Examination DIFFERNCES B 737-600/700/800

EXAMINATION
DIFFERNCES B 737-600/700/800
12. AIRCRAFT GENERAL
1. Among B 737 classic and B 737 NG which one is the longest :

A B 737 – 700.
B B 737 - 600.
C B 737 - 500.
D B 737 - 400.*
2 What is the max effective steering / towing angle :

A 76 degree.
B 77 degree.
C 78 degree.*
D 75 degree..
3 Which statement are correct :

A Major zone 700 landing gear and landing gear door.*
B Major zone 600 landing gear and landing gear door
C Major zone 500 landing gear and landing gear door..
D Major zone 500 landing gear and landing gear door..
4. The Boeing 600/700/800 series are designed for following specification, except :
A It is design as short to medium flight range aircraft.
B The airplane is divided into 7 major zones*
C It has fuselage semi-monoque.
D It has tricycle landing gear.
5. Where are the normal primary jacking points located ?

A In the tail section and under the wings *
B Below the nose and the main landing gear legs.
C Left side of the nose section and at the tail section.
D Right side of the nose section and at the tail section.
6. The Boeing 600/700/800 series are designated for following specification

A It is designated as short to medium flight range aircraft.
B The fuselage contraction is semi monoque that having low wing monoplane cantilever wing
and horstab.
C It has tricycle landing gear.
D All above are correct. *
7 For lifting and shoring the aircraft has the following facilities
A Main jack point on wing and tail section.
B Main jack point on wing and forward fuselage.
C Plumb bob and leveling scale in right hand wheel well
D As mention on A and C. *
EXAMINATION
DIFFERNCES B 737-600/700/800
8 For towing what does different between the B 737 NG and classic
A Landing gear pin.
B Parking brake light on external power panel. *
C Towing lever safety pin and tow bar cross bolt.
D All mentions are true.
9 In dimension, Boeing B737-600/700/800 differ from B737.300/400/5OO as follow :

A. 8737-300 is longer than 8737-600.
B. 8737-400 is longer than 8737-700.
C. B737-500 is longer than 8737-800. *
D. Answer A and 8 are true.
10 How is the rack arrangement in the electrical equipment compartment?

A E1 in front of the access door.
B E5 on right hand side of the access door.
C E2, E3 and E4 behind the access door.
D As mention on A, B and C. *
11 The fuel centre tank is indicated in the following section

A Section 43
B Section 44 *
C Section 46
D Section 47
12 Which the correct concerning the air craft zoning ?

A Mayor zone 100 for upper fuselage, and 200 for lower fuselage
B Mayor zone 700 for landing gear, and 800 for doors *
C Mayor zone 200 includes nose landing gear, and 300/400 includes main landing gears
13 The fuselage on B737 NG is structurally divide into sections as follows :

A Section 41, section 43, section 44, section 46, section 47, section 48 *
B Section 41, section 43, section 46, section 48
C Section 41, section 43, section 44, section 46, section 48
14. The maximum take off gross weight (MTOGW) of the B737-800 is
A 143.510 Kgs
B 174.200 Kgs *
C 154.500 Kgs
15. The cargo compartments are

A Pressurized aproximity equal to cabin pressure
B Not pressurized
C Pressurized to their normal differential pressure *
EXAMINATION
DIFFERNCES B 737-600/700/800
16 In case of sudden loose of aircraft pressurization, the pressure relieve of cargo compartment is
accomplice by
A Pressure relief valves set at 7.45 psid
B Equalizing valve
C Blow out panels *
17 The lavatory fire extinguisher system will automatic discharge when heat
A 200 degrees F
B 180 degrees F *
C 250 degrees F
18 Escape lines (ropes straps) are fitted

A Above the cockpit sliding windows and over wing escape hatch frame
B Above all doors emergency exist and cockpit sliding *
C Above the forward passenger door and cockpit sliding windows
19 The fwd and aft entry doors and the galleys service doors have
A Three automatic slide and one manual slide at the aft galley service door
B Three manually operated slides and one automatic slide at the forward entry door
C Automatic slides
20 The maximum landing weight of the B737-700 is

A 58,059 Kg *
B 51,709 Kg
C 54,657 Kg
21 For an automatic landing the head and crosswind limits are

A Headwind limit is 25 kts and the crosswind limit is 15 kts.
B Headwind limit is 25 kts and the crosswind limit is 20 kts. *
C Headwind limit is 20 kts and the crosswind limit is 15 kts.
22 The maximum demonstrated crosswind component for take-off and landing is

A 36 kts. *
B 35 kts.
C 25 kts.
21. AIR CONDITIONING.
1 The function of the standby TCV :

A To provide manual selection for the cockpit.
B To provide the condenser with icing prevention.
C As back up for normal TCV. *
D As mention A, B & C
EXAMINATION
DIFFERNCES B 737-600/700/800
2 The pack output temperature control is normally done by this valve :

A TCV.*
B Pack valve..
C Trim Air Pressure Regulator Valve.
D Trim Air Modulating Valve.
3 The function of Trim Air Pressure Regulating Valve :

A To maintain the trim air ( hot air ) pressure 4 psi above.*
B To trim the pack output temperature.
C To control the cabin temperature.
D As mentioned A, B & C.
4 With various zone temperature selection, how is normally out flow conditioning pack ?
A The left pack gives the highest, while the right pack gives the normal.
B Both packs give the highest temperature selection.
C Both packs give the middle temperature selection.
D Both packs give the lowest temperature selection.*
5 How many motor the outflow valve of cabin pressurize system ?

A Three AC motor.
B Three DC motor.*
C Two AC motor & one DC motor.
D Two DC motor & one AC motor.
6 With system in AUTO mode, when will pressurization ?

A When the selector is just selected to AUTO.
B When the selector is in FLIGHT ALT.
C When at a certain engine power setting.*
D When the selector is in ALTERNATE.
7 The pressurization system consist of :

A Fwd outflow valve, 2 CPCs , overboard exhaust valve & both pack vlv.
B Two CPCs, forward & aft outflow valve and both pack valve.
C Forward outflow valve, pack valve, two CPCs & aft outflow valve
D 2 CPCs, both pack valve, ovbd exhaust valve & out flow valve.*
8 How is operation of two pressurization controller :

A One for flight deck and one for cabin pressurization.
B When one auto mode, the other one in standby.*
C One in auto mode and one for manual mode.
D They operate together.
9 What is pressurization mode depend on the selection of flight alt ?

A Auto mode.
B Alternate mode.
C Manual mode.
EXAMINATION
DIFFERNCES B 737-600/700/800
D Answer A and B are correct.*
10 When the automatic mode fails with “ AUTO FAIL “ light illuminate, the illumination
of the alternate light ( green ) so :
A It changes to alternate mode automatically .*
B The pressurization system must be deactivated.
C The mode selector knob must be turned to MANUAL.
D The mode selector knob moves to alternate automatically
11 When does the alternate equipment cooling supply fan start ?

A Automatically when duct temperature rises to 149 deg C.
B Automatically when normal blower fails.
C When the switch on the P5 panel is set to the altn position.*
D Manually when normal blower fails.
12 What is position of the equipment cooling overboard exhaust valve on the ground ?
A It is open if the APU is running.
B It is normally open.*
C It is closed if the APU is running.
D It is normally closed.
13 When does the “ OFF CHEDULE DESCENT “ light illuminate ?

A. When the aircraft has not reached the preset altitude and begins to descend.*
B When the cabin altitude rate of descent increase 1800 feet / min.
C If the ALTN mode is disconnected and the controller has switched to manual mode.
D A and B of the above are correct.
14 How is operation of two pressurization controller :

A One for flight deck and one for cabin pressurization.
B When one auto mode, the other one in standby.*
C One in auto mode and one for manual mode.
D They operate together.
15. What is pressurization mode depend on the selection of flight alt ?

A Auto mode.
B Alternate mode.
C Manual mode.
D Answer A and B are correct.*
16 When the automatic mode fails with “ AUTO FAIL “ light illuminate, the illumination
of the alternate light ( green ) so :
A It changes to alternate mode automatically .*
B The pressurization system must be deactivated.
C The mode selector knob must be turned to MANUAL.
D The mode selector knob moves to alternate automatically
EXAMINATION
DIFFERNCES B 737-600/700/800
17 The pack output temperature control is normally done by this valve :

A Pack valve.
B Trim Control Valve (TCV).*
C Trim Air Pressure Regulator Valve (TAPRV)
D Trim Air Modulating Valve (TAMV).
18 When does the alternate equipment cooling supply fan start ?

A Automatically when duct temperature rises to 149 deg C.
B Automatically when normal blower fails.
C When the switch on the P5 panel is set to the altn position.*
19 What is position of the equipment cooling overboard exhaust valve on the ground ?
A It is open if the APU is running.
B It is normally open.*
C It is closed if the APU is running.
D It is normally closed.
20 When does the “ OFF CHEDULE DESCENT “ light illuminate ?

A When the aircraft has not reached the preset altitude and begins to descend.*
B When the cabin altitude rate of descent increase 1800 feet / min.
D A and B of the above are correct.
21 When is the RAM DOOR FULL OPEN light illuminated

A With the aircraft on ground only.
B Only when the pack valve is open and the aircraft on ground, or in air with recirculation fan
switch in OFF position.
C With the aircraft on ground, or in air with flaps not up.
D With the aircraft on air and flaps not up. *
22 Hot are the ram air panels actuated

A With a pneumatic actuator.
B With an electric actuated *
C With a pneumatic motor in flight, and electrically on ground.
D All answer are correct.
23 What is the procedure to reset a P5 “DUCT OVERHEAT “ light ?

A Overheat condition cools.
B Pack valve switch is moved to off position.
C Overheat condition cools and the reset switch is pushed. *
D A & B of the above mention are correct.
24 To get APU HIGH flow from left pack, the left pack switch have to in HIGH, APU have to be
running, APU bleed switch ON position and :
A Right pack valve OFF.
EXAMINATION
DIFFERNCES B 737-600/700/800
B Aircraft on ground. *
C Flaps up.
D Right pack valve ON.
25 When does the alternate equipment cooling supply fan start?

A Automatically when normal blower fails.
B Automatically when duct temperature rises to 149 deg C.
C When the switch on the P5 panel is set to the ALTN position. *
26 What is the position of the equipment cooling overboard exhaust valve on ground ?
A It is normally open. *
B It is normally closed.
C It is open if the APU is running.
D It is close if the APU is running.
27 When does the “OFF SCHEDULE DESCENT” light illuminate ?

A When the cabin altitude rate of descent increases 1800 feet/min.
B When the aircraft has not reached the preset altitude and begins to descend. *
D A & C of the above mention are correct.
28 With the airplane in flight, flaps up, and both pack switches in AUTO, the flow rate of the left pack
will automatically increase to HIGH if :
A The right pack valve close. *
B The APU bleed switch is turned ON.
C The equipment cooling overboard exhaust valve opens.
D All are correct.
29 The components of the pack system is as follows, except :

A Reheater and condenser.
B Turbo fan. *
C Primary and secondary heat exchangers.
D Air cycle machine (turbine and compressor).
30 With various zone temperature selections, how is normally the output of the air-conditioning packs
?
A The left pack gives the highest, while the right pack gives the lowest.
B Both packs give the highest temperature selection.
C Both packs give the middle temperature selection.
D both packs give the lowest temperature selection. *
31 Which purpose have the CTC (Cabin Temperature Controller)

A It controls the temperature on the light deck and in the passenger cabin *
B It controls PCSOVs flow modes and provides pack protection
C It control cabin temperature and protect the packs
EXAMINATION
DIFFERNCES B 737-600/700/800
32 Which aircraft air data is used by the CPCs (Cabin Pressure Controller)
A Alternate standby static sources
B Air data from ADIRUs *
C Only local CPC sensor
33 What pressurization mode depends on the selection of Flight Alt and landing alt ?
A Auto mode. *
B Alternat e mode.
C Manual DC.
D Answer A and B are correct.
34 Which the automatic mode fails with AUTO FAIL light illuminate followed by the illumination of
the ALTN light (green), so :
A The mode selector knob moves to Alternate automatically
B The pressurization System must be de-activated.
C The mode selector knob must be. turned to MANUAL.
D It changes to the Alternate mode automatically. #
35 How is the operation of two pressurization controllers ?

A. One for flight deck, and one for pass. cabin pressurization
B When one in auto mode, the other one in standby condition *
C. One for auto mode, and one for manual mode.
D They operate together .
36 With system in AUTO mode, when will the pressurization start to operate ?
A When the selector is just selected to AUTO.
B When the FLIGHT ALT and LAND ALT have been selected.
C At a certain engine power setting *
D When the selector is in ALTERNATE.
37 The pressurization system consist of:

A 2 CPCs, Forward outflow valve, Overboard exhaust valve
B 2 CPCs, Forward Outflow valve, Aft outflow valve
C 2 CPCs, Forward outflow valve, Aft outflow valve, Overboard exhaust valve
D 2 CPCS, Aft outflow valve, Overboard exhaust valve *
38 The primary purpose of the Standby Temperature Control Valve is for

A Re-heating of the cooling turbine
B Re-heating of the heat exchanger
C The icing of the condenser *
39 The maximum differential pressure is

A 8.35 psi
B 7.8 psi
C 9.1 psi *
EXAMINATION
DIFFERNCES B 737-600/700/800
40 The overboard exhaust valve

A Is driven closed if either pack switch is in HIGH and the recirc fan is OFF.
B Is normally open in flight.
C Is driven open if either pack switch is in HIGH and the recirc fan is OFF. *
41 CTAI switch in ON position but the CTAI valve was not open
A Cowl Anti Ice amber light illuminates
B Cowl Valve Open blue light BRIGHT *
C TI amber legend appears on upper centre DU
ATA 22
1 The DFCS computer is consist of :

A Autopilot and flight director.
B Stabilizer and speed trim.
C Mach trim and altitude alert.
D All answers are correct.*
2 Which mode is not part of MCP selection push button mode?

A FD take-off mode.
B Autopilot and FD go around mode.
C Altitude acquire and auto throttle take-off mode.*
D All answers are correct.
3 The autopilot is engage and no one mode is already selected :

A The A/P is CWS mode.
B The A/P is maintain attitude.
C A and B answers are correct.
D C answer is correct and command bar is out of view.*
4 The G/S is already capture :

A The MCP selection mode is inhibit.
B The G/S signal is not use anymore.
C Manual disengage both A/P is possible.
5 What is the function of speed trim :

A Maintain aircraft speed after take-off > 10 second.
B It is maintain V2 speed.
C It is active before autopilot engagement.
6 What is the function of intervention switch mode?

A To change the ALT or speed mode.
B It is possible when autopilot is in Vnav mode.
EXAMINATION
DIFFERNCES B 737-600/700/800
C A and B answers are correct and aircraft heading will be change.*

D C answer is correct and aircraft heading will be change.
7 During aircraft approach mode :

A At 1500 feet both channel will do the ILS deviation test.
B < 800 engagement the second autopilot is not possible.
C The RA signal is important.
8 What is the function of auto throttle?

A It is maintain N1 target.
B Mostly the command is coming from FMC.
C When auto throttle in command mode will maintain speed mode.
9 During aircraft approach the TOGA switch is push twice :

A The A/T disconnected.
B The A/T will do max go around.*
C The A/P will command aircraft nose up.
D B and C answers are correct and the last A/P will disengage.
10 Which statement is correct?

A The A/t always ON until aircraft landing > 2 second.
B The A/P engagement is never ON take-off mode.
C The FD switch is always ON and terminate when aircraft flare.
11 Which FD is the master FD ?

A Always the captains FD
B The last one which is selected ON
C The first one which is selected to ON *
12 Which mode is not part of MCP selection push button mode?

A FD take-off mode.
B Autopilot and FD go around mode.
C Altitude acquire and auto throttle take-off mode.*
13. Which functions are provided by an FCC?

A Autopilot, Flight Director, Ruder Trim and Altitude Alert
B Autopilot, Flight Director, altitude Alert, Mach and speed trim *
C Autopilot, Flight Director, Over Speed Warning, Mach and Speed Trim
D Autopilot, Flight Director only
14 Which axis are controlled by the autopilot?

A Roll and Pitch axis *
EXAMINATION
DIFFERNCES B 737-600/700/800
B Roll and Yaw axis

C Roll pitch and Yaw axis
D Pitch axis only
15 From where does the auto throttle computer get the TRA information?
A Directly from the Auto Throttle Servo Motors
B Directly from the Primary FMC
C Directly from the EEC *
D From the MCP
16 How can do you determine that an FCC IS faulty

A An "FCC" flag appears on both PFD's
B An "FD" flag is in View on the onside *
C The Main Rudder PCU
D The Standby Rudder PCU
17 The FCC Speed Trim function does control?

A The Elevator Autopilot actuator
B The Stabilizer electric actuator *
C The Main Rudder PCU
D The Standby Rudder PCU
18 What is true about the Mach Trim actuator?

A It is connected directly to the elevator tab
B It is only used with the Autopilot engaged
C It will change the position of the feel and centering unit *
D It is only used only during manual flight
19 Which of the following components are LRUs on the Autopilot actuators?

A Actuator Solenoid valve and Pressure Switch *
B LVDT, Transfer Valve and Decent Solenoid Valve
C Actuator Solenoid Valve, LVDT, Pressure Switch Transfer Valve
D Actuator Solenoid Valve and LVDT
20 Which of the following arc PITCH modes

A LNAV, LVL CHG, APP, CWSP
B VNAV, LVL CHG, ALT HLD,V/S *
C LVLCHG,VOR/LOC,V/S, LNAV
D VNAV, LNAV
21 When does the FCCs use Pitch and Roll Force Transducers?
A When A/P reverts to CWS in Approach only
B When heading Select Mode and ALT Hold modes are actives
C During control wheel stenos mode and when A/P reverts to CWS *
D During DUAL AUTOLAND mode
EXAMINATION
DIFFERNCES B 737-600/700/800
22 What is the procedure to perform a dual Auto land?

A Approach mode must be selected, then Autopilots must be in CMD *
B One Autopilot is engaged for Elevator and die other for Aileron control
C Both Autopilots will engage automatically when approach mode is selected
D The LNAV ind VNAV must be selected on the MCP
23 The A/P is engage and no pitch and roll mode are already selected
A The .A/P is CWS mode
B The A/P is maintain attitude
C A&B answer are correct
D C answer is correct and command BAR is out of view *
24 What is the function of speed trim?

A To compensate the nose down tendency
B It is working with the autopilot engaged
C It is active with autopilot does not engaged
D Answers A and B arc correct *
25 What is the function of intervention switches on the MCP?

A To alter the altitude or speed while in VNAV mode *
B Its available up to landing
C Its available from take off
D All the above answers are correct
26 During aircraft approach mode, the following will happen

A At 1500 feet both channels will do the ILS deviation test
B <800 engagement for the second AP is not possible
C The RA signal is not important anymore
D All answers arc correct *
27 Which statement is correct?

A The A/T always on until aircraft landing >2 second
B The A/P engagement is never on take off mode
C The F/D switch is always on and terminate when A/C flare
D All statements are correct *
28 Which condition will cause a steady red "A/P" light on the Auto flight Status ASA ?
A The DFCS is in BITE *
B The Autopilot has reverted to CWS
C That the Autopilot has been disconnected
29 Which LRU is faulty if the SPD LIM warning appears on the captains PFD ?
A The FCC A *
B The SMYD I
C The A/T computer
EXAMINATION
DIFFERNCES B 737-600/700/800
30 Which of the following can be controlled by an FCC

A Aileron, rudder and mach trim actuator
B Aileron, elevator and rudder autopilot actuator
C Aileron, elevator, stab trim and mach trim actuator *
31 What A/T modes are possible to select from the Mode Selector Panel MCP
A LVLCHG and N1
B N1 and Vnav
C N1 and SPEED *
32 The maximum speed with the MACH TRIM system inoperative is?
A 280/0.82M *
B 280/0.80M
C 250/0.74M
33 The recommended turbulent penetration airspeed is

A 280Kts/0.78M
B 280Kts/0.72M
C 280Kts/0.76M *
34 With FMC U10, after TOGA is pressed for a go-around, the CRZ page will show.
A The MCP altitude
B The highest of: 1500ft or MCP altitude or the LEGS missed approach level. *
C The LEGS missed approach level
ATA 23
1 The central communication of digital audio system is :

A Inside REU.
B Inside ACP.
C Inside audio accessory unit.
D Inside REU and selection is from 3 ACP.*
2 The ACP interphone/radio is selected to interphone :

A The ACP is by-pass.
B The ACP selection is VHF no.1.
C The ACP microphone selection is by-pass to flight interphone system.*
D The ACP microphone selection is by-pass to service interphone system.
3 The power of ACP and REU is coming from :

A Battery bus is the last power.*
B Hot battery bus.
C DC bus 1.
D DC bus 2 in case of battery bus fails.
EXAMINATION
DIFFERNCES B 737-600/700/800
4 The PA amplifier selector switch is selected to load :

A The output PA amplifier is dummy
B The impedance of amplifier is being check.*
C The priority switching is being tested.
D The amplifier is calibrated.
5 Where is the location of selcal control panel :

A It is a separate control panel.
B It is part of ACP. *
C The light is illuminate when the alert is coming.
D B and C are correct.
6 The voice recorder will active when?

A The engine running automatic trip to auto mode when switch is already ON.
B Manually auto on switch select to ON.
C A and B are correct and stop when engine stop > 5 minutes.*
D Always active when electrical power ON.
7 The CDS computer no.1 normally :

A Connected to primary engine display.*
B Connected to secondary engine display.
C Connected to system display.
D All are correct.
8 The DEU no.2 is fail :

A The indication is normal (auto transfer).
B The hydraulic pressure no.2 is lost.
C B is correct when system/engine switch secondary engine display select to system.
9 Choose the correct statement concerning the ELT?

A The ELT transmits on 3 different frequencies *
B The ELT cannot start transmitting automatically
C When the ELT is transmitting, dim arc cautions on the flight deck
D The ELT transmits only on 1 frequency
10. The voice recorder will start working under the following conditions
A The switch is in AUTO and engine running
B The switch must be in the "ON" position if no engine is running
C Always active when electrical power on
D Answers A and B arc correct and the CVR will stop working 5 minutes after engine stops
11. The no.2 DEU is fail, the following will happen

A The indication is normal (Auto Transfer)
B The hydraulic press no.2 is lost
EXAMINATION
DIFFERNCES B 737-600/700/800
C To have hydraulic press indication the system display is selected on the secondary engine
display
D All the above answers are correct *
12. What can cause blue FDR (Flight Data Recorder) to turn on automatically?
A The engine low oil pressure switches
B The engine running relays *
C The engine start switch
D The Grn-Off switch on P5
13 What is controlling the 6 dB gain increase function of the Passenger Address amplifier
A Air/ground relays.
B Engine running relays. *
C Engine oil pressure switch.
14 The central component for communication system is :

A REU. *
B ACP.
C audio accessory unit.
D REU and ACP.
15 The DFDR is failure

A Aircraft may go home
B Aircraft may no go item *
C A answer is correct as long as DFDAU is OK
D The C answer is correct and DFDAU status light must be check first\
16 The central component for communication is

A REU.*
B ACP.
C audio accessory unit.
D REU and ACP.
24 - ELECTRICAL
1. Where the location APU feeder wires go from APU STATER GENERATOR to PDPA ?
A Along the lh center of fuselage aircraft body.
B Along the rh center of fuselage aircraft body.
C Along the top of fuselage of aircraft. *
D Along the lower of fuselage aircraft.
2 AC STBY BUS normally get power from :

A AC GRD SERV BUS.
B AC TFR BUS 1. *
C AC TFR BUS 2.
D MAIN BUS 1.
EXAMINATION
DIFFERNCES B 737-600/700/800
3 If AC XFR BUS is dead, the AC STBY BUS alternatively receives power from static inverter.
This is automatic function performed by :
A BUS TIE BREAKER ( BTB )
B BUS POWER CONTROL UNIT ( BPCU )
C STARTER CONTROL UNIT ( SCU )
D STANDBY POWER CONTROL UNIT ( SPCU ) *
4 In the case of AC XFR BUS 2 is dead, the TRU 3 can receive power from AC XFR BUS 1 via
A TRU 3 XFR RLY. *
B TRU 1 XFR RLY
C BUS TIE RELAY
D GRD SVC BUS RLY.
5. The battery bus normally receive power from :

A TRU 1
B TRU 2
C TRU 3 *
D MAIN BATTERY.
6. ” STBY BUS “ normally DC power from :

A DC BUS 1 *
B DC BUS 2.
C DC BUS 3
D HOT BATT BUS.
7. The purpose Static Inverter is to supply AC STBY BUS in caused no supply from :
A AC XFR BUS 2.
B AC TFR BUS 1. *
C AC GRD SERVIS BUS 1.
D AC GRD SERVIS BUS 2.
8. Which one is incorrectly statement if the amber light “ STBY PWR OFF “ comes on if buses
loose power :
A AC STBY BUS.
B DC STBY BUS.
C BATT BUS.
D AC TFR BUS. *
9. The IDG will automatically if :

A IDG oil press gets too high.
B IDG oil press gets too low.
C IDG oil temp gets too high. *
D IDG oil temp gets too low
10. The “ DRIVE “ light comes on when corresponding IDG oil

EXAMINATION
DIFFERNCES B 737-600/700/800
A Press is too high for normally operation.

B Press is too low for normally operation. *
C Temp is too high for normally operation.
D Temp is too low for normally operation.
11. The “ GRD PWR AVAILABLE “ light ill when the external power is connected & OK.
The light is controlled by :
A BPCU *.
B GCU.
C AGCU.
D SPU.
12. “ TRANSFER BUS OFF “ light at P5-4 panel will go on if corresponding :

A BTB & APB are open at the same time.
B BTB & GCB are open at the same time. *
C BTB & EPC are open at the same time.
D APB & EPC are open at the same time.
13. Who is control APU when “APU GEN OFF BUS “ ill :
A ECU.
B APB.
C SCU.
D ECU & APB. *
14 The starter generator supplies 3 phase, 115 / 200 V power at 400 Hz. The starter generator can
supply 66 KVA high ?
A 39 000 ft.
B 41 000 ft *.
C 40 000 ft.
D 42 000 ft.
15 Which LRU is charge of controlling the quality of the External Power :

A The GCU’s
B The BPCU’s *
C The SPCU’s
16 Both engine generators were on their respective transfer buses, when the no 1 Generator
was tripped .Which of the lights n P5 will then illuminate ?
a No 1 SOURCE OFF *
b No 1 TRANSFER BUS OFF
c No 2 TRANSFER BUS OFF
17 Which bus is always powering the main Battery Charger ?

A The Transfer Bus 2
B The AC standby Bus
C The Grond Service Bus 2 *
EXAMINATION
DIFFERNCES B 737-600/700/800
18 What will cause the ELEC light on P5 to illuminate ?

A The SPCU has failure *
B The AC main system has faikure
C The APU Generator system has failure
19 The power sources of the electrical system on B737 NG are :

A 3 Identical IDG's and external power.
B 2 Identical IDG's and 1 APU starter generator and external power. *
C The IDG and starter generator capacity is not same.
D The answers B and C are correct. .
20 The wire routing from the IDG goes to

A POP I for IDG 1 and POP 2 for IDG 2 *.
B APU feeder also goes to PDP I and PDP.2.
C External power feeder also goes to POP
D all of the answers are correct
21 The electrical power control computer system is

A The IDG is controlled by the GCU. *
B The APU generator is controlled by AGCU which is not interchangeable with
GCU.
C The External power- is controlled by BPCU and GCU.
D All of the answers are correct.
22 Which computer is not located in PDP/EE compartment ?

A GCU and AGCU
B GCU and BPCU.
C SPCU *.
D SPCU and TR.
23 When the forward attendant panel ground service switch is pushed on :

A. The external power supply the G/S bus. *
B The APU supply the G/S bus.
C The IDG supply the G/S bus.
D All answers ire correct.
24 The G/S bus :

A The G/S bus is only one and it is supplied from Bus 1.
B The G/S buses are 2 buses. G/S bus 1 and G/S bus 2. *
C The G/S bus is effective on ground only and off in fliht.
D Answer B and C am correct.
25 The main electrical power bus in the aircraft is

A AC XFR bus *
B Main bus
EXAMINATION
DIFFERNCES B 737-600/700/800
C Galleys bus
D Ground service bus
26 How can the electrical transfer occur ?

A Single source electrical power : IDG, EXT, or APU only.
B The transfer is done by BPCU.
C The transfer is completed when both BTB's are closed.
D All of the answers ire correct. *
27 When is IDG automatically supplying the transfer bus.?

A Aircraft in flight .
B The electrical load is only APU.
C The IDG automatics take over as soon as the APU generator switch selected to OFF.
D All of the answers are correct. *
28 The auxiliary battery charger is connected to.

A AC XFR bus 1.
B AC XFR bus 2.
C AC G/S bus l. *
D AC G/S bus 2.
29 The electrical auto load Shedding is part of :

A Overload is sensed by GCU and load shedding is commanded by GPCU *
B Overload is sensed by BPCU and load shedding i,, commanded by GCU
C Overload is sensed by BPCU and load shedding is commanded by GPCU-
D Overload is sensed by GCU and load shedding is commanded by GCU.
30 It is possible to start the APU using the battery charger if :

A. Forward attendant panel AC ground service bus switch is on
B. External power is OK '
C Main Battery is installed and battery Switch is ON.
31 Which computer manages the DC system (DC Standby system and battery system)
A The SPCU which located close to the TRU.
B SPCU and BPCU.
C GCU. And SPCU.
D SPCU which is located behind copilot. *
32 GRD POWER AVAILABLE light illuminates and NOT 1N USE light extinguishes means
A The external power is connected and not ok
B The external power is not OK and no one switch is active.
C The external power Is OK and no one switch is active.
D External Power OK and 1 of GRD PWR. G/S, or refuel door open. *
33 When will the ELEC and STBY POWER light on P5 panel illuminate.
EXAMINATION
DIFFERNCES B 737-600/700/800
A One of transfer bus is dead

B The battery charger fails..
C Aircraft in flight or on the ground and the electrical standby bus fails
D Aircraft on the ground and the electrical standby bus fails *
34. The function of MAINT switch on P5 panel is :

A To stimulate the function of the GCU.
B To stimulate the function of the BPCU.
C To stimulate the function of GCU BPCU and SPCU.
D To stimulate the function of the My power and manage by SPCU. *
35. How many DEU `s and Coax Couplers are installed in the CSD system ?
A 2 DEU `s and 4 Coax Couplers. *
B 1 DEU and 2 Coax Couplers.
C 2 DEU `s and 2 Coax Couplers.
D 4 DEU `s and 2 Coax Couplers.
36 How is the electrical system for APU starting

A Main bus only in case no power electrical choice
B AC XFR bus no 1 in case AC electrical power available
C The starting method is using the SPU and SCU
D All of the answer are correct *
37 The TRU light on P5 panel illuminate while the aircraft on the ground means
A One of TRU fail *
B All TRU fail
C TRU 1 fail
D TRU 2 and 3 fail
38 Which LRU does the voltage regulation for the starter generator of the APU :
A SPCU
B AGCU
C GCU
D SCU *
39 What is correct about the IDG

A There is no popout on any filter
B An automatic disconnect occur at high oil temp *
C There is only one cooling deviceer/heat exchanger for the IDG oil
40 Which light will illuminate to indicate a Battery bus has failed

A Standby Power Off light *
B Source of light
C TR UNIT
41 The TR3 cross bus tie relay automatically opens at glide slope capture to...
EXAMINATION
DIFFERNCES B 737-600/700/800
A Prevent a single bus failure front affecting both navigation receivers and Flight Control
Computers (FCCs) *
B Provide more power to the AC STANDBY Bus
C Ensure that the STANDBY DC is powered.
42 In flight, if the APU is supplying both AC Transfer busses, positioning the BUS TRANS switch
to OFF will... ?
A Cause AC Transfer bus No. 1 to lose power
B Cause AC Transfer bus No.2 to lose power *
C Cause both AC Transfer busses to lose power
D Not cause either AC Transfer bus to fail
43 The TR3 Disconnect Relay...

A Must be manually opened using the BUS TRANSFER Switch during a Flight Director
approach
B Normally powers the Battery Charger and backs-up TR units I & 2 through a diode
C Automatically opens at glide slope capture during a Flight Director or Autopilot ILS approach *
D Will trip off when AC volts reaches 26 volts (+ or - 4 Volts) as displayed on the AC Voltmeter.
44 The Engine Integrated Drive Generators (IDGs)...

A Arc used in conjunction with a separate generator drive unit (CSD)
B Adjust varying generator speeds to maintain a constant frequency throughout normal range of
operation
C Allow the generator to maintain a constant speed throughout the normal range of operation *
D Operate whenever the engine is operating and cannot be completely isolated from their associated
generator.
45 After the loss of all generators, ii fully charged battery can furnish power to the STANDBY Bus
equipment for a minimum of..
A 20 minutes
B 30 minutes *
C 60 minutes
D 90 minutes
46 The I I 5V AC Standby Bus is powered by...

A The 115V Transfer Bus No. 1 under normal conditions
B The Battery Bus through the Static Inverter under normal conditions
C The Battery through the Static Inverter with a failure of both engine driven generators
D The first and the third statements are correct *
47 - One basic principle of operation for the B737 electrical system is...
A. All generator bus sources can be automatically connected by the Standby Power System
B There is no paralleling of the AC power sources *
C There is no paralleling of any power source
D An AC power source may be used in parallel a with DC power source
EXAMINATION
DIFFERNCES B 737-600/700/800
48 Illuminate of the GRD POWER AVAILABLE light indicate

A Ground power is connected and meets airplane power quality standard *
B Ground power is connected however no airplane power quality is measured
C The ground service bus is power by a ground power supply
D the external power bus is power by ground power supply
49 The SOURCE OFF light will illuminate …

A When the source selected to power the transfer bus has failed and the automatic bus transfer
function has closed the BTBs to power the transfer bus from another source
B When the source selected to power the Transfer bus and the automatic transfer function have both
failed resulting in the transfer bus being empowered
C When the TRANSFER BUS OFF light is illuminated
D All of the above. *
50 When the STANDBY POWER Switch is OFF...

A The STANDBY PWR OFF light will be illuminated *
B Automatic switching is provided from normal power sources to alternate power sources
C The STANDBY PWR OFF light will be extinguished
D The Static Inverter provides 28V DC power to Transfer Bus No.).
51 Illumination of the BAT DISCHARGE light indicates...

A The battery is being overcharged
B Excessive battery discharge is detected with the battery switch ON *
C The DC meter is in the BAT position with the battery switch ON
D Re battery bus is not powered.
52 In the event that the airplane battery is depleted, the APU can be started using DC external
power.
A True
B False. *
53 Illumination of the GEN BUS OFF light indicates...

A The associated generator bus is not powered
B The associated transfer bus is not powered
C The IDG is not supplying power to its associated Transfer bus *
D The generator is not supplying power to its associated generator bus.
54 The crew fails to properly accomplish normal procedures and takes off with the APU powering
both Transfer busses (SELECT THE INCORRECT STATEMENT)
A One Transfer bus will disconnect automatically after lift-off
B During climb, the galleys may become inoperative
C Both Main busses may become inoperative above 400 feet RA or after 12 sec. from lift-off *
D The generators will come on line automatically if the APU is either shut down or fails
55 AC amperage can be observed on the AC ammeter for the source selected by the AC meter.`
selector...
EXAMINATION
DIFFERNCES B 737-600/700/800
A True *
B False.
56 During cruise, one engine driven generator drops off-line. Indications that the crew should see
include...
A A TRANSFER BUS OFF light and a GEN OFF BUS light
B A SOURCE 017F light and a GEN OFF BUS light *
C Illumination of the fuel pump, probe heat, respective hydraulic pumps powered by the
associates Transfer bus
D All of the above.
57 Illumination of the DRIVE light indicates:

A IDG failure
B IDG automatic disconnect due to high oil temperature
C IDG disconnected through the drive disconnect switch F Any of the above
D Any of he above *
58 Both AC Transfer busses can be powered simultaneously by...

A A single IDG on the ground or in flight
B The APU generator while on the ground or in flight
C Both of the above *
D No single source can power both AC Transfer busses simultaneously
59 On the ground, with the battery switch OFF and STANBY POWER Switch in AUTO, the Battery
Bus is...
A Not powered *
B Powered by TR3
C Powered by the Hot Battery Bus
D Powered by the Battery
60 The TR UNIT will illuminate in flight if...

A Any TR unit fails
B TRI fails or TR2 & TR3 fail *
C TR2 fails or TR I
D TR2 or TR3 fail
61 With external DC power connected to the external DC power receptacle...

A The APU can be started using DC external power *
B The battery is paralleled with the DC External power source
C All circuits normally powered by the battery are powered
D There is no external DC power receptacle
62 Illumination of the STANDBY POWER OFF light indicates:

A The AC Standby Bus is un powered
B The DC Standby Bus is un powered
C The Battery Bus is un powered
EXAMINATION
DIFFERNCES B 737-600/700/800
D Any of the above. *
63 With the standby switch in the AUTO position, the loose of all engine or APU electrical power
results in the automatic switching from the normal power source to the alternate source for
standby power
A In flight only
B On the ground only
C Either in flight or on the ground *
D Will not occur
64 DC voltage and amperage may be read on the DC volt meter and amperage for the battery ind
each of the TRUs. The standby power and battery bus display only DC voltage. Normal indication
: ……..volt
A 24 +/- 1
B 26 +/- 5
C 24 +/- 2
D 26 +/- 4 *
65 The DRIVE amber caution light came on when :

A Low oil pressure is sensed in the IDG
B IDG disconnected automatically due to high oil pressure *
C IDG disconnected manually with the drive disconnect switch
D The engine is not running
66 DC bus powered from the battery following a loose of both generators are
A Battery bus, DC standby bus, hot battery bus
B DC standby bus, hot battery bus and switched hot battery bus
C Battery bus, DC standby bus, hot battery bus and switched hot battery bus (even when the
battery switch is off)
D Battery bus, DC standby bus, hot battery bus and switched hot battery bus *
67 When the IDG will be automatically powered AC transfer bus

a During engine start and APU starter generator fails *
b Load shed active
c In flight with only APU powered the aircraft and APU GB open
68 The ELECT light illuminated (amber) indicates

A A fault exists in DC power system or standby power system
B A fault exists in standby power system
C A fault exists in electrical power system *
69 The ELECT light will illuminate in flight if

A A fault exists in the AC or standby power system
A A fault exists in DC or standby system
B A fault exists in AC, DC or the standby power system
C The ELEC light only operate on the ground *
EXAMINATION
DIFFERNCES B 737-600/700/800
70 An IDG will auto disconnect due to

A Low oil quantity
B High oil temperature *
C Low oil pressure
71 TR UNIT light in-flight indicates

A TR1 and TR2 or TR3 failed
B Any TR has failed.
C TR1 or TR2 and TR3 failed. *
72 ELEC light means

A A fault exists in DC power system, standby power system and only operates in-flight.
B A fault exists in DC power system or standby power system and only operates on the ground.
*
C A fault exists in DC power system or standby power system.
73 The SOURCE OFF lights indicate that

A No source has been manually selected to power the related transfer bus.
B No source has been manually selected to power the related transfer bus, or a source has
been selected to power the opposite transfer bus.
C No source has been manually selected to power the related transfer bus, or the manually
selected source has been disconnected. *
74 The STANDBY POWER OFF light illuminates if there is no power to either

A AC standby bus, DC standby bus or battery bus.*
B AC standby bus, DC standby bus or any of the battery buses.
C AC standby bus or battery bus.
75 The SOURCE OFF lights (amber) indicate that

A No source has been manually selected to power the related transfer bus.
B manually selected source has been disconnected.
C Both transfer buses are powered *
76 ELEC light illuminated (amber) indicates

A A fault exists in DC power system or standby power system. *
B A fault exists in standby power system
C A fault exists in electrical power system
26. FIRE PROTECTION
1 What is the indication when smoke is detected in the cargo compartment:

A Red cargo smoke light on P7 illuminate.
B Fire warning light on P7 illuminates. *
EXAMINATION
DIFFERNCES B 737-600/700/800
C Amber “FWD” and “AFT EXT” lights on P8.

D As mention on A, B and C.
2 What is right concerning the cargo fire protection system :

A Every aircraft has two cargo fire extinguisher bottles.
B The smoke detectors are six in the forward cargo and six in aft cargo.
C The CEUs are in the forward and aft cargo compartments. *
D The fire extinguisher bottle is in the aft cargo compartment.
3 Concerning the engine fire detectors are as follow, except :

A The fire detectors are from gas loop type.
B The responder has a normally closed fault switch, normally open.
C Two detectors are in Fan Case compartment, two detectors are in engine core compartment.
D Three detector are in Fan Case compartment, two detectors are in engine Core compartment.
*
4. Which detector types are used for engine and APU fire detection ?
A Pressure responding loops. *
B Continuous thermostat loops.
C Pressure responding loops for the engine and thermostat loops for the APU.
D Pressure responding loops or thermostat loops for engine or for APU.
5. A single detector element has failed in one of the engine loop. Which indication follows ?
A The P8 `FAULT` light comes on.
B Failure indications occur when the P8 `FAULT/INOP` test is performed.
C A fault light code shows on the front of the ENG & APU fire detection controller. *
6 When extinguisher test switch is placed 1 and 2 the all green light are illuminated
A All cartridge on both fire extinguisher bottles are unserviceable
B Low pressure on the fire extinguisher bottle
C Discharge circuits of cartridge on fire extinguisher bottle are serviceable *
7 Witch aircraft parts are monitors by the Compartment Overheat Control Module
A The main wheel well only
B Pneumatic ducts and the main wheel well *
C The cargo compartments and the main wheel well
8 Where is the location of and engine and APU fire prop control module and compartment overheat
detection control module
A. Engine and APU fire prop control module on E2 rack in E/E compartment
B Comportment overheat detection control module on E3 rack in E/E compartment
C The compartment overheat detection control module are on rack El in E/E compartment
D B and C throe *
9 What is the indication when smoke is detected in the cargo compartment?

EXAMINATION
DIFFERNCES B 737-600/700/800
A. Red cargo smoke light on P8 illuminates

B Fire warning light on P7 illuminates
C. Bell (aural warning) sound
D As mentioned on A, B and C. *
10. What is rigid concerning the cargo fire protective system

A Every aircraft has two cargo fire extinguisher bottles
B. The smoke detectors are six in the forward cargo and six in aft cargo
C The CEUs are [n the forward and aft cargo compartments *
D The fire extinguisher bottle is in the aft cargo compartment
11 How is the installation of the engine fire detectors?

A. Three detectors in fan Compartment. And one detector in core compartment.
B Two detectors in fan compartment and two detector in core compartment *
C. One detectors in fan compartment and three detectors in core compartment.
D Four detectors in fan compartment.
12 The red fire warning light on P7 and bell are used to indicate
A Engine fire.
B Engine fire, APU fire.
C Engine fire, APU file, Wheel well fire.
D Engine fire, APU fire, Wheel well fire, Cargo smoke. *
13 Followings are the results when the APU is on fire, except :

A. Red light on APU fire handle (P8) illuminates.
B Red fire warning on P7 and Bell are triggered.
C Red light on P28 illuminate and Horn sounds when aircraft in flight. *
D. The APU is automatically shut-down.
14 Where is the location of the Cargo Electronic Unit ?

A. E/E compartment rack El.
B Relevant cargo compartment. *
C. lower nose compartment.
D Flight compartment
15 On the cargo fire control panel P8, what will not illuminate when the cargo fire protection system is
tested using the test switch 7
Two Green Lights for squib test.
B Red smoke lights for fire indication test.
C Detector Fault light. *
D. Bottle Discharge light.
16 If the second cargo firex bottle is installed, in air mode, when does it operate?
A. 60 minutes after the first bottle empty.
B 60 minutes after the discharge selection. *
C 60 seconds after the first bottle empty.
EXAMINATION
DIFFERNCES B 737-600/700/800
D 60 seconds after the discharge selection
17 The lavatory fire extinguisher system will automatically discharge when heat levels exceed
A 200 degrees F
B 180 degrees F
C 250 degrees F
18 The APU fire extinguisher fire bottle can be released from these locations
A P8 engine and APU fire panel
B P28 remote control panel and automatically on ground (optionally)
C All above mention *
19 The P8 FAULT light comes on

A When loop A or loop B fault
B When loop A and loop B fault *
C When engine and APU fire loops failure
20 The lavatory fire extinguisher system operation

A Both automatically and manually
B Manually
C Automatically
21 To check that a lavatory fire extinguisher has not discharged

A Check the nozzle tips aluminums color after discharge and heat sensitive discs which color
from the heat of the fire
B Check the extinguisher pressure gauge
C Check the extinguisher contents indicator
22 A loop failure occurs on engine 1. When will the corresponding area and fault lights appear on the
from face of the fire detection module?
A It will automatically occur.
B A test has to be performed from the flight deck.
C A local test has to be performed from the front face of the fire detection module
23 How many fire loops are protecting the APU compartment

A 3 independent loops
B 1 single loop comprising, 3 sensing elements.
C A dual loop
24 What is verified by illumination of the two green extinguisher - 'EXT' - lights on the cargo smoke
panel during a test?
A There is continuity through the squibs.
B That the pressure in the fire bottle is above the 'low pressure set point'.
C A and B are both correct.
ATA 27
EXAMINATION
DIFFERNCES B 737-600/700/800
1. How will a trailing edge flap uncommented motion be indicated ?

A The TE FLAP TRANSIT light illuminates.
B The flap position indicator shows a split needle.
C The flap position indicator disagrees with flap lever position*.
2. Normal yaw damping is performed with:

A SMYD 1 ( Stall Management Yaw Damper ) and hydraulic system B*.
B SMYD 2 and standby hydraulic system.
C SMYD 1 and standby hydraulic system.
D SMYD 2 and hydraulic system A.
3. The elevator tab control mechanism is controlled by :

A TE flap position. *
B Elevator feel actuator.
C Elevator feel computer.
D Elevator position.
4. How do you stop all electrical operation of the stabilizer trim ?

A Move system A flight control switch to “ OFF”.
B Move the stabilizer trim cut out switches to “CUTOUT” *.
C Move the stabilizer trim override switch to “OVERRIDE”.
D A & C of the above mention are correct.
5. What is indicated by an illuminated YAW DAMPER light?

A The yaw damper is disengaged. *
B The stand by yaw damper is engaged.
C Only hydraulic system B is inoperative.
D Yaw damper actuator fail to extend.
6. What is the purpose of the wheel to rudder interconnect system (WTRIS)?

A It provides turn coordination during normal operation.
B It provides turn coordination during manual reversion*.
C It provides turn coordination during alternate operation.
D B & C of above the mention are correct.
7. What keeps ground spoilers in down position during cruise with the speed brake handle in down
position and hydraulic pressure available ?
A Hydraulic pressure only.
B Internal mechanical locks only.
C Hydraulic pressure and mechanical locks. *
D All answers are not correct.
8. The auto speed brake system operated during landing. When will the auto speed brake actuator
retract ?
EXAMINATION
DIFFERNCES B 737-600/700/800
A When one thrust lever is advanced above idle. *

B When both engine thrust reverse levers are moved to idle.
C When speed brake lever is moved to the DOWN position.
D B & C of the above mention are correct.
9. The purpose of the elevator feel shift module (EFSM) is

A To increase control coulomb force during stall *
B To decrease cont. column forces during stall
C To reduce hydraulics pressure during stall
D To increase cont. column forces during high speed
10. How many rudder actuator to operate the surface

A Two actuators *
B Three actuators
C Four actuators
D Two actuators for manual reversion
11 The second priority of the stabilizer control is:

A Manual
B Electrical *
C Autopilot
D Hydraulics
12 The T.E. flap control switches are located at the:

A Landing gear wheel well *
B E/E. compartment *
C Tail compartment
D E11
13 What control surfaces have balance tabs?

A Ailerons and rudder.
B Rudder and elevators.
C Elevators and ailerons. *
14. Trailing edge flaps can be operated by:

A Hydraulic pressure from system A or B.
B Hydraulic pressure from system A or electrically
C Hydraulic pressure from system B or electrically. *
15 How many spoiler surfaces do we have on the aircraft ?

A. Two ground spoiler surface on each wing.
B Four Right spoiler surfaces on each wing.
C. Six spoiler surfaces on each wing.
D A and B are correct *.
EXAMINATION
DIFFERNCES B 737-600/700/800
16 When the flight control shut-off valve on the modular package is selected OFF, the
hydraulic pressure is cut off from :
A Aileron PCU, elevator PCU, rudder normal PCU, and elevator feel *
B. Aileron PCU,. elevator PCU, rudder normal and standby PCU, and elevator feel.
C. Aileron PCU, elevator PCU, and rudder normal PCU.
D. Aileron PCU, elevator PCU, rudder. normal PCU, and spoiler actuator.
17. When the elevator tab is in the anti balance mode, how is it ?
A The tab movement is in the opposite direction of the elevator movement.
B The tab movement is in the same direction of the elevator movement *.
C It happens when the TE flaps are up.
D A and C are true.
18. Which statement is correct ?

A SMYD is located on E3.
B Auto speed brake control box is on E4
C FSEU is on E1.
D As mentioned on A. B, and C
19 What is the priority sequence of the stabilizer control ?

A Manual, Electrical, and Autopilot. *
B Electrical, Manual, and Autopilot.
C Manual, Autopilot, and Electrical.
D Autopilot, Manual, and Electrical.
20 During trailing edge flaps normal operation, what conditions makes the flap stop ?
A Asymmetry and Skew *.
B Uncommented motion and Alternate operation.
C Alternate operation.
D Skew and Alternate operation.
21. What load relief may happen on the trailing edge flap system ?
A 40 to 30 load relief
B 30 to 25 load relief.
C. 25 to 20 load relief.
D A and B are true. *
22 The feel Differential Pressure amber light is

A Armed at all cases
B Armed when the leading edge flaps are not up
C Armed when the leading edge flaps are up *
23 If an un asymmetry condition developed between the right and left wing trailing edge flaps
A The electrical power is automatically removed from the flap drive unit provided the alternate
flap drive system is in use
EXAMINATION
DIFFERNCES B 737-600/700/800
B The hydraulic power is automatically removed from the flap drive unit provided the normal flap
drive system is in use *
C The electrical power is automatically removed from the flap drive unit provided the normal flap
drive system is in use
24 At what settings should the leading edge FLAPS be partially extended

A The leading edge FLAPS should never be partially extended *
B 1 degrees of flap
C 10 degrees of flap
25 The Leading Edge devices are normally powered by hydraulic system

A A and B
B A
C B*
26 The rudder power control unit (PCUs) are powered by

A System B and standby pump for the main rudder PCU and system A for the standby rudder
PCU
B System A and standby pump for the main rudder PCU and system B for the standby rudder
PCU
C System A and system B for the main rudder PCU and standby pump for the standby rudder
PCU *
27 The standby system LOW PRESSURE light is armed

A Has been selected or automatic standby function is activated *
B At all times
C Only when the standby pump operation has been selected or either Spoiler switch has been
selected to OFF
28 The flap limit speed for FLAP 30 is

A 230 Knots
B 240 Knots
C 165 Knots *
29 In the even of jammed aileron system, rotation of the co-pilot control wheel operates the
A Aileron tabs for roll control
B Flight Spoiler tabs for roll control *
C Aileron for roll control
30 The elevator feel differential pressure light illuminate indicated there is

A Normal pressure in the elevator feel computer
B excessive differential pressure in the elevator feel computer *
C A failure of an FCC channel
31 How many Ground Spoiler panel are there

A Classics 6 – NG 4 *
EXAMINATION
DIFFERNCES B 737-600/700/800
B Classics 6 – NG 6
C Classics 4 – NG 4
32 The take off Configuration Warning System receives signal from

A The Leading Edge SLATS
B The Leading Edge FLATS
C The Leading Edge FLATS and SLATS *

A 185K
B 165K *
C 175K

A 250K *
B 240K
C 230K
35 The standby yaw damper is powered

A From the standby hydraulic system, only when both FLT CONTROL switches are positioned
to STBY RUD. *
B From the standby hydraulic system, automatically when loss of system A and B hydraulic
pressure is detected.
C From the standby hydraulic system, automatically when loss of system B hydraulic pressure
is detected.
36 The Flaps/Slat Electronics Unit (FSEU)

A Monitors flap load, asymmetry, skew and overrun on all T/E flaps and L/E slats 2 to 7. *
B Monitors flap load, asymmetry, skew and overrun on all T/E flaps and L/E slats and flaps.
C Monitors flap load, asymmetry, skew and overrun on all T/E flaps and L/E slats.
37 Tabs are fitted to the

A Aileron and Elevators *
B Rudder and Elevator
C Rudder, Aileron and Elevator
28. FUEL SYSTEM
1. When the aircraft flaying with all fuel tanks full and all boost pumps operate, the center tank fuel
will be consumed firstly due to :
A Main tank pumps have higher capacity.
B Main tank pumps have lower cracking pressure on check valve.
C Center tank pumps have higher capacity.*
D Center tank pumps have lower cracking pressure on check valve.
2 The boost pumps location is as follow :

A Center tank boost pumps are installed on the center wing rear spar.*
EXAMINATION
DIFFERNCES B 737-600/700/800
B Center tank boost pumps are installed on the main tanks.

C All main tank boost pumps are installed on the wing front spar.
D All main tank boost pumps are installed on the wing rear spar.
3 The electrical power to operate the fueling valve comes from :

A External power.
B Hot battery bus.*
C Switch to hot battery bus or external power.
D Switch hot battery bus.
4 What cautions can we find on the fuel quantity indicator ?

A IMBAL on main tank fuel quantity indicator.*
B LOW on center tank fuel quantity indicator.
C CONFIG on main tank fuel quantity indicator.
D IMBAL message only shows when airplane is on the ground.
5 Where is the location of the fuel shut off valve battery ?

A In E/E compartment.
B In forward equipment center.
C In flight compartment P6 behind F/O seat*.
D In flight compartment P6 behind Pilot seat.
6 Where is the locations of the FPQU ?

A In flight compartment.
B In forward equipment center *
C In behind refueling panel.
D In the fwd cargo compartment.
7 What is correct regarding the “center tank scavenge “ system ?

A It operates when the fuel level in main tank 1 is less than 2000 Kg.*
B It operates when the fuel level in main tank 2 is less than 3000 Kg.
C It operates when the fuel level in center tank is less than 5000 Kg.
D The FQPU turns the system on when the total fuel mass is less than 7500 kg.
8 When the center tank scavenge jet pump operates ?

A Both center tank fuel pump switches are turn off.
B The no 1 main fuel tank is about 2/3 full and the main tank no 1 fwd pump is operating .*
C The center fuel tank is about ¾ full.
D Either engine is operating.
9 How do you perform a BITE test of the Fuel Quantity Indicating system ( FQIS ) ?
A That it can only be tested when you make a BITE of the FMCS.*
B By accessing the FQIS bite page through the CDU.*
C It is done from the front face of the FQIS processor unit.
EXAMINATION
DIFFERNCES B 737-600/700/800
10 The fuel temperature indicating system show a fuel temperature in :

A Center tank.
B Tank no : 2
C Tank no : 1*
11 If any flashing at P15 of fuel gauge during fueling operation :

A That one fuel tank has been full.
B That the preselected fuel mass is about to be reached ( within 100 kg ).
C That the Fuel Quantity Processor Unit ( FPQU ) has fail
D That the respective fuel tank is about to be overfilled.*
12 Master Caution & illumination of the “ FUEL “ enunciator occurs ill when :
A One boost pump in a fuel tank shows a low press.
B Two boost pumps in different tank shows a low press.
C One boost pump in a fuel tank shows a low press & recall is pressed.*
13 The “ left fwd boost pump “ supplies motive flow to a jet pump ( ejector ).
How much capacity transfer of the ejector ?
A 2000 Kg / hour.
B 200 Kg / hour *.
C 200 Kg / minute.
D 400 Kg / minute.
14. How much fuel will show “ LOW “ message in fuel indicator that either main tank # 1 or main
tank # 2 has less than :
A 807 Kg.
B 907 Kg.*
C 1007 Kg.
D 1107 Kg.
15. How much fuel will shows “ IMBAL “ ?

A When there is a difference 534 Kg fuel between MT 1 & MT 2.
B When there is a difference 453 Kg fuel between MT 2 & CTR.
C When there is a difference 453 Kg fuel between MT 1 & MT 2.*
D When there is a difference 453 Kg fuel between MT 1 & CTR..
16. The “ CONFIG “ message shows when :

A 725 Kg or more of fuel in CTR tank.
B Both CTR tank boOst pumps are off.
C Either engine is in operation.
D All answer are correct.*
17. The FQPU receive power from any these three sources, excepts :
A 28 V DC BUS 1.
EXAMINATION
DIFFERNCES B 737-600/700/800
B 28 V DC BUS 2.*
C 28 V DC BATTERY BUS.
D 28 V DC HOT BATTERY BUS.
18. Where is the location fuel temperature indicating system shows fuel temperature ?
A In main tank # 1 *.
B In main tank # 2.
C In center tank.
19. Fuel at center fuel tank is used before fuel at main tank because …
A Center tank check valves open at a lower differential pressure than main tank check valves.
B Center tank check valves open at a higher/lower differential pressure than main tank check
valves.
C Center tank fuel pumps produce higher pressure than main tank pumps*
D Main tank pumps cannot produce pressure until the center tank LOW PRESSURE light
Illuminate and center tank pumps are turn off.
20. The center tank scavenge jet pump transfer remaining fuel from the center tank at a rate of
approximately :
A 80 kg/ hr ( 177 lbs / hr ) depending upon speed.
B 80 kg/ hr ( 177 lbs / hr ) depending upon weight..
C 80 kg/ hr ( 177 lbs / hr ) depending upon temperature..
D 80 kg/ hr ( 177 lbs / hr ) depending upon altitude *.
21. When A/C for landing, what is the maximum fuel imbalance between no 1 and no 2 main
tanks ?
A 500 kg ( 1100 lbs )
B 453 kg ( 1000 lbs )*
C 590 kg ( 1300 lbs ).
D There is no maximum fuel in balance.
22. In which fuel tanks are bypass valve located ?

A Center tank.
B Both main tanks*.
C All tanks.
D None
22. What is the condition of the “ VALVE OPEN “ when the cross feed selector is positioned
open and the cross valve is closed ?
a Illuminated bright blue.*
b Illuminated dim blue.
C Illuminated amber.
D Not illuminated ( extinguished )
23. The accuracy of the fuel quantity indicators is plus or minus ….

EXAMINATION
DIFFERNCES B 737-600/700/800
A 1 % of full scale reading.

B 2.5 % of full scale reading.*
C 4 % of full scale reading.
D 5 % of full scale reading.
24. The fuel quantity indicators are power by :

A TR 2.
B Battery bus.
C Standby DC bus.
D Standby AC bus.*
25. How many fuel measuring sticks are installed in each tank ?
A Three sticks.
B Four sticks.
C Five sticks.
D Six sticks*.
26. The boost pumps location is as follow :

A Center tank boost pumps are installed on the center wing rear spar.*
B Center tank boost pumps are installed on the main tanks.
C All main tank boost pumps are installed on the wing front spar.
D All main tank boost pumps are installed on the wing rear spar.
27. The electrical power to operate the fueling valve comes from :
A External power.
B Hot battery bus.*
C Switch to hot battery bus or external power.
D Switch hot battery bus.
28. What messages we have on the fuel quantity indicator ?

A IMBAL message for any fuel quantity difference in main tanks
B LOW messages on main tank indicator when fuel below 907 kgs *
C CONFIG massage on the centre tank indicator when main tank fuel is consumed firstly.
29 Where is the location of the fuel shut off valve battery ?

A In E/E compartment.
B In forward equipment center.
C In flight compartment P6 behind F/O seat.*
D In flight compartment P6 behind Pilot seat.
30 Where is the locations of the FPQU ?

A In the lower nose compartment *
B In the wheel well
C In the flight compartment.
D In the fwd cargo compartment.
EXAMINATION
DIFFERNCES B 737-600/700/800
31. The fuel temperature indicating system show fuel temperature in :

A Center tank.
B Tank no : 2
C Tank no : 1*
32. When the center tank scavenge jet pump operates ?

A Both center tank fuel pump switches are turn off.
B The no 1 main fuel tank is about 2/3 full and the main tank no 1 fwd pump is operating.*
C The center fuel tank is about ¾ full.
D Either engine is operating.
33 How is the fuel tank configuration on b737-600/700/800

a. Main tank no 1 extends from rib no 5 to rib no 2 in left tank
b. Main tank no 2 extends from rib no 5 to rib no 22 in right wing
c. Centre tank extends from rib no 5 in left wing to rib no 5 in right wing*
d. As mentioned on A, B. and C
34 When any tank is over filled, what about the excess fuel in surge tank
a. It goes to centre tank by gravity
b. It goes to relevant main tank by gravity*
c. It flows overboard during flight
d. In remain in surge tank until drained manually
35 How is the location of boost pump

a. The main tank forward pumps are on wing front spars, main tank aft pump are on wing rear
spars
b Centre tank booster pump are accessible from panel on the lower skin
c Main tank aft pump accessible from panels on lower skin
d A and B are the correct answers*
36 During flight with all boost pumps operate, the residual fuel in centre tank is transfer to tank no 1
a. When both centre tanks pumps switch are selected OFF
b When both centre tanks pumps switch are selected OFF
c When fuel quantity in tank no 1 below 2000 kgs*
d All the times
37 What about the spar valves and cross feed valve

a. The spar valves are installs on wing front spars and the cross feed valve is on right hand
wing rear spar
b. The spar valves are installed on wing front spar
c The cross feed valve is on the centre wing rear spar
d B and C are correct*
38 What message can we have on the fuel quantity indicator

EXAMINATION
DIFFERNCES B 737-600/700/800
a. Config message on centre tank indicator when main tank fuel is consumed firstly
b Low massage on main tank indicator when fuel below 2000 lbs
c Imbal message for any fuel quantity difference in main tanks
d A, B, and C are throe *
39 How many drip stick do we have in the fuel tanks

a. 10
b. 14
c 16 *
d 20
40 How is the fuel quantity computed

a. By the DEUs
b By the FMCS
c By the FQPU
41 The fuel shut off valve battery make sure that the fuel system always ….. power to close these
valves
A Engine spar valve and engine shut off valve
B Engine spar valve and APU shut off valve *
C Engine shut off valve and APU shut off valve
42 The typical maximum fuel tank quantities are

A 3,900 kgs in each wing tank, 16,200 kgs in the centre tank
B 4,600 kgs in each wing tank, 7,000 kgs in the centre tank
C 3,900 kgs in each wing tank, 12,800 kgs in the centre tank *
43 The fuel LOW indication

A Is amber and illuminates when any main tank contains less than 907Kgs.
B Is amber and illuminates when the related main tank contains less than 1134Kgs.
C Is amber and illuminates when the related main tank contains less than 907Kgs.*
44 The fuel IMBAL indication

A Illuminates if the main tanks differ by more than 453kgs and will continue to display until
imbalance is reduced to 91Kgs. *
B Illuminates if the main tanks differ by more than 453kgs and will continue to display until the
crossfeed valve is opened.
C Illuminates if the main tanks differ by more than 453kgs and will continue to display until
imbalance is reduced to 363Kgs.
45 The fuel CONFIG indication illuminates if the center tank contains more than 726kgs, both centre
tank pumps are producing low or no pressure and either engine is running...
A And will continue to display until centre tank is less than 91Kgs, one centre tank pump is
producing high pressure or both engines are not running.
B And will continue to display until centre tank is less than 363Kgs, one centre tank pump is
producing high pressure or both engines are not running. *
EXAMINATION
DIFFERNCES B 737-600/700/800
C And will continue to display until centre tank is less than 453Kgs, one centre tank pump is
producing high pressure or both engines are not running.
46 Centre tank fuel

A Is gravity fed
B Is suction fed
C Is pressure fed *
47 The centre tank fuel scavenge jet pump

A Is activated by a float switch *
B Is always active
C Is activated by the centre tank pump switches
48 Pulling an engine fire switch

A Closes both fuel valves. *
B Closes the engine fuel valve
C Closes the spar fuel valve
49 How is it accomplished to empty the center tank before the main tanks?
A By different opening setting of the pump check valve.
B By difference in outlet pressure.
C By a sequence logic in the DEUS
50 What is the purpose of the 'blinking' feature in the P15 fuel gauges?
A To warm about a gauge failure
B To warm about a possible volumetric overfill.
C It indicates that the pre-selector system has failed.
51 Which of the fuel shut off valves' are connected to the P6 'fuel shut off valve battery'?
A The engine spar valves only.
B The engine Spar valves and HMU HPSOVs.
C The two engine spar valves and the APU fuel shutoff valve.
52 Which of the six fuel boost pumps supplies motive pressure to the water scavenge system?
A The center boost pumps only.
B The left FWD boost pump only.
C All four of the aft fuel boost pumps.
53 How is BITE done on the fuel quantity indicating system (FQIS)?

A Local on the front page of the FQPU.
B Through the CDUs.
C Only through an extern tank unit tester.
54 What is indicated by a flashing P!% fuel gauge during fueling operation

A That the respective fuel tank is about to be over filled *
B That the Fuel Quantity Processor Unit (FQPU) has failed
EXAMINATION
DIFFERNCES B 737-600/700/800
C That the pre selected fuel mass is about to be reached (within 100kgs)
Ata 29 Hydraulic
1. Which hydraulic pumps are equipped with overheat switches ?

A Only the standby pump.
B Only the engine driven pumps.
C The electrical driven pumps in system A and B. *
D All of the above are correct.
2. The standby pump can pressurize the following system ?

A Rudder, thrust reverser or to extend the ground spoilers.
B Rudder, trailing edge flaps or to extend the leading edge devices.
C Rudder, trailing edge flaps or to extend the leading edge devices and to extend the ground
spoilers.
D Rudder, thrust reverser or to extend the leading edge devices.*
3. What will happen with the supply to EDP 1 if the fire handle for ENG 1 is pulled ?
A The supply to both system A pump will stop.
B The supply to electrical motor driven pump ( EMDP ) will be stopped.
C The supply to standby pump will stop.
D The supply to engine driven pump ( EDP1 ) will be stopped.*
4 What will happen with the supply to the EDP 1 if FIRE HANDLE for ENG 1 is pulled ?
A The supply to both system A pumps will stop
B The supply to the electrical motor driven pump (EMDP) will be stopped
C The hydraulic supply to the engine driven pump (EDP 1) will be stopped *
5. The pressure pumps in system A are ?

A Two engine driven pumps.
B Two electrical motor driven pumps.
C One engine driven pump and ore electrical motor driven pump.*
6. What is the correct statement about the reservoir pressurization module?

A There is one module for all reservoir *
B There is one module for the standby system and one for system A and system B
C There are two modules, one in each system A and B
D There arc three modules, one in each system A,B and standby
7. The air pressure output from the hydraulic reservoir pressurization module is sent to
A System A reservoir, System B reservoir, and System Standby reservoir
B System A reservoir and System B reservoir.*
C. System A reservoir and System Standby reservoir.
D. System B reservoir and System Standby reservoir.
8. What is indicated by the illumination of the OVERHEAT light on the hydraulic control panel
(P5) ?
EXAMINATION
DIFFERNCES B 737-600/700/800
A EDP overheat.
B E M D P o ve rh e at .
C Pump case drain fluid overheat *
D. PTU overheat.
9 The standby hydraulic pump will operate automatically when

A. The flight control switch or the Alternate flap switch is selected.
B. Flaps not up, Aircraft in air, System A or B low pressure.
C. Flaps not up, Aircraft on around with speed >60 knots, System A or B low pressure.
D As mentioned on B or C.*
10 What hydraulic system is backed-up by the PTU ?

A. Hydraulic system A to operate leading edge devices
B. Hydraulic system B to operate leading edge devices*
C. Hydraulic system A or P. to operate engine thrust rev.rsel-.
D. Hydraulic standby system to operate rudder
11 If an electric hydraulic pump overheat (210F) occurred

A Turn the associated system electric and engine hydraulic pumps OFF
B The pump will be automatically switched off and the OVERHEAT light extinguish
C Turn the associated system electric hydraulic pump to OFF *
12 The standby system LOW PRESSURE light is armed

A Only when the standby pump operation has been selected or automatic standby function is
activated *
B At all times
C Only when the standby pump operation has been selected or either spoiler switch has been
selected to OFF
13 The standby hydraulic pump only supplies pressure to the

A Standby rudder and leading edge slats
B Standby rudder actuator, leading edge devices and thrust reversers *
C Standby rudder, leading edge devices and brakes
14 If either Flight Control switch is moved to the STBY RUD position

A The standby pump will be de-activated allowing system A pressure to power the rudder and
the standby hydraulic LOW PRESSURE light will be armed
B The standby pump will be activated and the standby hydraulic LOW QUANTITY light will be
armed
C The standby pump will be activated and the standby hydraulic LOW PRESSURE light will be
armed *
15 The standby hydraulic pump is automatically active on the loose of system A or B hydraulic
pressure
A During the take off or landing with a wheel speed greater than 60 kns irrespective of the wing
flaps position
EXAMINATION
DIFFERNCES B 737-600/700/800
B During the take off or landing with a wheel speed greater than 90 kns and wing flaps
extended
C During the take off or landing with a wheel speed greater than 60 kns and wing flaps
extended *
16 The standby hydraulic fluid

A Is cooled by a heat exchanger located in NO 1 tank
B Is cooled by a heat exchanger located in NO 2 tank
C Is not cooled *
17 The A and B hydraulic reservoirs are pressurized by

A Air from the 14th stage only
B Air from the pneumatic manifold *
C Hydraulic fluid from the standby reservoir
18 Illumination of a Hydraulic Electric Pump OVERHEAT light indicates

A An overheat condition of the pump hydraulic supply line
B An overheat condition in the case drain line or the pump housing *
C An overheat condition in the hydraulic reservoir
19 Illumination of a Electric Hydraulic Pump OVERHEAT light will

A Automatically shut down the associated pump *
B No shut down the associated pump
C Automatically arm the LOW PRESSURE light for the associated pump
20 The maximum hydraulic system A or B pressure is

A 3250 psi
B 3000 psi *
C 3500 psi
21 The hydraulic quantity RF annunciation displays when the hydraulic quantity is less than
A 69%
B 76% *
C 88%
22 A leak in the system B hydraulic will also reduce the quantity in the B system
A To 20%
B To approx zero and is sufficient for PTU operation. *
C To approx 11% and is sufficient for PTU operation.
23 A leak in the standby hydraulic system will also reduce the quantity in the B system to
A 72% *
B 64%
C 20%
30. ICE & RAIN PROECTION.

EXAMINATION
DIFFERNCES B 737-600/700/800
1 The total temperature probe :

A Is not heated while on the ground.
B Is not heated while in flight.
C Is electrical heated.*
D Does not require heating.
2 The “ COWL ANTI ICE “ light when illuminated.

A Indicates on over temperature or over pressure condition in downstream of the engine cowl
anti ice valve.
B Indicates on over pressure condition only in duct downstream of the engine cowl anti ice
valve.*
C Indicates on over temperature or over pressure condition in downstream of the engine cowl
anti ice valve.
D Indicates an excessive pressure in the supply duct only.
3 Thermal air for wing anti icing is obtain from :

A Fifth stage engine bleed air only.
B Ninth stage engine bleed air only.
C Bleed air ducted from the main air conditioning manifold.
D Bleed air ducted from the main air pneumatic manifold.*
4 The window heat switches must be ;

A On to make a power or OVERHEAT test. *
B Off while on the ground.
C Off to make a power and OVERHEAT test only.
D Off when making an OVERHAT test.
5 After the OVERHEAT light have illuminate during OVERHEAT test

A The window heat switches must be momentarily positioned to the ON the system.
B The window heat switches must be momentarily positioned to OFF the system.*
C The window heat switches must be momentarily positioned to reset the system.
D No action is required as the resetting of the system is automatic.
6 What is true concerning window 1L and 1R primary and spare sensors ?

A They can be swapped by a switch in the EE compartment.
B The terminals has to changed over manually in case of failure. *
C If the primary sensor fails the spare sensor automatically takes over.
D B & C of the above mention are correct.
7 Which condition may result in an amber P5 `COWL ANTI-ICE` light ?

A Overpressure in the CTAI supply duct. *
B An over temperature condition in the CTAI supply duct.
C The PRSOV fails to regulate the pneumatic pressure supply.
EXAMINATION
DIFFERNCES B 737-600/700/800
8 The COWL ANTI-ICE light when illuminated

A Indicates an over temperature or overpressure condition in the duct downstream of the
engine cowl anti-ice valve.
B Indicates an overpressure condition only in the duct downstream of the engine cowl anti-ice
valve.
C Indicates an over temperature or overpressure condition in the duct upstream of the engine
cowl anti-ice valve.
D Indicates an excessive pressure in the supply duct only.
9 Which aircraft area uses hot bleed air for anti-icing?

A The engine air inlets only (CTAI).
B The engine air inlets (CTAI) and the TAT sensor.
C Wing leading edges (WTAI) and the engine air inlets (CTAI).*
10 What is the purpose with the Window Heat Control Units (WHCUs)?
A They control heating of windshields and the side windows. *
B They control heating of windshields only.
C They control heating side windows only.
11 CTAI switch in ON position, but the CTAI valve was not open
A Cowl Anti Ice amber light illuminate
B Cowl Valve Open blue light BRIGHT
C TAI amber legend appear on upper centre DU
31. INSTRUMENT.
1. The CDS computer no : 1 normally :

A Connected to system display.
C Connected to primary engine display.*
D All are correct.
2 The FMC data status is valid when :

A The performance data and navigation data is valid.
B The operation program is correct.
C The FMC light is valid.
3 To determine the FMC position :

A The VOR auto tune to DME based in the NDB.
B The GPS is also connected to check the position.
C A and B are correct..*
D FMC is calculate the VOR bearing deviation.
EXAMINATION
DIFFERNCES B 737-600/700/800
4 The window heat switches must be ;

A On to make a power *
B Off while on the ground.
C Signal the window heat controller to apply power to conductive coating on The inner glass
panels of 1 & 2 glass panes.
5 How many DEU’s and Coax Couplers are installed in the CDS system ?
A 2 DEU’s and four Coax Couplers *
B One DEU and two Coax Couplers
C Two DEU’s and two Coax Couplers
6 How can you determine that the DEU I has failed when the CDS FAULT is shown on the
PFD ?
A Hydraulic A pressure indication is missing.
B CDS FAULT- appears only on the onside PFD. *
C The Captains PFD, ND and the Upper Center Display are blank.
7 Where is the FDAU (flight date acquisition unit) Bite data shown
A In a MCDU bite test.
B On the FDAU front panel. *
C Only visible for shop maintenance.
8 What can cause the FDR (flight data recorder) to come on automatically ?
A The engine low oil pressure switches.
B The engine running relays.*
C The engine start switch.
9 How do you test the Aural Warning module ?

A By use of the CDU
B By use of a screwdriver.*
C By a six push button front BITE
10 GMT time output from captains clock is supplied via an ARINC 429 data bus to the:
A FMC .2 (Flight Management computer).
B Both DEUs (Display electronics unit) and the Voice Recorder.
C FDAU ( flight data acquisition unit). FMC 1 and the Voice Recorder. *
11 The voice recorder will stay working under the following conditions
A The switch is in AUTO and engine running
B The switch must be in the "ON'" position if no engine is running
C Always active when electrical power on
D Answers A and B are correct and the CVR will stop working 5 minutes after engine stops *
12 If the lower center DU is selected to show the secondary engine display and the lower center DU
fails, the upper center display will be
A Displays the secondary engine display
EXAMINATION
DIFFERNCES B 737-600/700/800
B Displays the secondary engine display and system display

C Appears in compacted mode
13 The DISPLAYS CONTROL PANEL annunciation is accompanied by

A An ALT flag against the altitude tape. *
B A SPD flag against the speed tape.
C A V/S flag against the vertical speed tape.
32. LANDING GEAR
1 During normal operation the extension and retraction of the landing gear is accomplished with :
A Hydraulic system A for retraction and system B for extension.
B Hydraulic system A *
C Hydraulic system A for main gear and hydraulic system B for nose gear.
D Hydraulic system B..
2 What is the primary function of main landing gear transfer cylinder ? :

A To transfer hydraulic system A to system B..
B To transfer hydraulic pressure to the nose wheel steering.
C To give a time delay to permit the gear to unlock before the actuator moves the gear. *
D To extend the nose gear before the main gear.
3 The alternate brake selector valve is operated with :

A Hydraulic pressure system A and B.*
B The brake pedal.
C When alternate switch select to alternate position..
D Hydraulic pressure from the standby hydraulic system.
4 After take of when gear UP is selected, the transfer valve will be operated and allow system A to
raise gear when :
A System A reservoir fluid level is below 76 %.
B System A EDP and EMDP fails and the gear is in transit.
C Engine # 1 fails and either main gear is not up and lock.
5 The accumulator isolation valve is closed by

A System B pressure whenever system A pressure is lost
B System A pressure whenever system B pressure is lost *
C Brake accumulator pressure whenever system B is lost
6 The anti skid switch

A Is guarded in the ON position
B Is switched OFF for a manual reversion landing
C Is not fitted to the NG *
7 What is the primary function of the main landing gear transfer cylinder?
A To extend the nose gear before the main gears
EXAMINATION
DIFFERNCES B 737-600/700/800
B To transfer hydraulic pressure to the nose wheel steering

C To give a time delay to permit the gear to unlock before the actuator moves the gear -
D To give a tine delay to permit the actuator moves the gear before the gear Unlock
8 After take off ( in fight) when gear up is selected, the transfer valve will be Operate And allow
system B to raise the gear when
A System A reservoir fluid level is below 76%
B System A EDP and ENIDP fails and the gear is in transit
C Eng. I fails (N2<50%) and either main gear is not up and locked *
D Eng. 2 fails (NI <50%) and either main gear is not up and locked
9 Which hydraulic system supplies pressure to the nose wheel steering system, during alternate
operation?
A Hydraulic system A.
B Hydraulic system B. *
C The power transfer unit (PTU).
10 For the air/ground system, how many compressed sensors are on the aircraft ?
A Three.
B Four.
C Five.
D Six. *
11 For the air/ground system, how many compressed sensors are on the aircraft 7
A Lower nose compartment.
B Electronic equipment compartment.
C Forward cargo-
D Aft cargo.
12 What is the function of the frangible fitting 7

A To prevent the damaged, spinning wheel from entering wheel well.
B To prevent gear down selection.
C To prevent wheel from spinning during retraction.
D A or B is the correct answer-
13 Where is the location of the PSEU 7

A EE compartment El rack
B EE compartment F3 rack.
C Nose landing gear bay.
D Lower nose compartment.*
14 The operation of the alternate brake selector valve is doe to

A. The brake pedals.
B Hydraulic pressure from system A and B. *
D Hydraulic pressure from the standby hydraulic system.Solenoid valve.
EXAMINATION
DIFFERNCES B 737-600/700/800
15 The alternate anti skid system has

A One alternate brake metering valve connected to all alternate anti skid valve
B Two anti skid valve *
C Four anti skid valve
16 The alternate brake source selector valve

A Prevents hydraulics system A from powering the alternate brake system when hydraulic
system B is operating normally *
B Prevents hydraulics system B from powering the alternate brake system when hydraulic
system A is operating normally
C Isolates accumulator pressure
17 The landing gear is normally operated

A By system B hydraulic power but has a manual extension facility and system A hydraulic
power as back up
B By system B hydraulic power but has a manual extension facility as back up
C By system A hydraulic power but has a manual extension facility as back up *
18 If the landing gear lever will not move up after take off and the configuration warning does not
sound on flap retraction
A Pull the landing gear override trigger and select landing gear OFF
B Reset the landing gear gear CB on P18-1
C Pull the landing gear override trigger and select landing gear UP, then OFF *
19 Rudder pedal steering is

A Deactivated whenever the gear is up and locked
B Deactivated as the nose gear strut extend after take-off *
C Active at all times irrespective of the gear position, or it can only demand +/- 7 degreees of
nose wheel movements
20 During landing with autobrake system armed the brakes will be automatically applied
A When the main wheels spin up only
B When the nose oleo is compressed
C When the main wheel spin up and the thrush lever are at or near idle *
21 After manual extension of the landing gear, the indication on the flight deck that the correct
procedure has been carried out is
A 6 red lights
B 6 green lights and 3 red lights
C 6 green lights *
22 Selecting the nose wheel steering switch on the Captains instrument panel to ALT providers the
a B hydraulics system pressure for steering *
b A hydraulics system pressure for steering
c Standby hydraulics system pressure for steering
EXAMINATION
DIFFERNCES B 737-600/700/800
23 When the auto brake RTO mode is selective on the ground

A The speed brake lever must be armed to initiated the automatic self test
B The AUTOBRAKE DISARM light should not illuminate, after 2 second the light will extinguish
C The AUTOBRAKE DISARM light should not illuminate FOR APPROXIMATLY 2 second to
indicate self test initiation, after 2 second the light will extinguish *
24 The precharge pressure in the brake accumulator is

A 1000 psi *
B 3000 psi
C 1500 psi
25 While the landing gear is being extended manually, the landing lever must be selected to
A OFF and then selected to DOWN after extension *
B DOWN and remain DOWN after extension
C OFF and remain OFF after extension
26 The antiskid switch

A Is switched OFF for a manual reversion landing.
B Is not fitted to the NG. *
C Is guarded in the ON position.
27 How many tyre damage impact fittings are there?

A One.
B Four. (Two each side of each tyre recess).
C Two. (One each side of the wheel well). *
28 Landing auto brake settings may be selected

A After touchdown prior to 60Kts. *
B After touchdown prior to 90Kts.
C In-flight only.
29 With flap 15 selected and landing gear UP, the landing gear warning horn cannot be silenced with
the HORN CUTOUT switch if
A Both thrust levers are below approx 30 degrees.
B Either thrust lever is below 20 degrees or an engine not running and the other thrust lever is
less than 34 degrees. *
C Either thrust lever is below 10 degrees or an engine not running and the other thrust lever is
less than 30 degrees.
30 The Proximity Switch Electronic Unit (PSEU) light illuminates

A If an over wing exit flight lock fails to disengage when commanded at any time.
B If a fault is detected in the PSEU at any time.
C Is inhibited from thrust lever advance for take-off until 30 seconds after landing. *
ATA 33 light
1 The landing lights of the aircraft :

EXAMINATION
DIFFERNCES B 737-600/700/800
A Consist of fix and extend landing light.

B No movable landing light anymore.
C Switch is located on P5 panel.
2 Where is the location of the aircraft logo light ?

A Fuselage aft side.
B Wing.
C Stabilizer. *
D Nose landing gear.
3 How many Emergency Exit Li.-ht Power Packs are on a B737-600 ?

A 6.
B 7. *
C 8.
4 The flood lights can operate in two modes, normal and standby. In the standby mode flood lights :
A Will be bright
B Will be dimmed
C Intensity can not be adjusted
5 With external power applied, the entry light

A Dim incandescent entry light on
B Dim incandescent entry light on, after ground service switched ON
C Only one entry light illuminate
34. NAVIGATION.
1. The ADF indication is always horizontal, which one is not correct :

A ADF receiver is weak
B ADF indication indicates 90 degree.
C ADF receiver is fail. *
D ADF system is selected to ant mode.
2. The FMC data status is ok, when?

A The performance data and navigation data base.
B The operational program is correct.
C The FMC light is valid.
3. To determine the FMC position :

A The VOR auto tune to DME, based on the NDB.
B The GPS is also connected to check the position.
C A and B are correct.*
D FMC is calculated the VOR bearing deviation.
EXAMINATION
DIFFERNCES B 737-600/700/800
4. From where the ADIRS get the TAT input?

A Left TAT only.*
B Left ADIRS from left TAT.
C Right ADIRS from right TAT.
D Right TAT only.
5. Standby altimeter and airspeed indicator is get input from?

A Left ADIRS.
B Right ADIRS.
C Auxiliary Pitot and alternate static.*
D In case of left ADIRS fail right ADIRS take over.
6. Which system is depending on ADIRS input?

A CDS, FMC, EGPWS, WEATHER RADAR.
B AUTO THROTTLE, FMC.
C ATC, VHF NAV, COMPAS SYSTEM.
7. Which is the location of ILS receiver?

A In the VHF NAV receiver.
B In the DME interrogator.
C It is located in the MMR receiver.*
D It is the special ILS receiver.
8 The radio altimeter is failed :

A The EGPWS and AUTO PILOT approach mode is fail.
B The weather radar is pre wind-shear is failed.
C A and B answers are correct.*
D The altitude alert is fail.
9 The ILS no.2 is fail :

A The ILS data on the right hand and the standby horizon is invalid.
B The ILS data on ND is invalid.
C The ILS data on ND and PFD co-pilot side is invalid.*
D The ILS data on PFD co-pilot side is invalid.
10. Which statement about GPWS (ground proximity warning) is correct ?

A The terrain warnings are always inhibited if WXR is selected.
B The Terrain Awareness function is only active below 2450 feet.
C. Terrain data will show automatically on a ND when a terrain warning is detected. *
11 The ADIRS no.1 is fail :

A Please select to both on 2.
B Please select ATC ALT mode 2.
C A and B answers are correct.*
D It is normal.
EXAMINATION
DIFFERNCES B 737-600/700/800
12 During flight, Radio Altimeter no.2 is fail :

A Please select DEU switch to both on 1.
B Auto Pilot automatically disconnects.
C EGPWS is normal. *
13 Which statement about DME tuning is correct?

A If the control panel fails, auto tuning is inhibited.
B Auto tuning is inhibited if an 11-S frequency is manually selected. *
C Normally a DME gets manual tune and FMC auto tune inputs from the control panel.
14 Where is the location of selcal control panel :

A It is a separate control panel.
B It is part of ACP.*
C The light is illuminate when the alert is coming.
D B and C are correct.
15 The voice recorder will active when?

A The engine running automatic trip to auto mode when switch is already ON.
B Manually auto on switch select to ON.
C A and B are correct and stop when engine stop > 5 minutes.*
D Always active when electrical power ON.
16 The CDS computer no.1 normally :

A Connected to primary engine display.*
C Connected to system display.
D All are correct.
17 The DEU no.2 is fail :

A The indication is normal (auto transfer).
B The hydraulic pressure no.2 is lost.
C B is correct when system/engine switch secondary engine display select to system.
18 The DFDR is failed :

A Aircraft may go home.
B Aircraft no go item.*
C A answer is correct as long as DFDAU is ok.
D The C answer is correct and DFDAU status light must be check first.
19 What happens if you push the right TFR (transfer) switch on the WX radar control panel ?
A The WXR transceiver will use right ADIRU attitude inputs.
B The WXR mode. TILT and GAIN selected on the left side, is used on the F/Os ND.
C Right WXR display will follow range and mode selected on left EFIS control panel. *
EXAMINATION
DIFFERNCES B 737-600/700/800
20 To determine the FMC position, the FMC may use the following methods
A The DME/DMF stations
B The GPS position is also taken into consideration (to be compared with FMC position)
C FMC will also calculate the VOR bearing deviation
D All the above answer are correct *
23 The no-2 ILS fails (VHF NAV switch in "NORMAL" position), will cause
A The ILS data on copilot's ND & PFD and standby horizon is invalid
B The ILS data on NDs is invalid
C The ILS data on ND & PFD copilot side is invalid *
D The ILS data on PFD copilot side is invalid
24 The ADF indicates 135 degrees during. test, means

A ADF receiver OK *
B ADF receiver is fail
C ADF system is selected to ANT mode
D ADF system is selected to VOICE mode
25 The no. I ADIRS is fail, what necessary done is to be taken.,

A. Select the ADIRU switch to both on 2 R. Select ATC alt mode switch to 2 *
B It's normal and no action needed
C Answers A and B are correct
26. Which statement is correct concerning thc ADMs?

A They correct and boost the air pressure signal
B They are used for alternate auxiliary Pitot-Static
C They sense air pressure and converts measured value into ARINC 429 data *
D They senses only picot pressure
27. What happens if the AOA input to an ADIRU is lost?

A Noting, the AOA is not used by the ADIRU
B The ADIRU will use the AOA data from off-Side sensor
C The ALT-itude flag comes on for the altimeter on on-side PFD *
D The ALT-itude flag comes on for the altimeter on both side of PFDs
28. With loss on AC power. What happen if ADIRUs are operating on DC power:
A The right ADIRU will lose power after 5 minutes *
B Both ADIRUs shuts down, the left after 5 minutes delay
C Both ADIRUs will continue operating as long as battery power is ISV or higher
D Both ADIRUs will remain operating
29. Which function does the MMR contain?

A GPS and ILS *
B GPS and VOR
C VOR, MB and ILS
EXAMINATION
DIFFERNCES B 737-600/700/800
D ILS and Marker beacon
30. When is the PWS (predictive wind shear system) function active?
A Always when the WXR is powered.
B When automatically turned on by the GPWC.
C Below 1200 feet, during takeoff and approach. *
31. WXR data can be shown on the NDs in which modes?

A Expanded MAP only.
B MAP and expanded APP and VOR. *
C Expanded VOR and MAP, and in PLAN.
32. Where do you select the Radio Minimums altitude (RADIO MINS)?
A On the MCP.
B On the EFIS control panels. *
C On any navigation control panel.
33. The ALT flag on right PFD in view, means?

A 'The no 2 DEU fail *
B Right EFIS CP is fail
C EGPWS does not work
34 Which statement is correct concerning the Pitot/static system on B737-600 ?

A There arc 4 Pitot probes and 6 Static ports.
B There are I auxiliary Pitot probe and 2 alternate Static port drains.
C There are 3 Pitot probes and 6 Static ports and 4 Air Data Modules *.
35, Which system is connected to the Standby Altimeter/Airspeed Indicator?

A The alternate static pressure line *
B The captain's static pressure line.
C The alternate static system via an ADM.
36 Which statement is correct concerning the ADMs ?

A They correct and boost the air pressure signal.
B They are used for alternate/auxiliary Pitot-Static.
C They sense air pressure and converts measured value into ARINC 429 data. *
37. What happens if the AOA input to an ADIRU is lost ?

A Noting, the AOA is not used by the ADIRU.
B The ADIRU will use AoA data from off-side sensor.
C The ALT-nude flag comes on for the altimeter do on-side PFD. *
38. What happens if the ADIRUs are forced to operate on DC power.

A The right ADIRU will loose power after 5 minutes. *
B Both ADIRUs shuts down. the left after a 5 minutes delay.
C Both ADIRUs will continue operating as long as battery power is 18V or higher.
EXAMINATION
DIFFERNCES B 737-600/700/800
39. Which functions does the MMR contain?

A GPS and ILS. *
B GPS and VOR.
C VOR. MB and ILS.
40. How many satellites must the GPS lock on to, before it can enter the navigation mode?
A 2.
B 3.
C 4. *
41. What sensors can the FMC use to calculate Present Position?
A GPS, DME, VOR. *
B GPS, DME and ADF.
C GPS. DME, VOR, RA and ADIRU.
42. Which statement about VOR is correct?

A The receivers can be auto tuned by the master FMC.
B VOR course is selected on onside EFIS control panel.
C Station ident.(code) (ARL/FBU/KAS) shows on the ND if valid idem signal received. *
43 Where is the Marker Beacon system information is displayed :

A In the upper left comer of the ND
B On the P5 overhead panel by 3 lights.
C In the upper right corner of the ADI on the PFD. *
44. ILS uses inputs from different antennas. What is correct?

A The dual Localizes antenna is always used.
B The dual Localizes antenna is used if an FCC is in APP or LOC mode. *
C The systems use their dual Localizes and dual Glide Slope antennas only.
45 Where is the Radio Altitude number I shown?

A On the left PFD only. *
B On the left and the right PFDs.
C On the left ND, when below 2500 feet. *
46 When the VHF/HF calls light a white C comes on

A During transmit mode
B During receives mode
C Cockpit crew get SELCAL call
47 The captain clock sends date and time data to the FMC 1, the FDAU, and the voice recorder on
A An ARINC 439 data bus. The first officer clock sends date and time to the FDAU and CVR as
a back up of captain clock
B FMC 1 and FMC 2
C FMC 2 only
EXAMINATION
DIFFERNCES B 737-600/700/800
48. The ADF indication is always horizontal

A ADF receiver is weak
B All answer are correct
C ADF receiver is fail.
D ADF system is selected to ant mode.*
49 The DISPLAYS CONTROL PANEL annunciation is accompanied by

A An ALT flag against the altitude tape. *
B A SPD flag against the speed tape.
C A V/S flag against the vertical speed tape.
50 EGPWS terrain display changes from dotted to solid yellow

A 30 - 60 seconds from impact.
B 20 - 30 seconds from impact.
C 40 - 60 seconds from impact. *
51 The weather radar automatically begins scanning for windshear when:

A In flight below 1200ft RA.
B In flight below 2300ft RA. *
C In flight below 2500ft RA.
35 Oxygen
1 The passenger oxygen mask can be deployed electrically by :

A The cabin pressure altitude switch only.
B A control switch on the forward attendant panel.
C The cabin pressure altitude switch or manually from the P5 oxygen panel *
D A control switch on aft attendant panel.
2 Where is the location of the crew oxygen bottle

A e/e compartment *
B Forward cargo
C Flight compartment
D Lower nose compartment
3 The passenger oxygen system is chemical type drop out system which will deploy as follow
A Automatically when cabin altitude 14000 ft or manually selected from p5 *
B Automatically when aircraft altitude 14000 ft or manually selected from p5
C Automatically when cabin altitude 14000 ft
D Automatically selector from p5
4 Each passenger oxygen unit in the cabin

A Can be shut once the flow of oxygen has started by cabin start action only
B Can not be shut off once the flow of oxygen has started *
C Can be shut off by pulling any mask down second times
EXAMINATION
DIFFERNCES B 737-600/700/800
5 Passenger oxygen flowing to a mask is visually confirmed by

A An amber light and no flow indicator
B A green light and in line flow indicator
C A white light and no flow indicator
6 Normal pressure of the flight crew oxygen system is

A 1850 psi *
B 2000 psi
C 1500 psi
7 Pressing the RESER/TEST slide lever at crew member station will

A Active the oxygen flow continuously if the mask is stowed *
B Active the oxygen flow momentarily (to test the regulator ) if the mask is stowed
C Not active any oxygen flow until the mask is removed
8 With the oxygen NORMAL/100% selector in the N (normal) position

A A continuous flow of 100% pure oxygen is provided irrespective of demand
B A mixture of ambient air with oxygen is provided on demand
C A continuous flow of 100% pure oxygen is provided on demand *
36. PNEUMATIC SYSTEM .
1 The pneumatic duct pressure gauge :

A Indicated pressure available for engine anti icing .
B Is 115 AC power.
C Is 28 V DC power..
D Indicated pressure in left and right pneumatic duct. *
2 If “ WING BODY OVERHEAT “ lt illuminate, what do you do ?

A Open the isolation valve then switch off the packs.
B Switches off the associated engine bleed *
C Switches off both the packs.
D Open the isolation valve.
3 An engine “ BLEED TRIP OFF “ light will illuminate

A Only if engine bleed air pressure exceed 140 psis.
B Only if engine bleed air temperature exceeds a predetermined limit.
C Only if engine bleed air temperature or pressure exceeds a predetermined limit. *
D Only if engine bleed air temperature 425 degree Celsius
4. The “ DUAL BLEED “ light will be on :

A With no:2 engine bleed valve open, the isolation will open and Apu bleed valve open *
B With no:2 engine bleed valve open, the isolation will open and Apu bleed valve closed
EXAMINATION
DIFFERNCES B 737-600/700/800
C With no:1 engine & no2 bleed valve closed and Apu bleed valve open.
D With the air conditioning panel set for bleed off during take-off.
5. With the isolation valve in AUTO both engine switches ON and air conditioning pack switches
selected to AUTO or HIGH :
A The isolation valve will open when the flap are extended.
B The isolation valve will open.
C The isolation valve will closed when the flap are extended.
D The isolation valve will closed. *
6 Which of the engine pneumatic controls components interfaces with the ACAU?
A The Bleed Air Regulator (BAR) for the PRSOV (engine bleed valve).
B The PRSOV and the high stage valve (HS-valve).
C Only the high stage valve (HS-valve). '
7 What initial action is required in the event of a WING BODY OVERHEAT light illuminating.
A Switch OFF the associated engine bleed. *
B Open the isolation valve and switch off the associated engine bleed2
C Close the isolation valve and switch off the associated engine bleed
D Close the isolation valve and switch off the associated air-conditioning pack
8 Which condition will make the isolation valve open up (isolation valve switch is in AUTO
position
A A DUAL BLEED TRIP
B If the engine are shut down
C One engine bleed switch or a pack switch set to AUTO *
9 What are the function of the high stage regulator

A Control the high stage valve with an electrical signal to the valve
B Pressure regulator and back up function as a temperature regulator
C It sense the 9 th stage pressure and pneumatic controls the HS valve *
10 The amber DUAL BLEED light is illuminated before starting engine. What should you do
A Nothing, this is a normal condition *
B Do not start the engine
C Shut down the APU
D Use the pneumatic ground cart for starting engine
11 Bleed AIR Isolation Valve will be open if

A Switch in OFF, Pack sw 1 ON and Eng Bleed sw 1 ON
B Switch in AUTO, Pack sw 1 and 2 ON, Eng Bleed sw 1 and 2 ON
C Switch in OPEN, Pack sw 2 ON and Eng Bleed sw 1 ON *
12 Which of the various pneumatic control components interfaces with the ACAU?
A The Pressure Regulating and Shutoff Valve (PRSOV).
B The Bleed Air Regulator (BAR).
EXAMINATION
DIFFERNCES B 737-600/700/800
C The high stage valve and PRSOV
13 What is the high stage (HS) valve nominal regulating pressure?

A 45 PSI.
B 34 PSI.
C 110 PSI.
14 What is the purpose of the 232° C - 254° C control thermostat?

A It controls the HS valve position..
B It reduces the, airflow through the PRSOV at temperatures more than 232* C.
C It controls the airflow through the PCCV
15 How is the PCCV controlled?

A By the ACAU.
B By the PCCV control unit.
C By the 199 - 229°C control thermostat.
16 What happens when the WTAI solenoid is energized?

A It fully opens the PCCV.
B It fully closes the PCCV.
C It increases the PRSOV airflow.
17 How is the APU bleed air valve (BAV) is solenoid controlled?

A By the ACAU .
B By the APU ECU.
C Directly from the bleed switch.
18 The bleed air isolation valve switch is set to AUTO. When will the valve open up
A ENG 1 bleed switch OFF and APU bleed valve closed.
B One pack switch in AUTO (or high).
C One of the four 'corner switches' to OFF.
19 Which of the pneumatic control components are provided with manual override features?
A PCCV only.
B HS valve, PRSOV (all closed pos.).
C PCCV, HS valve and PRSOV (all open pos.).
D HS regulator and BAR (all closed pos.).
38. WATER & WASTE.
1 When vacuum blower of waste system running ?

A Air plane below 16 000 ft.
B Drain valve closed ( on the ground ).
C Tank is not full.
EXAMINATION
DIFFERNCES B 737-600/700/800
2 Who monitor the two point level sensor if waste tank is full ?
A FCU.
B LCM.*
C PLS.
D Barometric switch.
3 Pressure Regulator in water tank keeps the air pressure from pneumatic system to a limit ? :
A 35 psi.*
B 30 psi.
C 40 psi.
D 45 psi..
4 When Compressor cut – out swt stops the operation of air compressor in water tank ?
A R 184 compressor control relay energize.
B Water tank pressure 38 psi..
C Water service door open. *
D Pressure relief 90 psi.
5. The overheat switch opens the power circuit if water heater temperature more than :
A 105 degrees Fahrenheit.
B 115 degrees Fahrenheit.
C 52 degrees Celsius.
D 76 degrees Celsius. *
6. At lavatory hot water faucet, the pressure relief valve open if pressure inside water heater is more
than ?
A 90 PSI.
B 120 PSI.
C 140 PSI.*
D. 160 PSI .
7 Where can you find the potable water tank quantity indicator?
A Aft attendant panel and water service panel.*
B Aft attendant panel.
C Water service panel.
D On the water tank.
8 How is the pressurization for the potable water tank?

A The air compressor start working when tank pressure < 30 psi.
B The air compressor stop when tank pressure > 40 psi.
C The relief valve open when tank pressure > 90 psi.
D As mention on A, B and C. *
9 Where is the location of vacuum waste tank?

A Aft cargo LH side. *
EXAMINATION
DIFFERNCES B 737-600/700/800
B Tail compartment.
C Aft cargo RH side.
D Fwd cargo.
10 For vacuum flush operation (flush switch push) the vacuum blower will operate as follow :
A The tank drain ball valve closed.
B Aircraft altitude below 1600 feet.
C Waste tank not full.
D A, B and C are true. *
11 Following are concerning the toilet flush operation, except

A Vacuum blower operates for 15 second.
B Rinse water supply about 8 kgs. *
C Flush valve open 4 second.
D Flush valve open for 4 second…
12 Which pressure source(s) are available for water tank pressurization ?

A Only the pneumatic system
B A dedicated water tank air compressor
C Pneumatic system or air compressor *
13 The vacuum blower will be operate when the flush switch is pressed,ball valve closed,tank
not full and :
a Only when the airplane is on the ground
b The barometric switch senses airplane above 16.000 feet
c The barometric switch senses airplane below 16.000 feet *
14 Where does the air pressure come from for the pressurization of the portable water tank
A It come from air compressor when tank pressure below 60 psis
B It come from air compressor until tank pressure 90 psis
C It come from the pneumatic manifold with pressure of 35 psis *
D It come from the pneumatic manifold with pressure of 90 psis
15 For toilet flush operation (flushing switch is pushed) the vacuum blower will operate as follows
A The tank drain ball valve closed
B Aircraft altitude below 16000 feet
C Waste tank no full
D A, B and C are true *
16 Which statement is corrects

A The toilet flush control unit (FCU) is located below the toilet bowl
B The logic control module (LCM) is located near the vacuum waste tank
C The vacuum blower is located near the toilet bowl
D A and B are correct *
17 What are the output of the airplane portable water system

EXAMINATION
DIFFERNCES B 737-600/700/800
A Galleys supply water, lavatory compartment wash water, toilet bowl rinse water *
B Galleys supply water and lavatory compartment wash water
C Toilet bowl rinse water
D Toilet bowl flash water
18 The aircraft water system is supplied by

a Two water tanks located each side of the aft cargo compartment
b A single water tank located behind the aft cargo compartment *
c One main tank with separate tanks for the toilets
19 Water tank capacity (737-NG) is

A 45 US gallons *
B 30 US gallons
C 30 Imp gallons
20 The portable water quantity indicator is located

A Above the aft service door
B Forward of the aft passenger entrance door
C Attendant panel and water service panel *
21 What are correct concerning portable water tank and waste tank quantity indicator
A Water tank quantity indicator are on aft attendant panel and water service panel *
B Water tank quantity indicator are on aft attendant panel and toilet service panel
C Above aft galley service door and water service panel
D A and B are true
22 For toilet flush operation (flushing switch is pushed) the vacuum blower will operate for following
condition, except
A The tank drain ball valve closed
B Aircraft altitude below 17000 feet *
C Waste tank not full
D Aircraft altitude 10000 feets
49. APU
1 When APU bleed valve is open with no packs operating or main engine being started.
What mode APU operates ?
A No bleed mode.
B Duct pressurization mode. *
C ECS mode.
D MES mode.
EXAMINATION
DIFFERNCES B 737-600/700/800
2 APU Gen Control Unit ( AGCU ) receives a RTL ( Ready To Load ) signal from ECU when speed
is more than :
A 91 %.
B 93 %.
C 95 %. *
D 97 %.
3. Which one of the following statement is correct ?

A The HP spool has 9 Compressor stage 2 turbine stages.
B The LP-spool has 1 fan, 4 booster stages and 3 turbine stages.
C The HP spool has 10 compressor stage 2 turbine stages.
D The LP spool has 1 fan, 3 booster stages and 4 turbine stages. *
4. What is correct concerning an illuminated blue APU `MAINT` light ?

A That the APU needs to be serviced with oil. *
B That the APU ECU has maintenance faults logged in memory.
C That the APU has performed a protective shutdown due to low oil pressure.
D A & B of above the mention are correct.
5. When The low oil pressure light goes out during apu starting?
A At 7 % speed.
B At 30 % speed *.
C At 60 % speed.
D At 70 % speed.
6. What is the result if one of the two thermocouple (TC) rakes fails ?
A The APU will run normally and an EGT thermocouple fault is stored in the ECU. *
B. The APU will not start and an EGT TC fault is stored in the ECU.
C The blue “MAINT ” light illuminate.
7. Which APU components use servo fuel as muscle pressure ?

A APU inlet door actuator and the educator control valve.
B APU bleed air valve and exhaust nozzle deflector.
C IGV actuator and Surge Control Valve. *
D Transient Bleed Valve
8. Following subsystem are part of Compressor Air flow control, except :

A Variable Bleed Valve ( VBV ).
B VARIABLE Stator Vanes.
C Transient Bleed Valve.
D Fuel Metering Valve.*
9. When is ignition cut-off during APU starting ?

A At 30 %
B At 45 %..
EXAMINATION
DIFFERNCES B 737-600/700/800
C At 60 % *
D At 95 %.
10. What is true concerning the DMM (Data Memory Module ) and the APU ECU. ?
A When replacing the ECU also requires that the DMM is replaced.
B The ECU and the DMM not tube replaced at the same time. *
C The DMM is responsible for every APU start-up sequences.
11 Which of the filters on the APU has protective shut down logic in case of clogging ?
A The scavenge oil filter for the starter generator *.
B The fuel supply filter on the fuel control.
C The oil supply filter on the lube module.
D The oil / fuel supply filter on the lube module.
12 The physical feature of the APU installed on B737-600/700/800 is as follows

A Air inlet section giving the air inlet to combustion compressor and load compressor
B The combustion section consist of centrifugal flow compressor, annular combustion chamber
and axial flow turbine
C The load compressor and the accessory gear box
D As mention as a, b and c *
13 The physical feature of the APU installed on B737-600/700/800/900 is as follows

a. Air inlet section, combustor, load compressor and accessory gearbox *
b Compressor, combustion chamber, turbine and accessory gear box
c. Compressor, combustion chamber, turbine
d As mention as a, b and c
14 Where is the location of the ECU

a. Forward cargo
b Aft cargo compartment *
c E/E compartment
d Apu Compartment
15 In the fuel control unit, what are the operated by the ECU
a. Fuel metering valve
b. Fuel shut of valve
c Fuel pump
d A and B are true *
16 In the fuel control unit, what are the operated by the ECU
a. Fuel metering valve and fuel shut off valve *
b. Fuel metering valve and fuel pump
c Fuel pump
d A and B are true
EXAMINATION
DIFFERNCES B 737-600/700/800
17 What is the output of the FCU

a. Combustion fuel metered by FMV and servo fuel to operate IGV and SCV *
b. Combustion fuel metered by FMV and servo fuel to operate IGV
c Combustion fuel metered by FMV and servo fuel to operate SCV
d Combustion fuel metered by FMV and servo fuel to operate IGV and SCV & blade air
18 Following takes place during APU starting (APU switch is selected to STAR then ON) except
a. Fuel shut of valve and air intake door open
b Ignition operate from 0% until 60% rpm
c HP fuel shut off valve open at 7% rpm
d Starter generator operate before ignition starts *
19 During APU starting (APU switch is selected to START then ON)

a. Fuel shut of valve and air intake door open
b Ignition operate from 0% until 60% rpm
c HP fuel shut off valve open at 7% rpm
d All of answer are correct *
20 What gives the starter generator with the 270 VAC power
a. APU generator control unit
b Starter power unit
c Starter converter unit *
d Starter generator it self
21 Where is the location of the SPU and the SCU

A E1 rack in E/E compartment
B E2 rack in E/E compartment *
C E3 rack in E/E compartment
D E6 rack in E/E compartment
22 The power used to operate the APU starter priority comes from
a. 115 VAC transfer bus 1 *
b Main battery
c Together, 115 VAC bus 1 and main battery
d Auxiliary battery
23 The shut down protection for the APU is accompanied by the illumination of
A MAIN, LOW OIL PRESS, FAULT, or over speed LIGHT
B LOW OIL PRESS, FAULT, or OVERSPEED LIGHTS *
C MAINT light
D FAULT or and OVERSPEED light
24 How is the construction of the APU combustion on B737 NG

a. Air inlet section, load compressor, load compressor and gear box
b Centrifugal flow compressor, reverse annular combustion chamber and two stage axial flow
turbines *
EXAMINATION
DIFFERNCES B 737-600/700/800
c Compressor can type combustion chamber and radial inflow turbine

d Air inlet section, combustion section, load compressor
25 The APU is installed to the aircraft by

a. Three mounting ports
b Four mounting ports
c Three mounting points, two on the right and one on the left
d Three mounting points, one on the right and two on the left *
26 How is the flow divider operation

a. The secondary fuel flow to combustion chamber when fuel pressure above 120 psi
b The flow divider solenoid is energized close on flight level 250
c The flow divider solenoid is energized close during APU starting at low temperature
d A, B and C are true *
27 What is the condition when the APU in the Duct pressurization mode
A The APU running and the air conditioning system operates
B The engine start switch is operated
C The APU running, Blade air valve open, and no blade air is used by the aircraft system *
D The APU running and the bleed air valve closed (switch off)
28. What is APU IGVs

a. There are 16 vanes driven by one actuator
b The travel is 15 degreases for full close and 115 degrease for full open
c The position is monitored by the ECU via an LVDT
d All the answer are correct *
29 What gets the lubrication from the oil system

A Compressor bearing and turbine bearing
B Compressor bearing, turbine bearing and accessory gear box
C Compressor bearing, turbine bearing, accessory gear box and starter generator *
D Compressor bearing, turbine bearing and starter generator
30 The Allied signal 131-9 APU maximum EGT is

a. 760° C
b No operational EGT limitations *
c Indicated by the red line on the EGT indicator
31 Electrical power to start the APU comes from

A The no 1 transfer bus
B The main battery always
C The main battery only if no AC power is available *
32 Why do you wait for 20 seconds to turn off the battery switch after the APU is shut-down
A Because the 60 second cool down period is not long enough
B It is the required cool down period
EXAMINATION
DIFFERNCES B 737-600/700/800
C To let the APU inlet door close *
33 If a malfunction exist causing an automatic shutdown of the APU and the APU switch is placed to
OFF
A The fault 7blt remain on
B The fault light extinguish after 5 minutes *
C the fault light extinguish
34 The maximum aircraft altitude for electrical use of the allied signal 131 APU is
A 37000 fts
B 35000 fts
C 41000 fts *
35 The maximum APU N1 RPM is

A 106%
B 105% *
C Indicated by a red line on the DU
36 The minimum start pressure at 2000 feet above sea level (prior to starter engagement) is
A 39 psis
B 29 psis
C No limit *
37 Of the four lights located on the APU control panel, which light will not cause an automatic
shutdown of the APU when it illuminate
A LOW OIL PRESSURE
B LOW OIL QUANTITY / MAINT *
C HIGH OIL TEMP / FAULT
D OVERSPEED
38 The APU start cycle may take up to

A 60 seconds *
B 120 seconds
C 135 seconds
D 3 minutes
39 The APU may be used as pneumatic source up to

A 10000 fts
B 17000 fts *
C 25000 fts
D 35000 fts
40 The APU will shut down on the ground if

A The battery switch is placed to OFF *
B The LOW OIL QUANTITY / MAINT light illuminate
C The fuel LOW PRESSURE light in the main tank illuminates
EXAMINATION
DIFFERNCES B 737-600/700/800
D All of above are correct
41 If the APU GEN OFF light fails to illuminate by the end of the start cycle
a The fault light illuminate
b The MAINT light illuminate
c The APU failed a self test and the over speed light will ill
d There is no light associated with this malfunction *
42 What purpose does the flow divider have

A It opens up for the primary fuel supply
B It opens up for the secondary fuel supply when the metered pressure is sufficient *
C It meters all fuel for combustion
43 Which component decides whether to used 28VDC or 115VAC for starting

a The SPU *
b The SCU
c The ECU
44 Describe the limitations of the APU power extrections

A Bleed air up to 32000 fts
B Bleed air up to 17000 fts *
C Bleed air and elect power up to 41000 fts
45 Which components are hydraulic actuated by regulated fuel pressure

A Inlet door actuator and the IGV actuator
B Bleed air valve and the actuator control valve
C IGV actuator and surge control valve (SCV) *
D Bleed air valve (BAV) and IGV actuator
46 During a normal S/D the fuel solenoid valve remained open. Which light on the P5 APU panel
illuminates
A MAINT light
B LOW OIL PRESSURE light
C OVERSPEED light *
D FAULT light
47 Which position does the SCV have during APU starting

A Fully closed *
B Depends on the bleed mode
C Fully open until 95% of the reted speed
D It is closed until a bleed mode is selected
48 What position does the IGVs have when the APU BAV is closed
A 12 to 15 degrees open
B 115 degrease open
C Fully closed (no airflow)
EXAMINATION
DIFFERNCES B 737-600/700/800
49 When will the APU ECU be powered

A When the APU switch is on
B Whenever the battery bus is powered
C From the APU switch is ON until 5 min after shutdown (switch OFF)
50 Which of the APU lubrication filters are monitored by the ECU

A Both
B The pressure filter only
C The scavenge filter only
51 The Allied Signal 131 APU maximum EGT is

A 760C
B No limit *
C Indicated by a red line on the EGT indicator.
52 The maximum aircraft altitude for electrical use of the Allied Signal 131 APU is
A 41,000ft. *
B 37,000ft.
C 35,000ft
53 The Maximum N1 RPM is

A Indicated by a red line on the DU. *
B 105%.
C 106%.
54 The minimum start pressure at 2000 feet above sea level (prior to starter engagement) is
A 29 psi
B 39 psi
C No limit *
55 The Allied Signal APU is rated at

A 90KVA up to FL310 and 55KVA above FL310.
B 90KVA up to FL310 and 66KVA above FL310. *
C 80KVA up to FL310 and 45KVA above FL310.
56 If a malfunction exists causing an automatic shutdown of the APU and the APU switch is placed to
OFF
A The FAULT light remains on.
B The FAULT light extinguishes.
C The FAULT light extinguishes after 5 minutes. *
57 Electrical power to start the APU comes from

A The main battery always.
B The main battery only if no AC power is available.*
C The No1 transfer bus.
EXAMINATION
DIFFERNCES B 737-600/700/800
58 Describe the limitations of the APU power extractions:

A Bleed air up to 32.000 ft.
B Bleed air up to 17.000 ft.
C Bleed air and elec. power up to 41.000 ft.
59 Which components are hydraulic actuated by regulated fuel pressure

A Inlet door actuator and the IGV actuator.
B IGV actuator and surge control valve (SCV).
C Bleed air valve (BAV) and IGV actuator.
60 What purpose does the flow divider have?

A It opens up for the primary fuel supply
B It opens up for the secondary fuel supply when the metered pressure is sufficient.
C It Meters all fuel for combustion
61 Which component decides whether to use 28 VD C or 115VAC for starting?

A The SPU
B The SCU.-
C The ECU.
62 During a normal s/d the fuel solenoid valve remained open. Which light on the P5 APU panel
illuminute
A MAINT light.
B LOW OIL PRESSURE light.
C OVERSPEED light
D FAULT light
63 Which position does the SCV have during APU starting?

A Fully closed.
B Depends on the bleed mode.
C Fully open until 95cvo of the rated speed.
D It is closed until a bleed mode is selected.
64 What position does the IGV's have when the APU BAV is closed?
A 12 to 15 degrees open.
B 115 degrees open.
C Fully closed (no airflow).
65 When will the APU ECU be powered?

A When the APU switch is 'ON'.
B Whenever the battery bus is powered.
C From the APU switch is 'ON' until 5 min after shutdown (switch OFF).
66 Which of the APU lubrication filters arc monitored by the ECU?

A Both.
EXAMINATION
DIFFERNCES B 737-600/700/800
B The pressure filter only

C The scavenge filter only.
52
1 The latching system on the over wing emergency exit will be locked for the following condition.
A Three or more the entry and galley service door are closed and locked.
B Either engine running.
C On the ground both TLA > 53% or aircraft in the air.
D All answers are correct. *
2 What condition makes the over wing emergency exit caution light will illuminate (amber on P5) as
follow
A The door is not closed/latched.
B The door flight lock is unlocked when the aircraft ready for take-off.
C The aircraft is on the ground.
D A and B are correct.*
3 When will the emergency exit door(s) locking solenoids be energized ?

A Only in air mode.
B On ground with entrance and services doors closed.
C On ground with entrance and services doors and high thrust setting. *
4 Which of the following statement does not match with the over wing emergency exit on b737ng
A It is plug type, inwards opening door *
B It is opening outwards
C It is upper hinge and two latches
D It has the solenoid for flight lock system
5 What makes the flight lock on the over wing emergency exit energized locked
A Three or more entry and galleys service doors are close and locked
B either engine is running
C The aircraft on the ground with both TLA >53% or the aircraft in air mode
D All of the answers are correct *
6 Following condition makes the over wing emergency exit caution light illuminate, except
A The door is not closed
B Flight lock solenoid de-energized unlocked when the aircraft ready for take off
C Flight lock solenoid energized locked with aircraft in flight *
D Flight lock solenoid de-energized unlocked when the aircraft in air mode
7 Which aircraft control box monitor the door warning proximity sensor
A The aural warning module
B The DEUs
EXAMINATION
DIFFERNCES B 737-600/700/800
C The PSEU *
8 The fwd and aft entry door and the galley service door have
A Three automatic slides and one manual slide at the aft galley service door
B Three manually operated slides and one automatic slide at the forward entry doors
C Automatic slides *
71. POWER PLANT
1. How is the Trust Resolve Angle “transmitted to the EEC?

A Via the FMCS by an ARINC 429 signal
B Directly as analog signals.*
C By a digital signal through the two DEUs.
D Via DEU by an ARINC 429 signal
2. How will EEC channel A be powered if the EEC alternator power supply fails ?
A It will be power from the BAT BUS
B It will be powered from the CH B supply.
C It will powered from on –side “AC-transfer “ bus.*
D A & C of above the mention are correct.
3. The “ Transient Bleed Valve “ ( TBV ) bleed off :

A 9th stage air*.
B 5th stage air to unload the LPC spool.
C 2nd stage air..
D Booster air to the fan duct
4. Which component controls the P5 “REVERSER “ fault light ?

A LVDT on the upper hydraulic actuator.
B LVDT on the lower hydraulic actuator.
C The EEC when it is powered..
D The Engine Accessory Unit ( EAU ).*
5. Which component supplies the ground to keep the engine start switch in GRD until starter cut
out ?
A The EECs
B The DEUs*
C The ECUs
D The Start switch..
6. Which condition will make the EEC fully close the FMV on the ground, during starting ?
A EEC sees on increases in N1 acceleration.*
B EEC sees a no “light up “ condition ( wet start )
C The “ Transient Bleed Valve “ ( TBV ) remains fully closed.
EXAMINATION
DIFFERNCES B 737-600/700/800
7. When the Start Valve will be commanded closed ?

A At 46 % N2..
B At 56 % N2.*
C When the engine is running at stabilized idle.
D The EEC detects an abnormal start or at 56 % N2.
8. When is the thrust reverser “ interlock “ solenoid energized ?

A When one thrust reverser sleeve is fully deployed.
B When both thrust reverser sleeves are fully deployed.
C When one thrust reverser sleeve is more than 90 % deployed.
D When both thrust reverser sleeves are above 60 % deployed. *
9. The HPTCC valve mixes :

A Air taken to fan duct.
B Air taken from 4th stage and fan air.
C Air taken from 4th stage and 9th stage.*
D Booster air and HPC discharge air.
10. What causes the N2 digital display box to turn “ RED “ on the ground when both engines are
stopped ?
A The N2 speed signal to the EEC was lost.
B There was N2 excedance condition.*
C The N2 went below idle speed during flight.
11. Which engine filter is related to the amber “ FILTER BY PASS “ light on the P5 fuel control
panel ?
A The “ low pressure “ fuel filter. *
B The “ wash filter “ inside the engine fuel pump.
C The “ oil / fuel filter “ inside the engine fuel pump.
D The “ oil scavenge “
12. Which of the following “ dispatch levels “ will cause a cockpit indication ?
A Normal indication.
B Economic failure.
C Short time failure.
D Alternate failure.*
13. Which of the following flight deck actions will the energize the EEC ?
A Start switch in “ OFF “ position.
B Start switch in “ CONT “ position.*
C Start switch in “ FLT “ position.
D Start switch in “ ON “ position.
14. Which of the following operations / components closes the HPSOV in the HMU ?
EXAMINATION
DIFFERNCES B 737-600/700/800
A A several fault in one of the EEC channel.

B When the “ engine start lever “ in set to the “ cut off “ posn.*
C N2 over speed governor in the HMU.
D N1 over speed governor in the HMU.
15. What purpose the “ Transient Bleed Valve “ ( TBV ) ?

A It increases the LPC stall margin during acceleration.
B It decreases the LPC stall margin during acceleration.
C It helps engine operation recover during an engine stall.
D It increases the HPC stall margin during stall and acceleration.*
16. What happens With both engines running & flight crew select start switch in “ CONT “ position ?
A Both igniters will operate regardless of the “selector switch“ posn.
B Only the R igniter will operate.
C Only the selected igniters will operate.*
17. Which of the following statement is correct ?

A The HP- spool has 9 compressor stage 2 turbine stages.
B The HP-spool has 10 compressor stage 2 turbine stages.
C The LP-spool has 1 fan, 3 booster stages and 4 turbine stages. *
D The LP-spool has 1 fan, 4 booster stages and 3 turbine stages.
18 Where is the àerodynamic station` # 25 located ?

A At the booster inlet.
B Before the fan inlet.
C Before the HPC inlet. *
D Before the HPC outlet.
19. What is the purpose of the wash filter located in the engine fuel pump ?
A It filters the servo fuel to the HMU. *
B It filters fuel to oil/fuel exchanger.
C It filters all fuel, both servo fuel to spray nozzles in the combustion chamber.
D A & B of above the mention are correct.
20. What is indicated by an illuminated ENGINE CONTROL light ?

A A `NO DISPATCH` condition has been detected by the EEC. *
B That new data has to be accessed through the CDU ` s.
C The EAU has failed.
21. What is the function of the governor in the HMU

A To regulate fuel flow when the engine loaded
B To regulate the pressure drop upon the FMV
C To normally protect the engine from over speeding
D As back up for engine over speed protection when EEC not capable*
EXAMINATION
DIFFERNCES B 737-600/700/800
23. How will EEC Channel A be powered if the EEC alternator power supply fails ?
A It will be powered from the BAT BUS.
B It will be powered from the Channel B supply.
C It will powered from on-side “AC-transfer” bus. *
D A & C of above the mention are correct.
24. Which of the following `dispatch levels ` will cause a cockpit indication
A Alternate failure. *
B Economic failure.
C Short time failure.
D Normal indication.
25 Which of the following flight deck actions will energize the EEC ?
A Start switch in `FLT` position.
B Start switch in “OFF” position.
C Start switch in `CONT` position. *
D Start switch in ÒN` position.
26. How is a `soft alternate` thrust mode indicated on the P5 engine panel ?
A By a ”ALTN “ light in the EEC switch only.
B By a “NORM” light in the EEC switch only.
C By a ÒN` indication and a “ALTN” light in the EEC switch. *
D By a ÒN` indication and a “`NORM” light in the EEC switch.
27. What happens when the flight crew , with both engines running, places the ”start switch” in
`CONT` position ?
A Only the R igniter will operate.
B Only the selected igniter(s) will operate. *
C Both igniters will operate regardless of the `selector switch` position.
28 What purpose has the transient bleed valve ( TBV ) ?

A It increases the LPC stall margin during acceleration.
B It helps engine operation recover during an engine stall.
C It increases the HPC stall margin during stall and acceleration.*
D It decreases the LPC stall margin during acceleration.
29. The `transient bleed valve` ( TBV ) bleed off :

A 9th stage air. *
B Booster air to the fan duct.
C 5th stage air to unload the LPC-spool.
D 2nd stage air.
30 The HPTACC-valve mixes :

A Booster air and HPC discharge air.
EXAMINATION
DIFFERNCES B 737-600/700/800
B Air taken to the fan duct.

C Air taken from 4th stage and fan air.
D Air taken from 4th stage and 9th stage.*
31. Which of the following operations/components closes the HPSOV in the HMU
A N2 over speed governor in the HMU.
B A several fault in one of the EEC channel.
C When the èngine start lever` in set to the ` CUT OFF ` position. *
D N1 over speed governor in the HMU.
32 When is the thrust reverser ìnterlock` solenoid energized ?

A When both T/R sleeves are fully deployed.
B When both T/R sleeves are above 60% deployed. *
C When one T/R sleeve is more than 90% deployed.
D When one T/R sleeve is fully deployed.
33 How are the T/R sleeves kept stowed and locked, when not in use ?
A By the locking actuators and the sync locks. *
B By on-side hydraulic pressure.
C By the sync locks only.
34 What causes the N2 digital display box to turn ` RED òn the ground when both engines are
stopped.
A N2 went below idle speed during flight.
B There was N2 exceedance condition . *
C The N2 speed signal to the EEC was lost.
35. Which component controls the P5` REVERSER` fault light?

A The EEC when it is powered.
B The Engine accessory unit (EAU). *
C LVDT on the upper hydraulic actuator.
D LVDT on the lower hydraulic actuator.
36 At what RPM will the start valve be commanded closed?

A At 56% N2. *
B When the engine is running at stabilized idle.
C At 56% N2 or the EEC detects an abnormal start.
D At 46% N2.
37. Which component supplies the ground to keep the engine start switch in GRD position until starter
cut out?
A The EEC .
B The DEU`s. *
C The Start switch.
EXAMINATION
DIFFERNCES B 737-600/700/800
D Terminated ground.
38 The CFM56-7 has the construction as follows

A. Fan and LP compressor assembly is driven by one stages LP turbine
B Nine stage HP compressor is driven by four stage HP turbine
C The combustion chamber is from annular type has 20 fuel nozzle *
D A, B, and C are true
39 How do you open the thrust reverser cowlings

A. Start from the latch number 6 *
B Start from the latch number 1
C It is ok either start from latch no 6 or number 1
D As mentioned on B, it is opened by using a special tool
40 How is the engine installation

A Using 4 bolts for forward mount and 4 bolts for aft mounts *
B Using 4 bolts for forward mount and 2 bolts for aft mounts
C Using 2 bolts for forward mount and 1 bolts for aft mounts
D Using 2 bolts for forward mount and 2 bolts for aft mounts
41 When the engine is static, how can the EEC be powered

A When the engine start switch is selected to GRD or CONT
B When the bite is performed on CDU
C When the engine start lever is moved to idle
D As mention on A, B and C *
42 When EEC inputs come from the ADIRS

A. Pt, Po, TAT *
B T12, T25, T30
C Ps 12, Ps 30
D A, B and C are correct
43 For EEC operation

A. Channel A for the first leg and channel B for the next leg
B The healthiest channel operation *
C Channel A and B always operate together
D Channel A operate when EEC switch ON and channel B operates when EEC switch ALTN
44 What is meant by SOFT ALTERNATE on EEC

A The EEC operate on the corner point temperature setting
B The EEC fails
C The EEC switch is selected to ALTN manual
D The Pt signal failure that makes EEC operate at the frozen DASTD *
45 In the HMU, the following are controlled by the EEC, except

A HP fuel shut off valve *
EXAMINATION
DIFFERNCES B 737-600/700/800
B Fuel metering valve

C LPTACC / HPTACC servo valves
D VGV / VSV / TBV servo valves
46 What is correct about the HP fuel shut off valve in the HMU
A The valve is normally close
B The solenoid is energize when the start lever CUT OFF
C The valve is closed when the FMV closed
D A, B and C are throe *
47 When the DAC staging mode is 20/2/5 means

A The engine is running at idle thrust
B The engine is running at intermediate thrust *
C The engine is running at high trust
48 In what selection makes both ignition systems operate

A Engine start switch to GRD, start lever IDLE, ignition switch BOTH
B Engine start switch to FLT, start lever IDLE, ignition switch LEFT
C Engine start switch to CONT, start lever IDLE, ignition switch RIGHT
D A and B are true *
49 During engine starting

A The start valve open just due to the selection of the engine start switch to GRD
B The ignition trigger due to the EEC operation
C The APU air system moves to MES mode
D All of the answers are true *
50 During engine starting, the EEC will produce engine shut down protection for the following
condition except
A Wet start
B Warm start *
C Hot start
D Roll back over temperature
51 During engine starting, the starter and ignition will automatically cut off due the operation of a
switch located in the
A Starter motor
B DEU *
C EEC
52 What are correct concerning the VBV system

A There are 12 valves connected each other using actuator ring
B There 2 VBV actuator
C VBV is open at low rpm and close at high rpm
EXAMINATION
DIFFERNCES B 737-600/700/800
D A, B and C are correct *
53 What is the function of the TBV system

A To blade some air from the 5th stage HP compressor
B To prevent start at the near stages of HP compressor at low rpm *
C To prevent start at the front stages of HP compressor at low rpm
54 The HPTACC system is as follows except

A The actuator is installed in the core case
B It is controlled by the EEC *
C There are the actuators each for the 4th stage bleed air and 9th stage bleed air
D The 4th stage and the 9th stage bleed valves are actuated by gear train system
55 When the thrust lever is on the idle position, so the thrust resolver angle is
A 0 degrease
B 38 degrease *
C 82 degrease
D 8 degrease
56 During thrust reverser operation, the full reverse power can be selected when
A The REV light on upper centre DU illuminate
B The reverser sleeves have been deployed below 60%
C The reverser sleeves have been fully deployed
D The reverser sleeves have been deployed more then 60% *
57 The thrust lever position is sensed by the EEC via

A Thrust control cable
B Thrust multi switch
C Thrust linier variable displacement transducer
D Thrust resolver *
58 Concerning the engine primary indicators, normally

A The N1 and EGT indicator are on the upper centre DU
B The N2 and fuel flow indicators are on the lower centre DU
C The vibrator indicator is on the lower centre DU
D A and B are correct *
59 Following are about the engine indicating sensor, except

A The EGT sensor are in the second stage LPT nozzles
B The N2 sensor is on the accessory gear box
C The vibrator sensors are on the compressor case and turbine case *
D The N1 sensor is on the engine fan case
60 Following statement are correct concerning the thrust reverser system except
A There are three actuators to actuate one reverser sleeve
EXAMINATION
DIFFERNCES B 737-600/700/800
B There are three solenoids (slow, deploy, arm) in the hydraulic valve module
C The synchronizing shaft lock is on the upper actuator
D The hydraulic valve module is located in the air conditioning bay *
61 The thrust reverser deployment takes place due to the operation of the thrust reverser lever that
makes
A The DEU sent deploy signal to the hydraulic valve module
B The deploy switch sends deploy signal to the EEC
C The deploy switch sends deploy signal to the hydraulic valve module *
D The EEC sends deploy signal to the hydraulic valve module
62 What happens if the thrust reverser LVDT fails

A No dispatch *
B No problem
C The EEC runs at corner point temperature setting
D Thrust reverser indication (amber) on P5 illuminated
63 What do you have for the thrust reverser indication system

A LVDT to give thrust reverser position signal to EEC
B REV amber light on upper centre DU for thrust reverser position between 10% to 90%
C REV green light on upper centre DU for thrust reverser position >90%
D All of the above answers are correct *
64 The engine part to be lubricated are

A Bearing no 1, bearing no 2 and bearing no 3 in forward sump
B Bearing no 4 and bearing no 5 in aft sump
C Transfer gear box and accessory gearbox
D As mentioned on A, B and C *
65 The signal needed by the EEC from the oil system are
A Oil quantity, oil temperature and oil pressure
B Oil quantity, oil temperature and oil debris as optional
C Oil quantity, oil temperature and oil pressure and oil debris optional
D Oil temperature, oil pressure and oil debris optional *
66 The illumination of the oil bypass amber light on upper centre DU indicates
A Oil supply filter bypass valve open
B Oil scavenge filter bypass valve open
C Oil supply filter blocking
D Oil scavenge filter blocking *
67 What panel functions as the engine cowling pressure relief

A Engine oil service panel
B IDG service panel
C Chip detector access panel *
D A, B and C are thrue
EXAMINATION
DIFFERNCES B 737-600/700/800
68 What bleed air used by the LPTACC system

A 4th stage bleed air of HPC
B 9th bleed air on HPC
C Booster air
D Fan Air *
69 During engine starting, What happen when the start lever is selected from Cut off to idle
A HP fuel shut off valve in HMU and spar valve are operate via the EEC *
B Channel A and B in the EEC are powered
C Ignition is powered via the EEC
D B and C are true
70 What is right the N1 sensors

A It is induction type sensor installed to the accessory gear box
B It gives N1 output signal to EEC, DEU and AVM signal conditioner *
C It sends N1 signal directly to the upper centre DU
D As mention on A, B and C
71 Following are about the EGT indicating system, except

A There are eight EGT sensors installed in the second stage LPT nozzles
B The EGT sensors directly send the EGT signal to the DU
C The maximum take off EGT for the engine is 930 degrease C
D A, B and C are the correct answers
72 Following statement are correct concerning the Trust reverser system except
A There are three actuators to actuate one reverser sleeve
B The thrust reverser system can be operate when the handle in normal and the aircraft on
ground
C Thrust reverser system are normally actuated by the hydraulic standby system
D The synchronizing shaft lock is on the lower actuator
73 Where is the location of the thrust reverser hydraulic control valve module
A In E/E compartment
B In wheel well *
C In air-conditioning bay
D In the engine cooling
74 The EGT digital true facilities while during ground start, What does this show
A This is a possible hot start *
B It is an over temperature start
C This is possible wet start
75 What is the approximate minimum engine oil quantity (per engine) for despatch.
A 12 US Quarts ie 75% Full
B 12 US Quarts ie 69% Full *
EXAMINATION
DIFFERNCES B 737-600/700/800
C 12 US Quarts ie 88% Full
76 Which of these statements is true?

A The start lever controls the spar fuel shut off valve and is powered from the battery bus.
B The start lever controls the engine fuel shut off valve and is powered from the battery bus.
C The start lever controls the spar fuel shut off valve and is powered from the hot battery bus. *
77 The EEC gives redline protection for

A N1, N2 and EGT.
B N1, N2 and 5 minute limit.
C N1 and N2.*
78 The EEC will close the engine fuel shut off valve and de-energise the igniters during an engine
start if:
A EGT rapidly approaching the start limit.
B No increase in EGT within 15 seconds after the start lever is raised to IDLE. *
C No increase in, or a very slow increase in N1 or N2 after EGT indication.
79 The START VALVE OPEN, LOW OIL PRESSURE and OIL FILTER BYPASS lights
A Will blink for 10 seconds if condition occurs, except during take-off and landing. *
B Illuminate steady.
C Will blink for 10 seconds if condition occurs.
80 Which of the engine airflow control actuators uses servo fuel to operate?
A VBV, VSV and the TBV actuators only,
B Only the two clearance control valves does
C All.
81 Which ACC logic uses EGT 2s a parameter?

A Both logic
B Only the LPTACC logic.
C Only the HPTACC logic.
82 Which mode results in the smallest clearance?

A No air flow mode.
B Full 9'hstage flow mode.
C Full 4th stage flow mode.
83 What is the HFTACC-valve 'fail safe' position?

A Both valves will be fully open.
B The 9'h stage valve will be fully open.
C Both valves are fully closed
84 A throttle 'resolver' is connected to the appropriated EEC through the DEU's (to be converted to
ARINC 429 signals)?
A Yes.
EXAMINATION
DIFFERNCES B 737-600/700/800
B Yes, but only as a back up.

C No, the resolver signal is analog and send directly to the EEC
85 What is the purpose of the lock pawl in each throttle !ever assembly?
A To prevent reverse thrust in flight.,
B To prevent FWD of REV thrust being applied at the same time.
C To prevent REV thrust before deployment.
86 Which component is responsible for unlocking a 'interlock solenoid'?

A The EEC when both sleeves are more than 60% deployed.
B DEU I when both sleeves are fully deployed.
C The EAU when sleeves are fully deployed.
87 What functions do the two time delays inside t h e miscellaneous equipment panels 322 and J24
have?
A Sequencing the sync locks.
B They control the deploy sequence only
C They are controlling the auto re-stow function
88 Which conditions will make the P5 'REVERSER' light illuminate?

A 10,5 sec. during normal stow operations.
B W h e n an EAU control system component disagrees with the commanded.
C Both A and B are correct
89 For what reason does the ‘REVERSER’ light come "ON" for approximately 10.5 sec during normal
stow operations?
A Because the HIV position disagree with the reverse thrust lever position.
B Because the stow solenoid is powered.
C Because the LVDT senses a stow command.
90 When will the amber REV light shows above the NI indicator?
A When a sleeve is more than 90% deployed.
B When ever a Till sleeve is between 10 and 90% of the fully deployed position.
C Only during T/R deployment.
91 How is the oil pressure regulated

A By a pressure regulating valve within the lubrication module.
B It is not. It varies with RPM.
C By the relief valve inside the oil pump assy.
92 How is it accomplished to vent the TGB and the AGB to the atmosphere.
A Through the rear sump
B Through the forward sump.
C By means of an air/oil separator driven by the AGB.
93 What is important concerning oil level check?

EXAMINATION
DIFFERNCES B 737-600/700/800
A Wait at least 5 min. after engine shutdown.

B Within 30 min after engine shutdown.
C Both A and B arc correct.
94 Which pressure references is use by the oil pressure measurement system?

A Scavenge pressure from the forward sump.
B The differential pressure between the forward sump oil supply and TGB cavity.
C From the oil supply line to the forward sump.
95 Which access panels (or services doors) do also serve as pressure relief doors
A The IDG and oil rink access doors.
B The T12 and chip detector access doors
C The oil access door only.
96 Where is the aerodynamic station 1125 located?

A After the fan stage.
B After the HP compressor.
C At the entrance area to the HP compressor
97 Name the different main parts of the accessory drive system:

A The transfer gearbox and the accessory gearbox.
B The IGB.TGB and the AGB.
C The IGB, RDS. TGB, HDS and AGB.
98 Fuel for the servo control system is heated three times before it is used?
A No, only through its dedicated fuel heater.
B True. -
C That depends on the servo fuel temperature.
99 From what other power source, besides the EEC alternator, can the EEC be powered
A Either transfer bus.
B From the AC standby bus.
C From the on-side AC transfer bus
100 When will the EEC-alternator be able to power the EEC?

A N2 above approximately 15%.
B When the start switch is to GRD.
C When placing a start lever in idle position:
101 Which action will power up the EEC when the engine is not running?
A Engine EEC bite via the CDU.
B Start switch in GND or FLT pos.
C EEC bite, start lever to IDLE or start switch in either GND or CONT position.
102 Which information is send from the ADIRU's to the EEC?

A Static air pressure and total air pressure.
EXAMINATION
DIFFERNCES B 737-600/700/800
B TAT and probe heat data.

C PT. PO. TAT and probe heat data.
103 Which dispatch levels are having a flight deck indication

A Engine control light and short time fault.
B Engine control light and ALTN faults.
C All dispatch levels.
104 What will be the flight deck indications if the EEC reverts to 'soft alternate' mode?
A No indication.
B ALTN light illuminates in EEC switch.
C The EEC switch pop's out and the ENGINE CONTROL light illuminates.
105 What does an illuminated 'ENGINE CONTROL ' light indicate?

A ALTN thrust mode
B A no dispatch condition has been detected.
C Probe heating to the T12 temperature sensor has failed while airborne.
106 The procedure is to make both engines operate in the 'hard alternate' mode if one automatically
has reverted to 'soft'. Why?
A To prevent EGT accedence’s.
B To prevent throttle stagger (or split).
C To prevent both engine from flaming out.
107 What crew action closes the HPSOV?

A Start switch to OFF position.
B Pulling an engine fire handle or placing a start lever in the 'CUT-OFF' position.
C Both a and b are correct.
108 Which of these filters has a 'FILTER BYPASS' light on the P-5 fuel panel?
A The LP fuel filter.
B The wash filter.
C The fuel nozzle fisher.
109 How is a bleeding fuel nozzle identified

A By a blue band.
B By a gold band.
C By a silver band
110 Which control valves are located inside the burner modulating valve (or burner selection valve)?
A The fuel metering valve (FMV)
B The DMV and the MSV.
C The FMV and MSV.
111 During which conditions does the EEC hold the MSV in its 'closed' position?
A 20/0 and 20/20.
EXAMINATION
DIFFERNCES B 737-600/700/800
B 20/20 and 20/10.

C 20/0 and 20/10.
112 Which busses feed the ignition system?

A Only AC transfer bus # 1.
B The AC standby bus.
C On-side AC transfer bus and the AC standby
113 How many igniters are powered when the crew sets the start switches in the FLT' position?
A Both.
B LH only.
C RH only.
114 Which engine parameters are transmitted analog to the DEU's?

A Only NI and N2.
B NI, N2 and EGT.
C N 1, N2, and vibration data
115 Will EGT be indicated on the DU's when the EEC is de-energized?
A Yes, provided that the DEU's arc energized.
B No, because EGT is provide through the EEC why this one has to be powered.
C No, only when the engine is running.
116 At which engine aerodynamic station are the EGT probes located?
A After the LP turbine.
B At the turbine section entrance area
C 2nd stage LP turbine NGV's.
117 In which non-volatile memory are engine exceedance data stored?

A EEC.
B The DEU's.
C In the AVM signal conditioner.
118 The NI reference digital display is set by the FMCS?

A Yes, but only as a back: up.
B No, this NI value can only be set manually.
C No, it serves as a back-up target for the A/T COMPUTER
119 The primary purpose of the standby temperature control valve is for
A Re-heating of the cooling turbine
B Re-heating of the heat exchanger
C De-icing of the condenser *
120 When automatic mode fails wish AUTO FAIL and ALTN light are illuminates so
A The pressurization must be deactivated
B Mode select knob must be turn to manual
EXAMINATION
DIFFERNCES B 737-600/700/800
C It change to ALTN mode automatically *
121

Examination DIFFERNCES B 737-600/700/800

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Examination DIFFERNCES B 737-600/700/800

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EXAMINATION

12. AIRCRAFT GENERAL

1. Among B 737 classic and B 737 NG which one is the longest :

2 What is the max effective steering / towing angle :

3 Which statement are correct :

5. Where are the normal primary jacking points located ?

6. The Boeing 600/700/800 series are designated for following specification

9 In dimension, Boeing B737-600/700/800 differ from B737.300/400/5OO as follow :

10 How is the rack arrangement in the electrical equipment compartment?

11 The fuel centre tank is indicated in the following section

12 Which the correct concerning the air craft zoning ?

13 The fuselage on B737 NG is structurally divide into sections as follows :

15. The cargo compartments are

18 Escape lines (ropes straps) are fitted

20 The maximum landing weight of the B737-700 is

21 For an automatic landing the head and crosswind limits are

22 The maximum demonstrated crosswind component for take-off and landing is

21. AIR CONDITIONING.

1 The function of the standby TCV :

2 The pack output temperature control is normally done by this valve :

3 The function of Trim Air Pressure Regulating Valve :

5 How many motor the outflow valve of cabin pressurize system ?

6 With system in AUTO mode, when will pressurization ?

7 The pressurization system consist of :

8 How is operation of two pressurization controller :

9 What is pressurization mode depend on the selection of flight alt ?

D Answer A and B are correct.*

11 When does the alternate equipment cooling supply fan start ?

13 When does the “ OFF CHEDULE DESCENT “ light illuminate ?

14 How is operation of two pressurization controller :

15. What is pressurization mode depend on the selection of flight alt ?

17 The pack output temperature control is normally done by this valve :

18 When does the alternate equipment cooling supply fan start ?

20 When does the “ OFF CHEDULE DESCENT “ light illuminate ?

21 When is the RAM DOOR FULL OPEN light illuminated

22 Hot are the ram air panels actuated

23 What is the procedure to reset a P5 “DUCT OVERHEAT “ light ?

25 When does the alternate equipment cooling supply fan start?

27 When does the “OFF SCHEDULE DESCENT” light illuminate ?

29 The components of the pack system is as follows, except :

31 Which purpose have the CTC (Cabin Temperature Controller)

35 How is the operation of two pressurization controllers ?

37 The pressurization system consist of:

38 The primary purpose of the Standby Temperature Control Valve is for

39 The maximum differential pressure is

40 The overboard exhaust valve

1 The DFCS computer is consist of :

2 Which mode is not part of MCP selection push button mode?

3 The autopilot is engage and no one mode is already selected :

4 The G/S is already capture :

5 What is the function of speed trim :

6 What is the function of intervention switch mode?

C A and B answers are correct and aircraft heading will be change.*

7 During aircraft approach mode :

8 What is the function of auto throttle?

9 During aircraft approach the TOGA switch is push twice :

10 Which statement is correct?

11 Which FD is the master FD ?

12 Which mode is not part of MCP selection push button mode?

13. Which functions are provided by an FCC?

14 Which axis are controlled by the autopilot?

B Roll and Yaw axis