A320 Questions

ATA 21.
Air Conditioning System

1 What is the purpose of the pack?
A To regulate hot air pressure.
B To adjust the temperature in the three zones.
C To regulate basic temperature.
2 What is the function of each pack controller?
A To control the corresponding pack and flow control valve.
B To control the trim air valves.
C To control the zone controller.
3 What is the purpose of the zone controller?
A To control zone temperature.
B To control the flow control valves.
C To control the packs.
4 How is the basic temperature regulated by the Zone Controller?
A By using the lowest zone temperature demand.
B By using the temperature demanded in the three zones.
C By using the highest zone temperature demand.
5 What is the function of the trim air valve?
A To optimize the zone temperature by adding cold air.
B To optimize the zone temperature by adding hot air.
C To regulate the hot air pressure.
6 What is the main purpose of the anti-ice valve?
A To stop ice formation across the primary heat exchanger.
B To stop ice formation across the main heat exchanger.
C To stop ice formation across the pack condenser.
7 What is purpose of the By Pass Valve?
A To reduce the air flow to the compressor stage.
B To modulate the pack discharge temperature.
C To increase the air flow to the turbine stage.
8 What is the purpose of the RAM air inlet flap?
A To ensure cabin ventilation in case both packs fail.
B To provide air to the pack compressor.
C To modulate the main air flow through the heat exchangers.
9 What flow is delivered by the pack with the PACK FLOW selector on LO and bleed air supplied by
the APU?
A Low.
B Normal.
C High.
10 What happens when the RAM AIR pushbutton is set to ON?
A The ram air inlet flaps of the air conditioning packs open.
B The ram air inlet flaps of the air conditioning packs close.
C The emergency ram air inlet flap opens.
11 What flow is delivered by the pack with ECON FLOW P/B in off position?
A ECON FLOW.
B Normal flow + 20 %.
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C ECON FLOW + 20 %.
12 How is the Flow Control Valve actuated?
A By means of a stepper motor.
B By means of a torque motor.
C By means of an AC electrical motor.
13 If the pack controller fails, the pack outlet temperature is controlled by:
A The Flow Control Valve.
B The Bypass Valve.
C The Anti-Ice Valve.
14 Which sensor pneumatically closes the Flow Control Valve in case of pack overheat?
A The bleed temperature sensor.
B The compressor overheat sensor.
C The compressor pneumatic overheat sensor.
15 Which sensor may signal pack overheat to the pack controller?
A The compressor overheat sensor.
B The compressor temperature sensor.
C A or B.
16 If a duct overheat is detected:
A The mixer unit flap closes.
B The PRV and the TAVs close.
C The PRV and the corresponding TAV close.
17 The mixer unit flap opens if:
A HOT AIR pb is set to OFF.
B PACK 2 pb is set to OFF.
C PACK 1 pb is set to OFF.
18 The pack controllers send to the zone controller:
A The flow demand signal.
B The BITE demand signal.
C BITE information and pack status signals.
19 To close the pack RAM air inlet flap, the pack controller needs information from:
A The ECB.
B The anti-ice system.
C LGCIU 2, BSCU and EIUs.
20 What is the number of outflow valves and safety valves?
A One outflow valve and one safety valve.
B One outflow valve and two safety valves.
C Two outflow valves and two safety valves.
21 What happens when manual mode is used?
A The system continues to operate automatically.
B The outflow valve can be manually controlled to adjust the cabin altitude.
C The safety valves open.
22 What is the purpose of the safety valves?
A To avoid negative differential pressure.
B To replace the outflow valves.
C To prevent excessive positive and negative differential pressure.
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23 Which motor(s) is (are) controlled from the cabin pressure panel?
A Motor 3.
B Motor 2 and motor 1.
C Motor 1.
24 What is the maximum normal cabin altitude for maximum cruise level (39000 ft.)?
A A cabin altitude of 8000 ft.
B A cabin altitude of 9550 ft.
C A cabin altitude of 11300 ft.
25 Where do you check the correct Manual landing elevation setting?
A On the scale of LDG ELEV switch selector.
B On the ECAM CAB PRESS page.
C No need because it is automatic.
26 What happens if the MODE SELECTOR is set to MAN and the DITCHING push button is set ON?
A The outflow valve, emergency RAM AIR inlet, avionics ventilation and pack flow control valves
close.
B Only the outflow valve closes.
C Only the outflow valve is not automatically controlled to close.
27 Which interfaces are used for pre-pressurization and pressurization sequence initialization?
A EIU and ADIRU.
B EIU and LGCIU.
C EIU and FMGC.
28 Motor 3 is controlled from:
A Controller 1.
B The AIR COND panel.
C The CABIN PRESS panel.
29 In manual mode, warnings and indications come from:
A Controller 1.
B Controller 2.
C The outflow valve.
30 CABIN PRESS FAULT light comes on when:
A Automatic system 1 fails.
B Both automatic systems fail.
C Manual system fails.
31 Where does the LAV and GALLEYS ventilation air come from?
A From cabin distribution ducts.
B From pack 1.
C From pack 2.
32 What is the purpose of the Avionics Equipment Ventilation Computer?
A To ensure control and monitoring of the avionics ventilation system.
B To control and monitor the cargo ventilation components.
C To control and monitor the packs.
33 What is the purpose of the avionics ventilation system in the avionics bay?
A To ventilate the avionics equipment.
B To ensure the heating of the avionics bay.
C To avoid avionics bay structural damage.
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34 How is the FWD cargo compartment ventilated?
A With avionics bay ambient air.
B With air coming directly from the pack outlet.
C With cabin ambient air.
35 When does the skin exchanger inlet bypass valve open?
A In open circuit configuration.
B In partially open circuit configuration, or in closed circuit configuration with airflow higher than the
requested value.
C When the ambient avionics bay temperature is above 34°C (93.2°F).
36 When does the skin heat exchanger operate on the ground?
A When the circuit operates in open circuit configuration.
B In closed circuit configuration when the skin temperature is below 11°C (51.8°F) (skin temperature
increasing).
C In closed circuit configuration when the skin temperature is above 11°C (51.8°F) (skin temperature
increasing).
37 What does the FWD ISOL VALVE pushbutton switch control?
A The extract fan.
B The Pressure Regulating Valve.
C The isolation valves and the extraction fan.
38 The HOT AIR pushbutton switch controls the:
A Blower fan.
B Aft cargo door.
C Pressure Regulating Valve.
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22. Auto Flight system
1 What are the basic functions of the FACs?
A Management functions and flight envelope protection
B Rudder control and flight envelope protection
C Guidance functions and rudder control
2 Where are the FMGC functions controlled from?
A The MCDUs and rudder trim control panel.
B The FCU and rudder trim control panel.
C The FCU and MCDUs
3 What are the functions of the FACs?
A Yaw damper, rudder trim, rudder travel
B Yaw damper, pitch trim, rudder trim, flight envelope protection.
C Yaw damper, rudder trim, pitch trim
4 The yaw damper provides:
A Dutch roll damping and yaw guidance order execution.
B Turn coordination and engine failure compensation.
C A and B.
5 The flight guidance functions are:
A Autopilot, flight director, auto thrust.
B Guidance along a flight plan
C Autopilot modes
6 Aircraft position determination is computed by:
A The guidance part of the FMGCs.
B The FCU
C The management part of the FMGCs.
7 The automatic selection of navigation frequencies is made by:
A The MCDU
B The management part of the FMFCs.
C The guidance part of the FMGCs.
8 The FD bars are displayed
A On ground, when the system is electrically supplied and just after the safety tests.
B As long as 1 FD 2 is displayed on the top right of each PFD.
C When the FD functions are engaged, as Long as HDG V/S is displayed on the top right of each PFD.
9 How do the pilots change the FD bars into FPD/FPV symbols?
A By pressing the central
HDG-V/S / TRK-FPA pushbutton on the FCU
B By pressing s FD pushbutton
C By disengaging the HDG or V/S modes.
10 Which computers process the yaw damper order, if the autopilot is not engaged
A Either FMGC or ELAC.
B FMGC and FAC.
C Either ELAC or FAC.
11 With the AP engaged, the engine failure compensation function using the yaw damper actuators is
available:
A In cruise.
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B In TO, GA or RWY modes.
C In land mode
12 Which actuator(s) are used for turn coordination with the AP engaged?
A Rudder trim actuator
B Yaw damper actuators.
C Rudder trim and yaw damper actuators.
13 Which is the master FMGC with no FD engaged AP2 engaged?
A FMGC1
B Either FMGC 1 OR FMGC 2, independently of AP, FD and A/THR engagement status.
C FMGC2
14 AP1 is engaged, FDs are engaged, A/THR1 is engaged.
How do the FMGCs work in normal conditions?
A Each FMGC drives its own FD symbols, FMGC1 supplies both FMAS and controls the flight
controls and engines.
B FMGC1 drives FD symbols on the captain PFD, supplies FMA on captain PFD and controls the
flight controls. FMGC2 controls and engines.
C FMGC1 drives FD symbols on both supplies both FMAS and controls the flight controls and
engines.
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23. Communication
1 What is the purpose of the RMPs?
A To enable the received audio signals to be selected
B To enable the frequencies of all the radio communication systems to be selected.
C To enable the received audio signals and the frequencies to be selected.
2 What is the purpose of the AMU?
A To centralize all the audio signals and the frequencies of the communication systems.
B To receive audio signals only
C To act as an interface between the users and the various radio communication and radio navigation
systems.
3 What happens if RMP 2 fails?
A The communication systems are inoperative
B All communication frequencies can be controlled.
C VHF2and VHF3 frequencies can be controlled.
4 What is the function of the AMU?
A It monitors the radio frequency selection.
B It monitors the NAV frequency selection.
C It integrates all the crew communication functions.
5 What happens when CAPT3 position is selected?
A The captain uses the 3rd occupant audio equipment.
B The captain uses the 3rd Occupant ACP.
C The 3rd occupant uses the captain audio equipment
6 When is the muting circuit operative?
A The muting circuit always mutes the audio output.
B The muting circuit is operative when any microphone is keyed to transmit.
C The muting circuit is operative only with the hand microphone selection.
7 How is the SELCAL CALL light reset?
A By pressing the transmission key on the ACP.
B By pressing the RESET key on any ACP.
C By pressing the CLR pushbutton.
8 How is a SELCAL call indicated in the cockpit?
A By visual warning on one ACP.
B By visual warning on all the ACPs.
C BY visual warning on all the ACPs and an aural buzzer.
9 Which action must be performed to talk through the flight interphone system?
A Pressing the INT transmission key and with the INT/RAD selector switch to neutral position.
B Pressing any radio transmission key and INT transmission key together.
C Either setting the INT/RAD selector to INT, or pressing the INT transmission key and setting the
INT/RAD selector switch to RAD.
10 How is a ground mechanic to flight crew call indicated in the cockpit?
A An ECAM message is displayed and a buzzer sounds.
B The MECH light flashes on all ACPs and a buzzer sounds.
C The MECH light flashes on the captain ACP and a buzzer sounds.
11 What is the purpose of the static dischargers?
A It’s to avoid lightning
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B It’s to control the electricity charged on the aircraft
C It’s to discharge static electricity
12 What is the purpose of the CVR?
A To record radio communications during takeoff and landing.
B To records crew conversations and communications.
C To record crew conversations as soon as an incident occurs.
13 A break in one top line data bus:
A Disables all DEUs.
B Only affects the type A DEUs behind the crack on this bus.
C Affects only type B DEUs.
14 The area call panel (ACP) is connected to:
A The directors directly.
B The type B DEUs.
C The type A DEUs.
15 Where is the PTP located?
A On the center pedestal in the cockpit,
B On the Aft Attendant Station.
C On the Forward Attendant Station,
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ATA 24. ELECTRICAL POWER
1 The static inverter operates:
A permanently.
B when on batteries only.
C when one engine generator fails.
2 AC ESS BUS is normally supplied by the:
A AC BUS 1.
B AC BUS 2.
C Emergency Generator.
3 DC BAT BUS can be supplied by the:
A DC BUS 1 or batteries.
B DC BUS 1, DC BUS 2 or batteries.
C DC BUS 2 or batteries.
4 AC transfers enable AC buses:
A to be connected in parallel.
B to be supplied by any generator or external power.
C to be supplied by APU GEN or EXT PWR only.
5 How is IDG1 disconnected?
A Automatically, when an over-speed is detected.
B Automatically, when a faulty parameter is detected by the GCU.
C By pressing the IDG1 guarded pushbutton.
6 When does the cooler bypass valve open?
A When an over-temperature is detected.
B During cold conditions operation.
C When the filter is clogged.
7 When does the IDG FAULT light come on?
A In case of overheat or low pressure detection.
B In case of overheat and high pressure detection.
C In case of overheat or high pressure detection.
8 With the GEN 1 and 2 on line, when does the GEN 1 FAULT light come on?
A As soon as the GEN 1 LINE pushbutton is released out.
B When any GEN 1 parameter is not correct.
C When any GEN 1 parameter is not correct and the GEN 1 pushbutton is released out.
9 When released out, what does the GEN 1 LINE pushbutton enable?
A To close GLC 1 and supply the fuel pumps from the AC NORMAL BUS.
B To open GLC 1 and supply the fuel pumps from GEN 1.
C To close the BTC and supply the fuel pumps from the AC NORMAL BUS.
10 What is the condition of the exciter field when the generator starts running?
A Not electrically supplied.
B Reduced.
C Increased.
11 What happens when a generator fault is detected?
A The exciter field is no longer supplied and the GCR trips.
B The exciter field is still supplied and the GCR stays closed.
C The exciter field is increased and the GCR trips.
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12 What is the configuration of the electrical network when a zone 1 differential protection has occurred
on GEN 1?
A The whole electrical network is still operational.
B AC BUS 1 is lost.
C AC BUS 2 is lost.
13 What is the configuration of the electrical network when a zone 2 differential protection has occurred
on GEN 1?
A The whole electrical network is still operational.
B AC BUS 1 is lost.
C AC BUS 2 is lost.
14 How is a differential protection trip reset?
A At any time from the front face of the GCU.
B At any time from the corresponding GEN pushbutton.
C Two reset actions maximum from the corresponding GEN pushbutton.
15 What happens if an overload warning occurs?
A The GCR and PR relays stay energized.
B The GCR and PR relays are de-energized.
C The GCR relay stays energized and PR relay is de-energized.
16 What happens if a parallel feeder becomes open?
A The GCR relay and the GLC stay closed.
B The GCR relay stays closed and the GLC opens.
C The GCR relay and the GLC are opened.
17 What is the configuration if both BTCs are open?
A APU GEN supplies AC BUS 1 and EXT PWR supplies AC BUS 2.
B APU GEN supplies AC BUS 1 and GEN 2 supplies AC BUS 2.
C GEN 1 supplies AC BUS 1 and GEN 2 supplies AC BUS 2.
18 What is the configuration if BTC 1 is open and BTC 2 is closed?
A GEN 1 supplies AC BUS 1 and EXT PWR supplies AC BUS 2.
B APU GEN supplies AC BUS 1 and EXT PWR supplies AC BUS 2.
C EXT PWR supplies AC BUS 1 and GEN 2 supplies AC BUS 2.
19 What is the configuration if both BTCs are closed?
A GEN 1 supplies AC BUS 1 and GEN 2 supplies AC BUS 2.
B APU GEN or EXT PWR or one GEN supplies AC BUS 1 and AC BUS 2.
C APU GEN supplies AC BUS 1 and EXT PWR supplies AC BUS 2.
20 When does the APU GEN FAULT light come on?
A When the APU is shut down.
B When a fault is detected.
C Both
21 Where is the APU generator oil outlet temperature signal sent to?
A To the ECB.
B Directly to the GCU.
C To the GCU through the ECB.
22 With the Main Landing Gear not compressed, and after AC Bus 1 and 2 failures, when does the RAT
and EMER GEN FAULT light come on?
A When the static inverter is lost.
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B When the AC and DC ESS buses are lost.
C When the ESS TR is lost.
23 When does the CSM/G supply the DC and AC ESS buses?
A When AC Bus 1 or 2 is lost.
B When the Emergency Generator parameters are correct.
C As soon as BAT 2 is lost.
24 After activation of the blue pump what happens during the EMER GEN test ?
A The Ram Air Turbine is extended.
B The emergency generator comes on line.
C The RAT is extended and the emergency generator comes on line.
25 On ground, in a cold aircraft configuration what does the activation of the RAT & EMER GEN MAN
ON pushbutton cause?
A Ram Air Turbine extension
B Nothing
C Emergency generator activation
26 How is the RAT extension system controlled?
A By means of two solenoids energized at the same time.
B By means of two solenoids.
C By means of one solenoid only.
27 What are the RAT solenoids supplied by?
A Battery or Hot Bat Bus.
B DC Bat Bus.
C DC Bus 1 or 2.
28 What is the solenoid control valve normally supplied by when the Constant Speed Motor/Generator
is on line?
A The CSM/G PMG.
B Battery 2.
C The DC BAT BUS.
29 What does the CSM/G control unit control when a fault has been detected?
A The solenoid control valve, the exciter field and the GLC to off.
B The exciter field to on, the GLC to off and the generator speed to low speed.
C The solenoid control valve to off, the GLC to on, the exciter field to off.
30 In emergency configuration with an aircraft speed below 50 kts, what is the condition of the aircraft
electrical network?
A AC ESS BUS, DC ESS BUS and AC STATIC INVERTER BUS are supplied.
B DC ESS BUS, AC STATIC INVERTER BUS and DC BAT BUS are supplied.
C AC ESS BUS, AC STATIC INVERTER BUS and DC BAT BUS are supplied.
31 To which computer is a static inverter fault signal sent to?
A Ground Power Control Unit.
B Generator Control Unit.
C Battery Charge Limiter.
32 In the normal configuration, which of the following supplies the AC ESS Bus?
A AC Bus 2.
B Emerg. Generator.
C AC Bus 1.
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33 What happens with the aircraft electrical network normally supplied, and the AC ESS FEED
pushbutton released out (ALTN)?
A AC ESS Bus is supplied by the EMERG GEN.
B AC ESS Bus is supplied by AC Bus 1.
C AC ESS Bus is supplied by AC Bus 2.
34 With the engine generators on line, what does the EXT PWR ON light indicate when lit?
A The external ground cart is supplying the AC BUS 1 and 2.
B The External Power Contactor is controlled to close.
C The external ground cart is supplying the AC/DC ground service buses.
35 What does the EXT PWR AVAIL light indicate when lit?
A The Ground Power Control Unit has tripped the external ground cart.
B The external ground cart is connected to the aircraft network.
C The external ground cart can be connected to the aircraft network.
36 The Ground Cart is running and switched on, the EXT PWR pushbutton is pressed in and there is no
indication. What does that configuration mean?
A The GPCU is supplied and the EPC is open.
B The GPCU is not supplied and the EPC is open.
C The GPCU is supplied and the EPC is closed.
37 What is the indication on the external power receptacle when the ground cart is connected to the
aircraft network?
A NOT IN USE light ON and AVAIL light ON.
B NOT IN USE light OFF and AVAIL light ON.
C NOT IN USE light OFF and AVAIL light OFF.
38 What does the Pin Monitoring Relay (PMR) within the Ground Power Control Unit ( GPCU )
monitor?
A The voltage and frequency.
B The correct phase sequence.
C The pin DC voltage at the External Power Receptacle
39 Is the Ground Power Control Unit supplied in flight?
A Yes from the DC BAT BUS.
B No.
C Yes from the DC GROUND SERVICE BUS.
40 When the aircraft is on ground, with the external Ground Cart connected, where is the Ground Power
Control Unit supplied from?
A The Ground Cart and the DC BAT BUS.
B The DC BAT BUS only.
C The Ground Cart only.
41 Which power source supplies the ESS TR?
A AC BUS 1 or AC BUS 2.
B AC BUS 1 AND AC BUS 2.
C AC ESS BUS or EMERGENCY GENERATOR.
42 Which equipment controls the battery contactor?
A GCU
B BCL
C Static Inverter.
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43 What is the DC ESS network power source if TR 1 has failed?
A AC ESS BUS
B DC BAT BUS
C CSM/G
44 What is the DC ESS Bus supply if TR 2 has failed?
A TR 1
B ESS TR
C BAT 2
45 What are the protections for a Transformer Rectifier unit?
A Overheat and minimum current detection.
B Overheat and overvoltage detection.
C Overheat and overcurrent detection.
46 How can a Transformer Rectifier unit be reset?
A Either from the Battery Charge Limiter or a pushbutton in the avionics bay.
B Either from a pushbutton in the avionics bay or automatically at power up.
C Either from the Centralized Fault Display System or a pushbutton in the avionics bay.
47 When is the TR2 minimum current detection system inhibited?
A On ground when the aircraft electrical network is supplied by the APU generator.
B On ground when the AC and DC GRND FLT Buses are only supplied by external power.
C On ground when the AC and DC GRND FLT Buses are supplied by external power.
48 In cold aircraft configuration (no AC and DC supply), where is (are) the battery indication(s)
displayed?
A On the ECAM.
B On the ELEC PWR control panel.
C There is no indication.
49 When does the BAT FAULT light come on?
A When the BAT pushbutton is set to OFF.
B When the discharge current is too high.
C When a thermal runaway or an internal short circuit occurs.
50 When does the protection for complete discharge open the battery contactor?
A In flight when the battery voltage is lower than 23 Volts for 15 seconds.
B On ground when the battery voltage is lower than 23 Volts for 15 seconds.
C When the battery voltage is lower than 23 Volts for 15 seconds at any time.
51 In flight, in electrical emergency configuration, the APU start sequence is locked out:
A Until the CSM/G is coupled to the network or during 45 seconds.
B When the CSM/G is coupled to the network.
C 45 seconds after the CSM/G is coupled to the network.
52 In which of the following configurations is the whole galley network shed when an overload occurs?
A In flight with two IDG supply.
B On ground with APU supply only.
C On ground with EXT PWR only.
53 What does the GALLEY FAULT light indicate?
A The AFT galley has been shed.
B The galleys have been shed.
C An overload on any generator (APU or IDG).
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54 In which configuration is refueling power supply automatically cut off ten minutes after?
A Refueling busbars supplied by service bus 601PP.
B Refueling busbars supplied by hot bus 701PP.
C Both configurations.
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25. Equipment and Furnishing
1 Which cabin panels are removable?
A Lower sidewall panels only.
B All the panels.
C Upper sidewall panels only.
2 Where are passenger oxygen masks stored?
A In the Passenger Service Unit.
B In the seat arm rest.
C In the overheat stowage compartment.
3 Where are the cabin depressurization doors mounted?
A On the upper sidewall panels.
B On the ceiling panels.
C On the lower sidewall panels.
4 How are passenger seats attached?
A With retainers in the front legs and with quick release fittings in the rear legs.
B With retainers in the front legs as well as in the rear legs.
C With quick release fittings in the front legs as well as in the rear legs.
5 Where is the inflation reservoir of the escape slide of emergency exit located?
A In a container at the bottom of the door.
B In the overhead stowage compartment over the door.
C In the cargo compartment.
6 Where is the inflation reservoir of the escape slide of emergency exit located?
A In a container at the bottom of the door.
B In the overhead stowage compartment over the door.
C In the cargo compartment.
7 Smoke hoods are supplied for the cabin attendants to:
A supply oxygen for passengers.
B fight a fire or against emission of smoke or noxious gases.
C breathe oxygen.
8 Where must the pressure indication be?
A In the green GO band.
B In the red band.
C At zero.
9 From where is the inflation cylinder checked?
A From the cargo compartment only.
B From the PTP only.
C From the cargo compartment or from the PTP.
10 Where are the rapid decompression panels installed?
A in the cutouts of the ceiling panels.
B in the fixed partition walls.
C in the cutouts of the ceiling panels and lateral right sidewall linings.
11 How many Unit Load Devices (ULDs) can be loaded in the FWD cargo compartment, if the Cargo
Loading System is installed?
A with 0 ULDS.
B with 2 ULDS.
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C with 3 ULDS.
12 How many Unit Load Devices (ULDS) can be loaded in the FWD cargo compartment?
A with 0 ULDS.
B with 2 ULDS.
C with 3 ULDS.
13 How many Unit Load Devices (ULDS) can be loaded in the AFT cargo compartment, if the cargo
loading system is installed?
A with 0 ULDS.
B with 5 ULDS.
C with 6 ULDS.
14 How is the PDU energized?
A by 26 VAC.
B by 28 VAC.
C by 115 VAC.
15 The cargo loading control box being supplied, which latch ensures the energization of the PDUs?
A the door sill latch.
B the XZ-single latch 32.
C the fixed YZ latch.
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26. Fire Protection
1 Is the extinguishing system controlled by the FDU?
A Yes
B No
C --
2 Where are the fire detectors located?
A On the fan and the turbine.
B On the pylon, the fan and the core.
C On the core and the gearbox
3 The AGENT pushbutton is active when:
A The corresponding "DISCH" light illuminates.
B ENGINE FIRE PUSH button illuminates.
C ENGINE FIRE PUSH button is released out
4 What does the TEST pushbutton check?
A Only the fire detection loops A and B, FDU, indications and warnings.
B Only the squib circuit continuity of AGENT 1 and 2.
C Both simultaneously.
5 When the ENG FIRE PUSH button is released out, which corresponding fire valves are closed?
A Fuel cross-feed valve.
B LP fuel and hydraulic fire Shut Off Valves.
C HP fuel Shut Off Valve.
6 When the ENG FIRE PUSH button is released out, are the bleed and the pack valves closed?
A Yes
B No
C --
7 When the ENG FIRE PUSH button is released out, what happens to the electrical generation?
A IDG de-energized.
B IDG disconnect.
C IDG energized.
8 When the APU FIRE pushbutton is released out, which valve is affected?
A LP Fuel SOV.
B Hydraulic Fire SOV.
C Fuel Isolation Valve.
9 Is the APU bleed air supply maintained when the APU FIRE pushbutton is released out?
A No
B Yes
C --
10 When the APU FIRE pushbutton is released out, what happens to the electrical generation?
A APU generator is de-energized
B APU generator is disconnected.
C APU generator is energized.
11 How can the avionics smoke detector be tested?
A Permanently by the AEVC.
B By a dedicated TEST pushbutton.
C By a manual test from the CFDS.
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12 Which warning lights are triggered in case of an avionic smoke detection?
A GEN 1 LINE SMOKE light.
B BLOWER FAULT.
C GEN 1 LINE SMOKE and BLOWER and EXTRACT FAULT lights.
13 How are the cargo smoke detectors connected to the SDCU?
A In parallel.
B In series.
C In a loop.
14 How many smoke detectors are installed in the cargo compartments?
A Three.
B Eight.
C Six.
15 When the TEST pushbutton is pressed and held, which conditions are simulated?
A Smoke only.
B Bottle pressure drop only.
C Both.
16 Lavatory fire extinguishing is performed by:
A Portable extinguisher.
B Fire bottle.
C Waste bin fire extinguisher.
17 If smoke is detected in a cargo compartment what happens?
A SMOKE light comes on + Continuous Repetitive Chime + MASTER WARNING + ECAM message.
B The CIDS duplicates the cargo smoke warning to the cabin.
C lights come on.
18 What happens if the SDCU is faulty?
A The lavatory smoke detection is inoperative.
B The cargo smoke detection is inoperative
C Both A and B, with Single Chime + MASTER CAUT + ECAM message.
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27. Flying Controls
1 Which surfaces are used for lift dumping?
A All spoilers
B Spoilers 1 to 3
C Spoilers 1 to 4
2 Which surfaces are used to control the roll?
A Spoilers 1 to 5
B Ailerons and spoilers 3 to 5
C Ailerons and spoilers 2 to 5.
3 Which surfaces can be mechanically controlled?
A Elevators and THS.
B Ailerons and THS.
C Rudder and THS.
4 In normal conditions, what are the active protections in flare mode?
A Bank angle and stall protections.
B Bank angle and high speed protections.
C Stall protection only.
5 What are the active protections in direct law?
A Stall protection only.
B No protection.
C High speed protection.
6 What happens when both side sticks are moved in the same or opposite direction?
A The surface movement is proportional to the algebraic sum of the deflection of both side sticks.
B The surface movement is proportional to the movement of the last side stick deflected.
C The surface movement is proportional to the movement of the first side stick deflected.
7 How is it possible to inhibit the output of the other side stick?
A By pulling harder than the other pilot.
B By pressing in the takeover pushbutton.
C The captain is always right.
8 What happens if the takeover pushbutton of one side stick is pressed in for more than 40 seconds?
A The other side stick remains deactivated after the takeover pushbutton is released.
B The other side stick remains activated after the takeover pushbutton is released.
C Both side sticks are deactivated.
9 How can a deactivated side stick be reactivated?
A By a momentary action on the takeover pushbutton of any side stick.
B By pulling the deactivated side stick harder than the other pilot.
C By a simultaneous action on both take over pushbuttons.
10 The Elevator and the THS are normally controlled by ELAC 2. What happens if ELAC 2 fails?
A Pitch control is automatically transferred to ELAC 1.
B Pitch control is automatically transferred to SEC 1 and SEC 2.
C Pitch control is lost.
11 Which mode is adopted by the elevator servo control when both solenoid valves are de-energized, no
electrical command signal is provided and hydraulic pressure is available?
A Active.
B Damping.
- 19 -
C Re-centering.
12 In what mode would the actuator be, with one solenoid valve energized and pressure available?
A Active.
B Damping.
C Re-centering.
13 What happens if an electric trim motor fails?
A THS electric trim is lost.
B THS trims at half speed.
C THS electric trim is fully available.
14 In case of loss of the green hydraulic pressure, the roll is achieved by:
A Ailerons and spoilers 2,3,4,5?
B Ailerons and spoilers 2,3,4?
C Spoilers 2,3,4 only?
15 How many hydraulic systems power the rudder?
A One.
B Two.
C Three.
16 Which signals cause rudder pedal movements?
A Yaw damping signals.
B Rudder trims signals.
C Turn coordination signals.
17 When is the aileron servo-control actuator in damping mode?
A When there is no command signal to the servo valve.
B Only when the solenoid valve is de-energized.
C When the solenoid valve is de-energized or the actuator is not pressurized.
18 Following a hydraulic system failure in flight, what does each spoiler do?
A It is retracted by the biased servo-valve.
B It is retracted by aerodynamically forces and locked.
C It is locked and stops in its actual position.
19 How can a spoiler be raised on ground?
A By de pressurizing the hydraulic system and using the maintenance unlocking device.
B By pressing the SEC p/b on the flight control panel.
C By using the maintenance unlocking device with the actuator pressurized and SEC p/b operated.
20 Which computers control the rudder trim actuator in manual mode?
A The FMGCs only.
B The FACs only.
C The FMGCs and the FACs.
21 Which modes exist for a rudder servo control actuator?
A A re-centering and active mode.
B A re-centering and damping mode.
C An active and damping mode.
22 What causes the rudder servo actuator to go to damping mode?
A When hydraulic pressure is lost.
B When ELAC 1 signal is lost.
C When Fac 2 and 3 signals are lost.
- 20 -
23 What happens if a double FAC failure occurs?
A The stops stay in high speed configuration.
B The stops stay where they were at the moment of the failure.
C The stops return to the low speed configuration when the slats are extended.
24 Which EFCS computers control and monitor the yaw damper servo actuators?
A ELACs and SECs.
B ELACs and SECs and FACs.
C FACs.
25 In which position is the actuator when both solenoids are de-energized?
A Re-centering mode.
B Active mode.
C Bypass mode.
26 What happens when the sum of roll and speed brake commands exceeds the maximum possible
deflection of a spoiler?
A The speed brake function is inhibited.
B All spoilers receive an additional deployment order until one reaches its maximum possible
deflection.
C The symmetrical surface is retracted until the difference between the two surfaces is equal to the roll
order.
30 What are the necessary conditions for ground spoiler pre-selection?
A Ground spoilers armed and both throttles at idle or one throttle at reverse and the other one at not
more than idle.
B Ground spoilers not armed and both throttles at idle.
C Both throttles at idle only.
31 Which computers receive the side stick orders?
A Only the ELACs
B The ELACs and the SECs
C The FCDCs
32 For which functions are the vertical accelerometers used?
A Load factor function
B Pitch trim function, computation of the normal law, yaw damper function and load factor function.
C Pitch trim function, computation of the normal law and load factor function.
33 To which EFCS computers is the CFDIU connected?
A To the ELACs and SECs
B Only to the FCDCs
C To the ELACs
34 To which EFCS computers is the FWC connected?
A To the SECs
B To the ELACs and SECs
C Only to the FCDCs
35 What are the consequences of one flap PCU motor inoperative?
A No consequence. The movement of the flap surfaces is not affected.
B The system is locked and flap movement is no longer possible.
C The flap surfaces extend (retract) at half speed.
36 What happens when Slat/Flap configuration is 1+F and the CAS reaches 210 knots?
- 21 -
A Flaps retract automatically to 0 and the new Slat/Flap configuration is 1.
B Flaps extend automatically because the speed is too high.
C The alpha lock function is engaged because the CAS is too high.
37 What is the Pressure Off Brake controlled by?
A One of the two directional valves.
B The enable solenoid valve.
C The Linear Variable Differential Transducer.
38 Why is the retract solenoid energized during extension?
A To reduce the rate of flap travel.
B To increase fluid flow to the motor.
C To lock flaps until next position demand.
39 Which type of failure is detected with a position difference between both APPUs?
A An asymmetry.
B An overspeed.
C A runaway.
40 Once the WTBs have been applied, is it possible to reset them in flight?
A Yes, by making any new selection with the control lever.
B Yes, by making a reverse selection with the control lever.
C No, reset is possible on ground only.
41 How can a flap runaway be detected?
A By comparison between the SFCC commands and the Asymmetry PPU signals.
B By comparison between the SFCC commands and the Feedback PPU signals.
C By comparison between Asymmetry PPU and Feedback PPU signals.
42 With a flap PCU spool valve jam, what level of caution is generated?
A A level 1 caution.
B A level 2 caution.
C A level 3 caution.
43 When is the half speed monitor active?
A As soon as a directional valve is energized.
B When the control valve is in full speed position.
C Always.
44 SFCC1 flap channel has failed. What are the consequences for the flap system?
A The flap system is locked by the WTB.
B The flap system is not affected.
C The flap system operates at half speed.
45 Why does slat 1 have four tracks?
A To prevent slat asymmetry.
B To prevent slat loss.
C To prevent structure overload.
46 Where are the Wing Tip Brakes located?
A At the wing tip, outboard of the APPU.
B Between track 11 and 12, in each wing.
C Between track 7 and 8, in each wing.
47 Where are the torque limiters located?
A On the torque shafts.
- 22 -
B On the actuators.
C On the PCU output shaft.
A At the wing tips
B Between tracks 3 and 4 in each wing
C Attached to track 4 offset gearbox
A On the actuator offset gearbox
B On the actuator drive lever
C On the steady bearing
A At the wing tips
B Between tracks 3 and 4 in each wing
C Attached to track 4 offset gearbox
A On the actuator offset gearbox
B On the actuator drive lever
C On the steady bearing
52 How many rollers are there on carriages at tracks 2, 3 and 4?
A Six vertical-load and four side-load rollers.
B Four vertical-load and two side-load rollers.
C Two vertical-load and four side-load rollers.
53 Which computers monitor the flap disconnection data?
A The SFCCs which pass the information to the LGCIUs.
B The LGCIUs which transmit the information to the SFCCs.
C The LGCIUs only.
54 From which sensors does each LGCIU receive information?
A All four disconnect sensors.
B One sensor on each wing.
C Two sensors on one wing.
- 23 -
28. Fuel
1 Which tanks are the main supply tanks?
A Center tank and inner cells.
B Center Tank.
C Outer Cells.
2 The Fuel Quantity Indicating System comprises...
A Two FQICs and two FLSCUs.
B One FQIC and two FLSCUs.
C One FQIC and one FLSCU.
3 What is the maximum total fuel capacity?
A 41291 LBS (18729 KG)
B 45920 LBS (20866 KG)
C 52174 LBS (23707 KG)
4 Are wing tank pumps running while center tank is supplying?
A Yes, wing tank pumps are always running.
B No, only when center tank is empty.
C No, because of center tank pump priority.
5 The engine LP valve closes when:
A the fuel booster pumps pressure decreases.
B the engine is shut down or the ENG FIRE pushbutton is released out.
C the engine fire detection system senses an engine fire.
6 When there is a low level in one inner cell:
A one intercell transfer valve opens.
B two transfer valves in one wing, open.
C two transfer valves, one in each wing, open.
7 What happens if you extend the slats in flight, with fuel in the center tank, AUTO mode selected?
A Center tank pumps start.
B Center tank pumps stop.
C Center tank pumps stay as they are.
8 What happens on ground, slats extended, in AUTO MODE with fuel in the center tank, and one
minute after engines start?
A Center tank pumps are running.
B Center tank pumps are stopped.
C The wing tank pumps are stopped.
9 What does the MODE SEL pushbutton control?
A Center and wing tank pumps.
B Center tank pumps only.
C Wing tank pumps only.
10 When the center tank is empty, in AUTO MODE, center tank pumps:
A Must be manually switched OFF.
B Stop automatically and wing tank pumps start running.
C Stop automatically.
11 An excess pressure in the inner cell is relieved via an overpressure protector:
A Into the Outer cell.
B Into the Center tank.
- 24 -
C Overboard.
12 The Vent Float Valves:
A Prevent fuel from entering the vent lines.
B Allow fuel to drain from the vent lines.
C Maintain the fuel tanks pressurized.
13 To which tank does the recirculated fuel return?
A Wing tank outer cell.
B Center tank.
C Wing tank inner cell.
14 What happens if the fuel level in the inner cell drops to the low level sensor?
A The Fuel Return Valve closes.
B The Fuel Return Valve opens.
C The center tank pumps start.
15 In normal operation, which tank will be emptied first?
A The inner cell.
B The center tank.
C The outer cell.
16 The bypass suction valve is in operation, therefore:
A The two wing tank pumps are in operation.
B Only one wing tank pump supplies its associated engine.
C Both pumps are stopped.
17 On ground, the engines are stopped, how do you close the LP valve?
A By releasing out the ENG FIRE P/B.
B By removing electrical power from A/C.
C The valve is already closed.
18 The function of the APU fuel pump pressure switch is:
A To signal any pressure to the ECAM.
B To control the pump operation.
C To shut the APU LP valve in case of fire.
19 How many motors does the APU LP valve have?
A One DC motor.
B Two DC motors.
C Two motors, one DC (for a battery start) and one AC.
20 The Inner cell is refuelled only when:
A Center tank is full.
B Outer cell is full.
C Outer cell is empty.
21 Refuel valves may be actuated:
A Electrically only.
B Manually only.
C Electrically or manually.
22 How is the refuel valve normally opened?
A By energization of a solenoid and application of fuel pressure.
B Only by pressing-in the manual command button.
C Only by opening the panel door and application of pressure or suction.
- 25 -
23 When performing a Refuel, Defuel or ground transfer, the R/D electrical circuits are enabled by?
A Power from the aircraft electrical network only.
B Carrying out the high level test.
C Contact of the panel door position relay.
24 What is the purpose of the fuel drain valve?
A To decrease the fuel flow in the R/D gallery.
B To avoid a reverse flow to the R/D gallery.
C To drain remaining fuel from the R/D gallery.
25 What happens if one channel of the FQIC fails?
A Half of the Quantity Indicating data is no longer available.
B FQIS operates normally, only CFDS report will indicate failure.
C Fuel warning is triggered in addition to CFDS report.
26 What happens if a quantity probe (other than 13 or 14) fails?
A Corresponding tank qty display flashes.
B Quantity indication disappears.
C Quantity indication remains the same.
27 What happens when a low level is detected in the inner cell?
A Automatically, transfer valves open to admit fuel to inner cell.
B Automatically, transfer valves close to isolate the inner cell.
C Restart of the pumps to suck fuel from the outer cell.
28 What is the purpose of the IDG SHUT-OFF sensor?
A To stop the center tank pumps.
B To restart cooling fuel recirculation.
C To stop the cooling fuel recirculation.
29 In which cells are full level sensors fitted?
A Inner and outer cells.
B Inner cells only.
C Outer cells only.
30 What happens if a high level is detected?
A A warning is triggered: too much fuel.
B All the refuelling operations are stopped.
C The corresponding refuel valve closes.
31 Are main pumps running while center tank is transferring?
A Yes, main pumps are always running.
B No, only when center tank is empty.
C No, because of center tank pump priority.
32 The engine LP valve closes when:
A The fuel booster pump pressure decreases.
B The engine is shut down or the ENG FIRE pushbutton is released out.
C The engine fire detection system detects an engine fire.
33 The APU can normally be supplied with fuel by:
A Only the APU pump.
B Only the LH main pumps.
C LH main pumps or APU fuel pump.
34 What does the MODE SEL pushbutton control?
- 26 -
A Center tank transfer valves and wing tank pumps only.
B Center tank transfer valves only.
C Wing tank pumps only.
35 When the center tank is empty, in AUTO MODE, the center tank transfer valves:
A Must be manually switched OFF after 5 mn.
B Stop automatically and wing tank pumps start running.
C Close automatically after a time delay of 5 mn.
36 What happens if one channel of the FQIC fails?
A Half of the Quantity Indicating data is no longer available.
B FQIS operates normally, only CFDS report will indicate failure.
C Fuel warning is triggered in addition of CFDS report.
37 What happens if a quantity probe fails?
A Corresponding tank quantity display flashes.
B Quantity indication disappears.
C Quantity indication remains the same.
38 What is the purpose of the IDG SHUT-OFF sensor?
A To stop the cooling fuel recirculation.
B To stop the center tank transfer valves.
C To restart cooling fuel recirculation.
39 In which tanks are temperature level sensors fitted?
A Center tank.
B Wing tanks and center tank.
C Wing tanks.
40 What happens if a high level is detected?
A A warning is triggered: too much fuel.
B The corresponding refuel valve closes.
C All the refuelling operations are stopped.
- 27 -
29. Hydraulics
1 Which hydraulic systems are pressurized by an engine driven pump?
A Blue and green.
B Yellow and blue.
C Green and yellow.
2 In normal operation, what is the blue hydraulic system pressurized by?
A The Power Transfer Unit.
B An engine driven pump.
C An electric pump.
3 Is it possible to stow the Ram Air Turbine in flight?
A No
B Yes
C --
4 What happens if the hydraulic pressure drops?
A The priority valves give priority to the heavy load users.
B The priority valves give priority to the essential systems.
C The priority valves modulate the pressure to the users.
5 A blue system pipeline is identified by:
A A blue band and number 1.
B A blue band and number 3.
C A blue band and number 2.
6 When is the PTU operation inhibited?
A Never, it cannot be inhibited.
B Only if an engine failure has been detected.
C In case of cargo door operation with the yellow electric pump.
7 When is the engine fire shut-off valve closed?
A Automatically when the engine is shut down.
B If the ENG FIRE pushbutton is released out.
C Automatically as soon as engine fire is detected.
8 When does the electric pump pressurize the blue system?
A When the aircraft is on the ground, ELEC PUMP push-button is set to AUTO and OVRD (override)
push-button is set to ON.
B When the green and yellow systems are detected in low pressure configuration.
C As soon as one engine is running and OVRD pushbutton is set to ON.
9 When does the RAT deploy automatically?
A In flight, if blue hydraulic power is lost.
B As soon as two hydraulic power systems are lost.
C At speeds greater than 100Kts, if all electrical power sources are lost.
10 When is the Engine Driven Pump in the depressurized mode?
A When the ENG 2 PUMP pushbutton is set to OFF.
B The engine pump cannot be depressurized as long as the engine is running.
C The engine pump is automatically depressurized if the output pressure drops below 1450 psi.
11 How can the LH wing be supplied independently during leak measurement test?
A By setting the leak measurement valve to OFF and operating the electric pump.
B By pressurizing the yellow system by using the PTU.
- 28 -
C By setting the leak measurement valve to OFF and manually open the LH wing spool valve.
12 What can the hand pump be used for?
A To pressurize the reservoir.
B To check the flight controls.
C To operate the cargo doors.
13 During which operation is the leak measurement valve closed automatically?
A PTU operation.
B Cargo door operation.
C Hand pump operation.
14 When can the APU pressurize the reservoirs?
A On ground only
B In flight only
C A and B
15 What are the manual depressurization valves provided for?
A Individual reservoir depressurization
B Depressurization of related hydraulic circuit
C Hydraulic system depressurization
16 What is the purpose of the pressure relief valve?
A To relieve hydraulic pressure to the return manifold
B To relieve excessive air pressure to the atmosphere
C To provide overpressure warning to the ECAM
17 Do the hydraulic reservoirs have to be depressurized to refill with hydraulic fluid?
A Yes
B No
C --
18 What is the main function of the restrictor?
A to limit the pressure from the hand pump.
B to protect the system against overpressure.
C to limit thermal expansion of the hydraulic fluid
19 What happens when the filter of the filling circuit is clogged?
A the fluid bypasses the filter element.
B the fluid is stopped; filling is impossible.
C the filling pressure has to be increased.
- 29 -
30. Ice & Rain
1 What happens in case of loss of electrical power supply to the engine anti-ice valve?
A The valve opens when the engine is stopped.
B The valve opens when the engine is running.
C The valve closes when the engine is running.
2 What happens in case of insufficient air pressure to the engine anti-ice valve?
A The valve closes as it is spring loaded closed.
B The valve opens as it is spring loaded open.
C Stays as it is.
3 With both engine anti-ice pushbuttons set to ON, does the EPR limit change?
A Yes.
B No.
C --
4 When is the TAT probe heated?
A In flight, not on ground.
B On ground, not in flight.
C In icing conditions only.
5 When is the pitot probe heated?
A In flight, not on ground.
B In icing conditions only.
C Normal heating in flight, low heating on ground.
6 What happens in case of a WHC failure?
A The failed WHC connects to the other.
B Both systems are lost.
C The heating of the related side is lost.
7 What happens when the EIU power supply circuit breakers are pulled?
A Nothing happens.
B The windshield heating is cut off.
C The windshield and windows are heated.
8 How is each wiper controlled?
A By a three or four position rotary selector.
B By a pushbutton.
C Automatically, depending on the weather conditions.
9 When is the rain repellent system inhibited?
A In flight.
B On ground.
C On ground when the engines are shut down.
10 What should be done in case of inadvertent application?
A Wash at the earliest opportunity.
B Wash at the next overhaul.
C No action is necessary.
11 How long is the spray sequence?
A 0.4 second.
B 1 second.
C 4 seconds.
- 30 -
12 Does each side of the system operate independently?
A Yes.
B No.
C One side can be connected to the other.
13 How do you perform a complete test of the drain mast heating system?
A From PTP.
B From test pushbutton of the Control Unit.
C Both.
14 How many levels of ice detection are provided?
A Two.
B Three.
C Seven.
15 When is the ice detection system inhibited?
A At last engine shut down.
B At electrical power off.
C On ground, below 1500 feet or TAT < 8 C.
- 31 -
31. Indicating & Recording
1 On which displays are the engine parameters?
A PFD
B ND
C E/W
2 What do the visual attention getters consist of?
A A red an amber light below the E/W display
B A red and an amber light in front of each pilots.
C A message displayed on PFD1.
3 Which computer processes the warnings?
A SDAC
B FWC
C DMC
4 What is the basic role of the DMCs?
A They compute and generate displays.
B They generate audio warnings.
C They generate amber warnings.
5 Where does a warning message appear?
A Upper area
B Left memo area
C Right memo area
6 What does a warning message replace?
A Memos
B Slats/Flaps position
C Fuel indication.
7 Which ECAM page is displayed in cruise?
A ENGINE page.
B FLT/CTL page.
C CRUISE page.
8 Which ECAM page is displayed when the landing gear is selected down in phase 6?
A WHEEL page.
B CRUISE page.
C FLT/CTL page.
9 What characterizes a primary failure?
A Its consequences on other systems.
B Its absence of consequences on other systems.
C Associated attention getters not activated.
10 In case of an advisory, what is displayed on the E/WD?
A ADV in dual display mode only.
B Nothing in single display mode.
C ADV in ECAM MONO display mode only.
11 On which display does the warning message appear?
A System display
B Engine/Warning display
C Status display
- 32 -
12 What happens if the recall pushbutton is pressed?
A Warnings are inhibited
B The Status page is displayed
C The warnings are recalled
13 What is displayed on the STATUS page?
A Memo messages
B Operational status messages
C Warning messages
14 Which computer generates the audio signals?
A DMC.
B SDAC.
C FWC.
15 What kind of connection is used to transmit the signals to be displayed on the display units?
A Feedback.
B Master DSDL.
C Message Data bus.
16 Which mode allows a flight plan check?
A NAV mode.
B PLAN mode.
C ROSE mode.
17 How is radar information transmitted from the weather radar transceiver to the DUs?
A On ARINC 429 and ARINC 453 buses.
B On Master DSDL and ARINC 453 buses.
C On ARINC 453 and DIGITAL buses.
18 What information does the FEEDBACK DSDL transmit?
A Critical parameter feedback signals.
B Acknowledgment signals and DU failure information.
C A and B.
19 What happens if one FWC fails?
A All the warnings are lost.
B Only red warnings are lost.
C No warnings are lost.
20 What happens if DMC 1 fails?
A DMC 3 automatically replaces DMC 1.
B DMC 3 must be manually transferred.
C Nothing.
21 Which DMC Output Bus is directly wired to the CFDIU?
A An ARINC 429 highspeed switched bus.
B An ARINC 429 lowspeed unswitched bus.
C An RS 422 bus.
22 How many Weather Radar ARINC 453 input does a DMC have?
A 4 inputs.
B 2 inputs.
C It depends on the selected Weather Radar Transceiver.
23 What happens if FWC1 fails?
- 33 -
A FWC2 has to be manually selected.
B DMCs lose half of the warnings.
C FWC2 automatically takes over.
24 The clock provides UTC to:
A Only the two FMGCs.
B The CFDIU, FDIU and the two FMGCs.
C Lower ECAM display.
25 The POST FLIGHT REPORT is made up from:
A only the LAST LEG ECAM REPORT.
B the LAST LEG ECAM REPORT and the LAST LEG REPORT.
C only the LAST LEG REPORT.
26 Which action must be taken by maintenance personnel when a class 1 failure affects an aircraft
system?
A Refer to the MEL to know if the failure is a GO, NO GO or GO IF item.
B Do not refer to the MEL.
C Nothing as the failure can be left uncorrected until the next scheduled maintenance check.
27 When does a class 3 failure have to be corrected?
A Immediately because it has operational consequences.
B Before next flight.
C Class 3 failures can be left uncorrected.
28 In flight, a class 2 failure has occurred. Now, we are on ground. Where is this failure displayed?
A Only on the ECAM STATUS page.
B In the LAST LEG REPORT, the AVIONICS STATUS and the ECAM STATUS page.
C Class 2 failures are only displayed in flight.
29 Which Centralized Fault Display System functions are available in flight?
A LAST LEG REPORT and LAST LEG ECAM REPORT.
B AVIONICS STATUS, LAST LEG REPORT, SYSTEM REPORT/TEST.
C CURRENT LEG REPORT, CURRENT LEG ECAM REPORT.
30 When you make a print of the PREVIOUS LEGS REPORT?
A You print only the page displayed on the Mutipurpose Control and Display Unit, even if the report
contains several pages.
B You print all the report, even if it contains several pages.
C You print the sum of the failure data delivered by the BITEs and the warning messages delivered by
the ECAM.
31 Which Centralized Fault Display System functions are available in BACK-UP mode, on ground?
A None.
B SYSTEM REPORT/TEST for main systems.
C LAST LEG REPORT and LAST LEG ECAM REPORT.
32 When is the LAST LEG REPORT transferred to the PREVIOUS LEGS REPORT?
A At first engine start + 3 minutes.
B At touch down.
C After touch down when the aircraft speed has been below 80 knots for 30 seconds.
33 When is the leg number incremented?
A At ground/flight transition.
B At flight/ground transition.
- 34 -
C Both.
34 (m) implies:
A to refer to another MMEL part.
B a maintenance procedure described in the MMEL.
C a mechanical problem
35 Compared with the Airbus MMEL, an airline MEL can be:
A in contradiction.
B less restrictive
C more restrictive
36 Which item is used if several task numbers are relative to a same "WARNING/MALFUNCTION"
and "CFDS FAULT MESSAGE" association?
A The OBSV index.
B The IDENTIFIERS item.
C Page block 201.
37 When do you use the data loader selector?
A For the UP LOADING function only.
B For the DOWN LOADING function only.
C For the UP and DOWN LOADING functions.
38 What is the purpose of the DFDRS?
A Condition monitoring of the engines.
B To record mandatory parameters.
C To record parameters in a solid state memory for ground maintenance.
39 Which one is an FDIU function?
A To compare the data recorded by the SSFDR with the data sent by the FDIU.
B To compare the data recorded by the QAR with the data sent by the FDIU.
C A & B.
40 How is the SSFDR energized?
A Directly from the busbar.
B Through the FDIU.
C Through the power interlock circuit.
41 Which are the main functions of the AIDS?
A Recording of the mandatory flight data requested by the airworthiness authority.
B Trouble shooting of avionics computers only.
C Engine condition, APU condition and aircraft performance monitoring.
42 How does the AIDS operate?
A Manually through the MCDU only.
B Manually through the MCDU and automatically through the DMU.
C Fully automatically through the DMU.
43 The line, providing manual start and stop as well as status indication of the DAR, is displayed at the
bottom of the AIDS MCDU menu page if:
A a DAR is installed.
B the DMU is equipped with a PCMCIA interface.
C both.
44 How are the standard headers?
A Specific for each report.
- 35 -
B Similar for all the reports.
C Similar only for the engine reports.
45 Which reports can be manually generated?
A ENGINE REPORT ON REQUEST <05> and ENGINE RUN UP REPORT <11>.
B ENGINE REPORT ON REQUEST <05> and LOAD REPORT <15>.
C All.
46 Which tool enables the SAR configuration and the standard reports adjustment?
A The MCDU.
B The data loader.
C The GSE.
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32. Landing Gear
1 Which hydraulic system powers normal landing gear operation?
A Green system.
B Blue system.
C Yellow system.
2 Which hydraulic system powers the nose wheel steering?
A Green system.
B Blue system.
C Yellow system.
3 What controls the landing gear normal operating sequence?
A Either LGCIU in turn.
B Both LGCIUs simultaneously.
C The crank handle.
4 Which unit gives the landing gear position to ECAM display?
A Either LGCIU in turn.
B Both LGCIUs simultaneously.
C LGCIU 1 only.
5 When does the automatic changeover of the LGCIUs in control occur?
A When "DOWN" is selected.
B When "UP" is selected.
C When the first engine starts.
6 When does the UNLK light come on?
A When the gear and the related doors are not locked up.
B When the gear is not locked down.
C When the gear is not locked in the selected position.
7 What is the normal retraction sequence?
A Door open, gear up, door close, cancel gear up signal.
B Door open, gear up, door close, maintain gear up signal.
C Door open, gear up, door close, cancel door close signal.
8 Before the landing gear can be retracted, what must the LGCIU detect?
A Three shock absorbers extended.
B Three shock absorbers compressed.
C Only one shock absorber extended.
9 When is the hydraulic circuit depressurized after retraction?
A As soon as the selector lever is moved to neutral.
B As soon as the airspeed is greater than 260 5 kts.
C As soon as the last door is closed.
10 What happens when the gravity extension crank handle is rotated?
A The cut-out and vent valves operate.
B The safety and cut-out valves operate.
C The safety and vent valves operate.
11 Which hydraulic system powers normal braking?
A Green system.
B Yellow system.
C Blue system.
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12 How is inflight braking initiated?
A By setting the landing lever to the UP position.
B By shock absorber extension.
C By auto brake deactivation.
13 In case of normal braking system failure, how is alternate braking applied?
A Automatically when the selector valve is de-energized.
B Automatically through the automatic selector.
C As soon as the brake pedals are pressed in.
14 How can the parking brake be hydraulically powered?
A Only by yellow high pressure.
B Only by the brake accumulator.
C Either by yellow high pressure or by the brake accumulator.
15 In which mode is progressive pressure sent to the brakes, 2 seconds after ground spoiler deployment:
A MAX mode.
B MED mode.
C LO mode.
16 What are the auto brake arming conditions?
A An AUTO BRK pushbutton pressed in, green pressure and anti-skid powered and no failure in
normal braking system.
B An AUTO BRK pushbutton pressed in, yellow pressure and anti-skid powered and no failure in
C An AUTO BRK pushbutton pressed in, green pressure and anti-skid deactivated and no failure in
17 When does the BSCU provide anti-skid control?
A During normal and alternate braking.
B Only during normal braking.
C When the auto brake system has failed.
18 What happens when a wheel speed decreases below 0.87 times the reference speed?
A A brake release order is given to the wheels of the same gear.
B A brake release order is given to the related wheel.
C A brake release order is given to all wheels.
19 What is the purpose of the hydraulic fuses?
A To stop the flow in case of leakage.
B To shut off the return lines.
C To separate the Normal from the Alternate Servo valves.
20 Are the return lines shut off when the parking brake is applied?
A No, they are always open.
B Yes, by the Automatic Selector.
C Yes, when braking is supplied by the accumulator only.
21 Which component gives priority to the green hydraulic system?
A Brake Selector Valve.
B Throttle Valve.
C Automatic Selector.
22 What is the maximum nose wheel steering angle obtained by the hand-wheels?
A ± 6°.
- 38 -
B ± 74°.
C ± 95°.
23 Is nose wheel steering available after a landing gear gravity extension?
A Yes.
B No.
C --
24 What is the purpose of the accumulator?
A To compensate a complete pressure loss.
B To dampen rapid movements.
C To supply hydraulic pressure in case of cavitation.
25 What is the purpose of the bypass valve?
A To interconnect the two chambers of the steering actuator.
B To apply hydraulic pressure to the servo valve.
C To bypass the servo valve in case of BSCU failure.
26 What are the adjustable diaphragms used for?
A To ensure self-centering of the nose gear.
B To adjust the nose wheel steering speed.
C To adjust the rate of depressurization in the hydraulic block.
27 Where is the Tire Pressure Indication displayed?
A On a tire and brake indicator.
B On ECAM.
C No indication.
28 What signal is delivered by the pressure transducer?
A A DC signal which depends on the tire pressure.
B A frequency signal which depends on the tire pressure.
C A pneumatic signal equal to the tire pressure.
29 What is the rotating mechanism used for?
A To change the pressure voltage into a frequency signal.
B To transmit the tire pressure signal from the wheel to the axle.
C To perform the permanent test of the system.
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33. Lights
1 In electrical emergency configuration, which cockpit lights remain ON?
A CAPT dome light and RH CENTER lighting instrument panel.
B F/O dome light and F/O and RH ENTER lighting instrument panel.
C F/O dome light and LH ENTER lighting instrument panel.
2 Which lighting includes fluorescent lamps and integral ballast units?
A Passenger reading and work attendant lighting.
B Lavatory lighted signs.
C Cabin lighting, entrance lighting and lavatory lighting.
3 With the MAIN OFF pushbutton previously pressed, how can you switch on the WINDOWS
Lighting at FULL BRIGHTNESS?
A You can press the bright (BRT) pushbutton associated to the WINDOWS Lighting.
B You can press the WINDOWS (WOD) pushbuttons.
C You can press the MAIN ON pushbutton and then press the ENTRY AREAS BRIGHT (BRT) and
CEILING (CLG) pushbuttons.
4 What happens when the lavatory pushbutton on the FAP is pressed?
A The LAVATORIES are illuminated at FULL BRIGHTNESS, when the associated LAVATORY
DOOR (s) is (are) locked.
B The LAVATORIES are illuminated at 50% brightness, when the associated LAVATORY DOOR is
open or closed.
C A and B are correct.
5 With the RWY TURN-OFF switch set to on, when are the runway turn off lights on?
A When the nose landing gear is retracted.
B Always.
C When the nose landing gear is downlocked.
6 When is the Emergency lighting systems supplied by the EPSUs intergrated batteries?
A When the EMER EXIT LT selector Is in the ON POSITION.
B When the main lighting system has failed.
C When the EMER LIGHT pushbutton on the FAP is pressed and the 28 VDS ESS BUS is lost.
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34. Navigation
1 Can VOR 2 frequency be changed through RMP 1?
A Yes
B No
C --
2 In back-up mode, an ILS can be tuned through:
A RMP 1 or 2.
B The onside RMP only
C RMP 1 only
3 How do pitot and static probes supply the ADIRUs?
A Using ADMs which convert pressure into digital format
B Directly with digital format
C Directly with total and static pressures.
4 Where does ADIRU3 receive TAT information from?
A Captain TAT sensor
B Standby TAT sensor
C First-officer TAT sensor
5 Which pressure line(s) need(s) to be drained?
A All pitot lines.
B Only the standby static line.
C All static lines.
6 The TAT and SAT data is provided by?
A ADR1 or ADR3
B ADR1 or ADR2
C ADR2 or ADR3
7 Wind shear indications are shown:
A Only on the NDs.
B On the upper ECAM DU
C On the PFDs and the NDs
8 Which aircraft are detected by the TCAS?
A All
B ATC equipped A/C.
C Only ATC mode S equipped A/C
- 41 -
35. Oxygen
1 The crew oxygen system consists of:
A a fixed high pressure cylinder.
B a high pressure portable cylinder.
C a fixed cylinder with masks and a breathing hood system.
2 Can the cylinder pressure be checked when there is no electrical power?
A YES
B NO
C --
3 What indicates an overboard discharge?
A A warning on the oxygen control panel 21 VU.
B The direct reading pressure gauge on the oxygen cylinder.
C A yellow indicator.
4 How do the time delay relays control the pax system automatic operation?
A They cut off electrical supply after 30 seconds.
B They supply the system for 3 seconds.
C They supply the system after 30 seconds.
5 The TMR RESET FAULT light comes on if:
A The reset operation is not yet completed.
B The reset operation has failed.
C The time delay relays have failed during the automatic operation.
6 What is the function of the hood absorption system?
A To add oxygen to the expired gas.
B To trap the carbon dioxide contained in the expired gas.
C To allow the expired gas to flow out of the hood.
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36. Pneumatics
1 Does the APU bleed valve opening have priority over the engine bleed valves opening?
A YES.
B NO.
C --
2 What is the purpose of IP/HP switching?
A To regulate the output pressure, depending on Fan Air Valve position.
B To keep air bleed at a sufficient pressure at low engine speed.
C To regulate the output temperature, depending on the configuration of users.
3 What is the purpose of the CTS?
A To send a pneumatic signal to the OPV, in case of overpressure.
B To send a pneumatic signal to regulate or shut-off the PRV.
C --
4 What is the purpose of the CT?
A To send a pneumatic signal to control the FAV.
B To send a pneumatic signal to the OPV in case of overpressure.
C To send a pneumatic signal to control the PRV.
5 With the X-BLEED selector at AUTO and air supplied by ENG1 ONLY, the X-BLEED valve:
A Does not receive any order.
B Is automatically controlled to open.
C Is controlled to close.
6 How does the GARRET APU Bleed valve operate?
A As a regulating valve.
B As an ON/OFF valve.
C A and B.
7 How does the APIC APU Bleed valve operate?
A Pneumatically.
B Fuel operated
C --
8 Which of the following are maintained by a double loop detection system?
A The LH and RH wing ducts, packs and mid fuselage APU duct.
B The pylon.
C A and B.
9 What happens in case of BMC 1 failure?
A BMC 2 ensures the complete leak detection.
B BMC 2 ensures its wing leak detection.
C The leak detection is completely lost.
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38. Water & waste
1 Why is the potable water tank pressurized?
A To ease draining operation.
B To warm up the water
C To enable water supply from the tank to the service users.
2 How many valves are used during draining operation?
A Two.
B Three.
C Four.
3 What is used for tank filling operation?
A One handle, one filling valve.
B One handle, two valves.
C Two handles, two valves.
4 How many potable water service and drain panels are fitted on the aircraft?
A One.
B Two.
C Three.
5 Where is the fill and drain valve port located?
A On the potable water service panel.
B On the forward water drain panel.
C On both.
6 How many potable water quantity indicators are there?
A One.
B Two.
C Three.
A To ease the draining operation.
B To warm up the water
8 How many valves are used during the draining operation?
A One.
B Two.
C Three.
9 Where can the potable water quantity be checked?
A On the indicator on the water service panel only.
B On the FAP only.
C On the indicator on the water service panel and on the FAP.
A One.
B Two.
C Three.
11 Where is the fill and drain valve port located?
C On both.
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A One.
B Two.
C Three.
A To ease the draining operation.
B To warm up the water.
14 How many valves are used during the draining operation?
A One.
B Two.
C Three.
15 Where can the potable water quantity be checked?
A On the indicator on the water service panel only.
B On the FAP only.
C On the indicator on the water service panel and on the FAP.
A One.
B Two.
C Three.
17 Where is the fill and drain valve located?
C On both.
A One.
B Two.
C Three.
19 Why are drain valves installed in the waste water drain system?
A To allow the sinks and wash basins to be isolated.
B To prevent a permanent loss of cabin air pressurization.
C To prevent wash basins from being isolated.
20 On ground, when does the vacuum generator start to operate?
A As soon as the aircraft is energized.
B As soon as the flush switch is pressed in, and only if the altitude pressure switch is closed.
C As soon as the altitude pressure switch closes.
21 What happens when the flush switch is pressed at high altitude?
A As the differential pressure between the cabin and the atmosphere is sufficient, the vacuum generator
does not operate.
B As the differential pressure between the cabin and the atmosphere is not sufficient, the vacuum
generator does not operate.
C As the differential pressure between the cabin and the atmosphere is sufficient, the vacuum generator
operates.
22 Where does the toilet bowl rinsing water come from?
A Waste holding tank.
- 45 -
B Waste water tank.
C Potable water tank.
23 How is the waste transported to the waste holding tank?
A By the vacuum created in the waste tank.
B By water flushing and gravity.
C By water pressure.
24 When does the vacuum generator operate?
A On ground only.
B Up to an altitude of 4877 m. (16000ft.) during climb and below 3658 m. (12000ft.) during descent.
C During servicing operations.
25 How many toilet service panels are fitted on the aircraft?
A One.
B Two.
C Three.
26 Where is the waste quantity displayed?
A On the toilet service panel.
B On the Forward Attendant Panel.
C On both panels.
27 The toilet system is monitored by:
A The FCU BITE.
B The CFDS.
C The VSC BITE.
28 The water valve and the flush valve are monitored by:
A The Vacuum System Controller.
B The vacuum generator.
C The associated Flush Control Unit BITE.
29 What are the functions of the VSC?
A System control and monitoring and fault reporting.
B System control and monitoring.
C Fault reporting.
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49. APU
1 What is the main function of the APU?
A To produce independent pneumatic and hydraulic power.
B To produce independent pneumatic and electrical power.
C To produce independent electrical and hydraulic power.
2 Which component controls and monitors the APU?
A The Electronic Control Box.
B The Fuel Control Unit.
C The IGV Control Unit.
3 The Electronic Control Box has:
A Restricted authority over APU operation.
B Only APU monitoring function.
C Full authority over APU operation.
4 From where can an APU emergency shutdown be performed?
A Refuel/defuel panel, external control panel and cockpit.
B APU Fire panel, external power control panel.
C The APU cannot be shut down from outside the aircraft.
5 Normal APU shutdown is performed from?
A Fire panel.
B External power control panel.
C APU control panel.
6 On ground, in case of failure, how can you open or close the air intake flap?
A The air intake flap actuator cannot be overridden.
B The air intake flap actuator can be hydraulically overridden.
C The air intake flap actuator can be overridden by a Manual Override Device.
7 When is the drain tank emptied?
A When the aircraft speed is above 200KTS.
B When the aircraft is stopped on the ramp.
C When the aircraft altitude is above 2000 feet.
8 Which drains collect fuel, water and air?
A Exhaust coupling drain.
B Flow divider drain.
C Air bypass plenum drain.
9 Of what kind of design is the engine compressor?
A Two stage centrifugal compressor design.
B Single stage centrifugal compressor design.
C Three stage axial compressor design.
10 Which components are installed on the combustion chamber?
A One igniter plug, 10 fuel nozzles.
B Two igniter plugs, six fuel nozzles.
C The de-swirl vane assembly, two igniter plugs, two fuel nozzles.
11 What are the three APU modules?
A Compressor, combustion chamber, turbine.
B Power section, load compressor, Fuel Control Unit.
C Power section, load compressor, accessory drive gearbox.
- 47 -
12 The ECB cuts off the supply to the starter:
A when the APU speed is about 45%?
B when the APU speed is about 50%?
C when the APU speed is about 60%?
13 The Electronic Control box acts on:
A The fuel metering valve and the 3 way solenoid valve.
B The fuel metering valve and the pressure regulator.
C The fuel metering valve, the flow divider solenoid valve and fuel shut-off 3 way solenoid valve.
14 The 3 Way Solenoid Valve is controlled:
A Open during the start sequence and closed during the stop sequence.
B Closed during the start sequence and open during the stop sequence.
C Closed during the start sequence and closed during the stop sequence.
15 What is the only component of the oil system controlled by the Electronic Control Box?
A The De-oiling solenoid valve.
B The low level sensor.
C The Low Oil Pressure.
16 Which component regulates the airflow to the pneumatic system?
A The bleed load valve.
B The Inlet Guide Vanes.
C The cooling fan.
17 Which components have a visual position indicator?
A Bleed Load Control Valve and Surge Control Valve.
B IGV actuator.
C Load Control Valve only.
18 The starter motor assists the APU up to which speed?
A 40%.
B 50%.
C 60%.
19 What does the ECB simulate to cause an APU normal shutdown?
A A Load Control Valve closure.
B An over speed condition.
C A fuel feed line depressurization.
20 The APU is running and the APU bleed air system is in use. What happens if the APU MASTER SW
p/b is released out?
A The APU shuts down after a cooling cycle has been completed.
B The APU shuts down immediately.
C The APU shuts down after the closure of fuel LP shut off valve.
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52. Doors
1 How do you have access to the aircraft avionics compartment?
A By the forward cargo compartment.
B By one avionics access door.
C By four avionics access doors.
4 The passenger door is maintained parallel to the fuselage by:
A The guide arms.
B The support arms.
C The upper and lower connection links.
5 How is the operator warned, when there is residual pressure in the cabin?
A By a white flashing light.
B By a red flashing light.
C By an amber flashing light.
6 Which device blocks the outer control handle during inner control handle operation?
A The control handle gearbox.
B The safety pin.
C The lifting mechanism.
7 How can the door be opened from the outside when the arming lever is set in the ARMED position?
A The arming lever must be set to DISARMED.
B The door cannot be opened from the outside in such a configuration.
C An installation containing a cam disk and a roller disarms the system automatically.
8 What happens when the arming lever is set to the ARMED position?
A The girt bar stays attached to the cabin floor.
B The girt bar slides towards the telescopic fork.
C The telescopic fork slides towards the girt bar fitting.
9 What is the purpose of the damper nitrogen bottle and Emergency Operation Cylinder?
A To damp door opening and closing.
B To assist in opening and closing the door.
C To damp door opening / closing and to pressurize the cylinder in case of an emergency opening.
10 Which maintenance task must be performed after an emergency opening?
A The operating striker lever has to be replaced.
B The diaphragm, in the mechanism housing, and the shear pin must be replaced.
C The nitrogen bottle has to be replaced.
11 When does the damper and emergency operation cylinder work as an actuator?
A When the slide control handle is in "DISARMED" position.
B When the door is fully closed.
C When the arming lever is in the "ARMED" position.
- 49 -
12 How is the latch pin released for maintenance operations?
A By operating the outer control handle.
B By retracting the latch pin.
C By setting the disarming control handle to DISARMED.
13 Which device makes sure that the locking shaft mechanism is always in the over centered position?
A The spring unit.
B The control mechanism.
C The locking hook.
14 What does the green light fitted near the manual selector valve indicate?
A The yellow hydraulic pressure is available to operate the door.
B The door is fully open and locked.
C The door is correctly unlatched and unlocked.
15 How is the bulk cargo door operated?
A Only manually.
B Only hydraulically
C Both manually and hydraulically.
16 Where is the locking mechanism of the bulk cargo door located?
A In the upper section of the door.
B In the middle section of the door.
C In the lower section of the door.
17 How the cargo door is connected to the fuselage?
A By two hinge pins.
B By six hinge pins.
C By piano hinges.
18 When can the door be opened?
A When the cam and the hooks are in the locked position.
B When the cam is in the unlocked position and the hooks are in the locked position.
C When the cam and the hooks are in the position.
19 What is the cam fastened to?
A To the latching shaft.
B To the locking shaft.
C To the spring unit.
20 The cargo doors hydraulic system is pressurized by the :
A Green electric pump.
B Yellow electric pump.
C Blue electric pump.
21 What is the purpose of the spring loaded blocking piston in the manual selector valve?
A To prevent door opening if pressure is <3000 psi.
B To lock the selector in the OPEN / CLOSE position until the actuator is fully opened/ retracted.
C To ensure correct pressure in the extension chamber of the actuators before closing.
22 When does the residual cabin pressure red light come on?
A When all the engines are not running, the parking brake is applied and the cabin residual pressure
exceeds 2.5 mbars.
B When engines are not running, the slide is disarmed and the cabin residual pressure exceeds 2.5
mbars.
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C When engines are not running, the parking brake is applied, the slide is disarmed and the cabin
residual pressure exceeds 2.5 mbars.
23 When is the electro selector valve supplied?
A When the locking shaft proximity switch target is NEAR and when the manual selector valve is
operated.
B When the locking shaft proximity switch target is FAR and when the manual selector valve is
operated.
C When the locking shaft proximity switch target is NEAR.
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71-79. CFM56 - 5B
1 To which temperature is the engine flat rated?
A ISA + 15°C (86°F)
B ISA + 30°C (113°F)
C up to ISA + 30°C (113°F) depending on the engine rating.
2 How is the thrust rating defined on the CFM56-5B/P?
A By FADEC control.
B By a cockpit selection.
C By an engine data programming plug.
3 An oil tank access door is provided for servicing :
A On the right side fan cowl door.
B On the left side fan cowl door.
C On the left side thrust reverser "C" duct door.
4 A starter valve access panel is provided for manual operation :
5 Where is the drain located?
A at the rear part of the pylon
B at the bottom of the engine
C both at the rear part of the pylon and at the bottom of the engine
6 Which fluids can be discharged through the drain?
A Air (vent), water, hydraulic and fuel
B Water and fuel
C Hydraulic and fuel
7 The pressure valve is used to discharge the collector holding tanks?
A In flight automatically
B In flight above 200 kt automatically
C On ground manually
8 Where is the fluid disconnect panel located?
A On the left hand side of the fan case upper part.
B On the right hand side of the fan case upper part.
C In the pylon between the FWD and AFT amounts.
9 Where is the fan electrical connector panel located?
A On the left hand side of the fan case upper part.
B On the right hand side of the fan case upper part.
C In the pylon between the FWD and AFT amounts.
10 How are the thrust reverser cowl doors opened?
A Manually opened and secured by a hold open rod.
B Hydraulically opened and secured by a hold open rod.
C Electrically opened by a motor and secured by a hold open rod.
11 How is the accessory gearbox driven?
A By the HP rotor.
B By the LP rotor.
C By the HP rotor via the transfer gearbox.
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12 What bearings support the HP rotor?
A Nº3 (dual bearing) and Nº4.
B Nº2 and Nº4.
C Nº2 and Nº3 (dual bearing).
13 The aerodynamic station Nº3 is:
A The HP compressor inlet.
B The HP compressor discharge.
C The combustion chamber discharge.
14 What is the purpose of the Fuel Return Valve in there circulation system?
A To depressurize the fuel system at engine shut-down.
B To provide better fuel filtering.
C To maintain IDG oil, engine oil and fuel temperature within limits.
15 What happens when the ENG MASTER lever is set to OFF?
A Both LP and HP fuel shut-off valves are closed.
B Only the HP fuel shut-off valve is closed.
C Only the LP valve is closed.
16 Which valve ensures the adequate fuel flow to the nozzles?
A The Fuel Metering Valve.
B The pressurizing and Shut-Off Valve.
C The Burner Staging Valve.
17 Which information do the FRV position switches provide to the ECU?
A V1 and V2 solenoid position.
B FRV shut-off valve position.
C Fuel return over pressure signal.
18 What kind of shut-off signal does the HMU shut-off valve send to the FRV?
A Direct fuel pressure signal.
B Direct electrical signal.
C Electrical signal sent through the ECU.
19 When de-energized, the solenoid valves V1 and V2 are:
A in closed position.
B in open position.
C either in closed or open position, depending on the last operating condition.
20 What does the FADEC consist of?
A One main frame computer for all engines.
B The ECU and its peripherals, per engine.
C A single ECU and its peripherals, for both engines.
21 In case of input loss, what happens
A Switch over to the other channel.
B Control goes to a fail-safe position.
C The channel in control uses values from the other channel.
22 If both windings of a torque motor fail, what happens?
C The channel in control supplies the winding of the other channel.
23 If one winding of a torque motor fails, what happens?
- 53 -
24 What is the FADEC?
A An engine control box.
B The ECU and its peripheral sensors and components.
C A throttle control unit.
25 Which of the following is controlled by the FADEC?
A The EIU.
B The Throttle Lever Angle.
C The engine thrust rating.
26 Which parameters are directly sent by the ECU to the ECAM?
A The primary parameters.
B The secondary parameters.
C Both the primary and the secondary parameters.
27 What types of signals does the ECU send or receive?
A Digital, discrete and analog.
B Digital and analog.
C Discrete and analog.
28 Where is the TRA directly sent to?
A To the EIU.
B To the FMGC.
C To the ECU.
29 How do ADIRS 1 and 2 send signals to the ECU?
A ADIRS 1 supplies channel A and ADIRS 2 supplies channel B.
B Both ADIRS supply 2 channels.
C Only ADIRS 1 is used to supply the ECU.
30 What happens in case of EIU power supply loss?
A EIU takes its power from the engine generator.
B EIU fails and engine restart is not possible.
C The ECU and ignition power is no longer available.
31 For the auto thrust function, the EIU interfaces directly with:
A The FMGC 1.
B The FMGC 2.
C The FCU.
32 Which signals does the EIU send?
A Digital signals only.
B Digital and discrete signals.
C Digital, discrete and analog signals.
33 With A/C on the ground when is the ECU automatically depowered?
A At aircraft power up.
B As soon as the engine is shut down.
C 5 mn after engine shutdown.
34 What is the purpose of the ENG FADEC Ground Power panel?
A To restore ECU power.
- 54 -
B To restore EIU power.
C To cut off ECU power.
35 When does the ECU Permanent Magnet Alternator supply the ECU?
A When N2 is above 12%.
B When an engine is started.
C Only if the aircraft electrical power fails.
36 How does the starter operate?
A Electrically.
B Pneumatically.
C Hydraulically.
37 In which case can the ECU abort the start?
A Automatic start and manual start.
B Automatic start only.
C Wet motoring.
38 Of which type is the ignition system?
A Low voltage, low energy.
B Low voltage, high energy.
C High voltage, high energy.
39 What provides the selection of the ignition A/B?
A The Engine panel.
B The ECAM control panel.
C The ECU.
40 What happens in manual mode when N2 reaches 50%?
A MAN START P/B ON light goes OFF.
B The ECU provides to ECAM a message telling to close the start valve.
C Start valve is automatically closed.
41 What causes an automatic continuous relight by the FADEC?
A IGN START selection.
B Flame out detected.
C ECU failure.
42 In which case will the FADEC abort the start sequence, either in manual or automatic mode?
A HP Fuel valve not open.
B Ignition Fault.
C EGT Over limit detected.
43 In automatic mode, the FADEC is able to automatically perform several start attempts?
A If an ignition fault occurs.
B If an EGT over limit or a stall fault occurred.
C If an ignition fault, or EGT over limit or a stall fault occurred.
44 In which fault is help from the ground mechanic required?
A If the start valve fails open.
B If the start valve fails closed.
C In neither case.
45 Which unit supplies servo pressure to the VSV actuators?
A The hydro-mechanical unit.
B The hydraulic pump of each engine.
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C The hydraulic power supply of the aircraft.
46 What is used to cool the fan and core compartments?
A Ram air for both compartments.
B Fan air both compartments.
C Ram air for the fan compartment and fan air for the core compartment.
47 Which air is used to feed the HPTACC system?
A Fan air.
B HP compressor 5th stage air.
C HP compressor 4th and 9th stage air.
48 Where are the engine controls located?
A On the overhead panel.
B On the overhead panel and the center pedestal.
C On the center pedestal.
49 Where are the engine primary parameters permanently displayed?
A On the ECAM upper display.
B On the ECAM lower display.
C On the both ECAM displays.
50 What is the purpose of the ENGINE MASTER SWITCH?
A To open or close the HP fuel Shut-Off Valve.
B To command and reset the FADEC functions.
C Both to open or close the HP fuel Shut-Off Valve and to command and reset the FADEC functions.
51 Which computer controls the engine thrust, either in manual mode or auto thrust mode?
A FMGC.
B FCU.
C ECU.
52 What is the normal cruise detent point?
A TO/GA.
B FLX/MCT.
C CL.
53 When the throttle lever is between two detent points what position correspond to the thrust limit?
A The upper detent point.
B The lower detent point.
C The actual throttle lever position.
54 In flight with the throttle lever between two detent points what defines the N1 rating limit?
A The throttle lever position.
B The upper detent point position.
C The lower detent point position.
55 With the auto thrust function active and the throttle lever between two detent points, what limits the
upper N1 command?
A The Throttle Lever Angle (TLA).
B The N1 limit.
C The N1 target.
56 What does the FMGC compute?
A The N1 limit.
B The N1 command.
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C The N1 target.
57 How is the HP fuel Shut Off Valve closure command sent?
A Directly from the MASTER lever.
B From the MASTER lever via the ECU.
C From the MASTER lever via the EIU and the ECU.
58 Which condition is required to open the HP fuel Shut Off Valve?
A Command pressure from the Fuel Metering Valve.
B HP Fuel latching solenoid de-energized.
C Both Command pressure from the Fuel Metering Valve and HP Fuel latching solenoid de-energized.
59 In which condition does the ECU control the opening the HP fuel Shut Off Valve?
A Rotary selector set in IGN START or CRANK positions.
B MASTER lever set in ON position.
C Both rotary selector set in IGN START or CRANK positions and MASTER lever set in
ON position.
60 How is the engine LP fuel shut off valve controlled?
A By the Engine fire pushbutton.
B Automatically when a fire is detected.
C By the MASTER lever or by the Engine fire pushbutton.
61 How is the engine LP fuel shut-off valve actuated?
A By two electrical motors.
B By a dual solenoid.
C Hydraulically by servo fuel.
62 The Engine primary parameters are displayed:
C On both ECAM displays.
63 The Engine page is selected:
A manually or automatically depending on flight phases
B manually only
C automatically only depending on flight phases
64 The Engine vibration indications are displayed :
A on the ENGINE/WARNING DISPLAY
B on the ENGINE page
C on the ENGINE page and the CRUISE page.
65 Which systems interface with the EVMU?
A ECAM-FADEC-AIDS.
B ECAM-CFDS-AIDS.
C CFDS-ACARS-FADEC.
66 What is of the TRF accelerometer used for?
A To measure the N2 Vibrations.
B It is in standby.
C It is in standby and also used during engine balancing operation.
67 Where is the engine vibration displayed?
A On the upper ECAM.
B On the cruise page.
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C Both on the engine and cruise pages.
68 When is it possible to operate the thrust reverser system?
A On ground only.
B On ground and in flight.
C In flight only.
69 How is the thrust reverser actuated?
A Electrically.
B Hydraulically.
C Pneumatically.
70 How is the thrust reverser controlled?
A By the ECU only.
B By the ECU and the two conditions from Spoiler Elevator Computers and EIU inhibition relay.
C Directly by the reverser lever.
71 What is the logic of the reverse operation?
A TLA position and aircraft on ground only.
B TLA position, aircraft on ground and Reverse indication green.
C TLA position, aircraft on ground, engine running (N2 condition) and both SECs and EIU signals.
72 Reverser system actuation is provided by two solenoid valves which are energized by the:
A Engine Control Unit (ECU).
B Engine Interface Unit (EIU).
C Throttle Control Unit.
73 What does the CFDIU simulate during the MCDU reverse test?
A The TLA.
B The ground logic.
C The N2 condition.
74 During the deploy sequence what provides extension of the actuators?
A The pressurizing valve.
B The directional valve.
C The deploy switch.
75 What does the pressure detector indicate to the ECU?
A That the system is pressurizing.
B That the actuators are actuated.
C That the latches are locked.
76 What happens if one of the latches is not unlocked during the reverse operation?
A The three other doors are deployed.
B The other latches are hyd. relocked.
C Thrust reverser is unavailable.
77 What happens when the main oil filter is clogged?
A The oil flows through the bypass valve and the backup filter.
B The IDG oil temperature increases.
C The engine oil temperature increases.
78 What does the master chip detector do in case of metal particles detection?
A It sends a signal to the ECU.
B It provides a warning to the ECAM system.
C It operates a visual indicator for ground inspection.
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79 Which criteria define the engine noise areas?
A The distance from engine.
B The distance from the engine, the power setting and the time exposure.
C The distance from the engine and the power setting.
80 With ear protection:
A There is no hazard area.
B There is a hazard area.
C There is a hazard area but only if the power is set above idle.
90 Which condition is sufficient to close the entry corridor?
A Engine running.
B Engine running above 60% of N1.
C Engine running above minimum idle.
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71-79. V2500 - A5
1 How is the thrust rating defined on the V2500-A5?
A By an engine data programming plug.
B By a cockpit selection.
C By FADEC control.
2 An oil access door is provided for servicing:
3 A starter valve access panel is provided for manual operation:
4 The exhaust directs rearward :
A The fan air discharge.
B The engine core exhaust.
C Both the engine core exhaust and the fan air discharge.
5 Where are the drains located?
A At the rear part of the pylon.
B At the bottom of the engine.
C Both at the rear part of the pylon and at the bottom of the engine.
6 Which fluids can be discharged through the drain?
A Water, hydraulic and fuel.
B Water and fuel.
C Hydraulic and fuel.
7 How is the main gearbox driven?
A By the HP rotor,
B By the LP rotor,
C By the HP rotor via the angle gearbox.
8 The compressor stage Nº12 is :
A The 12th stage of the HP compressor,
B The 10th stage of the HP compressor,
C The 7th stage of the HP compressor.
9 What bearings support the HP rotor?
A Nº3 and Nº4,
B Nº3, Nº4 and Nº5,
C Nº2, Nº3 and Nº4.
10 What directly provides the closure of the PR Shut-Off Valve?
A The FMU.
B The EEC only.
C The MASTER lever to OFF position.
11 Which valve ensures the adequate fuel flow?
A The fuel metering valve.
B The Pressure Raising SOV.
C The fuel distribution valve.
- 60 -
12 What controls the adequate cooling of the engine and IDG oils?
A The Fuel Cooled Oil Cooler.
B The IDG oil cooler.
C The Fuel Diverter and Return Valve.
13 What does the ACOC modulating valve regulate?
A The engine oil flowing through the ACOC.
B A bleed part of fan air crossing the ACOC.
C Both engine oil and a bleed part of fan air.
14 What does the Heat Management System heat and cool?
A Fuel, engine oil and IDG oil.
B Engine oil and IDG oil.
C Only engine oil.
15 The EEC controls the HMS with?
A The ACOC modulating valve and the FD & RV.
B The ACOC modulating valve, the FD & RV and the IDG FCOC.
C The FD & RV.
16 What does the FADEC system consists of?
A One main frame computer for all engines.
B The EEC and its peripherals, per engine.
C A single EEC and its peripherals, for both engines.
17 In case of a single input loss, what happens?
C The channel in control uses values from the other channel.
18 If both windings of a torque motor fail, what happens?
19 If one winding of a torque motor fails, what happens?
20 What is the FADEC?
A An engine control box.
B The EEC and its peripheral sensors and components.
C A throttle control unit.
21 Which of the following is controlled by the FADEC?
A The EIU.
B The Throttle Lever Angle.
C The engine thrust rating.
22 How does the EEC send the engine parameters to the ECA?
A Directly.
B Through the EIU.
C Directly, for the primary parameters, and through the EIU for the secondary parameters.
23 What types of signals does the EEC send or receive?
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A Digital, discrete and analog.
B Digital and analog.
C Discrete and analog.
24 Where is the TRA directly sent to?
A To the EIU.
B To the FMGC.
C To the EEC.
25 How do ADIRU 1 and 2 send signals to the EEC?
A ADIRU 1 supplies channel A and ADIRU 2 supplies channel B.
B Both ADIRUs supply 2 channels.
C Only ADIRU 1 is used to supply the EEC.
26 What happens in case of failure of the EIU?
A The TLA signal is no longer available.
B The engine goes to flight idle mode.
C The engine cannot be restarted from the engine start panel.
27 For the auto thrust function, the EIU interfaces directly with:
A FMGC 1.
B FMGC 2.
C The FCU.
28 Which signals does the EIU send?
A Digital signals only.
B Digital and discrete signals.
C Digital, discrete and analog signals.
29 With aircraft on the ground, when is the EEC automatically depowered?
A At aircraft power up.
B As soon as engine is shut down.
C 5 mn after engine shutdown.
30 What is the purpose of the ENG FADEC GND PWR panel?
A To restore EEC power.
B To restore EIU power.
C To cut off EEC power.
31 When does the dedicated generator supply the EEC?
A When N2 is above 10%.
B When an engine is started.
C Only if the Aircraft Electrical Power fails.
32 How does the starter operate?
A Electrically.
B Pneumatically.
C Hydraulically.
33 In which case can the EEC abort the start?
A Automatic start and manual start.
B Automatic start only.
C Wet motoring.
34 Of which type is the ignition system?
A Low voltage, low energy.
- 62 -
B Low voltage, high energy.
C High voltage, high energy.
35 From where can igniters A and B be selected?
A The engine panel.
B The ECAM control panel.
C The EEC.
36 What causes an automatic continuous relight selection?
A IGN START selected.
B Flame-out detected.
C EEC failure.
37 What happens in manual mode when N2 reaches 43%?
A MAN START pushbutton ON light goes off.
B The EEC provides the ECAM with a message indicating that the start valve must be closed.
C The start valve automatically closes.
38 Which of the following controls the Booster Stage Bleed Valve?
A The BSBV master actuator.
B The FMU.
C The EEC.
39 What provides the HP Turbine vane internal cooling?
A The HPT/LPT ACC valve.
B The 10th stage make-up air valve.
C The 10th stage handling bleed valve.
40 Where is air taken from to cool Nº 4 bearing compartment?
A 7th stage.
B 10th stage.
C 12th stage.
41 Where are the engine controls located?
A On the overhead panel.
B On the overhead panel and the center pedestal.
C On the center pedestal.
42 Where are the engine primary parameters permanently displayed?
43 What is the purpose of the ENGINE MASTER SWITCH?
A To open or close the HP fuel Shut-Off Valve.
B To command and reset the FADEC functions.
C Both to open or close the HP fuel Shut-Off Valve and to command and reset the FADEC functions.
44 Which computer controls the engine thrust, either in manual mode or auto thrust mode?
A FMGC.
B FCU.
C EEC.
45 What is the normal cruise detent point?
A TOGA.
B FLX/MCT.
- 63 -
C CL.
46 When the throttle lever is between two detent points what position corresponds to the thrust limit?
A The upper detent point.
B The lower detent point.
C The actual throttle lever position.
47 In flight with the throttle lever between two detent points what defines the EPR rating limit?
A The throttle lever position.
B The upper detent point position.
C The lower detent point position.
48 With the auto thrust function active and the throttle lever between two detent points, what limits the
upper EPR command?
A The Throttle Lever Angle (TLA).
B The EPR limit.
C The EPR target.
49 What does the FMGC compute?
A The EPR limit.
B The EPR command.
C The EPR target.
50 What happens in case of EPR sensor failure?
A The EEC reverts to a manual N1 mode.
B The EEC reverts to a rated N1 mode.
C The EEC reverts to an unrated N1 mode.
51 How is the fuel PRSOV controlled?
A De-energized open.
B Energized open.
C To close when it receives a signal from the EEC.
52 How is the PRSOV closure command sent?
A Directly from the MASTER lever.
B From the MASTER lever via the EEC.
C From the MASTER lever via the EIU and the EEC.
53 Which condition is required to open the PRSOV?
A Fuel pressure from the fuel metering valve available.
B Latching torque motor de-energized.
C Both fuel pressure from the fuel metering available and latching torque motor de-energized.
54 How is the engine LP fuel shut off valve controlled?
A By the Engine fire pushbutton.
B Automatically when a fire is detected.
C By the MASTER lever or by the Engine fire Pushbutton.
55 How is the engine LP fuel shut-off valve actuated?
A By two electrical motors.
B By a dual solenoid
C Hydraulically by servo fuel.
56 The Engine primary parameters are displayed:
- 64 -
57 The Engine page is selected:
A Manually or automatically depending on flight phases.
B Manually only.
C Automatically only according to flight phases.
58 The Engine vibration indications are displayed:
A On the ENGINE/WARNING DISPLAY.
B On the ENGINE page.
C On the ENGINE page and the CRUISE page.
59 Which systems interface with the EVMU?
A ECAM - CFDS - AIDS.
B ECAM - CFDS - FADEC.
C CFDS - AIDS - ACARS.
60 How is the selection of the accelerometer sensors provided?
A The EEC selects the sensor to be used.
B The EVMU selects automatically a sensor for each flight.
C The MCDU is used to select the sensor to be used for the next flight.
61 Where is the Engine Vibration displayed?
A On the upper ECAM.
B On the cruise page.
C Both on the Engine and cruise pages.
62 When is it possible to operate the thrust reverser system?
A On ground only,
B On ground and in flight,
C In flight only.
63 How is the thrust reverser actuated?
A Electrically,
B Hydraulically,
C Pneumatically.
64 How is the directional valve controlled?
A Directly by the reverser lever,
B By the reverser lever through the EEC and EIU,
C By the reverser lever through the EEC.
65 What is the logic of the reverse operation?
A TLA position and aircraft on ground only.
B TLA position, aircraft on ground and Reverse indication green.
C TLA position, aircraft on ground, engine running (N2 condition) and both SECs and EIU signals.
66 Reverser system actuation is provided by two solenoid valves which are energized by the:
A Electronic Engine Control (EEC).
B Engine Interface Unit (EIU).
C Throttle Control Unit.
67 What does the CFDIU simulate during the MCDU reverse test?
A The TLA.
B The ground logic.
C The N2 condition.
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68 What is the position and power state of the directional control valve for normal flight?
A Stow position - solenoid energized.
B Stow position - solenoid de-energized.
C Neutral position - solenoid de-energized.
69 How is the thrust reverser movement sensed?
A By the hydraulic pressure switch.
B By proximity switches.
C By LVDTs on the upper actuators.
70 What is the purpose of the auto-restow system?
A To restow the thrust reverser immediately after detection of any uncommanded movement.
B To restow the thrust reverser after detection of any uncommanded movement of at least 10% of
travel.
C To automatically restow the thrust reverser on cancellation of a deploy command.
71 What happens if the oil scavenge filter is clogged?
A Oil filter clog warning is activated in the cockpit.
B A visual clogging indicator on the filter becomes red.
C Oil low press switch closes.
72 What protects the scavenge pumps from metallic particles?
A A Master Chip Detector.
B The scavenge filter.
C Six magnetic Chip Detectors with strainers.
73 Which of the following is not directly scavenged?
A 1, 2, 3, Bearing compartment.
B No 4 Bearing compartment.
C No 5 Bearing compartment.
74 Which condition is sufficient to close the entry corridor?
A Engine running.
B Engine running above 80% of N2.
C Engine running above minimum idle.
75 With the engine running, what is dangerous?
A The inlet suction.
B The inlet suction and the jet wake.
C The inlet suction, the jet wake and the noise.
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Air Conditioning System

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