V2500

684. Features of V2530-Á5 engine are: (A,B1,B2)

A. Two spools, axial flow, annular combustor and mixed exhaust.
B. Two spools, radial flow, annular combustor and mixed exhaust.
C. Two spools, axial flow, annular combustor and separated exhaust.
D. Two spools, axial flow, tubular combustor and mixed exhaust.

685. "V2530-Á5" means: (A,B1,B2)

A. Engine is rated at max thrust of 25300 lbs to install in the Airbus A/C.
B. Engine is rated at max thrust of 30000 lbs to install in the Airbus A/C.
C. Engine is rated at max thrust of 25000 lbs to install in the Airbus A/C.

686. The engine exhaust directs rearwards? (A,B1,B2)

A. Fan air discharge.
B. Engine core exhaust.
C. Both fan air discharge and the engine core exhaust.

689. Fan cowls: (A,B1,B2)

A. Must be held open by both struts each when the wind is more than 26 knots (30 mph).
B. Should be opened by releasing 6 latches in sequence from the front to the rear.
C. Must always be held open by both struts each.

690. The H.P. Compressor has how many stages? (A,B1,B2)

A. Twelve.
B. Ten.
C. Fourteen.

691. Identify the number of blades in one engine fan set? (A,B1,B2)
A. Thirty three (33)
B. Twenty two (22)
C. Thirty two (32)

692. What statement is NOT correct? (A,B1,B2)

A. Fan stage has 22 fan blades.
B. Fan stage has 24 fan blades.
C. Engine is constructed by 05 modules.
D. Gearboxes are driven by HP shaft.

693. The air starter valve access panel is on? (A,B1,B2)

A. RH fan cowl.
B. LH fan cowl
C. RH reverser cowl.
D. Out board fan cowl.

694. Aerodynamic station 2.5 means: (B1,B2)

A. LPC Outlet guide vanes exit.
B. Fan Outlet guide vanes exit.
C. LPC inlet.
D. LPT exit.
695. The compressor stage No 12 is? (B1)
A. The 12th stage of the HPC.
B. The 10th stage of the HPC.
C. The 7th stage of the HPC.

696. EGT thermal couples are at? (B1,B2)

A. HPT area.
B. First stage of LPT.
C. Exhaust area

699. What is the engine pressure ratio (EPR)? (B1,B2)

A. The ratio of P2 —P3.
B. The ratio of P3 —P2.
C. The ratio of P4.9 —P2.
D. The ratio of P4.9 — P3.

700. Is the L.P. compressor bleed valve (BSBV)? (B1)

A. Multi —ports.
B. Annular.
C. Two positions slider.

701. When open, where does the bleed valve direct airflow? (B1)
A. BSBV to bypass flow; stages 7 & 10 valves into the A/C bleed system.
B. All valves discharge overboard directly.
C. To Bypass flow all.
D. BSBV to bypass flow; stages 7 & 10 valves discharge overboard directly.

702. The airflow control system is a combination of which sub-SYSTEMS? (B1)

A. Stage 7 and 10 Bleed valves and aircraft service bleed.
B. BSBV, HPC VSV and stage 7 & 10 Bleed valves.
C. HPC VSV, BSBV and stages 5 & 8 bleed valves.

703. Which bleed valve is (are) fully modulating? (B1)

A. Stage 7 valves.
B. Stage 2.5.
C. Stage 10 valve.
D. All of the above.

704. How many bleed valves are there to control the HPC air flow? (B1)
A. Three 10th stage valves and one 7th stage valve.
B. Three 7th stage valves and one 10th stage valve.
C. One 10th stage valves and one 7th stage valve.

705. Servo pressure to operate HPC stage 7 & 10 bleed valves is from? (B1)
A. P 2.5 bleed pressure.
B. Servo fuel pressure from FMU.
C. Air pressure from stage 10th HPC
D. P3 air pressure.

708. Engine oil flow: (B1)

A. Always pass totally through the ACOC at all HMS modes.
B. Either totally or Not pass through ACOC depending on HMS modes.
C. Either partly or Not pass through ACOC depending on HMS modes.
D. Depending on the ACOC valve position.

709. What does the ACOC valve regulate? (B1)

A. The engine oil flowing through the ACOC.
B. The flow of fan air crossing the ACOC.
C. The flow of ram air crossing the ACOC.
D. Both engine oil and flow of fan air.

710. Engine oil system is ventilated at? (B1)

A. RH fan cowl breather outlet.
B. LH fan cowl breather outlet.
C. Engine center body exhaust.

711. Has the oil pressure filter a pop out indicator fitted? (A,B1,B2)
A. Yes.
B. No.
C. There is no pressure filter in the system

712. Which filters in the oil system have associated "filter clog" messages on the ECAM?
(A,B1,B2)
A. Pressure Scavenge and Scavenge strainers.
B. Pressure only.
C. Scavenge only

713. Which normal indications are displayed on the ECAM for the oil system? (A,B1,B2)
A. Oil differential pressure, oil temperature, oil tank quantity.
B. Oil temperature, oil pressure.
C. Oil differential pressure, oil quantity,

714. The ECAM oil pressure indication is? (B1,B2)

A. Pump delivery pressure.
B. Pressure pump — scavenge pump differential pressure.
C. Pressure pump delivery —No 4 bearing scavenge.

717. The HMS has how many modes? (B1)

A. One
B. Four
C. Five

718. In which HMS mode does the ACOC valve fully close? (B1)
A. Mode 1.
B. Mode 3.
C. Mode 5.

719. What is the failed safe position of the ACOC valve? (B1)
A. Fully opened
B. Fully closed
C. Stay at the last position.

720. The EEC controls the HMS with? (B1)

A. ACOC modulating valve and FD&RV and IDG FCOC.
B. ACOC modulating valve; FD&RV; IDG FCOC; FCOC.
C. ACOC modulating valve and FD&RV.
D. ACOC modulating valve; FD&RV and FCOC.

721. The combined fuel diverter and return to tank valve (FD&RV) is located on? (B1)
A. The HP fuel pump case.
B. FCOC case.
C. IDG FCOC case.
D. ACOC case.

722. How the Nose Cone (Spinner) is anti-iced? (A,B1,B2)

A. Electrically.
B. Pneumatically.
C. Neither electrically nor pneumatically.
D. Not required.

723. What maintains the T/R in stow position for normal forward flight? (B1,B2)
A. Hydraulic pressure to stow side of actuator piston.
B. Mechanical locks on the piston of the lower actuators.
C. Lockout pins inserted into the translating cowls.

724. What senses movement of the T/R translating sleeve? (B1,B2)

A. The hydraulic pressure switch inside the HCU.
B. The LVDT's on the upper actuators.
C. The proximity switches on the locking actuators.
D. The LVDT's on the lower actuators.

727. In normal T/R operation, actuator unlocked condition is indicated by? (A,B1,B2)
A. REV in green appears inside the EPR gauge.
B. REV in amber appears inside the N1 gauge.
C. REV in amber appears inside the EPR gauge.

728. The Air Cooled Air Cooler (ACAC) or Buffer cooler is located? (B1)
A. On the fan case.
B. On the Common Nozzle Assembly.
C. On the HP turbine case

729. The Overspeed valve and the PRSOV in the FMU are opened by? (B1)
A. Signals from the EEC to a modulating torque motor.
B. Signals from the EEC to a micro switches.
C. Metered fuel pressure.

730. Fuel samples can be taken from? (A,B1,B2)

A. The LP fuel filter cover.
B. The LP fuel pump case.
C. The HP fuel pump outlet.
731. How the Fuel distribution valve works? (B1)
A. It follows the EEC demand.
B. It is electrically controlled by EEC and fuel pressure operated
C. There's no control of the valve.

732. Where is the aircraft services, engine pneumatic system check valve positioned? (B1)
Á. Stage 10 offlake, engine left side.
B. Stage 7 offtake, engine right side.
C. Stage 7 offtake engine left side.

733. The N1 speed signal is sensed from? (B1,B2)

A. Speed probes interacting with a phonic wheel in the front bearing compartment.
B. A tachometer generator fitted into the accessory gearbox.
C. Speed probes located in the LP Turbine.

734. The indicated N2 speed is measured from? (B1,B2)

A. Speed probes and a phonic wheel.
B. EEC computes value from frequency of 1 phase of the dedicated alternator (PMA) 3 phase
output signal
C. A tachometer generator

736. How many vibration sensors are installed on each engine? (B1,B2)
A. Two, one in bearing No 1 compartment, one on the Turbine Rear Frame.
B. One dual sensor on the intermediate case.
C. One sensor on the fan case.

737. Which engine parameters are displayed on the ECAM upper display? (A,B1,B2)
A. EPR, N1 & N2.
B. N1, N2, EPR, oil pressure, oil temperature.
C. N1, N2, EPR & EGT.

738. Air is supplied to the HPT Active Clearance Control system from? (B1)
A. The ram air.
B. The HP Compressor stage 9.
C. The Fan delivery.

739. When and how is the P2/T2 probe heated? (B1,B2)

A. Continuously when the engine is running
B. Only if selected by the pilot by 115v supply.
C. Continuously at all conditions, by stage 7 air.

740. The engine igniters are on? (B1,B2)

A. RH of the engine.
B. LH of the engine.
C. One is on the RH, one is on the LH of the engine.

741. Where is the air taken to cool the No 4 bearing compartment? (B1)
A. 10th stage HPC.
B. 12th stage HPC.
C. 7th stage HPC.

742. Engine nacelle temperature sensor is? (B1,B2)

A. In the pylon area.
B. In the fan area.
C. In the core area

743. The EEC controls the ACC system via the torque motor located? (B1,B2)
A. In side the FMU.
B. On the ACC actuator.
C. On the ACC valve body.

What directly provides the closure of the PR Shut-Off Valve?

A - The MASTER lever to OFF position.
B - The EEC only.
C - The FMU.

Which valve ensures the adequate fuel flow?

A - The Pressure Raising SOV.
B - The fuel metering valve.
C - The fuel distribution valve.

What controls the adequate cooling of the engine and IDG oils?
A - The Fuel Cooled Oil Cooler.
B - The Fuel Diverter and Return Valve.
C - The IDG oil cooler.

How is the Diverter Valve positioned?

A - By a dual coil solenoid.
B - By a modulating torque motor.
C - By a two position torque motor.

How is the Fuel Return Valve controlled?

A - By a modulating torque motor.
B - By a two position torque motor.
C - By a solenoid.

When can fuel be returned to aircraft tanks?

A - Any time when the engine is operating and the aircraft is in flight.
B - Only at T.O or above 25000 feet.
C - All phases of flight except T.O and climb below 25000 feet.

How is the IDG lubricating oil cooled?

A - By an air/oil heat exchanger.
B - By a fuel/oil heat exchanger.
C - A combination of A and B.

What is the FADEC?

A - An Electronic Engine Control box.
B - A thrust control unit.
C - The EEC, sensors and peripheral components.

Where is the TLA signal directly sent to?

A - The EIU.
B - The EEC.
C - The FMGC.

Why does the EEC interface directly with the FMGC?

A - To send thrust parameters for autothrust function.
B - To transmit thrust parameters for autopilot function.
C - To transmit thrust parameters for EPR limit calculation.

What happens if EEC channel A fails?

A - The EIU takes over.
B - The EEC switches from the faulty channel to channel B.
C - The EEC power is cut off.

What happens in case of the EIU failure?

A - The TLA signal is no longer available.
B - The engine goes in flight idle mode.
C - The engine cannot be restarted from the engine start panel.

For the autothrust function the EIU interfaces directly with:

A - The FMGC 1.
B - The FMGC 2.
C - The FCU.

The EIU receives a discrete signal from SECs 1, 2 & 3 for the control of:
A - Heat Management System fuel return valve.
B - Thrust reverser inhibition.
C - FADEC engine shutdown logic.

With aircraft on the ground, when is the EEC automatically depowered?

A - At aircraft power up.
B - As soon as engine is shut down.
C - 5 mn after engine shutdown.

What is the purpose of the ENG FADEC GND PWR panel?

A - To restore EEC power.
B - To restore EIU power.
C - To cut off EEC power.

Which selects igniters A or B?

A - The engine panel.
B - The ECAM control panel.
C - The EEC.

What causes an automatic continuous relight selection?

A - IGN START selected.
B - Flame-out detected.
C - EEC failure.

What happens in manual mode when N2 reaches 43%?

A - MAN START pushbutton ON light goes off.
B - The EEC provides the ECAM with a message indicating that the start valve must be closed.
C - The start valve is automatically closed.

Which of the following controls the Booster Stage Bleed Valves?

A - The BSBV master actuator.
B - The FMU.
C - The EEC.

What provides the HP Turbine vane internal cooling?

A - The HPT/LPT ACC valve.
B - The 10th stage make-up air valve.
C - The 10th stage bleed air valve.

Where is air taken to cool No 4 bearing compartment?

A - 7th stage.
B - 10th stage.
C - 12th stage.

In flight with the thrust lever between two detent points what defines the EPR rating limit?
A - The thrust lever position.
B - The upper detent point position.
C - The lower detent point position.

With the autothrust function active and the thrust lever between two detent points, what limits
the upper EPR command?
A - The Thrust Lever Angle.
B - The EPR limit.
C - The EPR target.

What does the FMGC compute?

A - The EPR limit.
B - The EPR command.
C - The EPR target.

What happens in case of EPR sensor failure?

A - The EEC reverts to a manual N1 mode.
B - The EEC reverts to a rated N1 mode.
C - The EEC reverts to an unrated N1 mode.

How is the fuel PRSOV controlled?

A - De-energized open.
B - Energized open.
C – To close when it receives an ECC signal.

How is the engine LP fuel shut off valve controlled?

A - By the Engine fire pushbutton.
B - Automatically when a fire is detected.
C - By the MASTER lever.
D - A or C.

Which systems interface with the EVMU?

A - ECAM-CFDIU-AIDS
B - ECAM-CFDIU-FADEC
C - CFDIU-AIDS-ACARS.

How is the selection of the accelerometer sensors provided?

A - The EEC selects the sensor to be used.
B - The EVMU selects automatically a sensor for each flight.
C - Using the MCDU, select the sensor to be used for the next flight.

What is the position and power state of the directional control valve for normal flight?
A - Stow position - solenoid energized.
B - Stow position - solenoid de-energized.
C - Neutral position - solenoid de-energized.

How is the thrust reverser movement sensed?

A - By the hydraulic pressure switch.
B - By proximity switches.
C - By LVDTs on the upper actuators.

What is the purpose of the auto-restow system?

A - To restow the thrust reverser immediately after uncommanded movement is detected.
B - To restow the thrust reverser after uncommanded movement of 10% of travel is detected.
C - To automatically restow the thrust reverser on cancellation of a deploy command.

What happens if the oil scavenge filter is clogged?

A - Oil filter clog warning is activated in the cockpit.
B - A visual clogging indicator on the filter becomes red.
C - Oil low press switch closes.

What protects the scavenge pumps from metallic particles?

A - A Master Chip Detector.
B - The scavenge filter.
C - Six magnetic Chip Detectors with strainers.

Which of the following is not directly scavenged?

A - 1, 2, 3, Bearing compartment.
B - No 4 Bearing compartment.
C - No 5 Bearing compartment.

How is the thrust rating defined on the V2500-A5?

A - By an engine data programming plug.
B - By a cockpit selection.
C - By FADEC control.

An oil access door is provided for servicing:

A - On the right side fan cowl door.
B - On the left side fan cowl door.
C - On the left side thrust reverser "C" duct door.

A starter valve access panel is provided for manual operation:

A - On the right side fan cowl door.
B - On the left side fan cowl door.
C - On the left side thrust reverser "C" duct door.

The exhaust directs rearward:

A - The fan air discharge.
B - The engine core exhaust.
C - Both the engine core exhaust and the fan air discharge.

Where are the drains located?

A - At the rear part of the pylon.
B - At the bottom of the engine.
C - Both at the rear part of the pylon and at the bottom of the engine.

Which fluids can be discharged through the drain?

A - Water, hydraulic and fuel.
B - Water and fuel.
C - Hydraulic and fuel.

How is the main gearbox driven?

A - By the HP rotor,
B - By the LP rotor,
C - By the HP rotor via the angle gearbox.

The compressor stage Nº12 is:

A - The 12th stage of the HP compressor,
B - The 10th stage of the HP compressor,
C - The 7th stage of the HP compressor.

What bearings support the HP rotor?

A - Nº3 and Nº4,
B - Nº3, Nº4 and Nº5,
C - Nº2, Nº3 and Nº4.

What directly provides the closure of the PR Shut-Off Valve?

A - The FMU.
B - The EEC only.
C - The MASTER lever to OFF position.

What controls the adequate cooling of the engine and IDG oils?
A - The Fuel Cooled Oil Cooler.
B - The IDG oil cooler.
C - The Fuel Diverter and Return Valve.

What does the ACOC modulating valve regulate?

A - The engine oil flowing through the ACOC.
B - A bleed part of fan air crossing the ACOC.
C - Both engine oil and a bleed part of fan air.

What does the Heat Management System heat and cool?

A - Fuel, engine oil and IDG oil.
B - Engine oil and IDG oil.
C - Only engine oil.

The EEC controls the HMS with?

A - The ACOC modulating valve and the FD & RV.
B - The ACOC modulating valve, the FD & RV and the IDG FCOC.
C - The FD & RV.

In case of a single input loss, what happens?

A - Switch over to the other channel.
B - Control goes to a fail-safe position.
C - The channel in control uses values from the other channel.

If both windings of a torque motor fail, what happens?

A - Switch over to the other channel.
B - Control goes to a fail-safe position.
C - The channel in control supplies the winding of the other channel.

If one winding of a torque motor fails, what happens?

A - Switch over to the other channel.
B - Control goes to a fail-safe position.
C - The channel in control supplies the winding of the other channel.

Which of the following is controlled by the FADEC?

A - The EIU.
B - The Throttle Lever Angle.
C - The engine thrust rating.

How does the EEC send the engine primary parameters to the ECAM?
A - Directly.
B - Through the EIU.
C - Directly, for the primary parameters, and through the EIU for the secondary parameters

What types of signals does the EEC send or receive?

A - Digital, discrete and analog.
B - Digital and analog.
C - Discrete and analog.

Where is the TRA directly sent to?

A - To the EIU.
B - To the FMGC.
C - To the EEC.

How do ADIRU 1 and 2 send signals to the EEC?

A - ADIRU 1 supplies channel A and ADIRU 2 supplies channel B.
B - Both ADIRUs supply 2 channels.
C - Only ADIRU 1 is used to supply the EEC.

What happens in case of failure of the EIU?

A - The TLA signal is no longer available.
B - The engine goes to flight idle mode.
C - The engine cannot be restarted from the engine start panel.

For the autothrust function, the EIU interfaces directly with:

A - FMGC 1.
B - FMGC 2.
C - The FCU.

Which signals does the EIU send?

A - Digital signals only.
B - Digital and discrete signals.
C - Digital, discrete and analog signals.

When does the dedicated generator supply the EEC?

A - When N2 is above 10%.
B - When an engine is started.
C - Only if the Aircraft Electrical Power fails.

How does the starter operate?

A - Electrically.
B - Pneumatically.
C - Hydraulically.

In which case can the EEC abort the start?

A - Automatic start and manual start.
B - Automatic start only.
C - Wet motoring.

Of which type is the ignition system?

A - Low voltage, low energy.
B - Low voltage, high energy.
C - High voltage, high energy.

From where can igniters A and B be selected?

A - The engine panel.
B - The ECAM control panel.
C - The EEC.

What happens in manual mode when N2 reaches 43%?

A - MAN START pushbutton ON light goes off.
B - The EEC provides the ECAM with a message indicating that the start valve must be closed.
C - The start valve automatically closes.

Where are the engine controls located?

A - On the overhead panel.
B - On the overhead panel and the center pedestal.
C - On the center pedestal.

What is the purpose of the ENGINE MASTER SWITCH?

A - To open or close the HP fuel Shut-Off Valve.
B - To command and reset the FADEC functions.
C - Both to open or close the HP fuel Shut-Off Valve and to command and reset the FADEC
functions.

Which computer controls the engine thrust, either in manual mode or autothrust mode?
A - FMGC.
B - FCU.
C - EEC.

What is the normal cruise detent point?

A - TOGA.
B - FLX/MCT.
C - CL.

When the throttle lever is between two detent points what position corresponds to the thrust
limit?
A - The upper detent point
B - The lower detent point.
C - The actual throttle lever position.

In flight with the throttle lever between two detent points what defines the EPR rating limit?
A - The throttle lever position.
B - The upper detent point position.
C - The lower detent point position.

How is the PRSOV closure command sent?

A - Directly from the MASTER lever.
B - From the MASTER lever via the EEC.
C - From the MASTER lever via the EIU and the EEC.

Which condition is required to open the PRSOV?

A - Fuel pressure from the fuel metering valve available.
B - Latching torque motor de-energized.
C - Both fuel pressure from the fuel metering available and latching torque motor de-energized.

How is the engine LP fuel shut off valve controlled?

A - By the Engine fire pushbutton.
B - Automatically when a fire is detected.
C - By the MASTER lever or by the Engine fire Pushbutton.

How is the engine LP fuel shut-off valve actuated?

A - By two electrical motors.
B - By a dual solenoid.
C - Hydraulically by servofuel.
The Engine page is selected:
A - Manually or automatically depending on flight phases.
B - Manually only.
C - Automatically only according to flight phases.

The Engine vibration indications are displayed:

A - On the ENGINE/WARNING DISPLAY.
B - On the ENGINE page.
C - On the ENGINE page and the CRUISE page.

When is it possible to operate the thrust reverser system?

A - On ground only,
B - On ground and in flight,
C - In flight only.

How is the thrust reverser actuated?

A - Electrically,
B - Hydraulically,
C - Pneumatically.

How is the directional valve controlled?

A - Directly by the reverser lever,
B - By the reverser lever through the EEC and EIU,
C - By the reverser lever through the EEC.

What is the logic of the reverse operation?

A - TLA position and aircraft on ground only.
B - TLA position, aircraft on ground and Reverse indication green.
C - TLA position, aircraft on ground, engine running (N2 condition) and both SECs and EIU
signals.

Reverser system actuation is provided by two solenoid valves which are energized by the:
A - Electronic Engine Control (EEC).
B - Engine Interface Unit (EIU).
C - Throttle Control Unit.

What does the CFDIU simulate during the MCDU reverse test?
A - The TLA.
B - The ground logic.
C - The N2 condition.

Which condition is sufficient to close the entry corridor?

A - Engine running.
B - Engine running above 80% of N2.
C - Engine running above minimum idle.

With the engine running, what is dangerous.

A - The inlet suction.
B - The inlet suction and the jet wake.
C - The inlet suction, the jet wake and the noise.