Agricultural General Reviewer

AGRICULTURAL ECONOMICS AND MARKETING
1. The series of services involved in moving the product from the point of production
to the point of consumption
a. Selling b. merchandizing c. marketing d. marketing operations
2. The point of production is the
a. Point of first sale
b. Point of last sale
c. Point where seeding occurs
d. Point where transplanting takes place
3. This is the point where the farm price is established
c. Point of production
d. Point of consumption
e. Both a and c
f. Both b and d
4. The point of consumption is the
c. Point where food is ingested
d. Point where food is digested
5. At this point, transaction occurs between the traders and the consumers and
where retail price is established
a. Point of production
b. Point of consumption
c. Wholesale point
d. Farm gate
6. Marketing functions performed on or for a product that will alter its time, place,
form or possession characteristics
a. Marketing
b. Marketing operations
c. Marketing services
d. Marketing system
7. A system of buyers and sellers with facilities for trading with each other
a. Purely competitive market
b. Public market
c. Market
d. Supermarket
8. A market is defined as
a. A place where buyers and sellers exchange goods or services
b. A large geographic area where supply and demand forces set prices
c. Informal organizations where buying and selling maybe done by almost
anyone at almost any time in relatively small lots
d. All of the above
9. Which of the following is not considered a market
a. A balut vendor selling on the street.
b. Fruit stands along the national highway in Calamba
c. South supermarket at 10 o‟clock in the evening
d. New York Coffee exchange market
10. One who buys commodities from the market
a. Consumer b. customer c. mother d. decision-maker
11. Marketing is productive because
a. Products are highly perishable
b. Of seasonality of production
c. Services involve a lot of money
d. In creates utility
12. Type of utility created when products are made available when they are most
wanted by consumer
a. Place utility
b. Form utility
c. Time utility
d. Possession utility
13. This is a complex system within which various subsystems interact with each
other and with the different marketing environments
a. Marketing channels
b. Marketing systems
c. Marketing
d. Market\
14. One characteristic of a marketing system
a. It has goals to achieve, e.g. employment, price stability, etc.
b. it has components or participants that perform its functions
c. it has institutional arrangements
d. it has spatial and temporal dimensions
e. all of the above
15. it is concerned with minimizing market imperfection
a. producer subsystem
b. functional subsystem
c. environmental subsystem
d. channel system
16. Consists of the initiators of production like Ka Juan, a rice farmer, and Dole Corp.
a. Producer subsystem
b. Flow subsystem
c. Channel subsystem
d. Functional subsystem
e. Consumer subsystem
17. Characteristics unique to agricultural products which pose a problem in
marketing
a. Perishability
b. Bulkiness
c. Seasonality of production
d. Non-homogeneity
e. All of the above
18. A problem area in marketing agricultural products
a. Product characteristics
b. Number of producers
c. Consumers characteristics
d. Reflecting demand
e. All of the above
19. There _____ major approaches to the study if agricultural marketing
a. Three b. four c, five d. six
20. This approach covers consumer preferences, demand and supply analysis,
product characteristics and price behavior
a. Commodity approach
b. constitutional approach
c. „functional approach
d. Industrial organizations approach
e. Market efficiency or analytical approach
21. Study of the various agencies and business structure which perform the
marketing process
b. Structure – conduct – performance approach
c. Functional approach
d. Institutional approach
22. A middleman who takes little to and therefore owns the product he handles
a. Merchant middleman
b. Agent middleman
c. Private trader
d. Market intermediary
23. Example of merchant middleman
a. Wholesaler
b. Retailer
c. Broker
d. Both a and b
24. Middleman who receives his income in the form of fees and commissions
a. Commission agent
b. Broker
c. Both a and b
d. Processor
25. Known as viajeros
a. Wholesaler
b. Assembler-wholesaler
c. Financer-wholesaler
d. Assembler-wholesaler
26. One type of middleman in agricultural marketing which I modern times have
increasingly increased its functions for changing product forms to buying raw
materials to wholesaling the finished product to retailers
a. Processors and manufacturers
b. Facilitative organizations
c. Wholesalers
d. Assembler-wholesaler
27. Do not directly participate in marketing processes but furnish the physical
facilities for the handling of products and bringing buyers and sellers together,
e.g auction markets
a. Facilitative organization
b. Public market
c. Supermarket
d. Terminal market
28. A major specialized activity performed in accomplishing the different marketing
processes
a. Marketing system
b. Marketing machinery
c. Marketing function
d. Marketing institutions
29. A marketing process
a. Concentration
b. Dispersion
c. Equalization
d. All of the above
30. Approach to the study of agricultural marketing that attempts to answer “what” in
the question “who does what”
b. Functional approach
c. Institutional approach
d. Structure-conduct-performance approach
31. Activities involved in the transfer of little of goods. This is where the price
determination takes place in marketing
a. Exchange functions
b. Physical functions
c. Facilitating functions
d. None of the above
32. Activities that involve handling, movement and physical change of the commodity
d. Marketing functions
33. Acts as the grease in the agricultural marketing machinery
d. Marketing functions
34. Enables the smooth performance of both the physical and facilitating functions
a. Grading and standardization
b. Storage
c. Buying
d. Transportation
35. The advancing of money to carry on the various aspects of marketing
a. Financing
b. Risk bearing
c. Market intelligence
d. Demand creation
36. Deals with the organization of a market as it influences the nature of competition
and pricing market
a. Market structure
b. Market conduct
c. Market performance
d. Industrial organization
37. A dimension of market structure
a. Degree of buyer and seller concentration
b. Degree of product differentiation
c. Condition of entry to the market
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
38. Type of market structure where there is only one buyer in the market
a. Perfectly competitive market
b. Monopoly
c. Monopsony
d. Oligopoly
39. The behavior pattern of a firm in the industry
a. Market structure
b. Market conduct
d. Industrial organization
40. Trucking arrangement, credit marketing tie-up and method of payment are
examples
a. Market structure
b. Market conduct
41. Economies of scale, capital requirement, government rules and regulations and
inherent technical relationships in the industry are dimensions of
a. Product differentiation
b. Seller concentration
c. Barrier to entry
d. Market conduct
42. The appraisal of how much the economic resource of the industry‟s market
behavior deviates from the best possible contribution it can make to achieve
relevant socio-economic
a. Market conduct
b. Market structure
d. Market efficiency
43. A dimension of market performance
a. Market share analysis
b. Firm‟s product policy
c. Market efficiency
d. Marketing practices
44. An intern-organization system make up of interdependent agencies and
institutions involve task of moving products from the point of production to the
point of consumption
a. Marketing system
b. Marketing channels
c. Agricultural machinery
d. Wholesalers and retailers
45. The major factor that influence the existence of marketing channels
a. Product delivery
b. Transportation
c. Pricing and profit
d. Product requirement
46. Marketing channels vary according to the
a. Type of commodity handled
b. Time
c. Location
d. All of the above
47. To facilitate the proper functioning of the market channels subsystem. It is
important that channel members must have a mutual understanding of their
a. Type of client served
b. Territory served
c. Marketing functions performed
d. All of the above
48. The structure of the channel is determined by service output requirements given
in terms of
a. Market decentralization
b. Lot size
c. Delivery time
d. Product delivery
e. All of the above
f. None of the above
49. Direct marketing is advisable if
a. The total sales volume is small
b. The market is scattered
c. The product commands a high value per unit
d. The product is highly perishable
50. Convenience goods
a. Require intermediaries
b. Unique and customized
c. Staples
d. A and c
51. The type of organization which handles the product through two o more steps in
the processing or marketing processes.
a. Forward integration
b. Backward integration
c. Vertical integration
d. Horizontal integration
For the following questions, please refer to the given figure:
52. The given marketing channel has ______ product flows

a. 11 b. 9 c. 5 d. 8
53. The simplest product flow is
a. F-CB-R-C
b. F-WR-R-C
c. AW-WR-C
d. F-WR-C
54. The ultimate link to the consumers in this system is the
a. Retailer
b. Wholesaler-retailer
c. Contract buyer
d. Both a and b
55. The proportion handled by the assembler-wholesaler is
a. 25% b. 54% c. 58% d. 48%
56. The contract buyer handles ______ of the volume sold by the farmer
a. 58% b. 25% c. 83% d. 17%
57. Assuming that the farmer handles 1000 kgs, the total volume handled by the
contact buyer will be
a 580 kgs b. 250 kgs c. 170 kgs d. none of the above
58. The volume handled by the farmers represent their
a. Total production
b. Production + imports
c. Production + consumption
d. Marketable surplus
59. The price spread can be expressed as
a. Pr-Pf
b. Pw-Pf
c. Pf-Pr
d. Pf-Pw
60. Different components of marketing margin
a. Marketing costs and marketing charges
b. Marketing costs and transportation costs
c. Transportation costs and processing costs
d. Marketing costs and storage costs
61. A component of the marketing margin that refers to the returns to the various
factors of production used in providing the processing and marketing services
rendered between the producers and consumers
a. Marketing costs
b. Net return
c. Processing costs
d. Marketing changes
62. A series of figures representing the absolute margins of different types of
middlemen assignable to different marketing functions divided by the retail price
a. Percentage margin
b. Constant margin
c. Percentage mark-up
d. Breakdown of the consumer peso
63. The absolute difference in price or absolute margin divided by the selling price
a. Percentage margin
b. Percentage mark-up
c. Price spread
d. Marketing margin
64. Demand for the finished product e.g., dressed chicken
a. Primary demand
b. Derived demand
c. Consumer demand
d. Both a and c
65. A way of estimating marketing margins
a. Selecting a specific load of a good and tracing it through the marketing
system
b. Comparing prices at different levels of marketing
c. Gross sales less purchases divided by the number of units handled
d. All of the above
66. Reason why marketing costs differ among agricultural products
a. Increased processing
b. Bulkiness
c. Perishability
d. All of the above
A yellow corn farmer from the South sold his produce to an assembler wholesaler
at P4.00 per kg and later sold this to a miller at P4.40 per kg. After milling the
corn, the miller sold this to a wholesaler at P5.10 per kg. The latter disposed this
to a retailer at P5.60 per kg who later sold the milled corn to livestock producers
at P6.00 per kg.
67. The price spread of this commodity is

a. P0.40 per kg
b. P1.60 per kg
c. P6.00 per kg
d. P2.00 per kg
68. The farmer‟s share is
a. 93%
b. 67%
c. 7%
d. 8%
69. The percentage margin at the miller‟s level is
a. 21.6%
b. 25%
c. 9.8%
d. 13.7%
70. The absolute marketing margin of the farmer is
a. P0.40 per kg
b. P1.60 per kg
c. P2.00 per kg
d. 0
71. The wholesaler‟s percentage mark-up is
a. 8.9%
b. 9.8%
c. 1.96%
d. 7.1%
72. Marketing efficiency measures
a. Pricing efficiency and operational efficiency
b. Economic efficiency and technological efficiency
c. Marketing margins, input output measures and evaluation of loss and waste
in the market
73. Maximization of the output input ratio
a. Marketing efficiency
b. Marketing costs
c. Marketing operation
d. Satisfaction
74. In this ratio the resources used in moving the products from the point of
production
a. Input
b. Output
c. Satisfaction
d. Costs
75. Type of efficiency that is concerned with improving the operation of the buying,
selling and pricing aspects of the marketing process
a. Marketing efficiency
b. Operational or technological efficiency
c. Pricing or economic efficiency
d. Input-output measurement
76. Type of efficiency that focus on reducing the costs of the inputs assuming that
the essential nature of the output and services remain unchanged
a. Operational efficiency
b. Pricing efficiency
c. Technological efficiency
77. Plant that gain weight during processing
a. Market oriented
b. Material oriented
c. Foot loose industries
78. An example of a material oriented industry
a. Breweries
b. Soft drink bottlers
c. Bakeries
d. Buko pie
79. Area where efficiency may be developed
a. Improved marketing methods
b. Economies of scale
c. Location of the business
d. All of the above
80. The space dimension of marketing whose primary concerns is to move products
from the farm processor to the costumer
a. Transportation
b. Storage
c. Assembly
d. Buying
81. The time and costs involved in moving products from the farm to processing and
consuming centers will influence
a. Location of production centers
b. Market area served
c. Qualities and sizes of products shipped to market
d. The form of product marketed
e. All of the above
82. Explains why perishable products are located near consumption centers
a. Cheaper costs of transporting raw product
b. Cheaper costs of transporting manufactured products
c. Lower storage costs
d. Lower processing costs
83. For a single consuming center for a farm product, the price received by the
farmers will be
a. Pa-ta = Pb – tb
b. Pa – Pb = ta – tb
c. Pf = Pm –f(D)
84. The law of market areas asserts that the boundary between any two markets in
the locus or for which the site prices for shipments made to the competing
markets are equal. This can be expressed as
a. Pa-ta =P-tb
b. Pa – Pb = ta-tb
c. Pf = Pm-f(D)
d. Both a and b
Aling Sidra wants to sell 600 kgs of onion either to San Antonio or San
Leaonardo which are 15 kms away from Cabanatuan City, respectively. The
costs of transporting onions to San Antonio P0.50/kg/km while it costs
P1.00/kg/km to San Leonardo. Onions sold in San Antonio fetch a P10/kg while
in San Leonardo, P8/kg
85. Where will Aling Sidra sell her onions?

a. San Leonardo
b. San Antonio
c. Cabanatuan
d. Gapan
86. This is because it will yield her a site price of
a. P5/kg
b. P3/kg
c. P2/kg
d. P4/kg
87. It will also provide Aling Sidra
a. A net profit of P3000
b. A net profit of P1800
c. Transport cost of P5/km
d. Transport of P10/km
e. 88.
Given the following information on the price structure of potatoes per 100 kgs
SIZE QUALITY
Grade AA grade AB
grade BB
Pesos/100 kgs
Large 1400 1300
1200
Medium 1300 1200
1200
Small 1200 1100
1000
if the transportation costs are P300 and P400 from area A and B
respectively, and other marketing costs are P750 and P850 respectively
88. The total costs of marketing will be

a. P1050 and P1250 markets A and B, respectively
b. P700 for market A and P1600 for market B
c. P1150 for market A and P1250 for market B
89. The producer will supply market B with\
a. All sizes and quality of potatoes
b. No small, grade BB potatoes
c. Only: large Grade AA, Grade AB and medium Grade AA
d. Only small Grade BB
90. The producer will supply market A with
a. All sizes and quality of potatoes
b. Only large Grade AA, Grade AB and Grade BB, medium Grade AA, AB
c. All sizes and quality of potatoes except small Grade BB potatoes
d. Only small Grade BB
91. Producers shoulder any increase in transportation cost in the short run because
of
a. Inelastic supply in the short run
b. Elastic supply of agricultural products in the short run
c. Consumer‟s resistance
92. Storage makes products available when they are most wanted by consumers
thus creates this kind of utility
a. Place utility
b. Time utility
c. Form utility
d. Possession utility
93. The primary objective of storage
a. To balance supply and consumption
b. Time required for performing various marketing functions
c. Need for carry over into the following season
d. Sporadic demand for agricultural products
94. Cost of storing agricultural products
a. Depreciation, repairs, insurance against loss
b. Quality deterioration and shrinkage in volume
c. Amount of capital invested in stored products
d. Handling fee, electricity consumed
e. All of the above
f. A, bl and d only
95. The most important risk involved in the storage of food products
a. Physical loss
b. Price changes
c. Product deterioration
d. Insect and rodent damage
96. A way of approximating the cost of storage is through
a. Seasonal change in price
b. Cyclical price variation
c. Long term changes in prices
d. Random change in prices
97. It is generally profitable to store products when
a. Demand is elastic
b. There is a short crop of perishable price inelastic products
c. There is a short crop for grain products that will be used as feed
98. Place where the products that are low in value or that have a large amount of
waste to be removed before they are marketed are stored most advantageously
a. Within trade channel
b. On farms
c. Terminal markets
d. Warehouses
99. Results in prices that reflect consistent quality and thus will reward farmers who
produce top quality products
a. Storage
b. Transportation
c. Grading and standardization
d. Processing
100. The sorting of products according to one or more of their quality attributes
like size, weight, shape, color, etc.
a. Grading
b. Classification
c. Standardization
d. Categorization
101. The practice of making the quality specification of grades uniform among
buyers and sellers and from place to place and across time
a. Grading
b. Quality control
c. Standardization
d. Discipline
102. Grading and standardization can result to efficiency since it
a. Increases the level for competition in the market
b. Increases the meaningfulness of price quotations
c. Limits the time and expense of bargaining about price and quality for each
transaction
d. All of the above
e. Only a and b
103. Grading and standardization enhances operational efficiency with the
reduction in costs attributes to
a. Increased ability and potentially to buy and sell based on description alone
b. Specialization of marketing functions
c. Enlarged marketing areas caused by uniform grading
d. Reduced expensive promotion and advertising of agricultural products
e. All of the above
104. This consists of people, equipment and procedure to gather sort, analyze,
evaluate and distribute needed, timely and accurate information to marketing
decision makers
a. Marketing information system
b. Management information system
c. Record system
d. Marketing research
105. These are three steps to attaining the objectives of this system. The first
step is
a. Undertaking marketing research
b. Assessing information needs
c. Developing information
d. Distributing information
106. Basic question in organizing data concern the following
a. When and where
b. How and what
c. Who and why
d. All of the above
107. When is concerned with
a. How to organize for market intelligence and how the data are derived
b. how frequent is the data needed for timeliness
c. the sources of information, centers of trade and origin and destination of
trade
d. purchasing investment and policy planning
108. supply and demand, volume flows, prices, units, product form and
historical forecasts are the concerns of
a. what
b. when
c. who
d. where
109. sources of primary data
a. Farmers or growers
b. Input suppliers
c. Traders
d. All of the above\
110. These data are good for studying trends and at a broad level of
aggregation
a. Primary data
b. Secondary data
c. Trade data
d. Production data
111. In analyzing demand for the commodity, what do you need to know
a. Demand centers
b. Direct estimate for potential markets
c. Historical data
d. Derived demand
e. All of the above
112. In analyzing supply, what data are needed
a. Direct estimate of potential markets
b. Production, imports and carry over stock
c. Production capacity of suppliers
d. Both b and c
113. This is concerned with the centers of trade, origin of trade and destination
of trade and should be included in the marketing intelligence
a. Geographic flow of goods
b. Transport and freight considerations
c. Commodity flow of goods
d. Market specifies
114. For the market information system to be effective and efficient, this must
be complimented with what marketing function
a. Financing
b. Risk-bearing
c. Demand creation
d. Grading and standardization
115. That price at which the quantity per unit of time that buyers want is just
equal to the quantity that sellers want to sell
a. Equilibrium price
b. Buying price
c. Selling price
d. Support price
116. Amount of money needed to acquire goods and their accompanying
services
a. Utility
b. Value
c. Price
d. Money
117. One of the essential functions of price
a. Tells producers what and how much to produce
b. Allocates productive resources to the production of goods and services
consumers demand
c. Guides goods and services through the channels of trade
d. All of the above
118. The price differentials in perfectly competitive markets are those caused
by differences in
a. Time, form, and location of the product
b. Promotion and advertisement
c. Marginal cost and revenue
d. Input and output prices
119. Price will tend to rise in response to
a. A sharp decrease in population with no change in supply
b. A cost reducing technology, demand unchanged
c. An increase in income with no change in supply
120. An improvement in production technology and a simultaneous increase in
population will result
a. Increase in the equilibrium price
b. Decrease in equilibrium price
c. No change in equilibrium price
121. Type of price fluctuation associated with the long run term changes in the
factors affecting supply and demand
a. Seasonal price variation
b. Annual price variation
c. Trend
d. Cycle
122. For cyclical behavior of price and quantity to occur as exemplified by the
Cobweb model, what condition must be satisfied
a. A time lag between the decision to produce and actual production
b. Production plans are based on future prices
c. Current prices are mainly a function of future supply
d. All of the above
123. Give rise to a convergent Cobweb cycle in price and quantity
a. Elastic supply
b. Elastic demand
c. Inelastic supply
d. B and c
124. The process by which buyers and sellers arrive at a specific price for a
given lot of production in a given condition
a. Price determination
b. Price discovery
c. Pricing strategies
d. Price expectation
125. A mechanism of discovering prices
a. Seasonal price variation
b. Annual price variation
c. Auction market
d. Pricing strategy
126. A simple bargaining process between individual buyers and sellers for
each transaction
a. Collective bargaining
b. Administered bargaining
c. Individual bargaining
d. Progressive bargaining
127. Prices established in organized markets approximate equilibrium prices
when
a. Number of transaction is large
b. There are few buyers and sellers
c. There is government intervention
d. There are no market information
For the following numbers, use the following given information

B = 3.14 Y= 10.7 X=2
128. The estimated intercept is

a. 18.26
b. 7.56
c. 4.42
d. 8.70
129. The resulting trend equation for bangus using the above information is
a. Ψ=4.41
b. Ψ=10.7 +3.14
c. Ψ=7.56 +3.14X
d. Ψ= 4.42 + 10.7X
130. The slope explains the
a. Average price increase per year amounting to P4.42 per kg
b. Average price increase per year amounting to P3.14 per kg
c. Average price increase per year amounting to P7.56 per kg
131. Using the equation the predicted average farm price for bangus in year
2004 where 1991 = 1
a. 40.82
b. 48.38
c. 45.20
d. 79.78
132. This particular problem made use of a technique to predict or project
future prices and this is known as
a. Simple linear regression analysis
b. Demand analysis
c. Statistical analysis
d. Seasonal indices
133. What is used in describing the seasonal variation in prices
a. Seasonal indices
b. Trend
c. Cycles
d. Average
134. A pricing strategy of setting the highest initial price that customers really
desiring the product are willing to pay
a. Skimming pricing
b. Penetration pricing
c. Prestige pricing
d. Loss leader pricing
135. This pricing strategy sets a low initial price on a new product to appeal
immediately to the mass market
a. Skimming pricing
b. Penetration pricing
c. Prestige pricing
d. Loss leader pricing
136. Setting prices at or near equal to those in other source
a. Competitive pricing
b. Formula pricing
c. Psychological pricing
d. Unit pricing
137. Pricing items in units of two or more
a. Tie-in pricing
b. Unit pricing
c. Psychological pricing
d. Price lining
138. Offering two or more classes of the same product at different prices, e.g
large eggs for P3.00 medium for P2.50 and small for P2.00
a. Unit pricing
b. Price lining
c. Special pricing
d. Psychological pricing
139. Pricing items in 5‟s say P99.95 is used to
a. Attract customers
b. Retain old customers
c. Create a low price image
d. All of the above
140. Pricing items in 5‟s say P99.95 is a pricing strategy called
a. Price lining
b. Psychological pricing
c. Special pricing
d. Unit pricing
141. Anything that can be offered to a market for attention, acquisition, use or
consumption that satisfies a want or a need
a. Product
b. Design
c. Label
d. Style
142. Any activity of benefit that one party can offer to another that is essentially
intangible and does not result in the ownership of anything
a. Product
b. Service
c. Utility
d. Style
143. Refers to the problem solving services or core benefit the consumers are
really buying when they obtain a product
a. Core product
b. Actual product
c. Augmented product
d. Product
144. The offering of additional services and benefits such as warranty or parts,
toll free telephone number to call if customers have a problem or questions is
referred to as
a. Service
b. Core products
c. Actual products
d. Augmented product
145. Two broad classification of products
a. Consumer and industrial products
b. Convenience and specialty products
c. Materials and parts‟
d. Shopping and unsought products
146. Type of consumer products that are usually bought frequently,
immediately and with a minimum of comparison and buying effort
a. Shopping product
b. Convenience product
c. Specialty product
d. Unsought product
147. Type of consumer goods that the customer in the process of election and
purchase characteristically compares on such basis as quality, suitability, quality,
price and style
a. Convenience
b. Shopping
c. Specialty
d. Unsought
148. A customer product with unique characteristics or brand identification for
which a significant group of buyers is willing to make a special purchase effort
a. Convenience product
b. Specialty product
c. Shopping product
d. Unsought product
149. Type of product sought by individuals and organizations for further
processing or for use in conducting business
a. Consumer product
b. Industrial product
c. Emergency product
d. Staple
150. Installations and equipments are examples of
a. Industrial product
b. Material product
c. Capital items
d. Supplies and services
151. The ability of the product to perform its functions
a. Quality
b. Feature
c. Design
d. Style
152. Product quality covers
a. Level and consistency
b. Durability and reliability
c. Feature and design
d. Style and design
153. A name, term, sign symbol or design or a combination intended to identify
the goods or services of one seller group of sellers and to differentiate them from
competitors
a. Brand
b. Package
c. Label
d. Name
154. The activities of designing and producing the container or wrapper for a
product
a. Packaging
b. Branding
c. Labeling
d. Styling
155. A part of the package that identifies the product or brand, who made it,
where it was made, its content, how to use it, etc…
a. Label
b. Brand name
c. Manufacturer
d. Nutritional content
156. A brand name is a symbol to make the product
a. Easy to recognize
b. To convey a meaning
c. Competitive
d. A and b
157. In more developed marketing systems, packages are mainly used for
a. Market penetration and competitiveness
b. Containing the produce
c. Product protection
d. Communication
158. In determining what type of packaging to use, it is necessary to include
a. Product requirement
b. Marketing system
c. Personal preference
d. All of the above
159. Ultimate consummation of the division of labor
a. Specialization
b. Trade
c. Self-sufficiency
d. Autarky
160. Says that a country tends to produce for export those products which it
can produce most cheaply and to import those products which other countries
can produce most cheaply
a. Comparative advantage
b. Specialization
c. Trade
d. Barter
161. Comparative effectiveness of labor
a. Absolute cost advantage
b. Comparative cost advantage
c. Comparative advantage
d. Domestic resource cost
162. Comparative cost advantage
a. Ricardo
b. Smith
c. Mill
d. Bruno
163. This represents the value of domestic resources spent in saving or
earning a unit of foreign exchange expressed as a proportion of its actual
exchange rate
a. Domestic resource cost
b. Private resource cost
c. Private profitability
d. Social profitability
164. The Resource Cost Ratio (RCR) is divided with the _____ to come up
with the domestic resource cost ratio (DCR)
a. Actual exchange rate
b. Shadow exchange rate
c. Domestic currency value
d. Foreign currency value
165. If the DCR coefficient is less than one (1) then the economic activity has a
a. Comparative advantage
b. Comparative disadvantage
c. Neutral advantage/disadvantage
d. Cannot tell
166. Using above situation, if the crop is being currently imported like yellow
corn then
a. the country can earn foreign exchange if it will be exported abroad
b. The country can cave foreign exchange by producing the product
domestically
c. The country has no choice but to sell the product to the ASEAN countries
d. The has to join WTO to be competitive
167. On the other hand if the DRC coefficient is greater than one, it is better for
the country to
a. Export yellow corn
b. Import yellow corn
c. Import other feeds
d. Increase tariff on corn
168. Tariff is imposed on
a. An imported commodity
b. An exported commodity
c. Persons
d. On finished goods only
169. Once, tariff is imposed, the price of the imported commodity will
a. Decrease
b. Increase
c. Remain the same
d. Be uncertain
170. Shows the difference in the final price of the finished good before and
after tariff imposition
a. Nominal protection
b. Effective protection rate
c. Implicit tariff
171. Show by how much the value added in the industry can exceed the value
added in the absence of protection
c. Implicit tariff
d. Government protection
172. The effective protection rate (EPR) includes the tariff on
a. Finished good
b. Intermediate inputs
c. Luxury products
d. Both a and b
173. Measures the rate by which domestic price of an input or output faced by
producers deviates from the world or border price
c. Implicit tariff
d. Government protection
174. The replacement of foreign production with domestic production
a. Import substitution
b. Redistribution effect
c. Protective effect
d. Government revenue
175. The additional economic rent paid to the pre-existing domestic produces
plus the rent paid to new producers above their supply price
a. Import substitution
b. Transfer effect
c. Protective effect
d. Revenue effect
176. The size of the protective effect is determined by the
a. Elasticity of supply
b. Elasticity of demand
c. Income elasticity of demand
d. Cross price elasticity of demand
177. A tariff designed for protection must provide rates of duties high enough
to achieve this objective
a. Encouragement of additional domestic production which could not take
place because of prevailing cost disadvantage
b. Create a home market for the product
c. Increase labor share to national income
d. Increase employment
178. The most valid reason why a government imposes a tariff for protection
a. Protection of industries
b. Creation of home market
c. Raise government revenue
d. Protection of infant industries
179. A direct source of monopoly profit
a. Non-tariff barriers
b. Import quota
c. Tariff
d. Dumping
180. The Philippine tariff structure of the beginning of the 1980‟s indicated that
a. Exports were penalized, both in manufacturing and other sectors esp.
agriculture
b. Agriculture received the highest level of protection
c. Export industries enjoyed the protection system
d. Backward integration of the industrial structure was encouraged
181. Country or group of country with the highest non-tariff barriers imposed
on the Philippines
a. Japan
b. US
c. Taiwan
d. European or EU countries
182. The case of protection of infant industries rests on the assumption of
a. Efficiency
b. Inability to compete
c. Latent comparative advantage
d. Revenue gain
183. Consist of a group of countries that have abolished all tariff among
themselves but maintain their individual tariffs vis-à-vis the outside world
a. Free trade area
b. Customs union
c. Common market
d. Economic union
184. An example of a free trade area
a. AFTA
b. EEC
c. WTO
d. EU
185. The European Union is an example of a
a. Free trade area
b. Customs union
c. Common market
d. Economic union
186. The summary of all economic transaction between the residents of one
country vis-à-vis the rest of the world
a. Balance of payment
b. Balance of trade
c. Summary of trade
d. WB-IMF accounting
187. Final adjustments made by authorities to settle imbalances in the balance
of payments
a. Compensatory financing
b. Official settlements
c. Devaluation
d. Borrowing
188. This account tell whether the country had earned more than it had paid
out
a. Current account
b. Capital account
c. Merchandise trade account
d. Official settlements
189. An example of invisible trade
a. OFW remittance
b. loans and borrowings
c. Foreign investment
d. Export and import
190. As such there are ______ parts in the VOP account
a. Two
b. Three
c. Four
d. Five
191. If there is a persistent BOP deficit, what usually takes place to correct the
imbalance
a. Exchange rate depreciation
b. Exchange rate appreciation
c. Import and foreign exchange control
d. Both a and c
192. Depreciation is an expenditure switching approach, thus it has to be
accompanied with what kind of policy
a. Expenditure reducing
b. Expenditure enhancing
c. Export promotion
d. Nothing will be effective
193. Republic Act 7607 mandated BPI as the sole agency to promote use of
organic fertilizer and integrated pest management, among others is also known
as
a. Consumer Act of 1992
b. Magna Carta for Small Farmers
c. Philippine Omnibus Power Bill
d. Crop Insurance Law
194. The Agri-agra Law mandates all commercial banks to allocate 25% of
their total loanable fund to agriculture sector and prohibit them to use these funds
to buy government securities as amended is also known as
a. Presidential Decree No. 717
b. Presidential Decree No. 777
c. Presidential Decree No. 171
d. Presidential Decree No. 117
195. Republic Act 8175 is also known as
a. Philippine Irrigation Act
b. Revised Charter of the Philippine Crop Insurance Corporation Act
c. Comprehensive Agrarian Reform Law of 1988
d. The Philippine Omnibus Power Bill
196. Through CARP, which is not the priority of DAR for acquisition and re
distribution
a. Rice and Corn Lands under PD 27
b. Tenanted lands
c. Landholdings above 50 hectares
d. All alienable and disposable public agricultural lands
197. The High Value Crop Development Act of 1995 promotes the production,
processing, marketing and distribution of high valued crops is also known as
a. Republic Act 9700
b. Republic Act 7700
c. Republic Act 7900
d. Republic Act 9900
198. The Omnibus Power Bill ordains the __________ as the implementing
agency
a. Department of Justice
b. Department of Agriculture
c. Department of Energy
d. Department of Natural Resources
199. Plant Quarantine Law prevent the introduction of exotic pests in the
country and prevent further spread of plant pests already existing from infested to
pest free areas is also known as
a. Presidential Decree No. 1433
b. Presidential Decree No. 1344
c. Presidential Decree No. 1434
d. Presidential Decree No. 1343
200. The act which strengthens the seed quality control among others is the
National Seed Industry Development Act. This act is also known as
a. Republic Act 7308
b. Republic Act 8307
c. Republic Act 7300
d. Republic Act 3300
AGRICULTURAL EXTENSION AND COMMUNICATION
1. Communication comes from the Latin word______ which means “to make
common”
a. Commnunis b. socious c. coursius d. sorcere
2. Communication is a process where a ______ sends a message to a receiver by
means of some channel to produce a response from the receiver.
a. Radio b. source c. television d. cellular phone
3. The term in communication that is referred to as the sum total of the individual‟s
experiences that influence his ability to communicate is called
a. Field of experience b. common trait c. personality d. knowledge and
skill
4. Communication is said to be effective when
a. The receiver‟s response matches with the intention of the source
b. The source is intelligent
c. Feedback is given
d. Channel is made of modern technology
5. The traditional view of communication that needs to be changed in the context of
extension is
a. One-way unicellular activity
b. Three-dimensional process
c. It is receiver-oriented
d. Multidimensional activity
6. Because of the continuous cycle, ever-changing nature of the communication
process, it is viewed presently as
a. Two-way, interactional activity
b. One-way unicellular activity
c. Resource-dependent activity
d. Static and slow moving process
7. The five basic elements of the communication process are source, message,
channel, receiver and the ___
a. Effect b. technology c. network d. frequency
8. The message factor that refers to the symbols, the language used which could
be verbal and non-verbal is the
a. Message code b. message content c. message treatment d. message
thought
9. The message factor that comprises the idea, the innovation or technology, the
materials that are meant to be expressed is the
thought
10. The message factor that has something to do with the arrangement, presentation
and organization code and content is called the
thought
11. The medium or means in communication by which as message travels between
a source and receiver is called the
a. Channel b. source c. station d. frequency
12. ______ is the information sent or fed back by the receiver intentionally or
unintentionally to the source
a. Experience b. feedback c. news d. determination
13. The perceived believability of the source on the basis of his competence,
trustworthiness and dynamism is called
a. Homophily b. credibility c. integrity d. determination
14. _____ refers to the degree to which a receiver perceives the source as similar to
him in certain attributes such as age, language, etc.
a. Homophily b. credibility c. similarity d. integrity
15. One attribute of communication as a process which says that our response to
message are bounded by our experiences, needs, expectations and knowledge
of those we communicate is
a. Dynamic b. systematic c. interaction with symbols d. meaning is
personally constructed
16. The degree to which receiver is similar to source in some attributes is referred to
as
a. Homophily b. heterophily c. hemiphily d. semiphily
17. The element in the communication process that creates a message that is also
called the encoder is the
a. Source b. receiver c. channel d. feedback
18. The element in the communication process that interprets the message is the
a. Source b. receiver c. encoder d. channel
19. Telephone, television and or radio are examples of what communication
element?
a. Channel b. technology c. source d. encoder
20. Gatekeepers and opinion leaders are examples of
a. Media channels b. interpersonal channels c. influential channels d.
community channels
21. The difference between what a receiver thinks, feels and dies before and after
exposure to a message is called
a. Purpose b. effect c. objection d. attention
22. A shift in the attitude opposite to that direction that is intended is known as
a. Conservation b. boomerang effect c. opinion change d. cognition
23. A type of communication effect that is characterized by the maintenance of the
insisting attitude is called a shift in an existing attitude to the neutral zone is
called
a. Boomerang b. conservation c. reinforcement d. neutralization
24. A type of communication effect that is characterized by a shift in an existing
attitude to the neutral zone is called
a. Neutralization b. boomerang effect c. conservation d. reinforcement
25. The element of communication process that can be a sign or a symbol that has
meaning to both sender and receiver is called the
a. Channel b. source c. encoder d. message
26. Since the agent can have a chance of direct contact with clients and therefore
getting first -hand knowledge of the farmer and his situation, the most effected
method to use are
a. Print media b. group methods c. information technology d.
individual methods
27. ______ is the most common individual method, effective either for familiarization
of the farm situation or as a follow-up activity
a. Farm visit b. meeting c. demonstration d. group method
28. In general, effective teaching or communicating “how-to” information can be best
done through
a. Result demonstration b. method demonstration c. radio computers
29. In a crisis, for example, livestock dying of FMD, the better method to inform
people about it and its positive solution is the
a. Campaign b. demonstration c. meeting d. discussion
30. “seeing is believing” is an age-old expression which is appropriate to
a. Method demonstration b. result demonstration c. object d. tour
31. The most effective method to find the reaction of people to issues like
government programs or policies is the
a. Group meeting b. print medium c, broadcast d. tour
32. ______ is an effective medium for campaigns and dramatizing local problems
and situations
a. Popular theater b. radio broadcast c. news paper d. news item
33. _______ is effective in that it can be rerecorded and erased and therefore are
reusable
a. Videotape b. tape recorder c. radio d. demonstration
34. Method of extension in which the client visits the extension agent in his office for
a purpose is called
a. Personal appearance b. office calls c. tour d. discussion
35. _______ can be samples of plants or insect pests displayed or different seed
varieties which exactly tell what the topic is all about
a. Objects b. displays c. exhibits d. plants and animals
36. A very inflexible medium where a listener cannot record the message but is
widely used in rural areas through broadcast signal is the
a. Radio b. audiocassette c. T.V d. cable
37. A medium that is made from textured cloth or flannel that is hung or supported
almost vertically is the
a. Film b. chalkboard c. flannelgraph d. exhibit
38. Medium used in extension that are exemplified by films, color slides, filmstrips
and OHP transparencies are referred to as
a. Traditional media b. projected aids c. printed media d. film
39. Those media used in extension communication exemplified by songs, dances,
plays that convey information in an interesting way are the
a. Printed media b. campaigns c. traditional media d. shows
40. The one that is used in extension where several media used in a coordinated
way and over a period of time to achieve and extension objective is the
a. Campaign b. caravan c. show d. display
41. An audiovisual aid used in extension that is suitable for notice boards inside and
outside extension offices, at demo plots or agricultural shows is the
a. Film b. chalkboard c. graph d. object
42. The media in which the signals are transmitted from a land-based transmitter, or
by satellite or through cables is the
a. Cable and T.V b. film c. show d. projector
43. _______ is that activity considered an extension method, which brings extension
agents into contact with clients whether in the market days, holiday celebrations
or religious events.
a. Formal gathering b. informal contact c. demo d. lecture
44. A method that is used to convey information, which includes the performances of
drama, singing and dancing is called
a. Film b. popular theater c. telenovela d. exhibition
45. A method us to communicate agricultural information that uses dolls, small
figures or images of animals and people that also entertains is called the
a. Puppetry b. drama c. film d. play
46. As a process, the basic consideration of agricultural development is for
a. The country to become globally competitive
b. Agricultural resources to be more fully and rationally utilized
c. The agricultural sector to be at par with those in the industrial and other
sectors.
d. The improvement of agricultural productivity
e. Sustainability
47. Agricultural development is manifested by
a. Increasing agricultural manpower
b. Modernization of the agricultural sector
c. Increased food security
d. Improvement in the efficiency of agriculture
e. Increased food sufficiency
48. Which of the following would be necessary condition for agricultural development
to take place?
a. Change in the level of modernity of production inputs
b. Higher level of external inputs to agricultural
c. Change in access to productive resources
d. Improved level of agricultural production
e. Increase in cultivated area.
49. The new paradigm in agriculture is to look at farming as an/an
a. Way of life b. family tradition of uphold c. business d. good insurance
when other occupation fail e. art
50. Modern agriculture demands that farmers are
a. Their own decision makers regarding the farm activities
b. Up-to-date with their technologies
c. Science rather than tradition bound
d. Extensive adopters of external production inputs
e. Businessmen
51. The components of agricultural de elopement that will facilitate the attainment of
its objectives are called
a. Accelerators b. essentials c. fundamentals d. requisites e.
elements
52. Which of the following is a wrong listing of the component of agricultural
development?
a. Extension, production, marketing
b. Extension, governance, supply
c. Research, production, marketing
d. Extension, research, policy
e. Marketing, research, extension
53. Which of the following does not describe process?
a. It does not have beginning and an end
b. It is unidirectional
c. It is continuing
d. There are steps that are sequential
e. It is a method of doing something
54. Which is not an agricultural resource?
a. Water b. agricultural manpower c. air d. policies e. credit
55. One major concern of sustainable agriculture is survival because
a. Man expects to live longer
b. Food is no longer sufficient
c. Population grows exponentially
d. Many technologies (e.g GMO‟s) are perceived to be threats to man and his
environment.
56. Which of the following is an ecologically acceptable production practice?
a. Mono cropping b. planting along contours c. crop rotation d. heavy
tillage
57. To achieve a “thriving economic and social order” requires changing production
a. Practices b. management c. structures d. inputs e. beliefs
58. Sustainability results to log term carrying capacity of regions which means that
these areas will
a. Continue to be highly productive
b. Maintain their total agricultural land area
c. Exhibit a continuing modernization of agriculture
d. Experience no negative effects on the environment
59. The effectiveness of extension is best measured through its clientele‟s behavior
changes which are
a. Spontaneous b. random c. permanent d. voluntary
60. Extension is an intervention that is
a. Intentional b. experimental c. permanent d. voluntary
61. To induce change in its clientele, the extension agent‟s tool is
a. Technology b. communication c. training d. institutional structure
62. One requirement in introducing interventions is
a. Cooperation of clientele b. strategic use of resources c. support of local
officials d. sufficient budget
63. The first activity in extension agent work of intervening is
a. Informing people and local officials
b. Formulating objectives
c. Asking for budget
d. Organizing people in the intervenor‟s agency
e. Deploying resources
64. In extension, the behavioral changes that the clientele must exhibit should satisfy
their objectives but must be according to the goals of the
a. Intervenor b. financial providers or benefactors c. local officials d.
ruling elite
65. A veterinarian‟s intervention that is directed towards sick animals is called
a. Medical b. expert‟s c. specialized d. technical
66. When selecting an appropriate strategy to use in intervening , consider the
a. Cost of the strategy
b. Total manpower required to use the strategy
c. Objectives of the intervening agency
d. Intervenor‟s familiarity with the strategy
67. Agricultural extension is a system of non-formal education because
a. It is not done by the people in the formal school system
b. It does not require a curriculum
c. It is graded non-formally
d. It is addressed to the “here and the now”
68. The focus of the agricultural extension is to assist the rural people to
a. Help themselves
b. Get as much education as possible
c. Get rich or better off
d. Use recommended technologies
69. The extension agent can provide rural people with the useful and practical
knowledge only when he (extension agent) understands rural people‟s
a. Condition b. needs c. resources d. task environment
70. The agricultural extension agent‟s task environment is at the same time
a. Economic, political, cultural and social
b. Technological, spiritual , social and cultural
c. Social, economic political and religious
d. Cultural, economic, technological, and political
e. Cultural, religious, social, economic
71. To attain improved level of living of rural people is conditioned by
a. Improvement in the overall economy
b. Peace and order in the community/country
c. Human resource development
d. Absence of calamities
72. Philosophy of extension is a synthesis of beliefs about life and a body of
knowledge about
a. The out-of-school learner
b. The adult learner
c. The learner in general
d. The targeted learner of the extension being done
73. One‟s view of life is based on his/her beliefs about what is
a. Good, possible and beautiful
b. Possible, noble and beautiful
c. Virtuous, beautiful and noble
d. Good, noble and beautiful
74. Philosophy of extension serves as the extension personnel‟s
a. Guide to his actions
b. Standards of performance
c. Criteria for his decisions
d. Gauge for his extension programs
75. Philosophy of extension helps the extension agent in attaining
a. What he wants for himself
b. What is probable for his clientele
c. What is possible in relation to problems identified
d. What is necessary for framer‟s life to be improved
76. When one‟s actions are not according to one‟s beliefs, the feeling that will be
experienced is called
a. Affective resonance
b. Cognitive dissonance
c. Active-reactive resonance
d. Experimental imbalance
e. Effective resonance
77. When an extension worker makes a commitment to devote his time and talents
for the upliftment of economically deprive and disadvantaged communities, this is
an expression of his
a. Vision b. mission c. goals d. philosophy d. objectives
78. Three of the four aspects of responsible well-being are
a. Developed capabilities, equity and sustainability
b. Equity, modernity, and developed capabilities
c. Productivity, sustainability, and equity
d. Equity, productivity and developed capabilities
e. Respect, sustainability and equity
79. Which of the following illustrates “livelihood security”?
a. Reliable access to adequate stocks, food and cash to meet basic needs
b. Ownership of agricultural land being operated
c. Sustained relationship between landowner and tenant
d. Permanency of employment as household help
e. Government support to production
80. The type of agriculture where the production of plants and animals is for the use
of the family and not for the market is
a. Sustainable agriculture
b. Extractive agriculture
c. Modern agriculture
d. Traditional agriculture
e. Participatory agriculture
81. The process of social and economic changes as a result of utilizing land, labor
and capital is referred to as
a. Modernization b. extension c. diffusion d. development e.
participatory
82. The term for Extension in Spain is
a. Voorlichting b. forderung c, beratung d. capacitation
83. The term used for extension in Germany is
a. Penyuluhan b. vulgarization c. erziehung d. perkembangan
84. In which country is extension defined as simplification of the message to the
common man
a. Austria b. Korea c. Dutch d. France
85. The meaning of extension as education is commonly used in
a. Austria b. Spain c. USA d. Indonesia
86. The Agriculture and Fisheries Modernization Act (AFMA) of the Philippines is
also known as
a. Republic Act. No. 8435
b. Republic Act No. 8219
c. Republic Act No. 8315
d. Republic Act No. 8350
87. The term University extension is
a. USA b. Great Britain c. Japan d. China e. Australia
88. The father of university extension is
a. Charles Fuller Baker
b. Walt Rostow
c. James Stuart
d. Everett Rogers
89. The use of indigenous resources of knowledge is a practice of
a. Modern agriculture
b. Conventional agriculture
c. Sustainable agriculture
d. Traditional agriculture
90. This dimension is not a part of traditional agriculture
a. Human resources
b. Weather and Climate
c. Land and other Natural Resources
d. Infrastructures
91. The establishment of credit unions (Rural Bank of 1952) to provide production
credit to the farers took place under the term of President
a. Manuel L. Quezon
b. Manuel B. Roxas
c. Elpidio Quirino
d. Ramon Magsaysay
e. Carlos P. Garcia
92. The Medium Term Agricultural Development Program was initiated by president
a. Carlos P. Garcia
b. Ferdinand Marcos
c. Diosdado Macapagal
d. Corazon C. Aquino
e. Fidel V. Ramos
93. The Comprehensive Agrarian Reform Program was a program of President
a. Joseph Ejercito Estrada
b. Ferdinand Marcos
c. Fiderl V. Ramos
d. Corazon C. Aquino
e. Diosdado Macapagal
94. The Masagan 99 was a program of President
a. Joseph Ejercito Estrada
b. Ferdinand Marcos
c. Corazon C. Aquino
d. Gloria Macapagal Arroyo
e. Ramon Magsaysay
95. As President of the Philippines, he believed that research would address fully our
rice problem and could be the basis for a comprehensive solution
a. Manuel L. Quezon
b. Diosdado Macapagal
c. Elpidio Quirino
d. Ramon Magsaysay
96. As a principle of sustainable agriculture, resources should be limited to what is
absolutely necessary is a principle of
a. Efficiency b. sufficiency c. consistency d. precaution
97. He was the first president of the Republic of the Philippines who was granted a
loan of P75 M and during his term, agricultural production increase sustainability.
a. Manuel L. Quezon
b. Elpidio Quirino
c. Manuel Roxas
d. Ramon Magsaysay
98. Teaching method that cannot be improved by visual treatment
a. Telephone calls and radio programs
b. Personal letters and visits
c. Office calls and circular letters
d. Get acquainted and organizational visits
e. Interneighbor and organizational visits
99. Among the five senses, the most important in learning are
a. Touch and sight b. touch and smell c. sight and hearing d. smell and sight
e. touch, smell and sight
100. Any device which utilizes the sense of sight in order to improve
communication is known as
a. Primary Visual b. Displayed Visual c. Projected Visual d. Visual Aids e.
Photograph and films
101. The classification of visuals is based on
a. Learning needs
b. Nature and use of visual materials
c. Type of audience
d. Methods of teaching
e. Audience and subject matter
102. Primary visuals are
a. Photograph including transparencies
b. Specimens and drawings
c. Forms, representatives, or reproduction of concepts or thing
d. Objects and models
e. Art works and symbol
103. They are powerful “attention getters” and “explainers” when used with
news articles in newspapers and magazines.
a. 0bjects b. photographs c. models d. graphs e. charts
104. The story that a picture tell refers to
a. The topic b. the title c. the content d. the caption in a newspaper e. the
lead in the story
105. They are realistic replicas of real things
a. Objects b. specimens c. maps d. models e. symbols
106. It is a representative of a class or group of objects.
a. Pictures b. specimen c. maps d. models e. symbols
107. They are most useful with individual or group teaching methods.
a. Objectives and specimens
b. Films
c. Photographs
d. Television
e. Slides and filmstrips
108. They are flat representations of some portion of the earth‟s surface
a. Graphic drawings
b. Pictures
c. Maps
d. Films
e. Posters
109. They are information supplied in tabular form to show sequence and
relationships
a. Charts b. graphs c. line graphs d. statistical table e. bar graphs
110. They are the most accurate of all maps
a. Line graphs b. bar graphs c. pie graphs d. pictorial graphs e. b and c
111. They are important in showing trends and relationships
a. Graphs d. line graphs c. bar graphs d. pie graphs e. pictorial graphs
112. They are diagrams or lines representing numerical quantities intended for
quick comparisons and contrast of statistical information
a. Graphs b. line graphs c. bar graphs d. pie graphs e. pictorial graphs
113. Leadership is a group phenomenon, therefore it is
a. Concerned with a group of people having a problem
b. Specific to particular situations and a function of the situation
c. Concerned with a problem of a group and solutions to the problem
d. Dealing with a group and a leader
e. Dealing with a leader and problems of the group
114. They are essential to effective leadership
a. Knowledge of human nature and acceptance of the leader by the group
b. Empathy and intelligence
c. Self-confidence and a desire to assume leadership role
d. Knowledge of the area in which leadership will develop
e. A and D
115. Leaders who are enlisted and trained for specific job opportunities are
called
a. Organizational leader
b. Activity leader
c. Program planners, council advisers, or committee members
d. Action leaders
e. Opinion leaders
116. One way to locate lay leaders is to conduct
a. Observations b. elections c. study and development meetings d. visits e.
a and c
117. They are involved in advising and assisting the extension worker in the
development of an extension program
a. Opinion leaders
b. Action leaders
c. Activity leaders
d. Program planners, council advisors, or committee members
e. 0rganizational leaders
118. Which of the following is/are goals of AFMA
a. Poverty Alleviation and Social Equity
b. Global Competitiveness
c. Food Security
d. A, B and C
e. None of them
119. The stage of adoption process wherein the farmers would apply the
technology on a large scale in preference to old method
a. Awareness b. interest c. trial d. adoption
120. People participate in development programs and projects after they have
been told of what is going to happen or has already happened. This typology of
participation is
a. Passive b. functional c. interactive d. cooperative
121. People participate in development programs and projects by providing the
field but are not involved in the experimentation or in the process of learning.
This typology of participation is
a. Passive b. functional c. interactive d. for material things
122. When farmers knowledge level and attitude are being influence
unknowingly this is called
a. Coercion b. manipulation c. exchange d. providing service
123. When power is exerted to the farmers to attain/reach their goal, there is
a. Coercion b. manipulation c. advice d. shared
124. A form of communication used in rallies and demonstration.
a. Interpersonal b. intrapersonal c. discussion d. shared
125. The Farmer‟s analysis choice experiment approach was designed by
a. Rostow b. Contado c. Davide d. Chambers
126. The Phase III of farmers Scientist Training Program is
a. Testing and Adaption
b. Generation
c. Feedback
d. Transfer and Utilization
127. It promotes sustainable agricultural development in a corn-based
production integrating crops and animals production system in upland and
lowland communities
a. FSTP b. IPM c. Farmer‟s Field School d. Farming System
128. It is a system that is centered on providing farmers with relevant, clear
and sensible advice, which depends of two-way exchange of communication
contacts between farm facilities, extension workers, researchers and
administrators.
a. Generalist b. specialist c. training and visit d. participatory
129. an extension approach wherein foreign advice is provided to local staff
a. general b. participatory c. project d. commodity
130. An extension approach practiced by DA-ATI
a. General b. participatory c. project d. commodity
131. The extension approach practiced by PhilRice
a. Participatory b. commodity c. general d. project
132. If upstream research is the responsibility of the national RDE network,
downstream research is the responsibility of
a. Regional RDE b. provincial RDE c. municipal RDE d. barangay RDE
133. An action which leads to desirable outcome is likely to be repeated in
similar circumstances” is the basic law of
a. Extension b. communication c. reinforcement d. encouragement
134. Recognition given by the people you respect is an example of
a. Rewards b. punishment c. reinforcement d. encouragement
135. People with perceive behavioral control will try to discover what they can
do better if faced with failure to obtain desired results. This behavioral control is
a. Self immunity
b. Self sufficiency
c. Self-efficiency
d. Self respect
136. Is an example of individual Method in extension
a. Farm and home visits
b. Fairs/exhibits
c. Campaigns
d. Field days
137. Is an example of Mass Media method in extension
a. Leaflets
b. Classes/seminar
c. Office calls
d. Model farmer
138. It is an example of Group Media method in extension
a. Tours/excursions
b. Indigenous Folk Media
c. Modern Information Technology
d. Informal contacts
139. Extension approach is the _________ of an agriculture system (FAO,
1988)
a. style of action
b. essence
c. doctrine
d. philosophy
140. They are the first persons in the locality who will adopt an innovation
a. Laggards
b. Innovators
c. Early adopters
d. Majority early adopters
141. A stage in adoption process wherein the farmer will week further
information about the innovation.
a. Evaluation b. awareness c. trial d. interest
142. Diffusion of an innovation takes place if
a. The benefit of the idea are difficult to observe
b. It is possible to try the idea on a small scale first
c. The idea is impossible to adopt
d. The idea does not bring benefit
143. It is the total process by which an innovation spreads out among clients
until a large number have adopted it.
a. Intervention
b. Adoption
c. Diffusion
d. Evaluation
144. Reason for non-adoption of innovation by the farmers in the 1950‟s.
a. Technology does not fit
b. Input constrains
c. Ignorance
d. Capital
145. An important point in an extension program which identifies the group of
farmers to be reached.
a. Initial situation
b. Contents
c. Target group
d. Evaluation
e. Capital
146. The operational design by which a national government implements its
extension policies
a. Extension method
b. Extension approach
c. Extension strategy
d. Extension policy
e. Extension principle
147. An extension program must determine the extent to which the desired
program results have been achieved and how will this information be used for
improving extension. This part of the extension program is being addressed by;
a. Initial situation
b. Contents
c. Target group
d. Evaluation
e. Methods
148. Is the success of an extension approach is measured by the total
productivity of a particular crop, this approach is
a. General extension approach
b. Commodity specialized approach
c. Farming systems development approach
d. Training and visit approach
149. Is the measure of success of this particular approach is farm people‟s
willingness and ability to provide some share of the cost, individually or through
their local government units, this approach is
a. General extension approach
b. Commodity specialized approach
e. Cost sharing approach
150. An extension approach which is controlled locally, often by farmers
association
a. Project extension approach
b. Participatory approach
d. Educational institution approach
151. An extension approach wherein research results are tailored to meet the
needs and interest of local farming conditions.
152. An extension approach includes a project management staff, project
allowances for field staff, better transportation, facilities, equipment, and better
housing than regular government program
d. Training an visit approach
e. Educational institution approach
153. Basic concept in extension which help rural people acquire knowledge,
skills and attitude that will help them effectively utilize the information of
technology
a. Extension communication
b. Extension education
c. Extension system
d. Extension research
e. Extension management
154. An important role of extension in sustainable development is
a. Transferring technology
b. Promoting the use of external inputs
c. Marketing
d. Walking the learning path
e. Incentive system
155. Increasing private sector participation in the agricultural extension
activities to improve the delivery of services
a. Commercialization
b. Cost-recovery scheme\
c. Privatization
d. Revitalization
156. Basic concept in extension in which the delivery of extension services to
the rural clientele or farmers is being administered.
c. Extension organization
157. Basic concept in extension wherein an organized and coherent
combination of methods or schemes to make rural extension affective in a certain
area.
a. Extension approach
b. Extension strategy
158. Basic concept in extension wherein the structural and management set-
up for the different extension works.
159. Basic concept in extension wherein schemes, methods or designs used in
extension works to achieve some goals.
b. Extension approach
d. Extension strategy
160. Basic concept in extension wherein a modus operandi or an outreach
activity or a university, agency, NGO‟S, or combined efforts of different entities
for information dissemination or technology transfer
a. Extension system
c. Extension communication
d. Extension strategy
161. The legal foundation of the whole cooperative extension work in the
U.S.A is the
a. Morill Act of 1890
b. Morill Act of 1862
c. Land Grant Act
d. Smith Lever Act of 1914
162. The Land Grant colleges in the U.S.A were established through the
a. Morill Act of 1890
b. Morill Act of 1862
c. Land Grant Act
d. Smith Lever Act of 1914
163. The home extension service in the Philippines was funded in 1923 by
Miss
a. Maria Y. Orosa
b. Eva Kalaw Katigbak
c. Helena Benetiz
d. Mecedes Conspecion
164. The Philippine adopted the Training and Visit system as a result of the
appraisal of the country‟s agricultural extension service by the
a. World bank mission
b. Bell Survey mission
c. ASEAN mission
d. New Society Agricultural Task Force
165. The extension approach that is highly specialized and focuses on one
export crop or one aspect of farming is the
a. Commodity specialized approach
b. Project approach
d. General agricultural extension approach
166. The extension approach that is characterized by the traditional transfer of
technology is the
b. Project approach
167. The extension approach where a project is implemented in a certain area
and the planning is controlled by the outsiders, the donor agency and the
government is the
b. Project approach
168. The extension approach characterized by research and extension
partnership and local people, taking a systems approach to the farm or
understanding the farm as a system is the
a. Project approach
b. General agricultural extension approach
c. Training and visit system approach
d. Farming systems development approach
169. The extension approach that is concerned with a broad range of
agricultural concerns, shifting its focus from time to time as village problems
change or as needs arise is the
a. Project approach
b. General agricultural extension approach
c. Training and visit system approach
d. Agricultural extension participatory approach
170. The extension approach where beneficiaries or clients share some part of
the costs is
a. General agricultural extension approach
b. Training and visit system approach
c. Agricultural extension participatory approach
d. Cost sharing approach
171. The ______ is an organized and coherent combination of extension
methods and strategies aimed at reinforcing the rules and regulation of the
scheme.
a. Functional group approach
b. Technical change approach
c. Scheme approach
d. Target category approach
172. The ____ offers specific ideas or information to selected groups in a
population rather than to the whole farming population
c. Scheme approach
d. Target category approach
173. The ____ utilizes independent, self managed, and in most cases
permanent organizations such as the farmers associations or cooperatives in
rural extension work
c. Scheme approach
d. Farmer‟s organization approach
174. The _____ aims to work with particular groups of people joined together
to achieve a shared goal where change in behavior of group members is carried
out by mobilization, organization, training, technical and resource support\
c. Scheme approach
d. Farmer‟s organization approach
175. The creation of the Bureau of Agricultural Extension was the
recommendation of the
a. World Bank Mission
b. ASEAN Mission
c. Philippine Congress of 1901\
d. Bell Survey Mission
176. The “death of Bureau of Agricultural Extension meant the birth of the
a. Local Government Unit‟s extension division
b. Regional Consortium on Agricultural Extension
c. State Colleges and Universities extension centers
d. Agricultural Training Institute
177. The death of BAEX took place by virtue of
a. Executive Order (EO) 126
b. Executive Order (EO) 116
c. Executive Order (EO) 136
d. Executive Order (EO) 106
178. RA 7160 devolved the agricultural extension services of the Department
of Agriculture to the
a. State colleges and universities
b. Local government units
c. Non-government organizations that are into extension works
d. Agricultural communities
179. Extension in Europe started with
a. Cambridge University
b. Trinity College
c. London University
d. University of Manchester
180. During the American regime, extension and research programs of the
government were implemented on April 30, 1903 with the establishment of
a. Bureau of Soils
b. Bureau of Agricultural Extension
c. Bureau of Agriculture
d. Bureau of Plant Industry
181. The U.S, agricultural extension work was formally instituted due to the
extension programs of universities and the establishment of
a. Land grant universities
b. Country agriculture centers
c. Model farms
d. Demonstration farm
182. Extension communication involves education because it is concerned
with changes in ______, skills and attitudes of its clients.
a. Knowledge b. opinion c. future d. behavior
183. The new name that replaced the agricultural Extension Bureau in 1963
that broadened the scope of work that include increase in productivity of farms,
and advancement of farmers etc, is the
a. Agricultural Productivity Commission
b. Agricultural Extension
c. Training institute for agriculture
d. Agriculture Productivity Institute\
184. _______set the beginning of extension work in the Philippines that served
both as experimental stations of the Spanish government and demonstration
centers for farmers
a. Granja Modelos or model farm
b. Grandioso farm
c. Model Garden
d. Demo farm
185. The division that was considered the first formally organized government
department implementing extension and research program is the __________
a. Demonstration and Extension Division of the Bureau of Agriculture
b. Division of Science
c. Division of Horticulture
d. Division of Plant Protection
186. The agency formed out of the merging of the BAEX, the Phil Agricultural
Training Council and the Philippine Training Center for Rural Development is
the_____
a. Agricultural Training Institute
b. Agricultural Extension Bureau Agricultural
c. Agricultural Advisory Centre
d. Farmer‟s Training Centre
187. The name called to persons engaged in extension service or extension
work such as farmer‟s cooperatives, rural credit, marketing and animal insurance
is called_____
a. Farm adviser
b. Farm teacher
c. Extension educator
d. Extensionist
188. Effective communication means
a. There are no blocks or barriers in the communication
b. There is communication fidelity
c. Source of message ant its receiver are in homophily
d. Giving the message to the receiver
189. Which type of extension method requires a small group of experts or well-
informed persons that exchange ideas?
a. Brainstorming b. panel c. Philip 66 d. meeting
190. In the communication process feedback is
a. Channel-oriented b. message oriented c. source –oriented d.
receiver-oriented
191. What teaching method would you use if you want the group to think and
speak out freely and in a spontaneous and unrestrained manner?
a. Panel b. symposium c. brainstorming d. meeting
192. The type of meeting that has for its purpose or reviewing a particular
problem, suggesting a number of solutions and deciding upon a course or action
is the
a. Information meeting
b. Planning meeting
c. Special interest meeting
d. General meeting
193. Which of the following is not a subsystem of the extension delivery
system?
a. Market subsystem b. Policy subsystem c.Technology subsystem d.User
subsystem
194. According to MOSHER, the following are essentials of agricultural
development EXCEPT
a. Markets for farm products
b. Education for development
c. Constantly changing technology
d. Transportation
195. Information extended through agricultural extension will be useful only if it
a. Enhances working relationships among farm people
b. Boosts morale of the poor and underpriviledged
c. Enhances efficiency of farmers
d. Improves the image of agricultural extensionists
196. The process used by agricultural extension in assisting farm people is
characterized as
a. Advocacy b. educational c. manipulative d. propaganda
197. Which of the following in NOT an objective of extension?
a. Improve farming methods and techniques
b. Help farm people utilize information and technology
c. Influence policy makers re plight of farmers
d. Lift the social and educational standards of rural life
198. While extension is regarded as largely educational, it is a different type of
educational from that happening in schools and colleges because extension
a. Involves no coercion of any sort
b. Is free as it is fully funded by the government
c. Revolves around the farmers concerns only
d. Has no approve curriculum
199. The stage in the adoption process where mass media is the best source
of information is the
a. Awareness stage
b. Interest stage
c. Evaluation stage
d. Trial stage
200. The stage in the adoption process where close friends and other farmers
are best sources of information is the
a. Interest stage
b. Trial stage
c. Evaluation stage
d. Adoption stage
ANIMAL SCIENCE
1. Sexual receptivity which coincides with estrus in animals that exhibit estrous
cycle is due to large amounts of
a. Testosterone
b. Progesterone
c. Estrogen
d. Relaxin
2. _______________ is the hormone responsible for milk injection in a lactating
mammary gland
a. Prolactin
b. Calcitonin
c. Oxytocin
d. Epinephrine
3. _______________ is the primary sex organ of the female animals. It is
responsible for the production of the ovum and the female gonadal hormones
a. Ovary
b. Vagina
c. Cervix
d. Uterus
4. _______________ is the site of implantation of the fertilized ovum in livestock
a. Oviduct
b. Horns of Uterus
c. Cervix
d. Vagina
5. An animal whose testes remained inside the body cavity and failed to descend
to the scrotum is called
a. Capon
b. Castrate
c. Cryptorchid
d. Eunuch
6. These are the cells in the testis which are responsible for the production of the
hormone testosterone
a. Epithelial cells b. leydig cells c. sertoli cells d. none of the above
7. ___________ is the hormone that stimulates ovulation of mature ovarian
follicles
a. Luteinizing hormone b. follicle stimulating hormone c. progesterone d.
testosterone
8. A phase within the estrous cycle which is characterized by sexual receptivity of
the female
a. Proestrus b. estrus c. metestrus d. diestrus
9. This transient tissue result from the fusion of the fetal membranes to the
endometrium of the uterus to permit physiologic exchange between fetus and
the mother during pregnancy
a. Placenta b. cyst c. conceptus d. womb
10. Specific part of the test is where formation of spermatozoa takes place
a. Leydig cell b. sertoli cell c. semeniferous tubule d. reti testis
11. ___________ refers to the union of the sperm cell and the ovum
a. Fertilization b. syngamy c. sperm migration d. conjugation
12. The average gestation period (days) in swine is
a. 144 b. 283 c. 340 d. 150
13. Implantation and placentation characterized by the formation of endometrial
cups s specific for this species
a. Mare b. cow c. caracow d. sow
14. Farrowing is specific term for the act of parturition, or the act of giving birth
a. Cattle b. horse c. pig d. goat
15. Polyestrus animals are those that come in heat all throughout the year. Among
the following which is not a polyestrus
a. Cow b. caracow c. pig d. bitch
16. Induced ovulator is an animal that does not ovulate unless there is copulation.
Which among the following is and induced ovulator
a. Rabbit b. pig c. sheep d. cattle
17. The best sign of estrus in a normal cycling animal is
a. Swelling of vulva
b. Standing still when mounted
c. Mucus discharge from vulva
d. Restlessness
18. The best time to breed or inseminate is t the
a. Start of estrus
b. Towards the end of estrus
c. Mid-estrus
d. Before the start of estrus
19. The lifespan of ejaculated mammalian spermatozoa in the female reproductive
tract is about
a. 24 hours b. 5 days c. 1 week d. 2 weeks
20. The hormone produced by the Sertoli cells in the semeniferous tubules which
has a negative feedback effect on FSH secretion is called
a. Inhibin b. oxytocin c. calcitonin d. prolactin
21. Any feed constituent or group of feed constituents that aids in the support of life
us nutrient. It may include
a. Synthetically produced vitamins such as A, D and E
b. Chemically produced inorganic salts such as ZnO, MnSO4, and FeSO4
c. Biogenically synthesized di-methionine and L-lysine
d. Naturally occurring sugar, starch, cellulose and gums
e. All of the above
22. Digestion is the breaking down of feed particles into suitable products for
absorption
a. May include mechanical forces such as mastication and muscular contraction
of the gastro-intestinal tract
b. May include chemical processes such as action of HCI produced in the G.I
tract
c. May include enzymatic action of proteases produced in the GI tract
d. May include enzymatic actions produced by bacteria located in the cecum
e. All of the above
23. Breakdown of feed nutrients to their basic units
a. Absorption
b. Metabolism
c. Digestion
d. Prehension
24. Absorption is the transfer of substance from gastro-intestinal tract to the
circulatory system
a. Occurs primarily in the small and large intestine
b. Villi increase surface are for absorption
c. Occurs primarily in the stomach and intestines
d. All of the above
25. Absorption involves the movement of the basic units from areas of high
concentration to are of low concentration
a. Absorption of glucose and proteins occurs primarily in the small intestines
b. Absorption of vitamins and minerals occurs in the large intestine
c. Water is absorbed in the large intestine
d. All of the above
26. Metabolism is the combination of anabolic and catabolic reactions occurring in
the body with the liberation of energy
a. It occurs after glucose, amino acids, vitamins and minerals have been
absorbed in the blood
b. It occurs after carbohydrates, proteins, vitamins and minerals have been
absorbed in the blood
c. It occurs after starch, peptides, vitamins and minerals have been absorbed
into the blood
d. It involves the Embden-Myeroff pathway and Krebs cycle
e. All of the above
27. Predominant nutrient in the body of animals
a. Fats b. carbohydrates c. proteins d. water e. none of the above
28. Water is the cheapest and most abundant nutrient
a. Makes up to 65-85% of animal body weight at birth and decreases with
maturity
b. Makes up to 40-50% of animal body weight at birth and increases with
maturity
c. Has direct relationship with body fat
d. All of the above
29. Water account for 90-95% blood and many tissues contain 70-90% water, which
of the following is not true?
a. Found in the animal muscles and skin as intracellular water
b. Found in the blood plasma, lymph and cerebrospinal as extra cellular fluids
c. Present in urinary tract and GI tract
d. Present in the feed as metabolic water
e. All of the above
30. Carbohydrates make up approximately ¾ of plant dry weight and make up the
largest part of animals food supply
a. Made up of C (40%), H (7%), and O (53%) by molecular weight
b. Made up of C (53%), H (7%), O (23%), N (16%) and P (1%) by molecular
weight
c. Made up of C (40%), H (7%), O (53%), P (1%) and S (1%) by molecular
weight
d. Made up of C (53%), H (7%), O (23%), N (16%), and P (1%) and S (1%) by
molecular weight
31. Main carbohydrate source of ruminants
a. Lignin b. hemicelluloses c. starch d. none of the above
32. Storage form of carbohydrate in the body
a. Starch b. glycogen c. glycolipid d. cellobiose e. none of the
above
33. Main energy source of non-ruminants
a. Starch b. glycogen c. hemicelluloses d. cellulose e. none of
the above
34. Fats are insoluble in water but soluble in organic solvents. Yield more energy
than carbohydrates or proteins
a. 1.25 times
b. 2.25 times
c. 3.25 times
d. 4.25 times
35. Fats are classified as simple, compound or derived lipids. When hydrolyzed will
yield
a. Glycolipids and fatty acids
b. Glycerol and fatty acids
c. Phospholipids and glycerol
d. Phospholipids and fatty acids
36. Main basic unit of fats and oils
a. Fatty acids
b. Amino acids
c. Sulfuric acids
d. Hydrochloric acid
37. Fats function as source of essential fatty acids, such as
a. Oleic and linoliec acid
b. Linoleic and linoleic acid
c. Arachidonic ad oleic acid
38. Ideal ratio of calcium and phosphorous in the diet for monogastric animals
a. 1:1 – 1:2
b. 2:1 – 3:1
c. 1:2 – 2:3
d. 1:5:2 – 2:5:3
39. Macromineral found in amino acids, cystine and methionine and in vitamins,
biotin and thiamine
a. Calcium b. magnesium c. sulfur d. phosphorous e. none of the
above
40. Micromineral essential for the formation of enzymes related to oxygen transport
and utilization
a. Manganese b. iodine c. iron d. zinc e.all of the above
41. Trace mineral that is component of the vitamin B12 molecule
a. Cu b. Co c. Mn d. Mg e. none of the above
42. Vitamins are organic compounds of natural food but distinct from carbohydrates,
fats, proteins and water. Water soluble vitamins include.
a. Thiamine and riboflavin b. vitamin A and D c. vitamin E and k d. all of the
above
43. Fat soluble vitamins are in appreciable amount in the animal body. However,
excess amount of fat soluble vitamins is not excreted in the urine. Examples of
fat soluble vitamins are.
A. Vitamin A and E
B. B. thiamine and riboflavin
C. Vitamin C and D
D. D. pantothenic and biotin
E. All of the above
44. Niacin acts as an active groupnof different coenzyme which are related to the
citric acid cycle
a. As constituent of nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide (NAD)
b. As constituent of flavin mononucleotide
c. As constituent of flavin adenine dinucleotide (FAD)
d. All of the above
45. Pyridoxine as a coenzyme form of phosphate is involved an large number of
physiologicals. B6 involved in the conversion of
a. Tryptophan to nicotinic acid
b. Phenylalanine to tyrosine
c. Tryptophan to tyrosine
d. Phenylalanine to nicotinic acid
46. Vitamin, containing cyanide group attached to the cobalt atom which is
responsible for the name cyanocobalamin
a. B1 b.B2 c. B6 d. B12 e. none of the above
47. Farm animals are classified according to type of GI tracts. Ruminant include
a. Cattle , carabaos and horse
b. Cattle, carabaos and sheeps
c. Cattle carabaos and pigs
d. Cattle, pig and chicken
48. Non-ruminants are simple stomach such as
a. Pig, horse and rabbit
b. Pig, horse goat
c. Pig, horse and sheep
d. Pig, horse and cattle
49. Ruminants have only one true gastric stomach but with additional compartments
which evolved for fiber digestion. The true gastric stomach equivalent in non-
ruminants is
a. Abomasums b. rumen c. reticulum d. omasum e. none of the above
50. Conditions in the rumen responsible for a significant pregastric fermentation
a. Anaerobic environment b. constant food temperature c. constant food supply
d. moisture e. all of the above
51. It is one of the compartments of stomach in ruminants which is round muscular
organ containing many muscular laminae and sometimes called manyplies or
“libro” Rumen b. reticulum c. omasum d. abomasums e. none of the above
52. It corresponds to the true stomach in none-ruminants and is the site Of the HCI
and pepsin production in bird
a. Crop b. proventrculus c. ventriculus d. small intestine e. none of the
above
53. For absorption to occur, nutrients must be broken down to very small molecules.
The basic unit carbohydrate is.
a. Amino acid b. glucose c. glycerol d. sucrose e. none of the above
54. After a mechanical breakdown, salivary amylase hydrolyze nutrient to their basic
units
a. Starch to maltose b. starch to volatile fatty acids c. protein acid d.
cellulose to volatile fatty acids all of the above
55. Which of the following is not an end of fiber digestion in ruminants?
a. Acetic acid b. palmitic acid c. butyric acid d. propionic acid e. all of the
above
56. End-product of carbohydrate digestion in ruminants
a. Essential fatty acids b. non-essential fatty acids c. volatile fatty acids d.
non-volatile fatty acids e. all of the above
57. One of the 4 compartments of stomach in ruminants which functions in the
regurgitation of ingesta during rumination.
a. Rumen b. reticulum c. omasum d. abomasums e. none of the above
58. Roughages are plant materials which contain greater than 18% CF. These feeds
are suited for animals such as.
a. Chicken b. duck c. swine d. carabao
59. Fiber content of a feedstuff is the first consideration in classifying the feeds into
different feed groups. Low-fiber include.
a. Pasture b. silage c. hays d. straws e. green chop
60. When plants material is chopped and packed into a silo, the forage is conserved
by anaerobic fermentation
a. Soilage b. silage c. hays d. straws e. green chop
61. Protein feeds are relatively rich in protein so that when added to cereal grains
will improve performance of the animal. The CP content of protein feeds is
a. More than 10% b. more than 15% c. more than 20% d. more than 30%
e. more than 40%
62. Which of the fallowing is cot a concentrated source of mineral elements?
a. Limestone b. tricalcium phosphate c. di-methonine d oyster shell e. salt
63. Composed of outer layer of wheat kernel. It has lower energy but higher protein
than rice bran
a. Wheat bran b. corn bran c. tricicale d. wheat pollard e. wheat flour
64. Which of the fallowing is not a concentrated source of energy?
a. Coconut oil b. lard c. corn oil d.tallow e. peanut meal
65. Animal protein containing 80-85% CP but low in isoleucine. It is commonly used
as bypass protein in ruminants
a. Fish meal b. blood meal c. tankage d. feather meal e. eat and bone
meal
66. A farmer has plenty of yellow corn(8.5%CP) and soya meal (44%CP). How
much soya meal will be needed for a 100 kg mixture containing 14% CP?
a. 14.59 b. 15.49 c. 13.49 d. 12.59 d. 12.59 e. none of the above
67. A. 100kg ration is deficient in metabolizable energy of 100 kca/kg. Hhow much
coco oil (8600 kca/kg) be needed to supplement the deficiency
a. 120 kg b. 1.20 kg c. 12.0 kg d. .012kg e. none of the above
68. A 100 kg ration is deficient in methionine. How much di-methoinine (90%) be
added to supplement the 25% deficiency?
a. 1.0 kg b. 0.5 kg c.028% d.1.5 kg d. 5.0 kg e none of the above
69. A manufacturer recommended inclusion rate for vitamin premix is 5 KG PER
TON OF FEED How much vitamin premix will be added to 100 kg feed
a. 1.0 kg b. 0.5 kg c. 1.5 kg d. 5.0 kg e. none of the above
70. Splanchnic circulation is a part of systematic circulation that supplies blood to
the
a. Heart b. kidney c. liver d. digestive tract
71. Hyperthrophy & hyperplasia of the thyroid gland cells are compensatory
mechanisms to counteract the deficiency of what mineral?
a. Iodine b. phosphorus c. calcium d. iron
72. Gigantim results from the hypersecretion of which hormone after the closure of
the epiphyseal plate of the long bones
a. Prolaction b. luteinjzing hormone (LH) c. follicle stimulating hormone
(FSH) d. somatoraphic (STH)
73. Destruction of the beta cells of the_____will lead into a disease condition known
as diabetes mellitus
a. Liver b. kidney c. pancreas d. adrenals
74. A kind of blood cell(cellular elements) which is non-nucleated and contains a red
pigment called hemoglobin
a. Erythrocyte b. lymphocyte c. thrombocyte d. monocyte
75. The artery at the base of the tail of an animal where the pulse is detected I
called
a. Temoral artery b. coccygeal artery c. saphenous artery d. pulmonary
76. Is a type of bone that contains air apaces or sinuses that communicate with the
exterior
a. Pneumatic bone b. sesamoid bone c. flat bone d. long bone
77. _______are the muscles attached to the bones of the skeleton, which are
usually referred to as the flesh or meat animals
a. Cardiac muscles b. involuntary muscles c. smooth muscles d. skeletal
muscles
78. Animals which feed on both plants and animals are called
a. Herbivores b. carnivores c. omnivores d. none of the above
79. The most important contribution of animals to human welfare is
a. Companionship b. clothing c. traction d. food
80. The basic functional unit of the nervous system
a. Nephron b. neuron c. alveoli d. none of the above
81. Nerve cells do not come in direct contact with ine another, instead is a small gap
of about 200 angstrom units between them. This gap is called
a. Synapse b. perivitelline space c. axonal end d. none of the above
82. ________is defined as a substance or chemical mediator which is produced by
an endocrine gland and carried by the blood to some distant part of the body
where it exert its effects
a. Enzyme b. toxin c. hormone d. vitamin
83. The artrio-ventricular systole. The A-v valve present on the right side of the
heart is called
a. Pulmonary valve b. tricuspid valve c. aortic valve d. biscupid valve
84. A specialized structure at the right atrial wall of the heart and is referred to
usually as the cardiac peacemaker
a. atrio-ventricular b. bundle of his c. sino-atrial node d. purkinje network
85. The artery middle of the lower jaw where pulse in the horse is usually
determined
a. External maxillary b. saphenous artery c.femoral artery d. coccygeal
artery
86. This systematic circulation supplies blood to the heart itself
a. Coronary circulation b. cerebral circulation c. heptatic circulation d.
renal circulation
87. The circular element that liberates throboplastin which is important in blood
clothing is called
a. Red blood cell b. white blood cell c. platelet d. none of the above
88. Blood can carry oxygen to different parts of the body because of the conjugated
protein present in the red blood cell . the conjugated protein which binds
oxygen is called
a. Myogobin b. hemoglobin c.immunoglobulin d. transferring
89. This hormone helps in reducing urine volume by increasing readsorption of
water in the collecting ducts of the kidney
a. Vasopressin b. adrenalin c. oxytocin d. prolactin
90. The structural and functional unit of the kidney is called
a. Axon b. nephon c. calyx d. neuron
91. The part of the digestive tract, which is the common passage for, feed and airs
a. Larynx b. pharynx c. trachea d. esophagus
92. In the digestive system of the fowl, the true stomach is the
a. Gizzard b. Proventriculus c. Crop d. cecum
93. The part of the digestive system of the horse which enables it to live on grass in
spite / of the fact that is not a ruminant
a. Small intestine b. pancreas c. cecum d. adrenal gland
94. The hairs on the body of the cattle converge to form hair streams and vortices
known as ______
a. Patch b. hair pattern c. cowlick d.crypt
95. An oily and semi-liquid secretion of an animal‟s sebaceous gland, which protects
the skin from harmful substances pt
a. Sebum b. cenumen c cuticle d. dansdruff
96. It is the range of environmental temperature where any regulation to maintain
body temperature is only slight and it is of the physical variety
a. Summit metabolism b. critical temperature c. zone of thermal conflict d.
maximal heat production
97. If the ambient temperature is equal to the body temperature the body losses
heat only by
a. Radiation b. conduction c. convection d. vaporization
98. _______is a chemical means of thermoregulation
a. Locating a shelter b. changing free surface c. changing amount of
thermal insulation d. shivering
99. This term refers to the maintenance of static or constant conditions in the
thermal environment of the animal
a. Homeostasis of the animal b. homeothermy c. homeokinesis d.
homozygous
100. _______is the hormone which facilitates the transport of glucose from the
blood into the cells of tissues.
a. Insulin b. thyroxine c. prolactin d. calcitonin
101. This vitamin is important for blood clotting because it is used as a co-
factor in the synthesis of prothrombin by the liver
a. Vitamin A b. vitamin C c. vitamin D d. vitamin K
102. Which of the following is not present in the lymph fluid
a. Glucose b. erythrocytes c. lymphocytes d. platelets
103. Passive expiration is exemplified by which activity?
a. Coughing b. talking aloud c. laughing d. quiet breathing
104. Which of the following is not included in the animal industry of the
country?
a. Pig b. cattle c. chicken d. camel
105. This animal subsists mainly on grasses and is raised mainly by
smallholder farmers in the rural areas.
a. Pig b. carabao c. chicken d. duck
106. Among the following animals, which is the one that can perceive many
colors of the light spectrum
a. Cattle b. sheep c. goat d. pig
107. This animal has very poor sense of taste
a. Chicken b. cattle c. horse d. swine
108. A classification of bone which is greater in one direction than any other ,
and functions mainly as levers and aid in support, locomotion and prehension
a. Long bone b. short bone c. sesamoid bone d. pneumatic
bone
109. The wish bone of chickens is actually the
a. Humerus b. clavicle c. radius d. ulna
110. The muscle which constitutes the thickness of the wall of the heart
(myocardium) and its rhythmic contraction is responsible for blood circulation
a. Cardiac muscle b. skeletal muscle c. smooth muscle d. none of
the above
111. The hormone that increase the basal metabolic rate (BMR) of the body is
a. Epinephrine b. thyroxine c. prolactin d. calcitonin
112. The production system of this livestock species is very intensive,
commercially oriented and depends heavily on commercial missed feeds
a. Goat b. cattle c. carabao d. pig
113. The biological system is composed of the brain, spinal cord and the
nerves
a. Cardiovascular system
b. Endocrine system
c. Nervous system
d. Excretory system
114. This endocrine gland is located at the neck area just below the larynx. It
secretes thyroxine and T3
a. Adrenal gland b. pancreas c. thyroid gland d. none of the
above
115. This vitamin increases the efficiency of calcium and phosphorous
absorption across the intestinal wall, making these minerals available for the
bone formation
a. Vitamin A b. vitamin E c. vitamin D d. vitamin K
116. One of the important functions of this biological system is to carry O2 from
the lungs to the tissues and CO2 from the tissues to the lungs
a. Respiratory system
b. Excretory system
c. Cardiovascular system
117. In general, the smaller the body size of an animal species, the faster is its
pulse rate. The average pulse rate of a mouse is
a. 45 beats/min
b. 72 beats/min
c. 300 beats/min
d. 600 beats/min
118. All the venous blood from the systematic circulation are returned back to
the heart via
a. Pulmonary vein b. pulmonary artery c. vena cava d. aorta
119. Hepatic circulation is a part of systematic circulation that supplies blood to
the
a. Liver b. kidney c. brain d. pancreas
120. The mineral which acts as a co-factor in the process of blood clotting is
a. Magnesium b. potassium c. calcium d. phosphorous
121. The amount of the air that moves into the lungs with each inspiration, or
the amount that moves out with each expiration is called
a. Inspiratory reserve volume (IRV)
b. Expiratory reserve volume (ERV)
c. Tidal volume (TV)
d. Vital capacity
122. A process of heat dissipation which involves direct contact of the animal
with a part of its environment
a. Conduction b. convection c. radiation d. vaporization
123. The normal rectal temperature range of chicken is
a. 36-39 degrees c
b. 38-40
c. 40-41
124. Which of the following herbivores is not a ruminant
a. Cattle b. carabao c. horse d. goat
125. The young of this species is called a kid
a. Cattle b. pig c. horse d. goat
126. The best time to breed or inseminate is at the
a. Start of estrus
b. Towards end of estrus
c. Mid-estrus
d. Before the start of estrus
127. Pulmonary circulation is circulation of the blood that takes place in the
a. Lungs b. liver c. kidney d. brain
128. The transport of hormones from the endocrine glands to the target organs
is a function of the
a. Cardiovascular system
b. Nervous system\
c. Respiratory system
d. Excretory system
129. Auscultation method using stethoscope is the usual procedure employed
in determining the pulse rate of
a. Sheep b. horse c. cattle d. pig
130. Pneumatic bone contains air spaces or sinuses that communicate with
the environment_____ is an example of the pneumatic bone of a horse
a. Maxilla b. femur c. carpus d. humerus
131. The mineral which is an integral component of hemoglobin is
a. Iodine b. iron c. fluorine d. magnesium
132. The functions of genes are the following except
a. Control the function of other (structural) genes
b. Copy or replicate itself
c. Store and transmit genetic information
d. Undergo mutation
133. Inbreeding depression in most reproductive traits in farm animals is
caused by
a. Out crossing hybridization
b. Parent offspring mating
c. Species
d. Upgrading
134. In the formula P(phenotype) = G (genetics) + E (environment), the
following are the types of gene that may be exploited by crossbreeding except
a. Additive gene effect
b. Dominance
c. Epistasis
d. Overdominance
135. __________ leads to random genetic drift because of chance variation or
sampling effects/errors
a. Migration
b. Non-random mating
c. Selection
d. Small population size
136. The magnitude of inbreeding depression in inbred populations depends
on
a. Degree of coefficient of inbreeding
b. Dominance effects (d)
c. Frequency of heterozygotes before breeding (2pg)
d. All of the above
137. Duroc is a breed of
a. Beef cattle
b. Dairy cattle
c. Goat
d. Swine
138. When a gene suppresses he expression of its allele, the former is called
the dominant gene while the latter is referred to as the _____ gene
a. Homozygous
b. Recessive
c. Regulator
d. Structural
139. __________ determines the sex of the individual
a. Autosomes b. mating system c. selection d. sex chromosome
140. ________ is the notation used to refer to the heterogametic sex
chromosomes of a hen
a. XX b. XY c. ZZ D. ZW
141. __________ is the heterogametic sex in chromosomes
a. Male
b. Female
c. Either male or female
d. Bothe male and female
142. Milk production in cows and egg production in quails are example of
economically important traits which are known as
a. Maternal effect
b. Sex-influenced
c. Sex-limited
143. ________ is when genes that are more closely linked to the inherited
together more than those that are located further apart in the same chromosome
a. Autosomal linkage inheritance
b. Pleiotropy
c. Non-nuclear
d. Sex-linkage
144. The following reproductive technology increases the reproduction rate in
the bull, buck, boar, or ram
a. Multiple ovulation and embryo transfer
b. Artificial insemination
c. In vitro fertilization
d. Cryopreservation
145. In Mendel‟s Law of Segregation, the following are stated except
a. Genes determine characters
b. Genes occur in pairs
c. Only one of the gene pair is transmitted by a particular gamete
d. Segregation and recombination is random
146. In a segment of deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA), adenine is an example of
a. Amino acid b. nucleotide‟ c. purine d. pyramidine
147. _______ is the term use in the gametogenesis in the cow
a. Fertilization b. heterosis c. oogenesis d. spermatogenesis
148. _________ is a segment of the DNA which determines the base
sequence of nucleotide in the messenger ribonucleic acid (RNA) that makes up
the code for certain biological function
a. Chromosome b. gamete c. gene d. genotype
149. ________ is the process of the union of the sperm and the egg to form a
zygote which develops as a new individual
a. Fertilization b. gametogenesis c. meiosis d. mitosis
150. _____________ is the process by which the germinal cells divide to
produce haploid cells each carrying only one-half of the genetic complement of
the individual
151. ________ is the process of reproducing the reproductive cells
152. _________ is the spontaneous change in the biochemical structure of the
gene resulting in an entirely different phenotypic effect
a. Migration b. mutation c. random genetic drift d. selection
153. ____________ measures the proportion of the total phenotypic variance
that are attributable in an entirely different phenotypic effect
a. Heritability b. repeatability c. dominance d. epistasis
154. ______________ is the result of crossbreeding characterized by a large
improvement in the average performance of the F1 progeny over that of the
parents
a. Heterosis b. random genetic drift c. panmixia d. linkage
155. _____________ is when individuals of the same phenotype (+) or
fidderent phenotype (-) are mated
a. Assortative
b. Outbreeding
c. Non-random mating
d. Panmixia
156. ______________ is the capability of a phenotype and a corresponding
genotype to survive and reproduce in a given environment
a. Epistasis
b. Fitness
c. Genotype x environmental interaction
d. Panmixia
157. __________ causes differential fitness among genotypes
a. Migration b. mutation c. random genetic drift d. selection
158. ___________ is the change in the population mean due to selection
a. Selection differential
b. Response to selection
c. Selection intensity
d. Genetic standard deviation
159. _____________ is the mating between animals less closely related than
the average of the group to which they belong
a. Inbreeding
b. Outbreeding
c. Outcrossing
d. Crisscrossing
160. __________ is the difference of the mean phenotypic value between the
offspring of the selected parents and the whole of the parental generation before
selection
a. Selection differential
b. Response to selection
c. Selection intensity
d. Genetic standard deviation
161. __________ is when certain genotypes perform well under certain
environments than other genotypes
a. Epistasis
b. Fitness
c. Genotype x phenotype interaction
d. Panmixia
162. __________________ is a form of non-random mating except
a. Assortative mating
b. Disassortative mating
c. Inbreeding
163. The following are examples of outbreeding except
a. Crossing of inbred lines
b. Full sib mating
c. Interspecific hybridization
d. Upgrading
164. According to the Hanrdy-Weinberg Law the following are factors that
affect gene and genotypic frequency in a breeding population except
a. Migration b. mutation c, selection d, verification
165. The following is a consequence of inbreeding except
a. Exposure of undesirable recessive gene combinations
b. Hybrid vigor
c. Inbreeding depression
d. A and C only
166. The total number of carabaos owned mostly by smallholder farmers in the
Philippines is approximately
a. 30,000 b. 300,000 c. 3 million d. 30 million
167. The reproductive rate (i.e. expected number of young produced per year)
in pigs is
a. 0.5 b 1 to 3 c. 10 to 25 d. 50 to 300
168. The process of heating foodstuff, usually a liquid for a definite
temperature and time, and thereafter cooling it immediately.
a. Pasteurization
b. Homogenization
c. Clarification
d. Curing
169. The term refers to the act of slaughtering animals dead of some cause
prior to the time of slaughter
a. Fabrication
b. Hot slaughter
c. Cold slaughter
d. Double killing
170. Milk product where the butterfat is replaced with vegetable fat such as
coconut
a. Full cream milk
b. Flavored milk
c. Condensed milk
d. Skim milk
171. The following are considered essential amino acids to human diet except
a. Phenylalamine
b. Methionine
c. Alanine
d. All of the above
172. The meat is considered deficient in this mineral
a. Iron
b. Manganese
c. Calcium
d. All of the above
e. A and C only
173. What is the average amount of water in fresh whole milk
a. 87% b. 95% c. 70% d. 80% e. none of the above
174. What is the recommended temperature of chilling meat?
a. -15 to 0 °C
b. 10-15 °C
c. 5 to 10 °C
d. 2 to 4 °C
175. The term refers to meat coming form an illegal source
a. Hot meat
b. Short meat
c. Cold meat
d. Green meat
e. Red meat
176. The following are the conditions that would warrant animals to be denied
for slaughter EXCEPT
a. The animal is pregnant
b. The animal is sick
c. The animal shows lameness
d. The animal is newly injected with anti-biotic
177. The following are basic ingredients in curing meat EXCEPT
a. Salt b. sugar c. spices d. nitrite c. C and D only
178. The Animal Welfare Law is promulgated under what Republic Act?
a. R.A 711
b. R.A 85 84
c. R.A 8485
d. R.A 710
e. R.A 712
179. The following are necessary management practices that should be done
prior to the slaughter of animal EXCEPT
a. Fasting
b. Branding
c. Cleaning of animals and facilities
d. Letting the animal relax
e. Handling the animals gently
180. The following are basic factors to consider in slaughtering of animals
EXCEPT
a. The cleanliness of the meat produced as well as the health of the animal
b. Efficiency of meat inspection
c. Hygiene of production
d. Adequacy of meat preservation
181. The maximum safe amount of nitrite residue in finished sausages
a. 100 ppm b. 200 ppm c. 250 ppm d. 300 ppm d. 275
ppm
182. A livestock marketing system wherein a mother company takes the
animals produced and takes care of the processing before final sale to the
consumers.
a. Livestock market scheme
b. Contract growing scheme
c. Barrio agent scheme
d. City dealer scheme
183. Debeaking or beak trimming is done to prevent cannibalism. This is
recommended for
a. broilers b. egg type chickens c. ducks d. all of the above
184. The high cost of production for raising commercial strains of chicken is
due mainly to the high cost of inputs such as
a. Labor b. electricity c. feeds d. all of the above
185. The process where fully developed embryo (chicks) breaks out of the egg
a. Breaking b. incubating c. hatching d. brooding
186. Old hen that had past their usefulness for commercial egg production
a. Capon b. spent hens c. cull d. B and C
187. The incubation period for chicken eggs
a. 18 days
b. 21 days
c. 26 days
d. 24 days
188. What is the feed efficiency of 100 broilers having an average final body
weight of 2.0 kg/head after consuming 3.75 kg of feed for 42 days
a. 1.9 b. 1.8 c, 1.88 d. 0.53
189. Which broiler farm is the most efficient given the following FE values
a. 1.88 b. 2.5 c. 1.6 d. 3.0
190. If the dressing percentage for chicken is 70% what should be the dressing
recovery of broilers weighing 2.0 kg. live weight
a. 1.4 kg b. 1.5 kg c. 1.4 g d. 1.5 g
191. To give birth to young pigs
a. Calving b. kidding c. farrowing d. pigletting
192. Young female swine that has not given birth and usually kept for breeding
a. Cow b. gilt c. sow d. heifer
193. A castrated pig after sexual maturity is called
a. Stag b. boar c. barrow d. stallion
194. If the average daily gain of the animals is 500 gms per day, how long will
it take a 15 kgs pig to reach 85 kgs
a. 140 days b. 150 days c. 200 days d. 180 days
195. Method of identifying piglets
a. Hot iron branding
b. Wing web band
c. Ear notching
d. Tail docking
196. Reasons for castrating pigs
a. Fast growth rate
b. Better feed efficiency
c. Remove the boar taint
d. Thinner back fat
197. Characteristic of breeder animals that must not be culled
a. A cow which calves every year
b. Produces large amount of milk
c. Heifers which comes to heat
d. All of the above
198. A term used to denote the average length of time in days between
successive calvings
a. Calving interval
b. Estrus cycle
c. Gestation period
199. Any number of cattle under one management, maintained in one premise,
and allowed to associate or more in contact with one another
a. Cows b. breed c. herd d. ranch
200. Average gestation period in cow is about _________ days
a. 283 days b. 290 days c. 297 days d. 304 days
CROP PROTECTION
1. Group of microorganisms that can directly penetrate the intact host surface
a. Fungi b. bacteria c. virus d. viroids
2. May cause disease in plants
a. Abiotic factors b. parasites c. infectious agents d. all of the above
3. A diseased plants is a
a. Pathogen b. parasite c. suscept d. abiotic
4. Entomology is the study of insects. In the Philippines, the first written record of
Philippine insect was made by
a. Pigafetta b. Sedano c. Semper d. Corcuera
5. The first record of Philippine insects was made in
a. Leyte b. Laguna c. Panay Island d. Palawan
6. The earliest recorded account of locust swarm in the Philippines was in
a. 1521 b. 1569 c. 1593 d. 1858
7. The earliest observation of a locust swarm in the country was made in
a. Leyte b. Laguna C Panay Island d. Palawan
8. The “father of Philippine Entomology of the first Filipino instructor in Entomology
a. Ledyard b. Uichanco c. Mackie d. Baker
9. The Father of Plant Pathology is
a. Prevost b. Kuhn c. De Barry d. Pasteur
10. In 1902, this institution was organized. One of its important activities involved the
control of migratory locust
a. Bureau of Agriculture b. Department of Agriculture c. Ministry of
Agriculture d. pest Control Center
11. This person contributed to the knowledge of Philippine fauna more than any
other individual in his time (early 1900‟s), He collaborated with 115 world
authorities resulting in the publication of 400 papers on Philippine insects
a. Ledyard b. Uichanco c. Mackie d. Baker
12. Insects are important to agriculture for the following reasons EXCEPT
a. They serve as pests to crop plants
b. They serve as parasitoids of pests
c. They are vectors of disease causing organisms on cats
d. They are pollinators
13. Insects serve various roles in the ecosystem. This particular activity of insects is
beneficial to man and agriculture EXCEPT
a. Feeding on various insect pests in the field
b. Feeding on important food plant crops
c. Feeding on clothes, books, magazines
d. Transmitting disease-causing organisms
14. This particular activity of insects is destructive to man and agriculture EXCEPT
a. Production of silk by silkworm
b. Production of royal jelly by honeybees
c. Lodging ang feeding inside stems of food plants
d. Pollinating important food plant crops
15. These products come from insects EXCEPT
a. Silk b. antibiotics c. varnish d. royal jelly
16. From an agriculture point of view, insects are beneficial because of the following
activities, EXCEPT when
a. They feed on other insects which serve as pests of crop plants
b. They promote decomposition
c. They serve as pollinators of weeds competing with food plant crops
d. They produce honey in honeycombs
17. The antennae are located in what part of the insect?
a. Head b. prothorax c. mesothorax d. abdomen
18. A common symptom of diseases caused by fungi
a. Mosaic b. sarcody c. spot d. yellowing
19. Which of the following is the most accurate definition of insect pest/s?
a. An insect that injures important food crops
b. An unwanted insect in the field
c. Insect whose population becomes damaging to crops
d. Obnoxious insects
20. This kind of pest cause major damage on a regular basis unless controlled
a. Key pest b. occasional pest c. secondary pest d. serious pest
21. Organisms that become pests due to control actions taken against other
organisms
a. Key pest b. occasional pest c. secondary pest d. serious pest
22. The population density, at which the cost to control the pest equals the financial
loss due to damage of the pest (actual or potential), is known as:
a. Economic Threshold Level
b. Economic Injury Level
c. Decision-making level
d. Population Control level
23. The population density where treatment/control measures must be employed to
prevent economic loss due to the pest
a. Economic threshold level
b. Economic injury level
c. Decision-making level
d. Population control level
24. Phytophagous species feed on plants. Which of the following is an example of a

phytophagous insects?
a. Black bean aphid
b. Coccinellid beetle
c. Trichogramma sp.
d. Dragonfly
25. Which of the following is a carnivorous insect?
a. Coccinellid beetle
b. Rhinoceros beetle
c. Diamond back moth
d. Weevil
26. The following are plant sap/juice feeders EXCEPT
a. Corn earworm moth
b. Rice bug
c. Cotton stainer
d. Mungbean weevil
27. The first record of Philippine fungus was the one collected in 1820 by
a. Rehm b. nees c. de BAry d. Chamisso
28. The “father of systemic mycology” is
a. Anton de Bary b. pier Saccardo c. Pier Antionio Micheli
29. This is polyphagous species, i.e. feeding on a variety of crops (e.g. corn, tomato,
cotton, legumes)
a. Ostrinia furnacalis b. Corcyra cephalonica c. Leucinodes orbonalis
d. Helicoverpa armigera
30. Which of the following have piercing-sucking type of mouthparts and cause
browning or brown spots on the host EXCEPT
a. Cotton stainer b. insect causing deadheart c. rice bug d. insect
causing “hopperburn”
31. Which of the following is probably due to an insect pest with piercing sucking
type of mouthparts?
a. Whitehead b. browning of rice grains c. deadheart c. rice panicles
with missing grains
32. “hopperburn” is cause by
a. Dacus (Zeogadacs) cucurbitae
b. Nilaparvata lugens
c. Eilachna philippinensis
d. Leptocorisa oratorius
33. This insect is a notorious vector of the tungro virus
a. Nephotettix virescens
b. Nilaparvata lugens
c. Sesamia inferens‟
d. chrysodeixis chalcites
34. these are all important pests of rice EXCEPT

a. Leptocorisa oratorius
b. Aulacophora indica
c. Nephotettix virescens
d. Nilaparvata lugens
35. Which one is an important pest of rice during the reproductive stage?
a. Leptocorisa oratorius
b. Aulacophora indica
c. Nephotettix virescens
d. Nilaparvata lugens
36. The vector of the tungro virus is commonly known as
a. Green leafhopper b. Green plant hopper c, Brown planthopper
d. Brown leafhopper
37. Aside from direct feeding , this insect transmits disease-causing organisms
a. Dacus (Zeogodacus) cucurbitae
b. Nelaparvate lugens
c. Epilachna philippinensis
d. Leptocorisa oratorius
38. Leptocorisa oratorius damages rice plants by:
a. Picking on the rice grains from the panicles
b. Feeding directly on the rice grains causing brown spots
c. Tunneling in the rice stems and blocking flow of nutrients
d. Cutting the whole panicle of rice
39. Leptocorisa oratorius is commonly known as:
a. Striped stemborer b.Rice bug c.White stemborer
d. Rice aphid
40. The scientific name of corn borer
a. Oryctes rhinoceros
b. Helicoverpa armigera
c. Ostrinia furnacalis
d. Chrysodeixis chalcites
41. The scientific name of corn semi-looper
a. Orytes rhinoceros
d. Chrysodeixis chalcites
42. Plutella xylostella is commonly known as
a. Cabbage worm b. diamondback moth c. cutworm d, rice moth
43. Feeding of this insect pest cause the lace-like appearance of pechay leaves
a. Plutella xylostella b. Scirpophaga incertulas c. Sitophilus oryzae
d. Ostrinia furnacalis
44. Crocidolomia pavonana (=binotalis) is commonly known as
a. Cabbage worm b.Diamondback moth cCutworm d.Rice
moth
45. grubs of this insect pest bore into the roots; adults scrape the epidermis of leaves
giving it a shredded appearance
b. Epilachna philippinensis
c. Aulacophora indica
d. Spodoptera litura
46. The scientific name of tomato lady beetle
47. Leucinodes orbonalis is commonly known as
a. Bean pod borer b.Eggplant shoot borer c.Corn earworm
d.Cutworm
48. Dysdercus cingulatus also feed on
a. Legumes b. okra pod c. bean pods d. ampalaya fruit
49. Dysdercus cingulatus is commonly known as
a. Cotton stainer b.Eggplant shoot borer c.Rice bug d.Cutworm
50. All of the following pests belong to order Hemiptera, EXCEPT
a. Cotton stainer b. Green leafhopper c. Rice bug d. Sweet potato
weevil
51. Cylas formicarius formicarius feeds on
a. Cabbage b. mango c. sweet potato d. cucurbits
52. Which is a pest of fruit crop?
a. Idioscopus niveosparus
b. Cylas formicarius formicarius
c. Spodoptera litura
d. Scirpophaga innotata
53. Idioscopus niveosparus is commonly known as
a. Mango leafhopper
b. Sweet potato weevil
c. Cutworm
d. White stemborer
54. This pest belong to order Diptera
55. All of the following have chewing type of mouthparts and cause conspicuous
holes and feeding cuts of plants (e.g. leaves, fruits, stems) EXCEPT
a. Rice stemborer b. Corn earworm c. Squash beetle
d. Brown planthopper
56. All the following are rice stembores, EXCEPT
a. Chilo suppressalis
b. Scirpophaga incertulas
c. Sesamia inferens
d. Leucinodes orbonalis
57. This insect is well-known and well-studied pest of crucifers
a. Plutella xylostella
b. Scirpophaga incertulas
c. Sitophilus oryzae
d. Ostrinia furnacalis
58. This insect attacks the stem, leaves, ear and tassels of the corn plant
a. Ostrinia furnacalis
c. Chrysodeixis chalcites
d. Aulacophora indica
59. All the following are destructive only during the larval stage EXCEPT
a. Rice stemborer b. Tomato lady beetle c. Corn borer d.
Corn semi-borer
60. Feeding holes at the tip of a corn ear are most probably due to
a. Leucinodes orbonalis
d. Crocidolomia pavonana (=binotalis
61. This pest is commonly known as corn seedling maggot. It can cause the drying
up of young leaves; a symptom called “deadheart”
a. Ostrinia furnacalis
b. Atherigona oryzae
c. Chrysodeixis chalcites
d. Aulacophora indica
62. This species is one of the important pest of coconut
a. Rhynchophorus ferrugineus
b. Maruca testulalis
c. Epilachna philippinensis
d. Crocidolomia binotalis
63. This is an example of stored product pest
a. Rice moth b.Whitefly c. Rice stemborer d.Yellow
squash beetle
64. This is the most common species of rats known in Philippine ricefields. It was
formerly referred to as Rattus rattus mindanensis
a. Rattus tanezumi
b. Rattus norvegicus
c. Rattus argentiventer
d. Rattus exulans
65. A good example of a local poisonous mushroom
a. Vovariella b. Armillaria c. Amanita d. Pleurotus
66. The following can be due to rats EXCEPT
a. Intact panicles with missing grains
b. Cut panicles
c. Cut tillers
d. Damaged rice grains in storage
67. In this method of control, there is deliberate alteration of the production system,
either the cropping system itself or specific crop production practices to reduce
pest populations ro avoid pest injury to crops
a. Biological control
b. Host plant resistance
c. Cultural control
d. Genetic insect control
68. Physical detachment of infested plant parts is an example of what type of insect
pest control?
a. Quarantine control
c. Cultural control
d. Mechanical control
69. This method of insect pest control uses varieties of plants that exhibit tolerance
to insect pests
c. Cultural control
70. All of the above are aspects of cultural control of insect pests, EXCEPT
a. Well0timed planting and harvesting
b. Removal of crop residues
c. Sanitation
d. Release of earwigs in the field
71. The following exemplify the mechanical method of controlling insect pests,
EXCEPT
a. Pheromone trapping b. Seeds and bulbs immersed in hot
water‟
c. Hilling up d. Insect netting
72. This method of insect pest control uses varieties of plants that exhibit antibiosis
to insect pests
c. Cultural control
73. In the mechanism of antibiosis, the plants are rendered unattractive to insect
pests because of
a. Trchomes
b. Hard epidermis
c. Secondary plant substances
d. Thick cell walls
74. Using BT corn seeds for planting is an example of what type of insect pest
control?
c. Cultural control
75. With the use of this method of insect pest control, the screwworm fly outbreak in
the world was prevented. A major aspect of this method is the irradiation of male
flies, and then the release of these sterile insects to mate with natural
populations
a. Genetic control
b. Biological control
c. Quarantine control
d. Chemical control
76. This method of insect control uses other organisms to combat insect pest
population build-up.
c. Cultural control
77. Which activity is not part of Biological control?
a. Screening and quarantine of potential biocon agents
b. Screening of various lines/strains of plants
c. Mass production of predatory species
d. Mass production of host plants
78. The following are examples of commercially available biological control agents
EXCEPT
a. Diadegma semiclausum
b. Bacillus thuringensis
c. Metarrhizium anisopliae
d. Coelopnora inequalis
79. Which of the following would promote the presence of biological control agents in
the farm?
a. Use of monoculture
b. Use of big farm lot sizes
c. Presence of hyperparasites
d. Presence of alternate plants for refuge
80. Exotic biological control agents are:
a. Biocon agents which are not locally available
b. Biocon agents which are available in limited numbers
c. Biocon agents which are rare
d. Biocon agents which are genetically modified
81. Indigenous biological control agents are:
a. Biocon agents which are not locally available
b. Biocon agents which are available in limited numbers
c. Biocon agents which are rare
d. Biocon agents which are genetically modified
82. In bioassay of pesticides, concentrations of test solutions are usually expressed
in
a. Milliliter
b. Ppm
c. Percent
d. Grams
83. The type of formulation where the active materials readily dissolve in water but
not in organic solvents
a. Aqueous concentrates
b. Emulsifiable concentration
c. Wettable powders
d. Granules
84. The type of formulation where the active material do not dissolve in water but are
dissolved
c. Wettable powders
d. Granules
85. The type of forlulation where the active material is combined with inert ingredient
and/or carriers
c. Wettable powders
d. Granules
86. The type of formulation where the active is neither soluble in water nor organic
solvent, hence it is mixed with water in the presence of a dispersing agent
a. Aqueous concentrates b. Emulsifiable concentration c. Wettable powders
d. Granules
For number 87-90, consider these informations

Average time to cover 100 sq. m. = 3.8 minutes
Average volume delivered at ave. time = 2.5 liters
Tankload capacity 16 liters
87. What is the spray delivery per hectare?
a. 250 ml b. 2.50 li c. 250 li d. 2.50 ml
88. Calculate the number of tankload needed per hectare
a. 14.0 tankloads
b. 15.6 tankloads
c. 17.0 tankloads
d. 16.5 tankloads
89. What is the approximate area covered by one tankload?
a. 640 sq.m
b. 500 sq m
c. 0.064 sq m
d. 0.500 sq. m
90. How many lbs of a 50% Beniate is needed to prepare 30 gallons of a 0.5% spray
solution
(Note. 1 gallon =8.345 lbs)
a. 3.5 lbs
b. 0.025 lbs
c. 0.3 lbs
d. 2.5 lbs
91. Following importation of citrus from the Philippines in 1914 by the U.S., an
outbreak of the citrus leafminer occurred. Although this outbreak was
successfully controlled, the outbreak itself could have been prevented by means
of this method of insect pest control
b. Chemical control
c. Mechanical control
d. Quarantine control
92. The following are essential in Integrated Pest Management (IPM) EXCEPT
a. A thorough understanding of the ecological relationships in the farm
b. Pest population sampling
c. Monitoring and use of threshold levels in making decisions
d. Eradication of pest population
93. In IPM, the use of selective insecticides is preferred over others. Selective
insecticides are
a. Non-toxic or slightly to beneficial insects
b. Toxic only against certain kinds of pest
c. Those against which the target insect has already developed resistance
d. Those that inhibit the development and reproduction of beneficial insects
94. Insect pest population sampling involves
a. Direct counting of all pests in the farm
b. Collection of all damaged plant parts
c. Making at least 2.5 sweeps (using an insect net) in the field
d. Counting of all damaged plant parts
95. A weed which germinates, grow vegetatively, produce seeds and is able to live
from year to year is
a. An annual weed
b. A dicot seed
c. A monocot weed
d. A perennial weed
96. It is observed in indigenous people communities that some weeds are removed
and controlled at once but others are left to grow with the crop for quite
sometime. This is practiced because:
a. The removed weeds are hard to control while those retained are easier to
control
b. The removed weeds are perennial while those retained are annuals
c. The removed weeds are aggressive while those retained are not
d. The removed weeds are harmful to them while those retained are of some
use to them
97. In crop production, the primary reason why weed is considered as a pest is
a. It is able to harbor other organisms
b. It is able to significantly lower the quantity and quality of the products
c. It produces seeds and vegetative propagules
d. It annoys human
98. Seed dormancy is an important adaptive mechanism of weeds because
a. It permits weeds to germinate when environment conditions in the farm
would give greater chAnce for its survival
b. It permits germination of the weeds after the crop has been established
c. It removes the capacity of the weeds to reproduce asexually
d. It prevents the weed seeds under the soil from decaying
99. A farmer wanted to control grass weeds in his 0.5 ha farm so he decided to apply
Machete 800 EC. If the recommended rate calls for the application of 1.0 liter/ha,
how much Machete 800 EC should the farmer use?
a. 1.5 liters b. 0.63 liters c. 0.313 liters d. 0.176 liters
100. The primary propagule for reproduction of Imperata cylindrical is
a. Tuber b. stolon c. rhizome d. seed
101. Which among the following best describes a weed in relation to crop
production
a. It is a product of natural selection
b. It is a pest at a particular situation
c. It is a plant without any use nor function
d. It is a plant whose virtues have not yet been discovered
102. 2, 4-D is an old herbicide that can effectively control broadleaf weeds.
2,4-D stands for
a. 2,4 dichloro acetic acid
b. 2,4 dichloro benzoic acid
c. 2,4 dichloro phenoxy acetic acid
d. 2,4 dichloro phenol
103. Which among the following factors is most important for germination of
buried weed seeds?
a. Light
b. Photosynthesis
c. Temperature
d. Water
104. Causal agent of soft rot of vegetable
a. Pseudomonas solanacearum
b. Pectobacterium carotovorum
c. Xanthomonas campestris pv. Campestris
d. Pseudomonas syringe pv. Glycinea
105. Causal agent of bacterial wilt of tomato
a. Pectobacterium arotovorum
b. Xanthomonas vesicatoria
c. Ralstonia solanacearum
d. Pseudomonas syringae pv. Syringae
106. Causal agent of bacterial blight of rice
a. Xanthomonas oryzae pv. Oryzicola
b. Xanthomonas oryzae pv. Oryzae
c. Xanthomonas sacchari
d. Xantohomonas campestris
107. Cases fire blight of apples and pears
a. Erwinia amylovora
b. Erwinia ghysamthemi
c. Erwinia carotovora
d. Erinia setwarti
108. A micronutrient that is needed by bacteria in small amount
a. Carbon b. manganese c. nitrogen d. phosphorous
109. A stage in the bacterial growth phased characterized by the exponential
increase in cell population
a. Lag phase
b. Logarithmic phase
c. Stationary phase
d. Death phase
110. The basic unit of bacteria classification
a. Kingdom b. family c. genus d. species
111. A group within a pathogen species that infect a set of differential varieties
a. Species b. race c. pathovar d. biovar
112. A virus that infects bacteria
a. Prophage
b. Baculovirus
c. Bacteriophage
d. Macrophage
113. The sequence of events that give rise to disease
a. Pathogenesis
b. Disease cycle
c. Saprogenesis
d. Pathogen cycle
114. Stage of pathogenesis that involves the transfer of the inoculum from a
source into the infection court
a. Penetration b. establishment c. infection d. inoculation
115. Openings in the epidermis by two specialized epidermal cells
a. Stomates
b. Hydathodes
c. Lenticels
d. Nectarines
116. Natural openings in the stem and root surface
a. States
b. Hydathodes
c. Lenticels
d. Nectarines
117. External secretory structure where water from the interior of the leaf is
discharged to the leaf surface
a. Stomates b. hydathodes c. lenticels d. nectarines
118. Which of the following methods primarily determines a biological property
of a plant virus?
a. Ease of inoculation
b. Shape and size of its particle
c. Positive reaction of certain strains
d. Positive reaction of certain hosts
119. A plant virus is not stable when
a. Its infectivity is retained even with harsh environments
b. It infects only one host
c. It has a vector
d. It has a wide host range
120. In polyacrylamide gel electrophoresis, the smaller/shorter species of
proteins ad nucleic acids
a. Occupy the upper (top) pat of the gel
b. Occupy the bottom part of the gel
c. Remain stationary
d. Occupies the middle part of the gel
121. Which of the following is true of non-persistent viruses
a. Infects and multiplies in specific tissues/cells of the host
b. Is transmitted by both aphids and leafhoppers
c. Its vectors loss the ability to transmit them after molting
d. Its vectors do not loss the ability to transmit the virus after molting
122. A plant infected with a virus and shows severe symptoms, high virus
concentration in it but shows no significant reduction in its yield is considered
a. Susceptible b. resistant c. tolerant d. semi-tolerant
123. In general, plants infected with persistent viruses show symptoms that
are mostly
a. Dwarfing/stunting and mosaics/mottles
b. Dwarfing/stunting and leaf curls/cupping
c. Dwarfing/stunting and yellowing/chlorosis
d. Dwarfing/stunting and leaf fall
124. Which of the following is true of non-persistent viruses?
a. Infects and multiplies in specific tissues/cells of the host
b. Is transmitted by both aphids and leafhoppers
c. Its vectors loss the ability to transmit them after molting
d. Its vectors do not loss the ability to transmit the virus after molting
125. Who among the scientists named below is considered the Father of
Virology?
a. Berkeley
b. Beijeirinck
c. Newton
d. Galileo
126. The shape of the virus particle is a stable characteristic. Which of the
following is not a known shape of the plant viruses?
a. Fod b. spherical c. geminate or double spheres d. triangle
127. An example of a rod shaped plant virus is
a. Tobacco mosaic
b. Rice tungro
c. Banana bunchy top
d. Citrus tristeza virus
128. A virus is different from a viroid in that the viroid is composed of
a. Single stranded circular RNA and a protein coat
b. single stranded RNA alone with extensive base paring
c. single stranded DNA alone with extensive base paring
d. single stranded circular DNA and a protein coat
129. the pioneering experiments that laid the foundations of Virology as a
discipline of biology were those by
a. shepherd and co-workers
b. Stanley, Markham and Smith
c. Schramm, Frankail-Conrat and Williams
d. Mayer, Iwanowski and Beijerinck
130. The early works on plant diseases due to viruses were based on the
simple fact that they are
a. very infectious and cause mosaic/mottle symptoms
b. Very infectious and very small
c. Are transmitted by aphids
d. Associated with leafhoppers
131. The plant viruses have been labeled as genetic parasites in the they
a. Take over the genetic machinery of their host cells for their own reproduction
b. Allow continuous and uncontrolled division of their host cells
c. Take over the DNA of their host cells and package it as their own
d. Use the enzymes of the host for their assembly into particles
132. The most important group of vectors of plant viruses, both in terms of
number of the viruses they transmit and the economic importance of the
diseases these viruses cause is the
a. Hoppers b. whiteflies c. aphids d. beetles
133. A number of economically important virus diseases have been ravaging
crops in the Philippines. Which of the following is not a virus disease?
a. Rice tungro
b. Papaya ring spot
c. Abaca/banana bunchy top
d. Coconut cadang-cadang
134. Virus genome organization means the arrangement of the
a. Nucleic acid with its protein coat
b. Amino acids in all its coat proteins
c. Various genes along eh whole nucleic acid strand
d. Sugars with its coat protein
135. In plant viruses having a double stranded nucleic acid genomes, which of
the following is/are not true?
a. Strands are held together by hydrogen bonds
b. Strand are in opposite polarities
c. Thymine or uracyl pairs with adenine
d. Strands are held together by nitrogen bonds
136. Which of the following would contribute highly to a fast characterization of
a plant virus?
a. A virus with known physical properties in vitro
b. Transmitted only by certain species of a vector
c. Infects specialized cells of its host
d. Easily mechanically transmitted
137. The biological properties of a virus are reflected through infectivity
assays. I this type of assay//
a. Only purified viruses can be tested
b. Both purified and viruses in sap can be tested
c. Only infectious particles cause infections
d. Both infectious and non-infectious particles necessary for infection
138. Plant viruses with genomes, whether composed of one or more than one
strands, enclosed in a single coat protein is a
a. Helper virus
b. Dependent virus
c. Monocomponent virus
d. Satellite virus
139. Prom the site of inoculation, plant viruses spread through the plant in a
slow cell-to-cell spread through the
a. Stomata b. xylem c. plasmodesmata d. phloem
140. Which of the following is a barrier to virus movement through the plant
a. Movement from the first infected cell
b. Movement out of parenchyma cells into vascular tissues
c. Movement out of the vascular tissue into the parenchyma of an invaded leaf
d. Movement out of the stylet of the vector among epidermal cells of the plant
141. The survival and spread of certain plant viruses does not depend on
a. Amount of virus produced in infected tissues
b. Its degree of stability
c. Persistence in its vector
d. Non-persistence in its vector
142. Which virus would most likely survive?
a. Virus that kills its host plants with a rapidly developing systemic disease
b. A virus that causes only mild or moderate disease that allows the plant to
survive And reproduce effectively
c. A virus that will not infect and cause any disease
d. A virus not does not replicate in plants
143. Which of the following would not contribute to plant virus disease
epidemics?
a. Presence of active and mobile vectors
b. Planting of susceptible hosts
c. Monocropping
d. Multicropping
144. Rouging as a virus disease control strategy is worthwhile or effective if
disease spread
a. Is occurring rapidly relative to the lifetime of the crop
b. Is occurring slowly relative to the lifetime of the crop
c. Is occurring simultaneously on several hosts
d. Is occurring at random
145. A seed infected with a virus is an important source of infection since the
seed introduces
a. The virus into the crop at a very early stage
b. A concentrated foci of infection throughout the crop
c. The virus into the crop at all stage of the crop
d. The virus into the crop at a late stage
146. When a virus preparation is treated with mild alkali (0.3 M NaOH), the
following biomolecules would be are expected to be cleaved….
a. Proteins b/ DNAs c. RNAs d. polysaccharides
147. A virus preparation which is not so pure (i.e. contains host components)
when used to immunize a rabbit, the rabbit will
a. Produce antibodies against the virus only
b. Produce antibodies of the host plant component only
c. Produce antibodies to both the virus and host component
d. Not produce any antibody
148. Which of the following is a form of susceptible response by the plant to a
virus infection?
a. Production of local lesions
b. Relatively fast appearance of severe symptoms
c. Slow virus multiplication and spread in it
d. Slow appearance of symptoms
149. Integrated Pest Management encourages the following
a. Combination of two or more control measures
b. Optimization of control methods
c. Utilization of natural mortality factors
d. All of the above
150. Refers to the ability to endure pest attack without suffering from
significant loss of yield
a. Tolerance b. antibiosis c. non-preference d. hypersensitive
151. Pest control method that includes tactics causing pests to contribute to
the destruction of their own species
a. Autocidal control
c. Behavioral control
d. Genetic control
152. It is a type of host resistance where insects exhibit abnormal development
when they feed o resistant host
a. Non-preference
b. Tolerance
c. Antibiosis
d. Horizontal resistance
153. Refers to the control of pest by living organisms under either natural or
artificial circumstances
a. Cultural control
c. Behavioral control
d. Autocidal control
154. Refers to pest whose population equilibrium is always above the
economic threshold level
a. Key pests
b. Occasional pests
c. Potential pests
d. Minor pests
155. Refers to the level of pest population or injury, which indicates potential
danger
a. Economic threshold level
b. Economic injury level
c. Warning threshold level
d. Action threshold level
156. Principle of crop protection where the host is manipulated to resist pest
attack
a. Protection b. host evasion c. immunization d. avoidance
157. Interaction between two organisms where both are adversely affected is
called
a. Competition
b. Parasitism
c. Amensalism
158. It is a phase in the sequential development of a crop protection
(according to Smith, 1969) which is characterized by serious pest outbreaks due
to excessive use of pesticides and finally the collapse of pest control program
a. Crisis Phase
b. Integrated Pest Control
c. Exploitation Phase
d. Disaster Phase
159. Which of the following is an autotroph
a. Weed b. plant pathogen c. insect pest d. parasite or predator
160. Which of these are density-independent mortality factors
a. Parasites
b. Predators
c. Food supply
d. Drought
161. A concoction of lime, copper, sulfate and water which had been
accidentally found to possess fungicidal activity
a. Lime sulfur
b. Bordeaux mixture
c. Copper fungicide
d. Paris green
162. The principle of pest exclusion means
a. Getting rid of a pest once it is introduce in an area
b. Killing pest inside host
c. Keeping pest away from the host
d. Shielding host from pest through physical or chemical means
163. It refers to the population or injury level of pest where a pest control
method should be initiated in order to prevent significant economic level
a. Economic injury level
b. Economic threshold level
c. Warning threshold level
d. Damage threshold level
164. The following attributes of modern agriculture aggravates pest and
disease problems
a. Continuous monoculture
b. Use of high yielding varieties (HYV‟s)
c. Excessive use of chemical inputs
d. All of the above
165. Legal actions intended to exclude potential pest and to prevent spread of
those already present
a. Eradication b. containment c. suppression d. quarantine
166. Which of the following is not an insecticide
a. Endrin b. malathrin c. cypermethrin d. permethrin
167. Which of the following is a systemic fungicide
a. Metalaxyl
b. Captan
c. Mancozeb
d. Chlorothalonil
168. Which of the following crop is a heavy user of fungicide worldwide
a. Grape
b. Apple
c. Banana
d. Citrus
169. Which of these pesticide groups is excessively used in the Philippines

a. Fungicides
b. Insecticides
c. Herbicides
d. Nematicides
170. Effective physical pest control action
a. Bagging b. hand-picking c. herding d. flooding
171. It is a biological control product against pests
a. Katol b. dipel c. methyl Eugenol d. off
172. It is a biological control product against weed
a. Dipel b. gallex c. Kodiak d. devine
173. Which of the following is a contact herbicide
a. 2,4-D b. glyphosate c. Praquat d. Butachlor
174. Physical pest control method required to eliminate fruit flies on mango
and papaya for export to Japan
a. Hot Water Treatment
b. Vapor Heat Treatment
c. Refrigeration
d. UV radiation
175. Which of these pesticide groups is excessively used worldwide
a. Fungicide b. insecticide c. herbicide d. nematicides
176. Sustainable agriculture shall mean any method or practice that aims to
make agriculture
a. Economy viable
b. Ecologically sound
c. Socially just
d. All of the above
177. A phase in the development of crop protection which is characterized by
the use of traditional varieties and natural pest control methods.
a. Disaster phase
b. Crisis phase
c. Exploitation phase
d. Subsistent phase
178. A recommendation calls for 1 gm active ingredient (a.i) of metalaxyl per
kg of corn seeds. If Apron 50 SD (formulated product) contains 50% metalaxyl,
how much Apron 50 Sd is neede to treat 100 kg sweet corn seeds?
a. 200 g b. 20 g c. 100 g d. none of the above
179. If Sevin 50 WP is recommended for leafhopper control at the rate of
100gm Sevin 50 WP per 100 li of water, what is the concentration or strength of
the finished spray in ppm
a. 100 b. 500 c. 1000 d. none of the above
180. Given the application rate of 100 gm Sevin 50 WP per 100 liter of water ,
what is the concentration or strength of the finished spray in percent a.i.?
a. 0.01 b. 0.05 c. 0.10 d. 0.005
181. Given the application rate of 100 gm Sevin 50 WP per 100 liter water,
what will be the recommended rate of application in table spoon (tbs) per 16 liters
of water?
a. 1.6 tbs b. 16 tbs c. 3 tbs d. 6 tbs
182. The interaction between two organisms where one part is benefited while
the other is adversely affected is called.
a. Competition
b. Parasitism
c. Amensalism
183. A type of cultural practice which tend to reduce both the initial pest
population or sources of infestation and reproductive ability of the pests.
a. Crop rotation
b. pruning
c. tillage
d. none of the above
184. The principle of immunization is achieved through
a. Providing chemical or physical barrier
b. Application of pesticides
c. Improving the nutrition of the host
185. The discovery of DDT is considered as one of the major events in the
history of crop protection. When was DDT discovered?
a. 1959 b. 1937 c. 1935 d. 1939
186. It is considered as pest of quarantine interest in Palawan
a. Mango seed weevil
b. Mango pulp weevil
c. mango weevil
d. asiatic palm weev
187. the shape of majority of plant pathogenic bacteria
a. spherical b. rod-shape c. helical d. filamentous
188. developed the substage condenser for the microscope
a. Leeuwenhoek b. Pastuer c. Abbe d. Hooke
189. Showed that fire blight of pear and twig of apple were caused by a
bacterium
a. Erwin Frank Smith b. Demetri Iwanowski
c. Martinus Willem d, Thomas Jonathan Burril
190. Main means of reproduction of bacteria
a. Buddin
b. Spore information
c. Binary fission
d. Transverse fisson
191. Filamentous bacteria
a. Bacillus b. Clostridium c. Streptomyces d. Erwinia
192. Bacteria devoid of cell wall
a. Mollicutes
b. Gracilicutes
c. Firmicutes
d. Mendosicutes
193. The building blocks of proteins
a. fatty acids
b. peptides
c. nucleic acid
d. amino acids
194. the building blocks of polysaccharides
a. disaccharides
b. glucose
c. monosaccharides
d. carbohydrates
195. metabolic pathway the converts glucose to pyruvate
a. glycolysis
b. gluconeogenesis
c. hydrolysis
d. photosynthesis
196. also called the Citric Acid Cycle
a. ketoglutaric acid cycle
b. fumaric acid cycle
c. tricarboxylic acid cycle
d. succinic acid cycle
197. A microbial product other than an enzyme which causes obvious damage
to plant tissues, and which is known with reasonable confidence to be involved in
disease development
a. Phytoalexin
b. Phytotoxin
c. Cutin
d. Suberin
198. Clustering of roots, flower, fruits or twigs around a common fucos
a. Hypertrophy
b. Epinasty
c. Hyperplasia
d. Fasciation
199. A plant overgrowth due to abnormal cell enlargement
a. Hypertrophy
b. Epinasty
c. Hyperplasia
d. Fasciation
200. A plant overgrowth due to increased cell division
a. Hypertrophy
b. Epinasty
c. Hyperplasia
d. fasciation
CROP SCIENCE
1. The following are the events that led to the development of agriculture except
a. Collection of plant
b. Colonization of pre-adapted plant species
c. Cultivation of plants in order to reap a better harvest
d. Improvement of soil fertility
2. Current cop production technologies are considered scientific because
a. Several seps from planting to harvesting are evolved
b. They generate facts and empirical data
c. They were formulated through scientific investigation
3. The relationship between the growth retes of individual parts of an organ or
organism is knonw as
a. Shoo-root ration b. Harvest index c. Allometry d. Plant symmetry
4. Plant roll their leaves:
a. Reduce the rate of transpirational water loss
b. Increasese the probability of desiccation
c. Change the angle if incidence of diffuse light with respect to the leaf surface
d. Increase leaf water content
5. High relative humidity can cause
a. Plant wilting
b. Grain drying
c. High disease incidence
d. Breakage of seeds
6. As a factor in crop production, edaphic factor refers to
a. Climate b. Man c. Soil d. Microorganism
7. GMO stands for
a. Genetically made organism
b. Genetically modified organism
c. Genetically mixed organism
d. Genetically male organism
8. The light reaction phase of photosynthesis takes place in the
a. Chloroplast
b. Thylakoid lamellae
c. Stroma
d. chlorophyll molecule
9. the products of the light reaction phase of photosynthesis are
a. O2 and ATP
b. CH2O and NADPH
c. ATP and NADH
d. ATP and NADPH
10. The photosynthsis potential of a given species is fully expressed when the
following environmental factors are optimum
a. Solar radiation and temperature
b. CO2 concentration, solar radiation, and CO2 concentration
c. Plant moisture status, solar radiation, and CO2 concentration
d. Solar radiation, temperature, CO2 concentration, and plant moisture status
11. Photosynthesis is usually low under drought conditions because
a. Water as an electron donor in the electron transport system is not available
b. Stomatal resistance tot he diffusio of CO2 into the leaf is high
c. The CO2 concentration gradient between the air and the leaf is high
d. The photosynthetic apparatus is permanently damaged
12. The product of glycolysis is higher forms of plants are
a. NADPH and ATP
b. ATP and H2O
c. NADH and H2O
d. CO2 and citric acid
13. Which of the following is/are not considered as a berry??
a. Strawberry
b. Tomato
c. Bell pepper
d. Grape
e. Eggplant
f. Cherry
14. Carbhydrate reserves of seed will be hydrolyzed finally as:
a. Galactose b. Fructose c. Glucose d. Cellulose
15. This type of dormancy is due to one or more unsuitable factors of the
environment which are non-specific in their effect. In seedsl this is equivalent to
quiscence.\
a. Paradormancy
b. Endodormancy
c. Ecodormancy
d. Chemical dormancy
16. Plant response to seasonal variations in the length of day are collectively known
as
a. Vernalization
b. Photoperiodism
c. Ciecaian rhythm
d. Porphogenesis
17. Reduction in the amount of green pigments in leaf, resulting to yellowing:
a. Chlorosis b. Necrosis c. Autolysis d. Dialysis
18. The study of how plants absorb, transport and assimilate inorganic ions is called
a. Inorganic chemistry b. Mineral nutrition c. Translocation d. Plant
exudation
19. Which of the following is not a feature of an esssential element?
a. The absence of the element makes it impossible for the plant to complete its
life cycle
b. The dificiency is specific fot the element in question
c. The element is directly involved in the nutrition of the plant
d. The element can be subsitituted by another element of similar size
20. Which is not an example of a essential micronutrients?
a. B b. Cu c. Zn d. K
21. The natural termination of the functional life of an organ, organism or other life
unit which is also regarded as the final pahse in plant development:
a. Deterioraton phase
b. Abscission pahse
c. Senescence
d. Growth inhibition
22. A type of senecence which is characterized by an annual change in deciduous
woody plants in which all the leaves die but the bulk of the stem and toot system
remain viable:
a. Whole plant senescence
b. Organ senescence
c. Swquential senescence
d. Leaf senexcence
23. Photoperiodism is a growth response to unideirectional light which is probably
influence by a particular growth hormone
a. Abscissis acid (ABA)
b. Indole acetic acid (IAA)
c. Kinetic (Ki)
d. Gibberellins (GA)
24. The growth response of plant to touch that is est exemplified by the coiling of
tendrils as in Cucurbits:
a. Thermotropism
b. Seismopasty
c. Thigmotropism
d. Thigmomorphogenesis
25. Characteristic response of roots and shoots such that they align themselves
parallel to the direction of the gravity
a. Digravitropic
b. Agravitropic
c. Orthogravitropic
d. Negative tropism
26. Senexcence is an energy-requiring process brought about by metabolic changes,
one of thich is the destruction of the pigments:
a. Carotenoid
b. Xanthophyll
c. Anthocyanin
d. Chlorophyll
27. The organ movement such tath the axis of the organ come to lie at right angles to
the direction of the gravitational field as exhibited b stolons of potato and
strawberrry
a. Herliotropism
b. Plagiogeotropism
c. Diagravitropism
d. Thermonasty
28. The over-all shape of plants id determined by
a. Allometric growth
b. Growth correlation
c. Apical dominance
d. Hormonal imbalance
29. Domestication of plants due to:
a. Change in plant type and limited ecological adaption
b. Narrower genetic variation and wider ecological adaptation
c. The disappearance of the natural habitats of wild plants
30. The pattern of assimilate partitioning in plants varies:
a. With stage of growth and development
b. With kind of fertilizer applied
c. Depending on the flux of solar energy
d. With total rainfall
31. A plant showing tolerance mechanism of resistance to water deficit:
a. Adjust its water absorption rate to maintain cell turgidity
b. Maintains relatively high stomata conductance even if water deficit is
progressing to a higher level
c. Rolls its leaves to reduce respiration
d. Extends its roots horizontally to explore soil moisture around the root zone
32. The following changes in plants are attributed to domestication EXCEPT
a. Loss of seed dormancy
b. Conversion
c. Increased susceptibility to disease
d. Increased environmental adaptation
33. Oxygen as one of the products of photosynthesis evolves from:
a. The oxidation of H2O
b. Photolysis of H2O
c. The reduction of CO2
d. The reduction of H2O
34. Agriculture could have been initiated mainly due to chronic food shortage if
a. There was sedentary way of living
b. Grasslands and forest were present
c. Plant and animal diversity was limited
d. Fertile lands were available
35. Certain plant organs move when exposed to water stress:
a. To maintain adequate moisture content
b. To maximize photosynthetic activity
c. To maintain optimum translocation during the day
d. To balance their heat load with the surrounding air
36. Both photosynthetic and respiration rates are influenced by:
a. Relatively humidity and CO2 concentration
b. Oxygen concentration
c. Temperature and CO2 concentration
d. Temperature and relative humidity
37. Net assimilation rate is sometimes referred to as:
a. Net photosynthesis
b. Crop growth rate
c. Gross photosynthesis
d. Unit leaf rate
38. Respiration is a necessary evil in plants because:
a. It breaks down glucose which should have been used in the synthesis of
complex compounds
b. It leads to the loss of glucose but generates metabolic energy and organic
compounds that are used in the synthesis of structural and storage
compounds
c. It generates CO2 and H2O and ATP
d. It generates heat energy for transpiration
39. The ratio of shoot dry weight to root dry weight is known as:
a. Root-shoot ratio
b. Shoot-root ratio
c. Plant biomass ratio
d. Harvest index
40. Phenotype refers to:
a. The breeding potential of a plant
b. The physical appearance of a plant
c. The genetic make up of a plant
d. The chromosome content of a nucleus
e. The concentration of phenol in the cytoplasm
41. Which of the following must exist in order for the plant breeder to select superior
plants?
a. An F1 generation
b. An artificial hybridization
c. A homogenous population
d. Genetic variation
e. A changing environment
42. Gene recombination‟s occurs as a result of:
a. Vegetative propagation
b. Clonal propagation
c. Self-pollination of a pureline
d. Sexual reproduction
43. The breeding method which may involve bringing a species or variety into an
area and using it without change or additional breeding method is called:
a. Hybridization
b. Introduction
c. Pedigree selection
d. Pureline selection
e. Mass selection
44. Inbreeding leads to:
a. Heterosis
b. Homozygosity
c. Llelism
d. Increased productivity
e. Sterility
45. Plant breeding is
a. More of selection than hybridization
b. More hybridization than selection
c. Equal selection and hybridization
46. Phenotype determined by:
a. Genotype
b. Environment
c. Genotype x environment
d. All of the above
47. The agency involved in approving the release of recommended varieties in the
Philippines:
a. Philippine Seed Board
b. National Seed Industry Council
c. Department of Agriculture
d. International Rice Research Institute
48. Rice has how many anthers?
a. 5 b. 11 c. 6 d. 15
49. In the point of view of a seed technologist, a seed has germinated:
a. When the radicle has emerge
b. When the plumule has emerged
c. When both the radical and plumule have emerged
50. A seed is considered alive in the tetrazolium test when the:
a. Whole seed is stained
b. Radicle portion is not stained but the rest of the seed is
c. Plumule portion is not stained but the rest of the seed is
d. Half the seed is stained
51. Seeds which can be dried to allow moisture level but cannot tolerate low
temperature like coffee and papaya are considered
a. Recalcitrant
b. Orthodox
c. Intermediate
52. Which of the following is /are optional requirements for favorable seed
germination?
a. Favorable temperature
b. 20% oxygen concentration
c. Light
d. Proper amount of water
e. Both a and c
53. The most favorable condition for storing orthodox seed is
a. Dry and cool condition
b. Dry and hot condition
c. Moist and cool condition
d. Moist and hot condition
54. Hardseededness may be broken by the following methods except
a. Soaking in boiling water for several minutes
b. Soaking in tap water for 24 hours
c. Rubbing the embryo part on sand paper
d. Both a and b
e. Both a and c
55. Among the following desiccants or drying agents, _________ is the most
effective, thus a smaller amount is required :
a. Lime b. Charcoal c. Silica gel d. Wood ash
56. The most suitable substrate for germination test of very small seeds is:
a. Rolled filter paper
b. Petri dish line with filter paper
c. Ragdoll method
d. Sand
57. Certified seed is produced from
a. Breeder seed
b. Registered seed
c. Foundation seed
d. Good seed
58. A good seed has the following qualities except
a. High germination
b. High physical purity
c. High moisture content
d. High vigor
59. The genetic constitution of a plant is passed on from a plant to its offspring
through the
a. Cytoplasm
b. Mitchondria
c. Chromosomes
d. Chloroplast
60. It is the transfer of the pollen grains from the anther to the stigma
a. Fertilization
b. Pollination
c. Inoculation
d. Emasculation
CASE 1 The fams are in the Ilocos region. Principally the crops are rice or corn
during the rainy season followed by tobacco. Tomato may also be grown
because there is a commercila manufacture of tomato paste. The climate of
Ilocos is distinct wet and dry season.
61. The most probable land preparation in the farm is

a. Plowing
b. Chmical spray
c. Slush and burn
d. Biological
62. The most probable cropping system is:
a. Greenhouse cropping
b. Multiple cropping
c. Plantation
d. Rural landscaping
63. The food crops are:
a. Rice and tobacco
b. Tomato and tobacco
c. Corn and cotton
d. Corn and rice
64. The cash crops are:
a. Rice and corn
b. Tomato and tobacco
c. Corn and cotton
d. Corn and rice
65. Based on postharvest horticulture classification the perishable are
a. Rice and grain corn
b. Rice and tobacco
c. Green corn and tomato
d. Tobacco and tomato
66. And the durables are:
a. Rice and grain corn
b. Green corn and cotton
c. Tobacco and tomato
d. Tomato and green corn
67. Because of the climate the most feasible perennial crop to grow
a. Banana b. Mango c. Sorghum d. Durian
CASE II Cordillera is upland mountainous region. The climate is distinct wet and
dry, but cool temperature in the high elevations. The natural fertility of the soil is
poor, but high value crop are raised.
68. The factor for crop production that is unique asset in Cordillera is:
a. Good market of the products
b. Irrigation of the crop is not a problem
c. The temperature is low because of high elevation
d. Indigenous people are good terrace builders
69. Hilly land was converted to crop farming by:
a. Terracing the mountain slopes
b. Construction of Ambuklao and Binga dams for irrigation
c. Construction of the Cordillera highway to Bontoc and Banaue
d. Spray liquid fertilizer before planting vegetables
70. In growing vegetables and flowers in the Cordilleras the fertility of the soil is
augmented by:
a. Foliar spray of commercially prepared liquid fertilizer
b. Using chicken manure hauled from the lowland
c. NPK coming from rain after a long dry season
d. Biofertilizer like application of Tricogramma
71. In the Philippines it is only in Cordillera farms that this perennial temperature crop
is commercially grown>
a. Banana b. apple c. grape d. cauliflower
CASE III The Cagayan Valley is drained y the mighty Cagayan River that has
plenty of tributaries. There is also a big irrigation system based on the Magat
Dam in Nueva Viscay. Cagayan Valley is between Cordillera mountains and
Sierra Madre Mountains. The commercial crops are rice, corn, tobacco and fruits.
There are also pasture grasses. The area is often visited by typhoon.
72. The natural asset of Cagayan Valley when it comes to commercial crop
production is
a. The people who originated from Ilocos are good farmers
b. Fertile soil and adequate rainfall or irrigation
c. Market is very good
d. The crop varieties are superior
73. Good potential for animal production is Cagayan Valley is due to these crops
a. Tobacco and rice
b. Rice and corn
c. Pasture grass and corn
d. Fruits and rice
74. The ripening of fruits coming from Cagayan Valley for the Metro Manila market is
induced by
a. Potassium permanganate
b. Potassium nitrate
c. Ethylene either from plant part or chemicals
d. Calcium carbonate
75. If we are to grow commercially Lakatan and Latundan in Isabela the special
practice that is necessary is
a. Pruning b. propping c. tapping d. tuxying
76. Detaselling corn is a practice that can be recommended to Cagayan corn
farmers. It is a measure to control
a. Rats b. weeds c. insect pest d. disease
CASE IV The Central Plain of Luzon is generally flat and the principal crops are
rice, sugarcane, mango and lowland vegetables. Multiple cropping of rice with
vegetables is very feasible. The market for vegetables is nearer than those
coming from the Cordillera
77. If you have relay cropping of some vegetables like tomato, onion, eggplant or
okra after rice a necessary practice would be
a. Burn the rice straw first
b. Assure adequate drainage
c. Flood the soil for irrigation
d. Spray liquid fertilizer before planting vegetables
78. Wind breaks in Central Luzon during the dry season will:
a. Minimize the effect of typhoon
b. Minimize wind erosion of soil
c. Minimize infestation of locust
d. Use overhead irrigation instead of flooding
79. The use of excessive pesticide in rice production and vegetable production
pollutes the water supply . it could be minimized by:
a. Practice of integrated pest management
b. Imposing high tax to agricultural chemicals
c. Requiring the planting hybrid rice
d. Use overhead irrigation instead of flooding
80. El nino is a phenomenon that would affect the economy of Central Luzon. Rice
production will be reduce because:
a. Less fertilizer will be used due to high cost
b. Globalization make the Myanmar rice cheaper than Philippine rice
c. Irrigation system efficiency will be lower
d. Milling recovery of rice is lower
81. Sugarcane in Tarlac, Pampanga, and Pangasinan are grown as:
a. Catch crop for mango
b. Intercrop for lowland rice
c. Monocrop
d. Landscape for the local tourism
CASE V The cropping in Southern Tagalog Region including Mindoro is highly

diversified. The high value crops such as flowers, ornamentals, vegetables, fruits,
coconut, coffee, black pepper, corn and sugarcane are growing well including
root crops and rice. The region as a whole is generally good for crop production
because of high population density, fertile soil, and diversified rainfall pattern.
82. Coconut and corn can be made into high value crop by:
a. Converting them into feed for animals
b. Diversity product lines like buko juice/pie and baby/green corn
c. Mechanize the production system
d. Modernize irrigation/nutrition management like using hydroponics
83. Coffee and black pepper products are classified as durables. The critical
postproduction practice is storage because:
a. Beans and corn don‟t dry easily
b. Coffee beans and pepper corns absorbs unwanted odor
c. The marketing price is steady
d. Generally harvesting is laborious
84. The urbanized southern Tagalog regions is good for
a. Ornamental crop production
b. Export crop production
c. plantation agriculture
d. fiber crop production
85. Landscaping and plant arts are special aspect of crop production that do not
require large land area. This aspect of horticulture increase the value of the
plants because of:
a. Proper selection of resistance varieties
b. Proper election of appropriate plants to the particular environments
c. Preference of high class clients
d. Adequate advertising
86. Postharvest handling of cut flowers, vegetables, “buko” coconut, fruits and green
“sweet” corn is classified as handling or perishables. The correct /technique
could be:
a. Harvesting sweet corn in the afternoon
b. Packaging mango in sacks for easier handling
c. Ripening bananas for export to command higher price
d. Storage of bananas and mangos in cold storage to reduce respiration
87. To reduce postharvest loses, the care start with the field practices. Among the
practices in the field that would influence most the postharvest quality of produce
is
a. Pruning of plants to reduce disease
b. Timing to the flower induction
c. Irrigation of the crop one day before harvesting
d. Harvesting the crop at appropriate maturity for the product
CASE VI Bicol region raise abaca, coconut and pili in Catanduanes, Sorsogon
and Albay. Camarines Sur raise abaca, rice, citrus, and coconut. Camarines
Norte raise “Formosa or Queen” usually under coconut. Masbate is an island that
has cattle ranches and coconut farms. The region is usually visited by typhoon.
88. Hardy perennials are the prevailing commercial crops in Bicol region because of
crop-environment adaptation. The most probable reason would be.
a. Bicol soils are fertile because of many volcanoes
b. Land tenure in Bicol are reformed from the former hacienda system
c. Typhoon brings with it good amount of rainfall
d. Bicol is far from metropolis that have high demand for food crops
89. Coconut in Bicol was afflicted by cadang-cadang. Because of cadang there is
quarantine on the movement of coconut planting materials. The practice of
quarantine is good to:
a. Protect the market of planting materials against competition
b. Prevent spread of pest and diseases
c. Provide opportunity for taxation
d. Encourage regional specialization of crops
90. Abaca in Bicol is afflicted by virus diseases. There are techniques to mass
produce disease-free planting materials like:
a. Division of corms coming from existing farms
b. Tissue culture
c. Using desuckering tools
d. Grafting abaca with resistant varieties
91. Pineapple could be induced to flower anytime of the year. Being a tourist region,
pineapple farmers in this province of Bicol would benefit by having year-round
income from pineapple if they would practice the use of Ethrel to induce flowering
in pineapple
a. Catanduanes
b. Albay
c. Sorsogon
d. Camarines Sur
CASE VII The Visayas islands of Bohol and Cebu raise corn primarily for food.
Samar and Leyte islands raise coconut, abaca, and rice. Negros and Panay
produce most of the sugar that are exported. Guimaras and Cebu are famous for
mangoes. Pina fibers are only produce in Aklan. All Islands have upland areas
that are being denuded.
92. One of the farming system appropriate in the upland is

a. Pastoral ranching
b. Agroforestry
c. Integrated sugar-alcohol industry
d. Container agriculture
93. Agro-industrial integration in island economy such as those in the Visayas is
good to balance the population growth with job opportunities. The primary
processing of carabao and saba would have a value added to the farm products
when processed as
a. fruit cocktail
b. Fruit cake
c. Dried fruit
d. Bruit flavored ice cream
94. The fiber industry of abaca and pina are native to the Philippines. Abaca and
pineapple for fiber would be more acceptable for improvement through genetic
engineering because
a. The consumer products are not food
b. There are more biodiversity in the Philippines
c. American and European ca not compete with us
d. They are suitable for mechanization
95. In computing the population per hectare of mango for high density planting their
formula would be
a. Distance in feet between rows and hills multiplied by the no. of rows
b. 10,000 divided by the product of the distance between rows in meters
multiplied by distance between plants in the row in meters
c. Product of the width multiplied by length in meters divided by numbers of
rows
d. 10,000 divided by 25
96. The root crops like ube and gabi are propagated commercially by
a. Suckers
b. Division
c. Root cuttings
d. Runners
97. Sugarcane are propagated commercially by stem cuttings and irrigated by furrow
and overhead method. Integrated farming with sugarcane could be
a. sugarcane with livestock
b. fishery and sugarcane
c. intercropping with rice
d. relay cropping with coconut
98. Corn production in Cebu and Bohol are primarily for food as staple. In growing
corn, the most feasible nutrition management by using
a. Bio-N (Azospirillum) plus chicken manure
b. Mulching with plastic sheet
c. Foliar spray of micronutrient
d. Applying burn leaves for its ash
99. Special practices in the control of pest of mango in Cebu and Iloilo is by
a. Spraying the fruits with Malathion
b. Bagging the fruits individually with paper bag
c. Smudging by burning dried leaves before flowering
d. Pruning
100. Bohol and Cebu soils are calcareous, and therefore the soil is towards the
alkaline reaction. The soil chemical reaction could be improved by:
a. Application of NPK or complete fertilizer
b. Application of ammonium sulfate
c. Application of liquid urea injected into the soil
d. Application of lime
101. Irrigation for sugarcane and corn could be by furrow or overhead method.
The most appropriate irrigation method for greenhouse crops that could
incorporate fertilizer nutrients is by:
a. Overhead irrigation
b. Flooding
c. Drip irrigation
d. Furrow irrigation
CASE VIII Mindanao has well distributed rainfall and fertile soils. The principal
crops are corn in Bukidnon and Cotaato, pineapple in Misamis Oriental and
Davao, Rubber in Zamboanga Sur, Basilan, Cotabato and Agusan. Rice, corn
and coconut almost in all provinces, oil palm in Agusan and Sultan Kudarat,
bananas and other fruits in Davao and General Santos area.
102. Perennial export crops are grown as

a. Plantation monocrop farming
b. Agroforestry crops
c. Integrated agro-industrial farming
d. Hacienda farming
103. Corn growing in Mindanao could be mechanized at the level of “
a. Mechanical land preparation, planting, harvesting and postproduction
handling
b. Crop improvement by GMO‟s corn
c. Multiple cropping with vegetables for home consumption and local market
d. Crop protection using biological control
104. In large farms, the selection of planting materials for rubber, citrus, durian,
rambutan, pummelo, and lansones the recommended practice to assure good
production like that of the selected varieties/clones is
a. Seedlings b. grafting c. cuttings d. marcotting
105. If you are a pioneer in Mindanao, site selection and choice of appropriate
crop require your knowledge of
a. Soil and rainfall pattern only
b. Soil, climatic and biological indicators of the crop
c. Soil and climatic characteristics, biological and economic characteristics of
the crop, and culture of the community
d. Soil, rainfall, population of community and technology of the crop
106. In the agroforestry system for Mindanao, some good practices are:
a. Sloping agriculture for rubber plantation
b. Industrial tree farming purely for paper industries
c. Cattle raising under coconuts with appropriate legume trees and pasture
management
d. Papaya and pineapple
107. Mangosten and marang are exotic fruits grown in Mindanao. They are
generally propagated by seeds. After eating the fruits the seeds are germinated
right away within a week because they don‟t store well. The reason is:
a. Seeds of mangosteen and marang are orthodox seeds
b. Seed of mangosteena are apomictic
c. Seeds of mangosteen and marang are recalcitrant seeds
d. Seeds would germinate only in the dark
108. The practice of plowing and fertilization fo coconut increase the yield of
coconut. But the yield increase attributed to the practice would be observed only
after 3 years. One solution in farm management is
a. Practice intercropping with crops that respond to fertilization within a year
b. Plow only but don‟t fertilize anymore because fertilizer are expensive
c. Market “buko” instead of copra as coconut products
d. Provide irrigation by furrow or flooding
109. Surface irrigation of lowland rice by flooding and corn by furrow irrigation,
utilize too much water. Pump irrigation is advisable for lowland rice and corn
a. When feasibility indicate an increase in production and profit
b. When stage of a crop like milking stage coincide with adequate rainfall
c. When rice and corn are planted as intercrops during rainy season
d. When high value cops could be grown also in the farm by hydroponics
110. Lansones season in Camaiguin and Visayas do not coincide with the
seson in Southern Tagalog Region. This is good for the farmers because with
longer season there is less fluctuation of price and it stabilizes at a level that is
profitable to the producer. Lanzones can be induced to flower by:
a. Pruning
b. Irrigation after a long dry months
c. Chemical spray
d. Smoking
111. Grape culture requires support of trellis like other vine crops. it is induced
to flower by
a. Irrigation
b. Chemical spraying of calcium carbide
c. Smudging
d. Pruning
112. Because crop production/farming is a regular activity of rural people and
without it they will never have a normal life, farming is considered a
a. Business b. art c. technology d. culture ( a way of life)
113. Agriculture is affected by number of consumers. Philippine population
today (2002) is about:
a. 50 million b. 80 million c. 100 million d. 120 million
114. Trade liberalization could lead to declining demand for locally grown
products as manifested by
a. Increasing tendency to buy imported fruit products
b. Greater desire of balikbayan to buy traditional native products
c. Greater utilization of modern technologies
d. Television advertising and computer marketing
115. The increasing interest in the use of organic foods and traditional
medicine is due top the public perception or belief that
a. Natural products are harmful and than those produce with synthetic inputs
b. Natural products are cheaper in the market
c. Foods produced using chemical (synthetic fertilizers and pesticides) always
have harmful residues
d. Foods produced without pesticide and synthetic fertilizer are safer
116. The rapid industrialization cause the increase in value of agricultural
lands near population center, resulting into
a. Large scale reduction of our forested lands
b. Massive land conversion of farm lands
c. Massive movement of work forces to other countries
d. Excessive garbage problem
117. The three major crops of the Philippines in terms of land area cultivated
are:
a. Abaca, rice and coconut
b. Rice, corn and coconut
c. Corn, abaca and banana
d. Banana, sugarcane and coffee
118. The leading agriculture export crop of the country is
a. Banana b. sugar c. abaca d. coconut
119. Self-sufficiency (annual) in rice in the Philippines
a. Had never been attained
b. Had been achieved before
c. Is impossible because of high population
d. Is possible because IRRI is in the Philippines
120. Corn production in the Philippines is:
a. Mainly used for animal feed manufacturing
b. Mostly consumed as people‟s staple food
c. Only supplied by our Mindanao farmers
d. Consumed only in Cebu and Bohol
121. Forest denudation results into this possibility
a. Decreased agricultural production area
b. Severe erosion of topsoil leading to less fertile uplands
c. Movement of urban settlers to rural communities
d. Reduction of post in agriculture
122. High population growth rate could possibly mean
a. Less work/labor forces for agricultural production
b. More people in urban area and greater demand for agricultural produce
c. Bad prospects for agriculture because of lower prices of farm products
d. Prosperity
123. Greater population with low productivity could lead to:
a. General poverty among the people
b. Higher taxes
c. Migration of work forces to rural areas
d. Professional agriculturist
124. Urbanization and industrialization always result to:
a. Decrease in agricultural production area
b. Migration of rural population to urban areas
c. Increase in labor availability for farming
d. Liberalization of trading
125. Coconut industry should not be a dying industry. It should be maintained
and improved, because:
a. It earns substantial dollar returns as an export crop
b. It give less income to the coconut farmers
c. It‟s a disorganized sector of farmers who should benefit the most
d. It is a colonial crop
126. Genetically Modified Organisms could lead to the following problem
a. Reduced production in the crop concerned
b. Monopoly in the supply and distribution of seeds
c. Reduced damage due to the target pests
d. Indigenous practices will dominate the seed industry
127. Site characterization and selection of crop production in the Philippines
require knowledge 0f
a. Geographical characteristics of the area
b. Botanical characteristics of major tropical crops
c. Indicators of land, climate, crops, ecology, culture and market dynamics
d. Geography, soil, and climate characteristics only
128. The comprehensive land reform program coverage is cropland of
a. Rice and corn only
b. Sugarcane and coconut
c. Lowland
d. All agricultural lands regardless of crops
129. Modern crop agriculture would require:
a. Indigenous knowledge
b. Knowledge from research only
c. Knowledge synthesize from their information
d. Knowledge of all kinds and from all sources
130. The factors affecting food and fiber production in the Philippines and
elsewhere are population dynamics; environment factor of production like light,
water and temperature; land and soil resources; and production technology
(variety, culture, postharvest, etc.). To attain food and fiber self-sufficiency within
the context of our culture the best things to do is:
a. Manage population to slower growth rate
b. Invest in infrastructure that will control environment factors
c. Increase land under crop cultivation
d. Transform production technology into practices that will increase farm
productivity
131. Land clearing is ________ land cultivation
a. Before b. after c. the same time with d. does not matter
132. After selecting the site for good practice of crop production, land
preparation should be
a. Clearing second-growth forest with slash and burn on steep slopes
b. Clearing flat or rolling cogonal lands and plowing
c. Chemical control of brush on flat lands and using dibble and hoe for
cultivation
d. Plowing currently cultivated sugarland and staking and holing for
establishment of pasture crops
133. Soil erosion control is important in Philippine agriculture because
a. We have to conserve water in terraces
b. Growing upland crops like corn and vegetables require fertile soils
c. There is too much rainfall during some months and large cultivated areas are
not flat
d. People are increasing too much and more people have to eat
134. In modern Philippine agriculture the selection for planting materials for
both annuals and perennial is guided by
a. Demand of foreign markets
b. Yield and quality of processed products
c. Adaptability of the planting materials
d. Recommendation of seed dealers
135. Seeds or seedling is better planting material than asexual or vegetative
method when:
a. There is benefit of hybrid vigor
b. Crops could be direct seeded
c. Crops can be propagated by seeds
d. Crops can be grafted or rooted as cuttings
136. Classification of seed are based on this concepts
a. Orthodox seeds can be kept for long period in storage as dried seeds (low
moisture content)
b. Recalcitrant seeds are more associated with perennial horticultural crops
c. Seeds of corn, rice, eggplant and squash are recalcitrant seeds
d. Seeds of rambutan, mango and avocado are orthodox seeds
137. Kaingin system is primarily subsistence farming. The form of planting
crops is generally.
a. Direct seedling of food crops like rice, corn, beans by edible method
b. Growing perennial crops by hedge row across slope with food crops between
rows
c. Mixed cropping of perennials for export market
d. Regular distance of crops either by squared, rectangular or triangular layout.
138. In farming the method that would minimize soil erosion
a. Plowing up and down the slope
b. Providing hedge row or kakawate and ipil-ipil across the slope and planting
crops between the hedge rows
c. Providing drainage canal in any manner
d. Pasture grazing along slopes
139. The best type of plating materials for crops like cereals and field legumes
are
a. Sexual
b. Asexual
c. Root cuttings
d. Tissue cultured plants
140. Because of:
a. Planting materials are easy to produce, inexpensive and have hybrid vigor
b. Ture-to-type and early planting
c. Expensive for high density planting
d. Late bearer and no incompatibility
141. Surface irrigation should be used in:
a. Flooding rice fields during dry season only
b. Furrow irrigation of corn and basin irrigation of fruit-trees during the rainy
season
c. Gravity irrigation of rice terraces
d. Flooding, furrow, or basin irrigation of most crops when soils is dry and there
is plenty of water
142. In determining when to irrigate
a. Leaves of crops with in the afternoon but not in the morning
b. Using sand cum soil moniplot technique, when the plant crop in the miniplot
show wilting
c. When based on calculation, the amount of evapotranspiration is less than the
amount of natural precipitation
d. Every 2 weeks regardless of kind of crops grown
143. The loss of water during the stage of the crop that irrigation is needed is
by;
a. Seepage and precipitation of irrigation by drip method
b. Evaporation of water from the leaves and transpiration from the soil surface
c. Evaporation of water by the overhead irrigation method
d. Transpiration of water from flooded rice fields
144. Pump irrigation is most feasible
a. For rice when depth of water source is shallow
b. For high value crop like flowers and vegetables when method is by drip
irrigation
c. For coconut grown in Pinatubo lahar
d. For early induction of flowering of fruit trees
145. The best source of plant nutrients are
a. Commercial granular fertilizer
b. Commercial granular fertilizer plus compost
c. Compost only
d. Commercial granular fertilizer, compost and microbial inoculums
146. The proper application of fertilizer is
a. Broadcasting ureas only when rise is booting stage
b. Liquid application of micronutrients by soil injection
c. Side dressing of complete and compost fertilizer at the early vegetative
growth stage
d. Basal application at planting time and side dressing at the vegetative stage
up to reproductive stage for most crops
147. When integrated pest management is to be applied, the first order in the
decision process of having control is
a. Identifying the pest
b. Planting varieties of crops known to be resistant to problem pest
c. Killing the pest by chemical spray
d. Biological control of the pest
148. Management of weeds is
a. Weed are allowed if competition with crops is minimal
b. Complete elimination of weeds by chemicals in steed slopes
c. Biological control by cover cropping in annual crops
d. Mulching in grain and legume crops
149. Disease of perennial crops may be found in the roots, leaves, flowers and
fruits. Fungicide are resorted to when
a. The pathogen is soil borne
b. Systemic fungicides are available to control anthracnose of flowers and fruits
of mango
c. When environmental factor is characterized by sunny and cool weather
d. Controlling the fruit rot of jackfruit due to fruit fly
150. Vertebrate and insect are better controlled when
a. The population is at its height such as 10-12 hoppers per mango
inflorescence
b. The rats are few and starving because the period is after harvest
c. The predators and parasites are in ecological balance with the population
ration with pest
d. Pest are attacking the flower
151. In arid places the most economical means of irrigation method is
a. Flooding
b. Overhead
c. Furrow
d. Drip
152. Knowing the economics of irrigation the crops the correct statement is
a. Natural rainfall could be enough for coconut and mango
b. Pump irrigation is resorted for low value crops in greenhouse
c. Upland rice is irrigated by overhead method
d. Generally vegetables are irrigated by flooding
153. The corrects statement is
a. Biological pest control is feasible but not biological crop nutrition
b. Site preparation would not influence nutrition, water management and
management of crops
c. Sod culture, covercropping, and pasturing are biological methods of
controlling weed pest
d. Kind of planting materials and distance of planting are not directly related to
plant
154. Pineapple is an example is
a. Simple fruit
b. Multiple fruit
c. Aggregate fruit
d. Berry
155. The process of removing dead and diseased parts from healthy plant is
called
a. Rejuvenate pruning
b. Corrective pruning
c. Preventive pruning
d. Formative pruning
156. Fertilizer needs of crops is best determined by
a. Tissue analysis
b. Soil analysis
c. Fertilizer trials
d. Symptom
157. The practice of growing crops (usually legumes) for the main purpose of
improving soil fertility
a. Green manuring
b. Composting
c. Covercropping
d. Intercropping
158. Granular fertilizer is commonly applied by
a. Soil injection
b. Broadcast/drill method
c. Foliar spray after dissolving in water
d. Mixing with irrigation water
159. The loss of water though evapo-transpiration is favored by
a. Low temperature
b. High relative humidity
c. Low wind speed
d. High temperature
160. Wider plant spacing is adopted when
a. Soil fertility is low
b. Plants have erect or vertical growth habit
c. Plant grow into a big tree at maturity
d. Soil have water holding capacity
161. Crops with any of the following characteristics are direct seeded
a. Seeds are difficult to germinate
b. Seeds are expensive
c. Seedling cannot tolerate root disturbance
d. Seedlings develop multiple tap roots
162. A well prepared upland soil should be
a. Have enough moisture
b. Granular and friable
c. Have dried leaves burned before planting
d. Zero-tillage
163. Direct seeding is commonly practiced in planting
a. Eggplant b. mango c. corn d. tomato
164. A leafy shoot originating from axillary buds borne at the base of the
pineapple fruit is called
a. sucker
b. runner
c. slip
d. corm
165. A method of asexual propagation in which organ(s) is allowed to generate
on detached vegetative part of the plant
a. Marcotting b. cutting c. budding d. grafting
166. This type of dormancy is due to one or more unsuitable factors of the
environment which are non-specific in their effect. In seeds, this is equivalent to
quiescene.\
a. Paradormancy
b. Endodormancy
c. Ecodormancy
d. Chemical dormancy
167. Plant response to seasonal variations in the length of day are collectively
known as
a. Vernalization b. photoperiodism c. circadian rhythm d.
morphogenesis
168. Photoreceptor involved in photoeriodism is
a. Phytochrome
b. Chlorophyll
c. Carotenoids
d. Flavins
169. These plant organisms need to be supplied only with inorganic
substances since they make their own organic substances/
a. Heterotrophic organisms
b. Accumulators
c. Autotrophic organisms
d. Eukaryotic organism
170. In grafted plant, the lower portion of the graft union that became the root
system is called
a. Rootstock
b. Roots
c. Scion
d. Interstock
171. The practice of growing a new crop out of shoot arising from the previous
crops is called
a. Replanting
b. Re-cropping
c. Rationing
d. Rejuvenation
172. A bacteria capable of living symbiotically with higher plants usually
legumes, from which they receive their energy, and capable of fixing nitrogen for
the plant
a. Rhizobium
b. Nitrobacter
c. Mycorhizza
d. Nitrosomonas
173. The arrangement of individual soil practices into compound particles or
aggregates which normally determines the water holding capacity and drainage
quality of the soil
a. Soil structure
b. Soil texture
c. Soil aggregation
d. Soil type
174. The concept of basic and nutritious food being available accessible,
affordable and stable in supply
a. Food availability
b. Food security
c. Food safety
d. Food accessibility
175. The planting of diverse series of plants differing in heights, branching,
characteristics, shade tolerance, use and nutrient needs such that different plants
will grow under one another\
a. Multiple cropping
b. Crop rotation
c. Intercropping
d. Multistory cropping
176. A food production strategy in the 1960‟s and 70‟s designed to solve
problems related to population explosion and world hunger by introducing new
farm technologies including modern varieties, pesticides, fertilizers, irrigation and
machines
a. Sustainable agriculture
b. Green revolution
c. Masagana 99
d. Gintong ani
177. A plant belonging to the grass family which has a very extensive root
system and is effective as soil stabilizer
a. Corn
b. Vetiver
c. Lemon grass
d. Napier grass
178. The temperature, sunlight, humidity and other climatic conditions in a
small localized area
a. Climate
b. Weather
c. Microclimate
179. The type of cropping wherein plants are regenerated out of the remaining
part after the first harvest
a. Cropping
b. Relay cropping
c. Rationing
d. Crop rotation
180. The process of digging large seedling with a ball of soil intact and with
minimum root distribution is called
a. Balling b. hardening‟ c. blocking d. sub-soiling
181. The practice of gradually exposing the seedlings to sunlight before field
planting in order to minimized transplanting shock is
a. Balling b. blocking c. hardening d. sun bleaching
182. Practices that are regularly done but are unique to a specific crop or
group of crops are called
a. Common practices
b. Unique practices
c. Special practices
d. Extra practices
183. This refers to the practices of enclosing the fruits with suitable materials in
order to protect the fruits
a. Fruit bagging
b. Fruit protection
c. Fruit wrapping
d. Fruit enclosing
184. Which type of stem cutting is used for cassava and siniguelas
a. Softwood
b. Hard wood
c. Semi-hardwood
d. Herbaceous
185. Practices of providing support to viny plants to keep the stem, leaves and
fruits away from the soil and to allow better exposure to sunlight
a. Supporting
b. Trellising
c. Staking
d. Propping
186. This refers to the practice of removing unnecessary suckers from the
base of banana to minimize competition among the remaining suckers
a. Flower induction
b. Fruit induction
c. Flowering thinning
d. Desuckering
187. One way of producing off-season fruits is by
a. Flower induction
b. Fruit induction
c. Flower thinning
d. Fruit thinning
188. This refers to the judicious removal of plant parts to attain specific
purpose
a. Thinning
b. Pruning
c. Training
d. Rejuvenating
189. Which of the following is NOT among the objectives of pruning
a. To dwarf the plant
b. To maintain desired canopy shape
c. To increase the volume of canopy
d. To rejuvenate an old tree
190. Crops that normally have short shelf-life due to rapid deterioration
a. Durables
b. Semi-perishables
c. Perishables
d. Non-perishables
191. A method of harvesting in which only matured or ripe fruits or pods are
harvested is called
a. Stripping b. tapping c. tuxying d. priming
192. The process of extracting latex from a tree or fruit is called
a. Tuxying b. tapping c. stripping d. priming
193. Which of the following does not require threshing
a. Rice b. corn c. mungbean d. soybean
194. Which of the following require fermentation during primary processing
a. Cotton b. cacao c. coconut d. abaca
195. For longer shelf life perishables should not be stored under
a. Low oxygen
b. Low temperature
c. Low relative humidity
d. High CO2
196. Planting materials that are most applicable to most agronomic crops and
vegetable crops
a. Stem b. leaves c. seeds d. corms
197. What technique refers to a plant grown with the main crop, attracts the
pest, but not suitable for their growth and reproduction (e.g… eggplant with
tomato)
a. Repellant crop
b. Decoy
c. Natural enemies attractants
d. Trap crop
198. What technique refers to growing of flowering plants at strategic places in
the field
a. Repellant crop
b. Decoy
c. Natural enemies attractants
d. Trap crop
199. Which of the following does not have modified stem
a. Ginger
b. Pineapple
c. Banana
d. Sweet potato
200. Aerial plantlets formed on the axis of the leaves or flower stalk of a Agave
are called
a. Bulbils b. bulblets c. offsets d. tuber
SOIL SCIENCE
1. Net nitrogen immobilization in soil occurs if the C/N is

a. Less than 20:1
b. Greater than 20:1
c. Greater than 35:1
d. Less than 15:1
2. Individually, which among the following soil organisms have the least biomass?
a. Actinomycetes
b. Fungi
c. Batecria
d. Protozoa
e. Earthworm
3. Which among the following soil organisms are acid loving?
a. Fungi
b. Protozoa
c. Bacteria
d. Actinomycetes
e. A and b above
4. Ammonia volatilization from NH4+ -bearing fertilizers is not favored by which of
the following?
a. High pH
b. High temperature
c. High CEC
d. A and B above
e. B and C above
5. Soil microorganisms degrade organic residues primarily for
a. Phosphorous and ATP
b. Carbon and energy
c. Nitrogen and energy
d. Phosphorous and energy
e. Nitrogen and phosphorous
6. The root nodule bacteria belong to the genus
a. Clostridium
b. Azotobacter
c. Rhizobium
d. Agrobacterium
7. The anaerobic non-symbiotic ntrogen fixing bacteria belong to the genus
a. Derxia
b. Clostridium
c. Azotobacter
d. Bradyrhizobium
e. Nitrobacter
8. Algae are considered as
a. Autotrophs
b. Photoautotrophs
c. Chemoautotrophs
d. Both a and b above
9. The source of energy for blue-green algae is
a. Sunlight
b. Metabolism of glucose
c. Organic matter decomposition
d. Oxidation of inorganic compounds
10. The predominant available form of N under flooded soil condition is
a. NO3-N
b. Organic N
c. NH4-N
d. NO2-N
e. NH2-N
11. The available form of nitrogen which predominates under upland condition is
a. Ammonia
b. Nitrite
c. Nitrate
d. Microbial biomass N
e. Fixed N
12. The conversion of NO3 to N2 is referred to as
a. Nitrogen fixation
b. Denitrification
c. Immobilization
d. Volatilization
13. The percentage of organic N in the soil is approximately
a. 96-98%
b. 80-85%
c. 68-75%
d. 50-60%
e. 60-70%
14. Nitrogen is added to the soil system by which of the following processes?
a. Leaching
b. Nitrogen fixation
c. Ammonia volatilization
d. A and b above
e. B and C above
15. The conversion of organic N to inorganic or mineral N is termed as
a. Immobilization
b. Nitrification
c. Mineralization
d. Ammonification
16. The conversion of N2 to NH4 is reffered to as
a. Denetrification
b. Nitrate reduction
c. Nitrogen fixation
d. Volatilization
17. Microorganisms which do not require oxygen are called?
a. Aerobes b. anaerobes c. obligate aerobes d. microaerophilic
18. The fixation and regeneration of CO2 in the biosphere is referred to as
a. Carbon cycle b. CO2 evolution c. respiration d. nutrient cycle
19. The optimum temperature requirement of the thermophiles is
a. Greater than 45 degrees Celsius
b. Less than 45 degrees Celsius
c. Greater than 30 degrees Celsius
d. Less than 30 degrees Celsius
20. Microorganisms which require organic compounds as sources of carbon and
energy are
a. Autotrophs
b. Heterotrophs
c. Chemoautotrophs
d. Photoautotrophs
21. Refers to the entrapment of ammonium ions in between crystal lattices of clays
thus redering them unavailable for plant use. This process is called
a. Nitrogen fixation
b. Microbial fixation
c. Ammonium fixation
d. Nutrient fixation
22. Rhizobia generally associated with nitrogen fixation in
a. Rice b. Peanut c. Corn d. Sorghum
23. Bacteria belong to this genus are non-symbiotic nitrogen fixers
a. Nitrobacter b. Aerobacter c. Azotobacter d. Arthrobacter e. Nitrosomonas
24. If a crop residue contains 60% organic carbon and 5% total nitrogen, its C/N
ratio is
a. 10.1 b. 12.1 c. 15.1 d. 20.1 e. 25.1
25. The C/N ratio of mcirobial biomas is about
a. 5-8:1 b. 12-15:1 c. 15-20:1 d. 20-25:1 e. None of the above
26. The most abundant microgarnisms found in the soil are generally the
a. Fungi b. Bacteria c. Actinomycetes e. Protozoa
27. The incorporation of inorganic nitrogen into microbial tissues is
a. Mineralization b. Immobilization c. Nitrification d. Denitrification e.
Ammonification
28. Whichof the following microorganisms is very sensetive to potassium levels in
soil and therefore useful in diagnosing potasium deficiency?
a. Pseudomonas denitrificans b. Aspergillus flavus c. Aspergillus niger d.
Azotobacter chroococcum e. Nitrobacter agilis
29. A deficeincy of this element will not enable a legume and its bacterial partner to
perform nitrogen fixation. This element is
a. Boron b. Phosphorus c. Molydenum d. Zinc e. Magnesium
30. The group of soil microorganisms which is responsible for decomposing organic
matter is the
a. Heterotrophs b. Autotrops c. Phototrops d. Chemaoutotrophss e. None of
the above
31. Organic material with wide C/N ratio are not ready as source of available nitrogen
because the nitrogen that they contain is subject to
a. Nitrification b. Volatilization c. Immobilization d. Fixation e. None of the
above
32. The soil microbial population is generally highest in the
a. A harizon b. B horizon c. C horizon d. B2HORIZON E. A3horizon
33. Chemoautorophs are those organisms which derive their enrgy from
a. Sunlight b. Oxidation of organic material c. Fermentation d. Oxidation of
organic substances e. None of the above
34. For soil bacteria, growth results in an increase in the
a. Size of individuals b. Numbers of the individual c. Form of the individuals d.
Size and number of individuals e. None of the above
35. The most effecient organic material decomposers under acidic soil condition are
the
a. Low organic b. actinomycetes c. Fungi d. Protozoa e. Algae
36. Pesticides will be retained much longer in soils with
a. Low organic matter b. High moisture content c. 2:1 dominant clay type d.
Low pH e. 1;1 dominant type
37. Net mineralization of organic nitrogen in the soil will occur if the C/N ratio is less
than
a. 20:1 b. 30:1 c.40:1 d. 50:1 e. 60:1
38. The initial substrate in notification is
a. Nitrite b. Nitrate c. Ammonium d. amine E. None of the above
39. The ultimate end-product of notification is
a. N2 b. NO c. N2o d. NH3 e. None of the above
40. Associative nitrogen fixation is undertaken by bacteria in association with
a. Rice b. Corn c. Sugar cane d. Pasture gasses e. None of the above
41. Frankia spp. Are soil microorganisms which are reponsible for the nodulation in
a. Casuarina b. Alnus c. Eleagnus d. Coriaria e. All of the above
42. The number and activity of bacteria in the soil is affected by
a. pH b. Moisture c. Ozygen supply d.salinity e. All of the abve
43. a type of microscope wich provides a e-demensional view of the soul
microorganisms is called
a. light miroscope b. Scanning electron microscope c. Transmission electron
microscope d. Immuno-flourescent microscope e. None o f the above
44. A 1:1000 soil-water dilution means that one part of soil is suspended in
a. 9 parts of sterile H2O b. 99parts of sterile H2O c. 999 parts of sterile H2 O d.
1000 parts of strile H2O e. None of the above
45. In a legume biological nitrogen fixing system, the microsymbiont is
a. Bacteria b. Actinomycetes c. Alage d. Fungi e. None of the above
46. CO2 evolution in soil is a funtion of
a. Mirobal population b. Aeration c. pH d. Temperature e. All of the above
47. The amout of molecular nitrogn (N2) in the atmosphere is about
a. 88% b. 78% c. 68% d. 58% e. 48%
48. When NO3 is denitrified all the way to N2, There is shift in tha valence of N from
+5 to
a. +4 b. +3 c. +2 d. +1 e. 0
49. Whhich of the bacteria had been known to be capable of denitrification ?
a. Agrobacteria b. Azosperillum c. Pseudomonas d. Tjiobacillus e. All of the
above
50. The optimum or ideal soil pH for growing of the most crops is
a. Ph 5.0 b. pH 6.5 c. pH 7.5
51. These chemical elements become more soluble or availale at soil pH <4.0
a. Fe, Al, Cu, Zn
b. Ca, Mg, K
c. N, P, K
52. At very low soil pH available P may become precipitated as
a. Tricalcium phosphate
b. Al-hydroxyapatite
c. Orthophosphate
53. These are acid actions
a. H+ and K+
b. H+ and CA++
c. H+ and Al+++
54. Nitrification causes developement of soil acidity due to production of
a. Al ions b. H ion c. NH4OH
55. Reserve acidity is due to H+ in
a. Soil erosion
b. Colloid adsorption sites
c. Crystal structure
56. Most of the micronutrients tend to become less available
a. With decreasing soil pH
b. With increasing soil pH
c. With neutral soil pH
57. Soils that need to be limed are those with pH
a. Less than 5.0
b. Greater than 5.0
c. Equal to 7.0
58. This material is not considered lime
a. CACO3
b. CaSO4=2H2O
c. CaO
59. B
60. After saturation with NH4+ a soil that adsorbed 30 ml/100gm of NH4+
a. 20 me/100gm b. 30me/100gm c. 10me/100gm
61. A soil with 5 me of H+ adsorbed will need this amount of Ca++ to replace H+ ions
a. 10me Ca/100gm
b. 5me Ca/100gm
c. 20me Ca/100gm
62. Soils with high buffering capacity need
a. More lime to increase pH
b. Less lime to increase pH
c. No lime to change pH
63. Compared to a clay loam soil, an acidic sandy loam soil will need
a. More lime
b. Less lime
c. The same amount of lime
64. Under flooded or lowland soil conditions availability of ion is
a. Greater b. Lesser c. The same as in upland condition
65. The ability of the soil to adsorb and exchange negatively charged ions
a. Cation exhange capacity
b. Exchangeable sodium percentae
c. Anion exchange capacity
66. This clay has the highest CEC
a. Montmorillomite b. Kaolinite c. Illite
67. A chemical element is considered essential if
a. It is taken up by plants
b. It is involved in metabolic functions in the plant
c. It makes the plants grower
68. Soil fertility is the ability of the soil to supply nutrients in
a. Sufficient and balanced amount
b. Amounts above the optimum
c. Readily available forms
69. Among the essential elements these three are not normally applied as fertilizers
a. N P K b. N S and CA c. C H and O2
70. The native supply of this nutrient generally comes from soil organic matter
a. Calcium b. Phosphorous c. Nitrogen
71. A soil that is fertile is
a. Necessarily productive b. Not necessarily productive c. Always
productive
72. The essential elements Fe, Zn, Cu , Mn, etc. are called micronutrients because
a. They are needed by plants in very small amounts
b. They are less important to plants than the macronutrients
c. They are needed by smallest part of the cell
73. The immediate source of carbon by plants is
a. CO2 by the air
b. CO2 from carbonate minerals
c. CO2 from decay of organic matter
74. If the essential elements these three are not absorbed in ionic forms
a. NPK b. Ca, Mg, and S c. CHO
75. The dominant forms of nitrogen available or absored by plants are
a. NO3 and NO2 b. NH4+ and N2+ c. NH4+ and NO3+
76. Iron is more availabe to plants in
a. Its oxidized form, Fe3+ b. Its oxided form Fe2O3 c. Its reduced form
2+
Fe
77. The plant demand for nutrients particularly nitrogen is generally greatest during
a. Vegetative stage b. Seedling stage c. Senescent or matured stage
78. Liebig‟s law of minimum in effect says that plant growth and yield
a. Is limited by the absence of a nutirent
b. Is limited by that nutrient present below the minimum requirement
c. Is limited by excess of a particular nutrient
79. Soil productivity is the ability of the soil
a. To produce the desired amount of plant yield
b. Supply nutrients in sufficient and balnced amounts
c. Store and resist leaching of nutrients
80. Plant growth response to increasing amounts of a limiting nutrient is generally
a. A curvilinear function b. A straigth line function c. A fluctuating line
function
81. When depicted graphically, THE metscherlich, equation shows that with addition
of a limiting nutirent
a. yield increases linearly
b. yeild increases but in decreasing increments
c. yield increases exponentially
82. plants become chlorotic when these nutrients are deficient
a. NPK b. N, Mg, and Ca c. N, Mg and S
83. When nutrients are mobile in the plant, deficiency symptoms show up first
a. In the oldest leaves
b. In the youngest leaves
c. In the intermediate leaves
84. These elements, when deficient cause chlorosis bacause they are structural
componets of the chlorophyll pigment
a. N and CA b. N and Mg c. P and S
85. This elements has a critical role in sugarcane fertilization because of its function
in the synthesis of sugar
a. Nitrogen b. Phosphorous c. Potassium
86. These elements are present in most amino acids and proteins
a. Phosphorous and Potassium b. Iron and copper c. Nitrogen and
Sulfur
87. This is a mechanism of nutrient movement and uptake due to concentration
gradient
a. Mass flow b. Contact exchange or root interception c. Diffusion
88. Most micronutrients become less available at
a. Low pH b. High pH c. Neutral pH
89. Phosphorous is less available
a. Only at low pH
b. Only at high pH
c. At either very low or very high pH
90. In upland and well aerated soils the dominat form of available nitrogen in the soil
is
a. NO3 b. NH4+ c. NH3
91. Under strongly acidic soil conditions phosphorous is usually complexed into
unavailable form as
a. Tricaluim phosphate
b. Al and Fe hydroxyphosphate
c. Zn phosphate
92. Nutrient antagonism means reduced availability or absorption of a nutrient
a. Whern another nutrient is deficient
b. When another nutrient is excessive
c. When another nutrient is present in equal amounts
93. Chelation makes elements like Fe, Cu, Zn, etc
a. less available to plants
b. more available to plants
c. fixes the elements into insoluble compounds
94. the first product of the Haber-Bosch process of N fertilizer manufacture when N2
and H2 are reacted
a. NH3 b. (NH4)2SO4 c. CO(NH3)2
95. The highest analysis or grade of soilid N fertilizer
a. Ammonium sulfate
b. Anhydrous ammonia
c. Urea
96. The basic reaction during biological N fixation
a. N2 H2 NH3 b. N2 H2O NH3 c. N2 H2SO4
(NH4)2SO4
97. The enzyme needed to transform urea to (NH4)2CO3 in the soil

a. Carboxylase b. Anhydrase c. Urease
98. The weak acid formed upon hydrolysis of urea in soils
a. Acetic acid b. Carbonic acid c. Uric acid
99. The other essential element present in ammonium sulfate but absent in urea
a. Calcium b. Sulfur c. Iron
100. The percent N2 P2O5 and K2O in a fertilizer
a. Fertilizer ratio b. Fertilizer grade c. Fertilizer recommendation
101. This is a single element or straight fertilizer
a. Complete fertilizer
b. Urea
c. Ammonium phosphate
102. The fertilizer nutrients that are generally applied all at planting time
a. N and P b. P and K c. N and K
103. Application of fertilizer at planting time
a. Basal b. Topdressing c. Side dressing
104. The appropriate N fertilizer for a sulfur deficient soil
a. Urea b. Ammonium nitrate c. Ammonium sulfate
105. The suitable fertilizer for an alkaline N deficient soil
a. Anhydrous NH3 b. Urea c. Ammonium sulfate
106. This nitrogen transformation causes soil acidification
a. Denitrification b. NH3 volatilization c. Nitrification
107. This is a common way by which N in fertilizers is lost when applied to
alkaline soils
a. NH3 volatilization b. Denitrification c. Fixation by clay
108. The amount of pure N in a 50-kg bag of urea (46-0-0)
a. 23 kg b. 15 kg c. 10 kg
109. Horizontal layers of soil differentiation
a. Concretions
b. Structure
c. Horizons
d. Hardpans
110. A square meter of land dug to a depth that nearly touches the bedrock
a. Profile b. Parent material c. Pedon d. Aquifer
111. Mature soil have the following horizons
a. AB b. ABC c. ABCD d. AB
112. Young soils ahve the following horizons
a. AB b. ABC c. AC d. BC
113. The solum is composed of these horizons
a. ABC b. BC c. ABCD d. AB
114. The regolith is composed of these horizons
a. AB b. BC c. ABC d. ABCD
115. The topsoil usually refers to this horizon
a. A B b. A c. B d. C
116. The subsoil usually refers to this horizon
a. A B b. A c. B d. C
117. Blocks of soil from each horizon posted on hard board
a. Regolith b. Monolith c. Litolith d. Pedon
118. The government agency charged with the survey and classification of
soils
a. BPI b. BSWM c. NAFC d. DPWH
119. Basis for mapping of Philippine soils
a. Soil series b. Soil order c. Soil family d. Great group
120. A group of soils which developed from the same parent material and
whose profile characteristics are the same
a. Soil order b. Soil series c. Soil family d. Great group
121. Soil profile characteristics important to a civil engineer
a. Color b. Structure c. Texture d. Microbial population
122. Soil profile characteristic important to biologist
a. Roots and faunal activity signs
b. Color
c. Texture
d. Bulk density
123. Standard reference system for soil color
a. Soil taxonomy
b. Soil map
c. Soil survey report
d. Munsell color chart
124. Describes darkness or lightness of soil color
a. Hue b. Value c. Chroma d. Intensity
125. Sign of poor drainage
a. Wellowixh mottles
b. Bluish gray mottless
c. Shade reflection
d. Intensity
126. Natural relatively permanent aggregates
a. Crumb b. Clods c. Peds d; pebbles
127. A simple test for limestone parent materials
a. H3SO4 b. HCL reaction c. Brittleness d. Stickyness
128. Structureless soil
a. Granular b. Crumb c. Prismatic d. massive/single grained
129. Soils with no diagnostic horizons
a. Entisols b. Mollisols c. Oxisols d. Alfisols
130. Broadest category of soil taxonomy
a. Great group b. Sub order c. Order d. Family
131. Soils which are predominantly montmorillonitic
a. Vertisols b. Entisols c. Inceptisols d. Histosols
132. A square meter of land dug to a depth that nearly touches the bedrock
a. Horizon b. Pit c. Epipedon d. Pedon
133. Basic properties described in a soil profile
a. Texture, bulk density, consistency
b. CEC, OM (%) content, BS, BD
c. Color, texture, stoniness, structure
d. Plasticity, structure
134. Describes the darkness or lightness of color
a. Value b. Hue c. Chroma d. Spectra
135. Describes the strength of color
a. Hue b. Value c. Ultra d. Chroma
136. Soil texture can be described effectively in the field through
a. Touch method b. Pinch method c. Hydrometer d. Fell and roll
method
137. Medium silts refer to
a. Fine silty soils b. Coarse silty soils c. Loamy silty soils d. None of
the above
138. Soils particles larger than 2 mm in size
a. Sand b. Rockiness c. Stones d. Gravelly
139. Refers to the abundance of stones
a. Hapiness b. Rockiness c. Stoniness d. Gravelly
140. Stone shape is determines by these propterties
a. Roundness, sphericity b. Abundance c. Angle d. Orientation
141. Soil structure is best observed at this soil horizon
a. Topsoil b. Parent material c. Subsoil d. Bedrock
142. Irregular polyhydra of roughly equal dimensions the surfaces of it which fit
into neighboring peds
a. Blocky structure b . angular structure c. Prismatic structure d. Platy
structure
143. Irregular spheres or polyhydra, which do not fit the faces of neighboring
aggregates
a. Granular b. Blocky c. Columnar d. Platy
144. Refers to the feel of the soil and how it behaves when manipulated
a. Consistency b. Texture c. Wetness d. Plasticity
145. A land evaluation for its ability to grow crops for a particular soil
a. Land capability b. Crop suitability c. Crop productivity d.
Sustainability
146. A system of soil classification used in the Philippines based on the
concept of a precisely defined, selected horizon for classifying soil profiles
a. Soil morphology b. 5th appoximation c. Soil taxonomy d. Soil
survey
147. Soils with no diagnostic horizons
a. Entisols b. Inceptisols c. Alfisols d. Vertisols
148. Soils with mollic epipedon and base saturation percentage (BSP-50%)
a. Oxisols b. Histosol c. Mollisol d. Spodosol
149. Soil with >30% clay to 50 cm, cracks ?1 cm wide at 50 cm have gilgai,
slickenslides and wedge-shaped peds
a. Vertisols b. Mollisols c. Spodosols d. Oxisols
150. Soils with a warm temperature temie and an argillic horizon (or fragipan
with clay skins>1mm thick) and BSP <35%
a. Entisol b. Ultisols c. Mollisols d. Oxisols
151. The most detailed category of soil taxonomy
a. Soil family b. Soil series c. Great group d. Suborder
152. The scale of presentation of provincial soil survey reports
a. Semi-detailed b. Exploratory c. Reconnaissance d. Detailed
153. Land having no significant limitations to sustained application of a given
use, or only minor limitation that will not significantly reduce productivity or
benefits that will not raise inputs above an acceptable level
a. Highly suitable b. Marginally suited c. Moderately suited d. None of
the above
154. Land having limitation swhich , in aggregate are severe for sustained
appli ation of a given use and so reduce productivity or benefits, or increase the
required inputs , that this expenditure will only be marginally justified
a. Highly suitable
b. Marginally suitable
c. Moderately suited
155. A soil consist of three components, namely, soid, liquid and gas
a. The solid is composed of inorganic matter and organic matter
b. The liquid is a solution with dissolved ions in it
c. The gas component is about 80%
e. All of the above
156. A soil consist of three components; namely solid, liquid, and gas
a. The solid is composed of inorganic matter
b. The liquid is a solution with dissolved ions in it
c. The gas is 80% oxygen gas
e. All of the above
157. A soil consist of three components; namely, solid, liquid and gas
a. The solid is composed of inorganic matter and organic matter
b. The liquid is a pure water
c. The gas is 80% oxygen gas
d. None of the above \\
e. All of the above
158. Under its natural occurence a soil is aggregated and porous
a. The aggregates is composed of millions of individual particles
b. Water and air occupy the pores
c. The pores are interconnected channels to other pores
e. All of the above
159. The solid particles of a soil vary in composition, size and shape
a. The soild is composed of inorganic and organic matter
b. The solid is composed of soil separates calld sand , silt, and clay
c. The solid stick or cluster together to form soil aggregate
e. All of the above
160. The inorganic solid particles vary in size which are classified as soil
separates
a. The size range of soil particle is equal to or less than 5 mm
b. Sand is a medium size soil separate
c. Clay is the smallest or fineness soil separate
e. All of the above
161. The relative distribution of soil separates in a soil mass is called soil
texture
a. Sand, silt and clay are soil separates
b. Soil texture changes easily with poor method of cultivation
c. Soil texture is improved by adding organic fertilizer
e. All of the above
162. Soil texture refers to the coarseness or fineness of a soil
a. Sand is gritty
b. Silt is sticky and plastic
c. Clay is smooth
e. All of the above
163. Soil texture refers to the coarseness or fineness of a soil
a. Sand is coarse and gritty
b. Silt is powdery and smooth
c. Clay is sticky and plastic
e. All of the above
164. Many soil properties and characteristics are affected by soil texture
a. Sandy soil is more porous than clay soil
b. Loamy soil are rich in silt
c. Clay soil is chemically more reactive than sandy soil
e. All of the above
165. In relation to crop production sandy soil are known to be
a. Droughty
b. Easy to be cultivated
c. Easy to drain
e. All of the above
166. In relation to crop production clayey soils are known to be
a. Sticky to cultivate
b. Fertile than sand
c. High water holding capacity than sand
e. All of the above
167. Many soil properties and characteristics are affected by soil texture
a. Clayey soils are more porous than sandy soil
b. Silt texture is associated to poor good physical properties
c. Sandy soil is chemically more reactive than clay soil
e. All of the above
168. Soil texture could be determine by
a. Feel method
b. Pipetted method‟
c. hydometer method
e. all of the above
169. soil texture could be determine in the laboratory by
a. ammonium acetate
b. buoyancy method
c. hydrometer method
e. all of the above
170. the upper diameter size limit of clay particles is
a. 2.0 mm b. 0.2 mm c. 0.02 mm d. 0.002 mm e. 0.0002 mm
171. The upper diameter size limit of sand particles is
172. The upper diameter size limit of sand particle is
173. Soil texture class wherein the coarseness of sand, the smoothness feel of
silt and the stickiness fo clay are manifested in almost equal proportion in a soil
mass
a. Sand v. Silt c. Clay d. Loam e. None of the above
174. Soil texture that would be best for growing lowland rice
a. Sandy loam
b. Silty loam
c. Clay loam
d. All of the above
175. Characteristics feel of sand separates when rub in between the finger is
a. Coarse
b. Smooth
c. Sticky when moist
d. All of the above
176. Characteristic feel of silt separates when rub in between the finger is
a. Coarse
b. Smooth
c. Sticky when moist
d. All of the above
177. Many soil properties and characteristics are affected by soil structure
a. Loam is the soil sturcture that most crops prefer
b. Dispersed clay soil processes good soil structure
c. Compacted soil structure allows fast movement of air in the soil
e. All of the above
178. Many soil properties and characteristics are affected by soil structure
a. Crumb is the best structue that most crops prefer
b. Dispersed clay soil possesses poor soil structure
c. Poor water movement in platy soil structure
e. All of the above
179. Among the following is not a soil structure
a. Loam b. Crumb c. Platy d. Sub-angular e. Prismatic
180. Soil densities and porsitites are affected by soil texture soil stucture
a. Porosity increases with increasing bulk density
b. Soil compaction increases bulk densities
c. Soil aggregation increases bulk density
e. All of the above
181. Soil densities and porsitites are affected by soil texture and soil stucture
a. Porosity increases with decreasing bulk density
b. Soil compaction decreases bulk densities
c. Soil aggregation improves porosity
e. All of the above
182. Pore-size distribution affects movement and retention of water and air in
the soil
a. Macro-pores retains water
b. Micro-pores are important in root respiration
c. Micro-pores are more important than macro-pores
e. All of the above
183. Pore-size distribution affects movement and retention of water and air in
the soil\
a. Micro-pores retains water
b. Macro-pores are important in drainage and root respiration
c. Micro-pores and macro-pores are equally important to root growth
e. All of the above
184. A soil with bulk density of 1.3 g cm3 and particle density of 2.60 g/cm3 will
have a porosity of a
a. 5% b. 25% c. 50% d. 75%
185. Bulk density is a good indicator of soil degradation
a. Bulk density does not change with poor soil cultivation particles
b. Increasing bulk density indicates deteriorating soil physical condition
c. Decreasing bulk density indcates deteriorating soil physical condition
e. All of the above
198. lowland rice land is prepared to have a soil consistency of
a. hard b. Friable c. Plastic d. Viscous
199. soil grown to corn is best cultivated when the soil consistency is
a. hard b. Friable c. Plastic d. Viscous
200. smallest volume of soil that can be considered a soil individual/body
a. pedon b. Horizon c. Ped d. Aggregate

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