated by oxytocin.
8. How can menstrual hygiene be maintained during menstrual days? [PTA – 4]
 Sanitary pads should be changed regularly.
 Use warm water to clean genitals.
 Wearing loose clothing.
9. How does developing embryo gets its nourishment inside the mother's body? [PTA – 6]
Placenta allows the exchange of food materials, diffusion of oxygen, excretion of
nitrogenous wastes and elimination of carbon dioxide.
10. Identify the parts A, B, C and D. [AUG – 2022, MDL – 19]
Pollen grain
A – Exine
B – Intine
C – Generative cell
D – Vegetative nucleus
11. Write the events involved in the sexual reproduction of a flowering plant.
1) Pollination 2) Fertilization
a) Discuss the first event and write the types. (or) What is pollination? [SEP - 2021]
First event is pollination. It is the transfer of pollen grains from anther to stigma.
Types:  Self-pollination  Cross pollination
b) Mention the advantages and the disadvantages of that event.
Self-pollination Cross-pollination
Advantages : Advantages :
 Do not depend on agents  It leads to production of new varieties.
 No wastage of pollen grains.  More viable seeds are produced.
Disadvantages : Disadvantages :
 Seeds are less in numbers.  Pollination may fail due to distance barrier.
 Seeds produce weak plants.  More wastage of pollen grains.
 New varieties cannot be produced  It may introduce some unwanted characters
 Depend on the external agencies.
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12. Why are the human testes located outside the abdominal cavity? Name the pouch in
which they are present.
Human testes is outside the abdominal cavity, because sperm formation requires a lower
temperature than our body temperature. Pouch in which they are present is scrotum.
13. Luteal phase of the menstrual cycle is also called the secretory phase. Give reason.
Progesterone and estrogen are secreted during luteal phase. It maintains pregnancy and
prevents contraction of uterus. Thus, this phase is called secretory phase.
14. Why are family planning methods not adopted by all the people of our country?
 Poverty  Illiteracy
 Religious Opposition  Lack of Cheap and Effective Methods
15. State the importance of pollination. [SEP – 2021] 17. Draw and label the parts of a sperm.
 Pollination results in fertilization, which leads to [SEP – 2021]
fruits and seeds.
 New varieties of plants are formed in case of
cross-pollination.
16. Write the importance of fertilization in plants.
[PTA – 2]
 It stimulates ovary to develop into fruit.
 It helps in development of new characters.

1. In angiosperms the pollen germinates to produce pollen tube that carries two gametes.
What is the purpose of carrying two gametes when single gamete can fertilize the egg?
In angiosperms, double fertilization takes place.
The purpose of two gametes:
i) Endosperm thus formed provides food to developing embryo.
ii) It increases the viability of seeds.
iii) Plant has better chances of survival.
2. Why menstrual cycle does not take place before puberty and during pregnancy?
 Before puberty, progesterone & estrogen secretion is absent. So, there is no menstrual cycle.
 After fertilization, corpus luteum persists. So progesterone continues to secrete to protect
the embedded embryo. So, there is no menstrual cycle during pregnancy.
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Two Marks 31
18. GENETICS
1. Why did Mendel select pea plant for his experiments? [MAY - 2022]
 It is naturally self pollinating and easy to cross-pollinate
 It has short life span. We can follow several generations.
 It has deeply defined contrasting characters.
 Flowers are bisexual.
2. What do you understand by the term phenotype and genotype? [AUG – 2022]
 Phenotype – It is the external expression of a particular trait.
 Genotype – It is the genetic expression of an organisms.
3. What are allosomes? (or) Define Sex-chromosomes. [PTA – 2]
 Chromosomes which are responsible for determining the sex of an individual are called
Allosomes (or) sex chromosomes (or) hetero-chromosomes.
 Human male have XY chromosomes. Human female have XX chromosomes.
4. What are Okazaki fragments? [PTA – 4]
Short segments of DNA which are synthesised by lagging strand are called Okazaki fragments.
5. Why is euploidy considered to be advantageous to both plants and animals? [PTA – 1]
Euploidy is advantageous to plants, as they give increased fruit and flower size.
Euploidy is not advantageous in animals. If it occurs, it creates diseases and abnormalities.
6. A pure tall plant (TT) is crossed with pure dwarf plant (tt), what would be the F 1 and F2
generations? Explain. [PTA – 5]
F1 generation F2 generation
T T T t
t Tt Tt T TT Tt
t Tt Tt t Tt tt
Phenotypes : Phenotypes : 3 tall
All are tall plants and 1 dwarf plant = 3 : 1
Genotypic ratio = All are Tt Genotypic ratio = TT : Tt : tt = 1 : 2 : 1
7. Explain the structure of a chromosome. [SEP–2021, PTA–6]

 Chromosomes are thin, long, thread like structures.
 It consists of two identical strands called sister chromatids.
 They are held together by centromere.
 They are made up of DNA, RNA, chromosomal proteins, etc,.
 Proteins provide structural support to the chromosome.
 A chromosome consists of the following regions.
i) Primary constriction / centromere: Two arms meet at this point.
ii) Secondary constriction: It occur at any point.
iii) Telomere: End of the chromosome. Provides stability.
iv) Satellite: Some have an elongated knob-like appendage.
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8. Label the parts of the DNA in the diagram given below. Explain the structure briefly.
The given figure is Nucleotides in DNA
 Each nucleotides consist of
a) A sugar molecule - Deoxyribose sugar
b) A nitrogenous base
 Purines (Adenine and Guanine)
 Pyrimidines (Cytosine and Thymine)
c) A Phosphate group
 Adenine links thymine with two hydrogen bonds (A = T). A = Adenine
T = Thymine
 Cytosine links guanine with three hydrogen bonds (C ≡ G).
C = Cytosine
 Nucleotides are joined by phosphodiester bonds. G = Guanine
 DNA consists of two polynucleotide chains.
9. If we cross two different parents with the genotype of Tt x tt, what would be the genotype
ratio in its 𝑭𝟏 generation? [PTA – 3]
F1 generation T t
t Tt tt Genotypic ratio = Tt : tt = 2 : 2 = 1: 1
t Tt tt
10. Differentiate phenotype and genotype. [PTA – 4]

Genotype Phenotype
1. Present inside body as genetic material. 1. Expression of genes as external appearance.
2. Determined by scientific methods. 2. Determined by observing the organism.
3. Affected by genes. 3. Affected by genotype & environmental conditions.

1. Flowers of the garden pea are bisexual and self-pollinated. Therefore, it is difficult to
perform hybridization experiment by crossing a particular pistil with the specific pollen
grains. How Mendel made it possible in his monohybrid and dihybrid crosses?
Mendel made this possible by following techniques
 Emasculation: Anthers are removed
 Bagging : Female flower is covered by polythene bag.
Pollen grains are collected from desired plant and dusted on the stigma in consideration.
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Two Marks 33
2. Pure-bred tall pea plants are first crossed with pure-bred dwarf pea plants. The pea plants
obtained in F1 generation are then selfed to produce F2 generation of pea plants. [MDL – 19]
a) What do the plants of F1 generation look like? All are tall plants.
b) What is the ratio of tall plants to dwarf plants in
3:1
F2 generation?
c) Which type of plants were missing in F1 generation but
Dwarf plants
reappeared in F2 generation?
3. Kavitha gave birth to a female baby. Her family members say that she can give birth to
only female babies because of her family history. Is the statement given by her family
members true. Justify your answer.
 No, Kavitha is not responsible for the gender of her child. Father determines the sex.
 If egg is fused with X - bearing sperm (22+X) it produces a female child (44+XX).
 If egg is fused with Y - bearing sperm (22+Y) it produces a male child (44+XY).
 Thus, sperm of father, determines the sex. So, Kavitha and her family is not responsible.
IX. Value based question
1. Under which conditions does the law of independent assortment hold good and why?
Law of independent assortment holds goods only if different gene pairs lie in different
chromosome pairs, because chromosomes segregates during meiosis and not individual genes.
19. ORIGIN AND EVOLUTION OF LIFE

1. The degenerated wing of a kiwi is an acquired character. Why is it an acquired
character? [PTA – 3]
 Kiwi have learnt to walk. According to use and disuse theory, wings of Kiwi degenerate.
 This occurs in response to their change in habitat. Thus, it is an acquired character.
2. Why is Archaeopteryx considered to be a connecting link?
 Archaeopteryx had wings with feathers, like a bird.
 It had a long tail, clawed digits and conical teeth, like a reptile.
3. Define Ethnobotany and write its importance. [AUG – 2022, PTA – 2, SEP – 2020]
Ethnobotany is the study of a region’s plants and uses through traditional knowledge of local people.
Importance of Ethnobotany:
 It provides traditional uses of plants.
 It gives information about known and unknown useful plants.
 It provides information for preparing herbal medicine to treat various diseases.
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4. How can you determine the age of the fossils? [MDL – 19, SEP – 2020]
 Age of fossils is determined by radioactive elements like carbon, lead or potassium in it.
 Radioactive carbon (C14) dating method discovered by W.F. Libby (1956) is used often.
 Carbon consumption stops after death. After that C14 starts decaying continuously.
 Time after death can be calculated by measuring the amount of C14 present in their body.
Additional Question
5. What is Evolution? Who proposed the theories of evolution? [MAY-2022, SEP – 2021]
 Evolution is the gradual change occurring in living organisms over a period of time.
 Lamarck and Darwin proposed the theories of evolution.
1. Arun was playing in the garden. Suddenly he saw a dragon fly sitting on a plant. He
observed the wings of it. He thought it looked similar to a wing of a crow. Is he correct?
Give reason for your answer. [PTA – 2]
i) No, the wings are different. Wings of dragon fly are thin and transparent, whereas wings
of crow are strong, muscular and covered with feathers.
ii) Wings of dragon fly and crow have same function, but their origin and pattern are
different. These are called analogous organs.
2. Imprints of fossils tell us about evolution - How?

 Fossils are the preserved traces of animals, plants, and other organisms.
 Fossils provide solid evidence that organisms from the past are not the same as today
 Fossils show a progression of evolution.
 Fossil record tells the story of past and shows the evolution over millions of years.
3. Octopus, cockroach and frog all have eyes. Can we group these animals together to
establish a common evolutionary origin. Justify your answer. [PTA – 4]
i) No, we cannot group these animals together to establish a common evolutionary origin.
ii) Because, we need more similarities, to group them together.
iii) They have major dissimilarities like octopus is aquatic, frog is amphibian whereas
cockroach is non-aquatic.
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Two Marks 35
20. BREEDING AND BIOTECHNOLOGY

1. Discuss the method of plant breeding for disease resistance. [PTA – 6]
Developing disease resistant crops, would increase yield and reduce fungicides & bactericides.
Examples of disease resistant crop varieties
Crop Variety Resistance to diseases
Wheat Himgiri Leaf and stipe rust, hill bund
Cauliflower Pusa Shubhra, Pusa snowball K-1 Black rot
Cowpea Pusa Komal Bacterial blight
Selection and Hybridization are few methods of plant breeding to get disease resistant plants.
2. Name three improved characteristics of wheat that helped India to achieve high productivity.
i) Sonalika, Kalyan Sona – High-yielding, semi-dwarf [PTA – 4]
ii) Himgiri – Diseases resistance
iii) Atlas – 66 – Improved nutritional quality
3. Name two maize hybrids rich in amino acid lysine. [MAY - 2022, MDL – 19]
Protina, Shakti, Rathna are maize hybrids rich in amino acid lysine.
4. Distinguish between :
a) Somatic gene therapy and Germ line gene therapy. [SEP – 2021, PTA – 1]
Somatic gene therapy Germ line gene therapy
1. It replaces defective gene in somatic cells. It replaces defective gene in germ cell.
2. It cannot be carried to next generation. It can be carried to next generation.
b) Undifferentiated cells and Differentiated cells.
Undifferentiated cells Differentiated cells
1. Unspecialised cells. 1. Specialised cells.
2. Have variable potency. 2. Perform specific function.
3. Ex : Stem cells. 3. Ex : Nerve cell, etc.
5. State the applications of DNA fingerprinting technique. [SEP – 2020, PTA – 3]
 It is used in forensic.
 It is used for paternity testing.
 It helps in the study of genetic diversity, evolution and speciation.
6. How are stem cells useful in regenerative process?
When tissues and organs are permanently damaged or lost due to genetic condition or disease
or injury, stem cells are used to treat it.
7. Differentiate between outbreeding and inbreeding.
Outbreeding Inbreeding
1. Breeding of unrelated animals. Breeding of closely related animals within same breed.
2. Hybrids are stronger and vigorous. Accumulates superior genes. Eliminates undesired genes.
4. Ex : Mule Ex : Sheep Hissardale
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Additional Question
8. Explain about Gene Therapy. [SEP – 2020]
Gene therapy : Replacement of defective gene by direct transfer of functional genes to treat
genetic disease or disorder. Gene is altered using recombinant DNA technology.
Two Types : i) Somatic gene therapy ii) Germ line gene therapy
1. A breeder wishes to incorporate desirable characters into the crop plants. Prepare a list
of characters he will incorporate.
 Higher productivity and better quality
 Disease resistance
 Insects/pests resistance
 Shorter duration
 Nutritional Quality
 Semi dwarf varieties
2. Polyploids are characterised by gigantism. Justify your answer.

 In polyploidy, genome becomes larger. So, nucleus and cells are also larger. Hence,
they produce larger leaves, stems, flowers and fruits.
 Thus, polyploids are characterised by gigantism.

1. What are the various routes by which transmission of human immuno deficiency virus
takes place? [PTA – 1]
 Sexual contact with infected person.
 Use of contaminated needles (or) syringes.
 By transfusion of infected blood or blood products.
 From infected mother to child through placenta.
2. How is a cancer cell different from a normal cell? [SEP – 2021, PTA – 4]
Cancer cell Normal cell
1) Abnormal cell division & growth 1) Cell division & growth are normal & controlled.
2) Undergo metathesis. 2) Do not undergo metathesis.
3) They invade & destroy surrounding tissues. 3) They do not invade & destroy surrounding tissues.
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Two Marks 37
3. Differentiate between Type-1 and Type-2 diabetes mellitus. [PTA – 4]

Type -1 Type-2
Factors
Diabetes Mellitus(IDDM) Diabetes Mellitus (NIDDM)
Prevalence 10-20% 80 - 90%
Age of onset Juvenile onset (< 20 years) Maturity onset (>30 years)
Body weight Normal (or) Underweight Obese
Defect Insulin deficiency Target cells do not respond to insulin
Treatment Insulin administration Diet, exercise and medicine
4. Why is a dietary restriction recommended for an obese individual?
 Obesity is a risk factor for hypertension, diabetes, gall bladder disease, heart disease, etc,.
 Hence, dietary restrictions would be effective for an obese individual.
5. What precautions can be taken for preventing heart diseases? [SEP – 2020, MDL – 19]
i) Diet Management :
 Reduce the intake of calories, fat and cholesterol rich food, low carbohydrates and salt.
 Increase the intake of fibre diet, fruits, vegetables, proteins, minerals and vitamins.
ii) Physical activity : Regular exercise, walking and yoga.
iii) Avoid Addictive substance : Alcohol and smoking should be avoided.
Additional Question
6. Write the measures adopted for protection of an abused child. [SEP – 2020]
 Child helpline  Counselling  Legal counsel
 Family support  Rehabilitation  Medical care
X. Higher order thinking skills (HOTS)

1. What is the role of fat in the cause of atherosclerosis? [PTA – 3]
 In Atherosclerosis, arteries become narrowed and hardened due to plaque around its wall.
 Plaque is the deposition of fat cholesterols. Thus, fat plays a major role in atherosclerosis.
2. Eating junk food and consuming soft drinks results in health problems like obesity, still
children prefer. What are the suggestions you would give to avoid children eating junk
food/ consumption of soft drinks?
 Instead of soft drinks, drink fresh fruit juices, energy drinks.
 Replacing Junk foods by sprouts, pulses, cereals.
 Media awareness is very essential.
3. Regular physical exercise is advisable for normal functioning of human body. What are
the advantages of practicing exercise in daily life? [PTA – 6]
 It makes us feel happier, energetic and active.
 It helps us in weight loss and prevent us from Obesity.
 It can reduce the risk of many diseases.
 Increases muscle strength and endurance.
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4. A leading weekly magazine has recently published a survey analysis, which says that
number of AIDS patient in the country is increasing day by day. The report says that the
awareness among the people about AIDS is still very poor. You are discussing the
magazine report in your class and a team of your class decides to help people to fight
against the dreadful disease.
a) What problem you face when trying to educate the people in your village near by your school?
 We hesitate to talk and people embarrassed to listen about AIDS.
 It creates a negative impact of isolating the AIDS patients.
b) How do you overcome the problem?
 We shall go with teachers, NGOs and activists.
 We can show them slideshows.
XI. Value based questions
1. Once a person starts taking drugs or alcohol it is difficult to get rid of the habit. Why?
 Because drug addicts often feel a strong urge to take alcohol.
 They have a strong belief that drug alone can help them in stress.
 On regular usage, they become fully dependent and cannot live without drugs.
2. Men addicted to tobacco lead to oxygen deficiency in their body. What could be the
possible reason?
Carbon monoxide of tobacco smoke binds to haemoglobin of RBC and decrease its oxygen
carrying capacity. This leads to oxygen deficiency in their body.
3. Name any three foods that are to be avoided and included in the diet of a diabetic patient.
Why should it be followed?
Foods to be included : Flax seeds, guavas, tomatoes, green leafy vegetables and spinach.
Foods to be avoided : Sweets, refined sugar, high fat content food, fruits juices
Reason : Because, the above diet helps to reduce and control blood sugar levels.
4. How can informational efforts change people’s HIV knowledge and behaviour?[PTA –5]
Informational efforts could change people’s knowledge and behaviour in the following ways,
 Campaigns can provide clear knowledge on causes and consequences of AIDS.
 People’s attitude towards the infected people would change.
 People Insist disposable needles syringes and screening of blood before transfusion.
 People encourages measures for safe sex.
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Two Marks 39

1. What is the importance of rain water harvesting? [MAY - 2022,PTA – 4]
 It overcomes the rapid depletion of groundwater levels.
 It satisfies the increased demand of water.
 It reduces flood and soil erosion.
 Ground water is not contaminated. So, it can be used for drinking.
2. What are the advantages of using biogas? [PTA – 1]
 It causes less pollution.
 Excellent way to get rid of organic wastes.
 Left over slurry is a good manure.
 It is safe and convenient to use.
 It reduces the amount of greenhouse gases emitted.
3. What are the environmental effects caused by sewage?
 Sewage is the major water pollutant in India.
 It causes agricultural contamination and environmental degradation.
 Contaminated water can cause diseases.
4. What are the consequences of deforestation?
Deforestation gives rise to ecological problems like flood, drought, soil erosion, loss of
wildlife, extinction, imbalances, changes in climatic conditions, desertification, etc,.
Additional Question
5. What is 3R approach? [PTA - 1]
Reduce, Reuse and Recycle methods used for waste management is called 3R approach.
1. Although coal and petroleum are produced by degradation of biomass, yet we need to
conserve them. Why? [PTA – 2]
 Coal and petroleum are fossil fuels.
 Formation of fossil fuel is a very slow process. It takes a very time for renewal.
 Degradation of biomass takes millions of years to get converted into coal and petroleum.
 They get exhausted if we continue using them at rapid rate. So, we need to conserve them.
2. What are the objectives for replacing non-conventional energy resources from
conventional energy resources?
 They are available easily in unlimited quantity.
 They can be renewed quickly.
 They produce less pollution.
 They can be used continuously.
3. Why is the Government imposing ban on the use of polythene bags and plastics? Suggest
alternatives. How is this ban likely to improve the environment?
Reasons for banning polythene bags and plastics:
 Plastics can not degrade naturally causing pollutions in land, soil and water.
 Burning of plastics leads to air pollution.
 Plastics prevent absorption of water into Earth, which reduces groundwater level.
 Polythene bags are accidentally eaten by animals. It harms them and may lead to death.
Alternatives : Use containers, cloth bags, paper wraps, compostable bags, jute bags.
Improvement : Reduces various pollutions and improves health of individuals.
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X. Value based questions
1. Why is it not possible to use solar cells to meet our energy needs? State three reason to
support to your answer.
Reasons:
 High installation cost.
 Limited availability of silicon to make solar cells.
 Efficiency of energy conversion and storage is low.
 Solar energy can be obtained only during day time.
2. How would you dispose the following wastes?
a) Domestic wastes like vegetable peels b) Industrial wastes like metallic cans
Can the disposal protect the environment? How?
a) Domestic wastes have to be disposed in compost pits. Yes, this protects the
environment because it is used as manure and improves soil fertility.
b) Industrial wastes like metallic cans can be recycled. Yes, this disposal protects the
environment because it causes no pollution and there is no left over.
3. List any three activities based on 4R approach to conserve natural resources.
1. Use of public transport instead of personal transport - Reduces fuel consumption.
2. Materials like paper can be reused & recycled.
3. Use of plastics should be reduced, reused and recycled.
4. Recovery – Conversion of waste materials into resources like electricity, fuel etc.,
23. VISUAL COMMUNICATION

1. What is Scratch?
 Scratch is used to create animations, cartoons and games easily.
 It is a visual programming language.
 Developed in MIT Media Lab to make programming easier and more fun to learn.
2. Write a short note on script editor and its main parts.
Script / costume editor: It is the place where we edit our programs.
i) Script area : We build scripts here.
ii) Block menu : We choose the category of blocks here.
iii) Block palette: We choose the blocks here.
3. What is Stage? [SEP – 2020]
 Stage is the background that appears when we open scratch.
 Background will mostly be white. We can change it.
4. What is Sprite?
 Characters on the background of a Scratch are known as sprite.
 Software has facilities to make alternations in sprite.
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Five Marks 1
Five MARKS
1. What are the types of inertia? Give an example for each type. [AUG – 2022, PTA – 3]
a) Inertia of rest: It is the resistance of a body to change its state of rest.
Ex : When we shake a tree, leaves and fruits fall down.
b) Inertia of motion : It is the resistance of a body to change its state of motion.
Ex : An athlete runs some distance before jumping for a longer and higher jump.
c) Inertia of direction : It is the resistance of a body to change its direction of motion.
Ex : When car turns, we lean sideways.
2. State Newton’s laws of motion. [AUG – 2022, SEP – 2021]
a) Newton's First law :
Every body continues to be in its state of rest or the state of uniform motion along a straight
line unless some external force acts upon it.
b) Newton's second law :
The force acting on a body is directly proportional to the rate of change of linear momentum
of the body and the change in momentum takes place in the direction of the force. 𝐅 = 𝒎𝒂
c) Newton's third law :
For every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction. FB = - FA
3. Deduce the equation of a force using Newton’s second law of motion. (or) A body of mass m
is initially moving with a velocity u. When a force ‘F’ acts on the body it picks up velocity ‘v’
in ‘t second’ so that the acceleration ‘a’ is produced. Using this data derive the relation
between the force, mass and acceleration. [PTA – 5]
Newton's second law of motion :
The force acting on a body is directly proportional to the rate of change of linear momentum of
the body and the change in momentum takes place in the direction of the force.
Derivation for the equation of force:
Let, m → mass of a moving body u → initial velocity
F → unbalanced external force v → final velocity after a time interval 't'
Initial momentum 𝑃𝑖 = 𝑚𝑢 ,
Final momentum 𝑃𝑓 = 𝑚𝑣
Change in momentum, ∆𝑃 = 𝑃𝑓 − 𝑃𝑖 = 𝑚𝑣 − 𝑚𝑢
𝐶ℎ𝑎𝑛𝑔𝑒 𝑖𝑛 𝑚𝑜𝑚𝑒𝑛𝑡𝑢𝑚
𝐹∝
𝑡𝑖𝑚𝑒
𝑚𝑣−𝑚𝑢 𝑣−𝑢
𝐹= =𝑚 [ ];
𝑡 𝑡
𝑣−𝑢
F = ma (∵ a= )
𝑡
𝐅𝐨𝐫𝐜𝐞 = 𝐦𝐚𝐬𝐬 × 𝐚𝐜𝐜𝐞𝐥𝐞𝐫𝐚𝐭𝐢𝐨𝐧
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4. State and prove the law of conservation of linear momentum. [MDL – 19]
Law of Conservation of momentum:
There is no change in the linear momentum of a system of bodies as long as no net external
force acts on them.
Proof:
 Let A and B with mass m1, m2 move in straight line with velocity u1, u2 such that u1 > u2.
 At ‘t second’, they have a collision.
 After collision, A and B move in same straight line with velocity v1 and v2.
𝑚2 (𝑣2 − 𝑢2 ) 𝑚1 (𝑣1 − 𝑢1 )
𝐹𝐴 = -------- (1) 𝐹𝐵 = -------- (2)
𝑡 𝑡
By Newton's third law, FB = −FA
𝑚1 (𝑣1 − 𝑢1 ) = − 𝑚2 (𝑣2 − 𝑢2 )
𝑚1 𝑣1 − 𝑚1 𝑢1 = − 𝑚2 𝑣2 + 𝑚2 𝑢2
𝑚1 𝑣1 + 𝑚2 𝑣2 = 𝑚1 𝑢1 + 𝑚2 𝑢2
Hence the law is proved.

5. Describe rocket propulsion. [AUG – 2022, SEP – 2020, PTA – 4]
Principle: Law of conservation of linear momentum and Newton’s III law of motion.
 When rocket is fired, fuel is burnt and hot gas is ejected with high speed & huge momentum.
 To balance this momentum, an equal & opposite force is produced, projecting rocket forward.
 In motion, mass of rocket decreases, until the fuel is completely burnt.
 There is no net external force acting on it, and so linear momentum is conserved.
 Mass of rocket decreases with altitude. This increases the velocity and reaches escape velocity,
which is sufficient to just escape from the gravitational pull of Earth.
6. State the universal law of gravitation and derive its mathematical expression.
Newton's Universal Law of gravitation :
 Gravitational force is directly proportional to the product of masses and inversely
proportional to the square of the distance between the center of these masses.
 The direction of the force acts along the line joining the masses.
Mathematical Expression of Universal Law of gravitation :
Let, m1 and m2 be the masses of two bodies A and B
Let r be the distance between them.
m 1 m2 𝐦𝟏 𝐦𝟐
F ∝ ⇒ F=𝐆
r2 𝐫𝟐
Where Universal gravitational constant, G = 6.674 × 10−11 Nm2 kg−2
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Five Marks 3
7. Give the applications of universal law of gravitation.

i) Helps to calculate mass and radius of earth, acceleration due to gravity, etc.
ii) Helps in discovering new stars and planets.
iii) Helps to predict the path of astronomical bodies.
iv) Helps to maintain the motion of planets around the sun and moon around the earth.
v) Helps to maintain water flow in rivers and seas.
Additional Question
8. Describe the applications of torque. [SEP – 2020]
Gears : It helps to change the speed of rotation of wheel by changing torque.
Seasaw : The heavier person lifts the lighter person on a seasaw.
Steering wheel : It transfers the torque to the wheels of a car with less effort.
IX. Hot Questions
1. “Wearing helmet and fastening the seat belt is highly recommended for safe journey”
Justify your answer using Newton’s laws of motion.
Wearing helmet is highly recommended for safe journey:
 When you fall from a bike, you fall with a force equal to your mass and acceleration of the
bike (Newton's second law).

 An equal and opposite force is exerted on you (Newton's third law).
 Wearing helmet will reduce the effect of force and saves us from fatal head injuries.
 So, it is important to wear helmet for the safe journey.
Fastening the seat belt is highly recommended for safe journey:

 When vehicle stops suddenly, by law of inertia, we will be in motion until a force act
on us.
 If we don't wear a seat belt, we would get hurt during this motion.
 If we wear a seat belt, the seat belt gives us an unbalanced force that stops us.
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1. List any five properties of light. (Write any five points) [MAY - 2022]
 Light is a form of energy.
 Light always travels along a straight line.
 Light does not need any medium for its propagation. It can even travel through vacuum.
 The speed of light in air (or) vacuum is c = 3 × 108 ms −1
 Different coloured light has different wavelength and frequency.
2. Explain the rules for obtaining images formed by a convex lens with the help of ray diagram.
Rule - 1
When a ray of light strikes the convex lens obliquely
at its optical centre, it continues to follow its path
without any deviation.
Rule - 2
When rays parallel to the principal axis strikes a
convex lens, the refracted rays are converged to the
principal focus.
Rule - 3
When a ray passing through the principal focus
strikes a convex lens, the refracted ray will be parallel
to the principal axis.
3. Differentiate the eye defects: Myopia and Hypermetropia. [AUG - 22, SEP - 21, PTA - 6]
Myopia (short sightedness) Hypermetropia (long sightedness)

1. Nearby objects can be seen clearly. 1. Nearby objects cannot be seen clearly.
2. Distant objects cannot be seen clearly. 2. Distant objects can be seen clearly.
3. Due to lengthening of eye ball 3. Due to shortening of eye ball.
4. Far point comes closer. 4. Near point moves farther.
5. Image is formed before retina. 5. Image is formed behind retina.
6. Corrected using concave lens. 6. Corrected using convex lens.
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Five Marks 5
4. Explain the construction and working of a ‘Compound Microscope’.

Construction :
 It consists of two convex lenses.
 Objective lens: have shorter focal length, placed near object.
 Eye lens: have larger focal length and larger aperture, placed near the observer's eye.
 Both lenses are fixed in a narrow tube with adjustable provision.
Working :
 Object AB is placed beyond the focal length of objective lens ( 𝑢 > 𝐹o )
 A real, inverted and magnified image A' B' is formed at the other side of objective lens.
 A'B' acts as the object for eye lens.
 Eye lens is adjusted, so that A'B' falls within its principal focus.
 Virtual, enlarged and erect image A''B'' is formed on the same side of object.
5. An object AB is placed at the centre of curvature C of the convex lens as shown in the
picture. Complete the ray diagram. [PTA – 1]
Question Answer
6. Write advantages and disadvantages of telescope.

Advantages of Telescopes : [PTA – 3]
 Elaborate view of the Galaxies, Planets, stars and other heavenly bodies is possible.
 Camera can be attached for taking photograph.
 Telescope can be viewed even with the low intensity of light.
Disadvantages of Telescopes :
 Frequent maintenances needed.
 It is not easily portable one.
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7. i) Draw the ray diagram of image formation in simple microscope [PTA – 2]
ii) Find the position and write its nature and size of the image formed by Simple microscope.
iii) Mention the uses of simple microscope.
i) Ray diagram :
ii) Position, nature and size of the image :

 Object (AB) is placed within principal focus and observer’s eye is just behind the lens.
 An erect, virtual and enlarged image (A'B') is formed in the same side of the object
 Distance is equal to the least distance of distinct vision (D).
iii) Uses of Simple microscope : [SEP – 2020]
 Used by watch repairers and jewellers.
 To read small letters clearly.
 To observe parts of flowers, insects, etc.,
 To observe fingerprints in the field of forensic science.
1. Derive the ideal gas equation.

According to Boyle’s law PV = Constant ……………(1)
𝑉
According to Charles’s law = Constant …………….(2)
𝑇
V
According to Avogadro’s law = Constant ……………..(3)
n
𝐏𝐕
Combine (1), (2) & (3) = Constant ……………(4)
𝐧𝐓
This is called a combined law of gases.
Gas contains 𝜇 moles. ∴ 𝐧 = 𝛍𝐍𝐀 ………………….(5)
𝑃𝑉
(5) in (4), = Constant
𝜇N𝐴 𝑇
PV
= k B (k B = Boltzmann constant = 1.38 × 10−23 JK −1 )
μNA T
PV = μNA k B T
Considering μNA k B = R = 8.31 J mol−1 K−1 R is Universal gas constant.
Thus ideal gas equation (or) equation of state is 𝐏𝐕 = 𝐑𝐓.
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Five Marks 7
2. Explain the experiment of measuring the real and apparent expansion of a liquid with a
neat diagram. [MDL – 19]
Real expansion = 𝐋𝟑 − 𝐋𝟐
Apparent expansion = 𝐋𝟑 − 𝐋𝟏
 Liquid is poured in a container upto a level L1. Heat it using a burner.

 Initially container expands. Hence, volume of liquid is reduced. Mark this level as L2 .
 On further heating, the liquid expands and the level of liquid rises to L3 .
 Difference between L1 and L3 is called apparent expansion.
 Difference between L2 and L3 is called real expansion.
 Real expansion is always more than apparent expansion.
4. ELECTRICITY
1. With the help of a circuit diagram, derive the formula for the resultant resistance of three
resistances connected: a) in series and b) in parallel
a) Resistance in Series :
R1, R2 and R3 are the resistors in series, Rs = resultant resistance,
V1, V2 and V3 are potential differences. Current is same and let it be I.
According to ohm’s law,
V1 = IR1 ⟶ (1)
V2 = IR2 ⟶ (2)
V3 = IR3 ⟶ (3)
V = IRs ⟶ (4)
The sum of the potential differences of each resistor is
V = V1 + V2 + V3 ⟶ (5)
IRs = IR1 + IR2 + IR3
Rs = R1 + R2 + R3
∴ When resistors are in series, resultant resistance is the sum of individual resistances.
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b) Resistance in parallel : [PTA – 4]
R1, R2 and R3 are the resistors in parallel, Rp = resultant resistance.
Potential difference is same for all resistors.
Current I at A divides into I1, I2 and I3.
According to ohm’s law,
V
I1 = R …………………………… (1)
1
V
I2 = R …………………………… (2)
2
V
I3 = R …………………………… (3)
3
V
I=R ..………………………..… (4)
P
Total current is
I = I1 + I2 + I3……………………… (5)
V V V V
⇒ = + +
RP R1 R2 R3
1 1 1 1
= + +
RP R1 R2 R3
∴ When resistors are in parallel, the sum of the reciprocals of individual resistance is equal to
the reciprocal of resultant resistance.
2. a) What is meant by electric current? [MAY - 2022,PTA – 1]
It is the rate of flow of charges in a conductor. (or) It is the amount of charges flowing in any
cross section of a conductor in unit time.
𝐐
I=
𝐭
b) Name and define its unit. (or) Define the unit of electric current. [MAY - 2022,PTA– 1]
 SI unit of electric current is ampere (A).
 Current flowing through a conductor is said to be one ampere, when a charge of one
coulomb flows across any cross-section of a conductor, in one second.
𝟏 𝐜𝐨𝐮𝐥𝐨𝐦𝐛
1 ampere =
𝟏 𝐬𝐞𝐜𝐨𝐧𝐝
c) Which instrument is used to measure the electric current? How should it be connected in
a circuit? [MAY - 2022,PTA– 1]
Ammeter. It should be connected in series in a circuit.
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Five Marks 9
3. a) State Joule’s law of heating. (Or) Write two properties of the heat produced in any
resistor, according to the Joules Law of heating.
Joules’ law of heating states that the heat produced in any resistor is
 directly proportional to the square of the current.
 directly proportional to the resistance.
 directly proportional to the time.
H = 𝐈𝟐 𝐑 𝐭
b) An alloy of nickel and chromium is used as the heating element. Why?
(i) It has high resistivity and high melting point.
(ii) It is not easily oxidized.
c) How does a fuse wire protect electrical appliances?
 When a large current passes, the fuse wire melts due to joule’s heating effect. Hence, the
circuit gets disconnected. Thus, electric appliances are saved from any damage.
4. Explain about domestic electric circuits.(circuit diagram not required) [SEP – 2020]
Source :
Electricity produced in power stations is distributed to domestic circuits through overhead and
underground cables. Power supply is brought to main-box from a distribution panel.
Main-box :
Meter : Used to record the consumption of electrical energy.
Fuse box : Contains fuse wire or miniature circuit breaker (MCB). Used to protect appliances.
Types of wires :
 Live wire has red insulation.  Neutral wire has black insulation.
Domestic electric circuit :
 Alternating current with electric potential of 220 V is supplied.
 Live wire connected via main fuse and neutral wire enter into electricity meter.
 These wires then enter into main switch.
 There are two separate circuits :
5 A rating – for low power rating appliances. Ex : Tube lights, Bulbs, Fans
15 A rating – for high power rating appliances. Ex : AC, Fridge, Heaters
 Circuits are in parallel. Disconnection of one will not affect the other. Each get equal voltage.
5. a) What are the advantages of LED TV 5. b) List the merits of LED bulb. [PTA – 1]
over the normal TV? [PTA – 6]  There is no loss of energy in the form
 It has brighter picture quality. of heat. It is cooler.
 It is thinner in size.  It requires low power.
 It uses less power  It is not harmful to environment.
 It consumes less energy.  It is cost efficient and energy efficient.
 Its life span is more.  Many colours are available.
 It is more reliable.
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Additional Question
6. Write the symbols and uses of the components commonly used in a circuit.
Component Use of the component Symbol used
Resistor Used to fix the magnitude of current.

[SEP – 21]
Variable resistor or
Used to select the magnitude of current.
Rheostat
Ammeter Used to measure current.
Voltmeter Used to measure potential difference.
Galvanometer Used to detect current and its direction.
A diode It is used in electronic devices.

[SEP–21]
Light Emitting Diode

It is used in seven segment display.
(LED) [SEP–21]
It provides protection. It act as a reference

Ground connection
point to measure electric potential. [SEP–21]
5. ACOUSTICS
1. What are the factors that affect the speed of sound in gases?
i) Effect of density :
Velocity of sound in a gas is inversely proportional to the square root of its density.
𝟏
V 𝛂 √
𝐝
ii) Effect of temperature :
 Velocity of sound in a gas is directly proportional to the square root of its temperature.
V ∝ √𝐓
 Velocity of sound at a temperature T is, VT = (V0 + 0.61T) ms–1
Where, V0 →velocity of sound in the gas at 0° C.
iii) Effect of relative humidity :
When humidity increases, the speed of sound increases. That is why we can hear sound
from long distances clearly during rainy seasons.
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Five Marks 11
2. What is mean by reflection of sound? Explain: a) Reflection at the boundary of a rarer medium
b) Reflection at the boundary of a denser medium c) Reflection at curved surfaces
Reflection of Sound: It is the bouncing of sound waves from the interface between two media.
a) Reflection at boundary - rarer medium :
 A wave travelling in a solid medium strikes the
interface between solid and air.
 Compression exerts a force F on the surface of air
which is pushed backwards as air has smaller resistance.
 As particles are free to move, rarefaction is produced
at the interface which travels from right to left.
b) Reflection at boundary - denser medium :
 Suppose a compression travelling in air from left to
right, on reaching a rigid wall exerts a force F.
 In turn, the wall exerts an equal and opposite reaction
R= – F. Thus, a compression travelling towards the
rigid wall is reflected back as a compression.
c) Reflection at curved surfaces:
 Intensity of reflected waves is changed.
 If it is a convex surface, reflected waves are diverged and intensity is decreased.
 If it is a concave surface; reflected waves are converged and intensity is focused at a point.
3. a) What do you understand by the term ‘ultrasonic vibration’? [SEP – 2020]
These are vibrations with a frequency greater than 20 kHz. Human ear cannot detect this.
Ex: Waves produced by bats.
b) State three uses of ultrasonic vibrations.
 Used in Ultrasonic soldering and welding.
 Used to scan the growth of foetus.
 Used in Sonar.
 Used to forecast tsunami and earthquakes.
c) Name three animals, which can hear ultrasonic vibrations.
1. Mosquito, 2. Dogs, 3. Bats
4. What is an echo?
a) State two conditions necessary for hearing an echo. [PTA – 1]
b) What are the medical applications of echo? [PTA – 1, SEP - 2020]
c) How can you calculate the speed of sound using echo?
Echo: It is the sound reproduced due to reflection from rigid surfaces like walls, ceilings, etc.
a) Two conditions necessary for hearing an echo:
1. Minimum time gap between original sound and an echo must be 0.1 s.
2. Minimum distance required to hear an echo is 1/20 times the magnitude of velocity of sound.
b) The medical applications of echo:
Echo is used in obstetric ultrasonography. It capture images of fetus in mother’s uterus.
c) Calculation of speed of sound :
𝐃𝐢𝐬𝐭𝐚𝐧𝐜𝐞 𝐭𝐫𝐚𝐯𝐞𝐥𝐥𝐞𝐝 𝟐𝐝
Speed of Sound = =
𝐓𝐢𝐦𝐞 𝐭𝐚𝐤𝐞𝐧 𝐭
Where 2d → distance travelled by sound from source to wall and then back to receiver.
t → time taken for an echo to be observed
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6. NUCLEAR PHYSICS
1. Explain the process of controlled and uncontrolled chain reactions.
Chain reaction: It is a self-propagating process in which the number of neutrons goes on
multiplying rapidly almost in a geometrical progression.
 Ex: When uranium (U-235) is bombarded with a neutron it produces 3 neutrons by
fission, these 3 neutrons cause fission reaction with another uranium.
 Thus neutrons are produced and fission reaction continues resulting in a chain reaction.
Controlled chain reaction:
 In this type, neutrons released is maintained to be one by absorbing the extra neutrons.
 Thus, the reaction is sustained in a controlled manner.
 Energy released can be utilized for constructive purposes.
 Ex: Nuclear reactor
Uncontrolled chain reaction:
 Neutrons multiplies indefinitely and causes fission of fissile material in a large amount.
 Thus, huge energy is released within a fraction of a second.
 Ex: Atom bomb
2. Compare the properties of alpha, beta and gamma radiations. [SEP – 2020]
Properties α rays β rays γ rays (PTA – 3)
Definition 4
Helium nucleus (2He ). 0
Electrons (-1e ). Electromagnetic waves.
Positively charged Negatively charged neutral particles
Charge
Charge is +2e. Charge is –e. Charge is 0.
Ionising power Very high. Lower than α rays. Very less.
Penetrating
Low Greater than α rays. Very high
power
electric and Deflected by both fields; Not deflected by both
Deflected by both fields.
magnetic field but in opposite direction fields.
1/10 to 1/20 times the speed can go up to 9/10 times
Speed Same as speed of light.
of light. the speed of light.
3. What is a nuclear reactor? Explain its essential parts with their functions.
Nuclear reactor
 It is a device in which nuclear fission reaction takes place in a self-sustained and
controlled manner to produce electricity. The essential components are,
Fuel  A fissile material is used. Ex : Uranium (or) Radium
Moderator  Used to slow down high energy neutrons. Ex: Graphite, heavy water
 Used to control the number of neutrons, to have sustained chain
Control rod
reaction. Ex : Boron (or) Cadmium rods
 Used to remove the heat produced in core reactor. Ex : Water, air, helium
Coolant
 Steam is used to run turbine to produce electricity.
 A thick concrete lead wall around the nuclear reactor prevents harmful
Protection wall
radiations from escaping into environment.
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Five Marks 13
4. Compare nuclear fission and nuclear fusion. (or) Write the features of nuclear fission and
nuclear fusion. [MDL – 19, PTA – 6]
Nuclear Fission Nuclear Fusion
1 It is the process of breaking up (splitting) It is the combination of two lighter nuclei to

of a heavy nucleus into two smaller nuclei. form a heavier nucleus.
2 Performed at room temperature. High temperature & pressure is needed.
3 Alpha, beta & gamma rays are emitted. Alpha rays, positrons, & neutrinos are emitted.
4 Emission of gamma rays causes diseases. Only light and heat energy is emitted.
5. Explain uses of radioactivity in various fields.

In Agriculture: Radio isotope of phosphorous (P - 32):
 Used to increase the productivity of crops. [MAY - 2022]
 Used to kill insects and parasites.
 Prevents the wastage of agricultural products.
 Very small doses prevent sprouting and spoilage of onions, potatoes and gram.
In Medicine: Radio isotopes can be used for Diagnosis & Therapy of various diseases.
 Radio sodium (Na24): Used for the effective functioning of heart. [PTA – 2]
 Radio iodine (I131): Used to cure goiter.
 Radio iron (Fe59): Used to diagnose & treat anaemia.
 Radio phosphorous (P32): Used in treatment of skin diseases.
 Radio cobalt (Co60) and radio gold (Au198): Used in treatment of skin cancer.
In Industries: [PTA – 4]
 Used to detect defects and faults.
 Used to check levels of gases, liquids and solids.
 Used in airlines to detect explosives in luggage.
 Used as smoke detector.
In Archeological research: Radio carbon dating - Determine the age.
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1. Calculate the number of water molecule present in one drop of water, which weighs 0.18 g.
Molecular mass of H2O= (1 × 2) + 16 = 18 g
Mass of water
Number of molecules = × Avogadro number
Molecular mass
0.18
= × 6.023 × 1023
18
∴ The No. of water molecules = 6.023× 1021
2. N2 + 3 H2 → 2 NH3 (The atomic mass of nitrogen is 14, and that of hydrogen is 1)

1 mole of nitrogen (__g) + 3 moles of hydrogen (__ g) → 2 moles of ammonia (__ g)
Mass = No. of moles × Molecular mass
Mass of N2 = 1 × (14 × 2) = 28
Mass of H2 = 3 × (1 × 2) = 6
Mass of NH3 = 2 × (14 + (3 × 1)) = 34
1 mole of nitrogen (28 g) + 3 moles of hydrogen (6 g) → 2 moles of ammonia (34 g)
3. Calculate the number of moles in i) 27g of Al ii) 1.51 × 1023 molecules of NH4Cl. [PTA – 5]
i) 27g of Al : ii) 1.51 × 1023 molecules of NH4Cl :
Mass of 𝑀𝑜𝑙𝑒𝑐𝑢𝑙𝑒 Number of Molecules
Number of moles = Number of moles =
Atomic mass of 𝑀𝑜𝑙𝑒𝑐𝑢𝑙𝑒 Avogadro number
27 1.51×1023
= = 1 mole = = 0.25 moles
27 6.023×1023
4. Give the salient features of “Modern atomic theory”. [AUG – 2022, SEP – 2020, PTA – 5]
 Atom is no longer indivisible. It is divided into electron, proton and neutron.
 Isotope : Atoms of the same element having different atomic mass. Ex : 17Cl35, 17Cl37
 Isobars : Atoms of different elements having same atomic masses. Ex :18Ar40, 20Ca40
 Artificial transmutation : Atom is no longer indestructible.
 Atoms may not always combine in a simple whole number ratio.
Ex : Glucose C6H12O6 C:H:O = 6:12:6 or 1:2:1
 Atom is the smallest particle that takes part in a chemical reaction.
 The mass of an atom can be converted into energy. E =mc2
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Five Marks 15
5. Derive the relationship between Relative molecular mass and Vapour density. [PTA-6, MDL-19]
Mass of 1 molecule of gas (or) vapour at STP
Relative Molecular Mass(RMM) = …………..(1)
mass of 1 atom of hydrogen
Mass of a given volume of gas (or) Vapour at STP
Vapour Density (V.D) = ……..…(2)
Mass of the same volume of Hydrogen
According to Avogadro’s law, Equal volumes of all gases contain equal number of molecules.
Let, number of molecules in the considered volume = n
Mass of 'n' molecules of a gas (or) Vapour at STP
∴ Vapour Density (at STP) =
mass of 'n' molecules of hydrogen
Mass of 1 molecule of a gas (or) Vapour at STP
Let n = 1, then VD =
mass of 1 molecule of hydrogen
Hydrogen is diatomic molecule so,

Mass of 1 molecule of gas (or)Vapour at STP
Vapour Density =
2×Mass of 1 atom of hydrogen
Mass of 1 molecule of gas (or) Vapour at STP
2 × Vapour density =
Mass of 1 atom of hydrogen
2 × Vapour density = Relative Molecular Mass [∵ By Eqn (1)]

Relative Molecular Mass = 2 × Vapour Density
6. Distinguish between atoms and molecules. [MAY - 2022]
Atom Molecule
1. Smallest particle of an element. 1. Smallest particle of an element / compound.
2. Does not exist in free state except noble gas. 2. Exists in free state.
3. Except some noble gas, others are highly reactive. 3. Less reactive.
4. Does not have a chemical bond. 4. Atoms are held by chemical bonds.
7. What is Avogadro’s Hypothesis? and state its application. [SEP – 2020]

Avogadro’s law / Hypothesis: “Equal volumes of all gases under similar conditions of
temperature and pressure contain equal number of molecules”.
Applications of Avogadro’s law:
i) Explains Gay-Lussac’s law.
ii) Helps in determining atomicity.
iii) Molecular formula can be derived.
iv) Determines the relation between molecular mass and vapour density.
v) Helps to determine gram molar volume.
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8. In chemical industries, the following chemical reaction is used to produce ammonia in
large scale. 𝐍𝟐 + 𝟑𝐇𝟐 ⇌ 𝟐𝐍𝐇𝟑 [PTA – 3]
Based on mole concept, calculate the mass of nitrogen gas and hydrogen gas required in
kilogram to produce 1000kg of ammonia by using the above chemical equation.
Mass of NH3 = 1000 kg =106 g
Molecular mass of NH3 = 14 + (3 × 1) = 17 g
𝑚𝑎𝑠𝑠 𝑜𝑓 𝑁𝐻3 𝑝𝑟𝑜𝑑𝑢𝑐𝑒𝑑 106
No. of moles of NH3 = =
𝑚𝑜𝑙𝑒𝑐𝑢𝑙𝑎𝑟 𝑚𝑎𝑠𝑠 𝑜𝑓𝑁𝐻3 17
Required Mass of H2 = No. of moles of H2 × Molecular mass
106 3
= × × (2 × 1) = 176.47 kg of H2
17 2
Required Mass of N2 = No. of moles of N2 × Molecular mass
106 1
= × 2 × (14 × 2) = 823.53 kg of N2
17
∴ Required mass of Nitrogen gas = 823.53 kg
Required mass of Hydrogen gas = 176.47 kg
ELEMENTS
1. a) State the reason for addition of caustic alkali to bauxite ore during purification of bauxite.
Caustic alkali dissolves Al2O3 forming soluble sodium meta aluminate while the
impurities remain insoluble. The filtered solution processed to get back its pure form.
Thus, caustic alkali is added to bauxite ore during its purification.
150℃
Al2O3 + 2 NaOH → 2 NaAlO2 + H2O
Bauxite ore sodium meta aluminate
NaAlO2 + 2 H2O → Al(OH)3 + NaOH

sodium meta aluminate Aluminium hydroxide
1000℃
2Al(OH)3 → Al2O3 + 3 H2O
Aluminium hydroxide Alumina
b) Along with cryolite and alumina, another substance is added to the electrolyte
mixture. Name the substance and give one reason for the addition.
 Fluorspar is the another substance.
Reason : It lowers the fusion temperature of electrolyte.
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Five Marks 17
2. The electronic configuration of metal A is 2, 8, 18, 1. The metal A when exposed to air and
moisture forms B, a green layered compound. A with con. H2SO4 forms C and D along with
water. D is a gaseous compound. Find A, B, C and D. [PTA – 1]
2 Cu + O2 + CO2 + H2O → CuCO3. Cu(OH)2

Copper carbonate (B) green layer
Cu + 2 H2SO4 → CuSO4 + SO2 ↑ + 2H2O

Copper sulphate(C) (D)
A → Copper (Cu)
B → Copper carbonate (CuCO3 . Cu(OH)2)
C → Copper sulphate (CuSO4)
D → Sulphur dioxide(SO2) gas
3. Explain Smelting Process.

Smelting Process: It is the process of reducing roasted metallic oxide into molten metal.
Smelting of iron: Charge consisting of roasted ore, coke and limestone in the ratio 8:4:1 is
smelted in a blast furnace.
(a) Lower Region (Combustion Zone) :
 Temperature is at 1500°C.
 In this region, coke burns with O2 to form CO2
𝟏𝟓𝟎𝟎℃
C + O2 → CO2 + Heat
Carbon Carbon dioxide
(b) Middle Region (Fusion Zone) – Temperature is 1000°C.

𝟏𝟎𝟎𝟎℃
CO2 + C → 2CO + Heat
∆
𝟏𝟎𝟎𝟎℃
CaCO3 → CaO + CO2 + Heat
∆
CaO + SiO2 → CaSiO3
(c) Upper Region (Reduction Zone) – Temperature is 400°C.

𝟒𝟎𝟎℃
Fe2O3 + 3CO → 2Fe + 3CO2 ↑
ferric oxide Iron
Molten iron collected at the bottom after removing slag is called pig iron.
It is remelted and casted into different moulds called cast iron.
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4. Give reason for the following statements on periodic trends in modern periodic table of
elements. [PTA - 6]
a) Along the period, from left to right, the atomic radius values of the elements decrease
whereas along the groups, from the top to bottom, the atomic radius values increase.
b) The electron affinity values increase along the period from left to right and decrease
down the group.
c) The ionization energy values increase along the period from left to right and decrease
down the group.
As we go down the group As we go from left to right
a) Atomic radius increases. a) Atomic radius decreases.
 Reason:  Reason: Atom shrinks as the attraction of
Due to increase in valence shell number. protons over electrons increases.
b) Electron affinity decreases.

b) Electron affinity increases.
 Reason: As Atomic radius increases,
 Reason: As Atomic radius decreases.
valence electrons are loosely bound.
c) Ionisation energy decreases. c) Ionisation energy increases.
 Reason: As Atomic radius increases, Less  Reason: As atomic radius decreases, more
energy is required to remove the electrons. energy is required to remove the electrons.
5. What is an alloy? Write the reasons for alloying. [MAY - 2022]

Alloy is a homogeneous mixture of two or more metals or one or more metals with certain
non-metallic elements. Types: Ferrous and Non-ferrous alloys
Reasons for alloying:
 To modify appearance and colour.
 To modify chemical activity.
 To lower melting point.
 To increase hardness and tensile strength.
 To increase resistance to electricity.
6. What is Metal Corrosion? Write the methods to prevent corrosion. [SEP – 2021, MDL – 19]
Corrosion: Gradual destruction of metals by chemical / electrochemical reaction with the environment.
Methods to Prevent Metal Corrosion.
(i) Alloying : Metals can be alloyed to prevent corrosion. Ex: Stainless steel.
(ii) Surface Coating: Protective coating over the metal.
 Galvanization - Coating zinc on iron sheets by using electric current.
 Electroplating - Coating one metal over another metal by passing electric current.
 Anodizing is an electrochemical process that converts metal surface into a decorative,
durable and corrosion resistant. Ex: Aluminium. [SEP – 2020]
 Cathodic Protection - metal to be protected is coated with a corrodible sacrificial metal.
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Five Marks 19
7. Identify the nature of the bond present in the following molecules.

Electronegativity of given elements are, H = 2.1, Na = 1.0, Cl = 3.0, I = 2.5, F = 4.0, Br = 2.8
Question Electronegativity Difference Type of bond
(i) NaCl 3.0 – 1.0 = 2.0 > 1.7 ⇒ Ionic bond
(ii) NaBr 2.8 – 1.0 = 1.8 > 1.7 ⇒ Ionic bond
(iii) NaI 2.5 – 1.0 = 1.5 < 1.7 ⇒ Covalent bond
(iv) NaF 4.0 – 1.0 = 3.0 > 1.7 ⇒ Ionic bond
(v) NaH 2.1 – 1.0 = 1.1 [PTA– 2] < 1.7 ⇒ Covalent bond
(vi) HF 4.0 – 2.1 = 1.9 [PTA – 2] > 1.7 ⇒ Ionic bond
VIII. Hot Questions

1. Metal A belongs to period 3 and group 13. A in red hot condition reacts with steam to
form B. A with strong alkali forms C. Find A, B and C with reactions. [PTA – 3]
2Al + 3H2O → Al2O3 + 3H2 ↑
at red hot condition (A) steam Aluminium oxide (B)
2 Al + 2 NaOH + 2 H2O → 2 NaAlO2 + 3 H2 ↑
strong caustic alkali sodium meta aluminate(C)
A → Aluminium (Al)
B → Aluminium oxide (Al2O3)
C → Sodium meta aluminate (NaAlO2)
1. Write notes on i) saturated solution ii) unsaturated solution

i) Saturated solution : It is the solution in which no more solute can be dissolved in a definite
amount of solvent at a given temperature.
Ex : 36 g of sodium chloride in 100g of water at 250C
ii) Unsaturated solution : It is the solution that contains less solute than that of saturated solution
at a given temperature. Ex : 10 g of sodium chloride in 100g of water at 25℃
2. Write notes on various factors affecting solubility. [MDL – 19]
i) Nature of the solute and solvent:
 “Like dissolves Like”.
 Polar compounds are soluble in polar solvents only. Ex: Common salt dissolves in water.
 Non-polar compounds are soluble in non-polar solvents only. Ex: Fat dissolved in ether.
ii) Temperature:
a) Solubility of solid in liquid:
 It increases with increase in temperature.
Ex: More sugar will dissolve in warm water than in cold water.
 In endothermic process, solubility increases with increase in temperature.
 In exothermic process, solubility decreases with increase in temperature.
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b) Solubility of gases in liquid:
It decreases with increase in temperature. Ex: Aquatic animal live more in cold regions.
iii) Pressure:
When pressure is increased, solubility is also increased. Ex: soft drinks
3. a) What happens when MgSO4.7H2O is heated? Write the appropriate equation.
[AUG-22, SEP-21, PTA-4]

When MgSO4.7H2O is heated, it loses its water and become anhydrous magnesium sulphate.
b) Define Solubility.
 It is the number of grams of solute that can be dissolved in 100 g of solvent to form its
saturated solution at a given temperature and pressure.
 Ex: 36 g of sodium chloride has to be dissolve in 100g of water to form its saturated solution.
4. In what way hygroscopic substances differ from deliquescent substances.[SEP-2021, PTA-2]
Hygroscopic substances Deliquescence substances
1. When exposed to atmosphere, they 1. When exposed to atmosphere, they absorb

absorb moisture and do not dissolve. moisture and dissolve.
2. Do not change its physical state. 2. Change its physical state on exposure to air.
3. Amorphous solids or liquids. 3. Crystalline solids.
4. Do not form saturated solutions. 4. Form saturated solutions.
5. Ex: Quick lime, Silica gel. 5. Ex: Caustic soda, Caustic potash.
5. A solution is prepared by dissolving 45 g of sugar in 180 g of water. Calculate the mass

percentage of solute.
Mass of solute 45 4500
Mass percentage of solute = × 100 = × 100 = = 𝟐𝟎%
Mass of solvent+ mass of solute 180+45 225
6. 3.5 litres of ethanol is present in 15 litres of aqueous solution of ethanol. Calculate volume
percent of ethanol solution. [PTA – 2]
Volume of solute 3.5
Volume percentage = × 100 = × 100 = 23. 33%
volume of solution 15
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Five Marks 21

1. What are called thermolysis reactions? [SEP – 2021]
 Reaction in which, reactant is decomposed by heat is called thermolysis reactions.
 They are Endothermic reactions as heat is supplied or absorbed to break bonds. Types are,
𝐡𝐞𝐚𝐭
i. Compound to Element / Element decomposition 2HgO(S) → 2Hg(l) + O2(g)
𝐡𝐞𝐚𝐭
ii. Compound to Compound / Compound decomposition CaCO3(S) → CaO(S) + CO2(g)
2. Explain the types of double displacement reactions with examples. [SEP – 2020]
Double displacement (or) metathesis reaction are reactions in which, ions of one compound
is replaced by ions of another compound. Ions of identical charges alone are interchanged.
General schematic representation: AB + CD → AD + CB
Ex: Pb(NO3)2s(aq) + 2KI(aq) ⟶ PbI2(S) + 2KNO3(aq)
i) Precipitation
reaction: When aqueous solutions of two compounds are mixed, they react
to form an insoluble compound and a soluble compound.
Ex: Pb(NO3)2(aq) + 2KI(aq)⟶ PbI2(S) + 2KNO3(aq)
ii) Neutralization reaction: It is the reaction in which acid reacts with base to form salt and
water. Here, both acid and base neutralize each other.
Ex: NaOH(aq) + HCl(aq) ⟶ NaCl(aq) + H2O(l)
3. Explain the factors influencing the rate of a reaction. [PTA – 5]
i) Nature of reactant:
Ex: Sodium reacts faster with hydrochloric acid than acetic acid.
Because, Hydrochloric acid is stronger than acetic acid and thus more reactive.
ii) Concentration of the reactants:
More the concentration, more particles per volume exist in it, reaction is faster.
Ex: Granulated zinc reacts faster with 2M hydrochloric acid than 1M Hydrochloric acid.
iii) Temperature:
Most reactions are faster at higher temperature. Because adding heat provides energy to break
more bonds. Ex: Food at refrigerator spoil slower compared to food at outside.
iv) Pressure:
If reactants are gases, increasing pressure increases the reaction rate. Because reacting
particles come closer and collide frequently.
v) Catalyst:
Catalyst increases the reaction rate without being consumed in the reaction.
Ex: On heating potassium chlorate, it decomposes into potassium chloride and oxygen at a
slower rate. If manganese dioxide is added as catalyst, it increases the reaction rate.
vi) Surface area of the reactants:
Powdered form of solid reactants reacts more readily. They have more surface area. The
collision of reactant particle is increased. Thus, rate of reaction is also increased.
Ex: Powdered calcium carbonate reacts more readily with hydrochloric acid than marble chips.
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4. How does pH play an important role in everyday life?
i) Role of pH in human body :
Body pH range is 7.0 to 7.8. Increases/decreases leads to disease. pH of blood is 7.4.
ii) Role of pH in our digestive system :
Stomach produces hydrochloric acid, which helps in digestion. During indigestion, it
produces too much acid causing pain and irritation. pH of stomach fluid is 2.0.
iii) pH changes as the cause of tooth decay :
pH of saliva is between 6.5 to 7.5. When it falls below 5.5, enamel is weathered.
Toothpastes are generally basic, it neutralizes excess acid and prevent tooth decay.
iv) pH of soil :
pH of soil is very important in agriculture. Citrus fruits require alkaline soil, rice requires
acidic soil and sugarcane requires neutral soil.
v) pH of rainwater :
pH of rainwater is 7. If atmospheric air is polluted with oxides of sulphur & nitrogen, they
dissolve in rainwater making its pH less than 7 causing acid rain.
5. What is a chemical equilibrium? What are its characteristics?
Chemical equilibrium: It is a state of reversible chemical reaction where there is no change
in amount of reactants and products.
At equilibrium, Rate of forward reaction = Rate of backward reaction
Ex: CaCO3(s) ⇌ CaO(s) + CO2(g)
Characteristics of equilibrium: [PTA – 3]
 Rates of forward and backward reactions are equal.
 Properties like pressure, concentration, colour, density, viscosity, etc., of remain unchanged.
 It is a dynamic equilibrium, because both forward and backward reactions occur even
though it appears static externally.
 In physical equilibrium, volume of all phases remain constant.
Additional Question
6. Classify the following chemical reactions based on rearrangement of atoms and justify
your answer.
Question Classification Reason
a) 2K𝐶𝑙O3 → 2K𝐶𝑙 + 3O2 Decomposition Potassium chlorate is decomposed
reaction as Potassium chloride & Oxygen.
b) Zn + CuSO4 → ZnSO4 + Cu Single Zinc element displaces copper in
[𝐏𝐓𝐀 – 𝟏] displacement copper sulphate and forms zinc
reaction sulphate and elemental copper.
c) 2Mg + O2 → 2MgO Combination Magnesium combines with Oxygen
reaction to form Magnesium oxide.
d) Na2 SO4 + Ba𝐶𝑙2 → BaSO4 + Double Sodium and barium interchange
2Na𝐶𝑙 displacement their position to form barium
reaction sulphate & sodium chloride.
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Five Marks 23
VII. HOT Questions

1. A solid compound ‘A’ decomposes on heating into ‘B’ and a gas ‘C’. On passing the gas
‘C’ through water, it becomes acidic. Identify A, B and C.
Calcium carbonate(A) decompose to give calcium oxide(B) and carbon dioxide(C) on heating.
𝒉𝒆𝒂𝒕
𝐂𝐚𝐂𝐎𝟑(𝐬) → 𝐂𝐚𝐎(𝐬) + 𝐂𝐎𝟐(𝐬) ↑
calcium carbonate Calcium oxide Carbon dioxide
Carbon dioxide (C) is mixed with water to form carbonic acid

𝐂𝐎𝟐(𝐠) + 𝐇𝟐 𝐎(𝐠) → 𝐇𝟐 𝐂𝐎𝟑(𝒍)
Carbon dioxide Carbonic acid
Compound A → CaCO3
Compound B → CaO
Compound C → CO2 gas

1. What is called homologous series? Give any three of its characteristics. (write any 3)
Organic compounds having same general formula and similar chemical properties in which the
successive members differ by a -CH2 group is called homologous series.
Ex: Methane CH4 Ethane CH3-CH3 Propane CH3-CH2-CH3
Characteristics of homologous series:
i) Each member differs from its preceding or succeeding by methylene (-CH2) group.
ii) All members contain same elements and functional group.
iii) They are represented by a general molecular formula. Ex: Alkanes CnH2n+2.
iv) Members in each series show regular gradation in their physical properties.
v) Chemical properties are similar.
vi) All the members can be prepared by a common method.
2. Arrive at, systematically, the IUPAC name of the compound: CH3–CH2–CH2–OH. [TB : 162]
Step1: Longest chain has 3 carbon atoms. ∴ Root word is ‘prop’.
Step2: It has single bond. ∴ Primary suffix is “ane”.
Step3: Functional group is alcohol (–OH).
3 2 1
CH3-CH2-CH2-OH
Step 4: Locant number of –OH is 1 ∴ Secondary suffix is ‘1-ol’

∴The name of the compound is Propan – 1 – ol
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3. How is ethanol manufactured from sugarcane?
 Ethanol is manufactured by fermentation of molasses.
Steps in conversion of molasses to ethanol:
(i) Molasses is diluted with water to bring the concentration of sugar to 8 to 10%.
(ii) Addition of Nitrogen Source: It is fortified by adding ammonium sulphate/phosphate.
(iii) Addition of yeast:
 Solution is collected in large ‘fermentation tanks’
 Yeast is added and kept at 303 K for few days.
 During this period, invertase and zymase in yeast, converts sucrose into ethanol.
 Fermented liquid is called as ‘wash’.
𝐢𝐧𝐯𝐞𝐫𝐭𝐚𝐬𝐞
𝐂𝟏𝟐 𝐇𝟐𝟐 𝐎𝟏𝟏 + 𝐇𝟐 𝐎 → 𝐂𝟔 𝐇𝟏𝟐 𝐎𝟔 + 𝐂𝟔 𝐇𝟏𝟐 𝐎𝟔
sugar glucose fructose
𝐳𝐲𝐦𝐚𝐬𝐞
𝐂𝟔 𝐇𝟏𝟐 𝐎𝟔 → 𝟐𝐂𝟐 𝐇𝟓 𝐎𝐇 + 𝟐𝐂𝐎𝟐
glucose (or) fructose ethanol
(iv) Distillation of Wash:

‘Wash’ contains 15 to 18% alcohol. It is subjected to fractional distillation.
Rectified spirit: It contains 95.5% ethanol & 4.5% of water. It is the main fraction of ‘wash’.
Absolute alcohol: Rectified spirit is refluxed over quicklime for 5 to 6 hours and then
allowed to stand for 12 hours. Pure/absolute alcohol (100%) is obtained.
4. Give the balanced chemical equation of the following reactions:
(i) Neutralization of NaOH with ethanoic acid. [PTA – 6]
CH3COOH + NaOH → CH3COONa + H2O
ethanoic acid sodium hydroxide sodium ethanoate water
(ii) Evolution of carbon dioxide by the action of ethanoic acid with NaHCO3.
CH3COOH + NaHCO3 → CH3COONa + CO2 ↑ + H2O
ethanoic acid sodium bicarbonate sodium acetate brisk effervescence water
(iii) Oxidation of ethanol by acidified potassium dichromate. [PTA – 6] (or)

Write a reaction which is used for the identification of alcohol., [SEP - 2020]
 Ethanol is oxidized to ethanoic acid in presence of acidified potassium dichromate.
 Orange color of K 2 Cr2 O7 is changed to green colour. Thus, it is used to identify alcohol.
𝐊 𝟐 𝐂𝐫𝟐 𝐎𝟕 /𝐇+
CH3CH2OH → 2[𝐎]
CH3COOH + H2O
ethanol ethanoic acid
(iv) Combustion of ethanol.

CH3CH2OH + 3O2 → 2CO2 + 3H2O
ethanol oxygen carbon dioxide water
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Five Marks 25
5. Explain the mechanism of cleansing action of soap. [PTA – 6] (or) Explain how micelles
formation take place with a diagram when soap is added to water? [PTA – 5]
Structure of Soap :
 Polar end: It is hydrophilic (water loving). Short head with carboxylate group (−COONa)
 Non-polar end : It is hydrophobic (water hating). Long tail of hydrocarbon chain.
Cleansing action of Soap:
 When a soap is dissolved in water, molecules join together as clusters called micelles.
 Dirt is surrounded by non-polar end.
 Polar end makes micelles soluble in water.
 Thus, dirt is washed away with the soap.
Additional Question
6. Fill in the blanks in the table using IUPAC nomenclature of organic compounds. [PTA – 2]
Name of the compound Structural formula Functional group present
CH3 − CH − CH3
2-Propanol | −OH
OH
CH3 − C − H 𝐎
Ethanal || ||
O −𝐂 − 𝐇
𝐎
Butanone || >C=O
𝐂𝐇𝟑 − 𝐂𝐇𝟐 − 𝐂 − 𝐂𝐇𝟑
Butanoic acid CH3 − CH2 − CH2 − COOH −COOH
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VII. HOT questions
1. The molecular formula of an alcohol is C4H10O. The locant number of its –OH group is 2.
(i) Draw its structural formula. [PTA – 1]
(ii) Give its IUPAC name. [PTA – 1]

Step 1: Chain has 4 carbon atoms. ∴ Root word is ‘But’
Step 2: It has single bond. ∴ Primary suffix is ‘ane’.
Step 3: Functional group is alcohol (–OH).
1 2 3 4
CH3–CH–CH2– CH3
|
OH
Step 4: Locant number of –OH group is 2. ∴ Secondary suffix is ‘2-ol’
∴ The name of compound is Butan-2-ol
(iii) Is it saturated or unsaturated? [PTA – 1]

Butan-2-ol is saturated as it has only single bonds
2. An organic compound ‘A’ is widely used as a preservative and has the molecular formula
C2H4O2. This compound reacts with ethanol to form a sweet smelling compound ‘B’. [PTA – 5]
(i) Identify the compound ‘A’ and ‘B’.
Compound (A) is Ethanoic acid or Acetic acid. Its structural formula is CH3COOH.
(ii) Write the chemical equation for its reaction with ethanol to form compound ‘B’.
𝐂𝐨𝐧.𝐇𝟐 𝐒𝐨𝟒
CH3COOH + CH3CH2OH → CH3COOCH2CH3 + H2O
ethanoic acid(A) ethanol ethyl ethanoate (B)
(iii) Name the process (or) chemical reaction.

This process is esterification.
A → Ethanoic acid
B → Ethyl ethanoate
Process → Esterification
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Five Marks 27

PHYSIOLOGY
1. Differentiate the following. [MDL – 19]
a) Monocot root and Dicot root: [SEP – 2020]
S.No Tissues Dicot Root (Bean) Monocot Root (Maize)
1. Number of xylem Tetrarch Polyarch
2. Cambium Present Absent
3. Secondary growth Present Absent
4. Pith Absent Present
5. Conjunctive tissue Parenchyma Sclerenchyma
b) Aerobic and Anaerobic respiration: [AUG – 2022, SEP – 2021]
Aerobic respiration Anaerobic respiration
1) Takes place in presence of oxygen. 1) Takes place in absence of oxygen.
2) Occurs in most plants and animals 2) Occurs in some bacteria.
3) Carbohydrate is completely oxidized 3) Glucose is converted into ethanol (in plants)
into carbon dioxide, water and energy. or lactate (in bacteria).
4) C6H12O6 + 6O2→ 6CO2 + 6H2O + ATP 4) C6H12O6→ 2 CO2 + 2 C2H5OH + Energy (ATP)
2. Describe and name three stages of cellular respiration that aerobic organisms use to obtain
energy from glucose.
Cellular Respiration : It is a cell process where the food is oxidized to obtain energy.
Stages of Aerobic Cellular Respiration :
Glycolysis:
 One glucose molecule breakdown into two molecules of pyruvic acid in cytoplasm.
Krebs cycle (or) Tricarboxylic Acid cycle (TCA):
 After glycolysis, pyruvic acid is oxidized to CO2 and water in mitochondrial matrix.
Electron Transport chain (ETC):
 It occurs through electron carrier complex in the inner membrane of mitochondria.
 NADH2 & FADH2 are oxidized to NAD+ & FAD+ to release energy via electrons.
 The electrons release energy, which is trapped by ADP to synthesize ATP.
 This is called oxidative phosphorylation. Here O2 is reduced to water.
3. How does the light dependent reaction differ from the light independent reaction? What are the
end products and reactants in each? Where does each reaction occur within the chloroplast?
Light dependent (Light) Reaction Light independent (Dark) Reaction
Takes place in the presence of light energy Takes place in the absence of light.
Photosynthetic pigments absorb light energy CO2 is reduced into carbohydrates with the
and convert it into ATP & NADPH2 help of ATP & NADPH2
Occures in thylakoid membrane of
Occures in Stroma of chloroplast.
chloroplast.
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1. The reactions of photosynthesis make up a biochemical pathway.
A) What are the reactants and end products of light & dark reaction of photosynthesis? [PTA–5]
Light Reaction Dark Reaction
Reactants sunlight, H2O, NADP+, ADP ATP and NADPH2
Products ATP, NADPH2 and O2 Carbohydrate
B) Explain how the biochemical pathway of photosynthesis recycles many of its own
reactions and identify the recycled reactants.
 Steps of photosynthesis - Light reactions and Dark reactions (or) Calvin cycle.
 ATP and NADPH2 are formed by light reactions using sunlight.
They are used by Calvin cycle to produce glucose.
 Calvin cycle oxidizes NADPH2 and ADP to NADP+ and ATP. These are used again by
light reaction and reduced to NADPH2 and ATP with the help of a water molecule.
 In this way, photosynthesis recycles its own reaction in a series.

ANIMALS
1. How is the circulatory system designed in leech to compensate the heart structure?
 Circulation happens by haemocoelic system.
 Blood vessels are replaced by haemocoelic canals filled with blood like fluid.
 Coelomic fluid contains haemoglobin.
 There are four longitudinal channels
 One above (dorsal) and one below (ventral) the alimentary canal.
 Other two on either (lateral) side of alimentary canal. This serves as heart.
 Channels are connected posteriorly in 26th segment.
2. How does locomotion take place in leech? [PTA – 5]

Locomotion in leech takes place by,
Looping or crawling movement:
 It occurs by contraction and relaxation of muscles.
 The two suckers are used for attachment during movement.
Swimming movement:
 Leeches swim very actively and perform undulating movements in water.
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Five Marks 29
3. Explain the male reproductive system of rabbit with a labelled diagram.

 It consists of a pair of testes, ovoid in shape.
 Testes are enclosed by scrotal sacs.
 Each testis consists of seminiferous tubules.
 This forms epididymis, which leads to vas deferens.
 Vas deferens joins in the urethra and then into penis.
 Accessory glands: Prostate, Cowper’s and Perineal
gland. Its secretion helps in reproduction.

1. How do plants absorb water? Explain.
Water absorbing unit - Root Hair:
 Root hairs absorb water and minerals by diffusion.
 They are thin walled, extension of epidermal cell that increase the area of absorption.
Pathway of Water absorbed by Roots:
 Water enters root hairs, concentration of water in root hairs become more than in cortex.
 Thus, water from root hair move to cortical cells by osmosis and reaches xylem.
 Then water is transported to stem and leaves.
Types of movement of water into root cells:
1. Apoplast pathway
 Movement of water is through the intercellular spaces and the cell walls.
 It is dependent on the gradient.
2. Symplast pathway
 Movement of water is through plasma membrane, cytoplasm and plasmodesmata.
 It is dependent on concentration gradient. It is slower.
2. What is transpiration? Give the importance of transpiration. [AUG – 2022]
Transpiration: It is the evaporation of water from aerial plant-parts through stomata in leaves.
Importance of transpiration:
 It creates transpiration pull.
 It supplies water for photosynthesis.
 It transports minerals from soil.
 It cools the leaf surface.
 It keeps the cells turgid, hence maintain their shape.
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3. Why are leucocytes classified as granulocytes and agranulocytes? Name each cell and
mention its functions.
 Leucocytes are classified as granulocytes and agranulocytes because of its presence
and absence of granules in it respectively.
1) Granulocyctes: They contain granules in cytoplasm. Its nucleus is irregular (or) lobed.
i) Neutrophils They increase during infection and inflammation.
 They increase during allergy & parasitic infections.
ii) Eosinophils
 It brings detoxification of toxins.
iii) Basophils They release chemicals during inflammation.
2) Agranulocytes: Granules are not found in cytoplasm. Its nucleus is not lobed.
i) Lymphocytes They produce antibodies during bacterial and viral infections.
ii) Monocytes They are phagocytic and can engulf bacteria.
4. Differentiate between systole and diastole. Explain the conduction of heart beat.
Systole Diastole
1. Contraction of auricles & ventricles of heart. 1. Relaxation of auricles & ventricles of heart.
2. Normal systolic pressure is 120mm. 2. Normal diastolic pressure is 80mm.
Conduction of heart beat:
 Sino – atrial node acts as the pacemaker of heart.
 SA node initiates an impulse. It simulates the heart muscles to contract.
 This impulse spreads as a wave of contraction over right and left atrial wall
 Thus, pushing blood through atrioventricular valves into ventricles.
 SA node initiates wave of contraction. It reaches atrioventricular (AV) node.
 AV node emits an impulse of contraction
 It spread to ventricular muscles via atrioventricular bundle and Purkinje fibres.
5. Enumerate the functions of blood.[SEP-21] Additional Question
Functions of blood: [AUG – 2022] 6. Draw the external structure of human
 It transports respiratory gases (O2 & CO2). heart and label the parts. [SEP – 2020]
 It transports digested food to body parts.
 It transports hormones and excretory
products like ammonia, urea, uric acid.
 It protects body & defense against diseases.
 It acts as buffer and helps in regulation of
pH and body temperature.
 It maintains water balance.
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Five Marks 31
15. NERVOUS SYSTEM

1. With a neat labelled diagram explain the structure of a neuron. [MDL – 19]
(i) Cyton / Cell body / Perikaryon :
 It has nucleus with cytoplasm called neuroplasm.
 Cytoplasm has Nissil’s granules and other cell organelles.
 Neurofibrils help in transmission of nerve impulse.
(ii) Dendrites:
 They are branched cytoplasmic processes
 They project from surface of the cell body.
 They conduct nerve impulses towards cyton.
 They increase the surface area for receiving signals.
(iii) Axon: It is a single, elongated, slender projection.
 Axon end has Synaptic knobs.
 Its plasma membrane is called axolemma
 Its cytoplasm is called axoplasm.
 Myelin sheath acts as insulator and ensures rapid transmission
of nerve impulses. It is covered by neurilemma.
 Nodes of Ranvier - Depressions in Myelin sheath
 Synapse / synaptic junction - Between synaptic knob of one neuron and dendron of next neuron.
 Information from one neuron is passed to another through synapse with the release of
chemicals called Neurotransmitters.
2. Illustrate the structure and functions of brain. [PTA – 1]
Brain is the controlling centre of all body activities. It is covered by 3 connective membranes
called Duramater, Arachnoid Membrane, Piamater. Three main parts of brain are,
i) Forebrain :
 Cerebrum: Largest portion. Divided into right & left cerebral hemispheres by median cleft.
 Corpus Callosum: Connects 2 Cerebral hemisphere.
 Cerebral Cortex: Grey outer portion - Gyri and Sulci
 Cerebral Medulla: White inner portion
 Cerebral Lobes: Frontal lobe, Parietal lobe, temporal lobe, occipital lobe.
Functions: Responsible for intelligence, memory, imagination, willpower,etc,.
 Thalamus: Present in cerebral medulla. Functions: Acts as relay centre.
 Hypothalamus: At the base of thalamus. Functions: Controls involuntary functions,
Link between nervous & endocrine system.
ii) Midbrain: Between thalamus and hindbrain. Functions: Controls visual & auditory reflexes.
iii) Hindbrain:
 Cerebellum: Second largest portion. Has two large sized hemispheres & middle vermis.
Functions: Coordinates voluntary movements, maintains body balance.
 Pons: It connects lobes of cerebellum. It relay signals between cerebellum, spinal cord,
midbrain and cerebrum. Functions: Controls respiration and sleep cycle.
 Medulla oblongata: Connects spinal cord and various parts of brain.
Functions: cardiac, respiratory and vasomotor centre. Regulates vomiting & salivation.
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3. What will you do if someone pricks your hand with a needle? Elucidate the pathway of
response with a neat-labelled diagram.
 When someone pricks, pain is the stimulus.
 Stimulus is sensed by pain receptors.
 Stimulus triggers impulse in sensory neuron.
 It transmits the impulse to spinal cord.
 Spinal cord interprets the stimulus and
passed onto relay neuron.
 It then transmits to motor neuron.
 It commands the muscle in our arm.
 Thus, we withdraw our hand immediately.
4. Describe the structure of spinal cord.

Structure of spinal cord:
 It is a cylindrical structure in vertebral column.
 It is from medulla oblongata to first lumbar vertebra.
 It is covered by meninges.
 Thin fibrous thread like posterior end is filum terminale.
 Central canal - Cerebrospinal fluid filled cavity.
 It has ‘H’ shaped Grey matter.
 Posterior horns(upper end). Fibres passes inward & forms Dorsal/Afferent root.
 Anterior horns(lower end). Fibres passes outward & forms Ventral/efferent root.
 Two roots join to form Spinal nerves.
 White matter is external and have bundle of nerve tracts.
5. How nerve impulses are transferred from one neuron to next neuron?
 Information from environment is detected by receptors in our
sense organs
 It is transmitted as electrical impulse to dendrites of neuron.
 Impulse travels to its terminal end along cell body & axon.
 On axonal end, nerve impulse releases neurotransmitter.
 It diffuses across synapse and starts similar process in the
next neuron.
 Thus, electrical signal reaches brain or spinal cord.
 From there it is passed similarly onto the effector organs.
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Five Marks 33
6. Classify neurons based on its structure. [SEP – 2020]

i) Unipolar Neurons :
 Only one nerve process arises from cyton,
 It acts as both axon and dendron.
 Ex: Early embryos.
ii) Bipolar Neurons :
 Two-nerve process arises from the cyton,
 One acts as axon while another as dendron.
 Ex: Retina of eye.
iii) Multipolar Neurons :

 Cyton gives rise to many dendrons and one axon.
 Ex: Cerebral cortex of brain.

1. (a) Name the gaseous plant hormone. Describe its three different actions (physiological
effects) in plants. [SEP – 2021, PTA – 3]
Gaseous plant hormone - Ethylene
 It promotes the ripening of fruits.
 It inhibits the elongation of stem and root in dicots.
 It hastens senescence.
 It stimulates formation of abscission zone leading to premature shedding.
(b) Which hormone is known as stress hormone in plants? Why?
Stress hormone - Abscisic acid. Because it increases tolerance of plants to various stress.
2. Describe an experiment which demonstrates that growth stimulating hormone is
produced at the tip of coleoptile.
Frits Warmolt Went demonstrated that auxin is produced at the tip of coleoptile.
In his first experiment,
 He removed the tips. The cut tips did not grow.
 Indicate that the tips produced something essential for growth.
In his second experiment,
 He placed agar blocks on the removed tips. There is no response.
In his next experiment,
 He placed cut tips on agar blocks. After an hour, he removed the tips and placed this
agar block on the cut plant. It grew straight up.
 Indicates that some chemical had diffused from the cut tips into agar block.
Conclusion: This Chemical was responsible for growth, and Went named it as “Auxin”.
3. Write the physiological effects of gibberellins.
 Gibberellin stimulates extraordinary elongation of internode.
 Bolting is achieved by gibberellin.
 It promote the production of male flowers.
 It break dormancy of potato tubers.
 It induces parthenocarpic fruits.
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4. Where are estrogens produced? What is the role of estrogens in the human body?
Estrogen is produced in graafian follicles of ovary.
Functions of estrogens:
 It brings changes during puberty.
 It initiates oogenesis.
 It stimulates the maturation of ovarian follicles.
 It helps in development of secondary sexual characters.
5. What are the conditions, which occur due to lack of ADH and insulin? How are the
conditions different from one another?
S.No Deficiency of ADH causes Diabetes Deficiency of insulin causes
Insipidus Diabetes Mellitus
1. Increases water loss through urine. Glycosuria - Excretion of excess glucose in urine.
2. Causes Polyuria Causes Polyuria, Polydipsia, Polyphagia
3. Reduces reabsorption of water. Hyperglycemia - Increased blood sugar level.

ANIMALS
1. With a neat labelled diagram describe the parts of a typical angiospermic ovule. [PTA – 5]
Structure of the Ovule:
1. The main part is nucellus.
2. It is enclosed by two integuments
3. It has an opening called micropyle.
4. It is attached to ovary wall by funiculus.
5. Chalaza is the basal part.
6. Embryo sac contains seven cells and eighth nuclei within nucellus.
 Egg apparatus: 1 egg cell and 2 synergids (cells) at micropylar end.
 Antipodal cells: 3 cells at chalaza end.
 Polar nuclei in the centre.
2. What are the phases of menstrual cycle? Indicate the changes in the ovary and uterus.
 Menstrual or Destructive Phase (4 – 5 days) : [PTA – 3]
 Development of primary follicles.
 Breakdown of endometrial lining leads to bleeding.
 Decrease in progesterone and oestrogen.
 Follicular or Proliferative Phase (6th – 13th day) :
 Primary follicles grow to Graafian follicle.
 Endometrium regenerates through proliferation.
 FSH and oestrogen increase.
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Five Marks 35
 Ovulatory Phase (14th day) :

 Graafian follicle ruptures & releases ovum (egg).
 Increase in endometrial thickness.
 LH peak.
 Luteal or Secretory Phase (15th – 28th day) :
 Emptied Graafian follicle develops into corpus luteum.
 If fertilization occurs, endometrium is prepared for implantation.
 If fertilization does not occur, uterine wall ruptures, bleeding starts and egg is expelled.
 LH & FSH decrease. Progesterone increases and then declines, if bleeding occurs.
Additional Question
3. Write short notes on UTIs. [SEP – 2020]
 Urinary Tract Infection (UTI) affect both women & men.
 Woman are more susceptible from the bacteria on skin, rectum or vagina. This will enter
urethra, before moving upwards.
 Types of UTI are:
i) Cystitis/Bladder infection: Bacteria lodged in urinary bladder multiply leading to
inflammation. It is common in age group 20 to 50.
ii) Kidney Infection: Bacteria travel from bladder to ureter and affect kidneys. It also
infects blood stream leading to life-threatening complications.
iii) Asymptomatic Bacteriuria: Bacteria in urinary bladder may not show any symptoms.
1. Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow.
Rahini and her parents were watching a television programme. An advertisement
flashed on the screen, which was promoting use of sanitary napkins. Rahini’s parents
suddenly changed the channel, but she objected to her parents and explained the need
and importance of such advertisement.
a) What is first menstruation called? When does it occur?
First menstruation is called Menarche. It occurs between 11 to 13 years of age.
b) List out the napkin hygiene measures taken during menstruation.
 Sanitary pad should be wrapped and discarded properly.
 Sanitary pad should not be flushed in toilet.
 Napkin incinerators should be used properly.
c) Do you think that Rahini’s objection towards her parents was correct? If so, Why?
Yes, she was correct. Because, maintaining menstrual hygiene is important for woman’s
health. It is not a shame to discuss about such topics at home.
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18. GENETICS
1. Explain with an example the inheritance of dihybrid cross. How is it different from
monohybrid cross?
Experiment: Mendel Crossed round yellow seeded

pea plants and wrinkled green seeded pea plants.
Observations:
 First generation (F1): When pure seeds are
crossed, only round yellow seeds were produced.
 Second generation (F2): When F1 hybrids were
crossed by self-pollination,
Conclusion: Factors for each trait is independent

and maintain their identity in
gametes and pass to the offsprings.
Results : Four types of plants. RY rY Ry ry

 Round yellow – 9 plants – 2 Dominant traits
 Round green – 3 plants RY RRYY RrYY RRYy RrYy
1 Dominant &
 Wrinkled yellow – 3 plants 1 Recessive rY RrYY rrYY RrYy rrYy
 Wrinkle green – 1 Plant – 2 Recessive Traits Ry RRYy RrYy RRyy Rryy
Phenotypic ratio – 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 ry RrYy rrYy Rryy rryy
Monohybrid cross Dihybrid cross

1. Inheritance of one pair of contrasting characters. Inheritance of two pairs of contrasting characters.
2. Ex : Tall Plant × Dwarf plant Ex : Round yellow × Wrinkled green
3. F2 phenotypic ratio is 3:1 F2 phenotypic ratio is 9:3:3:1
2. How is the structure of DNA organised? What is the biological significance of DNA?
Structure of DNA – Watson and Crick Model:
i) DNA molecule consists of two polynucleotide chains. They form double helix.
ii) Nitrogenous bases in centre are linked to sugar-phosphate units.
iii) It possess complementary base pairing between nitrogenous bases,
 Adenine links Thymine with two hydrogen bonds (A = T)
 Cytosine links Guanine with three hydrogen bonds (C ≡ G)
iv) These hydrogen bonds make DNA molecule stable.
v) Each turn of double helix is 34 A°. There are ten base pairs in a turn.
vi) Nucleotides in a helix are joined by phosphodiester bonds.
Significance of DNA: [SEP – 2020]
 It transmits hereditary information from one generation to the next.
 It contains information for the formation of proteins.
 It controls developmental process and life activities.
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Five Marks 37
3. The sex of the new born child is a matter of chance and neither of the parents may be
considered responsible for it. What would be the possible fusion of gametes to determine
the sex of the child?
 Human have 22 pairs of autosomes & one pair of allosomes.
 Female gametes are homogametic (22+XX).
 Male gametes are heterogametic (22+XY).
 Sperm bearing (22 + X) chromosomes.
 Sperm bearing (22 + Y) chromosomes.
 If egg is fused with X - bearing sperm (22+X)
it produces a female child (44+XX).
 If egg is fused with Y - bearing sperm (22+Y)
it produces a male child (44+XY).
19. ORIGIN AND EVOLUTION OF LIFE

1. Natural selection is a driving force for evolution - How? [PTA – 6, MDL – 19]
i) Overproduction: Living beings reproduce more individuals and multiply geometrically.
This leads to overproduction.
ii) Struggle for existence: Overproduction leads to population increase but with same space
and food. This creates competition and organisms struggle for existence.
 Intraspecific struggle : Competition among individuals of same species.
 Interspecific struggle : Competition between organisms of different species living together.
 Environmental struggle : Natural conditions like extreme heat or cold, drought & floods.
iii) Variations: Favourable variations are useful. Unfavourable variations are useless.
iv) Survival of the fittest or Natural selection: During the struggle,
 Organisms which overcome the challenge will survive and adapt to environment.
 Organisms which are unable to face the challenges are unfit to survive and disappear.
 This is called natural selection. It is the key for evolution.
v) Origin of species: New species originates by gradual accumulation of favourable variations.
Thus, above principles determines the evolutionary process and drives the evolution.
2. How do you differentiate homologous organs from analogous organs?
Homologous organs Analogous organs
1. Look dissimilar. Different functions 1. Look similar. Similar functions
2. They are from common ancestors. 2. They have different origin.
3. Similar developmental pattern. 3. Different developmental pattern.
4. Similar basic structures. 4. Dissimilar basic structures.
5. Ex : Human hand, front leg of cat, 5. Ex: Wings of bird and insect.
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3. How does fossilization occur in plants? [PTA – 1]

Fossilization occurs when plant and animal remains are preserved in sedimentary rock.
Methods of Fossilization
 Silica penetrate and replaces organic tissue and forms a fossil.

i) Petrifaction
 Can preserve hard and soft parts. Ex: Bones and wood fossils.
 Organism buried in sediment leaves a mold.

ii) Mold & Cast  It is the original shape but does not reveal the internal structure.
 Minerals or sediment fill the mold and forms a cast.
 Entire plant or animal can be preserved in ice or amber (tree sap).

iii) Preservation
 They protect them from decay.
 Hard parts of organism settle at bottom of seabed & covered by sediment.

iv) Compression
 With continuous sedimentation, fossils are formed.
v) Infiltration  Precipitation of minerals takes place, which then infiltrate the cell wall.
(or)  This is achieved by elements like silica, calcium and magnesium carbonate.
Replacement  Hard parts are dissolved and replaced by these minerals.
Additional Question
4. List the theories postulated to explain the origin of life? [MAY-2022]
Life on Earth is divine. It attributes to supernatural event in past.

Special creation
Life has not changed ever since its origin.
Spontaneous generation Life originated spontaneously from lifeless matter.

(Abiogenesis) Ex : Fishes from mud;
Biogenesis Life originates from pre-existing life. Proposed by Louis Pasteur.
Extraterresterial Life came from outer space.

or Cosmic origin Units of life - spores (Panspermia) were transferred to different planets.
Chemical evolution Proposed by Oparin & Haldane. Life arose by chemical reactions.
of Life Non-living inorganic molecule  Diverse organic moleculesColloidal system Life
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Five Marks 39
20. BREEDING AND BIOTECHNOLOGY

1. What are the effects of hybrid vigour in animals? [PTA – 1, 5]
Hybrid vigour or heterosis: Superiority of hybrid obtained by cross breeding.
Effects of hybrid vigour in animals:
 Increased production of milk by cattle.
 Increased production of egg by poultry.
 High quality of meat is produced.
 Increased growth rate in domesticated animal.
2. Describe mutation breeding with an example.
 Mutation is a sudden heritable change in nucleotide sequence of DNA.
 Utilization of mutation in crop improvement is called mutation breeding.
 Organism which undergo mutation is called mutant.
 Factors that induces mutation are called mutagens. It is of two types,
i) Physical mutagens : Radiations like X-rays, α, β and γ, UV rays, etc.
ii) Chemical mutagens : Chemical substances like nitrous acid.
Example: Sharbati Sonora wheat is produced from Sonora-64 by using gamma rays.
3. Biofortification may help in removing hidden hunger. How?
Biofortification : Process of developing plants enriched with high levels of desirable nutrients.
Hidden Hunger: It denotes the lack of micronutrients such as vitamin A, zinc and iron in diet.
Removal of Hidden hunger :
 Bio-fortified foods contribute body to store micronutrients throughout the life cycle.
 Thus, Bio-fortification is effective in removing hidden hunger.
Ex:  Protina, Shakti and Rathna - Rich maize hybrids.
 Atlas 66 - Protein rich wheat.
 Iron rich fortified rice variety.
 Vitamin A enriched carrots, pumpkin and spinach.
4. With a neat labelled diagram explain the techniques involved in gene cloning.
Gene cloning : Gene or a piece of DNA
fragment is inserted into a bacterial cell where
DNA will be copied as the cell divides. Clone is
a genetically exact copy of an organism.
Steps involved in gene cloning :
 Isolation of desired DNA fragment by
restriction enzymes.
 Insertion of the DNA fragment into vector
(Plasmid) to make rDNA.
 Transfer of rDNA into bacterial host cell.
 Selection and multiplication of recombinant host cell to get a clone.
 Expression of cloned gene in host cell.
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5. Discuss the importance of biotechnology in the field of medicine.[MAY - 2022,SEP – 2021]
Biotechnology helps to develop various medicinally valuable proteins or polypeptides that
form the potential pharmaceutical products for treating various diseases.
Medicines developed by rDNA technique :
a) Insulin - Treat diabetes.
b) Human growth hormone - Treat children with growth defects.
c) Blood clotting factors - Treat haemophilia.
d) Tissue plasminogen activator - Dissolve blood clots and prevent heart attack.
e) Vaccines - For diseases like Hepatitis B and rabies.
1. Organic farming is better than Green Revolution. Give reasons.

Reasons for Organic farming is better than Green Revolution :
 Green revolution uses fertilizers and pesticides which are toxic and cause pollution.
Whereas organic farming adds nutrients like nitrogen, phosphorus, potassium to soil.
 In Organic farming,
 Proper soil management is done.
 It doesn’t cause global warming.
 There is no genetically altered gene (seeds). So it is very cheap.
 Food chain is protected.
Thus, organic farming is safer, healthier than green revolution.
2. ‘P’ is a gene required for the synthesis of vitamin A. It is integrated with genome of ‘Q’
to produce genetically modified plant ‘R’.
i) What is P, Q and R?
P → Beta carotene Q → Ordinary rice plant R → Golden rice
ii) State the importance of ‘R’ in India.

Important of Golden rice in India :
 It is used for fighting against cell damage
 It is a healthy variety.
 It prevents vitamin A deficiency.
In India vitamin A deficiency in children & adults can be prevented by using golden Rice.
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Five Marks 41

1. Suggest measures to overcome the problems of an alcoholic. [MAY - 2022, SEP – 2021]
Education & counselling It will help alcoholics to overcome their problems and stress.
Physical activity They should perform healthy activities like music, sports, yoga, etc.,
 When they need any help, they should reach their parents & friends.
Seeking help from others
 This would help them to share their feeling and get rid of the habit.
 They should see psychologists and psychiatrists.

Medical assistance
 Alcohol de-addiction and rehabilitation programmes are helpful.
2. Changes in lifestyle is a risk factor for occurrence of cardiovascular diseases. Can it be

modified? If yes, suggest measures for prevention.
Yes, lifestyle can be modified to prevent cardiovascular diseases.
Measures for preventing Heart Disease :
i) Diet Management : Follow heart-healthy diet.
 Reduce the intake of calories, fat and cholesterol rich food, low carbohydrates and salt.
 Increase the intake of fibre diet, fruits, vegetables, proteins, minerals and vitamins.
ii) Physical activity : Regular exercise, walking and yoga.
iii) Avoid Addictive substance : Stop smoking, tobacco and alcohol.
iv) Get quality sleep and manage stress.

1. How does rainwater harvesting structures recharge ground water? [SEP – 2021]
(i) Roof top rainwater harvesting :
 Rain water on roofs is collected and stored in surface tank. It is used for domestic purpose.
(ii) Recharge pit:
 Rainwater is directed to percolation pits for filtration and then to recharge pits/ ground wells.
(iii) Digging of tanks or lakes (Eris):
 It is one of the traditional water harvesting system in Tamilnadu.
 Eris are inter connected so that if water in one Eri overflows, it gets diverted to next eri.
(iv) Ooranis : These are small ponds to collect rainwater. It is used for various domestic purposes.
2. How will you prevent soil erosion? [PTA – 3]
 Retain vegetation cover.
 Cattle grazing should be controlled.
 Crop rotation and soil management.
 Runoff water should be stored in catchment.
 Reforestation, terracing and contour ploughing.
 Wind speed is controlled by planting trees as shelterbelt.
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3. What are the sources of solid wastes? How are solid wastes managed?
Sources of Solid wastes: Municipal wastes, hospital wastes, industrial wastes, e - wastes.
Solid Waste Management: Collection, treatment and proper disposing of solid wastes.
Methods of solid wastes disposal:
a) Segregation: Separation of waste materials as biodegradable and non-biodegradable wastes.
b) Sanitary landfill: Solid wastes are dumped into low-lying areas & organic matter decomposes.
c) Incineration: non-biodegradable solid wastes are burnt in furnace at high temperature.
d) Composting: Biodegradable matter is digested by microbes/earthworms & converted to humus.
Some Solid wastes can be Recycled:
 Papers are recycled in paper mills.
 Paddy husk can be used as livestock fodder.
 Cowdung can be used to provide biogas and manure.
4R Approach: ReduceReuseRecoverRecycle.
4. Enumerate the importance of forest. [MDL – 19]
 Forests are an important component of environment.
 Protect wildlife and provide habitat for wild animals.
 They are the source for many renewable natural resource.
 They provide wood, food, fodder, fiber and medicine.
 They act as carbon sink
 Regulate climatic conditions, increase rainfall, reduce global warming
 Prevent natural hazards like flood and landslides
 It helps water conservation.
 It helps in economic development.
 They maintain ecological balance.
5. What are the consequences of soil erosion?
 Loss of topsoil : Soil erosion removes topsoil which reduces the fertility.
 Soil compaction : Due to this, ability of the soil to absorb water is reduced.
 Water pollution : It increases sedimentation in streams & rivers causing reduction of
fishes.
 Soil erosion causes loss of humus, nutrients and decreases soil fertility
 It disturbs the soil structure, fertility, acidity, etc., thus disrupting the ecosystem.
6. Why is the management of forest and wild life resource considered as a challenging task?
Management of forest and wildlife resource is a challenging task because,
 Lack of public awareness.
 Local people kill animals and cut down trees, for their living.
 Uncertainty of rainfall, affects forest irrigation.
 Changes in rainfall pattern due to global warming, climatic changes, etc,.
 Illegal cutting of trees and killing of animals.
 Increase in human population.
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Five Marks 43
Additional Question
7. Define Tidal energy. List out the advantages of tidal energy.
Tidal energy is the energy obtained from the movement of water due to ocean tides.
Advantages of tidal energy : [PTA – 5]
(i) No fuel and no waste.
(ii) It does not produce pollution.
(iii) Tides are predictable, so tidal energy can be produced at any time.
(iv) It can generate electricity at lower speeds than wind turbines.
1. Why is the Government imposing ban on the use of polythene bags and plastics? Suggest
alternatives. How is this ban likely to improve the environment?
Reasons for banning polythene bags and plastics:
 Plastics can not degrade naturally causing pollutions in land, soil and water.
 Burning of plastics leads to air pollution.
 Plastics prevent absorption of water into Earth, which reduces groundwater level.
 Polythene bags are accidentally eaten by animals. It harms them and may lead to death.
Alternatives : Use containers, cloth bags, paper wraps, compostable bags, jute bags.
Improvement : Reduces various pollutions and improves health of individuals.
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Problems 1
Problems
Problem from Two Marks

1. If a 5 N and a 15 N forces are acting opposite to one another. Find the resultant force and
the direction of action of the resultant force.
Given , 𝐹1 = 5𝑁 𝐹2 = 15 𝑁
Two forces acting opposite to one another.
Therefore, Resultant force is,
𝐹𝑛𝑒𝑡 = 𝐹2 − 𝐹1
𝐹𝑛𝑒𝑡 = 15 − 5 = 10 𝑁.
∴ The magnitude of resultant force is 10 N and its direction is along 15 N force.
Numerical problems
1. Two bodies have a mass ratio of 3:4. The force applied on the bigger mass produces an
acceleration of 12 m s-2. What could be the acceleration of the other body, if the same force
acts on it?
Given : m1 : m2 = 3:4 ; F1 = F2
Let m2 be the bigger mass, acceleration due to bigger body, a2= 12 ms −2
Solution : We know, F = ma ⇒ 𝐹1 = 𝑚1 𝑎1 ; 𝐹2 = 𝑚2 𝑎2
𝐹1 𝑚1 𝑎1 3 𝑎1
= × ⇒ 1= × ⇒ 𝑎1 = 16 m s−2
𝐹2 𝑚2 𝑎2 4 12
∴ Acceleration of the other body, 𝑎1 is 𝟏𝟔 𝐦𝐬 −𝟐
2. A ball of mass 1 kg moving with a speed of 10 m s-1 rebounds after a perfect elastic collision
with the floor. Calculate the change in linear momentum of the ball.
Given : Mass of ball (m) = 1 kg, Initial velocity (𝑢) = 10 m s-1
It is perfect elastic collision, ball rebounds with the same speed but in opposite direction
Final velocity (𝑣) = −10 m s-1
Solution : ∆p = mv − mu
= 1 × (−10) − 1 × (10) = −10 − 10 = −20 kg m s −1
(Negative sign just indicates the direction of momentum)
∴ Change in linear momentum of the ball is 20𝒌𝒈𝒎𝒔−𝟏
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3. A mechanic unscrew a nut by applying a force of 140 N with a spanner of length 40 cm. What
should be the length of the spanner if a force of 40 N is applied to unscrew the same nut?
Given : Force 𝐹1 = 140 𝑁, Length 𝑑1 = 40 𝑐𝑚
Force 𝐹2 = 40 𝑁, Length 𝑑2 = ?
Solution : Moment of couple is same for both the spanner, and so 𝐹1 𝑑1 = 𝐹2 𝑑2
𝐹1 𝑑1 40 ×140
𝑑2 = = = 140 𝑐𝑚
𝐹2 40
∴ If a force of 40 N is applied, the length of the spanner should be 140 cm / 1.4 m.
4. The ratio of masses of two planets is 2:3 and the ratio of their radii is 4:7. Find the ratio
of their accelerations due to gravity.
Given : Ratio of masses, m1 : m2 = 2 ∶ 3 Ratio of radii, R1 : R2 = 4: 7
Ratio of acceleration due to the gravity, g1 : g2 = ?
𝐺𝑀1 𝐺𝑀2
Solution : 𝑔1 = ---- (1) 𝑔2 = ------ (2)
𝑅12 𝑅22
GM1
g1 R2 g1 GM1 R2
2
Eqn (1) ÷ (2) ⇒ = 1
GM2 ⇒ = ×
g2 g2 R2
1 GM2
R2
2
M1 R2
2
= ×
M2 R2
1
g1 2 72 2 49 49
= × ⇒ × =
g2 3 42 3 16 24
∴ The ratio of acceleration due to gravity, g1 : g 2 = 49 : 24
Example Problems
5. Calculate the velocity of moving body of mass 5 kg whose linear momentum is 2.5 𝐤𝐠 𝐦 𝐬−𝟏 .
Given : Mass = 5 kg ; Linear momentum = 2.5 kg m s −1 [TB – 12]
Solution : Linear momentum = mass × velocity
Velocity = linear momentum / mass
2.5
V= = 0.5 m s −1
5
∴ Velocity of moving body is 0.5 ms −1 .
6. A door is pushed, at a point whose distance from the hinges is 90 cm, with a force of 40N.
Calculate the moment of the force about the hinges. [TB – 12]
Given : F=40 N ; d=90 cm = 0.9 m
Solution : The moment of a force M = F × d
M = 40 × 0.9 = 36 Nm
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Problems 3
7. At what height from the centre of the Earth surface, the acceleration due to gravity will be
1/4th of its value as at the Earth. [TB – 12] [PTA – 6]
′
Given : Height from the centre of the earth, R = R + h
g
Acceleration due to gravity at that height, g′ =
4
2
𝐺𝑀 𝐺𝑀 g R′
Solution: g = , g' = 2 ⇒ =( )
𝑅2 𝑅′ g′ R
𝑔 R+h 2 h 2
𝑔 =( ) = (1 + R)
⁄4 R
h 2
4 = (1 + ) (take square root on both sides)
R
h
2=1+ ⇒h=R
R
R′ = R + R = 2R
∴ The acceleration due to gravity will be 1/4th of its value as at the Earth, when the object is
placed at twice the radius of the earth from its centre.
Additional Problems
8. A lift is moving downwards with an 9. A weight of a man is 686 N on the surface
acceleration of 1.8 𝐦 𝐬 −𝟐. What is of the earth. Calculate the weight of the
apparent weight realised by a man of same person on moon. (‘g’ value of a moon
mass 50 kg? [PTA – 1] is 𝟏. 𝟔𝟐𝟓 𝐦 𝐬−𝟐 ) [PTA – 2]
Given : Acceleration (a) = 1.8 m s-2 Given : W = mg = 686 N
w
m = 50 kg Solution : m =
g
Solution: 686
m= = 70 kg
9.8
If Lift is moving downward with an
W = mg
acceleration 'a' then,
= 70 × 1.625
The Apparent weight is, R = m(g–a)
W = 113.75 N
= 50 (9.8 – 1.8)
R = 50 × 8 11. Calculate the velocity of moving body of
∴ Apparent weight is 400 N mass 5 kg whose linear momentum is 2
10. A force of 5 N applied on a body produces 𝐤𝐠 𝐦 𝐬−𝟏 . [MDL – 19]
and acceleration 5 cm 𝐬 −𝟐 . Calculate the Given : Mass = 5 kg ;
mass of the body. [PTA–5] Linear momentum = 2 kg m s −1
Given : F = 5 N, a = 5 cms-2 = 0.05 ms-2 Solution : Linear momentum, p = mv
Solution : F = ma Velocity = linear momentum / mass
𝑝 2
m=
𝐹
=
5 V= = = 0.4 m s −1
𝑚 5
𝑎 0.05
m = 100 kg ∴ Velocity of moving body is 0.4 m s −1 .
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Hot Questions
1. Two blocks of masses 8 kg and 2 kg respectively lie on a smooth horizontal surface in
contact with one other. They are pushed by a horizontally applied force of 15 N. Calculate
the force exerted on the 2 kg mass.
Given : m1 = 8 kg , m2 = 2 kg, Force, F = 15 N
Solution : F = ma = (m1 + m2 ) a
F 15 15
a= = = = 1.5 ms−2
m1 +m2 8+2 10
−2
Force on 2 kg mass, m = 2 kg, a = 1.5 ms
F = ma = 2× 1.5 = 3N
∴ Force on 2kg mass is F = 3N
2. A heavy truck and bike are moving with the same kinetic energy. If the mass of the truck is four
times that of the bike, then calculate the ratio of their momenta. (Ratio of momenta = 2 : 1)
𝑚𝑇
Given : Let, Mass of bike = 𝑚𝐵 ; Mass of truck = 𝑚𝑇 ; 𝑚
=4
𝐵
1 2
Solution : Kinetic Energy = 2 𝑚𝑣
K.E of truck = K.E of bike
1 1
mT vT 2 = 2 mBvB 2
2
V 2 𝑚
(VB ) = 𝑇 = 4
T 𝑚 𝐵
VB VT 1
=2⇒ =
VT VB 2
pT 𝑚 𝑉 4
Ratio of their momentum is, p = 𝑚 𝑇 𝑉𝑇 = 2 = 2
B 𝐵 𝐵
∴ Ratio of their momentum is 𝟐 ∶ 𝟏.
Numerical problems
1. An object is placed at a distance 20 cm from a convex lens of focal length 10 cm. Find the
image distance and nature of the image.
Given : Focal length of the convex lens f = 10 cm
Distance between object and lens u = − 20 cm **Sign convention rules**
Distance between image and lens v = ? f → +ve for convex
1 1 1 -ve for concave
Solution : Lens formula, = −
𝑓 𝑣 𝑢
1 1 1
u → -ve always(object is placed in left)
= +
𝑣 𝑓 𝑢 v → +ve if image is on right
1 1 2−1 1
= + = = (Real & inverted)
10 − 20 20 20 -ve if image is on left
v = 20 cm (Virtual & Erect)
∴ The image distance is 20 cm.
Nature of image : Real and inverted image. (∵ The image is at 2 F)
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Problems 5
2. An object of height 3 cm is placed at 10 cm from a concave lens of focal length 15 cm.

Find the size of the image.
Given : Focal length of concave lens, f = −15 cm
Distance between object and lens u = − 10 cm
Height of the object, h = 3 cm
Height of the image, h' = ?
1 1 1 1 1 1
Solution : Lens formula, = − ⇒ = +
f v u v f u
1 1 −2−3
= + =
− 15 − 10 30
1 5 1
= − = −
v 30 6
v = − 6 cm
v −6
Magnification m = = = 0.6
u −10
h′ h′
Magnification m = = = 0.6
h 3
h′ = 0.6 × 3 = 1.8 cm
∴ Height of the image h' is 1.8 cm.
Example Problems
3. Light rays travel from vacuum into a 5. A person with myopia can see objects
glass whose refractive index is 1.5. If the placed at a distance of 4 m. If he wants to
angle of incidence is 300. Calculate the see objects at a distance of 20 m. What
angle of refraction inside the glass. should be the focal length and Power of
Given : 𝜇1 = 1, 𝜇2 = 1.5 [TB – 28] the concave lens he must wear? [TB – 28]
𝑖 = 300 Given : x = 4 m, y = 20 m [MAY-2022]
sin 𝑖 𝜇
Solution : Snell's law, = 2 Solution : Focal length of the required lens is
sin 𝑟 𝜇1 xy 4×20 80
𝜇1
× sin 𝑖 = sin 𝑟 f= = =
𝜇2 x−y 4−20 −16
sin 𝑟 =
1
× sin 300 f = −5 m
1.5 1
1 1 1 Power of required lens, P =
sin r = × = = 0.333 1
f
1.5 2 3
𝑟 = sin−1 (0.333) P= = −0.2 D
−5
⟹ 𝑟 = 19.450 ∴ The person must wear concave lens of
4. A beam of light passing through a focal length 5 m and power 0.2 D.
diverging lens of focal length 0.3 m appear 6. For a person with Hypermetropia, the
to be focused at a distance 0.2 m behind the near point has moved to 1.5 m. Calculate
lens. Find the position of the object. the focal length of the correction lens in
[TB – 28] [SEP – 2020] order to make his eyes normal. [TB – 28]
Given : The given lens is concave lens. Given : d = 1.5 m ,
f = −0.3 m, v = −0.2 m D (for normal vision) = 25 cm = 0.25 m
1 1 1
Solution : = − Solution :
f v u
1 1 1 Focal length of the correction lens is,
= − dD
u v f F=
1 1 d−D
= − 1.5 ×0.25
− 0.2 − 0.3
1 −0.3+0.2 −0.1 10 =
= = = − 1.5−0.25
0.375
u 0.06 0.06 6
6 =
u = − = −0.6 m 1.25
10 𝑓 = 0.3 m
∴ The object is placed in a distance of 0.6 m at 2 F.
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Additional Problems
7. The power of a lens is −2D. Find the focal 8. An object of height 3 cm is placed at 10 cm
length of a lens. [PTA – 4] from a convex lens which produces an
Given : image at 20 cm from its optical centre.
Power of a lens (P) = −2D Calculate the magnification and height of
the image produced. [PTA – 5]
Solution : Given : h = 3 cm ; u = 10 cm ; v = 20 cm
1
Power of a lens (P) = = −2D 𝑣
Solution : Magnification, m = = = 2
20
𝑓 𝑢 10
1 ℎ′
𝑓= Magnification, m =
−2 ℎ
𝑓 = −0.5 m ℎ′ = 2 × 3
∴ Focal length of the lens is 0.5 m ℎ′ = 6 cm
∴ Magnification is 2 & height of image is 6 cm.
Numerical problems
1. Find the final temperature of a copper rod, whose area of cross section changes from 10 m2
to 11 m2 due to heating. The copper rod is initially kept at 90 K. (Coefficient of superficial
expansion is 0.0021/ K-1)
Given : Aₒ = 10 m2 , A = 11m2 , ∆A = 11 − 10 = 1 m2
To = 90 K, ∆T = T − To = T − 90
αA = 0.0021 K-1
T=?
∆A
Solution : Coefficient of superficial expansion, = αA ∆T
Aₒ
∆𝐴 1
∆𝑇 = =
𝐴 ₒ 𝛼𝐴 10 × 0.0021
1
T − 90 = = 47.61
0.021
T = 47.61 + 90 = 137.6 K
∴ Final temperature of the copper rod is 137.6 K
2. Calculate the coefficient of cubical expansion of a zinc bar, whose volume is increased from
0.25 m3 to 0.3 m3 due to the change in its temperature of 50 K.
Given : V = 0.3 m3 Vₒ = 0.25 m3 ∆T = 50 K
∆V V−Vₒ
Solution : αv = =
Vₒ∆T Vₒ∆T
0.3−0.25 0.05
𝛼𝑣 = = = 0.004 K−1
0.25×50 12.5
∴ The coefficient of cubical expansion of the zinc bar is 0.004 K−1 .
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Problems 7
Example Problems
3. A container whose capacity is 70 ml is filled with a liquid up to 50 ml. Then, the liquid in
the container is heated. Initially, the level of the liquid falls from 50 ml to 48.5 ml. Then we
heat more, the level of the liquid rises to 51.2 ml. Find the apparent and real expansion.
Given : Level of the liquid L1 = 50 ml [TB – 38, 39] [PTA – 6]
Level of the liquid L2 = 48.5 ml
Level of the liquid L3 = 51.2 ml
Solution: Apparent expansion = L3 − L1 = 51.2 ml – 50 ml = 1.2 ml
Real expansion = L3 – L2 = 51.2 ml – 48.5 ml = 2.7 ml
∴ Real expansion is 2.7 ml and apparent expansion is 1.2 ml.
4. Keeping the temperature as constant, a gas is compressed four times of its initial pressure. The
volume of gas in the container changing from 20 cc (V1 cc) to V2 cc. Find the final volume V2.
Given: Initial pressure (P1) = P Final Pressure (P2) = 4 P [TB – 39] [PTA – 3]
Initial volume (V1) = 20 cc = 20 cm3 (∵ cc refers to cubic centimeter i.e. cm3)
Final volume (V2) = ?
Solution : Using Boyle's Law, PV = constant
P1V1 = P2V2
P1
V2 = × V1
P2
P
= × 20cm3
4P
𝑉2 = 5 cm3 i.e. 5 cc
∴ Final volume V2 is 5 cc.
Additional Problems
5. The length of an aluminium rod at the temperature 303 K is 50 m. What would be its
increase in length when it is heated to 323 K? (The linear co-efficient of Aluminium is
𝟐𝟑 × 𝟏𝟎−𝟔 𝐊−𝟏 ) [PTA – 1]
Given: ΔL= increase in length, ∆T = 323 K− 303 K = 20 K
L0 (Original length)= 50 m, αL =23 ×10-6 K-1
∆L
Solution : = αL ∆T ⇒ ∆L = αL ∆T × L0
L0
∆L = (23 ×10-6) × 20 × 50 = 0.023
∴ Increase in length of an aluminium rod is 0.023 m
6. Convert 𝟖𝟎°F temperature into kelvin scale. [PTA – 6]
Given : Temperature = 80°F
5 5
Solution: Fahrenheit to Kelvin, K = (F + 460) × = (80 + 460) × = 300 K
9 9
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4. ELECTRICITY
Numerical problems
1. An electric iron consumes energy at the rate of 420 W when heating is at the maximum rate
and 180 W when heating is at the minimum rate. The applied voltage is 220 V. What is the
current in each case?
Given : Applied voltage, V = 220 V
When heating is at maximum rate, P = 420 W
Solution : P = VI
P 420 21
∴I= = = = 1.909 A
V 220 11
∴ When heating is at minimum rate, P = 180 W
P = VI
P 180 9
∴ Current, I = = = = 0.818 A
V 220 11
2. A 100 watt electric bulb is used for 5 hours daily and four 60 watt bulbs are used for 5 hours
daily. Calculate the energy consumed (in kWh) in the month of January.
Given : No. of days in January month = 31 days
No. of 60 W bulb = 4
Time of usage of 60 W bulb = 5 hours
Time of usage of 100 W bulb = 5 hours
Solution :
Energy consumed in January by one 100 W bulb = P × t × no. of days used × no. of bulbs
= 100 × 5 × 31× 1 = 15500
= 15.5 kWh.
Energy consumed in January by four 60 W bulb = P × t × no. of days used × no. of bulbs
= 60 × 5 × 31× 4 = 37.2 kWh
∴ Total energy consumed in the month of January = 15.5 + 37.2 = 52.7 kWh
3. A torch bulb is rated at 3 V and 600 mA. Calculate its
a) Power b) Resistance c) Energy consumed if it is used for 4 hour.
Given : V = 3 V ; I = 600 mA = 600 × 10-3 A = 0.6 A
Solution : a) Power
P = VI = 3 × 0.6 = 1.8 watt
b) Resistance
V 3
R= = =5Ω
I 0.6
c) Energy consumed if it used for 4 hour.
E = power × time
E = 1.8 × 4 = 7.2 watt hour
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Problems 9
4. A piece of wire having a resistance R is cut into five equal parts.

a) How will the resistance of each part of the wire change compared with the original resistance?
b) If the five parts of the wire are placed in parallel, how will the resistance of the combination change?
c) What will be the ratio of the effective resistance in series connection to that of the parallel connection?
Solution :
L
a) The wire is cut into five equal parts ⇒ length of each part L′ =
5
′ 𝜌L′ 𝜌L R
Resistance of each part, R = = =
𝐴 5𝐴 5
∴ The resistance of each part of the wire is reduced to five times of the original resistance.
b) If the five part of the wire are placed in parallel
1 1 1 1 1 1
= + + + +
RP R1 R2 R3 R4 R5
1 1 1 1 1 1
RP
= R⁄ + R⁄ + R⁄ + R⁄ + R⁄
5 5 5 5 5
1 5 5 5 5 5
= + + + +
RP R R R R R
1 25
=
RP R
R
RP =
25
c) If the five parts of the wire are connected in series, it is the same as the original wire.
∴ Resistance RS = R
The ratio of the effective resistance in series and parallel connection
R R
Rs : Rp = S = R
RP
25
R×25 25
= =
R 1
Rs : Rp = 25 : 1
Example Problems
5. A charge of 12 coulomb flows through a bulb 7. The resistance of a wire of length 10 m is
in 5 seconds. What is the current through 2 ohm. If the area of cross section of the
the bulb? [TB– 43, SEP-21, MAY-22] wire is 2 × 10 -7 m2, determine its
Given : Charge, Q = 12 C, Time, t = 5 s (i) Resistivity (ii) Conductance
Q 12
Solution : I= = = 2.4 A (iii) Conductivity. [TB – 47]
t 5
∴ Current through the bulb I = 2.4 A Given : Length, L = 10 m
Resistance, R = 2 Ω, Area, A = 2 × 10 -7 m2
6. The work done in moving a charge of 10 C
Solution:
across two points in a circuit is 100 J.
RA 2×2×10−7
What is the potential difference between (i) Resistivity ρ = =
L 10
the points? [TB – 44, 45] −8
Given : Charge, Q = 10 C, ρ = 4 × 10 Ωm
1 1
Work done, W = 100 J (ii) Conductance, G = = = 0.5 mho
R 2
W
Solution : Potential difference V = 1 1
Q (iii) Conductivity, σ = =
100 ρ 4 ×10−8
= = 10 V
10 σ = 0.25 × 108 mho m-1
∴ Potential difference V = 10 V.
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8. Calculate the resistance of a conductor 9. Three resistors of resistance 5 ohm, 3 ohm

and 2 ohm are connected in series with 10 V
through which a current of 2 A passes,
battery. Calculate their effective resistance
when the potential difference between its
and the current flowing through the circuit.
ends is 30 V. [TB – 46]
Given : R1 = 5 Ω, R2 = 3 Ω [TB – 48]
Given : Current through the conductor, I = 2 A, R3 = 2 Ω, V = 10 V
Potential difference, V = 30 V Solution: Rs = R1 + R2 + R3
Rs = 5 + 3 + 2 = 10 Ω
V 30 V 10
Solution : Ohm’s law, R = = = 15 Ω I = = =1A
Rs 10
I 2
∴ The current through the circuit is 1A.
10. An electric heater of resistance 5 Ω is 12. Two bulbs are having the ratings as 60 W,
220 V and 40 W, 220 V respectively. Which
connected to an electric source. If a
one has a greater resistance? [TB – 54]
current of 6 A flows through the heater, Solution:
V2
then find the amount of heat produced in Electric power P =
R
5 minutes.[TB – 51] [PTA – 4, SEP - 2020]  For the same value of V, P is inversely
proportional to R.
Given: R = 5 Ω, I=6A  Therefore, lesser the power, greater is
Time, t = 5 minutes = 5 × 60 = 300 s the resistance.
 Hence, the bulb with 40 W, 220 V
Solution: Heat produced H = I2 Rt rating has a greater resistance.
H = 6 × 6 × 5 × 300 13. Three resistors of resistances 1 Ω, 2 Ω and
4 Ω are connected in parallel in a circuit.
H = 54000 J = 54 kJ
If a 1 Ω resistor draws a current of 1A.
∴ The amount of heat produced in 5 minutes is Find the current through the other two
54000 J (or) 54 kJ. resistors. [TB – 55]
Given: R1 = 1 Ω, R2 = 2 Ω,
11. Calculate the current and the resistance of R3 = 4 Ω, I1 = 1 A
a 100 W, 200 V, electric bulb in an electric Solution :
Potential difference across the 1 Ω
circuit? [TB – 54] resistor V1 = I1R1 = 1× 1 = 1 V
Given : Power (P) = 100 W, For resistors in parallel, the potential
difference across all the resistors is same.
Voltage (V) = 200 V
The current in the 2 Ω resistor is
Solution: P = VI V 1
I2 = = = 0.5 A
R2 2
P 100
∴I= = = 0.5 A The current in the 4 Ω resistor is
V 200
V 1
V 200 I3 = = = 0.25 A
Resistance R = = = 400 Ω R3 4
I 0.5
∴ Current through 2 Ω resistor is 0.5 A and that
in 4Ω resistor is 0.25 A.
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Problems 11
14. In the circuit diagram given below, three ⇒ V = 10 V

resistors R1, R2 and R3 of 5 Ω, 10 Ω and V 10
Current through R1 is I1 = = =2A
R1 5
20 Ω respectively are connected as shown. V 10
Calculate, [TB – 54, 55] Current through R2 is I2 = = =1A
R2 10
a) Current through each resistor V 10
Current through R3 is I3 = = = 0.5 A
R3 20
b) Total current in the circuit
c) Total resistance in the circuit b) Total current in the circuit,
I = I1 + I2 + I3
I = 2 + 1 + 0.5 = 3.5 A
c) Total resistance in the circuit,
1 1 1 1 1 1 1
= + + = + +
RP R1 R2 R3 5 10 20
1 4+2+1 7
= =
RP 20 20
a) Current through each resistor 20
For resistors in parallel, the potential Rp = = 2.857 Ω
7
difference across each resistor is same.
Additional Problems
15. Calculate the effective resistance of given 16. An electric lamp of resistance 20 ohm and a
circuit across terminals AC. [PTA – 2] resistance of 4 ohm are connected in series to
a 6 v battery as shown in the figure.
a) Find the total resistance of the circuit.
b) Find the current flowing through the
circuit.
c) Find the potential difference across the
resistance.
Given :
Two 5 Ω resistors are connected in series
Given : [PTA – 6]
which is parallel to 10 Ω resistor.
R1 = 20 Ω, R2 = 4 Ω V = 6 V
Solution: Rs = R1 + R2 Solution:
= 5 + 5 = 10 a) Total resistance of the circuit,
1 1 1 Rs = R1 + R2 = 20 Ω + 4 Ω
= +
Rp 10 10 Rs = 24 Ω
1 2 1 b) The current through the circuit,
= = V 6
Rp 10 5
I= =
R 24
Rp = 5 Ω I = 𝟎. 𝟐𝟓 𝐀
∴ Effective resistance across terminals AC, c) The potential difference across the resistance,
Rp = 𝟓 Ω V = I × R = 0.25 × 4
V=1V
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17. A piece of wire having a resistance of 5 18. A charge of 10 coulomb flows through a
ohm cut into five equal parts. If the five bulb for 5 seconds. What is the current
parts of the wire are connected in parallel, through the bulb? [MDL – 19]
then find the effective resistance of the Given :
combination? [PTA – 3] Charge, Q = 10 C
Given : Time, t = 5 s
L Solution :
Let length of single part be L’ = Q
5
∴I=
ρL′ t
Solution: R’ = 10
A = =2A
ρL 5
= ∴ The current through the bulb, I = 2 A
5A
R 5
= = =1Ω
5 5
Effective resistance in Parallel connection,
1 1 1 1 1 1 5
= + + + + =
Rp R’ R’ R’ R’ R’ R’
=5Ω
∴ Effective resistance,
1
Rp = = 0.2 Ω
5
HOT Questions
1. Two resistors when connected in parallel give the resultant resistance of 2 ohm; but when
connected in series the effective resistance becomes 9 ohm. Calculate the value of each resistance.
Solution :
1 1 1 1
= + = …………… (1)
RP R1 R2 2
Rs = R1 + R2 = 9 Ω …………… (2)
R2 = 9 – R1 ……………. (3)
Substitute (3) in (1)
1 1 1
+ =
R1 9 − R1 2
9 − R1 + R1 1
=
R1 (9 − 𝑅1 ) 2
9 1
=
R1 (9 − 𝑅1 ) 2
18 = 9 R1 – R21
R21 − 9 R1+18 = 0
(R1 – 3) (R1– 6) = 0
R1 = 3 Ω (or) R1 = 6 Ω
R2 = 9 – 3 = 6 Ω (or) R2 = 9 – 6 = 3 Ω
∴ Resistance of the two resistors are 3 Ω and 6 Ω.
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Problems 13
2. How many electrons are passing per second in a circuit in which there is a current of 5 A?
Given : I =5A; Time, t = 1 s ; e = 1.6 × 10 -19 C [MDL – 19]
Solution : Let, no of electrons be n
Q ne
I= = [∵ Q = ne]
t t
It 5×1
n= =
e 1.6 × 10−19
n = 3.125 × 1019 electrons

∴ 3.125 × 1019 electrons are passing per second in the given circuit.
3. A piece of wire of resistance 10 ohm is drawn out so that its length is increased to three times
its original length. Calculate the new resistance.
Given : R = 10 Ω ; Original length = L ; Increased length = 3 L
Solution :
If the length is increased to 3 times of its original length at constant volume, the area of
A
cross section is decreased to 3 times of its original area. ∴ A′ =
3
ρL′ ρ3L ρL
New Resistance, R′ = = A =9 =9R
A′ A
3
R′ = 9 × 10 = 90 Ω
∴ The value of new resistance is 90 Ω.
5. ACOUSTICS
Problems from Two Marks
1. What will be the frequency of sound having 0.20 m as its wavelength, when it travels with
a speed of 331 m s-1?
V 331 3310
n= = = = 1655 Hz
λ 0.20 2
2. Air temperature in the Rajasthan desert can reach 46°𝑪. What is the velocity of sound in
air at that temperature? (V0 = 331 m s-1)
V0 = 331 m s-1 T = 46℃
VT = V0 + 0.61 T = 331 + 0.61 × 46 = 359.06 ms-1
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Numerical problems
1. A sound wave has a frequency of 200 Hz 4. An ultrasonic wave is sent from a ship
and a speed of 400 m s-1 in a medium. Find towards the bottom of the sea. It is found
the wavelength of the sound wave. that the time interval between the
Given : transmission and reception of the wave is
1.6 seconds. What is the depth of the sea,
Frequency, n = 200 Hz
if the velocity of sound in the seawater is
Speed, v = 400 m s-1 1400 m s-1?
Wavelength 𝜆 = ? Given :
Solution : Time interval between transmission
Velocity, v = n λ and reception of the wave, t = 1.6 s
v 400 Solution :
λ= = = 2m
n 200 Velocity of sound in sea water, v =1400 m s-1
2. The thunder of cloud is heard 9.8 seconds Depth of sea = ?
Distance travelled by the wave = 2 d
later than the flash of lightning. If the 2𝑑 𝑉𝑡
speed of sound in air is 330 m s-1, what will Velocity, V = ⇒d=
𝑡 2
1400 × 1.6
be the height of the cloud? 𝑑=
2
Given : Time, t = 9.8 seconds = 1120 𝑚
Speed, v = 330 m s-1 5. A man is standing between two vertical
Height of the cloud, d = ? walls 680 m apart. He claps his hands and
height hears two distinct echoes after 0.9 seconds
Solution : v=
Time and 1.1 second respectively. What is the
height = v × t speed of sound in the air?
= 330 × 9.8 = 3234 m
∴ Height of the cloud is 3234 m.
3. A person who is sitting at a distance of 400 m

from a source of sound is listening to a sound
of 600 Hz. Find the time period between Given : Let t1 = 0.9 s, t2 = 1.1 s be the
successive compressions from the source? time of reach of the two echoes.
Given : Frequency, n = 600 Hz Velocity of sound in air, V = ?
Time period between successive Solution: Let d1, d2 be the distance between
compressions, T =? the man and the walls.
2d 2d
Solution : V= 1 V= 2
t1 t2
The time period The time period 𝑉×𝑡1 𝑉×𝑡2
d1 = d2 =
between successive = of the wave(T). 2 2
𝑉×𝑡1 𝑉×𝑡2 𝑉
compressions d 1 + d2 = + = (t1 + t2)
2 2 2
𝑉
1 (0.9 + 1.1) = 680 m
T= 2
𝑛 𝑉
1 × 2 = 680 m
= = 0.00166 s 2
600
T = 1.7 × 10−3 seconds V = 680 m s-1
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Problems 15
6. Two observers are stationed in two boats 7. A strong sound signal is sent from a ship
4.5 km apart. A sound signal sent by one, towards the bottom of the sea. It is received
under water, reaches the other after back after 1 s. What is the depth of sea given
3 seconds. What is the speed of sound in that the speed of sound in water 1450 m s-1?
the water? Given : V = 1450 m s-1 ; t=1s
Given : d = 4.5 km = 4500 m 2 ×depth of sea
Solution : Velocity =
time
t=3s Velocity × time
𝑑 Depth of sea =
2
Solution : Speed of sound, V =
𝑡 1450 × 1
4500 =
2
V= = 1500 m s-1
3
Depth of sea = 725 m
Example Problems
8. At what temperature will the velocity of sound in air be double the velocity of sound in air at 𝟎° 𝐂?
Given : Let, T → Required temperature in °C. [TB – 61, 62]
V1 and V2 → Velocity of sound at temperatures T1K and T2K respectively.
T1 = 273 K (0°C) and T2 = (273 + T) K V2 = 2V1
V2 T2 273+T
Solution : =√ =√ =2
V1 T1 273
T+273
= 4 ⇒ T = (4 × 273) – 273
273
T = 1092 – 273 = 819℃

∴ At 819℃, the velocity of sound in air will be double the velocity of sound in air at 0℃.
9. A source producing a sound of frequency 90 Hz is approaching a stationary listener with a

speed equal to (1/10) of the speed of sound. What will be the frequency heard by the listener?
1
Given : Vs = v, n = 90 Hz [TB – 67] [PTA – 4]
10
Solution : When the source is moving towards the stationary listener, the expression for
V
apparent frequency, n′ = ( )n
V−Vs
V v
N′ = ( 1 ) n = ( (10−1)v ) n
V− v
10 10
10
= ( )n
9
10
n′ = ( ) × 90 = 100 Hz
9
∴ The frequency heard by the listener is 100 Hz.

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10. A source producing a sound of frequency 500 Hz is moving towards a listener with a
velocity of 30 𝐦 𝐬 −𝟏. The speed of the sound is 330 𝐦 𝐬 −𝟏. What will be the frequency heard
by listener? [TB – 67, 68] [PTA – 2]
−1 −1
Given : V = 330 m s , Vs = 30 m s , n = 500 Hz
V 330
apparent frequency, n′ = ( )n = ( ) × 500
V−Vs 330−30
330 11
n′ = ( ) × 500 = × 500 = 550 Hz
300 10
∴ The frequency heard by listener is 550 Hz.
11. A source of sound is moving with a velocity of 50 𝐦 𝐬 −𝟏 towards a stationary listener. The
listener measures the frequency of the source as 1000 Hz. What will be the apparent
frequency of the source when it is moving away from the listener after crossing him?
(velocity of sound in the medium is 330 𝐦 𝐬 −𝟏) [TB – 68] [MDL – 19]
Given : V = 330 m s −1 , Vs = 50 m s−1 , n′ = 1000 Hz
V
apparent frequency n′ = ( )n
V−Vs
330 330 1000×280
1000 = ( )n = ( )n ⇒ n = 330
= 848.48 Hz
330−50 280
∴ The actual frequency of the sound is 848.48 Hz
When the source is moving away from the stationary listener, the expression for apparent frequency is,
V 330
n′ = ( )n = ( ) × 848.48 = 736.84 Hz
V+Vs 330+50
∴ The apparent frequency of the sound is 736.84 Hz
12. At what speed should a source of sound 13. A source and listener are both moving
move away from a stationary observer so towards each other with a speed v/10
that observer finds the apparent where v is the speed of sound. If the
frequency equal to half of the original frequency of the note emitted by the
frequency? [TB – 68] [PTA – 5] source is f, what will be the frequency
n heard by the listener? [TB – 68]
Given : n′ = v
2
Given : V𝑙 = ms −1
Solution: 10
v
When the source is moving away from the Vs = ms −1 , n = f
10
stationary listener, the expression for the Solution: When source and listener are
V both moving towards each other,
apparent frequency, n′ = ( )n
V+Vs V+V𝑙
The apparent frequency, n′ = ( )n
n V V−Vs
⇒ =( )n 𝑣
2 V+Vs 𝑉+ 11v 10 11
10
n= ( 𝑣 ) 𝑛 = ( × ) f = f = 1.22 f
Vs = V 𝑉−
10
10 9v 9
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Problems 17
Additional Problems
14. From the given figure, calculate angle of reflection of sound. [PTA –4]
Solution: i = 90̊ – 50̊ = 40̊
angle of incident sound (i)= angle of reflected sound (r)
Therefore, Angle of Reflection of sound (r) = 40̊
15. Calculate the frequency of visible light having wavelength 3000A° travelling in vacuum.
Given : Wavelength (λ) = 3000 Å = 3000 × 10−10 m [PTA – 5]
Solution : Velocity of light (𝑐) = 3 × 108 ms-1
C 3×108 3×108
frequency(ν) =
λ
= −10 =
3000×10 3×10−7
frequency(𝜈) = 1015 Hz
16. A strong ultrasonic sound signal is sent from a ship towards the bottom of the sea. It is
received by the receiver after 2 s. Calculate the depth of sea? The speed of sound in water
1450 m s-1? [PTA – 5]
Given :
V = 1450 ms-1 ; t = 2 s
Solution :
2 ×depth of sea
Velocity =
time
Velocity × time
Depth of sea =
2
1450 × 2
Depth of sea = = 1450 m
2
6. NUCLEAR PHYSICS
Numerical problems
1. 88Ra
226
experiences three α- decay. Find the number of neutrons in the daughter element.
Three 𝛼 decay 88Ra → z-2Y
226 A-4
+ 3 2He4
Mass number of Parent element = Mass number of 3 α-particles + Mass number of daughter element
226 = 34 +A
226 = 12 + A
A = 226 – 12
A = 214
Atomic number of Parent element = Atomic number of 3 α-particles + Atomic number of daughter element
88 = 32 + Z
88 = 6 + Z
Z = 88 – 6
Z = 82
Number of neutrons = A – Z
= 214 – 82 = 132
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2. A cobalt specimen emits induced radiation of 75.6 millicurie per second. Convert this
disintegration into Becquerel (one curie = 3.7 × 1010Bq)
1 Curie = 3.7 ×1010Bq
75.6 millicurie = 75.6 ×10-3 × 3.7 ×1010
= 75.6× 3.7 ×107
= 279.72 ×107
= 0. 28 ×1010 Bq
Example Problems
3. Identify A, B, C, and D from the following 4. A radon specimen emits radiation of
nuclear reactions. [Ex : 6.1, TB – 85] 3.7×103 GBq per second. Convert this
(i) 13Al + A→ 15P + B
27 30
disintegration in terms of curie.
(ii) 12Mg + B → 11Na + C
24 24
[Ex : 6.2, TB – 85]
(iii) 92U238+ B → 93Np239+ D 10
(1 curie = 3.7 × 10 disintegration per second)
Solution : Given :
(i) 13Al + 2He →
27 4 30
15P + 0n
1
1 Bq = one disintegration per second,
(ii) 12Mg + 0n →
24 1 24
11Na + 1H
1
one curie = 3.7 × 1010 Bq
(iii) 92U238+ 0n1→ 93Np
239
+ –1e0 Solution :
1
A ⟶ 𝛼 particle( 2He4) 1 Bq = curie
3.7×1010
B ⟶ Neutron (0n1) ∴ 3.7 × 103 GBq = 3.7 × 103 × 109 ×
1
C ⟶ Proton (1H1) 3.7×1010
D ⟶ Electron (–1e0) = 100 curie

3
∴ 3.7 × 10 GBq = 100 curie
5. 92U235 experiences one 𝜶 - decay and one 𝜷 - decay. Find number of neutrons in the final
daughter nucleus that is formed. [Ex : 6.3, TB – 85]
Let X & Y be the final daughter nucleus.
𝛂 – decay :
α decay
235
92U → 231
90X + 2He4
mass number (A) = 235 – 4 = 231
atomic number(Z) = 92 – 2 = 90
𝛃 – decay :
β decay
90X
231
→ 91Y
231
+ -1𝑒 0
mass number (A) = 231 (remains same)
atomic number(Z) = 90 + 1 = 91
No. of neutrons = Mass number – Atomic number = 231 – 91 = 140
∴ Number of neutrons in the final daughter nucleus is 140.
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Problems 19
𝟐𝟑𝟓
Example Problem 8. 𝟗𝟐 𝑼 experiences one 𝜶 decay. Find the
number of neutrons in the final daughter
6. Calculate the amount of energy released nucleus that is formed. [PTA – 1]
when a radioactive substance undergoes One 𝜶 decay 92U → ZY + 2He +energy
235 A 4
fusion and results in a mass defect of 2 kg.
mass number (A) = 235 – 4 = 231
Given : [Ex : 6.4, TB – 85] atomic number(Z) = 92 – 2 = 90
m = 2 kg ;
Number of neutrons = A – Z
c = 3 × 108ms-1 = 231 – 90 = 141
Solution :
9. In the nuclear reaction given below, the nucleus
Einstein’s equation, E = mc 2 X changes to nucleus Y by the reaction of alpha
E = 2 × (3 × 108 )2 decay. Then what are the atomic number and
= 1.8 × 1017J mass number of Y? [PTA – 5]
Additional Problems One 𝜶 decay 88X → ZY + 2He +energy
226 A 4
𝟐𝟑𝟖 mass number (A) = 226 – 4 = 222

7. 𝟗𝟐 𝑼 experiences 𝜶 decay. Find the
number of neutrons in the daughter atomic number(Z) = 88 – 2 = 86
element. [SEP – 2021] ∴ Atomic number of Y is 86 and mass
number is 222.
One 𝜶 decay 92U → ZY + 2He
238 A 4
+energy
10. Calculate the amount of energy released
mass number (A) = 238 – 4 = 234 when a radioactive substance undergoes
atomic number(Z) = 92 – 2 = 90 fusion and results in a mass defect of 1 kg.
Number of neutrons = A – Z Mass defect in the reaction (m) = 1 kg
= 234 – 90 Velocity of light (c) = 3 × 108 m s-1
Number of neutrons = 144 By Einstein’s equation, E = mc2
∴ No. of neutrons in the daughter nucleus is 144. So, E = 1× (3 × 108)2 [PTA – 5]
= 9 × 1016 J (or) 0.9 × 1017 J
Higher Order Thinking Questions

1. Mass number of a radioactive element is 232 and its atomic number is 90. When this
element undergoes certain nuclear reactions, it transforms into an isotope of lead with a
mass number 208 and an atomic number 82. Determine the number of alpha and beta
decay that can occur.
Let a, b be the number of alpha and beta decay respectively.
90X
232
→ 82Pb208 + a 2He4 + b -1e0
Comparing mass number Comparing Atomic number
Mass number of ‘a’ alpha particle = 4a Atomic number of ‘a’ alpha particle = 2a
Mass number of ‘b’ beta particle = 0 Atomic number of ‘b’ beta particle = -b
232 = 208 + 4a + 0 90 = 82 + 2a - b
4a = 232 – 208 90 - 82 = 2a – b
4a = 24 8 = 2 (6) – b
a=6 b = 12 – 8 = 4
∴ The number of alpha decay is 6 and number of beta decay is 4.
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Problems from Two marks and Five Marks
1. Find the percentage of nitrogen in ammonia. [PTA – 1]
Molecular mass of NH3 = 14 +(1 × 3) = 17 g

14
% of Nitrogen in NH3 = × 100 = 82.35 %
17
2. Calculate the number of water molecule present in one drop of water, which weighs 0.18 g.
Molecular mass of H2O= (1 × 2) + 16 = 18 g

Mass of water
Number of molecules = × Avogadro′s number
Molecular mass
0.18
= × 6.023 × 1023
18
= 6.023 × 1021
∴ The No. of water molecules = 6.023× 1021
3. N2 + 3 H2 → 2 NH3 (The atomic mass of nitrogen is 14, and that of hydrogen is 1)
1 mole of nitrogen (__g) + 3 moles of hydrogen (__ g) → 2 moles of ammonia (__ g)
Mass = No. of moles × Molecular mass
Mass of N2 = 1 × (14 × 2) = 28
Mass of H2 = 3 × (1 × 2) = 6
Mass of NH3 = 2 × (14 + (3 × 1)) = 34
1 mole of nitrogen (28 g) + 3 moles of hydrogen (6 g) → 2 moles of ammonia (34 g)
4. Calculate the number of moles in i) 27g of Al ii) 1.51 × 1023 molecules of NH4Cl. [PTA – 5]
i) 27g of Al : ii) 1.51 × 1023 molecules of NH4Cl :

Mass of 𝐴𝑙 Number of Molecules
Atomic mass of 𝐴𝑙 Avogadro′ s number
27 1.51×1023
= = 1 mole = = 0.25 moles
27 6.023×1023
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Problems 21
Additional Problems
5. In chemical industries, the following chemical reaction is used to produce ammonia in
large scale. 𝐍𝟐 + 𝟑𝐇𝟐 ⇌ 𝟐𝐍𝐇𝟑 [PTA – 3]
Based on mole concept, calculate the mass of nitrogen gas and hydrogen gas required in
kilogram to produce 1000kg of ammonia by using the above chemical equation.
Mass of NH3 produced = 1000 kg =106 g

Molecular mass of NH3 = 14 + (3 × 1) = 17 g
𝑚𝑎𝑠𝑠 𝑜𝑓 𝑁𝐻3 𝑝𝑟𝑜𝑑𝑢𝑐𝑒𝑑 106
No. of moles of NH3 = =
𝑚𝑜𝑙𝑒𝑐𝑢𝑙𝑎𝑟 𝑚𝑎𝑠𝑠 𝑜𝑓𝑁𝐻3 17
2 moles of NH3 is produced from 3 moles of H2

106 106 3
∴ moles of NH3 is produced from × moles of H2
17 17 2
Required Mass of H2 = No. of moles × Molecular mass
106 3
= × × (2 × 1) = 176.47 kg of H2
17 2
2 moles of NH3 is produced from 1 mole of N2

106 106 1
∴ moles of NH3 is produced from × moles of N2
17 17 2
106 1 28
Required Mass of N2 = × 2 × (14 × 2) = 34 × 106
17
= 0.82353 × 106 g = 823.53 kg of N2
∴ Required mass of Nitrogen gas = 823.53 kg
Required mass of Hydrogen gas = 176.47 kg
Numerical problems
1. How many grams are there in the following? [PTA – 4]
Mass = 𝐍𝐨. 𝐨𝐟 𝐦𝐨𝐥𝐞𝐬 × 𝐌𝐨𝐥𝐞𝐜𝐮𝐥𝐚𝐫 𝐦𝐚𝐬𝐬
i) 2 moles of hydrogen molecule, H2 ii) 3 moles of chlorine molecule, Cl2

Molecular mass = 1 × 2 = 2 Molecular mass = 35.5 × 2 = 71
Mass of 2 moles of H2 = 2 × 2 = 4 g Mass of 3 moles of Cl2 = 3 × 71 = 213 g
iii) 5 moles of sulphur molecule, S8 iv) 4 moles of phosphorous molecule, P4

Molecular mass = 32 × 8 = 256 Molecular mass = 30 × 4 = 120
Mass of 5 moles of S8 = 5 × 256 = 1280 g Mass of 4 moles of P4 = 4 × 120 = 480 g
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2. Calculate the (mass) % of each element in calcium carbonate. (Atomic mass: C -12, O -16, Ca - 40)
Molecular mass of CaCO3 = 40 + 12 + (16 × 3) = 100 g [PTA – 2]
Mass of Individual 𝐌𝐚𝐬𝐬 𝐨𝐟 𝐞𝐥𝐞𝐦𝐞𝐧𝐭 Mass percentage of
Elements × 𝟏𝟎𝟎
element 𝐌𝐨𝐥𝐞𝐜𝐮𝐥𝐚𝐫 𝐦𝐚𝐬𝐬 each element
40
Ca 40 × 100 40%
100
12
C 12 × 100 12%
100
48 48
O × 100 48%
(3×16 = 48) 100
3. Calculate the % of oxygen in Al2(SO4)3. (Atomic mass: Al -27, O -16, S - 32). [PTA – 2]
Molecular mass of Al2(SO4)3 = (2 × 27) + (3×(32 +(4 ×16)))
= (2 × 27) + (3×96)
= 54 + 288 = 342 g
3 ×4×16
% of O in Al2(SO4)3 = × 100
342
192
= × 100 = 56.14%
342
4. Calculate the % relative abundance of B -10 and B -11, if its average atomic mass is 10.804 amu.
Let 𝑎1 , 𝑎2 be the % abundance of B-10 and B-11 respectively.
Mass of B-10, m1 = 10
Mass of B-11, m2 = 11
𝑎1 +𝑎2 = 100
𝑎1 = 100 − 𝑎2
Average Atomic Mass of B = 10.804 amu
a1 a2
Average Atomic Mass = m1 × + m2 ×
100 100
(100−𝑎2 ) a2
= 10 × + 11 ×
100 100
𝑎2 11a2
= 10 × (1 − )+
100 100
10𝑎2 11a
= 10 − + 2
100 100
a2
10.804 = 10 +
100
a2
=10.804 – 10 = 0.804
100
𝑎2 = 0.804 × 100 = 80.4 %
𝑎1 = 100 − 80.4 = 19.6 %
∴ % abundance of B-10 = 19.6 %
% abundance of B-11 = 80.4%
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Problems 23
Example Problems
Calculation of Average Atomic Mass
5. Oxygen is the most abundant element in both the Earth’s crust and the human body. It
exists as a mixture of three stable isotopes in nature as shown in below table. Calculate the
atomic mass of oxygen. [TB – 94]
Isotope Mass (amu) % abundance
16
8O 15.9949 99. 757
17
8O 16.9991 0.038
18
8O 17.9992 0.205
Atomic mass of oxygen = (15.9949 × 0.99757) + (16.9991 × 0.00038) + (17.9992 × 0.00205)
= 15.999 amu
6. Boron naturally occurs as a mixture of boron-10 (5 protons + 5 neutrons) and
boron-11(5 protons + 6 neutrons) isotopes. The percentage abundance of B-10 is 20 and
that of B-11 is 80. Calculate the atomic mass of boron. [TB – 94]
20 80
Atomic mass of boron = (10 × ) + (11 × )
100 100
= (10 × 0.20) + (11 × 0.80)
= 2 + 8.8 = 10.8 amu
Calculation of Relative Molecular Mass
7. Sulphuric acid contains 2 atoms of 8. A water molecule is made of 2 atoms of
hydrogen, 1 atom of sulphur and 4 atoms hydrogen and one atom of oxygen.
of oxygen. Calculate the relative molecular Calculate the relative molecular mass of
mass of sulphuric acid (H2SO4). water (H2O). [TB – 96]
[TB – 96] Relative (2 × mass of hydrogen)
Relative (2 × mass of hydrogen)+ +
Molecular = (1 × mass of Molecular = (1 × mass of oxygen)
sulphur) Mass of water
Mass of H2SO4 +(4 × mass of = (2 × 1) + (1 × 16) = 18
oxygen) ∴ One molecule of H2O is 18 times as
1
= (2 × 1) + (1 × 32) + (4 × 16) = 98 heavy as of the mass of a carbon –
12th
∴ One molecule of H2SO4 is 98 times as 12.
1
heavy as of the mass of a carbon –
12th
12.
Calculation of Mass percentage composition
9. Find the mass percentage composition of methane (CH4). [TB – 98]
Molar mass of CH4 = 12 + (1 × 4) = 16 g
12
Mass % of Carbon = × 100 = 75%
16
4
Mass % of Hydrogen = × 100 = 25%
16
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Calculation of Molecular mass
10. Calculate the gram molecular mass of the following. i) H2O ii) CO2 iii) Ca3 (PO4)2
i) H2O [TB – 99, 100] ii) CO [TB – 100] [SEP-2021]
2 iii) Ca3 (PO4)2 [TB – 100]
Atomic mass of H =1,O=16 Atomic mass of Atomic mass of Ca = 40, P =30, O =16
Gram Molecular Mass of H O C=12,O=16
2
Gram Molecular Mass of Ca3(PO4)2
= (1 × 2) + (16 × 1) Gram Molecular Mass of = (40 × 3) + [30 + (16 × 4)] × 2
CO 2 = 120 + (94 × 2) = 120 + 188= 308 g
= 2 + 16 = 18 g
= (12 × 1) + (16 ×2)
= 12 + 32 = 44 g
Calculation based on number of atoms / molecules

11. i) Calculate the number of moles in 46 g of sodium. [TB – 100] [MDL – 19]
Mass of the element 46
Number of moles of Sodium = = = 2 moles
Atomic mass of the element 23
ii) Calculate the number of moles in iii) Calculate the number of moles of a sample
5.6 litre of oxygen at S.T.P. [TB – 100] that contains 12.046 × 1023 atoms of iron.
Number of moles of Oxygen Number of moles of Iron [TB – 100]
Given volume of O2 at S.T.P Number of atoms of iron
= =
Molar volume at S.T.P Avogadro′ s number
5.6 12.046 × 1023
= = 0.25 mole = = 2 moles
22.4 6.023 × 1023
Calculation of mass from mole

12. Calculate the mass of the following : [TB – 100, 101]
Mass of Compound Number of atoms Given volume at STP
No. of moles = = =
Molecular / atomic mass Avogadro′ s number Molar Volume
i) 0.3 mole of Aluminium (Atomic mass of Al = 27)

Mass = No. of moles × Atomic mass = 0.3 × 27 = 8.1 g
ii) 2.24 litre of SO2 gas at S.T.P
Molecular mass of SO2 = 32 + (16 × 2) = 32 + 32 = 64 g
2.24
Number of moles of SO2 = = 0.1 mole
22.4
Mass of SO2 = No. of moles × Molecular mass = 0.1 × 64 = 6.4 g
iii) 1.51 × 1023 molecules of water [MDL – 19] iv) 5 × 1023molecules of glucose?
Molecular mass of H2O = 18 Molecular mass of C6H12O6(glucose)
23
Number of moles =
1.51× 10 1
= = 0.25 mole = (12 × 6) + (1 × 12) + (16 × 6) =180
6.023 × 1023 4 Molecular mass×Number of particles
Mass Mass of glucose =
Avogadro′s number
Number of moles =
Molecular mass
180×5× 1023
mass = = 149.43 = 149.43 g
0.25 = ⇒ Mass = 0.25×18 = 4.5g 6.023 × 1023
18
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Problems 25
Calculation based on number of atoms / molecules

Mass of Compound Number of atoms given volume at STP
No. of moles = = =
\
13. i) Calculate the number of molecules in 11.2 litre of CO2 at S.T.P [TB – 101]
volume at S.T.P 11.2
Number of moles of CO2 = = = 0.5 mole
Molar volume 22.4
0.5
Number of molecules of CO2 = = 3.011×1023 molecules
6.023 × 1023
ii) Calculate the number of atoms present in iii)Calculate the number of molecules in 54 g
1 gram of gold (Atomic mass of Au = 198) of H2O.
Number of atoms of Au Number of molecules of water
Mass of Au ×Avogadro′ s number Avogadro number× Given mass
= =
Atomic mass of Au Gram molecular mass
1 6.023 ×1023 ×54
= 198 × 6.023 × 1023 =
18
= 3.042 × 1021 = 18.069 × 1023 molecules
iv) Calculate the number of atoms of oxygen and carbon in 5 moles of CO 2.
1 mole of CO2 contains 2 moles of oxygen ⇒ 5 moles of CO2 contain 10 moles of oxygen
Number of atoms of oxygen = Number of moles of oxygen × Avogadro’s number
= 10 × 6.023 ×1023
= 6.023×1024 atoms of oxygen
1 mole of CO2contains 1 mole of Carbon ⇒ 5 moles of CO2 contain 5 moles of Carbon
= 5 × 6.023 ×1023
= 3.011 ×1024 atoms of carbon
Calculation based on molar volume

14. Calculate the volume occupied by : [TB – 101]
Mass of Compound Number of atoms Given volume at STP
No. of moles = = =
i) 2.5 mole of CO2at S.T.P.

Volume of CO2 at S.T.P
2.5 mole of CO2 =
22.4
Volume of CO2 at S.T.P = 22.4 × 2.5 = 56 litres
ii) 12.046 × 1023 of ammonia gas molecules. iii) 14 g nitrogen gas.
Number of molecules 14
Avogadro′ s number 28
12.046 × 1023 = 0.5 mole
=
6.023 × 1023 Volume occupied by N2 at S.T.P,
= 2 moles = number of moles × molar volume
Volume occupied by NH3 = 0.5 × 22.4
= Number of moles × Molar volume = 11.2 litres
= 2 × 22.4 = 44.8 litres at S.T.P
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Calculation based on % composition
15. Calculate % of S in H2SO4. [TB – 102]
Molecular mass of H2SO4 = (1 × 2) + (32 × 1) + (16 × 4) = 2 + 32 + 64 = 98 g
Mass of Sulphur
% of S in H2SO4 = × 100
Molecular Mass of H2 SO4
32
= × 100 = 32.65%
98
Additional Problems
16. Calculate the number of molecules present in the 36 g water. [MDL – 19]
Given mass
Number of molecules of water = × Avogadro number
Gram Molecular Mass
36 23
= × 6.023 × 10
18
= 12.046 × 1023
17. The mass percentage of carbon is 27.28% and the mass percentage of oxygen is 72.73%.
Calculate the molecular mass of that compound. [PTA – 4]
Mass % of Carbon = 27.28 = Mass of C
Mass % of Oxygen = 72.73 = Mass of O
𝑀𝑎𝑠𝑠 % 𝑜𝑓 𝐶𝑎𝑟𝑏𝑜𝑛
No. of moles of C =
𝐴𝑡𝑜𝑚𝑖𝑐 𝑚𝑎𝑠𝑠 𝑜𝑓 𝐶𝑎𝑟𝑏𝑜𝑛
27.28
= = 2.27 ≅ 2
12
72.73
No. of moles of O = = 4.54 ≅ 4
16
Molecular formula : C2 O4 (or) 2 CO2
Molecular mass = (2 × 12) + (4 × 16) = 88g
HOT Questions
1. Calcium carbonate is decomposed on heating in the following reaction.
CaCO3 → CaO + CO2
i) How many moles of Calcium carbonate are involved in this reaction?
One mole of CaCO3 is involved in the reaction.
ii) Calculate the gram molecular mass of calcium carbonate involved in this reaction.
Gram Molecular Mass of CaCO3 = (40 × 1) + (12 × 1) + (16 × 3)
= 40 + 12 + 48 = 100 g
∴ Gram Molecular Mass of CaCO3 is = 1 × 100 g = 100 g
iii) How many moles of CO2 are there in this equation?
One mole of CO2 is involved in this reaction.
ELEMENTS
Hot Questions
1. a) Identify the bond between H and F in HF molecule.
Electronegativity of H = 2.1 and F = 4.0
Difference in electronegativity = 4.0 − 2.1 = 1.9 which is >1.7
∴ The bond between H and F in HF molecule is ionic.
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Problems 27
Problems from Five Marks

1. A solution is prepared by dissolving 45 g of sugar in 180 g of water. Calculate the mass
percentage of solute.
Given : Mass of solvent = 180 g ; Mass of solute = 45 g
Mass of solute
Solution : Mass percentage of solute = × 100
Mass of solvent+ mass of solute
45 4500
= × 100 = = 20%
180+45 225
∴ Mass percentage of solute is 𝟐𝟎 %
2. 3.5 litres of ethanol is present in 15 litres of aqueous solution of ethanol. Calculate volume
percent of ethanol solution. [PTA – 2]
Given : Volume of solute = 3.5 litres ; Volume of solution = 15 litres
Volume of solute
Solution : Volume percentage = × 100
volume of solution
3.5
= × 100 = 23. 33%
15
∴ Volume percentage of ethanol solution is 23. 33%
Numerical problems
Example problems based on solubility

1. 1.5 g of solute is dissolved in 15 g of water to form a saturated solution at 298 K. Find out
the solubility of the solute at the temperature. [TB – 131, 132]
Given : Mass of the solute = 1.5 g ; Mass of the solvent = 15 g
Mass of the solute 1.5
Solution : Solubility of the solute = × 100 = × 100 =10 g
Mass of the solvent 15
∴ Solubility of the solute is 10 g.
2. Find the mass of potassium chloride would be needed to form a saturated solution in 60 g of
water at 303 K? Given that solubility of the KCl is 37/100 g at this temperature. [TB – 132]
Given : Mass of KCl in 100 g of water in saturated solution = 37 g
37
Solution : Mass of KCl in 60 g of Water in saturated solution = × 60 = 22.2 g
100
∴ Mass of potassium chloride is 22.2 g.
3. What is the mass of sodium chloride that would be needed to form a saturated solution in
50 g of water at 30°C. Solubility of sodium chloride is 36 g at 30°C? [TB – 132]
Given : At 30°C, 36 g of NaCl that would be need for dissolve in 100 g of water.
36 × 50
Solution : ∴ Mass of NaC𝑙 dissolved in 50 g of water = = 18 g
100
∴ Mass of sodium chloride is 18 g
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4. The solubility of sodium nitrate at 50°C and 30°C is 114 g and 96 g respectively. Find the
amount of salt that will be thrown out when a saturated solution of sodium nitrate
containing 50 g of water is cooled from 50°C to 30°C? [TB – 132]
Given : Amount of sodium nitrate dissolved in100 g of water at 50°C is 114 g
114×50
Solution : ⇒At 50° C, amount of sodium nitrate dissolving in 50 g of water = = 57g
100
96×50
⇒At 30° C, amount of sodium nitrate dissolving in 50 g of water = = 48 g
100
∴ Amount of sodium nitrate thrown when 50 g of water is cooled from 50°C to 30°C,= 57 g – 48g = 𝟗𝐠
Example problems based on Mass percentage

5. A solution was prepared by dissolving 25 g of sugar in 100 g of water. Calculate the mass
percentage of solute. [TB – 132] [SEP – 2020]
Given : Mass of the solute = 25 g ; Mass of the solvent = 100 g
Mass of the solute
Solution : Mass percentage = × 100
Mass of the solute + Mass of the solvent
25
= × 100 = 20%
25+100
∴ Mass percentage of solute is 20%
6. 16 grams of NaOH is dissolved in 100 grams of water at 25°C to form a saturated solution.
Find the mass percentage of solute and solvent. [TB – 132, 133]
Given : Mass of the solute = 16 g ; Mass of the solvent = 100 g
Mass of the solute
Solution: Mass percentage of solute = × 100
Mass of the solute + Mass of the solvent
16
= 16+100
× 100= 13.79%
Mass percentage of solvent = 100 – Mass percentage of the solute

= 100 – 13.79 = 86.21%
∴ Mass percentage of solute is 13.79% and solvent is 86.21%
7. Find the amount of urea which is to be dissolved in water to get 500 g of 10% 𝐰/𝐰 aqueous solution?
Given : Mass percentage = 10% ; Mass of the solution = 500 g [TB – 133]
Mass of the solute
Solution : Mass percentage (w/w) = × 100
Mass of the solution
Mass of the urea
10 = × 100
500
10 ×500
Mass of urea = = 50 g
100
∴ Mass of urea is 50 g
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Problems 29
Example problems based on Volume percentage

8. A solution is made from 35 ml of methanol and 65 ml of water. Calculate the volume percentage.
Given : Volume of the solute (ethanol) = 35 ml ; Volume of the solvent (water) = 65 ml
Volume of the solute
Solution : Volume percentage = × 100 [TB – 133]
volume of the solute + Volume of the solvent
35
= × 100 = 35 %
35+65
∴ Volume percentage is 35%.
9. Calculate the volume of ethanol in 200 ml solution of 20% v/v aqueous solution of ethanol.
Given : Volume of solution = 200 ml ; Volume percentage = 20% [TB – 133]
Volume of solute
Solution : Volume percentage = × 100
volume of solution
Volume of ethanol
20 = × 100
200
20 × 200
= = 40 𝑚𝑙
100
∴ Volume of ethanol is 40 ml.

Additional Problems
10. Calculate the mass of water required in grams to dissolve 10 g of sucrose to produce the
mass percentage of 10% solution. [PTA – 3]
Given : Mass of solute (sucrose) = 10 g Mass Percentage of solution = 10%
Solution : Let, Mass of water = x
So, Mass of solution = x + 10
Mass of the solute
Mass % = × 100
Mass of the solution
10
10 = × 100
𝑥 + 10
x + 10 = 100 g ⇒ x = 100 g – 10 g = 90 g
∴ Mass of water = 90 g
11. Calculate the solubility of a solute at 300 K by dissolving 10 g of solute in 50 g of solvent.

Given : Mass of the solute = 10 g Mass of the solvent = 50 g [PTA – 5]
Mass of the solute
Solution : Solubility = × 100
Mass of the solvent
10
= × 100 = 20 g
50
∴ Solubility of a solute is 20 g.
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Numerical problems
1. Lemon juice has a pH 2, what is the 2. Calculate the pH of 1.0 ×10–4 molar
concentration of H+ ions? solution of HNO3.
Given : [PTA – 1]
Given :
pH = 2 [H+ ] = 1.0 × 10−4 = 10−4
Solution : − log10 [H+ ] = 2 Solution :pH = − log10 [H+ ]
Log10 [H+ ] = −2 = −log10 [10−4 ]
⇒ [H+ ] = 0.01 (or) 10−2 = −(−4) log10 10
pH = 4(1) = 4 (∵ log10 10 =
∴Concentration of H+ ion is 1.0 × 10-2 mole litre-1 1)
∴ pH of 1.0 × 10−4 molar solution of HNO3 is
4.
3. What is the pH of 1.0 × 10-5 molar 4. The hydroxide ion concentration of a
solution of KOH? solution is 1 × 10–11 M. What is the pH of
[PTA – 6] the solution? [PTA – 5]
Given : Given :
[OH− ] = 1.0 × 10−5 = 10−5 [OH− ] = 1.0 × 10-11 = 10−11
Solution : pOH = − log10 [OH− ] Solution : pOH = − log10 [OH− ]
= −log10 [10−5 ] = − log10 [ 1 × 10−11 ]
= −(−5) log10 10 = −(−11) log10 10
(∵ log10 10 = 1) (∵ log10 10 = 1)
pOH = 5(1) = 5 pOH = 11(1) = 11
∵ pH + pOH = 14
∵ pH + pOH = 14
pH = 14 −pOH
pH = 14 −pOH
pH = 14 − 11 = 3
pH = 14 − 5 = 9
∴ pH of the solution of is 3.
∴ pH of 1.0 × 10−5 molar solution of KOH is 9.
Example Problems
5. Calculate the pH of 0.01 M HNO3. 6. The hydroxyl ion concentration of a
[TB – 150] [MDL – 19] solution is 1 × 10-9 M. What is the pOH of
Given : the solution? [TB –
150]
[H+ ] = 0.01 = 10−2 Given :
Solution : pH = − log10 [H+ ] [OH− ] = 1 × 10−9 = 10−9
= −log10 10−2 Solution : pOH = − log10 [OH−]
= −(−2) log10 10 = − log10 [ 1 × 10−9]
(∵ log10 10 = 1) = −(−9) log10 10
pH = 2(1) = 2 (∵ log10 10 = 1)
∴ pH of 0.01 molar solution of HNO3 is pOH = 9(1) = 9
2. ∴ pOH of the solution is 9.
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Problems 31
7. A solution has a pOH of 11.76. What is 8. Calculate the pH of 0.001 molar solution
the pH of this solution? [TB – 150] of HCl. [TB – 150]
Given : pOH = 11.76 Given : [H+ ] = 0.001 = 10−3
Solution : pH + pOH = 14 Solution :pH = − log10 [H+ ]
pH = 14 – pOH = −log10 10−3
⇒ pH = 14 – 11.76 = −(−3) log10 10
pH = 2.24 pH = 3(1) = 3
(∵ log10 10 = 1)
9. What would be the pH of an aqueous solution of sulphuric acid which is 5 × 10-5 mol litre–1 in
concentration. [TB – 150]
Given : Dissociation of Sulphuric acid in water : H2SO4(aq) → 2H+(aq) + SO42–(aq)
Solution : 1 mole of sulphuric acid contains → 2 mole of H+ ions in the solution.
1litre of H2SO4 contains → 5×10-5 moles of H2SO4
2 × 5 × 10−5 = 10 × 10−5 (or) 1 × 10−4
[H+ ] = 1.0 × 10−4 = 10−4
pH = − log10 [H+ ] = −log10 10−4 = −(−4) log10 10
pH = 4(1) = 4 (∵ log10 10 = 1)
10. Calculate the pH of 1 × 10-4 molar solution of NaOH. [TB – 150, 151]
Given : Dissociation of NaOH in its solution : NaOH(aq)→ Na+(aq) + OH–(aq)
Solution : 1 mole of NaOH would give 1 mole of OH– ions.
∴ [OH–] = 1 × 10–4 mol litre–1 = 10−4
pOH = − log10 [OH− ]
= − log10 [ 10−4 ]
= −(−4 )log10 10
pOH = 4(1) = 4 (∵ log10 10 = 1)
∴ pH + pOH = 14
pH = 14 – pOH
pH = 14 – 4 = 10
11. Calculate the pH of a solution in which 12. pH of a solution is 4.5, what is its pOH?
the concentration of the hydrogen ions is [TB – 151]
–8 –1
1.0 × 10 mol litre . [TB – 151] Given : pH + pOH = 14
Given : [H+ ] = 1.0 × 10−8 = 10−8 Solution : pH + pOH = 14
Solution : pH = − log10 [H+ ] 4.5 + pOH = 14
= −log10 10−8 pOH = 14 – 4.5 = 9.5
= −(−8) log10 10 ∴ pOH = 9.5
pH = 8(1) = 8 (∵ log10 10 = 1)
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Additional Problem
13. From the value of ionic product of water at 𝟐𝟓°𝑪, find out the concentration of hydroxyl
ions. (At 𝟐𝟓°𝑪 concentration of hydrogen ions in water is 𝟏𝟎−𝟕 𝒎𝒐𝒍/𝒅𝒎𝟑 ) [PTA – 4]
Given : Kw = [H+] [OH-]
Ionic product of water, Kw = 1.00 × 10−14

Conc. of hydrogen ions in water = 1.00 × 10−7
Conc. of hydroxyl ions in water = ?
Solution : 1.00 × 10−14 = [1.00 × 10−7 ] [OH-]
1.00 ×10−14
[OH− ] = = 1.00 × 10−7
1.00 ×10−7
Conc. of hydroxyl ions in water = 1.00 × 10−7

Namma Kalvi 10th Science Important Study Material EM 221604

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Namma Kalvi 10th Science Important Study Material EM 221604

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I. Choose the correct answer

II. Fill in the blanks

IV. Match the following

V. Assertion & Reasoning

I. Choose the correct answer

II. Fill in the blanks

III. True or False. If false correct it.

1. Velocity of light is greater in denser medium than in rarer medium. [False]

IV. Match the following.

Column - I Column - II Answer

V. Assertion & Reasoning type

I. Choose the correct answer

1. The value of universal gas constant

II. Fill in the blanks

III. True or False. If false correct it.

IV. Match the items in Column-I to the items in Column-II

Column I Column II Answer

V. Assertion & Reason type questions

Mark the correct choice as

2. Assertion : Gas is highly compressible than solid and liquid. [PTA – 2]

1. Which of the following is correct?

III. True or False. If false correct it.

IV. Match the items in Column-I to the items in Column-II

Additional Question [PTA – 2]

(c) Galvanometer (iii) c - (iv)

V. Assertion and Reason type questions

Mark the correct choice as

Ans. (c) The assertion is true, but the reason is false.

3. Assertion: LED bulbs are far better than incandescent bulbs.

VI. Very short answer questions

1. Define the unit of current.

2. What happens to the resistance, as the conductor is made thicker?

III. True or false : (If false give the reason)

2. Waves created by Earth Quake are Infrasonic. [True]

3. The velocity of sound is independent of temperature. [False]

4. The velocity of sound is high in gases than liquids. [False]

IV. Match the following

Column I Column II Answer

1) Infrasonic a) Compressions 1-c) 10 Hz

3) Ultrasonic c) 10 Hz 3-b) 22 kHz

4) High pressure region d) Ultrasonography 4-a) Compressions

V. Assertion and Reason Questions

Mark the correct choice as

2. Assertion : Sound travels faster in solids than in gases.

VI. Answer very briefly

1. What is a longitudinal wave?

1. Man-made radioactivity is also known as_____________.

9. Proton - Proton chain reaction is an example of__________________.

10. In the nuclear reaction 6X12 A

a) 8, 6 b) 8, 4 c) 4, 8 d) cannot be determined with the given data

II. Fill in the blanks

III. True or False (If false, correct the statement)

IV. Match the following:

V. Arrange the following in the correct sequence

2. Arrange the following in the chronological order of discovery.

VI. Use the analogy to fill in the blanks

VIII. Assertion and reason type questions

1. Who discovered natural radioactivity? [MAY - 2022] Henri Becquerel

7. ATOMS AND MOLECULES

5. Which of the following represents 1 amu?

III. Match the following

IV. True or False: (if false give the correct statement)

V. Assertion & Reason