Antivirus UE Midterms

11. Interferon
1. Stage of viral replication blocked by interferon
a. catabolized primarily in kidney and liver
a. Uncoating
b. can cause arthralgia and diarrhea
b. Attachment
c. 10 hrs plasma peak concentration after IV
c. packaging and assembly
injection
d. penetration
d. None of the choices

2. Mechanism of action of acyclovir

12. Oseltamivir
a. selectivity of action depends on three
a. plasma half-life is 5 hours- 6-10 hrs
distinct viral proteins
b. potent selective inhibitor of influenza A
b. inhibits viral RNA
c. oral Oseltamivir phosphate is absorbed
c. has an immunosuppressive agent that
rapidly
potentiates the anti-herpes activity
d. none of the choices
d. none of the choices
13. Docosanol
3. stage of viral replication blocked by Amantadine
a. block fusion between the cellular and viral
a. penetration
envelope
b. attachment
b. inhibits in vivo replication of many lipid
c. packaging
enveloped viruses
d. uncoating
c. inhibits viral shedding
d. none of the choices
4. frequency of intravenous dose of Acyclovir
a. every 8 hrs*
14. treatment of CMV Retinitis that is given at 5mg/kg/7
b. every 24 hrs
days intravenously
c. every 12 hrs
a. foscarnet
d. Every 6 hrs
b. maribavir
c. cidofovir
5. Cytomegalovirus prophylaxis given orally
d. vanciclovir
a. cidofovir
b. ganciclovir***
15. Anti-viral agent that inhibits viral DNA assembly and
c. docosanol
egress of the viral capsid from the nucleus of
d. vancyclovir
infected cells
a. Cidofovir
6. half-life of Acyclovir
b. Docosanol
a. 4 hours
c. Foscarnet
b. 12 hours
d. Maribavir
c. 2.5 hours
d. 1 hour
16. Nucleoside Reverse Transcriptase Inhibitors:
a. Didanosine
7. Cidofovir
b. Efavirenz
a. has an inhibitory activity against Epstein-
c. Nevirapine
Barr virus
d. none of the choices
b. inhibits Acyclovir resistant thymidine kinase
deficient CMV-together w/ foscarnet &
17. Saquinavir
trifluridine
a. codon 90 resistance
c. inhibitory concentrations 0.02ug/ml for
b. slow absorption
adenovirus
c. given 600 milligrams every 12 hours
d. none of the choices
d. none of the choices

8. Topical Acyclovir
18. HIV Protease inhibitors:
a. eliminates viral shedding in papilloma
a. half-life elimination range from 12-15 hours
infected patients
b. enhancement the metamorphosis of HIV
b. in treatment of anogenital warts and
into mature infected forms
molluscum contagiosum in healthy patients
c. cleared mainly through the liver
c. in cervical intraepithelial neoplasia
d. none of the choices
d. none of the choices
19. Nelfinavir
9. Foscarnet
a. Non-peptidic protease
a. penetrates the CNS well
b. absorbed rapidly
b. eliminated by the kidney, large amounts
c. similar to renin inhibitor
accumulate in bone
d. None of the choices
c. an organic pyrophosphate analog which is
inhibitory in some herpesviruses*
20. Indinavir:
d. none of the choices
a. inhibits HIV encoded protease
b. high concentrations with fatty meal
10. Amantadine
c. peaks 2-3 hrs
a. Inhibits to replication of influenza A and B
d. none of the choices
b. inhibits the late step in viral replication-
uncoating
c. in combination with interferon, successful
in treating chronic hepatitis C
d. none of the choices
21. An NNRTI that has a long half-life and whose
principal side effect involves the CNS 30. Taenia solium
a. etravirine a. Bithionol
b. efavirenz b. Mebendazole or Albendazole
c. nevirapine c. Praziquantel
d. delavirdine d. Ivermectin

22. A protease inhibitor That is a prodrug of Amprenavir 31. Cysticercosis (pork tapeworm larval stage)
which is rapidly hydrolyzed by enzymes in the a. Bithionol
intestinal epithelium b. Mebendazole or Albendazole
a. Fosamprenavir c. Praziquantel -alt. drug
b. Lopinavir d. Ivermectin
c. Atanazavir
d. Indinavir 32. Necator americanus (hookworm)
a. Bithionol
23. ***The process of HIV-1 entry into host cells in b. Mebendazole or Albendazole or pyrantel
complex, each step forms a potential target of palmoate
inhibition*** fusion inhibitor**enfuvirtide c. Praziquantel
a. Entecavir- cyclopentyl guanosine nucleoside d. Ivermectin
analog that competitively inhibits all three
functions of HBV 33. Trichuris trichiura (whipworm)
b. DNA polymerase a. Bithionol
c. Maraviroc- entry inhibitor b. Mebendazole or Albendazole
d. Tipranavir- protease inhibitor c. Praziquantel
e. Raltegnavir- ISTI d. Ivermectin

24. A guanosine analog that is phosphorylated 34. Schistosoma japonicum

intracellularly by host Enzymes with oral a. Bithionol
bioavailability of 45-64% b. Mebendazole or Albendazole
a. Amantadine c. Praziquantel
b. Ribavirin d. Ivermectin
c. Telbivudine
d. Imiquimod 35. Fasciola hepatica (sheep liver fluke)
a. Bithionol or triclabendazole
25. Intralesional injection May be used for treatment of b. Mebendazole or Albendazole
Condylomata acuminate: c. Praziquantel
a. Palivizumab d. Ivermectin
b. Imiquimod
c. Ribavirin 36. Ascaris lumbricoides (roundworm)
d. Interferon alfa 2b -or alfa-n3 a. Bithionol
b. Mebendazole or Albendazole or pyrantel
26. Rash, hypersensitivity reaction, nausea, and possible palmoate
increase in myocardial infarction are characteristic c. Praziquantel
adverse effects d. Ivermectin -alt. drug
a. Delavirdine
b. Atazanavir 37. Strongyloides stercoralis (threadworm)
c. Abacavir a. Bithionol
d. Darunavir b. Mebendazole or Albendazole
c. Praziquantel
27. This agent is a pyrimidine analog that is used in d. Ivermectin
treatment of adult patients infected with strains of
HIV-1 resistant to multiple other agents 38. Enterobius vermicularis (pinworm)
a. Indinavir a. Bithionol
b. Enfuviritide b. Mebendazole or Albendazole or pyrantel
c. Lopinavir palmoate
d. Raltegravir c. Praziquantel
d. Ivermectin
28. Characteristic adverse effects are peripheral
neuropathy, pancreatitis, diarrhea, nausea, 39. Active against both mature and immature stages of S
hyperuricemia. Possible increase in myocardial mansoni but does not appear to be cercaricidal. The
infarction mechanism of action is unknown. Contraction and
a. Efavirenz paralysis of the worms results in detachment from
b. Delavirdine terminal venules in the mesentery and transit to the
c. Etravirine liver, where many die; surviving females return to
d. Didanosine the mesenteric vessels but cease to lay eggs. Strains
of S mansoni in different parts of the world vary in
29. A protease inhibitor that inhibits and induces CYP3 4 susceptibility.
system: a. Oxamniquine
a. Indinavir b. Ivermectin
b. Darunavir c. Metrifonate
c. Nelfinavir d. Niclosamide
d. Tipranavir
40. Thought to act against nematodes by inhibiting 51. Vitamin B6- transamination and decarboxylation
microtubule synthesis 52. Vitamin B5- oxidative metabolism of CHO
a. Benzimidazoles 53. Vitamin A- growth and differentiation of epithelial
b. Diethylcarbamazine tissue
c. Oxamniquine
d. Niclosamide 54. Emetine, an alkaloid derived from ipecac, and
dehydroemetine, a synthetic analog, are effective
41. Mode of action is thought to be cholinesterase against tissue trophozoites of E histolytica, but
inhibition because of major toxicity concerns their use is
a. Niclosamide limited to unusual circumstances in which severe
b. Ivermectin amebiasis requires effective therapy and
c. Metrifonate metronidazole cannot be used.
d. Oxamniquine
55. Paromomycin sulfate is an aminoglycoside antibiotic
42. Niclosamide a salicylamide derivative. It appears to that is not significantly absorbed from the
be minimally absorbed from the gastrointestinal gastrointestinal tract. It is used as a luminal
tract—neither the drug nor its metabolites have amebicide and has no effect against extraintestinal
been recovered from the blood or urine. Adult organisms.
worms (but not ova) are rapidly killed, presumably
due to inhibition of oxidative phosphorylation or
stimulation of ATPase activity.

43. Vitamin D
a. 25 hydroxylase
b. Gamma carboxylase
c. Tyrosinase
d. Xanthine oxidase

44. Iron
a. Isomerase
b. Gamma carboxylase
c. Oxidative enzymes
d. Carbonic anhydrase

45. Manganese
a. Superoxide dismutase
b. Isomerase
c. Tyrosinase
d. Translocase

46. Selenium- cofactor of glutathione peroxidase

a. Xanthine oxidase
b. Glutamate decarboxylase
c. 25 hydroxylase
d. Cocarboxylase

47. Molybdenum
a. Cocarboxylase
b. Xanthine oxidase
c. Glutathione peroxidase
d. Translocase

48. Thiamine
a. Superoxide dismutase
b. Carbonic anhydrase
c. Tyrosinase
d. Transketolase

49. Vitamin D
a. Structure of bone and teeth
b. Cofactor for enzyme that catalyzes post-
translational carboxylation of glutamic acid-
vit k
c. Structure of hemoglobin
d. Regulation of calcium homeostasis

50. Chromium
a. Insulin metabolism
b. Constituent of cellular protein- sulfur
c. Component of vit B12
d. Redox reactions