The History and Orientation of the Fire Service

1:  Approximately how many fire departments are there in the United

States?
A: 1,000
B: 3,000
C: 10,000
D: 30,000

2:  Who led the first volunteer fire department in the United States?
A: George Washington
B: Ben Franklin
C: Patrick Henry
D: Abraham Lincoln

3:  Where does the greatest majority of the funding for fire

departments come from?
A: Private contributions
B: Private industry
C: Tax dollars
D: Fund-raising

4:  What do fire marshals do?

A: Take command of working fires and other emergencies
B: Inspect businesses and enforce fire codes
C: Examine and certify candidates for promotion and certification
D: Create the policies that the fire chief must then enact and
enforce

5:  What does the M stand for in EMT?

A: Mentored
B: Minimum
C: Mandatory
D: Medical

6:  Where was the first paid fire department established in the United
States?
A: Boston
B: New York
C: Philadelphia
D: Providence

7:  What major 1871 American event had a profound effect on the fire
service and fire codes?
A: The first World Fire Exposition
B: The completion of the trans-America railroad
C: The invention of the internal-combustion engine
D: The Great Chicago Fire

8:  What was the deadliest fire in United States history prior to the
2001 terrorist attack on the World Trade Center?
A: The Cocoanut Grove Fire
B: The Beverly Hills Supper Club Fire
 C: The Peshtigo Fire in Wisconsin
D: The Triangle Shirtwaist Fire

9:  Fire standards frequently call for fire fighters to don and doff. What
does don mean?
A: Learn, as in a procedure
B: Acquire, as in go get
C: Carry from one place to another
D: Put on, as in clothing

10:  What is the informal term for hazardous materials?

A: Biotec
B: Hazmat
C: Flamers
D: Suiters
Fire Fighter Safety

1:  What is the leading cause of fire fighter deaths off the fireground?
A: Heart attack
B: Slip and fall
C: Vehicle accident
D: Violence

2:  An ideal exercise routine includes weight training, cardiovascular

workout, and:
A: Swimming
B: Stretching
C: Running
D: Fencing

3:  What effect, if any, does smoking have on the respiratory systems

of fire fighters?
A: It causes an increase in hardiness
B: It causes an increase in efficiency
C: It causes a reduction in efficiency
D: It causes no measurable effect

4:  What part of the body should be used for a heavy lift?

A: The waist
B: The legs
C: The back
D: The shoulder girdle

5:  In the context of clothing, what does the word "doff" mean, exactly?
A: To put on
B: To prepare to put on
C: To prepare to take off
D: To take off

6:  According to NFPA 1975, which of the following is safe to wear

under turnout gear?
 A: Nylon
B: Polyester
C: Nomex
D: Cotton/polyester blend

7:  What odor does carbon monoxide have, if any?

A: None
B: Burnt almonds
C: Musty hay
D: Horseradish

8:  What other application, if any, is structural firefighting PPE

designed for?
A: All others
B: Water rescue, only
C: Hazmat operations, only
D: None other

9:  In the context of clothing, what does the often-used word "don"
mean, exactly?
A: To put on
B: To prepare for putting on
C: To take off
D: To prepare for taking off

10:  What is the normal atmospheric percentage of oxygen in air?

A: 79
B: 62.5
C: 48.6
D: 21
Fire Service Communications

1:  How can the communications center of a fire department be

characterized?
A: As the eyes of the department
B: As the hub of the department
C: As the ears of the department
D: As the outpost of the department

2:  What does the voice recording system in a communications center

typically record?
A: Room conversation, only
B: Telephone traffic, only
C: Radio traffic, only
D: Telephone and radio traffic

3:  What is the generally accepted time lapse between a call reaching

the communications center and the units actually being dispatched?
A: Three-and-a-half minutes
B: Two minutes
C: One minute
 D: Thirty seconds

4:  How should the emergency telephone number 9-1-1 be

pronounced?
A: Nine, eleven
B: Nine hundred eleven
C: It doesn?t matter
D: Nine, one, one

5:  If a caller is reporting a medical condition, what instructions might

the telecommunicator provide?
A: To hang up and wait outside to flag down the ambulance
B: To hang up and take the victim outside to await the ambulance
C: To stay on the line and continue reporting conditions
D: To do some first aid steps based on the reported patient
condition

6:  Which characterization best describes the communications center

of a fire department?
A: A mobile network
B: A physical location
C: A concept
D: An attitude

7:  What does the G stand for in GPS?

A: General
B: Government
C: Guidelines
D: Global

8:  What is one type of data that an activity logging system at a

communications center would capture?
A: Time of radio transmissions
B: Wattage of radio transmissions
C: Service provider of telephone callers
D: Visitors to the center

9:  What is the term for the process of actually alerting the selected
units to respond and transmitting the information to them?
A: Dispatch
B: Transmission
C: Prioritization
D: Classification

10:  Some communities have implemented a system similar to 9-1-1

but for non-emergency calls. What number does the public dial in
these systems?
A: 9-9-9
B: 0-0-0
C: 3-1-1
D: 9-1-9
Incident Command System
1:  What was the intended target of the original incident command
system?
A: Large, single-agency events
B: Large, multi-agency events
C: Small, multi-agency events
D: All events, large and small

2:  What does the principle of Unity of Command mean?

A: All commanders must command in the same manner
B: All commands must be from a standardized set
C: Each person is given only one command at a time
D: Each person has only one direct supervisor

3:  In structural firefighting, what are the basic units?

A: Companies
B: Regiments
C: Individuals
D: Strike forces

4:  What is one of the five major components of an ICS system?

A: Tactical
B: Strategic
C: Logistics
D: Ballistics

5:  Who is responsible for gathering and releasing incident information

to the news media and other appropriate agencies?
A: The spokesperson for the Tactics Committee
B: The Public Information Officer
C: The Communications Center
D: The Planning Officer

6:  ICS is appropriate for use by fire agencies. Is it appropriate for use

by any other types of emergency response agencies?
A: Yes, any other type
B: Yes, air crash rescue and EMS only
C: Yes, air crash rescue only
D: No

7:  At large-scale incidents, units are often dispatched to a collecting

area, not directly to the scene. What is this collecting area called?
A: Staging area
B: Operations area
C: Apparatus area
D: Resource area

8:  When is command established?

A: When the first Chief Officer arrives on scene.
B: When there is a determination that additional units will be
needed.
C: When there is a determination that additional units will not be
needed.
 D: When the first unit arrives on scene.

9:  Where should a media headquarters be set up?

A: Inside the command post
B: Near the command post
C: At a community center
D: At a media studio

10:  What is it called when one person relinquishes command of an

incident and another individual becomes IC?
A: Transfer of command
B: Abdication of command
C: Dereliction of command
D: Usurpation of command
Fire Behavior

1:  Into what form is mechanical energy converted when two materials

rub against each other and create friction?
A: Kinetic
B: Torsional
C: Heat
D: Torque

2:  A large fire burning in the open can generate a column of heated
gases and smoke that rises high into the air. What is this called?
A: A dome
B: A vector
C: A plume
D: A tender

3:  A fire involving combustible cooking oils and fats in kitchens are
classified as?
A: Class K
B: Class A
C: Class B
D: Class C

4:  What is it called when all the combustibles in a room become fully

ignited?
A: Backdraft
B: Flashover
C: Rollover
D: BLEVE

5:  What is the explosion called that occurs when oxygen is suddenly

admitted to a confined area that is very hot and contains large
amounts of combustible vapors and smoke?
A: Rollover
B: Backdraft
C: Flashover
D: BLEVE
 6:  Though not itself toxic, carbon dioxide can still injure people. How?
A: By burning the skin
B: By inducing ?rapture of the deep?
C: By inflaming the bronchial tubes
D: By displacing oxygen

7:  How long, if at all, can a fire fighter in full protective gear survive
flashover?
A: Virtually indefinitely, as long as air lasts
B: Eight to twelve minutes
C: Two to three minutes
D: Just a few seconds

8:  What kind of substance will expand indefinitely and assume the

shape of the container that holds it?
A: A liquid
B: An isomer
C: A polymer
D: A gas

9:  In an enclosed room with a fire in it, where are the highest
temperatures
A: Along the floor
B: In a column in the middle of the room
C: At the ceiling
D: In the lower corners of the room

10:  What is the starting point of a fire called?

A: The ignition phase
B: The first point on the fire triangle
C: The flash point
D: The fire point
Building Construction

1:  What is the term for stone, concrete blocks, and bricks,

collectively?
A: Gypsum materials
B: Stoneware
C: Masonry
D: Rock

2:  What is the strongest building material in common use?

A: Concrete
B: Steel
C: Zinc
D: Glass

3:  What are most plastics made from?

A: Petroleum products
B: Cellulose materials
C: Organic peroxides
 D: Inorganic minerals

4:  How well does masonry conduct heat?

A: Very well; almost instantaneously
B: Very well after a few moments
C: Moderately well
D: Poorly

5:  What does ordinary glass usually do when exposed to fire?

A: Melt
B: Break
C: Harden
D: Nothing

6:  Are a building?s contents usually related to its occupancy type?

A: Yes, but only if the occupancy is not industrial
B: No, unless the occupancy is industrial
C: Yes, they are usually related
D: No, they are usually not related

7:  What material is made by mixing Portland cement with aggregates

such as sand and gravel?
A: Asphalt
B: Brick
C: Concrete
D: Slate

8:  What is probably the most commonly used building material in our

environment?
A: Gypsum board
B: Plaster of Paris
C: Standard steel
D: Wood

9:  What is the term for a roof that has sloping or inclined surfaces?
A: Gabriel
B: Built-up
C: Trussed
D: Pitched

10:  What is the term for plastics that will not melt under heat?
A: Thermoset
B: Thermostatic
C: Thermostable
D: Isothermal

Portable Fire Extinguishers

1:  What is the material called that is used inside a fire extinguisher to

stop the combustion process?
A: Dessicant
B: Extinguishing agent
 C: Propellant
D: Reducing agent

2:  What would be an example of an incipient fire?

A: A fire in a wastebasket
B: A small car fully involved
C: A fire confined to the attic and roof of a residence
D: A house fire that has self-vented

3:  What danger is there in using water on a fire involving energized

electrical equipment?
A: There is risk of electrocution to the fire fighters involved
B: Many metals explode when energized and contacted by water
C: Water can accelerate electrically charged fires and make them
grow
D: These types of fires appear to go out with water but do not cool
and almost always re-ignite

4:  How many classes of fire are there?

A: Five
B: Four
C: Three
D: Two

5:  How does water work to put out a fire?

A: It coats the fuel with nitrogen
B: It floods the fire with hydrogen
C: It cuts off the nitrogen to the fire
D: It cools the fuel below its kindling temperature

6:  What is the primary disadvantage of fire extinguishers over

hoselines?
A: They are ?one-shot? devices
B: They require more people to operate effectively
C: They do far more collateral damage than a simple hoseline
D: They do nothing to suppress re-ignition

7:  What happens if water is used on a grease fire and it is allowed to

penetrate into the burning grease?
A: It does no harm, but neither does it do any good
B: It causes a volcanic eruption of the grease
C: It produces a sub-surface steam wave which extinguishes the
fire neatly
D: It caused the grease to congeal, turning it into a class C fire

8:  How much heat, if any, can electricity generate?

A: A tremendous amount of heat
B: Enough to burn the skin, but not enough to ignite paper
C: Enough to feel warm, but not enough to burn the skin
D: No actual heat at all, though it feels like it when shocked

9:  What may happen if water is applied to a burning combustible

metal?
 A: The fire goes out immediately, but evolves hydrogen chromate,
a poisonous gas
B: Nothing changes and the fire keeps burning
C: The fuel turns to powder but keeps burning
D: A violent reaction may occur

10:  How large can portable fire extinguishers be?

A: Up to a pound
B: Up to fifteen pounds
C: Up to one hundred pounds
D: Up to several hundred pounds
Fire Fighter Tools and Equipment

1:  What is one example of a strike tool?

A: Flat bar
B: Maul
C: Pipe wrench
D: Rabbit tool

2:  What does "try before you pry" mean

A: Apply gentle pressure rather than sharp strikes
B: See if it?s locked before you force entry
C: Try to force entry by striking first, and only if that doesn?t work,
then by prying
D: Try to disassemble a door or window mechanism before
resorting to force that will break it

3:  What is the tool used specifically to tighten or loosen fire hose

couplings?
A: Hose tool
B: Hydrant wrench
C: Pitot tool
D: Spanner wrench

4:  What is a hacksaw used for?

A: Cutting wood
B: Cutting plastic
C: Cutting glass
D: Cutting metal

5:  What type of mechanical saw has a back-and-forth blade action?

A: A rotary saw
B: A circular saw
C: A reciprocating saw
D: A bi-directional chainsaw

6:  What type of tool is a crowbar?

A: Push or pull
B: Pry or spread
C: Strike
D: Cut
 7:  When operating a mechanical saw, it is important that one
component of the saw be designed specifically to work with the
particular material to be cut. What component is this?
A: The fuel
B: The blade
C: The safety shield
D: The dust-gathering bag

8:  What is another use for pike poles besides pulling down ceilings?
A: Cutting power lines
B: Opening walls
C: Prying open skylights
D: Cutting through floors

9:  In general, tools should be kept clean and free of:

A: rust.
B: oil.
C: nitration.
D: metal on metal contact.

10:  When should cutting tools be sharpened?

A: After each use
B: After each hour of use
C: Only upon inspection and a finding of dullness
D: Only some six times in the life of the tool
Ropes and Knots

1:  What is one use for utility rope?

A: Rappelling down a building
B: Hoisting and lowering tools
C: Lowering an unconscious person
D: Pulling a swimmer up out of the water from a helicopter

2:  How does the strength of synthetic fiber compare to that of natural

fiber?
A: It depends on whether they are wet
B: Natural fiber is generally stronger
C: They are about the same
D: Synthetic is generally stronger

3:  How often must life safety ropes be inspected?

A: After every emergency use, only
B: After every use, emergency or training
C: After every training use, only
D: Only if it is contaminated and then cleaned

4:  When, if ever, is it acceptable to store heavy objects on top of

rope?
A: It is fully acceptable as it does no harm to the rope
B: It is not ever acceptable to store heavy objects on top of rope
C: It is only acceptable if the heavy object is not sharp on the
bottom
 D: If is only acceptable if a wood board separates the rope and
the heavy object

5:  When can life safety rope be used for utility purposes?

A: Only in training
B: Only when binding, not supporting a load
C: Never
D: Any time

6:  How many times is escape rope intended to be used before being

retired from that function?
A: Once
B: Up to three times
C: Five times lifetime
D: As long as it continues to pass inspection

7:  How do strong acids and strong alkalis affect synthetic rope?

A: The acids can damage it, but it is impervious to alkalis
B: They can both damage it
C: The alkalis can damage it, but it is impervious to acids
D: It is impervious to both substances

8:  What is the rule of thumb for stepping on a rope?

A: Don?t roll the rope under your boot
B: Be sure to roll the rope as load is applied on it
C: Don?t do it
D: Just don?t trip

9:  When, if ever, should bleach be used in washing a synthetic rope?

A: Always
B: Never
C: Only if it was contaminated with hydrocarbons, including oil
D: Only if it is certain that no hydrocarbons, including oil, are on
the rope

10:  When inspecting a kernmantle rope, what visual trouble cues

should fire fighters look for?
A: Cuts or frays
B: Change of color of stress tag
C: Change of color of stress threads
D: Straightening out of the twists
Response and Size-Up

1:  When should the daily check of SCBA be done?

A: After the first call
B: First thing in the afternoon
C: At the beginning of shift
D: At the end of shift

2:  Why should hearing protection be worn on a responding

apparatus?
A: The ears adjust to loud noises and produce a temporary state
of diminished aural sensitivity
 B: The siren and horn make it hard to concentrate on donning
PPE
C: The siren and horn noise can cause long-term damage to
hearing
D: Hearing loud noises produces an involuntary fear response in
humans

3:  When, if ever, is it appropriate for fire fighters to ride to a scene on

the tailboard of an apparatus?
A: Only if it is an aerial
B: Only if there is an approved hand rail
C: Never
D: Any time

4:  Can the electric meter ever be inside the building?

A: No, while not illegal, it is just never done
B: No, it is illegal to do so
C: Yes, this is quite common
D: Yes, but only on military installations

5:  If the decision is between savings lives and saving property, what
comes first?
A: Whichever one best protects exposures
B: Lives
C: Property
D: Whichever one promises the soonest mitigation of the incident

6:  When an alarm is received, how should fire fighters approach the

apparatus?
A: At a dead run
B: At a jogging rate
C: At a brisk walk
D: At a normal walking pace

7:  When, relative to donning other equipment, should seat belts be

donned, upon taking a seat in an apparatus about to respond?
A: Seat belts should be donned last
B: Seat belts should be donned first
C: Seat belts should be donned after hearing protection, but
before anything else
D: Seat belts should be donned second to last, before eye or face
protection

8:  When dismounting an apparatus, it is important that fire fighters

always hold something. What?
A: A forcible entry tool
B: The SCBA face piece
C: The next-dismounting fire fighter
D: A handhold

9:  If gas is present, why must electricity be cut off at a remote

location?
A: Because utility workers cannot be sent into an area that has
gas
 B: Because electricity can ride the gap across gas and not turn off
C: Because electricity is needed to clear an area of gas
D: Because cutting electricity off can cause a spark

10:  What is the top basic fireground objective?

A: Rescue any victims
B: Protect exposures
C: Confine the fire
D: Extinguish the fire
Forcible Entry

1:  What term is defined as gaining access to a structure when the

normal means of entry are locked, secured, obstructed, blocked, or
unable to be used for some other reason?
A: Emergency ingress
B: Emergency access
C: Forcible entry
D: Breaking entry

2:  What part of the body should be used when lifting heavy tools?
A: The mid and lower back
B: The mid and upper back
C: The legs
D: The arms

3:  What is another term for laminated glass?

A: Salt glass
B: Plate glass
C: Safety glass
D: Bathroom glass

4:  What is usually the best place to force entry into a structure?

A: Through a wood-siding wall
B: Through a vinyl-siding wall
C: At a door or window
D: Around a chimney

5:  What are windows called which open by swinging out like a door?
A: Casement windows
B: Jimmy windows
C: English windows
D: Nine-light windows

6:  What does “try before you pry” mean?

A: Try to gain the property owner’s permission before any forcible
entry
B: Make sure the door or window is locked before forcing it
C: Try all your strength on the tool before calling others for help
D: Try to force the door with body strength and weight before
resorting to tools, which are much more dangerous

7:  What is the frame of a door called?

 A: The jamb
B: The striker
C: The receiver
D: The pane

8:  If the hinges of a door are showing, which way does it open?
A: Toward you
B: Away from you
C: Slides into the wall on the side of the hinges
D: Slides into the wall on the side opposite the hinges

9:  How are awning windows normally operated?

A: By manual raising and lowering
B: By turning a long, plastic rod
C: By pulling one side of a rope loop
D: By a small hand-crank

10:  What happens to plate glass when it is broken?

A: It crumbles into thousands of small pieces
B: It cracks, but holds together like the shell on a hard-boiled egg
C: It creates long, dangerous shards
D: It breaks locally only, as if a bullet had gone through a piece of
wood
Ladders

1:  What does the word egress mean?

A: A way in; the opposite of exit
B: To fall back and regroup
C: A method to exit or escape
D: To change location vertically

2:  What are the actual steps of a ladder called?

A: The pawls
B: The trusses
C: The rungs
D: The beams

3:  Must fire fighters be able to work on ladders while wearing SCBA?

A: No
B: No, but they must be able to climb ladders in SCBA
C: Yes, but only carrying tools up and down
D: Yes

4:  How safe are wooden or fiberglass ladders around power lines?

A: Both are entirely insulating and therefore safe
B: Wood is safe, fiberglass is not
C: Fiberglass is safe, wood is not
D: If wet or dirty, both wood and fiberglass can conduct electricity

5:  Why should ladders not be placed on manhole covers or

trapdoors?
 A: Because this practice denies the use of the cover or trapdoor
B: Because these surfaces are notoriously slippery and the ladder
may slide
C: Because these structures make an extraordinarily attractive
lightning rod when continuous with a metal ladder
D: Because the concentrated weight of fire fighters, ladder and
equipment may cause these structures to fail

6:  What is the most important hazard to keep in mind when working

with ground ladders?
A: Overhead power lines
B: Slip and fall accidents
C: Pinches to hands or fingers
D: Striking someone with the ladder

7:  Why might already soft ground under a ladder become even more
unstable during firefighting operations?
A: Because of the heat from the fire
B: Because of the nearby vibrations from machinery and footfalls
C: Because of the water used for suppression
D: Because of the change in air temperature over a few hours?
time

8:  What should be done with fire service ladders that have been used
outside of their design limits?
A: Nothing if there is no sign of damage, discoloration or distortion
B: They should be visually inspected and pronounced fit
C: They should be taken out of service for visual inspection
D: They should be taken out of service for inspection and testing

9:  Another name for a pawl is?

A: Rabbet
B: Dog
C: Lock
D: Stock

10:  Other than touching power lines, what is another hazard of

ladders being placed close to them?
A: If a ladder does touch a power line, it can become instantly
welded to the line
B: Ladders can become energized even without actually touching
the power line
C: Power lines can spontaneously fall, and might drape the ladder
D: A person losing their balance while climbing or descending the
ladder might grab the power line
Search and Rescue

1:  What term means the physical removal of a person from

confinement or danger?
A: Search
B: Rescue
C: Salvage
D: Overhaul

2:  What is the name for the kind of search in which fire fighters rapidly
search the accessible areas of a burning structure to locate any
potential victims?
A: Primary search
B: Size-up
C: Pan search
D: Scan

3:  What noise, if any, should fire fighters make while doing a primary
search?
A: None; they should be absolutely quiet in order to hear anyone
calling out
B: They should bang the floor three times hard with a tool every
few seconds
C: They should shout ?Is anyone here?? or something similar
every few seconds
D: They should clank their SCBA bottles with a tool every few
seconds

4:  In general, when is the life risk in residential occupancies greatest?

A: At breakfast time
B: At night and on weekends
C: Early afternoon
D: Around supper time

5:  When conscious victims in a window are being directed on to the

rescue ladder, how should they be oriented when exiting the window?
A: Head first, facing the ladder
B: Head first, facing away from the ladder
C: Feet first, facing the ladder
D: Feet first, facing away from the ladder

6:  What is an important question to ask residential occupants found

outside the structure upon arrival?
A: Are you sure that no one else was home?
B: Do you know what started this fire?
C: How did you discover the fire?
D: Is the property insured?

7:  What is one place a child caught in a fire might be found?

A: Under a bed
B: Near a door
C: Near a window
D: In bed

8:  What is the exit of choice from a building, if it is available?

A: The building?s normal exit system
B: A straight-stick aerial ladder
C: A ?people-chute?
D: An elevating platform

9:  What is a conscious victim?s frequent reaction to a ladder rescue?

A: Fear
B: Elation
 C: Jubilation
D: Disbelief

10:  Which is more stable, a ground ladder or an aerial ladder?

A: They are about equally stable
B: Ground
C: Aerial
D: Ground at under 24 feet, aerial at longer lengths
Ventilation

1:  What is the term for the process of removing smoke, heat, and
toxic gases from a burning building and replacing them with cooler,
cleaner, more oxygen-rich air?
A: Circulation
B: Ventilation
C: Evacuation
D: Re-aeration

2:  What does heated air naturally do?

A: Contract and rise
B: Contract and sink
C: Expand and sink
D: Expand and rise

3:  What, if anything, does thin, light-colored smoke moving lazily out

of a building suggest?
A: A dangerous fire involving fractional hydrocarbons
B: A small fire involving ordinary combustibles
C: A pre-backdraft condition lurking inside
D: Nothing can be inferred from this smoke

4:  When breaking glass, where should fire fighters keep their hands?
A: In the center of the breaking area
B: Above or to the side of the falling glass
C: Under the falling glass, fingers pointing up
D: To the strong-hand side of the opening, only

5:  Whenever possible, from where should fire fighters who are

conducting vertical ventilation on a roof operate?
A: From a ladder
B: From the area immediately to the eave side of the opening
C: From the area immediately to the ridge side of the opening
D: From the prone position, on the windward side of the opening

6:  What is the term for the sudden explosive ignition of fire gases
when oxygen is introduced into a superheated space?
A: Rapid polymerization
B: Thermal equilibrium
C: Rollover
D: Backdraft

7:  If ventilation is not mechanical, then what kind is it?

 A: Natural
B: Artesian
C: Negative-pressure
D: Skylar

8:  What should be done immediately after breaking the glass in a

window?
A: A piece of barrier tape should be placed across the opening
B: The window frame should be cleared of all glass
C: The outside wall adjacent to the opening should be spray-
painted orange
D: The opening should be laddered and the ladder left there for
the duration

9:  What is the technique called wherein fire fighters test the firmness
of a roof by striking it with an axe or other tool?
A: Probing
B: Echoing
C: Querying
D: Sounding

10:  The two major structural support systems for roofs use either
solid-beam or one other type of construction. What other type?
A: Truss
B: Laminar
C: Columnar
D: Tetrahedral
Water Supply

1:  What is a reservoir?
A: A man-made water storage facility
B: A natural water source
C: A natural water collection point
D: A large, government-owned well field

2:  Why are chemicals used in a water treatment plant?

A: To remove the natural metallic taste
B: To make it flow with less pipe friction
C: To trace which source it comes from
D: To kill bacteria and harmful organisms

3:  From what direction(s) should fire hydrants be visible?

A: All directions
B: Front and both sides only
C: Front and one side only
D: Front only

4:  Why should hydrants be opened slowly?

A: To avoid a pressure surge
B: Because the valve assemblies are fragile
C: To let the drain system catch up
D: Rapid opening can cause the wrench to ?catch? the water flow
 and spin suddenly with great force

5:  What is one unit of measure in which water flow is reported?

A: Gallons per minute
B: Pounds per square inch
C: Gallons per square inch
D: Pounds per square inch gauge

6:  How, if at all, does the water delivered to fire hydrants differ from
the water delivered into homes?
A: Hydrant water is untreated
B: It does not differ
C: Home water is non-potable
D: Hydrant water is harder

7:  During fire hydrant inspections the first two factors to check are
accessibility and something else. What else?
A: Operability
B: Visibility
C: Stability
D: Fragility

8:  When the order is received to open a hydrant, how should it be

opened?
A: As rapidly as possible
B: One turn, wait one minute, another turn, wait another minute,
etc.
C: Four turns, wait half a minute, four more turns, wait another
half minute, etc.
D: Slowly

9:  What is one advantage to using a portable tank setup?

A: Safety
B: Cooler water
C: Speed
D: Water under pressure

10:  What kind of valve enables tankers to off-load their entire load of

water very quickly?
A: An iris valve
B: A dump valve
C: A gravity valve
D: A spring-assist valve

Fire Hose, Nozzles, Streams, and Foam

1:  Will fire hose be damaged if run over by a car?

A: It is likely
B: It is unlikely
C: It is designed to be run over by any vehicle with tires and will
never be hurt by this
D: It will be destroyed by any vehicle over a few hundred pounds
running over it even once

2:  What deals with the properties of energy, pressure, and water flow
as related to fire suppression?
A: Fire kinetics
B: Fire behavior
C: Fire hydraulics
D: Fire pneumatics

3:  What is the term for any device used in conjunction with a fire hose
for the purpose of delivering water?
A: A hose appliance
B: A water adjunct
C: A pump accessory
D: A nozzle modifier

4:  What does a hose clamp do?

A: Stop a leak in a hose
B: Rigidly attach a hose to a discharge outlet
C: Tightly attach two hose sections together
D: Temporarily stop the flow of water through a hose

5:  When preparing to load hose, what is a technique for first forcing

all the air out of the hose, thus making it lie flatter?
A: Rolling it
B: Walking its length
C: Hanging it from a height
D: Flushing it with water

6:  What is the sudden surge in pressure caused by abruptly stopping

the flow of a stream of water called?
A: Water hammer
B: Cavitation
C: Back pressure
D: Shock load

7:  What is used to protect a hose that is being hoisted over the edge
of a roof to keep it from chafing or kinking at the sharp edge?
A: A hose tool
B: A fire fighter’s hand-over-hand action
C: A hose roller
D: A tag line

8:  What are fire hoses used to discharge water from an attack engine
onto a fire called?
A: Attack lines
B: Pumper lines
C: Supply lines
D: Drafting lines

9:  When should fire fighters attempt to uncouple a charged hose line?

A: Only when it needs to be done in a hurry
B: Only when they are aware it is charged
C: At no time should fire fighters attempt this
 D: Any time the hose needs to be uncoupled

10:  What is the threat if cotton-jacketed hose is packed while it is still

wet?
A: Spontaneous combustion
B: Mildew
C: Insects
D: Foul odor
Fire Fighter Survival

1:  What is the only way for individuals to become proficient at

performing any set of skills?
A: Experience
B: Aptitude
C: Training
D: Testing

2:  A team is defined as two or more individuals:

A: acting in concert.
B: achieving a common goal.
C: communicating.
D: looking out for each other.

3:  What must every company officer have to keep in communication

with the IC?
A: A portable radio
B: A field telephone
C: A landline
D: A vehicle communications system

4:  Where are the personnel accountability tags for most fire fighters
placed when they are on duty?
A: On a board in the cab of the apparatus
B: On their helmets
C: On a hook in the station
D: On a chain around their necks

5:  For safety and survival reasons, fire fighters should always work in
teams of at least:
A: 4
B: 3
C: 2
D: 1

6:  Is it ever permissible to risk the life of a fire fighter?

A: Yes, this is part of everyday life as a fire fighter
B: No, not unless the fire fighter volunteers for this
C: No, not ever
D: Yes, if there is a reasonable and realistic possibility of saving a
life

7:  What is an example of a common hazard fire fighters face

routinely?
A: Backdraft
B: High-angle rescue
C: Smoke
D: Hazardous materials tanker spills

8:  What is the standard operational team in firefighting operations?

A: A department
B: A battalion
C: A platoon
D: A company

9:  Rapid intervention companies/crews are established to:

A: help create a blitz offensive fire attack.
B: rescue fire fighters.
C: rescue occupants.
D: protect exposures.

10:  In a hazardous atmosphere, such as inside a burning structure,

fire company members should always be able to contact each other
by voice, sight, or by:
A: last known position.
B: dead reckoning.
C: touch.
D: GPS.