A320 MCQ-1

A320
Multiple Choice Questions
Disclaimer
This document is for training purpose only.

Always refer latest revisions of manuals in case of conflict.
shantilal.joshi@goindigo.in
A320 TECHNICAL QUESTIONS
Contents
Air-conditioning, Pressurization and Ventilation System ......................................................... 4
Auto Flight System .................................................................................................................. 19
Communications ...................................................................................................................... 94
Electrical ................................................................................................................................ 110
Fire Protection System .......................................................................................................... 125
Flight Controls ....................................................................................................................... 135
Fuel System ........................................................................................................................... 181
Hydraulics.............................................................................................................................. 197
Ice & Rain Protection System ............................................................................................... 207
Indicating & Recording System ............................................................................................ 217
Landing Gears ....................................................................................................................... 267
Lights ..................................................................................................................................... 291
Navigation System................................................................................................................. 295
Oxygen System ...................................................................................................................... 329
Pneumatics System ................................................................................................................ 335
APU ....................................................................................................................................... 350
Doors ..................................................................................................................................... 357
Power Plant ............................................................................................................................ 360
Auto Flight System
Air-conditioning, Pressurization and Ventilation System
For air-conditioning purpose, the cabin is divided into

Two zones
Three zones
Four zones
There are two Packs, however both are required for dispatch of the aircraft.
True
False
Single pack is sufficient enough to maintain pressurization of aircraft

True
False
The air conditioning system is fully automatic.

A. True
B. False
Mark the correct statements:

1. The air conditioning system is fully automatic.
2. It provides continuous air renewal in the three zones.
3. It maintains a constant, selected temperature in the three zones.
4. These three zones are independently controlled.
A. 1
B. 2, 3
C. 1, 2, 3
D. 1, 2, 3, 4
Air for air conditioning system is supplied by the pneumatic system,

A. True
B. False
Temperature regulation is optimized via

A. The hot air pressure regulating valve,
B. The trim air valves
Questions on Chapter 22 Page 4 of 428

Auto Flight System
C. Both are correct.
Temperature regulation is controlled by two Air Conditioning System Controllers.

A. True
B. False
From which of the cabin crew panel, cabin zone temperature can be modified that is
selected from the cockpit?
A. From Forward Attendant Panel {FAP] and Aft Attendant Panel {AAP}
B. From FAP
C. From AAP
D. This feature is not available on the present fleet of IndiGo A320 a/c.
There are three Trim Air valves, one for Cockpit zone and one each for FWD and AFT cabin
zones. Trim air valves optimize the respective zone temperature by:
Adding hot air
Adding FRESH air
Modulating the pack flow
Adding re-circulated CABIN air
The temperature of each aircraft zone is optimized by means of:

A) A HOT AIR valve.
B) A ZONE control valve.
C) A PACK FLOW VALVE.
D) A TRIM AIR valve.

1. The cockpit trim air valve is controlled by the air conditioning system controller 1.
2. The cabin trim air valves {FWD and AFT} are controlled by the air conditioning system
controller 2,
3. These trim air valves adjust the temperature by adding hot air.
4. In case of HOT AIR pressure-regulating valve failure or closure, all trim valves also go
to close position.
1,3
2,3
1,2,3
1,2,3,4

Auto Flight System
The cockpit trim air valve, controlled by the

A. Air conditioning system controller 1
B. Air conditioning system controller 2
C. Air conditioning system controller 1 and 2
The cabin trim air valves are controlled by the

A. Air conditioning system controller 1
B. Air conditioning system controller 2
C. Air conditioning system controller 1 and 2
FWD cabin temp selector is set to 12 O clock position

FWD cabin temperature is controlled to 18 deg. c
FWD cabin is controlled to a temp of 24 deg c.
AFT cabin is controlled to a temp of 24 deg c.
FWD and AFT cabin temp is controlled to 18 deg. c
Position of TRIM Air valves and HOT AIR pressure regulating valve are indicated on
COND SD page.
BLEED SD page
COND & BLEED SD pages
COND and CAB PRESS SD pages.
When LO is selected on the PACK FLOW selector, the pack flow is:
80%
100%
120%
Even when LO is selected on the PACK FLOW selector, the pack flow is automatically
selected NORM in case of:
Single pack operation.
APU supplying bleed air.
Cooling demand not being met.
All the above.

Auto Flight System
When LO is selected on the PACK FLOW selector, the pack flow is automatically
selected HI in case of:
APU supplying bleed air.
abnormally hot and humid conditions
Number of passengers in the cabin higher than 115.
Both, (A) and (B).
When only one pack is operating and Pack selector is at LO. What is the flow?
80% of normal flow.
150% of normal flow.
Normal flow
120% of normal flow.
Inputs to the mixer unit are:

From Packs {1 + 2} only
From both Packs and Cabin Fan
From both Packs, Cabin Fan, and Emergency Ram Air
From Packs, Cabin Fan, Emergency Ram Air and LP Ground inlets.
HOT-AIR PRESSURE-REGULATING VALVE closes when:

1. You press the HOT AIR pushbutton on the AIR COND panel,
2. Both lanes of ACSC #1{air conditioning system controller} fail.
3. The duct overheats, or
4. The cockpit trim air valve fails, or
5. Both cabin trim air valves fail.
1
2
1,2,3
1,2,3,4,5
What is the effect of selecting the Hot Air p/b switch to OFF.?
It will close hot air pressure regulating valve only.
It will open all the trim air valves.
It will close hot air pressure regulating valve and all the trim air valves.
It will close hot air pressure valve and open all the trim air valves.
Hot air "FAULT" light illuminates on the air conditioning panel.

The hot air press reg. valve opens and all the trim air valves close.
The hot air press reg. valve closes and all the trim air valves open.
The hot air press reg. valve closes and all the trim air valves close.

Auto Flight System
After taxi out, HOT AIR p/b amber FAULT light comes ON along with associated ECAM
caution. What could be the reasons?
Duct over-pressure is detected.
Duct over-heat is detected.
Any of the cabin trim air valve has failed, stuck in open
All of the above conditions.
What happens if the hot air pressure regulating valve fails in the open position?
No effect on temp regulation
Pack 1 controls the cockpit, pack 2 controls the cabin temp to the mean value of
the selected temp.
Trim air valves go to closed position to optimize the temperatures as hot air keeps supplied
by Hot Air Valve.
No effect on the cockpit. Cabin temp are controlled to a fixed temp of 15 Deg.c
Select correct statements:

Pack Flow Control Valve closes automatically in case of
1. Pack Compressor outlet-overheat.
2. Engine start sequence
3. Fire pushbutton, of the engine on the related side, is pressed,
4. Ditching is selected.
A) 2,3,4
B) 1,2,3,4
C) 1,2,3
D) 2,3
Temperature regulation of the Packs is automatic, and controlled by ….

Associated Pack controller.
Associated Zone controller.
Both, the associated Pack controller and the Zone controller.
The associated Air conditioning system controller as there are no Pack Controllers or Zone
Controllers on new A320 aircrafts.
When ACSC No.1 fails,

1. Pack flow control valve no. 1 will close.

Auto Flight System
2. Pack flow control valve no.2 will go to higher flow irrespective of the PACK
FLOW Selector position.
3. Hot Air Pressure regulating Valve will close.
4. Cockpit + Cabin temp at fixed temp only because of Hot Air Press Regulating
Valve closure and all trim air valves closure.
A.) 3,4
B.) 3
C.) 1,2,3,4
D.) 1,3,4
With ACSC No.1 failure, flight will be on single pack.

A.) True
B.) False
When ACSC No.1 fails, Pack flow control valve no.2 will go to higher flow irrespective of
the PACK FLOW Selector position.
A.) True
B.) False
What happens when ACSC No.2 fails?

1. Pack flow control valve no. 2 will close and Pack flow control valve no.1 will
go to higher flow irrespective of the Pack Flow Selector position.
2. Cabin Trim Air Valves {FWD + AFT} close.
3. Cockpit temp control normal but Cabin temp at fixed temp only.
A) 1
B) 1,2
C) 1,2,3
D) 2
How are the Ram Air Inlet and outlets controlled?

Open during takeoff and landing.
Closed during takeoff, closed during landing till the speed reaches 70 kts
Closed during takeoff and remain open until the speed reaches 70 kts during landing
Closed during landing when the speed is less than 70 kts.

Auto Flight System
With Pack 1 and 2 Fault, the recommended max FL is

100 / MEA {whichever is higher}
Select the correct statements:

1. The guarded p/b of Emergency RAM AIR is to be used when Cabin differential
Pressure is less than 1 psi.
2. Emergency RAM AIR is used in case of Smoke Removal Procedure to remove
smoke.
3. Emergency RAM AIR is used in case of both Packs 1+ 2 Fail.
A) 1,2,3
B) 1,2
C) 1
D) 2,3
When should RAM air p/b switch be used? What happens then?
Only when differential pressure is less than 1 psi. It opens the EMER RAM AIR inlet and
outflow valve open to 50 % position if CAB is AUTO.
Whenever more ventilation is needed
Only when differential pressure is less than 1 psi, it opens the EMER RAM AIR inlet and
closes the packs
When differential pressure is less than 1 psi, it opens the EMER RAM AIR inlet and closes the
outflow valve.
When would you select RAM AIR ON?

A) If additional cooling is required on the ground.
B) Dual pack failure or smoke removal.
C) When pack temperatures are too high.
D) When there is smoke in the cabin.
What limitation is associated with the ram air valve?

Auto Flight System
A) Do not open if cabin pressure is greater than 1 psi.

B) Only open while on the ground.
C) Will not open if the DITCHING switch is off.

Auto Flight System
Cabin Pressure system operates:

1. Automatically,
2. Semi-Automatically,
3. Manually.
A) 1, 3
B) 1, 2, 3
When the system is in automatic or semi-automatic mode, one controller is active, the other is on standby.
True
False
How many of the independent electric motors power the outflow valve?
A) One
B) Two
C) Three
D) Four
In manual pressure control mode

ECAM indications are not available
Outflow valve position signal is transmitted via manual backup section of controller No.1
Outflow valve position signal is transmitted via back up section of controller No. 2
Outflow valve is set to full open always.

1. Cabin pressurization system has one RPCU
2. Cabin pressurization system has two RPCUs
3. Cabin pressurization system has two Cabin Pressure Controllers (CPC)
4. Cabin pressurization system has one Cabin Pressure Controllers (CPC)
A. 2, 3
B. 1, 3
C. 2, 4
D. 1, 4
Only one controller {CPC} operates at a time. An automatic transfer from one CPC to another controller
occurs:
A. 70 s after each landing.
B. If the operating system fails.
When will Auto transfer from one CPC to another controller occur?
At each landing initiated 70 sec after each landing.

Auto Flight System
In case of failure of the operating system.

If FMGS fails
(A) and (B) are correct
In cruise, you find cabin V/S is fluctuating up and down and is uncomforting to you as well as to pax. You
want to switchover the Cabin Pressure Controller and it is done by:
Selecting the Cabin Pressure MODE SEL p/b to MAN and then back to AUTO.
As in (A) but the MODE SEL should be left in MAN for at least 10 sec
The switch over may be carried out not more than twice in a flight.
Both (A) and (C) are correct
The maximum descent rate for cabin is 750 ft/min.

True
False
If you have to divert to a place for which landing field elevation data is not available in the FMGC data base,
you will have to set manually the landing field elevation by pulling the LDG ELEV Sel. The cabin altitude is …..
Only controllable manually through the MAN V/S CTL sw.
Still controlled automatically through the out flow valve.
Still controlled normally through the safety valve
Only controllable manually through the LDG ELEV selector.
If landing field elevation from FMGC is not available, you have to set manually by pulling the LDG ELEV Sel. The
cabin altitude is …..
Only controllable manually through the MAN V/S CTL sw.
Still controlled automatically through the out flow valve.
Still controlled normally through the safety valve
Only controllable manually through the LDG ELEV selector.
When FMGS data is not available for automatic pressurization,

A. The crew only needs to select the landing field elevation on the CAB PRESS Panel.
B. The crew only needs to feed the landing field elevation in the APPR Perf Page.
C. Both of the above.
Mark the correct statement:

LDG ELEV AUTO appears in green when LDG ELEV selector is in AUTO.
LDG ELEV MAN appears in green if LDG ELEV Selector is not in AUTO.
If ECAM has CAB PR LDG ELEV FAULT, landing field elevation from FMGC is not available and landing elevation
must be manually selected with LDG ELEV selector.
All the above are correct

Auto Flight System
Which are the correct statement regarding CAB PRESS mode selector p/b?
With both the CPC failure, mode selector FAULT light comes on.
With single CPC failure, mode selector FAULT light comes on
As in (A) and when the mode selector p/b is selected to MAN, MAN illuminates white and FAULT extinguishes.
As in (A) and when the mode selector p/b is selected to MAN, MAN illuminates white and FAULT remains
illuminated.
The MODE SEL p/b in MAN mode, allows you to use the MAN V/S CTL sw in order to
Manually alter the air inlet valve setting.
Manually adjust the pack flow valve.
Manually adjust the outflow valve.
Manually alter the pack outflow valve setting.
About MAN V/S CTL toggle switch:

1. The switch actuation is very fast.
2. The switch should not be maintained in UP or DOWN position for longer time.
3. If it is maintained in UP outflow valve will open in 10 seconds.
4. As outflow valve operates slowly, the pilot must hold the toggle switch in the UP or DOWN position
until target V/S is reached.
If you have to close OFV during a flight, what will you do?
Ditching p/b _ ON
Mode selector to MAN & V/S CTL Sw to Down
Mode selector to MAN & V/S CTL Sw to UP
Blower and Extract p/bs to OVRD.
By increasing cabin altitude in flight, what happens to Cabin Diff Pressure?

It will increase.
It will decrease.
There will be no change.
How to increase the cabin altitude {or reduce the cabin differential pressure} if required?
1. Select the MODE SEL to MAN on the Cabin Press Panel.
2. Hold the MAN V/S CTL Sel. to UP to increase the V/S of cabin, thereby increasing the Cabin Alt.
3. Hold the MAN V/S CTL Sel. to DN to increase the V/S of cabin, thereby increasing the Cabin Alt.
1,2
1,3
CABIN PRESS mode selector is in MAN. If Ditching p/b is selected ON, the
Outflow valve will not close automatically.
OFV will close automatically
Ram Air inlet valve open

Auto Flight System
Engine bleed valve opens
Two safety valves are provided such that

Each safety valve avoids excessive positive and negative differential pressure.
One safety valve avoids excessive positive differential pressure and another
safety valve avoids excessive negative differential pressure.
Both safety valves avoid excessive positive differential pressure only.
Both safety valves avoid excessive negative differential pressure only.
On ECAM’s Cab. Press Page, the outflow valve indicator changes to amber if:
It is fully closed
It is fully open on the ground
It is fully open in flight
It is not fully open on the ground
At what cabin altitude do you get an ECAM warning?

A) 8,800 feet.
B) 9,000 feet
C) 9,550 feet
D) 14,000 feet.
What is the meaning of CAB PR LDG ELEV FAULT?

A) Wrong selection of LDG ELEV is made.
B) LDG ELEV selector is moved out of auto without requirement
C) LDG ELEV data from FMGC is not available.
D) All the above are correct.
To see the operation of the outflow valve, it is necessary to call ECAM:

Cond page
Bleed page
Press page
Vent page
On ECAM Cab. press page, the cabin altitude indication changes to red when cabin altitude is:
> 14,000 ft
> 12,500 ft
> 10,000 ft
> 9,550 ft

Auto Flight System
Which of the following areas are ventilated?

1. The avionics, controlled by the avionics equipment ventilation controller (AEVC),
2. The battery,
3. The lavatories
4. Galleys.
A) 1, 2, 3
B) 1, 2, 3, 4
Avionics Ventilation System has two Modes of operation and they are-- GND Mode and FLT Mode.
A. True
B. False
When Avionics Ventilation System is working in GND Mode, the following Configurations are possible in
normal operation:
1. Open Configuration
2. Intermediate Configuration
3. Close Configuration
A. 1,3
B. 2,3
C. 1,2,3
When Avionics Ventilation System is working in FLT Mode, the following Configurations are possible in
normal operation:
1. Open Configuration
2. Intermediate Configuration
3. Close Configuration
A. 1,3
B. 2,3
C. 1,2,3
You have taxied out when OAT is + 14°C. What is the configuration of avionics ventilation?
Open configuration
Closed configuration
Intermediate configuration.
You have taxied out when OAT is + 40°C. What is the configuration of avionics ventilation?
{Reference GND Threshold =+12 rising / +9 falling, FLT Threshold = +35 rising / +32 falling}

Auto Flight System
Open configuration
You have set the Thrust Levers to FLX/MCT for take-off and OAT is +40°C. What is the configuration of
avionics ventilation?
{Reference GND Threshold =+12 rising / +9 falling, FLT Threshold = +35 rising / +32 falling}
Open configuration
What are the conditions required for open configuration?

The aircraft must be on ground ,with the thrust lever not at T/O and skin temp. above a given threshold.
The aircraft must be in the air ,with the thrust lever not at T/O and skin temp. below the given thresh hold.
The aircraft must be on ground ,with the thrust lever at T/O and skin temp. above a given threshold.
What happens during smoke drill when both the blower and the extract p/b switches are set to override?
The Avionics system goes to Open Configuration.
The Avionics system goes to Intermediate Configuration.
The Avionics system goes to Close Configuration.
When both the Blower and Extract p/b switches are set to OVRD, during smoke drill, the avionic equipment
air is ……
Taken from atmosphere and thrown overboard.
Taken from atmosphere and circulated through skin heat exchanger.
Taken from air conditioning bay and thrown overboard .
Taken from air conditioning bay and circulated through skin heat exchanger.
In case of heavy rain which p/bs are to be pressed for landing?

Extract to OVRD
Blower to OVRD
Blower and Extract to OVRD
Ditching p/b.
What indications are given on the overhead panel, if smoke is detected in the avionics ventilation duct?
1. FAULT light in BLOWER pb-sw
2. FAULT light in EXTRACT pb-sw
3. SMOKE light in GEN 1 LINE p/b.
1,2,3
1,2
3
What happens when you press Extract P/B to OVRD {it’s required when in heavy rain on ground}?
1. Extract Fan stops.

Auto Flight System
2. Extract Fan keeps running.

3. Air-conditioning air is added for ventilation.
4. Avionics ventilation sys goes into Closed Config.
A) 1,3,4
B) 2,3,4
C) 2,4
D) 1,4
What happens if you press Blower P/B to OVRD?

1. Blower Fan stops.
2. Blower Fan keeps running.
3. Air-conditioning air is added for ventilation.
4. Avionics ventilation sys goes into Closed Config.
A. 1,3,4
B. 2,3,4
C. 2,4
D. 1,4

Auto Flight System
Auto Flight System
Select the Flight Management functions of FMGS from the following:

1). Navigation,
2). Flight Plan
3). A/THR commands.
4). Performance Optimization,
5). AP commands
6). FD commands
A.) 1,2,4
B.) 3,5,6
C.) 1,3,5,6
D.) 1,2,3,4,5,6
Select the Flight Guidance functions of FMGS from the following:

1). Navigation,
2). Flight Plan
3). A/THR commands.
4). Performance Optimization,
5). AP commands
6). FD commands
A.) 1,2,4
B.) 3,5,6
C.) 1,3,5,6
D.) 1,2,3,4,5,6
Flight Augmentation (FAC) part of the FMGS provides:

Maneuvering speed computation
Flight envelope computation
Low energy warning and wind shear detection function
All of the above

Auto Flight System
The Navigation database (5 Mbytes) contains standard navigation data:

Navaids, Waypoints,
Airways, Enroute information,
Holding patterns,
Airports, runways, procedures (SIDs, STARS, etc.),
Company routes, alternates.
The Airline Modifiable Information (AMI), also described as the FM Airline Configuration
file, contains:
‐ Airline policy values: THR RED altitude, ACC altitude, EO ACC altitude, PERF factor,
IDLE factor.
‐ Fuel policy values: Fuel for taxi, % of route reserve, maximum and minimum values of
route reserve, etc.
‐ AOC functions customization.

A. Each FMGC has its own set of databases.
B. There is only one database and both FMGC share it.
The individual databases can be

A. Independently loaded into their respective FMGC,
B. Independently copied from one FMGC to the other.
Which of the database has to be updated every 28th day?

A. The Navigation database
B. The Airline Modifiable Information (AMI)
C. The Aircraft Performance database
D. The Magnetic Variation database
The Navigation database contains standard navigation data.

A. True
B. False
Which database has THR RED Altitude or ACCL ALT?

A. The Navigation database
B. The Airline Modifiable Information (AMI)
C. The Aircraft Performance database

Auto Flight System
The Airline Modifiable Information (AMI), or the FM Airline Configuration file, contains:
1. Airline policy values
2. Fuel policy values
3. Company routes, alternates
4. Engine model
5. Performance model
A. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
B. 1, 2
C. 1, 2, 3
D. 4, 5
The Aircraft Performance database includes:

1. The Engine model,
2. Aero dynamical model
3. Performance model.
A. 1, 3
B. 2, 3
C. 1, 2, 3
D. 3
The airline cannot modify Aircraft Performance database.

A. True
B. False
The flight crew can create 20 waypoints, 10 runways, 20 navaids, and 5 routes.
A. True
B. False

1. The FMGS Data Base contains Performance and Navigation information.
2. Crew has to check and verify that the Database is valid as far as AIRAC
dates are concerned.
3. If the Database date has expired, it must be changed prior to entering the
preflight data.
A. 1,
B. 2,3
C. 1,2,3
D. 1,3
DSC-22_10-10 P 3/6

Auto Flight System
What are the items that are stored within the FMGCs' navigation database?
The nav database, updated every 28 days, has a wide range of standard navigation data including:
1. waypoints
2. navaids
3. airports
4. runways
5. holding patterns
6. airways
7. departure, arrival, and approach procedures

Auto Flight System
ANNUNCIATORS (ON THE TOP OF THE

KEYBOARD)
FM 1 and FM 2 (amber) The onside FM is

failed
IND (amber) The onside FM detects an
independent mode of operation while both
FM are healthy.
RDY (green) MCDU has passed its power up
test after it was turned off using its DIM key.
ANNUNCIATORS (ON THE SIDE OF THE

KEYBOARD)
FAIL (amber) Indicates that the Multipurpose

Control and Display Unit (MCDU) has failed.
FM (white) Comes on while the flight crew is
using the MCDU to display peripherals.
This light tells the flight crew that the FMGC
has an important message to deliver. The
flight crew accesses the message by
pressing the MCDU
MENU key and the line select key adjacent to
the FMGC prompt.
MCDU MENU (white) Indicates that the flight

crew should call up a peripheral linked to the
MCDU (such as ACARS, ATSU or CFDS).
What is the meaning of FAIL (amber) Key?

Indicates that the Multipurpose Control and Display Unit (MCDU) has failed.
Indicates that the 1R LSK function of Multipurpose Control and Display Unit (MCDU) has failed.
Indicates that the 1L LSK function of Multipurpose Control and Display Unit (MCDU) has failed.
All are correct.
MCDU MENU (white) indicates that:

The flight crew should call up a peripheral linked to the MCDU (such as ACARS, ATSU or CFDS).
The MCDU displays “REQ” next to the system's name (such as ACARS, ATSU or CFDS).
DSC-22_20-50-10-28 P 3/152

Auto Flight System
Which of the following annunciators are on the top of the MCDU?

1). FM1,
2). IND,
3). RDY,
4). FM2
5). FAIL,
6). MCDU MENU,
7). FM
1,2,3,4
5,6,7
5,7
6
Which of the following annunciators are on the left side of the MCDU?
1). FM1,
2). IND,
3). RDY,
4). FM2
5). FAIL,
6). MCDU MENU,
7). FM
1,2,3,4
5,6,7
5,7
When a double entry is needed on the MCDU (e.g. wind direction/speed: 270/110) the
separating slash must be used. The trailing entry of a pair must be preceded by a slash
if it is entered alone.
True
False
An FMGS message which requires immediate attention is displayed on the MCDU in:
Red
Amber
Magenta
An amber box on the MCDU screen indicates:

An optional data entry.
A mandatory data entry.
A compulsory reporting point.
Auto Flight System
The waypoint indicated will be overflown.
The FCU allows

Modifications in the active flight plan.
Selection of FG modes
Selection of radio navigation frequencies
IRS alignment.
What is the meaning of white round dot displays next to the windows on the FCU?
Selected guidance has been engaged.
Automatic guidance has been engaged.
Managed guidance has been armed or engaged.
There are no such lights on A320 FCU.
The altitude window always displays an altitude selected by the flight crew (never
dashes).
True
False
When the altitude knob on the FCU is pulled:

The altitude is armed.
The current altitude is canceled.
OPEN CLIMB or OPEN DESCENT engages.
All are correct

1. The FCU has four knobs.
2. The knobs can be rotated, pushed in, and pulled out to arm or engage managed
guidance for a given mode or to engage a selected guidance mode.
3. In managed guidance (lateral, vertical guidance or managed speed), the
corresponding window is dashed except for ALT knob/window.
A. 1, 2
B. 1, 2, 3
C. 1, 3

Auto Flight System

1. Turning a knob without pulling it, displays a value that is the sum of the current
target and the turn action value.
2. If you turn the knob without pulling it for HDG/TRK or V/S windows, the display
remains on for 45 sec and thereafter the dashes reappear.
3. If you turn the knob without pulling it for SPD/MACH window, the display
remains on for 10 sec and thereafter the dashes reappear.
A. 1
B. 1, 2, 3
C. 1, 2
The pilot interfaces with the FMGS using the:

FCU only
FCU, MCDU &Thrust Levers.
FCU & MCDU

Auto Flight System
The flight crew uses the ….?.....page in pre-flight phase, to initialize the flight plan and align the
inertial reference system.
A. INIT A
B. PERF
C. INIT B

A. The INIT A page can be accessed on ground or in flight.
B. The INIT A page can be accessed only on ground.
C. The INIT A page can be accessed only in flight.
Why Cruising Flight level and temperatures at cruising flight levels are required in INIT Page A?
A. So that on time performance is maintained.
B. For accurate predictions by FMGS
C. For crew awareness only.
Can you access INIT B Page after engine start?

A. Yes
B. No
On which page do you enter ZFW/ZFWCG?

A. INIT A
B. INIT B
C. Fuel Prediction
If you need to modify BLOCK fuel entry or ZFW/ZFWCG entries after engine start, where should you
re – enter?
A. Can not be entered.
B. Use Fuel Pred Page and enter
C. INIT A
D. INIT B
On FUEL PRED page The EFOB at destination will turn to amber, if it becomes less than the MIN
DEST FOB value.
A. True
B. False
On which page can you see CG in flight?

A. Can not be seen
B. Use Fuel Pred Page
C. See at Permanent data area on SD
D. It is to be seen on ND

1. F PLN Page A displays time, speed, and altitude predictions for each active flight plan waypoint.
2. F PLN Page B displays fuel predictions and forecast winds at each waypoint.
3. The FROM / TO flight plan leg is called the active leg.

Auto Flight System
A. 1
B. 1,2
C. 1, 2, 3

A. RAD NAV Page enables the pilot to select or verify the radio NAVAIDs {VOR, VOR/DME ILS, and
ADF} tuned for display purposes only.
B. If either RMP is set on NAV, this page is blank on both MCDUs.

Auto Flight System
Normal mode of operation for FMGS is

Dual Mode
Single Mode
Independent Mode
When both FMGCs are working, one will be Master and other will be Slave so that all
data inserted into any MCDU is transferred to both FMGCs and to all peripherals
True
False
If no AP is engaged,
FMGC1 is master if FD1 p/b is on and FD2 p/b off.
FMGC1 is master if both the FDs are on.
FMGC2 is master if the FD1 p/b is off, and FD2 p/b on.
All are correct.

If no AP/FD is engaged, A/THR is controlled by FMGC1.
If two APs are engaged, FMGC1 is master.
If only one autopilot (AP) is engaged, the related FMGC is master:
All are correct
On an auto-land approach, with both autopilots on, which FMGC is master?

FMGC 1
FMGC 2
Both
When one FMGC fails

The system works in SINGLE mode
The system works in INDEPENDENT mode
OPP FMGC IN PROGRESS message appears on MCDU
Both (a) and (c) are correct
When FMGC1 fails,

A.) On ND1, Map will disappear and a message will be displayed “MAP NOT AVAIL”.
B.) On both NDs Maps will disappear and “MAP NOT AVAIL” is displayed on both
NDs.
C.) The message will disappear when ND1 range and mode are set as per ND2.
D.) Both {A} & {C} are correct.

Auto Flight System
How will you identify if FMGS is operating in Independent Mode?

1). Scratch pad message on each MCDU will show “INDEPENDENT OPERATION”
and
2). IND annunciator light on each MCDU.
3). Both AP/FDs cannot be engaged.
4). On the POS MONITOR page of MCDU 1, FMGS position of FMGC 2 is not
displayed and vice versa.
5). On the RAD NAV page, navaids tuned on the opposite MCDU are not displayed.
Corresponding fields are blank.
6). On the RAD NAV page, navaids tuned on the opposite MCDU are not displayed.
Corresponding fields show last readings.
A.) 1,2,4,6
B.) 1,2,3,5
C.) 1,2,3,6
How will you identify if FMGC 1 has failed and FMGC 2 is operating in Single Mode?
1). FM1 light on MCDU 1 only will appear indicating FMGC 1 has failed.
2). ND 1 displays “MAP NOT AVAILABLE” & “SET OFFSIDE RANGE MODE”
messages as long as ND1 range & mode are not identical to those on ND2.
3). Once both NDs are on same range, message “OPP FMGC IN PROCESS” will appear on
ND1.
4). “OPP FMGC IN PROCESS” will appear on MCDU1 also.
5). FM2 light comes on both MCDUs indicating FMGC 2 is working.
6). 2FD2 will be displayed on both FMAs.
7). Only FMGC 2 position is computed and FMGC 2 tunes the off side navaids.
A.) 1,3,4,6, 7
B.) 2,3,4,5
C.) 1,3,5
In flight with dual FMGCs failure, could we still navigate and complete our flight?
Yes, select the ROSE mode on the EFIS control panel.
Yes, by using the RMP. Lift the guard and depress the NAV switch and you can dial
appropriate frequencies.
No, declare an emergency and advise ATC. Expect vectors to destination.

Auto Flight System

If both FMGCs fail, the back up navigation is selected by MCDU MENU p/b by the
crew on some a/cs. The back up navigation provides the following functions:
1) Flight Planning
2) Aircraft position using onside IRS, IRS3, or GPIRS position
3) F-PLN display on ND
4) No AP/FD NAV mode
5) Limited lateral revision
6) F-PLN automatic sequencing.
All are correct

Auto Flight System
What are the Autopilot functions?

Automatic landing and go around.
Stabilization of the aircraft around its center of gravity.
Acquisition and tracking of a flight path.
All of the above.
If autopilot is engaged without FDs?

HGD V/S or TRK FPA modes will be engaged
HDG and SPD modes will be engaged
OP CLIMB and NAV modes will be engaged
EXP CLIMB and NAV modes will be engaged
If one AP is selected ON with both FDs OFF, the A/P engages in HGD V/S or TRK FPA
mode depending upon which position of HGD V/S or TRK FPA p/b is selected on FCU.
True
False
If one A/P pushbutton is set to ON with at least one FD already ON, the AP engages in the
current active FD modes.
TRUE
FALSE
When one AP is engaged, the corresponding FCU pushbutton comes on and AP1 (2) is displayed
on the FMA.
TRUE.
FALSE
AP engagement increases the breakout force on the side stick.

TRUE as the side stick is difficult to move when AP is engaged.
FALSE as the side stick can be moved freely even if AP is engaged.
With the autopilot engaged, either side-stick can be moved freely.

True.
False, moving either side stick will cause the autopilot(s) to disengage
False, only the PNF's side stick will freely move.

Auto Flight System
The Auto pilot commands the

Position of the flight control surfaces for pitch, roll, and yaw
Nose wheel position,
„a‟ and „b‟ above are correct
Both autopilots can be engaged together and active in any phase of flight.
True
False
In normal law with all protections active, the AP will disconnect if

High speed protection is active
AOA protection is active
Bank angle is more than 45 deg
All the above are correct.
Can the autopilot be used for a single engine approach and auto land?
Yes.
No.

Auto Flight System
What is the meaning of -FD2 on the FMA?

FD1 in-op and FD2 engaged.
FD1 off and FD2 engaged.
What is the meaning of 1FD- on the FMA?

FD1 engaged and FD2 in-op.
FD1 engaged and FD2 off.
Indications on FMA are:

1FD1: if both FDs engaged and FD2 fails.
2FD1: if both FDs engaged and FD1fails.

Auto Flight System
When will the Flight Directors bars flash?

When a reversion occurs.
When loss of LOC or G/S signal in LAND mode.
All of the above.
The Flight Director bars are out of view when Bank angle exceeds 67°.
True
False.
For FD BARS:
1. The pitch bar is displayed if a vertical mode is engaged.
2. The roll bar is displayed if a lateral mode is engaged.
3. The pitch bar is displayed even if a vertical mode is not engaged.
4. The roll bar is displayed even if a lateral mode is not engaged.
A. 1,2
B. 1,2,3,4
What happens if both localizer and both glide slope receivers fail ?
A. LOC & G/S scales flash, FD bars flash.
B. LOC & G/S scales disappear from PFD
C. LOC & GS flags appear on both PFDs and both NDs
D. LOC & GS flags appear on both PFDs only
On PFD, Roll FD bar is flashing permanently. What does it indicate?

A. Reversion of FD to HDG mode
B. LOC Transmission failure
C. LOC Receiver failure
D. LOC & G/S both receivers failure
Yaw bar is displayed on PFD in the following mode

A. RWY mode only
B. Roll out mode only
C. RWY TRK mode
D. RWY or Roll out mode
If FPV/FPD was previously selected during approach, it reverts to FD bars at go-around

engagement.
True
False

Auto Flight System

1. The yaw bar is displayed in RWY mode on takeoff
2. The yaw bar is displayed in FLARE and ROLL OUT modes at landing.
3. The yaw bar is displayed only in ROLL OUT mode at landing.
1,2,
1,2,3
3

When a localizer is available, you will see Yaw Bar on PFDs up to 30 ft RA, on takeoff (in
RWY mode) and during landing (in FLARE and ROLL OUT mode.).
On landing, in ROLLOUT mode, with AP engaged; the FD bars remain in view at all times.
Both are correct.

Auto Flight System
What are the different types of flight guidance?

Slaved and managed.
Automatic and manual.
Managed and selected.
Managed and manual.
The Armed Vertical Modes are displayed on the Flight Mode Annunciator on the
second line in:
Blue or magenta.
Blue or green.
White
The Engaged Vertical Modes are displayed on the Flight Mode Annunciator on the first
line in:
Green
Green or Magenta
Blue
When the aircraft is in the Managed Guidance mode, it is:

Guided by the pilot selecting the specific flight modes and parameter target values on the
FCU.
Responding to pilot inputs of speed, altitude, and heading selected on the FCU.
Following lateral, vertical and speed profiles as determined by the IRS'S.
Following lateral, vertical and speed profiles as determined by the FMGS.
Managed guidance is engaged by:

Pulling on the desired FCU selector knob.
Pushing on the desired FCU selector knob.
Rotating 90° the desired FCU selector knob.
When MANAGED GUIDANCE is working

FCU windows including ALT window are dashed
FCU windows shows the values selected by FMGC
FCU windows except ALT windows are dashed.
As in (c) and white dots illuminate on FCU next to each window

Auto Flight System
The managed AP/FD lateral modes are

NAV, HDG, APPR, LOC, RWY, RWY TRK
HDG, NAV, APPR, LOC, GA TRK
HDG, NAV, GA, GA-TRK
NAV, APPR, LOC, RWY, RWY TRK, GA TRK
� Managed guidance
Take-off :
- RWY : automatic runway axis follow up through ILS use
- RWY. TRK : follow up of the memorized runway axis
- SRS : pitch guidance to maintain V2 + 10 Climb/Cruise/Descent :
- NAV : lateral guidance along the defined F.PLN
- CLB/DES : vertical guidance with respect of all the F.PLN defined constraints
- APP NAV : lateral guidance along a defined non precision approach Approach and
landing :
- APPR : ILS approach (ILS beams capture and track) and non precision approach
- LOC : LOC use only (capture and track)
- FLARE : automatically performed around 30ft
- FINAL : vertical guidance along a defined non precision approach
� Selected guidance
Lateral :
- HDG/TRK : selected on FCU Vertical :
- OP CLB/OP DES : open modes for level changes with a fixed thrust and speed
held on elevator
- EXPED : level change with maximum climb/descent
- ALT : altitude capture and hold
- V/S-FPA : vertical speed or flight path angle track

Auto Flight System
What are the essential Navigation functions of FMGS?

A. Computation and Evaluation of position
B. Radio navigation tuning
C. Alignment of Inertial Reference System.
D. All are correct.
In computation of position, FMGS selects the most accurate position, considering the
estimated accuracy and integrity of each positioning equipment.
True
False
What is FM Position?
Each FMGC computes its own aircraft position.
It is from a MIX IRS position and a computed radio position, or
It is from a MIX IRS position and a GPS position.
The FMGS selects the most accurate position, considering the estimated accuracy and integrity of each
positioning equipment.
GPS/INERTIAL is the basic navigation mode, provided GPS data is valid and successfully tested.
Otherwise, navaids plus inertial or inertial only are used.
What is Mix IRS Position?

Each FMGC receives a position from each of the three IRSs, and computes a mean-weighted average
called the “MIX IRS” position.
Mean-weighted average means…………..

If one of the IRSs drifts abnormally, the MIX IRS position uses an algorithm that decreases the influence of
the drifting IRS within the MIX IRS position.
If one of the IRSs fails, each FMGC uses only one IRS (onside IRS or IRS3). Each IRS position and inertial
speed are continuously tested. If the test fails, the corresponding IRS is rejected.
Navigation modes in the decreasing priority are:

GPS/INERTIAL is the basic, provided GPS data is valid and successfully tested.
Navaids plus inertial or
Inertial only are used.
What is GPIRS Position? How many of the GPIRS positions are in the system? Name
them.
Of the three GPIRS positions that each FMGC receives, the FMS selects one GPIRS position
based on a figure of merit and priority.
The FMS uses the following hierarchy to perform the selection:
‐ Onside GPIRS position
‐ GPIRS 3
‐ Opposite GPIRS position.

Auto Flight System
For FM1, which is the priority for selecting GPIRS position?

1. GPIRS 1 position
2. GPIRS 2 position.
3. GPIRS 3 position.
1, 2, 3
1, 3, 2
3, 2, 1
The flight crew can deselect/select the GPS position on the ……. page, if necessary.
SELECTED NAVAIDS page
GPS MONITOR page
Information about the GPS position is displayed on the ....... page.

SELECTED NAVAIDS page
GPS MONITOR page
For computing Radio position, can FMGC1 use No. 2 DMEs and VORs?
YES
NO
For computing Radio Position, which Navaids are used? Name them?
DME/DME
VOR/DME
LOC
DME/DME-LOC
VOR/DME-LOC.
Where can you see these Navaids?

The radio navaid selection is displayed on the DATA “SELECTED NAVAIDS” page
At flight initialization, each FMGC displays an FM position. Select which is this?

IRS-GPS,
IRS-DME/DME,
IRS-VOR/DME,
IRS ONLY
In flight, the FM position approaches the radio position or the GPS position at a rate
depending upon the aircraft:
Altitude
Speed

Auto Flight System
The FM position update at takeoff is inhibited when GPS PRIMARY is active.

True
False
What is ―Bias‖ as far as FM Position is concerned? Explain Bias.

Each FMGC computes a vector from its MIX IRS position to the radio position or GPIRS
position.
This vector is called the “bias”.
Each FMGC updates its bias continuously as long as a radio position or a GPIRS position is
available.
If an FMGC loses its radio/GPIRS position, it memorizes the bias and uses it to compute the
FM position, which equals the MIX IRS position plus the bias. Until the radio or the GPIRS
position is restored, the bias does not change.
The flight crew can update the FM position manually. This also updates the bias.
On which page can you see position computation?

GPS MONITOR
POSITION MONITOR page.
Both are correct.

Auto Flight System
The flight crew may check the position computation using the GPS MONITOR or POSITION MONITOR page.

Auto Flight System

1. The FMGS continuously computes an Estimated Position Uncertainty (EPU).
2. It is a function of the navigation mode that the system uses.
3. If current NAV Mode is IRS/GPS, then the EPU is lowest.
4. IRS/DME/DME navigation mode has higher EPU as compared to IRS/VOR/DME
navigation mode.
5. After an IRS alignment, the EPU is set at 5 nm.
6. At takeoff, the EPU is set at 0.2 nm.
1, 2, 3, 5, 6
1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6
If the EPU does not exceed the RNP, accuracy is

High
Low
If the EPU exceeds the RNP, accuracy is

High
Low
Where can you see the RNP Value?

The RNP is displayed in the REQUIRED field of the PROG page.
The RNP is displayed in the REQUIRED field of the PERF page.
Can the present position of the aircraft be initialized?

Present position can be entered through the ADIRS CDU but is possible only for old a/c.
Present position can be entered on the INIT page of the MCDU.
Both are correct.
There are 4 main different navigation modes to update the FM position.

In decreasing priority they are:
IRS-GPS, IRS-DME/DME, IRS-VOR/DME, IRS ONLY.
IRS ONLY, IRS-GPS, IRS-DME/DME, IRS-VOR/DME.
IRS ONLY, IRS-DME/DME, IRS-VOR/DME, IRS-GPS.
IRS-DME/DME, IRS-VOR/DME, IRS ONLY, IRS-GPS.
The FMGS updates the FM position via the use of GPS or radio navaids and it uses a
priority rule for FM position update. What is the order of priority for determining FM
position?
The decreasing order of priority is:
IRS-GPS, IRS-VOR/DME IRS-DME/DME, IRS only.
IRS-GPS, IRS only, IRS-DME/DME, IRS-VOR/DME,
IRS-GPS, IRS-DME/DME, IRS-VOR/DME, IRS only.
Auto Flight System
Select the correct statements for Radio Position:

FMGC1 uses # 1 navaids to compute its own radio position.
If one or more of no.1 navaids fail, FMGC 1 uses offside navaids {No.2} to compute the VOR/DME, or the
DME/DME radio position.
Both are correct.
Each FMGC uses onside navaids to compute its own radio position.
These navaids are displayed on the SELECTED NAVAIDS page.
If one or more navaids fail, each FMGC can use offside navaids to compute the VOR/DME, or the
DME/DME radio position.
DSC-22_20-20-10 P 3/8
What is the preferred method of radio position updating for the FMGS?
A. VOR/DME
B. ILS/DME
C. DME/DME
At flight initialization, each FMGC displays an FM position that is a

1. MIX IRS/GPS position (GPIRS).
2. IRS-DME/DME,
3. IRS-VOR/DME,
4. IRS ONLY if no GPS,
A. 1, 2
B. 1, 4
C. 4
D. 1
While taxiing on the ground, the FMGS displays the position of the aircraft using:
1. IRS and DME/DME.
2. IRS only if no GPS,
3. IRS and VOR/DME.
4. IRS/GPS{GPIRS}
2
2, 4
4
Aircraft position determined by each FMGC is as follows

A. Before Takeoff, FMGC position is the IRS/GPS position
B. At take-off, FMGC position is updated to the runway threshold position from database if no GPS
C. Before Take-off, FMGC position is the radio position from two DMEs.
D. Both (a) and (b) are correct.
Select correct statements for FM position:

A. At takeoff, the FM position is updated to the runway threshold position as stored in the database,
possibly corrected by the takeoff shift entered on PERF TO page if no GPS.

Auto Flight System
B. In flight, the FM position approaches the radio position or the GPS position at a rate depending
upon the aircraft altitude.
C. The FM position update at takeoff is inhibited when GPS PRIMARY is active.
D. All are correct.
What is Bias?
A. Each FMGC computes a vector from its MIX IRS position to the radio position and this vector is
called the “bias”.
B. Each FMGC computes a vector from its MIX IRS position to the GPIRS position and this vector is
called the “bias”.
Select correct statements for “Bias”

A. Each FMGC updates its bias continuously as long as a radio position or a GPIRS position is
available.
B. If an FMGC loses its radio and GPIRS position, it memorizes the bias and uses it to compute the
FM position, which equals the MIX IRS position plus the bias.
C. The flight crew can update the FM position manually. This also updates the bias.
D. All are correct.
The flight crew may check the position computation using the
A. GPS MONITOR page
B. POSITION MONITOR page
C. From any of the above.
Which statement is true concerning Estimated Position Error (EPE) in IRS ONLY navigation mode?
A. EPE increases continuously at 6 nm / hour for the first 40 minutes and thereafter its degradation is
in stages.
EPE increases at 8 nm / hour for the first 40 minutes and 2 nm / hour thereafter until a maximum
predetermined maximum EPE is reached.
‐ After an IRS alignment, the EPU is set at 5 nm.

‐ At takeoff, the EPU is set at 0.2 nm.
The FMS displays the EPU to the flight crew and compares it with the Required Navigation Performance
(RNP).
If the EPU does not exceed the RNP, accuracy is HIGH
If the EPU exceeds the RNP, accuracy is LOW.
The RNP is displayed in the REQUIRED field of the PROG page.
The displayed RNP is (in a decreasing order of priority):

A. The value that the flight crew entered
B. The navigation database procedure value
C. The system’s default value.
"NAV ACCUR DOWNGRAD" message appears,

When both FMGC detect NAV Accuracy change.
When any one of the FMGC detects NAV Accuracy change.

Auto Flight System
When one FMGC changes the NAV accuracy from LOW to HIGH (or HIGH to LOW),
1. The MCDU displays the "NAV ACCUR UPGRAD" (or DOWNGRAD) message.
2. The ND displays the "NAV ACCUR UPGRAD" (or DOWNGRAD) message.
3. These messages are inhibited when the navigation mode is IRS/GPS.
1,2,3
When the accuracy changes from “HIGH” to “LOW”,

Both MCDUs and NDs display the message ”NAV ACCUR DOWNGRADED”
The LOW accuracy is indicated on the PROG page.
Both are correct

When GPS primary is available, the navigation accuracy check is not required.
When GPS primary is not available, pilot must perform the Navigation Accuracy Check, periodically in
cruise and at FL100 in descent.
Both are correct.
If GPS function on no.1 system is lost:

1) GPS PRIMARY LOST message is displayed on the ND1.
2) GPS PRIMARY LOST message is displayed on the MCDU 1 scratchpad.
3) Navigation Accuracy is downgraded immediately
4) GPS PRIMARY LOST message is displayed on the ND1 and ND2.
5) GPS PRIMARY LOST message is displayed on the MCDU 1 and MCDU 2
scratchpads.
A.) 1,2
B.) 1,2,3
C.) 3, 4
D.) 3, 4, 5
If GPS function is lost:

1) GPS PRIMARY LOST message is displayed on the affected side ND.
2) GPS PRIMARY LOST message is displayed on the affected side MCDU scratchpad.
3) Navigation Accuracy is downgraded immediately
A.) 1,2
B.) 1,2,3
C.) 2,3
D.) 1,3
About "GPS PRIMARY LOST" message.

1. If the GPS PRIMARY status no longer complies with accuracy criterion, the GPS
PRIMARY status is lost and "GPS PRIMARY LOST" message is triggered.
2. If the GPS PRIMARY status no longer complies with an integrity criterion, the GPS
PRIMARY status is lost and "GPS PRIMARY LOST" message is triggered.

Auto Flight System
3. The related MCDU displays the "GPS PRIMARY LOST" message.

4. The related ND displays the "GPS PRIMARY LOST" message.
5. It is possible to clear the scratchpad message on the MCDU, but not on the ND.
1, 2, 3, 4, 5
When the GPS PRIMARY function is active and either of the FM positions deviate from the GPS
positions 1 or 2 by more than a threshold based upon longitude or latitudes, a message is triggered
which is:
GPS PRIMARY LOST
FM/GPS POSITION DISAGREEMENT
NAV ACCUR DOWNGRAD
If one GPS receiver {MMR} fails, the three ADIRUs automatically select the other
operative GPS receiver.
True.
False.
Updating of FMGC position in flight is available from

POSN MONITOR page
PROGRESS page
INIT A page
UPDATE page
To determine the aircraft position, FMGC uses data from

DME, VOR or ILS systems
Clocks and Ground speed computation
Three ADIRS.
Both (a) and (c) are correct.
On the Position Monitor page of the MCDU, the IRS 1, 2 and 3 deviations are:
Deviation in nm from the Mix IRS position.
Deviation in nm from the on-side FMGC position {Master FMGC}.
Always the same on both MCDU 1 and 2.
What the Pilot must check from the following, before commencing a RNAV GNSS /
RNAV RNP approach?
GPS PRIMARY is displayed on the ND.
At least 1 GPS is operating.
Both GPS are in NAV on the GPS Monitor page.
During ILS approach, {with G/S & LOC green,}, if you get FM / GPS POSITION
DISAGREE, the recommended action is:
A. Disregard it and continue the approach.
B. Make a Go-Around or fly visual, if visual conditions are met.
Auto Flight System
C. Check navigation accuracy, using data and if check is negative, use HDG/TRK mode
and raw data must be used.
If LOW ACCURACY message is displayed, are there any approach restrictions?

No
Yes, ILS approaches not allowed.
Yes, RNAV approaches are forbidden.
On GPS-capable airplanes, the ADIRUs are fed GPS data which is used to calculate a ___________
hybrid position.
GPS IRS
If the estimated position error (EPE) exceeds the required navigation performance, navigation accuracy
reverts to low
FMGS (Flight Management and Guidance Computer) selects the most accurate position keeping data
(GPS, MIX IRS or IRS only) and calculates an
Estimated position error
What is an Estimated Position Error (EPE)

Estimate of FMS position drift
The difference between the mix IRS position and the radio position is called the
Bias
Navigation position computations can be checked on the _________________ page of the MCDU
Position monitor
If the EPE exceeds the RNP

A NAV ACCUR DOWNGRAD message will be displayed on the ND and MCDU

Auto Flight System
Radio Navigation Tuning is used for:

For Display
For Position Computation.
Both are correct.
Radio Navigation Tuning has following purpose:

For Display
For Position Computation.
Both are correct.
For display purpose, tuning is possible by the following ways:

Automatic tuning via FMGC software
Manual tuning via MCDU RAD NAV page
Manual tuning via RMP if both FMGCs or both MCDUs fail.
All of the above are correct.
All Nav aids are normally auto-tuned by:

The FMGC
MCDU
ADIRU
In normal operation, the nav aids are tuned:

Manually through the Radio Management Panel.
Manually through the RAD NAV page.
Automatically through the Flight Management and Guidance System (FMGS)

The RADIO NAV page and the ND show which NAVAID have been tuned for display.
All NAVAIDS tuned on RAD NAV page are used for display purpose.
NAVAIDS used for a/c position update are displayed on the SELECTED NAVAIDS page.
All are correct.

A. In dual mode, each FMGC simultaneously tunes the navaids on its own side.
B. In Independent mode, each FMGC simultaneously tunes the navaids on its own side.
C. In single mode, the valid FMGC tunes navaids on both sides.
D. All are correct.
The flight crew can also use the RAD NAV page to manually tune both VORs, both ADFs and the
ILS.
True
False

1. The FMGS automatically tunes the radio navaids for computation of the radio position.
2. Manual tuning has priority over automatic tuning.
3. In dual mode and independent mode, each FMGC simultaneously tunes the navaids on its own
side.
4. In single mode, the valid FMGC tunes navaids on both sides.
1,2,3,4
1,3,4

Auto Flight System
A NAV Aid is deselected on SELECTED NAV AIDS page

The CLR action on deselected Nav Aid above FMGC to use that Nav Aid again
The deselection cannot be cleared until after landing
The deselection is cleared when secondary data base is activated on aircraft status page.
Which of the following navaids can be auto-tuned for computation of the radio position?
ILS and ADF (when flight plan specifies NDB approaches).
VOR and DME.
Both are correct.
What is the preferred method of radio position updating for the FMGS?
VOR/DME
ILS/DME
DME/DME
Can the crew depress the RMP ON NAV pushbutton and use the RMP for navigation
simultaneously with FMGC autotuning?
Yes, because the opposite FMGC will continue to autotune navaids.
No, RMP backup tuning supersedes the autotuning function of both FMGC's.
Which of the following navaids can be autotuned?

ILS and ADF (for NDB data base approaches).
VOR and DME.
Both are correct.
Which of the following navaids can be auto-tuned for computation of the radio position?
ILS and ADF (when flight plan specifies NDB approaches).
VOR and DME.
Both are correct.

Auto Flight System
ALIGNMENT OF INERTIAL REFERENCE SYSTEM:

ADIRS INITIALIZATION involves two steps during cockpit preparation. First step is
ADIRS ALIGNMENT in which at the beginning of the pre-flight checks, the crew sets
the ADIRS selectors to NAV, in order to start alignment in which GYROS and
Altimeters get ready for NAV computation. Which is second step?
INITIALIZATION
ADIRS INITIALIZATION involves two steps during cockpit preparation. What are
these?
ALIGNMENT: At the beginning of the pre-flight checks, the crew sets the ADIRS selectors
to NAV, in order to start alignment in which GYROS and Altimeters get ready for NAV
computation.
INITIALIZATION:
The F-PLN origin airport coordinates are extracted from the FMS database. These
coordinates
appear on the MCDU INITA page, and are normally used for initialization. They are the
airport
reference coordinates.
If a high navigation performance is desired, the crew should adjust the airport reference
coordinates to the gate coordinates, provided that this data is published or available on board.
Or
The ADIRS are automatically initialized at the GPS position. These GPS coordinates are
displayed on the MCDU INIT A page, in replacement of the airport reference coordinates,
after the pilot entered the FROM-TO airport pair.
How can the present position of the aircraft be initialized?

Present position can be entered through the ADIRS CDU but is possible only for old a/c.
Present position can be entered on the INIT page of the MCDU.
Both are correct.

Auto Flight System
Mark the correct statements about Flight Plans:

1. The FMGS can contain two different flight plans, called as the ACTIVE flight plan
and the SECONDARY flight plan.
2. Each flight plan is composed of the primary flight plan and alternate flight plan.
3. The primary flight plan contain route from origin to destination and missed approach
4. The alternate flight plan contain route from destination to alternate destination.

1) Primary Flight Plan is displayed in steady green on the ND when in managed mode
and is dashed green when in selected mode.
2) Alternate flight plan is displayed in dashed blue on the ND.
3) Missed approach section is displayed in steady blue on the ND.
4) Temporary flight plan is displayed in dashed yellow on the ND.
5) Secondary flight plan is displayed in steady dimmed white on the ND.
What is the purpose of Secondary Flight Plan?

The SECONDARY flight plan which the flight crew may use:
• When an alternate takeoff runway is probable
• To plan a diversion
• To prepare the next flight
• To compare predictions or evaluations.
Which of the FM Flight Plans is the basis for Automatic Radio-Nav tuning?
Active Flight Plan
Secondary flight plan
Temporary flight plan
The FMGC automatically strings the legs in sequence.

True
False
If any two waypoints do not have a leg defined between them in the flight plan, then
what happens?
Flight Plan has a discontinuity. The computer assumes that the aircraft will fly a direct leg
between the two waypoints that define the discontinuity.NAV mode will change to HDG.
Can flying crew insert an extra waypoint while flying?

Yes
No

Auto Flight System
Can the flight crew perform the following changes once flight plan is prepared before
start:
a) Insert or modify the departure procedure
b) Insert or modify the arrival procedure
c) Insert a waypoint
d) Change the destination
e) Insert an airway
f) Insert an offset
g) Insert a holding pattern
h) Select or enable an alternate flight plan
i) Radial fix information
j) Insert LAT/LONG crosssing waypoint.
Can the flight crew perform the following changes once in flight:
a) Insert or modify the departure procedure
b) Insert or modify the arrival procedure
c) Insert a waypoint
d) Change the destination
e) Insert an airway
f) Insert an offset
g) Insert a holding pattern
h) Select or enable an alternate flight plan
i) Radial fix information
j) Insert LAT/LONG crosssing waypoint.
What is the role of DIR KEY?

The pilot uses the “Direct To” function to define a direct leg, potentially with
inbound/outbound course
or abeam waypoint, from the present position to any waypoint on the active flight plan or to
any waypoint.
The designated waypoint may be entered by its identifier (if it is stored in the navigation
database), or as a pilot defined element, or by a latitude/longitude, place/bearing/distance, a
place-bearing/place-bearing, or a place distance (PD) along the F-PLN.
Note: If the autopilot or flight director is in the heading/track or localizer mode, the “DIR
TO” function engages the NAV mode.
When will a time constraint, entered in the F-PLN, be automatically deleted?

Entering a holding pattern, or in the event of an engine failure.
If either FMGEC fails.
When an OPT STEP is inserted.
The active F-Plan is erased when

The pilot calls the aircraft status page
The wheels touch the runway at landing.
The aircraft has been on ground for 30 seconds following the landing
One engine is shut down on the bay.

Auto Flight System
Mark the correct statement

A) Wind entered in HISTORY WIND page is MAG NORTH referenced.
B) Wind entered in PERF APPR page is TRUE NORTH referenced.
C) Wind entered in HISTORY WIND page is TRUE NORTH referenced.
D) Both (a) & (b) are correct.

1) Primary Flight Plan is displayed in steady green on the ND when in managed mode
and is dashed green when in selected mode.
2) Alternate flight plan is displayed in dashed blue on the ND.
3) Missed approach section is displayed in steady blue on the ND.
4) Temporary flight plan is displayed in dashed yellow on the ND.
5) Secondary flight plan is displayed in steady dimmed white on the ND.
The message on PFD FMA reads as ―VERT DISCON AHEAD‖ it means ?

There is F-Plan discontinuity ahead
OP_DES mode engaged and a TOO STEEP path exists ahead
EXPEDITED DES mode engaged and F-Plan discontinuity exists ahead.
DES mode engaged and a TOO STEEP path exists on the next leg.
TEMP F. PLAN page is automatically displayed

If an entry of NEXT WAY POINT, NEW DEST or VIA GO TO is made on the LAT REV page.
If SEC. F Plan page is selected on MCDU and COPY ACTIVE prompt is pressed.
If SEC. F Plan page is selected on MCDU and ACTIVATE SEC prompt is pressed.
When DIR TO page is selected on MCDU
With NAV mode engaged on FMGS, the ACTIVATE SEC prompt shall be available if
Active and secondary F-PLN have common active leg
Active and secondary F-PLN have some common leg
HDG / TRK mode is engaged

Lateral and vertical revisions are possible on a temporary F-Plan
„DIRECT TO‟ function, when used, erases a temporary F-Plan
Pressing the „AIRPORT‟ key erases a temporary F-Plan
Both (b) and (c) are correct.
The SECONDARY flight plan which the flight crew may use:
1. When an alternate takeoff runway is probable
2. To plan a diversion
3. To prepare the next flight
4. To compare predictions or evaluations.

Auto Flight System
A temporary F-PLN is created whenever a revision is performed on the following pages:

1. The F-PLN A pages,
2. The F-PLN B pages
3. The LAT REV page,
4. The VERT REV page.
A. 1,2,3,4
B. 4
C. 1,2,3

1. The TMPY F-PLN is a copy of the active F-PLN, but is corrected by the lateral or
vertical revisions in progress.
2. The aircraft continues to follow the active F-PLN, until the temporary revision is
inserted.
3. The temporary F-PLN is continually sequenced as the active F-PLN, until it diverges
from the active F-PLN.
4. The revision data appears in yellow (except Missed approach and Alternate parts that
are displayed in blue) on both MCDUs and NDs.
5. A TMPY F-PLN cannot be created when a DIR TO is already in process. (The “DIR
TO IN
PROCESS” message appears on the MCDU).
6. The predictions are continually updated for a temporary flight plan.
All are correct.
With NAV mode engaged on FMGS, the ACTIVATE SEC prompt shall be available if
Active and secondary F-PLN have common active leg
Active and secondary F-PLN have some common leg
HDG / TRK mode is engaged

1. ECON speed is the basis of the managed speed profile.
2. The ECON speed can be modified.
3. Vertical constraints (altitude, speed, time) that may be stored in the data base or entered manually
by the flight crew through vertical revision pages.
4. When all the vertical data has been defined, the FMGC computes the vertical profile and the
managed speed/Mach profile from takeoff to landing.
All are correct.

Auto Flight System
The lateral flight plan includes the following elements:

‐ Departure
• Takeoff runway
• SID
• En route transition.
‐ En route
• En route waypoints and airways.
‐ Arrival
• En route transition
• STARs/VIAs
• Landing runway with selected approach
• Missed approach.
‐ Alternate flight plan.
These elements are defined by waypoints and legs between the waypoints.

A. The FMGC automatically strings the legs in sequence.
B. The flight plan has a discontinuity if any two waypoints do not have a leg defined between them.
C. The computer assumes that the aircraft will fly a direct leg between the two waypoints that define
the
discontinuity.
D. All are correct.

Auto Flight System
How does FMGS change from Take-Off Phase to Climb Phase?

1). At Acceleration Altitude
2). By engagement of another vertical mode.
3). At THR Reduction Altitude.
A.) 1
B.) 1,2
C.) 2,3
Mark the correct answers..

FMGS remains in GO-AROUND Mode as long as Approach phase is not activated manually.
FMGS remains in GO-AROUND Mode as long as a NEW DEST is not inserted or ALTN is
not selected.
Both are correct.

A.) FMGS switches automatically from CLIMB to CRUISE phase when a/c reaches the
cruise altitude entered on PROG page. It will be shown by ALT CRZ mode on FMA.
B.) If ALT is displayed on FMA after reaching the cruise flight level, FMGS is still in
CLIMB phase. To force the FMGS to switch in CRUISE Phase, you have to enter the
new CRZ ALT in PROG page.
C.) Both of the above are correct.
How is the Approach phase activated?

1). Overflying (DECEL) pseudo waypoint with NAV mode engaged and below 7200 ft AGL.
2). Overflying (DECEL) pseudo waypoint with LOC*/LOC mode engaged and below 7200 ft
AGL
3). Overflying (DECEL) pseudo waypoint with LOC*/LOC mode engaged without any altitude
restriction.
4). Manual activation of the approach phase.
A.) 1,4
B.) 1,2,4
C.) 1,2,3
D.) 1,3,4

Auto Flight System
Mark correct statements for PERF Factor:

1). PERF Factor is mainly used for predictions during the cruise phase.
2). Lower PERF Factor is considered better as compared to high PERF factor
3). High PERF Factor is considered better as compared to low PERF Factor.
A.) 1,2
B.) 1,3
Name the factor which is used to correct predicted fuel flow if a/c performance differs
from performance model stored in the FMGS Database?
A.) IDLE FACTOR
B.) PERF FACTOR
C.) COST INDEX
Name the factor which is dedicated to the FM Descent segment so as to adjust FM

Descent predictions. If it is positive, it gives an earlier TOD. If it is negative, TOD is
delayed and you will see steeper path.
A.) IDLE FACTOR
B.) PERF FACTOR
C.) COST INDEX
PERF Factor:
1) The PERF factor is used to correct the predicted fuel flow, used for fuel prediction
computation within the FMGS.
2) Its value can be a positive or negative expressed in percentage.
3) Its value will be only positive expressed in percentage.
4) As the actual aircraft drag and engine performance deviate from the nominal model,
due to
5) the aircraft‟s age, airlines periodically apply a correction factor to adapt fuel
predictions to actual fuel consumption.
6) The PERF factor modifies the predicted fuel flow, according to a formula.
IDLE factor is dedicated to

1) FM Descent segment
2) Its aim is to adjust FM descent predictions. In particular, the TOD position with the
actual engine idle thrust used during descent.
3) Positive IDLE factor gives an earlier TOD {shallower path}
4) Negative IDLE factor delays TOD {steeper path}
A.) 1,2
B.) 1,3
C.) 1,2,3,4
D.) 2,3,4

Auto Flight System
Cost Index = 99 corresponds to

Minimum fuel consumption (max range)
Minimum time.
Best ratio between the flight time cost and the fuel cost.
LRC (Long Range Cruise).
Cost Index = 0 (zero) corresponds to

Minimum fuel consumption (max range)
Minimum time.
Best ratio between the flight time cost and the fuel cost.
LRC (Long Range Cruise).
The energy circle is a green arc, centered on the aircraft's position and oriented towards
the current track line. It is displayed on the NDs during descent, when HDG or TRK
mode is selected.
True.
False.
Selection of the correct takeoff runway on the FMGC prior to each flight is necessary
because:
The FADEC needs it to know how much to reduce the thrust for takeoff.
Selection of the correct runway insures proper pressurization.
Selection of the correct runway permits the FMGC to update its position at takeoff.
For a PROG Page:

This page displays navigation information and active data such as the optimum and maximum
recommended cruise flight levels. It enables the flight crew to update the FMGS position and
to obtain a bearing and distance to any location.
This page displays the optimum speed or Mach number for each phase.
By this page crew initialize the flight plan, set the departure and arrival airports, and the main
flight parameters (for example, cruise FL, Cost Index).
With the help of this page, flight crew access to various reference pages that show aircraft
position, aircraft status, runways, waypoints, navaids, routes, and data stored by the flight
crew.

Auto Flight System
You can modify any of the following altitudes in FMGS through ???????? page:
{But altitudes less than 400 ft above airfield elevation cannot be selected.}
1. THR RED ALT (Thrust reduction altitude)
2. ACC ALT (acceleration altitude)
3. ENG OUT ACC (engine out acceleration altitude)
4. TRANS ALT (transition altitude)
1,2
1,2,3
1,2,3,4

Auto Flight System
SPEED REFERENCE SYSTEM:

When in SRS Mode, IAS of the a/c will be limited to V2 + 10 kts in case of both engines
during T/O.
If one engine fails while a/c is still in SRS, the speed target will be highest of V2 or current
speed, limited by v2 +15 kts.
If a/c speed is more than V2 +15 and engine fails in SRS mode, a/c speed will be brought
back to v2 +15 kts.
In SRS mode:
SRS guidance law also includes
1. Attitude protection,
2. Flight Path protection
3. Speed protection
4. Best rate of climb taking into account actual wind component.
1,2
1,2,3
1,2,3,4
When is the SRS active?

During a Go Around (after the thrust levers are placed in the TOGA position) up to the
acceleration altitude.
At T/O, when TOGA or FLX power is set, SRS is displayed on the FMA and provides guidance
up to the acceleration altitude.
Both are correct.
The SRS flight guidance laws provide speed targets in SRS and includes some attitude
protection. In the case of wind shear, what maximum attitude does the guidance law
reduce the aircraft nose-up attitude to, during takeoff?
17.5 degrees.
22.5 degrees.
30 degrees.
In take off mode, SRS guidance will be displayed it

V2 is selected on FCU speed window
V2 is defined on MCDU PERF T/O page
V2 is selected on FCU and flaps are extended
V2 is defined on MCDU and slats are extended.
Auto Flight System
After take off, the vertical guidance by SRS is disengaged

Automatically at FCU altitude
By putting the speed knob
Automatically at ACC ALT
SRS mode:
1. Disengages automatically, at the acceleration altitude for two engine operation.
2. However, in engine out conditions, SRS does not disengage automatically at ACC ALT
3. Disengages when crew engages another vertical mode
4. During T/O, if altitude on FCU is set lower than current altitude, a/c will remain in
SRS mode until pilot takes some corrective action.
1, 2, 3, 4
Does SRS provide any attitude protection?

Yes, along with attitude protection, SRS provides flight path protection and speed protection
also.
No, SRS provides only speed protection limiting the target speed to V2 +15.
During short final, ATC advises to Go-Around. By advancing thrust levers to TOGA:
SRS mode engages with NAV if at least in Config 1{FMA displays SRS / NAV} and if FDs were
off, FD bars are restored during SRS/NAV.
When SRS mode is engaged, target speed is limited to Green Dot speed.
Both the above are correct.

A. When out of ACC ALT, SRS disengages automatically but if one engine fails before ACC ALT, SRS
will not disengage automatically.
B. SRS will disengage if you select any other vertical mode.
C. If you select speed, SRS will disengage and OP CLB will get engaged with a triple click aural
warning.
D. All of the above are correct.

Auto Flight System
SPEED / MACH CONTROL:
In flight, either the AP/FD pitch control, or auto thrust may acquire and hold a target speed or Mach number,
depending on the engaged pitch modes.
Speed control is:
‐ Managed when the target comes from the FMGS
‐ Selected when the target comes from the SPD/MACH FCU window.

1) In SPEED/MACH mode, the A/THR adjusts the thrust in order to acquire and hold a speed or
Mach target.
2) This speed or Mach target may be Selected on the FCU by the flight crew.
3) This speed or Mach target may be Managed by the FMGC.
A. 1
B. 1,3
C. 1,2,3
Select the correct statement:

Speed control is managed:
1). When target comes from FMGS.
2). SPD/MACH window on FCU will show dashes, and dot is lit.
3). PFD scale shows target speed in magenta.
1
1,2,3
Select the correct statement:

Speed control is selected,
1). When target comes from SPD/MACH FCU window.
2). SPD/MACH is displayed on the FCU window.
3). PFD scale shows in Blue.
All are correct
If you change SPD from Managed to Select Mode, is there any change on FMA?
Yes
No.
During climb, if you disconnect both AP/FDs, you can have :

Only Selected SPEED mode,
Only Managed SPEED mode,
Any of managed or selected SPD.
During descend, if you disconnect both AP/FDs, you can have :

During approach, once approach phase is activated on MCDU, if you disconnect both AP/FDs, you
can have:

Auto Flight System
During climb, if you disconnect both AP/FDs, A/THR reverts to:

Selected SPEED mode,
Both managed and selected SPD are available.
During descend, if you disconnect both AP/FDs, A/THR reverts to:

During approach, once approach phase is activated on MCDU, if you disconnect both AP/FDs,
A/THR reverts to:
Speed is managed if:

Pilot pushes the SPD Knob and AP or FD is ON.
Otherwise it is selected.
There will be no change on FMA whether Managed Speed or Selected Speed.
Selected speed has a range :Vmax to VLS

Managed SPD has a range: VMAX to Maneuvering speed.
When in SPEED/MACH mode, the A/THR does not allow speed excursions beyond the following
limits, regardless of the target speed or Mach number:
‐ For a selected speed target, the limits are VLS and VMAX (VMO-MMO, VFE-VLE, whichever
applies)
‐ For a managed speed target, the limits are maneuvering speed (Green Dot, S, F, whichever
applies) and maximum speed (340/0.80-VFE-VLE, whichever applies).
In flight, if situation calls for, PFD and MCDU display a message proposing to change from selected mode to
managed mode.
{SET MANAGED SPED, SET HOLD SPEED, SET GREEN DOT SPEED}
True
False

A. If NAV mode is engaged and speed in managed mode, the SPD profile takes into account all the
constraints linked to the flight plan.
B. If NAV mode is engaged but speed is in selected mode, the SPD/MACH constraints are not considered.
C. If NAV mode is not engaged but speed is in managed mode, the SPD/MACH constraints are not
considered.
D. All are correct.

Auto Flight System
The form of the managed SPD profile depends on the lateral NAV mode.
If NAV Mode is engaged, the Managed speed profile is as follows:
V2 - SPD LIM - SPD CSTR (if applicable) - ECON CLB SPD/MACH - ECON CRZ MACH -ECON or preset DES
MACH/SPD -SPD LIM - SPD CSTR (if applicable) - HOLD SPD (ifapplicable) - VAPP.
If NAV Mode is not engaged, the Managed speed profile is as follows:

V2 - SPD LIM - ECON CLB SPD/MACH - ECON CRZ MACH - ECON or preset DES MACH/SPD - SPD LIM - VAPP.

Auto Flight System
The minimum energy level is the energy level the aircraft will have at touch down if it lands at
VAPP speed with the tower reported wind as inserted in the PERF APPR page.
The minimum energy level is represented by the Ground Speed the aircraft will have at touch
down. This Ground Speed is called “GROUND SPD MINI”.
During the approach, the FMGS continuously computes the speed target using the wind
experienced by the aircraft in order to keep the ground speed at or above the “Ground Speed
Mini”.
During the approach, the FMGS continuously computes the speed target using the wind experienced by the
aircraft in order to keep the ……………….. at or above the “Ground Speed Mini”.
Ground speed
IAS
TAS
In approach phase, the managed speed target is the Mini Ground Speed target computed by the
Flight Guidance (FG) part of the FMGS.
Flight Management (FM) part of the FMGS.
For “Ground Speed Mini” function, A/THR need not be engaged. {A/THR is not required.}
True
False
For “Ground Speed Mini” function, “Managed Speed” must be engaged.

True
False
SPD function is managed in APPR even if AP/FD are OFF with or without A/THR..
True
False
If AP/FD is not on, Managed Speed mode is not available except in APPR phase.
True
False
During Approach, if AP and FDs are both off, “Ground Speed Mini” function is not possible.
True
False
Can the flight crew manually modify the VAPP and TWR wind values on the PERF APPR page?
Yes both.
No
The GS mini value is not displayed to the flight crew.

True
False

Auto Flight System
The IAS target is displayed on the PFD speed scale in magenta, when approach phase and
managed speed are active. It is independent of the AP/FD and/or the A/THR engagements.
DSC-22_30-90 P 10/14
During the approach, the FMGS continuously computes the speed target using the wind experienced by the
aircraft in order to keep the ground speed at or above the “Ground Speed Mini”.
The lowest speed target is limited to VAPP and its upper limit is VFE of next configuration in CONF 1, 2, 3
and VFE-5 in CONF FULL.
When in Config 0 during approach, speed target is limited by VAPP and 230 kts {VFE Next for 1}
When in Config 1 during approach, speed target is limited by VAPP and 200kts {VFE Next for 2}
When in Config 2 during approach, speed target is limited by VAPP and 185kts {VFE Next for 3}
When in Config 3 during approach, speed target is limited by VAPP and 177kts {VFE Next for
FULL}
When in Config FULL during approach, speed target is limited by VAPP and 172 kts {VFE -5}
But IAS TARGET = Max [VAPP, (VAPP + CURRENT HEADWIND - TWR HEADWIND)] limited by VFE
Next.
You need to know VLS, TWR WIND, VAPP= VLS + X, X greater of {5, 1/3 of TWR head wind}
IAS target speed magenta= IAS TARGET = Max [VAPP, (VAPP + CURRENT HEADWIND - TWR
HEADWIND)] limited by VFE Next.
Take four cases by taking

Current head wind > TWR WIND, = TWR WIND, < TWR WIND, Tail wind
And calculate IAS Target for each case.
VAPP COMPUTATION
VAPP, automatically displayed on the MCDU PERF APPR page, is computed as follows:
‐ VAPP = VLS+1/3 of the TWR HEADWIND COMPONENT, or
‐ VAPP = VLS +5 kt, whichever is the highest.
"1/3 of the TWR HEADWIND COMPONENT" has two limits:
‐ 0 kt as the minimum value (no wind or tailwind)
‐ +15 kt as the maximum value.

Auto Flight System
Due to ATC requirements, you are given a new take-off clearance in which you have to maintain runway
HDG after airborne. As such you use HDG / TRK selector and set the new HDG in the window. After airborne:
1. NAV will not get engaged at 30 ft.
2. RWY TRK will get engaged passing 30 ft on FMA until HDG/TRK knob is pulled.
3. HDG/TRK will get engaged when HDG/TRK knob is pulled.
1, 2
1, 3
2, 3
1, 2, 3
FMA MODE CHECK in case of a radar-vector standard instrument departure (SID):

1. CHECK that the FMA CLB mode is armed.
2. If a radar-vector standard instrument departure (SID) has been selected, a F-PLN discontinuity
immediately follows the departure runway,
3. NAV mode is not armed if a HDG/TRK is preset.
4. After takeoff, RWY TRK mode engages until the crew selects a HDG or performs a DIR TO.
1,2,3
1,3,4
1,2,3,4
NAV is disarmed by selecting HDG PRESELECT while taxied-out.

Under this scenario, on reaching ACCL ALT, which mode will be engaged for AP/FD Pitch?
A.) In this case, SRS will remain engaged as it will not disengage automatically.
B.) OP CLB
C.) V/S and a/c will maintain current vertical speed.
Pilot can cancel a HDG /TRK PRESET by:

Engaging NAV mode using DIR TO
Pushing in HDG / TRK knob which will arm NAV mode
{NAV Mode will engage if a/c is close to the active flight plan leg}.
By disengaging AP / FD.
To preset a heading of 210 Degrees before take-off.

Pull HDG knob to disarm NAV mode, set 210 Degrees and press HDG knob to engage.
Turn HDG knob, set 210 Degrees and pull to engage.
Turn HDG knob, set 210 Degrees, before take-off. Pull HDG knob, when ATC clears to turn to 210 Degrees
after take-off.
Push HDG knob to disarm NAV mode, set 210 Degree and pull HDG knob to engage.
The lateral mode available during TAKE OFF before lift off
RWY mode if ILS turned corresponding to the departure runway
RWY TRK mode
RWY mode irrespective of an ILS is tuned or not
NAV mode

Auto Flight System
RWY TRK mode engages

At take off power application provided an ILS is tuned to a station corresponding
to the departure runway.
30 feet after liftoff if NAV was not armed.
30 feet after liftoff if V2 is not entered on the PERF TAKE OFF page.
As a lateral mode in the go-around phase
When a HDG or TRK is preset, OP CLB mode will engage at the acceleration altitude in place of CLB.
True
False
HDG engages if the flight crew initiates a go-around below 100 ft and HDG or TRK was already engaged.
True
False
During a go-around, when the approach was previously flown in NAV, APP NAV or FINAL APP modes, the
NAV mode remains engaged, unless a HDG/TRK was preset.
True
False
NAV mode engages automatically during a go-around, when the aircraft is above 100 ft RA, and within the
capture zone for the active flight plan leg, unless a HDG/TRK was preset.
True
False
HDG or TRK will engage if:

A. The flight crew presses the LOC pb, when APP NAV or FINAL APP modes are already engaged,
B. LOC or LOC* mode is lost
C. NAV, APP NAV or FINAL APP modes are disengaged, either by the loss of the lateral flight plan or
when the flight crew enters a flight plan discontinuity
DSC-22_30-60 P 1/8
HDG/TRK preset
OPERATION AT TAKEOFF
HDG/TRK preset is available before takeoff and up to 30 ft RA.
OPERATION AT GO-AROUND
Whenever the LOC*, LOC, LAND or GA modes are engaged, the HDG preset is available.
When overflying the MAP, HDG/TRK will synchronize with the current value. The HDG/TRK preset function is no longer
available.
DSC-22_30-60 P 3/8 DSC-22_30-60 P 3/8
NAV mode engages

At take off power application
At acceleration altitude
30 feet after liftoff provided HDG PRESET is done
30 feet after liftoff provided HDG PRESET is not done.

Auto Flight System
NAV mode get disarmed:

If pilot pulls out HDG/TRK knob
Pilot selects HDG/TRK Preselect{TO or GA}
Pilot arms LOC mode by pressing the LOC pushbutton
Pilot selects GA mode
When LAND mode is engaged
Pilot presses the APPR pushbutton to deselect the non –ILS approach.
NAV mode engages:

Automatically at 30 ft RA after T/O{ if armed on ground}
Automatically when a/c reaches the capture zone for the active flight plan leg.
Automatically during a go-around, when the aircraft is above 100 ft RA, and within the
capture zone for the active flight plan leg, unless a HDG/TRK was preset.
When pilot orders “DIR TO” but if a/c is below 700 feet RA and in LOC mode, NAV mode
will not engage by this action.
When pilot pushes in HDG/TRK knob when a/c is within 1nm of the active flight plan leg.
NAV mode disengages when:

Any lateral mode is engaged
The flight plan is lost or
The a/c enters a flight plan discontinuity
NAV is armed on ground provided

F- PLAN is available and heading preset is selected on FCU
F-PLAN is available and no heading preset is selected on FCU
As in (b) and FDs are ON.
F-PLAN is available and NAV aids are tuned manually on RMP

1. NAV is always armed anytime the flight crew pushes in the HDG/TRK knob, but if LOC mode is
engaged, then pushing HDG /TRK will not make any change.
2. NAV mode engages when the flight crew pushes in the HDG/TRK knob when the aircraft is close
to (within ∼1 nm of) the active flight plan leg.
3. NAV mode engages automatically in flight when NAV is armed and the aircraft reaches the
capture zone for the active flight plan leg.
A. 1
B. 1, 2
C. 1, 2, 3

Auto Flight System

Auto Flight System
CLB Mode:
To leave an FCU selected altitude for another higher target altitude, the flight crew must turn the
Altitude (ALT) knob in order to display the new target altitude and either:
‐ Pull out the ALT knob to engage the OPEN CLB mode, or
‐ Push in the ALT knob to engage the CLB mode, or
‐ Select a target vertical speed (V/S) and pull out the V/S or FPA knob to engage V/S mode, or
‐ Select EXPEDITE
CLB mode guides the aircraft in a managed climb,

1. At a managed target speed an FCU selected altitude
2. A selected target speed, to an FCU selected altitude
3. Taking into account altitude constraints at waypoints.
4. The system also considers speed constraints if the target speed is managed.
1, 2, 3, 4
In CLB mode aircraft reaches to the FCU selected altitude,

1. In a managed target speed
2. In a selected target speed,
3. Altitude constraints at waypoints are taken into account, if any.
4. The system also considers speed constraints if the target speed is managed.
1, 3
1, 2, 3
1, 2, 3, 4
The system {FMGS} considers speed constraints if the target speed is managed.
The system {FMGS} considers altitude constraints at waypoints if the climb is managed.
If the ACCEL ALT (defined on the PERF TO or GA MCDU pages) is below the FCU selected altitude, CLB mode
will not arm.
True
False
If the ACCEL ALT (defined on the PERF TO or GA MCDU pages) is below the lowest altitude constraint CLB
mode will not arm.
True
False
When CLB mode is engaged:

A. The V/S (FPA) window of the FCU shows dashes
B. The managed LVL/CH dot on the FCU lights up
C. The Flight Mode Annunciator displays “CLB” in Column 2.
D. All are correct.

Auto Flight System
The CLB mode disengages, if one of the following takes place:

1. NAV mode is lost or disengaged (OP CLB engages). In this case, the reversion to OP CLB is
accompanied by a triple click aural warning
2. Another vertical mode is engaged
3. The flight crew selects an altitude on the FCU that is lower than the present aircraft altitude.
V/S (FPA) engages on the current V/S (FPA).
1, 2, 3
When CLB mode is engaged, the system arms ALT and displays the applicable target altitude on
the ALT scale.
A. If the next predicted level-off is an ALT CSTR, ALT is magenta on the FMA and the ALT CSTR
is displayed in magenta on the altitude scale
B. If the next predicted level-off is the FCU altitude, ALT is blue on the FMA and the FCU selected
altitude is displayed in blue on the altitude scale.
When the aircraft is in CLB mode and the system predicts that it will miss an altitude constraint,
A. It will not modify the target speed in an attempt to meet it and may be predicted as missed.
B. In this case, the flight crew may select an appropriate speed in order to meet the ALT CSTR.
C. It will modify the target speed in an attempt to meet it.
D. Both {A} and {B} are correct.
OPEN CLIMB (OP CLB) is a Managed mode.

True.
False.
After SRS {TO or GA}, CLB mode engages automatically if

NAV Mode is engaged
ACCEL ALT as defined / set in PERF TO or PERF GA page is below FCU selected altitude.
Both {A} and {B} are correct.
In flight, CLB mode gets engaged automatically, if:

CLB mode was armed and when a/c reaches ACC ALT
CLB mode was armed and when a/c sequences a waypoint with altitude constraint.
Both of the above are correct.
In flight, if you have to engage CLB mode manually, following conditions are must:
NAV mode must be engaged
FCU selected altitude must be higher than present a/c altitude which also is not ALT CSTR.
You have to push in ALT select knob.
All of the above conditions are required to engage CLB Mode.
In climb, FMA is showing THR CLB / CLB / NAV.

If NAV mode is lost or disengaged, then CLB will revert to:
V/S
OP CLB with a triple click aural warning.
No reversion would take place as a/c is in managed CLB.

Auto Flight System
You are climbing with THR CLB / CLB / NAV engaged on FMA.
ATC advises you to turn right on a heading of 110. Your actions to select HDG to 110 will result in:
1. NAV changing to HDG and therefore managed CLB will change to OP CLB.
2. NAV changing to HDG and therefore managed CLB will change to V/S of current a/c vert. speed.
3. THR CLB will remain engaged.
4. THR CLB will change to SPEED.
1, 3
2, 4

Auto Flight System
During climb, ALT* means:

A/C is acquiring a selected altitude.
A/THR will be in THR CLB mode when ALT* is engaged.
During descent, ALT* means:

A/C is acquiring a selected altitude.
A/C is maintaining the selected altitude.
A/THR will be in THR IDLE mode.
ALT CRZ means:

A/C is maintaining the selected target altitude which is also the FMGS Cruise altitude.
A/C is maintaining the selected target altitude but FMGS Cruise altitude is different.
During climb, FCU target altitude is set below the current a/c altitude:
Pitch mode reverts to V/S and a/c maintains the current rate of climb.
A/THR engages in speed mode.
Both {A} & {B} are correct.
During descent, FCU target altitude is set above the current a/c altitude:
Pitch mode reverts to V/S and a/c maintains the current rate of descent.
A/THR engages in speed mode.
What will happen if the a/c is in ALT* during climb and altitude selector is rotated to set higher target altitude?
Pitch mode reverts to V/S and A/THR remains in SPEED/MACH Mode.
Pitch mode reverts to OP CLB if previously in CLB mode and A/THR reverts to THR CLIMB.
Both {A} & {B} above are correct.
When ALT CRZ is displayed on the FMA, the autopilot allows altitude to vary by ____ to minimize thrust
variations.
50
70
100
Actions required are: AP OFF + Both FDs OFF when following TCAS Warning check list for RA message?
A/THR will be in SPEED mode.
True
False

Auto Flight System
In a managed DES mode, if aircraft is above profile, what is A/THR mode and what
does A/P pitch channel control?
THR IDLE and speed {IAS} by AP Pitch channel
SPEED and rate of descent by AP Pitch channel
THR IDLE and rate of descent by AP Pitch channel
SPEED and speed {IAS} by AP pitch channel
You are descending with THR IDLE / DES / NAV modes engaged.
ATC advises you to turn right on a heading of 110. Your actions to select HDG to 110
will result in:
NAV changing to HDG and therefore managed DES will change to V/S of current a/c vertical
speed. THR IDLE will change to SPEED mode.
NAV changing to HDG and therefore managed DES will change to V/S of current a/c vertical
speed. THR IDLE remain same.
NAV will change to HDG and DES will change to OP DES. However, THR IDLE will
remain same.

You can descend with OP DES and HDG selected.
When you are descending in managed DES mode and if a/c is below profile, FMA will show
THR IDLE / DES / NAV.
When you are descending in managed DES mode and if a/c is above profile, FMA will show
SPEED / DES/ NAV.
If the NAV mode is lost, the affect on the DES mode is

No affect at all DES Mode continues.
DES mode reverts to OP DES mode
DES Mode reverts to V/S mode
No vertical mode is available without NAV mode. Second column of FMA goes blank.
During descend phase of flight with DES mode engaged on FMA, if a/c
enters, F-PLN discontinuity, the FMA changes from DES/NAV to
OP. DES/ HDG
V/S/…-..
V/S/HDG
OP DES/…
With FD engaged in OP – DES mode (AP-OFF) and ATHR active, aircraft

is leveled above FCU altitude, the following may occur ?
Aircraft speed increased to Vmax and FD mode changes to V/S mode
Aircraft speed decreases to VLS and FD mode changes to V/S mode
Aircraft speed increased to Vmax and FD mode changes to OPCLB

Auto Flight System
Aircraft speed decreases to VLS and now ATHR maintain speed at VLS
THR IDLE / DES / NAV modes were engaged on FMA in descent. If you select HDG,
what happens?
NAV mode will change to HDG and FMA will show THR IDLE / OP DES / HDG.
NAV mode will change to HDG and FMA will show SPEED / VS / HDG.
NAV mode will change to HDG and FMA will show THR IDLE / DES / HDG.
In a managed DES mode, if aircraft is above profile, what is the A/THR mode?
THR IDLE
SPEED
In a managed DES mode, if aircraft is below profile, what is A/THR mode and what
does A/P pitch channel control?
THR IDLE and speed {IAS} by AP Pitch channel
SPEED and rate of descent by AP Pitch channel
THR IDLE and rate of descent by AP Pitch channel
SPEED and speed {IAS} by AP pitch channel
In a managed DES mode, if aircraft is below profile, what is A/THR mode?

THR IDLE
SPEED
In climb, FMA is showing THR CLB / CLB / NAV. If on FCU a lower altitude is
selected than the present a/c altitude, CLB mode will revert to
V/S
OP CLB
No reversion will take place as a/c is in managed CLB.
What happens when FCU altitude is brought above aircraft with the aircraft in
DESCENT mode ?
Aircraft reverts to OPEN DESCENT mode
Aircraft reverts to V/S mode and current V/S is maintained
Aircraft continues in DESCENT mode
Aircraft reverts to V/S mode, current V/S is maintained and aircraft starts climb towards FCU
altitude.

Auto Flight System
What speed will the FMGS use in an Expedite climb?

Green dot speed.
ECON climb speed.
250 knots below 10,000 feet.
Amber dot speed.
During descent, if you push the Expedite (EXPED) push button, what speed will the
aircraft try to maintain?
Green dot.
340 knots
3,000 fpm vertical speed.
standard 3.0 degrees angle of descent.
De-selection of the EXPEDITE mode may be performed by

Pull action on the V/S – FPA knob
Pull action on the ALT knob
Pull action on the SPD knob
When you press EXPED when in climb, target speed is Green Dot and If you select a
manual speed
OP CLB will engage.
V/S will engage.
While in EXPED mode, you can not change speed.
What speed will the FMGS use in an Expedite climb?

Green dot speed.
ECON climb speed.
250 knots below 10,000 feet.
Amber dot speed.
During descent, if you push the Expedite (EXPED) push button, what speed will the
aircraft try to maintain?
Green dot.
340 knots
3,000 fpm vertical speed.
standard 3.0 degrees angle of descent.
De-selection of the EXPEDITE mode may be performed by

Pull action on the V/S – FPA knob
Pull action on the ALT knob
Pull action on the SPD knob

Auto Flight System
If you have depressed the EXPED push button and want to cancel this function, how
could this be accomplished?
Push the EXPED push button again.
Pull any of the altitude, vertical speed, or speed knob.
Retard the thrust levers to IDLE.

When you press EXPD when in climb, target speed is Green Dot and is maintained by
A/THR.
When you press EXPD when in Descend, target speed is 340 / 0.8 Mach and is maintained by
A/THR.
When EXPD is engaged, the system disregards SPD CSTR, ALT CSTR and SPD LIM.

Auto Flight System
What does pushing the APPR push button do?

Arms managed navigation.
Arms the Flight Guidance system to capture a localizer and glide slope if the information has
been entered into the MCDU.
Allows the aircraft to slow to green dot speed.
The LOC mode disengages when:

Another lateral mode is engaged.
The pilot presses the LOC pushbutton again (engaging the HDG/TRK mode on the current
HDG/TRK).
Both are correct.
Insertion or deletion of a holding pattern or change of the SPD target during descent
modifies the DES profile.
True
False
After pressing the APPR button, what do you check for?

1) Blue LOC and GS in FMA in case of ILS approach.
2) FINAL – APP NAV in case of RNAV approach.
3) FPA – NAV in case of selected NPA
A) 1,2
B) 1,3
C) 1,2,3
A go around is mandatory during a CAT II/III approach if:

A) FMA does not display LAND Green below 350 ft RA
B) The AUTO LAND warning light illuminates during approach
C) Both are correct
For all Non Precision Approaches, there is a minimum OAT. Below this temperature, the
error on the barometric altitude is no longer acceptable, and altitude should be corrected in
temperature.
A. True
B. False

Auto Flight System

1) It is not authorized to make altitude corrections to the final approach segment of
the FM Flight Plan (F-PLN) through the MCDU.
2) It is not possible to use FINAL APP when OAT is below a minimum OAT.
3) This minimum OAT is indicated on the approach chart or must be defined by the
operator based on the terrain profile (plus adequate margin).
4) The flight crew must use selected vertical guidance.
A) 1,3,4
B) 1,2,3,4
If the autopilot is engaged while you are using the FINAL / APP NAV modes, it disengages
automatically {depending on the MSN of the aircraft}
1) At the Missed Approach Point (MAP) /
2) At the MDA -50 ft./
3) At the Minimum -50 ft.
A) 1
B) 1,2
C) 1,2,3
After FAF in NPA when the autopilot is disengaged while FMA showing FINAL / APP NAV
modes FD modes revert to
A) HDG-V/S
B) TRK-FPA.
C) Both are correct.
After pressing the APPR button, what do you check for?

A) 1,2
B) 1,3
C) 1,2,3
A go around is mandatory during a CAT II/III approach if:

FMA does not display LAND Green below 350 ft RA
The AUTO LAND warning light illuminates during approach
Both are correct
For all Non Precision Approaches, there is a minimum OAT. Below this temperature, the
error on the barometric altitude is no longer acceptable, and altitude should be corrected in
temperature.
A. True
B. False

Auto Flight System

1) It is not authorized to make altitude corrections to the final approach segment of
the FM Flight Plan (F-PLN) through the MCDU.
2) It is not possible to use FINAL APP when OAT is below a minimum OAT.
3) This minimum OAT is indicated on the approach chart or must be defined by the
operator based on the terrain profile (plus adequate margin).
4) The flight crew must use selected vertical guidance.
A) 1,3,4
B) 1,2,3,4
After FAF in NPA when the autopilot is disengaged while FMA showing FINAL / APP NAV
modesFD modes revert to
A) HDG-V/S
B) TRK-FPA.
If the autopilot is engaged while you are using the FINAL / APP NAV modes, it disengages
automatically {depending on the MSN of the aircraft}
1) At the Missed Approach Point (MAP) /
2) At the MDA -50 ft./
3) At the Minimum -50 ft.
A) 1
B) 1,2
C) 1,2,3

Auto Flight System
A GO Around has been carried out without setting thrust levers to TOGA position
This will sequence the destination and erase the active flight plan when flying
over or abeam the airport.
Carrying out a go- around without setting TOGA thrust is not possible.
As in (a) but if TOGA thrust is selected temporarily and then the THR lever is
retarded, the flight plan is not erased.
This will not have any effect on the flight plan.
GO AROUND mode is engaged

By selecting thrust levers in the TO / GA position
Inflight provided flaps / slats handle is at zero
Both (a) and (b) are correct.
As in (a) and inflight when flaps / slats handle is not at zero.
Select the true statement:

AUTOLAND red warning flashes when:
Both AP in LAND mode and RA goes below 200 feet and a/c gets too far off the beam
{ LOC or GLIDE}{1/4 dot for LOC above 15 ft and 1 dot for G/S above 100‟RA} In addition
both LOC & GLIDE scales flash on the PFD.
Both AP in LAND mode and RA <200 ft and both AP fail or both localizer xmitter / receiver
fail or both G/S xmitter / receiver fail,
Both AP in LAND mode and RA <200 ft and difference between both RA indications > 15
feet.
All are correct.
Go- Around is mandatory during a CAT II / III approach if AUTOLAND caution light illuminates during approach.

Auto Flight System
In Cruise, you get AUTO FLT FAC 1 + 2 FAULT. Mark the correct statement:
PFD characteristic speeds are lost along with Yaw Damper, Rudder Travel System and
Rudder Trim control.
F/CTL Normal Laws are lost and aircraft enters in ALTN LAW. All protections are lost.
α –Floor protection is available even with this failure.
What is the function of the FACs?

Rudder and Yaw damping inputs, Flight envelope and speed computations
Rudder and Yaw damping inputs
Rudder and Yaw damping inputs and wind shear protection
Rudder and Yaw damping inputs, Flight envelope and speed computations, and wind shear
protection
If both the RUDDER TRAVEL LIMITATION functions fail in flight

Full rudder travel is available irrespective of the speed.
Rudder travel is limited to the value corresponding to the speed at which the failure has taken
place for the rest of the flight
place till the slats are extended and thereafter full authority is available.
This has no effect whatsoever.
Can the rudders be moved with both FACs inoperative?

Yes, ELAC computer is responsible for rudder operation.
Yes, mechanically.
No, the rudder would fail in the neutral position.
About wind-shear detection function:

1. Wind shear function is available at takeoff 3secs after liftoff until 1300 feet.
2. At landing, it is available from 1300 RA to 50 FT
Auto Flight System
3. At least CONFIG 1 is required for this function to be available

1,2
1,2,3
1,3
When is the wind shear protection not available?

In CONFIG 1.
In CONFIG FULL.
In clean configuration.
What does the Energy circle symbol (green dashed arc) on the ND indicate?
Represents the Required Distance to Land. Displayed in descent and approach phase if HDG
or TRK modes are engaged.
Represents the Required Distance to Land. Displayed in descent and approach phase if NAV
mode is engaged.
Both {A} and {B} are correct.
ALPHA-FLOOR PROTECTION
Alpha-floor protection automatically sets the thrust at TOGA thrust, when the aircraft reaches a very high
angle of attack, regardless of the thrust lever positions.
Alpha-floor is available from lift-off until the aircraft reaches 100 ft RA in approach.
Alpha-floor is lost under alternate or direct flight control law.
Alpha-floor is lost when the FADECs are in N1 degraded mode.
Alpha-floor is lost in engine-out, when slats/flaps are extended.
An aircraft encountering wind shear (below a certain energy threshold) will generate a
signal. When is this detection function active?
At all times that the aircraft is configured with flaps/slats extended.
At takeoff when up to 1,000 ft RA or, below 2,000 ft with the aircraft configured for landing.
3 sec after lift off to 1300 ft on takeoff, and 1300 ft to 50 ft on landing, with at least Config 1
selected.

The FAC controls the speed scale on the PFD. When both FACs are operative, FAC1
supplies data to PFD1 and FAC2 supplies it to PFD2.
If both FACs are valid, FAC1 controls the yaw damper, turn coordination, rudder trim, and
rudder travel limit, and FAC2 is in standby.
Both statements are correct.

Auto Flight System

If an aural low-energy “SPEED SPEED, SPEED” warning comes, it is an indication that the
aircraft‟s energy level is going below a threshold and pilot has to increase the thrust to regain
a positive flight path angle through pitch control.
It is available in Configuration 2, 3, and FULL only so this warning is not possible when a/c
is in clean config.
The warning is inhibited when above 2 000 ft RA or when in alternate or direct law.
All are correct.

During deceleration, the low-energy warning is triggered before alpha floor.
The amount of time between the two warnings depends on the deceleration rate.
A – Floor is lost if following failure occurs.

2 FMGCs
Both FCU channels
Aircraft in alternate law
―TOGA LK‖ surrounded by a flashing amber box on FMA, indicates that:

α -floor conditions are persisting and thrust commanded is TO/GA.
Aircraft has left α -floor conditions and TOGA thrust is locked.
Auto-thrust is disconnected as aircraft has left α -floor conditions.
On FMA, TOGA LK indication appears when

ATHR holds the TO/GA limit thrust and the aircraft has come out of alpha floor condition.
ATHR holds the TO/GA limit thrust and alpha floor condition being satisfied.
ATHR holds the CLB limit thrust and thrust levers being in TO/GA position
ATHR holds disengaged by ATHR push button with thrust levers in TO/GA position
The windshear detection function is provided by the Flight Augmentation Computer (FAC) in takeoff
and approach phase in the following conditions:
‐ At takeoff, 3 s after liftoff, up to 1 300 ft RA
‐ At landing, from 1 300 ft RA to 50 ft RA
‐ With at least CONF 1 selected.
The warning consists of:
‐ A visual “WINDSHEAR” red message displayed on both PFDs for a minimum of 15 s.
‐ An aural synthetic voice announcing “WINDSHEAR” three times.

Auto Flight System
In windshear conditions, flight guidance acts on specially adapted FD pitch orders received from the speed
reference system (SRS). The pilot must set go around thrust immediately (which also triggers the FD SRS
mode), and follow the pitch order to execute the optimum escape maneuver.
LOW- ENERGY WARNING
An aural low-energy “SPEED SPEED SPEED” warning, repeated every 5 s, warns the
pilot that the aircraft’s energy level is going below a threshold under which he has to
increase thrust, in order to regain a positive flight path angle through pitch control.
It is available in Configuration 2, 3, and FULL.
During deceleration, the low-energy warning is triggered before alpha floor (unless
alpha floor
is triggered by stick deflection).
The warning is inhibited when :

‐ TOGA is selected, or
‐ Below 100 ft RA, or
‐ Above 2 000 ftRA, or
‐ Alpha-floor, or the ground proximity warning system alert is triggered, or
‐ In alternate or direct law, or
‐ If both radio altimeters fail.

Auto Flight System
QP on A/THR System:
What are the two basic modes of the A/THR system?

Thrust and Mach.
Thrust and speed.
Variable thrust and fixed speed.
Mach and speed.
What is the difference between variable thrust and the speed mode?
In the fixed thrust mode, thrust is fixed and the elevator controls the speed.
In the speed mode, thrust is variable and by varying thrust, speed of the a/c is controlled.
Both are correct.
How can A/THR be ARMED automatically?

Whenever a takeoff or go-around is initiated with at least one flight director ON.
When Alpha floor protection is activated.
Both are correct.
The A/THR is armed on the ground by:

Setting the throttles to Take-off Power
Automatically at engine start.
A/THR engagement is confirmed when 'A/THR' is displayed in ______ in the right column of
the FMA.
Green
Blue
White
For Take off, thrust levers are pushed to TOGA / FLEX gate with FD on and V2
defined on PERF TAKE OFF page.
A/THR engages automatically and A/THR push button illuminates on FCU
ATHR engages in TOGA / FLEX if TO in flex.
SRS mode is engaged
After take off the A/THR will not become active until:
The thrust levers are placed in the CLIMB position.
The thrust levers are moved out of the TO/GA or FLEX/MCT detents.
The autopilot is engaged.
The A/THR pushbutton is manually selected ON.

Auto Flight System
What is considered to be the active range of the A/THR system?

During single engine operations from just above the IDLE stop to the FLX/MCT detent.
During two engine operations from just above the IDLE stop to the CLB detent.
Both are correct.
When is the auto thrust active with both the engines running?
When the thrust lever is between idle and MCT
When both levers are between idle and CLB
One thrust lever is between IDLE and CLB and the other is between IDLE AND MCT
(including MCT) power FLEX T/O is not selected.
Both (b) and (c) are correct .
With auto thrust active, what is the upper limit of the EPR target?
CLB
MCT
Actual position of the thrust lever
TOGA
A/THR in white means that A/THR is:

Disconnected.
Armed.
Active
What is considered to be the active range of the A/THR system?

During single engine operations from just above the IDLE stop to the FLX/MCT detent.
During two engine operations from just above the IDLE stop to the CL detent.
Both are correct.
Verification that Autothrust (A/THR) is active can be made by:

Watching the automatic movement of the thrust levers.
Only when the thrust levers are set at TOGA.
By looking at column five of the FMA.
As far as FMA annunciations are concerned, what would indicate that the A/THR
system is active?
'SPEED' appears in green in column one, line one.
'A/THR' changes from blue to white as shown in column five, line three.
'A/THR' changes from white to blue in column five, line one.
'SPEED' appears in amber in column one, line one.

Auto Flight System
Auto Thrust System: When are the throttles in the engagement range?
Both throttles are above idle but not above the CLB detent when both engines are running.
A single throttle of an operating engine is above idle but not above the MCT detent when one
engine is running.
All of the above.
When the A/THR system is in use:

The throttles move automatically according to FADEC commands.
The throttles can only be moved manually.
The throttles will move when the A/THR p/b is used.
No mechanical linkage between levers and engines.

True
False
With the aircraft in flight, AP engaged and A/THR active, the ATHR mode:
Can be chosen by the pilot on the FCU
Can be chosen by the pilot on the MCDU
Depends on AP lateral mode
Depends on AP vertical mode
In which of the power setting modes, auto thrust is available ?

EPR mode and rated N1 mode
EPR mode only
EPR mode N1 rated and N1 unrated mode
EPR mode and N1 unrated mode.
What happens to engine thrust if active A/ THR disengaged with thrust levers
in CLB gate ?
Engine thrust is frozen at the value before the A/THR disengagement and
THR – LK message appears on the FMA
Engine power reduces to IDLE power on both engines
Engine thrust will change immediately and corresponds to thrust lever position
Engine power increases upto MCT on both engines.
What happens to the engine power at the time of disengagement of A/THR if the thrust
levers are not in CLB or MCT?
Engine power is frozen to the value at the item of disengagement of ATHR
Engine power immediately changes to idle
Engine power changes to TOGA or MCT
Engine power changes to TLA position immediately

Auto Flight System
With the thrust levers in CLB gate, ATHR disengages.

The engines thrust Equals to climb thrust limits
Is frozen at the existing thrust
Corresponds to the thrust levers position
Progressively becomes equal to the thrust levers position
Thrust Lock function of A/THR is activated when the thrust levers are in the CL detent
and:
1. The flight crew pushes the A/THR p/b on the FCU.
2. The A/THR disconnects due to a failure.
3. The flight crew disconnects A/THR by using Instinctive Disconnect p/b.
1,2
3,
1,2,3
The thrust delivered by A/THR is already at MAX CLB thrust. Is it possible to obtain
some additional thrust?
Yes, by setting a higher speed target.
Yes, by moving the thrust levers forward from the CL detent.
No, because the A/THR already delivers the maximum available thrust.
If the FLEX TEMP is not entered on the PERF Page of the MCDU:
A FLX takeoff is still available; set power with the thrust levers.
The FMGS will enter it for you based on TAT.
A FLX takeoff is not available.
In manual thrust on ILS {with G/S & LOC engaged}, the thrust levers will be
somewhere between IDLE and CLB gates. If you press A/THR button on FCU, what
happens?
A/THR engages in SPEED mode.
A/THR engages in THR IDLE mode.
A/THR mode engagement will depend whether a/c is below the profile or above the profile.
During an ILS approach {A/THR in use}, due to wind shear, speed becomes
uncomfortably low {No wind shear warnings}. Your instinctive reaction would be to
move thrust Levers forward beyond CLB detent. This will cause:
A/THR to disengage but remain armed.
A/THR to remain engaged and remains armed.
As in {A} above and as A/THR is in MAN mode so MAN THR will be shown in FMA at
thrust window.
As in {B} above and SPEED will continue to be shown in FMA at thrust window.

Auto Flight System
What should the pilot do in order to disconnect A/THR permanently :

Push and hold one instinctive disconnect pushbutton for more than 15 secs.
Push and hold one instinctive disconnect pushbutton for more than 60 secs.
Push one instinctive disconnect pushbutton immediately A/THR is disconnected.
None of the above.
If A/THR is disconnected by pressing instinctive p/b for more than 15 seconds,

A/THR is disconnected for the remainder of the flight and alpha - floor protection is also lost.
A/THR is disconnected for remainder of the flight but alpha-floor protection is still available.
You cannot do this as system does not have such features.
Disengagement of auto thrust take place

By pressing ATHR pb or instinctive disconnect pb
By moving any one thrust lever above MCT below 100 feet RA
By selecting N1 mode
Holding the instinctive disconnect push button's for more than fifteen seconds will:
Disengage the A/THR (including Alpha Floor) until below 1000 feet AGL for the remainder
of the flight.
Disengage the A/THR (including Alpha Floor) until below 500 feet AGL for the remainder of
the flight.
Disengage the A/THR (excluding Alpha Floor) for the remainder of the flight.
Disengage the A/THR (including Alpha Floor) for the remainder of the flight.
If an A/THR disconnect switch is pushed and held for more than _______ seconds; the A/THR
system is disconnected for the remainder of the flight; including the _______.
10 Seconds - Alpha floor Protection
If the instinctive disconnect pushbuttons on the thrust levers are depressed momentarily
to disconnect autothrust:
Autothrust can be reengaged using the A/THR pushbutton on the FCU, Alpha Floor is lost for
the remainder of the flight.
Autothrust can be reengaged using the A/THR pushbutton on the FCU, Alpha Floor is
available if required.
Both autothrust and alpha floor are lost for the remainder of the flight.

Auto Flight System
After Take-Off, once out of thrust reduction altitude, if you bring back the thrust levers
to below CLB gate, what will happen?
THR LVR {green} in col1 of FMA will replace MAN TOGA/ MAN FLX ZZ.
LVR CLB flashes white in Col 1 of FMA.
Alongwith {A} and {B} above an ECAM Caution of AUTO FLT A/ THR LIMITED
message is generated with aural warning every 5 seconds.
Both {A} and {B} are correct but the ECAM Caution of A/THR LIMITED will not be
generated.

A/THR works in three modes: THRUST mode, SPEED / MACH mode, and RETARD mode
and these modes are selected automatically in conjunction with AP/FD modes.
A/THR works in two modes: THRUST mode and SPEED / MACH mode and these modes
are selected automatically in conjunction with AP/FD modes
When Alpha floor is activated, what power setting is automatically commanded and
what FMA annunciation would appear in Column one?
TOGA / A. FLOOR
CLB / CLB
MCT / THR LK
THR / LK
If the thrust levers are set in the idle detent, is Alpha floor protection still available?
Yes Thrust lever position is disregarded.
Yes, as long as 'A/THR' appears in Column five.
No, because the IDLE detent is out of the A/THR active range.

Communication System
Communications
The audio management system includes how many audio control panels?
1234
All communications radios are controlled:

From the audio control panels (ACPs)
By the F/O
From any one of the three radio management panels (RMPs).
How many HF systems on A320?

1,
2,
3
Which HF system is used for data- communications?

HF1
HF2
HF1 and HF2
Where are the HF antennas located?

Forward top fuselage.
Left wing tip.
Under the fuselage.
Leading edge of the rudder.
HF transmission is inhibited on ground.

A GND HF DATALINK pushbutton, located on the overhead panel, may override the inhibition.
HF must not be used during refueling.
HF transmission is inhibited on ground; GND HF DATALINK is kept at override position so that after
touchdown ACARS keep running
True
False
What are the communication system available after the loss of all generators
(a/c is on batteries ) ?
VHF1, HF1, Interphone
VHF1, Interphone
VHF1, VHF2, Interphone
HF1 and Interphone
You receive a SELCAL on VHF 2, what happens on your ACP?

Amber sign call flashes on VHF 2 key.

Three green bars come on.

White SELCAL appears on VHF 2 pushbutton and VHF 2 reception selector illuminates white.
All of the above.
If RADIO is selected on the side stick when the INT RAD switch is on INT, the radio function has priority over
the interphone function.
True.
False.
VHF has an alarm to indicate that the microphone is stuck in emission position for more than 30 seconds, an
interrupted tone sounds for 5 seconds and the emission is turned off.
It gets active once crew releases the PTT pb and presses again.
True
False
What is the action if SC, Master Caution “COM VHF/ HF EMITTING” message appear?
Nothing; press CLR
Check if transmit function is activated by switch on ACP or side stick or hand mic. and deactive it As in (b) and
if not pull out the respective C/B
As in (b) and if not switch off resp. Tr. Key on ACP.
VHF has an alarm which indicates if the micropho

position for more than 30 s, an interrupted tone sounds for 5 s, and the emission is turned off. To
reactivate the emission, the crew releases the push-to-talk button and presses it again.
Two HF Radios are installed.

HF 1 is also used for data communications.
When in data mode, digital information is transmitted between HF 1 and ATSU.
Each system has a transceiver in the avionics compartment, and a common tuner and antenna in the vertical
stabilizer.
HF transmission is inhibited on ground.
A GND HF DATALINK pushbutton, located on the overhead panel, may override the inhibition.
HF must not be used during refuelling.


1. The SELCAL aural warning is inhibited during takeoff and landing.
2. RMP3 is able to control VHF and HF transceivers through RMP1 and RMP2 even when either of the
RMP1 and RMP2 is OFF.
3. NAV pushbutton does not affect the selection of communication radios and their frequencies.
4. For reception of DME audio navigation signals associated to an ILS or MLS station, the LS p/b (on the
FCU) must also be selected.
The SEL indicator on the following RMP(s) comes on amber when VHF 1 is tuned on RMP1:
RMP1 & RMP2
RMP2 & RMP3
RMP1 & RMP3
Only on RMP1
RMP1 & RMP2
RMP2 & RMP3
RMP1 & RMP3
Only on RMP2
RMP1 & RMP2
RMP2 & RMP3
RMP1 & RMP3
Only on RMP2
RMP1 & RMP2
RMP2 & RMP3
RMP1 & RMP3
Only on RMP1
The SEL indicator on the following RMP(s) comes on amber when VHF3 or HF1 or HF2 tuned by RMP1:
RMP1 & RMP2
RMP2 & RMP3
RMP1 & RMP3
Only on RMP3
RMP1 & RMP2
RMP2 & RMP3
RMP1 & RMP3
Only on RMP3
RMP1 & RMP2
RMP2 & RMP3

RMP1 & RMP3

Only on RMP3
One RMP (radio management panel) gives the flight crew control of all radio communication systems and the
other RMP provides back up to FMGC's for controlling radio navigation systems.
True.
False.
Illumination of the SEL indicator on a Radio Management Panel indicates:

The RMP has failed.
The VHF has failed.
The transceiver normally associated with one RMP is tuned by another.
RMP 1 and RMP 2 are dedicated to

VHF 1 & HF2 respectively
HF 1 & HF2 respectively
HF 1 & VHF2 respectively
VHF1 & VHF2 respectively
RMP #1 is dedicated to which VHF radios

VHF 2 and 3
VHF 1 and 3
VHF 1 only.
All radios.
RMP #2 is dedicated to which VHF radios?

VHF 1 and 2.
VHF 2 only.
VHF 1 and 3.
All radios.
In case of RMP 2 failure, VHF 2 is lost.

True.
False.
VHF 2 can still be selected on RMP 1 or RMP 3.
When RMP1 (Radio Management Panel) or RMP2 is OFF, RPM3 is still able to control VHF HF transceivers
through them.
True.
False.
What is the purpose of RMP3 ?

Only to tune the communication system
To tune communication or navigation system
Only to tune the HF communication system
Only to tune the VHF communication system

On RMP, the ON/OFF switch controls:

The power supply to the RMP.
Only the STBY NAV function of the RMP.
Only the COM function of the RMP.
The AM pushbutton switch, on the radio management panel, is only operative when:
A VHF transceiver has been selected.
An HF transceiver has been selected.
In case of dual FMGC failure selection of radio navigation frequencies is possible with:
RMP 1 only.
RMP 1 and 2
RMP 1, 2 and 3.
Only _____ is functional in the emergency electrical configuration.

RMP 3
RMP 1
RMP1 and 3
If RMP navigation tuning is currently in use for VOR tuning and ATC assigns a new communication frequency,
what must be done?
The NAV key must be deselected and then press the transfer key.
Tune the new frequency on the offside RMP.
Select the appropriate VHF communication radio transmission key, tune using the rotary selector, press the
transfer key.
If an RMP fails, the selected receiver is no longer controlled by this RMP and frequencies and bars disappear
from this RMP.
True.
False.
SEL indicator
The SEL indicator on both RMPs comes on amber when a transceiver, normally associated with one RMP, is
tuned by another:
• If 2 RMP installed:
‐ VHF1 (VHF3, HF1), tuned by RMP2,
‐ VHF2 (HF2), tuned by RMP1.
• If 3 RMP installed:
‐ VHF1 tuned by RMP2 or RMP3,
‐ VHF2 tuned by RMP1 or RMP3,
‐ VHF3, HF1, (HF2) tuned by RMP1 or RMP2.

When selecting the guarded RMP NAV key:

Manual tuning via the MCDU RAD NAV page is still possible.
Manual tuning via the MCDU RAD NAV page is always possible.
FMGC auto tuning is inhibited.
Manual tuning via the MCDU RAD NAV page is only possible on the offside radio.
Is STBY NAV tuning possible on RMP 3.

Yes.
No.
RMP1 and RMP2 are being used for STBY NAV tuning purpose (NAV keys lights are ON). Captain wants to
use RMP1 for tuning VHF1, is it possible? How?
No.
Yes; NAV key should be pressed (light – OFF) and then VHF1 key should be pressed
Yes; NAV key is not be pressed and VHF1 key should be pressed.
Yes; first press VHF1 key and then NAV key.
If you depress the guarded NAV button, the MCDU RAD NAV pages are inhibited and the RMP controls
navaid tuning.
True.
False.
There are two ILS receivers and you can tune these ILS receivers to different frequencies.
Yes.
No.
When the aircraft is in the Emergency Electrical Configuration:

RMP's 1 and 2, and ACP's 1 and 2 are both operative.
RMP 1 and ACP's 1 and 2 are operative.
RMP 1 and ACP 1 are operative.

On ACP:
1. The MECH legend flashes amber (and buzzer sounds) for a call from the nose gear bay.
2. The ATT legend flashes amber (and buzzer sounds) for a call from a cabin crew member.
3. The MECH light goes off after 60 s, if it is not reset.
4. The ATT light goes off after 60 s, if it is not reset.
When the MECH legend flashes amber (and buzzer sounds) for a call from the nose gear bay, you need to
press transmission key with the MECH legend to communicate.
True
False
When the ATT legend flashes amber (and buzzer sounds) for a call from a cabin crew, you need to press
transmission key with the ATT legend to communicate.
True
False
{Its reception knob is marked with CAB.}
If RADIO is selected on the side stick when the INT/RAD switch is on INT, the radio function has priority over
the interphone function.
True
False
Loudspeaker Volume Knob does not control the loudness of aural alert and synthetic voice messages.
True
False
During cockpit preparation, you find “AUDIO 3 XFRD”, green Memo on E/WD. What is the meaning of it?
1. It means that on O/head panel, AUDIO SWITCHING Selector is not NORM.
2. If selector is at CAPT3 position that means pilot is using his acoustic equipment and RMP3.
3. If selector is at F/O 3 position, which means copilot is using his acoustic equipment and RMP3.
1, 2
1, 3
1, 2, 3
When using the boom mike, oxygen mask mike, or hand mike: the PA key must be pressed and held to use
the aircraft PA system.
True
False
With the help of cockpit handset PA announcement is made without any action on ACP.
True
False
When the ON VOICE key on an Audio Control Panel is pushed in; ADF and VOR ident signals are inhibited.
True
False

The BFO key activates the beat frequency oscillator for listening to the ID signal of the ADF if activated.
True.
False.
Pressing the _____ key, on the audio control panel, allows the crew to inhibit the audio navigation signals.
ON VOICE
RESET
ATT
BFO
Which ACP transmission key will illuminated if the flight attendants are calling the cockpit?
PA.
CAB.
ALERT.
VHF3.
When the aircraft is in the Emergency Electrical Configuration RMP's 1 and 2, and ACP' 1 and 2 are both
operative.
RMP 1 and ACP 1 are operative.
With the AUDIO SWITCHING knob in the CAPT3 position, the Captain uses his acoustic equipment on ACP3.
True.
False.
The captain has to make all the selections on ACP3.
The flashing amber MECH light indicates that the interphone system is faulty.
True.
False.
Normally how should you call a Flight Attendant By his or her first name.
Using the ACP CAB pb.
Using an overhead FWD or AFT call pushbutton.
Selecting the ATTND ADV pushbutton on.
The BFO key enables the beat frequency oscillator for listening to the ID signal.
True.
False.
How can you get the mechanics attention when he is outside the aircraft?
Use the MECH pushbutton on the CALLS panel which sounds an external horn.
Press the PA button.

Select the MECH transmission key on the ACP.
To make a PA announcement:
Depress and hold the PA transmission key push button.
Use the pedestal mounted headset.
Both are correct.
Which ACP switch configuration is correct for communication with other cockpit crew members while wearing
your Oxygen Mask?
ACP INT RAD switch selected to INT, INT reception knob on, loud speaker volume up INT transmission key to
on, INT reception knob on, use the sidestick push-to talk when speaking, loud speaker volume up.
Both are correct.
The AUDIO SWITCHING rotaRy selector allows replacement of a failed #1 or #2 ACP with ACP #3
True.
False.
If the VHF 3 transmission key illuminated amber showing the word CALL:
An ACARS message is waiting.
Indicates a SELCAL.
The Nº1 flight attendant is calling.
ATC is calling.
The override switch for the service interphone system is located on the ____ and is used for maintenance
purposes only.
Center pedestal.
Overhead Panel.
BCB behind the Captain's seat
Glareshield.
There are two service interphone jacks in the hydraulic compartment.

True.
False.
The service interphone system provides communication between:

The flight crew and the service interphone jacks.
The flight attendant stations and the service interphone jacks.
The different service interphone jacks.
All of the above.
The service interphone has _____ interphone jacks and an OVRD switch located on the overhead panel. Five.
Seven
Eight.
Ten.

You can tune the ILS receivers to different channels

Yes.
No.
This protects the auto land mode if the #1 autopilot fails and the #2 system assumes control.
If you want to receive DME audio navigation signal associated with ILS, LS p/b on FCU has also to be
selected.
True
False
DSC-23-20-20 P 2/6
The Cabin Interphone system allows:

1. The flight crew to communicate with the flight attendants,
2. The flight attendants to communicate among themselves.
3. The flight crew members to communicate among themselves
4. The flight crew members to communicate with the ground mechanic, through a jack on the external
power panel.
1, 2
3, 4
2
1, 3, 4
The Flight Crew Interphone System allows:

1. The flight crew to communicate with the flight attendants,
2. The flight attendants to communicate among themselves.
3. The flight crew members to communicate among themselves
4. The flight crew members to communicate with the ground mechanic, through a jack on the external
power panel.
1, 2
3, 4
2
1, 3, 4
The Service Interphone System allows for communication between:

1. The flight crew and the service interphone jacks
2. The flight attendant stations and the service interphone jacks
3. The different service interphone jacks.
1, 2
3
2
1, 2, 3
ACP selection for ground mechanic communication:

1. CAB transmission key on ACP must be pressed.
2. CAB reception knob on ACP must be OUT.
3. MECH transmission key on ACP

4. INT reception knob on ACP
1, 2
3, 4
ACP selection for Cabin Communication

1, 2
3, 4
ACP selection for communication on the Service Interphone system:

1, 2
3, 4
To call from the cockpit flight crew presses FWD / MID / AFT pushbutton.
When pressed, the following aural and visual alerts will trigger in the cabin:
1. Two lights come on in pink on the related area of the CALLS panel, as applicable.
2. On the Attendant Indication Panel (AIP), the “CAPTAIN CALL” message appears and a light comes on in
green.
3. A high-low chime sounds in the related section of the cabin, as applicable.
2, 3
1, 2, 3
ALL pb when pressed, the following aural and visual alerts will trigger in the cabin:
1. Two lights come on in pink on the CALLS panel, at all the stations simultaneously.
2. On the Attendant Indication Panel (AIP), the “CAPTAIN CALL” message appears and a light comes on in
green ,at all the stations simultaneously
3. A high-low chime sounds in the cabin, , at all the stations simultaneously
EMER pb-sw (GUARDED), when pressed, the following aural and visual alerts will trigger:
1. Two pink lights flash on all area call panels in the cabin.
2. The “EMERGENCY CALL” message appears on all AIPs in the cabin.
3. A high-low chime sounds three times, on all of the loudspeakers in the cabin.
4. On the cockpit CALLS panel, the ON light flashes in white
5. On the cockpit CALLS panel, the CALL light flashes in amber.
1, 2, 3
1, 2, 3, 4
1, 2, 3, 4, 5

The following aural and visual alerts will trigger in the cockpit, when an emergency call is made from the
cabin to the cockpit:
1. On the EMER pb-sw, the ON light flashes in white,
2. On the EMER pb-sw, the CALL light flashes in amber.
3. The ATT lights will flash on all Audio Control Panels (ACPs).
4. Three buzzers will sound consecutively (for approx. three seconds each).
5. In the cabin, the “EMERGENCY CALL” message will appear on all AIPs.
3, 4
3, 4, 5
1, 2, 3, 4, 5
The cabin call system will reset, when the cabin crewmember hangs up the handset.
True
False
What is the function of the guarded EMER push button on the overhead panel?
To alert ATC of an in-flight emergency.
To alert the aft flight attendants of a routine need to speak to them.
To alert all flight attendants of a pending urgent need to speak to them.
To make PA announcements:
The flight crew may use a cockpit handset to make PA announcements without action on the ACPs.
PA transmission key to be pressed and held on ACP to make PA announcements
Both are correct.
To communicate with a mechanic for manual start valve operation at the engine:
Select the INT/RAD selector to INT, and INT audio selector on.
Select the transmission key push button labeled INT and the INT audio selector.
Select the transmission key push button labeled CAB and the audio selector labeled CAB and INT at RAD.
Mechanic will communicate with the cockpit crew with the help of service interphone jack during Engine Start
in “Start Valve not Opening Procedure”. Which transmission key on the ACP will be selected?
CAB
MECH

The CAPT and CAPT/PURS sw. on the EVAC panel in the cockpit is selected to CAPT position. What happens
when the CMD pb on FWD (or AFT) attendant panel is pressed?
Evacuation alert is activated only in the cabin.
Only the EVAC light flashes red on the O/H EVAC panel .
Only the cockpit horn sounds for 3 seconds.
The cockpit horn sounds for 3 seconds & EVAC lt. on O/H EVAC panel flashes red, but no evacuation tone is
activated in the cabin.
CAPT and PURS / CAPT sw on the EMER EVAC panel is kept at:
CAPT and PURS
CAPT
The EVAC alert may either be activated from the cockpit or the cabin if “CAPT and PURS/CAPT” sw is at :
CAPT and PURS.
CAPT
The EVAC alert can be activated by pressing:

1. CMD p/b at FWD attendant panel.
2. CMD p/b at AFT attendant panel.
3. COMMAND p/b (guarded) on EMER EVAC panel in cockpit.
1, 3
2, 3
1, 2, 3
When COMMAND pb (guarded) is pressed on EMER EVAC panel:

1. ON light will come on
2. In the cockpit, the EVAC light flashes red.
3. In the cabin, the EVAC lights flash at FWD and AFT attendant panels.
4. The Evacuation tone sounds in the cabin only.
5. The Evacuation tone sounds in the cabin and cockpit.
1, 2, 3, 4
1, 2, 3, 5
2, 3, 4
2, 3, 5
Pressing CMD p/b at FWD or AFT attendant panels activates the EVAC alert, only if the cockpit switch is at
the CAPT & PURS position.
True
False
Pressing CMD p/b at FWD or AFT attendant panels, if the cockpit switch is at the CAPT position:
A. Will cause only the cockpit horn sound for 3 s.
B. Will activate the EVAC alerts in the cabin only
C. Will activate the EVAC alerts in the cabin and cockpit.
D. Both (A) & (C) are correct.
The Evacuation tone:

1. The Evacuation tone sounds only in cabin provided CAPT and PURS / CAPT sw on the EMER EVAC
panel is kept at CAPT and PURS.

2. The Evacuation tone sounds only in cabin provided CAPT and PURS / CAPT sw on the EMER EVAC
panel is kept at CAPT.
3. The Evacuation tone sounds only in cabin irrespective of CAPT and PURS / CAPT sw position on the
EMER EVAC panel.
4. The Evacuation tone never sounds in cockpit.
1, 4
2, 4
3, 4
3

The Cockpit Voice Recorder will record:

Direct conversations between crewmembers and all aural cockpit warnings.
Communications over radio and intercom.
Passenger address system announcements (as long as one PA reception knob is selected on).
All of the above
The cockpit voice recorder will automatically operate on the ground for _______ minutes after electrical
power is supplied to the airplane.
15
5
30
Nil
Which statement is correct regarding the cockpit voice recorder?

Is automatically energized when the battery pb's are selected on.
Is always active after DC electrical power is applied to the aircraft.
Is automatically energized when the parking brake is set.
Is automatically energized after the first engine start or five minutes after AC electrical power is applied to the
aircraft.
On the ground, CVR is stopped automatically ______ after the last engine shutdown.
Immediately
1 minute
3 minutes
5 minutes.
On the ground, the crew can energize the CVR manually by pressing the GND CTL pushbutton.
True.
False.
What is the purpose of the GND CTL switch ?

To power the recorders, if needed after 5 minutes a/c power up and before first Engine start.
To power the recorders when the a/c is on ground
As in (a) and also to power them after 5 minutes of second engine shut down
Only to power recorders after 5 minutes of second engine shut down.
What is the purpose of the GND CTL switch?

To power the CVR,
To power the DFDR
To power the QAR
All of the above but when the a/c is on ground.
Only the last 120 minutes of recording are retained by the CVR.
True.
False.
Cockpit Voice Recorder (CVR):

1. Only the last 2 h of recording are retained.
2. Only the last 30 min of recording are retained.
3. On the ground, the crew can energize the CVR manually by pressing the GND CTL pushbutton.
1, 3
2, 3
Cockpit Voice Recorder (CVR) is energized automatically:

1. On the ground during the first 5 min after the aircraft electrical network is energized.
2. On the ground with one engine running.
3. In flight.
1, 2, 3

A. On the ground, Cockpit Voice Recorder (CVR) is stopped automatically 5 min after the last engine
shutdown
B. On the ground, Cockpit Voice Recorder (CVR) is stopped automatically 5 min after the last engine
shutdown provided the CVR jack is not used.
For CVR Test, parking brake must be on.

True
False
If the ELT is unduly triggered in ARMED mode (by an external impact, hard landing, etc.),
Select the TEST/RESET position to reset the ELT and stop signal transmission.
You cannot stop the transmission. only maint. can reset.

A.) VHF1 system will be available in the EMER ELEC CONFIG.
B.) If you select HF2 on RMP2, SEL lights will illuminate on RMP2 and RMP3.
C.) All are correct.

Electrical System
Electrical
The engine generators and APU generator are rated at _____ KVA.
50
70
90
110
What is the rating of EMER GEN?

90kva
5kva
1kva
The A-320 has _______ batteries in its main electrical system.

1
2
3
4 when on ETOPS operation
When BAT are OFF and no other power is connected to aircraft, which buses are powered?
1. HOT BUS1 by BAT1
2. HOTBUS 2 by BAT 2
3. HOT BUS1 by BAT1 and BAT 2
4. HOTBUS 2 by BAT1 and BAT 2
When you sw BAT pb-sw to AUTO and no other Electrical power applied, which buses are powered?
1. HOT BUS 1
2. HOT BUS 2
3. DC BAT BUS
4. DC ESS BUS
5. AC ESS BUS
1, 2, 3, 4, 5
1, 2, 3, 4
The Static Inverter converts BAT 1 DC power to AC power and is supplied to:
AC ESS BUS
AC ESS SHED
AC BUS 1
DC ESS Bus can be powered by:

1. DC BAT Bus
2. BAT 2
3. ESS TR
1, 2, 3

Electrical System
The DC BAT BUS is normally powered by:

DC BUS 2
DC BUS 1 and DC BUS 2
DC BUS 1
BATs are not always connected to DC BAT Bus.

True
False
The AC BUS 1 normally supplies power to:

TR2 and AC ESS
TR1 and AC ESS
TR2 and DC Bus 2
When you enter a dark cockpit, what action is necessary before checking the battery voltages?
You have to check that the external power is on.
You have to ensure that at least one battery is on.
You have to ensure that both batteries are on.
You have to verify that both batteries are off.
How much should be the minimum BAT Voltage if a/c is not electrically supplied in the last 6 hours or more?
28 V
26.5 V
25.5 V
There is no min requirements as a/c is not supplied for 6 h or more.
How much should be the minimum BAT Voltage if a/c is electrically supplied in the last 6 hours or more?
28 V
26.5 V
25.5 V
There is no min requirements as a/c is supplied for 6 h or more.
If battery voltage is below 25.5 V:

1. Get EXT PWR connected to aircraft and select it on.
2. Batteries have to be charged and a charging cycle of about 20 min is required.
3. Start the APU and Batteries will charge themselves.
1, 2
3
If a/c is not electrically supplied in the last 6 hours or more,

1. Perform Batteries check and make sure that Batteries Voltage is more than 25.5 V
2. If battery voltage is below 25.5 V, a charging cycle of about 20 min is required.
3. If battery voltage is below 25.5 V, a charging cycle of about 10 min is required.
1, 3
1, 2
Can you start APU while Batteries are being charged?

Yes
No

Electrical System
For charging the Batteries,

BAT 1 pb and BAT 2 pb must be AUTO and EXT PWR pb-sw must be ON
BAT 1 pb and BAT 2 pb must be OFF and EXT PWR pb-sw must be ON
During charging of Batteries:

Check on ELEC SD page, that the battery contactor is closed and the batteries are charging.
Check on ELEC SD page, that the battery contactor is open and the batteries are charging.
Which voltage requires recharging the batteries?

20 volts or less.
24 volts or less.
25.5 volts or less.
If batteries are the only source of power in flight, how long will battery power be available?
Between 22 and 30 minutes depending on equipment in use.
Until the APU is started.
Two hours and 30 minutes dependent on equipment in use.
45 minutes dependent on equipment in use.
If the battery voltages are below the minimum, how do you charge them?
You have to call a mechanic because the batteries can only be charged by maintenance.
You have to check that the BAT pushbuttons are Auto and switch the external power on.
You have to switch the external power to ON and switch the batteries off.
You have to start the APU as the batteries can only be charged by the APU generator.
When BAT pbs are left in AUTO while Aircraft is parked on ground, with no other power source connected….
The batteries will be completely discharged in about 30 minutes.
The batteries are disconnected automatically as soon as parking brakes are applied.
The batteries are disconnected automatically when the voltage falls below a threshold.
Both batteries are charged by the external power unit. Approximately how long does the charging process
take?
10 minutes.
20 minutes.
30 minutes.
Between 30 & 45 minutes.
What is the meaning of the green AVAIL light in EXT PWR p/b?
External power is plugged in and parameters are normal.
External power is available to the batteries only.
The external power panel door has been opened
External power is supplying the aircraft systems

Electrical System
What does the blue EXT PWR ON light mean?

External power is plugged in and parameters are normal
External power is supplying the aircraft's electrical system.
There is a fault with the external power.
Note: {AVAIL light will go off when you press EXT PWR to on when AVAIL green light was on}
Which buses are powered when EXT PWR is supplying the a/c?
All buses
All buses except galley
After starting the APU, normally what do you do to get the APU generator to power the electrical system?
Switch the APU generator on.
Push the EXT PWR pushbutton thus disconnecting the external power, if it was ON.
Push the BUS TIE pushbutton.
Which buses are powered when APU is supplying the a/c?

All buses
All buses except main galley
Which of the following is NOT possible?

APU GEN powering AC BUS 1 and the same time EXT PWR powering AC BUS 1.
GEN 1 powering both AC BUS 1 and AC BUS 2.
GEN 1 powering AC BUS 1 and APU GEN powering AC BUS 2.
EXT PWR powering AC BUS 1 and GEN 2 powering AC BUS 2.
Ground power is connected to the aircraft and is supplying to all buses. You start No. 1 engine first. After
engine 1 is started (GEN 1 pb sw On}, what changes will takes place on the electrical network?
No change.
GEN 1 feeds AC BUS 1, EXT PWR continues to feed AC BUS 2
GEN 1 feeds AC BUS 2, and AC BUS 1.
GEN 1 feeds AC BUS 1, AC BUS 2 is not powered.
You have started both engines with the help of EXT PWR.
Blue ON light stays ON even when engine generators supply a/c.
Due to priority logic, when both engine generators are supplying, EXT PWR ON Blue light goes off.
{Now if one engine is shut down, EXT will take over that side of AC BUS.}
The APU GEN is supplying the electrical system. You start ENG 2 first. After ENG 2 start, who is supplying AC
BUS1 and AC BUS 2?
GEN 2 to AC BUS 1 & APUGEN to AC BUS 2
APU GEN to AC BUS 1 & GEN 2 to AC BUS 2.
GEN 2 will supply both buses.
APU GEN will supply both buses
What is the function of APU GEN push button located on the overhead electrical panel?
Push this button to automatically start the APU.

Electrical System
When selected to OFF the APU generator field is de-energized.

Both are correct.
After both ENG start, which GENs are supplying AC BUS1 and AC BUS 2?
GEN1 to AC BUS 1 & GEN2 to AC BUS 2
APU GEN or EXT PWR will continue to supply both these buses.
Engine #1 has just been started on EXT PWR as APU was inoperative. The EXT PWR push button blue ON
light is illuminated. Which of the statements below is correct?
External power is supplying all electrical needs.
Engine Gen #1 is supplying AC bus #1 and the downstream systems, and AC bus #2 and the downstream
systems through the bus tie contactors.
Gen #1 supplies AC bus #1 and the downstream systems; Ext power supplies AC bus #2.
In a flight, what happens when GEN 1 fails?

Most of the buses are lost; only NO. 2 buses are available.
GEN 2 feed all buses.
As in (b) but main galley is shed automatically.
ESS TR will come on line..
What is lost in a flight if both engine generators are powering the system, and one subsequently fails?
Only the AC ESS SHED Bus.
Main galley is shed.
Those buses which are associated with the failed generator.
In the normal electrical configuration, if AC BUS 1 is lost for any reason, what will happen to AC ESS BUS and
also to AC ESS SHED BUS.
They are lost and can be regained only by EMER generator
They are lost but can be regained from AC BUS 2 by pressing AC ESS FEED pb switch to ALTN
As in (b) and AC BUS 2 feeds DC ESS BUS and through ESS TR, DC ESS SHED BUS is powered.
Mark the correct statement?

AC/DC ESS SHED BUS are powered whenever AC/DC ESS BUS are powered.
When EMER GEN is running, after loss of normal generators, AC/DC ESS SHED buses are powered
AC/DC ESS SHED BUS are powered whenever any AC generator is supplying.
When does the RAT automatically deploy?

With the loss of G + Y dual Hydraulic systems.
Electrical power to both AC BUS #1 & #2 is lost and the aircraft speed is above 100 knots.
Both are correct.
When both generators fail in flight and the aircraft goes into ELEC EMER CONFIG:
1. Flight is powered by BATs as long as EMER GEN is not powered {for about 8 seconds}.
2. BAT 1 supplies Static Inverter and in turn AC ESS Bus during this time.
3. BAT 2 supplies DC ESS Bus
4. Meanwhile RAT lowers automatically as aircraft speed is more than 100 kts.

Electrical System
5. Crew must lower the RAT manually and must not delay in lowering the RAT.
1, 2, 3, 4
When both generators fail and the aircraft goes into ELEC EMER CONFIG, which buses are powered {FLT on
BATs}?
1. AC ESS
2. DC ESS
3. AC ESS SHED
4. DC ESS SHED
1, 2
1, 2, 3, 4
Or
What is the electrical configuration during the initial 8 seconds when RAT is extending and until EMER GEN
comes on line:
The BATTERIES power BAT HOT buses, DC ESS SHED, and AC ESS SHED through the STATIC INVERTER.
The BATTERIES power BAT HOT buses, DC ESS, and AC ESS through the STATIC INVERTER.
The STATIC INVERTER powers BAT HOT buses, DC ESS, and AC ESS through the AC ESS SHED buses.
The BATTERIES power both BAT HOT buses.
In ELEC EMER CONFIG, when EMER GEN comes on line, which buses are powered?
1. AC ESS
2. DC ESS
3. AC ESS SHED
4. DC ESS SHED
1, 2
1, 2, 3, 4
Or
Which buses will be powered after the RAT is extended and the EMER GEN begins producing power?
BAT HOT buses, DC ESS, DC ESS SHED, AC ESS and AC ESS SHED.
The STATIC INVERTER would power both HOT BAT buses, ESS DC and ESS AC through the ESS AC SHED buses.
The BATTERIES would power both HOT BAT buses, ESS DC and ESS AC through the STATIC INVERTER.
When both generators fail and the aircraft goes into ELEC EMER CONFIG:
AC ESS BUS is fed from BAT 1 through STAT INV till RAT extends.
AC ESS BUS is fed from Emergency generator after the RAT extends.
AC ESS BUS is not powered below 50 kt speed.
In cruise, when both AC BUS 1 and AC BUS 2 fail, a/c goes in ELCT EMER CONFIG.
You notice a red FAULT light on the RAT & EMER GEN pushbutton in the OVHD EMER ELECT Panel. What do
you think of this indication?
The EMER GEN is not yet supplying the system.
The RAT has failed. You will have to turn the batteries to OFF.
The FAULT light is always on when are in ELEC EMER CONFIG.
The RAT has failed, you have to try to reconnect both IDG's.

Electrical System
When does the RAT & EMER GEN red FAULT light illuminate?
When the EMER GEN is not supplying electrical power in case of AC buses #1 & #2 are unpowered
When the RAT is deployed using hydraulic RAT MAN ON push button.
Both are correct.
Which of the following AC buses are powered by the emergency generator?

AC bus 1
AC bus 2
AC ESS bus
The emergency generator supplies power as long as:

The landing gear is down.
The RAT is deployed and not stalled.
The RAT is deployed and the landing gear is down
The landing gear is up.
The RAT is connected directly (or mechanically) to the Emergency Generator

True
False
The drive for emergency generator is operated by

RAT operated hydraulic motor.
Blue system electrical pump.
What is the function of the GEN 1 LINE push button?

When selected OFF the avionics compartment isolation valves close.
When selected OFF the #1 generator powers all AC buses.
When selected OFF generator # 1 is removed from all buses but continues to power one fuel pump in each
wing.
What are the actions to be carried out in smoke check list, to set a/c in ELEC EMER CONFIG?
Press Gen 1 LINE switch to OFF, guarded switch MAN ON. APU GEN to OFF and then GEN 2 Switch to OFF.
Press GEN 1 Line switch to OFF; guarded switch MAN ON; Press BUS TIE switch to OFF and then APU GEN and
GEN 2 Switch to OFF.
When a/c is in ELEC EMER CONFIG with EMER GEN in line,

Engines loose EPR Mode and go to Degraded N1 Mode.
After landing, Thr Rev 1+2 along with Anti –Skid and Nose Wheel Steering are not available.
FMGC1 is lost but can be regained.
All are correct.

Electrical System
While operating on Emergency Electrical Power (EMER GEN powering the system) what should the crew
accomplish during approach?
Check to see that the FMGC has auto tuned the appropriate NAV facility for the approach to be accomplished.
Depress the guarded RMP NAV push button and tune the appropriate NAV facility and course for the approach
to be accomplished.
Both are correct.
When you perform “EMER ELEC GEN 1 LIN........ OFF” in case of QRH procedure of SMOKE/FUMES/AVNCS
SMOKE,
1. GEN 1 LINE contactor opens.
2. GEN 1 remains running and supplies one fuel pump in each wing tank.
3. AC BUS 1 is supplied by GEN 2 through the bus tie contactor.
A) 1,2
B) 1,2,3
C) 3
Do not depress the lDG DISCONNECT switch for more than _??_ to prevent damage to the disconnect
mechanism.
3 seconds
7 seconds
10 seconds
15 seconds
The IDG FAULT light indicates:

An IDG oil overheat
IDG low oil pressure.
IDG low oil pressure or IDG oil overheat
IDG has been disconnected
What precautions are to be observed while disconnecting IDG?

Do not disconnect the IDG if engine is running.
Do not disconnect the IDG if engine is not running or not wind milling.
IDG pb switch should not be pressed for more than 3 seconds.
Both (B) and (C) above are correct

Electrical System
Can you reconnect an IDG in flight?

Yes, but only after contacting maintenance control.
Yes, push and hold the IDG pb until the GEN fault light is goes out.
No, it is not possible.
How will you know that IDG is disconnected?

1) If FAULT light was on before disconnection, it extinguishes when the IDG is disconnected.
2) Related GEN FAULT light will come.
3) The DISC legend appears in amber, when the IDG is disconnected on ELEC SD Page
4) The IDG legend is normally white, but becomes amber on ELEC SD Page.
1,3,4
1,2,4
1,2,3,4
After IDG disconnection why do you get a GALLEY SHED indication on the ELEC SD Page?
It is a reminder to push the GALLEY pushbutton to manually shed the main galley.
It is a reminder to get the flight attendants to switch off galley equipment to decrease the load on the
remaining generator.
It is a reminder that the main galley has been shed automatically following the loss of one generator.
THERE IS no such indication.
When IDG oil outlet temperature exceeds its normal limit of 147 °C…
1) The ELEC page is automatically called on the SD, and temperature indication pulses green as it is an
advisory
2) The respective IDG must be disconnected immediately.
3) The pilot may select the GALY & CAB p/b. to OFF.
1, 2
1, 3
What would cause the GALLEY FAULT light to illuminate with ECAM caution?
The flight attendants have all the coffee makers and ovens on at once.
The Main Galley has shed.
The load on any generator is above 100% of it's rated output.
The Aft Galley has shed.
GALLEY SHED message on Elect page indicates

Main GALLEY are SHED
secondary Galley are shed
FWD Galley power are shed.
Aft Galley power are shed
GALLEY SHED indicator on electrical page appears when

1) GALLEY Push Button switch is OFF.
2) Load on any generator is more than 100% of rated output.
3) The main galleys are shed.
1,2,3
2,3
1,3

Electrical System
When main galleys are shed, GALLEY SHED indicator appears on electrical page. What is the meaning?
1. If in flight, only one generator is operating.
2. If on ground, the aircraft is being supplied by one engine generator only.
3. If on ground, the aircraft is being supplied by APU generator only.
4. If on ground, the aircraft is being supplied by EXT PWR only.
1
2, 3, 4
1, 2, 3, 4
1, 2
What happens when TR 1 fails.

DC BUS 1 power is lost.
DC BUS 1 and BAT BUS are lost.
DC BUS 2 gives power to DC ESS BUS
ESS TR operates from AC ESS BUS
Which buses are lost if TR 1, TR 2 had failed?

No bus is lost.
DC BUS 1, DC BUS 2
DC BUS 1, DC BAT BUS, DC BUS 2
DC BAT BUS after landing gear extension.
ESS TR parameters on ECAM ELEC page.

Are always displayed
Are displayed only when ESS TR is in operation.
Are displayed only when ESS TR parameters exceed the limitations.
For normal conditions, which of the following are not in operation?

AC ESS BUS , DC ESS BUS and AC STAT INV BUS
ESS TR, EMER GEN, STAT INV and STAT INV AC BUS
ESS TR, EMER GEN, AC ESS BUS
ESS TR, AC ESS BUS, DC ESS BUS
What is the advisory message in Electrical system from following?

IDG LO PR
IDG Temp > 147 Deg.
IDG DISC
On ECAM ELEC page % load on the source is indicated for

APU, GEN 1, GEN 2, and EXT PWR
GEN 1, GEN 2 and APU GEN
GEN 1, GEN 2 & STAT INV
APU GEN 1, GEN 2 & EMER GEN
GEN 1 OFF white lt illuminates on O/H panel. What does it mean?

GEN 1 has failed and will trigger the level 3 warning. .
This is in normal position.
That switch is in OFF position.

Electrical System
The BAT FAULT light will illuminate when:

Battery voltage is low
Charging current increases at an abnormal rate
Charging current decreases at an abnormal rate.
When are the Essential Shed buses powered by the battery?

Never.
In case of double generator failure.
After every IDG connection
{The purpose of the shed buses is to reduce the load on the batteries.}
What will happen to batteries during APU start (Battery switches are in AUTO)
Both batteries are connected to DC BAT BUS till APU rpm reaches 95%
As in (a) and it is restricted to only 3 minutes when EMER GEN is running.
As in (a) and it is restricted to only 3 minutes when electrical buses are powered by any generator.
As in (b) but battery contactors will open when APU reaches 50% i.e. when APU starter motor is disengaged.
The purpose of the BUS TIE in AUTO is to allow either GEN to automatically power both main AC buses in the
event of a generator loss until either ground power or the APU generator is activated.
True.
False.
If during a normal flight the BUS TIE push button is depressed to `OFF', what effect would this have on
power to the buses?
None.
All power would be lost and the aircraft would be powered by the batteries until the RAT deploys.
The AC ESS Bus will be supplied by AC Bus 2.
This is not possible as the bus tie contactors are locked out during flight.
BUS TIE p/b switch is OFF and only GEN 1 is available. Which buses are not powered?
AC BUS 2, DC BUS 2
All buses are powered.
AC BUS 2
AC BUS 2, DC ESS BUS, DC ESS SHED BUS
{check this}
When you press AC ESS FEED switch (located on the overhead panel), the AC ESS bus is supplied from:
AC bus 2
AC bus 1
AC ESS Bus is isolated from the circuit.
What is the significance of the green collared circuit breakers?

Green colored circuit breakers are pulled when flying on battery power only.
Green colored circuit breakers are monitored by the ECAM.
Green colored circuit breakers are not to be reset.
Green colored circuit breakers are AC powered.

Electrical System
Mark the correct statement.

When the non-monitored CB’s {Black colored} are out for more than 1 minute, the CB TRIPPED caution is
triggered on ECAM.
When monitored CBs {Green CBs} are out for more than one minute, the CB TRIPPED caution is triggered on
the ECAM.
Normal function of CB is to protect wiring against short circuits and to reset digital computers.
Both (b) and (c)
About CIRCUIT BREAKERS, select the correct statements:

1. Green CBs are monitored and when out for more than 1 min, the C/B TRIPPED is triggered on
the ECAM.
2. If you clear the ECAM C/B TRIPPED caution by pressing CLR p/b and if the C/B remains pulled,
any additional tripped circuit breakers on the same panel will not be detected, and the ECAM
will not trigger the caution.
3. If you clear the ECAM C/B TRIPPED caution by pressing EMER CANC p/b, it clears and inhibits
the ECAM C/B TRIPPED caution for the remainder of the flight.
A.) 1,2
B.) 1,3
C.) 1,2,3
About Circuit Breakers:

1. On ground, do not reengage the C/B of the fuel pump(s) of any tank.
2. Do not pull the circuit breakers for SFCC (could lead to SLATS/FLAPS locked) or for EEC and
EIU.
3. Do not pull the circuit breakers for BSCU (Brake Steering Control Unit) if the aircraft is not
stopped.
A.) 1,2,3
B.) 1,2
C.) 3

Electrical System
Cross check following questions……………….
On the ECAM ELEC page SHED appears amber if

AC ESS BUS is shed
DC ESS BUS is shed
AC and DC ESS SHED buses are shed
AC and DC ESS SHED buses are powered.
After loss of all normal generators when would SHED indication for AC & DC ESS
Buses appear on ELEC ECAM page ?
Any time if generators are not working.
When landing gear is extended.
During RAT extension time.
When (b) and (c) are correct.
APU generator is powering the electrical network. Now AVAIL light comes on in
Cockpit as EXT PWR is connected to a/c. What changes will take place ?
No change.
APU Generator will go off line and EXT PWR will feed all buses since EXT PWR has
priority
over APU generator.
Both APU generator and EXT PWR will feed all buses.
APU generator will feed AC BUS 1 and EXT PWR will feed AC BUS 2.
During a routine flight, which of the following would result after the loss of Gen #2 and
the subsequent start of the APU?
The APU would now power both sides of the electrical system.
All systems return to normal and the RAT must be restowed.
Eng gen #1 continues to power AC bus #1 and downstream systems. The APU powers AC
bus #2 and downstream systems.
In a stationary aircraft with no AC source available. Which AC buses are available.

AC STAT INV BUS, if both batt. Switches are at AUTO
AC STAT INV, AC ESS BUS if both battery switches are at AUTO
AC STAT INV even if battery switches are off.
AC STAT INV, if BATT 1 switch is at AUTO.

Electrical System
In normal electrical configuration (GEN 1, GEN 2 are ON) is there any of bus that is
not energized.
Yes; AC STAT INV BUS
Yes; AC STAT INV BUS, AC GND FLT BUS, DC GND FLT BUS
Yes; AC STAT INV BUS, AC S
No.
While operating on Emergency Electrical Power (EMER GEN powering the system) how is it possible to
properly complete the ECAM checklist with only an upper display?
Depress and hold the specific ECAM page push button on the ECAM control panel to a max of 3 min.
Transfer occurs automatically.
This is not possible. Use the cockpit operating manual.
Which communication and navigation radios are operational in the Emergency Electrical Configuration with
the EMER GEN powering the system?
ACP 1 and 2, VHF 1, HF, RMP 1, VOR 1, and ILS 1.
VHF 1, RMP 1, VOR 1.
RMP #1 & #2, VHF #1, HF (if equipped), ACP #1, VOR #1 and ILS #1.
All radios are lost.
If emergency generator does not come into operation in case of loss of main generators, the following
warnings are triggered.
EMER CONFIG + MW + CRC + ELEC page is called.
RAT EMER GEN FAULT light comes on RED
ESS buses on BAT + MC + SC + ELEC page is called.
What happens to DC buses when TR 1 fails?
All buses are available by auto reconfiguration by using TR 2 and ESS TR
DC BUS 1 DC BAT BUS are lost
DC BUS 1 is lost.
DC BAT BUS is lost till 100 KTS

Electrical System

Fire Protection System

The aircraft has dual fire detector loops for the engines and APU to ensure that a fault in one fire
loop will not affect fire detection capabilities.
True
False
Engine fire loops are installed in the:

Pylon nacelle
Core
Fan
All the above
The fire warning appears in case of:

1. A fire signal from both loop A and B or,
2. A fire signal from one loop when the other is faulty, or
3. Breaks in both loops occurring within 5 s of each other (flame effect), or
4. A test performed on the control panel.
A. 1, 2, 3
B. 1, 2, 3, 4
A fault in one loop (break or loss of electrical supply) does not affect the warning system.
True
False
If a break in both engine fire loops occurs within 5 seconds of each other, a _____ will occur.
AFIRE DET FAULT message on ECAM
A FIRE DET FAULT message on ECAM
A FIRE warning

Each engine has two extinguisher bottles
The APU has one fire extinguisher bottle
Each bottle has two electrically operated squibs to discharge its agent.
All are correct.
The loop-fault cautions appear if:

One loop is faulty or,
Both loops are faulty or,
The fire detection unit fails.
All are correct
STATUS page: INOP SYS indicates 'ENG1 LOOP B'.

No.1 fire detection loop has failed. Fire detection for both engines is not available.
No.1 fire detection loop for engine 1 has failed but fire detection for both engines is still available.
No.1 fire detection loop of engine 1 has failed. Fire detection for engine 1 is inoperative.
Both fire detection loops of engine 1 have failed. Fire detection for engine 1 is inoperative.
What are the fire warnings on the FIRE panel when a fire is detected on any engine?
1. The ENG FIRE pushbutton lights up red.
2. The SQUIB lights come on white if discharge supplies are available.
3. The DISCH lights come on amber.

A. 1
B. 1, 2, 3
C. 1, 3
When will the FIRE light come on red on the ENG panel (pedestal)?
When the TEST p/b is pressed on FIRE Panel {overhead}
When the corresponding engine fire is detected.
Both are correct.
Which indications will appear when FIRE Test pb is pressed for Engine and a/c is electrically
supplied?
‐ A continuous repetitive chime sounds.
‐ The MASTER WARN lights flash.
‐ ENG FIRE warning appears on ECAM.
‐ On the FIRE panel :
• The ENG FIRE pushbutton lights up red.
• The SQUIB lights come on white if discharge supplies are available.
• The DISCH lights come on amber.
‐ On the ENG panel (pedestal) :
• The FIRE lights come on red.
What happens when the pilot pushes ENG 1 (2) FIRE pb sw?
‐ Silences the aural fire warning
‐ Arms the fire extinguisher squibs
‐ Closes the low-pressure fuel valve
‐ Closes the hydraulic fire shut off valve
‐ Closes the engine bleed valve
‐ Closes the pack flow control valve
‐ Cuts off the FADEC power supply
‐ Deactivates the IDG
The engine fire extinguishing squib is armed when:

The DISCH light is on.
The engine fire p/b illuminates.
The engine fire p/b is released out.
If an engine fire is detected, when will the pedestal mounted red FIRE annunciator light extinguish?
When the crew pushes the red MASTER WARN push button.
After the fire getting extinguished.
Only after the crew selects the adjacent ENG MASTER switch to off.
If an engine fire is detected, when will the guarded red ENG FIRE push button light extinguish?
When the fire warning no longer exists.
When the crew pushes and releases the guarded red ENGINE FIRE pushbutton.
When the crew pushes the red MASTER WARN pushbutton.
When the crew pushes the red MASTER WARN pushbutton and then releases the guarded ENGINE FIRE
pushbutton
Should you loose both loops or Fire Detection Unit, fire detection is no longer available for the
respective engine.
True
False.

APU FIRE
Which indications will appear when FIRE Test pb is pressed for APU when a/c is electrically
supplied?
‐ A continuous repetitive chime sounds.
‐ The MASTER WARN lights flash.
‐ APU FIRE warning appears on ECAM.
‐ On the APU FIRE panel :
• The APU FIRE pushbutton lights up red.
• The SQUIB light comes on white.
• The DISCH light comes on amber.
The red APU FIRE light comes on when the APU fire warning is activated, regardless of the position
of the pushbutton.
True
False
What happens when the pilot pushes APU FIRE pb sw?

‐ shuts down the APU
‐ silences the aural warning
‐ arms the squib on the APU fire extinguisher
‐ closes the low-pressure fuel valve
‐ shuts off the APU fuel pump
‐ closes the APU bleed valve and X bleed valve and deactivates the APU generator.
When the APU FIRE P/B SWITCH is released out:

The Fire bottle is discharged.
The Fuel HP valve is closed.
The APU bleed and crossbleed valves are closed.
All of the above.
If there is an APU fire in flight the APU:

Will automatically shut down and the fire bottle will discharge.
Must be shut down manually and the agent manually discharged.
Must be shut down manually but the fire bottle will discharge automatically.
DISCH light on either the engine or APU AGENT P/B switches indicates:
The APU or engine FIRE switch has been pushed.
The extinguisher bottle has been discharged.
A fault has occurred in the respective fire bottle.
Can the APU FIRE test be performed using battery power only?
Yes.
No.
The APU and engine FIRE test can be performed with battery power only.
Yes
No
When the aircraft is on the ground and the APU is started on battery power only, is fire protection
available?
Yes, the APU will initiate an auto shutdown and discharge the extinguishing agent.
As in {A} above but fire detection is not available.
No, but the APU will initiate an auto shutdown.
No, automatic fire protection is only available if AC power is available.
How many fire extinguishing bottles are available for fighting an APU fire?
One.
Two.

APU fire detection is accomplished by:

Two parallel fire detection loops.
One fire detection loop.
Are there any warnings to alert ground personnel when there is a fire in the APU compartment?
Yes, but only if previously selected to automatic by the ground personnel.
No, APU fire indications are only present in the cockpit.
Yes, the external fire warning horn will sound and the APU red fire light will illuminate.
Will an APU fire test shut down the APU?

Yes.
No.
The APU provides for automatic fire extinguishing:

On the ground only.
On the ground and in flight.
Only when selected to automatic by ground personnel.
If you perform the APU FIRE TEST with only DC power available, you get the MASTER WARN
True.
False.
How does the APU fire test on battery power differ from the APU fire test with all buses powered?
There is no difference.
While on battery power, only the red APU FIRE and AGENT/DISC push button will illuminate.
It is not possible to test the APU fire protection while on battery power.
During the walk-around, you have to check that the APU Fire extinguisher overpressure indication
disc is in place. This is an indication that the fire bottle has not been discharged. What is the color
of this disc?
It’s green in color.
It’s a red disc
What is indicated by a missing red disc {APU thermal plug} during an exterior preflight?
This is normal indication, the red APU thermal plug only appears if the APU halon cylinder is low.
An APU fire agent thermal discharge has occurred.
An external fire discharge has been activated.
If an APU fire is detected on the ground, the APU shuts down automatically and the agent is
discharged ______ after the warning is activated.
Immediately
1 second.
3 seconds.
6 seconds.

The avionics compartment is the only area where there is no fire extinguishing system installed.
True.
False.
When smoke is detected in the ventilation extraction duct:

AVNCS SMOKE (red) warning appears on E/WD along with GEN 1 LINE SMOKE light on EMER ELEC
PWR panel, and CRC and Master warning.
AVNCS SMOKE (amber) caution appears on E/WD along with GEN 1 LINE SMOKE light on EMER ELEC
PWR panel, and Single chime & Master Caution.
FAULT Lts. on Blower & Extract pbs also illuminate alongwith warnings as per {A} above.
FAULT Lts. on Blower & Extract pbs also illuminate alongwith cautions as per {B} above.
When smoke is detected in the Avionics ventilation extraction duct:

1. Red ECAM warning of AVNCS SMOKE appears on E/WD along with CRC and Master
warning.
2. Amber ECAM caution of AVNCS SMOKE appears on E/WD along with Single chime &
Master Caution.
3. GEN 1 LINE SMOKE light illuminate on EMER ELEC PWR panel.
4. FAULT Lts. on Blower & Extract p/bs also illuminate on Ventilation Panel overhead.
A. 1
B. 1,2,3
C. 2,3,4
D. 1,3,4
CORRECT ANSWER IS C DSC-26-30-10 P 1/2
ECAM for “AVIONICS SMOKE”

Is inhibited during Take-off from 80 kts till lift-off.
Is inhibited during Take-off from 80 kts till 1500 ft.
Is never inhibited.
ANSWER IS B DSC-26-30-30 P 1/2
In case of Avionics Smoke, which page is displayed on S/D?

Cruise page
Air cond. page
Pressurization page
Elect page
Correct answer is D
DSC-26-30-30 P ½
You have detected avionics smoke. You have selected the GEN 1 LINE push button off and the RAT
has been deployed. Generator 2 has been removed from the system. Which of the following is
TRUE?
The cargo fire bottle automatically fires.
The avionics fire bottle automatically discharges.
The aircraft will be in the Emergency Electrical Configuration
Illumination of the GEN 1 LINE SMOKE light indicates:

A fire has been detected in the avionics compartment.
A satisfactory test of the avionics compartment smoke detection control unit.
Smoke has been detected in the avionics compartment ventilation duct.
A fire has been detected in the electronics compartment.

In case of Avionics Smoke, in conjunction with illumination of the GEN 1 LINE SMOKE light and MASTER
CAUTION light:
The BLOWER and EXTRACT push button FAULT lights will be illuminated.
Only the BLOWER FAULT light will be illuminated.
Only the EXTRACT FAULT light will be illuminated.
With reference to the cargo compartment fire extinguishing system, which statement is true?
There are two fire bottles; one for the FWD compartment and one for the AFT.
There is only one fire bottle; pressing either DISCH pb discharges the extinguishant into the respective
compartment.
There are two fire bottles and both have to be used either in FWD or AFT.When the FWD or AFT toggle sw
is selected to AGENT1, AGENT-1 is discharged into the appropriate compartment and after 60 minutes the
DISCH AGENT 2 light appears.
There is only one fire bottle, when it is discharged, both amber DISCH lights come on
As regards SMOKE in Cargo appearing on ground with Cargo Doors closed:

Order ground staff to open the affected Cargo Door immediately.
Order the ground staff not to open the affected CARGO Door unless all the pax have disembarked and fire
services are present.
Affected Cargo Door must remain closed as long as SMOKE warning remains ON
IndiGo a/cs are fitted with two fire extinguishing agents for cargo compt. They have DISCH AGENT 2 light.
When does this light come on?
Immediately after discharging agent 1
60 minutes after discharging agent 1 in either FWD and AFT cargo compartments
60 minutes after discharging of agent 1 to FWD cargo compartments only
60 minutes after discharging of agent 1 in AFT cargo compartments only.
Correct answer is B
DSC-26-50-30 P 2/2
As regards SMOKE in AFT CARGO appearing on ground with Cargo Doors closed:
Order ground staff to open the AFT Cargo Door immediately.
Order the ground staff not to open the AFT CARGO Door unless all the pax have disembarked and fire
services are present.
AFT Cargo Door must remain closed as long as SMOKE warning remains ON
Correct answer is B
PRO-ABN-26 P 6/40

When the FWD SMOKE light comes on, the flight crew
selects AGENT 1 with the FWD toggle switch
60 min after the discharge of the first bottle, the AGENT

2 DISCH light appears.
AGENT 2 DISCH light indicates that the flight crew has

to discharge AGENT 2 to maintain the required
extinguishant concentration.
Select correct statements for SMOKE warning in FWD

Cargo compartment.
AGENT 2 DISCH light goes off, when the Agent 2 squib

is ignited.
Bottle 2 takes approximately 90 min to completely

discharge & is controlled by a flow metering system.
1,2,3,4,5
1,2,3,5
1,3,5
In the event an aft cargo compartment smoke detector detects smoke:

Only an ECAM message will be generated.
Only a MASTER WARN and a CRC will be generated.
A MASTER WARN, CRC and an ECAM message will be generated.
A CRC and an ECAM message will be generated.
In the event an aft cargo compartment smoke detector detects smoke:

Only an ECAM message will be generated.
Only a MASTER WARN and a CRC will be generated.
A MASTER WARN, CRC and an ECAM message will be generated.
A CRC and an ECAM message will be generated.
Fire protection for the cargo compartments includes:

Two fire bottles; one for each compartment.
Two fire bottles, but will be used only in either FWD or AFT cargo compartment.
Which of the following have automatic fire extinguishing systems?

APU, and lavatory waste bins.
APU, lavatory waste bins and avionics bay.
APU, aft cargo, forward cargo, lavatory waste bins and avionics bay.
APU, forward and aft cargo, lavatory and waste bins
The APU test switch on the APU Auto Exting panel when pushed will:
Test APU fire warning.
Test auto extinguishing.
Test auto shutdown circuit and if APU was running, it shuts down APU.
All the above.
NOTE:
If you are taxing-in on single engine with APU off, and if this engine catches fire,
You will perform ON GND ENG FIRE C/L.
Only AGENT 1 will be available for discharge after putting Master Switch OFF of this engine.

AGENT 2 will not be available for discharge after putting Master Switch OFF as it its Squib is supplied by
DC BUS 2.
How many fire extinguishing bottlse are there per engine?

Each engine has two fire extinguishers.
Each engine has it's own dedicated fire extinguisher and has the capability to share the other engine's
cylinder.
Each engine has it's own dedicated fire extinguisher and has the capability to share one centrally located
halon cylinder.
Each engine has one fire extinguisher.
What systems are affected when the guarded red ENGINE FIRE push button is pushed and
released?
The Master Warning and the chime will be canceled and the AGENT pb's will be armed.
Pneumatics and electrics relating to that engine are shut off
Related hyd sys is cut-off.
All are correct.
In addition to the CRC and red MASTER WARN light, a good engine fire test will display which of
the following (AC power available)?
The CRC and red MASTER WARN light indicate a positive engine fire test.
Lower ECAM engine page, pedestal mounted red FIRE annunciator, red ENG FIRE push button and the
AGENT SQUIB/DISC lights illuminate.
E/WD red 1 (2) ENG FIRE warning, lower ECAM engine page, red FIRE annunciator, red ENG FIRE push
button, and AGENT SQUIB/DISC.



Flight Controls
Flight Controls
Ailerons:
The maximum deflection of the ailerons is 25 °.
The ailerons extend 5 ° down when the flaps are extended (aileron droop).
The maximum deflection of the spoilers is 35 °.
The maximum elevator deflection is 30 ° nose up, and 17 ° nose down.
The maximum THS deflection is 13.5 ° nose up, and 4 ° nose down.

Flight Controls

1. On A320, Flight control has a concept of Fly-by-Wire.
2. In Fly-by-Wire controls, there is no direct relationship between side stick input and control
surface deflection.
3. In Fly-by-Wire controls, Computers‟ get input from stick.
4. Computers control the surface deflections to achieve Normal Law objectives to modulate
servo controlled jacks to satisfy Normal; alternate or direct laws (pitch, roll and yaw axes)
5. However, as on conventional aircraft, the rudder has no such protection.
The flight control surfaces are _______ controlled and _______ actuated.
Electrically / hydraulically
Mechanically / hydraulically
Electrically / electrically
Can the aircraft be controlled with the loss of all electrics?

Yes.
No.
Can the aircraft be controlled with the loss of all hydraulics?

Yes.
No.
Are there any control surfaces with a mechanical backup?

Yes, the ailerons.
Yes, the spoilers
Yes, the THS and the rudder.
No, there aren't any control surfaces with mechanical backup.
When in Normal Law:

Regardless of the pilot‟s input, the computers will prevent excessive maneuvers and
excedance of the safe envelope in pitch and roll axis only.
However, as on conventional aircraft, the rudder has no such protection.
Both are correct.

Flight Controls
Pitch Control:
Two elevators and the Trimmable Horizontal Stabilizer (THS) control the aircraft in pitch.
The maximum elevator deflection is 30 ° nose up, and 17 ° nose down.
The maximum THS deflection is 13.5 ° nose up, and 4 ° nose down.
Two electrically-controlled hydraulic servo jacks drive each elevator.

Each servo jack has three control modes:
• Active: The jack position is electrically-controlled.
• Damping: The jack follows surface movement.
• Centering: The jack is hydraulically retained in the neutral position.
‐ In normal operation:
• One jack is in active mode.
• The other jack is in damping mode.
• Some maneuvers cause the second jack to become active.
‐ If the active servo jack fails, the damped one becomes active, and the failed jack is
automatically switched to damping mode.
‐ If neither jack is being controlled electrically, both are automatically switched to the
centering mode.
‐ If neither jack is being controlled hydraulically, both are automatically switched to
damping mode.
‐ If one elevator fails, the deflection of the remaining elevator is limited in order to avoid
putting excessive asymmetric loads on the horizontal tail plane or rear fuselage.

Flight Controls

1. In Normal operation, ELAC 2 controls the elevators.
2. In case of a failure in ELAC 2, elevators are controlled by ELAC 1.
3. In Normal Operation, ELAC 1 controls the elevators.
4. In case of a failure in ELAC 1, elevators are controlled by ELAC 2.
1
1, 2
3
3, 4
Should the active elevator actuator fail, elevator control is:

Lost.
Maintained by the other actuator.
Reduced.

Flight Controls
STABILIZER:
Two hydraulic motors drive the stabilizer, powered by Green and Yellow.
The two hydraulic motors {both} are controlled by:
1. One of three electric motors.
2. The mechanical trim wheel.
Mechanical control of the THS is available from the pitch trim wheel at any time, if either the
green or yellow hydraulic system is functioning.
Mechanical control from the pitch trim wheel has priority over electrical control.
If a/c is in Normal Law, SEC does not control the servo jacks for Elevator or THS.
True
False.
Two control surfaces that have mechanical backup are:

Elevator and rudder.
Horizontal stabilizer and rudder.
Speed brakes and rudder.
Horizontal stabilizer trim automatically resets to zero degrees after landing.

True
False
Which dual Hydraulic system failure makes THS inoperative?

Blue and Green system
Blue and Yellow system
Green and Yellow system
Both (a) and (b) are effected.
Automatic pitch trim is provided both on ground and in flight.

True.
False.
It is only active where aircraft is in flight
Which of the following will automatically reset after landing?

THS.
Rudder trim.
Both are correct.

Flight Controls
Roll Control: AILERONS
The side stick sends electrical orders to the ELevator Aileron Computers (ELACs) and
Spoiler Elevator Computers (SECs).
There are two ELACs: ELAC 1 normally controls the ailerons, with ELAC 2 as back-up. In
case of failure of ELAC 1, ELAC 2 will automatically take control.
Using orders coming from the ELACs, each SEC sends orders to one or two pairs of spoilers,
without back-up.
Flight Augmentation Computer (FAC) 1, with FAC 2 as back-up, transmits turn coordination
orders for the rudder.
When the autopilot is engaged, the Flight Management and Guidance Computer (FMGC)
sends roll commands to the ELACs and the FACs and to the SECs through the ELACs via
ARINC 429 data buses.
AILERONS:
There are two electrically-controlled hydraulic actuators per aileron, one in active mode and
the other in damping mode. The left blue and right green actuators are controlled by ELAC 1
and the other two actuators by ELAC 2.
All aileron actuators revert to damping mode in case of a double ELAC failure or green and
blue hydraulic low pressure.

Flight Controls
Failure cases:
ELAC 1 FAILURE
The loss of ELevator Aileron Computer (ELAC) 1 leads to select ELAC 2 active. ELAC 2 computes the lateral
orders in normal law and transmits them to the Spoiler Elevator Computer (SEC) for the
roll spoiler
ELAC 1+2 FAILURE

In case of loss of both ELACs only spoilers are available. The SECs control the roll in direct law and the yaw
damping function normal law is lost.
AILERON SERVO CONTROL FAILURE

In case of failure of one aileron servo control, the second one takes over and is controlled by the other ELAC. In
this example, ELAC 1 still computes the orders and ELAC 2 is in slave mode.
ELAC 1 SERVO CONTROLS FAILURE

In case of failure of both ELAC 1 servo controls, then ELAC 2 does the computation and controls its servo
controls.
FAILURES ON THE SAME AILERON

In case of failure of both servo controls of the same aileron, the other aileron is still operated.
SPOILER SERVO CONTROL FAILURE

In case of failure of a spoiler servo control, the opposite surface is retracted.
ELECTRICAL FAILURE
In case of total electrical loss, induced roll is obtained by using the rudder pedals, which have a mechanical
control.

Flight Controls
When a roll command is given by pilot, the input goes to:

Only ELACs
Only SECs
ELACs and SECs.
Roll control is achieved by:

Ailerons
Ailerons and rudder.
One aileron and four spoilers on each wing.
Ailerons, rudder and spoilers

1. ELEC1 normally controls the ailerons.
2. If ELAC1 fails, the system automatically transfers aileron control to ELAC2.
3. If both ELACs fail, the ailerons revert to the damping mode.
1, 2, 3

1. Each aileron has two electrically controlled hydraulic servo jacks.
2. One of these servo jacks per aileron operates at a time.
3. Both of these servo jacks per aileron operate at the same time.
1, 2
Each Aileron servo jack has two control modes:

1. Active mode.
2. Damping mode.
3. Centering mode.
1, 2, 3
2, 3
1, 2
1, 3
For a servo jack, Active mode means:

Jack position is controlled electrically
Jack follows surface movement.
The jack is hydraulically retained in the neutral position.
For a servo jack, Damping mode means:

For a servo jack, Centering mode means:


Flight Controls
The system automatically selects damping mode,

If both ELACs fail
In the event of Blue and Green hydraulic low pressure.
Both are correct.
When the flaps are extended, the ailerons:

Go to the centering mode.
Pitch up 5 degrees.
Droop 5 degrees.
How will you confirm aileron droop?

The position of the ailerons on the exterior preflight inspection.
The lower ECAM FLT/CTL page.
The position of the flap handle.

Left aileron is operated by Blue Hydraulics and is controlled by ELAC 1.
Left aileron is operated by Green Hydraulics and is controlled by ELAC 2.
Left aileron is operated by Blue and Green Hydraulics simultaneously and is controlled by
ELAC 1.
Left aileron is operated by Blue and Green Hydraulics simultaneously and is controlled by
ELAC 1 and ELAC 2 simultaneously.

Right aileron is operated by Green Hydraulics and is controlled by ELAC 1.
Right aileron is operated by Blue Hydraulics and is controlled by ELAC 2.
Right aileron is operated by Blue and Green Hydraulics simultaneously and is controlled by
ELAC 1.
Right aileron is operated by Blue and Green Hydraulics simultaneously and is controlled by
ELAC 1 and ELAC 2 simultaneously.

Flight Controls
If Blue Hyd fails, Left aileron is operated by:

Green hydraulics and is controlled by ELAC 2.
Green hydraulics and is controlled by ELAC 1.
If Green Hyd fails, Right aileron is operated by:

Blue hydraulics and is controlled by ELAC 2.
Blue hydraulics and is controlled by ELAC 1.

Flight Controls
Which of the spoiler surfaces are called as ―Speed Brakes‖?

2,3,4
2,3,4,5
1,2,3,4,5
Which of the spoiler surfaces are called as ―Ground Spoilers‖?

2,3,4
2,3,4,5
1,2,3,4,5
Which of the spoiler surfaces are called as ―Roll Spoilers‖?

2,3,4
2,3,4,5
1,2,3,4,5
To select speed brakes inflight:

Push down on the speed brake handle and move it forward.
Push down on the speed brake handle and move it aft.
Pull up on the speed brake handle and move it aft.
For each spoiler there is one servo jack.

Each servo jack receives hydraulic power from either the green, yellow, or blue hydraulic system, controlled
by the SEC1, 2 or 3.

1. The system automatically retracts the spoilers to their zero position, if it detects a fault or loses
electrical control.
2. If the system loses hydraulic pressure, the spoiler retains the deflection it had at the time of the
loss, or a lesser deflection if aerodynamic forces push it down.
3. When a spoiler surface on one wing fails, the symmetric one on the other wing is inhibited.
1, 2
1, 2, 3
If SEC 1 fails, Spoilers 3 and 4 are lost on both wings.

True
False
If Yellow Hyd fails, spoilers 2 and 4 are lost on both wings.

True
False

Flight Controls
If angle of attack protection is active or flaps are in the configuration Full:

Speed brake extension is inhibited.
Aileron travel is reduced.
Speed brake extension travel is reduced.
Speed brake extension is inhibited, if: {SAFE-T}

‐ SEC 1 and SEC 3 both have faults,
‐ An elevator (L or R) has a fault (in this case only spoilers 3 and 4 are inhibited),
‐ Angle-of-attack protection is active,
‐ Flaps are in configuration FULL,
‐ Thrust levers above MCT position,
‐ Alpha Floor activation.
The maximum speed brake deflection in manual flight is higher than when AP is engaged.
True
False
With AP engaged,
1. The maximum speed brake deflection achievable with the autopilot engaged is obtained by setting
the speed brake lever to the half way position.
2. On setting the position of the speed brake lever from half to full, no increase in speed brake
deflection will be achieved.
3. The maximum speed brake deflection is higher than in manual flight.
1, 2, 3
1, 2
Spoiler surfaces 2, 3, and 4 act as speed brakes as well as roll spoilers.

For spoiler surfaces 2, 3, and 4, the roll function has priority.
If an inhibition occurs when the speed brakes are extended, they retract automatically
and stay
retracted until the inhibition condition disappears and the pilots reset the lever.
True
False

When a speed brake surface on one wing fails, the symmetric one on the other wing is
inhibited.
When a speed brake surface on one wing fails, all of the speed brake surface on the other
wing is inhibited.
When a speed brake surface on one wing fails, nothing happens on the other wing.
If the system loses hydraulic pressure, the spoiler retains the deflection it had at the time of the
loss, or a lesser deflection if aerodynamic forces push it down.
True
False

Flight Controls
Speed brake deflection is different when you are hand flying than when flight is on auto-
pilot.
True
False
The spoiler panels are the only flight control surfaces with no redundant control.
True.
False.
What does amber SPEED BRAKES mean on lower ECAM?

Speed brakes have a fault.
Speed brakes are extended and flap handle is not at 0.
Speed brakes are extended and engines are not at idle.
All of the above.
How do you retract ground spoilers if ground spoilers are deployed automatically?
Moving anyone thrust lever forward.
As in (a) or by pushing down the speed brake control lever.
Only by moving both thrust levers forward.
When speed brakes retract automatically?

1. If speed is less than 180 kts.
2. If angle of attack protection is active
3. When you select Config FULL.
4. If RA is less than 1000 feet
1, 4
2
2, 3
1, 3, 4
What is the maximum flap setting for in-flight use of the spoilers?
Flaps FULL.
Flaps 3.
Spoilers are not approved for in-flight use.
Flaps 10.
When should the speed brake not to be used?

If any one spoiler is in operative
If both elevators are faulty
As in (b) or if SEC 1 computer fails

Flight Controls
FULL EXTENSION – REJECTED TAKEOFF PHASE
Select the conditions required for the ground spoilers to extend automatically if a Rejected
T/O is done above 72kts?
1. If Ground spoilers are armed, the ground spoilers will extend as soon as any one of the thrust
levers is reset to idle.
2. If Ground spoilers are armed, the ground spoilers will extend as soon as both thrust levers are
reset to idle.
3. If the ground spoilers are not armed the ground spoilers will extend as soon as reverse is selected
on one engine (the other thrust lever remains at idle).
4. If the ground spoilers are not armed the ground spoilers will extend as soon as reverse is selected
on both engines.
1,3
1,4
2,3
2,4
If ground spoilers are armed, ground spoilers will extend on RTO above 72 knots as
soon as:
Both thrust levers are reset to idle
One thrust lever reset to idle and other remaining at TO Power
Both are correct
If ground spoilers are not armed, ground spoilers will extend on RTO above 72 knots as
soon as:
1. Both thrust levers are reset to idle
2. Both reverse thrust are selected
3. Reverse is selected on one engine (the other thrust lever remains at idle).
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 2,3
When will ground spoilers extend, if rejected T/O is done above 72 kts?{consider ground
spoilers armed}
……….as soon as both thrust levers are reset to idle.
When will ground spoilers extend, if rejected T/O is done above 72 kts?{consider ground
spoilers not armed}
……….as soon as both reverse thrust are selected or
……….as soon as reverse is selected on one engine (the other thrust lever remains at idle).

Flight Controls
FULL EXTENSION - LANDING PHASE
If ground spoilers are armed, ground spoilers will extend on touch down as soon as:
1. Both thrust levers at Idle position
2. Both thrust levers below Idle position {i.e. in reverse thrust}
3. Reverse selected on at least one engine (and the other thrust lever below MCT position)
1, 2
Spoilers will extend fully if both MLGs are touch down.
Spoilers will extend partially ground spoilers will extend 10°} if one MLG is touch
down
If ground spoilers are not armed, ground spoilers will extend on touch down as soon as:
1, 2
3

down
Even if speed brake lever not in the retracted position, ground spoilers will extend on touch
down as soon as:
1, 2
down
Ground spoilers will extend on touch down as soon as Reverse is selected on at least one
engine
(and the other thrust lever below MCT position)
A. If ground spoilers are armed
B. Ground spoilers not armed but Speed brake lever in the retracted position
C. Speed brake lever not in the retracted position
D. All are correct
If the ground spoilers are armed and all thrust levers are at idle, the ground spoilers will
automatically extend as soon as both main landing gears have touched down.
True
False

Flight Controls
If the ground spoilers are not armed and both main landing gears have touched down, the ground
spoilers will automatically extend as soon as reverse is selected on one engine (the other thrust
lever remains at idle).
True
False
FULL EXTENSION - LANDING PHASE

The ground spoilers will automatically extend when the following conditions are met:
‐ Speed brake lever not in the retracted position or ground spoilers armed and:
• Both main landing gears on ground,
• Both thrust levers at or below Idle position, or Reverse selected on at least one engine
(and the other thrust lever below MCT position).
‐ Speed brake lever in the retracted position but ground spoilers not armed and:
• Both main landing gears on ground,
• Reverse selected on at least one engine (and the other thrust lever below MCT position).
Note: • In autoland, the ground spoilers fully extend at half speed one second after both
main landing gears touch down.
• The spoiler roll function is inhibited when spoilers are used for the ground spoiler
function.
So we can say that:

On landing as soon as both main landing gears have touched down, ground spoilers will extend
automatically when one thrust lever in REV and the other thrust lever at or above idle and below
MCT position, whether ground spoilers armed or not armed.
The ground spoilers will automatically extend as soon as both main landing gears have touched
down:
1. If the ground spoilers are armed and both thrust levers are at or below idle position.
2. If the ground spoilers are armed and any one of the thrust levers is at or below idle position.
3. If the ground spoilers are armed and reverse selected on at least one engine (and the other thrust
lever below MCT position).
4. If the ground spoilers not armed and Reverse selected on at least one engine (and the other thrust
lever below MCT position).
5. If the ground spoilers not armed and Reverse selected on both the engines.
1,3,4
1,3,5
1
5

Flight Controls
PARTIAL EXTENSION:
If ground spoilers armed:

On landing as soon as one main landing gear has touched down, ground spoilers will extend 10°
automatically when:
Both thrust levers at or below Idle position {i.e. in reverse thrust also}
Speed brake lever not in the retracted position:

automatically when:
Both thrust levers at or below Idle position {i.e. in reverse thrust also}
Speed brake lever in the retracted position but ground spoilers not armed:
automatically when: On landing as soon as one main landing gear has touched down, ground
spoilers will extend 10° automatically when:
Reverse selected on at least one engine (and the other thrust lever below MCT position).
In order to reduce the bounce severity at landing in the case of an inappropriate thrust lever handling during
flare, ground spoilers are also partially deployed when the following conditions are met:
‐ Ground spoilers armed,
‐ Both main landing gears on ground,
‐ Both thrust levers at or below the Climb position.
The spoiler roll function is inhibited when spoilers are used for the ground spoiler function.
True
False
Note: If ground spoilers are not armed, they extend at the reverse selection and retract when idle is
selected.
How the ground spoilers retract?

After landing when the ground spoilers are disarmed.
After a rejected takeoff, when the ground spoilers are disarmed.
During a touch and go, when at least one thrust lever is advanced above 20 °.
All of the above.
The ground spoilers retract:

When the ground spoilers are disarmed after landing, or after a rejected takeoff
or
When at least one thrust lever is advanced above 20 ° during a touch and go.

Flight Controls
The ailerons are fully-extended, provided one aileron servo control is available on each side, when:
‐ The ground spoilers are fully extended
‐ Flaps are not in clean CONF
‐ Pitch attitude is lower than 2.5 °
‐ Flying manually
‐ In normal law only.

Flight Controls
YAW CONTROL:
Which of the control surfaces are controlled by the FAC‘s?

Elevator.
Rudder.
Aileron.
Elevator and aileron.
FAC generated data are visually displayed on which of the following?

The MCDU Perf page.
The lower ECAM F/CTL page.
Both pilot's PFD airspeed displays.
All of the above.
What is the function of the FACs?

Rudder and Yaw damping inputs, Flight envelope and speed computations
Rudder and Yaw damping inputs
Rudder and Yaw damping inputs and windshear protection
Rudder and Yaw damping inputs, Flight envelope and speed computations, and windshear
protection
If both FAC's fail, what happens to the rudder limiter?

It immediately assumes the low speed position.
It freezes at its present position and assumes the low speed position when flaps 1 are selected.
Maximum rudder deflection can be obtained after slats extended.
Maximum rudder deflection can be obtained after flaps extended.
What happens to the rudder limits if both FAC's fault?

The limit freezes at the fault condition until Flaps 1 is selected.
The limit freezes at the fault condition until Flaps 5 is selected.
The limit freezes at the fault condition until Flaps 1 is selected. Then it resets to the low speed
limits for increased control.
If both FAC's fail, what is lost?

1. Rudder travel
2. Yaw damping
3. Turn co-ordination
4. Rudder trim
All of the above.

Flight Controls
Can the rudders be moved with both FAC's inoperative?

Yes, if both FACs fail, maximum rudder deflection can be obtained when the slats are
extended
Yes, if both FACs fail, maximum rudder deflection can be obtained
Yes, if both FACs fail, maximum rudder deflection can be obtained when the gear is
extended or flaps extended at 1 minimum
No
Should both FACs fail, maximum rudder deflection can be obtained after the ______
are extended.
Flaps
Slats
Gear
Which of the following functions are automatic?

The yaw damping function.
Turn coordination function.
There is no feedback to the rudder pedals from the yaw damping and turn coordination functions.
In case of G + Y failure, yaw damping and turn coordination functions are lost but RUD TRIM is
available.
During flight what happens to RUD TRIM selector and RESET p/b, if AP is engaged?
RUD TRIM selector is inoperative and RESET pb is operative.
RUD TRIM selector and RESET pb are inoperative
RUD TRIM selector is operative and RESET pb is inoperative.
As in (a) and AP trim order is faster than RUD TRIM selector
In which of the following conditions, Rudder Trim Selector does not control rudder?
1. When Autopilot engaged.
2. When both FAC 1 and FAC 2 fail
3. When both Green and Yellow Hydraulic pressures are lost
1
1, 2
2, 3
1, 2, 3
There is no feedback to the rudder pedals from the yaw damping and turn coordination functions.
The ELACs compute yaw orders for coordinating turns and damping yaw oscillations, and transmit them to
the FACs.

Flight Controls
The maximum rudder travel deflection gradually reduces as the speed increases
In the case of a failure that causes loss of the Rudder Travel limit system, the rudder deflection limit stops
at the last value reached.
At slats extension, full rudder travel authority is recovered.
With the autopilot engaged, the FMGC computes the rudder trim orders.
With the autopilot engaged, the rudder trim rotary switch and the rudder trim reset pushbutton are not
active.
The aircraft rudder can be manually trimmed with the autopilot engaged.
True.
False.
If both the RUDDER TRAVEL LIMITATION functions fail in flight

Full rudder travel is available irrespective of the speed.
place for the rest of the flight
place till the slats are extended and thereafter full authority is available.
This has no effect whatsoever.
„‟‟‟‟‟‟‟‟‟‟‟‟‟‟‟‟‟

Flight Controls
When the aircraft is on ground :{ Normal Law}

There is a direct relationship between side stick deflection and elevator deflection.
Elevator deflection on ground is 30 ° but when the aircraft reaches 75 kt during the takeoff roll, the system
reduces the maximum up elevator deflection from 30 ° to 20 °.
There is no auto trim.
THS resets to zero degrees.
The side stick commands the aileron and roll spoiler surface deflection. The amount of control surface
deflection that results from a given amount of side stick deflection depends upon aircraft speed.
The pedals control rudder deflection through a direct mechanical linkage.
Response of Flight Controls is different when a/c is on ground, in flight, in flare etc.
Adaptation of basic control law objectives to:
- Ground phase: ground mode
Direct relationship between stick and elevator available before lift-off and after touch-down
- Take-off phase: take-off mode
For smooth transition, blend of ground phase law and Nz command law over 5 seconds after
lift off.
- Landing phase: flare mode
At 50ft the attitude is memorized as reference pitch attitude.
At 30ft this value is progressively reduced to 2° nose down to induce gentle positive pilot
action for
a conventional flare.
- Flight mode
• Pitch axis:
Side stick deflection corresponds to a vertical load factor demand.
The Normal Law elaborates elevator and THS orders
• Lateral axis:
Side stick deflection corresponds to a roll rate demand which is converted into a bank angle
demand.
The Normal Law signal roll and yaw surfaces to achieve bank angle demand and maintain it.
Pedal deflection corresponds to a sideslip/bank angle demand.
- Ground mode, take-off mode
Normal Law is the same for these phases, it establishes the same direct relationship between
pilot‟s inputs and surface deflection which is speed dependent.
- Landing mode
• Pitch axis:
The objective derived from a stick input is adapted from a load factor demand to a pitch
attitude demand.
• Lateral axis:
As per flight mode.

Flight Controls
� Automatic pitch trim eliminating need to correct for speed or configuration

changes:
- Electric auto trim function holding elevator position for constant flight path,
- Control surface auto trim function returning elevators to the THS trail.
� Automatic elevator for bank angle compensation up to 33°.
In Pitch Normal Law Flight Mode; pitch trim is:

Manual without the autopilot engaged.
Automatic as long as the autopilot is engaged.
Automatic with or without the autopilot engaged.
When is the Flight Mode active?

From takeoff until landing.
From liftoff until landing
From liftoff until flare mode engages at 50 ft RA.
From takeoff until passing 50 kts on landing (main shock absorbers depressed)

Flight Controls
In normal law all protections are active, which of the following lists is the most complete
list?
Load Factor, Pitch attitude, High AOA, and High speed.
Load Factor, Pitch attitude, High AOA, angle of bank, and High speed.
Load Factor, Pitch attitude, High AOA, Vls, Alpha floor, and High speed.
Load Factor and Pitch attitude.
In pitch normal law, the elevator control changes from the normal mode to a protection
mode when the angle of attack is greater than:
Alpha Max
Alpha Prot
Alpha Floor
In normal law, if one stick is rapidly pulled fully back, can the aircraft's maximum
allowable "G" load be exceeded?
Yes. Rapid side stick deflection must never be made.
Yes, until maximum pitch attitude is reached.
No. At Maximum "G" load, the side sticks are de-activated for 5 seconds.
No. The load factor limitation overrides side stick commands to avoid excessive "G" loads.
TOGA thrust is provided regardless of throttle position when _______ engages the
autothrottle system.
Alpha Max
Alpha Prot
Alpha Floor
While on the ground in Roll Normal Law there is a direct relationship between sidestick
deflection and the corresponding aileron and spoiler deflection.
True
False
Roll control in NORMAL LAW is achieved with:

Ailerons and spoilers.
Ailerons, spoilers and rudder.
Ailerons, spoilers 2-5 and rudder.

Flight Controls
Can the crew make a flight control input that will over-stress the airplane in direct law?
No. The system is designed to avoid such an attempt.
Yes, there are no protections provided in direct law.
In normal law, what is the maximum bank angle you can reach with the side stick fully
deflected?
33°
49°
67°
70°
What happens if you release the stick at 40 degrees of bank?

The bank stays at 40°
The aircraft rolls back to 25°
The aircraft rolls back to 33° and resumes flight path stability.
The aircraft rolls back to a bank angle less than 29°
In Normal Law, what are the limits of Pitch Attitude protections with flaps Full
30° nose up.
35° nose up progressively reduced to 20°
25° nose up, progressively reduced to 20° at low speed.
There is no limit.
Is there any rudder pedal feedback for the yaw damping and turn coordination
functions?
Yes.
No.
While in-flight, operating in Normal law, in the Alpha prot range:

The flight controls revert to direct law.
The flight controls remain in the load factor demand law.
The sidestick controller and flight controls revert to the AOA mode, and side stick deflection
is proportional to AOA.
While in flight operating in Normal law, movement of the sidestick and subsequent
return to neutral will command:
A load factor proportional to stick deflection, then maintain one G flight corrected for pitch
attitude.
control surface movements proportional to stick deflection, then return the aircraft to straight
and level flight.
Control surface movements proportional to stick deflection, disconnect auto trim, and
maintain its current attitude.

Flight Controls
Which dual hydraulic failures do not affect the flight control laws ?
Blue and Green system.
Blue and Yellow system
Green and Yellow system
In pitch NORMAL law the aircraft goes into flare mode

When flaps are extended.
When passing through 50 feet
When passing through 30 feet
When landing gear is extended.
What is the bank angle after which positive spiral stability is introduced in case of
normal law?
33 degrees
45 degrees
40 degrees
As in (a) spiral stability starts from 0 deg if high speed protection is active.
Select correct statements about Bank Angle Protection:

When bank angle protection is active, auto trim is inoperative.
If the bank angle exceeds 45 °, the autopilot disconnects and the FD bars disappear.
The FD bars return when the bank angle decreases to less than 40 °.
All are correct
Under Bank angle protection in case of Normal Law:

1. If the pilot holds full lateral side stick deflection, the bank angle goes to 67 °
(indicated by a pair of green bar lines “=” on the PFD) and no further.
2. If the pilot releases the side stick at a bank angle greater than 33 °, the bank angle
automatically reduces to 33 °.
3. Up to 33 °, the system holds the roll attitude constant when the side stick is at neutral.
4. Inside the normal flight envelope, the system introduces and maintains positive spiral
static stability for bank angles > 33 °.
5. Inside the normal flight envelope, the system introduces and maintains positive spiral
static stability for bank angles more than 33 °.
1,3,5
1,2,3,4
1,2,3,5

Flight Controls
If Angle-of-Attack protection is active, and the pilot maintains full lateral deflection on the side stick, the
bank angle will not go beyond 45 °.
If High Speed Protection is active, and the pilot maintains full lateral deflection on the sidestick, the bank
angle will not go beyond 40 °.
Beyond 33 ° of bank, the pitch trim stops working in normal law.
When bank angle protection is active, auto trim is inoperative.
In Bank angle protection:

1. If Angle of Attack protection is active, the bank angle will not go beyond 45
°whatever may be pilot inputs.
2. If High Speed Protection is active, the bank angle will not go beyond 40 °.
3. If high speed protection is operative, the system maintains positive spiral static
stability from a bank angle of 0 °, so that with the side stick released, the aircraft
always returns to a bank angle of 0 °.
4. If Angle of protection is active, the bank angle will not go beyond 67 ° whatever may
be pilot inputs.
5. If High Speed Protection is active, the bank angle will not go beyond 67 °.
1,2,3
3,4,5
1,3,5
2,3,4
The autopilot will disconnect if the α protection is active.

The autopilot disconnects, when High Speed Protection becomes active.
If the bank angle exceeds 45 °, the autopilot disconnects and the FD bars disappear. The FD bars
return when the bank angle decreases to less than 40 °.
The flight director bars disappear from the PFD when the pitch attitude exceeds 25 ° up or 13 °
down. They return to the display when the pitch angle returns to the region between 22 ° up and
10 ° down.
α floor is activated through the A/THR system, when α is greater than α floor which is
9.5 ° in configuration 0;
15 ° in configuration 1, 2;
14 ° in configuration 3;
13 ° in configuration FULL
α floor is activated through the A/THR system, when side stick deflection is greater than 14 ° nose up, with
either the pitch attitude or the angle-of-attack protection active.
To deactivate the angle of attack protection, the pilot must push the sidestick:
‐ Greater than 8 ° forward, or,
‐ Greater than 0.5 °for at least 0.5 s when α < α MAX.

Flight Controls
Depending on the flight conditions (high acceleration, low pitch attitude), the High Speed Protection is
activated at, or above, VMO/MMO.{ green = symbol is at VMO +6 Kt}.
High Speed Protection is deactivated, when the aircraft speed decreases below VMO/MMO, where the
usual normal control laws are recovered.
When it is activated, spiral static stability is introduced to 0 ° bank angle (instead of 33 ° in normal
law), and the bank angle limit is reduced from 67 ° to 40 °.
As the speed increases above VMO/MMO, the sidestick nose-down authority is progressively
reduced, and a permanent nose-up order is applied to aid recovery to normal flight conditions.
The High Speed Protection is deactivated when the aircraft speed decreases below VMO/MMO,
where the usual normal control laws are recovered.
The ECAM displays an “O/SPEED” warning at VMO + 4 kt and MMO + 0.006.
What happens to bank angle protection if high speed is operative?

Bank angle is limited to 45 deg and spiral stability is lost.
Bank angle is limited to 45 deg and spiral stability is introduced from 0 deg
Bank angle is limited to 33 deg and spiral stability is introduced from 0 deg
Bank angle protection is lost.
On PFD speed scale, black and red barber pole appears below stall warning speed
In normal law when angle of attack protection (Alpha prot) is active.
In alternate law.
In direct law
Both (b) and (c) are correct
What is the bank angle after which positive spiral stability is introduced?
33 degrees
45 degrees
40 degrees
As in (a) spiral stability starts from 0 deg if high speed protection is active.
When the landing gear is extended, pitch alternate law:

Remains the same.
Degrades to pitch direct law.
Degrades to pitch backup law.
What kind of protections are provided if the aircraft is in Alternate Law?

G-load protection with a reduced factor.
Speed Stability
Full G load protection and high speed stability and low speed stability
G-load protection and speed stability if the ADIRS and elevators are working.

Flight Controls
The Ground Mode is different in Alternate Law.

No, It is the same as in Normal Law.
Yes, . It is the different as compared to Normal Law.
What are the functions available in Yaw alternate law

Only Yaw damping function
Yaw damping and turn coordination
Turn coordination function only
Rudder limiter system only
Alternate law reduces VMO to 320 kt to restore a normal aircraft speed margin in case of
upset. This is not necessary in the Mach range, because the margin there is, in any case,
conventional.
The load factor limitation is similar to that under normal law.
There is no pitch attitude protection. Amber Xs replace the green double bars “=” on the PFD.
LOW SPEED STABILITY
An artificial low speed stability replaces the normal angle-of-attack protection. It is available
for all slat/flap configurations, and the low speed stability is active from about 5 kt up to about
10 kt above stall warning speed, depending on the aircraft’s gross weight and slats/flaps
configuration.
A gentle progressive nose down signal is introduced, which tends to keep the speed from falling
below these values.
The system also injects bank-angle compensation, so that operation effectively maintains a
constant angle of attack.
In addition, audio stall warnings (crickets + “STALL” synthetic voice message) is activated at an
appropriate margin from the stall condition.
The PFD speed scale is modified to show a black/red barber pole below the stall warning.
The α floor protection is inoperative.
HIGH SPEED STABILITY

Above VMO or MMO, a nose up demand is introduced to avoid an excessive increase in speed.
The pilot can override this demand.
In addition, the aural overspeed warning (VMO + 4 or MMO + 0.006) remains available.
BANK ANGLE PROTECTION

Not provided.
The AP will disconnect, if speed exceeds VMO/MMO, or if the bank angle exceeds
45 °.
What are the protections lost in ―Pitch Alternate Law without protections‖ as compared
to “Pitch Alt Law with protection” ?
Low speed stability and Hi speed stability are lost.
Pitch altitude protection is lost
When in alternate law, all protections except _______ protection will be lost.
Roll attitude.
Pitch attitude.
Bank angle.
Load factor.

Flight Controls
High and low speed stabilities may be available in alternate law, stabilities:
Will not allow the pilot to stall the aircraft.
Prohibit steep bank angles.
Prohibit steep climb angles and bank angles.
Can be overridden by the pilot, and it is possible to exceed Vmo, Mmo and stall the aircraft.
Which of the following statements is always true when operating in alternate law?
Extending the landing gear will place the aircraft in Direct law.
Extending the landing gear will place the aircraft in Mechanical backup law.
Extending the landing gear will place the aircraft in Mechanical backup law.
Turn coordination is available in Alternate Law.

Yes
No, You get yaw damping only.
When do you get FLARE Mode in Alternate Law?

Never. It goes directly from Alternate Law to Direct Law when the gear is selected down.
When selecting Flaps 1
At glide slope interception.
In Pitch Alternate Law; the low Speed stability (nose down command) can be
overridden by the sidestick.
True
False
With the aircraft in Pitch Alternate Law, roll is in _____ Law.

Direct
Normal
Alternate
With the aircraft in Direct Law:

1. Speed is limited to 320/.77, due to the loss of high-speed protection.
2. PFD displays “USE MAN PITCH TRIM” in amber as Automatic trim is inoperative in
direct law.
3. In case of GPWS or EGPWS alerts, respect stall warning when applying the GPWS or
EGPWS procedure since protections are lost.
4. Landing distance required will be more than while landing in Normal Law.
A) 2
B) 1,2
C) 1,2,3,4
D) 2,4

Flight Controls
What are the protections available in pitch direct law?

Only LOAD FACTOR protection is available
Load factor protection, low speed stability and HI speed stability are available
No protection is available
Only angle of attack protection is available.
When MAN PITCH TRIM ONLY message is displayed on the PFD

If both L & R elevator fault is detected.
If both G & Y system fail in flight
Whenever pitch direct law is operative
How do you know that pitch direct law is active in flight

In bank angle protection green dash symbols turn to amber crosses and no PFD message.
In bank angle protection green dash symbols turn to amber crosses and USE MAN PITCH
TRIM amber message on FMA
If bank angle protection green dash symbols turn to amber crosses and MAN PITCH TRIM
ONLY red message on FMA
Use MAN PITCH TRIM message and green dashes in bank angle protection.
You can degrade directly from Normal Law to Direct Law with gear down and a dual
radio altimeter fault.
True.
False.
Mechanically backed-up control surfaces:

Require hydraulic power for actuation.
Are mechanically connected to the cockpit controls.
Both are correct.
In the event of a complete loss of electrical flight control signals, the airplane reverts to
a _______ mode.
Mechanical
Alternate Law
Alternate law
Abnormal Attitude law
What display informs you that the aircraft is in direct law?

An amber message “USE MAN PITCH TRIM” appears on the PFD.
ECAM of DIRECT LAW

Flight Controls
Is automatic pitch trim available in alternate law?

Yes
No
When does PITCH TRIM indication become amber in F/CTL page?

If THS is out take off range
if THS is jammed
If G or Y system pressure is low
If pitch back up law is active.
When Auto trim is frozen during flight in pitch normal law.

Whenever manual trim is operated.
As in (a) or whenever load factor is less than 0.5
Whenever bank angle is more than 45 deg.

After touch down pitch trim is automatically reset to zero provided green and yellow
system is pressurized.
Automatic pitch trim is available in direct law.
ELAC control remain synchronized with manually selected pitch trim positions.
It is not possible to control THS manually when auto trim function is available.
When ―MAN PITCH TRIM ONLY‖ message is displayed on the PFD

If both L & R elevator fault is detected.
If both G & Y system fail in flight
Whenever pitch direct law is operative
There is no automatic trim : the pilot must trim manually.

The PFD displays in amber the message “USE MAN PITCH TRIM”.
No protections are operative.
The α floor function is inoperative.
Overspeed and stall warnings are available as for alternate law. There is no automatic trim : the pilot must
trim manually.
The PFD displays in amber the message “USE MAN PITCH TRIM”.
No protections are operative.
The α floor function is inoperative.
Overspeed and stall warnings are available as for alternate law.
The yaw damping and turn coordination functions are lost.
The LAF is available when the aircraft is in clean configuration and in Normal law. The LAF orders
are added to those generated by the normal law.
The load alleviation function permits to alleviate the wing structure loads in case of continuous turbulences.
The load alleviation function permits to alleviate the wing structure loads.
The function is achieved through the upward deflection of:
‐ The two ailerons only, or
‐ The two ailerons associated to the spoilers 4 and 5.

Flight Controls
SIDESLIP TARGET
In the case of an engine failure at takeoff, or at go-around, the sideslip index on the PFD changes
from yellow to blue if logic conditions are fulfilled:
In flight, the lateral normal law commands some rudder surface deflection to minimize the sideslip.
The pilot’s response is normal and instinctive: zero the slip indication by applying the right amount of
rudder to get the best climb performance.
The rudder trim rotary selector has no effect, when the autopilot is engaged.
The RESET pb is not active, when the autopilot is engaged.
To arm the ground spoilers, the lever must be pulled up when in the RET position.
A pilot action on the pitch trim wheel disconnects the autopilot.

Flight Controls
The autopilot will disconnect if the side stick takeover push button is depressed.
True.
False

1. If both side sticks are operated simultaneously, the aircraft will respond to only the
side stick with the greatest deflection.
2. If the captain elects to reject the takeoff below 72 knots, ground spoilers will not
deflect and auto brakes activation will not occur. Manual braking must be used.
3. With Flaps configuration 1+ F, as the aircraft accelerates after take-off, the flaps will
automatically retract at 200 kts.
1
1, 2
1, 2, 3
2
If both Pilots deflect their side sticks fully back……..

The “pitch up” order is 1.5 times higher than with only one stick deflected
No inputs are sent to the flight control computers unless one pilot presses the takeover pb on
his stick.
The “pitch up” order is twice as high as with only one stick deflected
The “pitch up” order is equal to a single stick deflection
The indications of dual input will be:

Red Arrows and Green CAPT, F/O lights on both sides.
Green CAPT, F/O lights on both sides and “DUAL INPUT” voice message is activated.
Only “DUAL INPUT” voice message is activated.
Side sticks provide electrical signals to the flight control computers and computers
{based on the flt control laws} give signals to deflect the surfaces. If both side sticks are
operated simultaneously:
Their inputs cancel each other.
Both inputs are algebraically added.
The F/O input is overridden by the CAPT input.
Which actins cause the side stick priority RED ARROW light illumination in F/O side
and CAPT green light?
1. When F/O‟s side take over pb is pressed
2. When CAPT‟s side take over pb is pressed.
3. Capt‟s side stick is not in neutral
4. F/O‟s side stick is not in neutral.
1, 3
2,4
4
3

Flight Controls
How does the crew know whose sidestick has priority?

A red light illuminates in front of the pilot whose sidestick is deactivated.
A green light illuminates in front of the pilot who has taken control, if the other sidestick is
not in the neutral position (indicates a potential and unwanted control demand).
Both are correct.
To disable a side-stick, you have to depress the red take-over button on the active stick.
Holding the button down for 40 seconds will electrically lock the other stick out until its
own red take-over button is pushed again.
True.
False.
Let's assume the F/O presses his takeover pushbutton and releases it after more than 40
seconds.
The Captain's side stick is de-activated unless he presses his takeover pushbutton.
The Captain is unable to re-activate his side-stick for the rest of the flight
Both sticks are active
The Captain's side stick is active as long as the F/O's side stick is in neutral position.

1. A pilot can at any time reactivate a deactivated stick by momentarily pressing the
takeover push button on either stick.
2. If both pilots press their takeover pushbuttons, the pilot that presses last gets
priority.
3. If the aircraft is on the ground and commencing its takeoff run and one stick is
deactivated, this triggers the takeoff “CONFIG” warning.
4. A “PRIORITY LEFT” or “PRIORITY RIGHT” audio voice message is given each time
priority is taken.
5. If an autopilot is engaged, any action on a takeover pushbutton disengages it.
1, 2, 3, 4, 5
SIDE STICK INDICATIONS ON PFD

1. Side stick position indications appear white on both PFDs
2. Side stick position indications appear white after the first engine start.
3. Side stick position indications appear white after both engine start.
4. When a/c on the ground.
5. The indications disappear when the aircraft goes from the ground into flight.
1, 3, 4, 5
1, 2, 4, 5

Flight Controls

The “SPEED BRK” message appears in green when the speed brakes are extended.
It appears in amber when the speed brakes should be retracted.
Both are correct.
The FLAP lever sends signal to Slat Flap Control Computer (SFCC) to command movement.
There are two Slat Flap Control Computers (SFCCs), each containing one slat channel and one flap
channel.
If one SFCC is inoperative, slats and flaps both operate at half speed.
Mark the correct Statements:

If one SFCC is inoperative, slats and flaps both operate at half speed.
If one SFCC is inoperative, you will get ECAM of ………………
If both SFCC become inoperative, then only ECAM is generated.
If one hydraulic system is inoperative, the corresponding surfaces (slats or flaps) operate at
half speed.
True
False
Which of the following computers control and monitor flaps and slats?
ELAC's.
Wing tip brakes.
Three SECs
Two Slat Flap Control Computers (SFCC's).
Where does the SFCCs obtain AOA and air data information from?
SEC
ELAC
ADIRU
ADC
The wing tip brakes are:

Pneumatically actuated.
Electric brakes.
Hydraulically actuated.
Mechanically controlled, hydraulically actuated.
Four hydraulically-operated wing tip brakes are installed to lock the flaps or slats in
case of:
1. Asymmetry,
2. Overspeed,
3. Symmetrical runaway
4. Uncommanded movement
All of the above

Flight Controls
The WTBs {Wing Tip Brakes}, once activated:

Lock both the slats and flaps in their current position
Lock only the flaps in their current position.
Lock only the slats in their current position.
Lock the affected Slats or Flaps in their current position.
Wingtip brakes (WTBs), activated in case of asymmetry, mechanism over speed, symmetrical runaway, or
uncommanded movement of the surfaces.
They cannot be released in flight.
If the flap wingtip brakes are on, the pilot can still operate the slats, and if the slat wingtip brakes are on, he
can still operate the flaps.
What is the indication, if wing tip brakes are applied in the flap system?
FLAPS LOCKED ECAM warning and flaps do not move.
FLAPS FAULT ECAM warning and flaps do not move
FLAPS FAULT ECAM warning both flaps and slats will move
FLAPS FAULT ECAM warning both flaps and slats will not move.
The message WING TIP BRK ON appears on the E/WD. What does it mean?
A hydraulic device locks the flaps in their present position.
To reduce structural stress, the slats movement is being slowed down through the wing tip
brakes.
To avoid asymmetry, the outer slats are locked in their present position.
Because of the locked flaps, the wing tip brakes also lock the slats.
What is the meaning of the message ‗WING TIP BRK ON‘ appearing on the E/WD?
A hydraulic device locks the Flaps in their present position
To reduce structural stress, the Slats movement is being slowed down through the wing tip
brakes.
To avoid asymmetry, the outer Slats are locked in their present position.
Because of the locked Flaps, the wing tip brakes also lock the Slats.
What is the indication when speed lock function of slats is active?

A – LOCK indication pulses cyan on upper ECAM below slat / flap position indicator
SPD LOCK indication pulses cyan on upper ECAM below slat / flap position indication
SPD LOCK indication pulses cyan on lower ECAM F/CTL page
A – LOCK indication pulses cyan on lower ECAM F/CTL page.
What is ALPHA / SPEED LOCK FUNCTION in slat / flap system

This function inhibits slats refraction at high angle of attack or low speed.
This function inhibits flaps retraction at high angle of attack or low speed.
As in (b) the lever cannot be moved to „0‟ position
As in (b) the lever cannot be moved to‟0‟ position at low speed.

Flight Controls
What is the effect of slats ALPHA / SPEED lock function.

It inhibits slats retraction at high angle of attack and / or low speed.
Flap operations is not affected by Alpha Speed lock function.
Slats extension is still possible
What is the recommended action if the FLAP LOCKED message appear on the
ECAM after the flaps have crossed 3 and moving towards FULL for landing?
Retract the lever to 3
Land with CONFIG FULL
Landing can be performed either CONFIG 3 or FULL
Do not follow the ECAM procedure.
Selection of Config 1 prior to take-off will select which of the following?

Slats 1 and flaps 1 (1+F).
Slats 1 and flaps 0 (1).
Selection of flaps 1 in flight will select which of the following configurations?

After take-off with flap lever in ‗1‘ position

Flaps automatically retract at 265 kts
Flaps and slats automatically retract at 210 kts
Slats automatically retract at 210 kts.
Flaps automatically retract at 210 kts.
What happens to Slat / Flaps if aircraft speed is less than 210 kts and flap is retracted
from 2 to 1.
Flaps will retract to 0 but Slats remain extended.
Flaps retract to 1+ F CONFIG
As in (b) and V max warning is triggered
What happens to Slat / Flaps if aircraft speed is more than 210 kts and flap is retracted
from 2 to 1.
Flaps will retract to 0 but Slats remain extended.
Flaps retract to 1+ F CONFIG
As in (a) and V max warning is triggered

Flight Controls
Which altitude limitation is associated with high lift devices?

Max altitude for extension is 20, 000 ft.
Max altitude for extension is 25, 000 ft
Mark the correct statements of ECAMs for SLATS?

1. F/CTL SLAT SYS 1(2) FAULT means that Slat channel in one SFCC has failed.
2. Due to F/CTL SLAT SYS 1(2) FAULT, Slats will move at half speed.
3. F/CTL SLATS FAULT means that both Slat channels are failed in two SFCCs.
4. F/CTL SLATS LOCKED means that Slats‟ wing tip brakes are applied.
1,3,4
1,2,3,4
F/CTL SLATS FAULT or F/CTL SLATS LOCKED are two different ECAMs.
True
False
Mark the correct statements of ECAMs for FLAPS?

1. F/CTL FLAPS SYS 1(2) FAULT means that FLAP channel in one SFCC has failed.
2. Due to F/CTL FLAPS SYS 1(2) FAULT, FLAPs will move at half speed.
3. F/CTL FLAPS FAULT means that both FLAP channels are failed in two SFCCs.
4. F/CTL FLAPS LOCKED means that FLAP‟s wing tip brakes are applied.
1,3,4
1,2,3,4
F/CTL FLAPS FAULT or F/CTL FLAPS LOCKED are two different ECAMs.
True
False
Mark the correct Statements:

1. You have to apply corrections for speeds and landing distance in case of F/CTL FLAPS LOCKED
from QRH.
2. You have to apply corrections for speeds and landing distance in case of F/CTL FLAPS FAULT
from QRH.
3. You have to apply corrections for speeds and landing distance in case of F/CTL SLATS LOCKED
from QRH.
4. You have to apply corrections for speeds and landing distance in case of F/CTL SLATS FAULT
from QRH.
1,2,3,4
1,3
2,4

Flight Controls

In flight if speed brakes are extended, flight control page is displayed on SD automatically.
Mechanical control of the THS is available from the pitch trim wheel at any time, if either of
green or yellow hydraulic system is functioning.
When a spoiler surface on one wing fails, the symmetric one on the other wing is available
and is not inhibited.
With the autopilot ON, the rudder-trim rotary switch and the rudder trim reset pushbutton
remain active.
FAULT light in ELAC p/b comes on amber along with an ECAM caution:
When a failure is detected
During ELAC power-up test
For both of the above
FAULT light in SEC p/b comes on amber along with an ECAM caution:
During SEC power-up test
FAULT light in FAC p/b comes on amber along with an ECAM caution:
During FAC power-up test
Is automatic pitch trim provided on the ground?

Flight Control Data Concentrators (FCDC) acquire data from the ELACs and SECs and send it to
the electronic instrument system (EIS) and the centralized fault display system (CFDS).
If all the SEC {i.e. SEC 1 +2 +3} computers fail, which of the Flt. control surfaces are
lost completely?
Spoilers
Ailerons
Elevators
Nothing is lost as A320 is a fly by wire a/c.
Which computer normally commands the operation of the No.2 spoiler surface?
SEC 2
SEC3
SEC 1 + 2
SEC 1+3
Which computers normally command the operation of the elevators and horizontal
stabilizer?
SEC 1
FAC 1
ELAC 2

Flight Controls
If all the ELACs {i.e. ELAC 1 +2} computers fail, which of the Flt. control surfaces are
lost completely?
Elevators
THS
Spoilers
Ailerons
When ELAC 1+2 both fail:

Both ailerons are lost.
Both ailerons and all spoilers on each wing are lost.
In this failure, ailerons continue to operate normally but Elevator control is shifted to SECs.
When ELAC 1+2 both fail,

A/C reverts to ALTN Law.
A/C will go to Direct Law
A/C will remain in Normal Law.
Which of the following computers control Flt. Controls?

ELACs, SECs, FACs, FCDCs.
ELACs, SECs, FACs.
ELACs, SECs, FACs, FCDCs, ADIRUs, LGCIUs.
ELAC Fault
1). In normal operations, ELAC1 controls the ailerons and ELAC2 is standby for
ailerons.
2). Failure of both ELACs leads to loss of ailerons and hence Alternate Law.
3). Provided no uncommanded maneuvers occurred, an attempt can be made to reset the
failed ELAC.
4). In normal operations, ELAC2 controls the elevators and stabilizer, and ELAC1 is
standby.
5). In case of failure of both ELACs, one of the SECs will take over the control of the
elevators and stabilizer.
6). Again, an attempt can be made to reset the computers.
7). If the fault is designated a pitch fault, only the pitch function of the associated ELAC
is lost.

Flight Controls
Q.1 In case of Direct Law

1). In Direct Law, deflection of the control surfaces is a linear function of deflection of
the side-stick and trimming must be done manually.
2). The controls are very sensitive at high speeds. Use of manual thrust is recommended
as power changes will result in pitch changes.
3). Similarly, use of the speed brake will result in nose up pitch changes so it should be
used with care.
4). Protections are unavailable, so speed is limited to 320kt/0.77M and care must be taken
in GPWS or wind shear maneuvers.
5). Approach speed and landing distances increases.
Q.2 In case of Alternate Law

1). Stall warnings and over speed warnings become active.
2). Stall warnings and over speed warnings remain inactive.
3). Max. speed is limited to 320kt as high speed protection is lost.
4). Stall warnings must be respected when carrying out EGPWS maneuvers.
A.) 2,3,4
B.) 1,3,4
C.) 3
D.) 1,3
Q.3 In case of Alternate Law

1). Expect increased approach speeds and landing distances.
2). Expect Direct Law after landing gear extension if AP not engaged.
3). Aircraft will remain in Alternate Law even after landing gear extension if AP
is engaged.
4). Expect Direct Law after landing gear extension if AP is engaged.
A.) 1,2,3
B.) 2,3,4
C.) 2,
D.) 1,2
Wingtip brake fault

The wingtip brakes activate in case of
assymetry,
mechanism overspeed,
symmetrical runaway or
uncommanded movements.
F/CTL FLAP(SLAT) TIP BRK FAULT,

Flight Controls
In case of Alternate Law

1). Pitch Control follows load factor demand law similar to Normal Law, but roll
is as in direct law.
2). Pitch Attitude protection is lost.
3). You will see amber „X‟ in place of „=‟ green bars on both Pitch and Roll
scales.
4). Load factor Protection is lost.
5). Other protections are either replaced with static stability or are lost, depending
on the nature of the failure.
A.) 2,4,5
B.) 1,3,4
C.) 1,2,3,5
D.) 1,2,3,4,5
What must the pilot do to take sidestick priority?

•With autopilot engaged, press his takeover pushbutton once.
•In manual flight press and hold his takeover pushbutton.
•In either manual or automatic flight, release his takeover pushbutton.
When does the sidestick priority "Red Arrow" illuminate in front of a pilot?
•When that pilot has lost authority.
•When that pilot has regained authority.
•When the opposite sidestick is not at neutral.
When is the overspeed ECAM warning provided?

•At VMO.
•At VMO + 4 Knots.
•At VMO + 6 Knots.
When and where does the "A LOCK" message appear?

•Replaces the F symbol when a wing tip brake is applied to the flaps.
•Replaces the S symbol when speed falls below 148 kt if the flaps are
already up.
•Replaces the S symbol when the alpha/speed lock function has been
activated, preventing flap retracting from 1 to 0.

Flight Controls
"USE MAN PITCH TRIM" message is displayed on the PFD:

•In amber when in Direct Law.
•Indicates that manual pitch trim must be used to control the aircraft
attitude in pitch.
•Indicates that the alpha floor function, Overspeed and Stall Warnings are
inoperative.
Q.4 SFCC:
There are two SFCCs and each SFCC has fully independent Slat and Flap channels.
Failure of single channel in a single computer will lead to slow operation of the associated
surfaces and will cause ECAM of SLATS SYS 1(2) FAULT or FLAPS SYS 1(2) FAULT.
Failure of a single computer {loss of both channels in that computer} will lead to slow
operation of both the Slats and Flaps.
Failure of both flap channels or failure of both slat channels will cause ECAM of “FLAPS
AND/OR SLATS FAULT.

Flight Controls

Flight Controls

Fuel
Fuel System
What type of the Fuel is commonly used for our aircraft operation?
Jet A
Jet A-1
Jet B
JP 4
In the Fuel System on A320:

1. Two electrical transfer valves are mounted in each wing to permit fuel transfer from outer to inner
tank.
2. Cross feed valve allows both engines to be fed from one side.
3. Cross feed valve allows one engine to be fed from both sides.
4. Center tank pumps are not fitted with suction valves and therefore, gravity feeding is not
possible from the center tank.
A) 1,2,4
B) 1,3,4
C) 1,2,3,4

There is an overpressure protector in
1. Each vent surge tank
2. Outer and inner tank
3. Between the center tank and the left inner tank.
4. Between the center tank and the right inner tank.
A) 1
B) 1,2
C) 1,2,3
D) 1,2,4
All wing tank pumps remain ON throughout the flight.

They are fitted with pressure relief sequence valves which ensure that, when all pumps are running, the
center tank pumps will deliver fuel preferentially.
Which pumps keep running throughout the flight?

Wing Tank pumps
Center tank pumps
All respective pumps will automatically turn off once fuel in the tank is consumed completely.
Which pumps are fitted with pressure relief sequence valves?

Wing Tank pumps
Center tank pumps
LH Center Tank pump
RH Center tank pump.
The purpose of the pressure relief sequence valves is:

To ensure that wing tanks fuel only is used when performing gravity feed.
To ensure that gravity feeding is not possible from center tank.
To ensure that, when all pumps are running, the center tank pumps will deliver fuel preferentially.

Fuel
Gravity feeding is not possible from the center tank because Centre tanks pumps are not fitted
with:
Pressure relief sequence valves
Sequence Valves
Tank Transfer Valves
Overpressure protectors between the center tank and both the left and the right inner tanks.
After engine start, its respective center tank fuel pump runs for ______ minutes
regardless of the slat position.
1 minute.
2 minutes.
3 minutes.
5 minutes.
FUEL IMBALANCE:
1. Compare the FOB + Fuel Used, with the FOB at departure.
2. If the difference is significant, or if the FOB + FU decreases, suspect a fuel leak.
3. A fuel imbalance may indicate a fuel leak.
4. Do not apply this procedure, if a fuel leak is suspected. Instead apply FUEL LEAK.QRH
Procedure.
5. There is no requirement to correct an imbalance, until the ECAM fuel advisory is displayed.
A) 1,2,4
B) 1,2,3,4
C) 1,2,3,4,5
D) 1,2,3,5
Mark correct statements.

In applying QRH Procedures of GRVTY FUEL FEEDING
1. Avoid negative „g‟ factor.
2. To determine gravity feed ceiling, there are flight altitude limitations.
3. Gravity feed ceiling is based on if fuel is deaerated or fuel is non-deaerated.
4. For determining Gravity Feed Ceiling, aeration of fuel is not an important point.
5. For JET B, gravity feed ceiling is FL 100 in all cases {whether fuel is deaerated or is non-
deaerated.}.
A) 1
B) 1,2,4,5
C) 1,2,3,5
D) 5

Fuel
With the center tank pump mode SEL switch in AUTO; the center tank pump:
Run for two minutes at engine start.
Will not restart until slats are retracted in flight and 500 kg of fuel from inner tank is used.
Continue to run until five minutes after the center tank is empty.
All the above.
With the center tank pump mode SEL switch in AUTO; the center tank pump will
continue to run after two minutes of self-test after engine start if slats are extended with
a delay.
True
False
The message CTR TK FEEDG appears in the MEMO. What does this mean?
The center tank fuel mode selector is OFF.
The center tank pumps are OFF.
At least one center tank pump is energized.
A reminder to switch the center tank pumps OFF.
What indication will you see on the overhead fuel panel if the center tank has more than
250 kilograms of fuel and the left wing tank has less than 5,000 Kgs.
Fuel imbalance.
Mode select fault.
Fuel - Auto feed fault.
CTR TK- Pump FAULT
Which of the following would cause the FAULT light to illuminate on the MODE SEL
push button?
Fuel is being burned out of sequence.
Crossfeed push button is ON.
Center tank pumps do not stop after slat extension.
Center tank pumps do not stop 5 min after center tank low level reached.
As long as there is a fuel in center tank and if the fuel quantity in the inner tank drops
below 5000kg, MODE SEL FAULT light will come if mode selector is at Auto.
True & it will cause an ECAM of FUEL AUTO FEED FAULT.
False

Fuel
With fuel in the center tank, the CTR TK MODE SEL push button selected to AUTO
and CTR TK PUMP push buttons ON (lights out), which of the following conditions
cause the center tank fuel pumps to stop?
Extension of the slats (after completion of the short test cycle).
Anytime the slats are extended or an overfill condition is detected in either wing inner cell
For a short test period after the first Engine Master Switch is selected "ON" when the slats are
extended.
After engine start, center tank fuel pumps run for ______ minutes regardless of slat
position.
1 minute.
2 minutes.
3 minutes.
5 minutes.
Why do the center tank pups stop automatically when then slats are extended for
takeoff?
To keep the center of gravity as low as possible.
During takeoff, the center tank fuel is pumped to the rear to trim aircraft.
To ensure that the engines are fed from the wing tanks for takeoff (feeding segregation)
During takeoff, the center tank fuel is gravity fed only.
If any one centre tank booster pump fails, with fuel in centre tank, is it possible
to feed both engines from tank ?
No. it is not possible
Yes, it is possible by opening the cross feed valve.
Yes, it is possible by switching the mode selector to manual
No, it is not possible, since wing tank booster pumps are feeding immediately.
After the slat extension of the centre tank pumps do not stop what is the ECAM caution
Auto feed fault
Centre tank pumps LO PRESSURE
CENTRE TANK PUMP NOT FEEDING memo display
Centre tank pumps OFF
When will the FUEL AUTO FEED FAULT Message appear?

If centre tank becomes empty
Centre tank booster pumps running ever after slat extension
Centre tank booster pumps are running 5 mts after centre tank reaches LO level

Fuel
ECAM of FUEL AUTO FEED FAULT will come:

If center tank pumps keep running even after slat extension
If center tank pump keeps running even five minutes later when LO LVL in ctr. Tank.
Both are correct.
{Or}
What will happen if Center tank pumps do not stop 5 min after center tank low level
reached?
During normal operations when should the fuel transfer valves open?
When a low level is sensed in the center tank.
When a low level is sensed in either outer wing cell.
When low level is sensed in either inner wing cell.
The wing fuel transfer valves are:

Manually controlled and open when the MODE SEL push button is selected to MAN.
Are electrically held closed.
Open automatically at the start of refueling.
Automatically open if a low level is sensed in either main wing tank, they automatically close
at the next fueling.
After engine shutdown, what are your actions to close the fuel transfer valves?
You have to switch the inner tank pumps off.
You have to call maintenance to close the valves.
No action is required. The valves will close automatically during the next refuelling.
How the fuel is transferred from the outer to the inner tanks?
By setting the MODE SEL pushbutton to MAN.
The transfer valve opens automatically by the low lever sensor in the center tanks
By setting the MODE SEL PB to AUTO
The transfer valve opens automatically by the low level sensor in the inner tank.
Fuel can be transferred from tank to tank:

Only on the ground.
In flight if the fuel X FEED push button is selected OPEN.
In flight if the fuel X FEED push button is selected OPEN and center tank MODE SEL push
button is selected to MAN.
Fuel can never be transferred.

Fuel
When do the transfer valves close ?

Once the out cell is full
On ground, during refueling operation when the refueling mode selector is put to REFUEL
positions
On ground during refueling operation, after the inner cell becomes full
On ground during refueling operation, if the inner cell fuel is more than 750 kgs (Low level)
When do the transfer valves open ?

If any one inner cell reaches low level, the transfer valve on either side open.
If both inner cell reaches low level, then only transfer valves open
If any one inner cell reaches low level, the corresponding side both transfer valves open.
If any one inner cell reaches low level, both sides, all transfer valves open.
Fuel transfer from the outer tank to the inner tank of the wing tanks occurs when the
inner tank quantity decreases to:
250 Kgs.
450 Kgs.
750 Kgs.
5000 Kgs.
Outer tank fuel is unusable if you get an ECAM of FUEL L{R} TRANSFER VALVE
CLOSED.
True
False
If both tank pumps have failed, you will have to apply Gravity Fuel Feeding procedure.
True
False
In case of Gravity Fuel feeding QRH procedure,

Avoid negative G factor
There are flight altitude limitations while applying this procedure.
Both of the above are correct
What precaution should you observe when you apply gravity fuel feeding?
Operate the aircraft below 15,000 feet.
Use center tank first.
Avoid negative G factor.
No precautions are necessary.

Fuel
From which tanks will fuel gravity feed?

Outer cell of the wing tanks, inner cell of the wing tanks, and/or center tank.
Inner cell of the wing tanks, and center tank.
Outer cell of the wing tanks, and inner cell of the wing tanks.
The center tank only.
What is the maximum altitude for fuel gravity if aircraft has flown for less than
30 minutes above ft 300
15000 feet
10000 feet
30000 feet
25000 feet
How will you detect a fuel leak?

There will be an ECAM caution of FUEL LEAK along with Master Caution.
It is a case of leak if the sum of FOB and Fuel Used is significantly less than FOB at engine
start.
If you get ECAM of FUEL F.USED / FOB DISAGREE, you will have to apply FUEL
LEAK PROCEDURE.
True
False
If you get an ECAM FUEL L OUTER TK HI TEMP.

Apply ECAM procedure once you are out of critical phase of the flight.
If ECAM does not disappear after two min, follow the procedure.
This caution never comes.
The Fuel Used indication on ECAM is reset:

Manually by the pilot.
Automatically at engine start on the ground {MASTER Switch ON}.
Automatically at electric power up of the aircraft.
The fuel quantity indication on ECAM for the outer cell is boxed amber if:
One transfer valve fails to open.
Outer cell fuel temperature is high.
Both transfer valves fail to open when inner cell is at low level.

Fuel
An amber line appears across the last two digits of the ECAM FOB indication when:
Fuel quantity is unreliable.
The center tank pumps are switched off.
The center tank pumps have failed.
FQI degradation is indicated as last two digits dashed amber for FOB as well as fuel
Quantity in any tank.
True
False
The fuel cross feed valve is controlled by 2 motors.

True
False
What is the minimum fuel quantity for takeoff?

1,000 kg
1,200 kg.
1,500 kg
2,000 kg
What do you do if inner or outer cell High Fuel Temp warning comes ?
No action
Switch off the generator and delay the take off on ground
Switch off generator increase fuel flow if temp still high IDG OFF in flight
What are the uses of sequence valves in the fuel system ?

To control the booster pump operation
To consume centre tank fuel first, then wing tank fuel
To operate the transfer valves in the desired time
To control fuel temperature within limit
What are the indications if any one of the booster pump fails in the inner cell ?
Respective Fault light with ECAM message
As in (a) and fuel page appears in Lower ECAM
Master Caution with single chime

Fuel
During electrical smoke configuration which booster pumps run ?

No. 1 pump in each tank
As in (a) open the X feed Valve so that centre tank feeds both engines
No. 1 pumps of each wing tank
No. 1 pump of each wing tank run along with No.2 pump of centre tank
The APU fuel system:

Uses its own dedicated DC powered fuel pump.
Obtains fuel from either center tank pump.
Obtains fuel from the left fuel manifold via the left side fuel pumps or if needed, the APU
fuel pump.
Obtains fuel from the left fuel manifold via the right side fuel pumps.
The AC powered auxiliary fuel boost pump for the APU operates whenever the APU is
operating and no other pump is on. it has an alternate power source on the AC Static
Inverter bus for battery-only starts.
True.
False.
In case of FUEL TK HI TEMP for any of the tank, the flight crew should wait 2 min
while the fuel temperature measurement is updated. After 2 min, if the ECAM caution
has not disappeared, then flight crew must apply the ECAM procedure.
True
False
During cruise in the fuel ECAM page, fuel quantity indication is advisory. Mark the
correct statement.
This implies that the difference between the fuel quantities in the wings is greater than 1500
kgs.
As in (A) and the indications of the wing inner and outer tanks with highest fuel level pulses.
As in (A) and the indication of the wing inner and outer tanks with the lowest fuel level
pulses.
This implies that the center tank fuel has reduced to the low level.
The message OUTER TK FUEL XFRD appears in the MEMO. What does it mean?
It is a reminder to show that at least one transfer valve is open in one wing tank.
Fuel is transferring from the center tank to the inner tank.
It is a reminder to open the outer tank transfer valve.
Fuel is transferring from inner tank to outer tank

Fuel
In the Fuel System on A320:

1. Two electrical transfer valves are mounted in each wing to permit fuel transfer from outer to inner
tank.
4. Center tank pumps are not fitted with suction valves and therefore, gravity feeding is not
D) 1,2,4
E) 1,3,4
F) 1,2,3,4
Fuel On Board (FOB) indication

1. It is normally in green.
2. An amber line appears across the last two digits, when the FQI is inaccurate {FQI IN DEGRADED
MODE}.
3. The indication is half-boxed in amber, if Center tank pumps fail,
4. The indication is half-boxed in amber if Center tank pumps are switched OFF.
5. The indication is half-boxed in amber if both transfer valves fail to open, when the inner tank is at low
level.
A) 1,2,3,5
B) 1,2
C) 1,2,3,4,5
D) 1,2,4,5
Fuel temperature indication on Fuel ECAM Page:

1. It is normally in green and steady.
2. An advisory appears when the fuel temperature rises above 45 °C for the inner cell,
3. An advisory appears when the fuel temperature rises above 55 °C for the outer cell.
4. It becomes amber, and the ECAM displays a caution {FUEL L (R) OUTER (INNER) TK HI TEMP}, if
the temperature goes above the high limit.
5. The flight crew must apply the procedure after 2 min, if the ECAM caution has not disappeared.
A) 1
B) 1,2,3
C) 1,4,5
D) 1,2,3,4,5
In Taxi-out, the ECAM displays a caution FUEL L OUTER TK HI TEMP and the
temperature goes above the high limit.
1. This caution may spuriously trigger due to interference from communication equipment.
Therefore, the flight crew should wait 2 min while the fuel temperature measurement is updated.
2. The flight crew must apply the procedure after 2 min, if the ECAM caution has not disappeared in
2 min.
3. The basic sequence is to switch off the GEN 1 and delay take-off.
4. Eng 1 will have to be switched off as per ECAM actions.
A) 1,2,3
B) 1,2,3,4
C) 3,4
D) 3

Fuel
During cruise, Fuel ECAM page pops out on SD as fuel quantity indication is advisory.
Mark the correct statements.
1. This implies that the difference between the fuel quantities in the wings is greater than 1500
kgs.
2. The indications of the wing tanks {inner and outer} with highest fuel level pulse.
3. The indications of the wing tanks {inner and outer} with the lowest fuel level pulse.
4. This implies that the center tank fuel has reduced to the low level.
A) 1,2
B) 1,3
C) 4
D) 1,2,4
During cockpit preparation you observe that the Fuel on Board quantity indication is
displayed in a partial amber box. What would this indicate?
A.) Fuel quantity indication (FQI) for at least one fuel tank is in degraded mode.
B.) The available fuel in one of the tank is unusable.
C.) Both {A} and {B} are correct
Fuel Quantity Indication on Fuel ECAM Page:
In ETOPS flights, you have to check the ops of XFEED Valve in cockpit operation.
When you sw on, you should observe that

Fuel
The A/C is on the ground, slats extended and in AUTO MODE. When all tank pump P/Bs are
pressed, wing tank pumps are running all the time and center tank pumps are not running
because the slats are extended.
At engine start, the fuel used indication is reset. The engine identification number becomes
white.
After engine start, and regardless of the slat position, the center tank pumps run for 2 minutes.
When running, center tank pumps have priority over wing tank pumps. After this delay,
center tank pumps
stop because slats are still extended.
With the slats retracted, the center tank pumps start again.
The A/C is in cruise. We can see the fuel quantity indication on the center tank. When the
center tank fuel has been used, the related pumps stop automatically 5 minutes after the
center tank fuel low level has
been reached. The wing tank pumps supply the engines.
We can see the fuel quantity indication on the wing tank. When the inner cell quantity
decreases to a given value, the transfer valves open automatically and are latched until the
next refueling. The outer cell
fuel flows to the inner cell.
The A/C is ready for landing. When the engines are stopped, the engine identification
numbers become amber.
The FUEL AUTO FEED FAULT message appears on the EWD.

The FAULT is indicated if L or R wing tank quantity becomes less than 5000 kg and the
center tank quantity is above 250 kg. When selected the MODE SEL P/B MAN light comes
on white. The center tank pumps run again.
There is no direct feed from the outer cells to the engines. Two inter cell transfer valves allow
fuel to transfer from the outer cells to the inner cells when the low level is reached.
A cross feed valve is fitted to connect or isolate the left and right sides.
It enables either engine to be fed from any available fuel pump. On the ground, the cross feed
valve enables fuel to be transferred from tank to tank.
In case of an indication malfunction or during refueling

without electrical power available, the MLI's may be used to check
fuel quantity. There is one MLI in the center tank, 5 in each wing tank
on the A318/319/320

Fuel
PUMP LOGIC
As long as fuel is being delivered from the center tank, the wing tanks
are still full and will tend to overfill, as the returned fuel is delivered to
the wings tanks. In this case the center tank pump stops when the inner
cell reaches the FULL level. The wing tank pumps will operate until
approximately 1100 lbs (500 kg) of fuel have been used i.e.: underfull
sensors reached. The logic circuit then restarts the center tank pump.
Keeping a fuel mass in the wings as long as possible reduces the bending stresses at the wing
roots.
FUEL SUPPLY LOGIC

When all the tanks contain fuel, the center tank is emptied first. Keeping
a fuel mass in the wings as long as possible reduces the bending stresses
at the wing roots.
When the center tank fuel has been used, engines are supplied by fuel from the inner cells.
The outer cell fuel flows to the inner cell by gravity through the transfer valves, which open
when the inner cell fuel quantity decreases to a given value.
JET PUMPS
Center tank scavenge jet pumps move fuel and water caught in the tank to the related main
pump inlet. Outer cell scavenge jet pumps move the surge tank fuel to the rear intercell
transfer valves. Check valves, in the line between the surge tank, combined with these jet
pumps, make sure that fuel cannot enter the surge tank via the pump if the main pumps are
off.
SEQUENCE VALVE
The wing tank pumps are equipped with a sequence valve to make sure that the center tank is
emptied first.
BY-PASS SUCTION VALVE

A by-pass suction valve is installed on the engine feed line, downstream of the main pumps.
If there is complete main pump failure, the by-pass suction valve lets fuel be sucked from the
tank by the Engine Driven Pumps (EDP) and thus supply the engine by "gravity".
CADENSICONS
The cadensicons give a signal to the computer in proportion to the density and the dielectric
constant of the fuel held in each tank.

Fuel
The aircraft has two multi-channel Fuel Level Sensing Control Units (FLSCUs). They supply
high fuel level sensing, low fuel level sensing, full fuel level sensing, under full fuel level
sensing, and overflow level and temperature sensing. Fuel level and temperature sensors feed
signals to the multi-channel amplifiers. The FLSCUs detect and amplify the signals and
trigger switching functions in the appropriate circuits.
HIGH LEVEL
The high level sensors, when immersed in fuel, command the closure of the associated tank
refuel valve when the MODE SELECT switch is set to the REFUEL position.
Wet high-level sensors cause the associated:
- tank refuel valves to shut,
- blue HIGH LEVEL lights to come on, on the refuel/defuel control panel.
The wet center tank high-level sensor causes fuel transfer from the optional ACT to the center
tank to stop.
LOW LEVEL
The center tank low-level sensors control the automatic transfer of fuel from the center tank
to the wing tanks. When sensors become dry for 5 minutes, the FLSCUs send a close signal
to the related control valve.
4 low-level sensors are used in each wing tank:
- 2 in each wing for 1500 kg (3307 lbs) fuel level, in case of exposure to air for more than 30
s: low fuel level advisory on the memo page,
- 2 in each wing for 750 kg (1653 lbs) fuel level, in case of exposure to air for more than 30 s:
low fuel level warning on the ECAM.
Exposure of the optional ACT low-level sensors causes the fuel FWD transfer to stop.
FULL LEVEL
When the full level is reached in one wing tank, the center transfer valve closes to stop fuel
transfer operation from the center tank to the wing tank until the fuel level in the wing tank
reaches the under full level. The full level sensors monitor the Integrated Drive Generator
(IDG) fuel cooling recirculation.
UNDERFULL LEVEL
When the fuel level in the wing tanks drop to the under full sensors, the center tank transfer
valves are controlled to open for a fuel transfer operation, provided there is fuel in the center
tank. The difference between full and under full level sensors is equal to a fuel quantity of
500 kg (1100 lbs).
OVERFLOW LEVEL
When full level is reached in the wing tank and overflows into the vent surge tank, the
overflow sensor sends a signal to the Engine Interface Unit (EIU) to close the Fuel Return
Valve (FRV).

Fuel

Fuel

Hydraulics
Hydraulics
Fluid can be transferred between hydraulic systems.

True
False
Which hydraulic systems have engine driven pumps?

Green and blue.
Green and yellow.
Blue and yellow.
The RAT pressurizes

The Blue hydraulic system
The Green hydraulic system
The Yellow hydraulic system
With the airplane on the ground and the blue electric pump switch in AUTO; the blue
pump will be energized when:
One engine is running.
The BLUE PUMP OVRD switch on the Maint. Panel has been pressed.
Both statements are correct .
It is possible to pressurize the green hydraulic system on the ground via the PTU when
the parking brake is set, when both engines are off.
True
False
The ENG Pump Fault light after engine start can come because of the reservoir:
1. Lo Level or
2. Low Air Pressure or
3. Overheat.
4. The engine pump pressure low.
1, 2, 3, 4
The ENG Pump Fault light extinguishes when the engine pump switch is selected to off
except for:
Reservoir low level.
Pump low pressure.
An overheat.

Hydraulics
The PTU Fault light extinguishes when the PTU p/b switch is selected to off except for:
Reservoir low level.
Pump low pressure.
An overheat.
The PTU Fault light illuminates when the:

PTU is inoperative.
Green or yellow reservoir has low air pressure.
PTU pump is overheated.
The hydraulic PTU will activate if:

A significant pressure loss occurs in any of the three hydraulic systems.
A significant pressure loss occurs in the green or yellow hydraulic system
Along with {B} above and there is no inhibition situation for PTU.
The PTU comes into action automatically when the differential pressure between the
GREEN and the YELLOW systems is greater than ______ psi.
300.
500.
650.
700.
You are at the gate. You have started engine #2. Before starting engine #1, you notice
that the PTU test has not been activated. Is it normal?
No. You have to call the mechanics.
The PTU has been shutoff
Yes, it is normal. The PTU self test takes place during the second engine start.
Describe the PTU status with a green system reservoir overheats, low pressure or low
fluid level.
The PTU will be inhibited.
The crew must select the PTU ON.
The PTU FAULT light will get illuminated. The PTU should be selected OFF.
The crew must recycle the PTU OFF then ON
What does a PTU FAULT light indicate?

GREEN or YELLOW reservoir overheat.
GREEN or YELLOW reservoir low air pressure.
GREEN or YELLOW reservoir low level..
All of the above.

Hydraulics
The PUMP identification number on the ECAM HYD page becomes amber when:
System pressure is below 1450 psi.
N2 is below idle.
The reservoir level is low.
There is no such thing on a320.
After extending the RAT, on which of the ECAM SD page its position and status is
shown?
Check on overhead panel that the blue system ELEC PUMP FAULT light is not illuminated.
ECAM ELEC page.
ECAM HYD page.
No. It is not possible.
The RAT is capable of powering a pump which will pressurize:

Only the blue system.
All systems.
The blue and yellow system.
The blue and green system.
How is the yellow hydraulic system pressurized?

1. By an engine driven pump
2. By an electric pump
3. By the PTU using the green system
4. By the Hand pump for the cargo doors only,
When will the yellow system electric pump operate? (AC power is available)
1. During the second engine start.
2. When the yellow ELEC PUMP push button is selected to ON
3. When the ground crew operates cargo door.
4. If any N2 RPM is less than 45%.
5. When the first engine MASTER switch is moved to the ON position.
2, 3
What is the normal pressure in the hydraulic system?

500 psi.
1,000 psi.
3,000 psi.
2,000 psi
You get a G RSVR OVHT message. Why does the ECAM procedure ask you to switch
the PTU off first?
To prevent the hot hydraulic fluid from being transferred to the YELLOW system.
To depressurize the YELLOW and GREEN systems.
To prevent the BLUE system from pressurizing the GREEN system.
To prevent the PTU from pressurizing the GREEN sys.

Hydraulics
For hydraulic system malfunctions, when will the RAT deploy?

Automatically with the failure of both the green and blue hydraulic systems.
Automatically with the failure of both the green and yellow hydraulic systems.
Only when the guarded RAT MAN ON push button is selected by the crew.
When airspeed drops below 100 knots with the gear up.
What does the RAT MAN ON switch do?

Extends RAT, pressurizes BLUE system, starts Emergency Generator.
Extends RAT, must push RAT MAN ON again to pressurize BLUE system.
Extends RAT, pressurizes GREEN system, starts Emergency Generator.
Extends RAT, pressurizes BLUE system, and does not start Emergency Generator.
If you lost the GREEN system, what equipment is lost?

Reverser 1 and gear retraction.
Reverser 1, gear retraction and nose wheel steering.
Reverser 2, gear retraction, cargo doors and nose wheel steering.
Reverser 2 and gear retraction.
If you lose the YELLOW Hyd system due to LO Level, what equipment is lost?
Thrust Reverser 2
Nose Wheel Steering.
Cargo door.
All of the above.
On the hydraulic quantity indicator what does the amber level indicate?
The hyd fluid has gone below the warning level.
The reservoir air pressure has gone below warning level.
The temperature of the hydraulic fluid is abnormal.
All of the above.
If YELLOW ELECT Pump Overheats when it was supplying Yellow Hyd sys:
OVHT appears in amber near ELEC on HYD ECAM page.
PTU Fault light will not come ON in this case.
Both statements are correct.
If you lose BLUE system, what equipment is lost?

The Emergency generator.
Cargo door
Nose wheel sterring.
All of the above.

Hydraulics
All hydraulic systems have a fire shutoff valve.

True.
False.
{Each of the GREEN and YELLOW systems has a fire shutoff valve in its upstream of its
engine driven pump.}
What is the signification of an amber RAT indication (on ECAM HYD page)?
The RAT is not stowed.
Pressure for stowing the RAT has been applied, or the RAT pump is not available & You get
ECAM of HYD RAT FAULT
All of the above
By what action of the pilot, Fire Shut Off Valve closes?

By pressing the Hydraulic Shut Off Switch to OFF.
By selecting PTU p/b to OFF.
By selecting the Eng Driven Pump p/b to the OFF position
By pushing the Engine Fire p/b.
In case of Dual G + B Hyd. SYS LO PR
RAT will have to be deployed manually using RAT MAN ON p/b from Hyd. panel.
L/Gear will have to be extended using GRAVITY EXTENSION procedure.
Both are correct.
In case of landing with Dual G + Y Hyd. SYS LO PR on a short airfield, you have to
exercise utmost care as
You do not have Thrust Reversers on both engines, Nose Wheel Steering & Anti-skid.
You will be on Alternate Brakes without anti-skid so 7 full brake applications are available.
Flaps are not available and so is pitch trim not available.
All are correct.
Hand pump can be used pressurize the YELLOW system in order to operate the cargo
doors when no electrical power is available.
True.
False.
The hand pump supplies yellow pressure to the:

Normal brakes.
Alternate brakes
Passenger doors.
Cargo doors.

Hydraulics
How are the hydraulic reservoir pressurized pneumatically ?

By APU bleed directly.
By engine 2 bleed directly.
By engine 1 bleed directly or cross bleed duct
By engine 2 bleed directly or cross bleed duct.
When do you use ‗RAT MAN ON ― pb

If blue electric pump is failed.
If there is a dual Hydraulic failure along with blue system.
As in (b) and only in approach RAT is extended.
If blue electric pump is over heated.
How will you recover the yellow system if it is lose due to LO LVL ?
Yellow system can be recovered in approach only by electric pump
Yellow system can be recovered in approach only by PTU
Yellow system cannot be recovered.
What are the indications in the cockpit due to yellow reservoir OVHT ?
PTU, yellow EDP fault lights with ECAM message and master caution.
PTU, yellow EDP, yellow electric pump fault lights with ECAM message
and master caution.
As in (b) but yellow electric pump fault light illuminate only when the
yellow switch is ON.
Yellow EDP, yellow electric pump fault lights with ECAM warning.
When does GREEN EDP FAULT light illuminate?

On ground Green EDP pump pressure is less with engine running.
As in (a) or green reservoir is over heated
As green reservoir has low quantity or low air pressure
Blue electric pump pb switch is at AUTO with AC power available. When

will the pump be energised {pump override pb is at OFF}
On ground, only after No. 2 engine is started.
On ground, only after No. 1 engine is started
On ground, after any one engine is started
In flight, only when an engine is operating

Hydraulics
OVHT amber message on the ECAM HYD page near ELEC pump indication means
Overheat of the system fluid
Overheat of the pump itself
In case of yellow pump OVHT the PTU must also be switched OFF
In case of blue pump OVHT, the RAT must be extended.
Normal hydraulic power is provided by

Engine driven pumps for all systems.
Engine driven pumps for green and yellow, electrical pump for blue
Electrical pumps for blue and yellow, engine driven pump for green.
Engine driven pumps for green and blue, electrical pump for yellow
Can you recover a Hyd. System if it is lost due to LO LVL?

Yellow system can be recovered in approach only by electric pump
Green system can be recovered in approach but only by PTU.
Blue system can be recovered but by RAT extension.
Hyd. Sys can not be recovered if it is lost due to LO LVL.
What happens to PTU with PTU push button at AUTO when aircraft makes a single
engine landing with No1 engine shut down?
PTU runs in flight and stops as soon as both main landing gears are compressed.
PTU runs in flight and continues to run even after landing but PTU will stop if you apply
parking brake.
PTU runs only after landing and pressurize Green hydraulic system by using Yellow Hyd.
Pressure.
You get a G RSVR OVHT message. Why does the ECAM procedure ask you to switch
the PTU off first?
What does the RAT MAN ON switch on HYD panel do?

Extends RAT, pressurizes BLUE system, Emergency Generator supplies AC ESS.
Extends RAT, must push RAT MAN ON again to pressurize BLUE system.
Extends RAT, pressurizes GREEN system, starts Emergency Generator.
Extends RAT, pressurizes BLUE system, but Emergency Generator does not supply AC ESS.

Hydraulics
When does the Fault light illuminate on PTU push button?

During PTU operation, if PTU output pressure drops below 1450 psi
If PTU does not operate when pressure difference between G & Y is more than 500 psi
If G or Y system reservoir has a LO LVL or LO AIR PRESS or OVHT warning
When the PTU is running, is there any exchange of fluid?

No, the PTU is a hydraulic motor turning a hydraulic pump. It exchanges only energy from
one system to other.
Yes, it transfers hydraulic fluid from Green System to Yellow System.
Yes, it transfers hydraulic fluid from Yellow System to Green System.
In case of Lo Level in Yellow System, PTU will supply Green Hyd. fluid to Yellow.
Does the RAT deploy automatically for any Hydraulic System failure?
YES, in case of Blue and Yellow Dual Hyd Sys Failure.
YES, in case of Blue Hyd Sys Failure with Blue Elect Pump inop..
NO, RAT does not deploy automatically due to any Hyd failure.
Automatic deployment takes place only when there is a failure of AC BUS 1 & AC BUS 2 at
a/c speed > 100 kts.
RAT on A320 never deploys automatically.
Just after any one engine start, how many Hyd. Systems are pressurized?
One
Two
All the Three
Blue Electric pump pb switch is in AUTO with AC power available. When will the
pump be energized?
On ground, after any one engine is started
None of the above
PTU FAULT
PTU not running on ground in case the differential
pressure is above650 PSI, between G and Y
system, or in flight PTU still at AUTO position
in case of G or Y reservoir low level and G or Y
system low pressure. +
FAULT lt only
in case of G
or Y RSVR
LO LVL or
RSVR LO
AIR PR or
RSVR OVHT

Hydraulics
YELLOW ELEC PUMP pb sw FAULT lt

This amber light, accompanied by an ECAM caution, comes on if :
‐ the reservoir level is low
‐ air pressure in the reservoir is low
‐ the reservoir overheats
‐ pump pressure is low
‐ the pump overheats.
BLUE ELEC PUMP pb

FAULT lt : This amber light comes on, and a caution appears on the ECAM, if :
‐ The reservoir level is low
‐ The reservoir overheats
‐ The air pressure in the reservoir is low
‐ The pump is delivering low pressure (inhibited on the ground, when the
engines are stopped)
‐ The pump overheats.

Hydraulics

Ice & Rain Protection
Ice & Rain Protection System
Which of the aircraft‘s area are Anti-Iced?

1. Three outboard slats of each wing
2. Engine air intakes.
3. All passenger windows
4. Flight compartment windows
5. Sensors, pitot probes and static ports
6. Waste-water drain mast.
1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6
1, 2, 4, 5, 6
Anti-ice and de-icing protection is provided for:

The engine nacelle's and three outboard wing slats.
The engine nacelle's, the horizontal stabilizer, and three outboard wing slats.
The engine nacelle's, the horizontal stabilizer, the vertical stabilizer and three outboard wing
slats.
The ______ on each wing are anti-iced with pneumatic bleed air.
All surfaces of Slats
All surfaces of Flaps
Three outboard slats
With the loss of electrical power the wing anti-ice valves:

Remain in their current position.
Go to the open position.
Go to the closed position.
By pushing the wing anti-ice P/B ON:

A blue light comes ON.
Both Wing A/Ice Valves open if a pneumatic supply is available.
WING A. ICE memo will appear on E/WD.
All are correct.
When Wing Anti-ice valve is open:

EPR limit is automatically reduced and the idle EPR is automatically increased
N1 of the associated engine is automatically decreased
EPR limit is automatically increased and the idle EPR is automatically reduced.
There is no change in the EPR limits.

When the system detects a leak during normal operation, the affected side‘s wing anti-
ice valve
Closes automatically.
Opens automatically.
Remain in the last position.
During Taxi out, you decide to switch on WAI. WAI valves should open for 30 secs and
then close. But due to some failure, WAI remain open on left wing. This will cause
ECAM of:
WING ANTI ICE OPEN ON GND.
WING ANTI ICE L VALVE OPEN
None of the above.
Where do you see the wing anti-ice indications on ECAM?

There is no indication on ECAM for wing anti-ice.
An amber triangle appears on the ECAM Bleed page
WING A.ICE appears on ECAM Status page.
ANTI-ICE appears in white on the ECAM Bleed page and W A.ICE appears in green on the
ECAM memo when the wing P/B is pressed
Can the wing anti-ice be tested on the ground?

Yes, valves only open for 30 seconds.
Yes.Valves stay open till selected off.
No.
The amber FAULT light comes on briefly as the valves transit
On any E/WD title related to WING A. ICE which SD page is called?

BLEED
AIRCOND
CAB PRESS
CRUISE

All the stats in the aircraft are anti iced.
On ground when the wing anti ice pb selected to ON the wing anti ice valves remain
open.
In case of leak detection wing anti ice valves remain open.
In case of electrical power supply failure wing anti ice valves will close.

The engine nacelle is anti-iced by:

Engine bleed air from the high pressure compressor
Air bleed from low pressure compressor
AC system and air bleed from low pressure compressor
DC system and air bleed from low pressure compressor.
When an engine anti-ice valve is open:

EPR limit is automatically reduced and the idle EPR is automatically increased
N1 of the associated engine is automatically decreased
N1 limit is automatically reduced and N2 limit is automatically increased
There is no change in the EPR limits.
In the event of a low air pressure {if air is unavailable, engine not running}:
The engine anti-ice valve opens automatically
There is no effect on the anti-ice valve position
The engine anti-ice valve must be manually closed
The engine anti-ice valve closes automatically
How can you check that engine anti-ice has been selected on?
You can observe the amber warning on the ECAM memo display and the amber anti-ice light
on the overhead panel
You can observe the ENGINE ANTI-ICE message on the ECAM STATUS page
You can observe the blue ON light on the associated engine anti-ice P/B and the ENGINE
ANTI-ICE memo on the E/WD
The Fault light on the engine anti-ice switches indicates the valve:
Is closed.
Position disagrees with switch position.
Is open.
If one engine anti-ice system fails, the second one takes over and provides anti-icing for
both engines.
True.
False.
In the event of an electrical power loss:

The engine anti-ice valves will open automatically, anti-icing is ensured.
The engine anti-ice valves will close automatically, anti-icing is lost.
The engine anti-ice valves will be controlled by the wing anti-ice controls.
The engine anti-ice valves remain in the position they were before.


E/WD will show “ENG A.ICE” memo in green when one or both ENG A. ICE pushbuttons
are ON.
The amber FAULT light comes ON briefly as valve transits.
Both are correct.
When engine anti ice selected under icing conditions.

Nacelle anti ice valve will open provided engine is running.
Engine anti ice selected is indicated on the ECAM bleed page.
In case of electrical failure engine anti ice valve go to close position.
Hot air anti icing is done for

Waste water drain mast
Sensors, pilot probes and static ports
Engine air in take and three outboard leading edge slats of each wing.
Flight compartment windows.
With engine anti ice selected ON, what is the position of engine anti ice valve.
Nacelle anti ice valve will open provided engine is running.
Engine anti ice selected is indicated on the ECAM bleed page.
In case of electrical failure engine anti ice valve go to close position.


Windshield heating operates at low power on ground and at normal power in flight.
Only one heating level exists for windows.
Both are correct.
Window heating comes on automatically when:

The AC ESS bus is powered.
Electrical power is applied to the aircraft.
When at least one engine is running.
Window heat operation begins:

Automatically after the first engine start.
if the PROBE/WINDOW HEAT push button is selected ON by the crew prior to engine start.
Both are correct.
How is window heating regulated?

Manually by flight crew
Window heat is not regulated!
One Window Heat Computer (WHC) as master, the other as slave
By two independent Window Heat Computers (WHC), one for each side
What is correct for window heating.

Window heating starts on ground only after any one engine is started with control switch at
AUTO
As in (a) and wing shields are heated at low level on ground and at normal in flight.
Sliding windows are not heated.
Window heat is available in flight only if control switch is selected to ON.
In case of a QRH procedure of COCKPIT WINDSHIELD/WINDOW CRACKED:

1. If no crack is observed on the cockpit side, flight can be continued at the assigned
Flight level as inner ply is not affected and as such there is no limitation.
2. If crack is observed on the cockpit side, you have to maintain max FL230/MEA and a
differential cabin pressure of 5psi.
3. If crack is observed on the cockpit side, you have to maintain max FL230/MEA but
there is no limitation as far as cabin differential pressure of 5psi.You may keep cabin
differential pressure to 8 psi.
1,2,3
1,2

With ref. to PROBE / WINDOW HEAT pb , which of the following statements is true ?
System should only be selected ON in icing conditions.
When in AUTO mode, windows are heated only when necessary.
Window heating comes ON with the first engine start.
The system should only be selected ON after the first engine start.
The Window Heat Computer provides two power levels for the windshield:
High power when above 20,000 ft, low power when below 20,000 ft
High power when OAT < 10 deg.C, low power when OAT > 10 deg.C
High power in flight, low power on the ground
High power in icing conditions (flight only), low power in other conditions.
Probe heating comes on automatically when:

The AC ESS bus is powered.
Electrical power is applied to the aircraft.
When at least one engine is running.
With reference to the PROBE/WINDOW HEAT pushbutton, which of the following is

true?
The system should only be selected ON in icing conditions.
When in AUTO mode, the windows are heated only when necessary.
The system should only be selected ON after first engine start.
Window heating comes on automatically after first engine start.
Electrical heating is provided for the protection of:

Pitots and Angle Of Attack (AOA) probes
Pitots, static ports and TAT probes
Pitots, static ports, AOA probes, and TAT probes.
Pitots and static ports
The probe heaters can be activated manually prior to engine start by placing the
PROBE/WINDOW HEAT pushbutton.
True.
False.
TAT probes are heated on the ground.

True.
False.

1. On the ground, the TAT probes are not heated
2. Pitot heating operates at a low level
3. Pitot heating operates at normal power in flight and the changeover is automatic.
1, 2, 3

Probe / Window heat switch is in the Auto position.

Probe heating will start only after any one engine is started.
As in (a) and TAT probe is heated at low level on ground and at normal level in flight.
As in (a) and Pitot probe heating is at low level on ground and at normal level in flight
As in (a) and AOA probe heating is at low level on ground and at normal level in flight.
Rain protection is provided by:

Warm bleed air blowing across the windshield.
Rain repellent and Windshield wipers.
Both are correct.
The RAIN RPLNT (rain repellent) function is inhibited on the ground when the engines
stopped.
True.
False.

Rain repellant system is inhibited on ground.
Rain repellant system is inhibited in flight.
Rain repellant can be applied on dry wing shield.
Rain repellant system is inhibited on ground with engine stopped.
The electric windshield wipers are controlled:

Automatically when in heavy rain
By two individual pushbuttons
By one rotary selector for both windshields
By two individual rotary selectors
The wipers can operate at different speeds:

Low speed and high speed
Speed 1 and speed 2
Low, medium and high speed.
Speed is automatically adjusted depending on rain intensity.
When the wiper is turned off:

The PARK position must be selected to stow the wiper
It continues to run for approximately 6 seconds
The wiper may stop in the pilots view
The wiper stops out of view

What is the speed limit to operate the windscreen wipers?

185 kts.
200 kts.
230 kts.
250 kts.
Which page is called in case of wind shield heating failure.

BLEED PAGE
NIL
COND PAGE
ANTI ICE PAGE
With Wing Anti Ice selected and valves do not open, what page is called.
ANTI ICE PAGE
COND PAGE
NIL
BLEED PAGE



Indicating and Recording System
Indicating & Recording System
The Flight Warning Computers (FWCs) acquire data from sensors or systems to:
Generate alert messages, memos, aural alerts, red warnings and synthetic voice messages,
Generate Amber cautions through SDACs
Generate radio altitude call-outs, DH call-outs.
The FWC generates synthetic voice for radio height announcements.

True
False.
How many FWC are installed?

One
Two
Three

In case of Dual FWC Fault, all
1. Master Cautions are lost.
2. Master Warnings are lost.
3. ECAM Warnings are lost.
4. ECAM Cautions are lost.
A. 1, 4
B. 2, 3
C. 1, 2, 3, 4
In case of Dual FWC Fault,

ECAM Cautions & Warnings, Master Caution & Warning lights are lost.
ECAM System pages are still available.
Both are correct
What will be the attention getters in case of loss of FWC1 and FWC2 and where
will be the list of Not available system given ?
a. MASTER WARN + CRC, STATUS page

b. MASTER WARN + CRC; right memo space is EWD
c None; right memo space in EWD
d. Master Caut + SC; status page.

What is lost when “FMC 1 + 2 FAULT” occurs ?

Amber caution sensing and attention getters
Red warming sensing
As in (b) and attention getters are lost
System pages except ENG, FUEL, F/CTL and WHEEL page
During T/O phase, if FWC 1 and FWC 2 fail, what indications will appear ?
Only “FWS FWC 1 + 2 FAULT” message, related checklist and list of
NOT AVAIL system on EWD
SC Master Caution Lights, failure message and related checklist on EWD
CRC, Master Warming lights, failure message and related checklist on EWD
Nothing, since the warning are inhibited.
During take off phase, if FWC 1 and FWC 2 fail, what indications will appear
Only “ FWS, FWC1 + 2 FAULT” message, related checklist and list of
NOT AVAIL system on EWD
SC, Master Caution lights, failure message and related checklist on EWD.
CRC, Master Warning lights, failure message and related checklist on EWD
Nothing, since the warnings are inhibited.
What are the warning / cautions for both FWC failure

Nothing except ECAM caution
Red M/W lts , CRC , ECAM warnings
Amber M/C lts , SC, ECAM caution
As in (a) and it is not suppressed during any phase of the flight
In case of FWC 1 + 2 fault

All ECAM system pages are available
ECAM cautions and warnings are lost
MC and MW lights are lost
What are the attention getters for FWS FWC 1 + 2 FAULT

Nothing
Single chime and MASTER CAUTION lights
Repetitive chimes and MASTER WARNING lights
As in (c) and these are not suppressed during take off or landing
In case of failure of FWC 1 – 2 the following are available

Radio height call out
Master Warming Lights
Landing Distance Increment Computations
ECAM system pages

In case of FWC1 fault:

A message 'FWC fault' appears on the upper ECAM.
ECAM operation is not affected because there are 2 identical FWCs
Both are correct
How many SDACs are there?

One
Two
Three
What is the function of the System Data Acquisition Concentrators (SDACs)?

To generate all visual and aural warnings.
To supply information to the FWCs for warning calculations and data to the DMCs to
generate displays of system pages.
To generate displays of system pages to be sent to the system display unit.
In case of single SDAC Fault,

It is a crew awareness fault.
ECAM may display some symbols / parameters in amber without failures.
Both are correct
Mark the true statements

In case of Dual SDAC Fault,
1. Amber cautions are lost but red warnings available.
2. Amber cautions and red warnings are lost.
3. ECAM may display some symbols / parameters in amber even without failures to
those components/systems.
4. ECAM Status page is lost.
5. All Aural alerts and voice messages are lost through the loudspeakers.
A) 2,3,4,5
B) 2,3,4
C) 1, 4
D) 3,4
Amber cautions are lost. Aircraft status on the ECAM STATUS page is lost.
Only red warnings, engine and fuel parameters, and slat/flap positions are available on the
upper
ECAM DU.
ECAM ENG FUEL F/CTL WHEEL (L/G POS IND) SYS PAGES AVAIL.

In case of SDAC 1 + 2 fault

All ECAM cautions and warnings are lost
Only red warning, engine and fuel parameters are lost
ENG, FUEL, F/CTL, WHEEL sys pages will be available
It is for crew awareness only.
In case of SDAC 1+2 fault

All ECAM cautions and warnings are lost
Only red warnings engine and fuel parameters are lost
ENG, FUEL, F/CTL, WHEEL sys pages will be available
It is for crew awareness only
If both SDACs fall

All red warnings are lost
No more Amber cautions are given
All systems pages are lost
All red warnings and amber cautions are lost
If both SDACs fall

All red warnings are lost
No more Amber cautions are given
All systems pages are lost
All red warnings and amber cautions are lost
Subsequent to both ECAM DU failure, IF ECAM / ND TFR selected on to F/O side
EW display appears on ND 2
EW display appears on PFD 2
System display appears on ND 2
System display appears on PFD2

In case of Dual FWC failures, all MC / MW / ECAM warnings and Cautions are lost.
In case of Dual SDAC, only amber cautions are lost.
Both are correct.
Aural alerts and voice messages are transmitted:

Through the loudspeakers even if the speakers are switched off.
Only through the pilot's headsets
Through the loudspeakers only if the speakers are switched on.

How many DMC's are there?

1
2
3
4
The three Display Management Computers (DMCS) acquire and process all input from airplane
sensors and computers to generate the display images.
True
False
What is the basic role of the DMCs:

They compute and elaborate displays {drive displays}
Generation of audio warnings
Generation of amber warnings
Generation of synthetic voice messages
In normal operation:
DMC1 drives Capt side PFD, ND, and ECAM DUs.
DMC2 drives F/O side PFD, and ND.
DMC3 is on standby, ready to drive any DU.
If DMC 2 fails
DMC 3 will automatically take over
There will be diagonal lines on PFD2, ND2 and DMC 3 has to be switched
to FO3 manually.
DMC3 has to be switched manually to FO3
It is only crew awareness.
With EIS / DMC XFR sw is NORMAL which DMCs supply to different DUs
DMC 1 supplies to PFD1, ND1 both ECAMs
As in (a) and DMC2 supplies to PFD2, ND2 both ECAMs
DMC1 suppliers to PFD1, ND1, upper ECAM
As in (c) and DMC 2 supplies to PFD2, ND2, lower ECAM
In case of DMC Failure, ―INVALID DATA‖ message is displayed on the related DUs.
True
False

Where will “EIS DMC1 FAULT” message appear (assume DMC transfer
switch is in NORMAL)
E/W Display on Upper ECAM
E/W Display on lower ECAM automatically
As in (b) and it is supplied by DMC 2
As in (b) and it is supplied by DMC 3
Which are the DUs normally supplied by DMC1

PFD1, ND1, upper ECAM, lower ECAM
PFD1, ND1, upper ECAM
PFD1, ND1, lower ECAM
PFD1, ND1
Where will “EIS DMC1 FAULT” MESSAGE APPEAR ? (Assume DMC transfer
switch is in NORMAL)
EWD on upper ECAM
EWD on lower ECAM automatically
AS in (b) and it is supplied by DMC 2
As in (b) and it is supplied by DMC3
Which one of the following statements is true?

3 Display Management Computers (DMCs) generate the alert messages and the red warnings.
3 DMCs generate the images displayed on CRTs{DUs}
3 DMCs are used to collect Aircraft data sensors information.
After a single DMC failure, how could a crew member recover the display units?
It is done automatically.
Once a DMC has failed, the information is unrecoverable.
Rotate the EIS DMC switch on the switching panel to replace the failed DMC with DMC #3.
Even if a DU is switched off, it is equivalent to a failure.

True
False
If the PFD display fails or is switched off, the PFD automatically replaces the ND
display unit.
True.
False.
If the upper ECAM display fails or is switched off, the engine/warning page
automatically replaces the system/status page on the lower ECAM display unit.
True.
False.

If the UPPER ECAM DU fails, what will be displayed on the lower unit?
System display page.
Engines and Warning page (E/WD)
Status page.
By turning the UPPER DISPLAY knob to OFF, the E/WD appears on the lower display
unit.
True
False
If the lower ECAM DU fails, is there a way to retrieve that information?

By pressing and holding the related systems page push button on the ECAM control panel,
the page will be displayed on the UPPER ECAM (for a maximum of 3 min).
By rotating the ECAM/ND XFR switch on the switching panel, the lower ECAM page will
be transferred to either the Captain or FO's ND.
Both are correct.
The upper ECAM Display Unit (DU) has failed. You want to see the ELECT page. How
can you see it?
You have to press and hold the DOOR key on the ECP.
You have to switch the EIS DMC to CAPT3
You have to press & hold ELECT P/B on ECP and E/WD will show ELECT page for a
maximum of 3 min.
You have to press and hold the RCL key on the ECP.
Both ECAM screens have failed. Is it possible to get E/WD indications?

Yes, the E/WD is automatically transferred to one of the NDs.
No. The E/WD is lost until the aircraft can be repaired.
Yes, to get E/WD information, it must be manually transferred to one of the NDs.
Yes. E/WD information is automatically transferred to the the F/O's PFD in the event of an
ECAM warning.
If the lower ECAM display unit falls, the System / Status page can be made available
On either ND by means of ECAM / ND XFR selector
On upper ECAM by pressing and holding related system page push button
on ECAM control panel
On upper ECAM, automatically

Is it possible to have PFD& SD, on captain‟s side EWD on upper ECAM

at the same time ? How ?
No.
Yes, by selecting ECAM / ND transfer switch to CAPT side after lower
ECAM DU failure
Yes, automatically if the lower ECAM DU fails
Yes, by selecting DMC transfer switch to CAPT 3 side
Captain‟s inner EFIS DU had failed. Is it possible to get the weather radar
images on his side ?
Yes; after pressing the PFD / ND transfer switch
As in (a) and it is possible only if the mode selector is in other than PLAN mode
As in (b) and only if avionics ventilation failure is not there
It is not possible
Of the three types of EIS displays, which one has the lowest priority?
The ND
The PFD
The SD
PFD, ECAM image are displayed on Capt‟s side outer and inner DU respectively.
What will be the displayed after PFD / ND transfer switch is pressed on the outer
and inner DUS respectively.
ECAM, PFD
ECAM, ND
ND, ECAM
PFD, ND
Is it possible to have POFD, SD, on captain‟s side and EWD on upper ECAM at the
same time ? How ?
No
Yes, by selecting ECAM, ND transfer switch to CAPT side
Yes, automatically if the lower ECAM DU fails
Yes, by selecting DMC transfer switch to CAPT 3 side.
In a normal flight, if the ECAM /ND transfer switch is moved to captain side, what
will be the display on lower ECAM
EWD
SD
Blank
Diagonal Line
After all generators failure and gear down, which DUs are powered ?
Only Captain‟s outer EFIS DU and upper ECAM DU
Both the captain‟s EFIS DUs and upper ECAM DU
(b) is correct only for EP series a/c
(b) is correct only for ES series a/c

Is it possible to know, when a DU fails, whether it due to DMC failure or due

to DU failure ?
DMC failure causes the DU be blanked.
DMC failure causes the diagonal line display on respective DU
DU failure causes the DU be blanked
What happens when upper ECAM DU fails ?

EWD is suppressed and it may appear on either ND after ECAM / SD transfer
EWD auto appears on lower ECAM DU and SD is expressed and it may appear
on either ND after ECAM / ND transfer
EWD auto appears on lower ECAM and SD is totally lost.
EWD is totally lost and it cannot be regained.
Subsequent to both ECAM screen failure, if ECAM / ND TFR selected on F/O side
E/W display appears on ND2
E/W display appears on PFD2
System display appears on ND2
System display appears on PFD2
What happens if both ECAM DUs fail ?

E/W/D appears automatically on left side ND
E/W/D shall be called on either ND by means of ECAM / ND transfer selector
It is not possible to recover SD at all
SD may be transferred on either ND by means of ECAM / ND transfer
selector
What will be the displays - after PFD/ND transfer switch is pressed – on the
Outer and inner DUs respectively.
ECAM, PFD
ECAM, ND
ND, ECAM
PFD, ND
During a flight, automatically SD page changes from CRUISE to ELEC and

ELEC key on ECAM control panel glows. What does it mean ?
There is an advisory condition in electrical system.
There is a failure in electrical system
(b) is correct only if CLR keys also glow.

Only one ECAM DU is working. If you want to see a SD on it, is it possible ?

No.
Yes, press the respective system key on ECAM control penel and hold.
The SD will be in view for 3 min
Yes, press and release the respective system key. The SD will be in view for 30 secs.
As in (b) but SD will be in view as long as the system key is kept pressed even for more than
30 secs.
When a diagonal line on upper ECAM appears

E/W display will appear automatically on lower ECAM
It indicates partial failure on DMC 2
It indicates partial failure on DMC1

After some failure and / or switching actions, PFD may appear on upper ECAM
After some failure and / or switching actions, EWD may appear on any of the
Capt or F/O side EFIS DU
As in (a) and PFD may appear on lower ECAM also.
(b) is correct only or Capt. Side EFIS DU
Both ECAM Dus have failed and ECAM/ND TRF switch selected to F/O side
SD appears on ND2
EW/D appears on ND2
As in (a) and SD appears on PFD2 if PFD/ND transfer switch is pressed.
No transfer takes place.
INVERSION OF THE EWD AND THE SD:

ECAM UPPER DISPLAY .....................................................................................OFF THEN
ON
The same action on the EIS DMC SWITCHING selector produces the same effect.
PRO-ABN-31 P 3/14

DISPLAY UNIT FAILURE procedure should be used in case of:

1. Affected DU flashes intermittently
2. The display is distorted
3. DU brightness reduces to the minimum
4. INVALID DISPLAY UNIT message is displayed
PRO-ABN-31 P 3/14
ECAM SINGLE DISPLAY

OVERFLOW ON THE STATUS Page:
PRESS AND MAINTAIN the STS key on the ECP
The first page of STATUS appears.
RELEASE IT, THEN PRESS AGAIN WITHIN 2 s
The second page of STATUS appears.
CONTINUE UNTIL THE OVERFLOW ARROW DISAPPEARS.
When the STS key is released for more than 2 s, the EWD reappears.
When should you term DU as a failure?

When you see a blank screen with letter „F‟ in amber or “INVALID DISPLAY UNIT”
message in amber.
When a display is distorted.
In both of the above cases.
In case of DU failure:
Some of the information can be transferred to another DU for display.
ECAM data cannot be transferred to another DU. The data is lost.
ND data cannot be transferred to another DU. The data is lost.
FEEDBACK Messages are displayed on the permanent data area of SD

True
False
If there is a discrepancy of at least 5 degrees between the heading values, a message of

―CHECK HDG‖ is displayed:
On both side PFDs and NDs displays.
If PLAN mode is selected, then the message will not be shown on the NDs.
Both are correct.

CHECK HDG flag in amber colour appears

ON PFD 1 and PFD 2 if discrepancy of heading between CAPT & F/O
side is greater than 5 deg.
ON ND1 and ND2 if discrepancy of heading between CAPT & F/O
side is greater than 5 deg.
On PFD and ND on both sides if emergency of landing between CAPT
& F/O side is greater than 5 deg.
As in (c) and an ECAM caution on EWD reads HEADING DISCREPANCY
along with single chime and master caution
If difference in roll altitudes between the 2 PFDs are more than 5 deg, what are the
indications.
CHECK ATT flags on both PFDs, ECAM caution
CHECK ATT flags on faulty PFDs, ECAM caution
CHECK ATT flags on both PFDs, ATT flags on both PFDs
Only ECAM caution
What do you know about the class 1 failure ?

It appears in the cockpit in the form of ECAM failure message
It appears in the cockpit under MAINTENANCE heading in the STATUS page
It is stored only in CFDIU and should be retrieved through MCDU after the flight
None of the above is correct.
During cruise, on SD the CRUISE page disappears, a system page appears and a
parameter is found pulsing. What does it mean?
It is advisory condition
It is level-1 caution
It is level-2 caution
It is level-3 warning
Advisory message appears

On lower ECAM DU in formal configuration because advisory does not come with any
attention getter.
On the EWD is mono ECAM configuration along with a flashing light on the associated
key on ECAM control panel
Always when an advisory is triggered.
On the EWS in normal configuration with attention getters.
What does a pulsing green engine parameter indicate?

An ADVISORY, the parameter is about to reach the limit.
An ADVISORY, the parameter is out of the normal operating range.
A MEMO, the parameter has a faulty indication.
A level 3 failure requiring immediate crew action.

The advisory mode is inhibited in some flight phases.

If an advisory is triggered, when the ECAM is in the single-display configuration, an
advisory message appears on the upper part of the E/WD, and the associated key on
the ECAM control panel flashes to identify the appropriate system page.
Whenever there is an advisory condition.

In case of mono ECAM, if there is an advisory
When will a system page key light on the ECP flash ?

When there is a failure in normal configuration
When there is a failure but in mono ECAM configuration
During advisory in normal configuration
During advisory in mono ECAM configuration
When will ADV reminder come on EWD ?

Subsequent to advisory condition, if the respective system page is not displayed
Whenver there is an advisory condition.
In case of mono ECAM, if there is an advisory
There are three types of failures: Independent, Primary and Secondary. What is an
Independent failure?
A failure of a system or an item of equipment that costs the aircraft the use of other systems
or items of equipment.
The loss of a system or item of equipment resulting from a Primary failure.
A failure that affects an isolated system or item of equipment without degrading the
performance of others in the aircraft.
What is a Primary Failure?

What is a Secondary Failure?


During a flight, automatically SD page changes from CRUISE to ELEC and

ELEC key on ECAM control panel glows. What does it mean ?
There is an advisory condition in electrical system.
There is a failure in electrical system
(b) is correct only if CLR keys also glow.
With the help of EMER CANC p/b, pilot can cancel any audio indication.
True
False
With the help of MASTER WARN p/b, any audio can be cancelled except for
OVERSPEED or L/G NOT DOWN.
True
False
SELCAL CONTINUOUS BUZZER can even be cancelled by MASTER CAUTION p/b.

True
False
Which failures are displayed as a boxed title on ECAM DU?

Primary Failure
Secondary Failure
Independent failure
In the case of ELECT EMER CONFIG, secondary failures are inhibited on E/WD.
True
False
Some action lines do not disappear from the E/WD even after the flight crew performs
the necessary actions.
True
False
The T/O MEMO appears automatically

2 minutes after first engine start.
immediately after second engine start.
2 minutes after second engine start
2 minutes after electrical power ON

When does the take off memo appear

Whenever TO CONFIG pb is pressed
During take off
After first engine start automatically
After first engine when TO CONFIG pb is pressed
Landing memo appears

After selecting the L/G down
Below 1500 with L/G down
Below 800 with L/G down
Once the slats are extended during approach
When does the last line of the LDG memo reads FLAPS …. CONF 3
1. When on GPWS panel, LDG FLAP 3 pb sw is ON
2. In alternate law
3. In direct law
4. When landing with flaps 3 is planned on MCDU
5. LDG memo always shows flaps …. Config 3
When is T.O. INHIBIT active?

From 80 kts till gear up.
From 80 kts till 1500 feet AGL,
From T/O POWER application till 1500 ft AGL.
From Lift-off till 1500 feet AGL
To improve its operational efficacy, the computer inhibits some warnings and cautions for certain
flight phases. It does so to avoid alerting the pilots unnecessarily at times when they have high workloads, such as
during takeoff or landing. In these two phases, the DU displays magenta
memos : “T.O. INHIBIT” (flight phases 3, 4, and 5), and “LDG INHIBIT” (flight phases 7 and 8).
When is LDG. INHIBIT active?

Below 1000 feet AGL until touch-down
Below 800 feet AGL until 80 kts.
Below 800 feet AGL until engine shut-down.
Even if a failure message is inhibited, pilot can recall it by pressing

RCL
CLR
ALL

A particular failure caution message is inhibited during the flight phases 3,4,5,7 and 8.
What do you understand by this?
If the failure occurs during these phases, the ECAM caution is inhibited.
This failure will not occur during these phases.
The ECAM caution appears only if the failure occur during these phases.
As in (a) and the local caution will also be inhibited.
The aircraft is on ground and the take off power is applied. The master warning lights with red
CONFIG ECAM message will appear if
Speed brakes extended
Door not closed
Flex Temp not set
CONFIG PARK BRK ON Red with MW will appear if parking brakes are on and
You apply TO Power
You perform TO CONFIG TEST
Both are correct.
Any of the HYD SYS LO PR {G(Y)(B)} is detected when you perform TO CONFIG TEST.
True
False
With aircraft on ground if take off CONFIG pb switch is depressed, CONFIG warning will
be triggered provided.
Slats and Flaps are not in Take off configuration.
As in (a) or if pitch trim is not in take off range.
Parking brake ON
The system/status display (SD) uses the lower ECAM display unit to display:
An aircraft system synoptic diagram page.
The STATUS page
Both are correct
In what conditions, SD pages are displayed automatically?

Automatic, related to a failure:
Automatic, advisory
Automatic, flight phase mode
All are correct.

The status page displays an operational summary of the aircraft status after the SD has displayed a
failure.
The STATUS page also appears automatically during descent, when the slats are
extended, unless the page is empty.
On a bottom of the STATUS page, what does the green arrow mean?
It is a reminder to land as soon as possible.
It indicates that there is a system page behind.
It means that there is more information to be seen.
After the engine shutdown, you observe a pulsing STS message. What does it mean?
It is an indication that at least one system requires crew attention.
It is an indication that the aircraft has not been shut down correctly.
It is a reminder that the status page holds a maintenance message.
Feedback messages take priority over load factor indication.

True
False
Permanent data consists of:

TAT
SAT
G LOAD
ALT SEL
UTC
GW
The screen displays the Gross Weight (GW) in green, as soon as the flight crew starts the first
engine.
AMBER CROSSES "XX" ON THE SD means

A parameter value on any SD page is not available for display
The accuracy of a parameter value on any SD page is degraded
AMBER DASHES ON THE SD means

A parameter value on any SD page is not available for display
The accuracy of a parameter value on any SD page is degraded
ECAM DETECTS A FAILURE

A hydraulic reservoir overheat is detected. What will be the indications?
‐ A single chime sounds
‐ Both MASTER CAUTION lights come on, and stay on
‐ A FAULT light, on the overhead HYD panel, comes on
‐ The memo space on the E/WD displays the “HYD B RSVR OVHT” message, and the “BLUE
ELEC PUMP . . . . . OFF” instruction
‐ The lower ECAM display (SD) automatically calls up the hydraulic system's diagram, and
displays “OVHT” in amber next to the blue system
‐ The ECAM's CLR pushbutton lights up.

Once the crewmember has completed viewing a specific system, what is the correct
procedure for clearing the screen and returning it to a normal presentation?
Press the respective system push button again.
It goes away by itself.
Press CLR on the ECAM control panel.
Press twice CLR on the ECAM control panel.
In case of single ECAM display:

If an ECAM warning / caution is triggered, the relevant system page is not displayed
automatically nor its system page p/b lights up.
If an advisory condition arises, the relevant system page is not displayed automatically but its
system page p/b light pulses.
To see the system page, pilot has to push and hold p/b for upto 3min.
All are correct.
CLR p/b remains lighted as long as E/WD is displaying a

Warning or caution.
Status page.
Both are correct.
OEB REMINDER
When should the EMER CANC push button be used?

At the completion of an ECAM procedure for an abnormal procedure.
Whenever a LEVEL 3 warning or LEVEL 2 caution occurs.
Whenever a repetitive visual or aural warning, or caution is received that the crew has
determined to be false.
How can the ILS 1 FAULT be restored from being a CANCELLED by EMER CANC
p/b?
By resetting the appropriate circuit breaker.
By pressing and holding any CLR key for more than 3 seconds.
By pressing the EMER CAN pushbuttton for more than 3 seconds.
By pressing and holding the RCL key for more than 3 seconds.

If the ECAM control panel fails, the CLR, RCL, EMER CANC, and ALL pushbutton
switches become inoperative.
True.
False.
Which statement is true about the use of the ALL key on the ECAM Control Panel?
When you press the ALL key, all the systems pages are displayed in sucession.
When you press the ALL key, you cannot stop at a particular systems page until all have been
displayed.
The ALL key is not operable in case of failure of the ECAM Control Panel.
The ______ pushbutton switch on ECAM cancels an aural warning, extinguishes the
MASTER WARNINGS lights, but does not affect the ECAM message display.
RCL
CLR
EMER CANC
CANC
The MASTER CAUT lights on ECAM lights up steady amber for level ______ caution
and is accompanied by a single chime.
1
2
3
2 or 3
The ______ allows the pilot to have the ECAM display either warning and caution
messages or system and system status images.
PFD/ND XFR on each side console
ECAM / ND XFER Selector on Switching panel
EFIS DMC switch on each side console
ECAM control panel
During cruise with cruise page displayed, HYD page is called by choice. To get
back CRUISE page display.
Press cruise page pb
Press HYD page pb again
Press CLR pb twice
Pres STS pb.
With low ECAM DU failed, if Advisery is triggered

The system page will be displayed on EW/D automatically
ADV message is displayed on EWD
Associated key on ECAM CTL page will flash.

On Lower ECAM (SDU) permanent data, ALT SEL information is displayed

in the units of
Meters, only if metric unit is selected on FCU
Feet, only if metric unit is not selected on FCU
Meter or feet as selected on FCU
Meter even if metric unit is not selected on FCU
The caution message have been suppressed by CLR PB. How can the caution
message be recalled.
By pressing the RCL key for minimum 3 secs
By pressing RCL key once momentarily
By pressing RCL key for a max of 3 seconds
It is not possible to recall caution messages.
What happens to amber caution when EMERG CANC pb is pressed

MASTER CAUTION lights go off, ECAM caution also goes off.
STATUS page is called, name of caution is given under CANCELLED CAUTION
Both (a) and (b)
As in (b) MASTER CAUTON lights go off, but ECAM caution stays ON.
The Emergency call indications in the cockpit are as follows.

EMER CALL light ON and Buzzer once.
EMER CALL light ON and Buzzer two times
EMER CALL light ON and continuous Buzzer
EMER CALL light ON and Buzzer three times
When will Master Warning or Master Caution light will disappear?

These lights go out when :
‐ One pilot presses the light (except for some red warnings, such as the overspeed and stall
warnings)
‐ The warning/caution situation is over
‐ The pilot presses the CLR pb on the ECAM control panel (except for some red warnings,
such as the overspeed and stall warnings).
‐ The pilot presses the EMER CANC pb on the ECAM control panel.
If both FACs fail:

FACs INOP will appear on both PFDs in amber color
SPD LIM red flag will appear at the bottom of the both PFD speed scale
Both of the above are correct
How can Master warning and CRC be cancelled ?

By pressing Master Warning light only
By pressing EMER CANC pb
By pressing Master Caution light

What are the purposes if RCL key on ECAM control panel

To recall the cautions that are cancelled wither by CLR key or EMER CANC
To recall any inhibited warnings / cautions during different phases of the flight
c Both (a) and (b)
Only to recall cautions cancelled by EMER CANC key.
What are the checklist procedures given in A320 Quick Reference Hand {QRH} Book?
Only the checklist procedures that will not appear on ECAM.
Some important ECAM checklist and non ECAM checklist procedures.
Only the ECAM checklists procedures.
Some important ECAM checklist and non ECAM checklist procedures.
What are the checklist procedures given in A320 Reference Hand Book.
All the ECAM checklist and non ECAM checklist procedures.
As in (c) and they will not be revised.
About “LAND ASAP” message:

These are messages which appear on the E/WD, if a failure warrants flight to land
While reading a checklist in the FCOM vol.3 Abnormal and Emergency procedures,
how could you know whether it is for red warning (Emergency procedure) or amber
caution (Abnormal procedure)?
It is not possible to know.
If the title box of the C/L is grey, it is the Emergency procedure,
There are black side boxes on the title box, it is corresponding to Emergency procedure
otherwise it is abnormal procedure.
If there are black-side boxes on the title box, it is corresponding to abnormal procedure
otherwise it is Emergency procedure.
Where would a failure message and the associated checklist appear ?

Only on the lower left area of the upper ECAM DU
On the lower left area of the EWD
On the right memo space of EWD
Only on the lower right area of the upper ECAM DU
The relationship between position and the illumination of the push button is
PB pushed IN – Green light ON
PB pushed Out – Blue light ON
PB pushed IN – Light OUT
PB pushed OUT – Fault light ON

White light ON, on the push button switch indicates

Push button switch is normal position.
Push button switch is abnormal position.
Push button switch is abnormal position is indicated by amber light.
There is no white light ON the push button switches.

INDICATIONS ON PFD
If a PFD fails, does anything happen automatically?

The ATT HDG switch must be used on the switching panel in order to recover PFD
information.
The image automatically transfers to the display formerly occupied by the ND.
The image automatically transfers to the UPPER ECAM.
It has to be manually activated.
In case of PFD failure, the PFD image is transferred to the NDU:

Manually
Automatically
Either manually or automatically
The PFD image cannot be displayed on the ND.
When does the Side Stick Order indicator display?

After first engine start and disappears when passing 400 feet RA
After first engine start and disappears after rotation
After seconde engine start and disappears when passing 400 feet RA
After second engine start and disappears when passing 400 feet RA
Sidestick position and max. sidestick deflection are displayed on the ground on the PFD:
Continuously after aircraft power is applied.
After the first engine start.
On takeoff roll when power is applied.
Is the Side Slip indicator always yellow?

Yes.
No, it turns blue when it becomes a beta target (displaying optimum side slip for a given
configuration)
No, it turns orange when it becomes a beta target .
FACs calculate speed trend and VLS. The extremities of the trend vector and Vls
segment indicate respectively; speed value at the next 10 seconds and 1.23 Vs1g with
present configuration. Is this correct?
Yes (for both cases)
No (for both cases)
No because VLS is not 1.23 Vs 1g
No because the tip of the speed arrow is not the speed in 10 seconds time
What happens when RoC or RoD is exceeded?

The analog and digital indications become amber if V/S is > 6000fpm in climb or descent.
If high RoD near ground below 2500 RA, AND v/s >2000fpm, the analog and digital indications
become amber.

The Flight Path vector (FPV) represents the lateral and vertical trajectory of the
aircraft with respect to the ground. On the lateral scale, it indicates the aircraft's track.
On the vertical scale, it indicates the aircraft's flight path angle.
True.
False.
If the FPV (Flight Path Vector) symbol is right of center, where is the wind coming
from?
Right.
Left.
It depends of the Track followed
If the FPV is above the horizon line, what is the aircraft actually doing?
Descending.
Maintaining FL.
Climbing.
Cannot say.
Pitch and roll bars flash for 10 sec and then remain steady:
On reversion to HDG - V/S basic mode{manual or automatic}
In ALT* Mode, if altitude is changed
Loss of LOC or G/S in LAND mode or loss of LAND mode
At first time when AP or FD is engaged.
How are the FMAs displayed on the PFD?

There are 5 columns and 3 rows.
In which of the following failures, the characteristic speeds on the PFD are lost?
If both FACs are inoperative
Dual flap / slat channel failure of SFCC
Both are correct.
CHECK ALT flag appears if the disagreement between the two PFDs altitude
indications is greater than 250 ft when QNH is selected {or 500 feet when STD is
selected}
This is associated with ECAM caution.
The caution and the flag disappear when pilot‟s and co-pilot‟s BARO Ref disagree.
Both are correct.

PAC Alert on ND for Wx radar is not available:

If Gain Selector is not at CAL position.
ND is displaying MAN GAIN at bottom right cornor.
Both are correct
Both are wrong.
PAC Alert is independent of MULTISCAN toggle switch position.

True
False
WX Radar
What is the colour of the VSI pointer ?

Always green
It may be green or amber
As in (b) and pointer will be red if descent rate is more than 6000 feet / min
As in (b) and pointer will be red if the V/S value is in avoidable ACAS red strip
How is the Vertical speed indicated ?

Normally barometric and is in both analog and digital form.
Normally inertial
When inertial, a window appears around the numerical value.
As in (b) and if barometric, then a window appears around the digital value.
When would the red ribbon representing field elevation appear on the right of
altitude scale
It is always there
Whenever the radio altitude is displayed on PFD
When radio altitude is less than 570 feet
When radio altitude is more than 570 feet
When will on PFD speed scale black and red barber pole appear below stall
warning speed ?
In normal law when high angle of attack protection ( prot) is active
In alternate law when low speed stability protection is active
In direct law
Both (b) and (c) are correct

Mach No. will be visible when it is >0.5

True
False
The maximum speed to select next higher flap setting is indicated by two amber dashes.
True.
False.
VFE NEXT appears when a/c altitude is below 20000‘.

True
False
Speed protection symbol is indicated by two green dashes and indicates the speed at
which overspeed protection becomes active {VMO + 6 Kts or MMO + 0.01}
True
False
ECON SPEED Range thick lines are visible only during descent.
True
False
In general, what information is presented to pilots on the PFD?

The Primary Flight Display (PFD) provides the following information to the flight crew:
‐ Attitude and guidance
‐ Airspeed
‐ Altitude (BARO and radio) and vertical speed
‐ Heading and track
‐ FMGS modes (Flight Mode Annunciator)
‐ Vertical and lateral deviations
‐ Radio navigation information (ILS, DME).
Check PFD before engine start and after engine start?

Sidestick order indication and Max Sidestick Deflection will be shown only after one engine is started. These symbols
will not be available before engine are started.
What is so special about ―Ground Roll Guidance Command Bar‖?

This symbol is in green, and appears when the aircraft is on ground, or below 30 ft radio
altitude, provided that a localizer signal is available. It indicates the Flight Director yaw orders,
to maintain the aircraft on the runway centerline.
When the bank angle exceeds 45 °, all the PFD symbols except those for attitude, speed, heading, altitude, and
vertical speed, disappear.
The display returns to normal when the bank angle decreases below 40 °.

When pitch angle exceeds 25 ° nose up or 13 °

nose down, all the PFD displays except attitude, speed, speed trend, heading, altitude, and
vertical speed disappear.
The display returns to normal when pitch angle becomes less than 22 ° nose up or 10 ° nose down.
What are the Flight Control Protection Symbols?

The display shows these symbols in green:
• On the roll scale at ± 67 ° to mark the bank angle limits
• On the pitch scale at 15 ° nose down or 30 ° nose up to mark the pitch limits.
An amber x replaces these symbols if the corresponding protection is lost.
The actual speed is indicated by the ______ reference line.

yellow
amber
red
white
The airspeed indication on the PFD starts at:

100 kts.
80 kts
50 kts.
30 kts.
The speed trend arrow on the PFD airspeed scale indicates the speed value that will be attained in
_____ seconds if the acceleration remains constant.
5
8
10
15
Speed Trend Arrow is still available if FACs fail.

True
False
Speed Trend (yellow)

This pointer starts at the speed symbol. The tip indicates the speed the aircraft will reach in
10 s, if its acceleration remains constant. The pointer only appears, when it is greater than 2 kt,
and disappears when it is less than 1 kt.
It also disappears, if the FACs fail.}
VLS is the lowest speed that the autoflight system (autopilot or A/THR) will fly the aircraft.
This is a dynamic speed corresponding to an Angle Of Attack (AOA).
VLS will change with wing configuration change.
With speedbrake extension, VLS will increase
Above FL200, VLS will provide a 0.2g buffet margin
All of the above.

VLS information is inhibited from touchdown until 10 seconds after liftoff.
VSW is the speed corresponding to the stall warning and,

VSW information is inhibited from touchdown until5 sec after lift-off.
VSW is displayed only if a/c is under pitch alternate or direct law.
When a/c is in normal law,

VSW is not indicated.
VLS , alpha- protection speed and alpha Max speed are shown
The lower end of a red and black strip along the speed scale defines the VMAX speed
and
It is the lowest of the following VMO (or MMO), VLE, VFE
It is the speed corresponding to the stall warning (VSW)
It represents the speed corresponding to the angle of attack at which alpha protection
becomes active.
Minimum Selectable Speed (VLS)

The top of the amber strip along the speed scale indicates this speed.
It represents the lowest
selectable speed providing an appropriate margin to the stall speed.
Alpha Protection Speed

The top of a black and amber strip along the speed scale indicates this speed.
It represents the speed corresponding to the angle of attack at which alpha protection becomes
Active.

Alpha MAX Speed

The top of a red strip along the speed scale indicates this speed. It represents the speed
corresponding to the maximum angle of attack that the aircraft can attain in pitch normal law
It is displayed when in pitch normal law.
VMAX
The lower end of a red and black strip along the speed scale defines this speed.
It is the lowest of the following:
‐ VMO or the speed corresponding to MMO
‐ VLE
‐ VFE
Stall Warning Speed (VSW) {it is displayed when operating in pitch alternate or pitch direct law }
The top of a red and black strip along the speed scale defines this speed.
It is the speed corresponding to the stall warning. .
VSW information is inhibited from touchdown until 5 s after liftoff.
When is the 'Green Dot' displayed?

Only when flap handle is in the zero position.
Only when flap handle is in the zero position, above FL80
Only when flap handle is in the zero position, below FL80

What does Green Dot represent?

Maneuvering speed in clean configuration
Maneuvering speed in clean configuration when speed is managed and it shows the speed
corresponding to the best lift-to-drag ratio.
The next flap extend (VFE) max speed
The flap extend min speed from clean configuration
The green ‗F‘ symbol on speed tape is the minimum flap retraction speed. It is only
displayed when the flap handle is in position 3 or 2.
True
False
‗F‘ symbol is not displayed if Take-Off is performed in 1+F config.

True
False.
The green 'S' of the speed tape is the Minimum Slat Retraction Speed. It is only
displayed when the flap handle position is in position 1.
True.
False.
What is:
Minimum Flap Retraction Speed
Minimum Slat Retraction Speed
VFE NEXT
Yoyo is visible from TOD to MAP and its range is ±500 feet.
True
If VDEV is more than ±500 feet,

….the symbol stays at the range limit and PROG page will display the exact value.
The baro ref selector is set to QNH. How do we :

Change baro setting ?
Set STD?
Change from Hg to hpA?
Does Baro Ref pulse? When?

STD is not selected in climb above TA or
STD is still selected below TL during descent { or below 2500 feet if TL is not
available}

When does altitude numbers change from green to amber?

For any approach, if MDA / MDH is entered in FMGS, the altitude numbers change from
green to Amber when a/c goes below MDA / MDH.
As you approach a selected altitude, when will the yellow altitude window start
flashing?
As you approach within 750 ft of FCU selected altitude and stop when it is within 250 ft.
Altitude window has changed to Amber on PFD. What do mean by this?

A/C has deviated from FCU selected flight level
FMGS wants you to change the altitude in ALT window on FCU
Both of the above
If a/c goes below MDA, altitude window will become amber

True
False
What is the meaning of "9000" in blue at the top of the altitude scale?
It marks the FCU selected altitude.
It marks the airfield elevation.
It marks the transition altitude.
It marks the decision height.
What is the ALTITUDE AERT warning?
(C chord sound and PFD’s altitude window flashes in amber),

 when the aircraft approaches a preselected altitude or flight level, or
 when it deviates from its selected altitude or flight level.
Is altitude alerting aural warning inhibited with the autopilot on?
Yes
The altitude alert is also inhibited:
 When the slats are out and the landing gear is selected down,
 In approach after the aircraft captures the glide slope, or
 When the landing gear is locked down.

How could the pilot cancel an altitude alert (C CHORD)?
 Selecting a new altitude,

 Pushing the EMER CANC pb on the ECAM control panel, or
 Pressing either MASTER WARN pb.
If the aircraft deviates from the selected FCU altitude. Altitude window will
Pulse with continuous ‘C’ chord
Flash amber with continuous ‘C’ chord
Flash yellow with ‘C’ chord for 1.5 sec
Flash yellow with continuous ‘C’ chord
What does the flashing amber alt window indicate

A/c is approaching FCU selected altitude
A/c is deviating from FCU selected altitude
As in (a) and it is accompanied by continuous C chord
As in (b) and it is accompanied by continuous C chord
The Altitude Alert is inhibited

When the slats are out with L/G selected down
In approach after Capture of G/S
When L/G is down locked
What do the blue line and red ribbon in ALT scale on PFD mean
Both denote radio altitude
Landing elevation, ground reference
Both denote ground reference
Both denote the landing elevation.
Radio Height is displayed on the PFD:

Below 2500'.
When the LOC or APPR p/b is pressed.
When a Decision Height is selected.
Radio Height Indications:

Appears below 2500 feet. It is indicated in green but change to amber in certain cases:
If DH is entered:
If NO is entered:
If no DH is entered:
‗DH‘ amber above radio altitude indication on PFD indicates

DH information failure
DH not entered on MCDU
Aircraft has reached DH which was inserted on MCDU
Aircraft is above DH as selected on MCDU

On ground, if 10000 feet altitude is selected on FCU, it would be indicated on PFD

In the first column of FMA
Below altitude scale
At the top of altitude scale
By a cyan symbol on altitude
When does STD indication below ALT scale pulse

Whenever baro know is pulled for 9 secs
STD is selected below transition level
STD is selected above transition level
ONH is selected below transition level
The appearance of RA flag on both PFDs indicate that the

Radio altimeter No.1 has failed
PFD has failed
Both radio altimeters have failed
Aircraft has come below DH
As today‘s flight is very light and you are climbing very fast and as such you are above
profile.
VDEV indication {yoyo} will indicate how much you have deviated from your profile.
True
False
You are climbing and you observe that the window around the numerical value of V/S has turned
suddenly amber. What do you think?
A/C climb rate is high and that is why the window has turned amber.
Inertial data is not available and information is from baro info.
Both are correct.
When will the PFD Heading tape revert to TRUE heading? {even ―TRUE‖ appears at
the top of compass rose when true HDG is being displayed}
North of 73° North or South of 60° South
South of 73° North or North of 60° South.
North of 80° North or South of 73°South
North of 78° North or South of 78°South

Where is heading indicator:

base of PFD, yellow lubber line
How is track shown:
green diamond
How is selected heading shown:
blue triangle / digital
--Do—if FDs are OFF?
Blue stick is added on PFD zero pitch line
Flight Path Vector

Flight Path Director
IF THE CREW HAS SELECTED HDG V/S TO BE THE BASIC REFERENCE :

The PFD displays FD bars in green. They automatically move out of view at touchdown in ROLL
OUT mode.
They flash for 10 s, and then remain steady, if the following occur :
‐ A reversion to the HDG V/S basic mode (manual or automatic), or
‐ The selected flight level is changed, when ALT CAPTURE mode is engaged, or
‐ The loss of LOC or G/S in LAND mode or loss of LAND mode, or
‐ At the first AP or FD engagement.
The PFD displays a yaw bar in green below 30 ft radio altitude, if a localizer signal is available:
‐ During takeoff (in RWY mode)
‐ Upon landing (in FLARE and ROLL OUT mode).
THE CREW HAS SELECTED TRK FPA AS THE BASIC REFERENCE :

An inertial flight path vector defines the aircraft's horizontal and vertical track, taking wind effect
into account.
An associated flight path director symbol guides the flight crew onto the vertical and horizontal
flight path targets.
Pitch and roll bars will go out of view:

At touchdown in ROLLOUT mode
……
,,,,,
Yaw bar is visible:

Below 30 ft if localizer signal is available during T/O in RWY mode
Upon landing in FLARE and ROLL OUT mode
Both are correct
-
When will the Flight Directors bars flash?

When a reversion occurs.
When loss of LOC or G/S signal in LAND mode.
All of the above.

The Flight Director bars are out of view when Bank angle exceeds 67°.
True
False.
The Glide slope index will flash continuously when the deviation exceeds ______ above
______
1/2 dot below 120 feet RA
1 dot above 100 feet RA
1 dot above 60 ft RA
1/2 dot below 100 feet RA.
Both LOC and glideslope will flash if, after capture, the signal is lost.
True.
False.
What do the LOC and / or GS red flag denote

LOC and / or GS transmitter have failed
LOC and / or GS receiver have failed
LOC and / or GS deviations are excessive
All the above
If LOC Deviation becomes excessive above certain value, the bar and scale flash.
What is this deviation value?
If G/S Deviation becomes excessive above certain value, the diamond and scale flash.
What is this deviation value?
All PFD symbols except attitude; speed; heading; altitude; and vertical speed are
removed when bank angle exceeds 45 degrees.
True
False
PFD displays different scales for ILS approach and for NON-Precision approach.
Indications on PFD when ILS approach is selected:

{LS pushbutton on EFIS has to be selected to see the ILS information on PFD.}
When LS p/b is selected:

Deviation scale appear on PFD.
Deviation indexes appear when LOC & G/S signals are valid on PFD.
If signals are not valid, ……?????
ILS information
ILS identification,
ILS freq,
DME distance if ILS has DME}
ILS course pointer, if ILS freq and course is selected by the crew on the PFD
HDG/TRK scale

ILS message on PFD flashes amber when APPR mode is armed and the ILS display is not
selected.
Indications on PFD when NON-Precision approach is selected:

Vertical deviation scale and Index appear when in approach phase and when either FINAL is
engaged/armed or a non-ILS approach has been entered.
These scale and index are displayed in approach or go-around phase until MDA has been
reached, or the MAP or runway has been sequenced.
What happens if you select LS p/b while in non-precision approach?

Glide deviation scale has priority over vertical deviation information. V/DEV message
flashes in amber at the top of glide scale when FINAL Mode is armed / engaged or a non-ILS
approach is selected {as ILS is not selected. You are doing a NON-Precision approach.}
What would a flashing amber ―ILS‖ indicate on the bottom right of the PFD?
When would LOC scale keep flashing continuously on PFD?
When would glide slope scale continue to flash on PFD?
Tail strike pitch limiter indicator:

It is visible during take-off and landing and indicates the max pitch attitude to avoid the
tailstrike risk.
During landing, this indication disappears when there is no longer a risk of tailstrike.
Name the flags which will appear on PFD Speed Scale?
Which flags would appear on PFD related to wind shear?

Which flags would appear on PFD related to Altitude?
Which flags would appear on PFD related to V/S ?
All navaids are normally autotuned by:

The FMGC
MCDU
ADIRU
The top end of the black / red Barber pole on Lower right side of speed scale indicates
V  prot
V  max
V  floor
Vsw

The appearance of ILS 1 Red flag on PFD 1 indicates

ILS frequency is not available
Either LOC or G/S signals have failed
LOC & G/S signals both have failed
V/S digital display turns amber

During descent at RA less than 2500’ and V/S greater than 2000’ / min
During descent at RA less than 1000’ and V/S greater than 1200’ / min
Both (a) and (b) are correct and is also applicable during climb phase.
VFE parallel amber lines on the SPD scale

Indicates the speed for S/F retraction during take off.
Indicates the speed for next flap extension during approach
Indicates the speed at which flaps full is to be selected.
Display the speed at which over speed protection become active.
The tip of the speed trend arrow.

Indicates that the aircraft is going to reach OVERSPEED condition.
Indicates the speed that the aircraft will attain if pilot follows it by accelerating the speed
Can be pointing up or down depending on whether the aircraft is descending or climbing
Indicates the speed the aircraft will attain in 10 seconds if acceleration is kept constant.
What are the different indications on which cyan triangular symbol (to indicate
selected value) appear
AS ALT, HDG on PFD, HDG on ND
AS HDG / TRK on PFD, HDG / TRK on ND
AS HDG/TRK on PFD only
HDG/TRK ON PFD, ND
The lower end of black/red barber pole on top right side of speed scale indications
Vmo
Vmo + 6
As in (a) or speed corresponding to MMO
As in (b) or speed corresponding to MMO + 0.01
Vertical speed information display on PFD is normally

Inertial information
Baro information
Inertial information but if it fails, baro information is displayed
Baro information, but if it fails, inertial information is displayed
The yaw bar on PFD is displayed when the aircraft is

Above 30 feet during take off
Below 30 feet during landing
During take off until a/c reac/hes 30 feet

After take off in configuration 1 + F the symbol appearing on Right Side of

speed scale will be
F
S
F or S depending upon air speed
F and then S
The actual track symbol

Appears on both PFD & ND in the form of a green diamond
Appears on PFD in blue coloured diamond if selected from FCU
Appears on PFD & ND is magenta coloured diamond if given by the FMGC
Primary Flight Display

When is the side stick position indication icon (white cross) displayed?
What would the appearance of large red arrowheads on the PFD indicate?
What are the pitch and roll angle limits indicated on the PFD by green “=” signs?
When would the sideslip index change from yellow to blue?
What does the yellow speed trend line indicate?
Target airspeeds may be presented in magenta or blue, what is the difference?
What is VLS and how is it displayed?
What speeds does VMAX represent and how is it displayed?
What is “Green-Dot Speed”?
What would be indicated if the altitude window changed from yellow to amber?
What is indicated when the altitude numbers change from green to amber?
What would a flashing amber “ILS” indicate on the bottom right of the PFD?
Generally, what information does each of the five FMA columns present?
How is the crew made aware of mode changes on the FMA?
How are armed modes displayed on the FMA?
The ‘Ground Reference’ indication on PFD altitude scale is given by

Horizontal blue line below 570 feet
Red ribbon below 570 feet 0
Red ribbon below transition level
Horizontal blue line below transition level

Navigation Display
What displays or modes are available on the ND?
There are five different displays (five modes to display navigation information) :
‐ ROSE LS show ILS details
‐ ROSE VOR show VOR details
‐ ROSE NAV show NAV details
‐ ARC
‐ PLAN
{ROSE NAV and ARC modes give the pilots same information but ARC mode limits it to the forward 90 degree sector.}
{in PLAN mode, you will not get Wx , }
What color is used to represent the flight plan to the alternate?

What color is used to represent the active flight plan?
What color is used to represent the temporary flight plan?
What color is used to represent the secondary flight plan?
What color is used for the missed approach procedure?
TOP OF DESCENT and CONTINUE DESCENT arrows can be displayed in blue or
white. What is the difference?
Altitude constraints are presented as a small circle in white, amber or magenta. What
does each color represent?
When do you get ILS APP message which is in green shown on ND?
This message appears:
‐ When the flight crew selects an ILS approach on the MCDU, and
‐ When the FMS flight phase is DES, APP or GA, or the FMS phase is CRZ and the along
track distance to destination is less then 250 nm.
Note: ILS 1 information appears on PFD 1 and ND 2.

ILS 2 information appears on PFD 2 and ND 1.
If on MCDU, if you select VOR Approach, VOR APP message is displayed
If on MCDU, if you select GPS Approach, GPS APP message is displayed
The ND display may disappear, if too many waypoints and associated information are
displayed. Reduce the range, or deselect WPT or CSTR, and the display will automatically
recover, after about 30 s.
PRO-ABN-31 P 2/14
ILS is either selected by FMGC or by RMP in backup mode and the pointer on ND show ILS
course.
If no course is entered, value defaults to
090
180
360
In which of the following modes, VOR, ILS, and NDB raw data information is displayed
on the ND?
VOR, RMI and NDB information may be displayed in the ARC or ROSE NAV modes.

VOR & ILS information can be displayed in the ROSE VOR and ROSE ILS modes
respectively.
Both are correct.
The presence of VOR1 in red on the ND indicates:

The VOR station currently tuned is out of range.
The VOR station currently tuned is out of service.
The # 1 VOR receiver is inoperative.
Wind direction is displayed on ND in numeric and Analog form. Mark the correct
statement
Wind direction is given w.r.t. magnetic north in numeric form

Wind direction is given w.r.t. true north in Analog form
Wind direction is given w.r.t. magnetic north in Analog form
Wind direction is displayed in Analog form only if wind speed is more than 20 knots.
On which DU, the wind information appear

PFD
ND in all modes
ND in all rose modes
ND in all modes except PLAN
F-PLAN display is available on ND

All the ROSE modes
ROSE NAV mode only
PLAN mode only
ROSE NAV, ARC & PLAN mode
The time display on ND and lower ECAM is respectively of

Chrono and GMT
GMT and Chrono
GMT & ET
Chrono and ET
Which combination of bearing pointers is not possible on ND

VOR 1, ADF1 on ND2
ADF1, VOR2 on ND1
VOR2, ADF1 on ND1
ADF2, VOR2 on ND1
RNAV position information is displayed on the ND in which of the following modes?

ARC and ROSE NAV modes only.
ROSE VOR and ROSE ILS modes.
ARC, ROSE and PLAN modes.

ROSE VOR mode.
Estimated time of arrival shown on the ND at TO WAYPOINT is based on

Current IAS
Current Ground Speed
Avg value of both the above
NAVAIDS are shown on ND in different symbols. The color of symbol will be different when
NAVAID is tuned automatically by FMGC and manually through the MCDU.
True
False
ILS course symbol is shown on ND when an ILS station has been selected even if LS p/b on EFIS
remains unselected.
True
False
ILS 1 information is displayed on ______ when operating in the rose ILS mode:
PFD 2 & ND 1
PFD 1 & ND 1
PFD 1 & ND 2
When a/c overflies Outer Marker, the station symbol {diamond} flashes
Blue
Amber
White
NDB Navigation station is represented on ND in the form of

Triangle
Cross sign
Plus sign
VOR Navigation station is represented on ND in the form of

Triangle
Cross sign
Plus sign
With radar selected on, what can you read on ND about antenna setting?
Tilt angle
Tilt angle and gain mode
Roll angle and tilt angle

Nothing
Weather will be displayed on ND, if it is not in PLAN mode.

True
False
What is the meaning of ―NO AUTO TILT‖ message on ND?

It means Multiscan function is lost
It means Multiscan switch is in MAN position.
Both of the above
If Gain Selector is not at CAL position.

ND is displaying MAN GAIN at bottom right cornor.
Both are correct
Both are wrong.
True
False
Predictive wind shear system:

A PWS SCAN message is displayed
What is the difference if ND display is in TERR mode and not in weather mode:
TILT is replaced by blue TERR
Sweep on the display is outward.
WX Radar display can be superimposed on NDU with mode selector at

PLAN mode only
All modes except PLAN mode
ARC mode only
ROSE mode only
Weather radar can be displayed in what modes on the ND?

All modes except plan.
In RHS top corner on ND some data is given. What does it mean in ROSE / NAV mode
Destination airfield data.
Data of next VOR or ILS station on the flight path
Data of the next way point to be flow (TO way point) in the flight plan
Both (a) and (c)

What are the ND modes in which flight plan shall be presented on the ND
All modes
Al ROSE modes
All modes except PLAN
All modes except ROSE VOR and ROSE ILS
What are the ND modes in which weather picture shall be shown on ND0
All modes
All modes except PLAN
Only ROSE modes
Only ROSE NAV & ARC modes
In RHS top corner of ND some data is given. What does it mean in ROSE /NAV mode ?
Destination airfield data
Data of next VOR or ILS station of the flight path
Data of the next way point to be flown (TO way point) in the flight plan
Both (a) and (c)
When does ILS APP message appear {in green} at the top of ND?
When you select ILS approach on MCDU and when phase of flight is DES, APP or GA.
Even if phase of flight is CRZ, if you select ILS App on MCDU, this message will appear on
ND provided distance to destination is <250 NM along track.
Both of the above.
VOR, ILS, and NDB raw data information is displayed on the ND in which of the
following modes?
VOR & ILS information can be displayed in the ROSE VOR and ROSE ILS modes
respectively.
Both are correct.
True
False
Indications about Weather, Predictive wind shear area, GPWS Terrain area,and TCAS
intruders are shown on ND only in ROSE and ARC modes. These info is not shown on
ND when it is in PLAN mode.
Information about wind / GS/ TAS, To station, NAVAIDs are always shown on ND
irrespective of ND Mode.
Course information from the #1 ILS receiver will be displayed:

On the captain's PFD when the captain's ILS push button is selected ON.

On the FO's PFD when his ILS push button is selected on and on the captain's ND, when the
captain's ND is selected to ILS ROSE.
On the captain's PFD and ND when the captain's ILS push button is selected ON.
The first two statements are correct
Information from the #1 VOR receiver will be displayed:

On the capt's PFD when the captain's VOR bearing selector is selected to VOR.
On the capt 's ND when the capt 's VOR bearing selector is selected to VOR.
VOR #1 course information is available on the captain's PFD and ND when the captain's ILS
pb is selected ON.
In A320 Weather Radar

The range of radar is selected from Weather Radar control panel
Weather image is available in all modes on ND
Weather image is taken off from PFD automatically in case of
avionics ventilation problems.
The turbulence function on Wx Radar is available

Upto 160 nm
Upto 80 nm
Upto 40 nm
Upto 320 nm
Some of the warning flags which appear simultaneously on PFD and ND are
HDG, CHECK, HDG, G/S LOC
HDG, CHECK, HDG, CHECK ALT, ALT
DH, V/S , G/S, LOC
HDG, CHECK HDG, ALT, CHECK ALT, CHECK ATT
In flight if UTC on the lower ECAM DU is lost

It can be recovered by feeding manually from MCDU
The CFDIU takes over automatically
DMC will start giving UTC from its own clock.
None of the above are correct.
The Electromechanical Vibrator of STBY altimeters operates

In flight
On ground
On ground or in flight
When vibrator switch is selected ON
The DFDR is automatically de-energised.

On ground after both engines running
In flight with either engine running
On ground during the first 5 minutes after electrical power ON
On ground after 5 minutes of last engine shut down.
DFDR records the a/c parameters for the last.

25 hours
50 hours
As in (a) and then tape is to be changed
As in (b) and then tape is to be changed
A320 aircraft clock

Has 2 electrical supplies, if normal fails, the other supply will keep supplying from
aircraft battery hot bus.
Has 2 electrical supplies, if normal ails the Internal battery of the clock takes over
As in (b) and time is memorized upto 50 hours
If flight if UTC on the lower ECAM DU is lost

It can be recovered by feeding manually from MCDU
The CFDIU takes over automatically
DMC will start giving UTC from its own clock
None of the above are correct.
The time displayed on ND and lower ECAM is respectively of Chrono and GMT
Where does the time signal come from, for OMT display is permanent data on SD
Cockpit clock
As in (a) and if it fails from CFDIU
Always from CFDIU
As in (b) and it is necessary to do GMT / DATE INIT
CRS selection on the STBY / CRS window on RMP is possible

Once any NAV key is selected and manually setting the CRS with rotary knob
After NAV key selection and frequency set, the frequency is transferred to active window
Only when the CRS coding is transferred to active window CRS selection will be effective.
RMP is used for

Communication only
Radio navigation when used as back up mode for Radio Navigation receivers
but not for communication.
Communication as well as back mode for radio navigation receivers tuning.

Always used for communication as well as for automatic tuning for FMGC
SEL light on RMP 3 illuminates when

HF 1 is selected on RMP 3
VHF is selected on RMP 1
List the warning system priority order.

To prevent simultaneous and possibly conflicting warnings, the aircraft exhibits the following
warning system priority order:
#1: stall warnings,

#2: windshear warnings,
#3: GPWSwarnings,
#4: TCAS advisories

FAC‟s calculate VLS, F, S speeds shown on the PFDs according to the position of the Flap
Selector.
FAC‟s calculate VLS, F, S speeds shown on the PFDs according to the position of the actual
Slat / Flap position.
Pushing the “Optional Data Display” Pushbutton on EFIS Control Panel, you will see
optional data {WPT or VOR.D, NDB, ARPT etc.} in addition to the data permanently
displayed in:
1. PLAN Mode
2. ARC Mode
3. ROSE NAV mode
4. ROSE VOR Mode
5. ROSE ILS Mode
A. 1
B. 2, 3, 4, 5
C. 1, 2, 3
D. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
DSC-31-50 P 2/4
Regarding the PFD, which of the following statements is true?

The bottom left corner of the PFD displays the MACH No. at all times.
On the IAS, a split magenta triangle indicates a managed climb.
Selected heading can be either be displayed as a triangle or digits.
An excess rate of descent will cause the IVSI to go RED.
The ND displays the GPWS terrain picture, when the TERR ON ND switch is selected ON,
and
the ND is not in PLAN mode. The terrain picture replaces the weather radar image.
The terrain appears in different colors and densities, in accordance with its relative height:
To differentiate between the terrain and the weather display, the weather radar TILT is
replaced
by a blue TERR, and the terrain display sweeps from the center outward to both ND sides.
TERR AHEAD (amber) : For a caution.

TERR AHEAD (red) : For a warning.
Terrain caution alert

Generated when a conflict exists between the terrain caution envelope, ahead of the aircraft,
and the terrain data stored in the database. The conflict area is shown in solid yellow.
Terrain warning
Generated when:
‐ A conflict exists between the terrain warning envelope, ahead of the aircraft, and the
terrain
data stored in the database
‐ The aircraft is able to climb over the terrain.
The conflict area is shown in solid red.
Avoid Terrain warning

Generated when:
•] There is a conflict between the terrain warning envelope, ahead of the aircraft, and the
terrain data stored in the database
•] The aircraft is not able to climb over the terrain with sufficient safety margin.
The conflict area is indicated by a red and black crosshatched pattern.
When an alert is generated (either caution or warning) and TERR ON ND is not

selected, the terrain is automatically displayed and the ON light on the TERR ON ND
pushbutton comes on.
The screen displays a MAP NOT AVAIL message in red for several reasons:
• The MODE CHANGE or RANGE CHANGE message has been displayed more than six
seconds, or
• The FMGC has failed, or
• The FMGC has delivered an invalid aircraft position.
The screen displays a MODE CHANGE message in green if there is a discrepancy between
the selected mode on the EFIS control panel and the mode sent from the onside FMGC, or
while the DMC is preparing a new page for display
‐ The screen displays a RANGE CHANGE message in green if there is a discrepancy
between the range selected on the EFIS control panel and the range sent from the onside
FMGC. A MODE CHANGE message has priority over a RANGE CHANGE message
PRED W/S flag (amber)

The WINDSHEAR sw on the weather radar panel is set to AUTO, and a Predictive
Windshear
System fault is detected. This message appears on ground, or when flaps and slats are
extended.
It is associated with a single chime. The radar image remains available, provided that the fault
does not affect the radar mode.
TO Waypoint
This is the next waypoint to be overflown, except when a DIR TO with ABEAM PTS has been
performed (in this case, the DIR TO waypoint is displayed on the top of the screen instead of
the NEXT ABEAM waypoint).
This area of the screen also shows:
‐ Waypoint identification (white)
‐ Track to go (green)
‐ Distance to go (green)
‐ Estimated time of arrival (green), assuming the aircraft will fly directly from its present
position to the TO waypoint at the current ground speed.
Decelerate point symbol:

‐ Indicates the point at which the aircraft is predicted to decelerate for approach (and thus switch to
the approach phase)
‐ Magenta, if in managed speed and NAV or approach mode is engaged
‐ White, if in selected speed or HDG/TRK mode
‐ Automatic decelerations only occur when displayed in magenta.
Speed change symbol (magenta):

Indicates the point at which the aircraft will start an automatic acceleration or deceleration from the
current speed to a new computed speed for SPD LIM, SPD CSTR, or HOLDING SPD.
ALT CSTR symbol set around the constrained waypoint:

‐ Magenta, when the ALT CSTR is predicted to be satisfied
‐ Amber, when the ALT CSTR is predicted to be missed
‐ White, when the ALT CSTR is not taken into account by the guidance, and NAV mode is engaged.
NAVAIDs
When the ADF-OFF-VOR selector switch on either the pilot's or copilot's EFIS control panel is
set to ADF or VOR, the onside ND displays the following characteristics of the corresponding
NAVAID in white for VOR or in green for ADF (left side for receiver 1 and right side for receiver
2):

‐ Type of NAVAID (ADF or VOR)

‐ Shape and color of the associated bearing pointer (if the bearing pointer is in view).
‐ NAVAID identification (or frequency by default)
‐ DME distance if a DME is collocated with the selected VOR. ADF and DME distance are
never displayed at the same time.
‐ Mode of tuning
• M for a NAVAID tuned manually by the pilot through the MCDU (underlined and dimmed),
• R for a NAVAID tuned from an RMP (Radio Management Panel) (underlined and
dimmed),
• Nothing for a NAVAID tuned automatically by the FMGC.
If reception fails, the ND stops displaying the associated data (except for the identification or
frequency)
rose ILS
Localizer deviation bar (magenta) Glide deviation (magenta) when will appear on ND?
ILS message (green)
This message shows the full runway name of the selected approach. It appears:
‐ When the flight crew selects an ILS approach on the MCDU, and
‐ When the FMS flight phase is DES, APP or GA, or the FMS phase is CRZ and the along
track distance to destination is less then 250 nm.
Note: ILS 1 information appears on PFD 1 and ND 2.
ILS 2 information appears on PFD 2 and ND 1.
VOR information (white)

This area displays the frequency of the selected VOR and its identification (if decoded by the
receiver), the selected course.
ROSE NAV and ARC modes give the pilot the same information, but ARC mode limits it to the
forward 90 ° sector.
The ND does not show a SID or a STAR, except for the last waypoint of the SID and the first
waypoint of the STAR, when the selected range is 160 or 320 nm.
If the primary flight plan is not active, it is represented by a dotted green line.
‐ A continuous blue line portrays the missed approach procedure, and a dashed blue line
portrays the flight plan to the alternate.
The missed approach and the alternate flight plan are displayed when:
• In ARC or ROSE NAV mode, a missed approach waypoint or an alternate flight plan
waypoint is displayed on the onside MCDU.
• In PLAN mode a missed approach or alternate waypoint is displayed in the 2L field of the
onside MCDU.
The ND can display various kinds of waypoints:

Flight plan waypoints
Pseudo waypoint


Landing Gears System
Landing Gears
Main and nose wheel bays are:

Pressurised.
Unpressurised.
The main wheel bay is unpressurised and the nose wheel bay pressurized.
Maximum altitude at which the landing gear may be extended

25 000 ft
20 000 ft
16 000 ft
There is no such limitation.
Maximum speed for landing gear retraction is (VLO extension):

200 kts
220 kts
235 kts
250 kts
Maximum speed at which the landing gear may be extended (VLO extension):
220 kts
250 kt
260 kts
If you have to keep the gears down due Brakes HOT after airborne, the maximum speed with landing gear
extended (VLE) is:
260 kts / M.65
280 kts / M.67
300 kts / M.70
320 kts / M.72
Nose wheel steering is with the help of:

Nose Wheels only
Main wheels only
Nose Wheels and Main Wheels both
Landing gear operation is inhibited at speeds:

Below 100 knots.
Above 260 knots.
below 100 knots.
Above 250 knots.
Above 260 kts, safety valve will close.

You must reduce the speed to below 220 kts. When speed comes below 260 kts the safety valve will open in this
case automatically. and then select the gears up.
What is the maximum tyre ground speed?

185 kts

195 kts
205 kts
225 kts
Which hydraulic system(s) are required to operate the landing gear system?
Green
Blue
Yellow and Blue
Green and Yellow.
There are two LGCIUs {Landing Gear Control and Interface Units} and they control:
1. The extension and retraction of the gear,
2. The operation of the Landing Gear Doors,
3. Supply information about the landing gear to ECAMs for display,
4. Send signals indicating whether the aircraft is in flight or on the ground to other aircraft systems.
A) 1,3,4
B) 1,4
C) 1,2,3,4
Mark the correct answers for LGCIU:

1. The LGCIUs control the sequencing of gear and doors electrically.
2. LGCIU switches over automatically to the other LGCIU at the completion of the retraction cycle.
3. It also switches over in case of failure.
4. LGCIU switches over automatically to the other LGCIU at the completion of the extension cycle.
1, 2, 3
1, 3, 4
The LGCIUs receive the following information about the landing gear from proximity detectors:
‐ gear locked down or up,
‐ shock absorbers compressed or extended,
‐ landing gear door open or closed.
Cargo Doors information is also send to the LGCIUs through proximity sensors.
Flaps information is also send to the LGCIUs through proximity sensors.

The LGCIUs do not monitor failures in the SFCC system.
Which ADIRS close the safety valve of the green hydraulic supply when speed is > 260 kts.
ADIRS 1 & 2
ADIRS 1 or 3
ADIRS 2 & 3
ADDIRS 2 or 3
Safety valve will open when

Landing gear lever is down and a/c speed less than 260 kts.

Landing gear lever is down irrespective of a/c speeds.

A/c speed is less than 260 kts irrespective of landing gear position whether gears are up or down.
Above 260 kts, safety valve will close.

You must reduce the speed to below 220 kts. When speed comes below 260 kts the safety valve will open in this
case automatically. and then select the gears up.
It is an opening signal logic. If any one of the condition not there, safety valve will remain closed.
position must be verified through any of the following:
If the landing gear was gravity extended using the hand crank on the center pedestal, how will you confirm if
Gears are down and locked?
1. By checking the center panel LDG GEAR indicator panel lights
2. If available, by checking the landing gear indications depicted on the ECAM.
3. By checking the gears through landing gear viewers installed near seat row 2 on A320 a/c.
After selecting landing gear down, how will you confirm if gears are down and locked? if any one of the
following is true. Which are those?
1. By checking center panel LDG GEAR indicator panel lights,
2. If available, by checking the landing gear indications depicted on the ECAM.
3. By checking ‘Landing Gear Down’ Memo on E/WD.
4. By checking the gears through landing gear viewers installed near seat # 2C on A320 a/c.
1, 2
2
1, 2, 3.
1,2,3,4
How do you manually extend the landing gear?

Lift the red handle and turn anticlockwise 4 turns.
Lift the red handle and turn anticlockwise a minimum of 2 turns.
Lift the red handle and turn clockwise a minimum of 4 turns.
Lift the red handle and turn it 3 times clockwise.
When crew turns the hand crank three times to lower the gear on gravity, what happens?
1. Isolates the landing gear hydraulics pressure from the green hydraulic system as Cut-Off Valve closes.
2. Unlocks the landing gear doors and the main and nose gear,
3. Allows gravity to drop the gear into the extended position.
4. The Landing Gear doors remain open after gravity extension.
5. Nose wheel steering is lost due lowering gears by gravity extension.
A) 1, 3
B) 2,3,4
C) 1,2,3, 4
D) 1,2,3,4, 5
Which systems will become inoperative, if the Landing Gear was gravity extended using the hand crank on
the center pedestal?
Nose wheel steering and auto braking.
Anti-skid and auto braking.
Nose wheel steering and anti-skid.
Nothing.

The gear doors remain open after gravity extension.

True.
False.
In case of go around after lowering the gears down with gravity extension procedure,
Gear will come up if selected up but doors remain open
Gears will remain down even if selected up and doors also remain down.
If the Landing Gear was gravity extended in a flight using the hand crank on the center pedestal, should you
turn the handle anti clock wise to reset the system after parking?
Yes
No
How is the undercarriage normally locked down on a down selection?

By a mechanical lock and green hydraulic pressure.
By a mechanical lock.
By a green hydraulic lock.
By a mechanical lock and overcenter lock.
After the failure of both the LGCIUs, the L/G is extended by gravity.
A) All L/G indications are lost.
B) L/G indications are available only on the ECAM WHEEL Page.
C) L/G indications are available on the LDG gear indicator panel if LGCIU 1 is electrically supplied.
Landing gear indicator panel UNLK light illuminates red if

Gear is extended by gravity and doors are not closed
Gear is extended normally and doors are not closed
Gear is not locked in selected position
Gear is not selected down by 1,000 ft RA.
Can UNLK light come when gears are selected up after T/O?
Yes
No

After selecting the gears down, if one UNLK indication remains on, the landing gear position can be
confirmed using the WHEEL SD page (information from LGCIU 1 & 2). Only one green triangle on each
landing gear is sufficient to confirm that the landing gear is down locked.
True
False
When will an UNLK red light extinguish in LDG GEAR indicator panel during L/G operation?
During retraction when gear is up locked and hydraulically operated doors are closed.
During extension when gear is down locked and hydraulically operated doors are closed.
Whenever gear reaches the selected position.
During the approach if an ECAM “L/G GEAR NOT DOWNLOCKED” is triggered.

This indicates that one gear is not down locked when L/Gear selected down.
This is associated with “UNLK light” on Gear Indication panel.
WHEEL Page will also appear on S/D.
All are correct.
The current L/G GEAR NOT DOWNLOCKED ECAM warning procedure requires recycling of the landing gear
before initiating L/G gravity extension.
The flight crew must perform a full recycling.
Recycling must be attempted up to 5 times, if necessary.
Wait 60 secs between each recycling.
During the approach if you get master warning and ECAM “L/G GEAR NOT DOWNLOCKED”, this indicates
that gear are not selected down.
True
False
The landing gear indicator panel receives the electrical supply

from:
BSCU
LGCIU 2
LGCIU 1
Any LGCIU which is in command.
The red arrow, near the landing gear lever illuminates when:
Landing gear is not up locked after retraction
Landing gear is in abnormal position
Landing gear is in transit
Landing gear is not down locked in approach configuration

What does the RED ARROW on the landing gear selector lever indicate?
It indicates that the landing gear is not locked down when the a/c is in landing config.
As in {A} above and a red warning appears on the ECAM stating “L/G GEAR NOT DOWNLOCKED”
As in {A} above and a red warning appears on the ECAM stating “L/G GEAR NOT DOWN.”
During the approach you get master warning and ECAM “L/G GEAR NOT DOWN” along with RED ARROW on
L/Gear selector lever. The reason is:
Landing gear is not down locked as a/c is in landing config. {flaps 3 or full} and both radio altimeters failed
Landing gear is not down locked, a/c is in landing config. {Flaps 3 or full} and radio height lower than 750 ft.
All of the above
During the approach you get master warning and ECAM “L/G GEAR NOT DOWN” along with RED ARROW on
L/Gear selector lever.
This is a spurious if at least one green triangle is displayed on ECAM WHEEL PAGE.
This is a spurious if LDG GEAR DN green appears on Landing Memo.
To cancel this warning, you have to press EMER CANC p/b.
All statements are correct.
When does the LGCIU computer change-over take place?

1. If operating LGCIU fails, the other LGCIU takes over.
2. Automatically, on completion of the each retraction cycle.
3. Automatically, on completion of each extension cycle.
1
1,3
1,2

On the ECAM WHEEL Page, there are two triangles for each landing gear. What do they represent?
Each triangle represents one wheel on the gear.
Each triangle represents the position of L/G, detected by one of the two LGCIU systems
Each triangle represents one of the braking systems available for that gear.
The front triangle indicates the position of that gear and the back triangle indicates the status of the brakes for
that gear.
The left triangle is controlled by

LGCIU 1
LGCIU 2
The right triangle is controlled by

LGCIU 1
LGCIU 2
On ECAM WHEEL page, a green triangle means LGCIU detects L/Gear is down locked.
True
False
On ECAM WHEEL page, a Red triangle means:

The related LGCIU has detected that L/Gear is in transit { or not downlocked ??}.
The related LGCIU has failed.
On ECAM WHEEL page, an amber cross in place of a triangle means:

The affected LGCIU has detected L/Gear is up locked.
The affected LGCIU has detected L/Gear in transit.
The affected LGCIU has failed.
There will never be amber cross on ECAM WHEEL page of A320.
L/G CTL indication on lower ECAM will appear in amber

When L/G lever is not in agreement in with L/G position.
When L/G lever is not extended at Radio altitude of 750 feet.
When L/G lever is not retracted after 80 seconds of take off .
When L/G doors are not closed with L/G retracted.
A green triangle indicates that one LGCIU detects:

A. a landing gear downlocked
B. a landing gear in transit
C. a landing gear uplocked
A red triangle indicates that one LGCIU detects:

No triangle indicates that one LGCIU detects


Amber crosses on left triangle indicates that

LGCIU 1 has failed
LGCIU 2 has failed
Both LGCIUs have failed.
L/G CTL legend appears on WHEEL page:

A. When the landing gear is moving to the selected position.
B. If the landing gear lever and the landing gear position do not agree.
C. There is no such legend on WHEEL page.

ECAM WHEEL PAGE
(1) Landing gear position indication

The landing gear positions are indicated by 2 triangles for each gear.
The left triangle is controlled by LGCIU 1, the right one by LGCIU 2.
‐ A green triangle indicates that one LGCIU detects a landing gear downlocked,
‐ A red triangle indicates that one LGCIU detects a landing gear in transit,
‐ No triangle indicates that one LGCIU detects a landing gear uplocked,
‐ Amber crosses on one triangle indicate that LGCIU1 or LGCIU2 is failed.
Note: Only one green triangle on each landing gear strut is sufficient to confirm that the
landing gear is downlocked.
(3) UP LOCK
This legend appears amber along with a caution on the ECAM if the landing gear uplock is
engaged when the landing gear is down locked.
(4) L/G CTL

This legend appears amber along with an ECAM caution if the landing gear lever and the
landing gear position do not agree. This legend only appears when the landing gear is moving
to the selected position.

Nose Wheel Steering:
For Nose Wheel Steering, orders can be issued by

A) Hand wheel only
B) By Rudder Panel only
C) By hand wheel as well as by Rudder Panels.
The maximum degrees of nose wheel steering available when using the hand wheel is:
+/- 60
+/- 75\
+/- 95
+/- 105
Nose wheel steering by rudder pedals is limited to:

+/- 6 degrees under all conditions
+/- 75 degrees
+/- 90 degrees
Maximum +/- 6 degrees depending on aircraft speed
Nose wheel steering is available:

1. A/SKID & N/W STRG selector is ON,
2. One engine (required to be) running,
3. Towing lever in normal position,{i.e. NW STRG DISC memo not shown on E/WD }
4. Aircraft on ground.
A) 1,3,4
B) 2,3
C) 1,2,3,4

On the E/WD, you notice the NW STRG DISC memo. What does it mean?
The nose wheel steering has been disconnected by ground personnel.
A failure in the nose wheel steering system has been detected.
There is a discrepancy between the two nose wheel steering handwheel positions
The nose wheel steering computer has finished its self test.
During pushback, you start engine #2. You observe the NW STRG DISC memo has
changed to amber. Why?
The NW STRG disconnect mechanism has failed.
The yellow hydraulic system is now pressurized and the amber caption is a warning not to
move the handwheel
The nose wheel steering is being reconnected by ground personnel. It is amber because the
pin is removed.
The memo has become amber after one engine is started.
Which hydraulic system supplies pressure to the nose wheel steering?

Green
Blue
Green and Blue.
Yellow.
Nose wheel steering is controlled by:

LGCIU 1.
BSCU
LGCIU 2
LGCIU 1 or 2
In case of WHEEL N/W STRG FAULT when in flight:

If this is associated with L/G SHOCK ABSORBER FAULT, nose wheel may be at max
deflection and delay touchdown as long as possible.
Automatic roll out is not permitted.
You will see N/W STEERING label on ECAM WHEEL page.
All are correct.
ECAM of WHEEL N/W STRG FAULT comes when taxied out:

You have to do BSCU RESET procedure & if reset is successful, you can continue the flight.
You have to do BSCU RESET procedure & if reset is successful, you have to still go back to
the gate for troubleshooting.
Before departure it is NO DISPATCH as per MEL.
Both {B} & {C} are correct.

Hand wheel and pedals are operated simultaneously:

Hand wheel has priority
Pedals have priority (depending on speed)
BSCU transforms these orders into nose wheel steering angle (signals are algebraically
added)
Hand wheel input will not be affected by pedals.
When both hand wheels are operated simultaneously, the signals:

From the first pilot acting on his hand wheel have priority
Coming from the captain have priority
Are algebraically added
From the F/O have priority
What happens to steering if Captain side rudder pedal DISC p/b is pressed ?
Nose wheel steering by rudder pedal on Captain side is lost.
Nose wheel steering by rudder pedal on F/O side is lost.
Nose wheel steering by rudder pedal is lost on both sides
Nose wheel steering and rudder pedal steering are both lost.

Principle of Antiskid System on A320:

1. The speed of each main gear wheel is compared to the aircraft speed{reference
speed}.
2. The speed of each main gear wheel is given by a tachometer.
3. Aircraft speed {reference speed} is determined by the BSCU from the horizontal
acceleration of ADIRU 1, 2 or 3 in normal cases.
4. In case all ADIRUs fail, reference speed equals the maximum of either main landing
gear wheel speeds.
5. When the speed of a wheel decreases below approximately 0.87 times(depending on
conditions) reference speed, brake release orders are given to maintain the wheel slip
at that value (best braking efficiency).
For Anti-Skid System, BSCU is the controlling computer.
The operating principle of an anti-skid system is such that the Brake Release signals are
given and brake pressure will be:
A) Decreased on the faster turning wheels.
B) Decreased on the slower turning wheels.
C) Increased on the slower turning wheels.
D) Increased on the faster turning wheels.
The anti-skid system is used:

A) For Take Off on icy runways.
B) On Landing runs only.
C) On Take Off runs only.
D) For both Take Off and Landing runs.
The antiskid deactivates when ground speed is less than:

10 kts.
20 kts.
25 kts.
30 kts.
From which device does the BSCU get the information to regulate the brake pressure?
From a hydraulic pressure sensor.
From the ADIRU, corrected to ground speed.
From a wheel speed sensor, called as Tachometer.
Both B and C
A wheel brake anti-skid unit is sensitive to:

A) Angular deceleration.
B) Hydraulic system fluid pressure.
C) Aircraft speed.
D) Hydraulic system fluid pressure, and temperature.

The antiskid system gets its reference speed from:

The ADIRS
A wheel tachometer
The LGCIU‟s
The BSCU‟s
The principle of the anti-skid is:

Comparing the speed difference between the four wheels
Comparing wheel speeds with aircraft reference speed
Comparing wheel speeds between left and right landing gear
Comparing left and right wheel speeds on the same landing gear.
With the failure of all 3 ADIRS, is antiskid available?

Yes
No
Each main wheel has an antiskid brake.

True.
False.
If the BSCU detects a brake system malfunction in flight with the A/SKID & N/W
STRG switch in the ON position, will crew be notified by any ECAM? If yes, then which
one? And, is there any BSCU reset procedure in flight?
With the A/SKID & N/W STRG switch in the ON position, if the BSCU detects a brake
system malfunction and/or normal braking is not available:
The crew will be notified with an ECAM message only if after touchdown the brake system
does actually malfunction.
Transition to the alternate brake system is automatic.

What is the purpose of Auto-Brake system?

A) To reduce the braking distance in case of an aborted takeoff
B) To establish and maintain a selected deceleration rate during landing, thereby
improving passenger comfort and reducing crew workload.
To arm the auto brakes:

1. Green hydraulic pressure should be available,
2. Anti-skid should be available,
3. There should be no failures in the braking system
4. At least one ADIRS is functioning.
5. Landing gear lever selected down
6. Selection of an auto braking rate.
1, 2, 3, 4
1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6
1, 2, 3, 4, 6
The system arms when the crew presses the LO, MED, or MAX pushbutton switch if:
‐ Green pressure is available.
‐ The anti-skid system has electric power.
‐ There is no failure in the braking system.
‐ At least one ADIRS is functioning.
Note: 1. Auto brake may be armed with the parking brake on.
2. MAX auto brake mode cannot be armed in flight.
Auto brake may be armed with the parking brake on.

True.
False.
The autobrake will arm if at least one ADIRS is functionning.

True.
False.
Auto brakes, if selected, will only be activated by:

The wheels spinning up.
The struts being compressed.
The brake pedals being depressed.
The ground spoiler extension command.

The autobrake system modulates hydraulic pressure to the brakes to obtain...

A constant deceleration during the landing roll.
A decreasing deceleration during the landing roll.
A constant acceleration during the take=off roll.
An increasing deceleration during the landing roll
The green DECEL light on the Autobrake switch illuminates when the actual airplane
deceleration corresponds to ______ % of the selected rate.
80%
90%
92%
95%
What is indicated by the auto-brake DECEL lights?

Airplane deceleration is 25% of selected rate.
Autobraking is initiated by:

Reverse thrust selection
Nose gear oleo compression
Main gear oleo compression
Ground spoilers extension
On wheel page of ECAM, Autobrake is flashing green. What does it mean?

Autobrake is disengaged
Autobrake failure
Anti-skid failure
Autobrake in operation
What are the indications if autobrake is disengaged by brake pedals after reducing the
speed to taxi speed.?
No indication
AUTO BRK indication in wheel page turns to amber.
AUTO BRK indication in wheel page flashes green
As in (a) and ON blue light extinguishes in Autobrake panel.
Alternate braking using the Yellow system. Autobrake is:

Lost
Still available with anti-skid
Still available without anti-skid
Still available provided Yellow system hydraulic pressure is available.

Max braking has been selected. Takeoff being aborted, engines in reverse, you have
forgotten to arm the ground spoilers. Is autobrake activated?
No because spoilers will not deploy if not armed
Yes, provided rejection is performed if a/c speed was above 72 kts.
Yes, but only if Yellow hydraulic pressure is available
Yes, because spoilers will still deploy.
Rejecting the take-off at 65 kts, which facilities are not available?

A) Ground spoilers and auto brakes.
B) Auto brakes and manual brakes.
C) Manual brakes and thrust reversers.
D) Thrust reversers only.
AUTO BRAKES SYSTEM DISARMING

The system disarms when:
‐ Flight crew presses the pushbutton switch or,
‐ One or more arming conditions is lost or,
‐ Flight crew applies enough deflection to at least one brake pedal when autobrake is active in
MAX, MED or LO mode.
‐ After take-off/touch and go.
How can the brake accumulator be re-pressurized?

With the yellow electric hydraulic pump.
With the blue electric hydraulic pump.
Both are correct.
You are ready to taxi. You apply the toe brakes on the rudder pedals and release the
PARK BRK. The BRAKES pressure falls to zero. What should you do?
This should not happen and you must assume that the BRAKES pressure indicator has failed.
Nothing as this is normal. The BRAKES pressure indicator only indicates alternate (yellow)
brake pressure.
You must re-apply the PARK BRK and call for maintenance personnel as the main system
pressure has failed.
The indication is normal because once the AUTO BRK is set to MAX the BRAKES indicator
is by-passed.
On the ramp with APU running, park brake is set on, message on ECAM memo shows
Park Brake.
In Green
In Yellow
In White
In White or Yellow

What happens to the other brake modes when parking brakes are applied?
There is no change.
All other braking modes and antiskid are deactivated.
Antiskid mode only is deactivated.
The various braking modes are:

1. Normal brakes with Anti-skid,
2. Normal Brakes without Anti-skid in case of Anti-skid failure
3. Alternate brakes with Anti-skid,
4. Alternate Brakes without Anti-skid,
5. Parking Brakes.
1, 2, 3, 4, 5
1, 3, 4, 5
What system pressure does the ACCU PRESS and BRAKES pressure indicator
indicate?
Yellow brake accumulator and yellow brake system pressure to the left and right brakes.
Yellow brake accumulator and green brake system pressure to the left and right brakes.
Yellow brake accumulator and green or yellow brake system pressure to the left and right
brakes.
Blue brake accumulator and green brake system pressure to the left and right brakes.
The parking brake accumulator is designed to maintain the parking pressure for at
least ______.
6 hours.
12 hours.
18 hours.
24 hours.
When using the alternate brake system on accumulator pressure only; the accumulator
supplies:
Partial brakes.
At least seven full brake applications.
Alternate brakes with antiskid.

The function of an accumulator in a hydraulic brake system is:

A) to supply a limited amount of brake energy in case the hydraulic system normally
powering the brakes does not function anymore.
B) to damp pressure fluctuations of the auto brake system.
C) to store the hydraulic energy recovered by the anti skid system to prevent wheel
blocking.
D) to function as a buffer to assist the hydraulic system during heavy braking.
You have set the parking brake handle to ON. Are other brake systems available?
Yes. As soon as you press the brake pedals, Normal Brakes will apply.
No. When the PARK BRK is set, the other braking modes are deactivated.
If the accumulator on the alternate brake system is the only source pressure, which of
the following will be available?
Auto brakes and antiskid.
Antiskid.
Seven applications of the brake pedals.
The brake & Accumulator pressure gauge shows pressure from:

The Accumulator only
Both Yellow brake system and the Brake Accumulator
After taxi out, when you do the brake check, you see full deflection on the triple
pressure indicator.
It means Normal brakes are lost and requires maintenance action.
It is normal. TRIPPLE PRESS INDICATOR must show full scale deflection to show that
brakes are ok.
In which of the braking modes, the brake pressure is indicated on the triple pressure
gauge
Normal brakes and parking brakes.
Alternate Brakes with Anti-skid, Alternate Brakes without anti skid and parking brakes.
Alternate Brakes, Auto brakes and parking brakes.
Alternate Brakes, Normal brakes and parking brakes

The normal brake system uses _____ hydraulic pressure and the alternate brake system
uses _____ hydraulic pressure backed up by the hydraulic brake accumulator.
Green - Blue
Yellow - Blue
Yellow - Green
Green - Yellow.
The alternate brake system has the same capabilities as normal brakes except:
Anti-skid is inoperative.
Autobrakes are inoperative.
Both are correct
Apply brakes with care, because initial pedal force or displacement produces more braking action in
alternate mode than in normal mode.
PRO-SUP-32 P 1/4
The alternate brake system uses:

The hydraulic accumulator
The Yellow hydraulic system and the hydraulic accumulator
The Blue electric pump.
If the brake system degrades to Alternate Brakes with the a/skid, which of the following
will not be available?
1. Auto Brakes.
2. Anti-Skid.
3. Brakes.
A) 1
B) 2,3
C) 1,2,3
In case of BRAKES NORM + ALTN FAULT ECAM, what is lost?

1. ANTI SKID
2. N/W STRG
3. NORM BRK
4. AUTO BRK
5. ALTN BRK
6. PARKING BRAKES
3, 5
3, 4, 5
1, 2, 3, 4, 5
1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6

In case of BRAKES NORM BRK FAULT what is lost?

1. ANTI SKID
2. N/W STRG
3. NORM BRK
4. AUTO BRK
5. ALTN BRK
6. PARKING BRAKES
3, 4
1, 3, 4
1, 2, 3, 4, 5
1, 2, 3, 4
ECAM: if you see a green arc shown over a wheel indication

It marks the hottest brake with a temperature of more than 100°C.
It indicates an abnormal high temperature.
The A/SKID system is automatically releasing the pressure of that brake.
The L/G control system has detected a low tire profile.
When does HOT amber light illuminate in BRK FAN pb switch ?

Whenever any one brake temperature is more than 300 deg. C
Whenever any one brake temperature is more than 300 deg C and brake fan not selected.
Whenever any one brake temperature is over heated.

Whenever any one brake temperature is more than 500 deg.c and brake fan not selected.
The reason for fitting thermal plugs to aircraft wheels is that they:
Release air from the tyre in case of overpressure.
Prevent the brakes from overheating.
Prevent heat transfer from the brake disks to the tyres.
Release air from the tyre in case of overheating.
Compared to a tyre fitted with an inner tube, a tubeless tyre presents the following
characteristics:
1. High heating
2. Valve fragility
3. Lower risk of bursting
4. Better adjustment to wheels
5. The combination containing all the correct statements is:
3, 4.
2, 4.
1, 2, 3, 4.
2, 3.

What happens to brake system if G system fails during landing roll ?
Memory items of ―Loss of Brakes‖

. IF NO BRAKING AVAILABLE:
REV........................................................................................................................................ MAX
BRAKE PEDALS........................................................................................................... RELEASE
Brake pedals should be released when the A/SKID & N/W STRG sw is switched OFF, since
the pedal force or displacement produces more braking action in alternate mode than in normal
mode.
A/SKID & N/W STRG............................................................................................................. OFF
Braking system reverts to alternate mode.
BRAKE PEDALS................................................................................................................PRESS
Apply brake with care, since initial pedal force or displacement produces more braking action in
MAX BRK PR..................................................................................................................1000 PSI
Monitor brake pressure or BRAKES PRESS indicator. Limit brake pressure to approximately
1 000 PSI and, at low ground speed, adjust brake pressure as required.
If STILL NO BRAKING:
PARKING BRAKE...........................................SHORT AND SUCCESSIVE APPLICATIONS
Use short successive parking brake applications to stop the aircraft. Brake onset
asymmetry may be felt at each parking brake application. If possible, delay the use of the
parking brake until low speed, to reduce the risk of tire burst and lateral control difficulties.
.
.
.
BRAKE TEMPERATURE LIMITATIONS REQUIRING MAINTENANCE ACTIONS
Maintenance action is required in the following cases:

‐ The temperature difference between the 2 brakes on the same gear is greater than 150 °C, and
the temperature of either one of the brakes is higher than, or equal to 600 °C, or
‐ The temperature difference between the 2 brakes on the same gear is greater than 150 °C, and
the temperature of one brake is lower than, or equal to 60 °C, or
‐ The difference between the average temperature of the left gear brakes and the average
temperature of the right gear brakes is 200 °C or more, or
‐ A fuse plug has melted, or
‐ One brake’s temperature exceeds 900 °C.
PRO-SUP-32 P 1/4
When you come for parking, BRAKES HOT ECAM is triggered. Your recommended
actions will be:
1) The flight crew should not set the PARKING BRK ON.
2) BRK FAN...................................................................................................... ON
3) Before selecting the brake fans at the gate, the flight crew should first warn the ground personnel
in order to avoid blowing carbon brake dust on them.
4) Refer to PRO-SUP-32 for Brake Temperature Limitations Requiring Maintenance Actions.

In landing roll, you experience Loss of Braking, and as such you apply LOSS OF
BRAKING Memory items. Select correct statements in this scenario?
1) Reverser Max / Brake Pedals Release / A/SKID & N/W STRG OFF
2) Reverser Max / Brake Pedals Press / A/SKID & N/W STRG OFF
3) Reverser Max / A/SKID & N/W STRG OFF
4) Apply brake with care, since initial pedal force or displacement produces more braking action in
1,4
2,4
3,4
1
After selecting L/Gear down for landing, you see Residual Pressure in Brake and ACCU
Pressure Indicator. On application of the procedure, IF RESIDUAL PRESSURE REMAINS:
A/SKID & N/W STRG selector................................................................................KEEP ON
A/SKID & N/W STRG selector................................................................................KEEP OFF
In case of taxi with deflated or damaged tires, a procedure of “Taxi with Deflated Tires” has to be
followed as mentioned in:
LIMITATIONS Chapter
Supplementary Procedure Chapter.
OPS Notice No. 04D.
After Taxi-out, you get NWS FAULT. What to do?


Lights System
Lights
For which of the lights/signs, you get ECAM memo?
1). Displays “LDG LT” in green, if one landing light is extended.
2). Displays “STROBE LT OFF” in green, if the STROBE switch is OFF in flight.
3). Displays “SEAT BELTS” and “NO PED” messages in green, when the corresponding sign is on
A.) 1,2
B.) 2,3
C.) 1,2,3
Which lights will come ON automatically if cabin altitude goes above 11300 feet?
1). The cabin illuminates
2). NO PORTABLE/ELEC DEVICE, regardless its selector switch.
3). FASTEN SEAT BELT, regardless its selector switch.
4). EXIT signs come on,
A.) 1,3,4
B.) 2,3,4
C.) 1,2,3
D.) 1,2,3,4

1). There are no speed limitations, if LAND lights are extended.
2). RWY TURN OFF go off automatically when nose landing gear is retracted.
3). The STROBE lights come on automatically when the main gear strut is not compressed {i.e. a/c
airborne} and the STROBE sw is in Auto.
A.) 1,2
B.) 2,3
C.) 1,2,3

The emergency lighting system has:
‐ Proximity emergency escape path marking systems (escape path and exit markers)
True / false

‐ Overhead emergency lights
True / false

EXIT signs
True / false
‐ Lavatory auxiliary lights

Lights System
True / false

‐ Overwing escape route lighting
True / false

‐ Escape slide lighting.‐ Overhead emergency lights
True / false

‐ EXIT signs
True / false

‐ Lavatory auxiliary lights
True / false

‐ Overwing escape route lighting
True / false

‐ Escape slide lighting.
True / false
All true
The exit marker, overhead emergency lighting, and EXIT signs come on, if the
EMER EXIT LT selector is ON,
Purser panel’s EMER pb is pressed.
Both are correct.
Which lights will come ON if EMER EXIT LT selector is placed in ON position?

1. The Exit marker
2. Overhead emergency lighting
3. EXIT signs
1
2, 3
1, 2, 3
1, 3
Which lights will come ON if Purser panel’s EMER p/b is pressed?

1. The Exit marker
2. Overhead emergency lighting
3. EXIT signs
1
2, 3
1, 2, 3
1, 3
What should be the position of EMER EXIT LT selector, if you want to use the purser's panel p/b {LIGHT EMER
p/b}?

Lights System
The purser's panel p/b {LIGHT EMER p/b} can turn on the emergency lighting independently of the positions of
this selector switch.
With the EMER EXIT LT selector at ARM:

1. The exit markers of the proximity emergency escape path marking system come on, if DC SHED ESS
BUS is lost.
2. The overhead emergency lights come on, if DC SHED ESS BUS fails,
3. The overhead emergency lights come on, if AC BUS 1 fails.
4. the exit marker come on, if AC BUS 1 fails
5. EXIT signs automatically come on, if DC SHED ESS BUS fails.
6. The exit marker, overhead emergency lighting, and EXIT signs come on, if the Normal aircraft
electrical power system fails
1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6
DC SHED ESS BUS supplies the overhead emergency lights and the EXIT signs.
If DC SHED ESS BUS fails, batteries inside the light fixtures power all the lights {i.e. the exit marker, overhead
emergency lighting, and EXIT signs}.
The exit markers of the proximity emergency escape path marking system are powered by
Internal batteries for at least 12 min.
All are correct
Lavatory auxiliary lights are always on. They are supplied by 28 V DC ESS BUS.
The escape slides have an integral lighting system. The escape slide lights and the over wing route
lights come on automatically, when the slide is armed and the door or emergency exit is open. They
are supplied by the internal batteries.
DC SHED ESS BUS charges the internal batteries, if:

▪ EMER LT selector is not at ON, and
▪ The Purser panel's EMER pb is not pressed, and
▪ DC SHED ESS BUS is supplied, and
▪ The NO SMOKING selector is OFF, or at AUTO with the landing gear retracted.
Not clear:
What is the meaning of “Normal aircraft electrical power system fails” when it is also talking of ACBUS 1
failure?

Lights System

Navigation System
Navigation System
Which of the following data does not need static system?
1. Airspeed
2. Vertical speed
3. Altitude
1
1,2
1,2,3
2,3
During a missed approach and go-around procedure the change of aircraft attitude plus
raising of the landing gear and changing of flap settings can cause short term unpredictable
errors in certain instruments. The instruments most likely to be affected in this case are:
1. The altimeter, artificial horizon and vertical speed indicator.
2. The machmeter, airspeed indicator, altimeter and vertical speed indicator.
3. The airspeed indicator, machmeter and vertical speed indicator.
4. The vertical speed indicator, airspeed indicator and altimeter.
1
2,3
1,2,3,4
1,2,3
The advantages of an ADC over a traditional pitot - static system are:

1. position and compressibility correction.
2. reduced lag
3. ability to supply many instruments
4. ability to act as an altimeter following failure.
1, 3 & 4
1, 2 & 3
1, 2 & 4
2, 3 & 4
During a climb after take-off from a contaminated runway, if the total pressure probe of the
airspeed indicator is blocked, the pilot finds that indicated airspeed :
1. increases abruptly towards VNE
2. increases steadily
3. decreases steadily
4. decreases, abruptly towards zero

Navigation System
When the barometric subscale of the altimeter is adjusted to 1013.2 hPa, what type of altitude is
being measured?
A) Pressure altitude.
B) Relative height.
C) True altitude.
D) Indicated altitude.
The advantages provided by an air data computer to indicate the altitude are:
1. Position/pressure error correction

2. Hysteresis error correction
3. Remote data transmission capability
4. Capability of operating as a conventional altimeter in the event of a failure
The combination of correct statements is:

A) 1,2,3,4
B) 1,2,3
C) 1,3,4
D) 2,3,4
An aircraft is passing 6,500 ft in a descent when the static line becomes blocked. The altimeter
then reads:
A) zero
B) less than 6,500 ft
C) more than 6,500 ft
D) 6,500 ft
Considering the maximum operational Mach number (MMO) and the maximum operational speed
(VMO), the captain of a pressurized aircraft begins his descent from a high flight level. In order to
meet his scheduled time of arrival, he decides to use the maximum ground speed at any time of
the descent. He will be limited :
A) by the VMO in still air
B) initially by the MMO, then by the VMO below a certain flight level
C) by the MMO
D) initially by the VMO, then by the MMO below a certain flight level

Navigation System

1. The A320 aircraft has 3 Air Data Inertial Reference Units (ADIRU’s).
2. ADIRU includes ADR and IR.
3. ADR and IR systems of each ADIRU operate independently, and failure of one system will not cause
failure to the other.
4. ADR part of ADIRU receives information from aircraft probes and sensors.
5. ADR part of ADIRU provides various air data to the Flight Management and Guidance Computers
(FMGC) and other users
1, 2, 3, 4, 5
Which of the following information is supplied by the IRs?

1. Attitude,
2. Accelerations,
3. Track,
4. Flight path vector
5. Ground speed
A) 1,2,3
B) 1,2,3,4,5
C) 1,2,3,4
D) 4
Which of the following information is supplied by the ADRs?

1). Airspeed, Mach
2). Barometric altitude,
3). Temperature,
4). Angle of attack,
5). Ground speed
A.) 1,2,5
B.) 1,2,3, 5
C.) 1,2,3,4,5
D.) 1,2,3,4
How many TAT probes are installed?

A.) One
B.) Two
C.) Three
How many AOA probes are there?

A.) One
B.) Two
C.) Three
There is STBY AOA probe.

A.) True
B.) False
There is no STBY TAT probe.

A.) True

Navigation System
B.) False
STBY Probes consists of:

A.) Pitot, Static Port, AOA sensors
B.) Pitot, static ports, AOA sensors and TAT Probes.
C.) Pitot and static ports,
ADIRU 1 receives input from following pitot / static probes:

A.) Capt Pitot, Capt Static port, Capt AOA & Capt TAT.
B.) Capt Pitot, Capt Static Port, Capt TAT
C.) Capt Pitot, Capt Static Port
ADIRU3 receives input from:

A.) STBY probes and Capt TAT
B.) STBY probes and Cap AOA
C.) STBY probes and F/O TAT
Mark correct statements:

1) There is no STBY TAT probe.
2) There are two AOA probes
3) There are three AOA Probes
4) TAT probes are not heated on ground.
A.) 1,2,4
B.) 1,3,4
C.) 3,4
D.) 2,4

1) ADR 1 is supplied by Capt probes{ pitot, static, angle of attack & TAT}
2) ADR 2 is supplied by F/O Probes
3) ADR 3 is supplied by STBY Probes & CAPT TAT Probes
4) ADR 3 is supplied by STBY Probes
A.) 1,2,3
B.) 1,2,,4,
C.) 1,2,
How long does a normal IR alignment take?

A.) Approximately 3 minutes.
B.) Approximately 6 minutes.
C.) Approximately 10 minutes.
D.) Approximately 13 minutes.

Navigation System
On which position of the DATA Selector, the time remaining until the completed IRS alignment is
displayed on the control display?
A.) TK/GS
B.) PPOS
C.) HDG
D.) STS
The IR ALIGN light is extinguished. What does this mean?

A.) Alignment has been completed.
B.) Air data output has been disconnected.
C.) The respective IR is operating normally.
Steady ALIGN flight indicates

A.) Alignment is in progress
B.) Inertial function of IR is lost
C.) Alignment fault
D.) Complete failure of ADIRU
What does the flashing ALIGN light indicate?

A.) Alignment is in progress
B.) Present position is not entered and ten minutes has elapsed since the IR was selected ON.
C.) Alignment is completed
D.) Fault in ADIRU
ALIGN light for IR 1 flash on ADIRS CDU. What does it indicate?

A.) Alignment Fault
B.) PPOS is not entered for 10 minutes
C.) Entered PPOS is different from the earlier values by more than 1 degree
D.) All are correct

Navigation System
”IRS IN ALIGN X MN” Memo:

1) Appears on E/WD during IRS alignment.
2) X MN indicates the number of minutes remaining (1 < X < 10), until NAV mode is reached.
3) Pulses in green if the alignment of one IRS is faulty before engine start
4) Pulses in amber if the alignment of one IRS is faulty after engine start
5) If the alignment of one IRS is faulty, “IRS IN ALIGN X MN” memo is replaced by the “IR NOT
ALIGNED” ECAM caution after engine start.
A.) 1,2,3
B.) 1,2,3,4
C.) 1,2,3,5
What does the illumination of ON BAT light {amber} on ADIRU CDU indicate?
A.) One or more ADIRU is supplied by aircraft battery only
B.) It will also be on for a few seconds initially while switching on an ADIRU in case of normal alignment
C.) It will not come on for fast realignment.
D.) All are correct
When the aircraft is on the ground and if at least one ADIRU is supplied by aircraft batteries:
A.) An external horn sounds
B.) The “ADIRU and AVNCS” light comes on amber on the EXTERNAL POWER panel.
C.) Both are correct
The flashing IR FAULT light on ADIRS CDU means:

A.) Complete failure of IRS
B.) NAV data of IRS is lost but ATT information may be recovered.
C.) NAV data of IRS is lost and ATT information cannot be recovered
What is the meaning of steady IR FAULT light on ADIRS CDU?

A.) Complete failure of IRS
B.) NAV data of IRS is lost but the attitude and heading information may be recovered in ATT mode.
C.) NAV data of IRS is lost and ATT information cannot be recovered
What happens if SYS selector knob is selected OFF?

1. The CDU display is not energized.
2. ADIRS are still energized if the associated IR mode rotary selectors are not at OFF.
3. ADIRS get de-energized irrespective of the associated IR mode rotary selectors position.
A.) 1
B.) 1,2
C.) 1,3
What happens if SYS selector knob is selected at ‘1’?

A.) System 1 is selected for data display.
B.) Only IR 1 data displayed
C.) Only ADR data displayed

Navigation System
‘H’ key on keyboard of ADIRS Panel is used for entering:

A.) Heading in ATT Mode
B.) Present Position
C.) It is not used for any data input.
If the IR mode rotary selector is selected OFF:

A.) ADIRU is de-energized and ADR & IR data are not available..
B.) AD information will be disconnected.
C.) IR information will be disconnected.
D.) The ADIRU is not energized: AD and IR information is lost.
What will happen if you place one of the ADR push button to OFF?
A.) The OFF light will illuminate and air data output will disconnect.
B.) The respective ADIRU will become de-energized.
C.) Both AD and IR information will be disconnected.
D.) All of the above.
What action should be taken if IR #2 is lost?

A.) Move the EIS DMC rotary selector knob to F/O 3 on Switching Panel.
B.) Move the IR Mode Selector to ATT from NAV on overhead ADIRS CDU.
C.) Move the ATT HDG rotary selector knob to F/O 3 on Switching Panel.
D.) Move the IR Mode Selector to ATT from NAV on overhead ADIRS CDU and move the ATT HDG rotary
selector knob to F/O 3 on Switching Panel.
In total failure of an ADIRU, which checklist procedure should be carried out first?
A.) ADR FAULT procedure
B.) IR FAULT procedure
C.) Whichever checklist appears first
D.) There is no need for any priority in carrying out the checklist.
In the event of failure of the AIR DATA function of ADIRU 1 or 2; the affected displays can be manually
selected over to ADR 3 by the:
A.) ECAM/ND transfer selector.
B.) AIR DATA selector.
C.) ATT HDG selector.
What action should be taken if ADR #1 is lost?

A.) Nothing.
B.) Move the ATT HDG knob on the switching panel to CAPT 3.
C.) Move the AIR DATA knob on the switching panel to CAPT 3.

Navigation System
Above 73 ° North and above 60 ° South, the ADIRU gives true heading instead of magnetic heading.
A.) YES
B.) NO
New ADIRS Panel:
IR 1 (2) (3) pushbutton

OFF : Inertial data output
disconnected.
FAULT light : This amber light
comes on with an ECAM caution
when a fault affects the respective IR.
Steady: The respective IR is lost.
Flashing: The attitude and heading
information may be recovered in ATT
mode.
(1) ATT HDG and AIR DATA sel

NORM : ADIRU 1 supplies data to PFD 1, ND 1, RMI and VOR/DME.
ADIRU 2 supplies data to PFD 2, and ND2.
CAPT 3 : ADR 3 or IR 3 replaces ADR 1 or IR 1.
F/O 3 : ADR 3 or IR 3 replaces ADR 2 or IR 2.
In case of failure of ADIRU 1 or 2, ADR 3 or IR 3 can be used from ADIRU 3 with the help of switching selectors.

Navigation System
What happens when you press OFF push button in IR pushbutton sw?
A.) Inertial data output disconnected
B.) The ADIRU is switched OFF.
C.) Both are correct.
If IR 1 Mode Rotary Selector is put to ATT, what will happen?

A.) The ADIRU is not energized and as such ADR and IR data are not available.
B.) The ADIRU remains energized and IR is supplying attitude and heading information only.
The ATT HDG and AIR DATA selectors on the switching panel in the NORM position indicate that:
A.) ADIRU 1 is supplying information to PFD 1 and ND 2, and ADIRU 2 is supplying power to PFD 2 and ND
1.
B.) ADIRU 1 is supplying information to PFD 1, ND 1 and the DDRMI; ADIRU 2 is supplying power to PFD 2
and ND 2.
C.) ADIRU 1 is supplying information to PFD 1, ND 1; ADIRU 2 is supplying power to PFD 2 and ND 2 and
the DDRMI.
In case of failure of ADIRU 1 or 2, ADR 3 or IR 3 can be used from ADIRU 3 with the help of switching
selectors.
A.) True
B.) False
With the DATA selector set to HDG, the time remaining until the completed IRS alignment is displayed
on the control display.
True
False
{ IR alignment fault, or no present position entry after 10 min, or difference between position
at shutdown and entered position exceeds 1 ° of latitude or longitude}
MEMO DISPLAY
‐ ”IRS IN ALIGN X MN” memo appears during phase 1 or 2, during IRS alignment. X MN
indicates the number of minutes remaining (1 < X < 10), until NAV mode is reached.
• Before any engine is started, “IRS IN ALIGN X MN” memo:
▪ Appears in green when at least one active IRS is being aligned,
▪ Pulses in green if the alignment of one IRS is faulty.
• When one engine is started, “IRS IN ALIGN X MN” memo appears in amber during IRS
alignment. If the alignment of one IRS is faulty, “IRS IN ALIGN X MN”memo is replaced
by
the “IR NOT ALIGNED” ECAM caution.
‐ ”IR IN ATT ALIGN” appears in green during the IR alignment in Attitude mode.

Navigation System
Note: If, when the aircraft is on the ground, at least one ADIRU is supplied by aircraft
batteries:
‐ An external horn sounds
‐ The ADIRU and AVNCS light comes on amber on the EXTERNAL POWER panel.
What happens if SYS selector knob is selected at ‘1’?

System 1 is selected for data display.
In cruise you get ECAM “NAV HDG DISCREPANCY”. HOW WILL YOU X CHECK HDG ?
Compare the 3 IR headings on MCDU {HOW}**
Crosscheck with standby compass.
Both are ok.
{Difference between the heading on CAPT and F/O displays is greater than 5 °.}

Navigation System
How do you enter aircraft magnetic heading when you try to recover IR in ATT
position?
MCDU INITIALIZATION
DATA (MCDU KEY) PRESS
The DATA INDEX page is displayed
IRS MONITOR (2L KEY) PRESS
The IRS MONITOR page is displayed.
A/C HEADING ENTER
The heading must be entered in the SET HDG field (5R KEY).
CDU INITIALIZATION:
Depending on the CDU keyboard installed, an “H” may be written on the “5” key:
If ―H‖ is written on the ―5‖ key:

H KEY.......................................................................................................................... PRESS
Degree marker, 0 decimal point, ENT and CLR lights come on.
A/C HEADING............................................................................................................. ENTER
If ―H‖ is not written on the ―5‖ key:

A/C HEADING............................................................................................................. ENTE R
Enter aircraft magnetic heading on CDU keyboard. Then press ENT key to enter data.
Example : to enter heading 320 °, dial 3, 2, 0, 0 then press ENT.
Heading will be displayed on the associated ND.
“HDG–ATT MODE” will be displayed on CDU.
Due to IR drift, magnetic heading has to be periodically crosschecked with standby compass and
updated if required.

Navigation System
The GPS MONITOR page on MCDU 1 or MCDU 2 display

1. Pure GPS position,
2. True track,
3. Ground speed,
4. Estimated position,
5. Accuracy level
6. Mode of operation.
A) 1,2,3
B) 2,3,4.5
C) 1,2,3,5,6
D) 1,2,3,4,5,6.
In normal operation,

Navigation System
1. GPS receiver 1 supplies ADIRU 1 and ADIRU 3,

2. GPS receiver 2 supplies ADIRU 2.
3. GPS receiver 1 supplies ADIRU 1.
4. GPS receiver 2 supplies ADIRU 2 and ADIRU 3.
1,2
3,4
2,3
If one GPS receiver fails, the three ADIRUs automatically select the only operative GPS receiver.
True.
False.
OPERATION IN CASE OF FAILURE:

If one GPS receiver fails, the three ADIRUs automatically select the only operative GPS receiver.
If ADIRU 1 fails, ADIRU 3 is supplied by MMR 1, and ADIRU 2 by MMR 2.
To maintain Side 1 and Side 2 segregation, in case ADIRU 2 fails, the ATT HDG selector has to be
set to F/O 3, so that ADIRU 3 will be supplied with MMR 2 data.
If two ADIRUs fail, the remaining ADIRU is supplied by its own side GPS receiver.
The MMR operates in different modes which are as follows:

INITIALIZATION MODE (INIT)
When this mode is entered, the GPS hardware and software are initialized.
ACQUISITION MODE (ACQ)
The MMR enters in this mode after power-up or during long periods of lost satellite signal. It remains in this
mode until it is able to track at least 4 satellites, then transfers to NAV mode. To
enter navigation mode more quickly, MMR uses initial position, time and altitude from IRS.
NAVIGATION MODE (NAV)
When the MMR can track 4 or more satellites, it enters NAV mode and continuously supplies data
to the ADIRUs.
ALTITUDE AIDING (ALTAID)
If the MMR can track at least 4 satellites, it uses the GPS altitude and the IR altitude to calculate
an altitude bias.
If the number of satellites drops to three, the altitude bias is frozen, and the MMR enters ALTAID
mode, using the IR altitude (corrected with the bias).
FAULT MODE (FAULT)
The fault mode is entered when a failure, which may prevent the MMR from transmitting valid data,
has been detected.
In which mode MMR is operating, is indicated on the GPS MONITOR page.
If GPS function is lost:

1) GPS PRIMARY LOST message is displayed on the ND.
2) GPS PRIMARY LOST message is displayed on the MCDU scratchpad.
3) During an approach a triple click sound is triggered.
4) Navigation Accuracy is downgraded immediately and you should perform the NAV ACCURACY Check.
Navigation System
A.) 1,2,4
B.) 1,2,3,4
C.) 1,2,3
D.) 1,2

Navigation System
On A320, different sets of Standby Instruments are installed. They include

1) Compass, Horizon, Airspeed Indicator, Altimeter
2) Compass and ISIS
3) Compass, ISIS and Altimeter
A.) 1,2
B.) 3
C.) 1
What are the inputs for STBY Altimeter?

STBY PITOT and STBY STATIC
STBY STATIC
STBY PITOT
What are the inputs for STBY Air speed indicator?

Stby pitot and stby static
Stby static
Stby pitot
On STBY altimeter, the altimeter baro reference

Can be in inches of mercury or hectopascals
Inches of mercury only
Depends on the unit selected on PFD controller
Hectopascals only
Inputs for ISIS are:

1. MMR1
2. ADIRU1
3. ADIRU3
4. Standby Probes
A.) 1,2,4
B.) 1,3,4
C.) 1,2,3,4
What is displayed by ISIS?

1) Attitude
2) Airspeed and mach, Altitude and Barometric pressure
3) LS function
4) Bugs
1,3,4
1,2
1,2,3,4
1,2,4
Use of the ISIS bugs function is not recommended because, in the event that both
PFDs are lost in flight, when the ISIS bugs were previously set for takeoff, then for the
approach, the bugs would remain at the takeoff characteristic speed settings.
While setting the time on aircraft clock how would you decrement the time /

Navigation System
Rotate the SET knob anti-clockwise

Rotate the SET knob clockwise
Press the SET knob
It is not possible to decrement the time

Navigation System

A.) The aircraft has two VOR receivers.
B.) The Navigation Displays (NDs) show VOR1 and VOR2 information, in accordance with the position of
the ADF/VOR selectors on the EFIS control panel
C.) The DDRMI on the center panel also displays VOR1 and VOR2 bearings, if the heading signal is valid.
D.) All of the above are correct.

1. The aircraft has two ILS receivers.
2. Each ILS receiver is integrated in a modular avionics unit called MMR (Multi Mode Receiver) (ILS1
receiver in MMR1, ILS2 receiver in MMR2).
3. PFD1 and ND2 display ILS1 information.
4. PFD2 and ND1 display ILS2 information.
5. The flight crew can put the same ILS information on each PFD by pressing the LS button on the EFIS
control panel (the green bars come on).
6. The NDs display ILS information, if the flight crew selects the ROSE LS mode on the EFIS control Panel.
All are correct.

A) The aircraft has 1 ADF system.
B) The NDs display ADF information, depending on the position of the ADF/VOR selectors on the EFIS
control panel.
C) The DDRMI also displays ADF bearing, depending on the position of the ADF/VOR selector (on the
DDRMI).
D) All are correct.

On the captain's PFD when the captain's LS push button is selected ON.
On the FO's PFD when his LS push button is selected on and on the captain's ND, when the captain's ND is
selected to ILS ROSE.

On the captain's PFD when the captain's ILS push button is selected ON.
On the FO's PFD when his ILS push button is selected on and on the captain's ND, when the captain's ND is
selected to ILS ROSE.
On the captain's PFD and ND when the captain's ILS push button is selected ON.
The first two statements are correct
Information from the #1 VOR receiver will be displayed:

On the capt's PFD when the captain's VOR bearing selector is selected to VOR.
On the capt 's ND when the capt 's VOR bearing selector is selected to VOR.
VOR #1 course information is available on the captain's PFD and ND when the captain's ILS pb is selected ON.
The presence of VOR1 in red on the ND indicates:

The VOR station currently tuned is out of service.
The # 1 VOR receiver is inoperative.
VOR data can be displayed on:

Navigation System
Both NDs
The DDRMI
Both are correct.
Ground dependent position determining systems such as VOR, DME, ILS:

Are used only as backup to the independent position determining systems such as ADIRS.
Provide information which overrides information supplied by ADIRS.
Cross check and refine the Flight management and Guidance System (FMGS) position computed by
independent systems such as ADIRS.
The DDRMI provides the pilot with:

Bearing only for VOR 1.
Bearing and DME information for VOR 1 and ADF 1.
Bearing and DME information for VOR 2 and ADF 2.
Bearing only for VOR 1 and VOR 2.
ILS 1 information is displayed on ______ when operating in the rose ILS mode:
PFD 2 & ND 1
PFD 1 & ND 1
PFD 1 & ND 2
VOR, ILS, and NDB raw data information is displayed on the ND in which of the following modes?
VOR and ILS information can be displayed in the ROSE VOR and ROSE ILS modes respectively
Both are correct.
The Glide slope index will flash continuously when the deviation exceeds ______ above ______
True.
False.
Which flag will appear simultaneously on both PFDs and both NDs
LOC and GS flags due to ILS 1 failure
LOC and GS flags due to ILS 2 failure
CHECK HDG flag due to heading difference of more than 5 degrees between
the two side displays
CHECK ATT flag due to roll or pitch attitude difference of more than 5
degrees between the two side displays
If ILSI fails, what are the inoperative systems on status page ?

Only CAT 2
ILS indications on Capt. PFD, Co-pilots, ND, CAT 2 are lost.
Navigation System
ILS indications on Capt, PFD, ND, CAT 2 are lost

ILS indications on Capt, PFD, F/O, ND, CAT 2, FMGS 1 are lost.
Is it possible to have ILS, VOR and ADF information at the same time on the Captain’s ND ?
No, it is not possible
Yes. By selecting Rose ILS on Captains EFIS control panel, VOR on No.1 ADF/VOR switch and ADF on NO.2
ADF/VOR switch, we get ILS-2VOR 1 & ADF 2
Yes. By selecting Rose ILS on Captains EFIS control panel, VOR on No.1 ADF/VOR switch and ADF on No. 2 ADF /
VOR switch; we get ILS – 1, VOR 2 & ADF 2.
Yes, By selecting Rose ILS on Captains EFIS control panel, VOR on No.1 ADF/VOR switch and ADF on No.2
ADF/VOR switch, we get ILS – 1, VOR 2 & ADF 2
What happens if ILS 1 fails ?

GPWS FAULT appears in EP and ES series aircraft
Only mode 5 i.e. BELOW G/S is lost in EP series aircraft
Only mode 5 i.e. BELOW G/S is lost in ES series aircraft
Only mode 5 i.e BELOW G/S is lost in both EP & ES series aircraft.
The ND mode in which VOR, ILS & ADF can be simultaneously presented is
Rose ILS
Rose VOR
Rose NAV
PLAN
The VOR 1 flag on DDRMI appears if

VBR 1 receiver fails
Compass signal of ADIRS 2 invalid
As in (a) or internal failure RMI
As in (b) or internal failure of RMI
RNAV position information is displayed on the ND in which of the following modes?

ARC, ROSE and PLAN modes.
ROSE VOR mode.
The Glide slope index will flash continuously when the deviation exceeds ______ above ______
True.
False.
The compass rose on the navigation display is always oriented to magnetic north.

Navigation System
True.
False.
In which modes the VOR and ADF bearing pointers may appear on ND?
In all ROSE modes
In all modes except PLAN mode
In all modes except ARC and PLAN modes
In all modes
In Rose NAV Mode, a specified runway is drawn to scale on ND in following ranges

40, 80, 160 nm
80, 160, 320 nm
20, 40, 80 nm
10, 20, 40 nm
Is it possible to have all the 3 types of NAV (ADV, VOR, ILS) information on ND2 ?
If yes, in which mode ?
No.
Yes in all modes.
Yes in ROSE ILS/ Mode
Yes in any ROSE Mode

Both ILS/ DMEs can be tuned from RMP1 if RMP2 switch is OFF
Both ILS/DMEs can be tuned from RMP2 if RMP1 switch is OFF
Both ILS/DMEs can be tuned from either RMP provided both RMPs are set to ON
CRS selection on the STBY/CRS window on RMP is possible

Once any NAV key is selected and manually setting the CRS with rotary knob
After NAV key selection and frequency set the frequency is transferred to active window
Only when the CRS setting is transferred to active windows CRS selection will be effective
RMP is used for

Communication only
Radio navigation when used as backup mode for Radio Navigation receivers but
not for communication
Communication as well as back mode for radio navigation receivers tuning
Always used for communication as well as for automatic tuning for FMGC
How many radio altimeter antennas are there?

3

Navigation System
4
5
5 or 6
If RA No 1 fails what are the degradations

RA fled on Capt. PFD
FAULT light on GPWS SYS switch, CAP 3 GPWS IN OP SYS of STATUS page
Loss of Radio Alt indication on Capt. PFD
All the above.
Radio Height is displayed on the PFD:

Below 2500 feet.
When the LOC or APPR p/b is pressed.
When a Decision Height is selected.
If ATC mode selector is at AUTO:

Selected transponder operates only in flight.
Selected transponder operates in mode S on ground.
Selected transponder operates as soon as one engine is running.
On ATC Control Panel, the ATC FAIL light comes on if:

Selected Transponder fails.
Both Transponder fail.
The aircraft has two ATC transponders which are controlled by a dual control box on the overhead panel.
True.
False.
With ATC transponder switch selected to ‘ON’ the transponder operates when
Aircraft is in flight, not on ground
Aircraft is on ground, not in flight
Aircraft is either on ground or flight
Aircraft is on ground and ALT reporting switch is ON.
The flight crew presses {…???..} button to send the aircraft identification signal.
IDENT sw
Mode selector On
ALT RPTG to on.

Navigation System
The ATC transponder is capable of enhanced surveillance: It transmits the following parameters upon ground
request:
‐ Indicated airspeed, Mach number, and baro vertical speed, that are all supplied by the ADRs.
‐ Magnetic heading, roll angle, ground speed, track angle, track angle rate, and inertial vertical speed, that are all
supplied by the IRs.
‐ Selected altitude and barometric reference settings supplied by the FCUs
What is Mode S? Why do you need on ground?

Navigation System
Weather radar can be displayed in which of the modes on the ND?

All modes except PLAN.
Only in Plan Mode
With radar selected on, what can you read on ND about antenna setting?
Tilt angle
Tilt angle and gain mode
Roll angle and tilt angle
Nothing
The turbulence function on Wx Radar is available

Upto 160 nm
Upto 80 nm
Upto 40 nm
Upto 320 nm
In A 320 Weather Radar

The range of radar is selected from Weather Radar control panel
Weather image is available in all modes on ND
Weather image is taken off from ND automatically in case of insufficient
avionics ventilation
If GAIN Knob is out of CAL position, which function of the radar is lost?
Turbulence detection
Path Attenuation Compensation
Ground Clutter Suppression
Predictive Wind shear system
Is PAC function available when Mode selector is at TURB position on Wx Radar panel?
Yes
No
Can PAC Alert be indicated for cells in the range of 100-130 NM from a/c?
No
Yes
What should be the position of Mode selector on Wx Radar panel to receive PAC Alerts?
At Wx
At Wx + T
At any position of the selector
Both {A} and {B} are correct
For TURBULENCE detection on Wx Radar

Navigation System
Select Wx/T mode on controller

Range selector should be in 40 NM or less
Turbulence is shown in magenta colour
All are correct.
How is the predictive windshear system detecting windshear?

By analysing precipitation that the weather radar detects.
By detecting mountain wave and other clear air windshear encounters.
Both of the above answers are correct.
The weather radars have a Predictive Windshear System (PWS) that operates when:
1. The PWS switch is in the AUTO position (Even if the weather radar is OFF), and
2. The aircraft is below 2 300 ft AGL, and
3. The ATC is switched to the ON, or AUTO and
4. Either engine is running.
All are correct
Select the correct statements about the Predictive Windshear System (PWS):
A) The system scans the airspace, within a range of 5 nm ahead of the aircraft, for indshears.
B) Below 1 500 ft, when the system detects windshear, depending on the range selected on the ND, a
warning, caution, or advisory message appears on the ND.
C) Predictive windshear warnings and cautions are associated with an aural warning.
D) All are correct
Select the correct statements about the Predictive Windshear System (PWS):
A) During the takeoff roll, up to 100 kt, both warnings and cautions are available within a range of 3 nm.
B) At takeoff, alerts are inhibited above 100 kt and remains inhibited up to 50 ft.
C) During landing, alerts are inhibited below 50 ft.
D) All are correct
What happens to PWS if ATC selector is at STBY?

Predictive wind shear function is not available.
PWS is available as ATC has nothing to do with it.
Which statement is correct regarding the Predictive Windshear system aural alerts?
They have priority over TCAS, GPWS and other FWC aural alerts.
They are inhibited by windshear detected by FAC and stall warning aural messages.
They have priority over windshear detected by FMGC and stall warning aural messages.
What will be displayed on the ND when the weather radar is ON, and the TERR ON ND switch is also ON?
Weather Radar information will be displayed on the ND.
Terrain information will be displayed on the ND.
Both weather and terrain information will be superimposed on the ND.
PWS Warning during Approach:

Navigation System
Aural Warning of «GO AROUND WINDSHEAR AHEAD» + W/S AHEAD (red) on PFD + Windshear icon on ND
Aural Warning of «WINDSHEAR AHEAD» (twice) + W/S AHEAD (red) on PFD + Windshear icon on ND
Aural Warning of «MONITOR RADAR DISPLAY» + W/S AHEAD (red) on PFD + Windshear icon on ND
No warning.
PWS Warning during Take-off:

Aural Warning of «GO AROUND WINDSHEAR AHEAD» + W/S AHEAD (red) on PFD + Windshear icon on ND
Aural Warning of «WINDSHEAR AHEAD» (twice) + W/S AHEAD (red) on PFD + Windshear icon on ND
Aural Warning of «MONITOR RADAR DISPLAY» + W/S AHEAD (red) on PFD + Windshear icon on ND
No warning.

A) A green “PRED W/S OFF” memo appears on E/WD, when PWS toggle switch is left to OFF on the weather
radar panel in taxi-out.
B) It turns amber when the T.O. CONFIG p/b is pressed before T/O.
C) However in flight it appears amber if no PWS.
D) All are correct.

Navigation System
GPWS operates in the following five modes. Select the correct order of five modes:
1. Altitude loss after takeoff, or go-around.
2. Excessive terrain closure rate
3. Excessive rate of descent.
4. Unsafe terrain clearance, when not in landing configuration.
5. Too far below glideslope.
A.) 3,2,1,4,5
B.) 1,2,3,4,5
C.) 2,1,3,4,5
D.) 1,3,2,4,5
In which of the followings GPWS Alerts will you apply memory items and procedures?
1. AVOID TERRAIN
2. TERRAIN AHEAD, PULL UP
3. “PULL UP” - “TERRAIN TERRAIN PULL UP”
4. TERRAIN AHEAD
5. TERRAIN TERRAIN - TOO LOW TERRAIN
1,2,3
4,5
1,2,3,4,5
A320 has on board a Ground Proximity Warning System (GPWS). This system will warn the crew in case of:
1) Keeping the altitude at a lower level than the one shown in the flight plan entered in the FMS.
2) Dangerous ground proximity.
3) Loss of altitude during take-off or missed approach.
4) Wrong landing configuration.
5) Descent below glide path, within limits.
A.) 2, 5.
B.) 2.
C.) 1, 3, 4.
D.) 2, 3, 4, 5.
The GPWS uses inputs from:

The Radio Altimeter, the ADIRS 1, ILS 1 receiver, LGCIU 1 for the landing gear position and SFCC1 for the flap
position.
The Radio Altimeter, the ADIRS 1, LGCIU 1 for the landing gear position and SFCC1 for the flap position.
The Radio Altimeter, ILS 1 receiver, LGCIU 1 for the landing gear position and SFCC1 for the flap position.
The Radio Altimeter, ILS 1 receiver
The operation of the GPWS (Ground Proximity Warning System) is governed by laws taking the aircraft
height into account as well as:
1) The descent rate
2) The climb rate
3) The aircraft configuration
4) The selected engine rpm
The combination of correct statements is:
1, 2, 4.
1, 3.

Navigation System
1, 3, 4.
1, 2, 3
The Ground Proximity Warning System (GPWS) is a system working according to a height span ranging from:
30 ft to 5 000 ft.
10 ft to 2 500 ft.
50 ft to 2 500 ft.
The ground to 1 000 ft.
Which of the following are modes of the GPWS?

1) Excessive sink rate.
2) Altitude loss after T/O or go-around.
3) Excessive Glideslope deviation.
4) High climb rate.
5) Flaps in incorrect position.
6) High altitude descent
7) Stall
A.) 1, 2 & 3
B.) 1, 2, 3, & 5
C.) 1, 3, 5 & 7
D.) All 7
GPWS operates in the following five modes. Select Mode 1:

A.) 1
B.) 2
C.) 3
GPWS Mode One gives warning of:

A.) Excessive descent rate.
B.) Excessive terrain closure rate.
C.) Unsafe terrain clearance when not in the landing configuration.
D.) Height loss after take-off/missed approach.
GPWS alerts for Mode 1 are:

A.) A repeated “SINK RATE” aural alert and the GPWS light on when a/c in first boundary.
B.) Penetration of the second boundary generates a repetitive “PULL UP” aural alert and causes both PULL UP
lights to come on.
C.) Both are correct.
Aircraft is at 2000 feet Radio Altitude. For excessive rate of descent the GPWS warning will be
Don’t sink
Terrain – terrain
Sink rate

Navigation System
Too low terrain
The Ground Proximity Warning Systems (GWPS) Mode 2 is activated when:

A.) When the aircraft is significantly below the ILS glide path.
B.) The aircraft is flying into rising terrain.
C.) The barometric descent rate is excessive with respect to the aircraft height above the terrain.
D.) An excessive height loss is experienced after take-off or during go-around.
What is the GPWS Mode 3 audio alerts?

{ The GPWS generates the following sound signal or signals when the aircraft is sinking after a take-off or a
go-around}
A.) Aural alert of 'DON'T SINK, DON'T SINK' followed by 'PULL UP' if the sink rate exceeds a certain value.
B.) Aural alert of 'SINK RATE' and PULL UP'.
C.) Aural alert of 'DON'T SINK, DON'T SINK' continuously.
D.) Aural alert of 'DON'T SINK, DON'T SINK' followed immediately by 'PULL UP'.
The Ground Proximity Warning Systems (GPWS) Mode 4 is activated when:

The aircraft is flying into rising terrain.
An unsafe terrain clearance situation is experienced, with the aircraft not in the landing configuration.
An excessive height loss is experienced after take-off or during go-around.
When the aircraft is significantly below the ils glidepath.
The Ground Proximity Warning Systems (GPWS) Mode 5 is activated when:

A.) The aircraft is flying into rising terrain.
B.) An unsafe terrain clearance situation is experienced, with the aircraft not in the landing configuration.
C.) The aircraft is significantly below the ILS glide path.
D.) An excessive height loss is experienced after take-off or during go-around.
If an aircraft is flying (with flaps and landing gear retracted) in proximity to terrain and its GPWS (Ground
Proximity Warning System) get activated, because it is detecting that the aeroplane has an excessive rate of
descent, the system provides the following aural warning signals:
... TERRAIN, TERRAIN ... followed by ... PULL UP ...
... DON'T SINK, DON'T SINK ...
...SINK RATE, SINK RATE ... followed by ... PULL UP ...
... TOO LOW, TERRAIN ... (twice) followed by ... TOO LOW GEAR ... (twice).
“GLIDE SLOPE” aural alert and both GPWS lights can be cancelled when Mode 5 is activated?
No. you can not.
Yes, by pressing any one of the GPWS lights both aural and visual warnings are cancelled temporarily.
Yes, but only aural warnings are cancelled by pressing any one of the GPWS lights
Yes, but only GPWS lights can be cancelled by pressing any one of the GPWS lights
{Pressing the PULL UP/GPWS pushbutton cancels the warning. This is temporary and the mode is
automatically reactivated for a new alert.}

Navigation System
On GPWS control panel, LDG FLAP 3 switch is selected ON. What are the significances ?
Mode 4 GPWS warnings are triggered only if flaps are selected to less than 3 for landing.
GPWS warning are triggered if landing is made with flaps 3
As in (a) and on LDG memo, FLAP…. CONFIG 3 will be displayed
As in (b) and on LDG memo, FLAP… CONFIG 3 will be displayed.
On GPWS control panel, “LDG FLAP 3 ON" is selected, What will be the last line on LDG memo?
FLAP ……………….CONFIG 3
FLAP ……………….FULL
FLAP ……………….FULL or CONFIG 3
FLAP ……………….CONFIG 2
With the failure in ILS1, which of the basic modes of GPWS are lost / inhibited?
Mode 1
Mode 3
Mode 4
Mode 5
Which of the GPWS modes are inhibited when predictive GPWS functions are operative?
Mode 2
Mode 3
Mode 4
Mode 5
GPWS aural and visual warnings can not be inhibited.

True
False
In the PREDICTIVE GPWS FUNCTIONS,

The GPWS system
1. Compares the current aircraft position to the terrain {and airport} from the database.
2. Displays the terrain along the projected flight path ahead of the aircraft from the database.
3. Computes a caution and a warning envelope ahead of the aircraft.
4. This includes the determination of the climb prediction envelope for terrain avoidance, using the
modelized climb capability of the aircraft.
All are correct.
When the TERR pb-sw ON ND is set to ON, and ARC or ROSE mode is selected, the ND displays the terrain from
the database, depending on the aircraft’s position.
The terrain is displayed in various densities of green, yellow, red, or magenta, depending on the threat.
If an alert is generated (Caution or Warning), by EGPWS

1. Terrain display comes up on the ND automatically.
2. The ON light of the TERR pb-sw ON ND comes on even if is not selected.
3. The GPWS/PULL UP pushbutton light comes on, on each pilot’s instrument panel in case of a warning.
4. The GPWS light of the GPWS/PULL UP pushbutton comes on, on each pilot’s instrument panel in case
of a caution.
1,2,3

Navigation System
1,2,4
1,2,3,4
In case of low accuracy of the aircraft position computed by the T2CAS, the predictive functions of the GPWS
are automatically deactivated.
The 5 GPWS mode remain active.
In case of GPWS / EGPWS ALERTS,

Apply the procedure immediately during the night or IMC Conditions.
During daylight VMC conditions, these alerts may be considered cautionary if terrains and obstacles clearly in
sight.
There are two types of envelopes constructed by EGPWS:

 Vertical Envelope
o Caution Envelope: takes 132 sec
o Warning Envelope: 120 sec
 Horizontal Envelope
If there is a conflict between the terrain caution envelope and the terrain data stored in the
database, one of the following cautions is triggered:
‐ A “TERRAIN AHEAD” caution, if the terrain conflict is ahead of the aircraft.
‐ A “TOO LOW TERRAIN” caution, if the terrain conflict is below the aircraft, instead of ahead of the aircraft.
If there is a conflict between the terrain warning envelope ahead of the aircraft, and the terrain data stored in
the database, one of the following warnings is triggered:
‐ A “TERRAIN AHEAD-PULL UP” warning, if the aircraft can climb over the terrain.
‐ An “AVOID TERRAIN” warning, if the aircraft cannot climb over the terrain with sufficient safety margin.

Navigation System
The TCAS determines the _____ of intruders.

Relative bearing
Range and closure rate
Relative altitude
All of the above.
TCAS traffic is displayed on the navigation display in all ROSE modes and ARC mode. Only the 8 most
threatening intruders are displayed.
True.
False
In which ND modes are TCAS targets displayed?

All modes.
All ROSE modes and ARC mode.
Only in PLAN Mode
When bank angle exceeds 45° (will return when bank is < 40°)
The TCAS determines the _____ of intruders.
Relative bearing
Range and closure rate
Relative altitude
All of the above.
Even if an Intruder is in the vicinity of the A/C (closer than 6 nm laterally and ±1200 ft vertically) and even if
there is no collision threat, it will still be displayed if Mode sel is at TA / RA.
TA mode:
It can be selected by the crew or
Automatically if TA / RA is previously selected and any one of the following takes place.
 Wind shear message is triggered or
 Stall message is triggered or
 GPWS alerts are triggered.
 A/C is below 1000 ft AGL.
TA ONLY is displayed on the NDs.
All RAs are inhibited and converted to TAs.
No vertical speed advisories are indicated on the PFDs.
TAU is different for RA at different altitudes.

True
False
In case of RA, displayed information is as follows:

 On ND: intruder position +
 Aural messages +
 PFD: vertical orders either of
o Maintain actual V/S (Preventive Advisory) or
o Modify V/S (Corrective Advisory)

Navigation System

1. Proximate intruder is indicated by a white filled diamond.
2. TA intruder are indicated by an amber circle and associated with the TRAFFIC-TRAFFIC aural message.
3. RA intruder is indicated by a red square and associated with vertical orders displayed on the PFD and
aural messages.
4. All are correct.
Select correct statements about “Vertical speed arrow”:

1. Some intruders are shown with an arrow near the symbol.
2. It is displayed only if the intruder V/S > 500 ft/min
3. Relative altitude and vertical speed arrow are displayed in the same color as the associated intruder
symbol.
4. If the altitude of an intruder is not available, neither altitude nor vertical speed
indications are displayed.
A.) 1,2,3
B.) 1,3,4
C.) 1,2,3,4
(2) TRAFFIC sel

THRT : Proximate and other intruders are displayed only if a TA or RA is present, and they
are within 2 700 ft above and 2 700 ft below the aircraft.
ALL : Proximate and other intruders are displayed even if no TA or RA is present (full
time function). The altitude range is –2700 ft to +2 700 ft.
ABV : The same as ALL, except that the other intruders are displayed if within 9 900 ft
above the aircraft and 2 700 ft below.
BLW : The same as ALL, except that the other intruders are displayed if within 9 900 ft
below the aircraft and 2 700 ft above.

Navigation System
In Altitude Alert System, what are the warnings given when the a/c approaches to within 750 ft. of the
selected altitude and when it deviates by 250 ft or more of the selected altitude ? (Assume A/P is not
engaged )
1.5 sec. Aural warning and altitude window flashes yellow in both cases .
While approaching 1.5 sec aural plus pulsing yellow on PFD and while deviating, continuous aural plus flashing
amber in PFD
While approaching continuous aural and while deviating 1.5 sec aural warnings.
Visual warnings are same.
Continuous aural warning and flashing amber on PFD in both cases.
Aircraft climbs to more than 250 feet above the selected altitude, how can the
continuous C chord aural warning be cancelled ?
It is automatically cancelled at 750 feet above the selected altitude
By pressing the MASTER WARNING press button
By pressing the MASTER CAUTION press button
It cannot be cancelled.

Navigation System

Oxygen System
Oxygen System
A mask-mounted regulator
1. Supplies a mixture of air and oxygen
2. Pure oxygen
3. Performs emergency pressure control.
Mask mounted Pressure regulator has:

A. EMERGENCY pressure selector
B. N/100 % selector
When EMERGENCY pressure selector knob is pressed:

A. Knob generates an overpressure for a few seconds.
B. Knob generates a permanent overpressure.
When EMERGENCY pressure selector knob is turned in the direction of the arrow:
A. Knob generates an overpressure for a few seconds.
B. Knob generates a permanent overpressure.

1. Overpressure supply is automatically started, when cabin altitude exceeds 30 000 ft.
2. Overpressure supply is available only when the N/100% selector is set on the on the 100 % position.
1
2
1, 2
EMERGENCY pressure selector

Use of this selector creates on overpressure which eliminates condensation or fogging of the mask, and
prevents smoke, smell or ashes from entering the mask.
Very important notes:

1. Overpressure supply is automatically started, when cabin altitude exceeds 30 000 ft.
2. Overpressure supply is available only when the N/100% selector is set on the on the 100 % position.
When N/100 % selector is at N:

A. The mask delivers a mixture of air and oxygen, the content of which varies with cabin altitude. When
cabin altitude goes above 35 000 ft, the air inlet closes and the wearer breathes 100 % oxygen.
B. The mask delivers 100 % oxygen.
What happens when the mask is used with the selection at 100% position?
Mask is supplied with diluted oxygen on demand.
Mask is supplied with undiluted oxygen on demand.
Mask is supplied with undiluted oxygen continuous flow.
Mask is supplied with diluted oxygen on demand.
After using a quick donning mask, the mask is stowed back but OXY ON flag is
visible. Is it possible to have communication via boom MIC.
No.

Oxygen System
Yes
Yes, only if INT / RED switch is in INT (only interphone is possible )
Yes, only if INT / RED switch is held in RAD (only RT is possible )
What are the possible flows of oxygen through the individual quick doning full face mast in the cockpit ?
Diluted Oxygen on demand, 100% Oxygen on demand or continuously.
Diluted Oxygen on demand or continuously, 100% Oxygen on demand only
Diluted Oxygen on demand or continuously, 100% continuously
Only two flows 100% Oxygen continuously, Diluted Oxygen on demand.
CREW SUPPLY pb at OFF:

1. The solenoid valve is closed, and the integral white light comes on and oxygen is cutoff from
all masks.
2. REGUL LO PR indication in amber, will appear on the DOOR / OXY page
3. Crew oxygen bottle pressure will still be shown on the DOOR / OXY page
4. CKPT OXY indication which is normally in white, becomes amber
A. 1, 2, 4
B. 1, 2, 3, 4
What is the purpose of the CREW SUPPLY push button?

A. When selected to ON, it supplies oxygen to the Captain & F/O only (jumpseats are not supplied)
B. When selected to ON, it allows the flow of low pressure oxygen to the crew's masks.
C. In case of low cylinder pressure it allows the crew to tap into the passenger oxygen system.
What does an amber OXY on the ECAM Doors mean?

A. The crew supply switch is turned off and/or oxygen pressure is less than 400 psi.
B. The crew supply switch is turned off
C. Oxygen pressure is less than 650 psi.
D. oxygen pressure is less than 300 psi.
On which ECAM page will you check the exact pressure of the oxygen cylinder?
A. The PRESS page.
B. The DOORS / OXY page.
C. The COND page.
D. The STATUS page.
What is indicated by a missing green thermal plug in nose gear area during an exterior preflight?
An oxygen system overpressure or thermal discharge.
This is normal indication, the green thermal plug only appears if the oxygen cylinder is low.
The crew oxygen bottle is empty.
An external fire discharge has been activated.

Oxygen System
A Thermal discharge of the cockpit crew fixed Oxygen bottle is indicated by

Thermal discharge message on ECAM
Green Blow out disc missing
Red blow out disc missing
No indication of Thermal Discharge is provided.
Approximately how long are the passenger oxygen generators able to produce oxygen?
15 minutes.
20 minutes.
25 minutes.
30 minutes.
What is the main difference between the crew and the passenger oxygen system?
There is no difference: both are served by oxygen cylinders.
Crew is supplied from an oxygen cylinder; passengers are supplied by chemical oxygen generators .
Both the crew and passengers are supplied with oxygen from chemical oxygen generators.
The crew has an oxygen bottle for an emergency back-up supply.
At approximately what cabin altitude should the passenger oxygen masks drop?
10,000 feet (+100, - 500 ft)
12,500 feet (+ or - 500 ft)
14,000 feet (+0, - 500 ft)
15,000 feet.
Illumination of the SYS ON light is an indication that:

The crew must depress the MASK MAN ON pb in order to deploy the masks.
Electrical power has been sent to deploy the masks, either manually or automatically.
The crew oxygen cylinder is empty.
All of the passenger masks have deployed.
What happens when you press the guarded MASK MAN ON p/b?
A signal is sent to the chemical oxygen generators to start the flow of oxygen to the masks.
It manually sends a signal to open the oxygen mask doors.
Both are correct.
When does passenger oxygen flow start?

When the mask is pulled toward the seat.
When the oxygen doors open.
When the oxygen button is pushed.
When cabin altitude exceeds 14,000 ft
Which is the suitable statement for Pax fixed Oxygen system

Pax Oxygen can be activated but only reset from cockpit
Pax Oxygen can be activated and reset from cockpit
Pax Oxygen system activates automatically in case of decompression but can be

Oxygen System
reset only from cockpit

Pax Oxygen system once activated (Automatically or Manually) cannot be reset.
Due to landing impact one PSU door opens, 3 masks had dropped, if only one
mask is pulled, will oxygen flow.
No, since cabin is not depressurized
Yes, into all the 3 masks for 15 minutes
Yes, into only that mask for 15 minutes
Yes, into only that mask for 39 minutes
Which of the following oxygen flows is possible from a portable Oxygen bottle of cabin?
100% Oxygen continuously
100% on demand.
Diluted Oxygen on demand.
(b) and (c) are correct.
WATER WASTE SYSTEM
The capacity of water tank on A320 aircraft is

200 litres
135 litres
30 US gallons

Oxygen System

Oxygen System

Pneumatics System
Pneumatics System
High pressure air can be supplied by following sources.
APU Bleed
Engine Bleed
External HP source on ground
All are correct
The crew may directly control the following bleed valves:

Engine, Engine High Pressure, APU.
Engine, Intermediate Pressure, APU.
Engine, APU, Crossbleed.
Crossbleed.
Bleed air is extracted from:

1. 7th stage when engine is at high power
2. 10th stage when engine is at low power
3. 7th stage when engine is at low power
4. 10th stage when engine is at high power
1,2
1,4
What happens when pressure and temperature are not sufficient to supply the
corresponding engine bleed valve?
HP valve closes.
HP valve opens, IP stage closed.
HP valve opens, IP stage remains in the same configuration.
Pneumatic system operation is controlled and monitored by:

One bleed monitoring computer.
Two bleed valve computers.
Two bleed monitoring computers.
A leak detection system detects any overheating in the vicinity of hot air ducts.
True.
False.

Pneumatics System

Pneumatics System
If you press ENG Bleed P/B to OFF, what happens?

1. The Bleed Valve closes.
2. HP Bleed Valve closes.
1, 2
ENG 1 Bleed Valve will close when:

1. The BLEED 1 pushbutton switched OFF
2. The ENG1 FIRE pushbutton (pushed)
3. The APU Bleed is ON with APU running {N>95%}
4. The BMC 1 detects wing Leak on LH side.
5. The BMC1 detects Pylon Leak on LH side
6. Overheat or overpressure in ENG 1 Bleed Valve
1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6
When does the engine bleed valve automatically close?

During engine start.
When engine fire push button is pressed.
When APU bleed valve is opened.
In all of the above.

As long as engine 1 starter valve is open, its bleed valve is closed
As long as APU bleed valve is open, both engine bleed valves are closed.
If a wing leak is detected, {except during engine start}, bleed valve will close on that side.
All are correct.
With both engines operating, an ENG BLEED p/b FAULT light will illuminate when:
The valve position differs from that of the push button.
The X BLEED selector is selected to SHUT.
The X BLEED selector is selected to OPEN.
The X BLEED selector is selected to OPEN or to SHUT.

Pneumatics System
After APU start when you select APU Bleed P/B to On, APU BLEED VALVE will open if
1. There is no LH wing leak.
2. There is no APU leak.
3. APU running {N>95%}.
1, 2, 3
Notes:
1. LH wing leak is detected either by BMC1or BMC2.
2. RH wing leak is detected either by BMC1or BMC2.
After APU start when you select APU Bleed P/B to ON:
1. ENG 1 bleed valve will close if XBV selector position is in AUTO
2. ENG 1 bleed valve will close irrespective of XBV selector position
3. ENG 2 bleed valve will close if XBV selector position is in AUTO
4. ENG 2 bleed valve will close irrespective of XBV selector position
5. X-Bleed Valve will open if XBV selector in Auto
1, 3, 5
2,,3, 5
1, 4, 5
2,4,5
If APU Bleed is ON and the cross bleed valve is SHUT, the Engine bleed valve 2 remains open.
When selected, APU bleed air:

Will supply bleed air only if the ENG BLEED pb's are selected OFF.
Has priority over engine bleed air.
Will supply bleed air only if the X BLEED selector is selected OPEN.
Does not have priority over engine bleed air.

Pneumatics System
With the APU running, the APU BLEED push button selected ON and the X BLEED
selector to AUTO, the APU will:
Supply bleed air to the left side only.
Supply pneumatic air to both sides of the aircraft because the pneumatic crossbleed valve
automatically opens.
Will supply bleed air only to the left side unless the X BLEED selector is selected OPEN.
Supply bleed air to the right side only.
If APU Bleed is ON and the cross bleed valve is SHUT, the Engine bleed valve 2, remains open.
X-BLEED VALVE selector is normally in AUTO position.

True
False
X-BLEED Valve closes automatically if:

1. There is LH wing leak.
2. There is RH wing leak.
3. There is APU Leak.
4. There is Pylon Leak on ENG 1 side.
1,2,3,4
X-BLEED Valve closes automatically if:

1. There is LH wing leak.
2. There is RH wing leak.
3. There is Pylon Leak on ENG 2 side.
1,2,3
If a leak is detected any where on the a/c by any of the BMCs, X-BLEED Valve closes automatically if in AUTO.
True
False
X-BLEED Valve will not close automatically if it is in OPEN position and a leak is detected by BMCs.
True
False
Controlling logics for AUTO Motor and MAN Motors are different for X-Bleed Valve.
True.
False
For engine start what will be the position of X-Bleed selector if one bleed is inoperative?
Open
Auto
Shut
For wing anti-icing what will be the position of X-Bleed selector if one bleed is inoperative?
Open
Auto
Shut

Pneumatics System
In automatic mode, the cross-bleed valve opens when the system uses APU bleed air provided there is no
detection of air leak.
True .
False
When the APU BLEED pb-sw is ON with APU running and you get an ECAM of AIR X BLEED FAULT. The
associated procedure says X BLEED..............MAN CTL. In which position will you select the X-BLEED
Selector?
Open
Auto
Shut

Pneumatics System
LEAK DETECTION
Leak detection loops detect any overheating near the hot air ducts in the fuselage, pylons, and wings.
True
False
For the pylon and APU, the sensing elements are tied to form a single loop and for the wing, a
double loop.
True
False
Wing leak signal is activated when

The two wing loops detect a leak.
When one loop detects the leak and the other one is inoperative.
Both are true
What will happen if a leak is detected on ENG 1 pylon?

The bleed valve 1 will close automatically.
The x-bleed valve will close automatically.
The FAULT light on the AIR COND panel will come on for ENG Bleed 1.
1,2,3
What will happen if a leak is detected on ENG 2 pylon?

1,2,3
What will happen if a leak is detected on APU Duct?

The APU bleed valve will close automatically
The FAULT light the APU BLEED pushbutton switch on the AIR COND panel will come on
The x-bleed valve will close automatically
What will happen if a leak is detected in LH Wing?

1,2,3,4
What will happen if a leak is detected in RH Wing?

1,2,3,4
Will the APU bleed valve close automatically if a leak is detected in RH Wing?
No
Yes
APU Duct leak is detected by:

BMC1
BMC2
APU ECB
1

Pneumatics System
ENG 1 pylon leak is detected by:

BMC1
BMC2
FADEC1
1
ENG 2 pylon leak is detected by:

BMC1
BMC2
FADEC2
2
LH Wing Leak is detected by

BMC1
BMC2
Both BMCs
RH Wing Leak is detected by

BMC1
BMC2
Both BMCs
If on a flight BMC1 is lost, what is lost?

Leak detection on ENG 1 Pylon so ENG 1 BLEED LEAK warning is lost
Leak detection on APU Duct so APU BLEED LEAK warning is lost
ENG 1 Bleed FAULT light on the AIR COND panel is lost
APU BLEED FAULT light on the AIR COND panel is lost
1,2,3,4
If on a flight BMC2 is lost, what is lost?

Leak detection on ENG 2 Pylon
ENG 2 Bleed FAULT light on the AIR COND panel is lost
If BMC1 has failed and there is a leak on LH Wing.

APU Bleed valve will close. {Action by BMC2}
In case of BMC 1 failure:

1. Left engine leak detection is lost.
2. Left wing leak detection is lost.
3. APU leak detection is lost.
A. 1, 3
B. 2, 3
C. 1, 2, 3
D. 1
In case of BMC 2 failure:

1. Right engine leak detection is lost.
2. Right wing leak detection is lost.
A. 1, 2
B. 3
C. 1, 2, 3
D. 1

Pneumatics System
If one BMC fails, the adjacent BMC takes over the monitoring of the bleed system to issue the following
ECAM warnings if necessary:
Overpressure
Overtemperature
Wing leak
All of the above.
What happens when BMC 1 fail?

Left engine leak detection is lost.
Left wing leak detection is lost.
As in (a) and APU leak detection is also lost.
As in (b) and APU leak detection is also lost.
Bleed leak protection for the APU pneumatic duct is provided by:
Detection loops associated with BMC #1.
Detection loops associated with BMC #2.
The APU BMC.
All of the above.
When engine and wing anti-ice are in use, and a BMC detects a bleed leak:
Only the engine anti-ice on the associated side will be lost.
The wing and engine anti-ice on the associated side will be lost.
The wing anti-ice and the engine anti-ice on the associated side will be lost.
Following an ENGINE 1 BLEED FAULT, why can you only use one pack if Wing Anti Ice (WAI) is on?
Only one user can be supplied via the X BLEED duct.
Only ENG BLEED system cannot supply 2 packs and WAI.
If you use WAI, the X BLEED valve is automatically closed. Therefore, pack 1 will no longer be supplied.
One engine bleed system can either supply both packs or one pack plus WAI.
When can the APU Bleed FAULT light come ON?

APU bleed FAULT
APU bleed LEAK
Left wing leak
In all the above cases.

Pneumatics System
Explain the ECAM Page:
X-BLEED VALVE OPEN

AIR SUPPLIED FROM APU.
Aircraft is airborne.
On ECAM BLEED PAGE, ENGINE BLEED INDICATIONS are in a box and include
Air pressure in psi and
Bleed air temperature in deg C.
1, 2
What is the meaning of air pressure?

It is Precooler inlet pressure which is normally in green.
It becomes amber, if under 4 PSI, or if overpressure is detected by the BMC (threshold between 57 and 60 PSI).
What is the meaning of air temperature?

Its Precooler outlet temperature and is normally in green.
It becomes amber, if the BMC detects an overheat or low temperature.
1, 2
ANTI ICE indication on ECAM BLEED Page is displayed in white, when the WING pushbutton on the ANTI-ICE
panel is ON.
When the corresponding valve is open, an arrow is displayed in green,
ECAM BLEED page: when is the GND symbol displayed?

Whenever the aircraft is on the ground.
All the time.
Only when a ground air supply is connected.
The Precooler outlet temperature visible on the ECAM is normally in green. It becomes amber, if the BMC
detects an overheat or low temperature.
True.
False.

Pneumatics System

Pneumatics System
By selecting ENG1 BLEED pb sw to ON, bleed valve will not open if:
APU BLEED pushbutton switch is on
There is LH Wing leak
There is ENG 1 Pylon leak.
Fire P/B for ENG1 is pushed.
1,2,3,4
APU leak detection is lost, if BMC1 is lost.

True
False
What happens when APU BLEED pb sw is selected ON?

The APU valve opens if N > 95 % and there is no leak in the APU or in the left side bleed.
X-Bleed Valve opens if in AUTO and If there is a leak on anywhere, the x-bleed valve closes.
The blue ON light comes on
APU BLEED appears in green if the APU is available and the APU BLEED pb-sw is ON.
1, 2, 3,4
What is the meaning of FAULT light in APU BLEED pb sw?

This amber light comes on, and an ECAM caution appears, when the system detects an APU leak.
What is the meaning of FAULT light in ENG 1 and ENG 2 BLEED pb sw?
This amber light comes on, and an ECAM caution appears, if :
‐ There is an overpressure downstream of the bleed valve.
‐ There is a bleed air overheat.
‐ There is a wing or engine leak on the related side.
‐ The bleed valve is not closed during engine start.
‐ The bleed valve is not closed with APU bleed ON.

Pneumatics System
With the X-BLEED selector sw in AUTO :

The crossbleed valve is open if the APU bleed valve is open.
The crossbleed valve is closed if the APU bleed valve is closed or, in case of a wing, pylon, or APU leak .
There is an OEB related to AIR ENG 1(2) BLEED ABNORMAL PR OR AIR ENG 1(2) BLEED FAULT.
Its no is OEB-40
If in taxi-out, you get ECAM of AIR ENG 1(2) LEAK DET FAULT or AIR L(R) WNG LEAK DET FAULT, can you
continue the flight?
Crew awareness.
??
??
With the X-BLEED selector sw in OPEN :

The crossbleed valve is open irrespective of any air leak.
IF SEVERE ICE ACCRETION:

MIN SPD...............................................VLS +10 / G DOT
MANEUVER WITH CARE
LDG DIST PROC...................................................APPLY
What happens if the bleed valve is not closed during engine start?
Related FAULT Light will come
What happens if the bleed valve is not closed with APU bleed ON?
FAULT Light will come in the related ENG BLEED pb sw.

Pneumatics System

Pneumatics System

APU
APU
Maximum altitude for APU bleed operation is:
15, 000 ft
18, 000 ft
20, 000 ft
22, 000 ft
APU generator load can be used upto

20,000 feet
25,000 feet
31,000 feet
39,000 feet
What is the maximum altitude at which the APU may be started using the batteries only?
15, 000 ft
20, 000 ft
25, 000 ft
39, 000 ft
The APU may be started up to what altitude?

The APU can be started at any altitude using normal aircraft electrical power.
The APU can be started up to 25,000 feet using only the aircraft batteries.
What are the maximum altitudes up to which pneumatic and electrical power are used from APU?
20000, 39000 feet respectively.
39000 feet for both loads.
25,000, 30,000 feet respectively.
25000 feet for both loads.
The basic element of the APU is a single shaft gas turbine which delivers power for driving the accessory
gearbox (electrical generator) and produces bleed air (engine starting and pneumatic supply).
True
False
The Electronic Control Box (ECB) is a computer that performs the APU system logic for all modes of APU
operation such as:
Sequence and monitoring of start.
Speed and temperature monitoring.
Monitoring of bleed air and shut down.
All of the above.

APU
For starting APU

Minimum batteries voltage required is 25.5 volts.
For starting APU, there are no minimum BAT voltage requirements.
The APU may obtain power for starting from the aircraft's batteries alone or in combination with the external power, or from ground
service.
To start the APU:

1). BAT 1 and 2 push buttons must be selected to AUTO.
2). APU must be started within 30 min of selecting both BATs to AUTO if BATs voltage > 25.5v.
3). If BAT Voltage is < 25.5v, you need to charge the BATs for 20 min before starting the APU.
4). BAT 1 and 2 push buttons need not to be selected at AUTO if external power is ON.
A.) 1,2,3,4
B.) 1,2,3
C.) 4
D.) 2,4
If the APU is started on batteries only, it should be started within 30 min after the selection
of batteries to AUTO (35 min after battery selection to AUTO, the battery charge is less than 25 % of maximum
capacity). PRO-NOR-SOP-04 P 2/6
What happens when APU master switch is selected ON?

APU ECB carries out the power up TEST & Air intake flap opens,
APU fuel pump operates if no fuel tank pump operating.
APU page appears if a/c supplied by ground power.
What happens when APU master switch is selected ON?

1. Electric power goes to the APU system; the ECB performs a power-up test.
2. The APU air intake flap opens.
3. The APU fuel isolation valve opens and if no fuel tank pump is running, the APU fuel pump operates.
4. If the aircraft has ground power or main generator power, the APU page appears on the ECAM
display.
What happens when APU master switch is selected OFF?

Manual shutdown sequence starts.
‐ The ON light on the MASTER SW pb-sw, and the AVAIL light on the START pb, go out.
‐ The APU keeps running for a cooling period of 120 s at N 100 % speed.
‐ At 7 % the air inlet flap closes.
When the APU Master Switch is switched off, a normal APU shutdown occurs:
Without delay.
With a delay.
The APU keeps running for a cooling period of 120 s at N 100 % speed. DSC-49-20 P 1/6

APU
You switch off the APU but you still have the APU AVAIL indications.
There is a fault with the APU master switch.
This is normal as APU will run for a cooling period of 120 seconds or so because of the APU bleed use.
Fire on ground will cause the APU MASTER SW pushbutton FAULT light to come on but not if in flight.
True.
False.
FAULT light in Master Switch for APU comes on ground, that means:
1. An automatic APU shutdown has taken place.
2. It will trigger ECAM of APU AUTO SHUT DOWN.
3. APU Fire on ground has occurred. It will trigger ECAM of APU EMERG SHUT DOWN.
A. 1, 2
B. 3
C. 1, 2, 3
FAULT light in Master Switch for APU comes in flight, that means:
1. An automatic APU shutdown has taken place.
2. It will trigger ECAM of APU AUTO SHUT DOWN.
3. APU Fire has occurred. It will trigger ECAM of APU EMERG SHUT DOWN.
A. 1, 2
B. 3
C. 1, 2, 3
For the APU MASTER SW FAULT light:

This amber light comes on, and a caution appears on ECAM, when an automatic APU shutdown occurs.
If the batteries are selected OFF while the APU is operating.
When APU START push button is selected on:

It starts the APU if the APU MASTER SW was previously selected ON.
The Green AVAIL light comes on when N is above 99.5 % and Blue ON light goes off.
Both are correct.
When will the APU air intake flap open?

After Master Switch is set to ON.
As in (a) and after pressing START pb switch to ON
(a) is correct only for APU battery start
When would the FLAP OPEN message become advisory?

If air intake flap is not open in 20 seconds after selected master switch on.
If air intake flap is not fully closed after 3 minutes after MASTER switch has been set to OFF
If flaps is closed when APU is running.
There is no advisory for ‘Flap Open’

APU
When does the APU page appear on SD?

As soon as APU master switch is selected ON and aircraft is powered either by EXT PWR or by engine generator
If an advisory condition arise related to APU.
Both are correct.
During APU start, APU system page appears on the lower ECAM:
As soon as APU master switch is selected ON with either ground power or main generator power is used.
As soon as APU starter button is pushed with ground power or main generator is used.
The starter for APU engages if the air intake is open and the MASTER SW and the START pushbuttons are
ON.
True.
False.
The APU obtain power for starting from:

EXT PWR if connected.
Normal aircraft supply if any engine gen running.
The aircraft's batteries only whether any other source available or not..
A and B are correct.
What are the indications when the start sequence is completed?

AVAIL light illuminate on the start switch and ON light goes OFF
AVAIL indication comes on the APU page.
APU AVAIL memo is displayed.
What are the indications when APU reach 95%

Nothing
AVAIL on START p/b switch comes on and APU ECAM page disappears after a little delay..
APU AVAIL memo comes on the upper ECAM also.
For starting the APU

First select Master Swith ON
And then push START pb.
Blue ON light in START pb-sw goes off and AVAIL green light comes on when N is above 99.5 % or 2 s after N
reaches 95 %.
With the engines off, if the AVAIL light is illuminated on both the APU START push button and the EXT PWR
push button, what is the source of electrical power for the aircraft buses?
It is not possible to determine without checking the ECAM.
The aircraft batteries
The APU.
External power.

APU
Will APU rpm vary with different pneumatic loads?

APU runs at 100% irrespective of bleed demand.
N would vary with pneumatic load and it is effected by ECB.
N would vary with pneumatic load and it is effected by ECB and by changing IGV position.
The APU system page will appear on the ECAM:

When selected by the crew.
Automatically whenever the APU is started and AC power is available.
Both are correct.
With battery power, what would an APU fire test look like?
APU FIRE p/b and SQUIB and DISCH lights illuminated without ECAM APU Page
APU FIRE p/b and SQUIB and DISCH lights illuminated with ECAM APU Page
What is the difference between APU ground operation and in flight operation as far as APU fire is
concerned?
On ground APU shuts down automatically and fire bottle is discharged automatically but not in flight.
In flight, APU shuts down automatically and fire bottle is discharged automatically but not on ground.
APU EMER SHUT DOWN is triggered if:

1). APU AUTO Shut Down on ground
2). An APU fire is detected on ground.
3). The ground crew shuts down the APU manually by pushing the APU SHUT OFF pb on the nose gear
interphone panel.
4). The flight crew presses the APU FIRE pb in the cockpit.
A.) 1
B.) 2,3,4
C.) 1,4
D.) 2
In case of fire on the ground in the APU compartment:

1. APU fire warnings operate in the cockpit.
2. A horn in the nose gear bay sounds.
3. The AVAIL light goes out.
4. The FAULT light in the MASTER SW lights up.
2, 3, 4,
1, 2, 3, 4
1, 2
In case of fire on the ground in the APU compartment:

1. The APU shuts down.
2. The APU fire extinguisher discharges.
3. APU keeps running.
1
1, 2
3

APU
In case of APU fire on ground

APU shuts down immediately and fire bottle is discharged automatically.
APU shuts down immediately but fire bottle is not discharged automatically
With nobody in the cockpit, if you have an APU FIRE, which statement is correct?
On the ground, APU EMER shut down will occur and the APU fire bottle will be discharged automatically.
On the ground, you have to perform the ECAM actions to shut down the APU and extinguish the fire from the
cockpit.
On the ground APU AUTO shut down will occur but you have to discharge the APU fire bottle manually.
In the air, an APU EMER shut down will occur and the APU fire bottle will be discharged automatically.
In flight, APU AUTO SHUT DOWN failure message appears. What will be your action ?
No action, since APU is automatically stopped.
There is no checklist for this failure.
Just do the follow up action of Master Switch OFF as per ECAM.
The APU can be shut down from outside the aircraft.

True {using APU SHUT OFF pushbutton on External Power Panel.}
False.
Which oil system warning causes APU auto shut down ?

Low Oil Level, High Oil temp and low oil pressure.
Low Oil Level and Low Oil Pressure
Low Oil Pressure and High Oil temp
High Oil temp and Low Oil level.
Can APU continue to run if the oil level is low.

No, the oil level must be correct otherwise APU shuts down.
Yes, the APU can be run for 10 hrs only
There is no limitation as far as oil low level is concerned and as such APU can continue to run.
As regards, APU ECAM Page:,

APU FLAP OPEN is displayed in green when APU Master Switch ON and APU air intake flap is fully open.
LOW OIL LEVEL Advisory is displayed if APU OIL QTY is Low when a/c is on Ground and the APU is not running.
LOW OIL LEVEL Advisory is displayed if APU OIL QTY is Low when a/c is on Ground and the APU is running.
Both {A} & {B} above are correct.
There is an external horn installed in the nose landing gear wheel well that sounds on ground when
The Flight Crew presses MECH call pb, or APU Fire is detected.
ADIRS are supplied by aircraft battery.
Blowing air pressure in the Avionics Ventilation System is low.
All of the above are correct

APU

Doors
Doors
For Cabin Door, mark the correct answers:
1). If a cabin door is closed & armed, it can be opened from outside. In that case, slide will deploy if
door was armed.
2). If a cabin door is closed & armed, it can be opened from outside. In that case, slide will not deploy
even if door was armed.
3). If a door gets unlocked, an amber door symbol is shown on DOOR / OXY ECAM Page.
4). If a door is disarmed, SLIDE label is shown in amber on ECAM DOOR / OXY page
A.) 1
B.) 2,4
C.) 2,3
D.) 1,3,4
For Cabin Door, mark the correct answers:

1) When the slide arming lever is in the ARMED position, the slide is connected to the floor brackets on
both sides of the door.
2) When the door is opened, the slide inflates and deploys automatically.
3) If the inflation bottle fails to discharge automatically, a crew member can open its valve to make it
perform its function.
4) Opening the door from the outside disarms the door and the escape slide.
Each passenger door has:

1. A mechanical locking indicator that shows whether the door is locked or unlocked
2. One warning light to show whether the escape slide is ARMED or DISARMED
3. One CABIN PRESSURE warning light that warns of residual pressure in the cabin
1, 2, 3
Red CAB PRESSURE warning light on the door:

Illuminates if the door handle is moved towards open when door is armed.
Flashes if the door handle is moved towards open when door is armed
Flashes if the door is opened with engine running
Flashes if the door is disarmed and residual cabin pressure is 2.5 hpa higher than outside
pressure when one engine shut down.
SLIDE ARMED indicator on a Cabin door:

It is a white light
It illuminates if control handle is operated when SLIDE is armed.
Both are correct.
On wing EMERG EXIT doors

1) Are always armed
2) Have dual lane slides
1
2
1, 2

Doors
If you get an ECAM in flight: DOORS L AVIONICS:

1). No crew action required as long as cabin pressure is normal.
2). If CAB V/S is abnormal, then limit maximum flight level to FL 100 or MEA.
3). Avionics doors are of plug type. Therefore, full depressurization may not take place.
All are correct.
How to know from cockpit that a slide is armed?

Call Cabin Attendant and confirm only from the cabin attendant.
On DOOR Page SLIDE appears white near exit symbol
On DOOR Page the exit symbol changes to GREEN
On DOOR Page the exit indication remains amber when slide is not armed
On DOOR/OXY SD PAGE:
1) Door Symbol is Green when the door is closed and locked.
2) Door Symbol is Amber when the door is not locked.
3) Door Indication appears in amber, when the door is not locked.
4) Slide Indication appears in white, when the slide is armed.
1, 2, 3, 4
If a door is open, on DOOR/OXY SD PAGE:

1) Door Symbol is Amber.
2) Door Indication appears in amber.
3) There will be no indications about the Slide.
1, 2, 3
Cockpit window can be operated only from inside.

True
False

Doors

Power Plant
Power Plant
What do you understand by N1?

Rotational speed of LP Spool
Rotational speed of HP Spool
Ratio of air pressure at exhaust to inlet
Temperature of air leaving the engine
What do you understand by N2?

Rotational speed of LP Spool
Rotational speed of HP Spool
Ratio of air pressure at exhaust to inlet
Temperature of air leaving the engine
What do you mean by EPR?

The EPR is the Ratio between:
Engine LP compressor outlet pressure & Engine Inlet pressure.
Engine HP compressor outlet pressure & Engine Inlet pressure.
Engine HP turbine exhaust pressure & Engine LP turbine exhaust pressure.
Engine LP turbine exhaust pressure & Engine Inlet pressure.
What are the primary parameters for the engine?

EPR, N1, N2 EGT and FF.
EPR only.
EGT only.
The engine accessory gear box contain mainly:

Integrated Drive Generator (IDG),
Hyd. Pump,
Start Valve
All of the above
Each FADEC is a dual channel (A&B) computer providing full engine management.
True.
False.
When engines are running, the FADEC is normally powered by:

The RAT
Its own magnetic alternator
The normal aircraft electrical system

Power Plant
Select about FADEC power supply:

1. FADEC is de-energized as soon as fire p/b is pushed {whether on ground or in flight.}
2. FADEC is energized as soon as ENG Mode selector is at IGN/START.
3. FADEC is energized as soon as ENG Mode selector is at Crank.
4. FADEC is energized for 5 minutes when a/c is first powered electrically by EXT/ APU/ ENG
generator.
5. FADEC remains energized for 5 minutes once Master Sw is put to OFF.
A. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
B. 1
C. 2, 3, 4, 5
EPR is a function of:

1. Thrust Lever Angle (TLA)
2. Altitude
3. Mach number
4. Ambient temperature
5. Air inlet total temperature (T2)
6. Service bleed.
1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6

1. Anytime there is an EPR Mode fault, engine goes to N1 Mode
2. There are two types of N1 modes, called as Rated N1 Mode or Degraded N1 mode, depending upon
the failure.
3. In N1 mode, A/THR is lost and power has to be manually set if snag develops in flight.
4. Rated N1 is a go item from MEL point of view and Degraded N1 is no-go item if fault develops before
departure.

1. You may fly with one engine in N1 mode and other engine in EPR Mode
2. You may fly one engine in Rated N1 mode and the other engine in Degraded N1 mode.
3. Both engines must be either in EPR Mode or in N1 mode
1, 2
2, 3
When will mode change from EPR to Rated N1?

1. When P2 (engine inlet total pressure) not available
2. When P5 (LP turbine exit total pressure) not available
3. When ENG N1 MODE pb-sw on the overhead panel is pushed.
4. If T2 Temp input fails.
A. 1, 2, 3
B. 1, 2, 3, 4
C. 4

Power Plant
If Pressure sensors to measure P2 or P5 are failed, engine will revert to:

Degraded N1 Mode
Rated N1 Mode
Degraded N1 Mode.
There will be no effect as such and engine remains in EPR Mode.
If Temperature sensor T2 has failed, engine will revert to:

Degraded N1 Mode
Rated N1 Mode
There will be no effect as such and engine remains in EPR Mode.
N1 power setting is a function of

1. TLA,
2. Altitude
3. Engine inlet total temperature.
4. Mach number
5. Service Bleed
1, 2, 3
1, 2, 3, 4, 5
In which power setting mode, auto thrust is available?

EPR mode and Degraded N1 mode
EPR mode only
EPR mode, N1 rated and N1 Degraded mode
EPR mode and N1 Degraded mode.
When are the N1 rating limit, N1 TLA and maximum N1 indications on ECAM E/WD lost?
In EPR mode,
In N1 rated mode.
In N1 Degraded mode
In {B} and {C} only.

A. In electrical emergency configuration, the EPR mode is lost on both engines, and each FADEC
reverts to degraded N1 mode.
B. An over boost can occur during reversion in the degraded N1 mode, with thrust lever at full forward
position.
C. Both are correct
When both engines are in Degraded N1 mode, to get TOGA power during missed approach:
Move both thrust levers to TO-GA position
Move both thrust levers to MCT position
Move both the thrust levers between MCT & TOGA

Power Plant
The EPR rating limit is computed by FADEC and is displayed on the upper ECAM. If a thrust lever is
set between two detents:
FADEC will select the rating limit corresponding to the thrust lever positions.
FADEC will select the rating limit corresponding to the higher detent.
FADEC will select the rating limit corresponding to the lower detent.
About Thrust Limit Mode / EPR Rating Limit on E/WD:

1. During taxi, it is always TOGA thrust limit mode and TOGA EPR Limit, whatever may be the lever
position.
2. TOGA EPR Limit will change to FLX TO EPR Limit when FLEX T/O Power is applied provided FLEX Temp
was inserted in the MCDU.
3. FLX TO EPR Limit will change to TOGA EPR Limit when Thrust Levers are advanced beyond FLEX gate
even if FLEX Temp was inserted in the MCDU.
4. In flight, even when thrust levers are at idle, it will be CL Mode and limit.
5. When a thrust lever is set between two positions, the FADEC selects the rating mode and limit
corresponding to the higher detente.
A.) 1,2,3,4, 5
B.) 2,3,4
C.) 1,2,3
When Reversers are used {during RTO / landing roll}, the EPR Rating Limit on E/WD will show:
MREV
TOGA
Amber crosses.
What is required for Thrust Mode and EPR Rating Limit on E/WD to change to FLX TO EPR Mode and Limit?
Thrust levers to be at FLEX T/O Power position.
FLEX Temp is inserted in the MCDU T/O PERF page.
Both A & B are required.
The FADEC prevents the thrust from exceeding the limit for the thrust lever position in ______ mode.
Manual
Automatic
Both are correct.
Is there any mechanical linkage between the thrust levers and the engines?
There is a fiber optic backup.
There is a mechanical linkage in case the ECU fails.
No, it is electrically powered and hydraulically actuated.
No, it is totally electrical.
The engines are in the manual mode if A/THR is not armed

True
False

Power Plant
The engines are in the manual mode if the A/THR function is armed but not active.
True
False
A/THR function is active when thrust lever are in the A/THR operating range {i.e. CL gate to slightly
above IDLE position}
True
False
A/THR function is active when alpha floor is activated.

It is irrespective of thrust lever position.
It is subject to Thr. Lever position being at CL gate to slightly above Idle position.
In the auto-thrust mode (A/THR function active), the FMGC computes the thrust, which is limited to
the value corresponding to the
A.) Thrust lever position (unless the alpha-floor mode is activated).
B.) EPR Rating Limit on E/WD

1. If the thrust levers are set beyond CL gate, A/THR is armed but not active.
2. FMA will indicate A/THR in Blue.
3. Engines will produce the thrust as per the lever position {TLA}.
4. E/WD will indicate EPR limit as per the most advanced thrust lever.
1, 2, 3, 4
If crew has inserted a flex takeoff temperature on the MCDU TO PERF page which is less than
current TAT and the thrust levers are in the FLX/MCT detent:
Engines produce FLEX TO Thrust
Engines produce Maximum Continuous Thrust (MCT).
Engines produce Max TO Thrust
Setting the thrust lever out of FLX/MCT detent without reaching TOGA or CL detent has no effect.
True
False
After reducing the thrust levers to CL after TO, if you set thrust levers to FLX/MCT gate, power developed
will be
FLX
MCT
CLB

Power Plant
What does the FLEX represent in the FLX/MCT detent?

This is a reduced thrust setting used for takeoff.
This is the maximum continuous thrust setting for single-engine operations.
This is the thrust setting that should be chosen in the case of a single-engine go-around.
What is required for the FADEC to compute a reduced thrust setting?

A FLEX temperature must be entered on the INIT page of the MCDU.
Nothing, it is an automatic function of the FADEC.
A FLEX temperature must be entered on the TAKE OFF PERF page of the MCDU.
You are just about to take off. You have not inserted a FLEX temperature. Can you still takeoff?
Yes, by setting the thrust levers to the CLIMB detent.
Yes, by setting the thrust levers to the FLEX/MCT detent.
Yes, but only using the TO/GA detent.
Not until a FLEX temperature is inserted.
With a FLX Temp set {or FLEX Mode selected} in the MCDU PERF TO, the CAPT sets the thrust levers to the
TOGA detent.
ECAM ENG THR LEVERS NOT SET occurs.
ECAM ENG TO THRUST DISAGREE occurs.
No warnings occur because TOGA thrust is more than FLX thrust.
Can the engines be over boosted in the TOGA position?

Yes, if the auto thrust function is not active.
No, because the FADEC provides engine protection limit by monitoring N1, N2, and HMU fuel flow
adjustments.
No, because the FADEC is responsible for monitoring N1 and N2 only.
Over boost of engine power is possible in

EPR mode only
EPR & rated N1 mode
Rated and unrated N1 mode
Degraded N1 mode only
During normal operation, in what detent are the thrust levers positioned once the thrust reduction altitude
has been reached?
CLB
MCT
FLX
CRZ
Is any thrust lever action required if an engine failed at rotation while using FLEX takeoff power?
Yes.
No.

Power Plant
When Master switch is selected ON:

LP Fuel Shut Off Valve opens
HP Fuel Shut off valve opens.{ in the FMU.}
Both are correct.
If Master switch is selected OFF:

LP Fuel Shut Off Valve closes
HP Fuel Shut off valve closes.
Both are correct.
How are fuel LP valves closed?

By engine master switch only
By engine master switch or by mode selector through FADEC
By engine master switch or by fire push button
By engine fire push button FADEC
If after coming to gate, you put Master Switch off but on engine # 1 if parameters do not drop and this
engine has not shut down. If you see a FAULT light on engine starting panel that means
LP Fuel shut off valve is closed.
LP Fuel shut off valve is open.
HP Fuel Shut off valve remains open in the FMU.
HP Fuel Shut off valve remains close in the FMU.
FAULT light on engine starting panel is for:

LP Fuel shut off valve
HP Fuel Shut off valve
Both HP Fuel Shut off valve and LP Fuel shut off valve
If after coming to gate, you put Master Switch off but on engine # 1 parameters do not drop and this engine
has not shut down.
1. As per supplementary procedure you should recall Fuel SD page and see LP fuel shut off valve
position.
2. If closed no action as fuel in pipeline will consume and in few seconds engine will shut down on its
own.
3. If open, you need to push related engine fire push button to close LP Valve and engine will shutdown
after few seconds.
1, 2, 3
If after coming to gate, you put Master Switch off but on engine # 1 parameters do not drop and this engine
has not shut down. Your first action should be to push Engine #1 fire push button.
True
False

Power Plant
Which of the following idle modes are used on IAE Engines?

Modulated idle
Modulated idle and Approach idle.
Reverse idle only.
Modulated idle, Approach idle and Reverse idle.
Thrust reversers help in stopping the aircraft by blocking the fan air in the by- pass path and then changing
its direction to forward.
True
False
Deployment of the thrust reverser requires:

1. One FADEC channel operating.
2. Aircraft on ground signal from at least one LGCIU.
3. Engine N2 more than 50%.
4. Throttle Lever Angle signal from the flight control SEC computer 1, 2 or 3.
All of the above.
If SEC1 and SEC2 fail in flight

Both thrust reversers are available
Only No.1 engine reverse thrust is available
Both engines reverse thrust are lost
Only No. 2 engine reverse thrust is available
One of FADEC's functions is thrust reverser control.

True.
False.
For reverser actuation, the left engine uses ____ hydraulic system pressure and the right engine uses _____
hydraulic system pressure.
Green - Yellow.
Yellow - Blue.
Yellow - Green.
Blue - Green.
What is the minimum speed to use Max reverse thrust in case of normal situation?
60 kts
Till aircraft comes to stop
80 kts
70 kts

Power Plant
To operate No.1 engine thrust reverser system

1. Green Hydraulic system pressure should be available
2. LGCIU should sense that a/c is on ground.
3. SEC1 or SEC2 should be available
What are the important guidelines for the use of Reverse Thrust?
1). It is not permitted to select reverse thrust in flight.
2). It is not permitted to back up the aircraft with reverse thrust.
3). Maximum reverse should not be used below 70 kt (or when the airspeed indication starts to
fluctuate).
4). Idle reverse is permitted down to aircraft stop.
5). It is permitted to back up the aircraft with reverse thrust in case of requirements.
A) 1,2,3
B) 1,2,3,4
C) 2,3,4,5
D) 1,3
A few seconds after selecting reverse, the amber REV indication changes to green on EPR gauge of E/WD.
What does this mean?
The reversers have been re-stowed.
The reversers are now fully deployed.
The reverse thrust selection has been acknowledged
The reversers are unlocked.

1. Each engine has one FADEC and each FADEC has two channels
2. Each engine has two sets of igniters called as Igniters A and Igniters B.
3. Each FADEC channel controls both igniters
4. Each FADEC channel controls its related one Igniter.
1, 2, 3
1, 2, 4
During Manual start:

1. Both A & B igniters are supplied when the ENG MASTER sw is set to ON.
2. Both A & B igniters are supplied when the overhead ENG MAN START sw is selected to ON.
3. Both A & B igniters are cut off when N2 reaches 43 %.
2, 3
1, 3
During Relight of the engine IN FLIGHT, both igniters are supplied when
The ENG MASTER sw is set to ON.
The ENG MODE SEL is set to IGN / START

Power Plant
In flight, continuous ignition is on when the ENG START selector is on IGN/START, if the corresponding engine
is running.
True
False
Continuous ignition means both igniters A & B are on.

True
False
Continuous Ignition is automatically selected on the engines in flight when:

Aircraft is passing through severe turbulence.
Wing Anti-ice is selected ON.
Aircraft commences an Emergency Descent...
There is an engine flame-out.
Continuous ignition is automatically selected when:

1. Flex or TO/GA thrust is selected.
2. ENG ANTICE switch is ON
3. When Approach Idle is selected.
4. Engine surge on stall occurs in flight.
A.) 1,2,3,4
B.) 1,2,3
With the ENGINE MODE Selector in NORM, will ignition be provided if an engine flameout is detected in
flight?
Yes
No
During auto start on ground, which ignition is used?

IGN ‘A’ only
IGN ‘B’ only

Power Plant
Alternatively IGN ‘A’ or IGN ‘B’

Always both IGN ‘A’ and IGN ‘B’
If FADEC detects impending hung start or hot start both IGN ‘A’ and IGN ‘B’ will be on after fuel recovery logic.
True
False
On ground, after engine start, how would you select continuous ignition on the engine?
Ensure ENG START selector is left in the IGN/START position.
Cycle the ENG START selector to NORM , and then back to IGN/START if selector was left at IGN/START after
engine start.
Select the ENG MAN START pb on the overhead panel, causing ignition to turn on as the engine N1 speed is at
or above ignition cut-off RPM.
Operationally, which engine do we start first? Why?

No.2 so that we have yellow hyd system
No1 so that we have green hyd system.
What are your selections for auto start of the engine?

Engine mode set to IGN/START, and master switch ‘ON’
Engine mode set to norm, and master switch ON
Engine mode set to IGN/START, Man start to ON, and master switch ‘ON’
Engine mode se to IGN/START, Master switch ON and MAN START ON till N2 reaches 43%
During starting of engine {automatic or manual}; when you select the ENG MODE selector to IGN/START,
what happens?
FADEC is energized.
S/D displays ENG page.
Pack Flow Control Valves close.
All are correct.

1. Pack Flow Control Valves will close when you select Engine Mode selector to IGN /START.
2. Valves will remain closed for 30 sec and will reopen if engines are not started within this time of 30
secs.
3. Valves will re-open after 30 secs of both engine start, if ENG Mode Selector is left at IGN / START.
4. If one engine is started but then there is a delay of more than 30 secs in starting the second engine,
Pack Valves will open after 30 secs and will close when you put Master Switch of second engine to on.
A.) 1,3
B.) 1,2,3,4

Power Plant
C.) 1,3,4
Select the correct sequences once you put ENG Master Switch to ON during an automatic start sequence:
1. Fuel used is reset to zero, start valve opens, N2 start rotating, oil pressure rise takes place.
2. Dry Cranking sequence takes place.
3. Ignition A or B comes up, Fuel flow registers and as such EGT rise takes place.
4. At 43 % N2, start valve closes and Ignition is cut-off.
5. At 50% N2, Ignition is cut-off.
A.) 1,3,4
B.) 1,2,3,4
C.) 1,2,3,5
If during AUTO Start on ground, FADEC detects a hot start, hung start or no light up,
1. FADEC will apply a Fuel- Recovery Logic before 43% N2 in which FF is set to zero for half sec and both
igniters will be switched On.
2. If the problem persists, an ECAM caution of ENG START FAULT will appear with M/C & SC.
3. If the problem persists, FADEC will shut off the fuel and turn off the ignition, but this is possible until
50% N2.
4. You will have to perform the dry crank of the affected engine.
1,2,3,4
1,2,3
1,2
What happens after N2 goes beyond 43% during AUTO start of the engine?
FADEC closes Start Valve at 43% N2.
FADEC stops ignition at 43% N2.
Pack Flow Control Valve re-opens after 30 seconds if other engine is not started within these 30 seconds.
All of the above
What happens when N2 goes beyond 50% during AUTO Start?

FADEC can run an abort sequence if there is a hot start, hung start or no light up until N2 is 50%.
FADEC will not run an abort sequence if there is a hot start, hung start or no light up once N2 is above 50% and
as such if EGT of the engine goes above 635◦C after 50% N2, crew will have to take appropriate decision.

AVAIL will be steady when there is a successful engine start on ground
AVAIL will pulse green if there is a successful start in flight {Re-light of engine in flight}
Both are correct
During engine start the amber FAULT light on the ENG MASTER panel illuminates. This indicates:
A failure in the automatic start sequence.
A failure of the ENG MODE SELECTOR.
A failure in the engine fire extinguishing system.
A faulty FADEC.

Power Plant
What abnormal situations would cause the FADEC to automatically abort a start?
A hot start, an overtemp, a stalled start or no lightoff.
An engine overspeed.
A hot start, a stalled start, an overtemp or APU underspeed.
A hot start, an overtemp or an engine overspeed.
During an in-flight start or a manual start, will the FADEC auto abort for an abnormal?
Yes. It will for an in-flight start (but not for a manual start).
Yes
No.
FADEC can do the abort start provided it is auto- start and

N2 is less than 55%
N2 is less than 43%
N2 is less than 50%
N2 is less than 57%

A. FADEC provides auto abort for an abnormal during Auto Start only.
B. FADEC provides auto abort for an abnormal during Auto Start and Manual start only.
C. FADEC provides auto abort for an abnormal during Relight of Engine in flight only.
D. FADEC provides auto abort for an abnormal Auto Start, Manual Start and Relight of Engine.

A. FADEC provides auto cranking for an abnormal during Auto Start only.
B. FADEC provides auto cranking abort for an abnormal during Auto Start and Manual start only.
C. FADEC provides auto cranking abort for an abnormal during Relight of Engine in flight only.
D. FADEC provides auto cranking abort for an abnormal Auto Start, Manual Start and Relight of Engine.

A. FADEC provides EGT Protection during Auto Start only.
B. FADEC provides EGT Protection during Auto Start and Manual start only.
C. FADEC provides EGT Protection during Relight of Engine in flight only.
D. FADEC provides EGT Protection during Auto Start, Manual Start and Relight of Engine.
During an automatic start, the FADEC controls:

The start valves, igniters and fuel flow.
The start valves, igniters, HP and LP fuel valves.
The igniters and fuel flow.
The start valves, igniters, HP and LP fuel valves, and fuel flow.
Fuel flow is not controlled by FADEC during Manual Start.

True
False
FAULT amber light comes ON in engine control panel due to

Fuel LP valve is in disagreement
Either Fuel HP valve is in disagreement or start valve fault

Power Plant
Either Fuel HP valve or LP valve is in disagreement

Start valve is in disagreement
During FADEC FAULT

Confirm engine failure by engine parameters in upper ECAM
Confirm engine failure by secondary engine parameters in lower ECAM
Confirm engine failure by system pages such as HYD, ELEC or BLEED
Both (B) and (C) are correct.
Does the FADEC provide EGT limit protection in all phases of flight?
Yes, in all phases of flight.
No, EGT limit protection is only available during auto starts.
No, EGT limit protection is only available during auto starts and single-engine operations.
During the automatic start sequence of ENG 2, you notice that only igniter B is powered. Is it normal?
Yes, igniter A is only used for engine anti-ice.
No, normally both igniters are used for all engine starts.
Yes, igniter B is always used for ENG 2 start.
Yes, igniters are used alternately for engine auto start.
How does the start valve open during a manual engine start?
It opens, by manual command, when the MAN START Pb is selected on.
It opens automatically when the Eng Mode Selector is selected to IGN/START.
It opens automatically when the Master switch is selected to On.
How does the start valve close during a manual engine start?
It closes, by manual command, when the MAN START Pb is selected off.
It closes automatically when the IGN/START switch is selected to NORM.
It closes automatically when N2 increases more than 43%.
Which steps of a manual start are being taken care of by the FADEC?
Passive monitoring of the start sequence , Starter valve closure and ignition cut off.
Passive monitoring of the start sequence, Starter valve opening and ignition start.
Starter valve closure and ignition start.
Starter valve opening and ignition cut off.
During manual start,

Only A igniter is used
Both igniters A & B are used
Only B igniter is used
In case of MAN START for engines,

Power Plant
You have to shed some of electrical loads to increase bleed pressure if N2 does not reach 15%.
If electrical supply is interrupted during start sequence, you have to abort the start by selecting Master Switch
OFF and you have to do a 30 secs of dry cranking.
What takes place when we push the MAN START button?

The start valve opens if the ENG MODE selector is set to IGN/START and N 2 < 10%.
Both pack valves close during the start sequence.
The blue ON light illuminates.
In case of MANUAL start of the engine, what happens when you place MASTER SWITCH to ON?
Both igniters come on.
LP & HP Fuel Valves open and FF is registered.
When N2 reaches 43%, start valve close and ignition cuts off.
All of the above.
How do you carry out dry cranking cycle?

Mode selector to CRANK, and engine master switch ON
Mode selector to CRANK, MAN START pb to ON and master switch to OFF
Mode selector to CRANK, MAN START pb to ON and master switch to ON
Mode selector to NORMAL, MAN START pb to ON for 30 seconds.
For starting the engine, THR LEVERS have to be at IDLE. If THR LEVERS are not at idle, you should expect:
No light up.
Thrust to rapidly increase to the corresponding thrust lever position causing a hazardous situation.
ECAM caution of ENG START FAULT with M/C & S/C.
Both {B} & {C} are correct.
During an engine start sequence, the gray background on N2 disappears after 57%. What does this indicate?
That the igniters are no longer being powered.
That the start sequence has finished and all engine parameters have stabilized.
That the start valve air pressure has dropped.
That there is a start fault and a dry crank is in progress.
During cross bleed start what should be the position of the bleed switches?
Both engines bleeds ON
Both engines bleed OFF
Receiving engine bleed OFF, running engine bleed ON
Receiving engine bleed ON, running engine bleed OFF

Power Plant
For ENG RELIGHT in flight:

Start Valve engagement limit is below 18% of N2.
Start Valve engagement limit is same as on ground i.e. below 10% N2.
For ENG RELIGHT in flight, engine light up time is same 20 sec as on ground.
False
True
About engine relight in flight:

No attempt should be made to restart the engine if there are indications of engine damage or if engine was
shutdown due to fire.
If outside the windmilling start envelope, FADEC will open the starter valve.
Be aware that crew must take appropriate action in case of abnormal start.
All are correct.
During Relight of engine in flight,

1). FADEC will open the start valve if a/c is outside stabilized wind milling envelope.
2). FADEC will open the start valve if a/c is within the stabilized wind milling envelope.
3). Engine Light up must be achieved within 30 seconds.
4). Engine Light up limit does not apply in flight.
A.) 1,3
B.) 2,3
C.) 2, 4
D.) 3, 4.
During Re-light in flight, if engine is showing signs of hung start, will FADEC perform auto-start abort?
A.) Yes, FADEC has authority to abort the start in case of in-flight abnormal start.
B.) No, FADEC doesn’t have the authority of start abort in flight.
C.) Yes, FADEC has authority to abort the start in case of EGT Over limit in flight.
D.) None of the above
For relight of an engine in flight, no attempt should be made to restart an engine,

A) If there are indications of engine damage,
B) If the engine had been shut down because of an engine fire.
C) If there is a recognizable possibility that an attempted relight may result in fire.
D) All of the above.

Power Plant
What is the minimum oil temperature before starting the engines?

+ 50 Deg. C
- 10 Deg. C
- 40 Deg. C
+ 155 Deg. C
What is the minimum oil temperature before taxi-out?

+ 50 Deg. C
- 10 Deg. C
- 40 Deg. C
+ 155 Deg. C
What is the minimum oil temperature before takeoff power?

+ 50 Deg. C
- 10 Deg. C
- 40 Deg. C
+ 155 Deg. C
What is the maximum continuous oil temperature allowed for engine running?
165 Deg. C
150 Deg. C
157 Deg. C
155 Deg. C
What is the minimum oil quantity in the tank before starting the engine?
17 quarts
12 quarts
11 quarts + Estimated consumption (0.3 qt/ hr)
12 quarts + Estimated consumption (0.3 qt/ hr)
What is the Max N1 and N2 allowed

100% N1 102% N2
100% N1 & 100% N2
100% N1 and 109% N2
100% N1 & 105% N2
What is the maximum EGT during starting of the engine?

590 Deg. C
610 Deg. C
635 Deg.C
745 Deg. C
What is the maximum EGT during FLEX Take – Off?

610 Deg. C
635 Deg.C

Power Plant
What is the maximum EGT during TOGA Take – Off?

610 Deg. C
635 Deg.C
What is the time limit if taking off with FLEX TO Power?

A. 5 min
B. 10 min in case of single engine
C. Unlimited, in case of single engine.
What is the time limit for MCT power?

5 min
10 min
Unlimited
For engine starting,

Light up timing is 20 sec on ground.
Light up timing is 30 sec in flight.
All are correct.

Power Plant
N1 indication will pulse red when

N1 is above N1 rating limit
N1 is above 100%
N1 is above 109%
Actual EGT is normally green but pulses amber, when EGT is above 610 °C
1. During the start sequence,
2. During high power operation (FLEX takeoff or thrust lever above MCT}
3. During maximum REV,
4. In case of activation of alpha-floor.
1, 2, 3, 4
Actual EGT is normally green but pulses red, when EGT is above 635 °C.
True
False

Max EGT amber index appears at 610 °C.
It is not displayed during takeoff.
Both are correct.
When does oil quantity indication begin to pulse?

Decreasing below 5 qts.
During engine start.
Oil quantity detector or pressure fault.
What are the indications for the engine stall?

ENG STALL ECAM with master warming, CRC
ENG STALL ECAM with master caution, single chime
ENG SD page
1, 3
2, 3
What are the indications for the engine stall?

1. Abnormal engine noises,
2. Fluctuating Performance Parameters
3. Sluggish or no throttle response
4. High EGT and/or a rapid EGT rise when thrust lever is advanced. High or a rapid EGT rise
1, 2, 3, 4
What are the indications if oil pressure drops below 80 psi but above 60 psi?
1. ENG 1(2) OIL LO PR ECAM,
2. Master Caution, SC
3. Master Warning, CRC
4. ENG page on Lower ECAM
1, 3, 4
1, 2, 3
1
4

Power Plant
What are the indications if oil pressure drops below 60 psi?

1. ENG 1(2) OIL LO PR ECAM,
3. Master Warning, CRC
1, 3, 4
1, 2, 3
1, 4
What are the indications if the oil temperature exceeds the maximum limit?
1. ENG 1(2) OIL HI TEMP ECAM,
1, 2, 3
1, 3
{Oil TEMP between 155 and 165 °C for more than 15 min, or oil TEMP above 165 °C.}
For an ECAM of ENG 1(2) OIL FILTER CLOG:

1. This ECAM is triggered if oil is suspected to be clogging the filter before entering the engine.
2. This ECAM is triggered if oil is suspected to be clogging the filter after leaving the engine.
3. If message appears during cold engine start with low engine oil temp, temporarily run engine at idle for 5
min.
4. If message disappears, no maintenance is required.
2,3,4
1,3,4
ECAM of ENG START FAULT can come in case of:

1. No light up, or
2. ENG stall or
3. Overtemp, or
4. Hung start, or
5. EEC not capable to open start valve.
All of the above
AUTO Dry Cranking takes place if there is an ECAM ENG START FAULT and
NO LIGHT UP
HOT START
HUNG START or STALL during start
All of the above

Power Plant
What is the meaning of ‗B‘ and ‗C‘ as shown in the above picture of EPR Indication?
(B) EPR Command (EPR trend)

The green needle corresponds to the EPR demanded by the FADEC. In addition, next to the EPR
command needle, a green triangle indicates the direction of EPR tendency.
These symbols are displayed when A/THR is active.
(C) Transient EPR

Symbolizes the difference between the EPR command and the actual EPR. It is only displayed when
A/THR is active.
DSC-70-95 P 6/36
Mechanic will communicate with the cockpit crew with the help of service interphone jack during Engine
Start in “Start Valve not Opening Procedure”. Which transmission key on the ACP will be selected?
CAB
MECH
ATT

1. One engine can operate in Rated N1 and other engine can operate in Degraded N1 mode.
2. One engine can operate in Rated N1 and other engine can operate in EPR mode.
3. Both engines have to be either in EPR Mode or N1 Mode.
A. 1,3
B. 1
C. 3

Miscelleneous
Q.5 If you have to refer for Manual Start Procedure for Engine, where will you look for it?
A. Refer DSC part of FCOMs
B. Refer PRO part of FCOMs
C. Refer PER part of FCOMs.
GEN P 2/30GEN P 2/30 / PRO-SUP-70
Q.6 If you have to refer for Technical Systems for Engine, where will you look for it?
A. Refer DSC part of FCOMs
B. Refer PRO part of FCOMs
C. Refer PER part of FCOMs.
GEN P 2/30
Q.7 An OEB provides the crew with technical information and temporary operational
procedures that address some temporary deviations.
1. OEBs can either be red or white, depending on their level of priority.
2. OEBs are temporary and usually focuses on one operational subject only,
3. Non-compliance of Red OEBs may have a significant impact on the safe
operation of the aircraft.
4. Non-compliance of WHITE OEBs may have a significant impact on
aircraft operation.
A. 1, 2, 3, 4
B. 1, 3
C. 3
OEB-GEN P 1/10
Q.8 Limitations for RAM AIR INLET states that open it only if differential pressure is lower than
1 PSI.
A. True
B. False
LIM-21-21_10
Q.9 Do not use conditioned air simultaneously from packs and HP ground unit (to avoid
chattering of the non return valves).
A. True
B. False
LIM-21-21_10
Questions Miscelleneous Page 381 of 428

Miscelleneous
Q.10 Maximum positive differential pressure limitation is:

A. 9.0 psi
B. 8.6 psi
LIM-21-21_20
Q.11 Use of the auto-thrust is approved without, AP/FD in:

A. Selected modes only
B. Managed modes only
C. Both the selected and managed modes.
LIM-22-10 P ¼
Q.12 Can you extend Slats or Flaps at FL 100?

A. Yes
B. No
LIM-27 P 1/2
Q.13 Can we say that MAXIMUM ALLOWED WING FUEL IMBALANCE is same irrespective of the
fuel quantity in the heavier wing tank?
A. True
B. False
LIM-28 P 1/4
Q.14 MINIMUM FUEL QUANTITY FOR TAKEOFF:

A. 1 500 KG
B. 2500 Kg for sharklet types of a/c.
LIM-28 P ¼

Miscelleneous
Q.15 Can you Takeoff with Centre tank fuel feeding to engines?
A. Yes
B. No
LIM-28 P ¾
Q.16 In one of your flight, there are two observers but flight crew oxygen bottle pressure is
reading 1200 psi. Can you depart? Consider ref temp as 30 degrees Celsius.
A. Yes
B. No
LIM-35 P 1/2
Q.17 You come to the gate for parking. You start APU but it auto shuts down. How many start
attempts may be made?
A. 2
B. 3
C. Unlimited
LIM-49-10 P 1/2
Q.18 Select correct statements:

1) APU may be started at FL 390 in EMER ELECT CONFIG..
2) APU may be started at FL 390 if you are starting APU with one main gen available.
3) APU GEN may be used at FL 390 if needed.
4) APU Bleed cannot be used above FL 200 even if required.
5) You may use APU Bleed for Wing Anti-Ice.
A. 1,2,3,4
B. 2, 3, 4, 5
C. 2, 3, 4
LIM-49-10 P ½
Q.19 OEBs have to be reviewed before each flight by the crew.

A. Yes
B. No
PRO-NOR-SOP-04 P 5/6

Miscelleneous
Q.20 2 autopilots must be engaged in APPR mode and CAT 3 DUAL must be displayed on
the FMA in case of:
A. CAT III with DH
B. CAT III without DH
C. For both of the above.
LIM-22-20 P ¼
Q.21 When both PFDs are lost, the ISIS bugs function can be used.
A. True
B. False
LIM-34 P ½
Q.22 Can you start and operate the APU even if the LOW OIL LEVEL ECAM advisory is
displayed.
A. Yes
B. No
LIM-49-10 P 1/2
Q.23 What is the maximum EGT limit during FLEX Take – Off?
A. 610 Deg. C
B. 635 Deg.C
LIM-70 P ½
Q.24 What is the minimum oil temperature before takeoff power?
A. + 50 Deg. C
B. -10 Deg. C
C. -40 Deg. C
D. + 155 Deg. C
LIM-70 P ½

Miscelleneous
{You may use QRH, wherever required}
Q.1 If you have to refer for Manual Start Procedure for Engine, where will you look for it?
D. Refer DSC part of FCOMs
E. Refer PRO part of FCOMs
F. Refer PER part of FCOMs.
Correct answer is B
GEN P 2/30GEN P 2/30 / PRO-SUP-70
Q.2 Can you Takeoff with Centre tank fuel feeding to engines?
C. Yes
D. No
Correct answer is B
LIM-28 P ¾
Q.3 Mark the correct statements:

1. In case of Engine start sequence, both the pack flow control valves close.
2. In case of pushing any one engine Fire pushbutton, pack flow control valve on the
related side only will close.
3. When Ditching push button is pressed, both the pack flow control valves close.
A. 1, 3
B. 1, 2, 3
C. 2
Correct answer is B
DSC-21-10-50 P 2/8
Q.4 ACSC 1 controls:

1). Cockpit trim air valve
2). FWD cabin trim air valve
3). AFT cabin trim air valve
A. 1,
B. 2,3
C. 1,2,3
Correct answer is B
DSC-21-10-10 P 2/2
Q.5 When Avionics Ventilation System is working in GND Mode, the following Configurations are
possible in normal operation:
1). Open Configuration
2). Intermediate Configuration
3). Close Configuration
D. 1,3

Miscelleneous
E. 2,3
F. 1,2,3
Correct answer is B
DSC-21-30-20 P 2/8
Q.6 What is  as indicated in the SD page?

A. Pack bypass valve position
B. Pack flow
C. Pack flow control valve
D. User Indication
Correct answer is B
DSC-21-10-50 P 4/8
Q.7 The Airline Modifiable Information (AMI), or the FM Airline Configuration file, contains:
6. Airline policy values
7. Fuel policy values
8. Company routes, alternates
9. Engine model
10. Performance model
E. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
F. 1, 2
G. 1, 2, 3
H. 4, 5
Correct answer is B

Miscelleneous
DSC-22_10-10 P 3/6
Q.8 If both the FDs are on.

A. FMGC1 is master
B. FMGC2is master
Correct answer is B
DSC-22_10-30 P 2/6
Q.9 GPS PRIMARY is displayed on the MCDU PROG page only if the GPIRS position fulfils
A. The integrity criteria,
B. The accuracy criteria,
C. Both the integrity and the accuracy criteria,
Correct answer is B
FCTM / SI-030 P 3/8
Q.10 If GPS function is lost:

1. GPS PRIMARY LOST message is displayed on the ND.
2. GPS PRIMARY LOST message is displayed on the MCDU scratchpad.
3. Navigation Accuracy is downgraded immediately and you should perform the NAV
ACCURACY Check.
E.) 1,2
F.) 1,2,3
G.) 2,3
H.) 1,3
Correct answer is B
DSC-22_20-20-20 P 5/
Q.11 Select the correct statements:

A. In dual mode, each FMGC simultaneously tunes the navaids on its own side.
B. In Independent mode, each FMGC simultaneously tunes the navaids on its own side.
C. In single mode, the valid FMGC tunes navaids on both sides.
D. All are correct.
Correct answer is B
DSC-22_20-20-30
Q.12 When selecting the guarded RMP NAV key:

A. Manual tuning via the MCDU RAD NAV page is still possible.

Miscelleneous
B. FMGC auto tuning is inhibited.

C. Manual tuning via the MCDU RAD NAV page is only possible on the offside radio.
Correct answer is B
DSC-34-30-30
Q.13 When the aircraft is flying a MANUAL leg, the NAV mode remains engaged and predictions assume
that the aircraft will fly a direct leg from its present position to the next waypoint (DIR TO).
A. True
B. False
Correct answer is B
DSC-22_20-30-10-05 P 4/10
Q.14 Name the factor which is used to correct predicted fuel flow if a/c performance differs from
performance model stored in the FMGS Database?
A. IDLE FACTOR
B. PERF FACTOR
C. COST INDEX
Correct answer is B
DSC-22_20-40-30 P 13/18
Q.15 Select the correct statements

A. FD bars are automatically restored in SRS/GA TRK modes at go-around engagement.
B. If FPV/FPD was previously selected, it reverts to FD bars.
Correct answer is B
DSC-22_30-20 P 4/6

Miscelleneous
Q.16 During a go-around, when the approach was previously flown in NAV, APP NAV or FINAL APP
modes, the NAV mode remains engaged, unless a HDG/TRK was preset.
A. True
B. False
Correct answer is B
Q.17 During descent, FCU target altitude is set above the current a/c altitude:
A. Pitch mode reverts to V/S and a/c maintains the current rate of descent.
B. A/THR engages in speed mode.
C. Both {A} & {B} are correct.
Correct answer is B
Q.18 For all Non Precision Approaches, there is a minimum OAT. Below this temperature, the error on
the barometric altitude is no longer acceptable, and altitude should be corrected in temperature.
A. True
B. False
Correct answer is B
Q.19 Mark the correct statements about protection speeds:

1. Protection speeds like Vα PROT, Vα MAX and VSW are computed by the FAC, based on
aerodynamic data.
2. They are only used for display on the PFD, and not for flight control protection.
3. The activation of the protections is computed by the ELAC.
A. 1, 2
B. 1, 2, 3
Correct answer is B
DSC-22_40-30

A. “TOGA LK” in green, surrounded by a flashing amber box will appear on FMA when the aircraft
leaves the α-floor conditions.
B. “TOGA LK” in green, surrounded by a flashing amber box will appear on E/WD when the aircraft
leaves the α-floor conditions.
Correct answer is B

A. When SRS is engaged, Speed function is managed.
B. When EXPED mode is engaged, speed function is managed.
Correct answer is B
Miscelleneous
DSC-22_30-40 P ¼
Q.22 The GS mini value is not displayed to the flight crew.

A. True
B. False
Correct answer is B
DSC-22_30-90 P 12/14
Q.23 When GS Mini function is active, in Tailwind gust:

1. IAS target decreases
2. IAS decreases.
3. Thrust slightly decreases.
A. 1,3
B. 1, 2, 3
C. 2, 3
Correct answer is B
Q.24 What message will occur in the case of a Datalink Communication loss between the aircraft and
ground?
A. A COM DATALINK STBY ECAM message is displayed.
B. A pulsing green DATALINK STBY memo message is displayed.
C. A steady green DATALINK STBY memo message is displayed.
Correct answer is B
Q.25 When a/c is in ELEC EMER CONFIG with EMER GEN in line,
A. Engines loose EPR Mode and go to Degraded N1 Mode.
B. After landing, Thr Rev 1+2 along with Anti –Skid and Nose Wheel Steering are not available.
C. FMGC1 is lost but can be regained.
D. All are correct.
QRH / 24.01A
Correct answer is B
Q.26 Which of the following AC buses are powered by the emergency generator?
AC bus 1
AC bus 2
AC ESS bus
Correct answer is B
DSC-24-10-30-30 P 10/10

Miscelleneous
Q.27 About Circuit Breakers:

4. On ground, do not reengage the C/B of the fuel pump(s) of any tank.
5. Do not pull the circuit breakers for SFCC (could lead to SLATS/FLAPS locked) or for EEC and
EIU.
6. Do not pull the circuit breakers for BSCU (Brake Steering Control Unit) if the aircraft is not
stopped.
D.) 1,2,3
E.) 1,2
F.) 3
Correct answer is B
PRO-SUP-24 P 2/112

Miscelleneous
Q.28 AGENT 2 DISCH light goes off, when the Agent 2 squib is ignited.
A. True
B. False
Correct answer is B
DSC-26-50-20

A. Left aileron is operated by Blue Hydraulics and is controlled by ELAC 1.
B. Left aileron is operated by Green Hydraulics and is controlled by ELAC 2.
C. Left aileron is operated by Blue and Green Hydraulics simultaneously and is controlled by ELAC 1.
D. Left aileron is operated by Blue and Green Hydraulics simultaneously and is controlled by ELAC 1
and ELAC 2 simultaneously.
Correct answer is B
DSC-27-10-20 P 1/18
Q.30 In normal law, what is the maximum bank angle you can reach with the side stick fully deflected?
A. 33°
B. 49°
C. 67°
D. 70°
Correct answer is B
DSC-27-20-10-30 P 2/2
Q.31 Which of the following will automatically reset after landing?

A. THS.
B. Rudder trim.
Correct answer is B
DSC-27-20-10-20 P 1/6
Q.32 FQI degradation is indicated as last two digits dashed amber for FOB as well as fuel Quantity in any
tank.
A. True
B. False
Correct answer is B
DSC-28-20 P 9/18
Q.33 If any time fuel quantity indication for centre tank is boxed amber, Fuel On Board (FOB) indication is
half-boxed in amber.
A. True
B. False
Correct answer is B

Miscelleneous
DSC-28-20 P 8/18
Q.34 The PTU Fault light illuminates when the:

A. PTU is inoperative.
B. Green or yellow reservoir has low air pressure.
C. PTU pump is overheated.
Correct answer is B
DSC-29-20 P 3/8
Q.35 If the second engine is started within 40 seconds following the end of the cargo door operation,
HYD PTU FAULT is triggered.
A. Cycling the YELLOW ELEC PUMP to ON then OFF will clear this ECAM.
B. Cycling the PTU p/b to OFF then AUTO will clear this ECAM.
C. No action required on crew part as it will disappear after some time on its own.
D. Only {A} and {B} are correct.
Correct answer is B
Q.36 TAT probes are heated on the ground.

A. True.
B. False.
Correct answer is B
DSC-30-50-10 P ½
Q.37 β target reverts to sideslip indication:

A. When Flaps Lever is retracted at Zero
B. When Flaps Lever is retracted at “1”.
C. When THR LVR is placed at MCT position
Correct answer is B
DSC-31-40 P 4/32
Q.38 Landing Memo appears

A. After selecting the L/G down
B. Below 2000 with L/G down
C. Below 2000 even without L/G down
D. Once the slats are extended during approach
Correct answer is B
DSC-31-15 P 5/6

Miscelleneous
Q.39 When will an UNLK red light extinguish in LDG GEAR indicator panel during L/G operation?
A. During retraction when gear is up locked and hydraulically operated doors are closed.
B. During extension when gear is down locked and hydraulically operated doors are closed.
C. Whenever gear reaches the selected position.
D. Both (a) and (b) are correct.
Correct answer is B
DSC-32-10-40 P 1/8
Q.40 On ECAM WHEEL page, an amber cross in place of a triangle means:

A. The affected LGCIU has detected L/Gear is up locked.
B. The LGCIU1 or LGCIU2 has failed.
C. There will never be amber cross on ECAM WHEEL page of A320.
Correct answer is B
DSC-32-10-40 P 4/8
Q.41 Each ADR receives input from pitot / static probes. ADIRU 3 receives input from
A. STBY probes and Capt TAT
B. STBY probes and Cap AOA
C. STBY probes and F/O TAT
Correct answer is B
DSC-34-10-10 P 4/8
Q.42 Can PAC Alert be indicated for cells in the range of 100-130 NM from a/c?
A. No
B. Yes
Correct answer is B
DSC-34-60-30 P 2/8
Q.43 With PWS in AUTO, the system scans for wind shear spots and are displayed on ND even if wx radar
is off.
A. True
B. False
Correct answer is B
DSC-34-60-20 P 1/4
Q.44 In case of low accuracy of the aircraft position, the predictive functions of the GPWS are
automatically deactivated.
A. True
B. False
Correct answer is B

Miscelleneous
DSC-34-70-35 P 1/8

With ILS1 failure,
1. ILS 2 takes over.
2. Mode 5 of GPWS is inhibited.
3. Consequently, the FAULT light does not come on and the GPWS FAULT warning is not
triggered.
A. 1
B. 1, 2
C. 1, 2, 3
Correct answer is B
DSC-34-70-40 P 1/4
Q.46 If the TERR ON ND is OFF, and if the predictive functions of the GPWS generate a warning,
A. The terrain is automatically displayed on both the NDs
B. ON light of both of the TERR ON ND pushbuttons comes on
Correct answer is B
DSC-34-70-40 P 3/4
Q.47 While taking-off:

A. All TA messages are inhibited below 600ft AGL in climb.
B. All RA are inhibited below 1100 ft AGL in climb and the RAs are converted into TAs.
Correct answer is B
DSC-34-80-10 P 7/8

A. The use of Reverse Thrust is not permitted in flight.
B. It is not permitted to back up the aircraft with reverse thrust.
Correct answer is B
LIM-70 P 2/2
Q.49 Continuous ignition is automatically selected when:

5. Flex or TO/GA thrust is selected.
6. ENG ANTICE switch is ON

Miscelleneous
7. When Approach Idle is selected.

8. Engine surge on stall occurs in flight.
A. 1,2,3,4
B. 1,2,3
Correct answer is B
DSC-70-80-30 P 2/2
Q.50 In case of Emergency Evacuation Procedure after landing, who advises the ATC?
A. PF
B. PM
Correct answer is B
FCTM / AO-020 P 6/24

A320 TECHNICAL PAPER FOR PILOTS
Time: 60 min.
Total Marks: 100
All questions carry equal marks.
Q.25 If you have to refer for Technical Systems for Engine, where will you look for it?
D. Refer DSC part of FCOMs
E. Refer PRO part of FCOMs
F. Refer PER part of FCOMs.
GEN P 2/30
Q.26 You come to the gate for parking. You start APU but it auto shuts down. How many start
attempts may be made?
D. 2
E. 3
F. Unlimited
LIM-49-10 P 1/2
Q.27 There are two Packs, however both are required for dispatch of the aircraft.
A. True
B. False
ME-21 P 1/8

1). Cabin pressurization system has one RPCU
2). Cabin pressurization system has two RPCUs
3). Cabin pressurization system has two Cabin Pressure Controllers (CPC)
4). Cabin pressurization system has one Cabin Pressure Controllers (CPC)
A. 2, 3
B. 1, 3
C. 2, 4
D. 1, 4
DSC-21-20-10 P ¼
Test Paper 2015 – 01B Page 397 of 428

Time: 60 min.
Total Marks: 100
Q.29 What happens during smoke drill when both the blower and the extract p/b switches are set
to override.
A. Only the extract fan will stop
B. Both the blower and the extract fan will stop working
C. The Blower fan stops and the extract fan remains energized.
D. Both the blower and the extract fan remain energized.
DSC-21-30-60 P ¼
Q.30 The individual databases can be

C. Independently loaded into their respective FMGC,
D. Independently copied from one FMGC to the other.
DSC-22_10-10 P 3/6
Q.31 The pilot interfaces with the FMGS using the:

A. FCU only
B. FCU, MCDU &Thrust Levers.
C. FCU & MCDU
DSC-22_10-10
Q.32 The FM position update at takeoff is inhibited when GPS PRIMARY is active.
A. True
B. False
DSC-22_20-20-10 P 6/8
Q.33 The FMGS updates the FM position via the use of GPS or radio navaids and it uses a
priority rule for FM position update. What is the order of priority for determining
FM position?
The decreasing order of priority is:
A. IRS-GPS, IRS-VOR/DME IRS-DME/DME, IRS only.
B. IRS-GPS, IRS only, IRS-DME/DME, IRS-VOR/DME,
C. IRS-GPS, IRS-DME/DME, IRS-VOR/DME, IRS only.
DSC-22_20-20-10 P 7/8
Q.34 In the event of FMGC1 failure, Nav tuning shall be

A. ILS 1 tuning by RMP1, ILS 2 auto tuned by FMGC2

Time: 60 min.
Total Marks: 100
B. Only ILS 2 tuning available on RMP 2

C. ILS 1 & 2 both available only by respective RMPs
D. ILS 1 & 2 both auto tuned by FMGC 2
DSC-22_20-20-30
Q.35 What is managed climb speed below 10,000 feet?

A. Green dot.
B. 210 knots.
C. 250 knots.
D. Best rate of climb speed.
FCTM / NO-060 P 2/4
Q.36 A temporary F-PLN is created whenever a revision is performed on either of the following
pages:
1. The F-PLN A pages
2. The F-PLN B pages
3. The LAT REV page
4. The VERT REV page
DSC-22_20-30-10-18 P 1/58
Q.37 The AP will disengage when:

1. High speed protection activates
2. Angle-of-attack protection activates
3. When ALPHA FLOOR is activated
4. Bank angle exceeds 33 °
A. 1,2,3,4
B. 1, 2, 3
C. 4
D. 1, 2
DSC-22_30-30 P 2/4
Q.38 Q.1 At 30 feet after Take-Off, lateral modes engaged on FMA will be any one of the
following:
1. NAV
2. RWY TRK
3. RWY
4. HDG

Time: 60 min.
Total Marks: 100
A. 1
B. 1, 2
C. 3
D. 1, 2, 4
Q.39 During climb, ALT* means:

A. A/C is acquiring a selected altitude.
B. A/THR will be in THR CLB mode when ALT* is engaged.
C. All of the above are correct.
Q.40 In a managed DES mode, if aircraft is below profile, what is A/THR mode?
A. THR IDLE
B. SPEED
A.
Q.41 “TOGA LK” surrounded by a flashing amber box on FMA, indicates that:
A. α -floor conditions are persisting and thrust commanded is TO/GA.
B. Aircraft has left α -floor conditions and TOGA thrust is locked.
C. Auto-thrust is disconnected as aircraft has left α -floor conditions.
Q.42 ALPHA FLOOR calls up the following indications:

1) “A FLOOR” in green, surrounded by a flashing amber box on the FMA,
2) “A FLOOR” in amber on the engine warning display, (as long as α-floor
conditions are met)
3) “A FLOOR” in amber, surrounded by a flashing amber box on the FMA
A. 1
B. 1,2
C. 2,3
Q.43 Can the selected speed/Mach target may be set beyond VLS or VMAX?
A. Yes, but when auto-thrust is active, the guidance limits the speed to VLS or VMAX.
B. No, never.
DSC-22_30-40 P 2/4
Q.44 During climb, if you disconnect both AP/FDs, you can have:
A. Only Selected SPEED,
B. Only Managed SPEED ,
C. Any of managed or selected SPD.
Q.45 In case of FCU 1 + 2 Failure:

1. FMA is lost except in LAND or GA mode.

Time: 60 min.
Total Marks: 100
2. ROSE NAV mode with map (80 nm range) is displayed on ND.

3. Red “WXR RNG” message is displayed on ND and the weather radar image may be
lost. If the image remains displayed it must be disregarded.
A. 2, 3
B. 1, 2, 3
PRO-ABN-22 P 12/18
Q.46 ACARS uses some of the following systems for Data communication:
1. VHF1
2. VHF2
3. VHF3
4. HF1
5. HF2
A. 1, 2, 4, 5
B. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
C. 1, 2, 5
D. 3, 4
DSC-23-10-20
Q.47 The DC BAT BUS is normally powered by:

DC BUS 2
DC BUS 1 and DC BUS 2
DC BUS 1
DSC-24-10-10 P 2/2
Q.48 When both generators fail in flight and the aircraft goes into ELEC EMER CONFIG:
1. Flight is powered by BATs as long as EMER GEN is not powered {for about 8
seconds}.
2. BAT 1 supplies Static Inverter and in turn AC ESS Bus during this time.
3. BAT 2 supplies DC ESS Bus
4. Meanwhile RAT lowers automatically as aircraft speed is more than 100 kts.
5. Crew must lower the RAT manually and must not delay in lowering the RAT.
1, 2, 3, 4
DSC-24-10-30-30 P 4/10

Time: 60 min.
Total Marks: 100
Q.49 The purpose of the BUS TIE in AUTO is to allow either GEN to automatically power both
main AC buses in the event of a generator loss until either ground power or the APU
generator is activated.
A. True.
B. False.
DSC-24-20 P 4/18
Q.50 When the FWD SMOKE light comes on, the flight crew selects AGENT 1 with the FWD
toggle switch to perform ECAM actions.
A. True
B. False
DSC-26-50-20
Q.51 On the FLT CTL SD page, the ailerons have two neutral indications. What is the difference
between the two?
A. To show the tolerances when LAF is operating.
B. To show the tolerances when only one Aileron Jack is operative.
C. One for clean configuration and the other for slats extended (Aileron droop).
D. One for clean configuration and the other for flaps extended (Aileron droop).
D is correct DSC-27-20-30 P 11/14
Q.52 What happens if you release the stick at 40 degrees of bank?

A. The bank stays at 40°
B. The aircraft rolls back to 25°
C. The aircraft rolls back to 33° and resumes flight path stability.
D. The aircraft rolls back to a bank angle less than 29°
DSC-27-20-10-30 P 2/2
Q.53 In the Fuel System on A320:

5. Two electrical transfer valves are mounted in each wing to permit fuel transfer
from outer to inner tank.
8. Center tank pumps are not fitted with suction valves and therefore, gravity feeding
is not
G) 1,2,4
H) 1,3,4
I) 1,2,3,4
DSC-28-10-30 P 1/8
Q.54 The message OUTER TK FUEL XFRD appears in the MEMO. What does it mean?
It is a reminder to show that at least one transfer valve is open in one wing tank.
Fuel is transferring from the center tank to the inner tank.
It is a reminder to open the outer tank transfer valve.
Time: 60 min.
Total Marks: 100
Fuel is transferring from inner tank to outer tank
DSC-28-30 P 3/14
Q.55 Fluid can be transferred between hydraulic systems.

True
False
DSC-29-10-10 P ½
Q.56 What happens to PTU with PTU push button at AUTO when aircraft makes a single engine
landing with No1 engine shut down?
PTU runs in flight and stops as soon as both main landing gears are compressed.
PTU runs in flight and continues to run even after landing but PTU will stop if you apply
parking brake.
PTU runs only after landing and pressurize Green hydraulic system by using Yellow Hyd.
Pressure.
DSC-29-10-20 P 2/6
Q.57 Window heat operation begins:

Automatically after the first engine start.
if the PROBE/WINDOW HEAT push button is selected ON by the crew prior to engine start.
Both are correct.
DSC-30-40-10 P 1/2
Q.58 Probe / Window heat switch is in the Auto position.

A.) Probe heating will start only after any one engine is started.
B.) As in (a) and TAT probe is heated at low level on ground and at normal level in flight.
C.) As in (a) and Pitot probe heating is at low level on ground and at normal level in flight
D.) As in (a) and AOA probe heating is at low level on ground and at normal level in flight.
DSC-30-50-10 P ½

If T.O. CONFIG p/b is pressed before Take-Off, CONFIG warning will be triggered if
1. Slats and Flaps are not in Take off configuration.
2. Pitch Trim is not in Take Off range.
3. Parking brake ON
A. 1
B. 3,
C. 1, 2
D. 1, 2, 3
DSC-31-15 P 6/6

Time: 60 min.
Total Marks: 100
Q.60 After selecting the gears down, if one UNLK indication remains on, the landing gear
position can be confirmed using the WHEEL SD page (information from LGCIU 1 &
2). Only one green triangle on each landing gear is sufficient to confirm that the
landing gear is down locked.
True
False
DSC-32-10-40 P 1/8
Q.61 Which hydraulic system supplies pressure to the nose wheel steering?
Green
Blue
Green and Blue.
Yellow.
DSC-32-20-10 P 3/4
Q.62 What are the inputs to STBY Altimeter?

A. STBY PITOT and STBY STATIC
B. STBY STATIC
C. STBY PITOT
DSC-34-10-10 P 4/8
Q.63 The radar display modes are

A. WX, WX+T, TURB, MAP.
B. WX, WX+T, TURB.
FCTM / SI-070 P 2/6
Q.64 GPWS operates in the following five modes. Select the correct order of five
modes:
A. 3,2,1,4,5
B. 1,2,3,4,5
C. 2,1,3,4,5

Time: 60 min.
Total Marks: 100
D. 1,3,2,4,5
DSC-34-70-10 P ½
Q.65 When the TERR pb-sw ON ND is set to ON, and ARC or ROSE mode is selected,
the ND displays the terrain memorized in the database, depending on the
aircraft‘s position.
A. True
B. False
DSC-34-70-35 P 3/8
Q.66 If the flight crew briefly presses this button, when mode 5 alert is heard, the
GPWS light goes out and the aural alert stops. Which is this button?
A. GPWS p/b on instrument panel
B. G / S MODE pushbutton on overhead panel.
DSC-34-70-40 P 2/4
Q.67 Even with mode selector at TA/RA, TCAS will not display RAs, TAs or any
intruders if the transponder is on STBY.
A. True
B. False
DSC-34-80-20 P 1/8
Q.68 In case of TCAS, a red square on ND indicates:

A. TA intruder
B. RA intruder
C. Proximate intruder
DSC-34-80-20 P 2/8
Q.69 TCAS STBY is displayed in green, when Both ATC are failed.
A. True
B. False
DSC-34-80-30 P 2/2

Time: 60 min.
Total Marks: 100
Q.70 After taxi out, if you get ECAM of NAV IR DISAGREE, it is NO DISPATCH.
A. True
B. False
ME-34 P 6/8
Q.71 X-BLEED Valve will not close automatically if it is in OPEN position and a leak
is detected by BMCs.
True
False
DSC-36-10-40 P 1/2
Q.72 During manual start,

A. Only A igniter is used
B. Both igniters A & B are used
C. Only B igniter is used
DSC-70-80-30 P 1/2
Q.73 During Manual start:

1. Both A & B igniters are supplied when the ENG MASTER sw is set to ON.
2. Both A & B igniters are supplied when the overhead ENG MAN START sw is selected
to ON.
3. Both A & B igniters are cut off when N2 reaches 43 %.
A. 2, 3
B. 1, 3
DSC-70-80-30 P 1/2
Q.74 The crew will keep in mind that as long as the evacuation order is not triggered,
the crew may differ or cancel the passengers' evacuation. As soon as the
evacuation order is triggered, this decision is irreversible.
A. True
B. False
FCTM / AO-020 P 6/24

Time: 60 min.
Total Marks: 100
Q.1 An OEB provides the crew with technical information and temporary operational
procedures that address some temporary deviations.
1. OEBs can either be red or white, depending on their level of priority.
2. OEBs are temporary and usually focuses on one operational subject only,
3. Non-compliance of Red OEBs may have a significant impact on the safe
operation of the aircraft.
4. Non-compliance of WHITE OEBs may have a significant impact on
aircraft operation.
D. 1, 2, 3, 4
E. 1, 3
F. 3
OEB-GEN P 1/10
Q.2 Select correct statements:

6) APU may be started at FL 390 in EMER ELECT CONFIG..
7) APU may be started at FL 390 if you are starting APU with one main gen available.
8) APU GEN may be used at FL 390 if needed.
9) APU Bleed cannot be used above FL 200 even if required.
10) You may use APU Bleed for Wing Anti-Ice.
D. 1,2,3,4
E. 2, 3, 4, 5
F. 2, 3, 4
LIM-49-10 P ½
Q.3 The air conditioning system is fully automatic.

C. True
D. False
DSC-21-10-10 P ½
Q.4 In cruise, you find cabin V/S is fluctuating up and down and is uncomforting to you as well
as to pax. You want to switchover the Cabin Pressure Controller and it is done by:
A. Selecting the Cabin Pressure MODE SEL p/b to MAN and then back to AUTO.
B. As in (A) but the MODE SEL should be left in MAN for at least 10 sec
C. The switch over may be carried out not more than twice in a flight.
D. Both (A) and (C) are correct

Time: 60 min.
Total Marks: 100
DSC-21-20-40 P 1/6
Q.5 While applying the relevant procedure in case of total loss of the cabin pressure control
leading to overpressure.
1) Switch OFF PACK 1 or 2.
2) Switch OFF PACK 1 + 2.
3) Switch OFF PACK 1 + 2 in case ΔP >9 PSI.
4) 10 min before landing switch OFF PACK 1 + 2.
A. 1
B. 2
C. 1, 3, 4
D. 3
QRH 21.01A
Q.6 Which of the database has to be updated every 28th day?

E. The Navigation database
F. The Airline Modifiable Information (AMI)
G. The Aircraft Performance database
H. The Magnetic Variation database
DSC-22_10-10 P 3/6
Q.7 If no AP/FD is engaged, A/THR is controlled by

A. FMGC1.
B. FMGC 2.
DSC-22_10-30 P 2/6
Q.8 When a GPIRS position is available, it overrides the RADIO position, if available.
Therefore, the FMS position tends toward the GPIRS position.
A. True
B. False
FCTM / SI-030 P 3/8
Q.9 When the GPS PRIMARY status is lost,

1. The "GPS PRIMARY LOST" message is displayed on the MCDU and the ND.
2. It is possible to clear the scratchpad message on the MCDU, but not on
the ND.
3. During a non-ILS approach, a triple-click aural warning is also triggered.
A. 1, 2
B. 1, 2, 3

Time: 60 min.
Total Marks: 100
DSC-22_20-20-20 P 5/

1. The FMGS automatically tunes the radio navaids for computation of the radio position.
2. Manual tuning has priority over automatic tuning.
3. In dual mode and independent mode, each FMGC simultaneously tunes the navaids on its
own side.
4. In single mode, the valid FMGC tunes navaids on both sides.
A. 1,2,3,4
B. 1,3,4
DSC-22_20-20-30
Q.11 What is managed climb speed above 10,000 feet?

A. Green dot.
B. 250 knots.
C. 280 knots.
D. Econ Climb Speed.
FCTM / NO-060 P 2/4
Q.12 Predictions are computed, continually updated and displayed on the pages of the
temporary flight plan.
A. True
B. False
DSC-22_20-30-10-05 P 10/10
Q.13 Even if AP/FDs are off, you get:

1. Pitch bar
2. Roll bar
3. Flight Path Director
4. Flight Path Vector
A. 1, 2
B. 1, 2, 3, 4
C. 3, 4
D. 4
DSC-22_30-20 P 1/6
Q.14 Due to ATC requirements, you are given a new take-off clearance in which you have to
maintain runway HDG after airborne. As such you use HDG / TRK selector and set the new
HDG in the window. After airborne:
1. NAV will not get engaged at 30 ft.

Time: 60 min.
Total Marks: 100
2. RWY TRK will get engaged passing 30 ft on FMA until HDG/TRK knob
is pulled.
3. HDG/TRK will get engaged when HDG/TRK knob is pulled.
A. 1, 2
B. 1, 3
C. 2, 3
D. 1, 2, 3
Q.15 With ALT* engaged, if the target altitude is changed by any value greater than 250 ft,
A. ALT* remains engaged
B. V/S engages on currents V/S
Q.16 Insertion or deletion of a holding pattern or change of the SPD target during descent
modifies the DES profile.
A. True
B. False
Q.17 The characteristic speeds displayed on the PFD are computed by the Flight Augmentation
Computer.
A. True
B. False
DSC-22_40-30
Q.18 During deceleration, the low-energy warning is triggered normally before alpha floor.
A. True
B. False
DSC-22_40-30
Q.19 When the FMGC is powered up in flight after resets, initial speed function will be:
A. Selected
B. Managed
DSC-22_30-40 P ¾
Q.20 During descend, if you disconnect both AP/FDs, you can have:
A. Only Selected SPEED,
B. Only Managed SPEED ,

Time: 60 min.
Total Marks: 100
C. Any of managed or selected SPD.
Q.21 In case of FCU 1 + 2 Failure, do not insert the MDA (MDH) value on the MCDU PERF
APPR Page.
A. True
B. False
PRO-ABN-22 P 12/18
Q.22 The CAPT and CAPT/PURS sw. on the EVAC panel in the cockpit is selected to CAPT
position. What happens when the CMD pb on FWD (or AFT) attendant panel is pressed?
A. Evacuation alert is activated only in the cabin.
B. Only the EVAC light flashes red on the O/H EVAC panel.
C. Only the cockpit horn sounds for 3 seconds.
D. The cockpit horn sounds for 3 seconds & EVAC lt. on O/H EVAC panel flashes red, but no
evacuation tone is activated in the cabin.
DSC-23-20-60 P 1/2
Q.23 BATs are not always connected to DC BAT Bus.

A. True
B. False
DSC-24-10-10 P 2/2
Q.24 When both generators fail and the aircraft goes into ELEC EMER CONFIG, which buses are
powered {FLT on BATs}?
1. AC ESS
2. DC ESS
3. AC ESS SHED
4. DC ESS SHED
A. 1, 2
B. 1, 2, 3, 4
DSC-24-10-30-30 P 7/10
Q.25 If during a normal flight the BUS TIE push button is `OFF', what effect would this have on
the power to the buses?
A. None.
B. All power would be lost and the aircraft would be powered by the batteries until the RAT gets
deployed and EMER GEN comes on line.
C. This is not possible as the bus tie contactors are locked out during flight.

Time: 60 min.
Total Marks: 100
DSC-24-20 P 4/18
Q.26 60 min after the discharge of the first bottle, the AGENT 2 DISCH light appears which
indicates that the flight crew has to discharge AGENT 2 to maintain the required
extinguishing concentration..
A. True
B. False
DSC-26-50-20

A. Right aileron is operated by Green Hydraulics and is controlled by ELAC 1.
B. Right aileron is operated by Blue Hydraulics and is controlled by ELAC 2.
C. Right aileron is operated by Blue and Green Hydraulics simultaneously and is
controlled by ELAC 1.
D. Right aileron is operated by Blue and Green Hydraulics simultaneously and is
controlled by ELAC 1 and ELAC 2 simultaneously.
DSC-27-10-20 P 1/18
Q.28 When the landing gear is extended, pitch alternate law:

A. Remains the same.
B. Degrades to pitch direct law.
C. Degrades to pitch backup law.
DSC-27-20-20 P 3/8
Q.29 Which pumps keep running throughout the flight?

A. Wing Tank pumps
B. Center tank pumps
C. All respective pumps will automatically turn off once fuel in the tank is consumed completely.

Time: 60 min.
Total Marks: 100
DSC-28-10-30 P 1/8
DSC-28-10-30 P 3/8
Q.30 The Fuel Tank Inerting System only is installed

A. Only in the centre tank.
B. Both inner tanks
C. Inner tanks and centre tank
D. In outer tanks only.
DSC-28-10-90 P ½
Q.31 Which hydraulic systems have engine driven pumps?

A. Green and blue.
B. Green and yellow.
C. Blue and yellow.
DSC-29-10-20 P 4/6
Q.32 Just after any one engine start, how many Hyd. Systems are pressurized?
A. One
B. Two
C. All the Three
DSC-29-10-20 P 4/6
Q.33 In case of a QRH procedure of COCKPIT WINDSHIELD/WINDOW CRACKED:

4. If no crack is observed on the cockpit side, flight can be continued at the assigned Flight
level as inner ply is not affected and as such there is no limitation.
5. If crack is observed on the cockpit side, you have to maintain max FL230/MEA and a
differential cabin pressure of 5psi.
6. If crack is observed on the cockpit side, you have to maintain max FL230/MEA but there
is no limitation as far as cabin differential pressure of 5psi.You may keep cabin
differential pressure to 8 psi.
A. 1,2,3
B. 1,2
PRO-ABN-80 P 8/28
Q.34 Mark the correct statement:

1. On ground, with engines not running, if you need heating for the probes/windows, you
have to push probes/windows p/b to on.
2. In case of electrical failure to the valves, Engine Anti-Ice Valve closes.
3. In case of electrical failure to the valves, Wing Anti-Ice Valve opens.
4. All probes are heated at low level on ground whereas TAT probe is not heated on ground.
5. WHC 1 & WHC 2 are two independent computers controlling the heating of Windshields
and Side windows.
Time: 60 min.
Total Marks: 100
A. 1,2,3,4,5
B. 2,3,4
C. 1,5
D. 1,4,5
DSC-30-20-10 P ½
DSC-30-30-10 P ½

On application of take-off power, CONFIG warning will be triggered if
1. Slats and Flaps are not in Take off configuration.
2. Pitch Trim is not in Take Off range.
3. Parking brake ON
A. 1
B. 3,
C. 1, 2
D. 1, 2, 3
DSC-31-15 P 6/6
Q.36 During the approach if you get master warning and ECAM “L/G GEAR NOT
DOWNLOCKED”, this indicates that gear are not selected down.
A. True
B. False
DSC-32-10-40 P 1/8
DSC-32-10-50 P 2/4
Q.37 The green DECEL light on the Autobrake switch illuminates when the actual
airplane deceleration corresponds to ______ % of the selected rate.
A. 80%
B. 90%
C. 92%
D. 95%
DSC-32-30-20 P 3/8
Q.38 If RA No 1 fails what are the degradations

A. RA fled on Capt. PFD
B. FAULT light on GPWS SYS switch, CAP 3 GPWS IN OP SYS of STATUS page
C. Loss of Radio Alt indication on Capt. PFD
D. All the above.

Time: 60 min.
Total Marks: 100
PRO-ABN-34 P 49/72
A. WX+T and TURB modes detect wet turbulence within 40 nm,
B. WX+T and TURB modes are not affected by the gain.
C. Both statements are correct.
FCTM / SI-070 P 2/6
Q.40 GPWS Mode One gives warning of:

A. Excessive descent rate.
B. Excessive terrain closure rate.
C. Unsafe terrain clearance when not in the landing configuration.
D. Height loss after take-off/missed approach.
DSC-34-70-20 P 1/6
Q.41 The terrain is displayed in various densities of green, yellow, red, or magenta,
depending on the threat.
A. True
B. False
DSC-34-70-35 P 3/8
Q.42 The terrain is displayed on the ND if the TERR ON ND pushbutton is ON and :

1. TERR pb-sw is selected ON.
2. TERR FAULT light is not on.
3. TERR STBY ECAM memo is not displayed.
4. The FMGS navigation accuracy is high.
A. 1
B. 1, 2, 3
C. 1, 2, 3, 4
DSC-34-70-40 P ¾
Q.43 Even with mode selector at TA, TCAS will not display TAs or any intruders if
the ALT RPTG switch is OFF.
A. True
B. False
DSC-34-80-20 P 1/8

Time: 60 min.
Total Marks: 100
Q.44 If the range of an intruder is not available, the intruder is not displayed.
A. True
B. False
DSC-34-80-20 P 2/8
Q.45 TCAS STBY is displayed in green, when Both RA are failed.

A. True
B. False
DSC-34-80-30 P 2/2
Q.46 After taxi out, if you get ECAM of NAV ADR 1 FAULT, you can depart.
A. Yes
B. No
MI-34-10 P 1/6
Q.47 What will happen if a leak is detected on ENG 2 pylon?

A. The bleed valve 2 will close automatically.
B. The x-bleed valve will close automatically.
DSC-36-10-40 P 1/2
DSC-36-10-20 P 2/4
Q.48 Maximum reverse should not be used below 70 kt (or when the airspeed
indication starts to fluctuate).
A. True
B. False
LIM-70 P 2/2
Q.49 If an engine failure occurs at low speed,

A. The resultant yaw may be significant
B. Below 72 kts, the ground spoilers will not deploy and the auto brake will not activate.
FCTM / AO-020 P 1/24

Time: 60 min.
Total Marks: 100
Q.50 When applying the EMERGENCY EVACUATION procedure, the F/O can
select the engine masters OFF and push the FIRE p/b, without any confirmation
from the Captain.
A. Yes
B. No.
FCTM / AO-020 P 6/24

Time: 60 min.
Total Marks: 100
Q.75 Limitations for RAM AIR INLET states that open it only if differential pressure is lower than
1 PSI.
C. True
D. False
LIM-21-21_10
Q.76 OEBs have to be reviewed before each flight by the crew.

C. Yes
D. No
Q.77 From which of the cabin crew panel, cabin zone temperature can be modified that
is selected from the cockpit?
E. From Forward Attendant Panel {FAP] and Aft Attendant Panel {AAP}
F. From FAP only
G. From AAP only
DSC-21-10-10 P ½
Q.78 How reduce the cabin differential pressure?

1). Select the MODE SEL to MAN on the Cabin Press Panel.
2). Hold the MAN V/S CTL Sel. to UP to increase the V/S of cabin, thereby increasing the
Cabin Alt.
3). Hold the MAN V/S CTL Sel. to DN to increase the V/S of cabin, thereby increasing the
Cabin Alt.
A. 1,2
B. 1,3
DSC-21-20-40 P 2/6
Q.79 While applying the relevant procedure in case of total loss of the cabin pressure control
leading to overpressure:
1) LAND ASAP and Switch OFF PACK 1 + 2 in case ΔP >9 PSI.
2) Cabin pressure will reduce if BLOWER + EXTRACT are switched to OVRD position.
A. 1
B. 2
C. 1, 2
QRH 21.01A
2015 – 02 Page 418 of 428

Time: 60 min.
Total Marks: 100
Q.80 The Navigation database contains standard navigation data.

C. True
D. False
DSC-22_10-10 P 3/6
Q.81 If both APs are engaged,

A. FMGC1 is master.
B. FMGC 2 is master.
DSC-22_10-30 P 2/6
Q.82 The RNP is displayed in the REQUIRED field of the

A. PROG page.
B. PERF page.
C. INIT A page
DSC-22_20-20-20 P 1/8

A. When GPS primary is available, the navigation accuracy check is not required.
B. When GPS primary is not available, pilot must perform the Navigation Accuracy Check,
periodically in cruise and at FL100 in descent.
PRO-NOR-SOP-15
Q.84 The FMGC automatically tunes ADF, only when the flight plan specifies a Non Directional
Beacon (NDB) approach and a fix in the approach is the “TO” waypoint.
A. True
B. False
DSC-22_20-20-30 P 2/8
Q.85 The SECONDARY flight plan which the flight crew may use:
5. When an alternate takeoff runway is probable
6. To plan a diversion
7. To prepare the next flight
8. To compare predictions or evaluations.
A. 1
B. 2
C. 1, 2, 3
2015 – 02 Page 419 of 428
Time: 60 min.
Total Marks: 100
D. 1, 2, 3, 4
DSC-22_20-30-05 P 1/2
Q.86 A TMPY F-PLN cannot be created when a DIR TO is already in process.

A. True
B. False
DSC-22_20-30-10-18 P 2/58
Q.87 Select the correct statements for FD Bars:

A. The pitch bar is displayed if a vertical mode is engaged and HDG V/S selected on the FCU.
B. The roll bar is displayed if a lateral mode is engaged and HDG V/S selected on the FCU.
DSC-22_30-20 P 1/6
Q.88 nAV is disarmed by selecting HDG PRESELECT while taxied-out.

Under this scenario, on reaching ACCL ALT, which mode will be engaged for AP/FD
Pitch?
A. In this case, SRS will remain engaged as it will not disengage automatically.
B. OP CLB
C. V/S and a/c will maintain current vertical speed.
Q.89 In the above question, a triple click sounds, and the V/S is boxed white for additional 10 s if
the flight crew does not confirm the altitude target change by any one of the following
actions:
1. Pulling the ALT knob
2. Setting a new V/S (or FPA) target
3. Pushing the V/S or FPA knob on the FCU
4. Pushing the HGD knob on the FCU
A. 1, 2, 3, 4
B. 1, 2, 3
C. 4
D. 1
Q.90 A go around is mandatory during a CAT II/III approach if:

A. FMA does not display LAND Green below 350 ft RA
B. The AUTO LAND warning light illuminates during approach
2015 – 02 Page 420 of 428

Time: 60 min.
Total Marks: 100
C. Both are correct
Q.91 ALPHA FLOOR is a protection that commands

A. TOGA thrust, if thrust levers are at CL position.
B. TOGA thrust, if thrust levers are at IDLE position.
C. TOGA thrust, regardless of the thrust levers’ positions.
DSC-22_40-30
Q.92 When ALPHA FLOOR is activated, regardless of the initial status of A/THR and the position
of the thrust levers, the A/THR activates.
A. True
B. False

A. In case of a dual FM failure during approach with LOC and G/S engaged and radio height <
700 ft, the target speed is set to VAPP as previously memorized.
B. In case of a dual FM failure during go-around, the target speed becomes the memorized go-
around speed.
C. Managed SPD target is maintained in both the cases.
DSC-22_30-40 P 4/4
Q.94 Can the selected speed/Mach target be set beyond VLS or VMAX?
C. Yes, but when auto-thrust is active, the guidance limits the speed to VLS or VMAX.
D. No, never.
Q.95 After pressing the APPR button, what do you check for?
A. 1,2
B. 1,3
C. 1,2,3
Q.96 What is the meaning of the green AVAIL light in EXT PWR p/b?
A. External power is plugged in and parameters are normal.
B. External power is available to the batteries only.
C. The external power panel door has been opened
D. External power is supplying the aircraft systems
DSC-24-20 P 5/18
Q.97 The AC BUS 1 normally supplies power to:
2015 – 02 Page 421 of 428

Time: 60 min.
Total Marks: 100
TR2 and AC ESS

TR1 and AC ESS
TR2 and DC Bus 2
DSC-24-10-10 P 2/2
Q.98 When both generators fail and the aircraft goes into ELEC EMER CONFIG:
AC ESS BUS is fed from BAT 1 through STAT INV till RAT extends.
AC ESS BUS is fed from Emergency generator after the RAT extends.
AC ESS BUS is not powered below 50 kt speed.
DSC-24-10-30-30 P 10/10
Q.99 About CIRCUIT BREAKERS, select the correct statements:

1. Green CBs are monitored and when out for more than 1 min, the C/B
TRIPPED is triggered on the ECAM.
2. If you clear the ECAM C/B TRIPPED caution by pressing CLR p/b and if the
C/B remains pulled, any additional tripped circuit breakers on the same panel
will not be detected, and the ECAM will not trigger the caution.
3. If you clear the ECAM C/B TRIPPED caution by pressing EMER CANC p/b,
it clears and inhibits the ECAM C/B TRIPPED caution for the remainder of
the flight.
A.) 1,2
B.) 1,3
C.) 1,2,3
DSC-24-10-20 P 3/4
Q.100 Bottle 2 takes approximately 90 min to completely discharge & is controlled by a flow
metering system.
A. True
B. False
DSC-26-50-20
Q.101 If SEC 1 fails, Spoilers 3 and 4 are lost on both wings.

A. True
B. False
DSC-27-10-20 P 1/18
Q.102 Which actins cause the side stick priority RED ARROW light illumination in F/O side
and CAPT green light?
1. When F/O‟s side take over pb is pressed
2. When CAPT‟s side take over pb is pressed.
3. Capt‟s side stick is not in neutral
2015 – 02 Page 422 of 428
Time: 60 min.
Total Marks: 100
4. F/O‟s side stick is not in neutral.

A. 1, 3
B. 2,4
C. 4
D. 3
DSC-27-20-30 P 6/14
Q.103 After engine start, its respective center tank fuel pump runs for ______ minutes regardless
of the slat position.
1 minute.
2 minutes.
3 minutes.
5 minutes.
DSC-28-10-30 P 5/8
Q.104 In fuel tank Inerting system:

A. Oxygen-depleted air is supplied to Centre tank.
B. Nitrogen - depleted air is supplied to Centre tank.
DSC-28-10-90 P 1/2
Q.105 The RAT pressurizes

The Blue hydraulic system
DSC-29-10-20 P 4/6
Q.106 You get a G RSVR OVHT message. Why does the ECAM procedure ask you to switch the
PTU off first?
DSC-29-10-20 P 4/6
FCTM / AO-029 P 1/4
Q.107 With ref. to PROBE / WINDOW HEAT pb , which of the following statements is true ?
System should only be selected ON in icing conditions.
When in AUTO mode, windows are heated only when necessary.
Window heating comes ON with the first engine start.
The system should only be selected ON after the first engine start.
2015 – 02 Page 423 of 428

Time: 60 min.
Total Marks: 100
DSC-30-50-20 P 1/2
Q.108 Select correct statements for Engine Anti system:

1. The valve automatically closes, if air is unavailable (engine not running).
2. When an engine anti-ice valve is open, the EPR limit is automatically reduced and, the
idle EPR is automatically increased for both engines.
3. If electrical power fails, the valves open.
4. When EAI is used, ECAM Memo “ENG A. ICE” is shown
5. When EAI is used, ECAM Memo of “IGNITION” also appear as continuous ignition is
selected when the valve is opened.
A. 2,3,4,5
B. 1,2,3,4,5
C. 2,3,4
DSC-30-30-20 P ½
DSC-30-30-10 P ½
Q.109 There are two LGCIUs.

1. They control the extension and retraction of the gear
2. They control the operation of the gear doors.
3. They also supply information about the landing gear to ECAM for display,
4. They send signals indicating whether the aircraft is in flight or on the ground to other
aircraft systems.
A. 1, 3
B. 1, 3, 4
C. 1, 2, 3, 4
DSC-32-10-10 P 1/6
Q.110 The landing gear indicator panel receives the electrical supply from:
2015 – 02 Page 424 of 428
Time: 60 min.
Total Marks: 100
BSCU
LGCIU 2
LGCIU 1
Any LGCIU which is in command.
DSC-32-10-40 P 1/8
Q.111 Rejecting the take-off at 65 kts, which facilities are not available?
A) Ground spoilers and auto brakes.
B) Auto brakes and manual brakes.
C) Manual brakes and thrust reversers.
D) Thrust reversers only.
DSC-32-30-10 P 4/8
Q.112 Radio Height is displayed on the PFD:

A. Below 2500 feet.
B. When the LOC or APPR p/b is pressed.
C. When a Decision Height is selected.
DSC-34-40-10 P 1/2
Q.113 Which is the aural warning associated with Predictive windshear?

A. "WINDSHEAR AHEAD"
B. “WINSHEAR, WINSHEAR, WINSHEAR”
C. Both of the above.
FCTM / SI-010 P 13/16
Q.114 GPWS alerts for Mode 1 are:

A. A repeated “SINK RATE” aural alert and the GPWS light on when a/c in first boundary.
B. Penetration of the second boundary generates a repetitive “PULL UP” aural alert and causes both
PULL UP lights to come on.
DSC-34-70-20 P 1/6
Q.115 If an alert is generated (caution or warning), and TERR pb ON ND is not

selected, the terrain is automatically displayed, and the ON light of the TERR
pb-sw ON ND comes on.
A. True
B. False
DSC-34-70-35 P 3/8
2015 – 02 Page 425 of 428

Time: 60 min.
Total Marks: 100
Q.116 If TERR ON ND pushbutton on CAPT side is OFF, the terrain data is not
displayed on the CAPT ND.
A. True
B. False
DSC-34-70-40 P 3/4
Q.117 If intruder aircraft‘s detected TAU is at 30 secs:

A. You will hear “TRAFIC, TRAFIC” aural and Amber circle on ND, if Mode
selector is at TA/RA.
B. No aural indications if Mode selector is at TA.
DSC-34-80-10 P 7/8
Q.118 Each intruder is displayed with

A. Vertical speed arrow if the intruder V/S > 500 ft/min.
B. Relative altitude in hundred of feet above or below the symbol depending on the intruder
position.
C. Relative altitude and vertical speed arrow are displayed in the same color as the associated
intruder symbol.
D. All are correct.
DSC-34-80-20 P 2/8
Q.119 TCAS STBY is displayed in green, In the case of a triple ADR failure.
A. True
B. False
DSC-34-80-30 P 2/2
Q.120 Crew is supplied from an oxygen cylinder; passengers are supplied by chemical
oxygen generators
A. True
B. False
DSC-35-10 P ½
Q.121 What happens when BMC 1 fail?

1. Left engine leak detection is lost.
2. Left wing leak detection is lost.
A. 1, 3
B. 2, 3
2015 – 02 Page 426 of 428

Time: 60 min.
Total Marks: 100
C. 1, 2, 3
DSC-36-10-50 P 2/2
Q.122 Will FADEC perform auto-start abort; if engine is showing signs of hung start
during Re-light in flight?
A. Yes.
B. No.
PRO-ABN-70 P 64/7
Q.123 The crew should not accept an intersection takeoff until the takeoff performance
has been checked.
A. True
B. False
FCTM / AO-020 P 1/24
Q.124 As soon as the engine failure is recognized in cruise:

A. The PF will simultaneously set all thrust levers to MCT
B. The PF will simultaneously set live engine thrust lever to MCT
C. The PF will disconnect A/THR first.
FCTM / AO-020 P 12/24
2015 – 02 Page 427 of 428

A320 MCQ-1

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Multiple Choice Questions

This document is for training purpose only.

Air-conditioning, Pressurization and Ventilation System

For air-conditioning purpose, the cabin is divided into

Single pack is sufficient enough to maintain pressurization of aircraft

The air conditioning system is fully automatic.

Mark the correct statements:

Air for air conditioning system is supplied by the pneumatic system,

Temperature regulation is optimized via

Questions on Chapter 22 Page 4 of 428

C. Both are correct.

Temperature regulation is controlled by two Air Conditioning System Controllers.

The temperature of each aircraft zone is optimized by means of:

Mark the correct statements:

Questions on Chapter 22 Page 5 of 428

The cockpit trim air valve, controlled by the

The cabin trim air valves are controlled by the

FWD cabin temp selector is set to 12 O clock position

Questions on Chapter 22 Page 6 of 428

Inputs to the mixer unit are:

HOT-AIR PRESSURE-REGULATING VALVE closes when:

Hot air "FAULT" light illuminates on the air conditioning panel.

Questions on Chapter 22 Page 7 of 428

Select correct statements:

Temperature regulation of the Packs is automatic, and controlled by ….

When ACSC No.1 fails,

Questions on Chapter 22 Page 8 of 428

With ACSC No.1 failure, flight will be on single pack.

What happens when ACSC No.2 fails?

How are the Ram Air Inlet and outlets controlled?

Questions on Chapter 22 Page 9 of 428

With Pack 1 and 2 Fault, the recommended max FL is

Select the correct statements:

When would you select RAM AIR ON?

What limitation is associated with the ram air valve?

Questions on Chapter 22 Page 10 of 428

A) Do not open if cabin pressure is greater than 1 psi.

Questions on Chapter 22 Page 11 of 428

Cabin Pressure system operates:

In manual pressure control mode

Mark the correct statements:

Questions on Chapter 22 Page 12 of 428

In case of failure of the operating system.

The maximum descent rate for cabin is 750 ft/min.

When FMGS data is not available for automatic pressurization,

Mark the correct statement:

Questions on Chapter 22 Page 13 of 428

About MAN V/S CTL toggle switch:

By increasing cabin altitude in flight, what happens to Cabin Diff Pressure?

Questions on Chapter 22 Page 14 of 428

Engine bleed valve opens

Two safety valves are provided such that

At what cabin altitude do you get an ECAM warning?

What is the meaning of CAB PR LDG ELEV FAULT?

To see the operation of the outflow valve, it is necessary to call ECAM:

Questions on Chapter 22 Page 15 of 428

Which of the following areas are ventilated?

Questions on Chapter 22 Page 16 of 428

What are the conditions required for open configuration?

In case of heavy rain which p/bs are to be pressed for landing?

Questions on Chapter 22 Page 17 of 428

2. Extract Fan keeps running.

What happens if you press Blower P/B to OVRD?