OUAT UG Common Entrance Exam 2022 Physics Questions

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OUAT U G Common Entrance Examination 2022 9th and 12th

Aug 2022
Participant ID ACK01004960
Participant Name Tushar Nath
Test Center Name Utkal Institute Of Engineering And Technology
Test Date 09/08/2022
Test Time 2:00 PM - 4:00 PM
OUAT U.G Common Entrance Examination
Subject
2022
Physics (Compulsory) 22
Chemistry
25
(Compulsory)
Mathematics
NA
(Optional)
Biology (Optional) 29
Marks Obtained 76
Option highlighted in green color with is the correct answer
Section : Physics (Compulsory)
Q.1 Sheila conducts an experiment to determine the resistance of a given wire by

measuring potential difference (V) across the wire and current (I) flowing through the
wire, using Ohms’ law. If the percentage errors in measurements of V and I are 6% and
2%, respectively, the percentage error in her result for R will be:
Ans A. 4%
B. 3%
C. 12%
D. 8%
Question Type : MCQ

Question ID : 9282982
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Marks : 0
Q.2 The dimensional formula of the quotient of G/g is ______ (G is Universals gravitational
Constant & g is acceleration due to gravity)
Ans A. [M-1 L2 T0]
B. [M0 L1 T-2]
C. [M-1 L3 T-2]
D. [M1 L2 T0]
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A
Marks : 1
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Q.3
Ans A.
B.
C.
D.
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A
Marks : 1
Q.4
Ans A.
B.
C.
D.
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A
Marks : 1
Q.5 In a sonometer experiment, it is observed that the frequency of vibration of stretched

string increases by 3Hz if the tension is increased by 3%. The effect on frequency if
the length is increased by 5% is ______.
Ans A. Frequency decreases by 9.5 Hz
B. Frequency increases by 9.5 Hz
C. Frequency increases by 190.5 Hz
D. Frequency decreases by 190.5 Hz
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A
Marks : 1
Q.6 A ball is thrown vertically upward with a speed of 40 m/s. Its distance, from the point it
was thrown, after 1.0 s is: (Take g = 10 m/s2)
Ans A. 40 m
B. 30 m
C. 45 m
D. 35 m
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C
Marks : 0
Q.7 If the temperature of an ideal gas is reduced from 27 oC to 0 K and in the process if the
average kinetic energy of the gas converts in to photon. Can this photon form the
electron-positron pair?
Ans A. Never be Formed
B. May or may not be formed
C. Date is not sufficient
D. Will Always form
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C
Marks : 0
Q.8 Velocity and kinetic energy of the hailstone of mass 10gm hitting the ground from the
height of 0.5 km are
Ans A. 100 m/s and 100 J
B. 100 m/s and 50 J
C. 50 m/s and 100 J
D. 50 m/s and 50 J
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A
Marks : 0
Q.9
Ans
A.
B.
C.
D.
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Marks : 0
Q.10 Energy is released when less tightly bound nuclei are transmuted into more tightly
bound nuclei. This phenomenon is responsible for releasing energy during:
Ans A. nuclear fusion
B. chemical reaction
C. nuclear fission and nuclear fusion
D. nuclear fission
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : D
Marks : 0
Q.11
Ans
A.
B.
C.
D.
Note: For this question, discrepancy is found in question/answer. Full Marks is being
awarded to all candidates.
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : D
Marks : 1
Q.12 The potential energy between two nucleons is a minimum at a distance r0, of about:
Ans A. 0.8 m
B. 0.8 nm
C. 0.8 fm
D. 0.8 mm
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Marks : 0
Q.13 One atomic mass unit, in Joules and in MeV, respectively, will be equal to:
Ans A. 931.5 J, 1.49 × 10−10 MeV
B. 1.49 J, 93.15 MeV
C. 1.49 J, 931.5 MeV
D. 1.49 × 10−10J, 931.5 MeV
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C
Marks : 0
Q.14 The value of Young’s Modulus is large in (a) ______ solids and very less for (b) ______
solids.
Ans A. (a) ionic (b) covalent Solids
B. (a) ionic and covalent (b) molecular
C. (a) molecular (b) ionic and covalent
D. (a) molecular (b) only ionic
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C
Marks : 0
Q.15 If there is no current inside or on the surface of the conductor, the electric field inside
the conductor value is:
Ans A. maximum
B. infinity
C. one
D. zero
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : D
Marks : 1
Q.16 If a pendulum ticks correct time at a place on the surface of the earth. The difference in
the times gained or lost per day when it is taken to a depth of 2 km and height of 2 km
is ______.
Ans A. 13.5 sec loss
B. 7 sec loss
C. 7 sec gain
D. 13.5 sec gain
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Marks : 0
Q.17 The magnetic force acting on a point charge q (moving with a velocity v and, located at
r at a given time t) in presence of magnetic field B(r) will be zero if:
(a) q = 0
(b) v is parallel to B(r)
(c) v is anti-parallel to B(r)
(d) v is perpendicular to B(r)
Which of the given option(s) is/are correct?

Ans A. Only a and b
B. Only a
C. Only a, c and d
D. Only a, b and c
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Marks : 0
Q.18 The Gravitational field intensity and gravitational potential due to a solid sphere (Mass
M and Radius R), outside, on the surface and at the center of the sphere are
respectively ______. (r is the distance of the point taken)
Ans A. Eout = GM/2r2,
Eon = GM/2R2,
Ecenter = GMr/2R3
Vg out = -GM/2r,
Vg on = -GM/2R,
Vg center = -3GM/2R
B. Eout = GM/r2,
Eon = GM/R2,
Ecenter = GMr/R3
Vg out = -GM/r,
Vg on = -GM/R,
Vg center = -3GM/2R
C. Eout = 2GM/r2,
Eon = 2GM/R2,
Ecenter = 2GMr/R3
Vg out = -2GM/r,
Vg on = -2GM/R,
Vg center = -2GM/R
D. Eout = GM/r2,
Eon = GM/R2,
Ecenter = GMr/R3
Vg out = -GM/r,
Vg on = -GM/R,
Vg center = -GM/R
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Marks : 1
Q.19 If a giant wheel takes 2 minutes to complete one rotation, then its angular velocity is:
Ans A. 3.142 rad/s
B. 0.052 rad/s
C. 20 rad/s
D. 5.2 rad/s
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : D
Marks : 0
Q.20 In an experiment using a concave mirror, the image of a real object obtained at 20 cm
in front of the mirror has height of 10 cm. Which of the following is represented
correctly?
Ans A. v = +20 cm, hi = −10 cm
B. v = +20 cm, hi = +10 cm
C. v = −20 cm, hi = −10 cm
D. v = −20 cm, hi = +10 cm
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A
Marks : 0
Q.21 A plane electromagnetic wave of frequency 45 MHz travels in free space along the x-
direction. At a particular point in space and time, E = 4.5 ˆj V/m. What is magnitude of B
at this point?
Ans A. 1.5 × 10-8 T
B. 2.5 × 10-8 T
C. 10 × 10-8 T
D. 4.5 × 10-8 T
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C
Marks : 0
Q.22
Ans A.
B.
C.
D.
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A
Marks : 0
Q.23 A lead spherical shot of mass 50 gm is dropped into 50 grams of water at temperature
of 30oC, from a height of 10km. Assuming free fall and total energy of the spherical
shot transferred to water and no heat is absorbed by the beaker of the water, the final
temperature of the water in the beaker is ______.
Ans A. 53K
B. 24oC
C. 53oC
D. 266 K
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C
Marks : 0
Q.24 If the angular velocity of a giant wheel is increased from 15 rad/s to 25 rad/s in 1
minute, then the angular acceleration of the wheel is:
Ans A. 10 rad/s2
B. 6 rad/s2
C. 1.66 rad/s2
D. 0.166 rad/s2
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C
Marks : 0
Q.25 Which of the following is NOT a compound semiconductor?

Ans A. CdS
B. Anthracene
C. polypyrrole
D. Silicon
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : D
Marks : 1
Q.26 In a Carnot’s heat engine, the temperature of source is at 327 oC and sink is at 127 oC.
To increase the efficiency of the heat engine by 20%, the temperature of the sink
should be changed by ______.
Ans A. -80 oC
B. 80 oC
C. 87 oC
D. -40 oC
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C
Marks : 0
Q.27 Number of degrees of freedom for 2 moles of diatomic gas at room temperature is
______.
Ans A. 6.022 × 1024
B. 6.022 × 1023
C. 12.044 × 1024
D. 3.011 × 1023
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Marked For Review
Chosen Option : C
Marks : 0
Q.28 The image distance for a convex mirror:

Ans A. is always negative
B. is always zero
C. is always positive
D. can be positive or negative
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A
Marks : 0
Q.29 The strength of a magnetic field due to a solenoid can be increased by:
(A) increasing the number of turns in the solenoid

(B) increasing the current in the solenoid
(C) winding the solenoid around a non-magnetic material
Which of the given option(s) is/are correct?

Ans A. Only C
B. Only B and C
C. Only A and B
D. Only C and A
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C
Marks : 1
Q.30
Ans A. P-a, Q-b, R-c, S-d
B. P-d, Q-c, R-d, S-a
C. P-b, Q-d, R-a, S-c
D. P-c, Q-d, R-a, S-b
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A
Marks : 0
Q.31 According to Boltzmann, the statical formula for the entropy (S) of a system in terms
of number of ways (W) in which the system can be arranged identically, will be ______.
Ans A. S = 2.3026 kb log10W
B. S = 10 kb log10W
C. S = 10 kb logeW
D. S = 2.3026 kb logeW
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A
Marks : 1
Q.32 If the magnification produced by a convex mirror is 1/4, then distance of the object
from mirror is:(f is the focal length of the mirror)
Ans A. −3f
B. −2f
C. 2f
D. 3f
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C
Marks : 0
Q.33
Ans A.
B.
C.
D.
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : D
Marks : 0
Q.34
B. P-b, Q-a, R-c, S-d
C. P-a, Q-b, R-d, S-c
D. P-b, Q-a, R-d, S-c
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C
Marks : 1
Q.35 Which of the following quantities have the same dimensional formulae?
(i) Pressure
(ii) Torque
(iii) Work
(iv) Stress
(v) Modulus of Elasticity
Ans A. Only (i), (ii), (iv)
B. Only (ii), (iii), (v)
C. Only (i), (iv), (v)
D. (i), (ii), (iii), (iv), (v)
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C
Marks : 1
Q.36 What is the minimum frequency of electromagnetic radiation required to dissociate a

CO molecule into carbon and oxygen atoms, if the energy required for it is 11 eV.
Ans A. 3.65 × 1015 Hz
B. 2.65 × 1014 Hz
C. 2.65 × 1015 Hz
D. 1.65 × 1015 Hz
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C
Marks : 1
Q.37 Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of fuse wire?

Ans A. High resistivity
B. Low melting point
C. High resistance
D. Low resistivity
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Marks : 0
Q.38 The magnitude of magnetic field on the earth’s surface is of the order of:
Ans A. 10-5 T
B. 10-2 T
C. 108 T
D. 10-10 T
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : D
Marks : 0
Q.39 Four metallic wires of equal length and area of cross-section are used to lift an
elevator cabin. Each wire has a breaking stress of 1.4 × 108 N/m2. If the maximum
mass of the elevator is 1000 kg (along with passengers), the minimum diameter of
each wire, to lift the elevator with an acceleration of 1.2 m/sec2 is:
Ans A. 5 × 10-3 m
B. 2.5 × 10-3 m
C. 2.5 × 10-4 m
D. 5 × 10-4 m
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Marks : 0
Q.40 Power is:

Ans A. work done in unit time
B. a product of force and displacement
C. the product of mass and acceleration
D. the capacity to do work
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A
Marks : 1
Q.41 Pick the correct option that describes the correct features of SHM:
(a) Restoring force is always directed towards the mean position

(b) Velocity and Kinetic energy are maximum at mean position
(c) Amplitude & Total energy are maximum at extreme position
Ans A. (d), (a)
B. (b), (c)
C. (c), (d)
D. (a), (b)
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : D
Marks : 1
Q.42 If you are looking straight at a giant wheel rotating in clockwise direction, then the
direction of its angular momentum is:
Ans A. pointing downward
B. pointing upward
C. pointing in the direction you are seeing
D. pointing towards you
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : D
Marks : 0
Q.43 The number of significant figures in the following:
6.80 m and 0.0830 kg are, respectively, ______.

Ans A. 2, 3
B. 3, 3
C. 2, 2
D. 3, 4
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : D
Marks : 0
Q.44 The resistivity of a potentiometer wire is 3 × 10–7 Ω – m and the cross-sectional area is
5.4 × 10–6 m2. Find out the potential gradient in the wire if current in primary circuit is
0.45 A.
Ans A. 25 mV/metre
B. 3.2 mV/metre
C. 4.5 mV/metre
D. 0.25 mV/metre
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C
Marks : 0
Q.45
Ans A. 1.05 bar
B. 1.013 bar
C. 1 bar
D. 0.52 Bar
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C
Marks : 0
Q.46 A point mass of 5 kg is positioned at 106mt above the earth’s surface. The velocity that
has to be imparted on this so that it escapes the earth’s gravitational field will be
nearly ______. (Mass of earth 6 × 1024 kg, Radius of earth 6400 km)
Ans A. 104 m/sec
B. 7 × 104 m/sec
C. 10.81 m/sec
D. 108 m/sec
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Marks : 0
Q.47 The angular momentum of any rotating body is a measure of:

Ans A. velocity times angular displacement
B. the moment of inertia times angular velocity
C. inertia times linear momentum
D. the moment of inertia times velocity
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A
Marks : 0
Q.48 Ohm’s law is NOT valid in which of the following cases?

Ans A. When resistance of the given component is constant
B. When voltage is directly proportional to current
C. When temperature remains constant
D. When voltage changes with current inversely
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Marks : 0
Q.49 If the velocity of a hypothetical planet assumed to be orbiting around the sun in an
elliptical orbit at a distance of 5 × 107 km is 5 km/sec, then its speed velocity at a
distance of 2 × 107 km is ____.
Ans A. 2.5 km/sec
B. 75 km/sec
C. 25 km/sec
D. 7.5 km/sec
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A
Marks : 1
Q.50
B. P-a, Q-b, R-d, S-c
C. P-b, Q-a, R-d, S-c
D. P-b, Q-a, R-c, S-d
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C
Marks : 0
Q.51
Ans A.
B.
C.
D.
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A
Marks : 0
Q.52
Ans A.
B.
C.
D.
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Marks : 1
Q.53 When a small amount of arsenic is added to germanium crystal, then:
A. it becomes n-type semiconductor

B. it becomes p-type semiconductor
C. its resistance increases
D. there are higher free electrons than number of holes
Which of the above observations are correct?

Ans A. B and C
B. A and C
C. B and D
D. A and D
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : D
Marks : 1
Q.54
Ans
A.
B.
C.
D.
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : D
Marks : 1
Q.55 Identify the correct statements regarding Carnot’s Heat Engine.
(a) Efficiency is independent of the nature of the working substance.

(b) It is an ideal heat Engine.
(c) It is a perfect heat engine.
(d) It completely converts all the heat input to work.
(e) Efficiency of any other heat engine cannot be greater than that of Carnot’s heat
engine, if both are working between the same temperatures of source and sink.
Ans A. Only (a), (c), (d), (e)
B. Only (b), (c), (d), (e)
C. (a), (b), (c), (d), (e)
D. Only (a), (b), (e)
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C
Marks : 0
Q.56 What is the improvement in the Second Law of Thermodynamics over the First Law of
Thermodynamics?
Ans A. According to the Second Law of Thermodynamics, heat can flow only from cold body
to hot body and not from hot body to cold body. This cannot be concluded from the First Law
of Thermodynamics.
B. According to the Second Law of Thermodynamics, Perfect Heat Engines and
Refrigerators are impossible. This cannot be concluded from the First Law of
Thermodynamics.
C. According to the Second Law of Thermodynamics, heat can flow from hot body to
cold body or from cold body to hot body in equal probabilities. This cannot be concluded from
the First Law of Thermodynamics.
D. According to the Second Law of Thermodynamics, heat can flow from hot body to
cold body naturally, but requires help of an external agent to drive it from the cold body to hot
body. This cannot be concluded from the First Law of Thermodynamics.
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : D
Marks : 1
Q.57 The work done by a person when he lifts 5 kg load from the surface of the earth to a
height of 1.2 m is: (Assume g = 10 m/s2)
Ans A. 0 J
B. 12 J
C. 50 J
D. 60 J
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C
Marks : 0
Q.58 The value of generated emf in a wire moving in a magnetic field can be written as emf
= vBL, in the case when angle between velocity of wire and magnetic field is:
Ans A. 45o
B. 0o
C. 90o
D. 30o
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C
Marks : 1
Q.59 Which of the following statement(s) is/are FALSE regarding electromagnetic waves?
I. They transport energy.

II. They do not have any momentum.
III. The speed of these waves depends upon frequency as they travel in the air.
Ans A. Only I and II
B. Only II
C. Only II and III
D. Only I
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A
Marks : 0
Q.60 The AC generator, an equipment that converts the mechanical energy into electrical
energy, works on:
Ans A. Faraday’s law
B. Gauss’s law
C. Henry’s law
D. Kirchhoff’s law
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : D
Marks : 0
Q.61 Electric field lines do not provide information about:

Ans A. the strength of field
B. the nature of charge
C. the direction of field
D. electric flux
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Marks : 0
Q.62 The generation of eddy currents happen as per:

Ans A. Coulomb’s law
B. Faraday’s law
C. Right hand thumb rule
D. Fleming’s rule
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Marks : 1
Q.63 An inductor having self-inductance of 4 mH current changes with time as per relation i
= t2e –t. At what time emf is zero?
Ans A. 7 s
B. 2 s
C. 6 s
D. 5 s
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A
Marks : 0
Q.64
Ans A. P-b, Q-c, R-d, S-a
B. P-d, Q-a, R-b, S-c
C. P-a, Q-b, R-c, S-d
D. P-c, Q-b, R-d, S-a
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Marks : 0
Q.65 Work done by the gravitational force when 100 gm load is displaced by 100 m parallel
to the plane surface of the earth is: (Assume g = 10 m/s2)
Ans A. 10 J
B. 0 J
C. 1 J
D. 100 J
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C
Marks : 0
Q.66 Two blocks, A of 3.0 kg and B of 5.0 kg, connected by a massless string lie on a
smooth horizontal surface. The block B is pulled by a horizontal force of 10 N. The
magnitude of the acceleration of the system is
Ans A. 2.0 m/s2
B. 1.25 m/s2
C. 4.5 m/s2
D. 2.25 m/s2
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A
Marks : 0
Section : Chemistry (Compulsory)
Q.1 Which of the following is correct Arrehinus equation?

Ans A. K = Ae−ER/R
B. K = Ae−TE/R
C. K = Ae−E/RT
D. K = AeE/RT
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C
Marks : 1
Q.2 Which of the following factors does NOT affect the ionisation enthalpy?
Ans A. Size of the atom
B. Screening effect
C. Electronegativity
D. Shape of orbitals
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A
Marks : 0
Q.3
Ans A. a-i b-ii c-iii d-iv
B. a-iii b-iv c-i d-ii
C. a-iii b-ii c-iv d-i
D. a-ii b-i c-iv d-iii
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Marks : 0
Q.4 If Ef and Eb are the energy of activation of forward and backward reactions
respectively. Then for exothermic reaction ______
Ans A. Ef < Eb
B. Ef > Eb
C. No correlation
D. Ef = Eb
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C
Marks : 0
Q.5 Which of the following statements is NOT correct with respect to redox reactions?
Ans A. Cr2O72- oxidises the indicator substance diphenyl amine just after the equivalence
point to produce an intense blue colour.
B. Cr2O72- acts as self-indicator.
C. Iodine itself gives an intense blue colour with starch.
D. MnO4- acts as self-indicator.
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : D
Marks : 0
Q.6 In which of the following alcohol, -OH group is attached to an sp2 hybridised carbon
atom?
Ans A. CH2 = CH − CH (CH3) − OH
B. CH2 = CH − OH
C. CH2 = CH − CH2 − OH
D. CH2 = CH − C(CH3)2 − OH
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Marks : 1
Q.7 Which of the following complexes will absorb the highest wavelength of the visible
spectrum of light?
Ans A. [Co(en)3]Cl3
B. [Co(NH3)6]Cl3
C. K3[Co(CN)6]
D. [Cu(H2O)4]Cl2
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A
Marks : 0
Q.8 In the case of acidity, the production of acid increases in the stomach. The acid is:
Ans A. acetic acid
B. hydrochloric acid
C. propanoic acid
D. citric acid
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Marks : 1
Q.9
Ans A. a-i b-ii c-iii d-iv
B. a-ii b-i c-iv d-iii
C. a-ii b-iii c-i d-iv
D. a-iii b-iv c-ii d-i
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A
Marks : 0
Q.10 What are the primary and secondary valence, respectively, of the central metal in the
coordination entity given below?
[CoCl2(en)2]+
Ans A. +3 and 4
B. 6 and +3
C. +2 and 4
D. +3 and 6
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C
Marks : 0
Q.11
Ans A. a-iii b-ii c-iv d-i
B. a-i b-ii c-iii d-iv
C. a-iii b-iv c-i d-ii
D. a-ii b-i c-iv d-iii
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Marks : 1
Q.12 What is the coordination polyhedron around the central atom in the following
coordination entity?
[Fe(CN)6]4−
Ans A. Square pyramidal
B. Square planar
C. Trigonal bipyramidal
D. Octahedral
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C
Marks : 0
Q.13 Which of the following is NOT an example of the Tyndall effect?

Ans A. Absorption of light
B. Blue colour of sky
C. Visibility of the tails of comets
D. Twinkling of stars
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : D
Marks : 0
Q.14 Which of the following is the correct order of covalent character of the given
compounds?
Ans A. MnO < MnO2 < Mn2O3 < Mn2O7
B. MnO < Mn2O3 < MnO2 < Mn2O7
C. MnO2 < Mn2O3 < MnO < Mn2O7
D. Mn2O7 < MnO2 < Mn2O3 < MnO
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Marks : 1
Q.15 Which of the following is a synthetic radioactive element?

Ans A. Francium
B. Bismuth
C. Arsenic
D. Moscovium
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A
Marks : 0
Q.16 FeS shows ______

Ans A. Metal deficiency defect
B. Frenkel defect
C. Metal excess defect
D. Schottky defect
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A
Marks : 1
Q.17 Which of the following are Lewis bases?
(i) BF3
(ii) NH3
(iii) F−
(iv) AlCl3
Ans A. (i), (iii) and (iv)
B. Only (iii)
C. (ii) and (iii)
D. (i), (ii) and (iii)
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : D
Marks : 0
Q.18 Which of the following is a closed system in thermodynamics?

Ans A. A system which can exchange energy but not matter with surroundings
B. A system which can neither exchange matter nor energy with surroundings
C. A system which can exchange both matter and energy with surroundings
D. A system which can exchange matter but not energy with surroundings
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : D
Marks : 0
Q.19 What are the solute and solvent used in the amalgam of mercury with sodium,
respectively?
Ans A. Solid and solid
B. Liquid and solid
C. Liquid and liquid
D. Gas and solid
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Marks : 1
Q.20 In which of the following tests are used for detecting the presence of double bond.2?
A) Baeyer’s test
B) Bromine water test
C) Ozonolysis
Ans A. Baeyer’s test and Bromine water test
B. Baeyer’s test and Ozonolysis
C. Baeyer’s test, Bromine water test and Ozonolysis
D. Bromine water test and Ozonolysis
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A
Marks : 1
Q.21 What are the oxidation states of phosphorus and chlorine in P4O10 and HClO4
molecules, respectively?
Ans A. +3 and +6
B. +3 and +7
C. +5 and +7
D. +5 and +6
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C
Marks : 1
Q.22 Which of the following oxyacid has the highest oxidising power?
Ans A. HClO4
B. HClO
C. HClO2
D. HClO3
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Marks : 0
Q.23 Acetaldehyde reacts with hydrogen cyanide in the presence of base to produce
compound A, which on hydrolysis gives compound B. Compound A and B,
respectively, are:
Ans A. CH3CH2CN, CH3CH2COOH
B. CH3CH(OH)CN, CH3CH(OH)COOH
C. HOCH2CN, HOCH2COOH
D. (CH3)2C(OH)CN, (CH3)2C(OH)COOH
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Marks : 1
Q.24 Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of physical equilibrium?

Ans A. Both the opposing processes stop occurring when equilibrium is attained.
B. Attainment of equilibrium is characterised by constancy of any one parameter.
C. Equilibrium is attained only in a closed system at a given temperature.
D. The magnitude of such a parameter at any point indicates the extent of the process
occurred before equilibrium.
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : D
Marks : 0
Q.25 Which of the following prefixes is used for number of 20 carbon atoms?
Ans A. Undec
B. Dodec
C. Eicosa
D. Triacont
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A
Marks : 0
Q.26 Which of the following statements is NOT correct with respect to solubility?
Ans A. A solution in which no more solute can be dissolved at the same temperature and
pressure is called an unsaturated solution.
B. Naphthalene and anthracene dissolve readily in benzene.
C. Sodium chloride doesn’t dissolve in benzene.
D. In crystallisation, some solute particles in solution collide with the solid solute
particles and get separated out of solution.
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A
Marks : 1
Q.27 Which of the element show +6 oxidation state in their compound with fluorine?
Ans A. Calcium
B. Oxygen
C. Polonium
D. Sulphur
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C
Marks : 0
Q.28 Which of the following statements is INCORRECT about the covalent bond?
Ans A. It is nonpolar.
B. It is formed by sharing of electrons between two atoms, when the electrons are
equally contributed by both the atoms.
C. It is a strong bond, since the paired electron cannot be separated easily.
D. It is non directional in nature.
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C
Marks : 0
Q.29 The simplest aromatic aldehyde is:

Ans A. formaldehyde
B. benzene carbaldehyde
C. cyclohexane carbaldehyde
D. cyclopropane carbaldehyde
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A
Marks : 0
Q.30 The formula for determination of the theoretical density of a crystal is ______.
Ans
A.
B.
C.
D.
Note: For this question, ambiguity is found in question/answer. Candidate will get full
marks for this question if any of these options are chosen - 2,4
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Marks : 1
Q.31 Which of the following is NOT a secondary amine?

Ans A. C6H5CH2NH2
B. CH3NHCH2CH3
C. (C6H5)2NH
D. (CH3)2NH
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : D
Marks : 0
Q.32 Which of the following substances has the lowest melting point?
Ans A. Chloromethane
B. Trichloromethane
C. Tetrachloromethane
D. Dichloromethane
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A
Marks : 1
Q.33 Compound A on hydroboration-oxidation reaction with diborane, H2O2 in presence of

NaOH gives Butan-1-ol. Identify A
Ans A. CH3CH = CHCH2
B. CH3CH2CH = CH2
C. CH3CH = CHCHO
D. CH3CH2 CH2CHO
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Marks : 1
Q.34 Which of the following equations represents Charle’s law?

Ans A. Vt = Vo(1 + t/273)
B. Vt = Vo(1+273/t)
C. Vt = KV0 t
D. Vt = KV0/t
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A
Marks : 1
Q.35 Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of chemical adsorption?

Ans A. It is reversible.
B. It forms unimolecular layers on the adsorbent surface.
C. The heat of adsorption is high.
D. A decrease in pressure does not cause desorption.
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A
Marks : 1
Q.36 Which of the following statements is INCORRECT for p-block elements of group 15?
Ans A. Dinitrogen is a diatomic gas.
B. Metallic character decreases down the group.
C. Except nitrogen, all the elements show allotropy.
D. Bismuth is a metal.
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C
Marks : 0
Q.37
Ans A.
B.
C.
D.
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : D
Marks : 0
Q.38 Which of the following CANNOT be prepared by hydration of alkynes in the presence
of H2SO4 and HgSO4?
Ans A. Formaldehyde
B. Formaldehyde and Acetone
C. Acetaldehyde
D. Acetone
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C
Marks : 0
Q.39 Which of the following is the correct order of sweetness value?

Ans A. Saccharin > Aspartame > Alitame > Sucralose
B. Aspartame > Saccharin > Alitame > Sucralose
C. Alitame > Sucralose > Saccharin > Aspartame
D. Sucralose > Alitame > Aspartame > Saccharin
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A
Marks : 0
Q.40 Select the correct decreasing order of covalent character.

Ans A. CaBr2 > CaI2 > CaCl2 > CaF2
B. CaF2 > CaCl2 > CaBr2 > CaI2
C. CaCl2 > CaBr2 > CaI2 > CaF2
D. CaI2 > CaBr2 > CaCl2 > CaF2
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Marks : 0
Q.41 Which of the following is a correctly matched pair?

Ans A. Saturated hydrocarbons - Alkynes and alkanes
B. Saturated hydrocarbons - Alkanes and alkenes
C. Unsaturated hydrocarbons - Alkenes and alkynes
D. Aromatic hydrocarbons - Arenes and Alkynes
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Marks : 0
Q.42 Which of the following electrodes is assigned an electrode potential of 0 V at 298 K?

Ans A. Standard platinum electrode
B. Standard zinc electrode
C. Standard hydrogen electrode
D. Standard oxygen electrode
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Marks : 0
Q.43 Which of the following reducing agents are correctly matched with the products they
form, for the reduction of nitro benzene?
(i) Sn + HCl - C6H5NHOH

(ii) H2 / Pd - C6H5NH2
(iii) LiAlH4 - C6H5 − N = N − C6H5
Ans A. (i) and (ii)
B. only (ii)
C. (i), (ii) and (iii)
D. (ii) and (iii)
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Marks : 0
Q.44 Which of the following statements is INCORRECT for halogens?

Ans A. Halogens are highly reactive non-metallic elements.
B. Flourine and Chorine are gases.
C. Halogens are less reactive non-metallic elements.
D. Tennessine is a synthetic radioactive elements.
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A
Marks : 0
Q.45 Which of the following is the correct sequence of steps in the mechanism of acid
catalysed hydration of alkenes to form alcohols?
A. Deprotonation
B. Formation of carbocation
C. Attack of nucleophilic
Ans A. B, C, A
B. B, A, C
C. C, B, A
D. A, B, C
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C
Marks : 0
Q.46 An electrochemical cell is represented as follows:
Cu(s) / Cu2+(aq) // Ag+(aq) / Ag(s)
Which of the following statements is correct for this cell?

Ans A. Current flows from copper to silver electrode.
B. Electrons flow from silver to copper electrode.
C. Current flows from silver to copper electrode.
D. Both electrons and current flow from copper to silver electrode.
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Marks : 0
Q.47 Why do actinides show a greater range of oxidation states than lanthanides?
Ans A. Because 5f, 6d and 7s subshells are of comparable energies
B. Because (n−2)f subshell in lanthanoids does not have any electrons
C. Because number of electrons in the outermost shell is greater in actinides
D. Because total number of electrons in the (n−1)d and ns subshells is greater in

actinoids
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Marks : 0
Q.48 What are the structures of IF5 and BrF3 molecules, respectively?
Ans A. Square pyramidal and Trigonal bipyramidal
B. Square pyramidal and bent T-shape
C. Pentagonal bipyramidal and bent T-shape
D. Pentagonal bipyramidal and Trigonal planar
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Marks : 1
Q.49 Which coloured Co(BO2)2 bead is formed when borax is heated in a Bunsen burner
flame with CoO with a loop of platinum wire?
Ans A. Violet
B. Green
C. Yellow
D. Blue
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Marks : 0
Q.50 which of the following molecule is sp3 hybridized ______

Ans A. [Ni(CN)4]2-
B. CCl4
C. BF3
D. PCl5
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Marks : 1
Q.51 Select the incorrect statement:
A) Helium gas is used in gas-cooled nuclear reactors.

B) Neon is used in discharge tubes.
C) Helium is used to provide an inert atmosphere in high temperature metallurgical
processes.
D) Argon is used in the laboratory for handling substances that are air-sensitive.
Ans A. B
B. C
C. A
D. D
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A
Marks : 0
Q.52 Select the correct decreasing order of ionisation potential.

Ans A. N > C > O > B
B. O > N > C > B
C. O > C > N > B
D. N > O > C > B
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C
Marks : 0
Q.53 The major product formed when phenol reacts with bromine in presence of CS2
Ans A. 2-Bromophenol
B. 2,4,5-Tribromophenol
C. 4-Bromophenol
D. 3-Bromophenol
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Marks : 0
Q.54 The atomic number of an element is equal to the ______.

Ans A. number of protons
B. sum of the number of electrons and protons
C. number of electrons
D. number of neutrons
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A
Marks : 1
Q.55 Zn, Cd and Hg are d-block elements. Why are they NOT considered transition
elements?
Ans A. Because they have the smallest atomic radii in their respective period
B. Because they have high enthalpy of atomisation
C. Because they are highly metallic in nature
D. Because they do not have unpaired electrons in their ground state as well as in their
common oxidation states
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : D
Marks : 1
Q.56 Which of the following compounds is used in the preparation of neoprene by free
radical polymerisation?
Ans A. 1-chlorobuta-1,3-diene
B. 2-chlorobuta-1,3-diene
C. 2-chlorobut-2-ene
D. 1-chlorobut-2-ene
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Marks : 1
Q.57 Select the correct order of decreasing basicity.

Ans A. NH3 > PH3 > SbH3 > AsH3
B. NH3 > PH3 > AsH3 > SbH3
C. SbH3 > AsH3 > PH3 > NH3
D. PH3 > NH3 > AsH3 > SbH3
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Marks : 1
Q.58 ‘Equal volume of all gases under the same condition of temperature and pressure
contain equal number of molecules.’ This law is known as ______.
Ans A. Charle’s law
B. Dalton’s law
C. Avogadro’s law
D. Boyel’s law
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A
Marks : 0
Q.59 Which of the following product is NOT formed during the reaction of alkenes with hot
conc. KMnO4?
Ans A. Carboxylic acids
B. Carbon dioxides
C. Glycols
D. Ketones
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C
Marks : 1
Q.60 At constant volume, the pressure of a given amount of gas is directly proportional to
______.
Ans
A.
B.
C.
D.
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Marks : 1
Q.61 In his experiment Rutherford used ______.

Ans A. X rays
B. α-particles
C. UV rays
D. γ-rays
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A
Marks : 0
Q.62 In which of the following acids, is deprotonation easier?

Ans A. Acetic acid
B. Trichloroacetic acid
C. Dichloroacetic acid
D. Monochloroacetic acid
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : D
Marks : 0
Q.63 Which of the following is the characteristic of crystalline solids?

Ans A. They melt over a wide range of temperatures.
B. They are anisotropic.
C. They are rigid and incompressible.
D. There is no orderly arrangement of particles.
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C
Marks : 1
Q.64 The example of antihistamine drug is ______.

Ans A. aluminium phosphate
B. magnesium hydroxide
C. chlorpheniramine
D. omeprazole
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : D
Marks : 0
Q.65 Which of the following statements is INCORRECT for carbon-tetrachloride?

Ans A. Produced for aerosol propellants
B. In dry cleaning
C. As fire extinguisher, under the name ‘pyrene’
D. As a solvent for oils, fats, resins
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : D
Marks : 0
Q.66 If the temperature of chemical reaction is increased by 10oC, the rate of the reaction
will be increased by ______
Ans A. 3 times
B. Remains unchanged
C. 2 times
D. 4 times
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A
Marks : 0
Section : Mathematics (Optional)
Q.1
Ans A.
B.
C.
D.
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --
Marks : 0
Q.2
Ans A. 9
B. 2
C. −4
D. 4
Question Type : MCQ

Chosen Option : --
Marks : 0
Q.3 Three members are chosen at random from team of 11 men and 3 women. The
probability that three members chosen one after another to be women and last one is
men.
Ans
A.
B.
C.
D.
Question Type : MCQ

Chosen Option : --
Marks : 0
Q.4
Ans A. order one and degree one
B. order two and degree three
C. order six and degree three
D. order one and degree three
Question Type : MCQ

Chosen Option : --
Marks : 0
Q.5
Ans A. A–iv, B–iii, C–i, D–ii
B. A–iii, B–iv, C–i, D–ii
C. A–ii, B–i, C–iv, D–iii
D. A–ii, B–iv, C–iii, D–i
Question Type : MCQ

Chosen Option : --
Marks : 0
Q.6
Ans
A.
B.
C.
D.
Question Type : MCQ

Chosen Option : --
Marks : 0
Q.7
Ans A.
B.
C.
D.
Question Type : MCQ

Chosen Option : --
Marks : 0
Q.8 In a class of 120 students, if 50 students play cricket, 40 students play tennis and 20
students play both the games, then the number of students who play NEITHER is:
Ans A. 0
B. 90
C. 70
D. 50
Question Type : MCQ

Chosen Option : --
Marks : 0
Q.9
Ans
A.
B.
C.
D.
Question Type : MCQ

Chosen Option : --
Marks : 0
Q.10 If 2x, 5 and 6 − x are the first three terms in an AP then the common difference is:
Ans A. 1
B. 4
C. −3
D. 3
Question Type : MCQ

Chosen Option : --
Marks : 0
Q.11 The probability of getting a number less than 1 in a single throw of a fair die:
Ans A. 2
B. 1
C. 3
D. 0
Question Type : MCQ

Chosen Option : --
Marks : 0
Q.12
Ans A.
B.
C.
D.
Question Type : MCQ

Chosen Option : --
Marks : 0
Q.13
Ans A. 1
B. 3
C. 4
D. 2
Question Type : MCQ

Chosen Option : --
Marks : 0
Q.14 The harmonic mean of a, b, c is:

Ans A.
B.
C.
D.
Question Type : MCQ

Chosen Option : --
Marks : 0
Q.15
Ans A. A–i, B–ii, C–iii, D–iv
C. A–i, B–iv, C–iii, D–ii
D. A–ii, B–i, C–iii, D–iv
Question Type : MCQ

Chosen Option : --
Marks : 0
Q.16
Ans A.
B.
C.
D.
Question Type : MCQ

Chosen Option : --
Marks : 0
Q.17 In a 128-sided polygon, the total diagonals are:

Ans A. 1226
B. 6000
C. 8000
D. 1512
Question Type : MCQ

Chosen Option : --
Marks : 0
Q.18
Ans A.
B.
C.
D.
Question Type : MCQ

Chosen Option : --
Marks : 0
Q.19
Ans
A.
B.
C.
D.
Question Type : MCQ

Chosen Option : --
Marks : 0
Q.20
Ans A.
B.
C.
D.
Question Type : MCQ

Chosen Option : --
Marks : 0
Q.21
Ans A.
B.
C.
D.
Question Type : MCQ

Chosen Option : --
Marks : 0
Q.22
Ans A. A–i, B–ii, C–iii, D–iv
C. A–ii, B–i, C–iv, D–iii
Question Type : MCQ

Chosen Option : --
Marks : 0
Q.23
Ans A.
B.
C.
D.
Question Type : MCQ

Chosen Option : --
Marks : 0
Q.24
Ans
A.
B.
C.
D.
Question Type : MCQ

Chosen Option : --
Marks : 0
Q.25
Ans A. 34
B. 17
C. 16
D. 68
Question Type : MCQ

Chosen Option : --
Marks : 0
Q.26
Ans A. 50
B. 42
C. 52
D. 64
Question Type : MCQ

Chosen Option : --
Marks : 0
Q.27
Ans
A.
B.
C.
D.
Question Type : MCQ

Chosen Option : --
Marks : 0
Q.28
Ans A.
B.
C.
D.
Question Type : MCQ

Chosen Option : --
Marks : 0
Q.29
Ans A. -1
B. 0
C. 1
D. 2
Question Type : MCQ

Chosen Option : --
Marks : 0
Q.30
Ans A. 2
B. 1
C. −1
D. −3
Question Type : MCQ

Chosen Option : --
Marks : 0
Q.31
Ans
A.
B.
C.
D.
Question Type : MCQ

Chosen Option : --
Marks : 0
Q.32
Ans A. 33
B. 39
C. 29
D. 10
Question Type : MCQ

Chosen Option : --
Marks : 0
Q.33
Ans A. −1
B. 2
C. 0
D. 1
Question Type : MCQ

Chosen Option : --
Marks : 0
Q.34
Ans A. 1
B. −1
C. 2
D. 0
Question Type : MCQ

Chosen Option : --
Marks : 0
Q.35 In a certain town 20% have brown hair, 10% have brown eyes and 5% have both brown
hair and brown eyes. A person is selected at random from the town. If he has brown
hair what is the probability that he has brown eyes also?
Ans
A.
B.
C.
D.
Question Type : MCQ

Chosen Option : --
Marks : 0
Q.36
Ans A. (-1,0) and -6
B. (1,2) and -6
C. (4,0) and 5
D. (1,0) and 6
Question Type : MCQ

Chosen Option : --
Marks : 0
Q.37 The range of Signum function is:

Ans A.
B.
C.
D.
Question Type : MCQ

Chosen Option : --
Marks : 0
Q.38
Ans A.
B.
C.
D.
Question Type : MCQ

Chosen Option : --
Marks : 0
Q.39
Ans A.
B.
C.
D.
Question Type : MCQ

Chosen Option : --
Marks : 0
Q.40
Ans
A.
B.
C.
D.
Question Type : MCQ

Chosen Option : --
Marks : 0
Q.41
Ans
A.
B.
C.
D.
Question Type : MCQ

Chosen Option : --
Marks : 0
Q.42
Ans A. A–i, B–iv, C–iii, D–ii
B. A–i, B–ii, C–iii, D–iv
C. A–ii, B–iv, C–iii, D–i
D. A–iii, B–iv, C–i, D–ii
Question Type : MCQ

Chosen Option : --
Marks : 0
Q.43
Ans
A.
B.
C.
D.
Question Type : MCQ

Chosen Option : --
Marks : 0
Q.44
Ans
A.
B.
C.
D.
Question Type : MCQ

Chosen Option : --
Marks : 0
Q.45
Ans
A.
B.
C.
D.
Question Type : MCQ

Chosen Option : --
Marks : 0
Q.46
Ans A. 0
B. Indeterminate
C. Does not exist
D. −1
Question Type : MCQ

Chosen Option : --
Marks : 0
Q.47
Ans
A.
B.
C.
D.
Question Type : MCQ

Chosen Option : --
Marks : 0
Q.48
Ans
A.
B.
C.
D.
Question Type : MCQ

Chosen Option : --
Marks : 0
Q.49
Ans A. 2,5
B. 1,2
C. 3,4
D. 1,5
Question Type : MCQ

Chosen Option : --
Marks : 0
Q.50
Ans A.
B.
C.
D.
Question Type : MCQ

Chosen Option : --
Marks : 0
Q.51 In a class, there are 22 boys and 12 girls. If the teacher wants to select a boy and a girl
to represent the class in a function, then the total number of selections by teacher is:
Ans A. 22
B. 250
C. 12
D. 264
Question Type : MCQ

Chosen Option : --
Marks : 0
Q.52 The maximum number of points of intersection of 16 circles are:

Ans A. 120
B. 240
C. 60
D. 48
Question Type : MCQ

Chosen Option : --
Marks : 0
Q.53
Ans A. 11
B. 131
C. 12
D. 132
Question Type : MCQ

Chosen Option : --
Marks : 0
Q.54
Ans A. I Quadrant
B. III Quadrant
C. II Quadrant
D. IV Quadrant
Question Type : MCQ

Chosen Option : --
Marks : 0
Q.55 Find the nth term of the AP 5, 8, 11, 14, 17…….

Ans A. 3n + 2
B. n
C. n + 3
D. 3n - 2
Question Type : MCQ

Chosen Option : --
Marks : 0
Q.56
Ans A. 72
B. 600
C. 96
D. 48
Question Type : MCQ

Chosen Option : --
Marks : 0
Q.57
Ans A. A–ii, B–i, C–iv, D–iii
C. A–ii, B–iv, C–i, D–iii
Question Type : MCQ

Chosen Option : --
Marks : 0
Q.58
Ans A. 22
B. 4
C. 2
D. 14
Question Type : MCQ

Chosen Option : --
Marks : 0
Q.59
Ans A.
B.
C.
D.
Question Type : MCQ

Chosen Option : --
Marks : 0
Q.60 Which of the following is NOT a proposition?

Ans
A.
B.
C.
D.
Question Type : MCQ

Chosen Option : --
Marks : 0
Q.61
Ans A.
B.
C.
D.
Question Type : MCQ

Chosen Option : --
Marks : 0
Q.62
Ans A.
B.
C.
D.
Question Type : MCQ

Chosen Option : --
Marks : 0
Q.63
Ans A.
B.
C.
D.
Question Type : MCQ

Chosen Option : --
Marks : 0
Q.64 A boating club consists of 132 members, each member is either a sailboat owner or a
powerboat owner. If 78 members owned sailboats and 58 members owned
powerboats, the number of members owned both sailboat and powerboat is
Ans A. 8
B. 2
C. 6
D. 4
Question Type : MCQ

Chosen Option : --
Marks : 0
Q.65
Ans A.
B.
C.
D.
Question Type : MCQ

Chosen Option : --
Marks : 0
Q.66
Ans A.
B.
C.
D.
Question Type : MCQ

Chosen Option : --
Marks : 0
Q.67
Ans
A.
B.
C.
D.
Question Type : MCQ

Chosen Option : --
Marks : 0
Q.68
Ans A.
B.
C.
D.
Question Type : MCQ

Chosen Option : --
Marks : 0
Section : Biology (Optional)
Q.1 In arthropods, the excretory organ is:

Ans A. malpighian tubules
B. nephrons
C. nephridia
D. renal vein
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A
Marks : 1
Q.2 What is the procedure for introducing foreign DNA into a bacterium?
Ans A. Transformation
B. Amplification
C. Translocation
D. Transcription
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Marks : 0
Q.3 In leucoplasts of plant cells, elaioplasts store:

Ans A. carbohydrates
B. oils and fats
C. starch
D. proteins
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A
Marks : 0
Q.4 Ribosomes are NOT found in:

Ans A. mitochondria
B. cytoplasm
C. centrosome
D. chloroplasts
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C
Marks : 1
Q.5 Animals whose cells are arranged into outer ectoderms, inner endoderm with an
undifferentiated layer mesoglea in between are called:
Ans A. tetrablastic
B. triploblastic
C. monoblastic
D. diploblastic
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Marks : 0
Q.6 The excretory organ in Saccoglossus is:

Ans A. proboscis gland
B. green gland
C. nephridia
D. flame cells
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : D
Marks : 0
Q.7 Select the correct statement from the following.

Ans A. Sebum does not provide protective oily covering for the skin.
B. Kidneys are the only organs which help in elimination of excretory wastes.
C. Liver is the second largest gland in our body.
D. Bile contains substance like bilirubin, biliverdin, cholesterol, degraded steroid

hormones, vitamins and drugs.
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Marks : 0
Q.8 Select the INCORRECT statement with reference to the flower.

Ans A. A typical anther is tetrasporangiate, dithecous and bilobed.
B. The filament of a stamen attached to the thalamus or the petal of the flower.
C. Male gametophyte develops inside the microsporangia.
D. The proximal end of the filament generally bilobed structure called the anther.
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Marks : 0
Q.9 Given dihybrid cross data, which of the following is correctly matched?
Ans A. 3/16 - Green, round
B. 9/16 - Yellow, wrinkled
C. 1/16 - Green, yellow
D. 3/16 - Yellow, round
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Marks : 0
Q.10 Which of the following is true with regard to human reproduction?

Ans A. Males are capable of producing gametes even at old age.
B. Gametogenesis begins after menarche in females.
C. Females can continue producing gametes even at old age.
D. Gametogenesis starts at birth in males.
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Marks : 0
Q.11 Which of the following symptoms is NOT associated with typhoid?

Ans A. Headache
B. Bone fractures
C. Loss of appetite
D. Stomach pain
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Marks : 1
Q.12 All are the volumes of the vital capacity except:

Ans A. TV
B. IRV
C. RV
D. ERV
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : D
Marks : 0
Q.13 The property of contact inhibition of cells is lost in ______ patients.

Ans A. HIV
B. diabetes
C. allergy
D. cancer
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A
Marks : 0
Q.14 Identify the non-infectious disease.

Ans A. Cancer
B. Malaria
C. AIDS
D. Influenza
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A
Marks : 1
Q.15 Long exposure of dust from grinding or stone breaking leads to:
Ans A. liver cirrhosis
B. lung fibrosis
C. heart attack
D. brain tumour
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Marks : 1
Q.16 In leucoplasts of plant cells, elaioplasts store:

Ans A. carbohydrates
B. starch
C. proteins
D. oils and fats
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A
Marks : 1
Q.17 Which accessory pigment acts as antenna complexes and harvests light from different
wavelengths of the spectrum?
Ans A. Carotenoids
B. Chlorophyll c
C. Chlorophyll b
D. Chlorophyll a
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A
Marks : 1
Q.18 Living organisms consist of two kind of materials - somatoplasm and germplasm. Who
among the following scientists proposed this?
Ans A. August Weismann
B. Erich Tschermark
C. Charles Darwin
D. Carl Correns
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A
Marks : 1
Q.19 Under kingdom Protista, diatoms belong to the group:

Ans A. chrysophytes
B. dinoflagellates
C. euglenoids
D. protozoans
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Marks : 0
Q.20 Which process is an energy transfer process?

Ans A. Photosynthesis
B. Transpiration
C. Photoperiodism
D. Vernalisation
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C
Marks : 0
Q.21 Mendel chose garden peas for his experiment. According to him, which of the
following characteristic is correct?
Ans A. Plant produces less number of offspring in one generation.
B. Plant completes its life cycle in two seasons.
C. Plant is unisexual and cross-fertilizing in nature.
D. Plant is easy to grow and crossbreed artificially.
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Marks : 0
Q.22 Emphysema primarily damages the walls of:

Ans A. alveoli
B. bronchioles
C. bronchi
D. trachea
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A
Marks : 1
Q.23 Which of the following statements is true about asexual reproduction?

Ans A. It often includes and multiplies unwanted genes with desired genes.
B. It enables diversity.
C. The genetic information is preserved.
D. It allows for the creation of unique sets of genes.
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C
Marks : 1
Q.24 Which portion of spectrum of light is referred to as photo synthetically active radiation
(PAR)?
Ans A. Between 450 nm and 700 nm
B. Between 400 nm and 700 nm
C. Between 200 nm and 400 nm
D. Between 450 nm and 730 nm
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : D
Marks : 0
Q.25 Who among the following scientists discovered that the product of photosynthesis
was starch?
Ans A. Liebig
B. Sachs
C. Von Mayr
D. De Saussure
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C
Marks : 0
Q.26 Which of the following is also called U-RNA?

Ans A. tRNA
B. mRNA
C. snRNAs
D. hnRNA
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C
Marks : 1
Q.27 Mitochondria divides by:

Ans A. budding
B. fission
C. fusion
D. vegetative propagation
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Marked For Review
Chosen Option : B
Marks : 1
Q.28 Select the correct statement with reference to cerebral cortex.

Ans A. The cerebral cortex is not thrown into prominent folds.
B. In cerebral cortex association areas are absent.
C. The cerebral cortex is referred to as the grey matter due to its greyish appearance.
D. The layer of cells which covers the corpus callosum is called cerebral cortex.
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C
Marks : 1
Q.29 Which of the following statements is INCORRECT?

Ans A. Climate is one of the variables that influence the nature and qualities of soil.
B. Stenohaline organisms are tolerant to a wide salinity range..
C. Osmotic difficulties prevent many freshwater animals from surviving in saltwater.
D. Many creatures are harmed by the UV component of the spectrum.
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C
Marks : 0
Q.30 Within the cell membrane, lipids are arranged as:

Ans A. polar head towards the outer sides and hydrophobic tails towards the inner part
B. polar head and hydrophobic tails, both towards inner part
C. polar head towards the inner part and hydrophobic tails towards the outer side
D. polar head and hydrophobic tails, both towards outside
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A
Marks : 1
Q.31 Production of an inhibitor of brain cell metabolism is the effect of which genetic
disorder?
Ans A. Huntington’s disease
B. Haemophilia A/B
C. Sickle-cell anaemia
D. Phenylketonuria
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : D
Marks : 0
Q.32 Identify the correct statement from the following.

Ans A. Cellular respiration is an anabolic reaction during which harmful CO2 is released.
B. Oxygen is utilised by the organisms to directly break down complex molecules.
C. Mechanisms of breathing vary among different groups of animals depending mainly

on their habitats and levels of organisation.
D. Branchial respiration occurs only in fishes and pulmonary respiration occurs only in
reptiles, birds and mammals.
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Marks : 0
Q.33 Which of the following gives the correct categorisation of three groups of animals
according to the type of nitrogenous wastes they excrete?
Ans A. Ammonotelic-Birds, Ureotelic-Mammals, Uricotelic-Reptiles
B. Ammonotelic- Aquatic mammals, Ureotelic-Aquatic amphibians, Uricotelic-Land

snails
C. Ammonotelic-Aquatic insects, Ureotelic-marine fishes, Uricotelic-Land snails
D. Ammonotelic-Fresh water fishes, Ureotelic-Sharks, Uricotelic-Marine fishes
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A
Marks : 0
Q.34 Generating many duplicates of any template DNA is termed as:

Ans A. plasmid
B. cloning
C. origin of replication
D. gene transfer
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : D
Marks : 0
Q.35 Select the correct statement related to mammary glands.

Ans A. The mammary glands contain fat and variable amount of glandular tissue.
B. The cells of alveoli in mammary lobes secrete milk.
C. The glandular tissue of each breast is divided into 10-12 mammary lobes.
D. Several mammary ampulla join to form a mammary duct.
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Marks : 1
Q.36 How many of the following are the functions of cortisol?
a) Maintenance of the cardiovascular system

b) Maintenance of the kidney functions
c) Promotion of the immune response
d) Stimulation of the RBC production
e) Stimulation of the gluconeogenesis
Ans A. Three
B. Two
C. Five
D. Four
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A
Marks : 0
Q.37 Choose the correct statements.

A) Heart pumps out deoxygenated blood to all the body parts in fishes.
B) Heart pumps out mixed blood in amphibians.
C) Heart pumps out oxygenated and deoxygenated blood separately in birds.
Ans A. B, C only
B. A, B only
C. A, C only
D. A, B, C
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Marks : 0
Q.38
Ans A. a-i, b-iv, c-ii, d-i
B. a-iii, b-ii, c-iv, d-i
C. a- iv, b- i, c-iii, d-ii
D. a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : D
Marks : 1
Q.39 Who among the following scientists crystallised the photosynthetic reaction centre of
bacterium ‘Rhodobcter’?
Ans A. Ruben and Kamen
B. Arnon, Allen and Whatley
C. Emerson and Arnold
D. Huber, Michel and Deisenhofer
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A
Marks : 0
Q.40 Substrate RuBP is for-

Ans A. Photoperiodism
B. Photolysis
C. Photophosphorylation
D. Photorespiration
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C
Marks : 0
Q.41 Approximately, how much percentage of the oxygen in blood is bound to haemoglobin
carried from lungs to tissue?
Ans A. 97%
B. 99.5%
C. 75%
D. 70%
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Marks : 0
Q.42 Which of the following hormones does NOT promote parturition?

Ans A. Oestrogen
B. Oxytocin
C. Cortisol
D. Progesterone
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C
Marks : 0
Q.43 In which form of DNA the number of base pairs per turn of helix is 11?
Ans A. B-DNA
B. A-DNA
C. Z-DNA
D. C-DNA
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C
Marks : 0
Q.44 Identify the INCORRECT statement.

Ans A. Hundreds of microorganism species live in our intestines.
B. Pathogens are a biotic component of habitat.
C. Temperature rises gradually from the equator to the poles.
D. India's tropical rain forest is a significant biome.
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A
Marks : 0
Q.45 Who among the following received the Nobel prize in 1945 for their work on penicillin?
Ans A. Alexander Fleming and Howard Florey
B. Alexander Fleming, Ernest Chain and Howard Florey
C. Alexander Fleming
D. Alexander Fleming and Ernest Chain
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C
Marks : 0
Q.46 Which is the largest phylum of the kingdom Animalia?

Ans A. Echinodermata
B. Arthropoda
C. Annelida
D. Mollusca
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A
Marks : 0
Q.47 In adult humans with reference to each kidney:

Ans A. weight = 170-190g, thickness = 3-5cm, length = 12-15cm, width = 7-9cm
B. weight = 170-190g, thickness = 5-7cm, length = 10-12cm, width = 2-3cm
C. weight = 120-17g, thickness = 10-12cm, length = 5-7cm, width = 2-3cm
D. weight = 120-170g, thickness = 2-3cm, length = 10-12cm, width = 5-7cm
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A
Marks : 0
Q.48 Which of the following flowers blooms at night?

Ans A. Sunflower
B. Red rose
C. Hibiscus
D. Jasmine
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : D
Marks : 1
Q.49 In lichens, the algal component is known as:

Ans A. phycobiont
B. mycelium
C. hyphae
D. mycobiont
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A
Marks : 1
Q.50 Which organ helps in osmoregulation and excretion in organisms of phylum

Annelida?
Ans A. Tube feet
B. Urinary bladder
C. Nephridia
D. Book lungs
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C
Marks : 1
Q.51 It is said that “life on the earth is bottled sun’s energy” for which process?
Ans A. Photosynthesis
B. Transpiration
C. Anaerobic Respiration
D. Aerobic Respiration
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A
Marks : 1
Q.52 The endomembrane system of a cell does NOT include:

Ans A. lysosomes
B. endoplasmic reticulum
C. mitochondria
D. Golgi complex
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A
Marks : 0
Q.53 Four diseases have been given, out of which three are alike in some manner and one
is different. Select the one that is different.
Ans A. Dysentery
B. AIDS
C. Plague
D. Diphtheria
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Marks : 1
Q.54 Read the following statements with respect to respiratory tract
a) Conducting part ends in respiratory bronchioles

b) Alveolar ducts are in exchange part
c) Conducting part humidifies the air enter into respiratory tract
d) As lungs are muscular, their function is independent to the thoracic chamber
In the above, the correct statements are

Ans A. b and c
B. a, b, c and d
C. b, c and d
D. a, b and c
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Marks : 0
Q.55 Seven pairs of contrasting traits in peas were used by Mendel for his experiments.
Which of the following is correctly matched?
Ans A. Seed shape - Inflated/Constricted
B. Seed colour-Violet/Green
C. Pod shape - Round/Wrinkled
D. Flower colour - Violet/White
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : D
Marks : 1
Q.56 Which of the following function as vehicles of energy transfer to dark reaction of
photosynthesis?
Ans A. Phycobilins
B. ATP and NADPH
C. Xanthophylls
D. Carotenes
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C
Marks : 0
Q.57 Which cell organelle is ABSENT in almost all plant cells?

Ans A. Mitochondria
B. Plastids
C. Centrioles
D. Ribosomes
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A
Marks : 0
Q.58 Select the correct combination.

Ans A. Animal group-Birds, Heart -4-chambered Circulation-incomplete double circulation
B. Animal group-Fishes, Heart -2-chambered Circulation-Single circulation
C. Animal group-Amphibians, Heart -3-chambered Circulation-complete double

circulation
D. Animal group-Crocodiles, Heart -3-chambered Circulation-complete double
circulation
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C
Marks : 0
Q.59 Which is NOT the basic shape of bacteria?

Ans A. Comma shaped
B. Pyramid-like
C. Spherical
D. Rod-like
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Marks : 1
Q.60 Select the correct statement from the following.

Ans A. In grass family the cotyledon is called plumule.
B. Early stages of embryo development are similar in both monocotyledons and

dicotyledons.
C. The seeds of dicotyledons and monocotyledons are similar.
D. In dicot embryo, the portion below the level of cotyledon is called coleorhiza.
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A
Marks : 0
Q.61 The birth year of the science of genetics is known as:

Ans A. 1901
B. 1856
C. 1865
D. 1900
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Marks : 0
Q.62 Identify the conformer.

Ans A. Pigeon
B. Human
C. Tiger
D. Frog
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : D
Marks : 1
Q.63 Water vascular system with tube feet is present in animals like:
Ans A. pheretima
B. asterias
C. wuchereria
D. culex
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Marks : 1
Q.64 The organism's constant effort is to keep its internal environment constant. This
process is called:
Ans A. thermoregulation
B. ecological balance
C. internal regulations
D. homeostasis
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : D
Marks : 1
Q.65 What are the two fundamental techniques that allowed contemporary biotechnology to
emerge?
Ans A. Biomedical engineering and Bioprocess engineering
B. Genetic engineering and Bioprocess engineering
C. Biomimetics and Bioprocess engineering
D. Genetic engineering and Chemical engineering
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Marks : 1
Q.66 Statement I: In amniocentesis some of the amniotic fluid of the developing foetus is
taken to analyse the foetal cells and dissolved substances.
Statement II: Amniocentesis is being used to determine presence of certain genetic

disorders such as Down syndrome, hemophilia, Sickle-cell anemia etc.
Ans A. Statement I is correct and statement II is incorrect
B. Both statements I and II are incorrect
C. Both statements I and II are correct
D. Statement I is incorrect and statement II is correct
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C
Marks : 1
Q.67 Which of the following is NOT an example of biotechnology?

Ans A. Repairing a defective gene
B. Genetically modified crops
C. Gene transfer from parent to offspring
D. Creation of a DNA vaccine
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C
Marks : 1
Q.68 Which of the following is NOT a correct difference between anterior pituitary and
posterior pituitary?
Ans A. Many hormones of adenohypophysis act as tropic hormones which is not the case
with neurohypophysis.
B. Anterior pituitary is composed of glandular tissue whereas posterior pituitary is
composed of neural tissue.
C. Adenohypophysis synthesises its own hormones whereas neurohypophysis stores
and releases hypothalamic hormones.
D. Anterior pituitary is regulated by hypothalamic neurons whereas posterior pituitary is
regulated by hypothalamic hormones.
Question Type : MCQ

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C
Marks : 0

OUAT UG Common Entrance Exam 2022 Physics Questions

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OUAT U G Common Entrance Examination 2022 9th and 12th

Option highlighted in green color with is the correct answer

Section : Physics (Compulsory)

Q.1 Sheila conducts an experiment to determine the resistance of a given wire by

Question Type : MCQ

Question Type : MCQ

Question Type : MCQ

Question Type : MCQ

Q.5 In a sonometer experiment, it is observed that the frequency of vibration of stretched

B. Frequency increases by 9.5 Hz

C. Frequency increases by 190.5 Hz

D. Frequency decreases by 190.5 Hz

Question Type : MCQ

Question Type : MCQ

B. May or may not be formed

C. Date is not sufficient

D. Will Always form

Question Type : MCQ

B. 100 m/s and 50 J

C. 50 m/s and 100 J

Question Type : MCQ

Question Type : MCQ

C. nuclear fission and nuclear fusion

Question Type : MCQ

Question Type : MCQ

Question Type : MCQ

C. 1.49 J, 931.5 MeV

D. 1.49 × 10−10J, 931.5 MeV

Question Type : MCQ

B. (a) ionic and covalent (b) molecular

C. (a) molecular (b) ionic and covalent

D. (a) molecular (b) only ionic

Question Type : MCQ

Question Type : MCQ

D. 13.5 sec gain

Question Type : MCQ

Which of the given option(s) is/are correct?

Question Type : MCQ

Question Type : MCQ

Question Type : MCQ

B. v = +20 cm, hi = +10 cm

C. v = −20 cm, hi = −10 cm

D. v = −20 cm, hi = +10 cm

Question Type : MCQ

Question Type : MCQ

Question Type : MCQ

Question Type : MCQ

Question Type : MCQ

Q.25 Which of the following is NOT a compound semiconductor?

Question Type : MCQ

Question Type : MCQ

Question Type : MCQ

Q.28 The image distance for a convex mirror:

D. can be positive or negative

Question Type : MCQ

(A) increasing the number of turns in the solenoid

Which of the given option(s) is/are correct?

Question Type : MCQ

Ans A. P-a, Q-b, R-c, S-d

B. P-d, Q-c, R-d, S-a

C. P-b, Q-d, R-a, S-c